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3417 | non-electoral | 2020 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 636/2019
In the matter between:
CHRISTIAAN JACOBUS VAN MEYEREN
APPELLANT
and
GERALD CLOETE
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Van Meyeren v Cloete (636/2019) [2020] ZASCA 100
(11 September 2020)
Coram:
CACHALIA,
WALLIS
and
MOCUMIE
JJA
and
LEDWABA and WEINER AJJA
Heard:
2 September 2020
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by
circulation to the parties’ representatives by email, publication on the
Supreme Court of Appeal website and release to SAFLII. The date and
time for hand-down is deemed to be 09h45 on 11 September 2020.
Summary: Actio de pauperie – defences – whether to be extended to
include negligence of a third party not in control of animal – no extension
justified.
ORDER
On appeal from: Eastern Cape Division of the High Court, Port
Elizabeth (Lowe J, sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal is dismissed with costs, such costs to include the costs
consequent upon the employment of two counsel.
JUDGMENT
Wallis JA (Cachalia and Mocumie JJA and Ledwaba and Weiner
AJJA concurring)
[1] At about 3.00 pm on Saturday, 18 February 2017, the respondent,
Mr Cloete, an itinerant gardener and refuse collector, was on his way to
the shops pulling the trolley in which he collects refuse down
Rowan Street in Rowallan Park, Port Elizabeth, after completing a job.
For no reason, and without any warning, he was attacked by three dogs
owned by the appellant, Mr van Meyeren. The dogs were cross-breeds,
with a significant component of pit bull terrier. They savaged Mr Cloete
to such an extent that neighbours who came to the scene thought he was
dead. He survived, but his left arm was amputated as a result of his
injuries. The present action is to recover damages from Mr van Meyeren.
[2] Mr Cloete’s claim was pleaded under the actio de pauperie and, in
the alternative, in negligence. The parties agreed to separate the issue of
liability from quantum and the trial was heard before Lowe J in the
Eastern Cape Division of the High Court, Port Elizabeth. He upheld
Mr Cloete’s claim and granted a declaratory order and costs. Leave to
appeal was refused but granted on application to this court.
The facts
[3] These can be taken largely from the judge's summary. Mr Cloete
was in Rowan Street minding his own business. As he passed
Mr van Meyeren’s home he heard the sound of the dogs behind him and
was then attacked and pulled to the ground. He had done nothing
whatsoever to cause or provoke the attack and was lawfully present at the
place where it occurred. He was unable to ward off the dogs, but a passer-
by, Mr van Schalkwyk, fought the dogs off him and chased them away,
while help was sent for. Ultimately the dogs also attacked Mr van
Schalkwyk. They were finally chased away by the police firing shots at
them.
[4] The three dogs rejoiced in the names Mischka, Zeus and Coco.
Mischka was the mother of the other two, but all three were fully grown.
Mr van Meyeren described them as housedogs that had the run of his
home and garden and at night slept on his son’s bed. The garden could be
accessed from the street through the front door of the house, a gate
adjacent to the garages and, potentially at least, another gate adjacent and
at right angles to the front door. It was through the latter gate that the
dogs gained access to Rowan Street before the attack. Photographs taken
after the attack show the one half of the gate open.
[5] Mr van Meyeren had been away from home in Sunday’s River
since the previous Wednesday and Mrs van Meyeren had gone to a family
party. Their son and his girlfriend, Ms Meyer, were there on Saturday
morning, but were out at the time, Ms Meyer having been the last to leave
shortly before two in the afternoon to attend the same party as
Mrs van Meyeren.
[6] Mr and Mrs van Meyeren testified that the gate through which the
dogs escaped was customarily kept closed and locked with two padlocks.
Mrs van Meyeren said that, if her husband needed to open it, he would
simply lift it off its hinges. Be that as it may, the photographs taken on
the day of the incident showed that the one half of the gate (the left hand
side when viewed from inside the property) was open, while the right
hand half appeared to be shut and closed by a bolt located on the pillar of
the central frame and fastened into a socket in the ground. None of these
photographs showed any padlocks or other fastenings for the gates.
[7] A close-up photograph, said by Mr van Meyeren to have been
taken on the following Monday, showed the lower half of a gate with a
bolt held in place by two heavily rusted padlocks. The shackle of one of
these was bent inwards so that it could not close and the other one
apparently did not lock, although the reason for this was not explained. It
could be shut, but could simply be pulled open. Both locks were open in
the photograph. The gate was constructed from unpainted circular tubular
steel, with a single bolt on the left hand side when looking outwards from
the inside of the property. The bolt had a long elliptical shackle at the top
that fitted over an eye attached to the central gate post on the right hand
side of the gate. Like the padlocks, both the shackle and the eye were
heavily rusted. The padlocks were hooked through the eye. The indication
was that the bolt fitted into a socket in the ground. A tubular steel bar
crossed the gate about half way up roughly level with the bolt. The one
vertical bar shown in the lower section of the gate was covered with
chicken wire, but neither it nor the chicken wire extended above the cross
bar.
[8] Mr van Meyeren’s photograph was difficult to reconcile with the
photographs on the day of the incident. None of the features appearing
from his photograph were visible on the photographs taken on the
Saturday, although counsel said he could see them on his copy of the
photographs. Even the bolt holding the one half of the gate closed in the
Saturday photograph appeared to be in the reverse position to that in
Mr van Meyeren’s photograph. A more careful exploration of the factual
position in regard to the gates and padlocks should have been undertaken
at the trial in order to resolve these issues.
[9] There are other difficulties with the suggestion that the padlocks
shown in Mr van Meyeren’s photographs were in position, locked and
holding the gates closed when he and his wife left the property on the
Wednesday and Friday respectively before this incident. The shackle of
the one padlock was so bent that it could not fit into the locking hole of
the padlock. It is difficult to conceive of how any interference with it
could have left it in that situation. Mr van Meyeren was asked how this
could have happened and said he did not know. The extent of the
corrosion and rust on the shackle suggested that it had been in that
condition for some time. As to the other padlock there was no explanation
for it not remaining locked when closed. It too was extensively rusted and
corroded and did not appear to have been closed for some time. But, if it
could close, there was no explanation for it not remaining closed.
[10] All this bore upon the acceptability of Mr van Meyeren’s
explanation of how the dogs came to escape from the property through
gates that were securely locked. The explanation was entirely a matter of
speculation. Its only evidential base was the claim by him and his wife
that the gate was locked with these two padlocks when they left the
property, although they did not say that they had checked the two
padlocks. Based on their having been closed and locked, Mr van Meyeren
said that an unknown intruder must have attempted to gain access to the
property via the gates and in doing so damaged the two padlocks in the
manner shown. In turn this enabled the dogs to escape, either because the
gate was left open or because it enabled the dogs to open it.
[11] How a potential intruder could have done this through the chicken
wire and without attracting the attention of the dogs, which were not
afraid to be aggressive as subsequent events were to prove, is a mystery.
Ms Meyer said in her evidence that she saw the dogs there as she left the
house. Why would they not have confronted an intruder? Why would the
intruder force open these gates which did not lead into the house, instead
of the front door? Ms Meyer said that the front door was ‘broken open’
when she arrived home, but in the photographs the front door is shown
closed and apparently undamaged. Having forced open the gates, why did
the intruder not carry on inside instead of disappearing? Had the intruder
taken fright because of the dogs, one would have expected either that the
dogs would have attacked the intruder, or that someone would have seen
them fleeing the scene. Mr Cloete said that he did not see anyone else
walking in the street. Nor did he hear anything unusual. Other than an
endeavour to suggest that he was intoxicated at the time this was not
challenged. If the gates were opened as a result of some endeavour by an
unidentified person to intrude it was remarkable that this occurred
without the dogs being alerted and without anyone seeing the intruder.
[12] The intruder explanation also posed difficulties with the time line
of events. Ms Meyer left the property at about 2.00 pm and the incident
occurred at about 3.00 pm. During the intervening period a neighbour,
Mr Visser, from 39 Rowan Street, went to borrow a tool from
Mr van Meyeren at 28 Rowan Street and observed that the gates were
closed. He knocked on the front door, but received no response. There
was no suggestion that as he crossed the road from his own house a
possible intruder was seen by him leaving the vicinity. When he
discovered that Mr van Meyeren was not home he went back down the
road to his own home and spoke to his father. He then came out again and
went to the home of another witness Mrs van der Merwe who lived at
41 Rowan Street. There he obtained the tool that he was seeking and
returned home. As he started work on his car he heard a commotion in the
street and went to investigate. He found Mr Cloete lying injured in the
road. Other neighbours had come out to see what caused the commotion.
The three dogs were further down the road. At most a few minutes had
passed since he was in the road. However, there was no suggestion that
anyone who might have been the supposed intruder was about and when
he had gone to the Van Meyeren home the gate was still shut. No
neighbour came forward to say they had seen some other person in the
street. How then did an intruder manage to open the gate, or least break
both padlocks, within what was at most a few minutes and then vanish? If
there was an intruder he appears to have been as elusive as the Scarlet
Pimpernel.1
[12] Notwithstanding these difficulties and the fact that neither
Mr van Meyeren nor his wife were impressive witnesses, the judge said
that he was unable on the probabilities to reject the evidence that the
gates had been locked and that they must have been broken open by an
intruder. In doing so he was particularly influenced by his view that,
given crime statistics in urban areas, gates accessing a road are usually
kept locked. This was not something of which he could properly take
judicial notice. Nor was his view supported by the fact that three large
and potentially dangerous dogs were being kept from the road by the very
same gates. The fact that there were large and potentially dangerous dogs
roaming the garden could equally well conduce to a lack of concern to
lock the gates in the belief that the dogs would protect against intruders.
[13] The approach to this unsatisfactory and speculative evidence was
incorrect. It overlooked the fact that the onus of proof rested on
Mr van Meyeren. There is no obligation on a court to accept an
improbable explanation of events merely because no other positive
explanation is proffered, or the alternative seems to the judge even less
probable.2 There were at least two possibilities. The one was that the
1 Baroness Orczy The Scarlet Pimpernel Chapter 12.
2 Rhesa Shipping Co SA v Edmunds (The Popi M) [1985] 2 All ER 712 (HL). In that case a ship sank in
calm waters and fair weather. At the trial two alternative explanations were proffered for this, namely,
that it had struck a submarine object, or that its plates ruptured due to prolonged structural wear and
tear. The judge regarded the former as inherently improbable and the latter as virtually impossible and
found for the plaintiff. On appeal the House of Lords pointed out that there is no obligation on a court
faced with two improbable versions to select the least improbable. It is always open to it to hold that
the onus of proof has not been discharged. It rejected the notion that the court must follow Sherlock
Holmes’ dictum from The Sign of Four by Sir Arthur Conan Doyle that ‘when you have eliminated the
impossible, whatever remains, however improbable, must be the truth.’ The issue is not which of
gates were insufficiently secured to keep the dogs inside the Van
Meyeren property. The other was the Van Meyerens’ explanation that
there must have been an intruder. The fact that the judge did not feel able
to reject their evidence did not mean that he was obliged to accept it. The
issue was whether on a balance of probabilities theirs was the only
explanation for the dogs escaping. Unless that conclusion could be
reached Mr van Meyeren did not discharge the onus of proof and the
defence should have failed.
[14] Mr van der Linde SC, who appeared in this court for Mr Cloete,
but not at the trial, said he was arguing the appeal on the basis of the
judge's factual findings. It is accordingly necessary, notwithstanding my
qualms about the premise of the hypothetical intruder, to determine
whether the judge was correct that these did not constitute a defence to
the pauperien action.
The actio de pauperie
[15] I trust legal historians will forgive me for not commencing the
discussion by going back to the roots of the actio de pauperie in the Law
of the Twelve Tables and the relevant passages in the Digest of Justinian.
I refrain from doing so not simply because this has become overworked
terrain,3 but because the task was undertaken by this court in
O’Callaghan NO v Chaplin,4 where Innes CJ (with whom De Villiers JA
several possibilities is the least unlikely, but whether any one of them is on a balance of probabilities
the correct one. Datec Electonics Holdings Ltd and Others v United Parcel Services Ltd [2007] UKHL
23; [2007] 2 Lloyd's Rep 114 (HL) paras 48 and 50.
3 Loriza Brahman and Another v Dippenaar 2002 (2) SA 477 (SCA) (Loriza Brahman) para 12.
4 O’Callaghan NO v Chaplin 1927 AD 310.
concurred) in his customary lucid fashion, summarised the law as
follows:5
‘By our law, therefore, the owner of a dog, that attacks a person who was lawfully at
the place where he was injured, and who neither provoked the attack nor by his
negligence contributed to his own injury, is liable, as owner, to make good the
resulting damage. The same principle applies to injuries inflicted by a dog on another
animal, and to injuries inflicted by any animals falling within the operation of the
pauperien law. It is confined of course to cases where liability is based upon
ownership alone. Actions may be founded under appropriate circumstances on culpa,
and they will be governed by the ordinary rules regulating Aquilian procedure. The
conclusion is satisfactory for two reasons especially. In the first place it provides a
remedy in cases where otherwise persons injured would be remediless. Instances must
occur where a dog, a bull or other domesticated animal inflicts damage under
circumstances which make it impossible to bring home negligence to the owner. Yet
of two such persons it is right that the owner, and not the innocent sufferer, should
bear the loss. And in the second place the adoption of culpa as the sole basis of
liability would inevitably lead us towards the scienter test . . . which it is common
cause is not the test which our law applies in cases of this kind.’
[16] The reference to the scienter test was a reference to the doctrine of
the English common law that strict liability follows the owner of an
animal if the owner was aware of the animal’s proclivity to engage in the
conduct that caused the harm. Thus if an owner was aware of their dog’s
tendency to bite people, the owner would be liable if the dog bit someone.
In the result it is sometimes referred to as 'the one free bite' rule. If the
owner was aware that the dog has a tendency to chase cyclists and the
dog chases a cyclist causing them to fall off their bicycle and injure
5 O’Callaghan NO v Chaplin at 329-330.
themselves, the owner will be liable.6 In South Africa there is no such
requirement and strict liability is imposed on the owner of the animal.
[17] In a clear statement of the policy justification for the continued
existence of the pauperien action, notwithstanding that the original
provision of the Roman Law that an owner could discharge their liability
under the action by surrendering the offending animal to the injured
party7 had fallen into desuetude, Kotzé JA (with whom Stratford AJA
concurred) arrived at the same conclusion as the Chief Justice, and said:8
‘It is satisfactory to find that the actio de pauperie still forms part of our law . . . I
think the conclusion is a sound one and just, for if a man chooses to keep an animal,
and injury or damage is caused by it to an innocent person, he must make adequate
compensation. The owner of the animal and not the person injured must bear the loss.’
[18] Three years later De Villiers JA, giving the judgment in SAR & H v
Edwards9 said:
‘The action lies against the owner in respect of harm (pauperies) done by
domesticated animals . . . if the animal does damage from inward excitement or, as it
is also called, from vice, it is said to act contra naturam sui generis; its behaviour is
not considered such as is usual with a well-behaved animal of the kind.’
The endeavour in Loriza Brahman to persuade this court to abolish the
pauperien action failed.
6 Gallant v Slootweg 2014 BCSC 1579. For a full treatment of the doctrine see the working paper of the
Law Reform Commission, Ireland on Civil Liability for Animals, chapter 2, available at
https://publications.lawreform.ie/Portal/External/en-GB/RecordView/Index/30539.
The
rule
was
sufficiently problematic that various statutes were passed in Ireland, England and Scotland in the
1800's to impose liability apart from the common law. See Le Roux and others v Fick [1879] 9 Buch 29
(Le Roux v Fick) at 34-35.
7 This was called noxal surrender.
8 O’Callaghan NO v Chaplin at 365-366.
9 South African Railways and Harbours v Edwards 1930 AD 3 at 9-10.
[19] An element of anthropomorphism underlies the pauperien action. It
attributes to domesticated animals the self-constraints that are generally
associated with human beings and attaches strict liability to the owner on
the basis of the animal having acted from internal vice. As De Villiers JA
said:
‘Dating back as this form of remedy does to the most primitive times, the idea
underlying the actio de pauperie, an idea which is still at the root of the action was to
render the owner liable only in cases where so to speak the fault lay with the animal.
In other words for the owner to be liable, there must be something equivalent to culpa
in the conduct of the animal.’
This anthropomorphism is reflected in the concept of the animal acting
contra naturam sui generis. That is well described as follows:10
‘The contra naturam concept seems, in fact, to have come to connote ferocious
conduct contrary to the gentle behaviour normally expected of domestic animals. This
imports an objective standard suited to humans. It is far more refined than behaviour
literally natural to that species of animal. It is what Voet, 9.1.4, means when he
speaks of animalia mansueta feritatem assumunt.’
If the conduct of the animal that caused the harm was due to its being
frightened, or in pain, or provoked and it acted as any animal would in the
circumstances, then it has not acted contra naturam and the owner is not
liable.11 The onus of establishing this rests on the owner of the animal. 12
10 P M A Hunt 'Bad Dogs' (1962) 79 SALJ 326 at 328 quoted in Solomon and Another NNO v De Waal
1972 (1) SA 575 (A) at 582A-C.
11 In Loriza Brahman para 19 Olivier JA expressed this as follows:
‘As die skadestigtende optrede egter veroorsaak is omdat die dier skrikgemaak is, of leed of pyn
aangedoen is of geprovokeer is, dan is die optrede nie contra naturam nie, maar juis ooreenkomstig die
aard van 'n dier omdat alle diere so sal optree; en is daar geen aanspreeklikheid nie.’
‘If the harm-causing occurrence was truly caused because the animal was frightened, or is suffering or
in pain, or was provoked, then the occurrence was not contra naturam, but accords with the way in
which all animals would behave and there is no liability.’(My translation.)
See by way of example Cowell v Friedman & Co 5 HCG 22.
12 Da Silva v Coetzee 1970 (3) SA 603 (T) at 604A-B approved in Loriza Brahman para 20.
[20] In O'Callaghan NO v Chaplin two circumstances were identified in
which the owner would not be liable. The first was where the injured
party was in a place where they were not entitled to be. The obvious
example would be that of a housebreaker bitten by a watch dog. Another
would be where the animal was chained to restrain it and the injured party
ventured within reach. However, in general, if the harm occurred in a
public place, such as a public street, the owner would be liable.13 The
second exception was the relatively obvious one where the injured party
or a third party provoked the attack by goading or provoking the animal.
The application of these defences where children are involved may create
problems, for example, where a child enters a neighbouring garden to
retrieve a lost ball, or where one child teases a dog and the dog bites
another child. I would also be hesitant to say that the homeowner was free
from liability because the intruder was in the wrong place, if a watchdog
savaged the intruder in the way these three dogs savaged Mr Cloete.
However, these problems do not arise in this case and can be left for
consideration when such a case arises.
The exception to pauperien liability in Lever v Purdy
[21] That brief outline of the pauperien action in South African law
brings me to the decision of this court in Lever v Purdy,14 a dog bite case,
where a third exception was recognised to the strict liability of the owner
of a domestic animal. It is best to start with its facts. Mr Lever was the
owner of a dog that bit Mr Purdy. At the time of the incident Mr Lever
was overseas and Mr Cohen was living in his home and looking after Mr
Lever's admittedly vicious dog. At Mr Cohen’s request Mr Purdy came to
the house to adjust a television set. He was told about the dog and asked
13 Le Roux v Fick; Solomon and Another NNO v De Waal ibid at 582C-F.
14 Lever v Purdy 1993 (3) SA 17 (A).
Mr Cohen to lock it away before his arrival. Mr Cohen did not do so.
When Mr Purdy reached the house at between 6:30 pm and 7:00 pm he
walked up the path, put his hand on the gate and shouted for Mr Cohen.
At this point the dog suddenly appeared and bit him, pulling him through
the gate. When Mr Cohen emerged, he took control of the dog. After Mr
Lever’s return Mr Purdy sued him for damages.
[22] The question was whether Mr Lever could escape liability on the
grounds of Mr Cohen’s negligence, even though he had not provoked the
dog to attack Mr Purdy.15 The court said that he could. In this case
Mr van Meyeren contended that the defence recognised in Lever v Purdy
should be extended to exempt the owner from liability for harm caused by
the animal where the harm would not have occurred but for the negligent
conduct of a third party, irrespective of whether the third party had the
custody or control of the animal. That requires in the first instance an
analysis of what was decided in Lever v Purdy. There were two
judgments, one by Joubert ACJ and another by Kumleben JA, both
reaching the same conclusion. I will analyse each in turn.
[23] Joubert ACJ, in the majority judgment, considered the Roman Law
of pauperien liability as contained in Justinian's Digest. Referring to
various texts in D 9.1 he dealt with those instances in which the culpable
conduct of a third party caused a domesticated animal to act contrary to
the nature of its class in injuring the victim, with the result that the
animal's owner was exempted from pauperien liability. These he divided
into two categories. The first category consisted of cases where the
culpable conduct of an outsider by way of some positive act, such as,
15 Lever v Purdy at 20H-I.
provoking, striking, wounding, scaring or annoying the animal, caused
the animal to inflict the injury upon the victim.16 The second category
related to those instances where a third party, in charge or control of the
animal, by negligent conduct failed to prevent the animal from causing
harm to the victim.17 The difference between these two categories was
this. In the first category the positive act of the third party caused the
animal to injure the victim. In the second the third party's negligent
failure to prevent the animal from injuring the victim created the
opportunity for the animal to injure the victim, without causing it to do
so. In both cases the conduct of the third party attracted liability under the
Aquilian action and exonerated the owner from pauperien liability. After
a survey of the Roman-Dutch writers, Joubert ACJ concluded that their
law was the same as that set out in the Digest. As Mr Cohen's conduct fell
in the second category, Mr Lever was not liable to compensate Mr Purdy
for his injuries.
[24] Kumleben JA adopted a different approach. He agreed that in the
first category of cases, where the third party incited or provoked the
animal to behave contra naturam sui generis by striking, wounding,
scaring or annoying it, the conduct of the third party caused the harm and
pauperien liability was excluded. He identified what he described as a
'wider exception'18 whether fault on the part of a third party causatively
contributing to the injury caused by the animal would also constitute a
defence. He illustrated this with the example of a visitor leaving a gate
open thereby enabling a vicious dog to escape and attack some innocent
16 Lever v Purdy at 21F-H.
17 Lever v Purdy at 21H-24B.
18 Lever v Purdy at 26F-I.
passer-by, suggesting that there was some authority in support of such a
defence.19 However, he added that this question did not need to be
decided as the only question in the case was whether the negligence of a
person to whom the owner had entrusted the custody and control of an
animal relieved the owner of pauperien liability.
[25] Neither judgment cited any clear authority in favour of the
existence of the exception. The closest to it was D 9.1.1.5 (a text by
Ulpian), which in Watson's translation reads:
‘Take the case of a dog which, while being taken out on a lead by someone, breaks
loose on account of its wildness and does some harm to someone else: If it could have
been better restrained by someone else or if it should never have been taken to that
particular place, this action will not lie and the person who had the dog on the lead
will be liable.’20
Joubert ACJ's judgment in Lever v Purdy was based solely on his reading
of these texts. In his view they showed that a person having the custody
or control of an animal, who through negligence failed to control it
resulting in it injuring the victim, was liable under the Aquilian action
and this constituted a defence exonerating the owner from pauperien
liability.21
19 Van Leeuwen Censura Forensis 1.5.13.1; Le Roux and Others v Fick op cit fn 15, Lawsa Vol 1, para
378.
20 Joubert ACJ also relied on Johannes Voet Commentarius ad Pandectas (Gane's translation) 9.1.6,
which is almost verbatim the same, namely:
‘Then again, if a dog, when he was being led by someone, escaped through his own rough temper and
did damage to somebody, or killed another person's sheep, hens or geese, and if he could have been
more firmly held in by another or ought not to have been led over such a spot, this action
on pauperies falls away but there is room for a beneficial Aquilian action against the leader.’
(Emphasis by Joubert ACJ). No regard appears to have been had to this in the case of Carelse v City of
Cape Town (Eksteen and another as third parties) [2019] 2 All SA 125 (WCC), where the owner of the
dog was held liable, even though the dog had been in the care of his son at the time.
21 Lever v Purdy at 25I-26A.
[26] Kumleben JA relied on the same authority as recognising the
exception. He accepted that a feature of pauperien strict liability was that
the owner was the source of risk to the injured party. However, the main
considerations influencing his conclusion that the exception existed
appear from the following passage:22
‘It must also be borne in mind that liability without fault runs counter to fundamental
legal precept, though in certain instances considerations of social policy no doubt
justify its existence. Where the owner of an animal has taken care to entrust it to
another as its custodian, the former has ex hypothesi no means of exercising control
over it. Competing interests are plainly at stake. Should the owner in such a case be
held liable in the absence of any fault on his part or should the injured person be
restricted to an action against the negligent custodian? Dictates of fairness and justice,
to my mind, favour the owner and warrant the recognition of the exception in issue.’
A wider exception?
[27] Apart from the passing reference to the 'wider exception' at the
outset of Kumleben JA's judgment, nothing in Lever v Purdy provides
any support for the wider exception for which Mr van Meyeren
contended. Counsel referred us to various passages in Joubert ACJ's
judgment, but they all fell to be considered in the specific context,
reiterated several times, that he was concerned with a third party in
charge or control of the animal.23 They cannot be taken as shedding any
light on the present situation.
[28] The case of Le Roux v Fick hardly takes the matter further. The
owner of a dog was proceeding in a cart along a public road and his dog
was walking along the road with him. Some ostriches were grazing on a
22 Lever v Purdy at 29G-I.
23 See Lever v Purdy at 20H-I, 21F-I, 23H-J; 24B-C and E-F; 25D-G.
commonage beside the road and the dog, together with another one that
had attached itself to the party, chased the birds, causing one to fall into a
sluit and injure itself so badly that it died. After a full consideration of the
authorities Smith J said: 24
‘… an action de pauperie lay in all cases of damage caused by animals when the
damage was not brought about through the fault of the party using the animal or of
some third party’ (My emphasis.)
Those few words provide but slender support for the proposition that fault
on the part of a third party in circumstances such as the present case
exonerates the owner from liability.
[29] The passage from Van Leeuwen is likewise of little help. It reads:25
‘I said aut culpa hominis (or negligence on the part of a human being) because if there
is negligence on the part of the owner or of anyone else, this action lapses and a suit is
brought under the Lex Aquilia, for example if a mule does damage because of the
unevenness of the road, or the negligence of the muleteer, or because it was too
heavily loaded or was provoked by someone, or if the animal acted in some way on
account of human inexperience or negligence or when aroused by pain.’ (My
emphasis.)
The example of the muleteer is clearly not an example of the mule acting
contra naturam sui generis. Nor is the example of the animal being
aroused by pain.26 Provocation by the victim or a third party has always
been recognised as providing a defence. The reference to the animal
acting in a way caused by human inexperience or negligence is too vague
and general to be helpful.
24 Le Roux v Fick at 37.
25 Simon van Leeuwen, Censura Forensis 1.5.13.3 (translated by Margaret Hewett, 1991). There is no
corresponding passage in the discussion of pauperien liability in his Commentaries on Roman-Dutch
Law.
26 See Cowell v Friedman & Co, op cit, fn 13.
[30] The current edition of Lawsa is inconsistent on the subject. When
dealing generally with the defences available to the owner of an animal
sued under the action de pauperie it says that culpable conduct on the
part of a third party avoids liability. However, in the section dealing with
fault on the part of a third party it goes no further than Lever v Purdy,
without suggesting that the exception in that case should be extended.27 In
the first edition cited by Kumleben J the author gave two examples of
negligent conduct by a third party exonerating the owner from liability.
The one was where the third party provoked or injured the animal and the
other where a person having control of the animal was negligent. Neither
supported an exception from liability extending any further than that
recognised in Lever v Purdy.
[31] At best it seems to me that these rather cryptic references in and to
the old writers on the Roman-Dutch law provide no clear authority in
favour of extending an owner's exemption from liability for harm caused
by their animal to instances where a third party's negligence is involved
without the third party having the custody or control of the animal. Voet28
mentions one example that appears to be inconsistent with the extension.
He said that where A is persuaded by B's fraud to approach a horse that B
knows is apt to kick, and A is kicked even though B did not provoke the
horse, A's action is correctly brought against the owner on pauperies,
although B may also be sued. But overall any development of the
principles governing pauperien liability and the defences available to an
owner is best sought in modern principles and circumstances, rather than
27 LAWSA Vol 1 (3 ed, 2013) per C G van der Merwe and M A Rabie, paras 407 and 410. The first of
these paragraphs was cited in the heads of argument, but not the second.
28 Voet 9.1.5, Gane's translation, Vol 2, pp 539-540.
obscure references to ambiguous authorities drawn from a different era in
a very different society.
[32] Mr van Meyeren wished us to develop the common law by
extending the exception to liability under the pauperien action recognised
by this court in Lever v Purdy. This is a power vested in the high court,
this court and the Constitutional Court by s 173 of the Constitution. It is
to be exercised in accordance with the interests of justice. When
exercising the power, we are enjoined by s 39(2) of the Constitution to
promote the spirit, purport and objects of the Bill of Rights. Before
adopting any development it is incumbent on a court to (a) determine
exactly what the common law position is; (b) then consider the
underlying reasons for it; and (c) enquire whether the rule offends the
spirit, purport and object of the Bill of Rights and thus requires
development. Furthermore, it must (d) consider precisely how the
common law could be amended; and (e) take into account the wider
consequences of the proposed change on that area of law.29
[33] The underlying reason for the existence of the actio de pauperie is
that as between the owner of an animal and the innocent victim of harm
caused by the animal, it is appropriate for the owner to bear the
responsibility for that harm. Dekker, in a note to the passage from Van
Leeuwen's Commentaries dealing with the actio de pauperie, said:30
‘… there is no absurdity in obliging him to make compensation whose animal has
caused the damage, or who has excited and goaded it on to the damage of another …’.
29 Mighty Solutions (Pty) Ltd t/a Orlando Service Station v Engen Petroleum Ltd and Another [2015]
ZACC 34; 2016 (1) SA 621 (CC) para 38.
30 Van Leeuwen's Commentaries on Roman-Dutch Law 3.39.5 and 3.39.6 in the edition revised and
edited by Decker (Kotzé's translation, 1923) Vol 2, pp 319-320 fn (c).
This rationale is almost precisely the same as that of Innes CJ and
Kotzé JA in O'Callaghan NO v Chaplin, namely that, in general,
ownership of an animal should carry with it strict liability for any harm
done by the animal. In other countries, hampered by the English common
law scienter rule, that position has been enshrined in statute for nearly
two centuries.
[34] Counsel for Mr van Meyeren said that he did not rely on any
specific provision of the Bill of Rights. He did not suggest that the
existing more limited exceptions offended the spirit, purport and objects
of the Bill of Rights. In that he was correct because the only relevant
provisions of the Bill of Rights point in the opposite direction. They are
the right to bodily integrity in s 12(2), the right to dignity in s 10 and, as
the facts of this case demonstrate, the right to life in s 11. These are the
rights that the actio exists to protect and it is right that we prefer to
develop the actio in ways that afford protection to them.
[35] Counsel submitted that given the level of crime in South Africa
people are entitled to protect their persons and homes against criminals.31
That is a proposition that would be uncontroversial even were the crime
level lower. He went on to submit that not all the population can afford to
live in gated and secure estates, or to install state of the art alarm systems.
They may be compelled to rely on their dogs to guard their homes against
criminals. Thus far the submission cannot be faulted, subject to the
reservation mentioned earlier as to the degree of harm that a dog may do
to an intruder. Deterrence or restraint of an intruder is one thing. Killing
31 Dorland and Another v Smits 2002 (5) SA 374 (C) at 384.
or seriously injuring them is another. Only in extreme circumstances is it
permissible to shoot and kill an intruder in self-defence. Why then should
it be permissible to keep a dog that, irrespective of the level of threat,
may kill or maim them? Innes CJ spoke only of a trespasser being bitten
by a watchdog.32 However, that question does not need to be answered in
this case.
[36] The problem arises at the next stage of the argument. These dogs
did not harm an intruder in their owner's home or premises, within
whatever limits may be permissible in law. They escaped from the
premises and attacked an innocent passer-by. However extensive may be
the right to keep dogs for protection in the home, it is irrelevant to cases
where the dog causes harm outside the home. Mr van Meyeren does not
dispute that the requirements of pauperien liability were satisfied. He
sought to escape liability on the basis that what occurred here was not his
fault. But absence of fault has never been a basis for avoiding pauperien
liability. It proceeds on the basis of strict liability arising from ownership
of the animal that caused the harm. Absence of fault is a ground for
resisting Aquilian liability, not a claim under the actio.
[37] Where the actions of the victim or third parties are held to
exonerate the owner of an animal from pauperien liability, it is because
those actions directly caused the incident in which the victim was harmed
in circumstances where the owner could not prevent that harm from
occurring. That is why provocation of the animal by the victim or a third
party exonerates the owner. It is also why in Lever v Purdy the negligent
32 O’Callaghan NO v Chaplin at 329.
failure by a third party to control an animal in their custody and under
their control exonerated the owner. The result in that case would have
been no different if Mr Lever had placed the dog in kennels for the
duration of his absence. These causes are not extrinsic to the conduct that
caused the harm. They are directly linked to it. An extrinsic cause such as
leaving a gate open and allowing animals to escape from the owner's
property has nothing to do with the behaviour of those animals once they
have escaped. If they are naturally vicious or dangerous, as appears to
have been the case with the dogs in this case, that merely creates a wider
opportunity for that characteristic to manifest itself in harming innocent
persons.
[38] The assumed intruder in this case had no responsibility to
Mr van Meyeren in relation to his dogs. They did nothing in relation to
the dogs. They interfered with the locks on the gate thereby enabling the
dogs to go into the street and attack Mr Cloete. But responsibility for the
dogs had not passed from Mr van Meyeren to the intruder in the way in
which it had passed from Mr Lever to Mr Cohen. It still resided squarely
with him as the owner of the dogs. It was contended on his behalf that he
should not be held liable, because he took appropriate steps to ensure that
the dogs could not escape from the premises.
[39] I repeat that stripped of everything else Mr van Meyeren's
argument is nothing more than a claim that Mr Cloete's injuries were not
his fault. Counsel recognised this, as he first sought to persuade us that
control of the animal by the person whose negligence allowed them to
escape, was not a requisite for the extended exception to operate. In my
view that cannot be accepted as it is destructive of the need for there to be
a direct link between the third party's conduct and the behaviour of the
animal that caused the harm in order for the owner to be exonerated from
liability. While the third party's conduct might be causally linked to the
harm, it stands at one remove from it, in that it may be a necessary
condition for the harm to occur, but the harm would not necessarily occur
as a result thereof. For example, if the owner came home and rounded the
dogs up before they could do any harm it would be avoided. That is not
the case in the instances where a third party's conduct exonerates the
owner from liability.
[40] Kumleben JA laid store on the principle of our law of delict that
liability goes hand in hand with fault. However, the principle is by no
means universal in its application. In the field of vicarious liability the
nature of the relationship between the wrongdoer and the party sought to
be held liable is what determines liability. The fault of the wrongdoer for
all practical purposes is treated as if it were the fault of the party being
held liable. Under some statutes, especially those dealing with
environmental matters, civil liability is imposed irrespective of fault.33
There are criminal statutes that impose strict liability. For nearly two
hundred years in South Africa owners of animals have been held strictly
liable for harm done by domesticated animals. This court has rejected the
argument that this should be abolished because it was not based on fault.
It would in my view be inappropriate to undermine the principle of strict
liability for harm caused by domesticated animals by extending the
exception in Lever v Purdy.
33 See for example s 28 of the National Environmental Management Act 107 of 1998; Section 9 of the
Marine Pollution (Control and Civil Liability) Act 6 of 1981.
[41] Kumleben JA also took the view that in considering the competing
interests of the owner who had not been at fault and the injured party who
had a claim based on negligence against the custodian of the dog,
considerations of fairness and justice favoured the owner. I am
unconvinced that this was a correct balancing of interests if one takes the
interests of justice into account in accordance with the constitutional
values already mentioned. In Lever v Purdy the injured plaintiff's claim
based on negligence was worthless as it was settled without any amount
being paid to Mr Purdy. Many people go on holiday and leave their
homes in the care of house sitters. Those may be friends, the children of
friends, students, retirees or young people seeking to supplement their
income. Their financial ability to meet a claim for damages arising from
the family dog biting a passer-by will probably be limited. The same is
true of the dog walkers postulated by counsel, although if they are
negligent the owner may be vicariously liable. By contrast the dog's
owner is likely to be able to obtain insurance cover against the risk of the
animal biting someone as part of a conventional household insurance
policy.
[42] Many people in South Africa choose to own animals for
companionship and protection. That is their choice, but responsibilities
follow in its wake. Whatever anthropomorphic concepts underpin
pauperien liability, the reality is that animals can cause harm to people
and property in various ways. When they do so and the victim of their
actions is innocent of fault for the harm they have caused, the interests of
justice require that as between the owner and the injured party it is the
owner who should be held liable for that harm. In taking that view I find
myself in the company of the majority of this court in O'Callaghan NO v
Chaplin. Nothing has occurred in over ninety years since that case was
decided to change the view of the interests of justice taken in that case.
The endeavours to suggest that they have changed in more modern times
is misplaced. If anything with the growth of urban living, the vastly
increased number of pet animals, especially dogs, in our towns and cities
and the opportunities for harm that they pose, that view of where the
interests of justice lie has been strengthened. People are entitled to walk
our streets without having to fear being attacked by dogs and, where such
attacks occur, they should in most circumstances be able to look to the
owner of the dog for recompense.
Result
[43] In the result the appeal is dismissed with costs, such costs to
include those consequent upon the employment of two counsel.
_________________
M J D WALLIS
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
D J Coetzee
Instructed by:
BDP Attorneys, Tyger Valley;
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
H J van der Linde SC (with him N Barnard)
Instructed by:
Lessing, Heyns, Keyter & Van der Bank Inc,
Uitenhage
Van Wyk & Preller Inc, Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME
COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
11 September 2020
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment.
Van Meyeren v Cloete (636/2019) [2020] ZASCA 100 (11 September 2020)
The SCA today dismissed an appeal by Mr van Meyeren against a finding by
the Eastern Cape Division of the High Court, Port Elizabeth that he was liable
to compensate Mr Cloete for injuries suffered by him when set upon by
Mr van Meyeren's three dogs in the street outside Mr van Meyeren's house in
Port Elizabeth. Mr Cloete, an itinerant gardener and refuse collector, was on
his way to the shops pulling his trolley, when he was attacked without any
warning or reason by the dogs. His injuries were serious and resulted in the
loss of his left arm.
Mr van Meyeren and his family were not home at the time of the attack. The
basis for the defence to the claim was that the dogs had been locked inside the
property, but an intruder must have endeavoured to gain access through a
locked gate, broken both padlocks fastening it and either left the gate open or
in a state where the dogs could open it. The case was argued on the basis that
this was in fact what had occurred.
Mr Cloete's claim was based upon the legal principle dating back to the Roman
Law that the owner of a domesticated animal is ordinarily held strictly liable for
harm caused by that animal. The injured party does not have to prove
negligence on their part. There are three recognised defences to such a claim,
namely that the injured party was in a place where they had no right to be; that
the animal was provoked either by the injured party or a third party; and that
custody and control of the animal has passed to a third party who negligently
failed to prevent the animal from causing the harm. Mr van Meyeren's argument
that these defences should be extended to include any situation where the harm
was caused by negligence on the part of any third party was rejected by the
court. It held that constitutional norms did not justify such an extension. Where
harm is caused by a domesticated animal, it is in principle appropriate that
responsibility for that harm rests with the owner of the animal and not the injured
party. |
3499 | non-electoral | 2020 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case no: 1327/2019
In the matter between:
CHARL DANIEL WILKE NO
FIRST APPELLANT
THERESA WILKE NO
SECOND APPELLANT
T ROOS INDEPENDENT TRUSTEE (EDMS) BPK
THIRD APPELLANT
and
GRIEKWALAND WES KORPORATIEF LTD
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Wilke NO & Others v Griekwaland Wes Korporatief Ltd
(1327/2019) [2020] ZASCA 182 (23 December 2020)
Coram:
NAVSA, MOCUMIE, SCHIPPERS and DLODLO JJA and
LEDWABA AJA
Heard:
11 November 2020
Delivered:
This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation
to the parties’ legal representatives by email. It has been published on the website
of the Supreme Court of Appeal and released to SAFLII. The date and time for
hand-down is deemed to be 10h00 on 23 December 2020.
Summary: Civil procedure – action by creditor based on acknowledgement of debt
which related only to arrears – judgment in favour of debtor on basis that amount
of indebtedness not established – subsequent claim by debtor and surety for
cancellation of surety bond – given as security for debt – creditor claiming
entitlement to security on basis of underlying original causes of debt –
acknowledgment of debt reserving creditor’s rights in relation to original causes or
finance agreements – whether creditor precluded by res judicata or issue estoppel
– not same relief on same ground –– appeal dismissed.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Free State Division of the High Court, Bloemfontein (Daffue J
sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal is dismissed with costs including costs consequent upon the
employment of two counsel.
________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
Dlodlo JA (Navsa, Mocumie and Schippers JJA and Ledwaba AJA
concurring):
[1] The appellants are the trustees of Wilke Boerdery Trust (the Trust). In
February 2019 they launched an application in the Free State Division of the High
Court, Bloemfontein (the high court), for an order directing the respondent,
Griekwaland Wes Korporatief Bpk (GWK), to cancel a surety bond registered in its
favour in 2003, over two farms in Jacobsdal in the Free State Province (the surety
bond). The surety bond was registered by Mr Charl Daniel Wilke (Wilke), and
Henque 4335 CC (Henque) as security for goods sold and delivered, production
credit granted and monies lent and advanced by GWK to them in the amounts of
R 4 million (Wilke) and R 1 million (Henque), in respect of their farming operations.
The Trust had bound itself to GWK as surety and co-principal debtor in a total
amount of R 5 million, for the due fulfilment of the obligations by the principal
debtors, Wilke and Henque. The high court (Daffue J) dismissed the application
with costs and held that the Trust remained bound as surety to GWK under the
surety bond. The appeal is with its leave.
[2] Since August 2004, GWK extended credit to Henque and Karob Boerdery
(Pty) Ltd (Karob), formerly known as CD Wilke Boerderye, pursuant to numerous
credit agreements (the principal agreements). In March 2005, Wilke applied to
GWK together with Henque and Karob to have the debts owing to GWK
consolidated in a single account in the name of Karob. GWK approved the request
on the express condition that notwithstanding the consolidation of the subject
debts, all securities granted by Wilke and Henque would remain in place in
securitisation of the liability to be assumed by Karob. It is common cause that
Wilke, Henque and Karob were amenable to such request and condition being
imposed.
[3] With effect from March 2005, the debt owed to GWK by Wilke and Henque
at the time were consolidated with the debt of Karob, which assumed liability for
those debts to GWK. Payments thereof by Karob to GWK remained secured by
special notarial bonds registered in favour of GWK by Wilke in 2000 and Henque
in 2003, to secure their indebtedness to GWK, ‘pursuant to any cause whatsoever’.
Thereafter, only Karob contracted with GWK.
[4] In breach of numerous credit agreements and the debt consolidation, Karob
failed to make payment to GWK. As at January 2006 it was in arrears in an amount
of R4 831 873.05, and its total contractual indebtedness to GWK was
R12, 787, 871.82. These amounts were recorded in an acknowledgement of debt
(AOD) which Wilke executed on behalf of Karob on 26 January 2006. In terms of
the AOD, Karob undertook to pay the arrears of R4 831 873.05 to GWK as follows:
equal monthly instalments of R300, 000.00 from January to December 2006, and
a payment of R1, 500, 000.00 on or before 31 August 2006 from the proceeds of
Karob’s summer crop harvest. Wilke bound himself as surety and co-principal
debtor for the due and punctual performance of Karob’s obligations under the AOD.
An appendix to the AOD recorded the manner of calculation of the aggregate
amount alleged to be outstanding, with reference to 21 underlying credit
agreements that were extant at the time of the signing thereof.
[5] The AOD did not novate GWK’s prior principal claim against Karob. Clause
11.1 reads (my translation):
‘The parties record that this acknowledgement of debt is not a novation of the creditor’s
original claim against the debtor, that it does not constitute a waiver of any of the rights of
the creditor, including its right, without notice, upon the original failure to comply with the
terms and conditions of this acknowledgement of debt, in its sole discretion to institute
legal proceedings in terms of the acknowledgement of debt or the original cause of
action.’1
The AOD also contained an acceleration clause:
‘If the debtor fails to make any payment in terms of this acknowledgement of debt on the
payment date, the creditor, in its sole discretion, shall be entitled to:
. . .
recover the full balance of the principal debt and finance costs outstanding on the date of
the breach or failure, without it being necessary for the creditor to inform the debtor of
this.’2
[6] Karob however breached its payment obligations under the principal
agreements, the debt consolidation and the AOD. By 10 April 2007 it was in arrears
in the sum R5 025 458.37. Consequently, in a letter of demand dated 10 April
2007, GWK invoked the acceleration clause in the AOD and claimed payment from
Karob in the sum of R11 655 499.84 before 24 April 2007. Of this amount,
R4 226 302.45 constituted the debt owed to GWK by Henque, which Karob had
assumed in terms of the debt consolidation. Thereafter, Karob made payments
1 Clause 11.1 of the AOD reads:
‘Die partye plaas op rekord dat hierdie skuldbewys nie ’n novasie van die skuldeiser se
oorspronklike eis teen die skuldenaar is nie, dat dit nie afstandoening van enige van die regte van
die skuldeiser insluitende sy reg om sonder kennisgewing met die oorspronklike versuim om die
bepaling en voorwaardes van hierdie skuldbewys na te kom sal die skuldeiser geregtig wees om
in sy uitsluitlike diskresie geregtelike stappe in te stel kragtens die skuldbewys of die oorspronklike
skuldoorsaak’.
2 Clause 5 of the AOD reads:
‘5. Indien die skuldenaar nalaat om enige betaling ingevolge hierdie skuldbewys op betaaldatum te
maak, sal die skuldeiser, in sy uitsluitlike diskresie, geregtig wees om:
5.1.1 . . .
5.1.2
die volle saldo van die hoofskuld en finansieringskoste uitstaande op die datum van
verbreking of versuim te verhaal sonder dat dit nodig is dat die skuldeiser die skuldernaar
hieromtrent in kennis stel;’
and credits were passed on its outstanding indebtedness, so that by 1 July 2009 it
owed GWK an amount of R 7 001 793.90.
[7] On 11 September 2009 GWK issued a provisional sentence summons in
the high court against Karob and Wilke for payment of the sum of R 7 001 793.90,
based entirely on the AOD. On 19 September 2009 the court granted judgment
against Karob and Wilke, jointly and severally, in an amount of R1 917 165.80,
together with interest. The order provided, inter alia (my translation):
‘2.
This order is without prejudice to any rights which the plaintiff might have to recover
further amounts in terms of the present acknowledgement of debt in these proceedings
and in accordance with paragraph 3 hereof.
3.
Regarding the remainder of the plaintiff’s claim in terms of the acknowledgement of
debt, it is ordered that the provisional sentence summons shall remain as a simple
summons, it is deemed that an appearance by the defendants has been entered and that
the proceedings will take place in accordance with the rules of Court.’3
[8] On 5 July 2010 GWK delivered its declaration in respect of the action.
Where appropriate, I refer to this claim as ‘the 2009 action’. Karob was finally
deregistered on 16 July 2010 for want of filing its annual returns. On 8 September
2010, Wilke and Karob (despite the deregistered status of Karob), delivered their
plea. Further payments were received by GWK in the amount of R3 million and
R435, 690.77 on September 2010 and 21 April 2011, respectively. The matter
proceeded to trial. On 13 August 2015, the high court (Kruger J) handed down
judgment and dismissed GWK’s action, essentially on the basis that GWK had
failed to prove the arrear amounts owed in terms of the AOD.
3 The order read:
2. Hierdie bevel is sonder benadeling van enige regte wat die Eiser mag hê om verdere bedrae
ingevolge die onderhawige skuldbewys te verhaal in hierdie verrigtinge en wel ooreenkomstig
paragraaf 3 hiervan.
3. Wat betref die restant van die Eiser se vordering ingevolge skuldbewys word beveel dat die
voorlopige vonnis dagvaarding bly staan as enkelvoudige dagvaarding dat geag word dat
verskyning deur die Verweerders aangeteken is en dat die verrigtinge verder ooreenkomstig die
hoofreëls geskied.’
[9] Kruger J’s findings were as follows. The form and content of the AOD
established that it dealt only with payment of the arrears. The AOD did not refer
to payment in instalments (‘afbetalingspaaiemente’) for the full principal debt and
did not contain an interest rate and was therefore unusual. It referred to the
different interest rates in the various (underlying) contracts. Failure to pay in terms
of the AOD meant that GWK was entitled to claim the full outstanding amounts
owed to it in terms of the underlying contracts referred to in clause 11 of the AOD.
(1/96/22). Ultimately, GWK failed to establish the applicable rate of interest and
the amount owed by the Trust in terms of the AOD.
[10] GWK was granted leave to appeal to a full court of the high court. The full
court (Moloi and Reinders JJ and Zietsman AJ) held that GWK had decided to
institute legal proceedings in terms of the AOD and not the original causes of action
or accounts referred to in annexure A to the AOD. Had it instituted action in terms
of the latter causes of action, the full court found, there could have been no doubt
about what interest could be charged, on what account from what date, and
whether or not interest could be capitalised. The full court however, concluded that
Kruger J was correct to hold that the amount of indebtedness in terms of the AOD
had not been established. The full court noted that although Kruger J had
dismissed GWK’s claim with costs, the proper order ought to have been one of
absolution from the instance. It did not consider that to be a sufficient basis to
interfere with the order made by Kruger J. Subsequently, this Court refused an
application by GWK for special leave to appeal against the judgment of the full
court.
[11] In his judgment, Daffue J emphasised that the AOD was not a novation of
the original debts or underlying credit agreements and that GWK had expressly
retained the right to sue the respective debtors on the original and underlying credit
agreements. Daffue J had regard to the finding of Kruger J that the parties to the
AOD intended to deal only with the arrears.
[12] Daffue J held that there was no indication that GWK, in pursuing an action
based on the AOD, abandoned its other remedies. Dealing with res judicata and
issue estoppel, the judge noted that neither the Trust nor Henque had been cited
as a party in the 2009 action and that the same relief on the same ground had not
been finally adjudicated by Kruger J. The court found that GWK was not asserting
the same subject matter as a basis for holding onto its security, under the guise of
a different cause of action.
[13] The deregistration of Karob meant that the proceedings before Kruger J and
his dismissal of GWK’s claim and the outcome of the appeal are null and void as
against Karob. Daffue J, on the authority of Traub v Barclays National Bank; Kalk
v Barclays National Bank 1983 (3) SA 619 (A) held that the deregistration of Karob
however, did not prevent GWK, as creditor, from proceeding with an action against
the Trust, on the underlying credit agreements. As is evident from the surety bond,
the Trust remains bound as surety to GWK in respect of Wilke and Henque’s
indebtedness to it, regardless of whether Karob’s registration as a company will be
restored.
[14] Counsel for the Trust argued that the high court was incorrect to hold that
GWK could proceed against the debtors based on the original and underlying credit
agreements. GWK could sue for the total debt based either on the AOD, or the
underlying credit agreements. It was submitted that GWK chose the former to the
exclusion of the latter to its detriment, as shown by clauses 5 and 11.1 of the AOD.
Absent an amendment, whilst the 2009 action was pending, to incorporate a claim
based on the underlying credit agreements, so it was argued, it was not open to
GWK to rely on a different ground to claim the same thing. In terms of the ‘once
and for all’ rule, all claims generated by the same cause of action had to be
instituted in one action (National Sorghum Breweries Ltd t/a Vivo African Breweries
v International Liquor Distributors (Pty) Ltd 2001 (2) SA 232 (SCA) at 241D-E).
[15] It was further argued on behalf of the Trust that the high court erred in
rejecting their submission that the outcome of the 2009 action rendered any claim
based on the principal agreements res judicata, or that the latter claim was
precluded by issue estoppel, because neither the Trust nor Henque was a party to
the 2009 action based on the AOD. Although no cause of action was pleaded
against them, nor relief sought from them, a surety is regarded as the ‘same party’
for purposes of a res judicata plea (Aon South Africa (Pty) Ltd v Van den Heever
NO and Others 2018 (6) SA 38 (SCA) para 27).
[16] This Court in Transalloys v Mineral-loy [2017] ZASCA 95 para 22, with
reference to Prinsloo NO & others v Goldex 15 (Pty) Ltd and Another [2012]
ZASCA 28; 2014 (5) SA 297 (SCA) (para 10), described res judicata and issue
estoppel as follows:
‘The expression of ‘res judicata’ literally means that the matter has already been decided.
The gist of the plea is that the matter or question raised by the other side had been finally
adjudicated upon in the proceedings between the parties and that it therefore cannot be
raised again. According to Voet 24.1.1, the exceptio was available at common law if it
were shown that the judgment in the earlier case was given in a dispute between the same
parties, for the same relief on the same ground or on the same cause (idem actor, idem
res et eadem causa petendi) . . . In time the requirements were, however, relaxed in
situations which gave rise to what became known as issue estoppel. This is explained as
follows by Scott JA in Smith v Porritt and others 2008 (6) SA 303 (SCA) para 10:
“Following the decision in Boshoff v Union Government 1932 TPD 345 the ambit of the
exceptio rei judicata has over the years been extended by the relaxation in appropriate
cases of the common law requirements that the relief claimed and the cause of action be
the same (eadem res and eadem petendi causa) in both the case in question and the
earlier judgment. Where the circumstances justify the relaxation of these requirements
those that remain are that the parties must be the same (idem actor) and that the same
issue (eadem quaestio) must arise. Broadly stated, the latter involves an inquiry whether
an issue of fact or law was an essential element of the judgment on which reliance is
placed. Where the plea of res judicata is raised in the absence of a commonality of cause
of action and relief claimed it has become common place to adopt the terminology of
English law and to speak of issue estoppel. But, as was stressed by Botha JA in
Kommissaris van Binnelandse Inkomste v Absa Bank BPK 1995 (1) SA 653 (A) at 669D,
670J-671B, this is not to be construed as implying an abandonment of the principles of
the common law in favour of those of English law; the defence remains one of res judicata.
The recognition of the defence in such cases will however require careful scrutiny. Each
case will depend on its own facts and any extension of the defence will be on a case by
ase basis. (KBI v Absa Bank supra at 670E-F.) Relevant considerations will include
questions of equity and fairness, not only to the parties themselves but also to
others.”’(Emphasis added.)
[17] In the present case, even if one were to accept generously, in favour of the
appellants, that the parties in the earlier and subsequent litigation were essentially
the same, in order to raise res judicata successfully the appellants must still
establish that ‘the same relief on the same ground or on the same cause’ was
claimed by GWK, to justify holding onto its security. In Aon this court said the
following (at para 22):
‘As mentioned earlier the plea of res judicata in this case takes the attenuated form
commonly referred to as issue estoppel. Res judicata deals with the situation where the
same parties are in dispute over the same cause of action and the same relief, and in the
form of issue estoppel arises:
“ Where the decision set up as a res judicata necessarily involves a judicial determination
of some question of law or issues of fact, in the sense that the decision could not have
been legitimately or rationally pronounced by the tribunal without at the same time, and in
the same breath, so to speak, determining that question or issue in a particular way, such
determination, though not declared on the face of the recorded decision, is deemed to
constitute an integral part of it as effectively as if had been made so in express terms.” ‘
(Citations omitted).
[18] In Evins v Shield Insurance Co Ltd 1980 (2) SA 814 (A) at 825G, Corbett
JA stated that ‘cause of action . . . is ordinarily used to describe the factual basis,
the set of material facts, that begets the plaintiff’s legal right of action’. In deciding
whether the same relief is being sought on the same ground, the starting point is
‘to compare the relevant facts of the two cases upon which reliance is placed for
the contention that the cause of action (in the extended sense of an essential
element) is the same in both’ (Janse Van Rensburg NO v Steenkamp [2008]
ZASCA para 25).
[19] Applied to the present case, it is clear that GWK in the 2009 action, did not
claim the same thing on the same ground. As stated earlier, its claim in that action
was founded on the AOD, and then only for payment of the arrears. That much is
clear from both the judgments of Kruger J and the full court. Those judgments
themselves distinguish between GWK’s cause of action based on the AOD and its
causes of action based on the principal agreements. Indeed, Karob and Wilke
defended the 2009 action on the basis that only the arrears of R 4 831 873.05 were
due to GWK; that Wilke had already paid that amount; and that the difference
between the sum of R 12 787 871.82 in the AOD and the arrears, was not due to
GWK under the AOD but by reason of various other causes of action (‘uit hoofde
van verskeie ander skuldoorsake’). (2/395/3.3-3.5)
[20] The contention that GWK elected to sue on the AOD to its detriment, is both
opportunistic and wrong. The execution of the AOD, the breach of which created
a distinct cause of action, did not extinguish the principal agreements between the
parties. These agreements retained their independent existence after the
conclusion of the AOD. Even if the action based on the AOD, which was restricted
to claiming the arrears, was not successful, nothing precluded GWK from resorting
to the causes of action in terms of the original principal agreements. It expressly
reserved the right to do so in clause 11.1 of the AOD. And there is nothing to
suggest that GWK waived this right.
[21] Furthermore, a party may choose any one of the several legal avenues
available to it. If it chooses to pursue sustainable relief that would not necessarily
mean that such a party has abandoned the other. Seeking payment of arrears in
terms of the AOD can hardly be said to exclude a claim for the amounts
outstanding in terms of the underlying credit agreements. More so, since that right
has been expressly reserved it must also be borne in mind that in essence Kruger
J found that the amount of the arrears owing at the time had not been proved.
[22] For the reasons aforesaid the appeal is dismissed with costs, including the
costs consequent upon employment of two counsel.
______________________________
DV DLODLO
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellants:
S Grobler SC
Instructed by:
JA Botha Attorneys, Bethlehem
McIntyre Van Der Post, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
W Luderitz SC and P Lourens
Instructed by:
Werksmans Attorneys, Sandton
Symington & De Kok, Bloemfontein. | SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
23 December 2020
STATUS
Immediate
Wilke NO & Others v Griekwaland Wes Korporatief Ltd (1327/2019) [2020]
ZASCA 182 (23 December 2020)
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not form
part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
The Supreme Court of Appeal (the SCA) today dismissed the appeal with costs and upheld an
order of the Free State Division of the High Court, Bloemfontein.
The issue before the SCA was whether the Wilke Boerdery Trust (the Trust) remained bound
as surety to Griekwaland Wes Korporatief Bpk (GWK) under the suretyship and whether the
high court erred in rejecting the Trust’s submission that the outcome of the action rendered any
claim based on the principal agreements res judicata, or that the latter claim was precluded by
issue estoppel.
The appellants, the trustees of Wilke Boerdery Trust, in February 2019, launched an application
in the Free State Division of the High Court, Bloemfontein (the high court), for an order directing
the respondent, Griekwaland Wes Korporatief Bpk (GWK), to cancel a surety bond registered
in its favour in 2003, over two farms in Jacobsdal in the Free State Province (the surety bond).
The surety bond was registered by Mr Charl Daniel Wilke (Wilke), and Henque 4335 CC
(Henque) as security for goods sold and delivered, production credit granted and monies lent
and advanced by GWK to them in the amounts of R 4 million (Wilke) and R 1 million (Henque),
in respect of their farming operations. The Trust had bound itself to GWK as surety and co-
principal debtor in a total amount of R5 million, for the due fulfilment of the obligations by the
principal debtors, Wilke and Henque. The high court (Daffue J) dismissed the application with
costs and held that the Trust remained bound as surety to GWK under the surety bond. The
appeal before the SCA was with the leave of the high court (Daffue J).
Since August 2004, GWK extended credit to Henque and Karob Boerdery (Pty) Ltd (Karob), ,
pursuant to numerous credit agreements (the principal agreements). In March 2005, Wilke
applied to GWK together with Henque and Karob to have the debts owing to GWK consolidated
in a single account in the name of Karob. GWK approved the request on the express condition
that notwithstanding the consolidation of the subject debts, all securities granted by Wilke and
Henque would remain in place in securitisation of the liability to be assumed by Karob.
With effect from March 2005, the debt owed to GWK by Wilke and Henque at the time were
consolidated with the debt of Karob, which assumed liability for those debts to GWK. Payments
thereof by Karob to GWK remained secured by special notarial bonds registered in favour of
GWK by Wilke in 2000 and Henque in 2003, to secure their indebtedness to GWK. In breach
of numerous credit agreements and the debt consolidation, Karob failed to make payment to
GWK thereby breaching the principal agreements. These amounts owed to GWK were
recorded in an acknowledgement of debt (AOD). On 11 September 2009 GWK issued a
provisional sentence summons in the high court (Kruger J) against Karob and Wilke for
payment based entirely on the AOD. On 19 September 2009 the court granted judgment
against Karob and Wilke, jointly and severally, in an amount of R1 917 165.80, together with
interest.
On 5 July 2010 GWK delivered its declaration in respect of the action. Karob was finally
deregistered on 16 July 2010 for want of filing its annual returns. The matter proceeded to trial.
On 13 August 2015, the high court (Kruger J) handed down judgment and dismissed GWK’s
action, essentially on the basis that GWK had failed to prove the arrear amounts owed in terms
of the AOD. GWK was granted leave to appeal to a full court of the high court. The full court
held that GWK had decided to institute legal proceedings in terms of the AOD and not the
original causes of action or accounts.
As stated above, the matter came before the high court (Daffue J) had regard to the finding of
Kruger J that the parties to the AOD intended to deal only with the arrears. The court a quo,
however, emphasised that the AOD was not a novation of the original debts or underlying credit
agreements and that GWK had expressly retained the right to sue the respective debtors on
the original and underlying credit agreements. Daffue J held that there was no indication that
GWK, in pursuing an action based on the AOD, abandoned its other remedies. Dealing with
res judicata and issue estoppel, Daffue J noted that neither the Trust nor Henque had been
cited as a party in the 2009 action and that the same relief on the same ground had not been
finally adjudicated by Kruger J. The high court per Daffue J found that GWK was not asserting
the same subject matter as a basis for holding onto its security, under the guise of a different
cause of action. The court a quo found further that the deregistration of Karob however, did not
prevent GWK, as creditor, from proceeding with an action against the Trust, on the underlying
credit agreements.
On appeal, the SCA held that it was clear that GWK’s claim in the action was founded on the
AOD, and then only for payment of the arrears. The SCA found that the contention by the Trust
that GWK elected to sue on the AOD to its detriment, was both opportunistic and wrong. The
execution of the AOD, the breach of which created a distinct cause of action, did not extinguish
the principal agreements between the parties. These agreements retained their independent
existence after the conclusion of the AOD. Even if the action based on the AOD, which was
restricted to claiming the arrears, was not successful, nothing precluded GWK from resorting
to the causes of action in terms of the original principal agreements. It expressly reserved the
right to do so in clause 11.1 of the AOD. And there was nothing to suggest that GWK waived
this right.
The SCA concluded that, from the surety bond, it was clear that the Trust remained bound as
surety to GWK in respect of Wilke’s and Henque’s indebtedness to it, regardless of whether
Karob’s registration as a company would be restored. |
1771 | non-electoral | 2011 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No 252/2010
In the matter between:
ALLIANCE PROPERTY GROUP (PTY) LTD
APPELLANT
and
ALLIANCE GROUP LIMITED
FIRST RESPONDENT
AUCTION ALLIANCE KWAZULU-NATAL
(PTY) LTD
SECOND RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Alliance Property Group v Alliance Group (252/10) [2011]
ZASCA 14 (14 March 2011)
Coram:
HARMS DP, HEHER, PONNAN, TSHIQI JJA et PLASKET AJA
Heard:
25 February 2011
Delivered:
14 March 2011
Summary: Practice – Whether appeal having any practical effect or result –
section 21A of the Supreme Court Act 59 of 1959 – Passing-off – proof of
reputation – proof of misrepresentation.
ORDER
_______________________________________________________________
On appeal from: KwaZulu-Natal High Court (Pietermaritzburg) (Sishi J sitting
as court of first instance):
(1) The appeal is upheld with costs and the order of the court below is set
aside.
(2) The following order is substituted for the order issued by the court below.
'(a) The respondents are interdicted, in the provinces of KwaZulu-Natal and
the Eastern Cape, from passing-off their property services as those of the
applicant or as being associated in the course of trade with the applicant, by
using the name, mark and trading style of Alliance Group without clearly
distinguishing their services from those of the applicant.
(b) The respondents are directed to pay, jointly and severally, the applicant’s
costs of the application, including the costs of two counsel.'
JUDGMENT
PLASKET AJA (HARMS DP, HEHER, PONNAN, TSHIQI JJA concurring):
[1] The appellant appeals against the judgment of Sishi J in the KwaZulu-
Natal High Court, Pietermaritzburg in which its application to interdict the
respondents from passing-off their property services as those of the appellant
was dismissed with costs.
[2] Two principal issues arise. The first is whether the appeal will have any
practical effect and if not whether it should be dismissed in terms of s 21A of
the Supreme Court Act 59 of 1959. The second is whether, if the appeal is not
to be dismissed in terms of s 21A, Sishi J was correct in dismissing the
application on the basis that the appellant had failed to prove a reputation in
the name and trading style of Alliance Property Group and that it had failed to
prove a misrepresentation on the part of the respondents that created a
likelihood of deception or confusion between the appellant’s name and that of
the respondents. Prior to dealing with these issues, it is necessary to set out
the facts.
The facts
[3] The appellant commenced business under its present name in 1997. It
conducts business in the field of commercial and industrial property, including
property development and facilitation, valuations and consultancy, property
sales, the letting of property, property management and public auctions of
property. The heartland of its operations is the province of KwaZulu-Natal, but
the papers show that it also conducts business in the Eastern Cape, from that
province's border with KwaZulu-Natal to East London.
[4] The first respondent commenced its existence in 1999 as Electronic
Auctioneering Ventures Ltd. In the following year it changed its name to
Auction Alliance Holdings Ltd and then, in 2003, to Asset Alliance Ltd. A few
years later, it embarked on a rebranding, restructuring and consolidation of its
associated companies. The result was that, in October 2006, it changed its
name to Alliance Group Ltd. It conducts the business of property auctions,
business sales, property finance, property inspections and valuations in
KwaZulu-Natal and elsewhere in the country, including the Eastern Cape.
[5] The second respondent was incorporated in 2000 under the name
Kusasa Commodities 191 (Pty) Ltd. It changed its name to Auction Alliance
KwaZulu-Natal (Pty) Ltd in 2001. Between 2003 and 2007 it traded as Auction
Alliance but, from September 2007, has traded as Alliance Group. Its core
business is the selling of immovable property by way of auctions. It operates
in KwaZulu-Natal.
[6] As a result of the first respondent's rebranding and the change of name
and trade name of it and second respondent, the appellant launched its
application to interdict them from passing-off their services as those of the
appellant's. As stated above, Sishi J dismissed the application. He then
granted leave to appeal to this court.
Will the appeal have any practical effect?
[7] After leave to appeal had been granted, the respondents’ attorneys
wrote a letter to the appellant's attorneys in which they said that the
respondents had undergone an 'internal strategy change' and had 'performed
an intensive "brand audit" in light of market conditions'. The result was that
they decided to re-focus their core business to that of auctions, rebranded
their business and resumed trading as Auction Alliance. The letter then
stated:
'Our clients are prepared to abandon the costs order in their favour relating to the
proceedings in the Court a quo and are prepared to agree that each party be responsible for
their own costs in connection with the application for leave to appeal in the event that your
client is prepared to withdraw its appeal to the Supreme Court of Appeal.'
[8] It will be noted that the letter gave no undertaking that the respondents
would not in future pass-off their business as that of the appellant. Instead, it
made the assertion that as they had changed back to their previous names,
the appellant’s appeal was moot.
[9] The appellant’s attorneys replied to the letter by saying that ‘your
client’s statement that it no longer proposes to trade as “Alliance Group” does
not destroy our client’s right to pursue its appeal’. They noted that the
respondents had not abandoned the judgment in their favour and had given
no undertaking not to trade as the Alliance Group.
[10] The letter then mentioned that the second respondent (it would seem)
was still trading under the name of the Alliance Group in Durban. Finally, the
appellant’s attorneys demanded that, in order to settle the matter, the
respondents should abandon the judgment in their favour, give an ‘irrevocable
undertaking’ that they would not use the name Alliance Group, or apply for the
registration of a new company with that name, and take various other steps
specified in the letter. When, some two weeks later, the appellant’s attorneys
had received no response, they informed the respondents’ attorneys that they
were proceeding with the preparation of the record.
[11] Shortly before the appeal was to be heard, the appellant brought an
application in which it sought leave to lead further evidence. That evidence
was to the effect that, in addition to the second respondent carrying on
business under the name of Alliance Group, two of the first respondent’s
subsidiaries in Johannesburg and Port Elizabeth were also doing so some
seven months after the letter informing the appellant of the rebranding. The
respondents, in an answering affidavit, ascribed this to an insignificant
oversight which had been rectified.
[12] Section 21A(1) of the Supreme Court Act 59 of 1959 provides that
’[w]hen at the hearing of any civil appeal to the Appellate Division or any
Provincial or Local Division of the Supreme Court the issues are of such a
nature that the judgment or order sought will have no practical effect or result,
the appeal may be dismissed on this ground alone’.
[13] The purpose of this section was considered by this court in Premier,
Provinsie Mpumalanga, en ʼn ander v Groblersdalse Stadsraad,1 in which it
was held:
‘Die artikel is, myns insiens, daarop gerig om die drukkende werklas op Howe van appèl,
insluitende en miskien veral hierdie Hof, te verlig. Dit breek weg van die destydse vae
begrippe soos “abstrak”, “akademies” of “hipoteties”, as maatstawwe vir die uitoefening van 'n
Hof van appèl se bevoegdheid om 'n appèl nie aan te hoor nie. Dit stel nou 'n direkte en
positiewe toets: sal die uitspraak of bevel 'n praktiese uitwerking of gevolg hê? Gesien die
doel en die duidelike betekenis van hierdie formulering, is die vraag of die uitspraak in die
geding voor die Hof 'n praktiese uitwerking of gevolg het en nie of dit vir 'n hipotetiese
toekomstige geding van belang mag wees nie.’
1 1998 (2) SA 1136 (SCA) at 1141D-E. See too Rand Water Board v Rotek Industries (Pty)
Ltd 2003 (4) SA 58 (SCA) paras 13-14.
[14] In Port Elizabeth Municipality v Smit2 this court held that the
discretionary power to dismiss an appeal in terms of s 21A without
consideration of the merits was only operative where there was an existing
dispute between the parties that, for some or other reason, had become
academic or hypothetical (and that, in the absence of an existing dispute, s
21A did not apply because there simply was no appeal before the court).
[15] On the facts that I have set out above, I am of the view that it cannot be
said that the dispute between the appellant and the respondents is academic
or hypothetical. The fact that the respondents have failed to give an
undertaking that they will not, in future, use the name Alliance Group renders
the dispute a live one. I accordingly find that the appeal is not one that will
have no practical effect or result and that it must, as a result, be determined
on the merits.
The merits
[16] In Caterham Car Sales & Coachworks Ltd v Birkin Cars (Pty) Ltd &
another,3 Harms JA identified the elements of the wrong of passing-off to be
'the "classical trinity" of reputation (or goodwill), misrepresentation and
damage'. As a form of wrongful competition it is unlawful because 'it results,
or at any rate is calculated to result, in the improper filching of another's trade
and an improper infringement of his goodwill and/or because it may cause
injury to that other's trade reputation'.4
2 2002 (4) SA 241 (SCA) para 7.
3 1998 (3) SA 938 (SCA) para 13. See too Nino’s Coffee Bar & Restaurant CC v Nino’s Italian
Coffee & Sandwich Bar CC & another; Nino’s Italian Coffee & Sandwich Bar CC v Nino’s
Coffee Bar & Restaurant CC 1998 (3) SA 656 (C) para 30.
4 Brian Boswell Circus (Pty) Ltd & another v Boswell-Wilkie Circus (Pty) Ltd 1985 (4) SA 466
(A) at 478I-J.
[17] The elements of passing-off were described more fully as follows in
Premier Trading Co (Pty) Ltd & another v Sporttopia (Pty) Ltd:5
‘Passing-off is a wrong consisting of a false representation made by one trader (the
defendant) to members of the purchasing public that the enterprise, goods or services of a
rival trader (the plaintiff) either belong to him (the defendant) or are connected, in the course
of trade, with his own enterprise, goods or services. (I shall abbreviate, for the sake of
convenience, “enterprise, goods or services” to the single term “the product” since this is a
case of “product confusion” rather than “business connection confusion”.) The defendant's
representation is a misrepresentation if it is likely to deceive or confuse a substantial number
of members of the public as to the source or origin of his product. Passing-off, to be
actionable, erodes the plaintiff's goodwill. Goodwill is the product of a cumulation of factors,
the most important of which, in the context of passing-off, is the plaintiff's reputation.
Reputation is the opinion which the relevant section of the community holds of the plaintiff or
his product. If favourable, it would dispose potential customers to patronise the plaintiff or his
product and, if unfavourable, it would tend to discourage them from doing so. The plaintiff's
reputation may be associated with the symbol under which his product is marketed. The
symbol renders the product distinctive of the plaintiff or his product. A false representation by
the defendant about the symbol used by the plaintiff may encourage or induce potential
customers of the plaintiff, believing that they were patronising him, into patronising the
defendant.’
[18] I turn now to the issues to be decided, namely whether the appellant
proved a reputation in its name and trading style and whether it proved a
misrepresentation on the part of the respondents.
(a) Reputation
[19] It is necessary to point out that, while in the court below the appellant
sought to lay claim to the word 'Alliance' as being descriptive of its business,
Sishi J held, correctly, that it was a descriptive word that could not be
monopolised by the appellant.6 The appellant does not attack this finding and
concedes that it does not have a monopoly on the word 'Alliance'. Instead it
5 2000 (3) SA 259 (SCA) at 266G-267C. See too Capital Estate and General Agencies (Pty)
Ltd & others v Holiday Inns Inc & others 1977 (2) SA 916 (A) at 929C-D; Brian Boswell Circus
(Pty) Ltd & another v Boswell-Wilkie Circus (Pty) Ltd fn 4 at 478E-H.
6 See Value Car Group Ltd & another v Value Car Hire (Pty) Ltd & others [2005] 4 All SA 474
(C).
argues that it has established a reputation symbolised by the name and trade
style of Alliance Property Group.
[20] In Brian Boswell Circus (Pty) Ltd & another v Boswell-Wilkie Circus
(Pty) Ltd7 Corbett JA stated that there were two important considerations in
respect of the acquisition by a business of a reputation in a trade name:
'Firstly, whether the general public will be confused or deceived into thinking, because of
identity or similarity of names, that the business of the defendant is that of the plaintiff, or is
connected therewith, must, as a matter of logic, depend on the extent to which that name is
associated in the minds of members of the public with the business carried on by the plaintiff,
ie the extent to which plaintiff has acquired a reputation in that trade name. Secondly, as the
rationale of the wrong of passing off is the protection of the plaintiff's trade and goodwill, a
valid cause of action would seem to postulate the existence of a goodwill, ie reputation,
attaching to that trade name. Whether reputation, in this sense, is always a sine qua non of a
successful passing off action need not now be decided.'
In addition, the reputation that is sought to be protected must have been in
existence when the misrepresentation was made.8
[21] The existence of the appellant's reputation at the relevant time is a
question of fact. The appellant has put up the following facts, none of which
have been disputed by the respondents in any meaningful way: the appellant
has provided property services under the style Alliance Property Group since
its incorporation in 1997; its business has, since then, encompassed a full
range of property related services and, since 1997, it has facilitated a number
of property developments having a combined value of over R800m; since its
incorporation, its portfolio of commercial and industrial properties that it
manages has grown to 54 buildings worth R948m; it has conducted a number
of public auctions of property, including one in Dubai; it has acted as a
consultant and advisor to a Dubai-based company that is developing a
prestigious golf and leisure resort in KwaZulu-Natal; brochures reflecting its
profile in 2003 and 2007 reflect a considerable growth in its business; since
1998, its turnover from property related activities, primarily in the form of
commissions, has exceeded R91m; and it has advertised its services widely.
7 Footnote 4 at 479B-D. See too Caterham Car Sales & Coachworks Ltd v Birkin Cars (Pty)
Ltd fn 3 paras 20-21.
8 Caterham Car Sales & Coachworks Ltd v Birkin Car Sales (Pty) Ltd fn 3 para 22.
[22] In answer to this, the respondents claim no knowledge of the
appellant's reputation; state that it is not involved in property auctions to any
'significant degree'; suggest the appellant's property portfolio may have
declined since the signing of the founding affidavit; allege that the appellant
trades in a small part of the country; and claims that the respondent is much
bigger than it. The appellant's schedule of the properties it manages shows,
however, that its business is only carried on in KwaZulu-Natal and the Eastern
Cape, and extends no further than the Eastern Cape.
[23] It is evident from the period during which the appellant has traded, the
nature of its business and the scope of its operations that the appellant has
established that it has acquired a reputation in its field in KwaZulu-Natal and
the Eastern Cape. It is argued on behalf of the respondents, however, that
there is a difference between it acquiring a reputation and proving a
secondary meaning. This issue was dealt with by this court in Brian Boswell
Circus (Pty) Ltd & another v Boswell-Wilkie Circus (Pty) Ltd9 in which the court
held simply that ‘the latter would seem to include the former’.
[24] The court then referred with approval to Policansky Bros Ltd v L & H
Policansky10 in which this court said the following concerning a name
acquiring a secondary meaning:
'If a person has previously through his advertisements and through the quality of his goods
made his name valuable as a trade name so that his name has become distinctive both of his
goods and of himself as the manufacturer of those goods, and if his goods have come to be
universally known in the market by his name then his name is said to have obtained a
secondary meaning. When this is the case another person cannot use that name in
connection with a similar class of goods unless he makes it perfectly clear to the public that
he is not selling the goods of the original manufacturer . . . .'
[25] On the strength of the above, I conclude that the appellant has
established a reputation in the field of providing property-related services in
KwaZulu-Natal and the Eastern Cape and that it has done so in relation to the
name and trading style of Alliance Property Group which name (to the extent
9 Footnote 4 at 482A-B.
10 1935 AD 89 at 103.
that it may be descriptive) has acquired a secondary meaning as a result of
the close and distinctive association between it and the business the appellant
carries on in the minds of the public. In addition, the evidence also establishes
that the appellant’s reputation was in existence when the respondents began
to trade under the name Alliance Group Ltd. As a result, the appellant has
established that, in relation to the first issue, the court below erred in finding
that the appellant had not proved a reputation in its name and trading style.
(b) Misrepresentation
[26] In Capital Estate & General Agencies (Pty) Ltd & others v Holiday Inns
Inc & others,11 this court held the following in respect of the proof of the
misrepresentation necessary to establish a passing-off:
‘The wrong known as passing off consists in a representation by one person that his business
(or merchandise, as the case may be) is that of another, or that it is associated with that of
another, and, in order to determine whether a representation amounts to a passing-off, one
enquires whether there is a reasonable likelihood that members of the public may be
confused into believing that the business of the one is, or is connected with, that of another.
Whether there is a reasonable likelihood of such confusion arising is, of course, a question of
fact which will have to be determined in the light of the circumstances of each case.’
(Reference omitted.)
[27] The court, in Miriam Glick Trading (Pty) Ltd v Clicks Stores (Transvaal)
(Pty) Ltd & others,12 after referring to the above passage from the Holiday
Inns case, proceeded to set out how the factual enquiry is to be conducted:
‘In such an enquiry the trade names must be considered from the visual, phonetic and
ideological points of view. They must be considered not side by side, but as a member of the
public would see them, one after the other, with a time lapse in between and having regard to
the likelihood of imperfect recollection. In passing-off they must be considered not in abstracto
but in the form and under the circumstances in which they are used. This involves having
regard to all the surrounding circumstances such as the nature of the businesses in question
and the goods to which they relate, the types of persons who constitute potential clients of
such businesses and the conditions under which such businesses are conducted. The criteria
11 Footnote 5 at 929C-E. See too Brian Boswell Circus (Pty) Ltd & another v Boswell-Wilkie
Circus (Pty) Ltd fn 4 at 478E-J.
12 1979 (2) SA 290 (T) at 295A-D.
is not that of a very careful or a very careless purchaser but an ordinary purchaser of the
types comprising the potential clients’.
[28] Prior to September 2007, the appellant, trading as Alliance Property
Group, provided a comprehensive range of property-related services. The
respondents traded as Auction Alliance and concentrated on selling property
by way of public auctions. At this stage, the only common factor in the names
of the appellant and the respondents was the descriptive word Alliance. To
the extent that this had the potential to cause confusion, it was a risk that the
appellant and the respondents bore, but the remainder of their respective
names was sufficient to distinguish them from each other in the minds of the
public.13
[29] In September 2007, however, the respondents dropped the word
Auction from their names, expanded their services in the property field to
include more than property auctions and called themselves Alliance Group
Ltd. The effect of this was to remove important features that distinguished the
business of the appellant from that of the respondents, make the respondents’
businesses look more like the appellant’s business from a functional point of
view and to make their names look strikingly similar to that of the appellant.
By doing this, confusion in the minds of the public was inevitable and it is
hardly surprising that instances of actual confusion arose.
[30] In these circumstances, I am of the view that the appellant succeeded
in establishing a misrepresentation on the part of the respondents that its
businesses were the same business as that of the appellant or was connected
with it. That being so, I am of the view that the court below erred in this
respect too and that, consequently, the appeal must succeed.
THE ORDER
13 Sir Robert McAlpine Ltd v Alfred McAlpine Ltd [2004] RPC 36 711 (HC) paras 49-50;
Initiative Promotions and Designs CC v Initiative Media South Africa (Pty) Ltd & others 2005
BIP 516 (D) at 525B-E, quoting with approval Kerly Law of Trade Marks and Trade Names 12
ed (1986) p 389.
[31] The following order is issued.
(1) The appeal is upheld with costs and the order of the court below is set
aside.
(2) The following order is substituted for the order issued by the court below.
'(a) The respondents are interdicted, in the provinces of KwaZulu-Natal and
the Eastern Cape, from passing-off their property services as those of the
applicant or as being associated in the course of trade with the applicant, by
using the name, mark and trading style of Alliance Group without clearly
distinguishing their services from those of the applicant.
(b) The respondents are directed to pay, jointly and severally, the applicant’s
costs of the application, including the costs of two counsel.'
_____________________
C. PLASKET
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES
APPELLANT: G E Morley SC instructed by Cox Yeats, Durban; Honey
Attorneys, Bloemfontein
RESPONDENTS: J-H Roux SC instructed by Cliffe Dekker Hofmeyr, Cape
Town; Symington and De Kock, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
14 March 2011
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form
part of the judgment.
Alliance Property Group (Pty) Ltd v Alliance Group Ltd
(252/10) [2011] ZASCA (14 March 2011)
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld an appeal against an order of the
KwaZulu-Natal High Court (Pietermartizburg) in the above matter. The
appellant appealed against the judgement of the court a quo in which its
application to interdict the respondents from passing-off their property
services as those of the appellant’s was dismissed with costs.
The main issues before the court was whether the appellant had proved a
reputation in its name and trading style and whether it had proved a
misrepresentation on the part of the respondents.
The court held that the appellant had indeed established a reputation in the
field of providing property-related services in KwaZulu-Natal and the Eastern
Cape and that it had done so in relation to the name and trading style of
Alliance Property Group which name (to the extent that it may have been
descriptive) had acquired a secondary meaning as a result of the close and
distinctive association between it and the business of the appellant in the
minds of the public.
The court further held that the appellant succeeded in establishing a
misrepresentation on the part of the respondents in that their respective
businesses were in the same field as that of the appellant and the name
under which they traded was strikingly similar to that of the appellant.
Therefore, the SCA ordered that the respondents be interdicted, in the
provinces of KwaZulu-Natal and the Eastern Cape, from passing-off their
property services as those of the applicant or as being associated in the
course of trade with the applicant, by using the name, mark and trading style
of Alliance Group without clearly distinguishing their services from those of the
applicant. |
3607 | non-electoral | 2021 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case no: 035/2020
In the matter between:
THE MEMBER OF THE EXECUTIVE COUNCIL
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH,
NORTH WEST PROVINCE
APPELLANT
and
NAM obo TN
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
The Member of the Executive Council, Department of Health, North
West v NAM obo TN (035/2020) [2021] ZASCA 105 (26 July 2021)
Coram:
ZONDI, DAMBUZA and MOCUMIE JJA and GORVEN and EKSTEEN
AJJA.
Heard:
10 May 2021
Delivered:
This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the parties’
legal representatives by email, publication on the Supreme Court of Appeal website and
release to SAFLII. The date and time for hand-down is deemed to be have been at 09h45
on 26 July 2021.
Summary: Delict – medical negligence – claim for damages based on failure to attend to
plaintiff before delivery and foetus after delivery – whether the clinic nursing staff were
negligent in their treatment of the plaintiff and TN – whether negligence caused TN’s
hypoxic ischemic injury and the resultant cerebral palsy.
______________________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: North West Division of the High Court, Mahikeng (Hendricks ADJP,
Gura J and Oosthuizen-Senekal AJ concurring, sitting as court of appeal)
1 Condonation for the late filing of the appeal record is granted.
The appeal is upheld.
3 Each party is to pay its own costs.
The order of the Full Court is set aside and substituted with an order dismissing
the appeal.
______________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________________
Mocumie JA (Zondi and Dambuza JJA and Gorven and Eksteen AJJA concurring)
[1] The issue in this appeal is whether the nursing staff at Makgobistad clinic in
Kuruman, North West Province were negligent in their management of the plaintiff’s
delivery and in their treatment of the plaintiff’s baby (TN) on 17 December 2003. For
convenience, the parties will be referred to as they were in the trial court, plaintiff and the
Member of the Executive Council for Health, North West (the MEC).
[2] At the outset, the MEC sought condonation for the late filing of the appeal record
on a number of grounds. The factors which a court considers when exercising its
discretion whether to grant condonation, include the degree of non-compliance with the
rules, the explanation for it, the importance of the case, the respondent’s interest in the
finality of the judgment of the court below, the convenience of the court and the avoidance
of unnecessary delay in the administration of justice.1 As regards the delay, the MEC
1 S v Sayed and Others [2017] ZASCA 156; 2018 (1) SACR 185 (SCA) paras 21-23 with reference to
Dengetenge Holdings (Pty) Ltd v Southern Sphere Mining and Development Company Ltd and Others
[2013] ZASCA 5; [2013] 2 All SA 251 para 11.
lodged a notice of appeal on 16 April 2020. In terms of rule 8(1) of the Rules of this Court
he was obliged to lodge the record within three months of delivery of the notice of appeal.
The MEC only lodged the record of proceedings on 10 September 2020, almost five
months later. By then the appeal had lapsed. The MEC attributed the delay to the effect
of the national lock down, which was imposed in March 2020, under the National Disaster
Management Act, 57 of 2002 in an attempt to curb the spread of the Corona virus. During
the lockdown the North West High Court operated with skeleton staff to attend only to
urgent matters. As a result, service of court processes, including the appeal record of this
case, suffered. The attorneys employed by the State Attorney could, initially, not move
freely as they were not declared essential workers. They were granted essential work
permits on 14 May 2020.
[3] In addition, the transcribers, Digital Audio Recording Transcripts, delayed the
transcription of the record within the anticipated period. Ms Ndabeni of the State Attorney,
who was responsible for this appeal, instructed Appeals Document Services CC on 20
May 2020 to prepare the record and the documents were sent to them on 3 June 2020.
The State Attorney received the draft record from Appeals Document Services on
10 July 2020. On 20 July 2020 the draft record was sent to the plaintiff’s attorney for
comment. There is no explanation why the draft was not sent sooner, or why it took the
State Attorney almost further two months to file the record (10 September 2020).
[4] The MEC maintains that he has lodged a notice of appeal which has good prospect
of success and that the plaintiff will not suffer prejudice if condonation were to be granted.
If condonation is refused, the MEC contends, the appeal will lapse which will severely
prejudice him.
[5] It is correct that the delay in filing the record has a direct impact on the plaintiff’s
interest in the finality of the matter. In my view, although more should have been done in
prosecuting the appeal, the delay is not inordinate and it has been satisfactorily explained.
Nor can it be said that the plaintiff would suffer any prejudice if condonation was granted.
The appeal is very important to both parties as it involves the determination of the cause
of the cerebral palsy the plaintiff’s minor child suffers from. Having considered all the
circumstances of this case, condonation for the late filing of the appeal record should be
granted. I now proceed to deal with the appeal.
[6] The plaintiff instituted a claim for delictual damages in the High Court, North West
Division, Mahikeng (the high court), on behalf of her minor child (TN), against the MEC
as the employer of the nursing staff at the clinic at the time. The plaintiff’s claim against
the MEC was brought on the basis that he was vicariously liable for the negligent conduct
of the nursing staff that attended to the plaintiff at the clinic during her admission. She
claims that this negligence caused and culminated in TN developing cerebral palsy as a
consequence of a hypoxic-ischaemic event at birth, and thereafter. She alleged that the
nursing staff at the clinic negligently kept the clinic closed the night before her admission
(16 December 2003) until after 08h00 on the day on which she gave birth
(17 December 2003). Upon her admission, they failed to properly and professionally
attend to TN, and, in particular, failed to administer oxygen to TN in circumstances when
it was reasonably necessary for them to do so; failed to enlist the services of a
gynaecologist, or a qualified doctor or other suitable specialist, to examine and properly
treat TN in circumstances when it was reasonably necessary to do so; and failed to
adhere to the standard of practice of reasonable sisters or nurses in their respective
positions in order to ensure that the plaintiff was attended to without delay, and to prevent
TN from suffering from brain and other injuries.
[7] Gutta J in the court of first instance, who, by agreement between the parties, was
called upon to decide only the question of liability, dismissed the claim. She found that
the plaintiff did not succeed in proving negligence and causation. The plaintiff successfully
appealed to the full court (Hendricks ADJP, with Gura J and Oosthuizen-Senekal AJ). Not
satisfied with the decision of the full court, the MEC sought and was granted special leave
to appeal to this Court.
[8] The facts set out below were either common cause or not seriously disputed. In
the morning of 17 December 2003, around 03h00, the plaintiff, who was in her full term
of pregnancy, experienced labour pains. She arrived at the clinic not far from where she
resided, in a private vehicle, a panel van hired by her father, at about 07h50. The clinic is
a government institution that is supposed to be open to the public on a 24-hour basis. On
the day in question, there were two nursing staff on duty, a qualified nursing sister who is
a midwife, Sister Moletsane, and an assistant nurse, Ms Motaung. In addition, the clinic
has an administration officer who keeps the records and files of the clinic, Ms Jaula, a
cleaner, and a security officer. It has a basic obstetric care unit (the labour room) fitted
with an incubator for babies after their delivery. The plaintiff was 21 years of age at the
time of TN’s birth. This was her second birth. Her first child had been born at the same
clinic. As in the case of her first pregnancy, she said, she attended antenatal care at the
clinic from two months into her pregnancy and had no prenatal complications.2
[9] In her particulars of claim, the plaintiff asserted that on 17 December 2003, she
gave birth shortly after 08h00 inside the panel van, unmonitored and without the
assistance of the nurses at the clinic. It was averred that the harm TN suffered was
caused by an acute profound hypoxic ischaemic insult caused by a complete lack of
oxygen to the brain for a sustained period as advised by medical experts; which, but-for
the nursing staff not attending to her professionally and timeously, would not have
occurred.
[10] The antenatal records of the plaintiff, the records from the clinic regarding the day
TN was born, as well as the maternity case record relating to the plaintiff’s treatment were
all missing and subsequently confirmed to have been lost. All that was available was TN’s
Road to Health Chart (RTHC), which was incomplete. On it, all that was recorded was
that TN was born by normal vertex delivery.3 The weight, length and head circumference
were not recorded on the RTHC. No Apgar scores4 were recorded. TN was diagnosed
with cerebral palsy at the age of six months.
[11] In his pleas, the MEC denied all allegations of negligence attributed to the nursing
staff at the clinic in relation to the birth of TN. The MEC contended that the nursing staff
2 Albeit without the benefit of her medical records which were lost by the clinic.
3 According to Medterm Medical Dictionary, a vertex delivery, means the top of the baby's head comes
first. The vertex refers to the top of the head.
4 Apgar stands for ‘Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration’. In the test, five things are used
to check a baby's health. Each is scored on a scale of 0 to 2, with 2 being the best score.
were on duty at all relevant times and denied that they arrived after the birth of TN. In the
alternative, the MEC contended that the plaintiff was contributorily negligent in that she
failed to attend antenatal clinic regularly during her pregnancy; she failed to seek medical
assistance during early labour when she should reasonably have done so; she sought
medical assistance at the clinic only when her labour had progressed and the head of the
unborn child was on the perineum; and she was inappropriately dressed in denim pants
during labour which delayed TN’s birth.
[12] To discharge the onus which rested on her to prove her case, the plaintiff testified
and led the evidence of Mr Lebone - the owner and driver of the van which took her to
the clinic, Dr: Moja (a neurosurgeon) and Dr Lewis (a paediatrician). Dr Sevenster, a
specialist obstetrician for the plaintiff, was not called although he compiled a report and
joint minutes with Dr Malebane. To rebut the case for the plaintiff the MEC led evidence
of the clinic nursing staff Sr Moletsane and Ms Motaung, as well as the administration
officer Ms Jaula and Dr: Malebane, Dr Marumo, Dr Kganane and Dr Mogashoa, a
paediatrician neurologist. There were several other experts who examined the plaintiff
and TN and thereafter compiled reports, including radiologists and paediatricians, but who
were not called to testify.
[13] The plaintiff’s version, which is corroborated by Mr Lebone (although he said the
time of arrival was 07h00) must, on all the probabilities, be accepted. She said that she
arrived at about 07h50 and at that time the clinic was not open. They found approximately
twenty people waiting outside the gate of the clinic. The security officer on duty at the
clinic told them to remain outside the premises as the nursing staff were not on duty. They
accordingly waited there. Her waters broke at 08h10. At 08h15 she gave birth
unmonitored. At 08h20 the cleaner came to assist her by putting a blanket over her and
the baby that was already on the seat between her legs. She said, ‘[the] baby did not cry
at birth, was just still for 10 minutes after the nurse arrived’. At 08h25, Ms Motaung, the
assistant nurse came to the panel van and took the baby inside the clinic. The plaintiff
was also taken into the labour room. TN was taken to another room. Sr Moletsane cleaned
and treated her.TN was brought back to her in the labour room and she breastfed her.
She was discharged with TN and was home by 14h00. Her grandmother, based on her
observation of the baby’s squint eyes, remarked that there was something wrong with the
baby. TN did not suckle like her first baby, she said. She took TN to the clinic a week later
and neither she nor the clinic staff noticed anything unusual about her. At six months, she
went to a different clinic. The clinic referred her to Bophelong hospital which diagnosed
TN with cerebral palsy. From the time the plaintiff was discharged on the day of the birth,
until six months later, there were no outward manifestations of any injury.
[14] For the plaintiff’s experts, in particular Dr Moja, supported by Dr Lewis, were of the
view that the hypoxic event was of an acute profound nature which occurs within 6 to 10
minutes at birth. Dr Moja agreed with the radiologists that the MRI showed a mixed pattern
with ‘. . . chronic sequelae secondary to a combination of partial prolonged hypoxic
ischemic injury as well as an acute profound hypoxic ischemic injury’. The significance of
this is that, Dr Moja said that the acute event would have been at the time of birth (if it
had been before, the baby would have been born dead) and lasted ‘less than five minutes
. . . but there is a second element which is the prolonged element and that to me means
that at that point there was lack of oxygen but it was not total lack of oxygen at the point
but damage was still occurring because it was suboptimal’. He went on to explain that the
acute event occurred at birth and he explained that is why the baby was not breathing or
moving initially. But, after she was revived, he believed that ongoing damage would
probably have been caused due to poor oxygen supply and that, as he put it ‘. . . you have
an acute profound hypoxia and subsequently also have a prolonged period of hypoxia,
you have ongoing damage that may not necessarily be evident subsequently . . .’.
[15] According to Dr Lewis, ‘approximately 10 million babies do not breathe
immediately at birth, of which about 6 million require basic neonatal resuscitation’. So
what the clinic staff did was basic resuscitation since there is no indication that it took any
length of time or special techniques to get the baby to breathe, cry, move and suckle. The
evidence concerning monitoring for 12 to 24 hours was that this was the case for babies
who require extensive resuscitation. The significance is that Dr Moja testified that the
treatment protocol was to administer oxygen and to test for oxygen uptake (which the
clinic could not do) and thus to refer to a hospital. He could not say, however, that the
nursing staff would have been aware that this was the treatment protocol. This is because
he did not know what training the staff at this level in such a clinic would have received
and, therefore, whether such persons could reasonably have known that TN required
such treatment. No nursing experts were called to testify on this aspect. Because, after
resuscitation, the baby appeared normal, it cannot be said that the clinic staff were
negligent in failing to do what the expert neurologist and obstetrician would have done.
[16] In their view, the harm caused by the acute profound hypoxic event occurred at
the time the plaintiff gave birth, unmonitored, and TN ‘was still, did not cry and was not
breathing’, before the nursing staff came to assist her. Dr Lewis, however, conceded that
if TN was breathing, crying, breastfeeding and was pink in colour there was no need to
resuscitate her further after she started breathing. Dr Moja was of the view that, because
TN had suffered such an event, the treatment protocol required her to be oxygenated until
further tests were done within 24 hours, during which period TN should not have been
discharged. This would have involved calling a medical doctor with expertise in
resuscitations or referring her to a hospital equipped for such emergencies where she
would have been provided with medical treatment immediately to reverse the results, or
to minimise them later. Had this been done, he opined that the partial prolonged hypoxia
could have been avoided or minimised leading to a better outcome. Dr Lewis was of the
opinion that the 12 to 24 hour monitoring protocol was only indicated if extensive initial
resuscitation had been necessary. Both experts conceded that they could not testify that
the nursing staff would have known that this treatment protocol was indicated. That being
the case, no finding of negligence can be supported.
[17] The version of the nursing staff was that Sr Moletsane brought TN back to the
plaintiff to establish if TN could breastfeed, which she could do. She monitored TN’s
progress for 4 hours intermittently, 2 hours apart. She was satisfied that TN was well. She
discharged both the plaintiff and TN at approximately 12h00. She said that, although the
delivery had been complicated, there was nothing untoward about TN after resuscitation.
She was pink in colour, was breathing normally and was breastfed by the plaintiff several
times before discharge. Neither of the nursing staff nor the plaintiff saw anything unusual
in the state of TN at discharge. It bears reminding that the cerebral palsy was only
diagnosed some 6 months later.
[18] Some 7 days after the birth of TN, the plaintiff brought her to the clinic for
tuberculosis and Polio vaccination. She was issued with the RTHC. On it she noted the
weight to be 2,8kg which was as expected at that stage. She stated that the clinic lost
TN’s Apgar Scores and the plaintiff’s medical records.
[19] In a nutshell, the experts for the MEC agreed with the plaintiff’s expert, Dr Moja,
as indicated earlier, that ‘. . . it was impossible to determine with any degree of certainty
the precise moment when this injury would have occurred’. Dr Malebane, in particular,
stated that in the event that it was accepted that the injury could have occurred in the
second stage of labour, it would have been preceded by abnormalities; which was not the
case according to the plaintiff’s narrative. Dr Kganane stated that the steps taken by Sr
Moletsane, namely suction and removal of excessive secretions, wrapping TN and putting
her in the incubator (to re-establish the temperature) were normal. The fact that TN was
monitored for 4 hours meant that she was conscious and did not need oxygen. The
plaintiff told them that she did not pick up any abnormalities as TN was breastfeeding
without any difficulty even after they were discharged from the clinic. That, on its own,
indicated that despite the injury, there were no apparent problems immediately after birth.
[20] The general rule is that he or she who asserts must prove. Thus, in a case such
as this the plaintiff must prove that the damage sustained by her minor child was caused
by the defendant’s clinic staff’s negligence. The failure of a professional person to adhere
to the general level of skill and diligence possessed and exercised at the same time by
the members of the branch of the profession to which he or she belongs would normally
constitute negligence.5 A medical practitioner ‘is not expected to bring to bear upon the
case entrusted to him the highest possible degree of professional skill, but he or she is
bound to employ reasonable skill and care.’ 6
5 Van Wyk v Lewis 1924 AD 438 at 444.
6 Mitchell v Dixon 1914 AD 519 at 525.
[21] The question that remains is whether any liability can be attached to the nursing
staff (and vicariously so, to the MEC), after the plaintiff was admitted into the clinic after
TN had already been delivered, unmonitored. Despite the initial vigorous contestation on
behalf of the MEC, it became common cause by the end of the trial, as I have already
stated, that the cerebral palsy was caused by a mixed pattern with ‘. . . chronic sequelae
secondary to a combination of partial prolonged hypoxic ischemic injury as well as an
acute profound hypoxic ischemic injury’. A hypoxic ischaemic event can be described as
lack of oxygen and inadequate perfusion of oxygen, through the blood, to the brain which
causes damage to the brain.7 The radiologists produced joint minutes on the imaging
features of the Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) brain scan and agreed that ‘the scan
is indicative of a hypoxic ischemic injury of a term brain at a chronic stage of evolution . .
. [T]he dominant pattern of injury in this case is acute profound in nature’. In their revised
report the radiologists stated that ‘a combination of partial prolonged hypoxic ischemic
injury as well as an acute profound hypoxic ischemic injury’ were features of the MRI. The
experts that testified based their evidence on both. The joint report of the radiologists was
admitted as evidence by agreement.
[22] It is therefore safe to accept that on everybody’s version, including the plaintiff’s,
nobody thought anything was wrong with TN when she was discharged from the clinic,
except what her grandmother said on the first day of TN’s arrival at home; namely her
squint eyes indicated that there might have been something wrong with her. That TN had
squint eyes (without other sequelae) is on its own not a manifestation of a brain injury.
Furthermore, even when the plaintiff took TN back to the clinic 7 days after her birth for
immunisation, according to what is recorded on the RTHC, she reported no abnormality
about the baby’s behaviour. At that stage, as reasonably expected, she would have told
the nursing staff about any abnormality she picked up on her own as the mother or even
what her grandmother had said about TN’s squint eyes. She did not.
[23] The ineluctable inference must then be drawn that, the fact that the damage was
only picked up 6 months later, is an indication that the damage was ongoing after birth.
7 Magqeya v MEC for Health, Eastern Cape [2018] ZASCA 141 para 8.
As no abnormalities asserted themselves at the clinic, it cannot be said that the nursing
staff fell short of the standard of reasonable nursing staff in a position similar to them.
[24] For these reasons, I find that the plaintiff failed to discharge the onus that rested
upon her to prove their negligence. There is therefore, no need to consider causation.
[25] What remains to consider, is the issue of costs. Counsel for the MEC did not
abandon the costs that follow upon success as in similar cases where the medical records
were lost in the hands of the clinic staff to mitigate such loss. It is so that the loss of
medical records which recorded the crucial information; in particular, the Apgar Scores,
which the plaintiff required in order to prove her claim against the MEC, reflects badly on
the clinic and its staff, the MEC and the department. It is conduct which must be
deprecated in the strongest terms. In the circumstances, I am of the view that the plaintiff
should not be mulcted with costs. I say this because the hospitals and clinics are obliged
to keep the records of a minor until they reach majority. They failed to do so.
[26] In the result the following order issues.
1 Condonation for the late filing of the appeal record is granted.
The appeal is upheld.
3 Each party is to pay its own costs.
The order of the Full Court is set aside and substituted with an order dismissing
the appeal.
______________________
B C MOCUMIE
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES
For Appellant:
T Masevhe
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Mahikeng
State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For Respondent:
J H F Pistor SC
Instructed by:
Semaushu Attorneys, Mahikeng
Phatshoane Henny Inc., Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
26 July 2021
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does not form part of
the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
The Member of the Executive Council, Department of Health, North West v N A M obo T N (138/2020) [2021]
ZASCA 105 (26 July 2021)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld the appeal against an order of the North West Division of the
High Court, (Hendricks ADJP, (Gura J and Oosthuizen-Senekal AJ concurring) and ordered each party to pay its
own costs.
This case concerned a claim by N A M (plaintiff) for vicarious delictual damages on behalf of her minor child
(TN) against the Member of the Executive Council for Health, North West (the MEC) as the employer of the
nursing staff at the clinic at the time the plaintiff gave birth. The central issue to be determined was the claim for
damages based on failure to monitor the plaintiff and foetus during labour, whether the clinic nursing staff were
negligent in their treatment of the plaintiff and TN, whether their negligence caused TN’s hypoxic ischemic injury
and the resultant cerebral palsy and whether the nursing staff could have taken steps to prevent the harm suffered.
The SCA held that the High court correctly concluded that there was no evidence that pointed to what steps the
nursing staff could have taken but failed to take under the circumstances and the plaintiff did not establish that the
conduct of the nursing staff at the clinic was the probable cause of TN’s brain damage which resulted into
cerebral palsy. The late diagnosis of brain damage which resulted in cerebral palsy coupled with the many years
that elapsed before medical experts could put the pieces together, worsened by the loss of critical medical records
resulted in this case being one of the most unfortunate cases to establish negligence and any causal link between
the two and the injury TN suffered. The balance of probabilities favoured the nursing staff as it pointed that they
did what they could do and as expected of a reasonable person in the circumstances.
The SCA further held that even in circumstances where hospital staff have acted negligently by not monitoring
the condition of a woman in labour and the foetus and acting appropriately on the results, their wrongful conduct
does not, in and of itself, suffice to found delictual liability.
As a result, the SCA upheld the appeal and ordered each party to pay its own costs.
--------oOo-------- |
1546 | non-electoral | 2008 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case number: 64/2008
In the matter between:
WILLIAM VAN DER RIET FAMILY TRUST t/a CATHEDRAL PEAK HOTEL
Appellant (defendant)
and
HOSPITALITY INDUSTRY PENSION PROVIDENT FUND
Respondent (plaintiff)
Neutral citation:
William Van Der Riet Family Trust t/a Cathedral Peak Hotel v
Hospitality Industry Pension Provident Fund (64/2008) [2008]
ZASCA 148 (November 2008)
BEFORE :
Scott JA, Cameron JA, Cloete JA, Griesel AJA and
Kgomo AJA
HEARD:
Tuesday 18 November 2008
DELIVERED:
Thursday 27 November 2008
SUMMARY:
Pension Funds Act 24 of 1956 – Rules of pension fund –
interpretation – obligation of employer – agreement
obliging employer to pay increased contribution of 6% of
employee members’ salaries
ORDER
On appeal from:
The High Court, Pietermaritzburg (Moleko J and
Radebe AJ), sitting on appeal from the magistrate’s court at Bergville
The appeal is dismissed with costs
JUDGMENT
CAMERON JA (Scott JA, Cloete JA, Griesel AJA and Kgomo AJA concurring)
[1] In the magistrate’s court at Bergville, the respondent (the fund) sued
the appellant (the hotel) for R15 365,73 plus interest, which the fund claimed
represented underpayments in the hotel’s monthly dues as a participating
employer on behalf of its employees. The hotel admitted the underpayments
during the fourteen-month period the summons covered (February 2003 to
March 2004), but denied they were due. Thus presented, the contesting
parties’ dispute raised an issue of significance not only for the hotel, but
presumably also for other participating employers: the correct interpretation of
the fund’s rules, which have binding force under the Pension Funds Act 24 of
1956 (the Act),1 and which the fund (which is registered under the Act) has
statutory power to amend.2 The Act obliges employer members to pay ‘any
1 Pension Funds Act 24 of 1956, s 13 Binding force of rules:
Subject to the provisions of this Act, the rules of a registered fund shall be binding on the fund
and the members, shareholders and officers thereof, and on any person who claims under the
rules or whose claim is derived from a person so claiming.
2 Pension Funds Act 24 of 1956, s 12 Amendment of rules:
(1)
A registered fund may, in the manner directed by its rules, alter or rescind any rule or
make any additional rule, but no such alteration, rescission or addition shall be valid –
(a)
if it purports to [a]ffect any right of a creditor of the fund, other than a member or a
shareholder thereof; or
(b)
unless it has been approved by the registrar and registered as provided in ss (4).
Sub-section (2) requires a copy of resolution to be transmitted to the Registrar of Pension
Funds. Sub-section (3) requires a statement regarding the financial soundness or otherwise
contribution which, in terms of the rules of the fund, is to be deducted from the
members’ remuneration’, as well as ‘any contribution for which the employer
is liable in terms of those rules’.3
[2] The hotel asserted that it was obliged under the rules, properly
interpreted, to contribute only 5% of its employee members’ salaries. The
fund insisted that the hotel was obliged to pay 6%, since the trustees resolved
in January 2003 to increase employer contributions to that figure. The sum
claimed in the summons represented the difference for the disputed period.
The magistrate at Bergville, Ms E De Lange, upheld the hotel’s contentions.
The fund appealed to the High Court in Pietermaritzburg (Moleko J; Radebe
AJ concurring), which reversed this judgment, and ordered the hotel to pay
the amount claimed, with interest. The hotel now appeals, with leave granted
by the High Court.
[3] To understand the parties’ dispute it is necessary to explain its context.
The fund was established in September 1992. The hotel joined as a
participating employer on 24 February 1999. At that date, revisions had
recently been effected to the rules. So updated, the text defined the ‘rules’ as
including ‘such alterations as may at any time be in force’. The text also
provided, concordantly with the Act, that the rules ‘may be amended at any
time by the Trustees’ (among whose number, it bears mention, both
employers and employees are represented). Members’ contributions are
defined as being a ‘minimum 6 per cent’ of salary, while employers’
contributions were (in 1999) ‘at least 4 per cent’, less certain benefit costs,
provided that –
‘(b) every 1 January the EMPLOYER’S contribution shall increase by 1% up to a
minimum level of 6% of FUND SALARY’.
[4] It is this latter proviso that afforded the foundation for the fund’s
contentions. However, the hotel’s accession was recorded in an Agreement
of the fund should the change affect its financial condition. Sub-section (4) empowers the
Registrar to register the change.
3 Pension Funds Act 24 of 1956, s 13A(1)(a) and (b).
of Participation which the parties’ respective representatives signed on 24
February 1999 (the Agreement). This expressly set out the contribution rates,
as a percentage of gross monthly wage payable to the fund, for both employer
and employee. The figure stated was in each case 5%.
[5] Immediately above the parties’ signatures, the Agreement ‘confirmed’
that the hotel had ‘received copies of the Rules of the Fund and the
Administration Guide’. This reference to the rules was plainly intended to
integrate them into the parties’ agreement. (The magistrate’s observation that
‘no mention is made of the rules’ was thus mistaken.) The Agreement so
became subject to the provisions of the rules, as amended from time to time,
during the period of the hotel’s accession to the fund.
[6] Neither in the High Court nor before this Court did the hotel contend
the contrary: indeed its contentions derived from the rules, specifically
amendments the fund’s trustees adopted on 28 January 2000. The pivotal
amendment was the addition of the following proviso to the exposition of
‘CONTRIBUTIONS’ in the section headed ‘SCHEDULE OF BENEFITS’:
‘It is specifically provided that the contribution rate(s) applicable shall be as specified
in the AGREEMENT OF PARTICIPATION.’
This proviso formed the basis for the hotel’s initial defensive stance to the
fund’s claim. It asserted that the January 2000 amendment pegged the
employer’s contribution to that expressly stipulated in the Agreement, namely
5%, with the effect that the trustees’ decision in January 2003 to increase the
employer’s contribution to 6% violated the basis on which the hotel acceded
to the fund and was therefore ineffectual.
[7] But the defence foundered on the point, well-made by Moleko J in his
judgment in the High Court, that the 1999 rules gave no special sanctity to the
Agreement of Participation, and that the proviso that seemingly elevated the
status of the Agreement was added only in 2000. As the learned Judge
pointed out, the Agreement the employer signed in February 1999 did not
stand alone, but was subject to and had to be read with the rules – which at
that time, as well as subsequently, provided for an annual escalation in the
employer’s contribution. It followed by simple logic that in January 2000,
when the proviso pegging contributions at those specified in the Agreement of
Participation was inserted, the employer’s contribution had already gone up to
6%. The hotel’s initial argument therefore required counsel to straddle the
uncomfortable anomaly that, if it were correct, the hotel’s contribution went up
(automatically) to 6% on 1 January 2000, but then reverted down to 5% when
the 2000 amendments were adopted just days later.
[8] That could not be. In argument before us counsel therefore conceded
the force of the contrary logic and abandoned his earlier contentions, though
he continued to point to what he suggested were difficulties inherent in it. The
rule the fund invoked entailed, he said, an automatic annual increase of 1%,
indefinitely waxing, which was an absurdity. And indeed that outcome would
be absurd, for it seems plain that the parties envisaged that contributions of
both the employer and employee would remain fractional in relation to
salaries. But the interpretation may safely be discarded as incorrect, for the
1% increase the rules mandate ‘every 1 January’ is automatic only until the
minimum of 6% is reached. Thereafter, increases must be fixed by the
trustees, who, as already mentioned, include both employer and employee
representatives, and may presumably be trusted not to make absurd
decisions.
[9] As pointed out during debate with counsel, the rule envisages not an
indefinitely escalating employer contribution, but a minimum compulsory level,
which is 6%, to be attained in one-percent annual increases in those cases
where the employer’s initial contribution is below 6%. How does the
Agreement of Participation, and the 28 January 2000 amendment that pegs
employer contributions to it, tie in with this? The answer is that it makes
provision for those cases where the employer’s contribution is from the outset
agreed to be higher, not lower, than 6%.
[10] His main assailant fire thus quenched, counsel invoked an entirely new
contention. He argued that the provisos to the rule specifying the employer’s
contributions had to be read so as to limit the annual increases altogether. To
understand his submission it is necessary to set out the provision in question
more fully:
‘Participating Employer’s contributions
at least 5 per cent [as amended 28 January 2000] of FUND SALARY, less the cost of
providing the funeral benefits but inclusive of the cost of providing the RISK
BENEFITS and the administration costs; provided that
(a) if at any time the RISK BENEFITS and administration costs exceed 5 per
cent, the higher amount shall be paid by the PARTICIPATING
EMPLOYER;
(b) every 1 January the PARTICIPATING EMPLOYER’S contribution shall
increase
(c) by 1% up to a minimum level of 6% of FUND SALARY;
(d) in respect of a MEMBER who immediately prior to his PARTICIPATION
DATE was a member of an industrial fund, the PARTICIPATING
EMPLOYER shall continue to contribute to the FUND at the rate at which
he was contributing to such an industrial fund on behalf of such
MEMBER.
It is specifically provided that the contribution rate(s) applicable shall be as specified
in the AGREEMENT OF PARTICIPATION.’
[11] The basis for this argument is the alphabeticised sub-paragraphing, from
which it is immediately evident that (c) is not separate but is part of (b).
Seizing on this, counsel urged us to integrate also (a) into (b), so as to
constitute the first three sub-paragraphs a single semantic entity. Thus
unsundered, counsel argued, the new single paragraph meant that only when
risk benefits and administration costs exceed 5 per cent, would the employer’s
contribution increase by 1% every January.
[12] The argument is entirely unpersuasive. For one thing, the meaning
counsel urges us to attribute to the consolidated provisos is improbably
unbusinesslike, for what if risk benefits and administration costs exceed the
default contribution by more than 1%? On counsel’s reading, the employer’s
contribution can increase by only 1% at a time, every 1 January. That makes
no sense.
[13] Second, counsel’s reading requires the insertion of words between (a)
and (b) for the two to make sense together – at least the words, ‘and then’; or,
more comprehensibly, as counsel conceded in argument, ‘then in that event
and only in that event’. Such a radical prosthetic addition is quite
unnecessary when the two provisos operate with perfect composure on their
own.
[14] Third, it is clear that (a) and (b) and (d) (in contrast to (b) and (c)) are
linguistically distinct. Sub-para (a) is conditional; (b) is unconditional. And (d)
is again entirely separate. The provisos cater for three (not as many as four;
but certainly not as few as two) distinct situations, in each of which employer
dues deviate from the minimum stated in the main body of the provision – (a)
provides for excess costs in risk benefits and administration; (b) provides for
automatically increased dues (up to a minimum level) in contributions to the
main aggregation of the fund; and (d) pegs contribution levels to those of an
employee’s previous fund.
[15] Finally, counsel’s argument is unworkable for a further reason. It was
neither pleaded, nor put to the only witness called at the trial, Mr Gary
Lamont, the fund’s administration manager. At no stage was the fund
confronted with the possible interpretation that the automatic annual increase
sub-proviso (b) envisaged was triggered only when risk benefits and
administration costs were excessive. Had the fund been given the opportunity
to deal with this possible interpretation, it may have called another witness,
which may have enabled it to prevail even on the interpretation now urged
before us.
[16] But even setting aside the pleading and cross-examination objection,
the argument is not tenable. The only editing clean-up the clause requires is
to add (c) to (b): nothing more. So clearly mistaken is the split between (c)
and (b) that one is impelled to the conclusion, suggested to counsel during
argument, that it resulted from a mistaken keystroke, which triggered the
operation of the automatic paragraph-numbering function of the word-
processing programme.
[17] It follows that the judgment of the High Court was correct, and that the
appeal must be dismissed with costs.
E CAMERON
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances:
For appellant:
GR Thatcher
Instructed by
Bowne Brodie Attorneys, La Lucia Ridge
Matsepes Inc, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
PU Fischer
Instructed by:
Brodkin & Sohn Attorneys, Pietermaritzburg
Lovius Block, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
Thursday 27 November 2008
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of
the media and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme
Court of Appeal
William Van Der Riet Family Trust t/a Cathedral Peak Hotel v
Hospitality Industry Pension Provident Fund (64/2008) [2008]
ZASCA 148 (November 2008)
In a judgment delivered today, the Supreme Court of Appeal has
held that the Cathedral Peak Hotel in KwaZulu-Natal is obliged to
pay increased employer contributions to the hospitality industry
pension provident fund.
The dispute between the hotel and the fund arose from differing
interpretations of the fund’s rules, which have statutory force under
the Pension Funds Act 24 of 1956.
The dispute has wider significance for other employer members of
the fund.
The hotel contended that when it joined the fund, the document
entitled ‘agreement of participation’, which it signed, pegged its
contributions at 5%.
The fund differed, and sued the hotel in the Bergville magistrate’s
court for under-payments. The magistrate upheld the hotel’s
contentions, but the high court in Pietermaritzburg (Moleko J, with
whom Radebe AJ concurred) reversed this judgment, finding for
the fund.
The SCA has now upheld the high court’s ruling.
Before the SCA, the hotel abandoned its previous contention
(which the high court rejected) that the agreement of participation
pegged its contributions to 5%. The SCA agreed that this
argument was untenable.
However, the SCA also rejected a new argument the hotel
advanced on appeal, which was based on an interpretation of the
fund’s rules themselves.
In a unanimous judgment by Cameron JA, with whom Scott JA,
Cloete JA, Griesel AJA and Kgomo AJA concurred, the SCA has
held that the rules, properly interpreted, entailed that the hotel’s
contributions automatically went up by 1% per year, until a
minimum level of 6% was attained.
That was the level at which the fund was entitled to enforce
contributions from the hotel, and the fund’s action therefore had to
succeed with costs. |
512 | non-electoral | 2016 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 319/2015 & 324/2015
In the matter between:
JOEST (PTY) LTD
APPELLANT
and
JÖST GmbH + KG
FIRST RESPONDENT
JVT VIBRATING EQUIPMENT (PTY) LTD SECOND RESPONDENT
THE REGISTRAR OF TRADE MARKS
THIRD RESPONDENT
Neutral Citation:
Joest v Jöst (319/2015 & 324/2015) [2016] ZASCA 110
(1 September 2016)
Coram:
Navsa, Petse, Willis, Saldulker and Swain JJA
Heard:
15 August 2016
Delivered:
1 September 2016
Summary:
Trade marks and passing off : contested proprietorship of
confusingly similar registered trade marks : application and counter-application for
expungement of trade marks from register and consequential relief : mark originating
from first respondent, a German based company and holding company of a
subsidiary which introduced its machines and components into South Africa bearing
the mark indicating provenance : years later ownership in subsidiary relinquished :
commercial relationship continuing : no acquisition of proprietorship by former
subsidiary : licensee and not licensor : ineffective assignment of rights not validly
held.
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: The Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Ismail J sitting
as court of first instance).
The following order is made:
1.
The main appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.
2.
The cross-appeal is upheld with costs including the costs of two counsel.
3.
Paragraph 2.3 of the order in the court below is amended to read as follows:
„2.3.
The first respondent in the counter-application is ordered to pay the costs of the
counter-application.‟
4.
The order of the court below is supplemented by the inclusion of the following
orders:
„2.4.
The first respondent in the counter-application is interdicted and restrained, in terms
of Section 34(1)(a) the Trade Marks Act 193 of 1994, by itself or through its servants or
agents, from infringing the rights of the first applicant in the counter-application flowing from
the registration of the first applicant in the counter-application‟s registered trade mark nos.
2006/29062 & 63
in classes 7 and 9 by using, in the course of trade, in relation
to the goods and services identical to the goods included in trade mark nos. 2006/29062 &
63, the identical mark or any mark so similar thereto as to be likely to deceive or cause
confusion.
2.5
The first respondent in the counter-application is interdicted and restrained from
passing off its goods and services as being those of the first applicant in the counter-
application or as being connected with those of the first applicant in the counter-application
in the course of trade, by the use of the marks: JOEST, JOST, JÖST,
,
,
,
, and related get up, or any other trade mark or get-up that is confusingly
similar to the first applicant in the counter-application‟s
and
trade
marks and get-up.
2.6
The first respondent in the counter-application is ordered to remove the marks:
JOEST, JOST, JÖST,
,
,
,
and related get up, or any
confusingly or deceptively similar trade marks, from all matter in their possession or under
their control, including all signs, labels, websites, promotional and advertising material,
packaging, stationery and other printed or electronic matter of any nature and where the
marks are inseparable or incapable of being removed from such material to which they have
been applied, delivering up such matter to the first and second applicants in the counter-
application‟s attorneys.
2.7
It is directed that an enquiry be conducted, pursuant to Section 34(4) of the Trade
Marks Act 194 of 1993, to determine the quantum of damages suffered by the first applicant
in the counter-application as a result of the infringement of the first applicant in the counter-
application‟s trade mark, or the payment of a reasonable royalty for the use of its trade mark
in lieu of such damages, and that the first respondent in the counter-application pay such
damages and/or reasonable royalty as may be found to be payable by the first respondent in
the counter-application to the first applicant in the counter-application in the course of such
enquiry, and that
2.8
To this end, in the event of the parties being unable to agree on the procedure to be
adopted in such enquiry, either party may approach this court for directions as to the
procedure to be adopted, on these same papers, duly supplemented where necessary.‟
___________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
___________________________________________________________________
Navsa JA (Petse, Willis, Saldulker and Swain JJA concurring)
The Issue
[1] The central question in this case, is which of the parties can claim to be the
lawful proprietor of the Joest/Jöst trademark in South Africa. The answer to that
question will be determinative of both the appeal and the cross-appeal. The appeals
are pursuant to a decision of the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Ismail
J), determining an application and counter-application for interdictory and associated
relief in relation to the use of the mark. The court a quo held that the first respondent
is the lawful proprietor. The background extracted from the affidavits filed in the court
below and the reasoning and conclusions of that court leading up to the present
appeal and cross-appeal, are set out hereafter.
The background
[2] The parties agree that Joest is simply the English spelling of the German
surname Jöst and that they are confusingly similar. The appellant, Joest (Pty) Ltd, is
a South African company with its principal place of business in Spartan, Kempton
Park, Gauteng Province. The first respondent, Jöst GmbH+Co. KG, is a German
company with its registered address in Dülmen, Germany. I shall, for the sake of
convenience, refer to the appellant and the first respondent in the main appeal as J
and Jöst, respectively. These appellations will make it easier when dealing with both
the main and cross-appeals.
[3] The second respondent, JVT Vibrating Equipment (Pty) Ltd (JVT), a South
African company with its principal place of business in Bedfordview, Gauteng, which
was incorporated in 2012, is a subsidiary of Jöst and a licensee, authorised to
distribute the latter‟s products in South Africa, and is in direct competition with J in
this country. The products so manufactured and distributed in South Africa bear the
Joest/Jöst mark.
[4] Jöst is a multinational company that has its origins when a company was first
established in Germany during 1919 by a Mr Jöst and a Mr Fiege. At that stage they
incorporated a company called JÖST Schwingungstechnik GmbH. Jöst and its
predecessor‟s core competencies included the design and manufacture of vibrating
machines and vibratory drive units and establishing and designing solutions in
process engineering. Jöst operates, either directly or through subsidiaries, in
jurisdictions around the world and its products are applied, amongst others, in the
foundry and steel industry, the mining industry, chemical and plastics industry and
the thermal processing of bulk material. That Jöst and its predecessors in title have
been in business for 93 years is unchallenged. The companies through which Jöst
operates in France, Australia, the United States of America, China and Slovakia all,
in one form or the other, bear the Joest name. Although J, in a replying affidavit
disputes the present extent of Jöst‟s international operations and the degree of its
commercial success, the essential averments that Jöst has an international presence
and reputation and is engaged in the industries referred to above, are not denied and
must be accepted. It is not in dispute that Jöst is the proprietor of various Jöst and
Joest trade marks in jurisdictions throughout the world.
[5] In the 1970s the shareholders of JÖST Schwingungstechnik GmbH bought a
company called Pontzen Engineering GmbH (Pontzen). In 1984 the two entities
merged under the Pontzen banner and the new company licenced its business
operations to an associated company called Jöst KG. Pontzen later changed its
name to the first respondent‟s present designation. Thus, Jöst came into being. The
averments by Jöst that its predecessor, in the embodiment referred to at the
beginning of this paragraph, entered the South African market using the Joest mark
and the
logo and that the brand was promoted under the English spelling of
Jöst, namely, Joest, is essentially unchallenged.
[6] J‟s predecessor in title, Joest Vibration Technics (South Africa) (Pty) Ltd
(Technics), was first incorporated as a South African company in 1976 to operate
Jöst‟s business under licence from Jöst. At the time of its incorporation, Technics
was a wholly owned subsidiary of Jöst. In October 1987, although Technics changed
its name to Joest Vibrations (Pty) Ltd (JV), it remained wholly owned by Jöst. During
the period from 1976 until 1989 it is common cause that Technics and JV, whilst
wholly owned by Jöst, imported from Jöst and manufactured machines which they
sold and distributed for use in the industries referred to above, under licence from
Jöst using its know-how and technology. During that period the machines all bore the
Joest mark.
[7] Jöst‟s assertion, that in 1989, because of international pressures to disinvest
from apartheid South Africa, it entered into a written sale of shareholding agreement,
in terms of which it sold 75 per cent of its shareholding in JV to the Vogel family that
now controls J, is not effectively contested. In terms of that agreement the right of JV
to use the Jöst mark was restricted to certain jurisdictions in Southern Africa.
Simultaneously a manufacturing licencing agreement was concluded between JV
and Jöst. This agreement was updated and replaced in 1996. Jöst contended that it
is implicit in all these agreements that the products manufactured in terms thereof
would bear the Joest mark used by Jöst. This, of course, is challenged by J which
contended that these agreements were merely ones in terms of which it was
licenced to use Jöst‟s know-how and confidential information. I shall, in due course,
deal with the relevant provisions of the 1989 and 1996 written agreements and deal
with the parties‟ respective contentions in relation thereto.
[8] During November 1992 JV changed its name to Joest (Pty) Ltd, which at that
time apparently was not the same entity as J. In 1996 the remaining 25 per cent
shareholding in that company was sold to the Vogels. The sale of shares
agreements referred to in this and the preceding paragraph did not cater for the
assignment of the Joest/Jöst marks. Between August 1998 and July 2009 there were
shareholding changes in relation to J‟s predecessors in title which are not of any real
moment.
[9] Jöst‟s assertion that at the beginning of the 1990‟s it updated its logo as
follows,
, is not substantively disputed. It is also not disputed that
following Jöst‟s update of this logo, J‟s predecessor similarly updated its own logo to
match. Nor is it challenged that the copyright in the logo was assigned by its
designer to Jöst. According to the trade mark register, Jöst is the proprietor in South
Africa of the following trade mark registrations:
(a)
no. 2006/29062 JÖST logo in class 7 in respect of
„Construction machines, electricity generators; motors and engines (except for land
vehicles); machine coupling and transmission components (except for land vehicles);
machine drives (except for land vehicles); dosing drives and installation; hangers
(parts of machines); vibration drives (machines); magnetic data oscillators
(machines); unbalanced mass vibration generators (machines); directed force
exciters (machines); vibration reactors (machines); magnetic vibrators (machines);
unbalanced motors (machines); shaft drives; machines for conveying, sifting,
classifying, dosing and/or crushing; processing machines, resonance conveyor
installations; sliding conveyors; spiral conveyors; feed installations; lifting and tilting
apparatus (machines); hydraulic tilting apparatus; container handling systems;
transport devices and systems for bulk goods (machines); casting coolers
(machines); sand coolers (machines); vibration coolers and dryers (machines);
fluidised bed coolers and dryers; dosing toughs (machines); oscillating conveyor
pipes (machines); vibrating screening machines; separating toughs (machines);
shake-out grids (machines); shaking tables (machines); sand lump breakers
(machines); sieves; sorting tables (machines); classifying devices.‟
(b)
no. 2006/29063 JÖST logo in class 9 in respect of
„Electric and electronic equipment; apparatus for devices for controlling and/or
regulating machines and installations; controls as well as measuring devices,
apparatus and instruments for machines and installations; weighing devices,
apparatus and instruments, scales.‟
[10] In jurisdictions around the world Jöst has registered the Joest/Jöst mark or
applied therefor in the following forms in relation to machinery manufactured by it:1
[11] Mr Dieter A Jöst, a grandchild of one of the two founding members of Jöst,
who was also a shareholder and employee of J and its predecessors in the years
between 1972 and 2005, stated in an affidavit in support of Jöst‟s case that it was
never intended by way of the sale of shares agreements referred to above or the
manufacturing agreement that Jöst would divest itself of the proprietorship of the
Joest/Jöst mark.
1 J‟s reaction to the documentation in this regard appended to Jöst‟s answering affidavit is that it is
irrelevant and that, in any event, much of it is in foreign languages that are not translated, and cannot
meaningfully be responded to. Some of the documentation is undoubtedly in languages other than
English, however certificates of registration in the United States Patent and Trade Mark office is in
English as is a certificate of registration from the International Bureau of the World Intellectual
Property Organisation (WIPO) certifying that the indications in the certificate conform „to the recording
made in the International Register of Marks maintained under the Madrid Agreement and Protocol‟,
and are clear in their wording.
[12] On 29 July 2009, J in its present form, was established. J too, like Jöst,
designs and manufactures vibrating equipment that it supplies to the bulk material
handling market, which includes the industries supplied by Jöst. Clearly, it is the
competition between the two that lies at the heart of the present litigation.
[13] On 30 April 2012, the 1996 written manufacturing licencing agreement
referred to above was terminated. It is necessary to record that during 1996, Gunter
Vogel, the chairperson and a non-executive director of J, registered the Joest trade
mark in his own name and during 2010 registered the logo used by Jöst in J‟s name.
The mark registered during 1996 was only assigned to J in 2012. In terms of the
trade marks register, J is the proprietor in South Africa of the following trade mark
registrations:
(i)
no. 1996/00964 JOEST in class 7 in respect of:
„Machines and machine tools, including vibrating screens and feeders for use
in industry‟,
(ii)
no. 2010/00726 JOEST in class 37 in respect of:
„Building construction, repair, installation services‟;
(iii)
no. 2010/00727 JOEST logo (colour) in class 7 in respect of:
„Machines and machine tools, motors and engines (except for land vehicles);
machine coupling and transmission components (except for land vehicles);
agricultural implements other than hand operated; incubators for eggs‟,
(iv)
no. 2010/00728 JOEST logo (colour) in class 37 in respect of:
„Building construction, repair, installation services‟.
The marks set out above are clearly confusingly similar to that used by Jöst in
jurisdictions around the world.
[14] On 21 March 2011 discussions took place in Perth, Australia, between
representatives of J and Jöst in contemplation of an extension of the 1996 licence
agreement. The following admitted part of the minutes of the meeting is relevant:
„The trademark which Gunter Vogel initially had registered will be transferred to
JOEST Germany. During the course of the prolongation of the license agreement an
amendment will be made specifying the details how the licensee can make use of this trade
name during the lifetime of the license contract.‟
The extension of the agreement did not materialise.
[15] According to J, the licencing agreement was terminated in 2012 because it
had come to the realisation that, for a number of preceding years it had received
very little in the form of useable know-how from Jöst, particularly if regard was had to
the licencing fees. J also contended that the know-how was of limited use in relation
to South African mining conditions. J stated that it had over the years developed its
own technology in its own name and sold products it had developed and
manufactured to customers under the Joest name. This, of course, is strenuously
denied on behalf of Jöst, which in substantiation supplied copies of correspondence,
plans, diagrams and photos, that it contended demonstrated on-going assistance
and input to J where the latter itself endeavoured to manufacture products. Para 7.8
of J‟s founding affidavit in the main application is important. Following on what is set
out at the beginning of this paragraph, the principal deponent on behalf of J stated
the following:
„In short, the know-how licence to [J] was not really appropriate for the peculiar conditions of
the South African mining industry and, over the years, [J] had to develop technology of its
own and manufactured and sold JOEST products to its customers that did not incorporate or
embody any know-how received from [Jöst]. J developed its own range of JOEST products
that became successful in the industry and popular amongst [J‟s] customers.‟
I shall, in due course, return to the significance of this passage.
[16] J‟s attitude is that Jöst unlawfully proceeded to register the marks referred to
above on 1 December 2011 without its knowledge or consent. J alleged that its
concern was that the JÖST trade mark was virtually identical to its JOEST trade
mark. The affidavit by Gunter Vogel in support of J‟s case went on to state:
„[P]honetically, the two marks are identical. Bearing in mind that the letter “Ö” in German is
the equivalent of the letters “OE” in English, JÖST and JOEST are alternative forms of the
same mark. I submit that, at the very least, the two marks are confusingly and deceptively
similar and use of the respective marks by different proprietors will inevitably give rise to
deception and confusion in the marketplace. It appears from correspondence exchanged
between [J‟s] attorneys and [Jöst‟s] attorneys (which will be dealt with below) that [Jöst]
agrees that the marks JÖST and JOEST are confusingly similar and, in the circumstances, I
do not intend to deal with this aspect in any more detail‟.
As stated above on this latter aspect the parties are ad idem.
[17] It is common cause that the goods covered by the parties‟ respective trade
marks in classes 7 and 9 overlap. J contended that Jöst‟s trade mark registrations in
classes 7 and 9 are liable to be removed from the register of trade marks on the
basis that they are entries wrongly made or, alternatively, entries wrongly remaining,
on the register, within the meaning of s 24(1) of the Trade Marks Act 194 of 1993
(the Act). In particular, these registrations, so it was submitted, offend against, inter
alia, the provisions of the following sections of the Act:
(a)
Section 10(3), in that Jöst has no bona fide claim to proprietorship in relation
to the JÖST trade mark in South Africa;
(b)
Section 10(12), in that use by Jöst, or any licensee, such as JVT, would be
likely to deceive or cause confusion, in view of J‟s extensive reputation and goodwill
in respect of its JOEST trade mark in South Africa;
(c)
Section 10(14), in that the mark JÖST is identical or so similar to J‟s (earlier)
registered trade mark JOEST, that use thereof in relation to the goods in respect of
which the mark has been registered and which are the same as or similar to the
goods in respect of which J‟s JOEST trade mark is registered, would be likely to
deceive or cause confusion;
(d)
Section 10(15), in that the mark JÖST is identical or so similar to J‟s (later)
registrations for JOEST that use thereof in relation to the goods in respect of which it
has been registered and which are the same as or similar to the goods and services
in respect of which J‟s (later) marks are registered, would be likely to deceive or
cause confusion.
[18] During October 2012 J launched an application in the court below seeking the
expungement of JÖST trade mark registrations and sought an interdict restraining
JVT from infringing its rights that arise from its trade mark registrations referred to
above and from passing itself off as J or being connected in the course of trade with
J by using the mark JÖST or JOEST.
[19] A further spur to the application in the court below appears to be a legal
opinion obtained by J from a German legal expert that as the 1996 licencing
agreement was subject to the laws of the Federal Republic of Germany and fell to be
interpreted according to those laws, the agreement could not be interpreted as
constituting a trade mark agreement.
[20] As is apparent from what is set out above, the application was resisted by
Jöst, which in turn launched a counter-application in terms of which it sought the
expungement of J‟s trade mark registrations referred to above and similarly sought
interdictory relief of the kind referred to above. Relief was sought against J as well as
against Gunter Vogel. Before us, however, the latter relief was not persisted in.
[21] It is now necessary to have regard to the relevant provisions of the 1989 „Sale
of Shareholding Agreement‟. The agreement was between Gunter Vogel and two
other members of the Vogel family and Jöst (at that stage Pontzen) for the transfer of
75 per cent of the shareholding of the company as recorded in para 7 above. In
terms of that agreement the purchasers of the shareholding accept that the company
(JV) was obliged to buy particular machinery and components from Jöst, unless
otherwise agreed to in writing. The purchasers undertook that they would „enter into
a licence agreement with Jöst‟ and, furthermore, were „restricted to carrying on its
business in the region‟. The region was defined to mean „the Republic of South
Africa as it was constituted on 31 May 1961, Namibia, Botswana, Lesotho,
Mozambique, Zambia and Zimbabwe‟. As contemplated, a manufacturing licencing
agreement was simultaneously concluded. Although neither party could locate that
agreement it is common cause that the licence agreement concluded between the
parties on 17 June 1996 is in similar terms.
[22] The 1996 licence agreement is, as accepted by Jöst, a manufacturing
agreement. It records that Jöst as licensor had been manufacturing and selling
articles listed therein and that J had manufactured licenced products under a
renewable know-how licence from the licensor since 1 January 1989, which licence
expires on 31 December 1996. The agreement notes that the parties were desirous
that the licencing arrangement be continued. It then goes on to record that J is
authorised to exploit Jöst‟s know-how in respect of standard and non-standard
products set out therein. Furthermore, the agreement notes that the licensee shall
not grant sub-licences, without the prior written consent of the licensor. The territory
in Southern Africa over which the licence extended is set out. Clause 16 of that
agreement reads as follows:
„The Licensee shall mark all products made by him under licence and supplied to his
customers with serial numbers. Should the Licensee delete the name “JOEST” in its
registered company name, the Licensee shall affix to such products a label inscribed
“Manufactured under Licence of JÖST, Germany”.‟
According to Jöst, the inscription set out above was necessary because of European
Union Directive 94/9/EC, relating to equipment and protective systems intended for
use in potentially explosive atmospheres, which stipulates that the manufacturer of
such equipment must state its company name and other identifying marks on such
products, that the manufacturer is obliged to ensure strict quality and other control
over these goods, and that it is liable under law for such goods. This assertion is
unchallenged, save that J contends that it is irrelevant.
[23] The assertions by J‟s expert concerning German law and its application to the
agreements referred to above was countered in the answering affidavit by a legal
expert in support of Jöst‟s case, who concluded that:
„[I]n view of the special relationship between them, particularly the fact that [J‟s] predecessor
in title was a wholly owned subsidiary of [Jöst], the agreements were no more than what was
expected: a technology licence agreement with the implicit further licence to use the JOEST
trade marks on such products‟.
[24] In responding to what was said by Mr Dieter A Jöst, as is set out in para 11
above, J, in its replying affidavit, merely stated that those allegations were denied
insofar as they did not accord with the assertions in its founding affidavit that the
licencing agreement was merely one relating to know-how and technology.
Furthermore, the assertions by Mr Dieter Jöst were sought to be countered by J, with
an affidavit by Dr Uwe Hautz who, at one stage, was the managing director of Jöst
as well as a director of J. According to Dr Hautz he was unaware of any trade mark
licence agreement.
[25] In exploring the relationship between the parties, the following uncontested
facts that appear in para 53 of Jöst‟s answering affidavit, are also not without
significance:
„Before the termination of [J‟s] licence agreement in April 2012, it yearly imported, under its
licence with [Jöst], between €1,000,000.00 and €1,500,000.00 worth of vibrating drive units
(electromagnetic drivers) per year from [Jöst], all of which were clearly marked with [Jöst‟s]
JÖST trade mark.‟
[26] Jöst is adamant that J is the only party that can be accused of mala fides in
relation to the registration of the Joest/Jöst mark. It rejects the accusation on behalf
of J that it proceeded to register the marks unlawfully and in contravention of the
latter‟s rights. Jöst was emphatic that J‟s trade mark registrations, set out above
were effected surreptitiously and opportunistically and that they only came to Jöst‟s
knowledge years later.
Judgment in the court below
[27] Ismail J, in addressing the question posed at the beginning of this judgment,
considered the provisions of the 1996 agreement as set out at para 22 above to be
significant. At para 26 of the judgment the learned judge stated the following:
„To this end one must ask the rhetorical question why would [Jöst] have insisted in
the agreement that [J] could utilize “[Jöst‟s] mark Joest and that if the mark were deleted
from the product, they would have to bear the inscription „Manufactured under License of
Jöst, Germany.‟”‟
[28] In the immediately ensuing paragraphs of the judgment of the court below the
following appears:
„27.
Apart from the reason furnished in para [25], supra I am of the view that it would have
been financially and commercially naïve for the German company to allow the South African
company carte blanche usage of its name, on products locally manufactured.
28.
I am of the view that the agreement was more than a know how agreement, that it
was a trade mark agreement, notwithstanding it not having been expressly stipulated in the
agreement as such.‟
[29] The court below went on to make the following order:
„1.
The application is dismissed with costs, such costs to include the costs of senior
counsel.
2.
The counter-application succeeds in that I make an order to the following effect: -
2.2 Directing the third respondent [the Registrar of Trade Marks] to rectify the Trade
Mark register in terms of section 24(1) of the Trade Marks Act, 194 of 1993 in
relation to the trade mark registration number 1996/00964 JOEST in class 7 by
removing it from the register.
2.3 Directing the third respondent [the Registrar of Trade Marks] to rectify the Trade
Mark Register in terms of section 24(1) of the Act in relation to trade mark
registration no. 2010/00726 JOEST in class 37, trade mark registration no.
2010/00727 JOEST in class 7 and trade mark registration no. 2010/00728
JOEST in class 37 by removing the registration from the Register.
2.4 The respondents in the counter-application are ordered to pay the costs of the
counter-application such costs to include the costs of senior counsel.‟
[30] It is against those conclusions and the resultant orders that J and Jöst, with
the leave of the court below, appeal and cross-appeal, respectively.
[31] The cross-appeal is concerned with the failure of the court below to grant
interdictory relief against J in relation to the alleged infringement of Jöst‟s rights
flowing from the registration of J‟s trade marks set out earlier in this judgment,
coupled with an order that the marks be removed from all matter in J‟s possession.
Furthermore, the court below did not order that an enquiry be conducted pursuant to
s 34(4) of the Act, to determine the quantum of damages suffered by the first
applicant as a result of the infringement of the first applicant‟s trade mark, or the
payment of a reasonable royalty for the use of its trade mark in lieu of such
damages, and that J pay such damages and/or reasonable royalty as may be found
to be payable by it to Jöst in the course of such enquiry. The orders sought and not
granted are set out in para 5, 6, 10 and 11 of Jöst‟s notice of motion in the counter-
application in the court below.
[32] Before us it was agreed that a decision on the proprietorship of the Joest/Jöst
mark would be determinative of both the appeal and the cross-appeal and would
decide:
(a)
Which party‟s trade mark registrations are validly on the register and which
ones should be expunged therefrom;
(b)
Which party shall be rightfully entitled in future to make use of the trade mark
Joest/Jöst in South Africa; and
(c)
Which party shall in future be prevented from making use of the trade mark
Joest/Jöst in South Africa.
Submissions before us
[33] On behalf of J it was submitted that the court below correctly found that the
outcome of its cause of action for trade mark infringement and passing off depended
on a proper interpretation of the 1996 agreement. However, J further submitted that
the court below erred in finding that that agreement was a trade mark licence
agreement. Essentially it was contended on behalf of J that the court below ought to
have found that the agreement was merely a know-how agreement and that it was
entitled to the relief it claimed. It was agreed between the parties that the applicable
law in relation to the 1996 agreement was German law. It was submitted on behalf of
J that the court ought to have taken into account in its favour the shareholders
agreement concluded in 1989, and should have had regard to the evidence tendered
on behalf of J, namely, that of Dr Kador, an independent German attorney who took
the view that the agreement could not be interpreted as anything more than a mere
know-how licencing agreement based on the principles of interpretation of German
law. It was contended on behalf of J that the evidence tendered on behalf of Jöst,
namely, that of Mr Hackel concerning the application of principles of interpretation
according to German law was not that of an independent objective expert as he was
Jöst‟s attorney.
[34] Jöst, on the other hand, took the view that it was important to consider the
history of the relationship between the parties and the capacity in which J made use
of the mark JOEST and that it is that aspect that lies at the heart of the dispute
between the parties. It was submitted on behalf of Jöst that J made use of the mark
JOEST as a licensee and not as a proprietor in its own right and it could therefore
not be said to be the proprietor of the mark. Jöst submitted that since the JOEST
mark has been in use in South Africa on an extensive basis at least since 1976 by
the appellant, but not in its own name, it could not therefore claim the reputation and
goodwill for the purposes of its claim of passing off.
[35] According to Jöst the history set out earlier in this judgment makes it clear that
Technics, JV and J were mere licensees authorised to use the JOEST/JÖST mark.
That this is so is further evidenced by the provisions of the sale of shares
agreements referred to earlier and also by the 1996 licencing agreement.
[36] In respect of the law applicable to the interpretation of the 1996 agreement it
was pointed out on behalf of Jöst that the legal experts on either side were at least
agreed that according to German law the interpretation of the licence agreement
would be resolved by determining the intention of the parties, taking into account
their mutual interest and also the situation and negotiations before the signing of the
agreement. They merely disagreed about the application of this principle.
[37] Jöst also contended that Mr Vogel‟s initial registration of the JOEST trade
mark in his own name is destructive of J‟s case, because it would mean that he
personally owned the reputation and goodwill. This has to be seen against his
contradictory assertion that the reputation attached to J and its predecessors. In
essence, it was contended that the only reasonable conclusion is that the provisions
of the licence agreement, together with the totality of circumstances, point to J not
being the bona fide proprietor of the mark. Jöst accuses J of being opportunistic and
manipulative.
[38] It was submitted on behalf of Jöst that the probabilities are overwhelmingly in
their favour and that business logic and common sense dictate that a parent
company, when incorporating a local subsidiary, will not divest itself of its trade mark
and will only licence its „offspring‟ to use it. It was submitted on behalf of Jöst that, as
ordered by the court below, it was entitled to the expungement of the trade marks
registered in J‟s name, but contended that the continued use by J of the Joest/Jöst
mark amounted to a passing off at common law and should have been interdicted as
prayed for in the counter-application.
Conclusions
[39] A convenient starting point is a reminder of the purpose of conventional trade
marks such as trade names and of logos. Trade mark law has as its subject matter
trade names, symbols and signs, which have as their object the conveyancing of
information concerning trade origin.2 At the heart of trade mark law is truth in
competition.3 In Commercial Auto Glass (Pty) Ltd v BMW AG [2007] ZASCA 96;
2007 (6) SA 637 (SCA), Harms ADP said the following (para 8):
„The object of trade mark law as reflected in s 34(1)(a) and (b) [of the Act] is to
prevent commercial “speech” that is misleading. Trade mark use that is not misleading (in
the sense of suggesting provenance by the trade mark owner) is protected not only
constitutionally but in terms of ordinary trade mark principles. As Justice Holmes said [in
Prestonettes Inc v Coty 263 US 359 (1924) at 368]:
“When the mark is used in a way that does not deceive the public, we see no sanctity
in the word as to prevent it from being used to tell the truth.”‟
[40] A fundamental problem for J is that during the time that Jöst‟s predecessors
from 1976 to 1989 were wholly owned subsidiaries, they indisputably operated within
South Africa under licence from the parent company in Germany and that the
machines imported, manufactured and distributed bore the Joest/Jöst mark,
indicating Jöst as house of origin. The reputation and goodwill undoubtedly attached
to Jöst.
[41] Before us it was accepted on behalf of J that the heart of its case could be
located in para 7.8 of its founding affidavit, the essential averments of which are set
out in para 15 above. In terms of that subparagraph, J is constrained to accept the
truth set out in the first sentence of the preceding paragraph. J, however, placed
great store in the allegations that it developed and manufactured its own machines
using its own technology alongside those that it manufactured under licence and to
which it attached the Joest/Jöst mark, thereby building its own reputation. In para 7.8
of its founding affidavit J stated that „for quite a number of years prior to the
termination it was [J‟s] view that it had received very little in the form of usable know-
how from [Jöst], compared to the licence fees that it paid‟. Furthermore, according to
2 See the discussion of Société des Produits Nestlé SA v Cadbury UK Ltd [2013] RPC 14 (ChD) para
20, in CE Webster and GE Morley (eds) Webster and Page’s South African Law of Trade Marks,
Unlawful Competition, Company Names and Trading Styles (Service Issue 19, November 2015), para
1.1 at 1-3.
3 Ibid.
J, the two sale of share agreements in 1989 and 1996 and the concomitant
manufacturing agreements were integral to its submission that all these factors taken
together lead to the conclusion that it had acquired proprietorship in the Joest/Jöst
mark. For reasons that follow, I have great difficulty with these submissions.
[42] It must be understood that the wholly owned subsidiaries, during the time
period referred to above, imported, manufactured and distributed machines under
licence from Jöst in the circumstances spelt out in para 40. Their usage of the
Joest/Jöst mark was also clearly in line with the usage by Jöst internationally. The
sale of share agreements referred to above and the 1996 manufacturing agreement
did not change these facts. There was therefore patently no need for a written
agreement in relation to the use of the Joest/Jöst mark as the subsidiaries were
under the control of Jöst. Thus, the companies from which J claims to derive its
ownership of the mark by virtue of the sale of shares agreements were not the
proprietor of the mark. Even on J‟s version of events, as set out in para 7.8 of their
founding affidavit, referred to in para 41 above, it was using Jöst‟s know-how and
technology for which it paid a royalty up until „a few years prior to [2012]‟. That
description is, in itself, deliberately vague but it is an indication that the relationship
that existed between Jöst and its wholly owned subsidiaries continued between Jöst
and J, at least up until that time. In this regard it is worth quoting from Webster and
Page:
„An agent or distributor who merely sells, or imports and sells, goods manufactured
by another, without adding anything to the mark or get-up under which they are produced,
does not thereby acquire any goodwill in the name or get-up; for those symbols thereby
acquire a reputation as indicating that the goods emanate from that particular manufacturing
provenance and not that they were imported and/or distributed by that particular agent.‟4
[43] In terms of the 1989 sale of shares agreement, the purchaser (the Vogels)
undertook to enter into a licencing agreement with Jöst. The 1989 manufacturing
agreement, which was in identical, or at least very similar terms to the 1996
agreement, provided that the purchasers undertake to use the name of the company
and/or to use the name Jöst only in the region.
4 See Webster and Page (supra) para 15.18.1 at 15-47 and the authorities there cited.
[44] Before proceeding to an interpretation of the 1996 agreement, I interpose to
deal with the application of German law. The parties are rightly ad idem concerning
the general method of interpretation of contracts in German law:
„Generally, under German law, any interpretation starts with the wording of the text of the
contract and the parties‟ concurrent understanding of it. If this does not lead to a solution, the
objective meaning in the light of the circumstances and interests of the parties is decisive.‟5
This is hardly significantly different to the applicable principles of our law.6
[45] It is not for the respective experts to interpret the agreement but for the court
to follow the German approach to the interpretation of the agreement and itself to
engage in the interpretation exercise. The clauses of the sale of shares agreements
and the manufacturing licencing agreements referred to above evidences a
continuation of the past relationship between the parties. There certainly is no clause
in any of the agreements that cater for the transfer of the proprietary rights to the
Joest/Jöst mark. I agree with the submission on behalf of Jöst that, if J had already
owned the rights in and to the mark, there would have been no need to deal with
sub-licensing and certainly no reason to place a limitation on the use of the licence
by limiting it to a region. The labelling provision set out hereafter clearly points to the
proprietorship of the marks being maintained by Jöst. Clause 16 of the 1996
agreement reads as follows:
„Labelling
The Licensee shall mark all products made by him under licence and supplied to his
customers with serial numbers. Should Licensee delete the name “JOEST” in its registered
company name, the Licensee shall affix to such product a label inscribed “Manufactured
under licence of JÖST, Germany”.‟
These provisions, as held by the court below, militate against the assertion of
acquisition by J of proprietorship of the Joest/Jöst mark.
[46] Additionally, in deliberating the question of proprietorship of the mark it is
worth noting again what is set out in para 25 above, namely, that during the years
leading up to the termination of the licencing agreement in 2012, J imported from
5 Ulrich Magnus „The Germanic tradition: application of boilerplate clauses under German law‟ in
Giuditta Cordero-Moss (ed) Boiler Clauses, International Commercial Contracts and the Applicable
Law (2011) at 181.
6 In this regard, see Natal Joint Municipal Pension Fund v Endumeni Municipality [2012] ZASCA 13;
2012 (4) SA 593 (SCA) and the collection of authorities there cited.
Jöst components in an amount of up to €1 500 000 per year, all of which clearly bore
the Jöst mark. This is to be considered alongside the assertion by Jöst that it
maintained quality control over items which bore its mark and that the mark was
required in line with European Union Directives. What is clear is the house of origin
of the machines and components was identified as that of Jöst.
[47] The minute of the meeting held in Australia referred to in para 14 above is
another factor that counts against J‟s contention that it is the proprietor of the
Joest/Jöst mark. It is apparent that the meeting took place after it was discovered by
Jöst that Mr Gunter Vogel had registered the mark in his name. On J‟s version, there
should have been no need to undertake, as recorded in the minute, that the
registration would be transferred to Jöst and that J would act as licensee.
[48] Of significance, too, is clause 19 of the 1996 agreement, which provides:
„The Licensee shall not manufacture or sell products which compete with the “Licensed
Products” during the duration of the Contract although it shall be permitted to manufacture
and/or sell products with a different technology.‟
[49] Returning to para 7.8 of J‟s founding affidavit in the main application, the high-
water mark appears to be a postulation of joint ownership of the mark by virtue of the
development of own technology to which J attached the Joest/Jöst mark. However, I
fail to see how this assists J in its quest to establish proprietorship of the mark. It was
a recognised historically well-established distributor of products emanating from Jöst.
If it wrongly attached that mark to its own products without the knowledge and
approval of Jöst, far from establishing proprietorship of the mark, it could in those
circumstances be accused of passing off its products as emanating from Jöst7 and/or
of infringing the relevant provisions of s 34 of the Act.
[50] Perhaps an even more fundamental problem for J is the fact that the
Joest/Jöst marks now claimed by J were first registered in the name of Mr Gunter
7 See in this regard Capital Estate & General Agencies (Pty) Ltd v Holiday Inns Inc & others 1977 (2)
SA 916 (A) at 929C.
Vogel who then had them assigned to and registered in J‟s name, purportedly in
terms of ss 39 and 40 of the Act. Since Mr Vogel does not provide a basis for how he
was initially entitled to the proprietorship of the mark and indeed, since no basis
exists, and furthermore since he contradictorily stated that the reputation attached to
J, it is difficult to see how he was able to transfer the proprietorship of the marks to
J.8 It is no answer to say that J was in any event the rightful proprietor of the marks
and so the subsequent registration of the mark in its name is unassailable. The basis
for the assignment of the right was fallacious; J had not, in its dealings with the
Registrar, laid claim to the mark in its own right or sought to have it registered in that
manner.
[51] It also does not assist J that no royalties were paid in relation to the use of the
mark. It is clear that royalties were paid in terms of the manufacturing licencing
agreement. It was Jöst‟s prerogative to decide a method of monetizing its reputation
and technical know-how and it chose to do so by way of royalties relating to the
manufacture of components and machines.
[52] For all the reasons set out above, the court below cannot be faulted in its
conclusion that Jöst is the proprietor of the Joest/Jöst mark. However, Jöst‟s further
submission is correct. J‟s actions have been manipulative and opportunistic.
Accordingly, the court below ought, rightly, to have also granted Jöst the full extent of
the relief sought by it as set out above, and for that reason the cross-appeal must
succeed.
[53] The following order is made:
1.
The main appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.
2.
The cross-appeal is upheld with costs including the costs of two counsel.
3.
Paragraph 2.3 of the order in the court below is amended to read as follows:
„2.3.
The first respondent in the counter-application is ordered to pay the costs of the
counter-application.‟
8 In this regard, see Payen Components SA Ltd v Bovic CC & others [1995] ZASCA 57; 1995 (4) SA
441 (A), at 447H-I, where the nemo dat quod non habet principle was applied in relation to copyright.
This is the trite principle that one cannot transfer a right that one does not oneself have.
4.
The order of the court below is supplemented by the inclusion of the following
orders:
„2.4.
The first respondent in the counter-application is interdicted and restrained, in terms
of Section 34(1)(a) the Trade Marks Act 193 of 1994, by itself or through its servants or
agents, from infringing the rights of the first applicant in the counter-application flowing from
the registration of the first applicant in the counter-application‟s registered trade mark nos.
2006/29062 & 63
in classes 7 and 9 by using, in the course of trade, in relation
to the goods and services identical to the goods included in trade mark nos. 2006/29062 &
63, the identical mark or any mark so similar thereto as to be likely to deceive or cause
confusion.
2.5
The first respondent in the counter-application is interdicted and restrained from
passing off its goods and services as being those of the first applicant in the counter-
application or as being connected with those of the first applicant in the counter-application
in the course of trade, by the use of the marks: JOEST, JOST, JÖST,
,
,
,
, and related get up, or any other trade mark or get-up that is confusingly
similar to the first applicant in the counter-application‟s
and
trade
marks and get-up.
2.6
The first respondent in the counter-application is ordered to remove the marks:
JOEST, JOST, JÖST,
,
,
,
and related get up, or any
confusingly or deceptively similar trade marks, from all matter in their possession or under
their control, including all signs, labels, websites, promotional and advertising material,
packaging, stationery and other printed or electronic matter of any nature and where the
marks are inseparable or incapable of being removed from such material to which they have
been applied, delivering up such matter to the first and second applicants in the counter-
application‟s attorneys.
2.7
It is directed that an enquiry be conducted, pursuant to Section 34(4) of the Trade
Marks Act 194 of 1993, to determine the quantum of damages suffered by the first applicant
in the counter-application as a result of the infringement of the first applicant in the counter-
application‟s trade mark, or the payment of a reasonable royalty for the use of its trade mark
in lieu of such damages, and that the first respondent in the counter-application pay such
damages and/or reasonable royalty as may be found to be payable by the first respondent in
the counter-application to the first applicant in the counter-application in the course of such
enquiry, and that
2.8
To this end, in the event of the parties being unable to agree on the procedure to be
adopted in such enquiry, either party may approach this court for directions as to the
procedure to be adopted, on these same papers, duly supplemented where necessary.‟
___________________
M S Navsa
Judge of Appeal
Appearances:
Counsel for the Appellant:
P Ginsburg SC (with him L G Kilmartin)
Instructed by:
Adams & Adams, Pretoria
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein
Counsel for the First
and Second Respondents:
R Michau SC (with him I Joubert)
Instructed by:
D M Kisch Inc, Johannesburg
Rossouws Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
1 September 2016
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form part of
the judgment.
Joest v Jöst (319/2015 & 324/2015) [2016] ZASCA 110 (1 September 2016)
MEDIA STATEMENT
Today, the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) dismissed an appeal by Joest (Pty) Ltd (J) and upheld a
cross-appeal by Jöst GmbH + KG (Jöst) against an order by the Gauteng Division of the High Court,
Pretoria. Accordingly, the SCA confirmed the expungement from the trade mark register of J’s
registered trademark ‘JOEST’ and granted certain ancillary relief to Jöst.
It was common cause that the marks ‘JOEST’ and ‘JÖST’ were confusingly similar. The issue before
the SCA was therefore which party was entitled to proprietorship of the mark.
The facts of the matter were as follows. Jöst is a German company which designs and manufactures
machines used in inter alia the mining industry. It operates in a number of different countries through
locally incorporated subsidiaries, nearly all bearing either the ‘JÖST’ or ‘JOEST’ mark. ‘Jöst’ is the
surname of one of the co-founders of the company, and ‘Joest’ is the English spelling of the same
name. One local subsidiary was a South African company incorporated in 1976, originally named
Joest Vibration Technics (South Africa) (Pty) Ltd (JV).
In 1989, Jöst sold 75 per cent of the shares in JV to the present owners of J, and in 1996 the
remaining 25 per cent was sold to them. Simultaneously, licensing manufacturing agreements were
entered into in terms of which the South African company was permitted to use the know-how of Jöst
in designing and manufacturing machinery. Subsequently, there was some corporate restructuring of
the South African business and ultimately J came into being. The commercial relationship between
Jöst and JV (and later J) remained the same throughout this period, and the South African company
continued to import machinery and used the know-how of Jöst in its own designs and manufacturing.
In 1996, Mr Gunter Vogel, one of the owners of JV (and later J), registered the ‘JOEST’ trademark in
his own name, and thereafter assigned it to J. Subsequently, Jöst registered the trademark ‘JÖST’.
J claimed that proprietorship of the JOEST/JÖST mark vested in it, either because (i) it had acquired
proprietorship when Jöst had divested itself of its shares in JV; or (ii) because it had designed and
developed machinery in its own right, and so had built up its own reputation to the name. The SCA
rejected both these arguments.
With regard to the first argument, as noted, the commercial relationship between the South African
company and Jöst had not changed following the sale in shares. Therefore, there was no basis to
claim that Jöst had divested itself of its proprietorship of the mark at the same time as it had sold its
shares in JV.
With regard to the second argument, the SCA held that if J had wrongly attached the mark to its own
products without the knowledge of Jöst, far from acquiring proprietorship of the mark in its own name,
it could be accused of passing off or infringing the provisions of s 34 of the Trade Marks Act 194 of
1993.
In addition, the SCA held, there was a further difficulty. As the initial registration of the ‘JOEST’ mark
was by Mr Vogel personally, and he had no basis to assert proprietorship over the mark, the initial
registration was flawed and he could not have validly assigned the mark to J.
Accordingly, the SCA held that proprietorship of the JOEST/JÖST mark at all times remained with
Jöst, and upheld the relief claimed by Jöst. |
3528 | non-electoral | 2021 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case no: 163/2020
In the matter between:
SOLIDARITY
FIRST APPELLANT
BEREAVED FAMILIES
AS PER ANNEXURE A
SECOND APPELLANT
and
BLACK FIRST LAND FIRST
FIRST RESPONDENT
LINDSAY MAASDORP
SECOND RESPONDENT
ZWELAKHE DUBASI
THIRD RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Solidarity and Another v Black First Land First and
Others
(163/2020)
[2021] ZASCA
(24 March 2021)
Coram:
PONNAN, MOLEMELA and NICHOLLS JJA and
GOOSEN and UNTERHALTER AJJA
Heard:
17 February 2021
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by
circulation to the parties’ representatives via email, publication on the
Supreme Court of Appeal website and release to SAFLII. The date and
time for hand-down is deemed to be 12h00 on 24 March 2021.
Summary:
Promotion
of
Equality
and
Prevention
of
Unfair
Discrimination Act 4 of 2000 – whether the order granted by the Equality
Court declaring the proceedings a nullity is competent.
ORDER
On appeal from: Equality Court, Gauteng Division of the High Court,
Johannesburg (Makgoathleng J sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal is upheld.
The order of the court a quo is set aside.
The matter is remitted to the Equality Court to be finalised, either
by the presiding judge or in the event that the presiding judge is,
for whatever reason, unable to finalise the matter, any other judge
as the Judge President may direct.
JUDGMENT
Nicholls JA (Ponnan and Molemela JJA and Goosen and Unterhalter
AJJA concurring):
[1] On the morning of 1 February 2019 a walkway bridge collapsed at
Hoërskool Driehoek, in Vanderbijlpark, tragically causing the death of
four learners, aged between 13 and 17 years old. Twenty other learners
were injured. All were white.
[2] On the same day, and once the incident became public, a certain
Siyanda Gumede posted the following on his facebook page: ‘Don’t have
heart to feel pain for white kids. Minus 3 future problems’.
Black First Land First (BLF), a registered political party1 at the time, and
the first respondent, commented on this post. Lindsay Maasdorp, the
1 BLF was deregistered as a political party in November 2019 and re-registered a year later on
16 November 2020.
second respondent and the national spokesperson of the BLF,
immediately responded to Gumede’s statement on the official BLF twitter
account as follows: ‘Siyanda Gumede is correct! God is responding, why
should we frown on the ancestors petitions to punish the land thieves
including their offspring’. Zwelakhe Dubasi was the deputy secretary
general of the BLF and is the third respondent. He also commented on
Siyanda Gumede’s post on the official BLF twitter account stating:
‘Ancestors are with BLF, as we fight they fight too. They shake the land
and white buildings built on stolen land collapse. Keep fighting Zinyanya,
you are fighting a good fight. Camugu!’.
[3] These comments caused widespread outrage on various media
platforms. When approached for clarification by The Citizen newspaper,
Mr Maasdorp responded that he was ‘not certain’ whether the victims
were white and he would mourn them if they were black. He added: ‘If
our God has finally intervened and our ancestors have petitioned and
seen that these white land thieves have now died then I definitely
celebrate it. I celebrate the death of our enemies, their children, their cats
and dogs. That is our position’.
[4] This led to Solidarity, a registered trade union of predominantly
white members, launching an application in terms of s 20 of the
Promotion of Equality and Prevention of Unfair Discrimination Act 4 of
2000 (the Equality Act). Solidarity claimed to act in its own interests, on
behalf of bereaved family members and in the public interest. It sought an
order declaring that the comments constituted hate speech, as defined by
ss 7, 10 and 11 of the Equality Act and were an affront to human dignity
and white people in general. Further ancillary relief was sought, including
the payment of damages to the families of the children.
[5] The application was opposed by BLF. The president of the BLF,
Mr Andile Mngxitama, deposed to the answering affidavit and
represented the party in person when the matter was heard on
22 August 2019.
[6] After the hearing, the parties were informed that judgment would
be handed down on 3 December 2019. The events that took place on that
day, though not confirmed on affidavit, were, as recounted by counsel for
the appellants and confirmed by Mr Mngxitama, as follows.
Mokgoathleng J requested the parties to address him on the effect of this
Court’s judgment in Qwelane v SAHRC,2 which had been delivered on
29 November 2019 and which held that s 10 of the Equality Act was
unconstitutional. It should be noted that this matter was subsequently
appealed to the Constitutional Court and its judgment is awaited.
[7] After hearing oral submissions, the judge adjourned the matter to
consider the submissions. What occurred thereafter we simply do not
know. What we do know is that across the front page of what appears to
have been the written ‘judgment’ prepared by the judge, he had written
by hand, ‘[t]he judgment is a nullity in view of the SCA judgment of
Jonathan Dubula Qwelane case No 686/2108’. The order that was
subsequently issued by the registrar recorded: ‘The proceedings in case
EQ2/2019 are declared a nullity’.
[8] Whether the court a quo considered the entire proceedings or
merely the judgment to be a nullity is, on the papers before us, unclear.
2 Qwelane v South African Human Rights Commission and Another [2019] ZASCA 167; 2020 (2) SA
124 (SCA).
However, what is apparent is that the judge had prepared a written
‘judgment’ in the matter before the Qwelane judgment was delivered by
this court. In it the judge found in favour of the applicants. The offending
comments were declared to amount to hate speech in terms of s 10(1) of
the Equality Act. The second and third respondents were interdicted from
repeating the comments and were ordered to publish an apology within
30 days, directed to all South Africans, and to be disseminated by the
South African Human Rights Commission, in which they acknowledged
that their comments were hate speech and that they were wrong to publish
them. In addition, the second and third respondents were ordered,
jointly and severally, to pay R50 000 damages, arising out of
emotional and psychological pain, and humiliation to each of the families
of the deceased within 30 days.
[9] The Qwelane judgment dealt with a newspaper article written by
the late journalist Jonathan Dubula Qwelane in which he criticised
homosexual relationships and gay marriages. After a detailed exposition
of the interplay between hate speech and s 16 of the Constitution, which
guarantees freedom of speech, this Court held that s 10 of the
Equality Act unnecessarily limited freedom of speech and was therefore
unconstitutional.
[10] One of the primary functions of a court is to bring to finality the
dispute with which it is seized. It does so by making an order that is clear,
exacts compliance, and is capable of being enforced in the event of non-
compliance.3 The court order in this matter did not achieve finality nor
was it capable of being enforced. As it was put by Nugent JA in
Makhanya v University of Zululand:
3 Eke v Parsons [2015] ZACC 30; 2016 (3) SA 37 (CC) paras 73-74.
‘The power of a court to entertain a claim derives from the power that all organised
states assume to themselves to bring to an end disputes amongst their inhabitants that
are capable of being resolved by resort to law. Disputes of that kind are brought to an
end either by upholding a claim that is brought before it by a claimant or by
dismissing the claim. By so doing the order either permits or denies to the claimant
the right to call into play the apparatus of the state to enforce the claim.’4
[11] The high court simply failed to discharge its primary function. The
order that it issued declared the proceedings a nullity, and hence declined
to determine the dispute before the court. To like effect, the court, by
rendering its own ‘judgment’ a nullity, left the parties without a binding
decision. A court does not enjoy the power not to decide a case that is
properly brought before it. Nor may a court declare its own proceedings
to be a nullity.
[12] A court may lack jurisdiction or suffer from some other limitation
of its powers. But a court, pronouncing on these matters nevertheless
renders a decision that is dispositive of the case before it. But that is not
what happened before the high court in this matter. The decision of this
Court in Qwelane plainly had relevance for the decision that the high
court was required to make. The high court should have taken time to
consider Qwelane, and the parties’ submissions, and then rendered its
judgment so as to decide the case. More incautiously, the high court
might have handed down the written judgment that it had prepared,
without regard to Qwelane. In either event, an order would have been
issued that determined the dispute before the court.
4Makhanya v University of Zululand [2009] ZASCA 69; 2010 (1) SA 62 (SCA) para 22.
[13] The high court took neither course of action. Instead, it pronounced
its own ‘judgment’ to be a nullity or indeed the proceedings to be a
nullity. It simply declined to resolve a dispute that was properly before it
and left the parties with no decision. That state of affairs cannot be left
undisturbed by this Court.
[14] Once that is so, the matter must be remitted to the court a quo to
enable the dispute that was properly before it, to be finally resolved. The
proceedings had reached an advanced stage. The judge had been
addressed in argument by both parties, whereafter judgment had been
reserved. All that remained was for the judge to deliver his judgment.
That is where the proceedings must recommence. On that there seemed to
be agreement before us. There was some concern that the presiding judge
may have since retired. In that event, the parties appeared to accept that
the matter could recommence before another judge, as directed by the
Judge President of the division. Should another judge come into the
matter, he or she would obviously be free to issue such directives as to
the further conduct of the matter as appears meet, including but not
limited to requiring further argument in the matter.
[15] As regards costs, it is not the fault of either party that they had to
appear before this Court. The attorney representing the respondents
withdrew shortly before the hearing of the matter. In those circumstances,
Mr Mngxitama appeared before us, for the purposes, so he indicated, of
applying for the appeal to be adjourned. Given that counsel for the
appellants accepted in debate with him that: (a) the order could not stand;
(b) there was no substantive order on the merits and that we therefore
could not enter into the merits of the appeal; and (c) the matter
consequently had to be remitted to the court below, Mr Mngxitama did
not persist in that application. It was thus not necessary to consider
whether he could indeed represent the appellants in the appeal.5
[16] The appeal is with the leave of the court below. No reasons were
given for the order. What prompted the grant of leave and in respect of
what order, since there did not appear to be a judgment on the substantive
merits, we simply do not know. However, both parties were compelled to
appear to correct an obviously incompetent order. It thus seems unfair to
mulct either party with costs. Consequently, there shall be no order as to
costs.
[17] In the result the following order is made:
The appeal is upheld.
The order of the court a quo is set aside.
The matter is remitted to the Equality Court to be finalised, either
by the presiding judge or in the event that the presiding judge is,
for whatever reason, unable to finalise the matter, any other judge
as the Judge President may direct.
5 Manong and Associates (Pty) Ltd v Minister of Public Works and Another [2009] ZASCA 110; 2010
(2) SA 167 (SCA).
____________________
C NICHOLLS
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES
For Appellants:
D J Groenwald
Instructed by:
Hunter Spies Inc., Centurion.
Rossouw & Conradie Inc., Bloemfontein.
For First Respondent:
A Mngxitama
Instructed by:
Black First Land First, Johannesburg. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
24 March 2021
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does not form part of
the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Solidarity and Another v Black First Land First and Others (163/2020) [2021] ZASCA 26 (24 March 2021)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) handed down judgment upholding the appeal against an order of the
Equality Court, Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg; and ordered the matter to be remitted to the
court a quo to be finalised.
The issue for determination by the court was whether the order granted by the Equality Court declaring the
proceedings a nullity was competent.
On the morning of 1 February 2019 a walkway bridge collapsed at Hoërskool Driehoek, in Vanderbijlpark,
tragically causing the death of four learners, aged between 13 and 17 years old. Twenty other learners were injured.
All were white. Pursuant thereto, comments emanating from the facebook account of one Siyanda Gumede, the
twitter account of the first respondent, a registered political party at the time, and the second respondent, the
national spokesperson of the first respondent, were made. These comments were to the effect that the deceased
and the injured learners, because they were white and the offspring of ‘land thieves’, were deserving of
punishment.
These comments caused widespread outrage on various media platforms. When approached for clarification by
The Citizen newspaper, the second respondent responded that he was ‘not certain’ whether the victims were white
and he would mourn them if they were black. This led to Solidarity, a registered trade union of predominantly
white members, launching an application in terms of s 20 of the Promotion of Equality and Prevention of Unfair
Discrimination Act 4 of 2000 (the Equality Act).
Solidarity sought an order declaring that the comments constituted hate speech, as defined by ss 7, 10 and 11 of
the Equality Act and were an affront to human dignity and white people in general. Further ancillary relief was
sought, including the payment of damages to the families of the children. The application was opposed by the
first respondent.
Judgment was reserved for hand down on 3 December 2019. On that day, the judge requested the parties to address
him on the effect of the Supreme Court of Appeal’s judgment in Qwelane v SAHRC, which had been delivered on
29 November 2019 and which held that s 10 of the Equality Act was unconstitutional. This matter was
subsequently appealed to the Constitutional Court and its judgment is awaited.
After hearing oral submissions, the judge adjourned the matter to consider the submissions. He then wrote by
hand, on the written ‘judgment’ that he had prepared, ‘The judgment is a nullity in view of the SCA judgment of
Jonathan Dubula Qwelane case No 686/2108’. The order that was subsequently issued by the registrar recorded:
‘The proceedings in case EQ2/2019 are declared a nullity’. The written judgment prepared by the judge had found
in favour of the applicants.
The court held that the court a quo order did not achieve finality nor was it capable of being enforced. The
high court had failed to discharge its primary function. The order that it issued declined to determine the dispute
before the court. The court, by rendering its own ‘judgment’ a nullity, left the parties without a binding decision.
Further it was held that a court does not enjoy the power not to decide a case that is properly brought before it.
Nor may a court declare its own proceedings to be a nullity.
The Supreme Court of Appeal upheld the appeal and remitted the matter to the court a quo to enable the dispute
to be finally resolved.
________________________________________ |
3403 | non-electoral | 2020 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 251/2019
In the matter between:
VANESSA INGRID MOREAU
FIRST APPELLANT
IPROLOG (PTY) LTD SECOND APPELLANT
and
CLOETE MURRAY N.O. FIRST RESPONDENT
MABATHO SHIRLEY MOTIMELE N.O. SECOND RESPONDENT
JERRY SEKETE KOKA N.O. THIRD RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Moreau and Another v Murray and Others (251/2019)
[2020] ZASCA 86 (9 July 2020)
Coram:
PONNAN, DAMBUZA, VAN DER MERWE, MAKGOKA
AND MBATHA JJA
Heard:
18 May 2020
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties’ representatives by email, and by publication on the Supreme Court of
Appeal website and release to SAFLII. The time and date for hand down is
deemed to be 10h00 on the 9th day of July 2020.
Summary: Pensions – protection of s 37B of the Pensions Fund Act 24 of 1956
– whether it operates if pension benefit paid before sequestration.
Insolvency – s 31 of the Insolvency Act 24 of 1936 – whether collusion
established.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Holland-Müter
AJ sitting as court of first instance).
1 Save to the extent reflected in the paragraph below, the appeal is dismissed
with costs, such costs to be paid by the appellants jointly and severally, the one
paying the other to be absolved.
2 Paragraph 1 of the order of the court a quo is substituted with the following:
‘1 The payments made by the insolvent, Mr Pierrie Andre Leonard Moreau, to
or for the benefit respectively of the first respondent, Vanessa Ingrid Moreau, in
the sum R1 023 867 and the second respondent, Iprolog (Pty) Ltd, in the sum of
R3 500 000, are set aside and the respondents are ordered to repay those monies
forthwith to the applicants.
________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
Makgoka JA (Ponnan, Dambuza, Van der Merwe and Mbatha JJA
concurring):
[1] The primary issue in this appeal is whether a pension benefit paid out to
the insolvent, Mr Pierrie Andre Leonard Moreau (Mr Moreau) before his estate
was sequestrated, enjoyed the protection provided in s 37B of the Pensions Fund
Act 24 of 1956 (the Act), which protects pension benefits against attachment by
a trustee of an insolvent estate, subject to certain exceptions. If this is answered
in the negative, a secondary issue arises, namely whether that pension money,
which he disposed of to his then wife, the first appellant, Ms Vanessa Ingrid
Moureau (Mrs Moreau) and the second appellant, Iprolog (Pty) Ltd (Iprolog)
should be set aside in terms of the relevant provisions of the Insolvency Act 24
of 1936 (the Insolvency Act).
[2] Mr Moreau’s estate was finally sequestrated on 1 August 2011. Some two
years before the sequestration, he received a pension payout, which, as already
stated, he disposed of to the appellants. Iprolog purchased immovable properties
with that money. After the sequestration, the respondents, the joint trustees of his
insolvent estate, obtained an order in the court a quo, the Gauteng Division of the
High Court, Pretoria, setting aside the dispositions. That court also granted an
order interdicting the appellants from alienating an immovable property indirectly
purchased with the pension money. Mrs Moreau and Iprolog appeal against those
orders with the leave of this court.
[3] Mr Moreau and Mrs Moreau had been married to each other out of
community of property since 1980. Mr Moreau was a judgment debtor of
Lowveld Cooperative Investments (Lowveld). Its action against Mr Moreau to
recoup the debt failed in February 2006 before the trial court. However, this court
granted Lowveld leave to appeal to the full court. While the appeal was pending,
Iprolog was registered on 6 April 2009, and on 30 April 2009 Mr Moreau became
its sole director. On 5 May 2009, Mr Moreau and Mrs Moreau became trustees
of the Les Baux Family Trust (the Trust), which in due course became the sole
shareholder of Iprolog.
[4] On 18 May 2009 the full court delivered its judgment, and overturned the
order of the trial court dismissing Lowveld’s claim. It ordered Mr Moreau to pay
Lowveld the sum of R726 638.35, interest and costs. Mr Moreau immediately
applied to this court for special leave to appeal. On 31 May 2009 Mr Moreau
requested payment of his provident fund benefit from Mindkey Corporate
Selection Retirement Fund. On 15 June 2009 Mr Moreau received R4 639 000
from the provident fund, which was paid into his banking account.
On 23 June 2009, he transferred R3 500 000 of that amount into an attorney’s
trust account for the credit of Iprolog. This money was used for the purchase of
two farms in Kwazulu-Natal by Iprolog. The balance of R1 023 867 was paid
directly to Mrs Moreau.
[5] The appellants explained the two payments as follows. It was alleged that
Mr and Mrs Moreau had been experiencing marital problems for a number of
years, and that in April 2009, Mrs Moreau finally decided that she wanted a
divorce. Therefore, the pension pay-out was requested specifically to cater for the
proprietary consequences of the marriage at divorce. In particular, it was stated
that Mr Moreau owed Mrs Moreau the sum of R4 746 080.14 made up as follows:
in terms of the parties’ antenuptial contract registered on 6 May 1980, Mr Moreau
was obliged to purchase a property for Mrs Moreau for R100 000. According to
Mr Moreau the equivalent value of that sum in 2009 was R3 722 213.14. The
payment of R3 500 000 referred to above, was meant to cater for this. Mr Moreau
explained that he did not wish to pay this amount to Mrs Moreau until the divorce
was finalised. The balance of R1 023 867 was said to represent a loan amount
comprising unpaid wages when Mrs Moreau worked for Mr Moreau as a
bookkeeper in his business as a financial advisor. The explanation was that during
her employment, he did not pay her an actual salary but a loan account was
created and the amounts owing were credited to such loan account.
[6] It was further alleged that the parties ‘separated’ on 19 July 2009.
On 21 July 2009 Mr Moreau’s application for leave to appeal against the full
court’s order was dismissed by this court. Two days thereafter, on 23 July 2009,
Mrs Moreau issued summons against Mr Moreau, in which she claimed only a
decree of divorce, and no patrimonial relief or maintenance. On 19 August 2009
they signed a settlement agreement in terms of which Mr Moreau undertook to
pay maintenance of R100 000 per month to Mrs Moreau. In addition, Mr Moreau
undertook to pay for various expenses on behalf of Mrs Moreau. It was also
recorded that in terms of the parties’ antenuptial contract, Mr Moreau was obliged
to transfer certain assets, including an immovable property, to Mrs Moreau. In
clause 4.3 of the Settlement Agreement it was recorded that:
‘In settlement of [Mrs Moreau’s] claims . . . and in settlement of the sum of R1 023 867 due
and payable in terms of a loan account held with Moreau and Associates as at
28 February 2008, [Mr Moreau] has liquidated his pension fund and after all statutory
deductions and payment of all taxes are met, he has agreed to pay over the balance of the
proceeds to [Mrs Moreau].
Lastly, the settlement agreement provided that Mrs Moreau would retain
ownership of two farms in Mpumalanga.
[7] The divorce action was finalised on 21 August 2009, when an order was
granted for a decree of divorce incorporating the settlement agreement referred
to above. On 2 November 2009 Mr Moreau resigned as a director of Iprolog, and
Mrs Moreau replaced him. In May 2010 Lowveld commenced proceedings for
the sequestration of Mr Moreau’s estate. As of August 2010, on Mr Moreau’s
own version, the unsatisfied judgment debt, interest and costs due to Lowveld
amounted to R2 027 587.74.
[8] During October and November 2010 the farms purchased by Iprolog, as
fully set out in para 3 above, were sold and a portion of the net proceeds thereof,
R2 160 000, was used by Iprolog to purchase an immovable property in Edenvale,
Gauteng Province (the Edenvale property) for cash, in December 2010. In
March 2011 Mr Moreau moved into this property. A month later, April 2011,
Mrs Moreau joined him on the property. As at the time when the application was
finalised in the court a quo, the parties lived together on this property. Mr Moreau
explained that this was a purely convenient arrangement because of
Mrs Moreau’s alleged ill-health. According to him, he felt morally obliged to care
for her, though they lived in separate houses on the property. It is common cause
that they continued to occupy this property together, at least until the judgment
was handed down in the court a quo.
[9] On 6 June 2011 Mr Moreau’s estate was provisionally sequestrated, and
the final order of sequestration was granted on 1 August 2011. The respondents
were appointed joint trustees of Mr Moreau’s estate, and in terms of s 20(1)(a) of
the Insolvency Act his estate vested in the respondents as trustees. During
June 2012 Mr Moreau and Mrs Moreau were interrogated before a magistrate in
terms of ss 64 and 65 of the Insolvency Act. Based on the evidence during the
interrogation, the respondents on 1 March 2013 launched the application to which
this appeal relates, to have the payments made by Mr Moreau to Mrs Moreau and
to Iprolog, set aside.
[10] The respondents alleged that there was collusion between Mr and Mrs
Moreau to strip the former of all his assets and income to avoid paying his debt
to Lowveld. In particular, the respondents asserted that: Iprolog was ‘the alter ego
and corporate veil’ of Mrs Moreau and Mr Moreau (paras 3.3 and 10.4);
(paras 2.4 and 6.11.3); by making the Trust the sole shareholder of Iprolog they
sought to distance themselves from the company (para 6.2 ) and ‘create a further
trench which had to be crossed by any creditor seeking to gain access’ to Mr
Moreau’s pension monies (paras 6.2 and 6.11.4); their ‘separation’ occurred only
after the Full Court upheld Lowveld’s appeal (para 6.4); their divorce was
‘merely a sham’ and a ‘window-dressing’ as it was instituted a mere two days
after the application for leave to appeal had been dismissed by this court on 21
July 2009 (para 6.5).
[11] In the appellants’ answering affidavit, deposed to by Mr Moreau, it was
averred that the payments which the respondents sought to set aside were pension
monies and that such monies, including the assets purchased with such monies,
were exempt from attachment by the respondents in terms of s 37B of the Act.
The appellants denied that there was any disposition of money from Mr Moreau
to Iprolog. Instead, they said, Mrs Moreau loaned an amount of R5 372 760 to
the Trust (on an unnamed date in 2009). According to the appellants, on
26 August 2009, the Trust loaned the same amount to Iprolog. This, according to
the appellants, was proof that no disposition was made by Mr Moreau to Iprolog,
and that Mrs Moreau made no loans in 2009 to Iprolog. The loan, they stressed,
was made by Mrs Moreau to the Trust, which in turn, loaned the same amount to
Iprolog. The evidence before the court a quo included the oral evidence of
Mr Moreau in terms of s 32(2) of the Insolvency Act, adduced at the instance of
the appellants pursuant to rule 6(5)(g) of the Uniform Rules of Court.
[12] The matter came before Holland-Müter AJ, who considered the provisions
of s 37B and reasoned that because Mr Moreau had received his pension payout
before his estate was sequestrated, the money no longer enjoyed the protection
provided by s 37B. The learned judge held that ‘[w]hen receiving the payment,
the monies became commixtio with the estate of the now insolvent (although he
was not yet insolvent then)’. The learned judge further found that there was
collusion between Mr and Mrs Moreau to the detriment of Mr Moreau’s creditors.
The learned judge considered, among others, the fact that Mrs Moreau and
Mr Moreau still resided together on the same property as a ‘further indication of
the collusion’ between them to prejudice the former’s creditors. Accordingly, the
court a quo had no difficulty in setting aside the dispositions made to Mrs Moreau.
The court a quo concluded that the dispositions fell within the ambit of s 31 of
the Insolvency Act. Consequently, it issued an order:
‘1. The payment made by Pierre Andre Leonard Moreau (the insolvent) in the amount of
R4 639 000 towards the first respondent [Mrs Moreau] on or about 15 June 2009, alternatively
the payment of the amount of R3 500 000 towards the second respondent [Iprolog] by or on
behalf of the insolvent is set aside the payment of the difference between the amount of
R3 500 000 and the amount of R4 639 000 made by the insolvent to Mrs Moreau and ordering
that said amounts shall be repaid forthwith to the applicants [the respondents].
2. The sale of the immovable property situated at 89 Main Road, Edenvale, Gauteng and
currently occupied by the first respondent and the insolvent is prohibited save in the event of
same being sold at a market related price with the prior knowledge of the sale thereof to the
applicants in which event the nett proceeds of the such sale shall be paid into trust at the
applicants, pending the finalization of the repayment of the amounts referred to in par 1 above.’
[13] In this court, as in the court a quo, it was submitted on behalf of the
appellants that the pension pay-out to Mr Moreau was exempt from attachment
in terms s 37B, and that, in any event, the payments to Mrs Moreau could not be
set aside as they were made in compliance with a court order. With regard to the
Insolvency Act, it was submitted that neither of the provisions of the relevant
sections had been established to justify setting aside the payments. I deal with
these in turn.
[14] Section 37B reads as follows:
‘Disposition of pension benefits upon insolvency
If the estate of any person entitled to a benefit payable in terms of the rules of a registered fund
(including an annuity purchased by the said fund from an insurer for that person) is sequestrated
or surrendered, such benefit or any part thereof which became payable after the commencement
of the Financial Institutions Amendment Act, 1976 (Act No. 101 of 1976), shall. . . .not be
deemed to form part of the assets in the insolvent estate of that person and may not in any way
be attached or appropriated by the trustee in his insolvent estate or by his creditors,
notwithstanding anything to the contrary in any law relating to insolvency.’
[15] ‘Benefit’ is defined in s 1 of the Act as ‘any amount payable to a member
or beneficiary in terms of the rules of that fund’.1 The reference to ‘payable’,
instead of ‘paid’ clearly envisages a sum to which a member of a pension fund or
a beneficiary is entitled to receive, but has not yet received. So construed, the
amount remains a ‘benefit’ to the extent it has not yet been paid to the member or
beneficiary. Once the benefit is paid to him or her, the beneficiary ceases to be a
‘member’ of the pension fund according to the rules of the fund,2 and the money
ceases to be a ‘benefit’. It loses its character once in the hands of the beneficiary
and ceases to be a benefit. The beneficiary may do as they please with it. Such a
beneficiary can thus hardly complain if creditors lay their hands on the money to
satisfy outstanding debts.
[16] Thus, all that s 37B entails is that, while in the hands of a pension fund, the
insolvent’s pension interest cannot be attached by his or her trustee on the basis
that it forms part of the insolvent’s assets. It protects only the pension benefit of
a person whose estate is sequestrated, which Mr Moreau’s estate was not when
he received his pension pay-out. The effect of a sequestration order is to divest
an insolvent of his or her estate and to vest it in a trustee. Section 37B seeks to
establish an exception to the provisions of s 20(1)(a) of the Insolvency Act. When
Mr Moreau received the payment, his estate had not as yet been sequestrated.
There was thus no insolvent estate or trustees to speak of. Section 37B therefore
could not find application when the payment was effected. For that reason,
Mr Moreau could not bring himself within the exception, and payment could only
have been made into his ‘regular estate’. Having then disposed of those monies
in the manner in which he did, renders them susceptible to attack. This is fortified
by s 23(7) of the Insolvency Act which provides that during the sequestration,
1 ‘Benefit’ was inserted to the Act as a defined term in 2007 by s 1(c) of Act 11 of 2007.
2 Compare Absa Bank Ltd v Burmeister and Others 2004 (5) SA 595 (SCA); [2005] 3 All SA 409
(SCA) para 9 where the court considered s 37D(1)(b) of the Act.
‘the insolvent may for his own benefit recover any pension to which he may be
entitled. . .’.
[17] It follows that if the pension benefit is received before a beneficiary’s estate
is sequestrated, s 37B does not find application. This construction of s 37B finds
support in cases where similarly worded statutory provisions have received
consideration.
[18] Jones & Co. v Coventry [1909] 2 KB 1029 concerned s 141 of the
Army Act of 1881, which prohibited an assignment or charge on a pension
payable to any officer or soldier. The issue was whether a garnishee order could
attach monies in a bank account into which a soldier’s pension money was paid.
Darling J held that the money did not come within the provisions of s 141. He
explained:
‘Pension, when it has been paid to the person entitled to receive it, ceases any longer to be
pension; it has lost its character of pension, just like dividends which, after payment, lose the
character of dividends. It becomes part of the pensioner’s ordinary money. . . .’
[19] In Gibson v Howard 1918 TPD 185, s 37 of the Miner’s Phthisis Act 44 of
19163 was considered. Section 37 provided:
‘No amount payable as a benefit under this Act or the prior law shall be assignable or
transferable or be capable of being hypothecated or pledged, nor shall any such amount be
liable to be attached or subjected to any form of execution under a judgment or order of
any court of law.’
[20] In that matter, the appellant, who was a judgment debtor of the respondent,
received an amount as compensation from the Miner’s Phthisis Board under the
3 This was in response to a pulmonary tuberculosis called phthisis which affected mine workers in
the Witwatersrand area, Johannesburg, in the early 1900s.
Phthisis Act. The respondent obtained a garnishee order on the bank account into
which the money was deposited. The applicant contended that in terms of s 37
the amount was not attachable or subject to any form of execution, as the object
of the Act was to benefit a person suffering from phthisis, and to prevent creditors
from attaching any compensation paid to him under the Act.
[21] The court rejected this interpretation and held:
‘Section 37 says “no amount payable” etcetera. There is nothing in the Act to justify us in
saying that the Legislature meant that an amount actually paid over shall not be attached. All
the Legislature means is that if money is awarded to a miner’s phthisis patient and still in the
hands of the Board it cannot be assigned, ceded or attached so long as the Board controls
it. When the money is paid over to the patient and is mixed with his ordinary money it has no
longer any different character and therefore according to our common law it can be attached.’
[22] The reasoning in Gibson was followed in Foit v FirstRand Bank Bpk
2002 (5) SA 148 (T), where ss 2(1) and 3 of the General Pensions Act 29 of 1979
(the Pensions Act) were in issue. Section 2(1) provides:
‘No annuity or benefit or right in respect of an annuity or benefit payable under a pension law
shall be capable of being assigned or transferred or otherwise ceded or of being pledged or
hypothecated or, save as is provided in section 11(2) of the Maintenance Act, 1963 (Act No.
23 of 1963), be liable to be attached or subjected to any form of execution under a judgment or
order of a court of law.’
In turn, s 3 provides that ‘[t]he annuity received under any pension law by any
person whose estate is sequestrated, shall not form part of the assets in his
insolvent estate’.
[23] As in this case, it was contended in Foit that the relevant sections had to be
interpreted to mean that ‘pension benefits’ did not form part of the assets in the
insolvent estate of the applicant and her husband. D Basson J was unpersuaded,
and pointed out (at 153H) that the meaning of s 3 was that a ‘benefit received
under any pension law’ indicated a benefit, ie an amount of money received in
terms of a pensions law, in terms of which the beneficiary had a right of action
against the pension fund to receive the money. When the amount was paid out by
the pension fund, the benefit was ‘received’ as provided in s 3 of the Act.
Accordingly, the learned Judge held that the pension benefit paid out and received
on 25 January 2000 became part of the assets of the estate of the applicant and
her husband.
[24] Section 37A(1), which was raised in argument, does not assist the
appellants, either. It protects any benefit or right to any benefit provided for in
the rules of a registered pension fund payable to a member of such fund, against
any reduction, transfer, cession, pledge, hypothecation, attachment or judicial
execution.4 I have already pointed to the definition of ‘benefit’ above. With regard
to s 37A(1) the key is the definition of ‘member’ in s 1 of the Act, which is defined
in relation to two categories of pension fund organisations.5 In the first category,
it means ‘any member or former member of the association by which such fund
has been established’, while in the second category,6 ‘member’ means ‘a person
4 In its redacted form, s 37A(1) reads as follows:
‘(1) Save to the extent permitted by this Act, the Income Tax Act, 1962 (Act 58 of 1962), and the
Maintenance Act, 1998, no benefit provided for in the rules of a registered fund . . . be capable of being
reduced, transferred or otherwise ceded, or of being pledged or hypothecated, or be liable to be attached
or subjected to any form of execution under a judgment or order of a court of law, . . . and in the event
of the member or beneficiary concerned attempting to [do so] the fund concerned may withhold or
suspend payment thereof. . . .’
5 Pension fund organisation in turn is defined as follows:
‘(a) [a]ny association of persons established with the object of providing annuities or lump sum
payments for members or former members of such association upon their reaching retirement dates, or
for the dependants of such members or former members upon the death of such members; or
……..
(c) any association of persons or business carried on under a scheme or arrangement established with
the object of receiving, administering, investing and paying benefits that became payable in terms of
the employment of a member on behalf of beneficiaries, payable on the death of more than one member
of one or more pension funds, and includes any such association or business which in addition to
carrying on business in connection with any of the objects specified in paragraph (a), (b) or (c) also
carries on business in connection with any of the objects for which a friendly society may be established,
as specified in section 2 of the Friendly Societies Act, 1956, or which is or may become liable for the
payment of any benefits provided for in its rules, whether or not it continues to admit, or collect
contributions from or on behalf, of members.
6 (b) any business carried on under a scheme or arrangement established with the object of providing
annuities or lump sum payments for persons who belong or belonged to the class of persons for whose
who belongs or belonged to a class of persons for whose benefit that fund has
been established’. Significantly, in respect of both categories, the definition
excludes ‘any person who has received all the benefits which may be due to that
person from the fund and whose membership has thereafter been terminated in
accordance with the rules of the fund’ (Emphasis added.)
Although s 37B refers to ‘any person entitled to a benefit’ as opposed to a
‘member’, the difference in the terminology does not appear to be of any
significance. Both must be taken to mean a beneficiary of a pension benefit. Thus
the definition of ‘member’ applies with equal force to any construction of s 37B.
It follows that Mr Moreau is excluded from protection under s 37B of the Act by
this definition, as he had ‘received all the benefits’ and his membership of the
provident fund had been terminated thereby.
[25] To conclude on this aspect, I am constrained to comment on the appellants’
reliance on certain remarks made by Rogers J in respect of the protection
provisions of s 37A(1) in Van Heerden and Another v NDPP and Another [2015]
ZAWCHC 96. The learned Judge remarked that since these were meant for the
protection of pension fund members and their dependants, ‘it is legitimate to ask
what the point would be of shielding from execution a member’s right to receive
payment of a benefit but not the benefit once received’. Later (at para 45) the
learned Judge remarked that ‘[t]he restrictive interpretation of “benefit” seems to
render the protection afforded by the section largely hollow’. In this case, the
appellants placed strong reliance on these remarks for their submission that the
protection of s 37B extends to the pension benefit after it is paid out.
[26] These remarks should be seen in their proper context. First, they are not an
authoritative pronouncement on the question whether the provisions of s 37A(1)
benefit that scheme or arrangement has been established, when they reach their retirement dates or for
dependants of such persons upon the death of those persons.’
extends beyond payment of the pension benefit, as that issue did not directly arise
in that case, and did not need to be decided – a fact acknowledged by the learned
Judge (at para 42). Second, the learned Judge acknowledged (at para 41) the
difficulties which would arise if one construed the word ‘benefit’ in s 37A(1) as
meaning the money paid to the member or dependant as distinct from such
person’s right to receive payment thereof at a future date. These included the fact
that a beneficiary could possibly be subject to the prohibition of s 37A(1) and be
precluded from freely dealing with the money in that he would not be permitted
to cede, pledge, hypothecate or transfer it.
[27] In Van Aartsen v Van Aartsen 2006 (4) SA 131 (T) para 23, De Vos J
remarked obiter in relation to s 37A(1) that ‘it could also be argued that once
[the beneficiary] had received his pension payout, it was no longer a pension
benefit as intended in the Act, but rather a sum of money, that is, a movable thing
and not a legal right or claim’. It was suggested in Van Heerden (at paras 38 and
42) that Foit and Van Aartse were wrongly decided. The correctness of those
decisions was endorsed by this court in Sentinel Retirement Fund and Another v
Masoanganye and Others [2018] ZASCA 126 para 16. The appellants’ reliance
on Van Heerden is thus misplaced.
[28] I turn now to the provisions of the Insolvency Act with regard to the setting
aside of dispositions. This may be done in terms of either of s 26 (as dispositions
without value),7 s 29 (as voidable preferences)8 or s 31 (as collusive dealings
before sequestration). The court a quo, correctly in my view, identified s 31 to be
the applicable section on the facts of this case. Section 31 reads as follows:
‘Collusive dealings before sequestration
(1) After the sequestration of a debtor’s estate the court may set aside any transaction entered
into by the debtor before sequestration, whereby he, in collusion with another person, disposed
of property belonging to him in a manner which had the effect of prejudicing his creditors or
of preferring one of his creditors above another.
(2) Any person who was a party to such collusive disposition shall be liable to make good any
loss caused to the insolvent’s estate in question and shall pay for the benefit of the estate, by
way of penalty, such sum as the court may adjudge, not exceeding the amount by which he
would have benefitted by such dealing if it had not been set aside; and if he is a creditor he
shall also forfeit his claim against the estate.
(3) Such compensation and penalty may be recovered in any action to set aside the transaction
in question.’
In terms of s 32(1)(a) proceedings for the recovery of compensation or penalty
under s 31 may be taken by a trustee.
7 ‘(1) Every disposition of property not made for value may be set aside by the court if such disposition
was made by an insolvent –
(a) more than two years before the sequestration of his estate, and it is proved that, immediately after
the disposition was made, the liabilities of the insolvent exceeded his assets.
(b) within two years of the sequestration of his estate, and the person claiming under or benefited by
the disposition is unable to prove that, immediately after the disposition was made, the assets of the
insolvent exceeded his liabilities;
Provided that if it is proved that the liabilities of the insolvent at any time after the making of the
disposition exceeded his assets by less than the value of the property disposed of, it may be set aside
only to the extent of such excess. . . .’
8 ‘(1) Every disposition of his property made by a debtor not more than six months before the
sequestration of his estate or, if he is deceased and his estate is insolvent, before his death, which has
had the effect of preferring one of this creditors above another, may be set aside by the Court if
immediately after the making of such disposition the liabilities of the debtor exceeded the value of his
assets, unless the person in whose favour the disposition was made proves that the disposition was made
in the ordinary course of business and that it was not intended thereby to prefer one creditor above
another. . . .’
[29] It was submitted on behalf of the appellants that absent an application to
impugn the decree of divorce, the payments made in terms thereof cannot be set
aside. A similar contention was correctly rejected in Sackstein en Venter NNO v
Greyling 1990 (2) SA 323 (O) at 327D-E. The appellants also relied on the
exclusionary clause in the definition of ‘disposition’ in s 2 of the Insolvency Act
for the contention that the payments cannot be set aside. The definition of
‘disposition’ in s 2 is as follows:
‘Disposition means any transfer or abandonment of rights to property and includes a sale, lease,
mortgage, pledge, delivery, payment, release, compromise, donation or any contract therefor,
but does not include disposition in compliance with an order of the court; and “dispose” has a
corresponding meaning.’ (Emphasis added.)
[30] It brooks no debate that the payments made by Mr Moreau to Mrs Moreau
constitute ‘dispositions’ within the meaning of the Insolvency Act. As I have
already stated, there were two of those. The first was for R3 500 000 into an
attorney’s trust account for the credit of Iprolog on 23 June 2009 and used towards
the purchase of property in Iprolog’s name. The second payment was made
shortly after the divorce decree was finalised. It was submitted that despite the
payment date for the R3 500 000 being June 2009, the money only accrued to
Mrs Moreau on 26 August 2009, after the decree of divorce was granted and the
property had been transferred into Iprolog’s name. Thus, it was said that Mrs
Moreau was only ‘paid’ after the divorce order was granted, and ‘in terms’
thereof.
[31] This submission has merely to be stated, to be rejected. It was contrived to
bring the disposition within the ambit of the exclusionary provisions of the
definition of ‘disposition’ in s 2 of the Insolvency Act referred to above. As I
have said, the disposition was to Iprolog and occurred on 23 June 2009 when the
money was paid into the attorney’s trust account. That Iprolog was only free to
use it later is irrelevant. The exclusionary provisions of s 2 did not apply to this
payment, and it was accordingly susceptible to being set aside in terms of one or
other of the three sections of the Insolvency Act referred to above. The payment
of R1 023 867 stands on a different footing, as it was made after the divorce
decree was granted on 21 August 2009, thus notionally protected by the
exclusionary provisions of s 2. However, those provisions do not serve as an
absolute bar.
[32] In Dabelstein and Others v Lane and Fey NNO 2001 (1) SA 1222 (SCA)
(at para 7) this court recognised that in certain instances, a disposition made in
terms of a court order may be set aside. It was pointed out that where that is sought
to be done, it is not sufficient merely to bring the disposition within the ambit of
one or more of the relevant provisions of the Insolvency Act, as was done
in Sackstein. Hefer ADCJ explained, with reference to Swadif (Pty) Ltd v Dyké
NO 1978 (1) SA 928 (A); [1978] 2 All SA 121 (A) at 938B-939H), that under
those circumstances, additional allegations have to be made in order to nullify the
effect of the exclusion in s 2. If either fraud, collusion or any other reprehensible
conduct is relied upon, it must be alleged.
[33] In this case, the respondents’ founding affidavit is replete with allegations
of collusion between Mr and Mrs Moreau. I have referred to some of those
allegations in para 10 above. In fact, the entire premise of the respondents’ case
rests on the existence of such collusion. In my view, the respondents’ assertions
are credible. From the papers filed in the court a quo and the record of the oral
evidence, it is clear that there was a carefully designed plan by Mr Moreau to
keep the pension money from his creditor, Lowveld. Mrs Moreau and Iprolog
were very much part of that plan.
[34] This commenced in April 2009 when Iprolog was incorporated. Both
served as directors of Iprolog, albeit at different times. This was followed by both
becoming trustees of the Trust in May 2009. The Trust became the sole
shareholder of Iprolog. After payment of R3 500 000 was made into the
attorney’s trust account, the money was used by Iprolog to acquire two farms in
Kwa-Zulu Natal. When those farms were sold, part of the profit was used to
enable Iprolog to purchase the Edenvale property, which Mr and Mrs Moreau
continue to jointly occupy.
[35] Furthermore, the divorce between the parties was undoubtedly a sham.
Their continued co-habitation at the Edenvale property serves, among others, as
proof of that. Their explanation for this is unconvincing. Mrs Moreau is the one
who instituted the divorce, significantly, a mere two days after Mr Moreau’s
application for leave to appeal was dismissed by this court. She took an active
part in the settlement agreement, which resulted in her receiving virtually all of
Mr Moreau’s assets and money. Given all these, the conclusion is inescapable
that there was collusion between Mr Moreau and Mrs Moreau in respect of the
disposition of the former’s pension money. Mr Moreau’s receipt – and almost
immediate disposal - of his pension in the manner described herein, had the effect
of his liabilities exceeding his assets.
[36] In sum, I find that neither of the protective provisions in ss 37B or 37A of
the Act apply to Mr Moreau’s pension once paid to him. The dispositions by him
became susceptible to being set aside pursuant to the provisions of s 31 of the
Insolvency Act, which, in my view, have been met: Mr Moreau made a
disposition of his money to Mrs Moreau in collusion with the latter, which had
the effect of prejudicing Mr Moreau’s creditor (Lowveld). The prejudice is
self-evident. Iprolog was not a creditor of Mr Moreau and even if one accepts for
present purposes the appellants’ contention that Mrs Moreau was also
Mr Moreau’s creditor, the disposition had the effect of preferring her above
Lowveld.
[37] The dispositions were correctly set aside by the court a quo. The appeal
falls to fail. The learned judge set aside the payment of the whole amount of
R4 639 000 to Mrs Moreau, alternatively the R3 500 000 to Iprolog, further
alternatively, the difference between the R4 639 000 and R3 500 000 paid to
Mrs Moreau. This needs to be clarified. Both the main and alternative orders
cannot, as framed by the learned Judge, stand. It is clear that R3 500 000 was paid
on 23 June 2009 into the trust account of Venn Nemeth & Hart Attorneys, which
was then transferred to Iprolog, Mrs Moreau retained the balance of R1 023 867,
which became available to her on or about 21 August 2009.
[38] In the result the following order is made:
1 Save to the extent reflected in the paragraph below, the appeal is dismissed
with costs, such costs to be paid by the appellants jointly and severally, the one
paying the others to be absolved;
2 Paragraph 1 of the order of the court a quo is substituted with the following:
‘1 The payments made by the insolvent, Mr Pierrie Andre Leonard Moreau, to
or for the benefit respectively of the first respondent, Vanessa Ingrid Moreau, in
the sum R1 023 867 and the second respondent, Iprolog (Pty) Ltd, in the sum of
R3 500 000, are set aside and the respondents are ordered to repay those monies
forthwith to the applicants.
____________________
T M Makgoka
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES:
For Appellants:
J Marks
c/o June Stacey Mark Attorneys, Johannesburg
Claude Reid Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For Respondents:
T A L L Potgieter SC
Instructed by:
Pieter Swanepoel Attorneys, Mbombela
McIntyre Van der Post, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY: JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE:
09 July 2020
STATUS:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form part of the
judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
Moreau and Another v Murray and Others (251/2019) [2020] ZASCA 86 (9 July 2020)
Today, the Supreme Court of Appeal (the SCA) dismissed an appeal brought by the appellants, against
a judgment of the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria.
The primary issue in the appeal was whether a pension benefit paid out to the insolvent, Mr Pierrie
Moreau in June 2009, some two years before he was finally sequestrated on 1 August 2011, enjoyed
the protection provided in s 37B of the Pensions Fund Act 24 of 1956 (the Act), which protects pension
benefits against attachment by a trustee of an insolvent estate. After receiving the pension pay-out of
R4 746 080.14, he paid R1 023 867 thereof to the first appellant, then his wife, and R3 500 00 thereof
to the second appellant, Iprolog (Pty) Ltd (Iprolog). Iprolog purchased immovable properties with that
money. In August 2009, the insolvent and the first appellant divorced each other. In the settlement
agreement of the parties it was recorded that the insolvent owed the first appellant R3 722 213.14 in
terms of the parties’ antenuptial contract, and R1 023 867 for an alleged loan. According to the
appellants, the payments of the pension money to the first appellant were in compliance with the terms
of the divorce settlement agreement, which was made an order of court. After he was sequestrated, the
respondents, the joint trustees of his insolvent estate, obtained an order in the Gauteng Division of the
High Court, Pretoria, in terms of which the payments were set aside in terms of s 31 of the Insolvency
Act 24 of 1936, and the appellants were interdicted from selling the property indirectly purchased with
the pension money. The appellants appealed against those orders and submitted that the pension pay-
out to the insolvent was exempt from attachment in terms s 37B, and that, in any event, the payments
to the appellants could not be set aside as they were made in compliance with a court order. With regard
to the Insolvency Act, it was submitted that neither of the provisions of the relevant sections had been
established to justify setting aside the payments.
Section 37B provides that if the estate of any person entitled to a benefit payable in terms of the rules
of a pension fund is sequestrated or surrendered, such benefit shall not be deemed to form part of the
assets in the insolvent estate of that person and may not in any way be attached or appropriated by the
trustee in his insolvent estate or by his creditors. In construing the section, the SCA considered, among
others, the definitions of ‘benefit’ and ‘member’ in s 1 in the Act, and concluded that once the pension
benefit is paid to a beneficiary, he or she ceases to be a ‘member’ of the pension fund according to the
rules of the fund, and the money ceases to be a ‘benefit’. It loses its character once in the hands of the
beneficiary and becomes the beneficiary’s ordinary money, which can be attached. Section 37A(1)
could not be of any assistance either, for the same reasons.
Turning to whether the payments to the appellants ought to be set aside, the court considered s 31 of
the Insolvency Act in terms of which the court may set aside any transaction entered into by the debtor
before sequestration, whereby he, in collusion with another person, disposed of property belonging to
him in a manner which had the effect of prejudicing his creditors or of preferring one of his creditors
above another. The court rejected the appellants’ submission that absent an application to impugn the
decree of divorce, the payments made in terms thereof cannot be set aside, and that the payments to the
first appellant could not be set aside based on the exclusionary clause in the definition of ‘disposition’
in s 2 of the Insolvency Act which provides that dispositions in compliance with a court shall not be set
aside. The court pointed out that those provisions do not serve as an absolute bar, and that such payments
could be set aside on the basis of either fraud, collusion or any other reprehensible conduct. In this case,
there was sufficient basis to conclude that there was collusion between the insolvent and the first
appellant, whose divorce was found to be a sham, and part of a scheme to ensure that the insolvent did
not pay his debts. Also, the court found that the parties had used the corporate veil of the second
appellant, for that purpose.
In the circumstances, the Court (per Makgoka JA) with Ponnan, Dambuza, Van der Merwe and Mbatha
JJA concurring, dismissed the appeal with costs. |
1887 | non-electoral | 2011 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case no: 498/10
In the matter between:
ROSHAN MORAR NO
Appellant
and
MAHOMED ASLAM OSMAN AKOO First Respondent
THE TRUSTEES OF THE MAHOMED
ASLAM AKOO FAMILY TRUST
Second Respondent
Neutral citation: Morar NO v Akoo (498/10) [2011] ZASCA 130 (15
September 2011)
Coram:
BRAND, MHLANTLA, MAJIEDT and WALLIS JJA and
MEER AJA.
Heard:
26 August 2011
Delivered: 15 September 2011
Summary: Partnership – liquidator appointed by the court – powers
to be conferred on liquidator – whether court may amplify powers
originally given to liquidator.
ORDER
On appeal from: KwaZulu-Natal High Court, Pietermaritzburg
(K Pillay J, sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
JUDGMENT
WALLIS JA (BRAND, MHLANTLA and MAJIEDT JJA and
MEER AJA concurring)
[1] Ordinarily when a partnership is dissolved the partners themselves
liquidate it, or cause it to be liquidated by one of their number or by a
third party chosen by them. The basis upon which the liquidation is
undertaken is agreed upon, whether in advance in a formal partnership
agreement or at the time of dissolution. Sometimes it is not possible for
the partners to reach such an agreement and one or more of the partners
seek the intervention of a court to procure the appointment of a
liquidator.1 That happened in the present case and it resulted in
Mr Morar’s appointment as the liquidator of the partnership operating a
business called Rollco. The order appointing him gave him detailed
powers. Mr Morar’s task has not been straightforward and accordingly he
approached the high court asking for further powers to be given to him.
The application was heard by K Pillay J and was dismissed. Mr Morar
appeals with her leave to this court. The issues raised by the appeal are
1 Invoking for that purpose the actio pro socio the nature of which was described by Joubert JA in
Robson v Theron 1978 (1) SA 841 (A) at 855H-856G.
whether it is competent for the initial order to be varied and whether the
relief Mr Morar now seeks should be granted to him.
[2] In about 1986 the Osman family established the business known as
Rollco, as manufacturers of roof sheeting and processors and suppliers of
steel products. Mr Mohamed Aslam Osman Akoo, the first respondent,
was actively engaged in the management of the business, ownership of
which lay with a family trust. During 1987 the Moosa family became
equal partners with the Osman family in the business, holding their
50 percent share through ten family trusts. There is a dispute whether the
Moosa family’s involvement was purely as financiers of the business or
whether they were also to play an active role in managing the business.
Be that as it may the business operated reasonably successfully and
generated profits, which were shared equally between the Osman family
trust and the Moosa family trusts.
[3] Problems started to emerge in 2002 or 2003 when Mr Akoo’s
brothers and father withdrew from the business. There is a dispute
whether their interests in the business were taken over by Mr Akoo, either
personally or through the medium of the second respondent, the
Mohamed Aslam Osman Akoo Family Trust (the Akoo family trust), or
whether a significant portion of their shares accrued to the various Moosa
family trusts.2 This appears to have marked the beginning of a breakdown
in relations between Mr Akoo, on the one hand, and the representatives of
2 This dispute may be affected by a further judgment by Msimang JP handed down on 22 June 2010 in
which he held that the Akoo family trust could not legally have entered into the partnership agreement
as on the relevant date its trustees (Mr Akoo and his wife) had not been issued with letters of authority
to act as trustees of the trust in terms of s 6 of the Trust Property Control Act 57 of 1988. There is other
litigation pending that may also have a material impact upon whether any such partnership ever
existed, the identity of the partners and the effect of the order referred to in para 4. The present
proceedings were brought and decided prior to the second order by Msimang JP and prior to the
commencement of the other litigation and will be decided without reference to them.
the Moosa family on the other. It culminated on 24 February 2006 with
Mr Akoo addressing a letter to each of the Moosa family trusts giving
them notice of the dissolution of the partnership with effect from
28 February 2006. In a case beset by disagreement the one point on which
all the parties agree is that this notice was effective to terminate the
Rollco
partnership,
however
constituted,
with
effect
from
28 February 2006.
[4] On 15 October 2007, on the application of certain of the Moosa
family trusts, Msimang J made an order declaring that the partnership
relationship subsisting between ten Moosa family trusts and either
Mr Akoo personally, or the Akoo family trust, under the name and style
of Rollco Roofing Systems, to have been lawfully dissolved with effect
from 28 February 2006. He ordered the appointment of Mr Morar as
liquidator and that from the date of the order:
‘… all partnership property and assets, of whatsoever form or nature, and regardless
of the date of acquisition of such property or asset by the partnership or any of its
partners, shall vest in the liquidator.’
[5] Mr Akoo was directed to furnish the liquidator and all the partners
with a full and proper account of the partnership business and its assets
and liabilities as at 28 February 2006 with supporting documents and
vouchers. He and a company, Rollco Roofing Systems (Pty) Ltd, through
which
Mr Akoo
had
been
conducting
the
business
since
28 February 2006, were ordered to furnish the liquidator with an account
of the income and expenditure arising from the operation of that business
‘alternatively arising from the use of the assets of the partnership from
1 March 2006 to the date of account’ including all supporting documents
and vouchers, as well as an accounting of the assets and liabilities of the
company. The liquidator was directed to effect a final liquidation of the
partnership and make any distribution to the partners according to the
extent of their determined interests in the partnership.
[6] Mr Morar has endeavoured to carry out his task but has met with
little success. Neither Mr Akoo nor Rollco Roofing Systems (Pty) Ltd
have rendered a proper account as required by the order. There remains
no clarity as to the whereabouts of the assets of the business or whether
the business is still in the hands of the company or has in effect been
transferred to another company. In those circumstances Mr Morar sought
and obtained an order for the liquidation of Rollco Roofing
Systems (Pty) Ltd. Thereafter an enquiry in terms of the provisions of
s 417 of the Companies Act 61 of 1973 (the old Companies Act)) was
convened before a retired judge. For reasons that are immaterial he raised
a query whether such an enquiry was competent. That resulted in
protracted litigation between the liquidator and the present respondents
that was only resolved after the appeal before us had been lodged. There
have been other legal proceedings involving the liquidator but with little
advantage in terms of achieving finality with the liquidation.
[7] In the result Mr Morar ran short of the sinews of war. He
accordingly wrote letters to the different potential partners of the Rollco
partnership asking for contributions. An amount of R500 000 was
forthcoming from the various Moosa family trusts but Mr Akoo and the
Akoo family trust, without expressly refusing to do so, provided nothing.
Their refusal is the subject of the first order sought by Mr Morar. In it he
asks that they be ordered to pay him an amount of R500 000 ‘for the
purposes of administering the estate of the partnership which conducted
trade under the name and style of Rollco Roofing Systems’. To fortify the
order in case of non-compliance he asks that if the money is not paid to
him within ten days of the order the sheriff should be authorised to attach
property sufficient, once sold, to realise R500 000 and to pay that amount
to him. Realising also that this may not prove to be sufficient if Mr Akoo
and the Akoo family trust continue to resist his attempts to pursue the
liquidation, he also asks for an order that he may in the future call upon
the partners to make contributions to him as required in order to fund his
work as liquidator and that they will be required to comply with those
calls for additional funds.
[8] Together with the claim for that financial relief Mr Morar sought
an order for a detailed account from Mr Akoo relating to the partnership’s
dealings with its major supplier. He also asked for more extensive powers
of interrogation in relation to Mr Akoo and certain other individuals. The
latter were said by his counsel to be the most important aspect of the
order that he sought. What he seeks is the power to appoint a senior
advocate to conduct an enquiry as if in terms of s 417 of the old
Companies Act. Lastly he asked for authority to take out professional
indemnity insurance as an expense of the liquidation.
[9] Counsel for Mr Morar did not point to any authority specifically
supporting this relief. Instead he submitted that it is relief that can be
granted by virtue of the general principles of the actio pro socio ‘and “the
wide equitable discretion” given to a liquidator of a partnership’.
Reliance was placed upon the exposition of the actio pro socio by Joubert
JA in Robson v Theron3 and upon the judgment in Brighton v Clift (2)4. It
is helpful to consider what was decided in these cases.
3 At 855H-856G
4 Brighton v Clift (2) 1971 (2) SA 191 (R) at 193B-D.
[10] Joubert JA surveyed the development of the law from Roman times
in regard to the actio pro socio and summarised his conclusions in the
following terms:
‘The principles of the common law underlying the actio pro socio may be
conveniently summarised as follows:
1. This action may be instituted by a partner against a co-partner during the existence
of the partnership for specific performance in terms of the partnership agreement
and/or fulfilment of personal obligations (praestationes personales) arising out of the
partnership agreement and business.
2. Where the partnership agreement provides for (or the parties subsequently agree
upon) the dissolution of the partnership and the manner in which the partnership is to
be liquidated and wound-up specific performance thereof may be claimed by means
of this action.
3. Where neither the partnership agreement nor a subsequent agreement between the
partners provides for the dissolution of the partnership and the manner in which the
partnership is to be liquidated and wound-up this action may in general (subject to any
stipulation for the duration of the partnership or any other relevant stipulations) be
brought by a partner to have the partnership liquidated and wound-up. The Court in
the exercise of its wide equitable discretion may appoint a liquidator to realise the
partnership assets for the purpose of liquidating partnership debts and to distribute the
balance of the partnership assets or their proceeds among the partners. Pothier,
op. cit., sec. 136.
4. Where a partnership has been dissolved a partner may avail himself of this action
against his co-partners to claim distribution of any undistributed partnership asset or
assets. Pothier, op. cit., sec. 162:
"Each of the former partners can alone demand a distribution of the effects which
remain in common after the dissolution of the partnership."
This obviously covers the situation where, after dissolution of a partnership, a
continuing partner retains possession of a partnership asset which has not been
included in a distribution of the partnership assets. Hence a retiring partner may
institute this action against the continuing partner to claim a distribution of the
partnership asset in question.
5. A court has a wide equitable discretion in respect of the mode of distribution of
partnership assets, having regard, inter alia, to the particular circumstances, what is
most to the advantage of the partners and what they prefer.
6 The various modes of distribution of partnership assets are fully dealt with by
Pothier, op. cit., secs. 161 - 178.’
[11] Two points are noteworthy about this exposition of the general
principles of the actio pro socio. The first is that according to the
authorities the action is one that lies at the instance of one of the partners
for relief against another partner, either during the subsistence of the
partnership or after its dissolution. A detailed discussion is to be found in
Voet 17.2.9 and 17.2.105 where it is said that the action is one in terms of
which one partner may claim against another:
(a) an account and a debatement thereof, either during the subsistence of
the partnership or after it has been terminated;
(b) delivery of a partnership asset to the partnership;
(c) the appointment of a liquidator to the partnership.
Other writers describe the actio in similar terms.6 Pothier7 says that:
‘From the obligations which arise out of the contract of partnership arises the action
pro socio, which each of the partners can maintain against his copartners, in order to
compel their fulfilment.
This is a personal action: it passes to the heirs and other universal successors of each
of the partners, who can maintain that action; and it may be brought against the heirs
and other universal successors of the partners, who are bound by it.’
None of the writers suggest that the actio is available to a liquidator once
appointed to liquidate a partnership. It is always available to the erstwhile
5 The Selective Voet being the Commentary on the Pandects of Johannes Voet (Gane’s translation),
Vol 3.
6 Van der Linden, Institutes of Holland (Juta’s translation) 2.4.1.11; Van der Keesel, Select Theses on
the Laws of Holland and Zeeland (Lorenz’s translation), 700 and 701; Van Oven’s Leerboek van
Romeinsch Privaatrecht (3rd ed)(1948) at 280 et seq.
7 Pothier, A Treatise on the Law of Partnership (translated by Owen Davies Tudor, 1854) section 134.
partners, but that does not mean that the liquidator can invoke it. This
undermines the attempt by Mr Morar to rely on it for the relief he seeks.
[12] The second point is that the references by Joubert JA to ‘a wide
discretion’ are not references to a discretion vested in the liquidator nor
are they references to a discretion enjoyed by the court to invest the
liquidator with broad-ranging powers. They refer to the discretion
enjoyed by a court either to appoint a liquidator or to order a distribution
of the partnership property among the partners in some other fashion. The
discussion in the passage that follows of the actio communi dividundo
refers to a similar discretion. The learned judge said only that, when
former partners approach the court for relief under either of these
actiones, the court has a wide discretion to determine whether to appoint
a liquidator, or to order a division of the partnership property, or to order
one partner to take over that property at a valuation with payment of the
appropriate share to the other or others. That is something very different
from saying that the liquidator appointed by the court has a wide
discretion in regard to the manner in which the liquidation is carried out
or from saying that the court has a wide discretion to afford extensive
powers to the liquidator of a partnership.
[13] The other authority on which reliance is placed in support of the
proposition that a liquidator has a ‘wide equitable discretion’ is the
decision in Brighton v Clift (2), supra. That concerned the dissolution and
winding-up of a firm of attorneys and the issue before the court was
whether a liquidator should be appointed in the face of opposition from
the one partner. The judgment was accordingly not concerned with the
powers to be granted to the liquidator, if appointed, save in a passing
fashion. Having decided that a liquidator should be appointed Macauley J
dealt with his powers in these terms:
‘With regard to the powers to be conferred on the liquidator, it seems to me that it is
not this Court's function to act as a liquidator and to anticipate problems which may
present themselves to the liquidator at a later stage. Doubtless, these will arise in any
liquidation, but they are matters for the liquidator to decide and, in doing so, he may
seek the parties' concurrence in any course he takes. Failing their agreement, his
decisions are open to objection by either party with recourse to the Courts. I decline,
therefore, to direct the liquidator in the manner sought in paras. 2-6 inclusive of the
amended draft order.’ 8 (Emphasis added.)
In the result the order the court made was confined to one appointing the
liquidator to wind up the partnership, realise its assets, collect the debts
due to it, prepare a final account and divide the assets between the
partners after paying the debts and the costs of liquidation.
[14] That judgment does not assist Mr Morar. The judge was asked to
make an order in very detailed terms, the particulars of which do not
emerge from his judgment. He refused to grant that order and instead
granted an order appointing the liquidator and leaving it to the liquidator
to determine how to go about his task. He did so on the basis that it would
be sensible for the liquidator to seek the concurrence of the parties to any
particular course of action in the knowledge that if they did not agree
with any particular decision they might have recourse to the court to
challenge it. He did not suggest that a liquidator could come back to the
court to seek additional powers of the type claimed in these proceedings.
[15] In Robson v Theron Joubert JA did not address in detail the
situation of a liquidator, no doubt because he decided that such an
appointment would not be appropriate. His concern was whether the actio
8 At 193B-D.
pro socio or the actio communi dividundo is the appropriate remedy to
resolve issues around the liquidation of a partnership, or whether either
one could be used.9 The only passage in his judgment dealing with
liquidators reads:
‘Van der Linden, 2.4.1.14, deals in some detail with the liquidation or winding-up of a
partnership. In doing so he relies heavily on the authority of the great French jurist,
Pothier, whose treatise on the law of partnership was regarded towards the end of the
eighteenth century as an authority of great weight in the Netherlands. This is not
surprising since the French and Roman-Dutch law of partnership are both founded on
Roman law. See Wessels, History of the Roman-Dutch Law, p. 652. His treatise was
translated by Van der Linden into Dutch: Verhandeling van het Recht omtrent
Sociëteiten of Compagnieschappen and has been regarded by our Courts as an
important authority in this branch of the law. In order to obviate repetition I intend to
follow up what Pothier has to say on the subject.
Pothier in his Treatise on the Contract of Partnership (translated by Owen Davies
Tudor) affirms the twofold purpose of the actio pro socio, viz. to implement the terms
of the partnership agreement and to dissolve it.’10
This only deals in passing with the process of liquidation and provides no
support for the contentions on behalf of Mr Morar. The learned judge was
simply not concerned with the powers to be afforded a liquidator
appointed to liquidate the partnership.
[16] I have found nothing in the old authorities to justify the notion that
the court has a discretion to grant wide-ranging powers of administration
to the liquidator of a partnership to be exercised in the course of
liquidating the partnership. The leading writers on the topic of partnership
among the old authorities barely mention the topic of the appointment of
liquidators and their powers. The reason appears to be that in many places
local ordinances provided that disputes about liquidation should be
9 See the discussion at 850C-854D. His conclusion following Pothier, was that both remedies are
available to be invoked in appropriate circumstances.
10 At 852D-G.
referred to arbitrators. By way of example, in the passage cited by
Joubert JA in support of paragraph 3 of his summary of the elements of
the actio pro socio, Pothier refers to the applicable French ordinance
when he says;
‘For this end, the Ordonnance of 1673, tit 4. art 9., provides that all contracts of
partnership should contain the clause of submission to arbitration upon all disputes
which may arise amongst partners on account of the partnership, and that where that
clause has been omitted, it should be supplied.’
[17] It would be unwise, in the absence of full argument on the source
of the court’s power to appoint a liquidator to a partnership, to make a
definitive finding as to the full extent of the powers that a court may vest
in the liquidator of a partnership. It is sufficient to deal with certain basic
principles and in the light of those to assess the specific powers that the
liquidator seeks in this case and determine whether they can or should be
granted.
[18] When the court appoints a liquidator for a partnership it is
remedying the failure of the partners to attend to the liquidation of the
partnership by agreement. Such failure may arise from disagreement over
the need to appoint a liquidator, or over the identity of the liquidator or
the powers that the liquidator should enjoy. That being so it is logical to
take as one’s starting point the powers that the partners could themselves
confer by agreement, if they were not in a state of hostilities. The court is
then asked to do no more than resolve a dispute between the partners over
the appointment of the liquidator or over the liquidator’s powers. It does
so in a way that the parties themselves could have done. The
disagreement arises in consequence of the one partner refusing to agree to
the liquidator being appointed or the liquidator having a particular power
and that can be characterised as a breach of the obligations of co-
operation and good faith that are central to all partnerships. The court is
then merely enforcing the contractual obligations of the partners
themselves.
[19] Once the court is asked to go beyond this it is necessary to identify
a source of its power to do so. That is central to the rule of law that
underpins our constitutional order. Courts are not free to do whatever
they wish to resolve the cases that come before them. The boundary
between judicial exposition and interpretation of legal sources, which is
the judicial function, and legislation, which is not, must be observed and
respected. In this case no such source was identified.
[20] In argument it was submitted that the appointment and functions of
the liquidator of a partnership are largely equivalent to those of the
liquidator of a company under the old Companies Act. However the
analogy is false. Unlike partnerships, companies only exist under the
legislation under which they are constituted, which governs their creation,
operation and liquidation. Although in some jurisdictions partnerships are
regulated by statute11 that is not the case in South Africa. In our law the
general approach to partnerships is that their creation, operation and
dissolution depends upon the terms of the agreement concluded by the
partners. If there are disputes at any stage of the relationship those are
resolved by the courts under the general rules governing contracts and in
terms of the actio pro socio. Whatever policy reasons might exist for
bringing about some degree of equivalence between partnerships and
companies, the legislature has not done so.
11 As in the United Kingdom.
[21] Turning specifically to the relief claimed by Mr Morar, in para 7.19
of the original order granted by Msimang J, he had been authorised to
direct any of the partners to attend on him at his offices in order to answer
such questions as he might raise in relation to any of the affairs and assets
of the partnership.12 In these proceedings he seeks an order authorising
him to employ attorneys and counsel for the purpose of examining any of
the partners, their servants or representatives suspected of being in
possession of property of the partnership or of being indebted to the
partnership or who is deemed capable of giving information concerning
the trade, dealings, affairs or property of the partnership. To that end he
also sought an order authorising him to engage the services of a senior
advocate to preside over ‘such examination or interrogation’ with the
same powers mutatis mutandis as a person appointed to conduct an
enquiry in terms of s 417 of the old Companies Act. Some of those
powers were spelled out in the draft order and they included the power to
summon witnesses, compel discovery, administer an oath and both
question and allow such person to be interrogated. There are legal
difficulties in regard to the power of the court to grant such orders and, if
granted, there would be practical difficulties in enforcing them.
[22] The legal difficulties arise because it is debatable whether and to
what extent it is competent contractually to invest an individual with
certain of the powers conferred upon a functionary by statute.13 The
practice of conferring upon receivers under offers of compromise in terms
of s 311 of the Companies Act 61 of 1973 the powers of a liquidator
12 I leave aside any consideration of whether this order was itself competent or how it would operate if
all the partners were trusts, as might have been the case on one of the factual scenarios before the
learned judge.
13 South African Fabrics Limited v Millman NO & another 1972 (4) SA 592 (A) at 600E-G, citing
South African Board of Executors & Trust Co. (In Liquidation) v Gluckman 1967 (1) SA 534 (A) at
541F-H.
mutatis mutandis was described by Milne JA as ‘indiscriminate
borrowing mutatis mutandis of a liquidator’s general armoury’ which led
to “unforeseen problems and disputes’.14 In Gunn & another NNO v
Victory Upholsters (Pty) Ltd15 Didcott J dealt with a similar clause and
said that it could not mean that literally all the powers of a liquidator were
included. Among those he specifically said were excluded16 was the
power to interrogate the directors of the company about their
management of it prior to liquidation.
[23] The practical difficulties reinforce the legal ones. They are
illustrated by certain questions posed to counsel in the course of
argument. What if a person does not attend in response to a summons to
appear at such an interrogation? What happens if they decline to take an
oath or make an affirmation? Can they refuse to answer questions? What
are the consequences if they do so? If they lie in the course of such an
interrogation does that make them liable for the penalties attaching to the
crime of statutory perjury? No satisfactory answer was forthcoming. In
the case of companies the answers are reasonably clear and flow from the
terms of the statute. The questions are important because the successful
conduct of an interrogation depends upon there being answers that govern
these situations. It is also necessary that there be answers to them because
the conduct of such an interrogation raises constitutional issues in view of
its potential to infringe constitutionally protected rights such as the right
to dignity and the right to privacy.17 In my view there is no satisfactory
14 Morris NO v Airomatic (Pty) Ltd t/a Barlows Airconditioning Co. 1990 (4) SA 376 (A) at 401F-G.
This was a slight alteration of what Didcott J had said in Ex parte Trakman NO: In re Dumbe Motel
(Pty) Ltd 1978 (1) SA 1082 (N) at 1084 C-D.
15 Gunn & another NNO v Victory Upholsters (Pty) Ltd 1976 (1) SA 127 (D) at 135B-D
16 Approving counsel’s concession to this effect.
17 Ferreira v Levin NO & others; Vryenhoek & others v Powell NO & others 1996 (2) SA 621 (CC);
Bernstein & others v Bester & others NNO 1996 (2) SA 751 (CC).
answer to these questions and that poses insuperable practical problems to
the grant of these powers.
[24] If the court were to give these powers to the liquidator a curious
and untenable situation would result. It is illustrated by the following
example. Assume that a partnership business has closed because of
financial difficulties without any rift between the partners. They believe
that the source of their financial difficulties was the dishonesty or
negligence of a former employee. They wish to interrogate the employee
in order to confirm their suspicions. They cannot by agreement appoint a
liquidator with the power to conduct an interrogation and if they do the
employee can disregard such an appointment. Nor can they ask the court
to conduct an interrogation on their behalf. Courts in this country do not
have a general power to interrogate people. Yet, if the proposition on
behalf of Mr Morar is correct, the partners can overcome these difficulties
by applying to the court for the appointment of a liquidator and asking the
court to vest the liquidator with the power to conduct an interrogation.
That cannot be correct. It would mean that although neither the court nor
the partners are entitled to conduct an interrogation, they are able to bring
one about by the simple expedient of the court appointing the liquidator
and granting an order such as that sought in this case.
[25] For those reasons K Pillay J was correct to refuse to grant
Mr Morar the powers of interrogation that he seeks. The power to order
an interrogation is an exceptional power18 and I can find no basis upon
which it is one that courts can confer upon liquidators of partnerships. If
that is a shortcoming the remedy must lie in legislation.
18 In re North Australian Territory Company (1890) 45 Ch D 87 at 93 per Bowen LJ.
[26] The second aspect of the application is the prayer for a contribution
to the costs of administration of the liquidation of the partnership in an
amount of R500 000, together with the power to call upon the partners in
future to make further contributions if that is needed. The primary reason
for seeking these funds is that Mr Morar contemplates litigation that will
be both ‘complex and controversial’ and ‘time consuming and
expensive’. It is apparent from the founding affidavit that the primary
target of this litigation will be Mr Akoo or entities controlled by him,
such as the Akoo family trust.
[27] Once again no authority was proffered for this order beyond the
suggested wide equitable discretion, the existence of which I have already
rejected. Apart from the provisions in rule 43 for the court to order a
contribution towards costs in relation to pending matrimonial
proceedings, I am not aware of any circumstance in which our law
permits a party to proposed litigation to obtain from the intended other
party a contribution towards the costs of that litigation.19
[28] This case illustrates how inappropriate it would be for such an
order to be granted. The liquidator seeks a contribution on the basis that
Mr Akoo and the Akoo family trust are partners to the extent of
50 per cent in Rollco. However that is disputed by the Moosa trusts,
which claim that the Akoo family trust is not a partner at all and that
Mr Akoo’s share is limited to an approximately 20 per cent share, whilst
they hold the balance. Plainly some at least of the intended litigation will
be directed at this issue. If the assertion by the Moosa trusts is rejected
then Mr Akoo and the Akoo family trust will have had to pay half the
19 Cases where security for costs may be ordered are different because they are merely cases of
providing security against the possibility of the party furnishing such security having an adverse costs
order made against it.
costs of running litigation against themselves in which they have been
successful. What is more there is then little likelihood that they will be
able to recover their costs from Mr Morar. If it transpires that the Moosa
trusts are correct and Mr Akoo’s interest is only 20 per cent, on what
basis will he have had to provide half the costs of establishing that?
[29] At this point the analogy between the liquidator of a partnership
and the liquidator of a company is abandoned. In the case of a company
the liquidator must go to the creditors if financial assistance is needed in
order to pursue litigation and obtain contributions from them. Here the
beneficiaries of the proposed litigation would be the Moosa family trusts.
Why then should they not be required to provide the finances for
litigation if they wish to assert rights against their erstwhile partner?
Indeed one wonders why they do not institute the proceedings themselves
instead of leaving it to Mr Morar. The question of the identity of the
partners and the extent of their respective interests in the partnership is
pre-eminently an issue to be resolved among the partners by way of
proceedings under the actio pro socio.
[30] To multiply examples of the problems with this claim would be to
heap Pelion upon Ossa. The court does not have the power to make such
an order and it was rightly refused by K Pillay J.
[31] The next issue relates to the prayer for a detailed account in respect
of Rollco’s dealings with its principal supplier. It can be disposed of
simply. Firstly such an obligation already exists under the order granted
by Msimang J. Secondly a corresponding order was made against the
supplier without opposition and there is no reason to believe that it will
not be complied with. Such an order is accordingly unnecessary.
[32] That leaves only the prayer in relation to procuring professional
indemnity insurance. There is no need for such an order to be made. If
Mr Morar reasonably requires professional indemnity insurance in order
to carry out the liquidation of the Rollco partnership then he is entitled to
take out such insurance and in due course recover the premium as a cost
of administration. If he does not reasonably require such insurance for the
purposes of administration then the costs of his taking out such insurance
are a personal expense and cannot be debited to the partnership or its
members. The court cannot alter that situation. Mr Morar must make up
his own mind on this question and act accordingly. He does not need an
order of court to do so.
[33] For those reasons the high court was correct to dismiss the
application and the appeal must be dismissed. Although two counsel
appeared in the appeal the costs of two counsel were not sought in the
heads of argument and only one counsel appeared in the high court. The
matter was not so complicated as to warrant the employment of two
counsel. The appeal is dismissed with costs.
M J D WALLIS
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
A J Dickson SC
Instructed by
Schoerie & Sewgoolam Inc, Pietermaritzburg
McIntyre & Van der Post, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
N A Cassim SC (with him D Ramdhani)
Instructed by
Abbas Latib & Co, Durban
Honey Attorneys Inc, Bloemfontein. | Supreme Court of Appeal of South Africa
MEDIA SUMMARY– JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date: 15 September 2011
Status: Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does
not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
MORAR NO V AKOO
The Supreme Court of Appeal dismissed an appeal against an order by
the High Court refusing to grant the liquidator of a partnership the power
to conduct an interrogation as if in the liquidation of a company and the
right to demand that the partners provide him with funds, both for that
purpose and in order to engage in litigation to recover assets allegedly
belonging to the partners. The court held that powers of a liquidator in the
liquidation of a partnership should first be assessed in the light of the
powers that the partners themselves could confer on the liquidator. Where
the partners could not by their agreement confer such powers it would
generally be inappropriate for the court to do so. |
1764 | non-electoral | 2011 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 183/10
In the matter between:
MINISTER OF SAFETY AND SECURITY
Appellant
and
ROELOF PETRUS KRUGER
Respondent
Neutral citation: Minister of Safety and Security v Kruger (183/10)
[2011] ZASCA 7 (8 MARCH 2011)
Coram:
NUGENT, CACHALIA and SHONGWE JJA
Heard:
16 FEBRUARY 2011
Delivered:
8 MARCH 2011
Summary:
Unlawful arrest and detention – s 55(1) of the South
African Police Service Act 68 of 1995 – whether
exempts state from liability – defamation and injuria –
damages award.
_____________________________________________________________________
ORDER
_____________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria (Tuchten AJ sitting
as court of first instance)
The award of damages for defamation and injuria is set aside and
replaced with an award of R20 000. Save for that the appeal is dismissed
with costs.
_______________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
_______________________________________________________________________
NUGENT JA (CACHALIA and SHONGWE JJA concurring)
[1] Rayton is a small town of about 2 500 inhabitants. It is where Mr
Kruger (the respondent) conducts business repairing motor vehicles.
While at his premises Mr Kruger was arrested by the police under a
warrant that had been issued by a magistrate. He was driven to a police
station where he was incarcerated overnight. The following day he was
brought before a magistrate and released on bail. In due course the
Director of Public Prosecutions declined to prosecute.
[2] A reporter and a cameraman from e-tv – a national television
broadcaster – were present at the premises when the police arrived to
arrest Mr Kruger. They followed the police onto the premises and made a
video and audio recording of the arrest, and of Mr Kruger being led away
in handcuffs to the waiting police vehicle. That night a report of the arrest
– accompanied by visual images – was broadcast on one of its news
channels.
[3] Mr Kruger sued the Minister of Safety and Security (the appellant)
in the North Gauteng High Court for damages, first, for unlawful arrest
and detention, secondly, for infringement of his dignity, and thirdly, for
defamation. All the claims succeeded before Tuchten AJ. He awarded
damages of R50 000 for unlawful arrest and detention and of R300 000
for infringement of dignity and defamation combined. The Minister now
appeals with the leave of that court.
[4] The chronicle commences with a complaint that was made to the
police by Ms Mahlangu. She said that Mr Kruger had stolen a Mazda
motor vehicle from her by false pretences. A considerable part of the
evidence was taken up with that complaint. Mr Kruger said that he had
been given the vehicle in exchange for a Honda vehicle by agreement
with a friend of Ms Mahlangu who purported to be acting on her behalf.
The dispute on that issue is not material and I need say no more about it.
[5] The complaint was investigated by Sergeant Mavuso of the
organized crime unit on the instructions of Senior Superintendent
Ngwenya. The full extent of the investigation does not appear from the
evidence. But what does appear is that Sergeant Mavuso discovered,
amongst other things, that the Honda vehicle that had been the subject of
the alleged exchange was registered in Swaziland, and he suspected that it
had been stolen in that country.
[6] Once his investigation was complete Sergeant Mavuso forwarded
the docket to the Director of Public Prosecutions. Some time later he was
informed by a member of that office that it had been decided to prosecute
Mr Kruger and Sergeant Mavuso was handed a warrant that had been
issued by a magistrate authorising his arrest.
[7] Section 43 of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 authorises a
magistrate or justice of the peace to issue a warrant for the arrest of any
person upon the written application of a public prosecutor (amongst
others). The application must set out the offence alleged to have been
committed, it must contain certain jurisdictional allegations, and it must
state that from information taken upon oath there is a reasonable
suspicion that the person in respect of whom the warrant is applied for
has committed the alleged offence.
[8] In this case the application for the warrant, and the warrant itself,
were both embodied in a single-page standard-form. The application
recorded that Mr Kruger was suspected to have committed fraud and
forgery and uttering. The space provided in the standard-form warrant for
recording the offence was, however, left blank.
[9] At about 10h00 on 3 December 2003 Sergeant Mavuso and Senior
Superintendent Ngwenya arrived at the business premises of Mr Kruger
to effect his arrest. They were accompanied by eight other police officers.
At the premises with Mr Kruger were his parents, another relative, a
number of employees and two clients. Present outside the premises were
the cameraman and the reporter I referred to earlier.
[10] Sergeant Mavuso and Senior Superintendent Ngwenya entered the
premises and proceeded to Mr Kruger’s office. They were followed by
the cameraman who recorded the interior of the premises and the arrest,
which occurred in the office of Mr Kruger. Mr Kruger was told by
Sergeant Mavuso that he was under arrest and Senior Superintendent
Ngwenya handcuffed his wrists behind his back. He was then led out to
the police vehicle and the events that I mentioned earlier ensued.
[11] The court below found that the warrant of arrest was invalid – and
thus that the arrest and subsequent detention were unlawful – because it
failed to reflect the offences in respect of which it was issued. That
finding was challenged only faintly before us. The terms in which a
warrant of arrest must be framed are not expressly stated in the Act but I
think it is implicit in ss 39(2) and 43(2) that it was intended that it should
reflect the offence in respect of which it has been issued. Section 39(2)
requires a person who effects an arrest without a warrant to inform the
arrested person of the cause of the arrest. Where the arrest is effected in
execution of a warrant the arrestor must, upon demand of the arrested
person, hand him or her a copy of the warrant. Quite clearly that
contemplates that the cause of the arrest will appear from the warrant.
Moreover, s 43(2) provides that a warrant of arrest must direct the arrest
of the person named in the warrant ‘in respect of the offence set out in the
warrant’. I think those two provisions make it abundantly clear that it was
considered by the draftsman to be self-evident that a warrant must
describe the offence and it was not considered necessary to express that in
terms. I also think that it must be taken to be axiomatic that a warrant that
is formally defective in a material respect – as the warrant was in this
case – is invalid.1
[12] Two submissions that were advanced on behalf of the Minister can
be disposed of briefly. It was submitted that in this case Mr Kruger would
1 Cf Minister of Safety and Security v Van der Merwe (55/09) [2010] ZASCA 101; [2011] 1 All SA 260
(SCA).
have known the suspected offences for which he was being arrested
because they were described in the application for the warrant that
appeared immediately above the warrant on the single-page standard-
form. I do not think the submission has merit. If the statute required the
warrant to reflect the suspected offences and rendered it invalid if it did
not do so, as the statute does, then I think it follows that it is immaterial
that they are apparent from another source, even if that source is readily
to hand.2 As Cameron JA observed in Powell NO v Van der Merwe NO,3
albeit in relation to a warrant authorising search and seizure, the courts
examine the validity of such a warrant ‘with a jealous regard for the
liberty of the subject’, and in my view that must apply even more to
warrants that authorise the deprivation of personal freedom.
[13] It was also submitted that even if the warrant was invalid the arrest
was nonetheless lawful because the police had a reasonable suspicion that
offences had been committed. That was not pleaded in justification of the
arrest but counsel submitted that the issue was fully canvassed in the
evidence. I am not sure that the issue was indeed canvassed but in any
event on the evidence that is before us the submission must fail. Section
s 40(1)(b) of the Criminal Procedure Act confers a discretion upon a
police officer to arrest upon reasonable suspicion that fraud or forgery
and uttering (amongst other offences) have been committed. In this case
the police officers did not purport to exercise that discretion. On the
contrary, they purported to do no more than to execute the instruction
contained in the warrant.
2 Cf Thint (Pty) Ltd v National Director of Public Prosecutions 2009 (1) SA 1 (CC) para 159 in relation
to warrants authorising search and seizure.
3 2005 (5) SA 62 (SCA) para 59.
[14] But the principal ground upon which the Minister sought to avoid
liability was in reliance upon s 55(1) of the South African Police Service
Act 68 of 1995, which exempts a police officer from liability for the
consequences of executing a defective warrant in certain circumstances. It
was submitted on behalf of the Minister that because the police officer is
exempted from liability it follows that the state cannot be vicariously
liable. Two decisions of the high courts stand in the way of that
submission and we were asked to overrule them.
[15] Section 55(1) of that Act provides as follows:
‘Any member who acts under a warrant or process which is bad in law on account of
a defect in the substance or form thereof shall, if he or she has no knowledge that such
warrant or process is bad in law and whether or not such defect is apparent from the
face of the warrant or process, be exempt from liability in respect of such act as if the
warrant or process were valid in law’.4
[16] The terms in which the submission on behalf of the Minister was
framed in the heads of argument points immediately to its fallacy. It is not
disputed that neither of the police officers was aware that the warrant was
bad in law and that they were thus exempted from liability under that
section. Reminding us that vicarious liability is a secondary liability
counsel for the Minister submitted that the effect of the exemption was
that the police officers ‘committed no delict’ and there is thus no room
for vicarious liability.
[17] That construction of the section is not correct. A police officer – or
anyone else for that matter – who deprives a person of his or her liberty
without legal justification commits a delict, and is ordinary liable for the
4 Section 331 of the Criminal Procedure Act is in identical terms except that it extends beyond police
officers.
damage that is caused by the delictual act. The section does not purport
to render the act lawful. In its terms it does no more than to relieve the
police officer of the consequences of the delictual act. The act remains
unlawful and, in accordance with ordinary principles, the employer is
vicariously liable for its consequences.
[18] The same argument was advanced and rejected in Goldschagg v
Minister van Polisie.5 In that case the question arose under s 31(1) of the
Police Act 7 of 1958, which is in material respects the same as the
provision that is before us.6 Botha J summarily rejected an argument that
the effect of the section was that a police officer who executes a defective
warrant does not commit an unlawful act. The learned judge also found
that while the section exempted the police officer from the consequences
of the unlawful act it did not similarly exempt the state.7 (The decision
was reversed on appeal8 but the issue that is now before us was not
considered.)
[19] Thirion J reached the same conclusion in De Welzim v Regering
van KwaZulu9 in relation to s 34(2) of the KwaZulu Police Act 14 of
5 1979 (3) SA 1284 (T).
6 Section 31(1) reads as follows:
‘If any legal proceedings be brought against any member of the Force for any act done in obedience to
a warrant purporting to be issued by a magistrate or justice of the peace or other officer authorized by
law to issue warrants, that member shall not be liable for any irregularity in the issuing of the warrant
or for the want of jurisdiction in the person issuing the same, and upon producing the warrant
containing the signature of the person reputed to be a magistrate or justice of the peace or other such
officer as aforesaid, and upon proof that the acts complained of were done in obedience to the warrant,
judgment shall be given in favour of such member.’
7 The learned judge also inferred from the judgment of this court in Minister van die Suid Afrikaanse
Polisie v Kraatz 1973 (3) SA 490 (A) at 1302A-B that the trial court had supported that conclusion (the
issue was not dealt with on appeal). I have had the advantage of access to the judgment of the trial
court – which was not available to the learned judge – from which it appears that the point that is now
before us was not pertinently considered by that court.
8 Minister van Polisie v Goldschagg 1981 (1) SA 37 (A)
9 1990 (2) SA 915 (N).
1980.10 The learned judge said the following:
‘By ‘n beskouing van art 34(2) is dit duidelik dat dit nie die handeling van die lid van
die Mag verontskuldig nie. Dit verskaf nie ‘n skulduitsluitingsgrond nie en ook nie ‘n
regverdigingsgrond ten opsigte van die handeling nie. Dit stel slegs die lid vry van
aanspreeklikheid sonder dat dit die kwaliteit of onregmatigheid van die daad self raak.
Gevolglik beïnvloed dit nie die aanspreeklikheid van die KwaZulu Regering nie.’ 11
[20] I have no doubt that the decisions in Goldschagg and De Welzim
were correct. I need only add that the draftsman of s 55(1) must be
assumed to have known of those decisions when the section was drafted.
The repetition in s 55(1) of the material terms of the sections that were
there in issue itself indicates that the draftsman intended s 55(1) to bear
the construction that was adopted in those cases.12 In those circumstances
the finding by the court below that the Minister is liable for the
consequences of the unlawful arrest and detention cannot be faulted.
[21] I turn to the claims for injuria and defamation before returning to
the amount that was awarded in damages.
[22] The broadcast on the night of the arrest commenced with an
introduction by the presenter who said the following:
‘It could be the end of the road for a car theft syndicate operating between Swaziland
and South Africa. After a two year investigation, Mpumulanga police today arrested
the man believed to be the kingpin. Police say the cars are stolen in Swaziland and
10 Quoted in the judgment at 920F-H as follows:
‘’n Lid van die Mag wat ter goeder trou ‘n handeling verrig ooreenkomstig of in die tenuitvoerlegging
van ‘n bepaling wat ‘n verordening van ‘n bevoegde wetgewende gesag heet te wees is, ondanks enige
onreëlmatigheid in verband met die verordening van of gebrek in so ‘n bepaling of afwesigheid van
regsbevoegdheid van daardie wetgewende gesag, vry van aanspreeklikheid ten opsigte van die
verrigting van daardie handeling in dieselfde mate en onderworpe aan dieselfde voorwaardes asof
daardie onreëlmatigheid nie plaasgevind het of daardie gebrek of afwesigheid van regsbevoegdheid nie
bestaan het nie.’
11 At 923H-I.
12 LC Steyn: Die Uitleg van Wette (1981) by S I E Van Tonder assisted by N P Badenhorst, C N
Volschenk and J N Wepener 5ed p 132.
sold in South Africa. They believe government officials in both countries and a local
insurance company are also involved.’
The broadcast then switched to the reporter who opened her report as
follows:
‘It was not business as usual at this car repair workshop. The boss was arrested for
vehicle theft, fraud and forgery’.
The interior of the workshop was shown visually, followed by a visual
and audio recording of a short conversation between Senior
Superintendent Ngwenya and Mr Kruger immediately after his arrest, and
a visual showing of him being handcuffed. The recording went on to
show Mr Kruger being led away to the police vehicle with his hands
handcuffed behind his back. The reporter concluded her report as follows:
‘It is alleged that cars stolen in Swaziland are brought here for re-spraying and their
engine numbers are also changed. Police say they have identified three such vehicles
but believe there are others’.
[23] The visual images of Mr Kruger showed only his torso at the time
of his arrest, and his back as he was being led away. His name was not
mentioned in the course of the report. It is clear that only those who were
acquainted with Mr Kruger or his workshop would have been capable of
identifying him from the report.
[24] It was alleged by Mr Kruger that one or other police officer must
have informed the television team (or the television station) of the
anticipated arrest and to have done so with the intention that it should be
recorded and broadcast. His case was that the police officer concerned
thereby wrongfully ‘instigated’ the defamatory and injurious broadcast
and that the Minister is vicariously liable for such damage as the
broadcast caused.
[25] The claim is rather unusual but we are not called upon to deal with
its substance. The sole ground upon which the claim was resisted in the
court below and in this court was a denial that the police were responsible
for the presence of the television crew. We were told by counsel for the
Minister unequivocally that if we were to find that the presence of the
television team was indeed brought about by information provided by one
or other police officer – which was the finding of the court below – then
it was accepted that the Minister is liable for any damage that was caused
by the broadcast. We have accordingly approached the matter on that
basis but I must emphasise that we make no finding on other aspects of
the claim.
[26] I turn to that factual question. The television reporter, Ms Mabuse,
gave evidence. She said that she had no recollection of how they came to
be present at the scene but that it might have been on information
provided by the police. Only two other possibilities were suggested by
counsel for the Minister. One was that the television team happened upon
the scene fortuitously. The prospect that a television team from a national
broadcaster fortuitously happened to be outside a motor vehicle workshop
in Rayton at the time the police arrived is so remote as to be non-existent.
The second suggestion was that one or other member of the community
might have been the culprit. It is most unlikely that members of the local
community would have known of the imminent arrest and least of all of
the nature of the investigation that the police had undertaken. I agree with
the court below that it is probable that one or other member of the police
informed e-tv of the anticipated arrest so that it could be given publicity.
That being so, on the approach that was adopted on behalf of the Minister
before us (and in the court below) the only remaining issue is to assess
the damages to be awarded for the consequences of the broadcast.
[27] It is trite that the determination of damages is within the discretion
of the trial court and will be interfered with only in the event of
misdirection. Misdirection might in some cases be apparent from the
reasoning of the court but in other cases it might be inferred from a
grossly excessive award.
[28] It has been said repeatedly that the assessment of awards of general
damages with reference to awards made in previous cases is fraught with
difficulty. They nonetheless provide a measure of guidance provided that
those difficulties are borne in mind. As Potgieter JA said in Protea
Assurance Co Ltd v Lamb, 13 after citing earlier decisions of this court:
‘The above quoted passages from decisions of this Court indicate that, to the limited
extent and subject to the qualifications therein set forth, the trial Court or the Court of
Appeal, as the case may be, may pay regard to comparable cases. It should be
emphasised, however, that this process of comparison does not take the form of a
meticulous examination of awards made in other cases in order to fix the amount of
compensation; nor should the process be allowed so to dominate the enquiry as to
become a fetter upon the Court’s general discretion in such matters. Comparable
cases, when available, should rather be used to afford some guidance, in a general
way, towards assisting the Court in arriving at an award which is not substantially out
of general accord with previous awards in broadly similar cases, regard being had to
all the factors which are considered to be relevant in the assessment of general
damages. At the same time it may be permissible, in an appropriate case, to test any
assessment arrived at upon this basis by reference to the general pattern of previous
awards in cases where the injuries and their sequelae may have been either more
serious or less than those in the case under consideration.’
[29] I turn first to the award for unlawful arrest and detention. An
appropriate award in a case of that kind – with reference to awards in
13 1971 (1) SA 530 (A) at 535H-536B.
some past cases – was considered most recently by this court in Seymour
v Minister of Safety and Security.14 In that case the plaintiff was
unlawfully arrested and detained for five days. One night was spent in a
police cell together with other inmates, and the remaining time was spent
in a hospital ward, to which the family of the plaintiff had free access. An
award of R500 000 was reduced on appeal to R90 000.
[30] On the face of it the arrest and detention in this case, by
comparison, might seem to warrant a substantially lower award, but there
is a materially aggravating factor. To be arrested, even lawfully, is
inherently humiliating. So much more so when a cameraman has grossly
invaded the privacy of the arrestee by entering upon his or her premises
without permission and thereupon recorded the arrest. In this case the
police permitted – indeed, they probably invited – all that to take place.
Given that aggravating factor I see no reason to conclude that the award
was excessive – and least of all that it was grossly excessive. There was
no cross-appeal against the award.
[31] Before leaving this topic there is an observation that needs to be
made. The police have a duty to carry out policing in the ordinary way.
They have no business setting out to turn an arrest into a showpiece.
Similar conduct, on that occasion by officials of the Competition
Commission who were executing a warrant for search and seizure,
evoked the censure of this court in Pretoria Portland Cement Co Ltd v
Competition Commission.15 When executing a warrant of arrest the police
are obliged to do so with due regard to the dignity and the privacy of the
person being arrested. The conduct of the police in permitting – indeed,
14 2006 (6) SA 320 (SCA).
15 2003 (2) SA 385 (SCA).
inviting – a cameraman to invade the premises of Mr Kruger in order to
witness the arrest warrants equal censure.
[32] While the award for unlawful arrest and detention cannot be
faulted, the same cannot be said for the award that was made for injuria
and defamation. Two factors that come to the fore in making an
assessment are the seriousness of the defamation and the extent of the
publication.
[33] In this case the substance of the defamation was that Mr Kruger
had been arrested on suspicion of having committed various offences. It
was pointed out by this court in Independent Newspapers Holdings Ltd v
Suliman16 that to allege that a person has been arrested does not imply
that he or she is guilty, but it does imply that there is a reasonable
suspicion that he or she has committed the relevant offence, which is
itself defamatory.17 In that case the majority18 held that before the suspect
is brought before a court it is generally not in the public interest or of
public benefit that the identity of the arrested suspect should be disclosed,
even if the allegation is true.19 But once the suspect has been brought
before a court his or her identity may be published with impunity.20
[34] Although the truth of the allegation, by itself, provides no defence
to a claim for defamation, it seems to me that it must nonetheless be
relevant to the assessment of damages. For the action for defamation
protects reputation and it is difficult to see why a person should be
16 [2004] 3 All SA 137 (SCA).
17 Paras 31 and 78.
18 Marais, Scott and Mthiyane JJA, Ponnan AJA and I dissenting.
19 Para 47.
20 Para 47.
compensated for loss of reputation if the reputation is in truth not
deserved.21
[35] In this case the allegations made in the report were in some
respects materially untrue. It is apparent from the application for the
warrant that Mr Kruger was not arrested on suspicion of ‘car theft’ but on
suspicion of fraud and forgery and uttering. And as pointed out by the
court below, Sergeant Mavuso was not of the belief that Mr Kruger was
the ‘kingpin’ of a ‘car theft syndicate’, and there is no evidence that
anyone else in the police held that suspicion. Nonetheless, it is not
disputed that the police suspected on reasonable grounds that he had
committed fraud and forgery and uttering – which are themselves serious
offences of dishonesty.
[36] As for the breadth of the publication the identity of Mr Kruger is
likely to have reached a decidedly limited audience notwithstanding that
the broadcast was on national television. I have pointed out that his
identity would have been known only to those who were acquainted with
Mr Kruger or his business premises who would mainly have been the
inhabitants of Rayton. Although the evidence establishes that news of the
arrest quickly spread throughout the town it is by no means clear that that
was in consequence of the broadcast. Indeed, it is likely that news of the
event would have become the talk of a small town by word of mouth even
without the broadcast. Nonetheless I have accepted that the broadcast
reached at least some residents of Rayton and others who knew Mr
Kruger.
21 Cf Johnson v Rand Daily Mails 1928 AD 190 at 206.
[37] The plaintiff in Suliman was alleged to have been arrested on
suspicion of having been associated with the bombing of a nightclub – a
particularly heinous crime. His identity was made known and it was
published repeatedly in a newspaper that had a wide circulation in an area
in which the plaintiff was well known. He was awarded R50 000 for
defamation and injuria. In comparison to that award alone, the award of
R300 000 in the present case, in which both the nature of the defamation
and the breadth of publication was decidedly more limited, was in my
view grossly excessive, which points to misdirection. In the
circumstances we are at large to reassess the award. It was held in
Suliman that the injuria that is associated with defamation is a separate
wrong but in that case, as in the present, a combined award was made. In
the light of the considerations above, and in particular the award in
Suliman, in my view the present wrongs are deserving of damages of no
more than R20 000.
[38] Counsel for the Minister informed us that even if the award is
reduced, Mr Kruger has nonetheless had substantial success, in that the
appeal was brought primarily to disturb the finding that the Minister is
not exempt from liability for wrongful arrest by reason of s 55(1), and
that Mr Kruger is entitled to his costs.
[39] Accordingly the award of damages for defamation and injuria is set
aside and replaced with an award of R20 000. Save for that the appeal is
dismissed with costs.
_________________
R W NUGENT
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
For appellant:
B R Tokota SC
M S Mphahlele
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Pretoria
State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
J J S Prinsloo SC
Instructed by:
De Klerk & Marais Inc, Pretoria
Webbers, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
8 March 2011
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
* * *
MINISTER OF SAFETY AND SECURITY v R P KRUGER
The Supreme Court of Appeal today dismissed an appeal by the Minister of Safety and
Security against a judgment of the high court awarding damages to Mr Kruger for
unlawful arrest and for defamation.
The claims arose from the arrest of Mr Kruger by police officers under a defective
warrant of arrest. The arresting officers were accompanied by a television crew of e-tv
and a report of the arrest, with visual images, was broadcast that evening.
The Minister contended that the state was exempted from liability for the unlawful
arrest by s 55(1) of the South African Police Service Act 68 of 1995 but that
contention was rejected. The SCA held that the section exempts the individual police
officer from liability but not the state. It confirmed the damages awarded by the high
court in the sum of R50 000.
Mr Kruger had claimed that the police were responsible for the presence of the
television crew when the arrest was made and that the State was accordingly liable for
the damage caused by the consequent broadcast. The Minister contended that the
evidence did not establish that the police had been responsible for their presence but
that was rejected by the SCA. The SCA emphasised that that was the only ground
upon which the Minister contested the finding by the high court that the state was
liable for the consequent defamation, and that it made no further findings on the merits
of such a claim. It found further that damages of R300 000 awarded by the high court
were grossly excessive and reduced the award to R20 000. |
546 | non-electoral | 2016 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 20734/14
In the matter between:
JOHN BLACK EDWARDS
APPELLANT
and
FIRSTRAND BANK LIMITED
T/A WESBANK
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Edwards v FirstRand Bank Limited t/a Wesbank (20734/14)
[2016] ZASCA 144 (30 September 2016)
Coram:
Cachalia, Shongwe, Tshiqi and Seriti JJA and Makgoka AJA
Heard:
1 September 2016
Delivered: 30 September 2016
Summary: Credit agreement – National Credit Act 34 of 2005 – whether or
not the credit provider complied with s 127(2) and (5) of the Act – court must
satisfy itself that the credit provider has placed before it facts which show that
the notice, on a balance of probabilities, has been sent to the consumer.
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Local Division of the High Court, Johannesburg
(Monama J) sitting as court of first instance.
1 The appeal is dismissed with costs.
2 The order of the court a quo in para 25.2 specifying 1 August 2012 is replaced
with the following:
„13 December 2012‟
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
Shongwe JA (Tshiqi, Seriti JJA and Makgoka AJA concurring)
[1] It is well-known that the draughtsmanship of the National Credit Act 34
of 2005 (the NCA or the Act) is far from being a model of elegance. This appeal
mainly concerns the interpretation and applicability of s 127 (2) and (5) of the
Act. The Gauteng Local Division, Johannesburg (Monama J) ordered the
appellant (consumer) to pay the respondent (credit provider) a sum of
R668 461.69 plus interest and costs, being damages suffered by the respondent.
The appeal is with the leave of the court a quo.
[2] The factual background is briefly that on 24 July 2009, the appellant and
the respondent concluded an instalment sale agreement as defined in terms of s
8 (4)(c) of the NCA. The appellant purchased a motor vehicle, namely an Aston
Martin Vantage Coupe for a contract price of R1 457 958.00. The appellant paid
a deposit of R145 000.00 and was due to pay fifty nine monthly instalments of
R23 100.00. During April 2011, the appellant fell into arrears, as a result the
respondent issued summons against the appellant cancelling the agreement and
claimed the return of the vehicle, plus the shortfall as it was entitled to in terms
of the credit agreement.
[3] The appellant entered an appearance to defend. The respondent
immediately filed an application for summary judgment which the appellant
unsuccessfully resisted. The court (Farber AJ) granted summary judgment on 12
August 2011 and ordered the appellant to return the vehicle to the respondent.
[4] In his plea the appellant raised a multiple number of defences, including,
that the granting of the credit to him by the respondent was reckless because he
was over indebted at the time the credit was granted. The appellant prayed that
the credit agreement be declared a reckless agreement in terms of s 80 (1) read
with s 81 (2), (3) and s 83(1) of the NCA. The appellant further denied that the
respondent had complied with the provisions of sections 127 and 129 of the Act
and denied that the vehicle was sold lawfully. He also averred that the
respondent forced him to sign the agreement and that the agreement falls to be
rectified by the reduction of the sum of R46 000, which deduction will result in
him not being in arrears. The court, as indicated earlier, rejected all the defences
raised and found that he had no bona fide defence. The court even remarked that
it was strange that he sought „to retain and use the vehicle despite his disavowal
of the validity of the instrument which found his entitlement to retain and used
it. A result of this kind, can simply not be countenanced‟.
[5] It is significant to mention that the appellant unsuccessfully applied for
leave to appeal against the summary judgment order. Even his application for
leave to appeal to this Court suffered the same fate. The vehicle was eventually
repossessed on 6 July 2012. A notice in terms of s 127(2) of the Act was
dispatched by ordinary post to the appellant on 13 June 2012, using the address
furnished in the credit agreement by the appellant as his domicilium citandi ex
executandi being 72 Turoco Road, Fourways 2055. In terms of clause 17(2) of
the credit agreement, the appellant agreed that the physical address that he
provided was the address he has selected as the address where legal notices
must be sent.
[6] The respondent amended the summons accordingly in preparation of the
second leg of the proceedings, being to recover the shortfall. The vehicle was
sold at an auction. This is after the respondent had sent a notice in terms of s
127(5) of the Act. It is important to note that the respondent also attached to the
amended summons the previous notices in terms of s 129(1) and s 127(2) of the
Act. Ever since the vehicle was repossessed the appellant did absolutely nothing
towards following up the attachment until the matter went on trial in March
2014 before Monama J.
[7] The court a quo indicated clearly that what was before it was the
consideration of the quantum of damages, that is, the shortfall and the question
whether there was compliance with the provisions of s 127 of the Act. Monama
J also concluded that the only defence to be considered, was whether the
respondent had complied with the provisions of s 127(2) and (5) of the Act.
His conclusion was:
„[18] The critical issue is whether the defendant was given notice of the valuation amount in
the letter dated 13 June 2012 as required by section 127(2) as well as the information referred
to in section 127(5) by virtue of the letter dated 1 August 2012.
[19] It is common cause in this matter that both the section[s] s 127(2) and 127(5) letters
highlighted the information dictated by the respective sections. Both letters dealt with all the
categories of information required to be disclosed. The letters were addressed to the
defendant‟s chosen domicilium and were sent by ordinary mail.‟
[8] Before this Court, the issues had been crystallised to whether or not the
respondent complied with s 127(2) and (5) notices of the Act before disposing
of the vehicle. The appellant contended that he did not receive the s 127(2) and
(5) notices of the Act. And also that the vehicle was not sold for the best price
reasonably obtainable as contemplated in s 127(4)(b) of the Act. The appellant
relied on ABSA Bank Ltd v De Villiers & another [2009] ZASCA 140; 2010 (2)
All SA 99 (SCA); 2009 (5) SA 40 (C) in respect of the s 127 process. The
procedure to be followed in respect of the s 127 process is clearly stated in the
case quoted above, and I agree with it, but it does not assist the present
appellant. In ABSA the initial application was brought in terms of s 130(1) of the
Act for a final order authorising the attachment of the subject vehicle without
cancelling the credit agreement first, which was found to be incorrect. It is, in
my view, distinguishable from the facts of the case before us.
[9] On the other hand the respondent contended that, if the appellant did not
receive the s 127(2) and (5) notices of the Act, it was a direct result of the
appellant providing a physical address at which, knowingly, there was no street
delivery of the post. This contention was affirmed by the court a quo when it
concluded that „The conduct of the defendant (appellant) in designating an
address in which no street delivery occurs, is unreasonable‟. The Constitutional
Court in Kubyana v Standard Bank of South Africa Ltd [2014] ZACC 1; 2014
(3) SA 56 (CC) para 46 observed that:
„The Act does not imply, and cannot be interpreted to mean, that a consumer may
unreasonably ignore the consequences of her election to receive notices by registered mail,
when the notifications in question have been sent to the address which she duly nominated.
While it is so that consumers should receive the full benefit of the protections afforded by the
Act, the noble pursuits of that statute should not be open to abuse by individuals who seek to
exercise those protections unreasonably or in bad faith.‟
[10] Section 127(2) of the Act reads as follows:
„(2) Within 10 business days after the later of-
(a) receiving a notice in terms of subsection (1) (b) (i); or
(b) receiving goods tendered in terms of subsection (1) (b) (ii),
a credit provider must give the consumer written notice setting out the estimated value
of the goods and any other prescribed information.‟ (My emphasis.)
Section 127(1) is not applicable in this case because, the appellant did not
voluntarily terminate the agreement, but the respondent secured, by the court
process, the termination of the agreement, and subsequently the attachment and
sale of the vehicle in question. Therefore, the appellant is wrong when
submitting that s 127 of the Act expressly provides that the appellant must
actually receive the s 127(2) and (5) notices. The argument went further to say
that the respondent must prove delivery of the notice and receipt thereof in
order to comply with s 127 of the Act. The Constitutional Court in Baliso v
Firstrand Bank Limited t/a Wesbank [2016] ZACC 23 Froneman J, writing for
the majority judgment referred with approval to what Jafta J said in Kubyana at
para 98:
„The determination of the facts that would constitute adequate proof of delivery of a notice in
a particular case must be left to the court before which the proceedings are launched. It is that
court which must be satisfied that section 129 has been followed. Therefore, it is not prudent
to lay down a general principle save to state that a credit provider must place before the court
facts which show that the notice, on a balance of probabilities, has reached a consumer. This
is what Sebola must be understood to state‟.
In Sebola & another v Standard Bank of SA Ltd & another [2012] ZACC 11;
2012 (5) SA 142 (CC) s 129 of the Act was an issue and not s 127 of the Act.
[11] The majority in Baliso above concluded obiter in my view, that there is
much force in the argument that it was illogical to make a distinction between
the manner of giving notice under s 127(2) of the Act, and that required under s
129(1) of the Act. Although Froneman J, writing for the majority, was of the
view that there is merit in the submission that there exists no good reason to
differentiate materially between the method of complying with the s 127(2)
notice requirement and that under s 129(1). He went on without deciding
whether the distinction between s 129(1) and 127(2) was justified or not. In para
30 of Baliso, he remarked that:
„Is this clarification of what is required by way of proof of compliance in relation to the
notice requirement under sections 127(2) and 129(1)(a)(i) respectively, sufficient reason to
entertain the appeal? I think not‟.
My understanding is that the distinction was not relevant to the facts of that
case. That is why it was not definitively decided. On the other hand Zondo J,
writing for the minority judgment, was of the view that:
„[30] The question raised by this matter is whether or not the sending of a section 127(2)
notice by a credit provider to a consumer by ordinary mail constitutes compliance with
section 127(2).‟
Failure to comply with s 127(2) by the credit provider is detrimental even to the
credit provider because the recovery of damages by way of the shortfall cannot
be pursued. Therefore the importance of complying with s 127(2) is beneficial
to both the consumer and the credit provider. It is settled law that the ordinary
grammatical meaning of the words used in s 127(2) of the Act must be
interpreted to mean just that. A registered mail is not what the legislature had in
mind when it used the words „give the consumer written notice.‟ It may be
advisable to send the notice in terms of s 127(2) by registered mail but that is
not what the law requires.
[12] Counsel for the respondent was at pains to explain why s 128(1) of the
Act was not invoked by the appellant, as it was open to him to do so. He
conceded that no evidence indicates why this section was not invoked. It is
significant to note that the appellant did not quarrel with the evidence provided
by the respondent during the trial. This concession also takes care of the
evidence of quantum save for the storage costs which were cured by the
amendment, effected by the respondent towards the close of its case during the
trial.
[13] I now turn to deal with the provisions of s 127(5) of the Act in particular.
It provides that:
„After selling any goods in terms of this section, a credit provider must-
(a) credit or debit the consumer with a payment or charge equivalent to the proceeds of
the sale less any expenses reasonably incurred by the credit provider in connection
with the sale of the goods; and
(b) give the consumer a written notice stating the following:
(i) The settlement value of the agreement immediately before the sale;
(ii) the gross amount realised on the sale;
(iii) the net proceeds of the sale after deducting the credit provider's permitted
default charges, if applicable, and reasonable costs allowed under paragraph (a);
and
(iv) the amount credited or debited to the consumer's account.
From the evidence adduced during the trial, it is clear that the respondent did
send a notice in terms of s 127(5) of the Act to the address furnished by the
appellant. The appellant does not dispute that the notice was sent, but denies
that he received it. We know why he did not receive it, his failure to receive it
must be squarely placed on the appellant‟s shoulder. Counsel for the appellant
conceded that in terms of s 129(4) of the Act a consumer may not re-instate a
credit agreement after the sale of the vehicle pursuant to an attachment. As in
this case s 127(3) of the Act is not applicable because the appellant was clearly
in default.
[14] I turn to deal with the deliberations during the hearing of this matter. A
question was raised mero motu by this Court whether s 127 of the Act applies at
all in the circumstances of this matter. In other words where the merx forming
the subject of a credit agreement is repossessed by order of the court. The
question presupposes that after the attachment of the merx and the subsequent
sale thereof, the provisions of s 127(2) to (9) of the Act are not applicable. The
matter changes from being governed by s 127(2) to (9) of the Act and
transforms to become a common law guided damages claim, so the proposition
went
[15] Counsel for the appellant contended that the provisions of s 127(2) to (9)
are always applicable whether there was a voluntary surrender of the goods or a
forced repossession. He went further to suggest that the answer lies in s 131
which reads thus:
„Repossession of goods
If a court makes an attachment order with respect to property that is the subject of a credit
agreement, section 127 (2) to (9) and section 128, read with the changes required by the
context, apply with respect to any goods attached in terms of that order‟.
Although this question has not yet come before this Court for adjudication,
Fourie J in ABSA (see para 8 above) seems to agree that s 127(2) to (9) is
applicable even after a forced repossession of the merx. In para 29 of ABSA he
deals with the interpretation of s 131 of the Act, although in a different set of
facts from this case. He observed that s 131 imposes restrictions being that s
127(2) to (9) should be „read with the changes required by the context‟. He goes
further to set out in detail the procedure to be followed regarding the execution
and realisation of goods attached by virtue of a court order in terms of s 131 of
the Act. Counsel for the respondent on the other hand seemed to agree that s
127 of the Act is not applicable at all after an attachment and sale of the goods.
He suggested further that s 127(2) read with ss (3) of the Act fortifies his belief
that s 127 of the Act does not apply where an attachment and sale have taken
place. He acknowledged that if one is in default one cannot re-instate the credit
agreement, alternatively that re-instatement would be impermissible.
[16] Whilst generally I am inclined to agree with the proposition that s 127(2)
to (9) of the Act is applicable, I, however, consider that it is not applicable in
the present case because the agreement had already been cancelled. Section 131
of the Act squarely answers the question whether s 127(2) is applicable at all in
the positive. The purposes of the NCA are set out in s 3 of the Act and inter
alia, to promote and advance the socio-economic welfare of South Africans, to
protect the consumer‟s rights most of all to harmonise the system of debt
enforcement.
[17] Considering the above discussions and reasons, I am satisfied that the
respondent succeeded to show that the notices in terms of s 127(2) and (5) of
the Act were duly given and/or sent to the appellant. The appellant has himself
to blame by providing an address, which he knew, that no street deliveries could
take place in the area. The appellant is a quantity surveyor. He is not the
ordinary man in the street. He knew and/or should have known what service of
legal notices meant.
[18] In the result the following order is made:
1 The appeal is dismissed with costs.
2 The order of the court a quo in para 25.2 specifying 1 August 2012 is replaced
with the following:
„13 December 2012‟
_____________________
J B Z Shongwe
Judge of Appeal
Cachalia JA (Tshiqi JA concurring)
[19] I have read the judgment by Shongwe JA and agree with the order he
proposes. But I think the disputed issues require fuller treatment. And I propose
to do so.
[20] This appeal, with leave of the court a quo (Monama J), concerns a
festering dispute between a recalcitrant debtor and a finance house regarding the
enforcement of an instalment credit agreement concluded in 2009. The dispute
goes back to November 2010 when the debtor first fell into arrears with his
payments. The finance house is Firstrand Bank Limited t/a as Wesbank, which
was the plaintiff in the court a quo. The debtor is Mr John Black Edwards, who
is a quantity surveyor, and was the defendant.
[21] Mr Edwards bought a 2007 model of an Aston Martin Vantage Coupe
sports car from Wesbank for the princely sum of approximately R2 million,
which included interest charges amounting to R548 101. The cash price of the
car was R1 457 958. The monthly instalment payment was about R23 088,
payable over 59 months with a final instalment of R500 000.
[22] A car magazine describes driving this car as the best way to live out one‟s
spy-fantasy. But Mr Edwards, it seems, is not a man with deep pockets, and
soon found himself in difficulty meeting the monthly payments. On 11 June
2014, following a trial, the court a quo ordered him to pay Wesbank an amount
of R668 461.69 plus interest, which he owed as at 1 August 2012. (The parties
agreed that in the event of Wesbank succeeding in the appeal, the correct date
from which interest had to run was 13 December 2012.)
[23] In this court Mr Edwards abandoned his contention that Wesbank had not
established the amount he owed. Instead he sought to take refuge in the
procedural protections afforded to debtors by the National Credit Act 34 of
2005 (The Act). His complaint in this appeal is that Wesbank did not comply
with ss 127(2) and 127(5) of the Act because it did not despatch the relevant
notices to him by registered mail. As a consequence, he did not receive them,
and Wesbank‟s failure in this regard, he contends, nullifies the order of the
court a quo.
[24] Before I consider whether there is merit in the complaint some
background is necessary. Mr Edwards first fell into arrears with his monthly
payments in November 2010. A notice in terms of s 129 was sent to him by
registered mail on 19 November in which Wesbank proposed, amongst other
things, that Mr Edwards referred the agreement to a debt counsellor. He did not
respond to the letter and was thus in default as envisaged in s 130(1) of the Act.
Wesbank elected to cancel the agreement and on 11 April 2011 instituted debt
enforcement proceedings against him in the South Gauteng High Court,
Johannesburg (the high court). At that stage he was in arrears to the tune of
R167 231 and the balance owing was R1 567 668. Mr Edwards entered an
appearance to defend the matter on 16 May 2011. On 26 May 2011 Wesbank
applied for summary judgment.
[25] Mr Edwards advanced several defences to resist the application: first, that
he was improperly induced or compelled to enter into the agreement; second,
that the agreement was unenforceable in as much as it was „reckless‟ within the
meaning of s 80; third, that the agreement fell to be set aside because he was
„over-indebted‟ as envisaged in s 86 and that he was not in arrears with his
instalment payments. In a carefully considered judgment, the high court (Farber
AJ) rejected each of these defences. On 12 August 2011, summary judgment
was granted against Mr Edwards, and he was ordered to return the car.
However, on the very same day he delivered an application for leave to appeal
against the order.
[26] The application was heard on 3 February 2012. On this occasion
Mr Edwards advanced two further grounds of appeal, which was that the
agreement had not been lawfully cancelled, and that the s 129 notice was
defective because it did not clearly indicate Wesbank‟s intention to cancel the
agreement in the event of his not remedying the breach. He also contended that
the summons was not properly served on him because it had been delivered to
his attorney, and not to him personally. On 29 February 2012 the court gave
judgment in which these further defences were also dismissed.
[27] Still not satisfied, Mr Edwards applied for leave to appeal to this court.
His application suffered the same fate on 1 June 2012. On 6 June 2012 the car
was restored to Wesbank in accordance with the summary judgment order of
12 August 2011. During this period of ten months Mr Edwards had the use of
the car and took no steps to reduce his indebtedness to Wesbank.
[28] A week later, on 13 June 2012, Wesbank despatched a letter purportedly
in terms of s 127(2), by ordinary mail to his address at 72 Turoco Road,
Fourways. The letter said that the car had been valued at R500 000, excluding
VAT. And, repeating the language of s 127(3) of the Act, that if he wished to
reinstate the agreement and resume possession of the car he may do so on
condition that he settled all arrear payments and further costs for which he was
liable. Mr Edwards says that he did not receive this letter.
[29] On 26 July 2012 the car was sold at an auction conducted by a third party
for R763 800, inclusive of VAT. The deficit at that stage was R780 499. On
1 August 2012, Wesbank sent another letter, in terms of s 127(5), also by
ordinary mail, to Mr Edwards. This letter indicated that the settlement value,
after expenses, was R780 449, which if not paid within ten days would result in
further enforcement proceedings against him. This letter too, Mr Edwards says,
he did not receive.
[30] On 13 December 2012, Wesbank filed a notice amending its particulars
of claim to reflect the adjusted amount now owed. Importantly, it annexed both
the ss 127(2) and 127(5) notices to it. On 26 February 2013, Mr Edwards
delivered his plea and counterclaim. He once again pleaded his earlier defences
relating to over-indebtedness and reckless credit, and also that s 129 had not
been complied with. In addition he pleaded that, assuming s 127 applied, it was
not complied with either. For present purposes it is not necessary to discuss the
content of the counterclaim as it was not persisted with at the trial.
[31] The trial began on 14 March 2012. At the outset the court was asked to
rule on whether or not Mr Edwards could persist with the defences pertaining to
over-indebtedness, reckless credit and compliance with s 129 that had been
dismissed in the summary judgment proceedings. The court held that these
issues had been finally determined and could not be re-opened. In other words it
upheld Wesbank‟s contention that these issues were res judicata. Mr Edwards
does not appeal this ruling for good reason. What remained was the dispute
pertaining to compliance with the s 127 notices, the extent of Mr Edward‟s
indebtedness to Wesbank, and whether or not the car was sold at the best price
reasonably obtainable in terms of s 127(4)(b).
[32] During the trial Wesbank applied for and was granted an amendment to
its summons to reflect a reduction in the amount Mr Edwards owed from
R780 449 to R668 461. The trial lasted several days. In regard to the evidence
regarding the delivery of the notices Wesbank adduced the evidence of three
witnesses, who proved that the letters were sent to the address that Mr Edwards
had given Wesbank for the delivery of legal notices in the agreement.
[33] Regarding the dispute over the amount that Mr Edwards owed, two
witnesses were called: Mr Frank van Staden‟s evidence demonstrated
conclusively how the final amounts has been calculated. Mr Roelof Johannes
Strydom‟s evidence that the best price for the car was obtained at the public
auction was compelling, stemming from his 21 years‟ experience in this area.
Mr Edwards, through his legal representative, was not able to discredit their
evidence despite having subjected them to lengthy cross-examination.
Mr Edward‟s own evidence was less than satisfactory. He testified that he had
not received the notices in terms of s 127 because there is no street delivery at
his home address and in his area. In regard to the price obtained for the car at
the auction, he persisted with his claim that he could have received a better
price had he been given the opportunity to do so. The learned judge found him
to be a „poor witness and highly arrogant,‟ and rejected his evidence.
[34] Although the appeal was directed at all the court a quo‟s findings, the
issue pertaining to the amount that was owed as at 13 December 2012, ie
R668 461, was abandoned in argument before us, as was his contention that
Wesbank had not obtained the best price for the car at the auction. There was, in
my view, no merit in either of these contentions.
[35] What remained is the dispute regarding compliance with the s 127
notices. Mr Edwards contends that Wesbank‟s failure to despatch these notices
by registered mail means that they did not comply with the Act. Mr Edwards
contends that he did not receive the notice in terms of s 127(2) before the car
was sold. Neither did he receive the s 127(5) notice after the sale of the vehicle.
Before I deal with whether or not there was sufficient proof that the notices
were delivered to Mr Edwards it is necessary to consider whether, and to what
extent, these provisions apply at all in the circumstances of this case, an issue
the court debated fully with counsel for both parties during the hearing.
The relevant provisions
[36] I turn to consider the relevant provisions at the time of these proceedings.
„127 Surrender of goods
. . .
(2)
Within 10 business days after the later of-
. . .
(b)
receiving goods tendered in terms of subsection (1) (b) (ii),
a credit provider must give the consumer written notice setting out the estimated
value of the goods and any other prescribed information.
(3)
Within 10 business days after receiving a notice under subsection (2), the consumer
may unconditionally withdraw the notice to terminate the agreement in terms of subsection
(1)(a), and resume possession of any goods that are in the credit provider's possession, unless
the consumer is in default under the credit agreement.
(4)
If the consumer-
(a)
responds to a notice as contemplated in subsection (3), the credit provider
must return the goods to the consumer unless the consumer is in default under
the credit agreement; or
(b)
does not respond to a notice as contemplated in subsection (3), the credit
provider must sell the goods as soon as practicable for the best price
reasonably obtainable.
(5) After selling any goods in terms of this section, a credit provider must-
(a)
credit or debit the consumer with a payment or charge equivalent to the
proceeds of the sale less any expenses reasonably incurred by the credit
provider in connection with the sale of the goods; and
(b)
give the consumer a written notice stating the following:
(i) The settlement value of the agreement immediately before the sale;
(ii) the gross amount realised on the sale;
(iii) the net proceeds of the sale after deducting the credit provider's
permitted default charges, if applicable, and reasonable costs allowed under
paragraph (a); and
(iv) the amount credited or debited to the consumer's account.
. . .
128 Compensation for consumer
(1)
A consumer who has unsuccessfully attempted to resolve a disputed sale of goods in
terms of section 127 directly with the credit provider, or through alternative dispute
resolution under Part A of Chapter 7, may apply to the Tribunal to review the sale.
(2)
If the Tribunal considering an application in terms of this section is not satisfied that
the credit provider sold the goods as soon as reasonably practicable, or for the best price
reasonably obtainable, the Tribunal may order the credit provider to credit and pay to the
consumer an additional amount exceeding the net proceeds of sale.
(3)
A decision by the Tribunal in terms of this section is subject to appeal to, or review
by, the High Court to the extent permitted by section 148.
. . .
129 Required procedures before debt enforcement
. . .
(3) Subject to subsection (4), a consumer may-
(a)
at any time before the credit provider has cancelled the agreement re-instate a credit
agreement that is in default by paying to the credit provider all amounts that are
overdue, together with the credit provider‟s permitted default charges and reasonable
costs of enforcing the agreement up to the time of re-instatement; and-
(b)
after complying with paragraph (a), may resume possession of any property that had
been repossessed by the credit provider pursuant to an attachment order.
(4)
A credit provider may not re-instate or revive a credit agreement after-
(a)
the sale of any property pursuant to-
(i) an attachment order; or
(ii) surrender of property in terms of section 127;
(b) the execution of any other court order enforcing that agreement; or
(c) the termination thereof in accordance with section 123.
. . .
131 Repossession of goods
If a court makes an attachment order with respect to property that is the subject of a credit
agreement, section 127 (2) to (9) and section 128, read with the changes required by the
context, apply with respect to any goods attached in terms of that order.‟
[37] Section 127 deals with a situation where the consumer wishes to
terminate a credit agreement, gives notice to the credit provider thereof and
surrenders the goods to the credit provider. Section 127(2)(b) then says that the
credit provider must give the consumer written notice of the value of the goods
so that the consumer may consider, under s127(3), whether or not to withdraw
the notice of intended termination and resume possession of the goods. But this
does not apply if the consumer is in default under the agreement. If the
consumer does not respond to the notice within the requisite time the credit
provider must sell the goods for the best price reasonably obtainable as soon as
possible.
[38] Once the credit provider has taken possession of the goods following the
termination of the agreement, it may sell the goods. Section 127(5)(a) says that
after selling the goods the credit provider must credit or debit the consumer with
a payment or charge equivalent to the proceeds of the sale and deduct its
expenses in connection with the sale of the goods. Thereafter, the credit
provider must, in terms of s 127(5)(b), give written notice to the consumer of
the relevant details regarding the determination of the settlement figure.
[39] Section 128 is also relevant. It says that where a consumer has
unsuccessfully attempted to resolve a disputed sale of goods in terms of s 127
with the credit provider it may apply to the Tribunal to review the sale. A
dispute relating to whether the goods were sold for the best price reasonably
obtainable, as in this case, would probably be covered by this provision.
[40] These provisions deal with a situation where the consumer has
surrendered goods to the credit provider voluntarily. Where, however, there has
been an attachment of goods following upon a court order, as happened in this
case, s 131 requires the application of s 127(2) to (9) and 128, but importantly
they are to be read with the changes that the context requires.
[41] The first thing to be observed is that s 129(3), as it read at the time of
these proceedings, permitted a consumer, before the credit provider has
cancelled the agreement to reinstate it by paying the overdue amount and
resume possession of the property. In its judgment refusing leave to appeal
against the summary judgment ruling the court held that Wesbank had cancelled
the agreement. This means that Mr Edwards was not entitled to reinstate the
agreement and resume possession of the car, which is what the s 127(2) notice
sent to him on 12 June 2012 invited him to consider doing. Mr Edwards was of
course also in default under the agreement before the cancellation, which meant
that he could not take repossession of the goods after having received the
estimated value of the goods in terms of s 127(3) and s 127(4) either. Counsel
for Mr Edwards was constrained to concede this during the hearing. Counsel for
Wesbank argued that the section does not apply in these circumstances,
precisely because Mr Edwards was not entitled to reinstate the agreement and
resume possession of the goods.
[42] However, counsel for Mr Edwards maintained that s 127(2)(b)
nevertheless applies in the present circumstances. He argued that before the
attached car was sold, Mr Edwards should still have been given notice so that he
had the opportunity to consider whether or not he wished to object to the
estimated valuation of the car. The contention does not withstand scrutiny.
[43] Section 127(4) imposes an obligation on the credit provider to sell the
goods at the best price reasonably obtainable if the consumer has not responded
to the s 127(2) notice. The credit provider‟s estimated value of the goods plays
no part in determining whether or not the best price was obtained, as is evident
from this matter, where the estimated value of the car in the s 127(2) notice was
R500 000, but it was sold for considerably more, ie R763 800. The clear
purpose of a s 127(2) notice, as I have mentioned, is to place the consumer in a
position to consider whether to withdraw the termination notice and resume
possession of the goods,1 which is what the s 127(2) notice invited Mr Edwards
to do. But this option was simply not available to Mr Edwards once the
agreement had been cancelled and the court had ordered the attachment of the
car. So, in this case, no purpose was served by sending the notice to him.
Section 127(2) simply did not apply.
[44] However, even if Mr Edwards was entitled to receive the s 127(2) notice,
his contention that he did not receive it has no merit. Once it was proved that
the notice was sent to Mr Edwards, he had to explain why it was not reasonable
to have expected the notice to reach his attention. This is because he bore the
burden of rebutting the inference of delivery, and to show that his conduct was
reasonable. If he did not receive the notice because of his own unreasonable
conduct it would not matter whether or not he actually received delivery. He
would not have rebutted the inference of delivery.2 His insistence on the notice
having to be sent by registered mail is to resort to form over substance. The
question, surely, is whether or not he had actually received the notice or
rebutted the inference that he had, not whether it was sent to him by registered
mail.
[45] In clause 17 of the agreement between the parties, Mr Edwards „agreed‟
that the domicilium address to which all „legal notices‟ were to be sent was 72
Turoco Road, Fourways, which is the address to which the s 127(2) notice was
sent. He also accepted that he would be „deemed to have received a notice or
1 Baliso v Firstrand Bank Limited t/a Wesbank [2016] ZACC 23 para 27.
2 Ibid para 16.
letter five (5) business days after we have posted it to‟ him. This means that he
accepted that he would be regarded or considered to have received the notice,
whether or not he had in fact received it.
[46] Mr Edwards provided the street address to which he had elected to
receive these notices. He denied having received the notice and proffered the
explanation that there was no street delivery at his address. When confronted in
cross-examination with the question why he had provided an address where he
knew there was no street delivery he said that he did not read „all the fine print‟.
Later on, he lamented the fact that he did not understand „legal writing‟. When
asked why he did not ask the person assisting him to explain the terms of the
agreement he said the documents were all prepared by the sales representative
in an „incredible hurry‟ and that he did not ask the person more than „one or two
things‟. The court a quo was justified in describing him as a „poor witness‟.
[47] Human experience has shown that contracting parties often attempt to
evade their contractual obligations by denying that they were aware or assented
to the terms of an agreement. This is why our courts adopted the caveat
subscriptor rule years ago. This entails that a person who claims not to have
read or appreciated the terms to which he has bound himself cannot generally
escape the consequences of not having read the document before signing it. In
other words, he has assented to what appears in the document above his
signature.
[48] Mr Edwards, who is 65 years of age, and hardly a man without
experience or education, cannot escape the consequences of having selected an
address where he was aware that there was no street delivery. He bore the risk
that the notice would not be delivered to his chosen address. His conduct in
choosing this address for the mode of delivery despite his knowledge that he
would not receive the mail was unreasonable. It matters not whether the notice
was sent by ordinary or registered mail. He would still not have received it. He
is thus „deemed‟ to have received the s 127(2) notice.
[49] The dictum of the Constitutional Court in Kubyana v Standard Bank of
South Africa Ltd3 is apposite here, even though issue there was the delivery of a
s 129 notice:
„The Act does not imply, and cannot be interpreted to mean, that a consumer may
unreasonably ignore the consequences of her election to receive notices by registered mail,
when the notifications in question have been sent to the address which she duly nominated.
While it is so that consumers should enjoy the full benefit of the protections afforded by the
Act, the noble pursuits of a statute should not be open to abuse by individuals who seek to
exercise those protections unreasonably or in bad faith‟
[50] I turn to consider the s 127(5) notice. Its purpose, when read with s 131,
is to place the consumer, whose goods have been attached, in a position to
dispute whether or not the credit provider has accounted properly in respect of
the matters covered in s 127(5)(b)(i)-(iv). If there is a dispute regarding the sale,
which presumably also covers the question whether the goods were sold for the
best price reasonably obtainable in accordance with s 127(4)(b), and the
consumer has not been able to resolve it, he or she may use the procedure
envisaged in s 128 by applying to the Tribunal to review the sale.
3 Kubyana v Standard Bank of South Africa Ltd [2014] ZACC 1; 2014 (3) SA 56 (CC) para 46.
[51] In this case the s 127(5) notice was sent to Mr Edwards on 1 August
2012, a few days after the sale. He says he did not receive it. For the same
reasons given in respect of the s 127(2) notice, this defence must fail.
[52] In this instance the defence is even less credible. Even if he did not
receive the notice through the post, it was annexed to the amended particulars of
claim on 13 December 2012, three months before the trial commenced, which
he did receive. (The s 127(2) notice was also annexed to the amended
particulars, but this was after the sale and is therefore immaterial.)
[53] It is important in this regard to emphasise what the Constitutional Court
recently said the purpose of compliance with the notices such as s 127 is:
„Compliance is a prerequisite for “determining the matter”. When is a matter “determined” in
proceedings under the Act? That depends on whether the matter is opposed and default
judgment is sought, or whether it is opposed and judgment is to follow upon hearing evidence
at the trial.‟4
[54] In the three months before the trial commenced Mr Edwards could have
disputed the sale price and any other matter covered by s 127(5), and used the
procedure available to him in s 128. If necessary he could have sought a
postponement of the trial for this purpose. He did not do so, but elected to go to
trial and contest the merits of the dispute, including the disputed sale price.
After considering all the evidence, the high court ruled against him. This is not a
case where the question regarding compliance with the s 127 notices is being
4 Baliso v Firstrand Bank Limited t/a Wesbank [2016] ZACC 23 para 11.
raised in connection with default judgment proceedings, where different
considerations apply to the procedural protections of consumers.
[55] Mr Edwards has, no doubt acting on proper legal advice, abandoned any
challenge regarding the merits, ie the amount that he now owes and whether the
best price was obtained. Before us all that remained was an attempt to use the
alleged non-delivery of the notices as a procedural shield to avoid meeting his
contractual obligations, as he had done when he raised a dispute regarding the
s 129 notice and his other unmeritorious defences during the summary judgment
proceedings.
[56] Even if there was substance in the complaint that he had not received the
s 127(5) notice before the proceedings had commenced, its purpose was to place
Mr Edwards in the position to contest, before the trial started, Wesbank‟s
calculations regarding the amount that he owed and the price obtained through
the sale of the car. These issues were fully canvassed at the trial. In fact, as I
have mentioned, during the trial Wesbank amended its pleadings by reducing
the amount owed from R780 449 to R668 461. Upholding his complaint that the
notice was not properly delivered to him would only allow him to abuse the
protection of the Act afforded to consumers and to escape his contractual
obligations. It would truly be an abject case of placing form over substance. The
courts cannot countenance such conduct, and this defence must, as I have held
with the s 127(2) notice, also fail.
[57] To conclude, I would hold that Wesbank had no obligation to deliver a
s 127(2) notice to Mr Edwards after the agreement had been cancelled and the
goods attached following the court order. And even if there was an obligation to
do so Wesbank complied with the provisions of the Act by sending it to
Mr Edward‟s chosen address, as it did with the s 127(5) notice. In addition the
s 127(5) notice was also delivered to Mr Edward‟s attorney together with the
amended pleading after the sale.
[58] For these reasons I agree with the order proposed by Shongwe JA.
_______________
A Cachalia
Judge of Appeal
Appearances
For the Appellant:
A A Bester
Instructed by:
Mathew Kerr-Phillips, Johannesburg;
Claude Reid Incorporated, Bloemfontein.
For the Respondent:
F J Becker SC
Instructed by:
Smit, Jones & Pratt, Johannesburg;
Symington & De Kok, Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
30 September 2016
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
* * *
JOHN BLACK EDWARDS V FIRSTRAND BANK LIMITED T/A WESBANK
The SCA today dismissed with costs an appeal by Mr John Edwards against FirstRand Bank
Limited t/a Wesbank.
Mr Edwards had purchased an Aston Martin Vantage Coupe sport car from Wesbank for
approximately R2 million. He fell into arrears with his monthly payments. Wesbank issued
summons against him claiming cancellation of the agreement and payment of the sum of
R668 461.69 plus interest.
Following a trial, the court a quo ordered the cancellation of the agreement and payment of
the said amount. Aggrieved by this decision Mr Edwards appealed to this court. His defences,
inter alia, were that the credit agreement was an over indebtedness and therefore must be
declared a reckless lending agreement and also denied that Wesbank had complied with the
provisions of section 127 of the National Credit Act 34 of 2005 (the Act).
The issue for adjudication before this court was whether or not Wesbank had complied with
the provision of section 127(2) and (5) of the Act. The other defences had been rejected by
the court a quo and were not pursued in this court. It is undisputed that he was in default.
This court decided that section 127(2), though generally applicable, was not available in this
particular case because the credit agreement had already been cancelled. This court
concluded that Wesbank had complied with section 127(5) by giving Mr Edwards notice in
terms of this section by ordinary post and not registered post as was averred by Mr Edwards.
Mr Edwards had given Wesbank a street address, which he knew there was no street post-
delivery. The notices sent obviously, did not reach him because of his negligence in
supplying an address which he knew there was no street delivery of post.
For the above reasons, his appeal was accordingly dismissed with costs. |
4089 | non-electoral | 2023 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 596/2021
In the matter between:
THE COMMISSIONER FOR THE SOUTH
AFRICAN REVENUE SERVICE
APPELLANT
and
ABSA BANK LIMITED
FIRST RESPONDENT
UNITED TOWERS PROPRIETARY
LIMITED
SECOND RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: The Commissioner for the South African Revenue Service v
Absa Bank Limited and Another (596/2021) [2023] ZASCA
125 (29 September 2023)
Coram:
DAMBUZA AP, SCHIPPERS, MATOJANE and GOOSEN JJA
and MALI AJA
Heard:
8 March 2023
Delivered: 29 September 2023
Summary: Tax law – General Anti-Avoidance Provisions – legality review of
refusal to withdraw a notice issued in terms of s 80J of Income Tax Act - s 9 of
Tax Administration Act –– subsequent assessments made in terms of s 80B of
Income Tax Act – review of failure to withdraw s 80J notices academic – review
of assessments not wholly question of law – high court lacking jurisdiction to
adjudicate review.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Sutherland
ADJP, sitting as court of first instance) reported sub nom Absa Bank Limited and
Another v Commissioner for the South African Revenue Service [2021]
ZAGPPHC 127; 2021 (3) SA 513 (GP):
The appeal is upheld with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
The orders of the high court are set aside and substituted with the following
order:
‘The application is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.’
________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
Goosen JA (Dambuza AP, Schippers and Matojane JJA and Mali AJA
concurring):
[1] This appeal concerns the exercise of the High Court's review jurisdiction
in the context of a tax assessment raised in terms of s 80B of the Income Tax Act
58 of 1962 (the ITA). The Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (the high
court), set aside a decision by the Commissioner of the South African Revenue
Service (SARS), refusing to withdraw notices issued in terms of s 80J of the ITA
to the respondents, Absa Bank Limited (Absa) and its wholly owned subsidiary,
United Towers Proprietary Limited (United Towers), respectively. It also set
aside subsequent notices of assessment, issued in terms of s 80B of the ITA.
Leave to appeal was granted by the high court.
The facts
[2] It is common ground that Absa and United Towers entered into an
investment arrangement which involved a series of interlinked transactions, the
details of which are as follows. Absa and United Towers subscribed for
preference shares in PSIC Finance 3 (Pty) Ltd (PSIC3). Their investment was
secured by other entities in the ‘group’. PSIC3 used the proceeds of the share
issue to subscribe for preference shares in PSIC Finance 4 (Pty) Ltd (PSIC4). In
turn PSIC4 made a capital contribution to Delta 1 Finance Trust (D1 Trust). D1
Trust applied the capital contribution to make interest-bearing loans to Macquarie
Securities South Africa Ltd (Macquarie). The D1 Trust invested the interest
earned on the Macquarie loans in Brazilian Government Bonds, which in terms
of the Double Taxation Agreement between South Africa and Brazil, provided a
tax-free income stream to the D1 Trust. D1 Trust distributed the income stream
to PSIC4. The latter paid this to PSIC3 as dividends, and PSIC3 in turn paid
dividends to Absa and United Towers.
[3] SARS initiated an investigation of the Macquarie Group investment
scheme during 2016. Pursuant to this investigation, it sought and obtained
information from Absa and United Towers. In May 2018, SARS issued notices
to Absa and United Towers in terms of s 42 of the Tax Administration Act 28 of
2011 (the TAA), signifying an audit of their tax affairs for the 2015, 2016 and
2017 years of assessment. These notices stated that the audit would relate to the
tax treatment of the dividends received by Absa and United Towers from PSIC3.
The audit notices included a request for further information in terms of s 46 of
the TAA. Absa and United Towers responded to these notices on 18 June 2018.
[4] On 30 November 2018, SARS issued notices to Absa and United Towers
in terms of s 80J of the ITA. The notices were, essentially, in identical terms.
They indicated that SARS had completed its preliminary audit of the arrangement
entered with entities in the Macquarie ‘group’. The notices set out an intention to
raise assessments in terms of the General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR)
provisions of the ITA.1 Absa and United Towers were afforded a period of 60
days to respond to the preliminary audit findings.
[5] The response period was extended, at the request of Absa and United
Towers, to 28 February 2019. On 15 February 2019, Absa and United Towers
submitted a request to SARS, in terms of section 9(1) of the TAA, to withdraw
the s 80J notices. Absa and United Towers also requested a further extension of
the period within which to respond to the notices, pending SARS's consideration
of its request for withdrawal of those notices. SARS duly extended the period to
31 March 2019. On 5 March 2019, SARS informed Absa and United Towers that
it was not withdrawing the s 80J notices. It stated that any objections they had to
the notices should be raised in submissions made in their responses to those
notices, as required by s 80J.
Proceedings before the high court
[6] On 29 March 2019, Absa and United Towers launched an application in
the high court seeking an order reviewing the decision not to withdraw the
s 80 J notices and directing that the decision be substituted with one withdrawing
the notices, alternatively that the request for withdrawal be remitted to SARS (the
s 9 review). They simultaneously submitted their responses to the s 80J notices
to SARS in terms of s 80J (2) of the ITA. The s 9 review proceedings continued
while SARS was considering the responses to the s 80J notices.
1 These are s 80A to L of the ITA aimed at preventing abuse of certain sections of the Act through abnormal
arrangements, schemes, or agreements concluded with the main aim of obtaining tax benefits, including the
avoidance, postponement, or reduction of liability for tax.
[7] On 17 October 2019, SARS issued Letters of Assessment and Additional
Assessments to Absa and United Towers for the 2014, 2015, 2016 and 2017
tax years. It determined that they had participated in an avoidance arrangement
and assessed their tax liability on the basis that their investment returns in the
scheme constituted taxable income. After these additional assessments were
raised by SARS, Absa and United Towers applied for leave to amend the notice
of motion in the s 9 review, to extend its reach to include the review and setting
aside of the assessments (the assessment review). The application was opposed.
Leave was granted, however, and the application was broadened to include the
assessment review.
[8] The application was heard by the high court, which granted orders setting
aside the decisions not to withdraw the s 80J notices; withdrawing the notices;
and setting aside the additional assessments. The high court concluded that the
decisions refusing to withdraw the s 80J notices were subject to review based on
the principle of legality notwithstanding that they were not final. It held, in
relation to the assessment review, that a taxpayer is not obliged only to pursue the
remedies for disputing tax liability as provided by s 104 of the TAA. The taxpayer
may apply directly to court for relief in exceptional circumstances. Exceptional
circumstances would include a dispute that turned wholly upon a point of law.
The high court found that the s 80J notices were premised upon an acceptance
that Absa and United Towers were ignorant of the terms of the arrangement or
scheme. Upon that premise they could not be parties to the avoidance
arrangement. It held further, that since the notices of assessment were issued upon
the factual premise of the s 80J notices, the assessments were tainted by an error
of law. The high court concluded that the s 80J notices and the assessments were
inextricably linked and, accordingly, set aside both sets of decisions.
The issues on appeal
[9] The appeal concerns two distinct review applications in a composite notice
of motion. The first relates to the refusal or failure to withdraw the s 80J notices
upon a request made in terms of s 9 of the TAA. It was founded upon the
contention that SARS was wrong in its view that the objections to the
s 80J notices raised by Absa and United Towers, should be addressed in their
responses to the notices. It was also contended that the principle of legality was
breached since the issuing of the notices was based upon an error of law. The
error was that Absa and United Towers were parties to an avoidance arrangement
even though they had no knowledge of the arrangement and had derived a tax
benefit from it, to which they would otherwise not have been entitled.
[10] The second review concerned the additional tax assessments raised by
SARS. This review engaged the exercise of the high court’s review jurisdiction
to set aside the assessments either under the Promotion of Administrative Justice
Act, Act 3 of 2000 (PAJA) or the principle of legality. It was founded upon the
same grounds as the attack on the s 80J notices.
[11] The following issues arise in relation to these two reviews:
(a)
Is a ‘decision’ not to withdraw a s 80J notice reviewable in terms of s 9 of
the TAA, either prior to or after the issuing of a notice of assessment in terms of
s 80B of the ITA?
(b)
Was the high court correct to characterize the challenge to the assessments
as wholly a question of law which entitled it to exercise its jurisdiction in terms
of s 105 of the TAA?
(c)
Was the high court correct in its determination of the dispute?
The GAAR provisions
[12] Tax avoidance, whether in part or in whole, is not per se unlawful or
impermissible.2 Sections 80A to 80L of the ITA deal with arrangements entered
by a taxpayer which have the effect of conferring a tax benefit through the
avoidance of a tax liability that would otherwise accrue. These anti-avoidance
provisions confer upon SARS the authority to investigate the transactions and to
raise additional or compensatory assessments to counteract the consequences of
such avoidance schemes or arrangements. In terms of s 80A, an ‘avoidance
arrangement’ is defined as an impermissible avoidance arrangement if its sole or
main purpose was to obtain a tax benefit and,
‘. . .
(a) in the context of business-
(i) it was entered into or carried out by means of or in a manner which would not normally
be employed for bona fide business purposes, other than obtaining a tax benefit; or
(ii) it lacks commercial substance, in whole or in part …
(b) …
(c) in any context –
(i) it has created rights or obligations that would not normally be created between persons
dealing at arm’s length; or
(ii) it would result directly or indirectly in the misuse or abuse of the provisions of this
Act.’
[13] Section 80B allows the Commissioner to determine the tax consequences
of any impermissible avoidance arrangement. This is done by making
2 Commissioner for Inland Revenue v Conhage (Pty) Ltd (formerly Tycon (Pty) Ltd) 1999 (4) SA 1149 (SCA) (CIR
v Conhage) para 1, where Hefer JA said, ‘Within the bounds of any anti-avoidance provisions in the relevant
legislation, a taxpayer may minimise his tax liability by arranging his affairs in a suitable manner. If, for example,
the same commercial result can be achieved in different ways, he may enter into the type of transaction which
does not attract tax or attracts less tax. But, when it comes to considering whether by doing so, he has succeeded
in avoiding or reducing the tax, the Court will give effect to the true nature and substance of the transaction and
will not be deceived by its form.’
compensating adjustments to assessments to ensure consistent treatment of all
parties to the arrangement. Section 80L defines important terms. An
‘arrangement’ includes any ‘transaction, operation, scheme, agreement or
understanding, including all steps therein or parts thereof.’ An ‘avoidance
arrangement’ is one that results in a tax benefit. A ‘party’ is any person, entity,
partnership, or joint venture who ‘participates in or takes part in an arrangement.’
[14] Section 80G(1) provides that an avoidance arrangement is presumed to
have been entered into or carried out for the sole or main purpose of obtaining a
tax benefit. A party obtaining a tax benefit is required to prove that, in the light
of the relevant facts and circumstances, obtaining a tax benefit was not the sole
or main purpose of the avoidance arrangement. Subsection (2) provides that the
purpose of a step in or part of an avoidance arrangement may be different from a
purpose attributable to the arrangement as a whole. In terms of s 80H, the
Commissioner may apply the GAAR provisions to steps in or parts of an
arrangement.
[15] Section 80J regulates the procedure to be followed prior to the
determination made in terms of section 80B. It provides, in peremptory terms
that:
‘ (1) The Commissioner must, prior to determining any liability of a party for tax under section
80B, give the party notice that he or she believes that the provisions of this Part may apply in
respect of an arrangement and must set out in the notice his or her reasons therefor.
(2)
A party who receives notice in terms of subsection (1) may, within 60 days after the
date of that notice or such longer period as the Commissioner may allow, submit reasons to
the Commissioner why the provisions of this Part should not be applied.
(3)
The Commissioner must within 180 days of receipt of the reasons or the expiry of the
period contemplated in subsection (2) -
(a) request additional information in order to determine whether or not this Part applies in
respect of an arrangement;
(b) give notice to the party that the notice in terms of subsection (1) has been withdrawn; or
(c) determine the liability of that party for tax in terms of this Part.
(4)
If at any stage after giving notice to the party in terms of subsection (1), additional
information comes to the knowledge of the commissioner, he or she may revise or modify his
or her reasons for applying this part or, if the notice had been withdrawn, give notice in terms
of subsection (1).’
The section 9 review
[16] Section 9(1) of the TAA provides that:
‘A decision made by a SARS official or a notice to a specific person issued by SARS under a
tax Act, excluding a decision given effect to in an assessment or a notice of assessment that is
subject to objection and appeal, may in the discretion of a SARS official described . . . at the
request of the relevant person, be withdrawn …’
[17] The section appears in Part B of Chapter 2 of the TAA, under the heading
‘powers and duties of SARS and SARS officials’. It serves to describe
discretionary powers which may be exercised by SARS officials. It contains an
internal limiter. Decisions ‘given effect to in an assessment’ may not be
withdrawn. So too, a notice of assessment that is subject to objection and appeal.
The high court ventured a construction of the first category as relating to
‘assessments already given effect to.’ There is no need to interpret this section. It
was common cause that s 9 contemplates the withdrawal of a notice such as one
issued under s 80J. Indeed, s 80J(3) provides explicitly that such notice may be
withdrawn upon consideration of the taxpayer's response to the s 80J notice.
[18] The review of the refusal to withdraw the s 80J notices was launched
simultaneously with the submission of responses to the notices and some months
prior to the letters and notices of assessment issued in terms of s 80B of the ITA.
The application was founded upon two grounds. The first was that the
Commissioner’s contention that the objection to the notices ought to be raised in
the responses to the notices was wrong in law. It was averred that this approach
impermissibly limited the ambit of s 9 and that it denied a taxpayer a remedy
which was available to it. The second was that disagreement about the
interpretation and application of GAAR perpetuated the error of law in the issuing
of the notices. Absa and United Towers contended that since the notices would
have adverse effect irrespective of the issuing of assessments, the decision not to
withdraw them was reviewable.
[19] The high court accepted, correctly in my view, that the decision to issue a
s 80J notice was not a ‘final’ decision which placed any adverse burden upon the
recipient. It was, the high court held, plainly not administrative action as
contemplated by PAJA. The high court, however, found that a decision not to
withdraw a notice, even if not final, had adverse consequences. It held that such
a decision ‘was plainly a decision by an organ of state exercising a statutory
power and its notional non-final attribute is not a bar [to review] precisely because
it nevertheless had an impact’. The high court relied, in support of the proposition,
upon two judgments of this Court, namely Commissioner for the South African
Revenue Service v Langholm Farms (Pty) Ltd,3 and Commissioner for the South
African Revenue Service v United Manganese of Kalahari (Pty) Ltd. 4
[20] In those matters, however, the applicants sought declaratory relief relating
to the interpretation of statutory provisions. The expressed interpretation of the
provisions by SARS was held to be sufficiently definitive to warrant declaratory
relief despite the fact that no final administrative decision had been taken. The
circumstances of this matter are wholly different. In this case we are concerned
3 Commissioner for the South African Revenue Service v Langholm Farms (Pty) Ltd (1354/2018) [2019] ZASCA
163 (29 November 2019).
4 Commissioner for the South African Revenue Service v United Manganese of Kalahari (Pty) Ltd [2020] ZASCA
16; 2020 (4) SA 428 (SCA).
with a decision not to withdraw a notice. The question is what effect or impact
the decision has upon the taxpayer concerned?
[21] The short answer, it seems to me, is that such decision itself can have no
adverse impact or affect. Its effect is to leave the s 80J notice in place until the
process contemplated by the section is completed. If the issuing of a notice does
not constitute administrative action susceptible to review then, as a matter of
logic, a decision to keep it extant cannot constitute administrative action.
[22] Section 80J(3) sets out the powers and obligations of the Commissioner in
relation to the application of the GAAR provisions. It contemplates three possible
decisions that might be taken by the Commissioner in relation to a response
submitted in terms of s 80J(2). The Commissioner may request further
information from the taxpayer, thus deferring a final decision regarding the
application of GAAR. In such a case, the s 80J notice necessarily remains extant
until the further information is received, and the Commissioner takes a final
decision. There are two possible final decisions. The notice may be withdrawn.
In that event the Commissioner must give notice to that effect. The process of
applying the GAAR provisions may be re-commenced, but then only upon the
issue of a new s 80J notice. If, as a matter of fact, the notice is not withdrawn, the
Commissioner must determine the taxpayer’s liability for tax within the time
period stipulated by the section. Once the Commissioner has decided the tax
liability under GAAR and has issued an assessment, the prior notice issued to the
taxpayer ceases to have any relevance, save to the extent that its existence
evidences the peremptory requirements of s 80J. Its content may be relevant in
proceedings consequent upon the issuing of the assessment. Apart from this, the
s 80J notice, is overtaken by events. At that stage the taxpayer is faced with a
final decision to impose a tax liability by assessment. It must then be dealt with
in accordance with the prescribed dispute resolution procedure provided by s 104
of the TAA.
[23] Section 80J(3) does not contemplate a separate decision not to withdraw
the notice as a precondition for the decision to determine a tax liability under
s 80B. The statutory power exercised by the Commissioner is to determine a tax
liability under the GAAR provisions. Until that determination is made the issuing
of a s 80J notice or a refusal to withdraw it, can have no adverse effect or impact.
These steps are not reviewable. The high court, in my view, lost sight of the
provisions of s 80J(3). It ought to have found that a decision not to withdraw the
notice is not subject to review outside of a challenge to the decision to impose a
tax liability pursuant to s 80B of the ITA.
[24] It is not necessary to decide the ambit of s 9 of the TAA and to address the
‘jurisprudential bristles’ to which the high court referred. As I have stated the s 9
review, accepting for the sake of argument that it is competent, is, on the facts of
this case, entirely academic. Furthermore, for reasons which I shall set out below,
the substantive basis of the review of both the refusal to withdraw the notices and
the assessments is flawed, and the orders made in relation to the s 9 review cannot
stand.
The assessment review
[25] Two questions arise: was the high court correct to characterise the dispute
as wholly a question of law, and therefore exercise jurisdiction in terms of s 105
of the TAA? A negative answer is dispositive of the appeal since the high court
then did not have jurisdiction to review the assessments. The second question,
namely whether the high court was correct in its findings on the substantive
review, only arises if the first question is answered affirmatively.
[26] This Court has recently stated the law in relation to the interpretation and
application of s 105 in unequivocal terms. In Commissioner for the South African
Revenue Service v Rappa Resources (Pty) Ltd (Rappa Resources),5 Ponnan JA
stated that:
‘The purpose of s 105 is clearly to ensure that, in the ordinary course, tax disputes are taken to
the tax court. The high court consequently does not have jurisdiction in tax disputes unless it
directs otherwise. In Wingate-Pearse it was put as follows: “Tax cases are generally reserved
for the exclusive jurisdiction of the tax court in the first instance. But it is settled law that a
decision of the Commissioner is subject to judicial intervention in certain circumstances . . . In
its amended form, s 105 thus makes it plain that “unless a High Court otherwise directs”, an
assessment may only be disputed by means of the objection and appeal process.”’
[27] In this instance the high court recognised that it could only exercise its
jurisdiction in exceptional circumstances. It considered that a dispute concerning
a question of law would constitute an exceptional circumstance entitling it to
exercise its jurisdiction. It held that the dispute regarding the refusal to withdraw
the s 80J notices and the legality of the assessments, involved a question of law.
For this reason, it exercised its discretion to adjudicate the dispute.
[28] This Court in Rappa Resources endorsed the high court’s approach to the
exceptional exercise of its jurisdiction in terms of s 105 of the TAA.6 The
question, however, is whether the high court was correct in its characterisation of
the nature of the dispute.
[29] The high court took the view that the s 80J notices and the assessments
were ‘inextricably linked’. It stated that the factual basis upon which SARS
5 Commissioner for the South African Revenue Service v Rappa Resources (Pty) Ltd (Rappa Resources) [2023]
ZASCA 28; 2023 (4) SA 488 (SCA) para 20. See also United Manganese of Kalahari (Pty) Ltd v Commissioner
for the South African Revenue Service (1231/2021) [2023] ZASCA 29 (24 March 2023).
6 Rappa Resources fn 5 above para 22.
decided to apply the GAAR provisions was set out in the notices. It held that
SARS had accepted the facts disclosed in the notices. On this basis, the high court
held that SARS did not dispute that Absa and United Towers had no knowledge
of the arrangement in which they had participated. They could therefore not have
been parties to an arrangement which, unknown to them, had sought to avoid the
payment of tax which they would otherwise have been required to pay. The high
court therefore found that the application of the GAAR provisions in
circumstances where they did not, as matter of fact, apply, was irrational and
offended the principle of legality. Neither the assessments nor the s 80 J notices
could stand.
[30] The high court’s finding that SARS had accepted the facts as stated by
Absa and United Towers, and in particular, their assertion that they had no
knowledge of the nature and ambit of the scheme or arrangement, is incorrect.
The notices do not state that SARS accepts the claim that Absa and United Towers
had no knowledge of the full ambit of the scheme. The notices set out reasons for
the belief that the GAAR provisions apply, no more. They are not statements of
the accepted factual basis for application of the GAAR provisions. The
correspondence relating to the s 80J notices pertinently states that SARS disputes
the contentions raised by Absa and United Towers. These statements form part
of the reasons given by SARS as to why it would not withdraw the s 80J notices.
These averments are set out in the answering affidavits filed in opposition to the
s 9 review. These affidavits were filed prior to the issuing of the notices of
assessment which are the subject of the assessment review. There is accordingly
no room for the conclusion that SARS accepted that Absa and United Towers
were not parties to the avoidance arrangement. In the light of this the application
of the GAAR provisions was not solely a question of law.
[31] On the common cause facts Absa and United Towers participated in steps
forming part of an ‘arrangement’, the full ambit of which was described in the
s 80J notices. Whether they had knowledge of the full nature of the transactions
which comprised the arrangement, and whether their sole or main purpose in
participating was to secure a tax benefit, are matters of disputed fact. Whether the
‘arrangement’ constituted an ‘impermissible avoidance arrangement’ is a factual
enquiry. The same is true in respect of the ‘tax benefit’ requirement. Whether
Absa and United Towers obtained a tax benefit by avoiding an anticipated tax
liability that might otherwise have accrued from the transactions, is a question of
fact. It is not a mere question of law, determinable upon the basis of the
assessment as framed by SARS.
[32] In CIR v Conhage this Court held that the effect, purpose, and normality of
a transaction are essentially questions of fact.7 What must be determined in every
case is the subjective purpose of the taxpayer.8 In that matter the court was dealing
with s 103(1) of the ITA which contained an anti-avoidance provision pre-dating
the comprehensive GAAR provisions now set out in the ITA. Nevertheless,
similar considerations relating to the determination of the purpose and effect of
the transaction or arrangement applied.
[33] The high court predicated its finding that it had jurisdiction to review the
assessments on the basis that the challenge to the assessments involved solely a
question of law. That, as I have indicated, was incorrect. Since the dispute did not
involve solely a question of law, no exceptional circumstances existed to justify
the high court assuming jurisdiction in the matter. It follows that in relation to the
7 CIR v Conhage fn 1 above para 12.
8 Ibid.
assessment review, it did not have the required jurisdiction to deal with the matter.
The high court ought therefore to have dismissed the application.
[34] In the circumstances, the orders granted by the high court cannot stand.
The merits of any challenge to the notices of assessment must be adjudicated in
accordance with the dispute resolution process provided by s 104 of the TAA.
The appellant sought the costs of three counsel. Such order will only be made in
rare circumstances. This, however, is not such a matter. The employment of two
counsel was warranted.
[35] I make the following order:
1 The appeal is upheld with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
2 The orders of the high court are set aside and substituted with the following
order:
‘The application is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.’
____________________
G GOOSEN
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For the appellant:
A R Sholto-Douglas SC (with E W Fagan SC
and B E Mbikiwa)
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Cape Town
State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For the respondents:
M Janisch SC (with S Budlender SC
and L Mnqandi)
Instructed by:
Allen & Overy, Sandton
Symington De Kok Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
29 September 2023
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does not
form part of the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Commissioner for the South African Revenue Service v Absa Bank Limited and Another (596/2021)
[2023] ZASCA 125 (29 September 2023)
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) today upheld an appeal against a judgment of the Gauteng
Division the High Court, Pretoria (the high court) which reviewed and set aside tax assessments raised
against Absa Bank and its subsidiary, United Towers Proprietary Limited (collectively referred to as
Absa Bank).
The Commissioner for the South African Revenue Service (SARS) initiated an investigation into a series
of transactions involving Absa Bank and several other entities in 2016. SARS conducted an audit of
these transactions which covered the 2015, 2016 and 2017 tax periods, commencing in May 2018.
During the audit SARS obtained information from Absa Bank. At the conclusion of the audit process On
30 November 2018, SARS issued notices to Absa Bank, in terms of s 80J of the Income Tax Act, 58 of
1962 (the ITA). The notices signified an intention to apply the General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR)
provision of the ITA on the basis that Absa Bank had participated in an impermissible tax avoidance
arrangement. The notices provided for the submission of a response by Absa Bank. The submission
period was extended to 28 February 2019 at the request of Absa Bank.
On 15 February 2019, Absa Bank submitted a request to SARS, in terms of s 9 of the Tax Administration
Act, 28 of 2011 (the TAA), to withdraw the notices. It was contended that the application of GAAR was
tainted by an error of law since the notices indicated that SARS accepted that Absa Bank was not a
party to an avoidance arrangement. They requested that the period for the filing of a response to the
notices be extended further. SARS extended the period to 31 March 2019. On 5 March 2019, SARS
informed Absa Bank that it was not withdrawing the notices. It disputed the submissions by Absa Bank
and stated that their objections should be addressed in the process of responding to the notices as
envisaged by s 80J.
On 29 March 2019, Absa Bank launched an application to review the refusal to withdraw the s 80J
notices. They simultaneously submitted responses to the s 80J notices. While the review application
was pending before the high court, SARS, acting in terms of s 80B of the ITA, determined that Absa
Bank were liable for additional tax. It issued additional assessments on the basis that they were parties
to an impermissible avoidance arrangement, on 17 October 2019.
Absa Bank then amended its review application to introduce a review of the assessments.
The high court concluded that the decision not to withdraw the s 80J notices was administrative action
susceptible of review. It held that the basis upon which the notices were issued and the assessments
were raised, were inextricably linked. It found that SARS was bound by the facts it recorded in the
notices, as had been disclosed by Absa Bank. The high court therefore found that the grounds of review
involved only questions of law. This constituted exceptional circumstances as envisaged by s 105 of
the TAA, which entitled it to hear the matter. It upheld the grounds of review, found that the notices and
assessments were unlawful, and set them aside.
The appeal came before the SCA with the leave of the high court. Three issues arose for decision:
a) Whether a decision not to withdrawal s 80J notice is reviewable prior to or after the issuing of
an assessment envisaged in s 80B of the ITA?
b) Whether the high court was correct to characterise the challenge as being wholly questions of
law which entitled it to exercise its jurisdiction in terms of s 105 of the TAA; and if so
c) Whether the high court was correct in its determination of the dispute?
The SCA found, on the first question, that the refusal to withdraw a s 80J notice can have no adverse
effect or impact upon a taxpayer. Its effect left the notice in place until a final decision was made to
determine a tax liability. It found that the high court had correctly held that the issuing of a s 80J notice
did not constitute administrative action. Contrary to the high court, it held that the act of keeping the
notice extant also did not constitute administrative action.
The SCA held that the s 80J notices were overtaken by the decisions to impose a tax liability as provided
by s 80B. The review of the refusal to withdraw the notices was therefore academic.
In relation to the review of the assessments, s 105 of the TAA applied. The SCA confirmed the principle
that the high court will only exercise its jurisdiction in exceptional circumstances. It found that the high
court was wrong in finding that SARS had accepted and was therefore bound by the facts disclosed by
Absa Bank. It held that participation in an arrangement; its purpose and effect; and whether it constituted
an impermissible avoidance arrangement involve questions of fact and law. The high court had
therefore erred in its characterisation of the dispute as being wholly one of law. The high court was
therefore incorrect to find that exceptional circumstances were present to entitle it to exercise jurisdiction
in terms of s 105 of the TAA.
The SCA upheld the appeal with costs and set aside the high court orders. It substituted the orders with
one dismissing the application with costs.
--------ends-------- |
3249 | non-electoral | 2007 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
REPORTABLE
In the matter between :
Case No: 543/06
1)
ROAD ACCIDENT FUND
APPELLANT
and
ISHWARDUTT RAMPUKAR
RESPONDENT
Case No: 314/07
2)
ROAD ACCIDENT FUND
APPELLANT
and
JENNIFER BUSIE GUMEDE
RESPONDENT
CORAM :
SCOTT, BRAND, MAYA JJA HURT et MHLANTLA AJJA
HEARD :
8 NOVEMBER 2007
DELIVERED :
28 NOVEMBER 2007
Summary:
Section 3(1)(a) of Act 41 of 2001 – jurisdiction under s 19 of
Supreme Court Act 59 of 1959 on part of transferring court
not a requirement – operation of section not limited to areas
affected by change of jurisdiction under s 2 of the Act.
Neutral citation:
This judgment may be referred to as Road Accident Fund v
Rampukar/Road Accident Fund v Gumede [2007] SCA 148
(RSA)
BRAND JA/
BRAND JA:
[1] These two appeals were heard together because the issues they raise are
substantially the same. In essence they turn on the interpretation of s 3(1)(a) of
the Interim Rationalisation of Jurisdiction of High Courts Act 41 of 2001. By the
nature of things, I am bound to return to the provisions of the Act in more detail
when evaluating the opposing contentions. Broadly stated for introductory
purposes, however, s 3(1)(a) affords a High Court the authority to order the
removal of civil proceedings instituted in that court to another High Court if it
appears to the former that such proceedings should have been instituted in the
latter.
[2] The appellant in both matters is the Road Accident Fund (‘the RAF’) which
has its principal place of business for purposes of s 19(1) of the Supreme Court
Act 59 of 1959 (in the sense contemplated, eg in K Bisonboard Ltd v K Braun
Woodworking Machinery (Pty) Ltd 1991 (1) SA 482 (A) at 496A-C) within the
area of jurisdiction of the Pretoria High Court. Another feature common to both
matters is that the motor vehicle accidents that gave rise to the respondents’
claims against the RAF occurred in the province of KwaZulu-Natal. Yet, the
respondents did not institute their actions against the RAF in the Pretoria High
Court or in the High Courts of KwaZulu-Natal, which would appear to be the
options indicated by s 19(1) of the Supreme Court Act. While Mr Rampukar’s
action was launched in the Johannesburg High Court, Mrs Gumede brought hers
in the Cape. In each case the RAF raised the special plea that the court had no
jurisdiction, whereupon both the respondents conceded the validity of this special
defence.
[3] After making the concession that the Johannesburg High Court had no
jurisdiction, Mr Rampukar brought an application in that court, based on s 3(1)(a)
of the Act, for an order that his action be transferred to the Pretoria High Court
where the RAF has its principal place of business. Despite opposition by the
RAF, the application was granted by Willis J. Mrs Gumede brought the same
application in the Cape High Court, save that she wanted her action to be
transferred to the Pietermaritzburg High Court within whose area of jurisdiction
the accident giving rise to her claim occurred. Relying inter alia, on the judgment
of Willis J in Rampukar, Van Reenen J granted her application as well. The
appeals against these two judgments are with the leave of the court a quo in
each case.
[4] I think the issues that arose on appeal will best be understood against the
background and the relevant provisions of the Act. The background appears from
the comprehensive preamble to the Act. In essence it amounts to this: by virtue
of item 16(4)(a)(1) of Schedule 6 to the Constitution, Act 108 of 1996, all
provincial and local divisions of the erstwhile Supreme Court of South Africa as
well as the superior courts of former homelands, became High Courts under the
Constitution without any alteration in their areas of jurisdiction. Item 16(6)(a) of
the same Schedule 6 provided, however, that there should be a comprehensive
rationalisation of various matters concerning these newly created High Courts,
including their areas of jurisdiction, as soon as possible after the Constitution
took effect. But the legislature foresaw that the finalisation of the comprehensive
rationalisation process would require considerable time. In the meantime, interim
changes to the areas of jurisdiction of some High Courts were urgently
necessary. Consequently, so the preamble to the Act explains, the legislature
decided to promulgate the Act in order to facilitate these interim changes.
[5] The relevant provisions of the Act are contained in ss 2, 3 and 4. They
read as follows:
‘2
Minister may alter area of jurisdiction of any High Court
(1) Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law, the Minister [of Justice] may, after
consultation with the Judicial Service Commission, by notice in the Gazette -
(a)
alter the area of jurisdiction for which a High Court has been established by including
therein or excising therefrom any [magisterial] district or part thereof;
(b)
amend or withdraw any notice issued in terms of this section.
(2) Any notice referred to in subsection (1) must be approved by Parliament before
publication thereof in the Gazette.
(3) The publication of a notice referred to in subsection (1) does not affect any
proceedings which have been instituted but not yet completed at the time of such publication.
Transfer of proceedings from one High Court to another
(1) If any civil proceedings have been instituted in any High Court, and it appears to the
Court concerned that such proceedings -
(a)
should have been instituted in another High Court; or
(b)
would be more conveniently or more appropriately heard or determined in another High
Court,
the Court may, upon application by any party thereto and after hearing all other parties thereto,
order such proceedings to be removed to that other High Court.
(2) An order for removal under subsection (1) must be transmitted to the registrar of the
High Court to which the removal is ordered, and upon receipt of such order that Court may hear
and determine the proceedings in question.
Repeal of laws and saving
(1) Subsections (1) and (4) of section 6 of, and the First Schedule to, the Supreme Court
Act, 1959, are hereby repealed.
(2) Notwithstanding the repeal of the laws referred to in subsection (1), the seats and the
areas of jurisdiction of the High Courts referred to in the said First Schedule shall, subject to any
alteration under section 2, remain as they were immediately before the commencement of this
Act.’
[6] To complete the picture: the provisions of the Supreme Court Act which
are repealed by s 4(1) and saved by s 4(2) of the Act, are those defining the
geographical areas of jurisdiction of the divisions of the Supreme Court. After the
Act came into operation on 5 December 2001, the Minister of Justice on more
than one occasion, effected alterations to the areas of jurisdiction of different
High Courts by way of notices in the Government Gazette as contemplated in
s 2. These alterations are conveniently set out in Erasmus, Superior Court
Practice, at A1-106B to A1-106C. Suffice it to say for present purposes, however,
that neither Pretoria – where the RAF’s principal place of business is situated –
nor any of the areas in KwaZulu-Natal – where the two accidents in question
occurred – were affected by any of these alterations. Conversely stated, the
Johannesburg High Court and the Cape High Court, where the present matters
were instituted, never had jurisdiction to entertain these cases.
[7] In the Rampukar appeal, the RAF limited itself to the contention that, on a
proper interpretation of s 3(1)(a) of the Act, the court a quo was not authorised to
transfer the proceedings to another High Court. In Gumede it raised the same
argument, but contended, in the alternative, that even if the court a quo had the
power to do so, it should not have exercised the discretion it derives from the
section in favour of the respondent.
[8] The RAF’s first argument in support of its main contention raised in both
matters departed from the premise that, as a matter of basic principle, a court
that has no jurisdiction to decide a particular case, also has no jurisdiction to deal
with that case by transferring it to another court. And, so the RAF’s argument
proceeded, there is nothing in s 3(1)(a) which is indicative of an intention to
change that basic principle. For the proposed basic principle pivotal to this
argument, the RAF sought to rely on a long line of cases relating to s 9(1) of the
Supreme Court Act and the similarly worded predecessors to that section in
earlier legislation (see eg Van Dijk v Van Dijk 1911 WLD 203 at 204; Ying Woon
v Secretary for Transport 1964 (1) SA 103 (N) at 108C-F; Welgemoed and
another NNO v The Master 1976 (1) SA 513 (T) at 523A-D).
[9] The wording of s 9(1) of the Supreme Court Act closely resembles
s 3(1)(b) of the Act. In fact, the provisions of these two enactments are so similar
that it gives rise to the suggestion that the latter had superseded the former
without express repeal (see eg Nongovu NO v Road Accident Fund 2007 (1) SA
59 (T) para 10; L T C Harms, Civil Procedure in the Supreme Court, A-34).
Whether this is so or not, is not necessary to decide. Of significance for present
purposes, however, are two things. First, s 3(1)(a) of the Act is new. It has no
counterpart in the Supreme Court Act or any of its predecessors. Secondly,
s 3(1)(a) and s 3(1)(b) deal with completely disparate situations.
[10] As I see it, s 3(1)(a), on its own wording, deals with the situation where the
proceedings should have been instituted in ‘the other court’, ie the transferee
court. This can only mean that they should not have been instituted in the court
where they were in fact instituted, ie the transferring court. Admittedly the section
suggests no reason why they should not have been so instituted. But, in the
context of an act dealing with jurisdiction, the only reason I can think of is that the
transferring court lacked jurisdiction to determine the dispute between the parties
under s 19(1) of the Supreme Court Act. In these circumstances, s 3(1)(a) does
not bestow the transferring court with jurisdiction to entertain and decide the main
dispute; all the section does is to afford the transferring court the limited
jurisdiction – which otherwise it would not have had – to transfer the matter to the
‘right’ court, ie the court with proper jurisdiction to determine the dispute under
s 19(1) of the Supreme Court Act. Thus understood, I think the situation that
s 3(1)(a) seeks to address is obvious. It is the one where a plaintiff has wrongly
instituted proceedings in the transferring court instead of the transferee court and
now seeks a transfer from the former to the latter.
[11] Stated somewhat differently; if both s 3(1)(a) and s 3(1)(b) require original
jurisdiction on the part of the transferring court – as the RAF will have it – I
cannot see what purpose s 3(1)(a) could possibly serve in addition to s 3(1)(b).
Why would a court with jurisdiction to determine the matter transfer that matter to
another court, unless it is convenient or appropriate to do so, as contemplated in
s 3(1)(b)? As I understand s 3(1)(a), it complements s 3(1)(b) in that the two
sections provide for what are, in a sense, converse situations. According to the
interpretation previously given to s 9(1) of the Supreme Court Act – which must
as a logical necessity apply to s 3(1)(b) as well – this section deals with the
situation where the transferring court has jurisdiction to determine the main
dispute. Yet it is asked to transfer the matter to the transferee court for the sake
of convenience and it matters not whether the transferee court has original
jurisdiction or not (see eg Veneta Mineraria Spa v Carolina Collieries (Pty) Ltd (in
liquidation) 1987 (4) SA 883 (A) at 888A-B). In s 3(1)(a), on the other hand, it is
the transferee court that must have original jurisdiction and not the transferring
court. In this light, the RAF’s first contention as to why the courts a quo could not
transfer the proceedings under s 3(1)(a), ie because they had no original
jurisdiction under s 19(1) of the Supreme Court Act to determine the main
disputes, is in my view unsustainable.
[12] I turn to the RAF’s second contention as to why s 3(1)(a) did not empower
the courts a quo to transfer the proceedings. According to this contention the
section is only available to parties in matters which are affected by changes in
jurisdiction under s 2 of the Act. Since the matters under consideration were not
so affected, the RAF contends, s 3(1)(a) found no application at all. In broad
outline, the argument in support of this contention proceeds as follows: the whole
Act was intended as a temporary measure to facilitate the interim rationalisation
of the areas of jurisdiction of the High Courts, pending finalisation of the more
comprehensive rationalisation process contemplated by the Constitution. That
much appears from the preamble. The mechanism for realising this goal is
created in s 2. Read in this context, s 3 constitutes no more than an ancillary
provision. It deals with the transfer of matters in the affected areas as part of the
alteration process. The interpretation of s 3(1)(a) contended for by the
respondents and endorsed by the courts a quo, so the argument goes, is far too
wide. It would result in the negation of s 19(1) of the Supreme Court Act which
specifically bestows territorial jurisdiction on the different High Courts in respect
of prescribed geographical areas. It will enable litigants to choose the court in
which they wish to institute proceedings, in total disregard of the defined and
extant areas of jurisdiction. Having regard to the limited and temporary nature of
the act, so the argument concludes, it is highly unlikely that the legislature would
have intended s 3(1)(a) to have these drastic and far reaching consequences.
[13] I do not agree that the wider interpretation of s 3(1)(a) adopted by the
courts a quo results in a negation of s 19(1) of the Supreme Court Act. On the
contrary, I believe that the wider interpretation is premised on a recognition of the
generally accepted principles of territorial jurisdiction underlying s 19(1). As I
have said before, in accordance with the wider interpretation, s 3(1)(a) does not
bestow jurisdiction on a court which has no jurisdiction under s 19(1) of the
Supreme Court Act to decide the case on its merits. All it does is to afford the
‘wrong’ court – ie the transferring court – limited jurisdiction to transfer the case
to the ‘right’ court which does have jurisdiction under s 19(1).
[14] In this light the RAF’s suggestion that the wider interpretation of s 3(1)(a)
would enable litigants to institute their actions in the courts of their choice, is
difficult to understand. It begs the question why litigants would knowingly institute
proceedings in a court with no original jurisdiction when at best for these
perverse litigants the section would enable them to seek a transfer to the right
court. This could only result in an expensive, wasteful exercise for the litigant
who will receive no perceivable benefit in return. What is more, under s 3(1)(a) a
transfer is not just for the asking. The transferring court has a discretion to refuse
the application and will presumably do so if the applicant had chosen the wrong
court for no acceptable reason.
[15] What also seems clear to me is that s 3(1)(a) was not intended for the
situation where a party instituted proceedings in a court which had jurisdiction at
the time of institution but then lost that jurisdiction due to an alteration of its area
of jurisdiction under s 2 of the Act. This situation is adequately covered by s 2(3)
which specifically provides that the publication of a notice under s 2(1) does not
affect any proceedings which were instituted prior to the publication of that
notice.
[16] Hence it can, in my view, be accepted with confidence that s 3(1)(a) was
intended to alleviate the predicament of a litigant who mistakenly instituted
proceedings in the wrong court. Once this is appreciated, an analysis of the
RAF’s argument seems to show that the essential difference between the wider
and the narrower interpretation of s 3(1)(a) turns on the reason for the mistake.
According to the narrower interpretation, there must be some link between the
reason for the mistake and a change in jurisdiction under s 2 of the Act.
Consequently, on the narrower interpretation, s 3(1)(a) only applies where the
litigant mistakenly instituted proceedings in a court which at one time had
territorial jurisdiction to decide the case, but which at the time of institution no
longer had jurisdiction due to an alteration under s 2(1). By contrast, the wider
interpretation imposes no restriction on the reason for the mistake. If a litigant
had mistakenly instituted action in the wrong court, that court has a discretion to
come to his or her aid and it matters not why the mistake was made.
[17] An appropriate starting point in deciding between these divergent
interpretations is, in my view, that as a matter of everyday language, the plain
meaning of the section imposes no limitation on the type of mistake. On the
contrary, the language seems to be as wide as it can possibly be. Yet, the RAF
contended that such limitation is indicated by the context of the preamble and the
other provisions of the Act as a whole. Read in this context, so the RAF argues,
the words ‘any High Court’ in the introductory part of s 3(1)(a) should therefore
be understood as if they were notionally qualified by the phrase ‘which had
jurisdiction prior to an alteration under s 2(1)’. This argument, of course,
immediately gives rise to the question why, if this was indeed the legislature’s
intention, it failed to take the relatively simple step of introducing the restricting
phrase.
[18] Apart from this, I have a twofold problem with the qualification contended
for by the RAF. On the one hand, it will only provide assistance to litigants whose
mistake was that they did not realise that they had been affected by a change in
jurisdiction. Litigants who made the same type of mistake by thinking that they
were affected by a change in jurisdiction while they were not, will derive no
assistance from the section, simply because the court never had any jurisdiction
to hear the case. Conversely, the section would, upon acceptance of the RAF’s
qualification, provide relief to litigants who were affected by a change in
jurisdiction, even when their mistake did not relate to the change in jurisdiction at
all, ie where they realised there had been a change in jurisdiction but for some
other reason made the mistake of initiating proceedings in the wrong court.
[19] In the end it becomes apparent, in my view, that the narrower
interpretation of s 3(1)(a) would lead to arbitrary – and sometimes even absurd –
differentiations between situations which are indistinguishable in principle. It
would permit a litigant who mistakenly instituted proceedings in the wrong court
to have the matter transferred to the right court if the mistake is excusable and of
a particular kind. But if the mistake was brought about by some other equally
excusable reason, a transfer would not be possible. More often than not this will
have the result – as in the present matters – that litigants who have made one
type of mistake may lose their claims through prescription while the claims of
other litigants who made some other mistake may be saved. I can find no
indication in s 3(1)(a) that the legislature intended to bring about this irrational
discrimination between different litigants in the same predicament.
[20] The further consideration relied upon by the RAF in support of the
narrower interpretation is that the Act was intended to be of limited duration only.
I find this proposition equally unconvincing. The mere fact that it is an interim
measure cannot, in my view, make any difference as to how it should be
understood. While it is in operation, effect must be given to it. What will happen if
and when it is repealed, is not for us to divine. The end result is that I am not
persuaded by any of the arguments advanced by the RAF that the courts a quo
were wrong in adopting the wider interpretation of s 3(1)(a).
[21] This brings me to the alternative argument raised by the RAF in Gumede,
namely that the court a quo should not have exercised the discretion bestowed
upon it by s 3(1)(a) in favour of the respondent. The evaluation of this argument
requires a somewhat more detailed account of the background facts. Mrs
Gumede’s claims against the RAF, in her personal capacity and on behalf of her
two minor children, are for the loss of support that they suffered when their
breadwinner died as a result of the injuries he sustained when the motor vehicle,
in which he travelled as a passenger, was involved in an accident with another
vehicle. The accident occurred in Mtubatuba, KwaZulu-Natal on 11 December
1998. It is common cause that, if she has to institute action anew in the
Pietermaritzburg High Court, the claim in her personal capacity – which is by far
the largest of her claims – would be lost through prescription, though the claims
of her two minor children will probably survive.
[22] In an affidavit filed in support of Mrs Gumede’s application for the transfer
of the matter, her attorney gives the reason why her action was instituted in the
Cape High Court. It appears that the reason flows directly from a directive issued
by the RAF, which was published in the June 1997 edition of De Rebus (at 383).
According to the directive, claimants were invited to lodge their claims at any of
the three offices of the RAF in Pretoria, Randburg or Cape Town. In addition, it
informed claimants that a claim would normally be administered at the office
where it was lodged and that, if legal proceedings were to follow, these should be
instituted in the High Court with jurisdiction over the area in which the
administering office is situated. This invitation was confirmed in a newsletter
distributed by the legal advice department of the RAF in October 1997. Though
Mrs Gumede’s claim had been lodged at the Randburg office of the RAF, it was,
for reasons unknown, administered by its Cape Town office. That was the sole
reason, Mrs Gumede’s attorney explained, why her action was instituted in the
Cape High Court. In fact, the attorney stated, it would be far more convenient for
her and her legal advisors to institute the action in Pietermaritzburg.
[23] Prior to the close of pleadings in the matter, judgment was handed down
by the Cape High Court in the case of Ex Parte Kajee 2004 (2) SA 534 (C) where
it was held, inter alia (at 542B), that the RAF is not entitled to consent to
jurisdiction in respect of a court which has no jurisdiction to entertain the action in
accordance with s 19 of the Supreme Court Act. Since the present appeals were
argued on the basis that Kajee was correctly decided, I specifically refrain from
expressing any view as to whether this is so. Of relevance, however, is that it
was the decision in Kajee which led to the filing of the RAF’s special plea – which
eventually proved to be successful – that the Cape High Court had no jurisdiction
to entertain Mrs Gumede’s claims.
[24] The main reason advanced by the RAF as to why the court a quo should,
in the exercise of its discretion, have refused to transfer the matter, is that, in the
event, the RAF will be deprived of the opportunity to plead prescription in respect
of Mrs Gumede’s personal claim. It appears, however, that, in the present
context, the issue of prescription is a two edged sword. It raises the question
whether in the circumstances it would be fair that Mrs Gumede should lose her
personal claim. I think not. It is clear that the confusion with regard to jurisdiction
which led to the institution of her action in the wrong court, was induced by the
RAF’s own conduct. In these circumstances, I believe, it does the RAF no credit
to rely on that very confusion to avoid Mrs Gumede’s claim. What is more, with
regard to the claims of Mrs Gumede’s minor children, a refusal to transfer the
proceedings will require a re-institution of the action in the Pietermaritzburg High
Court with the consequent waste of time and money, from which no one –
including the RAF – will derive any perceivable benefit. I therefore believe that
the court a quo cannot be criticised for the way in which its discretion was
exercised. On the contrary, I think in its position I would have done exactly the
same.
[25] In the result, both appeals are dismissed with costs.
……………….
F D J BRAND
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Concur:
SCOTT JA
MAYA JA
HURT AJA
MHLANTLA AJA | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
In the matter between
Case No: 543/06
1)
ROAD ACCIDENT FUND
APPELLANT
and
ISHWARDUTT RAMPUKAR
RESPONDENT
Case No: 314/07
2)
ROAD ACCIDENT FUND
APPELLANT
and
JENNIFER BUSIE GUMEDE
RESPONDENT
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
2007-11-28
Status:
Immediate
1.
On 28 November 2007 the SCA dismissed the appeals of the
Road Accident Fund (RAF) in these two matters. The appeals turned on
the interpretation of s 3(1)(a) of the Interim Rationalisation of Jurisdiction
of High Courts Act 41 of 2001. Broadly stated, the section affords the
High Court the authority to order the removal of civil proceedings
instituted in that court to another High Court if it appears to the former
that such proceedings should have been instituted in the latter.
2.
The two respondents both instituted their actions – arising from
motor vehicle accidents – against the RAF in what turned out to be the
wrong High Court. They then successfully applied for the transfer of their
cases to the right courts under the provisions of s 3(1)(a) of the Act. The
RAF’s contention was, however, that in the context of the Act as a
whole, the relief afforded by the section is available only to litigants
whose mistake arose from a change in the jurisdiction of the High Court
in which the action was wrongly instituted, pursuant to the other
provisions of the Act. Since the reasons why the respondents in the two
appeals instituted their actions in the wrong High Courts had nothing to
do with any change in the jurisdiction of those courts, so the RAF
argued, these actions should not have been transferred to the right
courts. This would effectively mean that the claims of both the
respondents against the RAF would have been extinguished by
prescription.
3.
The SCA did not agree with the RAF’s interpretation of s 3(1)(a),
essentially for two reasons. Firstly, because the plain language of the
section does not allow for the limitation relating to the reason for the
litigant’s mistake contended for by the RAF. Secondly, because any
restriction in the operation of the section which depended on the reason
why the litigant mistakenly instituted action in the wrong court, would
lead to an irrational and unfair discrimination between litigants whose
mistakes, though originating from different reasons, are equally
excusable. An intention to cause such irrational discrimination, so the
SCA held, cannot be attributed to the legislature.
4.
In consequence the transfers of the actions ordered by the High
Court in both matters were upheld. |
2783 | non-electoral | 2012 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 529/11
In the matter between:
The MEC for Education, KwaZulu-Natal
Appellant
and
Simphiwe Shange
Respondent
Neutral citation:
The MEC for Education, KZN v Shange (529/11) [2012] ZASCA 98
(1 June 2012)
Coram:
FARLAM, NAVSA, HEHER, SNYDERS JJA AND PETSE AJA
Heard:
8 May 2012
Delivered:
1 June 2012
Summary:
Condonation – Institution of Legal Proceedings Against Certain
Organs of State Act 40 of 2002 – knowledge of the identity of the joint
debtor.
ORDER
On appeal from: On appeal from Kwa-Zulu Natal High Court, Durban (Govindasamy AJ
sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
JUDGMENT
SNYDERS JA (FARLAM, NAVSA, HEHER JJA and PETSE AJA concurring)
[1] During June 2003 the respondent, a 15 year old Grade 9 learner, suffered a blunt
force injury to his right eye, allegedly at the hand of one of his teachers who was
administering corporal punishment with a belt to another learner. The tip of the belt
struck the respondent on the side of his eye. An action was instituted by the respondent
to recover damages from the appellant. Before the matter proceeded to trial an
application was launched by the respondent to seek condonation for what seemed an
acknowledged non-compliance with the provisions of the Institution of Legal
Proceedings against Organs of State Act 40 of 2002 (the Act). The court below
(Govindasamy AJ sitting as court of first instance) granted the application for
condonation and awarded the respondent the costs of the application. The appellant
sought and obtained leave to appeal from the court below.
[2] For the purpose of the condonation application in terms of s 3(4) of the Act, the facts
alleged by the respondent are essentially undisputed. The incident occurred during
June 2003. The respondent, who was born on 27 August 1987, was 15 years and 10
months old at the time. After the incident the relevant teacher told him that the injury he
suffered was caused ‘by mistake’. The respondent accepted that explanation. During
January 2006, when he was 18 years and 5 months old and still a minor, comments by
a friend of the respondent’s family, who noticed the latter wearing an eye patch,
motivated him to bring the incident to the attention of the office of the Public Protector.
An advocate from that office not only advised him to see an attorney, but informed him
that he had a claim against the appellant. Consequently, he consulted with and
instructed his attorneys of record to proceed with an action. On 2 February 2006 the
attorney dispatched a notice in terms of s 3 of the Act to the Minister of Education. The
relevant provisions of s 3 are:
‘(1) No legal proceedings for the recovery of a debt may be instituted against an organ of state
unless-
(a) the creditor has given the organ of state in question notice in writing of his or her or its
intention to institute the legal proceedings in question; or
(b) . . .
(2) A notice must –
(a) within six months from the date on which the debt became due, be served on the organ of
state in accordance with section 4(1); and
(b) . . .
(3) For purposes of subsection (2)(a)-
(a) a debt may not be regarded as being due until the creditor has knowledge of the identity of
the organ of state and of the facts giving rise to the debt, but a creditor must be regarded as
having acquired it by exercising reasonable care, unless the organ of state willfully prevented
him or her or it from acquiring such knowledge; and
(b) . . . . ‘
4(a) If an organ of state relies on a creditor’s failure to serve a notice in terms of subsection
(2)(a), the creditor may apply to a court having jurisdiction for condonation of such failure.
(b) The court may grant an application referred to in paragraph (a) if it is satisfied that-
(i) the debt has not been extinguished by prescription;
(ii) good cause exists for the failure by the creditor; and
(iii) the organ of state was not unreasonably prejudiced by the failure.
(c) . . . .’ 1
[3] On 3 December 2008 the respondent’s summons was served on the appellant. The
appellant delivered a special plea in which she sought the dismissal of the respondent’s
claim for non-compliance with ss 3(1)(a) and 3(2)(a) of the Act. This prompted the
respondent’s attorneys to do two things. First, on 7 May 2010, they dispatched a notice
1 Subsection (3)(a) largely echoes the provisions of s 12(2) and (3) of the Prescription Act 68 of 1969.
in terms of s 3 of the Act to the appellant, and second, they brought an application for
condonation in terms of s 3(4)(a) of the Act.
[4] The court below granted condonation on four bases.2 First, it concluded that ‘a child
whose cause of action arose before the commencement of s 17 of the Children’s Act 38
of 2005 is still entitled to the same period of time in which to institute his or her claim for
damages as he or she would have been, had the age of majority not been changed.
Second, that the respondent became ‘aware of his claim’ on 18 January 2006, the date
of the first consultation with an attorney. Third, that notice to the Minister of Education
and not the appellant (until much later) was an oversight on the part of the respondent’s
attorney that should not be attributed to the respondent. Fourth, that ‘any prejudice
which the [appellant] may have suffered as a result of failure to give notice, could not be
regarded as unreasonable or insurmountable in the circumstances’.
[5] This appeal turns on a question that had not been previously asked nor answered.
The facts alleged by the respondent, if proven during the trial, indicate that from the
outset, two joint debtors were liable for the delict that the respondent suffered - first, the
teacher that committed the assault on the respondent whilst acting within the course
and scope of his employment and second, the teacher’s employer, the appellant. No
claim has been pursued against the teacher. The primary question that should have
been asked was whether the court could be satisfied that the condition in s 3(4)(b)(i)
has been met in respect of the debt the respondent was trying to enforce against the
appellant.
[6] The answer to the question is to be found in the facts alleged by the respondent,
which are mostly unchallenged, applied to the requirements of s 12(3) of the
Prescription Act 68 of 1969. In order to appreciate the full context of the section, I quote
the entire s 12 and emphasize those portions that are pertinent to the question posed:
‘(1) Subject to the provisions of subsections (2), (3) and (4), prescription shall commence to run
as soon as the debt is due.
2 The judgment of the court below has been reported as Shange v MEC for Education, KwaZulu-Natal
2012 (2) SA 519 (KZD).
(2) If the debtor wilfully prevents the creditor from coming to know of the existence of the debt,
prescription shall not commence to run until the creditor becomes aware of the existence of the
debt.
(3) A debt shall not be deemed to be due until the creditor has knowledge of the identity of the
debtor and of the facts from which the debt arise: Provided that a creditor shall be deemed to
have such knowledge if he could have acquired it by exercising reasonable care.’
[7] Immediately after the incident occurred, the respondent knew almost all the facts
from which the debt arose: he experienced the event; he knew how it happened; he
knew that it was a teacher who inflicted the injury; that it happened during school hours
and at school. Insofar as his claim against the teacher was concerned, that debt
became due immediately. However, whether he, as a 15 year old rural learner, knew
the identity of the appellant as joint debtor, is not apparent from those facts.
[8] The respondent’s attorney of record made an affidavit as part of the founding papers
filed on behalf of the respondent. At paragraphs 29, 31 and 32 she states:
’29 The delict giving rise to the [respondent’s] claim against the [appellant] (“the incident”)
occurred in June 2003 at which stage the [respondent] was 15 years old and a minor. More
importantly, at the time of the incident, the [respondent] was told that the incident was a
mistake. This is what he understood it to be until early in January 2006 when, following
questions from a friend of his mother’s about the eye patch he was wearing, it was suggested to
him that the Deputy-Principal’s conduct was wrongful. Following this suggestion in early January
2006 and further advice from his mother’s friend that he should lay a complaint with the Public
Protector, the [respondent] swiftly set about doing so.
30 . . .
31 Until January 2006, either early in that month when he received advice from his mother’s
friend, or later in that month when he was given advice by an Advocate at the office of the
Public Protector, the [respondent] understood the incident to have been a mistake. He knew at
whose hand the incident was committed but only after receiving advice in January 2006 did the
[respondent] appreciate that the Deputy-Principal had acted wrongfully.
32 It was this appreciation in January 2006 that would have set prescription in motion but for the
fact that the [respondent] was 18 years old at the time. He was therefore a minor against whom
prescription did not run, minority being a statutory impediment to prescription.’3
[9] In his own affidavit the respondent explains that he went to the office of the Public
Protector where he was requested to furnish them with an affidavit of the incident, which
he did. He then sets out what had happened:
‘In response to my complaint, an advocate at the Public Protector’s office telephoned me to say
that I should seek the help of a private lawyer. She said that I should bring a civil claim against
the Department of Education. Before she told me this I did not know that there was anything I
could do about what had happened. I thought that Mr Biyela had hit me by mistake and that that
was the end of the matter.’ (My emphasis)
[10] The affidavit by the attorney from which I have quoted above, illustrates that the
relevant question of the identity of the appellant as the respondent’s debtor is not
addressed. Instead the attorney focuses on allegations of wrongfulness that, in a long
line of cases in this Court, has been held to be an irrelevant consideration when the
provisions of s 12(3) of the Prescription Act are considered.4
[11] The respondent’s affidavit comes closer to addressing the real question. He states
that an advocate in the office of the Public Protector advised him, in January 2006, to
institute a civil claim against the appellant. Unfortunately the respondent’s legal
representatives did not appreciate the significance of this fact. Its disclosure, evidently
3 The legal statements that minority prevented the running of prescription are incorrect, but for purposes
of this judgment it is not necessary to explore. See ABP 4x4 Motor Dealers (Pty) Ltd v IGI Insurance Co
Ltd 1999(3) SA 924 (SCA) para 15.
4 Gericke v Sack 1978 (1) SA 821 (A); Van Staden v Fourie 1989 (3) SA 200 (A) at 216B-F; Nedcor Bank
Bpk v Regering van die Republiek van Suid-Afrika 2001 (1) SA 987 (HHA) para 8-11 and 13; Truter v
Deysel 2006 (4) SA 168 (SCA) para 18; Minister of Finance & others v Gore NO 2007 (1) SA 111 (SCA)
para 17; Yellow Star Properties 1020 (Pty) Ltd v MEC, Department of Development Planning and Local
Government, Gauteng [2009] 3 All SA 475 (SCA) para 37. In Van Zijl v Hoogenhout [2004] 4 All SA 427
(SCA) this Court accepted the expert evidence of the mental, emotional and psychological condition of
the victim of a sexual offence as proof that she did not know the identity of her creditor within the meaning
of s 12(3) of the Prescription Act. Insofar as that case could conceivably be interpreted as an attempt to
broaden the provision of s 12(3), that prospect was removed by the legislature by the introduction of s
12(4) of the Prescription Act by Act 23 of 2007 on 16 December 2007 which deals with the running of
prescription in relation to sexual offences as in the case of Van Zijl.
for the first time, informed the respondent of the identity of the appellant as the joint
debtor of the teacher who injured him. He was a rural learner of whom it could not be
expected to reasonably have had the knowledge that not only the teacher was his
debtor, but more importantly, that the appellant was a joint debtor. Only when he was
informed of this fact did he know the identity of the appellant as his debtor for the
purposes of the provisions of s 12(3) of the Prescription Act.
[12] Section 3(4)(b) of the Act requires a court to be ‘satisfied’ that the debt has not
become extinguished by prescription, before it could grant an application for
condonation. In Madinda v Minister of Safety and Security 2008 (4) SA 312 (SCA) para
8 this Court held:
‘The phrase “if [the court] is satisfied” in s 3(4)(b) has long been recognised as setting a
standard which is not proof on a balance of probability. Rather it is the overall impression made
on a court which brings a fair mind to the facts set up by the parties. See eg Die Afrikaanse Pers
Beperk v Neser 1948 (2) SA 295 (C) at 297. I see no reason to place a stricter construction on it
in the present context.’
I am satisfied that a careful scrutiny of the unchallenged facts put up by the respondent
taken together with the circumstances in which he found himself give rise to the overall
factual conclusion, fairly arrived at, that the condition in s 3(4)(b)(i) of the Act does not
operate against the respondent. On the facts, the respondent, in consulting an advocate
in the office of the Public Protector and his attorney during January 2006, should
reasonably have become aware, for the first time, that he had a claim against the
appellant. If prescription commenced running at that time it would, by 1 July 2007, when
the respondent, ex lege, achieved majority, have already run for some eighteen months.
By reason of s 13(1) of the Prescription Act, the respondent was entitled to the benefit
of the full relevant period of prescription, ie three years, before his claim would be
extinguished. That was until at least January 2009. Summons was in fact served on the
appellant on 3 December 2008.
[13] There was therefore no need for the court below to have entered into the involved
investigation of the effect of s 17 of the Children’s Act, which changed the age of
majority to 18 years, on the running of prescription in respect of the respondent’s claim.5
[14] The next enquiry is in terms of s 3(4)(b)(ii) of the Act, whether good cause exists for
the failure by the respondent to have given timeous notice to the appellant. The notice
was given after the issue of summons, on 7 May 2010, very much outside six months
from the date on which the debt became due as required by s 3(2)(a) of the Act.
[15] The provisions of s 3(4)(b)(ii) of the Act have been considered in several
judgments.6 For present purposes it is not necessary to repeat all of the relevant
considerations, but only to state that the court is to exercise a wide discretion;7 that
‘good cause’ may include a number of factors that is entirely dependent on the facts of
each case;8 that the prospects of success of the intended claim play a significant role.9
[16] As has already been pointed out, the respondent was totally reliant on prompting by
others with more insight to take steps to enforce his claim. The way in which he has
been gravely let down in this regard, is a distinguishing feature of this case. The
absence of the guidance of his legal guardian is glaringly evident. His own teacher led
him to believe that nothing could be done about the incident. The respondent’s bona
fide belief that his teacher’s explanation put an end to the matter was never challenged
by the appellant. It serves to adequately explain the delay in any steps having been
taken until January 2006. The respondent’s misfortune did not end when he consulted
his attorney. After January 2006 the respondent’s attorney took reasonably prompt
action in dispatching a notice, but, incorrectly to the Minister of Education and not the
appellant. The court below, with ample justification, referred to the ‘devil’s brew of
5 The change in the age of majority occurred on 1 July 2007 when s 17 of the Children’s Act 38 of 2005
came into operation, simultaneous with the repeal of the Age of Majority Act 57 of 1972.
6 Madinda v Minister of Safety and Security 2008 (4) SA 312 (SCA); Minister of Safety and Security v De
Witt 2009 (1) SA 457 (SCA); Minister of Agriculture and Land Affairs v C J Rance (Pty) Ltd 2010 (4) SA
109 (SCA); Premier, Western Cape v Lakay 2012 (2) SA 1 (SCA).
7 Madinda para 8; Lakay para 14.
8 Madinda para 10; Rance para 36.
9 Rance para 37.
mistakes, failures and delays in the prosecution of the [respondent’s] claim’, caused by
the respondent’s attorneys.
[17] The court below excused the respondent for his attorney’s mistake in directing the
notice to the Minister of Education and not the appellant, in the following words:
’However, as a result of an oversight on the [respondent’s] attorney’s part, notice, on the
[respondent’s] behalf, was sent to the Minister of National Education and not to the Respondent.
Smith’s affidavit reveals a devil’s brew of mistakes, failures and delays in the prosecution of
[respondent’s] case. Clearly the oversight on her part arose from a failure to appreciate the fact
that the Minister of Education and the [appellant] are two distinct organs of State. Mr Bedderson
submitted that the [respondent’s] attorney’s failure cannot be attributed to the [respondent]. I
agree that any failure on the part of the [respondent’s] attorney should not be held against the
[respondent].’
[18] This conclusion does not specifically take account of the law relating to whether
attorneys’ mistakes are to be attributed to their clients.10 There was, however, no need
to approach the matter from this perspective. The facts referred to above provide ample
indication that no blame for any delay or failure is to be attributed to the respondent. In
the circumstances he is not to be treated as an ordinary litigant, he was a minor, who
sought assistance in order to advance a legitimate claim. Those who had the
responsibility of looking after his interests, failed him miserably. It is possible to prevent
the prejudice consequent upon those failures to continue to adversely affect the
respondent.
[19] The appellant has never suggested that the respondent has not acted reasonably
or has not been bona fide in his attempts to enforce a legitimate claim that arises from
an infringement of his rights. The appellant has also not disputed, in these proceedings,
the merits of the respondent’s allegations, which indicate strong prospects of success.
10 Saloojee & another NNO v Minister of community Development 1965 (2) SA 135 (A) at 141H; Ferreira v
Ntshingila 1990 (4) SA 271 (A) at 281G.
[20] In Minister of Safety and Security v De Witt 2009 (1) SA 457 (SCA) paras 5, 11 and
13 it was held that condonation in terms of s 3(4)(b) of the Act could appropriately be
granted even if no notice was given, or notice was given after the service of summons,
provided that the debt had not prescribed.
[21] I am satisfied, for purposes of s 3(4)(b)(ii) of the Act that good case exists for the
failure by the respondent to have given timeous notice to the appellant.
[22] The last question to consider relevant to condonation arises from the provisions of s
3(4)(b)(iii) of the Act. The court below had to be satisfied that the appellant was not
unreasonably prejudiced by the failure to give timeous notice. The facts limit the
investigation to only two considerations. First, the complaint of prejudice raised by the
appellant is general and unspecified in its terms and unrelated to any facts that indicate
prejudice. Second, the respondent’s allegations that the teacher involved is now the
principal of the same school and that pupils that were present during the incident,
identified by name, are still available, are unchallenged. The absence of any prejudice is
therefore illustrated by these facts.
[23] Consequently, the conclusion by the court below to grant condonation to the
respondent, is to be upheld.
[24] The court below granted the respondent the costs of the application for
condonation. At first glance that seems to be incongruous, bearing in mind the usual
order made when a party seeks condonation for a procedural failure and the opposition
to the application is not unreasonable. However in Lakay, Cloete JA explained the
difference in reasoning as follows:
‘Ordinarily, in applications for condonation for non-observance of court procedure, a litigant is
obliged to seek the indulgence of the court whatever the attitude of the other side and for that
reason will have to pay the latter’s costs if it does oppose, unless the opposition was
unreasonable. I doubt that this is the correct approach in matters such as the present, as an
application for condonation under the 2002 Act has nothing to do with non-observance of court
procedure, but is for permission to enforce a right, which permission may be granted within
prescribed statutory parameters; and such an application is (in terms of s3(4)) only necessary if
the organ of State relies on a creditor’s failure to serve a notice. In the circumstances there is
much to be said for the view that where an application for condonation in a case such as the
present is opposed, costs should follow the result.’11
I am in full agreement with this view and therefore see no reason to interfere with the
costs order by the court below.
[25] The appeal is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
_____________________
S SNYDERS
Judge of Appeal
11 Para 25.
APPEARANCES:
For the Appellant:
A K Kissoon-Singh SC
Instructed by:
The State Attorney, Kwazulu-Natal
The State Attorney, Free State
For the Respondent:
M Pillemer SC (with him B Bedderson)
Instructed by:
Norman, Wink & Stephens, Cape Town
McIntyre van der Post, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
01 June 2012
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the
media and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of
Appeal.
* * *
A 15 year old rural learner suffered an injury to his eye. His injury occurred
when his teacher beat a co-learner with a belt and the tip of the belt struck
him on the side of his eye. This incident took place during June of 2003.
Since then, he has been let down by various adults in bringing his claim to
court, to the extent that he has been compelled to fight a procedural issue as
far as this Court. The procedural issue raises the question whether his claim
has become prescribed, if so, there would be no recourse for him in relation
to the injury he suffered.
The Supreme Court of Appeal decided the appeal in favour of the
respondent and against the MEC for Education, KwaZulu-Natal. It found that
the respondent had only learnt from the office of the Public Protector, when
in January 2006 he informed it of his injury, that the MEC was a joint debtor
along with the teacher who inflicted the injury. Only then was the fact of
identity of the joint debtor known to him. Hence his claim had not become
prescribed. The further result of the order made by the Supreme Court of
Appeal is that the respondent would now be able to proceed with his
pending claim in the high court against the MEC. |
3533 | non-electoral | 2021 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 724/2019
In the matter between:
MATSHEPO RAMAKATSA
FIRST APPELLANT
THEMBA MVANDABA
SECOND APPELLANT
SHASHAPA JOSHUA MOTAUNG
THIRD APPELLANT
and
AFRICAN NATIONAL CONGRESS
FIRST RESPONDENT
MEMBERS OF THE FREE STATE PROVINCIAL
EXECUTIVE COMMITTEE OF THE
AFRICAN NATIONAL CONGRESS
SECOND RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Ramakatsa and Others v African National Congress and Another
(Case No. 724/2019) [2021] ZASCA 31 (31 March 2021)
Coram:
SALDULKER, MOCUMIE and DLODLO JJA and CARELSE and
WEINER AJJA
Heard:
15 February 2021
Delivered:
This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties’ legal representatives by email. It has been published on the
website of the Supreme Court of Appeal and released to SAFLII.
The date and time for hand-down is deemed to be 10h00 on 31
March 2021.
Summary: Civil Procedure – appeal – lawfulness of the respondents’ Provincial
Conference in the Free State in 2018 – whether the relevant audit requirements complied
with, prior to the Provincial Conference - whether the necessary Branch General Meetings
(BGMs) were held lawfully prior to the Provincial Conference – whether it was open to the
appellants to attack BGMs which were not affected by the Court order of 15 December
2017 – whether the court below was correct in its application of Plascon Evans rule –
whether the appellants established irregularities in light of the rebuttals by the
respondents in their answering affidavits.
______________________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Free State Division of the High Court, Bloemfontein (Jordaan J sitting
as court of first instance):
1 Leave to appeal is granted and the costs occasioned by the application for leave to
appeal (in this Court as well as in the Court below) are costs in the appeal.
2 The appeal is upheld with costs including costs occasioned by the employment of
two counsel.
3 The order of the Court below is set aside and replaced by the following:
'It is declared that the Provincial Conference for the Free State Province that took place
on 18 and 19 May 2018 was held in violation of the Court order of 29 November 2017
under case number 5942/2017 and that the said Provincial Conference, its
decisions/resolutions and/or outcome are unlawful and unconstitutional.'
4 The declaration of invalidity mentioned in paragraph 3 of the order shall only be
effective as from the date of the delivery of this judgment.
______________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________________
Dlodlo JA (Saldulker and Mocumie JJA, Carelse and Weiner AJJA concurring):
[1] The application before the Free State Division of the High Court, Bloemfontein
(high court) concerned the lawfulness and validity of the Provincial conference of the
African National Congress (the ANC) for the Free State which took place on 18 and 19
May 2018. Before this Court, it arises as an application for leave to appeal against a
judgment of the high court,1 Jordaan J sitting as a court of first instance. The application
for leave has been set down for oral argument and the parties directed to be prepared, if
called upon to do so, to address the merits of the appeal.
1 In terms of s 17(2) (b) of the Superior Court’s Act 10 2013.
[2] Before the high court, the appellants sought a declaration that the Provincial
conference (the PC) for the Free State Province that took place on 18 and 19 May 2018
was held in violation of the court order dated 29 November 2017 under Free State case
number 5942/2017 and that such PC, its decision/resolutions and/or outcome were
unlawful and unconstitutional. The appellants also sought a declaration that the
respondents acted in contempt of this same court order.
[3] It is common cause that on 29 November 2017 the high court made an order that
the PC of the ANC in the Free State was not to be held until certain Branch General
Meetings (BGMs) had been held in a lawful manner that accords with the Constitution of
the ANC. The members of the ANC had contended that their rights in terms of section 19
of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa (the Constitution) had been infringed
and that the respondents had breached the provisions of the ANC Constitution and
National Guidelines which mirror the Constitution of the ANC on elections (the ANC 2018
Guidelines).2 The contention by the appellants was that as provided in the ANC
Guidelines, at the heart of any lawfully convened conference of the ANC, whether at the
Regional, Provincial or National level, is the basic requirement that delegates participating
at such gatherings must have been elected at properly constituted BGMs. The rationale
behind the contention was that if persons who participated at such conference as
delegates, who had not been elected at properly constituted BMGs or if delegates who
have been elected at properly constituted BGMs are denied such participation in a
conference, any decision to hold such conference is invalid and the outcomes of such a
conference are equally invalid and null and void.
[4] On 29 November 2017, the full court (Van Zyl, Mathebula and Mhlambi JJ) granted
an order in a judgment penned by Van Zyl J in favour of the appellants (the Van Zyl order).
The substantive relief contained in the Van Zyl order was the following:
1. It declared that the BGMs that were conducted throughout the various regions in the
Free State were irregular, unlawful, unconstitutional and/or in breach of the ANC
Constitution.
2 As amended in 2018.
2. It declared that the decision, resolutions and outcomes of those 28 BGMs are null and
void.
3. It directed that:
‘The Provincial conference of the ANC, Free State, scheduled for 1 to 3 December 2017, will be
a nullity and is not to be held until the aforesaid meetings have been held in a lawful manner and
in accordance with the Constitution of the ANC.’
[5] In complying with the Van Zyl order, out of the 50 BGMs affected, the respondents
conducted a rerun of the 28 affected BGMs between 6 and 9 December 2017. This too,
suffered from many of the same irregularities that had manifested themselves at the
BGMs prior to the Van Zyl order. The respondents, despite this, proceeded to convene
the PC on 10 and 11 December 2017. Notably, the PC took place a mere 5 days before
the National conference held at Nasrec in Johannesburg. This prompted a second urgent
application by the aggrieved members of the ANC including the first appellant, Ms
Ramakatsa.
[6] On 15 December 2017, the Free State High Court, with a full court presiding,
(Molemela JP, Jordaan DJP and Reinders J) delivered a judgment penned by Molemela
JP in favour of the aggrieved ANC members. The Molemela order:
1. Declared that the conference held on the 10th and 11th of December 2017 and the
resolution and decisions taken at that conference were unlawful and void;
2. Declared that 14 BGMs and the decisions taken at those BGMs were unlawful and
void.
[7] These two adverse orders gave the first respondent, an opportunity to be alert and
scrupulous in ensuring compliance with the law prior to holding the 2018 PC. The
respondents convened and held the PC on 18 and 19 May 2018. This was despite a
petition signed by a number of aggrieved members delivered to the offices of the first
respondent on 14 May 2018. The petition highlighted the reasons why the PC ought not
to proceed. In addition, the appellants’ attorney sent a letter on 16 May 2018 to every
member of the Provincial Task Team in the Free State (the Free State PTT) explaining,
inter alia, that inadequate notice was given for the PC. In this letter, it was also stated
that the convening of the conference was in violation of the Van Zyl order. There was no
meaningful response from the respondents. There was, however, a letter from two Free
State PTT members who distanced themselves from the decision to hold a conference.
It appears that the insistence on proceeding with the conference prompted the launch of
the application that served before Jordaan J. On 21 February 2019, Jordaan J dismissed
the application, holding inter alia, that the allegations contained in the appellants’ founding
affidavit are based on information received from the relevant members of the specific
wards named but no confirmatory affidavits were attached. It is so that the confirmatory
affidavits were attached in the replying affidavit. However, Jordaan J, applying the well-
known Plascon-Evans3 rule found against the respondents.
[8] The high court isolated ward 3 in Lejweleputswa, recording that the appellants’
alleged that no further meetings were scheduled or held after the Molemela order. On the
other hand, (so the Jordaan J judgment went on), the respondents, alleged that
successful BGMs were scheduled and held on 19 February 2018. The high court
remarked that it was only in reply that the appellants averred that the meeting was
unlawful in that 31 of the attendees were not members in good standing. According to the
high court, the respondents made various attempts to schedule and hold reruns of the
BGMs in respect of all 14 of the wards affected by the Molemela order. Some BGMs were
successful and delegates were elected, others did not reach a quorum resulting in no
delegates being elected whilst others were disrupted by disgruntled members. The
allegations were found by the high court to be supported by documentary evidence. It
found that the appellants’ allegations to the effect that no additional meetings were held
in some of the affected wards after December 2017 were conclusively gainsaid.
[9] The high court, having found that the respondents went to great lengths to comply
with the court order concluded:
3 Plascon-Evans Paints (TVL) Ltd v Riebeck Paints (Pty) Ltd 1984 (3) SA 623 (A) at 6341.
‘There is no basis on which the allegations of the respondents can be found to be baseless,
patently false, fictitious or unsubstantiated. Their material allegations are to a large extent
substantiated by documentary evidence.’
The high court concluded its judgment as follows:
‘The dispute raised by the respondents are real and material. To the contrary, material allegations
made by the applicants were clearly unfounded, if not patently false. The main thrust of the
applicants’ case related to the alleged non-compliance with the first order. In that regard it stated
that only a few of the affected branches held reruns of the BGM’s and then only in May 2018.
That is clearly far from the truth and in stark contrast with reality.’
Failure to annex confirmatory affidavits to the founding papers must be put to rest. It is
clear in paragraph 42 of the founding affidavit that the applicants intended to attach such
confirmatory affidavits. The omission was clearly not deliberate but it must have been
done inadvertently. These affidavits surfaced in the replying affidavit. Despite the
omission, the respondents comprehensively dealt with those issues which were subject
to such confirmatory affidavits. They were not prejudiced by the failure to file them
simultaneously with the founding papers. This was repeated in the oral argument before
this Court on the day of the hearing. Counsel for the first respondent confirmed that there
could be no prejudice.4 It is trite that any applicant relying on information gathered from
another source, must always file a confirmatory affidavit. In this matter no prejudice was
caused to the respondents at all. When the matter was argued before the high court, such
affidavits had become available.
[10] Turning the focus to the relevant provisions of the Superior Courts Act5 (the SC
Act), leave to appeal may only be granted where the judges concerned are of the opinion
that the appeal would have a reasonable prospect of success or there are compelling
reasons which exist why the appeal should be heard such as the interests of justice.6 This
Court in Caratco7, concerning the provisions of s 17(1)(a)(ii) of the SC Act pointed out
4 The next day the first respondent filed a notice indicating that the respondents would be prejudiced. Not
only was this raised late but also irregularly. Thus, the belated cry of prejudice could not be taken into
account in coming to the decision this Court came to. In any event that was not the sole reason for the
decision this Court came to ultimately.
5 Section 17(2)(d) Act 10 of 2013.
6 Nova Property Holdings Limited v Cobbett & Others [2016] ZASCA 63: 2016 (4) SA 317 (SCA) para 8.
7 Caratco (Pty) Ltd v Independent Advisory (Pty) Ltd [2020] ZASCA 17; 2020 (5) SA 35 (SCA).
that if the court is unpersuaded that there are prospects of success, it must still enquire
into whether there is a compelling reason to entertain the appeal. Compelling reason
would of course include an important question of law or a discreet issue of public
importance that will have an effect on future disputes. However, this Court correctly added
that ‘but here too the merits remain vitally important and are often decisive’.8 I am mindful
of the decisions at high court level debating whether the use of the word ‘would’ as
opposed to ‘could’ possibly means that the threshold for granting the appeal has been
raised. If a reasonable prospect of success is established, leave to appeal should be
granted. Similarly, if there are some other compelling reasons why the appeal should be
heard, leave to appeal should be granted. The test of reasonable prospects of success
postulates a dispassionate decision based on the facts and the law that a court of appeal
could reasonably arrive at a conclusion different to that of the trial court. In other words,
the appellants in this matter need to convince this Court on proper grounds that they have
prospects of success on appeal. Those prospects of success must not be remote, but
there must exist a reasonable chance of succeeding. A sound rational basis for the
conclusion that there are prospects of success must be shown to exist.9
[11] The importance of this matter compels the conclusion that leave to appeal should
be granted. One must perhaps emphasise that no doubt can exist that the ANC just like
other political parties, is under an obligation to act in accordance with its own Constitution
and that a failure to do so raises matters of concern in terms of the SA’s Constitution. In
this regard, the Constitutional Court made it plain in Ramakatsa 1:10
‘[16] I do not think the Constitution could have contemplated political parties could act unlawfully.
On a broad purposive construction, I would hold that the right to participate in the activities of a
political party confers on every political party the duty to act lawfully and in accordance with its
own Constitution. This means that our Constitution gives every member of every political party
the right to exact compliance with the Constitution of a political party by the leadership of that
party. The case does raise a constitutional matter.’
8 Ibid, para 2.
9 See Smith v S [2011] ZASCA 15; 2012 (1) SACR 567 (SCA); MEC Health, Eastern Cape v Mkhitha [2016]
ZASCA 176 para 17.
10 Ramakatsa and Others v Magashule and Others [2012] ZACC 31; 2013 (2) BCLR 202 (CC) para 16.
[12] It is prudent at this stage to set out what I regard as foundational to the dispute in
this matter. Section 19 of the SA Constitution does not prescribe how members of a
political party should go about in exercising their right to participate in the activities of their
choice of party. This is not regulated by legislation at all. Talking to this, the Constitutional
Court in Ramakatsa 111 stated as follows:
‘Section 19 of the Constitution does not spell out how members of a political party should exercise
the right to participate in the activities of their party. For good reason this is left to political parties
themselves to regulate. These activities are internal matters of each political party. Therefore,
these parties are best placed to determine how members would participate in internal activities.
The various Constitutions of political parties are instruments which facilitate and regulate
participation by members in the activities of a political party.’
[13] It is the ANC Constitution that regulates and facilitates how its members may
participate in the internal activities of the party. Rule 17 of the ANC Constitution is of
importance and is set out hereunder.
‘Rule 17 Provincial Conference
17.1 Subject to the decisions of the National Conference and the National General Council, and
the overall guidance of the NEC, the Provincial Conference shall be the highest organ of the ANC
in each Province.
17.2 The Provincial Conference shall:
17.2.1 Be held at least once every 4 (four) years and more often if requested by at least one third
of all Branches in good standing in the Province.
17.2.2 Be composed of:
(i) Voting delegates as follows: . . .
(ii) Non-voting delegates . . .
Provincial Conference shall:
17.2.2.5 Determine its own procedures in accordance with democratic principles and practices;
11 Ibid para 73.
17.2.2.5 Vote on key questions by secret ballot if at least one third of the delegates at the
Provincial Conference demand it; and
17.2.2.7 . . .
17.3 The Provincial Conference shall:
17.3.1 Promote and implement the decisions and policies of the National Conference, the
National General Council, the NEC and the NWC;
17.3.2 Receive and consider reports by the Provincial Executive Committee, which shall include
the Chairperson’s address, the Secretary’s report, which shall include a report on the work and
activities of the ANC Veterans’ League, the ANC Women’s League and the ANC Youth League
in the Province, and the Treasurer’s report;
17.3.3 Elect the Provincial Chairperson, Deputy Chairperson, Secretary, Deputy Secretary,
Treasurer and the 30 (thirty) additional members of the Provincial Executive Committee, who will
hold office for four (4) years. The Provincial Secretary shall be a full-time functionary of the
Organisation;
17.3.4 Carry out and develop the policies and programmes of the ANC in the Province;
17.3.5 . . .
17.3.6 . . .
17.4 A member elected to the PEC shall resign from any position held in a lower structure in the
ANC.’ (Emphasis added.)
[14] Rule 17.2 provides in peremptory terms (it uses the word ‘shall’) and it makes
provisions which are two-fold, namely:
1. That a provincial conference shall be held at least once every four years; and
2. A Provincial conference shall be held more often if requested by at least one third of
all branches in Province. It is necessary to mention that the ANC Constitution makes
provisions that the ANC from time to time should make guidelines and these form an
integral part of the Constitution. In this matter the applicable ANC Guidelines and
Provincial conferences are dated April 2018. (Emphasis added.)
[15] Numerous complaints were made by the appellants which they contend were not
addressed prior to the holding of the PC. The appellants contended that the holding of
the PC was not, for instance, preceded by an audit process of all branches and
membership. I undertake to return to the auditing complaint later in this judgment. The
high court isolated ward three Lejweleputswa and dealt with what took place there. It did
not deal with the numerous other wards that document irregularities.
[16] One cannot turn a blind eye to what appears to have occurred in the following
wards. In Thabo Mofutsanyana ward 5 (Maluti-A-Phofung), the respondents made a
single attempt to rerun the BGMs and that was only a mere two days before the holding
of the PC. Clearly, there would have been no room for any dispute resolution provided for
in Appendix 4 of the ANC Constitution prior to the holding of the PC. As it appears, no
formal attendance register was used. Members’ names were entered in manuscript on a
blank piece of paper. There was no deployee to oversee the meeting. According to the
second respondent an attempt was made to call a deployee to attend. The point is that in
this ward, even if the BGM was quorate, the use of an informal and somewhat irregular
register rendered the BGM unlawful. How could anyone ascertain whether the persons
who registered were members in good standing? This branches’ BGM was set aside by
both the Van Zyl and Molemela orders on different dates. It is beyond question that the
respondents had a duty to ensure that it held a lawful BGM before proceeding to convene
the Provincial conference.
[17] According to the second respondent, in ward 6 in the region of Thabo
Mofutsanyana, a provincial delegate was elected at a lawfully conducted BGM. It is
apparent though from the attendance register attached to the second respondent’s
answering papers that no delegates ought to have been appointed from this branch. I say
so because 28 persons who attended the BGM could not be considered to be members
in good standing based on the attendance register itself. In truth, the meeting was not
quorate and no delegate could and/or should have been elected. To illustrate, Mr Lucky
Hadebe listed as number 6 on the attendance register last paid his membership in the
amount of R40.00 on 15 November 2015. Mr Hadebe was not a fully paid up member
and was therefore not a member in good standing. Despite this apparent glaring non-
compliance, Mr Hadebe had attended the BGM and on the common cause facts and as
evidenced by his signature on the attendance register, voted whoever was voted into
power at that BGM.
[18] Ward 11 in the Thabo Mofutsanyana region was attended by 107 persons at the
BGM who were not members in good standing because of their membership having
expired. If one deducts the 107 persons whose membership had expired from the total
number of persons who attended the meeting (195) it is itself evident that the meeting
was not quorate. The quorum required 174 attendees but only 88 paid up actual members
appear to have been in attendance. An insufficient number of members in good standing
attended to quorate the conference. Needless to mention that despite this a delegate was
elected. That this rendered the BGM and its outcome unlawful is beyond question.
[19] In ward 19 in the region of Thabo Mofutsanyana, a complaint was raised that
unknown persons had signed next to the names of certain members on the attendance
register. When this was brought to the attention of the deployee, complaining members
were accused of being disruptive. The second respondent in its answering affidavit did
not deny this irregularity. Needless to mention that the conceivable dispute of fact
regarding this irregularity did not arise. Similarly, in ward 3 in the region of Lejweleputswa,
according to the attendance register which was attached to the second respondent’s
answering affidavit 31 persons attended the BGM despite the fact that they were not
members in good standing. If one deducts the 31 persons, the number of members in
good standing would only be 72, which falls below the quorum threshold. Clearly, no
delegate could or should have been appointed. Therefore, the appointment of a delegate
from this BGM was unlawful because the relevant BGM was not quorate.
[20] Ward 7 in the region of Lejweleputswa bears mention. The complaint in this
specific ward is about the inadequate notification of the BGM. According to the attendance
register which is outdated, this branch has 600 members. At the BGM convened a year
earlier on 14 May 2017, the meeting was quorate with a total of 302 members who had
attended. In contrast, the BGM that was held on 13 May 2018, only saw a total of 19
members in attendance. Nineteen members is approximately 3% of the branch’s total
membership. One immediately asks oneself what the possible reason is for the
exceptionally low attendance. These numbers support the contention that the members
were not invited. The second respondent does not, in its answering affidavit, allege that
members were notified of the BGM held on 13 May 2018. It does not appear that an
attempt was made to lawfully convene a BGM for this affected branch. In the founding
papers, it was alleged that no deployee was present on 13 May 2018. The second
respondent, represented by the deponent to the answering affidavit, the Secretary of the
ANC, Mr Ace Magashule, confirmed this and stated that ‘he did not have to come, as the
meeting could not proceed’. The ANC Guidelines make it clear that a deployee ought to
be present at any proposed BGM where elections of a delegate are to take place. The
attendance register attached to the second respondent’s answering affidavit was not
signed by the branch chairman nor the Secretary as required in terms of the ANC
Guidelines.12 This was certainly an irregularity.
[21] At least eight of the 28 BGMs identified in the Van Zyl order did not take place
lawfully or at all. On this basis alone, the PC could not lawfully proceed. The high court
upheld the contention that the appellants were precluded from challenging some of these
BGMs because they were not the subject of a challenge in the proceedings before
Molemela JP. I have mentioned above that the Van Zyl order dealt with 28 branches. Of
course, it is so that only 17 of the 28 were challenged in the proceedings before Molemela
JP. This, however, could not be construed to mean that the BGMs of the other 11
branches had been lawfully held. Failure by one group of applicants to challenge the 11
branches before Molemela JP cannot preclude a different group of applicants from
challenging them in the present proceedings.
[22] Having identified the areas of concern above, I deem it necessary to return to the
issue of audits. The ANC Guidelines applicable in this matter make it plain that ‘national
12 Guidelines for ANC Conferences para 11.
conducts an audit of branches and membership, based on a cut-off date that is not more
than nine months before the date of the Provincial and Regional conference, to determine
the delegation to the conferences’.13 The appellants have made it clear in the founding
papers that the audit of membership is critical in that a member who is not in good
standing is disqualified from participating in the affairs of the ANC. There can be no
dispute that the Guidelines of the ANC prescribe that for a valid conference to be held, it
must be preceded by an audit which should be conducted within nine months of the date
of the conference. It would appear that the last audit of the Free State ANC was conducted
during April 2017. This, certainly is more than nine months prior to the conference which
was held on 18 and 19 May 2018.
[23] Clause 4 and 5 of the ANC 2018 Guidelines make it plain what the procedure is
which must be followed before the holding of all PCs or Regional Conferences (RCs). The
following procedure must be followed.
‘1. An audit of branches and members must be conducted and that must be based on a cut-off
date that is not more than 9 months before the date of the Provincial or Regional conference;
2. The outcome of the audit is circulated to Regional Executive Committees and the individual
branches.
3. All branches must convene BGMs as to, inter alia, nominate candidates for the Provincial
Executive Committee.
4. There must be notice of the date, venue, programme and draft credentials of the conference
which must be circulated to the branches.
5. It is only at this point that a Provincial conference can be held.
The audit requirement cannot be ignored or postponed because absent audit there can be no
legitimate Provincial or Regional conference. It determines the status of participants because it is
only members in good standing that must attend and participate in the affairs of the ANC. The
same applies to a branch which is not in good standing. Such a branch cannot be represented at
a conference.’
13 Guideline for ANC Conferences para 5(a).
[24] The second respondent’s response in the above regard is that a membership
verification audit was done by the National Audit Team in February 2018 in respect of 14
wards that needed to be rerun. The approach was of course unlawful in that it says in
simple terms, save for the 14 branches in respect of which the audit was done in February
2018, no audit was apparently conducted in respect of the other BGMs which deployed
delegates to the PC. There is a contradiction between what the respondents contend in
this regard. The first respondent asserts that the PC was a continuation of the conference
that was declared null and void and that ‘the last audit was done [on] 10 December 2017’.
The latter’s assertion contradicts the second respondent’s contentions that a
verification/audit was conducted in February 2018. The first respondent referred to an
annexure which did not exist. It emerged during arguments before the high court what the
correct annexure was, but that annexure too cannot serve as objective evidence that an
audit was conducted in December 2017 and in respect of which branch it related to. The
document is titled ‘ANC Free State Provincial Summary Report’. It is not dated and it
hardly makes it clear when and where such audits were conducted and for which
branches. Importantly, it fails to establish that an audit of all the necessary branches was
conducted during December 2017.
[25] In passing, one must mention that both respondents’ versions are undermined by
the attendance registers. These registers are attached to the second respondent’s
answering affidavit. These attendance registers show that in respect of all branches the
last audit was conducted in April 2017. Therefore, the required audit was conducted more
than nine months before the PC and contrary to the assertion that an audit was conducted
during February 2018. The failure of the respondents to respond squarely and with
sufficient details to allegations made by the appellants, the contradictions between the
two versions presented by the respondents, and the effect of the attendance registers
leads to the ineluctable conclusion that there has been no compliance with the
peremptory audit requirement.
[26] The declaration of nullity of the PCs and RCs contained in both the Van Zyl and
Molemela orders required the Provincial Executive (the PEC) of the ANC to start the
whole process de novo. In doing so, the second respondent had to fully comply with the
Constitution of the ANC read together with the applicable ANC 2018 Guidelines. There
are about 309 branches in the Free State Province. They all had to be audited anew. The
argument that only 28 mentioned in the Van Zyl order had to be audited is without merit.
The PC had to be held de novo and all prescripts of the ANC Constitution had to be
complied with as if no attempt to hold a conference ever took place. The 2018 ANC
Guidelines have binding force. There can be no dispute in this regard. The Constitutional
Court in Ramakatsa 114 talked to this:
‘[79]
Before demonstrating that some of the irregularities raised were established it is
necessary to outline the nature of the legal relationship that arises from membership of the ANC.
At common law a voluntary association like the ANC is taken to have been created by agreement
as it is not a body established by statute. The ANC’s Constitution together with the audit guidelines
and any other rules collectively constitute the terms of the agreement entered into by its members.
Thus the relationship between the party and its member is contractual. It is taken to be a unique
contract.’
[27] The importance of auditing is underscored by the fact that it ensures that the
participants in the ANC process are fully paid up members of the ANC who can participate
in the elections and vote for those they want to lead them and not non-members. Thus,
prior to the holding of the PC an audit process of all branches and membership must be
conducted. The question remains therefore whether the delegates to the elective PC had
been properly accredited and audited as required in terms of the Constitution of the ANC
and its Membership Audit Guidelines. As demonstrated above, the answer is a
resounding no. It is trite that in motion proceedings, the proper approach to determine
whether an applicant has made out a case for the relief sought, in a case where some of
the allegations are disputed by the respondents, is that the applicants would succeed if
the admitted facts it alleged together with the facts alleged by the respondent justify the
relief sought.15 The audit Guidelines constitute an integral part of the governance
14 Ramakatsa para 79.
15 Plascon-Evans Paints (TVL) Ltd v Van Riebeck Paints (Pty) supra fn 2.
instrument of the ANC. A mandatory pre-audit must be conducted by the PEC or RC in
preparation for the National audit which is conducted by the National Audit Team in each
province within a cut-off date.
[28] The respondents complain bitterly that the appellants rushed to court before
exhausting all available internal remedy mechanisms within the ANC as prescribed in the
Constitution of the ANC. It is correct that appendix 4 thereof provides for a dispute
resolution procedure by means of which a branch, a region or sub-region may lodge a
dispute and have it resolved by the National Dispute Resolution Committee and ultimately
by the Appeal Committee. It is not my aim to devote too much time to this concern by the
respondents. It bears mention that the aggrieved members sent a complaint to the PC
held on 18 and 19 May 2018 but were simply ignored. It suffices to say that members of
the ANC are members of the community, citizens of this country. Each member of the
community who is aggrieved is constitutionally entitled to approach the courts. The first
respondent did not file its heads of argument in terms of this Court’s rules. When this
concern was raised by the presiding judge, the appellants had abandoned the prayer for
the contempt of court. There has been an inordinate delay in prosecuting this matter. The
PEC has been running the affairs of the ANC in the Free State for a considerable period.
It must have taken numerous resolutions/decisions relating to governance issues in the
Province. It therefore would be prudent that an order should be made so as to avoid the
Free State ANC from being thrown into chaos.
[29] The following order is made:
1 Leave to appeal is granted and the costs occasioned by the application for leave to
appeal (in this Court as well as in the Court below) are costs in the appeal.
2 The appeal is upheld with costs including costs occasioned by the employment of
two counsel.
3 The order of the Court below is set aside and replaced by the following:
'It is declared that the Provincial Conference for the Free State Province that took place
on 18 and 19 May 2018 was held in violation of the Court order of 29 November 2017
under case number 5942/2017 and that the said Provincial Conference, its
decisions/resolutions and/or outcome are unlawful and unconstitutional.'
4 The declaration of invalidity mentioned in paragraph 3 of the order shall only be
effective as from the date of the delivery of this judgment.
_____________________
DV Dlodlo
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES:
For the Appellants:
S Budlender SC (with him K Magan)
Instructed by:
Selepe Attorneys, Johannesburg
For the Respondents:
Semenya SC and WR Mokhare SC
Instructed by:
Moroka Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
31 March 2021
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does not form part of
the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Ramakatsa and Others v African National Congress and Another (Case No. 724/2019) [2021] ZASCA
31 (31 March 2021)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) handed down judgment upholding the appeal against an
order of the Free State Division of the High Court, Bloemfontein (high court. The order of the high court
was set aside and replaced with an order declaring the African National Congress (ANC) Provincial
Conference (PC) for the Free State of 18 and 19 May 2018 to have been held in violation of the court
order of 29 November 2017 and as a result declared its decisions/resolutions and/or outcome are
unlawful and unconstitutional.
The issue before the SCA was whether a declaration should be granted that the PC for the Free State
Province that took place on 18 and 19 May 2018 was held in violation of the court order and that such
PC, its decision/resolutions and/or outcome were unlawful and unconstitutional.
Before this Court, the appellants contended that numerous complaints were raised which were not
addressed prior to the holding of the PC. The appellants contended, pertinently, that the holding of the
PC was not, for instance, preceded by an audit process of all branches and membership as required.
Several of the wards conducted unlawful BGMs.
In this regard the SCA held that the ANC Guidelines applicable in this matter made it plain that the
national audit team conducted an audit of branches and membership, based on a cut-off date that was
not more than nine months before the date of the provincial and regional conferences, to determine the
delegation to the conferences.
Further, and in consequence of the above, the SCA held that the importance of auditing was
underscored by the fact that it ensured that the participants in the ANC process were fully paid up
members of the ANC who could participate in the elections and vote for those they wanted to lead them
and not non-members. The SCA held it was clear that the delegates to the elective PC had not been
properly accredited and audited as required in terms of the Constitution of the ANC and its Membership
Audit Guidelines; and concluded that the audit guidelines constituted an integral part of the governance
instrument of the ANC. A mandatory pre-audit had to be conducted by the Provincial Executive or
Regional Executive in preparation for the National audit which was then conducted by the National Audit
Team in each province within a cut-off date
~~~~ends~~~~ |
83 | non-electoral | 2017 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 6/2017
In the matter between:
DIRECTOR OF PUBLIC PROSECUTIONS, GAUTENG
APPELLANT
and
MORNE GROBLER
RESPONDENT
Neutral Citation:
Director of Public Prosecutions, Gauteng v Grobler (6/2017)
[2017] ZASCA 82 (2 June 2017).
Coram:
Lewis, Petse and Mathopo JJA and Gorven and Mbatha AJJA
Heard:
2 May 2017
Delivered:
2 June 2017
Summary: Appeal by Director of Public Prosecutions: s 311 of the Criminal
Procedure Act 51 of 1977: appeal against the decision of a Provincial or Local
Division on appeal to it competent before this court only on a question of law: the
High Court’s finding that a complainant below the age of 12 years acquiesced in a
sexual act defined as rape and then considered this as a mitigating factor in
sentencing, is a question of law: appeal upheld and matter remitted.
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Preller J and
Kganyago AJ, sitting as court of appeal):
1 The appeal is upheld.
2 The question of law raised by the State is determined in its favour.
3 The sentence imposed by the High Court is set aside.
4 The matter is referred back to the High Court for the appeal on sentence to be
dealt with in accordance with the principles set out in this judgment.
___________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
___________________________________________________________________
Petse JA (Lewis and Mathopo JJA and Gorven and Mbatha AJJA concurring):
[1] This is an appeal by the Director of Public Prosecutions, Gauteng, arising
from what it submits is a question of law in relation to sentence, decided in favour of
the respondent, which informed the sentence imposed by the Gauteng Division of
the High Court, Pretoria (Preller J and Kganyago AJ), sitting on appeal from a
judgment of the Regional Court, Louis Trichardt, Limpopo. I shall refer to the court as
the High Court for convenience. This court granted special leave to appeal against
sentence.1 It is more properly an appeal under s 311 of the Criminal Procedure Act2
1 See Director of Public Prosecutions, Gauteng Division, Pretoria v Moloi (1101/2015) [2017] ZASCA
78 (2 June 2017), paras 70-71, in which this court by majority held that an appeal under s 311 does
not require special leave to appeal. And that any order granting special leave to appeal is neither
necessary nor competent. Since the appeal is brought in terms of s 311 of the CPA leave should not
have been sought nor granted.
2 Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977.
(the CPA) and was argued on that basis. It concerns the question whether imputing
consent to a sexual act (defined as rape) by a child under the age of 12 years for
purposes of sentence is competent.
[2] The respondent, Mr Morne Grobler, was arraigned in the regional court on the
following seven charges: (a) three counts of rape in contravention of s 3 of the
Criminal Law (Sexual Offences and Related Matters) Amendment Act 32 of 1997
(the Sexual Offences Act); (b) using a child for child pornography in contravention of
s 20(1) of the Sexual Offences Act (count 4); (c) exposing, displaying or causing the
exposure or displaying of child pornography in contravention of s 19(a) of the Sexual
Offences Act (count 5); (d) sexual grooming of children in contravention of s 18(2)(a)
of the Act (count 6); and (e) possession of a film or publication containing child
pornography in contravention of s 27(1)(a)(i) of the Films and Publications Act 65 of
1996 (the Films Act) (count 7). In the regional court, he pleaded not guilty to all
seven counts.
[3] Briefly, the background to which the charges relate is as follows. The
respondent and the complainant’s mother, AG, married each other during September
2006. The complainant, CC, who was ten years old at the time, and her younger
brother, TT, lived with the respondent and their mother at the Air Force Base in Louis
Trichardt. The complainant and her brother were AG’s children from a previous
relationship. All of the offences in respect of which the respondent was charged were
alleged to have been committed during the period spanning from September to
November 2009 at the family home on various occasions when the complainant’s
mother was not at home. The allegations against the respondent, broadly stated,
were that on various occasions during this period, the respondent, unlawfully and
intentionally, penetrated the complainant’s vagina, anus and mouth with his penis.
And that he took photographs of the sexual acts with his cellular phone, thus creating
pornographic material, and transferred and stored these on the family computer. It
was also alleged that he had shown the complainant pornographic images of him
and her mother having sex, and that he sexually groomed the complainant.
[4] The complainant’s mother testified at the trial that on the morning of 2
November 2009 whilst she was scrolling through the family computer she came
across pornographic images of adult women and later stumbled upon photographic
images of the respondent engaged in sexual acts with the complainant. This
fortuitous discovery set the wheels of justice into motion and culminated in the
prosecution of the respondent on the seven charges mentioned earlier. It is,
however, not necessary in my view to recapitulate all the evidence led at the trial.
Rather, this judgment will focus on a single issue decisive of this appeal, namely,
whether the appeal is one based on a question of law: that the High Court wrongly
took into account that the complainant could have consented to the sexual act
(defined as rape) when she was but ten years old. I shall deal with the facts
underlying the application of the wrong principle more fully below.
[5] At the conclusion of the trial the respondent was convicted on six counts, but
was acquitted on count 6. After hearing both the defence and the State on mitigation
and aggravation of sentence, the regional magistrate sentenced the respondent, in
terms of s 513 of the Criminal Law Amendment Act 105 of 1997, to life imprisonment
on each of the three rape counts. The three remaining counts (counts 4, 5 and 7)
were treated as one for purposes of sentence and a sentence of 10 years’
imprisonment was imposed. In addition, the regional magistrate directed that the
respondent’s particulars be recorded in the sexual offences register in accordance
with s 50(2)(a)4 of the Sexual Offences Act.
[6] It bears mention that the sentences of life imprisonment imposed in respect of
counts 1 to 3 were in consequence of the finding by the regional magistrate that
there were no substantial and compelling circumstances present. Thus, it held that a
departure from the mandatory sentence of life imprisonment was not justified.
3 Section 51 (1) provides: ‘Notwithstanding any other law, but subject to subsections (3) and (6), a
regional court or a High Court shall sentence a person it has convicted of an offence referred to in
Part I of Schedule 2 to imprisonment for life.’ Those subsections (s 51(3)(a) and (6)) in turn provide for
departures from the prescribed sentence if a court is satisfied that substantial and compelling
circumstances exist which justify the imposition of a lesser sentence than the sentence prescribed
and where the accused was under the age of 16 years at the time of the commission of an offence (in
terms of the old s 51(6)).
4 Section 50(2)(a) provides: ‘A court that has in terms of this Act or any other law— (i) convicted a
person of a sexual offence against a child or a person who is mentally disabled and, after sentence
has been imposed by that court for such offence, in the presence of the convicted person; must make
an order that the particulars of the person be included in the Register.’
[7] Aggrieved by his conviction and resultant sentences, the respondent
unsuccessfully applied for leave to appeal to the North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
in terms of s 309B of the Criminal Procedure Act (the CPA). However, the
respondent successfully petitioned the High Court for leave to appeal in terms of
s 309C of the CPA.
[8] The respondent was successful in his appeal to the High Court. As to the
convictions, the High Court found that in relation to counts 4, 5 and 7 and having
regard to the conspectus of the evidence led at the trial, these charges had been
proved beyond a reasonable doubt. It then proceeded to consider whether the rape
convictions on counts 1, 2 and 3 were sustainable on the evidence. In regard to
counts 2 and 3, the High Court said that on the complainant’s evidence, which was
corroborated by the medical evidence, she was neither anally nor vaginally
penetrated by the respondent. The High Court decried the fact that no medical
evidence by the doctor who had examined the complainant was presented at the trial
to substantiate these counts. Relying on this court’s judgment in S v MM [2011]
ZASCA 5; 2012 (2) SACR 18 (SCA) (para 24), it consequently set aside the
respondent’s convictions on these two counts. It substituted the two convictions with
sexual assault in contravention of s 5(1) of the Sexual Offences Act.5
[9] In the event the High Court concluded that although the complainant’s
evidence – approached with the necessary caution, given her tender age and the
fact that in relation to the actual sexual acts she was a single witness – was not
without blemish, it was nevertheless to be preferred to that of the respondent.
Accordingly, it found that the regional magistrate’s rejection of the respondent’s
version as false beyond a reasonable doubt could not be faulted.
[10] With regard to the sentence on the conviction on rape, count 1 (namely, the
intentional and unlawful insertion by the respondent of his penis in the complainant’s
mouth), it is apposite to make reference to some of the passages in the High Court’s
judgment which bear directly on the crucial issue raised in this appeal. When
analysing the State’s evidence in relation to this count, the High Court said:
5 In terms of this provision, ‘a person ('A') who unlawfully and intentionally sexually violates a
complainant ('B'), without the consent of B, is guilty of the offence of sexual assault.’
‘The first thing that struck me about the evidence of the complainant’s mother was that she
never mentioned finding any indication of distress or trauma about the incidents on the part
of the victim when she asked her about what the appellant had done to her. She testified in
chief that she had asked her child whether the appellant had touched her inappropriately,
which she confirmed.’
[11] The court then proceeded to say the following:
‘In her evidence the complainant stated that she participated in these activities with the
appellant because he had told her that there would be trouble if she did not do as he told
her. It is not clear on her evidence that she acted out of fear or that the threat was repeated
on any subsequent occasion. It is in any event not her version that there was any form of
compulsion on every occasion. Apart from the alleged threat there is no indication in her
evidence of how she felt about the incidents – no expression of fear, disgust,
embarrassment or any other negative emotion. That also appears from the two photographs
in the exhibits on which her facial expression can be seen and which show no sign of fear,
anguish, embarrassment, disgust or any other negative emotion. Based on the above
evidence there is a strong suspicion that the victim was not an unwilling participant in the
events. I am fully aware that she was at the time only ten years old and that the absence or
otherwise of her consent is irrelevant as an element of the commission of the offence. It
must, however, be an important factor in considering an appropriate sentence.’ (Own
emphasis.)
[12] When the High Court said that the complainant was under the age of ten
years at the time of the rape – thus under the age of 12 years – and that ‘the
absence or otherwise of her consent [was] irrelevant as an element of the
commission of the offence’ it obviously had in mind s 57(1) of the Sexual Offences
Act. The section reads, in material parts:
‘Inability of children under 12 years and persons who are mentally disabled to consent to
sexual acts.—(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in any law contained, a male or
female person under the age of 12 years is incapable of consenting to a sexual act.
(2) . . . ’
[13] Having disposed of the appeal against the convictions, the High Court
proceeded to deal with the appeal against the sentences. First, it noted that the
regional magistrate had found that there were no substantial and compelling
circumstances justifying a departure from the mandatory sentence ordained by law.
It also took cognisance, as the trial court had done, of both the prevalence and
seriousness of the crime of rape and its traumatic consequences for its victims and
the fact that the respondent had betrayed the complainant’s trust. It nonetheless
lamented the fact that the respondent’s personal circumstances – which it
enumerated – were in its view not accorded sufficient weight in determining an
appropriate sentence. On this score it will be recalled that in dealing with count 1 the
High Court had indicated that the fact that the complainant had been a willing party
to the sexual act would be a mitigating factor in relation to sentence. The High Court
concluded that the trial court had overlooked material factors and that the sentences
were therefore not appropriate ones.
[14] The High Court then proceeded to consider what sentences to impose on the
respondent in substitution of those imposed by the trial court. In relation to the
inquiry as to whether or not substantial and compelling circumstances existed, it
said:
‘The personal circumstances of the appellant, the fact that he is a first offender who spent 18
months in custody awaiting trial, the nature of his offence and the limited effect that it had on
the complainant and the serious consequences that his offence already had for himself,
cumulatively constitute substantial and compelling circumstances that justify the imposition
of a lesser sentence.’
It then imposed a globular sentence of ten years’ imprisonment, treating all counts as
one for purposes of sentence, five years of which were conditionally suspended.
[15] Dissatisfied with the sentence imposed, particularly in respect of count 1,
which it believed to be disproportionate to the gravity of the rape perpetrated by the
respondent – and other issues which are no longer material for present purposes –
the State applied for and was granted special leave to appeal against sentence to
this court.
[16] The right of the State to appeal under s 311 is expressly regulated by the CPA
and the Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013 therefore finds no application.6 As already
mentioned, the State appeals on the basis that a question of law was decided in
favour of the respondent which formed the foundation for the sentence imposed by
the High Court on appeal to it. The High Court accordingly substituted sentences for
those imposed by the trial court. Unlike convicted persons, such a right of appeal
relating to a sentence imposed by a High Court sitting as a court of appeal arises
only where the High Court has given a decision in favour of the convicted person on
a question of law.
[17] In its heads of argument, the State relied on four grounds of appeal which it
contended constitute questions of law. It argued that, if this court determines any one
of the questions of law upon which it relies in its favour, it would have jurisdiction to
entertain this appeal.7 But, at the hearing before us, the State expressly disavowed
reliance on three of its grounds of appeal. It persisted in the remaining ground, that is
whether the High Court wrongly took into account its own inferences that the
complainant had consented to the sexual acts in question in imposing sentence. This
appeal by the State is therefore brought in terms of s 311(1) of the CPA. Accordingly,
this court can only enter into the merits of the appeal if it is satisfied that the ground
of appeal relied upon by the State involves a question of law.
[18] Section 311(1) provides:
‘(1) Where the provincial or local division on appeal, whether brought by the attorney-general
or other prosecutor or the person convicted, gives a decision in favour of the person
convicted on a question of law, the attorney-general or other prosecutor against whom the
decision is given may appeal to the Appellate Division of the Supreme Court, which shall, if it
decides the matter in issue in favour of the appellant, set aside or vary the decision appealed
from and, if the matter was brought before the provincial or local division in terms of-
(a) section 309(1), re-instate the conviction, sentence or order of the lower court
appealed from, either in its original form or in such a modified form as the said Appellate
Division may consider desirable; or
6 See s 1 of the Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013 which provides: ‘”appeal” in Chapter 5, does not
include an appeal in a matter regulated in terms of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977 (Act 51 of 1977),
or in terms of any other criminal procedural law.’
7 Compare: S v Seedat [2016] ZASCA 153; 2017 (1) SACR 141 (SCA) paras 29-30.
….’
[19] The only remaining question pursued by the State on appeal, which it
considered a question of law, was formulated in its heads of argument as follows:
‘That the [High] Court erred in law in imputing consent by conduct and/or acquiescence to
the commission of the offences, by a child below the age of 12 and in its consideration
thereof as an important factor in mitigation of sentence.’
[20] The State contended that in terms of s 57(1) of the Sexual Offences Act a
child under the age of 12 years is incapable of consenting to a sexual act. Thus, so
the argument went, the ‘consent’ to or ‘acquiescence’ in the sexual act by the
complainant – who was only ten years old at the time – could not, as a matter of
substantive law, be taken into account in determining an appropriate sentence.
[21] It was submitted on behalf of the State that the fact that the High Court did so
was wrong in law because it undermined the clear and unambiguous provisions of
s 57(1) of the Sexual Offences Act. Further, that it was illogical to find that the
complainant’s supposed ‘willing participation’ in the sexual acts could ever be a
mitigating factor when it came to the question of sentence.
[22] Counsel for the respondent submitted with reference to certain decisions of
this court,8 that: (a) this court does not have jurisdiction to entertain an appeal by the
State against a sentence substituting the one imposed by a regional court; (b) that
the State was not empowered to appeal against factual findings, however patently
wrong they might be; and (c) that there is sound and enduring jurisprudence of this
court that the nature of a sentence could never be a question of law.
[23] Furthermore, it was contended on behalf of the respondent that even if this
court were to accept that the High Court was wrong in imputing consent to the
complainant in relation to sentence that would still not avail the State in this case.
For this submission counsel relied on S v Mosterd 1991 (2) SACR 636 (T) at 640C-
8 Director of Public Prosecutions v Olivier 2006 (1) SACR 380 (SCA) paras 13-15; Director of Public
Prosecutions, Transvaal v Mtshweni 2007 (2) SACR 217 (SCA) para 19; Director of Public
Prosecutions, Western Cape v Kok [2015] ZASCA 197; 2016 (1) SACR 539 (SCA); Director of Public
Prosecutions, Gauteng v Mphaphama [2016] ZASCA 8; 2016 (1) SACR 495.
D. There it was said that the nature of the sentence imposed could never be a
question of law decided in favour of the convicted person. In Director of Public
Prosecutions, Gauteng v Mphaphama this court cited the dictum in Mosterd (at
640C-D) with approval. It went on to say the following (para 11):
‘[C]ertainly, when it comes to the exercise of a judicial discretion in favour of a convicted
person in regard to sentence, that cannot be a question of law decided in favour of his or her
favour. The definition of an appeal in the Superior Courts Act, however, overrides a
consideration of s 311 of the CPA, in terms of the decision in Kock. This has to prevail, even
if [the] argument that there is indeed a question of law were to be correct.’
[24] A brief analysis of some of the cases upon which counsel for the respondent
strongly relied is essential. In Olivier this court was primarily concerned with the
question whether the State can appeal against a lenient sentence imposed by a High
Court substituting a sentence imposed by a magistrate’s court. It found that the CPA
does not provide for such an appeal when no question of law was implicated.
[25] In Mtshweni this court was called upon to determine a question of law
reserved for decision in terms of s 319 of the CPA. And that question was whether
the trial judge was obliged to call a witness under s 186 of the CPA whose evidence
was essential to a just decision of the case. This court found that failure to do so
amounted to an error of law. In addition, this court noted9 that there could be no
appeal by the State against an acquittal where the court had erred in evaluating the
facts or in drawing inferences, even if the error was grave.
[26] Again in Kock this court dealt with a situation similar to that in Olivier. There
the State had sought an increase of a sentence imposed by the High Court sitting as
a court of appeal on the basis that such a sentence was disturbingly lenient. Whilst
this court acknowledged that the State’s disgruntlement with the sentence was
understandable, it nonetheless struck the appeal from the roll for want of jurisdiction.
As with Olivier, no question of law was implicated.
[27] In Mphaphama the State appealed against a sentence imposed by the High
Court sitting as a court of appeal from the regional court. There the High Court had
9 Paras 19-22.
reduced a sentence of life imprisonment to 20 years’ imprisonment. At the outset,
this court called upon counsel for the State to first argue whether the matter was
appealable and indicated that only when this anterior question was determined in
favour of the State would the appeal be heard on the merits. As the appeal had
initially been brought in terms of s 316B of the CPA, counsel for the State sought to
rely on s 311 of the CPA when she was confronted with the judgment of this court in
Director of Public Prosecutions, Western Cape v Kock. However, reliance on s 311
did not avail the State because this court found that ‘the definition of an appeal in the
Superior Courts Act, however, overrides a consideration of s 311 of the CPA, in
terms of the decision in Kock.’ Consequently the appeal was struck from the roll.
[28] Having regard to the facts of the decisions discussed in paras 24-27 above
and the issues to be determined, there can be no doubt that they are distinguishable
from the facts of this case. In this case, the High Court imputed consent to the
complainant. It did so despite the clear and unequivocal provisions of s 57(1) of the
Sexual Offences Act referred to above. In doing so, the High Court committed an
error of law. It therefore follows that the present case falls foursquare within the
purview of s 311 of the CPA. In these circumstances the interests of justice dictate
that the sentence imposed by the High Court must be set aside.
[29] Although the facts in Mphaphama are at first blush not materially
distinguishable from the facts of this case, the issues raised in the two cases are
different. Hence the different outcomes. Accordingly, the dictum in Mphaphama that
‘the exercise of a judicial discretion in favour of a convicted person in regard to
sentence cannot be a question of law’, is cast too wide. In particular it does not deal
with the position where that discretion has been exercised on an incorrect legal
basis. An exercise of a judicial discretion based on a wrong principle or erroneous
view of the law is clearly a question of law decided in favour of a convicted person.
This also distinguishes the present matter from that of Mosterd because it is not the
nature of the sentence, but the legal basis on which it was approached, which places
this matter within the ambit of s 311 of the CPA.
[30] Counsel were agreed that if we came to the conclusion that the appeal must
succeed, as we have, it would be desirable to remit the case to the High Court for a
proper determination of sentence in light of this judgment. This is, however, not
expressly provided for in s 311 of the CPA. But in Attorney-General (Transvaal) v
Steenkamp 1954 (1) SA 351 (A) at 357F-G, this court – in the course of dealing with
the predecessor to s 311 – said that in a situation such as the present the case could
be remitted as ‘it could hardly have been the intention of the legislature that, where
the order of this court does not finally dispose of the issues raised in the first Court of
Appeal, some of those issues must . . . be left hanging in the air’. Furthermore,
having regard to the lapse of time since the imposition of sentence by the trial court,
the course suggested by counsel seems to me to be eminently reasonable as the
sentence will have to be considered afresh. The respondent may well have already
served the whole or part of the sentence imposed by the High Court. Accordingly,
whatever fresh sentence will be imposed on him, will necessarily have to take this
factor into account.
[31] Before concluding I am constrained to say that the High Court appears to
have overemphasized the respondent‘s personal circumstances at the expense of
the gravity of the crimes and the interests of society, including those of the
complainant.
[32] It has repeatedly been said that rape is unquestionably a despicable crime. Its
enormity in the context of the facts of this case is aggravated by the fact that the
complainant was sexually abused by her stepfather. In S v Jansen 1992 (2) SACR
368 (C) at 378G, rape was rightly described as ‘an appalling and perverse abuse of
male power’. In N v T 1994 (1) SA 862 (C) at 863C-D,10 the court said that rape is ‘a
horrifying crime and . . . a cruel and selfish act in which the aggressor treats with
utter contempt the dignity and feeling of [the] victim’. In this case the respondent
abused his ‘position of authority and command’ over his stepdaughter.
[33] In S v D 1995 (1) SACR 259 (A) the vulnerability of young children was
underscored. There this court said the following (at 260F-I):
‘Children are vulnerable to abuse, and the younger they are, the more vulnerable they are.
They are usually abused by those who think they can get away with it, and all too often do. .
10 The court also found (at 378E-F) that ‘an argument which seeks to invoke the consent of a nine-
year old girl borders on obscene’.
. . Appellant's conduct in my view was sufficiently reprehensible to fall within the category of
offences calling for a sentence both reflecting the Court's strong disapproval and hopefully
acting as a deterrent to others minded to satisfy their carnal desires with helpless children.’
[34] As to the use of children as objects of pornography, the remarks of the
Constitutional Court in De Reuck v Director of Public Prosecutions, Witwatersrand
Local Division & others 2004 (1) SA 406 (CC) are instructive. The Constitutional
Court said (para 61):
‘In determining the importance of s 27(1) of the [Films and Publications Act 65 of 1996], it is
necessary to examine its objective as a whole. The purpose of the legislation is to curb child
pornography, which is seen as an evil in all democratic societies. Child pornography is
universally condemned for good reason. It strikes at the dignity of children, it is harmful to
children who are used in its production, and it is potentially harmful because of the attitude to
child sex that it fosters and the use to which it can be put in grooming children to engage in
sexual conduct.’
[35] The Constitutional Court then went on to say the following (para 63):
‘Children's dignity rights are of special importance. The degradation of children through child
pornography is a serious harm which impairs their dignity and contributes to a culture which
devalues their worth. Society has recognised that childhood is a special stage in life which is
to be both treasured and guarded. The State must ensure that the lives of children are not
disrupted by adults who objectify and sexualise them through the production and possession
of child pornography. There is obvious physical harm suffered by the victims of sexual abuse
and by those children forced to yield to the demands of the paedophile and pornographer,
but there is also harm to the dignity and perception of all children when a society allows
sexualised images of children to be available.’
In this case the respondent gratuitously violated the complainant’s rights to dignity,
privacy and physical integrity in a most humiliating and demeaning manner.
Accordingly, on the facts of this case one must, in relation to sentence on count 1,
keep uppermost in the mind with a measure of abhorrence the respondent’s
unfatherly conduct in sexually molesting his stepdaughter.
[36] In the result the following order is made:
1 The appeal is upheld.
2 The question of law raised by the State is determined in its favour.
3 The sentence imposed by the High Court is set aside.
4 The matter is referred back to the High Court for the appeal on sentence to be
dealt with in accordance with the principles set out in this judgment.
____________
X M PETSE
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
For the Appellant:
J Cronje
Instructed by:
The Director of Public Prosecutions, Pretoria
c/o
The
Director
of
Public
Prosecutions,
Bloemfontein
For the Respondent:
H L Alberts
Instructed by:
Justice Centre, Pretoria
c/o Justice Centre, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date: 6 June 2017
Status: Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
TINA GOOSEN & OTHERS v THE MONT CHEVAUX TRUST (148/2015) [2017] ZASCA
1.
The Mont Chevaux Trust (the trust) is the owner of the farm known as Silver Oaks
situated near Wellington in the Western Cape (the farm). The trust obtained the farm for the
benefit of the Austin family. The seventeen appellants also occupy the farm. The trust
applied in the magistrate’s court of Wellington for an order evicting the appellants from the
farm in terms of the Extension of Security of Tenure Act 62 of 1997 (ESTA). The
magistrate’s court granted the order sought. The eviction order came before the Land Claims
Court (LCC) on automatic review in terms of ESTA. The LCC confirmed the eviction order.
The appellants appealed to the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) against the confirmation
order of the LCC.
2.
Today the SCA dismissed the appeal and, save in respect of the seventeenth
appellant, confirmed the eviction order. The SCA held that the provisions of ESTA had been
complied with in respect of the first to sixteenth appellants (the appellants). It held that as a
result of the presence of the appellants on the farm and their collective conduct, the Austins
found themselves in an intolerable and desperate situation. The SCA accepted that the
execution of the eviction order will render the appellants homeless but pointed out that the
appellants are living in appalling conditions on the farm. The SCA found that the
Drakenstein Municipality was constitutionally obliged to provide the appellants with
emergency accommodation upon their eviction. In the circumstances the SCA suspended the
operation of the eviction order for a period of 90 days from the date of its order and ordered
the Drakenstein Municipality to provide the appellants with emergency housing within 75
days of the date of its order.
--ends-- |
3802 | non-electoral | 2022 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 167/2021
In the matter between:
LUKE M TEMBANI
FIRST APPELLANT
LMT ESTATES (PVT) LTD
SECOND APPELLANT
WYNAND HART
THIRD APPELLANT
QUEENSDALE ENTERPRISES (PVT)
LTD
FOURTH APPELLANT
MADODA ENTERPRISES (PVT) LTD
FIFTH APPELLANT
KLIPDRIFT ENTERPRISES (PVT) LTD
SIXTH APPELLANT
MIKE CAMPBELL (PVT) LTD
SEVENTH APPELLANT
RICHARD THOMAS ETHERIDGE
EIGHTH APPELLANT
ANDREW KOCKOTT
NINTH APPELLANT
TENGWE ESTATES (PVT) LTD
TENTH APPELLANT
CHRISTOPHER MELLISH JARRETT
ELEVENTH APPELLANT
STUNULA RANCHING (PVT) LTD
TWELFTH APPELLANT
LUCHABI RANCH (PVT) LTD
THIRTEENTH APPELLANT
LARRY CUMMING
FOURTEENTH APPELLANT
FRANCE FARM (PVT) LTD
FIFTEENTH APPELLANT
MICHAEL IAN PATRICK ODENDAAL
SIXTEENTH APPELLANT
DEBORAH LOUISE ODENDAAL
SEVENTEENTH APPELLANT
GRASSFLATS FARM (PVT) LTD
EIGHTEENTH APPELLANT
MURIK MARKETING (PVT) LTD
NINETEENTH APPELLANT
GIDEON STEPHANUS THERON
TWENTIETH APPELLANT
EBEN HAESER (PVT) LTD
TWENTY-FIRST APPELLANT
EDEN FARM (PVT) LTD
TWENTY-SECOND APPELLANT
PETER HENNING
TWENTY-THIRD APPELLANT
CHIREDZI RANCHING
(PVT) LTD
TWENTY-FOURTH APPELLANT
BATALEURS PEAK FARM
HOLDINGS (PVT) LTD
TWENTY-FIFTH APPELLANT
and
PRESIDENT OF THE
FIRST RESPONDENT/
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
CROSS-APPELLANT
GOVERNMENT OF THE
SECOND RESPONDENT/
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
CROSS-APPELLANT
Neutral citation: Luke M Tembani and Others v President of the Republic of
South Africa and Another (Case no 167/2021) [2022] ZASCA
70 (20 May 2022)
Coram:
PONNAN and MOLEMELA JJA and MUSI, MEYER and
PHATSHOANE AJJA
Heard:
5 May 2022
Delivered: 20 May 2022.
Summary: Exception – delictual claim – whether high court correct in upholding
exception based on causation – whether exception proceedings appropriate to
decide the factual and legal issues raised – appealability – dismissal of an
exception not appealable – conclusion that ‘no order is required to be made’ in a
conditional application not an appealable order.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Van Oosten J,
sitting as court of first instance):
(1)
The appeal is upheld, and the cross-appeal is struck from the roll, in each
instance with costs, including those of two counsel.
(2)
The order of the court below is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘The defendants’ exception to the plaintiffs’ second amended particulars
of claim dated 18 March 2020 is dismissed with costs, including those of
two counsel.’
________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
Ponnan JA (Molemela JA and Musi, Meyer and Phatshoane AJJA
concurring)
[1] To facilitate what has been described as an ambitious land and agrarian
reform programme, the Constitution of the Republic of Zimbabwe was amended
to provide for land expropriation without compensation, as also, to remove the
jurisdiction of the domestic courts of Zimbabwe over disputes relating to
expropriation without compensation.1 Some farmers, including South African
citizens, who had lost their land in consequence of the implementation of the
programme, turned to the Southern African Development Community (SADC)
Tribunal (the Tribunal). The Tribunal held that the jurisdiction of the
Zimbabwean courts had been ousted ‘from any case related to the acquisition of
agricultural land and that the applicants [in that matter] were therefore unable to
1 Law Society of South Africa and Others v President of the Republic of South Africa and Others [2018] ZACC
51; 2019 (3) BCLR 329 (CC); 2019 (3) SA 30 (CC) para 10.
institute proceedings under the domestic jurisdiction’.2 It concluded that
Zimbabwe was in breach of certain of its obligations under the SADC Treaty (the
Treaty)3 and, inter alia, ordered it to pay fair compensation. Zimbabwe, however,
failed to comply with the order of the Tribunal.
[2] In September 2009, at a meeting of the Summit (being the supreme
executive body constituted by the Treaty and comprising the Heads of State of
the member states of SADC) held in Kinshasa in the Democratic Republic of
Congo, Zimbabwe’s failure to comply with the decisions of the Tribunal was
raised. It was resolved to ask the Committee of Ministers of Justice and
Attorneys-General (the Committee) to hold a meeting on the legal issues
regarding Zimbabwe and to advise the Summit. The Committee was also asked
to ‘review the roles, responsibilities and terms of reference of the Tribunal’.
[3] At a meeting of Heads of State and Government, held in Windhoek,
Namibia on 16 and 17 August 2010, further ‘acts of non-compliance by the
Republic of Zimbabwe with regard to the Tribunal’s earlier decisions’ arose for
discussion. The Summit resolved not to re-appoint, for another five-year term,
members of the Tribunal, whose term of office expired in August 2010, pending
the report from the Committee. In May 2011, it was decided, in effect, to suspend
the operations of the Tribunal by neither re-appointing Members of the Tribunal,
whose term of office had expired in 2010, nor replacing those whose term would
expire in 2011.4 In the result, the Tribunal was effectively disabled and unable to
function.
2 See Mike Campbell (Pvt) Ltd and Others v Republic of Zimbabwe [2008] SADCT 2.
3 See Government of the Republic of Zimbabwe v Fick and Others [2013] ZACC 22; 2013 (10) BCLR 1103 (CC);
2013 (5) SA 325 (CC).
4 Law Society of South Africa and Others v President of the Republic of South Africa and Others [2018] ZAGPPHC
4; [2018] 2 All SA 806 (GP); 2018 (6) BCLR 695 (GP) para 20.
[4] Thereafter, on 18 August 2014 and at Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe, the
Summit adopted a new Protocol (the 2014 Protocol). The 2014 Protocol abolished
access by all private individuals to the Tribunal. Thus, instead of facilitating
enforcement of the Tribunal’s decisions, the Summit chose to disregard the
binding Treaty obligations of member states. It treated the relevant Treaty
provisions and the Tribunal decisions as non-existent and also violated the
undertaking to support and promote the Tribunal, whose decisions are supposed
to bind member states and, by extension, the Summit.
[5] The appellants are all private individuals, who had claims arising, in each
instance, from the dispossession by the Government of Zimbabwe (contrary to
the Treaty and International Law) of farms owned, registered or worked by each
of them. Those claims would have been justiciable before the Tribunal, prior to
the adoption of the 2014 Protocol.
[6] The then South African President’s negotiation and signing of the 2014
Protocol was subsequently challenged in litigation on the grounds that it was
unconstitutional, unlawful and irrational. So too, his decision to make common
cause with his peers to not appoint or re-appoint (as the case may be) Members
or Judges to the Tribunal and to suspend the operations of the latter. The
application was launched by the Law Society of South Africa (the LSSA) on 19
March 2015. Some of the current appellants applied for leave to intervene in the
application. Both the intervention application and the review application
succeeded. A Full Court of the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (the
full court), sitting as a court of first instance (by virtue of the importance of the
matter), declared on 1 March 2018 that the President’s participation in suspending
the operations of the SADC Tribunal and his subsequent signing of the 2014
Protocol was unlawful, irrational and thus, unconstitutional. In terms of s
172(2)(a) of the Constitution, the full court referred its order to the Constitutional
Court for confirmation.5
[7] In a judgment delivered on 11 December 2018, the Constitutional Court
confirmed the full court’s declaration of unconstitutionality.6 In arriving at that
conclusion, the Constitutional Court held:
‘[44] . . . every issue that arose for determination is, or is traceable to, an offshoot of a
masterplan that was devised by the Summit at the instance of the Republic of Zimbabwe.
Clearly, Zimbabwe did not want to comply with the unfavourable decisions made against it by
the Tribunal. It then crafted a strategy that would be fatal to the possibility of the Tribunal ever
embarrassing it again.
[45] In all of the above efforts to paralyse the Tribunal, Zimbabwe had a willing ally in South
Africa, as represented by our President. The non-appointment of new Judges and non-renewal
of expired terms was a scheme designed to ensure that the Tribunal would not function because
it would not be quorate. Added to this mix was the decision to impose a moratorium on the
referral of individual disputes to the Tribunal and the signing of the Protocol that seeks to
essentially make this state of affairs permanent.’
[8] Three days after the Constitutional Court handed down its judgment in the
matter, the attorney for the appellants served a notice in terms of s 3(1)(a) of the
Institution of Legal Proceedings Against Certain Organs of State Act 40 of 2002
(the Act) on the State Attorney, pursuant to which ten of the appellants gave
notice of their intention to institute claims for damages against the President of
the Republic of South Africa and the Government of the Republic of South Africa
5 Ibid para 72.
6 Law Society of South Africa and Others v President of the Republic of South Africa and Others [2018] ZACC
51; 2019 (3) BCLR 329 (CC); 2019 (3) SA 30 (CC).
(the respondents).7 The response to the notice from the State Attorney on behalf
of the respondents was:
‘. . . the President does not acknowledge or admit your clients’ claims.
In response to paragraph 5 of the Notice, the president does contend that the Notice has not
been sent within the period prescribed in the act and accordingly intends relying on the failure
to serve the notice timeously.’
[9] On 15 January 2019, the appellants’ attorney served what was described as
a ‘supplementary notice in terms of section 3(1)(a)’ to, as it was put, ‘clarify, and
in certain respects, correct our letter of 14 December 2018’. The supplementary
notice made reference to all 25 of the appellants as well as the various amounts
claimed by each. On 18 January 2019, the State Attorney reiterated that the
appellants’ claims were not admitted and that the notice and supplementary notice
had not been sent within the period prescribed in the Act.
[10] On 9 April 2019, the appellants issued and served: (i) a conditional
condonation application, seeking, to the extent necessary, that any non-
compliance on their part with the provisions of s 3 of the Act, be condoned; and
(ii) a summons and particulars of claim. The respondents chose to meet the
particulars of claim by raising multiple exceptions. Although the particulars of
claim was subsequently amended, the respondents filed yet a further notice of
exception and also opposed the appellants’ conditional condonation application,
in the main, on the basis that the claims had prescribed. Consequently, the
exceptions and conditional condonation application were enrolled for hearing on
7 Section 3 of the Legal Proceedings Against Certain Organs of State Act provides:
‘(1) No legal proceedings for the recovery of a debt may be instituted against an organ of state unless-
(a) the creditor has given the organ of state in question notice in writing of his or her or its intention to
institute the legal proceedings in question; or
(b) the organ of state in question has consented in writing to the institution of that legal proceedings-
(i) without such notice; or
(ii) upon receipt of a notice which does not comply with all the requirements set out in subsection (2).’
the same day before Van Oosten J in the Gauteng Division of the High Court,
Pretoria (the high court)
[11] On 18 December 2020 the high court issued the following order:
‘1. Exception 1 (the factual causation exception) is upheld.
2. Exception 1 (the legal causation exception) is upheld in respect of the 1st, 2nd, 4th, 5th, 6th,
7th, 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th, 13th, 14th, 15th, 18th, 19th, 21st, 22nd, 24th, and 25th plaintiffs’ claims.
3. Exception 2 (the legal duty exception), exception 4 (the domestic remedies exception) and
exception 5 (the pain and suffering exception) are dismissed.
4. No order is made on exception 3 (the second plaintiff’s claim exception).
5. No order is made as to the costs of the condonation application and the exception.
6. Leave is granted to the plaintiffs to amend their particulars of claim by Notice of Amendment
to be delivered on or before 29 January 2021.’
[12] The appellants applied for leave to appeal against paragraphs 1, 2 and 5 of
the order of Van Oosten J. The respondents sought leave: (a) ‘only to the extent
that the court failed to grant an order dismissing the [appellants’] condonation
application and paragraph 5 of the order only in respect of the costs of the
[appellants’] condonation application; and (b) conditionally against paragraph 3
of the order ‘only in respect of the dismissal of Exception 2 (the legal duty
exception) in the event that the [appellants’] are granted leave to appeal against
paragraphs 1 and/or 2 of the order’.
[13] The high court granted leave to appeal to this Court in the following terms:
‘1. The plaintiffs are granted leave to appeal to the Supreme Court of Appeal against paragraphs
1 and 2 of the order delivered by the Honourable Mr Justice Van Oosten on 18 December 2020
(the order);
2. The defendants are granted leave to appeal to the Supreme Court of Appeal against paragraph
3 of the order, only in respect of the dismissal of Exception 2 (the legal duty exception);
3. The defendants are given leave to appeal to the Supreme Court of Appeal against the order
to the extent that the Court did not grant an order dismissing the plaintiffs’ condonation
application.
4. Subject to the right of either party to seek leave to appeal from the Constitutional Court
against a judgment by the Supreme Court of Appeal, the defendants accept that the
determination of the condonation application by the Supreme Court of Appeal will finally
determine the issue of whether the plaintiffs’ claims have prescribed.
5. The plaintiffs and the defendants are granted leave to appeal to the Supreme Court of Appeal
against paragraph 5 of the order.
6. The costs of the plaintiffs’ and defendants’ applications for leave to appeal shall be costs in
the appeal.’
[14] Whilst exceptions provide a useful mechanism ‘to weed out cases without
legal merit’, it is nonetheless necessary that they be dealt with sensibly.8 It is
where pleadings are so vague that it is impossible to determine the nature of the
claim or where pleadings are bad in law in that their contents do not support a
discernible and legally recognised cause of action, that an exception is
competent.9 The burden rests on an excipient, who must establish that on every
interpretation that can reasonably be attached to it, the pleading is excipiable.10
The test is whether on all possible readings of the facts no cause of action may be
made out; it being for the excipient to satisfy the court that the conclusion of law
for which the plaintiff contends cannot be supported on every interpretation that
can be put upon the facts.11
[15] In H v Fetal Assessment Centre, the Constitutional Court recognised that
there may be occasions when ‘the question of the development of the common
8 Telematrix (Pty) Ltd v Advertising Standards Authority SA [2005] ZASCA 73; 2006 (1) SA 461 (SCA) para 3.
9 Cilliers et al Herbstein & Van Winsen The Practice of the High Courts of South Africa 5ed Vol 1 at 631; Jowell
v Bramwell-Jones and Others 1998 (1) SA 836 (W) at 899E-F.
10 Ocean Echo Properties 327 CC and Another v Old Mutual Life Insurance Company (South Africa) Ltd [2018]
ZASCA 9; 2018 (3) SA 405 (SCA) para 9.
11 Trustees for the Time Being of the Children’s Resource Centre Trust and Others v Pioneer Food (Pty) Ltd and
Others [2012] ZASCA 182; 2013 (2) SA 213 (SCA); 2013 (3) BCLR 279 (SCA); [2013] 1 All SA 648 (SCA)
para 36 (Children’s Resource Centre Trust).
law would be better served after hearing all the evidence’.12 Whilst there is no
general rule that issues relating to the development of the common law cannot be
decided on exception, however, where the ‘factual situation is complex and the
legal position uncertain’, it will normally be better not to do so.13 In this regard
reference was made to the Australian case of Harriton v Stephens, where Kirby J
(in dissent) observed:
‘Especially in novel claims asserting new legal obligations, the applicable common law tends
to grow out of a full understanding of the facts. To decide the present appeal on abbreviated
agreed facts risks inflicting an injustice on the appellant because the colour and content of the
obligations relied on may not be proved with sufficient force because of the brevity of the
factual premises upon which the claim must be built. Where the law is grappling with a new
problem, or is in a state of transition, the facts will often “help to throw light on the existence
of a legal cause of action – specifically a duty of care14 owed by the defendant to the plaintiff”.
Facts may present wrongs. Wrongs often cry out for a remedy. To their cry the common law
may not be indifferent.’15
[16] This approach ensures compliance with s 39(2) of the Constitution, which
requires courts to develop the common law by promoting the spirit, purport and
objects of the Bill of Rights, inasmuch as it places a court in a position to make a
final decision ‘after hearing all the evidence, and the decision can be given in the
12 H v Fetal Assessment Centre [2014] ZACC 34; 2015 (2) BCLR 127 (CC); 2015 (2) SA 193 (CC) para 11 (H v
Fetal Assessment Centre).
13 In Carmichele v Minister of Safety and Security [2001] ZACC 22; 2001 (4) SA 938(CC); 2001 (1) BCLR 995
(CC) para 80 the Constitutional Court held, as with some cases on exception, it was also better not to decide issues
about the development of the common law by an order granting absolution from the instance at the end of a
plaintiff’s case in a trial. It stated:
‘There may be cases where there is clearly no merit in the submission that the common law should be developed
to provide relief to the plaintiff. In such circumstances absolution should be granted. But where the factual
situation is complex and the legal position uncertain, the interests of justice will often better be served by the
exercise of the discretion that the trial Judge has to refuse absolution. If this is done, the facts on which the decision
has to be made can be determined after hearing all the evidence, and the decision can be given in the light of all
the circumstances of the case, with due regard to all relevant factors.’
14 It bears mention, as was pointed out in Home Talk Developments (Pty) Ltd and Others v Ekurhuleni
Metropolitan Municipality ZASCA 77; [2017] 3 All SA 382 (SCA); 2018 (1) SA 391 (SCA) para 25, that:
‘. . . in English law ‘‘duty of care’’ is used to denote both what in South African law would be the second leg of
the inquiry into negligence and legal duty in the context of wrongfulness. As Brand JA observed in Trustees, Two
Oceans Aquarium Trust at 144F, ‘‘duty of care’’ in English law ‘‘straddles both elements of wrongfulness and
negligence’’. Accordingly, the phrase ‘‘duty of care’’ in our legal setting is inherently misleading.’ (Footnotes
Omitted.)
15 Harriton v Stephens [2006] HCA 15; (2006) 226 CLR 52; (2006) 226 ALR 391 para 35.
light of all the circumstances of the case, with due regard to all relevant factors’.16
It is thus only if the court can conclude that it is impossible to recognize the claim,
irrespective of the facts as they might emerge at the trial, that the exception can
and should be upheld.17 Hence, courts must assess the various arguments for and
against the recognition of what may be perceived as a novel claim and in doing
so the normative matrix of the Constitution and the Bill of Rights must be applied
for the purposes of determining whether the claim may be recognised in law.18
[17] Indeed, as accepted in H v Fetal Assessment Centre:
‘Even if the conclusion is reached that the limits of our law of delict will be stretched beyond
recognition for harm of this kind to be recognised within its niche, our Constitution gives our
courts the liberty to develop motivated exceptions to common law rules or even recognise new
remedies for infringement of rights.’19
On this basis, the Constitutional Court held that the novel claim under
consideration in that case ‘is not necessarily inconceivable under our law’.20
[18] In Pretorius and Another v Transport Pension Fund and Another,21 the
Constitutional Court reiterated that exception proceedings are inappropriate to
decide the complex factual and legal issues raised by the objections advanced
there. As was the case with H v Fetal Assessment Centre, the Pretorius matter
involved a ‘factual situation [that] is complex and the legal position uncertain’.22
Pretorius held that ‘to decide the possible unconscionableness of state conduct,
it will be better to get the full story thrashed out at a trial’,23 and there is more
16 H v Fetal Assessment Centre fn 12 above para 14, with reference to Carmichele v Minister of Safety and Security
(fn 13 above) para 21.
17 H v Fetal Assessment Centre para 26.
18 H v Fetal Assessment Centre para 42.
19 H v Fetal Assessment Centre para 66.
20 Ibid.
21 Pretorius and Another v Transport Pension Fund and Another [2018] ZACC 10; [2018] 7 BLLR 633 (CC);
2018 (7) BCLR 838 (CC); (2018) 39 ILJ 1937 (CC); 2019 (2) SA 37 (CC) para 42 (Pretorius).
22 Pretorius para 53. See also Fetal Assessment Centre fn 12 above paras 11-2, relying on Carmichele v Minister
of Safety and Security [2001] ZACC 22; 2001 (4) SA 938 (CC); 2001 (1) BCLR 995 (CC).
23 Pretorius para 44.
than enough legal uncertainty to send the claim to trial.24 The Constitutional Court
accordingly concluded that the high court should have dismissed the exception.
[19] H v Fetal Assessment Centre also confirmed the judgment of this Court in
Children’s Resource Centre Trust that if a novel or unprecedented claim is
‘legally plausible’ then it ‘must be determined in the course of the action’.25
Children’s Resource Centre Trust was concerned with a delictual claim based on
a novel legal duty not to act negligently. As was explained ‘the existence of such
a duty depends on the facts of the case and a range of policy issues’, which
required the Court to be ‘fully informed in regard to the policy elements’ and
therefore ‘the enquiry militates against that decision being taken without
evidence’. This, so it was held, renders it impossible to arrive at a conclusion
except upon a consideration of all the circumstances of the case and every other
relevant factor.26
[20] Accordingly, a court must be satisfied that a novel claim is necessarily
inconceivable under our law as potentially developed under s 39(2) of the
Constitution before it can uphold an exception premised on the alleged non-
disclosure of a cause of action. Citing H v Fetal Assessment Centre, the
Constitutional Court held in Pretorius that the dismissal of an exception does not
deprive the respondents of the opportunity of raising the same defences as
substantive defences in their respective pleas and for their merits to be determined
after the leading of evidence at the trial, which is probably, in any event, a better
way to determine the potentially complex factual and legal issues involved.27 This
24 Pretorius para 53.
25 Children’s Resource Centre Trust para 37.
26 Ibid; Minister of Law and Order v Kadir 1995 (1) SA 303 (A) at 318 E-I; Axiam Holdings Ltd v Deloitte &
Touche 2006 (1) SA 237; [2005] 4 All SA 157 (SCA) para 25.
27 Pretorius fn 21 above para 22.
case indeed involves, as was expressly conceded on behalf of the respondents,
‘an unprecedented and novel delictual claim’.
[21] The high court appears to have construed a single exception, explicitly
premised on an alleged failure to plead that the defendants are the ‘cause’ of the
plaintiffs’ losses, as forming two separate exceptions. One strand relates to what
was explicitly described in the judgment as ‘factual causation’ and the other as
‘legal causation’. In that, the high court appeared to have confused the enquiry.
A contention regarding the cause (as opposed to the ‘remoteness’) of loss relates
to factual - as opposed to legal - causation. The exception invoked only the
former. It was accordingly not open to the high court to enter into the question of
legal causation. As this Court has confirmed, ‘[a]n excipient is obliged to confine
his complaint to the stated grounds of his exception.’28
[22] The high court did not properly analyse any of the seven multitier issues
raised in the exception. It referred only to three, but without conducting a
thorough analysis of any or even considering whether the criticisms, such as they
were, indeed satisfied the applicable legal test for exceptions. In that regard, the
high court reasoned:
‘[34] The complaint raised by the defendants is multitiered. First, that the plaintiffs do not
allege that the President’s signature of the 2014 Protocol brought it into force, nor so it was
argued, could they, as the 2014 Protocol only would have become binding and come into force
on signature of the requisite number of member states (two thirds of the Summit members) and
the further requirement of ratification by those states, which, as was accepted by the
Constitutional Court in Law Society, none of the states had complied with. Second, the
Constitutional Court in Law Society ordered the President to withdraw his signature from the
2014 Protocol (which his successor complied with). Third, it is alleged that the President
himself suspended the SADC Tribunal, he indeed participated in a decision by the SADC
28 Feldman NO v EMI Music SA (Pty) Ltd/ EMI Music Publishing SA (Pty) Ltd [2009] ZASCA 75; 2010 (1) SA
1 (SCA); [2009] 4 All SA 307 (SCA) para 7.
Summit, consisting of all the heads of state of the SADC countries, to suspend the Tribunal.
Fourth, it is not alleged that the SADC Summit is precluded from lifting the suspension of the
SADC Tribunal, and sixth, the plaintiffs do not allege that they have claims against the
defendants, but ‘‘claims justiciable by the SADC Tribunal’’ against ‘‘the Government of
Zimbabwe’’, and that ‘‘such claims aris[e] in each instance from the dispossession by the
Government of Zimbabwe’’, and the alleged conduct of its agents and officials.’
[23] The high court proceeded to hold:
‘[41] Delict requires that the wrongful action be the factual and legal cause of the harm suffered
in order to ground an action for damages. In determining factual causation, the ‘‘but for’’ test
applies: but for the occurrence of the wrongful conduct, what would have happened? Once
factual causation is established, and inquiry into legal causation follows. Here the question is
whether the defendant’s conduct is sufficiently closely linked to, or the proximate cause of the
harm suffered for legal liability to ensue, or whether the harm is too remote. This inquiry is
flexible and assessed in the light of what legal policy, reasonability, fairness and justice require.
The test for legal causation is ‘‘a flexible one in which factors such as reasonable foreseeability,
directness, the absence or presence of a novus actus interveniens, legal policy, reasonability,
fairness and justice all play their part’’. . . .
[42] Applying these principles, I am of the view that the facts pleaded, as I have outlined above,
for the reasons stated, do not contain sufficient averments to establish a causal or proximate
cause between the President’s conduct and the plaintiffs’ alleged damages suffered. The notion
that may be inferred from the pleaded facts, that had the President acted constitutionally, he
may have been able to prevent the suspension of the Tribunal by blocking consensus, is a non-
sequitur. The SADC Treaty, as I have pointed out, allows for the dissolution of the Tribunal by
way of majority vote. Therefore, the Presidents opposition or absence of his signature to the
2014 Protocol, would not have made any difference as the Tribunal could still have been
dissolved, by a vote by three-quarters of the other heads of State. As correctly pointed out by
counsel for the defendants, whatever effect the former President’s signature of the 2014
Protocol (absent ratification) may be said to have, even on the basis of a joint-wrongdoer as
contended for by counsel for the plaintiffs, the Constitutional Court’s order that the President
must withdraw that signature, which did in fact occur, thwarted the ‘‘conspiracy’’ to curtail the
jurisdiction of the Tribunal. Formal ratification of the decision, moreover, in any event, never
occurred. Finally, I am unable to find any allegations pleaded, demonstrating that the action or
inaction by only the President of South Africa, being only one member of a body made up of
all SADC’s heads of state, can be said to be the cause of the suspension of the Tribunal.’
[24] The high court’s treatment of the causation exception reveals a conflation
of factual and legal causation. Although purporting to deal with factual causation,
the analysis, in truth, centres on ‘proximate cause’ and ‘remoteness’, ‘legal
policy’, ‘reasonability’, ‘fairness’, and case law on legal causation. In the single
paragraph comprising the high court’s analysis and conclusion on the pleaded
issue, the judgment purports to apply ‘these’ principles, namely those applicable
to legal causation. That paragraph then records the ‘view’ that ‘the facts pleaded
… do not contain sufficient averments to establish a causal or proximate cause’.
Proximate cause relates to legal causation, whilst a causal nexus (to complete the
inchoate concept in the quotation) relates to factual causation. The high court’s
discussion of principles applicable to legal causation (and its fragmented
reference to factual causation) reveals, with respect, a confused analysis. The
upshot of the analysis is the conclusion that the high court was ‘unable to find
any allegations pleaded, demonstrating that the action or inaction by only the
President of South Africa … can be said to be the cause of the suspension of the
Tribunal’. In that, the high court appears, as well, to have misconceived the test.29
[25] Thus, even on this rather perfunctory analysis, it must follow that, in
upholding the factual causation exception, the judgment of the high court cannot
be supported. And, as I have sought to show, legal causation did not even arise.
Yet, it was entertained. This renders it unnecessary to consider the other points
urged upon us in the appeal. As these are proceedings on exception, those, I
daresay, are better left to the trial court.
29 Minister of Finance and Others v Gore NO [2006] ZASCA 98; [2007] 1 All SA 309 (SCA); 2007 (1) SA 111
(SCA) para 33; Lee v Minister of Correctional Services [2012] ZACC 30; 2013 (2) BCLR 129 (CC); 2013 (2) SA
144 (CC); 2013 (1) SACR 213 (CC) paras 47, 55 and 60.
[26] It follows that the appeal against the upholding of the causation exception
must succeed. Consequently, paragraphs 1 and 2 of the order of the high court
fall to be set aside.
[27] Turning to the respondents’ cross-appeal. In Maize Board v Tiger Oats Ltd
this Court held:
‘ . . . it now has to be accepted that a dismissal of an exception (save an exception to the
jurisdiction of the court), presented and argued as nothing other than an exception, does not
finally dispose of the issue raised by the exception and is not appealable. Such acceptance
would on the present state of the law and the jurisprudence of this court create certainty and
accordingly be in the best interests of litigating parties. If litigating parties wish to obtain a
final decision, whichever way the decision of the court goes on an issue raised by an exception,
they should make use of the procedure designed for that purpose namely the procedure
provided for in Rule 33 and either agree on a special case in terms of that rule or request the
court to direct that the issue be finally disposed of in an appropriate manner. If that is done any
misunderstanding on the part of any of the parties and any resulting prejudice should be
avoided.’30
Maize Board has been consistently followed by this Court31 and it is well-
established that this Court will not readily depart from its previous decisions. It
follows that the dismissal by the high court of the legal duty exception is not
appealable.
[28] That leaves the conditional condonation application: Insofar as that
application is concerned, the high court held:
‘[25] . . . I conclude that the [appellants] were correct in their stance that no condonation was
required on the premise that their cause of action was only complete after delivery of the
Constitutional Court’s judgment . . . The launching of the application for condonation on
condition that this finding would not be made, was a wise precautionary decision, which,
understandably so, was not criticised.
30 Maize Board v Tiger Oats Ltd and Others [2002] ZASCA 74; [2002] 3 All SA 593 (A) para 14 (Maize Board).
31 See Itzikowitz v Absa Bank Ltd [2016] ZASCA 43 para 22 and the cases there cited.
[26] It follows that no order is required to be made in the application for condonation save for
the costs thereof, to which I shall revert.’
[29] First, not having made an order, it is unclear why the high court thereafter
saw fit to grant leave to the respondents to appeal to this Court against what it
described as ‘the order to the extent that the Court did not grant an order
dismissing the plaintiffs’ condonation application’. On any reckoning no
appealable order issued. Hence, no appeal can lie.
[30] Second, as paragraph 4 of the order granting leave to appeal to this Court
appears to illustrate, the motivation for the grant of leave, as I discern it, pertains
to what may have been said en passant by the high court in arriving at the
conclusion that ‘no order is required to be made’. Paragraph 4, in part, provides
‘that the determination of the condonation application by [this Court] will finally
determine the issue of whether the plaintiffs’ claims have prescribed’. The fallacy
in the approach, however, is to assume, wrongly so, that an appeal lies against the
reasoning of the court below. It does not. An appeal lies against the substantive
order of a court.32
[31] Third, whilst it is indeed so that condonation cannot be granted if the debt
has already been extinguished by prescription,33 a special defence such as
prescription should ordinarily be raised by way of a special plea. In which event,
it would be open to a plaintiff to file a replication to the effect that the claim had
not prescribed, inter alia, because in terms of s 12 of the Prescription Act,34 the
debt only became due on a date less than three years prior to the date of service
of the summons or because prescription had been interrupted in terms of s 15 or
32 Western Johannesburg Rent Board & another v Ursula Mansions (Pty) Ltd 1948 (3) SA 353 (A) at 355.
33 Legal Aid Board and Others v Singh [2008] ZAKZHC 66; 2009 (1) SA 184 (N).
34 Prescription Act 68 of 1969.
because the completion of prescription had been delayed in terms of s 13.35 The
issue could thereafter be dealt with, if so advised, under rule 33, especially rule
33(4).36
[32] Fourth (and this is linked to the third), whilst the determination of a
condonation application is usually a necessary precursor to the consideration of
the main application or action, here the application was both in substance and
form, as it was styled, a conditional one. The high court appeared to appreciate
as much when it stated:
‘[15] The reason for the condonation application being conditional, the plaintiffs contend, is
that condonation on a correct understanding of the legal position, does not arise. The
condonation application accordingly, was instituted under the Act, merely as a precaution in
an attempt to remove, what was referred to as a non-issue, from the arena.’
And yet, it dealt with it, as it were, as if an anterior application that required
adjudication up-front. What is more, as I have endeavoured to show, the issue
raised therein, namely prescription, neither lent itself to adjudication, nor final
determination, on the papers as they stood. In that regard, the appellants made
plain in their replying affidavit:
‘[55] To the extent that the respondents might attempt to persist in their special plea of
prescription (in respect of which, as mentioned, they bear the onus) at the trial, this will be met
(to the extent that any prima facie case is established) with viva voce evidence at the appropriate
stage.’
It thus seems to me that the high court would have been better advised not to have
entered into the conditional condonation application at this stage of the
proceedings.
[33] It follows that as both the dismissal by the high court of the legal duty
exception and the conclusion that ‘no order is required to be made in the
35 Butler v Swain 1960 (1) SA 527 (N); Yusaf v Bailey 1964 (4) SA 117 (W); Maize Board fn 30 above para 13.
36 De Polo v Dreyer and Others 1989 (4) SA 1059 (W).
application for condonation’ are not appealable, the cross-appeal falls to be struck
from the roll.
[34] In the result:
(1)
The appeal is upheld, and the cross-appeal is struck from the roll, in each
instance with costs, including those of two counsel.
(2)
The order of the court below is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘The defendants’ exception to the plaintiffs’ second amended particulars
of claim dated 18 March 2020 is dismissed with costs, including those of
two counsel.’
_________________
V M Ponnan
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES
For the appellants:
J J Gauntlett QC SC (with F B Pelser)
Instructed by:
Hurter Spies Inc, Pretoria
Hendre Conradie Inc, Bloemfontein
For the respondents:
G Marcus SC (with A Coutsoudis)
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Pretoria
State Attorney, Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
20 May 2022
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does not
form part of the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Luke M Tembani and Others v President of the Republic of South Africa and Another (167/2021) [2022]
ZASCA 70 (20 May 2022)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) handed down a judgment in which it upheld an appeal and
struck a cross-appeal from the roll, in each instance with costs, against a judgment of the Gauteng
Division of the High Court, Pretoria (the high court).
The litigation has its genesis in Zimbabwe’s ambitious land and agrarian reform programme. Some
farmers, including South African citizens, who had lost their land due to the implementation of the
programme, turned to the Southern African Development Community (SADC) Tribunal (the Tribunal),
which concluded that Zimbabwe breached certain obligations under the SADC Treaty (the Treaty) and
ordered it to pay fair compensation. Zimbabwe, however, failed to comply with the order of the Tribunal.
When Zimbabwe’s failure to comply, was raised before a meeting of the Summit (being the supreme
executive body constituted by the Treaty and comprising the Heads of State of the member states of
SADC) it came ultimately to be decided, in effect, to suspend the operations of the Tribunal by neither
re-appointing Members of the Tribunal whose term of office had expired in 2010 nor replacing those
whose term would expire in 2011. As a result, the Tribunal was effectively disabled and unable to
function.
On 18 August 2014, the Summit adopted a new Protocol (the 2014 Protocol) which abolished access
by all private individuals to the Tribunal. Thus, instead of facilitating enforcement of the Tribunal’s
decisions, the Summit chose to disregard the binding Treaty obligations of member states. It treated
the relevant Treaty provisions and the Tribunal decisions as non-existent and also violated the
undertaking to support and promote the Tribunal, whose decisions are supposed to bind member states
and, by extension, the Summit.
The appellants are all private individuals, who had claims arising, in each instance, from the
dispossession by the Government of Zimbabwe (contrary to the Treaty and International Law) of farms
owned, registered or worked by each of them. Those claims would have been justiciable before the
Tribunal prior to the 2014 Protocol abolishing its jurisdiction.
The then South African President’s negotiation and signing of the 2014 Protocol was subsequently
challenged in litigation by the Law Society of South Africa. So too, his decision to make common cause
with his peers to not appoint or re-appoint Members or Judges to the Tribunal, thereby suspending its
operations. Some of the current appellants applied for leave to intervene in those proceedings. On 1
March 2018, a Full Court of the Gauteng Division declared that the President’s participation in
suspending the operations of the SADC Tribunal and his subsequent signing of the 2014 Protocol was
unlawful, irrational and thus, unconstitutional. On 11 December 2018, the Constitutional Court
confirmed the full court’s declaration of unconstitutionality.
Following the Constitutional Court’s judgment, the attorney for the appellants served a notice in terms
of s 3(1)(a) of the Institution of Legal Proceedings Against Certain Organs of State Act 40 of 2002 (the
Act) on the State Attorney, pursuant to which ten of the appellants gave notice of their intention to
institute claims for damages against the President and the Government of the Republic of South Africa,
the respondents in this matter. On 15 January 2019, the appellants’ attorney served a ‘supplementary
notice in terms of section 3(1)(a)’ to ‘clarify, and in certain respects, correct our letter of 14 December
2018’. The supplementary notice made reference to all 25 of the appellants as well as the various
amounts claimed by each. The State Attorney responded that the appellants’ claims were not admitted
and that the notice and supplementary notice had not been sent within the period prescribed in the Act.
On 9 April 2019, the appellants served a conditional condonation application, summons and particulars
of claim. The respondents chose to meet the particulars of claim by raising multiple exceptions.
Although the particulars of claim were subsequently amended, the respondents filed a further notice of
exception. Before the high court, the respondents pressed each of their exceptions and also opposed
the appellants’ conditional condonation application on the basis that the claims had prescribed. The
high court took the view that no order was required to be made in respect of the condonation application.
It upheld only one of the exceptions raised by the respondents, namely what was described as the
causation exception. The high court thereafter granted leave to the (1) appellant's to appeal against the
upholding of the ‘causation exception’; and (2) the respondents to cross appeal against - (2.1) the
dismissal of what was described as the ‘legal duty exception’ and (2.2) ‘the order to the extent that the
Court did not grant an order dismissing the plaintiffs’ condonation application’.
The SCA held that, whilst exceptions provide a useful mechanism ‘to weed out cases without legal
merit’, it was nonetheless necessary that they be dealt with sensibly. It is where pleadings were so
vague that it is impossible to determine the nature of the claim or where pleadings are bad in law in that
their contents do not support a discernible and legally recognised cause of action, that an exception
was competent. Thus, the burden rests on an excipient, who must establish that on every interpretation
that could reasonably be attached to it, the particulars of claim are excipiable. The test was whether,
on all possible readings of the facts, no cause of action might be made out; it being for the excipient to
satisfy the court that the conclusion of law for which the plaintiff contended cannot be supported on
every interpretation that could be put upon the facts.
In addition, the SCA held that a court must be satisfied that a novel claim was necessarily inconceivable
under our law as potentially developed under s 39(2) of the Constitution before it could uphold an
exception premised on the alleged non-disclosure of a cause of action. Moreover, the SCA found that,
this case indeed involves, as was expressly conceded on behalf of the respondents, ‘an unprecedented
and novel delictual claim’. According to the SCA, the high court appeared to have construed a single
exception explicitly premised on an alleged failure to plead that the defendants are the ‘cause’ of the
plaintiff’s losses, as forming two separate exceptions (factual causation and legal causation).
Furthermore, the SCA held that the high court did not properly analyse any of the seven multitier issues
raised in the exception. It referred only to three, but without conducting a thorough analysis of any or
even considering whether the criticisms satisfied the applicable legal test for exceptions. According to
the SCA, the high court appeared to have misconceived the test. The SCA accordingly upheld the
appeal and substituted the order of the high court with one dismissing the causation exception.
In dealing with the respondents’ cross-appeal: The SCA held that the dismissal by the high court of the
legal duty exception was not appealable. Insofar as the conditional condonation application was
concerned, the SCA held that the high court’s order on that score was likewise not appealable. As a
result, the cross-appeal fell to be struck from the roll.
~~~~ends~~~~ |
2436 | non-electoral | 2013 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case no: 891/2012
Not Reportable
In the matter between:
MORNÈ BARNARD
Appellant
and
THE STATE
Respondent
Neutral citation: Barnard v The State (891/2012) [2013] ZASCA 75 (29 May
2013)
Coram:
MPATI P, THERON and PILLAY JJA and WILLIS and
ERASMUS AJJA
Heard:
02 May 2013
Delivered
29 May 2013
Summary:
Criminal Procedure – Leave to appeal – Where an accused obtains
leave to appeal against the refusal in a high court of a petition seeking
leave to appeal against a conviction and sentence in the regional court,
the issue is whether leave to appeal should have been granted by the
high court and not the appeal itself – the test is whether there is a
reasonable prospect of success on appeal.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Free State High Court, Bloemfontein (A Kruger and KJ
Moloi JJ sitting as court of appeal):
The appeal is dismissed.
________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
THERON JA (MPATI P, PILLAY JA and WILLIS and ERASMUS AJJA
concurring):
[1] The appellant stood trial on three charges, namely rape, common assault
and unlawfully pointing a firearm in the regional court, Welkom. On 23 March
2010, he was convicted of rape and sentenced to 15 years’ imprisonment.
[2] It is necessary to consider the nature and ambit of this appeal. This court,
in S v Khoasasa 2003 (1) SACR 123 (SCA) held that the refusal of leave to
appeal to a high court by judges of that court, constitutes a final order of a
provincial division against which an appellant, either with the leave of the high
court or this court, could appeal.
[3] Where a person obtains leave to appeal to this court against the refusal in
a high court of a petition seeking leave to appeal against a conviction or
sentence in the regional court, as is the case here, the issue before the court is
whether leave to appeal should have been granted by the high court and not the
merits of the appeal.1 This is the position as this court does not have authority to
entertain an appeal directly from the regional court.2
[4] It is trite that the test in regard whether leave to appeal should have been
granted by the high court is whether there are reasonable prospects of success
on appeal – whether a court of appeal could reach a different conclusion to that
of the trial court.
[5] In order to determine whether the appellant has prospects of success on
appeal, it is necessary to briefly examine the merits. It is neither necessary nor
desirable to deal with the merits in great detail.3 The facts giving rise to the
prosecution and conviction of the appellant are largely common cause. During
the early hours of 28 June 2008, the appellant was driving his motor vehicle in
the town of Virginia, in the Free State, when he picked up the complainant, who
had signalled that she was looking for a lift. They travelled to the appellant’s
home where they had sexual intercourse. The question before the trial court was
whether the intercourse was consensual or not. The appellant’s version was that
the intercourse was consensual and he believed that the complainant was a
prostitute.
[6] On appeal, it was contended, on behalf of the appellant, that the high
court ought to have found that there is a reasonable possibility that another court
might find that the trial court erred in two respects. First, in rejecting the
appellant’s version as not being reasonably possibly true. Secondly, in not
approaching the evidence of the complainant with the necessary caution and
merely paying lip service to the cautionary rule. The reasons stipulated by the
magistrate for rejecting the version of the appellant, were (1) the evidence did
1 Matshona v S [2008] 4 All SA 68 (SCA) para 5.
2 S v N 1991 (2) SACR 10 (A) at 16a-e; S v Khoasasa 2003 (1) SACR 123 (SCA) para 12; Matshona v S [2008]
4 All SA 68 (SCA) para 3.
3 De Sousa v S [2012] JOL 29000 (SCA) para 9.
not support the alleged belief held by the appellant that the complainant was a
prostitute; (2) neither the nature of the services to be rendered nor the price to
be paid was discussed; and (3) crucial aspects of the appellant’s version were
not put to the complainant, such as that the complainant had placed her hand on
his thigh shortly after entering the motor vehicle, that she had enjoyed the
sexual intercourse and that the sex had been rough (‘rowwe seks’). In accepting
the evidence of the complainant, the trial court found that she was an impressive
witness, that her evidence was corroborated in material respects and in
particular by the medical evidence. I am not persuaded that the magistrate was
wrong in the assessment of the evidence and accordingly am not satisfied that
there exists a reasonable possibility that an appeal court can reach a different
conclusion in respect of the conviction.
[7] The following factors have a bearing on whether there are reasonable
prospects of success in respect of sentence. The appellant was 34 at time of his
trial, with a previous conviction for assault. He was employed by the South
African Police Service as a police officer. He had suffered financially since the
charges were brought against him as he had been suspended for a period. He
would probably, and in consequence of his conviction, be dismissed from his
employment. There are a number of aggravating factors in this matter namely
(a) although he was off-duty at the time, the appellant was a police officer who
was supposed to protect and serve the community; (b) the complainant trusted
him and he abused this trust; (c) a firearm was used to threaten the complainant;
(d) the complainant sustained physical injuries as well as psychological trauma
in consequence of the rape; and (e) rape is a serious and extremely prevalent
offence. Having regard to the nature and circumstances of the offence, the
personal circumstances of the appellant as well as the interests of the
community, I am not persuaded that another court might find that the sentence
of 15 years’ imprisonment is unduly excessive or shockingly inappropriate.
[8] In the result, the appeal is dismissed.
______________
L V THERON
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES
For Appellant:
J Nel SC
Instructed by:
Pie-Ér Huggett Incorporated,
Bloemfontein
For Respondent:
S Goirgi
Instructed by:
The Director of Public Prosecution,
Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE
SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN COURT OF
APPEAL
29 May 2013
STATUS: Immediate
MORNÈ BARNARD and THE STATE
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) dismissed an appeal against the refusal of a
petition in the high court for leave to appeal to that court against a conviction and sentence
imposed in the regional court.
The appellant stood trial on three charges, namely rape, common assault and unlawfully
pointing a firearm in the regional court, Welkom. On 23 March 2010, he was convicted of
rape and sentenced to 15 years’ imprisonment. On that same day he applied, in terms of s
309B of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 (the Act), for leave to appeal against his
conviction and sentence. The trial court refused the application. Thereafter, and in terms of s
309C of the Act, he applied to the Judge President of the Free State Provincial Division, for
such leave. The petition to the high court was refused by two judges (Kruger and Moloi JJ).
The question before the trial court was whether the intercourse was consensual or not. The
appellant’s version was that the intercourse was consensual and he believed that the
complainant was a prostitute.
The SCA held that it was not persuaded that the magistrate was wrong in the assessment of
the evidence. It was also not satisfied that there exists a reasonable possibility that an
appeal court can reach a different conclusion in respect of the conviction.
In respect of sentence, the SCA found that, having regard to the nature and circumstances
of the offence, the personal circumstances of the appellant as well as the interests of the
community, it was not persuaded that another court might find that the sentence of 15 years’
imprisonment is unduly excessive or shockingly inappropriate.
--- ends -- |
10 | non-electoral | 2017 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 925/2015
In the matter between:
WESTMINSTER TOBACCO CO
(CAPE TOWN AND LONDON) (PTY) LTD
APPELLANT
and
PHILIP MORRIS PRODUCTS S.A.
FIRST RESPONDENT
THE REGISTRAR OF TRADE MARKS SECOND RESPONDENT
PHILIP MORRIS BRANDS SARL
THIRD RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Westminster Tobacco Co v Philip Morris Products SA
(925/2015) [2017] ZASCA 10 (16 March 2017)
Coram:
LEACH, WALLIS, PETSE and ZONDI JJA and MBATHA
AJA
Heard:
23 February 2017
Delivered:
16 March 2017
Summary: Expungement of trade mark for non-use in terms of s 27(1(b)
of the Trade Marks Act 194 of 1993 – test for bona fide use of a trade
mark – factual enquiry.
ORDER
On appeal from: Gauteng Division, Pretoria of the High Court (Louw J,
sitting as court of first instance):
1 The appeal is upheld with costs, such costs to be paid by the first
respondent and to include those consequent upon the employment
of two counsel.
2 The order of the High Court is set aside and replaced by the
following:
‗The application is dismissed with costs, such costs to be paid by
the first respondent and to include those consequent upon the
employment of two counsel.‘
JUDGMENT
Wallis JA (Leach, Petse and Zondi JJA and Mbatha AJA
concurring)
Introduction
[1] The only issue in this appeal is whether the appellant, Westminster
Tobacco Company (Cape Town and London) (Pty) Ltd (Westminster),
proved that, during the period of five years prior to and expiring on
22 July 2008, it made bona fide use of the trade mark PARLIAMENT on
cigarettes. If it did not do so, the two registered trade marks it held for
that mark, being trade mark registration number 1952/00688
PARLIAMENT and trade mark registration 1997/17613 PARLIAMENT
(label), were liable to expungement in terms of s 27(1)(b) of the Trade
Marks Act 194 of 1993 (the Act). The challenge to the continued
registration of the marks came from the first respondent, Philip Morris
Products SA (Philip Morris). It successfully claimed in the High Court1
(Louw J) that Westminster had not made bona fide use of the marks and
obtained an order for their removal from the trade marks register. The
appeal is with the leave of the High Court.
[2] Westminster is a wholly owned subsidiary of British American
Tobacco South Africa (Pty) Ltd (BATSA), which in turn is a wholly
owned subsidiary of British American Tobacco Holdings South Africa
(Pty) Ltd. All three are companies in the British American Tobacco group
of companies (the BAT group), one of the largest suppliers of cigarette
and tobacco related products in the world. The group‘s trading activities
in South Africa are conducted through BATSA and, in dealing with the
alleged use of the marks, I will refer to BATSA on the footing that the
use it made of the marks was authorised use. Philip Morris is a company
in the Philip Morris International group of companies (the PMI group)
that, like the BAT group, is a major international manufacturer and
supplier of cigarettes and tobacco related products.
[3] The conflict between these two multinational groups arises because
the PMI group uses the trade mark PARLIAMENT internationally in
respect of one of its premier brands of cigarettes, but is unable to do so in
South Africa. In 2006, a company in the PMI group, Philip Morris Brands
SÀRL, applied for a trade mark registration under application number
1 The application was initially before the Registrar of Patents but was referred to the High Court in
terms of s 59(2) of the Act.
2006/02685 for the mark PARLIAMENT. It could not obtain registration
because Westminster was registered as the proprietor of the two marks in
issue. Both registrations were in class 34 in respect of cigarettes and other
tobacco related products. On the basis of its application for registration,
Philip Morris Brands SÀRL sought and obtained leave to intervene in the
appeal as a third respondent, although its intervention did not affect the
conduct of the appeal. The Registrar, who was cited as the second
respondent, played no part in the proceedings below or in this court.
[4] On 22 October 2008 Philip Morris brought its application in terms
of s 27(1)(b) of the Act for the rectification of the register by the removal
of Westminister‘s two marks on the grounds of non-use. Under the
section the marks were liable to be removed from the register if, for a
continuous period of five years prior to and expiring on 22 July 2008,
there was no bona fide use thereof in relation to the goods or services in
respect of which they were registered.2 The onus of proof of bona fide use
rested upon Westminster in terms of s 27(3) of the Act.
The law
[5] The concept of bona fide use of a mark has received the attention
of our courts on various occasions. There is no need to rehearse the
2 The section reads in material part:
‗ … a registered trade mark may, on application to the court, … by any interested person, be removed
from the register in respect of any of the goods or services in respect of which it is registered, on the
ground either—
(a)…
(b)
that up to the date three months before the date of the application, a continuous period of five
years or longer has elapsed from the date of issue of the certificate of registration during which the
trade mark was registered and during which there was no bona fide use thereof in relation to those
goods or services by any proprietor thereof or any person permitted to use the trade mark as
contemplated in section 38 during the period concerned;‘
jurisprudence in this regard. It suffices to cite the following passage from
the judgment in A M Moolla Group v The Gap:3
‗The concept of bona fide use has been the subject of a number of judgments, also of
this Court, and the area need not be traversed again. For present purposes, it suffices
to say that ―bona fide user‖:
― means a user by the proprietor of his registered trade mark in connection with the
particular goods in respect of which it is registered with the object or intention
primarily of protecting, facilitating, and furthering his trading in such goods, and not
for some other, ulterior object‖4
This test is similar to that proposed in an opinion by the Advocate General in the
European Court of Justice in the Ansul case:
―When assessing whether use of the trade mark is genuine, regard must be had to all
the facts and circumstances relevant to establishing whether the commercial
exploitation of the mark is real, particularly whether such use is viewed as warranted
in the economic sector concerned to maintain or create a share in the market for the
goods or services protected by the mark, the nature of those goods or services, the
characteristics of the market and the scale and frequency of use of the mark.‖‘
[6] I add one further quotation from the decision in Ansul:5
‗―Genuine use‖ must therefore be understood to denote use that is not merely token,
serving solely to preserve the rights conferred by the mark. Such use must be
consistent with the essential function of a trade mark, which is to guarantee the
identity of the origin of goods or services to the consumer or end user by enabling
him, without any possibility of confusion, to distinguish the product or service from
others which have another origin.
3 A M Moolla Group Ltd and Others v The Gap Inc and Others 2005 (6) SA 568 (SCA) para 42. There
is a full collection of the authorities in Arjo Wiggins Ltd v Idem (Pty) Ltd and Another 2002 (1) SA 591
(SCA) para 6 and see The Gap Inc v Salt of the Earth Creations (Pty) Ltd and Others 2012 (5) SA 259
(SCA) paras 3 - 7.
4 The quotation is from the judgment of Trollip J in Gulf Oil Corporation v Rembrandt Fabrikante en
Handelaars (Edms) Bpk 1963 (2) SA 10 (T) 27G-H.
5 Ansul BV v Ajax Brandbeveiliging BV 2003 (RPC) C-40/01 paras 36 and 37
… Use of the mark must therefore relate to goods or services already marketed or
about to be marketed and for which preparations by the undertaking to secure
customers are underway, particularly in the form of advertising campaigns.‘
[7] In summary, bona fide use is use of the trade mark in relation to
goods of the type in respect of which the mark is registered. The use must
be use as a trade mark, for the commercial purposes that trade mark
registration exists to protect. It must be use in the course of trade and for
the purpose of establishing, creating or promoting trade in the goods to
which the mark is attached. The use does not have to be extensive, but it
must be genuine.6 Genuineness is to be contrasted with use that is merely
token, but the line is a fine one, because the use may be minimal.7 It may
in part be prompted by the fear of removal from the register and be
directed at protecting the proprietor‘s trade generally or preventing the
mark from falling into the hands of a competitor. Provided, however, the
use is bona fide and genuine and principally directed at promoting trade
in goods bearing the mark, these further purposes however important, are
irrelevant.8 What is impermissible is:
‗ ... user for an ulterior purpose, unassociated with a genuine intention of pursuing the
object for which the Act allows the registration of a trade mark and protects its use
…‘.9
Whether use of the mark was bona fide is a question to be determined on
the facts of the particular case.
6 The Gap supra paras 5-7.
7 La Mer Technology Inc v Laboratoires Goemar SA [2004] FSR 38; Laboratoires Goëmar SA v La
Mer Technology Inc [2005] EWCA Civ 978; [2005] All ER (D) 493 (Jul) In that case the Court of
Appeal in England held that five or six sales to a distributor amounting to about £800, with no proof of
sales to the public, involved genuine use of the mark.
8 Electrolux Ltd v Electrix Ltd (1954) 71 (2) RPC 23 at 35-36; Oude Meester Groep Bpk & Another v
SA Breweries Ltd; SA Breweries Ltd & Another v Distillers Corporation (SA) Ltd & Another 1973 (4)
SA 145 (W) 151B-D.
9 Gulf Oil Corporation v Rembrandt Fabrikante en Handelaars (Edms) Bpk 1963 (3) SA 341 (A)
351E-G.
The launch of PARLIAMENT cigarettes
[8] Turning then to the facts, before 2007 BATSA did not use the
PARLIAMENT mark on any cigarettes or tobacco related products. In
September 2007 it caused one million cigarettes (‗sticks‘ in the parlance
of the trade) to be manufactured for the purpose of being sold under the
PARLIAMENT mark. In the latter stages of October 2007 a launch was
planned of PARLIAMENT cigarettes in the Cape Peninsula to take place
in December 2007. It was, however, aborted. According to Ms Heglund,
the principal witness for BATSA, this was because the launch of a new
product in that area would have interfered with a far more important
project, namely a policy of direct selling to stores (the DSS policy),
which involved a substantial change to BATSA‘s method of supplying
retail outlets. Previously it had done this through a relatively small group
of wholesalers, but the change contemplated BATSA undertaking direct
deliveries to retail outlets.
[9] The first launch of cigarettes under the PARLIAMENT mark
occurred in Upington from 17 January 2008. The cigarettes were initially
placed in twenty retail outlets identified by Mr Nel, a sales representative
in Upington, as being shops that predominantly served the low price end
of the market. This sales effort in the Upington area did not last long – a
few weeks at most. In May 2008 a price card was issued showing the
prices at which PARLIAMENT cigarettes could be sold and on 2 June
2008 sales were expanded to retail outlets in the Bloemfontein and
Welkom areas. In August 2008, after the expiry of the relevant period,
sales of PARLIAMENT cigarettes were also extended to Gauteng. The
mark was used on cigarettes for a few years until 201210 and sales
extended to some other areas including the Eastern Cape, the whole of
Gauteng and the Southern Cape. Overall the brand did not become a
particularly successful product. We were furnished with a schedule
showing sales of about 1.5 million cigarettes in 2008; slightly less than 10
million in 2009 and nearly 15 million in 2010, which is tiny in relation to
a market measured in the billions of cigarettes every year. A production
record produced by BATSA suggested that production was anticipated to
tail off in 2011 and subsequent years and according to Mr Joubert‘s
evidence sales of PARLIAMENT cigarettes ended in 2012.
BATSA’s initial case
[10] BATSA‘s case underwent a marked transformation in the course of
the litigation, precipitated by the discovery of a document in the days
immediately preceding the commencement of the trial. I will deal with
the change in due course, but at this stage will consider the case as
originally advanced by BATSA. The answering affidavit was deposed to
by Ms Heglund, who was at the time a marketing manager (Southern
African markets) of BATSA with responsibility for its portfolio of
cigarette brands in the mid and low price ranges at the relevant times.11
She said that, at the time of her affidavit in 2009, mid-price cigarettes
were priced at between R14 and R18 for a pack of 20 cigarettes. The low
price range was between R10 and R14 for a similar-sized pack. BATSA
faced particular issues in the low price segment of the market because of
the presence of counterfeit cigarettes and illicit cigarettes, that is, those
10 BATSA produced sales data for the period from 2008 to 2010. A Nielsen Brand Analysis shows
sales continuing until 2012.
11 BATSA treated the cigarette market as stratified into four segments, namely, premium, popular, mid-
price and low price. It had different brands in the first three but historically had no brand that fell in the
low price segment. The nearest was PRINCETON but it was priced at a level that meant it could not
compete with low price offerings.
that had been introduced into the market unlawfully without the payment
of excise duties. BATSA already held the three dominant brands in the
mid-price range, in the form of ROYALS, EMBASSY and PRINCETON.
But it had no brand in the low price sector of the market, where there
were some 20 brands of which, according to her, ASPEN and LD were
the leading brands. In fact another brand, VOYAGER, featured
prominently in the evidence.
[11] Ms Heglund explained the introduction of the PARLIAMENT
brand in the following terms:
‗The PARLIAMENT cigarette brand has been positioned by BATSA as an important
new brand in the Low price sector. A key factor in the Value portfolio is pricing. It is
imperative to set the pricing strategy correctly to compete properly in the legitimate
Mid and Low price sectors. The price must be low enough to be attractive to the
consumer while, at the same time, providing a meaningful margin to the retailer.
BATSA has a separate Anti Illicit Trade (AIT) operation which deals with the illicit
cigarette market. While BATSA is well positioned in the Value portfolio (Mid price
products) with its brands ROYALS, EMBASSY, and PRINCETON, it would not be
good practice to re-categorise one of the existing brands into the Low sector. Best
practice is to introduce a new brand and PARLIAMENT was chosen for this purpose.‘
[12] Ms Heglund described the initial launch of PARLIAMENT
cigarettes in Upington and said that this was aimed at gaining insights
into and enhanced understanding of PARLIAMENT in the low price
segment, in order to develop ‗long-term sales and marketing strategy‘ for
the brand. She explained that, after the initial launch, sales of the brand
were extended to the Bloemfontein and Welkom areas and, in August
2008, to Gauteng. After referring to the fact that sales figures nationally
were in the region of one million cigarettes, she concluded as follows:
‗Considering that the PARLIAMENT brand was only launched in January 2008, and
has since then progressively been introduced to the national market through targeted
low price outlets, the objectives behind the Respondent‘s launch strategy have been
realised. The insights gained from this introductory period have contributed
immensely to the Respondent developing a commercially viable long-term strategy
for the PARLIAMENT brand.‘
[13] A somewhat different picture was painted in a witness statement
for the legal counsel to companies in the BATSA group, Mr Joubert. This
statement was delivered during preparation for the trial, in terms of an
order that witness statements be exchanged between the parties. He
explained in some detail that there was a problem in South Africa with
counterfeit and illicit cigarettes and that this problem had worsened
between 2005 and 2008. According to his statement:
‗The exploitation of the PARLIAMENT product was aimed at curbing this trend.‘
[14] Philip Morris‘ response to this was to deliver a witness statement
by an employee, Ms Fleming, apparently on the basis that she was an
expert in the correct or normal approach to the launch of a new brand of
cigarettes in the market. In a detailed analysis of the discovered
documents she expressed forthright criticism of Ms Heglund‘s
explanation in her answering affidavit concluding that:
‗… this was not a genuine launch to further the legitimate commercial interests of the
Respondent and to gain any insight into the low price sector‘.
I have my doubts as to the admissibility of much of Ms Fleming‘s
evidence, which appeared in many respects to be an attempt to provide
the court in advance with an outline of counsel‘s argument and to answer
the very question that it was for the court to decide, but no point was
made of this in argument and ultimately there was virtually no reference
to her evidence for the purposes of this appeal.
[15] Much of the cross-examination in the high court, as well as the
evidence lead by Philip Morris, was directed at showing that these
explanations for the launch of PARLIAMENT cigarettes were spurious
and that the true reason was to protect the trade marks and nothing more.
Likewise the heads of argument in this court included an extensive
analysis of the evidence with a view to demonstrating that these
explanations could not be truthful. The conclusion was that:
‗Examination of the actual ―test‖ market for PARLIAMENT cigarettes reveals that
the Appellant‘s stated objective was a fiction and was in fact not carried out. The
Appellant‘s very account of the launch is not bona fide as demonstrated hereunder.‘
A further analysis of the evidence with extracts from documents and oral
testimony, attached as a schedule to the heads of argument, pursued the
same theme and concluded that:
‗… as is evident from the above summary of the evidence presented in the matter, the
only inference that can be drawn is that BATSA‘s use of the PARLIAMENT trade
mark was solely for the purposes of avoiding the trade mark being cancelled on the
basis of non-use.‘
[16] Had the case rested on the original explanations by Ms Heglund
and Mr Joubert, BATSA may well not have discharged the onus that
rested upon it of showing bona fide use of the marks. Those explanations
were inconsistent with BATSA‘s own documents and the concessions
these two witnesses made under cross-examination in regard to them. In
the absence of a plausible explanation for the launch of the
PARLIAMENT brand BATSA may well have had difficulty in
discharging the burden of proving bona fide use of the marks. The
suspicion, supported by a number of references in the documents, that the
use of the PARLIAMENT mark was directed at the preservation of the
marks on the register and nothing else may not have been dispelled.
BATSA’s case at trial
[17] But BATSA‘s case did not rest on the original explanations. When
properly analysed it was based on an entirely different explanation of the
launch of PARLIAMENT cigarettes. It took that new direction after
Ms Heglund, who was no longer an employee of BATSA, fortuitously
discovered a document that she had been asking the company to produce.
Searches at the company had failed to unearth it, but she found it on a
memory stick inside an old handbag of hers, when her child was playing
with the handbag. It contained a presentation made by the local BATSA
marketing team in relation to concerns they had about the growth of the
low price segment of the market. The presentation was made in
December 2006 to the Africa Middle East group (the AME group) within
BATSA‖s international operations. The AME group consisted of the
regional director responsible for Africa and the Middle East and a team
that accompanied him. It met with a local group lead by the head of
strategy in South Africa, Ms Steyn.
[18] The presentation addressed the problems being experienced in the
cigarette market in South Africa. Studies revealed a trend of reduced sales
generally, but increasing sales in the low price market and sales of illicit
cigarettes. These trends posed a threat to BATSA‘s business, as smokers
who were experiencing difficult economic times were moving from the
popular and mid-price segments of the market towards the low price
sector. BATSA had never particularly traded in the low price sector of the
cigarette market. Its principal brand, Peter Stuyvesant, was positioned as
a popular brand between the mid-price and the premium sectors of the
market and represented forty five percent of all cigarettes sold in South
Africa. BATSA‘s fear was that, if it introduced a quality low price
cigarette into the market, its effect would primarily be to draw smokers
away from Peter Stuyvesant towards the less profitable low price brand,
rather than gaining market share from the plethora of low price brands
that had come into the market. An analysis it had done on the likely
impact of re-categorising Pall Mall, one of its existing brands, as a low-
price brand suggested that whatever competitive advantage it gained as
against low-price competitors would be offset by a significant level of
cannibalisation of the Peter Stuyvesant brand. These problems were
highlighted in the presentation
[19] The final page of this document is headed ‗outcome of the
discussion‘. Ms Heglund testified that Ms Steyn, who was present and
was head of strategy at BATSA, typed it at the end of the meeting.
Counsel for Philip Morris accepted that this was so and that the document
was genuine and reflected the outcome of the discussions at that meeting.
Ms Steyn‘s note read as follows:
‗LOW
Do not enter given profit erosion
Tactical execution
ILLICIT
Continue with AIT strategy and government engagement is KEY
Do not manage through pricing strategies.‘
[20] The heading ‗LOW‘ related to the low price sector of the market
and the heading ‗ILLICIT‘ to the counterfeit and duty avoiding sector.
The clear statements under the latter head put paid to Mr Joubert‘s
suggestion that one of the purposes of the launch of the PARLIAMENT
brand was to deal with the problem of illicit sales. He accepted this in a
supplementary witness statement delivered on the Friday before the
commencement of the trial and again in his oral evidence.
[21] The first entry under the heading ‗LOW‘ reflected a clear decision
not to enter the low-price sector of the market, because of the risk of
profit erosion arising from the cannibalisation of the Peter Stuyvesant
brand. This was compatible with the outcome of the marketing and
strategy team‘s analysis of the situation as reflected in the presentation.
That left the possibility of ‗tactical execution‘. The meaning, purpose and
implementation of this decision assumed central importance in the
conduct of the trial and the arguments that were addressed to us.
[22] Although, as was repeatedly emphasised in both written and oral
argument, the case presented by BATSA at the trial was transformed by
the discovery and production of this document, it could not have come as
a complete surprise to Philip Morris. Its vastly experienced legal team did
not think it necessary to seek an adjournment to reflect on its
implications. No doubt that was because the bundle already contained
documents, to which I will turn in a moment, which used the expression
‗tactical execution‘ or a similar expression. Ms Fleming‘s witness
statement expressly recognised that there was an intention to use it for
that purpose, although she dated it to August 2009 and a re-launch of the
PARLIAMENT brand.12 She also analysed the documents referring to the
use of the brand for tactical purposes. But for so long as BATSA
continued to run its case in accordance with Ms Heglund‘s answering
affidavit these documents did no more than rebut that case. It was only
once the summary of the decisions at the meeting with the AME group in
December 2016 emerged that they assumed far greater significance.
12 Her statement read: ‗In August 2009, PARLIAMENT was re-launched within the BATSA portfolio
as a tactical market brand to be used to disrupt low price competitor brands with its brand strategy
based solely on pricing.
[23] While the discovery and production of this document by Ms
Heglund caused her a measure of discomfiture under cross-examination,
the fact that she sought it out and produced it, even at a late stage when
she must have been preparing to give her evidence, reflected favourably
on her honesty and credibility. Had she been dishonest it would have
been the simplest thing in the world to suppress it and carry on as before.
After all, that was what her erstwhile employer was expecting. Instead
she asked for it and, having discovered it by accident, produced it and it
was made available to Philip Morris. It occasioned a measure of
discomfiture because BATSA‘s legal team sought to run the case on the
basis that the tactical execution referred to in the document and explained
by her in evidence was consistent with her original affidavit. This was
exploited in cross-examination because the inconsistency was apparent. It
may have been preferable for BATSA to accept that what she had said
originally was incorrect, and live with the consequences. But that is
possibly the wisdom of hindsight emanating from one who no longer has
responsibility for the conduct of trials on behalf of clients.
[24] Ms Heglund not only explained what was meant and understood by
the strategy and marketing team by ‗tactical execution‘, but testified that
this was the nature and purpose of the launch of PARLIAMENT. She
said it meant that instead of a national launch of a single product in the
low price section of the market they would consider, evaluate and
investigate tactical options. No single brand in the low price sector had a
very large market share and therefore it was possible to take a brand
tactically into areas where there was specific low price activity or ‗hot
spots‘ in the market, and attempt to reduce the opposition in those
specific areas. The idea was to disrupt ‗opposition traction‘ in the
environment and to distract the consumer by making a further choice
available.
Philip Morris’ case
[25] Philip Morris‘ case, as articulated in its heads of argument, was
that the only inference that could be drawn from the evidence was that
BATSA‘s use of the PARLIAMENT mark was solely for the purpose of
avoiding its removal from the register. In advancing this argument, stress
was laid on the fact that Mr Joubert was aware of the risk that the
registration of the mark might otherwise be lost, and had suggested using
the PARLIAMENT mark. Furthermore, documents discovered by
Westminister emphasised the need to launch the product in time to
prevent the mark from being deregistered. A launch presentation dated 14
December 2007 said that BATSA needed to demonstrate use of the mark
before April 2008. The same presentation recorded that PMI was the
international trade mark owner. Protection of the trade mark was
manifestly one of the objectives of the launch. Philip Morris argued that
BATSA had failed to demonstrate any other legitimate trade objective
and, to this end, placed evidence before the High Court to show that the
steps taken to place PARLIAMENT cigarettes in the market were not
those ordinarily attendant upon the launch of a new cigarette. This
evidence was largely uncontested, save in regard to its relevance. Lastly,
Philip Morris launched a sustained attack on the credibility of the
principal witnesses for BATSA, namely, Mr Joubert and Ms Heglund,
and their evidence concerning the purpose of the launch of the
PARLIAMENT brand.
[26] Philip Morris attacked Ms Heglund‘s evidence on the basis that the
manner in which the launch was conducted from January to July 2008
and thereafter, would not have served the purposes she outlined. The
argument proceeded as follows. The initial launch in Upington, in 20
outlets selected by Mr Nel, was unscientific and an inadequate sample for
information purposes. It was not undertaken with any degree of vigour or
enthusiasm, nor had it an adequate budget. Moreover, Upington was an
isolated place to launch a brand with this tactical purpose. If indeed that
were truly the purpose, the launch should have been undertaken in a
major urban area, particularly if useful information was to be derived
from it. There was no market research of the smoking preferences of the
target group and no follow up when reports were received that the target
group did not like the taste of PARLIAMENT cigarettes. Once the launch
took place there was no proper follow-up with retailers or consumers. The
information that was obtained was so limited and superficial in nature
that it was effectively valueless. Fairly rapidly the launch fizzled out in
that area. The launch was then pursued in the Bloemfontein and Welkom
areas, in the same desultory fashion, which suggested a concern to
dispose of the initial stock of one million cigarettes before they became
stale, rather than a desire to establish the PARLIAMENT brand.
[27] I accept that, in contrast to the introduction of other brands by
BATSA, the launch of PARLIAMENT was characterised by hesitation, a
lack of planning and follow-up and a failure to follow the usual course for
such a launch. But the use of a mark does not cease to be bona fide
because it is characterised by inefficiency, incompetence or failure. The
only question is whether it was genuinely used for trade mark purposes. If
a large and successful commercial organisation, such as BATSA,
mishandles a product launch or conducts it in a fashion that to industry
experts seems sloppy, amateurish and unlikely to succeed, that may be an
important factor in considering whether it was a bona fide attempt to
launch a product using the mark in issue. Such conduct may well aim at
disguising an intention to put the mark on a product in the market solely
to protect it against a rival and not to trade using that mark. It cannot,
however, be decisive where the evidence indicates that there was in fact a
genuine intention to launch the product using the mark for commercial
purposes. So it becomes necessary to weigh Philip Morris‘ criticisms
against the evidence pointing to a genuine intention to use the
PARLIAMENT mark in the manner outlined by Ms Heglund in her
evidence.
Credibility
[28] In the High Court Philip Morris submitted that Ms Heglund was
an unsatisfactory witness. Louw J did not accept this criticism. He agreed
that what was said in her affidavit about a nationwide launch of a new
brand in the low price sector of the market was inconsistent with her oral
evidence about targeted entry into low price hot spots of limited duration
with the object of disrupting the business of legal competitors, while
protecting the Peter Stuyvesant brand. But in the very next paragraph of
his judgment he went on to say that he accepted her evidence that the
latter was indeed the intention of BATSA in launching the
PARLIAMENT brand of cigarettes.
[29] Philip Morris accepted that an appeal court does not lightly
overturn credibility findings by a trial court, but nonetheless in its heads
of argument launched a forthright and direct attack on Ms Heglund‘s
credibility. It said that she was an ‗unsatisfactory witness‘, and that there
were various aspects of her evidence ‗which are not credible‘, in
particular where her oral evidence did not coincide with the contents of
her affidavit. She was criticised for her failure to make concessions in
cross-examination and some of her evidence was described as manifestly
false. Her evidence that the initial launch was a test was debunked. In
conclusion it was submitted that:
‗Faced with the damaging discovered documents which were clearly at odds with the
original answering affidavit of Ms Heglund, the Appellant was forced to ―invent‖ a
more plausible explanation for the use. But even the version ultimately advanced in
oral testimony as to the intent behind those ―test‖ launches cannot survive scrutiny,
and is false in material respects.‘
More forthrightly it was said that ‗the intent to disrupt is fictitious‘.
[30] The attack on Ms Heglund‘s credibility was couched in terms that
could only be understood to suggest that she was a dishonest witness and
that her version, of using PARLIAMENT as a brand directed at the low
price sector of the market on a tactical basis to disrupt the activities of
low price competitors, was untruthful. However, in oral argument,
leading counsel for Philip Morris disavowed any attack on Ms Heglund‘s
honesty. The concession was correctly made, but it made it difficult to
maintain the argument that PARLIAMENT was introduced for the sole
purpose of protecting the marks. Her evidence during the trial could not
be dismissed as an error of recollection or attributed to mistake
occasioned by the passage of time. Either the PARLIAMENT brand was
launched for the reasons she described, however imperfectly
implemented, or those reasons were nothing but a facade to disguise the
true purpose, which was protecting the trade marks. If the latter was the
case then she, as the person responsible for the launch of the brand and its
marketing, must have been a party to the deceit and her evidence was
untruthful.
[31] There is no reason to depart from Louw J‘s acceptance of Ms
Heglund‘s oral evidence concerning the reasons for the launch of the
PARLIAMENT brand. In para 23 I drew attention to the fact that the
circumstances of the discovery and disclosure of the memory stick and
the presentation to the AME group reflected well on her honesty. The
legitimate criticisms directed at her evidence arose from the attempt to
suggest that her oral evidence was compatible with her answering
affidavit. That was an unfortunate, if all too human, approach.
[32] The decisive evidence in support of Ms Heglund‘s credibility lay in
Ms Steyn‘s summary of the decisions taken at the AME meeting in
December 2006 and in the very documents that Ms Fleming analysed and
criticised in her witness statement. The summary reflected a decision that
the approach to be adopted in the low price segment of the market was
not to introduce a brand to compete across the sector in the conventional
way, but to engage in ‗tactical execution‘. The documents show that this
decision was not ignored. The production of PARLIAMENT cigarettes
commenced from July 2007 with differing product specifications and
pack designs for filter and lights being commissioned. In September 2007
the brand was entered with SARS for excise purposes.
[33] The purpose of this was dealt with in a presentation on the launch
of PARLIAMENT dated 14 December 2007. It set out three objectives
other than the launch itself, namely, to protect the trade mark, to test the
commercial viability of a low price offer and finally, to gain insight into
the low price segment. Presumably the author of the presentation thought
that all three objectives mattered. None was prioritised ahead of the
others. There is no suggestion that the latter two were subtly slipped in to
provide plausible protection at a later stage against an application for
expungement of the marks. Any such suggestion would have required the
collaboration of a number of individuals, both high and low in the
hierarchy. It would have required approval to launch a loss-making
product for no greater purpose than to stop an attack on two marks that
had never been used and that had no brand reputation in South Africa. Mr
Joubert legitimately, and with cogent reasons, poured cold water on that
idea. There is not the slightest indication in the documents of this being
the case.
[34] A further presentation in January 2008, after the launch in
Upington, set out as background the two goals of protecting the trade
mark and gaining insight into low price segment dynamics. It said that the
sales rate in the 20 outlets chosen by Mr Nel was too slow and that there
was an opportunity to extend the test market and further illustrate use of
the trade mark. This was to be done by a ‗tactical price promotion‘,
echoing the decision taken at the AME meeting. It identified a tactical
price promotion in the Free State at ‗low price hot spots‘ supplied from
the Bloemfontein distribution centre. One of the goals was to provide a
healthy retail margin to ensure retailer buy-in and off-take. It closed with
the recommendation for the national deployment of the brand ‗but tactical
usage in low hot spots (clear strategic intent)‘. The Upington test market
was to be closed at the end of July.
[35] On 25 January 2008 at a Sales Operational Planning meeting the
PARLIAMENT brand was discussed. Its launch was said to have been
successful, which accorded with the reports received by Mr Nel, and the
decision taken at the meeting was that:
‗Viability of increasing the brand‘s distribution to be evaluated and a decision to be
taken based on findings.‘
A further report on the progress with the PARLIAMENT brand is dated
8 February 2008. The roll-out of PARLIAMENT was described as being
‗critically behind schedule‘. It was said to be twenty-three weeks past the
planned project end date and only at Stage 5 released. The aim, according
to the report was that there should be growth. If that was not the real
intention the entire discussion at this meeting was a farce.
[36] At a demand review meeting on 30 May 2008 there was a
discussion concerning the Voyager brand. The minutes reflects that the:
‗Decision has been taken to tactically place Parliament in stores to compete directly
with Voyager brand.‘
Ms Heglund was present at that meeting. A presentation in June 2008 was
in similar terms. The last document before the cut-off date is an email that
Ms Heglund sent to various people on 2 June 2008. In it she described
this as having been a ‗Tactical Pricing Initiative for Parliament‘. Why
would she use that expression if that were not in fact the case? And, if it
was a tactical pricing initiative, it could only have been in relation to the
low price area of the market. Once again reference was made to
extending the test market.
[37] If this was all an elaborate charade to disguise the fact that the sole
purpose of launching PARLIAMENT cigarettes was to protect the trade
marks, it must be asked who was orchestrating the charade. It is
impossible to see how this could have been done without Ms Heglund‘s
knowledge and participation. A charade would have been a particularly
subtle one – a cunning plan, involving an outward openness in the frank
acknowledgement of the need to protect the trade marks, while presenting
a plausible scenario in which these could be used in the ordinary way to
identify a brand that BATSA was inserting into the market. If it were a
charade one would have expected that there would be no mention of the
need to protect the trade marks. Why mention something that could be
held against BATSA? There was no attack on the authenticity of these
documents and no suggestion that they did not accurately represent the
views of those responsible for their preparation and presentation or who
were at the relevant meetings. Yet the truth, if this was indeed a charade,
had to be that there was no real intention to launch a PARLIAMENT
brand, or to market it, and no intention to use it to address the problems
BATSA perceived in the low-price sector of the market.
[38] Central to all of this would have been Ms Heglund. She would
have had to have known what should be included in presentations and
what excluded. She would have had to make reports, ostensibly genuine,
about the launch and progress of the product, whilst being aware that a
successful launch was the last thing that was wanted. Even more to the
point, she would have had to be willing to give untruthful evidence and
defend the reality of what she knew to be a charade if an application for
expungement was made. It is hardly surprising that Philip Morris made
no endeavour to delineate such an actual charade or to indicate how it
could have been pursued and maintained over the five years that the
brand was on sale.
[39] Once it was accepted, as Louw J did, that Ms Heglund‘s evidence
at the trial accurately reflected the motivation for launching the
PARLIAMENT brand, the fact that there was a conscious desire to
protect the marks throughout cannot detract from the fact that they were
being used on a product that was to be placed in the market for a very
specific purpose, targeted at a very specific sector of the market and in a
way that would not be detrimental to their existing brands, especially
Peter Stuyvesant.
Was this use as a trade mark?
[40] The case was fought out between the parties on the basis that
BATSA‘s real intention in launching the PARLIAMENT brand was to
protect the marks and that there was no genuine commercial purpose in
doing so. No doubt that was to avoid the principle enunciated in
Electrolux13 and accepted in several decisions of our courts, that bona
fide use of a trade mark does not cease to be such because the user has an
additional motive of protecting the mark or protecting its other business.
The attempt to obtain expungement on this basis was doomed to fail in
the light of the high court‘s acceptance of the evidence of Ms Heglund as
to the commercial purpose of the launch of PARLIAMENT. After that it
is not clear what room remained for a finding that this use did not
constitute bona fide use of the marks. There had been no attack directed
at the proposition that strategic use on the basis of her evidence would not
qualify as bona fide use. Mr Joubert was cross-examined on legal issues
around the preservation of the marks, but it was not suggested to him that
this kind of use would not qualify as bona fide use. There was no
indication in the record of this line of attack.
[41] The expungement action was not fought on the basis of pleadings.
The exchange of witness statements did not identify as an issue what
became the major focus of the argument on appeal, namely, that use of
the nature to which Ms Heglund testified would not constitute use as a
13 Footnote 8 above.
trade mark for the purposes for which trade marks are afforded statutory
protection. Even the heads of argument only mentioned this in a
somewhat throwaway fashion in the penultimate paragraph. The
submission was that
‗[E]ven if the Appellant‘s evidence is to be accepted insofar as a disruptive strike to
interfere with the legitimate business of its competitors is concerned, such disruptive
strikes cannot be described as being ―statutorily authentic‖ even if it is accepted these
were aimed at protecting the PETER STUYVESANT business. There was no desire
or objective to build up any commercial long term sales strategy in PARLIAMENT
cigarettes and the objectives were anathema to the functions of a trade mark as
defined in the Act.‘14
[42] It came as something of a surprise therefore that, in developing his
argument in this court, Philip Morris‘ main line of approach was to urge
upon us that the use of the PARLIAMENT mark by BATSA, in the
manner described by Ms Heglund, was not trade mark usage. The
concern in this regard is that, while the onus rested on BATSA to prove
that its use of the mark was bona fide use, as that expression is to be
understood in trade mark law, that does not mean that such proceedings
do not have to be conducted in a fair way so that neither party is surprised
by the stance of the other.15 However, as I conclude that the point is
without merit, it is unnecessary to decide whether it was open to Philip
Morris to advance it.
[43] The starting point is that the mark PARLIAMENT was affixed to
the cigarettes for a purpose. This was not a ‗no name‘ brand of cigarettes,
14 The same submission was made in heads in the high court.
15 Even in a court of equitable jurisdiction the disputants must (metaphorically) observe the Marquess
of Queensbury‘s rules. Buthelezi & Others v Eclipse Foundries (Pty) Ltd (1997) 18 ILJ 633 (A) at
642H.
but one marketed to retailers and thence to consumers under that
particular name. Outlets that made repeat orders in the five years that it
was on the market would have asked for it by name. So would smokers
who bought it. There must have been a reasonable number of these as
over 20 million cigarettes were sold. The mark satisfied the most
fundamental requirement of a trade mark, namely, that of identifying the
source from which the goods were derived and distinguishing it from its
competitors.
Had
a
person
asking
for
Voyager
been
given
PARLIAMENT, or vice versa, they would have objected that they had
been given the wrong cigarettes.
[44] The next point is that the use was in the very market for which the
registration existed, namely, cigarettes. It was directed at a very specific
segment of that market, namely, the low price sector. The intention was
not to build a massive new brand that might compete with BATSA‘s
other brands, especially those in the mid price or popular price range. As
Ms Heglund expressed it they would not want ‗to drive [a] huge amount
of equity on brand in that segment‘. Most particularly, it was not to be
built up to a position where it might draw custom away from the jewel in
the crown that was Peter Stuyvesant. Its primary use would be
strategically in low price hot spots where there were signs of competitors
building a sufficient presence to start eroding BATSA‘s overall position.
But it would be necessary to ‗keep the brand ticking over‘ so as to
maintain a degree of market recognition and not to treat every hot spot as
if it were a launch from scratch. That is reflected in the level of sales over
the five years that it was on the market.
[45] In a market such as that for cigarettes, as with other similar
markets, there is a commercial purpose in the manufacturer providing
different offerings aimed at different sectors of the market and pricing
them differently. For example, if one has the leading brand in the
premium sector it gives a measure of control over price in all sectors. A
diversified range of products can be targeted at different sectors, thereby
enhancing sales and profits. On the other hand there are potential pitfalls.
If a leading position is built up in one sector, one does not wish to imperil
the profitability of that sector by providing a lower priced competitor.
The sensitivity of BATSA to the standing of Peter Stuyvesant is
understandable. But the fact that this precluded a full-blooded launch of a
competing product in the low price segment does not mean that the
launch that did occur was not genuine, albeit for a limited purpose. That
launch had to take place with a product under a specific mark and
PARLIAMENT was chosen for that purpose.
[46] No questions were put to either Ms Heglund or Mr Joubert as to the
reasons why the PARLIAMENT brand was withdrawn. Had such
questions been put, we would have known whether it was decided that the
strategy of attacking hot spots and trying to disrupt the market for
competitors was not working. The entire exercise was a novel one in
which the conventional playbook for the launch of a brand could not be
applied. Whether it was even feasible to develop a brand, to play the
envisaged role, was unknown. However, BATSA thought it necessary to
make the attempt and they used PARLIAMENT to do so. Assuming it
was a failure that cannot detract from the genuineness of the attempt.
[47] Louw J reached a different conclusion. He said:
‗The basis of the decision in Rembrandt was that to constitute bona fide use, the
proprietor of the mark had to use the mark upon goods with the object or intention of
protecting, facilitating or furthering trade in those goods. That was not the
respondent‘s object or intention. If a mark is used on goods not with the object of
promoting trade in those goods as an end in itself, but with an ulterior purpose such as
disrupting the business of a competitor, or protecting its trade in other goods, such use
does not, in my view, constitute bona fide use of the trade mark and can therefore not
be said to be statutorily authentic.‖
[48] I am respectfully unable to agree. This overlooks the point that all
the legitimate commercial purposes referred to by the judge would have
underpinned a decision to launch a competing product in the low price
sector in the fashion Ms Fleming regarded as normal. The use of a mark
on such a product would undoubtedly have been bona fide use. The fact
that, for sound commercial reasons, the product was launched on a more
circumspect basis with less ambitious goals cannot mean that the use of a
mark on it was not bona fide. That is to introduce a quantitative and
qualitative element to the enquiry into bona fide use of a mark and that
would be inconsistent with the cases cited in paras 5 to 7 above.
Conclusion
[49] In my view therefore the use BATSA made of the PARLIAMENT
marks was bona fide use in terms of the Act. In the result the appeal must
succeed. In regard to costs we were asked to make the intervening party
liable jointly and severally with Philip Morris for the costs, but I do not
think that justified. Its intervention was purely to protect its position in
regard to its attempt to register the PARLIAMENT mark and added
nothing to the costs.
[50] Accordingly it is ordered that:
The appeal is upheld with costs, such costs to be paid by the first
respondent and to include those consequent upon the employment
of two counsel.
The order of the High Court is set aside and replaced by the
following:
‗The application is dismissed with costs, such costs to be paid by
the first respondent and to include those consequent upon the
employment of two counsel.‘
M J D WALLIS
JUSTICE OF APPEAL
Appearances
Appellant:
L Bowman SC (with him I Joubert)
Instructed by:
Spoor and Fisher Attorneys, Pretoria; and
Phatshoane Henney Attorneys, Bloemfontein.
First and Third Respondents: C E Puckrin SC (with him R Michau SC
and L Kilmartin)
Instructed by:
Kisch IP, Pretoria and Webbers, Bloemfontein. | Supreme Court of Appeal of South Africa
MEDIA SUMMARY– JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME
COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
16 March 2017
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the
media and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of
Appeal.
Westminster Tobacco Co v Philip Morris Products SA [2017]
ZASCA 10
The SCA today upheld an appeal by Westminster Tobacco Co
against an order of the Gauteng Division, Pretoria of the High Court
ordering the deletion of two trademarks for PARLIAMENT. The issue
was whether Westminster had made bona fide use of the marks in the
period of five years prior to 22 July 2008. The High Court accepted the
evidence of Westminster’s main witness that the marks had been used on
cigarettes that would be targeted at the low price sector of the market and
used to disrupt the market of competing low price brands in selected
areas, called hot spots, where they were showing growth. It held that this
was not use for the purpose for which trade mark protection existed.
The SCA held that it is not necessary in order to show bona fide
use of a trade mark that the use must be extensive or successful.
Westminster was not trying to establish a major new brand in the low
price sector of the market, but to create a brand that could be used
strategically in that sector. Such use constituted bona fide use.
Accordingly the application for the expungement of the two marks should
not have succeeded. The appeal was upheld and the order for
expungement was set aside. |
3963 | non-electoral | 2023 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case No: 1266/2021
In the matter between:
OCA TESTING AND CERTIFICATION
SOUTH AFRICA (PTY) LTD
APPELLANT
and
KCEC ENGINEERING AND
CONSTRUCTION (PTY) LTD
FIRST RESPONDENT
HONOURABLE JUDGE
N P WILLIS N O
SECOND RESPONDENT
Neutral Citation:
OCA Testing and Certification South Africa (Pty) Ltd v KCEC
Engineering Construction (Pty) Ltd and Another (1226/2021)
[2023] ZASCA 13 (17 February 2023)
Coram:
PETSE AP, MOCUMIE and CARELSE JJA, MJALI and
MASIPA AJJA
Heard:
11 November 2022
Delivered:
17 February 2023
Summary:
Arbitration award – appeal against dismissal of application to set
aside part of award – s 33(1) of the Arbitration Act 42 of 1965 – gross irregularity
committed by arbitrator in making the award with respect to a substantial portion of
the claim – award set aside in part and residue of the claim referred to a new
arbitrator.
ORDER
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg (Malindi J
sitting as court of first instance):
1 The appeal is upheld with no order as to costs.
2 The order of the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg, is set aside
and in its place is substituted the following order:
‘1
The application to set aside the award insofar as it relates to the amounts
claimed in respect of the second and third agreements succeeds.
The dispute between the parties in relation to the residue of the claim arising
from the second and third agreements is to be submitted to a new arbitrator
to be agreed between the parties within 20 days of this order and, failing
such agreement, to be appointed by the Arbitration Foundation of South
Africa.
No order as to costs is made.’
JUDGMENT
Petse AP (Mocumie and Carelse JJA and Mjali and Masipa AJJA concurring):
Introduction
[1] Does the failure of the arbitrator to deal pertinently with and determine a
substantial portion of a composite claim that arises from two independent
agreements trigger the provisions of s 33(1) of the Arbitration Act 42 of 1965 (the
Act)? If so, does this then render the resultant arbitral award insofar as it relates to
such agreements susceptible to be reviewed and set aside? This is the cardinal
question raised in this appeal.
[2] The appellant, OCA Testing Inspection and Certification South Africa (Pty)
Ltd (OCA Testing), said: ‘Yes’. On the contrary, the first respondent, KCEC
Engineering and Construction (Pty) Ltd, (KCEC Engineering) said: ‘No’. The
Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg (the high court) agreed with
KCEC Engineering and answered both questions in the negative. It is now the task
of this Court to resolve these contrasting contentions. What follows is how the
dispute arose.
Background
[3] On three different dates, and at the instance of KCEC Engineering, three
written offers were made by OCA Testing to KCEC Engineering to render advisory,
technical and mechanical services for non-destructive test services to the latter’s
plants in the Northern Cape, subject to certain terms and conditions as agreed
between the parties upon acceptance of OCA Testing’s three offers.
[4] After the conclusion of the parties’ three written agreements,1 initially their
contractual relationship seemed to operate smoothly, and various tax invoices
submitted by OCA Testing to KCEC Engineering from time to time were settled
without demur by the latter.
[5] Clause 14 of the parties’ written agreements explicitly provided, amongst
other things, that ‘Any dispute or difference arising out of this Agreement shall be
referred to the arbitration of a person to be agreed upon between the [parties] or,
failing agreement, nominated by the President for the time being of the relevant
Chartered Institute of Arbitration of Spain.’ After running smoothly for some time,
disputes between the parties emerged. The deterioration in the parties’ relations
culminated in KCEC Engineering refusing to settle tax invoices submitted by OCA
Testing.
Litigation history
Arbitration tribunal
[6] With an impasse having arisen and the parties’ best endeavours to break
the logjam having failed to bear fruit, the parties agreed to refer their dispute to
1 The first, second and third agreements were all concluded during June 2017.
arbitration before a retired judge of this Court, Justice N P Willis, who was
appointed by the Arbitration Foundation of South Africa in accordance with the
parties’ agreement. OCA Testing sued KCEC Engineering for payment of
R2 603 729.44 in respect of services allegedly rendered during the period from
25 May 2018 to 25 August 2018. In so doing OCA Testing relied on three
agreements. The aggregate sum claimed comprised three amounts. The amount of
R142 002.46 had its genesis in the first agreement. The amount of R2 355 768.05
in the second agreement and the sum of R276 744.00 in the third agreement. How
these three amounts were computed was not in dispute between the parties.
[7] KCEC Engineering admitted that the services in relation to which the claim
arose were duly provided by OCA Testing. However, KCEC Engineering disputed
liability on various grounds. Briefly stated, it asserted that: (i) the services by OCA
Testing were rendered late, resulting in it suffering damages; (ii) it had overpaid
OCA Testing to the tune of R1 961 770.24 which it sought to recover by way of its
counter-claim; and (iii) it had suffered liquidated damages in the sum of R1
646 220.00 occasioned as a result of OCA Testing’s default in breach of the latter’s
contractual obligation.
[8] In making his award, the arbitrator identified the issues in dispute as follows:
‘(a)
Whether the claimant was obliged to deliver the CoC2 to the Defendant before
payment could be made of the outstanding invoice (identified as ‘POC15’), in terms of the
first agreement;
(b)
Whether the claimant has overcharged the defendant for services rendered in terms
of the second agreement (which would result in the defendant being entitled to a rebate)
by failing to meet, on a daily basis, the estimated daily production rate;
(c)
Whether the defendant is entitled to the delivery of videos prior to payment of any
outstanding invoice in respect of the third agreement;
(d)
Whether the defendant’s claim for damages is time-barred;
(e)
Whether the claimant is responsible for the damages claimed by the defendant.’
2 CoC is an acronym for ‘Certificate of Conformity’.
[9] After an exhaustive analysis of the parties’ pleadings, the evidence
presented by both sides in respect of both the claim and counter-claim as well as
contentions advanced by counsel for the parties, the arbitrator dismissed both the
claim by OCA Testing and the counter-claim by KCEC Engineering. It bears
mentioning that the arbitrator concluded that the claim for payment of the amount
of R142 002.46 in respect of the first agreement had to fail because OCA Testing
had breached that agreement. Significantly, he then proceeded to hold that none of
KCEC Engineering’s two counterclaims was sustainable.
[10] What the arbitrator stated in the course of his award bears emphasis. He
said:
‘The claimant has sought judgment for monies due in terms of its unpaid invoices. The
total amount allegedly owing to the claimant is in the sum of R2 603 729.44. The defence
raised to the payment of the invoices relating to the first agreement was the failure by the
claimant timeously to deliver the CoC to the defendant. The evidence makes it clear that
[the] claimant was indeed in breach of its agreement with the defendant by failing so to
deliver the CoC and, consequently, its claim must fail.’
[11] He then continued:
‘Moreover, it may be pointed out, en passant, that the agreements were obviously not
interlinked in the sense that a failure to pay an outstanding invoice due in terms of the
second agreement and/or the third agreement would have the contractual consequence of
not obliging the claimant to furnish the CoC in terms of the first agreement.’
[12] I pause here to observe that what the arbitrator said in the preceding two
paragraphs is significant. The statements unquestionably demonstrate that the
arbitrator was acutely alive to the fact that OCA Testing’s breach was in relation to
the first agreement only. This is borne out by what the arbitrator said immediately
after making his finding encapsulated in paragraph 10 above. He was at pains to
point out that:
‘. . . the agreements were obviously not interlinked in the sense that a failure to pay an
outstanding invoice due in terms of the second agreement and/or the third agreement
would have the contractual consequence of not obliging the claimant to furnish the CoC in
terms of the first agreement.’ (My emphasis.)
I shall revert to this aspect later.
[13] The arbitrator dismissed KCEC Engineering’s counter-claim for recovery of
the alleged overpayment of R1 961 770.24 on the basis that such a claim was not
based on the condictio indebiti and therefore had to fail. He also made short shrift
of the counter-claim for R1 646 220.00, finding that at the conclusion of the parties’
agreements there was ‘no serious contemplation that [OCA Testing] may be liable
for special damages’.
High Court
[14] A little over a month after the arbitrator’s dismissal of OCA Testing’s claim,
OCA Testing instituted proceedings in the high court for the award to be reviewed
and set aside in terms of s 33(1) of the Arbitration Act 42 of 1965 (the Act) together
with ancillary relief. None of the two respondents entered the fray, with the
consequence that the application was not opposed.
[15] In due course the application served before Malindi J who dismissed it with
no order as to costs. After making reference to both s 32(1) and s 32(2) of the Act,
the learned Judge set out what he considered was central to OCA Testing’s claims.
He proceeded to say:
‘The question that arises therefore is whether the second respondent failed to deal with the
validity of the claims under the second and third agreements. The applicant contends that
although the second respondent correctly identified the dispute between the parties as
relating to three separate agreements, he only considered the merits of the claim for the
invoices relevant to the first agreement when he started: “ . . . relating to the first
agreement was the failure by the claimant timeously to deliver the CoC to the defendant.”’
[16] He then continued:
‘In my view, although the award dismissed the claimant’s claim without traversing the
claims under each agreement the second respondent clearly considers the claimed
globular amount which comprises claims under all three agreements . . .’
[17] Ultimately, the learned Judge concluded that ‘there was no doubt that the
whole claim for R2 603 729.44, inclusive of the claims under the three agreements,
is dismissed, with all claims under each agreement having been separately
considered.’ Thus, the learned Judge reasoned, the arbitrator had fully understood
the nature of the enquiry into the first agreement and, in the result, there was no
basis to set aside paragraph 13 of the award. Subsequently, on 20 October 2021,
the learned Judge granted OCA Testing leave to appeal to this Court.
[18] Before us, as it was in the high court, the basis of OCA Testing’s attack of
the arbitrator’s award, broadly stated, was that the arbitrator ‘could not have arrived
at a conclusion to dismiss the aggregate claim’ (ie totalling R2 603 729.44) with
reference to the first agreement only. This argument was predicated upon seven
broad contentions, namely:
(i) the amount claimed by OCA Testing was, as correctly observed by the arbitrator
himself, an aggregate comprising three distinct claims arising from three different
agreements;
(ii) the arbitrator was cognisant of the fact that the three agreements were not
interlinked;
(iii) the contractual breach established in evidence by KCEC Engineering related to
the first agreement only in respect of a minor portion, ie R142 002.46, of the
aggregate amount;
(iv) the finding by the arbitrator that KCEC Engineering, ‘evidence [made] it clear
that [OCA Testing] was indeed in breach of [the first] agreement with [KCEC
Engineering] by failing to deliver the CoC’ hence its claim must fail;
(v) the words ‘its claim’ must, having regard to the factual matrix and viewed in
context, be a reference to the first agreement which is what the arbitrator was
pertinently dealing with;
(vi) having regard to the fact that KCEC Engineering’s remaining defences – which
would have nullified the total amount as claimed – were rejected by the arbitrator
as devoid of merit, it followed axiomatically that the indebtedness in respect of the
amounts arising from the second and third agreements was established;
(vii) the recognition by the high court that the arbitrator dismissed the claim in its
entirety, ie the whole of the globular amount, ‘without traversing the claims under
each agreement’.
3 Paragraph 1 dismissed OCA Testing’s claim in its entirety.
[19] In these circumstances, so went the argument, the arbitrator committed a
gross irregularity in the conduct of the arbitration proceedings as contemplated in
s 33(1)(b) of the Act. This, in turn, clouded the arbitrator’s mind resulting in him
misconducting himself in relation to his duties as arbitrator as envisaged in
s 33(1)(a) of the Act.
Statutory framework
[20] In pursuit of the relief it sought in the high court, and before us on appeal,
OCA Testing invoked s 33(1) of the Act. To the extent relevant for present
purposes s 33(1), which is headed ‘setting aside of award, provides as follows:
‘(1) Where –
(a) any member of an arbitration tribunal has misconducted himself in relation to his duties
as arbitrator . . .; or
(b) an arbitration tribunal has committed any gross irregularity in the conduct of the
arbitration proceedings or has exceeded his powers; or
(c) . . .;
the court may, on the application of any party to the reference after due notice to the other
party or parties, make an order setting the award aside.’
[21] I consider it convenient at this juncture to deal first with the current state of
the law relating to the considerations that bear on the circumstances in which a
court will come to the aid of a party relying on s 33(1) of the Act. Section 33(1) has
been considered, albeit briefly, in many judgments of this Court and others. Some
of the cases were analysed by Harms JA in Telcordia Technologies Inc v Telkom
SA Ltd4 (Telcordia). In para 72, Harms JA cited a passage from the judgment of
Mason J in Ellis v Morgan; Ellis v Desai5 (Ellis) in which the position was succinctly
stated as follows:
‘But an irregularity in proceedings does not mean an incorrect judgment; it refers not to the
result, but to the methods of a trial, such as, for example, some high-handed or mistaken
action which has prevented the aggrieved party from having his case fully and fairly
determined.’
4 Telcordia Technologies Inc v Telkom SA Ltd [2006] ZASCA 112; 2007 (3) SA 266 (SCA)
(Telcordia).
5 Ellis v Morgan; Ellis v Desai 1909 TS 576 at 581.
[22] In the course of his judgment, Harms JA also referred to Goldfields
Investment Ltd v City Council of Johannesburg6 (Goldfields), stating that an
arbitrator misconceives the nature of the inquiry in instances where he or she fails
to perform his or her mandate. And ‘[b]y misconceiving the nature of the inquiry a
hearing cannot in principle be fair because the body fails to perform its mandate.’7
In Goldfields Schreiner J was forthright when he, with reference to Ellis v Morgan,
said:
‘. . . it is not merely high-handed or arbitrary conduct which is described as a gross
irregularity; behaviour which is perfectly well-intentioned and bona fide, though mistaken,
may come under that description. The crucial question is whether it prevented a fair trial of
the issues. If it did prevent a fair trial of the issues then it will amount to a gross
irregularity.’8
[23] In Palabora Copper (Pty) Ltd v Motlokwa Transport and Construction (Pty)
Ltd9 (Palabora Copper), this Court reiterated that where ‘an arbitrator engages in
the correct enquiry, but errs either on the facts or the law, that is not an irregularity
and is not a basis for setting aside an award.’10 This is in keeping with the abiding
principle that whenever parties elect to resolve their disputes through arbitration
courts must defer to the parties’ choice and not lightly intervene.11
Analysis
[24] I have already dealt with what is at issue in this appeal and how the
arbitrator went about in arbitrating the dispute between the parties. It suffices to
emphasise that there was no dispute about the amounts arising out of the second
and third agreements. And allied to that was the arbitrator’s finding that KCEC
Engineering’s defences to those two agreements are unsustainable. Yet, nowhere
6 Goldfields Investment Ltd v City Council of Johannesburg 1938 TPD 551 at 560-561 (Goldfields).
7 Telcordia para 73.
8 Goldfields at 560.
9 Palabora Copper (Pty) Ltd v Motlokwa Transport and Construction (Pty) Ltd [2008] ZASCA 23;
[2018] 2 All SA 660 (SCA) (Palabora Copper).
10 Ibid para 8.
11 Clark v African Guarantee and Indemnity Co Ltd 1915 CPD 68 at 77; Lufuno Mphaphuli and
Associates (Pty) Ltd v Andrews and Another [2009] ZACC 6; 2009 (4) SA 529 (CC) para 219.
in his award did the arbitrator revert to the question as to what the fate of the
amounts arising from the second and third agreements should be.
[25] In addressing this aspect in its judgment, the high court stated:
‘[T]here is no doubt that the whole claim of R2 603 729.44, inclusive of the claims under
the three agreements, is dismissed, with all claims under each agreement having been
separately considered.’
And that:
‘[B]y addressing the defences to the claims under the second and third agreements, the
[arbitrator] did consider their merits and came to the conclusion that they too are to be
dismissed.’
And, with reference to Palabora Copper, concluded that no irregularity is
committed by an arbitrator who ‘engages in the correct enquiry, but errs on the
facts or the law.’ Consequently, the high court held that there would be no basis for
setting the award aside.
[26] This then raises the question whether the arbitrator engaged in the correct
enquiry in the context of the facts of this case. If this question is answered in the
affirmative, that would be the end of the matter. However, if not, intervention by this
Court would be warranted.
[27] What compounds matters in this case is that the arbitrator found that KCEC
Engineering’s defences in relation to the second and third agreements were devoid
of merit. Insofar as the counter-claim was concerned, it was dismissed. Yet, the
arbitrator inexplicably dismissed the residue of the globular amount claimed when
he had already found that there was nothing standing in the way of an award in
respect of those amounts relating to claims 2 and 3 being made in favour of OCA
Testing. That the arbitrator did not do so manifests a lack of appreciation on his
part of the fact that OCA Testing’s globular claim comprised three components.
This, in my view, is a typical case of an arbitrator having ‘committed [a] gross
irregularity in the conduct of the arbitration proceedings’ as contemplated in
s 33(1)(b) of the Act. Reflecting on the sentiments of Schreiner J in Goldfields, the
crucial question is whether the arbitrator’s conduct prevented a fair trial of the
issues.
[28] That the arbitrator did not determine the fate of the residue of the globular
amount claimed, after having dismissed the claim in respect of the first agreement,
ineluctably leads me to conclude that his approach to the matter ‘prevented a fair
trial of the issues.’ Simply put, the arbitrator was here called upon to decide
whether OCA Testing was entitled to any monies representing amounts flowing
from the second and third agreements. In short, the arbitrator simply did not direct
his mind to the crucial question whether OCA Testing was entitled to the residue of
the globular amount claimed, ie R2 603 729.44 less the amount of R142 002.46 in
respect of the first agreement. Had he dealt with the amounts flowing from the
second and third agreements, his award would have been immune from
impeachment under s 33(1) of the Act even though he may have been wrong on
the facts or the law.
[29] As it emerges from the record, the tenor of the arbitrator’s underlying
reasoning makes it plain that he was alive to the fact that the total amount of
R2 603 729.44 was made up of three components arising from three different
agreements. To illustrate this point, the arbitrator said:
‘[T]he amount of R142 002.46, is claimed by the claimant in respect of the first agreement.
The amount of R2 355 767.05, is claimed in respect of the second agreement. The amount
of R276 744.00, is claimed in respect of the third agreement.’
[30] And having analysed KCEC Engineering’s defence in respect of the sum of
R142 002.46, he concluded, as already mentioned, that OCA Testing had
committed a material breach of the first agreement. Consequently, so the arbitrator
held, OCA Testing was not entitled to payment, and its claim for R142 002.46 fell
to be dismissed.
[31] However, what then followed was that the arbitrator inexplicably dismissed
the claim in its entirety without, for once, engaging in any analysis in regard to the
legitimacy or otherwise of the amounts claimed pursuant to the second and third
agreements. That OCA Testing had elected to claim a composite amount
combining three separate agreements was beyond question and the arbitrator, too,
was cognisant of this fact. Thus, in failing to address the residue of the claim, just
as he had done with the component of the claim flowing from the first agreement,
the arbitrator effectively closed off his mind to the fundamental question that he
was called upon to answer, namely whether OCA Testing’s claim for the residual
amount – that had its genesis in the second and third agreements – was
sustainable. In my view, this omission prevented a fair trial of the totality of the
issues and therefore amounts to a gross irregularity.
[32] In summary therefore, I am satisfied that OCA Testing has established that
there is good cause to remit the dispute to a new arbitrator. As I have already
found, this must be so because the arbitrator in this matter failed to deal with all the
issues that were before him.12 As already indicated, we are here not dealing with a
situation where the arbitrator got it horribly wrong without more, in which event
there would have been no basis to disturb the award. Rather, he simply overlooked
some of the crucial issues that he was required to determine.13 Section 28 of the
Act explicitly provides that absent an agreement between the parties to the
contrary, an award shall, subject to the provisions of the Act, ‘be final and not
subject to appeal and each party to the reference shall abide by and comply with
the award in accordance with its terms.’14 And as Harms JA forcefully put it: ‘[A]n
arbitrator “has the right to be wrong.”’15 Consequently, where an arbitrator errs in
his or her interpretation of the law or analysis of the evidence that would not
constitute gross irregularity or misconduct or exceeding powers as contemplated in
s 33(1) of the Act.16
Should the arbitrator be substituted?
[33] Counsel for OCA Testing urged upon us that in the event of this Court
upholding the appeal, we should review and set the arbitral award aside to the
extent that it dismissed the claim in its entirety. Thereafter, the dispute should be
12 See in this regard South African Forestry Co Ltd v York Timbers Ltd [2004] ZASCA 72; 2003 (1)
SA 331 (SCA) para 14.
13Compare: Kolber and Another v Sourcecom Solutions (Pty) Ltd and Others; Sourcecom
Technology Solutions (Pty) Ltd v Kolber and Another 2001 (2) SA 1097 (C).
14 Section 28 reads: Unless the arbitration agreement provides otherwise, an award, shall, subject
to the provisions of the Act, be final and not subject to appeal and each party to the reference shall
abide by and comply with the award in accordance with its terms.
15 See para 21 above for the full citation.
16 See: Doyle v Shenker and Co Ltd 1915 AD 233 at 236-238; Administrator, South West Africa v
Jooste Lithium Myne (Eiendoms) Bpk 1955 (1) SA 557 (A).
remitted for re-consideration by a new arbitrator. Motivating for the substitution of
the erstwhile arbitrator, counsel argued that given the fundamental irregularity
committed by the arbitrator OCA Testing has lost confidence in him. Therefore, so
the argument went, the interests of justice strongly militate against the remittal of
the matter to the same arbitrator. Rather, they dictate that someone entirely
divorced from the atmosphere of the abortive hearing would be ideally suited to
determine the issues afresh without his or her mind being clouded by the dust of
the previous conflict.
[34] There is much to be said for counsel’s contentions although the proposed
course raises the spectre of a re-hearing of the dispute with its attendant expense.
However, on balance I am persuaded that this is the route to take to ensure that
justice is not only done but also manifestly seen to be done. In any event, s 33(4)
of the Act provides that ‘[i]f the award is set aside the dispute shall, at the request
of either party, be submitted to a new arbitration tribunal constituted in the manner
directed by the court.’ (My emphasis.)
[35] As to how the re-hearing of the dispute is to be conducted, that is a matter
entirely to be determined by the new arbitrator. No doubt his or her approach will
be informed by whatever submissions or representations the parties themselves
may advance. If deemed convenient and practicable, the new arbitrator could, for
example, determine the remaining issues between the parties on the recorded
evidence without relying on the findings of the previous arbitrator, particularly so, if
it is thought that the assessment of the demeanour of the witnesses who testified is
not essential for a proper determination of their credibility. But, ultimately, these are
all issues that fall squarely in the remit of the new arbitrator.
Relief
[36] This brings me now to the form of relief to be granted to OCA Testing in the
light of the conclusion reached above that the arbitrator committed a gross
irregularity. The award comprised two parts, the first part was a dismissal of OCA
Testing’s claim in its entirety. The second was a dismissal of KCEC Engineering’s
counter-claim. The latter part does not feature in this appeal, presumably because
KCEC Engineering accepted the outcome of its counter-claim.
[37] In Polabora Copper this Court was confronted with a situation where only
part of the award was found to be bad. The question then arose as to whether
s 33(1) of the Act solely contemplates the setting aside of an award in its entirety or
also countenances interference with only part of the award that is vulnerable to
impeachment. After surveying various legal sources and seeking guidance from
foreign jurisdictions, this Court concluded that ‘[t]here does not appear to be any
sound reason why an arbitration, that has been properly conducted on certain
issues and properly determined those issues, should be set aside in its entirety,
because of an irregularity in relation to a wholly separate issue.’17
[38] Here the issue is clear-cut. The portion of the arbitrator’s award that has
been impeached by OCA Testing relates to a part of the main claim and does not
affect the counter-claim. The fact that OCA Testing has accepted its fate in relation
to a minor portion of its claim (ie R142 002.46) does not, by parity of reasoning,
detract from this principle. Accordingly, paragraph 1 of the award falls to be set
aside albeit only to the extent that it relates to the amounts arising from the second
and third agreements.
Costs
[39] There remains the issue of costs to address. Counsel for OCA Testing
asked for costs of two counsel in the event that the appeal is upheld. In my view
the appropriate order to grant in relation to costs is that there be no order as to
costs. It goes without saying that where a litigant seeks costs against its adversary
in the event that the application is opposed, there should be no order as to costs
where the adversary has not opposed the application but, instead, elected to
remain supine. This is precisely what happened in this case. In these
circumstances, OCA Testing is not, in the absence of opposition, entitled to costs
both in this Court and the high court.
17 Palabora Copper para 48.
[40] In the result the following order is made:
The appeal is upheld with no order as to costs.
The order of the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg, is set
aside and in its place is substituted the following order:
‘1
The application to set aside the award insofar as it relates to the amounts
claimed in respect of the second and third agreements succeeds.
The dispute between the parties in relation to the residue of the claim arising
from the second and third agreements is to be submitted to a new arbitrator
to be agreed between the parties within 20 days of this order and, failing
such agreement to be appointed by the Arbitration Foundation of South
Africa.
No order as to costs is made.’
____________________
X M PETSE
ACTING PRESIDENT
SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES
For the appellant:
B L Skinner SC (with I Veerasamy)
Instructed by:
Pather & Pather Attorneys, Durban
Kramer Weihmann Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For the respondents:
No appearance | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
17 February 2023
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does not form part of
the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
OCA Testing and Certification South Africa (Pty) Ltd v KCEC Engineering Construction (Pty) Ltd
and Another (1226/2021) [2023] ZASCA 13 (17 February 2023)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld an appeal from the Gauteng Division of the
High Court, Johannesburg (high court). This appeal revolved around arbitration proceedings
between the appellant, OCA Testing and Certification South Africa (OCA Testing), and the
first respondent, KCEC Engineering (KCEC). On three separate occasions, OCA Testing and
KCEC entered into three written agreements in terms of which OCA Testing were to deliver
advisory, technical and mechanical services to KCEC. The business relationship regrettably
broke down after KCEC refused to settle tax invoices submitted by OCA Testing; the parties
agreed to implement arbitration proceedings, as set out in terms of the written agreements.
The second respondent was appointed arbitrator (the arbitrator).
In reliance on the three written agreements, OCA Testing sued KCEC for payment of a
globular amount of R2 603 729.44. The aggregate sum claimed comprised three amounts:
R142 002.46 in terms of the first agreement, R2 355 768.05 in terms of the second and
R276 744.00 in terms of the third. KCEC admitted that the services were provided by OCA
Testing but it disputed liability by asserting that the services were rendered late, resulting in
KCEC suffering damages. Furthermore, KCEC had also overpaid OCA Testing to the tune of
R1 961 770.24, which it sought to reclaim via its counter-claim; and it had suffered liquidated
damages in the sum of R1 646 220.00 occasioned as a result of OCA Testing’s default in
breach of its contractual obligation.
After having analysed the parties’ pleadings, the arbitrator dismissed the claim, basing the
dismissal of the entire matter on the first written agreement, as the arbitrator maintained that
payments due in terms of the second and third agreements would not have resulted in obliging
OCA Testing to perform in terms of the first agreement. KCEC’s counter-claim was also
dismissed as it was not based on the condictio indebiti or that OCA Testing could be liable for
damages in terms of special damages.
The matter proceeded to the high court where it was dismissed. In the high court, the question
was posed whether the second applicant failed to deal with the validity of the claim. The high
court was of the view that the arbitrator had fully understood the nature of the enquiry into the
first agreement and there was, therefore, no reason to set the arbitrator’s finding aside.
Upon appeal, the appellant contended that there could be no way in which the arbitrator could
have arrived at the conclusion to dismiss the aggregate claim with reference to the first
agreement only. The allegation was levelled that the arbitrator committed a gross irregularity
in the conduct of arbitration proceedings as contemplated in s 33(1) of the Arbitration Act 42
of 1965 (the Act), resulting in him misconducting himself in his duties as arbitrator. This Court
accordingly had to determine whether the arbitrator engaged the matter correctly, in the
context of the facts. The Court found that the arbitrator’s finding that KCEC’s defences in
relation to the second and third agreements were devoid of merit. In addition to dismissing the
counter-claim, he inexplicably dismissed the residue of the globular amount claimed when he
had already found that there was nothing that stood in the way of an award in favour of OCA
Testing in respect of the claims in terms of the second and third written agreements. The Court
held that the arbitrator did not do so, manifested a lack of appreciation of the matter, which is
tantamount to have committed a gross irregularity in terms of s 33(1) of the Act.
Furthermore, the Court held that the failure of the arbitrator to deal with the residue of the
globular amount, after having dismissed the claim in respect of the first agreement, indicated
that the matter was not fairly heard. The arbitrator was mandated to decide whether OCA
Testing was entitled to any money flowing from the second and third agreements. The
arbitrator simply did not direct his mind to the crucial question whether OCA Testing was
entitled to the residue of the globular amount claimed, less the amount in respect of the first
agreement. Had he dealt with the amounts flowing from the second and third agreements, his
award would have been immune from impeachment under s 33(1) of the Act. The arbitrator
inexplicably dismissed the claim in its entirety without engaging in any analysis in regard to
the amounts claimed pursuant to the second and third agreements. Thus, in failing to address
the residue of the claim, just as he had done with the component of the claim flowing from the
first agreement, the arbitrator effectively closed off his mind to the fundamental question that
he was called upon to answer. This omission prevented a fair trial of the totality of the issues
and amounted to a gross irregularity. The SCA determined that a new arbitrator ought to be
appointed in order to ensure the issues at hand would be determined afresh.
In the result, the SCA upheld the appeal from the high court and set the order of the high court
aside. In its place, an order was made setting aside the arbitrator’s award insofar as it related
to the amounts claimed in terms of the second and third agreements and that the dispute that
pertained to the residue of the second and third agreements was to be submitted to a new
arbitrator, as agreed upon between the parties.
--------oOo-------- |
1295 | non-electoral | 2010 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 59/09
In the matter between:
TCT LEISURE (PTY) LTD
Appellant
and
THE COMMISSIONER FOR THE SOUTH AFRICAN
REVENUE SERVICES
Respondent
Neutral citation: TCT Leisure v The Commissioner for the South African
Revenue Services (59/09) [2010] ZASCA 10 (12 March
2010).
Coram:
HARMS DP, CLOETE et CACHALIA JJA
Heard:
19 February 2010
Delivered:
12 March 2010
Summary:
VAT Act 89 of 1991; 'equity security' exemption s 12; the goods
'supplied' comprised preferent shares and other discrete rights; because the
rights were not included in the shares, the 'equity security' exemption in
s 12(a) was not applicable; the turnover from the sale of the rights was
therefore subject to VAT.
______________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Special Tax Court (Durban) (Hurt J presiding):
The appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.
______________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________
CLOETE JA (HARMS DP et CACHALIA JA concurring):
[1] The Holiday Club is an organisation which has for some time sold
holiday accommodation commonly known as 'time-share' to members of the
public. The organisation was restructured in 1995. Before that date, VAT was
paid on the product it supplied and thereafter, it was not. The cardinal
question in this appeal is whether VAT was payable in respect of the product
sold after the restructuring.
[2] The various components of the organisation making up The Holiday
Club from time to time, have varied. In 1993 Leisure Property Trust ('the trust')
was formed. The trust acquired rights to accommodation introduced to it by
TCT Leisure (Pty) Ltd (to which, without begging the question, I shall refer as
'the taxpayer') and in return for which the trust issued 'points rights' to the
taxpayer. These points rights conferred a contractual right of occupation
enforceable against the trust exercisable subject to defined conditions. The
taxpayer sold the points rights to members of the public. It was common
cause before this court that these transactions constituted a 'taxable supply'
on which VAT was payable; and VAT was in fact paid. The relevant provisions
of the Value-Added Tax Act 89 of 1991 read:
'7(1)
Subject to the exemptions, exceptions, deductions and adjustments provided
for in this Act, there shall be levied and paid for the benefit of the National Revenue
Fund a tax, to be known as the valued-added tax ─
(a) on the supply by any vendor of goods or services supplied by him on or after the
commencement date in the course or furtherance of any enterprise carried on by
him;
. . .
calculated at the rate of 14 per cent on the value of the supply concerned . . . .'1
[3] When The Holiday Club was restructured in 1995 a new company,
Leisure Holiday Club Ltd ('LHC'), was formed. The trust became its sole
ordinary shareholder. The taxpayer transferred properties and rights of use in
properties comprising holiday accommodation, which it owned, to LHC for a
consideration of R27,5m consisting of the issue to the taxpayer of 62 500
preference shares in LHC with a nominal value of one cent each ('the shares')
and 62 500 'debentures'2 with a face value of R439,99 each. These properties
and rights of use in properties were then acquired by the trust from LHC; and
the taxpayer began selling the shares (and possibly the 'debentures') which it
had acquired in LHC, to members of the public. It is in respect of the turnover
from these sales, for the financial years ending February 1998 to February
2002, that the Commissioner issued the revised assessments levying VAT
which are at issue in this appeal.
[4] The Commissioner raised the assessments on the basis that the
taxpayer dealt in 'timeshare interests' which were included in the definition of
'fixed property' in the VAT Act and, accordingly, that those interests were
'goods' and their supply fell within the purview of s 7(1) of the Act.3 The basis
of the assessments was unanimously upheld by the Special Tax Court,
Durban (Hurt J presiding). Leave to appeal to this court was subsequently
granted in terms of s 34 of the VAT Act read with s 86A(2)(b)(i) and s 86(5) of
the Income Tax Act 58 of 1962.
1 Section 7(1) has been reproduced in its present form. The amendments to it from time to
time since its commencement are irrelevant to the present appeal.
2 It is not necessary for purposes of the appeal to decide whether this description is accurate.
3 In s 1 of the VAT Act, 'goods' are defined as meaning inter alia 'fixed property'; and 'fixed
property' is defined as meaning inter alia 'in relation to a property time-sharing scheme, any
time-sharing interest as defined in section 1 of the Property Time-sharing Control Act, 1983
(Act 75 of 1983), and any real right in any such . . . time-sharing interest.'
[5] Because of the view I take it is unnecessary to consider the
correctness of the basis of the order made by the Special Tax Court because
even if the basis was incorrect, as contended by the taxpayer (and I express
no view in this regard), the onus was on the taxpayer, in terms of s 37 of the
VAT Act,4 to prove that the turnover from the sales was nevertheless exempt.
This the taxpayer sought to do by arguing that what was supplied to the
members of the public were 'financial services' in the form of 'equity
securities', as defined in s 2, which were exempt from VAT in terms of s 12(a)
of the Act. Those provisions read inter alia:
'12.
The supply of any of the following goods or services shall be exempt from the
tax imposed under s 7(1)(a):
(a)
The supply of any financial services . . . .'
'2(1)
For the purpose of this Act, the following activities shall be deemed to be
financial services:
. . .
(d)
the issue, allotment or transfer of ownership of an equity security . . .
. . .
(2)
For the purposes of subsec (1) ─
. . .
"equity security" means any interest in or right to a share in the capital of a juristic
person . . . .'
[6] In the words of counsel who drew the heads of argument on behalf of
the taxpayer:
'The essential question is whether the basis of the scheme was changed [in 1995] to
one in which "shares" rather than "points" were sold.'
Put differently, in order to succeed, the taxpayer would have had to show that
the occupation rights formed part of the bundle of incorporeal rights
comprising the shares in LHC which the taxpayer sold to members of the
public. The source of such rights could only be found in the memorandum or
4 Section 37 provides:
'The burden of proof that any supply . . . is exempt from or not liable to any tax chargeable
under this Act . . . shall be upon the person claiming such exemption . . . and upon the
hearing of any appeal from any decision of the Commissioner, the decision shall not be
reversed or altered unless it is shown by the appellant that the decision is wrong.'
articles of association of LHC5 or in any valid resolution passed in accordance
with the memorandum and articles setting out the rights attaching to the
shares to be issued pursuant to the resolution.6
[7] At the time LHC was incorporated, the terms governing the shares
were set out in clause 3 of its original articles of association. That clause gave
the right to shareholders to use the property of the company in the following
terms:
'3(a)
The preference shareholder shall:
1.
Be entitled to use any property acquired by the company for leisure or holiday
purposes in accordance with a schedule of use to be prepared by the directors of the
company, which schedule shall ensure that each shareholder has equal access to
the use and enjoyment of the property, determined pro rata to the number of shares
held . . . .'
However by special resolution passed on 15 September 1995, which was
before any shares at issue in this appeal were issued and therefore before the
taxpayer sold such shares to members of the public, clause 3 was amended
to exclude the paragraph just quoted.
[8] The articles of LHC did not provide that the shareholder would be
entitled to an allocation of points rights pro rata to its shareholding ─ indeed,
there is no link between the two in the articles (or memorandum) of LHC.
Certificates issued to members of the public read as follows:
'Share Certificate
This is to certify that the undermentioned is the registered owner of fully paid
Preferent Shares of one cent each in the abovementioned Company subject to the
Memorandum and Articles of Association of the Company.
5 Commissioners of Inland Revenue v Crossman & others: Commissioners of Inland Revenue
v Mann & others [1936] 1 All ER 762 (HL) at 787; Wessels & 'n ander v D A Wessels & Seuns
(Edms) Bpk & andere 1987 (3) SA 530 (T) at 561G-H; Letseng Diamonds Ltd v JCI Ltd &
others; Trinity Asset Management (Pty) Ltd & others v Investec Bank Ltd & others 2007 (5)
SA 564 (W) para 17.
6 Blackman et al Commentary on the Companies Act ad s 91 p 5─174-1; Morse et al Palmer's
Company Law para 6.104.
Points Rights Certificate
Subject to the payment of Membership and Reservation Fees, this certificate also
entitles the holder to the equivalent user rights in Points in The Holiday Club.'
[9] Clause 1 of the standard sale agreement between the taxpayer and
members of the public read:
'The Trading Company [the taxpayer] hereby sells to the Investor who hereby
purchases in perpetuity upon the terms and conditions of this Agreement a share
interest in the Company [LHC], referred to as Points Rights in the Scheme, which
entitles him/her to be credited each year with the number of Points as determined in
Schedule 2 hereto.'
Certain of the concepts are defined as follows:
'Points Rights ─ means a right for the Member to be credited each year with the
number of Points specified in the Points Rights/Share Certificate;
Points/Shares ─ means the instrument by means of which the Member of
Points/Shares becomes entitled to exercise the right to the Use and Occupation of
Accommodation;
Scheme ─ means a property time-sharing scheme known as "The Holiday Club"
pertaining to the Accommodation conducted in terms of the rules thereto;
Accommodation ─ means the property, immovable or otherwise, intended for use
by any Member in any Resort, including the movables, and in respect of which the
Accommodation is owned, leased, rented or otherwise available from time to time by
the Trust and are accordingly included in the Scheme.'
From what I have previously said it is quite clear that it was not the 'share
interest in the Company' (ie LHC) referred to in clause 1 of the standard sale
agreement which entitled the member of the public 'to be credited each year
with points rights' which, in turn, entitled the member to accommodation rights
in terms of the scheme. The points rights conferred such entitlement. What
was sold were shares and points rights. As Mr Fernandes, the company
secretary of the taxpayer (called to testify on its behalf), correctly said in
cross-examination:
'CROSS-EXAMINER: I'd just like to put it to you for any further comment you wish to
make that after 1995, if you sold shares, what you sold were 1 cent preference
shares and points.
MR FERNANDES:
And?
CROSS-EXAMINER: And points, the same points that you'd been selling before you
continued to sell but you tagged on to it a 1 cent preference share.
MR FERNANDES:
Correct. The points for accommodation and the shares for
ownership.'
The fact that the taxpayer as a matter of commercial practice only sold points
together with shares (a fact much emphasized in the heads of argument and
by counsel who represented the taxpayer when the matter was argued in this
court) does not result in a merger of the rights attaching to each, nor does it
entitle the shareholder qua shareholder to exercise the right of a points holder
or a points holder to exercise the rights of a shareholder.
[10] Counsel representing the taxpayer when the appeal was argued before
this court relied on the decision of the New Zealand Court of Appeal in
Commissioner of Inland Revenue v Gulf Harbour Development Ltd.7 In that
matter one member of a group of companies sold to the public redeemable
preference shares in another member that operated a golf club and related
facilities. The rights attached to each share, which passed to the purchaser,
included membership of the club. The issue was whether such sales were to
be treated as a supply of financial services for the purposes of the Goods and
Services Tax Act 1985. The high court had held that the supplier of a share in
a company operating a country club was an equity security and that the
transaction was, therefore, an exempt supply of financial services for GST
purposes. The Commissioner's primary submission on appeal was that what
was supplied in substance was membership of the golf club and that this
supply should attract GST; that the equity security element was ancillary to, or
incidental to, the supply of membership of the club; and alternatively, that
there were two supplies in the transaction namely the supply of an equity
security and the supply of membership of the golf club. The Commissioner's
appeal was dismissed and the Court of Appeal held inter alia that how the
offer was marketed and why people purchased the shares was irrelevant, in
that everyone who buys a share in a company buys it to acquire the rights
attaching to that share; that the share is in all cases a 'vehicle' for acquisition
of the rights attached to it; and the fact that in this case the rights attached to
7 (2004) 21 NZTC 18, 915.
the shares were rights to membership in the country club did not alter what
the purchasers were acquiring. The high court's view that there was no
evidence to support the supply of more than the shares was confirmed and
the Court of Appeal held that the right to membership passed not as a
discrete element, but as an incident of share ownership.
[11] In the present matter I have held that the right to occupy was supplied
not as an incident of share ownership, but as a discrete element (in the form
of points rights). The case is for that reason of no assistance to the taxpayer.
[12] It was in dispute whether, at the same time that shares and, as I have
found, points rights were sold to members of the public, the 'debentures'
acquired by the taxpayer in LHC were also sold. It is not necessary to resolve
the dispute nor is it necessary to establish a value for the shares. The VAT
Act makes express provision for a composite supply of goods which are
subject to VAT and those that are not in s 10(22) which reads as follows:
'Where a taxable supply is not the only matter to which a consideration relates, the
supply shall be deemed to be for such part of the consideration as is properly
attributable to it.'
But the Taxpayer conceded that if the rights to accommodation supplied to
members of the public did not form part of the rights attaching to the shares,
the full consideration paid by members of the public was subject to VAT.
[13] The appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.
_______________
T D CLOETE
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
APPELLANTS:
K J Kemp SC (with him I Pillay)
Instructed by Cox Yeats, Durban;
McIntyre & Van der Post, Bloemfontein
RESPONDENTS:
O L Rogers SC (with him Ms A A Gabriel)
Instructed by The State Attorney, Cape Town;
The State Attorney, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date: 12 March 2010
Status: Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
TCT LEISURE (PTY) LTD v THE COMMISSIONER FOR THE SOUTH AFRICAN
REVENUE SERVICES
The Holiday Club, which sells holiday accommodation commonly termed time-share to
members of the public, was restructured in 1995. Shares were thereafter sold by TCT Leisure
(Pty) Ltd, one of the entities forming part of The Holiday Club after it was restructured, to
members of the public. TCT argued that the shares were equity securities and therefore the
turnover from the sales of the shares was exempt from VAT. The SCA rejected this
argument, holding that it was not the shares which conferred an entitlement to occupy time-
share accommodation, but the points rights sold with the shares. The court reasoned that the
fact that TCT sold both at the same time as part of one indivisible transaction did not mean
that rights of accommodation were conferred on shareholders. It was the points rights that
conferred this right. The court accordingly confirmed the decision of the Durban Tax Court
that the turnover from the sales was subject to VAT.
--ends-- |
1369 | non-electoral | 2010 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case no: 144/08
In the matter between:
GERHARD SMIT
Appellant
and
THE STATE
Respondent
Neutral citation: G Smit v The State (144/08) [2010] ZASCA 84 (31 May
2010)
Coram:
MTHIYANE, VAN HEERDEN, PONNAN, MHLANTLA and
LEACH JJA
Heard:
19 May 2010
Delivered:
31 May 2010
Summary:
Criminal law – rape and attempted rape - evidence –
assessment of – complainant’s evidence lacking credibility - convictions of
rape and attempted rape set aside.
______________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________
On appeal from: North Gauteng High Court (Pretoria) (Seriti J and
Ramagaga AJ sitting as court of appeal):
1.
Leave to appeal is granted and the appeal is enrolled.
2.
The appeal is upheld, and the order of the high court is set aside and
substituted with the following:
‘(a)
The appeal is upheld.
(b)
The appellant’s convictions and sentences are set aside.’
______________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________
LEACH (MTHIYANE, VAN HEERDEN, PONNAN and MHLANTLA concurring)
[1] On 24 February 2005, Gerhard Smit of Pretoria ( ‘the appellant’), was
convicted in a regional court on a count of attempted rape and a further count
of rape for which he was, respectively, sentenced to three years’ and ten
years’ imprisonment, such sentences to run concurrently. A subsequent
application on his behalf to lead further evidence as well as an application for
leave to appeal was refused by the trial magistrate. Subsequently, the
appellant was granted leave to appeal by the North Gauteng High Court but
on 6 August 2007 that court (Seriti J and Ramagaga AJ) dismissed the
appeal. A delay then ensued, largely as a result of various financial and
logistical difficulties that are not necessary to detail on the part the appellant in
lodging his application with the High Court, for leave to appeal to this court.
On 12 February 2009 the High Court dismissed that application. The appellant
then applied to this court for leave to appeal and to adduce further evidence in
terms of s 309 of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977. On 25 February
2009 this court issued the following order:
‘The application for leave to appeal and to adduce further evidence is referred for oral
evidence in terms of s 21(3)(c)(ii) of the Supreme Court Act 59 of 1959.
The parties must be prepared if called upon to do so, to address the court on the
merits of the conviction and sentence.’
[2] Because the success or otherwise of the application for leave to appeal
depends on the prospects of eventual success of the appeal itself, the
argument on the application had to address the merits of the appeal. For this
reason the parties were requested to argue the appeal as if the application for
leave to appeal had been granted. (See S v Boesak 2000 (1) SACR 633
(SCA) paras 10, 11 and 12.)
[3] The charges against the appellant arose out of events which occurred
at his home in Pretoria during the night of 3 to 4 September 2003. Both the
charge of attempted rape (count 1) and that of rape (count 2) involved the
same complainant, a 16 year old school girl, who was at the time living with
the appellant’s family. The appellant used an outside room described in the
evidence as a ‘Wendy house’ as his bedroom while the complainant shared a
bedroom in the main house with the appellant’s sister, Jolindi, and his 11 year
old brother. His mother and her partner slept in an adjoining bedroom. The
State alleged that the appellant had unsuccessfully attempted to rape the
complainant in the Wendy house and, some time later, had succeeded in
doing so in the bedroom that she shared with his two siblings.
[4] The appellant denied his guilt. Although he admitted having had
intimate contact with the complainant in the Wendy house and that he had
thereafter had sexual intercourse with her in the bedroom, he alleged that this
had all taken place with her consent. Unfortunately for him, his version was
rejected and he was convicted on both counts as charged. As there is a
material conflict of fact, a resolution of which involves the credibility of the
witnesses, it is necessary to deal with the evidence in some detail.
[5] At the time of the incident, the complainant was attending a school in
Pretoria. As her home was in Witbank it had been necessary for her to board
at the school but, for reasons not disclosed in the evidence, there had been a
problem at the school and she was required by the school to leave the
boarding house. Her teacher, a Mr Bruwer, had a son who was at the time
romantically involved with the appellant’s sister, Jolindi, and this led to
arrangements being made for the complainant to board with Jolindi.
[6] On the night in question, although the complainant had already
prepared for bed, at Jolindi’s suggestion she slipped a track suit over her night
clothes and the two of them went out at about 9 pm to purchase cold drinks.
They ended up at the Bergsig Hotel where the appellant was playing pool with
his friends. Although the complainant had lived with Jolindi’s family for a few
weeks, she claimed not to know the appellant who was much older than her. It
is common cause that despite it having been a school night, the complainant
and Jolindi spent several hours playing pool with the appellant and his friends
and only left the hotel in the early hours of the next morning. They proceeded
home in a motor vehicle driven by Jolindi with the complainant and the
appellant seated in the rear and one of his friends seated in the front
passenger seat. After dropping the friend at his home, they went home.
[7] According to the complainant, when they arrived at the house the
appellant said he wanted to talk to her and asked her to accompany him to
the Wendy house. She did so, but when they entered the room the appellant
closed the door, turned off the light and asked her to remove her clothes.
When she refused to do so, he pushed her onto the bed and again asked her
to undress. She told him that she was not prepared to do so as she had a
boyfriend and he had a pregnant girlfriend. When she again refused, the
appellant proceeded to strip down to his underpants, and again asked her to
disrobe. When she persisted in her refusal, he pulled a blanket over them,
fondled her breasts and put his hand between her legs. However when he sat
up, apparently in order to play some music, she was able to free herself and
flee to the main house. As she did so, she looked back and saw the appellant,
now fully clothed, following close behind her. Once in the main house, the
appellant went to the sitting room to watch television while she went to the
bedroom she shared with Jolindi and the latter’s 11 year old brother. She
alleged that when she told Jolindi what had happened, she was
unsympathetic and told her it had all been her own fault.
[8] The complainant alleged that she had then removed her track suit and
climbed onto her bed, but that she found it impossible to sleep. She was
awake and lying on her stomach when she felt someone climbing onto the
bed, who pulled the panty she was wearing to below her buttocks and then
had sexual intercourse with her by penetrating her vagina from behind. She
alleged that after penetration had occurred she looked around and saw that it
was the appellant. She asked him what he thought he was doing. He
immediately climbed off her and left the room. She alleged that the next day
she had informed her teacher, Mr Bruwer, what had happened to her.
[9] The appellant told a materially different story. Although he confirmed
that the complainant and Jolindi had joined him and his friends in playing pool
at the hotel, he alleged that she had flirted outrageously with both his friends
and him. She had repeatedly squeezed his behind, had sat on his lap and had
kissed him. He alleged that while he and the complainant were seated in the
rear of the vehicle on the way home, they engaged in heavy petting during
which he fondled her breasts and she fondled his private parts. On their
arrival home, he suggested to her that they go to the Wendy house, to which
she willingly agreed. Once in his room, the complainant removed her track
suit and lay on the bed dressed in her night clothes. He took off his pants and
shirt and joined her. They petted intimately, during the course of which they
fondled each others private parts. But when he attempted to remove her
panty, she said that they should rather go into the house. They dressed
together and when he asked whether he should bring a condom with him, she
replied that it was unnecessary as she was using an oral contraceptive.
[10] The appellant described how he and the complainant had then gone to
the main house where he sat in the sitting room while the complainant, after
having said that she would call him when Jolindi was asleep, went to her
bedroom. She returned shortly thereafter, bringing him a duvet. She sat on his
lap and they kissed. The complainant said that he should wait a few minutes
before joining her in bed. She returned to the bedroom and, after a short
while, he joined her as she had said. They petted intimately for a while before
he removed the complainant’s panty and they had consensual sexual
intercourse, during which he penetrated her vagina from behind. The act was
brief, and the two of them then repaired to the bathroom together to clean
themselves. After the complainant had kissed him again, she returned to the
bedroom while he went and slept in the sitting room, something he commonly
did. He did not see the complainant the next morning before she went to
school and was shocked to later hear that she alleged that he had raped her.
[11] Before dealing with whether the appellant’s version was correctly
rejected as not being reasonably possibly true, I should interpose that there
can be no doubt that the State’s case fell far short of proving an attempted
rape in the Wendy house. The high court never dealt with this issue and
appears to have confirmed the conviction on the count of attempted rape
solely because it was not persuaded that the trial court had erred in accepting
the complainant’s version. However, while on the complainant’s version the
appellant had intimately fondled her, he at no stage attempted to have sexual
intercourse with her and, indeed, at all times she had her panty on and the
appellant had never removed his underwear. At best for the State, the
appellant may have been guilty of indecent assault but he certainly did not
attempt to insert his penis into the complainant’s vagina. That being so, even
on the State’s case considered in isolation, the appellant’s actions in the
Wendy house cannot be construed as an attempt at rape and in this court
counsel for the State correctly conceded that the conviction on this count
cannot stand.
[12] But the more important issue is whether both the trial court and the
high court erred in accepting the version of the complainant as true beyond a
reasonable doubt and rejecting that of the appellant as being inherently
improbable. The rejection of the appellant’s version as inherently improbable
was based primarily on two issues. First, that if the complainant had wanted to
have sexual intercourse with the appellant, she would have done so when
they had the opportunity of doing so in private in the Wendy house (and it was
thus inherently improbable that she would have suggested to the appellant
that they should go to the main house for that purpose) and, second, that the
complainant would have suggested having sexual intercourse in a bedroom
which she shared with two other people.
[13] The allegation that the appellant and the complainant did not avail
themselves of the opportunity to have sex in the Wendy house and only did so
later in the bedroom is not so improbable that it can be rejected as false
beyond a reasonable doubt. The fact that the sex act took place in the
bedroom without the complainant crying out for assistance is far more likely to
have occurred if the act was with her consent than without it. And the
appellant was hardly likely to have run the risk of attempting to rape the
complainant in the same room as his sister and younger brother after she had
successfully fought off his initial attempt to do so in the Wendy house as to do
so would have invited discovery in a compromising position should the
complainant have again resisted his advances. Plainly, if the appellant
intended to have forcible intercourse with the complainant in a house with four
other occupants, without knowing how she would react, he ran the risk of her
raising the alarm and him being found out. It would have been far less risky, if
he was intent on such conduct to have done so in the Wendy house, where
the opportunity clearly presented itself. If anything, the fact that the sexual act
took place where it did is more consistent with the appellant’s version than
that of the complainant, and the appellant’s version is not so inherently
improbable in that regard to warrant rejection. Or rather at best for the State it
is a neutral factor that does not tip the scales in its favour.
[14] The fundamental difficulty that I have with the State’s case is that it
rested solely upon the credibility of the complainant herself. The trial court did
not evaluate her evidence in detail while the high court concluded that it was
‘satisfactory in every material respect and is also credible’. This is a startling
statement as a detailed examination shows the complainant to have been
anything but a credible witness whose testimony was inherently unreliable
and as appears from what follows, her evidence is riddled with inconsistencies
and improbabilities.
[15] In her evidence in chief, the complainant made no mention of any
improper advances made by the appellant until such time as the two of them
had entered the Wendy house. In cross-examination, however, a very
different version emerged. She then alleged that while at the hotel the
appellant had forced her to sit on his lap and that, while returning home, the
appellant had not only forced her to sit in the back of the vehicle with him but,
despite her protestations, had forced her hand onto his private parts. Had
these events occurred as she alleged in cross-examination, it was surprising
to say the least that she only volunteered this information at that stage. Her
failure to do so smacks heavily of an attempt to gild the lily.
[16] It is also surprising that if the complainant had been obliged to
physically resist the appellant’s advances, both at the hotel and while seated
in the motor vehicle, she would have voluntarily accompanied him to the
Wendy house. Importantly, she also admitted having willingly kissed him in
the Wendy house. This was hardly the conduct of a person who had just
been obliged to fight off a sexual predator, and the fact that she went with the
appellant to his room and kissed him there is far more consistent with the
appellant’s version that she had consented to the sexual contact which had
taken place between the two of them earlier that evening. Furthermore, the
complainant admitted during her evidence that she was taking an oral
contraceptive at the time, information that the appellant would hardly have
known unless she had imparted it to him as he said she had done. This
further corroborates the appellant’s version of the events. Why else, it must be
asked, would she have volunteered that information, unless there was a
discussion between them about sexual intercourse. It strikes me as
implausible that she would have imparted that information to him had she felt
threatened by him.
[17] The complainant’s description of events after she had left the
appellant’s room is also unsatisfactory. She alleged that after she had freed
herself from the appellant, she fled from the Wendy house and, on looking
back, saw him fully clothed following directly behind her. However, it is
common cause that the appellant had stripped to his underpants and it is
difficult to see how on the complainant’s version he would have had the time
to dress and to follow so closely behind her. Not only is her version thus
improbable in this regard but the fact that the appellant was fully clothed at
that stage is consistent with his version that they had both dressed
themselves before they left the Wendy house together.
[18] Then there is the appellant’s allegation that the complainant had
taken him a duvet while he was waiting in the sitting room for Jolindi to fall
asleep. The complainant denied doing so but Jolindi confirmed that she had.
Not only did Jolindi’s evidence contradict the complainant’s on this score but
she also confirmed that the complainant had flirted with the men present at
the hotel and had sat on the appellant’s lap. She also testified that after the
complainant had returned from the Wendy house she had said that she and
the appellant had just played with each other. Jolindi took the complainant to
school the next morning. It was undisputed that notwithstanding the
complainant then having the opportunity to do so, she had not complained
about the appellant’s behaviour. Indeed Jolindi testified that the complainant
had told her that she had enjoyed her evening playing with the appellant. It
was only later in the day, according to Jolindi, that she had heard that the
complainant had alleged that the appellant had raped her.
[19] Jolindi’s evidence was thus inconsistent with that of the complainant in
several respects. She was not shaken in cross-examination and there is no
reason to doubt her truthfulness. However, the trial court did not mention her
testimony and while the high court briefly mentioned her evidence, it neither
evaluated nor considered its effect upon the credibility of the complainant. It
erred in doing so as Jolindi’s evidence, much of which was unchallenged,
throws considerable doubt upon the version of the complainant.
[20] The complainant’s description of the sex act itself is also distinctly
unconvincing. As I have said, she alleged that the appellant had entered the
room, climbed on her bed, pulled down her panty to just below her buttocks
and then penetrated her vagina from behind, all of which took place without
her offering any resistance or even looking around to see who it was. Not only
is it improbable that he would have been able to achieve penetration if she
was lying in the position she described but, according to her, it was only after
penetration that she looked around and asked him what he was doing. If she
was awake, as she alleged was the case, it is difficult to accept that the
appellant could have done all of this without her consent. The trial court
appreciated this difficulty and found that the complainant must have been
asleep at the time and was thus not only unaware of the removal of her panty
and the appellant’s initial penetration of her, but that she had therefore been
incapable of giving her consent. But this finding flies in the face of the
complainant’s own evidence that she was awake at all times, and constitutes
a material misdirection.
[21] Had the complainant been raped, one would have expected her to
have immediately cried out for assistance, particularly knowing that Jolindi
was present in the room. She did not do so. Nor after the act did she wake
Jolindi. When pressed on this, the complainant alleged that she had
attempted to awaken her but that Jolindi had been so drunk that she
continued sleeping. Jolindi denied having been drunk and said that she had
merely had a single brandy and coke during the course of the whole evening,
and her evidence in this regard was not challenged. The complainant’s
evidence in regard to what she told Jolindi the next morning was also
unsatisfactory. Initially she said she did tell Jolindi of the rape, but went on to
say that she could not remember if she had done so. As I have said, Jolindi’s
evidence has not been shown to be unreliable and is wholly inconsistent with
the complainant doing anything else but expressing her pleasure at the events
of the preceding evening.
[22] Moreover, the complainant said that she did not report the incident to
Jolindi’s mother as she did not know her well enough, and that she therefore
decided to wait until school to report the incident to her teacher, Mr Bruwer.
When Mr Bruwer testified, he made no mention of the complainant reporting
that she had been raped. Instead he stated that she had shown no signs of
being at all upset during the course of the morning classes which is hardly
what one would expect of a young girl who had been raped. However he did
state that the complainant had told him that she did not want to return to
Jolindi’s house and that, as a result, he arranged for the complainant’s mother
to come to school and met with her and the complainant that afternoon when
the complainant’s mother reported to him that the complainant had been
raped.
[23] It is clear from this that the complainant did not complain immediately
after the incident to people that she could trust in circumstances where it
would have been that expected she would have done so. The first person to
whom she appears to have reported that she was raped was her mother but
the circumstances under which that report was made are not clear. There is a
conflict on the evidence as to the precise events that occurred, but it is
apparent from her mother’s testimony that the first issue that arose was
whether the complainant had been at the hotel the previous evening. It was
only after the complainant’s mother, who was angry about her daughter
having possibly been at the hotel, made enquiries and learned from another
witness that the complainant had been at the hotel that the allegation of rape
was first mentioned.
[24] Precisely how she had come to make the report was not explored in
the evidence, but the fact remains that the complainant’s allegation of rape
appears only to have emerged after a confrontation with her mother about her
having been at a hotel on a school night. In the circumstances that prevailed,
there is a very real suspicion that the complainant’s report of rape was made
in an attempt to deflect her mother’s anger.
[25] In the light of all these factors, I have grave reservations about the
credibility of the complainant and in turn her reliability I am thus not persuaded
that the State discharged the onus of proving beyond a reasonable doubt that
the appellant’s version of the material events was false. Ultimately counsel for
the State was constrained to concede that this conviction as well could not
stand.
[26] In the light of this conclusion, it becomes unnecessary to deal with the
application for leave to lead further evidence.
[27] The following order will therefore issue:
1.
Leave to appeal is granted and the appeal is enrolled.
2.
The appeal is upheld, and the order of the high court is set aside and
substituted with the following:
‘(a)
The appeal is upheld.
(b)
The appellant’s convictions and sentences are set aside.’
________________
L E LEACH
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
APPELLANT:
J Hollland-Müter
Instructed by
Potgieter, Penzhorn & Taute Inc, Pretoria
Kramer, Weihmann & Joubert, Bloemfontein
RESPONDENT:
L Pienaar
Instructed by
Director of Public Prosecutions, Pretoria
Director of Public Prosecutions, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
31 May 2010
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
GERHARD SMIT
versus
THE STATE
The appellant was convicted in a regional court of both the rape and the attempted
rape of a 16 year old girl, for which he was sentenced to an effective period of ten
years’ imprisonment.
The appellant appealed unsuccessfully to the North Gauteng High Court, but was
later granted leave by the Supreme Court of Appeal to argue an application for leave
to appeal.
The Supreme Court of Appeal today granted the appellant leave to appeal, enrolled
the appeal and set aside the appellant’s convictions and sentences. In doing so it
concluded that the complainant’s version of the event was improbable and
unsatisfactory, that there was grave doubt as to whether she had told the truth, and
that the appellant’s version could reasonably possibly be true. The appeal was
therefore upheld. |
3659 | non-electoral | 2021 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no:888/2020
In the matter between:
AUGUSTINUS PETRUS MARIA
KOUWENHOVEN
APPELLANT
and
THE MINISTER OF POLICE
FIRST RESPONDENT
THE DIRECTOR OF PUBLIC PROSECUTIONS
(WESTERN CAPE)
SECOND RESPONDENT
THE MINISTER OF JUSTICE AND
CORRECTIONAL SERVICES
THIRD RESPONDENT
THE MAGISTRATE: PRETORIA
FOURTH RESPONDENT
THE MAGISTRATE: CAPE TOWN
FIFTH RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Kouwenhoven v Minister of Police and Others
(888/2020) [2021] ZASCA 119 (22 September 2021)
Coram:
PONNAN, WALLIS, SCHIPPERS and HUGHES JJA and
KGOELE AJA
Heard:
27 August 2021
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by
circulation to the parties’ representatives by email, publication on the
Supreme Court of Appeal website and release to SAFLII. The date and
time for hand-down is deemed to be 09h45 on 22 September 2021
Summary: Extradition Act 67 of 1962 – validity of arrest in terms of
s 5(1)(b) of the Act – whether officials gave an undertaking not to arrest
the appellant – whether any such undertaking was capable of binding the
State – whether undertaking invalidates an arrest pursuant to an otherwise
valid warrant.
Affidavit in support of application for issue of a warrant of arrest in terms
of s 5(1)(b) of Act – attested before another policeman employed in the
same bureau – Regulation 7 of Regulation governing the administering of
an oath or affirmation under the Justices of the Peace and Commissioners
of Oaths Act 16 of 1963 – whether oath properly administered.
Whether magistrate applied her mind to issue of warrant or 'rubber-
stamped' it – failure to notify the Minister of Justice of issue of warrant in
terms of s 8(1) of the Act – effect.
ORDER
On appeal from: Western Cape Division of the High Court, Cape Town
(Cloete J, Fortuin J concurring, sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal is dismissed with costs, such costs to include the costs of two
counsel in respect of both the first respondent and the second and third
respondents.
Judgment reported sub nom Kouwenhoven v Minister of Police and
Others [2019] 4 All SA 768 (WCC); 2021 (1) SACR 167 (WCC).
JUDGMENT
Wallis JA (Ponnan, Schippers and Hughes JJA and Kgoele AJA
concurring)
[1] Mr Kouwenhoven, the appellant, is a Dutch citizen, at present
resident in Cape Town and a businessman who formerly had significant
business interests in Liberia. On 21 April 2017 he was convicted by the
Court of Appeal of ‘s-Hertogenbosch of repeatedly committing the
offence of complicity in war crimes, and repeatedly violating the Dutch
Sanctions Act, arising out of his involvement in the civil war in Liberia
that raged between 1997 and 2003 and led to the downfall of the then
President of Liberia, Charles Taylor.1 Mr Kouwenhoven was sentenced to
serve a term of imprisonment of 19 years and his conviction and sentence
have been upheld by the Supreme Court of the Netherlands.2 The present
1 His conviction was on the basis that he was a confidante of Mr Taylor and aided and abetted Mr
Taylor’s own crimes during the course of that war. Mr Taylor was subsequently convicted by the
Special Court for Sierra Leone of 11 counts of aiding and abetting war crimes and crimes against
humanity involving acts of terrorism, murder, rape, enslavement and pillage and is serving a term of 50
years imprisonment.
2 He has lodged an appeal to the European Court of Human Rights, which it appears is still pending.
The core legal question in the appeal is:
litigation arises from his endeavours to resist the attempts of the Dutch
government to secure his extradition from this country to serve his
sentence in the Netherlands. This appeal was heard simultaneously with a
related appeal in a case flowing from events occurring subsequent to and
in consequence of the high court's decision in the present case.3 Judgment
in that matter will be delivered at the same time as this judgment.4
[2] On 8 December 2017, Mr Kouwenhoven was arrested pursuant to a
warrant of arrest issued, in terms of s 5(1)(b) of the Extradition Act 67 of
1962 (the Act), by an unidentified magistrate in Pretoria. He was brought
before a magistrate in Cape Town and released on bail on 19 December
2017. On 31 January 2018 he launched the present review proceedings
against the Minister of Police as first respondent; the Director of Public
Prosecutions (Western Cape)(the DPP), as second respondent; the
Minister of Justice and Correctional Services (the Minister of Justice), as
third respondent; the Pretoria magistrate as the fourth respondent; and an
unidentified magistrate in Cape Town who was appointed to conduct an
extradition enquiry in terms of s 9 of the Act, as fifth respondent.
[3] The aim of the review was to obtain declaratory orders that the
decision to arrest him and the arrest itself had been unlawful and that the
conduct of the extradition enquiry was unlawful and invalid. The relief
underwent some minor amendment in the course of proceedings and in its
final form read as follows:
'Did the Court of Appeal err in rejecting the defence’s submission that the amnesty scheme approved
by Charles Taylor on 7 August 2003 prevented the prosecution of the defendant in the Netherlands for
the
crimes
with
which
he
had
been
charged?'
(See:
http://www.internationalcrimesdatabase.org/Case/3309/The-Public-Prosecutor-v-Guus-Kouwenhoven/)
3 Director of Public Prosecutions, Western Cape v Kouwenhoven; Kouwenhoven v Director of Public
Prosecutions, Western Cape and Others [2021] 1 All SA 843 (WCC); 2021 (1) SACR 579 (WCC).
4 Kouwenhoven v Director of Public Prosecutions, Western Cape and Others [2021] ZASCA 120.
‘1. Declaring that the Applicant has been brought unlawfully before the Fifth
Respondent, and that any future appearance before the Fifth Respondent and any
consequences thereof in relation to the proceedings arising from his arrest of 8
December 2017 are unlawful and invalid.
2.
2.1. Declaring that the decision to issue the warrant for the arrest of the Applicant . . .
issued by the Fourth Respondent on 6 December 2017 in terms of section 5(1)(b) of
the Extradition Act . . . was unlawful and invalid;
2.2. Declaring that the warrant is unlawful and invalid;
2.3. The warrant is reviewed and set aside.
3. Declaring that the decision to arrest and the arrest of the Applicant on 8 December
2017 was:
3.1. Inconsistent with the Constitution . . .;
3.2. Unlawful and invalid.
4. The arrest and/or detention of the Applicant during the following periods is
declared to be unlawful and unconstitutional;
4.1. From 8 December 2017 until 18 January 2018; and
4.2. From 18 January 2018 until the date of judgment in this application.
5. . . .
6.
6.1. Declaring that the Third Respondent’s decision to issue the ‘notification by the
Minister of Justice and Correctional Services under Section 5(1)(a) of the Extradition
Act . . . in relation to the Applicant, dated 22 February 2018 . . . was unlawful and
invalid.’
[4] The review was opposed jointly by the two Ministers and the DPP,
but the magistrates abided the decision of the court. It was heard by a full
bench consisting of Fortuin and Cloete JJ and dismissed on
19 September 2019 in a judgment by Cloete J. Leave to appeal was
refused, but it was subsequently granted by this court.
The background
[5] The relationship between South Africa and the Kingdom of the
Netherlands in regard to extradition is governed by the European
Convention on Extradition (the Convention). Under Article 12 it provides
for requests for extradition and under Article 16(1) for requests for the
provisional arrest of the person sought to be extradited. Article 16
provides that:
'In case of urgency the competent authorities of the requesting Party may request the
provisional arrest of the person sought. The competent authorities of the requested
Party shall decide the matter in accordance with its law.'
A provisional arrest, if sought and granted, is sufficient to set the stage
for an extradition enquiry in terms of s 9(1) of the Act, but the arrest falls
away if a request for extradition is not forthcoming within time limits
specified in Article 16. However, once the request for extradition is
received, no further arrest is necessary and the extradition enquiry
proceeds to determine whether the person in question qualifies for
extradition.
[6] The warrant of arrest issued by the fourth respondent was issued
after receipt of a request for Mr Kouwenhoven's provisional arrest on
22 August 2017. An earlier request for his extradition received on
7 July 2017 and a request for his provisional arrest received on
21 July 2017, had been returned as not being in accordance with the
requirements of the Convention and the Act. The warrant was issued on
the basis of an affidavit sworn by Warrant Officer van der Heever of the
Pretoria National Central Bureau of Interpol (Bureau). He is one of two
police officers stationed at the Bureau dealing with extradition matters.
Other desks deal with drugs, fraud and general matters.
[7] The issues have undergone some refinement and four grounds for
invalidity of the warrant and the arrest remain and were pursued in this
court. Chronologically they were that:
(a)
In May 2017 Mr Kouwenhoven's attorney, Mr Eisenberg, spoke
separately to W.O. van der Heever and Mr van Heerden, the Principal
State Law Advisor, International Legal Relations in the Department of
Justice and Constitutional Development. It was contended that in these
telephone conversations the relevant authorities separately and
independently undertook that Mr Kouwenhoven would not be arrested
pursuant to a provisional request under Article 16(1) and would be
afforded prior notice before action was taken against him. It was alleged
that these undertakings created a right, or at least a legitimate expectation,
that the authorities were obliged in law to honour. Their breach rendered
his arrest and all proceedings consequent thereupon invalid and unlawful.
(b) The affidavit of W.O. van der Heever was improperly attested before
a colleague of his at the Bureau, Sergeant von Hagen, and was therefore
invalid. This rendered the issue of the warrant invalid as it was not based
on any evidence.
(c) The magistrate who issued the warrant did not apply her mind to
whether the warrant should properly be issued, but instead 'rubber-
stamped' it and this rendered it invalid.
(d) After issuing the warrant the magistrate did not comply with her
obligation in terms of s 8 of the Act to furnish the Minister of Justice with
particulars relating to the warrant and this rendered it invalid.
On the basis that the issue of the warrant and Mr Kouwenhoven's arrest
were unlawful on one or more of these grounds, it was contended that the
entire process was invalid and he could not properly have been brought
before the fifth respondent for the purpose of an extradition enquiry in
terms of the Act.5
[8] An entirely separate issue arose from the then Minister of Justice
issuing a notification under s 5(1)(a) of the Act on 22 February 2018.
That section provided that the magistrate to whom such a notification was
sent was obliged to issue a warrant for the arrest of the person whose
extradition was sought in order for them to be brought before a magistrate
under s 9 of the Act. A number of factual and legal arguments were
advanced in relation to the validity of this notification. However,
whatever the relevance of the point at an earlier stage of these
proceedings, by the time it reached this court it was entirely academic.
Not only had no warrant been issued in terms of the notification, but the
Constitutional Court had declared s 5(1)(a) invalid with immediate
effect.6
[9] In his supplementary founding affidavit Mr Kouwenhoven said
that the issuing of this notice 'makes no sense whatsoever'. That was
plainly correct. Nonetheless, he persisted with the argument that the
notice should be declared invalid on two grounds. The first was that if the
arrest in issue in this case were set aside the Minister might seek to
trigger a further arrest by sending his notification to an appropriate
magistrate. That contention was far-fetched, given that the section, and
therefore the power of the magistrate to act on the notification, has been
declared to be unconstitutional. No magistrate would issue a warrant in
the face of that decision. The second ground was a contention that Mr
Kouwenhoven was entitled to know whether the Minister's actions were
5 Reliance was placed on Ebrahim v S 1991 (2) SA 553 (A).
6 Smit v Minister of Justice and Correctional Services and Others [2020] ZACC 29; 2021 (1) SACR
482 (CC); 2021 (3) BCLR 219 (CC).
unconstitutional. Two judgments were cited in support of this
proposition.7 Neither was in point. The first, Pheko in the Constitutional
Court, required a decision on the merits in order to determine whether the
applicants were entitled to appropriate restitutionary relief. The second,
Buthelezi in this court, was concerned with the issue of undue delay in the
issue of visas and was a matter likely to arise again in the future. The
arguments arising from the Minister's actions under s 5(1)(a) were plainly
moot and it is unnecessary to say any more about them.
[10] Before
turning
to
the
separate
grounds
upon
which
Mr Kouwenhoven challenged the validity of his arrest it is necessary to
say something about the onus of proof and the approach the court must
take to disputes of fact on the papers. It is trite that an arrest without a
warrant is an interference with liberty and that the onus rests on the
arrestor to justify it.8 Where an arrest takes place in terms of a warrant a
judicial act has intervened and unless the validity of that judicial act can
be assailed the existence of the warrant justifies the lawfulness of the
arrest. The police officer in possession of a warrant of arrest is not
obliged, over and above producing the warrant and showing that they
acted in terms of it, to prove that the warrant was validly issued. It is for
the party challenging the warrant to show why it should be set aside. That
is why these proceedings were brought by way of judicial review.
Contrary to Mr Kouwenhoven's heads of argument, they are not
proceedings by way of habeas corpus. The analogy counsel sought to
draw between these proceedings and an arrest in admiralty is also not apt.
In admiralty the onus of justifying the arrest remains throughout on the
7 Relying on Pheko and Others v Ekurhuleni Municipality (Socio-Economic Rights Institute of South
Africa as Amicus Curiae) [2011] ZACC 34; 2012 (2) SA 598 (CC) (Pheko) para 34 and Buthelezi v
Minister of Home Affairs and Others [2012] ZASCA 174; 2013 (3) SA 325 (SCA) (Buthelezi) para 4.
8 Minister of Law and Order and Others v Hurley and Another 1986 (3) SA 568 (A) at 589D-H.
applicant for the arrest, irrespective of the form of the proceedings in
which the arrest is challenged. The Plascon-Evans rule is applied to
determine whether the undisputed evidence on behalf of the applicant for
arrest, when taken together with the respondent's evidence, discharges the
onus. If it does not it is always open to the applicant to seek a reference to
oral evidence, but given the nature of admiralty proceedings it is unusual
for courts to accede to such a request. Here the justification for the arrest
lies in the existence of the warrant and it is the challenge to the warrant
that is relevant. On that the onus rested on Mr Kouwenhoven. Even had
the onus rested on the respondents that would not have affected matters,
because the case would still have had to be decided on the basis of the
undisputed evidence of Mr Kouwenhoven, read together with the
respondents' version.9
The undertaking issue
[11] On 2 May 2017, Mr Eisenberg spoke on the telephone to
W.O. van der Heever. The following day he spoke to Mr van Heerden.
After these conversations he wrote to W.O. van der Heever and
Mr van Heerden. The founding affidavit relied on these letters in support
of an allegation that each of Mr van Heerden and W.O. van der Heever
had given 'a clear and unequivocal undertaking' that Mr Kouwenhoven
'would not be arrested on the basis of any provisional arrest warrant or
without notice'. The heads of argument characterised this as a binding
agreement between him and the South African authorities, alternatively a
non-binding undertaking by the authorities that had to be observed in
accordance with Constitutional norms.
9 Ngqumba en ń Ander v Staatspresident en Andere; Damons NO en Andere v Staatspresident en
Andere; Jooste v Staatspresident en Andere 1988 (4) SA 224 (A) at 259H-263D; President of the
Republic of South Africa and Others v M & G Media Ltd 2011 (2) SA 1 (SCA) paras 13 and 14.
[12] The underlying premise of these contentions was that, if such an
undertaking was given, its breach invalidated the warrant and
Mr Kouwenhoven's arrest pursuant thereto. The heads of argument were
drafted on the footing that an undertaking had been given and breached.
They examined whether the claim that Mr Kouwenhoven had become a
flight risk was a legitimate reason for the breach. A separate argument
that the issue of the warrant was invalidated by non-disclosure of the
undertakings to the Pretoria magistrate was not pursued. My prima facie
view is that the premise is faulty. The issue of a warrant is a judicial act
authorising an arrest. The magistrate was not party to any undertakings
and if the magistrate concluded on the papers that a proper case was made
for the issue of a warrant, I do not see why that decision would be
invalidated by the fact that the two officials were acting in breach of an
undertaking. They would not be acting in good faith, but 'the worst
motive does not render an otherwise lawful arrest unlawful'.10 Given the
conclusion to which I come on the factual basis for these contentions it is,
however, unnecessary to say more on this aspect of the case.
[13] To place these conversations and the correspondence that followed
in context, they occurred less than two weeks after Mr Kouwenhoven's
conviction and sentence. No request for his extradition, or provisional
arrest, had been received from the Netherlands, although the Bureau had
received an Interpol Red Notice for assistance in securing his arrest. That
indicated
that
the
Dutch
authorities
intended
to
apply
for
Mr Kouwenhoven's extradition and would be seeking a provisional arrest
in conformity with national laws and applicable treaties. The
conversations involved different people and were entirely separate from
10 Tsose v Minister of Justice 1951 (3) SA 10 (A) at 17G-H; National Director of Public Prosecutions v
Zuma [2009] ZASCA 1; 2009 (2) SA 277 (SCA) para 37
one another. Any agreements reached or undertakings given were reached
or given separately. They cannot be treated cumulatively
[14] Mr Eisenberg had not previously met or communicated with
W.O. van der Heever when he spoke to him on 2 May 2017. Later that
day he wrote as follows:
'If I may, let me confirm your advices of this morning:
(i) An INTERPOL "Red Notice" has already been posted for our client, Mr Gus
Kouwenhoven;
(ii) Our client has no intention whatsoever of departing the Republic of South Africa until the
present matter is fully resolved;
(iii) You have already received a Provisional Request from the authorities of The Netherlands
for the arrest of our client;
(iv) You have advised the Dutch authorities that the South African prosecutorial and police
authorities will not be acting on their Provisional Request but a formal request for our client’s
extradition to The Netherlands has been made and is expected within the next number of
months;
(v) Our client shall not be arrested pursuant to the Provisional Request or in the normal course
but proper and dignified arrangements for handing our client over for our client’s first
appearance on the basis of such formal request will be made between us.'
In oral argument counsel submitted that the undertaking was contained in
the final paragraph of this letter.
[15] Did this letter on its terms embody an agreement or undertaking as
alleged? In my view it did not. It made no reference to an agreement or
undertaking. Nor did it ask for confirmation that an agreement had been
reached or an undertaking given. The first item confirmed a matter of fact
and the second involved a statement by Mr Eisenberg of his client's
alleged attitude. It is common cause that the third paragraph was incorrect
as a matter of fact, because no such request had been received. There
appears to have been some miscommunication between Mr Eisenberg and
W.O. van der Heever in this regard. The Interpol Red Notice under a
heading 'Action to be Taken' recorded that the Dutch authorities wanted
Mr Kouwenhoven to be arrested as his extradition was to be sought. The
notice went on to say that:
'This request is to be treated as a formal request for provisional arrest, in conformity
with national laws and/or the applicable bilateral and multilateral treaties.'
If Mr Eisenberg thought that Interpol in the Netherlands represented the
Dutch authorities, then from the perspective of a possible extradition this
was mistaken. It seems probable that he construed W.O. van der Heever's
reference to the Interpol notice as a request from the Dutch authorities,
possibly via Interpol. As W.O. van der Heever had not been in touch with
the Dutch authorities in regard to a request for extradition and such
requests are routed through the Department of International Relations and
Co-operation via the Department of Justice and Correctional Services he
could not have been referring to a request from the Dutch authorities in
relation to extradition.
[16] The following paragraph built upon this. There had been no direct
communication between W.O. van der Heever and the Dutch authorities.
He explained in his affidavit that he had told Interpol in The Hague that it
would be best to wait for the Netherlands request for extradition rather
than seek Mr Kouwenhoven's arrest on a provisional basis, because that
would facilitate the extradition and there did not appear to be any
evidence of urgency at the time. This was not challenged in
Mr Kouwenhoven's replying affidavit. In those circumstances it was
undoubtedly the case that at that time W.O. van der Heever was not
intending to seek Mr Kouwenhoven's immediate arrest on the basis of the
Interpol Red Notice and he said that this was what he told Mr Eisenberg.
[17] The fact that W.O. van der Heever told Mr Eisenberg that this
was the factual position at the time of their conversation did not translate
into an agreement or undertaking not to arrest Mr Kouwenhoven if a
proper request for his provisional arrest in terms of Article 16 of the
Convention was received. Nor could it be construed as an undertaking
that he would not be arrested if such a request was received.
[18] Mr Eisenberg's affidavit in support of the application took the
matter
no
further.
Concerning
his
conversation
with
W.O.
van der Heever, he gave no evidence that would have put a different gloss
on the conversation and the letter. All he did was assert that an
undertaking was given, but that was a conclusion that could be drawn
only if a full description of the purpose, nature and contents of their
discussion had been given. None was. He filed a further affidavit together
with Mr Kouwenhoven's replying affidavit and at a time when he knew
what W.O. van der Heever had to say. Even then he did not deny the
accuracy of the latter's recollection of their conversation. The furthest he
was willing to go was to say that his approach 'was serious and formal in
nature' and that it 'should have been apparent to W.O. van der Heever that
I sought to conclude a binding arrangement with him'. It is not good
enough to say that someone should have realised that a binding
arrangement – one enforceable in a court of law – was being sought. That
had to be stated in the conversation and then confirmed expressly in the
letter. That was not done.
[19] There can be little doubt that if Mr Eisenberg had told
W.O. van der Heever that he was not merely in search of information, but
was seeking to conclude an agreement, or extract an undertaking, that his
client would not be arrested if the Dutch extradition authorities asked for
his provisional arrest, the entire tenor of the conversation would have
been different. Both parties were aware that an application for extradition
was likely to be made. Both knew that in order to commence an
extradition enquiry Mr Kouwenhoven would have to be arrested in terms
of s 5 of the Act. A request by Mr Eisenberg that W.O. van der Heever
would not act upon a proper request by the Dutch extradition authorities
for Mr Kouwenhoven's provisional arrest in terms of the Convention
would have been extremely far-reaching. It is impossible to conceive of
an experienced police officer agreeing to it in a telephone conversation
with an attorney who was unknown to him. At the very least a court
would require convincing and direct evidence of the contents of the
conversation before accepting that the police officer had concluded such
an agreement or furnished such an undertaking. There is no such
evidence, because Mr Eisenberg did not provide it.
[20] Strictly speaking that conclusion renders it unnecessary to consider
whether such an agreement or undertaking could ever be treated as
binding. However, it is appropriate to express my reservations concerning
the proposition that an official such as W.O. van der Heever had authority
to conclude such an agreement, or give such an undertaking. Extradition
between the Netherlands and South Africa is a matter of diplomatic
relations between the two states governed by a formal convention. There
can be no doubt that the Convention has 'become law' in South Africa.11
No authority was cited for the proposition that a police officer, charged
with the responsibility of implementing requests in terms of the
Convention, is entitled to conclude agreements or give undertakings that
would bind the South African government to disregard a valid request for
11 President of the Republic of South Africa v Quagliani; President of the Republic of South Africa and
Others v Van Rooyen and Another; Goodwin v Director-General, Department of Justice and
Constitutional Development and Others [2009] ZACC 1; 2009 (2) SA 466 (CC) (Quagliani) para 46.
a person's provisional arrest under the Convention. I am not here
speaking of the exercise of a discretion in the exercise of his lawful duties
in relation to a request under the Convention, such as determining
precisely when and how an arrest is to be effected, but of an agreement or
undertaking that would preclude him and the State from acting in terms of
the Convention. At the end of the argument, I remained unconvinced that
any such authority vested in W.O. van der Heever.
[21] I turn then to the alleged agreement with, or undertaking furnished
by, Mr van Heerden. On the same day as Mr Eisenberg's conversation
with
W.O. van der Heever,
Mr
Kouwenhoven's
senior
counsel,
Mr Katz SC, spoke to Mr van Heerden. The founding affidavit placed no
reliance on this conversation, no doubt because it was apparent that
Mr Katz would thereby be rendered a potential witness. In terms of the
rules governing the advocates' profession that would have required him to
withdraw and not act in the litigation. In an endeavour to circumvent the
problem, Mr Eisenberg, spoke to Mr van Heerden on the following day.12
After he had done so he sent the following letter:
'Let me confirm your advices of this morning, and as you have conveyed this to
advocate Anton Katz SC:
(i) It is correct that an INTERPOL ‘Red Notice’ has been issued and posted for our
client, Mr Guus Kouwenhoven;
(ii) While you have not (contrary to the advices of Warrant Officer Wimpie van der
Heever, INTERPOL) received a Provisional Request for our client’s arrest for
extradition, you have received an email from the Dutch Police Liaison Officer for
12 This did not dispose of the fact that Mr Katz was a material witness and merely exacerbated the
problem because Mr Eisenberg was then the only the witness to the conversations with both W.O. van
der Heever and Mr van Heerden. That he should have withdrawn and ceased to act, at least once it was
apparent that there were disputes over the tenor and effect of those conversations, is clear. Hendricks v
Davidoff 1955 (2) SA 369 (C); Elgin Engineering Co (Pty) ltd v Hillview Motor Transport 1961 (4) SA
450 (N) at 454F-H.
Southern Africa advising you that our client was sentenced to 19 years in Holland (in
absentia);
(iii) You have consulted with INTERPOL and have reached an agreement that our
client will not be arrested should you receive a Request for Provisional arrest’
(iv) You understand that the Dutch authorities are busy with the drafting of an
Extradition Request and you will advise either advocate Katz or myself once you have
received such a request;
(v) I reiterate that if you receive a compliant Extradition Request from the Dutch
authorities arrangements for handing our client over for his first appearance on the
basis of such Request will first be made between us, especially in light of our client’s
age and medical condition.'
In oral argument counsel relied on the third and fifth paragraphs of this
letter in support of the alleged agreement or undertaking.
[22] Reliance was also placed on an email Mr van Heerden sent on
29 June 2017 to Mr Eisenberg, informing him that an electronic copy of
an extradition request and request for the provisional arrest of Mr
Kouwenhoven had been received and the original would be forwarded
through diplomatic channels. Mr Eisenberg responded the same day as
follows:
‘On the basis of our communications let me confirm with you the following:
(i) A decision has been made by the South African authorities, including the
Department of Justice and SAPS, that a Provisional Request for the arrest of our client
Mr Guus Kouwenhoven, will not be entertained.
(ii) . . .
(iii) Based on my brief discussion with yourself this afternoon, it is unlikely that an
Extradition Request, fully compliant with the formalities, will be received from the
Dutch authorities prior to 27 July 2017.’
Manifestly this letter added nothing to the enquiry. If an agreement had
been concluded, or an undertaking given, on 3 May 2017 this letter did
not alter it. If no agreement was concluded and no undertaking given, this
letter did not create one. It referred to a decision taken by the South
African authorities, not to an agreement with, or an undertaking given to,
Mr Kouwenhoven. Even assuming in the latter's favour that such a
decision had been taken – something that was disputed – there was
nothing to stop the South African authorities from changing their minds.
No right or expectation by Mr Kouwenhoven would be affected thereby.
[23] Whether the letters of 2 and 3 May 2017 could serve as proof of
either an agreement or the furnishing of an undertaking by either
W.O. van der Heever or Mr van Heerden is doubtful. Mr Kouwenhoven
deposed to the founding affidavit, but he had not been a party to either
conversation. Mr Eisenberg deposed to a supporting affidavit (which we
were told in the practice note need not be read) in which he gave no
details of the conversations he had with either W.O. van der Heever or
Mr van Heerden. He purported to confirm that he received undertakings
that Mr Kouwenhoven would not be arrested pursuant to any provisional
request for his arrest and would not be arrested without notice to his legal
representatives. This took the matter no further. When Mr Eisenberg
delivered an affidavit together with the replying affidavit, he said that he
was confirming the replying affidavit and the descriptions in that affidavit
of the telephone discussions that he had with the two officials But those
'descriptions' added nothing to the founding affidavit. Mr Kouwenhoven
said in regard to the conversation with Mr van Heerden that the letter
made it plain that it was confirming the conversation in question. But that
merely throws one back on the letter as the only evidence proffered in
support of the alleged agreement or undertaking. It is entirely lacking in
any detail as to the terms of the two conversations or how they were said
to give rise to an agreement or undertaking.
[24] Like the letter to W.O. van der Heever the letter to
Mr van Heerden does not refer to an agreement or an undertaking. Nor
did it seek confirmation of an agreement or undertaking. It referred to the
earlier conversation between Mr Katz and Mr van Heerden, but neither
Mr Katz nor Mr Eisenberg deposed to an affidavit saying that they asked
Mr van Heerden to enter into an agreement or give an undertaking.
Mr Eisenberg's affidavit was silent on the point. On the face of it these
conversations were merely seeking information on behalf of their client
and were not directed at concluding agreements or obtaining
undertakings. Had those been proffered the letters would have been
couched in markedly different terms.
[25] The two passages on which counsel relied were even less
indicative of an agreement having been reached between Mr Eisenberg
and Mr van Heerden, or an undertaking having been given, than the
passage relied on in the other letter. The statement that Mr van Heerden
had consulted 'with INTERPOL' – a reference to W.O. van der Heever –
and that the two of them had agreed not to arrest Mr Kouwenhoven if
they received a request for a provisional arrest, even if correct, would not
amount to an agreement with Mr Kouwenhoven, or an undertaking to
him. It would merely reflect the current thinking of the two officials
without any indication that, when, and if, a request for a provisional arrest
was made, they would decline to act upon it. There appears to have been
an assumption at the time that a formal request for Mr Kouwenhoven's
extradition was imminent and that matters would then proceed on the
basis of that application. As it happened, that is what occurred because a
request for extradition was received on 7 July 2017, but returned because
it did not comply with the provisions of the Act. It was only thereafter
that a request was made for a provisional arrest on 21 July and that too
was returned as non-compliant with the requirements for a provisional
arrest. A compliant request was only received on 22 August 2017.
[26] The dispute over a provisional arrest under Article 16 of the
Convention, as opposed to an arrest pursuant to an extradition request
under Article 12, was largely academic. As pointed out earlier, provided a
formal request for extradition is timeously received, there is no need in
order to hold an extradition enquiry under s 9 of the Act, for a person
arrested under Article 16 to be re-arrested. The enquiry proceeds on the
basis of the initial arrest. Provided a request for extradition was
forthcoming Mr Kouwenhoven's arrest was inevitable. At most the
enquiries to W.O. van der Heever and Mr van Heerden could have been
directed at forestalling the need to prepare a bail application as a matter
of urgency. Reference to the papers in the bail application reveal that it
was in fact prepared well in advance, probably around 12 June 2017,
which was the date on a report about prison conditions, commissioned
especially for the purpose of the bail application. The founding affidavit
in the bail application was signed four and a half hours after Mr
Kouwenhoven's arrest and ran to 37 pages and 135 paragraphs, with a
number of medical reports and the report on prison conditions annexed.
[27] There is no need to repeat what was said in para 19 about the
reaction of W.O. van der Heever to any direct request to agree not to
arrest Mr Kouwenhoven, or to give an undertaking not to do so. The same
improbability of an agreement being concluded or an undertaking given,
applied equally in the case of Mr van Heerden. So do my reservations
about the authority to conclude an agreement, or give an undertaking. In
my view, as with the earlier letter the one addressed to Mr van Heerden
does not on its terms support the claim of an agreement or an undertaking
not to arrest Mr Kouwenhoven pursuant to a proper request for his
provisional arrest. For those reasons, which differ somewhat from those
of the high court, the first ground of attack on the validity of
Mr Kouwenhoven's arrest was correctly rejected by the high court.
The attack on the warrant of arrest
[28] An initial application to strike out all the answering affidavits on
behalf of the respondents, save that filed by Mr Burke of the DPP's office,
on the grounds that they were deposed to before police officers was not
pursued. Instead, the attack was limited to one on the attestation of
W.O. van der Heever's affidavit by Sergeant van Hagen. The complaint
was that, as she was a police officer employed in the same office as the
deponent, she had an interest in the litigation that disqualified her from
acting as commissioner of oaths. The basis for this was regulation 7(1) of
the regulations governing the administration of oaths and affirmations
(the regulations),13 which provides in terms that a commissioner of oaths
shall not administer an oath or affirmation relating to a matter in which
they have an interest. Under regulation 7(2) that provision does not apply
to an affidavit or declaration mentioned in the schedule to the regulations.
Item 2 of the Schedule provides:
A declaration taken by a commissioner of oaths who is not an attorney and whose
only interest therein arises out of his employment and in the course of his duty.'
Provisions in these terms have been included in the relevant regulations
for many years, both under the present statute and its predecessor.14
13 Regulations Governing the Administering of an Oath or Affirmation published in terms of s 10 of the
Justices of the Peace and Commissioner of Oaths Act 16 of 1963 under GN R1258 of 21 July 1972, as
amended published in GG 3619 of that date.
14 The Justices of the Peace and Commissioner of Oaths Act 16 of 1914. See Royal Hotel, Dundee and
Others v Liquor Licencing Board, Area No 26; Durnacol Recreation Club v Liquor Licencing Board,
Area No 26 1966 (2) SA 661 (N) (Royal Hotel, Dundee).
[29] Regulation 7(1) and its predecessors have been the subject of
judicial interpretation. The cases hold that the regulation requires
commissioners to be independent in the exercise of their duties.15 An
interest has been held to be a pecuniary interest, or some interest by
which the legal rights or liabilities of the commissioner are affected.16 In
Benjamin17 affidavits attested before the Deputy Master in litigation
involving the Master and his staff were held to be inadmissible as
contravening the regulation, but the judgment relied heavily on the
decision in Brummer18 for this conclusion. The judge's attention had been
drawn to the fact that Brummer had been overruled by this court,19 but he
did not mention this. The decision cannot be taken as expanding the
scope of what is meant by an 'interest' under the regulation.
[30] The usual instances in which the commissioner has been held to
have an interest are cases where an affidavit has been attested before an
attorney acting in the litigation or proceedings for which the affidavit is
tendered, or before that attorney's partner or agent. These cases overlap
with a rule of evidence derived from English law that an affidavit
deposed to before such an attorney is inadmissible.20 In Papenfus21 the
court extended the exclusionary rule of evidence to an in-house legal
adviser for a board in regard to affidavits deposed to by staff of the board
in litigation to which the board was party.
15 Ibid at 667A.
16 Tambay v Hawa 1946 CPD 866; Louw v Riekert 1957 (3) SA 106 (T) at 111.
17 The Master v Benjamin NO 1955 (4) SA 14 (T)
18 R v Brummer 1952 (4) SA 437 (T) at 439. See also R v Du Pont 1954 (3) SA 79 (T).
19 R v Rajah 1955 (3) SA 276 (A) at 282 and 283.
20 See the cases collected in Royal Hotel, Dundee at 665H-668C and Radue Weir Holdings Ltd t/a
Weirs Cash & Carry v Galleus Investments CC t/a Bargain Wholesalers 1998 (3) SA 677 (E) at 669H-
681E.
21 Papenfus v Transvaal Board for the Development of Peri-Urban Areas 1969 (2) SA 66 (T) at 69H-
70A
[31] Counsel for Mr Kouwenhoven relied strongly on Papenfus so it is
desirable to examine what it decided and the reasoning of the judge. He
first considered the provisions of the regulations governing the
administration of an oath. Those applicable at the time were the same in
all material respects as the ones at present applicable. His conclusion was
that the regulation did not preclude the legal adviser from acting as
commissioner of oaths because she did not have an interest in the matter
as provided in regulation 7(1). The judge said:22
'The commissioner of oaths in the present case, being a legal adviser to the respondent
Board, has, on the ascertained facts, no 'personal' interest whatever in the fate of these
proceedings, even if it were to be assumed against the respondent that she advised her
employer to resist the applicant's motion, drew the several affidavits now in question
and was therefore 'interested' in the course advised and pursued by her on behalf of
the respondent. Her 'interest' would only arise from the fact of her employment. The
information disclosed justifies the inference that, if she had not been so employed, she
would have had no interest whatever in the outcome of this litigation. …
The regulations should in my view be so interpreted as not to preclude a legal adviser
from acting as a commissioner of oaths in litigation in which his employer is
concerned. The 'interest' arising is too remote to fall within the general prohibition of
reg. 3, and it is moreover rendered permissible by item 3 of the schedule.'
The approach to the regulations was therefore consistent with other
decisions holding that the regulations did not preclude a salaried
employee of an attorney from acting as a commissioner of oaths in
relation to affidavits deposed to by witnesses in proceedings in which
their employer was the attorney of record for a party.23
[32] In the case of police officers investigating crimes two judgments
holding that they had a disqualifying interest in relation to affidavits
22 Papenfus, ibid,
23 Tambay v Hawa, op cit, fn 15; Royal Hotel, Dundee, op cit, fn 13; S v Van Schalkwyk 1966 (1) SA
172 (T) at 174H-176F.
signed by witnesses in the course of their investigations,24 were overruled
by this court.25 In Royal Hotel Dundee it was said that item 2 in the
schedule to the regulations appeared to cover the case of a police
officer.26 Despite that, in Dyani,27 three affidavits deposed to by police
officers were held to be inadmissible because they had been attested
before commissioners of oaths who were themselves police officers.
Another affidavit was excluded because the commissioner of oaths was a
police officer and employee of the respondent. In excluding them Jafta J
said:
' In this matter the affidavits by Mnyakaza, Mgodeli and Jooste were deposed to by colleagues
of the commissioners of oath who, by virtue of their relations to the deponents, do not meet
the requirement of an independent, unbiased and impartial commissioner. Botoman’s affidavit
is also tainted by the fact that the commissioner of oaths is the employee of the first
respondent and that other respondents were also colleagues of the commissioner. It is quite
clear that all those commissioners could be regarded as having interest in the subject matter of
these proceedings.
It is unclear from the report how closely linked the deponents were to the
commissioners of oaths, or whether the decision was based solely on the
fact that both the deponents and the commissioners were police officers.
The quoted passage suggests that it was a general rule that police officers
could not act as commissioners of oaths in respect of affidavits deposed
to by other police officers or other witnesses in any proceedings where
the Minister of Police was involved. It is also unclear whether the judge
was saying that the attestation was improper, or applying the rule of
evidence in regard to their admissibility, which would have involved a
substantial extension of that rule. There was no reference in the judgment
to regulation 7(2) or to item 2 of the Schedule to the regulations.
24 R v Brummer and R v Du Pont op cit fn 17.
25 R v Rajah, op cit, fn 18.
26 Royal Hotel, Dundee, op cit, fn 13 at 668H.
27 Dyani v Minister of Safety and Security and others [2001] 3 All SA 310 (Tk) para 21.
[33] In Sihlobo,28 after a careful consideration of the regulations, and in
particular regulation 7(2), Pakade J held that Dyani was clearly wrong
insofar as it held that a policeman could not act as a commissioner in
relation to the affidavit of another police officer. That decision was
followed in Van Rooyen.29 It is necessary to resolve the uncertainty in this
regard.
[34] Commissioners of oaths are persons designated by the Minister of
Justice as such by virtue of their office. The current designation30
includes no fewer than 77 categories of officers, ranging from members
of the National Executive and a number of persons holding office in the
administration of justice (but curiously not judges, although their
secretaries are designated), to the chairperson of management of a
children's home in Pretoria. In terms of s 7 of the statute all of these are
authorised to administer an oath or affirmation or take a solemn or
attested declaration within the area for which they are a commissioner.
Regulation 7(1) precludes a commissioner from performing these
functions 'relating to a matter in which they have an interest'. The
authorities already cited say that this must be a pecuniary interest or an
interest whereby the rights and obligations of the commissioner would be
affected.
[35] The mere fact of employment by a person having an interest in the
matter has not been regarded as constituting a disqualifying interest, save
in the two cases involving police officers that were overruled in Rajah,
28 S v Sihlobo [2004] JOL 12831 (Tk) paras 10-21.
29 Van Rooyen and Another v The Minister of Police and Others 2019 (1) SACR 349 (NCK) paras 29-
37. It was also followed in an unreported decision of the Gauteng division in Grammaticus (Pty) Ltd v
Minister of Police and Others 50538/2017 dated 12 December 2017, a copy of which was made
available to us by counsel.
30 Designation of Commissioners of Oaths in terms of section 6 of the Justices of the Peace and
Commissioners of Oaths Act 1963 published under GN 903 of 10 July 1998 in GG 19033 of that date.
and now possibly in Dyani. The implications of extending the concept of
an interest in the matter under the regulations to employees would be far-
reaching. Could a judge depose to an affidavit before their secretary, or
the secretary of a colleague, or the registrar of the court? Could they
depose to an affidavit before a magistrate? One merely has to peruse the
list of persons who are appointed as commissioners of oaths to realise the
complexities that would potentially arise if that approach to an interest
were to be adopted. Fortunately it is not the approach adopted by our
courts and Regulation 7(2), read with Item 2 of the Schedule, puts the
matter beyond doubt. If the only interest arises out of the commissioner's
employment and in the course of their duty it does not fall under
regulation 7(1). In that sense regulation 7(2) may not embody an
exception in the usual sense of a provision that cuts down what would
otherwise be the scope of regulation 7(1). Its purpose is rather more to
operate ex abundante cautela by making it clear that the performance of a
commissioner's functions arising out of their employment and in the
course of their duties is not prohibited. To the extent that Dyani decided
otherwise it was incorrect and is overruled.
[36] The facts in this case fall squarely within item 2 of the schedule to
the regulations. Sergeant van Hagen is stationed at the General Desk of
the Interpol bureau in Pretoria and has no involvement in extradition
matters. She had not been involved in the proceedings against Mr
Kouwenhoven and said that she was unaware of the matter and had not
even
heard
her
colleagues
discussing
it.
She
commissioned
W.O. van der Heever's affidavit because she is a police officer and was
readily available to do so. The argument that she had an interest in the
matter disqualifying her from doing so had no merit.
[37] Given the reliance placed on Papenfus it is as well to address the
decision in that case. Contrary to the submissions before us, the court
accepted that the affidavits had been properly commissioned, but then
turned to their admissibility in terms of the rule of evidence already
mentioned. In holding them to be inadmissible it said:31
'The fact that the commissioner is a partner of the deponent, or his servant, or a co-
official, or a junior officer must, in some cases at least, militate against the proper
discharge by the commissioner of his duty. That is the reason for excluding clerks
and partners of an attorney as commissioners of oaths for affidavits drawn by the
attorney for a party or witness. The reason becomes even more cogent where the
attorney himself happens to be the deponent.
That is closely similar to the situation where officials of an organisation like the
respondent Board have to swear to depositions before a commissioner of oaths who,
as the legal adviser, is their colleague and conceivably their junior colleague. The risk
of the procedure in administering the oath being something less than ideal becomes
too great to be countenanced by the Court. The rule excluding attorneys should be
extended to include legal advisers. If the respondent Board wishes to have affidavits
by its officials attested for court purposes, the attestation should preferably be by a
commissioner unconnected with its organisation, certainly not by its legal adviser.
In my view the attestation by the legal adviser of the affidavits filed by the respondent
is insufficient to render them admissible in evidence. They are struck out.'
[38] There is a fundamental problem with this line of reasoning. Once it
was accepted, as the court did, that the affidavits had been properly
commissioned by the legal adviser, on what basis was it entitled to say
that they were inadmissible? In application proceedings evidence is
presented by way of affidavits. The manner in which affidavits are to be
sworn or affirmed is prescribed under the regulations. An affidavit sworn
in accordance with those regulations is an affidavit for whatever purpose
it is tendered. If it contains inadmissible evidence, such as hearsay, or
31 Papenfus op cit fn 20.
irrelevant matter, it can be struck out, either in whole or in part, but if the
evidence is relevant and otherwise admissible, I fail to see on what legal
basis it can be excluded.
[39] The basis has been said to be a rule of evidence derived from
English law and made applicable in the Transvaal by s 55 of the
Transvaal Evidence Proclamation 1902.32 In turn its foundation lay in two
very specific statutory rules of court. The one said specifically that no
affidavit would be sufficient that was sworn before a solicitor acting for a
party, or an agent or correspondent of the solicitor, or the party
themselves. The second said that if an affidavit would have been
insufficient if sworn before the solicitor, it would be insufficient if sworn
before the solicitor's clerk or partner.33 There are no equivalent provisions
in our law and the limitations on commissioners of oaths acting as such
are those set out in the regulations.
[40] In Royal Hotel, Dundee34 Caney J traced the history of the matter
in Natal and said that from 1937, when the earlier regulations came into
effect, the evidential rule and the regulations had operated side by side,
the one in relation to litigious matters and the other in relation to other
matters. However, the cases he discussed where affidavits were excluded
were all cases where the attorney before whom they had been sworn had
an interest in the matter. Accordingly, there was no need for an evidential
rule to exclude them as they had been sworn before commissioners who
were disqualified. I have not found any reference to such a rule in the
texts on evidence that I have consulted. Papenfus appears to be the first
32 Louw v Riekert 1957 (1) SA 106 (T) at 110H-112B. The researches of Caney J in Royal Hotel,
Dundee suggest that there was a similar rule in Natal under a similar statute.
33 This rule was upheld in Louw v Riekert, ibid, but had been rejected in Geldenhuis Deep Ltd v
Superior Trading Co (Pty) Ltd 1934 WLD 117.
34 Op cit, fn 13 at 666F-670A
case to apply the rule to affidavits properly executed before a competent
commissioner of oaths in accordance with the regulations.
[41] It seems to me that what was once a rule of evidence is now dealt
with by the detailed provisions of the regulations governing the
commissioning of affidavits. There is nothing in those regulations to
suggest a bifurcation between affidavits in litigious matters and those
prepared for non-litigious purposes. Nor can I discern anything in the
regulations that supports an evidential rule such as that which formerly
applied by virtue of English statutory provisions. So far as I can ascertain
the position in England is simply that solicitors may not act as
commissioners of oaths where they represent a party in proceedings or
where they have an interest in the matter that is the subject of the
affidavit. That is also the situation in South Africa as a result of the
regulations. In my view there was no justification in Papenfus for the
invocation and extension of the old evidentiary rule. There is even less
justification for extending it further to the facts of this case. The
challenge to the commissioning of W.O. van der Heever's affidavit must
fail.
Rubber stamping
[42] On a proper consideration of the material placed before the
Pretoria magistrate in support of the application for the warrant the issue
of the warrant was justified. Any argument based upon the non-disclosure
of the alleged agreement or undertaking falls away with my rejection of
the contention that there was such an agreement or undertaking. On what
factual basis, then, does the argument depend that the magistrate did not
apply her mind to that material and the provisions of the Act? The answer
is none at all.
[43] The point first emerged in Mr Kouwenhoven's first supplementary
founding affidavit at a stage when the record delivered in response to the
review application did not include W.O. van der Heever's affidavit. The
contention was that there was no affidavit and no oral evidence and
therefore, where the order said that the magistrate acted on 'information
under oath', that was incorrect. For that reason, it was said that the
magistrate simply rubber-stamped the request for a warrant without
applying his or her mind to the matter. This rationale disappeared once
the record was filed thereafter and it was apparent that there was an
affidavit in support of the application. Undeterred, in his second
supplementary founding affidavit Mr Kouwenhoven attacked the issue of
the warrant on the basis of a variety of alleged non-disclosures, the only
one of which pursued in this court being the non-disclosure of the alleged
agreement or undertaking.
[44] The allegation of rubber-stamping was not repeated on this
occasion. It resurfaced in the replying affidavit in response to a statement
by W.O. van der Heever that the magistrate issued the warrant 'after
considering the application'. This provoked Mr Kouwenhoven to say the
following:
'All the indications are that, in fact, the Pretoria magistrate did not consider the
application and simply "rubber-stamped' the draft warrant.
In this regard the absence of any affidavit from the Pretoria Magistrate is telling.
The Pretoria Magistrate clearly rubber-stamped what W.O. van der Heever placed in
front of her without bothering to read the application. Her rubber-stamping occurred
on the same day.'
[45] No factual foundation existed for any of these allegations. The
heads of argument sought to elide the original allegation of rubber-
stamping, based on the incorrect belief that there was no affidavit before
the magistrate, with an allegation based on the fact that the magistrate
abided the decision of the court in the application and did not deliver an
affidavit. But there was no reason for the magistrate to file an affidavit,
because there was no factual matter for her to deal with.
[46] The heads of argument suggested that the magistrate 'did not
notice the errors in the commissioning of the affidavit'. The 'errors' to
which this referred were that Sergeant van Hagen did not print her full
name below the declaration. She gave her name and rank, which
demonstrated that she was ex officio a commissioner of oaths, as required
by regulation 4(2)(b).35 The failure to give her full names was irrelevant
and, as the papers in this case show, occurs frequently in the attestation of
affidavits. The addition of 'Estie' before 'Van Hagen' would not have
made the slightest difference and substantial compliance was all that was
necessary.36 Whether the magistrate noticed the omission was neither
here nor there. An oversight in that regard would not have affected the
validity of the decision to issue the warrant. The other fact advanced in
the heads of argument as evidence of 'rubber-stamping' was the failure by
the magistrate to give notice to the Minister of Justice in terms of s 8(1)
of the Act. How, a failure to attend to an administrative task after issuing
a writ was evidence of a failure to consider the issues relevant to the issue
of the writ was not explained.
[47] The decision to issue a warrant is a judicial decision and there is
no reason to think that it was taken other than properly. There was no
35 The regulation requires the commissioner to 'state his designation and the area for which he holds his
appointment or the office held by him if he holds his appointment ex officio.' Saying that she was a
sergeant in the South African Police Service satisfied this requirement.
36 Noordkaaplandse Ko-op Lewendehawe Agentskap Bpk v Van Rooyen and Others 1977 (1) SA 403
(NC) at 408H.
reason for the magistrate to deliver an affidavit justifying her decision
and saying that she applied her mind to the matter before issuing the
warrant. A failure to deliver an affidavit when there is nothing to respond
to was not a basis for this argument. There was no merit in the 'rubber-
stamping' point.
Section 8 of the Act
[48] Section 8(1) of the Act provides that
‘8 Magistrate to furnish Minister with particulars relating to issue of certain
warrants
(1) Any magistrate who, under paragraph (b) of subsection (1) of section 5 or under
section 7, issued a warrant for the arrest or further detention of any person other than
a person alleged to have committed an offence in an associated state, shall forthwith
furnish the Minister with particulars relating to the issue of such warrant.’
The need for the magistrate to do this arises, because in terms of s 8(2)
the Minister is entitled, if the warrant has not yet been executed, to direct
that it be cancelled, or, if it has been executed, to direct the discharge of
the person concerned. That may be done either because the Minister is of
the view that the request for extradition is being delayed unreasonably or
for any other reason the Minister may deem fit.
[49] It is common cause that the magistrate did not furnish the Minister
with particulars of the issue of the warrant and the Minister did not
consider whether to exercise his powers under s 8(2). The submission was
that depriving the Minister of the opportunity to set aside the warrant
invalidated the warrant itself. However, once it was accepted that the
initial issue of the warrant was lawful, counsel found himself in
difficulties in explaining when and how invalidity would occur. The Act
does not provide that the warrant is stayed until after the Minister has
been given notice under s 8(1), nor does it provide that the warrant lapses
if the Minister is not notified within a specified time period. Section 8(2)
expressly contemplates that the person concerned may already have been
arrested pursuant to the warrant by the time the Minister considers their
situation.
[50] Although s 8(1) contemplates that the particulars will be given
'forthwith' it is inevitable that some time will elapse between the issue of
the warrant and furnishing the Minister with particulars of the issue of the
warrant. What period of delay is permissible before the validity of the
warrant expires? Counsel was unable to say. Various factual scenarios
were posed with a view to securing clarity on the issue. How long a delay
would matter? In this case the warrant was issued on 6 December and
executed on 8 December. Was that invalid because no notification to the
Minister had been sent? What if the magistrate had prepared a letter
immediately, but it required to be typed and there was a holdup with the
typist, or the magistrate was called away for a couple of days to attend to
a family emergency? What if the magistrate was involved in a serious
motor accident that evening and was hospitalised for a lengthy period or
even killed? When would the validity of the warrant expire and how
would anybody know?
[51] The inability to provide an answer indicated that there was a
serious flaw in the argument. It lay in the proposition that a failure to
perform the duty imposed under s 8(1) operated retrospectively to
invalidate the warrant. While the obligation to furnish particulars relating
to the issue of the warrant arose from the issue of a warrant, the propriety
of the decision to issue the warrant was not affected thereby. That
decision required the magistrate to bring an independent mind to bear on
the issues relevant to a determination that the person concerned was
subject to extradition.37 Having done so the magistrate would have
performed her proper function in regard to the issue of the warrant and
her subsequent conduct would not affect that. The purpose of s 8(2) is to
enable the Minister to consider whether there are reasons why the warrant
should remain in force. Although the magistrate is obliged to furnish
particulars of the issue of the warrant forthwith upon issuing the warrant,
there is no time limit on the Minister's consideration of whether it should
remain in force. The Minister's powers may be exercised 'at any time'
after having been notified that a warrant has been issued. It would be a
curious construction of these provisions that the magistrate's failure to
furnish particulars to the Minister 'forthwith' would cause the warrant to
lapse but, if she did furnish them, the Minister could take a lengthy period
before taking any decision. Given the nature of the circumstances in
which the Minister may set the warrant aside it is even conceivable that
the initial decision may be to sustain the arrest, but with the passage of
time the Minister might conclude that the request for extradition is being
unreasonably delayed and direct that the arrested person be discharged
forthwith.
[52] Were a consequence as drastic as the invalidity and lapsing of the
warrant intended, one would have expected s 8(2) to be specific as to the
period that would constitute furnishing particulars 'forthwith'. and to state
expressly the consequences flowing from non-compliance. Furthermore,
there is nothing to prevent the Minister from exercising the powers
conferred by s 8(2) when the issue of the warrant comes to the Minister's
attention, albeit not as a result of the magistrate's actions. That was the
situation in the present case.
37 Smit op cit, fn 5 para 111.
[53] For those reasons, I am satisfied that the magistrate's failure to
comply with s 8(1) did not invalidate the warrant. This point must also be
rejected.
The circumstances of the arrest
[54] As a last-ditch contention, counsel sought to argue as an
additional point that the circumstances of Mr Kouwenhoven's arrest were
not in accordance with the 'proper and dignified' arrangements that were
referred to in the closing paragraph of Mr Eisenberg's letter to
W.O. van de Heever. Quite why this would invalidate the arrest was not
explained, but it is unnecessary to dwell on it. The point had not been
raised as a ground for invalidating the arrest in the founding affidavit and
there was no evidence to support it. The police arrived at Mr
Kouwenhoven's home at 7.50 am on 8 December 2017, which in a fit of
hyperbole counsel described as a 'dawn raid', and at around 8.30 am he
was taken in an unmarked police vehicle (not a police van) from the
house to the Sea Point police station. During the period between 7.50 am
and 8.30 am he took the police on a tour of all five stories of his house.
He deposed to his affidavit in support of his bail application four hours
later. This was hardly the 'perp walk' of American journalism and the
proper response to the submission is to echo the words of Sachs J in
Quagliani that:38
‘Legal representatives are entitled, even obliged to defend the interests of their clients
with vigour and panache. Yet there must be limits to their ingenuity. Stretching the
bounds of appropriate forensic procedure beyond breaking point is not permissible.
38 President of the Republic of South Africa v Quagliani; President of the Republic of South Africa and
Others v Van Rooyen and Another; Goodwin v Director-General, Department of Justice and
Constitutional Development and Others [2009] ZACC 1; 2009 (2) SA 466 (CC) para 73.
The raising in the affidavits of a number of points and their subsequent
abandonment indicated that Mr Kouwenhoven's legal representatives
exercised their ingenuity to its limits.
[55] There was no merit in the point.
General
[56] None of the arguments advanced in support of the contention that
the arrest of Mr Kouwenhoven was invalid had any merit. It is
accordingly unnecessary to address the contention, based on the decision
of this court in Ebrahim39 that, if the grounds advanced had any legal
merit, they necessarily meant that the magistrate charged with conducting
an extradition enquiry under ss 9 and 10 of the Act had no jurisdiction to
do so. Other than noting that Mr Ebrahim had been unlawfully abducted
from Swaziland and brought into South Africa, which is fundamentally
different from Mr Kouwenhoven's situation, it is unnecessary to discuss
the case. It is also unnecessary to consider the cases where courts have
discussed, in the context of civil proceedings, whether the fact that a
person has been brought before a magistrate and thereafter remanded in
custody interrupts the chain of causation between a prior unlawful arrest
and the further detention of the arrested individual.40
Result
[57] The appeal is dismissed with costs, such costs to include the costs
of two counsel in respect of both the first respondent and the second and
third respondents.
39 Ebrahim v S 1991 (2) SA 553 (A).
40 De Klerk v Minister of Police [2019] ZACC 32; 2021 (4) SA 585 (CC) paras 36 to 45.
_____________________________
M J D WALLIS
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
A Katz SC (with him D Cooke)
Instructed by:
Eisenberg & Associates, Cape Town;
Webbers Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For first respondent: A M Breitenbach SC (with him A G Christians)
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Cape Town and Bloemfontein.
For second and third respondents: F Petersen (with him M Mokhoaetsi)
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Cape Town and Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME
COURT OF APPEAL
FROM The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE 22 September 2021
STATUS Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment.
Kouwenhoven v Minister of Police and Others (888/2020) [2021] ZASCA 119
(22 September 2021) and Kouwenhoven v Director of Public Prosecutions,
Western Cape and Others (288/2021) [2021] ZASCA 120 (22 September
2021)
These two appeals arose out of Mr Kouwenhoven's endeavours to avoid
his extradition to the Netherlands. He is a Dutch citizen, at present
resident in Cape Town and a businessman who formerly had significant
business interests in Liberia. On 21 April 2017 he was convicted by the
Court of Appeal of ‘s-Hertogenbosch of repeatedly committing the
offence of complicity in war crimes, and repeatedly violating the Dutch
Sanctions Act, arising out of his involvement in the civil war in Liberia
that raged between 1997 and 2003 and led to the downfall of the then
President of Liberia, Charles Taylor. Mr Kouwenhoven was sentenced to
serve a term of imprisonment of 19 years and his conviction and sentence
have been upheld by the Supreme Court of the Netherlands.
On 8 December 2017, Mr Kouwenhoven was arrested pursuant to a
warrant of arrest issued, in terms of s 5(1)(b) of the Extradition Act 67 of
1962 (the Act), by a Pretoria magistrate. The first appeal arose from
review proceedings instituted by him to challenge the validity of his
arrest and his being brought before a magistrate in Cape Town to face an
extradition enquiry. The review failed in the high court and his appeal
was dismissed today.
The review challenged Mr Kouwenhoven's arrest on four grounds. He
contended that his attorney had concluded an agreement, or obtained an
undertaking, from a police officer stationed at the Interpol desk in
Pretoria that Mr Kouwenhoven would not be arrested pursuant to an
application by the Netherlands for his provisional arrest under the
extradition treaty between that country and South Africa. He said a
similar agreement had been concluded, or undertaking given, by a senior
legal adviser in the Department of Justice and Constitutional
Development. The SCA held that no such agreement was concluded and
no undertaking was given. It also expressed strong reservations at the
proposition that either official was empowered to conclude such an
agreement or furnish such an undertaking.
The remaining grounds of review were that the police officer's affidavit
on which the arrest warrant was issued was not properly attested; that the
magistrate merely 'rubber stamped' the request for the issue of a warrant;
and that after issuing the warrant the magistrate failed to inform the
Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development of that fact as
required by s 8(2) of the Extradition Act. The SCA rejected each of these
arguments. In the result the appeal was dismissed.
After the review had been dismissed in the high court an extradition
enquiry was convened before a magistrate in Cape Town in terms of s 10
of the Extradition Act. At the end of that enquiry the magistrate
discharged Mr Kouwenhoven on the grounds that the criminal conduct of
which he had been found guilty had been committed in Liberia and not
the Netherlands. The Director of Public Prosecutions, Western Cape then
required the magistrate to state a case in terms of s 310(1) of the Criminal
Procedure Act 52 of 1977 and appealed to the Western Cape Division of
the High Court. This prompted Mr Kouwenhoven to launch review
proceedings alleging that an appeal under s 310 (1) was impermissible
after an extradition enquiry and that, in any event, the process followed in
preparing the stated case was flawed because he had not been given an
opportunity to participate in it.
The high court had dismissed the review and upheld the DPP's appeal.
The SCA today confirmed that decision. It held that, properly understood,
an extradition enquiry is a criminal proceeding for the purposes of
s 310(1) of the Criminal Procedure Act. It serves the purpose of enabling
errors of law by the magistrate, leading to the discharge of the person
whose extradition is requested, to be corrected. The process for
formulating a stated case is set out in the rules and does not require the
input of the person whose extradition is requested.
On the legal issue the court held that the relevant provisions of the
Extradition Act dealing with extradition require that the crime for which
the person is to be, or has been, charged, is one within lawful jurisdiction
of the requesting state's courts. It is not confined to the territorial
jurisdiction of those courts. Accordingly Mr Kouwenhoven could be
extradited to the Netherlands to serve his sentence. |
1277 | non-electoral | 2008 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case Number : 626 / 2007
No precedential significance
MARIA DE LOURDES ABRANTIS DE SOUSA
Appellant
and
THE STATE
Respondent
Neutral citation:
De Sousa v The State
(626 / 2007) [2008] ZASCA 93 (12 September 2008)
Coram :
BRAND, PONNAN and JJA and LEACH AJA
Heard:
2 September 2008
Delivered:
12 September 2008
Summary:
Fraud – sentence – approach to on appeal - striking disparity between sentence imposed
and that which the appellate court would have imposed – sentence reduced from seven-
and-a-half to four years’ imprisonment.
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: The Johannesburg High Court, (Horn J and Mlonzi AJ sitting as a court of appeal)
The appeal succeeds.
The sentence is set aside and there is substituted for it a sentence of four years’
imprisonment.
___________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
___________________________________________________________________
PONNAN JA (BRAND JA and LEACH AJA concurring):
[1] The appellant was convicted, pursuant to her plea of guilty, by the Regional
Court (Johannesburg) of 13 counts of fraud involving a total amount of R1 000 228,94.
All counts having been taken as one for the purposes of sentence, the appellant was
sentenced to a term of imprisonment for a period of 7½ years. An appeal to the
Johannesburg High Court (per Horn J, Mlonzi AJ concurring) having proved
unsuccessful the further appeal is with the leave of this court.
[2] The facts and circumstances relating to the conviction can be gleaned from the
appellant’s written plea explanation in terms of s 112 of the Criminal Code:
‘2
In pleading guilty to the said charges I admit:
2.1
that I misrepresented to Maslex and or their employers that
2.1.1 goods were bought by Maslex from MDS Marketing and or M de Sousa and or MDS
Marketing trading as M de Sousa on the dates as per column 1 of the schedule attached
to the charge sheet for the amounts as per schedule 2 of the said schedule.
2.2
that by means of the said misrepresentations Maslex and or their employers were
induced to their prejudice or potential prejudice to:
2.2.1 accept the said misrepresentations as being the truth and or
2.2.2 pay the amounts as per column 2 of the schedule to MDS Marketing and or M de Sousa
or MDS Marketing trading as M de Sousa.
2.3
that when I made the said misrepresentations as aforesaid I knew that the goods were
not bought by Maslex from MDS Marketing and or M de Sousa and or MDS Marketing
trading as M de Sousa for the amounts as per column 2 of the schedule and that the
amounts were not payable as aforesaid.
The circumstances under which I committed these crimes were as follows:
3.1
During 1999 I met my co-accused Mr Dos Santos, who at the time was an executive
director of Maslex.
3.2
We engaged in a lover’s relationship.
3.3
I was confronted by Mr Dos Santos and asked whether or not my bank account could be
utilised in order to get cheques from Maslex cleared and thereafter the monies would be
transferred to his personal account.
3.4
At the time I was sceptical of this arrangement but I was informed by Mr Dos Santos,
that I had to explain that I in fact sell water should I ever be asked about the money that
had been deposited into my account.
3.5
I was at all times aware of the fact that Mr Dos Santos neither myself nor MDS
Marketing bought any goods from Maslex and that no monies were payable to myself,
Mr Dos Santos or MDS Marketing.
3.6
I then agreed to utilise my bank account for the clearance and transfers of the monies
as set out above.
3.7
I then actually paid the cheques on the dates as set out in column 2 of the schedule into
my bank account after the said cheques were handed to me by Mr Dos Santos.
3.8
The cheques were cleared on the same day whereafter I transferred the monies into the
bank account of Mr Dos Santos.
3.9
From the monies that I transferred to the account of Mr Dos Santos I received an
amount of R90 000,00 for my participation in this scheme.
3.10
I utilised the said monies in order to pay my debt and debt incurred by Mr Dos Santos.
These facts will be more clearly set out to the court during sentence procedures.
I further admit that when I acted as aforesaid I knew that no monies were due to myself
or MDS Marketing that my actions were wrong and that I was not entitled to deposit the
cheques or to transfer the money as aforesaid.’
[3] It is common cause that Act 105 of 1997 – the so-called minimum sentencing
legislation, finds application and that the matter falls within the purview of Part 2 of
Schedule 2 of the Act. In terms of s 51(2)(a)(i), the legislature has ordained 15 years’
imprisonment for a first offender found guilty of an offence of this kind, unless
substantial and compelling circumstances in terms of s 51(3)(a) which would justify the
imposition of a lesser sentence are found to exist . The trial court did indeed find such
circumstances to be present. It thus departed from the statutorily prescribed minimum
sentence.
[4] The approach of a sentencing tribunal to the imposition of the minimum
sentences prescribed by the Act is to be found in the detailed judgment of Marais JA in
S v Malgas 2001 (1) SACR 469 (SCA). The main principles appearing in that judgment
which are of particular application to the present appeal are: first, the court has a duty to
consider all the circumstances of the case, including the many factors traditionally taken
into account by courts when sentencing offenders; second, for circumstances to qualify
as substantial and compelling, they do not have to be exceptional in the sense of
seldom encountered or rare; third, although the prescribed sentences required a severe,
standardised and consistent response from the courts unless there were, and could be
seen to be, truly convincing reasons for a different response, the statutory framework
nonetheless left the courts free to continue to exercise a substantial measure of judicial
discretion in imposing sentence. (See also S v Fatyi 2001 (1) SACR 485 (SCA) para 5;
S v Abrahams 2002 (1) SACR 116 (SCA) para 13.)
[5] The circumstances entitling a court of appeal to interfere in a sentence imposed
by a trial court were recapitulated in Malgas (para 12), where Marais JA held:
‘A court exercising appellate jurisdiction cannot, in the absence of material misdirection by the
trial court, approach the question of sentence as if it were the trial court and then substitute the
sentence arrived at by it simply because it prefers it. To do so would be to usurp the sentencing
discretion of the trial court. . . . However, even in the absence of material misdirection, an
appellate court may yet be justified in interfering with the sentence imposed by the trial court. It
may do so when the disparity between the sentence of the trial court and the sentence which
the appellate Court would have imposed had it been the trial court is so marked that it can
properly be described as “shocking”, “startling” or “disturbingly inappropriate”.’
[6] It has not been suggested that the sentence was vitiated by any misdirection.
The argument advanced on behalf of the appellant is that the degree of disparity
between the sentence imposed and that which this court would have imposed is such
that interference is competent and required. As Marais JA put it in S v Sadler 2000 (1)
SACR 331 (SCA) para 8,
‘The traditional formulation of the approach to appeals against sentence on the ground of
excessive severity or excessive lenience where there has been no misdirection on the part of
the court which imposed the sentence is easy enough to state. It is less easy to apply. Account
must be taken of the admonition that the imposition of sentence is the prerogative of the trial
court and that the exercise of its discretion in that regard is not to be interfered with merely
because an appellate Court would have imposed a heavier or lighter sentence. At the same
time it has to be recognised that the admonition cannot be taken too literally and requires
substantial qualification. If it were taken too literally, it would deprive an appeal against sentence
of much of the social utility it is intended to have. So it is said that where there exists a “striking”
or “startling” or “disturbing” disparity between the trial court’s sentence and that which the
appellate Court would have imposed, interference is justified. In such situations the trial court’s
discretion is regarded (fictionally, some might cynically say) as having been unreasonably
exercised.’
[7] It is so that the appellant has shown genuine remorse and contrition in: first, co-
operating with the investigating officer from the time of her arrest; second, admitting her
role in the commission of the offences; third, deposing to a witness statement and
agreeing to testify against Mr Dos Santos; fourth, signing an acknowledgement of
indebtedness in favour of Maslex in the sum R90 000 being the extent of her benefit
from the fraudulent scheme and thereafter paying that debt in full; and, fifth, pleading
guilty to the charges.
[8] It must also count in her favour that her first foray into crime occurred at the
relatively advanced age of 32 years. And, when she did eventually venture into crime it
was at the instance of her boyfriend with whom she evidently was besotted. As she
explains in her evidence:
‘Can you maybe explain to the court why you committed this crime? What was the reason
therefore? --- I have never been proposed, and Rui proposed to me, and it was a husband that I
was going to get, and the life that I was going to have with him, that knowing that he was a
director of Maslex, I did not even see any problem with what he was asking me to do, and what I
was doing at the time.
Did you actually trust him? --- He was, he is a well travelled man. He, in my experience,
he used to speak, he used to have the ANC on a speed dial on his cell phone, and everything
just came, everything happened that he promised everything happened, so there was no reason
for me to doubt him at that time.’
[9] Mr Dos Santos obviously preyed on the appellant’s vulnerabilities. He proposed
to her, which she accepted and led her to believe that they would be getting married in
the near future. Shortly after she had become complicit in his fraudulent scheme,
however, he moved out of their shared apartment and became involved with another
woman. But, while she initially succumbed to his charms and acted under his influence
in becoming a party to the criminal venture, she persisted long after the relationship had
ended. On the appellant’s own version, their relationship lasted some four to five
months. For the first two of those, Mr Dos Santos was unemployed. The fraudulent
scheme commenced almost immediately after he had secured employment. All told the
offences were perpetrated over a period in excess of nine months – sufficient time it
seems for reflection and re-consideration, particularly when it was only for a third of that
time that she was intimately involved with Mr Dos Santos and would have been
susceptible to his influence.
[10] It is indeed so that the appellant utilised some of the money to assist her mother,
who was, according to the appellant, in financial difficulty and her sister (whose
husband was in rehabilitation) to pay school fees. She had as well to pay Mr Dos
Santos’ cell phone debt to the tune of R10 000. Much of the money however was spent
in a wasteful way on lavish items and not for needy purposes. It was not needed to
satisfy any of the necessities of life. On the other hand, to the appellant’s credit, she has
been in gainful employment since March 1993 as a production manageress at Ster
Kinekor. Not only were her employers aware of the fact that criminal charges had been
preferred against her, but they had loaned and advanced to her the sum of R50 000
which she utilised to pay bail, legal costs and the like. Her excellent work record and the
trust that her employers continued to repose in her, particularly after they had learnt of
her criminal transgression, must undoubtedly count in her favour.
[11] White collar crime has reached alarming proportions in this country. They are
serious crimes, whose corrosive impact upon society is all too obvious. The appellant
assisted her boyfriend, who occupied a position of the utmost trust in the complainant
company, to implement a plan that he had devised to defraud it. It does not emerge
whether all of the losses of the complainant have yet been made good. They are
substantial. Furthermore, the misconduct was premeditated and persistent. She
participated in the criminal venture not just to benefit herself but also to ingratiate herself
with Mr Dos Santos.
[12] There are however facts that distinguish this case from many other similar cases.
Although the complainant lost a very large sum of money, the appellant only benefited
to the tune of R90 000. In respect of that sum, once discovered, she immediately
undertook to repay the money, signed an acknowledgement of indebtedness and in fact
has since repaid the amount in full. From the outset, she co-operated fully with the
police. Thus, even before she came to be sentenced, she had furnished the
investigating officer with a statement detailing her involvement as well as the
involvement of Mr Dos Santos in the fraudulent scheme. The investigating officer who
testified on her behalf during the trial was very well disposed towards her. As was the
complainant. That she has shown genuine remorse for what she has done is abundantly
clear.
[13] The appellant has obviously had to suffer in many ways. Her embarrassment is
patent and she has had to live with a constant sense of guilt for subjecting those near
and dear to her to the trauma that her fall from grace has caused. In compensating the
complainant, the appellant divested herself of all of her ill-gotten gains. There is little
likelihood that the appellant will repeat the offence or that she in future will constitute a
risk to society. Moreover, she is obviously good human material and her prognosis for
rehabilitation appears excellent. Because of the gravity of the offences, the request that
she be kept out of jail cannot be acceded to. Plainly, a custodial sentence will be the
only appropriate sentence. Although one cannot but feel deeply for her, sympathy
cannot deter a court from imposing the kind of sentence dictated by justice and the
interests of society.
[14] It remains for me to substitute what I consider to be an appropriate penalty for
that imposed by the trial court. Taking all of the factors into consideration, in my view,
an appropriate sentence is imprisonment for a term of four years. In arriving at that
sentence I take account of the fact that she spent some two months in custody prior to
being released on bail pending her appeal. Plainly the difference between that sentence
and the 7½ years imposed by the trial court is sufficiently striking as to oblige
interference.
[15] In the result:
(a)
The appeal succeeds.
(b)
The sentence is set aside and there is substituted for it a sentence of four
years’ imprisonment.
_________________
V M PONNAN
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
COUNSEL FOR APPELLANT:
M VAN WYNGAARD
INSTRUCTED BY:
A S STEIJN
BENONI
CORRESPONDENT:
ROSENDORFF REITZ BARRY
BLOEMFONTEIN
COUNSEL FOR RESPONDENT:
S M MAAT (Ms)
INSTRUCTED BY:
NATIONAL DIRECTOR OF PUBLIC PROSECUTIONS
JOHANNESBURG
CORRESPONDENT:
NATIONAL DIRECTOR OF PUBLIC PROSECUTIONS
BLOEMFONTEIN | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
12 September 2008
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form
part of the judgment.
De Sousa v The State (626/2007) [2008] ZASCA 93 (12 September 2008)
Media Statement
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld an appeal by Maria de Sousa against a
sentence of seven and half years imposed on her by the Johannesburg Regional Court, which
had convicted her, pursuant to her plea of guilty, of 13 counts of fraud.
In her plea explanation she stated that she had been influenced by her boyfriend, who was an
executive director of the complainant company, to misrepresent to it that she was entitled to
certain payments in consequence of her having sold and delivered goods to it. No such goods
had in fact been sold and delivered by her to the complainant company. Cheques issued by
the company were then deposited into her bank account and after the proceeds had been
cleared, transferred into her boyfriend’s personal account. The total loss suffered by the
complainant was slightly in excess of one million Rand.
An appeal by her to the Johannesburg High Court proved unsuccessful. The SCA stated that
there are facts that distinguished this case from many other similar cases. According to the
SCA, although the complainant lost a very large sum of money, the appellant only benefited
to the tune of R90 000. In respect of that sum, once discovered, she immediately undertook to
repay the money, signed an acknowledgment of indebtedness and in fact has since repaid
that amount to the complainant in full. Even before she came to be sentenced, she had
furnished the investigating officer with a statement detailing her involvement as well the
involvement of her boyfriend in the fraudulent scheme. Furthermore, it was evident that the
investigating officer, who testified on her behalf during trial, was very well disposed towards
her. The same could also be said of the complainant. It was thus abundantly clear that she
has shown genuine remorse for what she has done.
Moreover, according to the SCA, there is little likelihood that the appellant will repeat the
offence or that she in future will constitute a risk to society. She is obviously good human
material and her prognosis for rehabilitation appears excellent. In those circumstances, the
sentence of seven and half years’ imprisonment was set aside and substituted in its stead
was a sentence of four years’ imprisonment.
--- ends --- |
1197 | non-electoral | 2008 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 32/07
REPORTABLE
In the matter between:
ALWYN CAROLUS
Appellant
and
THE STATE
Respondent
______________________________________________________________
BEFORE:
NAVSA, VAN HEERDEN JJA and MHLANTLA AJA
HEARD:
18 FEBRUARY 2008
DELIVERED:
20 MARCH 2008
SUMMARY: Indecent assault – appellant raising alibi defence – Held complainant had
positively identified the crime scene and the appellant as the perpetrator of the offence
and consequently that the appellant was guilty of indecent assault – sentence of 8 years’
imprisonment appropriate.
NEUTRAL CITATION:
This judgment may be referred to as Carolus v The State (32/07)
[2008] ZASCA 14 (20 MARCH 2008)
______________________________________________________________
MHLANTLA AJA
MHLANTLA AJA :
[1] The appellant was convicted by the Regional Court for the
Division of the Eastern Cape held in Port Elizabeth, on a charge of
indecent assault involving an eight year old boy. He was sentenced to a
period of eight years’ imprisonment. An appeal against both conviction
and sentence was dismissed by the Grahamstown High Court (Froneman
J, Schoeman J concurring) which, however, granted him leave to pursue
the current appeal.
[2] It is unchallenged that the complainant was indecently assaulted.
The issue in this appeal is whether the state succeeded in proving the
identity of the man who indecently assaulted him. Important in this
regard, is the question of whether the State correctly established the place
where the incident occurred. In respect of sentence the issue is whether
such sentence is excessive and induces a sense of shock.
[3] The incident is alleged to have occurred on 11 December 1997.
The trial only commenced some four years and three months later, in
March 2002. The appellant was convicted and sentenced on 28
September 2004. The appeal in the court below was finalised in February
2006, whilst this appeal was heard on 18 February 2008. I will in due
course deal with these delays in greater detail.
[4] It is prudent at this stage to briefly set out the facts and
circumstances which led to the conviction of the appellant.
[5] At his trial, the appellant pleaded not guilty and denied all the
allegations against him. Five witnesses testified on behalf of the state.
These were the complainant (hereinafter referred to as Azaar), his mother,
Mrs Imtinaan Daniels, Mr Flippie Kiewiets, who is a police officer and
Azaar’s neighbour, Inspector Jerome Botha, the arresting police officer,
and finally Dr Theron, a medical practitioner, who at the relevant time
performed the duties of a district surgeon. The appellant testified and
called a witness, his housemate, Mr Marvin Matthee.
[6] The evidence adduced on behalf of the state was as follows.
According to Azaar, the incident occurred between 14h00 and 15h00. He
was on his way to visit his aunt, after having been sent there by his
mother, when the appellant took hold of him and dragged him into the
appellant’s house. Azaar did not know the address of the house but
described it in some detail. He stated that the colour of the exterior walls
was green and the front door was brown. There was an intercom next to
the front door and there were two large trees in front of the house. The
previous owners had used the house as a tuck shop which he patronised
and had also often visited to play with the children who stayed there. The
backyard of that house is across the street and is clearly visible from the
front of Azaar’s home. Earlier that day, Azaar had seen the appellant on
the back stoep of that house consuming alcoholic beverages with his
friends. Azaar further stated that a church was subsequently built next to
that house and he drew a plan depicting the location of the appellant’s
house in relation to his own home.
[7] Azaar had been forced inside the appellant’s house, where the latter
pulled down his own trousers as well as Azaar’s. He thereafter indecently
assaulted Azaar by penetrating his anus with his penis whilst they were
on the sofa. Azaar subsequently managed to flee from the house through
an open window whilst the appellant was in another room.
[8] Azaar ran home. Mr Kiewiets testified that he saw Azaar running
down the street crying. Azaar was visibly distressed and immediately
made a brief report to his mother about his experience. He took his
mother and Mr Kiewiets to the house where the incident had occurred.
Mrs Daniels and Mr Kiewiets knocked on the door but no-one responded.
That night Azaar pointed out the house to Inspector Botha, the arresting
officer. He was thereafter taken to the hospital where he was examined
by Dr Theron. He noted some fresh tears in Azaar’s anus which
according to him were consistent with recent penetration. Dr Theron
testified that Azaar told him that he had been sodomised that afternoon by
a man known to him.
[9] The appellant was subsequently arrested at his house by Inspector
Botha shortly after midnight on 12 December 1997 upon the description
provided by Azaar. The description included not only the location of the
crime scene, but also the physical appearance and type of clothing worn
by the assailant. According to Inspector Botha, Azaar had informed him
that the assailant was balding, dark in complexion and had a ‘beard’ on
his upper lip, clearly meaning a moustache. Furthermore, that he wore a
green tracksuit pant and a white T-shirt. It must be noted that Inspector
Botha in his statement indicated that Azaar had reported to him that the
appellant wore a grey top. Azaar denied this. Inspector Botha arranged
that Azaar be brought to the police station to identify the suspect. Azaar
spontaneously identified the appellant as his assailant by his facial
features and clothing before Inspector Botha could ask him.
[10] I turn to deal with the evidence adduced on behalf of the appellant.
The appellant denied committing the offence. He raised an alibi defence.
According to him, he and his wife were at the time estranged and she was
living at her parental home in Selsoniville. On the day in question he left
his house at about 13h00 to fetch his family. On his way there he met Mr
Marvin Matthee (Marvin) who, as stated earlier, was his housemate and
who is related to his wife. He drank some beers with Marvin and
someone called Shobaine whilst waiting for his wife. He eventually met
his wife who, however, declined to go with him because it was too cold
for the baby. He was on his way to his mother’s house when he met
someone called Boetie at the taxi rank. He shared a bottle of beer with
Boetie whilst waiting for a taxi. He spent some time with his mother. He
also visited a friend’s home where he watched soccer on TV. He returned
home very late that night and was arrested upon his arrival. He was
adamant that Azaar was mistaken about his identity. He suggested that
someone he knew as Raymond, who resided in the same street as he and
who also fitted the description given by Azaar could be the perpetrator.
[11] Marvin’s testimony more or less mirrored the appellant’s version.
It was clear when he was testifying that, at the relevant time, he was not
in possession of a watch and his references to time were all estimates.
He, however denied any involvement in the earlier drinking incident at
the appellant’s house during the morning of 11 December. He returned to
the appellant’s house at about 20h00 and there found the police who
interrogated him. He realised that the police were in fact looking for the
appellant.
[12] Marvin did not go to the police at any time after he learnt of the
reason for the appellant’s arrest to inform them that the appellant could
not have committed the offence, because at the relevant time they had
been elsewhere in each other’s presence.
[13] The regional magistrate found Azaar, who was a single witness in
respect of the events that occurred inside the house, an honest and
credible witness. She was cautious in evaluating his evidence and sought
corroboration elsewhere. She found that the contradictions and
discrepancies between the state witnesses were not material in nature and
did not detract from the veracity of Azaar’s evidence. She rejected the
appellant’s version as not reasonably possibly true. The court below
accepted the magistrate’s findings as correct and accordingly confirmed
the conviction.
[14] Counsel for the appellant contended that the state had failed to
prove that the appellant was indeed the perpetrator. It was further argued
that the court below erred in accepting the identification of the appellant
by Azaar who contradicted himself. Counsel also contended that the
identification contained various other irregularities.
[15] Section 208 of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 provides
that an accused may be convicted of any offence on the single evidence
of any competent witness. There is no formula to apply when it comes to
the consideration of the credibility of a single witness. The trial court
should weigh the evidence of the single witness and consider its merits
and demerits and, having done so, should decide whether it is satisfied
that the truth has been told despite the shortcomings or defects or
contradictions in the evidence.1
1 S v Sauls 1981 (3) SA 172 (A) at 180E-G. See also Schwikkard and Van Der Merwe: Principles of
evidence 2ed (2000) p 519 and authorities cited therein.
[16] Azaar is also a child. In Director of Public Prosecutions v S,2
the court came to the conclusion that:
‘It does not follow that a court should not apply the cautionary rules at all or seek
corroboration of a complainant’s evidence. In certain cases caution, in the form of
corroboration, may not be necessary. In others a court may be unable to rely solely
upon the evidence of a single witness. This is so whether the witness is an adult or a
child.’
[17] It will be recalled that identity is the primary issue in this case.
Our courts have repeatedly stated that evidence of identification must be
approached by the courts with caution. In S v Mthetwa,3 the court said:
“Because of the fallibility of human observation, evidence of identification is
approached by the courts with some caution. It is not enough for the identifying
witness to be honest: the reliability of his observation must also be tested.”
[18] There can of course be no conviction unless the court is satisfied
that the prosecution has proved the guilt of the accused beyond
reasonable doubt.
[19] Turning to the facts of this case, it is common cause that Azaar’s
identification of the appellant in the police station occurred after he had
been informed of the appellant’s arrest. Counsel for the state conceded,
in my view properly, that not much weight can be attached to this
identification. It took place under strange circumstances, where the rules
relating to the conduct of an identification parade were certainly not
2 2000 (2) SA 711 (T) at 716 B-D.See also Schwikkard pp 518 and 519: “Each case must be considered
on its merits and this might involve a finding on whether the evidence of the child witness concerned is
such that it can for purposes of a conviction safely be relied upon.”
3 1972 (3) SA 766 (A) at 768
adhered to. The entire process took place in a police cell after Azaar had
been informed about the arrest of the appellant.
[20] In my view, the investigation of this case was conducted in a
slovenly manner. There are clearly defined rules on how to conduct
identification parades. The investigating officer disregarded these rules.
It is imperative that the police should strive to fulfil their duties with
competence, diligence and efficiency. Failure to do so may affect the
rights of the accused as well as the administration of justice.
[21] That, however, was not the primary issue. The crucial elements
were, in my view, whether Azaar pointed out the scene of the crime and
the perpetrator.
[22] Counsel for the appellant submitted that Azaar was confused and
that no reliance can be placed on his testimony. This submission cannot,
in my view, prevail. It is evident that, despite being traumatised, Azaar
was not confused about the location of the house which he pointed out to
his mother and to the police, nor was he equivocal about the identity of
the perpetrator. His description of the house cannot be faulted as it, in
fact, fits in with the accused’s version. Azaar even described the type of
furniture which was in the lounge where the crime was committed. Mr
Kiewiets and Mrs Daniels confirmed the description of the house as
pointed out to them by Azaar immediately after the incident. This
description was confirmed as correct by the appellant who also conceded
that the house on the sketch plan drawn by Azaar and exhibited in court
was his house. Azaar, it will be recalled, had visited that house repeatedly
in the past.
[23] In so far as the identity of the perpetrator is concerned, there can be
no doubt that the description of the appellant and of his clothing must
have been given by Azaar prior to the appellant’s arrest as he otherwise
could not have been a suspect. Furthermore, how would Mrs Daniels, Mr
Kiewiets and the police have known about his identity. It is common
cause that Marvin had earlier encountered the police at the appellant’s
house, which was locked. The police asked him if he lived there and he
replied in the affirmative. They could have arrested Marvin if they had no
description of the actual perpetrator. It is quite evident that Marvin did
not fit that description. Even Marvin testified that he realised that the
police were looking for the appellant when they met him.
[24] Azaar’s description of the perpetrator fits in with the appellant’s
appearance. He is balding, dark in complexion and has a moustache,
although Azaar referred to it as a “beard”. He wore a green tracksuit pant
and a white T-shirt. It is common cause that the white T-shirt was
underneath a grey top when the appellant was arrested.
[25] In my view it would be a remarkable co-incidence if Azaar was
mistaken about the identity of the appellant. The latter himself testified
that he was the only person who was in possession of the keys to the
house. Marvin was unable to enter the house because it had been locked
and the appellant was the only person who controlled entry into the
house.
[26] Counsel for the appellant argued that the fact that Azaar did not
notice the appellant’s skin condition ─ the appellant suffered from
psoriasis ─ was indicative of the fact that the appellant could not have
been the perpetrator.
[27] This argument, in my view, is without merit and is rejected.
Firstly, the doctor’s medical report which was submitted on behalf of the
appellant was made several years after the incident. The extent of this
condition in December 1997 was not established. Second Marvin
testified that the appellant only periodically suffered from this sickness.
Be that as it may, it must be borne in mind that this was a fleeting
incident. The perpetrator was wearing his shirt and had his trousers up to
his knees. Azaar was traumatised. He was himself busy dressing and
also seeking an opportunity to escape from that house. In my view the
conditions were not conducive to minutely observe the appellant’s body.
[28] The alibi defence on behalf of the appellant was not satisfactory.
Marvin was not convincing and was selective in his recall of events. The
appellant’s version appears to have been retold by Marvin, whose
estimate of times was clearly expedient.
[29] More importantly the alibi defence was never put to Azaar or to his
mother by the appellant’s legal representative. Significantly, none of the
other witnesses refered to in para [10] above presented themselves to the
police to protest the appellant’s innocence as one would have expected
them to, nor did they testify in court.
[30] It is equally strange that the existence of Raymond was never
brought to the attention of the police. The appellant apparently heard
about Raymond’s existence shortly after his release on bail on 24
December 1997; yet the police were never told about this. Neither,
apparently, was the appellant’s legal representative informed of
Raymond’s existence which came up for the first time when the appellant
testified. The similarity between the appellant and Raymond was never
put to Azaar or any other state witness for comment. In my view the
appellant would certainly have conveyed this crucial information to the
police if Raymond really existed.
[31] I am satisfied that the magistrate, as found by the court below, had
properly assessed the evidence. She correctly found that the
contradictions referred to were not material and did not render the
veracity of the state’s version suspect. She was well aware of the dangers
inherent in the evidence of Azaar as well as the need to exercise caution.
She looked for safeguards as guarantees against mistaken identification
and properly assessed all the evidence placed before her. Accordingly the
appeal against conviction must fail.
[32] There are disturbing features of this case that we are constrained to
address. In addition to the flagrant disregard of the rules relating to the
identification of suspects, no crime kits were available at the hospital to
enable Dr Theron to take a sample for DNA analysis. It is imperative in
sexual assault cases, especially those involving children, that DNA tests
be conducted. Such tests cannot be performed if crime kits are not
provided. The failure to provide such kits will no doubt impact negatively
on our criminal justice system. Fortunately in this matter such negative
outcome has been avoided by the brave and satisfactory evidence of
Azaar as corroborated by other witnesses.
[33] The most disconcerting aspect relates to the delays in the
commencement and finalisation of this matter indicated above. Counsel
for the state was unable to furnish any explanation. She invited comment
by the court in this regard to ensure that law enforcement agencies and
persons involved in the administration of justice act appropriately. As I
have indicated earlier, the trial commenced some four years and three
months after the commission of the offence. Azaar was by then 13 years
old and was called upon to recall events that had occurred in 1997.
Further it has taken more than ten years to finalise this case. Fortunately
the appellant has been out on bail save for a period of three months after
his conviction. This case has, however, been hanging over his head for a
very long period.
[34] There is no ostensible reason for the delays. In certain instances the
matter was postponed at the request of the state or the defence. Be that as
it may, this state of affairs is unacceptable and is cause for grave concern.
In my view an investigation must be conducted by the relevant authorities
to establish the root cause of these delays and to determine how a
situation of this nature can be avoided in future. It is hoped that these
shortcomings will receive their prompt and proper attention. To that end
we intend directing the Registrar of this court to serve a copy of this
judgment on the Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development, the
Minister of Police and also on the National Director of Public
Prosecutions for their attention.
[35] I turn now to consider the appeal against sentence. Counsel for the
appellant submitted that the magistrate had failed to take into account all
mitigating circumstances and in the result imposed a sentence that was
excessive. In this regard counsel submitted that the appellant is a first
offender, a school teacher and sole provider for his family; that he has
already been punished as he was dismissed as a result of the conviction;
that he has suffered a considerable amount of stress during the trial as a
result of the delays caused in finalising the matter and, lastly, that Azaar
has not suffered any permanent psychological injuries and has been able
to continue with his studies.
[36] I do not agree with these submissions. The offence of indecent
assault is very serious and in this case the complainant was a young boy
of eight years of age. Assaults of this nature are now defined as rape in
terms of s 3 of the Criminal Law (Sexual Offences and Related Matters)
Amendment Act 32 of 2007. The prescribed sentence in respect of a rape
involving a child under the age of 16 years is set out in s 51 of the
Criminal Law Amendment Act 105 of 1997. The appellant can count
himself fortunate that the provisions of Act 32 of 2007 do not apply in his
case since the offence was committed in 1997. Assaults of the kind
perpetrated against Azaar are the most invasive of assaults. This was a
degrading, humiliating and traumatic experience for Azaar. In my view,
the fact that the appellant is a father and a school teacher can be regarded
as an aggravating factor. The community expects people like the
appellant to protect the children.
[37] The appellant is not the only person to have been affected by these
delays. Azaar and his family also had to wait for a period of more than
ten years for the final outcome of this case. The court recognises that the
trial should have been conducted in an expeditious manner. Counsel for
the appellant referred us to the decision of S v Stephen 1994 (2) SACR
163 (W) where the accused had been in custody for six months awaiting
trial and the court held that a period of imprisonment whilst awaiting trial
was the equivalent of a sentence of twice the length. In my view the facts
of that case can be distinguished from the facts in this appeal because the
appellant has been out on bail pending the finalisation of the matter
throughout these delays, save for a period of three months after his
conviction.
[38] In my view, the magistrate took all the relevant factors into account
when considering sentence. The sentence imposed is commensurate with
the seriousness of the crime, the circumstances of the appellant, as well as
the interests of society. In the result there is no basis for this court to
interfere. It follows therefore that the appeal against sentence also fails.
[39] The Registrar of this court is directed to serve copies of this
judgment on the Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development, the
Minister of Police and on the National Director of Public Prosecutions.
[40] In the result the following order is made:
(a)
The appeal against conviction and sentence is dismissed.
_______________________
N Z MHLANTLA
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
CONCUR:
)
NAVSA JA
)
VAN HEERDEN JA | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
ALWYN CAROLUS v THE STATE
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
20 March 2008
Status: Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not form part
of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
The Supreme Court of appeal today dismissed an appeal by Mr Alwyn Carolus (the appellant) against his
conviction on a charge of indecent assault and sentence of eight years’ imprisonment in the Regional Court,
Port Elizabeth, confirmed on appeal by the Grahamstown High Court (Froneman J, Schoeman J concurring).
This court found that the magistrate had properly assessed all the evidence placed before her and correctly
rejected the appellant’s alibi defence. This court held that the complainant, who had been indecently
assaulted on 12 December 1997, had positively identified the crime scene and also the appellant as the
perpetrator of the offence. The court further held that the assault perpetrated against the complainant has
been the most intrusive in nature and that the sentence imposed was appropriate.
The appeal against conviction and sentence was accordingly dismissed.
The court voiced its disapproval about the absence of the crime kit at the hospital which resulted in a DNA
test not being performed and stated that this will bring the criminal justice system into disrepute. The court,
in particular, was concerned about the delays in respect of the trial, which commenced some four years and
three months after the commission of the offence and voiced its strong disapproval in this regard.
The Registrar of this court was directed to serve a copy of this judgment on the Minister of Justice and
Constitutional Development, the Minister of Police and on the National Director of Public Prosecutions. |
3164 | non-electoral | 2007 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
CASE NO 227/2006
In the matter between
NOMTHANDAZO CHAGI & OTHERS
Appellants
and
SINGISI FOREST PRODUCTS (PTY) LTD
Respondent
Coram:
Harms ADP, Lewis, Van Heerden, Jafta JJA
and Musi AJA
Heard:
9 MAY 2007
Delivered: 29 MAY 2007
Summary: Act 62 of 1997 – land – meaning thereof – s 9 applies only to
evictions from the registered piece of land as a whole.
Neutral citation: This judgment may be referred to as Chagi v Singisi
Forest Products [2007] SCA 63 (RSA)
___________________________________________________________
JAFTA JA
[1] The central issue in this matter is whether the employer’s
relocation of its workers from one set of houses to another on the same
piece of land constitutes an eviction as contemplated in the Extension of
Security of Tenure Act 62 of 1997. Claiming to be occupiers of land as
defined in the Act, the appellants instituted an application in the
magistrate’s court of Harding for an interdict, restraining the respondent
from relocating them from Kynoch Village to Weza Sawmill Village on
the same registered land unit in Singisi Forest, Harding without
complying with the requirements of the Act. They also sought an order
interdicting the respondent from deducting R648 per month from their
wages as rent for the houses they presently occupy. The magistrate
dismissed the application with costs. Their appeal to the Land Claims
Court was also dismissed with costs. This appeal comes before us with
leave granted by the court below.
[2] The facts are largely not in dispute. The appellants are employees
of the respondent which conducts business in the forestry and sawmilling
industry, on a piece of land described as Lot St Mary’s B No 5043ES
Singisi Forest, in the district of Harding, KwaZulu-Natal. The appellants
were previously employed by the South African Forestry Company
Limited (SAFCOL) which sold its business, as a going concern, to the
respondent in August 2001. As required by s 197 of the Labour Relations
Act 66 of 1995, the appellants’ employment contracts were transferred
from SAFCOL to the respondent simultaneously with the business. The
section provides for an automatic transfer of rights and obligations
between the seller and each employee to the purchaser, on the same terms
and conditions. In essence the purchaser replaces the seller as the
employer without the need to conclude new employment contracts
(National Education Health and Allied Workers Union v University of
Cape Town 2003 (3) SA 1 (CC)). However, the workers may decide to
terminate their employment or enter into new agreements with the
purchaser.
[3] In this matter the appellants accepted transfer of their employment
agreements by concluding new agreements incorporating the terms and
conditions which applied to their employment with SAFCOL. SAFCOL’s
conditions of employment provided, inter alia, that ‘[h]ousing on a
tenancy basis as approved by the Chief Executive shall be arranged where
necessary at the discretion of the Company’.
Consistently with this term the parties included the following clause in
their agreement:
‘6.3
Depending on your position, the Company may provide you with housing or
accommodation for which a reasonable market-related rental will be charged
(presently 2.5% of pensionable remuneration for married quarters and 1% of
pensionable remuneration for single quarters). This rental may be reviewed from time
to time. You will pay a fixed subsidised amount per electricity unit for electricity
usage, and this amount will be adjusted when necessary.’
[4] Before the respondent became the employer, SAFCOL had
separate accommodation for the salary earning and the wage earning
employees. The rent fixed at 2.5 per cent and 1 per cent of pensionable
wages applied to the married and single wage-earning employees such as
the appellants. However, at some point there were vacant houses at
Kynoch
Village
where
the
salary-earning
employees
were
accommodated. Fearing that they would be vandalised, SAFCOL
permitted the appellants to occupy them at the rental rate applicable to
wage-earning employees. This was a temporary arrangement between the
employer and the employees. But the arrangement continued even after
the takeover of the business by the respondent. Upon becoming the
employer, the respondent excused all wage-earning employees from
paying rent.
[5] The salary-earning employees were required to pay a market-
related rent which amounted to R648 per month as at the time the present
dispute arose, whereas the appellants were paying nothing for the same
accommodation. This caused discontent among the salary-earning
employees. The other wage-earning employees were also dissatisfied
with the fact that the appellants continued to enjoy accommodation to
which they had no access. In order to resolve the conflict the respondent
asked the appellants to vacate the houses they are occupying and take
occupation of houses earmarked for wage-earning employees at Weza
Sawmill Village, situated on the same piece of land. The appellants
declined to vacate. As an alternative solution, the respondent proposed
that the appellants pay rent in the sum of R648 like the other employees
occupying the same type of houses. Once again the appellants refused.
Instead they proposed to pay rent fixed at R140 per month.
[6] When their counter-offer was rejected and the amounts of R648
were deducted from their wages, as already mentioned, they instituted an
application in the magistrate’s court for an interdict restraining the
respondent from deducting the sum of R648 from their wages, and
relocating them to the new houses. The respondent opposed this and
brought a counter-application for an order declaring that the proposed
relocation did not constitute an eviction as envisaged in the Act. It argued
that the Act does not apply to the case. As stated above, the magistrate
dismissed their application and granted a declarator in favour of the
respondent. Since the respondent had given an undertaking to the effect
that deductions would no longer be made from their wages, the magistrate
apparently saw it unnecessary to deal with that part of the case. The
approach by the magistrate was, in my view, correct because the need for
an interdict had fallen away.
[7] In refusing to vacate the appellants do not claim any legal
entitlement justifying their continued occupation of the houses in
question. Indeed their contracts of employment do not entitle them to
occupy those particular houses. Their occupation was based on the
consent given by SAFCOL which the parties on both sides understood to
be a temporary arrangement. The respondent, as SAFCOL’s successor,
was entitled to withdraw such consent and the appellants do not argue
otherwise. But they contend that since their occupation was based on the
owner’s consent, the source of their right to reside on the land is s 6 of the
Act and this right can only be terminated and their eviction authorised in
terms of the relevant sections of the Act. Accordingly, so they argue, the
respondent can only evict them upon compliance with the requirements of
s 9 of the Act. This argument is based on the assumption that the
respondent’s demand for them to vacate constitutes an eviction as
contemplated in the Act.
[8] The procedural safeguards provided for in s 9 are available only to
occupiers who are evicted from land occupied with consent of the owner
or a person in charge or with another right in law to reside on the land. In
other words the Act protects lawful occupiers of land belonging to
another person. But before s 9 can be invoked there must be a termination
of the right of residence as envisaged in s 8 of the Act. Although the
appellants have not shown that such termination has taken place in this
matter, I shall assume in their favour that the respondent’s withdrawal of
the consent constitutes the requisite termination.
[9] The question that arises for consideration is whether the proposed
relocation amounts to an eviction as contemplated in the Act. The answer
to this question lies in the true meaning of the word ‘land’ as used in the
definition of ‘evict’. In terms of s 1 of the Act, ‘“evict” means to deprive
a person against his or her will of residence on land or the use of land or
the use of water which is linked to a right of residence in terms of this
Act, and “eviction” has a corresponding meaning’. The definition makes
it clear that the object of the right of residence is land and not a dwelling
house.
[10] Section 6 in turn confers upon occupiers such as the present
appellants the right to reside on land that belongs to another person. It
provides:
‘(1)
Subject to the provisions of this Act, an occupier shall have the right to
reside on and use the land on which he or she resided and which he or she used on or
after 4 February 1997, and to have access to such services as had been agreed upon
with the owner or person in charge, whether expressly or tacitly.
(2)
Without prejudice to the generality of the provisions of section 5 and
subsection (1), and balanced with the rights of the owner or person in charge, an
occupier shall have the right–
(a)
to security of tenure;
(b)
to receive bona fide visitors at reasonable times and for reasonable periods:
Provided that–
(i)
the owner or person in charge may impose reasonable conditions that
are normally applicable to visitors entering such land in order to
safeguard life or property or to prevent the undue disruption of work
on the land; and
(ii)
the occupier shall be liable for any act, omission or conduct of any of
his or her visitors causing damage to others while such a visitor is on
the land if the occupier, by taking reasonable steps, could have
prevented such damage;
(c)
to receive postal or other communication;
(d)
to family life in accordance with the culture of that family: Provided that this
right shall not apply in respect of single sex accommodation provided in
hostels erected before 4 February 1997;
(dA)
to bury a deceased member of his or her family who, at the time of that
person’s death, was residing on the land on which the occupier is residing, in
accordance with their religion or cultural belief, if an established practice in
respect of the land exists;
(e)
not to be denied or deprived of access to water; and
(f)
not to be denied or deprived of access to educational or health services.
(3)
An occupier may not-
(a)
intentionally and unlawfully harm any other person occupying the land;
(b)
intentionally and unlawfully cause material damage to the property of the
owner or person in charge;
(c)
engage in conduct which threatens or intimidates others who lawfully occupy
the land or other land in the vicinity; or
(d)
enable or assist unauthorised persons to establish new dwellings on the land in
question.
(4)
Any person shall have the right to visit and maintain his or her family graves
on land which belongs to another person, subject to any reasonable condition imposed
by the owner or person in charge of such land in order to safeguard life or property or
to prevent the undue disruption of work on the land.
(5)
The family members of an occupier contemplated in section 8(4) of this Act
shall on his or her death have a right to bury that occupier on the land on which he or
she was residing at the time of his or her death, in accordance with their religion or
cultural belief, subject to any reasonable conditions which are not more onerous than
those prescribed and that may be imposed by the owner or person in charge.’
[11] Section 9 restricts the landowner’s authority to evict persons who
occupy its land in terms of s 6. It provides that such occupiers can only be
evicted in terms of an order issued under the Act by a court of law. But
what does ‘land’ mean in the present context? I now turn to this question.
[12] The appellants’ counsel argued that ‘land’, as contemplated in the
definition of eviction and also in s 6(1), refers to the particular piece of
land on which the house occupied by the occupier has been erected and
not the entire registered piece of land. The difficulty with this particular
construction is that it is incompatible with the exercise of other rights
conferred on the occupier by s 6. On this interpretation, for example, the
occupier would be required to bury a deceased member of his or her
family on the particular piece of land on which the dwelling house is
situated. Faced with this problem, the appellants’ counsel argued that in
subsection (1) the word ‘land’ was used in a context different to the other
subsections. He submitted that in the other subsections it refers to the
entire registered land unit whereas, in subsection (1), it refers to a
particular piece of land within the registered unit.
[13] It is trite that a word repeatedly used in a statute must generally
carry the same meaning throughout the statute unless it is clear from its
language that such word is used in different contexts, warranting that
different meanings be attached to it. In the latter event, a different
meaning which is consistent with the context would be given to the word.
But before such meaning can be attributed to it, it must be clear from the
language that the lawmaker had intended a different meaning, especially
where the same word is repeated in one section. In Minister of Interior v
Machadodorp Investments 1957 (2) SA 395 (A) Steyn JA said (at 404D-
E):
‘Where the Legislature uses the same word, in this case the word “race”, in the same
enactment, it may reasonably be supposed that out of a proper concern for the
intelligibility of its language, it would intend the word to be understood, where no
clear indication is given, in the same sense throughout the enactment. This applies
with greater force when the same word is repeated in the same sentence.’
[14] The appellants’ counsel argued that in this matter two factors
indicate that the lawmaker intended ‘land’ to have different meanings.
The first is the reference to ‘homes’ in the preamble to the Act, the
relevant part of which reads: ‘WHEREAS many South Africans do not
have secure tenure of their homes and the land which they use and are
therefore vulnerable to unfair eviction’. Secondly, he submitted that, if
land is taken to mean the registered unit, the right of occupiers who are
relocated from one building to another on the same unit, would not be
protected. This, he argued, could not have been intended by the
lawmaker.
[15] I do not agree that these factors manifestly show the intention
contended for by the appellants. If the lawmaker had intended to protect
occupiers from being forced to vacate their homes, it could have easily
said so as it in fact did in the Prevention of Illegal Eviction from and
Unlawful Occupation of Land Act 19 of 1998. This latter Act forms part
of the cluster of statutes to which the present Act belongs. In that statute
the definition of ‘evict’ includes the forced deprivation of occupation of a
building or structure, or the land on which such building or structure is
situated.
[16] Returning to the language of s 6, it must be read in its entirety in
order to determine whether or not the word ‘land’ was used in different
contexts in different subsections thereof. A careful reading of the section
reveals that the word was used in one context only. So, for example,
while subsection (1) confers on the occupier the right to reside on land,
subsection (2) gives him or her, in subparagraph (b)(i), the right to
receive visitors onto the same land provided they comply with reasonable
conditions ‘normally applicable to visitors entering such land in order to
safeguard life or property or to prevent the undue disruption of work on
the land’. That the two subsections refer to the same piece of land as a
unit is, in my view, indisputable. The same applies to the other rights in
respect of ‘land’ conferred on the occupier by the remaining paragraphs
of subsection 6(2).
[17] Section 6 must be restrictively interpreted because it encroaches
upon the landowner’s right of ownership. Statutes such as the present
must be construed, if possible, in a manner that least interferes with
existing rights. The interference must be limited to the extent necessary
and no further. In Dadoo Ltd v Krugersdorp Municipality 1920 AD 530
Innes CJ said (at 552):
‘It is a wholesome rule of our law which requires a strict construction to be placed
upon statutory provisions which interfere with elementary rights. And it should be
applied not only in interpreting a doubtful phrase, but in ascertaining the intent of the
law as a whole.’
[18] Furthermore, s 6 places a limitation on the landowner’s right of
ownership. This right is guaranteed by s 25 of the Constitution and as a
result such limitation is permissible only to the extent that it is
‘reasonable and justifiable in an open and democratic society based on
human dignity, equality and freedom’. In construing the present Act, we
are of course obliged to promote the spirit, purport and the objects of the
Bill of Rights of which s 25 forms an integral part (s 39(2) of the
Constitution). In Investigating Directorate: Serious Offences v Hyundai
Motor Distributors (Pty) Ltd : In re Hyundai Motor Distributors (Pty) Ltd
v Smit NO 2001 (1) SA 545 (CC), the Constitutional Court described the
interpretive role of s 39(2) in the following terms (para 21):
‘This means that all statutes must be interpreted through the prism of the Bill of
Rights. All law-making authority must be exercised in accordance with the
Constitution. The Constitution is located in a history which involves a transition from
a society based on division, injustice and exclusion from the democratic process to
one which respects the dignity of all citizens, and includes all in the process of
governance. As such, the process of interpreting the Constitution must recognise the
context in which we find ourselves and the Constitution’s goal of a society based on
democratic values, social justice and fundamental human rights. This spirit of
transition and transformation characterises the constitutional enterprise as a whole.’
See also Bato Star Fishing (Pty) Ltd v Minister of Environmental Affairs
2004 (4) SA 490 (CC) in paras 88-92.
[19] Consistently with the protection of the right of ownership, the word
‘land’ as used in s 6 and in the definition of eviction means the registered
unit as a whole. This interpretation does not subtract anything from the
occupier’s right of residence on land as envisaged in s 6. In preferring this
particular interpretation, I am fortified by the decision of this court in
Dlamini v Joosten 2006 (3) SA 342 (SCA). There Cachalia AJA said (at
para 14):
‘The contention that the meaning of words in a statute may vary, depending on the
facts of a particular case, has no legal foundation. The word “land” is not defined in
the Act. But it is apparent that in the context within which it is used it can refer only
to land that is registered in the name of the owner. This is because the Act regulates
the relationship between occupiers of land and owners of the same land.’
The learned judge continued (at para 16):
‘The burial right in s 6(2)(dA) of the Act is an incidence of the right of residence
contained in s 6(1), which creates a real right in land. Such a right is in principle
registrable in a Deeds Registry because it constitutes a “burden on the land” by
reducing the owner’s right of ownership of the land and binds successors in title. The
burial right is in the nature of a personal servitude which the occupier has over the
property on which he possesses a real right of residence at death of a family member
who at the time of death was residing on the land. These rights are claimable against
the owners of registered land only. And the only objective determination of the extent
of the land which has been registered by an owner is by reference to its cadastral
description.’
[20] It follows that the court below erred in making the finding that
‘land’ as used in s 6(1) means the actual piece of land used by the
occupier and not the entire registered land unit. The proposed relocation
of the appellants to Weza Sawmill Village does not constitute an eviction
as contemplated in the Act and the respondent is not obliged to comply
with its requirements before effecting the relocation.
[21] In the result the appeal is dismissed with costs.
____________________
C N JAFTA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
CONCUR )
HARMS ADP
)
LEWIS JA
)
VAN HEERDEN JA
)
MUSI AJA | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
29 May 2007
Status:
Immediate
NOMTHANDAZO CHAGI & OTHERS v SINGISI FOREST
PRODUCTS
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the
media and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of
Appeal
Today, the Supreme Court of Appeal (the SCA) has delivered judgment
confirming the order issued by the Land Claims Court which dismissed
an appeal brought by the appellants against a judgment of the magistrate
at Harding, KwaZulu-Natal. The appellants had approached the
magistrate’s court for an interdict restraining the respondent, their
employer, from relocating them from one set of houses to another within
the same registered land unit.
They had claimed that the employer was bound to comply with the
requirements of s 9 of the Extension of Security of Tenure Act 62 of
1997, before it could relocate them. The section requires, inter alia, that
occupiers of land be given a two months’ notice to the effect that the
landowner would apply to court for an eviction order and that a report by
a probation officer be compiled, showing whether there was suitable
alternative accommodation available for the evicted occupiers.
The magistrate had ruled that since the appellants were being moved
within one piece of land, the provisions of s 9 did not apply to their case.
The SCA agreed that indeed the section does not apply and dismissed the
appeal. |
465 | non-electoral | 2016 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 20815/2014
In the matter between:
NOVA PROPERTY GROUP HOLDINGS LTD
FIRST APPELLANT
FRONTIER ASSET MANAGEMENT & INVESTMENTS
SECOND APPELLANT
CENTRO PROPERTY GROUP (PTY) LTD THIRD RESPONDENT
and
JULIUS PETER COBBETT FIRST RESPONDENT
MONEYWEB (PTY) LTD SECOND RESPONDENT
and
MANDG CENTRE FOR INVESTIGATIVE JOURNALISM NPC AMICUS CURIAE
Neutral citation:
Nova Property Group Holdings v Cobbett (20815/2014) [2016] ZASCA 63
(12 May 2016)
Coram:
Maya AP, Majiedt, Mbha JJA, Plasket and Kathree-Setiloane AJJA
Heard:
1 March 2016
Delivered:
12 May 2016
Summary:
Appealability – interlocutory application – appealable under s 17(1) of the
Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013.
Company law – interpretation of s 26(2) of the Companies Act 71 of 2008 – provides an
unqualified right of access to a company‟s securities register – person‟s motive for access not
relevant – right of access not subject to the provisions of the Promotion of Access to Information
Act 2 of 2000 (PAIA).
Rule 35 (14) – appellants failed to demonstrate that the documents sought are relevant to a
reasonably anticipated issue in the main application.
______________________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Tuchten J sitting as court
of first instance):
The appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.
______________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________________
Kathree-Setiloane AJA (Maya AP, Majiedt and Mbha JJA and Plasket AJA
concurring):
[1] This appeal arises from the attempts of Moneyweb (Pty) Ltd (Moneyweb) and Mr
JP Cobbett (Cobbett) to exercise their statutory right in terms of s 26 of the Companies
Act 71 of 2008 (the Companies Act) to access the securities registers of the appellants,
Nova Property Group Holdings Limited (Nova), Frontier Asset Management &
Investments (Pty) Limited (Frontier), and Centro Property Group (Pty) Limited (Centro).
The appellants will be referred to collectively as „the Companies‟.
[2] Cobbett is a financial journalist who specialises in the investigation of illegal
investment schemes. Moneyweb is a publisher of business, financial and investment
news. As part of its on-going investigation into, and coverage of Sharemax Group of
Companies‟ controversial property syndication investment scheme (Sharemax
syndication scheme), Moneyweb commissioned Cobbett to investigate the shareholding
structures of the Companies, which are purportedly linked (directly or indirectly) to the
Sharemax syndication scheme, and to write articles on his findings for publication by
Moneyweb.
[3] On 24 July 2013, Cobbett sent requests to the Companies for access to their
securities registers and to make copies thereof, in terms of s 26(2) of the Companies
Act. He delivered a request for access to information in the form required by the
Companies Regulations, 2011, for this purpose.1 Section 26(2) entitles a person who
does not hold a beneficial interest in any securities issued by a profit company, or who
is not a member of a non-profit company, to inspect or copy the securities register of a
profit company, or the members register of a non-profit company that has members, or
the register of directors of a company, upon payment of an amount not exceeding the
prescribed maximum fee for any such inspection. When Cobbett‟s requests were met
with refusals, Moneyweb launched an application, in the Gauteng Division of the High
Court, Pretoria (the court a quo), to compel the Companies to provide access to it for
inspection and making copies of the securities registers within five days of the date of
the order (the main application).
[4] Almost two years after the requests were made, Moneyweb has still been unable
to access the securities registers. Nor is it even close to doing so, as the Companies
have not filed an answering affidavit to the main application. Instead, the Companies
issued notices, in terms of rule 35(12) and rules 35(11) to (14) of the Uniform Rules of
Court, in which they sought documents referred to in Moneyweb‟s founding affidavit and
copies of different sets of documents from Moneyweb. Dissatisfied with Moneyweb‟s
responses to their rule 35(12) and rules 35(11) to (14) notices, the Companies launched
an application to compel compliance therewith (the interlocutory application). The
interlocutory application reveals that the Companies ostensibly sought these documents
for purposes of interrogating the „real motives‟ of Moneyweb, as they believed that
Moneyweb was acting in furtherance of a „sinister agenda‟ directed against Nova and its
subsidiaries, including certain members of its executive, and that Moneyweb had
embarked upon a vendetta for the sole purpose of discrediting the Companies and
undermining their integrity. The Companies contend that the documents sought will
1 Regulation 24 of the Companies Regulations, 2011 (Published under GN R351, GG 34239, 26 April
2011 as amended by GN R619, GG 36759, 20 August 2013 and GN R82, GG 37299, 5 February 2014)
requires a person claiming a right of access to a record held by a company to make a request in writing
by delivering to the company a completed request for access to information form (Form CoR24).
enable them to prove that Moneyweb intends publishing articles in the media not for any
journalistic motive, but rather in furtherance of the „sinister agenda‟ referred to above.
They assert, in this regard, that the documents sought are relevant to the anticipated
issues in the main application, as they will provide them with a defence to that
application.
[5] In the court a quo, Tuchten J granted the Companies‟ rule 35(12) application to
compel discovery of documents referred to in Moneyweb‟s founding affidavit, but
dismissed their rule 35(14) application to compel and made the following order:
„1
The [appellants] are directed within 20 days of the date of this order to produce, in hardcopy
format, the documents listed in paragraphs 1 to 10 of the respondents‟ notice in terms of rule
35(12) dated 15 November 2013 for their inspection and to permit them to make copies or
transcriptions thereof.
For the rest, the application is dismissed.
The costs of this application will be costs in the cause of the main application to which
these proceedings are interlocutory.‟
[6] Although the court a quo had not decided the main application, it nevertheless
pronounced on the proper interpretation of s 26(2) of the Companies Act, in deciding
whether to grant the interlocutory relief to the Companies. It considered two of its
conflicting decisions2 on the subject, and concluded that s 26(2) did not confer an
absolute right to inspection of the documents contemplated in the subsection, but that
the court retained a discretion to refuse to order inspection. In arriving at this
conclusion, the court below reasoned as follows:
„I think that the construction advanced on behalf of [Moneyweb] gives rise both to a potential for
injustice and absurdities. Counsel for [Moneyweb] submitted, in answer to questions from the
bench, that even if the evidence proved that the purpose of the request was to identify the home
of one of the persons whose particulars were on the register so that an assassin would know
where to find and murder that person, the court was bound to order disclosure. That outcome
would, I think, be unjust. Section 26(9) makes it an offence to fail to accommodate any
reasonable request for access, or unreasonably to refuse access to a register. If [Moneyweb‟s]
2 Bayoglu v Manngwe Mining (Pty) Ltd 2012 JDR 1902 (GNP) and M&G Centre for Investigative
Journalism NPC v CSR-E Loco Supply (Pty) Ltd case number 23477/2013 (8 November 2013).
construction is correct, a respondent who reasonably refused access but was nevertheless
ordered to provide access would be liable to punishment for contempt of court for a failure to
comply with the order even though he would be acquitted of the criminal offence of failing to
provide access created by s 26(9). That outcome would, I think, be absurd.
In my view, a construction which confers a discretion on the court would more effectively
promote the objects and spirit of the Constitution. The rights which the parties assert and seek
to protect are . . . constitutional rights . . . rights to information on the one hand and privacy and
dignity on the other. No constitutional right is absolute. In the process of determining which of
the competing constitutional rights should prevail, each such right must be weighed against
other relevant constitutional rights. A construction which would disable a court from weighing
and giving effect to other constitutional rights would be subversive of the principle of fairness
underlying the constitution.‟
The Companies appeal against paragraphs 2 and 3 of the order set out above. The
appeal is with leave of the court a quo.
[7] The issues in this appeal are two-fold. In view of the interlocutory nature of the
order of the court a quo, the first issue that arises for determination is whether it is
appealable. If found to be so, then the second issue which arises is whether the
documents sought by the Companies in terms of rule 35(14) are relevant to a
reasonably anticipated issue in the main application. This issue concerns the proper
interpretation of s 26(2) of the Companies Act and, in particular, whether it confers an
unqualified right of access to the securities register of a company contemplated in the
section.
Is the order appealable?
[8] On the test articulated by this court in Zweni v Minister of Law and Order,3 the
dismissal of an application to compel discovery, such as by the court a quo, is not
appealable as it is (a) not final in effect and is open to alteration by the court below; (b)
not definitive of the rights of the parties; and (c) does not have the effect of disposing of
a substantial portion of the relief claimed. However, three years later in Moch v
3 Zweni v Minister of Law and Order [1992] ZASCA 197; 1993 (1) SA 523 (A) at 532J-533A.
Nedtravel (Pty) Ltd t/a American Express Travel Service,4 this court held that the
requirements for appealability laid down in Zweni „. . .[d]o not purport to be exhaustive
or to cast the relevant principles in stone‟. Almost a decade later, in Philani-Ma-Afrika v
Mailula,5 this court considered whether an execution order (which put an eviction order
into operation pending an appeal) was appealable. It held the execution order to be
appealable, by adapting „the general principles on the appealability of interim orders . . .
to accord with the equitable and more context-sensitive standard of the interests of
justice favoured by our Constitution‟.6 In so doing, it found the „interests of justice‟ to be
a paramount consideration in deciding whether a judgment is appealable.7
[9] It is well established that in deciding what is in the interests of justice, each case
has to be considered in light of its own facts.8 The considerations that serve the
interests of justice, such as that the appeal will traverse matters of significant
importance which pit the rights of privacy and dignity on the one hand, against those of
access to information and freedom of expression on the other hand, certainly loom large
before us. However, the most compelling, in my view, is that a consideration of the
merits of the appeal will necessarily involve a resolution of the seemingly conflicting
decisions in La Lucia Sands Share Block Ltd & others v Barkhan & others9 and
Bayoglu10 on the one hand, and Basson v On-Point Engineers (Pty) Ltd11 and M & G
Centre for Investigative Journalism NPC v CSR-E Loco Supply12 on the other.
[10] Section 17(1) of the Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013 (the Superior Courts Act),
4 Moch v Nedtravel (Pty) Ltd t/a American Express Travel Service [1996] ZASCA 2; 1996 (3) SA 1 (A) at
10E-G.
5 Philani-Ma-Afrika & others v Mailula & others [2009] ZASCA 115; 2010 (2) SA 573 (SCA). See also S v
Western Areas Ltd & others [2005] ZASCA 31; 2005 (5) SA 214 (SCA) paras 25-26; Khumalo & others v
Holomisa [2002] ZACC 12; 2002 (5) SA 401 (CC) para 8.
6 International Trade Administration Commission v SCAW South Africa (Pty) Ltd [2010] ZACC 6; 2012 (4)
SA 618 (CC) para 53.
7 Philani-Ma-Afrika para 20.
8 Member of the Executive Council for Development Planning and Local Government, Gauteng v
Democratic Party & others [1998] ZACC 9;1998 (4) SA 1157 (CC) para 32.
9 La Lucia Sands Share Block Ltd & others v Barkhan & others [2010] ZASCA 132; 2010 (6) SA 421
(SCA).
10 Footnote 2 above.
11 Basson v On-Point Engineers (Pty) Ltd & others (64107/11) [2012] ZAGPPHC 251 (7 November 2012);
2012 JDR 2126 (GNP).
12 Footnote 2 above.
which provides for the circumstances in which a judge may grant leave to appeal, gives
express recognition to this consideration. It provides:
„(1) Leave to appeal may only be given where the judge or judges concerned are of the opinion
that –
(a) (i) the appeal would have a reasonable prospect of success; or
(ii) there is some other compelling reason why the appeal should be heard, including
conflicting judgments on the matter under consideration;
(b)
the decision sought on appeal does not fall within the ambit of section 16(2)(a); and
(c)
where the decision sought to be appealed does not dispose of all the issues in the case,
the appeal would lead to a just and prompt resolution of the real issues between the parties.‟
The provisions of s 17(1) of the Superior Courts Act are tailor-made for this appeal
principally for two reasons. First, as already alluded to, there are at least four conflicting
judgments, including that of the court a quo, on the proper interpretation of s 26(2) of
the Companies Act. Second, the appeal would lead to a just and prompt resolution of
the real issues between the parties for the reasons set out below.
[11] Rule 35(14) provides that a party may, for purposes of pleading, require any
other party to make available for inspection, within five days, a clearly specified
document or tape-recording in his possession „which is relevant to a reasonably
anticipated issue in the action‟, and to allow a copy or transcription to be made of it. In
the context of this appeal, the Companies are required to demonstrate that the
documents are relevant to a tenable ground of opposition to the main application. Since
the Companies seek to compel discovery for the purpose of interrogating the „real
motives‟ of Moneyweb for requesting access to their securities registers, in terms of s
26 of the Companies Act, the question of the „relevance‟ of the documents sought would
be integral to the interpretation of s 26(2) of the Companies Act. It is important to bear in
mind, in this respect, that although the court a quo did not decide the main application, it
did pronounce on the proper interpretation of s 26(2) of the Companies Act in deciding
whether to grant the interlocutory relief sought by the Companies. Before us, therefore,
the parties in essence accepted that if the court construes s 26(2) of the Companies Act
to confer an unqualified right of access to the securities register of a company, then
Moneyweb‟s „motives‟ for requesting access to the registers would be irrelevant to the
main application, and it would be entitled to an order compelling compliance with s 26(2)
of the Companies Act, thereby resolving the „real issue‟ in the main application, as
envisaged in s17(1)(c) of the Superior Courts Act. On this basis, therefore, Moneyweb
was constrained to concede that the judgment of the court below, although not
appealable under the traditional Zweni test for interlocutory applications to compel
discovery, would be appealable under s 17(1) of the Superior Courts Act.
Application to adduce evidence
[12] Before I proceed to deal with the real issue, being the interpretation of s 26(2) of
the Companies Act, I shall briefly deal with the application by the Mail & Guardian
Centre for Investigative Journalism NPC (better known as amaBhungane) for leave to
adduce evidence on appeal. AmaBhungane‟s application to be admitted as amicus
curiae in this appeal, in terms of rule 16(4) of the rules of this court, was granted by the
President of this court. AmaBhungane is affiliated to the Mail & Guardian newspaper,
which is the primary publisher of its work. It is dedicated to uncovering, analyzing and
reporting on information that the public has a right to know, such as evidence of
corruption and abuse of power in both the public and private sectors. Timely access to
the securities registers of companies, which are implicated in such matters of public
interest, is essential to its task. Pursuant to this objective, amaBhungane made
application, at the hearing of the appeal, for leave to adduce evidence on: (a) its
experience with the Promotion of Access to Information Act 2 of 2000 (PAIA) and the
significance of access to securities registers for the work of investigative journalists, and
(b) the legislative history of s 26(2) of the Companies Act for the purposes of
demonstrating that the present formulation of s 26(2) is intended to confer an
unqualified right of access to securities registers of companies. The application was not
opposed and the court granted amaBhungane leave to adduce evidence in the terms
sought. Since the rules of this court do not expressly empower it to receive evidence
from an amicus curiae, I deal below with the basis on which leave was granted to
amaBhungane to adduce evidence on appeal.
[13] This court is empowered under s 19(b) of the Superior Courts Act to receive
further evidence. However, rule 16(8) of the rules of this court provides that „a[n] amicus
curiae shall be limited to the record on appeal and may not add thereto and, unless
otherwise ordered by the Court, shall not present oral argument‟. This position is,
however, not invariable as the court‟s power to regulate its own process in terms of s
173 of the Constitution may be invoked to allow an amicus to adduce further evidence, if
to do so would promote the interests of justice. Significantly, in this regard, in Children’s
Institute v Presiding Officer of the Children’s Court, District of Krugersdorp & others,13
the Constitutional Court held as follows (in relation to rule 16A of the Uniform rules):
„. . . . In public interest matters, like the present case, allowing an amicus to adduce evidence
best promotes the spirit, purport and objects of the Bill of Rights. Therefore, the correct
interpretation of Rule 16A must be one that allows courts to consider evidence from amici where
to do so would promote the interests of justice.‟
The Constitutional Court went on to hold that an amicus must, in appropriate cases, be
permitted to adduce evidence in the High Court for at least two reasons namely: (a) that
rule 31 of the Constitutional Court rules which permits it to admit evidence adduced by
an amicus curiae, supports the proposition that courts of first instance must also be
permitted to adduce evidence, because it is generally not in the interests of justice for
the Constitutional Court to sit as a court of first and final instance in relation to new
issues and factual material;14 and (b) that the persuasive comment of an amicus will
often draw on broader considerations, and thus be premised on facts and evidence not
before the court, including statistics and research. It would make little sense to allow the
presentation of bare submissions unsupported by facts.15
[14] The same rationale should, in my view, apply to this court as it would be
anomalous if an amicus could introduce evidence in the High Court and Constitutional
Court, but not in this court. It follows, therefore, that this court may, in appropriate
circumstances, permit an amicus to adduce evidence, provided the requirements of s
19(b) of the Superior Courts Act are met, namely that: (a) a sufficient explanation is
provided for why the evidence was not introduced before the court a quo; (b) there is a
13 Children’s Institute v Presiding Officer of the Children’s Court, District of Krugersdorp & others [2012]
ZACC 25; 2013 (2) SA 620 (CC) para 27.
14 Children’s Institute para 30.
15 Children’s Institute para 31.
prima facie likelihood that the evidence is true; and (c) the evidence is materially
relevant to the outcome.16 These requirements have been met in this appeal for the
following reasons:
(a)
AmaBhungane could not adduce the evidence in the court a quo because it was
not party to those proceedings. It was, furthermore, not apparent that the court a quo
would, in the interlocutory proceedings consider, let alone pronounce on the proper
interpretation of s 26(2) of the Companies Act, which arises for determination in the
main application.
(b)
The evidence which amaBhungane wishes to adduce on appeal is true and not
disputed by the parties. It is first-hand evidence of amaBhungane‟s experience
regarding the importance of securities registers as a reliable tool in a journalist‟s
artillery. Additionally, the evidence relating to the prior versions of the Companies
Amendment Bill, 2010 (the Amendment Bill) is plainly incontrovertible as these
documents are official in nature.
(c)
The evidence of amaBhungane‟s experience with PAIA, and the significance of
access to securities registers for the work of the media are plainly relevant, and is
precisely the kind of evidence that the Constitutional Court has held may be introduced
by an amicus curiae.17 The practical impact of a particular construction of legislation, in
this case s 26(2) of the Companies Act, is a relevant question which generally would
need to be assessed from the evidence. Moreover, the evidence of the evolving
formulation of the Amendment Bill in the parliamentary process is an aid to
interpretation and sheds light on the intention of the legislature, thus demonstrating why
the construction posited by the Companies could not have been intended by the
legislature. Thus, the evidence is clearly relevant.
Interpretation of s 26(2) of the Companies Act
[15] I now turn to the question of the proper interpretation of s 26(2) of the Companies
Act and, in particular, whether it confers an unqualified right of access to the securities
16 D E van Loggerenberg et al (eds) Erasmus Superior Court Practice (November 2013 - Service Issue
43) at A1-56. See also Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development & others v Southern African
Litigation Centre & others [2016] ZASCA 17 (15 March 2016) para 30.
17 Children’s Institute paras 31 and 34.
register of a company. The Companies contend that s 26(2) confers a qualified right as
access may be refused, on the grounds set out in PAIA and on the grounds of the
„motive‟ of the requester. On the contrary, Moneyweb contends that an unqualified right
is conferred on any person who meets the procedural requirements of s 26(2) of the
Companies Act. AmaBhungane, in turn, contends that if access to securities registers is
subject to the grounds of refusal which apply to a request under PAIA or to a refusal
based on the alleged motive of the requester, then this will have a significant negative
impact on investigative journalists and the public‟s right to know.
[16] The role that companies play in our society and their obligations of disclosure
that arise from the right of access to information in s 32 of the Constitution, is central to
the interpretation of s 26(2) of the Companies Act. Both this court and the Constitutional
Court have recognised that the manner in which companies operate and conduct their
affairs is not a private matter. In Bernstein & others v Bester NO & others,18 the
Constitutional Court made the position plain. The Court said:
„The establishment of a company as a vehicle for conducting business on the basis of limited
liability is not a private matter. It draws on a legal framework endorsed by the community and
operates through the mobilisation of funds belonging to members of that community. Any
person engaging in these activities should expect that the benefits inherent in this creature of
statute will have concomitant responsibilities. These include, amongst others, the statutory
obligations of proper disclosure and accountability to shareholders. It is clear that any
information pertaining to participation in such a public sphere cannot rightly be held to be
inhering in the person, and it cannot consequently be said that in relation to such information a
reasonable expectation of privacy exist. Nor would such an expectation be recognised by
society as objectively reasonable. This applies also to the auditors and debtors of the company.
. . .‟
[17] This approach has been repeatedly endorsed. This passage in Bernstein was
cited by this court in La Lucia Sands, in dealing with s 113 of the Companies Act 61 of
1973 (the old Companies Act), the predecessor to s 26 of the Companies Act.19
18 Bernstein & others v Bester NO & others [1996] ZACC 2; 1996 (2) SA 751 (CC) para 85.
19 La Lucia Sands para 21.
Similarly, in his separate concurring judgment in S v Coetzee,20 Kentridge AJ
emphasised that „those who choose to carry on their activities through the medium of an
artificial legal persona must accept the burdens as well as the privileges which go with
their choice.‟ Most recently, in Company Secretary of Arcelormittal South Africa &
another v Vaal Environmental Justice Alliance21, this court emphasized that „citizens in
democracies around the world are growing alert to the dangers of a culture of secrecy
and unresponsiveness, both in respect of government and in relation to corporations‟
and that Parliament, driven by Constitutional imperatives, had rightly seen fit to cater for
this in its legislation.
[18] The Companies Act gives specific recognition to a culture of openness and
transparency in s 7 which lists the core objectives of the Act. Section 7(b)(iii), in
particular, provides that a purpose of the Act is to:
„. . . [encourage] transparency and high standards of corporate governance as appropriate,
given the significant role of enterprises within the social and economic life of the nation.‟
Section 26 of the Companies Act is enacted with precisely these objectives in mind. It
recognizes that the establishment of a company is not purely a private matter and may
impact the public in several ways. It therefore seeks to impose strong rights of access in
respect of very specific but ultimately limited types of information held by companies.
Section 26 must, therefore, be interpreted in accordance with this purpose. Section
26(1) confers a right of access to information in respect of various kinds of information
to a person who holds a beneficial interest in any securities issued by a profit company,
or who is a member of a non-profit company. Section 26(2) then confers a narrower and
more specific right of access to all others persons. It provides:
„A person not contemplated in subsection (1) has a right to inspect or copy the securities
register of a profit company, or the members register of a non-profit company that has
members, or the register of directors of a company, upon payment of an amount not exceeding
the prescribed maximum fee for any such inspection.‟
20 S v Coetzee & others [1997] ZACC 2; 1997 (3) SA 527 (CC) para 98.
21 Company Secretary of Arcelormittal South Africa & another v Vaal Environmental Justice Alliance
[2014] ZASCA 184; 2015 (1) SA 515 (SCA) para 1.
Interaction between s 26(2) and PAIA
[19] There are two aspects of s 26 that require particular emphasis: the first concerns
the interaction between s 26(2) and the provisions of PAIA and the second concerns the
nature of the right conferred by s 26(2). In relation to the former, s 26 makes clear that
the right conferred by s 26(2) is additional to the rights conferred by PAIA and does not
need to be exercised in accordance with PAIA. In this regard, s 26(7) provides:
„The rights of access to information set out in this section are in addition to, and not in
substitution for, any rights a person may have to access information in terms of –
(a)
section 32 of the Constitution;
(b)
the Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000 (Act 2 of 2000); or
(c)
any other public regulation.‟
Markedly, the approach of Parliament in conferring the right of access to information in
s 26(2) of the Companies Act in addition to the rights conferred by PAIA is consistent
with s 39(3) of the Constitution which provides that:
„The Bill of Rights does not deny the existence of any other rights or freedoms that are
recognised or conferred by common law, customary law or legislation, to the extent that they are
consistent with the Bill.‟
[20] In respect of the process to be followed in exercising the rights, s 26(4) provides:
„A person may exercise the rights set out in subsection (1) or (2), or contemplated in subsection
(3)─
(a)
for a reasonable period during business hours;
(b)
by direct request made to a company in the prescribed manner, either in person or
through an attorney or other personal representative designated in writing; or
(c)
in accordance with the Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000 (Act 2 of 2000).‟
(own emphasis.)
What is clear from s 26(4)(c) is that procedurally PAIA is an alternative to requesting
access to a company‟s share register in terms of the provisions of s 26 of the
Companies Act.
[21] The approach of Parliament, in this regard, was eminently sensible. PAIA is a
general statute. It regulates access to innumerable types of information held by a wide
range of bodies, with various different types of interests at stake. Parliament, therefore,
had to lay down general rules to balance the competing interests at stake by means of
threshold requirements, grounds of refusal and public interest overrides. By contrast, s
26(2) confers a specific right in respect of one type of information only − securities
registers and directors registers. Parliament justifiably took the view that, in respect of
this narrow category of information, it was unnecessary to build in the PAIA balances
and counter balances with all the complexity and delay that might entail. Instead, it
conferred an unqualified right that is capable of prompt vindication.
[22] Notwithstanding this, and the clear wording of s 26(4) and s 26(7) of the
Companies Act, the Companies place considerable reliance on PAIA contending that
they are entitled to argue, in the main application, that the refusal of access to
Moneyweb „is justified on the basis of the provisions of s 68(1) of PAIA.‟ In terms of s
68(1) of PAIA, access to a record of a company may be refused if the record:
(a)
contains trade secrets of the company;
(b)
contains financial, commercial, scientific or technical information, other than trade
secrets, of the company, the disclosure of which would be likely to cause harm to the
commercial or financial interests of the company;
(c)
contains information, the disclosure of which could reasonably be expected; will
put the company at a disadvantage in contractual and other negotiations; or will
prejudice the company in commercial competition.
Securities registers quite clearly do not contain information of the nature contemplated
in s 68(1) of PAIA, and access cannot possibly be refused by the Companies on that
basis. Furthermore, the Companies contend that the right of access in s 26(2) must be
qualified by, and subject to, the provisions of PAIA, and that the person requesting the
information must demonstrate that the information is required for the purpose of
exercising or protecting a right. It is not clear how this requirement can be imported into
s 26(2) without doing violence to a right which is expressly intended by the legislature to
be unqualified. Moreover, the Companies fail to explain how this reliance on PAIA can
be sustained in light of the clear language of subsecs 26(4) and 26(7). Accordingly, the
Companies‟ reliance on PAIA is unsustainable as it certainly does not render the
documents sought in the rule 35(14) interlocutory application relevant to the main
application.
[23] In choosing to confer an unqualified right capable of prompt and easy vindication
in s 26(2) of the Companies Act, Parliament would have been alive to the fact that the
procedures of PAIA can readily be used as an instrument to frustrate and delay access
to records. One of the threshold requirements for a requester to obtain access to
information held by a private entity under s 50(1)(a) of PAIA is that the requester must
prove that that information requested is necessary for the „exercise or protection of any
rights‟. Even if this test is overcome, there is potential for a ground of refusal to be
claimed by the company concerned. For instance, in terms of s 71(1) of PAIA, the
private body „must‟, if the record requested might contain certain information concerning
a third party, take all reasonable steps to inform the third party of the request. The
private body may take up to 21 days to give this notice and the third party may take a
further 21 days to make representations, before the private body decides whether to
grant or refuse access to the requester. If access is granted, the third party may
approach a court to prevent disclosure. If refused, the requester would have to make
application to court to compel disclosure. Given the potentially hundreds of holders of
securities, a decision by a company to invoke the third party procedure in PAIA will
effectively put the securities registers out of the reach of the requester indefinitely, and
certainly far beyond the natural life cycle of a relevant journalistic investigation.
[24] The point is illustrated by President of the Republic of South Africa v M & G
Media Ltd.22 Even without any proper basis for withholding access to the record, access
was delayed for six years. This was also amaBhungane‟s experience in CSR-E Loco.23
The present proceedings speak for themselves – some three years later Moneyweb is
22 President of the Republic of South Africa & others v M & G Media Ltd [2014] ZASCA 124; 2015 (1) SA
92 (SCA). See also generally MEC for Roads and Public Works, Eastern Cape & another v Intertrade
Two (Pty) Ltd [2006] ZASCA 33; 2006 (5) SA 1 (SCA) para 20.
23 See footnote 2 above.
still nowhere near accessing the Companies‟ securities registers. This demonstrates
that PAIA will not provide journalists prompt access to securities registers − for whom
timely access is essential. Thus, if the PAIA limitations apply to s 26(2) requests, the
inconvenience and cost of an application to court to challenge a refusal on those
grounds will greatly inhibit access to securities registers. Given the significant expenses
involved in the court process, it will in most cases lead to important investigations being
aborted rather than an application to court being pursued.24 One wonders why subsecs
26(4)(a) and (b) were enacted if they are capable of being impliedly trumped by PAIA.
[25] What remains then is to set right the unfortunate obiter dictum of this court in La
Lucia Sands vis-a-vis the application of PAIA to a request for access under s 26 of the
Companies Act:25
„[17] For completeness, I record that the New Companies Act 71 of 2008 has been assented to
but has not yet come into operation. Section 113 of the Act has not been repeated in the new
legislation. Section 26 of the new Act is entitled „„Access to company records‟‟. Section 26(3)
provides that „‟any member‟‟ and “any other person‟‟ are entitled to inspect the register of
members during business hours. Section 26(4) provides:
“The rights of access to information set out in this section are in addition to, and not in substitution for,
any rights a person may have to access information in terms of –
(a) section 32 of the Constitution
(b) the Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000 (Act No. 2 of 2000; or
(c) any other public regulation.
[18] It appears that in future the provisions of the Promotion of Access to Information Act 2 of
2000 will have to be employed by non-members seeking access to the register of members.
The rationale set out above for obtaining information contained in the register of members will
probably continue to apply, notwithstanding that the request for information will now have to be
made in terms of the Act. Happily, it is not an issue we need to address comprehensively or at
all. Section 113 applies to the present matter.‟ (own emphasis.)
This obiter dictum is regrettable, as s 26(7) of the Companies Act expressly states that
the right conferred by s 26(2) is additional to the rights conferred by PAIA. There is, in
addition, no requirement in s 26 of the Companies Act that a request for access to a
24 See City of Cape Town v South African National Roads Authority Limited & others [2015] ZASCA 58;
2015 (3) SA 386 (SCA) para 43.
25 La Lucia Sands paras 17-18.
company‟s securities register must only be exercised in accordance with PAIA. The
obiter dictum of this court in La Lucia Sands is, therefore, clearly wrong, and the
Companies‟ reliance on it is simply misplaced.
The nature of the right
[26] The second aspect of s 26(2) of the Companies Act that requires emphasis is the
nature of the right conferred by it in the context of s 26 as a whole. Unlike its
predecessor, s 113 of the old Companies Act, s 26(2) expressly confers a right of
access in respect of the securities registers. Section 26(5) then goes further and
provides expressly, and in unqualified terms, that where a company receives a request
in the prescribed form, the company „must within 14 business days comply with the
request‟. There is nothing in subsecs 26(2) and 26(5) which, in any way, qualifies this
right. Nor is there any reference in these sections to the reasonableness of either the
request or the response. The only sub-section which mentions reasonableness is s
26(9), which creates the criminal prohibition. It provides:
„It is an offence for a company to─
(a) fail to accommodate any reasonable request for access, or to unreasonably refuse access,
to any record that a person has a right to inspect or copy in terms of this section or section 31;
or
(b) to otherwise impede, interfere with, or attempt to frustrate, the reasonable exercise by any
person of the rights set out in this section or section 31.‟
A reasonable request in my view, would be one which is made in accordance with the
provisions of s 26(4)(a) and (b) of the Companies Act.
[27] The decision to include the reasonableness defence in s 26(9) is perfectly
understandable, as the legislature was presumably anxious to avoid creating a strict
liability offence, possibly because of the constitutional difficulties that this might have
raised. However, what the Companies seek to do is import the s 26(9) reasonableness
qualification back into s 26(2) to limit the right it confers. There is no warrant for this. If
Parliament had wanted to limit the s 26(2) right, it would have done so expressly.
Instead, it enacted an unqualified right in s 26(2) read with s 26(4) and introduced a
reasonableness qualification only in respect of the criminal offence created by s 26(9).
[28] The failure to introduce an equivalent qualification of reasonableness in s 26(2)
and 26(4) makes clear that outside of the criminal offence created, there is no similar
restriction. Section 26(2) clearly confers an unqualified right on members of the public
and the media to obtain access to share registers. This means that the ‘motive‟ with
which the person seeks access to the information concerned is irrelevant. This
construction of s 26(2) is completely consistent with its legislative history, as revealed
by the different versions of the Amendment Bill. The versions of the Amendment Bill
prior to the adoption of the Companies Act in its amended form show a deliberate
journey from a formulation of s 26(2) in which the PAIA limitations were arguably
applicable, to a formulation which makes it clear that the PAIA limitations are not
applicable, and that the right of access is not qualified.
[29] Notably, s 113 of the old Companies Act provided an unqualified right for any
person to access a company‟s share register that was subject to a court‟s discretion to
refuse access. When the Minister of Trade and Industry tabled the Companies Bill,
2008, in the National Assembly there was no express access provisions for non-
shareholders. The proposed subsecs 26(2) and (5) appeared to anticipate the possibility
that non-shareholders might gain access by means of PAIA and that, given PAIA‟s
exemptions, there might be reasonable grounds to deny access. AmaBhungane was
concerned about the erosion of the unqualified right in s 113 of the old Companies Act
and made submissions to the Portfolio Committee. When the Companies Act was finally
enacted in 2008, it included s 26(2) which gives any person the right of access, and it
introduced a peremptory element: must . . . be open to inspection’ in s 26(6). The
Companies Act made it clear that this right was in addition to any rights under PAIA.
[30] The Companies Act contained errors, and the Minister therefore introduced the
Amendment Bill before the Act came into force. The original version of the Amendment
Bill B40–2010 appeared to make the right to access subject to PAIA, by using the
conjunctive „and‟. It also omitted the peremptory wording ‘must’ that had been included
in the Companies Act. It stated:
A person may exercise the rights set out in subsection (1) or (2), or contemplated in subsection
(3)─
(a) for a reasonable period during business hours;
(b) by direct request made to a company in the prescribed manner, either in person, or through
an attorney or other personal representative designated in writing; and
(c) in accordance with the Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000 (Act No.2 of 2000).‟
(own emphasis.)
Whilst that version appears to suggest that the s 26 right would have been qualified
along the lines proposed by the Companies, after receiving public submissions
(including amaBhungane‟s), the Portfolio Committee produced the revised version
B40A−2010 of the Amendment Bill. In Bill B40A−2010 the conjunctive ‘and’ in
subsection (4) was replaced with the disjunctive ‘or‟. The effect was to make it plain that
PAIA would be an alternative mode of obtaining access to company records. In addition,
the Portfolio Committee inserted a new sub-clause which made clear the peremptory
nature of the obligation imposed on the company. It read:
„(5)
Where a company receives a request in terms of subsection (4)(b) it must within 14
business days comply with the request by providing the opportunity to inspect or copy the
register concerned to the person making such request.‟ (own emphasis.)
These two alterations, which made it clear that the right is unqualified, were retained in
the version of the Bill that ultimately became the Amendment Act.
[31] The Companies Regulations demonstrate a similar evolution. Regulation 24(2) of
the Draft Companies Regulations, published for comment on 29 November 2010,26
provided that a person claiming a right of access to any record held by a company may
not exercise that right until ‘[the person’s] right of access to the information has been
confirmed in accordance with [PAIA]’.27 Draft Regulation 24(4) provided that a person
claiming access to any record held by a company had to make a written request by
delivering to the company a completed prescribed form as well as „any further
documents or other material required in terms of‟ PAIA. The final regulations28 are,
however, consistent with the current formulation in the Companies Act as amended by
26 Companies Regulations, GN R1664, GG 32832, 22 December 2009.
27 Clause 24(3)(b) of the draft Regulations.
28 Companies Regulations, GN R351, GG 34239, 26 April 2011.
the Amendment Act in 2011. They too now use the disjunctive ‘or’ to distinguish
between rights under PAIA and the additional access rights created by s 26, and they
too use the peremptory form „must . . . accede to the request‟.
[32] The legislative history squarely contradicts the construction of s 26(2) which is
contended for by the Companies. It demonstrates a clear intention on the part of the
legislature to provide that the right under s 26(2) can be exercised independently of
PAIA, and that a company cannot require disclosure of the reason for the request to
access the securities register of a company − as the right is unqualified.
[33] Essentially, this means that the „motive‟ with which a requester seeks access to a
company‟s share register is irrelevant. In La Lucia Sands this court made clear that,
under s 113 of the old Companies Act, a company could not require disclosure of the
reason for the request to access the shares registers. It said:29
„Section 113 of the Act does not oblige a person requesting information to provide motivation for
doing so. It has been held that a person who seeks to inspect the register need not give reasons
for doing so. (See Holland v Dickson (1888) 37 Ch.D. 669 at 671-672 and Labatt Brewing Co
Ltd v Trilon Holdings Inc 41 O.R. (3d) 384 para 6. Meskin et al Henochberg on the Companies
Act (above), with reference to Dickson, state the following:
“But in any event the company cannot require the disclosure of the reason for the inspection as a
condition precedent to allowing it . . .”
[34] Having said that, the court in La Lucia Sands went on to hold that, under s 113 of
the old Companies Act, a court had a discretion to decline to make an order requiring
access where it is shown that the information is sought for some unlawful purpose. In
reaching this conclusion, it relied on the decision of the English court of appeal in
Pelling v Families Need Fathers Ltd,30 where its reasoning was based almost
exclusively on the fact that the old English Companies Act 1985 provided that the
29 La Lucia Sands at para 10.
30 Pelling v Families Need Fathers Ltd [2002] 2 All ER 440 (CA).
Registrar hearing the matter “may” make an order compelling access. The court
explained it as follows:31
„On the true construction of s 356(6) the registrar had a discretion to refuse the order. In its
ordinary and natural meaning the word “may” is apt to confer a discretion or power . . . The use
of “may” in subsection (6) is in striking contrast to the mandatory force of “shall” in other parts of
the same section, such as sub-s (3). . . .
„„[w]hether the power will be exercised must depend upon the proper discretionary considerations
affecting the power in the light of the facts as are found by the court.‟‟32
We agree. For those reasons we reject the absolutist construction proposed by Dr Pelling.‟
[35] Section 113(4) of the old Companies Act was in very similar terms to the old
English Companies Act 1985. It provided that „in the case of any such refusal or default
the court may, on application, by order compel an immediate inspection of the register‟.
It is, therefore, not surprising that this court in La Lucia Sands took the same approach
as the court in Pelling. However, s 26 of the Companies Act is different. Unlike s 113 of
the old Companies Act, it does not contain a provision dealing specifically with an
application to court to compel compliance and, in particular, contains no provision
rendering the decision of the court discretionary on this basis. Parliament, which is
presumed to know the law,33 chose not to enact a provision equivalent to s 113(4), and
instead strengthened the access provision by making clear in s 26(2) that it conferred a
„right‟ of access, without qualification and not subject to a discretionary override.
[36] This means that when a company fails or refuses to provide access, that person
is entitled, as of right, to an order compelling access. The question of the motive or
purpose is simply irrelevant. The Companies have, therefore, failed to demonstrate that
the documents sought in the rule 35(14) notice „are relevant to a reasonably anticipated
issue in the main application.‟ The Companies‟ belief in relation to what they will
purportedly achieve through access to those documents, does not give rise to a defence
31 Pelling para 23.
32 O’Brien v Sporting Shooters Association of Australia (Victoria) [1999] 3 VR 251; [1999] VSC 313 (20
August 1999) para 21.
33 Road Accident Fund v Monjane [2007] ZASCA 57; 2010 (3) SA 641 (SCA) para 12.
to the main application as Moneyweb‟s „motive‟ for seeking access to the Companies‟
securities registers is simply irrelevant.
[37] The Companies‟ construction of s 26(2) would have a negative impact on
openness and transparency, and would directly undermine the work of Moneyweb,
amaBhungane and other investigative journalists, as it limits the right to freedom of
expression. The Constitutional Court has emphasised in Brümmer v Minister for Social
Development & others34 that media have a duty to report accurately, as „[t]he
consequence of inaccurate reporting would be devastating.’ This then means that the
journalists must be able to have speedy access to information such as the securities
registers: „Access to information is crucial to accurate reporting and thus to imparting
accurate information to the public.‟35 Interference with the ability to access information
impedes the freedom of the press. The right to freedom of expression is not limited to
the right to speak, but includes the right to receive information and ideas.36 Preventing
the press from reporting fully and accurately, does not only violate the rights of the
journalist, but it also violates the rights of all the people who rely on the media to provide
them with ‘information and ideas.’
[38] An unqualified right of access to a company‟s securities register is, therefore,
essential for effective journalism and an informed citizenry. AmaBhungane has provided
the court with examples of investigations and news reports, where access to share
register information was central to its investigation. One such news report relates to a
tender award by a parastatal,37 where immediate access to share registers enabled
journalists to uncover an apparent conflict of interests in relation to the head of a tender
committee. Investigations like this, would likely not have been possible if journalists did
not have an unqualified right of access to securities registers of companies under s
26(2) of the Companies Act.
34 Brümmer v Minister for Social Development & others [2009] ZACC 21; 2009 (6) SA 323 (CC) para 63.
35 Brümmer para 63.
36 Section 16(1)(b) of the Constitution.
37 „Transnet tender boss‟s R50 billion double game‟, Mail & Guardian, 4 July 2014.
[39] In a final attempt at salvaging its case, the Companies contend that an
unqualified right of access to a company‟s securities register would constitute a violation
of a shareholder‟s right to privacy in terms of s 14 of the Constitution, and that the rights
of access to information and freedom of expression must be weighed against this right −
as no right is absolute. The Companies contend that information contained in a private
company‟s securities register is information of a personal nature as it will contain names
and identities of individuals; their home and work addresses. In addition, they contend
that depending on the nature of the company, it may also expose their business
affiliations, how wealthy they are and what their political, moral and religious leanings
are. The contention thus advanced is that a company‟s securities register contains
information of a sensitive nature that may reveal deeply private matters about
shareholders in a particular company which, in the hands of the wrong people, may be
open to abuse.
[40] I disagree. First, because the Companies do not challenge the constitutionality of
s 26(2) of the Companies Act on the grounds of a violation of the right to privacy, and
secondly, because the privacy and dignity rights of shareholders are minimally
implicated in the right of access conferred by s 26(2). It is a narrow right of access that
is limited to securities registers and directors registers of companies contemplated in
the section. Regulation 32 (2) of the Companies Regulations provides that:
„In addition to the information otherwise required, the company's securities register must also
include in respect of each person to whom the company has issued securities, or to whom
securities of the company have been transferred-
(a)
the person's─
(i)
name and business, residential or postal address, as required by section 50(2)(b)(i); and
(ii)
the person's email address if available, unless the person has declined to provide an
email address;
(b)
an identifying number that is unique to that person.’
Regulation 32(6), in turn, provides that:
„In so far as the identity number and e-mail address of a person may be entered into a register
kept under this regulation, such information may, at the instance of the company, Central
Securities Depository or relevant Participant as the case may be, be regarded as confidential.‟
[41] A shareholder in a company is, therefore, only required to provide his or her
name, business, residential or postal address, an e-mail address if he or she elects to
do so, and an identifying number that is unique to that person. Where the shareholder‟s
identity number and e-mail address are entered into a securities register, it may be
regarded as confidential at the instance of the company or the shareholder. Thus, in
view of the limited nature of the personal information of a shareholder that must be
included in a securities register, and the regulatory safeguards aimed at ensuring
confidentiality and non-disclosure of such information, there can be no room for abuse.
It is against this backdrop that a potential violation of the privacy rights of shareholders
and companies should be considered.
[42] In conferring an unqualified „right‟ of access to a company‟s securities register in
s 26(2) of the Companies Act, the legislature has chosen to prioritize the right of access
to information over the privacy rights of shareholders and companies. In the absence of
an express limitation of that right by the legislature, it is not for the court to limit it
because of some nebulous spectre of abuse, particularly where as in this context, there
are built-in safeguards against the disclosure of confidential information − and the
constitutionality of the provision is not challenged. The scope of the right to privacy of
shareholders must, therefore, be viewed in its proper context. In Gaertner & others v
Minister of Finance & others, the Constitutional Court held:38
„Privacy, like other rights, is not absolute. As a person moves into communal relations and
activities such as business and social interaction, the scope of personal space shrinks. This
diminished personal space does not mean that, once people are involved in social interactions
or business, they no longer have a right to privacy. What it means is that the right is attenuated,
not obliterated. And the attenuation is more or less, depending on how far and into what one
has strayed from the inner sanctum of the home.‟
Accordingly, the court a quo erred in its obiter finding quoted in paragraph 6 above.
Prior Restraint
[43] In light of the irrelevance of Moneyweb‟s „motive‟ in seeking access to the
Companies‟ securities registers, the case of the Companies on appeal amounts to little
38 Gaertner & others v Minister of Finance & others [2013] ZACC 38; 2014 (1) SA 442 (CC) para 49.
more than that they are deeply aggrieved about the manner in which Moneyweb has
reported on them. The Companies fear that Moneyweb will use access to the securities
registers for further „negative reporting‟ and this will cause them harm. The Companies
are, in this respect, little different from any person or entity who is subject to negative
press coverage. They are unhappy about it and wish to curtail, impede and prevent it.
But, whatever other remedies are open to the Companies, these concerns cannot
provide a basis for limiting Moneyweb‟s exercise of its s 26(2) statutory rights in respect
of the securities registers concerned. The media cannot be precluded from accessing
information because the subject of the likely reportage considers that the reportage will
be unfavourable and unfair. Indeed, such a proposition is inconsistent with two well
established principles laid down by this court. The first is the principle established in City
of Cape Town v South African National Roads Authority Limited, that access to accurate
information is critical for the right to freedom of expression, which this court expressed
as follows:
„The right to freedom of expression lies at the heart of democracy, and is one of a “web of
mutually supporting rights” that hold up the fabric of the constitutional order. Section 32(1) of the
Constitution guarantees everyone the “right of access to information held by the state”. Citizens
and public interest groupings rely on this right to uncover wrongdoing on the part of public
officials or for accessing information to report on matters of public importance. The
Constitutional Court has noted that the media has a duty to report accurately, because the
“consequences of inaccurate reporting may be devastating.” It goes without saying that to report
accurately the media must have access to information. Access to information is “crucial to
accurate reporting and thus to imparting information to the public.” While s 32 of the Constitution
guarantees the right of persons to access relevant information, s 16 entitles them to distribute
that information to others.‟39 (footnotes omitted.)
[44] The approach urged by the Companies would, to my mind, preclude such
accurate reporting. It would require Moneyweb to attempt to report on the shareholding
of the Companies without having access to the information that definitively and
accurately sets out those details. Quite apart from the potential negative effect that this
39 City of Cape Town v South African National Roads Authority Limited & others above, para 20.
would have on the Companies, this would undermine the right of the public to receive
accurate information via the media. There is simply no basis for this approach.
[45] The second principle is that courts will only rarely make orders which amount to
prior restraints on expression. This principle was established in Midi Television (Pty) Ltd
t/a E-TV v DPP (WC),40where this court held:
‘In summary, a publication will be unlawful, thus susceptible to being prohibited, only if the
prejudice that the publication might cause to the administration of justice is demonstrable and
substantial and there is a real risk that the prejudice will occur if publication takes place. Mere
conjecture or speculation that prejudice might occur will not be enough. Even then publication
will not be unlawful unless a court is satisfied that the disadvantage of curtailing the free flow of
information outweighs its advantage. In making that evaluation it is not only the interests of
those who are associated with the publication that need to be brought to account but, more
important, the interest of every person in having access to information. Applying the ordinary
principles that come into play when a final interdict is sought, if a risk of that kind is clearly
established, and it cannot be prevented from occurring by other means, a ban on publication
that is confined in scope and in content and in duration to what is necessary to avoid the risk
might be considered.
Those principles would seem to me to be applicable whenever a court is asked to restrict the
exercise of press freedom for the protection of the administration of justice, whether by a ban on
publication or otherwise. They would also seem to me to apply, with appropriate adaptation,
whenever the exercise of press freedom is sought to be restricted in protection of another right. .
. .‟
[46] Although the interlocutory application does not involve the granting of an interdict
against the media, the effect is much the same. The deponent to the Companies‟
founding affidavit makes plain that they are, in fact, seeking to prevent Moneyweb from
reporting on these issues at all. They seek to do this by precluding Moneyweb and
Cobbett from ever having access to their securities registers for purposes of their
reporting. In other words, rather than interdict the Moneyweb publication, the
Companies seek to stop it at the investigation stage. There is simply no basis for such
40 Midi Television (Pty) Ltd t/a E-TV v Director of Public Prosecutions (Western Cape) [2007] ZASCA 56;
2007 (5) SA 540 (SCA) paras 19-20.
an order. If publication occurs and if it is unlawful, the Companies will be entitled to sue
for damages, which will „usually [be] capable of vindicating the right to reputation.‟41 The
Companies cannot, however, in advance enlist the assistance of the court to prevent
Moneyweb from engaging in the investigations concerned as this will undoubtedly
amount to prior restraint.
[47] To sum up, s 26(2) of the Companies Act provides an unqualified right of access
to securities registers. If Parliament is of the view that the right should be qualified in
some way, because of concerns relating to abuse of the right of access, it can legislate
accordingly – but it has chosen not to do so. For instance, under the old English
Companies Act, 1985, anyone could obtain access to a company‟s share register.
However, there was evidence that some people were abusing this right and seeking
information in order to harass shareholders. So, since 2006, these rights have been
qualified in the English Companies Act, 2006, as the English Parliament sought to
provide some protection for members against improper requests by enabling the
company to obtain a court order preventing access to the registers if the requester fails
the proper purpose test. Accordingly, in terms of s 116(4)(c) and (d) of the English
Companies Act, 2006, a person who requests access to the register of members is
required to submit a formal request setting out certain information that includes, inter
alia, the purpose for which the information is to be used and whether the information will
be disclosed to another person. Once the request has been submitted to the company,
it must, within five working days, either comply with the request or apply to court for an
order that it need not comply with the request.42 The court may grant an order if it is
satisfied that the inspection or copy is not sought for a „proper purpose.‟43 Notably, our
Parliament has chosen not to follow this route.
[48] As things stand, Moneyweb‟s „motive‟ for seeking access to the Companies‟
securities registers is simply irrelevant. They have, therefore, failed to demonstrate that
41 Midi Television para 20.
42 Section 117(1)(a) and (b).
43 In re Burry & Knight Ltd [2014] 1 WLR 4046.
the documents sought in the rule 35(14) notice „are relevant to a reasonably anticipated
issue in the main application‟. For these reasons, the appeal must be dismissed.
Costs
[49] Moneyweb urges the court to direct the Companies to pay Moneyweb‟s costs on
a punitive scale as their application to compel discovery in terms of rule 35(14) was and
remains untenable, and the conduct of the Companies, in that regard, has had the effect
of considerably delaying Moneyweb proceeding with the main application and obtaining
access to the securities registers. In addition, they urge the court to make clear that
conduct that delays or frustrates the exercise of statutory and constitutional rights is not
acceptable.
[50] Sight must not be lost of the fact that the Companies had obtained partial relief in
the court below. Curiously, the Judge in the court below found that although there was
„a compelling case for discovery‟:
„I have decided in the exercise of my discretion not to grant a discovery order at this stage. My
reasons for this decision are purely practical. If a discovery order is granted, the affidavit would
become completely unwieldy.‟
He furthermore pronounced upon the interpretation of s 26(2) of the Companies Act in a
manner favourable to the Companies – yet he failed to grant their application to compel
discovery in terms of rule 35(14). The Companies were, in my view, justified in
appealing the judgment of the court below. Accordingly, I incline against granting costs
against the Companies on a punitive scale.
[51] The following order is made:
The appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.
_________________
F Kathree-Setiloane
Acting Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES:
For Appellants:
JJ Brett SC with D Malion and K Hopkins
Instructed by:
Faber Goërtz Ellis Austen Inc, Pretoria
McIntyre Van Der Post, Bloemfontein
For Respondent:
S Budlender with M Sikhakhane
Instructed by:
Willem De Klerk Attorneys, Pretoria
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For Amicus Curie:
G Budlender SC
Instructed by:
Webber Wentzel Attorneys, Johannesburg
Webbers Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
12 May 2016
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form part of
the judgment.
Nova Property Group Holdings v Cobbett (20815/2014) [2016] ZASCA 63 (12 May 2016)
MEDIA STATEMENT
Today, the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) dismissed the appeal by Nova Property Group Holdings
Limited (Nova), Frontier Asset Management & Investments (Pty) Limited (Frontier), and Centro
Property Group (Pty) Limited (Centro) (the Companies) against a judgment of the Gauteng Division of
the High Court, Pretoria (the court a quo) in an interlocutory application lodged by the Companies, in
which it was found that the Companies were not entitled to an order to compel Moneyweb (Pty) Ltd
(Moneyweb), a publisher of business and financial news, to provide the Companies with certain
documents. The Mail & Guardian Centre for Investigative Journalism NPC, commonly known as
amaBhungane, was admitted as an amicus curiae in the appeal. The appeal arose from the attempts
of Moneyweb and Mr JP Cobbett (Cobbett) to exercise their statutory right in terms of s 26 of the
Companies Act 71 of 2008 (the Companies Act) to access the securities registers of the Companies.
Cobbett is a financial journalist who specialises in the investigation of illegal investment schemes. As
part of Moneyweb’s on-going investigation into the controversial Sharemax property syndication
scheme, it commissioned Cobbett to investigate and write articles for publication in Moneyweb, on the
shareholding structures of the Companies which were purportedly linked to the syndication scheme.
On 24 July 2013, Cobett sent a request to the Companies for access to their securities registers, in
terms of s 26(2) of the Companies Act. The Companies refused him access. As a result, Moneyweb
launched an application, in the court a quo, to compel the Companies to provide access to them
within five days of the date of the order (the main application). For purposes of providing them with a
defence in the main application, the Companies then sought to be furnished with documents referred
to in Moneyweb’s founding affidavit, as well as other documents which they claimed were relevant to
an anticipated issue in the main application. Displeased with Moneyweb’s refusal to provide them with
the requested documents, the Companies launched an application to compel them to do so under
rule 35(14) of the Uniform Rules of Court (the interlocutory application).
The court a quo compelled Moneyweb to furnish the Companies with the documents referred to in its
founding affidavit, but in respect of the other documents requested, it found that the Companies had
failed to prove that they were relevant to an issue in the main application. Although the court a quo
had not decided the main application, it nevertheless pronounced on the interpretation of s 26(2) of
the Companies Act, in deciding whether to grant the interlocutory relief sought by the Companies. It
concluded that s 26(2) did not confer an absolute right to inspection of the documents envisaged in
the subsection, but that the court retained a discretion to refuse to order access.
Before the SCA, the issues were twofold. Firstly, the court had to determine whether the order of the
court a quo, due to its interlocutory nature, was appealable. Secondly, whether the documents sought
by the Companies in the application to compel were relevant to a reasonably anticipated issue in the
main application, which concerned the proper interpretation of s 26(2) of the Companies Act and, in
particular, whether it confers an unqualified right of access to the securities register of a company .
In relation to the appealability of the order, the SCA held that it is appealable; in the interest of justice.
On the second issue which concerned the proper interpretation of s 26 (2) of the Companies Act, the
SCA held that the section confers an unqualified right of access to the securities register of a
company, and that such right is essential for effective journalism and an informed citizenry. In doing
so, it rejected the Companies’ contention that the right of access is subject to the provisions of the
Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000 (PAIA) and found that the requestor’s motive for
seeking access to a company’s securities register is irrelevant.
--- ends --- |
4006 | non-electoral | 2023 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case no: 162/2022
In the matter between:
MINISTER OF JUSTICE AND
CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENT
OF THE REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
FIRST APPELLANT
MINISTER OF POLICE OF THE
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
SECOND APPELLANT
MINISTER OF HOME AFFAIRS
OF THE REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA THIRD APPELLANT
and
FRANKLIN D PENNINGTON
FIRST RESPONDENT
GAIL JACKSON PENNINGTON
SECOND RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development and Others v
Pennington and Another (162/2022) [2023] ZASCA 51 (14 April
2023)
Coram:
PONNAN ADP, MOCUMIE, WEINER and GOOSEN JJA and
KATHREE-SETILOANE AJA
Heard:
13 March 2023
Delivered:
14 April 2023
Summary: Civil procedure – special plea of prescription – Prescription Act 68 of
1969 – when respondents had sufficient facts at their disposal – whether claim
prescribed in terms of s 12(3).
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Nyathi J, sitting as
court of first instance):
The appeal is upheld with costs, including those of two counsel.
The order of the high court is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘The special plea of prescription is upheld with costs, including those of two
counsel where so employed.’
___________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
___________________________________________________________________
Kathree-Setiloane AJA (Ponnan ADP and Mocumie, Weiner and Goosen JJA
concurring):
[1] Mr Franklin Pennington (first respondent) and his wife, Mrs Gail Pennington
(second respondent), instituted an action in the Gauteng Division of the High Court,
Pretoria (the high court) for damages against the appellants. The first appellant is the
Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development of South Africa (Minister of
Justice), the second appellant is the Minister of Police of South Africa (Minister of
Police), and the third appellant is the Minister of Home Affairs of South Africa (Minister
of Home Affairs).
[2] In response, the appellants raised a special plea that the respondents’ claims
had prescribed. They also raised a plea of non-joinder contending that in relation to
their malicious prosecution claim, the respondents had failed to cite the National
Prosecuting Authority (NPA) or the National Director of Public Prosecutions (NDPP)
as a defendant to the action, and that in relation to that claim, they fell to be non-suited
on that account.
Common cause facts
[3] The common cause facts, upon which the various claims are founded, are
these:1 The first and second respondents were arrested during 1991 on charges of
fraud, forgery, and uttering. They were acquitted of those charges in 1992. The first
respondent was thereafter arrested on 6 September 1994 on various charges once
again including fraud, forgery, and uttering. After his arrest, the first respondent was
released on bail. The criminal proceedings in the Regional Court, Johannesburg (the
regional court) began on 3 April 1995. The first respondent was convicted on 2 June
1997 and sentenced to a term of imprisonment on 17 November 1997. He noted an
appeal against his convictions and sentences. On 18 June 2015, the high court set
aside the first respondent’s convictions and sentences. The respondents issued
summons in respect of this matter on 15 June 2016.
Particulars of claim
[4] The respondents plead, in their particulars of claim, that they suffered ‘damages
for a series of wrongs committed by servants of the [appellants], in relation to a 1994
arrest of the [first respondent], criminal charges, the criminal trial, conviction and
sentence, and an inordinately long delay in having a hearing in his appeal which was
successful, and all the convictions and sentences being set aside’.
[5] In addition to the common cause facts referenced above, the respondents
plead, under the heading ‘The Criminal Trials’, inter alia, that:
(a)
Simultaneously with his third arrest, the Minister of Home Affairs declared the
first respondent to be a prohibited person in terms of the Alien’s Control Act,2 and
issued him with a s 41(1) permit.3 Although this permit allowed him to remain in South
Africa pending the conclusion of the trial, it prohibited him from taking up employment
or conducting business during this time; and
(b)
The first respondent was released on bail but was precluded from leaving South
Africa pending finalization of the trial and appeal.
1 The parties agreed on a list of common cause facts.
2 Aliens Control Act 96 of 1991 (Aliens Control Act).
3 Section 41(1) of the Aliens Control Act provides that:
‘The Minister may issue to a prohibited person a temporary permit on the prescribed form to enter and
reside in the Republic for the purpose, and subject to other conditions mentioned therein.’
[6] The respondents plead under the heading ‘APPEAL’, inter alia, that:
(a)
The trial record and exhibits were still in the possession of the presiding
magistrate after the trial. He only handed over the trial record (without the exhibits) to
the clerk of the regional court a year later;
(b)
During the following year, the first respondent repeatedly requested the appeal
clerk at the regional court to prepare the record for appeal;
(c)
The first respondent was advised during December 1998 that the typed record
had been returned to the appeal clerk but not the exhibits;
(d)
Since no later than 31 December 1998 the servants of the Minister of Justice
knew or should have known that the trial record was in such a poor state that it would
be impossible to provide a proper record suitable for the appeal. Despite that
knowledge, they pretended that they would be able to provide a proper record, and
opposed every attempt by the first respondent to have his conviction and sentence set
aside on the grounds that it was impossible to provide a proper record suitable for the
appeal;
(e)
In October 2003, the first respondent was informed by Advocate P Nel (Mr Nel)
of the office of the Director of Public Prosecutions (DPP) that the appeal had been
enrolled for hearing on 18 November 2004;
(f)
This was the first of approximately 70 instances of contact that the first
respondent had with Mr Nel alone, over the ensuing 13 years in relation to the
provision of the trial record and enrollment of the appeal for hearing;
(g)
In the following ten years, the first respondent would make more than 130
requests to various government entities concerning the provision of the trial record
and the enrollment of the appeal for hearing, to no avail;
(h)
On 1 December 2001, the first respondent made application to the high court
to compel the DPP to provide the trial record and enroll the appeal. This application
was dismissed based on an undertaking given by Mr Nel that the record would be
ready by 17 March 2004;
(i)
After numerous requests to, inter alia, the office of the DPP to be provided with
the trial record, as per the undertaking above, the first respondent launched a further
application in the Western Cape Division of the High Court, Cape Town in 2011. It was
dismissed for lack of jurisdiction. The DPP responded by saying that it had not heard
from the first respondent for seven years, and had been advised by his former attorney
that he had died;
(j)
In April 2012, the first respondent made application to the high court for an order
setting aside his conviction and sentence due to the failure of the DPP to prosecute
the matter. This application was dismissed on 18 April 2013;
(k)
The DPP set the appeal down for hearing on 13 August 2012. It was postponed
sine die to allow the DPP time to reconstruct, paginate, index, copy and distribute the
record;
(l)
The first respondent was provided with a copy of the reconstructed record
during March 2013. This was 16 years after he first noted the appeal; and
(m)
On 18 June 2015, the criminal appeal was disposed of, and the convictions and
sentences of the first respondent were set aside.
[7] The respondents plead that the appellants are liable for damages in the
amounts sought because:
(a)
‘the State’ failed, inter alia:
(i)
in its duty to ensure that the first respondent’s trial was prosecuted without
unnecessary, unreasonable or undue delays;
(ii)
in its duty by failing to ensure that the appeal was prosecuted without undue
delay despite all of the first respondent’s efforts to ensure that it was finalized;
(iii)
to ensure that the record was prepared for the purposes of prosecuting the
appeal, and to prepare the record without any unnecessary, unreasonable,
unwarranted or undue delay;
(iv)
in one or more ways, to enroll the appeal for hearing, due to the undue,
unnecessary, intentional, alternatively negligent, and consequently unlawful delay in
reconstructing the record, despite the respondents’ constant and concerted attempts
to prosecute the matter to finality.
(b)
The third arrest and the laying of criminal charges and the criminal trial pursuant
thereto were wrongful, unlawful and in breach of the rights of the respondents or one
of them; and
(c)
The third arrest of the first respondent directly led to the Minister of Home Affairs
issuing the permit, in terms of the Aliens Control Act, obliging him to remain in South
Africa pending the finalization of the criminal proceedings against him. This permit
prohibited the first respondent from taking up employment or conducting business
pending finalization of the trial and appeal. In doing so, it unjustifiably violated the first
respondent’s constitutional rights to freedom of movement and residence, and to
freedom of trade, occupation, and profession.
[8] In relation to the damages suffered, the respondents plead that:
‘The fact that the [first respondent] [was] arrested and subjected to the criminal trial, and that
[he] was precluded from taking up any employment or conducting business in South Africa
pending the outcome of the trial and the appeal, following the third arrest, caused the
dissipation of both [respondents’] assets, direct loss of income, pain and suffering, loss of
amenities of life and a decline in the [first respondent’s] mental and physical health as well as
consequential damages in that the [first respondent] was unable to provide for the [second
respondent] and his family.
This was exacerbated by the fact that the State, by virtue of the conditions of his residence,
imposed by the [third appellant], as a direct consequence of the [first respondent’s] third arrest,
by employees acting within their scope and duties as employees of the [second appellant],
precluded him from taking up employment or conducting business in South Africa, which
condition endured from 6 September 1994 to the conclusion of the appeal hearing on 18 June
2015, a period of almost twenty one (21) years. This condition still persists.
The inordinate delay, and/or refusal and/ or failure on the part of the [first appellant] to properly
prepare the record for the appeal to be prosecuted without undue delay, rendered the
permission granted by the [third appellant] to the [first respondent] to remain in South Africa
pending the conclusion of the criminal proceedings against him [by] prohibiting him from taking
up employment or conducting business, thereby denying him the means of supporting himself
or his family, unfair, unreasonable, irrational and therefore unlawful.’
[9] The respondents furthermore allege that they would not have suffered the
damages but for the (a) wrongful arrest; (b) criminal trial; (c) unjustifiable convictions
and sentences; (d) wrongful, unreasonable delay and/or refusal and/or failure to
properly deal with the first respondent’s appeal, despite his efforts to compel the State
to do so; and (e) the fact that during the entire period that the first respondent was
awaiting the finalization of the appeal, he was precluded from generating any income.
The respondents accordingly plead that they suffered the damages as set out below:
First Respondent:
‘Loss of income: R 300 000 000.00
lnjuria due to wrongful arrest and prosecution: R 20 000 000.00
Pain and suffering and loss of amenities of life: R 10 000 000.00
Contumelies R 10 000 000.00.’
Second Respondent:
‘Loss of maintenance and support: R 50 000 000.00
Pain and suffering: R 10 000 000.00.’
The respondents consequently claim that the first respondent is entitled to payment of
R340 000 000, and the second respondent to payment of R80 000 000, jointly and
severally, from the appellants, the one paying the others to be absolved.
Special plea of prescription
[10] The appellants’ special plea of prescription is directed at: (a) the third arrest of
the first respondent, which occurred on or before 6 September 1994; (b) the alleged
malicious prosecution of the first respondent, which commenced during September
1994 and was finalized prior to December 1998; and (c) the fact that, on the
respondents’ allegations, by 31 December 1998, servants of the Minister of Justice
were aware that they could not compile a proper record for the prosecution of the
appeal. The appellants consequently contend that the respondents’ claims, as
pleaded in the particulars of claim, have prescribed as the summons was only issued
in June 2016, which is more than three years after the alleged unlawful conduct relied
upon.
[11] The high court dismissed the special plea of prescription.4 Its reasoning is terse
and amounts to this:
‘From a conspectus of the particulars of claim, the causes of action relied upon are broad and
covered different alleged actions and omissions of various [appellants] who have been cited
in this matter.
…
What is definitive in determining this matter is the fact that the [respondents] are not relying
on a single self-standing claim based on unlawful arrest. What is clear is that there was a
4 The high court made an order, in terms of rule 33(4) of the Uniform Rules of Court, separating the
determination of the special plea and a legal point (plea of non-joinder) from that of the merits and
quantum. The parties had entered into a prior agreement that the merits and quantum be separated.
chain of events that followed the initial arrest, and which culminated in the appeal being
upheld. This accords with the adequate cause test espoused by Neetling et al.
I consequently find that there is a sufficiently close and continuous connection between the
alleged conduct of the [first appellant] through to that of the [third appellant] and the
consequences complained of, which only terminated on 18 June 2015. Prescription in my
view, only started running after that.’ (Footnotes omitted.)
[12] The question raised by the plea of non-joinder was whether any of the
appellants could be held liable for the alleged malicious prosecution of the first
respondent, instead of the NPA or the NDPP, which had not been joined as parties to
the action. In supplementary reasons, the high court held that it is ‘not persuaded that
the complaint of non-joinder is based on legal substance’ because s 179 of the
Constitution:5
‘[C]ould not be any clearer in so far as the functionary who bears responsibility for the actions
of the prosecuting authority. At any rate what is pleaded is that the clerk of the court (“the
appeals clerk at the Johannesburg Regional Court”) was unable to compile a record for
purposes of prosecuting the intended appeal by the [respondents]. The clerk of the court also
resorts under the Minister of Justice.’ (Footnote omitted.)
[13] The high court dismissed both the special plea of prescription and the plea of
non-joinder and reserved the costs. The appellants appeal against both these orders.
They do so with the leave of the high court.
Analysis
[14] The claims of the respondents are premised on the unlawful arrest and
detention of the first respondent; his malicious prosecution; and the inordinate delay
in the finalization of the appeal noted by him against his conviction and sentence. The
respondents contend, to the contrary, that this construction of the particulars of claim
ignores the allegation that their claim is based on a series of wrongs committed during
the period from 1994 to June 2015, and that during that period, the first respondent
5 Section 179(6) of the Constitution provides:
‘The Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice must exercise final responsibility over the
prosecuting authority.’
was prohibited from earning money. However, during argument in the appeal, counsel
for the respondents conceded that, despite the formulation of their pleaded claims:
(a)
the third arrest of the first respondent in 1994, the criminal charges against him,
and the subsequent criminal trial were neither unlawful nor malicious;
(b)
the bail conditions precluding the first respondent from leaving South Africa,
pending the finalization of the trial and the appeal, were not unlawful.
(c)
the decision of the Minister of Home Affairs to issue the first respondent with
the s 41(1) permit prohibiting him from taking up employment, or conducting a
business in South Africa pending the conclusion of the criminal trial was not unlawful.
[15] It was accordingly conceded that the respondents’ claim against the Minister of
Police could not be sustained. Counsel for the respondents also accepted that the
particulars of claim does not contain a damages claim against the Minister of Home
Affairs, despite the allegation that the inordinate delay in preparing the appeal record
rendered the prohibition, by the Minister of Home Affairs, against the first respondent
being employed or conducting a business pending the conclusion of the criminal
proceedings, unlawful. It was also accepted, during argument in the appeal, that the
respondents have not laid any basis, in their particulars of claim, for the following
heads of damages: injuria due to wrongful arrest and prosecution; pain and suffering,
loss of amenities of life and contumelia in respect of the first respondent; and loss of
maintenance and support and pain and suffering in respect of the second respondent.
[16] Consequently, the respondents’ only remaining claim is one for loss of income
against the Minister of Justice because of the purported ‘wrongful, unreasonable delay
and/or refusal and/or failure to properly deal with the first [respondent’s] appeal,
despite the first [respondent’s] efforts to compel the state to do so’. And ‘that during
the entire period that the first [respondent] was awaiting the finalization of the appeal
he was precluded from generating an income’. Thus, as things stand, the only question
for determination in the appeal is whether this claim has prescribed.
[17] However, before commencing with that determination, I make the following
observations arising from the concessions made on behalf of the respondents during
argument in the appeal. The respondents’ claim has been described as a broad catch-
all one directed at the three appellants and their servants, ranging from members of
the police and the prosecutorial services, who were involved in the decision to proceed
with the arrest and criminal charges, to the presiding magistrate and the clerk of the
regional court (all acting in the course and scope of their employment). The particulars
of claim are difficult to comprehend even though it is prefaced by a ‘summary
overview’. This summary has not made it any easier to identify, in each instance, the
respondents’ cause of action.
[18] The particulars of claim also does not comply with rule 18 of the Uniform Rules
of Court. Instead of pleading a concise statement of facts with sufficient particularity
to enable the appellants to answer thereto, the particulars of claim are impermissibly
interspersed with chunks of evidence. The damages claimed are also unclear and
imprecise. Given these deficiencies in the particulars of claim, it is difficult to see how
the respective appellants are supposed to understand the basis of the action, and the
damages sought in each instance against each of them. It is, therefore, unsurprising
that counsel for the respondents readily conceded, during argument in the appeal, that
‘the particulars of claim are not a model of clarity’.
[19] In view of the respondents’ concessions referenced above, the cause of action
ultimately reduced itself to (and on which the special plea falls to be determined) ‘the
unlawful conduct of the employees of the Minister of Justice in failing to deal with the
appeal without delay’.
[20] In terms of s 11(d) of the Prescription Act 68 of 1969 (the Act), the debts that
form the subject-matter of the respondents’ claims prescribe within three years from
the date that prescription commences to run. Section 12(1) of the Act provides that
prescription commences to run as soon as the debt in question is due, ie when it is
owing and payable. Section 12(3) of the Act provides that ‘[a] debt shall not be due
until the creditor has knowledge of the identity of the debtor and the facts from which
the debt arises: Provided that a creditor shall be deemed to have such knowledge if
he could have acquired it by exercising reasonable care’. In other words, a debt
becomes due when the creditor or claimant acquires a complete cause of action for
its recovery. This is the entire set of facts which a plaintiff must prove to succeed.6
[21] On the argument advanced by the appellants, prescription in relation to the
unlawful conduct of the servants of the Minister of Justice commenced running on 31
December 1998, as, on the pleadings, the respondents were aware by that stage of
the fact that the servants of the Minister of Justice knew that ‘it was impossible to
provide a proper record suitable for the appeal’. There is thus much to be said for the
contention that prescription commenced to run on that date.
[22] However, there may well be a further (and perhaps narrower) basis upon which
the special plea can be decided. The respondents plead in the particulars of claim that,
in April 2012, the first respondent made application to the Gauteng Division of the High
Court, Johannesburg, for an order setting aside his conviction and sentence due to
the failure of the DPP to prosecute the appeal. This application was dismissed on 18
April 2013.
[23] In support of that application, it would have been necessary for the first
respondent to have made out a case that the DPP (and the servants of the Minister of
Justice) acted unlawfully and in breach of their legal duty to ensure that the appeal
was prosecuted without undue delay. This signifies that by the date of the launch of
this application in April 2012, the first respondent had all the necessary facts at his
disposal, sufficient to found a cause of action. Prescription in respect of this claim
would, therefore, have commenced to run at the latest on the day after this application
was launched in April 2012. And, it would have prescribed three years later, in May
2015. Accordingly, on the most generous construction for the respondents, by the time
the respondents issued summons in respect of this matter on 17 June 2016, the
respondents’ claim had prescribed, more than a year earlier.
[24] For these reasons, the appeal against the dismissal of the special plea must be
upheld.
6 Cape Town Municipality and Another v Allianz Insurance Co Ltd 1990 (1) SA 311 (C) at 321; Santam
v Ethwar [1998] ZASCA 102; 1999 (2) SA 244 (SCA).
[25] In the result, the following order is made:
The appeal is upheld with costs, including those of two counsel.
The order of the high court is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘The special plea of prescription is upheld with costs, including those of two counsel
where so employed.’
________________________
F KATHREE-SETILOANE
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For the appellant:
M M W van Zyl SC with C G V O Sevenster
Instructed by:
The State Attorney, Pretoria
The State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For the respondent:
T Möller
Instructed by:
Lombard & Kriek Inc, Tygervalley
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
14 April 2023
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and
does not form part of the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development and Others v Pennington and Another
(162/2022) [2023] ZASCA 51 (14 April 2023)
Today, the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld an appeal with costs, including those of
two counsel, against the judgment of the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (the
high court), which dismissed the special plea of prescription and the plea of non-joinder raised
by the appellants in reply to a damages claim brought by the respondents.
Mr Franklin Pennington (first respondent) and his wife, Mrs Gail Pennington (second
respondent), instituted an action in the high court for damages against the appellants. The first
appellant was the Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development, the second appellant
was the Minister of Police, and the third appellant was the Minister of Home Affairs. In
response, the appellants raised, inter alia, a special plea that the respondents’ claims had
prescribed.
The facts of the matter were the following. The first respondent was arrested on 6 September
1994 on charges including fraud, forgery, and uttering. He was convicted on 2 June 1997 and
sentenced to a term of imprisonment on 17 November 1997. He noted an appeal against his
convictions and sentences. On 18 June 2015, the high court set aside the first respondent’s
convictions and sentences. The respondents issued summons in this matter on 15 June 2016.
The claims of the respondents were premised on the alleged unlawful arrest and detention of
the first respondent; his alleged malicious prosecution; and the inordinate delay in the
finalization of the appeal noted by him against his conviction and sentence, and that during
1994 to June 2015, the first respondent was prohibited from earning income.
As a result of concessions made by the respondents in the appeal, the SCA found that the
only question for determination was whether the claim for loss of income against the Minister
of Justice because of the purported unlawful conduct of its employees in failing to deal with
the appeal without delay, had prescribed.
The SCA found in this regard that on the argument advanced by the appellants, prescription
in relation to the unlawful conduct of the servants of the Minister of Justice commenced
running on 31 December 1998, as, on the pleadings, the respondents were aware by that
stage of the fact that the servants of the Minister of Justice knew that ‘it was impossible to
provide a proper record suitable for the appeal’. There was thus much to be said for the
contention that prescription commenced to run on that date.
Nevertheless, the SCA found further that there was a further (and perhaps narrower) basis
upon which the special plea could be decided. In April 2012, the first respondent made
application to the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg for an order setting aside
his conviction and sentence due to the failure of the Director of Public Prosecutions (DPP) to
prosecute the appeal. By the date of the launch of that application in April 2012, the first
respondent had all the necessary facts at his disposal, sufficient to found a cause of action.
The SCA found that prescription in respect of that claim would, therefore, have commenced
to run at the latest on the day after this application was launched in April 2012. And, it would
have prescribed three years later, in May 2015. Accordingly, the SCA found that on the most
generous construction for the respondents, by the time the respondents issued summons in
this matter on 17 June 2016, the respondents’ claim had prescribed, more than a year earlier.
~~~~ends~~~~ |
1860 | non-electoral | 2011 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 064/11
In the matter between:
SHELDON PATRICK FURLONG Appellant
and
THE STATE Respondent
Neutral citation: Furlong v State (064/11) [2011] ZASCA 103 (1 June
2011)
Coram:
NAVSA, SERITI JJA and PETSE AJA
Heard:
24 May 2011
Delivered:
1 June 2011
Summary: Criminal Law ─ sentence ─ accused charged with a
contravention of section 36 of the General Law Amendment Act 62 of 1955
─ magistrate equating offence with more serious offences ─ sentence set
aside and substituted with a lesser sentence.
_____________________________________________________________________
ORDER
On appeal from: North Gauteng High Court (Pretoria) (Mavundla J and
Van Zyl AJ sitting as a court of appeal):
1.
The appeal is allowed.
2.
The order of the court a quo is set aside and in its place the
following is substituted:
‘1.
The appeal is upheld.
2.
The sentence imposed by the magistrate is altered to read as
follows:
“The accused is sentenced to three years’ and two days’ imprisonment.”
3.
The substituted sentence set out in 2 above is antedated to 18 May
2007.’
___________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
PETSE AJA (NAVSA and SERITI JJA concurring)
[1] The appellant stood trial in the regional court, Musina, on a charge
of contravening s 36 of the General Law Amendment Act 62 of 1955.1
[2] It was common cause at the trial that on or about 24 October 2006
the appellant was, at or near Beit Bridge in the regional division of
1 S36 provides:
‘Failure to give a satisfactory account of possession of goods. Any person who is found in possession
of any goods, other than stock or produce as defined in section one of the Stock Theft Act, 1959 (Act
57 of 1959), in regard to which there is reasonable suspicion they have been stolen and is unable to
give a satisfactory account of such possession, shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to
the penalties which may be imposed on a conviction of theft.
Limpopo, found in unlawful possession of an Audi Q7 four-wheel drive
motor vehicle (the vehicle) valued at R750 000. There was a reasonable
suspicion that the vehicle had been stolen as the appellant was unable to
proffer a satisfactory account of such possession.
[3] Having pleaded guilty to the charge he was duly convicted as
charged and sentenced to imprisonment for a period of seven years.
[4] The appellant unsuccessfully appealed against his sentence to the
Pretoria High Court. Aggrieved by this result the appellant applied to the
Pretoria High Court for leave to pursue a further appeal against sentence
to this court, which was granted.
[5] The owner of the vehicle, Mr Hlanigani Joseph Maluleke testified
in relation to sentence only. A summary of his evidence is set out
hereunder. On 14 October 2006 at about 19h00 he was driving the vehicle
on Klagobela Street in Atteridgeville when he realised that there was a
white motor vehicle driving behind him. When he reached the end of the
street, which was a cul-de-sac, a white motor vehicle parked behind him,
rendering it impossible for him to execute a u-turn. Suddenly someone
was pointing a gun at him alongside the driver’s window of his vehicle,
demanding that he alight. He complied and at that stage saw two other
men opening the rear passenger door of his vehicle. Then he was shoved
into the vehicle and instructed to lie face down as they drove from the
scene.
[6] The hijackers searched Mr Maluleke and seized his automated
bank teller cards. He was compelled to disclose the personal identity
numbers of his bank cards under threat of death should the numbers
disclosed turn out to be false. Later he was ejected from the vehicle,
pushed down a slope and bushy area, with both his hands tied behind his
back. He managed to walk to a toll plaza on the N4 road between
Rustenburg and Atteridgeville from where the police were summoned.
[7] Mr Maluleke subsequently learnt, on making enquires from
Standard Bank and ABSA Bank, that a total of R18000 had been
withdrawn from his bank accounts. When his motor vehicle was
recovered by the police on 24 October 2006 his laptop, digital camera,
bank cards and cheque book were missing. Due to the fact that he was
robbed of his motor vehicle at night he could not identify his assailants.
So much then for his evidence.
[8] It is apposite at this stage to mention that in his written statement in
substantiation of his guilty plea in terms of s 112(2) of the Criminal
Procedure Act 51 of 1977, the appellant admitted all the essential
elements of the offence charged including admitting that at the time of his
arrest he was in no position to give a satisfactory account of his
possession of the vehicle and that his dealings with the vehicle were at all
material times intentional and unlawful.
[9] The circumstances in which an appellate court would be justified in
interfering with a sentence of the trial court have been restated in a long
line of judgments of this court. In S v Mtungwa & ‘n ander 1990 (2)
SACR 1 (A) this court held that once it is shown that one, some or all of
the following factors exist the appellate court would be justified to
interfere, namely: if the sentence is, for example, (i) disturbingly
inappropriate; (ii) totally out of proportion to the magnitude of the
offence; (iii) sufficiently disparate; (iv) vitiated by misdirection showing
that the trial court exercised its discretion unreasonably and (v) is
otherwise such that no reasonable court would have imposed it. (See also
S v L 1998 (1) SACR 463 (SCA); S v Salzwedel & others 1999 (2) SACR
586 (SCA); S v Giannoulis 1975 (4) SA 867 (A) at 868G-H; S v
Kgosimore 1999 (2) SACR 328 (SCA) at para 10)
[10] On appeal before us the severity of the sentence imposed on the
appellant was assailed on a number of bases. It was contended that the
trial court paid little or no regard to the moral blameworthiness of the
appellant; failed to give due weight to the fact that by pleading guilty the
appellant had thereby expressed contrition; and committed a material
misdirection by imposing ‘an exemplary sentence’ that had the effect of
‘dramatically altering the existing sentencing patterns’.
[11] The critical issue for determination in this appeal therefore is
whether the trial court committed a material misdirection of the nature
alleged or there is otherwise justification warranting interference with the
sentence imposed by the trial court. Allied to that issue is the question
whether the court a quo should have come to a conclusion different to the
one reached by it.
[12] The magistrate based his reasoning for the sentence imposed on the
following factors: (a) the seriousness of the offence that the appellant was
convicted of, aggravated by the fact that the vehicle concerned had been
hijacked; (b) the alertness of the police that led to the recovery of the
vehicle meant that their ‘good work’ was deserving of appreciation to be
reflected by imposing a sentence that ‘would encourage them to combat
crime in the future as they have in this case’; (c) that car-hijackers and
thieves would continue relentlessly with their nefarious activities for so
long as there were people such as the appellant who hold themselves
ready to dispose of hijacked and stolen vehicles; (d) the prevalence of the
offence in the area of jurisdiction of the trial court.
[13] In making these observations on reaching a decision on an
appropriate sentence the trial court was in fact equating the offence that
the appellant was charged with with the offence of robbery and/or theft.
Put differently he was being punished for more serious offences than the
one he was being charged with. In particular the magistrate appeared
intent on punishing the appellant for the actions of the hi-jackers. This is
a material misdirection which is inextricably linked with the trial court’s
decision on an appropriate sentence. There is no doubt that it is that view
that resulted in a more severe sentence. This court is thus at large to
interfere.
[14] Although the learned magistrate was at pains to point out that he
would take care not to sacrifice the appellant on the altar of deterrence, I
am satisfied that, given the severity of the sentence that he ultimately
imposed on the appellant, he in fact only paid lip service to this laudable
principle.
[15] It remains to consider what, in the circumstances, is an appropriate
sentence in substitution of the one imposed by the trial court and
confirmed by the court a quo.
[16] We were informed by counsel for the appellant at the hearing of
the appeal ─ following inquiries made by him from correctional services
at the behest of this court ─ that the appellant had been released under
correctional supervision on 20 May 2010. The appellant was sentenced to
seven years’ imprisonment on 18 May 2007, which then means that he
had served three years of his seven year sentence. Prior to his conviction
he was in police detention for four months awaiting trial. He was at the
time of his conviction a first offender and 40 years of age. It must be
mentioned that, although he pleaded guilty to the charge, it is not possible
to discern, on the evidence before us, whether his guilty plea can be taken
as an expression of genuine remorse or was rather provoked by a stark
realisation on his part that the State had ‘an open and shut’ case against
him, in which event his guilty plea would be a neutral factor.2 The
appellant also had two minor children then aged 11 and 15 years who, it
would appear, were solely dependant on him for their livelihood. He had
just found employment as a despatch clerk from which he would have
earned a salary of R2000 per month.
[17] The appellant’s counsel submitted on his behalf that the appellant’s
role was merely to deliver the vehicle to someone in Zimbabwe. This
submission appears well founded.
[18] There are aggravating factors that are deserving of due
consideration. The appellant was convicted of a serious offence. It is thus
perfectly understandable that the learned magistrate gave the appellant’s
plea for an option of a fine short shrift. As stated before he had been
found in possession of a relatively new motor vehicle, worth almost R800
000, which was on the verge of being whisked away beyond the borders
of this country.
[19] There is no doubt that a sentence of 7 years’ imprisonment is more
appropriate in the case of theft of a motor vehicle. And as pointed out
2 See S v Barnard 2004 (1) SACR 191 (SCA) at 197g-h.
before the magistrate in sentencing the appellant appeared intent on
punishing the appellant for the acts of the hi-jackers. The period spent in
jail by the appellant awaiting trial and the fact that he has already been
released under correctional supervision are relevant factors in a decision
concerning an appropriate sentence.
[20] In my view the state rightly conceded that a suitable sentence in all
the circumstances of this case is the period of imprisonment already
served. The effect of the order below is that there will be no further
period of imprisonment to be served by the appellant. Thus the sentence
will be antedated.
[21] In the result the following order is made:
1.
The appeal is allowed.
2.
The order of the court a quo is set aside and in its place the
following is substituted:
‘1.
The appeal is upheld.
2.
The sentence imposed by the magistrate is altered to read as
follows:
“The accused is sentenced to three years’ and two days’ imprisonment.”
3.
The substituted sentence set out in 2 above is antedated to 18 May
2007.’
___________________
XM Petse
Acting Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES
APPELLANT:
HL Alberts
Instructed by Pretoria Justice Centre, Pretoria;
Bloemfontein Justice Centre, Bloemfontein.
RESPONDENT: SR Sibara
Instructed by Director of Public Prosecutions,
Pretoria;
Director of Public Prosecutions, Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
1 June 2011
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
* * *
FURLONG V THE STATE
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) today upheld an appeal against an order of the North
Gauteng High Court, Pretoria dismissing Mr Furlong’s appeal against a sentence of seven
years’ imprisonment imposed upon him by a regional court for the unlawful possession of a
motor vehicle in contravention of section 36 of the General Law Amendment Act 62 of
1955.
The vehicle had been robbed from its owner at gunpoint. Due to the fact that the robbery
took place at night the owner of the vehicle could not identify his assailants, hence the
appellant was charged with a contravention of section 36. He pleaded guilty to the charge
and, as stated above, was sentenced to seven years’ imprisonment. The question before the
SCA was whether the trial court had committed a material misdirection by imposing such a
sentence.
The SCA held that the appellant was punished for more serious offences than the one he
was charged with. The magistrate appeared intent on punishing the appellant for the actions
of the robbers. This, the SCA held, was a material misdirection which was inextricably
linked with the magistrate’s decision on an appropriate sentence. This material
misdirection, the SCA further held, entitled it to interfere with the sentence imposed by the
magistrate. It substituted the sentence of seven years’ imprisonment with a sentence of
three years’ two days’ imprisonment, antedated to the date on which the appellant was
sentenced by the magistrate, which is the sentence that the appellant had served before
being released under correctional supervision. |
3701 | non-electoral | 2021 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case no: 759/2020
In the matter between:
CHRISTIAAN BRITS
APPELLANT
and
MINISTER OF POLICE FIRST RESPONDENT
COLONEL JAMES ESPACH
SECOND RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Brits v Minister of Police & Another (759/2020) [2021] ZASCA 161
(23 November 2021)
Coram:
PETSE AP and MATHOPO, MOCUMIE, MOLEMELA and
MOTHLE JJA
Heard:
25 August 2021
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties' representatives via email, publication on the Supreme Court of
Appeal website and release to SAFLII. The date and time for hand-down
is deemed to be 10h00 on 23 November 2021.
Summary:
Delict – unlawful arrest and detention – vicarious liability of the Minister
of Police – appropriate amount of compensation.
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Limpopo Division of the High Court, Polokwane (Makgoba JP and
Mudau J sitting as court of appeal):
The appeal is upheld with costs.
The order of the high court is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘1
The appeal is upheld with costs.
The order of the Magistrates’ Court, Tzaneen, is set aside and replaced
with the following:
“(a)
The first defendant is ordered to pay R70 000 as general damages to
the plaintiff.
(b)
The first defendant is ordered to pay R7 239.
(c)
The amounts in paragraphs (a) and (b) above shall bear interest at the
prescribed rate from date of the judgment of the Magistrates’ Court,
Tzaneen, being 11 January 2018 to date of payment.
(d)
The first defendant is ordered to pay the plaintiff’s costs of suit.”’
___________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
___________________________________________________________________
Molemela JA (Petse AP and Mathopo, Mocumie and Mothle JJA concurring)
Introduction
[1] This appeal arises from a delictual claim for damages instituted by the
appellant, Mr Christiaan Brits as the plaintiff, against the respondents as the
defendants in the Magistrates Court, Tzaneen (the trial court). The basis of the claim
was that the second respondent, Col Espach, (cited as the second defendant in the
trial court) had acted wrongfully and unlawfully when he arrested the appellant without
a warrant at the latter's business premises, a dealership in second hand goods and
scrap metal, on suspicion of being complicit in the offence of possession of property
suspected to be stolen. The claim against the first respondent, the Minister of Police
(cited as the first defendant in the trial court), was on the basis of vicarious liability.
The trial court found that the arrest was justified and thus dismissed the appellant’s
claim with costs. The appellant appealed to the Limpopo Division of the High Court
(the high court). That court, per Mudau J with Makgoba JP concurring, dismissed the
appeal with costs. Aggrieved by that decision, the appellant sought and was granted
special leave by this Court.
Background facts
[2] The circumstances leading to the appellant’s arrest are largely undisputed. The
appellant stated in his evidence-in-chief that metal scrap dealers were regulated by
law in relation to the sale and purchase of second-hand goods. He testified about the
procedure normally followed at his shop whenever a seller offered to sell scrap metal.
This procedure was in apparent reference to the Second-Hand Goods Act 6 of 2009
(Second-Hand Goods Act), which prescribes that all scrap metal dealers engaged in
recycling of any controlled metals be registered and keep a register that contains the
details of the seller, a description of the product sold, as well as the price involved in
the object of sale. He stated that the scrap metal offered for sale is usually a mixture
of different metals, like aluminium, iron, pieces of stone and pieces of plastic.
According to the appellant, once the metal is brought to his shop, the process followed
by the shop-assistants entailed separating and sorting different metals out. After the
sorting process, ‘the metal is then weighed, written up in the register, the price
calculated, the ID document [of the seller] would be photocopied, and then the person
leaves with his money’. His explanation of the procedure followed at his shop was not
disputed by the respondents.
[3] On the morning of 4 July 2014 the appellant received a text message from his
former employee, Mr Dube, asking the appellant to phone him. He ignored the text
message. About 30 minutes later, Mr Dube sent a message to his phone via the short
message service (SMS) informing him that he had copper for sale. He told Mr Dube
to take it to the shop. He explained that the reason he directed him to the shop was
because all business transactions were done at his business premises. He
subsequently received a call from the manager of his business, Mr Michael Mashapu
(Mr Mashapu), who told him that the police were at the business premises and required
his presence. Upon arrival at the shop, Col Espach told him that Mr Mashapu had
purchased stolen copper and the appellant would therefore be arrested. He informed
Col Espach that Mr Dube had sent him an SMS offering to sell him copper. He
professed his innocence and even offered to assist Col Espach to locate Dube. After
reading the SMS exchange, Col Espach confiscated his phone and then arrested him.
He was detained from about 12h00 and subsequently released on bail the following
day, 5 July 2014, at about 13h00. As a result of the arrest, he engaged the services of
a legal representative. He incurred legal expenses in the amount of R7239 in respect
of the bail proceedings. The appellant’s version of events was not controverted.
[4] Mr Mashapu testified that on the day of the incident, three men entered the
shop and offered to sell scrap metal that was contained in a bag. While he and a
female shop assistant were in the process of examining the items that were brought
to the shop by these men, Col Espach entered the shop. He was dressed in civilian
clothing. He grabbed one of the three men, identified himself as a police officer and
produced his appointment card. The three persons all managed to flee. He maintained
that Col Espach entered the shop before he and his female colleague had had an
opportunity of inspecting the contents of the bag. At that moment, the contents of the
bag had not yet been weighed and no transaction to purchase its contents had been
entered into. He also pointed out that at that stage, he bore no knowledge of the SMS
exchanges between the appellant and Dube. According to Mr Mashapu, the appellant
had, at no stage, instructed him to buy or take possession of the items brought to the
shop by the three men. He further testified that after Col Espach had introduced
himself to him, he called the appellant to apprise him of the situation. While he was
talking to the appellant, Col Espach took the phone from him and instructed the
appellant to come to his shop, indicating that he intended arresting him.
[5] Although Mr Mashapu’s evidence was that he was not allowed to purchase
second-hand copper, it was common cause that the appellant, in the normal course of
his business as a second-hand scrap metal dealership, was permitted to deal in all
types of metals within the precepts of the law. Mr Mashapu’s evidence regarding the
procedure followed when a seller was offering to sell second hand goods accorded
with that of the appellant. He confirmed the procedures as set out by the appellant,
commencing with the assessment of the nature of the goods brought by the seller and
culminating with the recordal of the information in the register and the filing of a copy
of the seller’s ID document. He explained that the metals usually brought to the shop
for sale consisted mostly of aluminium, radiators and stainless steel metal sheets. He
explained that sorting the material offered for sale was important as different metals
had varying prices. Whenever someone was selling various metals, the metal would
first be sorted before being weighed. I interpose to mention that to the extent that Mr
Mashapu’s account of events was not challenged, it must be accepted as correct.1
[6] Colonel Espach testified that on 4 July 2014 he was on duty and had stopped
his unmarked vehicle at a petrol station when he saw two men walking in the street
carrying what seemed to be a very heavy bag. The two men were coming from the
direction of some smallholdings in the area, which was an area that was beset with
the theft of copper cables, borehole shafts and transformers. The men were struggling
to carry the bag. This fortified his suspicion that the contents of the bag could be
copper cables stolen from the industrial area. He decided to watch the movements of
these persons in the hope that they would lead him to the kingpin who had created a
market for the theft of copper cables.
[7] He observed a third man (who was later identified to him as Mr Dube)
approaching the duo with a shopping trolley and noted that the heavy bag was loaded
on the trolley, whereafter the trio walked together in the direction of a second-hand
metal dealership. He phoned his colleagues, reported on his observations and asked
for a back-up team to be dispatched. He followed the trio and saw them entering a
second-hand metal dealership with the shopping trolley. Watching from the street
while awaiting the arrival of the back-up team, he noticed that the bag was taken out
of the trolley and put on a counter, whereafter it was attended to by two shop
attendants, who later turned out to be Mr Mashapu and an elderly lady. He realised
that a transaction was in progress but did not ascertain whether the transaction was
concluded because he was moving up and down in the street so that the back-up team
could see him. He decided to enter the shop to confront all the persons who were
involved in the transaction, as he feared that the men in question would soon leave
the premises.
1 President of the Republic of South Africa and Others v South African Rugby Football Union and Others
[199] ZACC 11; 1999 (10) BCLR 1059; 2000 (1) SA 1 (CC) para 62.
[8] Upon entering the shop, he produced his appointment card, introduced himself
and ordered everyone to stand still. At that point, one of the two men who had initially
carried the bag pushed him out of the way and the two of them headed for the door.
He grabbed one of them, but Mr Dube loosened his grip to help the man escape. He
tried chasing the two men in the street, but they outran him. In the intervening period,
Mr Dube also fled the scene.
[9] He stated that once he was back at the appellant’s shop, he ordered everyone
to remain inside until the backup team arrived. He learnt that the person behind the
counter, Mr Mashapu, was the manager of the business. He noticed that the bag
previously carried by the suspects who had fled was placed on the counter and that
the contents thereof had been put in a sack belonging to the shop. Upon the arrival of
his back-up colleagues, it was discovered that the contents of the bag were copper
cables that had been cut into pieces. The pieces of copper were weighed and found
to weigh 29.8 kg. He asked Mr Mashapu to phone the owner of the business. The
appellant subsequently arrived at the premises and introduced himself as the owner
of the dealership.
[10] Upon the appellant's arrival, he (Col Espach) requested to see his cellular
phone. Without asking for the appellant’s permission, he looked at the messages on
the appellant’s cellular phone. He discovered that the appellant had had an SMS
exchange with Mr Dube, in terms of which Mr Dube had offered to sell him copper.
The SMS exchange revealed that in response to the appellant’s enquiry about the
weight of the copper, Mr Dube had informed him that it weighed 20kg. The appellant
had then told Mr Dube to take it to his shop. The SMS exchange led him to suspect
that the appellant was complicit in the theft of the copper cables that were brought to
his shop. On the basis of that suspicion, he decided to arrest the appellant without a
warrant and took him to the police station, where he was kept in detention until he was
released on bail on the afternoon of 5 July 2014. The appellant furnished Mr Dube’s
address to the police and he was later arrested.
[11] Under cross examination, Col Espach conceded that the appellant was, as a
second-hand dealer, allowed to buy copper. He stated that his concern was that the
appellant had been contacted directly by the seller ‘as if it is a special copper that
needs to be delivered that side’. He also conceded that even though he had
confiscated the appellant’s phone, a transcript of the SMS exchange was not available
to be handed in as evidence. His evidence that Mr Dube had told the appellant that
the copper weighed 20kg thus remained unsubstantiated.
[12] Colonel Usiba was called as the respondents’ witness. He confirmed that he
was part of the back-up police team summoned to the scene by Col Espach. He stated
that upon his arrival at the shop, he and his colleagues were shown a mealie meal
sack containing copper cables. The copper cables were on the counter, near the scale.
Furthermore, he confirmed having seen the SMS exchange between the appellant and
Mr Dube in relation to the copper that Mr Dube was asked to bring to the shop. Under
cross-examination, he conceded that one could not easily tell that the copper brought
to the shop was burnt. None of the companies approached during police investigations
were able to identify the copper as their property. The investigating officer, Mr
Rasebotsa, also testified as the respondents’ witness. Nothing turns on his evidence.
Suffice to mention that he stated that, from his point of view, the proceedings were still
pending.
[13] It is common cause that the appellant, Mr Dube and a third co-accused
appeared before the magistrate's court in Tzaneen on a charge of possession of
property suspected to be stolen in contravention of s 362 of Act 62 of 1955. It appears
that the charges were then provisionally withdrawn on 17 November 2014, apparently
to allow for the re-arrest of Mr Dube, who had absconded whilst out on bail. The trial
commenced on 5 September 2016 and was concluded on 24 March 2017.
Legal principles applicable to an arrest without a warrant
[14] In their plea, the respondents admitted the appellant’s arrest without a warrant
and his subsequent detention. Their justification of the arrest was simply set out as
2 Section 36 of Act 62 of 1955 provides:
‘Failure to give a satisfactory account of possession of goods
- Any person who is found in possession of any goods ... in regard to which there is reasonable
suspicion that they have been stolen and is unable to give a satisfactory account of such possession,
shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to the penalties which may be imposed on a
conviction of theft.'
follows: ‘… the arrest was lawful as the Plaintiff was arrested for possession of
suspected stolen property.’ It is trite that the arrest and detention of any person
are prima facie wrongful, as they amount to a deprivation of a person's liberty. Section
12 of the Constitution guarantees every person the right not to be deprived of freedom
arbitrarily or without just cause and not to be detained without trial. In Minister of Safety
and Security v Van Niekerk,3 the Constitutional Court stated as follows:
’17. . . . [T]he constitutionality of an arrest will almost invariably be heavily dependent on its
factual circumstances.
…
20. [I]t would not be desirable for this Court to attempt in an abstract way divorced from the
facts of this case, to articulate a blanket, all-purpose test for constitutionally acceptable
arrests.’
[15] As regards the onus to prove the lawfulness of an arrest, the Constitutional
Court in Mahlangu and Another v Minister of Police,4 said:
‘It follows that in a claim based on the interference with the constitutional right not to be
deprived of one’s physical liberty, all that the plaintiff has to establish is that the interference
has occurred. Once this has been established, the deprivation is prima facie unlawful and the
defendant bears an onus to prove that there was a justification for the interference.’
In this matter, the arrest was not in dispute; it was therefore common cause that the
respondent bore the onus to prove the lawfulness thereof.
[16] Section 40 of the CPA provides, in relevant parts, as follows:
‘40 Arrest by peace officer without a warrant
(1) A peace officer may without a warrant arrest any person-
…
(b) whom he reasonably suspects of having committed an offence referred in Schedule 1,
other than the offence of escaping from lawful custody.
. . .
(e) who is found in possession of anything which the peace officer reasonably suspects
to be stolen property or property dishonestly obtained, and whom the peace officer
reasonably suspects of having committed an offence with respect to such thing.’
3 Minister of Safety and Security v Van Niekerk 2008(1) SACR 56 (CC); 2007 (10) BCLR 1102 (CC)
paras 17 and 20.
4 Mahlangu and Another v Minister of Police [2021] ZACC 10; 2021 (7) BCLR 698 (CC) para 32.
[17] The respondents did not, in their plea, specify the subsection of s 40 on which
they relied for their justification of the appellant’s arrest. The trial court proceeded on
the premise that reliance was placed on s 40(1)(b) of the Criminal Procedure Act. The
high court, traversed both s 40(1)(b), on the basis of the charge preferred against the
appellant being listed in Schedule 1 of the CPA, and s 40(1)(e), which provides that ‘a
peace officer may without warrant arrest any person who is found in possession of
anything which the peace officer reasonably suspects to be stolen property or property
dishonestly obtained, and whom the peace officer reasonably suspects of having
committed an offence with respect to such thing’.
[18] In Duncan v Minister of Law and Order for the Republic of South Africa
(Duncan)5 it was held that an arrest without a warrant would be justified as envisaged
in s 40(1)(b) of the CPA if the following jurisdictional facts were present: (i) the arrestor
must be a peace-officer; (ii) the arrestor must entertain a suspicion; (iii) the suspicion
must be that the suspect (the arrestee) committed an offence referred to in Schedule
1; and (iv) the suspicion must rest on reasonable grounds. The learned Judge of
Appeal stated further that ‘If the jurisdictional requirements are satisfied, the peace
officer may invoke the power conferred by the subsection; ie, he [or she] may arrest
the suspect. In other words, he [or she] then has a discretion as to whether or not to
exercise that power (cf Holgate-Mohamed v Duke [1948] 1 All SA ER 1054 (HL) at
1057). No doubt the discretion must be properly exercised. But the grounds on which
the exercise of such a discretion can be questioned are narrowly circumscribed.’
[19] Applying the same reasoning as in Duncan, the jurisdictional factors that have
to be proved by a defendant who relies on s 40(1)(e) as a defence are: (i) the arrestor
must be a peace officer; (ii) the suspect must be found in possession of property; (iii)
the arrestor must entertain a suspicion that the property has been stolen and illegally
obtained; (iv) the arrestor must entertain a suspicion that a person found in possession
of the property has committed an offence in respect of the property; and (v) the
arrestor’s suspicion must rest on reasonable grounds. It is trite that once the
5 Duncan v Minister of Law and Order for the Republic of South Africa (Duncan) [1986] 2 All SA 241
(A); 1986(2) SA 805 (A) at 818F-H.
jurisdictional facts for an arrest in terms of any one of the paragraphs of s 40(1) are
present, a discretion arises.6
[20] The following remarks made by the court in Mabona and Another v Minister of
Law and Order and Others (Mabona)7 in relation to the issue of a reasonable suspicion
are apposite:
‘The test of whether a suspicion is reasonably entertained within the meaning of s 40 (1)(b) is
objective. . . . Would a reasonable man in the second defendant's position and possessed of
the same information have considered that there were good and sufficient grounds for
suspecting that the plaintiffs were guilty of conspiracy to commit robbery or possession of
stolen property knowing it to have been stolen? It seems to me that in evaluating his
information a reasonable man would bear in mind that the section authorises drastic police
action. It authorises an arrest on the strength of a suspicion and without the need to swear
out a warrant, ie something which otherwise would be an invasion of private rights and
personal liberty. The reasonable man will therefore analyse and assess the quality of the
information at his disposal critically, and he will not accept it lightly or without checking it where
it can be checked. It is only after an examination of this kind that he will allow himself to
entertain a suspicion which will justify an arrest. This is not to say that the information at his
disposal must be of sufficiently high quality and cogency to engender in him a conviction that
the suspect is in fact guilty. The section requires suspicion but not certainty. However, the
suspicion must be based upon solid grounds. Otherwise, it will be flighty or arbitrary, and
not a reasonable suspicion.’
These remarks are, mutatis mutandis, equally apposite in relation to the provisions of
s 40(1)(e).
Application of the legal principles to the facts
[21] The fundamental question is whether Col Espach, prior to the arrest,
reasonably suspected the appellant of having committed an offence in respect of the
copper cables brought to his shop by the three men. The trial court and the high court
found that he did. The ratio of the decision of the high court can be found in the
following passage:
6 Ibid.; also see Minister of Safety and Security v Sekhoto and Another [2010] ZASCA 141; 2011 (5) SA
367 (SCA) para 28.
7 Mabona and Another v Minister of Law and Order and Others 1988(2) SA 654 (SCE) at 658E-G.
‘On the probabilities, [Mr Mashapu] would not have started the process of measurement,
before the contents of the bag were ascertained. The measurement of the copper
presupposed an important end-stage, receipt of the copper on behalf of the shop. Colonel
Espach intervened at the stage when the copper was weighed, consistent with the laid down
procedure in the shop. What remained was payment for the copper to the sellers and for the
relevant details to be entered in the register.
Objectively considered, the arresting police officer in this matter had reasonable grounds for
his suspicion and exercised his discretion accordingly. His suspicion that the appellant was
involved in the sale of illicit copper was completely justified by the peculiar circumstances. In
this case, the appellant, on his version, told a former employee to deliver copper to his shop.
On his version, the appellant suspected that the copper was stolen.
Prima facie, the appellant exercised constructive control of the copper through his employee,
[Mr Mashapu]. That the copper was stolen is fortified by the fact that those who brought it,
including the former employee, Dube, are at large, which gave rise to the authorization of a
warrant of arrest and the temporary withdrawal of the charges.’
[22] The difficulty for the respondents is that none of the findings in the passage
above are borne out by any evidence at all. The appellant never conceded that the
contents of the bag were stolen property. The high court therefore erred in finding that
the appellant had made such a concession. It seems to me that the high court
considered certain parts of the evidence in isolation instead of analysing the evidence
in its entirety.8 It failed to take into account that, by Col Espach’s own admission, at
the time when he was standing in the street, he was not focused solely on what was
happening in the shop because he was also on the lookout for the expected arrival of
the back-up team. A significant concession which does not seem to have been taken
into account by the high court is that Col Espach admitted that he entered the shop
before the transaction was finalised.
[23] There can be no debate that a buyer dealing with second-hand goods would
first want to see the goods offered to him before deciding whether or not to purchase
them. The appellant's and Mr Mashapu’s testimony about the protocols followed at the
appellant’s shop are plausible. Notably, Mr Mashapu’s evidence that Col Espach
entered while he was busy inspecting the contents of the bag was not disputed.
8 S v Shilakwe 2012 (1) SACR 16 (SCA) at 20, para 11.
Similarly, it was not put to him that by the time Col Espach entered the shop, he (Mr
Mashapu) had already weighed the copper cables. Under such circumstances, the
high court’s findings that ‘[t]he measurement of the copper presupposed an important
end-stage, receipt of the copper on behalf of the shop’ and that ‘Col Espach intervened
at the stage when the copper was weighed’ are clearly erroneous.
[24] It is clear from Col Espach’s own version that he acted hastily and pounced
prematurely, as the transaction had not yet been concluded. In terms of the Second-
Hand Goods Act, a buyer must inspect the goods and satisfy himself or herself that
the seller is in lawful possession of the goods in question before buying them. The
second-hand dealer must also record the details of the transaction in a register. The
Act further imposes a duty on the second-hand dealer to report any suspicious items
to the police and obtain an acknowledgment that he or she made a report. Mr
Mashapu’s evidence was that Col Espach entered the shop before he had had an
opportunity to follow the protocols set out in the Act. That being the case, his
compliance with that Act was interrupted by Col Espach at the stage when he was
determining the contents of the bag. He can therefore not be faulted for the absence
of the relevant documentation.
[25] It is significant that on Col Espach’s own evidence, money had not yet
exchanged hands. This must be the reason why the three men were still in the shop
when Col Espach arrived at the scene. The persons who brought the copper cables
to the appellant’s shop fled as soon as Col Espach had introduced himself. It could
therefore not be established whether Mr Mashapu would have purchased the contents
of the bag or not. Objectively considered, a reasonable police officer who was privy to
the same information as Col Espach would not have reasonably suspected that the
appellant was complicit in the three suspects’ possession of the copper cables. There
was simply no basis for such a suspicion.
[26] As regards the SMS exchange, both the trial court and the high court lost the
context of the circumstances under which the SMS text messages between the
appellant and Mr Dube were exchanged. The explanation given by the appellant for
the SMS exchange was reasonable. This is more so the case because the appellant
is the one who volunteered the information pertaining to the SMS exchange between
himself and Mr Dube, to Col Espach. The undisputed evidence was that Mr Dube had
sent the appellant a text message requesting him to phone him and the appellant had
ignored that message because he did not want to talk to him. The appellant’s evidence
that he did not want to speak to Mr Dube because he had dismissed him over theft is
a plausible version that was confirmed by Mr Mashapu. Even on Col Espach’s version,
Mr Dube was merely told to take the copper to the shop. Nothing in Col Espach’s
evidence suggested that the SMS exchange was incriminatory. There was no basis
for the trial court’s conclusion that a transaction for the sale of copper was concluded
via SMS.
[27] The respondents’ pleaded case was that the appellant had been found in
possession of property suspected to be stolen. According to Snyman, a person is
‘found in possession’ within the contemplation of s 36 of Act 62 of 1955 if he or she
has personal and direct control over the goods suspected of having been stolen; it is
not sufficient that he exercises control through an agent or a subordinate.9 The high
court found that the appellant had exercised constructive control of the copper cables
through Mr Mashapu. Relying on an obiter statement in S v Wilson (Wilson),10 the high
court reasoned that the appellant was in possession of the copper cables even though
he was not physically present at the shop when they were found. In that case,
possession of dagga was imputed to the appellant as the owner of the premises where
dagga was found in a locked storage area in the appellant’s absence.
[28] Reliance on the Wilson judgment is misplaced, in my view, as this case is
distinguishable both on the facts and the law. First, the charge in that matter related
to the possession of dagga and not the possession of good suspected to be stolen as
set out in s 36 of Act 62 of 1955; second, the court expressly stated that it was not
necessary for it to decide the precise meaning of the expression ‘found in possession’
as used in s 36 of Act 62 of 1955; third, the court accepted that the owner of the
property had exercised a measure of control over the illicit goods; fourth, in coming to
its conclusion that the appellant in that matter was in possession of the dagga, the
9 CR Snyman, Criminal Law, 5th ed at 525.
10 S v Wilson 1962 (2) SA 619 (A).
court inter alia took into account that the appellant had, at the time when the dagga
was found, admitted that it was his property.
[29] In this matter, the appellant had never been shown to have exercised any
control over the illicit goods. Contrary to the high court’s finding, he never admitted to
knowing that the copper cables were stolen. On Col Espach’s own evidence, the bag
containing the copper cables was still on the counter when he entered the shop and
had not been locked away. Under those circumstances, I am not persuaded that Mr
Mashapu ever assumed possession of the copper cables in question. Mr Mashapu
categorically stated that the appellant had not, prior to the three men’s arrival at the
shop, instructed him to purchase or take possession of the contents of their bag.
Therefore, there can be no question of Mr Mashapu having accepted the copper
cables as an agent on behalf of the appellant or the appellant having exercised
constructive control of the copper through Mr Mashapu. It would therefore be wrong
to impute unlawful possession of the copper in question to the appellant. Insofar as
the high court found this to have been the case, it erred.
[30] On a holistic consideration of all the evidence, the circumstances under which
the goods suspected to be stolen ended up at the appellant’s shop were in part within
the knowledge of Col Espach as he had witnessed their conveyance to the appellant’s
shop. Furthermore, the appellant proffered a reasonable explanation regarding the
circumstances surrounding his SMS exchange with Mr Dube. Armed with all of that
information, any further suspicion on the part of Col Espach could only have fallen
within the category of a ‘flighty or arbitrary, and not a reasonable suspicion’.11 To the
extent that Col Espach continued to harbour a suspicion notwithstanding the plausible
explanation given by the appellant, his suspicion did not pass the test laid down in
Mabona and was therefore not reasonable.
[31] Another significant consideration is that the respondents did not dispute the
evidence that when Col Espach phoned the appellant, he told him that he must come
to the shop so that he could arrest him. Bearing in mind his evidence that he wanted
to arrest the ‘kingpin’ who ordered stolen goods and created a market therefor’, the
11 Mabona and Another v Minister of Law and Order and Others, footnote 7 above at 658H.
ineluctable inference is that Col Espach had made up his mind to arrest the appellant
long before he even arrived on the premises and did not apply his mind to the
appellant’s explanation pertaining to the SMS exchange.
[32] For all the reasons mentioned above, I am of the view that a police officer
possessed of all the information, including the SMS exchange and the explanation
therefor, would not have reasonably suspected that the appellant was complicit in the
unlawful possession of the copper cables. This finding is dispositive on the issue of
liability, as one of the jurisdictional factors that render an arrest without a warrant lawful
(a reasonable suspicion), is lacking. Put differently, the question whether the arrestor
exercised a discretion to effect an arrest without a warrant only comes up for
consideration once all the jurisdictional factors have been established. There is
therefore no need for this Court to address itself to the enquiry as to whether or not
Col Espach had exercised any discretion prior to effecting the arrest.12 As it was
common cause that he was acting within the course and scope of his employment with
the first respondent at the time when the appellant was arrested, it follows that the first
respondent was vicariously liable for Col Espach's wrongful acts.
The determination of quantum
[33] It is common cause that the unlawful arrest led to the appellant’s detention for
a period of approximately one day. The trial court and the high court did not consider
the issue of quantum as they found that the appellant’s arrest and detention were
lawful. Although awards of damages made in previous decisions may serve as a guide
in the consideration of an appropriate amount of damages for the injury resulting from
unlawful arrest and detention, such awards are not to be followed slavishly, for every
case must be determined on its facts.13 It must be borne in mind that the primary
purpose of an award of damages for unlawful arrest and detention is not to enrich the
aggrieved party but to offer him or her some solatium for their injured feelings.
12 See Minister of Safety and Security v Sekhoto and Another [2010] ZASCA 141; 2011 (5) SA 367
(SCA) para 28.
13 Minister of Safety and Security v Seymour 2006 (6) SA 320 (SCA) para 17; Rudolph and Others v
Minister of Safety and Security and Another 2009 (5) SA 94 (SCA) para 26-29.
[34] In Kammies v Minister of Police and Another,14 the plaintiff was detained for
three days and awarded damages in the sums of R70 000. In Rahim and Others v
Minister of Home Affairs,15 this Court awarded damages ranging from R3 000 for four
days unlawful detention and R20 000 for 30 days to R25 000 for 35 days’ unlawful
detention. In De Klerk v Minister of Police,16 the Constitutional Court considered an
amount of R300 000 for approximately seven days’ detention to be fair and
reasonable. In Mahlangu and Another v Minister of Police,17 the Constitutional Court
awarded damages in the amount of R500 000 for an unlawful detention that lasted
eight months and ten days. Having considered all the facts of this case, including the
age of the appellant, the circumstances of his arrest, the relatively short duration of
the detention, I consider an amount of R70 000 to be an appropriate award of
damages for his unlawful arrest and detention. I also consider the amount of R7239,
which was paid as legal costs for the bail proceedings, to be fair and reasonable.
[35] As regards costs, there is no reason to depart from the ordinary rule that costs
follow the result.
Order
[36] In the result, the following order is granted:
The appeal is upheld with costs.
The order of the high court is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘1
The appeal is upheld with costs.
The order of the Magistrates’ Court, Tzaneen, is set aside and replaced
with the following:
“(a)
The first defendant is ordered to pay R70 000 as general damages to the
plaintiff.
(b)
The first defendant is ordered to pay R7239.
(c)
The amounts in paragraphs (a) and (b) above shall bear interest at the
prescribed rate from date of the judgment of the Magistrates’ Court,
Tzaneen, being 11 January 2018 to date of payment.
14 Kammies v Minister of Police and Another [2017] ZAECPEHC 25.
15 Rahim and Others v Minister of Home Affairs [2015] 3 All SA (SCA) paras 27 and 28.
16 De Klerk v Minister of Police [2019] ZACC 32; 2019 (12) BCLR 1425; 2021 (4) SA 585 (CC).
17 Mahlangu and Another v Minister of Police [2021] ZACC 10.
(d)
The first defendant is ordered to pay the plaintiff’s costs of suit.”’
________________________
M B MOLEMELA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
C Zeitsman
Instructed by :
Johan Steyn Attorneys, Tzaneen
Symington De Kok, Bloemfontein
For respondents:
M E Ngoetjana
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Polokwane
State Attorney, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
23 NOVEMBER 2021
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this
case and does not form part of the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Brits v Minister of Police & Another (759/2020) [2021] ZASCA 161 (23 November
2021)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) handed down judgment upholding, with
costs, an appeal against a decision of the Limpopo Division of the High Court,
Polokwane (the high court).
The issue before the SCA was whether the second respondent, Col Espach, had acted
wrongfully and unlawfully when he arrested the appellant, Mr Christiaan Brits, without
a warrant at the latter's business premises, a dealership in second hand goods and
scrap metal, on suspicion of being complicit in the offence of possession of property
suspected to be stolen.
The background facts, in a nutshell, were that on the morning of 4 July 2014, the
appellant received a text message (SMS) from his former employee, Mr Dube,
informing him that he had copper for sale. Seeing that all business transactions were
done at his business premises, the appellant sent Mr Dube an SMS informing him to
take the copper to his shop. The appellant subsequently received a call from the
manager of his business, Mr Mashapu, who told him that the police were at the
business premises and required his presence. Upon the appellant’s arrival at the shop,
Col Espach told him that Mr Mashapu had purchased stolen copper and that he (the
appellant) would therefore be arrested. The appellant professed his innocence and
informed Col Espach about the SMS he had received from Mr Dube that morning. He
also offered to assist Col Espach to locate Mr Dube. After reading the SMS exchange,
Col Espach confiscated the appellant’s cellphone and then arrested him. He was
detained from about 12h00 and subsequently released on bail the following day, 5 July
2014, at about 13h00.
The respondents’ pleaded case was that the appellant had been found in possession
of property suspected to be stolen and that the arrest without a warrant was justified.
The SCA held that the appellant had never been shown to have exercised any control
over the illicit goods. It found that, contrary to the high court’s finding, the appellant
had never admitted to knowing that the copper cables were stolen. It noted that Col
Espach’s own version was that the bag containing the copper cables was still on the
counter when he entered the shop and had not been locked away. Under those
circumstances, the SCA found that the appellant had never exercised direct control
over the copper cables. It was also not persuaded that Mr Mashapu ever assumed
possession thereof. The SCA therefore held that Col Espach acted wrongfully and
unlawfully when he arrested the appellant without a warrant. In respect of the quantum
of damages, the SCA considered an amount of R70 000 to be an appropriate award
of damages for the appellant’s unlawful arrest and detention.
~~~~ends~~~~ |
1509 | non-electoral | 2008 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case no: 487/07
NAME OF SHIP: MV 'ORIENT STRIDE'
In the matter between:
ASIATIC SHIPPING SERVICES INC
APPELLANT
and
ELGINA MARINE COMPANY LTD
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Asiatic Shipping Services Inc v Elgina Marine Company Limited (487/07)
[2008] ZASCA 111 (23 September 2008)
_____________________________________________________________
Coram
:
SCOTT, STREICHER, HEHER, COMBRINCK JJA
et LEACH AJA
Date of hearing
:
25 AUGUST 2008
Date of delivery
:
23 SEPTEMBER 2008
Corrected
:
Summary: The origin and meaning of the requirement in a security arrest in terms of s 5(3) of
Act 105 of 1983 that there be a 'genuine and reasonable need for security'.
____________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________
On appeal from the High Court, Durban (Patel J sitting as court of first
instance).
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
______________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________
SCOTT JA (STREICHER, HEHER, COMBRINCK JJA et LEACH AJA
concurring):
[1] On 24 March 2006, Elgina Marine Company Ltd (to which I shall refer
as Elgina) sought and obtained ex parte in the Durban High Court an order in
terms of s 5(3) of the Admiralty Jurisdiction Regulation Act 105 of 1983 ('the
Act') for the arrest of the bunkers on board the MV Orient Stride and of the
right to certain freight held by agents on behalf of Asiatic Shipping Services
Inc (to which I shall refer as Asiatic). The purpose of the arrest was to provide
security for Elgina's claims against Asiatic in arbitration proceedings in
London.
[2] Elgina is a company registered according to the laws of Cyprus and
carries on business as a ship owner in Limassol, Cyprus. Asiatic is a
Panamanian registered company and carries on the business of ships'
charterers in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. Elgina's claims against Asiatic are for a
total of US$ 404 228.47, including costs and interest, and arise out of the
charter to Asiatic of the MV Columbine Express.
[3] On 4 April 2006 security by way of a guarantee was furnished on
behalf of Asiatic to procure the release of the property arrested and to permit
the Orient Stride to continue on her voyage. The guarantee was conditional
on its being of no force and effect in the event of the court ordering that Elgina
was not entitled to arrest the property in question.
[4] In the meantime, on 31 March 2006 Asiatic launched an application for
an order setting aside the arrest. The application was opposed by Elgina and
on 5 February 2007 it was dismissed by Patel J with costs. The appeal is with
the leave of this court.
[5] Although Elgina was the respondent in that application it was common
cause that it bore the onus of justifying the arrest. (See eg Cargo Laden and
Lately Laden on Board the MV Thalassini Avgi v MV Dimitris 1989 (3) SA 820
(A) at 834C-F.) In seeking to do so, it was not confined to the allegations
made in its ex parte application. It was entitled to rely on all the information
properly placed before the court in the subsequent application to set aside the
arrest. (Weissglass NO v Savonnerie Establishment 1992 (3) SA 928 (A) at
936H.) For reasons which are no longer relevant, material correspondence
and other documents came to light at a late stage and after the court a quo
had given judgment. By agreement between the parties these were placed
before this court and admitted as part of the record.
[6] In Thalassini Avgi at 832I-833A this court set out what was required to
be established by a party seeking to justify an arrest for the purpose of
obtaining security. However, the court was then concerned with the Act before
its amendment in 1992 which broadened the scope of s 5(3). The
requirements, as modified by the amendment, are now conveniently
listed in Hofmeyr Admiralty Jurisdiction Law and Practice in South Africa at
92. In the present case it was ultimately common cause, or not in dispute, that
the bunkers were the property of Asiatic and that Elgina had established a
prima facie case against Asiatic. The only issue that remained was whether
Elgina had discharged the burden of establishing on a balance of probabilities
that it had a genuine and reasonable need for security.
[7] The requirement that the need for security must be 'genuine and
reasonable' does not appear in the Act. The formulation is that of
Didcott J in a separate but concurring judgment in Katagum Wholesale
Commodities Co Ltd v The MV Paz 1984 (3) SA 261 (N) at 270A. It was
subsequently endorsed by this court in Thalassini Avgi at 833A and in
Bocimar NV v Kotor Overseas Shipping Ltd 1994 (2) 563 (A) at 583E-F the
appropriate standard of proof was held to be a balance of probabilities. It is
important to observe, however, that the requirement does not mean that in
every case it must be proved that the party whose property is arrested has or
will have insufficient assets to meet a judgment granted against it in the main
proceedings. Indeed, more often than not the asset arrested is a ship which
has a value far in excess of the claim. What, I think, must be established is a
genuine and reasonable apprehension that the party whose property is
arrested will not satisfy a judgment or award made in favour of the arresting
party. That apprehension may be founded upon actual knowledge of the
extent of the assets of the party whose property has been arrested, or, as
would more likely be the case, it may be founded on factors giving rise to an
inference either that the party in question will be unable to meet the judgment
or that it will seek to conceal its assets or otherwise prevent the judgment
from being satisfied. The circumstances may also be such, whether for
geographic reasons or otherwise, that it would be extremely difficult for the
successful party to enforce the judgment. Different considerations will also
arise where the party seeking security already has security but arrests
property to increase its security (Bocimar NV v Kotor Overseas Shipping Ltd,
supra). Whether a need for security has been shown to exist or not will
depend therefore upon a consideration of the particular facts of each case.
[8] Against this background, I turn to the facts. They are largely common
cause. By a charterparty dated 6 September 2001 made between Cyprus
Maritime Co Ltd, acting according to Elgina on its behalf as owner of the
Columbine Express, and Asiatic, the former chartered the vessel to the latter
for a round trip of a maximum of 40 days. Clause 45 of the charterparty made
provision for arbitration in London before two arbitrators, one to be appointed
by each party. In pursuance of the charterparty the vessel was delivered on 9
September 2001. Redelivery was to take place at the latest on 19 October
2001. In the event the vessel was redelivered on 5 December 2001.
[9] In February 2002 Elgina commenced arbitration proceedings, claiming
US$ 12 916.83 in respect of the balance of hire claimed to be due and US$
194 005.64 as damages for the late redelivery of the vessel. Elgina's points of
claim were filed in July 2002 and on 20 September 2002 London solicitors,
Stephenson Harwood, applied to join Pacific Inter-Link Sdn Bhd ('PIL') in the
proceedings. In October 2002 a defence and counterclaim were filed in which
Asiatic asserted that it was the chartering arm of PIL and that it had entered
into the charterparty as agents for PIL as undisclosed principals. The relevant
part of paragraph 3 of the defence reads:
'Asiatic Shipping Services Inc ('the Charterers') entered into the . . . Charterparty as agents
for Pacific Inter-Link Sdn Bhd ('PIL') as undisclosed principals. The Charterers are the
chartering arm of PIL and regularly enter into charterparties as agents for PIL. Both
companies are operated from the same business address and have common directors. PIL
paid hire due under the . . . Charterparty. PIL are, consequently, a party to the arbitration
agreement through their agents, the Charterers.'
Elgina subsequently filed its reply on 27 February 2003.
[10] In the joinder application leave was sought for PIL to be joined for the
purposes of the counterclaim only. The solicitors then acting for Elgina, Ince &
Co, took up the attitude that PIL should also be joined as a co-respondent for
the whole arbitration on the basis that as the undisclosed principal of Asiatic it
should be a party to the arbitration reference and therefore be bound by any
award made by the tribunal. They advised Stephenson Harwood, who acted
for both PIL and Asiatic, that Elgina would agree to the joinder but required
security for its claim. Subsequently, on 9 June 2003 Ince & Co wrote to
Stephenson Harwood pointing out that the question of PIL's joinder as a co-
respondent remained outstanding and requested that they confirm PIL's
consent to be joined in the arbitration reference on the terms Ince & Co had
proposed. In a curt response Stephenson Harwood wrote on the same day
that their clients were not prepared to consent to the terms of the joinder
proposed by Ince & Co.
[11] On 17 June 2003 Ince & Co responded by referring to the apparent
inconsistency between the allegations made in para 3 of the defence (quoted
in para 9 above) and the attitude then being adopted by PIL and Asiatic. They
wrote:
'[It] appears to us that, on the one hand your clients are happy to wade in as Charterers in
order to put forward their Counterclaim yet, on the other they are reticent to confirm that, as
Charterers, they will also be bound by any Award made by the Tribunal in respect of Owners'
principal claim. Your clients cannot have their cake and eat it.'
They accordingly called on Stephenson Harwood to confirm inter alia that PIL
considered itself as an undisclosed principal and charterer bound by the
arbitration agreement contained in the charterparty and agreed to be bound
by any arbitration award made by the tribunal in respect of Elgina's principal
claim.
[12] Stephenson Harwood responded by letter dated 23 June 2003, which
reads in part:
'We refer to your fax dated 17 June 2003 in connection with whether or not PIL should be
joined as a party to the current arbitration reference. In light of your client's unreasonable
demands for security for the claim, Asiatic and PIL have decided not to join PIL to the
arbitration. Asiatic, as agents for undisclosed principals, can bring the counterclaim
themselves. The Defence and Counterclaim have already been pleaded to reflect the
relationship between Asiatic and PIL and therefore only minor amendments will be needed.'
Elgina's reaction was on 18 March 2004 to send to PIL a notice of
appointment of an arbitrator with the object or pursuing its claims against PIL.
The latter's Malaysian solicitors, Sativale Mathew Arun, responded in a letter
dated 23 April 2004, in which they declined to appoint an arbitrator, saying:
'It is our client's stand that there is no arbitration agreement between your client and our
client.'
[13] At about this time and, no doubt, in the light of what had transpired,
Elgina's P and I club advised that it was no longer prepared to finance the
prosecution of the claim in the absence of security being put up by Asiatic as
there appeared little prospect of Elgina otherwise recovering the amount of
any award that may be made in its favour. In May 2004 Elgina decided not to
continue incurring the costs of employing Ince & Co but to employ its own
legal staff. It accordingly terminated that firm's mandate and paid its fees. This
ultimately led to a misunderstanding which in turn became an issue which
gained much prominence in the affidavits exchanged between the parties. In
short, on 5 February 2005 Ince & Co advised one of the arbitrators, Mr
George Lugg, that they were no longer acting for Elgina which had passed the
matter on to Cyprus Maritime Co Ltd, its managers, for future handling. In
June 2005, when clarification as to the status of the arbitration was sought by
the other arbitrator, Mr Robert Gaisford, Ince & Co mistakenly advised on 9
June 2005 that the matter was closed. As a consequence of this Asiatic
sought to set aside the arrest on the grounds that Elgina had failed to disclose
that the arbitration was no longer extant and for this reason alone it did not
have a prima facie case against Asiatic. In the light of the explanation put up
by Elgina the point was abandoned by Asiatic when the matter was argued in
the court a quo. I should add that subsequently on 18 June 2007 a declaratory
award was made by the arbitrators in which they ruled that the reference had
not been terminated and that the tribunal accordingly remained extant.
[14] In the meantime, in January 2005 Elgina had decided to engage
another firm of solicitors, Davies, Johnson & Company, to act on its behalf. In
the absence of security, however, it was considered that no purpose would be
served by taking active steps to pursue the arbitration. Mr Johnson of that firm
did some investigation to ascertain the activities of Asiatic. This ultimately
resulted in the arrest which forms the subject matter of this appeal.
[15] It is clear from the aforegoing that PIL and Asiatic are closely
associated companies. The latter is the 'chartering arm' of the former. Both
have the same business address and they have common directors. Asiatic
asserted in its defence that it was merely the agent of PIL and that PIL was
accordingly a party to the arbitration agreement. Yet PIL sought to be joined in
the arbitration for the purposes of the counterclaim only. When it was pointed
out that as a party to the arbitration agreement it would be liable to Elgina in
the event of the latter succeeding in its claim, it abandoned its application to
be joined and, notwithstanding the stance adopted in the defence that it was
an undisclosed principal and hence a party to the arbitration agreement,
distanced itself from the arbitration. It was clearly anxious to ensure that in the
event of an adverse award, that award would be made against Asiatic and not
against it. The most likely inference that arises is that PIL holds the assets of
the enterprise and not Asiatic. The inference is supported by the assertion in
the defence that PIL, and not Asiatic, paid the hire under the charterparty. It is
further supported by the fact that the security put up on 4 April 2006
emanated from PIL and not Asiatic.
[16] In the application to set aside the arrest Asiatic alleged simply that it
had 'more than sufficient assets to satisfy any judgment'. In its answer, Elgina
observed that no details of those assets were given. Having regard to the
nature of the application and PIL's change of stance, one would have
expected that if Asiatic had assets, it would in reply at least have given some
indication of their nature and extent. Had it done so, its response may well
have put paid to the application for security. But it declined to do so. Instead, it
contended that its financial standing was 'now a moot point because [Asiatic]
has in fact secured [Elgina's] claim'. This evasive response was in itself
sufficient to cause concern to a reasonable person in the position of Elgina,
particularly when regard is had to the fact that it was PIL and not Asiatic that
had provided the security.
[17] In all the circumstances Elgina, in my view, succeeded in establishing
the existence of a reasonable apprehension that Asiatic would not satisfy an
award made against it in Elgina's favour. It accordingly discharged the burden
of establishing that it had a genuine and reasonable need for security, and the
appeal must therefore fail.
[18] The appeal is dismissed with costs.
_____________
D G SCOTT
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances:
For Appellant:
D Gordon SC
Instructed by:
Deneys Reitz Inc Durban
Webbers Bloemfontein
For Respondent:
D J Shaw QC
Instructed by
:
Shepstone & Wylie Durban
Israel Sackstein Matsepe Inc Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
NAME OF SHIP: MV 'ORIENT STRIDE'
ASIATIC SHIPPING SERVICES INC AND ELGINA MARINE COMPANY
LTD CASE MP 487/07
From :
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
23 September 2008
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
The Supreme Court of Appeal today dismissed an appeal against a decision
of the Durban High Court refusing to set aside the arrest of bunkers aboard
the MV Orient Stride to provide security for a claim subject to arbitration
proceedings in London.
The arrest had been obtained at the instance of a Cypriot company which
alleged that the owner of the bunkers had breached a charter party in terms of
which it had hired the MV Columbine Express for a 40 day voyage but had
redelivered the vessel almost 6 weeks late.
The issue was whether the arresting party, Elgina Marine Company Ltd of
Limassol, Cyprus, had discharged the onus of proving that it had a genuine
and reasonable need for security. The Supreme Court of Appeal held that
what Elgina was required to prove was no more than that it had a reasonable
apprehension that the owner of the bunkers, a Malaysian company, would not
satisfy an award made in favour of the arresting party. The court held that on
the evidence Elgina had discharged the onus of prove
- - - ends - - - |
2983 | non-electoral | 2015 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case no: 20339/14
In the matter between:
LESLEY NIEUWENHUIZEN
APPELLANT
and
THE STATE
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Nieuwenhuizen v S (20339/14) [2015] ZASCA 90 (29 May
2015)
Coram:
Shongwe, Leach JJA and Mayat AJA
Heard:
14 May 2015
Delivered: 29 May 2015
Summary: Criminal Procedure – Sentence – convicted of six counts of fraud
to the tune of R130 429.46 – whether sentence is shockingly inappropriate –
court of appeal considers whether the trial court and court a quo materially
misdirected themselves – each case considered on its own merits – no
misdirection found – sentence is not strikingly or disturbingly disproportionate
– this court not justified to interfere.
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: The Northern Cape Division of the High Court, Kimberley
(Jordaan and Hendricks JJ sitting as court of appeal):
The appeal is dismissed.
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
Shongwe JA (Mayat AJA concurring)
[1] This is an appeal against sentence only. The appellant was convicted of
six counts of fraud and sentenced to six years‟ imprisonment, two years of
which were suspended for five years on certain conditions. Her application for
leave to appeal against the conviction and sentence was refused. She petitioned
the Judge President of the Northern Cape High Court for leave against the
conviction and sentence. Leave was accordingly granted to the court a quo.
However, the appeal was dismissed; likewise her application for a further leave
to appeal was unsuccessful. Leave to appeal against sentence only was granted
by this court.
[2] She pleaded not guilty on 31 fraud charges but was convicted on counts
12 to 17 which amounted to the value of R130 429. 46 and was acquitted on the
other charges. She steadfastly denied the charges against her. The trial court as
well as the court a quo were satisfied of her guilt. The court a quo was also
satisfied that the trial court did not materially misdirect itself on the sentence
imposed. It concluded that had it been in the position of the trial court it would
have imposed a lighter sentence, however it was not convinced that the sentence
it would have imposed would have differed materially from the one imposed to
the extent of declaring the sentence imposed shockingly inappropriate. Hence
the appeal against conviction and sentence were dismissed.
[3] The facts are briefly that the appellant approached the complainant Mr
Dawid Hermanus Jansen van Vuuren, an attorney, to do debt collection work
for her. She claimed to be collecting debts from a number of government
employees. As a result she would receive cheques from some government
departments, in particular, the Department of Finance and Economic Affairs.
She claimed these cheques would be deposited in the complainant‟s trust
account and that the complainant would in turn give her cash. She did not show
the complainant the cheques which she had received and the cheques were
never deposited in the complainant‟s trust account as promised. For some
reason the complainant believed her and he gave her various amounts of cash in
anticipation that she would deposit the cheques in his trust account.
[4] At some stage she represented to the complainant that she was expecting
a sum of up to R700 000.00 in debt collections. They were seen together at
Absa Bank where they conducted various business/financial transactions. She
also transferred money from the complainant‟s trust account into her personal
account or an account named “New Finance”, which was seemingly her trading
name. She also transferred money from the complainant‟s trust account on her
own, having forged the complainant‟s signature. During her trial she did not
dispute the allegations of transferring money from the complainant‟s trust
account into her personal account but averred that it was with the complainant‟s
consent.
[5] It is settled law that an appeal court will not interfere on appeal with a
sentence imposed, unless the trial court materially misdirected itself or the
sentence is shockingly inappropriate. A trial court exercises its judicial
discretion depending on the facts of each particular case. Each and every case
must be judged on its own merits. Should the appeal court find that the
discretion was not judicially exercised it will be at large to interfere. (See S v
Mitchele & another 2010 (1) SACR 131 (SCA). In S v De Jager & another
1965 (2) SA 616 (A) at 628H-629 Holmes JA observed that:
„It would not appear to be sufficiently recognised that a Court of appeal does not have a
general discretion to ameliorate the sentences of trial Courts. The matter is governed by
principle. It is the trial Court which has the discretion, and a Court of appeal cannot interfere
unless the discretion was not judicially exercised, that is to say unless the sentence is vitiated
by irregularity or misdirection or is so severe that no reasonable court could have imposed it.
In this latter regard an accepted test is whether the sentence induces a sense of shock, that is
to say if there is a striking disparity between the sentence passed and that which the Court of
appeal would have imposed. It should therefore be recognised that appellate jurisdiction to
interfere with punishment is not discretionary but, on the contrary, is very limited.‟
[6] An appeal court may also consider the trial court‟s discretion to have
been unreasonably exercised if the disparity between the trial court‟s sentence
and that which the appellate court would have imposed is „strikingly‟ or
„startlingly‟ or „disturbingly‟ inappropriate. However, if it is not so
inappropriate the appellate court will not be justified to interfere with the
sentence. (S v Malgas 2001 (1) SACR 469 para 12. Marais JA held:
„A court exercising appellate jurisdiction cannot, in the absence of material misdirection by
the trial court, approach the question of sentence as if it were the trial court and then
substitute the sentence arrived at by it simply because it prefers it. To do so would be to usurp
the sentencing discretion of the trial court. Where material misdirection by the trial court
vitiates its exercise of that discretion, an appellate Court is of course entitled to consider the
question of sentence afresh. In doing so, it assesses sentence as if it were a court of first
instance and the sentence imposed by the trial court has no relevance. As it is said, an
appellate Court is at large. However, even in the absence of material misdirection, an
appellate court may yet be justified in interfering with the sentence imposed by the trial court.
It may do so when the disparity between the sentence of the trial court and the sentence
which the appellate Court would have imposed had it been the trial court is so marked that it
can properly be described as 'shocking', 'startling' or 'disturbingly inappropriate'.
[7] The appellant argued that the sentence of six years‟ imprisonment, two
years of which is suspended on certain conditions is shockingly inappropriate
and is very harsh. She contended that a custodial sentence was not the only
option. She contended further that the trial court as well as the court a quo
misdirected themselves by over-emphasising the seriousness of the offences.
She argued that a wholly suspended sentence alternatively a non-custodial
sentence would be appropriate in the circumstances. For example a sentence
which would include an element of correctional supervision.
[8] It was stated that the appellant was a caregiver of a three year old child –
therefore if she went to prison, the child‟s interests would be jeopardised. From
the evidence before us it is clear that the appellant is not the primary care giver
of this child. The mother of the child is alive and well and employed. In my
view the appellant was helping out in looking after the child. The child is now
about seven years old – circumstances may have changed since then. A
custodial sentence would not prejudice the interest of the child and is the only
appropriate sentence in the circumstances. The present case is distinguishable
from S v M (Centre for Child Law as Amicus Curiae) 2007 (2) SACR 539 (CC)
where the accused person was the biological mother of the minor children.
[9] On the other hand the State contended that the offences are of a serious
nature and need to be treated with the seriousness they deserve. It argued further
that an aggravating factor was the fact that the offences were committed over a
period of about three months. That even after the complainant had warned her
that he would not pay her any further cash until the other cheques were paid into
his trust account – she continued performing more unlawful transfers. It was
argued on behalf of the State that the offences were well planned and
meticulously executed. Counsel for the State argued further that the appellant
expressed no contrition for her criminal wrong-doing – therefore she could not
be heard to plead rehabilitation as „any hope of rehabilitation becomes illusory
and thus an unrealistic expectation…‟ (See S v Dyantyi 2011 (1) SACR 540
(ECG) at 552C-D)
[10] In considering an appropriate sentence, the trial court did consider her
personal circumstances – she was 42 years old at the time of the commission of
the offence and 49 years old at the time of her sentencing – she was divorced –
although still living with her ex-husband. She was unemployed but her two self-
supporting children were financially assisting her on a monthly basis. She was
fostering a three year old child even though she was not the primary care-giver.
She is a first offender. First offenders are not by law entitled to non-custodial
sentences. The purpose and objectives of punishment have been repeatedly
mentioned by our courts as deterrence, rehabilitation and retribution. These
objectives must be balanced and individualized.
[11] The appellant has a constitutional right to remain silent (s 35)(1)(a)) and
cannot be compelled to give evidence. However, it is crucial when considering
an appropriate sentence for the court to know exactly what she wanted to do
with the money and what she actually did with it. Very little, if anything, is
known of the motive because she maintains her innocence. It is significant to
note that she meticulously planned this scheme to syphon money from the trust
account of the complainant, with confidence tricks. She did not stop even after
she had been warned. No element of remorse is displayed at all.
[12] It is argued that some of the money has been returned. However, that, in
my view, is no excuse. Yes, it may mitigate the damage but the damage had
already been done. Some of the money was paid back by Absa Bank and not by
the appellant. Marias JA in S v Sadler 2000 (1) SACR 331 (SCA) at 335G-336B
decried the so called „white collar‟ crime and called for stiffer sentences to
discourage would be perpetrators. Fraud, even if it is not a violent crime,
remains a serious offence which does not only affect the particular complainant
but also affects the growth of the country‟s economy. Insurance premiums are
soaring, security measures must be put in place to prevent fraudsters from
benefiting without producing. What is clear to me is that the appellant embarked
on this criminal path solely for personal financial gain which, to me translates to
avarice and nothing less.
[13] It is a healthy practice from a jurisprudential point of view to look at
other cases similar to this one, however, it is simply for guidance and not as
authority to impose the same sentences imposed in those cases. Each case must
be considered on its own merits.
[14] The sentence imposed is, in my view appropriate. I am unable to find any
material misdirection on the part of the trial court as well as the court a quo to
justify interference. The disparity between the sentence which I would have
imposed, and the one imposed is not striking nor is it startling. Therefore the
appeal against sentence falls to be dismissed.
[15] The appeal is dismissed.
_______________________
J B Z Shongwe
Judge of Appeal
LEACH JA:
[16] The appellant was convicted on six counts of fraud that resulted in the
misappropriation by her of a total sum of R130 429.46 from the trust account of
an attorney, Mr Janse van Vuuren (the complainant), and was sentenced to six
years‟ imprisonment of which a period of two years was conditionally
suspended. I have read the judgment of my learned colleague Shongwe JA, but
find myself unable to agree with his conclusion that the appeal against this
sentence should be dismissed. In my view the sentence imposed on the
appellant was far too severe, justifying interference by this court on appeal.
[17] The appellant, who traded as a debt collector under the name of New
Finance, had approached the complainant for his assistance, informing him that
she had a number of debtors ─ from whom she collected money on a monthly
basis ─ who were employed by a number of government departments. These
departments, so she alleged, withheld certain amounts from the salaries of these
debtors that were then paid to her to redistribute to creditors. However, so she
stated, government policy had changed and the departments were no longer
willing to pay directly to a private person as they had done in the past, but that
they would pay an attorney. Her proposal was that these payments would be
paid to the complainant who, in turn, would then effect payment of the amounts
to her to distribute amongst the various creditors. As an inducement, she told
the complainant that there was a sum of approximately R700 000 that would be
collected in this way.
[18] The complainant agreed to the proposal and, shortly thereafter, the
appellant produced a state cheque made out in favour of „Attorney ─ New
Finance‟ in the amount of some R14 000. On seeing this, the complainant told
the appellant that the cheque could not be paid into his account because it was
not made out to him and asked her to take the necessary steps to ensure either
that a cheque that had been correctly made out was procured or that the amount
was paid electronically into his trust account at Absa Bank. A few weeks later,
the appellant presented him with two further cheques, one in the sum of
approximately R54 000 and the other for some R39 500. As was the case with
the first cheque, both were drawn in favour of „Attorney ─ New Finance‟.
Again he informed the appellant to take the necessary steps to have them re-
issued or to arrange for the amounts to be electronically deposited into his trust
account.
[19] All three of these cheques were false. Precisely how they came into the
possession of the appellant and drawn as they were, was never explained.
However, despite the fact that they were not paid into his account and that he
never received the funds reflected thereon, the complainant succumbed to the
appellant‟s entreaty to make funds over to her. He trusted her and, on the
strength of the three cheques she had shown to him, he paid her amounts
totalling approximately R107 500 out of his trust account as an advance, so to
speak, in respect of the moneys that he was sure she would pay him in due
course.
[20] This involved him, on one occasion, accompanying the appellant to the
Absa Bank branch where both he and the appellant held their accounts and
where he effected a transfer of funds from his trust account into her account
simply by way of completing a transfer slip. On a subsequent occasion when an
amount was incorrectly transferred to another account, he telephoned the bank
and made arrangements for the appellant to visit the branch in order to effect a
transfer into her account.
[21] These payments were made by the complainant during or about June
2004. Early in July 2004, the complainant told the appellant that he would not
be able to make further payments to her until she had placed him in funds.
However, on 12 July 2004, he was contacted by a bank official who informed
him that the appellant had attempted to effect a further transfer of which he was
not aware. He instructed the bank not to do so and, on proceeding to the bank
and making further enquiries, ascertained that on a number of other occasions
commencing on 3 July 2004, the appellant had been able to transfer funds in
amounts ranging from R5000 to R8000 out of his trust account into her own
account. This had occurred as she had misrepresented to the bank that she had
been authorised by him to do so, the bank official concerned having been under
the impression that she was in his employ.
[22] The transfer of funds from the complainant‟s trust account, both with and
without the complainant‟s knowledge, led to the appellant‟s conviction on six
counts of fraud. It is accepted that the total sum of the amounts paid out of the
complainant‟s trust account into the account of the appellant was R130 429.46.
The bank repaid R23 000 to the appellant in respect of the transfers made
without his authority and the complainant collected payments made by debtors
to his office for the account of the appellant that totalled some R65 000. In
addition another firm of attorneys collected R21 000 in respect of similar
payments and was holding that sum in trust on the complainant‟s behalf.
However, there is no merit in the argument advanced on behalf of the appellant
that these amounts should be deducted from the actual loss for purposes of the
consideration of sentence. The appellant herself has never repaid any of the
amounts she embezzled. The bank repaid what it had to, but it suffered a loss in
that amount. The other amounts collected were not due to the complainant but
were for distribution amongst creditors. The fact that the actual loss was split
between the complainant and any other persons affected by her fraudulent deeds
is irrelevant.
[23] The appellant was 42 years of age at the time she committed the offences
and, by the time sentence was imposed upon her in the trial court, had reached
the age of 49 years. She was at that stage divorced, although she was living in a
permanent relationship with her former husband. Her two adult children were
self-supporting although the appellant and her partner were caring for a young
child on a daily basis. The appellant is a first offender, and the fact that she had
reached middle age without having previously offended is, in my view, a
material factor to take into account in the assessment of sentence. And although
her offences were obviously planned, they were committed over a relatively
short period and were obviously made easy by the gullibility of the complainant
whose laxity in regard to his professional obligations relating to his trust
account helped to facilitate the commission of the frauds.
[24] In considering what is an appropriate sentence in the light of the facts and
circumstances outlined above, it is of course true that „white-collar‟ crime such
as fraud, motivated by personal greed, has a „corrosive impact‟ upon society1
and is by its very nature a serious matter. This court has recognised that fraud
1 Compare S v Sadler 2000 (1) SACR 331 (SCA); (57/99) [2000] ZASCA 13 (28 March 2000) para 13.
is, unfortunately, endemic in our society at present and that there is a need to
impose appropriate sentences with a deterrent effect in such cases.2 That being
said, however, it is also well established that although retribution and deterrence
are proper purposes of punishment, they must not be afforded undue weight and
that an offender being sentenced should not be sacrificed on the altar of
deterrence.3 Thus an „insensitively censorious attitude is to be avoided‟.4 As
Corbett JA stated in Rabie:
„A judicial officer should not . . . strive after severity; nor on the other hand, surrender to
misplaced pity. While not flinching from firmness, where firmness is called for, he should
approach his task with a humane and compassionate understanding of human frailties and the
pressures of society which contribute to criminality.‟5
[25] The court a quo, in considering the appellant‟s appeal, remarked that the
sentence of six years‟ imprisonment, two years conditionally suspended, was a
stiff sentence and on the heavy side and that, had it sat as a court of first
instance, it would have imposed a somewhat lighter sentence. However it
concluded that it could not find that the sentence was so heavy that it could
interfere. It is on this issue that, in my respectful view, the court a quo erred.
[26] Although comparisons are often odious, and each case must be decided
on its own particular facts and circumstances, consideration of other reported
decisions is illuminating. Those of particular significance include the following:
S v Blank 1995 (1) SACR 62 (A); (22/93) [1994] ZASCA 115 (15 September
1994): In this case a stockbroker embarked on a fraudulent share purchase
scheme. His conviction involved 48 fraudulent transactions committed over 17
months leading to profits of R9,75 million of which he received approximately
2 S v Engelbrecht 2011 (2) SACR 540 (SCA); (446/10) [2011] ZASCA 68 (17 May 2011) para 31.
3 S v Muller & another 2012 (2) SACR 545 (SCA); (855/10) [2011] ZASCA 151 (27 September 2011) para 9.
4 Per Holmes JA in S v Rabie 1975 (4) SA 855 (A) at 862C-D.
5 Rabie at 866A-C.
R1,5 million. An appeal against a sentence of 8 years‟ imprisonment was
dismissed by this court.
S v Flanagan 1995 (1) SACR 13 (A); (583/92) [1994] ZASCA 125 (22
September 1994): In this case the appellant, a 31 year old bank clerk, was
sentenced to seven years‟ imprisonment, of which two were suspended, for
having fraudulently transferred R8,5 million from one account to another while
acting under the influence of her husband, although no actual loss was suffered.
This court set aside her sentence and imposed a sentence of four years‟
imprisonment subject to the provisions of s 276(1)(i) of the Criminal Procedure
Act 51 of 1977.
S v Nagrani 1997 (2) SACR 98 (W): The appellant, a married first offender
with two children, was convicted on 21 counts of fraud arising from her having
lodged false VAT claims involving millions of rand. She was sentenced to eight
years‟ imprisonment, two years thereof being conditionally suspended. The
sentence was confirmed on appeal.
S v Kwatsha 2004 (2) SACR 564 (E): The appellant, a 29 year old unmarried
father of a single child employed by the Provincial Government, was charged
and convicted of the theft of five government cheques and a conspiracy to
commit fraud by using the cheques to draw a sum of R2 million. A sentence of
seven years‟ imprisonment, two of which were suspended on certain conditions,
was confirmed on appeal.
S v Michele & another 2010 (1) SACR 131 (SCA); (477/08 [2009] ZASCA
116 (25 September 2009: The appellant defrauded a life insurance company by
submitting a false claim stating that the person whose life was insured had died
in a motor vehicle accident. The insurer immediately paid out funeral cover of
R20 000 but subsequently discovered that the claim was false and refused to
pay out the insured balance of R357 520 although the potential prejudice had
been substantial. A sentence of seven years‟ imprisonment, two years
conditionally suspended, was reduced on appeal, this court finding that a
sentence of no more than five years‟ imprisonment, two years suspended,
should have been imposed and that there was sufficient disparity between that
sentence and the sentence imposed to interfere.
S v Janssen 2010 (1) SACR 237 (ECG); (CA&R 195/2006) [2009] ZAECGHC
58 (2 September 2009): The appellant had been convicted on 144 counts of
fraud involving an amount in excess of R1,5 million, an offence which attracted
a prescribed minimum sentence of 15 years‟ imprisonment. An appeal against a
sentence of eight years‟ imprisonment was dismissed.
S v Engelbrecht 2011 (2) SACR 540 (SCA); (446/10) [2011] ZASCA 68 (17
May 2011): The appellant had falsified documents in respect of the sale of
motor vehicles so that the transactions would be zero rated for VAT as exports
when in fact the vehicles were sold locally. The appellant was convicted of 157
counts of fraud which had resulted in the South African Revenue Service being
defrauded of approximately R1,6 million. As in the case of the present
appellant, he was sentenced to six years‟ imprisonment, two years of which
were conditionally suspended. This was confirmed by this court.
[27] As I have said, each case must be considered in the light of its own
particular facts and circumstances, and although the imposition of sentence is
not an exact science, involving as it does the exercise of a judicial discretion,
previous decisions have a not inconsiderable degree of relevance to show trends
and judicial attitudes. Bearing this in mind, the cases referred to above illustrate
that a sentence imposed of six years‟ imprisonment, two of which are
conditionally suspended, falls within a range generally regarded as being
appropriate for white-collar crimes far more serious than those committed by
the appellant in the present case. I do not wish to trivialise the appellant‟s
crimes. By their very nature they were severe and must be treated as such.
However, the amount involved, while not insubstantial, does not result in this
case falling within the echelon of those cases in which a sentence as substantial
as six years‟ imprisonment, albeit partially suspended, is as a rule generally
imposed.
[28] Indeed, had there been any indication of remorse on the part of the
appellant, this is a case in which, in my view, a period of imprisonment subject
to the provisions of s 276(1)(i) of the Criminal Procedure Act may well have
been appropriate. Unfortunately there was no such indication on the part of the
appellant. She persisted in an abjectly false defence, not only in the trial court
but on appeal to the court a quo. Whether or not this was as a result of
misleading legal advice is neither here nor there: the fact remains that she has
not recognised the criminality of her actions and shown no contrition.
Accordingly, in the light of the other circumstances that I have mentioned, a
period of direct imprisonment seems to be called for, but not a sentence as
severe as that imposed by the trial court.
[29] There is one further feature to be considered. The offences were
committed in 2004. Criminal proceedings against the appellant only
commenced some two years later, the appellant having made her first
appearance in court on 31 March 2006. The matter was then postponed on
several occasions until, on 1 August 2006, the charge was eventually put to her
and the trial commenced. Despite the dispute being of a narrow ambit, the trial
proceeded at the pace of a snail and dragged on interminably. During the course
of more than four years it was postponed on numerous occasions until
eventually, on 15 October 2010, the appellant was found guilty. Thereafter it
took until 11 February 2011, a date almost five years after the charges were
initially instituted against her and almost seven years after the offences were
committed, for the appellant to be sentenced. As this court has previously
observed,6 it would be „callous to leave out of account the mental anguish the
6 Compare S v Roberts 2000 (2) SACR at 522 (SCA) para 22 and S v Michele at 135 para 13.
[appellant] must have endured‟ during the extended period after criminal
proceedings were instituted against her until sentence was imposed.
[30] Bearing all the aforegoing in mind, I am of the view that a sentence of no
more than three years‟ imprisonment, one year of which is conditionally
suspended on appropriate conditions, is the sentence which should have been
imposed upon the appellant. There is sufficient disparity between such a
sentence and that imposed on the appellant to render interference on appeal both
justified and necessary.
[31] I would therefore allow the appeal, set aside the order of the court a quo
and replace it with the following:
„1 The appeal against conviction is dismissed.
2 The appeal against sentence is upheld. The sentence imposed by the
magistrate is set aside and is substituted with the following:
“Three years‟ imprisonment, one year of which is suspended for five years on
condition that the accused is not convicted of fraud or theft committed during
the period of suspension and in respect of which she is sentenced to
imprisonment without the option of a fine.”‟
_____________________
L E Leach
Judge of Appeal
Appearances
For the Appellant:
R van der Merwe
Instructed by:
Haarhoffs Inc., Kimberley;
Phatshoane Henney Inc., Bloemfontein.
For the Respondent:
A H van Heerden
Instructed by:
The Director of Public Prosecutions, Kimberley;
The Director of Public Prosecutions, Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
29 May 2015
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
* * *
LESLEY NIEUWENHUIZEN V THE STATE
The SCA today dismissed the appeal against sentence in the case of Nieuwenhuizen v The
State.
Ms Nieuwenhuizen had been convicted by the magistrates’ court of 6 counts of fraud and
sentenced to 6 years imprisonment’, 2 years of which were suspended on certain conditions.
She unsuccessfully appealed to the Northern Cape Division of the High Court (Kimberley).
She further appealed to this court with leave of this court.
The appellant convinced Attorney Dawid Jansen van Vuuren to assist her in her debt
collection business. She was collecting money from government employees who owed
certain companies. She received certain cheques which she should have deposited in the
attorneys trust account but failed to do so. Mr Jansen van Vuuren advanced her with the
equivalent amount of the cheques hoping that she would in turn deposit the cheques. She
even transferred funds from the complainant’s (Dawid Jansen van Vuuren) trust account into
her trading account without the complainant’s consent. She did this within a period of about
three months. The offences were carefully planned.
It is settled law that for an appeal court to interfere with the sentence imposed – the court a
quo must have materially misdirected itself or the disparity between the sentence which the
appeal court would have imposed and the sentence imposed by the court a quo is strikingly or
startlingly disproportionate.
This court found that she failed to demonstrate any remorse. It further found that a custodial
sentence is the only one appropriate in these circumstances. |
3347 | non-electoral | 2020 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 394/2019
In the matter between:
FIRSTRAND BANK LIMITED
APPELLANT
And
MINETTA CECILIA PETRONELLA FIRST RESPONDENT
MCLACHLAN
ROSHEN MAHARAJ SECOND RESPONDENT
KOMARIE MAHARAJ THIRD RESPONDENT
ABSA BANK LIMITED FOURTH RESPONDENT
STANDARD BANK OF SOUTH AFRICA FIFTH RESPONDENT
WESBANK LIMITED SIXTH RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: FirstRand Bank Ltd v McLachlan and Others (394/2019)
[2020] ZASCA 31 (01 April 2020)
Coram:
SALDULKER, SWAIN, SCHIPPERS and MBATHA JJA
and EKSTEEN AJA
Heard:
12 March 2020
Delivered:
01 April 2020
Summary:
National Credit Act 34 of 2005 (NCA) – debt review –
rescission of order for debt review granted in the magistrate’s court – monthly
instalment insufficient to cover interest – debt review order void – rescission
order not appealable.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg (Tsoka,
Windell JJ and Reyneke AJ, sitting as court of appeal):
The appeal is upheld with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
The order of the court below is set aside and replaced with the following
order:
‘The appeal is dismissed with costs.’
________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
Mbatha JA (Saldulker, Swain and Schippers JJA and Eksteen AJA
concurring)
[1] This appeal raises two issues: firstly, the powers of the magistrate’s court
in making a debt review order in terms of s 86(7)(c)(ii) of the National Credit Act
34 of 2005 (the NCA); and secondly, whether the rescission of a debt review
order, by virtue of it being null and void, is appealable.
[2] On 25 November 2011 the magistrate’s court, Westonaria (the magistrate’s
court) granted a debt review order in terms of s 86(7)(c)(ii) in favour of the second
and third respondents (the respondents), Roshen and Komarie Maharaj. The
respondents complied with the order until June 2017, when the appellant (the
bank) brought an application for the rescission of the order in terms of rule 49(8)
of the Magistrates’ Court Rules on the ground that it was void ab origine. The
magistrate upheld the application and rescinded the debt review order. In an
appeal to the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg, the order of the
magistrate was set aside. The present appeal, with the special leave of this Court,
is against the order of the high court.
[3] The facts giving rise to the appeal are common cause. In or about
September 2006 the bank and the respondents entered into a written Grant of
Loan Agreement (the Loan Agreement), in terms of which the bank advanced an
amount of R2.1 million to the respondents to purchase an immovable property
secured by a mortgage bond. The monthly instalment was fixed at R20 335,07,
inclusive of 10,05 per cent interest per annum calculated daily and compounded
monthly. The interest was variable at the instance of the bank.
[4] In 2010 the respondents found themselves in a financial predicament as a
result of which they lodged an application for debt review in terms of s 86 of the
NCA with the first respondent (the debt counsellor), who prepared a debt
repayment proposal. The proposal was duly referred to a magistrate (the debt
review court) in terms of s 86(8)(b) of the NCA. A debt review order was
subsequently granted as set out earlier. In granting the debt review order the debt
review court did not, however, adopt the repayment proposal submitted by the
debt counsellor.
[5] In terms of the order, the respondents were declared to be over-indebted
and their obligations were re-arranged. With regard to the Loan Agreement, the
monthly instalments were reduced to R8 185,50 per month and the period was
extended to 261 months. There was some dispute as to whether the debt review
court also varied the interest rate, which was fixed at 12,55 per cent for the
duration of the repayment period and, if so, whether the bank had agreed to the
rates. Both the magistrate and the high court found, however, that the interest
payable immediately prior to the debt review order had been fixed in terms of the
Loan Agreement at 12,55 per cent and that there had accordingly been no change
in the interest rate. This issue is not decisive in the present appeal and I shall
accept the finding of the courts below for purposes of this judgment.
[6] The effect of the debt review order, however, was that the monthly
instalment would not even cover the monthly interest accruing on the outstanding
balance. A calculation of interest alone on the balance due on 25 November 2007,
calculated at 12,55 per cent, would have required a repayment of almost R22 000
per month, substantially more than the R8 185,50 which was ordered by the court.
In order to achieve a payment of R8 185, 50 per month as stipulated in the debt
review order, the interest rate would have to be reduced to 4,5 per cent per annum.
In the result, it was factually impossible for the respondent to service the interest
on a monthly basis, let alone the capital amount owed. The consequence of this
order was that the debt owing under the Loan Agreement has grown to more than
R3 million since the granting of the debt review order. Self-evidently, at the
conclusion of the repayment term a substantial amount will remain due.
[7] In October 2016 the Western Cape Division of the High Court delivered
judgment in Nedbank Limited v Jones and Others [2016] ZAWCHC 139; 2017
(2) SA 473 (WCC). In Jones the following order was made:
‘A. A magistrate's court hearing a matter in terms of s 87(1) of the National Credit Act 34 of
2005, does not enjoy jurisdiction to vary (by reduction or otherwise) a contractually agreed
interest rate determined by a credit agreement, and any order containing such a provision is
null and void.
B. A re-arrangement proposal in terms of s 86(7)(c) of the National Credit Act that
contemplates a monthly instalment which is less than the monthly interest which accrues on
the outstanding balance does not meet the purposes of the National Credit Act. A re-
arrangement order incorporating such a proposal is ultra vires the National Credit Act and the
magistrate's court has no jurisdiction to grant such an order.’
The judgment in Jones prompted the application for rescission which was
founded firmly on the conclusions in Jones.1 The appellant contended that it first
became aware of the nullity of the debt review order when the judgment in Jones
was delivered and that the application for rescission was therefore brought within
the one year period provided for in rule 49(8). This contention was upheld in the
high court and is not disputed in the present appeal.
[8] It is accordingly necessary first to consider the merits of the conclusion in
Jones. This requires an interpretation of the NCA. The principles which find
application to the interpretation of statutes are well settled and were summarised
in Natal Joint Municipal Pension Fund v Endumeni Municipality.2 In the case of
the NCA, s 2(1) enjoins a court when interpreting the NCA to do so in a manner
that gives effect to the purpose of the Act as set out in s 3 thereof.
[9] The NCA was promulgated against the background of a history of
inequality in bargaining power which often resulted in large credit providers
imposing their will, unreasonably, upon vulnerable credit consumers. The
purpose of the NCA, broadly speaking, is therefore to promote a fair, transparent,
competitive, sustainable, responsible, efficient, effective and accessible credit
market and industry.3 It provides for the protection of credit consumers against
1 See also Nedbank Limited v Norris and Others [2016] ZAECPEHC 5; 2016 (3) SA 568 (ECP).
2 Natal Joint Municipal Pension Fund v Endumeni Municipality [2012] ZASCA 13; [2012] 2 All SA 262 (SCA);
2012 (4) SA 593 (SCA) at 603F-604B this Court stated:
‘Interpretation is the process of attributing meaning to the words used in a document, be it legislation, some other
statutory instrument, or contract, having regard to the context provided by reading the particular provision or
provisions in the light of the document as a whole and the circumstances attendant upon its coming into existence.
Whatever the nature of the document, consideration must be given to the language used in the light of the ordinary
rules of grammar and syntax; the context in which the provision appears; the apparent purpose to which it is
directed; and the material known to those responsible for its production.’
See also Theron v Premier, Western Cape [2019] ZASCA 6 para 19-21.
3 Section 3 of the NCA provides:
‘Purpose of Act
The purposes of this Act are to promote and advance the social and economic welfare of South Africans, promote
a fair, transparent, competitive, sustainable, responsible, efficient, effective and accessible credit market and
industry, and to protect consumers, by –
(a) promoting the development of a credit market that is accessible to all South Africans, and in particular to
those who have historically been unable to access credit under sustainable market conditions;
(b) ensuring consistent treatment of different credit products and different credit providers;
the historical abuses by credit providers in a manner articulated in ss 3(a)-(i). For
purposes of the present inquiry three of these protections are of particular
significance. Section 3(d) is directed at promoting equity in the credit market by
balancing the respective rights and responsibilities of credit providers and
consumers. Sections 3(g) and (i) are directed pertinently at the protection of over-
indebted consumers. Section 3(g) seeks to protect over-indebted consumers by
providing mechanisms for resolving their over-indebtedness ‘based on the
principle of satisfaction by the consumer of all responsible financial obligations’.
In similar vein s 3(i) seeks to protect consumers by ‘providing for a consistent
and harmonised system of debt restructuring, enforcement and judgment, which
places priority on the eventual satisfaction of all responsible consumer
obligations under the credit agreement’.
[10] Sections 86-88 set out the procedure for the debt review of a consumer who
is found to be over-indebted as envisaged in s 79 of the NCA.4 Where a debt
(c) promoting responsibility in the credit market by –
(i) encouraging responsible borrowing, avoidance of over-indebtedness and fulfilment of financial obligations
by consumers; and
(ii) discouraging reckless credit granting by credit providers and contractual default by consumers;
(d) promoting equity in the credit market by balancing the respective rights and responsibilities of credit
providers and consumers;
(e) addressing and correcting imbalances in negotiating power between consumers and credit providers by –
(i) providing consumers with education about credit and consumer rights;
(ii) providing consumers with adequate disclosure of standardised information in order to make informed
choices; and
(iii) providing consumers with protection from deception, and from unfair or fraudulent conduct by credit
providers and credit bureaux;
(f) improving consumer credit information and reporting and regulation of credit bureaux;
(g) addressing and preventing over-indebtedness of consumers, and providing mechanisms for resolving over-
indebtedness based on the principle of satisfaction by the consumer of all responsible financial obligations;
(h) providing for a consistent and accessible system of consensual resolution of disputes arising from credit
agreements; and
(i) providing for a consistent and harmonised system of debt restructuring, enforcement and judgment, which
places priority on the eventual satisfaction of all responsible consumer obligations under credit agreements.’
4 Section 79(1) provides:
‘Over-indebtedness
(1) A consumer is over-indebted if the preponderance of available information at the time a determination is made
indicates that the particular consumer is or will be unable to satisfy in a timely manner all the obligations under
all the credit agreements to which the consumer is a party, having regard to that consumer's –
(a) financial means, prospects and obligations; and
(b) probable propensity to satisfy in a timely manner all the obligations under all the credit agreements to which
the consumer is a party, as indicated by the consumer's history of debt repayment.
counsellor has found the consumer to be over-indebted they may issue a proposal
recommending that the magistrate’s court make an order:
‘(ii)
that one or more of the consumer’s obligations be re-arranged by –
(aa)
extending the period of the agreement and reducing the amount of each payment
due accordingly;
(bb)
postponing during a specified period the dates on which payments are due under
the agreement;
(cc)
extending the period of the agreement and postponing during a specified period
the dates on which payments are due under the agreement; or
(dd) . . . .’5
A debt review court may, pursuant to such a proposal, ‘make an order re-
arranging the consumer’s obligations in any manner contemplated in
s 86(7)(c)(ii)’.6
[11] The legislature’s declared purpose with the procedure set out in ss 86 and
87 is to provide a mechanism for resolving over-indebtedness based on the
principle of satisfaction by the consumer of all responsible financial obligations
(s 3(g)). Debt counsellors (in terms of s 86(7)(c)) and magistrates (in terms of
s 87 (1)(b)(ii)) are mandated to seek an equitable balance between the respective
rights and obligations of credit providers and consumers (s 3(d)) in order to
establish a debt restructuring and enforcement which places a priority on the
eventual satisfaction of all responsible consumer obligations assumed under the
credit agreements (s 3(i)). Responsible obligations in the context of the Act, are
all those obligations lawfully undertaken7 under a credit agreement which are not
reckless as envisaged in s 80.8 It has not been suggested that the Loan Agreement
was either reckless or unlawful.
5 Section 86(7)(c)(ii).
6 Section 87(1)(b).
7 Sections 89-91 provide for unlawful agreements and provisions contained in a credit agreement which would
be unlawful.
8 Section 80(1) provides:
‘Reckless credit
[12] Two features emerge from these provisions as they appear in their context
within the scheme of the NCA. Firstly, the debt review court is empowered to ‘re-
arrange’ (s 86 (7)(c)(ii)) or ‘restructure’ (s 3(i)) the consumer’s obligations under
the credit agreement. It is not empowered to alter or amend the obligation. Hence,
in Norris Goosen J held that ‘a re-arrangement order does not, and cannot,
extinguish the underlying contractual obligations’.9 This conclusion must be
endorsed.
[13] Secondly, in re-arranging the obligations the debt review court is enjoined
to do so with due deference to the legislative purpose articulated in ss 3 (d), (g)
and (i) of the NCA.
[14] The obligations undertaken in this matter are twofold. Firstly, the
repayment of the capital sum advanced and secondly, the payment of interest at
the agreed rate on the outstanding balance of the capital from time to time.
[15] The point of departure in any re-arrangement must of necessity be the
provisions of the NCA and in particular s 3 as set out earlier. Where
s 86(7)(c)(ii)(aa) empowers a magistrate to re-arrange the debt repayment by
extending the period and reducing the monthly instalments ‘accordingly’ it
envisages a reduction in the monthly instalment, with a concomitant extension of
the repayment period, which would have the effect that all the obligations
(1) A credit agreement is reckless if, at the time that the agreement was made, or at the time when the amount
approved in terms of the agreement is increased, other than an increase in terms of section 119(4) –
(a) the credit provider failed to conduct an assessment as required by section 81(2), irrespective of what the
outcome of such an assessment might have concluded at the time; or
(b) the credit provider, having conducted an assessment as required by section 81(2), entered into the credit
agreement with the consumer despite the fact that the preponderance of information available to the credit provider
indicated that –
(i) the consumer did not generally understand or appreciate the consumer's risks, costs or obligations under
the proposed credit agreement; or
(ii) entering into that credit agreement would make the consumer over-indebted.’
9 Norris para 44.
assumed under the credit agreement would be satisfied at the conclusion of the
extended period.
[16] In Seyffert and Seyffert v FirstRand Bank Limited [2012] ZASCA 81 this
Court considered a proposal by a debt counsellor which had been rejected by a
credit provider. It held:
‘The proposal envisaged payments from October 2009 when the balance owing was apparently
R203 786,18 and, clearly, even with regular payments of the suggested instalment, the debt
would not have been discharged within that period. Close examination of the proposal reveals
that it is based on the monthly instalment being used to discharge some of the interest as it
accumulated with no payments being made in respect of the capital amount of the loan. In the
result there would be a balance of R28 898,64 still due in September 2029. Not even the
accumulating interest (which the debt counsellor set at 10 per cent per annum) would have been
covered by payment of the proposed instalments.’10
It proceeded to conclude:
‘Their restructuring proposals were simply, as the court below found, “devoid of economic
rationality”, and would have left a substantial part of the debt unpaid.’
[17] These remarks are equally apposite to the debt review order in this case.
For the reasons set out earlier a debt review order which does not result in the
satisfaction of all responsible obligations assumed under the credit agreement
during the repayment period does not meet the purposes of the NCA. In the result
I agree with the conclusions reached in Jones which must be endorsed.
[18] Reverting to the facts of this case, the debt review court did not specify in
terms of which sub-provision of s 86(7)(c)(ii) it purported to act. Counsel on
behalf of the respondents, however, acknowledged that the order purports to be
in accordance with s 86(7)(c)(ii)(aa). As recorded earlier the debt review court
did not make an order in accordance with the proposal of the debt counsellor.
10 Seyffert para 10.
Rather, it reduced the monthly instalments substantially from that proposed by
the debt counsellor and extended the period for repayment beyond that which the
debt counsellor had envisaged. The reduction of the monthly instalment was so
substantial that it does not remotely cover the monthly interest due in terms of the
order. Such an order does not serve to protect the interests of the consumer who
would, at the end of the period, be left with a substantial debt which they would
in all likelihood be unable to pay. The debt review order is therefore ultra vires
the provisions of the NCA and was accordingly void ab origine.
[19] The high court, considered, however, that whereas the debt review order
was issued prior to the judgment in Jones, the findings of the court in Jones were
of no application at the time when the debt review order was made. In this respect
the high court erred. Neither the findings in Jones nor in Norris created new law.
These judgments merely pronounced on the meaning of the NCA, as it was
promulgated in 2005.11 Before us counsel for the respondents did not contend
otherwise. The reasoning of the high court can therefore not be sustained. In the
result the rescission order was correctly granted.
[20] By virtue of the conclusion to which I have come on the first issue the
appealability issue pales into insignificance. I shall accordingly deal briefly with
this aspect.
[21] The law on which judgments are appealable is settled. I am in full
agreement with the counsel for the appellant that the rescission order granted by
the magistrate’s court was not appealable in terms of s 83(b) of the Magistrates’
Court Act 32 of 1944. It was an interlocutory order, which placed the parties back
in the position in which they were before the re-arrangement order was granted.
11 See Finbro Furnitures (Pty) Ltd v Registrar Deeds Bloemfontein and Others [1985] 4 All SA 388 (AD); 1985
(4) SA 773 (A) at 804D.
This Court in HMI Healthcare Corporation (Pty) Ltd v Medshield Medical
Scheme and Others [2017] ZASCA 160 stated in para 18:
‘It is plain that a rescission order does not have a final and definitive effect. In De Vos v Cooper
& Ferreira this court expressed the view that “[s]o ‘n bevel [that is, a rescission order] het
immers nie enige finale of beslissende uitwerking op die geskilpunte in die hoofgeding nie”.
The rescission order simply returns the parties to the positions which they were in prior to the
ex parte order being granted. De Vos relied inter alia on Gatebe v Gatebe and Ranchod v Lalloo.
In Gatebe, De Villiers JP held:
“The order therefore does not dispose of the main case or of any of the issues in the main case,
and therefore has not the effect of a definitive sentence in this behalf. It still remains to consider
whether it has not the effect of a definitive sentence in that it causes irreparable prejudice. Here
again it seems to me to be clear that an order merely rescinding a default judgment does not
cause irreparable prejudice, for in the definitive sentence the effect of the decision can
obviously be repaired.”’ (Footnotes omitted.)
[22] The judgment sought to be appealed by the respondents lacked any of the
attributes in the Zweni v Minister of Law and Order of the Republic of South
Africa 1993 (1) SA 523 (AD); [1993] 1 All SA 365 (A), (536B-D) where the
court ruled against the appealability of the interim order made by the court of first
instance. It held that the interim order should be tested against (i) the finality of
the order; (ii) the definitive rights of the parties; and (iii) the effect of disposing
of a substantial portion of the relief claimed. Therefore, the reliance by the court
a quo in Slabbert v MEC for Health and Social Development, Gauteng [2016]
ZASCA 153, was misplaced. The door is still open to the respondents to approach
the magistrate’s court for a determination of a new debt review order.
[23] I turn to the costs of the appeal. The respondents counsel submitted that, in
the event that the appeal is upheld, this Court should make no order as to costs as
the prosecution of the appeal was in the public interest. This could not be the case
as the matter rested on the interpretation of the provisions of the NCA. The
respondents could have withdrawn their opposition to the appeal to minimise
costs, but pursued the appeal to the date of the hearing. The respondents could
have abided by the decision of this Court, if they felt that it was in the public
interest, but failed to do so. For these reasons, the respondents should be ordered
to pay the appellant’s costs, including the costs of two counsel.
[24] In the result, I make the following order:
The appeal is upheld with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
The order of the court below is set aside and replaced with the following
order:
‘The appeal is dismissed with costs.’
_______________
Y T MBATHA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
A Gautschi SC (with him B Stevens and J Chanza)
Instructed by:
CF Van Coller Attorneys, Germiston
Symington & De Kok, Bloemfontein
For respondents:
J C Viljoen
Instructed by:
Morgan Attorneys, Johannesburg
Du Toit Lamprecht Incorporated, Bloemfontein. | SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
01 April 2020
STATUS
Immediate
FirstRand Bank Ltd v McLachlan and Others (394/2019) [2020] ZASCA 31 (01
April 2020)
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not form part of
the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld the appeal of the appellant, FirstRand Bank Ltd,
against the decision of the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg (the high court).
In 2006 the appellant and the second and third respondents (the respondents), Roshen and Komarie
Maharaj, entered into a Grant of Loan Agreement (the Loan Agreement), in terms of which the appellant
advanced an amount of R2.1 million to the respondents. The monthly instalment was fixed at
R20 335,07, inclusive of 10,05 per cent interest per annum calculated daily and compounded monthly.
The interest was variable at the instance of the appellant.
In 2010, the respondents lodged an application for debt review in terms of s 86 of the National Credit
Act 43 of 2005 (the NCA). The first respondent, Minetta Cecilia Petronella Mclachlan, a debt counsellor,
prepared a debt repayment proposal that was referred to a magistrate in terms of s 86(8)(b) of the NCA.
In 2011, the magistrate’s court, Westonaria (the magistrate’s court) granted a debt re-arrangement
order in terms of s 86(7)(c)(ii) in favour of the respondents. In granting the order, the court did not adopt
the repayment proposal submitted by the debt counsellor. In terms of the order, the respondents were
declared to be over-indebted and their obligations were re-arranged. With regard to the Loan
Agreement, the monthly instalments were reduced to R8 185,50 per month and the period was
extended to 261 months at a fixed interest rate of 12,55 per cent.
The respondents complied with the order until June 2017, when the appellant made application for a
rescission of the order in terms of rule 49(8) of the Magistrates’ Court Rules on the basis that the order
was void ab origine for being ultra vires the NCA. The magistrate upheld the application and rescinded
the debt review order. In an appeal to the full bench of the high court, the order of the magistrate was
set aside. This order which the appellants then appealed to the SCA.
In the interpretation of the NCA, the SCA held that, firstly, a debt review court was empowered to re-
arrange or ‘restructure the consumer’s obligations under the credit agreement. It was not empowered
to alter or amend the obligation. Therefore, a re-arrangement order does not, and cannot, extinguish
the underlying contractual obligations. Secondly, in re-arranging the obligations, a debt review court
was enjoined to do so with due deference to the legislative purposes of the NCA that include ss 3(d)
promoting equity in the credit market by balancing the respective rights and responsibilities of credit
providers and consumers; 3(g) addressing over-indebtedness of consumers based on the principle of
satisfaction by the consumer of all responsible financial obligations; and 3(i) providing for a consistent
and harmonised system of debt restructuring, which places priority on the eventual satisfaction of all
responsible consumer obligations under credit agreements.
The SCA further held that the debt review order reduced the monthly instalments substantially from that
proposed by the debt counsellor and extended the period for repayment beyond that which the debt
counsellor had envisaged. The reduction of the monthly instalment was so substantial that it does not
remotely cover the monthly interest due in terms of the order. Such an order does not serve to protect
the interests of the consumer who would be left with a substantial debt that they would in all likelihood
be unable to pay. The debt review order was therefore ultra vires the provisions of the NCA and was
accordingly void ab origine.
The SCA held that the law on which judgments are appealable was settled. The judgment sought to be
appealed lacked any of the following attributes (i) the finality of the order; (ii) the definitive rights of the
parties; and (iii) the effect of disposing of a substantial portion of the relief claimed. Therefore, the
rescission order granted by the magistrate’s court was not appealable in terms of s 83(b) of the
Magistrates’ Court Act 32 of 1944. The appeal was accordingly upheld. |
1255 | non-electoral | 2008 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 411/07
In the matter between:
JACOBUS HENDRIK SAAYMAN
Appellant
and
CHRISTIAAN ANDREAS VISSER
Respondent
_______________________________________________________
Coram:
Navsa, Ponnan JJA et Snyders AJA
Date of hearing:
16 May 2008
Date of delivery:
30 May 2008
Summary:
Liability of homeowner in relation to the shooting of a 16 year-old boy by a
security guard stationed at the premises ─ test to determine negligence on part of
homeowner ─ reliance on expertise of security company ─ in totality of circumstances
homeowner held not liable.
Neutral citation:
Saayman v Visser (411/07) [2008] ZASCA 71 (30 May
2008).
_______________________________________________________
NAVSA JA
NAVSA JA:
[1] During the early hours of the morning of Saturday 13 February 1999, in a
suburb in Kimberley, events unfolded that changed the life of sixteen year-old
Gideon Saayman forever. He was shot in the back and the neck whilst in the
immediate vicinity of the house of the respondent, Mr Christiaan Visser. Gideon
was shot by a security guard, Mr Sylvester Morebudi, who had been stationed at
Mr Visser’s house at the latter’s instance by Griekwa Security CC, a close
corporation that provided security services to the public. The close corporation
traded under the name Barn Owl Security. Mr Visser was a diamond digger and
businessman who kept diamonds and other valuables at his home. He was away
from home fairly regularly, sometimes for a month at a time, and required 24-
hour protection for his wife and daughter who resided with him in the house. As a
consequence of being shot Gideon sustained serious injuries. According to the
particulars of claim Gideon’s family had to relocate to Parow in the Western Cape
to enable him to obtain the necessary medical treatment.
[2] This is an appeal against a judgment of the Kimberley High Court
(Tlaletsi AJP), in terms of which the appellant’s claim for damages against the
respondent, both in his personal and in his representative capacity, as the father
and the guardian of Gideon, was dismissed with costs. The other two defendants
in the high court, Griekwa Security CC and Mr Morebudi, chose not to defend the
action and were held to be jointly and severally liable for the damages sustained
by the appellant but not for the latter’s costs in relation to the trial on the merits.1
The present appeal is before us with the leave of the court below.
[3] This case is a very sad and dramatic illustration of how steps taken by an
increasingly desperate and hapless populace to protect their lives and homes
against the crime wave in this country can have negative effects, particularly
1 At the commencement of the trial the court below made an order in terms of Uniform rule 33(4)
that the merits first be determined.
when it involves the use of firearms ─ in the present case Mr Morebudi used a
Norinco 12-bore shotgun. It demonstrates how far the consequences of rampant
crime extend and how easily life can be lost in South Africa. It also serves as a
warning to those who advocate a resort to lethal force (irrespective of
circumstances) to thwart the threat of crime, against the awful results of such
force, that are unfortunately all too predictable. On the other hand, it should also
serve to prompt government to harness every available resource, as a matter of
pressing priority, to end the scourge of crime before confidence in our
Constitutional order is lost or abandoned.
The Background
[4] During the night of Friday 12 February 1999, Gideon and his friend,
Mr Winton Smith, attended a party at Gideon’s home where they both consumed
alcohol, if not copiously, then at least in substantial quantities. Mr Smith was
19 years old at the time. Shortly after midnight, after all the other partygoers had
gone to sleep, the two youngsters went in search of further entertainment and, to
that end, walked to a pub in the vicinity. They spent approximately half an hour at
the pub, just conversing. There was however, not much ‘action’ at the pub and
the two decided to return to their homes. As they made their way home, they
passed Mr Visser’s house and, in their inebriated state, decided to play a prank.
Little did they know how costly this would prove. The prank was to consist of
overturning a pot-plant located on the lawn in the front of the premises between
the perimeter fence and the house. The fence was only partially constructed, the
bars between the pillars not yet having being inserted.
[5] The two would-be pranksters entered the premises but found that they
could not dislodge the heavy pot, with only the top part giving way to the force
applied. Unsuccessful, they decided to leave. As they were departing they heard
the sound of a firearm being discharged. They could not tell whence it came. In a
panic they ran out of the premises and onto the public street. As they made their
way along the pavement, another shot was fired. Gideon was struck and fell.
Mr Smith stopped, turned around and saw Mr Morebudi at one of the motor
gates. The former put his arms up in a gesture of surrender and Mr Morebudi
then motioned him closer. Gideon, who was lying on the ground, appeared to be
gurgling or choking. Mr Morebudi handcuffed Mr Smith and made him lie on his
stomach on the ground.
[6] Mr Visser, who had been asleep in his house, was awoken by the
gunshots. He proceeded to the front door of the house where he was met by
Mr Morebudi. The latter reported to him that he had wounded one person and
arrested another. The police were summoned and arrived. Mr Smith was
transported to the police station and an ambulance took Gideon to hospital.
[7] Mr Morebudi had shot Gideon using a licensed shotgun issued to him by
Griekwa Security. At the time of the shooting the street in front of the house was
well-lit.
[8] It is common cause that in 1998, the year preceding the shooting,
Mr Morebudi had been employed for the first time by Griekwa Security as a
security guard to be deployed where clients required such a service. At the
beginning of 1999, it was apparently agreed between all the security guards and
Griekwa Security that the former would render services to the latter as
independent contractors ─ at first blush this appears contrived but the result of
the appeal is not affected thereby. This arrangement was in place at the time of
the shooting.
[9] Griekwa Security had provided Mr Morebudi’s services in terms of an oral
agreement concluded during December 1998 between itself and Mr Visser. The
close corporation had been approached by Mr Visser with a request that it
provide an armed security guard on a 24-hour basis as protection for himself, his
family and his assets. In terms of the contract Mr Visser did not have the right to
nominate the particular guard to be deployed, nor did he have any say about the
manner in which the security guard was to perform his duties. This was all in the
province of Griekwa Security. In relation to the exercise of their duties, the
security guards were all instructed to follow only such orders as emanated from
the close corporation. Griekwa Security also required that any problems that a
homeowner might experience with a security guard be taken up with them, rather
than with the guard directly. The close corporation had in the past, without
incident, provided Mr Visser with security services at another location near the
Vaal River.
[10] In Mr Visser’s response to a request for further particulars for trial he
stated that, upon enquiry, he was informed by Griekwa Security that the security
guards who would be employed at his home were indeed properly trained and
were instructed in the use of firearms. Mr Visser testified in the court below that,
during December 1998, when he concluded the agreement for the provision of
security services at his home, he had asked whether the security guard who
would be posted there was qualified. Mr Steven Hansen, on behalf of Griekwa
Security, told him that the guard had training in the use of the firearm.2 He had
enquired because he was aware of the danger of a firearm being employed on
his property.
[11] A document issued by an entity calling itself Advanced Specialised Security
Training was produced at the trail, certifying that, on 10 October 1998
Mr Morebudi had received training in the use of a 9mm pistol and a Norinco 12-
bore shotgun. Other related training received by Mr Morebudi only took place
after the shooting incident. At the time of the shooting Griekwa Security was not
registered, as required by legislation, with the then regulatory Board, nor was
Mr Morebudi then properly qualified to be a security guard. Mr Visser was
unaware of this. It is uncontested that Griekwa Security operated in the normal
2 The following is the relevant part of the testimony:
‘Al wat ek mnr Hansen gevra het, is die man bevoeg, toe sê hy die man het wel opleiding gehad
om hierdie vuurwapen te hanteer.’
course, as would any entity that provided security services, and from Mr Visser’s
perspective there was nothing untoward in the manner in which it conducted its
business.
[12] Mr Visser had no knowledge of the general tenor of the instructions issued
to the guards by Griekwa Security nor of any specific instructions concerning the
circumstances under which shooting would be justified. It is common cause that
there were no signs at Mr Visser’s home warning the public that an armed
security guard was on duty.
[13] At the time of the trial in the court below, the close corporation had no
assets worth mentioning and Mr Morebudi was serving a term of imprisonment
as a result of his conviction on a charge of attempted murder flowing from the
events set out above. This explains, at least partially, why the action against the
respondent was pursued and this appeal persisted with.
[14] The issue in this appeal is whether, in the circumstances set out above,
Mr Visser is liable for what now appears to be accepted was the unlawful
shooting of Gideon.
[15] It was contended on behalf of the appellant that to employ a security
guard with a shotgun and live ammunition in a residential area is in itself the
creation of a dangerous situation of which the respondent was aware. Counsel
for the appellant submitted that a reasonable person in the position of Mr Visser
would have foreseen the possibility of trespassers on the property and that they
might be injured, and such person would have taken the necessary steps to
guard against that eventuality. Counsel argued further that a reasonable person
would have ensured that members of the public were alerted, by way of a
prominent sign, that an armed security guard was present. Furthermore, that the
area where the guard was stationed should have been adequately lit and that
Mr Visser should have instructed Griekwa Security to ensure that the shotgun
would first discharge at least two blanks and only thereafter, if circumstances so
demanded, live ammunition. Thus, it was contended, the respondent should be
liable for the injuries suffered by Gideon, even where, as here, Griekwa Security
had provided security services as an independent contractor. In this regard the
appellant relied on the decision in Langley Fox Building Partnership (Pty) Ltd v
De Valence 1991 (1) SA 1 (A).
[16] The respondent contended that the application of the principles laid down
in Langley Fox compelled the contrary conclusion. It was contended on behalf of
Mr Visser that, when the agreement for the provision for security services was
concluded, the parties could only have intended that a firearm would be used in
circumstances that justified it and that he was entitled to assume that the security
guards would act accordingly.
[17] In the court below counsel for the appellant accepted that at the time of
the shooting Griekwa Security had operated as an independent contractor at the
instance of Mr Visser and had contended that the latter was liable for the
damages sustained on the basis of his own negligence. That stance, particularly
having regard to what is set out in para 9 above, rightly, did not change before
us.
Conclusions
[18] The general rule of our law is that an employer is not responsible for the
negligence or the wrongdoing of an independent contractor utilised by him/her.3
A recognised exception is where the employer himself/herself has been negligent
in regard to the conduct of the independent contractor which caused harm to a
3 See Colonial Mutual Life Assurance Society Ltd v Macdonald 1931 AD 412 at 431-432 where
the following appears:
‘To hold an employer liable in a case where he has no say and no right of supervision and control
would, in my opinion, be going further than is warranted by principle or authority.’
third party.4 Such liability is not vicarious.5 An employer is liable in circumstances
where he/she has broken a duty he/she owed to those injured. In Langley Fox
the following was stated:
‘[I]n every case the answer to the question whether or not the duty arises must depend on all the
facts.’6
[19] Under English law one situation in which an employer of an independent
contractor would be liable for the wrongs of the latter is where the work
performed is dangerous.7 There are dicta in the Dukes case which tend to
suggest that, whenever the work entails danger to the public, liability is almost
inevitable. Goldstone AJA, in Langley Fox, after examining English cases on the
See also Jonathan Burchell Principles of Delict (1993) p 227.
4 In Dukes v Marthinusen 1937 AD 12 at+ 17 an exception to this rule was discussed, both in
English law and our own. Liability on the part of an employer would arise where the employer
himself/herself has been negligent in regard to the conduct of the independent contractor which
causes harm to the third party. In Dukes case, after an examination of English law on the subject,
Stratford ACJ said the following (at 23):
‘The English law on the subject as I have stated it to be is in complete accord with our own, both
systems rest the rule as to the liability of an employer for any damage caused by work he
authorises another to do upon the law of negligence.’
In relation to the question of determining whether there was a duty on the employer to take
precautions to protect the public the following was said:
‘The duty if it is to be inferred must arise from the nature of the work authorised taking into
consideration all the circumstances of its execution such as, in particular, the place of such
execution.’
5 As indicated in the preceding paragraph vicarious liability was not contended for.
6 At 9H.
7 In English law the exceptions to the principle that someone who employs an independent
contractor to do work on his behalf is not in the ordinary way responsible for any tort committed
by the contractor in the course of the execution of the work are set out in Alcock v Wraith CA
(1991) 59 BLR 16 as cited in Hepple, Howarth & Matthews Tort Cases & Materials 5 ed (2000) p
1066:
‘(a) Cases where the employer is under some statutory duty which he cannot delegate.
(b) Cases involving the withdrawal of support from neighbouring land.
(c) Cases involving the escape of fire.
(d) Cases involving the escape of substances, such as explosives which have been brought onto
the land and which are likely to do damage if they escape; liability will attach under the rule in
Rylands v Fletcher (1868) LR 3 HL 330.
(e) Cases involving operations on the highway which may cause danger to persons using the
highway.
(f) Cases involving non-delegable duties of an employer for the safety of his employees.
(g) Cases involving extra-hazardous acts.’
subject, and considering the Dukes case, stated the following:
‘In my judgment, the correct approach to the liability of an employer for the negligence of an
independent contractor is to apply the fundamental rule of our law that obliges a person to
exercise that degree of care which the circumstances demand.’8
[20] Later in Langley Fox the following is stated:
‘Whether the circumstances demand the exercise of care will depend upon proof that the
employer owed the plaintiff a duty of care and that the damage suffered was not too remote.’9
[21] It is important to note that in our law the fact that the work was dangerous
is only one of the factors to be taken into account in determining whether an
employer would be personally negligent in regard to the harm caused to a third
party by an independent contractor. That fact in itself would not invariably lead to
liability.10
[22] After discussing Peri-Urban Areas Health Board v Munarin 1965 (3) SA
367 (A), which concerned the liability of the employer of an independent
contractor for damages arising from the death of a third party who was injured in
consequence of dangerous operations performed by the contractor, Goldstone
AJA, in Langley Fox, came to the following conclusion:
‘[I]n a case such as the present, there are three broad questions which must be asked, viz:
(1)
would a reasonable man have foreseen the risk of danger in consequence of the work he
employed the contractor to perform? If so,
(2)
would a reasonable man have taken steps to guard against the danger? If so,
(3)
were such steps duly taken in the case in question?’11
[23] Only where the answer to the first two questions is in the affirmative does
a legal duty arise, the failure to comply with which can form the basis of liability.
8 At 11E. See also Jonathan Burchell Principles of Delict, supra, at 228.
9 At 11I.
10 At 9H-11E.
11 At 12H-J.
The following dictum in Langley Fox is important:
‘It follows from the aforegoing that the existence of a duty upon an employer of an independent
contractor to take steps to prevent harm to members of the public will depend in each case upon
the facts. It would be relevant to consider the nature of the danger; the context in which the
danger may arise; the degree of expertise available to the employer and the independent
contractor respectively; and the means available to the employer to avert the danger. This list is
in no way meant to be exhaustive.’12
[24] In circumstances in which the breach of a duty is established it is often
said that whilst the performance of the duties in terms of the contract between
the employer and the independent contractor can be delegated the responsibility
for the performance cannot be. The expression used is ‘non-delegable duties’.13
[25] In answer to the first question referred to in para 22 above it appears to
me to be clear that the risk of danger in employing an armed security guard on
one’s premises was reasonably foreseeable.
[26] In dealing with the second question it is necessary to consider that
Mr Visser turned to a provider of security services to protect his family. There is
no indication that there was anything in the manner in which Griekwa Security
conducted or projected itself that would have put a reasonable person on his/her
guard. There was nothing to indicate that it did not possess the necessary
expertise or that it did not operate within the law. The following part of Mr Visser’s
testimony is relevant:
‘Ek voel . . . ek het ‘n maatskappy gehuur wat geregistreer is by die Raad, dit is, hy ken die wet
en hy ken sy pligte. Ek ken nie die veiligheidswette en pligte nie.
Moet [ons] daaruit verstaan dat u u op hulle verlaat? --- Dit is heeltemal korrek.’
[27] It is clear that, mindful of the danger of firearms and their use, Mr Visser
enquired whether the guards who would be posted had the necessary training in
firearms. As stated earlier he was reassured in this regard. Furthermore,
12 At 13A-C.
13 See Langley Fox at 8A-J.
Mr Visser had previously used Griekwa Security’s services at another location
without incident.
[28] At the time immediately prior to the shooting, when the security guard had
to deal with the intruders, he was required to exercise what in ‘modern’ language
would be described as a ‘judgment call’. Mr Visser was asleep and unaware of
the existence of a potentially dangerous situation and could therefore not
intervene to prevent the harm that ensued.
[29] In Veiera v Van Rensburg 1953 (3) SA 647 (T) the court took into
consideration that a reasonable homeowner would foresee that people might,
from time to time come to the premises, some to find the way, some to visit and
some to sell something. In that case liability for an attack by a vicious dog, kept
by the owner to protect his wife and infant child, was in issue. The court had
regard to a notice, warning about the presence of the dog and found that it was
obscured and not in a place one would expect to find it. The court held that the
notice was quite insufficient to protect the plaintiff and that the putting up of the
notice was not a proper exercise of the duty of care. The court thus held the
defendant liable for the damages suffered by a salesperson who had been
attacked by the dog.
[30] A distinction between Veiera and the present case is that a vicious dog is
not in the position of an independent contractor and is not called upon to exercise
judgment. Griekwa Security was employed for its specialist knowledge
concerning security arrangements and the protection of persons and property.
The employment of an armed guard, particularly on the assumption that he/she is
properly trained to deal with any situation that might develop is very different to
the use of a fierce dog which the owner knows will attack trespassers as was the
case in Veiera.14
14 See 654H.
[31] It is probably more common for individual households to contract armed
response units rather than to have armed guards permanently stationed at their
homes. Assuming for the moment that it can rightly be expected of a homeowner
who has an armed security guard permanently on the premises to, at the very
least, put up a sign warning the public at large of the presence of the armed
guard, it is not at all clear that the harm in the present case would have been
avoided. First, Gideon and Mr Smith were inebriated and no evidence was
presented which showed that they were in a state to notice and/or understand
any sign that might have been displayed. Although testifying that he had seen no
warning sign Mr Smith did not say that, had a sign been displayed, they would
definitely not have intruded upon the premises. Second, there was no evidence
that they were familiar with the immediate vicinity in which the shooting took
place or of how recently, if at all, they had previously passed Mr Visser’s house ─
this would have addressed the question of whether the sign, if displayed, might
have been noticed by either or both on a prior occasion. Third, considering that
they were intent on playing a prank it is more probable than not that their state of
mind was such that the sign might have been a spur rather than a deterring
factor ─ they were clearly in an uninhibited frame of mind.
[32] Thus, if one were to conclude that Mr Visser was negligent in not
displaying a sign warning the public about the presence of an armed guard, the
conclusion that the consequences referred to above would have been avoided is
unwarranted. If anything, all the pointers are to the contrary.
[33] Furthermore, I am not persuaded that the public should be informed of
where exactly an armed security guard is positioned or that his position should
be well-lit. It appears to me that this might well put the guard in danger against
potential attackers and also put the occupants of the house at risk. It might
simply encourage entry from another point of the premises. The submission on
behalf of the appellant in this regard is, in my view, fallacious.
[34] The submission that an armed guard expecting to meet danger should as
a matter of course first use blank ammunition before resorting to live ammunition
is entirely without merit and not deserving of any further consideration.
[35] In assessing whether or not Mr Visser acted reasonably the following
passage from Grueber’s work on the Lex Aquilia, cited in Fred Saber (Pty) Ltd v
Franks 1949 (1) SA 388 (A) at 405, is important15:
‘[T]he conduct of the diligens paterfamilias implies only an average standard. No one can
reasonably expect from a man that he should be possessed of qualities which are rarely to be
found amongst men, or that he should use the utmost strength of which he is capable, or that he
should be as cautious and careful as a man can possibly be. The standard is, however, an
objective one. It is true the conduct of a diligens paterfamilias will vary, but it will vary in
accordance with the circumstances of the case: the amount of the skill, strength, foresight will
always be determined by the nature of the business or work to be done, and insofar as the
standard is one and the same for everybody under the same circumstances.’
[36] In the present case Mr Visser contracted a security company which he
was entitled to assume had the necessary expertise and that would operate
within the confines of the law. He enquired about the proficiency of the security
guards concerning the use of firearms. He was reassured. His past experiences
with the close corporation must have been a further cause for reassurance. To
have expected further enquiry and steps would be placing too heavy a burden on
him and other homeowners in his position.
[37] The present litigation might have been avoided had Griekwa Security not
been impecunious. Regrettably, what is set out above and the conclusion that
must follow, does not provide comfort for Gideon and his parents. However, to
land Mr Visser with liability in the circumstances of this case would not only be
inequitable but would extend our law beyond sustainable parameters.
15 This passage was also referred to by Botha JA in Langley Fox, supra, at 17D-F.
[38] For the reasons mentioned the following order is made:
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
_________________
M S NAVSA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
CONCUR:
PONNAN
JA
SNYDERS AJA | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
30 May 2008
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media
and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
On 30 May 2008 the Supreme Court of Appeal handed down judgment in the
matter J H Saayman v C A Visser. It dismissed an appeal against a judgment
of the Kimberley High Court in terms of which it dismissed a claim by the
father of Gideon Saayman against Mr Visser, a diamond digger and
businessman, who had contracted a security company to post a security
guard permanently at his home. The security guard who had been employed
by Griekwa Security, a close corporation trading as Barn Owl Security, had
used a 12-bore shotgun to shoot Gideon during the early morning hours of
13 February 1999 causing him to sustain severe injuries. Shortly before the
shooting Gideon and a friend, both of whom were inebriated, had entered the
grounds to play a prank, namely, to overthrow a pot plant. The shooting
incident took place whilst Mr Visser and his family were asleep in the house.
Mr Visser was often away from home and had diamonds and other valuables
on the property. He required security services for the protection of his wife, his
daughter and of his property.
The Kimberley High Court had granted judgment against the security guard
and the close corporation ─ both chose not to defend the action.
It was contended on behalf of the appellant that Mr Visser had been negligent
in that a reasonable homeowner in his position would have realised the
danger of employing an armed guard in a residential area, would have
foreseen the possibility that trespassers would be injured and would have
taken the necessary steps to guard against that eventuality. It was contended
further that the area where the guard was stationed should have been well-lit
and the public should have been warned about his presence by way of a
prominent sign. It was also contended that the security guard should have
been instructed beforehand to first discharge two blanks and only thereafter
live ammunition.
This court held that when Mr Visser contracted Griekwa Security there was
nothing to indicate that it did not possess the necessary expertise and that it
would not operate within the law. Mr Visser had used their services before at
another location without incident. Mr Visser had enquired about whether the
guard to be posted at his house had received training in the use of a firearm
and was reassured in this regard. The security guard took instructions only
from the close corporation.
This court observed that even if a sign had been displayed indicating a guard
on the premises Gideon and his friend were not in a state of mind where it
would have prevented the intrusion. Furthermore, the court was not
persuaded that a homeowner should inform the public of exactly where a
guard is posted and that doing so might put the guard and occupants of the
house at risk. The submission that an armed guard expecting to meet danger
should as a matter of course first use blank ammunition before resorting to
live ammunition was without merit.
The court noted that this case was a sad and dramatic illustration of how
steps taken by an increasingly desperate and hapless populace to protect
their lives and homes against the crime wave in this country can have
negative effects, particularly when it involves the use of firearms. It
demonstrates how far the consequences of rampant crime extend and how
easily life can be lost in South Africa. It also serves as a warning to those who
advocate a resort to lethal force (irrespective of circumstances) to thwart the
threat of crime, against the awful results of such force, that are unfortunately
all too predictable. On the other hand, it should also serve to prompt
government to harness every available resource, as a matter of pressing
priority, to end the scourge of crime before confidence in our Constitutional
order is lost or abandoned.
Regrettably, the appeal had to be dismissed. This court held that in the totality
of the circumstances to land Mr Visser with liability would not only be
inequitable but would extend our law beyond sustainable parameters.
--ends-- |
2698 | non-electoral | 2012 | REPORTABLE
THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case no: 920/2010
In the matter between:
NATAL JOINT MUNICIPAL PENSION FUND
Appellant
and
ENDUMENI MUNICIPALITY
Respondent
Neutral citation: Natal Joint Municipal Pension Fund v Endumeni
Municipality (920/2010) [2012] ZASCA 13 (15 March
2012)
Coram:
FARLAM, VAN HEERDEN, CACHALIA, LEACH and
WALLIS JJA.
Heard:
23 February, 2012
Delivered: 16 March 2012
Summary: Pension Fund for municipal employees – payment of adjusted
contribution by municipality – whether such contribution recoverable in
terms of the proviso to regulation 1(xxi)(h) of the regulations governing
the fund – proper approach to interpretation of documents – whether the
proviso was valid in terms of s 12(1) of the Pension Funds Act 24 of 1956
– whether the requirements for invoking the proviso were satisfied.
ORDER
On appeal from: KwaZulu-Natal High Court, Pietermaritzburg (Swain J
sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal succeeds with costs, such costs to include those
consequent upon the employment of two counsel.
The order of the trial court is set aside and replaced by the
following order:
„Judgment is granted in favour of the plaintiff and against the defendant
for:
Payment of the sum of R2 573 740;
Interest on the said sum of R2 573 740 at a rate of 15.5% per
annum from 15 October 2007 to the date of payment;
Costs of suit, such costs to include those consequent upon the
employment of two counsel.‟
JUDGMENT
WALLIS
JA
(FARLAM,
VAN
HEERDEN,
CACHALIA
and
LEACH JJA concurring)
[1] Two pension funds, the Superannuation Fund and the Retirement
Fund,1 and one provident fund, the Provident Fund,2 established by
legislation for employees of local authorities in KwaZulu-Natal, are
managed in terms of a single set of regulations. They are referred to
collectively as the Natal Joint Municipal Pension Fund (the Fund), the
appellant in this appeal. In addition to the regulations for the management
and administration of the three funds, each separate fund has its own set
of governing regulations dealing with the operation of that fund and in
particular the contributions payable to that fund by members and
employers and the benefits due to members of that fund. All three funds
are registered as pension funds in terms of the Pension Funds Act 24 of
1956 (the Act). The Endumeni Municipality (Endumeni), the respondent,
is a participant in the Fund and its employees are entitled to select which
of the three funds they will join. The dispute between Endumeni and the
Fund concerns an attempt by the latter to recover an adjusted contribution
imposed
on
Endumeni
under
the
regulations
governing
the
Superannuation Fund. The attempt failed before Swain J and the present
1 The Superannuation Fund operates in terms of the Local Government Superannuation Ordinance 24
of 1973 and the Retirement Fund operates in terms of the Natal Joint Municipal Pension Fund
(Retirement) Ordinance 27 of 1974.
2 The Provident Fund operates in terms of the KwaZulu-Natal Joint Municipal Provident Fund Act 4 of
1995.
appeal is with his leave. The dispute arises in the following
circumstances.
[2] In real life it is impossible for a person who is only 43 years old to
have 45 years of service with their employer. However, in the arcane
calculations that actuaries are required to undertake in relation to pension
funds, that is not only possible but entirely legitimate. By changing his
membership from the Superannuation Fund to the Provident Fund;
reducing his pensionable emoluments to R5 000 per month whilst a
member of the latter and then rejoining the Superannuation Fund and,
with immediate effect, increasing his pensionable emoluments to R34 000
per month, Mr Bart Maltman, a senior employee with Endumeni, was
able to secure that he was credited in the Superannuation Fund with 45
years service, although he was only 43 years old. A year later he resigned
his employment and received a lump sum withdrawal benefit of some
R2.7 million. To some degree his resignation was stage-managed in order
to enable him to claim this benefit because he resigned on the basis of
advice he received from within the municipality and was immediately re-
employed on a contract basis in his former position. However all
concerned accept that his conduct was legitimate and that he was entitled
to the benefit he received.
[3] The amount of Mr Maltman‟s withdrawal benefit was determined
by two factors: the years of service attributed to him and his final average
pensionable emoluments in the twelve months prior to his resignation.
The withdrawal benefit was accordingly calculated on the basis of some
46 years service and average pensionable emoluments of around R34 000
per month. Whilst this is accepted as legitimate and proper it gave rise to
a problem for the Fund. That problem arose because it had not received
the benefit of contributions by Mr Maltman and Endumeni for 46 years
and the contributions made during his membership of the Provident Fund
had been reduced to well below his actual earnings. As the premise
underlying the operation of a defined benefit pension fund, such as the
Superannuation Fund, is that the contributions of the member and the
member‟s employer, plus the investment earnings of the fund, should be
sufficient to provide the agreed benefits, the result in the case of Mr
Maltman was that the lump sum withdrawal benefit paid to him was
underfunded. Absent the Fund‟s ability to rely on the provision in the
regulations that is the subject of the present litigation, there were only
two ways in which this problem could be addressed. Either the shortfall
had to be recovered from a surplus in the Superannuation Fund,3 or it had
to be recovered by way of a surcharge on all the municipalities that
participate in the Fund. In either event other members or other employers
would shoulder the cost of providing Mr Maltman with this benefit.
[4] This problem was not confined to Mr Maltman but arose in
relation to a number of municipal employees who took advantage of the
same or similar manoeuvres to secure enhanced benefits from the
Superannuation Fund or the Retirement Fund. However Mr Maltman‟s
was the most extreme case. On the advice of Mr Els, who has acted for
many years as the actuary appointed by the committee of management of
the Fund (the committee) and the valuator in terms of s 9A of the Act for
the three funds, the committee sought to claim an adjusted contribution
from Endumeni under the proviso to the definition of „pensionable
emoluments‟ in regulation 1(xxi)(h) of the regulations governing the
3 This was in fact what occurred with the obvious consequence that this portion of the surplus was not
available to fund other obligations of the Superannuation Fund or to increase benefits.
operations of the Superannuation Fund. This proviso had been inserted4
in the regulations with effect from 1 July 2004.
[5] Endumeni resisted the claim on three broad grounds. First it said
that the amendment to the regulations inserting the proviso was not
registered in terms of s 12(4) of the Act until 17 February 2009, by which
stage pleadings had closed and litis contestatio had been reached. It
contended that until that stage the proviso was invalid by virtue of the
provisions of s 12(1) of the Act and the Fund therefore had no cause of
action: and that, whatever the consequence of the subsequent registration
after litis contestatio, it could not operate retrospectively to validate the
existing defective cause of action. Second it contended that the
regulation, properly interpreted, did not permit the Fund to make the
claim that it did for an adjusted contribution. Third, even if it did, it said
that the necessary formalities for the exercise of that power were not
satisfied. In order to address these arguments it is necessary to have
regard to the regulations governing the Superannuation Fund.
The regulations
[6] Whilst the regulation on which the Fund relies in advancing its
claim takes the form of a proviso and it is convenient to use that term to
describe it, in truth it is not a proviso properly so-called. A proviso would
serve to qualify and limit the scope of the definition to which it was
appended,5 but this is an independent provision dealing with the power of
4 By way of an amendment promulgated by the MEC responsible for local government and housing in
Provincial Notice 863 of 2004 in terms of the powers conferred under s 4(1) of the Local Government
Superannuation Ordinance 24 of 1973 (KwaZulu-Natal).
5 Mphosi v Central Board for Co-operative Insurance Limited 1974 (4) SA 633 (A) at 645C-F.
the committee of the Superannuation Fund to direct a local authority to
pay an adjusted contribution. It reads as follows:
„… provided further that should at any time the pensionable emoluments of a
member including a section 57 contract employee, increase in excess of that assumed
by the actuary from time to time for valuation purposes in terms of Regulation 13,
then the committee, on the advice of the actuary, may direct that the local authority
employing such member pay an adjusted contribution in terms of Regulation 21 to the
Fund.‟
The Fund‟s case is that when, on 1 July 2005, Mr Maltman rejoined the
Superannuation Fund and adjusted his pensionable emoluments from
R5 000 per month to R34 000 per month there was an increase in his
pensionable emoluments in excess of that assumed by the actuary in
making his most recent valuation of the Superannuation Fund and that
this increase warranted the committee directing Endumeni to pay an
adjusted contribution.
[7] The provisions of the regulations dealing with contributions are
central to the issues in the case. They are to be found in regulations 19
and 22 in respect of members and regulation 21 in respect of local
authorities. Under regulation 19(1), members must contribute to the
Superannuation Fund an amount equal to 9¼ per cent of their pensionable
emoluments. This is deducted either monthly or at shorter intervals, no
doubt depending on whether they are weekly paid or monthly paid staff.
In addition, under regulation 19(2), a person who becomes a member of
the Superannuation Fund after the introduction of the regulations6 may
elect to make an additional contribution in respect of prior service with a
local authority. Under regulation 22(2) a member placed on leave without
pay may, with the permission of the committee of the Superannuation
Fund, continue to make contributions to it on the basis of their full
6 The regulations first came into operation on 24 May 1974.
pensionable emoluments. It is apparent that save in these two exceptional
cases the members‟ monthly contributions are relatively stable.
[8] The contributions to be made by local authorities in terms of
regulation 21 are as follows:
„A local authority shall pay to the Fund within seven days after the expiration of the
period in respect of which the contribution is being paid:-
(a)
the contributions and interest paid by the members in the preceding calendar
month;
(b)
an amount equal to the following proportion of the contributions paid in terms
of regulation (19)(1) by the members in its service : ...
From 1 July 1992
1.946;
(c)
an amount equal to the proportion in paragraph (b) of the contributions and
interest paid in terms of regulations 19(2) and 22 by the members in its service;
(d)
such surcharge on its contributions in terms of paragraphs (b) and (c) as may
be agreed to by the local authorities in general committee on the advice of the actuary
in order to provide the whole or part of bonus additions made in terms of
Regulation 37;
provided that if the member is paying by instalments, the local authority may make a
lump sum payment to the fund in lieu of its instalments and interest.‟
These contributions will necessarily be less consistent from month to
month than those of individual members. There are a number of variables
that create that situation. They are affected by changes in the make-up of
the workforce. This flows from staff leaving the employ of the local
authority by virtue of death, retirement, resignation or dismissal and by
recruitment of new staff. They are affected by members switching their
membership between the three funds (Superannuation, Retirement or
Provident) or adjusting the level of their pensionable contributions. If
members make contributions under either regulation 19(2) or
regulation 22(2) the local authority is compelled to make matching
contributions or, if those payments are being made in instalments, it may
elect to add a lump sum to its monthly contribution rather than to match
the member‟s instalments. All of these factors (and perhaps others I have
not mentioned), together with any surcharge payable from time to time,7
will influence the amount that each local authority pays to the
Superannuation Fund each month by way of a contribution. Taking all
relevant factors into account, the local authority must calculate an amount
each month that represents its contributions to the Superannuation Fund.
No doubt similar exercises are done in relation to the other two funds but
that is immaterial for present purposes. Whilst the variances may not be
great from month to month8 the fact is that, unlike employee members,
the local authority‟s contributions are not constant but variable.
[9] The primary question for determination in this appeal is what is
meant by the proviso. However, before reaching that question it is
necessary to determine whether the contention that there was no valid
claim at the time of litis contestatio is correct, because if it is the question
of construction does not arise. I turn to that initial question.
Was the proviso in force?
[10] In terms of s 4(1) of the Local Government Superannuation
Ordinance 24 of 1973 the MEC for Local Government is entitled to make
regulations governing the operation of the Superannuation Fund. Those
regulations may include regulations governing the contributions to be
made by members to the Superannuation Fund (s 4(1)(d)) and may
7 Compare paras 30 and 31 below.
8 From documents in the record it can be seen that Endumeni‟s contributions in May, June, July and
August 2005 were R230 426, R229 527, R237 507 and R247 750 respectively. There were also varying
„reconciliation‟ payments made in each of these months. For May, June and July 2006 the equivalent
figures were R231 351, R231 079 and R256 967.
provide for any matter that the MEC regards as necessary or expedient for
the purposes of that fund (s 4(1)(o)). In terms of s 4(2):
‘Any regulations made by the [MEC] in terms of any of the provisions of subsection
(1) may be made with effect from any date whether prior or subsequent to the date of
promulgation thereof.‟
[11] On 29 July 2004 the MEC promulgated various amendments and
additions to the regulations governing the Superannuation Fund including
the insertion of the proviso. The notice provides that the effective date for
the proviso to come into force was July 2004. Thereafter the
Superannuation Fund operated in terms of the amendments and additions
promulgated by the MEC. Indeed the calculation of Mr Maltman‟s
withdrawal benefit took place partly in terms of one of the other
amendments introduced by the MEC.
[12] The Fund contends that this is sufficient to render the amendments,
and in particular the insertion of the proviso, operative from 1 July 2004,
and hence operative at the time of Mr Maltman‟s transfer to the
Superannuation Fund and his subsequent withdrawal from that fund.
Endumeni disputes this. It does so on the basis that the Superannuation
Fund is registered in terms of the Act and as such is subject to its
provisions. It relies on s 12(1)(b) of the Pension Funds Act, which
provides that no alteration, rescission or addition to the rules of a
registered fund shall be valid „unless it has been approved by the
Registrar and registered‟ and contends that, until the Registrar approved
the amendments embodying the proviso, it was not a valid provision in
the rules of the Superannuation Fund and could not be invoked to direct
Endumeni to pay an adjusted contribution. The invalidity existed from the
time action was commenced until after the close of pleadings (litis
contestatio) and could not be cured by the subsequent registration of the
amendment. It was accepted that if the point was upheld there was a
possibility of the Fund instituting a fresh action but Endumeni adopted
the stance that it would cross that bridge when it came to it.
[13] In the pleadings the only issue was the wording of the proviso at
the relevant time. At the pre-trial conference Endumeni sought and
obtained an admission that „through the period from 1 July 2004 until 1
November 2008‟ it read as set out above. Accordingly the parties
proceeded to trial on the footing that the proviso was in force throughout
the relevant period. On the first day of the trial the parties agreed a list of
issues and included this one without any amendment to the pleadings. In
so doing they expanded the issues in dispute to go beyond those existing
at the close of pleadings. It is permissible for parties to do this in an
informal way, as a host of cases demonstrates, but its implications do not
appear to have been considered in the present case.
[14] The origin of the concept of litis contestatio is the formulary
procedure of the Roman law in which the litigants appeared before the
praetor, who formulated the issues that the judge had to decide. Once the
issues had been formulated the stage of litis contestatio was reached.9 In
Government of the Republic of South Africa v Ngubane10 Holmes JA said:
„In modern practice litis contestatio is taken as being synonymous with close of
pleadings, when the issue is crystallised and joined … And in modern terminology,
the effect of litis contestatio is to “freeze the plaintiff's rights as at that moment”.‟
There is no problem with this formulation when parties abide by their
pleadings and conduct the trial accordingly. Frequently, however, they do
9 JAC Thomas Textbook on the Roman Law, Chapter VII on the formulary process. P van Warmelo An
Introduction to the Principles of Roman Civil Law at 278, para 733.
10 Government of the Republic of South Africa v Ngubane 1972 (2) SA 601 (A) at 608D-E.
not do so because other issues arise that they wish to canvass and either
formally, by way of an amendment to the pleadings, or informally, as in
the present case, the scope of the litigation is altered. Here the defendant
sought to add new issues specifically relating to the validity of the
amendment that introduced the proviso. Up until then the parties were at
one that the proviso was in force and available to be relied on by the
Fund, subject to the issues around its interpretation. If the plaintiff‟s
rights were frozen at the close of pleadings the basis would have been
that the proviso was in force. It would make a mockery of the principles
of litis contestatio to permit Endumeni to depart from its previous stance
by challenging the validity of the proviso, but to bind the Fund to a
factual situation at the close of pleadings that had altered by the time that
Endumeni sought to challenge the validity of the proviso.
[15] The answer is that when pleadings are re-opened by amendment or
the issues between the parties altered informally, the initial situation of
litis contestatio falls away and is only restored once the issues have once
more been defined in the pleadings or in some other less formal manner.
That is consistent with the circumstances in which the notion of litis
contestatio was conceived. In Roman law, once this stage of proceedings
was reached, a new obligation came into existence between the parties, to
abide the result of the adjudication of their case. Melius de Villiers11
explains the situation as follows:
„Through litiscontestation an action acquired somewhat of the nature of a contract; a
relation was created resembling an agreement between the parties to submit their
differences to judicial investigation …'
When the parties decide to add to or alter the issues they are submitting to
adjudication, then the „agreement‟ in regard to those issues is altered and
11 Melius de Villiers The Roman and Roman Dutch Law of Injuries 236.
the consequences of their prior arrangement are altered accordingly.
Accordingly, when in this case they chose to reformulate the issues at the
commencement of the trial, a fresh situation of litis contestatio arose and
the rights of the Fund as plaintiff were fixed afresh on the basis of the
facts prevailing at that stage. Those facts were that the amendment
embodying the proviso had been registered at least a year earlier with
retrospective effect to 1 July 2004, which was prior to all relevant events
in this case. Had this been appreciated when the list of issues was
prepared the point would not have been taken. It was rightly not
suggested that any initial defect in the Fund‟s reliance on the proviso
would not be remedied by registration of the amendment prior to litis
contestatio.
[16] That conclusion renders it unnecessary to consider an argument
advanced on behalf of the Fund that s 12(1) of the Act does not apply to it
because its rules have their origin in regulations made by the MEC in
terms of the governing provincial legislation. The contention has
potentially far-reaching implications for the regulation of a number of
pension funds in South Africa and it would be undesirable to consider it
without the input as amicus curiae of the Registrar of Pension Funds.
Although the possibility of a challenge to the retrospectivity of the
amendment was raised in Endumeni‟s heads of argument, and it was
suggested that the decision in Shell and BP Petroleum Refineries (Pty)
Ltd v Murphy NO12 was incorrect, this was not pursued in argument. It is
accordingly unnecessary to go into these questions beyond saying that
they might require a challenge to the constitutionality of s 12(4) of the
Act. I can instead pass to the question of interpretation of the proviso.
12 Shell and BP Petroleum Refineries (Pty) Ltd v Murphy NO 2001 (3) SA 683 (D).
The proper approach to interpretation
[17] The trial judge said that the general rule is that the words used in a
statute are to be given their ordinary grammatical meaning unless they
lead to absurdity. He referred to authorities that stress the importance of
context in the process of interpretation and concluded that:
„A court must interpret the words in issue according to their ordinary meaning in the
context of the Regulations as a whole, as well as background material, which reveals
the purpose of the Regulation, in order to arrive at the true intention of the draftsman
of the Rules.‟
Whilst this summary of the approach to interpretation was buttressed by
reference to authority it suffers from an internal tension because it does
not indicate what is meant by the „ordinary meaning‟ of words, whether
or not influenced by context, or why, once ascertained, this would
coincide with the „true‟ intention of the draftsman. There were similar
difficulties in the heads of argument on behalf of Endumeni. In one
paragraph they urged us, on the basis of the evidence of the actuary who
advised the Fund to adopt the approach, that the proviso was not intended
to cater for „a Maltman type of event‟ and in another cited authorities for
the rule that the „ordinary grammatical meaning of the words used must
be adhered to‟ and can only be departed from if that leads to an absurd
result. In view of this it is necessary to say something about the current
state of our law in regard to the interpretation of statutes and statutory
instruments and documents generally.
[18] Over the last century there have been significant developments in
the law relating to the interpretation of documents, both in this country
and in others that follow similar rules to our own.13 It is unnecessary to
13 Spigelman CJ describes this as a shift from text to context. See „From Text to Context:
Contemporary Contractual Interpretation‟, an address to the Risky Business Conference in Sydney, 21
March 2007 published in J J Spigelman Speeches of a Chief Justice 1998 – 2008 239 at 240. The shift
is apparent from a comparison between the first edition of Lewison The Interpretation of Contracts and
add unduly to the burden of annotations by trawling through the case law
on the construction of documents in order to trace those developments.
The relevant authorities are collected and summarised in Bastian
Financial Services (Pty) Ltd v General Hendrik Schoeman Primary
School.14 The present state of the law can be expressed as follows.
Interpretation is the process of attributing meaning to the words used in a
document, be it legislation, some other statutory instrument, or contract,
having regard to the context provided by reading the particular provision
or provisions in the light of the document as a whole and the
circumstances attendant upon its coming into existence. Whatever the
nature of the document, consideration must be given to the language used
in the light of the ordinary rules of grammar and syntax; the context in
which the provision appears; the apparent purpose to which it is directed
and the material known to those responsible for its production. Where
more than one meaning is possible each possibility must be weighed in
the light of all these factors.15 The process is objective not subjective. A
sensible meaning is to be preferred to one that leads to insensible or
unbusinesslike results or undermines the apparent purpose of the
document. Judges must be alert to, and guard against, the temptation to
substitute what they regard as reasonable, sensible or businesslike for the
words actually used. To do so in regard to a statute or statutory
instrument is to cross the divide between interpretation and legislation. In
the current fifth edition. So much has changed that the author, now a judge in the Court of Appeal in
England, has introduced a new opening chapter summarising the background to and a summary of the
modern approach to interpretation that has to a great extent been driven by Lord Hoffmann.
14 Bastian Financial Services (Pty) Ltd v General Hendrik Schoeman Primary School 2008 (5) SA 1
(SCA) paras 16 - 19. That there is little or no difference between contracts, statutes and other
documents emerges from KPMG Chartered Accountants (SA) v Securefin Ltd & another 2009 (4) SA
399 (SCA) para 39.
15 Described by Lord Neuberger MR in Re Sigma Finance Corp [2008] EWCA Civ 1303 (CA) para 98
as an iterative process. The expression has been approved by Lord Mance SCJ in the appeal Re Sigma
Finance Corp (in administrative receivership) Re the Insolvency Act 1986 [2010] 1 All ER 571 (SC)
para 12 and by Lord Clarke SCJ in Rainy Sky SA and others v Kookmin Bank [2011] UKSC 50; [2012]
Lloyds Rep 34 (SC) para 28. See the article by Lord Grabiner QC „The Iterative Process of Contractual
Interpretation‟ (2012) 128 LQR 41.
a contractual context it is to make a contract for the parties other than the
one they in fact made. The „inevitable point of departure is the language
of the provision itself‟,16 read in context and having regard to the purpose
of the provision and the background to the preparation and production of
the document.
[19] All this is consistent with the „emerging trend in statutory
construction‟.17 It clearly adopts as the proper approach to the
interpretation of documents the second of the two possible approaches
mentioned by Schreiner JA in Jaga v Dönges NO and another,18 namely
that from the outset one considers the context and the language together,
with neither predominating over the other. This is the approach that
courts in South Africa should now follow, without the need to cite
authorities from an earlier era that are not necessarily consistent and
frequently reflect an approach to interpretation that is no longer
appropriate. The path that Schreiner JA pointed to is now received
wisdom elsewhere. Thus Sir Anthony Mason CJ said:
„Problems of legal interpretation are not solved satisfactorily by ritual incantations
which emphasise the clarity of meaning which words have when viewed in isolation,
divorced from their context. The modern approach to interpretation insists that context
be considered in the first instance, especially in the case of general words, and not
merely at some later stage when ambiguity might be thought to arise.‟19
More recently Lord Clarke SCJ said „the exercise of construction is
essentially one unitary exercise‟.20
16 Per Lord Neuberger MR in Re Sigma Finance Corp [2008] EWCA Civ 1303 (CA) para 98. The
importance of the words used was stressed by this court in South African Airways (Pty) Ltd v Aviation
Union of South Africa & others 2011 (3) SA 148 (SCA) paras 25 to 30.
17 Bato Star Fishing (Pty) Ltd v Minister of Environmental Affairs & others 2004 (4) SA 490 (CC)
para 90.
18 Jaga v Dönges NO & another, Bhana v Dönges NO & another 1950 (4) SA 653 (A) at 662G-663A.
19 K & S Lake City Freighters Pty Ltd v Gordon & Gotch Ltd (1985) 157 CLR 309 at 315.
20 Rainy Sky SA and others v Kookmin Bank supra para 21.
[20] Unlike the trial judge I have deliberately avoided using the
conventional description of this process as one of ascertaining the
intention of the legislature or the draftsman,21 nor would I use its
counterpart in a contractual setting, „the intention of the contracting
parties‟, because these expressions are misnomers, insofar as they convey
or are understood to convey that interpretation involves an enquiry into
the mind of the legislature or the contracting parties.22 The reason is that
the enquiry is restricted to ascertaining the meaning of the language of the
provision itself. Despite their use by generations of lawyers to describe
the task of interpretation it is doubtful whether they are helpful. Many
judges and academics have pointed out23 that there is no basis upon which
to discern the meaning that the members of Parliament or other legislative
body attributed to a particular legislative provision in a situation or
context of which they may only dimly, if at all, have been aware. Taking
Parliament by way of example, legislation is drafted by legal advisers in a
ministry, redrafted by the parliamentary draftsmen, subjected to public
debate in committee, where it may be revised and amended, and then
passed by a legislative body, many of whose members have little close
acquaintance with its terms and are motivated only by their or their
party‟s stance on the broad principles in the legislation. In those
21 „A slippery phrase‟ according to Lord Watson in Salomon v A Salomon & Co Ltd (1897) AC 22 at
38. For its use see Ebrahim v Minister of the Interior 1977 (1) SA 665 (A) at 677-8 and the authorities
there cited; Protective Mining & Industrial Equipment Systems (Pty) Ltd (formerly Hampo Systems
(Pty) Ltd) v Audiolens (Cape) (Pty) Ltd 1987 (2) SA 961 (A) at 991F-H; Summit Industrial
Corporation v Claimants against the Fund Comprising the Proceeds of the Sale of the MV Jade
Transporter 1987 (2) SA 583 (A) at 596G-597B and Manyasha v Minister of Law and Order 1999 (2)
SA 179 (SCA) at 185B-C.
22 In Lewison The Interpretation of Contracts (5 ed 2011) para 2.05 the heading reads: „For the purpose
of the interpretation of contracts, the intention of the parties is the meaning of the contract. There is no
intention independent of that meaning.‟ The whole discussion in this paragraph makes it clear that the
international trend in countries with which we share some common heritage is to treat the „intention of
the parties‟ as a myth or abstraction remote from the reality of interpretation and unnecessary.
23 The earliest that I have found is Jerome Frank Law and the Modern Mind 29 (6 ed 1960) originally
published in 1930. He points out that statutes directed at horse-drawn vehicles before the advent of
motor cars were applied to the latter. For a South African instance see S v Sweers 1963 (4) SA 163 (E).
circumstances to speak of an intention of parliament is entirely artificial.24
The most that can be said is that in a broad sense legislation in a
democracy is taken to be a reflection of the views of the electorate
expressed through their representatives, although the fact that
democratically elected legislatures sometimes pass legislation that is not
supported by or unpopular with the majority of the electorate tends to
diminish the force of this point. The same difficulty attends upon the
search for the intention of contracting parties, whose contractual purposes
have been filtered through the language hammered out in negotiations
between legal advisers, in the light of instructions from clients as to their
aims and financial advice from accountants or tax advisers, or are
embodied in standard form agreements and imposed as the terms on
which the more powerful contracting party will conclude an agreement.25
[21] Alive to these difficulties there have been attempts to justify the
use of the expression „the intention of the legislature‟ on broader grounds
relating to the manner in which legislation is drafted and passed and the
relationship between the legislature as lawgiver and the judiciary as the
interpreter of laws. Francis Bennion, an eminent parliamentary draftsman
and the author of a standard work on statutory interpretation,26 says that
„Legislative intention is not a myth or fiction, but a reality founded on the
very nature of legislation‟. He bases this on the undoubtedly correct
proposition that legislation is the product of the intentional volition of all
participants in the legislative process so that:
24 See Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead in „My Kingdom for a Horse: the Meaning of Words‟ (2005) 121
LQR 577 at 589-590. In his judicial capacity he said in R v Secretary of State for the Environment,
Transport and the Regions and another, Ex parte Spath Holme Ltd [2001] 2 AC 349 at 395 that the
intention of the legislature is „a shorthand reference to the intention which the court reasonably imputes
to Parliament in respect of the language used‟.
25 See the discussion of contracts of adhesion by Sachs J in Barkhuizen v Napier 2007 (5) SA 323 (CC)
paras 135 - 139. As to the process of preparing contracts see Lord Neuberger MR in Re Sigma Finance
Corp, supra, para 100 and Lord Collins in the appeal at para 35.
26 F A R Bennion Bennion on Statutory Interpretation (5 ed 2008) section 164, pp 472-474.
„… Acts are produced down to the last word and comma, by people. The law maker
may be difficult to identify. It is absurd to say that the law maker does not exist, has
no true intention or is a fiction.‟
However, that criticism misses the point. Critics of the expression „the
intention of the legislature‟ are not saying that the law-maker does not
exist or that those responsible for making a particular law do not have a
broad purpose that is encapsulated in the language of the law. The stress
placed in modern statutory construction on the purpose of the statute and
identifying the mischief at which it is aimed should dispel such a notion.
The criticism is that there is no such thing as the intention of the
legislature in relation to the meaning of specific provisions in a statute,
particularly as they may fall to be interpreted in circumstances that were
not present to the minds of those involved in their preparation.
Accordingly to characterise the task of interpretation as a search for such
an ephemeral and possibly chimerical meaning is unrealistic and
misleading.
[22] The other objection raised by Bennion,27 that the idea that there is
no true intention behind an Act of Parliament is undemocratic, suggests
that the debate is being conducted at cross-purposes. In a constitutional
democracy such as South Africa, or the United Kingdom, which is
Bennion‟s terrain, no-one denies that statutes and statutory instruments
emanating from Parliament and other legislative bodies are the product of
the democratic process. Interpretation always follows upon the
democratic process leading to legislation and is, in that sense, a secondary
and subordinate process. The interpreter does not write upon a blank
page, but construes the words written by others. Nor is it denied that the
broad purpose of the relevant legislative body (or legislator in the case of
27 At p 474.
regulations or rules made by a functionary) is highly relevant to the
process of interpretation, as is the mischief at which the legislation is
aimed. Courts have repeatedly affirmed their importance and thereby
respect the legislature‟s role in a democracy. Courts do not set out to
undermine legislative purpose but to give it effect within the constraints
imposed by the language adopted by the legislature. If „the intention of
the legislature‟ was merely an expression used to encompass these
matters as a form of convenient shorthand perhaps the matter would not
have provoked so much comment. But the problem lies in it being said
that the primary or „golden‟ rule of statutory interpretation is to ascertain
the intention of the legislature. At one extreme, as has been the case
historically, it leads to a studied literalism and denies resort to matters
beyond the „ordinary grammatical meaning‟ of the words. At the other
judges use it to justify first seeking to divine the „intention‟ of the
legislature and then adapting the language of the provision to justify that
conclusion.28 It has been correctly said that:
„It is all too easy for the identification of purpose to be driven by what the judge
regards as the desirable result in a specific case.‟29
When that occurs it involves a disregard for the proper limits of the
judicial role.
[23] Three Australian judges have sought to explain the use of the
expression
on
other
grounds.
Gleeson
CJ
in
Singh
v
The
Commonwealth,30 said:
28 Wilson CJ identified the illegitimacy of this latter approach in Richardson v Austin (1911) 12 CLR
463 at 470 where he said: „… As to the argument from the assumed intention of the legislature, there is
nothing more dangerous and fallacious in interpreting a statute than first of all to assume that the
legislature had a particular intention, and then, having made up one‟s mind what that intention was, to
conclude that that intention must necessarily be expressed in a statute, and then proceed to find it.‟
29 The Hon J J Spigelman AC „The intolerable wrestle: Developments in statutory interpretation‟
(2010) 84 ALJ 822 at 826. Lewison, supra, para 2.06.
30 Singh v The Commonwealth [2004] HCA 43 para 19. Keith Mason J „Legislators‟ Intent: How judges
discern
it
and
what
do
they
do
when
they
find
it?‟
available
at
„…references to intention must not divert attention from the text, for it is through the
meaning of the text, understood in the light of background, purpose and object, and
surrounding circumstances, that the legislature expresses its intention, and it is from
the text, read in that light, that intention is inferred. The words “intention”,
“contemplation”, “purpose” and “design” are used routinely by courts in relation to
the meaning of legislation. They are orthodox and legitimate terms of legal analysis,
provided their objectivity is not overlooked.‟
French J31 described the intention of the legislature as „an attributed
intention based on inferences drawn from the statute itself‟ and added that
it is „a legitimising and normative term‟ that „directs courts to objective
criteria of construction which are recognised as legitimate‟.32 In a broad
ranging discussion of the concept, Spigelman CJ concludes that it is
acceptable because the interpreter is concerned to ascertain the
„objective‟ will of the legislature or the contracting parties.33 However, in
each instance the expression is being used either as a shorthand reference
to something else or to convey a restricted and unrealistic meaning. If
interpretation is, as all agree it is, an exercise in ascertaining the meaning
of the words used in the statute and is objective in form, it is unrelated to
whatever intention those responsible for the words may have had at the
time they selected them. Their purpose is something different from their
intention, as is their contemplation of the problem to which the words
were addressed.
http://www.lawlink.nsw.gov.au/lawlink/Supreme_Court/ll_sc.nsf/vwPrint1/SCO_mason021106 quotes
Gleeson CJ as saying: „The concept of the intention of Parliament expresses an important constitutional
principle rooted in political reality and judicial prudence‟, but I have been unable to trace the reference.
31 Now Chief Justice of the High Court of Australia.
32 NAAV v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs [2002] 193 ALR 449 (FCA) paras 430 -
433.
33 „The Principle of Legality and the Clear Statement Principle‟ opening address by the Honourable J J
Spigelman AC, Chief Justice of New South Wales, to the New South Wales Bar Association
Conference
„Working
with
Statutes‟
Sydney,
March
2005
available
at
http://www.lawlink.nsw.gov.au/lawlink/supreme_court/ll_sc.nsf/vwPrint1/SCO_speech_spigelman180
305.
[24] The sole benefit of expressions such as „the intention of the
legislature‟ or „the intention of the parties‟ is to serve as a warning to
courts that the task they are engaged upon is discerning the meaning of
words used by others, not one of imposing their own views of what it
would have been sensible for those others to say. Their disadvantages,
which far outweigh that benefit, lie at opposite ends of the interpretative
spectrum. At the one end they may lead to a fragmentation of the process
of interpretation by conveying that it must commence with an initial
search for the „ordinary grammatical meaning‟ or „natural meaning‟ of
the words used seen in isolation, to be followed in some instances only by
resort to the context. At the other it beguiles judges into seeking out
intention free from the constraints of the language in question and then
imposing that intention on the language used. Both of these are contrary
to the proper approach, which is from the outset to read the words used in
the context of the document as a whole and in the light of all relevant
circumstances.34 That is how people use and understand language and it
is sensible, more transparent and conduces to greater clarity about the
task of interpretation for courts to do the same.
[25] Which of the interpretational factors I have mentioned will
predominate in any given situation varies. Sometimes the language of the
provision, when read in its particular context, seems clear and admits of
little if any ambiguity. Courts say in such cases that they adhere to the
ordinary grammatical meaning of the words used. However that too is a
34 Spigelman CJ makes the point vividly in the speech referred to in footnote 29 where he said:
„Context is always important. … [I]n an adaptation of an example originally propounded by Ludwig
Wittgenstein, parents leave their young children in the care of a babysitter with an instruction to teach
them a game of cards. The babysitter would not be acting in accordance with these instructions if he or
she taught the children to play strip poker. Furthermore, when a nanny is instructed to “drop everything
and come running” she would know that it is not intended to apply literally to the circumstance in
which she was holding a baby over a tub full of water. As Professor Lon L Fuller said of this example:
“Surely we have a right to expect the same modicum of intelligence from the judiciary.”‟(Footnotes
omitted.)
misnomer. It is a product of a time when language was viewed differently
and regarded as likely to have a fixed and definite meaning, a view that
the experience of lawyers down the years, as well as the study of
linguistics, has shown to be mistaken. Most words can bear several
different meanings or shades of meaning and to try to ascertain their
meaning in the abstract, divorced from the broad context of their use, is
an unhelpful exercise. The expression can mean no more than that, when
the provision is read in context, that is the appropriate meaning to give to
the language used. At the other extreme, where the context makes it plain
that adhering to the meaning suggested by apparently plain language
would lead to glaring absurdity, the court will ascribe a meaning to the
language that avoids the absurdity. This is said to involve a departure
from the plain meaning of the words used. More accurately it is either a
restriction35 or extension36 of the language used by the adoption of a
narrow or broad meaning of the words, the selection of a less
immediately apparent meaning37 or sometimes the correction of an
apparent error in the language in order to avoid the identified absurdity.38
[26] In between these two extremes, in most cases the court is faced
with two or more possible meanings that are to a greater or lesser degree
available on the language used.39 Here it is usually said that the language
is ambiguous although the only ambiguity lies in selecting the proper
35 As in Venter v Rex 1907 TS 910; R v Detody 1926 AD 198 at 203; R v Schonken 1929 AD 36 at 42;
Bertie van Zyl (Pty) Ltd & another v Minister of Safety and Security & others 2010 (2) SA 181 (CC)
para 31.
36 Barkett v SA National Trust & Assurance Co Ltd 1951 (2) SA 353 (AD) at 363; Hanekom v Builders
Market Klerksdorp (Pty) Ltd & others 2007 (3) SA 95 (SCA) para 7
37 Melmoth Town Board v Marius Mostert (Pty) Ltd 1984 (3) SA 718 (A) at 728F-H.
38 This possibility is referred to in English cases such as Investors Compensation Scheme Ltd v West
Bromwich Building Society [1998] 1 All ER 98 (HL) at 114-115; Chartbrook Ltd v Persimmon Homes
Ltd & Others [2009] UKHL 38; [2009] 4 All ER 677 (HL) paras 14 and 15.
39 That they must be available on the language used is clear. S v Zuma and others 1995 (2) SA 642
(CC) paras 17 and 18. As Kentridge AJ pointed out any other approach is divination rather than
interpretation.
meaning (on which views may legitimately differ). In resolving the
problem the apparent purpose of the provision and the context in which it
occurs will be important guides to the correct interpretation An
interpretation will not be given that leads to impractical, unbusinesslike
or oppressive consequences or that will stultify the broader operation of
the legislation or contract under consideration.
Construction of the proviso
[27] As already mentioned the proviso is not strictly a proviso. In
addition it has been inserted at an inappropriate point in the regulations. It
has nothing to do with the pensionable emoluments of members. As it
deals with the adjustment of an employer‟s contributions it would have
been more appropriate for it to have been inserted in regulation 21,
perhaps as an additional sub-clause in that regulation. Be that as it may,
the fact that it has been located elsewhere does not affect its construction.
[28] Starting with the language of the proviso it empowers the
committee of the Superannuation Fund to direct a local authority to pay
an adjusted contribution in terms of regulation 21. The circumstance in
which it may do so is that the pensionable emoluments of a member have
at any time increased by an amount in excess of the increase assumed by
the fund‟s valuator in the triennial valuation required by regulation 13
and under the Act. Before directing a local authority to pay such an
adjusted contribution the committee must obtain the advice of the actuary
and may only proceed if the actuary so advises it.
[29] The context within which to consider the proviso is provided by the
fact that the Superannuation Fund was a defined benefit fund and that at
the time of introduction of the proviso in 2004 it had been in deficit for
several years. As a result employers were paying a surcharge on their
contributions. The circumstances in which this arose require an
understanding of the funding of a defined benefit pension fund.
[30] In the regular valuations, both triennial and interim, of a defined
benefit fund such as the Superannuation Fund, the actuary assesses its
financial soundness by making use of conventional actuarial methods.40
The fund is financially sound if the assets match the liabilities. The latter
only accrue and become payable over a lengthy future period and
fluctuate with membership of the fund and the levels of remuneration of
the members. To place a value on these requires the actuary to make an
assessment of a number of different factors. Among them are the likely
number of members; their years of service; the number who will die,
retire or resign in the years ahead; the salary and pension levels payable
to them and the likely salary and pension increases they will receive. In
undertaking this exercise the actuary will be aware that people may
transfer between funds under the general aegis of the Fund, although the
Superannuation Fund had been closed to new employees, so that there
would be no new members other than by way of transfer from other
funds. The actuary makes a number of „best estimates‟ or „reasonable
long-term assumptions‟41 of the relevant variables in order to compute its
liabilities in the future and then discounts the liabilities so determined to
arrive at their present value. A similar exercise needs to be done on the
assets of the fund in the light of current contribution rates. At the end of
this the actuary can assess the financial soundness of the fund and make
recommendations to the committee as to future contribution rates, the
40 Tek Corporation Provident Fund & others v Lorentz 1999 (4) SA 884 (SCA) para 16; Associated
Institutions Pension Fund & Another v Le Roux & others 2001 (4) SA 262 (SCA) para 16.
41 The expressions are taken from the statutory valuation of the Superannuation Fund preceding Mr
Maltman rejoining it and then resigning.
need to raise a surcharge and related issues. If the fund is in deficit a
surcharge will need to be imposed in order to ensure its financial
soundness.
[31] It will be apparent from this that the actuary does not make
calculations in respect of each and every member of the fund, but makes
an assessment across the whole body of members using appropriate
statistical techniques. When the proviso referred to the increase in
pensionable emoluments assumed by the actuary, it was therefore not
concerned with the increase afforded to any single member. Instead it was
concerned with the broad level of increases across the entire body of
members at the average rate determined by the actuary. This was clearly
set out in each of the valuations in the record. In the relevant valuation as
at 31 March 2005 the rate of salary increases allowed for was 6.5 percent
per annum plus a small allowance for merit increases. From July 2003
employers had been paying a surcharge of 3 percent of pensionable
emoluments and in the 2005 report the actuary recommended that the
surcharge increase to 6 percent. The Superannuation Fund was in deficit,
as it had been for some years. The actuary attributed this to the fact that
salary increases had been substantially in excess of the rate of inflation.
The actuary warned that „future excessive salary increases will result in
further deficits‟ and that this would result in the surcharge having to
increase in the future. It is clear from this report and from the evidence of
the actuary, Mr Els, that this had been a persistent problem for several
years.
[32] Against that background it is plain that the proviso was addressed
to the problem of local authorities giving staff increases that were
excessive in the light of the assumptions in regard to salary increases
made by the actuary. When this occurred the contributions to the fund
would not suffice to meet the obligations being incurred under the
regulations and the existing deficit in the fund would increase. This
would then have to be funded in some way. Originally the only way in
which this could be done would be by surcharging all the employers in
the Superannuation Fund. The proviso created a further way of
addressing this problem. It was focussed on instances where the
underfunding could be attributed to excessive increases in pensionable
emoluments in a particular local authority.
[33] Mr Els testified that the Superannuation Fund experienced
difficulties when previously disadvantaged members of the fund received
salary increases considerably in excess of those for which allowance had
been made in determining the contributions that needed to be made to that
fund. This is what led to the introduction of the proviso. As the
manoeuvres undertaken by Mr Maltman still lay in the future they were
not present to the minds of the actuary and the committee when they
sought to have the proviso introduced. Counsel therefore argued that the
proviso should not be interpreted to cover Mr Maltman‟s situation, as it
was not contemplated by the draftsman of the proviso. But this is
precisely the error of construction that flows from saying that the process
is one of seeking the intention of the legislature and then relying on the
subjective contemplation of those responsible for the legislation. If
correct it would have the consequence that, once it was demonstrated that
a situation was unforeseen at the time the legislation was introduced, that
situation could not be brought within the legislation save by amendment,
which as a matter of construction would be unnecessary. The fact that
something was not contemplated may occasionally be a factor that may
affect ascertaining the meaning of the words used. It cannot, however,
operate as a bar to the application of a statutory provision to new or
altered circumstances.
[34] The primary argument advanced before us was that Mr Maltman‟s
pensionable emoluments had been R5 000 per month when he was a
member of the Provident Fund, but that from the time he rejoined the
Superannuation Fund they had been R34 000 per month. Accordingly it
could not be said that his pensionable emoluments as a member of the
latter fund had increased, much less increased in excess of the
assumptions in regard to salary increases made by the actuary at a time
when Mr Maltman had not been a member of the Superannuation Fund. It
followed that his conduct did not fall within the terms of the proviso.
[35] This is a possible construction of the proviso based on a narrow
conception of what constitutes an increase in pensionable emoluments,
namely a change in such emoluments whilst the person is a member of
the fund. Whilst that will be the normal case it is not the only one. When
a person transfers their membership from the Provident Fund to the
Superannuation Fund and transfers an accumulated fund from the one to
the
other,
the
Superannuation
Fund
must,
in
terms
of
regulation 16(10)(a), calculate their period of service on the basis not
only of the amount transferred but also on the basis of an imputed level of
pensionable emoluments. The proviso is capable of being construed as
including both an increase in pensionable emoluments during the course
of membership and an increase from the imputed level of pensionable
emoluments on joining the fund to a higher level. In either case, where
the level of increase is in excess of the actuarial assessment of the level of
increases on which the fund is operating at the time, it results in a funding
deficit.
[36] Viewed from a purely linguistic standpoint the construction
advanced by Endumeni may arguably be the more apparent. However it
disregards the context in its entirety. It ignores the purpose of the proviso,
which was to address the problem of excessive increases in pensionable
emoluments leading to a funding deficit; it creates a distinction that is
extremely artificial and it leads to results that are impractical. The
Superannuation Fund has no control over the remuneration policies of
local authorities. When changes are made to members‟ pensionable
emoluments the fund is required to afford them the benefits defined in the
regulations that govern its operations. The steps taken by Mr Maltman to
obtain the benefit he has had from the fund required in large measure the
co-operation of Endumeni. But for Mr Maltman‟s ability, as agreed
between him and Endumeni, to adjust his pensionable emoluments with
effect precisely from the date when he rejoined the Superannuation Fund
the problem could not have arisen.42 That oddity of timing should not
prevent the proviso from achieving in this instance its clear purpose. The
interpretation that treats both actual and imputed values of pensionable
emoluments as forming a basis for the increases referred to in the proviso
does not suffer from these problems and is more faithful to the purpose of
the proviso. For those reasons I think the expression „should … the
pensionable emoluments of a member … increase‟ should be construed as
encompassing both actual increases and increases from the imputed level
of pensionable emoluments at the time a member transfers into the
Superannuation Fund. Endumeni‟s main argument is accordingly
rejected.
42 The documents reveal that the Fund was only informed of the adjustment a few weeks after his
transfer to the Superannuation Fund on the basis that it would take effect from the date of entry. That
illustrates the impracticality of Endumeni‟s contention.
[37] The increase from R5 000 per month to R34 000 per month was an
increase of over 500 per cent. In a letter to the director of the Fund on
24 January 2007 Mr Els undertook a calculation to determine how many
members of the Superannuation and Retirement Funds had received
excessive increases falling within the proviso. It is unnecessary to set out
details of his calculations. It suffices to say that they erred on the side of
generosity in favour of members and local authorities and recommended
that action under the proviso should only be taken in cases where the
increase in pensionable emoluments exceeded 42 per cent. It was
submitted that he undertook the incorrect calculation, but I fail to see how
a generous approach that favoured the members and local authorities can
be condemned on that ground. This is particularly so in view of the fact
that the proviso does not require any calculation to be done. He was also
criticised on the basis that when he made the recommendation he had in
mind the wording of the proviso not in the form that it is before us but in
a further amended form. Assuming that is so the committee took his
advice and pursued the present litigation on the proviso in its original
form, with Mr Els‟ support as its principal witness. The contention that
the jurisdictional pre-requisites for directing Endumeni to pay an adjusted
contribution were not present is unsound as the trial judge correctly held.
[38] Accepting that Mr Els had advised the Fund to direct Endumeni to
pay an adjusted contribution, there was a further string to Endumeni‟s
bow. It drew attention to the definition of „actuary‟ in the regulations as
meaning:
„a Fellow of an institute, faculty, society or chapter of actuaries approved by the
Minister and appointed by the committee‟;
and the definition of „Minister‟ as referring to the MEC for local
government and housing. Mr Els was unable to point to any approval of
either the Actuarial Society of South Africa or him personally by the
MEC. On that basis it was argued – acknowledging that it was an
extremely technical point – that Mr Els was not qualified to be the
actuary of the Superannuation Fund in terms of its regulations and
accordingly was not a person who could give the advice to the committee
that was a pre-requisite to its directing Endumeni to pay an adjusted
contribution.
[39] This was a further fresh point raised when the issues were
reformulated at trial. Prior to that it had been admitted that Mr Els was
the actuary duly appointed as such. It is accepted that he is the duly
appointed valuator of the Superannuation Fund in terms of s 9A of the
Act and, for that purpose, is approved by the Minister of Finance. Mr
Kemp SC sought to overcome the problem by submitting that the
definition in the regulations is taken directly from the definition of
„actuary‟ in the Act prior to its amendment by Act 104 of 1993.
Accordingly, and based on the principle that a definition is always subject
to a contrary indication in the context,43 he submitted that this must be
read as a reference to the Minister of Finance. However, whilst initially
plausible, the contention does not stand up to scrutiny in the light of the
history of the definition of ‟actuary‟ in the regulations. The history shows
that the definition in the regulations originally referred to the
„Administrator‟ and not the „Minister‟ and was amended to its present
form when the definition of „Minister‟ was introduced after the new
provincial governmental structures came into effect with the transition to
democracy. The reference to „Administrator‟ cannot possibly have been
43 The principle appears from the headnote to Town Council of Springs v Moosa and another 1929 AD
401, which accurately summarises the legal position as set out at 416-417.
taken to refer to the Minister of Finance and equally the amendment can
only refer to the MEC.
[40] It was argued in the alternative that there must have been at least a
tacit approval by the MEC of the Actuarial Society of South Africa and of
Mr Els acting as the actuary for the Superannuation Fund. However the
evidence in that regard is extremely vague and it raises difficult questions
about the exercise of public powers that it is unnecessary to deal with in
the light of the conclusion to which I have come on a different approach.
If one assumes that the MEC did not approve the Actuarial Society of
South Africa or Mr Els as an actuary then it follows that he was not
qualified to be appointed to that position by the committee. However, one
cannot disregard the fact that he was so appointed and has discharged the
functions of actuary to the Superannuation Fund (and the other funds) for
a number of years. Nor can one disregard the fact that he is qualified to be
the actuary for the fund in terms of the Act and has likewise discharged
that function for a number of years. The issue then is whether, accepting
the deficiency in his appointment, that invalidates his actions as actuary
and in particular the advice he gave to the Fund in terms of the proviso. In
my view it does not. It is important to focus on the nature of the alleged
defect. It is not that Mr Els is not a qualified actuary. It is that the MEC
has not formally approved either of the actuarial societies of which he is a
member as bodies, the members of which can be appointed as the actuary
of the Superannuation Fund. The defect, if there is one, is one of no
practical moment. It would be pointless to require an actuary, belonging
to the only recognised society of actuaries in South Africa and approved
to act as such under the Act, to obtain a separate authority from a
provincial MEC in order to discharge his or her functions, when the
Minister of Finance, under the legislation governing pension funds has
already approved of persons, situated as Mr Els is, being appointed as
actuaries of pension funds in South Africa. The defect is one of form, not
one of substance, and I can detect nothing in the regulations that suggests
that an appointment lacking the MEC‟s approval renders invalid the
actions of the person so appointed.44 Therefore, whether or not there is a
technical defect in Mr Els‟ appointment, his actions in discharging the
duties of actuary to the Superannuation Fund are not rendered invalid
thereby. That disposes of this objection.
[41] That brings me to the next argument advanced by Endumeni. It
was that where the proviso refers to „an adjusted contribution‟ it must
refer to an adjustment of the contribution made by a local authority in
terms of regulation 21. The submission was that there is no provision in
regulation 21 warranting a lump sum contribution and that the only
adjustment permitted by the proviso was an adjustment to the
contribution of 1.946 times the contributions payable by members
provided for in regulation 21(1)(b).
[42] The language of the proviso does not support this contention. In
addition it flows from an assumption that is fallacious. That assumption is
that the contributions of local authorities are stable periodical payments in
the same way as those of members. That is incorrect as demonstrated in
paragraph 8 of this judgment. Local authority contributions vary from
month to month. There is no practical or principial difference between the
committee directing that the contribution for the following month be
adjusted by an increase in a specific amount and the committee directing
that the contributions for the next twelve months be adjusted by a specific
44 Standard Bank v Estate Van Rhyn 1925 AD 266 at 274; Swart v Smuts 1971 (1) SA 819 (A) at 829C-
830C.
monthly uplift of the multiple of 1.946. It would be relatively simple to
calculate the amount of the uplift in order to realise the lump sum amount
required by the committee to resolve a situation of underfunding. Yet it
was accepted that the latter form of adjustment was permissible and
contended that the former was not. That is not a sensible construction of
the provision.
[43] There was one further argument on behalf of Endumeni. It was that
where the proviso refers to „the local authority employing such member‟,
that requires the member to be employed by the local authority when the
proviso is invoked. The basis for this contention is that the word
„employing‟ is a present participle, but this ignores the fact that a present
participle may properly be used in relation to both present and past
situations.45 Here it is plainly used to identify the local authority at the
time of the excessive increase in pensionable emoluments. That is the
local authority that it is appropriate to fix with liability to pay an adjusted
contribution. It also avoids the situation that the entitlement to invoke the
proviso is subject to such an uncertain factor as the continued
employment of the employee in question. The eccentric results that flow
from that construction are illustrated by the case of a member like Mr
Maltman, who resigns, or dies, or reaches pensionable age. On their
doing so – something of which the management of the fund will only
become aware after it has occurred and an entitlement to benefits has
arisen – the entitlement to invoke the proviso would fall away. However
the enhanced benefits secured by the excessive increase would still have
to be paid and would remain unfunded. That is not a sensible
construction, whereas the alternative that this relates to the employer at
the time of the increase is perfectly sensible.
45 A simple example is „the girl is reading/the girl was reading‟.
[44] The committee of the Superannuation Fund was accordingly
entitled to direct Endumeni to pay an adjusted contribution to the fund
arising out of the increase in Mr Maltman‟s pensionable emoluments. The
appeal must therefore succeed. The parties agreed that in that event
judgment must be entered in favour of the Fund in an amount of
R2 573 740. Any judgment must bear interest from the date of mora. The
direction
to
pay
the
adjusted
contribution
was
given
on
28 September 2007 and rejected on 15 October 2007. The latter is the
appropriate date from which mora commenced.
[45] In the result it is ordered that:
The appeal succeeds with costs, such costs to include those
consequent upon the employment of two counsel.
The order of the trial court is set aside and replaced by the
following order:
„Judgment is granted in favour of the plaintiff and against the defendant
for:
1 Payment of the sum of R2 573 740;
2 Interest on the said sum of R2 573 740 at a rate of 15.5% per
annum from 15 October 2007 to the date of payment;
3 Costs of suit, such costs to include those consequent upon the
employment of two counsel.‟
M J D WALLIS
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
Kemp J Kemp SC (with him H S Gani)
Instructed by:
J Leslie Smith & Co, Pietermaritzburg;
Locally represented by:
Honey Attorneys Inc, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
M Pillemer SC (with him P Blomkamp)
Instructed by:
Acutt & Worthington, Dundee;
Locally represented by:
Webbers, Bloemfontein. | Supreme Court of Appeal of South Africa
MEDIA SUMMARY– JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date: 16 March 2012
Status: Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does
not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
Natal Joint Municipal Pension Fund v Endumeni Municipality
The SCA today upheld a claim by the Natal Joint Municipal Pension
Fund for payment of an adjusted pension contribution by the Endumeni
Municipality. The claim arose in consequence of a municipal employee
exploiting the rules of the Provident and Superannuation Funds
administered by the appellant to secure that he was credited with 46 years
of pensionable service in the Superannuation Fund, although e was only
43 years old and had only worked for the municipality for some 15 years.
He then resigned his employment and was immediately re-employed on a
contract basis in his former position. However, as a result of his
resignation he became entitled to a payment from the fund of some R2.7
million.
The Fund sought an adjusted contribution from the municipality to cover
the shortfall in funding of this withdrawal benefit. The municipality
successfully resisted this claim in the lower court on the grounds that the
claim was impermissible in terms of the applicable rule of the Fund.
However on appeal the claim succeeded. As a result the municipality will
have to pay an additional contribution to the Fund of some R2.4 million
together with interest and costs. |
2801 | non-electoral | 2012 | REPORTABLE
THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case no: 735/2011
In the matter between:
THE CITY OF JOHANNESBURG
Appellant
and
CHANGING TIDES 74 (PTY) LTD
First Respondent
THE UNLAWFUL OCCUPIERS OF TIKWELO
HOUSE, NO 48 AND 50 DAVIES STREET,
DOORNFONTEIN, JOHANNESBURG) 2nd to 98th Respondents
THE SOCIO-ECONOMIC RIGHTS INSTITUTE
OF SOUTH AFRICA
Amicus Curiae
Neutral citation: City of Johannesburg v Changing Tides 74 (Pty) Ltd
and 97 others (The Socio-Economic Rights Institute of
South
Africa
intervening
as
amicus
curiae)(735/2011)[2012] ZASCA 116 (14 September
2012)
Coram:
MTHIYANE DP, LEWIS, TSHIQI, WALLIS and PETSE
JJA.
Heard:
21 August 2012
Delivered: 14 September 2012
Summary: Eviction in terms of Prevention of Illegal Eviction from and
Unlawful Occupation of Land Act 19 of 1998 (PIE) – relationship
between ss 4(6) and (7) – joinder of local authority – whether required or
permissible – power of court to make an order that is just and equitable –
enquiry to be undertaken by court – obligations of applicant, local
authority and respondents discussed.
ORDER
On appeal from: South Gauteng High Court (Wepener J sitting as court
of first instance) it is ordered that:
The appeal is upheld and each party is ordered to pay its or their
own costs of appeal.
Paragraph 2 of the order of the high court is declared to be
legally ineffective.
Paragraphs 3 and 4 of the high court’s order are set aside.
The application for eviction is remitted to the high court in
order for it to determine the date upon which all of the
occupiers of Tikwelo House are to be evicted from that
building, the terms upon which the City is to provide temporary
emergency accommodation to the persons referred to in
paragraph 5(b) below of this order, any other conditions
attaching to that eviction order and the costs of the application.
The remittal is subject to the following further orders:
(a) The attorneys for the occupiers, the Legal Resources Centre
(the LRC), are directed on or before 30 September 2012 to
furnish the attorneys for the City of Johannesburg with a list of
those of its clients who, as a result of their eviction from
Tikwelo
House,
will
require
temporary
emergency
accommodation, together with their names, ages, family
circumstances, sources of income and appropriate proof of
identity. The list and those details shall be confirmed by an
affidavit of information and belief from a representative of the
LRC and where possible by affidavits from the occupiers
referred to therein.
(b) It is declared that the City of Johannesburg is obliged to
provide all of the persons whose names appear on that list with
temporary emergency accommodation by no later than two
weeks prior to the date of the eviction order to be determined by
the high court.
(c) The City of Johannesburg is directed, by no later than
31 October 2012, to deliver a report to the high court, confirmed
on affidavit by an appropriate official of the City, detailing the
accommodation that it will make available to the occupiers and
when such accommodation will be available and containing an
undertaking to make that accommodation available. That
accommodation must be in a location as near as feasibly
possible to the area where Tikwelo House is situated and the
report must specifically deal with the issue of proximity and
explain why the particular location and form of accommodation
has been selected. It must also set out the steps taken during the
two months before the report is filed to engage with the
occupiers through the LRC or any other means that may appear
appropriate.
(d) The occupiers are entitled by no later than 30 November
2012 to deliver affidavits dealing with the contents of the City’s
report and specifying any objections thereto and the City is
entitled within two weeks thereafter to deliver such further
affidavits as it deems appropriate.
(e) The application must then be set down on the opposed roll
for hearing. If at any stage there is non-compliance with the
provisions of this order, Changing Tides (Pty) Ltd is authorised
to set the matter down for hearing for appropriate relief.
JUDGMENT
WALLIS JA (MTHIYANE DP, LEWIS, TSHIQI and PETSE JJA
concurring)
Introduction
[1] This case illustrates the difficulties that confront a court of first
instance faced with an application for an eviction order and seeking to
give effect to constitutional prescripts. As will emerge, the judge in the
high court sought to address the issue by granting an order, at the instance
of the applicant, that adapted an order made by this court in a similar
case. By the conclusion of argument all counsel who appeared before us
agreed that in doing so he erred. That is a view we share and results in the
appeal being upheld to some extent and a remittal of the case to the high
court on terms set out in the order. But first it is necessary to set out the
facts giving rise to the appeal.
[2] The first respondent, Changing Tides 74 (Pty) Ltd (Changing
Tides), owns Tikwelo House. The building was formerly a factory or
warehouse. Some years ago, when under different ownership and in
circumstances that Changing Tides is unable to explain, people started to
live there. The interior was divided into flats using rudimentary
partitioning. Whether the original owners were party to this or whether its
occupation occurred through people desperate for a roof over their heads
simply taking possession of the building is not known. Whilst the
building was in the hands of its previous owners, third parties took
control of access to it and let rooms and collected rentals from the
occupiers. They now maintain that control as against Changing Tides by
force or the threat of force. This phenomenon is appropriately described
as the hijacking of the building. Tikwelo House is unsuited to human
habitation and in a state of disrepair, with no toilet or ablution facilities,
no water supply or sewage disposal, illegal electricity connections,
inadequate ventilation and refuse, including human waste, strewn in open
spaces. Counsel who appeared for the occupiers said that they accept that
it is a death trap and that it is in no-one’s interests that they continue to
live there. It is a health and fire hazard and the local police claim that it is
a focus for illegal activities. The appellant, the City of Johannesburg (the
City), has given Changing Tides notice to comply with the public health
and emergency service by-laws as well as the provisions of the National
Building Regulations and Building Standards Act 103 of 1977 and has
commenced proceedings against Changing Tides to compel compliance
with its demands.
[3] Changing Tides has no responsibility for this situation. In late 2007
it acquired this property and three others in settlement of debts owed to
associated entities by the previous owner and their shareholders. Its
intention was to redevelop the four properties. Whilst it has tried to obtain
control over the property the hijackers have prevented it from doing so.
Its only presence on the property takes the form of a single security guard
whose principal function is to observe what is happening there. A
previous attempt in 2008 to obtain an eviction order was unsuccessful. On
6 April 2011 it commenced the present proceedings to obtain possession
of the building. It cited as respondents all the occupiers of the building
and furnished the names (often in truncated form) of 97 individuals in a
list attached to the notice of motion, stating that, apart from those names,
particulars of the respondents were not known to it. It also cited the City,
contending that the latter had a direct and substantial interest and that in
eviction proceedings of this nature the joinder of the City was inevitable.
[4] The application was not opposed. It came before Wepener J in the
South Gauteng High Court on 14 June 2011. Both Changing Tides and
the City were represented, the former by counsel and the latter by its
attorney. Counsel for Changing Tides sought an amended order the
principal purpose of which was to take account of the judgment of this
court in Blue Moonlight.1 The City opposed this on the grounds that the
Blue Moonlight judgment was under appeal to the Constitutional Court,2
but the judge held himself bound by the judgment of this court. He
accordingly granted, in addition to an eviction order, a further order that
the sheriff prepare a ‘matrix’ (more accurately a schedule) of information
concerning ‘each occupier and their household members’ as specified in
the order and an order that the City provide the occupiers whose names
appeared in that schedule with temporary emergency accommodation.
The City was ordered to pay the costs of the sheriff in preparing the
schedule of information.
[5] On 12 October 2011, shortly before the Constitutional Court
delivered its judgment in Blue Moonlight,3 the judge granted leave to
appeal against the order for the provision of temporary emergency
1 City of Johannesburg Metropolitan Municipality v Blue Moonlight Properties 39 (Pty) Ltd & another
2011 (4) SA 337 (SCA).
2 The appeal was due to be heard on 11 August 2011.
3 The judgment was delivered on 1 December 2011 and is reported as City of Johannesburg
Metropolitan Municipality v Blue Moonlight Properties 39 (Pty) Ltd & another 2012 (2) SA 104 (CC)
(hereafter Blue Moonlight CC).
accommodation and the costs order against the City. Although the
occupiers of the building had thus far played no part in the proceedings,
counsel appeared on their behalf to oppose the grant of leave to appeal.
They did not, however, seek leave to appeal against the eviction order nor
did they signify an intention to seek the rescission of the eviction order.
The matter before us is therefore an appeal against only those parts of the
high court’s order already mentioned. Prior to the appeal we received an
application by the Socio-Economic Rights Institute of South Africa to
intervene as amicus curiae and that was granted on the basis that they
would make written submissions and address brief oral argument.
The order
[6] The limited ambit of this appeal occasioned considerable
difficulties. It is therefore necessary to consider the full terms of the
court’s order. It reads:
'1.
The First to Ninety Seventh Respondents and all persons occupying through
them (collectively 'the occupiers') are evicted from the immovable property situated at
numbers 48 and 50 Davies Street, Doornfontein, Johannesburg and described as Erfs
150 and 151 Doornfontein Township, Registration Division I.R., Gauteng more
commonly known as Tikwelo House.
2.
The Sheriff alternatively his duly appointed Deputy together with such
assistance as he deems appropriate including the South African Police Services is
ordered and authorised to enter into Tikwelo House at no 48 and 50 Davies Street
Doornfontein Johannesburg in order to compile a 'matrix' of information in respect of
each occupier and their household members including children ('the occupiers')
consisting of the information listed below and to furnish a copy of such matrix to the
Applicant and the 98th respondent as well as file a copy thereof in the Court file,
within in 15 days of this order:
1.1
Full names;
1.2
Nationality and language preference;
1.3
Date on which they allege to have taken occupation in the building;
1.4
Occupation;
1.5
Identity number supported by copy of identity document or document which
positively identify the occupier;
1.6
Income supported by payslip if possible;
1.7
Number and name of dependent occupiers;
1.8
Age
1.9
Whether the occupier has applied for State-assisted relief in terms of the RDP
Programme or any other State sponsored programme, and proof of such application.
3.
The 98th Respondent is ordered to provide those occupiers whose names
appear in the matrix to be compiled by the Sheriff of the Court aforementioned with
temporary emergency accommodation as decant in a location as near as feasibly
possible to the area where the property is situated, provided that they are still resident
at the property and have not voluntarily vacated it as of 14th August 2011, by which
date the occupiers are to vacate, failing which the Sheriff of the court is ordered to
evict them.
4.
The 98th Respondent is to pay the costs of the Sheriff in respect of compiling,
delivering and filing the matrix aforementioned.'
[7] The first difficulty is that as a result of a drafting error the eviction
order in paragraph 1 appears to relate only to the persons named in the list
annexed to the notice of motion and not to all the occupiers of the
building, although the application had been directed at all the occupiers.
Counsel for Changing Tides informed us that the notices in terms of
ss 4(2) and (5) of the Prevention of Illegal Eviction from and Unlawful
Occupation of Land Act 19 of 1998 (PIE) were directed at and served, in
accordance with an order in terms of s 4(4) of PIE, on all the occupiers.
Paragraphs 2 and 3 of the order are clearly directed at an eviction of all
the occupiers, notwithstanding the apparently restricted ambit of
paragraph 1. No-one appears to have noticed this and the heads of
argument in the appeal were delivered on the basis that the order granted
related to all occupiers and not simply those referred to as the first to
ninety seventh respondents. There was accordingly an internal
contradiction in the order itself.
[8] The next difficulty is that in terms of paragraph 2 of the order the
sheriff was directed, with the assistance of the South African Police if
required, to enter Tikwelo House and compile the schedule of
information regarding the occupiers and their personal circumstances.
This is not the proper function of the sheriff. Those functions are
prescribed by statute.4 In the high court it is to execute all sentences,
decrees, judgments, writs, summonses, rules, orders, warrants, commands
and processes of the court and make return of the manner of execution
thereof to the court and any party at whose instance the sheriff was
acting.5 Paragraph 2 of the order of the high court requires the sheriff to
procure and assemble information to enable the City to discharge its
constitutional obligations to persons evicted from Tikwelo House and
rendered homeless by their eviction. That is not a function of the sheriff
and it cannot be made the function of the sheriff by incorporating the
obligation in a court order.
[9] There is the further difficulty that, apart from any tacit coercion
that may arise from the sheriff being accompanied by the police, there is
no obligation on the occupiers to furnish the information required to draw
up the proposed schedule. If this building is a centre for criminal
activities and, as suggested by the City, houses a number of illegal
immigrants, I fail to see on what basis it can be thought that, other than a
few, the occupiers will meekly provide the sheriff with the information
set out in paragraph 2 of the order. In addition those who have hijacked
4 Section 3(1) of the Sheriffs Act 90 of 1986 as read with other statutes defining those functions.
5 Section 36(1) of the Supreme Court Act 59 of 1959.
the building and have an interest in obstructing the eviction of the
occupiers may threaten the occupiers or worse if they co-operate with the
sheriff. That part of the order was accordingly improvidently sought and
erroneously granted. It is therefore a nullity.6
[10] That conclusion on its own inevitably means that paragraphs 3 and
4 of the high court order cannot stand, as they are dependent on the
fulfilment by the sheriff of the obligations set out in paragraph 2 of the
order. There are, however, other reasons why that must be the outcome of
this appeal. Whilst the judge was correct to accept that he was bound by
and needed to apply the decision of this court in Blue Moonlight, he
overlooked the fact that there were differences between that case and the
one before him. There the occupiers were identified and represented and
had placed undisputed information before the court regarding their
personal circumstances that demonstrated that, if evicted, they would be
rendered homeless. That type of information was not available to
Wepener J in this matter. No doubt he relied on the knowledge that any
reasonably perceptive person would have that, in a situation such as
prevailed at Tikwelo House, it was overwhelmingly probable that the
occupiers would be extremely poor and might well be rendered homeless
by eviction. However, without greater detail as to their circumstances and
their needs if evicted – the needs of a family with three children being
different from those of three young men sharing living quarters – he
could not be satisfied that the order he was making was just and
equitable, that the timing of the eviction order was just and equitable or
that the conditions he was attaching to it were appropriate. Whilst he
knew from the affidavits that there were children living in the building,
and it was reasonable for him to assume that there might well be
6 Motala v The Master 2012 (3) SA 325 (SCA) paras 11-14.
households headed by women, he lacked information relevant to the
assessment of the factors specified in s 4(7) of PIE. The absence of that
information precluded a proper exercise of his discretion.7 For those
reasons these two paragraphs of his order must be set aside. The debate
before us centred on what should take their place. In order to determine
that it is necessary to examine the current state of our law in regard to
evictions.
The legal framework
[11] In terms of s 4(7) of PIE an eviction order may only be granted if it
is just and equitable to do so, after the court has had regard to all the
relevant circumstances, including the availability of land for the
relocation of the occupiers and the rights and needs of the elderly,
children, disabled persons and households headed by women. If the
requirements of s 4 are satisfied and no valid defence to an eviction order
has been raised the court ‘must’, in terms of s 4(8), grant an eviction
order. When granting such an order the court must, in terms of s 4(8)(a)
of PIE, determine a just and equitable date on which the unlawful
occupier or occupiers must vacate the premises. The court is empowered
in terms of s 4(12) to attach reasonable conditions to an eviction order.
[12] There does not appear to have been a consideration of the precise
relationship between the requirements of s 4(7), (or s 4(6) if the occupiers
have been in occupation for less than six months), and s 4(8) in the
context of an application for eviction at the instance of a private
landowner. In some judgments there is a tendency to blur the two
enquiries mandated by these sections into one. The first enquiry is that
7 Port Elizabeth Municipality v Various Occupiers 2005 (1) SA 217 (CC) para 32; Occupiers, Shulana
Court, 11 Hendon Road, Yeoville, Johannesburg v Steele [2010] 4 All SA 54 (SCA) paras 11 and 14.
under s 4(7), the court must determine whether it is just and equitable to
order eviction having considered all relevant circumstances. Among those
circumstances the availability of alternative land and the rights and needs
of people falling in specific vulnerable groups are singled out for
consideration. Under s 4(8) it is obliged to order an eviction ‘if the …
requirements of the section have been complied with’ and no valid
defence is advanced to an eviction order. The provision that no valid
defence has been raised refers to a defence that would entitle the occupier
to remain in occupation as against the owner of the property, such as the
existence of a valid lease. Compliance with the requirements of section 4
refers to both the service formalities and the conclusion under s 4(7) that
an eviction order would be just and equitable.8 In considering whether
eviction is just and equitable the court must come to a decision that is just
and equitable to all parties.9 Once the conclusion has been reached that
eviction would be just and equitable the court enters upon the second
enquiry. It must then consider what conditions should attach to the
eviction order and what date would be just and equitable upon which the
eviction order should take effect. Once again the date that it determines
must be one that is just and equitable to all parties.
[13] Two factors that have loomed large in our case law on evictions,
both under PIE and otherwise, are the risk of homelessness and the
availability of alternative land or accommodation. In the case of
occupations of public land10 and evictions at the instance of public
bodies,11 the emphasis has fallen on the constitutional obligations of the
8 ABSA Bank Ltd v Murray & another 2004 (2) SA 15 (C) para 19.
9 Ibid, para 21; Port Elizabeth Municipality v Various Occupiers, supra, para 13.
10 Government of the Republic of South Africa & others v Grootboom 2001 (1) SA 46 (CC).
11 Baartman & others v Port Elizabeth Municipality 2004 (1) SA 560 (SCA) and on appeal from it Port
Elizabeth Municipality v Various Occupiers, supra; Occupiers of 51 Olivia Road, Berea Township and
197 Main Street, Johannesburg v City of Johannesburg & others 2008 (3) SA 208 (CC); Residents of
arms of government mandated to address the housing needs of the people
affected by the eviction, and in particular to address the plight of those
who face an emergency situation of homelessness. The starting point is
the judgment in Grootboom where a declaratory order was made that the
State was obliged to develop a programme, including the provision of
relief for people who had no access to land, no roof over their heads and
were living in intolerable circumstances. In Port Elizabeth Municipality
the Constitutional Court upheld an order of this court that an eviction
order from privately owned land, at the instance of the local authority,
should not have been made when it was unclear whether the alternative
accommodation being offered by the municipality would afford a
reasonable measure of security of tenure. In Olivia Road it endorsed a
settlement agreement concluded between the municipality and the
occupiers of the building, after a process of mediation, that provided for
the occupiers to vacate the building, and in Joe Slovo it crafted an
elaborate eviction order under which the evictees were to be relocated
elsewhere; there was to be engagement between the municipality and the
residents and the entire process was subject to supervision by the court.
The difficulties facing courts in this regard are illustrated by the fact that
some 21 months later the Constitutional Court discharged the order in its
entirety.12
[14] The disparate situations in each of these cases means that care must
be taken in simply transposing either what was said in the judgments, or
the orders that were made, to other different situations, where those
statements may have less application and those solutions may be
Joe Slovo Community, Western Cape v Thubelisha Homes & others (Centre on Housing Rights and
Evictions & another, amici curiae) 2010 (3) SA 454 (CC) (hereafter Joe Slovo).
12 Residents of Joe Slovo Community, Western Cape v Thubelisha Homes & others (Centre on Housing
Rights and Evictions & another, amici curiae) 2011 (7) BCLR 723 (CC).
inappropriate. What is clear and relevant for present purposes is that the
State, at all levels of government, owes constitutional obligations to those
in need of housing and in particular to those whose needs are of an
emergency character, such as those faced with homelessness in
consequence of an eviction. Those obligations arise under s 26 of the
Constitution and exist separately from any question of whether it is just
and equitable for a court to grant an eviction order. As Harms DP said in
City of Johannesburg v Rand Properties (Pty) Ltd & others,13 in relation
to persons in crisis with no access to land, no roof over their heads and
living in intolerable conditions:
‘Eviction, at the very least, triggers an obligation resting on the city to provide
emergency and basic shelter to any affected respondent.’
[15] Where the eviction takes place at the instance of an organ of state
in circumstances to which PIE is applicable the court can only order
eviction if it is satisfied that it is just and equitable to do so after having
regard to all relevant factors including those set out in s 6(3) of PIE,
namely the circumstances in which the occupiers came to occupy the land
and erect structures thereon; the period they have resided on the land and
the availability of suitable alternative accommodation or land. The last of
these has been held to be vital to the justice and equity evaluation and a
crucial factor in the enquiry.14 It cannot, however, be the sole enquiry nor,
notwithstanding its importance, is it absolutely decisive. The
Constitutional Court has on several occasions stressed that, in the present
situation in South Africa, where housing needs are so great and resources
so limited, there cannot be an absolute right to be given
13 City of Johannesburg v Rand Properties (Pty) Ltd & others 2007 (6) SA 417 (SCA) para 47. The
Olivia Road judgment (fn 10 ante) is the appeal from this decision.
14 Joe Slovo para 105(c) per Yacoob J and para 161 per Moseneke DCJ.
accommodation.15 Specifically in regard to s 6(3)(c) of PIE, which
requires the court to have regard to the availability of alternative
accommodation or land, it has said that there is no unqualified
constitutional duty on local authorities to ensure that there cannot be an
eviction unless alternative accommodation has been made available.16
The correct position appears to be, as explained by O’Regan J in Joe
Slovo,17 that an eviction order in circumstances where no alternative
accommodation is provided is far less likely to be just and equitable than
one that makes careful provision for alternative housing. Neither PIE nor
s 26 of the Constitution provides an absolute entitlement to be provided
with accommodation. In some circumstances a reasonable response to
potentially homeless people may be to make permanent housing available
and in others it may be reasonable to make no housing at all available.18
In all of this the court will have to be mindful of all other relevant factors
including the resources available to provide accommodation.19
[16] The issue of the availability of alternative accommodation is more
difficult in the context of an eviction at the instance of an owner of
property that is not an organ of state. There another constitutionally
protected right, the right to property,20 comes into play. As pointed out in
this court in Ndlovu v Ngcobo: Bekker & another v Jika21 the effect of
PIE is not to expropriate private property. What it does is delay or
suspend the exercise of the owner’s rights until a determination has been
made whether an eviction would be just and equitable and under what
15 Grootboom para 95
16 Port Elizabeth Municipality para 28.
17 Joe Slovo, para 313.
18 Olivia Road para 18.
19 Grootboom para 46.
20 Section 25 of the Constitution.
21 Ndlovu v Ngcobo: Bekker & another v Jika 2003 (1) SA 113 (SCA) para 17; Wormald NO & others
v Kambule 2006 (3) SA 562 (SCA) para 15.
conditions. The Constitutional Court endorsed that approach in Blue
Moonlight.22
[17] That situation differs from the case where an organ of state seeks
the eviction. In such a case it is almost always also the body responsible
for providing alternative accommodation. The majority of cases where an
organ of state asks for an eviction order will involve departments at
various levels of government, that are either themselves responsible for
the provision of housing or, if not, are nonetheless closely linked to
departments that do bear that responsibility. In those circumstances to
link the availability of alternative land or accommodation to the ability to
obtain an eviction order is relatively straightforward. It will generally
only be just and equitable to grant an eviction order at the instance of one
arm of the state, if the related arm of the state bearing the obligation to
attend to the housing needs of the population is able and willing to
address the consequences of that eviction by ensuring that alternative land
or accommodation is available to those evicted. Conversely eviction will
ordinarily not be just and equitable in that situation if alternative land or
accommodation is not made available.
[18] The position is otherwise when the party seeking the eviction is a
private person or entity bearing no constitutional obligation to provide
housing. The Constitutional Court has said that private entities are not
obliged to provide free housing for other members of the community
indefinitely, but their rights of occupation may be restricted, and they can
22 Blue Moonlight CC para 40. The right of property owners is not absolute. One can imagine cases
where it would not be just and equitable to grant an eviction order at the instance of a private
landowner, as in the case of a small portion of undeveloped land that the owner had allowed to be
occupied for many years by former employees, who were now aged, in circumstances where the owner
was not inconvenienced by their presence. But that situation has nothing to do with the availability of
alternative land or accommodation.
be expected to submit to some delay in exercising, or some suspension of,
their right to possession of their property in order to accommodate the
immediate needs of the occupiers. That approach makes it difficult to see
on what basis the availability of alternative land or accommodation bears
on the question whether an eviction order should be granted, as opposed
to the date of eviction and the conditions attaching to such an order. One
can readily appreciate that the date of eviction may be more immediate if
alternative accommodation is available, either because the circumstances
of the occupiers are such that they can arrange such accommodation
themselves, or because the local authority has in place appropriate
emergency or alternative accommodation. Conversely, justice and equity
may require the date of implementation of an eviction order to be delayed
if alternative accommodation is not immediately available. It is, however,
difficult to see on what basis it affects the question whether it is just and
equitable to make such an order. Perhaps in a case, where the occupiers
would be entitled to a lengthy period of notice before being required to
vacate, the unavailability of alternative land or accommodation might
operate as a factor to persuade the court that the issue of an eviction
order, at the stage that the application came before it, would not be just
and equitable, but such cases are likely to be rare.23 This does not mean
that courts may disregard the question of the availability of alternative
land or accommodation – that would ignore the express requirements of
s 4(7) – but the weight this factor will carry in making the initial decision
whether an eviction order is just and equitable may not be great.
23 If the landowner had no immediate or even medium term need to use the property and it would
simply be sterilised by an eviction order, the court could legitimately hold the view that it was not just
and equitable at that time to grant an eviction order. That would be reinforced by a lack of availability
of alternative land.
[19] In most instances where the owner of property seeks the eviction of
unlawful occupiers, whether from land or the buildings situated on the
land, and demonstrates a need for possession and that there is no valid
defence to that claim, it will be just and equitable to grant an eviction
order. That is consistent with the jurisprudence that has developed around
this topic. In Ndlovu v Ngcobo,24 Harms JA made the point that
ownership and the lack of any lawful reason to be in occupation are
important factors in the exercise of the court’s discretion. In the
Modderklip Boerdery case25 Marais J carefully weighed the different
factors and granted an eviction order. His order was upheld by this court26
and not questioned in the Constitutional Court.27 The eviction order
granted by this court in Rand Properties28(not a PIE case, but one in
which the circumstances relating to the building were similar) was set
aside by the Constitutional Court in Olivia Road,29 but on the grounds of
the lack of engagement between the municipality and the occupiers, not
its appropriateness. In Blue Moonlight an eviction order was granted at
first instance and confirmed subject to different conditions in this court
and the Constitutional Court.30
[20] Where the eviction is sought by a private landowner the
availability of alternative land or accommodation assumes greater
24 Para 17.
25 Modderklip Boerdery (Pty) Ltd v Modder East Squatters & another 2001 (4) SA 385 (W).
26 Modderfontein Squatters, Greater Benoni City Council v Modderklip Boerdery (Pty) Ltd (Agri SA
and Legal Resources Centre, Amici Curiae): President of the Republic of South Africa & others v
Modderklip Boerdery (Pty) Ltd (Agri SA and Legal Resources Centre, Amici Curiae) 2004 (6) SA 40
(SCA) para 48.
27 President of the Republic of South Africa & another v Modderklip Boerdery (Pty) Ltd (Agri SA &
others, Amici Curiae) 2005 (5) SA 1 (CC).
28 Footnote 12, ante.
29 Footnote 10, ante.
30 See also Occupiers of Skurweplaas 353 JR v PPC Aggregate Quarries (Pty) Ltd & others 2012 (4)
BCLR 382 (CC). At first instance there are the judgments in ABSA Bank Ltd v Murray & another,
supra; Davids & others v Van Straaten & others 2005 (4) SA 468 (C) and Jackpersad NO & others v
Mitha & others 2008 (4) SA 522 (D).
importance in the second enquiry, namely, what is a just and equitable
date for eviction? It is here that the constitutional obligations of the
appropriate arm of government – in our cities this is inevitably the
municipality – come into focus and assume their greatest importance. The
reason is that, even if it is just and equitable to grant an eviction order that
is not the end of the enquiry, because any eviction order must operate
from a date fixed by the court and that date must be one that is just and
equitable.
[21] Accordingly the availability of alternative land or accommodation
is relevant to both enquiries into what is just and equitable. That link
between the first and second stages of the enquiry underpins the
numerous decisions in which our courts have held that, before
determining whether an eviction order should be granted, the relevant
authorities must be engaged in order to ensure that they will discharge
their obligations to the evictees. I need mention only four of the leading
decisions in that regard. The first in point of time is the Port Elizabeth
Municipality case in the Constitutional Court. That stressed the need for
courts to ensure that as far as possible they are fully informed of the
relevant facts in order properly to discharge their function of determining
whether an eviction order should be issued and if so on what terms.31 It
mandated a more active role of case management for courts hearing
applications for eviction32 including the need to consider whether
mediation in terms of s 7 of PIE might be appropriate.33
31 Para 32.
32 Paras 36-37.
33 See the discussion in paras 39-47. Mediation was not ordered in that case but a court mandated
process of engagement led to a settlement in Olivia Road.
[22] This court adopted the same approach in The Occupiers of Erf 101,
102, 104 and 112, Shorts Retreat, Pietermaritzburg v Daisy Dear
Investments (Pty) Ltd & others.34 There an eviction order was sought in
relation to a well-established community of some 2000 people, who had
indicated their willingness to move from the land and even identified a
potential site to which they could possibly move. The local authority had
demanded that the owner evict the occupiers, but was not joined and
simply filed a report saying that it could not accommodate the potential
evictees or identify other land to which they could move. This court, at
the request of the parties, made an order setting aside the eviction order
that had been granted; joining the municipality as a party and ordering the
municipality to file a report, confirmed on oath, dealing with the
availability of alternative land and emergency accommodation; the
consequences of an eviction order if no alternative land or emergency
accommodation could be made available and setting out the steps that
could be taken to alleviate the effects of the occupation of the property if
the occupiers were not immediately evicted. The court held that the
absence of information in regard to these matters meant that relevant
information was not taken into account in determining whether the
eviction was just and equitable and accordingly ‘the eviction order was
premature’.35 Clearly the court was concerned with both of the just and
equitable enquiries required by s 4 of PIE in reaching that conclusion.
[23] The next case is that involving the occupiers of Shulana Court.36
Here an application for eviction from a building similar to Tikwelo House
was granted by default. An application for rescission of the default
34 Occupiers of Erf 101, 102, 104 and 112, Shorts Retreat, Pietermaritzburg v Daisy Dear Investments
(Pty) Ltd & others [2009] 4 All SA 410 (SCA).
35 Para 10.
36 Occupiers, Shulana Court, 11 Hendon Road, Yeoville, Johannesburg v Steele [2010] 4 All SA 54
(SCA).
judgment was refused. The appeal against that refusal was upheld
because the court dealing with the eviction application did not possess the
information referred to in s 4(7) of PIE, nor did it know what alternative
accommodation was available for evictees who might find themselves in
an emergency situation in consequence of their eviction. The
circumstances in which the occupiers were living indicated the likelihood
that at least some of them might be rendered homeless as a result of their
eviction. Accordingly the municipality should have been engaged in the
process before granting an eviction order. For those reasons the court that
granted the eviction order had not done what was required of it in terms
of s 4(7) of PIE and, by failing to investigate matters further, in particular
the issue of possible homelessness, it had failed to discharge its
constitutional obligations.37
[24] Lastly there is the recent decision of the Constitutional Court in
Occupiers of Mooiplaats v Golden Thread Ltd & others38 handed down
shortly after its judgment in Blue Moonlight. Again that was a case where
the court had granted an eviction order without investigating the
possibility of it resulting in homelessness, or whether mediation involving
the owner, the occupiers and the municipality might have led to a
resolution of the dispute or ameliorated the plight of the occupiers. The
eviction order was set aside on the basis that it could not be said that an
eviction order was just and equitable. The case was remitted to the high
court to obtain a report from the municipality about the housing situation
of the occupiers; the possibility of homelessness if they were evicted; the
provision of alternative land or accommodation; the consequences of an
37 Paras 14 and 15. The obiter remark in the first sentence of para 16 is not supported by the authorities
cited and cannot be accepted without qualification. The failure by the court of first instance to do what
was required by PIE was the true reason for the appeal being upheld.
38 Occupiers of Mooiplaats v Golden Thread Ltd & others 2012 (2) SA 337 (CC).
eviction if no alternative land or accommodation was provided and the
measures that could be taken to alleviate the situation of the owner if an
eviction was delayed while alternatives were arranged. Whilst the court
referred only to s 4(6) and not s 4(8) it is plain that it was concerned not
only with the justice and equity of an eviction order, but also with the
justice and equity of the timing of such an order. That emerges from its
citation39 of the passage from its judgment in Blue Moonlight where it
had said that an owner’s right to possession could be temporarily
restricted whilst the justice and equity enquiry was undertaken; its
comment that the owner had no immediate plans to use the property and
from the requirement in the order that the municipality report on the
impact on the owner of delay in granting an eviction order.
[25] Reverting then to the relationship between ss 4(7) and (8), the
position can be summarised as follows. A court hearing an application for
eviction at the instance of a private person or body, owing no obligations
to provide housing or achieve the gradual realisation of the right of access
to housing in terms of s 26(1) of the Constitution, is faced with two
separate enquiries. First it must decide whether it is just and equitable to
grant an eviction order having regard to all relevant factors. Under s 4(7)
those
factors
include
the
availability
of
alternative
land
or
accommodation. The weight to be attached to that factor must be assessed
in the light of the property owner’s protected rights under s 25 of the
Constitution, and on the footing that a limitation of those rights in favour
of the occupiers will ordinarily be limited in duration. Once the court
decides that there is no defence to the claim for eviction and that it would
be just and equitable to grant an eviction order it is obliged to grant that
order. Before doing so, however, it must consider what justice and equity
39 Para 17.
demands in relation to the date of implementation of that order and it
must consider what conditions must be attached to that order. In that
second enquiry it must consider the impact of an eviction order on the
occupiers and whether they may be rendered homeless thereby or need
emergency assistance to relocate elsewhere. The order that it grants as a
result of these two discrete enquiries is a single order. Accordingly it
cannot be granted until both enquiries have been undertaken and the
conclusion reached that the grant of an eviction order, effective from a
specified date, is just and equitable. Nor can the enquiry be concluded
until the court is satisfied that it is in possession of all the information
necessary to make both findings based on justice and equity.
Procedural issues in eviction applications under PIE
[26] In order to discharge its function the court must be possessed of
information regarding all relevant factors that bear upon its decision.
Judges have been told40 that they are:
‘… called upon to go beyond [their] normal functions and to engage in active judicial
management according to equitable principles of an ongoing, stressful and law-
governed social process. This has major implications for the manner in which [the
court] must deal with the issues before it, how it should approach questions of
evidence, the procedures it may adopt, the way in which it exercises its powers and
the orders it might make.’
That injunction must, however, be seen in the context that our courts are
neither vested with powers of investigation nor equipped with the staff
and resources to engage in broad-ranging enquiries into socio-economic
issues. Nor, as already pointed out, can the courts circumvent that by
delegating those tasks to the sheriff, who is likewise ill-equipped for that
task. How then is the court to ensure that it is adequately informed in
40 Port Elizabeth Municipality, supra, para 36.
regard to the relevant factors that must be taken into account in making
its decision?
[27] There is nothing novel about a court taking a proactive approach to
litigation in order to ensure that it is sufficiently informed to enable it to
take a just decision in the context of cases where its task differs from that
ordinarily encountered in adversarial litigation and the orders sought from
it are discretionary. For example in Clarke v Hurst NO & others, 41 a case
involving the removal of life support from a patient in a persistent
vegetative state, Thirion J requested and secured that additional specialist
medical investigations be undertaken before reaching a decision. In my
view courts can, and must, properly address the issues arising in eviction
cases within the framework of our existing law governing evidence and
civil procedure, provided they are not overwhelmed by practical
problems42 and make use, where appropriate, of court ordered mediation
or engagement, or structured interdicts. However, in exercising these
powers judges must take care to ensure that they do not go beyond the
proper bounds of judicial conduct. 43 A more active role in managing the
litigation does not permit the judge to enter the arena or take over the
running of the litigation. By way of illustration of the boundaries within
which they must operate, it is permissible in an appropriate case to
conduct an inspection in loco,44 but it is impermissible to engage in
private investigation. What they are obliged to do in eviction cases is
ensure that all the relevant parties are before them, that proper
investigations have been undertaken to place the relevant facts before
them and that the orders they craft are appropriate to the particular
41 Clarke v Hurst NO & others 1992 (4) SA 630 (D).
42 Per Harms JA in Modderfontein Squatters supra, fn 24, para 42.
43 See City of Johannesburg Metropolitan Council v Ngobeni [2012] ZASCA 55 paras 29 to 33.
44 As was done at first instance in Grootboom.
circumstances of the case. If, despite appropriate judicial guidance as to
the information required, the judges are not satisfied that they are in
possession of all relevant facts, no order can be granted. In what follows I
address some of the more important aspects of eviction applications in the
light of the contentions advanced before us.
Onus
[28] The City submitted that it is the duty of the occupiers to place any
necessary relevant information before the court. It contended that the
common law position that an owner can rely simply on its ownership of
the property and the occupation of the occupiers against its will is
applicable to applications governed by s 4(7) of PIE. It relied on the cases
where it has been held that the landowner may allege only its ownership
of the property and the fact of occupation in order to make out a case for
an eviction order, to which the occupiers must respond and establish a
right of occupation if they wish to prevent an order form being made.45 It
argued that the only effect of PIE was to overlay the common law
position with certain procedural requirements.
[29] This is not an issue that has been resolved in the cases and to some
extent it has been obscured by cases in which a less conventional
approach to the function of the court has been espoused. The enquiry into
what is just and equitable requires the court to make a value judgment on
the basis of all relevant facts. It can cause further evidence to be
submitted where ‘the evidence submitted by the parties leaves important
questions of fact obscure, contested or uncertain’.46 That may mean that
‘technical questions relating to onus of proof should not play an unduly
45 Chetty v Naidoo 1974 (3) SA 13 (A) approving the approach in Graham v Ridley 1931 TPD 476 at
479.
46 Port Elizabeth Municipality, supra, para 32.
significant role’.47 However, I do not think that means that the onus of
proof can be disregarded. After all what is being sought from the court is
an order that can be granted only if the court is satisfied that it is just and
equitable that such an order be made. If, at the end of the day, it is left in
doubt on that issue it must refuse an order. There is nothing in PIE that
warrants the court maintaining litigation on foot until it feels itself able to
resolve the conflicting interests of the landowner and the unlawful
occupiers in a just and equitable manner.
[30] The implication of this is that, in the first instance, it is for the
applicant to secure that the information placed before the court is
sufficient, if unchallenged, to satisfy it that it would be just and equitable
to grant an eviction order. Both the Constitution and PIE require that the
court must take into account all relevant facts before granting an eviction
order. Whilst in some cases it may suffice for an applicant to say that it is
the owner and the respondent is in occupation, because those are the only
relevant facts, in others it will not. One cannot simply transpose the
former rules governing onus to a situation that is no longer governed only
by the common law but has statutory expression. In a situation governed
by s 4(7) of PIE, the applicant must show that it has complied with the
notice requirements under s 4 and that the occupiers of the property are in
unlawful occupation. On ordinary principles governing onus it would also
have to demonstrate that the circumstances render it just and equitable to
grant the order it seeks. I see no reason to depart from this. There is
nothing unusual in such an onus having to be discharged. One of the
grounds upon which it was permissible to seek a winding-up order in
respect of a company under the Companies Act 61 of 1973 was that it
would be just and equitable for the court to grant such an order. The law
47 Ibid.
reports are replete with cases in which courts dealt with applications for
winding-up on that basis. In cases where the applicant failed to discharge
the onus of satisfying the court that it would be just and equitable to grant
a winding-up order it was refused.
[31] The response to this may be to say that the applicant for relief will
be unaware of the circumstances of the occupiers and therefore unable to
place the relevant facts before the court. As a general proposition that
cannot be sustained. Most applicants for eviction orders governed by PIE
will have at least some knowledge of the identity of the persons they wish
to have evicted and their personal circumstances. They are obviously not
required to go beyond what they know or what is reasonably
ascertainable. The facts of this case belie the proposition that an
applicant, even in a case where a building has been hijacked, is unable to
place information before the court in regard to the identity and
circumstances of the occupiers. Changing Tides was able to describe in
considerable detail the circumstances in which the occupiers were living.
It had served notices to vacate on a number of them and managed to
assemble a list, albeit incomplete and defective, of the names of 97
occupiers. It made it clear that the occupiers were people of extremely
limited means, some at least of whom gathered rubbish from the streets
for personal use or resale and left rotting garbage inside and outside the
building. It specifically alleged that the occupiers were people who
would, on eviction, qualify for emergency housing. It referred to earlier
proceedings in which it had previously obtained an eviction order that
had subsequently been set aside at the instance of occupiers. For some
reason it did not provide the court with information about the occupiers’
circumstances gleaned from the affidavits in those proceedings. That
information might also have disclosed something of the circumstances in
which the building came to be occupied originally. In that regard they
could also presumably have made enquiries of the previous owners.
[32] In addition, there were a number of other potential sources of
information that were not exploited. Security guards had been on site to
observe the comings and goings of the occupiers. They could have
provided affidavits from their observations. The owner’s representatives
had been in communication with the police and could have procured
more detailed information about the alleged criminal activities in the
building from that source. In addition, in seeking to demonstrate that it
was just and equitable that they be granted an eviction order, they could
have explained why they had done nothing for some three years to pursue
the eviction of the occupiers after the first order was set aside. They could
also have given more detail regarding their redevelopment plans for the
building, both as to the character of the proposed development and as to
the proposed timeframe. All that was important information, both in
regard to the grant of an order and in determining a just and equitable
date for the eviction order they were seeking. It would have provided a
substantial body of information to assist the court in reaching a decision
on whether it was just and equitable to evict the occupiers.
[33] It is appropriate to mention one further issue that arises generally in
these cases. Very often it seems that once an eviction is ordered the
sheriff effects it, making use of assistance from security firms and the
police. That may be necessary in a small number of cases where the
occupiers actively resist their eviction and questions of the personal
safety of the sheriff and his or her deputies may arise. However, in many
instances all that happens is that the sheriff and his staff remove people
and their belongings and dump them unceremoniously on pavements
outside the building they have been occupying in scenes reminiscent of
forced removals in the days of apartheid. The Constitutional Court has
rightly said that the loss of a home, even ones as exiguous as these appear
to be, is a painful and often degrading experience. It has charged courts
with responsibility for infusing ‘grace and compassion’ into this situation.
One way in which that could be done would be if the property owner
indicated a willingness to assist those displaced to move themselves and
their meagre belongings to whatever new location they may have found
or whatever emergency accommodation may be provided. That would
ameliorate the situation of the evictees to some degree at some additional
cost to the property owner. A tender to provide such assistance would
help the court in determining whether the eviction and the date and
conditions on which it is to be effected are just and equitable. I do not
intend to lay down as a legal obligation that property owners must do this
in order to obtain eviction orders. I mention it to illustrate one of the ways
in which an applicant for an eviction order could seek to show that the
grant of that order, its timing and the conditions to which it is subject are
just and equitable.
[34] In my view, therefore, there are no good reasons for saying that an
applicant for an eviction order under s 4(7) of PIE does not bear the onus
of satisfying the court that it is just and equitable to make such an order.
Cases where that onus affects the outcome are likely to be few and far
between because the court will ordinarily be able to make the value
judgment involved on the material before it. However, the fact that an
applicant bears the onus of satisfying the court on this question means
that it has a duty to place evidence before the court in its founding
affidavits that will be sufficient to discharge that onus in the light of the
court’s obligation to have regard to all relevant factors. The City’s
contention, that the common law position continues to prevail and that it
is for the occupiers to place the relevant facts before the court, is
incorrect. Once that is recognised it should mean that applicants go to
greater lengths to place evidence of relevant facts before the court from
the outset and this will expedite the process of disposing of these
applications, particularly in cases that are unopposed as the need for the
court to direct that further information be obtained will diminish.
Joinder
[35] Even if an applicant places reasonably comprehensive information
before the court, there will nonetheless often be information not within its
knowledge, especially in relation to the ability and willingness of the
relevant local authority to address issues arising from the possibility of an
eviction order giving rise to homelessness and a need for the provision of
emergency accommodation. It is here that the issue of joinder arises. One
of the fundamental arguments raised by the City was that its joinder in
these proceedings was inappropriate. It contended that it was not
appropriate for the property owner to join it with a view to ensuring that
the constitutional rights of the occupiers were protected.
[36] An appeal is not the time to raise an argument of misjoinder. The
City did not object to its joinder nor did it file affidavits in which it
challenged the allegation by Changing Tides that it had a direct and
substantial interest in the outcome of the proceedings and that its joinder
was both necessary and inevitable. It also appeared before Wepener J at
the time that the order under appeal was made to make submissions and
protect its interests. One can ask rhetorically what it thought it was doing
there if indeed it had no interest in the outcome of the application and had
been improperly joined. Be that as it may, as the argument raises an
important issue of principle on which the guidance of this court is
desirable I shall deal with it.
[37] Joinder is called for whenever a party has a direct and substantial
interest in the outcome of litigation.48 On the facts of this case, as
contained in the founding affidavit, there was an overwhelming
probability that the grant of an eviction order would result in at least
some of the occupiers being rendered homeless. That allegation was
specifically made and not challenged. Once that was the case the grant of
an order would necessarily result in the City’s constitutional obligations
to such persons being engaged. Accordingly the availability of alternative
accommodation provided by the City was an important issue in the
proceedings. An eviction order could only be made on appropriate
conditions, which would necessarily include conditions relating to the
provision
of
temporary
emergency
accommodation.
In
those
circumstances the City manifestly had a direct and substantial interest in
the outcome of the litigation and had to be joined as a necessary party.
The City’s argument in regard to joinder was misconceived. It was not
joined in order to protect the interests of the occupiers but in order to
enable the court to discharge its functions in accordance with the
requirements of PIE.
[38] Whenever the circumstances alleged by an applicant for an eviction
order raise the possibility that the grant of that order may trigger
constitutional obligations on the part of a local authority to provide
emergency accommodation, the local authority will be a necessary party
48 Amalgamated Engineering Union v Minister of Labour 1949 (3) SA 637 (A) at 659; Standard Bank
of South Africa Ltd v Swartland Municipality & others 2011 (5) SA 257 (SCA) para 9; Blue Moonlight
CC para 44.
to the litigation and must be joined.49 Where the applicant is doubtful
about the position it would be a wise precaution for it to join the local
authority.50 That does not mean that the local authority will need to
become embroiled in every case in which an eviction order under PIE is
sought. The question in the first instance is always whether the
circumstances of the particular case are such as may (not must) trigger the
local authority’s constitutional obligations in regard to the provision of
housing or emergency accommodation. If they are, the need for the local
authority’s direct involvement as a litigant will depend upon its response
to those obligations. If, by way of example, it filed a report stating that it
had adequate emergency accommodation available for all and any
persons evicted from the premises and that the court could make an order
that it provide such accommodation to all evictees that might suffice
without more, subject to furnishing some details about the nature and
locality of the accommodation and the means by which the occupiers
could obtain access to it.
The local authority’s procedural obligations
[39] Much of the litigation around evictions has dealt with contentions
by various local authorities that they do not owe constitutional obligations
to provide emergency accommodation to persons evicted from their
existing homes and facing homelessness as a result. Contentions that they
were not obliged to provide emergency housing (Grootboom); alternative
land on a secure basis (Port Elizabeth Municipality); use their own funds
to provide emergency accommodation (Rand Properties); and provide
emergency accommodation to persons evicted at the instance of private
49 Occupiers of Erf 101, 102, 104 and 112, Shorts Retreat, Pietermaritzburg v Daisy Dear Investments
(Pty) Ltd & others, supra, para 11.
50 Such a joinder is a joinder of convenience that does not give rise to a misjoinder. Rosebank Mall
(Pty) Ltd & another v Cradock Heights (Pty) Ltd 2004 (2) SA 353 (W) para 11.
property owners (Blue Moonlight) have all been advanced and rejected by
this court and the Constitutional Court. Now that it is clearly established
that local authorities do owe constitutional obligations to persons evicted
from their homes who face homelessness as a result, it is appropriate to
set out their obligations to the court in proceedings of this type. I deal
only with cases where, on the principles set out above, they are joined in
the litigation and the applicant alleges that the circumstances of the
eviction are such that it may result in homelessness and engage their
constitutional obligations in regard to the provision of temporary
emergency accommodation.
[40] The general approach of local authorities, so far as it can be
discerned from the reported cases, has been to file with the court a
general report detailing its current housing policy without addressing the
facts of that particular case. That is inadequate. In addition to such a
report it must deal directly with the facts of the particular case. That
report must specify:
(a)
the information available to the local authority in regard to the
building or property in respect of which an eviction order is
sought, for example, whether it is known to be a ‘bad building’,
or is derelict, or has been the subject of inspection by municipal
officials and, if so, the result of their inspections. (It appears from
some of the reported cases, like the present one, that the local
authority has known of the condition of the building and
precipitated the application for eviction by demanding that
owners evict people or upgrade buildings for residential
purposes.) The municipality should indicate whether the
continued occupation of the building gives rise to health or safety
concerns and express an opinion on whether it is desirable in the
interests of the health and safety of the occupiers that they should
be living in such circumstances;
(b)
such information as the municipality has in regard to the
occupiers of the building or property, their approximate number
and personal circumstances (even if described in general terms,
as, for example, by saying that the majority appear to be
unemployed or make a living in informal trades), whether there
are children, elderly or disabled people living there and whether
there appear to be households headed by women;
(c)
whether in the considered view of the local authority an eviction
order is likely to result in all or any of the occupiers becoming
homeless;
(d)
if so what steps the local authority proposes to put in place to
address and alleviate such homelessness by way of the provision
of alternative land or emergency accommodation;
(e)
the implications for the owners of delay in evicting the occupiers;
(f)
details of all engagement it has had with the occupiers in regard
to their continued occupation of or removal from the property or
building;
(g)
whether it believes there is scope for a mediated process, whether
under s 7 of PIE or otherwise, to secure the departure of the
occupiers from the building and their relocation elsewhere and if
so on what terms and, if not, why not.
[41] Those requirements have been distilled from the various orders
made by the courts in cases of this type. Provided that this information is
furnished to the court at the outset it should enable the court to deal with
the application without much, if any, need for further investigation and
possibly without the further involvement of the local authority. I have no
wish to add to the burden of local authorities in these cases. However, the
additional burden should not be undue as they are in any event enjoined
by s 4(2) of PIE to file a report in all eviction proceedings. All that this
requires of them is, in certain cases, to amplify that report in order to
provide the court with the information it needs to decide whether to grant
an eviction order. The more comprehensive the report furnished by the
local authority at the outset the less likely that it will become embroiled
in lengthy and costly litigation, so that the additional effort at the outset
should diminish costs in the long run and enable eviction cases to be dealt
with expeditiously in the interests of all concerned.51 Where, in response
to that report, the applicant indicates that it intends to seek an order that
imposes duties upon the local authority it goes without saying that the
local authority must be furnished with the proposed order in sufficient
time to enable it to consider its terms, suggest amendments and if no
agreement is reached, to appear and make appropriate submissions to the
court on its terms.
The present case
[42] It remains to apply these principles in the present case, adapting
them appropriately to remedy the problems with the existing order. In that
regard it must be borne in mind that the court has already decided that the
grant of an eviction order against the occupiers is just and equitable and,
most importantly, the occupiers do not appeal against that decision. The
formulation of an appropriate order in the present case must therefore be
undertaken on the basis that the first enquiry is over and the court is only
concerned with the second enquiry into a just and equitable date for that
order to take effect and the conditions to be attached to that order. This
51 Blue Moonlight took some six years of litigation to resolve. Olivia Road took five years,
Skurweplaas over three years and Mooiplaats was referred back to the high court after three years of
litigation.
departs from the usual position outlined above where the court deals with
both enquiries in one hearing and issues a single order covering all the
issues in the case. We are, however, assisted in formulating the order by
the fact that the City now accepts – as it did not before Wepener J – that it
is under a ‘duty to assist people who face homelessness upon eviction,
through no fault of their own and which they can do nothing about’.52
That means that we are principally concerned to formulate the relief in
the most effective way in which to ensure that the City fulfils its
constitutional obligations. The focus must thus fall on the best way of
identifying the persons to whom the City owes those obligations and
ensuring that their needs are catered for.
[43] Counsel for the City furnished us in the course of argument with a
suggested order. That order was not acceptable to counsel for the
occupiers or to counsel for the amicus. After the hearing the latter
provided us with its proposed order adapting that suggested by the City.
Counsel for the occupiers submitted a further draft order, accepting the
proposals of the amicus, but adding orders in regard to costs and the
application to lead further evidence on appeal that will be dealt with at
the end of this judgment. We received submissions from the parties on
these proposed orders. As the occupiers adopted the suggestions by the
amicus as their own, subject to the additions I have mentioned, in what
follows I need only compare the proposals of the City and the amicus.
[44] Both orders proceeded on the footing that the sheriff should
prepare a schedule of information as contemplated in paragraph 2 of the
order, although the amicus expressed reservations about this and said that
it should be for the City to do this. The City’s proposal would have
52 The concession is taken from counsel’s supplementary submissions on the terms of the order.
required the sheriff, whilst preparing the schedule of information, to serve
a notice on the occupiers informing them that if they required emergency
accommodation as a result of their eviction they should apply to one of
the City’s ESP Centres, which deal with emergency accommodation,
together with certain documents and that the City should be obliged to
provide such accommodation to those whom it determined qualified for
it. In the City’s submissions it asked that this notice be amplified by a
requirement that anyone seeking such accommodation should telephone
the ESP centre in question ‘to arrange a date and time when they are to
report and apply’. It was said that this would ensure that such applications
would be dealt with in an orderly manner and expeditiously.
[45] The occupiers and the amicus submitted that it is for the court to
determine the obligations of the City to potential evictees and not the City
itself. The draft order of the amicus accordingly provided for the City to
consider, evaluate and assess all applications for temporary emergency
accommodation made to it by potential evictees and to submit a report to
the court giving details of who was to be provided with accommodation,
the nature and location of that accommodation and the date by which it
would be provided. In addition the report had to deal with all applications
for accommodation refused by the City and the reasons for that refusal.
The amicus altered the terms of the notice that the City suggested should
be served on the occupiers, most importantly by making it clear that
applications for accommodation could be made even if a person lacked
the documents required by the City; inserting contact details of people at
the ESP centres and recording that the city would be obliged to report to
the court on the outcome of applications for accommodation and details
of the accommodation tendered by it. In line with its suggested order the
suggested amended notice referred to the City lodging a report with the
court.
Procuring information regarding the occupiers
[46] I agree with all parties that the court needs to have information
about the needs of the occupiers in relation to temporary emergency
accommodation. For the reasons set out in paragraph 8 of this judgment,
the order that the sheriff prepare a ‘matrix’ of information in regard to the
occupiers was not proper and is ineffective. It cannot be used to provide a
foundation for the order that must issue in place of that granted by the
high court. Counsel for the amicus expressed reservations about the
sheriff fulfilling this role and I understood him to suggest that it is
desirable for the City to be required to obtain and place that information
before the court. I disagree. The City is in no better position than the
sheriff to obtain the suggested information from the occupiers and faces
precisely the same difficulties in endeavouring to do so as would the
sheriff. It has no right in law to demand that information from the
occupiers and the court cannot confer that right upon it by requiring it to
provide the information to the court. An order that it do so is ineffective
or, to use the traditional expression, a brutum fulmen. I note that the court
of first instance in Blue Moonlight made such an order and the City was
unable to comply with it.53
[47] In considering the grant of an eviction order the court is concerned
with the plight of those who, as a result of poverty and disadvantage, are
unable to make alternative accommodation arrangements themselves and
require assistance from the local authority to do so. It is particularly
concerned to ensure, so far as possible, that those who face homelessness
53 Blue Moonlight CC, para 6, fn 9.
are provided at least with temporary emergency accommodation. The
ancillary orders attaching to an eviction order will not affect those who
are able to find a roof for their heads and a place of shelter without
assistance, nor those who for reasons of their own, such as an
unwillingness to have any involvement with a public authority, will not
seek assistance, even if it means nights spent on the streets. The central
task is therefore to identify those who require assistance from the local
authority. What the City needs to know is who requires temporary
emergency accommodation and the nature of their needs, for example,
whether dormitory accommodation would suffice or whether a flat of
some sort is required for a family with children or whether an aged or
disabled person has some special needs. The question is how this
information can most quickly and efficiently be communicated to the City
so that it can formulate an appropriate plan to address the needs of these
people.
[48] In the present case the answer, at this stage of the proceedings, is
relatively straightforward. The Legal Resources Centre (the LRC), a
public interest law firm with a lengthy and honourable record in cases of
this type is now on record as representing all of the occupiers, not merely
the 97 who were identified as respondents in the list annexed to the notice
of motion. Its director has deposed to an affidavit saying that it represents
the occupiers generally and counsel appeared at the application for leave
to appeal and before this court on the basis that they represented all of the
occupiers. Accordingly, the easiest way to obtain the necessary
information and furnish it to the City is by the LRC preparing a list of
those of its clients who require temporary emergency accommodation,
with details of their names, ages, family circumstances, sources of
income and having annexed to it appropriate proof of identity. The list
and its details must be verified by an affidavit of information and belief
and if possible by affidavits by the individuals concerned. There seems to
be no reason why that list should not be furnished within one month of
the date of this court’s order. In cases where the occupiers have legal
representation this will ordinarily be the most effective way in which to
proceed. Where they are not represented, courts may consider issuing a
rule nisi and causing it to be served on the occupiers (and if it is not
present, the local authority), together with a suitably worded notice
explaining the right to temporary emergency accommodation; how they
can access such accommodation and inviting them to come to court to
express their views on that issue at least.
The City’s obligations
[49] The next issue relates to the City’s obligations in respect of the
occupiers identified by the LRC. The argument before us claimed an
entitlement on the part of the City to determine whether the persons
seeking temporary emergency accommodation were entitled thereto
before providing such accommodation. It was for this reason submitted
that persons requiring that assistance should apply to one of the City’s
ESP centres, for their situation to be assessed and the City to decide
whether to afford them the accommodation they seek.
[50] I do not think that the approach of the City, that the affected people
must approach one of its ESP Centres for assistance and follow
conventional procedures thereafter, is either correct or desirable. Its
immediate disadvantage is that it sets in train a bureaucratic process that
will inevitably involve delay and probably spawn further disputes and
litigation. An example of that arose when the City advanced the
contention in its heads of argument that it owed no obligation to provide
temporary emergency housing to non-citizens. That provoked a response
from both the representative of the occupiers and the amicus. In argument
the City retreated somewhat from this stance and instead contended that it
was not obliged to provide such accommodation to illegal immigrants.
This contention was repeated in its submissions on the draft order. One
can at once foresee, therefore, that disputes are likely to arise on this
issue, bearing in mind that a large proportion of the occupiers appear to
be foreign citizens and may well be in this country illegally. The
procedure the City proposed was clearly directed at weeding out those
who in its view would not qualify for such assistance on grounds of
income, need, ability to find accommodation elsewhere and the like. All
of this is conducive to delay in a case where there is no challenge to the
proposition that an eviction order is just and equitable, subject to
determining a just and equitable date and suitable conditions concerning
alternative accommodation.
[51] The City’s stance is what prompted the amicus, in its draft order, to
submit that the City should ‘consider, evaluate and assess’ each occupier
who applied for assistance and report to the court on, inter alia, its reason
for rejecting those to whom it did not propose to provide accommodation.
There was then provision for the rejected occupiers to approach the court
to secure their inclusion and for the occupiers generally to challenge the
suitability of the accommodation being tendered by the City. The picture
is one of move and counter-move with fresh fronts being opened
constantly in a war of attrition between the City and the occupiers.
[52] Both approaches overlook the fact that the court is dealing with a
situation in which people are living in a ‘death trap’. Their situation is
one of dire need. They should not be required to continue living in such
circumstances, which pose a health and personal safety danger, any
longer than is strictly necessary to enable the City to discharge its
constitutional obligations to them. The question then is how to achieve
this as a matter of some urgency. Unfortunately, none of the orders
submitted by the parties addressed the matter from that perspective. The
City wishes to follow its established procedures and exclude those whom
it believes are not entitled to temporary emergency accommodation. The
response is one that foreshadows disputes in some cases over a variety of
issues leading to further litigation and inevitable delay. In the meantime
the occupiers will continue to live in squalid and unsafe conditions and
Changing Tides will be prevented from obtaining access to its property.
Resolution of the former situation is extremely urgent and Changing
Tides should not be unnecessarily compelled to endure further delays
over which it has no control.
[53] I accept that the City is entitled to review the claim of any person
seeking temporary emergency accommodation as a result of an eviction.
However, the relevant question, in cases of eviction creating an
emergency, is whether the appropriate time to do that is before that
person obtains such accommodation or afterwards. Where the facts point
to the desirability of the eviction being effected as rapidly as possible,
because the circumstances in which the occupiers are living pose a risk to
life and health, the only answer must be that the review process should
defer to the need for eviction and accordingly take place after the City has
provided the evictees with temporary emergency accommodation. This
gives rise to the possibility – not likely to be great – that some people not
entitled thereto may obtain temporary access to temporary emergency
accommodation, until their disqualification is discovered. However, that
is preferable to a large number of people who undoubtedly are entitled to
such accommodation being kept out of it and forced to live in unhealthy
and potentially life threatening surroundings for longer than necessary,
while the City weeds out the few who are not entitled to this benefit. That
is especially so as it seems probable that any adverse decision by the City
on an individual’s right to temporary emergency accommodation may be
subject to legal challenge.
[54] Infusing grace and compassion into the process of eviction does
not mean that an eviction should be postponed for as long as possible, but
may mean that it should take place expeditiously. If delayed the property
owner bears the burden of not having access to its property whilst the
authority responsible for attending to the housing needs of the persons in
unlawful occupation of the premises postpones the discharge of its
obligations. Where, as here, the occupiers are living in conditions of the
utmost squalor at the risk of their lives and health, the court should be
concerned that the process is expedited so that they are moved away from
that situation as soon as possible. It is noteworthy that local authorities
are vested with statutory powers under other legislation to address
situations such as these.54 However, the City’s report to the high court
says that, since the judgment of this court in Rand Properties, the City no
longer makes use of this provision to remove occupiers from unsafe and
squalid buildings. That suggests that the City is no longer engaged
directly in addressing this problem. What it does, as this case and Blue
Moonlight demonstrate, is give notice to building owners under the
relevant by-laws to remedy conditions in the buildings concerned, thereby
prompting applications for eviction brought by the building owner. That
is less than satisfactory. The City needs to be actively engaged in
addressing the situation where people are living in squalid conditions
54 Section 12(4)(b) of the National Building Regulations and Building Standards Act 103 of 1977.
such as these and should be as concerned as the owner and the occupiers
to resolve that situation as soon as possible. The legal representatives of
the parties must also be mindful that what is being sought is a solution to
a social problem and conduct the litigation with that in mind.
[55] Not every eviction case will generate the same concerns regarding
the disposal of the case and judges in the high court will need to assess
whether the case before them is one which demands urgent disposal in the
interests of the health and safety of the occupiers. In the present case the
position is clear. The eviction should be effected with the minimum delay
compatible with the rights and human dignity of the occupiers and the
need
to
provide
many
of
them
with
temporary
emergency
accommodation.
[56] Accordingly it is appropriate to require the City on receipt of the
list of occupiers requiring temporary emergency accommodation from the
LRC, to report to the court, within one month of receipt of the list, setting
out the accommodation that it will make available to all of those
occupiers and when such accommodation will be available. That
accommodation must be in a location as near as feasibly possible to the
area where Tikwelo House is situated. The report must be supported by
an affidavit from an appropriate official in the employ of the City
verifying its contents and contain an undertaking that the City will
provide the occupiers with accommodation in accordance therewith. It
must deal specifically with the issue of proximity and explain why the
particular location or locations of the accommodation have been selected.
It must also set out the steps taken during the two months before it needs
to be filed to engage with the occupiers through the LRC or any other
means that may appear appropriate.
The response by the occupiers
[57] Once the City has delivered its report the occupiers should be given
a period of one month to consider its contents. If in any respect they are
not satisfied with the accommodation tendered, or any other aspect of the
proposed provision of temporary emergency accommodation, they must
deliver affidavits within that period setting out their difficulties, the
reasons therefor and what they contend is necessary in order to resolve
those difficulties. The City can deliver such affidavits in response as it
may be advised to file. A time of two weeks for that purpose should be
adequate.
The remittal to the high court
[58] After the elapse of these time periods the application must be set
down for hearing on the opposed roll. At the resumed hearing the court
will consider the adequacy of the temporary emergency accommodation
to be provided by the City and any objections from the occupiers. It will
also determine the date upon which the eviction order is to take effect, the
terms upon which the City is to provide temporary emergency
accommodation to all those occupiers identified by the LRC as requiring
it, and any other conditions that will attach to the eviction order.
Obviously it is impossible for us to foresee and make provision for every
eventuality that may arise in the process set in train by this court’s order.
It will be for the high court to deal with these as it deems appropriate
having regard to the need for an urgent resolution of this case in the
interests of all concerned.
Further evidence on appeal
[59] Before formulating the order to be made in this appeal it is
necessary to resolve the issues arising from an application lodged on
9 March 2012 by the LRC, on behalf of the second to 98th respondents
and the occupiers generally, to lead further evidence on appeal by way of
the introduction of what were said to be ‘their individual affidavits
detailing their personal circumstances’ as well as certain expert evidence.
An order was also sought:
‘Remitting the application to the High Court for a fresh determination of the question
whether the eviction of the Second to Ninety Eighth respondents would be just and
equitable.’
Although that does not appear from the notice of motion, the Director of
the LRC said in her affidavit that this was only sought in the alternative to
the admission of the affidavits.
[60] Both the City and Changing Tides opposed this application.
However, they did so under a misapprehension as to its purpose. The
deponent to the City’s affidavit said that by seeking the admission of this
evidence the deponents were trying to place reliance on their personal
circumstances as a defence to the eviction order. That was also the thrust
of the heads of argument filed by the City in respect of this issue.
However, that was not the purpose of the application. The proposed
evidence was directed at supporting the order made by the court below in
regard to the provision of emergency housing for those who were subject
to eviction in terms of the unchallenged eviction order granted by the
high court. It was only in the event of it not being admitted that it was
submitted that the application should be remitted to the high court to
reconsider the eviction order.
[61] Fresh evidence on appeal is only admitted sparingly. The applicant
must give a reasonable explanation for the failure to tender the evidence
at first instance; the evidence must be credible and materially relevant to
or decisive of the outcome of the proceedings.55 The explanation for the
occupiers not having been represented before the high court is
unsatisfactory. In addition, of the 57 affidavits tendered only ten are
identifiable as being deposed to by the 97 named respondents and one is
by the partner of a named respondent. One or two of the remainder are
possibly by respondents – for example there is one respondent who is
identified solely as ‘Moeketsi’ and four of the deponents bear that name –
but that is of little assistance. It does not appear to have been appreciated
that what was being tendered might only be a partial picture and there
was accordingly no endeavour to inform the court of how many people
would be involved in any eviction and how many of them would indeed
need temporary emergency accommodation.
[62] The affidavits were unsatisfactory in other respects. For example
two of the deponents stated that they had alternative accommodation if
evicted. In addition, the affidavits are standard in form, scanty in detail
and say little more than any court – including the high court in this case –
would already know, namely that almost all people living in the
circumstances described at the outset of this judgment are desperately
poor and live in a building such as Tikwelo House only because the
alternatives are worse and almost certainly involve homelessness for
many of them. Hence the affidavits will not be conclusive of the issues in
this case. The application for their admission should be refused.
55 De Aguiar v Real People Housing (Pty) Ltd 2011 (1) SA 16 (SCA) paras 9 to 12.
[63] The City sought an order that the costs of the application be paid de
bonis propriis by the LRC. Whilst I agree that the application was
misconceived and sloppily prepared, without any clear view of its
purpose, one must bear in mind the difficulties facing public interest law
firms that on a daily basis face demands for legal representation as a
matter of urgency from unsophisticated people facing great personal
hardship. In addition costs should only be ordered against legal
practitioners in cases of flagrant disregard of their duties, causing undue
and unnecessary expense to the other party. In the present case I do not
think that the failings on the part of the LRC justify an order against it.
Costs and the order
[64] It was submitted on behalf of the City that it had been compelled to
come to this court to set aside the order sought by Changing Tides over
its opposition. In those circumstances it was contended that Changing
Tides should pay the City’s costs on appeal. I do not agree. In many
respects Changing Tides is a reluctant participant in these proceedings.
Clearly it brought the eviction proceedings when it did as a result of the
City serving notice on it to remedy the condition of the building and
effectively make it habitable for the occupiers. The amended order was
sought in the light of this court’s decision in Blue Moonlight. It was
opposed by the City on the basis of the untenable proposition that the
judge should disregard this court’s order because of the pending appeal to
the Constitutional Court. It is true that it added that there was no evidence
before the court, but in part that was due to its own failure to provide any
information germane to the particular circumstances of this case. No
doubt that was because of its stance in the Blue Moonlight litigation, but
that stance was incorrect. The challenge to the order to provide temporary
emergency accommodation is likely, if one examines the facts, to result
in little effective change to the order that Wepener J granted. In those
circumstances it is appropriate to order each party to pay its or their own
costs in the appeal. The costs of the application will be dealt with by the
high court on the remittal.
[65] The following order is made:
1 The appeal is upheld and each party is ordered to pay its or their
own costs of appeal.
2 Paragraph 2 of the order of the high court is declared to be legally
ineffective.
3 Paragraphs 3 and 4 of the high court’s order are set aside.
4 The application for eviction is remitted to the high court in order
for it to determine the date upon which all of the occupiers of
Tikwelo House are to be evicted from that building, the terms upon
which the City is to provide temporary emergency accommodation
to the persons referred to in paragraph 5(b) below of this order, any
other conditions attaching to that eviction order and the costs of the
application.
5 The remittal is subject to the following further orders:
(a)
The attorneys for the occupiers, the Legal Resources Centre
(the LRC), are directed on or before 30 September 2012 to furnish
the attorneys for the City of Johannesburg with a list of those of its
clients who, as a result of their eviction from Tikwelo House, will
require temporary emergency accommodation, together with their
names, ages, family circumstances, sources of income and
appropriate proof of identity. The list and those details shall be
confirmed by an affidavit of information and belief from a
representative of the LRC and where possible by affidavits from
the occupiers referred to therein.
(b)
It is declared that the City of Johannesburg is obliged to
provide all of the persons whose names appear on that list with
temporary emergency accommodation by no later than two weeks
prior to the date of the eviction order to be determined by the high
court.
(c) The City of Johannesburg is directed, by no later than
31 October 2012, to deliver a report to the high court, confirmed on
affidavit by an appropriate official of the City, detailing the
accommodation that it will make available to the occupiers and
when such accommodation will be available and containing an
undertaking to make that accommodation available. That
accommodation must be in a location as near as feasibly possible to
the area where Tikwelo House is situated and the report must
specifically deal with the issue of proximity and explain why the
particular location and form of accommodation has been selected.
It must also set out the steps taken during the two months before
the report is filed to engage with the occupiers through the LRC or
any other means that may appear appropriate.
(d) The occupiers are entitled by no later than 30 November 2012
to deliver affidavits dealing with the contents of the City’s report
and specifying any objections thereto and the City is entitled within
two weeks thereafter to deliver such further affidavits as it deems
appropriate.
(e)
The application must then be set down on the opposed roll
for hearing. If at any stage there is non-compliance with the
provisions of this order, Changing Tides (Pty) Ltd is authorised to
set the matter down for hearing for appropriate relief.
M J D WALLIS
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
J Both SC (with him A W Pullinger)
Instructed by:
Kunene
Ramapala
Botha
Law
Firm,
Johannesburg
Claude Reid Inc, Bloemfontein
For first respondent:
Reg Willis (with him N A Mohonane)
Instructed by: Esthe Muller Attorneys
Johannesburg
Kramer Weihmann & Joubert Inc.
Bloemfontein.
For 2nd to 97th respondents:
T Ngcukakaitobi (with him Z Gumede)
Instructed by: Legal Resources Centre
Johannesburg.
Webbers, Bloemfontein.
For Amicus Curiae
S Wilson (with him I de Vos)
SERI Law Clinic, Johannesburg.
Naudes, Bloemfontein. | Supreme Court of Appeal of South Africa
MEDIA SUMMARY– JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date: 17 September 2012
Status: Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does
not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
City of Johannesburg v Changing Tides 74 (Pty) Ltd and 97 others
(The Socio-Economic Rights Institute of South Africa intervening as
amicus curiae)
This appeal arose from an application for the eviction of the
occupiers of a commercial building called Tikwelo House in
Doornfontein, Johannesburg. The building had been ‘hijacked’ and was
no longer under the control of its owner. It was unfit for human habitation
and was occupied by people, who were extremely poor. An order for their
eviction had been granted by the South Gauteng High Court, at the
instance of the owner, in an unopposed application. The SCA, in a
judgment delivered last Friday, remitted the case to the high court,
because the original order had been granted without the court having all
the relevant facts before it. Accordingly all parties to the appeal agreed
that the original order had to be set aside and the case remitted to the high
court on terms in regard to the investigations to be conducted and the
evidence to be obtained before fixing a date for the eviction order to be
granted.
The issues in the appeal revolved around the obligations of the
Johannesburg
Municipality
to
provided
alternative
emergency
accommodation for those who were facing eviction from the building.
The court dealt with the obligations of all parties to litigation of this kind,
setting out the information that had to be provided to the court hearing
applications of this type and dealing with a number of important
procedural issues to be followed in eviction proceedings. It stressed the
need for expedition in cases where the occupiers were living in unhealthy
and unsafe circumstances. The judgment builds upon previous
jurisprudence in the SCA and the Constitutional Court in regard to the
right to housing. |
94 | non-electoral | 2017 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 402/2017
In the matter between:
MTHANDAZO BERNING NTLEMEZA
APPELLANT
and
HELEN SUZMAN FOUNDATION
FIRST RESPONDENT
FREEDOM UNDER LAW
SECOND RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Ntlemeza v Helen Suzman Foundation [2017] ZASCA 93
(9 June 2017)
Coram:
Navsa, Ponnan, Majiedt, Dambuza, Mathopo JJA
Heard:
2 June 2017
Delivered:
9 June 2017
Summary:
Application in terms of s 18 of the Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013 for
execution order pending finalisation of an appeal process: whether refusal of an
application for leave to appeal stultifies application for leave to execute
notwithstanding that a further application for leave to appeal to next highest court
envisaged: whether applicant for execution order proved existence of exceptional
circumstances as contemplated in s 18(1): whether respondent, in terms of s 18(3),
proved on balance of probabilities that it will suffer irreparable harm in the event of
the execution order not being granted and that the appellant would not: provisions of
s 18(4) discussed: requirement that court must „immediately record‟ its reasons for
granting execution order: meaning of „next highest court‟ not entirely clear: whether
two parallel appeal processes in the same appeal court in the same case desirable.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
_______________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Mabuse, Kollapen
and Baqwa JJ sitting as court of first instance):
1 The appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.
2 The appellant is ordered to pay the costs personally.
_________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
_________________________________________________________________
Navsa JA (Ponnan, Majiedt, Dambuza, Mathopo JJA concurring):
[1] This appeal is concerned with whether the appellant, Lieutenant-General
Mthandazo Berning Ntlemeza (General Ntlemeza), ought to be permitted to continue
in his post as National Head of the Directorate for Priority Crime Investigations
(DPCI), pending the finalisation of an application for leave to appeal filed in this
court. It might appear strange and perhaps even confusing that there are two parallel
processes being conducted in an appeal court in one case, but that is on account of
the provisions of s 18 of the Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013, which gives an
aggrieved party an automatic right of appeal „to the next highest court‟ against a
decision of the high court ordering the execution of an earlier ruling issued by it,
pending the finalization of an appeal or an application for leave to appeal. The
background culminating in the present appeal appears hereafter.
[2] General Ntlemeza was appointed National Head of the DPCI on 10
September 2015 by the erstwhile Minister of Police, Mr Nkosinathi Phiwayinkosi
Thamsanqa Nhleko.1 Before his aforesaid permanent appointment, General
Ntlemeza had served as acting National Head of the DPCI2 for a period of
approximately one year.
1 Minister Nhleko was subsequently removed from that position by the President of South Africa and
appointed as Minister of Public Works. He was succeeded by the present Minister of Police, Mr Fikile
Mbalula.
2 From December 2014 to September 2015.
[3] At this early stage it is necessary to locate the DPCI in its constitutional and
statutory setting. The South African Police Service Act 68 of 1995 (the Act), in terms
of which the DPCI was established, has its genesis in s 205 of the Constitution,
which provides that the National Police Service must be structured to function in the
national, provincial and, where appropriate, local spheres of government. Section
205(2) of the Constitution provides:
„(2)
National legislation must establish the powers and functions of the police
service and must enable the police service to discharge its responsibilities effectively, taking
into account the requirements of the provinces.‟
Section 205(3) sets out the objects of the Police Service, which are to prevent,
combat and investigate crime, to maintain public order, to protect and secure the
inhabitants of our country and their property and to uphold and enforce the law. The
political responsibility for the South African Police Service, in terms of s 206 of the
Constitution, vests in the Minister of Police. Moreover, the Minister is, in terms of that
section, responsible for determining the national policing policy.
[4] The DPCI was established in terms of s 17C of the Act, which is in part the
legislation contemplated by the Constitution. The material part of s 17C reads as
follows:
„(1) The Directorate for Priority Crime Investigation is hereby established as a Directorate in
the Service.
(1A) The Directorate comprises –
(a) the Office of the National Head of the Directorate at national level; and
(b) the Office of the Provincial Directorate in each province.
(2) The Directorate consists of –
(a) the National Head of the Directorate at national level, who shall manage and direct
the Directorate and who shall be appointed by the Minister in concurrence with
Cabinet;
….
For present purposes, we need not concern ourselves with the other personnel that
comprise the directorate. The DPCI‟s functions are set out as follows in s 17D of the
Act:
„(1) The functions of the Directorate are to prevent, combat and investigate –
(a) national priority offences, which in the opinion of the National Head of the
Directorate need to be addressed by the Directorate . . .
(aA) selected offences not limited to offences referred to in Chapter 2 and section 34
of the Prevention and Combatting of Corrupt Activities Act 12 of 2004…‟
As can be seen from all of the above, the National Head of the DPCI occupies a
pivotal position within the statutory scheme.
[5] General Ntlemeza‟s appointment as National Head of the DPCI by Minister
Nhleko was purportedly effected in terms of s 17CA(1) of the Act, read with
s 17C(2)(a). Section 17 CA(1) reads:
„(1) The Minister, with the concurrence of Cabinet, shall appoint a person who is –
(a) a South African citizen; and
(b) a fit and proper person,
with due regard to his or her experience, conscientiousness and integrity, to be entrusted
with the responsibilities of the office concerned, as the National Head of the Directorate for a
non-renewable fixed terms of not shorter than seven years and not exceeding 10 years.‟
(My emphasis.)
[6] During March 2016 General Ntlemeza‟s appointment was challenged in the
Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria, by the first and second respondents,
the Helen Suzman Foundation (HSF) and Freedom Under Law NPC (FUL),
respectively. Both HSF and FUL are non-profit organisations concerned with
promoting constitutional values and the rule of law. The application to review and set
aside General Ntlemeza‟s appointment was brought in their own and the national
interest.
[7] In its application, HSF and FUL noted that the DPCI is a premier law
enforcement agency, integral to the battle against corruption and maladministration,
which is why the Act requires the National Head to be a person of integrity. They
contended that in appointing General Ntlemeza to that high office, Minister Nhleko
acted irrationally and unlawfully and failed to fulfill his constitutional duty to protect
the integrity and independence of the DPCI. The principal ground of review was that
Minister Nhleko had not taken into account materially relevant considerations, more
particularly, he failed to have proper regard to a judgment of the High Court, by
Matojane J, in an earlier case in which General Ntlemeza‟s integrity was called into
question. The case was Sibiya v Minister of Police & others (GP) unreported case no
5203/15 (20 February 2015).
[8] Sibiya concerned the legality of General Ntlemeza‟s suspension of Major
General Shadrack Sibiya, a Provincial Head of the DPCI, and the appointment, in his
stead, of General Elias Dlamini, as acting Provincial Head of the DPCI. General
Ntlemeza had accused General Sibiya of being involved in the illegal rendition of
certain Zimbabwean citizens. In deciding the matter, Matojane J made adverse
findings against General Ntlemeza. He stated that the decision to suspend General
Sibiya „was taken in bad faith and for reasons other than those given. It [was]
arbitrary and not rationally connected to the purpose for which it was taken and
accordingly, it [was] unlawful as it violate[d] applicant‟s constitutional right to an
administrative action that is lawful, reasonable and procedurally fair‟. Matojane J
went on to make the following order:
„1. It is declared that the Notice to Suspension served on the applicant on 20 January
2015 is unlawful, unconstitutional and invalid; and
2. It is declared that the appointment of Major-General Elias Dlamini as the acting
Provincial Head of DPCI Gauteng is unlawful, unconstitutional and invalid.
3. [The Office of the National Head Directorate for Priority Crime Investigations:
Acting Nationals Head-Major General Berning Ntlemeza] is ordered to pay the costs of the
applicant, which will include the costs of a senior and junior counsel.‟
[9] Aggrieved, General Ntlemeza filed an application for leave to appeal but did
not hasten to have it set down for hearing. Thereafter, General Sibiya filed an
application under s 18 of the Superior Courts Act, seeking leave to execute the
declaratory order referred to above. Matojane J, in his judgment dealing with the
application for leave to appeal by General Ntlemeza and the application to execute
by General Sibiya, had regard to correspondence sent to his registrar on behalf of
General Ntlemeza, suggesting that he (Matojane J) had acted improperly in privately
engaging with General Sibiya‟s legal representatives. Similar remarks were made in
General Ntlemeza‟s affidavit filed in opposition to the application to execute, brought
by HSF and FUL. In his assessment of the merits of the two applications, Matojane J
once again made remarks calling into question General Ntlemeza‟s integrity. He
accused General Ntlemeza of misleading the court by not informing it of a report by
the National Independent Police Directorate which exonerated General Sibiya.
According to Matojane J, General Ntlemeza referred only to a prior report by the
Provincial Independent Police Directorate, which incriminated General Sibiya. He
went on to say: „In my view, the conduct of [General Ntlemeza] shows that he is
biased and dishonest. To further show that [General Ntlemeza was] dishonest and
lack[ed] integrity and honour, he made false statements under oath‟.
[10] Matojane J, in dealing with exceptional circumstances, which, as will be seen
later, need to be established before an execution order can be granted, said the
following:
„On the question whether exceptional circumstances exist [General Ntlemeza‟s]
contemptuous attitude towards the rule of law and the principle of legality and transparency
makes this case unique and exceptional.‟
[11] Matojane J dismissed the application for leave to appeal and granted the
application to execute. He ruled that the order he had issued, set out in para 8
above, „shall operate and be executed in full until the final determination of all
present and future appeals . . . The order will operate and be executed despite the
delivery of any present or future applications for leave to appeal . . . and any noting
of any appeal by any party‟. The court stated that there was no need for General
Sibiya to furnish security for the execution of the order.
[12] A full court (the high court) comprising three judges (Mabuse, Kollapen and
Baqwa JJ) probably because of the national importance of the case, was constituted
to hear the review application brought by HSF and FUL to have General Ntlemeza‟s
appointment set aside. As Part A of that application, HSF and FUL sought an interim
interdict preventing General Ntlemeza from exercising any power or discharging any
function or duty as head of the DPCI, pending the final determination of the review
application. The application for interim relief was dismissed by Tuchten J, whose
judgment featured in the decision by the high court and in argument before us. It is
an aspect to which I shall revert. A judgment by the high court in the review
application (Mabuse J, with the other two judges concurring) was delivered on
17 March 2017.
[13] The high court held in favour of HSF and FUL. It reasoned as set out in this
and the following two paragraphs. Section 17CA, referred to in para 5 above,
requires an appointee as National Head of the DPCI to be a fit and proper person
who is also conscientious and has integrity. The high court had regard to the
decision of the Constitutional Court in Democratic Alliance v President of the
Republic of South Africa & others [2012] ZACC 24; 2013 (1) SA 248 (CC) (the
Simelane judgment), which involved the appointment of Mr Menzi Simelane as
National Prosecuting Authority Head, and held that the Minister, like the President,
had an obligation to ensure that there were no disqualifying factors impinging on the
appointment of an individual as the Head of an important national constitutional
institution.
[14] The high court found that the criteria set by the relevant provisions of the Act
were objective and constituted essential jurisdictional facts on which General
Ntlemeza‟s appointment had to be predicated. Mabuse J, with reference to the
Simelane judgment, said the following (para 33):
„In the Simelane case, the Constitutional Court accepted the approach of the
Supreme Court of Appeal. In paragraph [14] of the said case this is what the Constitutional
Court had to say:
“The Supreme Court of Appeal concluded that the President‟s decision was irrational
irrespective of whether the decision taken by the President was subjective or whether the
criteria for appointment of the National Director were objective. It nevertheless concluded, for
the purpose of giving guidance, that the requirement that the National Director must be a fit
and proper person constituted a jurisdictional fact capable of objective ascertainment.”
Accordingly, even where the relevant decision maker has, in terms of the law, a discretion
relating to the person to be appointed, the person who is ultimately appointed must be a fit
and proper person in the eyes of the Minister:
“Second, and as the Supreme Court of Appeal correctly points out, the Act itself does not
say that the candidate for appointment as National Director should be fit and proper „in the
President‟s view‟. The Legislature could easily have done so if the purpose was to leave it in
the complete discretion of the President. Crucially, as the Supreme Court of Appeal again
pointed out, the section „is couched in imperative terms. The appointee “must” be a fit and
proper person”‟.
[15] The high court considered the judicial pronouncements by Matojane J referred
to above, that reflected negatively on General Ntlemeza, to be crucial in the
assessment of whether the criteria set by s 17CA of the Act had been satisfied for
the appointment of General Ntlemeza. Mabuse J had regard to Minister Nhleko‟s
affidavit filed in opposition to the application by HSF and FUL challenging General
Ntlemeza‟s appointment, in which he stated that he had been aware of the remarks
made in the judgments but took the view that they could be discounted. The high
court held that the Minister was not entitled to ignore Matojane J‟s findings
concerning General Ntlemeza‟s lack of honesty and integrity. It found that it was for
the Minister to determine positively from the objective facts whether General
Ntlemeza was a fit and proper person. It reasoned that Minister Nhleko failed to do
so. In that regard it stated, at para 37 of its judgment:
„The judicial pronouncements made in both the main judgment and the judgment in
the application for leave to appeal are directly relevant to and in fact dispositive of the
question whether Major General Ntlemeza was fit and proper if one considers his
conscientiousness and integrity. Absent these requirements Lieutenant General Ntlemeza is
disqualified from being appointed the National Head of the DPCI.‟
The court concluded that Minister Nhleko failed to take into account relevant factors
such as the findings by Matojane J, and thus acted irrationally and unlawfully. It
made the following order:
„1. The decision of the Minister of 10 September 2015 in terms of which Major
General Ntlemeza was appointed the National Head of the Directorate of Priority Crimes
Investigations is hereby reviewed and set aside.
2. The first and second respondents, in their official capacities, are hereby ordered to
pay the applicant‟s costs, including the costs consequent upon the employment of two
counsel, the one paying the other to be absolved.‟
[16] Subsequently, General Ntlemeza applied to the high court for leave to appeal
that order (the principal order). HSF and FUL, in turn, filed a „counter-application‟, in
terms of which they sought, inter alia, as a matter of urgency, a declarator that the
operation and execution of the principal order not be suspended by virtue of any
application for leave to appeal or any appeal. That court dismissed General
Ntlemeza‟s application for leave to appeal, upheld the counter-application and made
an order in the following terms:
„…
2. The operation and execution of the order granted by this court under case no.
23199/16 on 17 March 2017 is not suspended and will continue to be operational and
executed in full whether or not there are any applications for leave to appeal and appeals or
whether or not there is any petition for leave to appeal against the said order.
3. The second respondent in the counter-application is hereby ordered to pay the
costs of this counter-application.‟
It is against that order (the execution order) and the conclusions on which it was
based, that the present appeal, in terms of s 18 of the Superior Courts Act, is
directed. Since s 18(4)(ii) gives a person against whom an execution order was
granted an automatic right of appeal, it was not necessary for leave to appeal to
have been sought.
[17] In heads of argument filed in this court and at the outset of oral argument
before us, counsel on behalf of General Ntlemeza relied on a jurisdictional point
which they submitted, was dispositive of the appeal. The proposition was framed as
follows:
In terms of s 18(1), a pending decision on an application for leave to appeal or an
appeal was a jurisdictional requirement before a court considering an application to
enforce an order was empowered to make an execution order of the kind set out in
the preceding paragraph. It was contended that sequentially the application for leave
to appeal by General Ntlemeza had been refused before FUL‟s counter-application
was upheld and thus the high court was precluded from considering HSF and FUL‟s
counter-application, because the jurisdictional fact of a pending decision in relation to
an appeal or an application for leave to appeal was absent.
[18] It is necessary to consider whether that contention is well-founded. To that
end, I propose to first consider the position at common law in relation to such
applications before the enactment of s 18 of the Superior Courts Act. In the event of
it being held that the preliminary point is without substance, I propose to deal with
the further provisions of s 18 to determine whether HSF and FUL satisfied its
requirements thereby justifying the grant of the execution order.
[19] This court, in South Cape Corporation (Pty) Ltd v Engineering Management
Services (Pty) 1977 (3) SA 534 (A) at 544H-545G, set out the common law position
as follows:
„Whatever the true position may have been in the Dutch Courts, and more particularly
the Court of Holland . . . it is today the accepted common law rule of practice . . . that
generally the execution of a judgment is automatically suspended upon the noting of an
appeal, with the result that, pending the appeal, the judgment cannot be carried out and no
effect can be given thereto, except with the leave of the court which granted the judgment.
To obtain such leave the party in whose favour the judgment was given must make special
application . . . The purpose of this rule as to the suspension of a judgment on the noting of
an appeal is to prevent irreparable damage from being done to the intending appellant,
either by levy under a writ of execution or by execution of the judgment in any other manner
appropriate to the nature of the judgment appealed from . . . The court to which application
for leave to execute is made has a wide general discretion to grant or refuse leave and, if
leave be granted, to determine the conditions upon which the right to execute shall be
exercised . . . In exercising this discretion the court should, in my view, determine what is
just and equitable in all the circumstances, and, in doing so, would normally have regard,
inter alia, to the following factors:
(1) the potentiality of irreparable harm or prejudice being sustained by the appellant on
appeal (respondent in the application) if leave to execute were to be granted;
(2) the potentiality of irreparable harm or prejudice being sustained by the respondent on
appeal (applicant in the application) if leave to execute were to be refused;
(3) the prospects of success on appeal, including more particularly the question as to
whether the appeal is frivolous or vexatious or has been noted not with the bona
fide intention of seeking to reverse the judgment but for some indirect purpose,
eg, to gain time or harass the other party; and
(4) where there is the potentiality of irreparable harm or prejudice to both appellant and
respondent, the balance of hardship or convenience, as the case may be.‟
(Authorities omitted.)
[20] In South Cape this court held that in an application for leave to execute the
onus rests on the applicant to show that he or she is entitled to such an order.3 The
court went on to hold that an order granting leave to execute pending an appeal was
one that had to be classified as being purely interlocutory and was thus not
appealable. There were exceptions to the rule that purely interlocutory orders were
3 At 548C-D.
not appealable. It is necessary to point out that a number of judgments of this court
relaxed this rule on the basis that an appeal may be heard in the exercise of the
court‟s inherent jurisdiction in extraordinary cases where grave injustice was not
otherwise preventable. In Philani-Ma-Afrika & others v Mailula & others [2009]
ZASCA 115; 2010 (2) SA 573 (SCA) this court considered the position where a high
court had granted leave to execute an eviction order despite having granted leave to
appeal. It held the execution order to be appealable in the interests of justice.4 It
must also be borne in mind that before the advent of s 18, the position at common
law was that the court had a wide general discretion to grant or refuse an execution
order on the basis of what was just and equitable whilst appreciating that the remedy
was one beyond the norm.
[21] Until its repeal on 22 May 2015, Rule 49(11) of the Uniform Rules, read as
follows:
„Where an appeal has been noted or an application for leave to appeal against or to
rescind, correct, review or vary an order of a court has been made, the operation and
execution of the order in question shall be suspended, pending the decision of such appeal
or application, unless the court which gave such order, on the application of a party,
otherwise directs.‟
This was a restatement of the common law and formed the basis on which
applications of this kind were determined.
[22] Section 18 of the Superior Courts Act introduced on 23 August 20135 reads
as follows:
„18 Suspension of decision pending appeal
(1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), and unless the court under exceptional
circumstances orders otherwise, the operation and execution of a decision which is
the subject of an application for leave to appeal or of an appeal, is suspended
pending the decision of the application or appeal.
(2) Subject to subsection (3), unless the court under exceptional circumstances orders
otherwise, the operation and execution of a decision that is an interlocutory order not
having the effect of an final judgment, which is the subject of an application for leave
4 See also Moch v Nedtravel (Pty) Ltd t/a American Express Travel Services 1996 (3) SA 1 (A); S v
Western Areas Ltd & others 2005 (5) 214 (SCA), and Nova Property Group Holdings Ltd & others v
Cobbett & another [2016] ZASCA 63; 2016 (4) SA 317 (SCA).
5 Issued in terms of GN R36, GG 36774, 22 August 2013.
to appeal or of an appeal, is not suspended pending the decision of the application or
appeal.
(3) A court may only order otherwise as contemplated in subsection (1) or (2), if the party
who applied to the court to order otherwise, in addition proves on a balance of
probabilities that he or she will suffer irreparable harm if the court does not so order
and that the other party will not suffer irreparable harm if the court so orders.
(4) If a court orders otherwise, as contemplated in subsection (1) –
(i) the court must immediately record its reasons for doing so;
(ii) the aggrieved party has an automatic right of appeal to the next highest court;
(iii) the court hearing such an appeal must deal with it as a matter of extreme urgency;
and
(iv) such order will be automatically suspended, pending the outcome of such appeal.
(5) For the purposes of subsections (1) and (2), a decision becomes the subject of an
application for leave to appeal or of an appeal, as soon as an application for leave to
appeal or a notice of appeal is lodged with the registrar in terms of the rules.‟
[23] As can be seen, s 18(4)(ii) has made orders to execute appealable,
fundamentally altering the general position that such being purely interlocutory
orders, they were not appealable. Moreover, it granted to a party against whom such
an order was made, an automatic right of appeal. In addition s 18(3) requires an
applicant for an execution order to prove on a balance of probabilities that he or she
„will‟ suffer irreparable harm if the order is not granted and that the other party „will
not‟ suffer such harm.
[24] Since a court of three judges was constituted to hear the matter, this court, so
it was submitted, was „the next highest court‟ envisaged in s 18(4)(ii). It is on that
basis that the present appeal came to be set down on an expedited basis before this
court, because s 18(4)(iii) directed that the appeal had to be dealt with as a matter of
extreme urgency. Understandably, because it is such a dramatic change, only one
appeal to „the next highest court‟ is permissible. No further appeal beyond this court
appears competent – for present purposes it is not necessary to decide this point.
Nor, is it necessary to determine whether the next highest court could, as well, be
the full court of the high court in circumstances where the execution order was
issued by a single Judge.6 Whatever else, this matter, which is properly before this
court, requires the consideration of a novel statutory provision and it would be in the
interests of justice for us to do so.
[25] In order to embark on a determination of whether the preliminary jurisdictional
point raised on behalf of General Ntlemeza, set out in para 17 above, has substance,
it is necessary to consider the provisions of s 18(1) and (2). These sections provide
for two situations. First, a judgment (the principal order) that is final in effect, as
contemplated in s 18(1): In such a case the default position is that the operation and
execution of the principal order is suspended pending „the decision of the application
for leave to appeal or appeal‟. Second, in terms of s 18(2), an interlocutory order that
does not have the effect of a final judgment: The default position (a diametrically
opposite one to that contemplated in s 18(1)) is that the principal order is not
suspended pending the decision of the application for leave to appeal or appeal. This
might at first blush appear to be a somewhat peculiar provision as, ordinarily, such a
decision is not appealable. However, this subsection appears to have been inserted
to deal with the line of cases in which the ordinary rule was relaxed referred to in
para 20 above.
[26] Both sections empower a court, assuming the presence of certain
jurisdictional facts, to depart from the default position. It is uncontested that the high
court‟s judgment on the merits of General Ntlemeza‟s appointment is one final in
effect and therefore s 18(1) applies. This section provides that the operation and
execution of a decision that is the „subject of an application for leave to appeal or
appeal‟ is suspended pending the decision of either of those two processes. Section
18(5) defines what the words „subject of an application for leave to appeal or appeal‟
mean: „a decision becomes the subject of an application for leave to appeal or of an
appeal, as soon as an application for leave to appeal or a notice of appeal is lodged
with the registrar in terms of the rules.‟
[27] When the high court made its decision on the merits of General Ntlemeza‟s
appointment on 17 March 2017, that order immediately came into operation and
6 This court might in future face a growing number of appeals against execution orders, particularly
because the right to appeal is automatic, which might clog its roll.
could be executed. When General Ntlemeza, on 23 March 2017, filed his application
for leave to appeal, the order (the principal order) of that court was suspended
pending a decision on that application. HSF and FUL‟s „counter-application‟, seeking
the execution order, was thus well within the parameters of s 18(1). Did the dismissal
of General Ntlemeza‟s application for leave to appeal prior to a decision on the
execution application remove the jurisdictional underpinning for an execution order?
The short answer is no. The reasons for that conclusion are set out hereafter.
[28] The primary purpose of s 18(1) is to re-iterate the common law position in
relation to the ordinary effect of appeal processes – the suspension of the order
being appealed – not to nullify it. It was designed to protect the rights of litigants who
find themselves in the position of General Ntlemeza, by ensuring, that in the ordinary
course, the orders granted against them are suspended whilst they are in the
process of attempting, by way of the appeal process, to have them overturned. The
suspension contemplated in s 18(1) would thus continue to operate in the event of a
further application for leave to appeal to this court and in the event of that being
successful, in relation to the outcome of a decision by this court in respect of the
principal order. Section 18(1) also sets the basis for when the power to depart from
the default position comes into play, namely, exceptional circumstances which must
be read in conjunction with the further requirements set by s18(3). As already stated
and as will become clear later, the Legislature has set the bar fairly high.
[29] The preliminary point on behalf of General Ntlemeza referred to in para 17
above does not accord with the plain meaning of s 18(1). As pointed out on behalf of
HSF and FUL, and following on what is set out in the preceding paragraph, s 18(1)
does not say that the court‟s power to reverse the automatic suspension of a
decision is dependent on that decision being subject to an application for leave to
appeal or an appeal. It says that, unless the court orders otherwise, such a decision
is automatically suspended.
[30] Moreover, contextually, the power granted to courts by s 18 must be seen
against the general inherent power of courts to regulate their own process. This
inherent jurisdiction is now enshrined in s 173 of the Constitution which provides:
„The Constitutional Court, the Supreme Court of Appeal and the High Court of South
Africa each has the inherent power to protect and regulate their own process, and to develop
the common law, taking into account the interests of justice.‟
[31] A further application for leave to appeal the principal order was filed in this
court on 21 April 2017. This was always highly likely and always in prospect. The
nature of the contestation in the high court, including the negative aspersions
concerning the character of the head of a leading crime-fighting unit of the South
African Police Service, leads to that compelling conclusion. So too, one would
imagine, whatever this court decides it is unlikely to be the final word on the matter.
The execution order by the high court reasonably anticipated further appeal
processes. This was in any event what was sought by HSF and FUL in their counter
application. In their notice of motion, they sought an order that the operation and
execution of the principal order not be suspended „by any application for leave to
appeal or any appeal, and the order continues to be operational and enforceable and
operate … until the final determination of all present and future leave to appeal
applications and appeals…‟ A court charged with the adjudication of an application
for an execution order would be astute to avoid a multiplicity of applications.
[32] There can be no doubt that an application by HSF and FUL for leave to
execute, had there not been one earlier, could have been brought and would have
been competent after the application for leave to appeal was filed in this court.
Courts must be the guardians of their own process and be slow to avoid a to-ing and
fro-ing of litigants.7 The high court‟s order achieved that end. A proper case had
been made out by HSF and FUL for anticipatory relief. The high court reasonably
apprehended on the evidence before it that further appeals were in the offing and
issued an order that sought not just to crystallize the position but also to anticipate
further appeal processes. For all the reasons aforesaid there is no merit in the
preliminary point.
7 In Copthall Stores Ltd. v Willoughby's Consolidated Co. Ltd. (1)1913 AD 305 at 308, this court stated
that it has an inherent right to control its own judgments, and in the light of the circumstances of each
case to say whether or not execution should be suspended pending an application for special leave to
appeal. See also Fismer v Thornton 1929 AD 17 at 19.
[33] There is a further point taken on behalf of General Ntlemeza that requires only
brief attention. The high court‟s order was handed down on 12 April 2017 and the
reasons for the order were provided on 10 May 2017. It was submitted on behalf of
General Ntlemeza that since s 18(4)(i) states that a court must immediately record its
reasons for ordering „otherwise‟, the high court by not doing so was in contravention
of a peremptory provision, which must be seen in conjunction with the provisions of
s18(4)(iii) that provides that the court hearing the automatic appeal must deal with it
as a matter of extreme urgency. The consequence, so it was contended, was that
General Ntlemeza was frustrated in asserting his constitutionally guaranteed right of
access to court. It appears to be suggested that this somehow nullified the
proceedings related to the application for leave to execute the principal order. It must
be pointed out that General Ntlemeza filed his notice of appeal in this court a day
after the order upholding the application for leave to execute was issued, on 13 April
2017. The application for leave to appeal in relation to the principal order was filed
on 21 April 2017. General Ntlemeza‟s notice of appeal was amended on 11 May
2017, after the high court had provided its reasons. The present appeal was heard
on 2 June 2017. Far from being frustrated, General Ntlemeza has had a speedy
hearing. Furthermore, since the order to execute was suspended pending the
finalisation of the present appeal, no prejudice appears to have been occasioned.
Simply put, the purpose of s 18(4) namely, to ensure a speedy appeal, was
achieved. That being said it would be a salutary practice to provide reasons pari
passu with the order being issued.
[34] That leads us to a consideration of whether the high court in granting the
order to execute had due regard to the relevant provisions of s 18 and applied them
correctly.
[35] Section 18(1) entitles a court to order otherwise „under exceptional
circumstances‟. Section 18(3) provides a further controlling measure, namely, a party
seeking an order in terms of s 18(1) is required „in addition‟, to prove on a balance of
probabilities that he or she will suffer irreparable harm if the court does not so order
and that the other party will not suffer irreparable harm if the court so orders.
[36] In Incubeta Holdings & another v Ellis & another 2014 (3) SA 189 (GJ) para
16, the court said the following about s 18:
„It seems to me that there is indeed a new dimension introduced to the test by the
provisions of s 18. The test is twofold. The requirements are:
First, whether or not “exceptional circumstances” exist; and
Second, proof on a balance of probabilities by the applicant of –
o the presence of irreparable harm to the applicant/victor, who wants to put into
operation and execute the order; and
o the absence of irreparable harm to the respondent/loser, who seeks leave to
appeal.‟
[37] As to what would constitute exceptional circumstances, the court, in Incubeta,
looked for guidance to an earlier decision (on Admiralty law), namely, MV Ais Mamas
Seatrans Maritime v Owners, MV Ais Mamas, & another 2002 (6) SA 150 (C), where
it was recognised that it was not possible to attempt to lay down precise rules as to
what circumstances are to be regarded as exceptional and that each case has to be
decided on its own facts. However, at 156H-157C, the court said the following:
„What does emerge from an examination of the authorities, however, seems to me to be the
following:
1. What is ordinarily contemplated by the words “exceptional circumstances” is
something out of the ordinary and of an unusual nature; something which is excepted
in the sense that the general rule does not apply to it; something uncommon, rare or
different; “besonder”, “seldsaam”, “uitsonderlik”, or “in hoë mate ongewoon”.
2. To be exceptional the circumstances concerned must arise out of, or be incidental to,
the particular case.
3. Whether or not exceptional circumstances exist is not a decision which depends
upon the exercise of a judicial discretion: their existence or otherwise is a matter of
fact which the Court must decide accordingly.
4. Depending on the context in which it is used, the word “exceptional” has two shades
of meaning: the primary meaning is unusual or different; the secondary meaning is
markedly unusual or specially different.
5. Where, in a statute, it is directed that a fixed rule shall be departed from only under
exceptional circumstances, effect will, generally speaking, best be given to the
intention of the Legislature by applying a strict rather than a liberal meaning to the
phrase, and by carefully examining any circumstances relied on as allegedly being
exceptional.‟
[38] In UFS v Afriforum & another [2016] ZASCA 165 (17 November 2016), para 9,
this court stated that it was immediately discernable from ss 18(1) and (3) that the
Legislature proceeded from the well-established premise of the common law, that
the granting of relief of this nature constituted an extraordinary deviation from the
norm that, pending an appeal, a judgment and its attendant orders are suspended. It
noted that the exceptionality is further underscored by the requirement of s 18(4)(i);
that the court making such an order „must immediately record its reasons for doing
so‟. I interpose to state that the reasons contemplated in s 18(4)(i) must relate to the
court‟s entire reasoning for deciding „otherwise‟ and must therefore also include its
findings on irreparable harm as contemplated in s 18(3).
[39] In UFS, this court agreed that whether exceptional circumstances were
present depended on the facts of each case. The circumstances must be such as to
justify the deviation from the norm.8 The high court, in deciding the application in
terms of s 18(1), after referring to Incubeta, went on to consider the facts. It took into
account that the DPCI was an essential component of South Africa‟s democracy and
that given its functions, it was vital that the National Head had to be someone of
integrity. In this regard it considered the judicial pronouncements of Matojane J to be
crucial.
[40] Before the high court, counsel on behalf of General Ntlemeza had submitted
that HSF, FUL and the high court itself had not taken into account the remarks of
Tuchten J in his judgment declining to grant an interim interdict pending finalization
of the application to have General Ntlemeza‟s appointment declared unlawful.9 It was
contended that those remarks had the effect of neutralizing the negative judicial
pronouncements of Matojane J.
[41] It is apt at this stage to pause and consider the remarks made by Tuchten J.
He considered Matojane‟s adverse comments, referred to in para 8 above, and the
accusation that Matojane J had met privately with the legal representatives of one
party. According to Tuchten J, these statements had „distressed‟ Matojane J.10
Tuchten J considered the further negative findings by Matojane J, referred to in
8 UFS v Afriforum & another [2016] ZASCA 165 (17 November 2016) para 13.
9 Helen Suzman Foundation & another v Minister of Police & others (GP) unreported case no
23199/15 (19 April 2016).
10 Ibid, para 25.
paras 9 and 10 above, which were based on events related to the application for
leave to appeal and the „counter-application‟. He said the following (para 27):
„It is difficult to understand how the conduct of [General Ntlemeza] in relation to the
application to put the main judgment into force pending appeal could have a bearing on the
ground of appeal.‟
He went on to state (para 66):
„I do not think that in Sibiya, in relation to the application for leave to appeal and to put the
order into operation pending the appeal, I would have judged [General Ntlemeza] as
severely as did Matojane J. I think one must make some allowance for an aggrieved litigant.
In addition the preposterous conclusion to which [General Ntlemeza] came regarding the
probity of the learned judge was probably fueled by absurd legal advice. [General Ntlemeza]
and probably one or more of his lawyers jumped to a wholly unjustified conclusion. But that,
as I see it, does not necessarily, or even probably, prove a lack of integrity.‟
[42] To the submissions by counsel on behalf of General Ntlemeza in relation to
the remarks of Tuchten J, referred to in para 41 above, the high court responded as
follows:
„[General] Ntlemeza and the Minister sought leave ... to appeal the Sibiya judgment and
leave to appeal was refused. The Minister thereafter petitioned the Supreme Court of Appeal
against Matojane‟s judgment in which he made remarks about General Ntlemeza. The
Minister‟s application for leave to appeal was dismissed….‟11
Later the court said:
„It is our considered view that those remarks which constituted the foundation upon which
the applicants launched the main application themselves constitute exceptional
circumstances as envisaged by s 18(1) of the Act.‟12
[43] In adjudicating the application for leave to execute the principal order the high
court considered General Ntlemeza‟s prospects of success on appeal in relation to
the finding that his appointment was unlawful. It concluded that the findings by
Matojane J which reflected negatively on General Ntlemeza were a major obstacle
for him to overcome and held that his prospects of success were „severely limited‟.
11 Para 14.
12 Para 16.
[44] In UFS, this court, after considering that Incubeta had held that the prospects
of success in the pending appeal played no part in deciding whether to grant the
application, preferred the contrary approach of the court in The Minister of Social
Development Western Cape & others v Justice Alliance of South Africa & another
(WCC) unreported case no 20806/13 (1 April 2016). However, in UFS, in deciding
the matter before it, this court recorded that the review record was not before it and
thus had no regard to the prospects of success. We are in the same position in the
present appeal. As in UFS, but more so, because of the application for leave to
appeal the principal order pending in this case, before us the question of prospects
of success recedes into the background. As stated at the commencement of this
judgment, s 18 has now had as a consequence the curious and ostensibly
undesirable position that there are two appeal processes in one appeal court in
relation to the same case.
[45] Before us it was submitted that the appellants had failed to show exceptional
circumstances and that the high court had erred in deciding the contrary. I disagree,
for the reasons provided by that court, referred to above, and those submitted on
behalf of HSF and FUL. I agree with the remarks of the high court in relation to the
pronouncements by Tuchten J. In my view he misconceived his role. He was not
sitting as a court of appeal or review. His remarks do not, as suggested by counsel
for HSF and FUL, have a neutralising or any other effect of disturbing the findings of
Matojane J. The proper functioning of the foremost corruption busting and crime
fighting unit in our country dictates that it should be free of taint. It is a matter of great
importance. The adverse prior crucial judicial pronouncements and the place that the
South African Police Service maintains in the constitutional scheme as well as the
vital role of the National Head of the DPCI and the public interests at play, are all
factors that weighed with the court in its conclusion that there were exceptional
circumstances in this case.
[46] The high court turned its attention to the requirements of s 18(3), namely the
irreparable harm that would be suffered by either party. It took into account the
submission on behalf of General Ntlemeza that removal from his office, „even if it is
momentary‟ would be a devastating blow to his „long and unblemished‟ career. The
high court held that the damage that had been done was not as a consequence of
the main application but because of the findings of Matojane J, and stated that it
failed to see how the enforcement order would wreak the harm General Ntlemeza
complained would be occasioned. It took into account that he continued to be paid
his full salary and that he still had the possibility of vindication by way of an appeal,
should it ensue as a result of a favourable outcome of his petition and a subsequent
appeal to this court. Before us, counsel for General Ntlemeza appeared to restrict
himself to the contention that General Ntlemeza was suffering reputational harm. But
given the findings of Matojane J, the submission that being kept out of his office
occasions him reputational harm does not withstand scrutiny. I may add that General
Ntlemeza sought to appeal against the judgment of Matojane J, but his petition to
this court failed. In the result, the findings by Matojane J are no longer susceptible to
reconsideration.
[47] Insofar as the requirements of s 18(3) are concerned the high court cannot
be faulted for its approach in respect of the question of irreparable harm to General
Ntlemeza. On the other side of the coin there is the public interest and the crucial
place that the DPCI enjoys in our young democracy as set out above.13In my view
the high court cannot be criticized for concluding that HSF and FUL had proved, on a
balance of probabilities, that the public will suffer irreparable harm if the court does
not grant the order, and that General Ntlemeza will not suffer irreparable harm in
light thereof.
[48] For completeness, it is necessary to record that Minister Nhleko, the decision-
maker in relation to General Ntlemeza‟s appointment, made common cause with him
in his opposition to the challenge by HSF and FUL. The Minister of Police and
General Ntlemeza applied for leave to appeal the judgment. On 11 April 2017
Minister Nhleko‟s successor, Minister Mbalula, withdrew the application for leave to
appeal and tendered costs. The present Minister played no part in this appeal.
Simply put, the present Minister did not seek to defend Minister‟s Nhleko‟s decision
to appoint General Ntlemeza.
13 Helen Suzman Foundation & another v Minister of Police & others (GP) unreported case no
23199/15 (19 April 2016) para 30.
[49] Even though the present appeal is being pursued by General Ntlemeza in his
personal capacity, it became apparent towards the end of proceedings before us that
his case was funded by the State. The propriety of that course is beyond our
scrutiny. There is of course no reason in the present case for a costs order to attach
in any other way than personally.
[50] It must by now be apparent that the appeal is bound to fail. The effect of the
order that follows is that the high court‟s execution order set out in para 16 above
remains extant with the consequence that General Ntlemeza is unable to return to
his post pending the final determination of the present application for leave to appeal
and/or any further appeal processes in relation to the merits of his appointment.
[51] For all the reasons aforesaid the following order is made:
1 The appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.
2 The appellant is ordered to pay the costs personally.
_____________________
M S Navsa
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES:
Appellant:
N Dukada SC (with Z Madlanga)
Instructed by:
Ngidi & Company Inc., Pretoria
Bahlekazi Attorneys, Bloemfontein
Respondents:
D Unterhalter SC (with C Steinberg)
Instructed by:
Webber Wentzel Attorneys, Sandton
Symington & De Kok Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
9 June 2017
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form part of
the judgment.
Ntlemeza v Helen Suzman Foundation [2017] ZASCA 93 (9 June 2017)
MEDIA STATEMENT
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) today dismissed an appeal by Lieutenant-General
Mthandazo Berning Ntlemeza (General Ntlemeza) against a judgment of the Gauteng
Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Mabuse, Kollapen and Baqwa JJ sitting as court of first
instance). The appeal concerned the question whether General Ntlemeza ought to be
permitted to continue in his post as National Head of the Directorate for Priority Crime
Investigations (DPCI), pending the finalisation of an application for leave to appeal filed in
the SCA.
The appeal emanated from the following factual background. On 10 September 2015,
General Ntlemeza was appointed National Head of the DPCI by the erstwhile Minister of
Police, Mr Nkosinathi Phiwayinkosi Thamsanqa Nhleko. Before this, General Ntlemeza had
served as acting National Head of the DPCI for a period of approximately one year. During
March 2016 General Ntlemeza’s appointment was challenged in the Gauteng Division of the
High Court, Pretoria, by the first and second respondents, the Helen Suzman Foundation
(HSF) and Freedom Under Law NPC (FUL), respectively. These institutions are non-profit
organisations concerned with promoting constitutional values and the rule of law, and
brought the application to review and set aside General Ntlemeza’s appointment in their own
and the national interest. Their principal ground of review was that Minister Nhleko had
failed to take into account materially relevant considerations, more particularly, he failed to
have proper regard to a judgment of the High Court, by Matojane J, in an earlier case in
which General Ntlemeza’s integrity was called into question.
That case was Sibiya v Minister of Police & others (GP) unreported case no 5203/15 (20
February 2015), which concerned the suspension of Major General Shadrack Sibiya, a
Provincial Head of the DPCI. General Ntlemeza had accused General Sibiya of being
involved in the illegal rendition of certain Zimbabwean citizens. In deciding the matter,
Matojane J made adverse findings against General Ntlemeza. He stated that the decision to
suspend General Sibiya ‘was taken in bad faith and for reasons other than those given. It
[was] arbitrary and not rationally connected to the purpose for which it was taken and
accordingly, it [was] unlawful as it violate[d] applicant’s constitutional right to an
administrative action that is lawful, reasonable and procedurally fair’. General Ntlemeza
lodged an application for leave to appeal that judgment and General Sibiya applied for leave
to execute the order setting aside his suspension. In his assessment of the merits of the two
applications, Matojane J once again made remarks calling into question General Ntlemeza’s
integrity. He accused General Ntlemeza of misleading the court by not informing it of a
report by the National Independent Police Directorate which exonerated General Sibiya.
According to Matojane J, General Ntlemeza referred only to a prior report by the Provincial
Independent Police Directorate, which incriminated General Sibiya. He went on to say: ‘In
my view, the conduct of [General Ntlemeza] shows that he is biased and dishonest. To
further show that [General Ntlemeza was] dishonest and lack[ed] integrity and honour, he
made false statements under oath’. Matojane J dismissed the application for leave to appeal
and granted the application to execute. Subsequent attempts by General Ntlemeza to
appeal the Sibiya judgment were unsuccessful.
It was on the strength of the Sibiya judgment that HSF and FUL sought to review General
Ntlemeza’s appointment. A full court (the high court) comprising three judges (Mabuse,
Kollapen and Baqwa JJ), perhaps because of the national importance of the case, was
constituted to hear the review application brought by HSF and FUL to have General
Ntlemeza’s appointment set aside. As Part A of that application, HSF and FUL sought an
interim interdict preventing General Ntlemeza from exercising any power or discharging any
function or duty as head of the DPCI, pending the final determination of the review
application. The application for interim relief was dismissed by Tuchten J. A judgment by
the high court in the review application (Mabuse J, with the other two judges concurring)
was delivered on 17 March 2017. The high court held in favour of HSF and FUL. It reasoned
that s 17CA of the South African Police Service Act 68 of 1995 (the Act), in terms of which
General Ntlemeza was purportedly appointed, required an appointee as National Head of
the DPCI to be a fit and proper person who is also conscientious and has integrity. The high
court had regard to the decision of the Constitutional Court in Democratic Alliance v
President of the Republic of South Africa & others [2012] ZACC 24; 2013 (1) SA 248 (CC)
(the Simelane judgment), which involved the appointment of Mr Menzi Simelane as National
Prosecuting Authority Head, and held that the Minister, like the President, had an obligation
to ensure that there were no disqualifying factors impinging on the appointment of an
individual as the Head of an important national constitutional institution. The high court
considered the judicial pronouncements by Matojane J that reflected negatively on General
Ntlemeza, to be crucial in the assessment of whether the criteria set by s 17CA of the Act
had been satisfied for the appointment of General Ntlemeza. The high court held that the
Minister was not entitled to ignore Matojane J’s findings concerning General Ntlemeza’s lack
of honesty and integrity. It found that it was for the Minister to determine positively from the
objective facts whether General Ntlemeza was a fit and proper person. It reasoned that
Minister Nhleko had failed to do so and concluded that Minister Nhleko acted irrationally and
unlawfully in failing to take into account relevant factors such as the findings by Matojane J.
It made an order that, inter alia:
‘1. The decision of the Minister of 10 September 2015 in terms of which Major General Ntlemeza was
appointed the National Head of the Directorate of Priority Crimes Investigations is hereby reviewed
and set aside.’
As mentioned, General Ntlemeza subsequently applied to the high court for leave to appeal
that order (the principal order). HSF and FUL, in turn, filed a counter-application, in terms of
which they sought, inter alia, as a matter of urgency, a declarator that the operation and
execution of the principal order not be suspended by virtue of any application for leave to
appeal or any appeal. That court dismissed General Ntlemeza’s application for leave to
appeal and upheld the counter-application. It is the grant of the latter application that was
the subject of the appeal before the SCA. This application was brought in terms of s 18 of
the Superior Courts Act. Section 18 of the Superior Courts gives an aggrieved party an
automatic right of appeal ‘to the next highest court’ against a decision of the high court
ordering the execution of an earlier ruling issued by it, pending the finalisation of an appeal
or an application for leave to appeal.
Also pending before the SCA at the time that this appeal was heard, was General
Ntlemeza’s petition for leave to appeal against the refusal by the high court of his application
for leave to appeal against the principal order. The SCA was thus in a curious position,
created by s 18 of the Superior Courts Act, where two parallel processes were being
conducted in an appeal court in one case.
In the SCA, General Ntlemeza relied on a jurisdictional point which, according to him, was
dispositive of the appeal. He framed the proposition as follows:
‘In terms of s 18(1) of the Superior Courts Act, a pending decision on an application for leave to
appeal or an appeal was a jurisdictional requirement before a court considering an application to
enforce an order was empowered to make an execution order of the kind set out in the preceding
paragraph. It was contended that sequentially the application for leave to appeal by General
Ntlemeza had been refused before FUL’s counter-application was upheld and thus the high court was
precluded from considering HSF and FUL’s counter-application, because the jurisdictional fact of a
pending decision in relation to an appeal or an application for leave to appeal was absent.’
Importantly, the SCA, at the outset, dealt with the importance of the DPCI by locating it in its
constitutional and statutory setting. It noted that the South African Police Service Act 68 of
1995 (the Act), in terms of which the DPCI was established, has its genesis in s 205 of the
Constitution, which provides that the National Police Service must be structured to function
in the national, provincial and, where appropriate, local spheres of government. The SCA
also had regard to the provisions of s 17 of the Act which established the DPCI, and in
particular, s 17CA(1) which requires the National Head to be, inter alia, a fit and proper
person who was also contentious and had integrity.
In consideration whether General Ntlemeza’s contention regarding s 18 of the Superior
Courts Act was sustainable, the SCA proposed first, to consider the position at common law
in relation to such applications before the enactment of s 18 of the Superior Courts Act. And
in the instance of it being held that the preliminary point is without substance, the SCA
would then deal with the further provisions of s 18 to determine whether HSF and FUL
satisfied its requirements thereby justifying the grant of the execution order by the high
court.
With regards to the common law position prior to the enactment of s 18 of the Superior
Courts Act, the SCA considered the case of South Cape Corporation (Pty) Ltd v Engineering
Management Services (Pty) 1977 (3) SA 534 (A) which held that in an application for leave
to execute, the onus rested on the applicant to show that he or she was entitled to such an
order. In that case, the court went on to hold that an order granting leave to execute pending
an appeal was one that had to be classified as being purely interlocutory and was thus not
appealable. The SCA, however, noted that there were exceptions to the rule that purely
interlocutory orders were not appealable, and highlighted cases where this rule was relaxed
on the basis that an appeal may be heard in the exercise of the court’s inherent jurisdiction
in extraordinary cases where grave injustice was not otherwise preventable.
The SCA also considered the import of Rule 49(11) of the Uniform Rules, which restated the
common law position and formed the basis upon which applications of the kind in question
were determined. With the advent of s 18 of the Superior Courts Act, this rule was repealed.
It read as follows:
‘Where an appeal has been noted or an application for leave to appeal against or to rescind, correct,
review or vary an order of a court has been made, the operation and execution of the order in
question shall be suspended, pending the decision of such appeal or application, unless the court
which gave such order, on the application of a party, otherwise directs.’
Several changes to the common law position were introduced by s 18, and the SCA
considered some of these changes.
The SCA noted that s 18(4)(ii) has made orders to execute appealable, fundamentally
altering the general position that such being purely interlocutory orders, they were not
appealable. Moreover, the court continued, it granted a party against whom such an order
was made, an automatic right of appeal. In addition s 18(3) requires an applicant for an
execution order to prove on a balance of probabilities that he or she ‘will’ suffer irreparable
harm if the order is not granted and that the other party ‘will not’ suffer such harm.
At para 25 of the judgment, the court said:
‘In order to embark on a determination of whether the preliminary jurisdictional point raised on behalf
of General Ntlemeza, has substance, it is necessary to consider the provisions of s 18(1) and (2).
These sections provide for two situations. First, a judgment (the principal order) that is final in effect,
as contemplated in s 18(1): In such a case the default position is that the operation and execution of
the principal order is suspended pending ‘the decision of the application for leave to appeal or
appeal’. Second, in terms of s 18(2), an interlocutory order that does not have the effect of a final
judgment: The default position (a diametrically opposite one to that contemplated in s 18(1)) is that
the principal order is not suspended pending the decision of the application for leave to appeal or
appeal. This might at first blush appear to be a somewhat peculiar provision as, ordinarily, such a
decision is not appealable. However, this subsection appears to have been inserted to deal with the
line of cases in which the ordinary rule was relaxed ….’
The court continued, at para 26, stating that:
‘Both sections empower a court, assuming the presence of certain jurisdictional facts, to depart from
the default position. It is uncontested that the high court’s judgment on the merits of General
Ntlemeza’s appointment is one final in effect and therefore s 18(1) applies. This section provides that
the operation and execution of a decision that is the ‘subject of an application for leave to appeal or
appeal’ is suspended pending the decision of either of those two processes. Section 18(5) defines
what the words ‘subject of an application for leave to appeal or appeal’ mean: ‘a decision becomes
the subject of an application for leave to appeal or of an appeal, as soon as an application for leave to
appeal or a notice of appeal is lodged with the registrar in terms of the rules.’
The SCA noted that when the high court made its decision on the merits of General
Ntlemeza’s appointment on 17 March 2017, that order immediately came into operation and
could be executed. When General Ntlemeza, on 23 March 2017, filed his application for
leave to appeal, the order (the principal order) of that court was suspended pending a
decision on that application. HSF and FUL’s ‘counter-application’, seeking the execution
order, the SCA continued, was thus well within the parameters of s 18(1). The question that
arose, the court said, was whether the dismissal of General Ntlemeza’s application for leave
to appeal prior to a decision on the execution application removed the jurisdictional
underpinning for an execution order? The court said that it did not.
In its reasoning, the SCA said that:
‘[28]
The primary purpose of s 18(1) is to re-iterate the common law position in relation to the
ordinary effect of appeal processes – the suspension of the order being appealed – not to nullify it. It
was designed to protect the rights of litigants who find themselves in the position of General
Ntlemeza, by ensuring, that in the ordinary course, the orders granted against them are suspended
whilst they are in the process of attempting, by way of the appeal process, to have them overturned.
The suspension contemplated in s 18(1) would thus continue to operate in the event of a further
application for leave to appeal to this court and in the event of that being successful, in relation to the
outcome of a decision by this court in respect of the principal order. Section 18(1) also sets the basis
for when the power to depart from the default position comes into play, namely, exceptional
circumstances which must be read in conjunction with the further requirements set by s18(3). As
already stated and as will become clear later, the Legislature has set the bar fairly high.’
The SCA found that the preliminary point on behalf of General Ntlemeza did not accord with
the plain meaning of s 18(1). The SCA agreed with HSF and FUL that s 18(1) does not say
that the court’s power to reverse the automatic suspension of a decision is dependent on
that decision being subject to an application for leave to appeal or an appeal. In addition the
court said that contextually, the power granted to courts by s 18 must be seen against the
general inherent power of courts, which power is enshrined in the s 173 of the Constitution,
to regulate their own process.
The SCA thus found that General Ntlemeza’s preliminary point was without a basis and
said:
‘[32]
There can be no doubt that an application by HSF and FUL for leave to execute, had there
not been one earlier, could have been brought and would have been competent after the application
for leave to appeal was filed in this court. Courts must be the guardians of their own process and be
slow to avoid a to-ing and fro-ing of litigants. The high court’s order achieved that end. A proper case
had been made out by HSF and FUL for anticipatory relief. The high court reasonably apprehended
on the evidence before it that further appeals were in the offing and issued an order that sought not
just to crystallize the position but also to anticipate further appeal processes. For all the reasons
aforesaid there is no merit in the preliminary point.’
The SCA gave short shrift to the further point raised by General Ntlemeza regarding the
failure by the high court to deliver reasons for the judgment, ‘immediately’, as envisaged in s
s18(4)(i) of the Superior Courts Act. The high court’s order was handed down on 12 April
2017 and the reasons for the order were provided on 10 May 2017. It was submitted on
behalf of General Ntlemeza that since s 18(4)(i) states that a court must immediately record
its reasons for ordering ‘otherwise’, the high court by not doing so was in contravention of a
peremptory provision, which must be seen in conjunction with the provisions of s18(4)(iii)
that provides that the court hearing the automatic appeal must deal with it as a matter of
extreme urgency. The consequence, so it was contended, was that General Ntlemeza was
frustrated in asserting his constitutionally guaranteed right of access to court. The
suggestion was that this invalidated the proceedings related to the application for leave to
execute the principal order. The SCA noted that:
‘[34]
General Ntlemeza filed his notice of appeal in this court a day after the order upholding the
application for leave to execute was issued, on 13 April 2017. The application for leave to appeal in
relation to the principal order was filed on 21 April 2017. General Ntlemeza’s notice of appeal was
amended on 11 May 2017, after the high court had provided its reasons. The present appeal was
heard on 2 June 2017. Far from being frustrated, General Ntlemeza has had a speedy hearing.
Furthermore, since the order to execute was suspended pending the finalisation of the present
appeal, no prejudice appears to have been occasioned. Simply put, the purpose of s 18(4) namely, to
ensure a speedy appeal, was achieved. That being said it would be a salutary practice to provide
reasons pari passu with the order being issued.’
The SCA then went on to consider whether the high court in granting the order to execute
had due regard to the relevant provisions of s 18 and found that it had. On this score, the
SCA said that the high court could not be faulted in its finding that HSF and FUL proved
exceptional circumstances were present as envisaged in s 18(1), and further, that HSF and
FUL had proved, on a balance of probabilities, that they and the public, would suffer
irreparable harm if the court did not make the order and that General Ntlemeza would not
suffer irreparable harm if the court so ordered.
The SCA said the following:
‘[45]
The proper functioning of the foremost corruption busting and crime fighting unit in our
country dictates that it should be free of taint. It is a matter of great importance. The adverse prior
crucial judicial pronouncements and the place that the South African Police Service maintains in the
constitutional scheme as well as the vital role of the National Head of the DPCI and the public
interests at play, are all factors that weighed with the court in its conclusion that there were
exceptional circumstances in this case.’
In considering the requirement of irreparable harm to General Ntlemeza, the SCA said that
his complaint appeared to be restricted to him suffering reputational harm. The SCA in
dealing with this question stated that the high court could not be criticized for its approach to
the question of irreparable harm. The high court took into account that the reputational
damage complained of by General Ntlemeza did not occur as a consequence of its
judgment but because of the findings of Matojane J. The SCA said the following:
‘[46]
[The high court] took into account that he continued to be paid his full salary and that he still
had the possibility of vindication by way of an appeal, should it ensue as a result of a favourable
outcome of his petition and a subsequent appeal to this court.’
As against the question of possible reputational harm, the SCA had regard to the high court
considering the public interest and the crucial place that the DPCI enjoys in our young
democracy.
The court also remarked that the present Minister of Police, Mr Fikile Mbalula, did not seek
to defend Minister’s Nhleko’s decision to appoint General Ntlemeza. On 11 April 2017
Minister Mbalula withdrew the application for leave to appeal.
As regards the costs, the court noted that even though General Ntlemeza was pursuing the
appeal in his personal capacity, it became apparent, at the end of the proceedings before it,
that his case was funded by the State. The SCA said that it could not scrutinize the propriety
of that course. It went on to say that in so far as appeal was concerned, it must follow that
General Ntlemeza has to pay the costs personally.
In the end, the SCA said:
‘[50]
It must by now be apparent that the appeal is bound to fail. The effect of the order that follows
is that the high court’s execution order set out in para 16 above remains extant with the consequence
that General Ntlemeza is unable to return to his post pending the final determination of the present
application for leave to appeal and/or any further appeal processes in relation to the merits of his
appointment.
--- ends --- |
2739 | non-electoral | 2012 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 104/2011
Reportable
In the matter between:
CITY OF CAPE TOWN APPELLANT
and
MARCEL MOUZAKIS STRÜMPHER RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: City of Cape Town v Strümpher (104/2011) [2012]
ZASCA 54 (30 March 2012)
Coram:
Mthiyane DP, Van Heerden, Bosielo, Majiedt JJA and
Ndita AJA
Heard:
12 March 2012
Delivered:
30 March 2012
Summary:
Right to water ─ access to water supply cut off by
water service authority ─ whether service founded solely on contract ─
whether spoliation order available to water user.
_____________________________________________________________________
ORDER
On appeal from: Western Cape High Court, Cape Town (Desai J and
Gassner AJ sitting as court of appeal):
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
___________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
MTHIYANE DP (VAN HEERDEN, BOSIELO, MAJIEDT JJA and
NDITA AJA CONCURRING)
[1] This is an appeal from a judgment of the full bench of the Western
Cape High Court (Desai J and Gassner AJ) upholding a spoliation order
granted by the Strand Magistrates‟ Court, in terms of which the City of
Cape Town (the City) was directed to reconnect the water supply to a
property in the Strand (the property) owned by the respondent. The
respondent alleged that the disconnection of the water supply constituted
interference with his statutory water rights in terms of the Water Services
Act 108 of 1997 and constituted a spoliation. He argued that the water
supply could not be disconnected unless the amount in arrears had been
determined judicially in the City‟s favour. The City on the other hand
contended that the summary disconnection of the water supply was
authorised by the City‟s water by-law and its debt collection by-law. It
maintained that water was supplied to the respondent in terms of a supply
contract it had with him and that, on the authority of the decision of this
court in Telkom SA Ltd v Xsinet (Pty) Ltd,1 a mandament van spolie was
not available to the respondent. On appeal to this court with the leave of
the court below, the City advances the same argument.
[2] The common cause facts are succinctly summarised by Gassner
AJ. For the past 37 years the respondent has operated a caravan park for
permanent tenants at the property. Throughout that period the respondent
had use of water supplied by the City. On 16 May 2007 the City notified
the respondent that unless arrears of some R182 000, which had
accumulated on the property‟s water account, were paid within two days,
the water supply would be disconnected.
[3] On 28 May 2007, the respondent‟s attorneys addressed a letter to
the City querying the water account and declaring a dispute2 regarding
the accumulated arrears. The dispute had been on the table for some time.
Previous accounts showed that something was amiss because in certain
months the recorded water usage was exceptionally high without good
reason. It had been demonstrated to an employee of the City, who had
visited the property, that the water meter was defective and kept running
even when the main water connection was closed. After conducting an
inspection on the property, the City had the old water meter and the main
connection removed and replaced. However, a leakage was discovered
where the old water meter and the main connection had been removed
and this was reported to the City. After several pipes were replaced by the
respondent, at the request of the City following the report, the recorded
water usage dropped.
1 Telkom SA Ltd v Xsinet (Pty) Ltd 2003 (5) SA 309 (SCA).
2 The meaning of „dispute‟ is explained in clause 7(1) of the City‟s Credit Control and Debt Collection
Policy which reads as follows:
„. . . “dispute” refers to the instance when a debtor questions the correctness of any account rendered by
the Municipality.‟
[4] On 17 August 2007 the City disconnected the water supply to the
property without responding to the letter of 28 May 2007 from the
respondent‟s attorneys. In its answering affidavit the City did not deal
with the merits of the dispute, set out in general terms in the founding
affidavit, but merely focused on technical points. It contended that the
mere existence of a dispute did not avail the respondent because, for
example, the City‟s monthly statement to the respondent stipulated that,
even in the case of a dispute, payments may not be withheld.3
[5] The above contentions did not carry much weight with the full
bench which upheld the spoliation order. Desai J then granted the City
leave to appeal to this court.
[6] The primary issue on appeal is whether the City was entitled to cut
off the water supply to the property due to non-payment of arrears,
notwithstanding the fact that the respondent disputed liability. The City
advances two main grounds as justification for its summary disconnection
of the water supply to the property. First, it argues that the respondent‟s
right to the water supply is simply a personal right founded on a contract.
Second, the City argues that its interference was authorised by its water
by-law and the debt collection by-law.
[7] The above submissions will be considered in turn. As to the first,
counsel for the City exhorted us to consider, as an appropriate starting
point, to the nature of the relationship between the respondent and the
City. He argued that if one had regard to ss 18 and 19(2) of the City‟s
3 The relevant portion of the account reads as follows:
„4. Selfs al is u in „n dispuut betrokke met die Raad oor hierdie rekening mag u nie betaling weerhou
nie.‟
water by-law4 and s 4 of the credit control and debt collection by-law,5
the relationship between the respondent and the City was a contractual
one. Referring to s 18 he argued that no person was permitted to use
water without first concluding an agreement. That section reads as
follows:
„No person may use water from the water supply system─
(a)
unless an agreement referred to in section 19 or 20 has been concluded. . . .‟
The application for the supply of water is provided for in s 19. Subsection
2 thereof reads as follows:
„(2)
An application for the supply of water approved by the Director: Water
constitutes an agreement between the municipality and the owner and takes effect on
the date referred to in the application.‟
So too, in terms of the Water Services Act, the duty of the water service
authority to provide water service is subject to the water user‟s obligation
to pay reasonable charges. (See s 11(1) and s 11(2)(d). It is clear from the
water by-laws that the supply of water is subject to the payment of fees in
respect of the supply of water. (See ss 19(3), 19(4)(b) and 23(2)(c).
[8] Counsel argued that compelling the City to supply water to the
respondent amounted to nothing more than the enforcement of
contractual rights under an agreement which, on the authority of the
Xsinet case, could not provide a basis for the granting of a spoliation
order.
[9] The argument advanced on the City‟s behalf is misplaced. It is true
that consumers, living within a municipal area, who wish to access water
from a water service authority, such as the City, have to conclude a water
4 City of Cape Town Water By-law Provincial Gazette (Western Cape) 6378 of 1 September 2006.
5 City of Cape Town Credit Control and Debt Collection By-law Provincial Gazette (Western Cape)
6364 of 15 June 2006.
supply contract with that authority. The fact that a contract must be
concluded does not, however, relegate the consumer‟s right to water to a
mere personal right flowing from that contractual relationship. It does not
relieve the City of its constitutional and statutory obligation to supply
water to users, such as the respondent. The right to water is a basic right.
Everyone has the right in terms of the Constitution to have access to
sufficient water.6 This constitutional provision is given effect to in s 3(1)
of the Water Services Act which provides that:
„(1)
Everyone has a right of access to basic water supply . . . .‟
The City‟s duty to provide water supply services is provided for in s
27(2) of the Constitution which declares that:
„(2)
The state must take reasonable legislative and other measures, within its
available resources, to achieve the progressive realisation of each of these rights.‟
Section 27(1)(b) of the Constitution is also given effect to by s 152(1)(b)
of the Constitution which provides that:
„(1)
The objects of local government are─
. . .
(b)
to ensure the provision of services to communities in a sustainable manner.‟
[10] It follows from the above statutory and constitutional provisions
that the right to water, claimed by the respondent when he applied for a
spoliation order, was not based solely on the contract which he concluded
with the City, but was underpinned by the constitutional and statutory
provisions discussed above. This view is fortified by the decision of this
court in Impala Water Users Association v Lourens NO & others.7 In that
case a water user had obtained a spoliation order directing a water user
6 Section 27(1) of the Constitution reads as follows:
„(1)
Everyone has the right to have access to─
(a)
. . .
(b)
sufficient . . . water. . . .‟
7 Impala Water Users Association v Lourens NO & others 2008 (2) SA 495 (SCA).
association in terms of s 98(6)(a) of the National Water Act 36 of 19988
to remove locks, chains and welding works from certain sluices and to
restore the flow of water from a dam to reservoirs on the water users‟
farms. A dispute arose between the parties concerning the legality of
water charges assessed by the water users association relating to the costs
of financing the construction of a dam. Although proceedings to recover
these charges were pending, the water users association decided to
exercise its powers in terms of s 59(3)(b) of the National Water Act.9 The
crucial question which the court, on appeal, had to consider was whether
the rights on which the water user relied were merely contractual rights.
Farlam JA distinguished the Xsinet decision and came to the conclusion
that the personal rights flowing from the water supply contract, which the
water user in that case had concluded with the water users association,
were replaced or subsumed into rights under the National Water Act,
which was the act that was applicable in that case. In this regard the
learned judge of appeal expressed himself in paras 18 and 19 as follows:
„[18] The first question to be considered, in my view, is whether the rights on which
the respondents relied were merely contractual and whether the Xsinet decision can be
applied. In my opinion, it is not correct to say that the rights in question were merely
contractual. It will be recalled that the respondents or the entities they represent were
all entitled to rights under the previous Water Act 54 of 1956, which rights were
registered in terms of the schedule prepared under s 88 of that Act. These rights were
clearly not merely personal rights arising from a contract. The individual respondents
and the entities represented by the other respondents all automatically, in terms of
para 7.2a of the appellant‟s constitution, became founding members of the appellant.
It is clear therefore that the rights to water which belonged to the individual
8 That section provides:
„(6) If the Minister accepts the proposal, the Minister may by notice in the Gazette─
(a)
declare the board [meaning the irrigation board] to be a water user association.‟
9 That section provides:
„(3) If a water use charge is not paid─
(b)
the supply of water to the water user from a waterwork or the authorisation to use water may
be restricted or suspended until the charges, together with interest, have been paid.‟
respondents and the entities represented by the other respondents, insofar as they were
replaced by or, perhaps more accurately put, subsumed into rights under the Act,
cannot be described as mere personal rights resulting from contracts with the
appellant. It follows that, on that ground alone, the Xsinet decision, on which the
appellant‟s counsel relied, is not applicable.
[19] The facts of this case also differ in another material respect from those in the
Xsinet case. There is was held (at paras 12 and 13) that the respondent‟s use of the
bandwidth and telephone services in question did not constitute an incident of its use
of the premises which it occupied, with the result that the disconnection by Telkom of
the telephone lines to Xsinet‟s telephone and bandwidth systems did not constitute
interference with Xsinet‟s possession of its equipment. In the present case, however,
the water rights interfered with were linked to and registered in respect of a certain
portion of each farm used for the cultivation of sugar cane, which was dependent on
the supply of the water forming the subject-matter of the right. The use of the water
was accordingly an incident of possession of each farm which was, in my view,
interfered with by the actions of the appellant‟s servants. Indeed in the Xsinet decision
itself it was said at the end of para 12 (at 314C - D):
“Xsinet happened to use the services at its premises, but this cannot be
described as an incident of possession in the same way as the use of water or
electricity installations may in certain circumstances be an incident of
occupation of residential premises.”
In my view, unless the Bon Quelle decision is to be overturned, the respondents have
clearly established that the rights to water enjoyed by the individual respondents and
the entities represented by the other respondents were capable of protection by the
mandament van spolie.‟
[11] The respondent in the present matter finds himself in a position
similar to that of the water users in the Impala case. Water users have a
statutory right to the supply of water in terms of s 11(1) of the Water
Services Act which imposes a duty on a water services authority to ensure
access to water services to consumers. It follows that the respondent‟s
right to a water supply to the property could not be classified as purely
contractual. As in the Impala case the respondent‟s right to a water
supply was subsumed into rights under the Water Services Act and
cannot be described as merely personal rights resulting from a contract as
contended by counsel for the City.
[12] I turn to the second issue of whether the City‟s interference with
the respondent‟s water supply was authorised by the Water Services Act
or the relevant water by-law and the City‟s debt collection by-laws, and is
therefore lawful. As a justification for the City‟s conduct in shutting off
the water supply, the City relied, in the first instance, on s 30(1) of the
water by-law which provides as follows -
„(1)
Subject to any other right the municipality may have, the City Manager may,
if an owner has failed to pay a sum due in terms of the Tariff Policy By-law, by
written notice inform him or her of the intention to restrict or cut off the supply of
water on a specified date and to restrict or cut off such supply on or after that date.‟
[13] The city also relied on s 11(2)(d) of the Water Services Act, which
provides that the duty of a water services authority to ensure access to
water services is subject to a duty of consumers to pay reasonable charges
and s 11(g) which authorises the water services authority „to limit or
discontinue the provision of water services if there is a failure to comply
with reasonable conditions set for the provision of such services‟. In
counsel‟s heads of argument reliance was also placed on s 9 of the debt
collection by-law. It provides that the City Manager may restrict or
disconnect the supply of any service to the premises of any user when
such user inter alia fails to make payment on the due date. Reference was
also made to s 6(5) of the Credit Control and Debt Collection Policy
where it is provided that the City shall inter alia not provide any services
to any persons who are in arrears with municipal accounts, except as
provided for in the policy as determined by the City from time to time.
[14] Armed with this arsenal of statutory provisions, the City
considered that immediate disconnection of the water supply to the
respondent‟s property was authorised. In my view, the City appears to
have overlooked the provisions of s 4(3)(a) of the Water Services Act,
which requires that „the limitation or discontinuation of water services
must be fair and equitable‟ and its own dispute resolution procedures
provided for in the Credit Control and Debt Collection Policy. Section 7
of the policy lays down the procedure to be followed when the water user
(debtor) has declared a dispute. Section 7(3)(a) thereof provides that all
disputes must be concluded by the City Manager within 30 days. Section
7(3)(d) provides for an appeal where the water user is not satisfied with
the outcome of the purported resolution of the dispute. The appeal is
lodged in terms of s 62 of the Local Government: Municipal Systems Act
32 of 2000.
[15] In my view, the dispute resolution procedures provided for in s 7 of
the City‟s policy were meant to meet the threshold requirements of
„fairness and equity‟ referred to in s 4(3)(a) of the Water Services Act.
The notification in the statement of account sent to a consumer (debtor)
suggesting that payment should be made even if the debtor is involved in
a dispute with the City, appears to fly in the face of the provisions of
fairness and equity referred to in s 4(3)(a) and the dispute resolution
procedures referred to above. To expect the respondent to pay R182 000
while he is disputing the very amount erodes the principles of fairness
contemplated in s 4(3)(a) and the dispute resolution procedures. The
harshness of the demand for payment could, however, be ameliorated by
the City insisting that the water user continue to pay his or her usual
monthly average water charge while an attempt is being made to resolve
the dispute. In my view that arrangement would be fair to both the water
user and the water services authority. This would also satisfy the fairness
and equity standard set in s 4(3)(a).
[16] There is no acceptable reason given by the City in this case as to
why the procedure prescribed in s 7 of the policy was not followed before
the water supply was to the respondent‟s property was shut off. The City
did not even provide to the respondent a written acknowledgment of
receipt of the dispute, as required by s 7(2)(e) of the policy. The flimsy
excuse given by the City, during argument, namely that the procedure
was not followed because the account number of the respondent was not
given in the letter declaring a dispute, appears to be an afterthought and
falls to be rejected.
[17] Counsel for the City also attempted to place reliance on the
judgment of this court in Rademan v Moqhaka Municipality & others
2012 (2) SA 387 (SCA) as a justification for the City‟s abrupt
disconnection of the water supply to the property. Such reliance is
however misplaced for two important reasons. First, the case dealt with
discontinuance of electricity supply to defaulters. Second, the case is
distinguishable on the facts in that in the Rademan case there was a
deliberate withholding of payment by the defaulters „who claimed to be
unhappy with the municipal services rendered by the municipality‟. (See
para 2 of the judgment).
[18] It follows therefore that there was in my view no justification for
the City to cut off the water supply to the property.
[19] Finally I turn to the question whether the spoliation order was the
appropriate remedy in the circumstances. I consider that it was. A
spoliation order is available where a person has been deprived of his or
her possession of movable or immovable property or his or her quasi-
possession of an incorporeal. A fundamental principle at issue here is that
nobody may take the law into their own hands. In order to preserve order
and peace in society the court will summarily grant an order for
restoration of the status quo where such deprivation has occurred and it
will do so without going into the merits of the dispute. The evidence in
the present matter shows that the respondent for the past 37 years
received an uninterrupted supply of water from the City at the time when
that service was summarily terminated. I have already alluded to the fact
that the respondent‟s rights to water were not merely personal rights
flowing from a contract but public law rights10 to receive water, which
exist independently of any contractual relationship the respondent had
with the City. The respondent‟s use of the water was an incident of
possession of the property. Clearly interference by the City with the
respondent‟s access to the water supply was akin to deprivation of
possession of property. There is therefore no reason in principle why a
water user who is deprived of a water service summarily by a water
service authority, without that authority complying with its procedural
formalities for dispute resolution laid down in its own by-laws, should not
be able to claim reconnection of the water supply by means of a
spoliation order. It therefore follows that the mandament van spolie was
available to the respondent and the courts below were correct in granting
the relief claimed by the respondent.
[20] Accordingly the appeal is dismissed with costs.
10 Joseph & others v City of Johannesburg & others 2010 (4) SA 55 (CC) para 34.
______________________
K K MTHIYANE
DEPUTY PRESIDENT
APPEARANCES
For Appellant:
EA de Villiers-Jansen
Instructed by:
Adriaans Attorneys, Cape Town
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For Respondent:
RS van Riet SC
Instructed by:
Hannes Pretorius Bock & Isaacs c/o Visagie
Vos, Cape Town
Bock Van Es Nikamanzi, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
30 March 2012
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form
part of the judgment.
City of Cape Town v Strümpher (104/2011) [2012] ZASCA 54 (30 March 2012)
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) dismissed an appeal against an order of
the Western Cape High Court, Cape Town. The appellant supplied water to a
property in the Strand owned by the respondent. The respondent declared a
dispute regarding certain charges and refused to pay them. As a result the
appellant cut off the water supply to the property.
The Strand Magistrates’ Court granted a spoliation order in terms of which the
appellant was directed to reconnect the water supply. This order was upheld
by the high court, which order was the subject of the appeal before the SCA.
The SCA held that the respondent’s right to water was not based solely on the
contract which he had concluded with the appellant, but was underpinned by
the constitutional and statutory obligations placed on the appellant in terms of
s 27 of the 1996 Constitution and s 3(1) of the Water Services Act 108 of
1997.
The SCA further found that the appellant overlooked its own dispute
resolution procedures as well as the requirement in s 4(3)(a) of the Water
Services Act ie ‘the limitation or discontinuation of water services must be fair
and equitable’ in its decision to cut off the water supply.
The Court also held that a spoliation order was an appropriate order, in the
circumstances, as the respondent was summarily deprived of his property, as
the respondent’s use of the water was an incident of possession of property.
In the result the appeal was dismissed with costs. |
3260 | non-electoral | 2007 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case Number : 89 / 07
In the matter between
WILMOT MANDLA CHAGI & 29 OTHERS
APPELLANTS
and
SPECIAL INVESTIGATING UNIT
RESPONDENT
Coram :
NAVSA, BRAND, JAFTA, PONNAN et COMBRINCK JJA
Date of hearing :
9 NOVEMBER 2007
Date of delivery : 29 NOVEMBER 2007
SUMMARY
Special Investigating Units established in terms of Act 74 of 1996 - separate juristic entities –
liability for the wrongful acts of the one does not devolve upon the other.
______
Neutral citation: This judgment may be referred to as :
Chagi v Special Investigating Unit [2007] SCA 159 (RSA)
___________________________________________________________________
PONNAN JA
[1] On 14 June 1995, the Premier of the Eastern Cape acting pursuant to the
provisions of the Interim Constitution, established a commission under the
chairmanship of Justice Willem Heath, to investigate fraud and corruption in the
government of the Eastern Cape and its constituent parts.1 On 20 November 1996,
the Special Investigating Units and Special Tribunals Act 74 of 1996 (‘the Act’) was
promulgated. According to the long title of the Act, its purpose is:
‘To provide for the establishment of Special Investigating Units for the purpose of investigating serious
malpractices or maladministration in connection with the administration of State institutions, State
assets and public money as well as any conduct which may seriously harm the interests of the public,
and for the establishment of Special Tribunals so as to adjudicate upon civil matters emanating from
investigations by the Special Investigating Units; and to provide for matters incidental thereto.’
[2] Section 2(1) of the Act empowered the President to establish a Special
Investigating Unit (‘SIU’) for the purposes of investigating allegations of serious mal-
administration or unlawful or improper conduct on any of the grounds specified in s
2(2) of the Act. Section 14(1) of the Act provides:
‘The President may, in respect of any Commission of Inquiry ─
(a)
appointed by him or her prior to the commencement of this Act; or
(b)
appointed by any other executive authority prior to the commencement of this Act,
upon the request of such executive authority,
and if the objects of such Commission can in his or her opinion better be achieved by a Special
Investigating Unit and a Special Tribunal, by proclamation in the Gazette dissolve such Commission
and establish a Special Investigating Unit and a Special Tribunal in its place in terms of this Act:...’.
[3] On 14 March 1997 and at the request of the Premier of the Eastern Cape, the
President, acting in terms of s 14(1) of the Act and by virtue of Proclamation R24 of
1997,2 dissolved the Heath Commission and established in its place a Special
Investigating Unit (‘the first SIU’) to be headed, in accordance with s 3(1) of the Act,
by Justice Heath, as well as a Special Tribunal (‘ST’) with Justice GPC Kotze as the
Tribunal President.
1 Appointment of Commission of Inquiry into Matters Relating to State Property and other Property,
EC, PN10, PG72, 14 June 1195.
2 Published in Regulation Gazette 5884, Government Gazette 17854.
[4] On 11 November 1997 and in terms of s 2(4) of the Act, the President, by
Proclamation R72 of 1997,3 amended Proclamation R24 by expanding upon the
terms of reference of the first SIU. On 30 June 1998 and in terms of Proclamation
R66 of 1998,4 the President referred certain specified matters appertaining to the
former Transkei Agricultural Corporation (‘Tracor’), for investigation by the first SIU
and, if needs be, for adjudication emanating from such investigation, to the ST.
[5] On 28 November 2000, the Constitutional Court declared s 3(1) of the Act as
well as Proclamation R24 of 1997 to be inconsistent with the Constitution and invalid
but suspended its declaration of invalidity for a period of 1 year.5 The Act was
subsequently amended with effect from 31 July 2001 by the Special Investigating
Units and Special Tribunals Amendment Act 2 of 2001 to bring it into line with the
judgment of the Constitutional Court. By Proclamation R118 of 2001,6 the President
repealed Proclamation R24 and established a new Special Investigating Unit (‘the
second SIU’) with William Andrew Hofmeyr as its head.
[6] Paragraph 6 of Proclamation R118 of 2001 provides:
‘The Special Investigating Unit established under paragraph 2 of this Proclamation [the second SIU]
shall continue to investigate all the matters which were referred to the Special Investigating Unit
established by Proclamation No. R24 of 14 March 1997 [the first SIU], including those matters
referred to it by the said Proclamation and the Proclamations mentioned in the Schedule. Any
reference in paragraph 3 of the Proclamations set out in the Schedule to “Proclamation No. R24 of 14
March 1997”, must be interpreted as a reference to this proclamation.’
Amongst the Proclamations referred to in the Schedule, is Proclamation R66 of
1998, which authorised the investigation into the affairs of Tracor.
[7] Tracor was wound up during 1998. On 15 August 2001, the 30 appellants in
this matter, who were then unemployed but who previously jointly constituted the
management of Tracor, issued summons out of the Grahamstown High Court
against defendants described as the Special Investigating Unit established in terms
of Proclamation R66 of 1998 (the first defendant) and the MEC for the Department of
3 Published in Regulation Gazette 6046, Government Gazette 18431.
4 Published in Regulation Gazette 6223, Government Gazette 19030.
5 South African Association of Personal Injury Lawyers v Heath and Others 2001 (1) SA 883 (CC).
6 Published in Regulation Gazette 7128, Government Gazette 22531.
Agriculture and Land Affairs (Eastern Cape) (the second defendant).7 The summons
comprised four claims, only two of which, namely A and C, are relevant for present
purposes.
[8] Paraphrased these claims read:
CLAIM A:
(a)
During August 1998, the plaintiffs had held banking accounts at various banking institutions;
(b)
On or about 25 August 1998 and in court papers in proceedings instituted by the first and
second defendants against the plaintiffs before the ST in East London, the first and second
defendants stated to the management and staff of the aforementioned banking institutions of
and concerning the plaintiffs that the plaintiffs had:
(i)
stolen and fraudulently misappropriated a sum of R3.3 million from Tracor; and
(ii)
utilised Tracor funds without its permission to settle outstanding balances owed by
them to financial institutions in respect of motor vehicles in their possession held
under various motor vehicle schemes obtaining at Tracor.
(c)
The founding papers in the aforesaid proceedings together with the temporary interdict were
served upon all of the aforementioned banking institutions and a statement to the aforegoing
effect was later published in the Daily Dispatch newspaper.
(d)
The aforementioned statements by the first and second defendant were:
(i)
wrongful and defamatory of the plaintiffs;
(ii)
made with the intention to defame the plaintiffs and to injure them in their dignity and
reputation; and
(iii)
understood by the management and staff at the aforementioned banking institutions
to mean that the plaintiffs were bad and disreputable managers, corrupt and
dishonest individuals and are thieves and frauds.
(e)
As a result of the aforesaid defamation, the plaintiffs have been damaged in their dignity and
reputation and each suffered damages in the estimated sum of R400 000 for which the first
defendant is liable.
CLAIM C:
(a)
On or about 21 August 1999, the first and second defendants wrongfully, unlawfully,
maliciously and intentionally set the law in motion against the plaintiffs by levelling false
accusations against them in an application for an interdict pendente lite before the ST in East
London.
(b)
When launching the aforesaid application the defendants had no reasonable and probable
cause for doing so, nor did they have any reasonable belief in the truth of the information
given to them.
7 A third defendant who was also cited in the summons but whose particulars are not presently
relevant has been omitted.
(c)
As a result of the grant of the temporary interdict, the plaintiffs’ bank accounts were frozen
and the plaintiffs were deprived of access to their funds.
(d)
During on or about March 2000, the first and second defendants withdrew the action that had
been instituted against the plaintiffs which resulted in the aforesaid interdict also falling away.
(e)
The plaintiffs incurred legal costs in defending the aforesaid application and action.
(f)
As a result of the freezing of their bank accounts, the plaintiffs suffered an impairment of their
dignity.
(g)
The aforementioned conduct by the first and second defendants was degrading, insulting,
injurious and humiliating to the plaintiffs.
(h)
The aforesaid conduct by the said defendants was wrongful and perpetrated with animo
iniuriandi.
(i)
As a result of the defendants’ aforesaid conduct, the plaintiffs suffered damages in the sum of
R150 000 each for the impairment of their dignity and the amount of R5 000 each in respect
of attorney and client costs.
[9] The plaintiffs’ claim was met with the following special plea:
(1)
First defendant pleads that it was established on 25 July 2001 by virtue of the
provisions of Proclamation R118 of 2001 (the new unit).
(3)
A Special Investigating Unit had been established in terms of Proclamation R24 of
1997 …( the old unit).
(3)
The plaintiffs’ complaints and claims all relate to the period August 1998 to March
2000 and are all therefore directed against the old unit.
(4)
The old unit was abolished in terms of the provisions of paragraph 1 of Proclamation
R118 and therefore no longer exists.
(6)
The first defendant pleads that it was established as a completely new unit in terms of
the provisions of Proclamation R118, and that it took over no rights, powers,
obligations, or liabilities of the old unit, other than the powers set out in paragraph 6 of
Proclamation R118. The first defendant therefore has no jurisdiction to deal with the
matters in issue in the plaintiffs’ claims, and therefore has no locus standi to be sued
herein.
(7)
In the premises plaintiffs have no claim against the first defendant and their claims
against the first defendant should be dismissed with costs.’
[10] Dambuza AJ upheld the special plea and dismissed both claims. The
plaintiffs appeal with leave of this Court. The sole issue for determination in this
appeal is whether liability for the plaintiffs’ claims has devolved upon the second SIU,
(‘the respondent’). For the reasons that follow the conclusion reached by the court
below on this aspect of the case cannot be faulted.
[11] A unit such as the respondent is similar to a commission of inquiry and, like a
commission, is constrained by the boundaries set by the Act and its founding
proclamation.8 Proclamation R118 of 2001 provides, neither expressly nor by
necessary implication, for the rights and obligations of the first SIU to devolve upon
the second SIU, the respondent. That Proclamation served a dual purpose. First, it
dissolved the first SIU; and, second, it established the respondent. Those purposes
could likewise have been achieved by the promulgation, with an intervening time-
lapse between them, of two separate proclamations, the first, dissolving the first SIU
and the second establishing the respondent. Had that happened it could not, without
more, have been suggested that the respondent was the de jure successor in title of
the first SIU, and thus liable for any wrongful act perpetrated by it. That a single
proclamation achieved both ends did not create a legal nexus between the two units
where none otherwise existed.
[12] Moreover, it was permissible for the President, if he deemed it necessary, to
establish more than one SIU. That, theoretically at any rate, is what the Act
authorised. And each, according to s 13 of the Act, was to be a separate juristic
person. Had that occurred, liability for the wrongful acts of the one would not have
devolved upon any of the others. So too in this case, for by parity of reasoning, the
consequence of the original actor’s (the first SIU’s) unlawful conduct could not,
absent any legal nexus, be imputed to the respondent.
[13] Finally, if the intention had been for liability of the first SIU to devolve upon the
second, that could have been simply and briefly stated by the Legislature. That
would obviously have been a clearer and more effective, indeed an easier, method
of expression than the implication inherent in mere silence.9 After all, it must be
accepted that the Act and the Proclamation has dealt exhaustively with the subject
matter. To accede to the argument urged upon us on behalf of the appellants would
defeat the purpose of those enactments.
8 S v Naudé 1975 (1) SA 681 (A) at 704B-E; Special Investigating Unit v Nadasen 2002 (1) SA 605
(SCA) para 5.
9 Per Howie J in Muller v Chairman, Ministers’ Council, House of Representatives 1992 (2) SA 508
(C) at 524E.
[14] It should perhaps be added that the appellants were not without remedy. They
could have brought the relevant department of National Government before court by
citing the responsible political head of that department in a representative capacity.
In this case that would have been the Minister of Justice. That is what s 2 of the
State Liability Act 20 of 1957 provides.10 Approached thus, the mishap encountered
here may well have been avoided.
[15] It follows that the appeal must fail. In the result the appeal is dismissed with
costs.
___________________
V M PONNAN
JUDGE OF APPEAL
CONCUR:
NAVSA JA
BRAND JA
JAFTA JA
COMBRINCK AJA
10 Jayiya v Member of the Executive Council for Welfare, Eastern Cape 2004 (2) SA 611 (SCA) para
5. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
29 November 2007
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form
part of the judgment.
WILMOT MANDLA CHAGI & 29 OTHERS v SPECIAL INVESTIGATING UNIT
(Case No 89 / 07)
Media Statement
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (‘SCA’) dismissed an appeal by Wilmot Chagi and 29
Others. The 30 appellants jointly constituted the management of the Transkei Agricultural
Corporation (‘Tracor’). Tracor was wound up in 1998. During June 1998, the President
referred certain matters relating to Tracor for investigation to the Special Investigating Unit,
commonly referred to as the Heath Commission. On 28 November 2000, the Constitutional
Court declared provisions of the enabling statute and the regulation in terms of which the
Heath Commission had been established to be unconstitutional. On 31 July 2001, the
President established a new Special Investigating Unit (the respondent) under the
chairmanship of William Andrew Hofmeyr.
During 2001 the appellants issued summons out of the Grahamstown High Court alleging that
they had been defamed and maliciously prosecuted by the Heath Commission. They sought
to recover their loss and damage from the respondent. The respondent raised a special plea
that liability for the wrongful acts of the Heath Commission had not devolved upon it. The
special plea was upheld by the High Court. The SCA agreed, holding that in terms of the
regulation dissolving the Heath Commission and establishing the respondent, the latter was
not the de jure successor of the former. The SCA accordingly dismissed the appeal with
costs.
--- ends --- |
1343 | non-electoral | 2010 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 169/09
In the matter between:
MEC FOR ECONOMIC AFFAIRS, ENVIRONMENT APPELLANT
& TOURISM: EASTERN CAPE
v
KLAAS KRUIZENGA FIRST RESPONDENT
HENQUE 2189 CC t/a WIMRIE BOERDERY SECOND RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
MEC for Economic Affairs, Environment & Tourism v
Kruizenga (169/2009) [2010] ZASCA 58 (1 April 2010).
Coram:
Harms DP; Nugent, Cachalia, Leach JJA et Seriti AJA
Heard:
9 March 2010
Delivered:
1 April 2010
Summary:
An attorney has ostensible (apparent) authority to bind the client at a pre-
trial conference convened in terms of rule 37 of the Uniform Rules even if the effect of
the agreement is to settle an opposing party’s claim.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Eastern Cape High Court (Bhisho) (Van Zyl J sitting as court
of first instance).
The following order is made:
‘The appeal is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.’
________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
CACHALIA JA (Harms DP, Nugent, Leach JJA and Seriti AJA concurring):
[1] This appeal deals with the question of an attorney’s ostensible (apparent)
authority to reach agreement at a pre-trial conference convened in terms of rule
37 of the Uniform Rules even if the effect of the agreement is to settle an
opposing party’s claim. The Eastern Cape High Court, Bhisho (Van Zyl J)1 held
that by instructing the State Attorney to defend the action and to brief counsel to
conduct his defence, the appellant represented to the outside world that his legal
representatives had ‘the usual authority that applies to their office’. And by not
informing the respondents that their authority was limited, he ‘must reasonably
have expected that persons who dealt with his agents would believe that they
had the authority to compromise the claims’. So, the court concluded, he was
estopped (prohibited) from denying the authority of his legal representatives to
agree to the settlement.2 The learned judge thus held that the appellant was not
1 MEC for Economic Affairs, Environment and Tourism v Kruisenga 2008 (6) SA 264 (CkHC).
2 Para 69.
entitled to escape the consequences of the agreement which his legal
representatives had made. He also refused the appellant leave to appeal but this
court granted the necessary leave.
[2] The dispute forms part of the litigation in a trial action in which the two
respondents claim damages from the appellant in his representative capacity
arising from an alleged negligent failure of the provincial government’s
employees to take preventative measures to contain a fire. The fire started on
provincial government property under the appellant’s control and spread to the
respondents’ adjoining properties causing extensive damage to their vegetation
and infrastructure.
[3] The factual background and chronology of the present dispute is set out in
the high court’s reported judgment and need not be repeated in detail.3 In
essence the dispute concerns whether the agreements, which the State Attorney
reached with the respondents at two rule 37 pre-trial conferences without the
appellant’s authority, are binding. The minute of the first conference, which was
signed by the parties’ attorneys some six months later, records that the appellant
had conceded ‘the merits of the plaintiff’s case and the only aspect that remains
in dispute between the parties and which remains to be resolved is that of
quantum’. The second conference was held, almost 18 months later, after the
trial judge, on the morning before the trial commenced, enquired from the parties’
legal representatives whether any attempt had been made to settle the dispute
over quantum. The matter then stood down for the parties to consider settlement
proposals. They met the following day. The minute of this meeting, which was
signed by attorneys and counsel for the parties, records the appellant to have
admitted liability for some heads of the damages claimed whilst the dispute over
the remaining heads would proceed to trial. This minute, which incorporated the
earlier agreement, was placed before the judge. The appellant then sought a
postponement of the whole case, which the judge refused in the light of the
3 Paras 1-8.
admissions made. The high court accordingly made an order based on the
admitted liability and postponed the hearing concerning the outstanding issues.
[4] Thereafter, with a view to reopening the provincial government’s case on
the merits, the appellant launched an application to rescind and set aside the
court order and to withdraw the admissions his legal representatives had made
as recorded in the pre-trial minutes. He grounded his application on an allegation
of the existence of a general practice or instruction – but unbeknown to the
respondents or their legal representatives – to the effect that the State Attorney
needed his or the head of department’s express authority to settle or compromise
a claim and concomitantly on the State Attorney’s failure to obtain his specific
authority to concede the merits of the action or to settle certain heads of damage.
(There is no suggestion that counsel, who was instructed to appear for the state,
was aware that the State Attorney lacked authority and for present purposes only
the latter’s authority is in issue.) Although there was a factual dispute concerning
the existence of the general practice the high court approached the matter on the
basis that there was such a practice. And I will likewise do so.
[5] The appellant’s application for rescission was brought under the common
law and not in terms of Uniform rules 31 or 42. Mr Buchanan, who appears for
the appellant, contends that the appointment of attorney and counsel, in itself,
does not give rise to a representation that they have full authority, not only to
conduct the litigation, but to compromise a claim or to consent to judgment
against the client. The law, he submits, requires express – not merely apparent
authority – for this purpose. And so he contends, because the State Attorney
agreed to compromise the claim in conflict with general practice – and that
judgment was granted pursuant thereto – this entitles the appellant to the relief
claimed.
[6] It is important to reiterate what was said at the outset – the issue in this
matter is whether the appellant may resile from agreements made by his
attorney, without his knowledge, at a rule 37 conference. The judgment does not
deal with agreements reached outside of the context of conducting a trial in the
normal course of events. The rule was introduced to shorten the length of trials,
to facilitate settlements between the parties, narrow the issues and to curb
costs.4 One of the methods the parties use to achieve these objectives is to
make admissions concerning the number of issues which the pleadings raise.5
Admissions of fact made at a rule 37 conference, constitute sufficient proof of
those facts.6 The minutes of a pre-trial conference may be signed either by a
party or his or her representative.7 Rule 37 is thus of critical importance in the
litigation process. This is why this court has held that in the absence of any
special circumstances a party is not entitled to resile from an agreement
deliberately reached at a rule 37 conference.8 And when, as in this case, the
agreements are confirmed by counsel in open court, and are then made a
judgment or order of a court, the principle applies with even more force.
[7] It is settled law that a client’s instruction to an attorney to sue or to defend
a claim does not generally include the authority to settle or compromise a claim
or defence without the client’s approval.9 The rule has been applied to a
judgment consented to by an attorney without his client’s authority10 and also
when the attorney did so in the mistaken belief that his client had authorised him
to do so.11 This principle accords with the rule in the law of agency that where an
agent exceeds the express or implied authority in transacting, the principal is not
bound by the transaction.12
4 LTC Harms Civil Procedure in the Supreme Court Issue 39 para B37.2.
5 Rule 37(6)(e).
6 Price NO v Allied-JBS Building Society 1980 (3) SA 874 (A) 882D-H.
7 Rule 37(6).
8 Filta-Matix (Pty) Ltd v Freudenberg & others 1998 (1) SA 606 (SCA) 614B-D.
9 Voet 3.3.18; Ras v Liquor Licensing Board, Area No. 10 Kimberley 1966 (2) SA 232 (C) 237E-F;
Goosen v Van Zyl 1980 (1) SA 706 (O) 709F-H; Bikitsha v Eastern Cape Development Board &
another 1988 (3) SA 522 (E) 527J-528A; 14 Lawsa 2 ed para 305.
10 Ntlabezo v MEC for Education, Culture and Sport, Eastern Cape 2001 (2) SA 1073 (TkHC)
1080-1081.
11 De Vos v Calitz and De Villiers 1916 CPD 465.
12 Francois du Bois et al Wille’s Principles of South African Law 9 ed (2007) p 998; See J.R
Midley Lawyers’ Professional Liability (1992) p 8, who holds the view that while the courts have
[8] But there appears to be some uncertainty in the way this principle has
been applied. Midgley observes that our courts, under the influence of English
law, have distinguished between settlements made outside of and those made
during the course of litigation – and appear to have accepted that the power to
settle a claim is one of the usual and customary powers afforded a legal
representative in the latter instance.13 So, in Mfaswe v Miller,14 an attorney’s clerk
compromised a claim on the day of the trial before the client had arrived at court.
He did so fearing that if the client did not arrive in good time default judgment
may be given against him. Thereafter the client sued his attorney for the full
amount of the original claim. The court said that the clerk had accepted the
compromise ‘in the exercise of the discretion vested in an attorney’.15 And
because he had acted in good faith, and was not negligent, the court held that
the attorney was not liable to the client in damages. Alexander v Klitzke16
provides an interesting example of an attorney’s general authority. The defendant
had alleged that his attorney’s general authority did not empower him to accept
the plaintiff’s tender of settlement, but the court disagreed, saying:
‘The authority of a power of attorney which is filed by the client, to carry his case to final
end and determination, does include authority to make a bona fide compromise in the
interests of his client, and at any rate, if a client wishes to repudiate such a compromise
made on his behalf, then I certainly think that the repudiation should be a timeous one.’17
In Klopper v Van Rensburg,18 in an ex parte application for a temporary interdict
to restrain the sale of usufructuary property, and in answer to a question from the
court, counsel stated that if security were given by the respondent for the value of
sometimes used the terms ‘mandatory’ and ‘agent’ interchangeably to describe the attorney-client
relationship, the preferable view is that when engaged in litigation on a client’s behalf the attorney
is acting as an agent and not merely as a mandatory.
13 J R Midgley ‘The Nature and Extent of a Lawyer’s Authority’ (1994) 111 SALJ 415 p 420.
14 (1901) 18 SC 172.
15 Above p 175.
16 1918 EDL 87.
17 Above at 88.
18 1920 EDL 239.
the property sold, that would meet the case. When the respondent thereafter
tendered security, and the applicant rejected it contending that counsel had no
authority to agree to a tender of security, the court held that he was bound by his
counsel’s offer as the latter ‘was only doing his plain duty (to) his client. He was
making an offer in his client’s best interests, and an offer which . . . he had every
right to make’.19
[9] However, recently, in Hawkes v Hawkes20 the court seemed to adopt a
different approach by placing emphasis on whether the agreement concluded
was in the client’s best interests, rather than on the discretion exercised by the
client’s legal representative. It held that where an advocate gave an undertaking
to the court on behalf of his client without having a mandate to that effect in the
attorney’s absence and contrary to his client’s best interests and also in conflict
with his mandate to oppose an interdict sought against his client the client was
not bound thereby. This approach resonates with the view adopted in Bikitsha v
Eastern Cape Development Board & another,21 where an attorney, before
summons had been issued, without having his client’s consent, advised his
opponent that his client was prepared to waive the ‘prescriptive period’. In
holding the client not bound by his attorney’s waiver, the court noted that ‘for acts
of great prejudice an attorney needs a special mandate’22 and ‘[a] general
mandate does not authorise an attorney to act in a manner adverse to his client’s
interests’.23
[10] The courts have also distinguished the ambit of the authority of attorneys
in private practice from that accorded to the State Attorney holding that the latter
has wider general authority because such authority is derived from statute.24 It
has thus been held that the fact that a senior government official is unaware of
19 Above p 242.
20 2007 (2) SA 100 (SE).
21 Cited above, n 9.
22 At 527I-J.
23 At 528A.
24 Section 3 of the State Attorney Act 56 of 1957.
and has not expressly approved of a settlement concluded by counsel on the
Deputy State Attorney’s instructions does not entitle the government to resile
from the settlement.25 Moult v Minister of Agriculture and Forestry, Transkei26
provides a clearer example of the breadth of the State Attorney’s authority. The
plaintiff sued the government for damages arising out of a motor-vehicle collision
– but out of the twelve-month statutory expiry period. The State Attorney, as in
Bikitsha,27 had previously waived strict compliance with this requirement. The
government alleged that it was not bound by the waiver. Beck CJ, however,
distinguished those cases involving private attorneys, such as Bikitsha, and held
that the waiver ‘was of a kind which Government ordinarily leaves to the
Government attorney to decide’. He found that the State Attorney’s authority
derives from ‘the particular capacity in which the agent has been employed by
the principal and from the usual and customary powers that are found to pertain
to such an agent as belonging to a particular category of agents’.28
[11] To summarise it would appear that our courts have dealt with questions
relating to the actual authority of an attorney to transact on a client’s behalf in the
following manner: Attorneys generally do not have implied authority to settle or
compromise a claim without the consent of the client. However, the instruction to
an attorney to sue or defend a claim may include the implied authority to do so
provided the attorney acts in good faith. And the courts have said that they will
set aside a settlement or compromise that does not have the client’s authority
where, objectively viewed, it appears that the agreement is unjust and not in the
client’s best interests. The office of the State Attorney, by virtue of its statutory
authority as a representative of the government, has a broader discretion to bind
25 Dlamini v Minister of Law and Order & another 1986 (4) SA 342 (D).
26 1992 (1) SA 688 (TkGD) 692H-I.
27 Above para 9.
28 Above at 692H-I citing Botha J in Inter-Continental Finance and Leasing Corporation (Pty) Ltd v
Stands 56 and 57 Industria Ltd & another 1979 (3) SA 740 (W) at 748D.
the government to an agreement than that ordinarily possessed by private
practitioners, though it is not clear just how broad the ambit of this authority is.29
[12] My discussion thus far has been concerned with the limits of an attorney’s
actual authority to bind a client without the latter’s consent. The question arises in
this case is whether a client may be estopped from denying the authority of his
attorney to settle or compromise a claim.30
[13] The issue arose in this court in Hlobo v Multilateral Motor Vehicle
Accidents Fund.31 The case concerned a claimant’s claim for compensation on
behalf of her minor daughter, who had been injured in a motor vehicle accident.
A settlement agreement, which had been preceded by months of negotiation
during litigation, was concluded by Messrs Lowe and De la Harpe, who
respectively acted as attorneys for the claimant and the Fund. De la Harpe
submitted proposals for the final form of the agreement to the Fund. As in this
case, the proposals were recorded in a rule 37 minute. A letter from the Fund’s
claims-handler, confirmed its acceptance of the proposals. And acting on this
confirmation De La Harpe settled the claim. The Fund then sought to have the
agreement set aside on the ground that the agreement concluded between the
parties’ attorneys had been reached on the strength of a communication from the
claims-handler who had no power to authorise the settlement. The court rejected
the Fund’s defence. In the course of its judgment it said the following:
‘What all this shows is that in his dealings with Mr De la Harpe, Mr Lowe would have had
no reason to question his (De la Harpe's) authority. He in fact did not do so. From
Mr Lowe's point of view De la Harpe had at least ostensible authority to conclude the
settlement. All the requirements which must be satisfied before reliance upon ostensible
authority can succeed were satisfied. Respondent had appointed Mr De la Harpe as its
attorney. It was known to it that he was conducting settlement negotiations on its behalf.
29 See Generally J R Midgley ‘The Nature and Extent of a Lawyer’s Authority’ (1994) 111 SALJ
415.
30 Ras v Liquor Licensing Board (above) n 9 at 238G-H.
31 2001 (2) SA 59 (SCA).
It allowed him to do so and in so doing clothed him with apparent authority to settle on its
behalf. The appellant, through her attorney, relied upon the apparent existence of
authority and compromised the claim on the strength of its existence. Absent any other
defence, the settlement is binding upon the respondent. In fact, of course, he had
express authority which it is now sought to repudiate.’32
[14] The facts in Hlobo differ from the present one because there the attorney,
De La Harpe, was found to have had actual authority to conclude the agreement
– a point which Mr Buchanan pressed in argument in an effort to distinguish it.
The passage cited above dealing with De la Harpe’s apparent authority in the
judgment is, I accept, obiter. But, as I will show below, this does not detract from
its persuasive quality. I turn to the present matter.
[15] To establish apparent authority on the provincial government’s part, the
respondents aver that by appointing the State Attorney to defend the action
which necessarily entailed participating in various pre-trial processes, including
pre-trial conferences, it represented that he had authority to settle the claims.
[16] It is well-established that to hold a principal liable on the basis of the
agent’s apparent authority the representation must be rooted in the words or
conduct of the principal, and not merely that of his agent.33 Conduct may be
express or inferred from the ‘particular capacity in which an agent has been
employed by the principal and from the usual and customary powers that are
found to pertain to such an agent as belonging to a particular category of
agents’.34 It may also be inferred from the ‘aura of authority’ associated with a
position which a person occupies, at the principal’s instance, within an
institution.35
32 Hlobo at para 11.
33 NBS Bank Ltd v Cape Produce Co (Pty) Ltd 2002 (1) SA 396 (SCA) 412C-E; Glofinco v Absa
Bank Ltd t/a United Bank 2002 (6) SA 470 (SCA) para 13.
34 Per Botha J in Inter-Continental Finance and Leasing Corporation (Pty) Ltd v Stands 56 and 57
Industria Ltd & another 1979 (3) SA 740 (W) at 748D.
35 Glofinco v Absa Bank Ltd (above) n 34 para 1.
[17] Properly understood the representation from the principal in this case
relates only to the appointment of the State Attorney to defend the claim and to
instruct counsel in this regard. The further conduct relied on is not that of the
principal but of the agent himself and cannot in and of itself bind the principal.
The respondents’ true case is that by appointing the State Attorney to defend the
claim, the appellant represented to them, and they reasonably believed, that the
State Attorney had the usual and customary powers associated with the
appointment.36 These included instructing counsel to defend the claim, to draft
the plea and to attend all pre-trial procedures, including rule 37 conferences. In
other words the appellant represented to the respondents and the outside world
that the State Attorney had the authority not only to conduct the trial but also to
make concessions at the conferences and to conclude the settlement agreement
from which he now wishes to resile.
[18] During argument before us Mr Buchanan did not contend that the State
Attorney had no authority to attend the pre-trial conferences. He could hardly
have done so because such attendance by an attorney, as I have mentioned
earlier, is envisaged in the rule and clearly falls within the usual or customary
functions of an attorney in the litigation process. Instead his argument was that
the State Attorney’s authority was confined to attending the conference and
making certain admissions that may, in his judgment, have been necessary. But,
as I understand the submission, once he agreed to settle the claim, first by
conceding the merits and later by agreeing that his client was liable for certain
heads of the damages claimed, he not only exceeded his actual authority but
also his usual functions.
[19] Unsurprisingly Mr Buchanan had insurmountable difficulty attempting to
defend this assertion. In particular he was not able to draw the line between what
the State Attorney had the authority to agree on and what not. To test the
36 It is not the respondents’ case that by appointing the State Attorney they believed that he had
any wider or additional powers to an attorney in private practice.
assertion, suppose the attorney agreed on making certain factual admissions
without conceding liability in order to curtail the proceedings, which in hindsight
proved to have been a mistake. Realising the error he then attempts to withdraw
these admissions, but the other side refuses to allow him to do so. And faced
with the prospect of continuing the litigation at a disadvantage he agrees to a
settlement. It could hardly be asserted that the admissions fell within his usual
authority but the settlement, which amounts to a string of admissions, not. To test
the assertion further, would the admissions stand if the ‘merits’ were conceded
but not causation? And further, what if causation was conceded but not the
quantum of damages? What these intractable difficulties show ineluctably is that
it is impossible to draw any line between an attorney’s apparent authority to
attend and represent his client at a pre-trial conference and his apparent
authority to conclude agreements or make concessions there.
[20] I accept that, in this matter, by agreeing to the settlement the State
Attorney not only exceeded his actual authority, but did so against the express
instructions of his principal. As opprobrious as this conduct was, I cannot see
how this has any bearing on the respondents’ estoppel defence. The proper
approach is to consider whether the conduct of the party who is trying to resile
from the agreement has led the other party to reasonably believe that he was
binding himself.37 Viewed in this way it matters not whether the attorney acting
for the principal exceeds his actual authority, or does so against his client’s
express instructions. The consequence for the other party, who is unaware of
any limitation of authority, and has no reasonable basis to question the attorney’s
authority, is the same.38 That party is entitled to assume, as the respondents did,
that the attorney who is attending the conference clothed with an ‘aura of
authority’ has the necessary authority to do what attorney’s usually do at a rule
37 conference – they make admissions, concessions and often agree on
37 Hlobo para 12; Cf George v Fairmead (Pty) Ltd 1958 (2) SA 465 (A) 471A-D.
38 Cf City of Tshwane Metropolitan Municipality v RPM Bricks 2008 (3) SA 1 SCA para 12.
compromises and settlements. In the respondents’ eyes the State Attorney quite
clearly had apparent authority.39
[21] Mr Buchanan submitted further that to allow the estoppel defence where
an attorney exceeds his or her authority could lead to grave injustices and that
for policy reasons the estoppel defence should not be allowed in these
circumstances. There are two answers to this submission. First, Plewman JA
specifically recognized the competence of the defence in the passage quoted
above in Hlobo, albeit in an obiter dictum. And this court will not lightly depart
from a view it has previously expressed, even if only obiter.40 Secondly, because
estoppel is a rule of justice and equity, it is open to a court to disallow the
defence on this ground.41 It was not suggested that it would be either unjust or
inequitable to allow the defence in the circumstances of this case. Indeed, the
contrary is true. The prejudice to the respondents if the defence is not upheld is
evident – even with the appellant’s tender to pay the respondents’ wasted costs.
The respondents and their counsel prepared for trial on the basis of the
concessions and on the issues which remained in dispute – not on the merits or
on the heads of damages which were agreed upon. Moreover the appellants
have after all this time not even established a defence. To allow the appellant to
resile from these agreements, made over a period spanning 18 months, would
defeat the purpose of rule 37, which encourages settlements, and severely
hamper the conduct of civil trials. It would mean practically that attorneys can no
longer assume that their colleagues are authorised to make important decisions
in the course of litigation without the principal’s independent confirmation. This
cannot be countenanced.
39 Cf A J Kerr The Law of Agency 3 ed (1991) p 149.
40 Steenkamp v South African Broadcasting Corporation 2002 (1) SA 625 (SCA) 629F-G.
41 See generally P J Rabie and J C Sonnekus The Law of Estoppel in South Africa 2 ed (2000)
ch 7; Lord Denning in Moorgate Mercantile Co Ltd v Twitchings [1975] 3 All ER 314 (CA) at 323d-
g said: ‘(Estoppel) . . . is a principle of justice and of equity. It comes to this. When a man, by his
words or conduct, has led another to believe in a particular state of affairs, he will not be allowed
to go back on it when it would be unjust or inequitable for him to do so.’
[22] In the result I conclude that the high court was correct to hold that the
appellant is estopped from denying the authority of the State Attorney to enter
into the agreements in question.42 It follows that the appeal must fail. The order I
make is that the appeal is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two
counsel.
________________
A CACHALIA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
42 MEC for Economic Affairs v Kruizenga (above) n 1 para 69.
APPEARANCES
APPELLANTS:
R G Buchanan SC
Instructed by Wesley Pretorius and Associates,
East London
State Attorney; Bloemfontein
RESPONDENT:
H J van der Linde SC (with him P E Jooste)
Instructed by Jordaan & Pretorius Attorneys,
Plettenberg Bay
Rosendorff Reitz Barry, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
1 April 2010
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media
and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
MEC v Kruizenga
[1] The SCA today held that an attorney, who agrees at a pre-trial
conference in terms of rule 37 of the Uniform Rules to settle an opposing
party’s claim without his client’s authority, nevertheless has ostensible
(apparent) authority to bind the client to the agreement. It therefore dismissed
an appeal by the MEC for Economic Affairs, Environment and Tourism in the
Eastern Cape against a judgment of the high court in Bhisho, which had made
the same finding. It also ordered the MEC to pay the costs of the appeal,
including the costs of two counsel.
[2] The dispute formed part of the litigation in a trial action in which the two
respondents claim damages from the appellant in his representative capacity
arising from an alleged negligent failure of the provincial government’s
employees to take preventative measures to contain a fire. The fire started on
provincial government property under the appellant’s control and spread to
the respondents’ adjoining properties causing extensive damage to their
vegetation and infrastructure.
[3] In essence the dispute concerned whether the State Attorney, who had
reached certain agreements on behalf of the MEC with the respondents over
a period of 18 months at two pre-trial conferences convened in terms of rule
37, the effect of which was to settle most of the respondents’ claims, had
bound the MEC by these agreements. The MEC’s legal representatives
argued that the MEC was not bound because the State Attorney was not
authorised to make the agreements. The argument was made on the basis of
the existence of a general instruction that the State Attorney may not settle
any claim without the express authority of the MEC or the head of department.
[4] The SCA held that once the MEC had instructed the State Attorney to
defend the claim, this necessarily included his attending various pre-trial
processes, including pre-trial conferences. The MEC thereby represented to
the respondents that the State Attorney had the authority to settle the claims.
And because the respondents were unaware of any limitation of authority on
the State Attorney, it held that the MEC could not escape the consequences
of these agreements.
[5] The SCA held that to allow the MEC not to be bound by the
agreements, made over a period of 18 months, would defeat the purpose of
rule 37, which encourages settlements, and severely hamper the conduct of
civil trials. It would mean that attorneys can no longer assume that their
colleagues are authorised to make important decisions in the course of
litigation without their client’s authorisation.
[6] It thus held that the MEC was estopped (prohibited) from denying the
State Attorney’s authority to conclude the agreements in question. |
100 | non-electoral | 2017 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No:
777/2016
In the matter between:
MINISTER OF JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONAL
SERVICES
APPELLANT
and
JANUSZ JAKUB WALUS
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Minister of Justice and Correctional Services v Walus (777/2016)
[2017] ZASCA 99 (18 August 2017)
Coram:
Maya P, Shongwe ADP, Mbha and Van Der Merwe JJA and Schippers
AJA
Heard:
29 May 2017
Delivered: 18 August 2017
Summary: Parole – application therefor brought by respondent serving sentence of
life incarceration for murder in terms of s 136(1) of the Correctional
Services Act 111 of 1998 – appellant’s omission to consider widow of
deceased’s victim impact statement and the failure to furnish the
respondent therewith constituted material procedural irregularities in
terms of s 6(2) of the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000
vitiating the refusal to place the respondent on parole – decision
remitted for the appellant’s reconsideration.
__________________________________________________________________
ORDER
__________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Janse Van
Nieuwenhuizen J sitting as court of first instance):
1 The appeal is upheld with no order as to costs.
2 The matter is remitted to the appellant for his reconsideration and decision within
90 calendar days of this order.
__________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
__________________________________________________________________
Maya P (Shongwe ADP, Mbha JA, Van Der Merwe JA, Schippers AJA concurring):
[1] The crisp issue in this appeal is whether the Gauteng Division of the High
Court, Pretoria (Janse Van Nieuwenhuizen J) erred in reviewing and setting aside the
decision of the appellant, the Minister of Justice and Correctional Services (the
minister), not to place the respondent on parole, on the basis that it was irrational and
unreasonable. The appeal is with the leave of this Court.
[2] The background facts are simple. On 15 October 1993 the respondent, Mr
Janusz Jakub Walus, was convicted of the murder of the late Mr Thembisile ‘Chris’
Hani (the deceased) and the illegal possession of a firearm. The trial court (the
Witwatersrand Local Division per Eloff JP) found it especially aggravating that the
respondent and his co-accused,1 ‘simply arrogated to themselves the right to destroy
the life of a person because of their own political perceptions’. The court concluded
that the murder was a calculated, cold-blooded assassination of a defenceless victim
for which the perpetrators showed no remorse. It therefore sentenced the respondent
to death for the murder and five years’ imprisonment for the illegal possession of a
firearm.2 On appeal against the death sentences, this Court, on 7 November 2000, held
that the ‘atrocious crime [of murder] demands the severest punishment which the law
permits’. Accordingly, this Court commuted the death sentences to life imprisonment,
antedated to the date of sentence and ordered the sentence in respect of the other
count to run concurrently with the sentence of life imprisonment.3
[3] On 10 April 2015, following a hearing of the respondent’s application for
parole held in November 2013,4 the minister decided not to place him on parole at
that stage (the decision). By then the respondent had served 21 years and six months
of his sentence. The decision was couched as follows:
‘1. The placement of the offender on parole is not recommended at this stage.
2. A further profile of twelve (12) months is hereby approved.
3. In the interim, the Department is to assist the offender in the following:-
3.1 Restorative Justice Process:
It appears from the various reports that the offender has indicated a willingness to be afforded an
opportunity to personally apologize to the victim’s family. In the light of this, I am of the view that
it is crucial that he be afforded this opportunity to participate in this restorative justice process. This
process will, to an extent, restore the balance and the harm caused to the victim’s family hopefully,
1 Mr Clive Derby-Lewis, who is now deceased.
2 Mr Derby-Lewis was also sentenced to death for the murder and five years’ imprisonment for the illegal possession of
a firearm and unlawful possession of ammunition, which were taken together for purposes of sentence.
3 Following upon S v Makwanyane & another 1995 (3) SA 391 (CC) which outlawed capital punishment. This decision
declared the death sentence, in terms of s 277(1)(a), (c), (d), (e) and (f) of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 and all
corresponding provisions of other legislation in any part of the national territory in terms of s 229 of the Constitution of
the Republic of South Africa Act 200 of 1993, which sanctioned capital punishment, unconstitutional and accordingly
invalid.
4 The respondent had previously been considered for placement on parole in June 2011. That application was also
as well as the community as a whole. Furthermore, I am certain that this process will also assist the
offender [to] come to terms with the crime committed as well as to accept responsibility for the
crime and thereby contribute towards his own healing and rehabilitation pathway. This can be
achieved either through the VOD and/or VOM process or whichever process is deemed appropriate
by the qualified professionals.
3.2 Security:
The Department, together with other relevant structures should advise on the security threats, if any,
that might exist should the offender be released out on parole.’
[4] Aggrieved by the decision, the respondent launched application proceedings in
the court a quo on 4 June 2015. He sought the review and setting aside of the
decision, an order in terms of s 8(2) of the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act 3
of 2000 (PAJA) placing him on parole with immediate effect on such conditions as
the court deemed appropriate under s 65 of the Correctional Services Act 8 of 1959
(the 1959 Act) and ancillary relief. The respondent raised a number of review
grounds. He alleged, inter alia, that the minister’s recommendation of a further profile
in 12 months’ time could not be given effect because the deceased’s family refused
any contact with him and the Department of Correctional Services (the department)
was unwilling or unable to facilitate a victim and offender dialogue. Moreover, it was
ultra vires and showed bias and mala fides as it rendered his release dependent on the
deceased’s family.
[5] It was also alleged that the minister failed to consider all the relevant facts and
circumstances including that the respondent was rehabilitated as he had complied
with prison rules, showed remorse, completed all programs offered by the
department, was apolitical and accepted the new democratic dispensation. The
minister also failed to apply the 1959 Act and the policy and guidelines applicable
unsuccessful.
thereunder,which were in force when the murder was committed, as he ignored the
recommendations of the National Council for Correctional Services and the Parole
Board. And the respondent was discriminated against because his case was treated as
a political matter whereas he was an ordinary offender. Thus the decision was
materially influenced by errors of law and fact, irrelevant considerations were taken
into account and relevant considerations were ignored and the decision was not
rationally connected to the purpose for which it was taken, the purpose of the
empowering law, the information before the minister and the reasons given for it.
[6] Lastly, the respondent alleged that he was not furnished with the
representations made by the deceased’s wife (Mrs Hani) in a victim impact statement
which was attached to his application documents submitted to the minister. In his
view, the representations were deliberately removed from his profile either before the
record was served on his attorneys or before the record was referred to the minister
for his decision. In either case the mala fide intention was to deny him due process
and indicated bias, so he contended. He was accordingly deprived of an opportunity
to respond to the representations, if so advised. Thus a mandatory and material
procedure was not complied with. This amounted to a reviewable procedural
irregularity and thus vitiated the decision, so it was argued.
[7] The minister denied the allegations of bias and incompetence as well as the
arguments that the result was a foregone conclusion or that there was a possibility of
delay if the matter was remitted for his reconsideration. He explained that he had
followed the proper procedure in making the decision. He stated that he was not
furnished with the victim impact statement. In his view, the respondent was not
prejudiced by the victim representations as he did not consider them in making the
decision. But he stated that they would only have bolstered his refusal to place the
respondent on parole had they been placed before him.
[8] On 10 March 2016, the court a quo decided the matter in the respondent’s
favour and granted the relief sought. Thus, the decision was set aside and orders were
made placing the respondent on parole and remitting the matter to the minister to
impose the necessary parole conditions within 14 days of the date thereof. The court a
quo’s judgment was based on the finding that the minister’s decision was neither
reasonable nor rational. In the court’s view, the decision overemphasised the nature
of the crime committed by the respondent and the remarks of the sentencing court
(which harshly criticised it) and failed to balance, fairly and equally, all the criteria
for parole selection which it was satisfied the respondent met.
[9] The court a quo found that referring the matter back to the minister for the
reconsideration of the respondent’s application would cause unnecessary delay to the
respondent’s prejudice whereas all the relevant facts which informed the decision and
placed it in as good a position to determine the matter as the minister were before it.
The court was convinced by the respondent’s contentions that the minister’s decision
was, in any event, a foregone conclusion because (a) of the refusal by the deceased’s
family to forgive the respondent despite his repeated attempts to apologise to them
and their consistent opposition to his release and (b) he had shown bias by stating that
representations made by the deceased’s family opposing the respondent’s release,
which had not been placed before him when he made the decision, would have only
fortified his decision not to grant parole. On the strength of these findings, the court a
quo decided that a substitution order granting parole was just and equitable relief.
[10] In written submissions filed by the parties on appeal before us, the essence of
the dispute and the parties’ respective contentions remained unchanged. The
respondent’s eligibility for placement on parole under the transitional provisions of
136(1) of the Correctional Services Act 111 of 1998 (the Act)5 was common cause
between them. It was also not in dispute that that the guidelines contained in Chapter
VI of the Correctional Services B-Order, commonly referred to as the Parole Board
Manual, particularly the ‘Criteria for Parole Selection’ set out in Chapter VI(1A)(19)
thereof, are to be applied in the consideration of the placement on parole of offenders
in the respondent’s position. The essential issue was whether the minister applied
these criteria properly when he made the decision.
[11] According to the appellant, the court a quo misunderstood its role and failed to
distinguish between the appeal and review processes. As a result, the court
impermissibly concerned itself with whether the minister was right in concluding that
the negative factors militating against the respondent’s placement on parole
outweighed those favouring his placement on parole. Instead, the court should only
have determined whether the decision was one that a reasonable decision-maker
could reach by striking a reasonable balance between the competing factors in favour
and against the respondent’s placement on parole. Moreover, the court a quo
unlawfully replaced the exercise of the minister’s discretion concerning the
respondent’s placement on parole with its own value judgment and usurped his
functions as the decision-maker in violation of the doctrine of separation of powers,
so it was contended. The respondent, on the other hand, persisted that the decision
5 Which apply to offenders whose death sentences were commuted to life incarceration (Van Vuren v Minister of
Correctional Services & others 2012 (1) SACR 103 (CC); 2010 (12) BCLR 1233 (CC)) and read: ‘[a]ny person serving
a sentence of incarceration immediately before the commencement of Chapters IV, VI and VII is subject to the
provisions of the Correctional Services Act, 1959 (Act 8 of 1959), relating to his or her placement under community
corrections and is to be considered for such release and placement by the Correctional Supervision and Parole Board in
terms of the policy and guidelines applied by the former Parole Boards prior to the commencement of those Chapters.’
was rightly
reviewed because it was not supported by the information placed before the minister,
as was the minister’s refusal of the application to accomodate restorative justice
which was clearly impossible in the circumstances.
[12] As a result of an exchange with counsel just before the hearing of the appeal,
the parties were given leave to file further written arguments. This was to enable them
to address questions which they had not envisaged during the preparation for the
appeal (seemingly because the relevant legal point was not pursued at the hearing a
quo) namely; (a) whether the minister’s omission to consider the victim impact
statement gave rise to a procedural irregularity in the decision-making process; (b) if
it did, whether it constituted a reviewable procedural irregularity; and (c) if it did,
what a just and equitable order would be under s 172(1) of the Constitution6 read with
s 8 of PAJA.7
6 The provisions read:
‘(1) When deciding a constitutional matter within its power, a court –
(a) must declare that any law or conduct that is inconsistent with the Constitution is invalid to the extent of its
inconsistency; and
(b) may make any order that is just and equitable, including –
(i)
an order limiting the retrospective effect of the declaration of invalidity; and
(ii)
an order suspending the declaration of invalidity for any period and on any conditions, to allow
the competent authority to correct the defect.’
7 Which provides:
‘(1) The court or tribunal, in proceedings for judicial review in terms of section 6(1), may grant any order that is just
and equitable, including orders–
(a) directing the administrator–
(i)
to give reasons; or
(ii)
to act in the manner the court or tribunal requires;
(b) prohibiting the administrator from acting in a particular manner;
(c) setting aside the administrative action and–
(i)
remitting the matter for reconsideration by the administrator, with or without directions; or
(ii)
in exceptional cases–
(aa) substituting or varying the administrative action or correcting a defect resulting from the
administrative action; or
(bb) directing the administrator or any other party to the proceedings to pay compensation;
(d) declaring the rights of the parties in respect of any matter to which the administrative action relates;
(e) granting a temporary interdict or other temporary relief; or
(f) as to costs.’
[13] At the subsequent hearing it was forcefully argued for the respondent that the
decision fell to be reviewed as an irregularity under s 6(2) of PAJA8 because the
minister was biased and failed to comply with a mandatory and material procedure
when he made it. It was conceded on the minister’s behalf that factually a procedural
irregularity had occurred albeit that it did not constitute a material deviation
amounting to a ground of review. The minister’s half-hearted concession was, in my
view, correct. And the procedural irregularity began when the parole board submitted
the respondent’s profile for the minister’s consideration on the basis of information,
which included the victim impact statement submitted to it, without affording the
respondent an opportunity to respond thereto. It was completed when the minister
made the decision without considering those representations because they were not
8 The section reads:
‘(2) A court or tribunal has the power to judicially review an administrative action if –
(a) the administrator who took it –
(i) was not authorised to do so by the empowering provision;
(ii) acted under a delegation of power which was not authorised by an empowering provision; or
(iii) was biased or reasonably suspected of bias;
(b) a mandatory and material procedure or condition prescribed by an empowering provision was not complied
with;
(c) the action was procedurally unfair;
(d) the action was materially influenced by an error of law;
(e) the action was taken –
(i) for a reason not authorised by the empowering provision;
(ii) for an ulterior purpose or motive;
(iii) because irrelevant considerations were taken into account or relevant considerations were not
considered;
(iv) because of the unauthorised or unwarranted dictates of another person or body;
(v) in bad faith; or
(vi) arbitrarily or capriciously;
(f) the action itself –
(i) contravenes a law or is not authorised by the empowering provision; or
(ii) is not rationally connected to –
(aa) the purpose for which it was taken –
(bb) the purpose of the empowering provision;
(cc) the information before the administrator; or
(dd) the reason given for it by the administrator;
(g) the action concerned consists of a failure to take a decision;
(h) the exercise of the power or the performance of the function authorised by the empowering provision, in
pursuance of which the administrative action was purportedly taken, is so unreasonable that no reasonable person
could have so exercised the power or performed the function; or
(i) the action is otherwise unconstitutional or unlawful.’
placed before him as he alleged – a version I am bound to accept on the basis of
Plascon-Evans.9 The only question is whether the omissions constituted a reviewable
procedural irregularity under PAJA, having regard to the purpose of the victim
representations.
[14] The relevant test is trite10 and was recently reiterated in AllPay Consolidated
Investment Holdings (Pty) Ltd & others v Chief Executive Officer, South African
Social Security Agency & others.11 There the court, dealing with questions of
procedural fairness and lawfulness in a procurement matter, said:
‘To the extent that the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal may be interpreted as suggesting
that the public interest in procurement matters requires greater caution in finding that grounds for
judicial review exist in a given matter, that misapprehension must be dispelled. So too the notion
that, even if proven irregularities exist, the inevitability of a certain outcome is a factor that should
be considered in determining the validity of administrative action.
This approach to irregularities seems detrimental to important aspects of the procurement process.
First, it undermines the role procedural requirements play in ensuring even treatment of all bidders.
Second, it overlooks that the purpose of a fair process is to ensure the best outcome; the two cannot
be severed. On the approach of the Supreme Court of Appeal, procedural requirements are not
considered on their own merits but instead through the lens of the final outcome. This conflates the
different and separate questions of unlawfulness and remedy. If the process leading to the bid’s
success was compromised, it cannot be known with certainty what course the process might have
taken had procedural requirements been properly observed.
Once a ground of review under PAJA has been established there is no room for shying away from
it. Section 172(1)(a) of the Constitution requires the decision to be declared unlawful. The
consequences of the declaration of unlawfulness must then be dealt with in a just and equitable
order under s 172(1)(b). Section 8 of PAJA gives detailed legislative content to the Constitution’s
“just and equitable” remedy.’
9 Plascon-Evans Paints Ltd v Van Riebeeck Paints (Pty) Ltd 1984 (3) SA 623 (A) at 634-635.
10 See, for example, Administrator, Transvaal & Others v Zenzile & others 1991 (1) SA 21 (A) at 37C-F; Logbro
Properties CC v Bedderson NO & others 2003 (2) SA 460 (SCA) paras 24-25.
11 AllPay Consolidated Investment Holdings (Pty) Ltd & others v Chief Executive Officer, South African Social Security
[15] Our courts have, under common law, also been under caution to guard against
the possible blurring of the distinction between procedure and merit for the same
reason, articulated as follows:
‘Procedural objections are often raised by unmeritorious parties. Judges may then be tempted to
refuse relief on the ground that a fair hearing could have made no difference to the result. But in
principle it is vital that the procedure and the merits should be kept strictly apart, since otherwise
the merits may be prejudged unfairly.’12
[16] Summed up, the principles are the following. The inevitability of a certain
outcome is not a factor to be considered in determining the validity of the decision.
Therefore, neither party may argue that the consideration of the victim impact
statement by the minister would make no difference. The proper approach is rather to
establish, factually, and not through the lens of the final outcome, whether an
irregularity occurred. Then the irregularity must be legally evaluated to determine
whether it amounts to a ground of review under PAJA. In this exercise the materiality
of any deviance from the legal requirements must be taken into account, where
appropriate, by linking the question of compliance to the purpose of the provision
before concluding that a review ground under PAJA has been established. So, if the
process leading to the decision was compromised, it cannot be known with certainty
what the administrator would have finally decided had the procedural requirements
been properly observed.
[17] In terms of s 299A of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977,13 when a court
Agency & others 2014 (1) SA 604 (CC) paras 23-25.
12 Wade Administrative Law 6 ed (Oxford University Press, New York 1988) at 533-4.
13 Inserted by s 6 of the Judicial Matters Second Amendment Act 55 of 2003.
sentences a person to imprisonment for, inter alia, murder, it shall inform any
immediate relative of the deceased, if he or she is present that he or she has a right,
subject to the directives issued by the Commissioner of Correctional Services, inter
alia, to make representations when placement of the prisoner on parole is considered.
This right is echoed in s 75(4) of the Act which provides:
‘Where a ... relative is entitled in terms of the Criminal Procedure Act, to make representations or
wishes to attend a meeting of a [Parole] Board, the National Commissioner must inform the Board
in question accordingly and that Board must inform the ... relative in writing when and to whom he
or she may make representations.’
And where the Case Management Committee submits a report, together with the
relevant documents, to the Correctional Supervision and Parole Board (the parole
board) regarding the possible placement of a prisoner on parole in terms of s
42(2)(d)(vii) of the Act, that prisoner must be informed of the contents of the report
and be afforded the opportunity to submit written representations to the parole board
under s 42(3) of the Act. After considering the report and, in the light of any other
information (which includes a relative’s victim impact statement),14 the parole board
may, in the case of a prisoner serving life incarceration, make recommendations to
the minister on granting of parole in terms of s 75(1)(c) of the Act.15 It is clear from
these provisions that all relevant information ie the full record of the proceedings,
must be considered for a proper decision on the placement of a prisoner on parole.
The victim impact statement and the representations in response thereto by the
prisoner seeking parole unquestionably form a substantive requirement in that
process.
[18] In the affidavit containing Mrs Hani’s victim representations, she alleged that
the information in the respondent’s application was incomplete because various
14 Derby-Lewis v Minister of Correctional Services & others 2009 (6) SA 205 (GNP) at 218A.
15 See also s 78 (1) and (4) of the Act, incorporated on 31 July 2004, which expressly incorporate restorative justice in
the consideration of parole.
essential documents ie portions of his trial record, portions of his application to
reopen his trial, his application for amnesty to the Truth and Reconciliation
Commission (the TRC) and his application to review the TRC’s decision, had not
been furnished to the parole board. The respondent never apologised or showed any
genuine contrition for the murder. He continued to withhold the full truth about the
murder, including the identities of the other conspirators, which he once threatened to
divulge to the media, had given contradictory accounts about who exactly was
involved in the crime and refused to denounce his political beliefs which he claimed
motivated the murder.
[19] As indicated, none of these profound allegations were considered by the
minister when the decision was made. Neither were they brought to the respondent’s
attention for his consideration and one simply does not know what answers, if any, he
may have given had he been granted that opportunity. In that case the minister’s
assertion that the victim impact statement ‘would have further militated against the
[respondent’s] placement on parole’ is obviously misguided. It overlooks that he
would have had to consider the respondent’s representations as well and that it is
unknown what impact they would have had on the decision. And by the same token,
his decision if the matter is remitted for his reconsideration cannot be a foregone
conclusion. That said, the omissions constitute a fatal procedural irregularity, due
regard being had to the governing statutory injunctions set out above. They constitute
a breach of s 6(2(b) of PAJA as a mandatory and material procedure or condition
prescribed by an empowering provision was clearly not complied with.
[20] Having thus found, it is unnecessary to deal with the merits of the appeal. The
only question is what would be a just and equitable remedy in the circumstances.
Both parties were adamant that the matter should not be remitted; the minister’s
argument being that the decision was sound whereas the respondent raised the same
concerns expressed by the court a quo ie bias and incompetence on the minister’s
part, that his decision is a foregone conclusion and the court’s ability to substitute the
decision on the information at its disposal. I am not persuaded by any of the parties’
submissions in this regard. In my view the respondent’s fears are more perceived than
real as they have no basis on the papers. I have already rejected the contention that
the minister’s decision is a foregone conclusion in the absence of the respondent’s
representations. And for that very reason, this Court is not in a position to substitute
its own decision. In the words of Megarry J in John v Rees [1970] Ch 345; [1969] 2
All ER 274 (CH) at 402:
‘As everybody who has anything to do with the law well knows, the path of the law is strewn with
examples of open and shut cases which, somehow, were not; of unanswerable charges which, in the
event, were completely answered; of inexplicable conduct which was fully explained; of fixed and
unalterable determinations that, by discussion, suffered a change.’
Regarding delay, the minister made it clear that he would be in a position to decide
the matter within a short period were it remitted for his reconsideration. There is
simply no evidence of bias on his part or an inability to make a reasonable decision
other than a miscomprehension of the relevant law which required him to consider the
respondent’s representations too.
[21] In my view, the matter should be remitted to the minister for a fresh decision
regarding whether the respondent should be placed on parole, taking into account Mrs
Hani’s victim impact statement dated 30 October 2013 and the respondent’s response,
if any, thereto. Counsel for the minister indicated that he would be in a position to
finalise the matter within 90 calendar days of the date of this order in that eventuality.
I consider this a reasonable period. I am however not inclined to mulct the respondent
with the costs of the appeal despite the minister’s success, because the procedural
irregularity was not of his doing. In any event, the minister did not insist on a costs
order. I do not propose to deal with the submissions on the respondent’s so-called
changed circumstances which his counsel made from the Bar as they have no
foundation in the appeal record and bear no relevance for present purposes.
[22] It remains to determine whether it was open to this Court, in the first place,
mero motu to raise the legal point as neither party relied upon it and it was also not
addressed in the court a quo’s judgment. The direction requiring further argument on
the issue was based solely on this Court’s prima facie view that Mrs Hani’s victim
impact statement, which was part of the appeal record, contained information that was
highly relevant to the decision and should have been considered in the making
thereof.
[23] The duty of an appellate court is to ascertain whether the court a quo came to a
correct conclusion on the case before it.16 Its role is generally limited to deciding
issues that are raised in the appeal proceedings and it may not, on its own, raise issues
which were not raised by the appellant. However, where a point of law is apparent on
the papers (even where it has been expressly abandoned) but the common approach of
the parties proceeds on a wrong perception of the law, and its consideration on appeal
would involve no unfairness to the party against whom it is directed, the court is not
only entitled, but is also obliged, mero motu, to raise the point of law and require the
parties to deal therewith.17 Otherwise it would be bound to make a decision that is
premised on an incorrect application of the law, despite the accepted facts, merely
because a party failed to raise the legal point, as a result of an error of law on his
16 Cole v Government of the Union of SA 1910 AD 263 at 272.
17 CUSA v Tao Ying Metal Industries 2009 (2) SA 204 (CC); 2009 (1) BCLR 1 (CC); [2009] 1 BLLR 1 (CC) para
68.
part.18 That would infringe the principle of legality.19
[24] As appears above, the existence of the victim impact statement, its relevance to
the making of the decision and the legal contention that the respondent was not given
an opportunity to consider its contents and respond thereto, if he was so minded, were
common cause and were pertinently raised in the affidavits. The legal point ie the
procedural fairness of the manner in which the decision was made, raises no new
factual issues; there is, therefore, no possibility that its consideration would result in
unfairness to any of the parties.20 Accordingly, this Court was entitled mero motu to
raise the legal point and to require argument thereon.
[25] In the result the following order is made:
1 The appeal is upheld with no order as to costs.
2 The matter is remitted to the appellant for his reconsideration and decision within
90 calendar days of the date of this order.
____________________
MML MAYA
PRESIDENT
18 Van Rensburg v Van Rensburg en andere 1963 (1) SA 505 (A) at 510A; Alexkor Ltd & another v The Richtersveld
Community & others 2004 (5) SA 460 (CC) paras 43-44.
19 Paddock Motors (Pty) Ltd v Igesund 1976 (3) SA 16 (A) at 23D-H; Carmichele v Minister of Safety and Security
(Centre for Applied Legal Studies Intervening) 2001 (4) SA 938 (CC) paras 33-39.
20 Paddock Motors (Pty) Ltd ibid; Alexkor Ltd & another v The Richtersveld Community & others 2004 (5) SA 460 (CC)
paras 43-44.
APPEARANCES
For the Appellant:
Mr MTK Moerane SC (with TWG Bester SC)
Instructed by: The State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For the Respondent:
Mr R Du Plessis SC (with L Kellermann)
Instructed by: Julian Knight & Associates Inc, Pretoria
Rossouw Attorneys, Bloemfontein | SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME
COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
18 August 2017
STATUS
Immediate
Minister of Justice and Correctional Services v Walus
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does
not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
The Supreme Court of Appeal (the SCA) today upheld an appeal with no order as to
costs against a judgment of the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria that
placed the respondent, Mr Janusz Jakub Walus, on parole.
Mr Walus, who is serving a sentence of life incarceration for the murder of the late
Mr Thembisile 'Chris' Hani, brought an application to be placed on parole after
serving 21 years and six months of the sentence, in terms of s 136(1) of the
Correctional Services Act 111 of 1998. The appellant, Minister of Justice and
Correctional Services, decided not to place the respondent on parole at that stage. The
victim impact statement submitted by the deceased’s widow, Mrs Limpho Hani, to the
parole board was not placed before the Minister and was thus not considered. It was
also not brought to Mr Walus’ attention.
The issue before the SCA was whether the court a quo erred in reviewing and setting
aside the decision of the Minister appellant, on the basis that the decision by the was
irrational and unreasonable.
The SCA held that the Minister’s omission to consider the statement and the Parole
Board’s failure to furnish Mr Walus with it so that he could respond thereto, if so
minded, constituted material procedural irregularities in terms of s 6(2) of the
Promotion of Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000. The SCA held that the irregularity
vitiated the decision and accordingly remitted the matter to the Minister for his
reconsideration regarding whether the respondent should be placed on parole, taking
into account Mrs Hani’s victim impact statement and Mr Walus’ response thereto, if
any. No costs order was made against Mr Walus because it was not his fault that the
statement had not been disseminated in the manner envisaged by the Act.
~~ ends~~ |
3923 | non-electoral | 2022 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case no: 891/2021
In the matter between:
DATACENTRIX (PTY) LTD
APPELLANT
and
O-LINE (PTY) LTD
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Datacentrix (Pty) Ltd v O-Line (Pty) Ltd (891/2021) [2022] ZASCA
162 (25 November 2022)
Coram:
ZONDI, MOLEMELA, PLASKET, MABINDLA-BOQWANA JJA and
MAKAULA AJA
Heard:
12 September 2022
Delivered:
25 November 2022
Summary:
Contract law – breach of contract – interpretation of cancellation clause
in a contract – non-compliance with prescribed procedure for cancellation of contract.
ORDER
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Kubushi J, sitting as
the court of first instance):
1.
The appeal is upheld with costs.
2.
The order of the high court is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘The action is dismissed with costs.’
JUDGMENT
Makaula AJA (Zondi, Molemela, Plasket and Mabindla-Boqwana JJA concurring)
[1] This appeal is against the judgment and order of the Gauteng Division of the
High Court, Pretoria (the high court). The high court ordered Datacentrix (Pty) Ltd (the
appellant) to pay an amount of R1 936 815 plus interest for breach of contract entered
into between the appellant and O-line (Pty) Ltd (the respondent). The high court
refused the appellant’s application for leave to appeal, but this Court on petition,
granted leave. The appeal is before us with leave of this Court.
Facts
[2] The
respondent
provides
various
services
including
manufacturing,
warehousing, distributing and marketing, and selling electrical and mechanical support
systems. Prior to the agreement between the parties, the respondent used a software
system called ACS Embrace for its financial record-keeping, accounting and reporting,
recording of stock levels, inventory control, monitoring and planning of its
manufacturing processes and recording of sales and receipts. The respondent
desired to upgrade its software system and change to a Sage X3 system. The
respondent did not have expertise in the operation of the Sage ERP X3 software and,
on the recommendation of Sage, the manufacturer and seller of the software based in
Germany, decided to engage the services of the respondent to implement and
configure its software.
[3] On 25 November 2013, the parties concluded a written Implementation and
Support Services Agreement (the agreement). The terms of the agreement are not in
dispute. It is further not disputed that the respondent paid the appellant the amount of
R1 936 815 in terms of the agreement for implementation of the Sage software.
However, after the installation, the respondent averred that the services provided by
the appellant were defective in two material respects. Firstly, the respondent alleged
that the appellant failed to successfully configure and implement the software,
resulting in an inability on its part to use the software. Secondly, the respondent
alleged that the appellant failed to provide sufficient suitably trained staff to perform
the support services set out in the agreement. The respondent argued that the results
of the two failures by the appellant led to it being unable to use the system for its
intended purpose.
[4] The high court found that the appellant had breached the agreement, and that
the respondent had properly cancelled it. It held that restitution of the system by the
respondent in the circumstances was impossible and ordered, in paragraph 1 of its
order, that the contract price of R1 936 815 be returned to the respondent by the
appellant. The high court upheld the counter-claim brought by the appellant and
ordered, in paragraph 2 of its order, that the respondent pay R180 775 to the appellant.
There is no cross-appeal in this regard. The issue before this Court is whether
paragraph 1 of the order should have been granted. That concerns the validity of the
purported cancellation of the agreement by the respondent. In what follows, I shall
assume, in favour of the respondent that the appellant was in breach of the agreement
and that its breaches were material.
Cancellation
[5] There are two significant clauses of the agreement dealing with breach and
cancellation. The first is clause 17, which deals with service level failures. Service
levels are defined in the agreement as the agreed performance standards and
measures set out for the services, as detailed in the service level annexures. Clause
17.1 deals with Notice of Non Performance. This clause provides that if it is agreed or
determined in a Dispute Resolution Procedure that the appellant has failed to ‘comply
with any Service Level in any measurement period’, then the respondent may, on
written notice to the appellant, ‘require it to submit a rectification plan in accordance
with the provisions of clause 17.2’. Clause 17.2, in effect, deals with the rectification
plan. It sets out a detailed and complex process for the rectification of the service level
failure. If the service level failure cannot be rectified, clause 17.3 provides that ‘such
failure shall constitute a breach by Datacentrix’ of the agreement between them.
[6] While the respondent, in its particulars of claim, averred that it had cancelled
the agreement in terms of clause 17, it changed its position and abandoned such
reliance at the commencement of the trial and presented its case on the basis that it
was entitled to cancel under clause 18. Clause 18 provides, in the relevant part, that
should a party to the agreement commit a material breach of the agreement and fails
to remedy such breach within 30 days of having been called upon to do so by the other
party, then the innocent party may, ‘in its discretion subject to the provisions of clause
19’, terminate the agreement on written notice to the defaulting party in which event
such termination shall be without prejudice to any claims the innocent party may have
for damages against the defaulting party ‘occasioned by the default or termination of
this Agreement in terms of this clause’. Clause 19 deals with the procedures and
assistance upon termination. It provides that on termination or cancellation, the
appellant will provide the respondent with ‘exit management assistance’ in accordance
with schedule 2 of Exit Management Principles.
[7] As aforesaid, there was some confusion on the part of the respondent as to
the basis for its purported cancellation of the agreement. What is clear, however, is
that it relied on two letters. The first letter it wrote to the appellants is dated 8 June
2015. In it, the respondent alerted the appellant to a range of breaches of the
agreement. They related to the lack of performance of the software and what it termed
its ‘failed project management’. The letter further concludes by stating:
‘In conclusion Datacentrix needs to submit a comprehensive proposal stating how this will be
urgently remedied no later than Friday 12th of June for perusal by the board . . . O–line also
reserves the right to withhold all outstanding payment . . . In the event O–line is not satisfied
with either the proposal or success of the implementation the company will instruct lawyers to
proceed with Litigations.’
[8] The parties exchanged correspondence and held various meetings in an
attempt to resolve the issue. The respondent did not accept the two attempts by the
appellant to bring about a rectification plan.
[9] On 22 October 2015, the respondent’s attorneys sent an email to the appellant
communicating the cancellation of the agreement. Amongst the breaches, the
respondent alleged that it was unable to produce accounts, trial balances,
management accounts and that the fundamental set–up and implementation of the
Sage programme was flawed. The letter referred to the contents of the letter dated 8
June 2015 that the appellant had been put to terms to develop a rectification plan. The
letter concluded by stating that:
‘Accordingly, Datacentrix is in breach of the Agreement [in so far] as it has failed to provide
the Services and/or Additional Services in terms of the Agreement which has not remedied
within a 30 day period despite being called upon to do so, and/or is in breach of the warranties
set out in clauses 15.1.1 and 15.3.1 thereof (“the warranties”) which breaches are
fundamental, and which have not be remedied since 12 March 2015.’
On the strength of the above, the respondent then cancelled the agreement.
Analysis
[10] In Wille’s Principles of South African Law the following is said regarding breach
notices:
‘Contracts frequently provide that in the event of breach the aggrieved party should give the
party in breach notice of the breach and a stipulated period within which the latter has an
opportunity to remedy or purge the breach. In such a case the procedure laid down in the
contract must be followed as a necessary prelude to cancellation, except, so it has been held,
where the breach takes the form of a repudiation of the contract. In that case the aggrieved
party may cancel forthwith since the repudiating party cannot have it both ways by repudiating
the contract and at the same time hold the other party to the rules prescribed by the repudiated
contract.’1
1 Du Bois (ed) Wille’s Principles of South African Law 9 ed at 877. See also South African Forestry Co
Ltd v York Timbers Ltd 2005 (3) SA 323 (SCA) para 37; Hano Trading CC v JR 209 Investments (Pty)
Ltd and Another 2013 (1) SA 161 (SCA) para 31; G B Bradfield Christie’s Law of Contract in South
Africa 7 ed at 637.
[11] The purpose of requiring strict compliance with the prescribed procedure for
cancelling was explained as follows by Yekiso J in Bekker v Schmidt Bou
Ontwikkelings CC:2
‘The purpose of a notice requiring a purchaser to remedy a default is to inform the recipient of
that notice of what is required of him or her in order to avoid the consequences of default. It
should be couched in such terms as to leave him or her in no doubt as to what is required, or
otherwise the notice will not be such as is contemplated in the contract.’
[12] A reading of the letters of 8 June and 22 October indicates that the respondent
correctly conceded that it was unable to cancel in terms of clause 17. The concession
is correct because the letters did not comply with the procedure laid down in clause
17. Clause 18, as stated above, especially clause 18.1, states that if a defaulting party
‘commits a material breach of this Agreement, and fails to remedy such breach within
30 (thirty) days of having been called upon in writing to do so . . . then the Innocent
Party may, in its discretion and subject to the provisions of clause 19, terminate this
Agreement on written notice to the Defaulting Party’.
[13] The letter of 8 June 2015 did not pertinently give the appellant 30 days within
which to remedy the breaches. Instead, it appears in part to having followed clause
17 by requiring the appellant to produce a rectification plan. The respondent was
required to comply with the requirements of clause 18 strictly. It was required to couch
the notice in such a manner that the appellant would have been in no doubt as to what
was required of it to avoid the consequence of cancellation for such non–compliance.
The letter never warned the appellant that a failure to comply within 30 days would
result in cancellation. Instead, it alluded vaguely to instructing its lawyers to ‘proceed
to Litigations’. Whatever this may have been intended to mean, it was not an
unequivocal statement that the agreement would be cancelled if the appellant failed
to remedy its breaches.
[14] I find therefore that the respondent failed to prove that it had cancelled the
agreement in accordance with the procedure as set out in clause 17 or 18 of the
2 Bekker v Schmidt Bou Ontwikkelings CC [2007] 4 All SA 1231 (C) para 17; 2007 (1) SA 600 (C) para
17.
agreement. In the light of this finding, there is no need for me to deal with the question
whether the agreement was breached and, if so, whether the breach was material.
[15] There is no reason why the respondent, as a losing party, should not pay the
costs. The employment of two counsel was, however, not necessary, as the matter
was not complex.
[16] In the result, I make the following order:
1.
The appeal is upheld with costs.
2.
The order of the high court is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘The action is dismissed with costs.’
__________________
M MAKAULA
ACTING JUDGE of APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
W N Shapiro SC and I Veerasamy
Instructed by:
Macgregor Erasmus Attorneys Inc, Durban
Lovius Block Inc, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
K D Iles and X Khoza
Instructed by:
Bowman Gilfillan Incorporated, Pretoria
Symington de Kok Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
25 November 2022
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does not
form part of the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Datacentrix (Pty) Ltd v O-Line (Pty) Ltd (891/2021) [2022] ZASCA 162 (25 November
2022)
___________________________________________________________________
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) handed down judgment upholding with costs an appeal
against the decision of the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (the high court).
The respondent provides various services including manufacturing, warehousing, distributing and
marketing, and selling electrical and mechanical support systems. The respondent desired to upgrade
its software system and change to a Sage X3 system and, on the recommendation of Sage, the
manufacturer and seller of the software based in Germany decided to engage the services of the
appellant to implement and configure its software.
On 25 November 2013, the parties concluded a written Implementation and Support Services
Agreement (the agreement). The terms of the agreement are not in dispute. The respondent paid the
appellant the amount of R1 936 815 in terms of the agreement for implementation of the Sage software.
However, after the installation, the respondent averred that the services provided by the appellant were
defective in two material respects. Firstly, the respondent alleged that the appellant failed to
successfully configure and implement the software, resulting in an inability on its part to use the
software. Secondly, the respondent alleged that the appellant failed to provide sufficient suitably trained
staff to perform the support services set out in the agreement.
The high court found that the appellant had breached the agreement, and that the respondent had
properly cancelled it. It held that restitution of the system by the respondent in the circumstances was
impossible and ordered that the contract price of R1 936 815 be returned to the respondent by the
appellant. The issue before this Court was whether the order should have been granted and that
concerns the validity of the purported cancellation of the agreement by the respondent.
The SCA dealt with two significant clauses of the agreement dealing with breach and cancellation. The
first is clause 17, which deals with service level failures. Service levels are defined in the agreement as
the agreed performance standards and measures set out for the services, as detailed in the service
level annexures. Clause 17.1 deals with Notice of Non Performance. This clause provides that if it is
agreed or determined in a Dispute Resolution Procedure that the appellant has failed to ‘comply with
any Service Level in any measurement period’, then the respondent may, on written notice to the
appellant, ‘require it to submit a rectification plan in accordance with the provisions of clause 17.2’.
Clause 17.2, in effect, deals with the rectification plan. It sets out a detailed and complex process for
the rectification of the service level failure. If the service level failure cannot be rectified, clause 17.3
provides that ‘such failure shall constitute a breach by Datacentrix’ of the agreement between them.
Clause 18 provides, in the relevant part, that should a party to the agreement commit a material breach
of the agreement and fails to remedy such breach within 30 days of having been called upon to do so
by the other party, then the innocent party may terminate the agreement on written notice to the
defaulting party in which event such termination shall be without prejudice to any claims the innocent
party may have for damages against the defaulting party ‘occasioned by the default or termination of
this Agreement in terms of this clause’.
The SCA found that there was some confusion on the part of the respondent as to the basis for its
purported cancellation of the agreement. The respondent relied on two letters. In the letter dated 8 June
2015, the respondent alerted the appellant to a range of breaches of the agreement. They related to
the lack of performance of the software and what it termed its ‘failed project management’ – the breach
of the warranty. On 22 October 2015, the respondent communicated the cancellation of the agreement
based on various breaches.
The SCA held that both letters did not comply with the cancellation procedure set out in either clause
17 or 18 of the agreement and that being the case, the respondent had failed to prove that it had validly
cancelled the agreement.
~~~~end~~~~ |
3582 | non-electoral | 2021 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not reportable
Case no: 356/2020
In the matter between:
VAN HEERDEN & BRUMMER INC
APPELLANT
and
HARRY MARK DEON BATH
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Van Heerden & Brummer Inc v Bath (356/2020) [2021]
ZASCA 80 (11 June 2021)
Coram:
PETSE DP and MBHA and ZONDI JJA and KGOELE and
PHATSHOANE AJJA
Heard:
3 May 2021
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties’ legal representatives by email, publication on the Supreme Court of
Appeal website and release to SAFLII. The date and time for hand-down is
deemed to be 09h30 on 11 June 2021.
Corrected: 17 June 2021
Summary: Prescription Act 68 of 1969 – firm of attorneys sued for damages
arising out of drafting of an ante-nuptial contract subsequently found to be invalid
– date of commencement of the running of prescription – meaning of the
expression ‘debt is due’ – s 12(3) requires knowledge of the identity of the debtor
and facts necessary to institute action – knowledge of legal conclusion not
required by s 12(3).
ORDER
On appeal from: In the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Van der
Schyff J sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal is upheld with costs.
The order of the high court is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘2.1 The first defendant’s special plea is upheld with costs.
2.2
The plaintiff’s claim against the defendant is dismissed with costs.’
JUDGMENT
Kgoele AJA (Petse DP and Mbha and Zondi JJA and Phatshoane AJA
concurring):
[1] This appeal originates from an action instituted by the respondent, Mr
Harry Bath, against the appellant, Van Heerden and Brummer Incorporated, a
firm of attorneys, in the Gauteng Division of the High Court: Pretoria (the high
court), for damages in respect of a breach of mandate and professional negligence
arising out of drafting an antenuptial contract subsequently found to be invalid by
the court. In the proceeding before the high court, the appellant, who was the first
defendant, raised a special plea of prescription. The high court (Van der Schyff
J) made an order in terms of rule 33(4) of the Uniform Rules of Court, in terms
of which the special plea of prescription was decided separately from the other
issues raised by the parties. After hearing evidence, the high court dismissed the
special plea. This appeal is against that order, with leave having been granted by
the high court.
[2] The appeal turns primarily on the interpretation of s 12(1) of the
Prescription Act 68 of 1969 (the Act) and in particular, the phrase ‘debt is due’.
The question to be determined is therefore, whether the high court correctly found
that the respondent’s claim had not become prescribed at the time the summons
was served on 2 February 2017.
[3] What follows are the material facts which are necessary for the
determination of the sole issue before us which are largely common cause, or not
seriously disputed. On 21 October 2005, the respondent gave the appellant a
mandate to draft an antenuptial contract in contemplation of his marriage to his
now ex-wife, Mrs Juanita Bath. Ms Nunes, the Notary Public employed by the
appellant at that time, and who does not feature in this appeal, drafted the
antenuptial contract which was subsequently registered in the Deeds Office on 9
November 2005.
[4] During February 2010, the respondent instituted divorce proceedings
against his ex-wife. Mr Brummer, an attorney and a director of the appellant and
Ms Hartman, who served as counsel, represented the respondent in the divorce
action. Mrs Bath defended the divorce action. In her amended plea and
counterclaim, she alleged that the antenuptial contract was void for vagueness.
The divorce action came before Louw J in the Gauteng Division of the High
Court, Pretoria. Pursuant to the agreement between the parties, the validity of the
antenuptial contract was determined first as a separate issue. In a judgment
delivered on 3 September 2012, Louw J held that the antenuptial contract was
void ab initio due to vagueness, and that the marriage between the parties was in
community of property.
[5] Dissatisfied with the outcome, the respondent was, on 22 November 2012,
granted leave to appeal to this Court. The appeal was heard on 24 February 2014,
and subsequently dismissed on 24 March 2014.1 Thereafter, a decree of divorce
was granted on 13 October 2015 incorporating a deed of settlement in terms of
which, the respondent and his ex-wife agreed, inter alia, to appoint a liquidator
to distribute their joint estate, arising from the erstwhile marriage in community.
[6] On 24 January 2017 the respondent instituted the current action for
damages against the appellant and Ms Nunes and, on 2 February 2017, the
summons was served on them. No relief was sought against Ms Nunes who was
cited purely out of caution as the second defendant. Thus, the second defendant
took no part in this litigation both in the high court and this Court. In this action,
the respondent asserted that the appellant had negligently breached its mandate
because the Notary Public employed by it failed to draft a valid antenuptial
contract. According to the respondent, the net result of this was that he became
liable to pay his ex-wife substantially more money than would have been payable
had the antenuptial contract been valid.
[7] The appellant defended the action essentially on the basis that the claim
had become prescribed on 25 September 2015. As already indicated, this special
plea was heard separately from the merits of the action. In support of this defence,
the appellant led the evidence of Mr Brummer and Ms Hartman. Their evidence
mainly comprised an exposition of an uncontested factual account of their
interaction with the respondent with specific reference to a series of dates in order
to demonstrate that the respondent had knowledge of all the facts necessary to
institute his claim, at the latest, on 26 September 2012.
1 Bath v Bath [2014] ZASCA 14.
[8] The summary of their evidence which forms the factual matrix for this
appeal is that subsequent to the filing of the amended plea and before the
commencement of the divorce trial, they held a consultation with the respondent
on 6 August 2012 where the implications of the amended plea and the
counterclaim were extensively discussed and explained. Provisional financial
values were drawn up to illustrate the likely consequences of a marriage in
community of property. This discussion continued during the period 13 to 17
August 2012, when the evidence regarding the validity of the antenuptial contract
was heard in court. After the judgment was delivered on 3 September 2012, Mr
Brummer informed the respondent telephonically that the trial court had declared
the antenuptial contract void. He further explained to him that as a result, the
parties’ marriage was regarded as one in community of property and arranged a
consultation with the respondent.
[9] The consultation took place on 21 September 2012 during which the
judgment, its consequences, who was liable to be sued, the conflict likely to arise
if the appellant were sued, including prescription of the respondent’s claim, were
thoroughly discussed with the respondent. The respondent, despite being
disappointed and upset by the result, persisted with his desire to appeal against
the judgment which declared the antenuptial contract void, whilst retaining the
same legal team. This prompted a further consultation on 25 September 2012, to
which Mr Brummer invited Ms Hartman. At this consultation, the respondent’s
intention to sue crystallised and the possible withdrawal of Mr Brummer was
further discussed with the respondent. The time lapse pending the appeal which
might affect prescription of his claim was reiterated, including the advice to the
respondent to seek an independent legal practitioner to represent him for this
claim. It was ultimately agreed that the appellant’s firm would remain the
attorneys of record for the purposes of appealing the decision of Louw J. On 26
September 2012 an email confirming the discussion of 25 September 2012 was
sent to the respondent.
[10] The respondent elected not to testify at the trial. Thus, there was no
countervailing evidence to controvert the version of the appellant. The upshot of
the appellant’s evidence was succinctly set out in the judgment of the high court.
For present purposes a chronological exposition of the crucial dates and facts will
suffice. More pertinently, the respondent, in his heads of argument,
acknowledged that it cannot be disputed that he was advised by both Mr Brummer
and Ms Hartman about the consequences of the finding made by Louw J that the
antenuptial contract was void. The respondent also did not dispute, as rightly
noted in paragraph 9 of the judgment of the high court, that Ms Hartman
explained to him that he had a claim against the appellant and the impact that the
running of prescription might have on the claim.
[11] The submission of the appellant before the high court, which was persisted
with before us, is that on one of these dates, prescription began to run. They are:
(a) 6 August 2012 – a consultation where the consequences of the amended plea
raised in the divorce action was explained to the respondent in detail using
provisional financial values; (b) 13 to 17 August 2012 – the period during which
the validity of the antenuptial contract was heard and evidence thereof
continuously raised with respondent; (c) 3 September 2012 – when Mr Brummer
informed the respondent telephonically that the high court declared the
antenuptial contract void and that their marriage was regarded as one in
community of property including the fact that the Notary Public was to be blamed
for the finding; (d) 21 September 2012 – a consultation with Mr Brummer
wherein the judgment, its consequences, who to sue, the apparent conflict,
including prescription of his claim, were thoroughly discussed with the
respondent; (e) 25 September 2012 – a consultation with Mr Brummer and Ms
Hartman wherein the intention to sue, the onset of prescription and possible
withdrawal of Mr Brummer were explained to the respondent; or (f)
26 September 2012 – when an email confirming the discussion of 25 September
was sent to the respondent.
[12] As already indicated, before the high court the appellant, relying on these
dates, argued that the respondent’s claim arose and became due on any one of the
dates mentioned in the preceding paragraph but not later than 26 September 2012,
when the appellant addressed an email to the respondent in which it recorded the
issues dealt with during the consultation on the previous day, 25 September 2012.
The respondent, in his defence, contended that the prescription commenced to run
from the date on which judgment in his appeal was handed down by this Court
on 24 March 2014. In elaboration, the respondent’s counsel placed much
emphasis on what he perceived as the need to distinguish between the ‘coming
into existence’ of a debt and ‘the recoverability’ thereof, to bolster the argument
that the judgment of the SCA constituted an essential fact in support of the
respondent’s cause of action (ie the so-called last fact) as opposed to ‘obtaining
legal certainty’ as argued by the appellant. According to him, the respondent’s
damages manifested or materialised on 24 March 2014, because his patrimonial
loss would not have eventuated had his appeal been upheld. Thus, so the argument
continued, instituting his damages claim against the appellant before the final
determination of his appeal to this Court would have been premature.
[13] The high court was somewhat persuaded by these contentions and, as a
result, it found in favour of the respondent and concluded that the respondent’s
claim had not prescribed. This, despite the fact that it made the following remarks
in its judgment:
‘The plaintiff’s damages consist of the diminution of his estate caused by the breach and this
constituted a debt that was immediately payable when the antenuptial contract was declared
void, irrespective of whether the damages were already quantified.’ (My emphasis.)
In coming to this conclusion, it reasoned that the respondent’s damages
manifested or materialised only on 24 March 2014, when the appeal was
dismissed by this Court, although the full extent thereof was not determinable at
that stage. Furthermore, the high court held that ‘[b]efore 24 March 2014 there
was no basis for any claim based on the invalidity of the antenuptial contract that
was either claimable by the [respondent] or payable by the [appellant]’.
[14] Accordingly, the issue in this appeal is crisp and in essence, relates to a
question of law. It pertinently concerns the determination of the date on which
the three-year period of prescription commenced to run in respect of the
respondent’s claim, which is the fundamental point of difference between the
parties.
[15] Directly relevant to this enquiry is s 12 of the Act which provides that:
‘(1)
Subject to the provisions of subsections (2) and (3), prescription shall commence to run
as soon as the debt is due.
(2)
If the debtor wilfully prevents the creditor from coming to know of the existence of the
debt, prescription shall not commence to run until the creditor becomes aware of the existence
of the debt.
(3)
A debt shall not be deemed to be due until the creditor has knowledge of the identity of
the debtor and of the facts from which the debt arises: provided that a creditor shall be deemed
to have such knowledge if he could have acquired it by exercising reasonable care.’
[16] The words ‘debt’ including ‘debt is due’ are not defined in the Act. There
are numerous judgments which have dealt with the meaning of these words and
the law is settled in this regard. One such seminal judgment which is relevant on
the facts of this matter is Mtokonya v Minister of Police.2
[17] To my mind, the following remarks by Moseneke J in Eskom, 3 which were
quoted with approval in Mtokonya bear emphasis as they neatly set out a sound
foundation for several decisions that followed thereafter. There, the court said the
following:
“In my view, there is no merit in the contention advanced on behalf of the plaintiff that
prescription began to run only on the date the judgment of the SCA was delivered. The essence
of this submission is that a claim or debt does not become due when the facts from which it
arose are known to the claimant, but only when such claimant has acquired certainty in regard
to the law and attendant rights and obligations that might be applicable to such a debt. If such
a construction were to be placed on the provisions of section 12(3) grave absurdity would arise.
These provisions regulating prescription of claims would be rendered nugatory and ineffectual.
Prescription periods would be rendered elastic, open ended and contingent upon the claimant’s
subjective sense of legal certainty. On this contention, every claimant would be entitled to have
legal certainty before the debt it seeks to enforce becomes or is deemed to be due. In my view,
legal certainty does not constitute a fact from which a debt arises under s 12(3). A claimant
cannot blissfully await authoritative, final and binding judicial pronouncements before its debt
becomes due, or before it is deemed to have knowledge of the facts from which the debt
arises.”’
[18] Consistent with the principles propounded in the various judgments, most
recently this Court rejected similar arguments as raised by the respondent in this
matter in McMillan v Bate Chubb4 and held:
2 Mtokonya v Minister of Police 2018 (5) SA 22 (CC); [2017] ZACC 33; 2017 (11) BCLR 1443 (CC); 2018 (5)
SA 22 (CC) (Mtokonya). See also: Truter and Another v Deysel 2006 (4) SA 168 (SCA); Minister of Finance and
Others v Gore N O 2007 (1) SA 111 (SCA) para 17; Yellow Star Properties 1020 (Pty) Ltd v MEC, Department
of Development Planning and Local Government, Gauteng 2009 (3) SA 577 (SCA); Claasen v Bester 2012 (2)
SA 404 (SCA); Fluxmans Incorporated v Levenson 2017 (2) SA 520 (SCA).
3 Eskom v Bojanala Platinum District Municipality and Another 2003 JDR 0498 para 16.
4 McMillan v Bate Chubb and Dickson Incorporated [2021] ZASCA 45 para 38.
‘The period of prescription begins to run against a creditor when the creditor has the minimum
facts which are necessary to institute action. As this Court recently held in Fluxmans
Incorporated v Levenson:
“Knowledge that the relevant agreement did not comply with the provisions of the Act is not a
fact which the respondent needed to acquire to complete a cause of action and was therefore
not relevant to the running of prescription. This Court stated in Gore NO para 17 that the period
of prescription begins to run against the creditor when it has minimum facts that are necessary
to institute action. The running of prescription is not postponed until it becomes aware of the
full extent of its rights nor until it has evidence that would prove a case “comfortably”. The
“fact” on which the respondent relies for the contention that the period of prescription began
to run in February 2014, is knowledge about the legal status of the agreement, which is
irrelevant to the commencement of prescription. It may be that before February 2014 the
respondent did not appreciate the legal consequences which flowed from the facts, but his
failure to do so did not delay the date on which the prescription began to run. Knowledge of
invalidity of the contingency fee agreement or knowledge of its non-compliance with the
provision of the Act is one and the same thing otherwise stated or expressed differently. That
the contingency fees agreements such as the present one, which do not comply with the Act,
are invalid is a legal position that obtained since the decision of this court in Price Waterhouse
Coopers Inc and is therefore not a fact which the respondent had to establish in order to
complete his cause of action. Section 12(3) of the Prescription Act requires knowledge only of
the material facts from which the prescriptive period begins to run – it does not require
knowledge of the legal conclusion (that the known facts constitute invalidity). (Claasen v Bester
[2011] ZASCA 197; 2012 (2) SA 404 (SCA).”
Section 12 requires knowledge only of the material facts from which the prescriptive period
begins to run – it does not require knowledge of the legal consequences. Accordingly, the
appellant’s cause of action was complete as soon as he was informed on 9 May 2014 of the
potential conflict of interest arising from the fact the respondent’s directors may have drafted
the antenuptial contract incorrectly. There is no reason in logic or in law, why he could not
successfully have joined the respondent as a third party in the divorce proceedings at that stage,
claiming payment from it of any sum which he may be ordered to pay to his former wife as a
result of the respondent’s negligence.’ (Emphasis added.)
[19] It is important to highlight at the onset that McMillan5 is on all fours with
the present appeal as it dealt with almost similar facts and exactly the same legal
point raised in this matter. Despite the fact that both counsel were aware of this
decision, the submissions of the parties remained diametrically opposed. Counsel
representing the appellant, relying on McMillan, argued that the respondent’s
claim became prescribed, at the very latest on 26 September 2012. The
respondent’s counsel on the other hand, relying on Trinity v Grindstone,6
submitted that the McMillan decision did not affect the soundness of his
contention because McMillan is clearly wrong.
[20] In elaboration, counsel argued that in McMillan this Court failed to
appreciate that although the date on which a debt arises usually coincides with
the date on which it becomes due, this is not always the case. The difference,
argued counsel, relates to the coming into existence of the debt on the one hand
and its recoverability on the other.7 Therefore, whilst the legal principles dealt
with by the court in McMillan are correct, it erred in its application of these legal
principles to the facts, as the dates on which the debt arose and when it became
due did not coincide both in McMillan and in this matter.
[21] Furthermore, respondent’s counsel relied on Umgeni Water v Mshengu8
wherein it was said:
‘[5]
. . . Stated another way, the debt must be one in respect of which the debtor is under an
obligation to pay immediately.
[6] . . . In order to be able to institute an action for the recovery of a debt a creditor must
have a complete cause of action in respect of it. The expression “cause of action” has been held
to mean:
5 Ibid.
6 Trinity Asset Management (Pty) Ltd v Grindstone Inv 132 (Pty) Ltd [2017] ZACC 32; 2018 (1) SA 94 (CC);
2017 (12) BCLR 1562 (CC) para 38.
7 List v Jurgens 1979 (3) SA 106 (A) at 121C-D.
8 Umgeni Water v Mshengu [2009] ZASCA 148; [2010] 2 All SA 505 (SCA) para 5-6.
“[E]very fact which it would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove . . . in order to support his
right to judgment of the Court. It does not comprise every piece of evidence which is necessary
to prove each fact, but every fact which is necessary to be proved.”
Or slightly differently stated:
“. . . [T]he entire set of facts which give rise to an enforceable claim and includes every fact
which is material to be proved to entitle a plaintiff to succeed in his claim. It includes all that a
plaintiff must set out in his declaration in order to disclose a cause of action. Such cause of
action does not ‘arise’ or ‘accrue’ until the occurrence of the last of such facts and consequently
the last of such facts is sometimes loosely spoken of as the cause of action.”’
[22] Counsel for the respondent also submitted that the ‘last set of facts’
necessary to complete the respondent’s cause of action was the appeal judgment
of this Court delivered on 24 March 2014. Therefore, if the judgment of Louw J
was overturned on appeal, any action instituted before the appeal judgment,
would have been premature. In relation to the second leg of his argument, counsel
relied on African Products v Venter,9 in which it was held that not only must there
be an obligation to pay immediately, but there must also be no valid or bona fide
defence open to the debtor.
[23] Counsel’s contentions are without merit for at least two reasons. First, it is
not correct that in McMillan this Court was not alive to the distinction as espoused
by the respondent’s counsel. The fact that the distinction was not mentioned does
not necessarily mean that the Court was oblivious to it. It is trite that no judgment
can ever be perfect and all-embracing, and it does not necessarily follow that,
because something has not been mentioned, therefore it has not been
considered.10 But to lay this matter to rest, I can do no better than quote the
following paragraph in McMillan, which in my view is more telling:
9 African Products (Pty) Ltd v Venter NO and Others [2007] 3 All SA 605 (C); [2006] ZAWCHC 32 para 24.
10 R v Dhlumayo and Another 1948 (2) SA 677 (A).
‘[34] The appellant challenged the findings of the court a quo on two main grounds. It was
submitted by the appellant firstly, that the court a quo erred in holding that the appellant had a
complete cause of action for professional negligence against the respondent on 12 May 2014
in circumstances where the antenuptial contract was only declared invalid by Plasket J in the
divorce proceedings in October 2016. Before then, so ran the argument, nobody could have
anticipated a problem. Both the appellant and his former wife had considered the antenuptial
contract to be valid. It was accordingly submitted by the appellant that prescription could not
have commenced running before the judgment of Plasket J in October 2016. The appellant, it
was argued, could not have sued the respondent. Secondly, it was submitted by the appellant
that, as the respondent’s directors disputed that there was a claim against the respondent for
professional negligence, he could not have known that the antenuptial contract was invalid.
Thus, prescription only began to run once Plasket J delivered his judgment on 18 October 2016
regarding the validity of the antenuptial contract. Before then, he did not have the necessary
facts upon which to formulate a claim against the respondent.
[35] I reject the appellant’s contention that, prior to the declaration of invalidity of the
antenuptial contract by Plasket J in October 2016, he could not have had knowledge of all the
material facts he needed before he could institute legal proceedings against the respondent. In
order to succeed in an action for damages against an attorney for professional negligence, a
plaintiff is required to allege and prove: (a) a mandate given to and accepted by the attorney;
(b) a breach of the mandate; (c) negligence in the sense that the attorney did not exercise the
degree of skill, knowledge and diligence expected of an average practising attorney; (d) that
he had suffered damages; and (e) that damages were within the contemplation of the parties
when the mandate was extended. In this case there can be little dispute about (a), (b), (c) and
(e). As to (d), the appellant had been sued by his wife for half of his estate. He had approached
the respondent to defend the claim when they advised him that there was a problem with the
drafting of the antenuptial contract. It was manifest at that stage that he had suffered damages
as a result of the error.
[36] . . .
[37] As I have said, the appellant had acquired knowledge of all necessary facts on which to
sue the respondent on 9 May 2014, when he attended a consultation at the respondent’s offices.’
(Emphasis added.)
[24] Second, the facts of this case go far beyond what happened in McMillan.
The appellant was and is, in my view, too generous in its contention that 26
September 2012 is the date, at the very latest, when the claim prescribed. In my
view, each one of the respective dates relied upon by the appellant which predates
26 September 2012, enumerated in paragraphs 8, 9 and 11 of this judgment, is in
fact dispositive of this appeal. The undisputed facts reveal that by 6 August 2012
(when a discussion about the amended plea took place), the respondent fully
understood from tentative calculations provided that he would be worse off
financially if the antenuptial contract turned out to be invalid. It is therefore clear
that the appellant had knowledge of the fact that there was a problem with the
validity of the antenuptial contract (and at all material times thereafter), and that
patrimonial loss would result from a finding that the antenuptial contract is void.
The effect of this is that the date on which the debt arose, namely 3 September
2012 when Louw J declared the antenuptial contract void, coincided with the date
when it became due.
[25] It is manifest from the uncontested evidence before the high that the
respondent already had knowledge of all the facts from which the debt arose on
6 August 2012 and at all relevant times thereafter but, in adopting a conservative
approach, at the latest, on 26 September 2012. Accordingly, it goes without
saying that on 26 September 2012, the respondent already possessed adequate
facts as required by the Act. This conclusion therefore means that when summons
was served on the appellant on 2 February 2017 a period of over three years had
elapsed since the debt became due.
[26] In the result, the following order is made:
The appeal is upheld with costs.
The order of the high court is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘2.1 The first defendant’s special plea is upheld with costs.
2.2
The plaintiff’s claim against the defendant is dismissed with costs.’
_____________________
A M KGOELE
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
For the appellant:
G F Heyns SC
Instructed by:
Ditsela Incorporated, Pretoria
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For the respondent:
A M Heystek SC
Instructed by:
Kraljevich & Janse van Vuuren Inc,
Centurion
Phatshoane
Henney
Attorneys,
Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
11 JUNE 2021
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does not form part of
the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Van Heerden & Brummer Inc v Bath (356/2020) [2021] ZASCA 80 (11 June 2021)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) handed down judgment upholding an appeal with costs
against a Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (the high court).
The issue before the SCA was whether the high court correctly found that the respondent’s claim
against the appellant had not become prescribed when the summons was served on 2 February
2017.
On 3 September 2012 and during the hearing of the divorce proceedings between the respondent and
his ex-wife, Louw J found the antenuptial contract entered into between the parties to be void due to
vagueness. The respondent’s ex-wife had impugned the validity of the antenuptial contract on the
grounds that it was void due to vagueness. Consequently, the parties' marriage was declared to be in
community of property. The respondent appealed against this finding to the SCA but the SCA
dismissed the appeal on 24 February 2014. Thereafter respondent instituted an action in the high
court against the appellant for damages based on breach of mandate and professional negligence
arising out of drafting an invalid antenuptial contract.
In defending the claim, the appellant raised a special plea of prescription contending that the
respondent had been advised as long ago as August 2012 that if his ex-wife was successful in
impugning the validity of the antenuptial contract, he would have a claim for damages against the
appellant. This advice to the respondent was thereafter repeated on no less than three subsequent
occasions. All of this was not in dispute. The special plea served before Van der Schyff J. The
appellant argued that the respondent had acquired the necessary facts from which the debt arose as
required by s 12(3) of the Prescription Act 68 of 1969 (the Act) at the earliest, on 6 August 2012,
when the respondent’s ex-wife impugned the validity of the antenuptial contract during the divorce
proceedings. Furthermore, the appellant relied on several other dates subsequent to 6 August 2012
on which consultations were held with the respondent. During these consultations, the appellant
contended, the judgment of Louw J, who to sue and the running of prescription of the respondent’s
claim, were discussed with the respondent. The last date relied upon by the appellant was 26
September 2012, when an email confirming the various discussions was sent to the respondent.
Thus, the crux of the appellant’s case is that, on each of the respective dates relied upon and in
particular 26 September 2012 at the latest, prescription began to run against the respondent’s claim.
The respondent on the other hand argued that the last set of facts necessary to institute his claim was
the confirmation of the judgment of Louw J by the SCA, therefore, prescription began to run from 24
February 2014 (i.e. the date of the SCA judgment) and thus his claim had not become prescribed.
The respondent’s contention was upheld by Van der Schyff, who dismissed the special plea with
costs.
In upholding the appeal, the SCA re-affirmed the principles restated in McMillan v Bate Chubb and
found that each of the respective dates relied upon by the appellant were dispositive of the appeal.
Further, that, at the latest, the respondent was on 26 September 2012, already in possession of the
facts necessary to institute a claim against the appellant as provided for in s 12(3) of the Act.
Therefore, the respondent's claim had already prescribed when summons was served on the
appellant on 2 February 2017.
~~~~ends~~~~ |
1871 | non-electoral | 2011 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 644/09
In the matter between:
LEVIN, LARRY IVAN
First Appellant
LEVENBERG, STEPHANIE
Second Appellant
and
LEVIN, FREIDA
First Respondent
MILLER, NORMAN
Second Respondent
ZIEGLER, RAYMOND
Third
Respondent
ZIEGLER, LYNNE
Fourth Respondent
STEINGO, LEONARD
Fifth Respondent
BRESS, ERNEST
Sixth Respondent
WOOD, WENDY
Seventh Respondent
BERSANO, ANNA
Eighth Respondent
RIASUN, PHILIP
Ninth
Respondent
WORTELBOER, MONIQUE
Tenth Respondent
WORTELBOER, MADELEINE
Eleventh Respondent
MASTER OF THE HIGH COURT
Twelfth Respondent
ZIEGLER, LEWIS
Thirteenth Respondent
Neutral citation: Levin v Levin (644/09) [2011] ZASCA 114 (03 June 2011)
Coram:
HARMS DP, NUGENT, MAYA, MALAN JJA AND PLASKET AJA
Heard:
09 May 2011
Delivered: 03 June 2011
Summary: Will – validity thereof – whether provisions of s 2(1)(a) of the Wills Act 7 of 1953
complied with.
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
On appeal from: South Gauteng High Court (Johannesburg) (Pienaar AJ sitting as
court of first instance):
The appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.
____________________________________________________________________
_
JUDGMENT
__________________________________________________________________
MAYA JA (HARMS DP, NUGENT, MALAN JJA AND PLASKET AJA
concurring):
[1] This appeal concerns the validity of a will (the disputed will) allegedly
executed on 4 August 2002 by the late Mrs Minnie ‘Minna’ Breslawsky (born Lom)
(the deceased), who died a widow on 19 October 2002 at age 107. The disputed will,
in which the second, third and fourth respondents were nominated as the co-executors
of the deceased’s estate, was lodged with and accepted by the Master of the High
Court.
[2] The appellants and the first, third, fourth, sixth to the eleventh and the
thirteenth respondents are all members of the deceased’s family. The deceased bore
five children, the late Nathan, Vera, and Molly and the first and the eight respondents.
The appellants are the children of the first respondent who, together with her husband
Gerald Levin, worked for the deceased until her death. The third, fourth and
thirteenth respondents are Vera’s children. The sixth and seventh respondents are
Nathan’s surviving children. The ninth, tenth and eleventh respondents are Molly’s
children. The second respondent, Mr Miller, is the attorney who prepared the disputed
will and the fifth respondent was the deceased’s cardiologist and one of the
beneficiaries under that will.
[3] On 3 March 1999 and 8 August 2001 respectively, the deceased executed two
wills which were the last in a series of at least nineteen such documents said to have
been made by her during her lifetime. The one dated 3 March 1999 dealt with the
deceased’s assets within the State of Israel which the deceased bequeathed to the first
respondent and the appellants. The one of 8 August 2001 (the 2001 will), related to
her assets situate in South Africa and the deceased nominated the first respondent as
executor (together with her accountant Ryan Feinberg and the Standard Bank of
South Africa Ltd) of her estate and granted the first respondent and the appellants
further, substantial bequests. Under the disputed will, on the other hand, in addition to
appointing Mr Miller and the third and fourth respondents as executors, the deceased
bequeathed her estate as follows – (a) 25 per cent to the first respondent, (b) 25 per
cent to the eight respondent, (c) 25 per cent to Vera’s three children to be shared
equally among them, (d) 25% to Molly’s children to be shared equally among them,
(e) R500 000 to each of Nathan’s two children and (f) R50 000 to Dr Steingo.
[4] The appellants brought an action in the high court challenging the disputed will
on a number of grounds. By the time of the trial those grounds had dwindled to the
following: (a) that the signature on the will was not that of the deceased, and in the
alternative (b) that the signature on the will was not affixed in the presence of two
witnesses who were both required to be present at the signing and placed their
signatures on the document in the presence of each other and the deceased.
[5] Only the second, third and fourth respondents defended the action. It was
common cause between the parties that if the disputed will was declared invalid, the
2001 and 1999 wills would be accepted as the deceased’s last wills in relation to her
estates in South Africa and Israel, respectively. After hearing evidence, the court
below (Pienaar AJ) dismissed the matter on the finding that the appellants had not
discharged, on a preponderance of probabilities, the onus of proving that the disputed
will was not the deceased’s valid last testamentary disposition duly executed in
compliance with the provisions of s 2(1)(a) of the Wills Act 7 of 1953 (the Will Act).1
The court below further refused to order the costs of the proceedings to be paid from
the estate on the basis that the appellants had unreasonably instituted the proceedings
at the behest of their mother to thwart the forfeiture provisions contained in clause 11
of the disputed will which divested a legatee or heir of the deceased, who contested
the will, of any benefit under it. Thus, the appellants were mulcted with the costs of
the suit.
[6] The only question to be determined in this appeal, which is pursued with the
leave of this court, is whether the validity of the disputed will has been established.
(Another issue initially raised by the appellants relating to the incidence of the onus
1 Section 2(1)(a) of the Wills Act 7 of 1953 reads as follows:
‘2 Formalities required in the execution of a will
(1) Subject to the provisions of section 3bis –
(a) no will executed on or after the first day of January, 1954, shall be valid unless –
(i)
the will is signed at the end thereof by the testator or by some other person in his presence and by his
direction; and
(ii) such signature is made by the testator … in the presence of two or more competent witnesses present at
the same time; and
(iii) such witnesses attest and sign the will in the presence of the testator and of each other and, if the will is
signed by such other person, in the presence also of such other person; and
(iv) if the will consists of more than one page, each page other than the page on which it ends, is also so
signed by the testator or by such other person anywhere on the page;’
of proof was abandoned before us.)
[7] Some background is required. The deceased and her husband, Mr Solomon
Max Breslawsky who died in 1966, built a very successful property investment
portfolio from a humble furniture shop which they ran in downtown Johannesburg.
Although she was illiterate and spoke little English (her mother tongue was Yiddish)
she was a very astute and successful businesswoman and personally managed her
business and financial affairs until her death, this despite being extremely frail,
wheelchair-bound and blind in one eye in the latter phase of her life.
[8] The deceased had a particularly close relationship with the Standard Bank, her
banker for over 75 years. She latterly dealt mainly with two of its officials, Ms
Bridgette Marais (who had passed away by the time of the trial) who assisted by Ms
Melanie Els, managed her investment portfolio and Mr Hendrik Strydom, an attorney
enlisted by the bank to assist the deceased with her financial and legal affairs. All her
wills but the disputed one were drawn by the Standard Bank and she executed the last
few with the assistance of Strydom with whom she had formed a relationship of trust.
[9] Each of the witnesses at the trial who personally knew the deceased, including
her daughters, the fourth respondent, the first respondent’s husband, Strydom and Els
described her as very difficult, domineering, manipulative, tight-fisted and
mistrustful, especially of her family whom she believed were interested only in her
money. This included the first respondent, who, despite attending to her daily needs
as her personal assistant, she accused of trying to poison her. The deceased sought to
control her family with her wealth (which caused conflict among them) and
frequently changed her will on a whim as she would increase or decrease bequests
and even exclude beneficiaries altogether depending on who pleased or displeased
her at the time. She similarly changed her executors and accountants regularly.
[10] According to the Miller, he was introduced to the deceased by a friend, the
fourth respondent, and befriended her some years before her death. He is fluent in
Hebrew and understood Yiddish in which the deceased preferred to speak. She liked
cucumber pickles which he would make for her and she nicknamed him the
‘cucumber man’ for that reason. He often visited her during weekend afternoons and
the deceased would then tell him stories of her past. This friendship was confirmed by
the fourth and eight respondents. In July 2002, the deceased requested to see him.
They consequently met at her flat, where he was let in by a domestic worker, on the
14th of that month. The deceased expressed her concern about the feuding between
her children and grandchildren. She told him that she wished to return to her Jewish
roots and wanted him to draw a will for her which would restore peace among her
family.
[11] She gave him specific instructions in that regard, which he recorded in
manuscript. In the process she revealed personal information, which he also recorded,
about the characters and foibles of each of her beneficiaries and her feelings about
them. He occasionally had to gently chide and remind her of her objective to treat
everyone fairly when she remembered things about them which annoyed her and
threatened to reduce their bequests. From these notes, he drafted the disputed will
which the deceased signed, on 4 August 2002 at her flat, after he read it to her, in his
presence and in the presence of two witnesses, Mr Barry Tannenbaum, his nephew,
and Mr Norman Aaron, his associate, whom he requested to attest the execution of
the will. The two men confirmed this version.
[12] Relying on the evidence of the various witnesses who testified on the
appellants’ behalf, their counsel argued that the court below erred in not finding that
the probabilities did not support Mr Miller’s evidence. It was submitted that the
following factors rendered the validity of the disputed will doubtful:
it was produced only after the deceased’s death and no account had been sent
by Miller for his services until then;
all the deceased’s previous wills had been prepared by the Standard Bank,
which was appointed as the executor of her estate, and executed with the
assistance of its officials whom she trusted, a procedure which was not
followed in the case of the disputed will. The disputed will was in a completely
different format and made no provision for the various charitable institutions
and the maintenance of the tombstone of the deceased and her late husband as
the previous wills did;
the evidence of Mr Miller, Mr Aaron and Mr Tannenbaum differed on a
material point as they respectively estimated their visit to the deceased’s flat on
4 August 2002 to have occurred between 16h30 and 17h30, 16h00 and 16h30
and 15h00 and 16h00, which was unlikely in the light of the evidence of the
first respondent and her husband who were at the deceased’s flat during that
afternoon and did not see them;
on 23 August 2002, after the alleged execution of the disputed will, Ms Marais
and Ms Els met the deceased to effect changes to the earlier will;
a handwriting expert, Mr Cecil Greenfield, testified that the disputed will was
possibly a forgery;
the first respondent, who spent a lot of time with the deceased as her personal
assistant did not know Mr Miller; and
Mr Miller, Mr Aaron and Mr Tannenbaum refused to consult with the first
respondent’s attorneys.
[13] The appellants’ attempts to refute Mr Miller’s claims to a friendship with the
deceased and the execution of the disputed will at the deceased’s flat was premised on
the evidence of three witnesses. The first respondent said that she did not know him
although it came to light in her cross-examination that she had actually heard of him
and knew that he had dealings with the third respondent who managed the deceased’s
properties. She and her husband testified that they routinely spent every Sunday
between 10h00 and 17h00 with the deceased at her flat and insisted that they would
have seen Mr Miller there on 4 August if his version was true. But according to Ms
Tholakele Ntuli, one of two of the deceased’s care-givers at the time, they did not
adhere to a strict time schedule and usually left anytime between 16h30 and 17h00.
She recalled that on 4 August they left at 16h30 because the first respondent was in a
hurry to get home to make a telephone call. When her version was put to the first
respondent and her husband they were constrained to admit that they left earlier than
they previously stated.
[14] Ms Ntuli alleged that she was on daily day-duty in August and worked until
18h00 even on Sundays to assist the deceased’s live-in caregiver, Ms Emily Zikalala,
as the deceased had become very ill. She saw Mr Miller only once, on a Friday
evening in early October 2002, when he visited the flat with the fourth respondent
and unsuccessfully tried to persuade the deceased to sign certain documents against
her will. She was adamant that she would have seen the second respondent if he
visited or at least heard from Ms Zikalala, with whom she worked shifts, if he had
come during her absence. She and Ms Zikalala were both on duty on 4 August and
only the first respondent and her husband had visited the deceased.
[15] Ms Ntuli’s evidence was contradicted in material respects by a number of
witnesses, including the first respondent, according to whom Ms Ntuli was on duty
alone and not with Ms Zikalala as she testified, on Sunday 4 August. Contrary to Ms
Ntuli’s version that the deceased was too ill to receive callers during that month, Ms
Els had written records of meetings which she and Ms Marais had with the deceased
on 4 and 23 August 2002 and testified about the discussions they had with her at
those meetings. Surprisingly, the first respondent, to whom Ms Ntuli said she
reported, the second and fourth respondents’ October visit was not mentioned in her
evidence as would be expected. The eighth respondent who was visiting the deceased
and staying with her at the time denied the alleged visit, as did the fourth respondent
who, it turned out, was travelling overseas during that month. Even if one accepts that
the visit occurred as alleged, it is difficult to imagine what ‘documents’ Mr Miller
would have tried to influence the deceased to sign at that stage when the disputed will
had been executed some weeks before.
[16] Interestingly, three days after the deceased’s death, the first respondent took
Ms Ntuli to the police station to sign an affidavit which she had prepared for her,
stating that no one had visited the deceased and caused her to sign any documents on
4 August 2002. Curiously, on 11 December 2002 the first respondent took Ms Ntuli
back to the police station to depose to yet another affidavit prepared by her,
ostensibly to confirm what Ms Ntuli had said in the first statement. Ms Ntuli barely
spoke English and had worked for the deceased for only a few months before the
latter died, apparently having been hired merely to assist Ms Zikalala as she worked
only day shifts and lived in separate quarters, on another floor of the deceased’s
building. But Ms Zikalala, the permanent caregiver and a fluent English speaker who
actually lived with the deceased and would, logically, have been a better source of the
goings-on in the deceased’s lodgings, was puzzlingly not called to testify. I find it
most surprising that Ms Ntuli would unerringly remember the fine detail of the events
of 4 August 2002 four years later when, by her own account, there was nothing
remarkable about the day to jog her memory. These discrepancies and improbabilities
in her evidence, in my view, cast serious doubt on her credibility and it seems to me
that the court below rightly rejected her evidence.
[17] It was not disputed that both Mr Tannenbaum and Mr Aaron obtained no
benefit from witnessing the execution of the disputed will. It is difficult to conceive
why these men who knew neither the deceased nor any member of her family would
conspire in the forgery of her will and perjure themselves in court as the appellants
would have it. This applies equally to Mr Miller, despite his friendship with the
fourth respondent, because he refused to accept his nomination as an executor and
arranged for another attorney to administer the deceased’s estate. Unfairly, no
imputation that these witnesses conspired to forge the will and were lying in court
was put to them when they testified to afford them an opportunity to deal with those
imputations.2 And, not unexpectedly, the appellants’ counsel could advance no reason
before us why any finding of dishonesty should be made against them.
[18] Other than the contradiction relating to the precise moment of the execution of
the disputed will during the afternoon of 4 August 2002, no other flaw was identified
2 President of the Republic of South Africa v South African Rugby Football Union 2000 (1) SA 1 (CC).
in the corroborative versions of the second respondent and his two witnesses. To
my mind, this difference is not unexpected considering that these witnesses were
testifying about events which had occurred some years earlier which they had not
recorded. The time frames they gave were merely estimates but the tenor of their
evidence was that their meeting with the deceased took place in the middle to late
afternoon. It can safely be accepted on this evidence, in view of the Levins’
concession regarding the time of their departure from the deceased’s flat, that the
disputed will was executed after 16h30.
[19] The first respondent conceded that the intimate details about the deceased’s
children and grandchildren and her personal views about them which are contained in
the notes which the Mr Miller said he took during his consultation with the deceased
were accurate. But she suggested that Mr Miller probably got the information from
the fourth respondent. I find that possibility most unlikely merely from the nature and
tone of Mr Miller’s recordal which depicted an emotional and deeply personal
running commentary. But that apart, it was not put to Mr Miller that his notes were a
fabrication. Neither was there any hint that the fourth respondent had been present at
or was even aware of the meeting of 14 July 2002.
[20] It is clear from the Standard Bank officials’ manner towards the deceased (the
daily telephone calls to check on her health, the constant social visits, the gifts she
was given etc. patently went far beyond the call of normal business relations) that
they did not trust that she would not change the bank as her executor and needed to
constantly keep her happy. This attitude is, in fact, borne out by Ms Els’ evidence that
at their meeting of 23 August 2002, Ms Marais pertinently asked the deceased if she
had signed another will. That question could only have been prompted by suspicion.
[21] It is not at all odd in view of the deceased’s impulsive and distrustful nature
that she could have asked Mr Miller to draw a secret will on her behalf. It is plain
from the evidence particularly that of the first respondent’s husband, Mr Miller and
Mr Strydom regarding their relationships with the deceased that she trusted people
who understood her home language with whom she could reminisce.
[22] The object of the disputed will was to divide the deceased’s estate fairly among
her children and end the conflict in her family. It had nothing to do with her previous
wills and there is no reason why Mr Miller would have adopted the Standard Bank
format which does not appear to have been brought to his attention and from which
the deceased wanted to depart in any case. Mr Miller’s evidence that the deceased
specifically instructed him not to send him a statement of account or a copy of the
will until she requested it and that he had gained the impression that she wanted to
keep its existence a secret tallies with her character. And I see no reason to draw an
adverse inference from his and the other witnesses’ refusal to consult with the
appellants’ attorneys, as we were urged to do, when it was not disputed that they were
advised against such a meeting by their attorney who had already been notified by the
Standard Bank that it was contemplating challenging the disputed will.
[23] Regarding the evidence of the handwriting expert, Mr Greenfield, the court
below found that it was trumped by the direct testimony given by Mr Miller, Mr
Tannenbaum and Mr Aaron and the evidence of the deceased’s ophthalmologist, Dr
Mark Deist. In reaching this conclusion, the court relied on the judgments of this
court in Kunz v Swart3and Annama v Chetty4 which enjoined courts to apply
caution before accepting handwriting expert evidence. I respectfully agree with the
finding of the court below in this regard.
[24] In the first of two reports on the authenticity of the testator’s signature in the
disputed will prepared by Mr Greenfield, he expressed the following view:
‘If on 4th August 2002, the late Ms Breslawsky’s general health had markedly improved – compared
with the state of her muscular control and eyesight, demonstrated in the signatures in the Will
written some twelve months earlier, it is my view, that she was, in all probability, the writer of the
disputed signatures. If however, it can be proved that her eyesight and muscular control had
dramatically deteriorated during the intervening period between the pen-ultimate and the questioned
Will; right up to the time of signing, then there is, in my view, a strong possibility that the disputed
signatures are very good freehand simulated forgeries.’
[25] What Mr Greenfield had not been told when he prepared his final report (after
being furnished with further signatures of the deceased), which concluded that the
disputed will was most probably a forgery, was that the deceased had in fact
undergone an eye cataract operation after signing the 2001 will. According to Dr
Deist, corroborated by the first respondent, this procedure had significantly improved
the deceased’s vision and hand-eye coordination. Dr Deist opined that it was
reasonable in the light of this improvement to expect the deceased’s handwriting to be
neater. Mr Greenfield conceded that in addition to this operation he was not aware
that the deceased was blind in one eye and did not consider the deceased’s position
when she signed the documents and that all these factors were relevant to his enquiry.
Whilst he still nursed some misgivings about the genuineness of the signature in the
3 Kunz v Swart 1924 AD 618.
4 Annama v Chetty 1946 AD 142.
disputed will, he fairly conceded that he would yield to direct evidence to the effect
that the signature was that of the deceased. If the evidence of Mr Miller and his
witnesses that the disputed will was signed by the deceased is accepted, as I think it
must, then Mr Greenfield’s opinion must be rejected.
[26] What is most striking about this case, in my view, is the nature of the disputed
will which distributes the deceased’s assets among her family far more equitably than
any of her previous wills. This is indeed consonant with Mr Miller’s account that she
wanted peace among her offspring in her final days. I reiterate that it seems to me
most unlikely that three individuals, unrelated to the protagonists, would conspire to
forge a will which treated the beneficiaries fairly and from which they stand to gain
nothing and to perjure themselves in a bid to uphold it.
[27] I have found no reason to doubt Mr Miller’s evidence regarding the making of
the disputed will. The incidence of the onus does not, therefore, arise. His evidence
and that of the witnesses to the signing of the will establishes that it complied with
the formalities required by s 2(1)(a) of the Wills Act. The appeal must, therefore, fail.
[28] There remains the question of costs. It was contended on the appellants’ behalf
that if the appeal failed the costs of all the parties both on appeal and in the court
below should nonetheless be paid from the deceased’s estate because there was a
reasonable basis to doubt and challenge the authenticity of the disputed will. I do not
agree. An order that the costs in a suit must be paid from the estate is not a general
rule, even in matters involving the determination of the true meaning of an
ambiguous will,5 which is hardly the issue here.
[29] The manner in which the appellants conducted the litigation left much to be
desired. They knew all too well that the deceased remained mentally sound and
strong-willed despite her advanced age. But, despite this knowledge, some of the
grounds they pleaded as a basis for challenging the disputed will disingenuously
sought to cast doubt on her mental capacity and ability to make independent
decisions. The appellants also knew of the deceased’s mistrustful and impulsive
nature and cannot have been surprised by the existence of an undisclosed will. They
persisted with the litigation in total disregard of the evidence that her cataract
operation had favourably impacted her handwriting.
[30] The submission that if Mr Tannenbaum, Mr Aaron and Mr Miller had not
refused to consult with the appellants’ attorney the appellants would probably not
have launched the action has no merit in view of the fact that the appellants persisted
with their claim even after they had testified. I see no reason in these circumstances to
burden the deceased’s estate with the costs of ill-conceived litigation and hold that
they should follow the result.
[31] Accordingly, the appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two
counsel.
____________________
5 Cuming v Cuming 1945 AD 201 at 216.
MML MAYA
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES
APPELLANTS: K.R. Lavine
Instructed by Cranko Karp & Associates, Johannesburg;
Lovius Block Attorneys, Bloemfontein.
RESPONDENT: H. Epstein SC
(Ms) K Schneid
Louis H Garb and Raymond
Joffe Attorneys, Johannesburg;
Claude Reid Inc, Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date: 03 June 2011
Status: Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Levin v Levin (644/09) [2011] ZASCA 114 (03 June 2011)
The Supreme Court of Appeal today dismissed an appeal against the decision of the South
Gauteng High Court which found the will of the late Mrs Minnie Breslawsky dated 14
August 2002 valid.
The Supreme Court of Appeal found no reason to doubt the evidence of Mr Normal Miller,
an attorney, who drew the disputed will and held that his evidence and that of the two
witnesses to the signing of the will, established that it complied with the formalities required
by s 2(1)(a) of the Will Act 7 of 1953.
---ends--- |
2193 | non-electoral | 2009 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 153/2008
CITY OF JOHANNESBURG METROPOLITAN
MUNICIPALITY (FORMERLY GREATER
JOHANNESBURG TRANSITIONAL
METROPOLITAN COUNCIL)
Appellant
and
ENGEN PETROLEUM LIMITED
1 st Respondent
SANDTON GATE SERVICE STATION
2 nd Respondent
Neutral citation:
City of Johannesburg v Engen Petroleum Ltd (153/2008)
[2009] ZASCA 5 (10 March 2009)
Coram:
Mpati P, Cloete, Lewis, Cachalia JJA and Leach AJA
Heard:
26 February 2009
Delivered:
10 March 2009
Summary:
The elevation of four lanes of a road above an intersection
amounts to a permanent diversion for the purpose of s 67 of
the Local Government Ordinance 17 of 1939 (T).
ORDER
On appeal from: High Court, Johannesburg (Boruchowitz J sitting as court of first
instance):
‘The appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.’
JUDGMENT
LEWIS JA (MPATI P, CLOETE and CACHALIA JJA and LEACH AJA concur)
[1] Grayston Drive in Sandton, Johannesburg runs from east to west, from
Rivonia Road to Wynberg and vice versa. It is a major thoroughfare that leads to
and from on and off ramps of the M1 Highway. The highway connects Pretoria in
the north and Johannesburg in the south. From 1992 to 1994 the City Council of
Sandton effected substantial changes to Grayston Drive, in particular at its
intersection with Katherine Street, also a major thoroughfare, which runs in part at
right angles to Grayston Drive. The effect of the construction work was to elevate
four lanes of Grayston Drive (two in each direction) above Katherine Street in such
a way as to create a flyover above it. One lane on the southern side and two on the
northern side of the flyover remained on the same plane as previously.
[2] The second respondent, Sandton Gate Service Station CC (Sandton Gate),
owns a petrol filling station and a public garage on the southwest side of Grayston
Drive, at the intersection with Katherine Street. Sandton Gate is supplied with
petrol and other products by the second respondent, Engen Petroleum Ltd
(Engen). Sandton Gate and Engen claimed damages from the appellant (the
successor in title to the Sandton City Council, and to which I shall refer as the City
Council)), allegedly caused by the diversion, or closure, of the lanes in Grayston
Drive, which, they contended, impeded access by vehicles to the filling station
owned by Sandton Gate (the filling station). The reduced access resulted, they
alleged, in a decrease in sales of Engen products, such that both Sandton Gate
and Engen have suffered losses.
[3] The right to claim damages that the respondents assert arises from
subsections 67(3) and (4) of the Local Government Ordinance 17 of 1939 (T)
which the parties agree was in operation at all relevant times. The pertinent
provisions of section 67 follow:
‘67
Permanent closing or diversion of street. – Notwithstanding anything to the
contrary in this Ordinance contained the council may with the approval of the
Administrator, permanently close or divert any street or portion of a street if and when the
following conditions have been complied with –
(1)
Notice of the intention to move that steps be taken for the closing or diversion of a
street or portion of a street shall be given at a meeting of the council at least fourteen days
prior to the meeting at which the motion will be dealt with.
(2)
If the said motion be agreed to the council shall cause a plan to be prepared
showing the position of the boundaries of the street or portion of the street proposed to be
closed or diverted.
(3) (a) On completion of the said plan the council shall publish a notice in the Provincial
Gazette and in at least one English and one Afrikaans newspaper circulating in the
council’s area of jurisdiction setting out briefly the council’s proposals, stating that the said
plan is open for inspection at a place and during the hours specified in such notice and
calling upon any person who has any objection to the proposed closing or diversion or who
will have any claim for compensation if such closing or diversion is carried out to lodge his
objection or claim, as the case may be, with council, in writing, not later than a specified
date which shall be at least sixty days from the date of publication of the Provincial
Gazette or newspaper in which the notice will be published last.
(b)
The council shall at least sixty days before the time for the lodging of objections
and claims will expire –
(i)
cause copies of the said notice to be posted in a conspicuous manner on or near
the street or portion of the street which it is desired to close or divert and shall cause such
copies to remain posted as aforesaid until the time for lodging objections and claims has
expired;
(ii)
cause a copy of the said notice to be served on the owners or reputed owners,
lessees or reputed lessees and the occupiers of all properties abutting upon the street or
portion of the street which it is proposed to close or divert; provided that if the name and
address of any such owner, reputed owner, lessee, reputed lessee or occupier cannot
after reasonable enquiry be ascertained, a copy of the notice need not be served on him.
(iii) …
(4) (a) Any person who considers that his interests will be adversely affected by the
proposed closing or diversion may at any time before the time for the lodging of objections
and claims has expired, lodge with the council a claim, in writing, for any loss or damage
which will be sustained by him if the proposed closing or diversion is carried out. If such
closing or diversion is carried out the council shall pay compensation for the damage or
loss sustained by such person, the amount of compensation in default of mutual
agreement to be determined by arbitration. In assessing the amount of compensation the
benefit or advantage derived or to be derived by the claimant by reason of the closing or
diversion shall be taken into account. If such person, however, fails to lodge his claim with
the council during the period during which objections and claims may in terms of
paragraph (3) of this section be lodged he shall not be entitled to any compensation for
any damage or loss sustained by him.
(b)
If the council finds that the payment of compensation will be too costly, it may
resolve not to proceed with the proposed closing or diversion.
. . .
(10)
The council shall supply the SurveyorGeneral with a diagram framed by an
admitted Land Surveyor showing all the details of the closing or diversion. The Surveyor
General shall thereupon cause such amendments to be made in the general plan of the
township as are necessary to show such closing or diversion and the Registrar of Deeds
or other registration officer concerned shall thereupon make corresponding entries in his
registers.
. . .’
[4] The City Council admits that it did not comply with the conditions prescribed
by subsections 67(2) and (3). No notice was given to any of the affected property
owners or occupiers (the City Council pleaded that since it did not effect a
permanent closure or diversion notice was not necessary) and thus no objections
were made in accordance with the section.
[5] At issue before the high court was the sole question whether the
construction work effected by the City Council constituted a permanent diversion or
closure of Grayston Drive as contemplated by s 67 of the Ordinance. (The high
court had ordered a separation of issues in terms of r 33(4)). Boruchowitz J found
that the elevation of four lanes of Grayston Drive did not amount to a permanent
closure of the road (and there is no crossappeal against that finding) but did
constitute a permanent diversion. The City Council appeals against that decision
with the leave of the high court.
[6] The only issue before this court is thus whether the high court correctly
found that the elevation of four lanes above Katherine Street amounted to a
diversion of a portion of Grayston Drive for the purpose of s 67 of the Ordinance.
There are no factual disputes. The parties, in the pleadings and at the trial, made
several admissions. These include: the southern boundary of the road reserve that
existed prior to the construction of the Grayston flyover did not change after the
construction work was completed. The intersection with Katherine Street has
remained much the same, save that four lanes of Grayston Drive are elevated
above it. Prior to the construction of the fourlane flyover, the southern portion of
Grayston Road consisted of three lanes which intersected with Katherine Street at
ground level, and the intersection was controlled by traffic lights. After the
construction of the flyover, the southern portion, accommodating the traffic that
flows from east to west, has been divided into two sections; two lanes are on the
flyover, whilst the most southern lane still goes through the intersection with
Katherine Street. (The same change was effected on the northern side, two lanes
proceeding at ground level and two on the flyover.) The southern lane proceeds
from east to west across Katherine Street past the Sandton Gate filling station and
rejoins the other two lanes going in the same direction at the end of the flyover.
Access from the southernmost lane to the filling station has not been affected. But
once traffic proceeds on the lanes on the flyover it has no access to the filling
station. If the construction of the flyover does constitute a permanent diversion or
closure Engen and Sandton Gate are persons within the ambit of s 67 of the
Ordinance.
[7] On appeal the City Council contends that the construction of the flyover did
not amount to a permanent diversion: the elevation of four lanes of Grayston Drive
does not divert the road. The City Council concedes that there has been a change
to Grayston Drive, but argues that the change does not amount to a diversion
because that requires a lateral change, on a horizontal plane. There is no change
from a course or a route, it contends. Vehicles proceed along the same path as
they would have done before the construction of the flyover.
[8] The City Council relies in this regard on Bellevue Motors CC v
Johannesburg City Council 1 in which it was held that the reverse of traffic flow on a
road did not amount to a diversion for the purpose of s 67 of the Ordinance.
Rockey Street, Bellevue, Johannesburg, is a oneway street. The Council changed
the direction of the flow of the traffic. The court found that this did not amount to a
diversion of the road. The court said: 2
‘Its [divert’s] plain meaning is related to the words ‘any street or portion of a street’ and has
nothing to do with the direction of traffic flows on the street however adversely these may
affect a particular party . . . The Oxford English Dictionary 2 nd ed (1991) vol 4 at 888 gives
the following meaning to the word ‘divert’:
‘To turn aside (a thing, as a stream, etc) from its (proper) direction or course; to
deflect (the course of something); to turn from one destination or object to another.’
. . .
In my view, the diversions of traffic flows on Rockey Street . . . do not have the effect of
turning Rockey Street from its proper direction or course . . . . It seems to me that the
section envisages a diversion of a street in the sense that the street, I stress ‘street’, as
opposed to the traffic that travels thereon, is diverted, in the sense that it is deflected from
its proper course.’
[9] Boruchowitz J, in the high court, considered that in this case the issue was
different. It was not traffic flow, or the direction of traffic flow, that was the diversion
contended for, but the deviation of the road itself. Prior to the construction of the
flyover, the three lanes of Grayston Drive running from west to east had been on a
level plane: after the construction two lanes were on a different plane. There had
been a vertical diversion – the physical location of the two lanes had changed and
been diverted away from the intersection with Katherine Street.
[10] The City Council argues that this conclusion is not consonant with dictionary
definitions of ‘divert’. A diversion, dictionary definitions suggest, must be on a
horizontal plane. Thus, it contends, when an aeroplane flies at a higher or lower
altitude than planned it does not ‘divert’ from its course: it continues in the same
direction. Sandton Gate and Engen contend, on the other hand, that while it is
correct that various dictionary definitions indicate that the usual meaning of ‘divert’
is to turn in a different direction, or to alter the course of something, dictionary
1 1994 (4) SA 339 (W).
2 At 343DH.
definitions are not decisive. In Monsanto Co v MDB Animal Health (Pty) Ltd 3
Harms JA repeated the general principle that, while dictionary definitions may be a
useful guide to the meaning of a word, the task of an interpreter is to ascertain the
meaning of a word in its context. The court cited the dictum of Hefer JA in
Fundstrust (Pty) Ltd (in liquidation) v Van Deventer 4 where he had said:
‘As a rule every word or expression must be given its ordinary meaning and in this regard
lexical research is useful and at times indispensable. Occasionally, however, it is not.’
[11] Counsel for Sandton Gate and Engen have provided numerous examples of
statutes and cases in the United Kingdom and elsewhere where the word ‘divert’ is
used to indicate a change on a vertical plane. But these are all contextspecific and
do not, in my view, assist in the interpretation of s 67 of the Ordinance. Counsel
refer also, however, to W G Berry Local Government Law in the Transvaal (1978), 5
which, commenting on s 67(4) observes, although without reference to authority,
that: ‘The raising or lowering of the level of a street may, however, possibly
constitute a closing or diversion of the street (ie, on the vertical as opposed to the
horizontal plane), which might possibly give rise to a claim for compensation in
terms of s 67(4). . . ’.
[12] Counsel for the City Council, who take issue with this construction, were
driven to contend that if the four lanes of Grayston Drive had been built
underground, in a tunnel rather than on a flyover, that too would not amount to a
diversion since there would not be any deviation away from the original path of the
road. The fallacy in this approach is selfevident.
[13] The City Council also argues that a general plan of the road system, which
is twodimensional, does not show any change to the path of the road. The plan
shows only changes in direction – that is, horizontal movements to left and right, or
to north, south, east or west. Regard must be had, the argument continues, to the
definition of ‘street’ in the Ordinance: s 2 defines a ‘street, road or thoroughfare’ as
one shown as such on the general plan of a township. The elevation of lanes on
3 2001 (2) SA 887 (SCA) para 9.
4 1997 (1) SA 710 (A) at 726H727B. See also De Beers Industrial Diamond Division (Pty) Ltd v
Ishizuka 1980 (2) SA 191 (T) at 196EF, and Seven Eleven Corporation of SA (Pty) Ltd v Cancun
Trading No 150 CC 2005 (5) SA 186 (SCA) para 24.
5 Page 64.
Grayston Drive to create a flyover does not require a change to the general plan,
which is twodimensional. This, it is argued, demonstrates that there has been no
diversion. The effect of the argument is that the general plan is determinative of the
question whether there has been a permanent diversion.
[14] There is, however, nothing in the Ordinance that suggests that a diversion is
only such if the general plan requires amendment pursuant to its construction.
Moreover, s 67(10) requires the City Council to supply the SurveyorGeneral with a
diagram of a diversion only after the work has been completed. The question
whether there has been a diversion is one of fact, not decided by the Surveyor
General or any other functionary. Thus in my view whether or not a change is
reflected on the general plan cannot be determinative of the nature of the change.
[15] I consider that meaning must be given to ‘diversion’ by examining the
purpose of s 67 (read of course in the light of the entire Ordinance). I deal here
only with a diversion since closure is not in issue: but the principles applicable
would of course be the same. Section 67 requires notice to be given to persons
affected by a permanent diversion, who may in turn object to the proposed change
and claim compensation for any loss sustained as a result of the diversion. The
purpose of the provision is clearly to compensate for pecuniary loss sustained as a
result of a change to the road that has an adverse financial effect on owners,
lessees or occupiers whose property abuts the road. The question to be
considered, then, is whether the change to the road itself has such an effect. If
raising the elevation of the two lanes of Grayston Road in issue has that effect then
the change must fall within the ambit of the section.
[16] It is clear that the elevation of the lanes on Grayston Drive has had a
material impact on the ability of drivers to gain access to the filling station. If a
driver proceeding from east to west along the road is in any but the outer
(southern) lane he or she must drive on to the flyover over Katherine Street, and
will not be able to gain access to the filling station. Similarly, motorists travelling in
the other direction, who before the construction could have turned into the filling
station, now cannot do so unless they first turn into Katherine Street, and then
back again in to the southernmost lane of Grayston Drive. The elevation of the
lanes has thus changed the access of drivers to the filling station no matter in
which direction they are travelling. A substantial portion of Grayston Drive has
been moved upwards, on to a different plane, such that access to and from
adjoining properties has been materially altered. It should be noted that s 67
contemplates permanent diversion also of a portion of a road, not only the whole
road.
[17] I consider that this is preeminently the kind of road change that affects
adjacent landowners, lessees and occupiers whom the provisions of the ordinance
are designed to compensate in the event of loss. It would be artificial to regard
Grayston Drive and the land abutting it as being in the same position as they were
prior to the construction of the flyover. There is no justification for construing s
67(4) so as to limit its application to horizontal diversions. In any event, such a
limitation would give rise to absurdity. The purpose of s 67(4) is to compensate
property owners, lessees or occupiers who suffer pecuniary loss because of the
change in the road. If the two lanes in Grayston Drive had been moved further to
the north, for example, rather than on to a flyover, and that had the effect of
diverting traffic, and thus business, away from the filling station, Sandton Gate and
Engen would have been entitled to recover their losses. If the effect of moving the
two lanes up vertically is the same, why should they, or any other right holder in a
similar position, be nonsuited? The distinction contended for is not only illogical,
but could lead to inequitable results. I can see no reason why s 67(4) should allow
compensation for pecuniary loss suffered only where there is a horizontal
relocation of a road.
[18] I consider therefore that the construction of the flyover did constitute a
permanent diversion for the purpose of s 67(4) and thus that the decision of the
court below was correct on this point.
[20] The appeal is accordingly dismissed with costs including those attendant on
the employment of two counsel.
C H Lewis
Judge of Appeal
Appearances:
For the Appellant:
J Suttner SC
T Motau
Instructed by:
Knowles Husain Lindsay Inc
Sandton Johannesburg
McIntyre & van der Post
Bloemfontein
For the 1 st Respondent:
O L Rogers SC
P L Carstensen
Instructed by:
Kritzinger & Co
Rosebank Johannesburg
Matsepes Attorneys
Bloemfontein | SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
PRESS RELEASE
10 March 2009
STATUS: Immediate
City of Johannesburg v Engen Petroleum (153/2008) [2009] 5
ZASCA (XX 2009)
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media
and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
The Johannesburg High Court granted an application by the owner of a petrol
filling station and its supplier for an order that the elevation of four lanes of
Grayston Drive, above Katherine Street, in Sandton, Johannesburg,
amounted to a permanent diversion of that portion of Grayston Drive for the
purpose of s 67 of the Local Government Ordinance 17 of 1939 (T), in
operation over the relevant period from 1992 to 1994. The section required
notice to be given to adjacent property owners, lessees and occupiers, and
made provision for them to object to a permanent diversion and to claim
compensation for financial loss caused by such a diversion.
The City Council did not give notice to affected persons, apparently being
under the impression that a vertical change to Grayston Drive did not amount
to a diversion. On appeal against the order of the High Court the City Council
argued that only lateral or horizontal deviations from a path or road constitute
diversions, and that because the general plan of the area does not
necessarily show any elevation or vertical change, the elevated portion of
Grayston Drive did not amount to a permanent diversion.
The SCA today dismissed the appeal against the High Court order, finding
that the construction of a flyover over Katherine Street, and the consequent
elevation of four lanes above the intersection, did amount to a permanent
diversion. The court held that nothing in the ordinance suggested that only
horizontal diversions were covered by s 67, the purpose of which was to
compensate property holders for financial loss caused by a permanent
change to a road.
------------------ |
3056 | non-electoral | 2015 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 20519/14
In the matter between
Reportable
ANNIE HENDRICKS
APPELLANT
and
MARGARET HENDRICKS
FIRST RESPONDENT
GRAHAM HENDRICKS
SECOND RESPONDENT
AND ALL OTHER FAMILY AND PERSONS
RESIDING UNDER THE FIRST AND
SECOND RESPONDENTS
THIRD RESPONDENT
CITY OF CAPE TOWN
FOURTH RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: A Hendricks v M Hendricks & others (20519/14) [2015]
ZASCA 165 (25 November 2015)
Coram:
Mhlantla, Leach, Tshiqi, Majiedt and Saldulker JJA
Heard:
16 November 2015
Delivered:
25 November 2015
Summary:
Eviction – an owner who occupies property without the consent
of the holder of a right of habitation in respect of that property is an „unlawful
occupier‟ as contemplated in the Prevention of Illegal Eviction from and
Unlawful Occupation of Land Act 19 of 1998.
______________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Western Cape Division of the High Court, Cape Town
(Zondi and Samela JJ sitting as court of appeal):
1. The appeal is upheld, with the first respondent to pay the costs.
2. The order of the a quo is set aside and substituted with the following:
„(a) The appeal is upheld, with the first respondent to pay the costs.
(b) The matter is remitted to the Somerset West Magistrates‟ Court for
the finalisation of the eviction application brought by the appellant, (the
applicant in the magistrates‟ court), in particular for a consideration of
the factors set out in section 4(7) of the Prevention of Illegal Eviction
from and Unlawful Occupation of Land Act, 19 of 1998‟.
______________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________
Majiedt JA (Mhlantla, Leach, Tshiqi and Saldulker JJA concurring):
[1] A long-running family quarrel culminated in the appellant, Ms Annie
Hendricks, seeking the eviction of her erstwhile daughter-in-law, the first
respondent, Ms Margaret Hendricks, and her son, the second respondent, Mr
Graham Hendricks, in the Somerset West Magistrates‟ Court. The third
respondent, collectively the other persons occupying the property in question
through the first and second respondents, and the fourth respondent, the City
of Cape Town, did not participate in the matter. I will therefore refer to the first
and second respondents simply as „the respondents‟.
[2] The eviction was sought in terms of the provisions of the Prevention of
Illegal Eviction from and Unlawful Occupation of Land Act, 19 of 1998, (the
PIE Act), but was unsuccessful. The magistrates‟ court held that the
respondents were not unlawful occupiers as contemplated in the PIE Act and
could therefore not be evicted. The Western Cape Division of the High Court,
Cape Town (Zondi and Samela JJ, sitting as court of appeal) endorsed this
view and dismissed the appellant‟s appeal. This court granted the appellant
special leave in terms of s 16(1)(b) of the Superior Courts Act, 10 of 2013.
[3] The eviction application was unopposed. The unanswered factual
allegations made by the appellant are these. The appellant was 72 years old
when she launched the eviction application. On 5 November 1990 she had
sold her residential property, Erf 2128, Macassar, situated at 9 Fish Street,
Macassar (the property), to her son, the second respondent. A lifelong right of
habitation was registered in favour of the appellant on the property‟s title
deed. A concomitant cession of right of habitation, signed by the second
respondent in favour of the appellant in respect of the property, was recorded
in a notarial deed, number K871/90. The appellant lived in the property when
her son took occupation thereof after registration of the transfer. The second
respondent married the first respondent in community of property on 24
November 1990. Relations soured between the appellant and the first
respondent and deteriorated steadily over the years. By 2009 the appellant
experienced the living conditions in the property as intolerable which
prompted her to leave the property temporarily. She was granted refuge first
by her daughter and later by her other son. The appellant obtained a family
violence interdict against the first respondent and instructed her attorneys to
write to the respondents to request them that the appellant be permitted to
move back into the property without being verbally abused by them. These
letters, as well as ongoing negotiations, including a round-table discussion
convened by the appellant‟s attorneys, bore no fruit.
[4] The respondents were divorced on 2 February 2010 and, in terms of
the decree of divorce, their joint estate in community of property had to be
divided equally between them. It appears from the papers that at some stage
the second respondent (who, as stated, is the appellant‟s son) left the
property, possibly as a consequence of having been refused access to the
property by the first respondent. He has played no part in any of the previous
proceedings and in this court. Ultimately, the first respondent remained in
occupation of the property, together with her daughter from a previous
relationship, her granddaughter and the three children born of the marriage
between her and the second respondent. On 6 February 2012 the appellant‟s
attorneys wrote to the first respondent, again asserting the appellant‟s right of
habitation and calling upon the first respondent to vacate the property by 22
February 2012, failing which an eviction order would be obtained. In the end,
an eviction order was sought, without success.
[5] The central issue before the magistrates‟ court was whether the
respondents were unlawful occupiers as envisaged in the PIE Act. Section 4
provides for the eviction of unlawful occupiers. Since the respondents had
been in occupation of the property for more than six months at the time of the
eviction application, s 4(7) applies. It reads:
„(7) If an unlawful occupier has occupied the land in question for more than six
months at the time when the proceedings are initiated, a court may grant an order for
eviction if it is of the opinion that it is just and equitable to do so, after considering all
the relevant circumstances, including, except where the land is sold in a sale of
execution pursuant to a mortgage, whether land has been made available or can
reasonably be made available by a municipality or other organ of state or another
land owner for the relocation of the unlawful occupier, and including the rights and
needs of the elderly, children, disabled persons and households headed by women.‟
In s 1 „unlawful occupier‟ is defined as follows:
„“unlawful occupier” means a person who occupies land without the express or
tacit consent of the owner or person in charge, or without any other right in law to
occupy such land, excluding a person who is an occupier in terms of the Extension of
Security of Tenure Act, 1997, and excluding a person whose informal right to land,
but for the provisions of this Act would be protected by the provisions of the Interim
Protection of the Informal Land Rights Act, 1996 (Act 31 of 1996).‟
„Person in charge‟ is defined in that section as „a person who has or at the
relevant time had legal authority to give permission to a person to enter or
reside upon the land in question‟. The appellant‟s case is that she was at the
time of the eviction application the person in charge of the property, and that
her legal authority, as contemplated in the definition, emanated from her right
of habitation. In the magistrates‟ court the appellant‟s legal standing to bring
the application and the fact that she had temporarily given up residing in the
property without abandoning her right of habitation, was not in issue. It was
also not in issue that she had not consented to the respondents‟ occupation of
the property and that any previous tacit or implied consent had been
unequivocally withdrawn. I must add that, although no opposing papers had
been filed on behalf of the respondents, they were represented by an attorney
in the magistrates‟ court. But in the court a quo and in this court, the first
respondent appeared in person, apparently due to impecuniosity. Before us
the first respondent merely denied that she had caused the appellant to leave
the property and indicated that the appellant was welcome to return at any
time.
[6] The right to habitation as a servitude is a limited real right which
confers on the holder the right to dwell in the house of another, without
detriment to the substance of the property1. The right can historically be
traced back to Roman law when the original objective was to provide
accommodation to indigent foreigners. In that context it was regarded as a
factual, rather than a juridical, institution. But Justinian accepted it as a sui
generis legal concept and he classified it as a personal servitude2. This was
generally accepted by Roman-Dutch authorities3. Our courts have long
recognized habitatio as a personal servitude which is a limited real right. Thus
it has been held to be a jus in re which founds an action rei vindicatio4. The
novel question before us is whether, as far as the PIE Act is concerned, a
holder of this limited real right is a „person in charge‟ of the property in respect
of which the habitatio operates and whether that holder can obtain an eviction
1 See: P J Badenhorst et al, Silberberg and Schoeman‟s The Law of Property, 5 ed at 341.
2 I 2.5.5; and see Van Leeuwen Censura Forensis 1.2.15.12.
3 Grotius, Introduction 2.44.8; van der Linden, Institutes 1.11.6.
4 Galant v Mahonga 1922 EDL 69 at 79. See also Kidson & another v Jimspeed Enterprises
CC & others 2009 (5) SA 246 (GNP) paras 7 and 8, where Van Rooyen AJ gives a useful
exposition of the history and ambit of the right.
order against an owner who occupies the property without the holder‟s
consent. For the reasons that follow both these questions must in my view be
answered in the affirmative.
[7] It is well established that ownership is the most comprehensive real
right and that all other real rights are derived from it5. But limited real rights
are absolute in the sense that they are enforceable against any and all. A
limited real right detracts from the owner‟s dominium. Thus, in the present
instance, the owner of the property, the first respondent, cannot exercise full
dominium over it, inasmuch as she cannot occupy the property, unless the
appellant as the holder of the right to habitation has consented thereto.
Absent such consent, her occupation of the property is unlawful. She is
therefore, on the facts of this case, an „unlawful occupier‟ within the meaning
contemplated in s 1 of the PIE Act.
[8] The court a quo sought to distinguish Galant and Kidson (referred to in
footnote 4 above) on the facts and on the law. It rejected the contention
advanced by the appellant‟s counsel that „the right to habitation trumps
ownership‟. Finally, it found that the owner of the right to habitation cannot
evict the owner of the servient tenement. While it did not set out any further
reasons for this conclusion it seems to me, with respect, that the court a quo
has misconceived the nature of the right of habitation vis-à-vis the owner of
the property in respect of which the habitatio prevails. And the court a quo
failed to consider at all whether the holder of such a right can be a „person in
charge‟ for purposes of the PIE Act, more particularly as far as s 4(7) is
concerned. In Kidson the owner of a farm had destroyed the farmstead and
outbuilding to which the applicants had a right of habitation, granted to them
by the previous owner. The court held that the applicants were entitled to
exercise their rights of habitation by either rebuilding the farmstead and
outbuildings or by building alternative structures. Van Rooyen AJ correctly
held (at para 11) that „the ius in re aliena limits [an owner‟s] ownership until
5 Grotius: Inleidinge 2.3.10: „Ownership is complete if someone may do with the thing
whatever he pleases, provided that it is permitted in terms of law‟ (translation as set out in
Silberberg and Schoeman‟s The Law of Property 5 ed, at 91 fn 7, own emphasis). See also
Regal v African Superslate (Pty) Ltd 1963 (1) SA 102 (A) at 106-107.
the death of the person entitled to the habitatio.‟ In Galant the court enforced
a right of habitation enjoyed by an heir against a co-heir who had inherited the
farm. Sampson J held that the plaintiff, as holder of the right of habitation, can
sue for the recovery of that right against any owner of the land subject to the
right. These cases demonstrate that an owner‟s rights in his or her property
are limited in relation to the right of habitation and, for that matter, by the
holder of the right of use [usus] and a usufruct. In this regard therefore the
court a quo erred in its findings.
[9] I have not been able to find a reported judgment where the holder of a
right of habitation had been held to be a „person in charge‟ within the meaning
of the PIE Act. But appellant‟s counsel referred us to the unreported judgment
of Rogers AJ in October NO & another v Hendricks & another6. There the
court had to decide whether the owners of property could be „unlawful
occupiers‟ in the context of an eviction application having been brought by the
holder of a life usufruct in respect of the property. The applicant‟s late
husband had bequeathed the relevant property to their two daughters with the
proviso that they should vacate the property once they get married. The will
also stipulated a life usufruct in favour of the applicant. As is the case here,
strained relations between the applicant and one of her daughters resulted in
an eviction application in the high court against the said daughter and her
husband. The court framed the question thus: whether the respondents in that
case were persons who occupy the property „without the express or tacit
consent of the owner of person in charge, or without any other right in law to
occupy such [property]‟. Rogers AJ held that „(w)here someone other than the
registered owner is the “person in charge” (ie the person with the right to
determine who stays on the property), it is the consent of such person rather
than the registered owner which is . . . relevant. It follows that the holder of
bare dominium could be an unlawful occupier if he or she occupied property
without the consent of the usufructuary‟ (own emphasis).
6 October NO & another v Hendricks and another (23189/2011) [2013] ZAWCHC 12 (31
January 2013).
[10] The conclusion and reasoning of Rogers AJ is clearly correct. Applied
to the present instance, the first respondent‟s bare dominium as owner of the
property must in law yield to the appellant‟s right of habitation. For, like usus
and usufruct, habitatio is a limited real right, enforceable to the extent of the
right itself, against the entire world (hence its registrability against a title
deed). Absent any consent from the appellant, either express, tacit or implied,
the first respondent is an unlawful occupier of the property.
[11] When one has regard to the definition of an „unlawful occupier‟ in s 1,
as set out above, the appellant is indubitably a „person in charge‟ of the
property. This is so, not only on the basis expounded by Rogers AJ in
October, quoted above, but also by virtue of the fact that the appellant plainly
derives her „legal authority‟ as contemplated in the definition of „person in
charge‟ in s 1 and as set out above, from her right of habitatio. She alone
could legally grant permission to a person (even the registered owner) to
reside in the property.
[12] In the premises, the court a quo has erred in its findings. But that is not
the end of the matter. Section 4(7) provides that a court may grant an eviction
order only if it is satisfied that it is just and equitable to do so. In order to make
that determination, it must consider the factors enumerated in the subsection.
In Port Elizabeth Municipality v Various Occupiers7 the court stressed that the
phrase „just and equitable‟ entails a more elaborate enquiry than „purely of the
technical kind that flow[s] ordinarily from the provisions of land law‟8. And it
emphasized that in conducting such an enquiry, „. . . the court must have
regard to the interests and circumstances of the occupier and pay due regard
to broader considerations of fairness and other constitutional values, so as to
produce a just and equitable result‟9.
[13] Some of the factors to be considered in terms of s 4(7) are the rights
and needs of the elderly, children, disabled persons and households headed
7 Port Elizabeth Municipality v Various Occupiers (CCT 53/03) [2004] ZACC 7; 2005 (1) SA
217 (CC).
8 Id, para 35.
9 Id, para 36.
by women. As a result of the outcome of the case the magistrates‟ court did
not have to consider s 4(7) at all. Due to the lack of opposing papers, there is
a dearth of information on these and other potentially relevant aspects. It
appears from the papers that, at the time of the respondents‟ divorce (in
2010), there was one minor child (they had three children). There is no
indication on the papers of whether this child and possibly one or both of the
others, may still be dependent on their parents. There is also no indication
whether anyone of the occupiers of the property is disabled. In all probability
that household is headed by a woman, the first respondent, in view of her
divorce from the second respondent. In the circumstances, the matter must be
remitted to the Somerset West Magistrates‟ Court for a full enquiry as
contemplated in s 4(7) into whether it would be just and equitable to order the
eviction of the respondents (in effect only the first respondent) and all those
occupying the property through them or her (the first respondent).
[14] It is necessary to add one last observation. This unseemly family feud
is highly regrettable. It is plain on the papers that hard, inflexible positions
have been adopted on both sides. Ultimately, no one wins in a matter such as
this. The more desirable outcome, beneficial to all concerned, is to bury the
hatchet and to co-exist in harmony on the property. One can only hope that
good common sense will prevail.
[15] The following order is issued:
1. The appeal is upheld, with the first respondent to pay the costs.
2. The order of the court a quo is set aside and substituted with the
following:
„(a) The appeal is upheld, with the first respondent to pay the costs.
(b) The matter is remitted to the Somerset West Magistrates‟ Court for
the finalisation of the eviction application brought by the appellant, (the
applicant in the magistrates‟ court), in particular for a consideration of
the factors set out in section 4(7) of the Prevention of Illegal Eviction
from and Unlawful Occupation of Land Act, 19 of 1998.‟
________________________
S A MAJIEDT
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES
For Appellant:
R J Steyn
Instructed by:
Morkel & De Villiers Attorneys, Somerset West
Matsepes Inc, Bloemfontein
For Respondents:
In Person | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE
SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN COURT OF
APPEAL
25 November 2015
STATUS: Immediate
A HENDRICKS V M HENDRICKS & OTHERS (20519/14)
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
The Supreme Court of Appeal (the SCA) today upheld an appeal against an order of
the Somerset West Magistrates’ Court, confirmed on appeal to the Western Cape
Division of the High Court, Cape Town, refusing an application for eviction. The
appellant had sold her house to her son, but a right of habitation was registered in
the property’s title deed in the appellant’s favour. The appellant occupied the house
with her son (the second respondent) and his wife (the first respondent) whom he
had married shortly after taking transfer of the house. Serious problems arose
between the appellant and the first respondent, causing the former to temporarily
leave the house whereafter she lived elsewhere.
The appellant brought an eviction application in the magistrates’ court, which was
dismissed on the basis that the first and second respondents were not unlawful
occupiers in terms of the Prevention of Illegal Eviction from and Unlawful Occupation
of Land Act 19 of 1998 (the PIE Act). The high court endorsed this finding. On
appeal the SCA held that in law the appellant’s right of habitation is stronger than the
respondents’ right of ownership. The SCA held further that the appellant, as holder
of the right of habitation, is a ‘person in charge’ as defined in section 1 of the PIE Act
and, absent her consent, the respondents occupy the house unlawfully. The SCA,
while finding that the magistrates’ court and the high court had erred, remitted the
matter to the magistrates’ court for a full enquiry to determine whether it would be
just and equitable, as contemplated in Section 4(7) of the PIE Act, to evict the first
respondent and all those occupying the house through her.
-- ends -- |
1428 | non-electoral | 2010 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case no: 419/09
In the matter between:
NATIONAL DIRECTOR OF PUBLIC PROSECUTIONS
Appellant
and
RAJAN NAIDOO
First Respondent
ZAKHELE SITHOLE NO Second Respondent
DOLLY NAIDOO Third Respondent
TWO LINE TRADING 87 (PTY) LTD Fourth Respondent
YAMANI PROPERTIES 1015 (PTY) LTD Fifth Respondent
Neutral citation:
National Director of Public Prosecutions v Naidoo &
Others (419/09) [2010] ZASCA 143 (25 November
2010)
Coram:
MPATI P, CLOETE, PONNAN, BOSIELO and TSHIQI
JJA
Heard:
25 August 2010
Delivered:
25 November 2010
Summary:
Section 26(6) of the Prevention of Organised Crime Act
121 of 1998 – exercise of a court’s discretion in terms of
s 26(6)(a) and (b) – does this envisage an order for
payment of legal expenses of a defendant from property
subject to restraint order but held by another person or
entity.
_____________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________
On appeal from: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria. (Poswa J sitting as
court of first instance):
1. Leave to appeal is granted.
2. The appeal is upheld with costs including the costs of two counsel.
3. The order of the court below is set aside and is substituted with the
following:
‘The application is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel
where two counsel were employed.’
______________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________
MPATI P et TSHIQI JA (Cloete, Ponnan and Bosielo JJA concurring)
[1] The first respondent, ‘Mr Naidoo’, is an accused in a pending criminal
matter in the South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg. He has been
indicted, together with a number of co-accused, on 119 charges of alleged
illegal dealing in unwrought precious metals – ranging from theft of platinum,
falsification of documents, mining rights and exchange control irregularities.
The docket consists of approximately 250 000 pages both in electronic form
and hard copy.
[2] On 1 October 2004, the appellant, the National Director of Public
Prosecutions (‘NDPP’) obtained, ex-parte, a provisional restraint order1
1 Para 1.38 of the order states as follows:
‘1.38
If any Defendant or Respondent satisfies the Court on oath that:
1.38.1 He/she has made full disclosure under oath of all his/her interests in the
property subject to the restraint; and
against Mr Naidoo in terms of s 26 of the Prevention of Organised Crime Act
121 of 1998 (‘POCA’). On 1 September 2005, the provisional order was
confirmed and was extended, by agreement, to include all property owned by
Mrs Naidoo, the third respondent, Two Line Trading 87 (Pty) Ltd (‘Two Line’)
and Yamani Properties (‘Yamani’), the fourth and fifth respondents
respectively. Mrs Naidoo is Mr Naidoo’s ex-wife. They still live together at the
same address. She exercises control over Two Line and Yamani. The
extension of the order to the property of Two line and Yamani was based on a
contention by the NDPP that they had received affected gifts from Mr Naidoo
in an amount of R1,5m.2 Whether the property constitutes an affected gift in
terms of POCA will be determined by the trial court and is not a subject of the
present enquiry. The second respondent was appointed as one of the two
curatores bonis in respect of all the property under restraint (s 28). The other
has since passed away.
[3] On 26 July 2007, Mr Naidoo brought an urgent application in the North
Gauteng High Court for an order directing the curator to pay to his attorneys
of record a sum of R2 million towards his legal expenses, alternatively an
order varying the restraint order against him to the effect that his reasonable
legal expenses in the pending criminal matter be paid out of the funds
standing to the credit of Two Line and Yamani upon presentation of an
account. Mrs Naidoo has consented to the relief sought. The application was
1.38.2 He/she cannot meet the expenses concerned out of his/her unrestrained
property,
the Curatores bonis may, upon the request of such person, release such of the
realisable property within their control as may be sufficient to meet:
1.38.3 The reasonable current and prospective living expenses of such person and
his/her family or household; and
1.38.4 The reasonable current and prospective legal expenses of such person in
connection with any proceedings instituted against him/her in terms of
chapter 5 of the Act or any criminal proceedings to which such proceedings
relate.’
2 Section 12 of POCA defines affected gifts as ‘any gift -
(a)
made by the defendant concerned not more than seven years before the fixed date;
or
(b)
made by the defendant concerned at any time, if it was a gift –
(i)
of property received by that defendant in connection with an offence committed
by him or her or any other person; or
(ii)
of property, or any part thereof, which directly or indirectly represented in that
defendant’s hands property received by him or her in that connection,
whether any such gift was made before or after the commencement of this Act.’
opposed by the NDPP primarily on the basis that s 26(6) of POCA does not
envisage payment of legal expenses of a defendant3 from the property of a
person or entity other than the defendant because, so the NDPP argued, the
other entities have not made full disclosure of their assets as required in terms
of s 26(6)(a) and (b) of POCA.
[4] The application was granted and the NDPP was ordered by Poswa J,
on 26 July 2007, to pay an amount of R1 915 000 from the property held by
the curator in terms of the restraint order. Only brief reasons were given for
the order and Poswa J undertook to furnish further reasons if called upon to
do so. The matter came to this court as an application for leave to appeal
against the order of the court below on grounds of constructive refusal of
leave by that court. The circumstances that led to the application to this court
are the following:
[5] On 3 August 2007, the attorney representing the NDPP addressed a
letter to Poswa J requesting full reasons for his order and stating that ‘upon
consideration of the full reasons client shall decide on whether to approach
the honourable court for leave to appeal or not’. On 13 September 2007, the
secretary to the judge wrote a letter to the attorneys referring to another letter
from them dated 11 September 2007. The secretary stated that he had been
asked by the judge to confirm that the latter had been approached by Mr
Masilo (the attorney dealing with the matter) a few days after the matter was
finalised, requesting reasons for the judgment. The rest of the letter proceeds:
‘His Lordship informed him that furnishing reasons will be tantamount to writing a full
reasoned judgment and that he is in no position to do so in the near future. What his
Lordship did not tell Mr Masilo was that he hoped to write the judgment during the
coming short recess. However, there is no longer such a hope because his Lordship
will be doing his recess duty during that week.
Whilst the reason for your wanting the reasons for judgment is understandable, there
is no chance that his Lordship will write the judgment before the long recess.’
3 ‘Defendant’ (see s 12) is defined as ‘a person against whom a prosecution for an offence
has been instituted, irrespective of whether he or she has been convicted or not, and includes
a person referred to in section 25(1)(b)’.
[6] It seems that the letter dated 11 September was either copied to the
Judge President of the court or a separate letter was sent to him because on
18 October 2007, the Judge President addressed a letter to the attorneys
acknowledging their letter of 11 September and undertaking to revert once he
had received a response to his letter of enquiry addressed to the judge
concerned. The Judge President further requested the attorneys to update
him once the reasons had been given. In the meantime and on 27 October,
the NDPP filed an application for leave to appeal in terms of Rule 49(1)(b) of
the Uniform Rules.4
[7] On 31 October, three months after the order was given, the judge
responded to the enquiry raised by the Judge President. Paragraphs two to
three of the letter state the following:
‘I do not know when your letter reached my chambers but I became aware of it only
after 22 October, 2007, when I was browsing through my mail, whilst being on sick
leave. It may be that it arrived whilst my current registrar was out writing
examinations and that my attention was not, therefore, timeously drawn to its
existence. My apologies.
This case was before me during the urgent court proceedings, at the end of July,
2007. I gave brief reasons indicating that I expected that I might be called upon to
give more detailed reasons, in the future. A week or so – or even less – after 26 July,
2007, Mr Masilo was in my chambers, asking for full reasons. I did not chastise him
for approaching me, a judge, for that purpose and in that fashion. You know, JP, that
is unprofessional. I told him that full reasons are – as I had said in court – tantamount
to a full judgment, that I did not have time to attend to it before the short recess, as I
had other judgments that took precedence to it. It surprises me that Mr Masilo wrote
this letter – which, by the way, reached me shortly after 11 September, 2007.
Incidentally, something I had forgotten when I spoke to Mr Masilo – I had no short
recess, having been in the unopposed motion roll. So, regrettably I cannot touch that
4 Rule 49(1):
‘(b)
When leave to appeal is required and it has not been requested at the time of the
judgement or order, application for such leave shall be made and the grounds
therefor shall be furnished within fifteen days after the date of the order appealed
against: Provided that when the reasons or the full reasons for the court’s order are
given on a later date than the date of the order, such application may be made within
fifteen days after such later date: Provided further that the court may, upon good
cause shown, extend the aforementioned periods of fifteen days.’
judgment before January, 2008. I attach a copy of a letter I wrote on 13 September
2007, in reply to Mr Masilo’s letter. My registrar (Francois) and I are uncertain as to
whether it was, indeed, forwarded to Mr Masilo, as Francois went for study leave in
about that time.’
[8] The contents of the letter show that despite a lapse of a period of three
months and despite the fact that the application had been heard in the urgent
court, the matter would remain outstanding for another two to three months.
Another aspect worth noting is that the letters from the office of the judge
show that he was annoyed by the attorney’s persistent requests. One such
letter, signed by the secretary of the judge, is dated 14 December 2007. It
reads:
‘The copy of the letter you wrote to the Judge President, which you brought to my
office today, at about 11:00 on Friday 14 December 2007, refers.
I communicated with his Lordship Mr Justice Poswa who is on leave in Durban and
reported to him what happened today, including your reluctance to wait for me to
refer to correspondence. I have now gone through the correspondence and read it to
His Lordship. He has instructed me to enclose copies of some of the correspondence
to you, which is really what I meant to read to you while you were here.
Herewith faxed are the following letters, from which you ought to have a full picture of
the history of this case and its future:
(1)
a letter to your office dated 13 September, 2007; and
(2)
a letter addressed to the Judge President dated 31 October, 2007.
You will realise, from the second letter, that His Lordship and I were uncertain as to
whether or not you received the first of these two letters, which is why it was attached
to the second one.
His Lordship has requested me to convey to you his displeasure with your attitude, if
you received the two letters, because there is nothing more he can explain to you in
this regard, neither is there anything he can do pertaining the situation.
In the interim, we are unable to find the file up to now, and wonder whether you have
not, per chance, removed it. We only raised this with you because it cannot be found.
His Lordship has the transcript of proceedings with him and that of his ex tempore
judgment. He does, however, require the file.’
[9] On 24 March 2008, a period of eight months after the order was
granted, the attorneys for the NDPP addressed yet another letter to the judge
persisting with the request for the full reasons. On 14 April, the judge
responded, again showing that he was annoyed by the request:
‘Your letter of 28 March, 2008, which was placed on my desk at about 10:30 today –
shortly after your clerk delivered it – refers.
Since my letter of 31 October, 2007, I have not had opportunity to write full reasons
in this matter, simply because of other judgments – ahead of yours – that I have been
dealing with. I have requested one month’s leave, in advance of my leave period, to
deal with my judgments. This is in view of special circumstances that relate to me
only, including my history of periods of sick-leave. Your judgment may be dealt with
during that period. Beyond what I am doing, there is nothing I can do to appease you,
I find it difficult to keep writing letters about a judgment in respect of which I have
already gone out of my way to make written explanations. I suggest you start trusting
that I am not simply idling – doing nothing to get to your matter.’
[10] Persistent requests for reasons for an order should not be a source of
irritation for a judge. This much was made clear by this court in
Pharmaceutical Society of South Africa (Pty) Ltd v Tshabalala-Msimang NO;
New Clicks South Africa (Pty) Ltd v Minister of Health 2005 (3) SA 238 (SCA)
at 260G to 261H, where the following dictum appears:
‘One does sense that the Court below was irritated because the applicants had the
temerity to ask for a quick disposition of the applications for leave. There are some
who believe that requests for “hurried justice” should not only be met with judicial
displeasure and castigation but the severest censure and that any demand for quick
rendition of reserved judgments is tantamount to interference with the independence
of judicial office and disrespect for the Judge concerned. They are seriously mistaken
on both counts. First, parties are entitled to enquire about the progress of their cases
and, if they do not receive an answer or if the answer is unsatisfactory, they are
entitled to complain. The judicial cloak is not an impregnable shield providing
immunity against criticism or reproach. Delays are frustrating and disillusioning and
create the impression that Judges are imperious. Secondly, it is judicial delay rather
than complaints about it that is a threat to judicial independence because delays
destroy the public confidence in the judiciary. There rests an ethical duty on Judges
to give judgment or any ruling in a case promptly and without undue delay and
litigants are entitled to judgment as soon as reasonably possible’. (The footnotes
have been omitted.)
[11] There was no further exchange of correspondence for two months. Ten
months later, on 28 May 2008 and again on 17 June, the attorneys wrote
further letters to the judge enquiring about progress. Copies of the letters
were sent to the Judge President. On 17 June, the Judge President
responded and informed the attorneys that he had referred their letter to the
judge with a request that the Judge President’s office and the parties be
informed when judgment would be delivered. It appears that none of these
letters elicited any response from the judge.
[12] On 9 September, after a period of another two months, and a period of
close to 13 months after the order, the attorneys again addressed a letter to
the judge enquiring about progress. A copy was sent to the Judge President.
It appears that after the exchange of this correspondence the application for
leave to appeal was set down for 23 October 2007. This is evident from the
following letter from the attorneys to the Judge President dated 28 October
2008:
‘The above matter has reference specifically the attached letter dated 9th September
2008 from our office.
On the 23 October 2007 we made an application for leave to appeal in terms of Rule
49(1)(b) see annexure “A”. However the application was never proceeded with
because of the long awaited response for judgment from the Honourable Justice
Poswa.
It is our client’s instructions to request the honourable Judge President to place the
matter on the roll before a new judge because the delay by Justice Poswa has
adversely affected the criminal prosecution in this matter.
Your urgent attention to this matter will be appreciated.’
[13] It is difficult to understand why the judge failed to deal with the
application for leave to appeal at that stage. The reasons he had undertaken
to furnish had not been forthcoming for a period of approximately 15 months
and the parties were suffering prejudice. What was required of him was simply
to make a decision as to whether or not he believed there was a reasonable
prospect that another court would come to a different conclusion.5 The failure
to deal with the application for leave was in itself another regrettable omission
by the judge.
[14] On 12 November 2008, the Judge President acknowledged the letter
and attached his own letter of even date addressed to the judge. He further
requested the attorneys to inform him if reasons were not furnished by the
end of November. The letter (dated 12 November from the Judge President)
to the judge informed him that if the reasons were not forthcoming by the end
of November, he would unfortunately submit the query to the Judicial Service
Commission (‘JSC’). Clearly (in this letter), the Judge President was
conveying his own frustration about the sequence of events. Even after this,
the judge did not seize the opportunity because, on 1 December, the
attorneys addressed yet another letter to the Judge President informing him
that they were disappointed to inform him that the judge had failed to furnish
the reasons by the end of November. They further requested the Judge
President to refer the matter to the JSC as stated in his letter of 12 November.
On 14 January 2009, the Judge President addressed a letter to the attorneys
informing them that the matter had been reported to the JSC by his letter
dated 10 December and requested them to inform him when the reasons had
been furnished. On 3 March, the attorneys addressed a letter to the Judge
President highlighting the prejudice suffered by their client as a result of the
delay, and in doing so motivated their request for the matter to be enrolled
afresh before another judge in terms of Rule 49(1)(e) of the Uniform Rules of
Court.6
[15] On 18 March 2009, the Judge President responded, stating that it
would not be possible to place the matter on the roll as suggested and
reiterated that the matter had been reported to the JSC and that he expected
5 A judge is not obliged to furnish reasons for such an order. In certain circumstances it may
be necessary and certainly helpful to do so. (Botes v Nedbank Ltd 1983 (3) SA 27 (A) at 28E-
F).
6 Rule 49(1)(e) provides that leave to appeal ‘shall be heard by the judge who presided at the
trial or, if he is not available, by another judge of the division of which the said judge, when he
so presided, was a member’.
the JSC to respond in due course. On 7 May, the attorneys, as a last resort,
addressed a letter to the judge outlining the history of the matter and
informing him that they had instructions to approach this court directly for an
application for leave to appeal on the basis that the failure to furnish reasons
should be treated as a refusal of leave. In the alternative they enquired
whether the judge was willing to permit them to argue the application for leave
without his full reasons. There was no response to this letter.
[16] It is against this background that an application, in terms of s 20(4)(b)
of the Supreme Court Act 59 of 19597, was brought directly to this court for
leave to appeal on the basis that the delay in furnishing the reasons and the
failure to deal with the application for leave amounted to a constructive refusal
of leave to appeal. This Court, on 11 September 2009, referred the application
for oral argument in terms of s 21(3)(c)(ii),8 with a further direction that the
parties be prepared to argue the merits of the appeal if called upon to do so.
[17] At the outset of the application, counsel for the respondents readily
conceded that the delay, coupled with the failure to deal with the application
for leave to appeal, amounted to a constructive refusal to grant leave. This
was a sensible concession by counsel.
[18] The importance of furnishing reasons for a judgment is a salutary
practice. Judicial officers express the basis for their decisions through
reasoned judgments. A statement of reasons gives assurance to the parties
and to any other interested member of the public that the court gave due
consideration to the matter, thereby ensuring public confidence in the
administration of justice.
7 Section 20(4)(b) of the Supreme Court Act provides that ‘in any other case, with the leave of
the court against whose judgment or order the appeal is to be made or, where such leave has
been refused, with the leave of the appellate division’.
8 Section 21(3)(c)(ii) provides: ‘The judges considering the petition may order that the
application be argued before them at a time and place appointed, and may, whether or not
they have so ordered - … (ii) refer the application to the appellate division for consideration,
whether upon argument or otherwise, and where an application has been so referred to the
appellate division, that division may thereupon grant or refuse the application’.
[19] In Botes v Nedbank Ltd (supra) this court remarked that a reasoned
judgment may well discourage an appeal by the loser and that the failure to
state reasons may have the effect of encouraging an ill-founded appeal.
Coincidentally, in their first letter dated 3 August 2007, the attorneys for the
NDPP stated that they required the full reasons in order to decide whether or
not to apply for leave to appeal – clearly showing that the reasons would help
inform the future conduct of the matter. The delay in furnishing the reasons
deprived them of the opportunity to exercise their options. The importance of
furnishing reasons for a judgment was again stressed by Navsa JA at para 32
of his judgment in Road Accident Fund v Marunga,9 where the learned judge
of appeal referred with approval to an extract from an article by the former
Chief Justice of the High Court of Australia, the Rt Honourable Sir Harry
Gibbs.10
[20] There may be instances where it is unavoidable to give brief reasons
with an undertaking to provide full reasons later or when requested to do so.
Because of the several complications which may arise if this practice is
adopted, it should be utilised sparingly. Such complications were highlighted
by the Hon MM Corbett in the following manner:11
‘The true test of a correct decision is when one is able to formulate convincing
reasons (and reasons which convince oneself) justifying it. And there is no better
discipline for a judge than writing (or giving orally) such reasons. It is only when one
does so that it becomes clear whether all the necessary links in a chain of reasoning
are present; whether inferences drawn from the evidence are properly drawn;
whether the relevant principles of law are what you thought them to be; whether or
not counsel’s argument is as well founded as it appeared to be at the hearing (or the
converse); and so on. The practice referred to (that is, an immediate order, reasons
later) leaves no room for afterthought or changing one’s mind about the case. You
should follow it only when you are convinced that no amount of subsequent
9 2003 (5) SA 164 (SCA).
10 ‘The citizens of a modern democracy – at any rate in Australia – are not prepared to accept
a decision simply because it has been pronounced, but rather are inclined to question and
criticise any exercise of authority, judicial or otherwise. In such a society it is of particular
importance that the parties to litigation – and the public – should be convinced that justice has
been done, or at least that an honest, careful and conscientious effort has been made to do
justice, in any particular case, and the delivery of reasons is part of the process which has
that end in view.’ Australian Law Journal (vol 67A) (1993) at 494-502.
11 The Hon MM Corbett ‘Writing a Judgment’ (1998) 115 SALJ 116 p 118.
consideration or research, and more particularly the actual writing of the reasons, can
possibly lead one to a different conclusion.
Another disadvantage of the practice of giving an order, reasons later, is the delay
which often occurs in the furnishing of those reasons. I think that sometimes there is
a feeling that the parties have their order and there is no urgency about the reasons.
This is the first step down that slippery slope of procrastination, which is part of the
law’s notorious delay. My advice is that you treat such reasons with the same
urgency and expedition as you devote to your ordinary reserved judgment. If
anything, they should enjoy priority. There is nothing worse than allowing a matter to
become stale; to lose one’s grasp of the case and one’s recollection of the reasons
which prompted the order. Moreover, the parties are still just as interested in the
reasons despite the order having been granted; and further proceedings may be
contemplated, which could depend on the reasons and the way in which they are
formulated.‘
[21] The delay and the ‘slippery slope of procrastination’ against which the
former Chief Justice cautioned, patently characterised the present matter. It is
regrettable that no positive response was forthcoming even after the
intervention of the Judge President who was clearly placed in a very
compromising position.
[22] In approaching this court for leave to appeal, the NDPP did so as a last
resort. There was clearly nothing more that could be done. The unreasonable
delay in dealing with the application for leave to appeal was prejudicial to the
parties. During a meeting held between the prosecutors and the legal
representatives of Mr Naidoo’s co-accused, it transpired that the outcome of
the appeal was awaited by the other accused who would decide whether to
bring similar applications or utilise the services of the Legal Aid Board for their
legal expenses.
[23] This court has on occasion granted leave on the basis of a constructive
refusal by a trial court to grant leave. In Minister of Health NO v New Clicks
South Africa (Pty) Ltd (Treatment Campaign as amici curiae)12 the court
stated:
‘It must be accepted, however, that there may come a time when a delay in resolving
an application for leave to appeal amounts to a constructive refusal of the application,
entitling the aggrieved litigant to apply to the Appeal Court to grant leave itself. What
constitutes an unreasonable delay will depend on the circumstances of the case.’
[24] We now consider whether leave in the present matter should be
granted. This entails a consideration of the applicant’s prospects of success
on appeal.
[25] The issue on the merits is whether the provisions of POCA confer upon
a high court the power to provide for the payment of a defendant’s reasonable
legal expenses from a source other than the restrained assets held by that
defendant. It is convenient to set out the provisions of POCA which, in our
view, have a bearing on this issue.
[26] Section 14:
‘(1)
Subject to the provisions of subsection (2), the following property shall be
realisable in terms of this Chapter, namely -
(a)
any property held by the defendant concerned; and
(b)
any property held by a person to whom that defendant has directly or
indirectly made any affected gift.
(2)
Property shall not be realisable property if a declaration of forfeiture is in force
in respect thereof.’
Section 26(1):
‘The National Director may by way of an ex parte application apply to a competent
High Court for an order prohibiting any person, subject to such conditions and
exceptions as may be specified in the order, from dealing in any manner with any
property to which the order relates.’
12 2006 (2) SA 311 (CC) p 317.
Section 26(2):
‘A restraint order may be made-
(a)
in respect of such realisable property as may be specified in the restraint
order and which is held by the person against whom the restraint order is
being made;
(b)
in respect of all realisable property held by such person, whether it is
specified in the restraint order or not;
(c)
in respect of all property which, if it is transferred to such a person after the
making of the restraint order, would be realisable property.’
Section 26(6):
‘(6) Without derogating from the generality of the powers conferred by subsection
(1), a restraint order may make such provision as the High Court may think fit -
(a) for the reasonable living expenses of a person against whom the restraint order
is being made and his or her family or household; and
(b) for the reasonable legal expenses of such person in connection with any
proceedings instituted against him or her in terms of this Chapter or any
criminal proceedings to which such proceedings may relate,
if the court is satisfied that the person whose expenses must be provided for has
disclosed under oath all his or her interests in property subject to a restraint order
and that the person cannot meet the expenses concerned out of his or her
unrestrained property.’
[27] There is an obvious tension between the need to prevent the
dissipation of assets held by an accused person that allegedly constitute the
proceeds of crime and the need to ensure that that person’s fair trial rights,
particularly the presumption of innocence, are not imperilled. It is the
reconciling of this tension that is sought to be achieved by s 26(6). In the
normal course, but for the restraint order, Mrs Naidoo, Two Line and Yamani
would have been free to provide Mr Naidoo with such funds as they saw fit to
enable him to fund his criminal defence. In effect what we are called upon to
decide is whether anything contained in s 26 precludes them from now doing
so.
[28] The appellant submitted that Mr Naidoo could only approach the court
for the relief that he sought in terms of s 26(6)(b). In terms of that subsection,
so the submission went, the court may only make provision for legal expenses
out of his own property and not property in the hands of one or more of the
other respondents.
[29] Poswa J understood Mr Naidoo’s counsel to be submitting, in essence,
that because the property concerned constitutes affected property it belongs
to Mr Naidoo. In accepting this argument the learned judge said –
‘The effect of the provisional order is, therefore, that all the property restrained
belongs to the applicant [Mr Naidoo], until such time that the criminal action or the
contemplated civil action is finalised. That is an order sought and obtained by the first
respondent [the NDPP]. In the circumstances, I do not understand how the first and
second respondents [the NDPP and the curator bonis] can claim that the property
that the applicant [Mr Naidoo] has identified, for purposes of the present application,
is the third respondent’s [Mrs Naidoo’s]. It is true that the applicant [Mr Naidoo], in the
current application, described the property as the third respondent’s [Mrs Naidoo’s].
That does not, however, alter its current legal status in terms of the restraint order, in
my view.’
In our view, this process of reasoning by the court a quo was incorrect.
[30] POCA does not provide that once property held by a person to whom a
gift was made becomes the subject of a restraint order on the grounds that it
constitutes an ‘affected gift’, it is deemed to be the property of the defendant
who made the gift. It was suggested before us that one could possibly come
to this conclusion on the basis of the meaning of the words ‘realisable
property’ in ss 14 and 26(2) of POCA. We disagree. ‘Realisable property’ is
defined in s 14 as ‘(a) any property held by the defendant concerned’; and ‘(b)
any property held by a person to whom that defendant has directly or
indirectly made any affected gift’. The aim of the definition is therefore to
spread the net wider so as to cover not only property held by a defendant but
also property held by someone to whom such defendant has made a gift. The
definition does not alter the law as to ownership.
[31] The purpose of POCA is, inter alia, to ‘introduce measures to combat
organised crime,’ and ‘to provide for the recovery of the proceeds of unlawful
activity’. A restraint order cannot be made in respect of any property. Section
26(1) of POCA confers on a high court the power to make an order prohibiting
any person ‘from dealing in any manner with any property to which the order
relates’. That order is termed a ‘restraint order’.13 Its ambit is regulated by s
26(2), which provides that it (the restraint order) may be made in respect of
realisable property ‘which is held by the person against whom the restraint
order is being made’ (s 26(2)(a)). (Our underlining.) So, the person who is
prohibited from ‘dealing in any manner with any property’, ie the person
against whom the restraint order is made, is the person who holds the
property that is the subject of the restraint order. It follows that a restraint
order can only be made, in terms of POCA, against a person who is the
holder of property alleged to be realisable property (s 26(2)(a) and (b)), or
becomes the holder after the restraint order is made (s 26(2)(c)).
[32] The plain grammatical meaning of s 26(6)(b) read with s 26(6)(a) is that
a restraint order may make provision for the legal expenses of ‘a person
against whom the restraint order is being made’ – not for the legal expenses
of a third person against whom a restraint order is also being made at the
same time, and which must, for the reasons given in the previous paragraph,
be in respect of property held by the latter. So the restraint order against Mr
Naidoo may make provision for his legal expenses. But the restraint orders
made against Mrs Naidoo and the companies she controls cannot make
provision for Mr Naidoo’s legal expenses as he is not the person against
whom those restraint orders were made.
[33] A defendant who wishes property under restraint to be released for his
or her reasonable legal expenses in connection with the proceedings
instituted against him or her in terms of POCA, is required to satisfy the court
that he or she has disclosed under oath all his or her interest in such property
(s 26(6)). But the ‘interest’ to be disclosed is the interest in realisable property
13 Restraint order is defined in Chapter 5 of POCA as ‘an order referred to in section 26(1)’.
under restraint ‘which is held by the person against whom the restraint order
is being made’ (s 26(2)(a)).
[34] It is common cause that the property which Mr Naidoo seeks to be
released for his reasonable legal expenses is not subject to a restraint order
against him. The provisional restraint order granted by De Villiers J in
October 2004 states that it relates to realisable property ‘so far as it remains
property held by the Defendants and any of the Respondents’ (paragraph
1.1.1). (Our underlining.) The relevant provisions of the order granted by
Rabie J on 1 September 2005 by agreement pursuant to an application by
nine applicants, to which Mrs Naidoo, Two Line and Yamani were party,
following the grant of the provisional restraint order, state that –
‘1. It is declared that the assets of the First [Mrs Naidoo], Second, Fourth [Two Line],
Fifth [Yamani] . . . Applicants are subject to the provisional restraint order granted by
De Villiers J . . . on 1 October 2004;
. . .’
‘5. The First [Mrs Naidoo], Second, Fourth [Two Line], Fifth [Yamani] . . . Applicants
undertake not to utilise the property subject to restraint in terms of this order in a
manner that would dissipate, encumber or diminish in any way the value of the said
property;
. . .’14
Clearly, therefore, the assets of Mrs Naidoo and of Two Line and Yamani,
which would include affected gifts, became the subject of a restraint order
against them and not against Mr Naidoo. It follows that Mr Naidoo cannot
invoke the provisions of s 26(6) to obtain the release, for his legal expenses,
of assets which are the subject of a restraint order made against Mrs Naidoo,
Two Line and Yamani.
14 The First, Fourth and Fifth applicants referred to in the order are the third, fourth and fifth
respondents in this appeal.
[35] The following order is accordingly made:
1. Leave to appeal is granted.
2. The appeal is upheld with costs including the costs of two counsel.
3. The order of the court below is set aside and is substituted with the
following:
‘The application is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel
where two counsel were employed.’
_______________________
L MPATI
PRESIDENT
_______________________
Z L L TSHIQI
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES
APPELLANT:
E C LABUSCHAGNE SC (with him E
NDALA)
Instructed by Masilo Inc,
Pretoria;
Naudes Attorneys, Bloemfontein.
RESPONDENTS:
W VERMEULEN SC (with him N REDMAN)
Instructed by Yusuf Ismail Attorneys,
Pretoria;
Rossouws Attorneys, Bloemfontein. | SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
25 November 2010
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form
part of the judgment.
National Director of Public Prosecutions
v
Naidoo & 4 others
(419/09) [2010] ZASCA 143 (25 November 2010)
Media Statement
The Supreme Court of Appeal has upheld an appeal by the National Director of Public
Prosecutions in which the NDPP argued that Section 26 of POCA should be restricted to the
property of the defendant/accused and should not be interpreted to refer to property of
another person. The Court held that the plain grammatical meaning of s 26(6)(b) read with s
26(6)(a) is that a restraint order may make provision for the legal expenses of ‘a person
against whom the restraint order is being made’ – not for the legal expenses of a third person
against whom a restraint order is also being made.
--- ends --- |
1353 | non-electoral | 2010 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case no: 155/09
WILMA EMMERENTIA VAN RENSBURG NO
First Appellant
PHILLIPUS STEPHANUS VAN RENSBURG NO
Second Appellant
(in their capacities as trustees for the time being of the Hobie Trust)
and
PERAPANJAKAM NAIDOO NO
First Respondent
PURSOTHAM NAIDOO NO
Second Respondent
SHASHI NAIDOO NO
Third Respondent
ANTHOSH NAIDOO NO
Fourth Respondent
(in their capacities as trustees for the time being of the Shan Trust)
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Case no: 455/09
PERAPANJAKAM NAIDOO NO
First Appellant
PURSOTHAM NAIDOO NO
Second Appellant
SHASHI NAIDOO NO
Third Appellant
SESHAMMA MOODLEY NO
Fourth Appellant
ANTHOSH NAIDOO NO
Fifth Appellant
(in their capacities as trustees for the time being of the Shan Trust)
and
WILMA EMMERENTIA VAN RENSBURG NO
First Respondent
PHILLIPUS STEPHANUS VAN RENSBURG NO
Second Respondent
MEC FOR HOUSING, LOCAL GOVERNMENT AND TRADITIONAL AFFAIRS
Third Respondent
EASTERN CAPE PROVINCE
NELSON MANDELA METROPOLITAN MUNICIPALITY
Fourth Respondent
THE REGISTRAR OF DEEDS
Fifth Respondent
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Neutral citation:
Van Rensburg NO v Naidoo NO (155/09); Naidoo NO v Van Rensburg NO (455/09) [2010] ZASCA
68 (26 May 2010)
CORAM:
Navsa, Heher, Van Heerden, Mhlantla JJA and Saldulker AJA
HEARD:
3 May 2010
DELIVERED:
26 May 2010
SUMMARY:
Two linked appeals ─ nature of rights derived from restrictive conditions in title deed stated to
be subject to alteration discussed ─ zoning regulations and town planning schemes not overriding restrictive
conditions ─ the Removal of Restrictions Act 84 of 1967 not applicable ─ power of Member of the Executive
Council of the Eastern Cape Province to alter or amend restrictive conditions ─ delegation not properly proved ─
decision made without reference to written objections in any event liable to be set aside ─ power of court of the
same division and of equal jurisdiction to set aside or otherwise interfere with order intended to be final in effect
discussed ─ held that in the prevailing circumstances the court had no such power either by way of inherent
jurisdiction or in terms of the Uniform rules of court ─ held that justice required the prior order to be executed.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from:
Eastern Cape High Court, Port Elizabeth (Van der Byl AJ
and Dambuza J, each sitting as court of first instance in two separate but related
matters).
1.
In Wilma van Rensburg NO & another v Perapanjakam Naidoo NO &
others (case no 155/09):
(a)
the appeal is upheld with costs including the costs of two counsel.
(b)
the order of the court below is set aside in its entirety and substituted as
follows:
‘The application is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.’
2.
In Perapanjakam Naidoo NO & others v Wilma van Rensburg NO &
another (case no 455/09):
(a)
the appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.
(b)
the appellants’ legal representatives are precluded from recovering any
costs from the appellants related to the unnecessary and duplicated parts of the
record (one third thereof).
________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
NAVSA et MHLANTLA JJA: (Heher, Van Heerden JJA and Saldulker AJA
concurring)
[1] These two linked appeals, which are before us with the leave of this court
have been consolidated, and are the culmination of protracted litigation between
feuding neighbours. The two appeals necessitate consideration of three
judgments of the Port Elizabeth High Court. In the first, Froneman J had ordered
that approvals granted by the Municipality, to legitimise construction work, which
had already been completed in the north eastern corner of an erf in
Summerstrand Township, Port Elizabeth, be set aside and that the entire
northern building on that erf be demolished, as well as the top storey and
staircase leading to it of another building situated in the north-western corner of
the erf, within 60 days of the date of the order. He also ordered an abatement of
a nuisance emanating from that erf.1 In the second high court judgment,
delivered on 8 July 2008, which is the subject of the first appeal before us under
case number 155/2009, Van der Byl AJ, purported to declare parts of Froneman
J’s judgment, delivered on 30 March 2007, to be of no force and effect and made
certain allied orders. In the third judgment, delivered on 2 June 2009, which is the
subject of the second appeal under case number 455/2009, Dambuza J reviewed
and set aside a decision of the Member of the Executive Council of Local
Government & Traditional Affairs, Eastern Cape Province (the MEC) to remove
restrictive title deed conditions in relation to the erf referred to above.
[2] In the first appeal, the power of a high court, not sitting as a court of
appeal, to suspend or nullify final orders granted in the same division, in relation
to the issues referred to in the preceding paragraph and to make related orders,
falls to be considered. In the second appeal the question is whether the MEC’s
decision was rightly reviewed and set aside. The appeal against the order of Van
der Byl AJ is referred to as the suspension appeal. The appeal against the order
of Dambuza J is referred to as the review appeal.
[3] The opposing litigating trustees are as follows. The trustees for the time
being of the Shan Trust are Perapanjakam Naidoo, her husband Purshotam
Naidoo and three other members of their family. The trustees for the time being
of the Hobie Trust are Phillippus and Wilma Van Rensburg, who are husband
1 The judgment of Froneman J is reported as Van Rensburg NO v Nelson Mandela Metropolitan
Municipality 2008 (2) SA 8 (SE).
and wife. The litigating parties are referred to as the Shan and Hobie Trusts
respectively.
[4] The Hobie Trust is the owner of erf 104, situated at 4 Sixth Avenue,
Summerstrand, Port Elizabeth. The Shan Trust owns erf 105, situated at
3 Seventh Avenue, Summerstrand, Port Elizabeth. The Hobie Trust property
abuts the northern boundary of the Shan Trust erf. The Shan Trust conducts the
business of a guest house on erf 105.
[5] The litigation between the parties relates to certain structures on erf 105
that were constructed, extended and renovated over time by the Shan Trust, in
furtherance of the guest house business it conducts on the premises. The
following issues arise:
(a)
whether erf 105 could be used for purposes other than that of a private
residential dwelling;
(b)
the legality of authorisations to conduct a guest house business, granted
by the Nelson Mandela Metropolitan Municipality (the Municipality);
(c)
the legality of approvals of building plans by the Municipality to regularise
buildings already constructed on erf 105; and
(d)
the power of the MEC, to alter or amend restrictive conditions in a title
deed, more particularly in relation to erf 105.
[6] As will become apparent, chronology and sequence are crucial to a
proper appreciation of the issues in both matters. At the outset it is necessary to
deal with the history of Summerstrand, the township in Port Elizabeth in which
the properties in question are located. Although there appears to be some
confusion about the date of the establishment of Summerstrand Township, there
is force in the submissions on behalf of the Hobie Trust, that relevant
documentary evidence tends to show that the township was established by the
Administrator of the then Cape Province at a time when the Townships
Ordinance 13 of 1927 was in force. The Townships Ordinance 33 of 1934
repealed the earlier Ordinance, with effect from 1 January 1935. Section 63 of
the 1934 Ordinance provided that any matter pending under the 1927 Ordinance
and uncompleted should be completed in terms of that earlier Ordinance.
[7] At the time of the establishment of Summerstrand Township the following
restrictive conditions were inserted in title deeds in favour of all erf-holders:
‘C. SUBJECT FURTHER to the following conditions contained in Deed of Transfer T999/1944
imposed by the Municipality of the City of Port Elizabeth in terms of the provisions of Township
Ordinance No 13 of 1927 in favour of itself and any erf-holder in the Summerstrand Extension
Township (and subject to alteration and amendment by the Administrator):
(a)
That this erf shall be for residential purposes only.
(b)
That only one house designed for the use as a dwelling for a single family, together with
such outbuildings as are ordinarily required to be used therewith, be erected on this erf.
(c)
That no more than half the area of this erf shall be built on.
(d)
That no building or structure or any portion thereof except boundary walls and fences
shall be erected nearer to the street line which forms a boundary of this erf than the building
indicated on the diagram of this erf.’ (Our emphasis.)
[8] It is now necessary to deal with the history of material events in relation to
erf 105, which regrettably, is lengthy and complex. The Hobie Trust became
owner of erf 104 in 1989. The Shan Trust became owner of erf 105 in 1996 and
at that stage there was only one main dwelling situated on its southern boundary
with a double garage outbuilding on the western edge.
[9] The Shan Trust conducted the business of a guest house on erf 105 by
virtue of a special consent given to it by the Municipality, ostensibly in terms of its
Zoning Scheme Regulations. The first consent was provided on 28 March 1996
and limited the Shan Trust to a maximum of four bedrooms for hire. On
17 September 2002 the Shan Trust applied for a further departure from the
Zoning Scheme Regulations to operate a guest house with a total of 11 rooms for
hire. The Hobie Trust, together with five other owners and residents in the
vicinity, objected to the application. Almost two years later, on 28 July 2004, the
Municipality resolved to grant the Shan Trust’s application, subject to certain
conditions. An appeal by the Hobie Trust to the MEC against that decision was
unsuccessful.
[10] Extensive improvements on erf 105 were embarked on by the Shan Trust
from the time that it became owner. These were effected in three phases. It
appears that at almost every stage of the development the plans and approvals
followed the construction work on the premises. In respect of improvements
effected during 2000 it is admitted by the Shan Trust that no building plans were
approved by the Municipality until 2004. The Shan Trust’s contention that it
effected the improvements in the bona fide belief that the plans had been
approved before construction commenced has an unconvincing and hollow ring
to it.
[11] An outside staircase extending an existing one, in a building on the north-
western side of the erf leading to the roof of a second storey, was not depicted on
the approved plan. Once again, the Shan Trust’s explanation that this was an
oversight on the part of the architect, in our view, is too glib. In 2006, and after
much litigation, the Shan Trust sought to overcome this problem by submitting a
site development plan in pursuit of ex post facto approval.
[12] It is also clear that, prior to the special consent granted to it by the
Municipality to extend its guest house facilities from four rooms to 11, the Shan
Trust had already been letting and hiring 11 rooms. It is disingenuous to suggest,
as the Shan Trust does, that it had lodgers in the additional rooms rather than
guests.
[13] During 2004, after an application was launched in the Port Elizabeth High
Court by the Hobie Trust to interdict the Shan Trust from using erf 105 unlawfully,
officials of the Municipality inspected the property and found that rooms were
unlawfully used on a permanent basis as accommodation for post-graduate
students, that a staircase extended beyond the building line and that a number of
kitchens had been installed within the existing buildings, contrary to the zoning
regulations. The Municipality demanded that the Shan Trust cease the unlawful
use of the property and ensure that the construction work complied with zoning
regulations within 30 days.
[14] As a result of the attitude adopted by the Municipality, and in the hope that
the matter would be resolved to its satisfaction, the Hobie Trust withdrew its
application for an interdict. The Shan Trust did not, however, satisfy all of the
demands made upon it by the Municipality. This led to a further application by the
Hobie Trust in the Port Elizabeth High Court, in which it sought, inter alia, an
order for the demolition of the offending buildings on erf 105.
[15] The Municipality initially opposed the application and the Shan Trust
decided in the light thereof, not to do so. However, one day before the answering
affidavit by the Municipality was due to be filed, it made a demand upon the Shan
Trust, similar to its previous demand referred to in para 13 above. According to
the Shan Trust it responded by submitting new plans in an attempt to legitimise
the buildings already constructed. The Municipality denied having received those
plans.
[16] During February 2007, and before the application was heard, the
Municipality withdrew its special consent to a departure from the zoning
regulations, in terms of which it had granted the Shan Trust permission to
conduct a guest house with 11 rooms. It subsequently also withdrew its
opposition to the application by the Hobie Trust. In response, the Shan Trust
entered the fray and sought a postponement from Froneman J, in order to do the
following:
(a)
to take the necessary steps to review the Municipality’s withdrawal of its
special consent;
(b)
to make an application for the removal of the restrictive conditions from the
title deed of Erf 105 Summerstrand;
(c)
to resubmit a detailed site development plan and building plans in respect
of improvements to Erf 105 Summerstrand.
At the same time the Shan Trust undertook, in an apparent attempt at
appeasement, to abate the nuisance complained of.
[17] Froneman J, characterised the purpose of the postponement application
as follows:
‘[It] is in essence to give it time to construct a defence to the claims in the main application.’
The learned judge stated that the Shan Trust was required to show that it prima
facie had a bona fide defence. He took the view that, even though the Hobie
Trust had raised the restrictive title conditions in the main application set out in
para 8 above as a ground for relief for the first time in supplementary affidavits at
the end of October 2006,2 the Shan Trust had done nothing in this regard until it
sought a postponement in March 2007. Froneman J also took into account that
the Shan Trust had failed to provide any legal or factual basis for the proposed
review of the Municipality’s decision to withdraw its special consent and for the
setting aside of the restrictive title conditions. Consequently, the learned judge
refused the postponement and ordered the Shan Trust to pay the costs, including
the costs of two counsel.
[18] In the main application, Froneman J had regard to the relevant restrictive
conditions. In essence they provide that the erf be used for residential purposes
only, that only one single house dwelling for use by a single family and ordinary
outbuildings required for such use may be built on the erf, and that no garage
other than for ordinary use for persons residing on the erf may be erected. The
learned judge stated that these kinds of restrictive conditions took precedence
over the Municipality’s zoning and planning schemes and that this followed from
their characterisation in our case law as praedial servitudes in favour of other erf
2 Initially the grounds on which the Hobie Trust relied were: (a) the non-compliance with the
National Building Regulations and Standards Act 103 of 1977, (b) contraventions of Zoning
Scheme and Land Use Planning regulations and (c) the irregular granting by the municipality of
special consent to use the buildings as part of a guest house.
holders.3 He concluded that any possible permission by the Municipality to build
or use buildings contrary to the restrictive conditions could not be lawful.
Froneman J went on to make the orders referred to in para 5 above. He refused
leave to appeal against his judgment.
[19] An application for leave to appeal against the judgment of Froneman J
was refused by this court on 25 September 2007 and in due course by the
Constitutional Court on 1 November 2007.
[20] In the meanwhile on 27 June 2007, approximately three months after the
judgment of Froneman J, the Shan Trust applied to the Premier of the Eastern
Cape for the removal of the applicable restrictive conditions. On 17 July 2007 the
Hobie Trust objected in writing to the application by the Shan Trust and
substantiated its opposition.
[21] On 11 October 2007, the MEC, purporting to act under delegated authority
from the Premier of the Eastern Cape Province (the successor to the erstwhile
Administrator), granted consent for the removal of Condition C (a), (b), (c) and (d)
from Title Deed No T26430/1996 in respect of erf 1054 and substituted therefor
the following condition:
'That this erf shall be used for residential purposes, including for a guesthouse, only, subject to
the Provisions of the municipality's guesthouse policy and applicable zoning scheme.'
It is common cause that when the MEC made the decision to remove the
restrictive conditions, she did not have before her the written objection by the
Hobie Trust.
[22] On 7 November 2007 the Hobie Trust requested reasons for the MEC’s
decision to remove the restrictive conditions. Reasons were supplied on
1 February 2008.
3 Op cit note 1 at para 8.
4 Set out in para 7.
[23] The Shan Trust resorted to yet further litigation. On 8 January 2008 an
application was launched in the Port Elizabeth High Court, in terms of which it
sought an order setting aside parts of the order of Froneman J, alternatively an
order that parts of his order be declared to be of no force and effect.
Furthermore, an order was sought suspending that part of Froneman J’s order in
terms of which the Shan Trust was required to demolish and remove the top
storey and the accompanying staircase of the building in the north western corner
of erf 105, pending a decision of the Municipality in relation to the site
development plan that it intended presenting for approval. From the perspective
of the Shan Trust this would legitimise the offending structures, ex post facto.
Further relief, irrelevant for present purposes, was also sought. This application
was heard by Van der Byl AJ.
[24] On 26 March 2008, before the Shan Trust’s application was ripe for
hearing, the Hobie Trust instituted proceedings in the Port Elizabeth High Court
to have the MEC's decision reviewed and set aside, inter alia, on the grounds
that:
(a)
the decision amounted to an abrogation of the real and registered praedial
servitude rights of the Hobie Trust as well as of other residents in Summerstrand;
(b)
the decision was not properly made in terms of the Removal of
Restrictions Act 84 of 1967 (the Act);
(c)
the decision constituted administrative action as defined in the Promotion
of Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000 (PAJA) and fell to be set aside on the
bases set out above as well as it having been taken without hearing the affected
parties, including the Hobie Trust and other residents in Summerstrand;
(d)
the objections of the Hobie Trust and other affected residents were not
considered;
(e)
the MEC lacked statutory authority to make the decision removing the
restrictive conditions.
[25] Before the Hobie Trust’s application was heard, judgment was delivered in
the Shan Trust application referred to in para 23 above. Van der Byl AJ made the
following orders:
‘1.
It is declared that, because of the removal of the restrictive conditions contained in
paragraph C of Title Deed No. T 26430/1996 in respect of Erf 105, Summerstrand, Port Elizabeth,
by virtue of a decision of the [MEC] taken on 11 October 2007, paragraphs 1 and 2 of the order
granted in Case No. 1668/06 on 30 March 2007 have become of no force and effect.
2.
The [Municipality] is ordered to consider and process the site development plan and
building plans, Annexure R to the founding affidavit, submitted to it by the Applicants on 7 June
2006 (of which copies have been submitted to it on 20 March 2007).
3.
Paragraph 3 of the order granted by Froneman J on 30 March 2007 is suspended in
terms of Rule 45A until such time as the [Municipality] has finally considered and processed the
site development plan and building plans referred to in paragraph 2 of this order, whereafter the
parties, depending on the outcome of such consideration and processing, are granted leave to
approach this Court on the same papers, supplemented as the circumstances may require, for
further appropriate relief.
4.
The [Hobie Trust] is ordered to pay the costs of this application including the costs
attendant upon the employment of two counsel.’
[26] Van der Byl AJ took into account that the Hobie Trust’s review application
was pending. He noted, with dismay that the Hobie Trust had refused to agree to
a postponement of the Shan Trust’s suspension application to allow for the
finalisation of the review application. In dealing with the merits of the application,
the learned judge had regard to numerous decided cases dealing with the maxim
cessante ratione legis cessat ipsa lex, which literally translated reads as follows:
‘If the reason for a law falls away, the law itself falls away.’
He considered whether it applied to interpretation of statutes only or whether it
could be applied in relation to judgments and orders of court and concluded that
a judgment and order may fall away if the causa fell away.
[27] Van der Byl AJ said the following in relation to the orders issued by
Froneman J:
‘I am in grave doubt whether Froneman J would have, had the existence of the restrictive
conditions been the only issue on which he was called upon to consider the demolition of the
northern building, issued the orders in question if the restrictive conditions had at the time of his
judgment already been removed, albeit after the northern building had already been erected.’
[28] The learned judge concluded that the removal of the restrictive conditions
removed the causa on which the orders were based and that the execution of the
orders had become unenforceable. He traversed ground already covered in the
application before Froneman J and, unlike the latter, was readily accepting of the
Shan Trust’s assertion that subsequent to the demand by the Municipality during
2006 it had taken all the neccessary steps to regularise the situation in relation to
offending structures on erf 105. It was for that reason that Van der Byl AJ made
the orders compelling the Municipality to consider the plans set out in the orders
made by him. In relation to paragraph 3 of Froneman J’s order, he held that
Uniform rule 45A entitled him to suspend it in the terms set out earlier.
[29] Subsequent to the order by Van der Byl AJ, the Hobie Trust’s review
application was heard and judgment was delivered. Dambuza J held that the
decision by the MEC, removing the restrictive conditions, was administrative
action in terms of PAJA and that it fell to be reviewed and set aside for failure,
inter alia, to have regard to the submissions made by the Hobie Trust. She held
further that there had been no proper delegation to the MEC and that the latter
had no power to remove the restrictive conditions. Dambuza J accordingly
ordered the Registrar of Deeds to reinstate the restrictive conditions to Title Deed
No T26430/1996 in respect of Erf 105, Summerstrand.
Conclusions
[30] We intend to deal first with the review appeal. Counsel representing the
Shan Trust rightly conceded that he could not contend that the decision by the
MEC was not ‘administrative action’ as defined in PAJA.5 He focused on the
nature of the rights derived from the restrictive title deed conditions. He sought to
characterise them as rights which, from inception, were always subject to
alteration or amendment and submitted that residents including the Hobie Trust
could not now complain when those restrictive conditions were altered or
amended. He relied on the decisions of this court in Rossmaur Mansions (Pty)
Ltd v Briley Court (Pty) Ltd 1945 AD 217 and Ronnie’s Motors (Pty) Ltd v Van der
Walt 1962 (4) SA 660 (A) and on Garden Cities v Registrar of Deeds 1950 (3) SA
239 (C).
[31] In Rossmaur an application to the then Administrator of the Province for
the removal of restrictive conditions was unopposed and the Administrator
subsequently removed them. The respondent applied to court to have the
Administrator’s decision declared ultra vires. The court of first instance and this
court had regard to the Ordinance in terms of which the Administrator purported
to act and concluded that the Administrator had no power to deprive erf-holders
of their rights. At pp 228-229 of Rossmaur the following appears:
‘Where an application to establish a township has been granted subject to a requirement,
imposed on the recommendation of the Townships Board, that restrictive conditions as to the use
of lots are to be included in the titles, such conditions, when once included in the titles of the
lotholders, if not framed in terms which expressly render them subject to future cancellation or
variation, must be regarded as conferring rights of a permanent nature, which cannot be
cancelled or varied either by the Townships Board itself, or by any other authority, by virtue of
powers of “administration” exerciseable over the township concerned.’
[32] The Shan Trust’s reliance on Rossmaur is misplaced. That case dealt with
the Administrator’s power to deprive erf-holders of their right. The dictum in the
preceding paragraph is no authority for the proposition that an affected erf-holder
5 The MEC is a public authority. When she makes decisions affecting particular holders of title
deeds and residents in a township generally she is exercising public power. Her decisions in this
regard have a direct external effect.
should not be afforded a hearing. In the present constitutional structure such a
proposition is untenable.6
[33] It is true that in Garden Cities the high court held that owners were not
entitled to be consulted on an Administrator’s decision to amend or alter
restrictive conditions. That case was decided by a provincial division almost 60
years ago. It is unsustainable under the current constitutional dispensation and
perhaps even wrongly decided then.7
[34] It is necessary to address the MEC and the Municipality’s attitude towards
the rights of land owners, derived from restrictive conditions in their title deeds.
The Municipality and the MEC appear to adopt the position that the Municipality’s
policies and zoning regulations trump the rights of owners derived from their title
deeds. This is unacceptable.
[35] In Malan & another v Ardconnel Investments (Pty) Ltd 1988 (2) SA 12 (A)
at 40E-G this court said the following:
‘[I]t must be borne in mind that a town planning scheme does not overrule registered restrictive
conditions in title deeds. Moreover, a consent by a local authority in terms of a town planning
scheme does not per se authorise the user of an erf contrary to its registered restrictive title
conditions. See Ex parte Nader Tuis (Edms) Bpk 1962 (1) SA 751 (T) at 752B-D; Kleyn v Theron
1966 (3) SA 264 (T) at 272; Enslin v Vereeniging Town Council 1976 (3) SA 443 (T) at 447B-D.’
[36] Froneman J, in arriving at the conclusions referred to above, stated (at
para 8):
‘It is common cause that this kind of restrictive condition takes precedence over the municipality’s
zoning and planning schemes. Generally this follows from their characterisation in our case law
as praedial servitudes in favour of other erf holders (Ex parte Rovian Trust (Pty) Ltd 1983 (3) SA
209 (D) at 212E-213F; Malan and Another v Ardconnel Investments (Pty) Ltd 1988 (2) SA 12 (A)
at 40B-I) and in this case also, particularly, from the express wording of clause 1.6.5 of the
6 See in this regard s 6(2)(c) of PAJA. That Act was promulgated in furtherance of the
fundamental right to administrative action that is lawful, reasonable and procedurally fair.
7 Buffalo City Municipality v Gauss and Another 2005 (4) SA 498 (SCA) at paras 7 and 8.
Council Zoning Scheme Regulations. Consequently, any possible permission by the municipality
to build or use buildings contrary to the conditions cannot be lawful.’
See also Camps Bay Ratepayers and Residents Association and others v
Minister of Planning, Culture and Administration, Western Cape and others 2001
(4) SA 294 (C) at 324E-G.
[37] Restrictive conditions of the kind in question enure for the benefit of all
other erven in a township, unless there are indications to the contrary. They are
inserted for the public benefit and in general terms, to preserve the essential
character of a township. In this regard see Malan at 38B-C and 39F-G. If
landowners across the length and breadth of South Africa, who presently enjoy
the benefits of restrictive conditions, were to be told that their rights, flowing from
these conditions, could be removed at the whim of a repository of power, without
hearing them or providing an opportunity for them to object, they would rightly be
in a state of shock.
[38] Section 84 of the Act provides for notice to be given to affected persons in
the event of a contemplated removal of restrictive conditions. In the present case
the MEC and the Municipality disavowed any reliance on the Act and relied solely
on the right reserved to the Administrator to alter or amend the restrictive
conditions, as provided for in the title deed.
[39] Furthermore, the MEC’s reliance on a delegation by the Premier is
misplaced. First, the title deed itself does not provide for delegation. Second, no
delegation was proved. In this regard the onus rested on the MEC. See
Chairman, Board on Tariffs and Trade & others v Teltron (Pty) Ltd 1997 (2) SA
25 (A) at 31F-H. The MEC relied on a proclamation in terms of which the
administration of the Act was assigned to her.8 Given that the MEC and the
Municipality disavowed reliance on the Act it is of no assistance to them.
8 Proclamation No 6 of 1998, Provincial Gazette No 323 31 July 1998.
[40] The two grounds referred to above, separately and together, are fatal to
the Shan Trust case. There also appears to be force in the submissions on behalf
of the Hobie Trust, that the power to alter or amend does not include the power to
remove or delete. Further, since restrictive conditions are usually inserted to
preserve the identity of an area, the Municipality might be required to engage
with other neighbours and owners in the area. Even if the area has undergone
some change, it does not necessarily follow that further change is warranted or
unchallengeable. Steps have apparently been taken by the Municipality in an
attempt to engineer a blanket removal of restrictive conditions in the
Summerstrand area. As far as is known, no progress has yet been made. It is,
however, for the reasons aforesaid, not necessary for any further discussion on
these or any other issues in respect of the review appeal.
[41] For the reasons set out above, the conclusions of Dambuza J cannot be
faulted.
[42] We turn to deal with the suspension appeal. In interpreting a judgment the
court’s intention is to be ascertained primarily from the language of the judgment
or order as construed according to the usual well-known rules relating to
documents. As in the case of any document, the judgment or order and the
Court’s reasons for giving it must be read as a whole to ascertain its intention. In
this regard see Administrator, Cape & another v Ntshwaqela & others 1990 (1)
SA 705 (AD) at 715F-H.9
[43] It is necessary to place Froneman J’s judgment and conclusions in proper
perspective. First, Froneman J was apprised of the Shan Trust’s intention to
apply to have the restrictive conditions removed and he clearly and rightly did not
think it would be of any consequence. Second, the learned judge very carefully
considered the conduct of the Shan Trust over the years and concluded as
9 Drawn from Firestone South Africa (Pty) Ltd v Gentiruco AG 1977 (4) SA 298 (A).
follows (at para 10):
‘On the papers before me the Shan Trust has shown a flagrant and sustained disregard, not only
for the legitimate interests of its neighbours, but also for the local authority requirements, over a
very long period of time.’
[44] Froneman J went on to consider whether a damages claim rather than a
demolition order might meet the exigencies of the situation. He took into account
the diminution in value of the Hobie Trust property as a result of the Shan Trust’s
conduct. He reasoned that although a damages claim was viable, it was
important to bear in mind that the continued enjoyment of the privacy of those
living as neighbours to erf 105 would be destroyed if he failed to order demolition.
He took into consideration that the title conditions sought to preserve the
character of the suburb and that developments at erf 105 undermine it.10
[45] It should be borne in mind that in the application heard by Froneman J, the
Shan Trust was aware of the allegations made against it by the Hobie Trust. It is
clear that the repeated offending conduct of the Shan Trust, set out above, was
traversed in the affidavits filed by the Hobie Trust. The Shan Trust chose, at its
peril, to leave opposition to the Municipality.
[46] It is not surprising that Froneman J was unwilling to grant the Shan Trust
the postponement sought. He had rightly concluded in the main application, that
the Shan Trust had lagged behind the law once too often and that enough was
enough! Thus, Froneman J’s orders were intended to have immediate effect. The
60 day period within which the demolition order was to be effected was stipulated
for practical purposes, namely to enable the owners and demolishers to do the
necessary within a time frame. There can be no doubt that he intended that
immediate steps be taken to ensure execution of the relevant orders.
10 See para 12 of the judgment.
[47] It is against that background that the application before Van der Byl AJ
should be seen. Van der Byl AJ failed to appreciate the full import of Froneman
J’s judgement. It re-engaged on issues decided finally by Froneman J, namely,
whether the offending conduct by the Shan Trust should continue to be
countenanced. It will be recalled that Van der Byl AJ directed the Municipality to
consider plans which, if approved, would ostensibly legitimise the contravening
structures. Van der Byl AJ did what he was not empowered to do, namely,
declaring in final terms, an order made by a court of equal jurisdiction to be of no
force and effect.11 He was not sitting as a court of appeal or review in respect of
Froneman J’s judgment and yet his reasoning reflects hallmarks of those
procedures.
[48] The cases relied upon by the court below, dealing with the rationale for
court orders falling away because of subsequent events, are distinguishable. In S
v Mujee 1981 (3) SA 800 (Z) an accused had been convicted of failing to make
payments under a contribution order to a named certified institution in
contravention of provisions of the applicable Maintenance Act. On review it
appeared that the child concerned had previously been discharged from the
institution and that the contribution order should therefore have been discharged.
The court held that since a contravention of the applicable statutory provision
was dependent on the contribution validly being in force, it could not have been
the law’s intention to treat as valid, a maintenance order when the entire object of
the order had fallen away. Put differently, the court had intended that
contributions be made for as long as the child was in an institution. That scenario
is a far cry from the facts of the suspension appeal. Froneman J had intended the
orders he made to be final and to be executed. As far as he was concerned the
Shan Trust had come to the end of the road.
11 As appears from what is set out in para 25 above Van der Byl AJ nullified Froneman J’s order
setting aside any building plan approvals granted by the Municipality in relation to the building
that had already been constructed in the north eastern corner of erf 105.
[49] Ras & andere v Sand River Citrus Estates (Pty) Ltd 1972 (4) SA 504 (T),
Le Roux v Yskor Landgoed (Edms) Bpk 1984 (4) SA 252 (T) and Bekker NO v
Total South Africa (Pty) Ltd 1990 (3) SA 159 (T) were all concerned with the
question whether the causae for writs of execution remained extant. These cases
do not assist the Shan Trust.
[50] Purporting to act according to the provisions of Uniform rule 45A,12 Van
der Byl AJ suspended Froneman J’s order, in terms of which the Shan Trust was
required to take the necessary steps to demolish the offending structures on erf
105. He did so even before the stated reason for nullifying it had materialised,
and without proper appreciation of what Froneman J had intended.
[51] Apart from the provisions of Uniform rule 45A a court has inherent
jurisdiction, in appropriate circumstances, to order a stay of execution or to
suspend an order. It might, for example, stay a sale in execution or suspend an
ejectment order. Such discretion must be exercised judicially. As a general rule, a
court will only do so where injustice will otherwise ensue.13
[52] A court will grant a stay of execution in terms of Uniform rule 45A where
the underlying causa of a judgment debt is being disputed, or no longer exists, or
when an attempt is made to use the levying of execution for ulterior purposes. As
a general rule, courts acting in terms of this rule will suspend the execution of an
order where real and substantial justice compels such action.14
[53] Froneman J had regard to whether justice would be done by ordering the
demolition. He considered an alternative measure, namely damages, but
importantly, thought that the conduct of the Shan Trust over the years had been
flagrantly disrespectful of the law and the rights of others. Seen from this
12 Uniform rule 45A reads as follows:
‘The court may suspend the execution of any order for such period as it may deem fit.’
13See Farlam, Fichardt, Van Loggerenberg Erasmus Superior Court Practice B1-330.
14 Erasmus Superior Court Practice B1-330 to B1-330A.
perspective Van der Byl AJ erred in suspending the relevant order. Even though
he may have taken a different view it was not appropriate for him to prefer his
view to that of Froneman J.
[54] There certainly was no case to be made at any stage for a rescission of
any part of Froneman J’s judgment. The learned judge had correctly concluded
that insofar as the offending structures were concerned and having regard to the
unlawful conduct of the Shan Trust over the years, the time for finality had come.
The principle of legality, a cornerstone of the Constitution, applies to government
and governed alike. Repeat transgressors such as the Shan Trust are
undeserving of the protection afforded by Van der Byl AJ. Froneman J intended
finality. The effect of Van der Byl AJ’s judgment is recrudescence.
[55] One remaining aspect calls for attention. The record in the review matter
was prepared by the Shan Trust’s legal representatives. It contains a great deal
of irrelevant and duplicated matter. The Hobie Trust’s representatives were not
approached timeously to avoid this unfortunate result. Counsel representing the
Shan Trust conceded that fault could rightly be attributed to his attorneys and
was unable to provide a basis for resisting an order that his attorney should be
precluded from recovering from his/her client such costs incurred in consequence
of those unnecessary portions being incorporated into the record. In our view, at
least a third of the record was unnecessary.
[56] For all the reasons set out above, the following order is made:
1.
In Wilma van Rensburg NO & another v Perapanjakam Naidoo NO &
others (case no 155/09):
(a)
the appeal is upheld with costs including the costs of two counsel.
(b)
the order of the court below is set aside in its entirety and substituted as
follows:
‘The application is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.’
2.
In Perapanjakam Naidoo NO & others v Wilma van Rensburg NO &
another (case no 455/09):
(a)
the appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.
(b)
the appellants’ legal representatives are precluded from recovering any
costs from the appellants related to the unnecessary and duplicated parts of the
record (one third thereof).
_________________
M S NAVSA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
_________________
N Z MHLANTLA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
Case no 455/09
For Appellant:
H J Van der Linde SC
J D Huisamen
Instructed by:
Greyvensteins Nortier Inc, Port Elizabeth
E G Cooper Majiedt Inc, Bloemfontein
For Respondent:
O Rogers SC
M Euijen
Instructed by:
De Villiers & Partners, Port Elizabeth
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein
Case no 155/09
For Appellant:
O Rogers SC
M Euijen
Instructed by:
De Villiers & Partners, Port Elizabeth
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For Respondent:
H J Van der Linde SC
J D Huisamen
Instructed by:
1st – 5th Respondents:
Greyvensteins Nortier Inc, Port Elizabeth
E G Cooper Majiedt Inc, Bloemfontein
6th & 8th Respondents:
Rushmere Noach Inc, Port Elizabeth
(Abiding with the decision of the Court.)
7th Respondent:
State Attorney, Port Elizabeth
State Attorney, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE
SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME
COURT OF APPEAL
26 May 2010
STATUS: Immediate
Wilma van Rensburg NO & Another v Perapanjakam Naidoo NO &
Others; Perapanjakam Naidoo NO & Others v Wilma van Rensburg NO
& Another
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
The Supreme Court of Appeal today handed down judgment in two related
appeals. First, it upheld an appeal against an order of Van der Byl AJ (Eastern
Cape High Court), in terms of which he purported to declare parts of a
judgment of Froneman J, in the same division of the high court, to be of no
force and effect and made certain allied orders. Second, the SCA dismissed an
appeal against an order of Dambuza J, in terms of which she reviewed and set
aside a decision of the Member of the Executive Council of Local Government
and Traditional Affairs, Eastern Cape Province (MEC) granting consent for the
amendment of certain title conditions in respect of Erf 105, Summerstrand, Port
Elizabeth, the property of the Shan Trust.
The opposing litigating parties are trustees of the Hobie Trust and the Shan
Trust respectively. The Hobie Trust and Shan Trust are abutting neighbours in
Summerstrand Township, Port Elizabeth. The Hobie Trust acquired erf 104 in
1989, whilst the Shan Trust acquired erf 105 in 1996. Both properties were
subject to the restrictive conditions which in turn were subject to alteration and
amendment by the then Administrator of the Cape Province. The restrictive
conditions were to the effect that the properties were to be used only for private
residential purposes.
At the time of acquisition of Erf 105, the only improvements were a main
building and a double garage. The Shan Trust thereafter started effecting a
number of improvements and erecting additional buildings on the property in
three phases in furtherance of its guest house business. The municipality had
granted the Shan Trust special consent to operate a guest house – initially four
rooms for hire – later 11 rooms, subject to certain conditions. The Shan Trust
did not adhere to the conditions imposed and the municipality withdrew the
special use consent in 2007. The improvements, referred to above, were more
often than not effected without the necessary approvals of the municipality.
The Hobie Trust subsequently launched an application against the municipality
and the Shan Trust for an order to demolish the offending buildings and for the
Shan Trust to cease operating business unlawfully. The application was heard
by Froneman J, who, on 30 March 2007, after considering restrictive conditions
and repeated transgressions by the Shan Trust ordered it to demolish the
offending structures within 60 days of the order. The Shan Trust applied for
leave to appeal the decision. The application was dismissed by the SCA and the
Constitutional Court. This rendered Froneman J’s judgment final. The Shan
Trust however failed to comply with the order.
On 27 June 2007 the Shan Trust applied to the Premier of the Eastern Cape
Province, for the removal of the restrictive conditions. On 16 October 2007, the
MEC purported to grant the said application.
The Shan Trust subsequently applied for an order to declare certain parts of
Froneman J's orders to be of no force or effect and to suspend the remaining
orders. In the meantime, the Hobie Trust instituted review proceedings to have
the MEC's decision set aside.
Van der Byl AJ, who heard that application, sitting as a court of first instance,
suspended and nullified the orders granted by Froneman J. The review
application referred to above in terms of which the decision by the
Administrator to remove the restrictive conditions was sought to be reviewed,
was subsequently heard and the MEC's decision was set aside by Dambuza J.
The decision was reviewed and set aside.
In regard to that decision, the SCA held that the decision by the MEC
constituted administrative action as defined in the Promotion of Administrative
Justice Act 3 of 2000 (PAJA) and that the MEC was obliged to consider the
objections of the Hobie Trust and other affected residents before making the
decision in that regard ─ the MEC had made the decision without reference to
the written objections of the Hobie Trust. This court held further that the MEC
lacked the statutory authority to make the decision as there had been no proper
delegation from the Premier of the Province, the successor to the Administrator.
The SCA thus held that the MEC's decision was rightly reviewed and set aside.
It dismissed the appeal by the Shan Trust.
In regard to the decision of Van der Byl AJ the SCA found that the learned
judge had failed to appreciate the full import of Froneman J's judgment and re-
engaged on issues already decided by the latter. It held that Van der Byl AJ did
what he was not empowered to do when he declared an order of equal
jurisdiction to be of no force and effect. The court held that although a court has
inherent jurisdiction to order a stay of execution or to suspend an order, such
discretion must be exercised judicially and that in this case Van der Byl AJ
erred in suspending the order. The SCA thus upheld the appeal by the Hobie
Trust and set aside the order by Van der Byl AJ.
--- ends --- |
2407 | non-electoral | 2013 | SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 575/2011
Not Reportable
In the matter between:
TOYA-LEE VAN WYK FIRST APPELLANT
ENVOR HAGAN SECOND APPELLANT
and
THE STATE RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Toya-Lee van Wyk v The State (575/11) [2012] ZASCA 47 (28 March
2013).
Coram:
Mpati P, Pillay JA et Mbha AJA
Heard:
20 February 2013
Delivered:
28 March 2013
Summary:
Murder – mens rea – doctrine of common purpose – act of another imputed
to appellant – insufficient evidence to satisfy requirements to found common purpose and
therefore criminal liability – conviction and sentence set aside.
ORDER
On appeal from:
Western Cape High Court, Cape Town (Moosa J sitting as court of
first instance):
1 The appeal is upheld and the conviction and sentence are set aside.
JUDGMENT
PILLAY JA (MPATI P ET MBHA AJA CONCURRING)
[1] Leave to appeal having been granted by the Western Cape High Court, Cape
Town, the appellants appeal against their convictions on a count of murder. Prior to this
hearing, we were informed that first appellant has since passed on and that it is therefore
not necessary to deal with his appeal. The second appellant (hereinafter referred to as
‘the appellant’) who at the time of this appeal had already served his sentence, sought
nevertheless to continue with his appeal. He was accused no 3 in the trial court.
[2] The appellant appeared in the high court with six others on one count of murder,
one count of kidnapping and one count of robbery with aggravating circumstances as
envisaged in s1 of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977. He was acquitted of
kidnapping and robbery but convicted of murder on the basis that he had acted in concert
with a group of persons who had actually caused the death of Carmen Charmaine
Kamies (‘the deceased’) on 6 July 2002. He was sentenced to seven years’
imprisonment of which two years were conditionally suspended for five years.
[3] This appeal concerns the application of the doctrine of common purpose and
whether it was properly applied in convicting the appellant.
[4] At the commencement of proceedings in the high court, all charges against
Anthony Koordom, who was accused no 2 in the trial court, were withdrawn. He later
testified on behalf of the State and was warned in terms of s 204 of the Criminal
Procedure Act 51 of 1977.
[5] The following material facts are either common cause or undisputed:
5.1 During the evening of 6 July 2002 at approximately 20h00, the deceased, her sister,
Lee-Ann Kamies and their friend, Shireen Kriel, were walking along Mangold Street,
Westbank, Kuils River.
5.2 In the vicinity of a tavern, referred to as Ricky’s Games, they were joined by two male
persons who exchanged pleasantries with them opposite the tavern. The two males
asked them to wait in the street while they went into Ricky’s Games. Shortly thereafter
they were rejoined by the same two males and yet another male person. The three males
then somehow managed to separate the deceased from her sister and their friend and
were then joined by two other male persons.
5.3 According to Lee-Ann, at some stage as the events unfolded, the appellant appeared
in the street. It appeared to her as if he had been to some sports practise. He
approached the group that had by then surrounded the deceased and said: ‘My broer, los
die kinders, want die kinders het niks gemaak nie.’ Lee-Ann and Shireen then left the
scene to seek help when the deceased asked them to do so.
5.4 The appellant, upon invitation, ostensibly to take the deceased to her home in
Brentwood Park, then walked with the group and the deceased. The deceased had
curled her one arm around the waist of one of the males, who later turned out to be
Marcelino Van Wyk (Marcenlino) who was accused no 7 in the trial court. Marcelino, had
in turn, put his arm around the neck of the deceased. On the way, the group branched
into some thicket. When they reached the inside of the thicket which was located near
Brentwood Park, Marcelino invited the rest of the group to have sex with her. The
deceased said that she was sick. No one took up the offer. Marcelino said that they ought
to then take her home.
5.5 No sooner were they out of the thicket and before they could disperse, Franklin
Meyer (Franklin), who was accused no 6, warned Marcelino that they could not simply let
the deceased go as she would tell her people what had happened and might lay a charge
against members of the group since she was connected to the rival 28 gang. (It appears
that at least Marcelino was a member of the 26 gang.) They all then went back into the
thicket.
5.6 At some spot in the thicket, the deceased was ordered to sit on a tree stump.
Thereafter Marcelino asked her if she was associated with the 28 gang. When she
denied any association, he slapped her more than once. She started to cry. When asked
for the third time if she had such an association, she admitted it.
5.7 The deceased was then hit on the back of her head with a pole that was about ten
centimeters thick and a meter long. As a result she fell on her stomach. She was made to
sit on the stump again and once again hit on the back of her head with the pole, with the
same result, except that this time she landed on her back. Marcelino then picked up a
loose tree stump which weighed approximately 10.5 kg, and threw the stump onto her
face. He then ordered some of the others to do the same.
[6] What actually happened in the thicket where the deceased was killed, is within the
knowledge of those who were present when the assault occurred. Only Koordom and
Toya-Lee Van Wyk, who was accused No 1, testified about the events in the thicket.
[7] Koordom testified that after Marcelino threw the tree stump onto the deceased’s
face, Franklin did the same, followed by Ralph Persent (Ralph), who was accused no 5 in
the trial court. Koordom further described how Marcelino thereafter aggressively
compelled a reluctant Daniel Louw (Daniel), who was accused no 4, to do the same. An
argument between the two then ensued. Franklin intervened and told Daniel, in no
uncertain terms, that he should do as he was being told. Daniel finally threw the stump
onto the face of the deceased. Koordom described how he himself was ordered to also
throw the stump onto the deceased. He said that he picked up the stump but threw it next
to the head of the deceased.
[8] Koordom then proceeded to describe how Ralph, Franklin and Marcelino took
turns to stab the deceased as she lay on the ground. He further said that Marcelino then
gave the knife to the appellant and ordered him to stab the deceased in the heart. The
appellant took the knife but asked where the heart was located. Koordom explained that
in an apparent fit of impatience, Marcelino took the knife back saying that he would show
the appellant how to stab and then resumed stabbing the deceased. Marcelino then
compelled Toya-Lee to stab the deceased. Being scared, Toya-Lee took the knife and
feigned stabbing, but in fact did not. The group then departed from the scene, leaving the
deceased behind in the bush. Koordom’s evidence was not rejected out of hand but was
found to require corroboration in order to be relied upon.
[9] Toya-Lee broadly confirmed Koordom’s testimony of the events that occurred in
the thicket where the deceased was assaulted. There were, however, some
inconsistencies between their respective testimonies, notably Toya-Lee stated that it was
in fact Franklin who had assaulted the deceased with the pole while Koordom said it was
Marcelino. For purposes of this appeal, nothing turns on this discrepancy as both
Marcelino and Franklin clearly acted in concert with each other at the material time.
When the group left the thicket, the appellant and Koordom separated from the group
and went home on their separate ways.
[10] The court below found that Toya-Lee’s evidence could not ‘per se’ be rejected. Of
importance, Toya-Lee confirmed in all material respects, the evidence of Koordom
regarding what occurred when Marcelino ordered the appellant to stab the deceased, the
appellant’s response thereto and, in particular, that he did not stab the deceased.
[11] According to Dr Dempers, who performed the post mortem examination on the
body of the deceased, approximately 50 stab wounds were inflicted on the deceased. His
finding as to the cause of death is: `nie teenstrydig met hoofbesering nie’. (Not
inconsistent with head injury. In his evidence he described the injury to the head as
having been inflicted with blunt force. It follows therefore that the deceased died as a
result of being hit with the pole or the injuries caused by the tree stump when it was
thrown onto her head. Dr Dempers further found that the stab wounds were inflicted after
the deceased had already died.
[12] The appellant did not testify. It is, however, clear from the evidence that the
appellant did nothing that can be causally connected to the deceased’s death and his
conviction was based on the doctrine of common purpose. In arriving at the conclusion
that he had made common cause with those responsible for the death of the deceased,
the learned judge in the court below reasoned as follows:
‘Op die stadium nadat beskuldigde 6 gesê het dat hulle nie die oorledene kon laat gaan nie en
hulle daarop almal sonder enige gesprek of bespreking weer teruggedraai het in die bosse in,
toon dit aan dat al sewe van hulle op daardie tydstip `n gemeenskaplike oogmerk gevorm het om
die oorledene te dood. Na aanleiding van beskuldigde 6 se waarskuwing sou geen redelike
person kon glo dat die oorledene die bos lewendig sou verlaat nie. Tot tyd en wyl hulle die bos
weer as `n groep verlaat, het nie een van hulle `n handeling van disassosiasie verrig nie. (Sien S
v MUSINGADI, `n ongerapporteerde beslissing van die Hoogste Hof van Appèl, saaknommer
22/95, gelewer op 23 September 2004.)
Nie een van die beskuldigdes het op enige stadium probeer keer dat daar met hierdie wrede
moord voortgegaan word of homself met die optrede disassosieer nie. Na afloop van die aanval
op die oorledene toon almal van hulle, hulle aanvaarding van wat gebeur het, en bevestig
daardeur dat hulle wel `n gemeenskaplike doel gehad het, deur saam die toneel te verlaat en nog
`n tyd lank op vriendskaplike voet bymekaar te verkeer totdat sommige van hulle gaan slaap het.
Dat sommige van hulle `n mindere rol gespeel het val nie te betwyfel nie, maar dat die doodmaak
van die oorledene almal se goedkeuring weggedra het, word deur hulle optrede bo enige redelike
twyfel bewys.
Beskuldigdes 1 en 4 se weergawe dat hulle bang was vir beskuldigde 7 tydens die voorval, gaan
nie op nie. Niks het hulle verhoed om weg te kom van die toneel af nie. Beskuldigde 1 was `n
familielid van beskuldigde 7 wie gereeld gekuier het by sy familiehuis. Na die voorval het hulle
teruggekeer na die huis van beskuldigde 1. Sy ma was teenwoordig en het vir beskuldigde 7
gevra waar die bloed op sy hemp vandaan kom. Dit was `n gulde geleentheid vir beskuldigde 1,
asook vir beskuldigde 4, om te kla by beskuldigde 1 se ma. Hulle doen dit nie. Hulle gaan saam
met beskuldigde 7 na Ricky’s Games waar hulle saam verkeer en saam drink totdat beskuldigde
1 se ma hulle kom roep. Op daardie stadium daag die polisie op om die smokkelhuis toe te maak.
Indien hulle hul wou distansieer van die voorval, kon hulle die voorval aan die polisie
gerapporteer het. Dit is duidelik uit hulle optrede voor, gedurende en na die voorval dat hulle
saamgespan het om die oorledene te dood. Die Hof verwerp hulle weergawe dat tydens die
pleging van die moord, hulle vir beskuldigde 7 gevrees het.
Beskuldigde 3 het besluit om nie te getuig of enige getuienis aan te bied tot sy verdediging nie.
Sy optrede voor, gedurende en na die voorval dui daarop dat hy hom vereenselwig het met die
optrede van die res van die beskuldigdes om die oorledene te dood. Die stellings wat gemaak is
deur adv Losch, namens hom, dra baie min gewig, want dit is nie getuienis wat getoets kan word
nie.
In die lig van die totaliteit van die getuienis, verwerp die Hof die weergawe van al die
beskuldigdes waar dit teenstrydig is met die bewese feite en waarskynlikhede. Die Hof bevind
dat al die beskuldigdes aktief deel gehad het om die oorledene te dood.’1
[13] Briefly and simply put, common purpose is the imputing of the act of one member
of a group to other members of the same group or vice versa, provided of course that
some form of intention is proved against each of them. The development of the
jurisprudence in regard to the doctrine of common purpose had raised many questions,
with the result that a detailed analysis of the legal position of the doctrine had to be
undertaken. This was, with respect, ably done by Botha JA in S v Safatsa 1988 (1) SA
868 (A). For purposes of this judgment, it need only be stated that according to Safatsa,
in cases where there is no causal connection between the conduct of the accused and
the offence in question, it is sufficient that some act of association with the actions of the
group is proved against the accused in order to found common purpose.
[14] The requirements to hold a person criminally liable on the basis of the approach
adopted in Safatsa were set out in S v Mgedezi 1989 (1) SA 687 (A) at 705I – 706C
where it is stated as follows:
‘In the absence of proof of a prior agreement, accused No 6, who was not shown to have
contributed causally to the killing or wounding of the occupants of room 12, can be held liable for
those events, on the basis of the decision in S v Safatsa and Others 1988(1) SA 868 (A), only if
certain prerequisites are satisfied. In the first place, he must have been present at the scene
where the violence was being committed. Secondly, he must have been aware of the assault on
the inmates of room 12. Thirdly, he must have intended to make common cause with those who
were actually perpetrating the assault. Fourthly, he must have manifested his sharing of a
common purpose with the perpetrators of the assault by himself performing some act of
association with the conduct of the others. Fifthly, he must have had the requisite mens rea; so,
in respect of the killing of the deceased, he must have intended them to be killed, or he must
have foreseen the possibility of their being killed and performed his own act of association with
1 Paras 64 – 67 and 71 of the judgment.
recklessness as to whether or not death was to ensue.’
[15] Mr Badenhorst for the State conceded that the present case was an instance
where there was no prior agreement between the members of the group that the
deceased should be killed. It follows therefore that the appellant’s guilt must be
considered, on the basis of the requirements as set out in S v Mgedezi, supra. In support
of the conviction, Mr Badenhorst contended that the appellant clearly associated himself
with the actions of the group by (a) returning to the bush with the group; (b) receiving the
knife; (c) asking where the deceased’s heart was and (d) leaving together with the group.
He submitted that his association with the group and its activities was cemented by his
failure to disassociate himself from the group’s actions at any stage.
[16] While the inference of such an association can sometimes be drawn from what
occurred or was said during or after the event, care needs to be taken to avoid lightly
inferring an association with a group activity from the mere presence of the person who is
sought to be held criminally liable for the actions of some of the others in the group.
[17] The learned judge concluded that the appellant’s conduct before, during and after
the incident was indicative of him having associated himself with the actions of the rest of
the group in killing the deceased. He did not specify which actions of the appellant led
him to that conclusion. I can only assume that the actions he must have been referring to
were the appellant’s return into the bush with the group, the receiving of the knife, asking
where the deceased’s heart was and the failure to disassociate himself from the group
and its actions at the material time. In light of the absence of evidence to indicate that the
appellant had associated himself with the actions of those in the group who had intended
to assault and kill the deceased, the trial court’s conclusion does not follow logically and
its approach constitutes a misdirection. The evidence regarding the appellant’s return into
the thicket with the rest of the group merely proves his presence at the scene of the
killing. But his mere presence cannot serve as proof of any one, or more, of the rest of
the requirements set out in Mgedezi and which have to be established to hold an
accused criminally liable for the actions of a group in the absence of an agreement. See:
S v Jama 1989 (3) SA 427 (A) at 436E-J.
[18] Even if the appellant had realized that the deceased was about to be killed when
he returned into the thicket with the rest of the group, that does not justify an inference
that he was in agreement with, or approved of, the crime which was about to be
perpetrated, nor that he thereby manifested his association with the group’s criminal
purpose. The fact that he did not participate in the murderous assault on the deceased
illustrates this. There is no evidence of any act of association by the appellant with the
actions of those who assaulted and murdered the deceased. When he took the knife from
Marcelino, he did so because he was ordered by Marcelino to stab the deceased in the
heart. His act of taking the knife and asking where the heart was located in those
circumstances, is, in my view, not sufficient to prove that the appellant intended to make
common cause with those who actually perpetrated the assault (third requisite as set out
in Mgedezi), nor is it sufficient to prove a manifestation of his sharing of a common
purpose with the perpetrators of the assault, by himself performing some act of
association with the conduct of the others (fourth requisite as set out in Mgedezi). After
all, the appellant did not stab the deceased. It is not necessary to consider the question
whether, in any event, he could have been found guilty of murder had he done so, in view
of the medical evidence that the deceased was already dead when she was stabbed.
[19] The court below accordingly erred in holding that the appellant and his co-accused
‘`n gemeenskaplike oogmerk gevorm het om die oorledene te dood’ when they turned
back into the thicket after Franklin had said they could not allow the deceased to go.
There was absolutely no evidence of an agreement between them to kill her. The court a
quo clearly drew an inference of such an agreement from the fact that the appellant and
the others returned to the bush without demur. That, however, is not the only reasonable
inference that can be drawn from the facts. Some might have been curious to see what
was going to happen while others might have been afraid to object or disagree, given that
both Marcelino and Franklin seemed to have been conducting affairs at the time. There
was indeed evidence that both of them put pressure on others, eg. Daniel and Koordom,
to become complicit in the assault on the deceased.
[20] In the circumstances, the court below should have found that the State had failed
to discharge the onus of proving the guilt of the appellant beyond reasonable doubt. The
appellant’s appeal must accordingly succeed.
[21] In the result, the following order is made:
1 The appeal is upheld and the conviction and sentence are set aside.
R. PILLAY
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APEARANCES:
FOR APPELLANT :
MR J MIHALIK
Instructed by:
Legal Aid South Africa, Cape Town;
Legal Aid South Africa, Bloemfontein
FOR RESPONDENT:
MR L J BADENHORST
Instructed by:
The National Director of Public Prosecutions,
Cape Town
The National Director of Public Prosecutions,
Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
28 March 2013
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
Toya-Lee Van Wyk & another v The State
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) today upheld an appeal against the conviction of the
appellant of murder in the Western Cape High Court, Cape Town. The 15 year old
appellant was in a group of persons some of whom were responsible for killing Carmen
Charmaine Kamies.
The appellant was convicted on the basis of common purpose in that he made common
cause with the perpetrators of the murder. The SCA found that in the absence of evidence
which demonstrated that he had made such common cause with the perpetrators of the
murder, the inference that the appellant had associated with the group’s murderous
actions by his mere presence was not the only reasonable inference which could be drawn
in the circumstances and was unjustified.
The SCA concluded that the appellant ought not to have been convicted and set aside the
conviction and sentence. |
3258 | non-electoral | 2007 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 062/07
In the matter between:
SIPHIWE ALTON SHABALALA
APPELLANT
and
METRORAIL
RESPONDENT
______________________________________________________________
Coram:
SCOTT, HEHER, JAFTA, MAYA et COMBRINCK JJA
Date of hearing:
20 November 2007
Date of delivery: 28 November 2007
Summary: Commuter shot and robbed on train – action for damages – Metrorail
could not be expected to have had a security guard in each and every carriage.
Citation: This judgment may be referred to as Shabalala v Metrorail [2007] SCA 157
(RSA)
SCOTT JA/….
SCOTT JA:
[1] The appellant, a 44 year-old man, was shot and robbed while a
passenger on a train operated by the respondent. He subsequently instituted
action in the Johannesburg High Court alleging negligence on the part of the
respondent and claiming damages arising from gunshot wounds he sustained
in the attack. The court a quo (Horn J) was asked to decide only the issue of
the respondent’s liability and to direct that the issue of the quantum of
damages stand over for later determination. The court decided the former
issue in the respondent’s favour and dismissed the action with costs. The
judgment is reported as Shabalala v Metrorail 2007 (3) SA 167 (W). The
appeal is with the leave of this court.
[2] The appellant testified that at about 7 pm on 21 May 2004 at Dunswart
railway station he boarded a train bound for Springs with the intention of
travelling as far as Brakpan station. Before boarding the train he observed
about 11 commuters waiting on the station. He said there were no security
guards on the platform and there was no ticket examiner at the entrance to
the station. When the train arrived he got on and sat down. The other 11
commuters got into the same coach. As the train pulled away three men in the
coach stood up. One of them confronted the appellant and demanded money.
When the appellant said he had none, the person produced a handgun and
without further ado fired three shots. The appellant was hit twice in the leg and
once in the arm. He fell to the floor and his assailant searched his pockets,
taking R130 in cash, a train ticket and a wrist watch. In the meantime, the
other two who had stood up busied themselves robbing other passengers in
the coach. When the train arrived at the next station, which was Benoni, the
appellant managed to get off the train. Two security guards, one male and the
other female, came to his assistance. He pointed out the robbers to them but
they attended to him rather than attempt to apprehend the robbers. The train
pulled off with the robbers still on board.
[3] The appellant testified that the 11 persons who had waited on the
platform at Dunswart station all gave the appearance of being normal
passengers. There was similarly nothing untoward about the appearance of
the three robbers. The gunman wore a leather jacket which covered his hips.
He drew his firearm from under his jacket. The appellant could not say
whether the robbers had boarded the train at Dunswart or whether they were
already in the coach when the train arrived at the station.
[4] In the course of cross-examination, the appellant testified that there
were usually security guards on the trains on which he travelled. He said this
was the case ‘especially during the day’ and ‘on occasions at night’. Some of
the security guards, he said, were armed while others had ‘two-way radios’.
They all wore uniforms. The appellant inferred that there were no security
guards in the other coaches at the time of the robbery. But this inference, he
said, was based on the fact that he ‘banged on the coach’, while being
attacked and no one came to his assistance. Given the fact there was no door
linking the coach in which he travelled to the next one, and also the noise the
train in motion would have made, the inference was unjustified.
[5] The above was the sum total of the evidence placed before the trial
court. After the appellant had testified he closed his case. The respondent
thereupon also closed its case.
[6] In his particulars of claim the appellant alleged that the respondent (the
defendant in the court below) had been negligent in the following respects:
‘1.
The Defendant failed to ensure the safety of members of the public in general and the
Plaintiff in particular on the coach of the train in which the Plaintiff travelled;
2.
The Defendant failed to take any or adequate steps to avoid the incident in which the
Plaintiff was injured when by the exercise of reasonable care they could and should have
done so;
3.
The Defendant failed to take any or adequate precautions to prevent the Plaintiff from
being injured on the moving train;
4.
The Defendant failed to employ employees, alternatively, failed to employ an
adequate number of employees to prevent passengers in general and the Plaintiff in particular
from being injured in the manner in which he was.
5.
The Defendant failed to employ employees; alternatively, failed to employ an
adequate number of employees to guarantee the safety of passengers in general and the
Plaintiff in particular;
6.
The Defendant neglected to employ security staff alternatively sufficient security staff
on the platform and/or the coach in which the Plaintiff was travelling to ensure the safety of
the public in general and the Plaintiff.’
It will be observed, in passing, that the grounds of negligence relied upon are
all of a general nature and relate to a systemic failure on the part of the
respondent. In other words, the alleged failure did not relate to an omission on
the part of an individual employee to act in a particular way in relation to the
specific incident in question, but rather to an omission of a general nature on
the part of the respondent to put in place measures that would ensure the
safety of commuters travelling on the respondent’s trains.
[7] It is now well-established that a negligent omission, unless wrongful,
will not give rise to delictual liability. The failure to take reasonable steps to
prevent foreseeable harm to another will result in liability only if the failure is
wrongful. It is the reasonableness or otherwise of imposing liability for such a
negligent failure that will determine whether it is to be regarded as wrongful.
See eg Trustees, Two Oceans Aquarium Trust v Kantey & Templer (Pty) Ltd
2006 (3) SA 138 (SCA) para 11. If it is reasonable to do so, the defendant will
be said to have owed the injured party a legal duty to act without negligence;
that is to say, to take such steps as may have been reasonable to avert the
harm. In Rail Commuters Action Group v Transnet Ltd t/a Metrorail 2005 (2)
SA 359 (CC) it was held that Metrorail was obliged to take reasonable
measures to provide for the security of commuters while making use of its rail
transport. However, the court (in paras 79-81) emphasized that the obligation
to which it referred arose by virtue of the Legal Succession to the South
African Transport Services Act 9 of 1989; it was a public law obligation and
did not automatically give rise to a legal duty for the purpose of the law of
delict. In this court, counsel were agreed that the respondent was indeed
obliged to act without negligence. In other words, given the foreseeability of
harm to commuters resulting from criminal activity, it was agreed that the
respondent owed commuters a legal duty to take such steps as were
reasonable to provide for their safety and that the failure to take such steps
would render it liable in delict.
[8] It appears from the evidence of the appellant that the respondent had
indeed adopted measures to avert crime by employing security guards both
on its trains and on railway platforms. The question in issue is therefore
whether the appellant discharged the burden of establishing on a balance of
probabilities that those measures were unreasonable in the circumstances
and that had reasonable measures been taken the attack would not have
occurred. When considering this question it is important to bear in mind that
merely because the harm which was foreseeable did eventuate does not
mean that the steps taken to avert it were necessarily unreasonable. See
Tsogo Sun Holdings (Pty) Ltd v Qing-He Shan 2006 (6) SA 537 (SCA) para
14. To hold otherwise would be to impose on the respondent a burden of
providing an absolute guarantee against the consequence of criminal activity
on its trains. There clearly is no such burden and the appellant did not
contend that there was.
[9] Whether there were security guards present in any of the other
coaches at the time of the attack is unclear. What is clear is that there was no
security guard present in the coach in which the appellant travelled from
Dunswart station to Benoni station. It is also clear that to avert the attack on
the appellant there would have had to be, at the least, one security guard
present in that coach. I say ‘at the least’ because given the willingness of the
assailant to shoot the appellant in response to no more than the latter’s
statement that he had no money, the presence of a single security guard,
even if suitably armed, may well have made no difference. Indeed, attacks by
armed robbers on security guards, even when armed, are sadly not
uncommon. But even assuming that the presence of a security guard in the
coach would have served as a deterrent sufficient to thwart the attack, the
question remains whether it would be reasonable to require the respondent to
have a security guard, whether armed or otherwise, in each and every coach
of every train. If regard is had to the large number of railway coaches
employed by the respondent to convey commuters many kilometres each day,
such a requirement would, in my view, exceed by far the precautionary
measures that could reasonably be expected of an enterprise operating a
commuter train service. No doubt in particular circumstances it may be
reasonable to expect the respondent, regardless of the cost, to place armed
security guards in each and every coach of a train travelling on a particular
line. Typically, the need for such special precautions could arise if a particular
line had been identified as being particularly dangerous on account of
repeated criminal activity. But there was no evidence to suggest that this was
so in the case of the line from Dunswart to Benoni.
[10] Counsel for the appellant sought to make something of the fact that
there were no security guards on Dunswart station. But whether this was
unreasonable or not need not be decided. It is clear from the appellant’s own
evidence that whether there were or not, would have made no difference.
There was nothing about the appearance of the commuters waiting on the
station to indicate that any of them might be armed robbers; nor was it
established that the robbers boarded the train at Dunswart station. Counsel
did not suggest that the respondent was required to take steps to ensure that
each and every commuter was searched before boarding a train, nor was this
pleaded. It is conceivable that it might be reasonable in appropriate
circumstances for the respondent to adopt such an extreme measure, but
once again, no evidence was tendered to suggest the existence of such
special circumstances.
[11] It was also emphasized on behalf of the appellant that the nature and
extent of the precautionary measures adopted by the respondent were
peculiarly within its knowledge. This, of course, is so. But it does not mean
that the respondent bore the onus of establishing that it could not reasonably
have prevented the robbery from taking place. The onus of proof remained on
the appellant throughout. Had, however, the appellant placed before the court
at least some evidence giving rise to an inference of negligence on the part of
the respondent which was causally connected to the robbery, the latter would
have been obliged to adduce evidence to rebut that inference or face the
prospect of having judgment granted against it. But, as I have indicated, the
evidence of the appellant makes it clear that the attack could only have been
averted by having an armed security guard in that particular coach. In the
absence of further evidence to justify the need for a security guard in each
coach, the failure on the part of the respondent to ensure that there was such
a security guard present in each coach does not give rise to an inference of
negligence. It is true, as counsel argued, that any such further evidence that
there may have been, would have been within the knowledge of the
respondent, but that did not preclude the respondent from ascertaining the
existence of such evidence, whether by seeking discovery of documents in
the respondent’s possession, or requesting particulars for trial or otherwise.
[12] It follows that in my view the appellant failed to discharge the burden of
proving negligence on the part of the respondent and to this extent the appeal
must fail. The court a quo granted judgment against the appellant. In my view
the correct order should have been one of absolution from the instance. I
propose to amend the order accordingly.
[13] The appeal is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
The order of the court a quo is altered to read as follows:
‘(a)
Absolution from the instance is granted.
(b)
The plaintiff is ordered to pay the costs of the defendant.’
__________
D G SCOTT
JUDGE OF APPEAL
CONCUR:
HEHER
JA
JAFTA
JA
MAYA
JA
COMBRINCK JA | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
SIPHIWE ALTON SHABALALA AND METRORAIL CASE NO
062/07
From :
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
28 November 2007
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
The Supreme Court of Appeal today dismissed the appeal of Mr
Siphiwe Shabalala whose claim for damages against Metrorail had
been rejected in the Johannesburg High Court.
On 21 May 2004 Mr Shabalala was shot and robbed while a
passenger on a train travelling between Dunswart and Benoni
stations. After boarding the train three men whose appearance
suggested they were ordinary passengers, stood up and
demanded money from the passengers in the coach. When Mr
Shabalala said he had none, one of the men drew a handgun and
without further ado fired three shots at him, hitting him twice in the
leg and once in the arm.
It appeared that Metrorail employed security guards on its trains
and on station platforms. The Court considered that the attack
could possibly have been averted had there been a security guard
in that particular coach. But having regard to the willingness of the
robber to shoot Shabalala in response to no more than the latter’s
statement that he had no money, the Court noted that the
presence of a single security guard, even if armed, may well have
made no difference. It noted, too, that attacks by armed robbers on
security guards, even when armed, are not uncommon.
While accepting that Metrorail was obliged to take reasonable
steps to prevent criminal activities on its trains, the Court held that
Metrorail could not be expected to go so far as to place a security
guard in each and every one of its coaches. This was particularly
so, the Court said, having regard to the large number of coaches
employed by Metrorail to convey commuters many kilometres each
day. Such a requirement, said the Court, would exceed by far the
precautionary measures that could reasonably be expected of an
enterprise operating a commuter train service.
The Court held that the position may have been different had
evidence been adduced that that particular line was notorious for
criminal activity and that special precautions were, therefore,
necessary. But no such evidence was produced and Shabalala’s
claim had to fail. The Court held in the circumstances that the High
Court should have granted an order of absolution from the
instance (ie an order declaring the claim not to have been proved)
rather than judgment in favour of Metrorail. It altered the High
Court’s order accordingly.
--- ends --- |
2281 | non-electoral | 2009 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case no: 429/08
In the matter between:
NICOLAAS PETRUS KOTZÈ
Appellant
and
THE STATE
Respondent
Neutral citation: Kotzè v The State (429/08) [2009] ZASCA 93
(15 September 2009)
Coram:
HARMS DP, HEHER and SNYDERS JJA and GRIESEL
and WALLIS AJJA
Heard:
20 August 2009
Delivered: 15 September 2009
Summary: Criminal law – Police trap and undercover operation –
Contraventions of s 20 of Diamonds Act 56 of 1986 – S
252A of the Criminal Procedure Act.
ORDER
On appeal from: Cape High Court (Louw J, Saldanha AJ concurring),
on appeal from the Regional Magistrates’ Court, Bellville.
The appeal is dismissed.
JUDGMENT
WALLIS AJA (HARMS DP, HEHER and SNYDERS JJA and
GRIESEL AJA concurring.)
[1] The appellant, Nick Kotzè, is a successful businessman and a
prominent citizen of Port Nolloth. On four occasions between 14 July
2001 and 12 February 2002 he purchased unpolished diamonds from one
Frik Terblanche. In all he bought 21 diamonds for a total amount of
R63 000. Unbeknown to him (although, as will become apparent, he was
alert to the possibility) Terblanche was a senior and experienced police
officer attached to the Diamond and Gold Squad, who was operating as
an undercover agent in a covert police operation known as Project
Solitaire aimed at syndicates dealing unlawfully in diamonds in the
Namaqualand region.
[2] On the basis of Terblanche’s evidence Kotzè was convicted by the
Regional Magistrates’ Court, Bellville on four counts of purchasing
unpolished diamonds in contravention of s 20 of the Diamonds Act 56 of
1986. He was sentenced on each count to pay a fine of R8 000, with an
alternative of 18 months imprisonment. In addition a further sentence of
18 months imprisonment was imposed, but suspended on certain
conditions. An appeal against his conviction to the Cape High Court was
dismissed. With the leave of that court he comes on further appeal to this
Court. The appeal is confined to one against conviction only. The only
ground advanced in support of the appeal is that in terms of s 252A(3) of
the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 the magistrate should have
declined to admit the evidence of Terblanche. In that event there would
have been no admissible evidence of the transactions giving rise to the
convictions and they would fall to be set aside.
[3] The use of traps and undercover agents by the police, both for the
prevention and the detection of crime, is long established, both here and
overseas. However, because it can be seen as generating the crimes under
investigation, it is regarded as controversial as a matter of principle and,
even in circumstances where resort to its use may be thought to be
acceptable, there is room for concern because the methods adopted by the
trap or agent involve deception and can readily be abused. The underlying
fear is that people who would not otherwise be guilty of criminal
behaviour may be induced by the conduct of the trap or undercover agent
to commit crimes and their reluctance to commit crime may be overborne
by the conduct and inducements offered by the trap or undercover agent.
Our courts have in a number of cases expressed concern about the
conduct of traps and it was the subject of an investigation and report by
the South African Law Commission.1 That in turn resulted in the statutory
regulation of the admissibility of evidence derived from the activities of
traps and undercover agents in the form of s 252A of the Criminal
Procedure Act, although the section as ultimately enacted is in material
1 South African Law Commission Report, Project 84, The Application of the Trapping System.
respects different from that proposed by the Law Commission. This
appeal raises the interpretation and application of that section.
[4] The background to the case is that in about 2000 the police decided
to undertake Operation Solitaire to address the widespread problem of
syndicates engaged in unlawful dealing in diamonds in the Namaqualand
region. Terblanche, who at that stage held the rank of inspector, was
selected as the undercover agent. He and his wife would move to Port
Nolloth on the pretext that he had retired from the police force and was
now a pensioner. There he would make himself known to local people
and seek to become accepted as part of the local community, a process
that it was anticipated would take some nine months. Thereafter he would
engage with various suspects (and possibly others he came to suspect as a
result of his activities) in ways that it was thought would lead to either the
purchase or sale of unpolished diamonds in contravention of the
Diamonds Act. In doing so he would garner the evidence that would then
be used against those persons in subsequent criminal trials. The operation
was expected to last some two years.
[5] Kotzè was one such suspect whose name was given to Terblanche
as a target to be approached. He is a prominent person in the Port Nolloth
community having served for 27 years as a town councillor, 11 of them as
mayor. He operates a motor retail business in the town and also runs a
small shop and café from the same premises. Apart from this business he
owns three farms, some 20 kilometres from Port Nolloth, and another
farm across the border in Namibia that is leased to a company in the
Anglo American group for a rental said at the trial to be in excess of
R1 million per year. He owns and leases residential and business
properties in Port Nolloth and elsewhere. He has over the years been
involved in the diamond industry, in prospecting for, mining, cutting and
polishing diamonds, although at the time of these events he had ceased
these activities, apart from having a stake in two diamond mining
operations for which a licence was held in his son’s name and a share in a
diamond cutting business. Overall it is clear that he is person of financial
substance and some wealth. He is also involved in the local congregation
of the Nederduitse Gereformeerde Kerk and testified that it was
customary for him and his wife to entertain members of the congregation
at their home after the services each Sunday with tea and coffee and
general hospitality and discussion about church affairs and religious
matters. This hospitality loomed large in the evidence in this case.
[6] Terblanche arrived in Port Nolloth on 1 August 2000 and he met
Kotzè for the first time on that day in the course of looking for suitable
accommodation. Apparently he and his wife had first approached an
estate agent in the town but she had nothing available that seemed
suitable and, according to Terblanche, suggested that he should approach
Kotzè. Although some point was made of this meeting in cross-
examination, Kotzè himself did not regard it as odd or unusual, which is
not surprising because he rented out houses through an agency operated
by his daughter. Kotzè suggested a house owned by his mother but this
was unsuitable and the following day the Terblanches found a house at
McDougall’s Bay. In the course of effecting introductions Terblanche
told Kotzè that he was a retired policeman, to which he says Kotzè
responded by saying; ‘Ek is ʼn smokkelaar.’2 Kotzè said he had no
recollection of making such a comment but accepts that he might have
done so in jest. However, Terblanche seems to have taken it seriously as
it was conveyed by him to his superiors in the course of the operation.
2 ‘I am a smuggler.’
[7] After this initial incident Terblanche and his wife moved into the
house they had found on 7 September 2000 and settled into life in and
around Port Nolloth on the basis of his cover story that he was a
pensioner. It appears that the community accepted this story at face value.
The evidence does not deal in detail with any matters other than the
development of his relationship with Kotzè, but he must have been
engaged in other activities as at the end of the operation nearly two years
later 34 people were arrested for offences relating to unlawful dealing in
diamonds and, apart from the present one, he gave evidence in a number
of trials arising out of these arrests.
[8] Terblanche established a close and friendly relationship with
Kotzè. He would regularly visit him at his business both to buy a
newspaper and other small items and to chat socially and came to know
him and his family, including Kotzè’s elderly mother with whom he
would on occasions sit and have coffee. He and his wife attended the
NGK church although their affiliation had been with the Afrikaanse
Protestante Church. They were from time to time invited with other
members of the congregation to join Kotzè and his wife for tea at their
home after service. Terblanche ascertained the birthdays of Kotzè’s
children and would telephone and wish Kotzè well on these occasions. At
a later stage of the relationship they discussed personal matters such as
the death of Terblanche’s sister in January 2001, and later still the death
of one of Kotzè’s children and certain fears that Terblanche had about his
health. On one occasion in September 2001 Terblanche and his wife,
together with Mrs Kotzè, spent the day looking at the flowers for which
the area is renowned, although business prevented Kotzè from joining
them. However apart from the visits after church and occasional meals at
the Kotzè home they did not visit one another’s homes. The only
occasions on which Kotzè went to the Terblanche home were pursuant to
two of the transactions giving rise to the charges against him.
[9] The first transaction occurred on 14 July 2001 when Terblanche
sold four unpolished diamonds to Kotzè for a price of R10 000. He
describes the circumstances in which that came about as follows. On
4 April 2001 after a visit to Johannesburg Kotzè asked where he had
been. He told him he had been visiting his children and on the way back
had stayed with a diamond cutter friend whom he wanted to repair his
wife’s ring. Kotzè’s response was to say that if Terblanche had that type
of problem he could have helped and then, according to Terblanche,
added that he would also have a diamond cut and polished for him.3
Kotzè also said that if Terblanche had any other unpolished diamonds he
should bring those as well. There is some confusion in Terblanche’s
evidence whether this latter statement was made on 4 April 2001 or
during a subsequent conversation on 10 May 2001, when he approached
Kotzè on the instructions of his handlers to ascertain whether the earlier
offer to have a diamond polished still stood and, if so, what it would cost.
Be that as it may, Terblanche’s handlers were prompted by his report of
these exchanges with Kotzè to apply to the relevant authorities to use four
unpolished stones for the purpose of Terblanche making an approach to
Kotzè to have one stone polished and to sell three more. This was
approved.
[10] The sale was made on 14 July 2001 when, according to his
evidence, Terblanche went to Kotzè’s business premises and in the
latter’s office showed him the stones. Kotzè told him that he had an
3 ‘Hy sal ook vir my ʼn diamant slyp.’
appointment and that the stones could either be left there or taken away
by Terblanche and brought back on his return. Terblanche left the
diamonds in a desk drawer that Kotzè assured him was safe and returned
about 15 minutes later to be told that the diamonds had been sent to be
valued. When a message was received that the diamond cutter was not
available Kotzè asked if he would sell all four stones and Terblanche said
he would. He asked Kotzè to make him an offer and the latter wrote R10
on a desk calendar. Terblanche understood this to mean R10 000, which
he accepted. Kotzè then sent his son to fetch the money and paid it to
Terblanche, who left the premises and immediately reported the
transaction to his superior.
[11] The second sale occurred on 7 September 2001. Terblanche
testified that he visited Kotzè’s business premises on 18 August 2001 and
was asked if he had brought anything to sell.4 Terblanche answered in the
negative but assumed that the query related to unpolished diamonds and
so on 1 September he told Kotzè that he had been offered a packet of
diamonds but didn’t have the money for them. He hoped that Kotzè
would offer to take over the transaction, as this would enable him to have
a second person present. The reason for this was that the recordings he
had been trying to make on the occasion of the earlier sale were not
satisfactory. He said that Kotzè told him that if he were short of cash for
this purpose he would assist him.
[12] Terblanche returned on 7 September with four diamonds and
wearing a coat with pockets in which he had a video camera. He told
Kotzè he had brought him something and showed him the diamonds.
Kotzè’s response was to say in a whisper that he hoped that Terblanche
4 ‘Hy het my gevra of ek iets gebring het om te verkoop.’
was not trying to catch him. Kotzè then put the diamonds in the drawer of
his desk and they drove out to his farm where he had something to attend
to. During this journey Kotzè questioned Terblanche about his source for
the stones and also his background. Terblanche told him that he had left
the police force on early retirement under something of a cloud. When
they returned from the farm Kotzè said that he would give him R10 000
for the stones. At the business premises a friend of Kotzè’s, a Dr Coetzer,
was waiting and Kotzè left him and Terblanche in conversation while he
went and fetched the money. On his return Terblanche counted the money
and then left. Dr Coetzer gave evidence and confirmed the payment and
said that Kotzè told him after Terblanche left that he had got a ‘bargain’
and showed him a stone that Coetzer thought was an unpolished diamond.
[13] The third sale was effected on 14 December 2001 and involved
seven diamonds and the payment of R26 000 by Kotzè to Terblanche.
Kotzè had been away for much of the time after the second transaction.
On 7 December 2001 Inspector Bruwer, who was part of the covert
operation, gave Terblanche seven unpolished diamonds with instructions
to offer them to Kotzè. On 14 December 2001 Terblanche took the
diamonds and went to Kotzè’s business premises. He says that when he
arrived there Kotzè took him into his office and asked if he had again
obtained unpolished diamonds.5 Terblanche confirmed that he had and
showed the packet of diamonds to him. He assumed Kotzè would want to
value the diamonds and asked when he should return for his money.
Kotzè said that he would bring it to his house. That evening Kotzè came
to his house and gave him R25 000 and said that he would pay him
another R1 000, which he should collect the next day from his business.
5 ‘Hy het my gevra of ek al weer ongeslypte diamante gekry het’
The events that evening were recorded on video and will be referred to in
more detail later in this judgment.
[14] The fourth and last transaction took place on 10 February 2002 and
involved the sale of six unpolished diamonds for a price of R17 000.
According to Terblanche’s evidence its background lay in Inspector
Bruwer giving Terblanche the diamonds with instructions to offer them to
Kotzè. In discussion with Captain Farber, to whom Terblanche was
reporting, it was decided that it would be best if he could bring Kotzè to
his home rather than trying to do a deal at the latter’s business. This was
no doubt due to the problems that had been experienced with recordings
in the latter environment and the availability of the video cameras at the
house. On 24 January 2002 Terblanche accordingly left a message for
Kotzè at the business to come to his house. By chance, as he was driving
home, he encountered Kotzè driving in the opposite direction. He stopped
him and asked him to come to his house and drove off to wait for him.
Shortly thereafter Kotzè arrived and after a brief social conversation
Terblanche took him to his office to view the diamonds. As they left the
lounge Kotzè sought reassurance from Mrs Terblanche that her husband
was not still a policeman and trying to trap him. He then went into
Terblanche’s office where he was shown the diamonds. Kotzè took the
diamonds and left after a lengthy and relaxed conversation with the
Terblanches. No price was discussed at this time. Once again the events
were recorded on video.
[15] The following day Terblanche went to Kotzè’s business premises
and whilst they were sitting in the office Kotzè asked him where he had
got the diamonds he had taken the previous day. He told Terblanche that
four black men driving a red VW Golf had approached two Portuguese
men in the town in a trap using the same diamonds. (There had in fact
been an arrest of three men, two of whom were Portuguese, at a bakery in
the town as a result of a trap and this appears to have been well known.)
Terblanche told him that in that event he should give him back the
diamonds and he would sell them to a contact in Johannesburg. Kotzè
gave them back to Terblanche saying that he valued them at R17 000.
[16] Terblanche said that two Sundays later, on 3 February 2002, when
he stopped at Kotzè’s shop to buy a newspaper, Kotzè asked him if he
still had the diamonds. Terblanche told him that he intended to sell them
to his contact in Johannesburg and Kotzè responded that if he decided not
to do so his offer to buy them for R17 000 stood. The following Saturday,
9 February, Terblanche went to Kotzè’s premises and told him that he
had cancelled his visit to Johannesburg and if Kotzè was still interested
the diamonds were available. He said that he would come and see Kotzè
on the following Monday. On the Monday evening at about 10.00 pm
Kotzè arrived at his house and said that he had brought him some figs. He
told Terblanche that he should give him the diamonds but Terblanche
made an excuse about their accessibility and instead took them to him at
the business the following day. Kotzè took the diamonds and paid him the
R17 000.
[17] Much of this evidence was not disputed by Kotzè. However in the
case of each sale he disputed the circumstances in which it had come
about. He said that Terblanche had become an intimate friend of his and
that they had shared many confidences. He claimed to have been
instrumental in bringing Terblanche and his wife back to a life of faith by
inviting them to the NGK and encouraging a new religious commitment.6
He depicted himself as a person of an emotional and extremely generous
disposition7 who had been completely taken in by Terblanche’s
presentation of himself as a man who had been forced to leave the police
force early with a diminished pension and no medical aid and who was
battling financially. His impression, so he said, was that Terblanche was
in a fairly desperate financial position8 and needed to do things to
increase his income. He laid stress on the fact that Terblanche peddled
fish in a township called Sanddrif, some eighty kilometres away. He also
alleged that on at least five occasions he lent Terblanche money in
amounts varying between R1 000 and R3 000, which was always repaid.
This was hotly disputed by Terblanche and no record of the loans was
produced.
[18] Against that background of close friendship and apparent financial
need Kotzè claimed that on each occasion that he bought unpolished
diamonds from Terblanche the initiative for the transaction had come
from Terblanche. He says that Terblanche incessantly brought the subject
of diamonds into the conversation even though he begged him to desist.
According to him each time a sale was concluded, Terblanche had
approached him with a tale of financial woe and was insistent that Kotzè
should purchase the diamonds so as to assist him. Against his better
judgment and contrary to his religious beliefs and a spiritual commitment
he had made at some time in the past never again to be engaged in the
6 Terblanche’s more prosaic explanation was that he had liked the way in which the minister at the
NGK preached and had decided to attend worship there at the invitation of the minister. He also said
that the Afrikaanse Protestante Church was only a home church where worship was conducted by an
elder and that when it was pointed out to him as the place that flew the old national flag he decided that
it involved itself in politics. None of this evidence was challenged and Kotzè’s claim was not put to
either him or his wife.
7 This contrasted with the impression of Dr Coetzer who said that whilst Kotzè was friendly he always
had the impression that his approach was coloured by an attitude of ‘what’s in it for me’.
8 ‘Finansieël dit nie breed het nie.’
illegal buying and selling of diamonds, he succumbed to Terblanche’s
persistence on each occasion out of a spirit of Christian charity and a
desire to help someone in need. His broad contention, as put to
Terblanche in cross-examination by his leading counsel, was that:
‘...hierdie hele wyse waarop u te werk gegaan het met die beskuldige, die misbruik
wat u gemaak het van die kerk, van sy vriendskap, al die dinge wat ek reeds aan u
gestel het, duidelik daarop dui dat u nie net die geleentheid wou skep vir hom om ʼn
misdryf te pleeg nie, u wou hom betrap en u het gesorg dat u hom ver genoeg uitlok,
dat ʼn man met sy tipe persoonlikheid sal val vir hierdie jammerhartige figuur wat die
paar diamante wou verkoop?’9
[19] The magistrate ruled at the end of a trial within a trial that the
evidence of Terblanche was admissible. It is unfortunate that in deciding
to hold a trial within a trial the magistrate did not require Kotzè to furnish
the grounds on which he challenged the admissibility of the evidence, as
should have been done in terms of the proviso to s 252A(6). That might
have focussed attention on the pertinent matters in dispute and limited the
lengthy examination and cross-examination over a number of days of
Terblanche and Kotzè, as well as obviating the need for some other
evidence to be led. Instead a vast array of issues was traversed at
considerable length and in great detail but at the end of the day most of
this had little bearing on the central issue of admissibility. It is important
for presiding officers faced with challenges to the admissibility of the
evidence of a trap to be aware of and apply subsec (6), in terms of which
the accused must ‘furnish the grounds on which the admissibility of the
evidence is challenged’. The matter may then, in terms of subsec (7), be
adjudicated as a separate issue in dispute, ie, during a trial within a trial.
9 ‘This whole way in which you went to work with the accused, the abuse you made of the church, his
friendship, all the things I have put to you, all show clearly that you did not confine yourself to creating
an opportunity to commit the offence, but you wanted to trap him and you made sure that you tempted
him sufficiently that a man with his type of personality would fall for this type of sorry figure who
wanted to sell a few diamonds?’ (My translation.)
[20] Subsection 6 provides that the burden of proof to show that the
evidence is admissible rests on the prosecution and this burden must be
discharged on a balance of probabilities. This refers to the burden resting
on the prosecution to prove the facts on the basis of which it contends
that the evidence is admissible, whether under subsec (1) or subsec (3).
The decision as to its admissibility is a legal decision taken in accordance
with the provisions of s 252A in the light of the proved facts. Whilst the
section refers to the burden being discharged on a balance of
probabilities, it is in my prima facie view incompatible with the
constitutional presumption of innocence and the constitutional protection
of the right to silence. Those rights must be seen in the light of the
jurisprudence of the Constitutional Court, in which it has been held that
their effect is that the guilt of an accused person must be established
beyond reasonable doubt.10 That a confession was made freely and
voluntarily and without having been unduly induced thereto must be
proved beyond reasonable doubt and I can see no practical difference
between that case and the case where a conviction is based on the
evidence of a trap. Each deals with the proof of facts necessary to secure
the admission of the evidence necessary to prove the guilt of the accused.
In my prima facie view therefore, and in the absence of argument, in
order for the evidence of a trap to be admitted, it is necessary that the trial
court be satisfied that the basis for its admissibility has been established
beyond a reasonable doubt. That was the case here, for the reasons set out
below, so this issue does not affect the outcome of this appeal.
10 S v Zuma & others 1995 (2) SA 642 (CC) para 25. The cases in which the Constitutional Court has
reaffirmed the principle are collected in S v Manamela & another (Director-General of Justice
intervening) 2000 (3) SA 1 (CC) fn 30.
[21] The starting point for considering the admissibility of Terblanche’s
evidence is section 252A(1) of the Act, which provides that:
‘(1)
Any law enforcement officer, official of the State or any other person
authorised thereto for such purpose (hereinafter referred to in this section as an
official or his or her agent) may make use of a trap or engage in an undercover
operation in order to detect, investigate or uncover the commission of an offence, or
to prevent the commission of any offence, and the evidence so obtained shall be
admissible if that conduct does not go beyond providing an opportunity to commit an
offence: Provided that where the conduct goes beyond providing an opportunity to
commit an offence a court may admit evidence so obtained subject to subsection (3).’
The section adopts the recommendation of the Law Commission that it is
inappropriate to introduce a defence of entrapment in South Africa and
preferable to deal with the problems surrounding the use of traps by way
of an exclusionary rule of evidence.11 Accordingly it excludes the
possibility of such a defence by explicitly stating that the use of a trap or
engaging in undercover operations in order to detect, investigate or
uncover the commission of an offence is permissible. It is not correct to
say, as does one leading commentator,12 that it is an authority to use traps
and undercover operations ‘in certain circumstances’. There is no such
qualification in the section. Absent a constitutional challenge – and there
is no such challenge in the present case – there is no room for an
argument that the use of a trap or the undertaking of undercover
operations is unlawful in South Africa.
[22] The section deals with both traps and undercover operations.
Whilst these usually go together there will be cases where an undercover
operation may involve no element of a trap. Thus for example the
11 That is also the approach in Australia, Ridgeway v R (1995) 184 CLR 19; the United Kingdom, R v
Looseley [2001] 4 All ER 897 (HL) and Singapore, Mohamed Emran Bin Mohamed Ali v Public
Prosecutor [2009] 2 LRC 484.
12 E Du Toit, F J De Jager, A Paizes, A St Q Skeen and S van der Merwe, Commentary on the
Criminal Procedure Act (Revision service 42, 2009) para 1, p 24-131.
infiltration of an undercover agent into a gang planning a bank robbery, a
cash-in-transit heist or the overthrow of the government will not
necessarily involve any element of a trap, but may merely be an exercise
in obtaining information. Nonetheless it may involve infringements of
rights to privacy – as with the use of a telephone tap or some other form
of listening device – and could potentially be subject to constitutional
challenge. The section explicitly addresses that situation and provides that
such actions are permissible. It also recognises that undercover operations
may have elements of a trap and hence treats the two together. The
present case is a classic instance of an undercover operation that also
involves the use of a trap.
[23] The section lays down two approaches to the admissibility of
evidence obtained as a result of the use of a trap. Evidence is
automatically admissible if the conduct of the person concerned goes no
further than providing an opportunity to commit the offence. If the
conduct goes beyond that the court must enquire into the methods by
which the evidence was obtained and the impact that its admission would
have on the fairness of the trial and the administration of justice in order
to determine whether it should be admitted.
[24] It must be stressed that the fact that the undercover operation or
trap goes beyond providing the accused person with an opportunity to
commit the crime does not render that conduct improper or imply that
some taint attaches to the evidence obtained thereby. All that it does is
create the necessity for the trial court to proceed to the enquiry mentioned
in the previous paragraph. I stress this because there was a misconception
in this regard at the trial. At various places in the cross-examination of
Terblanche it was put to him that the section imposes constraints upon
what may be done pursuant to a trap and this suggestion is repeated
before us in the heads of argument for Kotzè. In summarising the
argument in his practice note counsel said: ‘Die getuienis van die lokvink
behoort as ontoelaatbaar gereël te word aangesien die optrede van die
lokvink verder gegaan het as die blote skepping van ʼn geleentheid om ʼn
misdryf te pleeg.’13 This is a misconception as to the effect of s 252A(1)
and it is as well therefore to lay it to rest. Section 252A(1) does not
purport to prescribe the manner in which undercover operations or traps
are to be conducted by the police. It merely distinguishes on the basis of
the manner in which the trap is conducted between instances where the
evidence thereby obtained is automatically admissible and instances
where a further enquiry is called for before the question of admissibility
can be determined.
[25] Section 252A(1) prescribes a factual enquiry into whether the
conduct of the trap goes beyond providing an opportunity to commit an
offence. Section 252A(2) describes a number of features that may
indicate to a trial court that the undercover operation or trap went beyond
providing an opportunity to commit an offence. It was conceded by the
prosecution and held by both the magistrate and the court below that the
conduct of Terblanche and this undercover operation went beyond merely
providing the opportunity for the commission of the offence.
Unfortunately the findings of both courts on this aspect were not fully
reasoned. A closer examination of the provisions of sections 252A(1) and
(2) is therefore desirable.
13 ‘The evidence of the trap ought to be ruled inadmissible because the conduct of the trap went further
than merely providing an opportunity to commit an offence.’ (My translation)
[26] The starting point is that, in each case where the evidence of a trap
is tendered and its admissibility challenged, the trial court must first
determine as a question of fact whether the conduct of the trap went
beyond providing an opportunity to commit an offence. It does that by
giving the expression its ordinary meaning and makes its decision in the
light of the factors set out in subsec (2). I accept that if one simply peers
at the language of s 252A(2) there appears to be an anomaly arising from
the fact that some matters logically anterior to the conduct of the trap
itself are to be taken into account in considering whether it went beyond
providing an opportunity to commit an offence.14 However there are
always dangers in such a linguistic analysis removed from the context of
the section as a whole and the potential anomaly may on closer
examination be more apparent than real. Thus the fact that the trap was
set without the authority of the Director of Public Prosecutions or that the
conditions set by the Director were disregarded may well indicate that the
trap went beyond providing an opportunity to commit an offence.
Otherwise they will be irrelevant. The fact that the offence in question is
of a minor nature may indicate that the effect of the trap is to place
disproportionate temptation in the path of the accused, so that it went
beyond providing an opportunity to commit an offence.
[27] If one examines the context of subsec (2) it is clear that the
legislature was concerned to identify situations that would be relevant to
and bear upon the factual enquiry postulated in subsec (1). It adopted
language taken from a leading United States decision on entrapment15 in
14 The anomaly is dealt with in Du Toit et al, 24-134 to 24-135 and has been mentioned in some
judgments. S v Odugo 2001 (1) SACR 560 (W) paras 32–34; S v Makhanya & another 2002 (3) SA
201 (N) at 206H-I; S v Reeding & another 2005 (2) SACR 631 (C) at 637i-j.
15 Sorrels v United States (1932), 287 US 435. Other United States sources use the same language as
appears from the Law Commission’s report. The adoption of that language does not indicate an
adoption of meaning.
formulating the factual enquiry to be made. In its judgment the reference
to the trap not going beyond affording an opportunity to commit an
offence describes a situation where no issue exists about the propriety of
the trap or the admissibility of the evidence derived therefrom. It
appended in subsec (2) an open16 list of factors relevant to the factual
enquiry. Those factors must be viewed holistically and weighed
cumulatively as different factors may point towards different answers.
Not all of the factors will be relevant in every case. Sight must not be lost
of the fact that there is only a single question to be answered, namely,
whether the conduct of the trap went beyond providing an opportunity to
commit an offence. If, on considering all relevant factors, the conclusion
is that the conduct of the trap went beyond providing an opportunity to
commit the offence, the enquiry moves on to s 252A(3) because, in the
legislature’s judgment, that conclusion may cast doubt upon the propriety
of the trap and the evidence obtained thereby, so that the situation
requires further scrutiny before the evidence is admitted. If the factors in
subsec (2) are not taken as a checklist17 but merely as matters that may be
relevant to the proper determination of the factual enquiry, taking into
account in any particular case those that are relevant on the facts of that
case, they ought to pose few problems. What will be required in every
case is a careful analysis of the evidence18 in order to determine whether
the conduct of the trap goes beyond the limit set by the legislature.
[28] Although it is difficult to discern the reasons for the magistrate’s
decision on this primary issue there seem to be three matters that could
16 ‘Open’ because it ends with sub-para (n), which includes ‘any other factor which in the opinion of
the court has a bearing on the question’.
17 As this Court has already said should not be the case. S v Hammond [2007] ZASCA 164; [2007]
SCA 164 (RSA); 2008 (1) SACR 476 (SCA) para 26.
18 As occurred in S v Matsabu [2008] ZASCA 149; [2008] SCA 149 (RSA);2009 (1) SACR 513 (SCA)
paras 16 and 17.
underlie it. They are that on the description of the operation a number of
attempts were to be made to trap Kotzè (subsec (2)(e)). Secondly, in
certain respects, sometimes inadvertently and sometimes deliberately,
Terblanche acted outside the ambit of the conditions attaching to the
approval of the undercover operation by the representatives of the
Director of Public Prosecutions (subsec (2)(a)). Thirdly, there can be no
doubt that he was able to make the approaches that he did to Kotzè in
consequence of having formed a friendship with him and this could have
been construed as exploiting that friendship (subsec (2)(h)). The other
grounds, approached holistically, indicate at least prima facie that
Terblanche did not go ‘beyond providing an opportunity to commit an
offence’. For example, the DPP’s prior approval was obtained; buying of
unpolished diamonds in the area is prevalent; there are no other
techniques for the detection of the offence; an average person would not
have succumbed to the temptation because the parcels were small and the
profit on each very small; and, as far as timing is concerned, the police
had more than enough reason to suspect that the appellant was involved
in illicit diamond buying to justify the laying of a trap.
[29] There are difficulties with each of the three factors mentioned
above and hence with the magistrate’s conclusion on this question. As to
the first, repeated attempts did not have to be made before Kotzè
succumbed, whether on the first or later occasions. He accepted the first
offer immediately and the others equally readily. When he resisted the
operation was terminated. As to the second, for reasons dealt with later,
any non-compliance had no effect on the conduct of the trap. As to the
third, I deal below with Kotzè’s version of the facts and reject it. It
follows that Terblanche did not exploit his relationship with Kotzè. In my
view therefore it would appear that the finding that Terblanche’s conduct
went further than providing an opportunity to commit these offences was
incorrect. However, as the prosecution did not press this issue and had
conceded the point in both courts below, I turn to the enquiry under
s 252A(3).
[30] Turning then to s 252A(3) it reads as follows:
‘(3)(a) If a court in any criminal proceedings finds that in the setting of a trap or the
engaging in an undercover operation the conduct goes beyond providing an
opportunity to commit an offence, the court may refuse to allow such evidence to be
tendered or may refuse to allow such evidence already tendered, to stand, if the
evidence was obtained in an improper or unfair manner and that the admission of such
evidence would render the trial unfair or would otherwise be detrimental to the
administration of justice.
(b) When considering the admissibility of the evidence the court shall weigh up the
public interest against the personal interest of the accused, having regard to the
following factors, if applicable:
(i) The nature and seriousness of the offence, including:
(aa) whether it is of such a nature and of such an extent that the security of the State,
the safety of the public, the maintenance of public order or the national economy is
seriously threatened thereby;
(bb) whether, in the absence of the use of a trap or an undercover operation, it would
be difficult to detect, investigate, uncover or prevent its commission;
(cc) whether it is so frequently committed that special measures are required to detect,
investigate or uncover it or to prevent its commission; or
(dd) whether it is so indecent or serious that the setting of a trap or the engaging of an
undercover operation was justified;
(ii) the extent of the effect of the trap or undercover operation upon the interests of the
accused, if regard is had to:
(aa) the deliberate disregard, if at all, of the accused’s rights or any applicable legal
and statutory requirements;
(bb) the facility, or otherwise, with which such requirements could have been
complied with, having regard to the circumstances in which the offence was
committed; or
(cc) the prejudice to the accused resulting from any improper or unfair conduct;
(iii) the nature and seriousness of any infringement of any fundamental right
contained in the Constitution;
(iv) whether in the setting of a trap or the engagement of an undercover operation the
means used was proportional to the seriousness of the offence; and
(v) any other factor which in the opinion of the court ought to be taken into account.’
[31] Subsection (3)(a) establishes two criteria for determining the
admissibility of evidence obtained through the use of a trap or undercover
agent. They are, firstly, whether the evidence was obtained in an
improper or unfair manner and, secondly, whether its admission would
render the trial unfair or would otherwise be detrimental to the interests of
justice. As they are joined conjunctively it appears at first sight that both
must be answered in the affirmative if the evidence is to be excluded, but
I reserve any final decision on that question as there are arguments
pointing in the opposite direction and we have not had the benefit of full
argument on it. The language of the section suggests that such exclusion
is discretionary (‘the court may refuse to allow such evidence to be
tendered or may refuse to allow such evidence already tendered to
stand…’) but insofar as there is a discretion it is a narrow one. The power
of the court to exclude the evidence where the relevant circumstances are
established will ordinarily be coupled with a duty to exclude it.19 This in
turn has implications for the powers of this court on appeal but it is
unnecessary to explore these.
19 Schwartz v Schwartz 1984 (4) SA 467 (A) at 473H-474E.
[32] Subsection (3)(b) sets out the factors relevant to the exercise of the
court’s power to exclude the evidence. Again this is not a closed list as
the court may take into account any factor that in its opinion ought to be
taken into account in that regard. In this case Kotzè’s counsel confined
himself to the following matters. He accepted that the nature of the
offence and its seriousness is of such a nature that it is difficult to catch
perpetrators without the use of traps.20 He focussed his attack on the
nature of the approaches made to Kotzè as well as the use – or abuse as
counsel would have it – of the relationship Terblanche had formed with
Kotzè. He also argued that it appeared that certain affidavits were back-
dated and characterised Terblanche as an unreliable and untrustworthy
witness with a poor memory who adopted improper and unconventional
methods in going about his task. Lastly reliance was placed on the failure
to observe strictly the conditions attached by the Director of Public
Prosecutions to the authority to pursue the undercover operation and
particularly the fact that the audio and video recordings of encounters
between Kotzè and Terblanche were incomplete in the sense that not
every encounter between Terblanche and Kotzè was recorded and
deficient in that large parts of the sound recordings were inaudible.
[33] In assessing these submissions the necessary starting point is the
evidence of Kotzè in regard to the circumstances in which the
transactions came about and his motivation for buying the diamonds. The
magistrate disbelieved his evidence in this regard as did the court below
and as do I. As counsel accepted, there is not a shred of objective
evidence in the material captured on tape and video recordings that
supports the notion that any of these transactions came about as a result
20 That traps are necessary for this purpose was accepted over a century ago by Innes CJ in Myers and
Misnum v R 1907 TS 760 at 762, a view reaffirmed by the Law Commission.
of a plea by Terblanche that he had fallen upon hard times. Nor is there
any evidence that Kotzè resisted blandishments from the side of
Terblanche but that his resistance was overcome by such blandishments
or pleas of financial hardship. There is nothing that indicates that Kotzè
was anything other than a willing participant in the transactions. Indeed
the recordings, both audio and video, reflect that this was the case. They
show a man who was at ease with his surroundings and with what he was
engaged in. The tone of conversation was always friendly and jovial and
the moment they turned to discussions of the business at hand Kotzè
would drop his voice and conduct proceedings in a whisper as though he
was aware of the risk that the discussions might be recorded. Although he
claimed that in relation to the fourth transaction he had been brought to
the Terblanche house by a gross misrepresentation, the videos give this
the lie. If anything he is the dominant figure in the transactions in
accordance with the picture one derives from the background sketched in
paragraph [5] of this judgment.
[34] All this fell to be taken with Kotzè’s references to the possibility
that Terblanche might try and trap him or arrest him and his discreet
enquiries of Mrs Terblanche whether her husband was still a policeman.
These indicate someone who was well aware that he was engaged in
unlawful conduct and was taking precautionary measures against the
possibility that this might be a trap. Added to this is his denial of the
transactions when confronted by Terblanche at the time of his arrest; his
dishonest evidence at a bail hearing that the amounts of R26 000 and
R17000 were loans and his unwillingness to disclose what happened to
the diamonds he bought from Terblanche. Cumulatively it means that his
evidence was rightly rejected and his counsel made no attempt to reverse
that conclusion. He did however seek to contend that we should
nonetheless accept Kotzè’s version of what transpired prior to the first
transaction, but that evidence is of a piece with the evidence that was
rejected and cannot be separated from it. It too falls to be rejected.
[35] The rejection of Kotzè’s evidence is destructive of the contention
that the evidence was obtained unfairly by virtue of the methods adopted
by Terblanche and is likewise destructive of the submission that its
admission rendered the trial unfair or was detrimental to the
administration of justice. That left counsel to concentrate his submissions
on areas of weakness in Terblanche’s evidence such as the absence of a
note of the offer to cut and polish a diamond, the backdating of certain
statements and certain contradictions that were identified in great detail
in the heads of argument but do not require repetition here. None of these
affect the conclusion that Kotzè was a willing participant in the admitted
purchase of diamonds from Terblanche. Nor does any of it bear upon the
propriety or fairness of the methods adopted to obtain the evidence of
those transactions, or the fairness of the trial.
[36] That left, as the last point in the argument, the proposition that
because Terblanche and other members of the team conducting this
undercover operation departed in certain respects from the conditions
attaching to the Director of Public Prosecutions’ authorisation for
Operation Solitaire the evidence obtained as a result of Terblanche’s
actions should be excluded. Counsel rightly did not pursue a contention
advanced in the heads of argument that these departures disregarded
applicable legal and statutory requirements.21 Part of this argument, based
as it is upon the proposition that Terblanche induced Kotzè to enter into
the transactions by playing upon the latter’s tender emotions, fails with
21 S 252A(3)(b)(ii)(aa).
the rejection of Kotzè’s evidence in this regard. As to the balance, the
principal criticism related to the fact that Terblanche had not sought to
record all of his encounters and conversations with Kotzè, starting from
their first meeting when the Terblanches were seeking accommodation,
but only those where Kotzè was purchasing diamonds. I am not sure that
it was the intention of the Director of Public Prosecutions’ conditions that
every encounter should be recorded inasmuch as it was manifestly
impractical to expect this of Terblanche during an undercover operation
in which he was to spend nine months establishing his new persona and
two years engaged in undercover activities whilst maintaining the public
image of a pensioner. However, even if that was the intention there is
nothing to show that any failure in this regard was, as contended by
counsel, detrimental to the interests of justice or rendered the trial unfair.
The point is accordingly rejected as is the entire challenge to the
admissibility of the evidence of Terblanche.
[37] My conclusion is that the evidence of Terblanche was correctly
admitted. In the result Kotzè’s appeal against his conviction on the four
counts under s 20 of the Diamonds Act is dismissed.
M J D WALLIS
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES
FOR KOTZÈ :
F J MURRAY
Instructed by Schreuders, Springbok.
Symington & De Kok, Bloemfontein
FOR THE RESPONDENT:
L J BADENHORST
Instructed
by
Director
Public
Prosecutions, Cape Town
Director
Public
Prosecutions
Bloemfontein | Supreme Court of Appeal of South Africa
MEDIA SUMMARY– JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date: Tuesday 15 September 2009
Status: Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does
not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
NICOLAAS PETRUS KOTZÈ v THE STATE
In a judgment delivered today the Supreme Court of Appeal dismissed an
appeal against Mr Kotzè’s conviction in the Bellville Regional Magistrates’ Court on
4 counts of purchasing unpolished diamonds in contravention of s20 of the Diamonds
Act 56 of 1986. Over a period of some 8 months from July 2001 to February 2002 and
on four separate occasions Mr Kotzè purchased a total of 21 unpolished diamonds
from a police undercover agent, Inspector Frik Terblanche, for a total price of
R63 000.
The basis for the conviction was the evidence of Inspector Terblanche. The
appeal raised a challenge to the admissibility of this evidence in terms of s 252A of
the Criminal Procedure Act. Mr Kotzè contended that Terblanche had formed and
then exploited a close personal relationship with him by holding himself out as a
pensioner who had fallen upon hard times financially. He claimed that Terblanche
importuned him to buy diamonds and that on each occasion and against his better
judgment he succumbed to his pleas.
The trial court rejected this evidence as inconsistent with the content of audio
and video recordings of Terblanche’s dealings with Kotzè and certain other objective
facts and the Supreme Court of Appeal agreed. It held that the evidence was
admissible under s252A of the Criminal Procedure Act, as it had not been improperly
obtained and its admission did not render Kotzè’s trial unfair nor was it detrimental to
the administration of justice. The convictions were accordingly upheld. |
1833 | non-electoral | 2011 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case no: 125/10
ANGLORAND SECURITIES LIMITED
Appellant
and
DIVHANI DAVID MUDAU
First Respondent
RUDOLPH RASHAMA
Second Respondent
____________________________________________________________
Neutral citation:
Anglorand Securities Ltd v Mudau & another
(125/10) [2011] ZASCA 76 (26 May 2011)
BENCH:
HEHER, PONNAN, MAYA JJA, MEER and PLASKET AJJA
HEARD:
20 MAY 2011
DELIVERED:
26 MAY 2011
SUMMARY: Prescription Act 68 of 1969 – prescription – commencement of
running of – whether interrupted.
____________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from:
Limpopo High Court (Thohoyandou) (Hetisani J sitting as court of
first instance).
1. The appeal is allowed with costs.
2. The order of the court below is set aside to be replaced with:
‘The second defendant’s special plea of prescription is upheld and the plaintiff’s
claim is dismissed with costs.’
___________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
___________________________________________________________________
PONNAN JA (HEHER, MAYA JJA, MEER and PLASKET AJJA concurring):
[1] This appeal raises two linked questions: the first concerns the commencement of
the running of prescription in regard to the claim of Mr Divhani David Mudau, the plaintiff
in the court below (the plaintiff), against the present appellant, Anglorand Securities Ltd
(Anglorand); and the second is whether an interruption took place.
[2] Those issues arise for determination against the following backdrop. The plaintiff
instituted action in the Limpopo High Court (Thohoyandou) against Anglorand as the
second defendant and one of its former employees Mr Rudolph Rashama (Rashama)
as the first defendant. Rashama took no part in the proceedings. The basis of the
plaintiff’s claim is contained in paragraphs 5 – 11 inclusive of his declaration, which
reads:
‘5
During or about December 2001, and at THOHOYANDOU, the 2nd Defendant being represented by
Rudolph Rashama (1st Defendant) who was at that time within the scope of his employment, and the
Plaintiff acting personally, entered into an oral agreement of sale of shares and investment in terms of the
following:-
5.1.1
That the Plaintiff must deposit an amount of R160 000-00 (One Hundred and Sixty Thousand)
rands to the 2nd Defendant’s banking account no: 4052178047 (ABSA) Bank Limited being for
sale of shares which the Plaintiff was purchasing from Johannesburg Stock Exchange.
5.1.2
That the Defendant(s) will buy shares for the Plaintiff immediately after the Plaintiff deposited the
said money into the 2nd Defendant’s Banking account and invests the remaining amount with any
banking institution in the Republic of South Africa.
5.1.3
That the Defendant(s) shall within 7 (seven) working days after deposit of the said money provide
the Plaintiff with investment booklet reflecting the rate of interests which will accrue to the money
deposited by the Plaintiff.
5.1.4
That the Plaintiff shall have the right to withdraw the capital amount deposited at anytime after the
period of 3 (three) months from the date of the deposit of the money.
5.1.5
That the Defendant(s) will at all the material times act as agents for the Plaintiff in the said
transaction.
On or about the 04th day of December 2001, the Plaintiff duly deposited an amount of R160 000-00 (One
Hundred and Sixty Thousand) rands to the 2nd Defendant’s Banking account no: 4052178047 (ABSA)
Bank Limited at THOHOYANDOU branch as per agreement between the parties.
From the period 15th of December 2001 until the period March 2002, the Plaintiff was at all the material
times thereto keep on checking his postal box to see if investment booklet had already been sent to him
from the Defendants.
During the period April 2002, the Plaintiff went to the 2nd Defendant’s premises to enquire about his
shares, investment and the money which he had deposited into the 2nd Defendant’s Banking account.
At the 2nd Defendant’s premises, the Plaintiff was advised by one of the directors of the 2nd Defendant that
his money is reflecting in the 2nd Defendant banking account but same could not be withdrawn at that time
since insurance claim had been lodged against Rudolph Rashama for an alleged fraud and that
repayment of the Plaintiff’s money would be effected within 6 (six) month.
During November 2002, on the 2nd Defendant’s premises, the Plaintiff demanded withdrawal of his capital
amount which he had deposited into the 2nd Defendant’s banking account, and one of the directors of the
2nd Defendant advised the Plaintiff that cheque of the capital amount will be drawn on Plaintiff’s favour
within 6 (six) month.
Despite promises on several occasions and on demand,
11.1
The cheque was never drawn to the Plaintiff’s favour from the Defendants;
11.2
Investment booklet(s) was never sent to the Plaintiff from the Defendants;
11.3
Shares were never bought for the Plaintiff from Johannesburg Stock Exchange or anywhere by
the Defendants;
11.4
the Defendants never refunded an amount of R160 000-00 to the Plaintiff.’
[3] For a better appreciation of the history to the matter it is necessary to record that
with effect from 1 March 2001 Anglorand purchased from Cahn Shapiro Incorporated
(Cahn Shapiro), a member of the Johannesburg Stock Exchange (JSE), the latter’s
client base, which included the plaintiff. By that stage, so the allegation went, the
plaintiff had already invested or more accurately believed that he had invested
R300 000 with Cahn Shapiro to enable it to purchase on his behalf listed securities,
financial instruments and money market investments as defined in the JSE’s Rules.
That investment of R300 000 the plaintiff had made through Rashama, who was then
employed by Cahn Shapiro. It, like the subsequent one for R160 000, was allegedly
misappropriated by Rashama.
[4] The plaintiff’s summons elicited, in response, inter alia, the following special plea:
‘8
Plaintiff’s claim is based on an alleged oral agreement concluded between Plaintiff and Second
Defendant during or about December 2001.
Plaintiff, through his appointed attorneys, and in writing, demanded payment from Second Defendant on
14 October 2002. A copy of the demand is annexed, marked “B”.
Plaintiff’s claim according became due on 14 October 2002.
Plaintiff had to serve Summons commencing action on Second Defendant before or on 13 October 2005.
Plaintiff’s Summons under Case No. 1312/06 was served on Second Defendant on 16 August 2006.
ALTERNATIVELY
Plaintiff pleads that during November 2002 one of the directors of Second Defendant advised Plaintiff that
a cheque for the capital amount will be drawn on (sic) Plaintiff’s favour within six month (sic).
Six months would have expired during May 2003.
Plaintiff had to serve Summons commencing action on Second Defendant during or before May 2006.
Plaintiff’s Summons in case No. 1312/06 was served on Defendant on 16 August 2006.
Second Defendant accordingly pleads that Plaintiff’s claim against Second Defendant became prescribed
prior to service, on Second Defendant, of a Summons commencing action.
WHEREFORE Second Defendant prays that its Second Special Plea be upheld and Plaintiff’s claims be
dismissed with costs.’
[5] The plaintiff’s letter of demand dated 14 October 2002 (Annexure B to the
defendant’s plea) was marked ‘urgent’ by the plaintiff’s then attorney. It reads:
‘We wish to advise that we act on behalf of Mr Mudau in the above matter who instructs us as follows:-
1.
That he invested a total amount of R460 000-00 since 1999 to date initially through CAHN
SHAPIRO and subsequently with Anglorand Securities (yourselves).
2.
That all the funds were deposited in Account No: 01029071698 (Cahn Shapiro) 4052178047
(Anglorand Securities).
3.
That the initial account code was 237370 but when our client made the last investment of R160
000-00 one Rudy Rashama, your employee phoned our client advising him to use the account
code 4230728 and it later transpired that it was his personal account.
4.
That you advised our client that the account given to our client by one Rudy Rashama was in the
names of your said employee.
5.
That our client became suspicious with regard to his investments as he was no longer receiving
the normal portfolio valuation statements but some papers which had the logo of Anglorand
Securities.
6.
That our client approached your company regarding his investments of funds totalling R460 000-
00 but in vain.
We have been instructed to kindly request yourselves to refund/pay back our client’s investment of
R460 000-00.
We have written this long letter to yourselves with the hope that the matter could be resolved amicably
without resorting to civil litigation of which your company will be liable to pay legal costs incurred.
However should the matter not be resolved we will have no option but to proceed with further legal steps.
Kindly let us have your response within 10 (ten) days of receipt of this letter.’
[6] The plaintiff replicated to the special plea of prescription as follows:
‘Save for denying that the Plaintiff had to serve summons commencing action to the second Defendant
during or before May 2006,
The Plaintiff avers that he was always promised that, his money will be refunded even after the expiry of
six month on demand, and therefore there was no reason for the Plaintiff to issue summons at the time of
the promises in bona fide belief that his money will be refunded and was further advised that, insurance
claim was lodged for an alleged fraud committed by the 1st Defendant and the Plaintiff will be informed of
the “future” progress of his claim.’
[7] The high court (per Hetisani J) was asked to adjudicate the special plea as a
preliminary issue. What the learned judge was called upon to decide was whether the
claim had become prescribed before the issue and service of the plaintiff’s summons on
16 August 2006. Hetisani J concluded ‘the claim by the Plaintiff of refund of his
R160 000 is hereby upheld against [Anglorand] with costs’. In entering judgment for the
plaintiff the learned judge ranged beyond the remit of the limited agreed preliminary
issue placed before him for adjudication. He thus plainly misdirected himself and in the
result his conclusion cannot stand.
[8] Of the special plea of prescription Hetisani J concluded:
‘It is perhaps not surprising that this Court’s conclusion on the defence against Plaintiff’s claim of refund
of his R16.000.00 is nothing but 2nd Defendant’s efforts to escape liability, by mere tactics based on legal
technicalities . . .’.
Although the learned judge did not specifically say so, given the conclusion reached by
him, he must be taken to have dismissed the special plea of prescription with costs. It
thus remains to consider whether that conclusion is sustainable.
[9] Prescription commences to run against the debt on the day it becomes due
unless delayed or interrupted. It will continue to run until it has completed its course
(Aussenkehr Farms (Pty) Ltd v Trio Transport CC 2002 (4) SA 483 (SCA) at 495). As
stated in Umgeni Water v Mshengu (para 5 and 6) [2010] All SA 505 (SCA); 2010 ILJ 88
(SCA):
‘Section 10 of the Prescription Act 68 of 1969 (the Act), provides for the extinction of a debt after the
lapse of periods determined in s 11. The period of prescription applicable to the plaintiff’s claim is that
provided for in s 11(d) of the Act, namely 3 years. According to s 12(1) of the Act, prescription shall
commence to run “as soon as the debt is due”. The words “debt is due” must be given their ordinary
meaning.1 In its ordinary meaning a debt is due when it is immediately claimable by the creditor and, as
its correlative, it is immediately payable by the debtor. Stated another way, the debt must be one in
respect of which the debtor is under an obligation to pay immediately.2
A debt can only be said to be claimable immediately if a creditor has the right to institute an action for its
recovery. In order to be able to institute an action for the recovery of a debt a creditor must have a
complete cause of action in respect of it. The expression “cause of action” has been held to mean:
“ ... every fact which it would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove, . . . in order to support his right to
judgment of the Court. It does not comprise every piece of evidence which is necessary to prove each
fact, but every fact which is necessary to be proved”; or slightly differently stated “the entire set of facts
which give rise to an enforceable claim and includes every fact which is material to be proved to entitle a
plaintiff to succeed in his claim. It includes all that a plaintiff must set out in his declaration in order to
disclose a cause of action. Such cause of action does not ‘arise’ or ‘accrue’ until the occurrence of the
last of such facts and consequently the last of such facts is sometimes loosely spoken of as the cause of
action.” ’3
1 The Master v I L Back and Co Ltd 1983 (1) SA 986 (A) at 1004F.
2 See Western Bank Ltd v S J J van Vuuren Transport (Pty) Ltd & others 1980 (2) SA 348 (T) at 351 and
HMBMP Properties (Pty) Ltd v King 1981 (1) SA 906 (N) at 909 and the cases there cited.
3 See Evins v Shield Insurance Co Ltd 1980 (2) SA 814 (A) at 838 and the cases there cited by Corbett
JA; see also Truter and another v Deysel 2006 (4) SA 168 (SCA) para 16, 18 and 19.
A plaintiff must thus have a complete cause of action at the stage when summons is
issued or at any rate when the summons is served.4
[10] At the hearing before Hetisani J two witnesses testified, the plaintiff and Ms
Yolanda Taljaard, who at the relevant time was a director and compliance officer at
Anglorand. The learned judge did not express himself on the credibility or reliability of
either witness, although his approach to the evidence on this aspect of the case can be
gleaned from the following extract from his judgment:
‘Regarding the 2nd Defendant’s second special plea, which is based on alleged prescription of Plaintiff’s
claim, the evidence adduced by the witness Yolanda Taljaard shows clearly that Plaintiff was constantly
telephoning and visiting 2nd Defendant kept the request for his investments’ whereabouts alive and at one
stage he was told that his claim had been lodged with an institution operating from London and known as
“Loss Adjustors”.’
But with respect to the learned judge he misconstrued Ms Taljaard’s evidence, who
testified:
‘I never denied, I am sorry but I never denied that Mr Mudau visited the office. He did visit the office. We
never said that we were liable. Anglo Rand never told Mr Mudau that we were going to pay him. He did
visit, he did phone and he always got the same answer. We were not going to pay. We did not lodge a
claim.’
[11] Ms Taljaard’s evidence that right from the outset Anglorand disputed liability to
the plaintiff found support in the correspondence adduced in evidence. On 11 June
2002 Ms Taljaard wrote to the plaintiff:
‘We refer to your visit to our offices on the 5th June 2002, and your written statement made on the same
day.
According to our records, the deposit slip which you submitted to the Bank on 4th December 2001 with
your deposit of R160 000.00 gave specific instructions that the moneys were to be allocated to our Client
Account No.: 4230728.
We acted in accordance with that instruction, and confirm that the holder of Account No.: 4230728 at the
time was Mr Rashama.
4 Mahomed v Nagdee 1952 (1) SA 410 (A) at 418; Marine and Trade Insurance Co Ltd v Reddinger 1966
(2) SA 407 (A) at 413D; Santam Insurance Co Ltd v Vilakasi 1967 (1) SA 246 (A) at 253A-F.
We cannot take the matter any further and suggest that you take independent advice.’
And on 24 October 2002 Anglorand’s attorney wrote to the plaintiff’s then attorney in
response to the latter’s letter of demand (Annexure B to Anglorand’s plea):
‘We represent Anglorand Securities Limited.
We have been instructed to respond to your letter dated 14th October 2002, as follows:
1.
Our client has no knowledge, and cannot comment on payments allegedly made by your client to
Cahn Shapiro;
2.
In respect of payments allegedly made to us, our client has already responded, in writing, to your
client’s enquiries;
3.
Our client’s attitude remains that it has no liability to your client;
4.
Our client is not prepared to debate the matter any further in correspondence and its election not
to do so must not be construed as an admission of any of the statements made in your letter’
But even prior to those letters on 12 January 2002 the plaintiff wrote to the client
services manager of the JSE Securities Exchange, ‘when we approached the company
[Anglorand] they were not willing to address this issue and I request the JSE Securities
Exchange to intervene in this matter’.
[12] On the view that I take of the matter it is not necessary to subject the evidence of
the two witnesses to closer scrutiny or to resolve or reconcile such factual disputes as
may exist between them, for, on the undisputed facts at the latest (and most generous
for the plaintiff) by 25 October 2002 he knew, not just that payment would not be
forthcoming but that liability for his claim was in fact being disputed by Anglorand. It
follows that prescription must be taken to have commenced to run from that date.
[13] I now turn to consider the second issue, namely the plaintiff’s contention that the
running of prescription had been interrupted. In terms of s 14 (1) of the Prescription Act
68 of 1969 (the Act) the running of prescription may be interrupted by an express or
tacit acknowledgment of liability by the debtor. In support of the contention that the
running of prescription had been interrupted reliance was placed on a letter written to
him by Gary Cahn of Cahn Shapiro dated 6 June 2002, which reads:
‘This serves to confirm that an insurance claim has been lodged with regard to an alleged fraud
committed by Rudolph Rashama, a former employee of Cahn Shapiro Inc.
The procedure is such that the loss adjustors will assess the claim and then forward it to the underwriters
in London.
Cahn Shapiro will keep you informed of all future progress with regard to the matter.’
But as Ms Taljaard testified:
‘MR PRETORIUS:
I want to ask you to tell his lordship briefly what the relationship is between Anglo
Rand Securities Ltd and Cahn Shapiro, I think it is incorporated. --- Incorporated. Basically what
happened was that Anglo Rand Securities, at that stage it was (Pty) Ltd, bought the client base of Cahn
Shapiro Inc. It was just a transaction that was done between two companies. Cahn Shapiro at this stage
still exists as a company, not as a broking member though and Anglo Rand literally only bought the client
base. We did not take any of the liabilities over.
HETISANI (J): What do you, what would a layman like myself understand by buying the client base? ---
Well, in stock broking, the way it works, every member firm has a client base and when a broking member
is going to cease to be a member, it usually sells that client base. It would move over to another stock
broking firm where the relationship with the client would be taken over.
MR PRETORIUS:
And you said as of today Cahn Shapiro is still a registered company, still in
existence? --- It is still in existence.
The directors of the two companies, were they the same? --- Not all. Gary Cahn was the director
at Cahn Shapiro Inc and at Anglo Rand at the time this transaction took place, it was myself, David Lewis,
we had Andriaan Kamper and Hugh Drummond. That was the non-executive director.
Okay. And so it was not a transaction similar to a buying of a going concern? --- No not at all.
It was not even that much, is that correct? --- That is 100% correct.
And did I understand you correctly that the liabilities of Cahn Shapiro was specifically excluded in
this transaction? --- That is correct.
What does it mean in layman’s terms? --- In layman’s terms, what that would mean was that if
there was any claims that was coming up for Cahn Shapiro, that Anglo Rand would not be held liability for
it.
There after, after the effective date, what was the effective date? --- The effective date was 1
March 2001.
So any transactions after 1 March 2001 that may result in a claim would then be against Anglo
Rand? --- That is correct yes.
You were in court, you have listened to what was suggested to Mr Mudau under cross-
examination, as to a distinction between the amount of R300 000.00 and the amount of R160 000.00, can
you explain to the court why the court should draw such a distinction, should deal with it separately? ---
Because it is two separate companies it cannot be viewed together and that was explained to Mr Mudau
in January 2002 as well, that it is two separate companies. The claims had to be split.
The R300 000.00 related to events prior to 1 March 2001? --- Prior to 1 March.
The R160 000.00 to events after 1 March 2006, is that correct? --- Correct, that is correct.’
[14] Indeed that distinction between Anglorand on the one hand and Cahn Shapiro on
the other was recognised by the plaintiff who testified:
'CROSS-EXAMINATION BY MR PRETORIUS: When did you start investing with Cahn Shapiro?
Yes. --- I think it was 2000.
2000? --- Uh.
And apart from the R160000.00, how much did you invest? --- I invested R300000.00.
So in total it was R460000.00? --- Ja, in total it was R460000.00.
R300000.00 with Cahn Shapiro and R160000.00 with AngloRand, is that correct? --- Ja.
Did you get that R300000.00 back? --- I did not get it all, I just got part of it because the claim,
even that one of R300000.00 was also defrauded by him.
The question is, did you get the R300000.00 back? --- No, I did not get it, I just got part of it.
How much is still owed to you on the R300000.00? --- They owe me, if, I am talking of the initial
amount, which I injected there, they still owe me R75000.00.
. . .
HETISANI (J): So they paid you how much? --- They paid me R228000.00.
228? --- Ja, R228000.00, out of the R300000.00 I was defrauded.
By Loss Adjusters? --- Yes, loss adjusters.
What is the name of that company? You said, how do you pronounce it? --- Gab, G-A-B.
Oh, just GAB? --- Ja, GAB. It is called GAB International Loss Adjusters.
Thank you.’
[15] An acknowledgement of liability for the purposes of s 14 of the Act is a matter of
fact not a matter of law (per Nienaber JA in Road Accident Fund v Mothupi 2000 (4) SA
38 (SCA) para 37). What the Act requires is ‘an acknowledgement of liability’ and not
merely ‘an acknowledgement of indebtedness’ (Benson & another v Walters & others
1984 (1) SA 73 (A)). What we have here falls far short of an acknowledgement of the
existence of a debt or of a present liability (Markham v South African Finance &
Industrial Company Ltd 1962 (3) SA 669 (A) at 676F). For, the admission, in short, must
cover at least every element of the debt and exclude any defence as to its existence
(Mothupi para 38). Put another way, it must be an acknowledgment by the debtor that
the debt is in existence and that he or she is liable therefor at the time when the
statement alleged to be an admission of liability is made. And finally there is of course
the point made in Cape Town Municipality v Allie NO 1981 (2) SA 1 (C) at 7F-G:
‘In the end . . . one must also be able to say when the acknowledgment of liability was made, for
otherwise it would not be possible to say from what day prescription commenced to run afresh.’ (See
also Benson at 86E.)
[16] It was for the plaintiff to plead and prove that prescription had been interrupted. I
do not think that he has discharged that onus of proof on a balance of probability. It
follows, in my view, that the appeal must succeed and it is accordingly allowed with
costs. The order of the court below is set aside to be replaced by:
‘The second defendant’s special plea of prescription is upheld and the plaintiff’s claim is
dismissed with costs.’
_________________
V M PONNAN
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
For Appellant:
P J J de Wet
Instructed by:
Tatham Wilkes Inc
Pietermaritzburg
Naudes
Bloemfontein
For Respondent:
No appearance | SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form
part of the judgment.
Anglorand Securities Ltd v Mudau & another
(125/10) [2011] ZASCA 76 (26 May 2011)
Media Statement
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld an appeal by the appellant, Anglorand
Securities Limited (Anglorand) and set aside an order of the Limpopo High Court
(Thohoyandou).
The two principle issues before the SCA, concerned, firstly the commencement of the running
of prescription with regard to the claim of the first respondent, Divhani David Mudau (Mr
Mudau) against Anglorand and secondly whether the prescription period had been
interrupted.
The facts of the case are briefly as follows. Mr Mudau instituted action in the high court
against Anglorand and its employee the second respondent, Rudolph Rashama (Mr
Rashama). In his summons, Mr Mudau alleged an oral agreement was entered into between
himself and Anglorand with regard to the purchase of shares
Pursuant to that agreement, according to Mr Madau, he deposited an amount of R160 000-00
for the purchase of those shares into a banking account details whereof had been furnished
to him by Mr Rashama. It subsequently transpired that, that amount had been
misappropriated by Mr Rashama.
When he learnt of the misappropriation, Mr Madau then issued summons against Anglorand.
Anglorand raised a special plea that Mr Madau’s claim had prescribed before the issue of
summons. The high court in effect dismissed the special plea with costs.
The SCA in hearing the appeal by Anglorand had to decide whether that conclusion was
sustainable.
The SCA held that the claim had indeed prescribed before the issue of summons by Mr
Madau. It then had to consider whether the running of prescription had been interrupted as
contended by Mr Madau.
The SCA relied on s 14(1) of the Prescription Act 68 of 1969 which states that the running of
prescription may be interrupted by an express or tacit acknowledgment of liability by the
debtor. The SCA held that what was required was an ‘acknowledgment of liability’ and not
merely an ‘acknowledgment of indebtedness’. That according to the SCA had not been
established in this case. The appeal accordingly succeeded and the order of the high court
was replaced with the upholding of the special plea of prescription and dismissing Mr Madau’s
claim with costs.
--- ends --- |
1206 | non-electoral | 2008 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 149/07
In the matter between:
MERCURIUS MOTORS
Appellant
and
PAUL ALEXANDER PAVIA LOPEZ
Respondent
_______________________________________________________
Coram:
Streicher, Navsa, Ponnan, Maya JJA et Mhlantla AJA
Date of hearing: 7 March 2008
Date of delivery: 27 March 2008
Summary:
Loss of vehicle delivered to service depot ─ failure to safeguard keys ─
reliance on exemption clause ─ held that clause not part of contract of deposit ─ the
service depot held liable.
Neutral citation: Mercurius Motors v Lopez (149/2007) [2008] ZASCA 22 (27 March
2008).
_______________________________________________________
NAVSA JA
NAVSA JA:
[1] During the morning of 23 July 2003 the respondent, Mr Paul Lopez,
delivered a Jeep Cherokee motor vehicle (the Jeep), which he was then leasing
from Daimler Chrysler Services South Africa (Pty) Ltd, to Mercurius Motors at its
East Rand Mall depot in Boksburg. Mercurius Motors (Mercurius) trades as a
motor dealer and service centre and is a division of the Imperial group of
companies. The vehicle was delivered to Mercurius to be serviced, for minor
repairs to be effected and for the installation of spotlights. The vehicle was still
under warranty and the costs of repairs and the service were to be borne by the
Daimler Chrysler company (hereafter Daimler Chrysler). The cost of the
installation of spotlights was to be borne by Mr Lopez.
[2] At the relevant time Daimler Chrysler was the manufacturer of Jeep and
other vehicles and Mercurius was the franchise dealer which sold vehicles to the
public.
[3] In terms of his lease agreement with Daimler Chrysler Mr Lopez bore the
risk of loss of the value of the vehicle.
[4] According to Mercurius, the East Rand Mall depot was broken into by
robbers during the night of 23 July 2003 ─ a lock on a gate was broken. It was
alleged that security guards employed by Colt Security, an entity contracted by
Mercurius to safeguard its property, were overpowered and abducted.1
[5] The next morning, at approximately 08h15, Mr Lopez was informed about
the theft of the Jeep. He had leased it for use by his wife. It was relatively new
(approximately six months old) and Mr Lopez and his wife were understandably
1 This information was conveyed to Mercurius by a representative of Colt Security and is
contained in statements by two security guards who did not testify. The admissibility of the
statements were in issue in the trial court. For reasons that will become apparent the present
appeal can be decided without reference to these statements. See para 34 below. I shall assume
in favour of Mercurius that the Jeep went missing in consequence of that robbery.
upset. The Jeep was fitted with a satellite tracking device and Mr Lopez informed
Netstar, the company that provided the tracking service, that the vehicle had
gone missing from Mercurius and instructed them to take steps to trace and
recover it. Unfortunately it could not be traced and has not been recovered.
[6] It is common cause that the Jeep was the only vehicle missing from the
depot. The keys to the Jeep that had been handed to Mercurius when the vehicle
was delivered could not be found. The established procedure was that the keys
to all the vehicles that had been brought in for service had to be safely locked
away at the end of a working day.
[7] The respondent’s wife insisted that, whilst steps were being taken to
recover the vehicle and until the question of liability for its loss was determined,
she should be provided with a ‘loan’ vehicle. Mercurius provided such a vehicle
for use by Mrs Lopez for a period of six months. This notwithstanding, Mercurius
denied liability for the loss of the Jeep, relying on exemption of liability clauses
contained in the documents Mr Lopez signed at the Mercurius workshop on the
morning on which he delivered the vehicle to the workshop.
[8] The plaintiff instituted action in the Johannesburg High Court against
Mercurius based on the contract of deposit, claiming damages for the loss of the
Jeep, the value of which was agreed in an amount of R245 000.
[9] In its plea Mercurius repeated its reliance on the exemption clauses and
denied that the loss of the Jeep was due to any negligence on its part.
[10] The Johannesburg High Court found in favour of Mr Lopez, ordering
Mercurius to pay him R245 000 with interest a tempore morae at the rate of 15.5
per cent per annum from 13 January 2004 to date of payment. Mercurius was
ordered to pay Mr Lopez’s costs. The present appeal is with the leave of this
court.
The exemption clauses
[11] The first exemption clause is contained in a document entitled ‘Warranty
Repair Order’. Instead of the expected Mercurius Motors appellation at the head
of the document, the name Daimler Chrysler appears. Immediately above the
space for a customer’s signature the following appears in fine print:
‘I hereby authorize the repair work to be done along with the necessary material, and hereby
grant you and/or your employees permission to operate the car or truck herein described on
streets, highways or elsewhere for the purpose of testing and/or inspection. An express
mechanic’s lien is hereby acknowledged on this car or truck to secure the amount of any charges
for work not covered by Daimler Chrysler’s warranty.’
[12] Immediately below the space for the customer’s signature the following
appears in capitals:
‘NOT RESPONSIBLE FOR LOSS OR DAMAGE TO CARS OR ARTICLES LEFT IN CARS IN
CASE OF FIRE, THEFT OR ANY OTHER CAUSE BEYOND OUR CONTROL.’
This exemption clause is clearly visible and can hardly be missed by a person
signing the form.
[13] The other exemption clause on which Mercurius relied is contained in a
second document described as a repair order form. On the left-hand side at the
top of the document, the words ‘MERCURIUS MOTORS’ are set out in large and
bold letters. Between a heading that reads ‘JOB INSTRUCTION / WERKOPDRAG’ and
a position indicating a signature by a customer is a space approximately 13 cm x
13 cm, to be completed by the Mercurius employee receiving instructions from
the customer regarding the work to be done.
[14] On the repair order form, immediately above the space indicated for a
customer’s signature, the following appears in capital letters:
‘PLEASE REMOVE PULL-OUT RADIOS AND VALUABLES FROM YOUR VEHICLE.
WE WILL NOT BE HELD RESPONSIBLE FOR ANY THEFT WHATSOEVER.’
This caption is prominent and should easily be noticed by anyone signing the
document.
[15] To the left of the caption referred to in the preceding paragraph, the
following appears in fine print:
‘I have read and agree to the conditions of Contract on the reverse side hereof. This is to certify
that no valuable or personal belongings have been left in the vehicle. Ek het die kontrak
voorwaardes op die keersy gelees en aanvaar sulke voorwaardes. Ek bevestig dat geen
waardevolle en/of persoonlike besittings in die voertuig gelaat is nie.’
It is necessary to record that this print is much smaller than appears
hereinabove, is starkly less prominent than the caption referred to in the previous
paragraph and does not attract one’s attention.
[16] The relevant part of the document is reproduced in this paragraph to
enable a better appreciation of how it appeared to Mr Lopez:
This reproduction is condensed ─ the original page on which the writing appears
is four centimetres wider than appears above. Consequently, in reality, the space
between what appears on the right and left-hand side of the document is wider.
[17] It is also necessary to note that the repair order form has a carbon copy
underneath and has to be detached in order to reveal the conditions on the
reverse side. The relevant condition on which Mercurius relied is in clause 5,
which reads:
‘I/we acknowledge that MERCURIUS shall not be liable in any way whatsoever or be responsible
for any loss or damages sustained from fire and/or burglary and/or unlawful acts (including gross
negligence) of their representatives, agents or employees.’
It is evident that the ambit of this exemption clause is wide.
[18] The evidence of Mr Lopez to the effect that his attention was not drawn to
the writing referred to in para 15, nor to the conditions themselves, by the
workshop manager who received the Jeep and who took down the instructions, is
uncontested.
The court below
[19] Tshiqi J, having regard to Mr Lopez’s reliance on a contract of deposit and
considering that Mercurius had pleaded that the contract was subject to
exemption clauses, correctly held that Mr Lopez as plaintiff bore the onus to
prove that the exemption clauses were not part of the contract.2
[20] The court below took into account the general principle in our law that,
when a person signs a contractual document, he or she agrees to be bound by
the contents of the document ─ otherwise referred to as the caveat subscriptor
rule.3 Tshiqi J weighed up this rule against Mr Lopez’s contention that he was
misled as to the nature, purport and contents of the document.
[21] Tshiqi J examined the warranty claim form and concluded that, viewed
objectively, the document was misleading and confusing and could be read to be
exempting Daimler Chrysler and not Mercurius.
[22] Interpreting the caption immediately above the space for the customer’s
signature in the repair order form, the court below held that the exemption could
only relate to theft from the vehicle of items such as radios and other valuables
and that the wording does not include an exemption in relation to the theft of the
vehicle itself.
2 In the case of the dispute as to the existence of such a clause as part of the contract of deposit,
it will be for the plaintiff depositor to prove that the clause was not a term of the contract. See
Stocks & Stocks (Pty) Ltd v T J Daly & Sons (Pty) Ltd 1979 (3) SA 754 (A) and Harms Amler’s
Precedents of Pleadings 6 ed (2003) p 145.
3 See R H Christie The Law of Contract in South Africa 5 ed (2006) pp 174-179 and the
authorities there cited.
[23] The trial judge considered that the reference on the left-hand side of the
repair order form to the conditions of contract was printed and located in such a
manner so as not to draw the reader’s attention. She held that Mr Lopez’s
contention, that he was misled by the form because it was unclear and confusing,
was justified.
[24] Having reached these conclusions in relation to the exemption clauses,
the high court then considered the liability of a depository for reward in regard to
the loss of items entrusted to him or her. The court rightly pointed out that a
depository could, of course, escape liability if there was no dolus or culpa on his
or her part.4
[25] In relation to negligence, Tshiqi J had regard to the instances of
negligence on which Mr Lopez relied. First, the failure by Mercurius to safeguard
the Jeep’s keys. Second, the failure immediately to determine which vehicle was
missing, and then to communicate the loss to Mr Lopez to enable him to instruct
the company responsible for the tracking device in the Jeep to take steps to
recover it.
[26] In respect of the loss of the key, the court below recorded that Mercurius
was unable to explain where the keys to the Jeep had been kept and how they
had got lost. Mercurius had tendered evidence to show that it was the duty of
apprentice mechanics to ensure, at the end of a working day, that no keys were
left in vehicles. Furthermore, employees of the security company, when they
came on duty, were themselves required to do a check to ensure the same. In
the event of keys being found they were obliged to remove the keys and hand
them to a patrol vehicle for safe custody. No evidence was tendered of such
steps having been taken.
4 See Stocks & Stocks supra at 762A-D.
[27] As stated earlier, no explanation was offered for the absence of the keys
from the bag containing the keys to all the other vehicles that had been in
safekeeping. The court below held that the probabilities indicated that the keys to
the Jeep were either left in the vehicle or in a place where they were easily
accessible. It noted that there was no evidence that the keys had been in the
possession of the guards or were kept safely. No reason was proffered by
Mercurius as to why the Jeep’s keys would have been kept separate from the
other sets of keys which were locked away safely.
[28] In respect of the second ground of negligence on which Mr Lopez relied,
the court below held that it had not been shown that, even if Mercurius had
identified the missing vehicle sooner and had informed Mr Lopez earlier, the
tracking company would have been able to locate the vehicle.
[29] Finally, Tshiqi J held that the conduct of Mercurius in relation to the keys
amounted to negligence and she consequently made the orders referred to in
para 10 above.
Conclusions
[30] In respect of the warranty claim form, the court below, in my view, placed
too much store on the fact that the Daimler Chrysler name appeared at the top of
the document. It can hardly be gainsaid that the authorisation referred to in para
11 above was an authorisation directed at Mercurius and that Mercurius was the
entity that would effect the repairs in accordance with the Daimler Chrysler
warranty.
[31] In any event, counsel for Mercurius did not place any reliance on the
clause in the warranty claim form. He accepted that the exemption relates to loss
or damage occasioned by causes beyond the control of Mercurius and that the
theft of the Jeep was not beyond its control.
[32] In relation to the caption in the repair order form referred to in para 14
above, Tshiqi J rightly held that the theft to which the exemption relates is of
valuables out of the vehicle, rather than of the vehicle itself.
[33] A person delivering a motor vehicle to be serviced or repaired would
ordinarily rightly expect that the depository would take reasonable care in relation
to the safekeeping of the vehicle entrusted to him or her. An exemption clause
such as that contained in clause 5 of the conditions of contract, that undermines
the very essence of the contract of deposit, should be clearly and pertinently
brought to the attention of a customer who signs a standard instruction form, and
not by way of an inconspicuous and barely legible clause that refers to the
conditions on the reverse side of the page in question. Moreover, the caption
immediately above the signature is misleading in that a customer is directed to
that provision and away from the more important provision in small print on the
left-hand side of the document which refers to the conditions on the reverse side
of the document which are themselves not easily accessible.5 It will be recalled
that Mr Lopez’s unchallenged evidence was that the conditions on which
Mercurius now relies were not brought to his attention.
[34] The test for negligence is as follows:
‘(a)
would a reasonable person, in the same circumstances as the defendant, have foreseen
the possibility of harm to the plaintiff;
(b)
would a reasonable person have taken steps to guard against that possibility;
(c)
did the defendant fail to take the steps which he or she should reasonably have taken to
guard against it?
5 See Spindrifter (Pty) Ltd v Lester Donovan (Pty) Ltd 1986 (1) SA 303 (A) at 318C; Kempston
Hire (Pty) Ltd v Snyman 1988 (4) SA 465 (T) at 467B-C and 468G-H; Keens Group Co (Pty) Ltd v
Lötter 1989 (1) SA 585 (C) at 590B-592C; Ndlovu v Brian Porter Motors Ltd 1994 (2) SA 518 (C)
at 526F; Diners Club SA (Pty) Ltd v Livingstone 1995 (4) SA 493 (W) at 495I-496A; Fourie NO v
Hansen 2001 (2) SA 823 (W) at 833F-834C. See also the very interesting article by Tjakie Naudé
and Professor Gerhard Lubbe Exemption Clauses ─ A Rethink Occasioned by Afrox Healthcare
BPK v Strydom (2005) 122 SALJ 441.
If all three parts of this test receive an affirmative answer, then the defendant has failed to
measure up to the standard of the reasonable person and will be adjudged negligent.’6
[35] By not safeguarding the keys to the Jeep, the employees of Mercurius did
not act as a reasonable person in their circumstances would have acted. It was
clearly foreseeable that theft of the vehicle would be facilitated by the availability
of the keys and no discernable steps were taken to guard against this.
[36] It was common cause that the theft of the Jeep took place. The precise
circumstances under which it occurred were not agreed upon. Counsel on behalf
of Mercurius did not seek, before us, to rely on the statements of the security
guards which had been ruled inadmissible by Tshiqi J. It is significant that the
only vehicle missing was the vehicle in respect of which the keys had not been
properly safeguarded. All the indications are that it is the negligence of the
employees of Mercurius which facilitated the theft of the Jeep. In any event,
Mercurius failed to discharge the onus of disproving dolus or culpa on its part.
[37] It is not necessary to deal with the delay in relation to the notification by
Mercurius to Mr Lopez of the loss of the vehicle. The material conclusions
reached by the court below cannot be faulted.
[38] The following order is made:
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
__________________
M S NAVSA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
CONCUR:
STREICHER JA
PONNAN
JA
MAYA
JA
MHLANTLA AJA
6 See Jonathan Burchell Principles of Delict (1993) p 86 and Kruger v Coetzee 1966 (2) 428 (A)
at 430. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
27 March 2008
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of
the media and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme
Court of Appeal
On 27 March 2008 the Supreme Court of Appeal, in the case of
Mercurius Motors v PAP Lopez, dismissed an appeal against a
judgment of the Johannesburg High Court, in terms of which
Mercurius Motors, a motor dealer, was ordered to pay the
respondent, Mr Lopez, an amount of R245 000 with interest a
tempore morae at the rate of 15.5 per cent per annum from
13 January 2004 to date of payment. Mercurius was also ordered
to pay Mr Lopez’s costs.
Mr Lopez had sued Mercurius for the value of his Jeep Cherokee
motor vehicle which went missing from Mercurius allegedly as a
result of a robbery. The vehicle had been brought in for warranty
repairs and for the installation of spotlights. It appeared that the
keys to the Jeep had not been safeguarded. Mercurius had relied
on an exemption clause which it contended exempted it from
liability. The Johannesburg High Court held that the exemption
clause was printed and located in such a way so as not to draw the
reader’s attention to it. It held that the form in which the exemption
clause appeared was unclear and confusing. Furthermore, the
Johannesburg High Court held that in respect of the keys to the
vehicle, Mercurius had been negligent. Consequently Mercurius
was ordered to pay Mr Lopez the amount referred to above.
This court held that an exemption clause such as that relied on by
Mercurius which undermines the very essence of the contract in
terms of which a motor vehicle dealer could rightly be expected to
take reasonable care of the vehicle entrusted to it for repairs
should be clearly and pertinently brought to the attention of a
customer who signs a standard instruction form. It held that the
form in question was misleading and that it directed a person’s
attention away from the important provisions contained in small
print. It agreed that the failure by Mercurius to safeguard the keys
to the vehicle amounted to negligence. In the result the appeal was
dismissed with costs.
--ends-- |
2994 | non-electoral | 2015 | `
THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case No: 20157/2014
In the matter between:
UTi SOUTH AFRICA
(PROPRIETARY) LIMITED
APPELLANT
and
TRIPLE OPTION TRADING 29 CC
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: UTi South Africa v Triple Option Trading (20157/14) [2015]
ZASCA 101 (3 June 2015)
Coram:
Maya, Shongwe, Leach, Zondi JJA and Gorven AJA
Heard:
21 May 2015
Delivered:
3 June 2015
Summary:
Prescription – extinctive prescription – whether the appellant‟s
amendment had introduced a cause of action which had become
prescribed – no new cause of action introduced – claim not
prescribed. Special plea of lack of jurisdiction correctly dismissed.
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg (Masipa J and
Bashall AJ sitting as court of appeal):
The appeal is upheld with costs.
The cross-appeal is dismissed with costs.
Paragraph 17 of the order of the court a quo is set aside and replaced by the
following:
„17.1 The appellant‟s appeal against the magistrates‟ court order upholding the
special plea of prescription is upheld with costs.
17.2 The order of the magistrates‟ court is substituted with the following order:
“Both special pleas are dismissed with costs.”‟
JUDGMENT
Zondi JA (Maya, Shongwe, Leach JJA and Gorven AJA concurring):
[1] This appeal, which is with the leave of the Gauteng Division of the High Court,
Johannesburg (Masipa J and Bashall AJ), concerns a special plea of prescription
together with the costs order against the appellant. The cross-appeal, which is also with
the leave of the court a quo concerns a special plea of jurisdiction. These issues arose in
the following circumstances.
[2] On 14 March 2007 the appellant sued the respondent in the Germiston
Magistrates‟ Court claiming a sum of R274 786,70. This amount was alleged to have
been the outstanding balance for certain customs clearing, forwarding and export agency
services rendered and disbursements incurred by the appellant on behalf of the
respondent from time to time, during the period 15 January 2005 to 16 May 2006,
pursuant to various agreements. The appellant annexed to its particulars of claim the
customs clearance letter of authority („the letter of authority‟); certain standard trading
conditions and various invoices. Properly construed, the agreements for services
rendered at the instance and request of the respondent were reflected in the invoices
annexed. The paragraph dealing with this was introduced by a number of paragraphs
which were largely superfluous and, if anything, rendered the particulars vague and
embarrassing. Further particulars that were delivered by the appellant to the respondent
in response to the latter‟s request for further particulars revealed that the two documents
put up by the appellant in support of some of the superfluous averments indicated an
agreement concluded in 2004 with Pyramid Freight (Pty) Ltd (Pyramid Freight) and not
the appellant. Further particulars also revealed that the appellant had, in fact, on 6
December 2004 bought Pyramid Freight‟s business assets and, in terms of the sale
agreement, had acquired all contracts to which Pyramid Freight was a party, which
existed before 1 August 2004.
[3] In the mistaken belief that its cause of action arose from the 2004 agreement
between Pyramid Freight and the respondent, the appellant amended its particulars of
claim on 22 July 2009 to reflect that the agreement was concluded between Pyramid
Freight and the respondent and that the appellant had derived its rights from this
agreement when it purchased Pyramid Freight. This was incorrect. The agreement
between the respondent and Pyramid Freight related to contracts which arose prior to 1
August 2004. Those on which the appellant sued were variously concluded between 15
January 2005 and 16 May 2006. The appellant and the respondent were direct parties to
these agreements. They had nothing to do with Pyramid Freight. The amendment to the
pleadings was therefore an exercise in futility. It replaced irrelevant averments with
alternative averments that were equally irrelevant to its claim.
[4] The respondent filed a special plea in which it contended that the appellant‟s
cause of action in the amended particulars of claim had prescribed. It alleged that a debt
for which the appellant sued became due and payable during the period 15 January 2005
to 16 May 2006. The respondent accordingly contended that the amendment introduced
a new cause of action which prescribed on 17 May 2009.
[5] The second special plea raised by the respondent was that the magistrates‟ court
did not have jurisdiction to determine the action. In support of that special plea, the
respondent referred to clause 36 read together with the non-variation clause of the
standard trading conditions (clause 33) of the agreement with Pyramid Freight which it
contended excluded it. Its contention was that the effect of clause 36 was to confer
exclusive jurisdiction on the high court. This clause provided that the respondent
consented to the „non-exclusive jurisdiction‟ of the high court in which Pyramid
Freight‟s head office was situated.
[6] These two special pleas were set down separately and argued in the magistrates‟
court before any other issues. The magistrates‟ court upheld both the special pleas. It
upheld the special plea of prescription on the basis that the appellant‟s cause of action
under the original summons was for payment of the sum of R274 786.70 for services
rendered by it to the respondent in terms of various agreements entered into between the
appellant and the respondent. Under the amended particulars of claim the appellant‟s
cause of action was based on various agreements entered into between Pyramid Freight
and the respondent. The magistrates‟ court accordingly held that the right sought to be
enforced in the amended particulars, was a different right. For that reason, it held that
the amendment introduced a new cause of action which had prescribed by the time it
was introduced by way of amendment. It held that the service of the original summons
did not interrupt the running of prescription on the new cause of action.
[7] In upholding a special plea of jurisdiction, the magistrates‟ court held that clause
36 of the standard trading conditions of Pyramid Freight, on which the appellant claim
was founded, ousted the jurisdiction of the magistrates‟ court. In the absence of a proper
consent in terms of s 45 of the Magistrates‟ Courts Act 32 of 1944 it did not have
jurisdiction to hear the matter.
[8] On appeal, the court a quo dismissed the appeal on the special plea of prescription
and confirmed the magistrates‟ court order upholding the special plea. But it upheld the
appeal on the special plea of jurisdiction and set aside the magistrates‟ court order
upholding the jurisdiction point and substituted it with one dismissing the special plea on
jurisdiction. The appellant appeals against the order that its claim had prescribed while
the respondent cross-appeals against the order dismissing its plea of lack of jurisdiction.
[9] Counsel for the appellant submitted that the finding by the court a quo, that the
appellant in its amendment had introduced a new cause of action, was wrong. He argued
that the right which was sought to be enforced both in the original particulars of claim
and in the amended particulars of claim was the same. I agree.
[10] Properly construed, the appellant‟s claim as set out in the original summons
issued on 14 March 2007 is for payment of the sum of R274 786.70 being the balance
outstanding for services rendered and disbursements incurred by the appellant on behalf
of the respondent at the latter‟s special instance and request during the period 15
January 2005 to 16 May 2006 pursuant to a series of agreements. Those services and
disbursements were not rendered and incurred under the agreement between the
respondent and Pyramid Freight, the terms of which are irrelevant to the pleadings. The
claim was at all times for payment for services rendered at the special instant and
request of the respondent under contracts concluded between it and the appellant. As is
set out in the invoices, these were to be in terms of the appellant‟s standard conditions
of contract.
[11] I did not understand counsel for the respondent to have disputed that proposition
in argument. He took issue with the fact that the invoices sent to the respondent fail to
stipulate the date on which the alleged services were rendered and the nature of those
services. That contention is, however, untenable if regard is had to the fact that each
invoice bears the appellant‟s name, sets out the date on which the respondent‟s shipment
arrived in Durban and the date on which each invoice was generated. And those dates
fell within the period 2005 to 2006. Summons was issued in March 2007 well before the
claims had prescribed. There is therefore no merit in the special plea of prescription.
[12] With regard to the special plea of jurisdiction, which is the subject of the cross-
appeal, counsel for the respondent submitted that the court a quo erred in dismissing it.
He argued with reference to clause 33 (non-variation clause) and clause 36 of the
agreement that the parties had agreed that the high court would have exclusive
jurisdiction to determine all the disputes arising from that agreement irrespective of the
quantum involved. The second leg of his argument was that the quantum of the
appellant‟s claim in any event, exceeds the jurisdiction of a magistrates‟ court as to that
amount.
[13] But this presupposes that the Standard Terms and Conditions of Pyramid Freight
govern the agreements between the parties. They clearly do not do so. The debate as to
the meaning of clause 36 is therefore irrelevant. As to the second point, the invoices are
pleaded as being separate contracts. None of the amounts claimed in any invoice
exceeds the jurisdiction of the magistrates‟ court. The appellant was entitled to bring the
action in the magistrates‟ court. For these reasons the cross-appeal should fail.
[14] In the result I make the following order:
The appeal is upheld with costs.
The cross-appeal is dismissed with costs.
Paragraph 17 of the order of the court a quo is set aside and replaced by the
following:
„17.1 The appellant‟s appeal against the magistrates‟ court order upholding the
special plea of prescription is upheld with costs.
17.2 The order of the magistrates‟ court is substituted with the following order:
“Both special pleas are dismissed with costs.”‟
_________________
D H Zondi
Judge of Appeal
Appearances
For the Appellant:
A G Sawma SC
Instructed by:
Wright, Rose-Innes Inc, Bedfordview
c/o Phatshoane Henney Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For the Respondent:
J P Spangenberg
Instructed by:
Vally Chagan & Associates, Fordsburg
c/o Christo Dippenaar Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
3 June 2015
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form part of
the judgment.
UTi South Africa (Pty) Ltd v Triple Option Trading (20157/2014) [2015] ZASCA 101
(3 June 2015)
MEDIA STATEMENT
Today, the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) delivered a judgment upholding an appeal by UTi South
Africa (Pty) Ltd (the appellant) and dismissing a cross-appeal by Triple Option Trading 29 CC (the
respondent) against the judgment of the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg.
Consequently, both a special plea of prescription and a special plea of jurisdiction, which had been
raised by the respondent, were dismissed.
The issues before the court were (i) whether the appellant’s amendment to its particulars of claim had
introduced a new cause of action, which had prescribed by the time that the amendment was
effected; and (ii) whether the magistrate’s court had jurisdiction to hear the matter in light of an ouster
clause in one of the contracts alleged to be relevant to the dispute.
The facts of the matter were as follows. The appellant sued the respondent in the Germiston
Magistrate’s Court for the outstanding balance in respect of certain services rendered during the
period January 2005 to May 2006. Annexed to the appellant’s initial pleadings were invoices
reflecting such services, as well as a number of other documents and agreements. Some of the
averments in the particulars of claim were confusing and when further particulars were requested and
supplied, it was revealed that certain of the annexed agreements had not been concluded between
the respondent and the appellant, but instead were between the respondent and a third party,
Pyramid Freight (Pty) Ltd (Pyramid Freight). Expanding on this, the appellant’s further particulars also
included additional averments relating to how it had acquired the business of Pyramid Freight in
August 2004 and had taken cession of all of Pyramid Freight’s contractual rights.
Following this, the appellant amended its particulars of claim in July 2009 to reflect that its cause of
action arose from the cession from Pyramid Freight, rather than from an agreement between the
respondent and itself directly. In response, the respondent raised two special pleas. The first special
plea was that the appellant’s claim had prescribed, as the amendment introduced a new cause of
action and was only effected in July 2009, while the services rendered by Pyramid Freight had been
concluded in May 2006 (ie more than three years before). The second special plea was that the
standard terms and conditions of Pyramid Freight included a clause which provided that only a high
court would have jurisdiction to hear matters relating to that agreement, and thus the magistrate’s
court had no jurisdiction to decide upon the appellant’s claim.
The magistrate’s court upheld both special pleas, while the court a quo dismissed the special plea of
jurisdiction, and only upheld the special plea of prescription.
On appeal to the SCA, it was found that the appellant’s amendment of its particulars of claim was in
error. The cession of rights from Pyramid Freight only related to contracts concluded prior to August
2004, while the debts of the respondent arose only from January 2005 onwards. The initial particulars
of claim and the invoices annexed thereto, properly construed, correctly reflected the true cause of
action – services rendered by the appellant at the direct request of the respondent. The amendment
did not introduce a new cause of action; it merely replaced irrelevant and confused averments with
more irrelevant averments. Accordingly, prescription was interrupted by service of the summons and
initial particulars of claim, and the SCA upheld the appeal and dismissed the special plea of
prescription.
With regards to the special plea of jurisdiction, the SCA found that the standard terms and conditions
of Pyramid Freight were once again irrelevant to the matter, as the cause of action did not arise from
that agreement. Accordingly, there simply was no applicable ouster clause, and so the SCA
confirmed that the special plea of jurisdiction had been correctly dismissed by the court a quo.
-- ends --- |
1536 | non-electoral | 2008 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 597/07
BOUNDARY FINANCING LIMITED
Appellant
and
PROTEA PROPERTY HOLDINGS (PTY) LIMITED
Respondent
Neutral citation:
Boundary Financing v Protea Property (597/07) [2008]
ZASCA 139 (27 November 2008)
Coram:
STREICHER, CAMERON, LEWIS, JAFTA and PONNAN JJA
Heard:
10 NOVEMBER 2008
Delivered:
27 NOVEMBER 2008
Summary:
Rectification and interpretation of contract – prescription does not
run against a claim for rectification.
_______________________________________________________________________
ORDER
_______________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: High Court, Cape Town (Griesel J sitting as court of first
instance).
The appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel.
_____________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
_____________________________________________________________________
STREICHER JA (CAMERON, LEWIS, JAFTA and PONNAN JJA
concurring)
[1] Protea Property Holdings (Pty) Ltd, the respondent and the plaintiff
in the court a quo, is a property holding company in the Protea group of
companies (‘Protea’), of which the holding company is the Protea
Hospitality Corporation (Pty) Ltd, which through a management
company, Protea Hotels and Inns (Pty) Ltd, markets and/or manages
approximately 130 hotels in Africa and the Middle East. This appeal
concerns the Edward Hotel in Durban. Boundary Financing Limited,
formerly known as International Bank of Southern Africa Limited (Ibsa),
the first defendant in the court a quo and the appellant in this court, got
involved in financing schemes with the Karos group of companies which
went into liquidation during 1999. One of the companies in that group
was Karos (Pty) Ltd (‘Karos’), the third defendant in the court a quo,
which owned and still owns the property on which the Edward Hotel is
situated. The second defendant in the court a quo was Swanvest (Pty) Ltd
(‘Swanvest’), which had purchased the Edward Hotel property from the
liquidators of Karos. All the issued shares in Swanvest were held by the
appellant and were thereafter sold to the respondent. This agreement (‘the
sale of shares agreement’) gave rise to the action in the court a quo which
resulted in the court a quo ordering:
(i)
the rectification of the agreement of sale of shares so as to reflect a
warranty and undertaking by the appellant that the Edward Hotel property
(and not a different hotel) would be an asset in Swanvest;
(ii)
the delivery by the appellant to the respondent of all the issued
shares in Swanvest against payment of R674 701; and
(iii)
performance of the warranty in respect of the Edward Hotel
property as per the agreement so rectified.
With the leave of the court a quo the appellant now appeals against that
order.
[2] It is common cause between the parties that Protea wished to
acquire the Arthur’s Seat Hotel (owned by Karos Cape Shareblock (Pty)
Ltd) as well as the Edward Hotel. To this end various contracts were
concluded between the appellant and companies within Protea in respect
of the Arthur’s Seat Hotel and subsequently, on 1 March 2001, in respect
of the Edward Hotel. The latter set of contracts consisted of the
following:
2.1
The agreement of sale of shares in terms of which the appellant, the
respondent and Swanvest agreed that notwithstanding the date of
signature of the agreement and with effect from 2 February 2001 the
appellant was deemed to have sold to the respondent 60 ordinary shares
of R1 each in Swanvest comprising 60% of the total issued share capital
of Swanvest as registered in the name of the appellant for a purchase
price of R1. In an annexure incorporated into the agreement it is stated:
‘1
The Seller hereby warrants and undertakes in favour of the Purchaser both as
at the effective date and as at the delivery date (unless the context otherwise indicates)
that:
. . .
1.24
the sole assets of the Company shall be the immovable property known as
Remainder of Erf 948 Sea Point West, in extent 4048 square metres, held by Deed of
Transfer No. T25566/1997, commonly described as The Arthur Seat Hotel; . . .’
In terms of the agreement the effective date was 2 February 2001 and
payment of the purchase price had to be effected within 30 days of that
date. Delivery of the shares had to take place within seven days of
payment of the purchase price. It is common cause that the agreement
formed part of the set of agreements relating to the Edward Hotel and that
it had nothing to do with the Arthur’s Seat Hotel. The appellant
nevertheless contended that the respondent was not entitled to the
rectification of clause 1.24 by the substitution of the property description
therein with the property description of the Edward Hotel property.
2.2
A shareholders’ agreement concluded by the same parties in terms
of which it was recorded that the respondent had acquired from the
appellant 60% of the equity of Swanvest and that Swanvest would be ‘the
registered owner of the bare dominium of the property known as
‘Remainder of Sub 1 of Lot 11258 Durban, situate in the city of Durban,
Administrative District of Natal, Province of Kwazulu-Natal’ (‘the
Edward Hotel property’).
2.3
An agreement of sale in terms of which Swanvest sold to the
Protea Hotel Group (Pty) Ltd (‘PHG’) the furniture, fixtures and
equipment (‘FF&E’) then in use on the premises of the ‘the Hotel known
as The Edward Hotel Beach Front Durban’ for a purchase price of
R2 000 000.
2.4
A cession and pledge agreement in terms of which the respondent
ceded and pledged to the appellant 60% of the equity in the second
defendant in securitatem debiti for the due payment of every sum of
money which was then or could thereafter become owing by the
respondent to the appellant.
2.5
An agreement of lease in terms of which the appellant let to PHG
the Edward Hotel as from 1 February 2001 for a period of 10 years.
Although structured as a lease the trial judge rightly found that the rent
payable in fact constituted consideration for the acquisition by Protea of
the Edward Hotel property.
2.6
A ‘Side Letter’ recording an agreement between PHG, the
respondent and the appellant as follows:
‘We hereby record that you have given us the irrevocable right to restructure the
series of transactions or any or more of them as contained in the abovementioned
documents after we have completed a due diligence investigation of both Swanvest
258 (Pty) Limited as also Karos (Pty) Limited (in liquidation) as to the acquisition of
the shares in Karos (Pty) Limited and as to the tax implications of the transactions
involving Swanvest 258 (Pty) Limited. In terms of any such reconstruction, we will
be entitled to cancel any of the above agreements to enable us as an alternative to
purchase the entire share equity of Karos (Pty) Limited subsequent to a section 311
application to the High Court in terms of the Companies Act provided that IBSA is
not unreasonably prejudiced thereby, either financially or in terms of its security. An
objection by IBSA shall be prima facie proof that it is unreasonably prejudiced by the
restructure.’
[3] Karos, the owner and operator of the Edward Hotel, had a
substantial assessed loss which Protea hoped to utilise by acquiring the
shares in Karos and operating the Edward Hotel through Karos instead of
Swanvest, in the event of the liquidation of Karos being terminated
pursuant to an application in terms of s 311 of the Companies Act 61 of
1973. It is this possibility that gave rise to the ‘side letter’. It is also as a
result of this possibility that effect was not given to the sale of shares
agreement. Both the appellant and the respondent accepted that a
restructuring was going to take place and that it could serve no purpose to
give immediate effect to the provisions of the agreement. The FF & E and
lease agreements were nevertheless implemented.
[4] Negotiations concerning a restructuring of the agreements ensued
and continued until 2004, some considerable time after a scheme of
arrangement between Karos (Pty) Ltd (in liquidation) and its creditors
had been sanctioned in terms of s 311 at the end of 2002. During the
course of these negotiations, on 13 March 2002, the appellant agreed to
sell ‘the remaining 40% shareholding in the Arthur’s Seat and the Edward
Hotel’ to the respondent for a purchase consideration of R2 349 400
which was subsequently, on 23 May 2002, reduced by R1m to
R1 349 400 or R674 000 each. At that stage the parties were still
negotiating as to the company in which the Edward Hotel property was to
be housed in the event of the agreements being restructured.
[5] The negotiations came to an end on 25 November 2004 when the
appellant’s attorneys wrote to the respondent that, for a period in excess
of three years, the parties had not regarded themselves bound by the suite
of agreements concluded on 1 March 2001 and that the obligations
arising from the agreement of sale of shares had become prescribed. The
respondent thereupon issued summons against the appellant claiming the
relief eventually granted by the court a quo. Swanvest and Karos were
joined as second and third defendants respectively but no relief was
claimed against them.
[6] In the court a quo and also before us the appellant contended that
the respondent was not entitled to rectification of the agreement of sale of
shares and in the alternative that the claim for such rectification had
prescribed. In respect of the claim for the making good of the warranty
and undertaking that the Edward Hotel property would be an asset in
Swanvest as on 2 February 2001 the appellant contended that such an
order could not be made as it was impossible to make Swanvest the
owner of the property on that date, and also because an order of specific
performance was in the circumstances legally inappropriate. In the
alternative the appellant contended that the claim for transfer of the
shares in Swanvest and the claim that the warranty and undertaking be
made good had become prescribed. I shall deal with each of these
contentions in turn.
Rectification
[7] A party is entitled to rectification of a written agreement which,
through common mistake incorrectly records the agreement which they
intended to express in the written agreement. In the present case it is quite
obvious and, as stated above, indeed common cause, that the parties never
intended to warrant and undertake that the Arthur’s Seat Hotel property
would be an asset in Swanvest as stated in clause 1.24 of the annexure to
the agreement of sale of shares. It seems to me to be equally obvious that
the parties intended the reference to be to the Edward Hotel property.
That is so because Protea wished to acquire the Edward Hotel and the
agreements concluded on 1 March 2001 were entered into with that
object in mind. Any doubt that there could possibly be in this regard is
dispelled by the statement in the shareholders’ agreement that the
respondent had acquired from the appellant 60% of the equity of
Swanvest and that Swanvest would be the owner of the bare dominium of
the Edward Hotel property. One can add to this the fact that on 14 August
2000 the liquidators of Karos had sold the Edward Hotel property to
Swanvest and also the fact that the reason for the error seems to be clear.
As Mr Arnold Cloete, the financial manager of Protea (the sole witness at
the trial), explained, similar agreements in respect of the Arthur’s Seat
Hotel had already been concluded and were probably used as a precedent
or template.
[8] Despite all these indications, counsel for the appellant submitted
that it could not have been their intention that the appellant should
warrant and undertake that the property would as at 2 February 2001 be
an asset in Swanvest because they knew, when the agreement of sale of
shares was concluded, that that was not the case. The fact that the parties
knew that the property was not an asset of Swanvest on 2 February 2001,
taken in isolation, may be considered to be an indication that the parties
did not have the intention in question but it may also be an indication
that, by so warranting and undertaking, the appellant was simply
undertaking to procure transfer of the property to Swanvest. That the
latter was the case is in my view put beyond question by the fact that the
parties concluded the agreement of sale and the shareholders’ agreement,
as also by the terms of the shareholders’ agreement. No other reason has
been advanced as to why the parties would have concluded the agreement
of sale of the shares of Swanvest and the shareholders’ agreement if not
to house the property in Swanvest except in the event of the parties
subsequently agreeing to house the property in another company.
[9] The appellant submitted furthermore that, as it was envisaged that
the liquidation of Karos and the agreement of sale between the liquidators
of Karos and Swanvest could be terminated in terms of a scheme of
arrangement in terms of s 311, the appellant would not have warranted
that the Edward Hotel property would be an asset in Swanvest. However,
the appellant could well have had reason to believe that it would in any
event be able to procure transfer of the property to Swanvest.
[10] Yet a further submission advanced by the appellant as to why the
parties would not have entered into a binding agreement to transfer the
Edward Hotel property into Swanvest was that the respondent was
desirous of making use of the taxed loss in Karos by leaving the property
in Karos after its liquidation had been terminated and by acquiring the
shares in Karos instead. It is true that, at the time when the agreements
were concluded, it was envisaged that it could eventually be agreed to
house the Edward Hotel property in a company other than Swanvest but it
does not follow from that that the parties had no intention of entering into
a binding agreement that it be housed in Swanvest should they fail to
agree on another structure. As stated above it is common cause that
Protea was desirous of acquiring the Edward Hotel and that it was with
that object in mind that the agreements were concluded. Unless the
agreement of sale of shares is rectified as claimed by the respondent the
parties would not have achieved that object.
[11] For these reasons I am satisfied that the parties intended clause
1.24 to refer to the Edward Hotel property.
Prescription of the rectification claim
[12] The appellant, referring to Primavera Construction SA v
Government, North-West Province, and another 2003 (3) SA 579 (B) at
599H-I as authority, submitted that the respondent’s claim for
rectification has in any event prescribed. In terms of s 10 of the
Prescription Act 68 of 1969 read with s 11(d) of that Act, a debt other
than the debts mentioned in ss 11(a) to (c) is extinguished by prescription
after the lapse of a period of three years, save where an Act of Parliament
provides otherwise.
[13] ‘A debt’ is not defined in the Prescription Act. Dealing with the
meaning of the Afrikaans ‘`n skuld’ Van Heerden AJA said in Oertel en
andere NNO v Direkteur van Plaaslike Bestuur en andere 1983 (1) SA
354 (A) at 370B:
‘Volgens die aanvaarde betekenis van die begrip slaan “`n skuld” op `n verpligting
om iets te doen (hetsy by wyse van betaling of lewering van `n saak of dienste), of nie
te doen nie. Dit is die een pool van `n verbintenis wat in die reël `n
vermoënsbestanddeel en –verpligting omvat . . ..’
A claim for rectification does not have as a correlative a debt within the
ordinary meaning of the word. Rectification of an agreement does not
alter the rights and obligations of the parties in terms of the agreement to
be rectified: their rights and obligations are no different after rectification.
Rectification therefore does not create a new contract; it merely serves to
correct the written memorial of the agreement. It is a declaration of what
the parties to the agreement to be rectified agreed. For this reason a
defendant who contends that an agreement sued upon does not correctly
reflect the agreement between the parties may raise that contention as a
defence without the need to counterclaim for rectification of the
agreement (see Gralio (Pty) Ltd v D E Claassen (Pty) Ltd 1980 (1) SA
816 (A) at 824A-C). Should a claim for rectification of a contract become
prescribed after three years parties may become entitled to rights and
subject to obligations wrongly recorded and never intended eg in the case
of a debt secured by a mortgage bond which only prescribes after the
lapse of a period of 30 years.1 That, in my view, is a result never intended
by the Prescription Act. It follows that in so far as it may have been held
in Primavera that prescription runs against a claim for rectification of a
contract that decision is wrong.
[14] For these reasons the appeal against the order rectifying the
agreement of sale should be dismissed.
1 Section 11(a) of the Prescription Act 68 of 1969.
Making good the warranty
[15] As rectified, the appellant in terms of the annexure to the
agreement of sale of shares warranted and undertook in favour of the
respondent that the sole asset in Swanvest, as at the effective date and as
at the delivery date, would be the Edward Hotel property.
[16] The appellant submitted that the warranty as formulated is an
affirmative warranty of fact in so far as it related to the effective date
whereas the Edward Hotel property was, as a fact, not the sole asset of
Swanvest at that date. It was therefore factually and legally impossible for
the warranty to be rendered true. As a result the respondent’s only
remedy was to claim damages, so the appellant submitted. As authority
for the submission the appellant referred to De Wet and Van Wyk
Kontraktereg & Handelsreg 5 ed p 88-89 where the authors, with
reference to the example of a person selling a horse with a warranty that
the horse was still alive only to discover subsequently that the horse was
already dead, said: ‘Waar ek die onmoontlike as moontlik waarborg, kan
ek dit wel nie moontlik maak nie, maar moet ek by wyse van
skadevergoeding my waarborg goed maak.’ In these circumstances the
warranty that the horse is still alive is in reality an undertaking to pay
damages should it transpire that the horse is already dead.2 Similarly, so
the appellant submitted, the sale of shares agreement goes no further than
a promise by the appellant to pay damages if the facts are not as
warranted.
[17] There is no reason to interpret the warranty and undertaking at
issue here in a like manner. Unlike the case of the horse, there is no
reason to believe that the parties intended that, in the event of the
2 S Williston A Treatise on the Law of Contracts (1938) vol 6 p 5417.
property not being an asset in Swanvest as at the effective date, there
would be an obligation on the part of the appellant to pay damages but
not an obligation to cure its breach of a term of the contract by procuring
transfer of the property to Swanvest. Furthermore, unlike the example,
the appellant not only warranted but also undertook that the property
would be an asset in Swanvest. An undertaking to procure a certain state
of affairs on a particular date does not, in the absence of any reason to so
interpret the undertaking, change into an undertaking to pay damages
should the undertaking not be honoured. Any doubt that there may be in
this regard is dispelled by reference to the background circumstances.3 At
the time when the agreement of sale of shares was concluded the parties
to the agreement were aware that the property had not been registered in
the name of Swanvest. They could not, therefore, have intended the
‘warranty and undertaking’ to be anything other than an undertaking to
procure transfer of the property to Swanvest.
[18] In the alternative the appellant submitted that the court a quo had a
discretion to order specific performance and that the present case was not
an appropriate case for such an order. It is settled law that a court has a
discretion to grant or refuse a decree of specific performance of a
contractual obligation. That discretion has to be judicially exercised upon
a consideration of all relevant facts and will only be interfered with on
appeal when it can be said that ‘the Court a quo has exercised its
discretion capriciously or upon a wrong principle, that it has not brought
its unbiased judgment to bear on the question or has not acted for
substantial reasons’.4
3 See Coopers & Lybrand and others v Bryant 1995 (3) SA 761 (A) at 767E-768E.
4 Ex parte Neethling and others 1951 (4) SA 331 (A) at 335; and Benson v SA Mutual Life Assurance
Society 1986 (1) SA 776 (A) 776 at 781A-783C.
[19] The appellant submitted that the court a quo should not have
granted specific performance because it was not an appropriate remedy as
the order could be given effect to only by way of an agreement of sale
complying with the formalities prescribed by s 2(1) of the Alienation of
Land Act 68 of 1981, between Karos and Swanvest. Not only did such an
agreement not exist, the terms of the agreement of sale could not be
determined and although the appellant was the sole shareholder of both
Karos and Swanvest the directors of these companies might not consider
it advisable either to sell or buy the property. For these reasons the order
of specific performance by the court a quo amounted to a brutum fulmen.
[20] There is no merit in these submissions. An agreement of sale
between Karos and Swanvest is not a requirement for the transfer of the
property by Karos to Swanvest.5 The appellant undertook to procure such
transfer and must have been confident that it would be able to give effect
to that undertaking. The appellant did not plead that it would not be able
to give effect to an order of specific performance and tendered no
evidence to that effect. Moreover, both Swanvest and Karos were parties
to the action in the court a quo and neither of them sought to contend that
the appellant would not be able to perform the obligation undertaken by
it. In these circumstances the court a quo had no reason to doubt that the
appellant would be able to do so. No other basis for interfering with the
exercise by the court a quo of its discretion to order specific performance
was advanced by the appellant.
5 Cape Explosive Works Ltd and another v Denel (Pty) Ltd and others 2001 (3) SA 569 (SCA) at
577D-H par [10].
Prescription of the obligations under the agreement of sale of shares
[21] The appellant pleaded that its obligations to deliver 60% of the
shareholding in Swanvest and to comply with the warranty and
undertaking in respect of the Edward Hotel property fell due for
performance by not later than 11 March 2001 and that they were
extinguished by prescription by not later than 11 March 2004 ie before
service of the summons which took place no earlier than 2 February
2005. The respondent in its plea and before us denied that the appellant’s
obligations had prescribed and contended that the running of prescription
was interrupted in terms of s 14 of the Prescription Act in that after 11
March 2001, the appellant either expressly or tacitly acknowledged its
liability to give effect to the agreement of sale of shares. It did so by,
amongst others, concluding, on or about 6 February 2002 and 25 May
2002, the price-reduction agreement in respect of ‘the remaining’ 40% of
the shares in the company that was going to hold the Edward Hotel
property and also by engaging in negotiations with the respondent in
order to effect a restructuring of the agreements relating to the Edward
Hotel.
[22] In terms of s 14 the running of prescription is interrupted by an
express or tacit acknowledgement of liability by the debtor and
commences to run afresh from the day on which the interruption takes
place.
[23] At the time when the sale of shares agreement was entered into the
parties knew that the liquidation of Karos could possibly be terminated in
terms of s 311 and that this might enable the respondent to acquire the
Edward Hotel property by acquiring the shares in Karos instead of
Swanvest. For that reason they agreed that the respondent would be
entitled to restructure the agreements relating to the Edward Hotel even to
the extent of cancelling the agreement of sale of shares. Pursuant to that
agreement, and shortly after the conclusion thereof, the appellant and the
respondent started negotiating a restructuring of the agreements. As a
result of these restructuring negotiations the agreement of sale of shares
was not implemented. It does not however follow that the parties had no
intention of implementing the agreement of sale of shares. On the
contrary, the agreement of sale of shares was clearly entered into to bind
the parties to a fall back position should the restructuring negotiations
fail. By negotiating a restructuring of, amongst others, the agreement of
sale of shares, and not a fresh agreement, the parties tacitly acknowledged
the binding nature of that agreement. Confirmation that that was the case
is afforded by an internal memorandum of the appellant dated 12
February 2002 in which it is stated, with reference to the set of
agreements relating to the Edward Hotel, that due to the s 311
compromise no change would be allowed to the agreements until they
(the appellant) understood the implications on the agreements. By selling
the remaining 40% of the shareholding in the company that was
eventually to hold the Edward Hotel property, the appellant similarly
tacitly acknowledged the binding nature of the sale of the other 60% of
the shares.
[24] The restructuring negotiations were terminated only during 2004
while the sale of the remaining 40% of the shares in the property holding
company was concluded on 6 February 2002 and amended on 25 May
2002. It follows that the running of prescription was interrupted by an
acknowledgement of liability less than three years before 2 February
2005 when the summons was served and that the respondent’s claims had
not become prescribed as contended by the appellant.
[25] For these reasons the appeal against the court a quo’s order that the
shares in Swanvest be delivered to the respondent against payment of the
purchase price in respect thereof and that the warranty be made good
should be dismissed.
Order
[26] The appeal is dismissed with costs including the costs of two
counsel.
_____________________
P E STREICHER
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
For appellant:
E Fagan
C Hugo
Instructed by:
Edward Nathan Sonnenbergs, Cape Town
Matsepes, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
H M Carstens SC
S P Rosenberg SC
Instructed by:
Jan S de Villiers, Cape Town
McIntyre & Van der Post, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
27 November 2008
Status:
Immediate
BOUNDARY FINANCING LIMITED v PROTEA PROPERTY HOLDINGS
(PTY) LTD
The Supreme Court of Appeal today upheld a judgment by the Cape High Court
in terms of which the High Court ordered the appellant to transfer all the issued
shares in Swanvest (Pty) Ltd to the respondent against payment of the purchase
price in respect thereof and to transfer the Edward Hotel property in Durban to
that company. |
4139 | non-electoral | 2023 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 894/2022
In the matter between:
ISLANDSITE INVESTMENTS 180 (PTY) LTD
APPELLANT
and
THE NATIONAL DIRECTOR OF
PUBLIC PROSECUTIONS
FIRST RESPONDENT
IQBAL MEER SHARMA
SECOND RESPONDENT
NULANE INVESTMENTS 204 (PTY) LTD
THIRD RESPONDENT
KURT ROBERT KNOOP NO
FOURTH RESPONDENT
JOHAN LOUIS KLOPPER NO
FIFTH RESPONDENT
ISSAR GLOBAL LTD
SIXTH RESPONDENT
ISSAR CAPITAL LTD
SEVENTH RESPONDENT
TARINA PATEL-SHARMA
EIGHTH RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Islandsite Investments 180 (Pty) Ltd v National Director of
Public Prosecutions and Others (Case no 894/2022) [2023]
ZASCA 166 (1 December 2023)
Coram:
GORVEN, MOTHLE and MEYER JJA and KATHREE-SETILOANE
and UNTERHALTER AJJA
Heard:
3 November 2023
Delivered: 1 December 2023
Summary: Company Law –– restraint order under the Prevention of Organised
Crime Act 121 of 1998 – authority to represent company in business rescue –
directors have no such authority – authority residing with business rescue
practitioners.
__________________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Free State Division of the High Court, Bloemfontein (Musi JP,
sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal is dismissed.
The directors of Islandsite Investments 180 (Pty) Ltd, Ms Ragavan and
Mr Chawla, are directed to pay the costs of the appeal jointly and severally, the one
paying, the other to be absolved.
__________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
__________________________________________________________________
Gorven JA (Mothle and Meyer JJA and Kathree-Setiloane and Unterhalter
AJJA concurring)
[1] At all material times, the appellant, Islandsite Investments 180 (Pty) Ltd (the
company) has been in business rescue in terms of Chapter 6 of the Companies Act
71 of 2008 (the Act). The fourth and fifth respondents on appeal were appointed
business rescue practitioners (the BRPs). The first respondent, the National Director
of Public Prosecutions (the NDPP), launched an application in the Free State
Division of the High Court of South Africa, Bloemfontein, (the high court) in terms
of s 26(3) of the Prevention of Organised Crime Act 121 of 1998 (the POCA
litigation). It was brought on an ex parte basis, without prior notice to the company,
the BRPs or the other respondents. The high court granted a provisional restraint
order in respect of property of the company and also of the second, third, sixth,
seventh and eighth respondents. When reference is made to the POCA litigation in
this judgment, it is to the provisional restraint order proceedings only. It goes no
further.
[2] The order prompted the directors of the company (the directors) to appoint a
firm of attorneys, BDK Attorneys, purporting to do so on behalf of the company.
Those attorneys delivered a notice of intention to oppose and an answering affidavit,
deposed to by one of the directors. This sought to oppose the confirmation of the
provisional restraint order on behalf of the company. Attorneys appointed by the
BRPs also delivered an affidavit. In it, the BRPs indicated that there was a dispute
between the directors and the BRPs as to which of them was authorised to represent
the company in the POCA litigation.
[3] In response, the NDPP launched an application in terms of Uniform rule 7(1).1
This allows a party to dispute the authority of attorneys who purport to represent
another party. The directors opposed that application, again purporting to represent
the company. The application proceeded on the issue of whether the directors, on
the one hand, or the BRPs, on the other, had the requisite authority to appoint
attorneys to represent the company. The matter was dealt with without reference to
the merits of the POCA litigation. The confirmation or otherwise of the provisional
restraint order was held over pending the determination of the issue of
representation.
1 Rule 7(1) provides: ‘Subject to the provisions of subrules (2) and (3) a power of attorney to act need not be filed, but
the authority of anyone acting on behalf of a party may, within 10 days after it has come to the notice of a party that
such person is so acting, or with the leave of the court on good cause shown at any time before judgment, be disputed,
whereafter such person may no longer act unless he satisfied the court that he is authorised so to act, and to enable
him to do so the court may postpone the hearing of the action or application.’
[4] On 11 August 2021, Musi JP granted the following order:
‘1 BDK Attorneys do not have authority to act on behalf of the [company] in these proceedings.
2 The directors and or shareholders of the [company] have no standing to oppose these
proceedings without the approval of the business rescue practitioners.’
The appeal against that order is before us with the leave of this court.
[5] The parties agreed that either the directors, or the BRPs, have the requisite
authority to represent the company in the POCA litigation and not both of them.
[6] It is as well briefly to sketch the course of the POCA litigation. The court was
approached on an ex parte basis and a provisional restraint order was granted by way
of a rule nisi with interim relief. Parties were called upon to show cause why the
provisional restraint order should not be made final. That is the stage reached by the
present POCA litigation. Should a final order be made, that would restrain the
property, pending a criminal trial and any subsequent order confiscating the
restrained property. Thus, the restraint order, even if dubbed final, is temporary and
designed only to ensure that the property is not dissipated should a conviction ensue
and, in addition, an order is thereafter granted confiscating the property in question.
If neither eventuates, the restraint order will be discharged.
[7] The point of departure in this matter is s 66(1) of the Act, which reads:
‘The business and affairs of a company must be managed by or under the direction of its board,
which has the authority to exercise all of the powers and perform any of the functions of the
company, except to the extent that this Act or the company’s Memorandum of Incorporation
provides otherwise.’
This is a general provision. In general terms, then, and unless other parts of the Act
provide otherwise, the directors have authority to represent the company. In the
present matter, the question is whether the provisions of chapter 6 of the Act
concerning business rescue do so.
[8] The contention of the directors was that they alone have authority to represent
the company in the POCA litigation. While they accepted that the BRPs were
authorised to perform certain functions under the business rescue provisions of the
Act, this did not extend to the POCA litigation.
[9] Their point of departure was the definition of ‘business rescue’ in s 128 of the
Act:
‘“business rescue” means proceedings to facilitate the rehabilitation of a company that is
financially distressed by providing for-
(i) the temporary supervision of the company, and of the management of its affairs, business
and property;
(ii) a temporary moratorium on the rights of claimants against the company or in respect of
property in its possession; and
(iii) the development and implementation, if approved, of a plan to rescue the company by
restructuring its affairs, business, property, debt and other liabilities, and equity in a manner that
maximises the likelihood of the company continuing in existence on a solvent basis or, if it is not
possible for the company to so continue in existence, results in a better return for the company's
creditors or shareholders than would result from the immediate liquidation of the company.’
They submitted that the POCA litigation did not ‘facilitate the rehabilitation’ of the
company. It was thus not ‘business rescue related litigation’. The function of
representing the company cannot be said to be part of the temporary supervision of
the company, or of the management of its affairs, business, and property. The
authority of the BRPs is limited to day to day management of the company and the
compilation of a business rescue plan. Beyond those narrow functions, they have no
authority. Accordingly, the BRPs have no authority to act on behalf of the company
in the POCA litigation. The default position set out in s 66(1) prevails and the
authority of the directors to represent the company remains intact.
[10] The directors set some store by Ragavan and Others v Optimum Coal
Terminal (Pty) Ltd and Others.2 In that matter, Tegeta Exploration and Resources
(Pty) Ltd (Tegeta) was in business rescue. It was a creditor of Optimum Coal
Terminal (Pty) Ltd (OCT) which was also in business rescue. The business rescue
practitioners of OCT published a business rescue plan. The directors of Tegeta
contended that they had a right to vote on the plan. This court rejected that argument,
finding that it was the business rescue practitioners who enjoyed that right. In
arriving at this conclusion, this court held that the ‘temporary supervision of the
company’3 and ‘full management control’4 included the right to vote on the plan.
[11] Despite that outcome, the directors relied on a dictum in Ragavan. This was:
‘. . . whether or not the board retains any power on strategic matters of the company during business
rescue is a matter we do not need to determine because, as I have explained, the practitioner enjoys
the power to vote as a creditor on the debtor’s plan.’5
They submitted that this meant that they retained power on ‘strategic matters of the
company during business rescue’. But that does not properly understand the dictum.
It simply recognised a category of decision making power but found it unnecessary
to decide who enjoyed this power.
2 Ragavan and Others v Optimum Coal Terminal (Pty) Ltd and Others (Ragavan) [2023] ZASCA 34; 2023 (4) SA 78
(SCA).
3 Provided for as part of the definition of ‘business rescue’ in s 128(1)(b).
4 Granted to the BRPs by s 140(1)(a) of the Act.
5 Ragavan para 26.
[12] They also relied on two dicta of this court in Tayob and Another v Shiva
Uranium (Pty) Ltd and Others.6
‘Unless indicated otherwise, “company” must bear its ordinary meaning and the same meaning as
in s 129, that is, the company represented by its board.’7
and:
‘As I have said, the court a quo based its decision to dismiss the applicants’ application essentially
on the provisions of s 137(2)(a) of the Act. It provides that during a company’s business rescue
proceedings, each director of the company must continue to exercise the functions of a director,
“subject to the authority of the practitioner”. Subsection 137(2)(a) must, of course, be read with
the provisions of Chapter 6 of the Act and those of s 140 in particular. They circumscribe the ambit
of the authority of the practitioner. Any function of a director that falls outside of that ambit, cannot
be subject to the approval of the practitioner. It follows that s 137(2)(a) only affects the exercise
of the functions of a director in respect of matters falling within the ambit of the authority of the
practitioner. As I have shown, the appointment of a practitioner does not fall within the powers or
authority of a practitioner.’8
The directors sought support from these dicta for their contention that they retained
the authority to represent the company in the POCA litigation. But these dicta simply
give effect to the default position set out in s 66(1), and dealt with above. A similar
submission had been advanced in Ragavan in support of the contention of those
directors that they had the right to vote on the business rescue plan of OCT. Referring
to Tayob, this court gave that argument short shrift:
‘In that matter, the court had to address a narrow issue of who of the board or an affected person
represented “the company” in appointing a new practitioner in terms of s 139(3) of the Act, in
situations where a practitioner dies, resigns, or is removed from office. The court held that the
appointment of a practitioner did not fall within the “full management powers” or authority of a
practitioner. In that case, the power of the board was found in s 139(3) and was not expressly
6 Tayob and Another v Shiva Uranium (Pty) Ltd and Others (Tayob) [2020] ZASCA 162.
7 Tayob para 20.
8 Tayob para 25. Reference omitted.
qualified. In other words, that function fell outside the ambit of the authority of a practitioner and
could not be subject to the approval of a practitioner as contemplated in s 137(2)(a) of the Act.’9
[13] In Tayob, the company in question had been placed in voluntary business
rescue. As such, the directors were empowered and obliged, in terms of s 129(3), to
appoint BRPs. Although they had done so, the BRPs had resigned and a court order
had replaced one of them, and directed that the Companies and Intellectual Property
Commission (the Commission) appoint another. After this, one of the two
replacement BRPs intended to resign. Prior to resigning, that BRP and the remaining
one had resolved to appoint another to replace the resigning BRP. On a construction
of s 129(3), this court held that the power to appoint BRPs rested with the directors
and not with the BRPs. It was found that s 129(3) specifically granted them that
power.
[14] The issue remains whether, in the circumstances of this matter, the Act
‘provides otherwise’. This requires construing the provisions of the Act concerning
the respective authority of the BRPs and directors during business rescue. The
approach to that exercise is well established:
‘Whilst the starting point remains the words of the document, which are the only relevant medium
through which the parties have expressed their contractual intentions, the process of interpretation
does not stop at a perceived literal meaning of those words, but considers them in the light of all
relevant and admissible context, including the circumstances in which the document came into
being. The former distinction between permissible background and surrounding circumstances,
never very clear, has fallen away. Interpretation is no longer a process that occurs in stages but is
“essentially one unitary exercise”.’10
9 Ragavan para 27.
10 Bothma-Batho Transport (Edms) Bpk v S Bothma & Seun Transport (Edms) Bpk [2013] ZASCA 176; 2014 (2) SA
494 (SCA); [2014] 1 All SA 517 (SCA) para 12. References omitted.
[15] The context under POCA has already been set out. Specific provisions of
chapter 6 of the Act concerning business rescue bear on the respective roles of
directors and BRPs in the business rescue process. The definition of business rescue
in s 128 of the Act connotes proceedings to facilitate the rehabilitation of a company.
The goal of those proceedings is rehabilitation. In order to achieve that goal, those
proceedings provide for the temporary supervision of the company by persons other
than the directors. The only qualification to the word ‘supervision’ is that it is
temporary. It is temporary because the rehabilitation or otherwise of the company is
time-bound. It is not the supervision which must be demonstrated, at every point, to
advance the rehabilitation of the company. That would be a recipe for contestation
for every decision and would result in the paralysis of the process of business rescue.
It is supervision in every respect. In addition, the management of the company’s
affairs, business and property are part of the process. It is implicit in the definition
that the BRPs are the persons engaged in the supervision of the company.
[16] Section 137(2) provides, in its material parts:
‘During a company’s business rescue proceedings, each director of the company-
(a) must continue to exercise the functions of director, subject to the authority of the
practitioner;
(b) has a duty to the company to exercise any management function within the company in
accordance with the express instructions or direction of the practitioner, to the extent that it is
reasonable to do so’.
The first of these relates to the general functions of directors. They are obliged to
continue to exercise these functions but can do so only ‘subject to the authority’ of
the BRPs. This is clearly one of the provisions of the Act which qualifies the position
of directors set out in s 66(1). Again, this does not delineate those functions of
directors which are subject to the authority of the BRPs. The second relates to
management functions. All of these must be exercised on ‘the express instructions
or direction’ of the BRPs. This also qualifies the provisions of s 66(1). In addition,
in terms of s 142, the directors are obliged to surrender all books of the company and
to provide information on material transactions, litigation and the assets and
liabilities of the company to the BRPs.
[17] In contrast to the position of directors, the BRPs are clothed with a number of
powers in the Act. In the first place, a BRP is defined as one appointed to ‘oversee
a company’ during business rescue proceedings.11 Once again, the word ‘oversee’ is
not qualified. There is no mention as to what aspects of the company the BRPs are
to oversee. Are they to oversee the company in every respect? That they have the
power to do so is implicit in the definition. Another set of implicit powers are those
in s 137(2), of assuming authority over the exercise by the directors of their general
functions, and giving express instructions and direction to any management
functions exercised by them.
[18] Along with these implicit powers, the Act grants explicit powers in s140, the
material parts of which are:
‘(1) During a company's business rescue proceedings, the practitioner, in addition to any other
powers and duties set out in this Chapter-
(a) has full management control of the company in substitution for its board and pre-existing
management;
(b) may delegate any power or function of the practitioner to a person who was part of the board
or pre-existing management of the company;
. . .
(3) During a company's business rescue proceedings, the practitioner-
11 A business rescue practitioner is defined as ‘a person appointed, or two or more persons appointed jointly, in terms
of this Chapter to oversee a company during business rescue proceedings and “practitioner” has a corresponding
meaning’.
(a) is an officer of the court, and must report to the court in accordance with any applicable
rules of, or orders made by, the court;
(b) has the responsibilities, duties and liabilities of a director of the company, as set out in
sections 75 to 77.’
The BRPs are thus accorded ‘full management control of the company’ in place of
the board and management but may delegate any of their powers and functions to
the directors or erstwhile management.
[19] Of further significance is that BRPs have the ‘responsibilities, duties and
liabilities of a director . . . as set out in sections 75 to 77’. Those sections deal with
directors’ personal financial interests, the standards of conduct of directors and the
liability of directors, inter alia, for breaches of fiduciary duties. The BRPs are, in
addition, officers of the court and obliged to report to the court in certain
circumstances. They are obliged to report ‘reckless trading, fraud or other
contravention of any law relating to the company’ to the appropriate authorities and
to take remedial action.12
[20] In answer to the contention of the directors that the authority of the BRPs must
be construed very narrowly, the NDPP referred to the reasoning in Ragavan. There,
this court held that a wide meaning should be given to ‘full management control’ in
the Act.13 It went on to hold:
‘The facilitation of the rehabilitation of a company expressly includes management of property.
Everything that has to do with the company's debtors clearly falls within the category of
management.’ 14
12 Section 141(2)(c)(ii).
13 Ragavan para 16.
14 Ragavan para 18.
This court held that, since s 133(1)(a) prohibits enforcement action against the
company in relation to any property belonging to it, this ‘reflects the practitioner's
control in relation to the claims by third parties to the property of the company’.15
The BRPs will have to consider the effect of the restrained property to determine
whether the company is a candidate for rescue and how the restrained assets are to
be dealt with in a business rescue plan. The POCA litigation implicates the property
of the company directly. In addition, and as was held by the high court, a decision
to enter into litigation on behalf of the company, whether as initiator or defender,
has potential costs implications which bear on the property of a company.
[21] In Tayob, this court, for the purpose of that matter, distinguished between
management and governance functions as follows:
‘To appoint a substitute practitioner (who will then be in full management control of the company)
is rather a function of governance and approval thereof is not in my view a management function.’
The directors submitted that defending the POCA litigation related to ‘strategic
matters of the company’ and ‘governance’ rather than to the ‘full management
control’. But Part F of the Act, dealing with governance deals with compliance with
the Memorandum of Incorporation and provisions of the Act relating to shareholder
rights and resolutions, the calling and conduct of meetings, directors’ powers and
duties, eligibility, election and removal, the board and committees and their
meetings. Those are governance matters dealt with in the Act. The NDPP contended
that the decision to defend litigation is, in any event, a management power rather
than one of governance. This appears to me to be correct but I find the distinction
sought to be drawn between powers of management and governance of companies
unhelpful in the present enquiry. As has already been pointed out, the enquiry is
15 Ragavan para 19.
whether the provisions in the Act relating to business rescue provide an exception to
the general provisions of s 66(1) regarding the powers of directors.
[22] An argument before us which was not foreshadowed in the heads, was that
the POCA litigation may well have implications for the conduct of the impending
criminal trial. The directors contended that, for that reason, only they could
adequately protect the interests of the company. An example given was that, if they
were allowed to represent the company in the POCA litigation, the BRPs might
prejudice the right to silence of the company in the criminal matter. As indicated,
the POCA litigation directly implicates the property of the company, which falls
within the ambit of the authority of the BRPs. What must be borne in mind is that
both the directors and the BRPs are enjoined to act in the best interests of the
company. The first resort would be to explore whether the directors and the BRPs
are able to agree on the conduct of the POCA litigation. If agreement cannot be
reached, and if it can be shown that the BRPs had acted or were about to act in a
manner which could be shown to prejudice the company, there are remedies
available to interested parties such as directors.
[23] In the light of the provisions of the Act, there is no warrant for finding that the
directors have the requisite authority to appoint attorneys to litigate on behalf of the
company. The clear interpretation of the Act affords the BRPs that authority in the
POCA litigation. This is, in particular, because property of the company is
implicated in the POCA litigation. It follows that the order of the high court cannot
be faulted. As a result, the appeal must be dismissed.
[24] The BRPs contended that they could authorise the directors to deliver an
affidavit and present argument in the POCA litigation. That contention proceeds
from the premise that they have authority. It does not inform the issue in the rule 7
application which is limited to the question whether or not they have such authority.
The contention goes to the question of the manner in which the BRPs exercise that
authority. That enquiry does not fall within the ambit of the rule 7 application. It
must be reserved for another day.
[25] The NDPP submitted that the directors, Ms Ragavan and Mr Chawla, should
be directed to pay the costs of the appeal personally. It has been found that they had
no authority to represent the company, which is nominally the appellant, and instruct
the attorneys to appeal the judgment of the high court on its behalf. The directors did
so without authority. If persons who are not authorised to do so, purport to appoint
attorneys to represent a company, it can hardly be expected of the company to bear
the costs flowing from that action. Notice was given to the directors that such an
order would be sought. It is appropriate that they pay the costs of this appeal.
[26] In the result, the following order issues:
The appeal is dismissed.
The directors of Islandsite Investments 180 (Pty) Ltd, Ms Ragavan and
Mr Chawla, are directed to pay the costs of the appeal jointly and severally, the one
paying, the other to be absolved.
____________________
T R GORVEN
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
M R Hellens SC with D J Joubert SC
Instructed by:
Krause Attorneys, Johannesburg
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For first respondent:
G Budlender SC
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For fourth and fifth respondents:
A E Bham SC with T Scott
Instructed by:
Smit Sewgoolam Incorporated,
Johannesburg
McIntyre van der Post, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
1 December 2023
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does
not form part of the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Islandsite Investments (Pty) Ltd v The National Director of Public Prosecutions and Others
(Case no 894/2022) [2023] ZASCA 166 (1 December 2023)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal dismissed an appeal from a judgment of the Free State
Division of the High Court, Bloemfontein (the high court) in which Musi JP granted an order
declaring that attorneys appointed by the directors of Islandsite Investments 180 (Pty) Ltd (the
company), which was in business rescue, did not have authority to represent the company in
an application brought by the National Director of Public Prosecutions (the NDPP) to restrain
assets of the company under the Prevention of Organised Crime Act 121 of 1998 (the POCA
litigation). A second order made clear that the directors and shareholders had no standing to
oppose the POCA litigation without the approval of the business rescue practitioners (the
BRPs).
The present appeal had its genesis in the POCA litigation. The NDPP had obtained a
provisional restraint order ex parte. The company was called upon to show cause on the return
date of a rule nisi why the provisional restraint order should not be made final. Such a final
order is not, itself, final since it serves only to preserve the restrained property until a criminal
prosecution is complete and an application for confiscation of the property is brought. If neither
of those procedures succeeds, the restraint order would be discharged.
In answer to the rule nisi, the directors appointed attorneys who then purported to represent the
company by opposing the confirmation of the provisional restraint order and putting up an
affidavit purporting to do so on behalf of the company. The BRPs also put up an affidavit
pointing out that there was a dispute between them and the directors as to which of them had
the authority to represent the company in the POCA litigation. This prompted the NDPP to
launch an application in terms of Uniform rule 7 disputing the authority of the attorneys
concerned to represent the company. The basis of that application was that, since the company
was in business rescue, only the BRPs had authority to appoint attorneys to represent the
company. As indicated, the high court upheld the application of the NDPP.
On appeal, the directors submitted that the authority of the BRPs to represent the company
should be narrowly construed and was limited to the day to day management of the company
and the production of a business rescue plan. All other powers were retained by the directors
in terms of the general provisions of s 66(1) of the Companies Act 71 of 2008. As such, it was
the directors who were authorised to represent the company in the POCA litigation. The
Supreme Court of Appeal analysed the provisions of chapter 6 of the Companies Act relating
to business rescue and concluded that those provisions accorded to the BRPs the authority to
represent the company in the POCA litigation. Following previous cases of this court, it was
held that ‘the facilitation of the rehabilitation of a company expressly include management of
property’ and that management should be widely construed. In the light of the provisions of
chapter 6 of the Companies Act, it was held that the directors did not have the authority to
represent the company in the POCA litigation. The appeal was dismissed. Since the directors
did not have authority to appoint the attorneys concerned to represent the company, the
company could not be held liable for the costs of the appeal and the directors were ordered to
pay those costs personally.
~~~~ends~~~~ |
1395 | non-electoral | 2010 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case no: 564/09
In the matter between:
ROGER HUGH MARGO
First Appellant
SHERIFF FOR THE DISTRICT OF RANDBURG
Second Appellant
and
TONY RICKY GARDNER
Respondent
Case no: 511/09
In the matter between:
TONY RICKY GARDNER
First Appellant
OTR MINING LIMITED
Second Appellant
and
ROGER HUGH MARGO
First Respondent
SHERIFF FOR THE DISTRICT OF RANDBURG
Second Respondent
Neutral citation:
MARGO v GARDNER
(564/09) [2010] ZASCA 110 (17 September 2010)
Coram:
HARMS DP, HEHER, SHONGWE, LEACH JJA and
EBRAHIM AJA
Heard:
31 AUGUST 2010
Delivered:
17 SEPTEMBER 2010
SUMMARY:
In duplum rule – its application – whether interest accumulates
pendente lite – meaning of its suspension and consequences
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from:
South Gauteng High Court (Johannesburg) as courts of first
instance).
The following order is made:
(1)
In case 564/09
The appeal is dismissed with costs, the appellants are ordered to pay such costs
jointly and severally, the one paying the other to be absolved.
(2)
In case 511/09
(a)
The appeal is upheld with costs; and
(b)
The order of the court a quo is set aside and substituted with the following:
‘The application is dismissed with costs.’
___________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
___________________________________________________________________
SHONGWE JA (HARMS DP, HEHER, LEACH JJA and EBRAHIM AJA concurring):
[1] This appeal concerns the application of an old common law rule known as the
in duplum rule. It means in general terms that a creditor is not entitled to claim
unpaid interest in excess of the capital outstanding. An extensive discussion of its
historical development is to be found in LTA Construction Bpk v Adminstrateur,
Transvaal 1992 (1) SA 473 (A).
[2] There are in fact two appeals similar in almost all respects which were argued
as one. The one is Gardner (appellant) against Margo (Respondent) (case no
511/09) and the other is Margo (appellant) against Gardner (Respondent) (case no
564/09). Gardner’s appeal was with the leave of this court and Margo’s with leave of
the court a quo (South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg).
[3] The appeal by Gardner is against the dismissal of his application by
Horwitz AJ. The appeal by Margo is against an order of Gyanda J. Horwitz AJ
concluded that the in duplum rule did not apply in the present instance, whereas
Gyanda J on the same set of facts concluded that the in duplum rule was applicable
and found in favour of Gardner.
[4] On 14 April 1999 Margo served a summons against Gardner (as the first
defendant) and O T R Mining Ltd (as the second defendant). Mlambo J found in
favour of Margo for the payment of the sum of approximately R15 000 000.00.
Gardner appealed against the finding to this court. The appeal succeeded and the
following order was made on 28 March 2006:
‘1.
Against the first defendant, for payment of the amount of R1 461 432 plus interest
thereon at the rate of 15,5% per annum from 1 September 1998 to date of payment.
2.
Against the second defendant, for payment of the amount of R1 461 432 plus interest
at the rate of 15,5% per annum from 1 September 1998 to date of payment, the
second defendant to be liable to make such payment only in the event that, and to
the extent that, the first defendant fails to do so.’
The said judgment is reported as Gardner & another v Margo 2006 (6) SA 33 (SCA).
[5] Pursuant to the SCA judgment Gardner made a payment of the sum of
R1 222 864 on 24 April 2006 and on 23 September 2006 a further R1 800 000. The
total paid at that stage amounted to R3 022 864. Gardner contended that after the
second payment he understood that the two payments were made in full and final
settlement of the capital (although with no proof of this). He was of the view that the
only outstanding item was the question of costs of the proceedings. This contention
was disputed by Margo.
[6] The relevant bills of costs were taxed and the respective attorneys exchanged
a series of letters between them regarding what was still owing by Gardner. The gist
of the correspondence was in respect of the calculation of the interest, as well as the
taxed bills of costs. The parties also attempted to enter into negotiations of how to
settle the issue of costs. A set-off was suggested regarding the payment of costs,
though they failed to resolve the dispute. Margo’s attorneys proposed that the
payment
of
the
outstanding
amount
must
take
place
on
or
before
23 November 2009, failing which a writ of execution would be issued. Gardner’s
attorneys made a counter proposal and advised that if the parties fail to agree they
will be forced to bring an urgent application to suspend the execution of the warrant.
As no settlement had been reached by 27 November 2007, the proposal for payment
to be made by 23 November 2007 lapsed and a writ of execution was issued.
[7] On 7 December 2007 a writ of execution was sent to Gardner’s attorneys as
well as to the Sheriff for service, claiming the sum of R185 983.00 being the balance
of the interest owing on the judgment debt, and a sum for taxed costs. (The costs
issue is not relevant in this judgment). Gardner launched an urgent application to
have the writ suspended, pending the outcome of an application for a declaratory
order that the SCA judgment had been satisfied, and for the setting aside of the writ.
On 28 February 2008 Horwitz AJ dismissed with costs the application for a
declarator, and subsequently dismissed the application for leave to appeal.
[8] On 3 October 2008 Margo caused a second writ of execution to be issued
alleging that the first one reflected incorrect amounts and was therefore withdrawn.
The second writ reflected the balance of the capital sum of R264 396.06 plus interest
thereon at the rate of 15,5% per annum calculated form 24 September 2006 to 30
September 2008 in the sum of R82 749.02 and a further interest on R264 397.06 at
15,5% per annum calculated from 1 October 2008 to date of payment. Gardner
launched another urgent application to suspend the second writ and later launched
another application to have the aforesaid writ set aside and to declare that he was
not indebted to Margo for any capital sum, interest or costs pursuant to the SCA
judgment. Gyanda J found in favour of Gardner and ordered Margo to pay to
Gardner a sum of R5 615.83 representing the amount by which he found Gardner
had overpaid and also set aside the second writ and declared that Gardner was no
longer indebted to Margo. On 23 September 2009 the High Court granted leave to
appeal to this court.
[9] I may mention that during argument before Gyanda J, counsel for Margo
raised the question whether the issues dealt with in Horwitz AJ’s judgment were not
res judicata as they were between exactly the same parties and in respect of exactly
the same facts. Gyanda J ruled that he could not decide that question due to the fact
that Horwitz AJ’s judgment had yet not been signed. In view of the conclusion I hold
in this matter it will not be necessary to deal with that question for purposes of this
judgment.
[10] Gardner’s submission was that a judgment debt accumulates interest only
until the amount thereof reaches the double of the capital amount outstanding in
terms of the judgment. He relied on Standard Bank of South Africa Ltd v Oneanate
Investments (Pty) Ltd (in liquidation) 1998 (1) SA 811 (SCA) at 827H-I, read with
page 834G-I and Commercial Bank of Zimbabwe Ltd v M M Builders and Suppliers
(Pvy) Ltd & others and three similar cases 1997 (2) SA 285 (ZH) at 303C-E. The
argument failed to have regard to the full import of Oneanate and it is wrong to state
that interest runs only (my underlining) until the amount of interest reaches the
double of the capital amount. The word ‘only’ is in my view, misplaced because in
Oneanate (after referring to the Commercial Bank case) (supra) it was held at 834H-
I:
‘that interest on the amount ordered to be paid may accumulate to the extent of that amount
irrespective of whether it contains an interest element. This would then mean that
(i) the in duplum rule is suspended pendente lite, where the lis is said to begin upon service
of the initiating process, and
(ii) once judgment has been granted, interest may run until it reaches the double of the
capital amount outstanding in terms of the judgment.’
[11] The gist of the passage quoted above is that interest does not run only until
the amount thereof reaches the double of the capital amount outstanding in terms of
the judgment but it also runs pendente lite because, as a rule, the in duplum rule is
suspended during the litigation. What appears to be clear in the present matter is
that Gardner failed to accommodate or recognize the suspension of the in duplum
rule during the period when the matter was pending before this court as envisaged in
Oneanate at page 834H-I (supra). Counsel for Gardner argued that the difference
between this appeal and the Oneanate case lies in the cause of action. The cause of
action however makes no difference in the application of the in duplum rule see LTA
Construction Bpk; (supra) Bellingan v Clive Ferreira & Associates CC 1998 (4) SA
382 (W); Meyer v Catwalk Investments 354 (Pty) Ltd 2004 (6) SA 107 (T). ‘The
prohibition on interest in duplum rule is not limited to money-lending transactions but
applies to all contracts arising from a capital sum owed, which is subject to a specific
rate of interest’ (Monica L Vessio ‘A limit on the limit on interest? The in duplum rule
and the public policy backdrop’ (2006) 39 De Jure 25 p 26-27).
[12] It is trite that the in duplum rule forms part of South African law. It is also
axiomatic that the in duplum rule prevents unpaid interest from accruing further, once
it reaches the unpaid capital amount. However, it must be borne in mind that a
creditor is not prevented by the rule from collecting more interest than double the
unpaid capital amount provided that he at no time allows the unpaid arrear interest to
reach the unpaid capital amount. On the facts of this appeal this court is not asked to
review the order of the SCA but to give effect to it as it stands. The order of the SCA
is unequivocal and does not provide for any interest ceiling. Therefore the amounts
claimed in the second writ are all due and owing by Gardner to Margo on the
strength of the SCA judgment. The purpose or basis of the in duplum rule is to
protect borrowers from exploitation by lenders who permit interest to accumulate, but
essentially also to encourage plaintiffs to issue summons and claim payment of the
debt speedily. Delays inherent in litigation cannot be laid at the door of litigants and it
would be unfair to penalize a creditor with the application of the in duplum rule while
proceedings are pending. Compare Titus v Union & SWA Insurance Co Ltd 1980 (2)
SA 701 (Tk SC) 704.
[13] I agree with counsel for Margo that
‘It must be borne in mind that when the SCA order was granted, the double capital would by
then have been reached had the in duplum rule applied throughout the period from
1 September 1998 to 27 March 2006. The interest for the period 1 September 1998 to 27
March 2006 amounted to R1 715 360.81. The interest for this period was clearly more than
double the capital amount.’
[14] Gyanda J found that the in duplum rule was applicable relying on the authority
of Oneanate. However, in my respectful view, the learned judge omitted to deal with
the position pendente lite which makes a huge difference on the application of the
rule. This led to two conflicting judgments in which both relied on one authority
namely the Oneanate case.
[15] It is because of the above reasons that I make the following order:
(1)
In case 511/09
The appeal is dismissed with costs, the appellants are ordered to pay such costs
jointly and severally, the one paying the other to be absolved.
(2)
In case 564/09
(a)
The appeal is upheld with costs; and
(b)
The order of the court a quo is set aside and substituted with the following:
‘The applications are dismissed with costs which costs are to include the ocsts
reserved on 14 October 2008.’
_________________
J SHONGWE
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
For Gardner:
Hennie M de Kock
Phlip A Myburgh
Instructed by:
Pierre Wolmarans
Manong Badenhorst Abbot van Tonder
RANDBURG
Naudes
Bloemfontein
For Margo:
Marius van Wyk
Instructed by:
Johan Dreyer
Dreyer & Nieuwoudt
RANDBURG
Symington & De Kock
Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
17 September 2010
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media
and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
MARGO v GARDNER – Case No 564/09
GARDNER v MARGO – Case No 511/09
The Supreme Court of Appeal upheld the appeal against the order of the
South Gauteng High Court (Case no 511/09) and set aside the order of the
court a quo, however, it dismissed the appeal against the order of the South
Gauteng High Court (Case no 564/09).
Gardner owed Margo a certain amount of money and the SCA in an earlier
judgment (Gardner & another v Margo 2006 (6) SA 33 (SCA)) ordered
Gardner and OTR Mining Ltd to pay Margo a certain amount plus interest
thereon at the rate of 15.5% per annum from 1 September 1998 to date of
payment. The dispute was on whether or not the in duplum rule was
applicable. Two conflicting judgments were delivered by the South Gauteng
High Court on the same set of facts. The SCA found that the in duplum rule
was applicable. In general terms it simply means that a creditor is not entitled
to claim interest in excess of the capital outstanding. The nub of the judgment
of the SCA is that the in duplum rule is suspended if and when proceedings
are pending. |
2913 | non-electoral | 2015 | SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 20044/2014
Reportable
In the matter between:
NATIONAL HEALTH LABORATORY SERVICE Appellant
and
MARIANA MAGDALENA LLOYD-JANSEN
VAN VUUREN
Respondent
Neutral citation: National Health Laboratory Service v Mariana Lloyd-
Jansen van Vuuren (20044/2014) [2015] ZASCA 20
(19 March 2015).
Coram:
Mhlantla, Shongwe and Wallis JJA and Dambuza and Mayat
AJJA
Heard:
25 February 2015
Delivered: 19 March 2015
Summary: Contract – interpretation and application of employment
agreements
–
the
obligations
under
the
two
agreements
are
interdependent.
___
ORDER
___
On appeal from: Gauteng Local Division, Johannesburg (LJ van der
Merwe AJ sitting as court of first instance):
1 The appeal is upheld with costs.
2 The order of the high court is set aside and replaced with:
„(a) It is declared that the obligation recorded in clause 3.4 of the contract
concluded on 4 January 2006 continued to exist notwithstanding the
conclusion of the subsequent employment agreement dated 16 April 2010
between the plaintiff and the defendant.
(b) It is declared that the defendant is liable to the plaintiff pursuant to the
provisions of clause 3.4 of the initial contract.
(c) The defendant is ordered to pay the costs of suit as between party and
party.‟
___
JUDGMENT
___
Mhlantla JA (Shongwe and Wallis JJA and Dambuza and Mayat
AJJA concurring):
Introduction
[1] The present dispute arose from two separate agreements concluded
between the National Health Laboratory Service (the appellant) and Dr
Mariana Magdalena Lloyd-Jansen van Vuuren (the respondent). The
respondent, a medical practitioner, wanted to become a specialist
pathologist. In order to qualify as such one has to work as a specialist
trainee1 and hold a training post within the Department of Health or at a
health laboratory in South Africa. In January 2006 the appellant
employed the respondent as a junior registrar. The parties concluded an
agreement setting out the terms of the respondent‟s training and
employment (the initial contract).
[2] The provisions relating to training are found in clause 3 of the
initial contract. The respondent was required to complete her studies for
the M.Med degree within a period of five years, be attached to the
University of the Free State and be subject to some supervision and
assessment. The parties quantified the value of the training to be provided
by the appellant and agreed that if the respondent did not work for the
appellant for a period of two years after completion of her training and
qualification as a specialist, she would re-imburse the appellant for the
training costs incurred. This meant that she would either work for the
appellant for a period of two years or pay an amount of R2 million should
she resign earlier than the stipulated period.
[3] On 1 February 2006 the respondent commenced her duties as a
junior registrar. In 2008, she was promoted to the position of a senior
registrar. She completed her studies and training before the expiry of the
five year period stipulated in the contract.
[4] In April 2010 the appellant employed the respondent as a specialist
pathologist. A contract to that effect was concluded (the second
agreement). No reference was made in this contract to the respondent‟s
1 A specialist trainee in any one of the branches of medicine including pathology has to be registered at
a university for a master of medicine degree (M.Med). Only graduates in medicine (MBChB) who have
completed the prescribed intern period and who are registered with the Health Professions Council of
South Africa are allowed to register for the M.Med programme. A specialist trainee is referred to as a
registrar.
obligation to work for the appellant for two years or pay the amount of
R2 million if she left its employ before the expiry of the stipulated period.
[5] Four months later, in July 2010, the respondent resigned. The
appellant demanded payment of the amount of R2 million from the
respondent. She refused to pay contending that the second agreement was
silent on her obligation to pay or work for the appellant for two years and
that its conclusion had terminated the initial contract and with it the
obligation to repay this amount.
[6] As a result, the appellant instituted action in the South Gauteng
High Court, Johannesburg for payment of the amount of R2 million
together with interest and costs. The matter came before LJ van der
Merwe AJ. At the commencement of the trial the parties requested the
court a quo to separate the issues relating to liability from those relating
to quantum. The judge accordingly issued an order separating the merits
from the quantum. The parties presented him with a stated case on the
merits. Consequently, no evidence was led at the trial. The court a quo
had to determine whether the conclusion of the second agreement
between the appellant and the respondent on 16 April 2010 terminated the
appellant‟s rights contained in clause 3.4 of the initial contract.
[7] The court a quo was left unpersuaded by the appellant‟s submission
that the obligation recorded in clause 3.4 of the initial contract survived
the termination of the initial contract and continued to exist after the
conclusion of the second employment agreement between the parties. The
court rejected all of the appellant‟s contentions and held that the appellant
had the opportunity to incorporate the provisions of clause 3.4 of the
initial contract into the second agreement. The court further held that the
second agreement not only replaced the initial agreement, but also
expressly recorded that the second agreement constituted the whole
agreement between the parties. The court concluded that the parties had
agreed, by virtue of the provisions of the second agreement, that the
provisions of clause 3.4 of the initial contract no longer applied.
Therefore, the court a quo dismissed the appellant‟s claim. It refused
leave to appeal and this appeal is with the leave of this court.
[8] The issues on appeal concern the interpretation and application of
the two agreements and whether the second agreement replaced the initial
contract.
Contracts
[9] It is apposite at this stage to set out in detail the relevant terms of
these contracts. In this regard, I will commence with the initial contract
(the 2006 agreement), which also covered the training of the respondent.
It was concluded on 4 January 2006. The respondent was employed as a
junior registrar with effect from 1 February 2006. The relevant details
relating to training are set out in clause 3. The respondent was subject to
an annual performance review. Her progression to the next year was
subject to evidence of satisfactory progress. She was obliged to register
with the University of the Free State for the M.Med degree and write the
requisite examinations before the expiry of the five year period. She was
also obliged to register with the Health Professions Council of South
Africa (HPCSA).
[10] The contentious clause is clause 3.4 which reads:
„On completion of the requirements for registration as a specialist with the HPCSA
the employee shall continue to work for the NHLS as a specialist pathologist for a
period of two years following specialist registration. For the purposes of this
agreement, registrar training is deemed to be worth R2 million, irrespective of the
time spent in training, the sum of which shall be worked off over a full two-year
period (24 months). Should the employee complete the first full twelve months of this
period, the employee‟s indebtedness to the NHLS shall be reduced to 75% of the full
amount owing. Should the employee not complete the two-year post-specialist
registration working requirement, the employee shall pay back to the NHLS the
amount owing in a single lump sum prior to resignation. The employer may at its
discretion cancel the indebtedness of the employee at any time.‟
[11] The remainder of the clauses related to the terms and conditions of
employment, that is, the duties of the employee, remuneration, probation
period, restraint of trade and termination of employment. The termination
clause made provision for the unilateral termination of the agreement by
either party on one calendar month‟s written notice to the other party.
[12] In so far as the second agreement was concerned, this was
concluded in April 2010, when the respondent was appointed as a
specialist pathologist. She was required to provide proof, by 30 April
2010, that she had applied for registration with the HPCSA as a specialist
pathologist. No reference was made to the obligation recorded in clause
3.4 of the initial contract. The second agreement was broadly similar to
the initial contract, but excluded clause 3 which related to the training of
the respondent. The termination clause also made provision for the
unilateral termination of the agreement by either party on one calendar
month‟s written notice to the other party.
Interpretation
[13] Our law relating to the interpretation of documents has evolved
since the earlier approach enunciated in Coopers & Lybrand & others v
Bryant2 where it was held:
„The correct approach to the application of the “golden rule” of interpretation after
having ascertained the literal meaning of the word or phrase in question is, broadly
speaking, to have regard:
(1) to the context in which the word or phrase is used with its interrelation to the
contract as a whole, including the nature and purpose of the contract, as stated by
Rumpff CJ supra;
(2) to the background circumstances which explain the genesis and purpose of the
contract, ie to matters probably present to the minds of the parties when they
contracted…;
(3) to apply extrinsic evidence regarding the surrounding circumstances when the
language of the document is on the face of it ambiguous, by considering previous
negotiations and correspondence between the parties, subsequent conduct of the
parties showing the sense in which they acted on the document, save direct
evidence of their own intentions.‟ (Citations omitted.)
[14] This court in Bothma-Batho Transport (Edms) Bpk v S Bothma &
Seun Transport (Edms) Bpk,3 reformulated the principles governing the
approach to interpretation as follows:
„Whilst the starting point remains the words of the document, which are the only
relevant medium through which the parties have expressed their contractual
intentions, the process of interpretation does not stop at a perceived literal meaning of
those words, but considers them in the light of all relevant and admissible context,
including the circumstances in which the document came into being. The former
distinction between permissible background and surrounding circumstances, never
very clear, has fallen away. Interpretation is no longer a process that occurs in stages
but is “essentially one unitary exercise”. Accordingly it is no longer helpful to refer to
the earlier approach.‟
2 Coopers & Lybrand & others v Bryant 1995 (3) SA 761 (A) at 768A-E.
3 Bothma-Batho Transport (Edms) Bpk v S Bothma & Seun Transport (Edms) Bpk 2014 (2) SA 494
(SCA) para 12.
Novation
[15] To the extent that the judgment of the court a quo was premised
upon novation, it is necessary for me to consider this aspect. There is a
presumption against novation because it involves a waiver of existing
rights. When parties novate they intend to replace a valid contract with
another valid contract. In determining whether novation has occurred, the
intention to novate is never presumed. In Acacia Mines Ltd v Boshoff,4
the court held that novation is essentially a question of intention.
[16] In Proflour (Pty) Ltd & another v Grindrod Trading (Pty) Ltd t/a
Atlas Trading and Shipping & another5 the court, when determining
whether the agreement resulted in a novation, referred to the decision of
Electric Process Engraving and Stereo Co v Irwin 1940 AD 220 at 226-
227 where the court said:
„The law on the subject was clearly enunciated as far back as 1880 in the well-known
case of Ewers v The Resident Magistrate of Oudtshoorn and Another, (Foord) 32,
where DE VILLIERS, C.J, said: “The result of the authorities is that the question is
one of intention and that, in the absence of any express declaration of the parties, the
intention to effect a novation cannot be held to exist except by way of necessary
inference from all the circumstances of the case.”‟
It follows that in order to establish whether novation has occurred, the
court is entitled to have regard to the conduct of the parties, including any
evidence relating to their intention.
[17] It was submitted before us, on behalf of the respondent, that both
contracts could not exist simultaneously. It was contended that clause 3.4
of the initial contract should have been incorporated into the second
4 Acacia Mines Ltd v Boshoff 1958 (4) SA 330 (A) at 337D.
5 Proflour (Pty) Ltd & another v Grindrod Trading (Pty) Ltd t/a Atlas Trading and Shipping & another
[2010] 2 All SA 510 (KZD) para 10.
agreement. In the circumstances of this case, novation had occurred and
the second agreement had replaced the initial contract in toto, so the
argument went.
[18] I do not agree with this submission. The interpretation contended
for by the respondent is contrary to the background circumstances of the
matter and the intention of the parties. In this regard, I respectfully
disagree with the reasoning of the court a quo. In applying the above
mentioned legal principles to the facts of this matter, it is evident that the
two contracts served different purposes. The initial contract was primarily
concerned with the training of the respondent. The parties agreed on the
value of the training so as to avoid any dispute should the respondent
resign after qualifying as a specialist. The first sentence in clause 3.4
conferred some rights and obliged both parties to perform. On the one
hand, the appellant undertook to employ the respondent upon qualifying
as a pathologist whilst she undertook to work for the appellant for two
years or to re-imburse the appellant if she did not do so. Clause 3.4 also
provided that irrespective of the time spent in training, which included
completion of the training in a shorter time period, the respondent
undertook to work for a further two years, failing that, to pay the amount
of R2 million to the appellant.
[19] Clauses 1.1 and 3.4 of the initial contract determined and regulated
any future employment relationship between the parties. The respondent
was obliged to recompense the appellant in respect of the moneys
expended towards her training, either by rendering her services to the
appellant for a specified period or by repaying the full amount spent on
her training. This is what the parties agreed to do and they concluded an
agreement to that effect. These undertakings are therefore binding on the
parties.
[20] It is common cause that the respondent received training with the
financial assistance of the appellant. The appellant complied with its
obligation by employing the respondent in April 2010. This is the
contract in terms of which both parties would perform in order to comply
with their obligations set out in clause 3.4. This agreement was purely an
employment contract of the respondent as a specialist pathologist. The
conclusion of the second agreement constituted the implementation of the
two-year employment obligation following registration of the respondent
as a specialist as undertaken in clause 3.4 of the initial contract. The
second agreement was accordingly a continuation of the initial contract,
in that the respondent was now employed as a specialist pathologist,
something envisaged in clause 3.4. This contract did not vary or cancel
the obligations imposed by the initial contract. In the result novation did
not occur. The indebtedness of the respondent in terms of the initial
contract could never be extinguished by the conclusion of the second
agreement.
[21] Lastly, it was submitted on behalf of the respondent that the
termination clause in the second agreement was in conflict with clause
3.4 of the initial contract. Any reliance on this clause is misplaced. It has
to be borne in mind that the notice period was a standard term. The
argument loses sight of the fact that both agreements contained the
termination clauses and these were identical. There is nothing peculiar in
having such a term. The only logical conclusion is that the respondent
could terminate the agreement subject to the provisions of clause 3.4.
[22] It follows that clause 3.4 of the initial contract is still in operation
and that the indebtedness of the respondent towards the appellant remains
notwithstanding the conclusion of the second agreement. This clause
could only be cancelled by the appellant and this was not done. The
appeal must therefore succeed.
[23] In the result the following order is made:
1 The appeal is upheld with costs.
2 The order of the high court is set aside and replaced with:
„(a) It is declared that the obligation recorded in clause 3.4 of the contract
concluded on 4 January 2006 continued to exist notwithstanding the
conclusion of the subsequent employment agreement dated 16 April 2010
between the plaintiff and the defendant.
(b) It is declared that the defendant is liable to the plaintiff pursuant to the
provisions of clause 3.4 of the initial contract.
(c) The defendant is ordered to pay the costs of suit as between party and
party.‟
__________________
NZ MHLANTLA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
For Appellant:
R Ram
Instructed by:
Shepstone & Wylie Attorneys, Sandton
Matsepes Inc, Bloemfontein
For Respondent:
S Snyman
Instructed by:
Snyman Attorneys, Houghton
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
19 March 2015
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form part of
the judgment.
National Health Laboratory Service v Mariana Magdalena Lloyd-Jansen Van Vuuren
(20044/2014) [2015] ZASCA 20
MEDIA STATEMENT
Today, the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld an appeal against a decision of the Gauteng
Local Division, Johannesburg.
The issue before the SCA was whether the conclusion of an employment contract between the
appellant and the respondent had the effect of novating (i.e. completely extinguishing) a previously
concluded training and employment contract, with the result that all rights and obligations arising from
that previous contract would also be extinguished.
The respondent, Ms van Vuuren, was a medical doctor who, as part of the process of further
qualifying as a specialist pathologist, in 2006 entered into a training and employment contract (the
initial contract) with the appellant, the National Health Laboratory Service. The initial contract set out
the respondent’s training regime and required her, once she had qualified as a pathologist, to work in
that capacity for the appellant for a period of two years. The contract further provided that should she
fail to work for this period, she would reimburse the appellant for the expenses incurred in her
training. This amount was quantified in the contract as R2 million.
In 2010, the respondent qualified as a pathologist, and the appellant employed her in that role in
terms of a new employment contract (the second contract). This second contract made no mention of
the obligation to work for the appellant for two years or the R2 million penalty in the event she
resigned earlier than the stipulated period. After four months, the respondent resigned and refused to
pay the penalty, contending that the conclusion of the second contract had terminated the initial
contract including the penalty provision.
The appellant then instituted action in the Gauteng Local Division, Johannesburg for payment of the
R2 million. The high court, ruling on the merits, found in favour of the respondent.
On appeal, the SCA held that this was a matter of interpretation of the two contracts. This court noted
that the contracts must be interpreted in the light of all relevant and admissible context, including the
circumstances in which the documents came into being. The SCA also referred to an established
principle that novation will never be presumed by the court.
Upon consideration of whether the requisite intention to novate could be inferred from all the available
evidence, the SCA rejected the respondent’s interpretation on the basis that it was contrary to the
background circumstances of the contracts. This court held that it was evident that the contracts
served different purposes and could exist simultaneously and without conflict. Thus it was held that
novation had not occurred.
In the result, the SCA upheld the appeal and set aside the order of the high court. It issued a
declarator that the obligation recorded in clause 3.4 of the contract concluded on 4 January 2006
continued to exist notwithstanding the conclusion of the employment agreement dated 16 April 2010
between the appellant and the respondent. The court further declared the respondent liable to the
appellant pursuant to the provisions of the relevant clause.
-- ends --- |
2751 | non-electoral | 2012 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 36/11
In the matter between:
Reportable
NORTHERN METROPOLITAN LOCAL COUNCIL Appellant
and
COMPANY UNIQUE FINANCE (Pty) Ltd
First Respondent
FIRST NATIONAL BANK OF
SOUTHERN AFRICA LIMITED
Second Respondent
JOHANNES JACOBUS DU PLESSIS
Third Respondent
Neutral citation: Northern Metropolitan Local Council v Company Unique Finance
(36/11) [2012] ZASCA 66 (21 May 2012)
Coram:
MPATI P, CLOETE, SNYDERS and BOSIELO JJA and NDITA AJA
Heard:
21 February 2012
Delivered:
21 May 2012
Summary: Estoppel – by conduct – whether council estopped from denying
authority of one of its many employees – authority of one
employee to tell the world that his subordinate had authority to
bind council – employees lowly ranked in overall structure of
council – no evidence of trappings of positions held –
impression gained by third party on seniority of employees
during visits to council premises not one created by employees’
appointments – no liability attaching to council.
_______________________________________________________________________
ORDER
_____________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg (Blieden J sitting as court of
first instance).
1 The appeal succeeds with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
2 Paragraphs a, b and c of the order of the court below are set aside and replaced with the
following:
‘The plaintiffs’ claims against the first defendant are dismissed with costs, including the
costs of two counsel.’
_______________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
_____________________________________________________________________
MPATI P (CLOETE, SNYDERS and BOSIELO JJA, and NDITA AJA CONCURRING):
[1] The third respondent, Mr Johannes Du Plessis (Du Plessis) was, at all times
relevant to the issues in this matter, employed by the appellant as a superintendent in its
security services department. On 30 October 1998 he signed an agreement, purportedly
on behalf of the appellant, in terms of which the appellant would rent from the first
respondent – which formerly traded as Compufin Finance – a Sharp photocopying
machine at a monthly rental of R12 009.90 over a period of 60 months.1 (For convenience
I shall refer to the first respondent as ‘Compufin’.) Two further rental agreements were
signed by Du Plessis, purportedly on behalf of the appellant, in terms of which the latter
would rent, from Compufin, radio phones and radio stations, respectively, at a rental of
R77 520 per month in respect of each agreement over a period of 60 months.2 The
equipment was delivered to the appellant’s security services section, but on 19 March
1999 and in circumstances which shall become apparent later in this judgment, the
1 The agreement was signed on behalf of Compufin Finance on 2 December 1998.
appellant’s Strategic Executive: Corporate Services, Mr Rudolph Bosman (Bosman),
wrote
a letter to Compufin advising that the appellant ‘was unaware of [the three agreements]’;3
that it had at no stage authorised the relevant transactions and that they were accordingly
null and void. Bosman also demanded payment of the total amount of R232 560, which
appeared to him to represent three payments of R77 520 each made by the appellant ‘via
bank debit orders on 15 February 1999, 22 February 1999 and 15 March 1999 respectively
. . .’.
[2] Compufin and the second respondent, First National Bank, to whom Compufin had
ceded all its rights, title and interest in the third agreement, subsequently issued summons
against the appellant and Du Plessis as first and second defendants respectively, claiming
payment, from the appellant, of the sums of R971 703.96 and R6 272 032.80 to Compufin
in respect of the first and second agreements4, and R6 272 032.80 to the second
respondent in respect of the third agreement as damages for breach of contract. In the
alternative and in the event that Du Plessis did not have the requisite authority to sign the
agreements on behalf of the appellant, Compufin claimed from the appellant and Du
Plessis, jointly and severally, payment of the sum of R6 861 816.29 as delictual damages
suffered by it as a result of Du Plessis falsely representing that he had such authority. Du
Plessis’s false representation, so it was alleged in the particulars of claim, was intended to,
and did in fact induce Compufin ‘to pay the price of the equipment to the supplier thereof
so as to supply the equipment to the [appellant’s] employees and officials’.
[3] In its plea the appellant denied liability and specifically denied that Du Plessis was
authorised by it to sign the rental agreements. To this the respondents replicated and
pleaded, in the alternative, that the appellant had represented that Du Plessis had
authority and that it was therefore estopped from denying his authority. On the other hand,
Du Plessis denied, in his plea, that he did not have the necessary authority to conclude
2 The two agreements were signed on behalf of Compufin on 21 January 1999.
3 The latter refers to ‘four purported agreements’, which is an obvious error.
4 The agreement in respect of the radio phones is referred to as the second agreement and the one in
the first and second agreements and pleaded that he did have the authority to do so. It
appears from the judgment of the court a quo (Blieden J), however, that after all the
evidence was led and after each of the parties had closed their cases, it was conceded on
behalf of the respondents that Du Plessis lacked actual authority to conclude the rental
agreements. At the stage of argument before Blieden J, therefore, and indeed in this court,
the only issue to be decided was whether the appellant had created the impression that Du
Plessis was authorised to conclude the agreements on its behalf, thus clothing him with
ostensible authority.
[4] Having found that Compufin’s witnesses had ‘made it clear that as far as they were
concerned they were not relying on any representation made by Du Plessis, but on a
proper and acceptable resolution confirming Du Plessis’s authority to sign the three
contracts on behalf of the [appellant]’, Blieden J concluded that Compufin ‘cannot succeed
in a [delictual] claim for damages against Du Plessis. . . ’. He accordingly dismissed
Compufin’s claim against Du Plessis with costs, but granted the contractual claims against
the appellant (albeit in slightly lesser amounts) with interest and costs on the scale as
between attorney and client (as provided for in the contracts), including costs of two
counsel. It is the order made in favour of the respondents against the appellant that is the
subject of this appeal, which is before us with leave of the court below.
[5] It would be convenient, at this stage, to set out some facts, which appear to be
common cause or undisputed. Corporate services, of which Bosman was the Strategic
Executive, is one of seven clusters within the appellant. Within corporate services there
are seven sub-clusters, one of which is security services. Each of the sub-clusters is
headed by an Executive Officer. Mr Billy Mosiane (Mosiane) was the security sub-cluster’s
Executive Officer. At a level below him were the positions of two managers, one for
operations and the other for strategic services. Yet a level below the managers was the
position of senior superintendent, which was occupied by a Mr Wimpie van Wyk (Van
Wyk). Du Plessis’s position of superintendent was a level below Van Wyk and the latter
respect of the radio stations as the third agreement.
was his immediate superior. A superintendent was one level above the lowest rank in the
security sub-cluster, namely that of a security guard and law enforcement officer.
Mosiane, Van Wyk and Du Plessis were, according to Bosman, housed in a building
known as the Metro Building, separate and diagonally across the street from the
appellant’s main offices.
[6] Du Plessis testified that during 1998 (he could not remember the date) he met two
ladies, Ms Ilse Krause (Krause) and Ms Karen Willemse (Willemse), who sought from him
directions to the office of the Strategic Executive: Finance. After he had directed them and
since they had introduced themselves to him as ‘salespersons of office equipment’ he
requested from them a business card. He was interested in procuring a photocopy
machine (photocopier) for the security department, because they had had to make copies
of documents containing private and confidential information at other departments. This,
according to him, posed a security risk. The following day he telephoned Krause and
requested an interview with her. She obliged and after the interview she introduced him to
Mr Jeff Rahme (Rahme) of Jeff Rahme Consultancy. It is not in dispute that Rahme was
an approved broker who discounted various agreements to Compufin and that Krause and
Willimse were the owners of a company known as Africon. (I shall henceforth refer to them
collectively as the Africon owners.) There was an understanding between Compufin,
Rahme and the Africon owners that when Africon had a sale agreement for which they
required financing, the sale would be processed through Jeff Rahme Consultancy for
discounting with Compufin. This was because Africon was not an approved broker with
Compufin, although the Africon owners were, according to Mr Deon Blighnaut (Blighnaut),
the advances manager at Compufin at the relevant time, well-known to Mr Anthony
McLintock (McLintock) who was Compufin’s managing director.
[7] Du Plessis testified further that after he had been shown a brochure, by Rahme, of
Sharp photocopiers with all the necessary accessories he introduced the Africon owners to
his superiors, Van Wyk and Mosiane. He said that the Africon owners ‘requested that
we enter into an agreement with African Bank that would enable us to get the mentioned
photocopier’. Van Wyk instructed him, so he testified, to purchase the photocopier after he
had told the Africon owners that he (Van Wyk) and Mosiane would not be available as they
were to attend a security conference for a certain period.5 Van Wyk ‘signed a resolution
which gave [him] signing powers with [the Africon owners]’. A few days after he had signed
the agreement for the rental, the photocopier was delivered by Rahme in the presence of
both Van Wyk and Mosiane. The photocopier was installed in his office so as to avoid it
being abused. This was on the instructions of Van Wyk.
[8] During the installation of the photocopier and having seen a radio supplier’s
business card on Du Plessis’s desk, Rahme asked him if he was looking for a radio
system. His response was that the security department wanted to upgrade their current
security system. Rahme responded that he was selling a brand new system which
comprised radio communication, cellular phone accessibility and a tracking unit. By then
Du Plessis knew, having been told this by Mosiane, that the life of one of the appellant’s
councillors had been threatened and that the councillor concerned had requested
protection from the security department. He saw this as an opportunity and later contacted
Rahme and requested him ‘to get the necessary documentation and authorisation in place
in order for him to supply me with the radio phones’. After he had signed the necessary
documents the radio phones were delivered to the appellant’s premises. He ordered a Mr
Frikkie Strauss, who worked in the stores, to issue the radios ‘to all the security personnel’.
A while later Mosiane telephoned him and summoned him to the office of one of the
councillors, Councillor Nathan Jacobs (Councillor Jacobs), with a radio phone. There
Mosiane ordered him to issue the radio phone to Councillor Jacobs.
[9] The three rental agreements signed by Du Plessis contained a debit order
authorisation which he also signed. The signed debit order authorised monthly payments
to be made from the appellant’s bank account with Trust Bank in respect of each of the
5 During his testimony Mosiane confirmed that he and Van Wyk attended a security conference over the
period 26 to 30 October 1998.
three agreements to Compufin or its cessionary. It is common cause that a total amount of
R60 049.42, including VAT, was paid in respect of the first agreement and R232 560 in
respect of the second agreement. However, the amount of R232 560, including VAT was
subsequently reversed and credited to the appellant’s bank account.
[10] Du Plessis’s purchasing spree came to an end in about February 1999 when he
sought to make further purchases totalling R10.5 million. It appears from the evidence of
Mr Alexander Maclean (Maclean), head of the vendor finance division of Wesbank at the
time of these transactions, that the radio phones and radio stations delivered to the
appellant’s security clusters as mentioned above did not comprise the complete package.
Wesbank were approached by Compufin to finance the balance of the package, ie the
entire security system to the value of R10.5 million. In a facsimile letter dated 15 February
1999 addressed to the appellant for the attention of Mr C Lehmkuhl (Lehmkuhl), who was
a manager in the finance cluster, Maclean wrote:
‘…
The Rental Agreement [for 30 base stations and 300 radios] has been signed by Mr. J Du Plessis
under authority of a resolution signed by Mr. W van Wyk (Head Manager: Services).
In order that we may satisfy ourselves that these gentlemen are authorised to transact on behalf of
the Council we understand that the only department that would be in a position to authorise
expenditure of this nature is the finance department.
This information has been given to us by Mr. Basie Lombard of the Greater Johannesburg Metro
Council … who has suggested that we need to get the following information directly from the head
of the Finance Department at you Randburg offices:
*
Written authority whereby the Council has agreed to the renting of such equipment. I
understand that this would have been a part of the budget for the security services
department.
*
Confirmation from the Finance Department that Mr. van Wyk has the necessary authority
to authorise Mr. Du Plessis to sign rental agreements.
. . .’
After certain correspondence had passed between Maclean and Rahme, who desperately
tried to convince the former that all was in order, a meeting was held on 18 March 1999 at
the appellant’s premises, where the Africon owners , Rahme, Bosman, two internal
auditors of the appellant and representatives of Wesbank (including Maclean) and
Compufin were present. It was at that meeting that Bosman advised all present that neither
Van Wyk nor Du Plessis had been authorised to sign the agreements on behalf of the
appellant. Following the meeting Bosman wrote the letter of 19 March 1999 referred to in
para 1 above, in which the addressees were advised that the three agreements were null
and void.
[11] At the meeting just referred to above Blighnaut and Mr Christo Olivier, an employee
in the internal audit section of the appellant, were appointed to investigate and establish,
jointly, the true position relating to the transactions. Those present at the meeting were
also informed that Du Plessis had been suspended because he had had no authority to
bind the appellant and to conclude the agreements on its behalf. A disciplinary enquiry was
subsequently held, chaired by Bosman, at which Du Plessis was charged with misconduct,
it being alleged that he, inter alia, had conducted himself in a disgraceful, unbecoming or
dishonest manner prejudicial to the good and proper working of the appellant’s service. He
was found guilty and the disciplinary committee recommended his dismissal.
[12] It is common cause that the resolution which purportedly authorised Du Plessis to
conclude the rental agreements on behalf of the appellant was signed by Van Wyk on an
official letterhead of the appellant. It was signed, on the face of it, on 26 November 1998.
The resolution purports to be an extract from a meeting of the appellant held at Randburg
on 26 November 1998. Its relevant portion reads:
‘RESOLVED: “That the Hirer enters into a Rental Agreement with Compufin Finance (Pty) Ltd for
the renting of the device as specified in the Transaction Schedule and any further
Transaction Schedule(s) upon such terms and conditions as are usually applicable
to Rental Agreements and as may be agreed upon.”
That Mr. J du Plessis in his capacity as Manager of the Hirer be and is hereby
authorised to sign, endorse and execute all documents for and on behalf of the
Hirer to give effect to this resolution.’
Beneath the resolution and to the right of the page appears Van Wyk’s signature, below
which are his full names: Willem van Wyk, and the capacity in which he appended his
signature, viz ‘HEAD OF SECURITY’. To the left of Van Wyk’s signature is the date 26
November 1998, written in manuscript and beneath it is an imprint of the appellant’s official
date stamp.
[13] During his cross-examination Du Plessis testified that he never saw Van Wyk sign
the resolution, nor did he see him give it (the document containing the resolution) to the
Africon owners, although he knew that ‘[t]hey needed a document to say that I had signing
power . . .’. He knew that at one stage they went to see Van Wyk without him. (He had
taken them to him on a previous occasion.) But since he was giving evidence eleven years
after the event he said he was unable to remember the date on which the Africon owners
went to see Van Wyk – it could have been 26 November 1998. The Africon owners
subsequently brought to him the documents relating to the first agreement, which he
signed.
[14] The process followed by Compufin upon receiving a proposal for financing from a
broker was set out by McLintock, who testified that he was involved in the second and third
agreements, as follows:
‘What would then happen, this would then go to our credit department who would then forward that
information to the various financial institutions who[m] [we] had facilities with. After . . . examining
who it was for, they would then come back to us and request certain information before they would
be able to approve the deal. They would talk about a resolution, probably talk balance sheet,
insurance information, a copy of a cancelled cheque, a debit order, various aspects that the banks
would ask for. So our credit control committee would then evaluate the information. This would
then
be sent to the banks, who would then in turn evaluate the information they requested. Thereupon,
if
they are happy with all the information, they would then approve the deal and send us a deal
approved.’
Compufin would then consult with the supplier, who would receive payment after the
equipment had been delivered. When asked what authority was required as part of the
standard procedure McLintock said:
‘Well, depending upon the clients, a resolution would be required, copies of minutes of meetings
would be required, in other words where the topics of discussion were actually discussed in the
meetings. But a resolution confirming that the person signing the agreement had the capacity to
contract. This would have to be on an original document.’
[15] The extent of McLintock’s involvement in the second and third agreements was to
attend a meeting at the appellant’s premises. He testified that at the meeting the appellant
was represented by four people, to whom he referred as ‘delegates from the council’.
These were Du Plessis, Van Wyk and ‘two African gentlemen’ whose names he could not
remember. He later said he thought one of them was Mosiane. The objective of the
meeting ‘was to discuss exactly what they were doing regarding the two-way radios’.
According to him the appellant’s employees ‘came up with a very good cost justification
and the reasons why [the appellant] required these radios, we then obviously put a
process into action to finance the specific deals and discount the deals with various
financial institutions’.
[16] Mr Eric Lundberg (Lundberg), who had been employed at Compufin as advances
manager, but later moved to head the credit committee at African Bank, also testified to a
meeting he had with either Van Wyk or Du Plessis at their office at the appellant’s
premises. He had gone to that meeting with McLintock ‘to go and obtain the financial
information that we needed and also to form my own personal thing to verify that there was
in fact a deal in the offing’. He said his involvement ‘was purely to obtain credit information
so that a submission could be made’. At the meeting he was handed a balance sheet
reflecting the financial details of the appellant’s security department.
[17] Blighnaut signed the third agreement on behalf of Compufin. He testified, however,
that he would have been involved in organising the financing of the other two agreements
approved. The approval for each was given by African Bank and Wesbank, a division of
the second respondent. He said he had satisfied himself that the requirements in respect
of all three agreements were met for further transmission to the banks. Blighnaut said he
was the person at Compufin who had to be satisfied that the requirements were met,
including a proper resolution. When asked during his evidence-in-chief whether he would
have approved the second and third agreements without a separate resolution he
answered in the affirmative ‘because we have got a resolution on the first agreement that
was done in November with Mr Du Plessis’s signature and confirming that he can do a
specific and any future transactions for the security division’. He thus relied on the original
document signed by Van Wyk and dated 26 November 1998. It will be recalled that the
second and third agreements were concluded in January 1999.
[18] Importantly, Blighnaut testified that in respect of all three transactions he received
all documentation from Willemse and Rahme and the resolution from Rahme. He was
never given any documents by any of the appellant’s officials. He also agreed that the
persons who signed the documents as witnesses for the appellant’s signatory were the
Africon owners. He met Du Plessis when the latter called at Compufin to sign the debit
orders for the second and third transactions.
[19] Ms Susan Hall (Hall), who was at the relevant time an assistant advances manager
with Compufin, signed the second agreement on behalf of Compufin. Her duties were to
ensure that everything that was required for approval of a deal by the discounting bank or
financial institution was in order. Hall testified that she would not have signed the
agreement if she had not been satisfied with the required resolution authorising Du Plessis
as signatory for the appellant. She said the resolution was on an original letterhead and
there was no reason for her ‘to question that it was not legal’. It contained the standard
wording used in the industry and the banking environment and at Compufin. There was
therefore no reason for her to be suspicious.
[20] Another witness for the respondents, Ms Alet McTaggart, did not take the matter
any further. She was an administrator with Compufin and her function was to check if all
the documentation was in order, including a resolution authorising a signatory to a
contract. Once she had done that the documentation would be passed on to Compufin’s
signatory. She also testified that she appended her signature on the first agreement as a
witness to the signature of a Mr Pete Hopwood (Hopwood), who signed the agreement on
behalf of Compufin. Hopwood, however, was not called as a witness.
[21] Besides Bosman, six more witnesses testified for the appellant, namely Ms Maria
Renney (Renney) who was the appellant’s committee officer, Mr Alwyn Nortjé (Nortjé), a
legal advisor, Mr Patrick Lephunya (Lephunya), the acting Chief Executive Officer, Ms
Rashida Albertus, Mosiane and Councillor Jacobs. (I shall refer to the evidence of these
other witnesses only when it is necessary to do so.) As was observed by the court a quo,
Bosman was the most important witness. He testified that the appellant was governed in
terms of legislative enactments which determined how the appellant’s affairs had to be
conducted. The full Council, which comprised elected Councillors, was the appellant’s
highest decision making body. Immediately below the Council was the Executive
Committee, which was also a decision making body in the absence of a Council meeting.
The Executive Committee appointed a number of portfolio committees. The administration
was headed by the acting Chief Executive Officer, Lephunya, and below him were the
clusters and sub-clusters referred to above.
[22] According to Bosman none of the appellant’s officials had the power, in their
individual capacities, to bind it without specific authorisation. The full Council, at its
meetings, was the only body that could authorise expenditure. In cases of lesser
expenditure the Executive Committee, a body appointed by the full Council, could give the
authorisation. Where individual officials sought to bind the appellant a member of the
public could telephone the legal department for verification of the official’s authority to act
on behalf of the appellant.
[23] In the respondents’ heads of argument the question was posed whether Van Wyk
had actual authority, or ostensible authority, to indicate to outsiders the contents of
resolutions of the appellant. Before us counsel for the respondents submitted that Van
Wyk had actual authority to pass information regarding persons with authority to sign
documents on behalf of, and to bind, the appellant.
[24] Actual authority may be express or implied. In Hely-Hutchinson v Brayhead Ltd &
another6 (referred to with approval in NBS Bank Ltd v Cape Produce Co (Pty) Ltd & other)7
Lord Denning MR expressed himself thus:
‘[Actual authority] is express when it is given by express words, such as when a board of directors
pass a resolution which authorises two of their number to sign cheques. It is implied when it is
inferred from the conduct of the parties and the circumstances of the case, such as when the board
of directors appoint one of their number to be managing director. They thereby impliedly authorise
him to do all such things as fall within the usual scope of that office. Actual authority, express or
implied, is binding as between the company and the agent, and also as between the company and
others, whether they are within the company or outside it.’
In support of his contention that Van Wyk had actual authority counsel for the respondents
referred to the evidence of Nortjé, who was employed by the appellant as a legal advisor.
Nortjé agreed during cross-examination that there was no sign on Du Plessis’s office door,
or on Mosiane’s, to alert a member of the public to Du Plessis’s lack of authority to bind the
appellant. He testified, however, that an official who would be approached by a member of
the public ‘certainly has a duty of care to inform the visitor . . . that he does not have that
authority’. When asked whether the appellant relied on its own officials to warn
6 Hely-Hutchinson v Brayhead Ltd & another [1968] 1 QB 549 (CA); [1967] 3 All ER 98.
7 NBS Bank Ltd v Cape Produce Co (Pty) Ltd & others 2002 (1) SA 396 (SCA) ([2002] 2 All SA 262) para
24.
the public on the limitation of their authority Nortjé responded:
‘Yes but I must say [the] public most certainly also know that the council operates under delegation
of powers, I mean everybody knows that.’
He said that an ordinary businessman who wanted to conclude an ordinary photocopier
deal ‘would rely heavily on that official that he is dealing with and that official has a duty of
care to explain exactly the inner workings of the council and not sign agreements well
knowing that he does not have authority’.
[25] Counsel also referred to the testimony of Renney who also agreed that a member of
the public dealing with a particular cluster or sub-cluster ‘could expect to ask a senior
person in the cluster as regards whether there had been a resolution or not and [that] he
[the member of the public] would expect that [senior] person to answer’ and that the
member of the public would trust that answer. Reference was also made to the evidence of
Bosman, who said the channel of communication about what had been decided higher up
in the appellant’s structures would be vested in senior officials of the security sub-cluster
who would be expected to tell members of the public as to whether or not they had
authority.
[26] What does emerge from the evidence referred to is, in my view, that an official of
the appellant had a duty, when the issue of authority came up, to tell the truth to members
of the public as to who had authority to bind the appellant. Non constat, however, that a
failure to tell the truth or the deliberate forgery of a document containing an untruth would
render the appellant liable were a member of the public to contract on the basis of the
truth of what was conveyed by the official. As to Van Wyk, there was no evidence to the
effect that the signing of documents containing resolutions and extracts from the
appellant’s Council meetings fell within the scope of the position to which he had been
appointed, viz senior superintendent, nor of the position of acting manager, which Du
Plessis suggested he held at the relevant time. It follows that it was never established as a
fact that Van Wyk had actual authority to tell the world, by signing the document
concerned, that Du Plessis had authority to bind the appellant.
[27] As I have alluded to above, the only issue the court a quo had to determine, which
is also the issue in this appeal, was whether the respondents proved their case against the
appellant based on the ostensible authority of Du Plessis and Van Wyk. In Hely-
Hutchinson Lord Denning MR said this on the subject:
‘Ostensible or apparent authority is the authority of an agent as it appears to others. It often
coincides with actual authority. Thus, when the board appoint one of their number to be managing
director, they invest him not only with implied authority, but also with ostensible authority to do all
such things as fall within the usual scope of that office. Other people who see him acting as
managing director are entitled to assume that he has the usual authority of a managing director.
But sometimes ostensible authority exceeds actual authority. For instance, when the board appoint
the managing director, they may expressly limit his authority by saying he is not to order goods
worth more than £500 without the sanction of the board. In that case his actual authority is subject
to the £500 limitation, but his ostensible authority includes all the usual authority of a managing
director. The company is bound by his ostensible authority in his dealings with those who do not
know of the limitation.’
Thus, where a principal (representor) has created an impression in another’s mind –
though such impression might be wrong – that his or her agent (employee) has the
requisite authority to transact on his or her behalf he or she will be held liable under that
transaction.8
[28] In order to hold the appellant liable on the basis of ostensible authority the
respondents had to prove the following:
(a) A representation by words or conduct.
(b) Made by the appellant and not merely by Du Plessis and/or Van Wyk that they had
authority to act as they did.
8 Cf NBS Bank, fn 7 above, para 25.
(c) A representation in a form such that the appellant should reasonably have expected
that outsiders would act on the strength of it.
(d) Reliance by the respondents on the representation.
(e) The reasonableness of such reliance.
(f) Consequent prejudice to the respondents.9
[29] With reference to the first two requirements Nienaber JA said the following in
Glofinco v Absa Bank Ltd t/a United Bank:10
‘A representation, it was emphasised in both the NBS cases supra, must be rested in the words or
conduct of the principal himself and not only merely in that of his agent (NBS Ltd v Cape Produce
Co (Pty) Ltd (supra at 411H-I)). Assurances by an agent as to the existence or extent of his
authority are therefore of no consequence when it comes to the representation of the principal
inducing a third party to act to his detriment.’11
It is common cause that the document containing the resolution was fraudulent: no such
resolution was passed by the appellant’s Council on 26 November 1998, nor on any other
day. Secondly, the alleged capacity in which Van Wyk signed the document was false; he
never held the position of Head of Security. But these representations by Van Wyk, that is
that the appellant’s Council had passed the resolution; that he held the position of Head of
Security and that he had authority to tell the world as to who had authority to sign contracts
on behalf of the appellant, are not the issue. Neither is Du Plessis’s representation that he
had signing powers. The issue is whether the appellant made any representation, by word
or conduct, which induced the respondents to act to their detriment by concluding the
agreements with Du Plessis. I proceed to deal with that issue.
[30] There is no evidence that any official in the security sub-cluster of the appellant had
9 See NBS Bank Ltd fn 7 above, para 26.
10 Glofinco v Absa Bank Ltd t/a United Bank 2002 (6) SA 470 (SCA).
11 Para 13.
authority to bind the appellant to any extent, other than, possibly, making small purchases
for daily necessities. Indeed, the uncontested evidence of Bosman on this aspect is to the
contrary. The question whether the transactions on which the respondents rely can be said
to fall within the parameters of ordinary security sub-cluster activities or procurement
transactions12 does not arise. As was said in Glofinco, no representation is made if the
representee is aware that the transaction he is engaging in is not of the kind a particular
official will ordinarily transact with an outsider.13 When invited to clarify as to what the
alleged representation relied upon was, counsel for the respondents listed four factors,
namely (a) the resolution; (b) two face-to-face meetings at the appellant’s offices which
certain representatives of one or both respondents had with what counsel referred to as
‘very senior officials’ of the appellant who were clothed with authority; (c) that Lephunya,
the appellant’s acting Chief Executive Officer, had been party to negotiations and thus,
being aware of the negotiations, there was representation by silence; and (d) a number of
factors mentioned by Blieden J in paragraph 81 of his judgment, with which counsel
agreed.
[31] All the respondents’ witnesses who handled the documentation relating to the three
transactions were clear in their testimony that they were moved to perform whatever
function they had to perform regarding the transactions once they had satisfied themselves
that a proper resolution was in place authorising the signatory to bind the appellant.
Although it is not clear from the evidence who signed the first agreement on behalf of
Compufin, Blighnaut said he would have dealt with it and that he would have been satisfied
with the resolution. He was the person who had to be satisfied that all the requirements
were met, including a proper resolution. He signed the third agreement after
he had satisfied himself that the necessary requirements were met. Hall, who signed the
second agreement on behalf of Compufin, said she would not have signed the agreement
if she had not been satisfied with the resolution authorising Du Plessis as the appellant’s
signatory. Clearly, the meetings that were attended by Lundberg and McLintock at the
appellant’s premises played no part in their (Blighnaut and Hall’s) decision to sign and
12 Cf Glofinco v Absa Bank, fn 9 above, para 20.
13 Ibid.
conclude the agreements between Compufin and the appellant. They are the
representatives of Compufin to whom the representation would have been made. Counsel
for the respondents submitted that the representation was made to Blighnaut, Hall and
Hopwood.
[32] As to the meetings that took place at the appellant’s premises McLintock merely
wished to satisfy himself not with Du Plessis’s or Van Wyk’s authority but with a cost
justification for the radios and the reasons why they were required. Similarly, Lundberg
wanted to satisfy himself that the appellant (or security sub-cluster) would be able to pay
for the equipment and not to ascertain who had authority to sign documents on behalf of
the appellant. Counsel contended that these meetings were with ‘very senior officials’ in
the security sub-cluster. Apart from the fact that Du Plessis was only one level above the
lowest rank and Van Wyk one level above him in the security sub-cluster, positions that
can hardly be categorised as ‘very senior,’14 there is no evidence that anything that came
out of the meetings in any way influenced those who signed the agreements on behalf of
Compufin. The impression that Lundberg and/or McLintock gained about the seniority of
Du Plessis and Van Wyk and any other employee of the appellant who might have been
present at the meetings cannot be placed at the door of appellant, who had employed
them at almost the lowest ranks in its administration, even in its security sub-cluster.
[33] Lephunya’s evidence took the matter no further. The sum total of his involvement
was his becoming aware of the security sub-cluster’s desire to procure radio phones when
a report on the matter was placed on the agenda of the Executive Committee for approval
by it. The report was withdrawn from the agenda by Bosman and Lephunya had nothing
further to do with the matter. There is no evidence of his involvement in any
representation. There is no evidence that he was aware that Van Wyk and Du Plessis
proceeded to transact for the radio phones despite the Executive Committee report having
14 The identity of the other persons who were present at one of the meetings testified to by McLintock is
not known.
been withdrawn from the agenda.
[34] In its judgment the court a quo listed twenty-two factors on which counsel for the
respondents relied in his submission to it that the appellant had created a façade of
regularity. Some of these factors I have already dealt with, eg the so-called seniority of
Van Wyk and Du Plessis; the meetings at the security sub-cluster offices at which
Lundberg was given financial statements (obviously to prove that the appellant would be
able to afford the procurement) and Lephunya’s involvement in the saga. The last two
factors relate to what occurred after the radio phones had been delivered. They were
distributed amongst certain officials and Councillors. Dealing with this aspect the court a
quo said:
‘As submitted by Plaintiff’s counsel the evidence of what occurred after the conclusion of
Agreements A, B and C which, whilst not constituting direct evidence of events that can be relied
upon to ground estoppel, since they occurred after the conclusion of the agreements, are
nonetheless valuable as a source of inferential reasoning as regards the apparent approval
prevailing before the conclusion of [the agreements] . . .’
The court then concluded that had the transactions been without the approval of a large
number of the appellant’s employees, and had Du Plessis acted alone as the appellant
suggested, ‘it is inconceivable that it would have taken approximately [two] months from
the delivery of such a large number of radiophones, for the transaction to be rejected’.
[35] I am not sure to what approval the learned judge a quo refers. It is true that the
document containing proposals to the Executive Committee that a radio phone system be
hired and on which Lephunya’s name appears, tend to indicate that someone – possibly
Lephunya and others – was in agreement that radio phones should be acquired. But I fail
to see how that apparent approval could, even after the document was withdrawn by
Bosman, either by itself or considered with other factors, be said to have created a façade
of regularity which gave the impression to Blighnaut and Hall that Van Wyk had authority to
tell outsiders that Du Plessis had authority to bind the appellant. There is no evidence that
Lephunya had any knowledge of Van Wyk and Du Plessis’s dealings with the Africon
owners, or any of Compufin’s or the second respondent’s officials. In my view, the court
a quo erred in this regard.
[36] In introducing these factors I have just dealt with and others, the court a quo
referred to the following extract from the decision of this court in South African
Broadcasting Corporation v Coop & others (SABC):15
‘As in the NBS Bank case (supra) the plaintiff’s case was not limited to the appointment of the
various relevant officers who acted on the SABC’s behalf. It included their senior status, the
trappings of their appointment, the manner in which they went about their dealings with the
plaintiffs, the use of official documents and processes, the apparent approval of subordinate and
related organisations, such as the pension fund and medical scheme, the length of time during
which the Ludick option was applied, the Board’s own financial accounts and the conduct of CEOs
who were Board members.
As in the NBS Bank case, the SABC created a façade of regularity and approval and it is in the
totality of the appearances that the representations relied on are to be found.’
In both NBS Bank and SABC the court had to deal with senior officials and the usual
authority that attached to their positions: in the former, a manager of a branch of NBS
Bank and, in the latter case, with successive Chief Executive Officers and Group Heads of
Human Resources.
[37] In SABC the court below had ordered the South African Broadcasting Corporation
(SABC) to reinstate and continue to pay a 60% subsidy of the respondents’ monthly
medical scheme contributions and also to reinstate concessionary television licences. The
respondents were formerly employed by the SABC and had retired with the benefits on the
strength of written assurances to the first person to retire, Mr Ludick (Ludick), by the SABC
Group Head of Human Resources (HR), that he could retire or resign with all the benefits.
Subsequently the pension fund advisor in the HR office confirmed the benefits relating to
the pension fund, ie that Ludick could withdraw the full value of his pension. The Group
Chief Executive also confirmed to Ludick in writing that upon his resignation he could
15 South African Broadcasting Corporation v Coop & others 2006 (2) SA 217 (SCA), paras 74 and 75.
retain his membership of the medical and group insurance schemes. After Ludick had
left the SABC’s employ many other employees left on the same conditions. When it felt the
pinch on its finances the SABC sought to renege on the undertakings and disputed the
authority of its own Chief Executive Officers and HR. It is in this context that this court
observed that the respondents’ cases were not limited to the appointment of the various
relevant officers but ‘included their senior status, the trappings of their appointment’,
etcetera.
[38] In NBS Bank the relevant senior official was a branch manager of NBS Bank, which,
the court said, ‘held out its branch managers as its front to the world and its local
spokesmen’. In that case the manager had devised a scheme with the help of an attorney
in terms of which he would take deposits from clients for which he issued typed letters in
return. The deposits would not be entered on the computer as the bank’s rules required,
and the money would then be diverted to the account of a firm of attorneys from where
advances were made to developers. Four plaintiffs instituted action against NBS Bank for
payment of a combined sum of R31.5 million with agreed interest, on the basis that the
branch manager had authority, either actual or ostensible, to bind NBS Bank. NBS Bank
was ordered by the trial court to pay the monies to the plaintiffs. Certain ancillary orders
were also made. NBS Bank had denied liability on the ground, first that the branch
manager was acting in his own interest in fraud of the bank and, secondly, that there were
internal restrictions on the actual authority of the branch manager.
[39] In this regard Schutz JA said on appeal:
‘What emerges from the evidence is not a nude appointment [of the branch manager], but an
appointment with all its trappings, set in a context. The context was a bank, whose business was
the taking of deposits for a period at interest, and the lending of money on security at a higher rate
of interest. It created branches to carry on this business and it appointed managers to manage
them. [The branch manager] was appointed the local head of this business at Kempton Park. He
commanded the staff, including his secretary, who typed the letters and then deleted them from her
computer on his instructions, keeping her qualms to herself, whether out of fear, or loyalty, or both.
The letterhead on which the letters were typed was provided by the NBS. The facility was
created, and it functioned, for the NBS to take Cape Produce’s cheques into its bank account, and
for its cheques to be issued in repayment. The state of affairs continued for some 18 months with
numerous repayments, without the NBS’s own system of control detecting the abuse.’
Clearly, then, what this court has considered to be a façade of regularity where ostensible
authority is in issue is the appointment of the person who would have purported to act on
behalf of an entity sought to be held liable for such act, the position to which the
appointment was made ‘with all its trappings, set in a context’.
[40] In the present matter Van Wyk and Du Plessis were lowly ranked officials in an
elaborate administrative structure where authority below the full Council was exercised in
terms of delegation. It is true that Van Wyk and Du Plessis were given offices, but these
were not even in the main building – they were in a smaller side-building. There is no
evidence that they were provided with secretaries, nor with letterheads or stamps. It is not
known where the letterhead on which the so-called resolution was contained came from,
so also the stamp whose imprint appears on it. But the fact that the two officials were given
offices and might even have had letterheads and stamps does not mean they were clothed
with authority to bind the appellant. What matters is their seniority in the overall structure of
the appellant and what ordinarily goes with the senior positions they would have held.
[41] One of the factors mentioned by the court a quo as contributing to the creation of a
façade of regularity is that the appellant provided its employees with original letterheads,
which allowed Van Wyk to use an original letterhead when certifying the existence of a
non-existent resolution. The court also observed that the appellant provided its employees
with official stamps and allowed these to be used for its official documents. That may be
so, but surely were an institution like the appellant to provide one of its employees at its
receiving department, where letters and parcels are received, with an official stamp so as
to indicate the date on which correspondence was received, it could not be held liable,
without more, if another employee were to borrow or steal the stamp for nefarious
purposes. Similarly, I do not believe that the law would require a manager in a bank to
keep letterheads under lock and key and to take out one for his secretary every time he or
she wants the secretary to type a letter, so as to avoid unforeseen fraudulent acts by the
secretary. And where a secretary uses letterheads in his or her possession to commit
fraud and purport to bind the employer it does not follow that the manager or the institution
should be held liable.
[42] Another factor mentioned by counsel as contributing to the creation of a façade of
regularity is that Mosiane drew up Du Plessis’s job description and allowed Van Wyk to
sign it on his behalf. The job description, so counsel argued, was drawn up prior to the
conclusion of the three agreements and listed, as part of Du Plessis’s functions, ‘Contracts
and Tenders’. I am not persuaded that the ‘job description’ document had anything to do
with the conclusion of the agreements. There is no evidence that it formed part of the
documents that were before Compufin’s officials when the proposals to conclude the
agreements were considered. The document only came up when McLean queried the
authority of Van Wyk to certify that Du Plessis had signing powers to bind the appellant.
McLean testified that it was sent by the Africon owners to Blighnaut on 18 March 1999 in
preparation for the meeting that was scheduled for that day at the appellant’s premises
and at which Bosman informed everyone that neither Van Wyk, nor Du Plessis, had
authority to sign the so-called resolution and the agreements, respectively.
[43] Yet another factor referred to by counsel for the respondents is that subsequent to
the conclusion of the first agreement and prior to the conclusion of the second and third
agreements a payment was made by the appellant via a debit order signed by Du Plessis,
which indicated that even the appellant’s bankers accepted Du Plessis’s signing powers.
Counsel accordingly submitted that although the bank account was checked regularly by
the appellant’s Finance Department at least on a monthly basis the debit was not picked
up, ’giving a further appearance of regularity’. Had the debit been picked up timeously it
could have prevented the conclusion of the second and third agreements, so the argument
continued. To my mind that does not assist the respondents. It is true that the appellant’s
Finance Department did not pick up the debit payment timeously, but that fact had no
influence whatsoever on any of the officials of Compufin, namely Hall and Blighnaut, who
signed the second and third agreements respectively. They made no mention at all in their
testimony that the debit payment was one of the factors they considered when deciding to
sign the agreements on behalf of Compufin.
[44] But most importantly, what is lacking in this matter is evidence of the ‘trappings’ of
the positions held by Van Wyk and Du Plessis. Other than a suggestion by McLintock that
they appeared to be senior and that the meeting was held in their offices, there is no
evidence as to what normally goes with the position of senior superintendent (Van Wyk)
and superintendent (Du Plessis). Those were their positions until Mosiane and Van Wyk
attended a conference in October 1998, when Du Plessis acted as senior superintendent.
Mosiane, Van Wyk and Du Plessis may have been appointed ‘to the top three positions in
ranking in the security sub-cluster hierarchy’, as the court a quo found - although I
disagree with that finding because there were the vacant positions of two managers
between Mosiane and Van Wyk’s position - but in the overall administrative structure of the
appellant they ranked very low. There is no evidence that the certification of any official
document of the appellant was done by the security sub-cluster, which could have given
the impression that Van Wyk had authority to certify a resolution of Council. Nor is there
any evidence that the transactions in issue fell within the category of what may be termed
the security sub-cluster’s ‘usual business’. Thus, other than the mere appointments and
the fact that they occupied offices and might have had access to letterheads and stamps,
and the fact that outsiders such as Rahme, Compufin’s representatives and the Africon
owners had access to them, sufficient evidence of a façade of regularity was lacking
before the court a quo. It follows, in my view, that agency by estoppel (ostensible authority)
on the part of the appellant has not been established on the evidence. There was no
representation by it.
[45] But that is not the only basis upon which the respondents should have failed in the
court a quo. In my view, the acceptance, by Compufin’s officials, of the resolution was
unreasonable. I have already rejected the submissions that the appellant had created a
façade of regularity that could have led any member of the public to believe, reasonably,
that Van Wyk had authority to tell the world that Du Plessis had authority to bind the
appellant. Although the resolution was contained in a letterhead bearing the name of the
appellant, it is introduced as ‘EXTRACT OF MEETING OF THE HIRER’ (my underlining)
and not as an extract of a meeting of the Northern Metropolitan Local Council, being the
name of the appellant. In the documents constituting the three agreements Compufin is
referred to as ‘HIRER’ and the appellant as ‘USER’. The discrepancy of the reference, in
the resolution, to the appellant as the hirer would have drawn the attention of business
persons whose function it was to satisfy themselves that contracts to be entered into by
them or their employers are properly concluded, particularly that all documents relating to
those contracts are in order. Blighnaut, Hall and, it must be accepted, Hopwood failed in
their duty to scrutinise the resolution, in my view. Indeed, when it was put to him that the
resolution did not come from the appellant Blighnaut replied:
‘We do not know we accepted that it did getting it from Jeff Rahme and trusting him.’
And when asked earlier, whether he did not think he should have telephoned someone
from the appellant to check that they knew Du Plessis’s authority, he said they had placed
their faith in the operations of Rahme. Blighnaut clearly abdicated his duty of ensuring that
the resolution was genuine.
[46] Moreover, the resolution purported to confer authority on Du Plessis to bind the
appellant as and when he wished and to conclude agreements for any amount and in
respect of any item which may happen to be recorded on a transaction schedule, such as,
for example, the schedules to the rental agreements in issue, with the description of the
equipment to be purchased. I do not believe that any reasonable businessman who knows
the operations of an entity such as the appellant, relating to decision making (McLintock
said Compufin did discounting for a lot of town councils around the country), could ever be
satisfied with such an open ended resolution. To do so would, in my view, clearly be
unreasonable.
[47] Lastly, McLintock testified as follows when asked, during his evidence-in-chief, what
proof of authority was required by Compufin as part of standard procedure (when
considering a proposal for a rental agreement where someone acted on behalf of a
principal):
‘Well depending upon the clients, a resolution would be required, copies of minutes of meetings
would be required, in other words where the topics of discussion were actually discussed in the
meetings. But a resolution confirming that the person signing the agreement had the capacity to
contract. This would have to be on an original document.’
Later, when shown the undated document containing the proposals to purchase
radiophones and which was withdrawn by Bosman from the agenda of the Executive
Committee of the appellant McLintock identified it as the minutes of the meeting ‘extracted
[from] the general minutes of the meeting . . .’. One of the recommendations made in the
document was that ‘the rental expense be debited against vote number 280-010-2595
(Guarding, NMLC Property)’. When asked what the significance of the vote numbers was
he said:
‘Well that is very important because those numbers would be allocated with regarding the way I
understand various councils work because we did a lot of discounting for a lot of the town councils
around the country and that was quite a crucial factor with regarding minutes.’
From these extracts it appears that the minutes of a meeting of a town council at which a
resolution was passed authorising one of its officials to act on its behalf in concluding
agreements was quite important for Compufin. Yet the resolution that authorised Du
Plessis to conclude any number of agreements on behalf of the appellant was not
accompanied by the minutes, or at least that part of the minutes, that related to it. The
undated document shown to McLintock was no such minutes.
[48] I can only conclude that Compufin’s officials dealt very casually and superficially
with the question of Du Plessis’s authority. Their acceptance of the resolution was not
reasonable.
[49] In view of my conclusions on the requirements of the alleged representation and the
reasonableness of its acceptance, it becomes unnecessary to consider the other
requirements necessary for estoppel to arise. But there is one aspect that I should
mention in passing. The court a quo admitted in evidence what it referred to as admissions
binding on the appellant. The admissions were contained in evidence given at the
disciplinary hearings of Du Plessis and another employee, Lehmkuhl, and statements and
affidavits made during the investigations in preparation for the disciplinary proceedings.
The record of the disciplinary proceedings had been discovered by the appellant and the
parties recorded their agreement in their rule 37 minute that the documents ‘may be
received in evidence … upon their mere production’, but ‘without any admission as to the
truth of what was said’. The statements were made by employees of the appellant and, as
I have mentioned above, Bosman presided over the disciplinary proceedings. The basis for
the admission of the contents of the statements and evidence was a passage in Lawsa16
where the following appears on the topic of informal admissions generally:
‘Provided the various requirements have been met, admissions are admissible against a party
irrespective of whether he elects to give evidence. The hearsay rule does not exclude evidence of
an admission. The reason for its admissibility is that whatever a person says to his detriment is
likely to be the truth.’
Regrettably the court a quo did not mention any of the requirements, one of which is that
the statement containing the admission must have been made to a third party. (See In re
SS Winton; Avenue Shipping Co Ltd (in Liquidation) & others v South African Railways and
Harbours & another 1938 CPD 247 at 249 – 251.)
[50] When confronted with this requirement counsel for the respondents contended that
the statements were indeed made to a third party, viz Blighnaut, who was not an employee
of the appellant and who was mandated with Bosman to conduct the investigations around
Du Plessis’s signing of the agreements on behalf of the appellant. He submitted that all the
16 9 Lawsa First Reissue para 531.
documents were made available to Blighnaut, who, together with Bosman, compiled a joint
report. But making a statement to a third party and an already made statement being given
to a third party are two different things. What the law requires is that the admission, to be
admissible in evidence in these circumstances, must have been made by its maker to a
third party. There is no evidence that this is what occurred in the present case. In my
view, the court a quo erred in admitting the admissions as evidence against the appellant.
They were inadmissible.
[51] In the result, the appeal must succeed and the following order is made:
1 The appeal succeeds with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
2 Paragraphs a, b and c of the order of the court below are set aside and replaced with the
following:
‘The plaintiffs’ claims against the first defendant are dismissed with costs, including the
costs of two counsel.’
___________________
L Mpati
President
APPEARANCES
For the Appellant:
A E Franklin SC
D L Wood
Instructed by:
Moodie & Robertson, Johannesburg
Claude Reid, Bloemfontein
For the First and Second Respondents:
G D Harpur SC
A Coutsoudis
Instructed by:
Lynn & Main Inc, Johannesburg
McIntyre & Van der Post, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
21 May 2012
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
NORTHERN METROPOLITAN LOCAL COUNCIL v COMPANY UNIQUE
FINANCE
The Supreme Court of Appeal today upheld an appeal against an order of the South Gauteng High
Court (Blieden J) in terms of which the Northern Metropolitan Local Council (Council) was ordered
to pay certain moneys to Company Unique Finance (Compufin) and First National Bank (FNB). The
amounts claimed by Compufin and First National Bank allegedly became due and payable when
the Council disputed the validity of three contracts said to have been entered into between the
Council and Compufin, one of which was ceded by Compufin to FNB.
The contracts were signed on the side of the Council, by one of its employees, Mr Du Plessis, who
was employed in the security sub-cluster of the Council as a superintendent. Council denied liability
to pay Compufin and FNB on the ground that Du Plessis had no authority to bind the Council. In the
court below Compufin and FNB asserted that Du Plessis in fact had such authority, relying on a
document containing a so-called resolution signed by Du Plessis’s immediate superior. They
alleged, however, in the alternative, that Du Plessis was clothed with ostensible authority and that
the Council was therefore estopped from denying that he had authority to bind it.
In the SCA only the issue of ostensible authority had to be considered, the legal representatives of
Compufin and FNB having conceded at the trial before Blieden J that Du Plessis did not have
authority to bind the Council. The SCA found that Compufin and FNB failed to prove that by
employing Du Plessis to the position he held, a position ranking second lowest in the security sub-
cluster, the Council clothed him with ostensible authority. No evidence was led to show that the
position held by Du Plessis ordinarily went with authority to sign agreements on behalf of the
Council.
The SCA accordingly allowed the appeal, set aside the order of the court below and replaced it with
one dismissing the claims against the Council with costs. |
3493 | non-electoral | 2020 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case No: 1108/2019
In the matter between:
MOREKWA FRANCINAH THOBEJANE FIRST APPELLANT
MASEBOTI SIMON PHOLWANE SECOND APPELLANT
CEDRICK PHOLOSHI MOGOBA THIRD APPELLANT
MOLOHLANYE WILLIAM PHALA FOURTH APPELLANT
KGOLANE DAPHNEY THOBEJANE FIFTH APPELLANT
and
PREMIER OF LIMPOPO PROVINCE
FIRST RESPONDENT
MEC FOR TRADITIONAL AFFAIRS OF
LIMPOPO PROVINCE SECOND RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Thobejane and Others v Premier of the Limpopo Province and
Another (Case no 1108/2019) [2020] ZASCA 176 (18 December 2020)
Coram:
PETSE DP, ZONDI and MAKGOKA JJA and MABINDLA-
BOQWANA and POYO-DLWATI AJJA
Heard:
23 November 2020
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties’ representatives by email, and by publication on the Supreme Court of
Appeal website and release to SAFLII. The time and date for hand down is deemed
to be 10h00 on the 18th day of December 2020.
Summary: Civil procedure – court ruling on preliminary point and later reversing
its own order – court functus officio and the second order is incompetent and a nullity
– jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of Appeal (the SCA) – not triggered where high
court had not given judgment or order on the issue sought to be argued on appeal –
no discernable reason why leave to appeal was granted to the SCA.
__________________________________________________________________
ORDER
__________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Limpopo High Court, Polokwane (Semenya J sitting as court of
first instance):
The appeal is upheld with no order as to costs.
The order of the high court dated 17 May 2019 is set aside.
The matter is remitted to the high court to determine the merits of
the review application.
__________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
__________________________________________________________________
Makgoka JA (Petse DP and Zondi JA and Mabindla-Boqwana and Poyo-
Dlwati AJJA concurring):
[1] This appeal concerns two mutually exclusive orders issued by the same judge
in respect of the same issue. The first to fifth appellants had launched an application
in the Limpopo High Court, Polokwane (the high court) seeking to review and set
aside the decision of the respondents, the Premier of Limpopo (the Premier) and the
Member of the Executive Committee for Traditional Affairs, Limpopo (the MEC),
not to recognise them as traditional leaders1 of the Tjatje Community (the
community) in Limpopo. The appellants sought an order compelling the respondents
to do so. In their opposition to the relief sought by the appellants, the respondents
1 The first appellant sought recognition as Khoshigadi (Chieftainess); the second to fourth appellants as headmen,
respectively, and the fifth appellant as a headwoman.
raised a two-pronged preliminary point of non-joinder. They averred that the
appellants had failed to join two parties, whom, according to the respondents, had a
direct and substantial interest in the relief sought by the appellants.
[2] The first of the parties alleged to have such interest was the Commission on
Traditional Leadership Disputes and Claims of the Limpopo Provincial Committee
(the Commission), which had investigated the disputes about traditional leadership
in the community. The first respondent’s decision not to recognise the appellants as
traditional leaders was based on the report of the Commission. The respondents also
contended that a structure which was in control of community, the Marota-
Mohlaletsi Traditional Council, ought also to have been joined in the proceedings.
[3] The application came before Semenya J on 24 April 2019. After hearing
arguments on the preliminary point referred to above, the learned Judge made the
following ruling:
‘The application before me relates to the [re]view of the decision made by the Premier in this
matter, the decision which [he] has exercised or supposed to have been exercised in terms of
section 12 of the Act and I agree with the applicant[s] that it was not necessary for the applicant[s]
to join the parties that are supposed to… that the respondent[s] says should have been join[ed] in
this matter. I do not see how they have a substantial interest in the outcome of this application. The
points in limine are therefore dismissed.’
[4] The preliminary point having been dismissed, the parties argued the merits of
the review application before the learned Judge, after which she reserved judgment.
On 17 May 2019 Semenya J delivered judgment. In paragraph 2 thereof, she
revisited the respondents’ preliminary point of non-joinder referred to earlier. Why
she did so is, however, nowhere explained in her judgment. The learned Judge took
the view that in respect of the Commission, no purpose would be served by
considering whether it should be joined as a party to the proceedings as it had since
dissolved. She proceeded to consider the averred non-joinder of the traditional
council, at the end of which she concluded as follows:
‘The respondents’ second point in limine that the applicants’ failure to join the Marota-Mohlaletsi
Traditional Council constitutes a misjoinder2 is upheld.’
The learned Judge accordingly struck the application from the roll with costs, but
subsequently, issued an order granting leave to the appellants to appeal to this Court.
[5] Before I consider the parties’ submissions in this Court, it is prudent to first
determine whether the order of 24 April 2019 dismissing the respondents’
preliminary point of non-joinder, was final in effect. In Zweni v Minister of Law and
Order3 it was held that an order that is final in effect has three attributes: first, the
decision must be final in effect and not susceptible to alteration by the court that
made it; second, it must be definitive of the rights of the parties; and third, it must
have the effect of disposing of at least a substantial portion of the relief claimed in
the main proceedings. There are no conceptual difficulties with regard to the first
two. As to the third attribute, the question is whether the ‘relief claimed’ is restricted
to the relief claimed by the plaintiff/applicant. In Caroluskraal Farms v Eerste
Nasionale Bank4 it was held that it includes the relief claimed by the
defendant/respondent in the form of special pleas and preliminary points. Therefore,
2 Presumably the learned judge meant ‘non-joinder’.
3 Zweni v Minister of Law and Order [1993] 1 All SA 365 (A); 1993 (1) SA 523 (A) at 536B. Zweni has undergone
some modification over the years. See for example Moch v Nedtravel (Pty) Ltd t/a American Express Travel Service
1996 (3) SA 1 (A); Philani-Ma-Afrika and Others v Mailula and Others [2009] ZASCA 115; [2010] 1 All SA 459
(SCA); 2010 (2) SA 573 (SCA); Nova Property Group Holdings Limited v Cobbett and Others [2016] ZASCA 63;
[2016] 3 All SA 32 (SCA); 2016 (4) SA 317 (SCA). However, none of these find application in this case.
4 See Caroluskraal Farms (Edms) Bpk v Eerste Nasionale Bank van Suider-Afrika Bpk, Red Head Boer Goat (Edms)
Bpk v Eerste Nasionale Bank van Suider-Afrika Bpk; Sleutelfontein (Edms) Bpk v Eerste Nasionale Bank van Suider-
Afrika Bpk 1994 (3) SA 407 (A) at 415B-416A; Durban’s Water Wonderland (Pty) Ltd v Botha and Another [1999]
1 All SA 411 (A); 1999 (1) SA 982 (SCA) at 992G-H; Ndlovu v Santam Ltd 2006 (2) SA 239 (SCA) para 9.
in the context of the present case, the dismissal of the respondents’ preliminary point
thus disposes of a substantial portion of the relief sought.5
[6] Viewed in light of the above, the order of 24 April 2019 in respect of the
preliminary point, indubitably had all three of the Zweni attributes. Accordingly, the
high court was not competent to revisit it. As explained in Firestone v Genticuro,6
as a general rule, a court has no power to set aside or alter its own final order, as
opposed to an interim or interlocutory order, for two reasons. First, once a court has
pronounced a final judgment, it becomes functus officio as its authority over the
subject matter ceases. The second is the principle of finality of litigation, it being in
the public interest that litigation be brought to finality.7
[7] Thus, counsel for the parties agreed that the court a quo’s order of 17 May
2019 constituted a nullity, which falls to be set aside. They parted ways, however,
on the further conduct of the matter. On the one hand, counsel for the respondents
submitted that the matter should be remitted to the high court for that court to give
judgment on the merits of the application. On the other, it was submitted on behalf
of the appellants that this Court should itself determine the merits of the review
application, as, so went the argument, this Court is in as good a position as the high
court to do so. Counsel further submitted that should the merits be decided in the
5 Compare Limpopo Legal Solutions v Vhembe District Municipality and Others [2017] ZACC 30; 2018 (4) BCLR
430 (CC) para 10.
6 Firestone South Africa (Pty) Ltd v Genticuro AG [1977] 4 All SA 600 (A); 1977 (4) SA 298 (A) at 306F-G and
309A.
7 See also Minister of Justice v Ntuli 1997 (2) SACR 19 (CC); 1997 (6) BCLR 677 (CC); 1997 (3) SA 772 (CC) paras
22 and 29; Zondi v MEC, Traditional and Local Government Affairs and Others 2006 (3) BCLR 423 (CC); 2006 (3) 1
(CC) para 28; Freedom Stationery (Pty) Limited and Others v Hassam and Others [2018] ZASCA 170; 2019 (4) SA
459 (SCA) para 16.
appellants’ favour, we should substitute the Premier’s decision with our own, in
terms of which the appellants are recognised as traditional leaders, instead of
remitting the matter to the Premier for reconsideration.
[8] The path suggested by the appellants faces two insurmountable obstacles.
First, this Court’s jurisdiction to determine the merits has not been triggered. The
high court made no findings on the merits, and strictly confined itself to the
preliminary point of non-joinder. This is unlike a case where the high court, in its
ruling on the preliminary point, had given an indication that it was inclined to dismiss
the application. Under those circumstances, it could conceivably be contended that
the outcome is a foregone conclusion.
[9] That cannot be said to be the case here. The substantive issues in dispute have
not been decided by the high court, and consequently, no leave to appeal has been
granted in respect of those issues. Differently put, until the high court pronounces
on the substantive issues relating to the right of the appellants to be appointed as
traditional leaders, and leave is granted to this Court, this Court has no jurisdiction
to consider the merits of the review application. Were we to do so, we would
impermissibly usurp the function of the high court to ordinarily sit and pronounce as
a court of first instance.
[10] In Theron v Loubser8 this Court had occasion to consider a similar situation.
There, the respondents had raised a preliminary point that the applicants lacked the
necessary locus standi to bring the three applications before court. The high court
had upheld the respondents’ preliminary point in two of the applications. It
8 Theron NO and Another v Loubser NO and Others, In Re: Theron N.O and Another v Loubser and Others [2013]
ZASCA 195; [2014] 1 All SA 460 (SCA); 2014 (3) SA 323 (SCA).
dismissed the applications on that ground alone, and deemed it not necessary to
consider the merits of the applications. On appeal, this Court reversed the high
court’s finding on locus standi but declined to consider the merits of the applications.
Instead, it remitted the matter to the high court. With reference to Caroluskraal v
Eerste Nasionale Bank this Court reasoned as follows (at para 21):
‘The entire record of the proceedings did not serve before this court on appeal. The record came
to be limited by agreement between the parties in the light of the solitary issue that had been
decided by the high court and which, in turn, required determination on appeal. But even if the full
record had served before us, the high court had declined to enter into a consideration of any of the
other issues in the application. This court has thus been deprived of the benefit of the high court’s
view on any of those issues. In the result this court will in effect be sitting both as a court of first
instance, as also, a court of appeal insofar as those issues are concerned. It follows that the matter
has to be remitted to the high court for a determination of each of the two applications which are
the subject of this appeal. In the event, it was agreed from the bar in this court that that course
should be adopted. For the rest, it will be left to the Judge President of the Western Cape High
Court to issue directions to the parties as to the further conduct of the matter in that court.’
The second obstacle is that a substitution order is not to be lightly made, and a court
would adopt such a course only in exceptional circumstances. Pursuant to an
administrative review under s 6 of the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act 3 of
2000 and once administrative action is set aside, s 8(1) affords courts a wide
discretion to grant ‘any order that is just and equitable’. In exceptional
circumstances, s 8(1)(c)(ii)(aa) affords a court the discretion to make a substitution
order. In Trencon v IDC9 the Constitutional Court explained how an order of
substitution should be considered:
‘[G]iven the doctrine of separation of powers, in conducting this enquiry there are certain factors
that should inevitably hold greater weight. The first is whether a court is in as good a position as
the administrator to make the decision. The second is whether the decision of an administrator is
9 Trencon Construction (Pty) Limited v Industrial Development Corporation of South Africa Limited and Another
[2015] ZACC 22; 2015 (5) SA 245 (CC); 2015 (10) BCLR 1199 (CC) para 47.
a foregone conclusion. These two factors must be considered cumulatively. Thereafter, a court
should still consider other relevant factors. These may include delay, bias or the incompetence of
an administrator. The ultimate consideration is whether a substitution order is just and equitable.
This will involve a consideration of fairness to all implicated parties. It is prudent to emphasise
that the exceptional circumstances enquiry requires an examination of each matter on a case-by-
case basis that accounts for all relevant facts and circumstances.’
[11] In the present case, I am by no means persuaded that we are in as good a
position as the Premier to substitute our own decision. From even a cursory reading
of the papers, there are a number of issues that would seek further clarification. One
springs to mind, and it relates to the position of Mr Nthobeng Thobejane, the
community’s current headman, who is said to be mentally challenged, but continues
to receive a stipend from the provincial government in that capacity. His position
must be clarified, and possibly, he might have to be joined as a party to the
proceedings, as the order sought by the appellants appears to have a direct bearing
on him. As to the decision of the Premier, there is no suggestion before us that such
is a foregone conclusion, or that it is tainted by bias, incompetence or malice. Given
these considerations, I discern no exceptional circumstances to move this Court to
make a substitution order.
[12] The matter must in all circumstances be remitted to the high court to determine
the merits of the review application. We were informed during the hearing that the
first appellant has since died. This should have no effect on the order for remittal to
the high court. If that court determines that she was entitled to be appointed as
Kgoshigadi, her natural successor would surely be substituted for her.
[13] There remains the issue of costs. Counsel for the appellants pressed for costs
against the respondents on the basis that the appellants would have achieved
substantial success in this Court were the order of 17 May 2019 to be set aside. On
the other hand, counsel for the respondents pointed out that in their notice of appeal
and in their heads of argument, the appellants, not only sought to set aside that order,
but also urged this Court to consider the merits. Thus, so went the submission, the
respondents were duty bound to oppose the appeal to the extent the appellants
persisted with the latter relief. In my view, there is something to be said about this
submission. Had the appellants simply confined themselves to the attack on the
impugned order, and not sought to have the merits determined by this Court, the
appeal would probably have been unopposed. In the circumstances it would only be
fair to make no order as to costs.
[14] Before I conclude, I am constrained to comment on the high court’s decision
to grant leave to this Court. That leave to appeal was correctly granted is beyond
question. The high court recognised the irregularity of its order of 17 May 2019. But
as to why leave was granted to this Court, escapes me. There is nothing in the issues
canvassed here which even remotely warrants the attention of this Court. No
controversial legal principle was involved. As this Court pointed out in Shoprite
Checkers v Bumpers Schwarmas,10 the inappropriate granting of leave to appeal to
this court increases the litigants’ costs and results in cases involving greater
difficulty and which are truly deserving of the attention of this court having to
10 Shoprite Checkers (Pty) Ltd v Bumpers Schwarmas CC and Others [2003] ZASCA 57; [2003] 3 All SA
123 (SCA) para 23. See also S v Monyane and Others [2006] ZASCA 113; 2008 (1) SACR 543 (SCA) para
28.
compete for a place on the court’s roll with a case which is not. This must be
deprecated.
[15] The following order is made:
The appeal is upheld with no order as to costs.
The order of the high court dated 17 May 2019 is set aside.
The matter is remitted to the high court to determine the merits of
the review application.
____________________
T M Makgoka
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES:
For Appellants:
J L Griffiths
Instructed by:
Eiser & Kantor, Johannesburg
Lovius Block, Bloemfontein.
For Respondents:
P M Maake
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Polokwane
State Attorney, Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY
JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
18 December 2020
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form part of
the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
Thobejane and Others v Premier of the Limpopo Province and Another (Case no 1108/2019)
[2020] ZASCA 176 (18 December 2020).
Today, the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld an appeal against a judgment of the
Limpopo High Court, Polokwane, in which that court issued an order which effectively
purported to rescind its earlier order. The first to fifth appellants had launched an application
challenging the decision of the respondents, Premier and the Member of the Executive
Committee for Traditional Affairs, Limpopo not to recognise them as traditional leaders of the
Tjatje Community in Limpopo. The appellants sought an order compelling the respondents to
do so. The respondents raised a preliminary point of non-joinder of the Commission on
Traditional Leadership Disputes and Claims of the Limpopo Provincial Committee (the
Commission), which had investigated the disputes about traditional leadership in the
community, and the Marota-Mohlaletsi Traditional Council. On 24 April 2019 the court
dismissed the preliminary point, after which the merits of the review application were argued.
The court reserved judgment. On 17 May 2019 the court delivered judgment in which it
revisited the respondents’ preliminary point of non-joinder, and upheld it. It accordingly struck
the application from the roll with costs, but subsequently granting leave to the appellants to
appeal to the SCA.
The SCA first considered whether the order of 24 April 2019 dismissing the respondents’
preliminary point of non-joinder, was final in effect, and therefore, not susceptible to alteration
or amendment by the high court. It referred to Zweni v Minister of Law and Order [1993] 1 All
SA 365 (A); 1993 (1) SA 523 (A) at 536B and concluded that indeed the order had all the
attributes of a final order and therefore, the high court was not competent to revisit it, as it was
functus officio. Viewed in that light, it followed that the order of 17 May 2019 constituted a
nullity, which had to be set aside.
As to the further conduct of the matter, the court considered the appellants’ submission that it
should itself determine the merits of the review application, because, as was the submission,
this court was in as good a position as the high court to do so to substitute the premier’s decision
with its own, in terms of which the appellants are recognised as traditional leaders, instead of
remitting the matter to the Premier for reconsideration. First, the Court declined to consider the
merits of the review application because it jurisdiction had not been triggered, as the high court
had made no findings on the merits, and strictly confined itself to the preliminary point of non-
joinder, and consequently, no leave to appeal had been granted in respect of those issues.
Secondly, the Court observed that a substitution order is not to be lightly made, and a court
would adopt such a course only in exceptional circumstances in terms of s 8(1)(c)(ii)(aa) of the
Promotion of Access to Justice Act 3 of 2000. On the facts of the case, the Court concluded
that it was not in as good a position as the Premier to substitute its own decision, and found no
exceptional circumstances to do so. Accordingly, it determined that the matter be remitted to
the high court to determine the merits of the review application. With regard to costs, the Court
considered that the appellants, not only sought to set aside that order, but also urged the SCA
to consider the merits. This warranted the respondents’ opposition. Had the appellants simply
confined themselves to the attack on the impugned order, and not sought to have the merits
determined by this Court, the appeal would probably have been unopposed. In the
circumstances it would only be fair to make no order as to costs.
In closing, the Court critisised the high court’s decision to grant leave to the SCA, instead to
the full court, in the circumstances where there was no discernable reason to do so, as there
were no issues of law or any compelling factor which warranted the attention of the SCA.
In the circumstances, the Court (per Makgoka JA) with Petse DP, Zondi JA and Mabindla-
Boqwana and Poyo-Dlwati AJJA concurring, upheld the appeal with no order as to costs; set
aside the order of the high court dated 17 May 2019; and remitted the matter to the high court
to determine the merits of the review application.
END |
1453 | non-electoral | 2010 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case no: 27/10
In the matter between:
COMMISSIONER FOR THE SOUTH AFRICAN
REVENUE SERVICE
Appellant
and
NWK LIMITED
Respondent
Neutral citation:
CSARS v NWK (27/10) [2010] ZASCA 168 (1
December 2010)
Coram:
HARMS DP, LEWIS, CACHALIA and SHONGWE JJA
and BERTELSMANN AJA
Heard:
11 NOVEMBER 2010
Delivered
1 December 2010
Summary:
Simulated transaction: tests for simulation: taxpayer not
entitled to claim deduction in respect of interest paid on amount not actually
borrowed. Section 103(1) can be invoked where it is not shown that
transaction is simulated.
ORDER
On appeal from the Tax Court sitting at Johannesburg (per Boruchowitz J and
assessors sitting as a court of appeal):
1 The appeal against the order of the Tax Court is upheld with costs including
those of two counsel.
2 The order of the Tax Court is replaced with:
„(a) The objection to the assessments is dismissed and the additional
assessments are upheld.
(b) The objection to the imposition of additional tax of 200 per cent is upheld.
(c) Additional tax of 100 per cent of the total amount of the additional
assessments is imposed in terms of s 76 of the Income Tax Act 58 of 1962.‟
JUDGMENT
LEWIS JA (HARMS DP, CACHALIA AND SHONGWE JJA and
BERTELSMANN AJA concurring)
[1] Over a period of five years, from 1999 to 2003, the respondent, NWK
Ltd, claimed deductions from income tax in respect of interest paid on a loan
to it by Slab Trading Company (Pty) Ltd (Slab), a subsidiary of First National
Bank (FNB), in the sum of R96 415 776. NWK is a public company which
formerly operated as a co-operative society trading in maize. The deductions
were allowed. But in 2003 the appellant, the Commissioner for the South
African Revenue Service, issued new assessments disallowing the
deductions and refusing to remit any part of the interest on the amounts
assessed. He also imposed additional tax and interest in terms of ss 76 and
89quat of the Income Tax Act 58 of 1962. The amount claimed pursuant to
the additional assessments, including additional tax, was R47 360 583.
[2] The basis of the revised assessments by the Commissioner was that
the loan was not a genuine contract: it was part of a series of transactions
entered into between NWK and FNB and its subsidiaries, all designed to
disguise the true nature of the transaction between NWK and FNB, with the
intention of NWK avoiding or reducing its liability for tax.
[3] NWK appealed against the assessments and the imposition of
additional interest and penalties. Boruchowitz J and two assessors in the Tax
Court held at Johannesburg upheld the appeal. It is against the order of the
Tax Court that the Commissioner appeals. The basis of the Commissioner‟s
argument on appeal is that the loan was simulated: that it had to be viewed in
the light of several other agreements concluded between NWK and FNB, and
FNB and its subsidiaries, which together showed that a sum of only R50m
was lent by FNB to NWK, and that the transactions were devised to increase
the ostensible amount lent so that deductions of interest on a greater amount
could be claimed. NWK argued, on the other hand, that there was an honest
intention on the part of NWK, represented by Mr E Barnard, its financial
director, to execute the contracts in accordance with their tenor, and the
claims for deductions were valid. The Tax Court accepted this contention and
upheld the appeal to the Tax Court on this basis.
[4] The Commissioner contended, in the alternative, both before the Tax
Court and this court, that s 103(1) of the Act, in operation at the relevant time,
was applicable: the Commissioner was satisfied that the transactions in
question had been entered into for the purpose of avoiding tax. The Tax Court
held that once the Commissioner had concluded that the transactions were
simulated he could not be „satisfied‟ that they been entered into for the
purpose of avoiding or reducing liability for tax. Section 103(1) thus had no
application.
Background to the transactions and their conclusion
[5] Before discussing the transactions that the Commissioner sought to
impugn it is helpful to look at the events leading to their conclusion. As I have
said, the main business of NWK was trading in maize. In 1998, according to
Barnard, it had an annual turnover of R1.5b. Its net operating profit was
R103m. It had over the years borrowed money from the Land Bank and had
banking facilities with a number of commercial banks, including FNB, but had
not used the latter. In January of that year, two representatives of FNB, Mr
Louw and Mr McGrath visited Barnard and offered a structured finance loan
facility to NWK.
[6] Neither Louw nor McGrath testified. Indeed no witness from FNB was
called by NWK. I shall revert to this briefly, since there was criticism of the
Commissioner for not calling any witnesses from FNB. It is of course NWK
which bore the onus of proving that the transactions were not simulated, an
issue to which I shall also return. The history and context of the impugned
transactions emerge from Barnard‟s evidence, the written agreements and
from other documents.
[7] Barnard questioned aspects of the proposal, in particular the tax
implications. FNB sent him an opinion written by senior counsel who had
commented on similar transactions. There is nothing to indicate, however,
what instructions were given to counsel, and whether the transactions on
which he commented were identical or even similar to those proposed to
NWK by FNB. And while counsel indicated that his view was that the
transactions described were tax-efficient, he did caution, in spite of having
been advised that the transactions were normal, that there was always the
possibility that the Commissioner might apply s 103(1) to them. The
transactions, he suggested, might not be regarded as having bona fide
business purposes.
[8] On 13 February 1998 Louw and Mr J van Emmenes, also from FNB,
wrote an internal memorandum to the General Manager, Group Credit within
FNB on the proposal to offer a „structured finance facility‟ of R50m to NWK,
„repayable in 5 equal annual capital and interest payments over 5 years‟. The
facility would be used, they said, to reduce existing liabilities. They
recommended the grant of the facility. Barnard did not see this internal
memorandum at the time, but he did confirm when testifying that it correctly
reflected what had been discussed.
[9] The proposal was made formally in a letter FNB sent to NWK on 28
February 1998, offering to update its existing banking facilities by the addition
of a term finance facility of R50m, subject to what it called a term finance
agreement. The formal proposal attached was said to be confidential and
„proprietary‟ to FNB and required NWK to sign a confidentiality undertaking to
preserve FNB‟s trade secrets and highly confidential and sensitive
information.
[10] A diagram reflected the suite of transactions that would constitute the
finance facility. It used indicative amounts rather than the actual sums that
would ultimately be paid and repaid. The diagram also appeared to indicate
the sequence in which all contracts and performance would occur, though it
did not specify that this was so and in fact the transactions were not all
concluded entirely as envisaged nor did they follow the apparent sequence.
[11] The contracts envisaged were these. (I shall not use the sums referred
to in the proposals but rather the actual amounts reflected in the transactions
concluded later).
(a) A subsidiary of FNB that dealt in financial instruments, Slab, would lend a
sum of R96 415 776 to NWK, to be repaid over five years.
(b) The capital amount would be repaid by NWK delivering to Slab at the end
of the five year period 109 315 tons of maize.
(c) Interest would be payable on the capital sum at a fixed rate of 15.41 per
cent per annum payable every six months. To this end NWK would issue
ten promissory notes with a total value of R74 686 861.
(d) To fund the loan Slab would discount the notes (sell them for an amount
less than their face value) to FNB. NWK, on due date, would pay FNB.
(e) Slab would sell its rights to take delivery of the maize at the end of the five
year period to First Derivatives, a division of FNB. This „forward sale‟, for
the sum of R45 815 776, would enable FNB to pay the full amount of the
loan to NWK.
(f) First Derivatives would sell to NWK the right to take delivery of the same
quantity of maize for the sum of R46 415 776, payable immediately on the
conclusion of the contract, but delivery to take place only five years hence.
This contract would neutralize the risks associated with delivery in the
future.
(g) Slab would cede its rights to a trust company to relieve Slab of the
„administrative burden‟ of the transaction. (This transaction did not
eventuate.)
[12] The proposal indicated that the series of transactions would enable
NWK to deduct the interest paid on the capital sum in the year it was payable
under s 11(a) of the Act. Barnard submitted the proposal to NWK‟s board of
directors for approval which was granted on 30 March 1998. Contracts
envisaged in the proposal were signed by Barnard on behalf of NWK on 1
April 1998 and by Slab and FNB on 2 April. I shall, for convenience, refer to
the date of the contract as 1 April 1998.
The contracts between NWK and FNB and its subsidiary or division
The loan
[13] The contract provided that Slab would lend R96 415 776 to NWK.
„Repayment‟, to take place on 28 February 2003, would be effected by the
delivery to Slab of 109 315 tons of „dried white maize intended for human
consumption‟. (Although the transaction was, in my view, a sale and not a
loan, I shall refer to it for convenience as a loan.) The delivery was to be
effected by representatives of the parties meeting in the presence of a notary
when appropriate certificates would be signed – a recognized means of
constructive delivery in the industry.
[14] The parties agreed that Slab would be entitled to cede its right to
delivery of the maize or to delegate any of its obligations under the contract,
to a company within the FNB group, without the consent of NWK. NWK, on
the other hand, was not permitted to cede any right or delegate any obligation,
but it undertook to effect delivery to any cessionary.
[15] The capital amount of the loan was subject to interest at a fixed rate of
15.27 per cent per annum, compounded monthly in arrear. The interest was
payable every six months. In respect of each payment NWK was to (and did)
issue promissory notes, the face value of the total being R74 686 861. This is
the amount that NWK claimed as a deduction over the five year period in
terms of s 11(a) of the Act.
The forward purchase agreement: First Derivatives to NWK
[16] The second contract concluded on 1 April 1998 was labelled a „forward
purchase agreement‟. First Derivatives, a division of FNB, sold to NWK the
same quantity of maize (109 315 tons) as was supposed to be delivered in
discharge of the loan for R46 415 776. The price was payable in cash on
1 April 1998 and delivery was to be effected on 28 February 2003, the same
day on which NWK was to discharge its obligation under the loan. And
delivery was to be constructive. The purpose of this transaction was to ensure
that NWK would have possession of the requisite quantity of maize when it
was required to effect delivery to Slab. NWK in fact paid the sum of R46 415
776 to First Derivatives on 1 April 1998.
The forward purchase agreement: Slab to First Derivatives
[17] On the same day, Slab sold to First Derivatives the same quantity of
maize for R45 815 776. Again, the price was payable on 1 April 1998, and
delivery of the maize would be effected, in the same manner, on 28 February
2003. NWK was not party to this contract, but was aware that it would be
concluded: a similar transaction (that Slab would sell its claim against NWK to
First Derivatives) was an integral part of the proposal by FNB.
The cession of the rights in the promissory notes to FNB
[18] On 1 April 1998 a fourth transaction was concluded. Slab sold its rights
(ceding them) to the promissory notes to FNB for R50 697 518. It will be
recalled that the face value of the notes was R74 686 861. The discount was
thus substantial. Again, although NWK was not a party to the transaction, it
was envisaged in the proposal and Barnard was aware that the cession at a
substantially discounted rate would be effected.
The June 1998 cessions
[19] On 29 June 1998 NWK and Slab ceded their respective rights to the
delivery of maize to FNB. Barnard for NWK signed both deeds of cession at
FNB‟s request. The NWK right to delivery arose from the forward sale
between it and Slab. The Slab right to delivery arose from the loan
agreement. In the proposal it was envisaged that Slab would cede its right to
the maize to a trust company. Instead FNB was substituted as the cessionary.
The Tax Court regarded the cession by NWK to FNB as one in securitatem
debiti.
[20] In effect each cession cancelled the other. NWK transferred its right to
FNB to claim delivery of the maize. And FNB acquired from Slab the right to
claim delivery of the same maize from NWK. (The „cancellation‟ of the delivery
would have been by the process of confusio: where a right and corresponding
obligation inhere in the same person, the obligation ceases to exist.) Slab
ceased to be a party to any of the agreements in June 1998. Its participation
in the transaction as a whole was ephemeral.
The implementation of the contracts
[21] The promissory notes issued by NWK in respect of its interest
obligations were presented and paid on their due dates. And on 28 February
2003 FNB and NWK representatives met in the presence of a notary in
Lichtenberg. FNB delivered negotiable silo certificates to NWK in performance
of its obligation to deliver the maize under the NWK forward purchase
agreement. The same silo certificates were handed over to FNB in
performance of NWK‟s obligation to deliver maize to FNB (as cessionary of
Slab‟s right) five minutes later, according to the notary‟s certificate. The reader
might well say „What a charade‟. But I shall revert to that.
A bank facility afforded by FNB to NWK on 23 February 1998
[22] Before turning to the issues before the Tax Court it should be noted
that there was another agreement between FNB and NWK, concluded before
the series of transactions concluded in April and June of 1998. On 23
February 1998 Louw and Van Emmenes of FNB wrote to NWK, following
discussions with Barnard, and offered two bank facilities: a direct bank facility
of R150m and „termynfinansiering‟ in the sum of R50m. The latter was for a
period of five years, and was subject to various terms, including that NWK
would not borrow from any other financial institution (excluding the Land
Bank) over the five-year period without the written consent of FNB.
[23] The offer by FNB was accepted by NWK on 1 April 1998, the same day
as it signed the other loan agreement for R96 415 776. In an internal
memorandum written to the General Manager, Group Credit, by Louw and
Van Emmenes, it was pointed out that NWK was interested in a „medium term
structured finance proposal‟ and that FNB had been requested to consider a
„loan facility of R50m repayable in 5 equal annual capital and interest
payments over 5 years‟. This memorandum culminated in the letter of 23
February offering the short term facility of R50m.
Claims by NWK for deductions from Income Tax
[24] In each of the years of assessment for income tax from 1999 to 2003
NWK claimed and was granted a deduction from income in terms of s 11(a)1
of the Act in respect of the interest paid to FNB. The amount claimed was
equal to the face value of the promissory notes paid in the year, which NWK
had issued to Slab and which Slab sold to FNB.
[25] In June 2003 (and in March 2004 in respect of the 2003 year of
assessment) the Commissioner issued additional assessments in terms of
s 79 of the Act, disallowing the deductions previously made. He also, in terms
of s 76, imposed additional tax of 200 per cent (the maximum permissible)
and interest (s 89quat – interest on underpayment). NWK objected to the
additional assessments. The Commissioner disallowed the objections, and
NWK duly appealed against the respective assessments and the imposition of
the additional tax and interest.
1 The section allows the deduction from income of expenditure and losses actually incurred in
the production of the income, provided they are not of a capital nature.
Grounds of assessment
[26] The basis of the additional assessments was the Commissioner‟s view
that the agreements concluded between NWK and FNB and its subsidiary
Slab did not reflect the substance of the real transaction. Slab, it contended,
was interposed as a party solely for the purpose of reducing or evading
liability for income tax. The loan by Slab to NWK, although ostensibly of R96
415 776, was in reality one for R50m. And the effect of the forward sales and
the cessions was that the same maize that NWK would use to discharge its
obligation to repay Slab (the right to performance having been ceded to FNB),
was sold by FNB to NWK.
[27] The loan, the Commissioner contended, was a „mere paper exercise
and/or simulation‟. The reasons for this were that none of Slab, NWK or FNB
intended to trade in maize before or after the transactions were entered into.
The value of the maize at the time of delivery (in February 2003) was
uncertain. The purchase price for the maize was based on a fictitious value
and was determined without reference to the value of the maize on the date of
conclusion of the contracts. On 1 April 1998 the price of maize quoted on the
South African Futures Exchange (SAFEX) was R715 per ton, whereas the
price agreed was R419 per ton. The total amount payable for the maize under
the forward sale agreement (R45 815 776) was determined by discounting the
loan amount of R96 415 776 at the rate of 15.27 per cent per annum – the
same rate as that for interest payable on the loan. To this was added the sum
of R97 518 which was payable to Slab as a fee for its participation in the
series of transactions.
[28] Further indiciae of simulation, the Commissioner considered, were that
the risks associated with delivery of maize five years after the conclusion of
the sales were great: the market is volatile. Yet no account had been taken of
volatility, of arrangements for storage after harvest, or the costs of storage or
transport. Moreover, the Commissioner asserted, the description of the maize
in all the agreements was inadequate. The grade of the maize was not
stipulated although it would materially affect its market value.
[29] NWK had no intention of repaying its loan with Slab through the
delivery of the maize; Slab had no intention of acquiring the maize or selling it,
in turn, to FNB; and the cessions from Slab to FNB and of NWK to FNB
effectively
cancelled the
respective
obligations.
(The
Commissioner
contended that the respective obligations were extinguished by set-off.) The
obligations of NWK and FNB respectively to deliver the identical maize in
February 2003 by the issue of silo certificates by a notary were dependent on
each other: if one did not perform the other could not.
[30] The Commissioner thus considered that the transactions „were
specifically designed to conceal the fact that in reality, the actual loan amount
advanced‟ to NWK was R50m. The additional amount was simulated with a
series of contracts purporting to sell maize which the parties never intended to
have any effect. Slab had no real role to play and its participation was
„artificially engineered and specifically designed to conceal the fact that the
true loan amount was the sum of [R50m]. Slab‟s sole purpose was therefore
to facilitate the enhanced deduction claimed by [NWK] in terms of s 11(a) of
the Act‟. FNB made an immediate profit of R600 000 when it bought the
promissory notes for R50 697 518 from Slab. Furthermore, FNB, in receiving
the sum of R74 686 861 (the face value of the promissory notes), in effect
was paid interest on the real loan of R50m.
[31] Thus having regard to the „substance and reality of the transaction‟ the
face value of the promissory notes was determined by combining the capital
value of the loan (R50m) with interest over the period of the loan of R23 989
343. The total of these two amounts, plus the fee of R697 518, was equal to
the face value of the promissory notes.
[32] The Commissioner considered that the actual transaction that was
contemplated by FNB and NWK was a loan for R50m: the promissory notes
covered both the capital and interest. Thus the portion of the notes that
constituted repayment of capital was not deductible as interest in terms of s
11(a) of the Act and was also not expended in the course of trade.
[33] In the alternative the Commissioner contended that the series of
transactions constituted a „transaction, operation or scheme‟ in terms of s
103(1) of the Act that had the effect of avoiding or reducing NWK‟s liability for
tax in the 1999 to 2003 years of assessment and that the transactions were
abnormal and were entered into solely or mainly for the purpose of obtaining a
tax benefit.
[34] The Commissioner imposed additional tax and interest, as I have said.
The grounds for this were that NWK represented in its tax returns in question
that the payment of the promissory notes was in respect of interest when in
fact it was also in respect of capital. In so doing, NWK also represented that
the transactions were normal commercial transactions, in terms of which there
would be deliveries of maize, when in reality no delivery was ever intended.
The deliberate attempt to disguise the true nature of the transactions
warranted the imposition of the additional tax, he contended.
The grounds of appeal
[35] NWK alleged in its grounds of appeal that the contracts concluded
between Slab, NWK and FNB were performed in accordance with their terms:
NWK received the amount of R96 415 776 in terms of the loan agreement,
and delivered the promissory notes to Slab. NWK paid the price of the maize
– R46 415 776 – to First Derivatives in terms of the forward sale agreement.
NWK was not party to the agreements between Slab and FNB. The terms of
the loan reflected the intention of NWK and were implemented and performed
in accordance with their tenor. And there was no tacit understanding or
unexpressed agreement on the part of NWK that was not recorded in the
contracts to which it was party.
[36] NWK contended thus that the loan for the full capital amount was
correctly reflected and no portion of the payment made by it was of a capital
nature. In so far as s 103(1) of the Act was concerned, NWK denied that the
contracts had the effect of avoiding or postponing liability for tax: they were
concluded solely or mainly for the purpose of securing loan finance. NWK also
contended that its tax returns over the years of assessment contained full and
accurate information and that it was not liable for the additional tax nor for the
additional interest.
The decision of the Tax Court
[37] The Tax Court found that NWK had acted in terms of the agreements.
It accepted that Barnard, representing NWK, had genuinely intended to act in
accordance with the terms of the loan agreement and although aware of the
agreements between Slab and FNB, was not a party to them. The Tax Court
held that Barnard was a credible and satisfactory witness. I shall deal with his
evaluation after considering some of the evidence. It is important to note that
the Commissioner‟s case in the Tax Court was that the simulation of the
transactions was deliberate. There was no contention that the parties had
genuinely believed that the transactions were bona fide and would be
performed in accordance with their terms. It was argued in that court that
NWK and FNB were acting deliberately to conceal the true nature of the
transaction.
Onus of proof
[38] In this court the Commissioner maintained his stance that NWK,
represented by Barnard, had concluded the loan agreement and the forward
sales and cessions to which it was party, knowing that they were simulated
transactions, and in order to gain a tax advantage rather than really to borrow
the sum of R96 415 776. In terms of s 82(b) of the Act NWK bore the onus of
proving that the transactions were not simulated.2 NWK argued that the
agreements themselves provided prima facie proof of the true transaction
between the parties. Accordingly, the burden rested on the Commissioner to
rebut the prima facie inference.
[39] The Commissioner, on the other hand, contended that the agreements
had to be viewed in context and having regard to all other evidence, and that
NWK had not discharged the onus of proving that the loan was not simulated.
2 The section provides that the burden of proof that any amount is subject to any deduction is
upon the person claiming the deduction: in any appeal against a decision of the
Commissioner „the decision shall not be reversed or altered unless it is shown by the
appellant that the decision is wrong‟.
The mere production of the agreements was not enough to discharge the
onus. NWK had to refute the assessment that it had a dishonest intention to
disguise a transaction. And the substance of the loan agreement, viewed in
the light of other transactions and negotiations preceding it, was such that
NWK had to prove that it genuinely intended to borrow R96 415 776 from
Slab, and to repay it by delivering maize five years after the money had been
lent.
[40] This court has previously held that the mere production of agreements
does not prove that the parties genuinely intended them to have the effect
they appear to have. In Erf 3183/1 Ladysmith (Pty) Ltd v CIR3 Hefer JA,
dealing with a contention that agreements should be given effect in
accordance with their tenor (form), said:
„This is plainly not so. That the parties did indeed deliberately cast their arrangement
in the form mentioned, must of course be accepted; that, after all, is what they had
been advised to do. The real question is, however, whether they actually intended
that each agreement would inter partes have effect according to its tenor. If not,
effect must be given to what the transaction really is.‟
After referring to s 82 of the Act Hefer JA continued:
„Therefore, unless the appellants have shown on a preponderance of probability that
the agreements do indeed reflect the actual intention of the parties thereto, the
Commissioner‟s decision cannot be disturbed.‟
[41] This was the view also of Harms JA in Relier (Pty) Ltd v CIR 4 where he
said that if the agreements in issue were taken at face value the taxpayer
would have to succeed: but the agreement in question had „unusual and
unreal aspects to it‟ which raised questions as to the real intention of the
taxpayer. How then does a court ascertain the real intention of a party to a
contract when the contract appears to be simulated? This is the question to
which I now turn before examining any of the evidence.
Real intention and simulation: Substance and form
3 1996 (3) SA 942 (A) at 953A-F.
4 60 SATC 1 (SCA) at 7.
[42] It is trite that a taxpayer may organize his financial affairs in such a way
as to pay the least tax permissible. There is, in principle, nothing wrong with
arrangements that are tax effective.5 But there is something wrong with
dressing up or disguising a transaction to make it appear to be something that
it is not, especially if that has the purpose of tax evasion, or the avoidance of
a peremptory rule of law. However, as Hefer JA said in Ladysmith,6 one must
distinguish between the principle that one may arrange one‟s affairs so as to
„remain outside the provisions of a particular statute‟, and the principle that a
court „will not be deceived by the form of a transaction: it will rend aside the
veil in which the transaction is wrapped and examine its true nature and
substance‟ (per Wessels ACJ in Kilburn v Estate Kilburn,7 cited by Hefer JA in
Ladysmith8). As the court said in Ladysmith9 the principles are not in conflict.
[43] I shall not traverse the long line of authority in which these two
principles have been invoked. They are dealt with comprehensively in
Ladysmith. And they are expressed in classic statements in Zandberg v Van
Zyl10 and Commissioner of Customs and Excise v Randles, Brothers &
Hudson Ltd.11 In Zandberg Innes JA said:
„Now, as a general rule, the parties to a contract express themselves in language
calculated without subterfuge or concealment to embody the agreement at which
they have arrived. They intend the contract to be exactly what it purports; and the
shape which it assumes is what they meant it should have. Not infrequently, however
(either to secure some advantage which otherwise the law would not give, or to
escape some disability which otherwise the law would impose), the parties to a
transaction endeavour to conceal its real character. They call it by a name, or give it
a shape, intended not to express but to disguise its true nature. And when a Court is
asked to decide any rights under such an agreement, it can only do so by giving
effect to what the transaction really is: not what in form it purports to be. The maxim
then applies plus valet quod agitur quam quod simulate concipitur. But the words of
5 IRC v Duke of Westminster [1936] AC 1 at 19, cited by the court in Ladysmith, above. The
principle is affirmed by Hefer JA in CIR v Conhage (Pty) Ltd 1999 (4) SA 1149 (SCA) para 1.
6 Above at 950H-951D.
7 1931 AD 501 at 507.
8 At 951C-D.
9 At 951D-953A.
10 1910 AD 302 at 309.
11 1941 AD 369.
the rule indicate its limitations. The Court must be satisfied that there is a real
intention, definitely ascertainable, which differs from the simulated intention. For if the
parties in fact mean that a contract shall have effect in accordance with its tenor, the
circumstances that the same object might have been attained in another way will not
necessarily make the arrangement other than it purports to be. The enquiry,
therefore, is in each case one of fact, for the right solution of which no general rule
can be laid down‟ (my emphasis).
[44] In Randles Watermeyer JA, after quoting this statement said:12
„I wish to draw particular attention to the words “a real intention, definitely
ascertainable, which differs from the simulated intention”, because they indicate
clearly what the learned Judge meant by a “disguised” transaction. A transaction is
not necessarily a disguised one because it is devised for the purpose of evading the
prohibition in the Act or avoiding liability for the tax imposed by it. A transaction
devised for that purpose, if the parties honestly intend it to have effect according to
its tenor, is interpreted by the Courts according to its tenor, and then the only
question is whether, so interpreted, it falls within or without the prohibition or tax.‟
[45] While there may be no conflict between the two principles referred to in
Ladysmith there is a divergence in their application: the cases do not
consistently approach what is really meant by a party‟s intention in concluding
a contract –what purpose he or she seeks to achieve – and this warrants
some further consideration. Indeed, the best illustration of this divergence is to
be found in Randles,13 where the different approaches are to be found in the
minority and majority judgments. The facts in that matter bear repeating.
[46] Before 1936 Randles had imported fabric under rebate of customs
duty. Various manufacturers made up the fabric into shirts and pyjamas, and
returned the items so made up to Randles for sale to retailers. In 1936 the
customs regulations changed. In order for Randles to get the rebate the
manufacturers had to declare that the material was their property. Randles
thus changed its former practice and contracts with the manufacturers. They
purported to transfer ownership of the material to the manufacturers, so that
12 Above at 395.
13 1941 AD 369.
the declarations could be made. But the „right‟ that the manufacturers
acquired was severely restricted. They had to make up the garments in
accordance with Randles‟ instructions and to resell the finished items to
Randles at a price equal to that which Randles charged them, plus the cost of
making up the garments. Randles bore the risk of loss or damage to the
material at all times.
[47] Watermeyer JA for the majority ( Feetham JA concurred and Centlivres
JA delivered a separate concurring judgment) found that Randles had so
much wanted to transfer ownership of the materials, albeit that the transfer
was but a vehicle for achieving another purpose, that they had intended to do
so. There was no requirement, he held, that the right transferred had to be
untrammelled.
[48] De Wet CJ preferred to look at the substance of what was done: the
parties could not possibly have intended sales, pursuant to which ownership
of the materials would pass, he considered, since the manufacturers acquired
a „right‟ devoid of content. Tindall JA too considered that the court should
have regard to what was done rather than what was said.14 In cases that have
followed, discussed below, the minority approach has in fact been followed.
[49] In Vasco Dry Cleaners v Twycross15 Hoexter JA examined all the
peculiar features of a contract, ostensibly for the transfer of ownership, to
determine the real intention of the parties. And in Skjelbreds Rederi A/S v
Hartless (Pty) Ltd16 the court refused to recognize a cession of rights,
enabling litigation, where it was clear that the successful litigant would have to
retransfer the rights to the cedent after the litigation. Dishonesty was not in
issue in any of these cases. But in each a transaction had been concluded to
achieve a purpose other than that for which it was ostensibly concluded.
14 Above at 409.
15 1979 (1) SA 603 (A).
16 1982 (2) SA 710 (A).
[50] In other cases, such as Hippo Quarries (Tvl) (Pty) Ltd v Eardley,17
courts have looked at the form of a transaction and concluded that the parties
genuinely intended to give effect to that which they had apparently agreed.
And in CIR v Conhage 18 Hefer JA found that sale and leaseback agreements,
which had unusual terms but which made good business sense, were
honestly intended to have the effect contended for by the parties.19
[51] In Hippo Quarries the court drew a distinction between motive and
purpose, on the one hand, and intention on the other, in trying to determine
the genuineness of a contract, and of the underlying intention to transfer a
right, where the transfer was not an end in itself. Nienaber JA said:20
„Motive and purpose differ from intention. If the purpose of the parties is unlawful,
immoral or against public policy, the transaction will be ineffectual even if the
intention to cede is genuine. That is a principle of law. Conversely, if their intention to
cede is not genuine because the real purpose of the parties is something other than
cession, their ostensible transaction will likewise be ineffectual. That is because the
law disregards simulation. But where, as here, the purpose is legitimate and the
intention is genuine, such intention, all other things being equal, will be implemented‟
(my emphasis).
[52] NWK likened the transactions in this matter to those featuring in S v
Friedman Motors (Pty) Ltd21 where the contracts in question were designed to
avoid legislation regulating money-lending transactions. In order to obtain
funds to acquire a motor car, an individual would sell his car to a bank. The
bank would immediately resell the car to the individual for a higher price, but
would reserve ownership in the car until the full purchase price was paid – a
hire-purchase contract. The individual would pay a cash deposit and monthly
instalments and on payment of the full purchase price ownership of the car
17 1992 (1) SA 867 (A).
18 1999 (4) SA 1149 (SCA).
19 See in this regard Professor Nereus Joubert „Asset-Based Financing, Contracts of
Purchase and Sale, and Simulated Transactions‟ (1992) 109 SALJ 707, referred to in
Conhage para 9.
20 At 877C-E.
21 1972 (1) SA 76 (T), upheld on appeal, 1972 (3) SA 421 (A).
would revert to him. The same object would usually be achieved through a
loan of the price by the bank to the individual, repayable with interest.
[53] Colman J considered that the transactions might be loans, disguised as
sales, or genuine sales, depending on the parties‟ intention. He said:22
„If two people, instead of making a contract for a loan of money by one of them to the
other, genuinely agree to achieve a similar result through the sale and repurchase of
a chattel, there is no room for an application of the maxim plus valet quod agitur
quam quod simulate concipitur. The transaction is intended to be one of sale and
repurchase, and that, at common law, is what it is.‟
[54] But in both Friedman and Conhage, where the courts held that the
parties intended their contracts to be performed in accordance with their
tenor, there were sound reasons for structuring the transactions as they did:
the purchaser of the car in Friedman was required to give security in return for
the funds advanced by the bank. A pledge would have deprived him of the car
and its use. Hence the sale and resale: it allowed the purchaser to keep and
use the car. In Conhage the sale and leaseback of manufacturing equipment
permitted the manufacturer to retain possession of the equipment. There was
a commercial reason or purpose for the transactions to be structured as they
were. In both instances there was a genuine transfer of ownership. Had the
purchaser failed to pay the seller he would have lost the right to become
owner in due course.
[55] In my view the test to determine simulation cannot simply be whether
there is an intention to give effect to a contract in accordance with its terms.
Invariably where parties structure a transaction to achieve an objective other
than the one ostensibly achieved they will intend to give effect to the
transaction on the terms agreed. The test should thus go further, and require
an examination of the commercial sense of the transaction: of its real
substance and purpose. If the purpose of the transaction is only to achieve an
object that allows the evasion of tax, or of a peremptory law, then it will be
regarded as simulated. And the mere fact that parties do perform in terms of
22 At 80F-H.
the contract does not show that it is not simulated: the charade of
performance is generally meant to give credence to their simulation.
A genuine intention to borrow R96 415 776? The peculiar features of the
transactions
[56] In this matter the Commissioner contended that NWK had deliberately
disguised its contract to borrow R50m from FNB as a transaction in terms of
which it would borrow R96 415 776, repayable by the delivery of maize which
in fact was never intended. The Tax Court found, however, that Barnard of
NWK had intended the transaction to have effect in accordance with its tenor.
As I have said, that test is not enough to allay the possibility of simulation: one
must have regard to the purpose of the transaction – what it is really intended
to achieve.
[57] What then is the real purpose of the loan in this case? Does it have any
commercial substance or make business sense? NWK argued that the loan to
it by Slab, like the sales to individuals in Friedman Motors, was genuinely
intended to have legal effect in accordance with its tenor. But as I have said,
the hire-purchase agreements in that and similar cases made good
commercial sense. They allowed the purchasers to raise finance while at the
same time retaining possession of the vehicles. And there was a genuine
transfer of ownership.
[58] Was there any purpose or commercial sense – other than creating a
tax advantage to NWK – for the loan by Slab to NWK to be structured in the
way it was? Was there any genuine intention to deliver maize to Slab or a
cessionary? The Tax Court did not address these questions, accepting the
contracts in issue at face value and not questioning their purpose. There were
several inexplicable aspects to the whole series of transactions that require
scrutiny.
The other loan from FNB to NWK concluded on the same day
[59] It will be recalled that on 1 April 1998, the same day as the impugned
loan was agreed, Barnard, for NWK, accepted the offer made by FNB on 23
February of a short-term loan of R50m. Why were two loans agreed on the
same day? And, more pertinently, why was there an agreement to borrow
R96 415 776 at all when it was not needed by NWK? The clear inference to
be drawn was that the loan for R96 415 776 was a transaction concluded for a
different purpose entirely, and that the genuine agreement was to borrow
R50m.
Repayment of a loan of money through the delivery of maize?
[60] I have already indicated that a contract for the payment of money in
return for the delivery of a commodity such as maize is a sale and not a loan.
That in itself is not necessarily significant. The label attached to a contract
does not determine its validity. In my view, however, the fact that the parties
called it a loan shows that what was really intended was that NWK would
borrow money from FNB or its subsidiary and repay it in the usual way –
repayment of the capital and interest. The repayment through delivery of
something other than money raises the question as to what was really
intended.
The payments out of and into FNB’s account on the same day: ‘round tripping’
[61] In terms of the forward sale agreement between First Derivatives, a
division of FNB, and NWK, the price payable to First Derivatives by NWK was
R45 815 776. It was paid on 1 April 1998. On the same day, Slab „forward
sold‟ to First Derivatives the same quantity of maize for R46 415 776. It too
was paid on 1 April 1998. In effect, the money went out of FNB‟s account
(pursuant to the loan) and straight back into FNB‟s account (pursuant to the
first forward sale), with only the FNB fee making any difference.
The amount of the loan and the quantity of maize
[62] The Commissioner argued that various factors showed that the sum of
the loan and the quantity of maize required to discharge the loan were
artificially calculated. Given that it is NWK‟s intention that must be
ascertained, Barnard‟s evidence itself is crucial in determining whether there
was a genuine loan from Slab to NWK.
[63] I referred earlier to the negotiations preceding the conclusion of the
loan agreement. FNB had suggested a means of providing finance to NWK
and NWK had needed R50m. The proposal itself did not relate to the sum
actually needed by NWK. It suggested „indicative‟ figures.
[64] Barnard conceded that NWK required only R50m and did not question
the calculation of the amount purportedly lent. In fact, the amount of the loan
should have been insignificant since repayment was to take place by delivery
of a specified quantity of maize. And whatever amount NWK borrowed, it
would in fact receive a net amount of R50m.
[65] The amount of the loan was obviously calculated with reference to a
factor that did not bear any relation to the amount needed by NWK.
Calculations done by an expert witness for the Commissioner, Professor H
Wainer, showed how the loan sum was calculated in order to yield interest of
R74 686 514, the face value of the promissory notes. The loan sum was thus
established by taking the interest payable and calculating what capital sum
was needed to generate that interest at the rate agreed. NWK argued that
Wainer‟s evidence was irrelevant and inadmissible, but did not dispute the
calculations. The Tax Court held Wainer‟s evidence, and that of a Professor
Brink, an expert in agricultural trading, to be inadmissible. It was irrelevant,
said that court, because the opinions were based on the transactions from an
accounting and financial point of view: they did not deal with the intention of
the parties. Thus Wainer‟s view that there was no economic substance to the
transactions was disregarded by the Tax Court.
[66] The calculation of the quantity of maize to be delivered was done by an
agricultural economist, employed by FNB, Mr E Janowsky. Barnard did not
question the calculation or take steps to verify it. He accepted Janowsky‟s
estimate as soon as it was proffered without taking into account the volatility
of the maize market, or any forecast of the maize price five years hence.
[67] Janowsky, who testified for NWK, also conceded that an estimate of
the maize price five years after the loan was advanced was impossible. He
said that the price per ton in 2003 – the year when delivery was to have taken
place – fluctuated by over R1 000 per ton. No attempt was even made to
forecast an average price per ton.
[68] Moreover, no account was taken of the cost of storage of what was
admittedly a very large quantity of maize. So too, no provision was made for
actual transportation and delivery costs. And the contract itself made no
provision for any adjustment to the quantity of maize to be delivered by NWK.
Barnard‟s responses to questions about storage and transport costs were that
with hindsight he might have thought of these matters.
The description of the maize
[69] The maize was described in the loan and other agreements as „dried
white maize fit for human consumption‟. The Commissioner argued that the
description was vague since there are three classes of white maize that could
have been meant, each with a different value. NWK would thus have had a
choice whether to deliver maize of a lesser value. Barnard was not perturbed
by this feature. He said that he assumed that the maize would be „WM1‟, the
best quality produced, but acknowledged that there were two other classes
that could be covered by the description. His responses to the questions put
about the quality of the maize to be delivered to Slab were evasive.
The absence of security
[70] NWK was not required to provide security to Slab for the repayment of
the loan. As the Commissioner argued, if NWK had been liquidated prior to 28
February 2003, Slab (and FNB as cessionary) would have been in a
precarious position. The absence of security, the Commissioner contended, is
explicable only on the basis that NWK and FNB knew that Slab would almost
immediately after the conclusion of the loan, cede its rights to delivery to FNB,
and that both NWK and FNB would be relieved of their respective duties to
deliver the maize. And indeed that is what happened.
[71] Barnard attempted to explain the lack of security on the basis that
NWK did not usually give banks security for funds borrowed. But in fact NWK
had previously given security to the Land Bank which required it. His evidence
in this regard is thus not credible. In my view the lack of provision for security
is explicable on the basis that there really was nothing to secure: the parties
knew that the respective obligations to deliver maize had been extinguished
by confusio. Had the obligations to deliver five years after the loan was made
been genuine, security would no doubt have been provided.
The context in which the loan was concluded
[72] When Barnard concluded the loan agreement on behalf of NWK he
knew that the forward sale agreement between Slab and FNB would be
concluded, and that the promissory notes would be sold by Slab to FNB. He
thus knew that Slab had no real role to play in the whole transaction. It would
sell its rights to delivery of the maize, to be effected five years later, almost
immediately after the loan had been concluded. The loan agreement made
express provision for the cession by Slab of any of its rights.
The other agreements concluded pursuant to the proposal
[73] The transactions that were concluded by NWK on the same day as the
loan agreement was entered into, and the subsequent cessions in June 1998,
have already been discussed. Slab sold the same quantity of maize that NWK
was supposed to deliver to First Derivatives, an FNB division, on the day that
the loan was concluded – 1 April 1998. Again, no provision was made for
securing payment of the price of R45 815 776. The peculiar features of this
contract were that the price, which was required to fund the loan to NWK, was
determined with reference to the amount of the loan – R96 415 776. The
quantity of maize and its price were determined in the same way as they had
been calculated for the loan. The description of the maize was the same as
that in the loan and was equally deficient.
[74] The Commissioner argued that it was no coincidence that after the sale
of the promissory notes by Slab to FNB for R50 697 515, Slab was left with
the right to claim R45 718 258: that meant that it made a profit of R97 518
which was effectively its fee. Although NWK was not a party to this contract it
was envisaged in the initial proposal and Barnard was aware that it would be
concluded. It was an integral part of the finance arrangement. And on the
same day that that sale was concluded (1 April 1998), FNB sold the same
maize to NWK for R46 415 776, the price being based on Janowsky‟s
estimate. Again, delivery would be effected on 28 February 2003. The price
was in fact paid on 1 April 1998, yet no security was given for the delivery five
years later. The difference in the prices for the respective sales was R600 000
– 1.2 per cent of R50m, which was the amount that NWK had needed in the
first instance. This represented FNB‟s fee.
[75] Slab ceded its rights to delivery of the maize to FNB in June 1998. As I
have said, the loan made express provision for the cession and it was
envisaged in the proposal made to NWK at the outset. Barnard understood
the consequences of the cession: effectively NWK‟s obligation to deliver the
maize was cancelled. The debts were reciprocally discharged by confusio –
the concurrence of the right and the obligation in the same person – FNB.
[76] Although NWK argued that set-off would have taken place only when
both debts were due (when NWK had to deliver the maize to FNB and FNB
had to deliver to NWK on 28 February 2003) in fact Barnard must have
appreciated that any delivery would be meaningless. Although silo certificates
were exchanged they were in respect of the identical maize, and the
exchange and notarial certificates had no purpose. Barnard‟s protestations
that the delivery obligations remained extant are not credible. The entire
transaction in respect of the maize was effectively of no significance. At the
outset, there was, as the Commissioner has contended, no intention to effect
delivery at all. Contrast this result with that in Friedman and like cases: there,
although the goods remained with the purchaser when the full amount owed
had been paid, there was a genuine change of ownership, delivery being
constructive.
[77] Similarly, the cession by NWK of its rights to delivery of maize to FNB
as security for NWK‟s obligation to deliver maize pursuant to the cession from
Slab to FNB made no commercial sense. The obligation was illusory given
that FNB‟s and NWK‟s obligations in effect cancelled each other. There were
no longer any rights that could be ceded.
[78] Barnard attempted to explain the arrangements in respect of the
delivery of maize as a „hedge‟: the additional R46m added in respect of the
maize was to ensure that its obligation to deliver the maize as repayment of
the loan could be fulfilled. But in fact there was no „hedge‟ and the
agreements, examined together as they must be, envisaged no actual
delivery of maize as provided for. The Tax Court found nothing unusual in the
creation of a hedge or safety net within the same banking group. First
Derivatives, a division of FNB, was in fact a large trader in the agricultural
market. What the Tax Court did not consider, however, was that there was no
commercial reason for the so-called hedge given the extinction of the
respective obligations to deliver maize.
Simulation and motive for deception
[79] The Tax Court found that although NWK required only R50m for
business purposes, it had been offered a greater sum by FNB, structured in a
particular fashion that would enable it to claim a tax advantage to which it
would not otherwise have been entitled. NWK was not obliged, the court said,
„to choose the less tax-effective route‟. That is of course correct, as the
authorities cited earlier show. But the Tax Court went on to say that given the
apparent tax benefit of the structure proposed by FNB it was difficult to see
why NWK would have wished to simulate the transaction. There was, it held,
„no financial or other disadvantage to actually implementing the alternative
structure as opposed to pretending to do so‟. NWK, the court said, had no
motive for deception. Hence it had established on a balance of probabilities
that its true intention was to contract with Slab and FNB on the terms reflected
in the contracts.
[80] It is correct that FNB and NWK outwardly performed in terms of the
various contracts, as indicated earlier. But before then, in January 2003 FNB
wrote to NWK reminding it of its obligation to deliver 109 315 tons of maize on
28 February, and stating that on receipt it would deliver the same quantity to
NWK. Yet on 13 February 2003 Rand Merchant Bank, a division of FNB,
wrote to Barnard suggesting that set-off would occur, and that various clauses
in the original loan agreement should be amended retrospectively in the event
that actual delivery would be made. Barnard must have known then, if he did
not know before, that the respective delivery obligations had been
extinguished by confusio. The intention to perform in accordance with the
terms of the contract is accordingly questionable, and the Tax Court should
have considered this. It should have asked whether there was actually any
purpose in the contract other than tax evasion. This is not to suggest that a
taxpayer should not take advantage of a tax-effective structure. But as I have
said, there must be some substance – commercial reason – in the
arrangement, not just an intention to achieve a tax benefit or to avoid the
application of a law. A court should not look only to the outward trappings of a
contract: it must consider, when simulation is in issue, what the parties really
sought to achieve.
Barnard‟s credibility
[81] The Tax Court found that Barnard was a credible and satisfactory
witness. It accepted at face value his evidence that he thought he was
contracting with Slab despite the fact that the proposal and the loan
agreement had been drafted by FNB and that he had not ever encountered a
representative of Slab who was not also an official of FNB. It also accepted
his evidence that delivery of the maize was always intended and had taken
place.
[82] The Commissioner argued that various features of his evidence
showed that Barnard was not credible. I shall not traverse them all. In my
view, the most significant are these: his concession that the actual amount
lent was not of any significance; his inability to explain the inadequate
description of the maize in the loan and forward sale agreements; his
conflicting responses about knowledge of the Slab cession, first saying he did
not know it would take place and later admitting that it had been contemplated
at the outset and was part of the structure of the FNB proposal; his refusal to
accept that the Janowsky forecast did not take into account important factors
affecting the price of the maize, such as market fluctuations, and storage and
delivery costs; his insistence that security was not required for the
performance of the obligations on the basis that banks did not generally
require security from NWK, this despite having provided the Land Bank with
security for a loan; and lastly, his acknowledgment that unless Slab had
discounted the promissory notes it would not have had the funds to advance
the loan.
[83] In my view the inconsistencies and obfuscations in Barnard‟s evidence
are significant. And his inability to explain the way in which the prices and
quantities were calculated was telling. His evidence was simply not credible
and the Tax Court erred in finding him to be a credible and satisfactory
witness.
The loan was a simulated contract
[84] The Commissioner led the evidence of two experts on the way in which
the amount of the loan and the quantity of maize was computed, and on the
factors that should have been taken into account in determining the price of
the maize in the future. The Tax Court did not admit this evidence and thus
did not take it into account. It is not necessary to determine whether that was
incorrect. It is plain from a reading of Barnard‟s testimony, and a comparison
of it with the documents tendered in evidence, that the amount of the loan was
determined not by what was needed by NWK but by reference to other
factors.
[85] Moreover, Slab was able to advance the sum of R96 415 776 only by
discounting the promissory notes, the face value of which was the equivalent
of the capital sum of R50m and interest at the rate agreed. And NWK initially
intended to borrow only R50m. The balance was added on for a purpose that
Barnard could not explain, other than as a hedge. But a hedge was needed
only if the real amount borrowed was the artificially constructed sum of R96
415 776. The mere nature of the hedge shows the artificiality: why would
NWK incur a liability to deliver maize valued at R46m in order to purchase the
same quantity of maize to discharge the same obligation? As pointed out by
the Commissioner, to ascertain the true intention of NWK one had to ignore
entirely all the rights and obligations in respect of the maize.
[86] As I have said, the appropriate question to be asked, in order to
determine whether the loan and other transactions were simulated, is whether
there was a real and sensible commercial purpose in the transaction other
than the opportunity to claim deductions of interest from income tax on a
capital amount greater than R50m. None is to be found. What NWK really
wished to achieve was a tax advantage. What else could it, or did it, achieve
through the transactions in respect of the maize? Barnard did not explain any,
other than the creation of a hedge which had no effect. He could thus not
honestly have believed that the contract was to be performed in accordance
with its tenor.
[87] The FNB proposal itself, the transactions concluded between NWK and
Slab, and Slab and FNB, with their peculiar features, and Barnard‟s inability to
give any credible explanation of aspects of the transactions show, I consider,
that NWK could not have believed, and did not in fact believe, that the loan
was for the sum of R96 415 776. The contract was dressed up in order to
create an obligation to pay interest, and consequently a right to claim a tax
deduction, to which NWK was not entitled. NWK deliberately disguised the
true nature of the loan for this purpose. It did not intend, genuinely, to borrow
a sum approximating the one it purported to borrow.
[88] There was no evidence that Barnard was deceived by FNB. He knew
how the contracts, even those to which NWK was not a party, were to be
structured and that the deliveries in respect of maize were simulated. And
since NWK bore the onus of showing that the Commissioner‟s assessments
were wrong, the production of the contracts themselves was insufficient to
discharge that burden. Yet, despite that, NWK did not call the officials of FNB
who had proposed the transactions to give evidence. I do not consider,
however, that any inference need be drawn from the failure to call the FNB
officials. Barnard‟s evidence speaks for itself.
[89] In summary: Barnard could not explain (and indeed there was no
explanation possible for) the following extraordinary features of the
transactions. The sale of maize by NWK to FNB was dressed up as a loan.
NWK and FNB entered into two contracts of loan on the same day, the one
where FNB lent NWK R50m and the other where it „lent‟ NWK R96 415 776.
Virtually the same amount in excess of that which was required by NWK (R46
415 776) was paid by FNB to NWK and then in effect paid back by NWK to
FNB on 1 April 1998. The amount lent in the impugned loan was determined
not by reference to what was needed but by reference to a capital sum
needed to generate a particular sum of interest. The description of the maize
in the various contracts was vague. No security was afforded to Slab for
repayment of the loan. The loan was concluded with the knowledge on the
part of Barnard that Slab would sell its right to delivery of the maize to FNB
and that Slab would sell the promissory notes at a discount to FNB all on the
same day: Slab‟s role in the transactions was momentary. These aspects all
lead to the conclusion that the agreements in respect of maize were illusory:
there was never any intention to deliver maize in the future. The loan was a
simulated transaction, designed to create a tax benefit for NWK.
[90] In view of the conclusion that I have reached that the loan for R96 415
776 was a transaction designed to disguise the real agreement between the
parties – a loan of R50m – the Commissioner‟s assessments were correct,
and the appeal against the decision of the Tax Court in this respect must
succeed. There is thus no need to examine whether s 103(1) of the Act could
have been applied. However, since NWK argued that the Commissioner may
not raise s 103(1) as an alternative ground it is convenient to deal briefly with
this submission.
Section 103(1) as an alternative basis
[91] It must first be noted that this section has been repealed, and replaced
by a new part to the Act.23 I have set out the basis of the application of s
103(1) already. In summary, if satisfied that a transaction has been entered
23 Sections 80A to 80L: note, in particular, 80C which deals with transactions that have no
commercial substance.
into which has the effect of avoiding or reducing liability for tax, and would not
normally be employed for bona fide business purposes, the Commissioner
shall determine liability for tax as if the transaction had not been entered into.
[92] NWK argued that if the Commissioner had been satisfied that the loan
was simulated and did not have a tax avoidance or reduction effect, he could
not, even in the alternative, be satisfied that the transaction was one that had
a tax avoidance effect. Satisfaction, it was argued, is a subjective jurisdictional
fact. The Commissioner cannot be satisfied on two apparently conflicting
grounds. NWK relied in this regard on ITC 162524 where Wunsh J said that
unless the Commissioner demonstrates that he is of the opinion that tax has
been avoided, he cannot issue an assessment under s 103. Thus if tax has
not been avoided because the transaction was not simulated, he cannot, even
on an alternative basis, be satisfied that tax has been avoided.
[93] In CIR v Conehage25 this court was also presented with alternative
bases for the Commissioner‟s assessments, one being that the transactions
were simulated and the alternative that the Commissioner was satisfied that
they had been entered into for the purpose of avoiding liability for tax. The
court found that the contracts were genuine, but also considered s 103,
finding that the Commissioner had not shown that the transactions had had
the effect of avoiding liability for tax. There is, implicit in this approach, a view
that s 103 could be invoked as an alternative ground for assessment. There
appears to me to be no reason why an invalid transaction cannot also be
abnormal and concluded for the purpose of avoiding tax. Had the
Commissioner not proved that the loan was a simulated contract, it would
have been open to the Tax Court to consider the soundness of an
assessment under s 103.
Additional tax and interest
[94] As indicated earlier, in the additional assessments for the period from
1999 to 2003 the Commissioner levied a penalty of 200 per cent and
24 59 SATC 383 at 395.
25 1999 (4) SA 1149 (SCA), referred to above.
additional interest on the deductions claimed for interest in excess of that on
R50m. The penalty, he argued, was warranted because NWK had deliberately
made incorrect statements in the returns for the years of assessment,
intending to evade taxation. There were no extenuating circumstances. This
justified also the imposition of the additional interest in terms of s 89quat of
the Act.
[95] Section 76(2)(a) permits the Commissioner to remit the additional tax,
even where there is a dishonest attempt to evade tax, where there are
extenuating circumstances. NWK argued that he failed to take into account
the following extenuating factors. FNB had approached NWK with its
proposal, and NWK had not solicited finance from FNB. The proposal was
said to be confidential and proprietary to FNB. NWK played no role in crafting
the terms of the various agreements. Barnard had relied on the expertise of
the officials of FNB. FNB had furnished to Barnard the opinion of counsel
which had suggested that a structure similar (or the same as – we do not
know) to that proposed was legally sound, although he had cautioned against
the application of s 103 by the Commissioner.
[96] The consequence of the imposition of 200 per cent of additional tax is
that the amount payable pursuant to the new assessments would have been
R47 360 583. Only R15 786 861 of that would have been the interest that
should not have been claimed as a deduction over the five years of
assessment. The penalty is severe and out of proportion to the wrong
committed by NWK.
[97] I consider that these factors do militate against the imposition of the
highest penalty possible, and would reduce the additional tax to 100 per cent
of that for which NWK was liable. Counsel for the Commissioner accepted
that this would be appropriate. To this extent the appeal should fail. And NWK
has conceded that if the appeal succeeds on the first basis the interest in
terms of s 89quat was properly levied.
[98] Accordingly:
1 The appeal against the order of the Tax Court is upheld with costs including
those of two counsel.
2 The order of the Tax Court is replaced with:
„(a) The objection to the assessments is dismissed and the additional
assessments are upheld.
(b) The objection to the imposition of additional tax of 200 per cent is upheld.
(c) Additional tax of 100 per cent of the total amount of the additional
assessments is imposed in terms of s 76 of the Income Tax Act 58 of 1962.‟
_____________
C H Lewis
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES:
APPELLANTS:
C Puckrin SC (with him D Fine SC, G D Goldman,
and T Molokomme)
Instructed by the State Attorney
Johannesburg
The State Attorney
Bloemfontein
RESPONDENTS:
W Trengove SC (with him A Stewart SC and H V
Vorster)
Instructed by Vorster Pereira Attorneys
Sandton
Bezuidenhout Inc
Bloemfontein | SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
PRESS RELEASE
1 December 2010
STATUS: Immediate
CSARS v NWK (27/10) [2010] ZASCA 168 (1 December 2010)
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media
and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
The Commissioner for the South African Revenue Service had levied
additional assessments against NWK, a maize trading company, formerly a
co-operative, for the years 1999 to 2003. He had also imposed additional tax
(at the rate of 200 per cent) as a penalty for making false statements in tax
returns, and interest. The basis of the assessment was that NWK had
concluded transactions with First National Bank and its subsidiary that were
simulated. While intending to borrow R50m from FNB, NWK, in April 1998,
had purported to borrow over R96m from a subsidiary of FNB, repayable by
the delivery of a specified quantity of maize five years after the contract was
concluded. It had paid interest on the sum of R96m, and claimed that as a
deduction from income tax on the basis that it was expenditure in the
production of income.
A number of other agreements were entered into which in effect cancelled out
the obligation to deliver maize. The real sum lent was R50m, while
deductions were claimed in respect of interest paid on R96m. The Tax Court,
Johannesburg found that the parties had intended to perform the contacts on
the terms agreed: there was no simulation. It took into account the
performance, five years later, by the parties of their respective obligations
under the various contracts, including the constructive delivery of maize (by
exchange of silo certificates in front of a notary) by NWK to FNB and the
immediate delivery of the same quantity of maize by FNB to NWK. It upheld
NWK’s appeal against the Commissioner’s assessments.
The Tax Court also declined to invoke the former s103(1) of the Income Tax
Act 58 of 1962 (which allows the Commissioner to impose tax where he is
satisfied that a transaction has been entered into for the purpose of avoiding
liability for tax) on the basis that it could not be used as an alternative ground
to a finding that a transaction was simulated.
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal upheld the Commissioner’s appeal
against the decision of the Tax Court. It held that the loan was simulated, and
that there had never been an intention to effect delivery of maize as
repayment. The court did, however, reduce the penalty, imposing only 100 per
cent of the amount assessed as additional tax.
The SCA held that the test to determine simulation cannot simply be whether
there is an intention to give effect to a contract in accordance with its terms.
Invariably where parties structure a transaction to achieve an objective other
than the one ostensibly achieved they will intend to give effect to the
transaction on the terms agreed. The test should thus go further, and require
an examination of the commercial sense of the transaction: of its real
substance and purpose. If the purpose of the transaction is only to achieve an
object that allows the evasion of tax, or of a peremptory law, then it will be
regarded as simulated. And the mere fact that parties do perform in terms of
the contract does not show that it is not simulated: the charade of
performance is generally meant to give credence to their simulation.
--------------------------------------- |
3321 | non-electoral | 2006 | IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
OF SOUTH AFRICA
Reportable
Case No. 047/2005
In the matter between:
THE MEC FOR ROADS AND
PUBLIC WORKS, EASTERN CAPE First Appellant
THE CHAIRMAN OF THE PROVINCIAL
TENDER BOARD, EASTERN CAPE Second Appellant
and
INTERTRADE TWO (PTY) LTD Respondent
CORAM:
HOWIE P, FARLAM, HEHER, VAN HEERDEN
JJA et MAYA AJA
HEARD:
23 FEBRUARY 2006
DELIVERED:
27 MARCH 2006
Summary: Promotion of Access to Information Act 2 of 2000 s 7(1) – whether tenderer
instituting application for review in terms of uniform rule 53 against public body that had
called for tenders is precluded from seeking order for production of documentation
relating to the tender adjudication which allegedly falls, in part, outside the ambit of the
record referred to in uniform rule 53(1)(b) – whether documentation ‘requested’ prior to
the commencement of review proceedings in terms of s 7(1) of PAIA.
Neutral citation: MEC for Roads & Public Works v Intertrade Two
(Pty) Ltd [2006] SCA 34 (RSA)
JUDGMENT
MAYA AJA:
MAYA AJA:
[1] This appeal concerns the right of an unsuccessful tenderer who has
instituted review proceedings in terms of uniform rule 53 against the public
body that called for tenders, to obtain information relating to the tender
adjudication process from such body.
[2] The respondent, Intertrade Two (Pty) Ltd (‘Intertrade’), is a supplier
and repairer of mechanical and electrical plant and equipment. It instituted
application proceedings in the Bhisho High Court (Dhlodhlo ADJP) seeking
various forms of relief, inter alia, the review of the appellants’ tender
process, in which it was a tenderer, on the grounds of irregular conduct on
the part of the appellants’ officials. In addition to the record envisaged by
rule 53(1)(b), Intertrade requested a wide range of documents relating to the
tender process to enable it properly to formulate its case. The appellants
raised a question of law in terms of rule 6(5)(d)(iii), challenging the validity
of the procedure adopted by Intertrade. The objection was aimed at
Intertrade’s request for additional documents on the basis that its invocation
of rule 53 confined it to the production of only those documents falling
within the ambit of the record envisaged by the rule. The appellants
contended that s 7 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act 2 of 2000
(‘PAIA’) precluded Intertrade from demanding such additional documents
before it had exhausted its procedural remedies under both rules 53 and
35(12). Dhlodhlo ADJP dismissed the objection and granted the relief
sought. The appellants appeal against that order with his leave.
[3] The facts on which Intertrade based its application were not in
dispute. In March 1997 the first appellant (‘the department’) awarded a
tender to Intertrade’s corporate predecessor for a two year contract for
preventative maintenance and repairs of plant and equipment at various
provincial hospitals in the Eastern Cape. Prior to the expiration of the
contract, the parties agreed to extend it for a further one year period on the
same terms. Similar extensions followed until 31 March 2003. After the
expiry of the initial contract in March 1999, the department had, in three
successive tender processes, invited tenders for the contract in different
formats in an attempt to include other suppliers. Intertrade was the only
tenderer on each occasion but the contract was not awarded. This occurred
again in 2002 despite the department’s recommendation in favour of
Intertrade. The second appellant (‘the Tender Board’) rejected the
recommendation and instructed the department to ‘rephrase the tender
specifications’ - which had in fact been done in the previous processes - and
re-advertise the tender to accommodate other service providers. The tender
was once again not awarded.
[4] In September 2003, the department invited tenders, valid for 90 days,
for four contracts – two for mechanical and electrical work (‘the ME
contracts’) and two for laundry and kitchen repairs and maintenance (‘the
LK contracts’) at provincial hospitals in certain municipal districts.
Intertrade was the only tenderer for the ME contracts and one of two
tenderers for each of the LK contracts. When the Tender Board did not make
a decision on the tenders within the stipulated time, Intertrade complained to
it and to the department in a number of letters. In its reply, the department
expressed surprise that Intertrade had not been awarded the contracts.
Intertrade then wrote to the Premier of the Province, subsequently cited as
one of the respondents in the court a quo, seeking his intervention. The
Premier asked the Provincial Strategy Planning Division (the PSPD) to
investigate the matter. In its report to the Premier in March 2004, the PSPD
had expressed dismay at the undue delay, referring to its ‘desperation and
frustration after having had no appropriate response’ from the relevant
officials. It also raised concern at the death of patients and other problems
which had resulted from the failure to maintain the relevant hospital
equipment. At a related meeting of the relevant heads of department, it was
apparently concluded that Intertrade had not been treated fairly and the
Premier apparently expressed the view that the contracts should have been
awarded to it.
[5] The 2004 national elections, which brought a new minister for the
department and a new Premier in the province, appear to have interrupted
the process. In May 2004, the department informed Intertrade in writing that
one of its tenders had not been approved because it was overpriced. This
raised suspicion on the part of Intertrade that its tender prices had been
tampered with after the closure of tenders as its prices as tendered had been
lower than the tender estimates on submission. Strangely, this departmental
communication was subsequently telephonically withdrawn by one of the
department’s officials without explanation. Having informed Intertrade that
it had decided to award one of the LK contracts to the other tenderer
concerned (who was also cited as a respondent in the court a quo), the
department then requested Intertrade to extend the validity of its tenders in
respect of both LK contracts. Intertrade agreed to do so. In a bizarre turn of
events, Intertrade was at this stage approached by a woman who offered to
get its tenders approved in return for a 10 per cent stake in the contracts.
Intertrade rejected the offer out of hand. More time elapsed and a decision
was still not made. Further entreaties to the new Premier elicited no
response.
[6] Finally, on 27 July 2004, Intertrade, through its attorneys, wrote to the
department and the Tender Board formally enquiring, amongst other things,
whether the relevant tenders had been awarded. It further requested the
identity of the successful tenderer, written reasons for the decision and
copies of specified, wide-ranging documents concerning the tender process
relative to the four contracts in the event that its tender bids had been
unsuccessful. The department subsequently provided Intertrade with a
disjointed bundle of documents relating only to some of the tenders. Some of
the documents were undated and others were incomplete extracts of minutes
apparently relating to relevant proceedings. It appeared from some that the
tender estimates of the Intertrade’s competitors were extremely low and
unrealistic. The relevant tender documents were, however, withheld, as were
most of the documents requested by Intertrade. This included a document
emanating from the Premier which, in essence, directed that the contracts be
awarded to Intertrade and which employees of Intertrade had seen during a
visit to the department. A further letter addressed by Intertrade’s attorneys to
the department and the Tender Board requesting the outstanding documents
went unanswered. Intertrade then launched the review application.
[7] It was common cause that the appellants had purported to produce a
record for purposes of rule 53 in the court a quo where a judgment on the
review proceedings is still pending. Prior to the hearing of the appeal, the
appellants filed a ‘notice’ listing which of the documents, as requested in
Intertrade’s notice of motion, they contended did not form part of the rule 53
record. These are:
‘1. minutes of all other departmental meetings and relevant committee meetings at which
the tenders in relation to the contracts were considered and evaluated;
2. all correspondence, interoffice memoranda and other documents relating to the tenders
and the award or non-award or postponement of the award of the contracts during the
period August 2003 to date;
3. all directives or recommendations or correspondence issued by the Premier of the
Eastern Cape (past or current) relating to the award or non-award of the contracts;
4. any costing exercises in relation to contracts produced by the First and Second
Respondents [appellants] or provided to such Respondents; and
5. extracts of the tender documents of the Fourth and Fifth Respondents [Intertrade’s co-
tenderers] in respect of contracts 1893 LK and 1894 LK which relates to their costing of
their tenders and setting out their rates and how their tender prices are made up.’
[8] Section 32 of the Constitution confers upon every person a general
and unqualified right of access to any information held by the state and its
organs. It then requires the enactment of national legislation to give effect to
the right, which legislation ‘may provide for reasonable measures to
alleviate the administrative and financial burden on the state’. PAIA is that
legislation. The right to obtain information is conferred also, albeit for the
limited purpose of litigation, by uniform rules 53 and 35, which regulate
review proceedings and the discovery procedure, respectively.
[9] As indicated above, the appellants’ central contention was that
Intertrade’s right to access the documents that it sought lay in rules 53 and
35(12). Their counsel sketched the rather circuitous legal route that he
submitted Intertrade had to take. He argued that Intertrade should first have
requested a copy of the relevant record in terms of rule 53. In the event that
some of the documents sought fell outside the scope of the record envisaged
in that rule, Intertrade would then have to invoke the discovery procedure
under rule 35(12). If that process did not yield the desired results, Intertrade
could then utilize PAIA to access the missing documents. Or it could, so the
argument went, have reversed the process and brought a separate application
in terms of PAIA before proceeding on review.
[10] The appellants’ case, which seeks to limit Intertrade’s right of access
to information, rests on s 7(1) of PAIA. The objects of the Act are embodied
in s 9. They include:
‘(a) to give effect to the constitutional right of access to-
(i) any information that is held by the State; and
(ii) . . .
(b) to give effect to that right-
(i) subject to justifiable limitations, including, but not limited to, limitations aimed
at the reasonable protection of privacy…and effective, efficient and good
governance; and
(ii) in a manner which balances that right with any other rights, including the
rights in the Bill of Rights in Chapter 2 of the Constitution.’
[11] It is abundantly clear, therefore, that the interpretation of the
provisions of PAIA must be informed by the Constitution (see s 39(2) of the
Constitution, which obliges every court to promote the spirit, purport and
objects of the Bill of Rights when interpreting any legislation; and see
further Bato Star Fishing (Pty) Ltd v Minister of Environmental Affairs &
Others 2004 (4) SA 490 (CC) para 72).
[12] I turn now to deal with s 7(1). It reads:
‘(1)
This Act does not apply to a record of a public body or a private body if –
(a) that record is requested for the purpose of criminal or civil proceedings;
(b) so requested after the commencement of such criminal or civil proceedings, as the
case may be; and
(c) the production of or access to that record for the purpose referred to in paragraph
(a) is provided for in any other law.’
It is important to note that these jurisdictional requirements are cumulative –
all three must co-exist for the operation of the Act to be excluded.
[13] It was not disputed that the appellants fall within the definition of
‘public body’ in PAIA and that they are state organs in terms of the
Constitution. It is common cause that the request for the documents in issue
was made prior to the institution of the application proceedings and that it
was in fact the appellants’ resistance to disclosure that prompted the request
for the production of documents contained in the notice of motion. The
appellants’ counsel, however, sought to draw a distinction between what he
termed an informal request, ie Intertrade’s letters of 27 July 2004 and 25
August 2004 and a request contemplated in s 7(1)(b). As I understood his
argument, the letters do not amount to the latter and only the demand set out
in the notice of motion could be considered as constituting the request
envisaged in PAIA. No authority was cited to support this submission and I
have not found any. In my view, there is no merit in the submission and I am
satisfied that Intertrade did make a ‘request’ in terms of s 7(1)(b) before the
institution of its application.
[14] Counsel argued further that the notice of motion in any event referred
to more documents than had been requested before the proceedings and that
the ‘broader proceedings’ thus confined Intertrade to the procedural
remedies. The items requested for the first time in the notice of motion are
those listed in paragraph 4 of the appellants’ abovementioned ‘notice’. In my
view, these documents are so closely linked to those which had been
previously requested that there is no basis to distinguish them from the other
documents.
[15] Some of the documents sought by Intertrade may not be obtainable by
means of either rule 53 or 35. In Johannesburg City Council v The
Administrator, Transvaal (1) 1970 (2) SA 89 (T), the court described a rule
53 ‘record of proceedings’ as follows (at 91G-92A):
‘The words…cannot be otherwise construed, in my view, than as a loose description of
the documents, evidence, arguments and other information before the tribunal relating to
the matter under review, at the time of the making of the decision in question. It may be a
formal record and dossier of what has happened before the tribunal, but it may also be a
disjointed indication of the material that was at the tribunal’s disposal. In the latter case it
would, I venture to think, include every scrap of paper throwing light, however indirectly,
on what the proceedings were, both procedurally and evidentially. A record of
proceedings is analogous to the record of proceedings in a court of law which quite
clearly does not include a record of the deliberations subsequent to the receiving of the
evidence and preceding the announcement of the court’s decision. Thus the deliberations
of the Executive Committee are as little part of the record of proceedings as the private
deliberations of the jury or of the Court in a case before it. It does, however, include all
the documents before the Executive Committee as well as all documents which are by
reference incorporated in the file before it.’ (My emphasis.)
Some of the items listed in the appellants’ abovementioned ‘notice’ may,
conceivably, fall outside the scope of the above description.
[16] Rule 35 is also not without limitations. The discovery procedure is,
even when interpreted purposively ( see, for example, Premier Freight (Pty)
Ltd v Breathetex Corporation (Pty) Ltd 2003 (6) SA 190 (SE)), by its nature
an extraordinary procedure in application proceedings, allowed only in
exceptional circumstances, and does not create an unqualified obligation for
a party from whom discovery is sought to produce the documents. The
appellants could possibly resist discovery successfully, for example on
grounds of privilege or relevance. If some of the documents sought by
Intertrade cannot be obtained in terms of rules 53 and 35, this would mean
that without resorting to PAIA, Intertrade would not be able to gain access to
such documents. In my view, that may effectively place such documents
outside the ambit of s 7(1)(c). However, in view of my conclusion in respect
of s 7(1)(b), it is not necessary to decide this point one way or the other.
[17] It has been suggested that the purpose of s 7 is to prevent PAIA from
having any impact on the law governing discovery or compulsion of
evidence in civil and criminal proceedings (see Ian Currie & Jonathan
Klaaren The Promotion of Access to Information Act Commentary (2002) at
pp 52-54) by prohibiting access, after commencement of litigation, to ensure
that ‘litigants make use of their remedies as to discovery in terms of the
Rules… and to avoid the possibility that one litigant gets an unfair
advantage over his adversary’ (see CCII Systems (Pty) Ltd v Fakie and
others NNO 2003 (2) SA 325 (T) para 21). This situation does not, in my
opinion, arise on the facts of this case.
[18] In the view I take of the matter, I therefore refrain from expressing
any opinion on the question whether or not the right to obtain information
conferred by the rules and PAIA can be invoked contemporaneously in so
far as the documents sought fall outside the scope of the record envisaged in
rule 53(10)(b) and the documents covered by rule 35(12) (cf Institute for
Democracy in South Africa v African National Congress 2005 (5) SA 39 (C)
paras 14-19). Suffice to say that s 2(1) of PAIA enjoins courts, when
interpreting the provisions of the Act, to prefer any reasonable interpretation
that is consistent with its objects over any alternative interpretation
inconsistent therewith. From various parts of PAIA - the long title, the
preamble, s 9 and other sections – those objects are clear, namely, generally
to make information held by the state (and private bodies) accessible to the
public to promote accountability. The rules themselves were designed ‘to
secure the inexpensive and expeditious completion of litigation before the
courts’ (see Federated Trust Ltd v Botha 1978 (3) SA 645 (A) at 654C-D)
and also to ensure a fair hearing and should, where reasonably possible, be
interpreted in such a way as to advance, and not reduce, the scope of an
entrenched constitutional right (see D F Scott (EP) (Pty) Ltd v Golden Valley
Supermarket 2002 (6) SA 297 (SCA) para 9; and cf De Beer NO v North-
Central Local Council and South-Central Local Council 2002 (1) SA 429
(CC) para 11).
[19] The wording of s 7(1) is clear and must be given effect to. Whilst the
jurisdictional requirement set out in subsection (1)(a) has been established,
that set out in subsection (1)(b) has not been met in the present case. Section
7 cannot, therefore, operate as a bar to Intertrade’s request. The appellants’
reliance thereon was misplaced.
[20] There is another issue that requires comment. The appellants’
resistance to Intertrade’s request for documentation on technical grounds
was, in my opinion, most reprehensible. Important issues are at stake here.
Intertrade seeks to establish the truth about an extraordinarily extended
tender process to exercise and protect its rights. The appellants knew
precisely what documents it required from the outset. They did not raise any
impediment which would prevent them from producing the documents.
Neither did they deny that they had the documents in their possession. Their
response is rendered more deplorable by the report contained in the
department’s own correspondence which shows that, whilst they were
embarking on delaying tactics at the taxpayer’s expense, sick and vulnerable
citizens were suffering and children were dying in poorly maintained
hospitals as a direct result of their failure to comply with their constitutional
obligations.
[21] The nature and extent of a public body’s obligation where the right of
access to information is invoked is eloquently expressed in Van Niekerk v
Pretoria City Council 1997 (3) SA 839 (T). There, Cameron J, dealing with
a claim brought under s 23 of the interim Constitution (the precursor to s 32
of the Constitution) said at (850A-C):
‘In my view, s 23 entails that public authorities are no longer permitted to “play possum”
with members of the public where the rights of the latter are at stake. Discovery
procedures and common-law claims of privilege do not entitle them to roll over and play
dead when a right is at issue and a claim for information is consequently made. The
purpose of the Constitution, as manifested in s 23, is to subordinate the organs of State…
to a new regimen of openness and fair dealing with the public.’
Had it not been for the fact the appellants were granted leave to appeal by
the court a quo, this court may well have been inclined to make a special
punitive costs order as a mark of its extreme displeasure at their conduct.
[22] For the above reasons, the conclusion reached by the court a quo was
correct. The appeal is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two
counsel.
_________________________
MML MAYA
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
CONCUR:
HOWIE P
FARLAM JA
HEHER JA
VAN HEERDEN JA | MEDIA STATEMENT – CASE HEARING IN SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
The MEC for Roads and Public Works (EC) and
Another v Intertrade Two (Pty) Ltd
Supreme Court of Appeal -43/2005
Hearing date: 23 February 2006
Judgment date: 27 March 2006
Promotion of Access to Information Act 2 of 2000 s 7(1) – whether tenderer
instituting application for review in terms of uniform rule 53 against public body
that had called for tenders is precluded from seeking order for production of
documentation relating to the tender adjudication which allegedly falls, in part,
outside the ambit of the record referred to in uniform rule 53(1)(b) – whether
documentation ‘requested’ prior to the commencement of review proceedings in
terms of s 7(1) of PAIA.
Media Summary of Judgment
In a judgment delivered today, the Supreme Court of Appeal has dismissed the
appeal of the MEC for Roads and Public Works and the Chairman of the Tender
Board of the Eastern Cape against a judgment which granted Intertrade Two
(Pty) Ltd, an unsuccessful tenderer, a right to obtain information in their
possession relating to the adjudication of tenders, which they had invited, of
contracts to conduct mechanical and electrical repair work at provincial hospitals
in the Eastern Cape.
The appeal turned on whether Intertrade, which had instituted an application in
terms of uniform rule 53 for the review of the appellants’ tender process on
grounds of irregular conduct, could, in the same proceedings, seek the
production of documents relating to the tender process which were not
necessarily covered by the rule. The appellants contended that Intertrade was
barred from accessing the documents in terms of s 7(1) of the Promotion of
Access to Information Act 2 of 2000 (‘PAIA’) which (a) prohibits access to a
record sought for the purpose of criminal or civil proceedings; (b) requested after
the commencement of such proceedings; and (c) where the production or
access that record is provided for in any other law.
The SCA held that the provisions of s 7(1), which operate cumulatively, did not
apply to the instant case because Intertrade had requested the documents from
the appellants by way of two letters before it launched the application. Section
7(1)(b) was not, therefore, complied with. The SCA held that whilst it was
debatable whether Intertrade could access all the documents by invoking the
discovery procedure provided in Uniform rule 35 as contended by the appellants,
it was not necessary to decide this point in the light of its finding in respect of s
7(1)(b).
The SCA emphasised the objects of PAIA – to make information held by the
state accessible to the public to promote accountability. The SCA expressed its
extreme displeasure at the appellants’ failure to play open cards with Intertrade
and their waste of public funds by raising technical legal defences whilst public
hospitals remained poorly maintained and sick children died as a result thereof. |
2219 | non-electoral | 2009 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No 159/08
THE MINISTER FOR JUSTICE AND
CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENT
APPELLANT
and
MQABUKENI CHONCO AND 383 OTHERS RESPONDENTS
Neutral citation:
The Minister for Justice and Constitutional Development v
Chonco 159/08 [2009] ZASCA 31 (30 March 2009)
Coram:
FARLAM,
NUGENT,
VAN
HEERDEN,
JAFTA
et
MLAMBO JJA
Heard:
16 FEBRUARY 2009
Delivered:
30 MARCH 2009
Summary:
Constitutional law – applications for pardon under
s 84(2)(j) of the Constitution – whether Minister for
Justice
and
Constitutional
Development
under
constitutional obligation to process applications before
the President considers whether to exercise his power
under the section.
______________________________________________________________
ORDER
On appeal from:
High Court Pretoria (Seriti J sitting as court of first
instance)
The following order is made:
The appeal is dismissed with costs, including those occasioned by the
employment of two counsel.
JUDGMENT
FARLAM JA ( Nugent, Van Heerden, Jafta et Mlambo JJA concurring)
[1] In this matter the appellant, the Minister for Justice and Constitutional
Development, appeals against a judgment delivered by Seriti J in the Pretoria
High Court in which he directed the appellant's predecessor 'to do all the
necessary within a period of three months from [the date of the order] to
enable the second respondent [the President], to exercise the powers
conferred on him in terms of s 84(2)(j) of the Constitution in an informed way
with regard to all 384 applications for Presidential pardon referred to in [the]
application.' In the order appealed against the learned judge also declared
that the appellant's predecessor had 'failed to exercise with due diligence and
without delay, the constitutional obligation to process and do all the necessary
to enable the second respondent to exercise the powers conferred on him in
terms of s 84(2)(j) of the Constitution in an informed way, with regard to the
applications for Presidential pardon by the applicant [the present first
respondent] and the 383 other applicants for Presidential pardon in whose
interest and on whose behalf the applicant brought this application.'
[2] As appears from the portion of the order which I have quoted, the
application before the court was brought by the present first respondent,
Mqabukeni Chonco, on behalf of himself and 383 other persons. All of them
are currently in prison, so it was alleged, serving lengthy gaol sentences for
what they allege were criminal offences 'committed . . . in the course of the
political struggle of the past.' None of them applied for amnesty to the Truth
and Reconciliation Commission (to which I shall refer as 'the TRC') because,
so they say, their political party, the Inkatha Freedom Party, 'did not support
the TRC'. (In what follows I shall call this party the 'IFP'.) Their applications for
pardon in terms of s 84(2)(j) of the Constitution were addressed to the second
respondent, the President, but were forwarded by the IFP on their behalf to
the then Minister for Justice, on the instructions of a senior official in the office
of the Minister, during the period September to October 2003.
[3] It was common cause between the parties that, by the time the
application was heard in the court a quo the applications submitted on behalf
of the applicants had not been sent to the second respondent for
consideration, nor have they been sent since. This is despite the fact that, by
the time of the hearing, almost four and a half years had elapsed since they
were sent to the then Minister.
[4] On 20 May 2005 Mr L K Joubert MP, a member of the IFP, raised the
matter in the National Assembly. In the course of his speech he said the
following:
'The first issue that I wish to deal with is applications for presidential pardon or reprieve that
the IFP submitted and on which it is getting absolutely nowhere. We submitted a total of 384
applications for presidential pardons, in terms of section 84(2)(j) of the Constitution, as long
ago as September and October 2003, and that is more than one and a half years ago.
Apart from acknowledging receipt of the applications, nothing has transpired since that. My
colleague, Mr Mzizi, wrote to the Minister for Justice and Constitutional Development on 13
February 2004 enquiring when he could expect a reply. Our Chief Whip wrote to the President
on 11 November 2004 asking what progress had been made. The President's Office replied
on 23 November and assured us that the matter was receiving the President's attention.
Hearing nothing further from the President, our Chief Whip, once again, wrote to the Minister
for Justice and Constitutional Development on 19 January 2005 requesting an appointment to
see the Minister in this regard. Seeing that nothing happened, our Chief Whip once again
wrote to the Minister on 8 March 2005 and insisted on an urgent interview to discuss this
matter. Nothing happened; there was complete silence. We are simply being ignored.
In the meanwhile, we have been very patient and did not kick up dust when Dr Boesak
received a pardon. We were hoping that attention would also, in due course, be given to our
384 applicants but, until today, nothing has happened.
I, therefore, have to tell this House that 384 applications for pardons are simply lying
somewhere and nobody seems to be interested in doing anything about them. This is nothing
less than a violation of human rights. Those 384 applicants and their families have been
waiting for a very long time but all they have received is silence.
I bring this matter to the attention of Parliament and the public, and I today publicly request
the hon Minister to kindly and urgently inform us what the status of these applications is so
that we can immediately inform the applicants about where they stand.'
[5] It appears from the papers that the Minister then promised to give her
immediate attention to the matter.
[6] On 8 September 2005, Mr J H van der Merwe MP, the IFP Chief Whip
(and incidentally the respondents' attorney in this matter), directed a question
in Parliament to the President with regard to the progress that had been
made. This question elicited a reply which contained the following:
'[T]he applications referred to by the hon member have not yet been sent to the President,
and are still with the Department of Justice. The matter has unfortunately been delayed in the
Department of Justice, which has received more than 1 000 applications for pardons for
crimes allegedly committed for political reasons.
We've urged the Minister of Justice to ensure that the processing of these and other
applications is expedited. We will consider the appropriateness of a presidential pardon for
each case once the Ministry and the Department of Justice have completed the processing of
the applications, and verified the facts of each case, understanding very well the prerogatives
granted to the President of the Republic by section 84(2)(j) of the Constitution, to which the
hon member referred.'
[7] The President in the course of his reply explained some of the
difficulties which had been encountered in dealing with the applications.
Amongst other things he said that the Ministry and the Department of Justice
had to ensure that their recommendations to the President were 'based on the
application of a set of criteria that are consistent with the spirit that inspired
the establishment of the TRC. Apart from anything else', he continued, 'such
criteria would help us to avoid ad hoc and arbitrary presidential decisions that
would undermine the important principle of equality of treatment of all our
citizens and the necessary transparency in this regard.'
[8] The President also said that the applications were being processed by
the Ministry and the department and added that 'at the appropriate moment
we shall come back to the people who have applied for these pardons to
indicate what decision should have been taken.'
[9] Later the same day, in the discussion in the National Assembly, the
President said that he would speak to the Minister and her deputy so that they
could interact with Mr van der Merwe and with Dr S E M Pheko MP, of the
Pan Africanist Congress (who had also raised the matter), and could indicate
what was being done and the particular problems they were experiencing with
regard to the processing of the applications.
[10] Eight months later, on 19 May 2006, Mr van der Merwe raised the
matter again in the National Assembly. He spoke of what he called the
'unbelievable lack of action by the hon Minister'. After referring to the 384
applications for pardon which the IFP had submitted towards the end of 2003,
which he said had fallen on deaf ears, he continued:
'I wish to give hon members an idea of the unbelievable and almost impossible uphill battles
we have fought to seek justice and to ensure that the Constitution is respected and that these
applications are processed.
For almost three years now, we have written letters to the hon Minister and the hon President
pleading with them to attend to these applications. Where did it get us? Nowhere. Absolutely
nowhere! The hon Minister ignored us. Twice in this very House we called this neglect a
violation of human rights. Our very serious accusation and the plight of 400 prisoners were
simply ignored . . .'
[11] In her reply to Mr van der Merwe's speech, the Minister pointed out that
there were no guidelines for dealing with these applications and said that the
President had decided 'to take the issue to all the parties.'
[12] She continued:
'As the Department of Justice and Constitutional Development, we are trying to get proposals,
which we will table before the cabinet; an undertaking which is not easy but rather difficult.
We acknowledge that there are problems with regard to the existing guidelines as they state
that when an individual applies for a presidential amnesty, the issue will be treated separately.
The President actually said that people seeking political amnesty should appear before the
TRC. And since they did not appear before the TRC, they are now faced with this issue.
Hence it is important to ensure that the guidelines are correct.
It should be noted that this undertaking is not an easy one and it did not even start in 2003.
Honestly speaking, this matter forms part of the outstanding issues. It was indicated during
CODESA that there were still problems that needed our attention. We should put our heads
together, apply our minds and throw some ideas around as to how we are going to move
forward. We will bring the President's response to Parliament soon. It will be taken to the
cabinet, as I will not be the first person to receive it.'
[13] In October 2006, in reply to a question on the matter in the National
Council of Provinces, the Minister said:
'There are 1107 applications for pardons which were received by the Department from
prisoners who allege that their offences are politically motivated. These include the
submission by the IFP in respect of 385 of their members. These applications are complex in
nature:
The sentences that the applicants are serving vary from 12 years to death. With
respect to the latter, a separate process was completed to convert all death
sentences to alternative sentences, in most cases, life sentences. The applicants also
indicate in their applications that they did not apply for amnesty with the TRC
because they either did not know that they could do so and when they did find out, it
was too late as they were out of time, or that the TRC process was not supported by
their political parties. In some cases the offences were allegedly committed after the
cut-off date of the TRC process itself.
Due to the complexity of the applications I have deemed it necessary to approach Cabinet to
give guidance on the matter.'
[14] Thereafter up to the date when the first respondent deposed to the
founding affidavit, viz 28 May 2007, no indication of whatsoever nature had
been given by either the Minister or the President as to whether any progress
had been made regarding the applications for presidential pardon brought by
the respondents, and, if so, what that progress was.
[15] The main answering affidavit filed on behalf of the Minister was
deposed to by Mr Menzi Simelane, the director general of the department.
[16] In his affidavit Mr Simelane set out the legal framework informing the
subject matter of these proceedings, and emphasised the need for a new
approach. He stated that the Minister was currently engaged in a process
involving what he called the construction of an appropriate framework for
considering applications for pardon in respect of politically motivated offences.
[17] Mr Simelane listed the following questions which were included, as he
put it, in the matters that the Minister 'would like to infuse into the current
debate concerning politically motivated pardons':
'1.
Post 1994 and given the TRC process, who can be regarded as an offender
incarcerated because of having committed a politically motivated offence or one
associated with a political objective?
2.
What would be considered to be the most appropriate cut off date for a definition of
an offence that was politically motivated or associated with a political objective?
3.
What is a politically motivated offence, given the advent of democracy in 1994?
4.
Are there circumstances under which an offence committed in 2000 or 2007 could be
considered to be politically motivated or associated with a political objective?
5.
Was the post 1994 violent conflict that occurred in KwaZulu Natal and the East Rand
political in nature? All of it?
6.
Should rape be considered as an offence committed with a political motive or
associated with a political objective? If so, under what circumstances?
7. Would offences committed by former members of the security forces be considered
alongside those committed with a political objective?
8. Who is to verify the particulars furnished in the applications and how is that verification to
be done?
9.
Should victims of the crimes committed be accommodated and if so in what manner?
10.
What would be the most appropriate and effective manner of dealing with a large
number of applications?'
[18] He then provided a précis of the individual applications, set out the
department's stance and responded to the averments in the founding affidavit.
[19] In the section dealing with the construction of an appropriate
framework, Mr Simelane said the following:
'[O]ther than internal operational procedures that assist the Department in the assessment
and evaluation of applications for the pardon of minor offences, dealt with below, there is no
established process for assessing and evaluating applications for the pardon of more serious
offences, and in particular those motivated by way of a political objective.'
[20] He proceeded to refer to pardons granted by President Mbeki on 6 May
2002 to 33 African National Congress and Pan Africanist Congress members
in the Eastern Cape who had all, wholly or in part unsuccessfully, gone
through the amnesty process of the TRC. Although it appears that Dr
Maduna, the then Minister, had, as it was put in a later explanatory note to the
President, 'argued the cases of some [of the 33 and contended] . . . that
pardon should not be granted to them', he later (after some of those covered
by his original letter had been released from prison) reconsidered the matter
and recommended that the 33 should be granted pardons. He motivated this
advice as follows:
'He [ie, Dr Maduna] is of the view that public opinion, inside as well as outside politics,
requires the 33 to be pardoned in terms of s84(2)(j) of the Constitution of the Republic of
South Africa, 1996. Accordingly he recommends that the 33 persons on the list be pardoned
in respect of the convictions for which they are currently serving or for which they have
already served a term of imprisonment. All the information regarding their conviction and
sentences, however, [is] not available at this stage. Every effort will be made to submit [it] to
the President as soon as possible.'
[21] As has been said, the President accepted this advice and pardoned the
33 offenders concerned.
[22] Mr Simelane stated that there had been 'much debate and a
divergence of views, both within and outside of Parliament, with regard to how
best to deal with these applications, given the termination of the indemnity
and then the TRC processes [ie, the processes under the Indemnity Act of
1990 and the Promotion of National Unity and Reconciliation Act 34 of 1995].'
According to Mr Simelane, the Minister had directed her department to look
into ways in which a framework for the evaluation of the applications could be
formulated. He expressed the considered view 'that the draft framework would
be finalised inside a period of approximately six months [ie, from 27 July
2007, the date he deposed to his affidavit].'
[23] In dealing with the averments in the founding affidavit he enjoined the
first respondent 'to furnish full and further particulars of the circumstances of
each of the offences that were committed in respect of the 383 applicants for
whom he purports to act'. He urged the respondents 'to exercise greater
tolerance, patience and deference to the process necessary to formulate an
appropriate framework'. He continued:
The question of pardon is a discretionary exercise of mercy and does not come as a right.
None of the applicants can claim prejudice arising out of their incarceration. The
incarcerations were a consequence of due process.'
[24] He admitted that the practice was to have the applications processed
by the department but denied that that conduct constitutes 'administrative
action' within the meaning of the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act 3 of
2000 (commonly known as 'PAJA').
[25] In his replying affidavit the first respondent states that the department
must have been aware as long ago as 2000 of the deficiencies in its own
internal processes and internal criteria as regards the assessment of
applications with a 'political element'. He also stated that, if there is no room
within the current parameters used by the department to make a positive
recommendation regarding any of the applications, this position is due to the
lack of action on the part of the department itself. He contended further that
the Minister gave no acceptable reason for the delay in doing what he called
the 'necessary' since 2000.
[26] He also stated that all that he called for was that the precedent set in
2000 by Dr Maduna (and subsequently by President Mbeki) in the case of the
33 persons who were granted presidential pardon, be followed. No
reasonable explanation, he submitted, was forthcoming from the M
inister as to why this precedent should not be followed.
[27] Before the judgment of the court a quo is summarised, it is appropriate
to set out the relevant provisions of the Constitution.
[28] Section 84, which deals with the powers and functions of the President,
reads as follows:
'84
(1)
. . .
(2)
The President is responsible for –
. . .
(j)
pardoning or reprieving offenders and remitting any fines, penalties or
forfeitures . . . '
[29] Section 85 deals with the executive authority of the Republic. It
provides:
'85
(1)
The executive authority of the Republic is vested in the President.
(2)
The President exercises the executive authority, together with the other
members of the Cabinet, by –
(a)
implementing national legislation except where the Constitution or an
Act of Parliament provides otherwise;
(b)
developing and implementing national policy;
(c)
co-ordinating the functions of state departments and administrations;
(d)
preparing and initiating legislation; and
(e)
performing any other executive function provided for in the
Constitution or in national legislation.'
[30] Section 92 deals with accountability and responsibilities. It reads:
'92.
(1)
The Deputy President and Ministers are responsible for the powers and
functions of the executive assigned to them by the President.
(2)
Members of the Cabinet are accountable collectively and individually to
Parliament for the exercise of their powers and the performance of their
functions.
(3)
Members of the Cabinet must –
(a)
act in accordance with the Constitution; and
(b)
provide Parliament with full and regular reports concerning matters
under their control.'
[31] Section 101 deals with executive decisions. Sub-section (1) reads as
follows:
'101.
A decision by the President must be in writing if it –
(a)
is taken in terms of legislation; or
(b)
has legal consequences.'
[32] Section 237 of the Constitution provides:
'237.
All constitutional obligations must be performed diligently and without delay.'
[33] In his judgment Seriti J referred to the fact that, in the answering
affidavit filed on behalf of the Minister, it was stated that the department was
processing the applications for pardon as a matter of practice. The judge
considered a submission which had been advanced before him by counsel for
the appellant to the effect that there was no legal duty on the Minister to
process the applications for presidential pardon as the first respondent had
failed to demonstrate that s 101(1) of the Constitution has been complied with.
[34] He held that the President's request to the Minister to process the
applications for pardon was in accordance with the law and had legal
consequences. If the request of the President did not comply with the law, he
pointed out, Mr Simelane 'could have said so in no uncertain terms.'
His failure to do so and the fact that the department was in the process of
carrying out the request of the State President justify
'the conclusion that the President's request to the Minister has legal consequences. Section
237 of the Constitution provides that all constitutional obligations must be performed diligently
and without delay. When processing the applications under consideration, the Minister is
exercising a public function and she is bound to perform the said function diligently and
without delay.'
[35] Later in his judgment he stated that, in his view, 'the processing of the
applications of the [respondents] has taken an unduly long time and the
Minister has failed to perform her function as required by section 237 of the
Constitution.'
[36] He accordingly held that the respondents had made out a case for
relief and made the order summarised in para 1 above.
[37] Counsel for the appellant submitted that the court a quo had erred in
holding that the Minister had a constitutional obligation to process the
applications for pardons. It was contended that, as the power to grant pardons
vests exclusively in the President as Head of State, he has the sole discretion
to determine how he exercises that power.
[38] According to counsel, the practice which had developed in the
department, even before the current constitutional dispensation, of the
department assessing and evaluating applications for pardon and thereafter
making recommendations to the President, did not create a legally
enforceable obligation on the Minister to process the applications. It was
submitted further that though the practice was permissible and desirable it did
not, in the absence of a provision in the Constitution or in a statute, impose an
obligation on the Minister.
[39] Counsel for the appellant also argued that Seriti J had erred in finding
that the President had requested the Minister to process the applications as
there was no evidence to that effect. If there had been such a request, the
argument proceeded, it would have had to have been in writing if it were to
have any legal consequences in terms of s 101 of the Constitution. Even if
there had been such a request, no rights or interests of the respondents
would have been affected thereby. Moreover, such a request and the
resultant compliance therewith would not amount to administrative action
which is actionable in terms of PAJA.
[40] In counsel's submission, Seriti J had also erred in finding that, in
processing the applications for pardons, the appellant's department was
acting in terms of s 85(2) or s 92(3) of the Constitution. It was submitted that
the executive powers or functions of the National Executive referred to in s
85(2)(e) of the Constitution are excluded from the definition of 'administrative
action' in PAJA and that what the Minister or her department was doing was
not the exercise of an executive function provided for in the Constitution or in
national legislation as set out in s 85(2)(e) of the Constitution. Furthermore, so
it was argued, s 92(3) of the Constitution is of no application.
[41] In my opinion, counsel for the appellant's submissions cannot be
accepted. I think that Seriti J was clearly correct in coming to the conclusion
that the President's request to the Minister to process the applications was in
accordance with the law and has legal consequences.
[42] In my view the Minister had a constitutional obligation to process and to
do what was necessary to enable the President to exercise the powers
conferred upon him by s 84(2)(j) of the Constitution. A prisoner clearly has the
right to apply for a pardon and someone has the obligation to give an answer.
The fact that the President performs Head of State functions in terms of
s 84(2) of the Constitution in pardoning offenders does not mean that
executive functions are not performed beforehand. It is not implied in the
Constitution that the President himself or through the office of the Presidency
must perform all preparatory steps before the power to decide whether to
grant a pardon or not is exercised. These steps (which may be called
preliminary executive functions because they are steps required for laying the
foundation for the ultimate decision to be made by the President) by clear
implication fall within the ambit of the normal executive functions conferred by
the Constitution on the executive and are therefore covered by s 85(2)(e) of
the Constitution. In cases involving applications for pardon the appropriate
department to perform these functions is the department. The Minister's
failure to perform these functions is a breach of s 92(3)(a) of the Constitution.
(It follows from this conclusion that the respondents were not obliged to make
out a case under PAJA in order to succeed and, accordingly, arguments
based on PAJA do not have to be considered.)
[43] I am accordingly satisfied that Seriti J was right in holding that the
Minister was obliged to process the applications and to do what was required
to enable the President to exercise the powers conferred on him by s 84(2)(j)
of the Constitution in an informed way and that that obligation was a
constitutional one.
[44] It was not contended before us – nor could it have been so contended
with any cogency – that the Minister, if she was so obliged, had performed her
duties in this regard with due diligence and without delay. Nor was it argued
that the period for compliance contained in para 1 of the order of the court a
quo could be faulted.
The following order is made:
[45] The appeal is dismissed with costs, including those occasioned by the
employment of two counsel.
…………….
IG FARLAM
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
FOR APPELLANT:
M T K MOERANE SC
L GCABASHE
Instructed by
STATE ATTORNEY PRETORIA
STATE ATTORENY BLOEMFONTEIN
FOR RESPONDENT:
T J KRUGER SC
C VAN JAARSVELD
Instructed by
JH VAN DER MERWE INCORPORATED PRETORIA
BEN
VAN
DER
MERWE
ATTORNEYS
BLOEMFONTEIN | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE:
30 MARCH 2009
STATUS:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the
media and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of
Appeal.
The Supreme Court of Appeal today ruled that the Minister of Justice and
Constitutional Development is under a constitutional obligation to process
applications for pardon before the President considers whether to exercise his power
under section 84(2)(j) of the Constitution.
This was held in an appeal brought by the Minister against an order granted by Mr
Justice Seriti in the Pretoria High Court in which he directed the Minster's predecessor
to do all things necessary to enable the President to consider 384 applications for
pardon submitted on behalf of members of the Inkatha Freedom Party during the
period September to October 2003.
Mr Justice Seriti also declared that the previous Minister had failed to exercise with
due diligence and without delay her constitutional obligation to process the
applications and to do all that was necessary to enable the President to exercise the
powers conferred on him in terms of the Constitution to grant pardons.
The Supreme Court of Appeal upheld the judgment of Mr Justice Seriti. It held that
the Minister was under a constitutional obligation to process the applications before
they were considered by the President and that the Minister had not performed her
duties in this regard with due diligence and without delay. |
3506 | non-electoral | 2021 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 1032/2019
In the matter between:
UNITED DEMOCRATIC MOVEMENT
FIRST APPELLANT
BANTU HOLOMISA
SECOND APPELLANT
and
LEBASHE INVESTMENT GROUP (PTY) LTD
FIRST RESPONDENT
HARITH GENERAL PARTNERS (PTY) LTD SECOND RESPONDENT
HARITH FUND MANAGERS (PTY) LTD
THIRD RESPONDENT
WARREN GREGORY WHEATLEY
FOURTH RESPONDENT
TSHEPO DUAN MAHLOELE
FIFTH RESPONDENT
PHILLIP JABULANI MOLEKETI
SIXTH RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: United Democratic Movement and Another v Lebashe
Investment Group (Pty) Ltd and Others (1032/2019) [2021]
ZASCA 4 (13 January 2021)
Coram:
CACHALIA, MBHA, MOLEMELA and MAKGOKA JJA and
SUTHERLAND AJA
Heard:
16 November 2020
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties’ representatives by email, and by publication on the Supreme Court of
Appeal website and release to SAFLII. The time and date for hand down is deemed
to be 09h45 on 13 January 2021.
Summary: Interim interdict – appealability – whether there is an absence of
irreparable harm – per majority judgment: interests of justice do not require that
appeal be entertained - per minority judgments: interests of justice do require appeal
to be entertained.
ORDER
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Tlhapi J sitting as
court of first instance):
1.
The appeal is struck from the roll.
2.
The appellants, jointly and severally, shall bear the respondents’ costs
including the costs of two counsel.
JUDGMENT
Sutherland AJA (Cachalia and Mbha JJA concurring):
Introduction
[1] When this appeal was heard on 16 November 2020, the matter was struck off
the roll. The reason was that the order of the Gauteng Division of the High Court,
Pretoria (the high court) against which the appeal lay, was not appealable,
notwithstanding leave to appeal having been granted by the high court. The order
was an interim interdict pending an action to be instituted by the respondents. The
crux of the controversy is whether the order was ‘final in effect’ and was therefore,
indeed, appealable, or, even if its true character was interim, the interests of justice
warranted an appeal against it to be entertained.
[2] The circumstances giving rise to the litigation have their origin in a letter sent
on 26 June 2018 to the President of the Republic by the appellants, the United
Democratic Movement (UDM), a political party, and its leader Mr Bantu Holomisa.
The letter contained allegations that the several respondents,1 who are in business,
had conducted themselves unlawfully in various ways in relation to the Public
Investment Corporation (PIC). A request was made to the President to cause these
allegations against the respondents to be investigated. The letter was also published
to the world on the UDM website. The respondents contend the remarks were
defamatory. As a result, the respondents sought interim relief pending an action for
damages for the alleged defamation.
1 The first to sixth respondents are: Lebashe Investment Group (Pty) Ltd, Harith General Partners (Pty) Ltd, Harith
Fund Managers (Pty) Ltd, Warren Gregory Wheatley, Tshepo Duan Mahloele and Phillip Jabulani Molekethi.
The orders a quo
[3] On 16 July 2018, Tlhapi J, in the high court granted an interdict against the
appellants forbidding the repetition of certain remarks they had made publicly about
the several respondents.2 The order was in these terms:
‘1.
Pending the determination of an action to be instituted by the applicants against the
respondents for damages for defamation and injuria, and the relief ancillary thereto (“the action”),
the respondents shall:
1.1
forthwith cease and desist from making or repeating any allegations (whether orally or in
writing) against the applicants (or any of them), and/or from defaming or injuring them in their
dignity, in any further publications or broadcasts in any form, including but not limited to internet
posts, articles, letters, media interviews, “Twitter” and other social media posts and the like, which
are the same as, or similar to, or which negatively reflect upon the applicants (or any of them)
arising from or based on, any of the allegations or statements appearing in the letter dated 26 June
2018 addressed by the second respondent to the President of the Republic of South Africa, Mr C
M Ramaphosa (a copy of which is annexed to the founding affidavit therein and marked “WGW4”,
referred to herein as “the letter”).
1.2
within three (3) hours of granting of this order, remove and delete the letter and, in so far
as it lies within their power, any posts regarding the letter (or any of its contents) or responses
thereto, from the first respondent’s website (www.udm.org.za), from the first respondent’s Twitter
account
(@UDmRevolution),
and
from
the
second
respondent’s
Twitter
account
(@BantuHolomisa);
2.
Unless the applicants institute the action within one month of the date of this order, such
order shall lapse and be of no further force or effect.
3.
. . .
4.
The respondents are ordered to pay the costs of this application on the scale as between
party and party . . . including the costs attendant upon the employment of two counsel.’
2 The proper approach to an order of this nature was considered in Hix Networking Technologies CC v System
Publishers (Pty) Ltd and Another 1997 (1) SA 391 (A) at 397H-399F. The court a quo adopted this approach see
Lebashe Investment Group (Pty) Ltd and Others v United Democratic Movement and Another (unreported) (case no
46074/18) paras 41-45.
[4] Thirteen months later, on 8 August 2019 Tlhapi J heard the application for
leave to appeal and on 26 August 2019 granted leave to appeal to this Court. The
rationale for the order was expressed thus:
‘I am not persuaded that the applicants would have prospects of success in terms of section
17(1)(a)(i) of the [Superior Courts] Act or that section 96 of the Constitution was applicable to Mr
Moleketi after he resigned as Deputy Minister and chairperson of the PIC despite Mr Mpofu’s
contention that an incorrect authority had been cited by Mr Berger. I am [sic] that a conflict of
interest would not be applicable to Mr Mahloele. Furthermore, I am also of the view that the
privilege afforded by section 58 of the Constitution is confined to National Assembly and not
beyond it.
Despite the above view, Mr Mpofu and Mr Nguckaitobi made compelling submissions why this
interim order was appealable and why leave to appeal should be given in terms of section
17(1)(a)(ii) of the Act. The general rule as correctly submitted by Mr Berger was that an interim
interdict was not appealable for reasons in the authorities he relied upon, in Cipla supra at
paragraph [19] Rogers AJA does remark that such orders are not “usually appealable” which
probably makes room for appealability in certain exceptional circumstances, and that for his
reasons such consideration did not arise in that matter. In this matter the question is, is it in the
interest of justice and do special circumstances exist for a court of appeal to determine whether
the interim order has an element of finality which would prejudice the applicants (a political party
and Mr Holomisa leader of the UDM) or does the interim order have the potential to prejudice
them by preventing them to exercise their rights as protected by sections 16; 19 and 55 of the
Constitution.
Mr Mpofu reiterated the view that Mr Holomisa’s letter to the President was not defamatory and,
he contended that the interim order had been prejudicial to the applicants because it had curtailed
the Constitutional right as guaranteed by sections relied upon to engage in political activity. It was
in the interest of justice to have certainty on the protection afforded by the Constitution to political
parties and members of parliament. On the issue of appealability he relied on Tshwane City v
Afriforum 2016 (6) SA 279 (CC) at paragraph [40] where Chief Justice Mogoeng stated:
“The common law test for appealability has since been denuded of its somewhat inflexible nature.
Unsurprisingly so because the common law is not on par with but subservient to the supreme law
that prescribes the interest of justice as the only requirement to be met for the grant of leave to
appeal.”
The Chief Justice cited with approval the principle as set out by Moseneke DCJ in National
Treasury and Others v Opposition to Urban Tolling Alliance and Others 2012 (6) SA 233 (CC).
These authorities establish that the traditional principle on appealability of interim and
interlocutory orders at common law has in certain circumstances evolved and that where the
interests of justice demand, leave to appeal should be considered. Although this was stated in
matters before the Constitutional Court, on issues of appeal before that court, I see no reason why
considerations in the interests of justice should not apply to the lower courts when determining
the appealability of an interim order, which is said affect the rights of parties such as the applicants
to engage in political activity. Leave in these circumstances should be granted and I am of the
view that the issues raised are of importance and for purpose of certainty the matter should be
considered by the Supreme Court of Appeal.’ (Emphasis added.)
[5] An application for leave to appeal is regulated by s 17(1) of the Superior
Courts Act 10 of 2013 which provides:
‘(1) Leave to appeal may only be given where the judge or judges concerned are of the opinion
that –
(a)
(i) the appeal would have a reasonable prospect of success; or
(ii) there is some other compelling reason why the appeal should be heard, including
conflicting judgments on the matter under consideration;
(b) the decision sought on appeal does not fall within the ambit of section 16(2)(a); and
(c) where the decision sought to be appealed does not dispose of all the issues in the case, the
appeal would lead to a just and prompt resolution of the real issues between the parties.’
[6] We were told from the bar that the action for defamation has since been duly
instituted and that the pleadings in that action have closed. The parties are engaged
with the further preparatory steps which will entitle them to apply for a trial date.
The law on the appealability of an order of court
[7] What is required to render an order appealable is well trodden judicial turf. It
is to the law on appealability in this regard we now turn.
[8] Perhaps the definitive pronouncement is that in City of Tshwane Metropolitan
Municipality v Afriforum and Another.3 In that matter the question was whether an
interim order granted in the high court to prevent the city council from changing
street names pending a review of its decision to do so, was appealable. The interim
order implicated an inhibiting of an organ of state from fulfilling its statutory
functions and this factor was crucial in determining, on the facts, whether the
interests of justice required an appeal. Nevertheless, the Chief Justice’s remarks on
appealability and the criterion of the interests of justice are of wider import:
‘The appealability of interim orders in terms of the common law depends on whether they are final
in effect. . .
The common law test for appealability has since been denuded of its somewhat inflexible nature.
Unsurprisingly so because the common law is not on par with but subservient to the supreme law
that prescribes the interests of justice as the only requirement to be met for the grant of leave to
appeal. Unlike before, appealability no longer depends largely on whether the interim order
appealed against has final effect or is dispositive of a substantial portion of the relief claimed in
the main application. All this is now subsumed under the constitutional interests of justice
standard. The over-arching role of interests of justice considerations has relativised the final effect
of the order or the disposition of the substantial portion of what is pending before the review court,
in determining appealability. The principle was set out in OUTA [National Treasury and Others v
Opposition to Urban Tolling Alliance and Others [2012] ZACC 18; 2012 (6) SA 223 (CC); 2012
(11) BCLR 1148 (CC) para 50], by Moseneke DCJ in these terms:
“This court has granted leave to appeal in relation to interim orders before. It has made it clear that
the operative standard is the “interests of justice”. To that end, it must have regard to and weigh
3 City of Tshwane Metropolitan Municipality v Afriforum and Another [2016] ZACC 19; 2016 (9) BCLR 1133 (CC);
2016 (6) SA 279 (CC).
carefully all germane circumstances. Whether an interim order has a final effect or disposes of a
substantial portion of the relief sought in a pending review is a relevant and important
consideration. Yet, it is not the only or always decisive consideration. It is just as important to
assess whether the temporary restraining order has an immediate and substantial effect, including
whether the harm that flows from it is serious, immediate, ongoing and irreparable.”
. . .
What the role of interests of justice is in this kind of application [ie interdicting an organ of state
from performing its functions] again entails the need to ensure that form never trumps any
approach that would advance the interests of justice. If appealability or the grant of leave to appeal
would best serve the interests of justice, then the appeal should be proceeded with no matter what
the pre-Constitution common law impediments might suggest. . .
Consequently, although the final effect of the interim order or the disposition of a substantial
portion of issues in the main application are not irrelevant to the determination of appealability
and the grant of leave, they are in terms of our constitutional jurisprudence hardly ever
determinative of appealability or leave. . . .’
[9] Earlier, in International Trade Administration Commission v SCAW South
Africa (Pty) Ltd4 the Constitutional Court had dealt with a dispute concerning the
Minister of Trade and Industry promulgating regulations affecting anti-dumping
duties. The appellant had composed recommendations to be submitted to the
Minister to abolish the restraints. The respondent, a manufacturer, obtained an
interim order interdicting the submission of the recommendations. Several
considerations led to the successful appeal. In the course of addressing the
controversy about whether the order was appealable, Moseneke DCJ remarked:5
‘. . . the jurisprudence of the Supreme Court of Appeal on whether a “judgment or order” is
appealable remains an important consideration in assessing where the interests of justice lie. An
authoritative restatement of the jurisprudence is to be found in Zweni v Minister of Law and Order
4 International Trade Administration Commission v SCAW South Africa (Pty) Ltd [2010] ZACC 6; 2010 (5) BCLR
457 (CC); 2012 (4) SA 618 (CC).
5 SCAW fn 4 paras 50-54.
which has laid down that the decision must be final in effect and not open to alteration by the court
of first instance; it must be definitive of the rights of the parties; and lastly, it must have the effect
of disposing of at least a substantial portion of the relief claimed in the main proceedings. On these
general principles the Supreme Court of Appeal has often held that the grant of an interim interdict
is not susceptible to an appeal.
The “policy considerations” that underlie these principles are self-evident. Courts are loath to
encourage wasteful use of judicial resources and of legal costs by allowing appeals against interim
orders that have no final effect and that are susceptible to reconsideration by a court a quo when
final relief is determined. Also allowing appeals at an interlocutory stage would lead to piecemeal
adjudication and delay the final determination of disputes.
After Zweni, the Supreme Court of Appeal has recognised that the general rule against piecemeal
appeals could conflict with the interests of justice in a particular case. Howie P, writing for a
unanimous court in S v Western Areas, was required to decide, in an application for leave to appeal
in a criminal matter, whether the dismissal of an objection to an indictment was appealable in terms
of s 21(1) of the Supreme Court Act. After surveying its case law on the appealability of a
“judgment or order” in civil and criminal cases and after referring to the interests of justice test set
by this Court in Khumalo v Holomisa, he concluded that the general principles enunciated
in Zweni are neither exhaustive nor cast in stone. He further held that:
“(I)t would accord with the obligation imposed by s 39(2) of the Constitution to construe the word
“decision” in s 21(1) of the Supreme Court Act to include a judicial pronouncement in criminal
proceedings that is not appealable on the Zweni test but one which the interests of justice require
should nevertheless be subject to an appeal before termination of such proceedings. The scope
which this extended meaning could have in civil proceedings is unnecessary to decide. It need
hardly be said that what the interests of justice require depends on the facts of each particular
case.”
More recently, in Philani-Ma-Afrika v Mailula, the Supreme Court of Appeal had to decide
whether an order of the high court which puts an eviction order into operation pending an appeal
was appealable. In a unanimous judgment by Farlam JA, the Court held that the execution order
was susceptible to appeal. It reasoned that it is clear from cases such as S v Western Areas that
“what is of paramount importance in deciding whether a judgment is appealable is the interests of
justice.”
As we have seen, the Supreme Court of Appeal has adapted the general principles on the
appealability of interim orders, in my respectful view, correctly so, to accord with the equitable
and the more context-sensitive standard of the interests of justice favoured by our Constitution. In
any event, the Zweni requirements on when a decision may be appealed against were never without
qualification. For instance, it has been correctly held that in determining whether an interim order
may be appealed against regard must be had to the effect of the order rather than its mere
appellation or form. In Metlika Trading Ltd and Others v Commissioner, South African Revenue
Service the Court held, correctly so, that where an interim order is intended to have an immediate
effect and will not be reconsidered on the same facts in the main proceedings it will generally be
final in effect.
Lastly, when we decide what is in the interests of justice, we will have to keep in mind what this
Court said in Machele and Others v Mailula and Others. In that case, the Court had to decide
whether to grant leave to appeal against an order of the High Court authorising execution of an
eviction order pending an appeal. In granting leave to appeal, Skweyiya J, relying on what this
Court held in TAC (1), reaffirmed the importance of “irreparable harm” as a factor in assessing
whether to hear an appeal against an interim order, albeit an order of execution:
“The primary consideration in determining whether it is in the interests of justice for a litigant to
be granted leave to appeal against an interim order of execution is, therefore, whether irreparable
harm would result if leave to appeal is not granted”.’ (Emphasis added.)
Analysis
[10] Applying these norms to the facts relevant to the order in this matter, it may
be asked how might the interests of justice be thwarted if the interim order stands
until trial and, potentially, is then held to have been inappropriate because either
there was no defamation after all, or that the appellants conduct is held to be
justifiable?
[11] Whether or not a cogent debate can be conducted about the character of the
allegations being defamatory, is at this stage, an open question. The very point of
the letter could not avoid being contentious if it was to serve any useful purpose.
Indeed, the appellants’ case is that the purpose was to report serious unlawful
conduct and demand a public enquiry. Whether or not the contentious remarks in the
letter are indeed defamatory of the respondents is a matter to be decided by the trial
court in due course, and of course, were they to be held by that court, to be
defamatory, the question of whether or not the appellants were justified in making
them will be decided. The appellants advance a thesis, which they contend, satisfies
the legal requirements for justifiability. However, neither in the court a quo, nor in
this Court, in these proceedings, was it, and is it, necessary to express a firm view
about whether the allegations are indeed defamatory and whether the appellants have
a proper justification for making them.
[12] Before Tlhapi J, a quo, the question to be decided was simply whether, prima
facie, the appellants’ published remarks were defamatory and whether an interim
interdict inhibiting the repetition of those remarks pending a trial was appropriate.
The order granted cannot plausibly be interpreted as having ‘final effect’ in any
accepted sense of that concept. In Zweni v Minister of Law and Order, Harms JA
held:
‘A “judgment or order” is a decision which, as a general principle, has three attributes, first, the
decision must be final in effect and not susceptible of alteration by the Court of first instance;
second, it must be definitive of the rights of the parties; and, third, it must have the effect of
disposing of at least a substantial portion of the relief claimed in the main proceedings (Van
Streepen & Germs (Pty) Ltd case supra at 586I-587B; Marsay v Dilley 1992 (3) SA 944 (A) at
962C-F). The second is the same as the oft-stated requirement that a decision, in order to qualify
as a judgment or order, must grant definite and distinct relief (Willis Faber Enthoven (Pty) Ltd
v Receiver of Revenue and Another 1992 (4) SA 202 (A) at 214D-G).’6
6 Zweni v Minister of Law and Order of the Republic of South Africa [1993] 1 All SA 365 (A); 1993 (1) SA 523 (A)
at 532H-532A.
[13] The decision in Tau v Mashaba7 was invoked in support of the contention that
the order of Tlhapi J is appealable. That contention is misplaced. Rather, the order
of Thlapi J can be contrasted with the order granted in Tau v Mashaba. The relevant
facts were that Mr Tau, a member of the African National Congress (ANC) and a
former Mayor of Johannesburg, in a public meeting, made disparaging remarks
about Mr Mashaba, a member of the rival Democratic Alliance who was the then
serving Mayor and Mr Tau’s immediate successor. Mr Tau made remarks, among
others, that Mr Mashaba had indecently accused women in the Johannesburg city
hierarchy of prostituting themselves to get their jobs from the ANC and also that Mr
Mashaba, a Black man, wished that he was not Black.
[14] Mr Mashaba was aggrieved and sued for an order in these terms:
‘Pending the institution of an action for defamation and damages, which must be instituted against
the first respondent within 60 days of the granting of the order herein:
1. Ordering the respondents:
1.1 forthwith to retract the offending remarks;
1.2 to refrain from repeating such and/or similar remarks concerning the applicant in future;
1.3 to issue an unconditional apology to the applicant framed along agreed terms; alternatively
terms to be imposed by the court;
1.4 to ensure the widest possible publication of the retraction and/or apology envisaged in 1.1 to
1.3 above.’8
[15] An order as prayed was not made. Instead, an order was made as follows:
‘(a) It is declared that the statement made by the 1st respondent on 28th August 2016 is defamatory
of the applicant.
7 Tau v Mashaba [2020] ZASCA 26; 2020 (5) SA 135 (SCA).
8 Tau v Mashaba fn 7 para 4.
(b) The 1st respondent is interdicted and restrained from repeating the statement, or statements to
the same effect.
(c) All other issues relating to relief arising in the present application are deferred for decision in
the pending action instituted by the applicant against the 1st respondent for damages for
defamation.
(d) The 1st respondent is directed to pay the costs of the application, including the costs of two
counsel.’9
[16] Plainly, the declarator in (a) and the interdict in (b) are undoubtedly final in
effect, unlike the order made by Tlhapi J in this matter. The order in Tau v Mashaba
was therefore unquestionably appealable. Moreover, the question of appealability
was not argued, and thus the decision is unhelpful to resolve the controversy in this
case.
[17] As regards other characteristics of the order granted by Tlhapi J, it is notable
that the effect of the high court’s order prevents merely a repeated publication of the
allegations for a time, but not permanently. Significantly, the contentious remarks
were already in the public domain. The order, for this reason, cannot be described as
a ‘gagging order’. The appellants were successful in getting their message out to the
public. Moreover, although only of marginal relevance, the President responded
positively to the letter and caused the issues raised in it to be examined by the
commission of enquiry, chaired by retired Justice Mpati, which had already been
appointed to investigate other supposedly undesirable activities concerning the PIC.
The treatment by that commission of the allegations is not information on record
before this Court.
9 Tau v Mashaba fn 7 para 12.
[18] The rationale for the grant of leave to appeal accepted by the court a quo, as
cited above, was again embraced by the appellants in argument before this Court.10
It was contended that the interests of justice required an appeal against the order to
be entertained. The thesis advanced was twofold. First, it was alleged that that certain
constitutional rights were infringed by the order. These were the rights of freedom
of expression in s 16(1),11 and political rights as framed in s 19(1)(c)12 ‘to campaign
for a political party or cause’. Second, the lengthy elapse of time – 27 months which
had passed between the grant of the interim interdict and the hearing before this
Court – demonstrated, so the argument ran, a type of ‘final effect’ because during
this period they could not ‘advocate’ for the cause of anti-corruption with reference
to the respondents’ conduct. The two contentions are grounded on the same notion,
ie, that political actors whose very function it is to engage in public discourse are
severely prejudiced by even an interim order which temporarily silences them while
the legitimacy and lawfulness of their controversial utterances are the subject matter
of litigation.
[19] Therefore, the sting in the argument is that a reason exists, or ought to exist,
which would exempt a class of persons, being political actors, from being subjected
to interim orders inhibiting the freedom to express speech of their own choosing,
albeit temporarily, during periods while the legitimacy and lawfulness of that speech
10 The appellants did not address the question of appealability in their heads of arguments. The respondents addressed
the issue at length. Notwithstanding that, the appellants chose not to respond by filing supplementary heads. Mr
Ngcukaitobi addressed the court, orally, on the question.
11 ‘Freedom of expression
16. (1) Everyone has the right to freedom of expression, which includes –
(a) freedom of the press and other media;
(b) freedom to receive or impart information or ideas.’
12 ‘Political rights 19. (1) Every citizen is free to make political choices, which includes the right –
(a) to form a political party;
(b) to participate in the activities of, or recruit members for, a political party; and
(c) to campaign for a political party or cause.’
is being tested. The essence of this thesis is that political actors are in a special class
subject to rules different from the rest of the population.
[20] It may be supposed that this peculiar status might conceivably be upheld by a
court in trial proceedings determining final relief, where the issue may be explored
in full, the myriad consequences examined, and the appropriate policy choices made
to develop the law and nourish democratic discourse. However, the proper approach
to delve into such questions is not by appealing against an interim order. Were an
appeal against the interim order to be entertained on such grounds, the findings
would unavoidably pre-empt the very enquiry that the trial court is required to
examine: ie, whether the appellants, being political actors, were justified in their
conduct.
[21] The reliance on the systemic delays in the litigation process in South African
courts is, if not on principle, certainly on these facts, misplaced.13 The fact that 27
months has elapsed since the interdict was granted, and the trial had yet to be set
down is not alluded to in the papers and only sketchily alluded to in argument. A
grim picture was drawn by the suggestion in argument, not on affidavit, that the lead-
time to get a trial date in the high court was expected to be not less than a year.
Therefore, it was argued that for an extensive period, the appellants could not
publicly canvass their views nor disseminate information they believed was germane
to the allegations of unlawfulness by the respondents. This outcome was supposedly
at odds with the constitutional guarantees mentioned above. The argument is
untenable. What little is known of the facts, points at the parties having leisurely
13 See: in regard to a measure of intrinsic prejudice in the effect of an interim interdict not being ‘irretrievable’ in all
cases: Cronshaw and Another v Coin Security Group (Pty) Ltd [1996] 2 All SA 435 (A); 1996 (3) SA 686 (SCA) at
690G- 691D.
plodded on over the 27 months without any appetite for zeal or expedition. In the
absence of proper evidence, the systemic delay argument is stillborn.
[22] It was suggested in argument on behalf of the respondents that it was open to
the appellants, if they could contrive some serious harm caused by being subjected
to the interim interdict that they were entitled to invoke s 18(2) and s 18(3) of the
Superior Courts Act, to apply to have the order suspended. It is indeed correct that
an obvious remedy for a litigant who believes it is faced with irreparable harm in
having to comply with an interim order, is to invoke s 18(3).14 No answer to this
proposition was forthcoming. Moreover, to the extent that the complaint of the
appellants is that time forfeited cannot be revived, the proposition has consistently
been rejected as invalid.15
[23] The appellants are in addition not denied the opportunity of repeating the
allegations in Parliament because s 58(1)(a) of the Constitution secures a right to do
14 ‘Suspension of decision pending appeal
18. (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), and unless the court under exceptional circumstances orders otherwise, the
operation and execution of a decision which is the subject of an application for leave to appeal or of an appeal, is
suspended pending the decision of the application or appeal.
(2) Subject to subsection (3), unless the court under exceptional circumstances orders otherwise, the operation and
execution of a decision that is an interlocutory order not having the effect of a final judgment, which is the subject of
an application for leave to appeal or of an appeal, is not suspended pending the decision of the application or appeal.
(3) A court may only order otherwise as contemplated in subsection (1) or (2), if the party who applied to the court
to order otherwise, in addition proves on a balance of probabilities that he or she will suffer irreparable harm if the
court does not so order and that the other party will not suffer irreparable harm if the court so orders.
(4) If a court orders otherwise, as contemplated in subsection (1) –
(i) the court must immediately record its reasons for doing so;
(ii) the aggrieved party has an automatic right of appeal to the next highest court;
(iii) the court hearing such an appeal must deal with it as a matter of extreme urgency; and
(iv) such order will be automatically suspended, pending the outcome of such appeal.
(5) For the purposes of subsections (1) and (2), a decision becomes the subject of an application for leave to appeal or
of an appeal, as soon as an application for leave to appeal or a notice of appeal is lodged with the registrar in terms of
the rules.’
15 Cipla Agrimed (Pty) Ltd v Merck Sharp Dohme Corporation and Others [2017] ZASCA 134; [2017] 4 All SA 605
(SCA); 2018 (6) SA 440 (SCA) para 47.
so with impunity.16 The counter argument offered in this regard is that s 19 confers
a right to engage in advocacy outside Parliament, no less than within it. Ostensibly,
this is indeed the scope of the section, but it is not a cogent answer to why a
temporary silence in public discourse will be irreparable, as is required by the
principles enunciated in the authorities cited. The appellants do not make out a case
that the UDM is a one-issue-organisation and that it will wither if its opinions about
the respondents’ alleged skulduggery are not constantly heard, while in the
meantime, the two parties shuffle their way towards trial.
[24] The temporary restraint under which the appellants rankle is incomparable to
the circumstances illustrated in cases like Machele and Others v Mailula and
Others17 and Philani-Ma-Afrika and Others v Mailula and Others.18 These two cases
dealt with the threat to evict the same body of persons and potentially render them
homeless. In the first case, the Constitutional Court entertained an appeal against an
order of eviction which had been put into effect despite a pending appeal. The
Constitutional Court suspended the execution order. Skweyiya J, after alluding to
case law, concluded:
‘The primary consideration in determining whether it is in the interests of justice for a litigant to
be granted leave to appeal against an interim order of execution is, therefore, whether irreparable
16 ‘Privilege
58. (1) Cabinet members, Deputy Ministers and members of the National Assembly –
(a) have freedom of speech in the Assembly and in its committees, subject to its rules and orders; and
(b) are not liable to civil or criminal proceedings, arrest, imprisonment or damages for –
(i) anything that they have said in, produced before or submitted to the Assembly or any of its committees; or
(ii) anything revealed as a result of anything that they have said in, produced before or submitted to the
Assembly or any of its committees.
(2) Other privileges and immunities of the National Assembly, Cabinet members and members of the Assembly may
be prescribed by national legislation. . . .’
17 Machele and Others v Mailula and Others [2009] ZACC 7; 2009 (8) BCLR 767 (CC); 2010 (2) SA 257 (CC).
18 Philani-Ma-Afrika and Others v Mailula and Others [2009] ZASCA 115; [2010] 1 All SA 459 (SCA); 2010 (2) SA
573 (SCA).
harm would result if leave to appeal is not granted. The applicant would have to show that
irreparable harm would result if the interim order were not to be granted. A court will have regard
to the possibility of irreparable harm and the balance of convenience.’19
In this Court, in Philani-Ma-Afrika, the conclusion, similarly, was reached that in a
case of eviction an appeal against an interim order was indeed appropriate in the
interests of justice. The underlying rationale of irreparable harm is plainly
demonstrated in such cases.
[25] The endeavour of the appellants to persist in their efforts to appeal against the
interim order is in truth, an attempt to entice this Court to decide issues which lie
within the province of the trial court when determining final relief. The appellants
can invoke no basis for irreparable harm to support its contentions. A faint passing
allegation in the answering affidavit that the balance of convenience favoured the
appellants because allegations of corruption ought to be ventilated adds no weight
to the argument.
Conclusion
[26] In summary:
(a) The order is interim in effect as well as in form.
(b) The interests of justice do not require that an appeal be entertained: in particular:
(i) the effect of the order does not cause irreparable harm;
(ii) the delay in prosecuting the action has not been shown to be the result of
circumstances beyond the control of the appellants, and in any event, result in
irreparable harm;
19 Machele fn 17 para 24.
(iii) the appellants may articulate their views, in the meantime, in Parliament
with impunity; and
(iv) the temporary prohibition, for the interim period, to advocate for their
viewpoints on the issue, outside of Parliament, shall not result in the appellants
becoming obsolescent.
(c) The order is indeed not appealable.
The Order
[27] In the circumstances, it is ordered that:
1.
The appeal is struck from the roll.
2.
The appellants, jointly and severally, shall bear the respondents’ costs
including the costs of two counsel.
__________________________
ROLAND SUTHERLAND
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
Molemela JA (Makgoka JA concurring)
[28] I have read the judgment of my colleague, Sutherland AJA (the first
judgment), and am unable to agree with either its reasoning or conclusion. The
appellants’ case, on the merits, was that the respondents’ application in the court a
quo did not meet all the requirements for the granting of an interim interdict. I must
mention from the outset that I am mindful of the fact that the merits of the interim
order were not canvassed during the hearing of the oral arguments in this matter, as
the appeal was struck off the roll. I will, therefore, express no views on whether the
respondent’s application met those requirements or not, but will allude to aspects
that have a bearing on those requirements.
[29] I am alive to the fact that this Court is not under an obligation to entertain an
appeal against an otherwise unappealable order merely because leave to appeal was
granted by the High Court. What needs to be borne in mind is the observation made
in South Cape Corporation (Pty) Ltd v Engineering Management Services (Pty)
Ltd,20 that a court has a wide general discretion in granting leave to appeal in relation
to interim interdicts. Of crucial importance is that there is no absolute bar against
subjecting interim orders to an appeal. In this section of the judgment, I focus on
why I believe that the court a quo was correct in finding that the interests of justice
called for this Court to entertain an appeal against its interim order.
[30] During the exchange with the bench, counsel for the appellants was asked
whether the proposition he was putting forward was that interim interdicts relating
20 South Cape Corporation (Pty) Ltd v Engineering Management Services (Pty) Ltd [1977] 4 All SA 53 (A); 1977
(3) SA 534 (A) at 545B-546C.
to defamation matters should always be appealable. He submitted that whether or
not an interim order is appealable was an aspect that was fact-specific. That view
finds support in South African Informal Traders Forum v City of
Johannesburg, 21 where the Constitutional Court held that when determining
whether it is in the interests of justice to appeal an interim order, the court must have
regard to and weigh carefully all relevant circumstances. The factors that are
relevant, or decisive in a particular instance, will vary from case to case. To my
mind, a clear example of when it would not be in the interests of justice to grant
leave to appeal an interim order in defamation cases would be where such an order
had been granted on an unopposed basis, for the court would not have had the benefit
of being apprised of any defence that the respondent intended to raise.22
[31] It is well-established that an interim order may be appealed if the interests of
justice, based on the specific facts of a particular case, so dictate. 23 That the
overarching constitutional standard for appealability of an interim order is indeed
whether an appeal would best serve the interests of justice was re-asserted by the
Constitutional Court in City of Tshwane Metropolitan Municipality v Afriforum and
Another, where that court also cautioned that ‘[i]f appealability or the grant of leave
to appeal would best serve the interests of justice, then the appeal should be
proceeded with no matter what the pre-Constitution common law impediments
might suggest.’24
21 South African Informal Traders Forum and Others v City of Johannesburg and Others; South African National
Traders Retail Association v City of Johannesburg and Others [2014] ZACC 8; 2014 (6) BCLR 726 (CC); 2014 (4)
SA 371 (CC) Para 20.
22 See Hix Networking Technologies CC v System Publishers (Pty) Ltd and Another [1997] 4 All SA 675 (A); 1997
(1) SA 391 (A) at 399B-E above at 399B-E
23 Philani-Ma-Afrika and Others v Mailula and Others[2009] ZASCA 115; 2010 (2) SA 573 (SCA) para 20; South
African Informal Traders Forum and Others v City of Johannesburg and Others; South African National Traders
Retail Association v City of Johannesburg and Others [2014] ZACC 8; 2014 (4) SA 371 (CC); 2014 (6) BCLR
726 (CC) para 20(g).
24 City of Tshwane Metropolitan Municipality v Afriforum and Another fn 3 para 40-41.
[32] It is evident from the judgment of the court a quo that it was alive to the fact
that interim interdicts are not ordinarily appealable. Having considered various
judgments of this Court and the Constitutional Court as well as the specific facts of
this case, it, within its discretion, decided to grant the appellants leave to appeal to
this Court on the basis that the interests of justice warranted that its interim order be
the subject of an appeal. For the reasons that follow, I think that the court a quo
correctly found that the interim order it had granted was appealable. For the same
reasons, I am of the view that, against a proper exercise of the court a quo’s
discretion on this aspect, it was not open to this court to second-guess the reasons
advanced by the court a quo simply because it held a different view on the matter.
In my opinion, it has not been shown that the court a quo’s discretion on that aspect
was not judicially exercised. I consequently differ with the first judgment’s
conclusion that the interests of justice do not require that an appeal be entertained.
In the succeeding paragraphs I show why I believe that the court a quo, after a
judicial exercise of its discretion, correctly granted leave to appeal in this matter.
[33] It is trite that an interim interdict pending action is an extraordinary remedy;25
such an interdict is not granted unless all the legal requisites for that remedy have
been met.26 An interdict of the nature sought in the court a quo is seldom granted. In
Midi Television (Pty) Ltd t/a E-TV v Director of Public Prosecutions (Western
Cape),27 this Court stated as follows:
25 Eriksen Motors (Welkom) Ltd v Protea Motors, Warrenton and Another [1973] 4 All SA 116 (A); 1973 (3) SA
685 (A) at 691C. In Economic Freedom Fighters and Others v Manuel [2020] ZASCA 172 para 88, this court re-
asserted that whether any interim relief can be granted will depend on the application of the well-established principles
applicable to interim interdicts.
26 See Bester v Bethge 1911 EDL 18 at 19 as cited in J Meyer Interdicts and Related Orders (1993) at 53.
27 Midi Television (Pty) Ltd t/a E-TV v Director of Public Prosecutions (Western Cape) [2007] ZASCA 56; [2007] 3
All SA 318 (SCA); 2007 (9) BCLR 958 (SCA); 2007 (5) SA 540 (SCA) para 20.
‘Where it is alleged, for example, that a publication is defamatory, but it has yet to be established
that the defamation is unlawful, an award of damages is usually capable of vindicating the right to
reputation if it is later found to have been infringed, and an anticipatory ban on publication will
seldom be necessary for that purpose.’
[34] As regards interim interdicts sought to restrain the publication of defamatory
statements, it is particularly important to note that one of the considerations to be
weighed in the balance is whether the factual foundation emanating from the
respondent’s affidavit discloses a defence of truth and public benefit. This Court in
Hix
Networking Technologies
v
System
Publishers
(Pty)
Ltd
and
Another, 28 approved the following dictum by Greenberg J in Heilbron v Blignaut,
subject to clarification:29
‘If an injury which would give rise to a claim in law is apprehended, then I think it is clear that the
person against whom the injury is about to be committed is not compelled to wait for the damage
and sue afterwards for compensation, but can move the Court to prevent any damage being done
to him. As he approaches the Court on motion, his facts must be clear and if there is a dispute as
to whether what is about to be done is actionable, it cannot be decided on motion. The result is
that if the injury which is sought to be restrained is said to be a defamation, then he is not entitled
to the intervention of the Court by way of interdict, unless it is clear that the defendant has no
defence. Thus if the defendant sets up that he can prove truth and public benefit, the Court is not
entitled to disregard his statement on oath to that effect, because, if his statement were true, it
would be a defence, and the basis of the claim for an interdict is that an actionable wrong, i.e.
conduct for which there is no defence in law, is about to be committed.’ (Emphasis added.)
[35] The clarification of this dictum was explained as follows in Herbal Zone (Pty)
Limited v Infitech Technologies (Pty) Limited (Herbal Zone):30
28 Hix Networking Technologies fn 22 at 399B-E.
29 Heilbron v Blignaut 1931 WLD 167 at 169.
30 Herbal Zone (Pty) Limited and Others v Infitech Technologies (Pty) Limited and Others [2017] ZASCA 8; [2017]
2 All SA 347 (SCA).
‘The clarification was to point out that Greenberg J did not hold that the mere ipse dixit of a
respondent would suffice to prevent a court from granting an interdict. What is required is that a
sustainable foundation be laid by way of evidence that a defence such as truth and public interest
or fair comment is available to be pursued by the respondent. It is not sufficient simply to state
that at a trial the respondent will prove that the statements were true and made in the public interest,
or some other defence to a claim for defamation, without providing a factual basis therefor.’
The dicta in these decisions were recently quoted with approval by this Court in Tau
v Mashaba and Others31 in the context of an appeal against orders considered to
have a final interdict even though they were granted in an application for interim
relief pending an action for damages.
[36] The appellants, laid a factual foundation of a defence of truth and public
interest in their answering affidavit. As to whether that defence is sustainable can
only be established in the trial, which is the procedure elected by the respondents in
so far as they sought a temporary interdict pending a defamation action. The fact
remains that, on the correct application of the principle laid down by this Court in
Heilbron v Blignaut, an interim order ought not to be granted if a factual foundation
of the defence of truth and public interest had been laid. This brings me to the
appellants’ contentions regarding why they considered their utterances to be in the
public interest.
[37] The appellants placed reliance on several provisions of the Constitution,
which they regard as giving an important context in this matter. In terms of s 93(2)
of the Constitution, Deputy Ministers are accountable to Parliament for the exercise
of their powers and the performance of their functions. Section 96 of the Constitution
31 Tau v Mashaba and Others fn 7 para 28.
enjoins Cabinet Ministers and Deputy Ministers ‘not to act in any way that is
inconsistent with their office’ and not to ‘expose themselves to any situation
involving the risk of a conflict between their official responsibilities and private
interests’. It also forbids the Executive from using their position or any information
entrusted to them to enrich themselves or to improperly benefit others.
[38] The appellants contended that the utterances were made in the context of their
oversight role on the Executive. 32 It is accepted that political parties have a
significant role to play in uncovering corruption and maladministration in
government entities.33 In UDM v Speaker, National Assembly,34 the Constitutional
Court stressed that the powers granted to public office bearers should not be used
for the advancement of personal or sectarian interests. The court remarked that
‘public office-bearers in all the arms of the State must . . . explain how they have
lived up to the promises that inhere in the offices they occupy’.
[39] It is also true that public officials have to be held accountable for the actions
they take while holding public office. A relevant consideration regarding the
appellants’ oversight role is that one of the respondents is a former member of the
Executive. Furthermore, one of the respondents is an erstwhile employee of the
Public Investment Corporation, a state-owned entity. All this is stated to provide
essential context; it should not, in any way, be considered to suggest that any of the
other respondents had a diminished right to dignity.
32 Democratic Alliance v Speaker of The National Assembly and Others [2016] ZACC 8; 2016 (5) BCLR 577 (CC);
2016 (3) SA 487 paras 14, 16 And 17.
33Democratic Alliance v Speaker of the National Assembly and Others fn 32 above; EFF v Manuel fn 25 para 76.
34 United Democratic Movement v Speaker of the National Assembly and Others [2017] ZACC 21; 2017 (5) SA 300
(CC) para 8.
[40] It is against the background sketched in the preceding paragraph that the
appellants contended that the interim order granted by the court a quo would impact
on, among others, their responsibility to expose possible unethical conduct within
the contemplation of s 96 of the Constitution. The second appellant also asserted that
in so far as the Public Investment Corporation was a state-owned entity, the interim
order would impact on the appellants’ responsibility to hold public officials
accountable by exposing possible contraventions of legislation by those in charge of
public funds.
[41] I noted that the court a quo remarked that the attitude of the appellants in
refusing to retract the letter and apologise, among other things, ‘shows a potential
for future comment and further publication’. A retraction and apology are aspects
that relate to a final interdict as they presuppose the wrongfulness of the utterances.35
Notably, in para 1.2, the court a quo ordered the appellants to remove the allegedly
defamatory letter addressed to the President from the first appellant’s website. That
seems to be putting the cart before the horse, as an order of that nature is ordinarily
granted when a court is satisfied that the statement made is unlawful, in other words,
when the factual foundation laid by the respondent has not disclosed the defence of
truth and public interest.36
[42] Furthermore, although any patrimonial loss arising from the defamation is an
aspect that could subsequently achieve redress by way of an Aquilian action,37 the
commercial loss that could be suffered by the respondents seems to be a factor that
weighed heavily with the court a quo when assessing whether there was a reasonable
35 Tau v Mashaba and Others fn 7 para 17.
36 Compare EFF v Manuel fn 25.
37 Caxton Ltd and Others v Reeva Forman (Pty) Ltd and Another 1990 (3) SA 547 (A) at 567G-576B.
apprehension of harm. This obviously has a bearing on the proper assessment of the
apprehension of harm as one of the requirements for the granting of an interim
interdict.
[43] The first judgment remarks that the order granted by the court a quo cannot
be described as a gagging order, given that the contentious remarks were already in
the public domain. It is true that the allegations in question were already in the public
domain as the second appellant’s utterances had already been covered by the media,
including social media. Bearing in mind that an interdict is ‘not a remedy for the past
invasion of rights, but is concerned with the present or the future’,38 and that the
respondents had opted to pursue their defamation through action proceedings, it
seems to me that an award of damages could conceivably have served as a suitable
alternative remedy, under the circumstances.39
[44] The first judgment correctly observes that the first appellant is not a one-issue
party that would be inclined to raise the same issue over and over again in
Parliament. An important aspect raised by counsel for the appellants, is that
parliamentary processes are widely covered by the media. That would mean that the
intended effect of the interim interdict would simply not be achievable, under the
circumstances. This is an aspect that ought to have had a bearing in the exercise of
the discretion whether or not to grant the interdict.
[45] For all the reasons set out above, I conclude that the interim order granted by
the court a quo was appealable. The court a quo was correct when it stated that there
38 Lawsa 2 ed para 390; Philip Morris Inc and Another v Marlboro Shirt Co SA Ltd and Another [1991] 2 All SA 177
(A); 1991 (2) SA 720 (A) at 735B-C, approving Stauffer Chemicals Chemical Products Division of Chesebrough-
Ponds (Pty) Ltd v Monsanto Co [1988] 3 All SA 279 (T); 1988 (1) SA 805 (T) at 809F-G.
39 Compare Tau v Mashaba and Others fn 7 above para 27.
was no reason why the considerations of the interests of justice should not apply
when determining the appealability of an interim order that was said to affect the
rights of parties to engage in political activity. It correctly granted the appellants
leave to appeal. It follows that the appeal should have been entertained by this Court.
________________________
M B MOLEMELA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Makgoka JA
[46] I have had the benefit of reading the judgments of my colleagues, Molemela
JA and Sutherland AJA. I agree with Molemela JA that the order is appealable. I
wish to make the following additional remarks.
[47] The Zweni attributes have now been subsumed under the context-sensitive and
the constitutionally pliant rubric of the interests of justice. In Philani-Ma-Afrika v
Mailula40 this court adapted the general principles on the appealability of interim
orders and concluded that what is of paramount importance in deciding whether a
judgment is appealable is the interests of justice. This approach received the
imprimatur of the Constitutional Court in International Trade Administration
Commission v SCAW.41
[48] In City of Tshwane v Afriforum42 the Chief Justice, writing for the majority,
explained the relationship between the common law approach and the Constitution
on the appealability of judgments:
‘The common law test for appealability has since been denuded of its somewhat inflexible
nature. Unsurprisingly so because the common law is not on par with but subservient to the
supreme law that prescribes the interests of justice as the only requirement to be met for the grant
of leave to appeal. Unlike before, appealability no longer depends largely on whether the interim
order appealed against has final effect or is dispositive of a substantial portion of the relief claimed
40 Philani-Ma-Afrika and Others v Mailula and Others [2009] ZASCA 115; 2010 (2) SA 573 (SCA); [2010] 1 ALL
SA 459 (SCA) para 20.
41 International Trade Administration Commission v Scaw South Africa (Pty) Ltd [2010] ZACC 6; 2012 (4) SA 618
(CC); 2010 (5) BCLR 457 (CC) para 52.
42 City of Tshwane Metropolitan Municipality v Afriforum and Another [2016] ZACC 19; 2016 (9) BCLR 1133 (CC);
2016 (6) SA 279 (CC) para 40.
in the main application. All this is now subsumed under the constitutional interests of justice
standard. The over-arching role of interests of justice considerations has relativised the final effect
of the order or the disposition of the substantial portion of what is pending before the review court,
in determining appealability. The principle was set out in OUTA by Moseneke DCJ in these terms:
“This court has granted leave to appeal in relation to interim orders before. It has made it
clear that the operative standard is the interests of justice. To that end, it must have regard
to and weigh carefully all germane circumstances. Whether an interim order has a final
effect or disposes of a substantial portion of the relief sought in a pending review is a
relevant and important consideration. Yet, it is not the only or always decisive
consideration. It is just as important to assess whether the temporary restraining order has
an immediate and substantial effect, including whether the harm that flows from it is
serious, immediate, ongoing and irreparable.”.’
[49] It is with this approach in mind that I consider whether the high court’s order
is appealable. In my view, the specific factors which should be considered to answer
that question are the following: the nature of the allegations; the nature and profile
of the parties involved; whether the appellants raise a prima facie valid defence; the
competing rights; the efficacy of the high court’s order; and the weight of the high
court’s judgment granting leave to appeal. I set out these, in turn.
The nature of the allegations
[50] The case concerns allegations of impropriety, corruption and conflict of
interests on the part of a former Deputy Minister, who is alleged to have used his
position to improperly enrich himself and the politically connected, ie the remainder
of the respondents. In a nutshell, the respondents are accused of corruption involving
what, essentially, are public funds. It is a notorious fact that in the last decade or so,
corruption has taken root in South Africa, both in the public and private sectors. But
it is the former sector which has attracted much attention because, in many instances,
politicians and those connected to them, have enriched themselves with public funds
at the expense of the citizenry. This explains why any allegations of corruption
involving public funds draw closer scrutiny. Recently, in Zuma v Office of the Public
Protector, 43 this court quoted the United Nations 2004 Convention against
Corruption, to which South Africa is a signatory, which describes corruption in the
following terms:
‘Corruption is an insidious plague that has a wide range of corrosive effects on societies. It
undermines democracy and the rule of law, leads to violations of human rights, distorts markets,
erodes the quality of life and allows organized crime, terrorism and other threats to human security
to flourish. This evil phenomenon is found in all countries – big and small, rich and poor – but it
is in the developing world that its effects are most destructive. Corruption hurts the poor
disproportionately by diverting funds intended for development, undermining a Government’s
ability to provide basic services, feeding inequality and injustice and discouraging foreign aid and
investment. Corruption is a key element in economic underperformance and a major obstacle to
poverty alleviation and development.’44
The allegations made by the appellants were sufficient to move the President of the
country to institute a Judicial Commission of Inquiry to investigate them. There is
therefore no doubt that this is a matter of significant national and public importance.
The parties
[51] Mr Holomisa is the leader of the second appellant, one of the opposition
parties represented in Parliament. There is no question that they raise the issues in
the public interest. The sixth respondent, Mr Moleketi, is a former politician, who,
during the period relevant to the allegations, served as a Deputy Minister. In that
capacity, he was the chairperson of the PIC. Reduced to their bare essence, the
allegations by the appellants are that Mr Moleketi had used his position as the
43 Zuma v Office of the Public Protector and Others [2020] ZASCA 138.
44 Zuma fn 43 para 1.
chairperson of the PIC to enrich himself and the remainder of the respondents. That
is alleged to have endured beyond his tenure as such.
[52] The PIC is no ordinary company. It is a wholly state-owned asset management
entity, whose clients are mostly public sector entities, which focus on the provision
of social security. Amongst these are: Government Employees Pension Fund
(GEPF); Unemployment Insurance Fund (UIF); Compensation Commissioner Fund
(CC); Compensation Commissioner Pension Fund (CP); and Associated Institutions
Pension Fund (AIPF). 45 Thus, the PIC is funded with public moneys, mainly
belonging to public servants. How those moneys are invested and managed, is
therefore undoubtedly of great public interest.
Prima facie valid defence?
[53] As I understand the appellants’ defence, it is rooted in truth and public interest.
It is so that the impugned letter is littered with outlandish, perhaps exaggerated,
claims and comments. But this is something politicians have to constantly grapple
with, and it is in this context that the tone of the letter should be understood. As aptly
remarked by Ludorf J in Pienaar v Argus:
‘[T]he courts must not avoid the reality that in South Africa political matters are usually discussed
in forthright terms. Strong epithets are used and accusations come readily to the tongue. I think,
too, that the public and readers of newspapers that debate political matters, are aware of this.’46
[54] Indeed, when one deals with politicians or political matters, courts have
allowed for a good deal of latitude for comment. More than a century ago, Innes CJ
remarked in Crawford v Albu 1917 AD 102 at 105:
45 https://www.pic.gov.za/.
46 Pienaar and Another v Argus Printing and Publishing Co Ltd 1956 (4) SA 310 (W) at 318C-E.
‘People who occupy a public position or for any other reason have been so unfortunate as to focus
upon themselves the light of public opinion must expect to be criticised. And more particularly
must those who, however righteous their motives, place themselves in determined opposition to
society generally or to a section of society not be surprised if they find themselves assailed with
some vehemence or even exaggeration. All this the law does not prohibit. Free speech and free
thought are part of our common inheritance. And the law will not interfere with them. But still
there are limits which must not be transgressed. Comment to be fair must not distort or
misrepresent facts.’
[55] As pointed out in Argus v Inkatha Freedom Party,47 there is common law
reluctance to regard political utterances as defamatory. This reluctance stems from
the fact that it is recognised that ‘right-thinking people are not likely to be greatly
influenced in their esteem of a politician by derogatory statements made about him
by other politicians or political commentators’. Accordingly, in a political context,
the traditional test of determining whether the words complained of tend to lower
the plaintiff ‘in the estimation of right-thinking people’ is not easily straddled.
[56] Although the high court referred to Herbal Zone, it failed to apply the
following trenchant passage in that judgment:
‘[A]n interdict to prevent the publication of defamatory matter … is directed at preventing the
party interdicted from making statements in the future. If granted it impinges upon that party’s
constitutionally protected right to freedom of speech. For that reason such an interdict is only
infrequently granted, the party claiming that they will be injured by such speech ordinarily being
left to their remedy of a claim for damages in due course. Nugent JA said in this court:
“Where it is alleged, for example, that a publication is defamatory, but it has yet to be established that
the defamation is unlawful, an award of damages is usually capable of vindicating the right to
47 Argus Printing and Publishing Co Ltd v Inkatha Freedom Party 1992 (3) SA 579 (A) at 588F-589E.
reputation if it is later found to have been infringed, and an anticipatory ban on publication will seldom
be necessary for that purpose.” .’48
[57] As stated above, the appellants rely on the defence of truth and public interest.
The appellants do not merely content themselves with bold assertions in this regard.
They set out facts from which their allegations can be deduced. Given that, the high
court should have been more circumspect in granting the interdict. At the level of
principle, I find it disquieting and deeply troubling that a former politician and those
with whom he is accused of corruption, should obtain an interim interdict pending
the outcome of a defamation action, with the ease with which the present one was
granted. As I understand the effect of the passage in Herbal Zone referred to above,
the threshold for obtaining such an interdict is not that low. Something more
compelling is required. The respondents have alleged none.
The competing rights
[58] A number of constitutionally entrenched rights are at play here, some
potentially pitted against each other. There is, for example, the respondents’ rights
to privacy and dignity, on the one hand. On the other, one has the appellants’ right
of freedom of expression, and the public’s right to freedom of access to information.
The interplay between these rights and how they are balanced against each other,
clearly trigger the interests of justice.
The efficacy of the high court’s order
[59] The purpose of an interim interdict pending the determination of a defamation
action is that the dignity and esteem which a plaintiff enjoys in the eyes of the public
should not be disturbed in the interim. This is at least as far as a pre-publication
48 Herbal Zone fn 30 para 36.
interdict is concerned. But where, as is the case here, publication has already taken
place, and widely so, it must be asked what purpose a subsequent interdict would
serve. To my mind, it would serve little, if any, purpose. As stated already, the
allegations contained in the letter have been widely published in the mainstream and
social media. What is more, the respondents have instituted action for defamation in
which the allegations are set out in full. Since pleadings, like all court documents,
are public documents to which the media and the public have access, the allegations
would be (and likely have been) publicly repeated. In addition, Mr Holomisa is
protected by the privileges he enjoys as a Member of Parliament to repeat the
allegations in Parliament, which the media would publish, and has most likely done
so.
[60] Considering the above, the allegations were already in the public domain in
any event. Only the appellants are not permitted to repeat them. An interim order
under such circumstances is not only impotent, but artificial. It amounts to no more
than what the law calls a brutum fulmen.49 This relates to one of the requisites for an
interim interdict, namely the balance of convenience. On this score, it clearly did not
favour the granting of an interim order, and the interim order should not have been
granted in the first place.
The weight of the high court’s judgment granting leave to appeal
[61] It is so that the high court’s conclusion that the order is appealable, is not
binding on this Court. But this does not mean that we can, without more, set it aside.
Generally, a court to which an application for leave to appeal is made has a wide
general discretion to grant or refuse it. Its decision is not to be lightly interfered with,
49 A useless thunderbolt.
unless we are satisfied that the discretion was not exercised judiciously, or that it had
been influenced by wrong principles or a misdirection on the facts, or that the high
court had reached a decision which in the result could not reasonably have been
made by a court properly directing itself to all the relevant facts and principles.50
[62] In the present case, nothing suggests that the high court had not properly
considered the issue of appealability. To the contrary, the learned judge gave careful
and anxious consideration to the issue. After noting the overarching considerations
of the interests of justice as set out in Afriforum and other authorities, the learned
judge insightfully said:
‘[I] see no reason why considerations in the interests of justice should not apply to the lower courts
when determining the appealability of an interim order, which is said to affect the rights of parties
as the applicants, to engage in political activity. Leave in these circumstances should be granted
and I am of the view that the issues raised are of importance and for purpose of certainty the matter
should be considered by the Supreme Court of Appeal.’
One might not agree with these views, but the learned judge cannot be faulted for
how she applied the principles to the issue.
[63] Under these circumstances, it is my view that this Court is not at large to
revisit that order. The power of this Court to interfere with an order of the high
granting leave should be used sparingly, and only where there is a proper juridical
basis to do so, and in the clearest cases of an error or misdirection on the part of the
high court in granting such leave. In this case, there is neither.
50 Compare National Coalition for Gay and Lesbian Equality and Others v Minister of Home Affairs and Others
[1999] ZACC 17; 2000 (2) SA 1 (CC); 2000 (1) BCLR 39 para 10; Trencon Construction (Pty) Limited v Industrial
Development Corporation of South Africa Limited and Another [2015] ZACC 22; 2015 (5) SA 245 (CC) para 88.
Conclusion
[64] For all the above considerations, I agree with Molemela JA’s conclusion that
the order of the high court is appealable, and thus it was in the interests of justice to
hear the merits of the appeal.
________________________
T MAKGOKA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances:
For appellants:
D C Mpofu SC (with him T Ngcukaitobi SC)
Instructed by:
Mabuza Attorneys, Pretoria
Matsepes Inc., Bloemfontein
For respondents:
D Berger SC (with him B Slon and T B
Makgalemele)
Instructed by:
Nicqui Galaktiou Inc., Johannesburg
Claude Reid, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED
United Democratic Movement and Another v Lebashe Investment Group (Pty)
Ltd and Others (1032/2019) [2021] ZASCA 4 (13 January 2021)
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
13 January 2021
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of these
cases and does not form part of the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
The appellants, a political party and its leader had published a copy of a letter of request they
had made to the President of the Republic. The letter made allegations of misconduct against
the several respondents and demanded a public enquiry. The aggrieved respondents were
granted an interim order by the High Court inhibiting a repetition of the contents of the letter
pending an action for damages based on the allegations therein being defamatory and unlawful.
The High Court granted leave to appeal on the basis of the proposition that the interests of
justice required an appeal to examine whether the interim order violated the appellants
constitutional rights to free political activity and freedom of speech.
At the hearing of the appeal, by a majority judgment, the appeal was struck from the roll on the
grounds that the interests of justice did not require an appeal and that were the court to address
the appellants’ contentions the role of the trial court would be pre-empted. Two dissenting
judgments held, to the contrary, that it was appropriate to have entertained the appeal on the
grounds that the interests of justice required it and the matter should not have been struck off
the roll.
________________________________________ |
3495 | non-electoral | 2020 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 1324/2019
In the matter between:
CASPER HENDRIK BAILEY
FIRST APPELLANT
SAREL LOUIS AUGUSTYN
SECOND APPELLANT
and
HAZEL JOHANNA CICELIA BAILEY
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Bailey and Another v Bailey (Case no 1324/2019) [2020] ZASCA
178 (18 December 2020)
Coram:
VAN DER MERWE, MOCUMIE and MAKGOKA JJA and LEDWABA and
EKSTEEN AJJA
Heard:
4 November 2020
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties’ representatives by email, and by publication on the Supreme Court of Appeal
website and release to SAFLII. The time and date for hand down is deemed to be
09h45 on 18 December 2020.
Summary: Family law – interpretation of word ‘remarriage’ in deed of settlement made
order of court – means marriage recognised by law – religious Christian ceremony
performed not remarriage.
ORDER
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Neukircher J) sitting
as court of first instance:
(a)
The appeal is upheld.
(b)
The order of the court a quo is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘1.
Paragraph 5.1 of the settlement agreement between the parties made an order of court
on 28 August 2017 is amended/varied to read as follows and with effect from date of this order
“The Defendant shall pay an all-inclusive amount of R10 000 (Ten Thousand Rand)
maintenance to the Plaintiff per month until her death or remarriage and/or cohabitation with
another man in a common law marriage whichever occurs first.”
2.
It is declared that the ceremony that had been performed in respect of the applicant
and Mr Riaan Visagie on 9 December 2017 did not constitute a remarriage within the meaning
of the said deed of settlement between the parties.
The respondent is directed to pay the costs of the application.’
(c)
There is no order as to the costs of the first appellant and the respondent on
appeal.
(d)
The respondent is directed to pay the costs of appeal of the second appellant.
JUDGMENT
Mocumie JA (Van der Merwe JA and Ledwaba and Eksteen AJJA concurring):
[1] The marriage of the first appellant, Mr Casper Hendrik Bailey, and the
respondent, Mrs Hazel Johanna Cicelia Bailey, was dissolved by a court order
incorporating a settlement agreement which they had concluded. The second
appellant, Mr Sarel Louis Augustyn, acted at all relevant times as the attorney of the
first appellant. The main issue for determination in this appeal is the interpretation of
the word ‘remarriage’ in the settlement agreement entered into between the first
appellant and the respondent in the divorce proceedings. The further issues are
whether the first appellant was in contempt of court and whether the costs orders of
the court a quo, particularly that the second appellant, be mulcted with costs de bonis
propriis, were justified. The appeal is with leave of this Court.
[2] The relevant background facts appear from what follows. On 28 February 1987,
the first appellant and the respondent were married in community of property. They
separated in June 2016 with the common intention to divorce. The respondent then
initiated divorce proceedings against the first appellant. Pending the finalisation of the
divorce proceedings, they entered into negotiations assisted by their respective
attorneys. In June 2017, they signed a settlement agreement. Clause 5.1 of the
settlement agreement, which is in dispute, reads:
‘The Defendant shall pay an all-inclusive amount of R10 000.00 (Ten Thousand Rand)
maintenance to the Defendant per month until her death or remarriage whichever occurs first.’
In the court a quo and this Court, the first appellant accepted that the second reference to
‘Defendant’ was simply an error and should read ‘Plaintiff’.
[3] On 28 August 2017, a decree of divorce, incorporating the signed settlement
agreement, was made an order of the court. After the divorce, the respondent
cohabited with Mr Visagie. On 9 December 2017, Reverend van Huyssteen, a minister
of the Dutch Reformed Church, conducted a ceremony during which he blessed and
sanctioned their cohabitation so that they would not ‘live in sin.’ Both the respondent
and Mr Visagie invited friends and relatives to the ceremony, the photos of which were
posted on Facebook by the respondent with the caption that Mr Visagie was her
husband. By 5 March 2019, the date of the hearing in the high court, the respondent,
and Mr Visagie had already separated.
[4] At the end of February 2018, the ceremony between the respondent and Mr
Visagie came to the attention of the first appellant. Upon the advice of the second
appellant, the first appellant stopped paying maintenance to the respondent on the
basis that the respondent had remarried, thus ending his duty to maintain her. He
stopped payment at the end of March 2018, which prompted the respondent to lay a
criminal charge against the first appellant for failure to pay maintenance. On 23 April
2018, the first appellant appeared in the magistrate court where he raised the following
defence in respect of the charge proffered against him:
‘On advice of Counsel and informing him of the so-called marriage on 9 December 2018, the
Court was informed on the date of appearance of 23 April 2018 that the Court Order of the
High Court could not be enforced in the Criminal Court without an attempt to amend/vary it in
terms of legal process which would in any event be opposed as being moot in the light of the
fact that maintenance orders lapse automatically in the event of a re-marriage by the recipient
of maintenance.’
[5] The magistrate apparently accepted what the first appellant had stated and
struck the matter from the roll. The respondent thereafter approached the high court
where she sought to amend clause 5.1 of the settlement agreement by replacing the
second word ‘Defendant’ with ‘Plaintiff’, as it ought to have read in the first place. She
also sought to hold the first appellant in contempt of a court order for his failure to pay
maintenance since April 2018.
[6] The first appellant filed a conditional counter-application in which he sought a
declaratory order that on 9 December 2017 in the Dutch Reformed Church Montana;
the respondent and Mr Riaan Visagie concluded an unregistered common law or
Christian relationship of cohabitation as husband and wife, and, as a result of which
his duty to pay maintenance had lapsed. He also sought orders that:
‘1.1
The word “remarriage” in paragraph 5.1 of the settlement agreement between the
parties made an order of the court on 28 August 2012, be interpreted and extended to include
an unregistered common law alternatively Christian marriage relationship as husband and
wife.
. . .
Alternatively,
. . .
2.1
Paragraph 5.1 of the settlement agreement between the parties made an order of
Court on 28 August 2017 is amended/varied by adding after the word “remarriage” the
following words
“alternatively, Plaintiff entering into an unregistered common law alternatively Christian
marriage relationship of cohabitation as husband and wife”
. . .
Alternatively
. . .
3.1
Paragraph 5.1 of the settlement agreement made an order of the court on 28 August
2017 is amended/varied by adding after the word “remarriage” the following words
“alternatively, Plaintiff entering into a relationship of cohabitation as husband and wife with
another man.”’
[7] The high court (Neukircher J) found in favour of the respondent. It found that
the insertion of the second word ‘Defendant’ instead of ‘Plaintiff’ in clause 5.1 was a
patent error that was not apparent to the parties, their legal representatives or the
court. The high court also held that the ceremony conducted in respect of the
respondent and Mr Riaan Visagie did not constitute remarriage. It furthermore held
that the meaning of the word did not include cohabitation, as the first appellant had
contended. The first appellant and the respondent, however, reached agreement,
contained in a draft order, as to the amendment of clause 5.1 for future purposes. The
court a quo thus varied the settlement agreement to read:
‘1.
Paragraph 5.1 of the settlement agreement between the parties made an order of the
court on 28 August 2017 is amended/varied to read as follows and with effect from the date
of order: The defendant shall pay an all-inclusive amount of R10 000 (Ten Thousand Rand)
maintenance to the plaintiff per month until her death or remarriage and/or cohabitation with
another man in a common-law marriage, whichever occurs first.’
[8] The high court also held the first appellant in contempt of court for failing to pay
the respondent maintenance in terms of the settlement agreement; and it mulcted the
second appellant with costs de bonis propriis. In addition, it ordered the first appellant
to pay costs on the scale of attorney and client.
[9] On the question whether the ceremony between the respondent and Mr Visagie
was a ‘remarriage’ as contemplated by the parties when they concluded the settlement
agreement, the high court found, with reference to several cases including Ochberg v
Ochberg’s Estate1, that on the evidence presented, what occurred on 9 December
2017 was no valid and binding legal marriage ceremony. Thus, the respondent’s legal
obligation to pay maintenance had not lapsed. Addressing the first appellant’s
provisional counter-application based on rectification, at para 40 of the judgment, the
high court found that:
‘[a]t the time that the settlement was entered into, the respondent had the opportunity to add
into the settlement agreement that any cohabitation by the applicant would result in a
1 Ochberg v Ochberg’s Estate 1941 CPD 15.
nullification of the maintenance payable by him to her. He failed to do so. He was represented
by an attorney at the time and despite this, no such clause was added to the settlement
agreement’.
[10] As I have said, counsel for the first appellant handed up a draft order in which
the respondent consented to a variation of the settlement agreement and which
included the variation that the respondent had sought from the outset. The court,
however, held at para 51 that ‘had it not been for this concession, the [conditional]
counter-application would have been dismissed with costs.’
[11] In respect of the contempt of court relied upon by the respondent, the high court
found at para 48 of the judgment that:
‘[i]n so far as the contempt of court regarding the failure to pay maintenance because of the
argument that the applicant has remarried is concerned, I am of the view that the wilfulness
and mala fides cannot be established. It is clear that the respondent was advised by his legal
representatives that this argument was a valid one and given that he is a lay person, in my
view he would know no better.’
It nevertheless found the first appellant guilty of contempt of court consisting of
deductions from maintenance made before April 2018 and sentenced him to three
months’ imprisonment which was suspended conditionally.
[12] As the appeal revolves around the interpretation of the word ‘remarriage’ in the
divorce settlement agreement and flowing from that what constitutes a marriage, the
Marriage Act 25 of 1961 (the Marriage Act) must be the starting point. The relevant
provisions are the following:
‘11.
Unauthorised solemnization of marriage ceremonies forbidden
(1)
A marriage may be solemnized by a marriage officer only.
(2) . . . .
(3)
Nothing in subsection (2) contained shall apply to any marriage ceremony solemnized
in accordance with the rites or formularies of any religion if such a ceremony does not
purport to effect a valid marriage.
29A.
Registration of marriages
(1)
The marriage officer solemnizing any marriage, the parties thereto and two competent
witnesses shall sign the marriage register concerned immediately after such marriage
has been solemnized.
(2)
The marriage officer shall forthwith transmit the marriage register and records
concerned, as the case may be, to a regional or district representative designated as
such under section 21 (1) of the Identification Act, 1986 (Act No. 72 of 1986).’
[13] The purpose of interpretation, is to establish the intention of the parties from the
words used in the context of the document as a whole, the factual matrix surrounding
the conclusion of the agreement and its purpose or (where relevant) the mischief it
was intended to address.2 In Bothma-Batho Transport (Edms) Bpk v S Bothma & Seun
Transport (Edms) Bpk3, with reference to Natal Joint Municipal Pension Fund v
Endumeni Municipality4, this Court affirmed that:
‘Interpretation is the process of attributing meaning to the words used in a document, be it
legislation, some other statutory instrument, or contract, having regard to the context provided
by reading the particular provision or provisions in the light of the document as a whole and
the circumstances attendant upon its coming into existence. Whatever the nature of the
document, consideration must be given to the language used in the light of the ordinary rules
of grammar and syntax; the context in which the provision appears; the apparent purpose to
which it is directed, and the material known to those responsible for its production. Where
more than one meaning is possible each possibility must be weighed in the light of all these
factors. The process is objective, not subjective. A sensible meaning is to be preferred to one
that leads to insensible or unbusinesslike results or undermines the apparent purpose of the
document. Judges must be alert to and guard against, the temptation to substitute what they
regard as reasonable, sensible, or business-like for the words actually used. To do so in regard
to a statute or statutory instrument is to cross the divide between interpretation and legislation.
In a contractual context, it is to make a contract for the parties other than the one they in fact
made. The “inevitable point of departure is the language of the provision itself”, read in context
and having regard to the purpose of the provision and the background to the preparation and
production of the document.’
[14] The ordinary meaning of remarriage is to enter into a further marriage
recognised by South African law (legal marriage). The context provides several
indications that this was the meaning of the word remarriage in clause 5.1 of the deed
of settlement. First, the parties used the word in the agreement that regulated the
2 KPMG Chartered Accountants (SA) v Securefin Ltd and Another [2009] ZASCA 7; [2009] 2 All SA 523
(SCA); 2009 (4) SA 399 (SCA) para 39; Novartis SA (Pty) Ltd v Maphil Trading (Pty) Ltd [2015] ZASCA
111; [2015] 4 All SA 417 (SCA); 2016 (1) SA 518 (SCA) paras 27, 28, 30 and 35.
3 Bothma-Batho Transport (Edms) Bpk v S Bothma & Seun Transport (Edms) Bpk3 [2013] ZASCA 176;
[2014] 1 All SA 517 (SCA); 2014 (2) SA 494 (SCA).
4 Natal Joint Municipal Pension Fund v Endumeni Municipality [2012] ZASCA 13; [2012] 2 All SA 262
(SCA); 2012 (4) SA 593 (SCA) para 18.
consequences of the dissolution of their legal marriage. In the absence of an indication
to the contrary, the parties must be taken to have intended a remarriage of the same
status, ie a legal marriage. Second, clause 5.1 echoed the phrase ‘until death or
remarriage’ in s 7(2) of the Divorce Act 70 of 1979.5 There the phrase undoubtedly
refers to a legal remarriage. Again, in the absence of an indication to the contrary, the
phrase must have been intended to have the same meaning as in s 7(2). Third, the
very wording of the agreed amendment shows that it introduced into the clause what
was not there before.
[15] Thus, the parties agreed that the first appellant’s duty to maintain the
respondent would lapse when another person becomes legally obliged to maintain
her. But should the respondent cohabitate with a person who de facto contributes to
her maintenance (which on the uncontroverted evidence, Mr Visagie did not), the first
appellant would have the remedy of approaching the maintenance court for a variation
or discharge of the maintenance order under s 6(1) read with s 16(1)(b) of the
Maintenance Act 99 of 1998.The agreement must now be applied to the facts.
[16] Reverend Van Huysteen’s uncontradicted evidence was that he is an ordained
minister and marriage officer in terms of the Marriage Act (s 29A(a)). That on
9 December 2017, he conducted the ceremony between the applicant and Mr Visagie.
However, that ceremony had no legal consequences, as he did not solemnise it in
terms of the Marriage Act. No one signed the marriage register as prescribed in the
Marriage Act (s 29A(b)). He did not pronounce the applicant and Mr Visagie to be
husband and wife to those in attendance of the ceremony. On the contrary, he
expressly informed the audience that no legal marriage was concluded. Nor did he
after the ceremony transmit the marriage register and other relevant documents to a
regional or district representative at the Department of Home Affairs (s 29A(c)).
5 Section 7(2) provides:
‘In the absence of an order made in terms of subsection (1) with regard to the payment of maintenance
by the one party to the other, the court may, having regard to the existing or prospective means of each
of the parties, their respective earning capacities, financial needs and obligations, the age of each of
the parties, the duration of the marriage, the standard of living of the parties prior to the divorce, their
conduct in so far as it may be relevant to the breakdown of the marriage, an order in terms of subsection
(3) and any other factor which in the opinion of the court should be taken into account, make an order
which the court finds just in respect of the payment of maintenance by the one party to the other for any
period until the death or remarriage of the party in whose favour the order is given, whichever event
may first occur.’ (Emphasis added.)
[17] In terms of s 29A of the Marriages Act the requirements for the registration of a
valid marriage are that:
(a)
the solemnization of the marriage is done by a marriage officer designated in
terms of the Marriage Act;
(b)
the (i) parties to the marriage together with the (ii) marriage officer and (iii) two
witnesses are required to sign the marriage register immediately after such
solemnization;
(c)
the marriage officer is thereafter charged to forthwith transmit the marriage
register and other relevant documents to a regional or district representative
designated as such under s 21(1) of the Identification Act 72 0f 1986, at Home Affairs.
None of these requirements were fulfilled during the ceremony. Thus, the finding of
the high court that there was no ‘remarriage’ cannot be faulted.
[18] Counsel for the respondent fairly, and correctly, conceded that the high court
erred in holding the first appellant in contempt of court. In the respondent’s founding
affidavit, it was expressly stated that the alleged contempt of court consisted of non-
payment of maintenance since April 2018. That was the case that the first appellant
had been called upon to answer. As I have said, the high court in fact held that the first
appellant did not commit contempt of court in this regard. In the circumstances it erred
in holding that the first appellant was in contempt of court in respect of deductions that
he had made from the monthly amount prior to April 2018. On the evidence, the bulk
of these deductions were in any event in respect of the respondent’s medical fund
contributions and were made with her consent.
[19] As I have said, this Court granted leave to the second appellant to appeal
against the de bonis propriis costs order. Before us, counsel for the respondent rightly
conceded that the order was vitiated by procedural unfairness. In this regard the high
court referred to two matters. First, it said, ‘the application was served on Mr Augustyn
during October 2018’. Second, it stated:
‘[o]n Monday, the 4th of March 2018 when the matter was called, I insisted that Mr Augustyn
be present in court to explain why a de bonis propriis costs order should not be granted against
him. He thus had an opportunity until Tuesday, 5 March 2019 when this matter was argued to
provide such an affidavit. None was forthcoming. In my view, Mr Augustyn has had ample
opportunity to provide an explanation to this court, as to why he should not pay costs de bonis
propriis and he failed to do so.’
[20] But the second appellant was not a party to the application in the high court.
His firm merely accepted service of the respondent’s application on behalf of the first
appellant. The mere fact that the second appellant had in these terms been informed
to attend the hearing the following day, did not give expression to the entrenched audi
alteram partem principle. The second appellant was not informed of the purported
grounds for a de bonis propriis costs order and was not provided a fair and proper
opportunity to explain himself.
[21] There was also no substantive ground for the order. It is settled law that
generally a court would only grant a costs order de bonis propriis against an attorney
in cases that involve gross incompetence or gross disregard of professional
responsibilities, dishonesty, wilfulness, or negligence of a serious degree.6 The high
court based the de bonis propriis costs order (and the attorney and client costs order
against the first appellant) on the propositions that in both the maintenance court and
in the papers before it, the first appellant, upon the advice of the second appellant,
had relied on the obvious error in the deed of settlement as a substantive defence to
the claim for payment of maintenance. It was wrong on both scores. The first appellant
did not appear in the maintenance court. He appeared on a criminal charge in the
criminal court. In facing a criminal charge, it was perfectly reasonable to put forward
what I have quoted in para 5 above. The first appellant did not rely on the error as a
defence in the high court. He expressly accepted that it was a patent error and
defended the matter, as I have said, on the basis that his admitted liability to pay
maintenance had lapsed. For the same reasons, attorney and client costs against the
first appellant were not justified.
[22] Paragraph 1 of the order of the court a quo was granted by agreement, was not
appealed against and must stand. For the reasons stated, the rest of the order of the
court a quo does not withstand scrutiny. The first appellant and the respondent,
sensibly, agreed that a declarator would be to the benefit of the parties in order to
6 Pheko v Ekurhuleni Metropolitan Municipality (No 2) [2015] ZACC 10; 2015 (5) SA 600 (CC); 2015 (6)
BCLR 711 (CC) para 51 and 54. See also Stainbank v South African Apartheid Museum at Freedom
Park and Another [2011] ZACC 20; 2011 (10) BCLR 1058 (CC) paras 52-54.
arrange their affairs accordingly. It is fair and just that the first appellant and the
respondent pay their own costs of appeal. The respondent did not abandon the costs
order against the second appellant but attempted to defend it in the heads of argument
filed in this Court. In the result the respondent should pay the second appellant’s costs
of appeal.
[23] In the result, the following order is granted:
(a)
The appeal is upheld.
(b)
The order of the court a quo is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘1. Paragraph 5.1 of the settlement agreement between the parties made an order of court on
28 August 2017 is amended/varied to read as follows and with effect from date of this order
“The Defendant shall pay an all-inclusive amount of R10 000 (Ten Thousand Rand)
maintenance to the Plaintiff per month until her death or remarriage and/or cohabitation with
another man in a common law marriage whichever occurs first.”
2.
It is declared that the ceremony that had been performed in respect of the
applicant and Mr Riaan Visagie on 9 December 2017, did not constitute a remarriage
within the meaning of the said deed of settlement between the parties.
3.
The respondent is directed to pay the costs of the application.’
(c)
There is no order as to the costs of the first appellant and the respondent on
appeal.
(d)
The respondent is directed to pay the costs of appeal of the second appellant.
________________________
B C MOCUMIE
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Makgoka JA (dissenting)
[24] I have had the benefit of reading the main judgment by my colleague,
Mocumie JA. I agree with it, save for the reasoning and conclusion on the
interpretation of the ‘re-marriage clause’ in the settlement agreement, as well as the
costs order as between the first appellant and the respondent. The main judgment
declares that ‘the ceremony … performed in respect of the applicant and Mr Riaan
Visagie on 9 December 2017, did not constitute a remarriage within the meaning of
the …deed of settlement between the parties.’ I conclude, in the specific context of
clause 5.1 of the parties’ settlement agreement, that the respondent and Mr Visagie
indeed entered into a ‘re-marriage’.
[25] The relevant facts are common cause. The first appellant and the respondent
were previously married. They divorced on 28 August 2017. Their decree of divorce
incorporated a settlement agreement which was made an order of court. Paragraph
5.1 thereof obliged the first appellant to pay R10 000 maintenance monthly to the
respondent ‘until her death or remarriage, whichever occurs first…’. A month and half
later, on 13 October 2017, the respondent announced to the world via the social
medium of Facebook,7 that she and Mr Visagie, with whom she had been cohabiting,
were getting married on 9 December 2017 in a church ceremony in Montana, Pretoria.
[26] After that date, the respondent’s Facebook page depicted, among others
things, photos of the ceremony, which in all respects, resembled a marriage
consummation: the respondent was dressed in a wedding dress; she was escorted
into the church by a male person; the respondent and Mr Visagie stood in front of a
priest, and later knelt while being blessed by the priest, and the couple exchanged
wedding rings. The ceremony was witnessed by the couple’s families and friends. Mr
Visagie also updated his Facebook status to ‘Married Hazel Bailey’, in reference to the
respondent. Later, on Mr Visagie’s birthday, the respondent posted a birthday
message for the latter on Facebook, referring to him as ‘the best husband ever.’
7 Facebook is an American online social media and social networking service.
[27] Unsurprisingly, the above developments caught the first appellant’s interest, as
the respondent’s marriage would have a direct bearing on his maintenance obligation
towards the respondent. As stated already, that obligation would lapse upon the
respondent’s re-marriage. Shortly after becoming aware of the ceremony, the first
appellant sought confirmation from the respondent that she was indeed married to Mr
Visagie, which the respondent denied. His further investigation revealed that, at the
request of the respondent and Mr Visagie, the priest who presided over the ceremony
neither completed the marriage register nor registered the marriage, as the respondent
sought to avoid the lapsing of the first appellant’s maintenance obligation. On advice
from his attorney, the first appellant stopped paying maintenance to the respondent.
[28] As a result, the respondent laid a complaint against the first appellant in the
magistrate’s court for failure to pay maintenance for the period September 2017 to
February 2018. The maintenance court dismissed the complaint based on an artificial
ambiguity due to a patent error in the settlement agreement where in respect of the
maintenance obligation, ‘defendant’ was used instead of ‘plaintiff’. The respondent
appealed to the court a quo, before which the first appellant contended that his
maintenance obligation towards the respondent had lapsed because the latter Mr
Visagie were married. The court concluded that because the registration formalities
prescribed in s 29A of the Marriages Act had not been observed, there was no ‘valid
marriage’ and thus the first appellant’s maintenance obligation to the respondent had
remained extant.
[29] As a prelude to my consideration of the ‘re-marriage clause’ in the settlement
agreement, I make a general observation that the concept of ‘marriage’ has taken an
elastic nature over the past decade or two. For example, African customary, Muslim,
Hindu and Jewish, and same-sex unions have become accepted as ‘marriages’.
Although none of the ceremonies performed in terms of these unions comply fully with
the strict prescripts of s 29(A), they give rise to legal consequences of a marriage.
[30] The fatal flaw in the court a quo’s judgment is that it did not consider the context
of clause 5.1 of the settlement agreement. As Lord Steyn famously remarked, ‘In law,
context is everything.’8 By narrowly focusing on whether the ceremony conducted on
9 December 2017 constituted a marriage, the court a quo asked a wrong question,
and consequently, it was led astray in its analysis of the ‘re-marriage clause.’ The
correct enquiry, to my mind, should have been whether the relationship between the
respondent and Mr Visagie constituted a ‘re-marriage’ as envisioned in the settlement
agreement. Viewed in this light, instead of it being the sole and focal point of the
enquiry, the ceremony was but one of the factors to be taken into account in answering
the contextual question.
[31] It is common cause that the respondent and Mr Visagie cohabited, and for all
intents and purposes, lived as husband and wife. According to the respondent, she
and Mr Visagie are Christians, and in terms of their faith, any sexual relationship
outside the confines of a marriage is sinful. The ceremony on 9 December 2017, she
explained, was to ‘legalise our relationship before God and not to live in sin’. It is not
clear how an avowedly ‘sinful’ relationship can be ‘legalised’ before God. Be that as it
may, the respondent’s assertion confirms the depth of the relationship as being akin
to that of a husband and wife.
[32] This, in my view, is the context within which the word ‘re-marriage’ in the
settlement agreement should be construed. The word was used in the context of
providing maintenance for the respondent. The agreement was premised on an
archaic and sexist notion that the respondent needed a man to financially maintain
her. Whether the man she ‘re-married’ in fact supported her financially or was able to
do so, was irrelevant to the first appellant’s maintenance obligation to the respondent.
As soon as she ‘re-married’, that obligation would lapse. Seen in this light, and given
the nature of the relationship between the respondent and Mr Visagie, the latter fulfilled
the purpose for which the clause was inserted in the settlement agreement. The
ceremony on 9 December 2017 was but a confirmation of a de facto state of affairs
between the respondent and Mr Visagie.
8 In R v Secretary for the Home Department, ex parte Daly [2001] 3 All ER 433 (HL) at 447. This was
approved in Aktiebolaget Hässle and Another v Triomed (Pty) Ltd 2003 (1) SA 155 (SCA) para 1.
[33] Regarding the ceremony itself, but for the non-completion of the marriage
register, it was a complete marriage ceremony. It should be borne in mind that the
non-completion of the marriage register was not an oversight or a mistake. It was a
conscious decision aimed singularly at preventing the ‘re-marriage’ clause in the
settlement agreement from kicking in. It was a manipulation of the law, concocted by
the respondent and aided by a priest, to frustrate the eventuality which the parties had
clearly in mind when concluding the settlement agreement. And to the extent it was
assumed that the new man in the respondent’s life would automatically support her, it
follows that Mr Visagie should be assumed to have done so. It is irrelevant that he
says he did not. The result was, at least notionally, that the respondent enjoyed
maintenance from the first appellant and Mr Visagie. This, in my view, is a contrived
and disingenuous scheme which a court should frown upon, instead of giving it its
imprimatur.
[34] What is more, when interpreting documents, courts are enjoined to avoid a
construction that leads to absurd results. In the present case, it is clear that the parties
envisaged that once the respondent cohabited with another man in a relationship akin
to that of husband and wife, the first appellant’s maintenance obligation to the
respondent would lapse. The mischief intended to be addressed by the ‘re-marriage
clause’ was the respondent being maintained simultaneously by the first appellant and
a man she cohabitated with. By construing the clause within the strict prescripts of s
29A, the result is that the respondent received maintenance from two men: exactly
what the parties had intended to avoid. In the court a quo, the respondent agreed to
an amendment of the settlement agreement to the effect that, for future purposes ‘re-
marriage’ would include her cohabitating with another man in a common law marriage.
To my mind, far from signalling a different intention, it confirms the parties’ true, original
intention when the settlement agreement was concluded.
[35] For these brief reasons, I am unable to agree with para 2 of the order of the
majority judgment, as well as the costs order as between the first appellant and the
respondent. Given the view I take of the matter, I would order the respondent, in
addition to the second respondent’s costs, to pay the first appellant’s costs. Her
reprehensible conduct deserves that much.
[36] Other than that, I am in full agreement with the rest of the order of the majority
judgment and the reasoning underpinning it.
____________________
T M MAKGOKA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances:
For appellants:
E Prinsloo
Instructed by:
Wilsenach Van Wyk Goosen & Bekker Inc., Pretoria
Bezuidenhout Inc., Bloemfontein.
For respondent:
J J Strijdom SC
Instructed by:
Rianie Strijdom Attorneys, Pretoria
Symington De Kok Attorneys, Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY - JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
Bailey and Another v Bailey (Case no 1324/2019) [2020] ZASCA 178 (18 December 2020)
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
18 December 2020
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form part of
the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
Today, the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld the appeal by the appellant and set aside the
order of the court a quo with the respondent paying the second appellant’s costs of appeal.
The marriage of the first appellant, Mr Casper Hendrik Bailey, and the respondent, Mrs Hazel
Johanna Cicelia Bailey, was dissolved by a court order incorporating a settlement agreement which
they had concluded. The main issue for determination in this appeal was the interpretation of the word
‘remarriage’ in the settlement agreement. The appeal was with leave of this Court.
The first appellant and the respondent were married in community of property. They separated in
June 2016 with the common intention to divorce. The respondent then initiated divorce proceedings
against the first appellant. Pending the finalisation of the divorce proceedings, they entered into
negotiations which led to the signing of the settlement agreement. A decree of divorce was granted
incorporating the signed settlement agreement which was made an order of the court. After the
divorce, the respondent cohabited with Mr Visagie. Later, Reverend van Huyssteen, a minister of the
Dutch Reformed Church, conducted a ceremony during which he blessed and sanctioned their
cohabitation so that they would not ‘live in sin.’ The ceremony between the respondent and Mr
Visagie later came to the attention of the first appellant. Upon the advice of the second appellant, the
first appellant stopped paying maintenance to the respondent on the basis that the respondent had
remarried, thus ending his duty to maintain her.
The respondent approached the high court where she sought to hold the first appellant in contempt of
a court order for his failure to pay maintenance since April 2018 in accordance to the settlement
agreement. The first appellant filed a conditional counter-application in which he sought a declaratory
order that on 9 December 2017 in the Dutch Reformed Church Montana; the respondent and Mr
Riaan Visagie concluded an unregistered common law or Christian relationship of cohabitation as
husband and wife, and, as a result of which his duty to pay maintenance had lapsed.
The high court held that the ceremony conducted in respect of the respondent and Mr Riaan Visagie
did not constitute remarriage. It further held that the meaning of the word did not include cohabitation,
as the first appellant had contended. In this Court, it was held that the purpose of interpretation, is to
establish the intention of the parties from the words used in the context of the document as a whole,
the factual matrix surrounding the conclusion of the agreement and its purpose or (where relevant)
the mischief it was intended to address. The SCA noted that the ordinary meaning of remarriage is to
enter into a further marriage recognised by South African law (legal marriage).
The SCA in its majority judgment held that none of the requirements set out in s 29A of the Marriages
Act for the registration of a valid marriage were fulfilled during the ceremony. Although the SCA found
that the high court was correct in holding that the ceremony was not a "remarriage", it expanded on
the meaning of "remarriage" in the context of the settlement agreement to not include "cohabitation"
as propounded by the appellant. It however, upheld the appeal on the grounds that the settlement
agreement should be amended to read as the appellant sought in the high court ie to include
"cohabitation" under clause 5.1 as the appellant sought in his counter claim in the high court, which
was not granted. The order of the court a quo was set aside and the SCA upheld the appeal against
the cost order debonis propris in respect of the second appellant. It ordered the respondent to pay the
costs of the appeal in so far as the second appellant was concerned as she only conceded before the
SCA that the high court erred in that regard.
The minority judgment, Makgoka JA, held that for the reasons advanced in his judgment, he was
unable to agree with the majority finding that the ceremony did not constitute a remarriage within the
meaning of the deed of settlement between the parties, as well as the costs order as between the first
appellant and the respondent. Given the view, Makgoka JA took of the matter, he would order the
respondent, in addition to the second appellant’s costs, to pay the first appellant’s costs. Other than
that, the minority judgment was in full agreement with the rest of the order of the majority judgment
and the reasoning underpinning it. |
1323 | non-electoral | 2010 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 117/2009
In the matter between:
STANLEY ELLIAS LEKETI Appellant
and
MOGALE ANDREW TLADI N.O. First Respondent
FILIKANA HICKABOTH PETLELE Second Respondent
ALBERT MOERANE Third Respondent
THE REGISTRAR OF DEEDS Fourth Respondent
Neutral citation: Leketi v Tladi (117/09)[2010] ZASCA 38 (30 March
2010)
Coram:
MTHIYANE, NUGENT JJA, HURT, GRIESEL and
SALDULKER AJJA
Heard:
5 March 2010
Delivered:
30 March 2010
Summary:
Prescription ─ Plaintiff’s claim based on fraud committed on
25 June 1969 ─ claim only instituted in February 2004 ─
special plea of prescription upheld ─ held at the trial and on
appeal that by exercising reasonable care knowledge of
minimum facts necessary for plaintiff to institute claim could
have been obtained in time ─ argument that fraud was a
continuing wrong rejected.
___________________________________________________________
ORDER
On appeal from: North Gauteng High Court (Pretoria) (Thlapi AJ
sitting as court of first instance):
‘The appeal is dismissed with costs.’
JUDGMENT
MTHIYANE JA (Nugent JA, Hurt, Griesel and Saldulker AJJA
concurring)
[1] The appeal is against the judgment and order of the North Gauteng
High Court (Thlapi AJ) upholding a special plea of prescription and
dismissing with costs, the appellant’s claim against the executor (the first
respondent) and the second and third respondents, the beneficiaries of the
estate of his grandfather, the Late Albert Mogale (Albert), for a declarator
and vindicatory relief aimed at recovering from that estate immovable
property, known as Nooitgedacht No. 287 situated in the District of
Rustenburg (the property), which he alleged was the property of his
father, the Late George Mogale (George), who died on 5 January 1966.
[2] The appellant alleged that on 25 June 1969 Albert fraudulently
caused the property to be transferred and registered in his name, by
representing to the Registrar of Deeds, Pretoria (the fourth respondent)
that he was the only male heir of George and thus entitled to the property
upon intestate devolution according to Black custom. Albert also failed to
disclose that George was survived by three children from his marriage
with the appellant’s mother, Safira Mogale. These children were: the
appellant born on 7 April 1959, Audrey Mogale born on 17 February
1953 and Merona Maledu born on 22 August 1955.
[3] On 18 June 1974 Albert executed a will in which he bequeathed
the disputed property to the second and third respondents and two other
persons (now deceased) in equal shares as sole and universal heirs. The
appellant and his sisters, Audrey and Merona, are not mentioned in the
will.
[4] Although Albert’s alleged fraud took place on 25 June 1969 the
appellant’s summons commencing action was only served on the first to
third respondents between 9 February 2004 and 13 May 2004. The fourth
respondent, was only served on 20 July 2005.
[5] Only the first respondent pleaded to the summons, the others
elected to abide by the decision of the court. The first respondent filed a
special plea of prescription, in which he alleged that the appellant’s claim
had become prescribed by lapse of time. He contended that as the claim
fell due on 15 June 1969, when the property was transferred to Albert
(regard being had to the circumstance that the appellant attained majority
on 7 April 1980), the running of prescription against the appellant had
been delayed until 7 April 1981 under the provisions of s 13 of the
Prescription Act 68 of 1969. The first respondent contended further that,
as the summons was served more than three years after 7 April 1981, the
appellant’s claim had become prescribed and accordingly fell to be
dismissed with costs.
[6] The appellant replicated that he could not have instituted action
earlier because, until about 6 August 2003, he had had no knowledge of
‘the identity of the defendants and the facts from which the debt arose’.
He averred that he only gained knowledge of ‘the proper identity’ of the
defendants and facts giving rise to the cause of action on or about 6
August 2003, after obtaining information from certain documents in the
national archives in Pretoria. The documents referred to are the
following:
‘a copy of the decree of divorce between Safira Mogale and George Mogale;
confirmation that the property in issue belonged to George Mogale;
documents relating to the winding up of the estate of George Mogale;
a declaration by Albert Mogale that he was the sole surviving male heir of
George Mogale.’
[7] The sole question for decision at the trial was therefore whether the
appellant’s claim had become prescribed, given that the fraud which
formed the basis of the claim took place on 25 June 1969 and summons
commencing action was only served in February 2004. It is not in dispute
that because of the appellant’s minority at that stage, (he was only 10
years old in 1969) leaving aside the question of whether or not he knew
of the fraud, the completion of prescription was delayed by virtue of the
provisions of s 13 of the Prescription Act. Section 13 of the Act provides:
‘(1)
If ─
(a)
the creditor is a minor . . .
the period of prescription shall not be completed before a year has
elapsed after the day referred to in paragraph (i).’
In the context of this case the ‘day’ referred to in para (a)(i) is the day the
appellant turned 21, viz 7 April 1980. Thus, in terms of s 13(1)(a), the
completion of prescription against the appellant would have been
deferred until 7 April 1981.
[8] In this context and for the purposes of considering the provisions of
the Prescription Act, the appellant is the ‘creditor’ and any obligation on
the part of the estate of Albert to restore to its rightful owner, property
which he fraudulently appropriated is a ‘debt’1 as described in s 11(d) of
that Act. In terms of the section the ordinary period of prescription for the
‘debt’ is three years from the date upon which a debt becomes due.
However, the matter is further complicated by s 12(3) which provides:
‘A debt shall not be deemed to be due until the creditor has knowledge of the identity
of the debtor and of the facts from which the debt arises: Provided that a creditor shall
be deemed to have such knowledge if he could have acquired it by exercising
reasonable care.’ (emphasis added)
[9] It is obviously difficult for the first respondent to get past the
appellant’s bald assertion that he only obtained knowledge of the fraud on
6 August 2003 when he obtained documents from the national archives in
Pretoria. It is a statement that can only be tested against the probabilities
in the light of the totality of the evidence presented at the trial. The trial
judge rejected the appellant’s version that he did not know that the farm
belonged to his father, George, and that he only came to know about this
on 6 August 2003. The learned judge concluded that ‘[i]n all probability
the appellant and his sisters knew or were told even before they became
majors that their right (to the property) stemmed from the fact that the
farm had belonged to their father.’ The judge set out grounds for this
conclusion. She said:
‘1.
Even before plaintiff’s birth George had been frequenting the farm. According
1 In Barnett & others v Minister of Land Affairs & others 2007 (6) SA 313 (SCA) it was said at para
19: ‘Though the Act does not define the term “debt,” it has been held that, for purposes of the Act, the
term has a wide and general meaning and that it includes an obligation to do something or refrain from
doing something.’ After referring to other relevant authorities Brand JA went further to say there is no
reason why the term ‘debt’ would not include ‘a claim for the enforcement of an owner’s right to
property.’ He cited with approval Evins v Shield Insurance Co Ltd 1979 (3) SA 1136 (W) at 1141F-G
where King J said: ‘The word “debt” in the Prescription Act must be given a wide and general meaning
denoting not only a debt sounding in money which is due, but also, for example, a debt for the
vindication of property.’
to Ntlatseng, on the date of plaintiff’s birth George had gone to the farm in
Rustenburg.
2.
According to Maureen, George used to visit them at their maternal
grandfather’s home in Rustenburg. He came from the farm driving his tractor;
3.
Maureen approached Hilda and pieces of corrugated iron and a table were
pointed out as the only remaining items from their home belonging to them. In my
view the home referred to then was the one in which George lived on the farm. In all
probability, Maureen went to see Hilda, about the farm which belonged to her father.
4.
Maureen accompanied Hilda to see Hugh Parkes, the attorney. In my view, it
is unlikely that she would have gone to Johannesburg, if not to establish first hand, the
reason why they could not inherit the farm. The possibility is there that she was
informed of Albert’s Last Will and Testament.
5.
Their uncle Nnakgolo George undertook to ensure that they received what
rightfully belonged to them to the exclusion of the other grandchildren.
6.
Independently they reported Albert’s estate to the Master in Mmabatho. Hilda,
Albert’s surviving spouse or the other grandchildren did not feature.’
[10] Although the above reasons are in themselves compelling, in my
view, the real question for decision in this appeal is whether on a
consideration of the totality of the available evidence, it can be said that
the appellant could not have acquired knowledge of the fraud on the part
of Albert on 25 June 1969, ‘by exercising reasonable care’, as required in
the proviso to s 12(3) of the Prescription Act.
[11] One only has to look at his version to come to the conclusion that
he took no steps at all, let alone ‘reasonable’ steps, to enforce his claim in
a manner envisaged in s 12(3) of the Prescription Act. The appellant and
his sisters, Audrey and Merona, knew all along that they were going to
inherit the property, as Albert’s intestate heirs. The appellant says he did
not know that the property belonged to his late father, George, nor was he
aware that Albert had made a will bequeathing the farm to the second and
third respondents and two other persons (now deceased). Albert died in
1976. Understandably he was too young then to do anything about the
matter. But after graduating from medical school in 1983 he could have
taken steps to find out in whose name the property was registered. Instead
what did he do? After completing his medical degree, he set up practice
in Thaba Nchu in 1984 and later went to practise in Bloemfontein in
1985. Subsequently he moved to Potchefstroom during 1986 and finally
settled in Springs during 1987.
[12] The appellant testified that he only started applying his mind to the
property issue in 1986 and 1987 when he returned to practise in Gauteng.
In reply to a question in cross-examination he said it did not strike him as
strange that after 11 years the property, which was his entitlement, had
not yet been transferred and remarked somewhat curiously:
‘It was not strange for me at that point because at that point there was no dispute / I
came back from my studies and I needed to inquire who was then taking care of the
property.’
It is clear from the above remark that claiming the property was the least
of his priorities. He was more concerned about who was taking care of
the farm because he had obtained information that there was a company
that was carrying on mining operations on it and another person who had
planted sunflowers there. It is not clear from the record what those
enquiries yielded.
[13] Two years later in 1989 the appellant and his sister Merona went to
consult an attorney, Mr Makhambeni, to seek advice on how to deal with
the ‘people that were mining granite’ on the farm and those ‘who had
planted sunflower for the trading’ purposes. There is no indication that
the appellant sought to instruct Makhambeni to enforce his entitlement to
the farm. Makhambeni requested them to obtain the marriage certificate
of their parents, confirming that they were born of George and their
mother, Safira Mogale. They were also asked to obtain copies of death
certificates of George and Albert and some confirmation that George was
the son of Albert.
[14] Merona obtained the requested documents from the Department of
Home Affairs, Rustenburg, and when she returned to Makhambeni’s
office with them in 1990 she discovered that he had been struck off the
roll of attorneys.
[15] In the meantime the appellant was having discussions with
members of the family and the purpose and details of these meetings is
far from clear from the record. Be that as it may, they culminated in the
appellant meeting one of his aunts, Ms Nthlaseng Mogale, from whom he
went to ‘check’ who was actually taking care of the farm. His aunt
referred the appellant to her brother, George Nagole Mogale, who was
‘the one who had been taking care of the farm’. The appellant and his
sister, Merona, went to visit the gentleman concerned and he assured
them that he would see to it that the farm was returned to them. It appears
from the record that this meeting took place around 1999. Arrangements
were then made for the appellant and his sisters to go to Tlhabane
Magistrates’ court, presumably for the purpose of winding up the estate
of Albert who died in 1976. The appellant’s uncle, George Nagole
Mogale, most unfortunately died in 2001 before the visit to the Tlhabane
Magistrate’s court.
[16] Merona ended up going to the magistrate together with her and the
appellant’s half brother, Sipho Leketi. On 21 September 2001 they were
issued with a letter of authority which authorized them to take control of
the assets of the estate of Albert. On 29 November 2002 the said letter of
authority was withdrawn, when it was discovered that Albert had in fact
died testate and consequently the first respondent was appointed the
executor of the estate of Albert.
[17] The appellant is not an ordinary lay person. He is a medical
practitioner, who qualified as such in 1983. He commenced his practice
in 1984 and was certainly at that stage in a position to engage an attorney
to secure transfer of the farm into his name. On his own version as early
as 1978 there was never any dispute as to whom the farm (the property)
was to go to.
[18] Obtaining a deed of transfer from the Deeds Registry would have
provided the appellant with the required minimum facts for the institution
of a claim against the estate of his grandfather, Albert, much earlier than
on 6 August 2003. It seems to me that the adverse operation of s 12(3) is
not dependent upon a creditor’s subjective evaluation of the presence or
absence of ‘knowledge’ or minimum facts sufficient for the institution of
a claim. In terms of s 12(3) of the Prescription Act the ‘deemed
knowledge’ imputed to the ‘creditor’ requires the application of an
objective standard rather than a subjective one. In order to determine
whether the appellant exercised ‘reasonable care’ his conduct must be
tested by reference to the steps which a reasonable person in his or her
position would have taken to acquire knowledge of the ‘fraud’ on the part
of Albert. (See Drennan Maud & partners v Pennington Town Board.2)
On the application of that objective standard, it is clear that if the
appellant had exercised reasonable care he could have acquired
2 1998 (3) SA 200 (SCA) at 209F-G.
knowledge of the fraud, long before the claim prescribed, and thus the
requisite minimum facts to enable him to institute his claim timeously.
[19] On the evidence, it is clear that the appellant’s failure to institute
action timeously was not due to his lack of or inability to obtain
knowledge but rather to his dilatoriness as correctly found by Thlapi AJ.
It took him 6 years (1981 – 1987) after his claim had prescribed to begin
to make enquiries. It seems that he was more concerned about
establishing the identity of the person who was ‘taking care of the farm’
so as to take up the issue as to who was conducting mining operations on
the property and who were planting sunflowers. It then took him another
3 years (1987 – 1990) to consult an attorney for the first time. The
appellant was not indigent and had the means to instruct an attorney.
Then some 14 years passed before the appellant made enquiries about
documents, which were ultimately retrieved from the National Archives,
Pretoria on 6 August 2003. In these circumstances it is difficult to
disagree with the judge a quo’s finding that the appellant’s dilatory and
nonchalant conduct was the key contributory factor to his purported
inability to obtain ‘knowledge’ timeously.
[20] A further ground advanced by the appellant for his contention that
his claim has not prescribed is that the fraud committed by his
grandfather, Albert, on 25 June 1969 was a continuing wrong. Mr Bokaba
for the appellant, argued that for as long as the property remained
registered in the name of Albert, the claim remains alive. No authority
was cited for the submission that a claim based on fraud does not become
prescribed.
[21] The point is clearly without merit. Fraud is an act of deceit which
resulted in a single act of transfer and registration which was completed
on 25 June 1969. It is that single act which constitutes the appellant’s
cause of action and does not amount to a continuing wrong. (cf Barnett &
others v Minister of Land Affairs & others3)
[22] In the result and on either basis the appellant fails. The following
order is made:
‘The appeal is dismissed with costs.’
________________________
K K Mthiyane
Judge of Appeal
3 At 320I-321A.
APPEARANCES
APPELLANT:
T J B Bokaba SC (with him D C Mpofu)
Instructed by Noko Inc, Pretoria
Naudes, Bloemfontein
FIRST RESPONDENT:
F J Erasmus
Instructed by Rooth Wessels Motla
Conradie, Pretoria
Rosendorff Reitz Barry, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
30 March 2010
STATUS:
Immediate
Leketi v Tladi (117/09)[2010] ZASCA 38 (30 March 2010)
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does
not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
The SCA today dismissed with costs, an appeal by the appellant, Dr Stanley Ellias
Leketi, from the judgment of the North Gauteng High Court (Thlapi AJ), which
dismissed his action with costs, after a finding that his claim had become prescribed.
Dr Leketi had instituted a claim for the recovery of certain immovable property
known as Nooitgedacht No 287 situated in the District of Rustenburg, which belonged
to his father, the late George Mogale, who died on 5 January 1966. Dr Leketi alleged
that his late grandfather had fraudulently caused the property to be transferred and
registered into his name on 25 June 1969, by claiming to be George’s only surviving
male heir and failing to disclose to the Registrar of Deeds, Pretoria that George was
survived by three children from his marriage namely, Dr Leketi and his two sisters,
who would have been lawfully entitled to inherit the property as George’s intestate
heirs.
Unfortunately Dr Leketi delayed instituting action and only caused his summons to be
served in February 2004, some 24 years after he had turned 21 years. The executor of
the estate of his late grandfather, Albert Mogale, took the point that his claim had
become prescribed. The plea of prescription was upheld by the North Gauteng High
Court and the SCA agreed with that finding.
Dr Leketi’s appeal was accordingly dismissed with costs. |
2582 | non-electoral | 2014 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
NOT REPORTABLE
Case No: 20079/14
In the matter between:
TSHIFHIWA LEROY RAVELE
APPELLANT
and
-
THE STATE
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Ravele v S (20079/14) [2014] ZASC 118 (19 September
2014)
Coram:
Cachalia and Bosielo JJA and Mocumie AJA
Heard:
20 August 2014
Delivered:
19 September 2014
Summary:
Appeal against both convictions and sentences ─ rape read with
s 51(1) of the Criminal Law Amendment Act 105 of 1997 and s 3 of the
Criminal Law Amendment Act 32 of 2007─ right to a fair trial ─ attention of the
appellant that he could be sentenced to life imprisonment not drawn at the
outset ─ duplication of convictions ─ kidnapping committed as part of rape ─
proper approach to formulating charges under s 51 of the Criminal Law
Amendment Act 105 of 1997 ─ whether sentence imposed is appropriate ─ no
rehabilitative element infused in previous sentences.
______________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________
On appeal from Limpopo High Court, Thohoyandou (Booi AJ sitting as
court of first instance):
1 The appeal in respect of the conviction on counts 1 and 3 is upheld.
2 The appeal in respect of the conviction on count 2 is dismissed.
3 The appeal in respect of the sentence on count 2 succeeds.
4 The order of the trial court is set aside and the following order is substituted
in its place:
‘(a) The accused is found not guilty on counts 1 and 3.
(b) The accused is found guilty on count 2.
(c) The accused is sentenced to 8 years’ imprisonment’.
5 The sentence referred to in para 4(c) above is antedated to 9 June 2010.
______________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________
Mocumie AJA (Cachalia and Bosielo JJA concurring):
[1] The appellant, who was 20 years old at the time of the commission of
the offences discussed below, was convicted on 4 June 2010 by the Limpopo
High Court, Thohoyandou (Booi AJ sitting as court of first instance) on two
counts of rape read with s 3 of the Criminal Law Sexual Offences and Related
Matters Amendment Act 32 of 2007 (the Criminal and Sexual Offences
Amendment Act) and s 51(1) and Part I of Schedule 2 of the Criminal Law
Amendment Act 105 of 1997 (the Act), as amended, and one count of
kidnapping. The appellant was sentenced to life imprisonment on both counts
of rape and five years’ imprisonment for kidnapping, the latter being ordered
to run concurrently with the sentence imposed on count 2.
[2] The appellant was initially granted leave to appeal against the
sentence only by the court a quo, on 8 December 2011. However, upon
reading the record, it became apparent that the appellant may have been
improperly convicted on all counts. Accordingly, at the request of the presiding
judge, as the Supreme Court of Appeal has no jurisdiction to entertain an
appeal on the convictions in the absence of leave having been granted by the
high court, the registrar of this court directed a letter to the legal
representatives of both the appellant and the state to:
(a)
confirm an instruction from the appellant that he wished to appeal the
convictions; and
(b)
approach the high court promptly to obtain the necessary leave; and
(c)
to bring the contents of the letter ─ which included a discussion on the
difficulties with each of the convictions, including the failure of the trial judge to
properly explain the nature of the charges to the appellant – to the attention of
the court.
The court a quo duly granted leave to appeal on conviction on all counts, on 7
August 2014.
[3] In view of what will be discussed hereafter under s 51(1) of the Act, it is
well to remind oneself at the outset that, in invoking the minimum sentencing
regime contained in the Act, compliance with fair trial requirements is
essential. Thus an accused person must be informed of the charges he is
facing with sufficient detail to enable him or her to answer properly to such
charge. Section 35(3) of the Constitution1 provides for a fair trial for an
accused person, while s 84(1) of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 (the
CPA) stipulates that the charge must contain the essential particulars of the
offence.2 This court has also in numerous judgments stated that a failure to
inform an accused person that he or she is facing a serious charge under the
Act and the sentence which may be imposed, may, depending on the facts
1 The Constitution of South Africa, 108 of 1996.
2 Section 35(3)(a) of the Constitution provides: ‘Every accused person has a right to a fair
trial, which includes the right ─ (a) to be informed of the charge with sufficient detail to answer
it.’
Section 84(1) of the CPA: ’Subject to the provisions of this Act and of any other law relating to
any particular offence, a charge shall set forth the relevant offence in such a manner and with
such particulars as to the time and place at which the offence is alleged to have been
committed, and the person, if any, against whom and the property, if any, in respect of which
the offence is alleged to have been committed, as may be reasonably sufficient to inform the
accused of the nature of the charge.’
and circumstances of the case, result in a finding that it would be unfair to
sentence the accused in terms of the Act.3
[4] In this case, in respect of count 1, the State properly conceded that the
appellant had not been properly informed of the nature of the charges against
him. This issue need not be considered further because it is also clear from
the evidence that the appellant was wrongly convicted.
[5] The incident giving rise to count 1 occurred on 8 November 2009. The
issue was whether or not the appellant had consensual sexual intercourse
with the complainant Ms Khuthadzo Gadizi. It is common cause that she was
with her friends, Lorraine Thabelo Ndou (Lorraine), Nancy and Christina
Mudau (Chrissie), at Lorraine’s home where the appellant found them around
19h00. She testified that the appellant had in their presence and at knifepoint
dragged her to his home where he raped her on two or three occasions. She
left his home the following morning and reported the incident.
[6] The appellant’s version was that the complainant accompanied him
voluntarily from Lorraine’s home, had sexual intercourse with him and slept
over before departing in the morning. In response to a question why she
would falsely have implicated him, he explained that this was probably
because she wanted to conceal the fact that she had accompanied him
voluntarily, from her current boyfriend, Hulisani.
[7] There were several inconsistencies in her version. I mention four which
I think are significant. First, some of the state witnesses contradicted the
complainant’s version that she had been dragged away from Lorraine's home
against her will. They therefore confirmed the appellant’s version on this
aspect. Secondly, Lorraine confirmed that the complainant was in a
relationship with Mavhona, which also corroborated the appellant’s version
and contradicted her denial. Thirdly, the evidence of Hulisani, the
complainant’s current boyfriend as to what transpired at the appellant’s house
3 See S v Legoa 2003 (1) SACR 13 (SCA); S v Ndlovu 2003 (1) SACR 331 (SCA); S v
Makatu 2006 (2) SACR 582 (SCA); S v Kolea 2013 (1) SACR 409 (SCA).
directly contradicted her version as to what had happened. He testified that he
went to look for her at the appellant’s home, but when he knocked on the
window nobody responded. He then left. In contrast she testified that Hulisani
saw the appellant dragging her away and remonstrated with him, which he
flatly denied. Finally, she testified that the appellant raped her several times
throughout night. At the end of her evidence it was not clear how many times
─ on her version ─ she had been raped. At one point during her testimony she
said that it had happened on three occasions; at another, she said that it had
happened twice.
[8] I should add that the medical evidence, on which the court a quo relied
heavily to support the conviction, showed no more than that sexual
intercourse had taken place. There were, as in similar circumstances in most
cases of this nature, no obvious injuries to corroborate the alleged rape. It
follows that the court a quo misdirected itself in finding that the medical
evidence provided corroboration for the rape.
[9] In the circumstances the appellant ought to have been found not guilty
on this count. The state quite properly conceded before us that the conviction
could not be sustained.
[10] In respect of count 2, it does not appear what charge was put to the
appellant. There was no indictment or summary of substantial facts in the
court record. As in count 1, it appears that the appellant was made to plead to
a charge of rape in terms of s 51(1) of the Act without any reference to the
circumstances sought to be proved in Part 1 of Schedule 2; the relevant
provision for rape, namely para (b)(i) where the victim is alleged to be under
16 years of age. The judgment is silent on why a sentence of life
imprisonment was imposed, but it is clear that this sentence was imposed
because the judge assumed that the Act was applicable. The State conceded
that a proper charge had not been put to the appellant, and the judge had
misunderstood which provisions of the Act were applicable. In the
circumstances we must approach the matter on the basis that the Act did not
apply. I turn to consider the evidence.
[11] The complainant, who was almost 16 at the time of this incident,
testified that she met the appellant at about 19h00 on 29 November 2008. It
was not dark yet and she recognised him as someone she knew. She testified
that the appellant grabbed her and took her to a nearby church where he
raped her. Thereafter he took her to his house where he raped her again. The
appellant kept her in his house from 19h00 until the next morning, around
5h00.
[12] The appellant’s version was, the complainant wrongly identified him as
the perpetrator. He claimed to have been elsewhere at the time of the
incident. The complainant and her brother were resolute in their identification
of the appellant as the person who kidnapped and raped her that night. They
both testified that they knew the appellant as they reside in the same area.
The appellant did not dispute this. To my mind, this prior knowledge excludes
every possibility of a mistaken identity.4 It follows that the appellant’s version
was palpably false. He was therefore properly convicted on this count.
[13] The circumstances of the alleged rape resulted in the appellant being
charged with two offences: rape and kidnapping. The state accepted that the
conviction on the kidnapping count constituted a duplication of convictions.
The concession was properly made and nothing further need be said about
this count.
[14] Having come to the conclusion that the court a quo erred in sentencing
the appellant to life imprisonment under the Act, it is now open to this court to
consider sentence afresh. The appellant was 20 years of age at the time of
the commission of the offence. He was an orphan. He was married in terms of
customary law. He was temporarily employed at a carpentry workshop
earning a salary of R1600 per month. To his discredit, he had a relatively long
4 See R v Dladla & others 1962 (1) SA 307 (A) at 310B-E. Unlike in S v Mthetwa 1972 (3) SA
766 (A) and S v Charzen & another 2006 (2) SACR 143 (SCA), this case is not a case of total
strangers in which one would have expected the witnesses to explain in detail the peculiar
features with which they identified the appellant.
list of previous convictions ranging from assault to indecent assault.5 He had
attended school until grade 11. It was submitted on his behalf that he showed
remorse. Based on his youthfulness, it was submitted that he was a good
candidate for rehabilitation.
[15] It is trite that rape is not only a very serious offence but it is prevalent in
this country. It is a humiliating, degrading and brutal invasion of the privacy,
dignity and the person of the victim.6 In this case the victim was a young girl of
15 years. She was raped twice by someone she knew and who lives in the
same community.
[16] Regrettably, a Victim Impact Report was not obtained to assist the trial
court in understanding the impact of the rape on the complainant. It is
incumbent on the prosecution to secure such evidence to assist the court to
assess the seriousness and impact of the offence on the victim. We can
however, assume that the complainant suffered some trauma.
[17] The same holds true regarding the failure of the trial court to obtain a
pre-sentencing report on the accused. No court should proceed to sentence a
youthful person unless it has all the facts relevant to sentencing before it to
enable it to decide on an appropriate sentence. The proper judicial approach
to sentencing was enunciated as follows in S v Siebert:7
‘Sentencing is a judicial function sui generis. It should not be governed by
considerations based on notions akin to onus of proof. In this field of law, public
interest requires the court to play a more active, inquisitorial role. The accused
should not be sentenced unless and until all the facts and circumstances necessary
for the responsible exercise of such discretion have been placed before the court.’
5 2001-10-05, Assault, 30 days IMP; 2002-08-08, Assault, AOG R20.00; 2003-10-13,
Indecent Assault, AOG R100.00; 2003-12-12, Robbery, 4 months’ imprisonment;2004-07-21,
Robbery, 6 months’ imprisonment; 2005-06-17, Abuse of drugs, R1000,00 or 3 months’
imprisonment; 2005-08-03, Assault, 6 months’ imprisonment; 2006-12-14, Assault, 6 months’
imprisonment.
6 S v Chapman 1997 (3) SA 341 (SCA) at 344I-J.
7 S v Siebert 1998 (1) SACR 554 (A) at 558i-559a; S v Matyityi 2011 (1) SACR 40 (SCA) para
15-17.
[18] However, it remains the court’s primary duty to dispense justice,
through imposing well balanced and appropriate sentences which will not only
address the accused’s favourable personal circumstances but will address the
seriousness of the offence and take into consideration the interests of society
which include the victim of the offence committed. Sexual assaults especially
on the most vulnerable of our society, young children, have become endemic
in our society. Our courts have a duty to send a clear message to society that
the courts view such offences seriously and that they are willing and prepared
to impose the kind of sentence which whilst serving as a deterrent both
individual and general, will also serve to protect society against people who
pose a serious threat to their well-being in society. As this court remarked in S
v N:8 ‘Bearing in mind that a sentence does more than deal with a particular offender
in respect of the crime of which he has been convicted ─ it constitutes a message to
the society in which the offence occurred. The interests of society must thus also be
taken into account. The sense of outrage justifiably roused by the offence of rape in
the right thinking members of a South African society in which sexual violence is so
endemic and shows no sign of abating, must . . . be a critical factor in the imposition
of a suitable sentence . . ..’
[19] He has a long list of previous convictions which, on the face of it,
shows a propensity for criminality. He had his first clash with the law at the
tender age of 13 years. Amongst his previous convictions is one of indecent
assault for which he was convicted when he was 14 years old. Nonetheless, it
was wrong for the court a quo to look at the appellant’s previous convictions
and conclude therefrom that there were no prospects for his rehabilitation.
There is no evidence to inform the court of his upbringing, his social and
cultural background, his family structure and whether his upbringing had any
influence on his susceptibility to crime and his anti-social behaviour and
whether he would have been receptive to any rehabilitation program. What is
clear is that he is still relatively young. He requires correction and
rehabilitation, but not destruction,9 lest he returns to the very society from
which he comes more hardened and desensitised to living amongst law
8 S v N 2008 (2) SACR 135 (SCA) para 30.
9 See S v Phulwane & others 2003 (1) SACR 631 (TPD).
abiding citizens. Programs aimed at rehabilitation of young offenders may
give him an opportunity to change his behaviour, especially that towards
women.
[20] Although a sentence of life imprisonment is clearly inappropriate, a
sentence of an exemplary term of imprisonment is nevertheless appropriate,
taking into account the following aggravating factors. The complainant was
well known to the appellant; he was older than her; he took her against her
will and kept her away from the comfort and safety of her home and her
parents for one night. Throughout the trial the appellant maintained his
innocence and showed no remorse. It was only after his conviction that he
claimed to be remorseful. It is in his interest as well as the broader society
that he stays long enough in a correctional facility to allow correctional
services to take him through all the required programs in a meaningful way to
rehabilitate him. Short term imprisonment will have no such desired effect.
Having considered all the facts relevant to sentence, I am of the view that a
sentence of imprisonment of eight years is the most appropriate.
[21] In conclusion, it will be remiss of me to not refer to what this court
stated in S v Makatu,10 namely that regrettably there are many cases which
have come to this court from Limpopo High Court with similar problems
referred to above, with reference to the failure of the State to set out the
provisions of the relevant section and circumstances, ie s 51(1) of the Act.
Unfortunately this has resulted in accused persons not being fairly tried and
appropriately punished for the crimes which they in fact have committed. This
brings the administration of justice into disrepute and erodes public
confidence in the criminal justice system. The prosecution must be meticulous
in their preparation of charge sheets and indictments to avoid a recurrence of
this kind of situation. A copy of this judgment shall be made available to the
National Director of Public Prosecutions (NDPP) to deal with this problem
through proper and advanced training of prosecutors who deal with these
matters.
10 S v Makatu 2006 (2) SACR 582 (SCA).
[22] In the result, the following order is granted:
1 The appeal in respect of the conviction on counts 1 and 3 is upheld.
2 The appeal in respect of the conviction on count 2 is dismissed.
3 The appeal in respect of the sentence on count 2 succeeds.
4 The order of the trial court is set aside and the following order is substituted
in its place:
‘(a) The accused is found not guilty on counts 1 and 3.
(b) The accused is found guilty on count 2.
(c) The accused is sentenced to 8 years’ imprisonment’.
5 The sentence referred to in para 4(c) above is antedated to 9 June 2010.
________________________
B C MOCUMIE
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For the Appellant:
L M Manzini (with him M P Legodi)
Instructed by:
Justice Centre, Polokwane
Justice Centre, Bloemfontein
For the Respondent :
Ms S M Mahada
Instructed by:
The Director of Public Prosecutions,
Thohoyandou
The Director of Public Prosecutions, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
19 September 2014
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form part of
the judgment.
T L Ravele v S
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld the appeal of the appellant, a 20 year old
offender, against his conviction on one count of rape read with the provisions of s 51(1) of
the Criminal Law Amendment Act (the Act), 105 of 1997 and kidnapping but confirmed the
conviction on another count of common law rape. It furthermore upheld the appeal against a
sentence of life imprisonment for the rape and substituted it with imprisonment for eight
years, taking into account his relative youthfulness and the possibility of rehabilitation. The
SCA held that correction and rehabilitation, are in the circumstances, more appropriate and
not destruction of the youthful appellant.
Regarding count 1 of rape, the SCA held that, given the serious contradictions in the State’s
version, the court a quo erred in finding that the appellant’s guilt had been proved beyond
reasonable doubt and set the conviction aside. Regarding count 3, kidnapping, the SCA held
that as the evidence showed conclusively that the complainant was kidnapped solely to
facilitate the eventual rape, the conviction on kidnapping amounted to a duplication of
convictions and set the conviction aside. With regard to count 2, rape, the SCA found that
the State had not proved the circumstances which brought it within the purview of the Act
which would justify a sentence of life imprisonment. The SCA found that the appellant was
guilty of the common law crime of rape and that in the circumstances a sentence of
imprisonment for eight years was appropriate.
--- Ends --- |
3247 | non-electoral | 2007 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
REPORTABLE
Case number : 641/2006
In the matter between :
VOLCANO AGROSCIENCE (PTY) LTD
APPELLANT
and
THE MINISTER OF AGRICULTURE
FIRST RESPONDENT
ERNEST MOKANTLA NO
SECOND RESPONDENT
CORAM :
HARMS ADP, BRAND, PONNAN, MAYA JJA et
KGOMO AJA
DATE :
16 NOVEMBER 2007
DELIVERED :
26 NOVEMBER 2007
Summary:
Act 36 of 1947 – ‘agricultural remedy’ as defined imported in
contravention of s 16(1) – option contemplated in s 16(6)(a)
available to illegal importer – despite the additional
contravention of s 7.
Neutral citation:
This judgment may be referred to as Volcano Agroscience
(Pty) Ltd v Minister of Agriculture [2007] SCA 146 (RSA)
BRAND JA/
BRAND JA:
[1] The first respondent is the Minister responsible for the National
Department of Agriculture (‘the Department’). The second respondent is the
officer in the Department who was appointed by the Minister as the ‘registrar’ in
terms of s 2 of the Fertilizers, Farm Feeds, Agricultural Remedies and Stock
Remedies Act 36 of 1947 (‘the Act’). During the first half of 2003, officials in the
Department, acting under delegation of the registrar, seized two consignments of
pesticide called Aldicarb which had been imported by the appellant (Volcano)
from China. After that, both consignments remained in a warehouse under the
control of the Department.
[2] About two years later, Volcano brought an application in the Durban High
Court against the Department for the return of the two consignments, essentially
on the basis that it was the owner and thus entitled to possession of the Aldicarb.
In the alternative, it sought an order, based on s 16(6)(a)(i) of the Act, that it be
allowed to export the Aldicarb to another country. Though the second respondent
was cited, in his official capacity, as an interested party, no specific relief was
sought against him. The court a quo, Norman AJ, found both Volcano’s claims
wanting. Consequently she dismissed the application with costs. The appeal
against that judgment is with her leave.
[3] Although the papers are surprisingly lengthy and abound with immaterial
squabbles, the salient facts are quite simple and, for the most part, common
cause. So it appears that Aldicarb is a pesticide destined for use in the control of
soil pests. It therefore constitutes an ‘agricultural remedy’ as defined in the Act.
Hence it is required to be registered by the registrar in terms of s 3. An
agricultural remedy not so registered may not be imported in terms of s 16(1) nor
sold in terms of s 7(1). In fact, both the importation and the sale of an
unregistered agricultural remedy are rendered criminal offences by s 18(1)(c). It
is common cause that the Aldicarb involved had not been registered under s 3
prior to importation and that Volcano had therefore contravened s 16(1) in
respect of both consignments. It also appears to be undisputed, at least as far as
the first consignment is concerned, that it had been sold by Volcano in
contravention of s 7 to a distributor in Polokwane who, in turn, resold part of it to
a farming operation for illegal use in this country.
[4] Criminal charges under s 18(1)(c) – read with s 7 – were brought against
the distributor in Polokwane, arising from its sale to the farmer. Yet, in the two
years between the seizure and the present application, no charges have been
brought against Volcano or any of its employees with regard to either of the two
consignments. In fact, I may add in passing, it is common cause that even at this
stage nothing further has happened in this regard. In the absence of any criminal
prosecution, Volcano demanded the release of the consignments from the
Department for the sole purpose of exportation to Zimbabwe, pursuant to a
request by a prospective purchaser in that country. These demands proved to be
fruitless. This led to Volcano’s application in the court a quo which, as we now
know, also met with no success.
[5] The court a quo seems to have accepted – rightly in my view – that,
particularly in the absence of any evidence to the contrary, Volcano had
established its ownership of the Aldicarb. Yet, the court held, ownership in itself
could not serve as a basis for the claim that the substance be returned. The
reason for this finding, as it appears from the court’s judgment, was that,
because ss 3, 7 and 16(1) of the Act had been contravened, Volcano could not
be in lawful possession of the Aldicarb. Hence it could not, despite its common-
law ownership, seek the court’s assistance in attaining what would amount to
unlawful possession of the substance. As to Volcano’s alternative claim based on
s 16(6)(a) of the Act, the court a quo held that Volcano is precluded from
exercising the option afforded by the section – to which I shall presently return –
because it not only infringed s 16(1) by importing the Aldicarb illegally, but also
contravened s 7 of the Act by selling it in this country.
[6] Whilst s 16(6)(a) of the Act only constituted an alternative basis for
Volcano’s claim in the court a quo, it somehow evolved into the mainstay of its
case on appeal. This appears, inter alia, from the way in which the primary issue
to be decided on appeal was formulated, namely, whether Volcano, as an illegal
importer under s 16(1) was precluded from exercising the option available to it in
terms of s 16(6)(a), in circumstances where it had also contravened ss 3 and 7 of
the Act.
[7] Pivotal to this issue is, of course, the wording of s 16(6)(a). It provides:
‘(6)(a) If any . . . agricultural remedy . . . has been imported contrary to the provisions of this
section, such . . . agricultural remedy . . . shall at the option of the importer thereof-
(i)
at the expense of such importer be removed by him from the Republic within
such period as the registrar may determine; or
(ii)
be forfeited to the State and be either destroyed or otherwise disposed of as the
registrar may direct,
and if such importer fails to remove such . . . agricultural remedy . . . in terms of the provisions of
subparagraph (i) within the period referred to in that subparagraph, it shall be forfeited to the
State, and be either destroyed or otherwise disposed of as the registrar may direct.’
[8] The court a quo’s reasoning as to why the option under s 16(6)(a) is not
available to an importer who, apart from s 16(1), also contravened some other
provision of the Act, appears from the following passage in its judgment:
‘In my view, s 16(6)(a) must be given its ordinary meaning and the words “contrary to the
provisions of this section”, must be confined to s 16 only and not be extended to include other
sections. Having said that, I am of the view that the option is not available to the applicant where
there has been a contravention of ss 3 and 7 which are not part of s 16 of the Act. In such
circumstances, the registrar is entitled to exercise the powers conferred upon him by the Act
which include destroying the agricultural remedy or having it forfeited to the State.’
[9] I proceed to analyse this reasoning which, essentially, also formed the
basis of the Department’s argument on appeal. As to the court’s reliance on the
phrase ‘contrary to the provisions of this section’, it must, of course, be borne in
mind that the phrase is introduced by the verb ‘imported’. Read in this context, it
seems to indicate no more than the threshold requirement for the option
becoming available to the illegal importer. Thus, the jurisdictional fact, as it were,
on which the option depends is that the substance involved must have been
imported in contravention of s 16(1). Nothing more is required. As I see it, the
plain wording of the section therefore indicates that if this jurisdictional fact is
present, the importer can exercise the option and it matters not that some other
provision of the Act has also been contravened.
[10] As to the court’s reference to contraventions of ss 3 and 7, I find it
convenient to deal with s 3 first because the reference to this section serves no
other purpose than to obfuscate. As I understand the position, a contravention of
s 16(1) presupposes a contravention of s 3. An exclusion of the importer’s option
under s 16(6)(a) whenever s 3 has been contravened would thus render the
option nugatory. This, I think, makes any further consideration of s 3 in the
present context unnecessary.
[11] With regard to s 7, the court’s perception appears to have been that an
infringement of this section – either on its own, or in combination with an
infringement of s 16(1), which of the two, is not entirely clear – somehow bestows
an automatic right on the registrar to have the substance involved forfeited or
destroyed. This is simply not so. Section 16(6)(a) itself certainly affords the
registrar no such automatic right. The registrar’s power to do so under this
section only becomes available to him when the illegal importer chooses not to
remove the substance from the Republic or proves to be unable to do so. After
all, the purpose of the section is clearly not to penalise, but to ensure that
unregistered substances are not allowed into the Republic. And once in the
Republic to be safely and expeditiously removed or destroyed. The only other
reference to forfeiture in the Act, apart from s 16(6)(a), is to be found in s 18(2).
In so far as it is relevant, this section provides:
‘The court convicting any person of an offence under this Act, may, upon the application of the
prosecutor, declare any . . . agricultural remedies . . . in respect of which the offence has been
committed and all . . . agricultural remedies . . . of a similar nature to that in respect of which such
person has been convicted, and of which such person is the owner, or which are in his
possession, to be forfeited to the State.’
[12] In terms of s 18(2) a contravention of s 7 will therefore only lead to
forfeiture if two requirements are satisfied. One, there must be a prosecution
followed by a conviction. Two, the court – and not the registrar – must declare
the substance involved, forfeited. And I do not believe that the position is any
different when both s 16(1) and s 7 are contravened. Succinctly stated, the illegal
importer in that situation is entitled to exercise the option in terms of s 16(6)(a),
unless the Department initiates a prosecution for the contravention of s 7 and
then, upon conviction, obtains a forfeiture order from the court under s 18(2).
[13] To complete the picture: as the quoted passage from the court a quo’s
judgment shows, the sum total of the Department’s case in this matter – which
was upheld by the court – was that the Aldicarb had automatically become
forfeited to the State. Though raised as a theoretical possibility in argument on
appeal, the Department’s case on the papers was not that it should be allowed to
retain the Aldicarb pending a prosecution and conviction of Volcano for
contravening s 7, in which event it then intended to seek a forfeiture order. If this
were the Department’s case, there would be no basis upon which the court a quo
could, as it proposed to do, place the Aldicarb at the disposal of the Department
to be either forfeited or destroyed. What is more, that case would have required
some indication of a serious intent on the part of the Department to proceed with
criminal proceedings against Volcano. Even an express statement of such
intention – which there was not – would have raised the question why no such
steps had been taken during the more than two years that had elapsed before
Volcano’s application was brought. It seems virtually self-evident that, if the
Department seeks to employ this stratagem to retain contravening goods, a
prosecution must follow within reasonable time which, prima facie, two years is
not (cf eg Choonara v Minister of Law and Order 1992 (2) SACR 239 (W) at
246a-d and Hiemstra, Suid-Afrikaanse Strafprosesreg, 6 ed (by Kriegler and
Kruger) at 54).
[14] The conclusion I have come to on the first issue renders it unnecessary to
consider the second issue as formulated by the parties, namely, whether Volcano
can lawfully possess the Aldicarb in this country, even for purposes of export.
Suffice it to say that, because the option afforded to an illegal importer by
s 16(6)(a) is available to Volcano, it can lawfully do whatever is necessary to
exercise that option. Conversely, the Department and the registrar are obliged to
do what they normally do to enable an illegal importer to exercise that option.
[15] It is therefore ordered that:
(a)
The appeal is upheld with costs, including those consequent upon the
employment of two counsel.
(b)
The order of the court a quo is set aside and in its stead the following
order is made:
‘(i)
The respondents are directed to do all things necessary to enable
the applicant to export the two consignments of Aldicarb pesticide
in terms of s 16(6)(a)(i) of the Act.
(ii)
The first respondent is ordered to pay the applicant’s costs,
including those consequent upon the employment of two counsel.’
……………….
F D J BRAND
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Concur:
HARMS ADP
PONNAN JA
MAYA JA
KGOMO AJA | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
Case number: 641/06
In the matter between
VOLCANO AGROSCIENCE (PTY) LTD
APPELLANT
and
THE MINISTER OF AGRICULTURE
FIRST RESPONDENT
ERNEST MOKANTLA NO
SECOND RESPONDENT
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
2007-11-26
Status:
Immediate
1.
On 26 November 2007 the SCA gave judgment in this appeal
which turned on the interpretation of s 16(6)(a) of the Fertilizers, Farm
Feeds, Agricultural Remedies and Stock Remedies Act 36 of 1947.
Broadly stated, the section affords an illegal importer of agricultural
pesticides and other substances controlled by the Act, the option to
remove the substance from the Republic or to have it forfeited to or
destroyed by the State.
2.
The appellant in this matter (Volcano) imported a controlled
pesticide called Aldicarb illegally and subsequently purported to sell it, in
further contravention of the Act, to a distributor in South Africa. In the
light of these contraventions, the Aldicarb was seized and retained by
the Department of Agriculture. Volcano then brought an application
based on s 16(6)(a) of the Act against the Minister responsible for that
Department in the Durban High Court for an order which would enable it
to export the Aldicarb to Zimbabwe.
3.
The Durban High Court concluded, however, that on a proper
interpretation of s 16(6)(a) the option afforded by the section is not
available to an illegal importer who contravened some other provision of
the Act as well. Since Volcano also sold the Aldicarb in contravention of
another provision of the Act, so the High Court concluded, it could not
rely on the section with the result that the Aldicarb automatically became
forfeited to the State.
4.
On appeal the SCA did not agree with this interpretation. The
purpose of s 16(6)(a), so the court held, is not to penalise the illegal
importer but to prevent the contravening substance from entering the
Republic. Consequently, the option afforded by the section is available
to every illegal importer in the position of Volcano and it matters not that
some other provision of the Act had been contravened as well. In the
result the Department of Agriculture was directed to do all things
necessary to enable Volcano to exercise its option in terms of s
16(6)(a)(i) of the Act by exporting the Aldicarb to another country. |
2319 | non-electoral | 2009 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 447/08
MICHAEL TUCH, HEATHER BRENDA EISER
HILTON MYERSON, JONATHAN TUCH NNO
Appellants
and
MYERSON, JEFFREY HAROLD
First Respondent
MYERSON, JEFFREY HAROLD ROPER,
ALASTAIR BRIAN NNO
Second Respondent
MASUREIK, DION BARRY
Third Respondent
Neutral citation:
Tuch v Myerson (447/09) [2009] ZASCA 132 (30 September
2009)
Coram:
STREICHER, MHLANTLA JJA and GRIESEL AJA
Heard:
8 SEPTEMBER 2009
Delivered:
30 SEPTEMBER 2009
Summary:
Defamation – defamatory allegations made in civil judicial
proceedings – qualified privilege – allegations devoid of merit –
ulterior purpose inferred – malice.
ORDER
On appeal from: High Court, Johannesburg (Malan J sitting as court of
first instance)
The following order is made:
The appeal, in so far as the first and third respondents are
concerned, is partially upheld with costs.
The appeal, in so far as the second respondent is concerned is
dismissed.
The order of the court below is set aside and replaced with the
following order:
‘(a)
The first and the third defendants, jointly and severally, are
ordered to pay to the plaintiff an amount of R30 000.
(b)
The plaintiff’s claim against the second defendant is
dismissed.
(c)
The first and third defendants, jointly and severally, are
ordered to pay the plaintiff’s costs.’
JUDGMENT
STREICHER JA (MHLANTLA JA and GRIESEL AJA concurring)
[1] The appellants are the executors in the deceased estate of Nathan
Myerson (‘the deceased’) who died on 4 March 2008 after an action for
defamation instituted by him against the respondents had been dismissed
by the Johannesburg High Court. Thereafter that court granted leave to
the appellants to appeal to this court.
[2] The alleged defamatory statements were made in an affidavit
deposed to by the first respondent (Jeffrey Harold Myerson) in
application proceedings instituted by the deceased against, amongst
others, the first respondent and the third respondent (Dion Barry
Masureik). The second respondent, namely Jeffrey Harold Myerson and
Alistair Brian Roper, in their capacities as trustees of the Jefferson
Business Trust, were subsequently joined as respondents in the
application proceedings.
[3] In the application proceedings the deceased claimed from each of
the first and third respondents delivery of share certificates reflecting him
as the holder of two and a half per cent of the share capital in a company
Jazz Spirit 46 (Pty) Ltd (‘Jazz Spirit’). In this regard the deceased relied
on a written undertaking dated 23 April 2004 and signed by the first and
the third respondents, which reads as follows:
‘This letter confirms that we (Mr JH Myerson and Mr DB Masureik) are holding in
trust 2,5% each of the shares of Jazz Spirit 46 (Proprietary) Limited. You can acquire
these shares at no cost, whenever you wish to have these shares transferred into your
name, subject to the following conditions: -
the shares will be available at any time after the transfer of the land into our
name has been finalized;
we require 3 working days’ verbal notice by you to transfer these shares;
these shares are being held specifically for yourself only and may not be sold,
pledged or transferred to any other person or entity except to ourselves in which case
these shares will be transferred back to ourselves or our nominee at par value to be
determined by the auditors of Jazz Spirit 46 (Proprietary) Limited.’
The parties are agreed that the phrase ‘into our name’ in the first
condition should read ‘into the name of Jazz Spirit 46 (Pty) Ltd’. The
land in question was transferred to Jazz Spirit in July 2004 and in March
2006 the deceased called upon the first and third respondents to transfer
the shares referred to in the written undertaking to him. On 30 March
2006 the first and third respondents’ attorneys wrote to the deceased’s
attorneys:
‘It is sufficient to state that your client has no right or entitlement whatsoever to the
shares nor the financial statements of Jazz Spirit 46 (Pty) Ltd, you refer to.’
They did not disclose the basis upon which it was alleged that the
deceased had no entitlement to the shares.
[4] The deceased thereupon launched an application against the first
and third respondents for the transfer of the shares. In his answering
affidavit the first respondent stated that in so far as the aforesaid
undertaking was binding on the third respondent and on him it constituted
a donation ‘motivated by nothing other than pure liberality and
generosity’. Being a donation he stated that it was not valid as, according
to him, there had not been compliance with s 5 of the General Law
Amendment Act 50 of 1956. He did not say why not. He stated,
furthermore, that the document contained no more than an offer and that
the offer had not been accepted within a reasonable time. Later in the
same answering affidavit he alleged that the undertaking contained in the
document was furnished under duress. But still later he again alleged that
the transaction was that of a donation and that the third respondent and he
‘were entitled to revoke the donation by virtue of inter alia [the
deceased’s] ingratitude’. The deceased’s gross ingratitude was, according
to him, evidenced by the following:
’30.3.1 [The deceased] and my father who died in September 2003 were brothers and
partners in mainly immovable property.
30.3.2 During about July 2004, I found out that the [deceased] had misappropriated
something in the order of R5 to R6 million of my father’s portion of the partnership. I
took this up with the auditors, namely Kessel Feinstein, who confirmed that this had
indeed occurred. I further established that the [deceased] had transferred all or most of
these funds to Ireland via his wife who was Irish. This information was extremely
disturbing.’
[5] Yet another defence raised by the first respondent in the answering
affidavit was that the third and fourth respondents in the application
proceedings were shareholders in Jazz Spirit and that they would not vote
in favour of the transfer of the shares to the deceased. He stated that the
third and fourth respondents ‘are of the view that should [the deceased]
become a shareholder in [Jazz Spirit] he would devote his time and
energy to creating as much trouble, unpleasantness and problems as
possible’.
[6] The third respondent filed a confirmatory affidavit in which he
asked that the first respondent’s affidavit be read as if incorporated into
his affidavit.
[7] The statement that the deceased had misappropriated something in
the order of R5 to R6 million of the first respondent’s father’s portion of
the partnership and the statement that should the deceased become a
shareholder in Jazz Spirit, he would devote his time and energy to
creating as much trouble, unpleasantness and problems as possible, gave
rise to the defamation action which is the subject matter of this appeal.
[8] The respondents in their plea denied that the publication of these
statements was wrongful and pleaded that the statements were published
in the course of judicial proceedings ie on a privileged occasion. The
deceased replicated that the statements were made maliciously.
[9] The court below held that both the aforesaid statements were per se
defamatory. In respect of the first statement it said that ‘any reasonable
reader of ordinary intelligence would conclude that the word
“misappropriated” means that the [deceased] is called a thief who stole
some R5 to R6 million from the [first respondent’s] father’. In respect of
the second statement it said:
‘The ordinary reader would conclude that the plaintiff is a troublemaker, ie a person
who would, as a shareholder, not devote his time and energy for the benefit of the
company but would disrupt it. The clear implication is that the plaintiff is unfit to
have as a (minority) shareholder. This reflects on his reputation as a businessman.’
I am in full agreement with these findings of the court below.
[10] The publication of the defamatory statements gave rise to a
presumption of unlawfulness and animus injuriandi on the part of the first
and third respondents.1 The presumption of unlawfulness could be
rebutted by proving that the publication took place on an occasion of
qualified privilege such as during the course of civil judicial proceedings
provided the requirements for relevance were satisfied.2 The court below
held that the defamatory statements were indeed relevant to the issues in
the application proceedings. It added that the deceased could in the
circumstances only succeed if he could show that the respondents acted
maliciously and thereby exceeded the bounds of qualified privilege. It
1 Suid-Afrikaanse Uitsaaikorporasie v O’Malley 1977 (3) SA 394 (A) at 401 in fine – 402A.
2 Van der Berg v Coopers & Lybrand Trust (Pty) Ltd and others 2001 (2) SA 242 (SCA) par 21.
concluded that the deceased failed to do so and for that reason dismissed
the action.
[11] The court below correctly held that the protection afforded by the
qualified privilege afforded to a litigant is forfeited if the defamatory
statement is published maliciously.3 In Basner v Trigger 1946 AD 83 at
95 Schreiner JA said:
‘Privileged occasions are recognised in order to enable persons to achieve certain
purposes and when they use the occasion for other purposes they are actuated by
improper or indirect motives, that is, by “malice”.’
[12] I agree that the defamatory statement that the deceased would
cause trouble, unpleasantness and problems, should he become a
shareholder in Jazz Spirit was relevant to the deceased’s claim in the
application proceedings. I also agree that no malice has been shown on
the part of the respondents in respect of that statement. I do however not
agree that no malice on the part of the first and third respondents had
been shown in respect of the allegation that the deceased stole R5 to R6
million from the first respondent’s father.
[13] The onus was on the deceased to prove the alleged malice on the
part of the respondents. No direct evidence of such malice was adduced
by the deceased but, malice being a state of mind, that is hardly
surprising. Being subjective in nature malice will often have to be
inferred from intrinsic or extrinsic facts.4
3 Joubert and others v Venter 1985 (1) SA 654 (A) at 704D-G; and Van der Berg v Coopers & Lybrand
Trust (Pty) Ltd and others supra at para 17.
4 See Neethling Potgieter and Visser Neethling’s Law of Personality 2ed (2005) p 149 and the
authorities referred to in footnote 201.
[14] The respondents claimed that the alleged theft of R5 to R6m by the
deceased from the partnership between the deceased and the first
respondent’s father constituted ingratitude which entitled them to revoke
the alleged donation. However, the first respondent’s father died in 2003
whereas the alleged donation was made on 23 April 2004. It is hard to
believe that anybody, let alone the first and the third respondents who are
property developers, could possibly have thought that something done to
a third party before a donation was made could constitute evidence of
gross ingratitude on the part of the donee in respect of the donation
subsequently made. The allegation is so devoid of any merit that, in the
absence of any evidence to the contrary, the inference must be drawn that
the first and third respondents used the occasion not to advance their case
but for an ulterior purpose namely to besmirch the name and reputation of
the deceased. In the circumstances the deceased succeeded in proving
malice on the part of the first and the third respondents.
[15] It follows that the appeal in so far as the first and third respondents
are concerned should succeed in respect of the allegation that the
deceased misappropriated R5 to R6m. The second respondent was joined
as a party to the application proceedings because the first respondent had
alleged in his answering affidavit that the second respondent was a
shareholder of Jazz Spirit and that it should for that reason have been
joined as a party. There is no evidence that the second respondent made
common cause with the first and third respondents and counsel for the
appellant conceded that the action against it could not succeed ie that the
appeal in so far as the second respondent is concerned, should be
dismissed.
[16] The parties were agreed that in the event of the appeal succeeding
the matter should not be referred back to the court below for the
determination of the amount of damages to be awarded but that such
amount should be determined by this court. In my view the request
should be acceded to. The deceased as well as the respondents closed
their cases without leading any evidence in regard to the quantum of
damages with the result that this court is in as good a position as the trial
court to determine the amount. To refer the matter back to the court
below will involve the parties in additional costs which they obviously
wish to avoid. Moreover, the trial judge is no longer a judge of the court
below and the administration of the courts will unnecessarily be disrupted
by referring the matter back to the court below. I shall therefore proceed
to determine the amount of damages to which the deceased was entitled.
[17] Counsel for the respondents submitted that because no evidence as
to the reputation of the deceased had been tendered at the trial, only
nominal damages could be awarded. This is tantamount to arguing that a
court should assume that a person has a bad reputation or no reputation
that can be injured. That is not correct. Every person has a reputation that
can be injured. There may of course be aggravating or mitigating
circumstances relating to a person’s reputation. A plaintiff may therefore
adduce evidence of his good reputation and standing in the community5
and a defendant may adduce evidence of the plaintiff’s bad reputation.6
Should a plaintiff allege that there are aggravating circumstances the onus
would be on him to prove such aggravating circumstances. Conversely
should the defendant allege that there are mitigating circumstances the
onus would be on him to prove such mitigating circumstances.
5 See eg Van der Berg v Coopers & Lybrand Trust (Pty) Ltd and others 2001 (2) SA 242 (SCA) at para
45.
6 See eg Black and others v Joseph 1931 AD 132 at 146.
[18] The allegation that the deceased stole R5 to R6 million from his
brother is obviously seriously defamatory of the deceased. The extent of
the damage caused thereby would, however, have been restricted by the
limited publication thereof to a restricted class of people. The allegation
is nevertheless so serious that substantial damages should be awarded.
The appellant, referring to the award made in Naylor and another v
Jansen; Jansen v Naylor and others 2006 (3) SA 546 (SCA) at paras 15 –
17, submitted that R30 000 should be awarded as damages. In that matter
it had been alleged that Jansen had stolen money from his employer
whereas he had not stolen money but had made himself guilty of
misconduct involving dishonesty which misconduct the trial court
erroneously did not take into account when determining the quantum of
damages. Consequently an award of R30 000 by the trial court was
reduced on appeal to R15 000. As was said by Smalberger JA in the Van
der Berg-case at para 48 comparisons can of course serve a very limited
purpose.
[19] A court has a wide discretion to determine an award of general
damages which is fair and reasonable having regard to all the
circumstances of the case and the prevailing attitudes of the community.7
Having regard to all the circumstances of the present case it would in my
view be fair and reasonable to award damages in an amount of R30 000.
The appeal of the appellants should therefore be upheld in so far as the
first and the third respondents are concerned. The appellants conceded
that no case has been proved against the second appellant and that the
appeal in so far as the second appellant is concerned should be dismissed.
Counsel for the respondents conceded that the fact that the second
7 See 7 Lawsa 2ed para 260 and the cases therein referred to.
respondent was cited as a respondent in the action and also in the appeal
had no real effect on the costs. In the circumstances no costs order will be
made in respect of the second respondent.
[20] The following order is made:
The appeal, in so far as the first and third respondents are
concerned, is partially upheld with costs.
The appeal, in so far as the second respondent is concerned, is
dismissed.
The order of the court below is set aside and replaced with the
following order:
‘(a)
The first and the third defendants, jointly and severally, are
ordered to pay to the plaintiff an amount of R30 000.
(b)
The plaintiff’s claim against the second defendant is
dismissed.
(c)
The first and third defendants, jointly and severally, are
ordered to pay the plaintiff’s costs.’
________________
P E STREICHER
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
For appellant:
H S Eiser
Instructed by:
Eiser & Kantor, Riviera
Matsepes, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
M Basslian
Instructed by:
Myers Inc, Greenside, Gauteng
Naudes Inc, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
30 September 2009
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
* * *
M TUCH & OTHERS NNO v J H MYERSON & OTHERS NNO
The Supreme Court of Appeal today upheld an appeal against a judgment in the High
Court, Johannesburg in terms of which that court dismissed an action for defamation
instituted by one Nathan Myerson who has since died.
In application proceedings instituted by the deceased against the first and the third
respondents (‘the respondents’) the deceased, relying on a written undertaking by the
respondents, claimed delivery of certificates reflecting him as the holder of 5% of the
share capital in a company Jazz Spirit 46 (Pty) Ltd. The respondents alleged that the
undertaking constituted a donation and that they had revoked the donation because of
gross ingratitude on the part of the deceased.
The deceased and the first respondent’s father were partners and according to the
respondents the deceased had misappropriated in the order of R5 – R6m of the first
respondent’s father’s portion of the partnership. Such misappropriation allegedly
constituted evidence of the deceased’s gross ingratitude.
The SCA agreed with the court below that the allegation was defamatory as any
reasonable reader of ordinary intelligence would have understood the respondents to
be saying that the deceased was a thief who stole from the first respondent’s father.
However, it disagreed with the court below that no malice on the part of the
respondents had been proved and that it had not been proved that the respondents
exceeded the bounds of qualified privilege afforded by the fact that the allegation was
made during the course of civil judicial proceedings.
Having regard to the fact that the first respondent’s father died before the undertaking
was given the SCA said that it was hard to believe that anybody could possibly have
thought that something done to a third party before a donation was made could
constitute evidence of gross ingratitude on the part of a donee in respect of a donation
subsequently made. It held that the allegation was so devoid of any merit that, in the
absence of any evidence to the contrary, the inference must be drawn that the
respondents used the occasion not to advance their case but for an ulterior purpose
namely to besmirch the name and reputation of the deceased ie that the respondents
acted maliciously. |
2348 | non-electoral | 2009 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case number: 516/2008
In the matter between:
TSHIDISO ISAAC LEEUW
APPELLANT
and
FIRST NATIONAL BANK
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Leeuw v First National Bank (516/2008) [2009] ZASCA
161 (30 November 2009)
CORAM:
Streicher, Heher, Snyders, Malan JJA and Leach AJA
HEARD:
13 November 2009
DELIVERED:
30 November 2009
SUMMARY:
Estoppel – negligent misrepresentation
ORDER
On appeal from:
The Bloemfontein High Court (Beckley and Van Zyl JJ,
sitting as court of appeal).
Order:
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
JUDGMENT
SNYDERS JA: (Streicher, Heher, Malan JJA and Leach AJA concurring)
[1] The respondent sued its customer, the appellant, in the Thaba’ Nchu
Magistrate’s Court for the recovery of an amount of R48 000 withdrawn from
the appellant’s account with the respondent after the deposit of a cheque in
the amount of R48 598.69 into that account and before it was discovered that
the signatures on the cheque were forged. The appellant not only defended
the claim, but instituted a counterclaim for the amount of R89 000. A cheque
for R89 000 was deposited into the same account, but the respondent
reversed the credit in the appellant’s account upon discovering that the
signatures on the cheque were forged. The decision by the magistrate to
dismiss the respondent’s claim and to grant the appellant’s counterclaim, both
with costs, was appealed by the respondent to the Bloemfontein High Court.
The appeal was upheld and the respondent was awarded its claim of R48 000
with interest and costs, whereas an order for absolution from the instance was
made on the appellant’s counterclaim. It is with the leave of the court below
that the matter is on appeal.
[2] The appellant persisted in this court with an argument that the
respondent’s initial notice of appeal was fatally defective as it did not comply
with Magistrates’ courts rule 51(7)(b) which requires an appellant to state ‘the
grounds of appeal, specifying the findings of fact or rulings of law appealed
against’. The rule is peremptory and non-compliance has been held to render
the notice invalid.1 The object of rule 51(7) is to enable the magistrate to
1 Himunchol v Moharom 1947 (4) SA 778 (N) at 780; Tzouras v SA Wimpy (Pty) Ltd 1978 (3)
SA 204 (W) at 205E-F.
frame his reasons for judgment under rule 51(8) and, insofar as this had not
already been done, to inform the respondent of the case he has to meet and
to notify the appeal court of the points to be raised.2 In 1987 the Uniform rules
of the high court were amended to provide, for the first time, for the delivery,
prior to the hearing, of ‘a concise and succinct statement of the main points. . .
which [a party] intends to argue on appeal’ – so-called heads of argument.3 It
can be said that since then, the object of the notice of appeal to inform the
respondent and the court was also achieved by the heads of argument, and it
has almost become the rule that a full judgment is given after a trial in the
magistrates’ courts which is rarely added to in terms of rule 51(8), as also
occurred in this case.
[3] The grounds in the notice of appeal that are attacked by the appellant
relate only to the counterclaim. It was contended that the magistrate should
have found that both cheques were forged, that the respondent was entitled to
reverse the credit entries in the appellant’s account after it was discovered
that the cheques were forged and that the respondent’s witnesses, especially
Motaung, gave credible evidence which had to be preferred to that of the
appellant. These points, though not a model of eloquence, clarity and
compliance, set out the only point in the appeal on the counterclaim, namely
that if Motaung’s evidence was accepted, the trial court should have
concluded that there was no misrepresentation by the respondent in relation
to the R89 000 cheque. This simple point reflected the entire appeal on the
counterclaim and achieved the objects of rule 51(7) in the circumstances.4
[4] The court a quo decided the matter on an acceptance of Motaung’s
evidence, as the notice urged it to do, and reversed the magistrate’s decision
in this regard. It does not appear from the judgment that the representative of
the respondent had any difficulty dealing with the relevant issue on appeal.
On the contrary, the court below had the impression that the point relating to
the notice of appeal had not been pursued and did not refer to it in its
2 Kilian v Geregsbode, Uitenhage 1980 (1) SA 808 (A) at 815C-D.
3 Regulations R2164, GG10958, 2 October 1987.
4 Gaffoor v Mvelase 1938 NPD 429 at 431.
judgment. Only after judgment and in response to a letter from the appellant’s
attorneys, did it respond by furnishing additional reasons pertaining to the
point and concluded that the grounds of appeal were not too general or too
vague.
[5] In this court it is not required that grounds of appeal be stated in the
notice of appeal.5 The nature of the proceedings is such that this court is
entitled to make findings in relation to ‘any matter flowing fairly from the
record’.6 The parties in their written and oral arguments have dealt with all the
issues relevant to the appeal and the appellant has not pointed to anything
that has been overlooked. The point, apart from being bad, has long lost its
significance.
[6] Many of the facts in this matter are common cause. The appellant, the
proprietor of a liquor outlet, the Love and Happiness Tavern, sold liquor to
Thabo Mofokeng. The latter tendered payment by way of a cheque in the
amount of R48 598.69 drawn by General Food Industries Limited on the
respondent in favour of Mofokeng, or bearer. The appellant accepted the
cheque as payment for the liquor bought and on 14 May 1999 deposited it into
his bank account with the respondent. The circumstances that lead to the
appellant accepting the cheque as payment are in dispute and I shall revert to
that later. On 17 May 1999 the respondent allowed the appellant to utilise R48
000 of the proceeds of this cheque in order to pay for liquor bought for his
business. On 21 May 1999 the appellant again sold liquor to Mofokeng, this
time for R89 000 and again accepted a cheque in that amount, made out as
before, in payment. This cheque was also deposited into the same account.
On 24 May 1999 the respondent was notified by General Food Industries
Limited that each of the two signatures on the cheques was forged. The
5 SCA rule 7(3): ‘Every notice of appeal and cross-appeal shall – (a) state what part of the
judgment or order is appealed against; (b) state the particular respect in which the variation of
the judgment or order is sought; and (c) be accompanied by a certified copy of the order (if
any) granting leave to appeal or to cross-appeal.’
6 Thompson v South African Broadcasting Corporation 2001 (3) SA 746 (SCA) para 7: ‘The
Court is entitled to base its judgment and to make findings in relation to any matter flowing fairly
from the record, the judgment, the heads of argument or the oral argument itself.’
respondent immediately reversed the credits in the appellant’s account
brought about by the deposit of the two cheques and passed debits in the
same amounts. Because the respondent utilised an amount of R48 000 from
the account before the debits were passed, the respondent instituted action to
recover that amount.
[7] The respondent’s claim was based on the condictio indebiti. It alleged
that the appellant was enriched at the expense of the respondent in the
amount of R48 000. The appellant denied that the condictio indebiti was
available to the respondent as a bank, denied that he was enriched and
pleaded that the respondent was estopped from relying on the forgery of the
cheque. In support of the defence of estoppel he pleaded that prior to the
appellant accepting the cheque as payment for liquor supplied, the
respondent represented to him that the cheque was good for the money, and
the appellant relied on the correctness of this representation when he decided
to accept the cheque as payment for the liquor sold to Mofokeng. In his
counterclaim the appellant pleaded that the respondent negligently
represented that the cheque of R89 000 was good for the money before he
accepted it as payment for the liquor bought by Mofokeng; he relied on this
alleged misrepresentation and supplied liquor to Mofokeng for that value and
consequently suffered damages.
[8] The magistrate accepted that the condictio indebiti was ‘not available’
to a bank and found that the respondent, in any event, failed to prove the facts
founding the condictio indebiti that it relied upon. On appeal the court below,
the appellant and the respondent again accepted that the condictio indebiti
was not the respondent’s ‘proper cause of action’. The respondent argued in
the court below that the condictio sine causa was the appropriate remedy.
The court below found that although that was not pleaded, its requirements
were fully canvassed during the trial, the particulars of claim clearly based the
respondent’s claim on enrichment and the evidence required to prove the one
would have sufficed to prove the other. These findings and an absence of
prejudice to the appellant, led the court below to conclude that the respondent
should not fail for having pleaded the ‘incorrect condictio’.
[9] In this court the question whether the respondent’s appropriate remedy
is the condictio indebiti or the condictio sine causa is no longer alive as the
appellant’s counsel conceded, rightly in my view, that if the appellant is to fail
on his defence of estoppel, the respondent was entitled to judgment in the
amount of R48 000.
[10] However, to avoid future confusion it needs to be stated that there is no
principle that the condictio indebiti is not available to a bank. In ABSA Bank
Ltd v De Klerk 1999 (1) SA 861 (W), on similar facts, it was held, in my view
correctly, that the condictio indebiti was the appropriate remedy for the bank
to have relied upon.7 In Saambou Bank Ltd v Essa 1993 (4) SA 62 (N) a
thorough comparative analysis was made of facts that would give rise to a
bank being entitled to rely on the condictio indebiti as opposed to the condictio
sine causa. It was held that if a bank believed it was obliged to pay ‘on
demand any withdrawal sought by [its customer] up to the amount of the
credit standing in his account’ the condictio indebiti was the appropriate
remedy. B & H Engineering v First National Bank of SA Ltd 1995 (2) SA 279
(A), mentioned by the court below as if it entertained another view, dealt with
the different scenario of a bank paying the amount of a cheque to a payee not
realising that the cheque had been countermanded. There was no question in
B & H of the bank performing vis-à-vis the payee. Hence the condictio indebiti
did not arise.
[11] The only issue to be decided in relation to the respondent’s R48 000
claim is whether the appellant proved his defence of estoppel.8 Estoppel
presupposes a representation made by words or conduct relating to a certain
factual position.9
[12] According to the evidence of the appellant and Mr Abram Motaung, a
clerk employed by the respondent at the enquiries desk, the appellant
7 At 864H-I.
8 ABSA Bank Ltd v I W Blumberg & Wilkinson 1997 (3) SA 669 (SCA) at 677G-H.
9 Road Accident Fund v Mothupi 2000 (4) SA 38 (SCA) at paras 27 and 29.
approached him during May 1999 with the cheque of R48 598.69. Motaung
testified that the appellant:
‘came to [him] with a cheque and asked [him] if the cheque was good. [He] then had
to check if the cheque was not post-dated and if the amounts correspond with
figures. [He] then checked in the computer if there was not stop payment on the
cheque. [He] confirmed that the cheque was ok. [He] was not asked to check if there
were funds in the account. [He] did not check if the signatures on the cheque
corresponded’.
Far from this evidence being disputed by the appellant several features of his
evidence support this version. He says that when Motaung came back with
the cheque he said ‘the cheque was genuine and [the appellant] could deposit
the cheque’. This answer indicates that Motaung was verifying that the
cheque was, on the face of it, acceptable for deposit. This was no different
from what Motaung had done for the appellant numerous times before. The
appellant, on his own version, visited the Thaba’ Nchu branch of the
respondent three to four times a week, depending on the state of his
business. He knew Motaung well. He also testified that as he was ‘not
learned’, whenever he made a deposit of cheques at the bank, he would ask
for assistance at the enquiries desk with the completion of the deposit slip
before he went to the tellers to make the deposit. In relation to the cheque for
R48 598.69 Motaung did the same thing he was requested to do by the
appellant numerous times before – to see whether the cheque was
acceptable for deposit and to complete the deposit slip and send the appellant
to the tellers.
[13] In view of the appellant’s self proclaimed habit to ask Motaung to
complete the deposit slips relating to cheque deposits made by him, it was for
the appellant to show that his request on this occasion was different from
those on other occasions in that he required a guarantee that the cheque was
as good as cash.
[14] The appellant said, rather obliquely, that Mofokeng was with him when
he explained to Motaung that Mofokeng wanted to buy liquor from him and
offered the cheque in payment. He wanted to be sure that he ‘was not going
to lose money’. He wanted the respondent to give him the assurance that the
cheque was as good as cash and consequently that there was no risk for him
in delivering liquor to Mofokeng. When Motaung was cross-examined he said
he could not remember whether the appellant told him why he wanted to know
that the cheque was good. If Motaung was aware of the presence of
Mofokeng and the reasons for this, he would have had a better idea of what it
was that the appellant wanted assurances on. Despite his lapse of memory it
was not put to Motaung that Mofokeng, the purchaser and payee, was present
and that the request concerning the cheque was aimed at obtaining
assurances for the purposes of the sale transaction between them. When the
appellant was cross-examined about the failure by his attorney to put this
evidence to Motaung, he was unsure whether he told his attorney about it. In
view of the failure to explore this aspect during Motaung’s evidence, it cannot
be concluded that the appellant’s request in relation to the R48 598.69
cheque was any different from his previous requests.
[15] As far as the respondent is concerned it never furnished the appellant
with a guarantee that the cheque would be paid. This is supported by
Motaung’s evidence that the appellant telephoned him two to three days after
the cheque was deposited and told him that he was busy buying liquor from a
supplier and needed to make payment of an amount of R48 000. He wanted
to draw against the cheque that had been deposited by way of a shoppa card
which apparently operates like a debit card. The appellant denied that he ever
made such a phonecall or had such a conversation with Motaung. Motaung’s
evidence is corroborated by the appellant’s bank statement that reflects that
on 17 May 1999, three days after the cheque was deposited, his shoppa card
was loaded with the amount of R48 000, the exact amount that the appellant
wanted to make his purchase for. Upon receiving this phonecall Motaung
went to the manager of the respondent to obtain authorisation for the
withdrawal of funds before the cheque was cleared. This authorisation was
given. If the cheque was guaranteed earlier there was no need for the
appellant to have made this telephonic request or for Motaung to have sought
this authorisation from the manager.
[16] The further question is whether the facts would have made a
reasonable person in the position of the appellant believe that the respondent
was guaranteeing the funds represented by the cheque.10 The appellant’s
own evidence shows why the answer has to be in the negative. If it was a
matter of the respondent issuing a guarantee, there was no understandable
basis why the funds would not have been available straight away and why the
appellant – on his own version - would have been told that it would take seven
days for the funds to be available. Likewise there would have been no need
for the appellant to have phoned to make the arrangement that the money be
available for his purchase of stock before the expiry of the seven day period.
[17] Counsel’s contention that the appellant was under the impression that
the funds would, as a mere formality, take seven days to become available
cannot be sustained. When the appellant was told about the seven day
clearing period he was not enquiring about the availability of the funds, but,
according to him, whether the cheque was as good as cash. If the funds were
guaranteed there and then there was no conceivable basis on which it would
have taken time for the funds to become available.
[18] The court below was correct in concluding that the defence of estoppel
was not proven.
[19] The appellant’s claim for R89 000 is based on similar allegations, that
Motaung made the same representation to him. Motaung denied that he was
approached by the appellant with the R89 000 cheque. His denial is
supported by the fact that the deposit slip for the cheque was not completed
by him and does not bear his signature as in the case of the cheque for R48
598.69. It was common cause that Motaung had a colleague, Motlhatlhedi,
whom the appellant knew as well as Motaung. Motaung suggested that it
could have been Motlhatlhedi who assisted the appellant with the R89 000
cheque.
10 Aris Enterprises (Finance) (Pty) Ltd v Protea Assurance Co Ltd 1981 (3) SA 274 (A) at
292E-F.
[20] Counsel for the appellant argued that the respondent had a duty to call
Motlhatlhedi as a witness to meet the allegation that the respondent made a
representation to the appellant in relation to the R89 000 cheque and argued
that its failure to do so warrants the adverse inference that the
misrepresentation alleged by the appellant was made. This submission not
only fails in logic, but also in law. Such an inference does not follow of
necessity, but is dependant on the circumstances of the case.11 The allegation
the respondent had to meet was that Motaung made the alleged
representation in relation to the R89 000 cheque. He was called as a witness
and denied the allegation. Nothing in the appellant’s case obliged the
respondent to meet a case that was not pleaded by calling witnesses that
were not alleged to have had anything to do with the alleged representation
and were therefore irrelevant. In addition, before an adverse inference is to be
drawn against a party for not calling a relevant witness, it would have had to
be shown that the witness was available to be called.12 Although Motaung, still
employed by the respondent at the time of his evidence, referred to
Motlhatlhedi as his ‘former colleague’, the question whether Motlhatlhedi was
available to give evidence was never explored during the trial.
[21] The court below was correct in concluding that the appellant did not
prove his counterclaim at the trial and in granting an order of absolution.
[22] The appeal is dismissed with costs.
__________________________
S SNYDERS
Judge of Appeal
11 Webranchek v L K Jacobs & Co Ltd 1948 (4) SA 671 (A); Munster Estates (Pty) Ltd v
Killarney Hills (Pty) Ltd 1979 (1) SA 621 (A) at 624.
12 Elgin Fireclays Limited v Webb 1947 (4) SA 744 (A) at 750; R v Phiri 1958 (3) SA 161 (A) at
164H-165A.
Appearances:
For the Appellant:
N W Phalatsi
Instructed by:
N W Phalatsi Attorneys & Partners, Bloemfontein
For the Respondent:
Adv. J P Daffue SC
Instructed by:
Steyn Meyer Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
* * *
A stolen cheque, signed fraudulently, spells trouble for whoever accepts it, even unwittingly,
as payment for anything. This Mr Leeuw finally discovered in a case between him and First
National Bank, pursued to the Supreme Court of Appeal.
Leeuw sold liquor to one Mofokeng for R48 598.69 and took a cheque as payment. It was a
General Food Industries cheque, made out to Mofokeng in that exact amount. Leeuw
deposited the cheque with FNB and made arrangements to withdraw R48 000 against the
cheque before the expiry of the seven day clearance period. Leeuw then sold more liquor, for
R89 000, to Mofokeng and took a similar cheque in that amount. After the R48 000 was
withdrawn FNB was notified that both cheques were stolen and the signatures forged. FNB
reversed the credits in Leeuw’s account and sued for the R48 000. Leeuw resisted the claim
and counterclaimed for the R89 000, alleging that FNB, at the time that he deposited the
cheques, represented to him that the cheques were good for the money and he relied on that
misrepresentation to his detriment.
The case went all the way from the magistrates’ court, where Leeuw won, to the
Bloemfontein High Court, where Leeuw lost, and ultimately the Supreme Court of Appeal.
The Supreme Court of Appeal confirmed the decision of the Bloemfontein High Court that
the facts did not support Leeuw’s allegation of a misrepresentation by FNB. FNB merely did
what banks do - it accepted the cheques for deposit with no guarantee in relation thereto.
Hence FNB was entitled to reverse the credits in Leeuws account when the cheques were not
cleared and to be paid the R48 000 already withdrawn by Leeuw. |
3718 | non-electoral | 2021 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not reportable
Case No: 680/2020
In the matter between:
MACSTEEL TUBE AND PIPE, A DIVISION OF
MACSTEEL SERVICE CENTRES SA (PTY) LTD
APPELLANT
and
VOWLES PROPERTIES (PTY) LTD
RESPONDENT
Neutral Citation:
Macsteel Tube and Pipe, a division of Macsteel Service Centres
SA (Pty) Ltd v Vowles Properties (Pty) Ltd (680/2020) [2021]
ZASCA 178 (17 December 2021)
Coram:
MATHOPO, MOCUMIE and MOLEMELA JJA, and KGOELE,
and MOLEFE AJJA
Heard:
4 November 2021
Delivered:
This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to
the parties’ legal representatives by email, publication on the
Supreme Court of Appeal website and released to SAFLII. The
date and time for hand-down is deemed to be 10h00 on 17
December 2021
Summary:
Civil Procedure and Practice – an order amending the
quantification of the claim in a summons did not amount to a new cause of action
and did not constitute a final determination on the issue of the court’s jurisdiction to
adjudicate the action – an order amending the description of a defendant in a
summons does not amount to a substitution of the defendant in circumstances
where the description of the defendant was the same as in the lease agreement
concluded by the parties – no prejudice was demonstrated by the appellant –
application to amend was correctly granted – appeal dismissed.
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg (Mia J and
Malungana AJ sitting as a court of appeal):
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
___________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
___________________________________________________________________
Molemela JA (Mathopo and Mocumie JJA and Kgoele and Molefe AJJA
concurring):
[1] This appeal arises from an interlocutory application pertaining to the
amendment of the particulars of claim in an action that was instituted by Vowles
Properties (Pty) Ltd (Vowles) against Macsteel Tube and Pipe, a Division of
Macsteel Service Centres SA (Pty) Ltd (Macsteel).1 The background facts which
serve as a backdrop for the adjudication of this appeal are set out in the paragraphs
that follow.
[2] On 26 July 2009, Vowles and Macsteel concluded a lease agreement in terms
of which the latter leased the former’s fixed property which was to be utilised for steel
fabrication and storage, among others. One of the terms of the agreement was that
Macsteel was required to maintain the leased premises in good order and could not
sublet the leased premises without Vowles’ consent. On 11 December 2015, Vowles
instituted action in the Kempton Park Regional Court (the regional court) against
1 This is how Macsteel was cited in the face of the original summons. In its proposed amendment,
Vowles sought the substitution of that description with the following citation: ‘Macsteel Service
Centres SA (Pty) Ltd t/a Macsteel Tube and Pipe, a private company duly registered and incorporated
in terms of the Company Laws of the Republic of South Africa, conducting business at 15 Esson
Road, Lillianton, Boksburg’.
Macsteel. It is common cause that the lease terminated on 31 December 2012. In its
particulars of claim, Vowles claimed an amount of R1 567 096.03 as damages for
breach of contract on the basis that Macsteel had breached the terms of the
agreement by failing to return the leased premises in the same condition as they
were when it first took occupation thereof. Macsteel is the appellant in this appeal,
and Vowles the respondent. A second party, Reclamation Holdings (Pty) Ltd, which
was the appellant’s tenant in terms of a subletting arrangement, was cited as a co-
defendant in the particulars of claim. The subletting arrangement need not detain this
appeal, because the appellant’s tenant is not a party before us.
[3] Macsteel excepted to the particulars of claim. On 15 July 2016, the regional
court, by agreement between the parties, upheld the exception raised by Macsteel.
In terms of that order (the July 2016 order), the original particulars of claim were set
aside and Vowles was ordered to file amended particulars of claim within 20 days of
the July 2016 order. The first time that Vowles attempted to amend the particulars of
claim was when on 9 September 2016, more than 20 days after the issuance of the
July 2016 order, it delivered a notice of amendment in terms of rule 55A of the
Magistrates’ Court Rules (the first rule 55A(1) notice) pursuant to being served with a
notice of bar. Macsteel objected to the amendment on the basis that the particulars
of claim no longer existed, as they had been set aside in terms of the July 2016
order. It sought an order dismissing Vowles’ action, alternatively setting aside
Vowles’ notice of amendment.
[4] On 24 January 2017, the regional court granted an order setting aside the
notice of amendment filed by Vowles as an irregular step. On 20 February 2017,
Vowles delivered its second notice of amendment in terms of rule 55A(1) (the
second rule 55A(1) notice). Macsteel again objected, as result of which Vowles
withdrew that notice. On 27 October 2017, Vowles filed another notice of
amendment, this time stating that the application was within the contemplation of rule
55A(4) (the October 2017 amendment application). The notice stipulated that Vowles
intended to make its application on 2 February 2018 at 09h00. However, on 30
January 2018, Vowles’ attorneys filed a notice of withdrawal as attorney of record.
Vowles did not attend the proceedings on 30 January 2018, as a result of which the
regional court dismissed that application with costs.
[5] On 19 June 2018, Vowles, having appointed new attorneys of record,
delivered a Notice of Motion (the 2018 amendment application) indicating its
intention to, in terms of s 111(1) of the Magistrates’ Court Act 32 of 1944
(Magistrates’ Court Act), alternatively in terms of rule 55A(10), amend the summons
by replacing it with a copy appended to the Notice of Motion as Annexure A. Vowles
sought a number of orders in the alternative, including an order declaring the
proposed amendment as being an amendment of the particulars of claim in
compliance with the July 2016 order. Macsteel opposed the application and raised a
number of objections, including its previous objections.
[6] Furthermore, Macsteel contended that Vowles had not brought its application
in terms of rule 55A(1), which was the ordinary manner in which such applications
are brought and had instead elected to bring this application under the rule 55A(10).
Although Macsteel accepted that it was within the discretion of the court to grant
applications under this sub-rule, it contended that because Vowles had not explained
in its founding affidavit why it elected to follow this route, and not the usual procedure
for amendments, as set out in rule 55A(1), there was no basis for the regional court
to conclude that it should exercise its discretion in favour of Vowles and grant the
June 2018 amendment.
[7] On 24 October 2018, the regional court granted Vowles leave to amend the
particulars of claim and ordered Macsteel to pay the costs of the application.
Macsteel was aggrieved by that order and noted an appeal on the basis that the
regional court had made findings which were final in effect, which would prejudice
Macsteel’s conduct in defending Vowles’ claim. On 21 November 2018, Macsteel
noted an appeal against the whole of the judgment and order of the regional court
except the costs order. Before the Gauteng Division of the High Court,
Johannesburg (the high court), sitting as a full court, Macsteel submitted that the
regional court had erred in allowing the amendment of the particulars of claim.
According to Macsteel, Vowles’ application to amend its particulars of claim should
have been dismissed. The high court rejected that contention and dismissed the
appeal with costs on 20 April 2020. Aggrieved by that order, Macsteel approached
this Court seeking special leave to appeal against the order of the high court. Special
leave was granted by this Court on 28 July 2020.
[8] The main issues raised for adjudication in this appeal are whether the regional
court made a definitive order that cannot be altered in relation to jurisdiction and, in
particular, whether the amendment sought had the effect of introducing a new cause
of action or a new party in relation to a claim that had prescribed. An ancillary issue
raised for determination related to whether or not the order granted by the regional
court was appealable.
[9] Section 111 of the Magistrates’ Court Act is relevant to this appeal. It provides
that a court may at any time before judgment, amend any summons or pleading, if
the granting of the amendment will not prejudice any party in the conduct of that
party’s action or defence. There is a plethora of case-law on the subject and it is now
well-established that a court will always allow an amendment unless the amendment
is mala fide or if the amendment would cause prejudice to the other side, which
prejudice cannot be cured by a costs order. This principle was formulated as follows
in the well-known case of Moolman v Estate Moolman and Another2 and was
confirmed in numerous judgments of this Court:
‘. . . [T]he practical rule adopted seems to be that amendments will always be allowed unless
the application to amend is mala fide or unless such amendment would cause an injustice to
the other side which cannot be compensated by costs. . . .’
[10] Against the backdrop of the legal position set out in the preceding paragraph,
I turn now to deal with the issues raised in this appeal. It is opportune to start with
the ancillary issue of the appealability of the order made by the regional court. It was
contended on behalf of Vowles that the order granted by the regional court did not
have the effect of a final judgment and was consequently not appealable.3 We were
accordingly urged to strike the appeal from the roll with costs.
2 Moolman v Estate Moolman and Another 1927 CPD 27 at 29.
3 Relying on the provisions of s 83 of the Magistrate’s Court Act 32 of 1944, it was contended on
behalf of Vowles that the granting of the amendment is not a judgment within the contemplation of s
48 of the Magistrates Court Act. The right of appeal, so it was contended, is limited to the provisions
of s 83(b) which stipulates that a party has the right to appeal against any rule or order ‘having the
effect of a final judgment’.
[11] It is trite that an appeal lies against an order and not against the reasoning. In
Zweni v Minister of Law,4 and Order this Court held:
‘A “judgment or order” is a decision which, as a general principle, has three attributes, first,
the decision must be final in effect and not susceptible of alteration by the court of first
instance; second, it must be definitive of the rights of the parties; and, third, it must have the
effect of disposing of at least a substantial portion of the relief claimed in the main
proceedings (Van Streepen & Germs (Pty) Ltd case supra at 586I-587B; Marsay v
Dilley 1992 (3) SA 944 (A) 962C-F). The second is the same as the oft-stated requirement
that a decision, in order to qualify as a judgment or order, must grant definite and distinct
relief (Willis Faber Enthoven (Pty) Ltd v Receiver of Revenue & Another 1992 (4) SA 202
(A) at 214D-G).’
[12] It is true that the refusal of an amendment may have a final and definitive
effect because a party may be precluded from leading evidence at the trial in respect
of the aspects which were to be introduced by the amendment of the pleadings.
However, the granting of an amendment does not, without more, have that effect.
Ordinarily, an order granting leave to amend is an interlocutory order which is not
final and definitive of the rights of the parties.
[13] A perusal of the order granted by the regional court does not suggest that the
order it granted had a final effect. However, given Macsteel’s contention that some of
the findings made by the regional court were definitive of the parties’ rights and were
final in effect, it may be necessary to consider the reasoning that informed its
decision. In doing so, it must be borne in mind that some of the remarks were made
in the course of that court addressing itself to the controversy about whether the
grounds of objections raised by Macsteel against the proposed amendment
manifested prejudice that was likely to hinder Macsteel in its defence of the claim. I
consider next the four grounds of objections raised by Macsteel as considered by the
regional court.
[14] The first ground of objection was directed at the jurisdiction of the regional
court to adjudicate the claim beyond its monetary threshold. Section 45(1) of the
4 Zweni v Minister of Law and Order; 1993 (1) SA 523 (A); [1993] 1 All SA 365 (A) para 8.
Magistrates Court Act5 permits the parties to a contract to consent in writing to the
adjudication of their contractual dispute in either the court for the district or the court
for the regional division in respect of an action which would ordinarily fall beyond the
jurisdiction of those courts. The regional court recorded that Vowles had referred it to
clause 20 of the lease agreement, which stipulated as follows:
‘The both parties hereby consents to the jurisdiction of the Magistrate’s Court (for the district
having physical jurisdiction over the person of the LANDLORD) in respect of all proceedings
arising out of this AGREEMENT OF LEASE, notwithstanding the amount claimed or the
nature of the claim. In no way derogating there from the LANDLORD shall be entitled to
institute any action arising out of this AGREEMENT OF LEASE in any other court of
competent jurisdiction’.
[15] The regional court then stated as follows on this aspect:
‘The respondent has argued that in terms of the first two lines in this clause, that this Court is
not the district court and that the district having physical jurisdiction over with the person of
the landlord, who is in fact the applicant, is in fact Benoni Court.
Of course the applicant has disagreed with this contention and I shall say no more, except to
say the following: The district of Benoni, did at the time of institution of this summons, fall
under the Regional Court of Kempton Park.
Additionally, the clause is wide enough to include any competent court and the applicant is
then free to even persist in high court if he so wishes. There is no merit in this first ground of
objection raised by the respondent.’
In my view, the regional court merely recognised the existence of a clause in the
parties’ agreement purportedly clothing a court in the district having physical
jurisdiction over Vowles, with the jurisdiction to adjudicate the action, but did not
finally determine the issue of jurisdiction. The dismissal of this ground of objection
appears to have been on the basis that the issue of jurisdiction could not, given
clause 20 of the lease agreement, serve as a bar to granting the amendment. Thus,
nothing precluded Macsteel from subsequently raising the issue of jurisdiction as a
point in limine. It follows that this ground of appeal has no merit.
5 Section 45(1) provides: ‘Subject to the provisions of section 46, the parties may consent in writing to
the jurisdiction of either the court for the district or the court for the regional division to determine any
action or proceedings otherwise beyond its jurisdiction in terms of section 29(1).’ The matters
excluded by s 46 include matters pertaining to the validity of a will, status of a person in respect of
mental capacity, specific performance without the alternative of damages, delivery of property
exceeding a certain value, and a decree of perpetual silence.
[16] The second ground of objection was that the augmentation of the amount of
the claim was tantamount to introducing a new cause of action. There is no merit to
this contention. A plaintiff is not precluded from augmenting its claim for damages if
the new claim merely represents a fresh quantification of the original claim.6 It
follows that this ground of appeal also has no merit.
[17] In its third ground of objection, Macsteel asserted that the amendment of the
citation of Macsteel introduced a new legal entity as a defendant in circumstances
where the claim had prescribed. Macsteel took issue with the fact that the amended
particulars of claim cited the defendant as ‘Macsteel Tube and Pipe Ltd, a division of
Macsteel Service Centres SA (Pty) Ltd. Macsteel submitted that insofar as Vowles
had included the phrase ‘a division of’ in Macsteel’s citation, it had actually cited a
non-existent party. Macsteel further argued that Vowles was attempting to introduce
a new defendant, namely ‘Macsteel Services Centres SA (Pty) Ltd trading as a
division thereof in the name of Macsteel Tube and Pipe’ as a new defendant in the
place of a non-existent one. Macsteel contended that the regional court’s
observation that the citation of the defendant matched the description of Macsteel in
the lease agreement, that the citation referred to the trading name of a defendant
who was easily identifiable was definitive of the parties’ rights and was also final in
effect.
[18] The regional court’s finding that the correction of the cited defendant is not
tantamount to introducing a new party to the proceedings finds support in Foxlake
Investments (Pty) Ltd t/a Foxway Developments v Ultimate Raft Foundation Design
Solutions CC t/a Ultimate Raft Design and Another (Foxlake), where this Court
stated as follows:7
‘As stated earlier, Foxway and Foxlake share the same registered address, receptionist and
managing director. The copy of the agreement on which the claim is based was attached to
the original summons. In my view when the summons was served on the registered address
of both Foxway and Foxlake, Foxway recognised its connection with the claim
notwithstanding the error in its description. The amendment sought by the respondents in
6 See Jones & Buckle The Civil Practice of the Magistrates’ Courts in South Africa – Volume 1: The
Act 10 ed (2012) p691.
7 Foxlake Investments (Pty) Ltd t/a Foxway Developments v Ultimate Raft Foundation Design
Solutions CC t/a Ultimate Raft Design and Another (Foxlake) [2016] ZASCA 54 para 14.
the court a quo did not seek to introduce a new legal entity as the first defendant. It merely
sought to correct the incorrect description of the defendant and encourage the proper
ventilation of the real disputes between the creditor (the respondents) and the debtor
(appellant). The question of prejudice to the appellants does not arise. The summons was
served on the true debtor in which summons the creditor was claiming payment of the debt
from the debtor.’
[19] The facts in the Foxlake judgment bear many similarities with the present
matter. The regional court’s observation that the citation in the original particulars of
claim matches the description in the lease agreement is borne out by the lease
agreement. Macsteel’s address was exactly the same in both the original summons
and the proposed amendment. The regional court’s finding that the defendant is
easily identifiable cannot be faulted. By parity of reasoning, in this matter, Macsteel’s
objection to the amendment of its citation was ill-conceived because the amendment
of the citation was merely intended to align Macsteel’s description in the summons to
the description in the lease agreement. The question of prejudice therefore did not
arise.
[20] Given the following remarks of this Court in Blaauwberg,8 there can be no
doubt about the fallacy of Macsteel’s contentions that the defendant cited in the
original summons was a non-existent party and that the defendant cited in the
proposed amendment introduced a new legal entity:
‘While the entitlement of the debtor to know it is the object of the [court] process is clear, in
its case the criterion fixed in s 15(1) is not the citation in the process but that there should be
service on the true debtor (not necessarily the named defendant) of process in which the
creditor claims payment of the debt. . . Presumably this is so because the true debtor will
invariably recognise its own connection with a claim if details of the creditor and its claim are
furnished to it, notwithstanding any error in its citation.’
It is clear from this passage, and the passage in Foxlake quoted in the preceding
paragraph, that even if it were to be accepted in Macsteel’s favour that the regional
court’s finding (that the amendment did not introduce a new defendant) was indeed
final in effect, these judgments deal a fatal blow to any prospects of success on an
appeal directed at this leg of Macsteel’s objection. It is plain that Macsteel
8 Blaauwberg Meat Wholesalers CC v Anglo Dutch Meats (Exports) Ltd [2003] ZASCA 144; 2004 (3)
SA 160 SA para 18.
recognised its connection with the claim notwithstanding that it considered the
citation to be flawed. It follows that this ground of appeal also has no merit.
[21] The fourth ground of objection was that the proposed amendment violated the
July 2016 order, as the original particulars of claim had been set aside. Macsteel
contended that in terms of the July 2016 order, Vowles was obliged to re-issue fresh
particulars of claim as opposed to amending them. This contention has no merit. It
must be borne in mind that although Macsteel’s exception was upheld, the regional
court specifically ordered that amended particulars of claim be filed (within 20 days).
The fact that the particulars of claim were set aside and were to be substituted with
amended particulars of claim did not mean there was no longer a pending action
between Macsteel and Vowles. Significantly, Vowles asked the regional court to
condone the late filing of its application to amend the particulars of claim; the
regional court, within its discretion, condoned the delay.
[22] Furthermore, Macsteel’s contention that summons was to be re-issued is
negated by the fact that in its notice of bar, it invited Vowles to file its amended
particulars of claim within five days. Logically, it would not have asked for the filing of
amended particulars of claim if its understanding of the order was that Vowles was
obliged to re-issue particulars of claim. Further and in any event, to the extent that
Macsteel averred that a prescribed cause of action was introduced by the
substitution of the particulars of claim, nothing precluded Macsteel from raising a
special plea of prescription when filing its plea. It follows that the contention that the
regional court made a final determination in relation to prescription has no merit.
[23] As stated before, prejudice is a key consideration in the determination of an
application for amendment of pleadings. Macsteel failed to present facts showing the
prejudice it stood to suffer on account of the proposed amendment. No prejudice
could be established from the objections raised by Macsteel. Since no prejudice was
shown, nothing stood in the way of the regional court granting the amendment. It
remains now to consider the issue of the discretion exercised by the regional court in
deciding whether or not to grant the amendment.
[24] It is trite that applications for amendment of pleadings are regulated by a wide
and generous discretion which leans towards the proper ventilation of disputes.9
Furthermore, amendments ‘will always be allowed unless the amendment is mala
fide (made in bad faith) or unless the amendment will cause an injustice to the other
side which cannot be cured by an appropriate order of costs, or “unless the parties
cannot be put back for the purposes of justice in the same position as they were
when the pleading which it is sought to amend was filed”.’10 The regional court’s
exercise of its discretion is evident from the following passage in its judgment:
‘The granting [or] refusing of an amendment is a matter of the Courts discretion and of
course it must be applied judiciously. The tendency in courts has generally been to allow an
amendment if it can be done with no prejudice to the other side and it is true that the Courts
approach applications in terms of rule 55(a), a little bit more charitably.’
[25] It is unnecessary for purposes of this appeal to determine whether the
discretion exercised by the regional court in granting the amendment brought in
terms of rule 55(10) was a discretion in the true sense or the loose sense. It suffices
merely to state that regardless of the nature of the discretion, the regional court’s
decision ought not to be interfered with lightly on appeal.11
[26] Insofar as Macsteel contended that it would be prejudiced by the granting of
the amendment because of Vowles’ inordinate delay in bringing its application for
amendment of its particulars of claim, it bears noting that a litigant’s delay in bringing
forward its amendment is not a ground for refusing the amendment.12 This is all the
more so in circumstances where the injustice to the other side can be cured by an
appropriate order of costs.13
[27] In this matter, the regional court considered the inordinate delay in bringing
the application and bemoaned the ‘. . . inordinate stops and starts to get the matter
off the ground. . . ’. Having concluded that there was no demonstrable prejudice that
9 Fn 8 above para 8.
10 Affordable Medicines Trust and Others v Minister of Health and Another 2005 (6) BCLR 529 (CC);
2006 (3) SA 247 (CC) para 9.
11 Trencon Construction Pty (Ltd) v Industrial Development Corporation of South Africa Limited and
Another [2015] ZACC 22; 2015 (10) BCLR 1199 (CC); 2015 (5) SA 245 (CC) paras 83-88.
12 See fn 8 above para 9.
13 See fn 10 above para 9.
could not be cured by an appropriate order of costs, it granted the amendment but
ordered Vowles to pay the costs of the application on an attorney and client scale.
On the strength of the authorities mentioned in the preceding paragraph, I am
satisfied that there is nothing to suggest that the regional court’s decision to condone
the delay and grant the amendment was not preceded by a judicial exercise of that
court’s discretion. In my view, that decision cannot be faulted. That being the case, it
follows that the high court correctly dismissed the appeal. For all the reasons
mentioned in the foregoing paragraphs, the appeal has no merit and falls to be
dismissed.
Order
[28] The appeal is dismissed with costs.
__________________
M B MOLEMELA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES
For appellant:
A C McKenzie
Instructed by:
Webber Wentzel, Sandton
Symington De Kok Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
A P Bruwer
Instructed by:
Schalk Britz Inc, Benoni
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
17 DECEMBER 2021
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does not form part of
the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Macsteel Tube and Pipe, a division of Macsteel Service Centres SA (Pty) Ltd v Vowles
Properties (Pty) Ltd (680/2020) [2021] ZASCA 178 (17 December 2021)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) handed down judgment dismissing, with costs, an appeal
against a decision of the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg (the high court).
The issues before the SCA were whether the regional court made a definitive order that cannot be
altered in relation to jurisdiction and, in particular, whether the amendment sought had the effect of
introducing a new cause of action or a new party in relation to a claim that had prescribed; and whether
the order granted by the regional court was appealable.
This appeal arises from an interlocutory application pertaining to the amendment of the particulars of
claim in an action that was instituted by Vowles Properties (Pty) Ltd (Vowles) against Macsteel Tube
and Pipe, a Division of Macsteel Service Centres SA (Pty) Ltd (Macsteel). On 24 January 2017, the
regional court granted an order setting aside the notice of amendment filed by Vowles as an irregular
step. On 20 February 2017, Vowles delivered its second notice of amendment in terms of rule 55A(1)
(the second rule 55A(1) notice). Macsteel again objected, as result of which Vowles withdrew that
notice. On 27 October 2017, Vowles filed another notice of amendment, this time stating that the
application was within the contemplation of rule 55A(4) (the October 2017 amendment application). The
notice stipulated that Vowles intended to make its application on 2 February 2018 at 09h00. However,
on 30 January 2018, Vowles’ attorneys filed a notice of withdrawal as attorneys of record. Vowles did
not attend the proceedings on 30 January 2018, as a result of which the regional court dismissed that
application with costs.
On 19 June 2018, Vowles, having appointed new attorneys of record, delivered a Notice of Motion (the
2018 amendment application) indicating its intention to, in terms of s 111(1) of the Magistrates’ Court
Act 32 of 1944 (Magistrates’ Court Act), alternatively in terms of rule 55A(10), amend the summons by
replacing it with a copy appended to the Notice of Motion as Annexure A. Vowles sought a number of
orders in the alternative, including an order declaring the proposed amendment as being an amendment
of the particulars of claim in compliance with the July 2016 order. Macsteel opposed the application and
raised a number of objections.
On 24 October 2018, the regional court granted Vowles leave to amend the particulars of claim and
ordered Macsteel to pay the costs of the application. Macsteel was aggrieved by that order and noted
an appeal on the basis that the regional court had made findings which were final in effect, which would
prejudice Macsteel’s conduct in defending Vowles’ claim. On 21 November 2018, Macsteel noted an
appeal against the whole of the judgment and order of the regional court except the costs order. Before
the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg (the high court), sitting as a full court, Macsteel
submitted that the regional court had erred in allowing the amendment of the particulars of claim.
According to Macsteel, Vowles’ application to amend its particulars of claim should have been
dismissed. The high court rejected that contention and dismissed the appeal with costs on 20 April
2020. Aggrieved by that order, Macsteel approached this Court seeking special leave to appeal against
the order of the high court.
In respect of the issue relating to jurisdiction, the SCA held that the regional court merely recognised
the existence of a clause in the parties’ agreement purportedly clothing a court in the district having
physical jurisdiction over Vowles, with the jurisdiction to adjudicate the action, but did not finally
determine the issue of jurisdiction. As regards Macsteel’s contention that the amendment of the amount
claimed was tantamount to the introduction of a new cause of action that had prescribed, the SCA
considered that contention to be without merit on the basis that a plaintiff is not precluded from
augmenting its claim for damages if the new claim merely represents a fresh quantification of the original
claim. The SCA held that Macsteel’s objection to the amendment of its citation was ill-conceived.
Relying on the judgments of Foxlake Investments (Pty) Ltd t/a Foxway Developments v Ultimate Raft
Foundation Design Solutions CC t/a Ultimate Raft Design and Another (Foxlake) [2016] ZASCA 54 and
Blaauwberg Meat Wholesalers CC v Anglo Dutch Meats (Exports) Ltd [2003] ZASCA 144, respectively,
the SCA held that even if it were to be accepted in Macsteel’s favour that the regional court’s finding in
relation to the amendment of the citation of Macsteel was indeed final in effect, that ground of appeal
bore no prospects of success, as Macsteel had recognised its connection with the claim notwithstanding
that it considered the citation to be flawed.
~~~~ends~~~~ |
4005 | non-electoral | 2023 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 1102/2021
In the matter between:
ROAD ACCIDENT FUND
APPELLANT
And
MKM obo KM and TM
RESPONDENT
CENTRE FOR CHILD LAW
AMICUS CURIAE
and
In the matter between:
ROAD ACCIDENT FUND
APPELLANT
and
NM obo CM and LM
RESPONDENT
CENTRE FOR CHILD LAW
AMICUS CURIAE
Neutral citation: Road Accident Fund v MKM obo KM and Another; Road
Accident Fund v NM obo CM and Another (with Centre for Child Law intervening
as Amicus Curiae) (1102/2021) [2023] ZASCA 50 (13 April 2023)
Bench:
MAKGOKA, MOTHLE and HUGHES JJA and NHLANGULELA
and MALI AJJA
Heard:
4 November 2022
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties’ representatives by email, publication on the Supreme Court of Appeal
website, and release to SAFLII. The date for hand down is deemed to be
13 April 2023 at 11h00.
Summary: Contingency Fees Act – whether s 4 imposes an obligation on the
Road Accident Fund to ensure that a legal practitioner obtains judicial approval
before it enters into a settlement agreement with such a practitioner – whether a
settlement agreement concluded without such judicial approval is unlawful.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg (Fisher J,
sitting as a court of first instance):
1 In respect of both matters, the appeal is upheld with no order as to costs.
2 Under case number 1677/2019, the order of the high court is set aside and
replaced with the following:
‘1 The contingency fees agreement entered into between Sonya
Meistre Attorneys Incorporated (Sonya Meistre Attorneys) and the
first plaintiff, is declared invalid;
2 Sonya Meistre Attorneys are directed to submit a bill of costs in
respect of their attorney-and-client fees to the Taxing Master of this
court (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg), within fifteen (15) days of
this order.
3 Should the taxed fees be less than the amount debited as fees (25%
of the capital amount) and already paid to Sonya Meistre Attorneys,
the attorneys shall within seven (7) days of such taxation, pay the
difference between the two amounts, into the Trust Account held on
behalf of the first plaintiff.
4 The Registrar of this court is directed to:
(a) to contact the first plaintiff and to explain to her the import of the
judgment and the rights that it accords her and the minor children; and
(b) to deliver a copy of this judgment to the Legal Practice Council;
5 The fees of the curator ad litem shall also be subjected to taxation
by the Taxing Master before they are paid.
6 Sonya Meistre Attorneys are ordered to cause a Trust to be
established within three months of this order in accordance with the
provisions of the Trust Property Control Act 57 of 1998 in respect of
the minor children;
7 The Trust referred to above must be established in accordance with
clauses 5.1 – 5.13, and 6 – 9 of the Draft Consent Order dated 20
January 2021;
8 Once the Trust is established, Sonya Meistre Attorneys are ordered
to pay to the Trust, all monies received from the defendant, the RAF,
and held in trust on behalf of the minor children;
9 Sonya Meistre Attorneys are ordered to report to the Registrar of
Judge Fisher within 3 months of this order regarding the establishment
of the Trust and the payment of the monies under clause 8 above.
10 The Registrar of this court is requested to bring a copy of this
judgment to the attention of the Legal Practice Council regarding the
conduct of Attorney Sonya Meistre, Adv Jonatan Johanan Bouwer,
and Adv Liezle Swart.’
3 Under case number 1928/2019, the order of the high court is set aside and
replaced with the following:
‘1 The contingency fees agreement entered into between Sonya
Meistre Attorneys Incorporated (Sonya Meistre Attorneys), and the
first plaintiff, is declared invalid;
2 Sonya Meistre Attorneys are directed to submit a bill of costs in
respect of their attorney-and-client fees to the Taxing Master of this
court (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg, within fifteen (15) days of
this order.
3 Should the taxed fees be less than the amount of R66 625.75
debited as fees and already paid to Sonya Meistre Attorneys, the
attorneys shall within seven (7) of such taxation, pay the difference
between the two amounts, to the first plaintiff.
4 The Registrar of this court is requested to bring a copy of this
judgment to the attention of the Legal Practice Council regarding the
conduct of Attorney Sonya Meistre and Adv Liezle Swart.’
________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
Makgoka JA (Mothle and Hughes JJA and Nhlangulela and Mali AJJA
concurring):
Introduction
[1] The two issues in this appeal are whether: (a) there is an obligation on the
Road Accident Fund (the RAF) to ensure that a legal practitioner complies with
s 4 of the Contingency Fees Act1 before it can conclude a settlement agreement
with a legal practitioner on behalf of a client; (b) a settlement agreement
concluded without judicial approval in terms of s 4 of the Contingency Fees Act,
and the RAF’s payment of the capital to a legal practitioner pursuant to such a
settlement agreement, are both unlawful.
[2] The Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg (the high court)
answered both questions in the affirmative, and accordingly, declared the
settlement agreements in the two matters before it to be unlawful, as they were
concluded without judicial approval. In addition, in the first matter, the curator
ad litem did not seek judicial approval to settle the matter as stipulated in a court
1 Contingency Fees Act 66 of 1997.
order in terms of which the curator ad litem was appointed. For this reason, too,
the high court declared the settlement agreement unlawful.
[3] Consequently, the high court set aside the settlement agreements. In the
first matter, it made several ancillary orders, including the suspension of the
appointed curator ad litem and the appointment of a new one on behalf of the
minor children. In the second matter, the high court nevertheless enforced the
settlement agreement.
[4] The RAF appeals against these orders, with the leave of the high court. The
respondents did not participate in this appeal. The Centre for Child Law, which
was admitted as amicus curiae in the high court, made submissions in this Court
in support of the high court’s judgment and orders.
The settlement agreements
[5] The settlement agreements in question were in respect of claims for loss of
support for minor children, who, in each case, had lost a parent due to fatal
injuries sustained in a motor vehicle collision. The respondents represented the
minor children in those claims against the RAF. Both respondents were
represented by Ms Sonya Meistre (Ms Meistre) a director of Sonya Meistre
Attorneys Incorporated (the attorneys), in prosecuting the claims on behalf of the
children. The attorneys concluded a contingency fees agreement with each of the
respondents, in terms of the Contingency Fees Act.
[6] The respondent in the first matter, under case number 1677/2019, is Ms
MKM, who acted on behalf of minor children KM and TM, following the death
of their mother, Ms K (the deceased), who passed away on 3 August 2018. The
deceased was Ms MKM’s sister, and thus the minor children’s aunt. Advocate
Bouwer was appointed as curator ad litem on behalf of the minor children on 28
November 2019. In terms of paragraph 3 of the order in term of which he was
appointed, he was ‘not allowed to accept any offers or make any settlements
without the permission of a Judge in chambers.’
[7] In the second matter, under case number 1928/2019, the respondent, Ms
NM acted on behalf of her minor children CM and LM, as their mother and
natural guardian, following the death of their father, Mr JM,2 who passed away
on 23 July 2018. There was no curator ad litem appointed in the second matter,
ostensibly as the minor children were represented by their biological mother.
The Contingency Fees Act
[8] It is convenient at this stage to set out the relevant provisions of the
Contingency Fees Act. Section 4 thereof provides for judicial oversight in respect
of settlement of matters where a contingency fees agreement has been concluded
between a client and a legal practitioner pursuant to that Act. It reads as follows:
‘Settlement
(1) Any offer of settlement made to any party who has entered into a contingency fees
agreement, may be accepted after the legal practitioner has filed an affidavit with the court, if
the matter is before court, or has filed an affidavit with the professional controlling body, if the
matter is not before court, stating-
(a) the full terms of the settlement;
(b) an estimate of the amount or other relief that may be obtained by taking the matter to trial;
(c) an estimate of the chances of success or failure at trial;
(d) an outline of the legal practitioner's fees if the matter is settled as compared to taking the
matter to trial;
(e) the reasons why the settlement is recommended;
(f) that the matters contemplated in paragraphs (a) to (e) were
explained to the client, and the steps taken to ensure that the client
2 The high court determined through the evidence of Ms NM that the father of the minor children was a
Zimbabwean national, Mr JM, who was using a fake South African identity document with the names of a South
African.
understands the explanation; and
(g) that the legal practitioner was informed by the client that he or she understands and accepts
the terms of the settlement.
(2) The affidavit referred to in subsection (1) must be accompanied by an affidavit by the client,
stating-
(a) that he or she was notified in writing of the terms of the settlement;
(b) that the terms of the settlement were explained to him or her, and that he or she understands
and agrees to them; and
(c) his or her attitude to the settlement.
(3) Any settlement made where a contingency fees agreement has been entered into, shall be
made an order of court, if the matter was before court.’
[9] It is the non-compliance with these provisions that led the high court to
hold that the settlement agreements were unlawful.
Factual background
[10] This is how the settlement agreements came about. Pursuant to their
instructions, the attorneys instituted actions on behalf of the children in the high
court in January 2019. In the first matter, the minor children’s claims were
R448 293 and R882 915 respectively. Ms MKM claimed R21 280 in her personal
capacity for funeral expenses. In the second matter, the claims on behalf of the
minor children were respectively, R110 144 and R154 220. Ms NM also claimed
R174 141 for loss of support as the ‘previous wife’ of the deceased Mr JM.
[11] On 3 November 2020, the RAF made offers of settlement to the attorneys
in the respective matters, which offers the attorneys eventually accepted. The first
matter was settled for R1 345 252, and the second, for R482 483, which amounts
were subsequently paid into the attorneys’ trust account.
[12] It is common cause that when accepting the offers of settlement in both
matters, the attorneys did not seek judicial approval in terms of s 4 of the
Contingency Fees Act. Additionally, in respect of the first matter, the curator ad
litem was neither involved in the settlement negotiations, nor was the settlement
offer approved by a Judge in chambers as directed in the court order.
Applications to have the draft orders made orders of court
[13] Subsequent to the settlement of both matters, the attorneys prepared draft
orders which recorded the terms of the settlement mentioned above, and made
provision for payment of costs and the taxation thereof. The draft order in the first
matter, in addition, makes provision for the creation of a Trust with the minor
children as the sole beneficiaries, into which the monies received on their behalf
would be paid. There are also detailed provisions for the management of the Trust
for the benefit of the minor children. Lastly, the draft order in each matter sought
to declare the contingency fees agreements between the attorneys and the
respondents to be invalid.
[14] On 20 January 2021, the attorneys applied to the high court to have the
draft orders to be made orders of court. The applications were unopposed. The
Judge who considered the applications (Fisher J) was not satisfied with a number
of aspects, and requested the attorneys and the RAF to provide explanations
thereto. In particular, the Judge sought clarity on whether the RAF can
competently enter into settlement agreements with the claimants inter partes, and
make payment in terms thereof, without judicial oversight. The court postponed
both matters for further submissions on these issues.
[15] In the meanwhile, the Centre for Child Law applied, and was admitted, to
intervene as amicus curiae. In due course, the respondents, the RAF, and the
amicus curiae filed affidavits and made written submissions. From the
explanations given to the court’s queries, it emerged, among others, that during
the settlement negotiations, the attorneys did not disclose to the RAF that both
respondents had signed contingency fees agreements.
[16] Furthermore, as far as the capital payments were concerned, the following
was revealed: In the first matter, upon receipt of the monies in their trust account,
the attorneys took 25% of the capital as their fees. However, no pay-out was made
to Ms MKM, and the capital remains in the attorneys’ trust account. In the second
matter, the attorneys took R66 625.75 as their fees and paid out the balance of
R361 877.25 to Ms NM, which she invested on behalf of the children.
The orders of the high court
[17] The applications by the attorneys to have draft orders made orders of court,
were eventually heard on 12 March 2021, and judgment was delivered on
7 April 2021. As mentioned already, the high court declared the settlement
agreements in both matters unlawful, and made the following orders,
respectively:
In the first matter:
‘1. The application is postponed sine die.
2. The settlement agreement is declared to be invalid.
3. Adv Nomvula C Nhlapho is appointed as curator ad litem for the purposes of investigating
the circumstances of the minor children and providing a report which deals with the Section
4(1) provisions of the CFA as set out in this judgment.
4. Adv Nhlapho shall have the power to:
4.1 Conclude a settlement agreement with the RAF on behalf of the children;
4.2 Place such settlement agreement before this court for approval;
4.3 Seek the court's directive in relation to what is to happen to the funds currently held in trust
by Ms Meistre;
4.4 Approach this court for interim relief as far as the needs and requirements of the children
are concerned, should she see fit to do so.
5. The RAF shall pay the fees of Adv Nhlapho directly to her within 30 days of receipt of an
invoice from her.
6. Mr Bouwer's curatorship is suspended pending the final determination of this matter and/or
this Court's further directives.
7. Until such further directives of this Court in relation to Mr Bouwer’s curatorship, he is not
entitled to charge or collect any fees for his services in this matter.
8. The monies paid to Ms Meistre by the RAF pursuant to the putative settlement concluded
between Ms Meistre and the RAF are to remain in trust with Ms Meistre pending this Court's
further direction.
9. Ms Meistre is to produce to this Court a draft bill of costs as to her fees in this matter within
15 days of this order.
10. A copy of this judgment is to be placed before the LPC and the conduct of Ms Meistre,
Adv Bouwer and Adv Swart is referred to the LPC for investigation.
11. The costs of the matter are reserved before me.’
And in the second matter:
1. The matter is postponed sine die.
2. It is directed that the amount of R 428 503-00 paid by the RAF under the putative settlement
agreement in this matter is allocated as follows:
a. R 164 141 is the amount due to Ms MN (First Plaintiff) personally.
b. R 110 142 is the amount due to C (Second Plaintiff)
c. R 154 220 is the amount due to L (Third Plaintiff)
3. Ms [Meistre] is to produce to this court a draft bill of costs as to her fees in this matter within
15 days of this order.
4. The conduct of Ms Meistre and Adv Swart is referred to the LPC for investigation.
5. The costs of the matter are reserved before me.
6. A copy of this judgment in relation to both cases is to be delivered by the Registrar to the
NDPP and the Minister of Transport.’
Analysis
[18] I turn now to consider whether the high court was correct in making these
orders. In each of the matters, summons was issued in January 2019. The offers
of settlement were made in November 2020. The matters were therefore before
court as envisaged in both ss 4(1) and 4(3) of the Contingency Fees Act. Thus,
pursuant to those provisions, the attorneys were undoubtedly obliged to obtain
judicial approval before accepting the offers of settlement agreements from the
RAF. As mentioned already, it is common cause that the attorneys did not comply
with this requirement. Two questions arise from this non-compliance.
[19] First, does the RAF bear any obligation to ensure that a legal practitioner
complies with s 4 of the Contingency Fees Act? Second, does non-compliance
with those provisions by the legal practitioner invalidates the settlement
agreement concluded between the RAF and the claimant, and the payment made
pursuant to it? I consider these, in turn.
Does the RAF bear obligation to ensure compliance with s 4 of the Contingency
Fees Act?
[20] The high court answered this question in the affirmative. It concluded that
the RAF acts contrary to its functions and powers when it enters into a settlement
agreement with a claimant’s attorneys without judicial oversight, and that
payment pursuant to such a settlement agreement, is unlawful. It reasoned as
follows:
‘[T]he validity of a contingency fees agreement is integral to the RAF’s ability lawfully to
enter into a settlement agreement. The provisions of the Contingency Fees Act permeate the
entire settlement process for litigious claims in the RAF environment and the contractual and
other relationships which operate in the field of the RAF claim can only be understood with
reference to CFA.’
[21] The views expressed by the high court are simply not correct. The
Contingency Fees Act came into operation on 23 April 1999. Its history, statutory
context, and purpose were considered in the report of the South African Law
Commission (South African Law Commission, Project 93 ‘Speculative and
Contingency Fees’ November 1996) and Price Waterhouse Coopers v National
Potato Co-operative3 (Price Waterhouse Coopers). There is nothing in that report
or Price Waterhouse Coopers that suggests that the contingency fees agreements
in claims against the RAF occupied the minds of those responsible for the
enactment of the Contingency Fees Act.
[22] The Contingency Fees Act is a legislation of general application and is not
aimed only at contingency fees agreements in the context of claims against the
RAF. Thus, there is no single reference to road accident fund claims in the
Contingency Fees Act. It was thus impermissible for the high court to carve out
a special dispensation in respect of contingency fees agreements where claims are
against the RAF.
[23] Furthermore, the RAF discharges its mandate in terms of the Road
Accident Fund Act4 (the RAF Act). That Act, in s 4(1)(b), sets out as one of the
RAF’s powers and functions, ‘the investigation and settling’ of claims arising
from loss or damage caused by the driving of a motor vehicle. This section does
not subject the RAF’s power to any judicial approval, and there is nothing in the
Contingency Fees Act that this changed with the advent of the latter Act.
[24] The RAF’s power to settle matters (without judicial approval) before
litigation is given impetus by s 24(6)(a) and (b) of the RAF Act, which provides:
‘No claim shall be enforceable by legal proceedings commenced by a summons served on the
Fund or an agent –
(a)
before the expiry of a period of 120 days from the date on which the claim was sent or
delivered by hand to the Fund or the agent as contemplated in subsection (1); and
(b)
before all requirements contemplated in in section 19(f) have been complied with:
3 Price Waterhouse Coopers v Inc and Others v National Potato Co-operative Ltd [2004] ZASCA 64; 2004 (6)
SA 66 (SCA); [2004] 3 All SA 20 (SCA) (Price Waterhouse Coopers) paras 26-46.
4 56 of 1996.
Provided that the Fund or the agent repudiates in writing liability for the claim before the expiry
of the said period, the third party may at any time after such repudiation serve summons on the
Fund or the agent, as the case may be.’
[25] Historically, the RAF has used this window period of 120 days to consider
and investigate claims. Similarly, there is no suggestion that with the advent of
the Contingency Fees Agreement, the RAF can now only exercise this power
subject to compliance by a legal practitioner with the provisions of s 4 of the
Contingency Fees Act.
[26] The high court also said:
‘In short, where there is a [contingency fees agreement] (and this would rationally be the case
in all RAF matters where action is instituted using the services of an attorney) the RAF is not
empowered to make an out of court settlement.’
and
‘[A]s part of its administrative function, [the RAF] has a duty to see to it that the provisions of
[the Contingency Fees Act] are strictly adhered to when it comes to settling claims.’
Also,
‘The making of payment without a court order, is incompetent and contrary to the statutory
scheme which binds the RA. Without a valid settlement it has no basis to pay out on the claim
and such payment is technically made ultra vires.
[27] I disagree with these pronouncements and findings. It must be borne in
mind that a contingency fees agreement is a bilateral agreement between a legal
practitioner and his or her client. It has nothing to do with a party against whom
the client has a claim – the RAF in this instance. By its very nature, it is
confidential and privileged between the client and his or her legal practitioner.
Thus, ordinarily, a third party against whom a claim is prosecuted (such as the
RAF), would not know about its existence, and has no right, nor an obligation, to
enquire about its existence or its contents.
[28] The effect of the high court’s judgment is that in each claim against it,
before it makes an offer of settlement, and pays in terms of the subsequent
settlement, the RAF must enquire from the claimant’s legal practitioner whether
there is a contingency fees agreement. If there is, the RAF must insist that the
legal practitioner must obtain judicial approval in terms of s 4(1) of the
Contingency Fees Act before it concludes a settlement agreement with him or
her. If it does not, and it settles the claim, and pays out the capital amount without
the legal practitioner having obtained judicial approval, it acts unlawfully.
[29] That is untenable. There are no textual or contextual indications in the
Contingency Fees Act that the RAF bears any obligation to insist on a legal
practitioner to obtain judicial oversight before it concludes a settlement
agreement with such a practitioner. As the short title of the Contingency Fees Act
makes plain, the Act was enacted:
‘To provide for contingency fees agreements between legal practitioners and their clients; and
to provide for matters connected therewith.’
[30] It is practically not clear how the RAF can force the legal practitioners,
who act on behalf of its opponents, to comply with s 4 of the Contingency Fees
Act. The high court, by a fiat, impermissibly imposed an obligation on the RAF
not contemplated in the Contingency Fees Act. It did so, purportedly on the basis
of a ‘purposive interpretation’ of the Contingency Fees Act. This, with respect, is
not interpretation, but legislation, which is not within a court’s remit.
[31] I therefore conclude that there is no obligation on the RAF to ensure that
the legal practitioner complies with the provisions of s 4 before it concludes a
settlement agreement with him or her. It may well be salutary, where a
contingency fees agreement is in place, for the RAF to enquire whether there has
been compliance with s 4 of the Contingency Fees Act before it concludes a
settlement agreement with a legal practitioner. But that does not equate to a
statutory or legal obligation.
Does non-compliance with s 4 invalidate the settlement agreement?
[32] In terms of s 4(1) of the Contingency Fees Act, once an offer of settlement
is made to a claimant who has concluded a contingency fees agreement with a
legal practitioner, such a practitioner is not entitled to accept the offer of
settlement without the approval of the court, if it is a litigious matter, or the
professional controlling body, in case of a non-litigious matter.
[33] In the context of claims pursuant to the RAF Act, provided a contingency
fees agreement has been concluded, the Contingency Fees Act would find
application in two instances envisaged in s 4(1) of that Act. First, if the RAF
makes an offer of settlement during the period of 120 days envisaged in s 24(6)(a)
of the RAF Act. The second instance would arise after the expiry of the 120 days
or where the RAF had, before the expiry of that period, repudiated liability, and
in each case, a claimant has served a summons in terms of the proviso to s 24(6)
of the RAF Act.
[34] In each of the two instances, the claimant’s legal practitioner has an
obligation to seek approval of the offer of settlement from the professional
controlling body or the court, as the case may be, depending on whether the matter
is litigious or non-litigious. The legal practitioner has no discretion in this regard.
To obtain such approval, s 4(1) requires such a legal practitioner to file an
affidavit stating the factors referred to in that section. In terms of s 4(2), such an
affidavit must be accompanied by the confirmatory affidavit of the practitioner’s
client. To put the issue beyond doubt, s 4(3) provides that ‘[a]ny settlement made
where a contingency fees agreement has been entered into, shall be made an order
of court, if the matter was before court.’
[35] According to the high court, non-compliance with these provisions
invalidates the underlying settlement agreement, and payment pursuant to such
settlement agreement is unlawful. It seems to me that the high court conflated two
issues that should be kept separate and distinct – the non-compliance by the legal
practitioner with s 4 of the Contingency Fees Act on the one hand, and the validity
of a settlement agreement, on the other. In my view, the invalidity of the former
does not affect the validity of the latter. There are consequences for the legal
practitioner if there is non-compliance with s 4, which I consider next.
[36] It is trite that a contingency fees agreement that is not covered by the
Contingency Fees Act, or which does not comply with its requirements, is
invalid.5 Thus, the effect of non-compliance with s 4 of the Contingency Fees Act
is that as between the legal practitioner and his or her client, the agreement is
unenforceable. Thus, the legal practitioner would not be entitled to charge the
client higher fees set out in the contingency fees agreement, but only to his or her
reasonable attorney and client fees. As explained in Tjatji and Others v Road
Accident Fund:6
‘As both the initial and new contingency fee agreements are invalid the common law will apply.
Under the common law, the plaintiffs’ attorneys are only entitled to a reasonable fee in relation
to the work performed. Taxation of a bill of costs is the method whereby the reasonableness of
a fee is assessed. The plaintiffs’ attorneys are therefore only entitled to such fees as are taxed
or assessed on an attorney and own client basis.’7
5 Ronald Bobroff & Partners Inc v De La Guerre [2014] ZACC 2; 2014 (3) SA 134 (CC); Masango v Road
Accident Fund [2016] ZAGPJHC 227; 2016 (6) 508 (GJ) para 1; Fluxmans Incorporated v Levenson [2016]
ZASCA 183; [2017] 1 All SA 313 (SCA); 2017 (2) SA 520 (SCA) para 27; Mostert and Others v Nash and
Another [2018] ZASCA 62; 2018 (5) SA 409 (SCA) para 54; Mfengwana v Road Accident Fund [2016]
ZAECGHC 159; 2017 (5) SA 445 (ECG) (Mfengwana) para 12; Mathimba and Others v Nonxwba and Others
2019 (1) SA 591 (ECG) para 118.1.
6 Tjatji and Others v Road Accident Fund [2012] ZAGPJHC 198; 2013 (2) SA 632 (GSJ).
7 Ibid para 26.
[37] But it does not follow that because the contingency fees agreement is
invalid, the underlying settlement agreement concluded between the RAF and the
legal practitioner on behalf of his or her client, is also invalid, as suggested by the
high court. As explained in Price Waterhouse Coopers, the fact that a litigant has
entered into an unlawful agreement with a third party to provide funds to finance
his case is a matter extraneous to the dispute between the litigant and the other
party and is therefore irrelevant to the issues arising in the dispute, whatever the
cause of action.8
[38] Consistent with that approach, in Mfengwana v Road Accident Fund9
(Mfengwana) the court declared the contingency fees agreement invalid, but still
made the settlement agreement an order of court. Plasket J adopted an admirably
practical approach, which, with respect, I endorse. He remarked:
‘I am able to make an order, in the absence of compliance with s 4(1) and s 4(2) of the Act, to
settle Mr Mfengwana’s claim against the RAF. I do so because, it seems to me, [the claimant]
will be prejudiced by any further delay, which is not of his making, and because, having been
seized of the matter, I have satisfied myself (to the extent that I am able) that the settlement is
fair. . .’10
[39] To protect the interests of the plaintiff, the court in Mfengwana built into
its order some safeguards. The order provided that the plaintiff’s attorneys could
only recover from him, their attorney and client costs after such costs had been
taxed. The Registrar was also requested: (a) to contact the plaintiff and to explain
to him the import of the judgment and the rights that it accords him; and (b) to
deliver a copy of the judgment to the professional controlling body (the Cape Law
Society at the time).
8 Price Waterhouse Coopers fn 3 para 48.
9 Mfengwana fn 4.
10 Ibid para 30.
[40] The effect of non-compliance with s 4 of the Contingency Fees Act on
settlement agreements and court orders arose squarely in Theodosiou v Schindlers
Attorneys.11 The first defendant, a firm of attorneys, had represented the plaintiffs
in several litigious matters and had agreed to do so on a contingency basis.
Settlement agreements were concluded in some of the matters and were made
orders of court. The plaintiffs thereafter sought to set aside two court orders, one
incorporating the two settlement agreements and the other, the consent to a
monetary judgment, due to non-compliance with the Contingency Fees Act. They
contended that as the contingency fees agreement was illegal and void due to the
said non-compliance, all agreements and orders flowing from that agreement
were also void.
[41] The court concluded that while non-compliance with the Contingency Fees
Act rendered the contingency fees agreement invalid and void, this does not
invalidate any related settlement agreement made an order of court without justus
error, fraud, or public policy considerations.
[42] In my view, this holding is, with respect, undoubtedly correct. It accords
with the general principle of our law as articulated in Price Waterhouse Coopers
and applied in Mfengwana. Thus, the contrary holdings by the high court cannot
be supported.
The high court’s residual pronouncements and ancillary orders
[43] Before I conclude, I am constrained to comment on some of the high
court’s pronouncements with regard to claims involving minor children. First, the
high court suggested that the RAF has an added responsibility when it comes to
claims on behalf of minor children. The high court said:
11 Theodosiou and Others v Schindlers Attorneys and Others [2022] ZAGPJHC 9; [2022] 2 All SA 256 (GJ); 2022
(4) SA 617 (GJ).
‘The administrative function of the RAF is thus all the more important where it is entering into
settlement negotiations with a person representing a child. Before it pays, the RAF has the duty
to satisfy itself that a proper case has been presented on behalf of the child. It cannot do this in
the context of its function unless it is allowed a sense of the merits. This will entail a proper
case as to the claim being placed before the RAF.’
[44] While one cannot quibble with the general thrust that the minor children’s
best interests ought to be considered in all matters concerning them, in claims
pursuant to the RAF Act, it is generally not the duty of the RAF to secure such
interests. That duty falls on those entrusted with the task to look after the interests
of the minor children, like the legal practitioners appointed on their behalf, and
curators ad litem, where they have been appointed. Ultimately, the duty rests on
the court as the upper guardian of the minor children.
[45] The RAF, it must be borne in mind, is a litigant whose interests are not
always aligned with those of the minor children. It can, for example, only consider
a claim on behalf of a minor child as it receives it from those who represent the
minor child. Thus, it can only investigate the claim as presented to it, and cannot
be expected to go beyond that. It could be that in certain instances the RAF would
be expected to play a more proactive role in a claim on behalf of a minor, for
example, where a person who lodges a claim on behalf of a minor is not legally
represented. But that was not the situation in either of the two matters before the
high court, and the high court’s discussion on this aspect was with respect, not
necessary.
[46] More so, there was no suggestion that any of the minor children’s claims
were under-settled. On the contrary, it appears that both matters were settled very
close to what was originally claimed. In the first matter, R1 354 488 was initially
claimed. It was settled for R1 345 252. In the second matter, the initial claim was
R438 505, which was settled for R482 483.
[47] The high court also purported to prescribe additional factors to those set
out in s 4(1)(a)–(g) of the Contingency Fees Act, when judicial approval is sought
to accept an offer of settlement made in respect of a minor child’s claim. The
high court held that, in addition to those factors, the legal practitioner’s affidavit
should also contain the following factors: (a) the relationship between the plaintiff
and the child, and the duration thereof; (b) the circumstances that led to the
plaintiff caring for the child; (c) the interests of the plaintiff; (d) the financial
circumstances of the plaintiff and his or her ability to safeguard and administer
the money; (d) the personal and financial circumstances of the child including his
or her home circumstances and maintenance needs; (e) a justification for the
vehicle agreed to administer the funds and why such a vehicle is preferable to the
other possibilities; and (f) the views and wishes of the child concerned, where
appropriate.
[48] The high court was influenced in this regard by its view that ‘the provisions
of the Contingency Fees Act permeate the entire settlement process for litigious
claims in the RAF environment.’ I have demonstrated that this is not so. In any
event, the additional factors suggested by the high court are among those which,
ordinarily, would be contained in a report to the court by a curator ad litem where
such has been appointed. And this would inevitably be the case in all matters
where minor children are represented by persons other than their biological
parents.
[49] It is certainly not for the courts to prescribe additional factors to the
legislative scheme of the Contingency Fees Act. That is for the Legislature. In
my view, the high court impermissibly trenched upon the tenet of separation of
powers, and improperly trespassed on the exclusive domain of the Legislature.
As explained in National Treasury v Opposition to Urban Tolling Alliance,12
courts must refrain from entering the exclusive terrain of the Executive and the
Legislative branches of State unless the intrusion is mandated by the Constitution
itself. This is not the case here.
[50] The high court also embarked on a consideration of various vehicles to
protect monies claimed on behalf of minor children pursuant to the RAF Act.
After a lengthy excursus, the high court concluded that the Guardian’s Fund
offered ‘a safe, reliable, accessible and free service and it should not be
overlooked by a court as a possible vehicle for protecting children’s monies,
based only on apocryphal reports of inefficiency in the Master’s Office.’
[51] To my mind, this was not necessary in the present case. There was no
suggestion that the funds received on behalf of the minor children were not
properly secured in their interests. As mentioned already, in the first matter,
provision had been made for the creation of a Trust with the minor children as the
sole beneficiaries, into which the monies received on their behalf would be paid.
[52] In its judgment, the high court did not state what is objectionable about the
envisaged Trust, which is a standard practice in matters such as this. On the face
of it, this appears to be in the best interests of the minor children. In the second
matter, the mother of the minor children had responsibly invested the funds on
behalf of the minor children, and the high court was satisfied with this
arrangement. In my view, this should have been the end of the matter.
[53] In light of the above, the high court should have separated the enquiry into
the best interests of the minor children, from its concerns about the conduct of the
12 National Treasury and Others v Opposition to Urban Tolling Alliance and Others [2012] ZACC 18; 2012 (6)
SA 223 (CC); 2012 (11) BCLR 1148 (CC) para 48.
legal practitioners and the curator ad litem. It could have made orders referring
their conduct to the Law Practice Council, without holding back payment of the
monies for the benefit of the minor children in the first matter. As mentioned
already, on the face of it, the claim was fairly settled – close to what was initially
claimed. A Trust was to be created to regulate the management of the funds on
behalf of the minor children.
[54] On the facts before it, the best interests of the minor children dictated that
the high court should have ratified the processes in respect of the settlement of
the minor children’s claims. Instead, the high court adopted a pedantic and
unnecessarily formalistic approach. As a result, the minor children in the first
matter, have to date, still not received the benefit of the funds received on their
behalf. This is prejudicial, and not in their best interests.
[55] It is worth pointing out that none of the wide-ranging and far-reaching
orders made by the high court were sought by any of the parties. Just to recap,
what was before the high court, and which the high court was called to adjudicate
upon, were unopposed applications to have the draft orders made orders of court.
Much of what was traversed by the high court in its judgment was not germane
to the issues and the facts before it. I have already alluded to the high court’s
extensive consideration as to whether the Guardian’s Fund was a possible vehicle
to protect monies claimed on behalf of minor children. For the reasons already
mentioned, this was irrelevant on the facts of these matters.
[56] I briefly turn to examine the orders granted by the high court and their
appropriateness or desirability.
Appointment of a new curator ad litem
[57] In the first matter, the court postponed the matter sine die and appointed a
new curator ad litem with ancillary orders. In my view, this was unnecessary. As
mentioned already, the matter had been settled in what appeared to be a fair
amount, and a Trust was envisaged to be created to manage the monies on behalf
of the children. The new curator ad litem was appointed ostensibly on the court’s
holding that the settlement agreement concluded between the RAF and the
attorneys was invalid, hence the new curator ad litem was to ‘conclude a
settlement agreement with the RAF on behalf of the children’ and ‘place such
settlement agreement before this court for approval’.
[58] Having concluded in this judgment that the settlement agreement is valid,
the substratum for the appointment of a new curator ad litem unravels. This order
should accordingly be set aside. On the available facts, I am satisfied that the
minor children’s interests would be served by paying the monies on their behalf
into the Trust to be created. I find nothing worrisome in the provisions of the
envisaged Trust regarding the interests of the minor child are concerned.
[59] In his three reports, the originally appointed curator ad litem confirmed
that, contrary to the court order in terms of which he was appointed, he did not
obtain the court’s approval before accepting the settlement agreement. His
explanation therefor was that this occurred during the lockdown period as a result
of the Covid-19 pandemic. He explains that no Judges were available at court,
and thus could not approach a Judge in chambers for that purpose. However, he
was satisfied that the settlement agreement was in the best interests of the
children. He, therefore, ratified the settlement agreement and requested the court
to ‘condone’ his non-compliance with the court order.
[60] In my view, this explanation is unconvincing. During the Covid-19
lockdown period, court administration was not halted. There is nothing that
prevented the curator ad litem from requesting the Deputy Judge President to
designate a Judge to consider the settlement and give his or her approval, without
physical contact. Having said that, the overriding consideration is whether it was
in the best interests of the minor children for the high court to nevertheless
condone the curator ad litem’s failure to obtain judicial approval of the settlement
offer.
[61] I am of the view that the high court should have acceded to the curator ad
litem’s request, and approved the settlement agreement, which appears to be in
the best interests of the minor children. Thus viewed, the appointment of a new
curator ad litem was not necessary. The order in terms of which she was
appointed, and its ancillary provisions, should be set aside. I am alive to the fact
that the new curator ad litem may well have performed some work in terms of the
high court’s order. To that extent, she should be remunerated for her services,
despite us setting aside her appointment.
Referral to the National Director of Public Prosecutions and the Minister of
Transport
[62] It is not clear from the judgment why the high court deemed it necessary
to bring the judgment to the attention of the National Director of Public
Prosecutions and the Minister. The referral to the National Director of Public
Prosecutions suggests that the Judge held a prima facie view that there was some
criminal conduct by someone in the matter. However, nowhere in the judgment
does the Judge identify such prima facie criminal conduct and ‘the culprit’ to be
investigated. As regards the referral to the Minister, I assume that this was
predicated on the court’s holding that the RAF acted unlawfully in settling the
matter with the attorneys without complying with s 4 of the Contingency Fees
Act. I have clarified that the RAF did not act unlawfully. Consequently, this order
should be set aside in both matters.
Allocation of the capital amount: second matter
[63] The second matter was also postponed sine die, and the court directed how
the capital of R 428 503-00 paid by the RAF should be allocated between the
respondent and the minor children. In light of the fact that the money had already
been paid, and the minor children’s portion had been invested to the satisfaction
of the court, these orders seem superfluous and should be done away with.
Bills of costs
[64] In both matters, the high court ordered the attorneys ‘to produce to the
Court a draft bill of costs as to her fees in this matter within 15 days of this order.’
For what purpose, it may be asked? Suppose such a bill of costs is presented to
the court and upon perusal, it questions some of the items. What would it do about
it? Not much, because whether a legal practitioner’s fees are reasonable or not, is
not within a court’s remit. That is the function of the Taxing Master. This order
should be set aside and replaced with a suitable order in terms of which the
attorneys’ bills of costs would be subjected to taxation by the Taxing Master
before presenting them to the respondents for payment.
Referral to the Legal Practice Council
[65] In seeking approval to have the draft orders made orders of court, the legal
representatives gave the court the impression that the payments to the attorneys
would be made once the orders were made. They failed to disclose to the court
that in both matters: (a) capital had already been made; (b) the attorneys had
already taken their fees without any taxation of such fees. Thus, the court was
effectively misled. This conduct on the part of the legal practitioners should be
brought to the attention of the Legal Practice Council. So should the conduct of
the curator ad litem in failing to seek judicial conduct before accepting the offer
of settlement. Thus, this referral was, in my view, appropriate, and should be
retained.
A court should confine itself to the issues
[66] Before I conclude, it is necessary to say something about how the high
court went about adjudicating these matters. As interesting as some of the issues
raised by the high court might be, they simply did not arise on the papers before
it, and it was therefore not necessary for it to pronounce on them. This Court has
emphasised the need for courts to confine themselves to the issues before them.
In Fischer v Ramahlele this Court cautioned:13
‘[I]t is for the parties, either in the pleadings or affidavits, which serve the function of both pleadings
and evidence, to set out and define the nature of their dispute, and it is for the court to adjudicate upon
those issues. . . . [T]here may also be instances where the court may mero motu raise a question of law
that emerges fully from the evidence and is necessary for the decision of the case. That is subject to the
proviso that no prejudice will be caused to any party by its being decided. Beyond that, it is for the
parties to identify the dispute and for the court to determine that dispute and that dispute alone.’14
(Footnotes omitted. Emphasis added.)
[67] Recently, it became necessary for this Court to repeat the admonition in
Advertising Regulatory Board v Bliss Brands15 (Bliss Brands). That case
concerned an advertisement dispute between Bliss Brand and the Advertising
Regulatory Board (ARB). The high court in that matter (incidentally Fisher J),16
had mero motu questioned the constitutionality of the powers of the ARB, and
13 Fischer and Another v Ramahlele and Others [2014] ZASCA 88; 2014 (4) SA 614 (SCA); [2014] 3 All
395 (SCA).
14 Ibid para 13. Received the imprimatur of the Constitutional Court in Public Protector v South African Reserve
Bank [2019] ZACC 29; 2019 (6) SA 253 (CC) para 234. See also National Commissioner of Police and Another
v Gun Owners of South Africa [2020] ZASCA 88; [2020] 4 All SA 1 (SCA); 2020 (6) SA 69 (SCA); 2021 (1)
SACR 44 (SCA) para 26.
15 Advertising Regulatory Board NPC and Others v Bliss Brands (Pty) Ltd [2022] ZASCA 51; [2022] 2 All SA
607 (SCA); 2022 (4) SA 57 (SCA) (Bliss Brands).
16 The same Judge in the present matter.
issued a directive that the parties submit arguments on the issue, and other issues
identified mero motu by the court.
[68] After referring to the passage in Fischer v Ramahlele (above) this Court in
Bliss Brands said:
‘This admonition [in Fischer v Ramahlele], regrettably, was disregarded by the high court.
Bliss Brands’ submission to the jurisdiction of the ARB should have put paid to any challenge
to jurisdiction, or to the constitutionality of the Code or MOI. Instead, the issuance of the
directive resulted in virtually an entirely new case for decision.’17
In this case, too, the admonition was regrettably disregarded.
Conclusion
[69] In all the circumstances, I am satisfied that the appeal must succeed. There
should not be any costs order.
Order
[70] The following order is made:
1 In respect of both matters, the appeal is upheld with no order as to costs.
2 Under case number 1677/2019, the order of the high court is set aside and
replaced with the following:
‘1 The contingency fees agreement entered into between Sonya
Meistre Attorneys Incorporated (Sonya Meistre Attorneys) and the
first plaintiff, is declared invalid;
2 Sonya Meistre Attorneys are directed to submit a bill of costs in
respect of their attorney-and-client fees to the Taxing Master of this
court (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg), within fifteen (15) days of
this order.
17 Bliss Brands fn 14 para 10.
3 Should the taxed fees be less than the amount debited as fees (25%
of the capital amount) and already paid to Sonya Meistre Attorneys,
the attorneys shall within seven (7) days of such taxation, pay the
difference between the two amounts, into the Trust Account held on
behalf of the first plaintiff.
4 The Registrar of this court is directed to:
(a) to contact the first plaintiff and to explain to her the import of the
judgment and the rights that it accords her and the minor children; and
(b) to deliver a copy of this judgment to the Legal Practice Council;
5 The fees of the curator ad litem shall also be subjected to taxation
by the Taxing Master before they are paid.
6 Sonya Meistre Attorneys are ordered to cause a Trust to be
established within three months of this order in accordance with the
provisions of the Trust Property Control Act 57 of 1998 in respect of
the minor children;
7 The Trust referred to above must be established in accordance with
clauses 5.1 – 5.13, and 6 – 9 of the Draft Consent Order dated
20 January 2021;
8 Once the Trust is established, Sonya Meistre Attorneys are ordered
to pay to the Trust, all monies received from the defendant, the RAF,
and held in trust on behalf of the minor children;
9 Sonya Meistre Attorneys are ordered to report to the Registrar of
Judge Fisher within 3 months of this order regarding the establishment
of the Trust and the payment of the monies under clause 8 above.
10 The Registrar of this court is requested to bring a copy of this
judgment to the attention of the Legal Practice Council regarding the
conduct of Attorney Sonya Meistre, Adv Jonatan Johanan Bouwer,
and Adv Liezle Swart.’
3 Under case number 1928/2019, the order of the high court is set aside and
replaced with the following:
‘1 The contingency fees agreement entered into between Sonya
Meistre Attorneys Incorporated (Sonya Meistre Attorneys), and the
first plaintiff, is declared invalid;
2 Sonya Meistre Attorneys are directed to submit a bill of costs in
respect of their attorney-and-client fees to the Taxing Master of this
court (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg, within fifteen (15) days of
this order.
3 Should the taxed fees be less than the amount of R66 625.75 debited
as fees and already paid to Sonya Meistre Attorneys, the attorneys
shall within seven (7) of such taxation, pay the difference between the
two amounts, to the first plaintiff.
4 The Registrar of this court is requested to bring a copy of this
judgment to the attention of the Legal Practice Council regarding the
conduct of Attorney Sonya Meistre and Adv Liezle Swart.’
__________________
TATI MAKGOKA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances:
For appellant:
R Schoeman
(Heads of Argument drafted by R Schoeman and L
Mokgoroane)
Instructed by:
Malatji and Co., Johannesburg
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For amicus curiae:
RM Courtenay
Instructed by:
Centre for Child Law, Faculty of Law, University of
Pretoria
Webbers Attorneys, Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY
FROM The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE 13 April 2023
STATUS Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form part of the
judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
Road Accident Fund v MKM obo KM and Another; Road Accident Fund v NM obo CM and Another
(with Centre for Child Law intervening as Amicus Curiae) (1102/2021) [2023] ZASCA 50
(13 April 2023)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal handed down a judgment in which it upheld appeals by the Road
Accident Fund (the RAF) against orders of the Gauteng Division of the High Court Johannesburg (the
high court). That court had, in both matters, held that the RAF is obliged to ensure that a legal
practitioner complies with s 4 of the Contingency Fees Act 66 of 1997, before it concludes a settlement
agreement with such a practitioner on behalf of a client. Consequently, the high court concluded that a
settlement agreement concluded without judicial approval in terms of s 4 of the Contingency Fees Act,
and the RAF’s payment of the capital to a legal practitioner pursuant to such a settlement agreement,
are both unlawful. Accordingly, the high court declared the settlement agreements in the two matters
before it to be unlawful, as they were concluded without judicial approval.
The Supreme Court of Appeal considered s 4 of the Contingency Fees Act. That section provides,
among others, that where a practitioner has concluded a contingency fees agreement with a client, and
an offer of settlement is made to such a client, the practitioner is obliged to seek the court’s approval
before accepting the offer. The Court concluded that the Act imposed no obligation on the RAF to
ensure that a legal practitioner complies with s 4 of the Act before it concludes a settlement agreement
with such a practitioner.
The consequence of non-compliance with s 4 is that the practitioner loses his or her right to charge a
higher fee in terms of the contingency fees agreement. He or she would only be entitled to reasonable
attorney-and-client fees. However, this did not have any effect on the validity of the underlying
settlement agreement.
The Supreme Court of Appeal consequently upheld the appeals and substituted the orders of the high
court with appropriate orders.
*END* |
3851 | non-electoral | 2022 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 334/2021
Case No: 338/2021
In the matter between:
GOVAN MBEKI LOCAL MUNICIPALITY
FIRST APPELLANT
EMALAHLENI LOCAL MUNICIPALITY
SECOND APPELLANT
and
GLENCORE OPERATIONS SOUTH AFRICA
(PTY) LTD
FIRST RESPONDENT
DUIKER MINING (PTY) LTD
SECOND RESPONDENT
TAVISTOCK COLLIERIES (PTY) LTD
THIRD RESPONDENT
UMCEBO PROPERTIES (PTY) LTD
FOURTH RESPONDENT
IZIMBIWA COAL (PTY) LTD
FIFTH RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Govan Mbeki Local Municipality and Another v Glencore
Operations South Africa (Pty) Ltd and Others (334/2021 and
338/2021) [2022] ZASCA 93 (17 June 2022)
Coram:
MAYA P and DAMBUZA and PLASKET JJA and MUSI and
SALIE-HLOPHE AJJA
Heard:
6 May 2022
Delivered:
17 June 2022
Summary:
Constitution – local government – Local Government: Municipal
Systems Act 32 of 2000 – validity of municipal by-laws – whether provisions of by-
laws fell within the legislative competence of a municipality.
__________________________________________________________________
ORDER
__________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Mpumalanga Division of the High Court, Middelburg (Barnardt AJ,
sitting as court of first instance):
In case no 334/2021 (Govan Mbeki Local Municipality):
The appeal is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
The cross-appeal is upheld with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
Paragraph 4 of the high court’s order is set aside.
In case no338/2021 (Emalahleni Local Municipality):
The appeal is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
The cross-appeal is upheld with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
Paragraph 4 of the high court’s order is set aside.
__________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
__________________________________________________________________
Salie-Hlophe AJA (Maya P and Dambuza and Plasket JJA and Musi
AJA concurring):
[1] Two appeals are before us. They concern identical issues. They are both
directed at orders of the Mpumalanga Division of the High Court, Middelburg (the
high court), in which Barnardt AJ declared s 76 of the Govan Mbeki Spatial Planning
and Land Use Management By-law1 (the GMBL) and s 86 of the Emalahleni
Municipal By-law on Spatial Planning and Land Use Management 20162 (the EBL)
to be invalid and unconstitutional. A third municipality, the Steve Tshwete Local
Municipality, did not appeal against a similar order in respect of the invalidity of its
comparable by-law. The respondents, Glencore Operations South Africa (Pty) Ltd,
Duiker Mining (Pty) Ltd, Tavistock Collieries (Pty) Ltd, Umcebo Properties (Pty) Ltd
and Izimbiwa Coal (Pty) Ltd, cross-appealed against the decision of the high court
1Provincial Notice 10 of 2016, Provincial Gazette (Mpumalanga) 2650 of 17 February 2016.
2Provincial Notice 4 of 2016, Provincial Gazette (Mpumalanga) 2653 of 24 February 2016.
suspending the declaration of invalidity of the by-laws for a period of six months to
allow the competent authority to correct the defect. The appeal and cross-appeal are
with leave of the high court.
Facts
[2] The respondents are companies that intend to transfer or take transfer of a
number of immovable properties situated within the municipal boundaries of the three
local municipalities mentioned above.
[3] The municipalities all promulgated similarly crafted by-laws which placed
restraints on the transfer of erven and land units within their respective areas of
jurisdiction. In terms of these by-laws, an owner (transfer or) could not apply to the
registrar of deeds to register the transfer of an erf or land unit except upon production
of a certificate, issued by the municipality, certifying that all spatial planning, land-
use management, and building regulation conditions or approvals in connection with
those erven or land units had been obtained and complied with the requirements of
the by-law. The respondents approached the high court for orders declaring the
relevant sections of the by-laws to be constitutionally invalid. They argued that even
if the municipalities had the power to enact such by-laws, they nonetheless infringed
the land owner’s constitutional right arising from its ownership, in that they placed
insurmountable obstacles in the way of registering the transfer of ownership of their
properties. They argued further that the by-laws, in effect, imposed an embargo on
the registration of transfer of ownership of an immovable property until the
municipality issues a certificate that the owner has proved that all the debts due in
respect of the property have been paid and the use of the property and the buildings
comply with its land-use scheme.
The high court
[4] The relief sought by the respondents was aimed at:
a.
declaring the by-laws unconstitutional and invalid because they were
inconsistent with s 25 of the Constitution, as their application leads to an arbitrary
deprivation of property;
b.
declaring the by-laws unconstitutional and invalid because they legislate on
matters which fall outside the scope of powers assigned to local government in terms
of s 156 read with Part B of Schedule 4 and Part B of Schedule 5 of the Constitution;
c.
declaring the by-laws unconstitutional and invalid because they are not
authorised by any empowering provisions (national or provincial legislation);
d.
declaring the by-laws unconstitutional and invalid because they conflict with
the Local Government: Municipal Systems Act 32 of 2000 (the Systems Act)or the
Spatial Planning and Land Use Management Act 16 of 2013 (the SPLUMA);
e.
reviewing and setting aside the interpretation of the by-laws by the
municipalities in terms of s 8 of the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000,
and compelling the municipalities to receive, consider and respond to all applications
by the respondents based on the correct interpretation of the by-laws; and
f.
reviewing and setting aside the decision by the registrar of deeds to give effect
to the by-laws and directing the registrar of deeds to receive and process the
applications for registration of transfer of the respondents’ properties without
requiring the respondents to produce planning certificates.
[5] The high court declared the by-laws unconstitutional and invalid on the basis
that they constituted an arbitrary deprivation of property as envisaged in s 25(1) of
the Constitution. It held further that the by-laws were unconstitutional and invalid,
because they were not authorised by s 156 read with Part B of Schedule 4 of the
Constitution, and conflicted with s 118 of the Systems Act. The high court suspended
the declaration of invalidity for a period of six months to enable the municipalities to
cure the defects in their by-laws.
Issues on appeal
[6] The central issue in this appeal is the validity of the by-laws. The answer to
this question requires consideration of whether the by-laws were enacted within the
legislative competence of municipalities as contemplated in s 156 of the Constitution.
It follows as a matter of logic that should the by-laws be determined to be falling
outside the scope of powers assigned to local government in terms of the
Constitution, they will be invalid for being ultra vires. Strictly speaking, this will obviate
the need to consider the various further issues raised by the respondent, such as
whether the by-laws amount to a constitutional infringement of property rights; or is
in conflict with national legislation; as well as the administrative review grounds. In
short, a finding that the municipalities do not have the power to cause restraint on
the registration of transfer of property, on the facts hereof, would be dispositive of the
matter. Despite this, the high court determined that, in addition to the conflict with s
156 of the Constitution, the by-laws were also invalid because they conflicted with s
118 of the Systems Act and amounted to an arbitrary deprivation of property in terms
of s 25(1) of the Constitution. All three bases for invalidity form part of the orders
granted by the high court.
[7] Accordingly, the issues on appeal are whether the impugned by-laws:
a.
are unconstitutional and invalid, because they legislate on matters which fall
outside the scope of powers assigned to local government in terms of s 156 read
with Part B of Schedule 4 and Part B of Schedule 5 of the Constitution;
b.
exceed the functional area of ‘municipal planning’, in that they regulate the
transfer of property; and
c.
are an incidental power as envisaged in s 156(5) of the Constitution.
The by-laws
[8] Two sections of the GMBL are relevant. First, s 74, headed ‘Restriction of
transfer and registration’ provides:
‘(1)
Notwithstanding the provisions contained in this By-law or any conditions imposed in
the approval of any land development application, the owner shall, at his or her cost and to
the satisfaction of the Municipality, survey and register all servitudes required to protect the
engineering services provided, constructed and installed as contemplated in Chapter 7.
(2)
No Erf/Erven and/or units in a land development area, may be alienated or
transferred into the name of a purchaser nor shall a Certificate of Registered Title be
registered in the name of the owner, prior to the Municipality certifying to the Registrar of
Deeds that:
(a)
All engineering services have been designed and constructed to the satisfaction of
the Municipality, including guarantees for services having been provided to the satisfaction
of the Municipality as may be required; and
(b)
all engineering services and development charges have been paid or an agreement
has been entered into to pay the development charges in monthly instalments; and
(c)
all engineering services have been or will be protected to the satisfaction of the
Municipality by means of servitudes; and
(d)
all conditions of the approval of the land development application have been complied
with or that arrangements have been made to the satisfaction of the Municipality for the
compliance there of within 3 months of having certified to the Registrar in terms of this section
that registration may take place; and
(e)
that the Municipality is in a position to consider a final building plan; and
(f)
that all the properties have either been transferred or shall be transferred
simultaneously with the first transfer or registration of a newly created property or sectional
title scheme.’
[9] Secondly, s 76, headed ‘Certification by Municipality’ provides:
‘(1)
A person may not apply to the Registrar of Deeds to register the transfer of a land
unit, unless the Municipality has issued a certificate in terms of this section.
(2)
The Municipality may not issue a certificate to transfer a land unit in terms of any law,
or in terms of this By-law, unless the owner furnishes the Municipality with―
(a)
a certificate of a conveyancer confirming that funds due by the transferor in respect
of land, have been paid;
(b)
proof of payment of any contravention penalty or proof of compliance with a directive
contemplated in Chapter 9;
(c)
proof that the land use and buildings constructed on the land unit comply with the
requirements of the land use scheme;
(d)
proof that all common property including private roads and private places originating
from the subdivision, has been transferred; and
(e)
proof that the conditions of approval that must be complied with before the transfer
of erven have been complied with.
(f)
Proof that all engineering services have been installed or arrangements have been
made to the satisfaction on the Municipality.’
[10] Similarly, two sections of the EBL are relevant. First, s 84, headed ‘Restriction
of transfer and registration’ provides:
‘(1)
Notwithstanding the provisions contained in this By-law or any conditions imposed in
the approval of any application, the owner must, at his or her cost and to the satisfaction of
the Municipality, survey and register all servitudes required to protect the engineering
services provided, constructed and installed as contemplated in Chapter 7.
(2)
No Erf/Erven and/or units in a land development area, may be alienated or
transferred into the name of a purchaser nor must a Certificate of Registered Title be
registered in the name of the owner, prior to the Municipality certifying to the Registrar of
Deeds that:
(a)
All engineering services have been designed and constructed to the satisfaction of
the Municipality, including guarantees for services having been provided to the satisfaction
of the Municipality as may be required; and
(b)
all engineering services and development charges have been paid or an agreement
has been entered into to pay the development charges in monthly instalments; and
(c)
all engineering services have been or will be protected to the satisfaction of the
Municipality by means of servitudes; and
(d)
all conditions of the approval of the application have been complied with or that
arrangements have been made to the satisfaction of the Municipality for the compliance there
of within 3 months of having certified to the Registrar in terms of this section that registration
may take place; and
(e)
that the Municipality is in a position to consider a final building plan; and
(f)
that all the properties have either been transferred or must be transferred
simultaneously with the first transfer or registration of a newly created property or sectional
title scheme.’
[11] Secondly, s 86, headed ‘Certification by Municipality’ provides:
‘(1)
A person may not apply to the Registrar of Deeds to register the transfer of a land
unit, unless the Municipality has issued a certificate in terms of this section.
(2)
The Municipality must not issue a certificate to transfer a land unit in terms of any
law, or in terms of this By-law, unless the owner furnishes the Municipality with―
(a)
a certificate of a conveyancer confirming that funds due by the transferor in respect
of land, have been paid;
(b)
proof of payment of any contravention penalty or proof of compliance with a directive
contemplated in Chapter 9;
(c)
proof that the land use and buildings constructed on the land unit comply with the
requirements of the land use scheme;
(d)
proof that all common property including private roads and private places originating
from the subdivision, has been transferred to the owners’ association as contemplated in
Schedule 5; and
(e)
proof that the conditions of approval that must be complied with before the transfer
of erven have been complied with.’
[12] The by-laws are almost identically worded; the common factor is a restraint
on the registration of transfer of property. An intending transferor of property, like the
respondents, must satisfy the requirements of s 76(2) of the GMBL, or s 86(2) of the
EBL in order to obtain the certificate prescribed by subsection 1 of the respective
sections. Additionally, the impugned provisions impose a duty on the registrar of
deeds not to accept an application to register the transfer of a land unit unless the
municipality has issued a certificate in terms of that section. The effect is that unless
the transferor first satisfies the requirements of the municipal by-laws, the requisite
certificates may not be issued. Essentially, the impugned provisions place an
embargo on the registration of transfer of immovable property until the requirements
of the by-laws are met, because until such time the certificate is issued the registrar
cannot register the transfer of the property.
[13] The argument for the respondents was that the legislative competence of the
municipalities with regard to ‘municipal planning’ does not extend to regulating the
transfer of properties. The restriction imposed by the impugned provisions can only
be imposed by national legislation, such as s 118 of the Systems Act and s 53 of the
SPLUMA, which, according to the respondents, can be described as the interface
between deeds registration, municipal financial management and municipal spatial
planning.
The powers of local government
[14] The Constitution allocates legislative power between national and provincial
governments on the basis of the subject matter of the legislation. Schedules 4 and 5
of the Constitution contain lists of subjects known as a ‘functional area’. The
provincial legislatures are entitled to legislate, inter alia, on the subjects listed in
Schedules 4 and 5. Both schedules are made up of two parts: Part A and Part B.
Executive and administrative power of functional areas mentioned in Part B of the
two schedules are reserved for municipalities.
[15] Section 156(1)(a) of the Constitution provides that a municipality has
executive authority in respect of, and has the right to administer the local government
matters listed in Part B of Schedule 4 and Part B of Schedule 5. Section 156(2) of
the Constitution authorises local authorities to exercise legislative powers by passing
by-laws. Section 11(3)(m) of the Systems Act is the subsidiary legislation giving effect
to this.
[16] Sections 155(6)(a) and (7) of the Constitution read:
‘(6)
Each provincial government must establish municipalities in its province in a manner
consistent with the legislation enacted in terms of subsections (2) and (3) and, by legislative
or other measures, must—
(a)
provide for the monitoring and support of local government in the province;
. . .
(7)
The national government, subject to section 44, and the provincial governments have
the legislative and executive authority to see to the effective performance by municipalities
of their functions in respect of matters listed in Schedules 4 and 5, by regulating the exercise
by municipalities of their executive authority referred to in section 156(1).’
[17] In other words, the nature of Schedule 4B and Schedule 5B matters as
constitutionally protected local government matters is determined by the limits put on
national and provincial legislative power by ss155(6)(a) and (7) of the Constitution.
Thus, the national and provincial governments exercise a regulatory role over
municipalities under s 155(7) of the Constitution. The Constitutional Court has
explained that the role of these two spheres ‘is ordinarily limited to regulating the
exercise of executive municipal powers and the administration of municipal affairs by
municipalities’.3 Nevertheless, s 151(3) of the Constitution affords a municipality the
right to ‘govern, on its own initiative, the local government affairs of its community,
subject to national and provincial legislation, as provided for in the Constitution’. This
authority is reiterated in s 4(1)(a) of the Systems Act, which states that ‘[t]he council
of a municipality has the right to: (a) govern on its own initiative the local government
affairs of the local community’.
[18] Furthermore, s 156(5) of the Constitution capacitates a municipality to
‘exercise any power concerning a matter reasonably necessary for, or incidental to,
the effective performance of its functions’. This means that there might be matters
3City of Johannesburg Metropolitan Municipality v Gauteng Development Tribunal and Others [2010]
ZACC 11; 2010 (6) SA 182 (CC); 2010 (9) BCLR 859 (CC)para 59.
that fall outside the local government’s core powers and competencies, but are
nevertheless indispensable for the effective administration of those matters.
[19] However, s 156(5) may not be used to increase the functional areas of local
government’s powers, but rather to enhance the efficacy of administrating an existing
functional area. In other words, it must be necessary for, or incidental to, an existing
constitutional power. The provisions do not serve the purpose of creating new
categories of functions. Thus, the impugned provisions may be authorised only if that
is reasonably necessary for, or incidental to, the effective performance of a
municipality’s land-use planning function. And, in terms of s 156(3) of the
Constitution, in the event of a conflict between national and provincial legislation and
local government legislation, the local government legislation is invalid.
[20] In Executive Council of the Province of the Western Cape v Minister for
Provincial Affairs and Constitutional Development and Another; Executive Council of
KwaZulu-Natal v President of the Republic of South Africa and Others,4 the
Constitutional Court held the following in regard to the status of the power of local
municipalities:
‘Municipalities have the fiscal and budgetary powers vested in them by Chapter 13 of the
Constitution, and a general power to “govern” local government affairs. This general power
is “subject to national and provincial legislation”. The powers and functions of municipalities
are set out in section 156 but it is clear from sections 155(7) and 151(3) that these powers
are subject to supervision by national and provincial governments, and that national and
provincial legislation has precedence over municipal legislation. The powers of municipalities
must, however, be respected by the national and provincial governments which may not use
their powers to “compromise or impede a municipality’s ability or right to exercise its powers
or perform its functions” (emphasis supplied). There is also a duty on national and provincial
governments “by legislative and other measures” to support and strengthen the capacity of
municipalities to manage their own affairs and an obligation imposed by section 41(1)(g) of
the Constitution on all spheres of government to “exercise their powers and perform their
4Executive Council of the Province of the Western Capev Minister for Provincial Affairs and
Constitutional Development and Another; Executive Council of KwaZulu-Natal v President of the
Republic of South Africa and Others [1999] ZACC 13; 2000 (1) SA 661 (CC); 1999 (12) BCLR 1360
(CC) para 29.
functions in a manner that does not encroach on the geographical, functional or institutional
integrity of government in another sphere”.’
[21] The Constitution therefore requires co-operative government between
national, provincial and municipal legislation. This is encapsulated by s 40 of the
Constitution which provides:
‘(1)
In the Republic, government is constituted as national, provincial and local spheres
of government which are distinctive, interdependent and interrelated.
(2)
All spheres of government must observe and adhere to the principles in this Chapter
and must conduct their activities within the parameters that the Chapter provides.’
[22] This principle is effectively implemented through the framework legislation of
national and provincial government. Accordingly, where framework legislation at the
national and provincial level has been promulgated, particularly where there is
necessary overlap between the spheres of government due to the nature of the
subject-matter to which the legislation pertains, it is necessary for municipal law to
be exercised within the scope of the guidelines in order to ensure cooperation,
consistency and rationality.
[23] The respondents contended that the impugned provisions are by-laws
enacted in the context of municipal planning within the framework legislation of the
SPLUMA. Indeed, the GMBL and EBL were expressly promulgated subject to the
SPLUMA.5 Their purpose is to regulate spatial planning and land-use management.
The SPLUMA is thus the framework legislation within which the municipal
competence for municipal planning is exercised.
[24] The long title of the SPLUMA reads:
‘To provide a framework for spatial planning and land-use management in the Republic; . . .
to provide a framework for policies, principles, norms and standards for spatial development
planning and land use management; . . . to promote greater consistency and uniformity in
the application procedures and decision-making by authorities responsible for land use
decisions and development applications; . . . to provide for the facilitation and enforcement
of land use and development measures . . .’
5See s 3 of the respective by-laws, read with the definition of ‘Act’ in s 1.
[25] The preamble reads as follows:
‘AND WHEREAS various laws governing land use give rise to uncertainty about the status
of municipal spatial planning and land use management systems and procedures and
frustrates the achievement of cooperative governance and the promotion of public interest;
. . .
AND WHEREAS it is necessary that – . . . a uniform, recognisable and comprehensive
system of spatial planning and land use management be established throughout the
Republic to maintain economic unity, equal opportunity and equal access to government
services . . .’
[26] Section 2 of the SPLUMA is also relevant. It reads:
‘(1)
This Act applies to the entire area of the Republic and is legislation enacted in terms
of—
(a)
section 155(7) of the Constitution insofar as it regulates municipal planning; and
(b)
section 44(2) of the Constitution insofar as it regulates provincial planning.
(2)
Except as provided for in this Act, no legislation not repealed by this Act may
prescribe an alternative or parallel mechanism, measure, institution or system on spatial
planning, land use, land use management and land development in a manner inconsistent
with the provisions of this Act.’
[27] Section 3 of the SPLUMA sets out its objects. It provides:
‘The objects of this Act are to—
(a)
provide for a uniform, effective and comprehensive system of spatial planning and
land use management for the Republic.’
Section 9 concerns itself with national support and monitoring. Section 9(2) provides:
‘The national government must, in accordance with this Act and the Intergovernmental
Relations Framework Act, develop mechanisms to support and strengthen the capacity of
provinces and municipalities to adopt and implement an effective spatial planning and land
use management system.’
Section 10 deals with provincial support and monitoring. Section 10(5) provides that
provincial governments ‘must develop mechanisms to support, monitor and
strengthen the capacity of municipalities to adopt and implement an effective system
of land use management in accordance with this Act’. (Own emphasis.)
[28] Schedule 1 to the SPLUMA provides for ‘MATTERS TO BE ADDRESSED IN
PROVINCIAL LEGISLATION’. It contains an extensive list of topics which cover a
comprehensive ambit of municipal planning. Item 12 is concerned with the
development of spatial development frameworks, and item 12(2)(a) provides:
‘The national government, a provincial government and a municipality must participate in the
spatial planning and land use management processes that impact on each other to ensure
that the plans and programmes are coordinated, consistent and in harmony with each other.’
Item 12(5) provides that a ‘municipal spatial development framework must assist in
integrating, coordinating, aligning and expressing development policies and plans
emanating from the various sectors of the spheres of government as they apply
within the municipal area’.
[29] Item 20 concerns the preparation of municipal spatial development
frameworks. Item 20(2) states:
‘The municipal spatial development framework must be prepared as part of a municipality’s
integrated development plan in accordance with the provisions of the Municipal Systems
Act.’ (Own emphasis.)
[30] The national legislation sets out a wide field of avenues available to the
municipality to enforce the land-use scheme in respect of which it may make by-laws.
Section 32, under the heading ‘Enforcement of land use scheme’, sets out, inter alia,
the following powers of enforcement:
‘(1)
A municipality may pass by-laws aimed at enforcing its land use scheme.
(2)
A municipality may apply to a court for an order—
(a)
interdicting any person from using land in contravention of its land use scheme;
. . .
(c)
directing any other appropriate preventative or remedial measure.
(3)
A municipality—
(a)
may designate a municipal official or appoint any other person as an inspector to
investigate any non-compliance with its land use scheme.’
[31] From the above, it is clear that the SPLUMA is the framework legislation that
authorises the making of the by-laws. While it does not regulate the powers and
procedures of the authorities responsible for land-use decisions and development
applications in any detail, it is significant that the SPLUMA also does not give carte
blanche to municipalities to make any policy decisions they choose. The SPLUMA
lays down the limits within which municipalities may legislate.
[32] A local municipality is empowered by the Constitution, the Systems Act and
the SPLUMA to promulgate by-laws to regulate and control municipal planning,
enforce municipal planning and enforce an adopted land-use scheme. However, this
power is to be exercised within the parameters so prescribed.
[33] As I have shown, even though the by-laws, of which the impugned provisions
form part, deal on their face with municipal planning, the impugned provisions
themselves restrict the transfer and registration of ownership in immovable property
and constitute an embargo on transfer unless their requirements have been fulfilled.
Taking into account the statutory and constitutional provisions I have mentioned, the
question to be answered is whether municipalities’ legislative competence extends
to regulating the transfer of properties.
[34] In my view, the embargo on transfers strays beyond municipal planning. It
prescribes to the registrar of deeds under what circumstances a transfer can take
place. It precludes a transferring owner from complying with their obligations under
an agreement of sale. It prevents a transferee from receiving ownership as they are
entitled to under the agreement of sale.
[35] It is, at best, a spot check at the time a property is to be transferred, and one
that may be seen as opportunism on the part of a municipality at the crucial stage
when the property has been sold by the owner and requires the registration of
transfer of the property to the prospective new owner. The by-laws purport to prohibit
the registrar from acting in accordance with powers and obligations in terms of the
Deeds Registries Act 47 of 1937, whilst the municipality sits back and awaits
compliance with all the requirements set out in the by-laws, including payment of
certain costs due to it. As this enforcement mechanism in the by-laws is a restriction
on transfer, these are not aspects of municipal planning, but matters pertaining to the
transfer and registration of property that are regulated by the Deeds Registries Act.
That is not a municipal legislative competence, but a national one.
[36] The appellants’ contention that the impugned provisions are an enforcement
mechanism to ensure compliance with the municipal planning and land-use functions
is even more thread bare when it is considered that the embargo does not apply
when a property is leased. Seen from that perspective, the embargo is not an
effective method of preventing the unlawful use of land or buildings as contemplated
in the SPLUMA, but an arbitrary one. If the SPLUMA intended to authorise
municipalities to introduce an embargo on registration of transfer of properties as an
enforcement mechanism, it would have provided for that expressly. Neither s 32(1)
of the SPLUMA, which requires municipal by-laws that enforce the municipality’s
land-use scheme, nor any of its other provisions, authorise the embargo.
[37] Notably, the framework for the enforcement of by-laws is contained in ss 32(2)
to 32(12) of the SPLUMA. Those enforcement provisions are to be found in Chapter
9 of the by-laws, headed ‘Compliance and Enforcement’. They provide for a range of
enforcement procedures, including criminal sanctions and the issue of compliance
notices. Significantly, these provisions are clearly based on s 32 of the SPLUMA. In
terms of that section, various mechanisms are set out in its aim to empower a
municipality to enforce its land-use scheme, including, inter alia, interdicting any
person from using land in contravention of its land-use scheme; designation of a
municipal official to inspect any non-compliance; and provision of the manner of
inspection and investigation by such an official for the purposes of issuing a
compliance notice. A notice of non-compliance informs the owner of his or her
transgression. Owners have administrative law remedies in respect of such a notice.
The gist of s 32 of the SPLUMA is that it is the task of municipal inspectors to
determine whether there has been any non-compliance of the land-use scheme. The
onus is on the inspectors to prove the transgression when it comes to a criminal trial.
It is significant to mention that although it affords the municipality a wide discretion
to invoke enforcement for non-compliance, the system of enforcement envisaged in
s 32 of the SPLUMA does not provide for a restriction of the transfer of land.
[38] The competence with regards to deeds registration (including registration of
transfer of properties) is not a municipal function, for it is within the domain of national
government. This is further evidenced, for example, by the fact that property transfer
fees are contained in Part A of Schedule 4 of the Constitution and thus fall under a
functional area of concurrent national and provincial legislative competence.
[39] Further, the argument for the appellants that its by-laws are also aimed at
protecting future buyers from acquiring land with some legal impediment which
burdens the property is without merit. Such a power does not fall within its mandate
of municipal planning. Furthermore, trite principles in our law of contract govern the
contract of purchase and sale between the land owner and a buyer, and therefore
their respective rights and obligations. In any event, restraint against registration of
transfer is only triggered after the property had been sold and the purchaser seeks
to have it transferred. The notion that it is borne out of altruism for the purchaser is
not a role for the municipality. And so too the notion that it is a measure by which to
create revenue for the municipality, as was suggested by the parties. Both of these
purposes, if they were the real purposes of the by-laws, would have been improper
purposes. It follows that a municipality may not regulate registration of transfer of
properties.
[40] The restriction on transfer of land is not a necessary power incidental to land-
use management, as enforcement mechanisms of its land-use scheme are already
provided for in Chapter 9 of the by-laws. The registration of transfer of property is
expressly regulated by the Deeds Registries Act and s 118 of the Systems Act. There
is thus no room for an implied municipal power to regulate the registrar’s statutory
power to register the transfer of properties. The embargo therefore cannot be
incidental to the effective enforcement of a land-use scheme and the impugned by-
laws are invalid insofar as they impose a mechanism which impermissibly regulates
the transfer of property. They exceed the legislative competence of the respective
municipalities, and thus offend the principle of legality.
[41] The high court found that the impugned by-laws were also in conflict with s
118 of the Systems Act, because they sought to impose on sellers of property
liabilities in addition to those contemplated by that section. In reaching this
conclusion, it held that the by-laws sought in effect to ‘amend’ s 118 by adding to its
terms. I agree with this conclusion. It also found that the impugned sections of the
by-laws amounted to an arbitrary deprivation of property. As they were not justified
in terms of a law and were thus bereft of lawful authority, by definition the deprivations
of property that they sought to authorise were arbitrary. It follows that I agree with the
high court in this respect too.
[42] The high court suspended the declaration of invalidity for six months ‘to allow
the competent authority to correct the defect’. No reasons were given in the judgment
for this order. In the absence of any such reasons for this deviation from the default
position of setting aside unconstitutional exercises of public power, this order was
not competent. I can see no reason to keep the invalid by-laws in operation,
especially because of the usurpation by the two municipalities of legislative functions
of other spheres of government. It follows that the suspension of the declaration of
invalidity of the by-laws must be set aside. The respondents’ cross-appeal must
therefore succeed.
Conclusion
[43] For these reasons, the appeals are dismissed with costs, including the costs
of two counsel; and the cross-appeal against the suspension of the declaration of
invalidity is upheld with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
[44] I make the following order:
In case no334/2021 (Govan Mbeki Local Municipality):
The appeal is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
The cross-appeal is upheld with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
Paragraph 4 of the high court’s order is set aside.
In case no 338/2021 (Emalahleni Local Municipality):
The appeal is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
The cross-appeal is upheld with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
Paragraph 4 of the high court’s order is set aside.
_________________________
G SALIE-HLOPHE
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
.
APPEARANCES
For first appellant:
A Vorster(with D Swart)
Instructed by:
Cronje De Waal-Skhosana Incorporated, Secunda
Kramer Weihmann Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For second appellant:
O Ben-Zeev
Instructed by:
Ka-Mbonane Cooper, Johannesburg
Van der Merwe &Sorour Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For respondents:
S J du Plessis SC (with K Hopkins and S O
Ogunronbi)
Instructed by:
Norton Rose Fulbright, Sandton
Webbers Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
17 June 2022
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this
case and does not form part of the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Govan Mbeki Local Municipality and Another v Glencore Operations South Africa
(Pty) Ltd and Others (334/2021 and 338/2021)[2022] ZASCA 93 (17 June 2022)
Today, the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) dismissed with costs two appeals, both
directed at orders of the Mpumalanga Division of the High Court, Middelburg (the
high court), in which Barnardt AJ declared s 76 of the Govan Mbeki Spatial Planning
and Land Use Management By-law (the GMBL) and s 86 of the Emalahleni
Municipal By-law on Spatial Planning and Land Use Management 2016 (the EBL) to
be invalid and unconstitutional. The SCA further upheld with costs a cross-appeal
brought by the respondents against the decision of the high court suspending the
declaration of invalidity of the by-laws for a period of six months to allow the
competent authority to correct the defect. The costs awarded included the costs of
two counsel.
The respondents, Glencore Operations South Africa (Pty) Ltd, Duiker Mining (Pty)
Ltd, Tavistock Collieries (Pty) Ltd, Umcebo Properties (Pty) Ltd and Izimbiwa Coal
(Pty) Ltd, were companies that intended to transfer or take transfer of a number of
immovable properties situated within the municipal boundaries of the appellant
municipalities. The municipalities promulgated similarly crafted by-laws which placed
restraints on the transfer of erven and land units within their respective areas of
jurisdiction. In terms of these by-laws, an owner (transferor) could not apply to the
registrar of deeds to register the transfer of an erf or land unit except upon
production of a certificate, issued by the municipality, certifying that all spatial
planning, land-use management, and building regulation conditions or approvals in
connection with those erven or land units had been obtained and complied with the
requirements of the by-law. The respondents approached the high court for orders
declaring the relevant sections of the by-laws to be constitutionally invalid.
The central issue in the appeal was the validity of the by-laws. The SCA found that
the answer to this question required consideration of whether the by-laws were
enacted within the legislative competence of municipalities as contemplated in s 156
of the Constitution. Accordingly, the issues on appeal were whether the impugned
by-laws: (a) were unconstitutional and invalid, because they legislated on matters
which fell outside the scope of powers assigned to local government in terms of s
156 read with Part B of Schedule 4 and Part B of Schedule 5 of the Constitution; (b)
exceeded the functional area of ‘municipal planning’, in that they regulated the
transfer of property; and (c) were an incidental power as envisaged in s 156(5) of the
Constitution.
The SCA found that the Spatial Planning and Land Use Management Act 16 of 2013
(the SPLUMA) was the framework legislation within which the municipal competence
for municipal planning was exercised. The SPLUMA authorised the making of the by-
laws and laid down the limits within which municipalities may legislate. Therefore,
this power was to be exercised within the parameters so prescribed.
The SCA found that even though the by-laws, of which the impugned provisions
formed part, dealt on their face with municipal planning, the impugned provisions
themselves restricted the transfer and registration of ownership in immovable
property and constituted an embargo on transfer unless their requirements had been
fulfilled. Thus, the question to be answered was whether municipalities’ legislative
competence extended to regulating the transfer of properties.
The SCA held that the embargo on transfers strayed beyond municipal planning. As
this enforcement mechanism in the by-laws was a restriction on transfer, these were
not aspects of municipal planning, but matters pertaining to the transfer and
registration of property that were regulated by the Deeds Registries Act 47 of
1937.The competence with regards to deeds registration (including registration of
transfer of properties) was not a municipal function, for it was within the domain of
national government. The SCA found that it was significant that although it afforded
the municipality a wide discretion to invoke enforcement for non-compliance, the
system of enforcement envisaged in s 32 of the SPLUMA did not provide for a
restriction of the transfer of land, and so did not authorise the embargo.
The SCA held further that the restriction on transfer of land was not a necessary
power incidental to land-use management, as enforcement mechanisms of its land-
use scheme were already provided for in Chapter 9 of the by-laws. The registration
of transfer of property was expressly regulated by the Deeds Registries Act and s
118 of the Systems Act. There was thus no room for an implied municipal power to
regulate the registrar’s statutory power to register the transfer of properties. The
embargo therefore could not have been incidental to the effective enforcement of a
land-use scheme and the impugned by-laws were invalid insofar as they imposed a
mechanism which impermissibly regulated the transfer of property. They exceeded
the legislative competence of the respective municipalities, and thus offended the
principle of legality.
The SCA agreed with the high court’s finding that the impugned by-laws were also in
conflict with s 118 of the Systems Act, because they sought to impose on sellers of
property liabilities in addition to those contemplated by that section. This was
because the by-laws sought in effect to ‘amend’ s 118 by adding to its terms. The
SCA also agreed with the high court’s finding that the impugned sections of the by-
laws amounted to an arbitrary deprivation of property. In this regard, the SCA held
that as they were not justified in terms of a law and were thus bereft of lawful
authority, by definition the deprivations of property that they sought to authorise were
arbitrary.
Lastly, the SCA found that no reasons were given in the high court’s judgment for the
order to suspend the declaration of invalidity for six months. The SCA held that in the
absence of any such reasons for that deviation from the default position of setting
aside unconstitutional exercises of public power, that order was not competent.
Thus, the suspension of the declaration of invalidity of the by-laws was set aside.
~~~~ends~~~~ |
3866 | non-electoral | 2022 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 331/2021
In the matter between:
M A L FRANTZEN APPELLANT
and
THE ROAD ACCIDENT FUND RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Frantzen v Road Accident Fund (Case no 331/2021)
[2022] ZASCA 107 (15 July 2022)
Coram:
ZONDI, CARELSE and MABINDLA-BOQWANA JJA
and MEYER and PHATSHOANE AJJA
Heard:
20 May 2022
Delivered:
15 July 2022
Summary:
Delict – personal injury claim – factual causation – cause
and effect – whether soft tissue injury of neck and back sustained in motor
vehicle accident caused involuntary muscle movement disorder – expert
witness’ reliance on medical literature – application of criteria from literature
employed as a tool to establish a link between involuntary muscle movement
and trauma – logical and reasonable explanation by expert witness required.
ORDER
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria
(Collis J, sitting as a court of first instance):
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
JUDGMENT
Mabindla-Boqwana JA (Zondi and Carelse JJA and Meyer and
Phatshoane AJJA concurring)
Introduction
[1] The appellant, Mr M A L Frantzen, instituted a claim against the
respondent, the Road Accident Fund, for the payment of compensation for
damages resulting from bodily injury caused by a motor vehicle accident in
which he was involved on 8 April 2007 (the 2007 accident). It is common
cause that he sustained a soft tissue injury of the neck, commonly known as
whiplash injury, in the 2007 accident. It is also common cause that the
appellant suffers from an involuntary movement disorder, dystonia. The core
issue between the parties is whether the dystonia was caused by the peripheral
trauma to the appellant’s neck, the whiplash injury. The Gauteng Division of
the High Court, Pretoria (the high court) determined that question of factual
causation first and separately from the other questions in the action. It found
that a causal link between the 2007 accident and the movement disorder had
not been established, and granted the appellant leave to appeal to this Court.
Background facts
[2] The appellant was 34 years old at the time of the accident and practiced
as an advocate until he was rendered incapacitated by continuous episodes of
dystonia. Dystonia results from an abnormality or damage in the regions of
the brain that control movement. This abnormality causes muscles in the
affected parts of the body to move uncontrollably or involuntarily. The onset
of the appellant’s dystonia occurred approximately 10 months after the 2007
accident.
[3] Prior to the 2007 accident, the appellant had been involved in two other
motor vehicle accidents. These occurred in 2003 and 2004/2005 respectively.
He sustained whiplash neck injuries in those accidents as well. In the 2003
accident he also suffered a mid-back injury. The pain caused by those earlier
whiplash injuries, however, resolved within a few weeks of each accident and
he resumed his normal daily work without any difficulty. It is the 2007
accident which, it is alleged, presented dramatic changes to the appellant’s
life, which progressively led to his permanent incapacitation.
[4] The 2007 accident occurred while the vehicle which the appellant drove
was stationary at a traffic light and another vehicle collided into its rear. The
appellant alighted from the vehicle and exchanged information with the driver
of the other vehicle. After about 30 minutes he started feeling nauseous and
drove himself to the Eugene Marais Hospital (Eugene Marais). He also felt
some pain in his neck, as a result of which x-rays were taken. He was,
however, not admitted but merely given medication. The following day he felt
pain in his back (ie his shoulder blades in the mid-thoracic area) and went for
physiotherapy. He also consulted his brother, an orthopaedic surgeon, who
examined him. Because his back and neck pain got worse, his brother gave
him two to three infiltrations. Each infiltration brought him pain relief for
approximately half a day, after which the pain recurred. He returned to work
after a few days but found that he was unable to work for more than two hours,
as standing up activated the pain.
[5] He later went on holiday but spent most of the time in bed, as he could
not move due to the neck and back pain. He stopped working for a while,
during which time he attended physiotherapy sessions, which did not bring
him much pain relief. His neck became intensely stiff and tight, which also
worsened the thoracic pain. Stress also exacerbated his pain and discomfort.
He, therefore, decided to stop the physiotherapy. He, however, resumed the
physiotherapy sessions when he went back to work during the last three to
four months of 2007, since the pain persisted. His brother referred him for x-
rays and an MRI scan, from which he noted some ‘neck disc bulges’ which
were not severe enough to justify surgery. His brother also gave him standard
pain medication, which did not help him much.
[6] In January 2008, while he was sitting up and dictating notes, his left
shoulder and left arm pulled up and he could not get them straight. His elbow
became flexed. The problem lasted for about three hours. His brother gave
him another infiltration in his back and prescribed further medication. Two
days later, a similar incident occurred and his brother changed his medication.
According to Dr Johannnes Smuts, a neurologist who gave expert evidence
on behalf of the appellant, this picture was suggestive of torticollis (a
spasmodic contraction of the muscles of the neck) and the appellant’s
abnormal posture was very different from the muscle spasms that he had
developed up to that point.
[7] A major attack happened on 17 February 2008,1 while the appellant was
sitting in a vehicle. He could not move, his body seemed not to be stiff or tight
this time but everything felt ‘loose’, so that he could not move his arms or legs
and he could not talk. He was effectively unable to control his voluntary
movements and his father and wife had to carry him into the house. This
episode took one and a half hours before he could voluntarily move again.
Thereafter, he experienced residual stiffness for one and a half days, with a
feeling of nausea and haziness. He had to be driven to work by other advocates
as he was too stiff to drive.
[8] Yet another episode occurred while at a coffee shop with a colleague.
It was so severe that the appellant fell over the table and collapsed onto his
colleague. He had to be carried to his office and was taken to Eugene Marais
where he was admitted for four to five days and referred for an MRI scan.
Thereafter, he was referred to Little Company of Mary Hospital to consult a
1 The date is erroneously recorded as 17 January 2008 in Dr Smuts’s first report. The 17 February 2008 date
accords with the medical history as recorded by the respondent’s expert witness, Dr Miller, with which the
experts agreed, and with the narration by the appellant as put to Dr Smuts in evidence. The background facts
are drawn from the joint minute prepared by the experts, the expert reports as well as the testimonies they
gave in court.
neurologist, Dr Duim. The MRI scan and angiogram which were done showed
no abnormality. He had to be sedated in order to receive physiotherapy
treatment. He also consulted a neurosurgeon, Dr du Plessis, who advised him
that the pins and needles which he apparently experienced at that time and
some of the spasms could be related to his neck injury but that there were
pains and spasms which could not be explained by that injury. A decision was
then taken to have him admitted to the DBC Training Centre in Centurion, for
rehabilitation.
[9] During the period of his admission, the appellant became very ill. He
could not open his eyes or talk but simply made groaning and moaning sounds.
He remained fully conscious while all his muscles were tight with a constant
pattern of movement changes when the neck and head would flex to the right
and the right side of his body flexing in relation to the trunk and arm. During
these attacks his speech slurred and his mouth pulled to one side.
[10] A lumbar puncture was performed to exclude multiple sclerosis. He was
also placed on antipsychotic medication by a psychiatrist. Rehabilitation
worsened the situation as with all exercises he would develop more spasms,
attacks or contortions in the paravertebral part of his body. To continue with
his exercises or rehabilitation, he was given more infiltrations into his back.
He decided to stop the psychiatric medication, since he believed that that
medication worsened his condition.
[11] The episodes would be triggered by someone touching him, bright light,
loud sounds and vibrations. Similar attacks were also witnessed by the expert
witnesses while examining him. All the doctors excluded epilepsy as a
condition from which he suffered. Although he kept his practice open for a
year, he was not actually working due to the profusion of the episodes. His
colleagues took over all of his work until 2009 when his practice could no
longer continue. Since then he stayed at home looking after the birds that he
bred and he involved himself in art collection, which has been his hobby. He
could not play with his children; that also triggered his episodes of involuntary
movements. He was referred to Professor C M van der Meyden, a neurologist,
who diagnosed him as suffering from dystonia. Professor van der Meyden
referred him to Dr Smuts, a neurologist and movement specialist at Wilgers
Hospital. The appellant developed depression and at some stages experienced
suicidal ideations.
Expert Evidence
[12] The appellant did not testify at the trial but called Dr Smuts as an expert
witness. The respondent called Dr Percy Miller, a neurosurgeon, and Dr
Donald Birrell, an orthopaedic surgeon, as its expert witnesses.
[13] Drs Smuts and Miller prepared a joint minute containing points of
agreement and dispute. The experts agreed on many issues, including the fact
that the appellant suffered from dystonia. The main difference between them
related to the issue of factual causation. According to Dr Smuts, the
appellant’s clinical picture (on which the experts agreed) had a direct temporal
relation to the 2007 accident and the neck injury, whilst Dr Miller was of the
opinion that it did not. The experts agreed that the medical history could be
drawn from Dr Miller’s report which was more detailed and very precise in
terms of specific time intervals.2 It is important to deal with their evidence in
some detail.
[14] I deal first with Dr Smuts’s evidence. Dr Smuts prepared three reports
dated 16 February 2009 (first report), 18 February 2016 (second report) and
28 January 2020 (third report) respectively. In relation to dystonia, he stated
the following in his first report:
‘The clinical picture of torticollis, blepharospasm and oromandibular movements can in
combination only be described as cranio cervical dystonia.
There are difficult issues related to the dystonia; although dystonia has been described in
association with head injury all cases were in severe head injury most often when there was
haemorrhage in the basal ganglia. In this instance there has been no head injury of any
significance. The second dilemma is that dystonia by its very nature is a sustained muscle
contraction. In the case of this patient the dystonia comes in attacks. There are a number of
dystonia syndromes that are episodic in nature [and] are well-known but very rare. I could
not find any reference of any of these syndromes that can be related to injury of [the] brain
or neck.
A second possible explanation is that he developed a movement disorder due to exposure
to medication used for treatment of his cervical muscle spasms; this is known as tardive
dyskinesia. In my experience tardive dyskinesia is usually also a sustained movement
which can vary considerabl[y] depending on several factors.
A final possibility namely a psychogenic movement disorder should always be considered.
In this regard he was consulted by 2 psychiatrists and in the case of Dr Steenkamp he
explicitly stated to me that his opinion is that the movement disorder is of an organic rather
than a psychogenic origin.
Video material of these attacks was also shown to a group of neurologists with a special
interest in movement disorders and the opinion was no different from what has been stated
above the opinion was divided between a very atypical dystonia or a psychogenic
2 Dr Smuts confirmed this in his evidence.
condition. With no objective tests remaining the opinion of the psychiatrist and the
stereotypical pattern of the attacks is therefore considered dystonic in nature.’
Dr Smuts accordingly reached the following conclusion:
‘Based on the afore mentioned information the opinion is that the movement disorder is a
form of tardive dyskinesia which resulted from medication used to treat the cervical
problem that resulted from the accident.’
[15] In his second report, Dr Smuts referred to statements by two
neurosurgeons, Drs du Plessis and Marus, whom the appellant had consulted.
Dr Marus made the following remark:
‘Trauma has been associated with movement disorders. These usually relate to significant
brain injuries associated with damage of the basal ganglia. It is clear that no head injury
occurred and therefore it would not be a cause for his movement disorder. . .
The role of peripheral injury in the development of these form of movement disorders
remains uncertain. . .
Injury of all sorts may result in development of abnormal movements that are secondary to
psychological factors. In many situations it is extremely difficult to separate these abnormal
movements from unusual or organic dyskinesias.’
[16] In relation to dystonia, Dr Smuts concluded that:
‘Post-traumatic dystonia as a diagnostic entity remains a subject of debate. In patients with
cervical dystonia there is often significant illness or injury prior to the onset of their cervical
dystonia.
This patient however presents with attacks or episodes of dystonia rather than a persistent
movement. This type of presentation is seen in a condition known as paroxysmal
kinesigenic dystonia. While dystonia occurring after trauma is well documented,
paroxysmal exercise-induced dystonia occurring after trauma has only been described in
one documented case I could find described. This is therefore a very rare presentation, but
not impossible. An alternative possibility would be that this is a psychogenic disorder.
Functional or psychogenic movement disorders are common and disabling, and often
difficult to diagnose.
Given the long duration and persistent nature of the disorder in this patient it is my opinion
that this is a post-traumatic dystonic disease that rendered the patient severely impaired.
Paying so much attention to the semantics regarding the type and precise cause of this
condition serves little purpose and it is far more important to consider this a permanent
condition. Since this is time related to the accident and trauma, this must be considered the
precipitating cause of his disability.’
[17] In his third report, Dr Smuts simply described what paroxysmal
movement disorders are and mentioned that they were rare. He further made
an observation that ‘[d]ue to the rarity of these disorders, it is senseless to try
and dig up literature references about the possible link of trauma to this
particular case’. He concluded as follows:
‘My opinion is that this happened in direct temporal relation to the accident, it persisted
over many years, basically unaltered and this has had disastrous effects on this man and his
career.
Proof of a link or not to the accident, is in my opinion more than the stated facts, it will
remain pure speculation.’
[18] In evidence, Dr Smuts testified that his initial impression was that the
appellant most likely suffered from tardive dyskinesia,3 which was the only
condition, in his clinical experience, that presented like the appellant’s. What
changed from the three possible diagnoses, as detailed in his three reports,
which I have quoted above, was additional reading that he had done and new
3 ‘Tardive dyskinesia is a neurological disorder characterized by involuntary uncontrollable movements
especially of the mouth, tongue, trunk, and limbs and occurring especially as a side effect of prolonged use
of antipsychotic drugs (such as phenothiazine).’ See Merriam-Webster online, available at
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/tardive%20dyskinesia, accessed on 14 July 2022. It is
described in the joint minute of the experts as a condition caused by exposure to a multitude of medications.
additional documentation that became available in the literature. This new
information classified the criteria for the post-traumatic dystonia. This, he
testified, was not available in 2009 (which is when he prepared his first
report), but became available only in 2011 and the later publication in 2014,
by an author known as Dr Joseph Jankovic, a very prominent person within
the movement disorder societies in the world.
[19] The criteria used for diagnosis, as per the literature by Dr Jankovic (the
Jankovic criteria) consisted of three requirements. Firstly, there must be
trauma that is significant enough to warrant treatment within the period of at
least two weeks; secondly, the dystonia must develop within one year from
the period of trauma; and thirdly, the injury must be anatomically related to
where the dystonia presents itself. Dr Smuts testified that he felt confident that
the condition of the appellant conformed to this ‘current’ definition of post-
traumatic dystonia and therefore decided that it was the most likely possibility
for the cause of the appellant’s medical condition.
[20] Dr Smuts further testified that he still could not exclude the possibility
that ‘the type that the appellant presented with was a type of dyskinesia’. The
appellant, however, had not been exposed to any medication for many years.
In the majority of cases when a patient stopped taking medication, while the
dystonia did not go away, it would get better. As to the psychiatric aspect, the
majority of the psychiatrists that the appellant consulted with came to the
conclusion that the condition was not a primarily psychiatric disorder and he
accepted that. He had not completely ruled out the genetic link because when
he first saw the appellant, very few of the genetic tests were available at the
time. Only the DYT test was available and it came back as negative. Over the
years, however, more tests became available and locally there was a
laboratory from which a batch of genetic tests could be ordered. However,
those were quite expensive and very often unrevealing. Another alternative
would be to export blood samples to the United States of America, to get a
more complete test. That still left another potential question which had been
raised in the literature, that in many diseases one might carry a genetic defect
that may develop a disease. However, for that to happen, there needed to be a
trigger event. In this regard, a patient may present with a certain form of illness
and upon testing, the rest of the family may be unaffected. The converse may
also be true. Upon extensive questioning, no history of dystonia was found in
the appellant’s family.
[21] Turning to Dr Miller’s evidence, in his report he excluded any direct
psychiatric aspect to the appellant’s dystonia. He also did not think that the
appellant suffered from epilepsy. He observed that just about everyone (in the
medical literature) agreed that dystonia would develop after a severe head
injury which involved lesions to the thalamus or the basal ganglia. Even non-
traumatic dystonia was related to some abnormality in the basal ganglia area
of the brain. Dystonia very rarely may develop from neck pathology. While
the appellant may have had neck and even thoracic pain for two to three days
after the accident, any long-standing pain was most likely as a result of
dystonia, not whiplash. It was unlikely that a soft tissue injury would still be
present after so many years taking into consideration the following: that the
appellant was, after the accident, not injured enough to go to the hospital; he
alighted the vehicle and exchanged information with the other driver; and the
dystonia first occurred 10 or 11 months later; whereas, with regard to the 2005
accident, the injury lasted only two weeks and then disappeared.
[22] The most compelling reason why there was no connection between the
dystonia and the 2007 accident, according to Dr Miller, was simply that the
appellant never had the clinical sign or picture of a significant head injury of
any type at all. The MRI and angiogram were both normal. According to these,
there was no evidence of any focal or chronic injury to the brain which could
have produced or precipitated the problem. To develop dystonia on a post-
traumatic basis, one would have had to have, at the very least, a moderate or
most likely a severe to very severe head injury. The severe impairment of the
appellant’s life was an organic brain problem and not related to the neck at all,
in Dr Miller’s view.
[23] There were, however, cases recorded in the medical literature where
cervical and shoulder injuries had been reported to produce dystonia either
acutely, or in some cases on a chronic basis, after six to twelve months. The
situation was controversial, because while all of the literature agreed that head
injuries produced dystonia, 50 per cent of the literature did not mention neck
or shoulder injuries producing dystonia at all. The other 50 per cent mentioned
acute or chronic dystonia, following a single or a repetitive neck injury. It
seemed that dystonia after a cervical or shoulder injury was exceedingly rare.
On the other hand, if regard were to be had to the incidences of pre-existing
trauma in patients with dystonia, approximately 5 to 20 per cent of cases
would have had some form of trauma in the background, excluding those with
obvious head injuries.
[24] Dr Miller further opined that given the common occurrence of minor to
moderate neck trauma in the general population, it may be that the trauma in
cases of people who develop dystonia was merely incidental and not a causal
finding. This was why 50 per cent of the literature did not even mention neck
trauma as a pre-existing factor in some cases of dystonia; almost all of the
literature mentioned head injuries and cranial trauma as a precursor of
dystonia in some cases. Even in non-traumatic cases of dystonia, the disorder
is classically one of brain dysfunction. Thus, after the exclusion of genetic
dystonia, the most common causes of dystonia are tardive or idiopathic and
non-genetic. If there were to be any association between cervical trauma or a
whiplash and dystonia, it was a very rare phenomenon, and for that reason
alone, the odds were that the appellant had developed secondary or idiopathic
dystonia.
[25] According to Dr Miller, the neck injury of 2007 or the previous two
neck injuries in 2003 and 2004/2005 were purely incidental phenomena,
particularly since thousands and millions of whiplash injuries produced no
overt or untoward effects of this type at all. In addition, almost all cases of
dystonia began in middle age (which, according to him, was in the mid-
thirties), which the appellant was approaching (at dystonia onset). Also, the
appellant was given no psychiatric or antipsychotic medication until 2008
when his clinical situation was well advanced.
[26] Furthermore, post-whiplash dystonias were usually not supposed to be
worse after exercise, while the appellant’s dystonia was precipitated by
exercise. Most importantly, post-whiplash, a post-traumatic cervical dystonia,
involved only the neck, whereas the appellant’s clinical picture was not only
related to the neck, but was facial, ophthalmic, laryngeal, truncal, brachial, or
hemi- dystonia, thus making it exceedingly unlikely that this dystonia was
related to the whiplash injury. The appellant’s case was a more generalised
type of dystonia, in Dr Miller’s view.
[27] Dr Miller testified that he had experience with neck injuries and was to
a certain extent acquainted with dystonia because from 2007 to 2014 he
performed treatment called deep brain stimulation, which is one of the
treatments for certain types of dystonia. In over 40 years’ experience he had
seen hundreds of thousands of cases with neck injuries and none had claimed
that their neck injuries (whiplash) presented a dystonic picture. Furthermore,
15 to 40 per cent of those who had whiplash injuries experienced the problem
for two to three weeks, which would make it easy for them to fit in with the
first requirement of the abovementioned Jankovic criteria. Much of what is in
the criteria commonly happened in whiplash cases.
[28] The appellant did not only have focal or cervical dystonia, he actually
collapsed during the episodes. This was because he had dystonia that involved
the trunk where it would flex very badly. He also had a laryngeal dystonia.
So, it was not only the neck, the face and eyes that were involved. Dr Miller
had also observed the appellant during his examination presenting with these
movements. The appellant could not breathe properly, he could not sit upright
and had to be lifted from the floor after he fell.
[29] Finally, Dr Miller testified that the appellant did not tell him about the
2003 accident. The appellant only informed him about the 2005 and 2007
accidents. The possibility of the dystonia being caused by the cumulative
effect of injuries resulting from the three different accidents would not be a
strange phenomenon, according to Dr Miller. Dr Birrell’s evidence did not
take the matter any further. And so, nothing further needs to be said in this
regard.
[30] Having analysed the evidence, the high court found:
‘In applying the [Jankovic] criteria and the whiplash injury sustained by the plaintiff; post-
accident the plaintiff would have presented with only post-whiplash dystonia, whereas in
the case of the plaintiff he however suffers from a more generalized type of dystonia. Thus,
on the criteria formulated by Dr Jankovic, it does not appear as if the onset of movement
disorder is related to the site of the injury, i.e. his neck.’
Factual causation
[31] In answering the question of factual causation it must be shown that
‘but for’ the 2007 accident the appellant would not have suffered from
dystonia.4 The enquiry is whether it was more probable than not that the
involuntary movements suffered by the appellant were caused by the
accident.5 This question need not be answered with absolute certainty but must
be established on a balance of probabilities.
4 Life Healthcare Group (Pty) Ltd v Dr Suliman [2018] ZASCA 118; 2019 (2) SA 185 (SCA) para 12.
5 Ibid para 16.
Approach to expert evidence
[32] The correct approach in evaluating expert evidence was laid down in
Michael and Another v Linksfield Park Clinic (Pty) Ltd and Another
(Linksfield),6 where this Court held:
‘. . . [W]hat is required in the evaluation of such evidence is to determine whether and to
what extent their opinions advanced are founded on logical reasoning. That is the thrust of
the decision in the medical negligence case of Bolitho v City and Hackney Health Authority
[1998] AC 232 (H.L.E)). With the relevant dicta in the speech of Lord Browne-Wilkinson
we respectfully agree. Summarised, they are to the following effect.
The court is not bound to absolve a defendant from liability for allegedly negligent medical
treatment or diagnosis just because evidence of expert opinion, albeit genuinely held, is
that the treatment or diagnosis in issue accorded with sound medical practice. The court
must be satisfied that such opinion has a logical basis, in other words that the expert has
considered comparative risks and benefits and has reached “a defensible conclusion” (at
241G-242B).’
[33] The fact that a body of professional opinion is almost universally held
would not make the opinion reasonable, if it disregarded an obvious risk that
could have been prevented. In this regard, this Court further stated in
Linksfield:7
‘A defendant can properly be held liable, despite the support of a body of professional
opinion sanctioning the conduct in issue, if that body of opinion is not capable of
withstanding logical analysis and is therefore not reasonable. However, it will seldom be
right to conclude that views genuinely held by a competent expert are unreasonable. The
assessment of medical risks and benefits is a matter of clinical judgment which the court
would not normally be able to make without expert evidence and it would be wrong to
decide a case by simple preference where there are conflicting views on either side, both
6 Michael and Another v Linksfield Park Clinic (Pty) Ltd and Another [2001] ZASCA 12; [2002] 1 All SA
384 (A) paras 36-37.
7 Ibid para 39.
capable of logical support. Only where expert opinion cannot be logically supported at all
will it fail to provide “the benchmark by reference to which the defendant’s conduct falls
to be assessed” (at 243A-E).’ (My emphasis.)
[34] Further, there is a difference between scientific and judicial measures
of proof. This difference was highlighted in the Scottish case of Dingley v The
Chief Constable, Strathclyde Police,8 as follows:9
‘One cannot entirely discount the risk that, by immersing himself in every detail and by
looking deeply into the minds of the experts, a judge may be seduced into a position where
he applies to the expert evidence the standards which the expert himself will apply to the
question whether a particular thesis has been proved or disproved - instead of assessing, as
a judge must do, where the balance of probabilities lies on a review of the whole of the
evidence.’ (My emphasis.)
[35] Expert evidence must be weighed as a whole and it is the exclusive duty
of the court to make the final decision on the evaluation of expert opinion.
Isolated statements made by experts should not too readily be accepted,
‘especially when dealing with a field where medical certainty is virtually
impossible’.10 With these principles in mind, I now turn to the evaluation of
the evidence.
Assessment of the evidence
[36] In advancing his opinion on the accident being the cause of the
appellant’s dystonia, Dr Smuts relied on an article titled, Movement disorders
8 Dingley v The Chief Constable, Strathclyde Police [2000] UKHL 14; 2000 SC (HL) 77 at 89D-E.
9 See also Maqubela v S [2017] ZASCA 137; 2017 (2) SACR 690 (SCA) para 5, where this Court held that
‘[t]he scientific measure of proof is the ascertainment of scientific certainty, whereas the judicial measure of
proof is the assessment of probability’.
10 Life Healthcare Group fn 4 para 15.
induced by peripheral trauma11 authored by José Cláudio Nobrega and others
(Nobrega), who adopted the criteria devised by Dr Jankovic. This was sourced
from Dr Jankovic’s earlier article, Post-traumatic movement disorders:
central and peripheral mechanisms12 (Jankovic 1), which advanced a case that
peripheral trauma may cause dystonia and proposed a criteria of classifying
cases in establishing the cause and effect relationship between the two.
[37] Before I deal with Dr Smuts’s evidence in relation to this article, I need
to say a word about what the law says in relation to an expert’s reliance on
literature. It is perfectly acceptable for an expert to rely on medical literature,
including a published article. The expert must, however, by reason of their
own training, affirm the correctness of the statements made in the article, at
least in principle, and such work relied upon must be written by a person of
established repute or proved experience in that field.13
[38] It is apparent from the reading of the high court’s judgment that it
considered Jankovic 1. This article and another, Can peripheral trauma
induce dystonia and other movement disorders? Yes!14 (Jankovic 2), also
authored by Dr Jankovic, were attached as annexures to the notice of appeal.
Both articles are cited in Nobrega. From the reading of the record, the two Dr
Jankovic articles were not canvassed in evidence. This is important, because
11 J C Nobrega, C R Campos, J C Limongi, M J Teixeira, and T Y Lin ‘Movement disorders induced by
peripheral trauma’ (2002) Arq Neuropsiquiatr 60(1):17-20 (Nobrega).
12 J Jankovic ‘Post-traumatic movement disorders: central and peripheral mechanisms’ (1994) Neurology 44
(11): 2006-2014 (Jankovic 1).
13 Menday v Protea Assurance Co Ltd [1976] 1 All SA 535 (E); 1976 (1) SA 565 (E) at 569G, endorsed by
the Constitutional Court in Van der Walt v S [2020] ZACC 19; 2020 (2) SACR 371 (CC); 2020 (11) BCLR
1337 (CC) para 31.
14 J Jankovic ‘Can peripheral trauma induce dystonia and other movement disorders? Yes!’ (2001) Mov
Disord 16(1): 7-12 (Jankovic 2).
they are the source of the hypothesis postulated by Nobrega upon which Dr
Smuts relied, and they express the criteria in terms more nuanced than
Nobrega.
[39] We were informed that the judge in the high court was furnished with
a copy of Jankovic 1 after the completion of the evidence, but before delivery
of the judgment. Dr Smuts testified that Dr Jankovic is well known in the
movement disorder professional community. This is evident from the three
articles placed before us.
[40] Dr Jankovic’s expertise in the field as well as the weight to be attached
to the article(s) before the high court were not seriously challenged by the
respondent. Apart from the issues being tamely put to the expert witnesses in
evidence, the issue does not seem to have been contentious in the high court.
Furthermore, while Dr Miller questioned the Jankovic criteria, he did not seem
to dispute his reputation, as Dr Jankovic was not known to him. I have no
difficulty in accepting that Dr Jankovic is a well-known scientist in regard to
movement disorders, the bigger issue is around the controversy of his
hypothesis, which he acknowledged was not universally embraced. In
Jankovic 2, he observes:
‘A cause-and-effect relationship between brain injury and subsequent movement disorder
is well established, but the existence of such a relationship following peripheral injury has
not yet been universally accepted. Because movement disorders usually occur without any
history of prior trauma, and as trauma is usually not associated with movement disorders,
some skeptics argue that the relationship between trauma and the subsequent movement
disorder is purely coincidental.’15
15 Ibid at 7.
[41] As appears from Nobrega, Jankovic 2’s postulation was apparently
disputed. In this regard, it cites an article, Can peripheral trauma induce
dystonia? No!, authored by W J Weiner.16 What is contained in this article, or
other views critiquing the Jankovic criteria, were regrettably not placed in
evidence as a way of balancing the opinions and in helping to assess the
logical basis and reasonableness of the hypotheses.
[42] Furthermore, while Nobrega endorses the notion that peripheral trauma
may induce movement disorders, they conclude that ‘additional experimental
studies [were] needed to further clarify the mechanisms possibly involved in
abnormal movement production and the ways in which a peripheral lesion
could affect basal ganglia activity’. It is not clear whether any further
experimental studies were done, or whether Dr Jankovic’s views and criteria
had become universally accepted, since the last of the articles presented to us
was published in 2002. It has been held, however, that the lack of general
acceptance of a scientific theory may not be the basis to reject it, without
more.17
[43] Dr Smuts’s testimony that the information was not available in 2009
(when he compiled his fist report) is puzzling. His testimony was that this
information was only published in 2011 and later in 2014. He repeated this a
few times in his evidence. This is undoubtedly incorrect, as the earliest article
was published in 1994 and the one he relied on in 2002.
16 W J Weiner ‘Can peripheral trauma induce dystonia? No!’ (2001) Mov Disord 16(1): 13-22, cited in
footnote 18 of Nobrega.
17 Oppelt v Head: Health, Department of Health Provincial Administration: Western Cape [2015] ZACC 33;
2016 (1) SA 325 (CC); 2015 (12) BCLR 1471 (CC) para 40.
[44] It is also perplexing that Dr Smuts, being a specialist in movement
disorders, would only discover in 2020 the phenomenon described by Dr
Jankovic, shortly before the trial, when, from the reading of the articles, the
concept had been the subject of debate for many years before. I say so, because
in his last report, dated 28 January 2020, Dr Smuts concluded that proof of a
link or not to the accident would remain a pure speculation. In his evidence
he disavowed some of his previous findings and conceded that he had changed
his mind many times over the years. He even made a concession that he was
wrong and did not understand paroxysmal non-kinesigenic dyskinesia, which
is a condition he had concluded, in one of his reports, that the appellant
suffered from. This may lend credence to the assertion made by Dr Miller in
the joint minute that Dr Smuts, like he (Dr Miller), did not have clinical
experience of the causal relationship between peripheral trauma and a motor
vehicle accident; an occurrence which both experts agree was very rare. That
is not to say that he was not an expert in movement disorders in general.
[45] Nonetheless, what is to be tested is the logical basis and reasonableness
of Dr Smuts’s latest opinion, in which he embraced the Jankovic criteria. In
this context, Dr Smuts’s evidence must be viewed as a whole. This, together
with Dr Miller’s counter-opinion. Dr Miller conceded that he was not an
expert in movement disorders, although he had experience in neck injuries
and performed deep brain stimulation in some dystonia patients. He also
conducted research on the current subject. The relevant expertise of both
experts in relation to their evidence is kept in mind.
[46] Dr Jankovic’s view that trauma to the central nervous system can cause
tremors and dystonia is well established.18 He further suggests that movement
disorders can also be produced by peripheral trauma. In his view ‘[a]lthough
initially challenged, the concept of peripherally induced movement disorders
is becoming more accepted’. He also argues that this hypothesis is growing in
support.
[47] As already indicated, Dr Jankovic admits that the cause-and-effect
relationship in cases of movement disorders following peripheral trauma is
less apparent, but that some clinicians have raised the possibility that injury
to the peripheral nervous system can also produce the movement disorders.19
To minimise the possibility of coincidence, he and others proposed the
following criteria for diagnosis, stated in Jankovic 1:20
‘(1) Injury must have been severe enough to cause local symptoms persisting for at least 2
weeks or requiring medical evaluation within 2 weeks after the peripheral injury, (2) the
onset of movement disorder must have occurred within a few days or months (up to 1 year)
after the injury, and (3) the onset of movement disorder must have been anatomically
related to the site of injury.’ (My emphasis.)
[48] In Jankovic 2, the third criterion is expressed in the following terms:
‘the initial manifestation of the movement disorder is anatomically related to
the site of injury’. The articulation of this third criterion is couched in slightly
different terms by Nobrega, which is the article the experts, and in particular
Dr Smuts, relied on in their evidence. It articulates this requirement as follows:
18 Jankovic 1 fn 12.
19 Ibid.
20 Ibid.
‘3. The abnormal movements should be anatomically related to the site of the injury.
Moreover, the causal relationship should be supported by the absence of other causes
capable of producing the same symptoms, presence of reflex sympathetic dystrophy and
poor response to conventional treatment.’ (My emphasis.)
[49] From this passage, it will be observed that the expressions ‘onset’ or
‘initially’ are absent from the description of the criterion. This is significant,
because, according to Jankovic 2:
‘In many cases, the movement disorder starts locally in the injured region but may later
spread to involve adjacent and ipsilateral body parts, eventually crossing over to the
contralateral side. When a movement disorder occurs within a few days after injury, the
cause-and-effect relationship is relatively easy to appreciate, but such an association
becomes less obvious as the latency between injury and onset of the movement disorder
increases. Although most studies insist on a relatively short (˂ 1 year) delay between
trauma and the initial appearance of dystonia, some investigators accept the diagnosis of
post-traumatic, peripherally induced dystonia after a latency as long as several years.’21
(My emphasis.)
Significantly, Dr Smuts made no mention of this distinction, and in particular
the stage of the dystonia, in which the criterion relates. This is because he
relied on an article that used different wording to that which is contained in
the Jankovic articles.
[50] Dr Jankovic accepts that there are limitations to the criteria he proposes,
in that not all patients who satisfy the criteria can be confirmed with absolute
certainty to have a peripherally induced movement disorder, alternatively it is
21 Jankovic 2 at 8.
possible that some patients whose movement disorders are causally related to
peripheral injury do not fulfil all of these criteria.22
[51] Nobrega argues that there are reasons to suggest that a direct
mechanical effect upon the peripheral nervous system may not itself cause
abnormal movements. Instead, a traumatic injury may exhibit an indirect
effect precipitating or aggravating a pre-existing subclinical dysfunction. This
article suggests that the low incidence of peripherally induced movement
disorders compared to the large incidence of traumatic events in the general
population suggests that some predisposing factor may be present before the
trauma. Commonly associated factors are: family history of essential tremor
and/or dystonia; premature birth; perinatal hypoxia; delayed psychomotor
development; and use of neuroleptic drugs.
[52] In the end, Nobrega suggests that although in some instances the
association between trauma and movement disorders might be coincidental,
the close temporal and anatomical relationships frequently observed by them
and others suggest a cause-and-effect phenomenon. Suggesting further that
the phenomenon that peripheral trauma can alter sensory input and induce
central cortical and sub-cortical reorganisation to generate abnormal
movements has gained scientific support.
Evidence relating to the application of the Jankovic criteria
[53] The application of the first two ground rules of the criteria to the
appellant’s dystonic picture present no difficulties. As to the first requirement,
22 Jankovic 2 at 7.
his trauma appears to have caused pain in the neck and back and required
medical evaluation within two weeks after the accident. He, therefore, fulfils
that criterion. As Dr Miller testified, however, most people who sustain
whiplash after a motor vehicle accident would easily fit into this rule.
[54] As regards the second criterion, both experts agree that the onset of the
dystonia was approximately 10 months after the 2007 accident. Again, there
is no argument about the fulfilment of this rule, as Dr Jankovic gives the
delayed onset a period of up to a year.
[55] Complications arise with the application of the third criterion. It will be
recalled that Dr Jankovic suggests that the onset or the initial manifestation of
the movement disorder must have been anatomically related to the site of the
injury. In terms of the expert reports, on 17 February 2008, the appellant
experienced a major attack while sitting in a motor vehicle. He could not
move, everything felt ‘loose’, so that he could not move his arms and legs and
he could not talk. He had to be carried by his father and wife into the house.
This lasted for one and a half hours. He later experienced residual stiffness
and felt nauseous. This lasted for a couple of days. He was too stiff to drive
and had to be driven to work by colleagues.
[56] The next episode happened at a coffee shop when he fell over the table
and collapsed over his colleague. He had to be carried to the office and was
also taken to hospital. At the hospital he had episodes of stiffness, pain in the
neck, and he would be bunched up and tight in all of the muscles, the neck,
head, arm and trunk would flex and his speech would be slurred.
[57] It appears from Dr Miller’s report that the appellant was told by Dr du
Plessis, a neurosurgeon he consulted before he was referred to Dr Smuts, that
the pins and needles in his arms and some spasms may be related to the neck,
but ‘there were problems with the pain and the spasms which could not be
explained by the neck’, and the decision at that stage was to refer him for
rehabilitation.
[58] Unfortunately, Dr Smuts did not separate the timelines relating to the
onset of the dystonia and the progression of the condition after the initial
manifestation, when applying the Jankovic criteria, as he ought to have done.
This is more so, because the appellant’s condition became more severe and
spread out as the years progressed, as Dr Jankovic says often happens.23
[59] Applying the third requirement indiscriminately, Dr Smuts simply
stated in his examination-in-chief that ‘[y]ou cannot bump your toe and
develop a measure of blepharospasm and say that that is related to one another
because your eyes and your toes are not linked in such a manner. But, if you
develop the dystonia in a region where the trauma took place that is
important’.
[60] Unfortunately, Dr Smuts was not asked to explain why the appellant’s
entire body, including the legs and the trunk, was affected, and how those
body parts were anatomically related to the region of the injury that was
caused by the accident, ie the neck and back. In cross-examination he was
23 Jankovic 2 at 8.
asked about the appellant’s dystonic condition at onset, which indicated that
he could not move and that he froze. Dr Smuts simply responded:
‘That is what [the appellant] stated there, yes. However, . . . there is something that is
maybe very important to state here that in the initial phases when the patient presented with
these things (a) he was very frightened, (b) nobody really understood what was going on.’
[61] I am of the view, however, that this answer does not adequately account
for these symptoms. This is because the next episode at the coffee shop
presented itself in a similar manner when the attack occurred. Counsel for the
respondent read from the medical history narrated by the appellant, which
added that the appellant was dizzy, had the facial muscles pulled downwards,
was nauseous, had a speech slur, and became completely limp. Dr Smuts’s
reply was that that was not how whiplash injuries normally presented; that
those symptoms looked like a movement disorder; and also what would not
normally be seen in classical idiopathic dystonia.
[62] Counsel for the respondent took Dr Smuts through the narration of the
medical history by the appellant over a couple of months since the first
episode in February 2008. In all of those the appellant had stated that he had
muscle spasms and twisting over the entire body which led to complete
limpness and included heavy breathing and slurring speech.
[63] Dr Smuts did not directly answer the question about the different types
of abnormal muscle movements that the appellant experienced (which
occurred in 2008), which were pointed out to him by the respondent’s counsel.
He simply referred to different impressions he had and clinical findings he
had made over a period of time. He did not explain how abnormal movements
in different body parts were related to the neck injury encountered in the
accident.
[64] In cross-examination, Dr Smuts appeared to suggest that the appellant’s
dystonia was generalised and atypical, which was his first concern. He
testified that a classical presentation of idiopathic dystonia was focal in form.
Jankovic 2, however, states that the post-traumatic cervical dystonia, which
usually occurs between three to 12 months, is similar to the phenotype of non-
traumatic, idiopathic, cervical dystonia. Dr Smuts’s second concern was that
the appellant was a completely healthy person who had an accident and after
medical intervention ended up the way he did. To him, that was more than a
coincidence.
[65] Dr Smuts appears to have simply moved from the position that because
there was a neck injury sustained as a result of the 2007 accident by a person
(the appellant) who was previously healthy, it was highly probable that that
caused the dystonia. He, however, did not explain how the generalised
abnormal movements were anatomically connected to the neck injury
sustained in the accident. This is an omission and was important, because, as
the Jankovic articles explain, the cause and effect in movement disorders,
where the onset is delayed, becomes less obvious than when the movement
disorder occurs a few hours or days after the injury. That is the reason why
the criteria were developed. It was to minimise the possibility that the
peripheral injury and subsequent movement disorder were linked by
coincidence. This is especially so, because the whiplash- induced dystonia is
rare. I accept that, rarity is not the basis to reject Dr Smuts’s opinion.
However, compliance with the Jankovic safeguards is the issue. It has been
accepted that even in circumstances like these, a spontaneous onset, excluding
the genetics and other probable causes, is not a strange phenomenon as
qualifiedly conceded by Dr Smuts in cross-examination.
[66] In all these circumstances, as tragic as the appellant’s condition is, I am
impelled to find that the Linksfield24 test was not met. Consequently, it has not
been shown, on a balance of probabilities, that the soft tissue injury of the
neck and back that the appellant sustained in the 2007 accident was causally
connected to the involuntary movement disorder that manifested 10 months
later. With other probable causes, ie use of medication, genetics and
psychogenic origin being excluded, it is more probable than not that the
dystonia was idiopathic and the whiplash sustained in the accident was simply
a coincidence. The judgment of the high court therefore should stand.
[67] What remains to be determined is the issue of costs. There is, in my
view, no reason to depart from the general rule that costs should follow the
event and that the successful party is awarded costs as between party and
party. However, even though the respondent employed the services of two
counsel, it is not entitled to such a costs order, in my view. This Court
lamentably derived little benefit from the engagement of two counsel in this
matter.
[68] In the circumstances, the following order is made:
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
24 See fn 6.
__________________________
N P MABINDLA-BOQWANA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
J S M Güldenpfennig SC (with M Upton)
Instructed by:
DVDM Attorneys, Pretoria
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
S J Myburgh (with J C van Eeden)
Heads of argument by A B Rossouw SC (with S J
Myburgh)
Instructed by:
Mohulatsi Attorneys Incorporated, Pretoria
Bezuidenhouts Incorporated, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
15 July 2022
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does
not form part of the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Frantzen v Road Accident Fund (331/2021) [2022] ZASCA 107 (15 July 2022)
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) today dismissed an appeal with costs against the decision
of the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (the high court), wherein the appellant, Mr
M A L Frantzen, instituted a claim against the respondent, the Road Accident Fund, for the
payment of compensation for damages resulting from bodily injury caused by a motor vehicle
accident in which he was involved on 8 April 2007 (the 2007 accident).
It was common cause that the appellant sustained a soft tissue injury of the neck, commonly
known as whiplash injury, in the 2007 accident. It was also common cause that the appellant
suffered from an involuntary movement disorder, dystonia. The appellant was 34 years old at
the time of the accident and practiced as an advocate until he was rendered incapacitated by
continuous episodes of dystonia. Dystonia results from an abnormality or damage in the regions
of the brain that control movement. This abnormality causes muscles in the affected parts of
the body to move uncontrollably or involuntarily. The onset of the appellant’s dystonia
occurred approximately 10 months after the 2007 accident.
The core issue between the parties was whether the dystonia was caused by the peripheral
trauma to the appellant’s neck, the whiplash injury. The SCA found that in answering the
question of factual causation it had to be shown that ‘but for’ the 2007 accident, the appellant
would not have suffered from dystonia. The enquiry was whether it was more probable than
not that the involuntary movements suffered by the appellant were caused by the accident. This
question did not have to be answered with absolute certainty, but had to be established on a
balance of probabilities.
In determining the question of factual causation, the SCA considered the evidence of expert
witnesses. Dr Johannnes Smuts, a neurologist, gave expert evidence on behalf of the appellant.
The respondent called Dr Percy Miller, a neurosurgeon, and Dr Donald Birrell, an orthopaedic
surgeon, as its expert witnesses. According to Dr Smuts, the appellant’s clinical picture (on
which the experts agreed) had a direct temporal relation to the 2007 accident and the neck
injury, whilst Dr Miller was of the opinion that it did not.
In advancing his opinion on the accident being the cause of the appellant’s dystonia, Dr Smuts
relied on an article titled, Movement disorders induced by peripheral trauma authored by José
Cláudio Nobrega and others (Nobrega), who adopted the criteria devised by Dr Joseph
Jankovic (a well-known author within the movement disorder community). This was sourced
from Dr Jankovic’s earlier article, Post-traumatic movement disorders: central and peripheral
mechanisms (Jankovic 1), which advanced a case that peripheral trauma may cause dystonia
and proposed a criteria of classifying cases in establishing the cause and effect relationship
between the two.
The criteria used for diagnosis, as per the literature by Dr Jankovic (the Jankovic criteria)
consisted of three requirements. Firstly, there must be trauma that is significant enough to
warrant treatment within the period of at least two weeks; secondly, the dystonia must develop
within one year from the period of trauma; and thirdly, the onset or the initial manifestation of
the movement disorder must have been anatomically related to the site of the injury. Dr Smuts
who had previously given three different opinions over the years, regarding the appellant’s
condition, was confident that the condition of the appellant conformed to this ‘current’
definition of post-traumatic dystonia and therefore decided that it was the most likely
possibility for the cause of the appellant’s medical condition.
The SCA found that what was to be tested was the logical basis and reasonableness of Dr
Smuts’s latest opinion, in which he embraced the Jankovic criteria. In this context, Dr Smuts’s
evidence had to be viewed as a whole. This, together with Dr Miller’s counter-opinion. The
relevant expertise of both experts in relation to their evidence was also considered.
The SCA found that the application of the first two ground rules of the Jankovic criteria to the
appellant’s dystonic picture presented no difficulties. The SCA found further that
complications arose with the application of the third criterion, wherein Dr Jankovic suggested
that the onset or the initial manifestation of the movement disorder must have been
anatomically related to the site of the injury. The SCA was of the view that Dr Smuts’s evidence
did not adequately account for why the appellant’s entire body, including the legs and the trunk,
was affected, and how those body parts were anatomically related to the region of the injury
that was caused by the accident, ie the neck and back. Dr Smuts did not explain how abnormal
movements in different body parts were related to the neck injury encountered in the accident.
The SCA, accordingly, held that it had not been shown, on a balance of probabilities, that the
soft tissue injury of the neck and back that the appellant sustained in the 2007 accident was
causally connected to the involuntary movement disorder that manifested 10 months later. With
other probable causes, ie use of medication, genetics and psychogenic origin being excluded,
it was more probable than not that the dystonia was idiopathic and the whiplash sustained in
the accident was simply a coincidence. The SCA, therefore, held that the judgment of the high
court should stand.
~~~~ends~~~~ |
3769 | non-electoral | 2022 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case no: 326/2020
In the matter between:
DEPARTMENT OF LABOUR:
THE COMPENSATION COMMISSIONER
APPELLANT
and
ROEBEL STEPHANUS BOTHA
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Department of Labour: The Compensation Commissioner v
Botha (Case no 326/2020) [2022] ZASCA 38 (04 April 2022)
Coram:
PETSE DP and SCHIPPERS, NICHOLLS and CARELSE JJA and
MEYER AJA
Heard:
17 February 2022
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties’ legal representatives via email. It has been published on the Supreme
Court of Appeal website and released to SAFLII. The date and time for hand-
down is deemed to be at 12h00 on 04 April 2022.
Summary: Labour law – Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases
Act 130 of 1993 – whether injury on duty resulted in disablement – extent of
permanent disablement and compensation payable – remittal to tribunal for
determination.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: North Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Leso AJ
and Baqwa J, sitting as court of appeal):
The appeal and the cross-appeal succeed in part.
The order of the court a quo is set aside and replaced with the following
order:
‘(a)
The decision of the Tribunal is set aside and it is declared that the
appellant is entitled to compensation as envisaged in s 22(1) of the
Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases Act 130 of 1993, as
amended (COIDA).
(b)
This matter is remitted to a Tribunal constituted in terms of s 91(3)
of COIDA for a decision on the appellant’s degree of disablement as a
result of the accident on 26 January 1998.
(c)
The Tribunal shall finalise this matter within six (6) months of the
date of this order, including a calculation of the amount of compensation
payable to the respondent.
(d)
The respondent shall pay the costs of the appeal, which costs shall
include the costs of two counsel, where so employed.
The appellant shall pay the costs of the appeal and cross-appeal, which
costs shall include the costs of two counsel.
________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
Nicholls JA (Petse DP and Schippers and Carelse AJJA and Meyer AJA
concurring):
[1] This appeal concerns a claim in terms of the COIDA by a claimant who
was injured while on duty, 24 years ago. COIDA was introduced as social
legislation to provide for compensation for disablement or death caused by
occupational injuries or diseases sustained or contracted by employees in the
course of their employment.1 It is a system of no-fault compensation which
relieves the employee of having to prove negligence, simultaneously relieving the
employer, on payment of contributions to the Compensation Fund, of the
eventuality of an expensive damages claim. COIDA has ‘a significant impact on
the sensitive and intricate relationship amongst employers, employees and society
at large’.2
[2] The appellant, the Compensation Commissioner (the Commissioner), has
appealed against a judgment of the North Gauteng Division of the High Court,
Pretoria (Leso AJ with Baqwa J concurring) (the high court), sitting as a court of
appeal, in terms of s 91(5) of COIDA. The high court reversed the decision of a
Tribunal, set up in terms of s 91(3) of COIDA, not to award any compensation to
Mr Roebel Stephanus Botha (Mr Botha), the respondent. It granted an order
setting aside the decision of the Tribunal and declaring Mr Botha to be 60%
permanently disabled. The Commissioner was ordered to calculate the amount
owing to Mr Botha within 30 days of the order. No order was made as to costs.
1 Preamble to COIDA.
2 Jooste v Score Supermarket Trading (Pty) Ltd (Minister of Labour Intervening) 1999 (2) SA 1 (CC); 1999 (2)
BCLR 139 (CC) para 9.
[3] Mr Botha filed a cross-appeal against the high court’s order that he was
60% permanently disabled, and the costs order. He contended that although
correct in upholding his appeal, the high court erred in determining that he was
60% permanently disabled. He contends that he is 100% permanently disabled
and should not, in any event, have been deprived of his costs as he was
substantially successful. Special leave to appeal was granted by this Court in two
separate applications, in respect of the appeal as well as the cross-appeal.
[4] Mr Botha’s right to compensation arises out of s 22(1) of COIDA, which
provides that ‘[i]f an employee meets with an accident resulting in his
disablement or death such employee or the dependants of such employee shall,
subject to the provisions of this Act, be entitled to the benefits provided for and
prescribed in this Act’. The jurisdictional requirements for compensation under s
22(1) are as follows: (i) the person must be an employee as defined in COIDA;
(ii) she or he must have been injured, contracted a disease, or died in an accident
as defined in COIDA; (iii) the accident must have occurred in the course and
scope of the employment; and (iv) the accident must have been the cause of the
injury and resultant disablement suffered by the employee.
[5] It is common cause that most of the requirements of s 22 have been met. It
is not disputed that Mr Botha was an employee as defined in COIDA. Nor is it
disputed that he injured himself in an accident whilst on duty. It is not contended
that Mr Botha is excluded on any administrative grounds of non-compliance with
the provisions of COIDA. Importantly, it is not disputed that he is permanently
disabled and has been unfit to work since the accident. Mr Botha is therefore
entitled to compensation in terms of s 22 of COIDA, if he can show that the
accident resulted in his disablement.
[6] The central issue in this appeal is whether there is a causal connection
between the accident that occurred whilst Mr Botha was on duty and the
permanent disability which he, admittedly, suffers. What gives rise to this inquiry
is the Tribunal’s finding that, in light of Mr Botha’s pre-existing medical
conditions at the time of the accident, the medical evidence does not show that
Mr Botha’s permanent disablement was caused by the injury he suffered on duty.
[7] On 26 January 1998, a police motor vehicle in which Mr Botha was a
passenger, collided with a mini-bus taxi while giving chase to a suspect. As a
result of the collision he suffered a whiplash injury and muscle spasms. He
resumed work the following day, 27 January 1998, and on the same day was
treated by Dr Griesel, who found him unfit to work.
[8] In order to contextualise the extent of the injury he suffered on 26 January
1998, it is necessary to delve into Mr Botha’s medical history. This is complicated
by a dearth of medical evidence documenting exactly what occurred, and the date
thereof. From the limited records, the following can be gleaned:
(a)
In 1995 or 1996 (according to both a psychologist’s report and an
occupational therapist’s report dated in May 2012), Mr Botha suffered a neck
injury while training for the South African Police Service specialised police
reaction force. He was in severe pain and reported the injury to the training
instructor, but did not lodge a claim with the Commissioner in respect of this
incident. The consequences were severe – he began losing balance, experienced
weakness in his legs, headaches, frequent urination, and stiffness in both hands.
He was diagnosed as having had a spinal stroke.
(b)
On 3 November 1997, a letter from a neurosurgeon, Dr Daan de Klerk,
states that Mr Botha has an ‘interesting history . . . the left leg is weakening. He
is becoming cripple, but no pain’. The MRI is reported to have shown that there
was a gross disc prolapse at C5-6 and degeneration at L4-5 vertebrae. The greatest
problem was ‘his extremely narrow canal and serious compression of the cord
and the MR already reflect[ed] central changes in the chord’.
(c)
On 4 November 1997, Mr Botha underwent his first spinal fusion. Dr de
Klerk noted the presence of ‘massive osteophytes’ as well as ‘midline pressure’.
According to the occupational therapist Mr Botha complained that he was
allowed only one month off work. This meant that he returned to duty without
having properly recuperated.
(d)
Less than 3 months later, on 26 January 1998, the motor vehicle collision,
which is the subject of this claim, occurred. It is not clear exactly what Mr Botha’s
state of health was at this time. Dr Griesel, who saw him the following day, found
him unfit to work due to ‘whiplash injury (soft tissue), muscle spasms: neck,
shoulders, arms and L leg’. This finding was confirmed by Dr Griesel in other
medical reports in terms of COIDA during 1998.
(e)
In March 1998, only two months after the accident, Mr Botha underwent
his second cervical spine fusion operation.
(f)
A follow up examination with Dr de Klerk on 21 January 1999 records that
Mr Botha had stabilised, but his foot remained a problem.
(g)
On 22 September 1999, he consulted a neurologist, Dr Bhagwan, who
reported that Mr Botha indicated that he had ‘a 2 year history of numbness in the
upper limbs precipitated by abducting his shoulders. He is presently walking with
the aid of one elbow crutch and this he has been doing since 26 January 1998. He
also experiences a burning sensation in his lower back and has spasms in the right
lower limb and right upper limb’. He was assessed as having ‘left C5/6
myeloradiculopathy’ and ‘severe hypercholesterolaemia’. As the date of the
injury on duty is incorrectly recorded as being on 27 January 1998, it is not clear
if Mr Botha was using the crutch before the motor vehicle collision or afterwards.
(h)
On 22 March 2000, Dr Griesel completed a medical report in terms of
COIDA in which he concluded that Mr Botha was permanently incapacitated and
his condition had not stabilised.
(i)
There are no available medical records from 2000 until 2011 when it is
recorded that Mr Botha had undergone three ankle fusion procedures and the
excision of the coccyx.
(j)
On 31 January 2011, Dr Rossouw completed a medical report in terms of
COIDA in which he found Mr Botha 80% physically impaired and 50%
intellectually impaired. A follow up report by Dr Rossouw on 18 October 2011
concluded that he had 80% loss of function, 30% psychological loss, and 60%
whole body impairment; he would never work again; his condition had not
stabilised and was progressive; and he may require further corrective surgery.
Reference was made to triple arthrodesis on the left ankle and excision of the
coccyx.
(k)
On 15 May 2012 and 20 May 2012 respectively, Dale Davidson, a clinical
psychologist, and Ms P Naidu, an occupational therapist, provided reports setting
out Mr Botha’s disability in their respective fields. The extensive report of Ms
Naidu provided a detailed overview of his disability and concluded that as a result
of the injury at work and the subsequent surgeries his disabilities were of a
permanent nature.
(l)
On 7 August 2012, Dr Rossouw found that Mr Botha was permanently
unfit for work and that his condition would progressively deteriorate – the issue
was not loss of movement but loss of strength.
(m)
The final medical report in terms of COIDA was that of Dr Basson, dated
15 August 2013, wherein he certified that the injuries were the result of the
accident and found that Mr Botha’s condition had not stabilised and that he was
unfit for work. He also noted the anatomical defects as being on the neck and the
ankle, with a loss of movement.
[9] Despite the above, and contrary to the findings in the medical reports, the
Commissioner wrote to Mr Botha on 31 January 2014 refusing an award for
compensation on the basis that Dr Rossouw had found that he suffered no
permanent disability as a result of the accident. However, this was factually
incorrect, as Dr Rossouw had stated in his report that Mr Botha was permanently
incapacitated.
[10] The refusal prompted Mr Botha to lodge an objection in terms of s 91(3)
of COIDA. The Tribunal set up in terms of COIDA dismissed the objection. The
reasons provided were that Mr Botha had a pre-existing injury to the neck which
had resulted in a C4-C6 cervical fusion. The whiplash injury sustained in the
motor vehicle accident had aggravated the pre-existing injury, which led to
another fusion in exactly the same place. Reference was made to a report by
Dr Basson on 22 September 1999 (this was clearly meant to refer to
Dr Bhagwan’s report dated 28 September 1999), in which it was recorded that
Mr Botha had been on crutches for a two-year period prior to the consultation. As
Mr Botha consulted with Dr Bhagwan on 22 September 1999, this period must
have commenced in 1997 before the injury on duty took place on
26 January 1998, so reasoned the Tribunal. In addition, Mr Botha had had surgery
to his left ankle in 1999, which was unsuccessful, as well as three operations in
2011. There was no medical report which linked the arthrodesis of the left ankle
and big toes and the C5-6 myeloradiculopathy to the on-duty motor vehicle
accident. The tribunal concluded, in light of the above, that Mr Botha was unable
to rebut the conclusion of the Commissioner that he suffered from pre-existing
‘degenerative spon[d]ylotic changes with end plate osteophytosis and disc space
narrowing throughout his lumbar spine’.
[11] The high court set aside the Tribunal’s decision and declared that Mr Botha
was 60% permanently disabled. It ordered the Commissioner to calculate the
amount payable to Mr Botha within 30 days. No reasons were given by the high
court for its finding of 60% permanent disablement.
[12] On appeal to this Court, it was argued by counsel for the Commissioner
that, in light of his previous health problems, Mr Botha had not shown that the
injury he suffered in the accident on 26 January 1998 resulted in his permanent
disablement. Put differently, Mr Botha had failed to prove on a balance of
probabilities that the cause of his permanent disablement was the injury he
sustained on duty. It was correctly, and very fairly, conceded by counsel for the
Commissioner that the appropriate and equitable course of action would be to
refer Mr Botha for a further medical examination. The purpose would be to
consider whether the accident on duty aggravated his pre-existing medical
condition to the extent that it rendered him permanently disabled.
[13] The first inquiry is whether any causal link has been established. In
Basson v Ongevallekommissaris,3 an employee with a pre-existing back injury
had an accident while on duty. Concerning the causal connection between the
injury and the disablement, the court held that it was not required that the injury
suffered by the employee should be exclusively as a result of the accident. It was
sufficient that it be a ‘contributing factor’ to the injury. The court therefore held
that the Commissioner would still be liable if the pre-existing condition was
exacerbated by the accident, rendering the employee incapacitated, in that but for
the accident, the employee would not have suffered the injury presently
complained of.
[14] On the facts before this Court, it is clear that the whiplash injury
exacerbated the pre-existing injuries. Drs Griesel, Rossouw and Basson all
certified, in the medical reports submitted in terms of COIDA, that they were
satisfied that the injury had been caused by the accident. The tribunal itself found
that the ‘whiplash injury aggravated the pre-existing neck injury and affected the
3 Basson v Ongevallekommissaris [2000] 1 All SA 67 (C).
fusion on levels C4-C6’. A causal link has thus been established between the
injury suffered on duty and the permanent disablement of Mr Botha.
[15] This leads to the second inquiry, which is to what extent the pre-existing
injury contributed to his permanent disablement. This is impossible to establish
on the medical records before this Court. What is however apparent from the
evidence is that Mr Botha has suffered permanent disablement. This has had a
devastating impact on his quality of life and there is no doubt that he should be
compensated for this. The question is the extent of his disablement and how his
previous medical history impacted on his permanent disablement.
[16] Compensation for permanent disablement is regulated by s 49 of COIDA,
which provides:
‘(1)(a) Compensation for permanent disablement shall be calculated on the basis set out in
items 2, 3, 4 and 5 of Schedule 4 subject to the minimum and maximum amounts.
(2)(a) If an employee has sustained an injury set out in Schedule 2, he shall for the purposes of
this Act be deemed to be permanently disabled to the degree set out in the second column of
the said Schedule.
(b) If an employee has sustained an injury or serious mutilation not mentioned in Schedule 2
which leads to permanent disablement, the Director-General shall determine such percentage
of disablement in respect thereof as in his opinion will not lead to a result contrary to the
guidelines of Schedule 2.
(c) If an injury or serious mutilation contemplated in paragraph (a) or (b) has unusually serious
consequences for an employee as a result of the special nature of the employee’s occupation,
the Director-General may determine such higher percentage as he or she deems equitable.’
[17] Counsel for Mr Botha argued that in terms of the deeming provisions of
s 49(2)(a) read with Schedule 2 of COIDA, Mr Botha is 100% disabled. That
section deems as permanently disabled, to the degree set out in Schedule 2, an
employee who has sustained an injury identified therein. The severity of the
injury is determined with reference to Schedule 2, which then attributes a
percentage of disability as a result of the injury. Schedule 2 lists the injuries in
the first column and the percentage of permanent disability allocated to each
injury in the second column. The injuries primarily relate to the loss of a body
part, such as a limb, toe, finger, eye, and loss of sight or hearing. In addition, the
Schedule provides for 100% permanent disability for certain injuries, such as total
paralysis. It is the sixth item in the first column on which counsel for Mr Botha
relies. This provides that if an employee suffers any injury not listed in the
Schedule which leads to permanent total disablement, she or he will be deemed
to be 100% disabled. It is on this basis that it is contended that Mr Botha is 100%
disabled. Given his incapacity, it is argued, the high court misdirected itself, with
reference to Schedule 2, by declaring Mr Botha to be 60% disabled.
[18] This argument is devoid of merit. It is inconceivable that any injury not
listed in Schedule 2 should attract an award of 100% permanent disablement,
irrespective of the nature of the injury. There are countless injuries which an
employee may suffer in the workplace which are not listed in the Schedule. As
pointed out by this Court,4 almost anything which unexpectedly causes illness,
injury to, or death of, an employee falls within the concept of an accident. Should
an injury, which is not listed in Schedule 2, befall an employee as a result of such
an accident, this does not axiomatically mean that he or she is 100% disabled.
The extent of the disability must be determined in light of the facts of the specific
case and according to medical evidence.
[19] Further, this argument ignores s 49(2)(b), which grants the Director-
General a discretion to determine a percentage of permanent disablement for a
serious injury not provided for in Schedule 2. The section specifically states that
4 Churchill v Premier, Mpumalanga and another [2021] ZASCA 16; [2021] 2 All SA 323 (SCA); [2021] 6 BLLR
539 (SCA); 2021 (4) SA 422 (SCA) para 14.
the result should not be contrary to the guidelines set out in Schedule 2. In
applying these guidelines, courts have cautioned against applying a mechanical
approach to Schedule 2.5 It should also be borne in mind that the schedules are
no more than a set of administrative guidelines issued by the Director-General to
assist decision-makers exercising powers in term of COIDA.6 Where the injuries
have not been listed in Schedule 2 it has not been the approach of the courts to
invoke the deeming provision. Rather, Schedule 2 has been used as a guideline in
determining what is fair and reasonable compensation once the extent and nature
of the permanent disablement has been established by the relevant medical
experts.7
[20] In the particular circumstances of this case and in the absence of any
evidence to that effect, there is no option but for the Commissioner to obtain
further medical reports, detailing the extent to which the pre-existing injuries
were the cause of Mr Botha’s current permanent disablement. Once these have
been procured the Tribunal should determine the compensation payable with the
benefit of proper medical evidence. In coming to its decision, the Tribunal should
bear in mind that employees should be assisted as far as possible and any
interpretation should be to the benefit of the employee.8
[21] Cognisant that Mr Botha was injured 24 years ago, and submitted his claim
for compensation in August 1998, strict time limits are to be imposed on the
Tribunal to make its determination. The delays in finalising his claim are
5 Healy v Compensation Commissioner and Another 2010 (2) SA 470 (E) paras 19 and 21.
6 Ibid para 2 where the court held that a knee injury not included in Schedule 2 rendered the employee 45%
permanently disabled as opposed to the 18% determined by the Tribunal.
7 Odayar v Compensation Commissioner 2006 (6) SA 202 (N); (2006) 27 ILJ 1477 (N); Urquhart v Compensation
Commissioner [2005] ZAECHC 32; [2006] All SA 80 (E); [2006] 1 BLLR 96 (E); Compensation Commissioner
v Georgia Badenhorst [2022] ZAECHC 1 (E); Pretorius v The Compensation Commissioner and Another [2007]
ZAFSHC 128 (FB); J L v Rand Mutual Assurance [2019] ZAGPJHC 392 (GJ).
8 Davis v Workmen’s Compensation Commissioner 1995 (3) SA 689 (C) 694F-G; Urquhart v Compensation
Commissioner [2006] 2 All SA 80 (E); 2006 (1) SA 75 (E) 84A-C; Pretorius v The Compensation Commissioner
and Another [2007] ZAFSHC 128 (FB) para 15.
unreasonable, egregious and unexplained. There is no reason why medical reports
setting out as accurately as possible the extent to which the accident on duty
contributed to Mr Botha’s permanent disablement, should not be obtained within
six months. Should Mr Botha require his own medical report, this too should be
obtained within the six-month period. I can see no reason why the latter should
not be at the Commissioner’s expense, in view of the fact that it relates to an
injury on duty.
[22] As to costs, it was conceded by counsel for the Commissioner that the
Biowatch principle should apply and, indeed, that the only reason for the remittal
is because the Tribunal erred in the first place when it decided that no
compensation whatsoever was payable. This being the case, there is no reason
why Mr Botha should be out of pocket, especially taking into account the
unconscionable delay in finalising his claim. Both parties employed two counsel
and accepted that any costs award should reflect this.
[23] To the extent that condonation was sought by both parties for the late filing
of the cross-appeal and the heads of argument respectively, it is hereby granted.
[24] In the result I make the following order:
The appeal and the cross-appeal succeed in part.
The order of the court a quo is set aside and replaced with the following
order:
‘(a)
The decision of the Tribunal is set aside and it is declared that the
appellant is entitled to compensation as envisaged in s 22(1) of the
Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases Act 130 of 1993, as
amended (COIDA).
(b)
This matter is remitted to a Tribunal constituted in terms of s 91(3)
of COIDA for a decision on the appellant’s degree of disablement as a
result of the accident on 26 January 1998.
(c)
The Tribunal shall finalise this matter within six (6) months of the
date of this order, including a calculation of the amount of compensation
payable to the respondent.
(d)
The respondent shall pay the costs of the appeal, which costs shall
include the costs of two counsel, where so employed.’
The appellant shall pay the costs of the appeal and cross-appeal, which
costs shall include the costs of two counsel.
____________________
C H NICHOLLS
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES
For appellant:
M Sikhakhane SC (with him, S Nhantsi)
(Heads of argument drawn by Z Z Matabese SC, with him S
Nhantsi)
Instructed by:
The State Attorney, Pretoria
The State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
T P Krüger SC (with him, H Worthington)
Instructed by:
Gildenhuys Malatji Incorporated, Pretoria
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
04 April 2022
Status: Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does not form part of
the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Department of Labour: The Compensation Commissioner v Botha (326/2020) [2021] ZASCA 38 (04 April 2022)
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) today upheld an appeal and cross-appeal in part, thus setting aside the order
of the court a quo and remitting the matter to a Tribunal set up in terms of s 91(3) of Compensation for
Occupational Injuries and Diseases Act 130 of 1993, as amended (COIDA). The appellant was ordered to pay the
costs of the appeal, in accordance with the Biowatch principle.
The appellant, the Compensation Commissioner (the Commissioner), appealed against a judgment of the North
Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Leso AJ and Baqwa J) (the high court), sitting as a court of appeal,
in terms of s 91(5) of COIDA. The high court reversed the decision of a tribunal, set up in terms of s 91(3) of
COIDA, not to award any compensation to the respondent. It granted an order setting aside the decision of the
tribunal and declaring the respondent, who was the appellant in the high court, to be 60% permanently disabled.
The appellant, the respondent in the high court, was ordered to calculate the amount owing to the respondent
within 30 days of the order. No order was made as to costs. The respondent filed a cross-appeal against the high
court’s order, contending that although correct in upholding his appeal, the high court erred in determining that
he was 60% permanently disabled. He contended that he was 100% permanently disabled and should not have
been deprived of his costs, as he was substantially successful.
The central issue in the appeal was whether there was a causal connection between the accident that occurred
whilst the respondent was on duty and the permanent disability which he, admittedly, suffered. The SCA found
that the first inquiry was whether any causal link had been established between the injury suffered on duty and
the permanent disablement of the respondent. On the facts, it was clear that the whiplash injury exacerbated the
pre-existing injuries. The doctors who examined the respondent all certified that they were satisfied that the injury
had been caused by the accident. The tribunal itself found that the whiplash injury aggravated a pre-existing neck
injury. A causal link had thus been established.
The second inquiry was to what extent the pre-existing injury contributed to the respondent’s current status. The
SCA found that that was impossible to establish on the medical records before the court. What was however
apparent from the evidence was that the respondent had suffered permanent disablement. The question then was
the extent of the respondent’s disablement and how his previous medical history impacted on his present
disablement.
The SCA held that the respondent was to obtain medical reports which detail the extent to which the pre-existing
injuries caused the respondent’s current permanent disablement. Once these had been procured, the SCA held, the
matter should be remitted to the tribunal for determination of the compensation payable with the benefit of proper
medical evidence. The SCA held further that strict time limits were to be imposed on the tribunal to make its
determination within six months.
~~~~ends~~~~ |
2316 | non-electoral | 2009 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 543/08
RANDFONTEIN MUNICIPALITY
Appellant
and
JOHN MICHAEL GROBLER
First Respondent
BEN MSIMANGA
Second Respondent
THE OCCUPIERS OF IMMOVABLE PROPERTY
KNOWN AS PORTION 74 OF THE FARM ELANDSVLEI
249 I.Q. RANDFONTEIN
Third Respondent
Neutral citation: Randfontein Municipality v Grobler and others (543/08)
[2009] ZASCA 129 (29 September 2009).
Coram:
HARMS DP, LEWIS, PONNAN JJA, TSHIQI et WALLIS AJJA
Heard:
10 SEPTEMBER 2009
Delivered:
29 SEPTEMBER 2009
Summary:
Eviction ─ referral to oral evidence on whether occupation with
express or tacit consent ─ whether PIE or ESTA applicable.
______________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________
On appeal from: High Court, Johannesburg (Du Plessis AJ sitting as court of
first instance).
The appeal is upheld with no order as to costs in this court and the order of
the court a quo is set aside and replaced with an order in the following terms:
'(a)
The application is postponed to a date to be determined by the
Registrar of the South Gauteng High Court for the hearing of oral evidence.
(b)
The issues to be resolved at such hearing are:
(i)
whether or not any person, claiming to reside on portion 24 of the
Farm, Elandsvlei, 249, IQ, Randfontein is an occupier thereon as
contemplated in the Extension of Security of Tenure Act, 62 of 1997
(ESTA); and
(ii)
whether such person had consent, as contemplated in ESTA, to reside
thereon, and
(iii)
in consequence of such findings, whether the provisions of ESTA or
the Prevention of Illegal Eviction from and Unlawful Occupation of Land
Act, 19 of 1998 (PIE) are applicable to the eviction of such persons.
(c)
The evidence to be adduced at the aforesaid hearing shall be that of
any witnesses whom the parties or any of them may elect to call, subject
however to what is provided below.
(d)
Save in the case of any persons who have already deposed to
affidavits in these proceedings, neither party shall be entitled to call any
person as a witness unless─
(i)
It has served on the other party, at least 14 days before the date
appointed for the hearing, a statement by such person wherein the
evidence to be given in chief by such person is set out; or
(ii)
The court, at the hearing, permits such person to be called despite the
fact that no such statement has been so served in respect of his or her
evidence.
(e)
Either party may subpoena any person to give evidence at the hearing,
whether such person has consented to furnish a statement or not.
(f)
The fact that a party has served a statement or has subpoenaed a
witness shall not oblige such party to call the witness concerned.
(g)
Within 45 days of the making of this order, each of the parties shall
make discovery on oath of all documents relating to the issues referred to
above, which documents are, or have at any time been, in possession or
under the control of such party.
(h)
Such discovery shall be made in accordance with Rule 35 of the
Uniform Rules of Court and the provisions of that Rule with regard to the
inspection and production of documents discovered shall be operative.
______________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________
TSHIQI AJA (HARMS DP, LEWIS, PONNAN JJA et WALLIS AJA
concurring):
[1] The issue in this appeal is whether the High Court had jurisdiction to
order the eviction of certain occupiers from property under the provisions of
the Prevention of Illegal Eviction From and Unlawful Occupation of Land Act
19 of 1998 (PIE). Mr Grobler, the owner of a farm described as Portion 74,
Elandsvlei 249 IQ, Randfontein brought an application to the High Court,
Johannesburg, for an order for the eviction of the second and third
respondents (the occupiers) from the farm stating that none of them had a
right to occupy it. The application was opposed by the respondents who
challenged the jurisdiction of the court in that they alleged that the dispute fell
to be determined under the provisions of the Extension of Security of Tenure
Act 62 of 1997 (ESTA) because, as they alleged, the occupiers had consent
to occupy the land. The court below accepted the version of the applicant that
there was no consent and dealt with the matter under PIE. The court further
found no real nor genuine dispute of fact and consequently held that no case
was made for referral to oral evidence. The appeal is against both findings
and is brought with leave of the court below. The main issue is whether there
was a real and genuine dispute that necessitated a referral to oral evidence.
[2] The occupiers commenced settling on the farm in 1959. They
constitute a settled community of approximately 2000 people comprising 900
women, 54 pensioners and 500 children. They live in shelters consisting of
approximately 133 shacks, 44 permanent structures, two caravans and by
August 2006 there were said to be 261 dwellings. It is not in dispute that the
land is classified as agricultural land.
[3] The appellant, Randfontein Local Municipality (the third respondent in
the court below) was cited in its capacity as the state functionary obliged to
give effect to the obligations of the state in terms of s 26 and 27 of the
Constitution of the Republic of South Africa ('the Constitution'). Notice was
duly served in terms of s 4(2) of PIE and the application was opposed by the
occupiers who filed affidavits with the assistance of the Legal Aid Board.
[4] ESTA and PIE were adopted with the objective of giving effect to the
values enshrined in ss 26 and 27 of the Constitution. The common objective
of both statutes is to regulate the conditions and circumstances under which
occupiers of land may be evicted.1 The main distinction is that broadly
speaking ESTA applies to rural land outside townships and protects the rights
of occupation of persons occupying such land with consent after
4 February 1997, whilst PIE is designed to regulate eviction of occupiers who
lack the requisite consent to occupy. Occupiers protected under ESTA are
specifically excluded from the definition of 'unlawful occupier' in PIE.2 An order
for the eviction of occupiers may be granted under ESTA by a competent
1 PIE provides for the prohibition of unlawful eviction and provides procedures for the eviction
of unlawful occupiers. ESTA aims to assist to facilitate long-term security of tenure but also
recognises the right of land owners to apply to court for an eviction order in appropriate
circumstances.
2 Section 1 of PIE defines an unlawful occupier as 'a person who occupies land without the
express or tacit consent of the owner or person in charge, or without any other right in law to
occupy such land, excluding a person who is an occupier in terms of the Extension of Security
of Tenure Act, 1997, and excluding a person whose informal right to land, but for the
provisions of the Act, would be protected by the provisions of the Interim Protection of
Informal Land Rights Act, 1996 (Act 31 of 1996)'.
court on just and equitable grounds, having regard to the different
considerations applicable in each instance. The Land Claims Court is a
specialist tribunal established by s 22 of the Restitution of Land Rights Act 22
of 1994 and enjoys jurisdiction, subject to ss 17, 19, 20 and 22 of ESTA, to
deal with cases determined under ESTA. It follows, therefore, that if the land
was occupied with consent, either express or tacit, the jurisdiction of the High
Court to deal with it is excluded in the absence of consent to its jurisdiction.3
[5] 'Consent' and 'occupier' are defined in s 1 of ESTA as follows:
'"consent" means express or tacit consent of the owner or person in charge of the
land in question, and in relation to a proposed termination of the right of residence or
eviction by a holder of mineral rights, includes the express or tacit consent of such
holder;
"occupier" means a person residing on land which belongs to another person, and
who has or on 4 February 1997 or thereafter had consent or another right in law to do
so, but excluding . . ..'
[6] Section 2(1)(a) of ESTA provides:
'(1)
Subject to the provisions of section 4, this Act shall apply to all land other than
land in a township established, approved, proclaimed or otherwise recognised as
such in terms of any law, or encircled by such a township or townships, but
including ─
(a)
any land within such a township which has been designated for agricultural
purposes in terms of any law . . ..'
[7] ESTA envisages both express and tacit consent. The fact that express
consent was not alleged does not mean there was no consent at all. In this
case the occupiers assert consent. The lengthy period for which the occupiers
had settled on the land, the size of the community and the fact that the
municipality provides certain services are all relevant in determining the
existence of tacit consent.
3 Section 17(2) of ESTA.
[8] The provisions of s 3 of ESTA may also be relevant in the final
determination of the dispute because this section creates a presumption of
consent in favour of the occupiers in civil proceedings in terms of ESTA as
follows:
'(4)
For the purposes of civil proceedings in terms of this Act, a person who has
continuously and openly resided on land for a period of one year shall be presumed
to have consent unless the contrary is proved.
(5)
For the purposes of civil proceedings in terms of this Act, a person who has
continuously and openly resided on land for a period of three years shall be deemed
to have done so with the knowledge of the owner or person in charge.'
This section provides that once it is proved that occupiers have resided on the
land classified as agricultural land for more than three years then the
presumption becomes effective in their favour.
[9] In Rademeyer and others v Western Districts Council and others4
Nepgen J had occasion to deal with the requirement of tacit consent in the
context of ESTA. He accepted that the initial occupation of the respondent's
property in that case took place without the prior consent of the respondent, a
local authority. He found that it was clear that upon becoming aware of the
presence of the occupiers, the attitude of the local authority was that the
occupiers could remain on the property until alternative arrangements could
be made to house them elsewhere. He then concluded as follows:5
'In my judgment, the conduct of the respondent in permitting the intervening
respondents to remain on the respondent's property and resolving to provide them
with water and sanitation (which has in fact been provided) constitutes at the very
least tacit consent to the intervening respondents to reside on the respondent's
property. It was not contended, and in my view rightfully so, that, if the provisions of
the Act were applicable, the applicants could be granted any relief. As I have
concluded that the Act does apply to these proceedings, the application cannot
succeed.'
[10] The conclusion in that decision was debated at length by the
Constitutional Court in Residents of Joe Slovo Community, Western Cape v
4 1998 (3) SA 1011 (SECLD).
5 1017B-C.
Thubelisha Homes and others.6 Three judges in that court (Moseneke DCJ,
Sachs J and Mokgoro J) concluded that the surrounding circumstances seen
as a whole allowed a reasonable inference that the owner had given the
occupiers consent to occupy the land. Moseneke DCJ in his judgment found
that the conduct of the municipality in providing substantial services over a
lengthy period, occupation over a period of 15 years and the conditions of
occupation imposed by the municipality were the overall factors from which
such an inference may be drawn.7 O'Regan J in her judgment found that as
the upgrading of the settlement was welcomed by the inhabitants and the
process of upgrading, which took place in 2002, went way beyond the
provision of basic services it was clear that the municipality was consenting
tacitly to the occupation of the land.8
[11] In order to determine the issue raised in this appeal it is necessary to
analyse the evidence pertaining to the occupation of the farm. Grobler in his
founding affidavit did not provide information on the circumstances in which
the land was occupied. As proof of ownership he attached a Windeed Report
from the Deeds Office database which reflects the purchase price as
R100 000,00 and the date of transfer from an entity known as Patelsons
Investments (Pty) Ltd on 17 February 2005. He simply stated that the
occupiers did not occupy in terms of a lease agreement and that they were
occupying without his consent. He also attached a document named 'site plan
of 74 Elandsvlei' which shows that there was an established township on the
land on the date of transfer into his name and he mentioned that since that
date seven more shacks had been erected on the property. This implies that
the majority of occupiers must have been in occupation before he became
owner. Significantly, he failed to address the question whether, in terms of
ESTA, the occupiers did not have prior consent, tacit or otherwise.
[12] The answering affidavits of the occupiers were also brief and did not
deal with consent or the circumstances in which the land was occupied. They
6 [2009] ZACC 16.
7 Para 151.
8 Para 278.
simply gave personal details, the dates of occupation of the respective
individuals and that they receive municipal services. These dates go back for
many years.
[13] The affidavit by the municipal manager, Randfontein, simply recited
details of the housing programme being implemented by the municipality in
terms of the South African Housing Code and did not provide details
pertaining to the occupiers other than stating that the property was 'first
occupied in November 2005' which was palpable nonsense.
[14] It is not in dispute that the property was first occupied in 1959. It is
furthermore clear that when Grobler purchased the property in February 2005,
the occupiers had already been in occupation of the land for a lengthy period
of time. The only contentious issue therefore is whether they remained in
occupation with consent. As ESTA clearly recognises tacit consent which may
be in the form of prior consent by other owners or people in charge, the
allegations contained in later affidavits created real and bona fide disputes of
fact with regards to consent. The approach to be adopted in an instance such
as this is trite and was further clarified by this court in Wightman t/a J W
Construction v Headfour (Pty) Ltd and another9 as follows:
'Recognising that the truth almost always lies beyond mere linguistic determination
the courts have said that an applicant who seeks final relief on motion must, in the
event of conflict, accept the version set up by his opponent unless the latter's
allegations are, in the opinion of the court, not such as to raise a real, genuine or
bona fide dispute of fact or are so far-fetched or clearly untenable that the court is
justified in rejecting them merely on the papers: Plascon–Evans Paints Ltd v Van
Riebeeck Paints (Pty) Ltd 1984 (3) SA 623 (A) at 634E-635C. See also the analysis
by Davis J in Ripoll-Dausa v Middleton NO and Others 2005 (3) SA 141 (C) at 151A-
153C with which I respectfully agree. (I do not overlook that a reference to evidence
in circumstances discussed in the authorities may be appropriate.)
A real, genuine and bona fide dispute of fact can exist only where the court is
satisfied that the party who purports to raise the dispute has in his affidavit seriously
and unambiguously addressed the fact said to be disputed. There will of course be
9 2008 (3) SA 371 (SCA) paras 12 and 13.
instances where a bare denial meets the requirement because there is no other way
open to the disputing party and nothing more can therefore be expected of him. But
even that may not be sufficient if the fact averred lies purely within the knowledge of
the averring party and no basis is laid for disputing the veracity or accuracy of the
averment. When the facts averred are such that the disputing party must necessarily
possess knowledge of them and be able to provide an answer (or countervailing
evidence) if they be not true or accurate but, instead of doing so, rests his case on a
bare or ambiguous denial the court will generally have difficulty in finding that the test
is satisfied. I say "generally" because factual averments seldom stand apart from a
broader matrix of circumstances all of which needs to be borne in mind when arriving
at a decision. A litigant may not necessarily recognise or understand the nuances of
a bare or general denial as against a real attempt to grapple with all relevant factual
allegations made by the other party. But when he signs the answering affidavit, he
commits himself to its contents, inadequate as they may be, and will only in
exceptional circumstances be permitted to disavow them. There is thus a serious
duty imposed upon a legal adviser who settles an answering affidavit to ascertain
and engage with facts which his client disputes and to reflect such disputes fully and
accurately in the answering affidavit. If that does not happen it should come as no
surprise that the court takes a robust view of the matter.'
[15] This approach is appropriate in this matter. The unsatisfactory manner
in which the occupiers' defence was conducted is sketched in the judgment of
the court below. But that does not dispose of the matter. Grobler bore the
onus to establish that the high court had jurisdiction. He was faced with the
fact that when he bought the land, there was a settled community there. He
failed to address the issue of jurisdiction squarely in his founding affidavit in
spite of all the indications that there must have been a real possibility of
consent to occupy that preceded his purchase. He was surprisingly silent on
why he bought the land despite this and on what he intended to do with the
community.
[16] The parties filed supplementary affidavits. In his supplementary
affidavit the municipal manager sought to retract the date of November 2005
and introduced hearsay evidence from some of the occupiers stating that
according to them they occupied the land earlier than 1997 with the consent
of a certain Laher. Clearly the municipal manager could not provide
independent information concerning the basis of occupation and no reliance
may be placed on his affidavit with regard to the circumstances of the
occupation.
[17] Mr Ben Msimanga, the second respondent (the first respondent in the
court below), who was cited in his capacity as chairman of the community of
occupiers, also filed an answering supplementary affidavit in which he made
the bald allegation that they had occupied the property for a period of 35
years with the consent of the owner but gave no further details pertaining to
the identity of the person who gave the consent, his capacity, nor the
circumstances surrounding the consent and the occupation.
[18] In reply to the allegation of consent, Grobler filed an affidavit in which
he denied the consent alleged and set out for the first time that he bought the
property in February 2005 from a company known as Patelsons Investments
(Pty) Ltd ('Patelsons'). It would appear that they in turn had bought it during
February 1993. He denied that the previous owner had given consent to the
occupiers. In support of this he attached confirmatory affidavits from a Mr
Baboo Patel, a shareholder and director of Patelsons and a Mr Ismailjee, a
son of Laher. These affidavits are still silent on the circumstances of the
occupation prior to the purchase and have no probative value. A proper
investigation of the circumstances is necessary.
[19] Another relevant consideration is the purchase price paid by Grobler
for the land. The purchase price in 1993, when the land was transferred to
Patelsons, was R100 000,00. Grobler in turn purchased the property from
Patelsons in 2005 for the same amount. It is highly unlikely that the value of
the land had not increased after so many years. This unusual factor suggests
on the probabilities that everyone knew about the occupation and its probable
implications.
[20] The common cause facts regarding the lengthy period of tenure on the
land and the circumstances in which Grobler bought the land are such to give
credence to the occupiers' later allegation that they had the necessary
consent entitling them to the protection under ESTA and that there is a real
and bona fide factual dispute. This, coupled with the undisputed evidence that
the municipality provided basic municipal services, show that it is necessary
to clarify the circumstances around the occupation of the land through oral
evidence. The court below took a too narrow view of the matter and
overlooked the reality that the dispute of fact goes to the heart of the matter.
In this regard the court below erred.
[21] The following order is accordingly made:
The appeal is upheld with no order as to costs in this court and the order of
the court a quo is set aside and replaced with an order in the following terms:
'(a)
The application is postponed to a date to be determined by the
Registrar of the South Gauteng High Court for the hearing of oral evidence.
(b)
The issues to be resolved at such hearing are:
(i)
whether or not any person, claiming to reside on portion 24 of the
Farm, Elandsvlei, 249, IQ, Randfontein is an occupier thereon as
contemplated in the Extension of Security of Tenure Act, 62 of 1997
(ESTA); and
(ii)
whether such person had consent, as contemplated in ESTA, to reside
thereon, and
(iii)
in consequence of such findings, whether the provisions of ESTA or
the Prevention of Illegal Eviction from and Unlawful Occupation of Land
Act, 19 of 1998 (PIE) are applicable to the eviction of such persons.
(c)
The evidence to be adduced at the aforesaid hearing shall be that of
any witnesses whom the parties or any of them may elect to call, subject
however to what is provided below.
(d)
Save in the case of any persons who have already deposed to
affidavits in these proceedings, neither party shall be entitled to call any
person as a witness unless─
(i)
It has served on the other party, at least 14 days before the date
appointed for the hearing, a statement by such person wherein the
evidence to be given in chief by such person is set out; or
(ii)
The court, at the hearing, permits such person to be called despite the
fact that no such statement has been so served in respect of his or her
evidence.
(e)
Either party may subpoena any person to give evidence at the hearing,
whether such person has consented to furnish a statement or not.
(f)
The fact that a party has served a statement or has subpoenaed a
witness shall not oblige such party to call the witness concerned.
(g)
Within 45 days of the making of this order, each of the parties shall
make discovery on oath of all documents relating to the issues referred to
above, which documents are, or have at any time been, in possession or
under the control of such party.
(h)
Such discovery shall be made in accordance with Rule 35 of the
Uniform Rules of Court and the provisions of that Rule with regard to the
inspection and production of documents discovered shall be operative.
_______________________
Z L L TSHIQI
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances:
Counsel for Appellant:
R T Sutherland SC
G I Hulley
Instructed by
Maserumule Incorporated, Johannesburg
Honey Attorneys, Bloemfontein
Counsel for Respondent: C P Wesley
Instructed by
(1st): Truter Crous & Wiggill, Randfontein
Naudes, Bloemfontein
(2nd & 3rd): Mogale Justice Centre
c/o Setlhodi Attorneys, Randfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date: 29 September 2009
Status: Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
RANDFONTEIN MUNICIPALITY v J M GROBLER & OTHERS
The Supreme Court of Appeal has upheld an appeal and set aside an order by the South
Gauteng High Court for the eviction of approximately 2000 people comprising 900 women,
54 pensioners and 500 children who commenced settling on a farm in 1959.
The application for their eviction was opposed by the occupiers who challenged the
jurisdiction of the High Court alleging that the dispute fell to be determined under ESTA
because they occupied the land with consent. The High Court accepted the version of the
landowner that there was no consent and ordered the eviction in terms of PIE.
The SCA found that there was a real and bona fide dispute on whether there was consent or
not because the landowner who bore the onus to establish the jurisdiction of the High Court
failed to address the issue of jurisdiction in spite of the fact that there was a real possibility of
consent to occupy that preceded his purchase.
The SCA upheld the appeal and remitted the matter to the South Gauteng High Court for the
hearing of oral evidence.
--ends-- |
3675 | non-electoral | 2021 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 1039/2020
Name of Ship: MV 'MSC SUSANNA'
In the matter between:
THE OWNERS AND UNDERWRITERS OF
THE MV 'MSC SUSANNA'
FIRST APPELLANT
THE DEMISE CHARTERERS OF THE
MV 'MSC SUSANNA'
SECOND APPELLANT
and
TRANSNET (SOC) LTD – THE NATIONAL PORTS
AUTHORITY OF SOUTH AFRICA
FIRST RESPONDENT
THE MINISTÈRE DE ARMÉES
SECOND RESPONDENT
SAUDI BASIC INDUSTRIES
CORPORATION
THIRD RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: MV 'MSC Susanna': Owners and Underwriters of the
MV 'MSC Susanna' and Another v Transnet (SOC) Ltd
and Another (1039/2020) [2021] ZASCA 135
(6 October 2021)
Coram:
NAVSA,
WALLIS,
SCHIPPERS,
MBATHA
and
GORVEN JJA
Heard:
1 September 2021
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by
circulation to the parties’ representatives by email, publication on the
Supreme Court of Appeal website and release to SAFLII. The date and
time for hand-down is deemed to be 09h45 on 6 October 2021
Summary: Tonnage limitation – s 261(1) of the Merchant Shipping Act
57 of 1951 (MSA) – whether limitation can be invoked by owner of
merchant ship against the owner of a ship owned by the defence force of
South Africa or another country – ss 3(3) and (6) of the MSA.
ORDER
On appeal from: KwaZulu-Natal Division of the High Court,
Pietermaritzburg sitting in the exercise of its admiralty jurisdiction
(Mngadi J, sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal is upheld with costs, such costs to include those
consequent upon the employment of two counsel.
The order of the high court is set aside and replaced by the
following order:
'The rule nisi is confirmed in the following terms:
The Ministére des Armées is joined as a defendant in the action
instituted by the appellants under case number A4/2019.
The Appellants are granted leave to amend the pleadings in the said
action so as to plead their cause of action against the Ministére des
Armées.
The Ministére des Armées is ordered to pay the costs occasioned
by its opposition to the application, such costs to include those
consequent upon the employment of two counsel.'
JUDGMENT
Wallis JA (Navsa, Schippers, Mbatha and Gorven JJA concurring)
[1] On 10 October 2017, during a substantial storm in the port of
Durban the MSC Susanna broke her moorings and, while drifting in the
port, collided with several vessels, including the FNS ‘Floreal’. The
Floreal was a French naval vessel under the control of the second
respondent, the Ministère des Armées (the Ministry) of the French
Republic. The MSC Susanna also allided with cranes and other
infrastructure owned by the first respondent, Transnet (SOC) Ltd – The
National Ports Authority of South Africa (the NPA). The NPA sued the
appellants, respectively the owners and underwriters on the one hand, and
the demise charterer on the other, of the MSC Susanna, for damages in an
amount of some R23 million arising out of this incident. The Ministry's
response, to the appellants' action for a declaration of non-liability in
relation to the damages to the Floreal, was to lodge a counterclaim for
damages amounting, together with interest and costs, to nearly €10
million.
[2] Given the value of the actual and potential claims against the
appellants, on 7 November 2019 they issued a writ of summons in a
limitation action against the NPA, contending that their total liability for
damages arising out of the events of 10 October 2017 should be limited in
terms of the provisions of s 261(1)(b) of the Merchant Shipping Act 57 of
1951 (the MSA). On the same day they launched the present proceedings
seeking the joinder of the Ministry to the limitation action. The
application was resisted by the Ministry on the grounds that, as the owner
of a foreign naval vessel, the right to limit was excluded as against it by
the provisions of s 3(6) of the MSA. That point was upheld by Mngadi J
in the KwaZulu-Natal Division of the High Court, Pietermaritzburg
sitting in the exercise of its admiralty jurisdiction. The present appeal is
with his leave.
[3] In terms of the provisions of SCA Rule 8(8) the parties have
sensibly agreed on the following statement of the issue in this appeal:
‘The parties agree that the appeal turns on whether the owners and demise charterers
of a merchant ship may, in circumstances where a merchant ship causes damage to a
ship belonging to a defence force as contemplated in Section 3(6) of the Merchant
Shipping Act, 1951 (‘the Act’), seek a limitation of liability in terms of Section 261 of
the Act in respect of the claim of that defence force.’
That admirably encapsulates the issue in this case. It is common cause
that, if the answer favours the appellants, the high court should have
ordered the joinder of the Ministry. If it is against them, then the high
court judgment was correct.1 While it is expressed in these succinct terms
it is 'a question of very great difficulty', as Viscount Simmonds LC said in
Nisbet Shipping Co Ltd v Reginam,2 a case to which I will revert.
Tonnage limitation
[4] The right of shipowners and certain other parties to limit their
liability for damages arising from the operation of the vessel is an ancient
one. Legislation providing for ship owners to limit their liability to the
value of the vessel is to be found in statutes dating from the 1600’s in
various parts of Europe, particularly the Netherlands.3 It was introduced
in England in 1733 by legislation enacted in response to the decision in
Boucher v Lawson,4 in which a cargo of gold bullion was entrusted to the
Master of a vessel, who proved unable to resist temptation and absconded
with it. The owners of the vessel were held liable to the full extent of the
value of the gold, which vastly exceeded the value of the vessel.
Parliament intervened by passing the Responsibility of Shipowners Act,5
limiting the liability of shipowners to the value of the ship, its equipment
and any freight due for the voyage. Similar legislation was introduced in
1 The basis for the joinder is s 5(1) of the Admiralty Jurisdiction Regulation Act 105 of 1983 (the
AJRA).
2 Nisbet Shipping Co Ltd v Reginam [1955] 3 All ER 11 (PC)(Nisbet PC).
3 Wandile Zondo, Limitation of Liability for Maritime Claims: A South African Perspective a thesis
submitted in partial fulfilment of a Master of Science degree at the World Maritime University in
Malmö, Sweden helpfully traces the history of limitation at pp 3-13. The thesis is available at
https://commons.wmu.se/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1510&context=all_dissertations.
4 Boucher v Lawson 95 ER 116; Griggs 1997 LMCLQ 369 to 373.
5 Responsibility of Shipowners Act 1733 (7 Geo II. c 15).
the United States of America in 1851. Three international conventions on
limitation of liability by shipowners were concluded in the last century,
although complete uniformity has not been achieved.6 It has been
described as 'a time honoured and internationally endorsed practise'
which is now embodied in our domestic legislation.7
[5] For our purposes it is sufficient to note that until the passage of the
MSA, South Africa did not have domestic legislation dealing with
limitation. The English Merchant Shipping Act, 1894 remained of
application in South Africa8 and made provision for limitation of liability
calculated on the gross registered tonnage (GRT) of the vessel.9 This
changed with the passage of the MSA in 1951. Section 261 of the MSA is
headed:
'When owner not liable for whole damage'
and s 261(1)(b), which is the provision relied upon by the appellants,
reads:
'The owner of a ship, whether registered in the Republic or not, shall not, if … any
loss or damage to any property or rights of any kind, whether movable or immovable,
is caused without his actual fault or privity─
(a) . . .
6 The three are the 1924 International Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules relating to the
Limitation of Liability of Owners of Sea-going Vessels (only ratified by fifteen states); the
International Convention Relating to the Limitation of Liability of Owners of Sea-going Vessels,
Brussels 1957 and the Convention on Limitation of Liability for Maritime Claims, London 1976, read
with the 1969 Tonnage Convention and the 1996 Protocol amending the limits of liability under the
Convention.
7 Nagos Shipping Ltd v Owners, Cargo lately laden on board the MV Nagos, and Another 1996 (2) SA
261 (D) at 271G-H.
8 See South African Railways and Harbours v Smith's Coasters (Prop) Ltd 1931 AD 113.
9 Gross registered tonnage is a potentially misleading expression in that it is not a measurement of
weight or mass, but of the carrying capacity of the vessel, deriving its name from the tuns or barrels
that were the common means of storing many goods for shipment on board vessels at that time.
Originally it was measured by determining how many tuns could be loaded on the vessel. It is now
measured on the basis of the internal volume of the vessel subject to certain exclusions.
(b) if no claim for damages in respect of loss of life or personal injury arises be liable
for damages in respect of loss of or damage to property or rights to aggregate amount
exceeding 66.67 special drawing rights for each ton of the ship’s tonnage.'
[6] The basis for the Ministry's contention that the appellants may not
invoke this provision in respect of its claim is to be found in s 3 of the
MSA. Section 3(3) provides that the Act binds the State, subject to the
entitlement of the Minister of Transport to exempt vessels owned by the
government of South Africa or Transnet from a range of provisions
dealing with crew and the recovery of wages. Section 3(6), on which the
Ministry relied, reads:
'The provisions of this Act shall not apply to ships belonging to the defence forces of
the Republic or of any other country.'
The Ministry contended that, as the Floreal was part of the French navy
and therefore part of the French defence force, the provisions of s 261 did
not apply in relation to its claim against the appellants.
[7] The appellants' contention was that s 261(1)(b) conferred an
internationally recognised right upon them as the owners10 of the
MSC Susanna to limit their liability and that they were invoking
limitation against the Ministry, as the party making a claim against them,
and not against the Floreal. They submitted that the right to limit is
conferred in relation to claims for loss of life or personal injury, or any
loss of or damage to any property of any kind, whether movable or
immovable. The effect of the Ministry's contention is to introduce an
unwarranted qualification to the broad and unqualified words 'any
property of any kind' by adding 'save a naval vessel owned by the defence
force of any nation'.
10 In the extended sense given by s 263 of the MSA.
Discussion
[8] The issue is one of the proper interpretation of ss 261(1)(b) and
3(6) of the MSA. It is, so far as the argument and the authorities to which
we have been referred go, entirely novel. As always, one starts with the
words of s 261(1)(b).11 Its terms are clear and comprehensive. The right
to limit is given to the owner of a vessel, an expression given an extended
meaning in s 263(2), in respect of all loss or damage to any property or
rights of any kind, whether movable or immovable. That language
encompasses all types of property, without qualification. It is clearly wide
enough to include the loss or damage embodied in the claim by the
Ministry. Counsel rightly conceded that if this section and the others that
are contained in Part 4 of Chapter 5 of the MSA were contained in a
separate statute without s 3(6), the right to limit would be available on
this language in respect of the Ministry's claim. That means that the focus
must necessarily fall on the effect of s 3(6).
[9] It is indisputable that s 3(6) excludes the bulk of the provisions of
the MSA from application to both South African and foreign vessels
forming part of their country's defence forces. These vessels can
conveniently be referred to as naval vessels, although it is conceivable
that there might be vessels forming part of branches of the defence force
other than the navy. The MSA's provisions, dealing with the
administration of the MSA (Chapter I); matters concerning the
registration of vessels in the South African registry (Chapter II);
certificates of competency and service of crew (Chapter III); engagement,
discharge, repatriation, payment, discipline and general treatment of
11 Sub-sections (a) and (c) are similarly worded and deal first with the case where loss of life or
personal injury alone are caused, and second with the case where there is both loss of life and personal
injury and loss or damage to property. The limitation amount is set in special drawing rights (SDRs)
and varies as between the three different cases as dealt with in s 261(1).
seafarers (Chapter IV); safety of ships and life at sea (Chapter V, Parts I,
II and III); shipping enquiries and courts of marine enquiry (Chapter VI);
carriage of goods by sea (Chapter VIII, now repealed in its entirety); and
offences, penal provisions and legal procedures (Chapter IX) cannot be
effectively applied to naval vessels. The regimes under which the armed
forces of most, if not all, countries operate are so different in these areas
from the manner in which other vessels operate, even those owned by
sovereign governments, that the reasons for an exclusionary provision
such as s 3(6) are apparent.
[10] Other areas of the MSA are more problematic. In its original form
it included in Chapter VII (sections 293 to 306 of the MSA) provisions in
respect of wreck and salvage, that have now been repealed by the Wreck
and Salvage Act 94 of 1996, which incorporates the provisions of the
International Convention on Salvage, 1989 into domestic law.12 The
Wreck and Salvage Act is binding on the State, but Article 4(1) of the
Convention excludes warships and all non-commercial vessels owned or
operated by States and entitled at the time of salvage operations to
sovereign immunity, unless the State decides otherwise. The effect is that
a salvor in relation to such a vessel does not enjoy the protection of the
Convention. That does not, however, mean that a salvor may not provide
salvage services or receive a salvage reward. It merely means that they
must deal with the State concerned in relation to such services.
[11] Chapter 5, Part IV of the MSA differs from these other provisions,
in that, save in respects of two matters of no relevance to vessels other
12 Section 2 of Act 94 of 1996.
than South African registered vessels,13 it is not concerned with the
operation of vessels, the treatment of crew or issues of safety. Its primary
focus is on two areas of the liability of owners of vessels. First, it deals
with the division of loss between shipowners in the event of a collision
under s 255; liability for personal injury under s 256; and claims for
contribution against joint wrongdoers in relation to the latter claims under
s 257. Second, under s 261 it provides for the right of a ship owner and
certain other parties to limit the extent of their liability arising out of an
incident causing loss of life or physical injury to persons, or loss of or
damage to property, or a combination of both, where these were caused
without the actual fault or privity of the ship owner. These two areas of
liability are not concerned with regulating the operation of the vessel or
vessels involved in that incident. In the case of a collision the question is
who, and if more than one vessel is involved, in what proportions, those
responsible for the collision shall bear the loss. Where personal injury has
been caused it is the liability for damages and rights of contribution
between joint wrongdoers that are regulated. In the case of limitation the
concern is with the extent of the liability of the owner of the harm-
causing vessel.
[12] It is noteworthy that each of these is concerned with the liability of
owners of ships to third parties, and claims against and between owners
of ships. That the claims arise out of the operation of the ships is
incidental. The focus is on the legal liability of the owners and, in the
case of limitation claims, other parties such as charterers, managers and
operators of ships.14 These are purely commercial matters concerning the
rights and obligations of owners of ships. This is important in the light of
13 The respects relate to the obligation to report accidents to the proper officer and the obligation to
give notice to SAMSA of the loss of a vessel under ss 259 and 260 respectively. See ss 259(2) and 260.
14 MSA s 263(2).
the wording of s 3(6), because it says that the provisions of the MSA shall
not apply 'to ships'. It does not say that its provisions will not apply to the
owners of ships. Much less does it say that the Act does not apply to
defence forces, so as to preclude owners of merchant ships from invoking
its provisions by, for example, seeking an order for the division of loss
after a collision, or a contribution to the damages arising from jointly
caused personal injury, or an order limiting their liability.
[13] Linguistically s 3(6) is not apt to exclude the invocation of
limitation by the owners of the MSC Susanna. That straightforward view
is the same as that of Kerwin and Estey JJ of the Supreme Court of
Canada in construing a similarly worded provision in the Canada
Shipping Act, 1934 in The Queen v Nisbet Shipping Co Ltd.15 They said:
'The final point raised by the appellant is that in any event it is entitled to a limitation
of liability under s 649 of the Canada Shipping Act. As the owner of the Orkney, the
Crown would ordinarily be entitled to take advantage of this provision but it is said
that s 712 of the Act prevents this result. That section provides: —
'This Act shall not except where specifically provided apply to ships belonging to His
Majesty.'
In my opinion this section has no reference to a claim for limitation of liability under
s 649, which can only be put forward by an owner.'
[14] Some reinforcement for the view that this is the ordinary meaning
of the words of the section is to be found in the dissenting judgment of
Locke J,16 where he said, after a consideration of the history of this
legislation in both England and Canada, that:
'In my opinion, s 712 should be construed as applying to or in respect of ships
belonging to Her Majesty and that, accordingly, the limitation of the liability of His
15Her Majesty the Queen v Nisbet Shipping Company Limited 1953 CanLII 77 (SCC); [1953] 1 SCR
480 (SCC) at 492 (Nisbet SCC).
16 Ibid, at 502.
Majesty qua owner is excluded by s 712. To construe the section otherwise would be,
in my judgment, to fail to interpret the section in such manner as will best ensure the
attainment of the object of the enactment …'
In other words, while on its language s 712 applied to owners and not
ships, considerations of the historical context, and in particular a
significant difference between the wording of the 1927 Act and the 1934
Act, led to a construction that the entire Act was excluded in respect of
Crown-owned ships.
[15] The Ministry's heads of argument advanced an interpretation of
s 261(1)(b) on the basis that it attributed to the appellants' argument the
premise that s 261 only applied to one ship. They contended that this was
faulty, because in the circumstances of a collision there would be two
ships. One it described as 'the offending ship' and the other as 'the
damaged ship'. It submitted that s 261(1) applied not only to the
offending ship, but also to the damaged ship. In my view the suggested
premise did not underpin the appellants' argument and the conclusion
sought to be drawn was faulty. Section 261 is concerned with the liability
of an owner of a ship, not the ship itself. Whatever the precise nature of
an action in rem, the underlying liability will be borne by the owner of
the ship. Where the action is in personam the position is even clearer. As
to the damaged ship, the claim arising from that damage is the claim of
that ship's owner. Ships do not bring claims.
[16] Before the MSA was enacted our law in regard to limitation was to
be found in s 503 of the English Merchant Shipping Act, 1894.17 In
Smith's Coasters this court held that a shipowner facing a claim by the
17 Merchant Shipping Act, 1894 (57 & 58 Vict. C 60). Smith's Coasters, op cit, fn 8; Atlantic
Harvesters of Namibia (Pty) Ltd v Unterweser Reederei GMBH of Bremen 1986 (4) SA 865 (C) at
875H-J.
South African Railways & Harbours, an agency of the State, could not
raise a defence of limitation under s 503. However, it reached that
conclusion on the basis that, as a matter of royal prerogative, the Crown
could not be bound by a statute unless the statute expressly or by
necessary implication bound the Crown. The implication of permitting
reliance on limitation was that a claim vested in the Crown would be
reduced and that could not occur unless the Crown was bound by the
provisions of s 503. There was no general language in the statute
justifying the conclusion that the Crown was bound and no basis for
implying that it was. Accordingly an exception to a plea based on
limitation under s 503 was upheld.18 That was a narrow conclusion
relating only to the South African state and not to foreign states or their
vessels, whether military or otherwise.
[17] The case is unhelpful. We are not concerned with a claim against
the South African State, but if we were s 3(3) of the MSA expressly
provides that it binds the State. Nor are we concerned with a claim
against a foreign State. In any event the principle invoked there does not
apply in relation to foreign States. Nor can there be any question of
sovereign immunity arising because it is the Ministry making a claim
against the appellants, not them making a claim against the Ministry. The
grounds upon which Smith's Coasters was decided are inapplicable here.
[18] The Ministry also argued that the title of the MSA – the Merchant
Shipping Act – and the long title 'To provide for the control of merchant
shipping and matters incidental thereto' indicated that it was not
concerned with naval vessels. It said that this purpose was manifested in
18 It appears that this would also have been the position in England at that time. Dampskibs
Aktieselskabet 'Mineral' of Narvik v Owners of steamship 'Myrtlegrove' and Others [1919] 1 Lloyds
Law Reports 289 (Adm Div) at 290.
s 3(6) of the MSA. The difficulty with the submission is that it
overlooked the words 'and matters incidental thereto'. One matter of great
concern to owners of merchant ships is the possibility of claims arising
against them in the course of the operation of their ships. Chapter 5,
Part IV deals with that issue in a manner that is consistent with
international practice in maritime matters. The MSC Susanna is a
merchant ship and was engaged in merchant shipping at the time of the
incident giving rise to the claims against the appellants. Its owners
invoked a provision of the MSA that in terms they are entitled to invoke.
Allowing the appellants to limit their liability in relation to the claims in
this case is clearly something incidental to merchant shipping.
[19] The Ministry relied on the judgment of the Privy Council in Nisbet
(PC).19 The claim in that case arose from a collision between a foreign
merchant vessel and a Canadian warship. As a result of the collision the
merchant vessel and her cargo were a total loss. The claim – effectively
against the Canadian government – was to recover the damages suffered
in consequence of the loss of the ship and its cargo. By a majority of six
to one the Canadian court held that it was open to the Crown to invoke
limitation against the ship owner's claim.20 On appeal from the judgment
of the Supreme Court of Canada, the Privy Council reversed this
decision.
[20] The advice of the Board was delivered by Viscount Simonds LC.21
He first dealt with the approach of the majority in the Supreme Court.
This proceeded on the basis that under the Petition of Right Act, 1938 in
19 Op cit, fn 2.
20 Nisbet SCC, op cit, fn 15.
21 That was the time when no dissents were allowed in decisions of the Privy Council, because it was
notionally giving advice to the monarch and therefore only a single advice could be given upon which
the monarch was to act.
Canada 22 the courts had been given jurisdiction to decide claims against
the Crown. The question then was the extent of the Crown's liability in
respect of such claims. Six judges23 held that the liability imposed under
the Petition of Right Act was the same liability as an ordinary citizen
would attract in respect of the same claim. That liability could be limited
under the relevant provision of the Canada Shipping Act and therefore the
Crown could limit its liability, provided a proper case was made for
limitation.24
[21] Viscount Simonds noted that the Canadian statute had conferred
jurisdiction, without referring to the imposition of liability on the Crown,
but accepted that its effect was to impose liability on the Crown. He went
on:
‘The question then is, what is the measure of the liability which is not defined by the
Act but is to be inferred from the creation of jurisdiction? It is not in dispute that at
least those circumstances which give rise to a claim between subject and subject will
support a claim by a subject against the Crown. From this, it is an easy step to say that
a subject is not entitled to any greater relief against the Crown than he would be
against a fellow subject, and this is supported by reference to s 8 of the Petition of
Right Act . . . , which provides that the statement of defence or demurrer to a Petition
of Right may raise, besides any legal or equitable defences in fact or in law available
under that Act, any legal or equitable defences which would have been available if the
proceedings had been a suit or action in a competent court between subject and
subject. Nor can it be ignored that, though the right to limit liability for damages is not
part of the common law but in England and Canada alike is the creature of statute, it is
a right almost universally established in the law of nations and of considerable
antiquity. It would therefore, be easily assumed that the Crown, assenting to the
22 The equivalent of the Crown Liabilities Act 1 of 1910 as explained in Smith's Coasters, op cit, fn 8.
Prior to this enactment proceedings against the Crown were only permissible if granted by the Crown
following upon the lodging of a Petition of Right.
23 In addition to Kirwin and Estey JJ, they were Rand J, concurred in by Rinfret CJ, at 488 and Kellock
and Cartwright JJ at 496 of Nisbet SCC.
24 The Supreme Court of Canada had remitted that issue to the trail court for determination.
imposition of a new liability, would secure for itself the advantage at least limiting it
in a manner so generally conceded. This view is thus cogently stated by Rand J
([1953] SCR at 488):
"Where liability, then, on the same footing as that of a subject, is established, giving a right to
damages, I can think of no more appropriate enactment to which that basic rule of the
prerogative could be applied than to a statutory limitation of those damages."
The basic rule which the learned judge refers is that under which it is said that the
Sovereign may avail himself of the provisions of any Act of Parliament.'
[22] The advice continued:
'These are the considerations which prevailed with the learned judges of the Supreme
Court, with the exception of Locke J with whose judgment their Lordships find
themselves in agreement. They are weighty considerations but, as it appears to their
Lordships, they do not explain why full effect should not be given to s 712. It is true
that, in 1934, that section, which was itself a re-enactment of s 741 of the Merchant
Shipping Act, 1894, could have no operation in regard to any liability of the Crown,
for it was only in 1938 that any relevant liability was imposed on the Crown. It does
not, however, follow that, when that liability is imposed, as it is by the amending Act
of 1938, the provisions of s 712 can be ignored. In the United Kingdom the same
problem arose as, when under the Crown Proceedings Act, 1947, the Crown was for
the first time made liable for the tortious acts of its servants, and it was by that Act
[s 5] specifically enacted that the sections of the Merchant Shipping Act 1894, should
apply to limit the liability of the Crown. And in Canada, similar provision is now
made by the Crown Liability Act, 1953.’
[23] With all due respect it does not seem to me that s 712 had the effect
given to it by the Board. In a later passage Viscount Simonds said that no
distinction could be drawn between the words ‘ships belonging to His
Majesty’ and words such as ‘His Majesty’ simpliciter. I fail to see why
that would be the case. In my view there is a straightforward difference
between provisions dealing with a person's ships and a provision dealing
with the person themself. But it may be that the decision was in large
measure based on the sequence in which the Canadian statutes had been
enacted. The Canada Shipping Act was passed in 1934, four years before
Canadian courts were given jurisdiction to decide cases brought against
the Crown. Accordingly, when the Canada Shipping Act replaced the
English Merchant Shipping Act 1894, claims for damages against the
Crown based on maritime collisions could not be brought as of right and
the provisions of s 503 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1894 could not be
invoked either by or against the Crown. The Board's advice may be
explained on the basis that the 1938 statute conferring jurisdiction could
not confer upon the Crown a statutory right not granted to it under the
1894 statute.
[24] It is as well at this point to highlight a significant difference
between the issue in that case and the present case. There it was the
Crown, as defendant in the action, seeking to limit its liability by
invoking the relevant provisions of the Canada Shipping Act, and the
owner of the ship that was lost resisting limitation. Here it is the reverse.
The owner of the MSC Susanna invokes a right to limit clearly given
under s 261(1)(b) and its entitlement to do so is resisted under s 3(6). The
equivalent of the question before the Board in Nisbet PC, would be to ask
whether, if the roles between the MSC Susanna and the Floreal had been
reversed, the Ministry as the owner of the Floreal would have been able
to limit its liability. No doubt in that situation, had the appellants
questioned the Ministry's right to invoke limitation, the arguments for
each party would have been reversed.
[25] We do not have to decide that issue in this appeal. It is interesting
that in Canada, following the example of the United Kingdom, legislation
was passed to reverse the effect of the decision in Nisbet PC. That is a
pointer to the restriction held to exist in that case not being desirable. But
it is a question that could easily arise in the event of a collision between a
South African naval vessel and a merchant ship and we have not heard
sufficiently full argument to determine it now. It might also arise in cases
dealing with ss 255, 256 and 257 of the MSA on which no argument was
addressed. The appellants were content to advance their case on the basis
that this might be the situation. The submission that the appellants'
contentions would not give a sensible meaning to section 261 might be an
argument in favour of national defence forces being entitled, along with
all other vessels, to invoke limitation where their operations cause loss of
life or personal injury, or loss of or damage to property and rights. It is
not an argument against the proposition that limitation may be invoked in
relation to claims by a national defence force against a ship owner.
[26] No discernible reason of policy supports a different construction of
s 261(1)(b). Limitation of liability exists as a matter of policy. None of
the conventions on limitation exclude its invocation in respect of claims
arising from damage done to or by naval vessels. We were not referred to
any provisions in the laws of any other maritime state that would preclude
a claim in respect of damage done to a naval vessel from being required
to participate along with other creditors in the distribution of a limitation
fund. France was an original signatory to the 1976 Limitation
Convention, which contains no exemption from the invocation of
limitation for naval vessels.25 Sixty-three other states, including virtually
all major maritime nations, with the exception of the United States of
America,26 were either signatories to, or have ratified, the Convention. An
25 The 'Heidberg' Court of Cassation, Commercial Chamber, 22 September 2015.
26 In the United States of America the subject is dealt with under U S Code Title 46, Subtitle III
§§ 30101 to 31343. Like the United Kingdom and Canada there is a provision (§31106) providing that
exemption from the right to invoke limitation in respect of claims by
naval vessels would therefore be inconsistent with international practice.
[27] There are also incongruities arising from the Ministry's argument.
Section 261 deals with three situations, namely, an occurrence causing
loss of life or personal injury; an occurrence causing loss or damage to
property or rights; and an occurrence that causes both loss of life or
personal injury and loss or damage to property or rights. Had the incident
giving rise to this case resulted in loss of life or injury to naval personnel
on board the Floreal, they and the dependents of any who were killed
could have brought actions against the appellants to recover damages.
Any such claims would have been subject to limitation. Nothing in s 3(6)
suggests that the officers and crew of the Floreal would enjoy some
special exemption from the application of limitation. It seems
incongruous to say that the Ministry, as the owner of the Floreal, can do
what its officers and crew cannot and escape the application of limitation.
[28] A second incongruity is that the effect of the Ministry's
construction would be that vessels belonging to the defence force of
South Africa or another state, would be able to resist any limitation of
their claims under s 261, but other vessels owned by the South African
state or any foreign state would not. Thus if the polar supply and research
ship, the S A Agulhas II, was involved in a collision caused entirely by
another vessel, whilst en route to Marion Island and Prince Edward
Island, limitation could be invoked in regard to any claims by its owner,
the Department of Environmental Affairs, arising from the collision.
the United States is entitled to the exemptions and limitations of liability provided by law to an owner,
charterer, operator, or agent of a vessel.
However, if it was being accompanied at the time by the SAS Protea, a
marine survey vessel, and that vessel was likewise involved in the
collision without fault on its part, limitation would not apply, because the
SAS Protea is part of the South African navy and the SANDF.
Result
[29] In the result I hold that the appellants are entitled to claim to limit
their liability, if any, arising from the events in Durban harbour on
10 October 2017 in respect of the claim by the Ministry under s 261(1)(b)
of the MSA. Their entitlement to do so is not excluded by s 3(6) of the
MSA. Accordingly, the following order is made:
The appeal is upheld with costs, such costs to include those
consequent upon the employment of two counsel.
The order of the high court is set aside and replaced by the
following order:
'The rule nisi is confirmed in the following terms:
The Ministére des Armées is joined as a defendant in the action
instituted by the appellants under case number A4/2019.
The Appellants are granted leave to amend the pleadings in the said
action so as to plead their cause of action against the Ministére des
Armées.
The Ministére des Armées is ordered to pay the costs occasioned
by its opposition to the application, such costs to include those
consequent upon the employment of two counsel.'
___________________________
M J D WALLIS
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
S R Mullins SC (with him P J Wallis SC)
Instructed by:
Shepstone & Wylie, Umhlanga Rocks;
Matsepes Inc, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
C J Pammenter SC (with him D Cooke)
Instructed by:
Clyde & Co, Cape Town;
Lovius Block, Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME
COURT OF APPEAL
FROM The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE 6 October 2021
STATUS Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment.
MV 'MSC Susanna': Owners and Underwriters of the MV 'MSC Susanna' and
Another v Transnet (SOC) Ltd and Another (1039/2020) [2021] ZASCA 135
(6 October 2021)
The SCA today upheld an appeal from the KwaZulu-Natal Provincial Division,
Pietermaritzburg, exercising admiralty jurisdiction, in this matter, which arises
from events on 10 October 2017 during a substantial storm in the port of
Durban. During the storm the MSC Susanna broke her moorings and collided
with several other vessels as well as land installations. One of these vessels
was the FNS 'Floreal' a French naval vessel owned by the French Defence
Ministry.
The owners, underwriters and charterers of the MSC Susanna are facing
substantial claims from Transnet and from the French Defence Ministry
arising out of this incident. If held liable they wish to invoke their right in
respect of these claims to limit the damages they must pay in terms of the
provisions of s 261(1)(b) of the Merchant Shipping Act 57 of 1951 (the MSA).
To that end they sought the joinder of the French Defence Ministry in the
limitation action. The joinder was resisted on the grounds that the provisions
of the MSA could not be invoked against the Ministry in the light of the
provisions of s 3(6) of the MSA, which provides that the provisions of the MSA
shall not apply to ships belonging to the SANDF or the defence force of any
other country. The high court held that this precluded the appellants from
relying on their right to limit their liability as against the French Defence
Ministry and dismissed the application for joinder.
The SCA held that the exclusion in s 3(6) applies to ships and not the owners
of ships. This was in accordance with the language of the section.
Section 261(1) clearly affords ship owners facing extremely large claims the
right to limit their liability if the claims arose from a single incident and was not
due to the owner's fault or privity. The international conventions relating to the
limitation of liability of the owners of ships do not provide an exclusion as
contended by the Defence Ministry and there is no international jurisprudence
supporting such an exclusion. It would also give rise to several anomalies.
Accordingly the appeal was upheld and an order for joinder made in place of
the high court's order. |
2909 | non-electoral | 2015 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 1035/2013
In the matter between:
CITY OF JOHANNESBURG METROPOLITAN
MUNICIPALITY
FIRST APPELLANT
EXECUTIVE MAYOR,
CITY OF JOHANNESBURG
SECOND APPELLANT
CITY MANAGER,
CITY OF JOHANNESBURG
THIRD APPELLANT
EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR: HOUSING,
CITY OF JOHANNESBURG
FOURTH APPELLANT
and
PHILANI HLOPHE
FIRST RESPONDENT
RESIDENTS OF CHUNG HUA MANSIONS,
191 JEPPE STREET,
JOHANNESBURG
SECOND TO 182nd RESPONDENTS
CHANGING TIDES PROPERTIES
74 (PTY) LTD
183rd RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: City of Johannesburg Metropolitan Municipality v Hlophe (1035/2013)
[2015] ZASCA 16 (18 March 2015).
Coram:
Brand, Maya and Willis JJA and Schoeman and Van der Merwe AJJA
Heard:
19 February 2015
Delivered:
18 March 2015
Summary: Local government ─ mandamus obliging responsible functionaries to ensure
that municipality complies with court orders ─ competent and appropriate in the
circumstances ─ additional reporting required by the order of the court a quo order beyond
issues arising in the case and in conflict with the principle of separation of powers ─
consequently set aside on appeal.
______________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________
On appeal from South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg (Satchwell J
sitting as court of first instance):
1 The appeal succeeds only to the extent that para 2 of the order of the court
a quo is set aside.
2 The appellants are ordered to pay the costs of the appeal, including the
costs of two counsel where so employed.
______________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________
Van der Merwe AJA (Brand, Maya and Willis JJA and Schoeman AJA
concurring):
[1] The 183rd respondent, Changing Tides Properties 74 (Pty) Ltd
(Changing Tides), is the registered owner of the property known as Chung
Hua Mansions, 191 Jeppe Street, Johannesburg (the property). The property
is situated in the centre of Johannesburg. The building on the property was
originally used as an office block, but it was eventually abandoned and
became a shelter for poor and homeless people. Changing Tides has since
acquired the property and intends to renovate and upgrade it.
[2] The first to 182nd respondents (the occupiers) reside on the property
unlawfully. The first appellant is the City of Johannesburg Metropolitan
Municipality (the City). The second, third and fourth appellants (the
functionaries) are the executive mayor, city manager and director of housing
of the City in their respective official capacities.
[3] Changing Tides obtained an order of eviction of the occupiers from the
property. The eviction order was to take effect only after the City provided
suitable temporary accommodation to the occupiers. The City was therefore
ordered to do so. But the City failed to comply with this order and the essential
issue in this appeal is whether an order obliging the functionaries to ensure
compliance by the City was justified.
Background
[4] Changing Tides launched its application for eviction in the South
Gauteng High Court on 26 May 2011. It cited the occupiers and the City as
respondents. The eviction application first came before court on 29 February
2012, when an order was made by agreement between Changing Tides, the
occupiers and the City. The order directed the City to consider the eligibility of
the occupiers for the provision of alternative accommodation in terms of its
temporary/emergency housing programme. The City was also directed to file
a report by no later than 30 April 2012 inter alia setting out which of the
occupiers were eligible for temporary/emergency accommodation; what
accommodation would be provided to the occupiers who qualify; and when
such accommodation would be provided. The City did not comply with any of
these provisions of the order of 29 February 2012 nor did it explain its failure
to do so.
[5] In the result Changing Tides re-enrolled the eviction application for 14
June 2012. It came before Claassen J. The City applied for a postponement.
Claassen J described the reason for the postponement as „. . . that the City
requires an opportunity to examine each and every one of the occupants in
order to classify them in accordance with certain undisclosed categories,
before the City is willing to supply alternative accommodation‟. Claassen J
refused the postponement and after hearing counsel for Changing Tides, the
occupiers and the City in respect of the eviction application, issued an order in
terms of which the occupiers were ordered to vacate the property by no later
than 15 February 2013, failing which the sheriff was authorised to evict the
occupiers. The City was directed to provide the occupiers (listed in an
annexure to the order) with temporary shelter by no later than 30 January
2013, if they were still resident on the property. It was also directed to file a
report by no later than 31 October 2012, setting out the nature and location of
the temporary shelter to be provided to the occupiers. The order was no doubt
informed by the decision of the Constitutional Court in Blue Moonlight
Properties1 handed down on 1 December 2011.
[6] Save for minor matters not relevant here, the City consented to the
order of Claassen J. It nevertheless failed to comply therewith. It filed a report
only on 20 November 2012, which did not set out the nature and location of
the temporary shelter to be provided to the occupiers. The report stated that it
would be impossible for the City to accommodate the occupiers in terms of
the order of Claassen J due to the lack of availability of buildings and financial
and other resources. It concluded with the unhelpful suggestion that if the
court is of the view that it is not just and equitable to order an eviction due to
the lack of availability of temporary shelter then the court must not order the
eviction of the occupiers. But if the court has already ordered the occupiers to
vacate the property then an appropriate date for the eviction of the occupiers
and allocation of temporary shelter must be determined. Self-evidently the
City did not comply with the obligation to provide temporary shelter to the
occupiers by 30 January 2013.
[7] In the meantime the occupiers faced eviction by 15 February 2013.
They attempted to engage with the City in this regard, to no avail. On 19
December 2012 the occupiers launched an application citing the City, the
functionaries and Changing Tides (the enforcement application). In essence
the occupiers claimed an order declaring that the functionaries are obliged to
take all the steps necessary to ensure that the City complies with the order of
Claassen J, by providing the occupiers with temporary shelter and a
mandatory order obliging the functionaries to give effect to the contents of the
declarator.
[8] The City and the functionaries filed their answering affidavit in the
enforcement application on 4 February 2013. Both the eviction application and
the enforcement application came before Lamont J on 6 February 2013. He
made an order by agreement between all the parties concerned. In terms of
1 City of Johannesburg Metropolitan Municipality v Blue Moonlight Properties 39 (Pty) Ltd &
another 2012 (2) SA 104 (CC).
this order the eviction application and the enforcement application were
consolidated. Paragraph 4 of this order reaffirmed the order of Claassen J in
the following terms:
„The first respondent („the City”) is directed to provide all those whose names appear
in the document entitled “List of Residents of Chung Hua Mansions” dated 6 June
2012, annexed to the order granted by Claassen J (“the occupiers”), provided they
are still resident at the property and have not voluntarily vacated it, with temporary
shelter where they may live secure against eviction in a location as near as possible
to the area where the property is situated.‟
[9] Paragraph 5 of the order required the City to provide a detailed report
in respect of specified matters. It reads:
„The City is directed by no later than the 20th March 2013 to deliver a report to this
court, confirmed on affidavit by an appropriate official of the City, setting out the
nature and location of the temporary shelter to be provided to the occupiers. That
report must identify the building or buildings where the occupiers will be
accommodated and the particular terms as to rent and occupation on which the
occupiers will be accommodated, including any house rules or other tenant
responsibilities sought to be imposed. The report must specifically deal with the
buildings known as Ekuthuleni and Linatex. The report must also contain an
undertaking to make the accommodation available by a specified date, giving fully
detailed and rational reasons why such date cannot be any earlier. The report must
deal specifically with the issue of proximity and explain why the particular location
and form of accommodation have been selected. The report must also set out the
steps taken between the date of this order and the filing of the report to engage with
the occupiers through their legal representatives, or by any other appropriate means.‟
[10] It can be accepted that the Ekuthuleni and Linatex buildings were
specifically referred to in the order because of what was said in the answering
affidavit to the enforcement application, namely that approximately 110
accommodation opportunities were available in Ekuthuleni and that Linatex,
which had room for 144 persons, would be available to the City for purposes
of providing temporary accommodation. The consolidated application was
postponed to 9 April 2013 and the implementation of the eviction order was
suspended pending the outcome of the hearing on 9 April 2013.
[11] The order of Lamont J was not complied with. On 20 March 2013 the
City filed its report. Despite what was said in the answering affidavit, the
report stated that the accommodation in Ekuthuleni and Linatex were
allocated to occupiers who were evicted from another building. It stated that it
was impossible to accommodate the occupiers „in the foreseeable future‟. The
City therefore sought a further extension for a period of at least nine months
to identify a building or buildings to accommodate the occupiers.
[12] On 9 April 2013 the matter came before Satchwell J. She delivered
judgment on 3 May 2013, in terms of which the relief claimed in the
enforcement application was granted. Satchwell J also directed the City to
provide answers to questions posed in the order. The City was ordered to pay
the costs of the application on the attorney and client scale. Paragraphs 1, 2
and 3 of the order provide:
„1.
It is declared that the second, third and fourth respondents, in their respective
capacities as the Executive Mayor, Municipal Manager and Director of Housing of the
City of Johannesburg Metropolitan Municipality (“the City”), are constitutionally and
statutorily obliged to take all the necessary steps to ensure that the City complies
with paragraph 2 of the court order granted by Claassen J in case no. 2011/20127 on
14th June 2012 (“the June 2012 court order”) and the court order granted by Lamont
J on 6th February 2013 (“the February 2013 court order”), obliging the City to provide
the applicants with temporary shelter where they may live secure against eviction, in
a location as near as feasibly possible to 191 Jeppe Street, Johannesburg.
2.
The City is directed to provide full and complete answers to the following
questions, such answers to be signed by the second, third and fourth respondents
personally, and furnished to the applicants and fifth respondent as also this court by
12h00 on Friday 18th May 2013.
a.
Subsequent to the Blue Moonlight order of the Constitutional Court on 1st
December 2011,
i.
Has the City of Johannesburg established a specialist task team or unit to
plan for implementation housing arrangements for all those whom it is estimated will
be evicted as unlawful occupiers, rendered homeless and whom the City has an
obligation to accommodate?
ii.
The City is required to specify:
1.
Which specialist skills such as urban development, town planning, housing,
finance, building and other areas of expertise are represented in this unit?
2.
Which departments within the City administration are represented within this
unit and with which departments does the unit liaise?
3.
What budget has been established for such unit?
iii.
If no such unit has been established:
1.
The City is required to explain in detail why this has not been done.
2.
What structure or structures currently implement the housing arrangements
required to be implemented in the Blue Moonlight case with reference to the
personnel involved, skills available, liaison undertaken, time availed from other
duties, management and direction of implementation.
iv.
Has the City planned an estimate of the number of persons and the gender
and age distribution of persons who will be required to be accommodated over the
period 1st December 2011 to 30 November 2011, 1st December 2012 to 30th
November 2012, 1st December 2012 to 30th December 2013 and for each successive
twelve month period until the end of 2016? If the City uses another twelve month
period for such estimates, then it should so indicate.
v.
Has the City, in accordance with the estimates referred to above:
1.
Planned for the number of beds, rooms, buildings and other facilities required
over this period?
2.
Ascertained the current and prospective availability of land and/or buildings?
3.
Budgeted for rentals or purchase of land and buildings and refurbishment and
maintenance thereof to achieve provision of temporary accommodation over this
period?
4.
Arranged financing estimated to be needed over this period. The City is
required to identify sources of funding:
a.
Dates of applications and sums required from the National Treasury.
b.
Dates of applications and sums required from the Gauteng Province.
c.
Dates of applications and sums required from the City of Johannesburg.
vi.
Which experts prepared these estimates and plans on behalf of the City of
Johannesburg and are these plans and estimates continuously updated?
vii.
If no such estimates and plans have been prepared, the City is required to
explain why this has not been done and on what basis the City is currently attempting
to meet its current and future obligations in terms of the Blue Moonlight case.
viii.
Has the City identified buildings for rental by the City in order to provide
accommodation as required? How many such buildings have been identified? How
many beds would be available per building and in total? At what cost are the rentals
per building and per bed? How many rental agreements have been negotiated and
concluded? How many negotiations are currently underway?
ix.
Has the City identified buildings for purchase in order to provide
accommodation as required? How many such buildings have been identified? How
many beds would be available on a per building and in total? At what cost are the
purchase and refurbishment of each building and per bed? How many purchase
agreements have been negotiated and concluded? How many negotiations are
currently underway?
x.
On what date did the City make a written offer to Fifth Respondent in this
matter, Changing Tides Properties 74 (Pty) Ltd, to rent the building situate at 191
Jeppe Street, Johannesburg and at what rental and for what period in order to
provide accommodation to the occupiers in this matter. On what date did the City
make a written offer to Fifth Respondent to purchase the aforesaid building and at
what purchase price and on what terms? Over what period did negotiations take
place? On what date did the City receive a written response from Fifth Respondent
and to what effect?
xi.
Has the City identified architects, builders, plumbers, electricians and other
persons with expertise who can procure renovations and refurbishments and
maintenance of any building rented or purchased to provide accommodation? Has
the City taken steps to ensure speedy tender processes or contractual arrangements
to ensure temporary accommodation is available on an emergency basis?
3.
The second, third and fourth respondents are ordered to take all the
administrative and other steps necessary to ensure that the City ─
i)
complies, within two months of the date of this order, with its obligations in
terms of paragraph 2 of the June 2012 and February 2013 court orders, to provide
the applicants with temporary shelter where they may live secure against eviction, in
a location as near as feasibly possible to 191 Jeppe Street, Johannesburg.
ii)
complies, within one month of the date of this order with its obligations in
terms of the June 2012 and February 2013 court orders to deliver a report specifying
the nature and location of the temporary shelter to be provided to the applicants. That
report must be delivered, under oath, and signed by the second, third and fourth
respondents.‟
[13] In terms of para 4 of the order, the eviction order of 14 June 2012 was
suspended pending compliance with para 2 thereof. The parties before us are
ad idem that the reference to para 2 of the order of the court a quo was made
per incuriam and should be a reference to para 3 thereof. We were informed
from the bar that temporary shelter was indeed subsequently made available
to the occupiers and that what remained to be determined was whether the
accommodation was constitutionally compliant.
[14] Leave to appeal was granted by this court. The essence of the case of
the City and the functionaries on appeal is that paras 1, 2 and 3 of the order of
the court a quo were wrongly granted. For convenience I refer to paras 1 and
3 of the order as the mandamus and to para 2 as the reporting order.
The mandamus
[15] The mandamus was of course granted against the functionaries. In the
heads of argument the functionaries argued that there was no basis in law for
the mandamus. In support of this argument much reliance was placed on the
judgment in Nyathi v MEC for Department of Health, Gauteng..2 In court
counsel for the City and the functionaries conceded that the mandamus was
competent in law. Counsel said that there could be no objection in principle to
the mandamus, had the functionaries been cited in the eviction application
from the inception.
[16] The concession was clearly correctly made. Nyathi dealt with the
constitutionality of s 3 of the State Liability Act 20 of 1957. It was concerned
with the execution of money judgments against the State. The court
considered the possibility of contempt proceedings against State functionaries
in order to obtain payment of a judgment debt. In such proceedings the
judgment creditor would have to obtain a mandamus against the relevant
State functionary. If the State functionary does not comply with the mandamus
he of she could be held in contempt of court. In this context the court held that
contempt proceedings are tedious, unlikely to ensure payment, too onerous a
burden on and no real remedy for the judgment creditor whose primary
concern is payment of the judgment debt. It follows that Nyathi is no authority
2 Nyathi v MEC for Department of Health, Gauteng & another 2008 (5) SA 94 (CC).
for the proposition that a mandatory order could not be made against the
functionaries.
[17] As is the position with the State, the City can only act through the
functionaries that are responsible to perform the specific function or act on its
behalf. The judgment of this court in MEC for the Department of Welfare v
Kate3 provides direct authority for a mandamus on pain of committal for
contempt of court against the responsible functionary. Nugent JA said:4
„It goes without saying that a public functionary who fails to fulfil an obligation that is
imposed upon him or her by law is open to proceedings for a mandamus compelling
him or her to do so. That remedy lies against the functionary upon whom the statute
imposes the obligation, and not against the provincial government. If Jayiya has been
construed as meaning that the remedy lies against the political head of the
government department, as suggested by the Court below, then that construction is
clearly not correct. The remarks that were made in Jayiya related to claims that lie
against the State, for which the political head of the relevant department may, for
convenience, be cited nominally in terms of s 2 of the State Liability Act 20 of 1957,
though it is well established that the government might be cited instead. Moreover,
there ought to be no doubt that a public official who is ordered by a court to do or to
refrain from doing a particular act, and fails to do so, is liable to be committed for
contempt, in accordance with ordinary principles, and there is nothing in Jayiya that
suggests the contrary.‟
This judgment was endorsed by this court in Meadow Glen Home Owners
Association & others v City of Tshwane Metropolitan Municipality & another.5
[18] It is rightly not disputed that the functionaries are the officials of the City
responsible for implementation of the orders of Claassen J and Lamont J. The
functions and powers of an executive mayor of a municipality are set out in
s 56 of the Local Government: Municipal Structures Act 117 of 1998 (the
Structures Act). This section indicates that an executive mayor is responsible
for the overall planning and oversight of the service delivery of the
municipality. In performing the duties of office, the executive mayor must
3 MEC for the Department of Welfare v Kate 2006 (4) SA 478 (SCA).
4 Para 30.
5 Meadow Glen Home Owners Association & others v City of Tshwane Metropolitan
Municipality & another [2015] 1 All SA 299 (SCA) paras 20-22 and 30.
monitor the management of the municipality‟s administration6 and must
oversee the provision of services to communities in the municipality in a
sustainable manner.7 This makes plain that the executive mayor is ultimately
responsible to ensure that the City‟s administration complies with its
obligations towards residents in terms of a court order.
[19] Section 55 of the Local Government: Municipal Systems Act 32 of 2000
(the Systems Act) provides that the municipal manager is the head of
administration and the accounting officer of a municipality. Subject to the
policy directions of the municipal council, the municipal manager is
responsible and accountable for the management of the municipality‟s
administration in accordance with the Systems Act and other legislation
applicable to the municipality.8 The municipal manager is also responsible
and accountable for the management of the provision of services to the local
community in a sustainable and equitable manner.9 Moreover, as accounting
officer he or she is responsible and accountable for all income, expenditure
and assets of the municipality and for the discharge of all its liabilities.10 The
municipal manager therefore heads the administration of a municipality and
holds its purse. This necessarily means that the city manager has the power
and the duty to ensure that the City complies with its obligations in terms of a
court order.11
[20] In the founding affidavit the occupiers said that by virtue of powers
delegated to him in terms of s 59 of the Systems Act, the director of housing
of the City has the specific responsibility for the implementation of the housing
programmes and projects in the City‟s area of jurisdiction. In the answering
affidavits this evidence went unanswered and it must be taken to be admitted.
6 Section 56(3)(d) of the Structures Act.
7 Section 56(3)(e) of the Structures Act.
8 Section 55(1)(b) of the Systems Act.
9 Section 55(1)(d) of the Systems Act.
10 Section 55(2)(a) and (b) of the Systems Act.
11 See Meadow Glen, paras 23-24.
[21] Before us the contention that the mandamus was wrongly granted, was
based on two grounds. The first is that improper procedure was followed in
respect of the functionaries and the second that policy considerations
rendered a mandatory order inappropriate.
[22] The argument on behalf of the functionaries is that the mandamus
could only have been granted had the functionaries been joined in the eviction
application from the beginning. I am unable to agree. A party that initiates
legal proceedings against a municipality cannot be expected to act on the
assumption that if the litigation is successful the municipality will not comply
with the order against it. Changing Tides was under no obligation to cite the
functionaries in the eviction application. Only when the City failed to comply
with the order of Claassen J, did the need arise to look to the functionaries
and that was the purpose of the enforcement application. There is no reason
to believe that the outcome of the proceedings before Claassen J would have
been any different had the functionaries then been parties to the eviction
application. This is particularly borne out by the fact that the functionaries
were parties to the proceedings before Lamont J and in fact consented to the
order set out above. In the final analysis the question is whether the
functionaries were prejudiced in a manner that could not be avoided by an
appropriate order as to postponement and/or costs. No prejudice to the
functionaries was pointed out to us and I find none.
[23] In respect of policy considerations it was argued that the mandamus
has the potential of discouraging competent persons from taking up senior
positions in local government. It was also said that senior officials in local
government should not have to perform their multiple complex tasks with the
sword of committal for contempt of court hanging over them and that that
could also unduly influence the priority in which functions are performed. With
reference to para 35 of Meadow Glen, counsel argued that on-going oversight
by the court of the implementation of its orders was a preferable alternative to
the „blunt instrument‟ of committal for contempt of court. He provided a written
proposal indicating how such post-order supervision by the court could take
place. As I understand it, what is envisaged by the proposal is a series of
„post-trial conferences‟ presided over by a judge specially allocated to oversee
the implementation of the order, followed, in the event of that being
unsuccessful, by „pre-contempt conferences‟ before the same judge. On the
view that I take of the matter, it is not necessary to consider the practicality or
appropriateness of such proposal.
[24] This submission must be considered in the light of two factors. First,
the occupiers did not claim an order that the functionaries be committed for
contempt of court. They obtained an order that obliges the functionaries to
fulfil their own statutory obligations to take the steps necessary to ensure that
the City provides temporary shelter to the occupiers. The functionaries are not
required to provide the shelter themselves. Contempt of court is committed
when a person wilfully and mala fide disobeys an order binding on him or her.
If the functionaries address the provision of temporary shelter to the occupiers
diligently and in good faith, they would not be guilty of contempt of court even
if their efforts prove to be unsuccessful. Secondly, on appeal the test is not
whether a possible alternative remedy was available, but whether this court
can be convinced that the court a quo erred in granting the relief claimed
before it.
[25] In my view, however, the decisive consideration is the principle of
public accountability. It is a founding value of the Constitution12 and central to
our constitutional culture.13 In terms of s 152(1)(a) of the Constitution the
objects of local government include to provide accountable government for
local communities. Section 6(1) of the Systems Act provides that the
municipality‟s administration is governed by the democratic values and
principles embodied in s 195(1) of the Constitution. Section 195(1)(f) of the
Constitution specifically states that public administration must be accountable.
In terms of s 6(2)(b) of the Systems Act the administration of a municipality
must facilitate a culture of public service and accountability amongst staff.
12 Section 1(d) of the Constitution.
13 Olitzki Property Holdings v State Tender Board & another 2001 (3) SA 1247 (SCA) para 31.
Constitutional accountability may be appropriately secured through the variety
of orders that the courts are capable of making, including a mandamus.14
[26] By 9 April 2013 the City had for a period of nearly a year consistently
and without proper explanation failed to comply with court orders that it had
consented to. The functionaries are statutorily obliged to see to the
implementation of the orders made against the City. Satchwell J correctly
concluded that the time had come for the functionaries to be held accountable
in terms of the Constitution. In my view the appeal against the mandamus
must fail.
The reporting order
[27] The reporting order was made mero motu. It was not supported with
any enthusiasm before us by any of the respondents. The implementation of
the eviction order was made subject to the provision of temporary shelter to
the occupiers by the City. The City had at all times accepted that it was
obliged to provide the occupiers with temporary shelter. Therefore, when the
matter came before Satchwell J, only the nature and location of the temporary
shelter to be provided to the occupiers remained in issue between the City,
the occupiers and Changing Tides. Paragraph 3(ii) of the order of the court a
quo required a report as to exactly that. Nevertheless the reporting order
obliges the City to „provide full and complete answers‟ to a wide range of
detailed questions pertaining to the historic, current and future performance of
the City‟s general obligation to provide accommodation to evictees. What is
more, in terms of para 32 of the judgment the answers had to be provided
irrespective of whether the temporary shelter was in fact provided in terms of
para 3 of the order. The reporting order transcends the issues before the court
a quo to such an extent that it cannot be countenanced.
[28] Objectively the reporting order conveys an intention to give directions
to the City in respect of what is required to comply with its constitutional
obligations to provide temporary accommodation to homeless persons in
14 Minister of Safety and Security v Van Duivenboden 2002 (6) SA 431 (SCA) para 21.
general. The questions require the City to answer to the notions of the court
as to the manner in which the obligations could or should be complied with. I
agree with counsel for the City that the reporting order infringes the principle
of separation of powers and for that reason too, cannot stand.15
[29] It follows that the appeal succeeds only to the extent that para 2 of the
order of the court a quo is set aside. In this event the occupiers and Changing
Tides asked only for a further order that the appellants pay the costs of
appeal. The reporting order was of course not dealt with in the papers and
attracted limited attention in argument on appeal. There is no doubt that the
appeal would have proceeded even if the respondents had abandoned
reliance on the reporting order. I do not consider that the setting aside of the
reporting order warrants any costs order in favour of the appellants.
[30] The following order is made:
1 The appeal succeeds only to the extent that para 2 of the order of the court
a quo is set aside.
2 The appellants are ordered to pay the costs of the appeal, including the
costs of two counsel where so employed.
_______________________
C H G VAN DER MERWE
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
15 See National Treasury & others v Opposition to Urban Tolling Alliance & others 2012 (6) SA
223 (CC) paras 65-66.
APPEARANCES:
For Appellants:
A Dodson SC (with him I B Currie)
Instructed by:
Kunene Ramapala Botha Law Firm,
Sandton
Claude Reid Inc, Bloemfontein
For First to 182nd Respondent:
P Kennedy SC (with him S Wilson)
Instructed by:
Socio-Economic Rights Institute of South
Africa/SERI Law Clinic, Johannesburg
Webbers, Bloemfontein
For 183rd Respondent:
S Grobler
Instructed by:
Esthè Muller Inc, Three Rivers
Kramer Weihmann Joubert, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date: 18 March 2015
Status: Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
CITY OF JOHANNESBURG METROPOLITAN MUNICIPALITY & OTHERS v P
HLOPHE & OTHERS
Changing Tides Properties 74 (Pty) Ltd (Changing Tides) is the owner of a building situated
in the centre of Johannesburg. The building is unlawfully occupied by approximately 183
poor and homeless persons (the occupiers). Changing Tides obtained an order of eviction of
the occupiers from the building. The eviction order was to take effect only after the City of
Johannesburg Metropolitan Municipality (the City) provided the occupiers with temporary
shelter. The City consented to orders of the high court to do so, but for a period of
approximately a year consistently failed to comply with the orders without proper
explanation. The high court accordingly granted an order obliging the executive mayor, city
manager and director of housing of the City to ensure that the City complies with the orders
to provide temporary shelter to the occupiers. Today the SCA dismissed an appeal against
this order. The SCA held that the executive mayor, city manager and director of housing are
statutorily obliged to ensure compliance by the City with the orders against it and that the
order against them was competent and appropriate.
--ends-- |
3421 | non-electoral | 2020 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 410/2019
In the matter between:
INVESTEC BANK LIMITED
Appellant
and
ERF 436 ELANDSPOORT (PTY) LTD
First Respondent
CECILIA JOUBERT NO
Second Respondent
ERF 1081 ARCADIA (PTY) LTD
Third Respondent
REMAINING EXTENT 764 BROOKLYN (PTY) LTD
Fourth Respondent
ERF 22 HILLCREST (PTY) LTD
Fifth Respondent
Neutral citation:
Investec Bank Limited v Erf 436 Elandspoort (Pty) Ltd and Others
(410/2019) [2020] ZASCA 104 (16 September 2020)
Coram:
Petse DP, Saldulker, Dambuza and Plasket JJA and Poyo-Dlwati AJA
Heard:
31 August 2020
Delivered:
This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties’ legal representatives by email, publication on the Supreme Court of Appeal
website and release to SAFLII. The date and time for hand-down is deemed to be
09h45 on 16 September 2020.
Summary:
Prescription Act 68 of 1969 – s 14 of the Act – whether series of
payments
in
terms
of
agreement
between
creditor
and
debtor
were
acknowledgements of liability that interrupted prescription.
ORDER
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Fabricius J sitting as
court of first instance):
1. The appeal succeeds with costs, including the costs of two counsel where
employed.
2. The order of the court below is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘1.
It is declared that the debt owed by the defendants to the plaintiff, as formulated
in the particulars of claim, had not prescribed when summons was served on 21
January 2011.
2.
The costs of the hearing of 18 to 21 February 2019 are to be paid by the first,
second, third, fifth and sixth defendants jointly and severally. Those costs shall include
the costs of two counsel.
3.
The action is postponed sine die in respect of the remainder of the issues in
dispute.’
JUDGMENT
Plasket JA (Petse DP, Saldulker and Dambuza JJA and Poyo-Dlwati AJA
concurring)
[1] The issue for decision in this appeal is whether a debtor acknowledged its
liability to a creditor and, in this way, interrupted the running of prescription. In a trial
on this separated issue, Fabricius J, in the Gauteng Division of the High Court,
Pretoria, held that a claim by the appellant, Investec Bank Limited (Investec), against
the first respondent, Erf 436 Elandspoort (Pty) Ltd (Erf 436) as principal debtor, and
the remaining respondents as sureties, had prescribed. Flowing from this finding, he
dismissed Investec’s claim with costs, but granted it leave to appeal to this court.
[2] At the commencement of the appeal, Investec moved an application for
condonation for the late filing of the record and for the re-instatement of the appeal
which had lapsed. The application was not opposed. Condonation was duly granted
and the appeal was re-instated. We then proceeded to hear the appeal.
Background
[3] In February 2000, Investec advanced a loan to Erf 436. It was secured by a
notarial mortgage bond, the subject of which was a notarial lease for a period of 50
years in respect of a commercial property in Pretoria concluded by Erf 436 as lessee
and the South African Rail Commuter Corporation (the SARCC) as lessor. The loan
agreement contained a tripartite agreement between Investec, Erf 436 and the
SARCC in terms of which an option was granted to Investec to replace Erf 436 as
lessee in the event of Erf 436 defaulting on its obligations to the SARCC.
[4] Erf 436 defaulted about two and a half years later. The lease was cancelled by
an order of court on 21 August 2002. This rendered Investec’s security worthless. On
10 September 2002, Investec demanded, as it was entitled to do following Erf 436’s
default, payment by Erf 436 within seven days of the full outstanding balance of the
loan. It is not in dispute that prescription in respect of this debt began to run on 17
September 2002, the date on which payment was due.
[5] Investec then exercised its option and concluded a lease with the SARCC. In
terms of an agreement between Investec and Erf 436, the latter continued to manage
the property and collect rental from sub-tenants. These amounts were credited to Erf
436’s loan account with Investec. This arrangement remained in place until about July
2003. The parties also agreed that they would make efforts to sell Investec’s rights in
terms of the lease with a view to the purchase price being used to settle Erf 436’s loan
obligation.
[6] A second agreement between Investec and Erf 436 was concluded in about
June 2003. In terms of this agreement, Investec took over the function from Erf 436 of
managing the property and collecting rental from sub-tenants. The income collected
by Investec was similarly allocated to the repayment of Erf 436’s loan. This
arrangement remained in place from 1 July 2003 until 1 July 2009 when Investec sold
its rights as lessee to an entity called Johnny Prop (Pty) Ltd (Johnny Prop). After the
sale, an amount of R2 999 459.51 was credited to Erf 436’s loan account.
[7] After this amount had been credited, Erf 436’s liability for the outstanding
balance of the loan was, according to Investec, R3 979 184.50. It claimed this amount
from Erf 436 and the sureties in a summons served on 21 January 2011.
[8] As the passage of time between the issue of summons and this appeal will
attest, the dispute between the parties has raged for a number of years. It has included
a foray to this court on the issue of whether the prescription period in respect of the
disputed debt was 30 years or three years. For present purposes, however, all that
need be said is that the summons was met once again with a special plea of
prescription (as well as a plea over that is not relevant to this appeal).
[9] In its replication, Investec pleaded that, on the basis of the payments made to
reduce Erf 436’s loan and various statements made in letters on behalf of Erf 436, it
made a series of acknowledgments of liability. The result was that ‘insofar as
prescription may have commenced during September 2002, it was interrupted by
express or tacit acknowledgments of liability on the part of [Erf 436] on the dates that
each of the payments . . . were effected and on the dates when each of the letters . .
. was addressed’.
The evidence
[10] The factual background that I have sketched is largely not in dispute. Indeed,
Erf 436 and the sureties closed their case on the separated issue without adducing
any evidence. The only evidence was tendered by four witnesses called by Investec
who testified about the agreements I have referred to, the payments made to reduce
Erf 436’s indebtedness to Investec and certain correspondence between the two.
[11] The evidence of Mr W M Oosthuizen, a banker employed by Investec at the
time, and Mr Carlos Sanchez, an in-house legal advisor employed by Investec, in
particular, establishes the facts that I have set out above. Their evidence confirms that
after Investec stepped into Erf 436’s shoes as a lessee, Erf 436 continued to collect
rental from sub-tenants until mid-2003, but Investec collected the rental itself
thereafter. In both instances, however, in terms of the agreements between Investec
and Erf 436, these amounts were allocated to the repayment of Erf 436’s loan. So, for
instance, during the period from the cancellation of Erf 436’s lease until 30 September
2003, Erf 436 paid a total of R830 896.91 towards its loan repayment from rental
collected from sub-tenants. At the same time, both Investec and Erf 436 made efforts
to find a purchaser for Investec’s rights in the property. The proceeds of the sale were
also to be allocated to the reduction of Erf 436’s loan.
[12] The existence of the agreements between Investec and Erf 436 is confirmed by
a series of letters written by one of Erf 436’s directors, Mr Pierre Joubert. It is evident
that Joubert took an active interest in the management of the property. He also
attempted to find sub-tenants for the property and a purchaser of Investec’s rights.
Even when Investec took over the management of the property, Joubert continued to
involve himself in the day-to-day running of the property. His reason for doing so was
to protect Erf 436’s interests in respect of the agreement in terms of which rental would
be used to reduce Erf 436’s loan, and to ensure a good purchase price when Investec’s
rights in the property were sold.
[13] So, for example, by letter dated 12 March 2003 addressed to Mr David Hack,
he offered to sell ‘the leasehold properties’ and the duty-free filling station business
that he and his fellow director, Mr Louis Vivier, operated on the property. The purchase
price for both was, he said, R5.6 million, being ‘the outstanding amount of the Investec
Bank Bond’. A copy of this letter was sent to Investec.
[14] In a letter to Investec dated 7 May 2003, Joubert reported on the fact that
negotiations with Hack had come to naught but that his efforts to sell Investec’s rights
continued and that the building was ‘virtually fully let’. He also said that Erf 436
‘continued to manage and operate the premises as a whole and has been honouring
and paying the Investec Bank bond every month’. He proposed that Investec allow Erf
436 to continue managing the property on Investec’s behalf for the next nine months
and that he would ensure certain outcomes, including that ‘the loan repayments to
Investec Bank (account 221162) are paid’.
[15] Despite this offer, Investec decided to continue with its plans to take over the
management of the property, to manage the sub-leases, pay its creditors and credit
what was left to the repayment of Erf 436’s loan. It was agreed between Investec and
Erf 436 that this would happen. Joubert appears to have been rather reluctant to give
up his control over the property and he continued to look for purchasers and sub-
tenants and to involve himself generally in the management of the property. He
appears to have dragged his heels in respect of the hand-over of management to
Investec.
[16] Joubert’s reluctance appears clearly from a letter dated 30 May 2003, in which
he asked Investec to allow Erf 436 to continue with its management of the property.
He said that ‘[w]e would also in any event like to be assured that the monthly rentals
collected will be applied towards the monthly payment of our loan with Investec’.
[17] In a letter to Investec’s attorney dated 13 June 2003, Joubert described
Investec’s decision as ‘very unreasonable’. One of the reasons he gave for wishing to
continue to manage the property was to ensure that rental collected was, indeed,
applied to the repayment of Erf 436’s loan. He confirmed that Erf 436 was ‘diligently
paying our loan commitment to Investec Bank’.
[18] In January 2004, a meeting was held by Oosthuizen and Joubert to discuss the
possible sale of Investec’s rights to a property developer. This sale did not eventuate,
but on 3 February 2004 Joubert wrote a letter to Investec’s attorney in which he
confirmed a proposal additional to two proposals discussed at the meeting. This
proposal involved a sale of Investec’s rights back to Erf 436, with transfer being
delayed until after Erf 436 had repaid its loan. He said:1
‘As far as the repayment/discharge of [Erf 436’s] bond is concerned (R5 300 000), we must
naturally have one or other agreement in place between [Erf 436] (or its nominee) that
1 My translation.
basically stipulates that all income from the property, whether rental income or expropriation
money or [from] a purchase transaction are credited to [Erf 436].’
[19] Joubert had attached to the letter what appear to be notes made in preparation
for his meeting with Oosthuizen. Two other possible proposals were contained in the
notes. What stands out in respect of all three proposals is that, for Erf 436, they all
involved mechanisms for the repayment of its loan, which Joubert admitted was about
R5.3 million at that stage.
[20] In a letter dated 2 November 2005, written by Joubert to Investec in respect of
the sale of property belonging to another of his entities, Erf 225 Edenburg, (Pty) Ltd,
he proposed that some of the proceeds be allocated to the repayment of Erf 436’s
loan. Oosthuizen testified that Investec gave its approval to the proposal, the
transaction proceeded and, on 29 March 2006, an amount of R1 350 000 was credited
to Erf 436’s loan.
[21] Oosthuizen and Sanchez testified about the eventual sale of Investec’s rights
to Johnny Prop. Because of various difficulties, the sale was delayed and it was only
in 2009 that payments were made to reduce Erf 436’s loan. An amount of R430 000
was paid on 30 June 2009 and R2 569 459.61 was paid on 1 July 2009. That left a
balance owing on the latter date, according to Sanchez, of R3 523 036.
[22] Oosthuizen’s evidence was that Investec and Erf 436 had a difficult relationship
at times but they had worked together to find a solution to their common problem of
how Erf 436 was going to repay its loan. While Investec could simply have issued
summons, taken judgment and executed on it, he explained that Investec decided that
it would be in the best interests of both parties to try to manage the situation as they
did. During the entire process, Joubert never once denied Erf 436’s liability to Investec.
On the contrary, he admitted that liability on a number of occasions.
[23] Joubert died during the second half of 2009. Various meetings with his wife,
who had been appointed the executrix of his estate, produced no agreement as to how
Erf 436 would pay the outstanding balance. As a result, summons was issued on 21
January 2011.
The Prescription Act 68 of 1969
[24] In terms of s 10(1) of the Prescription Act, ‘a debt shall be extinguished by
prescription after the lapse of the period which in terms of the relevant law applies in
respect of the prescription of such debt’. Section 10(2) provides that when a principal
debt is extinguished by prescription, so are any subsidiary debts, such as suretyships.
Section 11 lists the periods of prescription – ranging from 30 to three years – for a
variety of types of debts. The parties have agreed that the period of prescription in this
case is three years, and not 30 years, that issue having been decided by this court in
Investec Bank v Erf 436 Elandspoort (Pty) Ltd and Others.2
[25] Subject to exceptions, s 12(1) provides that prescription begins to run ‘as soon
as the debt is due’. Section 13 sets out a number of circumstances – such as when a
creditor is a minor or a debtor is out of the country – that delay the running of
prescription.
[26] Section 14 of the Prescription Act, which is of application in this case, allows
for the interruption of prescription. It provides:
‘(1) The running of prescription shall be interrupted by an express or tacit acknowledgement
of liability by the debtor.
(2) If the running of prescription is interrupted as contemplated in subsection (1), prescription
shall commence to run afresh from the day on which the interruption takes place or, if at the
time of the interruption or at any time thereafter the parties postpone the due date of the debt
from the date upon which the debt again becomes due.’
The interruption of prescription against a principal debtor automatically interrupts
prescription against a surety.3
2 Investec Bank v Erf 436 Elandspoort (Pty) Ltd and Others [2017] ZASCA 128. See too Botha v
Standard Bank of South Africa Ltd [2019] ZASCA 108; 2019 (6) SA 388 (SCA) paras 26-28.
3 Jans v Nedcor Bank Ltd [2003] ZASCA 15; 2003 (6) SA 646 (SCA) para 32.
[27] The reason for rules relating to prescription was discussed by Marais AJ in
Cape Town Municipality v Allie NO.4 He said:
‘Over the years the Courts and the writers on the law have sought to provide a rationale for
the doctrine of prescription or the limitation of actions. It is unnecessary to burden this
judgment with a discussion of the plausibility of the explanations which have been suggested.
Whatever the true rationale may be, it cannot be denied that society is intolerant of stale
claims. The consequence is that a creditor is required to be vigilant in enforcing his rights. If
he fails to enforce them timeously, he may not enforce them at all. But that does not mean
that the law positively encourages precipitate and needless law suits. It is quite plain that both
at common law, and in terms of the Prescription Acts of 1943 and 1969, a creditor may safely
forebear to institute action against his debtor if the debtor has acknowledged liability for the
debt. Lubbers and Canisius v Lazarus 1907 TS 901; De Beer v Gedye and Gedye 1916 WLD
133. And it seems right that it should be so. Why should the law compel a creditor to sue a
debtor who does not dispute, but acknowledges, his liability?’
[28] The policy underlying prescription in general, as well as the exception that is
created by s 14, were explained in Murray & Roberts Construction (Cape) (Pty) Ltd v
Upington Municipality:5
‘Although many philosophical explanations have been suggested for the principles of
extinctive prescription . . . its main practical purpose is to promote certainty in the ordinary
affairs of people. Where a creditor lays claim to a debt which has been due for a long period,
doubts may exist as to whether a valid debt ever arose, or, if it did, whether it has been
discharged . . . The alleged debtor may have come to assume that no claim would be made,
witnesses may have died, memories would have faded, documents or receipts may have been
lost, etc. These sources of uncertainty are reduced by imposing a time limit on the existence
of a debt, and the relevant time limits reflect, to some extent, the degree of uncertainty to
which a particular type of debt is ordinarily subject (s 11 of the Act).
The same considerations which provide a justification for extinctive prescription also
suggest that the time limits should not be immutable. Where the creditor takes judicial steps
to recover the debt, and thereby to remove all uncertainty about its existence, prescription
should obviously not continue running while the law takes its course (s 15 of the Act).
Moreover, s 14 of the Act provides that the running of prescription is interrupted by an express
4 Cape Town Municipality v Allie NO 1981 (2) SA 1 (C) at 5G-H.
5 Murray & Roberts Construction (Cape) (Pty) Ltd v Upington Municipality 1984 (1) SA 571 (A) at 578F-
579B. See too KLD Residential CC v Empire Earth Investments 17 (Pty) Ltd [2017] ZASCA 98; 2017
(6) SA 55 (SCA) paras 13-17; Bradford & Bingley PLC v Rashid [2006] UKHL 37 para 3.
or tacit acknowledgement of liability by the debtor. The reason is clear – if the debtor
acknowledges liability there is no uncertainty about the debt. No purpose would accordingly
be served by requiring the creditor to interrupt prescription by instituting legal proceedings for
the recovery of the debt.’
[29] Cape Town Municipality v Allie NO6 concerned whether the Cape Town
Municipality had acknowledged liability and so had interrupted prescription in terms of
s 14 of the Act in relation to Ms Allie’s claim. In dealing with s 14(1) of the Act, Marais
AJ identified what he described as a number of self-evident aspects of the section.
They were:7
‘Firstly, I do not think the acknowledgment of liability need amount to a fresh undertaking to
discharge the debt. "I admit I owe you R100" is manifestly an acknowledgment of a liability to
pay R100 but it is not a fresh or new undertaking to pay it . . .
Secondly, full weight must be given to the Legislature's use of the word "tacit" in s 14(1)
of the Act. In other words, one must have regard not only to the debtor's words, but also to his
conduct, in one's quest for an acknowledgment of liability. That, in turn, opens the door to
various possibilities. One may have a case in which the act of the debtor which is said to be
an acknowledgment of liability, is plain and unambiguous. His prior conduct would then be
academic. On the other hand, one may have a case where the particular act or conduct which
is said to be an acknowledgment of liability is not as plain and unambiguous. In that event, I
see no reason why it should be regarded in vacuo and without taking into account the conduct
of the debtor which preceded it. If the preceding conduct throws light upon the interpretation
which should be accorded to the later act or conduct which is said to be an acknowledgment
of liability, it would be wrong to insist upon the later act or conduct being viewed in isolation.
In the end, of course, one must also be able to say when the acknowledgment of liability was
made, for otherwise it would not be possible to say from what day prescription commenced to
run afresh . . .
Thirdly, the test is objective. What did the debtor's conduct convey outwardly? I think
that this must be so because the concept of a tacit acknowledgment of liability is irreconcilable
with the debtor being permitted to negate or nullify the impression which his outward conduct
conveyed, by claiming ex post facto to have had a subjective intent which is at odds with his
outward conduct . . .
6 Note 4.
7 At 7B-8G. See too Agnew v Union and South West Africa Insurance Company Ltd 1977 (1) SA 617
(A) at 622H-623C; Petzer v Radford (Pty) Ltd 1953 (4) SA 314 (N) at 317H-318B; Benson and Another
v Walters and Others 1984 (1) SA73 (A) at 86H-87B; Standard Bank of South Africa Ltd v Oneanate
Investments (Pty) Ltd 1995 (4) SA 510 (C) at 556E-557D.
Fourthly, while silence or mere passivity on the part of the debtor will not ordinarily
amount to an acknowledgment of liability, this will not always be so. If the circumstances create
a duty to speak and the debtor remains silent, I think that a tacit acknowledgment of liability
may rightly be said to arise . . .
Fifthly, the acknowledgement must not be of a liability which existed in the past, but of
a liability which still subsists.’
[30] Pentz v Government of the Republic of South Africa8 concerned whether an
admission made by a person to a policeman constituted an acknowledgement of
liability for purposes of interrupting prescription in respect of a claim by a government
department. The court found, in the first place, that the person had not acknowledged
liability. Secondly, the court held that, in any event, for an acknowledgement of liability
to interrupt prescription, it had to have been given by a debtor to a creditor or the
creditor’s agent; and the policeman was not the agent of the government department
concerned.9
[31] Unsurprisingly, the converse also holds true. The acknowledgement of liability,
in order to effectively interrupt prescription, can be made by either the debtor or his or
her agent. In First Consolidated Leasing Corporation (Pty) Ltd v Servic SA (Pty) Ltd
and Another10 payments were made by a third party to the creditor to reduce what was
owed by the debtor concerned as well as other creditors of the third party. It had been
assumed that the third party had acted as the debtor’s agent but, as Goldstone J found,
there was no evidence to establish that agency. Indeed, the only evidence was that of
the second defendant who said that he had had no knowledge of the payments and
that no arrangement was in place to the effect that the third party would pay on behalf
of the debtor. That being so, the creditor had failed to discharge the onus to prove that
the payments constituted an acknowledgement of liability by the debtor, with the result
that prescription had not been interrupted.11
Has Investec’s claim prescribed?
8 Pentz v Government of the Republic of South Africa 1983 (3) SA 584 (A).
9 At 594A-E.
10 First Consolidated Leasing Corporation (Pty) Ltd v Servic SA (Pty) Ltd and Another 1981 (4) SA 380
(W).
11 At 383F-384E.
[32] In determining whether Erf 436 acknowledged liability either expressly or tacitly,
and when, it is necessary to consider not only what Joubert said but also what he did.
His words and conduct must be viewed holistically and in their proper context. That, it
seems to me, is particularly so in respect of the monthly payments of the rental of sub-
tenants towards the loan and the payment of the purchase price for Investec’s rights
by Johnny Prop. Viewed in isolation they tell one nothing but viewed in their broader
context, with particular reference to the two agreements between Investec and Erf
436, a picture emerges.
[33] When Erf 436 was responsible for the collection of the sub-tenants’ rental, its
payments of those amounts towards the repayment of its loan constituted a series of
tacit acknowledgements of liability. This period ended with a payment on 30
September 2003. Furthermore, during this period, Joubert, on behalf of Erf 436, wrote
two letters, dated 7 May 2003 and 13 June 2003, in which he expressly acknowledged
liability. The effect of the payments and the letters was that prescription was
interrupted on the date of each payment and the date of each letter and commenced
running again from those dates. As the last payment during this first period was made
on 30 September 2003, the running of prescription was extended to 30 September
2006, with the last day for serving the summons being 29 September 2006.
[34] It is clear from the evidence and from his letters that Joubert was unhappy with
Investec’s decision to take over the management of the property, but he agreed to it
nonetheless. That agreement had two important components that give context to
everything that followed. First, it was agreed that Investec would collect rental from
sub-tenants and allocate those amounts to the repayment of Erf 436’s loan. Secondly,
it was agreed that endeavours would be made to find a purchaser for Investec’s rights
in the property and that the purchase price would be credited to Erf 436’s loan.
[35] During the period between Investec taking over the management of the
property and the final payment of the purchase price for Investec’s rights into Erf 436’s
account, Joubert, in a series of letters, consistently acknowledged Erf 436’s liability to
Investec. A theme that runs through these letters is that irrespective of who was, in his
view, to manage the property, the rental collected from the sub-tenants and the
purchase price in respect of the sale of Investec’s rights in the property would be
allocated towards the repayment of Erf 436’s loan.
[36] One payment requires specific mention. On 29 March 2006, before the claim
had prescribed, an amount of R1 350 000 was credited to Erf 436’s account. That
payment was made by Erf 225 Edenburg (Pty) Ltd, an entity of which Joubert was a
director. In a letter to Investec dated 2 November 2005, he had informed Investec of
a transaction involving Erf 225 and said that ‘[w]e have analysed and refined the
transaction regarding the actual surplus available to be deposited into the bond
account (number 221162) of [Erf 436] and calculate that an amount of R1.35 million
would be a more accurate amount’. The evidence of Oosthuizen was that Investec
had agreed with Joubert that Erf 225 would pay the surplus of a sale of property
towards Erf 436’s indebtedness to Investec. As Joubert was a director of both entities,
knowledge of, and agreement to, the payment must be imputed to Erf 436. The
inference that Erf 225 acted as Erf 436’s agent is irresistible. That payment was a tacit
acknowledgement of liability by Erf 436, with the effect that the running of prescription
was extended to 29 March 2009.
[37] On 21 May 2007, another tacit acknowledgement of liability was made by Erf
436 when Joubert queried the mechanics of the monthly payments into Erf 436’s
account. This was a tacit acknowledgement of liability because the very basis of the
query was an acceptance by Erf 436 of a liability towards Investec (that it had never
denied and had acknowledged consistently); and it discloses knowledge on the part
of Erf 436 that payments of rental collected from sub-tenants by Investec had (since
mid-2003) been paid towards reducing Erf 436’s loan liability. Far from protesting that
Erf 436 was not liable to Investec, Joubert sought details of how the VAT component
of the rentals was dealt with. The effect of this letter was to extend the life of Investec’s
claim for a further three years from the date of the letter – until 21 May 2010.
[38] The letter of 21 May 2007 also answers the question as to the effect of
Investec’s monthly payments to reduce Erf 436’s indebtedness to it. It does so by
confirming Erf 436’s agreement to the arrangement made in 2003 in terms of which
the payments were made. In fairness to Joubert, although he was unhappy with the
arrangement, he never once denied the agreement or Erf 436’s liability to Investec.
Erf 436’s agreement to the arrangement and, to put it at its lowest, the complete
absence of any words or conduct on its part that could be construed as a denial of
liability – its failure, in other words, to speak out if it denied liability – carry with it a tacit
acknowledgement of liability every month when its account was credited: it knew and
accepted that these payments were made monthly in order to reduce its admitted and
current indebtedness to Investec in accordance with a process to which it had agreed.
[39] The last monthly payment was made on 17 July 2008. Prescription was
interrupted on that day and immediately began to run again. The effect was that the
life of Investec’s claim was extended, and it was required to serve its summons by 16
July 2011 at the latest. As the various acknowledgements of liability that I have
identified kept the claim alive and summons was issued on 21 January 2011, well
before 16 July 2011, that appears to be the end of the matter. For the sake of
completeness, however, I shall deal with the effect of the sale of Investec’s rights in
the property.
[40] From the outset, it was agreed that Investec’s rights in the property would be
sold and the proceeds allocated towards the payment of Erf 436’s loan. From
Oosthuizen’s evidence and from Joubert’s letters, it is evident that Joubert was
particularly active in trying to find a purchaser. That is nowhere clearer than in his letter
to Investec of 12 October 2006 when he expressed shock on learning that Investec
had ‘sold’ the property without reference to him, and for a price that he considered to
be unreasonably low. He spoke of Erf 436’s ‘vested interest’ in the purchase price
because ‘it has a direct influence on our bond account No. 221161’. He also referred
to potential purchasers who were prepared to pay more.
[41] What is clear from this letter – and this is consistent with Joubert’s position
throughout – is that he was aware that the purchase price would be used to reduce
Erf 436’s indebtedness to Investec, as agreed between them in 2003. Viewed in this
context, his knowledge of that fact and his acceptance without demur of the payments
made on 29 June 2009 and 1 July 2009 were tacit acknowledgements of liability on
the part of Erf 436. Once again, his failure to query them is telling and is consistent
with Erf 436’s position throughout – its acceptance that it was liable to Investec in
respect of the loan. The result of these tacit acknowledgements of liability is that
prescription was yet again interrupted on the dates of payment. Summons had to be
served by 30 June 2012 at the latest but was served well within time on 21 January
2011.
[42] It is necessary to say something of the finding of Fabricius J that the payments
of rental after September 2003 and of the purchase price of Investec’s rights in the
property were not tacit acknowledgements of liability. His reasoning was that Erf 436
cannot be said to have acknowledged liability because neither the sub-tenants whose
rental was credited to Erf 436’s account or Johnny Prop who bought Investec’s rights
were Erf 436’s agents. In my view, questions of agency do not arise, save in the case
of Erf 225’s payment on behalf of Erf 436, referred to above.
[43] The difficulty I have with the reasoning is that it ignores the context in which the
payments were made. That context was an agreement between Investec and Erf 436
that Investec would collect rental from sub-tenants and credit Erf 436 with the nett
amounts so collected every month; and that when Investec’s rights were sold, the
purchase price would likewise be credited to Erf 436’s account. The basis for the
acknowledgements of liability in respect of each of these payments does not rest on
agency, but on the agreement entered into by the parties as to how the loan would be
repaid. The First Consolidated Leasing Corporation case12 is thus not of application.
[44] There is no merit in an argument advanced on behalf of Erf 436 that any
acknowledgements by Erf 436 were not acknowledgements of a present liability but of
a past or, perhaps, a conditional liability. Reliance was placed on Benson and Another
v Walters and Others.13 This argument fails on two counts.
[45] First, the facts of Benson differ markedly from this matter. In Benson, a person’s
attorney had written to his ex-attorney to say that the client had paid R5 000 in respect
of the former attorney’s fees and disbursements and undertook ‘payment of whatever
12 Note 10.
13 Note 7 at 86H-87B.
shortfall you are able to establish on taxation’. Van Heerden JA held that the letter
contained ‘a conditional undertaking to pay’ but was not ‘an admission of existing
liability’.14 What the writer intended to convey was the fact that ‘he did not know
whether an amount of more than R5 000 would be taxed and therefore did not know
whether Benson was liable to make a payment to Walters, but that, if a liability did
exist, his firm would pay the amount thereof’.15 This was not an acknowledgement of
liability that could interrupt prescription. In the present matter, there has been no
suggestion that the amount owed to Investec by Erf 436 was anything but a current
debt and there was likewise no suggestion of any conditions attaching to its payment
or its quantification. At all times in his correspondence, Joubert accepted that Erf 436
owed money to Investec, even quantifying the amount in some of his letters.
[46] Secondly, it was argued that Joubert may have believed that the debt had been
discharged. That runs counter to the evidence. There was never any doubt that when
the last tacit acknowledgement of liability was made, Erf 436 was still indebted to
Investec. Joubert, the inveterate letter-writer, never once in any of his many missives
suggested that the debt had been paid or was anything but a current debt.
[47] The result is that Investec’s claim has not prescribed. The appeal must
consequently succeed.
The order
[48] I make the following order:
1. The appeal succeeds with costs, including the costs of two counsel where
employed.
2. The order of the court below is set aside and replaced with the following:
‘1.
It is declared that the debt owed by the defendants to the plaintiff, as formulated
in the particulars of claim, had not prescribed when summons was served on 21
January 2011.
14At 87C-D.
15 At 87F.
2.
The costs of the hearing of 18 to 21 February 2019 are to be paid by the first,
second, third, fifth and sixth defendants jointly and severally. Those costs shall include
the costs of two counsel.
3.
The action is postponed sine die in respect of the remainder of the issues in
dispute.’
______________________
C Plasket
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES
For the appellant:
F J Erasmus SC
Instructed by:
VDT Attorneys, Pretoria
Peyper Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For the respondents:
H F Oosthuizen SC
Instructed by:
Nothling Attorneys, Pretoria
De Villiers Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
16 September 2020
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form part of
the judgment.
Investec Bank Limited v Erf 436 Elandspoort (Pty) Ltd and Others (410/2019) [2020]
ZASCA 104 (16 September 2020)
MEDIA STATEMENT
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) today upheld the appeal of Investec Bank Limited
(Investec) against Erf 436 Elandspoort (Pty) Ltd (Erf 436) and four other respondents.
The central issue in the appeal was whether a debt in relation to which Investec had
issued summons against Erf 436, as principal debtor, and the remaining respondents, as
sureties, had prescribed. The court found that the debt had not prescribed because
prescription had been interrupted by a series of payments and a number of letters in which Erf
436’s liability had been acknowledged.
Investec had lent money to Erf 436 to enable it to enter into a notarial lease with the
South African Rail Commuter Corporation (the SARCC) in respect of a commercial property
in Pretoria. Erf 436 had defaulted, the SARCC had cancelled the lease and Investec had
demanded payment of the full amount outstanding in respect of the loan. Thereafter, Investec
had, in terms of a tripartite agreement entered into with the SARCC and Erf 436 stepped into
Erf 436’s shoes as lessee of the property. The purpose was to ensure that Erf 436’s loan could
be repaid from rental paid by sub-tenants and eventually by the sale of Investec’s rights in the
property to a third party.
It was agreed between Investec and Erf 436 that initially Erf 436 would continue to
manage the property and that rental paid by sub-tenants would be allocated to the payment
of its loan. It was later agreed that Investec would take over the management of the property
and similarly allocate rental payments to the repayment of Erf 436’s loan. Mr Pierre Joubert,
a director of Erf 436 wrote a number of letters to Investec in which he acknowledged the liability
of Erf 436 to Investec. Eventually, Investec’s rights in the property were sold to a third party
and the purchase price was allocated towards the repayment of Erf 436’s loan. Investec then
sued for the balance but their summons was met with a special plea of prescription. Investec
pleaded in its replication that the payments of the sub-tenants’ rental and the purchase price,
as well as the letters written by Joubert constituted express or tacit acknowledgements of
liability that, in terms of s 14 of the Prescription Act 68 of 1969, had interrupted the running of
prescription.
The court held that the letters written by Joubert were express acknowledgements of
liability that had the effect of interrupting prescription. It held that the payments, made with the
knowledge of Erf 436 in terms of an agreement between it and Investec in order to pay its loan
were tacit acknowledgements of liability that likewise interrupted the running of prescription.
The result was that the debt had not prescribed. |
4138 | non-electoral | 2023 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 873/2022
In the matter between:
UBUHLEBEZWE MUNICIPALITY
APPELLANT
and
HIRALALL RAMSUNDER
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Ubuhlebezwe Municipality v Ramsunder (Case no 873/2022)
[2023] ZASCA 165 (1 December 2023)
Coram:
GORVEN,
MEYER
and
WEINER
JJA
and
CHETTY
and
UNTERHALTER AJJA
Heard:
10 November 2023
Delivered:
1 December 2023
Summary:
Interdict – Final – Whether clear right established.
Interpretation – National Building Regulations and Building Standards Act 103 of 1977
– s 4(1) read with the definitions of ‘erection’ and ‘erect’ in s 1.
ORDER
On appeal from: Kwa-Zulu Natal Division of the High Court, Pietermaritzburg
(Phoswa AJ, sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
JUDGMENT
Meyer JA (Gorven and Weiner JJA and Chetty and Unterhalter AJJA
concurring):
[1] The appellant, Ubuhlebezwe Municipality (the municipality), initiated motion
proceedings in the Kwa-Zulu Natal Division of the High Court, Pietermaritzburg (the
high court) against the respondent, Mr Harilall Ramsunder (Mr Ramsunder), for an
order interdicting him ‘from carrying out any building operations and/or renovations
and/or improvements and/or restoration to the immovable property’ described as Erf
1, Stuarts town, situated at the corner of Main Road and Railway Street, Ixopo, Kwa-
Zulu Natal (the property). On 2 February 2022, the high court (per Phoswa AJ)
dismissed the application for a final interdict, with costs, including those of two counsel.
The appeal is with leave of the high court.
[2] First, the background facts.1 Mr Ramsunder had, at the time the proceedings
were initiated, been in occupation of the property for approximately twenty-five years,
since 1996. The property was initially owned by Transnet Ltd (Transnet). Mr
1 Insofar as there are material disputes of fact on the papers, I must accept the facts alleged by Mr
Ramsunder ‘unless they constituted bold or uncreditworthy denials or were palpably implausible, far-
fetched or so clearly untenable that they could safely be rejected on the papers. . . A finding to that
effect occurs infrequently because courts are always alive to the potential for evidence and cross-
examination to alter its view of the facts and the plausibility of the evidence’. Media 24 Books (Pty) Ltd
v Oxford University Press Southern Africa (Pty) Ltd [2016] ZASCA 119; [2016] 4 All SA 311 (SCA);
2017 (2) SA 1 (SCA) at 18A-B. That stringent test has not been satisfied in casu.
Ramsunder’s occupation of the property during 1996 arose from a lease agreement
concluded between him and Transnet. The lease was to endure for an initial period of
three years up to 1999, and thereafter upon renewal, for a further period of three years
from 1999 to 2002.
[3] With Transnet’s approval, Mr Ramsunder effected improvements to the
property to house a supermarket, liquor store and a fruit and vegetable business. He
caused the old buildings on the property to be demolished and new buildings were
erected to house his businesses. The municipality approved the plans and
specifications.
[4] Although Mr Ramsunder had been involved in negotiations to acquire
ownership of the property, Transnet, unbeknown to him, sold the property to the
predecessor of the appellant, the Ixopo Transitional Local Council. Ownership passed
to the municipality on 25 May 2000. A new lease agreement was concluded between
the municipality and Mr Ramsunder, in terms of which he continued to occupy the
property.
[5] Negotiations ensued between Mr Ramsunder and the municipality with the aim
that he acquire ownership of the property. Pursuant to an agreement in principle that
he would purchase the property from the municipality for an amount of R450 000, the
municipality granted him written authority to further improve the property. After the
architectural plans, required by law, had been drawn and approved by the municipality,
Mr Ramsunder caused a new supermarket, a warehouse, shops under the
supermarket and steel structures over an existing store, a yard and taxi area to be
constructed, comprising a total area of approximately 3 530m².
[6] Finally, on 12 February 2004, a written sale agreement was concluded
between the municipality and Mr Ramsunder for a total purchase consideration of
R450 000. Prior to the passing of ownership to Mr Ramsunder, at a full council meeting
of the municipality held on 4 February 2005, it was resolved:
‘1)
That the sale of Spoornet Property, Portion A of Erf 1 and B of Erf 2 situated in
Stuartson, Ixopo to Mr. H. Ramsunder was improper and illegal since it was in contrast
with the objects of acquiring the property.
2)
That the sale should be stopped and cancelled immediately.
3)
That the Municipal Manager does the necessary to cancel the sale and advise Mr. H.
Ramsunder of the council decision.’
Mr Ramsunder disputed the validity of the municipality’s unilateral attempt to cancel
the sale.
[7] The relationship between Mr Ramsunder and the municipality has become
acrimonious since then. Matters could not be resolved, and on 20 September 2005,
he commenced action proceedings in the high court, in which he claimed:
‘An order compelling the Defendant to take all steps necessary to transfer the properties
referred to in Clause 1 of the Memorandum of Sale, dated 12 February 2004, between the
Plaintiff and the Defendant, to the Plaintiff and to sign all documents and to take all steps
necessary to give effect to this order within 30 days from the date of this order, failing which
the Sheriff be and is hereby authorised and directed, to take all such steps and to sign all such
documents on behalf of the Defendant to give effect to this order.’
[8] The municipality filed a plea in which it alleged that the sale is ‘voidable and
unenforceable’ on grounds that are not presently relevant. It also instituted a
conditional counter-claim in which it, inter alia, claimed Mr Ramsunder’s ejectment
from the property. It denied the existence of a lease between itself and Mr Ramsunder,
as alleged by him. Mr Ramsunder’s particulars of claim were then amended, to claim
a lien based on the improvements which he had effected to the property. For reasons
that are not presently relevant, Mr Ramsunder – according to him, erroneously –
agreed to an order that the sale be declared invalid and of no force and effect. His
enrichment claim and the municipality’s claim for his eviction were postponed sine die,
and are presently pending.
[9] During July 2021, widespread civil unrest started in Kwa-Zulu Natal and spread
to Gauteng. It was accompanied by egregious loss of life, public violence, burglary
and malicious damage to property. Mr Ramsunder was one of the unfortunate victims
of the widespread unrest. The buildings on the property from which he was conducting
his businesses were damaged and he could no longer conduct any business from
these premises. It was imperative for him to undertake remedial construction to restore
the buildings and recommence operating the businesses he had conducted. He had
suffered great financial loss. His businesses employed approximately 90 persons and
they have been left unemployed.
[10] This gave the municipality another arrow in its bow to resist Mr Ramsunder’s
enrichment claim. It maintained that the buildings on the property had been destroyed
and burnt to the ground. Mr Ramsunder, on the other hand, presented evidence that
although the property could not be occupied, some of the buildings were not damaged
or the damage was minimal, and others were partially damaged.
[11] In order to curtail further losses, Mr Ramsunder engaged the services of a
construction company, RockSteel, to undertake the required remedial construction to
restore the buildings on the property to their original state, in accordance with the
previously approved plans and specifications. Mr Ramsunder’s evidence was as
follows: that the municipality was aware of the damage to the property from at least 13
July 2021, when its officials conducted inspections of the extensive damage to the
town; the municipality was aware since 3 September 2021 that remedial construction
works were being undertaken at the property; no municipal inspectors attended the
property and inspected the building construction from time to time; the remedial
construction works were effected strictly in accordance with the approved plans and
specifications; and that structural works were undertaken under the supervision of
engineers employed by RockSteel. This evidence stands uncontroverted. No evidence
was presented, inter alia, to the effect that there were any specifications originally
approved for the construction of the buildings on the property that are outdated or no
longer conform to best engineering and construction practice or principles.
[12] Surprisingly, the municipality commenced the application proceedings, being
the subject of this appeal, by way of urgency in the high court. Its application was
issued by the registrar of the high court on 28 September 2021, and the matter was
set down for hearing on 1 October 2021, affording Mr Ramsunder insufficient
opportunity to oppose the application for interim relief. He thus only opposed the grant
of final relief. One would have expected ‘a good constitutional citizen’2 rather to have
2 To borrow the phrase used by Cameron J in Merafong City Local Municipality v AngloGold Ashanti
Limited [2016] ZACC 35; 2017 (2) BCLR 182 (CC); 2017 (2) SA 211 (CC) para 60.
sent its municipal inspectors to attend the property and inspect the building
construction from time to time. If there were compelling reasons to require
amendments to the originally approved plans and specifications, to tell Mr Ramsunder
so and offer to re-approve the originally approved plans and specifications.
[13] Why then did the municipality instead rush to court to obtain an interdict? Mr
Ramsunder’s answer to this question:
‘More disconcerting is the fact that the Applicant has tried to create the impression that I am a
recalcitrant occupant who has no regard for the law. This is simply not true. To the contrary, it
is the Applicant who is being opportunistic in attempting to constructively evict me due to the
unforeseen unlawful riots that occurred. It does so in circumstances where it previously took
no action to resolve the dispute between us, presumably because it was aware that it is liable
to compensate me for the building I constructed before it is entitled to an order that I relinquish
my possession of the leased premises.
. . .
The irresistible impression is that the Applicant intends on obtaining an indefinite interdict to
obstruct my right to remain on and use the property solely to bolster its position in the pending
litigation in which the parties’ rights will be determined.’
[14] There are three requisites for the grant of a final interdict, all of which must be
present. They are: (a) a clear right enjoyed by the applicant; (b) an injury actually
committed or reasonably apprehended; and (c) the absence of any other satisfactory
remedy available to the applicant. These principles are trite and require no citation of
authority.
[15] The clear right upon which the municipality sought to rely, emanates from s 4(1)
read with the definitions of the words ‘erection’ and ‘erect’ in s 1 of the National Building
Regulations and Building Standards Act 103 of 1977 (the Act). Section 4(1) stipulates:
‘No person shall without the prior approval in writing of the local authority in question, erect
any building in respect of which plans and specifications are to be drawn and submitted in
terms of this Act.’
The words ‘erection’ and ‘erect’ are defined, thus:
‘“erection” in relation to a building, includes the alteration, conversion, extension, rebuilding,
re-erection, subdivision of or addition to, or repair of any part of the structural system of, any
building; and “erect” shall have a corresponding meaning.’
[16] The municipality contended that Mr Ramsunder was required to have new plans
and specifications drawn and approved by the municipality, prior to the
commencement of the remedial construction works on the property. Mr Ramsunder,
on the other hand, contended that the 2004 approved plans and specifications met the
requirement of s 4(1). The remedial construction works were effected strictly in
accordance with those approved plans and specifications. The high court agreed with
Mr Ramsunder and concluded that the municipality has not established a clear right
that required protection by way of a final interdict.
[17] An interpretative analysis of s 4(1), read with the pertinent definitions in s 1 of
the Act, must follow the now well-established triad of text, context and purpose.3 ‘It is
an objective unitary process where consideration must be given to the language used
in the light of the ordinary rules of grammar and syntax; the context in which the
provision appears; the apparent purpose to which it is directed and the material known
to those responsible for its production. The approach is as applicable to taxing statutes
as to any other statute. The inevitable point of departure is the language used in the
provision under consideration.’4 ‘Most words can bear several different meanings or
shades of meaning and to try to ascertain their meaning in the abstract, divorced from
the broad context of their use, is an unhelpful exercise’.5 ‘One should not stare blindly
at the black-on-white words, but try to establish the meaning and implication of what
is being said. It is precisely in this process that the context and surrounding
circumstances are relevant.’6 ‘Where more than one meaning is possible each
possibility must be weighed in the light of all these factors. The process is objective,
3 Capitec Bank Holdings Limited and Another v Coral Lagoon Investments 194 (Pty) Ltd and Others
[2021] ZASCA 99; [2021] 3 All SA 647 (SCA); 2022 (1) SA 100 (SCA).
4 Commissioner for the South African Revenue Service v United Manganese of Kalahari (Pty)
Ltd ZASCA 16; 2020 (4) SA 428 (SCA), para 8.
5 Natal Joint Municipal Pension Fund v Endumeni Municipality 2012] ZASCA 13; [2012] 2 All SA
262 (SCA); 2012 (4) SA 593 (SCA) para 25 (Endumeni).
6 In Elan Boulevard (Pty) Ltd v Fnyn Investments (Pty) Ltd and Others [2018] ZASCA 165; 2019 (3) SA
441 (SCA) para 16 footnote 6, Ponnan JA provided the above-quoted loose translation of the dictum -
‘. . . dat mens jou nie moet blind staar teen die swart-op-wit woorde nie, maar probeer vasstel wat die
bedoeling en implikasies is van dit wat gesê is. Dit is juis in hierdie proses waartydens die samehang
en omringende omstandighede relevant is . . .’ - by Olivier JA in Plaaslike Oorgangsraad van
Bronkhortspruit v Senekal 2001 (3) SA 9 (SCA) para 11.
not subjective. A sensible meaning is to be preferred to one that leads to insensible or
unbusinesslike results or undermines the purpose of the document’.7
[18] The manifest purpose of s 4(1) becomes clear when the provision is placed in
proper perspective, and the context in which it was made is considered. The purpose
of the Act is ‘[t]o provide for the promotion of uniformity in the law relating to the areas
of jurisdiction of local authorities; for the prescribing of building standards; and for
matters connected therewith’. The Act provides, inter alia, for applications to local
authorities in respect of erections of buildings;8 appointment of building control officers
by local authorities,9 who, in turn, inter alia, shall (a) make recommendations to a local
authority, regarding any plans, specifications, documents and information submitted
to the local authority in an application in respect of the erection of a building, (b) ensure
that any instruction given in terms of the Act by a local authority be carried out, (c)
inspect the erection of a building, and any activities or matters connected therewith, in
respect of which approval was granted by a local authority, and (d) report to the local
authority regarding non-compliance with any condition on which approval was
granted.10
[19] The Act continues to provide for the approval by local authorities of applications
in respect of the erection of buildings once the local authority has considered the
recommendations of the building control officer and is satisfied that the application
complies with the requirements of the Act and any other applicable law;11 refusal by
local authorities to grant approval of applications in respect of the erection of buildings
if it is not satisfied that the application complies with the requirements of the Act and
any other applicable law,12 or if it is satisfied that the building to which the application
in question relates is to be erected in such manner or will be of such nature of
appearance that (a) the area in which it is to be erected will probably or in fact be
disfigured thereby, (b) it will probably or in fact be unsightly or objectionable, (c) it will
7 Endumeni para 18.
8 Section 4.
9 Section 5.
10 Section 6(1).
11 Section 7(1).
12 Section 7(1)(b)(i).
probably or in fact derogate from the value of adjoining or neighbouring properties, or
(d) it will probably or in fact be dangerous to life or property.13
[20] Building control officers or any other person authorized thereto by the local
authority are obliged and empowered to enter any building or land at any reasonable
time to inspect the approved construction works to determine whether there is
compliance with the statutory prescripts and conditions of approval.14 A person
appointed to design and to inspect the erection or installation of the structural, fire
protection, or fire installation system of a building is, upon completion of the erection
and installation of such system, obliged to submit a certificate to the local authority,
indicating that the system has been designed and erected or installed in accordance
with the approved application to erect the building.15 Unless the local authority issues
a temporary certificate of occupancy, a newly constructed building may not be
occupied unless the local authority issues a certificate of occupancy. It will issue such
certificate if it is of the opinion that the building has been erected in accordance with
the provisions of the Act and the conditions on which approval was granted.16 The Act
vests local authorities with various other powers – such as the imposition of various
conditions and prohibiting the erection or ordering the demolition of buildings in certain
circumstances17 – which require no further elaboration here.
[21] Section 4(1) thus forms part of a suite of legislative stipulations providing for
municipal approval, oversight, and sign off on buildings that are safe, sound and
aesthetically acceptable. Indeed, the legislature has cast the net for municipal
authorisation wide in defining ‘erect’ in relation to a building, as it has done in defining
a ‘building’. The evident intention with that is to ensure that the erection of all buildings
(within the wide meaning ascribed to that noun) has been done in accordance with
approved plans and specifications, even if, for example, the intended construction
constitutes a mere re-erection of a pre-existing building that had originally been
erected without the legally required municipal authorisation. Conversely, it could never
have been the intention, as the municipality would have it, that new plans and
13 Section 7(1)(b).
14 Sections 6(1)(c) and 15.
15 Section 14 (2A).
16 Section 14(1)(a).
17 See, for example, sections 10-12.
specifications need to be submitted to and approved by a local authority prior to the
commencement of remedial construction works being undertaken, in circumstances
where the municipality had previously approved the identical plans and specifications,
in accordance with which the remedial construction works are to be carried out, and in
the absence of any suggestion that the local authority would have imposed amended
or additional conditions.
[22] Indeed, the facts herein demonstrate the absurdity that would result from a
contrary interpretation of s 4(1). It would amount to a mere brutum fulmen – an
exercise in futility – to require the same application in respect of the same building to
be submitted to the local authority each time an event, such as the 2021 riots, results
in damage to the building, merely for an identical authorisation then to be issued to
undertake the remedial construction works in accordance with the originally approved
plans and specifications. Would the approach of the municipality apply to less serious
damage, such as borer damage to a roof structure? Such insensible and
unbusinesslike results are not to be preferred.
[23] The municipality has thus failed to show that the clear right requisite for the
grant of a final interdict is present. In addition, its application appears to have an
ulterior motive.
[24] In the result:
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
________________________
P MEYER
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
M Pillemer SC with M Mbonane
Instructed by:
Tembe
Kweswa
Nxumalo
Inc.,
Durban
Maduba Attorneys Inc., Bloemfontein
For respondent:
No appearance
Instructed by:
Udesh
Ramesar
Attorneys,
Pietermaritzburg
Symington
De
Kok
Attorneys,
Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
1 December 2023
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does not
form part of the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Ubuhlebezwe Municipality v Ramsunder (873/2022) [2023] ZASCA 165 (1 December 2023)
Today, the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) dismissed an appeal from the Kwa-Zulu Natal Division of
the High Court, Pietermaritzburg. The appellant, Ubuhlebezwe Municipality (the municipality), initiated
motion proceedings against the respondent, Mr Harilall Ramsunder (Mr Ramsunder), for an order
interdicting him ‘from carrying out any building operations and/or renovations and/or improvements
and/or restoration to the immovable property’ situated in the town of Ixopo, Kwa-Zulu Natal (the
property). The clear right upon which the municipality sought to rely in order to obtain a final interdict,
emanates from s 4(1) read with the definitions of the words ‘erection’ and ‘erect’ in s 1 of the National
Building Regulations and Building Standards Act 103 of 1977 (the Act). The section stipulates that ‘[n]o
person shall without the prior approval in writing of the local authority in question, erect any building in
respect of which plans and specifications are to be drawn and submitted in terms of this Act.’ The words
‘erection’ and ‘erect’ are defined, thus:
‘“erection” in relation to a building, includes the alteration, conversion, extension, rebuilding, re-erection,
subdivision of or addition to, or repair of any part of the structural system of, any building; and “erect”
shall have a corresponding meaning.’
The buildings on the property were erected during 2004 in accordance with duly approved municipal
plans and specifications. During July 2021, widespread civil unrest started in Kwa-Zulu Natal and
spread to Gauteng. It was accompanied by egregious loss of life, public violence, burglary and malicious
damage to property. Mr Ramsunder was one of the unfortunate victims of the widespread unrest. The
buildings on the property from which he was conducting his business were damaged and he could no
longer conduct any business from these premises. Mr Ramsunder engaged the services of a
construction company, RockSteel, to undertake the required remedial construction to restore the
buildings on the property to their original state, in accordance with the previously approved plans and
specifications.
The municipality contended that Mr Ramsunder was required to have new plans and specifications
drawn and approved by the municipality, prior to the commencement of the remedial construction works
on the property. Mr Ramsunder, on the other hand, contended that the 2004 approved plans and
specifications met the requirement of s 4(1) of the Act. The high court agreed with Mr Ramsunder and
concluded that the municipality has not established a clear right that required protection by way of a
final interdict.
The SCA agreed with the conclusion reached by and the order of the high court. In dismissing the
appeal, the SCA held that s 4(1) forms part of a suite of legislative stipulations providing for municipal
approval, oversight, and sign off on buildings that are safe, sound and aesthetically acceptable. Indeed,
so the SCA held, the legislature has cast the net for municipal authorisation wide in defining ‘erect’ in
relation to a building, as it has done in defining a ‘building’. The evident intention with that is to ensure
that the erection of all buildings (within the wide meaning ascribed to that noun) has been done in
accordance with approved plans and specifications, even if, for example, the intended construction
constitutes a mere re-erection of a pre-existing building that had originally been erected without the
legally required municipal authorisation. Conversely, it could never have been the intention, as the
municipality would have it, that new plans and specifications need to be submitted to and approved by
a local authority prior to the commencement of remedial construction works being undertaken in
circumstances where the municipality had previously approved the identical plans and specifications,
in accordance with which the remedial works are to be carried out, and in the absence of any suggestion
that the local authority would have imposed amended or additional conditions.
~~~~the end~~~~ |
3774 | non-electoral | 2022 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case No: 115/2021
In the matter between:
MINISTER OF POLICE
APPELLANT
and
XOLILE MZINGELI
FIRST RESPONDENT
LUTHANDO NDAYI
SECOND RESPONDENT
MPUMEZO XABADIYA
THIRD RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Minister of Police v Mzingeli and Others (115/2021) [2022] ZASCA
42 (5 April 2022)
Coram: Petse DP, Van der Merwe and Hughes JJA, and Tsoka and Makaula AJJA
Heard: 16 February 2022
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the parties’
legal representatives by email, publication on the website of the Supreme Court of
Appeal and release to SAFLII. The date and time for hand-down are deemed to be
10h00 on 5 April 2022.
Summary: Delict – claim for damages – quantum of unliquidated damages – no oral
evidence – stated case – whether properly formulated in terms of Rule 33 –
requirements restated.
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: The Eastern Cape Division of the High Court, Mthatha (Zono AJ
sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal succeeds with no order as to costs.
The order of the court a quo is set aside.
The matter is remitted to the court a quo for the determination of the quantum of
damages.
___________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
___________________________________________________________________
Hughes JA (Petse DP, Van der Merwe JA, and Tsoka and Makaula AJJA
concurring):
[1] This appeal is with the leave of this Court, granted on the following terms:
‘The leave to appeal is limited to the following:
(a) Whether it was permissible for the court to determine the quantum of unliquidated
damages without hearing oral evidence in light of the decision of EFF and Others v
Manuel [2020] ZASCA 172;
(b) Whether the stated case was properly formulated in accordance with the rules of court
and the requirements for such a stated case, so as to be sufficient to enable the court
to determine the issue of the quantum of damages;
(c) The quantum of damages awarded to each of the plaintiffs.’
[2] The respondents did not file heads of argument and opted to abide by this
Court’s decision. The appellant sought condonation in terms of rule 12 of the Rules of
the Supreme Court of Appeal for the late filing of the record and heads of argument.
Both applications were unopposed by the respondents. In support of the condonation
application, the appellant stated that the courier company entrusted with the task of
delivering the record to the Court failed to provide a plausible explanation for the late
delivery to the Court. This Court, having satisfied itself that a proper case for
condonation was made out, grants condonation in both instances.
[3] Briefly, the following are the facts. The respondents, Messrs Xolile Mzingeli,
Luthando Ndayi and Mpumezo Xabadiya, instituted an action against the appellant,
the Minister of Police, claiming damages for unlawful arrest, detention and malicious
prosecution.
[4] And this is how the claims came about: On 13 September 2009 the respondents
were arrested and charged with housebreaking, theft and murder. They were detained
and, on 17 September 2009, the first and third respondents were found guilty of theft
and were sentenced to 12 months’ imprisonment. The murder charge was still being
investigated. After serving their sentence of 12 months, the first and third respondents
remained incarcerated together with the second respondent in respect of the murder
charge. The respondents remained in custody until 24 July 2014, when the murder
charge was withdrawn against them. The first and third respondents claimed damages
for the period 14 September 2010 to 24 July 2014 and the second respondent for the
period 13 September 2009 to 24 July 2014.
[5] The trial was scheduled to proceed on 15 October 2019. However, the parties
attempted to settle both the issue of liability and quantum, but were not successful in
respect of quantum. The court a quo (Zono AJ) made an order in terms of rule 33(4) of
the Uniform Rules of Court, thereby separating the issues of liability and quantum. It
was further recorded in the order that the appellant was found liable on the merits and
the only issue left for determination was the quantum for general damages arising from
the detention of the respondents. The respondents did not persist with the claim for
malicious prosecution and the issue of quantum was then adjourned to the following
day.
[6] On 16 October 2019, the court a quo acceded to hear the issue of quantum by
way of a stated case as formulated by the parties. After hearing oral argument, the
court a quo awarded the first and third respondents an amount of R3 000 000 as a
reasonable and fair compensation, whilst, the second respondent was awarded an
amount of R4 000 000 as reasonable and fair compensation.
[7] I now turn to the merits of the appeal. Rule 33(1) and (2) of the Uniform Rules
provides:
‘(1) The parties to any dispute may, after institution of proceedings, agree upon a written
statement of facts in the form of a special case for the adjudication of the court.
(2)(a) Such statement shall set forth the facts agreed upon, the questions of law in dispute
between the parties and their contentions thereon. Such statement shall be divided into
consecutively numbered paragraphs and there shall be annexed thereto copies of documents
necessary to enable the court to decide upon such questions. It shall be signed by an advocate
and an attorney on behalf of each party, or where a party sues or defends personally, by such
party.
(b) Such special case shall be set down for hearing in the manner provided for trials or opposed
applications, whichever may be more convenient
(c) …’
[8] It is important to restate the approach to be adopted whenever litigants request
a court to invoke rule 33 and determine the issues by way of a stated case. It is
incumbent upon the parties to ensure that the stated case contains adequate facts as
agreed upon between them. Further, the statement ought to also contain the question
of law in dispute between the parties and their contentions regarding these questions
of law. Wallis JA reaffirmed this in Minister of Police v Mboweni and Another:
‘It is clear therefore that a special case must set out agreed facts, not assumptions. The point
was re-emphasised in Bane v D’Ambrosi, where it was said that deciding such a case on
assumptions as to the facts defeats the purpose of the rule, which is to enable a case to be
determined without the necessity of hearing all, or at least a major part, of the evidence. A
judge faced with a request to determine a special case where the facts are inadequately stated
should decline to accede to the request. The proceedings in Bane v D’Ambrosi were only
saved because the parties agreed that in any event the evidence that was excluded by the
judge’s ruling should be led, with the result that the record was complete and this court could
then rectify the consequences of the error in deciding the special case.’1
[9] In the present matter it is prudent to point out that there were facts included in
the stated case which were disputed by the appellant. There were also unsubstantiated
statements and no evidence advanced to substantiate these statements. Though the
statement of facts informed the court a quo of the detention of the respondents and the
period thereof, it did not provide details of the allegations of the acts of assault
perpetrated on the respondents by both the police and the inmates, nor did it deal in
detail with the acts of sodomy alleged by the respondents. Further, no details can be
found in the statement demonstrating the ‘inhumane, degrading and unhygienic’
conditions to which the respondents were allegedly subjected. In essence, the factual
material presented in the stated case was not sufficient for a court to make a
determination on the quantum and required evidence to be adduced to substantiate
the respondents’ claims.
[10] Notably, the court a quo acknowledged that the stated case was lacking in
details and evidence relating to the manner, extent and duration that the respondents
were allegedly subjected to assault, torture and sodomy whilst in detention. Despite
these shortcomings in the stated case, the court a quo proceeded to make
assumptions and draw inferences in order to arrive at the ultimate conclusions
reached. The court a quo acknowledged this in its judgment.2
[11] The court a quo, in finding for the respondents, made the awards set out above
and stated:
‘It is the parties’ minds that all three plaintiffs must be compensated but they do not agree on
the amounts. I am called upon and I set out to decide this case on the basis of the contended
amounts. It is from the contentions of the parties that the question of law sought to be decided
emerges…..
1 Minister of Police v Mboweni and Another [2014] ZASCA 107, 2014 (6) SA 256 (SCA) at para 8; Bane
and Others v D’Ambrosi [2009] ZASCA 98; 2010 (2) SA 539 (SCA) at para 7.
2 Paras 5, 9, 10, 22 and 23 of the judgment of the court a quo by Zono AJ.
On the conspectus of the agreed facts, parties’ contentions and relief sought in the stated case
coupled with the authorities I have considered on the subject, I find as follows….’3 [My
emphasis.]
[12] Therefore, I find that the approach adopted by the court a quo to be
inappropriate, especially so, in respect of determining the quantum of unliquidated
damages. It is correct that a court may draw inferences from the facts in a stated case,
however, these are to be drawn from satisfactorily and adequately stated facts, as
would have been proven at trial.4
[13] In this case the quantum of the unliquidated damages claimed by the
respondents was hotly disputed. Evidently, damages of the kind claimed by the
respondents are by their very nature indeterminate and, as such, require proper
assessment by the court. The court a quo acknowledged this much. However, even in
the face of such acknowledgement, no evidence was adduced to aid with the
assessment and quantification of these damages.
[14] It was accepted by the parties during argument on appeal that determining
quantum in this matter by way of a stated case – such as it was – was not the correct
approach to adopt. This stance was correct as nowhere in the stated case or the
pleadings had the parties agreed on the relevant facts necessary to determine and
prove the quantum awarded by the court a quo.
[15] I must express this Court’s displeasure at the state of the record that included
some 178 pages unnecessarily incorporated into the record. This Court has repeatedly
admonished practitioners for including unnecessary documents in the appeal record.
It would seem that some of the practitioners have not heeded these warnings and,
thus, need to be reminded of this Court’s previous admonitions.5
3 Para 40 and 41 of the judgment of the court.
4 Feedpro Animal Nutrition (Pty) Ltd v Nienaber NO and Another [2016] ZASCA 32 at para 9 &10.
5 Government of the RSA v Maskam Boukontrakteurs (Edms) Bpk 1984 (1) SA 680 (A) at 692E–
693A; Salviati & Santori (Pty) Ltd v Primesite Outdoor Advertising (Pty) Ltd 2001 (3) SA 766 (SCA) paras
16–17; Nkengana v Schnetler [2010] ZASCA 64; [2011] 1 All SA 272 (SCA) para 16.
[16] Turning to the issue of costs, I am mindful of the fact that the respondents
sought to abide with this Court’s decision. In the circumstances the appeal was
unopposed. In addition, during the appeal the parties conceded that the stated case
was an incorrect course of action to have adopted for which they must share equal
blame. The proper order in these circumstances is that there be no order as to costs.
[17] Accordingly, the following order is made:
The appeal succeeds with no order as to costs.
The order of the court a quo is set aside.
The matter is remitted to the court a quo for the determination of the quantum
of damages.
_________________
W HUGHES
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES
For the Appellant:
D V Pitt (heads of argument prepared by
Z Z Matebese SC with him D V Pitt)
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Mthatha
State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For the Respondent:
A M Bodlani
Instructed by:
T A Noah & Sons Attorney, Mthatha
No correspondent in Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
5 April 2022
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does
not form part of the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Minister of Police v Mzingeli and Others (115/2021) [2022] ZASCA 42 (5 April 2022)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld an appeal for the Eastern Cape Division of
the High Court, Mthatha (court a quo) and set aside the order of the court a quo. The matter
was remitted to the court a quo for hearing of evidence on quantum and its determination.
Leave to appeal was limited to only the quantum of damages awarded to each of the
respondents (plaintiffs in the court a quo), whether a court could determine quantum of
unliquidated damages without hearing oral evidence and whether the stated case was properly
formulated in accordance with the rules of court and the requirements for the stated case, so as
to be sufficient to have enabled the court to determine the issue of quantum of damages.
The respondents instituted proceedings against the appellant in the court a quo, claiming
damages for unlawful arrest, detention and malicious prosecution. During trial the parties
settled the merits, but were unsuccessful with quantum. The court a quo made an order in terms
of rule 33(4) separating the issues of liability and quantum, and acceded to hear the issue of
quantum by way of a stated case, as formulated by the parties in terms of rule 33(1) and (2) of
the Uniform Rules of Court. Subsequently, awards of R3 000 000 were made to the first and
third respondents whilst R4 000 000 was awarded to the second respondent.
A requirement for a stated case is that the parties are to ensured that there is agreement as to
all the facts. Determination of unliquidated damages is permissible by way of a stated case,
provided it is brought before the court in a proper fashion. The quantum of unliquidated
damages claimed by the respondents were disputed; these damages were not fixed and required
the assessment of the court, which was a factor acknowledged by the court a quo. Furthermore,
no evidence was adduced to aid with the assessment and quantification of the damages and this
Court emphasised its importance by reiterating the fact that a proper assessment and an
appropriate award can only be made after evidence has been duly considered.
Upon appeal, the parties agreed that a stated case was not the correct approach adopted in this
instance, which was confirmed by this Court. Nowhere in the stated case or the pleadings were
any relevant facts agreed upon which were necessary for determining and proving the quantum
awarded by the court a quo.
In the result, the SCA upheld the appeal and set aside the order of the court a quo. The matter
was remitted to the court a quo for hearing of evidence on quantum and its determination.
--------oOo-------- |
2879 | non-electoral | 2012 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 161/12
Reportable
In the matter between:
THE GOVERNING BODY OF THE RIVONIA PRIMARY FIRST APPELLANT
SCHOOL
RIVONIA PRIMARY SCHOOL SECOND APPELLANT
and
MEC FOR EDUCATION: GAUTENG PROVINCE
FIRST RESPONDENT
HEAD OF DEPARTMENT: GAUTENG DEPARTMENT SECOND RESPONDENT
OF EDUCATION
DISTRICT DIRECTOR: JOHANNESBURG EAST D9 – THIRD RESPONDENT
GAUTENG DEPARTMENTOF EDUCATION
CELE: STHABILE FOURTH RESPONDENT
MACKENZIE: AUBREY FIFTH RESPONDENT
DRYSDALE: CAROL SIXTH RESPONDENT
AMICI CURIAE, EQUAL EDUCATION AND
THE CENTRE FOR CHILD LAW
Neutral citation:
The Governing Body of the Rivonia Primary School v MEC for
Education: Gauteng Province (161/12) [2012] ZASCA 194
(30 November 2012)
Coram:
Nugent, Cachalia, Shongwe, Wallis JJA and Saldulker AJJA
Heard:
16 November 2012
Delivered:
30 November 2012
Summary:
In terms of s 5(5) read with s 5A of the South African Schools Act
84 of 1996 the governing body of a public school has authority to determine the
capacity of a school as an incident of its admission policy. Provincial education
authorities may not ‘override’ the policy.
____________________________________________________________________
ORDER
____________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg (Mbha J sitting as court
of first instance):
The appeal is upheld with costs, such costs to be paid by the first, second and third
respondents. The order of the high court is, save for paras 6 and 7 thereof, set aside
and the following order substituted in its place:
‘It is declared that the instruction given to the principal of the Rivonia Primary School
to admit the learner contrary to the school’s admission policy, and the placing of the
learner in the school, were unlawful.’
JUDGMENT
____________________________________________________________________
CACHALIA JA (NUGENT, SHONGWE, WALLIS JJA AND SALDULKER AJA
CONCURRING):
[1] What occurred in this case might have occurred at any public school that had a
waiting list for the admission of learners – and there are many such schools. As it
happens, it occurred at a school located in an affluent, historically white suburb, where
a little more than half the learners were white. Much was made of that in the judgment
of the court below, and in the affidavits filed by the respondents, and in argument that
was advanced before us on their behalf, but none of it is relevant to this appeal. The
issues before us concern the structure of governance of all public schools, wherever
located, whatever their circumstances, and whatever the composition of their learners.
[2] The school concerned is Rivonia Primary School. It declined to admit a child to
its Grade 1 class for the 2011 school year, because she was twentieth on the waiting
list, against the insistence of her mother. The mother persisted in her demand that the
child be admitted and garnered the support in her cause of officials of the Gauteng
Department of Education. Some weeks into the school year the head of the
department (HoD) instructed the principal to admit the child. Before the governing
body could meet to consider the instruction, officials of the department arrived at the
school and summarily deposited the child in a classroom. That high-handed conduct
can only be deprecated. For reasons I now turn to it was also unlawful.
[3] Governance of public schools is regulated by the South African Schools Act 84
of 1996. Section 5(5) of the Act provides that:
‘[subject] to this Act and any applicable provincial law, the admission policy of a public school
is determined by the governing body of such school.’
The principal question that arises in the appeal is whether that entitles the governing
body to determine the number of learners the school may admit. The provincial
government contends that it falls within its authority to do so, and not the authority of
the governing body.
[4] Rivonia Primary School is a public school situated in one of Johannesburg’s
more affluent, historically white areas. Since the days when schools were racially
segregated, the school’s learner-profile has changed materially. In February 2011 it
had 388 black learners, 52 of whom were in Grade 1. This represented 46% of the
total learners at the school.
[5] The governing body had prepared an admission policy, which the department
accepted on 4 March 2010, in which the capacity of the school was set at 770
learners, of which 120 could be accommodated in Grade 1.
[6] The school’s post provisioning for the 2011 year, funded through the provincial
budget, was a total number of 22 educators – including the principal, a deputy
principal, three heads of department and 17 teachers – determined on the basis of 37
children per class. The school, however, had a lower learner-class ratio of 24 learners
per class – one of the lowest ratios in the province. This is because the governing
body employed 22 additional educators to ensure each child’s adequate supervision.
From 2000 to 2009 the governing body spent R3 251 036 on construction projects
including building nine further classrooms. The parents – not the department – funded
these extra costs. They did so to ensure that their children would have a solid
foundation to equip them for their later school years.
[7] The governing body determined its capacity by taking into account a number of
factors, including its statutory obligation to promote the best interests of the school,
and to ensure its development through the provision of quality education. The number
of educators, their space requirement, the number of designated classrooms, and the
optimum desk working space, were all factored into making this determination. There
is no suggestion that it set its capacity unreasonably or irrationally.
[8] The school opened its application process for admission of children to Grade 1
for the school year starting in January 2011 on 13 July 2010. Over the next few days
many application forms were collected. The mother of one of the children, with whom
this appeal is concerned, collected hers on 15 July and submitted it to the school on
21 July. At this stage the school had handed out 191 application forms of which 139
had been returned. At the time the child’s mother submitted her application for entry to
Grade 1 – which had a capacity of 120 – she was number 140 on the admission list.
[9] On 26 October 2010, the school informed the mother by e-mail that her child’s
application for admission was unsuccessful and that her details had been sent to the
District Office to assist her with finding a place for the child. The e-mail went on to say
that she would be advised in due course where her child may be accommodated.
Meanwhile the child would remain on the waiting list. Similar notices were sent to
other unsuccessful applicants.
[10] On 4 November 2010 the mother wrote to the principal, Ms Carol Drysdale,
asking why her application had not been accepted. Ms Drysdale gave the reason in a
letter the following day: the school had reached its capacity. The letter also stated that
her application was then number 14 on the waiting list, presumably because some of
the children ahead of her on the waiting list had been accommodated at other schools.
[11] The mother then lodged an appeal against this decision with the MEC for
Education on 5 November 2010. Meanwhile she continued to put pressure on officials
of the department to place her child at the school. There were various meetings
between the governing body, Ms Drysdale and the department’s officials to find a
solution. At a meeting on 30 November 2010 it appears to have been accepted that
the child would have to wait her turn until a place became available. Her mother then
enrolled her at a private school, Lifestyle Montessori School, where she commenced
attending classes on 12 January 2011.
[12] Late in January 2011, with the school year well underway, the mother’s appeal
was brought to the MEC’s attention. Mr Len Davids, the Deputy Director General of
the department, and deponent to the respondents’ answering affidavit, explained the
extraordinary delay in bringing the matter before the MEC as ‘due to administrative
issues’. Bearing in mind that the appeal had been lodged on 5 November, and almost
three months had since passed, this anodyne explanation is hardly acceptable.
[13] The MEC, quite properly, declined to entertain the appeal before the HoD had
dealt with the matter in accordance with reg 13 made under the Gauteng School
Education Act 6 of 1995. This is because reg 14 allows an appeal to the MEC only
after the HoD has considered the matter, which had not happened.1 So the MEC
referred the matter to the HoD for attention.
[14] On 2 February 2011 the matter took a new turn. The HoD, Mr Boy Ngobeni,
informed Ms Drysdale by letter that the school’s ‘tenth day statistics’ revealed that it
had not reached its capacity. (The department uses these statistics to determine the
number of children who have been enrolled at a school.) The letter went on to instruct
her to admit the learner forthwith.
[15] It appears that Mr Ngobeni’s conclusion that the school had not reached its
capacity was based on information gleaned from the statistics, which showed that the
school had admitted 124 learners to Grade 1 even though its stated capacity was only
120. The school, however, explains that it is common practice to accept a few more
learners as substitutes for those who had been accepted but do not arrive to take up
their positions. This explains the discrepancy between the statistics and the actual
number of admitted learners, and refutes Mr Ngobeni’s suggestion that the school had
incorrectly stated its capacity. It is, however, clear that by instructing Ms Drysdale to
1 Regulations 13 and 14. GN 4138, PG 129, 13 July 2001.
admit the child, Mr Ngobeni was not acting on the terms of the mother’s original
complaint and in accordance with reg 13, but on this new information.
[16] Five days later, on 7 February, the mother arrived at the school to have her
child admitted. Ms Drysdale explained that an urgent meeting of the governing body
had been called to discuss the issue, and asked her to leave with her child while the
matter was being resolved. Not satisfied, the mother left after telling Ms Drysdale that
‘she is going straight to the MEC’s office’.
[17] The following day, on 8 February, she returned to the school with her child. This
time she was accompanied by an official from the department, Mr Thlage Petlele, who
was armed with an instruction from Mr Ngobeni to Ms Drysdale to admit the child.
They encountered a representative of the governing body, Mr Paul Lategan, who
requested them to await the outcome of their attempt to resolve the dispute, and not to
subject the child to any further unpleasantness.
[18] Mr Petlele presented a letter to Mr Lategan and Ms Drysdale from Mr Ngobeni.
It stated that Ms Drysdale’s admission function as the principal had been withdrawn.
Some thirty minutes later another official, Mr Babsy Matabane, arrived at the school.
He handed a letter to Ms Drysdale informing her that the admission function had now
been delegated to him.
[19] Mr Lategan again asked the officials to remove the learner pending a resolution
of the dispute. But they were adamant that they were acting on the authority of the
HoD, and they were there to place the learner. Mr Lategan phoned the department’s
legal division to intervene, but the official who responded, Mr Qinso Zwane, was not
willing to entertain his plea.
[20] The two officials, accompanied by a security guard, then proceeded to the
Grade 1 classrooms with the child and her mother. They arrived at one of the
classrooms with the least number of learners and after speaking to the teacher
decided not to place the child in that classroom. They then went to another classroom
where they met a teacher outside that classroom. They asked her to allow them entry
so that they could place the child there and she obeyed. They entered and seated the
child at an empty desk that had been installed earlier that morning for a child with
attention and learning difficulties, and then left.
[21] The appellants – the governing body and the school – applied to the South
Gauteng High Court for declaratory and interdictory relief aimed at the department’s
decision to override the school’s admission policy on capacity, the withdrawal of Ms
Drysdale’s admission function, and the forced admission of the child. In the interests
of the child the appellants commendably abandoned the relief concerning her
admission.
[22] Save for the relief pertaining to the withdrawal of Ms Drysdale’s admission
function, which the court (Mbha J) granted,2 the application was dismissed. With the
leave of the high court the appellants now appeal that order. The respondents do not
cross-appeal the order that the withdrawal of Ms Drysdale’s admission function ‘was
not exercised bona fide and is set aside.’
[23] After leave was granted there was a new development. On 9 May 2012 the
MEC amended the regulations on the admissions of learners to public schools in
Gauteng.3 Regulation 8, as amended, now provides that the HoD – not the governing
body – shall determine the capacity of a school.4 The respondents contended that this
regulation rendered the appeal moot.
2 ‘1. Section 5(5) of the South African Schools Act No 84 of 1996, does not appropriate to a school
governing body the unqualified power to determine a public school’s admission policy.
2. The power to determine the maximum capacity of a public school in Gauteng Province vests in the
Gauteng Department of Education and not in the school governing body.
3. The Gauteng Department of Education has the power to intervene with the school governing body’s
power to determine the admission policy of a public school.
4. The Member of the Executive for Education, Gauteng Province, is the ultimate arbiter whether or not
a learner should be admitted to a public school.
5. The application in respect of prayers 2 to 7, 9 and 10 of the Notice of Motion is dismissed.
6. The application succeeds in respect of prayer 8 of the Notice of Motion.
7. Each party shall pay their own costs.’
3 GN 1160, PG 127, 9 May 2012.
4‘8 Declaring schools full
(1) Notwithstanding the provisions of the admission policy of a school, or the provisions of any national
or provincial delegated legislation or any determination made in terms thereof, for the purpose of
placing learners whose applications for admission have not been accepted at any school in the public
schooling system, until such time as norms and standards contemplated in section 5A(2)(b) of the
South African Schools Act are in force the objective entry level learner enrolment capacity of a school
shall be determined by the Head of Department.’
[24] Courts will generally decline to entertain litigation in which there is no live or
existing controversy. That is principally for the benefit of the court so as to avoid it
being called to pronounce upon abstract propositions of law that would amount to no
more than advisory opinions. The principle so far as appeals are concerned is
captured in s 21A of the Supreme Court Act 59 of 1959, which allows an appeal to be
dismissed on the ground alone that the judgment or order sought will have no practical
effect or result.
[25] The lawfulness or otherwise of the HoD’s conduct is certainly a live issue. It
also cannot be said that our decision on the matter will have no practical effect. The
submission that the new regulation has overtaken events assumes that the regulation
is valid – which is not before us to decide – but the proper meaning of the Schools Act
is relevant to deciding that question. Moreover, our decision will indeed have a
practical effect so far as Ms Drysdale, who has an interest in the appeal, is concerned.
We were informed from the bar that she was subjected to disciplinary sanctions for not
complying with the HoD’s instruction. That instruction, as will emerge later in this
judgment, was unlawful. She was given a final warning and had a month’s salary
deducted.
[26] I turn, then, to the structure of governance in public schools.
[27] The first democratically elected Parliament passed the Act soon after the
Constitution was adopted. Its objective, according to the long title, was to ‘[t]o provide
for a uniform system for the organisation, governance and funding of public schools’.
The preamble records that schools would henceforth be governed democratically with
learners, parents and educators assuming this responsibility in partnership with the
State. Public school governance, in the words of the Education White Paper which
preceded the Act, would become part of the country’s new structure of democratic
governance.5 It would represent a radical departure from the model of the authoritarian
control of education of the pre-constitutional era.
5The Organisation, Governance and Funding of Schools (Education White Paper 2), GN 130, February
1996 (Organisation, Governance and Funding White Paper) para 3.17.
[28] The governance of public schools is now vested in their governing bodies
whose functions, obligations and rights are prescribed.6 Their membership in primary
schools is elected from the learners’ parents, educators and staff members.7 They
may co-opt other members to assist in discharging their functions.8 The principal
serves ex officio on the governing body as a representative of the HoD9 and must
assist the governing body to perform its functions and responsibilities.10 It is implicit in
this that the principal is obliged to implement the policies lawfully determined by the
governing body within its sphere of authority.
[29] A governing body stands in a position of trust towards the school.11 It promotes
the school’s best interests and strives to ensure its development by providing quality
education to the learners.12 Implicit in this model of governance is an acceptance on
the lawmaker’s part that the state cannot provide all the resources for the proper
functioning of a high quality schooling system. So governing bodies are enjoined to
‘take all reasonable measures within [their] means to supplement the resources
supplied by the State in order to improve the quality of education provided by the
school . . .’13
[30] Governing bodies thus have a mandate – indeed, an obligation – to raise
additional funds through the active involvement of the parents, who in return for their
financial contributions are given a direct and meaningful say in school governance and
the employment of school funds.14 Governing bodies set their own school fees and
prepare budgets for approval by the general meeting.15 It is in pursuance of that
injunction that Rivonia Primary School’s governing body has been able to reduce its
learner-educator ratio by building extra classrooms and employing additional
educators.
6 Section 16(1).
7 Section 23(2).
8 Section 23(6).
9 Section 16A(1).
10 Section 16A(3).
11 Section 16(2).
12 Section 20(1).
13 Section 36(1).
14 P J Visser ‘Some Thoughts on Legality and Legal Reform in the Public School Sector’ (2006) 2 TSAR
359 at 360.
15 Section 39.
[31] Section 20(1) details a long list of functions that the governing body performs.
In addition to these the Act explicitly makes language policy,16 religious policy
observance17 and admissions policy18 – the subject of the present dispute – the
responsibility of the governing body.
[32] While school governance is the responsibility of the governing body, the
professional management of the school is undertaken by the principal under the
authority of the HoD.19 In undertaking the professional management of a school a
principal must carry out several duties, including implementing educational
programmes and curriculum activities, managing educators and support staff,20
maintaining the discipline of educators, support staff and learners, and, importantly,
implementing policies and legislative prescriptions.21
[33] Admission to public schools is thus under the control of their governing bodies,
which both devise and implement their admission policies. The HoD is responsible for
the administration of the admission process. The Act specifies that applications for the
admission of learners are made to the department in the manner that the HoD
determines.22 In practice, as happened in this case, the HoD delegates the
administration of this function to principals.23 The HoD, acting through the principal, is
thus responsible both for professional management, and for the administration of
admission, which must necessarily be administered in accordance with the governing
body’s admission policy.
[34] Before I consider the central issue in this appeal – whether a governing body
has the authority to determine school capacity as an incident of admission policy, and
if so whether a provincial authority may override this determination – it must be borne
in mind from what I have said thus far that the structure of the Act and its underlying
philosophy places the governance of the school in the hands of the local community
16 Section 6(2).
17 Section 7.
18 Section 5(5).
19 Section 16(3). Minister of Education, Western Cape v Governing Body, Mikro Primary School 2006
(1) SA 1 (SCA) para 5; The Head of Department: Department of Education, Free State Province v
Welkom High School & Harmony High School [2012] ZASCA 150 (28 September 2012) para 11.
20 Section 16A(ii).
21 Sections 16A2(vi) and 16A2(e).
22 Section 5(7).
23 Section 16A2(iv).
through the governing body, while officials of the department are responsible for
professional management and for the administration of admissions. These functions
are distinct and a failure to see them as such will compromise the objectives of Act
and be at odds with its scheme.
[35] That does not mean, however, that the authority of a governing body to govern
a school is absolute. The White Paper foresaw that governing bodies might exceed,
or fail to exercise, their powers, and envisaged an oversight role for the provincial
government, which it explained thus:
‘The province would need to reserve the right to intervene to ensure that law and policy were
being upheld, and in particular that funds were properly administered and accounted for.
There would need to be provision for the provincial authority to withdraw certain
responsibilities from a governing body at its own request, or in the event of seriously
unsatisfactory performance.’24
[36] That was embodied in s 22(1) of the Act, which authorises the HoD, on
reasonable grounds, to withdraw any one or more of the functions of a governing
body, but only after informing the governing body of his intentions and the reason
therefor, granting the governing body a reasonable opportunity to make
representations, and giving due consideration to those representations. Any person
aggrieved by a decision of the HoD may appeal to the MEC. But the HoD is only able
to take action under this section if the governing body performs the function allocated
to it or exercises any power conferred on it unreasonably, unconstitutionally or
otherwise unlawfully. He may also intervene under s 25(1) if he determines on
reasonable grounds that the governing body has ceased to perform any function, in
which case he may appoint other persons to perform the function.25 These powers
may be exercised in addition to his right to institute review proceedings against the
governing body. It was not contended that any of these provisions gave him the
authority to override the principal’s decision and to admit the child.
[37] I turn, then, to the main issue raised by this appeal, which is the authority to
determine the capacity of a school. I have pointed out that s 5(5) of the Act expressly
24 Organisation, Governance and Funding White Paper para 3.20.
25 Head of Department, Mpumalanga Department of Education v Hoërskool Ermelo 2010 (2) SA 415
(CC) paras 72, 81 and generally at paras 82-85.
provides that the admission policy of a school is determined by its governing body.
That must necessarily include the determination of its capacity, which is central to
admission to the school and forward planning, and particularly the determination of its
budget. Any doubt on that score is removed by s 5A, which allows the Minister of
Education to prescribe minimum and uniform norms and standards for ‘the capacity of
a school in respect of the number of learners a school can admit’. The factors to be
taken account of in setting those norms and standards are set out in s 5A(2)(b), and
include the number of teachers and the class size; the quality of performance of a
school; the curriculum and extra-curricular choices; the classroom size and the
utilisation of available classrooms. In terms of s 5A(3) – a critical section – a governing
body must, when compiling its admission policy, comply with these norms and
standards. In the event that the school has an existing policy, it must, in terms of
s 5A(4), within a period of 12 months after the Minister has prescribed the norms and
standards, review its admission policy to ensure its consistency. That the governing
body is enjoined to compile and review its admission policy in accordance with such
norms and standards makes it clear beyond doubt that the admission policy
contemplated by the Act includes the capacity of the school.
[38] Equally clear is the role the Act gives to the provincial authorities – in s 58C – to
ensure compliance with such norms and standards.26 Section 58C(2) imposes an
obligation on an MEC to ensure that a school’s admission policy, which I have said
includes its capacity, accords with national norms and standards. Sections 58C(5) and
(6) set out the duties of the HoD in respect of the determination of infrastructure and
capacity at public schools to ensure compliance with norms and standards. Once the
HoD communicates this determination to the school27 the governing body is able to
take the necessary steps to prepare its budget and fulfil its responsibility to
supplement the school’s resources.28
[39] Thus each of the partners in this tri-partite arrangement – the governing body,
the Minister and the provincial authorities – has defined responsibilities.29 Where the
Minister has determined national norms and standards after consulting the Council of
26 Section 58C inserted by s 11 of Act 31 of 2007.
27 Section 58C6(b).
28 Section 36(1).
29 Head of Department, Mpumalanga Department of Education v Hoërskool Ermelo 2010 (2) SA 415
(CC) para 56.
Ministers, the governing body must ensure that its admission policy accords with such
norms and standards. (The Minister has not prescribed norms and standards for the
capacity of schools.) In this regard it is accountable to the MEC. The HoD, in turn,
must account to the MEC for ensuring that the norms and standards are met.30
[40] While governing bodies are charged with determining their admission policies,
including the capacity of the school, they do not have a free hand in doing so. The Act
specifies that a school’s admission policy may not be unfairly discriminatory,31 may not
require an admission-test to be administered to a learner32 and may not refuse
admission to a learner because the parent has not paid or is unable to pay the school
fees.33 And as I observed earlier, a governing body must necessarily act reasonably
and rationally when determining its capacity.
[41] Notwithstanding those clear provisions of the Act, the respondents contend that
the provincial government has the final say on the capacity of a school, and is entitled
to override the capacity set by the governing body. They find the source of that alleged
power in ss 3(3) and 3(4). Section 3(3) obliges the MEC to ‘ensure that there are
enough school places so that every child who lives in his or her province can attend
school . . .’. Section 3(4) obliges the MEC, if he or she cannot comply with
subsection (3) because of a lack of capacity existing at the time of commencement of
the Act, to ‘take steps to remedy such lack of capacity as soon as possible’ and to
‘make an annual report to the Minister on the progress achieved in doing so’.
[42] The respondents rely in addition on s 39(2) of the Constitution34, which calls for
the courts to promote the spirit, purport and objects of the Bill of Rights when
interpreting statutes, which, they submit ‘compels’ us to interpret the provisions in this
manner so as to give effect to the constitutional rights to equality35 and to basic
30 Section 58C(e).
31 Section 5(1).
32 Section 5(2).
33 Section 5(3)(a).
34 Section 39(2) provides: 39 Interpretation of Bill of Rights
‘When interpreting any legislation, and when developing the common law or customary law, every court,
tribunal or forum must promote the spirit, purport and objects of the Bill of Rights.’
35 Section 9 of the Constitution.
education.36 In this contention they are supported by the amici curiae, Equal Education
and the Centre for Child Law. The high court accepted these contentions.
[43] A plain reading of ss 3(3) and 3(4) makes it clear that they are concerned with
the MEC’s obligation to ensure that infrastructure is provided for compulsory
attendance of all children in the province between the ages of seven and 15 years of
age as envisaged by s 3(1).37 To this end these provisions require the MEC to
determine the infrastructural shortcomings that impede the fulfilment of this objective
and to report annually to the Minister on any remedial steps being taken to remedy
these problems. They plainly have no relation to the governance of a school.
[44] A contextual reading of these provisions lends further support to this
interpretation. Section 3(1) imposes a duty on every parent to ensure a child’s
attendance at school. A parent who fails to comply with this duty is liable, under s 3(6),
to prosecution. Where the reasons for a child’s absence from school are unknown,
s 3(5) imposes a duty on the HoD to investigate the circumstances of the child’s
absence and to take the necessary remedial steps, including issuing a written notice
to the parent to comply. No mention is made of any duty on a school regarding the
compulsory attendance of children. Quite simply there is no hint in the text of s 3 that
suggests that its purpose is to deal with any issue concerning the admission policy of
a school, much less to override it.
[45] Properly understood, s 3 deals with compulsory attendance and the provision of
infrastructure for this purpose, and s 5 with admissions. Neither section qualifies or
limits the other. There is simply no room in their language to support any other
36Section 29 of the Constitution provides:
‘(1) Everyone has the right–
(a) to a basic education, including adult basic education; and
(b) to further education, which the state, through reasonable measures, must make progressively
available and accessible.’
37 Section 3, under the heading ‘Compulsory attendance’, provides:
‘(1) Subject to this Act and any applicable provincial law, every parent must cause every learner for
whom he or she is responsible to attend a school from the first school day of the year in which such
learner reaches the age of seven years until the last school day of the year in which such learner
reaches the age of fifteen years or the ninth grade, whichever occurs first.’
interpretation. The submission of the respondents that the Bill of Rights compels their
interpretation requires us to ignore the language to achieve what they believe would
be a socially desirable result – giving them the power to override the policies of
governing bodies to advance the objectives of the Constitution. The lawmaker chose
to give the power over admission policy to governing bodies so as to promote
democratic school governance. And it limited the provincial education department’s
role to the ‘minimum required for legal accountability’.38 I find nothing constitutionally
offensive about this choice.
[46] The facts of the case show how misplaced the respondents’ reliance on ss 3(3)
and 3(4) is. The parent of the child and the department were not faced with the
problem that the child would not be able to attend a school or be denied the right to
receive a basic education – she had already been admitted to another school. Nor
was the child’s right to equality at issue. On the contrary had the school succumbed to
the department’s pressure to admit the child while others were awaiting their turn on
the waiting list ahead of her, it would have unfairly given her preference over those
children.
[47] The facts also show that the department accepted the school’s admission
policy in March 2010 and received the updated policy in line with reg 2(3).39 Both
policies appear to have been carefully considered: they demonstrate that the
governing body had determined the school’s capacity rationally after considering a
range of factors relating to its available facilities and programmes. The first policy
determined the capacity at 770 learners, and the second at 840. Included among the
policy objectives are to ensure that the admission of learners is done in a ‘fair,
practical and transparent manner’ and that ‘no learner will be unfairly discriminated
against’.
[48] Once having determined its admission policy it remains for the governing body
to apply that policy. It is within the power of a governing body to apply its policy flexibly
to meet the exigencies of a particular case – indeed, in this case the admission policy
of Rivonia Primary School expressly reserved its right to exceed its capacity – and it
38 See Organisation, Governance and Funding White Paper para 3.17.
39 Regulation 2(3) provides that the governing body must make a copy of the admission policy of the
school available to the Head of Department for certification.
must naturally exercise that power when the occasion demands. Just as it must act
rationally and reasonably when determining its policy so it must act rationally and
reasonably in its application.
[49] Counsel for the respondents contended that because the school was able to
reduce its learner-educator ratio, this imposed an obligation on it to admit the child,
failing which the MEC had the duty to override the school’s refusal to do so. But as I
have said the school has been able to improve its learner-educator ratio in the lower
grades by investing substantial funds for which the parents have themselves paid. I
agree with the appellants’ contention that it is perverse for the department to use this
fact to compel the school to accept more children. Were the department to be correct
that would operate as a disincentive for parents to contribute by way of fees and
fundraising to improve the quality of education of their schools, and would be at odds
with their obligation under s 36(1) to supplement resources supplied by the State,
according to their means.
[50] Once Rivonia Primary School’s governing body lawfully adopted its admission
policy, then subject to what I have said above regarding the HoD’s authority to
intervene where this power is exercised unreasonably, unconstitutionally, or otherwise
unlawfully, it bound the MEC and the HoD. They could not ignore it much less override
it, no matter how well meaning. The HoD was quite entitled to ask the governing body
to exercise the discretion embodied in the policy to exceed its capacity, so as to
accommodate a learner who had not been placed, and the governing body would be
obliged to consider such a request on reasonable and rational grounds. If the
governing body or the principal on its behalf exercised that discretion on an incorrect
basis and refused to admit the child, the Act and the regulations provided a safety
valve. Section 5(9) read with reg 14 allowed an appeal to the MEC for the child who
had been refused permission and reg 13(1)(a) gave the HoD, before the appeal, the
authority to set aside the decision of the principal. But all that ought to have been done
in accordance with the policy. That is not what occurred in this case. On the contrary,
the HoD first issued an unlawful instruction to the principal to admit the child. Then the
officials of the department were told that the governing body would shortly be meeting
to consider the case, but far from awaiting its decision they proceeded to deposit the
child nonetheless.
[51] The high court, as I mentioned earlier, relied on reg 13(1)(a), as the immediate
source of the HoD’s authority to compel the school to enrol the child. But the
regulation gives the HoD no such power; it would be ultra vires if it purported to do so
because it would be contrary to the statute. This much is trite. Regulation 13(1)(a)
simply allows the HoD ‘to confirm or set aside’ a principal’s decision to refuse
admission to a learner. That decision is one made under the school’s admission policy
and the decision to confirm it or set it aside is likewise made under that policy. In any
event, it is clear that on the facts of this case, the HoD did not purport to set aside Ms
Drysdale’s decision.
[52] It would not be out of place to observe that I find the approach of Mr Ngobeni
and the department’s officials in this case most disturbing. There was not one bit of
evidence to suggest that the school has ever refused admission to a child – including
this child who happens to be black – on the grounds of race or has unfairly
discriminated against any child on this basis. Counsel for the respondents quite
properly accepted this much during the hearing. The school’s refusal to admit the
learner in this case had nothing to do with her race or her background. It came about
solely because her application was far down the waiting list. The department’s stated
policy itself expressly requires admission to follow the chronological sequence of
applications and the mother in this case was obliged to stand in line, just as the
parents of the other learners who had submitted late applications had to do. She was
not entitled to preferential treatment, from the school or the department.
[53] But instead of treating this matter as an ordinary dispute relating to the
application of the school’s admission policy the department opprobriously invoked the
ugly spectre of race to obfuscate its unlawful conduct: In his answering affidavit,
Mr Davids stigmatises the school as being in a ‘peculiarly privileged position that can
primarily be linked to the historical disparities in the resourcing of public education
under Apartheid’. It draws a learner enrolment, he continues, that remains
disproportionately ‘white’ when compared to the overall demographic profile of the
province. This theme is pursued in counsel’s heads of argument to make the case that
s 39(2) of the Constitution compels an interpretation that disallows ‘privileged
governing bodies in historically white areas to entrench racially discriminatory
privileges bequeathed by Apartheid’.40 The facts simply do not sustain the suggestion
that that occurred in this case, and an admission policy that did that would be
unlawful.
[54] To conclude, governing bodies are enjoined to determine school policies,
including their capacity, while provincial departments are responsible for the
professional management of schools and administration of admission. These functions
must not be conflated. The determination of capacity must comply with national norms
and standards set by the Minister and must be determined on reasonable and rational
grounds. Just as a governing body may determine the school’s capacity, so too does it
have a discretion to exceed that capacity if the circumstances require, and that
discretion must also be exercised on rational and reasonable grounds. But it is not
open to the HoD summarily to override that authority as occurred in this case.
[55] I mentioned earlier that Ms Drysdale was sanctioned for failing to comply with
the HoD’s unlawful instruction. Although the sanctions imposed on Ms Drysdale are
not before us, I am confident that the department is sufficiently gracious to withdraw
these sanctions in the light of this judgment.
[56] In the high court the parties had agreed that no costs order would be made. In
the result the appeal is upheld with costs, such costs to be paid by the first, second
and third respondents. The order of the high court is, save for paras 6 and 7 thereof,
set aside and the following order substituted in its place:
‘It is declared that the instruction given to the principal of the Rivonia Primary School
to admit the learner contrary to the school’s admission policy, and the placing of the
learner in the school, were unlawful.’
_________________
A CACHALIA
JUDGE OF APPEAL
40 The Heads of Argument were drawn by Mr Berger’s predecessor, who was not available to argue the
matter.
APPEARANCES
For first and second Appellants:
G C Pretorius SC (with him A Kemack SC)
Instructed by:
Shepstone & Wylie, Johannesburg
Webbers, Bloemfontein
For first, second and third Respondents:
D I Berger SC (with him Ms N Mji)
Instructed by:
The State Attorney, Johannesburg
The State Attorney, Bloemfontein
Further Interested Parties:
S Budlender (with him J Brickhill)
Instructed by:
Mdlulwa Nkhuhlu Inc, Johannesburg
Centre for Child Law, Pretoria
Legal Resources Centre, Johannesburg | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
30 November 2012
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
THE GOVERNING BODY OF THE RIVONIA PRIMARY SCHOOL & ANOTHER
v
MEC FOR EDUCATION: GAUTENG PROVINCE & OTHERS
The Supreme Court of Appeal today held unanimously that the governing body of a
public school – not the provincial education authorities – has the authority to
determine the number of children that a school may admit as an incident of its
admission policy. And further that a provincial government has no authority to
override the school’s policy. The SCA therefore upheld an appeal by the School
Governing Body of the Rivonia Primary School against a judgment of the South
Gauteng High Court judgment on 7 December 2011 that came to the contrary
conclusion. The SCA ordered the Gauteng MEC for Education, the Head of the
Gauteng Education Department (HoD) and the District Director of Johannesburg
East, the respondents, to pay the costs of the appeal.
The dispute arose after the school principal, Ms Carol Drysdale, had refused to
admit a child to Grade 1 because the school had reached its capacity, which the
governing body had set in its admission policy.
The learner’s mother had submitted a late application and was placed on a waiting
list along with other late applications. She was placed at number 14 on the waiting
list. The child’s mother was aggrieved at the decision and exerted pressure on the
officials of the department to admit her child. The head of the Gauteng Education
department, Mr Boy Ngobeni, instructed Ms Drysdale to admit the child early in
February 2011 after the school year was already well underway. A few days later
the child was brought to the school by her mother and accompanied by officials
from the department. They asked Ms Drysdale and the chairman of the governing
body, Mr Paul Lategan, to admit the child. Ms Drysdale and Mr Lategan asked for
time so that they could meet with the governing body urgently to resolve the
dispute. The officials, however, insisted that the school admit the child immediately.
They produced a letter from Mr Ngobeni withdrawing Ms Drysdale’s responsibility
to admit learners. And then proceeded to the Grade 1 classrooms where they
deposited the child in one of them.
The main issue in the appeal was whether the South African Schools Act 84 of
1996 gave the primary responsibility for determining the school’s capacity, as part
of its admission policy, to the governing body or the provincial government. Put
another way it had to decide whether the provincial government had the authority
to override a school admission policy that had been adopted lawfully.
The SCA said that the provincial government had made much of the fact that the
school was located in an affluent, historically white suburb and had benefitted from
Apartheid. This was done to justify the argument that the MEC and the HoD ought
to have the power to override the policy to ensure that schools in historically white
areas do not entrench racially discriminatory privileges bequeathed by Apartheid.
But the facts showed that these assertions were not relevant to deciding the issue
of whether the Schools Act gave the provincial authorities the power to override the
admission policy of the governing body. The SCA held that on a plain reading of
the relevant provisions of the Schools Act, no such power existed. It said further
that the provincial government could not insist that the child was admitted contrary
to the policy of the school governing body and ahead of other children on the
waiting list.
The SCA also said that the HoD’s decision to withdraw Ms Drysdale’s admission
function was unlawful, and that it was confident that the sanction which had been
imposed on her recently arising from a disciplinary hearing would be reviewed in
the light of this judgment. |
180 | non-electoral | 2017 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 204/2017
In the matter between:
G S VAN DER WESTHUIZEN
APPELLANT
W J BURGER
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Van der Westhuizen v Burger (204/2017) [2017] ZASCA 178 (1
December 2017)
Coram:
Ponnan, Majiedt and Swain JJA and Mokgohloa and Mbatha
AJJA
Heard:
17 November 2017
Delivered:
1 December 2017
Summary: Actio de ferris – defence of provocation – ostrich provoked – owner not
liable.
ORDER
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Pretoria (Olivier AJ sitting as
court of first instance):
1 The appeal is upheld with costs.
2 The order of the court a quo is set aside and replaced with the following order:
„The claim is dismissed with costs.‟
JUDGMENT
Swain JA (Ponnan and Majiedt JJA and Mokgohloa and Mbatha AJJA
concurring):
[1] An ostrich owned by the appellant, Mr Gerhard van der Westhuizen, which
chased the respondent, Mr Willem Burger, gave rise to an action instituted by the
respondent as plaintiff, against the appellant as defendant, in the Gauteng Division
of the high court (Pretoria). The respondent alleged that in an attempt to escape from
the ostrich he tripped over a piece of wood, tore his Achilles tendon and as a result
suffered damages in the amount of R6 750 000.
[2] By agreement between the parties, the court a quo (Olivier AJ), ordered that
the merits of the claim be separated from the quantum of damages, in terms of rule
33(4) of the Uniform Rules of Court. After hearing evidence, the court a quo found
that the appellant was liable to pay to the respondent such damages as he was able
to prove in due course, together with the costs of the action. The appeal is with the
leave of the court a quo.
[3] The cause of action pleaded by the respondent was the actio de ferris in
terms of which the bringing of wild or dangerous animals on or into a public place, or
a place to which members of the public have access, was prohibited. The cause of
action is based upon ownership and strict liability is imposed upon the owner of the
animal, for the consequences of the animal‟s behavior. The victim is accordingly
absolved from alleging and proving negligence on the part of the owner, which is
presumed.
[4] The respondent alleged that the incident occurred on a farm owned by the
appellant and that the appellant had „introduced certain wild ostriches which do not
naturally occur‟ onto the farm, alternatively, the appellant „tamed and domesticated
an ostrich who roamed close to the dwelling on the farm, which in attacking the
plaintiff. . . acted contrary to animals of its class‟.
[5] Save for admitting ownership of the farm and that „undomesticated ostriches
inhabit the farm‟, which amounted to an admission that the ostriches on the farm
were wild, the appellant denied the remaining averments. On the evidence, however,
it was common cause that the appellant had invited the respondent to his farm,
where the respondent was chased by an ostrich owned and introduced onto the
farm, by the appellant.
[6] Only two of the defences raised by the appellant require consideration for
the determination of the appeal. First, the appellant raised the defence of
provocation,
alleging
that
the
respondent
„provoked
and
harassed
the
ostrich/ostriches on numerous occasions prior to the alleged incident‟. Second, the
appellant denied that in an attempt to escape from the ostrich, the respondent ran
towards the dwelling on the farm and in doing so, tripped over a piece of wood and
tore his Achilles tendon. The respondent therefore had to prove that the behaviour of
the ostrich was the cause of his injury.
[7] The court a quo dismissed the defence of provocation on the ground that:
„. . . only if the provocation was the immediate catalyst for the resulting injury, would it qualify
as a defence. In my opinion there was no immediate provocation.‟
It also held that causation had been proved because, the „injury would not have
occurred had it not been for the plaintiff escaping the ostrich‟s attack in the first
place‟.
[8] In order to decide whether the court a quo was correct in dismissing these
defences, the evidence of the manner in which the respondent teased the ostrich on
previous occasions, as well as the conduct of the respondent immediately prior to
being chased by the ostrich, must be examined.
[9] Mr Andre de Lange and Mr Martinus Steyn described how the respondent
had teased a male ostrich on the appellant's farm on several occasions. The
respondent would entice the ostrich to approach him with mielie pips in his hand.
Whilst the ostrich was busy eating out of his hand he would grab it by the neck and
push its head down. The ostrich would then, according to these witnesses, flap its
wings and perform comical „dance steps‟ and when the respondent released its
head, the ostrich would stagger backwards, much to the amusement of those
watching. Mr Pieter Kotze described an incident where the respondent said that he
had worked with ostriches and knew how to catch an ostrich. He took a hat from one
of the bystanders, placed it on the head of the ostrich, grabbed it by the neck and
said this was how it was done.
[10] Mr Hendrik Gerber gave evidence of a conversation with the respondent
concerning the respondent‟s painful foot, which he had injured in the incident. The
respondent described in terms identical to that of the appellant‟s witnesses, how he
had teased the ostrich. He admitted it was his fault that the ostrich chased him. The
appellant, when giving evidence, added that he had asked the respondent on
numerous occasions to leave the ostrich alone, because he made it angry.
[11] The respondent, however, denied ever grabbing the ostrich by its neck or
feeding it from his hand. He maintained he only threw food on the ground for the
ostrich, because he was scared of it. He acknowledged he had owned ostriches, but
emphasised he was very scared of them and gave them away. His evidence that he
was scared of ostriches, is, however, inconsistent with his description of what he
maintained had occurred when he arrived on the farm with the appellant, the night
before the incident. He said he saw a male ostrich near the house flapping its wings
and snapping its beak. Its beak and knees were red and he realised from his
experience with ostriches that it was very angry and dangerous. The ostrich walked
towards them so he quickly grabbed the ostrich by its head and pushed it down.
After the appellant had gone to the door of the house, he quickly released the ostrich
and ran behind a swing to shield himself from the ostrich. He explained this was how
an angry ostrich had to be handled. The appellant, however, denied the incident
saying it was dark when they arrived on the farm and ostriches do not walk around in
the dark.
[12] When it was put to the respondent that witnesses would give evidence that
they had seen him teasing the ostrich, he queried what ostrich they were talking
about. He maintained that the ostrich that injured him was not yet on the appellant's
farm at the time of the incident. In similar vein, the only substantive challenge by
respondent's counsel to the evidence that the respondent had teased the ostrich,
was to put the proposition to the appellant‟s witnesses, that they were unable to
distinguish between the male ostriches on the farm. They were accordingly unable to
say that the ostrich which the respondent had allegedly teased, was the ostrich
which chased him.
[13] This proposition was, however, inconsistent with the respondent‟s pleaded
cause of action. It was alleged that the appellant, „tamed and domesticated an
ostrich who roamed close to the dwelling on the farm, which in attacking the
plaintiff. . . acted contrary to animals of its class‟. In other words, the male ostrich
which roamed close to the house and was tame, had attacked him. When giving
evidence, he conceded that this ostrich was familiar with people and moved around
the camp. In my view, when due regard is had to the respondent's own evidence as
to how he dealt with the ostrich when it was aggressive, the evidence of the
appellant's witnesses, established on a balance of probabilities that the respondent
had previously teased this ostrich which came near the house on a regular basis,
and that this was the ostrich that chased him.
[14] It is against this background that the evidence of the respondent as to how
the incident occurred, as well as the evidence of Mr Pieter Kotze who witnessed it,
must be examined. The respondent said he was assisting the appellant to load blue
wildebeest into a trailer when he suddenly noticed the ostrich standing on the other
side of the bakkie. At this stage he was standing near the back of the trailer and the
ostrich walked towards the front of the bakkie. The ostrich was watching him whilst it
approached and when asked to describe its demeanour he said that „. . . hy het net
gewoonweg geloop‟. However, in cross-examination he maintained that the ostrich
was snapping its beak, and was in a dangerous mood. It was not flapping its wings,
but was warning him. He then moved to the front of the bakkie to scare it away, but
was unsuccessful and it continued approaching him. He then ran for the door of the
house because the ostrich was close to him. Near to the door of the house was a
slight incline where he slipped and fell. Whilst lying on his stomach he saw the
ostrich nearby watching him and it took two steps. He then jumped up, started
running and accidentally stepped on a small wooden paling situated between the
plants at the door, which caused the injury to his Achilles tendon.
[15] The respondent denied that anybody was present when the ostrich chased
him or that Mr Kotze was in the vicinity. He was emphatic that he was alone and
maintained that Mr Kotze could not have been there. It was put to him that Mr Kotze
would testify that the ostrich was there all the time, eating out of a food trough
between the bakkie and the house, which he denied. It was then put to him that Mr
Kotze would state that the respondent walked from the bakkie towards the house,
which meant that he had to walk past the ostrich. He then saw the respondent bend
down and pick up something which he threw at the ostrich. The respondent then
admitted that he had thrown a small stone towards the ostrich.
[16] Mr Kotze gave evidence that he was in the camp, sitting by the fire, drinking
coffee and waiting for the farm workers to arrive. He saw the respondent walking
from the bakkie towards the house, whilst the ostrich was feeding at the trough.
When the respondent saw the ostrich he threw something at it and the ostrich then
chased him. The respondent ran towards the front door of the house and fell. When
he stood up he looked around, saw the ostrich looking at him and quickly ran into the
house. The ostrich did not peck or kick the respondent and he was not aware that
the respondent had been injured.
[17] There are two important aspects in the evidence of the respondent which
illustrate the improbability of his version of the incident. When giving evidence in
chief he stated that the ostrich was behaving normally, whereas in cross-examination
he described its behaviour as dangerous, adding that it was snapping its beak. More
importantly he failed to disclose he had thrown a stone at the ostrich, and it was only
after he was confronted with the evidence of Mr Kotze, that he admitted this. His
denial that anybody else was present, is also refuted by this evidence.
[18] The inherent improbability of the respondent‟s version of the incident is
revealed when the evidence that he teased the ostrich on numerous occasions, is
considered. Obviously, this evidence cannot be used to infer that the ostrich
harboured a grievance against the respondent. This would constitute the
impermissible attribution of human emotions to the ostrich, whereas its significance
lies in revealing the attitude of the respondent to the ostrich. He was not fearful of the
ostrich and had mercilessly teased it. On his evidence when it had approached the
previous night in a far more aggressive manner, he confidently dealt with it, repulsing
any threatened attack. It is therefore improbable that having initially described the
behaviour of the ostrich as normal, he would be frightened simply because it looked
at and walked towards him. Seen in this context it is probable that the respondent
admitted to Mr Gerber, that it was his fault that the ostrich chased him. The court a
quo accordingly erred in rejecting the evidence of Mr Gerber on the basis that it „. . .
was sketchy and lacking in convincing detail‟.
[19] The appellant accordingly discharged the onus of proving on a balance of
probabilities that the respondent‟s conduct in throwing a stone at the ostrich,
provoked its behaviour in chasing him. The court a quo therefore erred in dismissing
the defence of provocation on the basis that there was no immediate provocation of
the ostrich by the respondent. In dealing with this defence, the court a quo, however,
noted that although provocation was not listed as a specific defence to strict liability
arising from the attack of a wild animal in the case law, it was a defence to the actio
de pauperie, and it would therefore be considered for the sake of completeness.
[20] In Bristow v Lycett 1971 (4) SA 223 (RA) at 234, the defences to a claim for
damage caused by a wild animal were said to include where „the plaintiff's
contributory negligence contributed to his injury‟. Provocation of the wild animal by
the plaintiff was not expressly included as a defence. However, there can be no
basis in principle or logic to recognise as a defence the case where the negligent
conduct of the victim contributed to his or her injury, but not where the victim‟s
intentional conduct provoked the attack. The defence was recognised in Klem v
Boshoff 1931 CPD 188 and Hanger v Regal & another [2014] ZAFSHC 236; 2015 (3)
SA 115 (FB) para 5.
[21] This conclusion renders it unnecessary to examine the issue of causation.
This is because the appellant cannot be liable for an injury sustained by the
respondent in attempting to escape from the ostrich, where the respondent provoked
the chase. I will do so, however, for the sake of completeness. The evidence of the
respondent and Mr Kotze was that after the respondent had fallen and was at the
mercy of the ostrich, it did not attack him. They both described how the ostrich stood
looking at him whilst he was lying on the ground and when he stood up to run into
the house. The ostrich therefore did not display any aggressive behaviour towards
the respondent after he had fallen, and his injury was not caused by the pursuit. I
accordingly disagree with the conclusion of the court a quo that „. . . it was one
continuous event; the fall did not interrupt the flight, and the resulting injury would not
have occurred had it not been for the plaintiff escaping the ostrich‟s attack in the first
place‟.
[22] In the result the following order is made:
1 The appeal is upheld with costs.
2 The order of the court a quo is set aside and replaced with the following order:
„The claim is dismissed with costs.‟
K G B Swain
Judge of Appeal
Ponnan JA
[23] I have had the benefit of reading the judgment of Swain JA. I agree with his
conclusion that the appeal must succeed with costs. It has been said that there „can
be few branches of the law which are more complex and confusing than the liability
for damages caused by animals‟. 1 I am thus rather more trepidatious as to the
reasons for my concurrence in the outcome of the appeal.
[24] The complexity centres largely around the liability for pauperies, meaning
damage „done without legal wrong on the part of the doer‟.2 As long ago as 1930, De
Villiers CJ observed in South African Railways & Harbours v Edwards3 „that South
African decisions had not been harmonious, which is not to be wondered at seeing
that hardly two commentators agree on the interpretation to be placed upon the
law‟.4 The Chief Justice, was there referring to the actio de pauperie, which had been
1 Bristow v Lycett 1971 (4) SA 223 (RAD) at 227A.
2 Bristow at 227B.
3 South African Railways & Harbours v Edwards 1930 AD 3 at 9.
4 Ibid.
carefully considered some three years earlier in O’Callaghan NO v Chaplin.5 He
thought it useful to lay down the relevant principles in relation to that remedy, which
he summarised thus:
„(1) The actio de pauperie is in full force in South Africa. But the right to surrender the
offending animal in lieu of paying damages --- noxae deditio --- is obsolete with us. (2) The
action is based upon ownership. The English doctrine of scienter is ‟not a portion of our law.
(3) The action lies against the owner in respect of harm (paeperies) done by domesticated
animals, such for instance as horses, mules, cattle, dogs, acting from inward excitement
(sponte feritate commota) if the animal does damage from inward excitement or, as it is also
called, from vice, it is said to act contra naturam sui generis; its behaviour is not considered
such as is usual with a well-behaved animal of the kind. (4) On the other hand, if the act was
not due to vice on the part of the animal but was provoked-in other words if there has been
concitatio, the action does not lie. (5) Dating back as this form of remedy does to the most
primitive times, the idea underlying the actio de pauperie, an idea which is still at the root of
the action, was to render the owner liable only in cases where so to speak the fault lay with
the animal. In other words for the owner to be liable, there must be something equivalent to
culpa in the conduct of the animal. (6) Hence if the fault lies with the injured person himself
he cannot recover, as he would have only himself to blame. If for instance he has provoked
the animal, or has acted in such a way that the outburst could reasonably have been
foreseen. (7) But stroking or petting a horse is not considered to be provocation (concitatio).
If a horse kicks when petted, its behaviour is due to vice. The fault lies with the horse, not
with the man who petted it, unless he had reason to know that the horse might kick. The
learned Judge in the present case is of opinion that if the attentions of a person who stroked
or petted a mule were met with a kick, such person would only have himself to blame for
doing such a foolish thing. The kick, in the case of a mule, could have been foreseen. (8)
Alfenus gives the following instance. A groom was leading a horse into a stable. The horse
sniffed at a mare which thereupon kicked the groom on the leg. The jurist holds that the
action lies against the owner of the mare. In other words the incitement did not justify the
mare in kicking. This case has been much debated. But whether Alfenus was right or wrong,
5 O’Callaghan NO v Chaplin 1927 AD 310.
in his view the solicitations of the horse were not considered to excuse the behaviour of the
mare. She was said to have acted from innate perverseness. (9) The action does not lie if
the animal was provoked by a third party, if for instance the animal was struck by a goad and
kicks out. (10) Nor does the action lie if the injury was due to pure accident (casus); here
nobody is considered to blame . . .‟6
[25] The actio de pauperie is available against the owner of a domestic animal
that has caused damage. Liability is based purely on ownership of the animal. Some
academic writers have argued against the notion of liability based purely on
ownership and advocated for a shift to the risk principle.7 In terms of the risk principle
a person who keeps or controls an animal in his own interest is liable without fault
because he creates an increased risk of harm.8 In Loriza Brahman v Dippenaar,9 this
court refused to declare the remedy obsolete, holding that the action de pauperie still
served its purpose and that it was neither contra bonos mores, nor unconstitutional.
Since the action is based on the principle that the owner of a domestic animal is
liable for damage only when it caused damage whilst acting contra naturam sui
generis, the remedy is traditionally restricted to domestic animals. The contra
naturam requirement requires some kind of attack or unpredictable action from the
animal, actions that are to be expected as part of the animals‟ natural behaviour do
not qualify.10
6 South African Railways supra fn 3 at 9-10.
7 According to J Neethling et al Law of Delict 5ed (2006) at 330, the risk or danger theory means that
„where a person‟s activities create a considerable increase in the risk or danger of causing damage,
that is, an increased potential for harm, there is sufficient for holding him liable for damage even in the
absence of fault. Whether an increase in risk is “considerable” enough in a specific case, is difficult to
ascertain. For this reason the danger theory has been subject to much criticism‟.
8 Neethling supra fn 7 para 2.1.1.4.
9 Loriza Brahman en 'n ander v Dippenaar 2002 (2) SA 477 (SCA).
10 A J Van der Walt, The Law of Neighbours Dangers and threats posed by neighbours 1st ed (2010),
Chapter 7 at 333.
[26] According to Le Roux and others v Fick11 „[i]n the course of time the action
de pauperie was extended by means of the actio utilis to all animals, and for a long
time it appears to have been the only law applicable to cases of damage from
animals. When a wild animal inflicted damage there appears to have been no other
remedy till the lex Aquilia and the edict [the edictum de feris] were promulgated. .. .
The result . . . seems to have been that an actio de pauperie lay in all cases of
damage caused by animals when the damage was brought about through the fault of
the party using the animal or of some third party. The owner could free himself from
all pecuniary liability by delivering the animal where there had been no fault on his
part, and when the damage done was contrary to the natural disposition of the
animal. If a man allowed his dog or wild animal to be in a public place he was liable
to be sued for a penalty equal to double the amount of damage he might cause, and
also to have an action de pauperi brought against him. If damage was caused by a
wild animal in any other than a public place, the owner could apparently free himself
from liability upon abandoning the animal, and would incur no further liability unless
he had been in fault, as in not having fastened the animal up properly.‟
[27] The edictum de feris has its genesis in Republican Rome, when many
individuals kept wild animals.12 On account of the risk posed by these animals, the
edict was enacted, which prohibited the bringing of wild or dangerous animals on or
into a public place.13 According to Ashton-Cross, to admit of an action under the
edict, „the animal must have been owned at the time it caused the damage; must
itself have been either on a place of public passage or near enough to injure a
person or property in such passage; and the damage must have been done qua
11 Le Roux & others v Fick (1879) 9 Buch 29 at 36.
12 Lawsa 3ed para 424.
13 Neethling supra fn 7 at 334 para 2.1.1.3.
vulgo iter fit, on the public way‟.14 The language of the edict is wide, and includes any
animal of a vicious propensity calculated to do harm.15 The mere breach of the edict
rendered the owner responsible. Negligence was presumed; the rationale being that
the owner of an animal, who allowed it to stray onto a public street contrary to the
principle of the edict, was considered to be guilty of negligence. 16 The actio de
pauperie and that under that edict were concurrent remedies.17 Liability in these
actions resulted from the ownership of the animal, apart from any dolus or culpa on
the part of the owner. Thus both in the Roman Law and that of Holland, the
responsibility for damage done by one‟s animal is founded on ownership and not on
negligence.18
[28] It will entirely depend on the circumstances of each particular instance,
whether an action de pauperie or one under the edict is the suitable remedy.19 The
distinction in principle between these two remedies have not always been kept in
mind. In O’Callahan’s case Kotze JA stated that the „action de pauperie will be
available against the owner of a dog biting an innocent person, that is a person who
was lawfully at the place where he was bitten, is beyond doubt, both in the law of
Holland and of South Africa.‟20 Although Innes CJ said that he would guard against
being taken to imply that the edict is not part of our law, one finds no positive
statement in respect of the actio de feris in the course of the judgment.21 Uncertainty
has accordingly been expressed as to whether the actio de feris is still recognised in
14DIC Ashton-Cross Liability in Roman Law for damage caused by animals (1951-1953) Cambridge
Law Journal II at 396-397.
15 O’Callaghan supra fn 5 at 346.
16 Ibid at 368.
17 Ibid at 340.
18 Ibid supra fn 5 at 344.
19 Ibid supra fn 5 at 366.
20 Ibid at 366-367.
21 At 330.
modern South African law.22 Barry Nicholas describes the provision in the Edict as
„ostensibly a police regulation forbidding the keeping of certain animals in certain
places and imposing liability for the consequences of any breach of the regulation‟.23
In that regard, Wessels JA made the point in O’Callaghan that: „[i]n fact we know
very little indeed about this Edict and we have no idea exactly what the conditions
were in Rome when the Edict was proclaimed nor the mischief which was aimed at.
It seems likely that the Edict was intended as a general provision against bringing
any ferocious animal on to the market place or in places where people were in the
habit of walking and that the words dog, boar, lion were only added by way of
explanation to point out the kind of animals that were not to be brought there.‟24
[29] In Parker v Reed,25 De Villiers CJ said:
„The presumption is that the law relating to pauperies is still in force, but this presumption
cannot prevail in the absence of any recognition, judicial or otherwise, of the existence of
such a law, and in the face of repeated decisions which require proof of some degree of
culpa in order to attach liability to the ownership, custody or use of property.‟
It is true that Parker’s case has been overruled. But, as Beadle CJ observed in
Bristow v Lycett, 26 „this passage from the “Old Chief‟s” judgment seems sound
enough‟.
22 See Visser (2006) 697 THRHR 304 – 306, who cites several South African academics who express
uncertainty with regard to the existence of the edictum de feris in modern South African law. See also
J C Van der Walt & J R Midgley Principles of Delict 4ed (2016) at 49 par 34; Neethling supra fn 7 para
2.1.1.3. See also Hanger v Regal & another [2015] ZAFSHC 63; 2015 (3) SA 115 at 334.
23 Nicholas „Liability for Animals in Roman Law‟ 1958 Acta Juridica at 185.
24 O’Callaghan supra fn 5 at 371.
25 Parker v Reed 21 SC 496.
26 Bristow supra fn 1 at 230A.
[30] The „judicial recognition‟, such as it is, seems to have come from the then
Rhodesian Appellate Division. In Bristow v Lycett, Beadle CJ framed the rule in the
following terms (at 234-5):
„1. In the case of damage by a wild animal kept in captivity negligence on the part of the
owner is presumed, and it is unnecessary for the plaintiff to plead or prove it.
2. The defendant can, however, escape liability by proving either –
(a) the plaintiff was a trespasser or the plaintiff‟s contributory negligence
contributed to his injury; or
(b) the damage was caused by the unlawful act of a third party or the third party‟s
animal; or
(c) The damage was caused by casus fortuitus or vis major.
3.The above principles are not affected by the fact that the wild animal concerned may have
been reduced to a state of semi-domesticity or that it did not act with any ferocious intent.‟
[31] Beadle CJ observed (at 232G-233B):
„I have stressed the history of the disappearance of the actio utilis de pauperie at some
length
because
its
disappearance
helps
to
determine
the
precise
liability
for pauperies committed by a wild animal under the lex Aquilia as we know it today. This
liability is, as I have attempted to show, coincident with that under the old actio utilis de
pauperie. The history of the disappearance of the actio utilis de pauperie is therefore more
than a matter of antiquarian interest because, by understanding the ambit of this old action
and the reasons for its disappearance, it is possible to arrive at a reasonably precise
definition of the liability of an owner for damage done by his wild animal under the modern
law. For how long the actio utilis under the lex Aquilia has existed in its present form, and
precisely when the actio utilis de pauperie became a legal antiquity is, however, now purely
a matter of antiquarian interest. If, however, I am wrong in assuming that the actio utilis de
pauperie has been absorbed by the actio utilis under the lex Aquilia, then the actio utilis de
pauperie must still survive today, as there is no ground for holding that the legal principles
which it enforced have become obsolete. Whether the action under the lex Aquilia now
provides the same remedy as that formerly provided by the actio utilis de pauperie, or
whether the two actions still exist side by side, is really only a matter of academic interest,
because in either event the liability of an owner for pauperies committed by his wild animal
will be the same, and, as I will show later, as a matter of procedure, provided the relevant
facts are pleaded, it is unnecessary to plead whether the case is brought under one action or
the other.‟
[32] The judgment of Beadle CJ has not escaped criticism (see Carey Miller 1972
SALJ 176).27 Miller, who criticises the judgment both for certain historical limitations
and theoretical shortcomings, suggests that the learned Chief Justice erred in the
formulation of the rule. 28 To be fair to Beadle CJ, he did acknowledge that little is
said in the books about pauperies committed by a wild animal. Most modern day
writers, so observed the Chief Justice, have little to say on this subject, confining
themselves to the injured party‟s remedy to the actio utilis under the lex Aquilia. He
observed that he could find no reported case in South Africa in which the actio utilis
de pauperie was invoked when the owner of a wild animal was sued
for pauperies committed by his wild animal. The case nearest in point, so he said,
was the case of Le Roux and Others v Fick. In that case a dog, apparently
acting secundum naturam sui generis, killed an ostrich in a public street. It was held
that there was no culpa on the part of the owner, but that he was liable for
the pauperies committed by his dog under the old Aedilitian action, which made the
owner of a fierce dog or wild animal liable for pauperies committed by that animal in
any public place. Accordingly, so held Beadle CJ, „[t]he old Aedilitian action must
therefore be considered as having been imported into the Cape and . . . it would
seem, therefore, that the Aedilitian action is still part of our law‟. He added: „[i]f an old
Roman action which made the owner of a wild animal liable qua owner for that
27 D L Carey Miller Damage by Wild Animals – Choice of Touchstone (1972) 175 SALJ at 176.
28 See also Nicholas supra fn 23 at 185 and Ashton Cross supra fn 14 at 396-397.
animal‟s pauperies committed in a public place is still part of our law, it can be
argued with some force that logically a similar old action which made him
liable qua owner for pauperies committed by his animal in other places should also
be still in force.‟ Van der Merwe observes that aside from Le Roux v Fick there is no
other decision directly on the point.29
[33] It may be, as Miller notes, that it is probably not a matter of great practical
importance to discover the true basis of the Roman-Dutch law rule. But, he does
rightly opine „conceivably, it could be argued that if the basis is solely Aedilitian then
the remedy, with the edict, has fallen into desuetude‟. Indeed, support for his view is
to be found in the judgment of Wessels JA in O’Callaghan, who expressed very
grave doubt as to whether „this police regulation of the Romans‟, „can be said to
have force under our present conditions‟.30 He added: „[t]he whole liability is based
on the transgression of a public measure.‟ Those observations are undoubtedly
cogent.
[34] It has been suggested that the edict could be replaced by the Aquilian action
as supplemented by the actio de pauperie in the case of damage by ferocious
dogs.31 But, this view, so it has been asserted, „overlooks the fact that the edictum
de feris lies for a breach of the edict and that consequently the defences of
contributory negligence, provocation, negligence of a third party or vis maior will not
apply once the animal has been taken to the public place by the defendant‟. Here,
as well, there appears to be no consensus by our academics. The defence that the
plaintiff was unlawfully on the premises has however been mentioned by the courts
29 C/f Visser supra fn 22 at 304.
30 O'Callaghan at 377. Innes CJ did describe the edict as something more than a mere municipal
bye-law.
31 Lawsa 3ed para 308.
and it has been suggested that the other defences to the action de pauperie should
also be regarded as applicable to the edict.‟
[35] In concluding this part of the judgment, I must say that it would probably
require someone with a more profound knowledge of this area of the law to
pronounce on the possible obsolescence of the remedy. Importantly, Innes CJ did
remind us though (O’Callaghan at 327) that „[i]t is the duty of a Court – especially of
an appellate tribunal – so as to administer a living system of law as to ensure –
without the sacrifice of fundamental principles – that it shall adapt itself to the
changing conditions of the time. And it may be necessary sometimes to modify, or
even discard doctrines which have become outworn‟. On my reading, everything
appears to point to an action based on the edict being unsuited to modern
conditions. Happily though, for present purposes it is unnecessary for me to resolve
this problem. Miller wonders whether the time has not come for a comprehensive
modern statute to replace „the rules which are largely historical in origin and
sometimes difficult to apply‟. There is much to recommend such a course, which he
suggests, has been followed in England.
[36] Against that backdrop, I turn to the present appeal. As was repeatedly
pointed out by Innes CJ in his judgment in the O'Callaghan's case, the owner of an
animal is not liable to another when that other person is himself the cause of his
injury. The learned Chief Justice referred to Storey v Stanner 1 HCG 40, where
Laurence J is reported to have said: „[b]y the ancient and modern civil law, and by
the present law of this Colony, the owner of a dog, or other dangerous animal, is
responsible for injuries or pauperies committed by that animal . . . provided there is
no negligence or improvidence on the part of the person injured, or other impropriety
of conduct on his part which directly caused or mainly contributed to cause the
injury‟.32 The Chief Justice added (at 329): „I also agree with Laurence J, in thinking
that there must have been no ‟substantial negligence or imprudence” on the part of
the person injured --- by which I understand no unreasonable conduct contributing to
the injury. The basis of that limitation of the owner's liability is to be found in
the Digest. If the injury were due to provocation by the injured person no
compensation could be claimed de pauperie. . . . So that there is direct authority for
the application in pauperien actions of the fundamental principle that no man can
recover damages for an injury for which he has himself to thank.‟33
[37] As more fully set out in the judgment of my colleague Swain JA, when the
respondent first saw the ostrich that morning it was ambling along, minding its own
business. In its direct path to him lay the bakkie and trailer. For reasons that remain
unexplained, he moved from the relative safety of that position to the front of the
bakkie. In so doing he also brought himself closer to the ostrich. Nor, was the
respondent able to explain why he did not simply climb onto the trailer or seek refuge
within the confines of the bakkie, thereby removing himself from what he then
subjectively perceived to have been harm‟s way. What is more, he then armed
himself with and threw an object at the ostrich. Until that point, there was nothing in
the conduct of the ostrich that, objectively viewed, constituted a danger to him. Only
then, did the ostrich direct its attention to the respondent. That, it would seem,
prompted him to run toward the house. Even when he lost his footing and fell on the
first occasion, he was still not attacked by the ostrich. Instead, it stopped and looked
at him. The respondent then picked himself up and once again attempted to make
his way into the house. That is when he stepped awkwardly and snapped his
Achilles tendon. Even then, he was still not attacked by the ostrich, which eventually
turned and simply walked away. Thus, even on an acceptance that the actio de feris
32 O'Callaghan supra fn 5 at 326.
33 Harmse v Hoffman 1928 TPD 572 at 574-575.
availed him, the respondent, to borrow from Innes CJ has himself to thank for his
injury. It follows that that the appeal must succeed as his claim ought to have been
dismissed with costs by the trial court.
V M Ponnan
Judge of Appeal
Appearances:
For the Appellant:
T Potgieter SC (with J L Mÿburgh)
Instructed by:
Prinsloo Bekker Inc., Pretoria
Symington & De Kok Attorneys,
Bloemfontein
For the Respondent:
T P Kruger SC
Instructed by:
Marais Basson Attorneys, Pretoria
Albert Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
1 December 2017
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does not form
part of the judgment.
G S Van der Westhuizen v W J Burger (204/2017) [2017] ZASCA 178 (1
December 2017)
Media Statement
The SCA today upheld an appeal against an order granted by the Gauteng Division
of the High Court (Pretoria) declaring that the appellant was liable to pay to the
respondent, such damages as the respondent was able to prove, as a result of an
injury the respondent sustained, after being chased by an ostrich owned by the
appellant. It found that the court had erred in concluding that there was no immediate
provocation of the ostrich by the respondent and held that the appellant had
discharged the onus of proving on a balance of probabilities, that the respondent's
conduct in throwing a stone at the ostrich, provoked its behaviour in chasing him. It
was held that provocation of a wild animal by the victim of an attack, was a defence
to the imposition of strict liability on the owner of the wild animal.
--- Ends --- |
1420 | non-electoral | 2010 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 647/09
In the matter between:
THE COMMISSIONER FOR THE SOUTH AFRICAN
REVENUE SERVICE
Appellant
and
PLASMAVIEW TECHNOLOGIES (PTY) LTD
Respondent
Neutral citation:
CSARS v Plasmaview Technologies (Pty) Ltd (647/09) [2010]
ZASCA 135 (1 October 2010)
Coram:
Mpati P, Cloete, Lewis and Tshiqi JJA and Bertelsmann AJA
Heard:
2 SEPTEMBER 2010
Delivered:
1 OCTOBER 2010
Summary:
Customs and excise – tariff determination – complete television sets –
whether importer may claim rebate.
______________________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: North Gauteng High Court (Pretoria) (Prinsloo J sitting as court of
first instance).
1.
The appeal is allowed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
2.
The order of the court below is set aside and replaced with the following:
'The appplication is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.'
________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
BERTELSMANN AJA (Mpati P, Cloete, Lewis and Tshiqi JJA concurring)
[1] The appellant is the Commissioner for the South African Revenue Service,
appointed in terms of the South African Revenue Service Act 34 of 1997. He is
responsible for inter alia the administration of the Customs and Excise Act 91 of
1964. The respondent is Plasmaview Technologies (Pty) Ltd (Plasmaview) a
company.
[2] The Commissioner appeals against a judgment and order of the court below
(Prinsloo J North Gauteng High Court Pretoria) which reviewed and set aside what
was said to be a determination, dated 27 July 2006, allegedly made by him in the
exercise of the powers conferred upon him by the Act.
[3] Plasmaview had imported fully assembled televisions sets with plasma or
liquid crystal display (LCD) screens from Korea during 2006. These sets were
declared under tariff heading 8528.21.20 which allowed a full rebate under rebate
item 460.16.
[4] Plasmaview relied on a tariff determination dated 20 December 2005 as
justification for declaring the television sets in the above manner. The tariff
determination was made at a stage when it imported the screens and TV tuners
separately. This determination was referred to as 'Plasma 1' in the court below and
this nomenclature will be retained in this judgment. The fully assembled TV sets
were only imported once a copy of 'Plasma 1' was made available to the respondent.
[5] On 27 July 2006, the author of that tariff determination, Mr Pool, amended his
reasons for classifying the screens without tuners under tariff heading 8528.21.20,
but did not amend the determination that that tariff heading applied to the screens in
the condition he had considered them. He did not inform the respondent of this
amendment, which is referred to as 'Plasma 2'.
[6] When the Commissioner investigated the importation of the assembled
television sets through his Post Clearance Inspection (PCI) team from about May
2006, his officials concluded that the fully assembled television sets had been
cleared incorrectly and assessed the respondent by issuing two schedules in the
amounts of R 8 924 191, 69 and R 6 591 987, 90 respectively, representing both
underpaid duty and VAT.
[7] Believing that 'Plasma 2' had formed the basis upon which these
assessments were made, Plasmaview lodged an appeal against them and at the
same time launched a review application to have this supposed determination set
aside. In the same proceedings, Plasmaview applied for a declaratory order that the
amounts assessed were not owing to the appellant.
[8] The court below accepted that 'Plasma 2' represented a determination that, in
the absence of prior notice to Plasmaview, amounted to administrative action that
was unfair to it and granted the relief sought. The Commissioner was ordered to pay
costs, including those of senior counsel.
[9] The Commissioner on appeal disputes the finding that 'Plasma 2' is a
determination; argues that it therefore does not constitute administrative action and
submits that the declaratory order should not have been granted. The appeal is with
the leave of the high court.
The salient facts
[10] During 2005, the respondent imported eight consignments of LCD screens
from Korea into South Africa. The port of entry was East London. The screens were
described by the respondent as computer monitors with 81cm or 94 cm screens.
They were cleared as 'input display units for automatic data processing' under tariff
heading 8471.60, under which they would not have attracted any customs duty.
[11] One of the SARS officials, Mr Putter, inspected the eight consignments. He
found screens that were not fitted with TV tuners on importation, but were equipped
with the tuners very soon after they had been delivered to the respondent’s agents in
East London.
[12] Putter was of the view that the LCD screens were dutiable. He referred the
question of the tariff applicable to these items to his head office, which determined
that the screens were incomplete reception apparatus for television sets, attracting
customs and ad valorem duty. They were classified under tariff heading 8528.21.30.
This classification, it was common cause, constituted a determination in terms of s
47(9)(a)(i)(aa)of the Act ('the LCD determination'). Plasmaview duly amended the
tariff heading under which these screens became subject to duty by submitting
correcting vouchers in respect of the eight consignments.
[13] While importing LCD screens, Plasmaview also imported 11 consignments of
plasma screens. Its agent requested Pool, a tariff specialist employed at that time at
the Commissioner's head office, to determine the correct tariff applicable to these
screens. Pool concluded on 20 December 2005 that the plasma screens were
'reception apparatus for television' and ought to be cleared under tariff heading
8528.21.20.
[14] This tariff heading reads:
Head-
ing
Sub-
Heading
CD
Article Description
Stati
stical
Unit
Rates of Duty
Reference
General
EU
SADC
85.28
8528.2
8528.21
.10
.20
Reception Apparatus
for Television,
Whether or Not
Incorporating Radio-
broadcast Receivers
or Sound or Video
Recording or
Reproducing
Apparatus; Video
Monitors and Video
Projectors:
* Refer to General
Rebates of Customs
Duties and Fuel Levy
460.16 Temporary
Rebates of Customs
Duties
* Refer to Ad Valorem
Excise Duties from
Page 691
▬Video monitors:
= Colour:
- With a screen
size
exceeding
3m x 4...........
- With a screen
size not
exceeding 3 m x 4
u
u
free
25%
free
22%
free
free
A1/1/1273
w.e.f. 1/1/05
m
[15] Pool added that it was the view of his office that 'television monitors are video
monitors' and that 'television receivers incorporating screens . . . qualify as video
monitors’. He motivated his determination in part as follows:
'CLASSIFICATION:
To qualify as a television set, a video monitor must either incorporate a tv tuner or be
otherwise designed for completion into a television set. No evidence of this nature has been
presented by your office. Classification within TH 8528.21.20 cannot be challenged on the
basis of the available information.
It should be noted that it is in any event the position of this office, in line with the Explanatory
Note to heading 85.28, that television monitors are video monitors and would qualify for
entry under rebate item 460.16, providing that they comply with all the other requirements of
the rebate item. EN 85.28 reads in pertinent part: "This heading covers television receivers
(including video monitors and video projectors)" . . . . The meaning of this syntax could
hardly be plainer: included under television receivers are video monitors and video
projectors.
. . . .
HOLDING
TH8528.21.20 applies to the goods at issue. They are admissible under rebate item 460.16
insofar as they comply with all the other requirements of this rebate item.
Tariff Determination
Tariff Code 8528.21.20/460.16
Determination
Reception apparatus for television, whether or not incorporating radio-broadcast receivers or
sound or video recording or reproducing apparatus; video monitors and video projectors:
Video monitors: Colour: With a screen size not exceeding 3m x 4m Video monitors: Provided
that a certificate from the South African Bureau of Standards is presented at the time of entry
that the video monitors have more than 600 resolution lines.
Description
Plasma screens (42 inch) not incorporating tv tuners: PV 4201 S and PV 4201
. . . .'
[16] By virtue of this determination, these screens qualified for a full rebate of duty
under rebate item 460.16. Pool’s advice was sent to the respondent’s clearing
agents by way of an e-mail on 3 January 2006. Plasmaview then applied to the
Controller at East London on 5 January 2006 for leave to substitute the bills of entry
of the LCD screens to reflect tariff heading 8528.21.20 rather than 8528.21.30, in
order to qualify for the full rebate. This request was granted on 13 March 2006
subject to the payment of penalties.
[17] It must be emphasised that the plasma screens to which Plasma 1 applied
were imported, as the LCD screens had been up to that time, without TV tuners.
Upon receiving Pool’s determination, Plasmaview arranged with the manufacturer in
Korea to fit both the LCD as well as the plasma screens with TV tuners, so that they
were imported as fully assembled television sets. The assembled sets were imported
from January 2006. The full rebate was claimed under rebate item 460.16 as before.
[18] Pool’s view that television receivers were screens that without tuners qualified
as video monitors for a full rebate was not uncontroversial and was debated with him
by his colleagues. On 27 July 2006, Pool amended the 'Law and Evidence' portion of
'Plasma 1'. This document is 'Plasma 2'. In essence, Pool changed his stance that
television receivers could be classified under tariff heading 8528.21. This change in
his approach was not communicated to Plasmaview until October 2006.
[19] The determination made on 20 December 2005, identifying the applicable
tariff heading as 8528.21.20 for screens that had not been equipped with TV tuners,
was not affected by Pool's amended comments.
[20] During May 2006, unaware of Pool’s original determination and unaware of
'Plasma 2', Ms Spies of the SARS PCI in Johannesburg began an inspection and
audit process into Plasmaview’s imports of television sets and the possible
underpayment of duty and tax in respect thereof. These imports came to Spies'
notice as part of an ongoing investigation into imports of television sets generally,
when the repayment claims lodged by the respondent with the Controller in East
London after Pool’s determination were inspected.
[21] Suspecting that duty had been underpaid, Spies telephoned a Plasmaview
representative to inform her of the inspection and pending audit and to request
relevant documentation from the company. This call was made on 23 May 2006. The
discussion was confirmed by e-mail the same day. The respondent provided the
documentation Spies had called for.
[22] Further literature on the screens was requested in writing on 9 June 2006.
Some of it was delivered to Spies the next day. The balance was to be supplied at a
personal meeting between Spies and Plasmaview's representatives. This meeting
was held on 5 July 2006. Spies informed the respondent of her prima facie view that
duty had been underpaid. Respondent handed a copy of 'Plasma 1' to Spies, placing
reliance upon this document for the proposition that complete television sets could
be imported under full rebate of duty.
[23] On 29 September 2006, after having discussed the respondent’s importation
of television sets with her colleague Lester Millar, and having been provided with a
copy of 'Plasma 2', Spies served a notice of intention to demand outstanding duties
on Plasmaview, based upon the prima facie evidence in her possession. This notice
invited the company to make representations in respect of the alleged liability for
underpaid duty. On 2 October 2006, Plasmaview reacted to Spies' notice by letter,
placing reliance on Pool's original determination, Plasma 1, which was annexed to
the letter together with the LCD determination.
[24] On 5 October 2006, the customs supervisor of East London gave notice to
Plasmaview of his intention to revoke the authorisation to present substituted bills of
entry relating to the LCD screens because of the fact that the Johannesburg PCI
Office had discovered that the imported screens had been declared under the
incorrect tariff and did not qualify for a rebate. Plasmaview was invited to make
representations before 3 November 2006 why this step should not be taken.
[25] A meeting on 4 October 2006 followed at which the respondent was provided
with a copy of 'Plasma 2'. On 23 October 2006, Plasmaview, through its attorneys,
gave formal notice in terms of s 47(9)(e), read with s 96(1)(a)(i) of the Act, of its
intention to appeal against 'the determination' of 27 July 2006, which it had identified
as the cause of the demand for underpaid duties. At the same time, representations
were made to the Commissioner's Pretoria office in an effort to persuade the latter to
abandon the claim.
[26] Spies was unaware of the submissions made to the Pretoria office. She
issued the schedules reflecting the claim for underpaid duties and tax on 9
November 2006 and had them delivered on 13 November 2006.
[27] Although the respondent had delivered its notice of appeal and its
representations to SARS in October 2006, almost a year passed before the review,
the appeal and the application for a declaratory order were launched in one
application. Negotiations between the parties conducted prior to litigation had come
to naught.
[28] The court below upheld the respondent's contention that 'Plasma 2' was a
determination, constituted unfair administrative action and granted the orders
referred to above. The commissioner challenges these findings and contends that
'Plasma 2' is no determination at all, but merely an amendment of the motivation that
Pool provided in 'Plasma 1'. The Commissioner adopts the stance that the claim for
underpaid duties is not based upon 'Plasma 2' but upon the schedules produced by
the PIC team.
Is 'plasma 2' a determination?
[29] A determination for purposes of Chapter V of the Act is the end result of the
classification of imported goods under the correct tariff heading: Colgate Palmolive
(Pty) Ltd v Commissioner, South African Revenue Service 2007 (1) SA 35 (N) para
1; Commissioner, South African Revenue Services v Komatsu Southern Africa (Pty)
Ltd 2007 (2) 157 (SCA) para 8 and the authorities there cited.
[30] The provisions of Chapter V of the Act were summarized by Cloete JA in
Commissioner, South African Revenue Service v Trend Finance (Pty) Ltd & another
2007 (6) SA 117 (SCA) para 5:
‘Chapter V deals with clearance of goods and liability for payment of duties. Every importer
of goods is obliged in terms of s 38(1) to make due entry of those goods in terms of s 39.
That latter section requires the person entering any imported goods for any purpose to
deliver a bill of entry to the controller in the prescribed form; to declare that the particulars
contained in the bill of entry are correct; and to pay all duties due on the goods. Section
40(1) provides that no entry shall be valid unless the true value of the goods on which duty is
leviable or which is required to be declared under the provisions of the Act, has been
declared; a correct invoice has been produced to the controller in the case of goods
consigned to any person in the Republic; and the correct duty has been paid. Section
44(6)(c) provides that in all cases except those specifically mentioned, the liability for duty on
any imported goods is that of the importer or owner of such goods (or any person who
assumes such liability for any purpose under the provisions of the Act). Section 44(10)
provides that any duty for which any person is liable in terms of s 44 shall be payable upon
demand by the Commissioner. Section 47 provides that duty shall be paid on all imported
goods in accordance with the provisions of Schedule 1.’
[31] 'Plasma 1' identifies, through the accepted process of classification – see
International Business Machines SA (Pty) Ltd v Commissioner for Customs and
Excise 1985 (4) SA 852 (A) at 863F–864C – the heading under which the imported
screens should be classified. 'Plasma 2' differs from 'Plasma 1' only in respect of the
amended comment prepared by Pool under the heading 'Law and Analysis', in which
he suggests that a plasma screen or a LCD screen incorporating a TV tuner could
'… never be regarded as a video monitor', and could not qualify for a rebate under
item 460.16. The tariff determination made in respect of the screens (without tuners)
in December 2005 was expressly not altered by the amended comment. The date of
the original determination was not affected and the document specifies that it (still)
applies to plasma screens not incorporating TV tuners.
[32] 'Plasma 2' is therefore no tariff determination. Once this fact is established, it
is clear that the claim for underpaid duties does not, and could not, arise from the
amended comment prepared by Mr Pool.
The review of 'Plasma 2'
[33] As 'Plasma 2' is not a determination, it is not a decision capable of being
reviewed, nor can an appeal be lodged in terms of s 47(9)(e) against its contents.
The court below erred in this regard. Counsel for the respondent was constrained to
concede during argument that the high court's findings could not be supported.
The importation of complete TV sets
[34] 'Plasma 1' was prepared at a stage at which the respondent imported screens
without TV tuners, with specific reference to plasma screens. Section 47(9)(a)(iii) of
the Act reads:
'Any determination made under this subsection shall operate –
(aa) only in respect of the goods mentioned therein and the person in whose name it is
issued…'
[35] It is common cause, as I have said, that the respondent, once it received
'Plasma 1', imported both LCD and plasma screens with TV tuners already fitted by
the Korean manufacturer. It therefore began to import complete TV sets.
[36] While screens imported without tuners were at the time correctly classified
under tariff heading 8528.21.20, qualifying for a full rebate under rebate item 460.16
– see CSARS v LG Electronics (428/09) [2010] ZASCA 79 (28 May 2010) – the
determination fell away once the nature of the imported item changed. Not only did
'Plasma 2' therefore not amend the earlier determination, it simply did not apply any
longer to the respondent’s imports once the tuners were fitted prior to shipment of
the sets to South Africa. This fact was overlooked in the judgment appealed against.
The schedules prepared by the PIC
[37] Ms Spies prepared two schedules relating to bills of entry submitted by the
respondent in respect of the screens imported during 2005 and 2006. The schedules
were prepared in the exercise of the powers granted to the appellant by section
47(9)(a) and 47(11):
'(9) (a) (i) The Commissioner may in writing determine-
(aa)
the tariff headings, tariff subheadings or tariff items or other items of any Schedule
under which any imported goods, goods manufactured in the Republic or goods exported
shall be classified; or ….
(11) (a) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (10), any determination made under
subsection (9) (a) as a result of or during the course of or following upon an inspection of the
books, accounts and other documents of an importer, exporter, manufacturer or user of
goods, shall, subject to the provisions of section 44(11)(c), be deemed to have come into
operation in respect of the goods in question entered for the purposes of this Act two years
prior to the date on which the inspection commenced.
(b) The expression "inspection of any books, accounts and other documents", or any other
reference to an inspection in this Act shall be taken to include any act done by an officer in
the exercise of any duty imposed or power conferred by this Act for the purposes of the
physical examination of goods and documents upon or after or in the absence of entry, the
issue of stop notes or other reports, the making of assessments and any pre- or post-
importation audit, investigation, inspection or verification of any such books, accounts and
other documents required to be kept under this Act.'
[38] The schedules prepared by Spies are determinations as intended in the Act.
Alternative relief
[39] Once it was clear that the appeal had to succeed, respondent’s counsel
sought to rely on alternative relief envisaged during the hearing before the court
below when Plasmaview was granted an amendment of the notice of motion. Prayer
5 was amended to include the words 'Annexures FA 17 and FA 18 [Spies'
schedules] are hereby set aside and' before the original prayer 'it is declared that the
amounts demanded by the respondent [the present appellant] from the applicant [the
present respondent] in Annexures “FA 17” and “FA 18” to the founding affidavit,
being respectively R8 924 191,69 (together with interest thereon) and R 6 591
987,90 (together with interest thereon), are not owing by the applicant to the
respondent.' Although the amendment was granted 'provisionally', the court below
couched its declaratory order in the form in which it was worded originally.
[40] The Commissioner’s reliance on the schedules was introduced into the court
below by an additional affidavit filed without opposition. Although Plasmaview did file
a further affidavit in reply to the additional affidavit, the schedules were not dealt with
at all.
[41] Faced with these difficulties, Plasmaview's counsel requested the indulgence
of a postponement in order to supplement the papers to enable it to deal with the
schedules. The Commissioner objected. The schedules were not disputed in the
court below, either in respect of the correctness of the calculations of duty and tax, or
in respect of the validity of the decision to prepare them. There is no explanation
before this court why, if these aspects were in issue, the dispute was not ventilated
before and why available evidence was not placed on record. There is consequently
no basis upon which a postponement could be granted.
[42] Finally, Plasmaview argued that the commissioner does have a discretion
whether or not to apply the provisions of s 47(11) once an underpayment of duty is
established. It sought a postponement for the purpose of making representations to
the appellant to persuade him not to exercise the powers given to him in terms of this
section. Again, the Commissioner opposed the request.
[43] From the wording of the section quoted above it would appear prima facie that
the appellant has no discretion that would allow him not to apply its provisions. No
postponement could alter this fact. But even if the appellant could exercise a
discretion not to apply s 47(11), this issue was not raised in the court below. There is
no basis upon which the appeal could be postponed to accommodate a request to
make further representations at this stage. The remarks by Schutz JA in McCarthy
Retail Ltd v Short Distance Carriers CC 2001 (3) SA 482 (SCA) paras 27 to 33 are
applicable in this case. The postponement was sought at the last moment after the
appeal had been conceded; no satisfactory reasons were advanced for the lateness
of the hour at which it was sought; and the Commissioner has a right to have the
appeal disposed of. The principal reason for refusing the postponement is the fact
that it was sought in order to allow the respondent to create a cause of action where
none existed when the appeal was heard. The request for a postponement could
therefore not be entertained.
[44] 1.
The appeal is allowed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
2.
The order of the court below is set aside and replaced with the
following:
'The application is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.'
___________________
E BERTELSMANN
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
For appellant:
C Puckrin SC
T Khatri
Instructed by:
The State Attorney, Pretoria
The State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
J P Vorster SC
Instructed by:
Wolvaardt Inc, Pretoria
Matsepes Inc, Bloemfontein | SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
FROM:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE :
1 October 2010
STATUS:
Immediate
Commissioner, South African Revenue Service v Plasmaview Technologies
(Pty) Ltd
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media
and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) today upheld the Commissioner’s
appeal against a judgment of the high court, which set aside an amendment
to the motivation of a tariff determination on review as if it were a decision by
the Commissioner. The Commissioner had demanded payment from
Plasmaview of underpaid duties and tax calculated in two schedules served
on the latter. The high court held that the amounts claimed were not owing
and due.
Plasmaview imported partially assembled TV sets. It requested a
determination from the Commissioner’s office to identify the applicable tariff
heading under which the sets had to be declared. The determination identified
a tariff heading that allowed a full rebate of duties paid on the partially
assembled sets.
The importer then began to import fully assembled TV sets, but still declared
them under the same tariff heading that no longer applied to their imports, and
claimed the full rebate. When the Commissioner demanded underpaid duty
and tax in respect of these fully assembled sets, Plasmaview applied to the
high court for a declaratory order that the amounts determined by the
Commissioner were not owing and due. It mistakenly identified an internal
memorandum relating to the correctness of the motivation for the original
determination it had requested, as an amendment of the determination itself.
A review of this amendment was sought as if it were a decision taken by the
Commissioner, on the grounds that Plasmaview was not consulted before the
amendment was effected. It also sought an order declaring that the amounts
demanded by the Commissioner were not owing and due by Plasmaview. The
high court granted the relief claimed.
On appeal, the SCA held that the high court had erred. No new determination
had been made by the amendment of the original determination’s motivation.
There was thus no decision that could be set aside. Fully assembled TV sets
did not qualify for a rebate. The Commissioner was entitled to claim underpaid
duty and tax.
The order of the high court was set aside and substituted with an order
dismissing Plasmaview’s application. |
2202 | non-electoral | 2009 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 563/08
RICHARD MOKOENA
Appellant
and
THE STATE
Respondent
Neutral citation: Mokoena v S (563/08) [2009] ZASCA 14 (19 March 2009).
Coram:
CLOETE, PONNAN et SNYDERS JJA
Heard:
2 MARCH 2009
Delivered:
19 MARCH 2009
Summary:
Criminal Law: Sentence: The function of a court in imposing
sentence is to determine the maximum period the convicted person
may be imprisoned. It is improper for the court to attempt to
determine the minimum period.
______________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Free State Provincial Division, Parys (Hattingh J as court of
first instance).
1.
The order of the court a quo refusing condonation for the late
application for leave to appeal is set aside and condonation is granted.
2.
Condonation is granted for the noncompliance with the rules of this
court.
3.
The appeal succeeds to the limited extent that the sentences imposed
by the court a quo are set aside and the following sentences are substituted:
3.1
On the first count, murder, the appellant is sentenced to 25 years'
imprisonment.
3.2
On the second count, robbery with aggravating circumstances, the
appellant is sentenced to 15 years' imprisonment of which ten years is
ordered to run concurrently with the sentence imposed on the first count.
3.3
The effective period of imprisonment will therefore be 30 years.
4.
In terms of s 282 of the Criminal Procedure Act, the sentences are
backdated to 19 September 1995.
______________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________
CLOETE JA (PONNAN et SNYDERS JJA concurring):
[1] The appellant and his coaccused were charged with murder and
robbery with aggravating circumstances before Hattingh J and assessors in
the Free State Provincial Division sitting at Parys. The State alleged that on
27/28 February 1995 and at Petrus Steyn the appellant and his coaccused
killed Mrs Catarina Johanna Koster ('the deceased') in her home and robbed
her of inter alia her car, stove, hifi set, radio and personal jewellery. The
appellant tendered a plea of guilty to culpable homicide on the first count,
which was rejected by the State, and a plea of guilty on the second count,
which the State accepted. The appellant was ultimately convicted as charged
and his coaccused was convicted only of theft on the second count.
[2] The trial court sentenced the appellant to 40 years' imprisonment on
the first count and 15 years' imprisonment on the second count, but ordered
that half of the latter sentence should run concurrently with the former, so that
the effective sentence of imprisonment was 47 and a half years.
[3] The appellant sought leave to appeal against sentence, and
condonation for his failure to have done so timeously, from the trial court. The
application for condonation was refused primarily for the reason that it had no
prospects of success. The appellant appeals against this order. Leave is not
necessary from this court or the court a quo: S v Gopal, 1 S v Moosajee. 2
There was also an application for condonation before this court for non
compliance with certain of its rules. As the prospects of success on appeal
are all important to both applications, I turn to consider the merits of the
appeal.
[4] As I have said, the deceased lived in Petrus Steyn. Her house was
surrounded by burglar bars. The appellant was her gardener. She was found
dead in a bath half full of water with her arms and also her legs tied tightly
together with wire coat hangers. There was also a wire coat hanger tied
around her neck. The medical evidence showed that she had been strangled
by her assailant ─ which, it was common cause, was the appellant ─ using his
right hand. She had other bruises, including a black eye. A number of articles
were missing from her house although there were no signs of forceable entry.
The appellant said in his plea explanation (made in terms of s 112(2) of the
Criminal Procedure Act) that after he had left the deceased in the bath, he
locked the house and went to his dwelling. Later the same night he returned
with his coaccused and loaded goods from the deceased's house into her
motor vehicle, which was driven to the appellant's shack at Mamafubedu and
thereafter, to the dwelling of his coaccused. Stolen goods were offloaded at
both places. They subsequently rolled the vehicle. They were arrested the
following day.
[5] In refusing condonation, the learned trial judge exercised a narrow
discretion 3 with which this court is not entitled to interfere unless it was not
exercised judicially. That is the case here because the discretion was
exercised as a result of a material misdirection. The misdirection had its origin
in the following passages of the record which reflect what the learned trial
1 1993 (2) SACR 584 (A).
2 2000 (1) SACR 615 (SCA).
3 Naylor v Jansen 2007 (1) SA 16 (SCA) para 14 and cases referred to in the footnotes,
especially Giddey NO v J C Barnard and Partners 2007 (5) SA 525 (CC) para 19.
judge said to the prosecutor (Ms Bester) and counsel for the appellant (Mr
Marais) during argument on sentence:
'ME. BESTER:
Met betrekking tot termyne, u edele. Langtermyn gevangenisstraf
ten aansien van beskuldigde 1 ten aansien van aanklag 1, ook ten aansien van
aanklag 2. Ek wil my nie regtig aan 'n termyn gebonde hou nie, maar ek dink in
aanklagte 1, 2025 jaar en aanklag 2 dink ek in die omgewing van 12 tot 15 jaar, u
edele.
HOF: Juffrou, het u gesien wat sê die Gevangeniswet? Hy sê waar 'n hof 'n
bepaalde vonnis oplê dan kan daardie persoon, dan kom daardie persoon na die
helfte daarvan verstrek is vir oorweging, vir parool in oorweging. Met ander woorde
ek gee hom 20 jaar, na 10 jaar dan stap hy hier buitekant rond.
ME. BESTER: Dit is korrek.
HOF: Hoekom gee ek hom nie liewer dan 'n 100 jaar nie?
ME. BESTER: Ek het nie 'n probleem daarmee nie, u edele.
HOF: U het nie 'n probleem nie?
ME. BESTER: Ek het geen probleem daarmee nie.
HOF: Ja.
ME. BESTER: Regtig.
HOF: Dan gee ek hom lewenslank dan kom hierdie klomp burokrate weer ...
(tussenbei)
ME. BESTER:
Van die Nasionale Raad.
HOF: En ook hier na 20 jaar sê hulle vir hom jy kan nou 'n bietjie vir parool
kwalifiseer.
ME. BESTER: Ja, u edele soos ek sê ek het glad nie 'n probleem nie.
HOF: Al die vonnisse van die howe word tot niet gemaak deur 'n klomp politici en
burokrasie, adviesrade en goed.
ME. BESTER: Daarmee stem ek honderd persent saam, u edele.
HOF: Want as die doodsvonnis hier 'n gepaste vonnis was sou ek dit ernstig
oorweeg het.
. . .
HOF: Dankie, juffrou. Mnr. Marais, ek wil net graag by u iets hoor. Ek het nou al
gesien dat van die regters in die Transvaal veral in sulke gevalle vonnisse oplê van
wat amper soos Amerikaanse vonnisse is, 110 jaar, 'n ander ene 95 jaar en so aan.
Nou daardie goed is nog nie op appèl gewees nie of het nog nie voor die Appèlhof
gedien nie. Wat sal die rede wees dat die regter sulke lang termyne oplê? Dit het
hulle nooit gedoen toe die doodsvonnis nog 'n gepaste vonnis was nie, 'n bevoegde
vonnis was nie.
MNR. MARAIS: Ja.
HOF: Dit is eers daarna wat dit gebeur het. Nie waar nie? Is dit miskien juis om dit
wat in die Wet staan, omdat dit 'n bepaalde vonnis is kom hy aanmerking vir parool
na die helfte uitgedien is.
MNR. MARAIS: Met die helfte.
HOF: Gee hom lewenslank en dan is die Adviesraad, die Nasionale Adviesraad sê
dit is 'n administratiewe instruksie, na 20 jaar sal jy in oorweging kom. En dan lyk dit
vir my daardie regters voel wag 'n bietjie as dit dan so is gaan ek hulle wetlik verplig
om, hy gaan 'n lang tyd in die tronk bly, ek gee vir hom 90 jaar dan moet hy 45 jaar
daar bly. Dan kan die Nasionale Adviesraad op sy kop staan, dit help niks.'
[6] The judgment on sentence is entirely devoid of these sentiments. But I
am driven to the conclusion that the learned trial judge had them at least at
the back of his mind when he imposed sentence. I say this for two reasons.
First, the sentence imposed for the murder and the cumulative effect of the
sentence imposed for both crimes together are both unusually severe.
Second, the learned trial judge did not say that he had considered imposing
life imprisonment, nor does he give any reason for rejecting such a sentencing
option. If he would, as he said, have considered the death penalty had this
sentence not been abolished, his failure to consider the most severe penalty
then available is inexplicable on any basis other than that he considered such
a sentence would not be sufficient if parole were to be granted to the
appellant. A court in imposing sentence cannot adopt this approach. In S v
Matlala 4 Howie JA held:
'Unless there is a particular purpose in having regard to the preparole portion of an
imprisonment sentence (as, for example, in S v Bull and Another; S v Chavulla and
Others 2001 (2) SACR 681 (SCA)) the Court must disregard what might or might not
be decided by the administrative authorities as to parole. The court has no control
over that. S v S 1987 (2) SA 307 (A) at 313H; S v Mhlakaza and Another 1997 (1)
SACR 515 (SCA) at 521dh. In the latter passage there is the important statement
that the function of the sentencing court is to determine the maximum term of
imprisonment the convicted person may serve. In other words, the court imposes
4 2003 (1) SACR 80 (SCA) para 7.
what it intends should be served and it imposes that on an assessment of all the
relevant factors before it. It does not grade the duration of its sentences by reference
to their conceivable preparole components but by reference to the fixed and finite
maximum terms it considers appropriate, without any regard to possible parole.' 5
Subsequently, in S v Botha, 6 Ponnan AJA said:
'One final aspect merits mention. The trial Judge recommended that the appellant
serve at least twothirds of his sentence before being considered for parole. The
function of a sentencing court is to determine the term of imprisonment that a person,
who has been convicted of an offence, should serve. A court has no control over the
minimum period of the sentence that ought to be served by such a person. A
recommendation of the kind encountered here is an undesirable incursion into the
domain of another arm of State, which is bound to cause tension between the
Judiciary and the executive. Courts are not entitled to prescribe to the executive
branch of government how long a convicted person should be detained, thereby
usurping the function of the executive. (See S v Mhlakaza and Another 1997 (1)
SACR 515 (SCA) ([1997] 2 All SA 185) at 521fi (SACR).)'
In short: the function of a court in imposing sentence is to determine the
maximum period a convicted person may be imprisoned. It may not attempt to
fix the minimum period.
[7] In the circumstances, I am satisfied that the learned judge misdirected
himself in regard to the prospects of success on appeal, and that this court is
at large to grant the application for condonation refused by the trial court and
also to impose the sentences it considers appropriate. I turn to address that
latter question.
[8] The appellant's personal circumstances are these. He was 23 years old
when he committed the offences. He had two relatively minor previous
convictions for theft for which he was in each case sentenced to imprisonment
with the option of a fine, but he had no previous conviction for a crime
involving violence. It may be accepted that he is a relatively unsophisticated
person: he grew up on a farm as the oldest of four children. His father died
when he was ten years old and his mother took him out of school (he was
5 See also S v Botha 2006 (2) SACR 110 (SCA) para 25.
6 2006 (2) SACR 110 (SCA) para 25.
then in standard three) as she put it: 'Om my te kom help pap in die huis te
bring'.
[9] I have difficulty in finding that the appellant had any remorse. He did
cooperate immediately with the police after he was arrested: he made
various pointings out and he made a statement to a magistrate, although he
attempted to shift the blame from himself to his coaccused. But he never
gave evidence. His plea to culpable homicide on the murder charge was
correctly rejected by the State and he had little option but to plead guilty on
the robbery charge. The appellant might well regret what he did, but it cannot
in my view be found that he has genuine remorse.
[10] The murder was horrific. The deceased was a defenceless elderly
woman in her late sixties and the appellant, as her gardener, was in a position
of trust. She was attacked in the sanctity of her own home. The appellant
must have gained entry using a key or by some strategy. He strangled the
deceased with his bare hand. As this court said in R v Lewis: 7
'The application of pressure manually, as in the case before us, is an aggravating
circumstance because the assailant is throughout not only fully alive to the degree of
force exerted by him but he is, by reason of his manual contact with the throat,
warned of the victim's reaction to the pressure applied.'
The other injuries sustained by the deceased, in particular the black eye, bear
mute testimony to the struggle she put up. Not surprisingly, the court a quo
found that the appellant had acted with dolus directus. The appellant then
wound wire coat hangers around the deceased's feet and hands so tightly that
they required a pair of pliers to remove them, and also wound a wire coat
hanger around her neck. According to the uncontradicted medical evidence
led by the State, this was done after the deceased had been strangled to
death; but it shows a callous persistence by the appellant in his course of
conduct. So too does the fact that he returned that night with an associate to
complete the robbery. That to my mind should properly be reflected in an
order directing that part only of the sentence on the second count should run
concurrently with the sentence on the first. The obvious inference to be drawn
7 1958 (3) SA 107 (A) at 109EF.
from the facts I have mentioned, in the absence of any explanation from the
appellant, is that the crimes were committed purely for personal gain.
[11] It is hardly necessary to emphasise that South Africa has for a number
of years been plagued by crimes of violence of the nature committed by the
appellant, to such an extent that Parliament has considered it necessary to
enact 8 minimum sentences for such crimes. Society is clamant for retribution
and deterrence must also play a major role in the sentences imposed. The
personal circumstances of the appellant must recede into the background. It
must nevertheless be borne in mind that this court is obliged to impose the
sentence which it considers the trial court should have imposed in 1995 and
the effect that the minimum sentencing legislation has had on sentences must
be left out of account.
[12] Bearing all these factors in mind, I am of the view that a sentence of 25
years' imprisonment for the murder and 15 years' imprisonment for the
robbery with aggravating circumstances, ten years of the latter to run
concurrently with the former, would have been appropriate before the
minimum sentencing legislation came into operation. The effective period of
imprisonment will therefore be 30 years. The difference between that
sentence and the sentence imposed by the trial court is sufficient to warrant
interference; and in the circumstances, the application for condonation for
noncompliance with the rules of this court should be granted. Before making
the appropriate order, I should mention that the appellant has been in jail
since he was sentenced on 19 September 1995. His imprisonment should
therefore be backdated in terms of s 282 of the Criminal Procedure Act.
[13] The following order is made:
1.
The order of the court a quo refusing condonation for the late
application for leave to appeal is set aside and condonation is granted.
2.
Condonation is granted for the noncompliance with the rules of this
court.
8 In the Criminal Law Amendment Act 105 of 1997.
3.
The appeal succeeds to the limited extent that the sentences imposed
by the court a quo are set aside and the following sentences are substituted:
3.1
On the first count, murder, the appellant is sentenced to 25 years'
imprisonment.
3.2
On the second count, robbery with aggravating circumstances, the
appellant is sentenced to 15 years' imprisonment of which ten years is
ordered to run concurrently with the sentence imposed on the first count.
3.3
The effective period of imprisonment will therefore be 30 years.
4.
In terms of s 282 of the Criminal Procedure Act, the sentences are
backdated to 19 September 1995.
_______________
T D CLOETE
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances:
Counsel for Appellant:
N L Skibi
Instructed by
Legal Aid Board, Bloemfontein
Counsel for Respondent: C Steyn
Instructed by
Director of Public Prosecutions, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date: 19 March 2009
Status: Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
R MOKOENA v THE STATE
1.
The SCA today upheld an appeal by Mr Richard Mokoena (the appellant) against the
effective sentence of 47 and a half years' imprisonment imposed by Hattingh J in Parys for
the robbery and murder of Mrs Catarina Johanna Koster (the deceased) in Petrus Steyn
during February 1995. The appellant, who was the deceased's gardener, had gained access to
her house and then strangled her. He and his coaccused returned that night and loaded goods
from the deceased's house into her car which they removed to Mamafubedu.
2.
The SCA held, following previous cases decided after the trial court had imposed
sentence, that the trial court had committed a misdirection by attempting to fix the minimum
amount of time it considered that the appellant should spend in jail even if he was granted
parole. The SCA reiterated that the function of a sentencing court is to determine the
maximum term of imprisonment a convicted person may serve and that courts are not entitled
to prescribe to the executive the minimum amount of time that sentenced persons should be
detained.
3.
The effective sentence was accordingly reduced to 30 years' imprisonment.
ends |
3944 | non-electoral | 2022 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 667/2021
In the matter between:
PLATTEKLOOF RMS BOERDERY (PTY) LTD
APPELLANT
and
DAHLIA INVESTMENT HOLDINGS (PTY) LTD
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Plattekloof RMS Boerdery (Pty) Ltd v Dahlia Investment Holdings
(Pty) Ltd (667/2021) [2022] ZASCA 182 (15 December 2022)
Coram:
VAN DER MERWE, GORVEN and MOTHLE JJA and WINDELL and
MALI AJJA
Heard:
3 November 2022
Delivered:
This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties’ representatives by email, publication on the Supreme Court of Appeal website
and release to SAFLII. The date and time for hand-down is deemed to be 11h00 am
on 15 December 2022.
Summary:
Contract – pre-emptive right in respect of two of eight portions of farm –
offer by third party to purchase farm – activated right of pre-emption – appellant’s
remedy – enforcement of respondent’s contractual obligation to determine in good
faith what portion of global purchase price pertains to two portions and to deliver offer
to appellant accordingly.
ORDER
On appeal from: Western Cape Division of the High Court, Cape Town (Binns-Ward
J, sitting as court of first instance):
The order of the high court is varied only to the extent that the dismissal of the
application is set aside.
The respondent is directed to deliver to the appellant, within 10 days of the date
of this order, a written offer, in terms of clause 10 of the lease agreement concluded
by the parties on 13 April 2018, to purchase the leased premises, based on the deed
of sale concluded by the respondent and Swellendam Plase (Pty) Ltd on 7 April 2020.
The appellant is directed to pay the costs of the appeal, including the costs of
two counsel.
JUDGMENT
Van der Merwe JA (Gorven and Mothle JJA and Windell and Mali AJJA
concurring):
[1] This appeal concerns a pre-emptive right in respect of immovable property that
the respondent, Dahlia Investment Holdings (Pty) Ltd, granted to the appellant,
Plattekloof RMS Boerdery (Pty) Ltd. The appellant launched an application in the
Western Cape Division of the High Court, Cape Town (the high court), for an order
enforcing compliance with the right of pre-emption. The high court (Binns-Ward J)
dismissed the application with costs. Its judgment is reported as Plattekloof RMS
Boerdery (Pty) Ltd v Dahlia Investment Holdings (Pty) Ltd and Another 2021 (2) SA
527 (WCC). The appellant’s appeal is with the leave of this court.
Background
[2] The respondent is the owner of a farm in the district of Riversdale in the Western
Cape that carries the name Plattekloof (the farm). It consists of eight separate portions.
The appellant owns an adjoining farm. Mr Gunther Schmitz is a director and the sole
shareholder of the respondent. Mr Albert Vermaak, in turn, is a director and the sole
shareholder of the appellant.
[3] Two of the eight portions of the farm are described as: the remainder of the
farm Hottentots Bosch no 80 (424,6700 hectares in extent); and portion 5 of the farm
Platte Kloof no 90 (443,1839 hectares in extent) (the two portions). On 13 April 2018,
the appellant and the respondent concluded a written lease agreement (the lease). In
terms thereof the appellant rents the two portions for a period of five years ending on
1 April 2023.
[4] Clause 10 of the lease (clause 10) provides for a right of pre-emption, in these
terms:
’10.
Right of First Refusal
10.1
Provided that the Lessee has complied with all of its obligations under this agreement,
the lessee shall have the right of first refusal to purchase the Premises on terms and conditions
the same as nor (sic) no less favourable than those offered by a bona fide third party to the
Lessor and the Lessor shall deliver written notice to the Lessor (sic) specifying the terms and
conditions of such offer, and the Lessee shall have 14 (fourteen) days thereafter in which to
accept or reject the offer by written notice, failing which the Lessor shall be entitled, subject to
the Lessor (sic) commitments under this agreement, to dispose of the property to any third
party on the terms originally offered for a period of 60 (Sixty) days, failing which this right of
first refusal shall revive.’
[5] Mr Schmitz inherited the shareholding in the respondent. He is a businessman
who resides in Cape Town. He has no interest in farming. Since 2017, therefore, he
attempted to sell the farm or the shares in the respondent. In terms of a deed of sale
concluded on 7 April 2020, the respondent sold the farm to Swellendam Plase (Pty)
Ltd (Swellendam Plase) for a global purchase price of R17 million. The deed of sale
recorded that the farm was sold subject to the lease, but did not allocate a purchase
price per portion of the farm.
[6] The appellant learned of this sale on 16 April 2020. In a letter to the respondent
dated 20 April 2020, the appellant’s attorney conveyed that he held instructions to
claim specific performance of clause 10 and invited the respondent to make an offer
to the appellant in terms thereof in respect of the two portions. Despite a subsequent
exchange of correspondence between the attorneys of the parties, no such offer was
forthcoming.
[7] The appellant consequently approached the high court. The appellant claimed
that the respondent be ordered to comply with clause 10 by delivering a written notice
offering to sell the two portions to the appellant for R4 million, on the same terms and
conditions as those contained in the deed of sale between the respondent and
Swellendam Plase. The appellant also asked for an order affording it a period of 14
days to accept or reject that offer.
[8] In the meantime, on 4 June 2020, the respondent and Swellendam Plase in
writing agreed to cancel the deed of sale. In the answering affidavit Mr Schmitz
explained that the reason for the cancellation was that the respondent had been
advised that the sale of the shares in the respondent would provide tax advantages
over those of the sale of the farm. Counsel for the respondent rightly did not contend
that the cancellation of the deed of sale was of any significance in the matter.
[9] The main issue before the high court concerned the proper interpretation of
clause 10 and the consequent application thereof to the facts. I shall return to its
findings in this regard. The respondent, however, raised various other defences to the
enforceability of clause 10. One of these was that the appellant had failed to comply
with its obligations in terms of the lease and that therefore the proviso in clause 10
was not fulfilled. The high court rejected all of these defences and these findings were
not challenged before us.
Discussion
[10] It follows from what I have said that the following passage in GB Bradfield
Christie’s Law of Contract in South Africa 8 ed (2022) at 77, is apposite to the
determination of the appeal:
‘Regarding breach of the preference contract, there are essentially two issues. The first is
whether in the given circumstances the right of preference was “triggered” and, if so, the
second is what remedies the right holder has in the event of breach of the contract granting
the preference right. The answers to these questions depend on the terms on which the right
has been granted, and these terms vary.’
Trigger
[11] The first question is whether the high court correctly held that the ‘package deal’
had ‘triggered’ the appellant’s pre-emptive right. In this regard one has to ask whether
the sale of the farm gave rise to an obligation on the part of the respondent to make
an offer to the appellant in terms of clause 10. That would be the case if the conduct
of the respondent breached the provisions of clause 10. As I have said (and the high
court recognised), the answer depends in the first place on an interpretation of clause
10 in terms of the ordinary well-known principles of construction of contracts.
[12] Ultimately the question is whether clause 10 means that the right of pre-emption
would only be activated if the respondent receives an offer for the two portions on their
own. I do not think so. First, on the ordinary meaning of clause 10, the respondent
obtained an offer to purchase the ‘Premises’, even though it was part of a wider offer.
This, I think, is illustrated by Sher v Allan 1929 OPD 137.
[13] There the defendant leased half of an erf to the plaintiff. In terms of the lease
agreement, the defendant granted the plaintiff ‘the first option to purchase the leased
property, should he desire to sell the same during the continuance’ of the lease. The
defendant sold the whole erf without notice to the plaintiff. The plaintiff consequently
sued the defendant for damages and the question arose whether the sale of the whole
erf constituted a breach of the option in respect of the leased property.
[14] McGregor AJP answered the question in the affirmative. He said at 143:
‘For by selling the whole erf the defendant must needs ex necessitate rei be selling the half;
and being a free agent herein he must be taken to have desired that which his act implied and
involved. He could not – as a matter of ordinary possibility – sell the whole without selling the
half’.
And at 144 he trenchantly stated:
‘If we took a different view we might have this result: that, if the owner chose to sell all his
property at Kroonstad to a substantial purchaser in globulo, it might still be contended that the
plaintiff had no cause to complain in that there was no desire to sell the leased half – which
might seem to bring one into a somewhat metaphysical sphere.’
[15] Secondly, upon such a construction the right of pre-emption would be
circumvented or rendered nugatory by adding something to an offer to purchase the
two portions. That would be so unbusinesslike and insensible that the parties could
not have intended it. For these reasons I agree with the high court’s finding that the
rights of the appellant in terms of clause 10 had been activated. I therefore turn to the
issue of remedy.
Remedy
[16] The high court determined the content of the rights of the appellant in these
terms:
‘Upon the triggering of the right, the first respondent became obliged, according to the tenor
of clause 10 of the lease, to give the applicant written notice specifying the terms and
conditions of the offer it had received from Swellendam Plase and the applicant would
thereafter have 14 days in which to indicate by written notice to the first respondent whether
or not it intended to acquire the property on same terms and conditions. In other words, in
exercising the right to acquire the two erven on the same terms and conditions as the third
party was prepared to do, the applicant would, in the circumstances of the offer made by
Swellendam Plase, have to purchase the whole farm for R17 million. It would have to take the
whole package because the package deal reflected the terms and conditions upon which
Swellendam Plase would acquire the pre-emption property. That would be to give effect to the
plain meaning of the language of clause 10.’
[17] I am unable to agree with this conclusion. The decision of this court in Brocsand
(Pty) Ltd v Tip Trans Resources and Others [2020] ZASCA 144; 2021 (5) SA 457
(SCA) para 17, serves as a convenient starting point:
‘Brocsand’s right of first refusal had a specific content. It was the right “to enter into a new
agreement with the Holder for the appointment . . . to render mining services in respect of the
Minerals on the Property”, that is, a right against Full Score in the respect of laterite and sand
on Red Hill. As a matter of logic, the content of a right cannot change because of a breach
thereof, not even when the breach takes place by collusion.’
See also para 25. The appellant’s rights must, of course, be determined by a proper
construction of clause 10.
[18] In terms of clause 10 the appellant clearly has no more than the ‘right of first
refusal to purchase the Premises’, that is, the two portions. In context the expressions
‘such offer’ and ‘the offer’ refer to the offer that the respondent is obliged to make to
the appellant for the purchase of ‘the Premises’. That offer has to be the same or not
less favourable than that which a bona fide third party offered in respect of the two
portions. Thus, the respondent is contractually obliged to determine in good faith what
portion of the Swellendam Plase offer pertained to the two portions and to offer that to
the appellant.
[19] As I have indicated, the appellant contended that the evidence proved that the
respondent and Swellendam Plase had agreed on a purchase price of R4 million for
the two portions, it being the fair and reasonable price thereof. I therefore proceed to
analyse the relevant evidence.
[20] Over the period from December 2017 to 11 April 2018, various discussions took
place between Mr Vermaak and Mr Schmitz, during which the latter indicated that the
respondent would be prepared to sell the two portions for R4 million. On 13 April 2018,
as I have said, the lease was concluded. In subsequent discussions up to 10 January
2020, various possibilities in respect of the sale to the appellant of the shares in the
respondent, the farm or the two portions were mooted, but nothing came thereof.
[21] During February 2020 Swellendam Plase, represented by Mr Lourens van
Eeden, showed an interest in acquiring the remaining six portions (other than the two
portions) of the farm. Mr van Eeden inspected the farm on several occasions. On 6
March 2020, Mr Schmitz phoned Mr Vermaak. Mr Schmitz indicated that there was a
purchaser for the six portions. He enquired whether the appellant would still be
interested in purchasing the two portions for R4 million. Mr Vermaak responded in the
affirmative. On 12 March 2020, Mr Vermaak had a similar conversation with Mr
Cornelis van Tonder, an estate agent appointed by the respondent. Mr van Tonder
disclosed that the prospective purchaser of the six portions was Swellendam Plase.
[22] On the same day, Mr van Tonder sent an email to Mr Schmitz, stating that Mr
van Eeden (Swellendam Plase) had an option to purchase the six portions and that he
wished to exercise that option (‘wil hy graag daardie opsie uitoefen’). No such
document was produced in the evidence and it is unclear what exactly Mr van Tonder
intended to convey to his client. It did appear from the record that in an email to the
respondent’s attorney dated 27 February 2020, Mr Schmitz enquired whether he could
sign ‘the option document’. Be that as it may, during separate conversations on 14
March 2020, both Mr van Tonder and Mr van Eeden informed Mr Vermaak that
Swellendam Plase would pay R13 million for the six portions.
[23] In the answering affidavit Mr Schmitz explained what happened thereafter, as
follows:
’We proceeded to engage in negotiations. After a further visit to the farm Mr van Eeden
informed me that the value of the two portions leased by the applicant was higher than R5
million, while the remaining six portions were not worth R13 million. He would prefer buying
the whole farm. Mr van Tonder subsequently informed me that the buyer wanted to purchase
the whole farm and not only the remaining six portions separately (the relevant email
correspondence is attached as “GS20”).
On 25 March 2020 I went to the farm for the eviction of Mr Botha. On this day I also inspected
the condition of the buildings and the land together with Mr van Eeden. We agreed to reduce
the price for the whole farm to R17 million based on the bad condition of the remaining six
portions. In agreeing on the purchase price for the farm as a whole, we did not differentiate
between the six remaining portions on the one hand, and the two leased portions, on the other
hand, save to extent that the six remaining portions were, because of their condition and the
funds that would be required to rehabilitate them, regarded as having a lower value as
opposed to the two leased portions. As subsequently reflected in the Swellendam contract,
the eight portions were sold as an indivisible transaction.’
The further visit alluded to, took place on 19 March 2020, in the presence of Mr van
Tonder. In their affidavits, both Mr van Eeden and Mr van Tonder confirmed the
evidence of Mr Schmitz.
[24] The appellant urged us to reject the evidence set out in the previous paragraph
and to find that the purchase price of R17 million for the farm had been arrived at by
adding R4 million to the offer of R13 million for the six portions. The argument was
based on a weighing of probabilities. It is trite, however, that motion proceedings are
not designed to determine probabilities and that it is not permissible to decide genuine
disputes of fact in motion proceedings. In the result, the version of the respondent in
respect of disputed facts has to be accepted for purposes of the determination of an
application, unless that version is so far-fetched or clearly untenable as to warrant its
rejection out of hand. See National Director of Public Prosecutions v Zuma [2009]
ZASCA 1; 2009 (2) SA 277 (SCA) para 26. I am by no means satisfied that the
respondent’s evidence could be rejected merely on the papers.
[25] It follows that the main relief claimed, namely that the respondent be directed
to make an offer of R4 million for the two portions, must fail. In its heads of argument
in this court, the appellant for the first time attempted to raise a ground for alternative
relief. That was that the high court should have determined a reasonable price for the
two portions, if needs be after hearing oral evidence in that regard. Apart from the
procedural obstacles in its way, the contention is untenable simply because the
appellant has no such right. As I have said, the appellant has the right to a bona fide
offer on the basis of that part of the R17 million that pertains to the two portions,
nothing less and nothing more.
[26] Finally, the question arises whether this should be the end of the matter. The
proper interpretation of clause 10 was central to the proceedings in the high court and
in this court. That the applicant claimed to be entitled to an offer in the amount of R4
million for the two portions, made no material difference hereto. That claim was based
on what the appellant perceived to be the facts. This court has spoken on the issue
and it would appear quite senseless to require the appellant to commence proceedings
afresh to decide this issue.
[27] What weighs heavily with me in this regard is that as far back as 20 April 2020,
the respondent was formally and correctly invited to make an offer in terms of clause
10. To this day, it has not done so. It would not be difficult for the respondent to comply
with a direction to make an offer in terms of clause 10. The respondent fully set out
what had transpired and, during July 2020, it obtained a detailed valuation of each of
the eight portions of the farm as on 26 March 2020. The valuation was confirmed under
oath. After all, as was said in Mokone v Tassos Properties CC and Another [2017]
ZACC 25; 2017 (5) SA 456 (CC) para 59:
‘Court-coerced compliance by the grantor will be doing nothing more than to require her or
him to honour what she or he had bargained for. It will not be an imposition.’
[28] As this would nevertheless constitute the granting of an indulgence to the
appellant, there is no basis for varying the costs order of the high court. And the
appellant should be directed to pay the costs of the appeal, including the costs of two
counsel. I therefore do not think that the proposed order would cause prejudice to the
respondent and its counsel did not allude to any.
[29] These considerations have persuaded me that in the particular circumstances
of this case, the interests of justice require that the respondent be directed to comply
with clause 10. For these reasons, I make the following order:
The order of the high court is varied only to the extent that the dismissal of the
application is set aside.
The respondent is directed to deliver to the appellant, within 10 days of the
date of this order, a written offer, in terms of clause 10 of the lease agreement
concluded by the parties on 13 April 2018, to purchase the leased premises, based on
the deed of sale concluded by the respondent and Swellendam Plase (Pty) Ltd on 7
April 2020.
The appellant is directed to pay the costs of the appeal, including the costs of
two counsel.
________________________
C H G VAN DER MERWE
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For appellant:
T D Potgieter SC
Instructed by:
M J Vermeulen Inc c/o Walkers Inc,
Cape Town
Hill McHardy & Herbst, Bloemfontein
For respondent:
R Goodman SC (with P van Zyl)
Instructed by:
Barnaschone Attorneys, Cape Town
McIntyre
&
Van
der
Post,
Bloemfontein. | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME
COURT OF APPEAL
FROM:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE:
15 December 2022
STATUS:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not form part of
the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
Plattekloof RMS Boerdery (Pty) Ltd v Dahlia Investment Holdings (Pty) Ltd
(667/2021) [2022] ZASCA 182 (15 December 2022)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (the SCA) handed down judgment in an appeal from the
Western Cape Division of the High Court, Cape Town (the high court). It varied the high court’s
order only to the extent that the dismissal of the application was set aside and directed that the
respondent was to deliver to the appellant a written offer to purchase the leased property in question,
based on Clause 10 of the lease concluded by the parties on 13 April 2018 (the lease).
This appeal concerned a right of pre-emption in respect of two portions of a farm that the
respondent, Dahlia Investment Holdings (Pty) Ltd had granted to the appellant, Plattekloof RMS
Boerdery (Pty) Ltd. The farm consisted of eight separate portions, two of which were leased out to
the appellant for a period of five years in terms of the lease. On 7 April 2020, the respondent sold
all eight portions of the farm to Swellendam Plase (Pty) Ltd for a global purchase of R17 million
(the Swellendam Plase offer). The deed of sale recorded that the farm was sold subject to the lease.
The appellant subsequently sought specific performance of his right to pre-emption in respect of
the two leased properties.
The SCA was required to determine whether the appellant’s right to pre-emption would only be
activated if the respondent received an offer regarding only the two portions concerned. The SCA
determined that this could not be the case. The SCA thus held that the Swellendam Plase offer
‘triggered’ the appellant’s right of pre-emption. As to the appellant’s remedy, the SCA held that
clause 10 of the lease, such being the clause setting out the right of pre-emption, determined that
the appellant had no more than the right of first refusal to purchase the two portions and the
respondent was, in turn, obliged to have made an offer to the appellant to purchase the two portions
of the farm. Thus, the respondent was contractually obliged to determine, in good faith, what
portion of the Swellendam Plase offer pertained to the two portions, and make a subsequent offer
to the appellant.
Swellendam Plase sought to purchase the entire farm and the fixed price of R17 million was stated
without differentiating between the six portions and the two leased portions; the eight portions were
sold as an indivisible transaction. The appellant contended that the Swellendam Plase offer was
made by adding R4 million for the two portions to R13 million for the six portions to arrive at the
amount of R17 million. This disputed contention was based on a weighing of probabilities, which
could not be entertained in motion proceedings.
Accordingly, the SCA determined that the main relief sought, being that the respondent be directed
to make an offer of R4 million must fail. The appellant had a right to a bona fide offer on the basis
of that part of the R17 million that pertained to the two portions. The SCA was particularly
displeased with the fact that the respondent had the opportunity to tender an offer since 2020, but
failed to do so.
In the result, the SCA ordered the respondent to comply with the provisions of Clause 10 of the
lease agreement.
~~~~ends~~~~ |
4013 | non-electoral | 2023 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 371/2020
In the matter between:
AFRIFORUM NPC APPELLANT
and
NELSON MANDELA FOUNDATION TRUST FIRST RESPONDENT
MINISTER OF JUSTICE AND SECOND RESPONDENT
CORRECTIONAL SERVICES
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE THIRD RESPONDENT
AND CORRECTIONAL SERVICES
SOUTH AFRICAN HUMAN RIGHTS FOURTH RESPONDENT
COMMISSION
JOHANNESBURG PRIDE NPC FIRST AMICUS CURIAE
FEDERASIE VAN AFRIKAANSE SECOND AMICUS CURIAE
KULTUURVERENIGINGE NPC
Neutral citation: Afriforum NPC v Nelson Mandela Foundation Trust
and Others (Case no 371/2020) [2023] ZASCA 58 (21 April
2023)
Coram:
MAYA P and SCHIPPERS, PLASKET and MABINDLA-
BOQWANA JJA and SAVAGE AJA
Heard:
11 May 2022
Delivered:
21 April 2023
Summary:
Constitutional Law – section 16(1) of the Constitution – freedom
of expression – whether right infringed by prohibition of gratuitous public display
of the old South African flag – symbol of apartheid and white supremacy – such
display constitutes hate speech, unfair discrimination and harassment under the
Promotion of Equality and Prevention of Unfair Discrimination Act 4 of 2000.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg, sitting as
Equality Court (Mojapelo DJP sitting as court of first instance):
Paragraph (2) of the order of the court below is set aside and replaced with
the following order:
‘In terms of section 21(2) of the Equality Act, it is declared that subject to
the proviso in section 12 of the Equality Act, any gratuitous public display
of the Old Flag constitutes:
(a)
hate speech in terms of section 10(1) of the Equality Act;
(b)
unfair discrimination on the basis of race in terms of section 7 of the
Equality Act;
(c)
harassment in terms of section 11 of the Equality Act.’
Save as aforesaid, the appeal is dismissed. There is no order as to costs of
the appeal.
________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
________________________________________________________________
Schippers JA (Maya P and Plasket and Mabindla-Boqwana JJA and Savage
AJA concurring)
[1] This case brings into sharp focus the potency of a symbol of the cruel
ideology of apartheid, infamous for its assault on the dignity, freedom and
equality of black people. The main issue is whether the gratuitous display of that
symbol – the former South African flag (the old flag) – is harmful, incites harm,
and promotes and propagates hatred within the meaning of s 10(1) of the
Promotion of Equality and Prevention of Unfair Discrimination Act 4 of 2000
(the Equality Act).
[2] The appellant, Afriforum NPC (Afriforum), played a leading role in
nationwide demonstrations to protest against the murder of farmers, held on
Monday, 30 October 2017. They were called ‘the Black Monday protests’. It was
widely reported in the mainstream and social media that at some of these protests,
the old flag was displayed. These incidents led to a complaint against Afriforum
lodged by the first respondent, Nelson Mandela Foundation Trust (NMF), with
the Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg, sitting as an Equality
Court (the high court), that the display of the old flag at the Black Monday
protests was a contravention of the Equality Act.
[3] The second respondent, the Minister of Justice and Constitutional
Development (the Minister), and the third respondent, the Department of Justice
and Correctional Services, were joined as parties in the proceedings in the high
court. They were joined by the fourth respondent, the South African Human
Rights Commission (SAHRC), when it applied for an order declaring that s 10(1)
of the Equality Act was unconstitutional and invalid, to the extent that it restricted
the conduct proscribed by s 10(1) to ‘words’ only.
[4] The high court (Mojapelo DJP) did not issue the declaratory order sought
by the SAHRC. The court interpreted s 10(1) broadly and purposively in the light
of the objects of the Equality Act, namely that the prohibition of hate speech
includes any expression of ideas, whether by words or conduct. This
interpretation was confirmed by the Constitutional Court in Qwelane.1 The high
court determined that the display of the old flag at the Black Monday protests
constituted hate speech, unfair discrimination and harassment, within the
meaning of ss 10(1), 7 and 11 of the Equality Act. All the parties participated in
the appeal, save for two amici curiae that had been admitted by the high court.
The appeal is with the leave of this Court.
The facts
[5] The basic facts were largely undisputed and can be briefly stated. Mr Sello
Hatang, the NMF’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO), said that on the day of the
protests he was giving tourists a guided tour of Robben Island near Cape Town,
where former President Nelson Mandela and his fellow political prisoners had
been incarcerated. The displays of the old flag brought two painful memories of
Mr Hatang’s childhood to mind. The first was an incident during which two white
boys addressed Mr Hatang (then ten years of age) and his brother in the following
repulsive terms, ‘What are you kaffirs doing here?’2 His brother explained that
the ‘k-word’ denoted hatred for, and was used to humiliate black people. This is
how Mr Hatang described the effect of that incident on him:
‘It is my first vivid memory of being told that I was not only “other”, but less than human,
because of the colour of my skin.’
[6] The second memory was about Mr Hatang’s grandmother. She was a
domestic worker. She hated school holidays because she was subjected to racial
abuse by groups of idle white children. Mr Hatang, who used to accompany his
grandmother, would hear them singing, ‘Here comes a baboon’,3 referring to his
grandmother, as they walked past the children on their way to her place of work.
1 Qwelane v South African Human Rights Commission and Another [2021] ZACC 22 2021 (6) SA 579 (CC); 2022
(2) BCLR 129 (CC) paras 113-114.
2 The statement was uttered in Afrikaans: ‘Wat soek julle hier, Kaffirs?’
3 The abuse was hurled in Afrikaans: ‘Daar kom ‘n bobbejaan.’
She was powerless to do anything about the trauma and anguish she endured as a
result of this abuse.
[7] Mr Hatang recalled these memories because, as he put it, the old flag
‘represents nothing other than the inhumane system of racial segregation and
subjugation that governed South Africa before 27 April 1994’. He went on to say
that the gratuitous display of the old flag, more than a generation after the
abolition of apartheid, reminded him that some South Africans still see him and
black people as ‘other’ and would deny them the opportunity to be human. They
have no concern or compassion for the majority of South Africans who suffered
under apartheid.
[8] On the day of the Black Monday protests and subsequently, the NMF
received numerous media enquiries about its position on the displays of the old
flag. On 5 November 2017 the NMF issued a media statement in which it said
that it deplored the murder of farmers and respected the constitutional right of
South Africans to protest; that the display of the old flag and the burning of the
national flag was deeply problematic; that apartheid was a crime against
humanity; and that displaying the flag of apartheid South Africa represented
support for that crime. The media statement ended with the following question:
‘Is it time to criminalize displays of the old flag?’
[9] That question led to a debate on national television and radio, between
Mr Hatang and Mr Kallie Kriel, the CEO of Afriforum. Mr Kriel, surprisingly,
denied that the old flag had been displayed at any of the protests, dismissed
reports about such displays as ‘fake news’, and subsequently published
statements on Twitter to that effect. Afriforum, he said, discouraged its members
from bringing the old flag to public gatherings which detracted from ‘the main
message, which on Black Monday, was the issue of farm murders’. Mr Kriel
stated that although it was ‘unwise’ to display the old flag as it would ‘offend
people’; ‘it should not be unlawful’ as ‘it is part of history and you cannot ban
history’.
[10] Mr Hatang’s riposte was that both public and private displays of the old
flag were offensive, since they made young people believe that it is acceptable to
harbour racist views and then manifest them in public. Subsequently the NMF
launched the application in the high court for a declaratory order that any
gratuitous display of the old flag constitutes hate speech, unfair discrimination
and harassment under the Equality Act. The founding affidavit states that such
displays serve no genuine journalistic, academic or artistic purpose; and do
nothing to advance social justice, national unity and human dignity – to the
contrary.
[11] Afriforum’s response to the claim that gratuitous displays of the old flag
constitute hate speech, was that the relief sought was a ‘wide-reaching ban’.
Mr Ernst Roets, its Deputy CEO who made the answering affidavit, went on to
say this:
‘At the outset we acknowledge that the old South African flag has the capacity to cause offense
and emotional distress. As an organisation, we have no particular love for the flag or what it
represents. In the exceptionally rare instance that anyone participating in one of our events
brings an old flag with them, we ask them to put it away.’
[12] Afriforum opposed the application in the high court, essentially on the
ground that a ‘wide- reaching ban’ on public displays of the old flag ‘would be
an unconstitutional infringement of the right to freedom of expression’. It
contended that s 10(1) of the Equality Act regulated only ‘words’, not other forms
of expression such as symbols. Therefore, it did not regulate displays of the old
flag, which was neither speech, a call to action, nor incitement to cause harm. The
display of the old flag was not harassment under s 11 of the Equality Act, because
it did not amount to torment that was persistent and repetitive. Neither was it
unfair discrimination under s 7, since it was not the dissemination of information
and constituted protected speech in terms of the proviso in s 12 of the Equality
Act.
The decision of the high court
[13] The high court considered the history of the old flag and what it represents,
and came to the following conclusions. The Union Nationality and Flag Act 40
of 1927 (the Flag Act) was part of a statutory scheme designed to entrench racial
segregation and white supremacy. The old flag is a vivid symbol of white
supremacy and black disenfranchisement and oppression. The Flag Act was
repealed by the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa Act 31 of 1961. The
latter Act retained the old flag,4 entrenched electoral exclusion of everybody other
than ‘white persons’,5 and vested the State President with absolute authority over
‘Bantu affairs’, including ‘Bantu locations’.6
[14] The old flag was retained in the Republic of South Africa Constitution
Act 110 of 1983, which gave limited electoral rights to ‘Coloured’ and ‘Indian’
persons, but excluded black (African) people from the definition of South
Africa’s ‘population groups’, entitled to ‘self-determination’. The 1983
Constitution gave special protection to the old flag: it provided that any person
who ‘maliciously destroys or spoils the National Flag of the Republic’; or
‘commits any other act which is calculated to hold the National Flag of the
4 Section 5 of the South Africa Constitution Act 31 of 1961 (the 1961 Constitution).
5 Sections 34 and 46 of the 1961 Constitution restricted membership of the Senate and House of Assembly to
‘white persons’. Section 42 provided for the division of provinces into electoral divisions according to voters’
lists comprising ‘white voters’.
6 Section 111 of the 1961 Constitution, in relevant part, provided:
‘The control and administration of Bantu affairs and of matters specially or differentially affecting Asiatics
throughout the Republic shall vest in the State President, who shall exercise all those special powers in regard to
Bantu administration which immediately prior to the commencement of this Act were vested in the Governor-
General-in-Council of the Union of South Africa, and any lands which immediately prior to such commencement
vested in the said Governor-General-in-Council for the purpose of reserves of Bantu locations shall vest in the
State President . . .’
Republic in contempt . . . shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to
a fine not exceeding R10 000 or imprisonment for a period not exceeding five
years’.7 It was only in 1994 that the old flag was replaced by the current flag, with
the end of apartheid and the coming into force of the Interim Constitution.
[15] The high court found that any gratuitous display of the old flag, aside from
being racist and discriminatory, demonstrates a clear intention to be hurtful; to be
harmful and to incite harm; and to promote and propagate hatred against black
people, in contravention of s 10(1) of the Equality Act. Such a display constitutes
hate speech and is ‘divisive, retrogressive and destructive of our nascent non-
racial democracy, the constitutional values of human dignity and equality and the
building of a society united in its diversity’.
[16] The high court made a determination, in terms of s 21(1) of the Equality
Act, that the display of the old flag (introduced on 31 May 1928 and used
throughout apartheid until it was abolished on 27 April 1994) at the Black
Monday protests, constituted hate speech, unfair discrimination and harassment.
The high court then issued a declaratory order in terms of s 21(2), that subject to
the proviso in s 12 of the Equality Act, any display of the old flag constitutes hate
speech within the meaning of s 10(1); unfair discrimination on the basis of race
in terms of s 7; and harassment in terms of s 11 of that Act.
[17] Afriforum challenged the high court’s order, mainly on the following
grounds. The court did not have the power to grant the relief sought. The matter
was not ripe for hearing. Public displays of the old flag are protected under the
rights to freedom of expression, dignity and freedom of assembly; and do not
constitute hate speech, unfair discrimination or harassment as envisaged in the
Equality Act. Private displays of the flag are protected by the right to privacy.
7 Section 92(1) of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa Act 110 of 1983.
[18] At the outset it is convenient to deal with the argument that the high court’s
order infringes the rights to dignity8 and freedom of assembly9 of those who
publicly display the old flag. Save for quoting various excerpts from decisions of
the Constitutional Court and other courts, Afriforum failed to make out a case in
its answering papers, or to demonstrate in its written or oral submissions why a
prohibition of gratuitous displays of the old flag violates these rights.
[19] Afriforum did not explain how the display of the old flag implicates or
infringes the right to dignity of the persons displaying it. This, especially when
the founding affidavit made it clear that gratuitous displays of the old flag ‘do
nothing to advance social justice, national unity and human dignity’; and that such
displays were egregious examples of conduct that undermined equality and
human dignity. Neither did Afriforum assert that it is impossible for, or an
impediment to, its followers and others to assemble, demonstrate, picket or
petition, without displaying the old flag. This is simply because the rights to
dignity and freedom of assembly of persons who gratuitously display the old flag,
are not implicated at all.
The procedural defences
[20] Afriforum argued that an equality court is a creature of statute and has no
power to grant relief in respect of ‘prospective conduct that has not yet taken
place’. The case brought by the NMF, so it was argued, was not directed at the
displays of the old flag at the Black Monday protests and those who displayed it,
but at future displays of the flag.
8 Section 10 of the Constitution 108 of 1996 provides:
‘Everyone has inherent dignity and the right to have their dignity respected and protected.’
9 Section 17 of the Constitution states:
‘Everyone has the right, peacefully and unarmed, to assemble, to demonstrate, to picket and to present petitions.’
[21] Afriforum however disregards the role of the Equality Court in facilitating
access to justice for the victims of hate speech, unfair discrimination and
harassment. As Navsa JA said in Manong:10
‘It is abundantly clear that the Equality Court was established in order to provide easy access
to justice and to enable even the most disadvantaged individuals or communities to walk off
the street, as it were, into the portals of the Equality Court to seek speedy redress against unfair
discrimination, through less formal procedures.’
[22] But fundamentally, Afriforum ignores the broad powers conferred on the
court by the Equality Act. The powers and functions of the Equality Court are set
out in s 21 of the Equality Act. Section 21(2) provides that after holding an
inquiry, ‘the court may make an appropriate order in the circumstances’,
including a declaratory order. This is hardly surprising. In Rail Commuters Action
Group,11 the Constitutional Court stated that ‘a declaratory order is a flexible
remedy which can assist in clarifying legal and constitutional obligations in a
manner that promotes the protection and enforcement of the Constitution and its
values’. In addition, s 21(5) of the Equality Act emphasises that the Court ‘has all
ancillary powers necessary or reasonably incidental to the performance of its
functions and the exercise of its powers, including the power to grant
interlocutory orders or interdicts’.
[23] In Minister of Environmental Affairs and Tourism v George,12 this Court
considered the nature of an equality court relative to a high court. It held that the
Equality Act ‘vests equality courts with extensive procedural and remedial
powers in complaints of unfair discrimination’, and that ‘the equality court is not
a wholly novel structure, but is a High Court or a designated magistrates’ court’.
Apart from the specific powers which the Equality Act confers, the only
10 Manong and Associates (Pty) Ltd v Department of Roads and Transport, Eastern Cape and Others [2009]
ZASCA 50; 2009 (6) SA 589 (SCA); [2009] 3 All SA 528 (SCA) para 53.
11 Rail Commuters Action Group and Others v Transnet Ltd t/a Metrorail [2004] ZACC 20; 2005 (2) SA 359
(CC); 2005 (4) BCLR 301 (CC) para 107 at 410D-E.
12 Minister of Environmental Affairs and Tourism v George and Others 2007 (3) SA 62 (SCA) paras 3-4.
distinction between a high court and an equality court is that the presiding Judges
or magistrates must have undergone ‘social context training’.
[24] The Equality Court is a specialised court with expedited rules and an
informal procedure. It applies different evidential thresholds to that of a high
court.13 The object of the Equality Act is to make the Equality Court as accessible
as possible. The formal, adversarial court processes of other courts, which are
often costly and potentially intimidating, have no place in the Equality Court.14
Proceedings may be instituted by any person acting in their own interest or any
person acting on behalf of another who cannot act in their own name.15 The
Regulations made under the Equality Act prescribe the procedures to be followed
at an inquiry, and create an informal court system which places substance above
form or technicality.16
[25] The Equality Act obliges an equality court in which proceedings are
instituted to hold an inquiry in the manner prescribed in the regulations and to
‘determine whether unfair discrimination, hate speech or harassment . . . has taken
place, as alleged’.17 That is precisely what happened in this case. The NMF’s
complaint about the displays of the old flag at the Black Monday protests and
their impact on the complainant and others, were set out in the affidavit filed in
support of the complaint. That evidence was never challenged. Afriforum only
disputed the contention that the display of the old flag was unlawful. The high
court granted declaratory relief based on the evidence before it. But the court also
declared that the displays of the old flag at the Black Monday protests, as a matter
of fact, constituted hate speech, unfair discrimination and harassment. It was
empowered to do so under s 21(2) of the Equality Act.
13 AS v Neotel (Pty) Ltd [2018] ZAEQC 1; 2019 (1) SA 622 (GJ) para 10.
14 George and Others v Minister of Environmental Affairs and Tourism 2005 (6) SA 297 (EqC) para 12.
15 Section 20 of the Equality Act.
16 J A Kok, A Socio-Legal Analysis of the Promotion of Equality and Prevention of Unfair Discrimination Act
4 of 2000 (2007, unpublished doctoral dissertation, University of Pretoria) 145.
17 Section 21(1) of the Equality Act; George fn 12 para 5.
[26] It follows that there was nothing abstract, academic or hypothetical about
the NMF’s complaint. It was based on actual contraventions of the Equality Act,
and grounded in concrete events at which the old flag was displayed. Afriforum’s
argument to the contrary, in reliance on JT Publishing,18 is misconceived.
[27] For the same reasons, Afriforum’s argument based on the doctrine of
ripeness, namely that a court deals with situations that have already ripened or
crystallised, and not with prospective or hypothetical ones,19 is unsustainable.
Apart from this, the old flag is displayed from time to time. It was again displayed
at the Black Monday protests. There is a public controversy about the lawfulness
of doing so. The purpose of the application by the NMF and the SAHRC was to
resolve that very controversy for the benefit of all. Declaratory orders by their
very nature, are often directed at conduct that has not yet occurred. But they are
vital in the right context, specifically to address issues of public importance or
involving a compelling public interest. The Constitutional Court has held that
declaratory orders ‘can bring clarity and finality to disputes that may, if
unresolved, have far-reaching consequences for each party’.20 So, even if there
had not been an actual infringement of the Equality Act, this is precisely the kind
of case in which a declaratory order of the sort issued by the high court is apposite.
[28] In any event, it is legitimate for the SAHRC to say: there has been a public
display of the old flag but it does not wish to bring proceedings against the
individuals who displayed the flag on that occasion, but seeks instead, in the
public interest, that a principle be established that the gratuitous display of the old
flag is unlawful. Such an approach is entirely consonant with a guiding principle
18 JT Publishing (Pty) Ltd and Another v Minister of Safety and Security and Others 1997 (3) SA 514 (CC) para 15.
19 Ferreira v Levin NO and Others; Vryenhoek and Others v Powell NO and Others 1996 (1) SA 984 (CC)
para 199.
20 Competition Commission v Hosken Consolidated Investments Ltd and Another [2019] ZACC 2; 2019 (4) BCLR
470 (CC); 2019 (3) SA 1 (CC) para 78.
of the Equality Act: to take measures to eliminate unfair systemic discrimination
and inequalities.21 As the Constitutional Court stated in Qwelane:
‘Our Constitution requires that we not only be reactive to incidences or systems of unfair
discrimination, but also pre-emptive. We need to act after the damage has occurred where so
required but, importantly, we are also required to act to ensure that it does not occur.’22
The values underpinning the prohibition of hate speech
[29] The starting point for an analysis of the meaning and effect of s 10(1) of
the Equality Act, is the Bill of Rights in the Constitution. It contains the
fundamental rights to freedom of expression, equality and dignity. Section 10(1),
which effectively proscribes hate speech, is inextricably linked to these rights. As
the Constitutional Court said in Islamic Unity Convention,23 the State has a direct
interest in regulating hate speech ‘because of the harm it may pose to the
constitutionally mandated objective of building a non-racial and non-sexist
society based on human dignity and the achievement of equality’.
[30] Section 16(1) of the Constitution guarantees the right of freedom of
expression to all persons.24 Freedom of expression is fundamental to most other
rights and freedoms, and quintessential of democracy.25 However, expression
can, and often does, infringe upon the rights and interests of others. This is
21 Section 4(2) of the Equality Act.
22 Qwelane fn 1 para 110.
23 Islamic Unity Convention v Independent Broadcasting Authority and Others 2002 (4) SA 294 (CC) para 33.
24 Section 16 of the Constitution provides:
‘Freedom of expression
(1) Everyone has the right to freedom of expression, which includes-
(a) freedom of the press and other media;
(b) freedom to receive or impart information or ideas;
(c) freedom of artistic creativity; and
(d) academic freedom and freedom of scientific research.
(2) The right in subsection (1) does not extend to-
(a) propaganda for war;
(b) incitement of imminent violence; or
(c) advocacy of hatred that is based on race, ethnicity, gender or religion, and that constitutes incitement to
cause harm.’
25 Economic Freedom Fighters and Another v Minister of Justice and Correctional Services and Another [2020]
ZACC 25; 2021 SACR 387 (CC); 2021 (2) SA 1 (CC); 2021 (2) BCLR 118 (CC) paras 1 and 95; Democratic
Alliance v African National Congress and Another [2015] ZACC 1; 2015 (2) SA 232 (CC); 2015 (3) BCLR 298
paras 122-123; S v Mamabolo (E TV and Others Intervening) 2001 (3) SA 409 (CC) para 37.
recognised in s 16(2) of the Constitution, which excludes hate speech from the
right to freedom of expression. It does so, as the Constitutional Court emphasised
in Qwelane, because ‘[h]ate speech is the antithesis of the values envisioned by
the right to free speech – whereas the latter advances democracy, hate speech is
destructive of democracy’;26 and it ‘undermines the constitutional project of
substantive equality and acceptance in our society’.27
[31] The Equality Act is the legislation mandated by s 9 of the Constitution to
prevent unfair discrimination and to promote the achievement of equality.28
Equality among all people who live in South Africa is at the heart of the
Constitution.29 This is emphasised throughout the Constitution, particularly in the
founding values in s 1.30
[32] Human dignity informs the interpretation of all other rights, including the
rights to freedom of expression and equality.31 In Qwelane,32 the Constitutional
Court described the impact of hate speech on the right to dignity as follows:
‘Hate speech is one of the most devastating modes of subverting the dignity and self-worth of
human beings. This is so because hate speech marginalises and delegitimises individuals based
on their membership of a group. This may diminish their social standing in the broader society,
outside of the group they identify with. It can ignite exclusion, hostility, discrimination and
violence against them.’
26 Qwelane fn 1 para 78.
27 Qwelane fn 1 para 130.
28 Qwelane fn 1 para 48. Section 9(1) read with s 9(4) of the Constitution requires Parliament to enact legislation
to ‘prevent and prohibit unfair discrimination’.
29 Du Preez v Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development and Others [2006] 3 All SA 271 (SE) para 12.
30 Section 1 of the Constitution, in relevant part, reads:
‘Republic of South Africa
The Republic of South Africa is one, sovereign, democratic state founded on the following values:
(a) Human dignity, the achievement of equality and the advancement of human rights and freedoms.
(b) Non-racialism and non-sexism.’
31 Dawood and Another v Minister of Home Affairs and Others; Shalabi and Another v Minister of Home Affairs
and Others; Thomas and Another v Minister of Home affairs and Others 2000 (3) SA 936 (CC) para 35.
32 Qwelane fn 1 para 1.
Section 10(1) of the Equality Act: hate speech
[33] In terms of the Constitutional Court’s order in Qwelane,33 the prohibition
of hate speech in s 10(1) of the Equality Act now reads:
‘Subject to the proviso in section 12, no person may publish, propagate, advocate or
communicate words that are based on one or more of the prohibited grounds, against any
person, that could reasonably be construed to demonstrate a clear intention to be harmful or to
incite harm; and to promote or propagate hatred.’34
[34] As already stated, the high court interpreted s 10(1) broadly and
purposively in the light of the objects of the Equality Act and the underlying
constitutional imperatives. Its interpretation means that any expression of ideas,
whether by word or conduct, is included in the prohibition in s 10(1). In approving
this interpretation, the Constitutional Court stated that ‘[t]his wide meaning
accords not only with our Constitution, but also with the provisions of the
Equality Act. And it is consonant with international law and comparative foreign
law’.35
[35] The Equality Act itself states what factors should be considered in its
application. Section 4(2) provides:
‘In the application of this Act the following should be recognised and taken into account:
(a) The existence of systemic discrimination and inequalities, particularly in respect of race,
gender and disability in all spheres of life as a result of past and present unfair discrimination,
brought about by colonialism, the apartheid system and patriarchy; and
(b) the need to take measures at all levels to eliminate such discrimination and inequalities.’
[36] When the amended prohibition of hate speech in s 10(1) is read with the
proviso in s 12 of the Equality Act, it proscribes expression: (a) that constitutes
33 Paragraph 1(d) of the order in Qwelane, fn 1. Prior to this order, s 10(1) proscribed the publication, propagation
or communication of words based on a prohibited ground, that could reasonably be construed to demonstrate a
clear intention to ‘be hurtful’.
34 Qwelane fn 1 at 3 of the judgment.
35 Qwelane fn 1 para 113.
publication, propagation or communication of words; (b) based on one or more
of the prohibited grounds against any person; (c) that could reasonably be
construed to demonstrate a clear intention to be harmful or to incite harm, and to
promote or propagate hatred; and (d) provided that bona fide engagement in
artistic creativity, academic and scientific enquiry, fair and accurate reporting in
the public interest or publication of any information, is excluded. In what follows,
each of these elements of s 10(1) are considered in turn.
(a)
The publication, propagation or communication of words
[37] In Qwelane the Constitutional Court held that the use of the terms
‘advocate’ and ‘propagate’ in the section ‘is indicative of ideas rather than words,
if they are to be accorded their full meaning’.36 These two concepts suggest that
the intention is to give effect to article 4 of the International Convention on the
Elimination of all forms of Racial Discrimination (ICERD) and s 16(2)(c) of the
Constitution, which are concerned with racist ‘propaganda’ and the ‘advocacy’
of hatred.37
[38] The concept ‘communicate’ denotes ‘the conveyance of ideas’, and all the
verbs used in the section require some form of public transmission or
dissemination.38 The prohibition extends to the expression of ideas by conduct. It
targets the ‘meaning behind the words, and not simply the words’.39 There is no
question that the gratuitous public display of the old flag constitutes the
publication, propagation, advocacy, or communication of a message, within the
meaning of s 10(1) of the Equality Act.
36 Qwelane fn 1 para 114.
37 Ibid.
38 Qwelane fn 1 para 115.
39 Ibid.
(b)
based on one or more of the prohibited grounds
[39] The message conveyed by gratuitous public displays of the old flag is
plainly one based on race – apartheid and white supremacy. Indeed, this is
common ground. Afriforum did not take issue with the impact of the gratuitous
displays of the old flag on Mr Hatang or black people generally. And as stated, it
acknowledged that the old flag causes offence and emotional distress. That is why
it asks its followers to put away the old flag at Afriforum events, and not to
display it.
[40] The old flag is an awful reminder of the anguish suffered by millions of
people under apartheid South Africa before the advent of democracy in 1994. It
symbolises, clearly and painfully, the policy and manifestation of apartheid. In
fact, Afriforum’s answering affidavit states: ‘During Apartheid the old flag was
held aloft as a symbol of the past regime’s power. At the time it was seen as a
constant reminder of an oppressive and racist system’. As stated in the founding
affidavit of the SAHRC, the old flag represents precisely that racist and repressive
regime, and the dehumanising ideologies espoused during its rule – the racial
superiority of white South Africans and the corresponding inferiority of black
South Africans.
[41] As a revered icon of apartheid, the old flag represents hate, pain and trauma
for most people, particularly black South Africans. The gratuitous public displays
by people of the old flag – a provocative symbol of repression, authoritarianism
and racial hatred – brings into unmistakeable view their affinity and mourning for
the apartheid regime, characterised by its degrading, oppressive and undignified
treatment of black South Africans. The message conveyed is a longing for the
days of apartheid and the restoration of white minority rule.
(c)
reasonably be construed to demonstrate a clear intention to be harmful
or to incite harm, and to promote or propagate hatred
[42] The Constitutional Court has held that this is an objective test. The question
is whether a reasonable person in the circumstances surrounding the expression,
would reasonably construe the words or conduct as demonstrating an intention to
be harmful, incite harm or propagate hatred.40
[43] The emphasis is on the ‘effects of the hate speech, not the intent’.41 In this
regard, the Constitutional Court observed that ‘systemic discrimination tends to
be more widespread than intentional discrimination’:
‘This Court has acknowledged that “systemic motifs of discrimination” are part of the fabric
of our society. This analysis is apt when considering the philosophical underpinnings of hate
speech prohibitions that attach civil liability, coupled with the role of hate speech and systemic
discrimination in this country.’42
[44] The objects of the intention – to be harmful or incite harm, or to promote
or propagate hatred – must be read conjunctively.43 However, the section
distinguishes between the concepts, ‘harmful’ and ‘to incite harm’, which the
Constitutional Court referred to as ‘clear disjunctive terms’.44 Accordingly,
s 10(1) prohibits expression that harms or ‘evokes a reasonable apprehension of
harm to the target group’.45 The incitement of harm and the promotion or
40 Qwelane fn 1 paras 96-101.
41 Qwelane fn 1 para 100, emphasis in the original.
42 Ibid, emphasis in the original. The Constitutional Court endorsed the approach in Saskatchewan (Human Rights
Commission) v Whatcott 2012 SCC 11; [2013] 1 SCR 467 (Whatcott) para 126, in which the Supreme Court of
Canada stated:
‘The preoccupation with the effects, and not with intent, is readily explicable when one considers that systemic
discrimination is much more widespread in our society than is intentional discrimination. To import a subjective
intent requirement into human rights provisions, rather than allowing tribunals to focus solely upon effects, would
thus defeat one of the primary goals of the anti-discrimination statute.’
43 Qwelane fn 1 paras 102-110.
44 Qwelane fn 1 para 112.
45 Ibid.
propagation of hatred are the key elements of hate speech,46 since freedom of
expression requires tolerance of speech that shocks and offends.47
[45] The requirement that speech ‘be harmful or incite harm’ does not require a
causal link to be established between the speech and subsequent actions taken
against individuals or groups at whom the speech is targeted. Requiring such a
causal link would be contrary to and undermine the provisions of the Equality
Act, ‘in that not every instance of harmful . . . speech will result in imminent
violence’. However, the fact that it does not result in imminent violence does not
detract from the reality that such expression would constitute hate speech.48
[46] The Constitutional Court has held that racist speech is particularly
egregious. In Rustenburg Platinum Mine, it said:49
‘Our Constitution rightly acknowledges that our past is one of deep societal divisions
characterised by strife, conflict, untold suffering and injustice. Racism and racial prejudices
have not disappeared overnight, and they stem, as demonstrated in our history, from a
misconceived view that some are superior to others. These prejudices do not only manifest
themselves with regard to race but it can be seen with reference to gender discrimination.’
[47] Racist conduct, the Constitutional Court said in South African Revenue
Service,50 must be dealt with firmly:
‘[R]acist conduct requires a very firm and unapologetic response from the courts, particularly
the highest courts. Courts cannot therefore afford to shirk their constitutional obligation or
spurn the opportunities they have to contribute meaningfully towards the eradication of racism
and its tendencies’
46 In the light of the judgment in Qwelane, which removed the requirement that hate speech must also ‘be hurtful’.
47 Following the judgment in Qwelane, which removed the requirement that it must also ‘be hurtful’.
48 Qwelane fn 1 para 111.
49 Rustenburg Platinum Mine v SAEWA obo Bester [2018] ZACC 13; 2018 (5) SA 78 (CC); 2018 (8) BCLR 951
(CC) para 52.
50 South African Revenue Service v Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration and Others [2016]
ZACC 38; 2017 (1) SA 549 (CC); 2017 (1) BCLR 241 (CC) para 14.
[48] These two cases, it was held in Qwelane,51 ‘demonstrate the presence of
deeply rooted structural subordination in relation to race’. The Court went on to
say:
‘In these cases, the Court underscored how facially innocuous words or notorious words have
to be understood based on the different structural positions in post-apartheid South African
society. This is an approach which takes cognisance of how words perpetuate and contribute
towards systemic disadvantage and inequalities. In essence, this is the corollary of our
substantive equality demands that flow from the Constitution. The purpose of hate speech
regulation in South Africa is inextricably linked to our constitutional object of healing the
injustices of the past and establishing a more egalitarian society. This is done by curtailing
speech which is part and parcel of the system of subordination of vulnerable and marginalised
groups in South Africa.52
[49] The message communicated by gratuitous public displays of the old flag is
not innocuous, let alone facially innocuous. Rather, those who publicly hold up
or wave the old flag, convey a brazen, destructive message that they celebrate and
long for the racism of our past, in which only white people were treated as first-
class citizens while black people were denigrated and demeaned. It is a
glorification and veneration of the hate-filled system that contributed to most of
the ills that beset our society today. The message is aimed at intimidating those
who suffered, and continue to suffer, the ravages of apartheid; and poses a direct
challenge to the new constitutional order. This, when, as stated in the Minister’s
affidavit, it has been determined that apartheid is a crime against humanity.53 And
51 Qwelane fn 1 para 86.
52 Ibid.
53 The International Convention on the Suppression and Punishment of the Crime of Apartheid, 1976 (Gen
Assembly Res 3068/1976 Article I(1) and the Rome Statute Article 7(2)(h) states:
‘The States Parties to the present Convention declare that apartheid is a crime against humanity and that inhuman
acts resulting from the policies and practices of apartheid and similar policies and practices of racial segregation
and discrimination, as defined in article II of the Convention, are crimes violating the principles of international
law, in particular the purposes and principles of the Charter of the United Nations, and constituting a serious threat
to international peace and security. The Rome Statute describes the crime of apartheid as, “inhumane acts of a
character similar to those referred to in paragraph 1, committed in the context of an institutionalized regime of
systematic oppression and domination by one racial group over any other racial group or groups and committed
with intention of maintaining that regime”.’ In 1984 the UN Security Council at its 2560th meeting, endorsed this
Resolution (SC Resolution 556 (1984) of 23 October 1984).
when Afriforum itself states: ‘Most South Africans recoil from the old flag and
openly denounce Apartheid as a crime against humanity’.
[50] Such displays of the old flag are calculated to be harmful: it results in ‘deep
emotional and psychological harm that severely undermines the dignity of the
targeted group’54 – black people. It also incites harm: it is able to ignite exclusion,
hostility, discrimination and violence against them.55 It can, ‘have a severely
negative impact on the individual’s sense of self-worth and acceptance. This
impact may cause the target group members to take drastic measures in reaction,
perhaps avoiding activities which bring them into contact with non-group
members or adopting attitudes and postures directed towards blending in with the
majority’.56 This, in turn, not only perpetuates systemic disadvantage and
inequalities, but also obstructs the constitutionally mandated objective of building
a non-racial society based on human dignity and the achievement of equality; and
impairs the pursuit of national unity and reconciliation.57 In short, hate speech
tears at the very fabric of our society.58
[51] That brings me to last element of s 10(1) of the Equality Act: the promotion
or propagation of hatred. The word ‘promote’ in this context, means to ‘further
or encourage the progress or existence of’ hatred.59 To ‘propagate’ means to
‘extend the bounds of’, ‘spread (esp. an idea, practice, etc.) from place to place’,60
or ‘promulgate; disseminate’61 hatred.
54 Qwelane fn 1 para 154.
55 Qwelane fn 1 para 1.
56 R v Keegstra [1990] 3 SCR 697 at 746i-j, approved in Qwelane fn1 para 154.
57 Islamic Unity Convention fn 23 paras 28 and 33; Qwelane fn 1 para 1.
58 Qwelane fn 1 para 1.
59 Collins English Dictionary online at www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionaryenglishpromote (accessed on
14 April 2023).
60 L Brown The New Shorter Oxford English Dictionary on Historical Principles (3 ed 1993) Vol 2 at 2378.
61 Collins English Dictionary online at www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionaryenglishpromote (accessed on
14 April 2023).
[52] The Constitutional Court, with reference to three Canadian cases, held that
hate speech is not merely offensive expression, but ‘extreme detestation and
vilification which risks provoking discriminatory activities’ against the target
group. The first of these cases, Canada v Taylor,62 defined ‘hatred’ as, ‘strong
and deep felt emotions of detestation, calumny and vilification’. In the second,
R v Andrews,63 it was said that ‘[t]o promote hatred is to instill detestation,
enmity, ill-will and malevolence in another’. Finally, in R v Keegstra, the court
stated that hatred is ‘the most severe and deeply felt form of opprobrium’, that ‘is
predicated on destruction, and hatred against identifiable groups therefore thrives
on insensitivity, bigotry and destruction of both the target group and the values
of our society’.64
[53] The gratuitous public display of the old flag is extremely degrading and
dehumanising to those who suffered under apartheid. This was not disputed by
Afriforum as the high court noted in its judgment. The display exposes those who
suffered to racial bigotry, detestation and vilification, and inspires hatred and
extreme ill-will against them. The message being sent, intentionally, is that life
in South Africa was better under apartheid and black people are to be
downtrodden, despised and denied their humanity, solely on account of their race.
There is no escaping it: the message legitimises white supremacy.
[54] It is therefore unsurprising that white supremacists around the world have
adopted and used the old flag as a symbol of hatred, oppression, and racial
superiority. The founding affidavit of the SAHRC refers to the case of the
convicted murderer, 21-year old Mr Dylann Roof (Roof), who shot and killed
nine black people gathered for a Bible study in Charleston, South Carolina in the
United States, in June 2015. He posted a photograph on the internet, annexed to
62 Canada (Human Rights Commission) v Taylor [1990] 3 SCR 892 at 928.
63 R v Andrews [1990] 3 SCR 697 at 870.
64 R v Keegstra fn 56 at fn 700 and 777 of the judgment.
the affidavit, which shows him wearing a black jacket with two conspicuous
patches affixed to the right front of it: the old flag and below it, the flag of white-
ruled Rhodesia, which was forced to concede power to a non-racial democracy,
now Zimbabwe. Roof’s choice of symbols and the murder of black worshippers,
could hardly send a stronger message of white supremacy and hatred.
[55] The United States Court of Appeals for the Fourth Circuit upheld Roof’s
conviction on, inter alia, ‘nine counts of racially motivated hate crimes resulting
in death’.65 The Court’s description of Roof’s claim of white supremacy and
hatred that caused him to commit these heinous crimes, is chilling:
‘He also used the internet to propagate his racist ideology. In a journal that the police found in
Roof’s home, Roof had written the name of a website he had created. The website was hosted
by a foreign internet server, to which Roof made monthly payments. Hours before the
shootings, Roof uploaded racist material to the website. The website included hyperlinks to
text and photos. The text linked to a document where Roof expressed his virulent racist
ideology, claimed white superiority, and called African Americans “stupid and violent.” He
discussed black-on-white crime, claiming it was a crisis that the media ignored. He issued a
call to action, explaining that it was not “too late” to take America back and “by no means
should we wait any longer to take drastic action.” He stated that nobody “was doing anything
but talking on the internet,” that “someone has to have the bravery to take it to the real world,”
and “I guess that has to be me.” ’66
[56] For the above reasons, any gratuitous public display of the old flag satisfies
the requirement of promoting and propagating hatred as envisaged in s 10(1) of
the Equality Act. It provides fertile ground for the violence and brutality of
racism. No wonder the Equality Act is aimed at ‘the eradication of unfair
discrimination, hate speech and harassment, particularly on the grounds of
race’.67
65 United States of America v Dylann Storm Roof decided on 25 August, 2021 225 F. Supp. 3D413 (D.S.C. 2016).
66 US v Roof fn 65 4623–4627.
67 Section 2(c) of the Equality Act, emphasis added.
(d)
The proviso in section 12
[57] The prohibition of hate speech in s 10 is subject to the proviso in s 12 of
the Equality Act.68 The high court therefore rightly made its declaratory order
subject to s 12, ie that a display of the old flag for artistic, academic or journalistic
purposes, is not prohibited.
[58] Afriforum argued that the high court’s order constitutes a ‘wide-reaching
ban’ on the display of the old flag, and an unconstitutional infringement of the
right to freedom of expression. The argument is groundless. The high court
emphasised that the NMF had not sought an order banning the old flag, but that
its public display be confined to genuine artistic, academic or journalistic
expression in the public interest. For this reason, the court did not impose a
wholesale ban on displays of the old flag. Instead, it declared that displays of the
old flag that do not fall within the proviso in s 12, constitute hate speech, unfair
discrimination and harassment.
Section 7 of the Equality Act: unfair discrimination
[59] In terms of the Equality Act, ‘discrimination’ includes any act, omission or
situation which imposes disadvantage on any person on one or more of the
prohibited grounds’. For present purposes, the prohibited ground is race. Section
7(a) provides:
‘Prohibition of unfair discrimination on grounds of race
Subject to section 6, no person may unfairly discriminate against any person on the ground of
race, including-
68 Section 12 of the Equality Act provides:
‘Prohibition of dissemination and publication of information that unfairly discriminates
No person may-
(a) disseminate or broadcast any information;
(b) publish or display any advertisement or notice,
that could reasonably be construed or reasonably be understood to demonstrate a clear intention to unfairly
discriminate against any person: Provided that bona fide engagement in artistic creativity, academic and scientific
inquiry, fair and accurate reporting in the public interest or publication of any information, advertisement or notice
in accordance with section 16 of the Constitution, is not precluded by this section.’
(a) the dissemination of any propaganda or idea, which propounds the racial superiority or
inferiority of any person, including incitement to, or participation in, any form of racial
violence;’69
[60] As in the case of hate speech in terms of s 10(1) of the Equality Act, the
prohibitions of unfair discrimination on the ground of race and harassment, are
statutory delicts actionable in the Equality Court.70 The elements of these
statutory delicts must be established objectively,71 on a balance of probabilities.72
[61] Section 13(1) requires a respondent to show the absence of racial
discrimination. It reads:
‘Burden of proof
(1) If the complainant makes out a prima facie case of discrimination-
(a) the respondent must prove, on the facts before the court, that the discrimination did
not take place as alleged; or
(b) the respondent must prove that the conduct is not based on one or more of the
prohibited grounds.
(2) If the discrimination did take place-
(a) on a ground in paragraph (a) of the definition of “prohibited grounds”, then it is
unfair, unless the respondent proves that the discrimination is fair;
(b) on a ground in paragraph (b) of the definition of “prohibited grounds”, then it is
unfair-
(i) if one or more of the conditions set out in paragraph (b) of the definition of
“prohibited grounds” is established; and
(ii) unless the respondent proves that the discrimination is fair.’
69 Section 6 of the Equality Act contains a general prohibition of unfair discrimination. It states: ‘Neither the State
nor any person may unfairly discriminate against any person.’
70 Qwelane fn 1 para 95
71 Qwelane fn 1 paras 96-101.
72 Social Justice Coalition and Others v Minister of Police and Others [2018] ZAWCHC 181; 2019 (4) SA 82
(WCC) paras 67-68.
[62] Section 14(2) provides that in deciding whether a respondent has proved
that the discrimination is fair, the context and the factors referred to in
subsection (3) must be taken into account. These factors include the following:
‘(a) whether the discrimination impairs or is likely to impair human dignity;
(b) the impact of likely impact of the discrimination on the complainant;
(c) the position of the complainant in society and whether he or she suffers from patterns of
disadvantage or belongs to a group that suffers from such patterns of disadvantage;
(d) the nature and extent of the discrimination;
(e) whether the discrimination is systemic in nature;
. . .’
[63] The evidence established that the displays of the old flag at the Black
Monday protests propounded the racial superiority of white people and the racial
inferiority of black people. Having regard to the factors listed in ss 14(2) and (3)
of the Equality Act, the public displays of the old flag at the Black Monday
protests were plainly actual, and not merely prima facie, proof of racial
discrimination. Afriforum did not challenge this evidence; neither did it adduce
any evidence to show that the discrimination did not take place, nor that the public
displays of the old flag were not based on race, as required by s 13(1).
[64] It follows that the gratuitous public display of the old flag constitutes unfair
discrimination based on race, within the meaning of s 7 of the Equality Act. This
interpretation, and that of s 10(1) referred to above, accords with the objects of
the Act, which include facilitating compliance with the State’s treaty obligations
under the ICERD and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
(ICCPR), that are binding on this country.73 South Africa ratified the ICERD on
9 January 1999, and the ICCPR on 10 December 1998.
73 In terms of s 2(h) of the Equality Act, its objects include ‘compliance with international law obligations
including treaty obligations in terms of, amongst others, the Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Racial
Discrimination and the Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination against Women’. The
preamble to the Act also refers to South Africa’s international obligations under binding treaties and customary
international law.
[65] The ICERD obliges State Parties to take positive measures to eradicate all
incitement of racial hatred or acts of discrimination in any form; and to declare
all dissemination of ideas based on racial superiority, hatred, discrimination, acts
of violence and incitement to such acts, offences punishable by law.74 The ICCPR
prohibits ‘any advocacy’ of racial hatred ‘that constitutes incitement to
discrimination’.75
Section 11 of the Equality Act: harassment
[66] Section 11 of the Equality Act states:
‘No person may subject any person to harassment.’
The Act defines ‘harassment’ as,
‘unwanted conduct which is persistent or serious and demeans, humiliates or creates a hostile
and intimidating environment or is calculated to induce submission by actual or threatened
adverse consequences and which is related to-
(a) sex, gender or sexual orientation;
(b) a person’s membership or presumed membership of a group identified by one or more of
the prohibited grounds or a characteristic associated with such group;’
[67] The high court correctly concluded that Afriforum’s argument that the
display of the flag did not constitute harassment because it did not amount to
torment that was persistent and repetitive, was unsound. In the light of the
evidence that any gratuitous public display of the old flag seriously demeans,
humiliates and creates a hostile and intimidating environment for victims of
74 Article 4 of the ICERD provides:
‘State parties condemn all propaganda and all organisations which are based on ideas or theories of superiority of
one race or group of persons of one colour or ethnic origin, or which attempt to justify or promote racial hatred
and discrimination in any form, and undertake to adopt immediate and positive measures designed to eradicate all
incitement to, or acts of such discrimination and, to this end, with due regard to the principles embodied in the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the rights expressly set forth in article 5 of this Convention, inter alia:
(a)
shall declare an offence punishable by law all dissemination of ideas based on racial superiority or hatred,
incitement to racial discrimination, as well as acts of violence or incitement to such acts against any race
or group of persons of another colour or ethnic origin, and also the provision of any assistance to racist
activities, including the financing thereof.
75 Article 20 para 2 of the ICCPR provides that ‘[a]ny advocacy of national, racial or religious hatred that
constitutes incitement to discrimination, hostility or violence shall be prohibited by law’.
apartheid, particularly black people, the finding that such a display constitutes
harassment under s 11, cannot be faulted.
[68] Before us, Afriforum conceded that a display of the old flag could be used
to harass a person, but argued that not all displays envisaged in the high court’s
order would constitute harassment. It cited the private display of the flag, which
is not aimed at any person, as an example of this. In cases where all those
witnessing the display are willing participants, so it was argued, they would also
not be subject to unwanted conduct and none of them would have been harassed.
However, Afriforum misses the point. It is the gratuitous public display of the old
flag that constitutes harassment as defined in the Equality Act. It cannot be
suggested that those who witness the display of the old flag in the privacy of a
home, are all ‘willing participants’. They may or may not subscribe to the racist
ideology that the old flag represents.
[69] What remains is Afriforum’s argument that private displays of the flag are
protected by the right to privacy in s 14 of the Constitution.76 Paragraph (2) of the
high court’s order states that ‘any’ display of the old flag constitutes hate speech,
unfair discrimination and harassment. The court reasoned that in modern-day
South Africa, there is hardly any space which is private to one race to the
exclusion of another; and that displaying the old flag ‘in private spaces like homes
and schools is equally unacceptably offensive and “hurtful”, as black people are
invariably employed and exposed in other ways to such spaces’.
[70] There can be no dispute that the gratuitous display of the old flag at a
school, be it public or private, would fall foul of ss 10(1), 7 and 11 of the Equality
76 Section 14 of the Constitution provides:
‘Everyone has the right to privacy, which includes the right not to have –
(a) their person or home searched;
(b) their property searched;
(c) their possessions seized; or
(d) the privacy of their communications infringed.’
Act: it is a public space. The high court however erred in issuing a declaratory
order which includes any display of the old flag within the privacy of a home, as
being a contravention of the Act, for two reasons. First, the NMF failed to state a
claim on which such relief could be granted. The inquiry before the high court as
to whether hate speech, unfair discrimination or harassment had taken place, was
squarely founded on gratuitous public displays of the old flag at the Black
Monday protests. That was the conduct ‘alleged’ within the meaning of s 21(1)
of the Equality Act, and the issue the court was called upon to decide.
[71] Second, the issue as to whether a private display of the old flag would
contravene the Equality Act was not properly and fully argued; neither in the high
court nor in this Court. It is therefore imprudent and inappropriate for this Court
to pronounce upon it. The issue is not fit for judicial decision in this case, and no
hardship will be caused to any of the parties if its consideration is withheld, until
such a complaint is lodged with the Equality Court. It follows that paragraph (2)
of the high court’s order must be amended.
[72] Afriforum relies on Qwelane for its submission that the high court erred
in declaring private displays of the old flag as hate speech. The Constitutional
Court stated that the concepts to ‘promote’, and ‘propagate’ hatred in s 10(1)(c)
of the Equality Act ‘do not fit the notion of communicating in private’; and the
word, ‘communicate’ in s 10(1) excludes private conversations.77 The Court went
on to say that our most private communications form part of the ‘inner sanctum
of the person’, which is in the ‘truly personal realm’,78 and are thus protected by
the right to privacy. The prohibition of hate speech should not extend to private
communications.79
77 Qwelane fn 1 para 116.
78 Qwelane fn 1 para 117.
79 Qwelane fn 1 paras 117-118.
[73] However, Afriforum’s reliance on these statements by the Constitutional
Court, merely underscores the inappropriateness of deciding, in the present case,
the question whether private displays of the old flag contravene the Equality Act.
This however, is not to say that a private display of the old flag can never breach
the provisions of the Equality Act. It is hard to see how a display of the old flag
in the privacy of a home to which, for example, family members, children or
young people are invited and indoctrinated in racism and white supremacy, would
not entitle a person to institute proceedings in the Equality Court for an order that
there has been a breach of the Act. But that is a case for another day.
[74] Finally, there is the question of costs. In the high court the parties agreed
that there should be no costs order. However, in this Court Afriforum, relying on
Biowatch,80 submitted that it was entitled to costs if the appeal succeeded and if
not, each party should pay its own costs. By reason of this stance, the NMF
contended that it was entitled to costs should the appeal fail. The SAHRC did not
seek a costs order on appeal. There is no reason why the Biowatch principle
should not apply: this is constitutional litigation in which Afriforum proffered
defences based on the protection of fundamental rights. It is thus appropriate that
there should be no costs order on appeal.
[75] In the result, the following order is issued:
Paragraph (2) of the order of the court below is set aside and replaced with
the following order:
‘In terms of section 21(2) of the Equality Act, it is declared that subject to
the proviso in section 12 of the Equality Act, any gratuitous public display
of the Old Flag constitutes:
80 Biowatch Trust v Registrar, Genetic Resources and Others [2009] ZACC 14; 2009 (6) SA 32 (CC); 2009 (10)
BCLR 1014 (CC).
(a)
hate speech in terms of section 10(1) of the Equality Act;
(b)
unfair discrimination on the basis of race in terms of section 7 of the
Equality Act;
(c)
harassment in terms of section 11 of the Equality Act.’
Save as aforesaid, the appeal is dismissed. There is no order as to costs of
the appeal.
__________________
A SCHIPPERS
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances:
For appellant:
M Oppenheimer
Instructed by:
Hurter Spies Inc, Centurion
Rossouw & Conradie Inc, Bloemfontein
For first respondent:
T Ngcukaitobi SC (with B Winks and J Chanza)
Instructed by:
Rupert Candy Attorneys, Sandton
Mphafi Khang Inc, Bloemfontein
For second and
third respondent:
S Kazee
Instructed by:
The State Attorney, Johannesburg
The State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For fourth respondent:
W Trengrove SC (with J L Griffiths)
Instructed by:
Webber Wentzel Attorneys, Johannesburg
Symington De Kok, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date: 21 April 2023
Status: Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and does not form
part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Afriforum NPC v Nelson Mandela Foundation Trust and Others (Case no 371/2020) [2023] ZASCA
58 (21 April 2023)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) dismissed an appeal by Afriforum NPC (Afriforum), against
an order by the Equality Court, Gauteng Division of the High Court, Johannesburg, sitting as an Equality
Court (the high court). The main issue in the appeal was whether the high court was correct in holding
that the display of the old South African flag (the old flag) is harmful, incites harm, and promotes and
propagates hatred within the meaning of s 10(1) of the Promotion of Equality and Prevention of Unfair
Discrimination Act 4 of 2000 (the Equality Act).
Afriforum played a leading role in nationwide demonstrations to protest against the murder of farmers,
held on Monday, 30 October 2017. They were called ‘the Black Monday protests’. It was widely
reported in the mainstream and social media that at some of these protests, the old flag was displayed.
These incidents led to a complaint against Afriforum lodged by the Nelson Mandela Foundation Trust
(NMF) with the high court, that the public displays of the old flag at the Black Monday protests was a
contravention of the Equality Act. The Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development and the
Department of Justice and Correctional Services were joined as parties in the proceedings in the high
court by the South African Human Rights Commission (SAHRC). The SAHRC applied for an order
declaring that s 10(1) of the Equality Act was unconstitutional and invalid, to the extent that it restricted
the conduct proscribed by s 10(1) to ‘words’ only.
The high court did not issue the declaratory order sought by the SAHRC. The court interpreted s 10(1)
broadly and purposively in the light of the objects of the Equality Act, namely that the prohibition of
hate speech includes any expression of ideas, whether by words or conduct. The high court issued a
declaratory order that the display of the old flag at the Black Monday protests constituted hate speech,
unfair discrimination and harassment, within the meaning of ss 10(1), 7 and 11 of the Equality Act.
Afriforum challenged the high court’s order, mainly on the following grounds. The court did not have
the power to grant the relief sought. The matter was not ripe for hearing. Public displays of the old flag
are protected under the rights to freedom of expression, dignity and freedom of assembly; and do not
constitute hate speech, unfair discrimination or harassment as envisaged in the Equality Act. Private
displays of the flag are protected by the right to privacy.
The SCA held that the constitutional rights to dignity and freedom of assembly of persons who
gratuitously display the old flag, were not implicated at all. It dismissed Afriforum’s procedural
defences that the Equality Court had no power to grant the declaratory order that it did, and that the
matter was not ripe for hearing, for the following reasons. The Equality Court was obliged, under s 21(1)
of the Equality Act, to determine whether the NMF’s complaint that the displays of the old flag at the
Black Monday protests, constituted hate speech, unfair discrimination or harassment. Having decided
that it was, the Equality Court was empowered to issue the declaratory order in terms of s 21(2) of the
Equality Act. The issue before the Equality Court was not hypothetical as there was a public controversy
about the lawfulness of public displays of the old flag.
The SCA held that when the prohibition of hate speech in s 10(1) is read with the proviso in s 12 of the
Equality Act (as amended by the Constitutional Court in Qwelane v South African Human Rights
Commission and Another [2021] ZACC 22; 2021 (6) SA 579 (CC)), it proscribes expression: (a) that
constitutes publication, propagation or communication of words; (b) based on one or more of the
prohibited grounds against any person; (c) that could reasonably be construed to demonstrate a clear
intention to be harmful or to incite harm, and to promote or propagate hatred; and (d) provided that
bona fide engagement in artistic creativity, academic and scientific enquiry, fair and accurate reporting
in the public interest or publication of any information, is excluded.
The SCA held that the publication, propagation, or communication of words in s 10(1) includes the
expression of ideas by conduct. The gratuitous public display of the old flag was on a prohibited ground,
namely race. The old flag symbolises, clearly and painfully, apartheid and white supremacy.
Objectively, the displays of the old flag could reasonably be construed as demonstrating a clear intention
to be harmful and to incite harm. Those who publicly hold up or wave the old flag, convey a brazen,
destructive message that they celebrate and long for the racisms of our past, in which only white people
were treated as first-class citizens while black people were then degraded and demeaned. This results
in deep emotional and psychological harm that severely undermines the dignity of black people. It also
incites harm because it can ignite exclusion, hostility, discrimination and violence against them.
The SCA found that any gratuitous public display of the old flag satisfies the requirement of promoting
and propagating hatred as envisaged in s 10(1) of the Equality Act. It is extremely degrading and
dehumanising to those who suffered under apartheid. It exposes them the racial bigotry, detestation and
vilification, and inspires hatred and extreme ill-will against them. White supremacists around the world
have used the old flag as a symbol of hatred, oppression and racial superiority. In this regard, the SCA
referred to the case of the convicted murderer, Mr Dylann Roof (Roof), who was convicted of ‘nine
counts of racially motivated hate crimes resulting in death’. He murdered nine black people gathered
for a bible study in Charleston, South Carolina in the United States. Roof posted a photo on the internet
showing him wearing a black jacket with a patch of the old flag conspicuously affixed to the front of it.
The SCA dismissed Afriforum’s claim that the high court’s order constitutes a ‘wide reaching ban’ on
the display of the old flag and an unconstitutional infringement of the right to freedom of expression.
The high court did not impose a wholesale ban on displays of the old flag. Its public display for genuine
artistic, academic or journalistic expression in the public interest, is not prohibited.
The SCA concluded that the gratuitous public display of the old flag also constitutes unfair
discrimination as envisaged in s 7 of the Equality Act on the grounds of race. Afriforum did not
challenge the evidence that the public displays of the old flag at the Black Monday protests were actual,
and not merely prima facie proof of racial discrimination. The gratuitous public displays of the old flag
also constitute harassment within the meaning of s 11 of the Equality Act, because it seriously demeans,
humiliates and creates a hostile and intimidating environment for the victims of apartheid.
The SCA found that the high court erred in issuing a declaratory order prohibiting ‘any’ display of the
old flag, which would include a display within the privacy of a home. The NMF failed to state a claim
on which such relief could be granted. Its case was squarely founded on public displays of the old flag
at the Black Monday protests. Further, the issue as to whether private displays of the old flag would
contravene the Equality Act, was not properly and fully argued; neither in the high court nor in the
SCA. It was therefore imprudent and inappropriate for the SCA to pronounce upon it. Consequently,
the SCA set aside the high court’s order prohibiting ‘any’ display of the old flag and replaced it with an
order prohibiting ‘gratuitous public displays’ of the old flag, subject to the proviso in s 12 of the Equality
Act. The SCA made no order as to costs.
~~~~ends~~~~ |
468 | non-electoral | 2016 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 403/2015
In the matter between:
THE CITY OF JOHANNESBURG
APPELLANT
and
DLADLA, ELLEN NOMSA
FIRST RESPONDENT
& 33 OTHER RESPONDENTS
SECOND TO 34TH RESPONDENTS
Neutral citation:
City of Johannesburg v Dladla (403/15) [2016] ZASCA 66
(18 May 2016)
Coram:
Mpati P and Leach, Pillay, Willis and Mbha JJA
Heard:
3 May 2016
Delivered:
18 May 2016
Summary:
Local authority – powers and duties when providing temporary
accommodation – rules of a shelter providing temporary accommodation in an
emergency are not unconstitutional – appeal upheld.
ORDER
On appeal from: Gauteng Local Division of the High Court, Johannesburg
(Wepener J sitting as the court of first instance): reported sub nom Dladla & others v
City of Johannesburg Metropolitan Municipality & another [2014] 4 All SA 51 (GJ).
1 The appeal is upheld.
2 The order of the court a quo is set aside and replaced with the following:
„The application is dismissed.‟
JUDGMENT
___________________________________________________________________
Willis JA (Mpati P and Leach, Pillay and Mbha JJA concurring):
[1] This appeal is against the following order made by the Gauteng Local
Division, Johannesburg (Wepener J):
„1. Rules 3 and 4 of the “Ekuthuleni Overnight/Decant Shelter House Rules” are an
unjustifiable infringement of the applicants‟ [respondents in present appeal] constitutional
rights to dignity, freedom and security of person as well as privacy enshrined in ss 10,12 and
14 of the Constitution.
2. The respondents [appellant and Metropolitan Evangelical Services] are interdicted and
restrained from enforcing rules 3 and 4 of the “Ekuthuleni Overnight/Decant Shelter House
Rules” as against the applicants for the duration of the applicants‟ stay at Ekuthuleni.
3. The respondents‟ refusal to permit the applicants to reside in communal rooms together
with their spouses or permanent life partners is an infringement of the applicants‟
constitutional rights to dignity and privacy enshrined in ss 10 and 14 of the Constitution.
4. The Respondents are directed forthwith to permit those of the applicants who wish to do
so, to reside together with their spouses or permanent life partners in communal rooms at
Ekuthuleni for the duration of the applicants‟ stay at Ekuthuleni.
5. The City is ordered to pay the costs of the application, such costs to include the costs of
two counsel. The City is further ordered to pay the costs of the amicus curiae in relation to its
application to be admitted as amicus curiae.‟
The appellant, the City of Johannesburg (the City), brought the appeal with the leave
of this court.
[2] The respondents in this appeal (the occupiers) are residents at Ekuthuleni
Shelter („the Shelter‟ also referred to simply as „Ekuthuleni‟), at the corner of De
Villiers and Nugget Streets, Johannesburg. The second respondent in the application
before the court a quo was the Metropolitan Evangelical Services (MES), a company
incorporated not for profit in terms of s 21 of the Companies Act 71 of 2008. It is a
community based, Christian organisation that operated the Shelter.
[3] The occupiers had been evicted from a dilapidated building in Saratoga
Avenue, Berea, Johannesburg (Saratoga) in terms of an order granted by the same
court that heard the matter that is now on appeal before us. That order was upheld in
this court1 and the Constitutional Court.2 The case is well known as „Blue Moonlight‟.
In the Constitutional Court judgment, it was directed that the occupiers were to
vacate their homes by 15 April 2012, but the court stipulated that the City was to
provide the evictees with „temporary accommodation in a location as near as feasibly
possible to the area‟ in which Saratoga was situated, on or before 1 April 2012. For
reasons that will appear more fully later, it needs to be emphasised that the order of
the Constitutional Court was that the occupiers be provided with temporary
accommodation and not that the City provide them with housing that was permanent
in nature. Van der Westhuizen J, delivering the unanimous judgment of the court,
said so in the following terms: „It must be emphasised that this case concerns
temporary as defined in Ch 12 and not permanent housing.‟3
1 City of Johannesburg Metropolitan Municipality v Blue Moonlight Properties 39 (Pty) Ltd & another
[2011] ZASCA 47; 2011 (4) SA 337 (SCA) (Blue Moonlight SCA judgment).
2 City of Johannesburg Metropolitan Municipality v Blue Moonlight Properties 39 (Pty) Ltd [2011]
ZACC 33; 2012 (2) SA 104 (CC) (Blue Moonlight CC judgment).
3 Para 98. The reference to „Ch 12‟ is to the National Housing Code (National housing programme:
housing assistance in emergency circumstances (April 2004 Final Version)).
[4] At the time that the application was launched, there were 33 occupiers. At the
time when the application was heard this number had approximately halved. It is
common cause that there are now only 11 occupiers. In addition, there is one child
occupying the premises. The accommodation at MES can host approximately 100
persons. By reason of the order of the court a quo, MES cannot operate effectively
with some of its residents being bound by its rules and others not. Accordingly, some
89 beds that could be used by other persons are not in use.
[5] The City engaged the services of MES to provide the kind of temporary
accommodation in question, even though the accommodation had not been made
available by 12 April 2012. Running like a golden thread in the City‟s papers is that it
had recourse to the facilities of MES because it was doing the best it could with the
resources available to it. The occupiers had brought an urgent application for an
extension of their eviction until the accommodation had been provided. Satchwell J
gave the occupiers an extension of time to 2 May 2012. Her order, which has been
referred to by the parties as „the interim order‟, relaxed the application of the
impugned rules.
[6] In the meantime, some of those who had been evicted had negotiated with
the City that they could stay at a building at the corner of Hancock and Claim Street
in Johannesburg, paying a rental of R600 per month per unit. The remainder were
told that they could stay at the Shelter. The City insisted that the occupiers could
stay at the Shelter only if each one of them was to sign a document styled „Client‟s
Responsibilities and Standards‟. This document incorporated „house rules‟ and a
disciplinary code. It was in this way that the Shelter came to be used in order to
provide temporary accommodation for a number of the persons who had been
evicted from Saratoga.
[7] The house rules of the Shelter included the regulation of food being prepared
and consumed in a dining room area, provisions that the use of electrical appliances
such as stoves, heaters, television sets and radios in bedrooms were prohibited, that
violence, abusive language and unruly behaviour were not allowed, that drugs,
alcohol and dangerous weapons were not permitted and that those who entered the
premises under the influence of drugs or alcohol could be required to vacate until
they returned sober. Each of the occupiers in writing agreed to be bound by these
rules but „reserved‟ his or her rights. Other than rules 3 and 4 of the house rules, the
occupiers have no objection thereto.
[8] Rules 3 and 4, which were the subject of the court a quo‟s order, provided for
the closure of entry to the Shelter by 20h00 every night and that all residents sign a
register every night (rule 3); and that all residents vacate the Shelter by 8h00 on
Mondays to Fridays, and at 9h00 on Saturdays and Sundays (rule 4). The rules
provided that the management of the Shelter could, in their discretion, exempt
individual residents from the application of these rules. The answering affidavit
indicates that exemptions have been allowed with a considerable measure of
liberality. The primary purpose of the rules was not merely to ensure the safety and
protection of the occupiers but also to encourage residents to get out into the world,
to familiarise themselves with it and, so it is intended, find gainful employment, even
if only in the informal sector. The costs of allowing permanent access to and egress
from the Shelter would increase its running costs substantially, by reason of the
increased costs in staff, supervision and wear and tear. These rules were challenged
by the occupiers as being unconstitutional. The court a quo found that this was
indeed so.
[9] The City has been laudatory about the effectiveness of the Shelter provided
by MES. The City does not, however, hold it out as a model to be used whenever
temporary accommodation is to be made available in an emergency. On the
contrary, it contends that the facilities would be better used for the purposes and the
persons for whom it had been designed. Moreover, as a result of the interim order,
the MES, with the City‟s concurrence, decided that no persons additional to the
occupiers would be accommodated at the Shelter, until all the occupiers had left.
[10] The design of the Shelter consists of 30 small dormitories, consisting of two to
four bunks per dormitory. The dormitories were gender differentiated. The gender
differentiation arises from the fact that each dormitory sleeps more than two persons.
The unarticulated but self-evident premise of this gender differentiation is that it is
required according to widely prevailing norms of modesty and decency in society.
The policy of gender differentiation has the consequence that the occupiers do not
share the same room with their spouses or life partners. This separation of the
occupiers from their spouses or life partners was also subject to constitutional
challenge. Here again, the court a quo found in favour of the occupiers.
[11] There has, in fact, been only one married couple among the occupiers. They
were married in terms of customary law. They were allocated a room designed for
occupation by four people. The wife had left to go to Limpopo in December 2012, to
take up temporary employment. These two persons have been residents, as a
married couple, at the Shelter since that time. The question of married couples
among the occupiers would seem to be of „academic‟ relevance only. Ms De Vos,
who appeared for the occupiers said that she wished to defend the order of the high
court because of its future relevance, because, so she submitted, the City intended
to apply this same policy to persons who may be given temporary accommodation in
similar circumstances in future. This is not the case, as mentioned previously.
[12] The only child among the occupiers stays with her mother in a female
dormitory. There are gender differentiated ablution facilities, having hot and cold
water. The Shelter has a communal kitchen with cooking and dining facilities, as well
as provision for storage facilities, enabling each occupier to store food. In addition,
there is a communal study area, courtyard and television room. MES employs a
cleaning crew that cleans the Shelter daily. The Shelter has a fulltime manager. The
occupiers are protected by security guards. Access to and egress from the Shelter is
controlled via a biometric system to ensure that only registered residents gain
access thereto.
[13] MES also provides the residents of the Shelter with a free hot lunch every day
as well as a resource and training facility with computers providing access to the
internet. Local newspapers are also made available for free. Access is given to
primary health care as well as the opportunity for recreation. The Shelter is known as
a „managed care model‟. It is intended to provide short-term, often overnight,
accommodation for the destitute. It aims to be a „holistic model‟ addressing the
physical, emotional, mental and spiritual needs of the destitute, helping to provide
them with skills and opportunities to change their lives for the better.
[14] The affidavits of both the City and MES make it clear that the Shelter was not
designed for the requirements demanded by the occupiers. Nevertheless, the City
has succeeded in providing them with temporary accommodation – a „roof over their
heads‟. The court a quo also correctly observed that the Shelter was neither
designed for, nor intended to provide temporary accommodation for persons in the
position of the occupiers. Indeed this was common cause. The accommodation
provided at the Shelter is of a higher standard than that at Saratoga. All of this is also
all provided free of charge.
[15] The court a quo also correctly noted that: „What is not in dispute is that the
need for temporary accommodation far outweighs the City‟s ability to provide it.‟ It is
also clear that the City turned to MES in desperation. The statistics filed of record
show that every year thousands of people stream into our cities, and especially
Johannesburg, in search of a better life. This is a worldwide phenomenon. It is easily
understandable: the pull of the cities gathers momentum from the poverty and
drudgery of the rural areas. The conundrum is that accommodation that is consistent
with human dignity is not readily available. In the short term, given the demands
upon the State in other fields such as education, policing and health, the wherewithal
to solve the problem of housing is not to hand. This is a difficulty with which all
developing countries are faced. Relative to thousands of others, the position of the
occupiers is a privileged one. The occupiers did not bring an application that the City
provides them with alternative temporary occupation.
[16] There can be no doubt that, ordinarily, all persons in South Africa have a
constitutional right to freedom of movement.4 Likewise, falling at least under the
constitutional rights to dignity, freedom, privacy, association and residence,5
husbands and wives and permanent life partners have a constitutional right to live
together. This was recognised even under the dark days of apartheid under the
landmark case of Komani NO v Bantu Affairs Administration Board, Peninsula Area.6
There can be no debate about this. Like the court a quo, I am acutely mindful of what
4 See s 12 of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996.
5 See ss 10, 12, 14, 18 and 21 of the Constitution.
6 Komani NO v Bantu Affairs Administration Board, Peninsula Area 1980 (4) SA 448 (A) at 473D.
the Constitutional Court said in Bernstein & others v Bester & others NNO7 about the
fact that a „very high level of protection is given to the individual‟s intimate personal
sphere of life‟.8 Nevertheless, it is important to note the qualification in Bernstein that:
„But this intimate core is narrowly construed. This inviolable core is left behind once an
individual enters into relationships with persons outside this closest intimate sphere; the
individual‟s activities then acquire a social dimension and the right of privacy in this context
becomes subject to limitation.‟9 (Footnote omitted.)
Temporary accommodation provided to cover an emergency situation will often,
necessarily, entail a „social dimension‟ of which the law must take cognisance.
[17] I am also keenly mindful of the Constitutional Court‟s injunction in Dawood &
another v Minister of Home Affairs & others; Shalabi & another v Minister of Home
Affairs & others; Thomas & another v Minister of Home Affairs & others,10 that a
central aspect of marriage is cohabitation and any significant impairment thereof
would be a limitation of the right to dignity.11
[18] Constitutional rights may, however, be limited.12 As Kriegler J pointed out
when delivering the majority judgment of the Constitutional Court in Coetzee v
Government of the Republic of South Africa; Matiso & others v Commanding Officer
Port Elizabeth Prison & others,13 no right enshrined in the Bill of Rights is absolute.14
There may be circumstances where the limitation of a right, even one of fundamental
importance, may be justified.15 Kriegler J went on to say: „In making the
determination [whether the limitation of the right is justified], especially in regard to a
right as fundamental as the one in question, namely personal freedom, one really
7 Bernstein & others v Bester & others NNO [1996] ZACC 2; 1996 (2) SA 751 (CC).
8 Paragraph 77.
9 Ibid.
10 Dawood & another v Minister of Home Affairs & others; Shalabi & another v Minister of Home
Affairs & others; Thomas & another v Minister of Home Affairs & others [2000] ZACC 8; 2000 (3) SA
936 (CC).
11 Paragraph 37.
12 See s 36 of the Constitution.
13 Coetzee v Government of the Republic of South Africa; Matiso & others v Commanding Officer Port
Elizabeth Prison & others [1995] ZACC 7; 1995 (4) SA 631 (CC).
14 Paragraph 11.
15 Ibid.
need not go beyond the test of reasonableness‟.16 Reasonableness depends on the
facts of each particular case.17
[19] The occupiers have described the Shelter as their home. The City has
responded that this is dialectically false: to portray temporary emergency
accommodation as a home is a contradiction in terms. Indeed, the thrust of the City‟s
argument was that the occupiers incorrectly claimed to have the same rights as if
they were living in their homes rather than in emergency temporary accommodation.
The City contends that this distinction was recognised by the Constitutional Court in
Blue Moonlight.18 It was in failing properly to distinguish between emergency and
ordinarily prevailing situations that, in the argument of the City, the court a quo had
been clearly wrong.
[20] We were referred to the judgment of Binns-Ward J in City of Cape Town v
Hoosain NO & others,19 in which he said:
„Once it is recognised that emergency accommodation by its very nature will invariably fall
short of the standards reasonably expected of permanent housing accommodation, it follows
that those who need to occupy such accommodation must accept less than what would
ordinarily be acceptable. The apparent harshness of an acceptance of this recognition has to
be seen against the realities imposed by the vast scale of the housing backlogs which the
State, in general, and the City, in particular, are having to engage.‟ 20
I agree.
[21] I fail to see the relevance of the occupiers‟ reliance on Teddy Bear Clinic for
Abused Children & another v Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development &
another.21 I do not see how the dignity and privacy of the single child who may be
affected by an order of court are in any material way diminished by the rules of MES.
16 Ibid.
17 See, for example, Kruger v Coetzee 1966 (2) SA 428 (A) at 430E-G; Za v Smith & another [2015]
ZASCA 75; 2015 (4) SA 574 (SCA) para 24.
18 Blue Moonlight CC judgment para 98.
19 City of Cape Town v Hoosain NO & others unreported WCHC case number 1033/2011, delivered
on 24 October 2012; [2012] ZAWCHC 180.
20 Paragraph 14.
21 Teddy Bear Clinic for Abused Children & another v Minister of Justice and Constitutional
Development & another [2013] ZACC 35; 2014 (2) SA 168 (CC).
[22] The thrust of the argument by the amicus was that housing must have special
regard to the needs of the vulnerable and, in particular, women and children. In this
connection, we were referred to South African, foreign and international law. About
this aspect of policy there can be no confusion: South African law in this field is, by
now, trite. It is abreast of the best in the world and, in the submission of Mr Loxton,
who appeared for the City, goes further to protect the socially disadvantaged than
any other country. The evaluation of any municipal, regional or national
government‟s housing policy – whether by an electorate, the courts, or experts in
areas as diverse as urban and regional planning, social work, economics,
architecture and building, construction and engineering – will have regard to a
multiplicity of factors, including, but not limited to, safety, protection from the
elements, access to utilities such as electricity and clean water, refuse collection,
public transport, schools, clinics, parks and other centres of sport and recreation,
regulation, aesthetics, inter-digitation and general spatial design. An evaluation of
broad, long-term political policy takes place on a different footing from a judgment
dealing with the facts in a temporary situation created by an emergency. With this
proposition, counsel for both the amicus and the City agreed. It is self-evidently
correct. The best must not become the enemy of the good.
[23] The rules relating to entry to and egress from the Shelter are not dissimilar
from those at other institutional buildings. They were designed, inter alia, to ensure
the safety and protection of the occupiers. They are also intended to discourage an
attitude of dependence. There are cost factors too. These rules cannot, in all the
circumstances, be said to be unreasonable. As for the sleeping arrangements,
without displacing other persons at the Shelter, MES cannot both accommodate all
the potential occupiers and allow men and women to sleep in the same dormitory
without offending many people‟s sense of decency, modesty and decorum. The
limitation on husbands and wives and permanent life partners sleeping together in
the strictly temporary emergency accommodation provided was, in the single
relevant instance, relaxed. In any event, husbands and wives and permanent life
partners do not have the right, always and everywhere, to sleep together. There are
instances in which this right must yield, albeit temporarily, to broader practical
demands such as those related to the reason for which the Shelter was designed. In
context, the provision of temporary accommodation separated on the basis of
gender, is not unreasonable and therefore not unconstitutional.
[24] The proper remedy for the occupiers was not to have applied for the striking
down of the rules of a bona fide institution such as MES but to have applied for an
order that the accommodation provided by the City, through the agency of MES, was
not that which had been ordered by the Constitutional Court. In other words, the
occupiers who wished to sleep with their spouse in temporary accommodation
intended to cater for an emergency, should have applied for an order that they be
given alternative accommodation, where they could exercise these rights. They may
or may not have been successful but the rules of MES in the Shelter offered by the
City, in an attempt to accommodate the occupiers in an emergency situation are not,
in themselves, unreasonable. The appeal must succeed. Appropriately, the City did
not seek an award of costs in the event that it was successful.
[25] The following order is made:
1 The appeal is upheld.
2 The order of the court a quo is set aside and replaced with the following:
„The application is dismissed.‟
______________________
N P WILLIS
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES:
For Appellant:
C D A Loxton SC (with him A W Pullinger)
Instructed by:
Moodie & Roberston, Johannesburg
Lovius Block, Bloemfontein
For First to 33 Respondents:
A M De Vos SC (with her S Wilson and M Stubbs)
Instructed by:
Socio-Economic Rights Institute, Johannesburg
Webbers, Bloemfontein
For Amicus Curiae:
E Webber
(Heads of argument prepared by J Brickhill, with
him, J Bleazard)
Instructed by:
Centre for Applied Legal Studies, Johannesburg
Webbers, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
18 May 2016
STATUS
Immediate
City of Johannesburg v Dladla & others (403/15) [2016] ZASCA 66 (18 May 2016)
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does
not form part of the judgment.
This morning the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld an appeal against an order
in the South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg and replaced that order with one
dismissing the application with costs. The high court had set aside certain rules of an
urban shelter as being constitutionally invalid.
The respondents in the appeal are residents at the Ekuthuleni Shelter. Metropolitan
Evangelical Services (MES), a company incorporated not for profit in terms of s 21 of
the Companies Act 71 of 2008 operated the Shelter. It is a community based,
Christian organisation.
The occupiers had been evicted from a dilapidated building in Saratoga Avenue,
Berea, Johannesburg. The Constitutional Court, in a case well known as ‘Blue
Moonlight’, stipulated that the City was to provide the evictees with ‘temporary
accommodation in a location as near as feasibly possible to the area’ in which
Saratoga was situated.
The City engaged the services of MES to provide the kind of temporary
accommodation in question. The house rules of the Shelter included the regulation of
food being prepared and consumed in a dining room area, provisions that the use of
electrical appliances such as stoves, heaters, television sets and radios in bedrooms
were prohibited, that violence, abusive language and unruly behaviour were not
allowed, that drugs, alcohol and dangerous weapons were not permitted and that
those who entered the premises under the influence of drugs or alcohol could be
required to vacate until they returned sober. Each of the occupiers in writing agreed
to be bound by these rules but ‘reserved’ his or her rights.
The primary purpose of the rules was not merely to ensure the safety and protection
of the occupiers but also to encourage residents to get out into the world, to
familiarise themselves with it and, so it is intended, find gainful employment, even if
only in the informal sector. The costs of allowing permanent access to and egress
from the Shelter would increase its running costs substantially, by reason of the
increased costs in staff, supervision and wear and tear. These rules were challenged
by the occupiers as being unconstitutional. The court a quo found that this was
indeed so.
The design of the Shelter consists of 30 small dormitories, consisting of two to four
bunks per dormitory. The dormitories were gender differentiated. The gender
differentiation arises from the fact that each dormitory sleeps more than two persons.
The unarticulated but self-evident premise of this gender differentiation is that it is
required according to widely prevailing norms of modesty and decency in society.
The policy of gender differentiation has the consequence that the occupiers do not
share the same room with their spouses or life partners. This separation of the
occupiers from their spouses or life partners was also subject to constitutional
challenge. Here again, the court a quo found in favour of the occupiers.
The SCA affirmed that husbands and wives and permanent life partners have a
constitutional right to live together. The SCA found that husbands and wives and
permanent life partners do not have the right, always and everywhere, to sleep
together. There are instances in which this right must yield, albeit temporarily, to
broader practical demands such as those related to the reason for which the Shelter
was designed. In context, the provision of temporary accommodation separated on
the basis of gender, is not unreasonable and therefore not unconstitutional.
The SCA found that the rules of MES in the Shelter offered by the City, in an attempt
to accommodate the occupiers in an emergency situation are not, in themselves,
unreasonable and that the appeal must succeed. |
33 | non-electoral | 2017 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 1027/2016
In the matter between:
UNIVERSITY OF THE FREE STATE APPELLANT
and
AFRIFORUM FIRST RESPONDENT
SOLIDARITY SECOND RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: University of the Free State v Afriforum (1027/2016) [2017] ZASCA
32 (28 March 2017)
Coram:
Cachalia, Swain and Mathopo JJA and Fourie and Schippers AJJA
Heard:
17 February 2017
Delivered:
28 March 2017
Summary: Review : whether decision of University to adopt language policy
administrative action under Promotion of Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000 :
whether University misconstrued its power under principle of legality : test for legality
review restated : whether language policy „reasonably practicable‟ as contemplated
in s 29(2) of the Constitution : whether in the exercise of its power to decide
language policy University constrained by requirement that policy „subject to‟ Higher
Education Language Policy in terms of s 27(2) of the Higher Education Act 101 of
1997.
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
On appeal from: Free State Division of the High Court, Bloemfontein (Hendricks
and Mokgohloa JJ and Motimele AJ sitting as court of first instance):
1 The appeal in the review application is upheld with costs including the costs of two
counsel, save that in the case of the first respondent, each party shall pay its own
costs.
2 The appeal in the strike-out application is upheld with costs including the costs of
two counsel, on a scale as between attorney and client. As a consequence the
following parts of the respondents‟ papers are struck out:
(a)
para 3.2 of the founding affidavit: „that were too scared to divulge their
identity for fear of intimidation and reprisal‟;
(b)
para 10 of the founding affidavit: „they informed Messrs Human and
Kruger that they are absolutely fearful that their positions may be jeopardised
should their identities be disclosed, but were prepared to do so in view of the
constitutional principle of transparency and since the UFS will in any event in
good time have to make disclosure of these very documents‟;
(c)
para 101.14 of the founding affidavit: „Nothing could be further from the
truth than this misleading statement of the second respondent to the UFS
Senate, the one body which has to make a decision on something as serious
and contentious as the possible validity of a new language policy which was in
the process of formulation‟;
(d)
para 125.1.4 of the founding affidavit (excluding the first three
sentences): „On the basis of the assurance given by a member attending that
meeting to Mr Human, I sincerely believe that it is true that Prof Jansen
dismissed the letter as being irrelevant as coming from a third party . . . the
new language policy‟;
(e)
para 154 of the founding affidavit: „because the persons who provided
them were too scared to reveal their identities and‟;
(f)
para 20.5.3 of the supplementary founding affidavit: „it nonetheless
amounts to a serious misrepresentation vitiating the legality of any decision
taken on that basis‟; and
(g)
para 41 of the supplementary founding affidavit: „led to believe‟ and „the
assertions were misleading‟.
3 The order granted by the Free State Division of the High Court, Bloemfontein
(under case no. A70/2016) is set aside and substituted by the following order:
(a)
„The applicants‟ application to review and set aside the decision by the
Council of the University of the Free State to adopt a new language policy is
dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel, save that in the case
of the first applicant, each party shall pay its own costs.
(b)
The respondents‟ application to strike out is upheld with costs including
the costs of two counsel on a scale as between attorney and client. As a
consequence the parts identified in the applicants‟ papers at paras 2 (a) to (g)
of the order of this court are set aside.‟
___________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
Cachalia JA (Swain and Mathopo JJA and Fourie and Schippers AJJA
concurring)
[1] The legal dispute in this case concerns a decision by the University of the
Free State (UFS) to adopt a new language policy in March 2016. The new policy
replaces Afrikaans and English as parallel mediums of instruction with English as the
primary medium. A full court of the Free State Division of the High Court,
Bloemfontein, reviewed and set aside the decision in July 2016 on the ground that it
constituted unlawful administrative action as defined in s 1 of the Promotion of
Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000 (PAJA). This appeal is with its leave.
[2] The respondents, Afriforum and Solidarity, were the successful applicants in
the full court. I shall consider their standing to seek relief in these proceedings later
in the judgment. However, I accept their legitimate concern that the new language
policy, which prefers English over Afrikaans at UFS, and the adoption of similar
policies at other universities, will erode the position of Afrikaans as a language of
instruction and its constitutionally protected status as an official language.1 Their
disquiet should be shared by all South Africans who value our diverse cultural and
language heritage. Because Afrikaans is, as Sachs J colourfully observed in the
Gauteng School Education Bill case: „one of the cultural treasures of South African
national life, widely spoken and deeply implanted, the vehicle of outstanding
literature, the bearer of rich scientific and legal vocabulary and possibly the most
creole or “rainbow” of all South African tongues‟.2
[3] UFS has a 113-year history. It may come as a surprise to some that from
1904, English was the sole medium of instruction. This changed to Afrikaans in
1953. In 1993 a parallel-medium policy was introduced.
[4] In November 2002 the Education Ministry outlined a framework for a Higher
Education Language Policy (LPHE), which encouraged the promotion of
multilingualism. It advocated „the retention and strengthening of Afrikaans as a
language instruction‟, in historically Afrikaans universities. But it also acknowledged
that this will practically create a tension with other constitutional imperatives,
particularly considerations of equity, the need to redress past racially discriminatory
laws and practices and practicability, identified in s 29(2) of the Constitution. In this
1 Section 6(1) of the Constitution says: „The official languages of the Republic are Sepedi, Sesotho,
Setswana, siSwati, Tshivenda, Xitsonga, Afrikaans, English, isiNdebele, isiXhosa and isiZulu.‟
2 Ex Parte Gauteng Provincial Legislature: In re Dispute concerning the constitutionality of certain
provisions of the Gauteng School Education Bill 1995 1996 (3) SA 165 (CC) para 49.
regard the LPHE cautioned that the sustained development of Afrikaans should not
have the „unintended consequence of concentrating Afrikaans-speaking students in
some institutions‟ thereby retarding attempts to promote diversity. In addition
historically Afrikaans-medium institutions had to submit plans to show that language
instruction was not impeding access by non-Afrikaans speaking students to their
academic programmes. One of respondents‟ contentions is that UFS ignored this
policy in formulating the new language policy, an issue I shall consider later.
[5] Following the publication of the LPHE, UFS approved a language policy in
June 2003. The 2003 policy acknowledged that English and Afrikaans shall be the
dominant languages of instruction for the foreseeable future, and also that
multilingualism shall be promoted so that other South African languages, particularly
Sesotho, are ultimately accepted as mediums of instruction.
[6] The 2003 policy had an inauspicious beginning. In its second year of
operation already, Professor Fourie, who was rector at the time, acknowledged the
„unintended consequence‟ of the parallel-medium policy segregating the lecturing
rooms along racial lines. This problem persisted and was repeatedly mentioned in
various reports, including one by the Language Policy Committee of Council, in the
years that followed. It also generated racial tensions and complaints from both staff
and students.
[7] Professor Lange, the Vice-Rector (Academic), deposed to the answering
affidavit in the present proceedings. She described the persistence of the problem as
„untenable on a post-apartheid campus‟. The UFS‟s Management accordingly sought
and obtained a mandate from its Council to formulate a new language policy in June
2015. The task was to be undertaken by the Language Committee (the Committee),
which the minutes of the Council meeting record as having to be „balanced and
representative‟. Furthermore, the Committee had to ensure that an „open process of
consultation would be followed, with no preconceived agenda regarding the desired
outcome‟.
[8] There is no dispute that the Committee executed its mandate diligently. The
process undertaken is recorded fully in the papers. It spanned several months and
involved thorough investigation, vigorous debate and full deliberation. Linguistic
experts assisted the process.
[9] The draft report was considered by both UFS‟s Senate and Council and the
final report, including faculty submissions, served before Council. The final report,
the respondents accept freely in their written argument, embodies a qualitative
analysis of the arguments for and against a policy change and encapsulates every
standpoint adopted in the course of the debate. The respondents participated
actively throughout the process. So it is hardly surprising that they have not raised
any procedural objections to the decision to adopt a new policy.
[10] Council ultimately adopted the report on 11 March 2016 by twenty votes in
favour, one abstention and one vote against it. The key finding in the report – that
the parallel-medium policy was entrenching racial separation and impeding racial
integration – is captured in the executive summary, which states:
„The consensus finding of the review committee is that the current parallel medium language
policy does not work. It divides students, largely by race, and therefore works against the
integration commitments of the university; it does not, from the student point of view,
guarantee equality of access to knowledge in the two different language class groups; it has
not kept up with the dramatic changes in the racial and language demography of the
university in recent years; and the continuation in Afrikaans is a declining language of
preference among students who see themselves as living, learning and labouring in a global
world where English competence provides more access and mobility than any other South
African language.‟
[11] The finding formed the basis of six policy recommendations the Committee
made to Council, which were also approved. They were:
„1.
That English becomes the primary medium of instruction in undergraduate education
and, as largely exists already, in postgraduate education.
2.
that the [UFS] embeds and enables a language-rich environment committed to
multilingualism with particular attention to Afrikaans, Sesotho, isiZulu and other
languages represented on the three campuses.
3.
that an expanded tutorial system is available to especially first-year students in
Afrikaans, Sesotho, isiZulu and other languages to facilitate the transition to English
instruction.
4.
that in particular professional programmes, such as Education and the Agricultural
Sciences, the parallel-medium policy continues given the well-defined Afrikaans
markets that still makes such language-specific graduate preparation relevant at the
moment.
5.
that the language of administration be English.
6.
that the English-medium language policy be implemented with flexibility and
understanding rather than as a rigid rule regardless of the circumstances.‟
[12] The approved policy authorised the Committee, in consultation with the
faculties and the Centre for Teaching and Learning, to approve a phased
implementation plan for the period 2016 to 2021 commencing in 2017. The
respondents are dissatisfied with the new policy and sought to have the decision to
adopt the policy reviewed and set aside.
[13] On 21 July 2016 the full court delivered its judgment reviewing and setting
aside the Council decision to „adopt and approve‟ the new policy. UFS then sought
leave to appeal to the Constitutional Court directly, alternatively to this court, against
the order. The Constitutional Court refused direct access, but as the full court had
conditionally granted UFS leave to appeal to this court, its order was suspended
pending the outcome of this appeal.
[14] The respondents then applied to the full court for an order in terms of s 18 of
the Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013 for its order of 21 July 2016 not to be suspended
pending the determination of the appeal. The application was granted. Believing that
the effect of this order would stymie the implementation of the new policy, UFS
exercised its automatic right of appeal to this court, which then set aside the order of
the full court. The judgment is reported sub nom UFS v Afriforum & another [2016]
ZASCA 165 (17 November 2016); [2017] 1 All SA 79 (SCA).
[15] It is now necessary to set out the nature of the relief the respondents sought
in the review and the case they made out on the papers. In their founding affidavit,
the respondents say their application is concerned first, with preventing UFS from
implementing the new language policy, and secondly, setting it aside. Neither is
correct and both misconceive the nature of the relief sought. The notice of motion
pertinently seeks only to have the Council decision to adopt the new policy on 11
March 2016 set aside,3 principally on the ground that it constituted unlawful
administrative action. The respondents did not seek to interdict the policy from being
implemented, nor did they seek to have it set aside on administrative law or
constitutional grounds.
[16] The court a quo and both parties approached the matter on the basis that the
impugned decision constituted „administrative action‟ as defined in s 1 of the
Promotion of Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000 (PAJA).4 I turn first to consider
whether it is.5
3 The notice of motion seeks to have both the decisions of the Senate on 7 March 2016, and that of
the Council on 11 March 2016, set aside. However, only the Council decision is in issue in this
appeal.
4 In terms of s 1 of PAJA: „„administration action‟ means any decision taken, or any failure to take a
decision, by-
(a) an organ of state, when-
(i) exercising a power in terms of the Constitution or a provincial constitution; or
(ii) exercising a public power or performing a public function in terms of any legislation; or
(b) a natural or juristic person, other than an organ of state, when exercising a public power or
performing a public function in terms of an empowering provision, which adversely affects the rights of
any person and which has a direct, external legal effect . . . .‟
5 In Head, Department of Education, Free State Province v Welkom High School & another [2012]
ZASCA 150; 2012 (6) SA 525 (SCA) para 23, this court stated that the decision by a school governing
body to adopt a pregnancy policy is an administrative decision. It did not analyse the nature of the
decision in making this statement.
[17] The determination of whether an action by an organ of state6 is administrative
action requires an analysis of its nature and a positive decision that it is of an
administrative character.7 In general policy-making lies within the realm of an
organisation‟s executive authority, and the implementation or application of policy,
lies within its administrative domain. The more closely a decision is related to the
formulation – or the adoption – of policy, the more likely it is to be executive in
nature; where it is closer to the implementation of policy, this suggests it is
administrative. Administrative decisions are generally and appropriately subjected to
a more exacting administrative standard of review than executive decisions.8
[18] In this case, the review is aimed at attacking the decision to adopt the policy,
which the Council has the authority to decide under s 27(2) of the Higher Education
Act 101 of 1997 (the Act). The policy is not impugned, nor is it sought to be set
aside. Importantly, the policy itself does not adversely affect the rights of any person
or have the capacity to do so. Neither does it have a direct, external legal effect. The
policy will only have these legal consequences when implemented, which the review
is not concerned with. So, properly understood, it is the UFS‟s executive decision to
determine its language policy that is being attacked and not any of its administrative
actions flowing from the adoption of the policy. The impugned decision therefore
does not constitute administrative action as contemplated by PAJA.
[19] I accept, however, that the decision to adopt the new policy may be subject to
legality review on the ground that it was made in the exercise of a public power. The
question to be considered in this context is whether, objectively viewed, the decision
was rationally connected to the purpose for which the power was given.9 This is a
factual enquiry and courts must be careful not to interfere with the exercise of a
power simply because they disagree with the decision or consider that the power
6 There is no dispute that that a university is an organ of state.
7 Tshwane City & others v Nambiti Technologies (Pty) Ltd [2015] ZASCA 167; 2016 (2) SA 494 (SCA)
para 25.
8 See generally Minister of Defence and Military Veterans v Motau [2014] ZACC 18; 2014 (5) SA 69
(CC) paras 37-44 and Minister of Home Affairs & others v Scalabrini Centre & others [2013] ZASCA
134; 2013 (6) SA 421 (SCA) para 57.
9 Pharmaceutical Manufacturers Association of South Africa: In re Ex Parte President of the Republic
of South Africa & others 2000 (2) SA 674 (CC) paras 85-86.
was exercised inappropriately.10 If, therefore, the decision-maker acts within its
powers, and considers the relevant material in arriving at a decision so that there is a
rational link between the power given, the material before it and the end sought to be
achieved, this would meet the rationality threshold. The weight to be given to the
material lies in the discretion of the decision-maker; so too does the determination of
the appropriate means to be employed towards this end.11 But if a decision-maker
misconstrues its power, this will offend the principle of legality and render the
decision reviewable.12
[20] The complaint advanced in the respondents‟ papers was that UFS failed to
take into account the requirements of s 29(2) of the Constitution and the LPHE, for
which provision is made in s 27(2) of the Act. In its answering affidavit, UFS says it
took both s 29(2) and the LPHE into account. There is ample evidence that it did.
There is therefore no substance in this attack. The court a quo, therefore, erred in
upholding this argument, albeit that it did so in the belief that it was concerned with
administrative action.
[21] The respondents advance a more nuanced complaint in their written
submissions before this court. They now contend that in exercising its power to
adopt the new policy, UFS did so without appreciating the constitutional and
statutory parameters within which the power had to be exercised. The constitutional
constraint, it is contended was s 29(2) of the Constitution, which affords the right to
language instruction in a language of choice where this is „reasonably practicable‟.
And the statutory limitation on the power was s 27(2) of the Act, which made the
exercise of the power „subject to‟ the LPHE. Properly understood, the complaint on
both grounds is that UFS misconstrued its powers in formulating its new language
policy.
10 Pharmaceutical Manufacturers Association of South Africa para 90; Scalabrini Centre fn 8 above
para 66.
11 Democratic Alliance v President of the Republic of South Africa & others [2012] ZACC 24; 2013 (1)
SA 248 (CC) paras 39-40.
12 Masetlha v President of the Republic of South Africa & another 2008 (1) SA 566 (CC) para 81.
[22] I deal first with the s 29(2) complaint, which lies at the heart of this appeal.
Section 29 of the Constitution reads thus:
„(1)
Everyone has the right–
(a)
to a basic education, including adult basic education; and
(b)
to further education, which the State, through reasonable measures, must make
progressively available and accessible.
(2)
Everyone has the right to receive education in the official language or languages of
their choice in public educational institutions where that education is reasonably
practicable. In order to ensure the effective access to, and implementation of, this
right, the State must consider all reasonable educational alternatives, including single
medium institutions, taking into account–
(a)
equity;
(b)
practicability; and
(c)
the need to redress the results of past racially discriminatory laws and practices.‟
[23] As I understand the respondents‟ case regarding s 29(2), it is this: In 2003
UFS adopted a dual-medium language policy. There were no resource constraints
(cost, human resources and infrastructure) to continuing with the policy. Section
29(2) therefore required UFS to continue with the 2003 policy because it was
„reasonably practicable‟ to do so. When the problem of the racial segregation arose,
UFS was not entitled to abandon the 2003 policy only because of this problem. It had
to consider all „reasonable educational alternatives‟ before departing from the 2003
policy. This assessment involved taking the listed criteria of equity, practicability and
historical redress into account. A proper consideration of these criteria, would have
involved balancing the relevant constitutional considerations and standards, and
would not have led to the 2003 policy being abandoned solely to promote racial
integration. In other words, UFS ought to have employed other means, without
limiting the right of Afrikaans language speakers to their language of choice, to solve
this problem. The respondents do not explain what other means were available to
UFS.
[24] Professor Lange‟s response on behalf of UFS is embodied in the following
pithy statement in her answering affidavit, which emphasises that the „reasonably
practicable‟ requirement in s 29(2) has a normative content, and is not just
concerned with resource constraints:
„It is inherently impossible to avoid racial division when language division is maintained and
where the statistics show that one of the two language streams comprises of white and the
other of black students. While this is at times described by different individuals as an
"ethical" or "redress" issue, it is equally a matter of what is reasonably practicable. The fact
of the matter is that the “reasonably practicable" criterion is far exceeded: it is absolutely
impossible to provide language of choice without indirectly discriminating on the basis of
race.‟ [Emphasis added]
[25] UFS submits that the right to receive an education in a language of choice is
not only a matter of practicality, but also of reasonableness. In other words the
existence of the right depends on an important internal modifier: that it is reasonably
practicable.13 Relying on Hoërskool Ermelo14 it contends that the assessment of
whether the attainment of the right is reasonably practicable involves a „context-
sensitive‟ appraisal of „all the relevant circumstances of each particular case‟. This of
necessity must include constitutional norms. On this interpretation, the criteria
mentioned in the second part (equity, practicability and redress), which are relevant
when considering effective access to, and implementation of the right, also enter into
the assessment. It is thus incorrect, UFS says, to read the first part of s 29(2) as a
mere provisioning provision, which is hermetically sealed from the second part. To
use the language used in Hoërskool Ermelo, the two parts are „mutually
reinforcing‟.15
[26] In my view, the crux of the dispute regarding s 29(2) as to whether UFS
misconstrued its powers turns on which of the two interpretations of the reasonably
13 B Fleisch and S Woolman „On the constitutionality of single medium public schools‟ (2007) SAJHR
34 at 50. Head of department, Mpumalanga Department of Education v Hoërskool Ermelo & another
[2009] ZACC 40; 2010 (2) SA 415 (CC) para 52.
14 Ibid.
15 Ibid.
practicable requirement – UFS‟s or the respondents‟ – is correct. Once it is
accepted, as the respondents were constrained to accept, that the very existence of
the right depends on a „context-sensitive‟ assessment of what is reasonably
practicable, this can hardly exclude any factor that may bear on this assessment. As
Kriegler J said of the reasonably practicable standard in the Gauteng School
Education Bill case, it is „elastic – as it necessarily has to be in order to leave room
for a wide range of circumstances‟.16 The legal standard is reasonableness, which of
necessity involves a consideration of constitutional norms, including equity, redress,
desegregation and non-racialism. The factual criterion is practicability, which is
concerned with resource constraints and the feasibility of adopting a particular
language policy.
[27] It follows, in my view, that even if a language policy is practical because there
are no resource constraints to its implementation, it may not be reasonable to
implement because it offends constitutional norms. The policy would therefore not
meet the reasonably practicable standard. I am mindful that once the standard is met
and the right to a language of choice exists, the State bears a negative duty not to
take it away or diminish the right without justification.17 But this does not mean that
once the right exists it continues, regardless of whether the context and the
circumstances have changed. A change in circumstances may materially bear on the
question whether it is reasonably practicable to continue with a policy. What is
required of a decision-maker, when there is a change in circumstances, is to
demonstrate that it has good reason to change the policy. In other words, it must act
rationally and not arbitrarily.
16 Ex Parte Gauteng Provincial Legislature: In re Dispute concerning the constitutionality of certain
provisions of the Gauteng School Education Bill 1995 1996 (3) SA 165 (CC) para 41. That case
concerned s 32 of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa 200 of 1993. Section 32(b) dealt
with the reasonable practicability standard. Section 32 read as follows:
„Every person shall have the right-
a.
to basic education and to equal access to educational institutions;
b.
to instruction in the language of his or her choice where this is reasonably practicable; and
c.
to establish, where practicable, educational institutions based on a common culture, language
or religion, provided that there shall be no discrimination on the ground of race.‟
17 Hoërskool Ermelo fn 13 above para 52.
[28] UFS‟s research has shown conclusively that as the demographic and
language profile of its student population has changed with ever-increasing numbers
of
black
students
opting
for
English-medium
language
instruction,
and
correspondingly fewer numbers of white Afrikaans students seeking Afrikaans-
medium instruction, racial segregation is becoming an increasing problem. The ratio
of Afrikaans speaking students per lecturer and per classroom is significantly lower
than is the case with non-Afrikaans-speaking students, who choose the English
stream. This in turn leads to a perception that Afrikaans-speaking students are
receiving closer supervision than students who choose to study through the English
medium of instruction. While the problem was observed by Professor Fourie more
than a decade ago, the circumstances now have led UFS to conclude that the
continuation of the 2003 policy is not only not reasonably practicable, but absolutely
impossible. That conclusion has the support of the overwhelming majority of the
University community, including substantial numbers of Afrikaans speakers. It was
arrived at after proper research, debate and deliberation. UFS‟s assessment that it is
no longer reasonably practicable to continue with the 2003 is, therefore, one that a
court of law should be slow to interfere with on review.
[29] What is more, it is apparent from reading the policy that it was carefully
calibrated. Those students, who currently use Afrikaans as a medium of instruction,
shall be allowed to complete their studies using this medium. The policy will first be
piloted in only three faculties for the 2017 academic year, namely medicine, law and
the humanities, and only rolled out thereafter.18 An expanded tutorial system will be
made available to especially first-year students in Afrikaans, Sesotho, isiZulu and
other languages to facilitate the transition to English instruction. In the case of
professional programmes, such as Education and the Agricultural Sciences, the
parallel-medium policy shall continue because there remains a market-demand for
them. Importantly, the intention is to implement the new policy with „flexibility and
understanding rather than as a rigid rule regardless of the circumstances.‟
18 UFS v Afriforum & another [2016] ZASCA 165 (17 November 2016) para 17; [2017] 1 ALL SA 79
(SCA) para 17.
[30] I therefore conclude that the respondents‟ contention that UFS misconstrued
its powers by failing to properly apply the „reasonably practicable‟ standard in s 29(2)
must fail. UFS‟s conduct has been exemplary in the manner it approached the
decision to reconsider the 2003 policy and adopt a new policy. It also gave careful
consideration to the content of the new policy. It is the respondents, not UFS, who
misconstrue this provision.
[31] I should add that this dispute raises potentially difficult constitutional
questions, including whether the new policy‟s pursuit of racial integration and
equality has the effect of: unfairly discriminating against linguistic and cultural
minorities; impermissibly promoting majoritarian hegemony at the expense of
linguistic and cultural diversity, or undermining the fundamental language scheme of
our constitutional order, which requires the State to take practical and positive
measures to elevate the status and advance the use of all official languages, instead
of diminishing their importance.19
[32] But such questions may only be confronted through a substantive
constitutional challenge to the State‟s language policy, and not somewhat diffidently
or obliquely though judicial review, as the respondents have done in this case.
[33] I turn to consider the respondents‟ second complaint, that UFS‟s statutory
power to adopt a language policy was constrained by the LPHE, which required the
retention and strengthening of Afrikaans, as a medium of instruction. Put differently it
is contended that UFS misconstrued its power by adopting a language policy that
was in conflict with the LPHE.
19 Section 6(1) of the Constitution says: „The official languages of the Republic are Sepedi, Sesotho,
Setswana, siSwati, Tshivenda, Xitsonga, Afrikaans, English, isiNdebele, isiXhosa and isiZulu.‟
Section 6(2) reads as follows: „Recognising the historically diminished use and status of the
indigenous languages of our people, the State must take practical and positive measures to elevate
the status and advance the use of these languages.‟
[34] The source of the power to decide its language policy is s 27(2) of the Act,
which authorises the council of a university, with the concurrence of the senate, to
determine its language policy. But it may only do so, „subject to‟ the policy
determined by the Minister of Higher Education, which in this case refers to the
LPHE.20
[35] Drafters usually use the words „subject to‟ – as in s 27(2) – as subordinating
language to denote that if clause A is made subject to clause B, clause A is
subordinate to clause B. In other words clause A may not contradict clause B. In this
case the respondents‟ contend that the new policy impermissibly contradicts the
LPHE‟s injunction to retain and strengthen Afrikaans as a language of instruction.
[36] Before considering the ambit of the LPHE it must be borne in mind, as Harms
JA pointed out, in Akani Garden Route (Pty) Ltd v Pinnacle Point Casino (Pty) Ltd,21
that the word „policy‟ is „inherently vague and may bear different meanings‟. He went
on, in the context of the statute he was dealing with, to say the following:
„I prefer to begin by stating the obvious, namely that laws, regulations and rules are
legislative instruments, whereas policy determinations are not. As a matter of sound
government, in order to bind the public, policy should normally be reflected in such
instruments. Policy determinations cannot override, amend or be in conflict with laws…‟
[37] This brings me to the LPHE. I mentioned earlier that the LPHE encouraged
the promotion of multilingualism, and it also advocated „the retention and
strengthening of Afrikaans as a language of instruction‟ in historically Afrikaans
universities. At the same time it acknowledged that this will practically create a
tension with other constitutional imperatives including equity and redress. It also
presciently cautioned that the sustained development of Afrikaans should not have
the „unintended consequence of concentrating Afrikaans-speaking students in some
20 Section 27(2) provides: „Subject to the policy determined by the Minister, the council, with the
concurrence of the senate, must determine the language policy of a public higher education institution
and must publish it and make it available on request.‟
21 Akani Garden Route (Pty) Ltd v Pinnacle Point Casino (Pty) Ltd 2001 (4) SA 501 (SCA) para 7.
institutions‟ thereby retarding attempts to promote diversity. This is precisely what
happened at UFS.
[38] The question is whether the LPHE – in particular the sentiment that Afrikaans
be retained and strengthened – was intended to be prescriptive and bind universities
in the formulation of their language policies, or merely to act as a guideline from
which they could depart if the circumstances warranted this? In my view there are
clear indications in the LPHE and in the Act that it was not meant to be binding: first,
the language used in the LPHE is noticeable for its absence of any prescriptive
language; secondly, the LPHE envisaged the unintended consequence that may
result from the retention and strengthening of Afrikaans as a language of instruction,
which must mean that it was left to universities to decide how best to deal with this
problem in their language policies, and thirdly, while s 49(A) of the Act gives the
Minister of Higher Education the authority to issue directives to universities to deal
with, among other things, financial impropriety, ineffectiveness in the performance of
their functions and failure to comply with any law, it conspicuously omits any
authority for him or her to intervene in their language policies.
[39] In my view, and having regard to the language of the preamble of the Act that
it is „desirable for higher education institutions to enjoy freedom and autonomy in
their relationship with the State within the context of public accountability . . .‟, the
words „subject to‟ in s 27(2), contextually understood, do not impose a legal
obligation on any university to adopt the LPHE. The LPHE goes no further than to
provide a policy guideline for the universities from which they are free to depart. The
only obligation on universities that choose this course is to justify their departure. In
this case UFS has done so adequately. The contention that it failed to appreciate the
statutory constraint on its power in s 27(2) of the Act read together with the LPHE
must therefore fail.
[40] This brings me to UFS‟s application to strike out certain damaging allegations
in the respondents‟ papers regarding its conduct. The court a quo dismissed the
application because these allegations were „not material‟. But allegations that are
immaterial and irrelevant should be struck out, especially when they advance
damaging, vague and unsubstantiated allegations regarding a party‟s conduct.22 The
respondents did not seek to suggest that they were true.23 And neither did they
withdraw or apologise for them. The prejudice to UFS is evident. When pressed in
this court the respondents‟ response was a grudging, half-hearted „apology‟: „To the
extent that the allegations were damaging we apologise for them‟. This is simply not
good enough. In the circumstances UFS is entitled to a striking-out order.
[41] In regard to standing, it is settled that a party must establish a legal interest in
the subject matter of the relief sought. UFS does not dispute Afriforum‟s standing,
but I have some doubt that it has a legal interest in these proceedings. Afriforum
does not purport to represent all Afrikaans speaking students, and has not shown
that any of its members‟ rights are adversely affected by the new policy. It seeks, in
these proceedings, to review and set aside UFS‟s executive decision to adopt a new
language policy, and not the policy itself, but has not demonstrated that its legal
interest extends to this relief. There is also no constitutional challenge to the policy in
the public interest. However, in view of UFS‟s stance regarding Afriforum‟s standing,
there is no need to decide this question.
[42] Solidarity stands on a different footing. It is a trade union under the Labour
Relations Act 66 of 1995. It claims standing in its own interest and on behalf of its
members, but not in the public interest. However, neither Solidarity nor its members,
who are employees of UFS, have any entitlement to assert the s 29(2) right to a
choice of language. The rights-bearers of s 29(2) rights are students. It follows that
Solidarity has no legal interest in these proceedings.
22 In terms of Uniform rule 23(2):
„(2) Where any pleading contains averments which are scandalous, vexatious, or irrelevant, the
opposite party may, within the period allowed for filing any subsequent pleading, apply for the striking
out of the matter aforesaid, and may set such application down for hearing in terms of paragraph (f) of
subrule (5) of rule 6, but the court shall not grant the same unless it is satisfied that the applicant will
be prejudiced in the conduct of his claim or defence if it be not granted.‟
23 Titty’s Bar and Bottle Store (Pty) Ltd v ABC Garage (Pty) Ltd & others 1974 (4) SA 362 (T).
[43] What remains is the question of costs. Afriforum relies on what has now
become known as the Biowatch principle to avoid a costs order against unsuccessful
litigants who seek to vindicate constitutional rights.24 As I have mentioned, Afriforum
has not challenged the constitutionality of the policy, nor shown that any of its
members‟ constitutional rights are adversely affected by the new policy. However, I
accept that these proceedings have, as their main purpose, to protect the
constitutional rights of Afrikaans-speaking students, and that the proper
interpretation of s 29(2) of the Constitution lies at the heart of this dispute. I also
accept that language rights, which overlap with cultural rights, is a very emotive
issue and of considerable importance to many South Africans, and not only to
Afrikaans-speakers, many of whom Afriforum represent. In the circumstances of this
case I would relieve Afriforum of having to pay the costs of the litigation. This
excludes the costs of the striking-out application, which respondents could have
avoided with a bit more circumspection. Solidarity has no standing and has no basis
to avoid a costs order in its case.
[44] To sum up: the respondents sought an order reviewing and setting aside the
decision of UFS to adopt a single-medium English language policy. That decision
was not reviewable under PAJA. And the respondents failed to make out a proper
case for review under the principle of legality. UFS was entitled to adopt a new policy
because it was no longer reasonably practicable to continue with the 2003 policy,
which had the effect of segregating the student community along racial lines. UFS
was under no legal obligation to apply the LPHE and was free to depart from it for
good reason. It did so.
[45] The Biowatch principle applied in the case of Afriforum as its real purpose
was to vindicate the language rights of Afrikaans-speaking students, but not to
Solidarity, which had no legal interest in the relief claimed. Both parties are however
liable for UFS‟s costs in the striking-out application on a scale as between attorney
and client.
24 Biowatch Trust v Registrar, Genetic Resources & others [2009] ZACC 14; 2009 (6) SA 232 (CC)
para 21.
[46] The following order is made:
1 The appeal in the review application is upheld with costs including the costs of two
counsel, save that in the case of the first applicant, each party shall pay its own
costs.
2 The appeal in the strike-out application is upheld with costs including the costs of
two counsel, on a scale as between attorney and client. As a consequence the
following parts of the respondents‟ papers are struck out:
(a)
para 3.2 of the founding affidavit: „that were too scared to divulge their
identity for fear of intimidation and reprisal‟;
(b)
para 10 of the founding affidavit: „they informed Messrs Human and
Kruger that they are absolutely fearful that their positions may be jeopardised
should their identities be disclosed, but were prepared to do so in view of the
constitutional principle of transparency and since the UFS will in any event in
good time have to make disclosure of these very document‟;
(c)
para 101.14 of the founding affidavit: „Nothing could be further from the
truth than this misleading statement of the second respondent to the UFS
Senate, the one body which has to make a decision on something as serious
and contentious as the possible validity of a new language policy which was in
the process of formulation‟;
(d)
para 125.1.4 of the founding affidavit (excluding the first three
sentences): „On the basis of the assurance given by a member attending that
meeting to Mr Human, I sincerely believe that it is true that Prof Jansen
dismissed the letter as being irrelevant as coming from a third party . . . the
new language policy‟;
(e)
para 154 of the founding affidavit: „because the persons who provided
them were too scared to reveal their identities and‟;
(f)
para 20.5.3 of the supplementary founding affidavit: „it nonetheless
amounts to a serious misrepresentation vitiating the legality of any decision
taken on that basis‟; and
(g)
para 41 of the supplementary founding affidavit: „led to believe‟ and „the
assertions were misleading‟.
3 The order granted by the Free State Division of the High Court, Bloemfontein
(under case no. A70/2016) is set aside and substituted by the following order:
(a)
„The applicants‟ application to review and set aside the decision by the
Council of the University of the Free State to adopt a new language policy is
dismissed with costs including the costs of two counsel, save that in the case
of the first applicant, each party shall pay its own costs.
(b)
The respondent‟s application to strike out is upheld with costs including
the costs of two counsel on a scale as between attorney and client. As a
consequence the parts identified in the applicants‟ papers at paras 2 (a) to (g)
of the order of this court are set aside.‟
______________
A Cachalia
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES
For Appellant:
J J Gauntlett SC (with him F B Pelser)
Instructed by:
Phatshoane Henney Inc, Bloemfontein
For First Respondent:
J I du Toit SC (with him M J Engelbrecht; M J Merabe)
Instructed by:
Hurter Spies Inc, Centurion
Schoeman Maree Attorneys, Bloemfontein
Amici Curiae:
Horn & Van Rensburg Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
28 March 2017
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and
does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
UNIVERSITY OF THE FREE STATE
v
AFRIFORUM & ANOTHER
[1] The University of the Free State (UFS) acted lawfully when in adopted a
new language policy in March 2016, which replaces Afrikaans and English as
parallel mediums of instruction with English as the primary medium. So said the
Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) today, when it upheld an appeal by UFS against a
ruling of by three judges of the Free State Division of the High Court in July 2016,
which reviewed and set aside the decision to adopt the new policy as unlawful. The
application to review and set aside the adoption of the policy was brought by
Afriforum and Solidarity.
[2] In a unanimous judgment written by Justice Azhar Cachalia, in which
Justices Kevin Swain, Rami Mathopo, Burton Fourie and Ashton Schippers
concurred, the SCA said that UFS’s conduct had been exemplary in the manner in
which it adopted and gave careful consideration to the new policy. The main
reason given for the departing from the parallel-medium policy was that it had the
‘unintended consequence’ of segregating white Afrikaans-speaking students from
Black students who have chosen to study in English. This led to racial tensions as
well as staff and student complaints. The SCA held this was a good reason to
depart from the existing policy.
[3] The High Court had held that in adopting the new policy UFS had failed to
consider s 29(2) of the Constitution, which guarantees language of choice in public
education institutions when ‘reasonably practicable’ and the 2002 Higher Education
Language Policy (LPHE), which advocated the retention and strengthening of
Afrikaans at historically Afrikaans universities such as UFS. However, the SCA
held that the evidence showed that UFS had indeed considered both s 29(2) and
the LPHE.
[4] In regard to s 29(2), the SCA upheld UFS’s contention that it was no longer
‘reasonably practicable,’ to continue with the existing policy. And as far as the
LPHE was concerned, it held that it was merely a guideline which UFS was free to
depart from in formulating its own language policy in terms of s 27(2) of the Higher
Education Act 101 of 1995. There was therefore no basis for the argument by
Afriforum and Solidarity that UFS had misconstrued its powers when it adopted the
new policy.
[5] In regard to the costs of the appeal, the SCA held that Afriforum was not
liable to pay for the UFS’s costs because its real purpose was to vindicate the
constitutional rights of Afrikaans language speakers. However, Solidarity, as a
trade union had not shown that it had a legal interest in these proceedings and was
therefore liable for UFS’s costs. |
2332 | non-electoral | 2009 | DIE HOOGSTE HOF VAN APPEL
REPUBLIEK VAN SUID-AFRIKA
UITSPRAAK
Saak no: 073/2009
Geen gesagswaarde
DONELLE GABRIEL
APPELLANT
en
DIE STAAT RESPONDENT
Neutrale sitasie:
Gabriel v Die Staat (073/09) [2009] ZASCA 145 (26 November 2009)
Coram:
Mthiyane AR, Malan AR en Leach WnAR
Verhoordatum:
19 November 2009
Gelewer:
26 November 2009
Opsomming Strafbare manslag – motorbotsing – gevangenisstraf – eerste oortreder –
tersydestelling van vonnis – vonnis gevel op basis van verkeerde
uitgangspunt
______________________________________________________________
BEVEL
______________________________________________________________
Op appèl vanaf die Kaap die Goeie Hoop Provinsiale Afdeling (Griesel R en
Steyn WnR as hof van tweede instansie)
Die appèl teen skuldigbevinding word van die hand gewys en die appèl teen
vonnis slaag. Die volgende bevel is gemaak:
(1)
Die skuldigbevinding word bekragtig.
(2)
Die vonnis wat deur die landdros opgelê is word ter syde gestel en
deur die volgende vervang:
‘Aanklagte 1 en 3 word vir doeleindes van vonnis saam geneem en
die beskuldigde word tot ‘n boete van R 6 000 of 6 maande
gevangenisstraf gevonnis en tot ‘n verdere een jaar gevangenisstraf
opgeskort vir ‘n tydperk van drie jaar op voorwaarde dat die
beskuldigde nie skuldig bevind word aan ‘n misdryf wat die
roekelose of nalatige bestuur van ‘n motorvoertuig behels nie en
wat gepleeg is tydens die periode van opskorting en waarvoor hy
gevonnis word tot gevangenisstraf sonder die keuse van ‘n boete.’
______________________________________________________________
UITSPRAAK
______________________________________________________________
MALAN AR (MTHIYANE AR en LEACH WnAR stem saam)
[1] Die appellant is op 24 November 2006 in die landdroshof op Atlantis
skuldig bevind op ‘n aanklag van strafbare manslag en van ‘n oortreding van
artikel 61(1)(a) van die Nasionale Padverkeerswet Wet 93 van 1996. Hy het
onskuldig gepleit op die aanklag van strafbare manslag maar skuldig op
laasgenoemde aanklag dat hy versuim het om sy voertuig onmiddellik na ‘n
motorbotsing tot stilstand te bring. Die aanklagte spruit uit ‘n botsing wat op 5
Februarie 2005 op die Weskuspad, oftewel die R 27 deurpad, by die
aansluiting met die Dassenbergrylaan na Atlantis plaasgevind het en waarin
ene Ruth Jass omgekom het. Die landdros het beide skuldigbevindings vir
doeleindes van vonnisoplegging gesamentlik oorweeg en die appellant tot
twee jaar gevangenisstraf gevonnis.
[2] Verlof om te appelleer is deur die landdros geweier maar na ‘n
versoekskrif aan die Regter President is verlof verleen om na die Provinsiale
Afdeling van die Hooggeregshof van die Kaap die Goeie Hoop teen beide die
skuldigbeving op die aanklag van strafbare manslag en die vonnis te
appelleer. Die appèl is op 12 September 2008 deur Griesel R en Steyn WnR
van die hand gewys. Op 27 Oktober 2008 is verlof egter verleen om teen
beide skuldigbevinding en vonnis na hierdie hof in hoër beroep te kom.
[3] Die oorledene was ‘n passasier in ‘n Mazda motorvoertuig wat deur
LeRoy Collins bestuur is en het agter die bestuurder gesit. Collins was op pad
van Melkbos waar hy en sy passasiers, drie dames en ‘n kind, die laat
namiddag deurgebring het. Hy sou regs draai in Dassenbergrylaan op pad na
Atlantis. Die Weskuspad verdeel kort voor die aansluiting in twee bane, een
vir verkeer wat na regs draai en die ander vir deurverkeer. Dassenbergrylaan
het ook twee bane wat deur ‘n middelmannetjie geskei word: die een kant
waar die appellant gery het is vir verkeer wat in die Weskuspad na links of
regs draai en die ander kant vir verkeer wat in Dassenbergrylaan indraai.
Collins het nie die appellant se voertuig voor die botsing gewaar nie maar net
‘n harde slag gehoor. Sy voertuig is regs agter aan die sykant getref en die
oorledene is onmiddelik of kort na die botsing oorlede.
[4] Die appellant, ‘n taxibestuurder, was op pad van Atlantis in ‘n wit
Toyota Hilux minibus. Hy het getuig dat toe hy die aansluiting met die
Weskuspad nader hy ietwat spoed verminder het maar nie gestop het nie en,
omdat hy geen verkeer in die Weskuspad opgemerk het nie, oor die
stopteken in Dassenbergrylaan ‘gerol’ en na links in die Weskuspad gedraai
het. Die botsing het plaasgevind sonder dat hy die voertuig waarin die
oorledene was gesien het. Hy het wel opgemerk dat hierdie voertuig in sy, die
appellant, se baan was. Dit sou onder die omstandighede beteken dat die
voertuig waarin die oorledene gery het in die baan was waarin die appellant
na links gedraai het. Die plek waar die botsing plaasgevind het is egter deur
Collins aan die polisiebeampte, inspekteur Jacobs, uitgewys as synde aan die
ander, Collins se korrekte, kant van die Weskuspad.
[5] In sy uitspraak het die landdros oorweeg waar die botsing plaasgevind
het. Hy moes ‘n beslissing maak oor die geskil tussen die bewering van die
appellant dat die botsing aan ‘sy kant’ gebeur het en die suggestie deur die
staatsgetuies dat dit aan ‘hulle’ kant van die Weskuspad was. Die landdros se
gevolgtrekking is die volgende:
‘Daar was geen getuienis aangebied dat die motorvoertuig waarin die oorledene was na die
botsing beweeg het, of jammer, daar was geen getuienis dat die motorvoertuig waarin die
oorledene was na die botsing beweeg het vanaf waar beskuldigde sê die botsing sou
plaasgevind het nie totdat die polisie op die toneel gekom het nie. Daar was ook geen
getuienis aangebied dat die voertuig uit die pad geskuif was tot waar die polisie dit gevind het
nie. Daar is ook geen getuienis aangebied dat die voertuig nie beskadig was soos deur die
polisie getuig was nie. Al wat die Hof van beskuldigde se kant het is dat hy nie op die toneel
was nie en enigiets kon gebeur het.
Wanneer die Hof kyk na die omstandighede, die toneel, die skade aan die motorvoertuig
waarin die oorledene was soos getuig deur die polisie, is die Hof van mening dat die enigste
manier hoe die ongeluk kon plaasgevind het of gebeur het en waarskynlik gebeur het die
volgende is. Die beskuldigde het teen ‘n hoë spoed spoed hoër as 20 kilometer per uur die
stopstraat verontagsaam. Hy het oorbeweeg in die baan van aankomende verkeer toe hy na
links draai en het hy die motorvoertuig waarin die oorledene ‘n passasier was getref en
daarna die toneel verlaat wetende die ongeluk niemand anders as sy skuld was nie. Die Hof
sal self tot hierdie bogenoemde bevinding kom al sou Cornelia Sam nie getuig het nie, in ag
genome die omstandighede en feite van die saak. Die Hof is verder van mening dat
beskuldigde se optrede grens aan roekeloosheid en bevind dat hy grof nalatig was in sy
optrede.’
Die landdros se bevinding is gevolglik dat die appellant se optrede aan
roekeloosheid grens en dat hy grof nalatig was.
[6] Die Staat het die getuienis van Nico Christopher Jacobs, Gail Grewe,
LeRoy Collins en Cornelia Sam aangebied. Die laaste drie getuies was almal
in die motor wat deur Collins bestuur is.
[7] Jacobs was ‘n inspekteur in die Suid-Afrikaanse polisiediens wat die
toneel na die botsing besoek het. Hy het nie self die botsing sien plaasvind
nie maar het die voertuig waarin die oorledene was dwars oor die pad sien
staan. Hy het ‘n skets van die toneel gemaak. Hierop word die punt van
botsing met ‘n ‘X’ aangedui soos dit deur Collins aan hom uitgewys is. Hierdie
punt is aan Collins se kant van die Weskuspad geleë effens voor en nie
regoor die aansluiting nie. Jacobs kon egter nie ‘n aanduiding gee oor presies
waar hierdie punt in verhouding met ander verwysingspunte was nie omdat,
soos hy dit uitgedruk het, die bestuurder ‘n ‘vae beeld’ aan hom gegee het
van waar die voertuig hom getref het. Die skade aan hierdie voertuig was op
die regter agterdeur. Dit was donker op die toneel en daar was geen
straatbeligting nie.
[8] By sy beoordeling van die getuienis van Cornelia Sam het die landdros
bevind dat sy hom as ‘n goeie getuie beïndruk het. Hy het egter, soos
geredelik deur die Staat toegegee word, ‘n onreëlmatigheid began deur die
kruisvraging van hierdie getuie oor haar polisieverklaring te verbied en te
vereis dat die verdediging die polisiebeampte wat die verklaring afgeneem het
in ‘n binneverhoor oor die toelaatbaarheid daarvan as getuie moes roep.
Hierdie beslissing van die landdros kom op ‘n klaarblyklike onreëlmatigheid
neer.1 Met ‘n beroep op S v Heslop,2 is betoog dat die appellant nie ‘n billike
verhoor gehad het nie en gevolglik op sy ontslag geregtig is. Ek stem nie
hiermee saam nie. Die onreëlmatighede wat in Heslop ter sprake gekom het
was van ‘n uiteenlopende aard en nie vergelykbaar met die weiering van die
landdros in hierdie saak om die kruisverhoor van ‘n enkele getuie oor een
aspek toe te laat nie. Indien die getuienis van Cornelia Sam geheel en al buite
rekening gelaat word kan dit nie gesê word dat ‘geregtigheid ten gevolge van
so ‘n onreëlmatigheid of gebrek inderdaad nie geskied het nie’ (artikel 322(1)
van die Strafproseswet 51 van 1977).3
[9] Gail Grewe het links agter in die voertuig gesit met ‘n kind op haar
skoot. Sy kon nie getuig vanaf welke rigting die taxi wat deur die appellant
bestuur is gekom het nie en het nooit die ligte van ‘n ander voertuig sien
aankom nie. Sy het wel verklaar dat die voertuig waarin sy was stadiger gery
het net voordat die taxi in hulle vasgery het. Sy kon nie verduidelik in welke
baan hulle kort voor die beplande draai na regs gery het nie. Haar getuienis
dra ook niks by tot die spoed waarteen hulle en die appellant gery het nie.
[10] Collins was die bestuurder van die voertuig waarteen die taxi gebots
het. Hy het bevestig dat hy die punt van botsing aan die polisiebeampte
1 S v Mayekiso en Andere 1996 (2) SASV 298 (K) 304a en 304h – 305b en vgl die
opmerkings oor kruisondervraging van getuies na aanleiding van hul polisieverklarings in S v
Govender en andere 2006 (1) SA SASV 322 (E) 327 b-f; S v Crossberg 2008 (2) SASV 317
(HHA) paras 70 and 80.
2 2007 (1) SA 461 (HHA) paras 12 en 23.
3 Cf Engles v Hofmann en ‘n ander 1992 (2) SA 650 (K).
uitgewys het. Hy het egter glad nie die taxi sien aankom nie en meld trouens
dat hy geen voertuig gesien het nie. Hy het net die slag gehoor. Toe hy onder
kruisverhoor met sy polisieverklaring waarin hy vermeld het dat hy ‘n
witkleurige kombi teen ‘n hoë spoed sien aankom en die draai te wyd gevat
het gekonfronteer word, het hy getuig dat hy deur die speurder voorgesê is.
Onder kruisondervraging sou hy skielik onthou wat gebeur het. Ten spyte van
hierdie onbevredigende kante van Collins se getuienis word hy deur die
landdros as ‘n goeie getuie bestempel.
[11] Normaalweg sal ‘n hof op appèl nie geredelik die feitelike bevindinge
en geloofwaardigheidsbeslissings van die verhoorhof bevraagteken nie. In R v
Dhlumayo and Another is opgemerk:4
'The principle which has been adopted that an appellate court will not ordinarily interfere with
a finding of fact by a trial judge - with which I shall deal in a moment - is certainly not a rule of
law. It probably may be called a "rule of practice", though I can find no authority which goes
so far as to call it such. . . . It is no more than a common-sense recognition of the essential
advantages which the trial judge has had, as a consequence of which the right of the
appellate court to come to its own conclusions on matters of fact, free and unrestricted on
legal theory, is necessarily in practice limited.'
In die lig van die verrassende wending wat Colllins se getuienis geneem het
kan hy beswaarlik as ‘n bevredigende getuie beskou word. Dit beteken egter
nie dat die landdros, soos namens die appellant betoog is,5 die aansoek om
4 1948 (2) SA 677 (A) 695-6; S v Robinson en andere 1968 (1) SA 666 (A) 675 G - H.
5 Met ‘n beroep op onder andere S v Ndlangamandla en ‘n ander 1999 (1) SASV 391 (W) en
ook S v Jama en ‘n ander 1998 (2) SASV 237 (N) waar op 241e-f opgemerk word: ‘I share
the views … that an accused should be discharged if there is no evidence upon which a
reasonable man might convict and the only basis of putting him on his defence is to hope that
ontslag moes toegestaan het nie. Hierdie saak is nie ‘n geval waar daar geen
getuienis teen die appellant aan die einde van die staatsaak was nie. Daar
was voldoende getuienis aangevul deur die erkennings van die appellant wat
hom op sy verweer geplaas het en op grond waarvan skuldig bevind sou kon
word. Sy onslag is tereg geweier en meneer Smit wat namens die appellant
verskyn het het dit in die verloop van sy betoog toegegee.
[12] Die appellant het getuig dat hy die taxi die aand bestuur het en hy het
geredelik toegegee dat hy nie by die stopstraat by die aansluiting met die
Weskuspad gestop het nie. Hy het teen minder as 20 kilometer per uur na
links in hierdie pad ingedraai. Hy het nie Collins se voertuig gewaar nie en die
botsing het plaasgevind in sy eie baan terwyl Collins probeer het om in die
pad na Atlantis in te draai. Hy het voor hy gedraai het seker gemaak dat daar
geen aankomende verkeer was nie. Die appellant het verder getuig dat hy
gereeld hierdie pad ry en dat hy altyd op hierdie wyse oor die stopstraat ‘rol’
wanneer hy geen aankomende verkeer in die Weskuspad gewaar nie. Deur
sekere feitebevindinge te maak het die landdros egter die appellant se
getuienis implisiet verwerp.
[13] Die hof a quo het opgemerk dat die appellant op sy eie getuienis
minstens grof nalatig was. Griesel R het soos volg opgemenrk:
‘Op sy eie weergawe het die appellant die betrokke aand nie soos ‘n redelike en versigtige
bestuurder opgetree nie. Hy het versuim om by die stopstraat stil te hou. Hy het ‘n aansluiting
this own evidence will augment that of the State.’ Sien ook S v Legote en ‘n ander 2001 (2)
SASV 179 (HHA) para 9; S v Lubaxa 2001 (4) SA 1251 (HHA) paras 17 en 18 en Kriegler en
Kruger Hiemstra Suid-Afrikaanse Strafproses 6de uitg (2002) op 452-3.
met ‘n besige deurpad binnegegaan sonder om behoorlik te kyk vir aankomende verkeer en
op ‘n tydstip toe dit onveilig was om dit te doen. Hy het in alle waarskynlikheid die draai te
wyd geneem en het in die proses in Collins se baan beland waar die botsing plaasgevind het,
soos aangedui op die polisieplan en soos gestaaf deur die posisie van Collins se voertuig
onmiddellik na die botsing. Daarna het hy die ongelukstoneel verlaat en homself uit die voete
gemaak, strydig met sy wetlike verpligtinge om te stop, die omvang van skade vas te stel en
hulp te verleen of the ontbied, indien nodig. Die afleiding is onvermydelik dat hy die
ongelukstoneel weens ‘n skuldgevoel, en nie weens skok, verlaat het.’
[14] Ek stem saam dat die appellant op sy eie weergawe nalatig was. Hy
het die aansluiting binnegegaan op ‘n tydstip toe dit onveilig was en sonder
om behoorlik te let op aankomende verkeer. Die botsing het kort na hy oor die
stopteken ‘gerol’ het plaasgevind. Die motor wat deur Collins bestuur was
moes dus onvermydelik voor hom of baie na aan die appellant se taxi gewees
het. Indien hy enigsins versigtig bestuur het sou hy dit gesien het en sou hy
die ongeluk kon vermy het. Die appellant is gevolglik tereg skuldig bevind.
[15] Die landdros het die appellant tot twee jaar gevangenisstraf gevonnis.
Hy het vir hierdie doel die twee klagte waarop hy skuldig bevind is saam
beoordeel. Die appellant was ‘n eerste oortreder wat ten tye van die misdaad
vyf en twintig jaar oud was. Hy is getroud en het drie kinders. Hy was toe
werksaam as taxibestuurder vir sy vader. Tydens die verhoor was hy ‘n
groente- en vrugtesmous wat ongeveer R 2400 per maand verdien het. Hy
het standard 7 geslaag. Die landdros het behoorlik van hierdie persoonlike
omstandighede kennis geneem. Met vonnisoplegging het hy egter van die
standpunt uitgegaan dat die botsing op die punt wat deur Jacobs op die
sketsplan aangedui is plaasgevind het. Verder meen die landdros dat die
appellant teen ‘n spoed wat hoër as 20 kilometer per uur was – ‘n hoë spoed -
die stopstraat verontagsaam, in die baan van aankomende verkeer inbeweeg
en teen die voertuig waarin die oorledene was gebots het. Hierdie optrede
meen die landdros was grof nalatig en grens aan roekeloosheid. Na my
mening word hierdie uitgangspunt van die landdros nie deur betroubare
getuienis ondersteun nie. Daar is enersyds geen betroubare getuienis deur
die staat aangebied oor die spoed waarteen die appellant sou bestuur het nie.
Collins se getuienis is eenvoudig nie aanvaarbaar nie en Grewe se getuienis
het niks tot die saak bygedra nie. Cornelia Sam se getuienis moet om die
redes vermeld buite rekening gelaat word. Dit laat slegs die getuienis van die
appellant. Verder meen ek kan die bevinding van die landdros dat die botsing
aan Collins se korrekte kant van die pad plaasgevind het bevraagteken word.
Karige getuienis hieroor is aangebied. Jacobs, ‘n ervare polisiebeampte, se
eie getuienis is dat hy nie self die punt van botsing op grond van sy eie
waarnemings sou kon bepaal nie. Hy was kort na die botsing op die toneel en
het die punt op die sketsplan slegs aangedui omdat Collins dit aan hom
uitgewys het. Collins se eie getuienis is onbetroubaar en die aanwesigheid
van glasstukke rondom die voertuig gee geen aanduiding van waar die punt
van botsing kon wees nie. Daar was geen olie- of remmerke nie. Jacobs self,
soos ek opgemerk het, kon nie bepaal waar die punt van botsing was nie.
Daar is gevolglik geen betroubare getuienis hieroor nie en geen betroubare
getuienis dat die botsing op die plek op die sketsplan aangedui plaasgevind
het nie.
[16] Dit is geykte reg dat ‘n hof van appèl nie ligtelik met die uitoefening van
‘n diskresie en gevolglik met die vonnis wat deur ‘n laer hof opgelê is sal
inmeng nie. ‘n Hoër hof sal slegs inmeng indien ‘n laer hof ‘n mistasting
begaan het wat van so ‘n aard, graad of erns is dat dit regstreeks of by
afleiding gesê kan word dat die hof sy diskresie nie uitgeoefen het nie of dit
onbehoorlik or onredelik uitgeoefen het. Indien dit die geval is staan dit die hof
van appèl vry om na eie goeddunke vonnis op te lê.6 In hierdie
aangeleentheid is gevangenisstraf die appellant opgelê op grond van
feitebevindinge wat nie deur die getuienis gestaaf word nie. Dit regverdig
hierdie hof om opnuut vonnis te vel.
[17] Die erns van die appellant se oortreding en die onherroeplikheid van
die gevolge van sy optrede kan en word nie onderskat nie. Dit is egter gepas
om in ‘n saak soos hierdie die graad van die appellant se nalatigheid te
beoordeel.7 In die afwesigheid van geloofwaardige getuienis tot die teendeel
moet die weergawe van die appellant aanvaar word. Volgens sy getuienis het
hy spoed verminder toe hy die aansluiting nader en na links en regs gekyk
maar geen aankomende verkeer gewaar nie. Hy het klaarblyklik nie behoorlik
gekyk nie maar gegewe hierdie feite volg dit nie noodwendig dat sy optrede
as grensende aan roekeloos of grof nalatig aangemerk kan word nie. Die
appellant se versuim om die voertuig van Collins te gewaar kan byvoorbeeld
te wyte wees aan ‘n kortstondige gebrek aan konsentrasie of onagsaamheid.
6 S v Pillay 1977 (4) SA 531 (A) 535 F.
7 Sien S v Nyathi 2005 (2) SASV 273 (HHA) paras 14 tot 21; S v Crossberg 2008 (2) SASV
317 (HHA) paras 85 to 110.
Hierby moet in ag geneem word dat die appellant sedert hy op 20 Desember
2007 gevonnis is in aanhouding was totdat borg hangende appèl op 13 Mei
2008 aan hom verleen is. In die lig hiervan is namens die Staat toegegee dat
‘n verdere tydperk van gevangenisstraf nie gepas sou wees nie en dat ‘n
boete met gevangenisstraf as alternatief asook ‘n opgeskorte verdere tydperk
van gevangenisstraf die gepaste vonnis sou wees.
[18] Die volgende bevel word gemaak;
(1) Die skuldigbevinding word bekragtig.
(2) Die vonnis wat deur die landdros opgelê is word ter syde gestel en
deur die volgende vervang:
‘Aanklagte 1 en 3 word vir doeleindes van vonnis saam geneem en die
beskuldigde word tot ‘n boete van R 6 000 of 6 maande
gevangenisstraf gevonnis en tot ‘n verdere een jaar gevangenisstraf
opgeskort vir ‘n tydperk van drie jaar op voorwaarde dat die
beskuldigde nie skuldig bevind word aan ‘n misdryf wat die roekelose
of nalatige bestuur van ‘n motorvoertuig behels nie en wat gepleeg is
tydens die periode van opskorting en waarvoor hy gevonnis word tot
gevangenisstraf sonder die keuse van ‘n boete.’
MALAN AR
Verskynings:
Vir Appellant:
JA Smit
In opdrag van:
Van Ieperen Prokureurs
Vir Respondent:
CJ Teunissen | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
26 November 2009
STATUS:
Immediate
Donelle Gabriel and the State (073/2009) [2009] ZASCA 145 (26 November 2009)
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does
not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
The Supreme Court of Appeal today dismissed an appeal against a conviction by the
regional magistrate at Atlantis on a count of culpable homicide arising from a motor
vehicle collision. The appellant was sentenced to two years’ imprisonment. Both the
conviction and sentence were confirmed on appeal to the Cape of Good Hope
Provincial Division. On a further appeal to the Supreme Court of Appeal the
conviction was confirmed but the sentence of two years’ imprisonment reduced and a
R 6000 fine (alternatively 6 months’ imprisonment) coupled with a suspended
sentence of one year’s imprisonment imposed. |
2764 | non-electoral | 2012 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case No: 162/12
In the matter between:
Siyabonga Mooi
Appellant
and
The State
Respondent
Neutral citation:
Mooi v The State (162/12) [2012] ZASCA 79 (30 May 2012)
Coram:
NAVSA, VAN HEERDEN AND SNYDERS JJA
Heard:
16 May 2012
Delivered:
30 May 2012
Summary:
Bail – Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 s 60(11)(a) – delay by State
in concluding its case taken together with deduced weakness of
State’s case constituting exceptional circumstances which in the
interests of justice permit the release of accused.
ORDER
On appeal from: Western Cape High Court, Cape Town (Hlophe JP sitting as court of
appeal):
The appeal is upheld.
The order of the court below is set aside and substituted as follows:
‘a
The appeal is upheld.
b
The order by the Magistrate is set aside and substituted as follows:
“The applicant is released on bail in the amount of R5 000 (five thousand
rand) subject to the following conditions:
i
That the applicant report at the Lingelethu West Police Station
every Monday, Wednesday and Friday between 06h00 and 08h00;
ii
Should the applicant change his address he must inform the
investigating officer, Detective Constable S Chaphiso accordingly and
supply the new address;
iii
Attend his trial on each date the matter is postponed to and
remain in attendance until excused by the court.”’
JUDGMENT
SNYDERS JA (Navsa and Van Heerden JJA concurring)
[1] This is an appeal against the dismissal of a bail appeal by the Western Cape High
Court, Cape Town (Hlophe JP sitting as court of appeal).1 At the conclusion of the
1 This matter commenced as an application for leave to appeal referred for the hearing of argument in
terms of s 21(3)(c) of the Supreme Court Act 59 of 1959. At the hearing leave to appeal was granted and
the matter proceeded as an appeal.
hearing of the matter an order was made releasing the appellant with an indication that
the reasons for the order were to follow. These are the reasons.
[2] The appellant is standing trial in the Regional Court for the Regional Division of the
Cape, held at Wynberg, on several counts of robbery with aggravating circumstances,
attempted robbery with aggravating circumstances, attempted murder and the unlawful
possession of a firearm and ammunition. All the charges arise from an incident on 24
December 2008, during which a service station in Muizenberg was robbed. The
appellant was arrested on that day and has been in custody ever since. The trial
commenced on 12 November 2009 and the State has not yet concluded its evidence.
During March 2011 the appellant applied to be released on bail. He brought the
application in the Regional Court, Wynberg (not the trial court). Bail was refused and he
appealed the refusal of bail to the Western Cape High Court, Cape Town. On 19
September 2011 his appeal was dismissed.
[3] The parties were in agreement that the bail application resorted under s 60(11)(a) of
the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 (the CPA) and therefore the appellant has to
adduce evidence that satisfies the court that ‘exceptional circumstances exists which in
the interests of justice permit his release’.2 In terms of s 65(4) the appellant needs to
persuade this Court that the decision to refuse bail was wrong.3
[4] Section 60(4) lists several grounds which, if shown to exist, would have the effect
that the interests of justice would not permit the release of an accused. Those are:
‘(a) Where there is the likelihood that the accused, if he or she were released on bail, will
endanger the safety of the public or any particular person or will commit a Schedule 1 offence;
or
2 Section 60(11)(a) of the CPA: ‘Notwithstanding any provision of this Act, where an accused is charged
with an offence referred to – (a) in Schedule 6, the court shall order that the accused be detained in
custody until he or she is dealt with in accordance with the law, unless the accused, having been given a
reasonable opportunity to do so, adduces evidence which satisfies the court that exceptional
circumstances exist which in the interests of justice permit his or her release;’
3 Section 65(4): ‘The court or judge hearing the appeal shall not set aside the decision against which the
appeal is brought, unless such court or judge is satisfied that the decision was wrong, in which event the
court or judge shall give the decision which in its or his opinion the lower court should have given.’
(b) Where there is the likelihood that the accused, if he or she were released on bail, will
attempt to evade his or her trial; or
(c) Where there is the likelihood that the accused, if he or she were released on bail, will attempt
to influence or intimidate witnesses or to conceal or destroy evidence; or
(d) Where there is the likelihood that the accused, if he or she were released on bail, will
undermine or jeopardize the objectives or the proper functioning of the criminal justice system,
including the bail system;
(e) Where in exceptional circumstances there is the likelihood that the release of the accused
will disturb the public order or undermine the public peace or security.’
[5] The magistrate refused bail because ‘there is evidence linking the accused to the
offence’ and therefore that ‘it will not be in the interests of justice to grant bail’. In this
Court it was accepted that in the circumstances the determining factor whether to grant
or refuse bail is the strength of the State’s case against the appellant. Section 60(6) lists
several factors which a court may take into account, amongst other relevant things, in
order to consider whether the ground stated in ss (4)(b), namely the likelihood of an
accused evading his trial, has been established. Those include the emotional and
occupational ties of the accused; his assets and where they are situated; his means of
travel and available travel documents; whether he can afford to forfeit the amount of
money paid in relation to bail; prospects of extradition; the nature and gravity of the
offences charged with; the strength of the case against him; the nature and gravity of
the likely punishment in the event of the accused being convicted; the binding effect of
possible bail conditions and the ease with which they could be breached, and any other
factor which in the opinion of the court should be taken into account.
[6] The appellant is 32 years old, single and the father of two minor children, aged 11
and 6 respectively. The children reside with and are supported by their respective
mothers, one in the Northern Cape and the other one in the Western Cape. The
appellant has been in custody for a period of three years and almost five months, since
the day of the incident. He has no previous convictions and no other pending criminal
cases. Before his arrest he used to work as a bouncer at a tavern and would be able to
take up such a position again should he be released. Since 1992 he has been living in
Eersterivier with his mother in her house, which house he stands to inherit upon her
death as he is her only son. The appellant has previously faced criminal charges. He
was charged with robbery with aggravating circumstances, murder and the unlawful
possession of firearms in the high court. He was granted bail in that matter, apparently
after the investigating officer had an accident and was incapacitated. He was ultimately
acquitted. Whilst he was on bail he was arrested in the current matter. Although the
details are scant he was also previously charged in a regional court in the Eastern
Cape, granted bail and those proceedings were withdrawn.
[7] The garage where the incident occurred is equipped with closed circuit television
cameras (CCTV), specifically for security purposes. During the robbery the system was
functioning and the State had been furnished with the recording of the events. The State
has that recording available for purposes of the criminal trial and has still photographs
printed from it. According to the investigating officer, who testified for the State in
opposing the bail application, the events recorded on the CCTV recording accord with
the accounts of witnesses and incriminate the appellant. Although the recording was not
shown to the court, nor to the appellant or his legal representatives, the investigating
officer testified that it shows that, prior to the robbery, a white Volkswagen Polo motor
vehicle arrived at the garage and caused an obstruction. One of the appellant’s co-
accused, number 4, alighted. He was asked to move the vehicle. Later, the Polo
returned to a position close to the garage and three men disembarked, allegedly the
appellant, his co-accused 2 and 4. The Polo then departed. Accused 4 entered the shop
at the garage and made a purchase. The appellant, armed with a firearm, entered and
pointed the firearm at the owner and all the customers. Whilst inside, accused 4 forced
all the attendants and patrons on the forecourt into a cubicle and they were searched by
accused 2. One of the accused then made a phonecall, presumably to the driver of a
get-away vehicle, but received no response. They attempted to escape in a Ford Fiesta,
without success, and then threatened the driver of a Toyota Hilux with a firearm, took
control and possession of his vehicle and drove off. Members of the South African
Police Service were quick to arrive on the scene and were pointed in the direction of the
Hilux. They went in pursuit. Both the Hilux and the police vehicle came to a stop and the
occupants started shooting at each other. The Polo, that was at the garage initially,
returned and stopped between the police and the suspected robbers. The driver
disembarked, walked towards the police who stopped shooting, and he complained to
them that he had been hijacked. The suspected robbers got into the Polo and sped
away. It ultimately crashed against a wall and the occupants ran away. Bystanders
pointed the police to where the occupants were allegedly hiding and the police arrested
the appellant and accused 2 as a result of the reports from the bystanders. The police
found a firearm buried at the house where accused 2 was arrested and this firearm was
balistically linked to the scene of the shootout between members of the police and the
robbers. A fingerprint of the appellant was found in the Polo, which he identified as a
vehicle of a friend.
[8] Despite the confidence of the State in its evidence against the appellant it was
evident that the investigating officer over-stated that case during the course of his
evidence. Cross examination revealed that the fingerprint of the appellant was found on
the Polo motor vehicle and not in it, that there were some issues around the reliability of
the identification of the appellant during an identification parade and in court, that the
photographs made from the CCTV recording (these are not part of the record of the
proceedings before us) did not show the facial features of the robbers and revealed a
dispute about whether the person that the State alleged was the appellant was wearing
a multi-coloured striped T-shirt or a black and white striped jersey, similar to a rugby
jersey. It is necessary to record that the owner of the Polo was allegedly known to the
appellant and that was the reason for the possible presence of the fingerprint, which the
appellant has not yet acknowledged was his.
[9] Despite the investigating officer stating that the State has a strong case against the
appellant, his evidence did not reveal this. The State has not managed, in a period of
two and a half years, to complete the evidence of their alleged strong case in the trial
court. The State did not baulk at the accusation that it caused most, if not all, the delays
in the matter. At the time that the magistrate heard the bail application, it was envisaged
that the State was going to close its case after a further three day hearing during May
2012. That date has now come and gone and this Court was informed that the State did
not proceed with its case against the appellant, but postponed it again until the end of
May 2012. Counsel appearing for the State before us, who is not counsel appearing at
the trial of the matter, was in the unenviable position that she was unable to give the
assurance that the State’s case is going to proceed and be completed during the
postponed hearing at the end of the month. She was also unable to indicate, despite the
fact that she enquired about it, what the evidence was that the State still intended to
lead.
[10] According to the investigating officer’s evidence, the source of all of the evidence
against the appellant became known on the day of the incident and therefore there
could not have been any difficulty gathering it. No difficulty was pointed to on behalf of
the State. The inordinate delay in presenting this asserted strong case on behalf of the
State is unexplained. In the circumstances the delay since the trial started in November
2009, is significant and calls for an explanation that has not been forthcoming. On the
contrary, when asked for one during his evidence, the investigating officer displayed an
arrogant and obstructive attitude.
[11] The finding contended for on behalf of the appellant that there is no case at all
against him, is overly optimistic. The evidence on behalf of the State, at the very least,
discloses a link between the appellant, the Polo at the scene of the shoot-out between
the police and the robbers, and the place where the appellant was arrested. However,
the delay in concluding its case, the lack of explanation for the delay and the absence of
evidence of the alleged strong case, undermines the assertion by the State and the
finding by the magistrate that there is such a substantial case against the appellant that
it would serve as motivation for him not to stand his trial were he to be released on bail.
[12] The appellant has faced previous prosecutions, in the high court for a variety of
charges, including murder, and also in a regional court in the Eastern Cape, for robbery.
In each instance he was granted bail and he stood trial until its conclusion. These facts
reveal an inclination contrary to reluctance to stand trial. In the circumstances the
apparent weakness of the State’s case, taken together with a history of not avoiding his
trial, the court below was wrong in not concluding that the appellant has succeeded in
showing that exceptional circumstances are present that, in the interests of justice,
permit his release.
[12] The appellant was released on bail on the following terms that were agreed
between the parties. The following order was made:
The appeal is upheld.
The order of the court below is set aside and substituted as follows:
‘a
The appeal is upheld.
b
The order by the Magistrate is set aside and substituted as follows:
“The applicant is released on bail in the amount of R5 000 (five thousand
rand) subject to the following conditions:
i
That the applicant report at the Lingelethu West Police Station
every Monday, Wednesday and Friday between 06h00 and 08h00;
ii
Should the applicant change his address he must inform the
investigating officer, Detective Constable S Chaphiso accordingly and
supply the new address;
iii
Attend his trial on each date the matter is postponed to and
remain in attendance until excused by the court.”
____________________
S SNYDERS
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES:
For the Appellant:
J van der Berg
Instructed by:
Bern Rautenbach Attorneys; Brackenfell
Lengau Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For the Respondent:
S M Galloway
Instructed by:
The Director of Public Prosecutions, Cape Town
The Director of Public Prosecutions, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
30 May 2012
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the
media and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of
Appeal.
* * *
The appellant is standing trial for robbery, attempted murder and the illegal
possession of a firearm and ammunition in the Regional Court held at
Wynberg. The charges arise from an incident on 24 December 2008 during
which a service station in Muizenberg was robbed. The appellant was
arrested in connection with the incident on the same day and has been in
custody ever since. The trial commenced on 12 November 2009 but has
been marred by numerous delays primarily caused by the State. By the time
this appeal was heard, May 2012, the State had yet to conclude its case
against the appellant.
The appellant brought an application for his release on bail, primarily relying
on the alleged weaknesses of the State’s case and the inordinate delay in
concluding the case against the appellant and his co-accused. He was
refused bail in the magistrate’s court and on appeal by the Western Cape
High Court.
The Supreme Court of Appeal released the appellant on bail after hearing
the matter. The reasons for that order were delivered today. The Supreme
Court of Appeal found that the State’s submission that it has a strong case
against the appellant, which would motivate him to avoid his trial, should he
be released on bail, is not supported by the facts in the bail application. The
deduced weakness of the State’s case, taken with the inordinate delay in
concluding the evidence for the State and absence of acceptable
explanation for that delay, were accepted by the Supreme Court of Appeal to
constitute exceptional circumstances that, in the interests of justice, permit
the release of the appellant. |
1261 | non-electoral | 2008 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 482/07
REPORTABLE
In the matter between:
MALCOLM WILLIAM EGGLESTONE APPELLANT
v
THE STATE RESPONDENT
Coram:
Farlam, Mlambo JJA, Mhlantla AJA
Heard:
28 February 2008
Delivered:
30 May 2008
Summary:
Criminal Law – appeal against multiple convictions and sentence – consent –
what is – indecent assault – what is – S v F still the law – owner of escort
agency having sexual intercourse with and indecently assaulting prospective
prostitute during on-the-job training – participation in training not amounting
to consent – convictions for rape and indecent assault confirmed.
Order in para [29].
Neutral citation: This judgment may be referred to as Egglestone v The
State (297/2005) [2008] ZASCA 77 (30 May 2008).
(Dissenting Judgment p 16)
MLAMBO JA
[1] This is an appeal against convictions for rape, kidnapping, common
assault, indecent assault and a sentence of 10 years’ imprisonment. The
appellant was originally arraigned in the Cape Town Regional Court where he
faced a total of 11 charges made up as follows: rape (count one); indecent
assault (count two); assault (count three); kidnapping (count four); indecent
assault (count five); kidnapping (count six); indecent assault (counts seven,
eight, nine and ten) and rape (count eleven). The offences were allegedly
committed during March to May 1997 save for those in counts eight to eleven
which were alleged to have taken place in February 1998. The trial started on
9 April 1999 and was concluded three years later on 22 May 2002 when the
appellant was convicted on counts one to five and eight to ten.
[2] On 30 October 2002 the regional court sentenced the appellant to
12 years’ imprisonment structured as follows: 10 years on counts one and two
taken together for purposes of sentence; six months on count three, two years
on count four, one year on count five and six months on counts eight to ten all
taken together for purposes of sentence. It was ordered that the sentences
imposed on counts three, five and eight to ten were, in terms of s 280(2) of
the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977, to run concurrently with the 10 year
sentence imposed on counts one and two.
[3] In an appeal before the Cape High Court (Ngwenya J and Wille AJ),
heard on 18 March 2005, the appellant’s conviction on counts nine and ten
was set aside as well as the 12 year sentence. The High Court imposed a 10
year imprisonment sentence structured as follows: 10 years’ imprisonment on
counts one to four all taken together for purposes of sentence and six months
imprisonment regarding the convictions on counts five and eight which was
ordered to run concurrently with the 10 year sentence. On the same day the
High Court granted the appellant leave to appeal to this court regarding the
conviction on counts five and eight and the six month imprisonment sentence
imposed in respect of those counts. Leave was refused regarding the
conviction on counts one to four and the sentence imposed in that regard but
on 27 July 2005 this court granted the appellant special leave to appeal to this
court regarding his conviction on those counts and the sentence imposed in
respect thereof.
[4] The charge sheet alleged that during April and May 1997 the appellant
raped Natasha Lindeboom (count one); assaulted her indecently by pulling
down her panties, touching her vagina and having anal intercourse with her as
well as forcing her to put his penis in her mouth (count two); assaulted her
with his open hand (count three); deprived her of her liberty of movement by
preventing her from leaving his premises at Erf 851, Somerset-West, Cape
Town (count four) where all the offences save for the one in count eight were
allegedly committed; that he indecently assaulted Monica Wessels by taking
off her bra and touching her breasts (count five) and that on or about
22 February 1998 at or near Cape Town the appellant indecently assaulted
Lee-Ann dos Santos by touching her leg, rubbing her stomach and trying to
touch her breasts as well as kissing her on her mouth (count eight).
[5] All the complainants were high school teenagers from the
impoverished communities around the Cape Peninsula recruited by the
appellant to work for him as escort agency prostitutes. The recruitment took
place by means of pamphlets distributed by other female employees of the
appellant. The job advertised in the pamphlets was however that of lingerie
modelling. Natasha Lindeboom (Lindeboom), the complainant in counts one
to four was walking home from school when she was handed one of the
pamphlets. She showed interest in the job but preferred to seek her parents’
permission to go for an interview. The appellant personally spoke to her
mother who gave her consent for Natasha to attend the interview. It is not
clear from the record whether the appellant was candid with Natasha’s mother
about the true nature of the job. Natasha and her younger sister Nicolette,
who was also a potential recruit, were interviewed at a restaurant.
[6] During this interview Natasha and Nicolette learnt that the job did not
just entail modelling lingerie but working in an escort agency as prostitutes
where they would be expected to perform certain sexual acts and provide
sexual favours to clients. It appears that they were informed that they were at
liberty to choose what part of the job they would prefer for instance as
receptionists and/or lingerie models excluding sexual activities. However,
irrespective of the job they preferred, it appears that they were informed that
they had to be trained as all inclusive escort agency prostitutes,
encompassing the whole spectrum of a prostitute’s work, such as rendering
private shows and different kinds of sexual favours to clients.
[7] After the restaurant interview the Lindeboom sisters were taken to the
appellant’s premises in Somerset West called the Stables. The premises were
highly secured and structured in the form of a reception area, negotiation
rooms, private rooms as well as show rooms for private shows and modelling.
There the appellant instructed the sisters at intervals to undress and provided
them with lingerie to put on. He then proceeded to fondle their breasts and
their genitals which was apparently a continuation of the interview. Afterwards
the sisters were taken to their home where Nicolette declined the job offer
whilst Natasha accepted and was fetched the next day to start working for the
appellant. It is not in dispute that during Lindeboom’s stay at the Stables she
participated in so-called training sessions carried out by the appellant during
which he would have touched and fondled her breasts and genitals, led her to
perform a pelvic massage and to have normal sexual intercourse as well as
oral and anal intercourse with him.
[8] Monica Wessels (Wessels), the complainant in count five, also went
through the restaurant interview. On arrival at the Stables she was also
instructed to undress and it was during this incident that the appellant fondled
her breasts. She, however, never took up the job offer despite expressing
interest. In so far as Lee-Ann dos Santos (Dos Santos) (the complainant in
count eight) is concerned, she participated in the selling of teddy bear gifts for
the appellant at restaurants and other public places. It was during one of such
jaunts that the appellant kissed her on her mouth and rubbed her on her leg
and stomach.
[9] The issue before us is whether the court a quo was correct in
dismissing the appellant’s appeal and in upholding the trial court’s view that
the state had succeeded in proving his guilt on the remaining counts.
[10] It is appropriate to start by briefly considering what amounts to indecent
assault. An authoritative discussion of the nature and meaning of the offence
is found in S v F 1982 (2) SA 580 (T) where it was held that indecent assault
is committed even though the violence is not directed at the complainant's
sexual organs. It is the accused's intention, manifested in words or conduct,
that is important and not necessarily the act. In order to constitute the offence,
it is not necessary, however, that the complainant's sexual organs should
actually have been touched. Any action whereby the accused aims with some
part of his or her body at the sexual organs of the complainant is sufficient. In
this regard Ackermann J stated that (at 585):
‘Ek is gevolglik van mening dat daar wel gekyk kan en moet word na die uitgesproke
bedoeling van 'n beskuldigde soos oorgedra aan die klaer (hetsy deur woorde, gedrag of by
implikasie) om vas te stel of ‘n aanranding ‘n onsedelike aanranding daarstel.’
[11] In S v Kock 2003 (2) SACR 5 (SCA) at p 10 par 9 Heher JA remarked
that:
‘Indecent assault is in its essence an assault (not merely an act) which is by its nature or
circumstances of an indecent character.’
Counsel for the appellant sought to persuade us that in this passage this court
overturned S v F in so far as the definition of indecent assault is concerned. I
do not agree. In my view S v Kock only introduced an objective test of
indecency and left the position expressed in S v F intact. In fact no exhaustive
discussion of the offence was done in S v Kock nor was there any reference
to S v F. I have no doubt that the position in this regard remains as
authoritatively set out in S v F.
[12] Perhaps some comment is also apposite regarding the required
approach to evidence in sexual offence cases. As already mentioned, in S v
Jackson 1998 (1) SACR 470 (SCA) this court discarded the so-called
cautionary rule which was the norm in sexual offence cases. In that case this
court ruled that the burden on the state is to prove the case beyond a
reasonable doubt – no more, no less. The evidence may, however, call for a
cautionary approach but that is a far cry from the application of a general
cautionary rule. Hot on the heels of S v Jackson came S v M 1999 (2) SACR
548 (SCA) where S v Jackson was reinforced.1
[13] Against this background I turn to the facts of this case. The basis of the
appeal against the convictions on the Lindeboom counts (counts one to four)
is that the trial court erred in finding that Lindeboom was a credible witness; in
accepting her evidence; in rejecting the appellant’s version of events, and in
finding that Lindeboom was not in the Stables of her own free will. In this
regard it was submitted that Lindeboom had voluntarily come to the Stables
and had stayed there throughout at her own free will; that at no time did she
request or demand to be taken home; that she expressly consented to him
fondling and touching her; that she was willing and consented to undergo the
training he offered her as an all inclusive escort agency prostitute; that the
training he provided entailed his role playing a potential client, necessitating
that he perform various actual sexual acts with her, to prepare her for the
work ahead and that she consented to all the sexual activity that took place
between them. It was submitted that Lindeboom understood this fully and any
wrongdoing was denied. It was further submitted that there was only one
incident of sexual intercourse during training between them during the first
week and that further sexual intercourse between them was not related to
training but was fully consensual as they had become lovers.
[14] Regarding the Wessels indecent assault count (count 5) the appellant
1 At p 555b-c: ‘The factors which motivated this Court to dispense with the cautionary rule in
sexual assault cases apply, in my view, with equal force to all cases in which an act of a
sexual nature is an element. The reasons given by Olivier JA at 474f-477d in S v Jackson
therefore require no elaboration or qualification in relation to the crime of incest and I proceed
to consider the evidence without the restraints imposed by the cautionary rule.’
contends that the trial court erred in finding that Wessels had not consented to
his conduct. It was submitted that when he handled her breasts he had her
consent to touch her that way. Regarding the Dos Santos indecent assault
count (count eight) the submission was that the trial court erred in accepting
her version and in finding her to have been a credible witness and also finding
that the appellant’s conduct was objectively indecent. It was submitted that
the appellant intended to congratulate her by kissing her on her cheek but she
suddenly turned to face him and he thereby accidentally kissed her on her
mouth. As far as rubbing her leg and stomach was concerned, it was
submitted that he did this simply to congratulate her on making good teddy
bear gift sales and that he meant nothing other than just to express his
appreciation for her good performance.
[15] It is well established that as an appeal court we are at large in the
event of a misdirection on fact by the trial court, to ‘disregard the trial court’s
findings of fact, even though based on credibility, in whole or in part according
to the nature of the misdirection and the circumstances of the particular case;
. . .’ and arrive at our own conclusion.2 As always the correct approach in the
assessment of an accused’s guilt or innocence is that all the evidence must
be taken into account.3
[16] The trial court accepted Lindeboom’s evidence and found that she was
kept at the Stables against her will by the appellant and that during her stay
there he raped her, assaulted her by slapping her on her face, as well as
indecently assaulting her when he penetrated her anally. It is not clear
however from the trial court’s judgment whether all or some, and if so, which
of the incidents of sexual intercourse that took place between the appellant
and Lindeboom gave rise to the rape conviction. I mention this because
Lindeboom testified that on the Wednesday of the first week at the Stables,
the appellant raped her and that during the second week she had sexual
2 R v Dhlumayo 1948 (2) SA 677 (A) at 706. See also S v Heslop 2007 (1) SACR 461 (SCA)
at 472c.
3 S v Gentle 2005 (1) SACR 420 (SCA) at 433h-l; S v M 2006 (1) SACR 135 (SCA) at p 183
para 189.
intercourse with him on two further occasions. It is, however, apparent from
the trial court’s judgment that the reasoning that primarily led to the conviction
of the appellant on the Lindeboom counts was its finding that there was no
evidence that the appellant was in the process of starting an escort agency
business. The trial court reasoned that it could also find no evidence of the
appellant’s other businesses such as the selling of gifts at restaurants and
other public places.
[17] In coming to this finding the trial court overlooked objective and
uncontested evidence which established as a matter of fact that the appellant
was in fact engaged in the establishment of an escort agency. For instance
the recruitment modus operandi and the structure of the Stables fitted in with
the business that he said he was establishing which, he testified, was how it
was done in the industry. The appellant’s evidence in this regard is
undisputed. In my view, the trial court misdirected itself when it overlooked
this evidence about the appellant’s business activities.
[18] It is also clear that the trial court also misdirected itself when it
accepted Lindeboom’s evidence that she had been kept at the Stables
against her will. In arriving at this conclusion the trial court ignored common
cause evidence to the effect that Lindeboom had come to the Stables
voluntarily and had at no stage requested and/or demanded to be taken
home. There is also uncontested evidence that Lindeboom had a number of
opportunities to escape or simply walk away if she was so inclined but she did
not. Clearly the State had failed to prove beyond reasonable doubt that
Lindeboom was kept at the Stables against her will and was deprived of her
freedom throughout her stay there. The kidnapping conviction can therefore
not stand.
[19] However, in so far as Lindeboom’s rape and indecent assault is
concerned, my view is that the court a quo was correct in upholding the trial
court’s conclusion in that regard. Regarding the Wednesday rape she testified
that after the rape, she took a shower, staying there for a whole hour
contemplating what had just happened to her. Thereafter, when she had an
opportunity she telephoned Nicolette and reported the rape. Nicolette
confirmed that her sister had reported the rape to her in that telephone
conversation. She testified that she did not know what to do, but decided to
phone her sister’s boyfriend, Bradley, to tell him of the telephone call from her
sister. It is common cause that in the early evening of that Wednesday,
Bradley called Lindeboom on the appellant’s cell phone. Bradley could
however not be called to testify about the content of the telephone
conversation he had with Nicolette and with Lindeboom as he could not be
located.
[20] The appellant denied that he had sexual intercourse with Lindeboom
on that Wednesday. Whilst he disputed this rape allegation he admitted the
telephone call with Bradley. His version is that the first sexual encounter
between him and Lindeboom where he actually penetrated her was on the
Thursday of the first week and that this was purely part of her training as an
all inclusive escort agency prostitute. He stated that he was role playing a
client when he penetrated her. This also was his explanation regarding his
penetrating her anally the next day. This, he stated was also part of her
training and that she was a willing and consenting trainee, so to speak.
Furthermore he testified that the sexual intercourse between them on the
Monday and Tuesday of the next week was fully consensual and that it had
nothing to do with training. His version was that he had become estranged
from his girlfriend, Tamsyn, and as he had been sleeping in Lindeboom’s bed
during that time a relationship had arisen between them leading to their
having sexual intercourse on the stated occasions. He admitted though that
she was reluctant at first, during training, to participate in explicit sexual
activity with him. In fact he stated, with regard to the anal intercourse, that he
realized after penetrating her for the first time that she was uncomfortable and
he stopped. He testified that he realized at that stage that this was an activity
she could simply not perform and that it would have to be excluded from her
tasks. He also stated that she could not perform pelvic massages, having
failed, apparently, to perform one on him during training.
[21] It is so that as far as the Wednesday rape is concerned Lindeboom
contradicted herself about when this rape would have happened. She stated
in her examination-in-chief that the rape happened during the day, but in
cross-examination she said it happened in the evening. Furthermore in her
first police statement about her ordeal at the Stables she did not mention the
Wednesday rape at all. In relation to the sexual intercourse incidents of the
next week, Lindeboom was clear that the respondent had relentlessly tried to
have sexual intercourse with her but she had steadfastly resisted. She
testified that she succumbed to his advances during the second week
because she had lost the will to resist him anymore and allowed him to have
sex with her so that he could leave her alone. She was unshaken in cross-
examination that from the second day of her stay at the Stables, she was
confronted with the appellant’s advances for sexual intercourse. These, she
said, were aided by Ronel Dunbar and Tamsyn who took turns in trying to
persuade her to give in to the appellant’s demands. At some stage Tamsyn
slapped her on her face because of her continued refusal to give in to the
appellant’s demands.
[22] It is clear from the evidence that the appellant was astute in what he
was doing because he would come into Lindeboom’s room and get under the
blankets of her bed without saying a word. She testified that he would then
fondle her but she would stop him. This happened for a couple of days until
the Wednesday when he forced himself on her. I do not doubt that the
Wednesday rape occurred despite the contradiction about when it took place.
Her call to Nicolette that afternoon and Bradley’s telephone call to her in the
evening is uncontested. That is the one and only night that Bradley called her
and, in my view, this was no coincidence, it is because Nicolette had reported
to him what her sister had relayed to her. I am further of the view that the
appellant’s version of Lindeboom and him having become lovers leading to
their having sexual intercourse on the second week, was also correctly
rejected. Lindeboom had, by the second week clearly become worn out by the
pressure to give in to the appellant’s advances, and did so on the Monday and
Tuesday. She was correctly believed when she stated that no relationship had
materialised between her and the appellant.
[23] The appellant’s submission that Lindeboom’s willingness to dress in
lingerie and take part in training was proof of her consent for him to have
sexual intercourse with her cannot be accepted. No mention of actual sex
during training was mentioned during the interviews and anyway the appellant
was her employer and not a client who had paid for sexual favours. This
notion that as an employer he was entitled to have sexual intercourse with her
as his trainee employee, as part of job training, is fallacious. It amounts to a
situation where the trainee employee, in order to get the job, has no choice
but to submit to his sexual exploits irrespective of her feelings and inclination.
In my view, the appellant’s conduct is a classic illustration of a power situation
where as an adult twice Lindeboom’s age and in control of the Stables he
simply did as he pleased with her. One important manifestation of this is his
brazen conduct of simply sleeping in her bed, uninvited. He was clearly in a
dominant position and simply asserted this dominance by forcing himself on
her.4 His appeal on the rape and indecent assault convictions (counts one and
two) cannot succeed. One must further not forget that Lindeboom was clear
that she had agreed to work as a receptionist and that her willingness to take
part in training was because the appellant had told her that she nevertheless
had to do it. She was unshaken in cross-examination that she did not consent
to sexual intercourse even though she took part in training.
[24] It was also submitted that Lindeboom’s continued stay at the Stables,
4 Masiya v Director of Public Prosecutions, Pretoria and Another (Centre For Applied Legal
Studies And Another, Amici Curiae) 2007 (2) SACR 435 (CC) para 36: ‘. . . historically, rape
has been and continues to be a crime of which females are its systematic target. It is the most
reprehensible form of sexual assault constituting as it does a humiliating, degrading and
brutal invasion of the dignity and the person of the survivor. It is not simply an act of sexual
gratification, but one of physical domination. It is an extreme and flagrant form of manifesting
male supremacy over females. (See S v Chapman 1997 (2) SACR 3 (SCA) (1997 (3) SA 341)
at 344I-345B (SA). This Court has said in S v Baloyi 2000 (1) SACR 81 (CC) (2000 (2) SA
425; 2000 (1) BCLR 86) at para [12] that rape, like domestic violence, is “systemic, pervasive
and overwhelmingly gender-specific . . . [and] reflects and reinforces patriarchal domination,
and does so in a particularly brutal form”.’
See also S v Ferreira 2004 (2) SACR 454 (SCA) para 40 where the following is stated:
‘Sexual violence and the threat of sexual violence goes to the core of women’s subordination
in society. It is the single greatest threat to the self-determination of South African women. It
also, therefore, means having regard to an abused woman accused’s constitutional rights to
dignity, freedom from violence and bodily integrity that the abuser has infringed. (S v
Chapman 1997 (2) SACR 3 (SCA) at 5b-f (1997 (3) SA 341 at 344J-345E); the Constitution,
ss 10, 12(1)(c) and 12(2)).’
despite the activities she was supposedly coerced into, is clear evidence that
she was a willing participant in those activities. This is besides the point.
Lindeboom was not contradicted when she testified that she accepted the job
because her family was struggling financially and she actually left school to do
it. There is nothing to gainsay the suggestion that her continued stay at the
Stables was influenced by the appellant’s promises to her and her mother that
she would make a lot of money working for him. Furthermore, in so far as the
supposedly consensual sexual intercourse with her during training is
concerned, it cannot be stated that she was a novice in sexual matters and as
such needed to be ‘trained’ on how to have sexual intercourse with potential
clients. Lindeboom was, on the facts of this case, a teenager who had a
boyfriend and knew exactly what sexual intercourse was. As I have already
stated, the notion that training as a prostitute encompassed actual sexual
intercourse with one’s employer is besides me, more so when one is dealing
with a person who knew what sexual intercourse was.
[25] It was further submitted on the appellant’s behalf that Lindeboom’s
conduct after she left the Stables is not consonant with someone who had,
amongst other things, been raped. It is true that she testified that she reported
to her mother that she had been raped but nothing was done about her report.
The argument was that one would have expected her to have insisted on
going to the police or even her mother would have gone to the police when
she heard this, neither did so, instead they went to have a Mothers’ day lunch.
It was only after Lindeboom’s mother discussed the matter with a neighbour a
few days later that the neighbour encouraged them to contact the police,
which they did. I do not agree that this demonstrates that no sexual
wrongdoing had taken place. On the facts of this case, I cannot accept the
suggestion that Lindeboom should be disbelieved simply because she did not
behave in the manner suggested. This approach, in my view, unfairly puts
her, as a rape complainant, in the position of an accused in which the
appellant, as the real accused, stands to profit should it be found that the
complainant’s failure to conduct herself in a certain manner means she either
consented
or
is
simply
falsely
implicating
the
appellant.
Judicial
pronouncements against this approach have been unfortunately few and far
between. See, however, S v M (supra) where Cameron JA in my view, aptly
expressed the correct approach.5 In this case the fact that there was no
urgency in reporting to the police can never be a basis to find that no rape had
occurred. It must also be stated that the conviction for assault involving
Lindeboom cannot stand. No such evidence was led. The only assault on her
was the slap she got from Tamsyn.
[26] As far as Wessels is concerned, she was clear when she testified that
although she was surprised, she did not object to the appellant undressing her
and helping her loosen her bra and touching her breasts. In her evidence she
stated that ‘dit was snaaks’ but she just wanted him to do what he had to so
that she would leave. He had given her no prior warning that he was going to
fondle her breasts. The test relating to indecent assault is an objective one.6 It
has nothing to do with the fact that the complainant objected or not. Clearly,
the appellant’s conduct of touching Wessels’s breasts, a total stranger at that
time, is clearly objectively indecent. The same goes for the appellant’s
conduct of rubbing Dos Santos’s leg and stomach. The same cannot,
however, be said about the kiss. His version of how this happened is
sufficiently plausible.
[27] Finally I am of the view that taking all the evidence into account, the
5 At para 272: ‘Accused persons are entitled to be acquitted when there is reasonable doubt
about their guilt. That does not make it necessary or permissible for motives to be freely
imputed to sexual offence complainants at appellate level when these were not fairly and
properly explored in their testimony. To permit this would threaten return to the indefensible
days when complainants were treated as inherently unreliable, inherently inclined to false
incrimination, and inherently disposed to destructive jealousy in relation to their consensual
male sexual partners.’
See also Holtzhauzen v Roodt 1997 (4) SA 766 (W) at 778 where the following was stated:
‘However, rape is an experience of the utmost intimacy. The victims or survivors thereof are
largely confined to the female sex. I have heard the response of such survivors generically
described as “a scream from silence”. The result has been a paucity of South African legal
and judicial understanding and commentary on the full parameters and implications of this
phenomenon. Rape is an experience so devastating in its consequences that it is rightly
perceived as striking at the very fundament of human, particularly female, privacy, dignity and
personhood. Yet, I acknowledge that the ability of a judicial officer such as myself to fully
comprehend the kaleidoscope of emotion and experience, of both rapist and rape survivor, is
extremely limited.’
6 S v Kock (supra).
State had succeeded in proving the guilt of the appellant regarding all the
rape incidents involving Lindeboom as well as the indecent assaults on her
and on Wessels and Dos Santos. Those convictions were therefore properly
arrived at and the court a quo cannot be faulted in upholding them. A factor
that, I think, must not be lost sight of in this case is that even though
Lindeboom, Wessels and Dos Santos voluntarily went to the Stables, this did
not mean that this was a licence for their dignity and integrity to be violated at
will by the appellant. It appears from the appellant’s evidence that this is what
went on in his mind. He had targeted vulnerable young women who would
respond to the prospect of making money due to their poverty. To him,
immediately they came to his premises and were willing to go through with the
interview and training, he was at liberty simply to do with them as he pleased.
This, in my view, betrays the appellant’s real intention that as long as they
were on his premises they were his chattels to violate at will. Their dignity and
integrity irrespective of the job they enlisted for, should have been respected
at all times.7
[28] In so far as sentence is concerned, I am of the view that the sentence
imposed for the rapes was lenient. Rape has been described as a horrific
offence deserving of appropriately severe punishment which sends out a clear
message to would be offenders.8 Despite my view about the leniency of the
7 Mahomed CJ in S v Chapman 1997 (2) SACR 2 (SCA) at 5b-e stated: ‘The rights to dignity,
to privacy and the integrity of every person are basic to the ethos of the Constitution and to
any defensible civilisation. Women in this country are entitled to protection of these rights.
They have a legitimate claim to walk peacefully on the streets, to enjoy their shopping and
their entertainment, to go and come from work, and to enjoy the peace and tranquillity of their
homes without the fear, the apprehension and the insecurity which constantly diminishes the
quality and enjoyment of their lives.’
8 S v Chapman (supra) at 5b: ‘Rape is a very serious offence, constituting as it does a
humiliating, degrading and brutal invasion of the privacy, the dignity and the person of the
victim.’ See also S v Mojaki 2006 (2) SACR 590 (T) at 591: ‘Rape is a very serious offence,
so serious that I doubt whether those who are not women will ever be able to fully understand
its effect on the victim. It violates the dignity of the person being raped. More so when it is
perpetrated on young, defenceless and innocent ones. Children are entitled to be children.’
See also Chapman (supra) at 5e: ‘The courts are under a duty to send a clear message to the
accused, to other potential rapists and to the community: We are determined to protect the
equality, dignity and freedom of all women, and we shall show no mercy to those who seek to
invade those rights.’
sentence imposed for the rapes, I am not at large to interfere in that regard
merely because I would have imposed a different sentence. There is no cross
appeal in this regard and besides the fact that the sentence is lenient does not
necessarily mean that it is so light that it induces a sense of shock. However,
the setting aside of the kidnapping conviction means that sentence has to be
reconsidered as the court a quo imposed one sentence for the kidnapping, the
rapes and indecent assault on Lindeboom. Taking all the circumstances of the
matter into account a sentence of eight years for the rapes and indecent
assault of Lindeboom appears appropriate when taken together for purposes
of sentence. I would also order that the sentence of six months’ imprisonment
imposed for the indecent assaults on Wessels and Dos Santos should run
concurrently with the sentence of eight years.
[29] In the circumstances the following order is made:
29.1 The appeal against the convictions on count three and four
succeeds and those convictions are set aside.
29.2 The appeal against the convictions on counts one, two, five and
eight is dismissed.
29.3 The sentence of 10 years imposed by the court a quo is set
aside and in its stead is substituted a sentence of eight years’
imprisonment.
29.4 The sentence of six months imposed for the convictions in count
five and eight is confirmed. It is ordered that this sentence shall run
concurrently with the sentence of eight years.
_________________
D MLAMBO
JUDGE OF APPEAL
CONCUR:
MHLANTLA AJA
FARLAM JA
[30] I have had the advantage of reading the judgment of my colleague
Mlambo JA in this matter. I agree with his conclusion that the appeal against
the convictions on counts three and four should be upheld and that the appeal
against the convictions on counts five and eight should be dismissed. As far
as the conviction on count one is concerned I agree that it should be upheld
but only in respect of the rapes committed on the Monday and Tuesday of the
second week of Natasha Lindeboom’s stay at the Stables: I do not think that a
rape on the previous Wednesday has been proven. I also think that the
appeal against the conviction on count two should be upheld. I further do not
agree regarding the sentence to be imposed.
[31] At the outset it must be pointed out that, as my colleague has found,
the magistrate misdirected himself materially to such an extent that this court
is obliged to decide the case purely on the record (without having the benefit
of seeing the witnesses) with the result that the question of onus becomes all-
important (see R v Dhlumayo 1948 (2) SA 677 (A), principles 11 and 13).
[32] As far as count one is concerned I am satisfied, having read and re-
read the relevant parts of the record and having had regard to what was put in
cross-examination to the complainant and what the appellant said in his
evidence, that the complainant submitted to his advances without actually
consenting and that he was reckless as to whether she consented or not. His
evidence as to the way she responded to his lovemaking, which was not put
to her in cross-examination, was, in my view, false and reinforces my
conclusion that he was in fact reckless. As far as the alleged rape on the
Wednesday is concerned the complainant’s boyfriend was not called and it is
dangerous to speculate as to what he would have said if he had given
evidence. The complainant contradicted herself as to when on the
Wednesday the rape occurred and did not mention it at all in her first police
statement. Obliged as we are to decide the case on the record I do not think
we can be satisfied in the circumstances that the complainant was raped on
the Wednesday of the first week.
[33] As far as count two is concerned it is common cause that the
complainant agreed to undergo training as what was euphemistically called an
all-inclusive lingerie model, ie as a prostitute. It is also clear, in my view, from
the record that at each stage in the training he asked the trainee if he could
proceed and made it clear to her that if she did not want to carry on he would
stop. In those circumstances I do not see how it can be found that in doing
what he did he realised that she was not consenting or that he was reckless
as to whether she consented or not. It follows that in my view the appeal
against this conviction should succeed.
[34] As far as the appeal against the sentence is concerned, I think that the
trial court and the court a quo erred in failing to take into account that the
appellant had been in custody as an awaiting trial prisoner for four and a half
years and that his health deteriorated badly during that period. He had also
lived in daily fear of assault and rape. Counsel for the appellant referred in this
regard to Schutz J’s approving reference (in S v Stephen 1994 (2) SACR 163
(W) at 168f) to the Canadian decision of Gravino (70/71) 13 Crim L Q 434
(Quebec Court of Appeal) in which it was said: ‘Imprisonment whilst awaiting
trial is the equivalent of a sentence of twice that length.’
[35] While I would hesitate to give general approval to that statement, I
think that the circumstances of the appellant’s pre-conviction incarceration
justify its application here. I fully endorse what was said in the cases cited in
my colleague’s judgment regarding the seriousness of the crime of rape but I
think that the factor to which I have just referred should have been taken into
account and that the sentence of ten years’ imprisonment imposed by the
court a quo should be replaced by a sentence of six years’ imprisonment.
……………..
IG FARLAM
JUDGE OF APPEAL | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
30 May 2008
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media
and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
Malcolm William Egglestone v The State
The Supreme Court of Appeal today dismissed an appeal by Malcolm William
Egglestone against his conviction on rape and indecent assault charges. His
appeal on his conviction on assault and kidnapping charges was however
upheld.
The facts, briefly, are that Egglestone had recruited female teenagers under the
pretext that he would employ them as lingerie models. His real intention was to
employ them as prostitutes in his escort agency. Whilst in his care he performed
certain indecent acts with them and had sexual intercourse with one of them.
He said they had consented thereto and that it was also part of their on-the-job
training. The Supreme Court of Appeal, upholding the finding of the regional
court and Cape High Court (on appeal), concluded that he had been properly
convicted on the rape and indecent assault charges. The court, however,
upheld his appeal against the conviction in respect of the assault and
kidnapping charges. In regard to sentence the Supreme Court of Appeal
reduced a 10 year sentence of imprisonment to an effective eight years
imprisonment. |
2725 | non-electoral | 2012 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 55/11
Reportable
In the matter between:
CITY OF JOHANNESBURG
First Appellant
CITY MANAGER OF THE CITY OF JOHANNESBURG
Second Appellant
and
AD OUTPOST (PTY) LTD
Respondent
Neutral citation:
City of Johannesburg v Ad Outpost (55/11) [2012] ZASCA 40
(29 March 2012)
Coram:
Farlam, Van Heerden, Mhlantla and Leach JJA and Ndita AJA
Heard:
27 February 2012
Delivered:
29 March 2012
Summary:
Applicant applying under by-laws for permission to advertise alongside
highways ─ application wrongly refused but by-laws repealed and fresh by-laws
promulgated ─ application to be reconsidered under new by-laws
___________________________________________________________________
O R D E R
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from:
South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg (Matlapeng AJ sitting
as court of first instance):
1.
The appeal succeeds with costs, such costs to include the costs of two
counsel.
2.
The order of the high court is set aside and is substituted with the following:
‘(a)
The decisions taken by the first respondent, the City of Johannesburg, on 29
August 2007, to refuse the applicant’s applications for approval of the two outdoor
advertising billboards known as the Sandown billboard and the Kelvin View billboard,
as well as the decisions by the third respondent, the city manager, to dismiss the
applicant’s appeals against the aforementioned decisions of the first respondent, are
reviewed and set aside.
(b)
The applicant is to pay the respondents’ costs, such costs to include the costs
of two counsel.’
___________________________________________________________________
J U D G M E N T
___________________________________________________________________
LEACH JA (FARLAM, VAN HEERDEN AND MHLANTLA JJA AND NDITA AJA
concurring)
[1] As its name suggests, the respondent, Ad Outpost (Pty) Limited, is a
company carrying on business in the advertising industry. At the heart of the present
dispute are two billboards situated alongside roadways in Gauteng which the
respondent has used in the course of its business for more than ten years. As is
more fully set out below, the original authority which the respondent was granted in
2001 lapsed in the fullness of time, and led to the respondent applying to the City of
Johannesburg (the first appellant) for a renewal of permission to use the billboards
for a further five years. Its application was refused and an appeal to the City
Manager (the second appellant, but the third respondent in the high court) brought
under the relevant by-law, was similarly dismissed.
[2] Disenchanted by this, the respondent proceeded to apply to the South
Gauteng High Court for an order reviewing and setting aside the decisions of both
appellants and seeking, in their stead, the court’s authority to use the billboards in
question for a period of five years. The high court granted relief in those terms, its
permission being antedated to 29 August 2007, being the date when the first
appellant had refused permission. With leave of the high court, the appellants now
appeal against that order
[3] The billboards in question, referred to in the papers as the ‘Sandown billboard’
and the ‘Kelvin View billboard’, are both situated in the immediate vicinity of major
public motorways in greater Johannesburg. The Sandown billboard is a 7.5m x 5m
single-sided billboard located near an overhead traffic sign on Grayston Drive which
gives warning of a nearby off-ramp leading to Katherine Street. The Kelvin View
billboard, a 4.5m x 18m double-sided billboard with an overall height of 17m, is
situated to the east of the M1 South Highway, near what is known as the Marlboro
off-ramp. In 2001 the respondent applied for the necessary approval to use both
billboards under the relevant by-laws in force at the time 1 (which I intend for
convenience merely to refer to as ‘the 1999 by-laws’), clause 39(3)(d) of which
provided that:
‘Billboards will not be permitted within specified distances of on and off-ramps of motorways
and overhead traffic directional signs – see Figure 2 . . . except where a curve in the road
renders the billboard not to interfere with a clear and undistracted view of the directional
traffic sign.’
[4] Figure 2 referred to in this section contained a diagrammatic illustration of
both an off-ramp and an on-ramp and the situation of a so-called ‘prohibited area’
immediately adjacent thereto, as well as an illustration of a prohibited area adjacent
to an overhead traffic sign. It is common cause that the two billboards in question
stand within prohibited areas as so determined and in which billboards were not to
1 The Eastern Metropolitan Local Council Advertising Signs And Hoardings By-Laws 1999.
be permitted, subject of course to the exception envisaged by clause 39(3)(d). From
the photographs of the billboards in question included in the papers, they appear
unlikely to interfere with a clear and undistracted view of any directional traffic signs
and, presumably due to this, the respondent’s applications were granted: on 4 May
2001 in regard to the Sandown billboard and on 22 August 2001 in regard to the
Kelvin View billboard.
[5] In both instances the approval was granted for a period of three years with
further approval to be renegotiated three months prior to expiry of that period. No
extension was ever negotiated and the authority to use the billboards therefore
lapsed in 2004. This notwithstanding, the respondent continued to use both
billboards without objection from the appellants until 13 November 2006 when the
first appellant eventually wrote to the respondent about the Kelvin View billboard. It
drew attention to the lapse of the original authority and stated that, as the billboard
lacked the necessary approval, it should be removed within 21 days – although it
went on to advise that if the respondent wished to ‘legalise’ the billboard it should
submit a new application for consideration. Subsequently, on 29 November 2006,
the first appellant addressed a letter in similar terms to the respondent in regard to
the Sandown billboard. Consequently, in March 2007, the respondent applied to the
first appellant for permission to use the billboards for advertising purposes for a
period of five years. The application for each application was marked as being an
application for a ‘renewal’ and indicated that the billboard was ‘existing’. I shall refer
to them as the ‘renewal applications’.
[6] By this time, the 1999 by-laws had been repealed and replaced by the
Advertising Signs And Hoardings By-laws2 which came into effect on 1 December
2001 (‘the 2001 by-laws’). Similar to clause 39(3)(d) of the 1999 by-laws, but
couched in more permissive terms, clause 24(6)(d) of the 2001 by-laws contained
the following safety condition :
‘Prohibited areas on motorways –
2 Published in GN 7170 of 2001 in Gauteng Provincial Gazette Extraordinary 234 of 28 November
2001.
Billboards may be permitted within specified distances of on- and off-ramps of motorways
and overhead traffic directional signs where a curve in the road renders the billboard not to
interfere with a clear and undistracted view of the directional traffic sign.’
[7] Of course, this implies that billboards would not be permitted within specified
distances of ramps and signs if they interfered with a ‘clear and undistracted’ view of
the directional traffic signs. But despite the reference to ‘specified distances’ in the
clause set out above, there appears to have been a lacuna in the by-laws as, in
contradistinction to those of 1999, they neither prescribed any such specified
distances nor defined any prohibited areas – and in this regard there was no diagram
similar to figure 2 of the 1999 by-laws defining prohibited areas at on and off-ramps
and near overhead signs. However the first appellant still enjoyed a discretion to
approve the use of the billboards for advertising3 and, in considering whether to do
so, was enjoined to take into account, inter-alia, whether a billboard ‘will in any way
impair the visibility of any road traffic sign or affect the safety of motorists or
pedestrians’.4
[8] After having lodged its renewal applications in March 2007, correspondence
passed between the respondent and the first appellant which culminated in the first
appellant writing to the respondent on 3 September 2007, informing it that both
applications had been refused. The reason given for the decision in each case was
that under ‘the safety standards set by the Johannesburg Roads Agency in terms of
clause 24(6)(d) of the [2001 by-laws], signs should be at least 200m away from an
overhead traffic sign.’
[9] Aggrieved by this the respondent, relying on a provision in the 2001 by-laws,
appealed to the second appellant contending, in particular, that the by-laws neither
contained a 200m prohibition nor empowered the Johannesburg Roads Agency to
prescribe conditions for the approval of billboards. However, on 31 March 2008, the
respondent received a letter5 from the second appellant dismissing the appeals on
the ground that:
3 Clause 2(7) as read with clause 41 of the 2001 by-laws.
4 Clause 2(6)(a)(vi) of the 2001 by-laws.
5 Dated 21 January 2008.
‘The Johannesburg Roads Agency as the custodians of road traffic safety in Johannesburg
has determined certain areas close to overhead traffic signs as restricted areas for the
purposes of traffic safety. No advertising signs are permitted within such restricted areas.
Your proposed application is within such restricted area. See also section 24(6)(d) of the
said by-laws. This traffic safety precaution has been consistently applied by the City.’
[10] Unhappy that the second appellant had also taken into account
considerations which it felt were irrelevant and improper, the respondent applied to
the high court to review and set aside the decisions of both the first and second
appellants. As both those decisions had been predicated upon an erroneous view
that the billboards in question were located in ‘prohibited areas’ as envisaged by the
2001 by-laws and that there was an absolute prohibition which precluded any
discretion to grant permission for advertising signs in those areas, the appellants
correctly conceded in their answering affidavits that their decisions had not been
validly taken. But by the time the review was launched in September 2008, the 2001
by-laws had been repealed and replaced by the Outdoor Advertising By-laws6 which
came into operation on 1 July 2008 (‘the 2008 by-laws’). These once more
prescribed prohibited areas at on and off-ramps and overhead traffic signs, and re-
introduced a diagrammatic illustration thereof in schedule 2. This was essentially the
same as figure 2 in the 1999 by-laws. As the respondent’s billboards are situated
within prohibited areas as so defined, the appellants adopted the standpoint that to
set their decisions aside and to ask them to reconsider the renewal applications
would be a meaningless exercise, arguing that the 2008 by-laws contained an
absolute prohibition against advertising in prohibited areas which precluded the
respondent from being granted the permission it sought. The respondent, on the
other hand, argued that its applications would have to be reconsidered not under the
2008 by-laws but those of 2001, under which the permission it sought could be
granted.
[11] The high court rejected the appellant’s argument, holding that the 2001 by-
laws would apply to a reconsideration of the respondent’s applications. As the
appellants had neither suggested that the billboards contravened clause 24(6)(d) of
6 Promulgated in the Gauteng Provincial Gazette Extraordinary 150 of 13 June 2008.
the 2001 by-laws7 nor alleged that the billboards in any way interfered with traffic or
been the subject of any complaint, and in the light of its further conclusion that the
appellants had acted incompetently in assessing the respondent’s applications, the
high court decided not to refer the matter back for reconsideration by the appellants
as it felt that to do so would cause the respondent to suffer ‘unjustifiable prejudice’. It
therefore set aside the decisions of both appellants and replaced them with its own
decision granting the respondent permission to use the billboards for five years,
ante-dating that authority as mentioned at the outset.
[12] In this court, the appellants conceded that in order to give effect to the
principle of legality their invalid decisions should be set aside. However, as in the
high court, the principal issue argued was whether in that event the respondent’s
applications would fall to be reconsidered under the 2001 or 2008 by-laws. In the
alternative, counsel for the respondent argued that even if the 2008 by-laws were
applicable, the prohibition they contained against advertising in prohibited areas was
not absolute and the appellants could still grant the requisite permission. However,
at the close of argument it transpired that in fact the 2008 by-laws had been repealed
on 18 December 2009 when a fresh set of by-laws (‘the 2009 by-laws’) 8 were
published by the second appellant under s 13(a) of the Local Government: Municipal
Systems Act 32 of 2000. This had occurred even before the respondent had filed its
replying affidavit in the high court, and the 2008 by-laws are therefore wholly
irrelevant to the issues debated both in the high court as well as this court. This is a
lamentable state of affairs which made it necessary for this court to afford the parties
the opportunity to file written argument after the hearing dealing with the 2009 by-
laws.
[13] In her subsequent written argument, counsel for the respondents submitted
that, for the reasons she had advanced in respect of the 2008 by-laws, the first
appellant had still retained a residual discretion to allow advertising signs in
prohibited areas. This was founded on the provisions of clause 4 of the 2009 by-laws
7 Quoted in para 6 above.
8 The City of Johannesburg: Outdoor Advertising By-Laws published in Gauteng Provincial Gazette
Extraordinary 277 of 18 December 2009.
which, so the argument went, provide an over-arching discretion to the first appellant
to grant the permission sought. Inter alia, that clause provides :
‘ 4 (1) In considering an application submitted in terms of section 3(3), the Council must, in
addition to any other relevant factor, legislation, policy and by-laws of the Council, have due
regard to the following:
(a)
. . . .
(b)
Whether the proposed advertising sign will ─
(i)
. . . .
(ii)
constitute a danger to any person or property or to motorists or pedestrians or
obstruct vehicular or pedestrian traffic;
(iii)
in any way impair the visibility of any road traffic sign’.
[14] However, the 2009 by-laws also contain a prohibition against advertising
signs near on- and off-ramps and overhead traffic signs on freeways and major
highways. These are diagrammatically illustrated in schedule 2, which is identical to
the corresponding schedule to the 2008 by-laws. Relating thereto, clause 6(2)
provides:
‘Any advertising sign on a public street or facing a public street, including advertising signs
facing a Provincial Road, must comply with the following requirements:
(a) . . . .
(b) no advertising sign may be located inside a prohibited area at any on- and off-ramp of a
motorway, whether local, provincial or national and in relation to overhead road traffic signs,
as depicted in Figure 1 of Schedule 2.’
[15] The prohibition in clause 6(2), as read with schedule 2, is then incorporated
by reference into clause 9 which details a number of instances ‘(i)n addition to any
other prohibition . . . in these By-laws’ in which ‘no person may erect, maintain or
display any advertising sign’. As clause 3(6)(b) goes on to provide in peremptory
terms that the first appellant ‘must refuse to accept an application’ which relates to
an advertising sign prohibited by clause 9, the by-laws clearly fall to be interpreted as
providing an absolute prohibition against advertising signs falling within prohibited
areas in schedule 2, and the discretion provided by clause 4 (accepting for present
purposes that there is one) can only relate to applications which the first appellant
can accept ie those not prohibited by clause 9. As it is common cause that the
respondent’s renewal applications relate to billboards that are in prohibited areas
which are referred to by reference in clause 9, if the 2009 by-laws are applicable to
the reconsideration of the renewal applications, the first appellant has no discretion
to grant the approval the respondent seeks.
[16] Consequently the cardinal issue to consider is the respondent’s contention
that the 2001 by-laws would be applicable to a reconsideration of its renewal
applications. The immediate difficulty that I have with this argument is to be found in
the terms of the subsequent by-laws. Clause 39(3) of the 2008 by-laws provided for
any application brought under the repealed 2001 by-laws that was ‘pending’ before
the first appellant at the date of the commencement of the 2008 by-laws to be dealt
with in terms of the latter by-laws. Similarly, clause 39(3) of the 2009 by-laws
provides that any application brought under the terms of the 2008 by-laws ‘pending
before the (first appellant) at the date of commencement of these By-laws must be
dealt with in terms of these By-laws’.
[17] Both in the court a quo, and initially in this court, the parties accepted that the
respondent’s renewal applications had finally come to an end on 31 March 2008
when the second appellant dismissed the respondent’s appeals. They therefore
further accepted that the renewal applications could not be construed as ‘pending’
when the 2008 by-laws commenced on 1 July 2008 (and nor, for that matter, when
the 2009 by-laws commenced on 18 December 2009). In their further written
argument submitted after the appeal had been heard, the appellants retreated from
this position to argue that the effect of the high court setting aside their invalid
actions on 13 October 2010 was retrospectively to visit those decisions with nullity;
with the result that the first appellant must be considered as not having taken any
decision on the renewal applications before the 2009 by-laws commenced, and that
such applications were therefore ‘pending’ at that time.
[18] As was correctly observed in Noah,9 precisely when a matter may be said to
be ‘pending’ is an issue that has to be determined in the context in which the word is
used. However, the general meaning of the word is ‘awaiting decision or
settlement’10 and there can be no doubt that, once the respondents had lodged their
renewal applications with the first appellant, they were thereafter ‘pending’ until such
time as they had been dealt with. The issue is whether the renewal applications were
so pending when the 2009 by-laws came into operation.
[19] Counsel for the respondent correctly pointed out that this court had held in
Oudekraal11 that an invalid administrative decision stands and has effect until it is set
aside. On the strength of this authority, she argued that as the declaration of
invalidity was only made by the high court after the 2009 by-laws had come into
operation and, as at that time a final decision had been taken by the appellants
which had not yet been set aside, the renewal applications could not be construed as
having been pending at that time.
[20] However, as this court has regularly stressed, an administrative decision
declared to have been invalid is to be retrospectively regarded as if it had never
been made.12 Accordingly, if the decisions of the appellants are to be set aside, as
all parties are agreed should occur, the matter is to be considered on the basis that
no valid decisions in respect of the respondent’s renewal applications were ever
taken. Those applications must therefore still be regarded as still awaiting a decision
and, that being so, they are clearly pending ─ and have been since they were lodged
in March 2007. They were therefore pending when the 2009 by-laws came into effect
and, by reason of clause 39(3) of such by-laws, must be dealt with in terms of those
by-laws rather than the 2001 by-laws.
9 Noah v Union National South British Insurance Co Ltd 1979 (1) SA 330 (T) at 332B-333C.
10 Concise Oxford English Dictionary 12 ed (2011).
11 Oudekraal Estates (Pty) Ltd v City of Cape Town & others 2004 (6) SA 222 (SCA) paras 27-31.
12 See eg Eskom Holdings Ltd & another v New Reclamation Group (Pty) Ltd 2009 (4) SA 628 (SCA)
para 9 and Seale v Van Rooyen NO & others: Provincial Government, North West Province v Van
Rooyen NO & others 2008 (4) SA 43 (SCA) paras 13 and 14.
[21] This conclusion renders it unnecessary to consider the respondent’s
argument based on s 12(2)(c) of the Interpretation Act 33 of 195713 that, if clause
39(3) is of no application, it had acquired the right to have its renewal applications
considered under the 2001 by-laws before they were repealed. Suffice it to say in the
light of the decisions of this court in Gunn, 14 Volkswagen 15 and Edcon 16 ─ the
reasoning of which is supported by various judgments in foreign jurisdictions17 ─ the
respondent had no more than a hope or expectation of acquiring a right under the
2001 by-laws which fell short of its enjoying a right which had accrued to it to have its
application decided under those by-laws. For that reason, the 2001 by-laws would in
any event have been of no application even had clause 39(3) not been included in
the 2009 by-laws.
[22] However, for the reasons given, the 2009 by-laws are clearly of application to
the renewal applications and there is an absolute prohibition under those by-laws in
respect of advertising signs being placed in the position in which the two billboards in
question are situated. Thus not only did the high court err both in finding that the
2001 by-laws would be applicable to the reconsideration of the renewal applications
but also in exercising a discretion on behalf of the first appellant which the latter did
not have. Accordingly, not only can the order granting permission to the respondents
to use the billboards not stand, but there would be no point in directing the first
appellant to reconsider the renewal applications which it is obliged to refuse. In
these circumstances, the high court ought merely to have made an order setting
aside the decisions of the two appellants. That will be reflected in this court’s order.
13 It reads as follows: ‘Where a law repeals any other law, then unless the contrary intention appears,
the repeal shall not ─ . . . (c) affect any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, accrued or
incurred under any law so repealed.’
14 Gunn & another NNO v Barclays Bank DCO 1962 (3) SA 678 (A) at 684B-D.
15 Chairman, Board on Tariffs and Trade v Volkswagen of South Africa (Pty) Ltd & another 2001 (2)
SA 372 (SCA).
16 Edcon Pension Fund v Financial Services Board of Appeal & another 2008 (5) SA 511 (SCA).
17 Eg Odelola v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2009] UKHL 25:[2009] 3 All ER 1061
(HL); Chief Adjudication Officer v Maguire [1999] 2 All ER 589, [1999] 1 WLR 1778; Foodstuffs
(Auckland) Ltd v Commerce Commission [2002] 1 NZLR 353 (CA) and Attorney-General for the State
of Queensland v Australian Industrial Relations Commission & others; Minister for Employment and
Workplace Relations of the Commonwealth of Australia v Australian Industrial Relations Commission
and others [2002] HCA 42: [2002] 213 CLR 485 at para 101.
[23] Turning to the question of costs, as the appellants have achieved substantial
success on appeal they are entitled to their costs of appeal. In regard to the costs in
the high court, the attitude of the appellants throughout has been that their decisions
were indefensible. In truth, the proceedings in the high court concerned whether the
respondent should be granted permission to use the billboards. The order the court a
quo made in that regard should not have been granted. In these circumstances it
seems to me that the respondent should bear the costs in the high court as well. It is
not suggested that costs of two counsel would be inappropriate.
[24] The following order is therefore made:
1.
The appeal succeeds with costs, such costs to include the costs of two
counsel.
2.
The order of the high court is set aside and is substituted with the following:
‘(a)
The decisions taken by the first respondent, the City of Johannesburg, on 29
August 2007, to refuse the applicant’s applications for approval of the two outdoor
advertising billboards known as the Sandown billboard and the Kelvin View billboard,
as well as the decisions by the third respondent, the city manager, to dismiss the
applicant’s appeals against the aforementioned decisions of the first respondent, are
reviewed and set aside.
(b)
The applicant is to pay the respondents’ costs, such costs to include the costs
of two counsel.’
______________________
L E Leach
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES:
For Appellant:
J Both SC (with him A W Pullinger)
Instructed by:
Moodie & Robertson, Johannesburg
Claude Reid Inc, Bloemfontein
For Respondent:
K Hofmeyr
Instructed by:
Pagel Schulenberg Inc, Johannesburg
Symington & De Kok, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
From: The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date: 29 March 2012
Status: Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Neutral citation: City of Johannesburg v Ad Outpost (55/11) [2012] ZASCA 40 (29 March
2012)
The respondent, an advertising agency that does business placing advertisements on
billboards alongside major roadways in Johannesburg, had obtained permission to use two
billboards for that purpose: one in Sandown and the other in Kelvin View, Johannesburg. The
original authority granted to the respondent in this regard had lapsed in 2004. Despite this,
the respondent continued to use the billboards without seeking permission from the City of
Johannesburg to do so. Eventually the City insisted upon the respondent once more applying
for permission to use the billboards. It did so in March 2007, but such permission was
refused. The respondent appealed to the City Manager against this decision, but that appeal
too was dismissed.
The respondent then approached the South Gauteng High Court for an order authorising it to
use the billboards for a period of five years, contending that the decisions taken by the City
and the City Manager were invalid. The City and the City Manager conceded that the
decisions they had taken were of no force and effect but alleged that as there had been a
change of municipal by-laws, and as there was no longer any discretion on their part to allow
advertising on the billboards in question due to their locality (both were situated in areas in
which advertising was prohibited) it would be meaningless to set aside their decisions.
The high court, however, concluded that the by-laws which were in place when the
respondent had applied for permission in 2007 (and which had been repealed before the
matter reached the high court) conferred a discretion to grant permission for advertising in
the prohibited areas, and would be applicable when the applications for permission were
reconsidered. It also concluded that it should grant the respondent such permission rather
than to refer the applications back to the City.
This decision was today set aside by the Supreme Court of Appeal which ruled that the
subsequent by-laws, promulgated in 2009, which were of application when the high court set
aside the decisions taken by the City and the City Manager, were the by-laws under which
the applications for permission would have to be reconsidered. Under those by-laws,
advertising was absolutely prohibited where the two billboards in question are located. It
therefore set aside the permission granted to the respondents by the high court to use the
billboard for five years.
---ends--- |
2871 | non-electoral | 2012 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case No: 873/11
In the matter between:
JDJ Properties CC
First Appellant
Double Diamond CC
Second Appellant
and
Umngeni Local Municipality
First Respondent
Triumph Brokers (Pty) Ltd
Second Respondent
Neutral citation:
JDJ Properties v Umngeni Local Municipality (873/11) [2012]
ZASCA 186 (29 November 2012)
Coram:
LEWIS, HEHER, THERON AND PILLAY JJA AND
PLASKET AJA
Heard:
08 November 2012
Delivered:
29 November 2012
Summary:
Promotion of Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000 –
whether
decision
to
approve
building
plans
administrative action – standing of near-by landowner
and lessee of property to review decisions taken by
municipality in terms of town planning scheme –
whether internal appeal available in terms of s 62 of
Local Government: Municipal Systems Act 32 of 2000 or
s 9 of National Building Regulations and Building
Standards Act 103 of 1977 – review of decisions taken in
terms of town planning scheme and to approve building
plans.
________________________________________________________________
ORDER
________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: KwaZulu-Natal High Court, Pietermaritzburg (Seegobin J
sitting as court of first instance)
1 The appeal is upheld with costs.
2 The order of the court below is set aside and replaced with the following
order:
(a) The decision of the general manager: planning and development services
of the first respondent, purportedly taken in terms of clause 2.6.3 of the
Howick town planning scheme, relaxing the side space requirement in respect
of erf 848, Howick is set aside.
(b) The decision of the first respondent‟s council taken on 30 June 2010 to
approve the building plans submitted on behalf of the second respondent for
building work on erf 848, Howick is set aside.
(c) The respondents are directed, jointly and severally, to pay the applicant‟s
costs, including the costs of the application for interim relief.
JUDGMENT
PLASKET AJA (LEWIS AND PILLAY JJA concurring)
[1] This appeal, against a judgment of the KwaZulu-Natal High Court,
Pietermaritzburg (Seegobin J) concerns four issues: whether the approval of
the second respondent‟s building plans (including two related decisions to
relax side space and parking requirements) by the first respondent constitutes
administrative action as that term is defined in s 1 of the Promotion of
Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000 (the PAJA); whether the appellants have
standing to review the decision to approve the building plans; whether the
appellants had available to them an internal appeal which they were required
to utilise before taking the decision on review; and whether, if the appellants
succeed in clearing all of these hurdles, they have established a basis for the
review and setting aside of the decision. The appeal is before this court with
the leave of the court below.
The facts
[2] The building plans in issue in this matter relate to erf 848 situated in the
central business district of the town of Howick. This property, zoned „General
Commercial‟, had been owned by the first respondent but, because it had
become a derelict eye-sore, a decision had been taken to sell it by public
tender with a view to it being redeveloped. The second respondent‟s tender
was accepted and a deed of sale was duly entered into by the first and
second respondents which included certain development requirements.
[3] Two of the development requirements warrant mention. First, clause
9.1 of the deed of sale records that the property is vacant land and that it is to
be „developed by the Purchaser as a commercial development‟. Secondly,
clause 9.5 provides that if the development of the property has not been
completed within 18 months of the signing of the deed of sale „the Seller may
cancel this agreement and obtain return of the Property, or may assess and
levy rates thereon as if the development had been concluded, at its sole
discretion‟.
[4] The second respondent planned to build a shopping complex on the
property and, to this end, entered into an agreement of lease with Basfour
3281 (Pty) Ltd in terms of which the property was let to Basfour for nine years
and 11 months at a monthly rental of R115 500. From the affidavit of Mr Ismail
Cassimjee, a director of the second respondent, it appears that the lessee‟s
plan was to utilise the property as a retail supermarket aimed at lower-income
earners.
[5] Because of the nature of the proposed supermarket‟s business, it
required, in the words of Cassimjee, „more building space and less parking on
the property‟ because the target clientele typically „do not usually have
vehicles to park outside the retail outlet‟. As a result of this, the second
respondent applied for the relaxation of the first respondent‟s usual parking
requirements in terms of the Howick Town Planning Scheme (the Howick
scheme). It also obtained the consent of the owners of an adjoining property,
and the approval of the first respondent, to waive the side space requirement,
thus allowing for the building on erf 848 to abut the neighbouring erf.
Throughout this process, the first and second respondents were in constant
contact, discussing and negotiating as the development progressed.
[6] Prior to concluding the lease agreement with Basfour, the second
respondent had, in March 2010, submitted its building plans to the first
respondent for approval in terms of the National Building Regulations and
Building Standards Act 103 of 1977. In May 2010, Mr Jordoa de Jesus, a
member of the first appellant and of the second appellant, both of which
carried on business in close proximity to erf 848, learned of the proposed
development. The first appellant owns two properties situated across the road
from erf 848 and the second appellant owns a retail business that operates
from those properties.
[7] De Jesus was most unhappy that the development was taking place at
all and was also alarmed to hear that the second respondent appeared to be
receiving favourable treatment from the first respondent. He registered his
concerns by way of a letter to Mr Stephen Simpson, the general manager,
planning and development services of the first respondent. He also instructed
an attorney, counsel and a town planner to oppose the second respondent‟s
application for the approval of the building plans. To this end, written
representations were made to the first respondent and he and his team
attended a meeting of the executive committee of the first respondent‟s
council, and of the council itself when the approval of the building plans was
considered and passed by the council.
[8] When the second respondent had received confirmation that its
building plans had been approved, it concluded the lease agreement with
Basfour and gave its building contractor the go-ahead to commence building
operations. The appellants launched an urgent application in which they
sought an interim order interdicting the second respondent from proceeding
with the building operations pending a review of the decision to approve the
building plans. The application for the interim interdict was dismissed but the
application to review the decision was postponed, with the costs reserved.
[9] The appellants later amended their notice of motion to include a further
ground of review and further relief relating to the demolition of part of the
building and the vacating of the property pending the issue of a new certificate
of occupancy by the first respondent.
[10] The court below dismissed the application with costs without deciding
on the merits. It found that: (a) the decision to approve the building plans was
not administrative action for purposes of the PAJA because the appellants
had not shown that the decision had adversely affected their rights and had a
direct, external legal effect, holding that „[o]n this basis alone the application
falls to be dismissed‟; (b) as it was unable to find that the primary aim of the
appellants in challenging the decision to approve the building plans was to
stifle competition, it was not able to find that they lacked standing on this
account; and (c) the appellants had available to them an internal appeal
against the decision that they challenged, they had failed to utilise it and, on
that account, the application had to be dismissed because s 7(2) of the PAJA
requires the exhaustion of internal remedies before parties may approach a
court to review administrative action. These findings will be dealt with in turn.
Administrative action
[11] Section 1 of the PAJA defines administrative action, subject to listed
exclusions that are not relevant for present purposes, as follows:
„”administrative action” means any decision taken, or any failure to take a decision,
by –
(a)
an organ of state, when –
(i)
exercising a power in terms of the Constitution or a provincial
constitution; or
(ii)
exercising a public power or performing a public function in
terms of any legislation; or
(b)
a natural or juristic person, other than an organ of state, when
exercising a public power or performing a public function in terms of an
empowering provision,
which adversely affects the rights of any person and which has a direct, external
legal effect . . .‟
[12] It does not appear to be in dispute that a decision, as envisaged by the
PAJA,1 was taken by the first respondent, that it is an organ of state as
defined in s 239 of the Constitution, that in taking the decision to approve the
building plans it exercised a public power and that this power derived from
legislation. The only two elements of the definition which are in dispute in this
matter are the requirements of an adverse effect on rights and direct, external
legal effect.
[13] In order to interpret the definition of administrative action in the PAJA
one must begin with s 33 of the Constitution.2 Because the PAJA is intended
to give effect to the fundamental right to just administrative action, it must be
interpreted consistently with s 33 and effect must be given to the purpose of s
33, namely the creation of „a coherent and overarching system for the review
of all administrative action‟.3 In Bato Star Fishing (Pty) Ltd v Minister of
1 A decision is defined in s 1 of the PAJA to be „any decision of an administrative nature
made . . . under an empowering provision, including a decision relating to . . . (b) giving,
suspending, revoking or refusing to give a certificate, direction, approval, consent or
permission‟.
2 Section 33 reads as follows:
„(1) Everyone has the right to administrative action that is lawful, reasonable and procedurally
fair.
(2) Everyone whose rights have been adversely affected by administrative action has the right
to be given written reasons.
(3) National legislation must be enacted to give effect to these rights, and must-
(a) provide for the review of administrative action by a court or, where appropriate, an
independent and impartial tribunal;
(b) impose a duty on the state to give effect to the rights in subsections (1) and (2);
and
(c) promote an efficient administration.‟
3 Minister of Health & another NO v New Clicks South Africa (Pty) Ltd & others (Treatment
Action Campaign & another as amici curiae) 2006 (2) SA 311 (CC) para 118 (Chaskalson CJ)
and para 446 (Ngcobo J); Camps Bay Ratepayers’ and Residents’ Association & another v
Harrison & another 2011 (4) SA 42 (CC) para 51.
Environmental Affairs & others4 O‟Regan J held that because the purpose of
the PAJA was to give effect to s 33, „matters relating to the interpretation and
application of PAJA will of course be constitutional matters‟. This means that
the PAJA should be interpreted generously and purposively and that austere
formalism in its interpretation should be avoided.5
[14] In Sokhela & others v MEC for Agriculture and Environmental Affairs
(KwaZulu-Natal) & others6 Wallis J summarised the proper approach to be
taken when he said:
„In my view, the intention of the Constitution was to draw together the disparate
threads of our administrative law, and the circumstances in which the power of
judicial review was available, under the umbrella of a single, broad concept of
administrative action. In accordance with the generous construction to be afforded
constitutionally guaranteed rights, conduct that attracted the power of judicial review
under our previous dispensation will ordinarily be regarded as constituting
administrative action under the present constitutional dispensation. There will of
course be exceptions arising from differences in the structure of government and the
status of differing levels of government . . . but, in general, it seems to me that, where
the power of judicial review was available under our previous dispensation, the courts
will be slow to construe that conduct as falling outside the ambit of administrative
action under the Constitution and PAJA.‟
[15] In Grey’s Marine Hout Bay (Pty) Ltd & others v Minister of Public Works
& others7 Nugent JA made the point that while the precise ambit of
administrative action has always been hard to define, „[t]he cumbersome
definition of that term in PAJA serves not so much to attribute meaning to the
term as to limit its meaning by surrounding it with a palisade of qualifications‟.8
At its core, however, is the „idea of action (a decision) “of an administrative
nature” taken by a public body or functionary‟. While indications of what is
intended may be derived from the qualifications to the definition, the term „also
4 Bato Star Fishing (Pty) Ltd v Minister of Environmental Affairs & others 2004 (4) SA 490
(CC) para 25.
5 S v Zuma & others 1995 (2) SA 642 (CC) paras 14-15.
6 Sokhela & others v MEC for Agriculture and Environmental Affairs (KwaZulu-Natal) & others
2010 (5) SA 574 (KZP) para 82.
7 Grey’s Marine Hout Bay (Pty) Ltd & others v Minister of Public Works & others 2005 (6) SA
313 (SCA).
8 Para 21.
falls to be construed consistently, wherever possible, with the meaning that
has been attributed to administrative action as the term is used in s 33 of the
Constitution (from which PAJA originates) so as to avoid constitutional
invalidity‟.9
[16] After summarising the import of the more important cases on what
constituted administrative action in terms of s 24 of the interim Constitution
and s 33 of the final Constitution, he concluded that administrative action is „in
general terms, the conduct of the bureaucracy (whoever the bureaucratic
functionary might be) in carrying out the daily functions of the State, which
necessarily involves the application of policy, usually after its translation into
law, with direct and immediate consequences for individuals or groups of
individuals‟.10
[17] Nugent JA approached the interpretation of the two elements of the
definition with which this case is concerned – that rights must be adversely
affected, and that the action must have a direct, external legal effect – on the
basis that in ascribing a meaning to them that is consistent with the way in
which s 33 was interpreted their literal meaning could not have been
intended:11
„For administrative action to be characterised by its effect in particular cases (either
beneficial or adverse) seems to me to be paradoxical and also finds no support from
the construction that has until now been placed on s 33 of the Constitution.
Moreover, that literal construction would be inconsonant with s 3(1), which envisages
that administrative action might or might not affect rights adversely. The qualification,
particularly when seen in conjunction with the requirement that it must have a “direct
and external legal effect”, was probably intended rather to convey that administrative
action is action that has the capacity to affect legal rights, the two qualifications in
9 Para 22.
10 Para 24. See too Zondi v MEC for Traditional and Local Government Affairs & others 2005
(3) SA 589 (CC) paras 104-105; Johannesburg Municipal Pension Fund & others v City of
Johannesburg & others 2005 (6) SA 273 (W) para 14.
11 Para 23. Nugent JA‟s approach to the interpretation of the requirement of a direct, external
legal effect was endorsed by the Constitutional Court in Joseph & others v City of
Johannesburg & others 2010 (4) SA 55 (CC) para 27. See too Viking Pony Africa Pumps
(Pty) Ltd t/a Tricom Africa v Hidro-Tech Systems (Pty) Ltd & another 2011 (1) SA 327 (CC)
para 37.
tandem serving to emphasise that administrative action impacts directly and
immediately on individuals.‟
[18] In my view, the approval of the building plans in this case has such an
effect. As De Jesus has stated, the consequence will be an increase in traffic
using the road where both the second appellant‟s and first respondent‟s
businesses are located, with an increase in congestion. Because of the small
amount of parking authorised by the first respondent, it would inevitably follow
that the free parking provided by the second appellant to its customers would
be used by customers shopping at the second respondent‟s development.
[19] It was held by the court below that as the second appellant‟s and the
second respondent‟s client bases differed, and the latter‟s client base would
be poor people using public transport, these concerns were groundless. I do
not agree with this conclusion. The fact that the second respondent‟s client
base will, in the court below‟s words, mainly comprise of „the rural poor‟ will
mean that transport will be necessary to convey them from their homes to the
shopping complex. The vehicles concerned will increase traffic congestion in
the area concerned and will need somewhere to park. The second appellant‟s
parking area is nearby and convenient. It is probable that attempts will be
made to use it and the appellants will have to take steps to protect their right
to reserve the parking for their customers.
[20] The
court
below
categorised
these
consequences
as
trivial
inconveniences which were insufficiently serious to qualify as an adverse
effect on rights having a direct, external legal effect. In so doing, it
approached the issue in a narrow, legalistic manner rather than purposively
and in accordance with the interpretation of these requirements favoured by
Nugent JA in Grey’s Marine. It erred in this respect. In my view, the decision
to approve the building plans had the capacity to affect the rights of the
appellants and others living and doing business in the area concerned, and
would impact directly on them. That being so, all of the elements of
administrative action for purposes of the PAJA are present and the decision to
approve the building plans is therefore an administrative action.
[21] Furthermore, the appellants, as a landowner and lessee respectively in
the immediate vicinity of the development to which the building plans relate
have a right to enforce compliance with the Howick scheme. I shall expand on
this when I deal with the attack on the appellants‟ standing. Their right to
safeguard the amenity of their immediate neighbourhood was potentially
affected by the decision that they sought to impugn.12 That brings the decision
to approve the second respondent‟s building plans within the definition of
administrative action in the PAJA.
[22] In conclusion on the administrative action point, it has always been the
case that decisions of local authorities to approve building plans are subject to
administrative law review and nothing in the structures of government under
either the interim Constitution of 1993 or the final Constitution of 1996, the
status of local governments or the powers of local governments compels a
difference in this regard.13 Both pre- and post-1994 cases have regarded it as
trite that administrative law review applies to decisions to either approve or
refuse to approve building plans, whether under the common law, the
Constitution directly prior to 2000 (when the PAJA came into effect) or under
the PAJA thereafter. This is perhaps the reason why Jafta AJ, in Walele v City
of Cape Town & others,14 could assert with no resort to authority that „[t]here
can be no doubt that when approving building plans, a local authority or its
delegate exercises a public power constituting administrative action‟. That
puts paid to the first issue.
12 Esterhuyse v Jan Jooste Family Trust & another 1998 (4) SA 241(C) at 253J-254D.
13 Most of the cases cited in this judgment support this proposition. Writing in 1984 Lawrence
Baxter in Administrative Law at 173 described the town planning system as a „highly
sophisticated example of administrative regulation‟. Cases in which either the approval of
building plans or the refusal to approve building plans are challenged inevitably involve the
review of decisions of public functionaries or bodies on administrative law grounds. See for
instance BEF (Pty) Ltd Cape Town Municipality & others 1983 (2) SA 387 (C) at 400B-D
(approval of plans invalid because decision-maker acted in terms of a delegation of power
that was not authorised); Paola v Jeeva NO & others 2004 (1) SA 396 (SCA) para 16 and
Walele v City of Cape Town & others 2008 (6) SA 129 (CC) para 72 (decision taken in both
cases in the absence of jurisdictional facts invalid) See too Camps Bay Residents’ and
Ratepayers’ Association & another v Harrison & another (note 3) paras 48-63 (application of
the time limit for instituting review proceedings in terms of the PAJA)
14 Walele v City of Cape Town & others 2008 (6) SA 129 (CC) para 27.
[23] Even if it is accepted that the decision to approve the second
respondent‟s building plans is not administrative action for purposes of the
PAJA, that would not mean that the decision is immune from review: it would
then be an exercise of public power that is reviewable in terms of s 1(c) of the
Constitution, the principle of legality and rationality15 -- and it would be
reviewable on essentially the same grounds as those set out in s 6(2) of the
PAJA. (In this case, where the attack on the decision is based on a lack of
authority and irrationality, the „gateway‟ to review – the PAJA or s 1(c) of the
Constitution – will make no difference to the result.16) It follows that the court
below erred in finding that the application had to be dismissed on the sole
ground that the decision under challenge was not administrative action.
Standing
[24] In the court below, the second respondent attacked the standing of the
appellants to review the decision to approve the building plans on the basis
that they did not have a sufficient interest as all they were seeking to do was
to improperly suppress trade competition. The court below did not accept this
argument but the attack on the appellants‟ standing was persisted in on
appeal but on a different basis: that the appellants, not having any rights that
had been adversely affected by the decision, had no standing to review the
first respondent‟s approval of the second respondent‟s building plans.
[25] What this argument sought to do was to conflate the alleged absence
of two of the elements of administrative action, as defined in the PAJA, with a
lack of standing. This is, in my view, an incorrect approach. Whether one is
dealing with administrative action as defined in the PAJA is a separate and
distinct enquiry to whether a party has standing to challenge an exercise of
15 See Democratic Alliance v Ethekwini Municipality 2012 (2) SA 151 (SCA) paras 20-21.
16 See for instance, Fedsure Life Assurance Ltd & others v Greater Johannesburg
Transitional Metropolitan Council & others 1999 (1) SA 374 (CC) para 56; President of the
Republic of South Africa & others v South African Rugby Football Union & others 2000 (1) SA
1 (CC) para 148; Pharmaceutical Manufacturers Association of SA & another: In re ex parte
President of the Republic of South Africa & others 2000 (2) SA 674 (CC) paras 82-85;
Affordable Medicines Trust & others v Minister of Health & others 2006 (3) SA 247 (CC) paras
74-75; Albutt v Centre for the Study of Violence and Reconciliation & others 2010 (3) SA 293
(CC) paras 49-50.
public power. The first enquiry relates to the nature of the public power in
issue, while the second relates to the interest that an applicant may have in
proceedings, and whether that interest is sufficient to enable it to challenge
the exercise of the public power concerned. The first issue is determined by
an application of the definition of administrative action in the PAJA to the
facts, while the second issue is determined by the application of s 38 of the
Constitution.17
[26] This distinction is illustrated by Democratic Alliance & others v Acting
National Director of Public Prosecutions & others18 in which this court
intimated (without deciding the issue) that a decision to discontinue a
prosecution was not an administrative action for purposes of PAJA but held
that it was reviewable in terms of s 1(c) of the Constitution19 and found that
the appellant, a political party, had standing to review the decision because,
inter alia, of its interest „in ensuring that public power is exercised in
accordance with constitutional and legal prescripts and that the rule of law is
upheld‟.20
[27] Whether a litigant‟s interest is sufficient to clothe him or her with
standing involves a consideration of the facts, the statutory scheme involved
(in public law disputes, a statutory power is almost inevitably involved) and its
purpose: the issue must, in other words, be determined in the light of the
factual and legal context.21
17 Section 38 of the Constitution reads:
„Anyone listed in this section has the right to approach a competent court, alleging that a right
in the Bill of Rights has been infringed or threatened, and the court may grant appropriate
relief, including a declaration of rights. The persons who may approach a court are –
(a)
anyone acting in their own interest;
(b)
anyone acting on behalf of another person who cannot act in their own name;
(c)
anyone acting as a member of, or in the interest of, a group or class of
persons;
(d)
anyone acting in the public interest; and
(e)
an association acting in the interest of its members.‟
18 Democratic Alliance & others v Acting National Director of Public Prosecutions & others
2012 (3) SA 486 (SCA).
19 Para 27.
20 Para 44.
21 Rinaldo Investments (Pty) Ltd v Giant Concerts CC & others [2012] 3 All SA 57 (SCA)
paras 15-16.
[28] The source of the power to enact the Howick scheme is the Town
Planning Ordinance 27 of 1949 (Natal). Section 40(1) of the Ordinance
contains a statement of the general purpose of every structure plan,
development plan, town planning scheme or package of plans. That purpose
is to achieve „a co-ordinated and harmonious development of the municipal
area, or any area or areas situate therein, to which it relates . . . in such a way
as will most effectively tend to promote health, safety, order, amenity,
convenience and general welfare, as well as efficiency and economy in the
process of development and the improvement of communications‟.
[29] In Administrator, Transvaal and the Firs Investments (Pty) Ltd v
Johannesburg City Council22 Ogilvie Thompson JA said that it was „of the
essence of a town-planning scheme that it is conceived in the general
interests of the community to which it applies‟. And in BEF (Pty) Ltd v Cape
Town Municipality & others23 Grosskopf J stated:
„The purposes to be pursued in the preparation of a scheme suggest to me that a
scheme is intended to operate, not in the general public interest, but in the interest of
the inhabitants of the area covered by the scheme, or at any rate those inhabitants
who would be affected by a particular provision. And by "affected" I do not mean
damnified in a financial sense. "Health, safety, order, amenity, convenience and
general welfare" are not usually measurable in financial terms. Buildings which do
not comply with the scheme may have no financial effect on neighbouring properties,
or may even enhance their value, but may nevertheless detract from the amenity of
the neighbourhood and, if allowed to proliferate, may change the whole character of
the area. This is, of course, a purely subjective judgment, but in my view this is the
type of value which the ordinance, and schemes created thereunder, are designed to
promote and protect. In my view a person is entitled to take up the attitude that he
lives in a particular area in which the scheme provides certain amenities which he
would like to see maintained. I also consider that he may take appropriate legal steps
to ensure that nobody diminishes these amenities unlawfully.‟
22 Administrator, Transvaal and the Firs Investments (Pty) Ltd v Johannesburg City Council
1971 (1) SA 56 (A) at 70D.
23 BEF (Pty) Ltd v Cape Town Municipality & others 1983 (2) SA 387 (C) at 401B-F.
[30] The BEF case is simply a specific application of the broader principle
expressed in Patz v Greeene & Co24 which was summarised thus in this court
by Stratford JA in Roodepoort-Maraisburg Town Council v Eastern Properties
(Pty) Ltd:25
„Where it appears either from a reading of the enactment itself or from that plus a
regard to surrounding circumstances that the Legislature has prohibited the doing of
an act in the interest of any person or a class of persons, the intervention of the Court
can be sought by any such person to enforce the prohibition without proof of special
damage.‟
[31] The BEF case was applied by Meer J in PS Booksellers (Pty) Ltd &
another v Harrison & others26 when she spoke of „the recognised standing of
residents and property owners, in a community or township, to enforce the
provisions of zoning schemes‟. And in Pick ‘n Pay Stores Ltd & others v
Teazers Comedy and Revue CC & others27 Hussain J held that it was not only
owners of property but also lessees of property who may fall within the class
of persons whose interests are protected by a town planning scheme.
Consequently it is not only owners of property who may enforce the terms of a
town planning scheme. Lessees may also have standing to do so.
[32] In the BEF case, Grosskopf J raised the question of the limits of
standing for purposes of the review of a decision in terms of a town planning
scheme. Having held that a person living in an area generally speaking has
the right to take legal steps to enforce compliance with the scheme, he
proceeded to say that he „would not like to assert dogmatically that such a
remedy would be available to all persons living in the area covered by a
scheme as large as that of Cape Town‟. He did not have to engage with this
issue because the applicant before him was „an immediate neighbour to the
property on which the non-conforming garage was built‟.28
24 Patz v Greene & Co 1907 TS 427.
25 Roodepoort-Maraisburg Town Council v Eastern Properties (Pty) Ltd 1933 AD 87 at 96.
26 PS Booksellers (Pty) Ltd & another v Harrison & others 2008 (3) SA 633 (C) para 19.
27 Pick ‘n Pay Stores Ltd & others v Teazers Comedy and Revue CC & others 2000 (3) SA
645 (W) at 654F-H.
28 BEF (Pty) Ltd v Cape Town Municipality & others (note 23) at 401E-F.
[33] Prinsloo & Viljoen Eiendomme (Edms) Bpk v Morfou,29 while accepting
the principle set out in the BEF case, applied the qualification alluded to by
Grosskopf J. There was in this case no evidence as to such fundamental
issues as where the house of the respondent (on appeal) was situated in
relation to the site on which the bottle store that was the subject of his
challenge was built, the distance between the two, the area covered by the
town planning scheme and whether the respondent‟s property and the
property on which the bottle store stood were in the same use zone.30 In these
circumstances, the court held that the respondent had failed to show that, in
relation to the property on which the bottle store stood, the restriction he
sought to enforce was enacted in the interest of property owners such as
him.31 In all of the cases in which a property owner was held to have standing,
Eloff JP stated, the „nature of the conditions and the circumstances of the
case‟ showed that the scheme had been enacted in the interest of the
applicants concerned: in all of these cases the applicants whose standing was
recognised were persons who owned land in the vicinity of the respondent‟s
land and in each case their properties fell within the same use zone as the
respondents.32
[34] In this matter, the nature of the interest involved is the right to
enforcement of the Howick scheme. It is this interest that gives the appellants
standing. They are part of the class of persons in whose interest the Howick
scheme operates for three interlocking reasons: first, they are an owner and a
lessee respectively of property within the area covered by the Howick scheme
in a modestly sized town; secondly, their properties and business are within
the same use zone as the development to which the building plans relate; and
thirdly, their properties and business are in such close proximity to the second
respondent‟s development, being across a road, that no question of them
being too far removed from the second respondent‟s development can arise.
These factors distinguish their circumstances from those of the respondent in
the Prinsloo & Viljoen Eiendomme case and place them squarely within the
29 Prinsloo & Viljoen Eiendomme (Edms) Bpk v Morfou 1993 (1) SA 668 (T).
30 At 670B-F.
31 At 672D.
32 At 671B-F.
principles set out in the BEF case. In addition, the requirements of annexure 7
of the Howick scheme in relation to the procedure for obtaining special
consent for specific relaxations, discussed in paragraphs 61 to 65, indicate
that it is not only immediate neighbours who may enforce compliance with the
scheme, but all those to whom notice must be given before relaxation is
permissible, who may object to the relaxation and even appeal against an
unfavourable decision.
[35] The appellants‟ interest as persons in whose favour the Howick
scheme operates is a sufficient interest for purposes of s 38(a) of the
Constitution33 to enable them to apply to court to vindicate their fundamental
right to just administrative action entrenched in s 33(1) of the Constitution and
given effect to by the PAJA. The challenge to their standing consequently has,
in my view, no merit and must fail.
The exhaustion of internal remedies
[36] The court below held that the appellants had available to them an
internal appeal which they had not utilised but were required to exhaust
before applying to review the decision to approve the building plans. It held
that their application had to be dismissed on this basis alone. This duty to
exhaust their internal remedy arose, it found, from s 7(2) of the PAJA (which
refers to „an administrative action in terms of this Act‟) even though it had held
earlier that the decision complained of was not an administrative action for
purposes of the PAJA. In these circumstances the court below could not
logically have applied s 7(2) of the PAJA and ought to have found that the
less stringent common law approach to the exhaustion of internal remedies
applied (which ironically is more compatible with the fundamental right of
access to court than s 7(2) of the PAJA) and that there was no bar to it
33 That the interest concerned does not have to be a right for purposes of s 38(a) of the
Constitution appears clearly from Kruger v President of the Republic of South Africa & others
2009 (1) SA 417 (CC) para 25.
reviewing the decision.34 It should then have reviewed the decision in terms of
the principle of legality and rationality sourced in s 1(c) of the Constitution.
[37] As I have found that the decision was an administrative action for
purposes of the PAJA, it is necessary to address the issue of whether the
appellants had available to them an internal remedy which they ought to have
utilised.
[38] Section 7(2) of the PAJA states:
„(a) Subject to paragraph (c), no court or tribunal shall review an administrative action
in terms of this Act unless any internal remedy provided for in any other law has first
been exhausted.
(b) Subject to paragraph (c), a court or tribunal must, if it is not satisfied that any
internal remedy referred to in paragraph (a) has been exhausted, direct that the
person concerned must first exhaust such remedy before instituting proceedings in a
court or tribunal for judicial review in terms of this Act.
(c) A court or tribunal may, in exceptional circumstances and on application by the
person concerned, exempt such person from the obligation to exhaust any internal
remedy if the court or tribunal deems it in the interest of justice.‟
[39] No application for exemption from the duty to exhaust internal
remedies has been brought by the appellants because their argument is that
no such remedy is available to them and so s 7(2) has no application.
[40] There appear to be only two possible internal remedies. The first is the
internal appeal created by s 62 of the Local Government: Municipal Systems
Act 32 of 2000. This court has held, however, in City of Cape Town v Reader
& others35 that this appeal is only available to an unsuccessful applicant for
planning permission and not to a person who was not party to an application
for planning permission, such as a neighbour. The crux of the reasoning, in
34 See for instance, Bindura Town Management Board v Desai & Co 1953 (1) SA 358 (A);
Welkom Village Management Board v Leteno 1958 (1) SA 490 (A); Golube v Oosthuizen &
another 1955 (3) SA 1 (T); Lawson v Cape Town Municipality 1982 (4) SA 1 (C); Mahlaela v
De Beer NO 1986 (4) SA 782 (T); Maluleke v MEC, Health and Welfare, Northern Province
1999 (4) SA 367 (T). See too Baxter (note 13) at 720-723.
35 City of Cape Town v Reader & others 2009 (1) SA 555 (SCA) paras 30-32.
the majority judgment of Lewis JA, was that, in Walele’s case,36 the
Constitutional Court had held that objectors to the grant of planning
permission (such as the appellants in this case) have no right to take part in
the approval process, although they may subsequently challenge the validity
of the approval after it has been granted, and so a person who was not a
party to the application process cannot appeal against the result.37 Section 62
is not available to the appellants. It is not an internal remedy in their hands for
purposes of s 7(2) of the PAJA.
[41] The second possibility is s 9 of the National Building Regulations and
Building Standards Act. This section provides as follows:
„(1) Any person who –
(a)
feels aggrieved by the refusal of a local authority to grant approval
referred to in section 7 in respect of the erection of a building;
(b)
feels aggrieved by any notice of prohibition referred to in section 10; or
(c)
disputes the interpretation or application by a local authority of any
national building regulation or any other building regulation or by-law,
may, within the period, in the manner and upon payment of the fees prescribed by
regulation, appeal to a review board.‟
[42] Sections 9(1)(a) and (b) are not of application because they apply
expressly to persons who have applied unsuccessfully for approval for the
erection of a building or have been prohibited from either commencing or
continuing with building operations. I turn to consider whether s 9(1)(c) applies
to the appellants.
[43] It appears to me that there are two reasons why s 9(1)(c) does not
apply to the appellants. The first flows from the reasoning in Reader. How can
a person appeal against a decision taken in proceedings in which he or she
was not a party? The essence of an appeal is a rehearing (whether wide or
narrow) by a court or tribunal of second instance.38 Implicit in this is that the
36 Note 14.
37 Para 30.
38 See generally, D R Harms Civil Procedure in the Supreme Court at C1.4. See too Tikly &
others v Johannes NO & others 1963 (2) SA 588 (T) at 590G-591A.
rehearing is at the instance of an unsuccessful participant in a process.
Persons in the position of the appellants cannot be described as unsuccessful
participants in the process at first instance and do not even have the right to
be notified of the decision.
[44] The second reason relates to the subject matter of s 9(1)(c). It affords a
right of appeal in respect of a local authority‟s interpretation or application of
any of three types of legislative instruments: a national building regulation,
any other building regulation and a by-law. A regulation, according to Baxter,
is a legislative instrument „used by all classes of administrative authorities,
including ministers, to complete the details concerning the practical
implementation of the parent legislation, the procedures to be followed and
behaviour to be observed by persons to whom the parent legislation
applies‟.39 A by-law, he says, is a legislative instrument „used most frequently
by municipalities to regulate the conduct of persons falling within their
jurisdiction‟.40 He defines a scheme as a legislative instrument „created by
local authorities for the purpose of town planning‟,41 thus distinguishing a
scheme from a regulation and a by-law.
[45] The appellants challenge the validity of the first respondent‟s relaxation
of the side space and parking requirements of the Howick scheme. If they are
correct, they argue, the approval of the building plans will have to be set
aside. The Howick scheme owes its legal pedigree to the Town Planning
Ordinance (Natal). In terms of s 44(1), a municipality „may, by resolution,
decide to prepare‟ a town planning scheme. In terms of s 44(2), such a
resolution „shall not take effect unless and until it is approved by the
responsible Member of the Executive Council‟(the MEC).
[46] The Ordinance prescribes procedural steps that must be taken before
the scheme can be placed before the MEC. Section 49 provides that before it
is submitted to the MEC „the draft scheme shall be adopted by resolution of
39 Baxter (note 13) at 199.
40 Baxter (note 13) at 199.
41 Baxter (note 13) at 199.
the local authority at a meeting of which special notice indicating the business
to be transacted has been given to each member‟.
[47] Prior to the MEC authorising the scheme he or she must refer it to the
KwaZulu-Natal Planning and Development Commission, for its consideration
and report. The commission must give notice to the public of the application
for the scheme‟s approval.42 Members of the public may file objections or
other representations43 and the application is then set down for a public
hearing, where the municipality, objectors and other interested parties are
heard.44 After the hearing the commission submits to the MEC a copy of the
record of the proceedings, copies of objections and other representations and
a report as well as any recommendations it may wish to make.45
[48] After consideration of the commission‟s report and recommendations,
the MEC may refuse to approve the scheme or he or she may approve it with
or without modifications.46 Finally, when the MEC has approved a scheme he
or she „shall notify such approval by proclamation in the Gazette and such
scheme shall come into operation upon the publication of such proclamation,
and thereafter be referred to as an approved scheme‟.
[49] From this analysis of how a scheme comes into operation, it is
apparent that, although it is a legislative instrument (on account of its general
application), it is not a regulation made by the MEC and it is also not a by-law
passed by the municipality. It is a hybrid form of legislation created by
resolution in the local sphere of government, and approval and promulgation
by proclamation in the provincial sphere of government with a public
participation process sandwiched between the two. It is, consequently, not
one of the types of legislative instruments referred to in s 9(1)(c) of the
National Building Regulations and Building Standards Act. As a result, the
internal appeal created by the section is not available to the appellants. (The
42 Ordinance, s 51.
43 Ordinance, s 52.
44 Ordinance, s 53(1).
45 Ordinance, s 53(3).
46 Ordinance, s 54(1).
same conclusion was reached by Davis J in Van der Westhuizen & others v
Butler & others47 in relation to the equivalent legislation in the Western Cape
Province.)
[50] In the result, the court below‟s conclusion that the appellants‟
application had to be dismissed because they had not, prior to launching it,
exhausted their internal remedies as required by s 7(2) of the PAJA was
erroneous. That being so, the merits of the application to review the approval
of the second respondent‟s building plans can now be considered, the twin
hurdles set up by the PAJA and the standing point having been cleared by the
appellants.
The merits
[51] The validity of the first respondent‟s approval of the second
respondent‟s building plans is challenged on the basis that because the
decision to relax the Howick scheme‟s parking requirement was unreasonable
and its side space requirement was relaxed unlawfully, the approval of the
building plans itself was invalid.
The parking requirement
[52] The first respondent‟s council took a decision to waive compliance with
the requirement that the second respondent was to provide 82 parking bays
on the premises (one parking place for every 23 square metres) on condition
that it contributed R190 000 to a parking fund. It did so in terms of clause
8.5.1 of the Howick scheme, which allows for this in circumstances in which „it
is physically impractical to provide on-site parking without disturbing the
continuity of the shopping frontage, or where the lot is of such proportions that
parking accommodation cannot be reasonably provided‟.
47 Van der Westhuizen & others v Butler & others 2009 (6) SA 174 (C) at 187G-H.
[53] This decision was challenged by the appellants on the basis of its
unreasonableness on account of irrelevant considerations having been taken
into account and it being irrational.
[54] The first respondent‟s council had a report from Simpson, the general
manager: planning and development services, before it when it took the
decision. That report pointed to the empowering provision, clause 8.5.1,
spoke of the impossibility of providing parking in terms of the current design
and pointed to the economic benefits for Howick of the development
proceeding. The council did not take its decision immediately but adjourned to
consider the proposal. It also had the appellants‟ representations before it.
When it took its decision, it did not do so lightly, according to Simpson, who
pointed out that it was taken „after considering input from interested and
affected parties and the fact that the proportions of the site meant that the
parking accommodation could not reasonably be provided‟.
[55] In my view, reliance on clause 8.5.1 was justified and the factors that
were taken into account were relevant to the decision. I see nothing untoward
about a council deciding that, where the objective circumstances are present
to allow it to relax its parking requirements, the nature of the development will
not need much parking to be provided, the development will have positive
economic consequences for the town, that the parking requirement should be
relaxed and the developer be required to contribute to a parking fund that will,
in turn, be used to upgrade parking some 230 metres from the development.
The decision is neither unreasonable for want of irrelevant considerations
having been taken into account nor irrational.
The side space requirement
[56] Simpson explained how the side space requirement was relaxed. He
said that at a fairly early stage in the process various issues were raised with
the second respondent, including the need to apply for the relaxation of the
side space requirement. A few days later he received a letter from the second
respondent‟s architect which attached a letter from the neighbouring land
owner „confirming relaxation of the side building line to zero‟. This meant, he
said, that „the building could be built up to the property line of Erf 848 on the
side adjoining Lot 776‟.
[57] He explained later in his answering affidavit that clause 2.6.3 of the
Howick scheme „authorises the municipality‟ to relax the side space
requirement, that it was relaxed and that because „the municipality‟ had
exercised its discretion a special consent application was not required.
[58] De Jesus pointed out in his replying affidavit that clause 2.6.3 did not
apply on the facts and that Simpson had not said who took the decision but it
had clearly been him and he had no authority to take it. In a supplementary
affidavit, Simpson stated that he had the delegated authority to take such a
decision and he had in fact done so. This brought forth the amended notice of
motion in terms of rule 53(4) which sought the setting aside of Simpson‟s
decision – in the event of it being found that he took the decision – and the
setting aside of the approval of the second respondent‟s building plans.
[59] Despite Simpson‟s coyness, in his answering affidavit, as to how and
by whom the decision was taken, it must be accepted that he took the
decision and that authority to do so had been delegated to him by the
municipal council, along with a vast array of other powers. The validity of that
delegation of power is not challenged and it is not for us to express a view on
the wisdom of a democratically elected and accountable municipal council
delegating powers on such a grand scale to one unelected official. The issue
that we have to decide is whether Simpson could validly have relaxed the side
space requirement in the manner in which he did.
[60] As part of the general restrictions in terms of the Howick scheme,
clause 2.6.1 provides that, subject to qualifications not relevant for present
purposes, „[n]o building shall be erected nearer than 2 metres to any side or
rear boundary of the lot on which it is situated‟. Clause 2.6.3 then provides:
„The local authority may, in its discretion, permit in any zone any building to be
erected closer to any boundary than the distance specified in these clauses if on
account of the siting of existing buildings or the shape, size or levels of the lot, the
enforcement of these controls will, in the opinion of the local authority, render the
development of the lot unreasonably difficult. In considering any application under
this clause the local authority shall have due regard to any possible detrimental effect
on adjoining properties.‟
[61] Part 8 of the scheme deals with commercial zones. After clause 8.3
has set out, in table form, the buildings and uses that are permitted in
commercial zones, clause 8.4 provides for what it terms additional controls.
Clause 8.4.3 deals with the relaxation of the side space requirement. It states:
„The side space requirement may be relaxed by special consent of the local authority
except where it is necessary to provide access to the rear of the building for the
purpose [of] parking and loading accommodation or where such buildings adjoin lots
zoned for residential purposes.‟
[62] Annexure 7 deals with special consent. It says that a local authority
may not consider an application that requires special consent until the
applicant has complied with the various requirements listed in sub-paragraphs
(i) to (x) of the annexure. These include that: the application for special
consent must be in writing „setting out full particulars and reasons, and such
application shall be submitted in duplicate‟; the applicant shall give notice of
the application in a newspaper or newspapers approved by the council; he or
she shall also place a notice „in a prominent position on the property‟; and so
on.
[63] It was argued that clause 2.6.3 and clause 8.4.3 create different
mechanisms for the relaxation of the side space requirement: if the
jurisdictional requirements listed in clause 2.6.3 are present, the side space
requirement can be relaxed without special consent.
[64] I do not agree. Clause 2.6.3 is a general provision while clause 8.4.3
applies specifically to land use controls in commercial zones. In other words,
clause 2.6.3 tells one of the circumstances in which a local authority may
relax the side space requirement, but it says nothing of how this is to be done.
Clause 8.4.3 provides the answer: in commercial zones, the side space
requirement may be relaxed with special consent; and annexure 7 sets out
how that special consent is to be sought.
[65] It is common cause that no special consent was sought or granted.
Simpson took the view that it was not required. In this he misconstrued the
relevant provisions of the scheme and misconstrued the power that had been
delegated to him. He took a decision in the mistaken belief that clause 2.6.3
authorised him to do so. His decision is therefore to be reviewed and set
aside in terms of s 6(2)(a)(i) of the PAJA. It can also be said that, by
purporting to grant the relaxation in the absence of an application for special
consent and compliance with the procedural requirements of annexure 7, he
failed to comply with „a mandatory and material procedure . . . prescribed by
an empowering provision‟. His decision falls to be set aside on this account in
terms of s 6(2)(b) of the PAJA.
The approval of the building plans
[66] I turn now to the approval of the second respondent‟s building plans.
Section 7(1)(a) of the National Building Regulations and Building Standards
Act provides that if a local authority, having considered a recommendation of
the building control officer concerning an application for the approval of
building plans, „is satisfied that the application in question complies with the
requirements of this Act and any other applicable law, it shall grant its
approval in respect thereof‟.
[67] Section 6(1) of the KwaZulu-Natal Planning and Development Act 6 of
2008 states that a town planning scheme „is binding on the municipality, all
other persons and organs of state, except in the event of a conflict with the
provisions of an integrated development plan that was adopted prior to the
scheme or amendment to the scheme‟. This is reinforced by s 56(1) of the
Town Planning Ordinance which says that when an approved scheme comes
into force „the responsible authority shall observe and enforce the observance
of all the provisions of the scheme‟. Section 77 makes it a criminal offence to
fail to comply with a notice directing compliance with a scheme. This means
that the provisions of a scheme fall within the term „any other applicable law‟
in s 7(1)(a).48
[68] In Walele’s case49 Jafta AJ held that s 7(1) requires a decision-maker
to satisfy himself or herself of two things before he or she can validly approve
building plans. They are that „there is compliance with the necessary legal
requirements‟ and that „none of the disqualifying factors in s 7(1)(b)(ii) will be
triggered by the erection of the building concerned‟. The decision-maker‟s
ipse dixit that he or she was satisfied will not suffice. The state of satisfaction
must rest on objectively reasonable grounds50 and it is a reviewable
irregularity for the decision-maker to fail to „properly determine that none of
the disqualifying factors would be triggered‟.51
[69] Heher JA, in True Motives 84 (Pty) Ltd v Mahdi & another,52 set out
how the test is to be applied as follows:
„The refusal of approval under s 7(1)(a) is mandatory not only when the local
authority is satisfied that the plans do not comply with the Act and any other
applicable law, but also when the local authority remains in doubt. The plans may not
be clear enough. For instance, no original ground levels may be shown on the
drawings submitted for approval, with the result that the local authority is uncertain as
to whether a height restriction imposed with respect to original ground levels is
exceeded. In those circumstances the local authority (a) would not be satisfied that
the plans breach the applicable law, but equally (b) would not be satisfied that the
plans are in accordance with the applicable law. The local authority would, therefore,
have to refuse to grant its approval of the plans. Thus, the test imposed by s 7(1)(a)
requires the local authority to be positively satisfied that the parameters of the test
laid down are met.‟
[70] In this case, given the complete absence of an application for special
consent for the relaxation of the side space requirement and no attempt to
48 eThekwini Municipality v Tsogo Sun KwaZulu-Natal (Pty) Ltd 2007 (6) SA 272 (SCA) para
25; Muller NO & others v City of Cape Town 2006 (5) SA 415 (C) para 27.
49 Note 14 para 55.
50 Para 60.
51 Para 63.
52 True Motives 84 (Pty) Ltd v Mahdi & another 2009 (4) SA 153 (SCA) para 19.
comply with the procedural requirements of an application for special consent,
the first respondent could not have been satisfied that the second
respondent‟s application for the approval of its plans complied with the Howick
scheme. Nothing in the record indicates that any enquiries were made in this
regard or that the issue was even considered. That being so, a jurisdictional
fact for the proper exercise of the power was absent and the approval of the
building plans must be set aside on the basis of s 6(2)(b) of the PAJA, in that
„a mandatory and material . . . condition prescribed by an empowering
provision was not complied with‟.
The order
[71] The following order is made.
1 The appeal is upheld with costs.
2 The order of the court below is set aside and replaced with the following
order:
(a) The decision of the general manager: planning and development services
of the first respondent, purportedly taken in terms of clause 2.6.3 of the
Howick town planning scheme, relaxing the side space requirement in respect
of erf 848, Howick is set aside.
(b) The decision of the first respondent‟s council taken on 30 June 2010 to
approve the building plans submitted on behalf of the second respondent for
building work on erf 848, Howick is set aside.
(c) The respondents are directed, jointly and severally, to pay the applicant‟s
costs, including the costs of the application for interim relief.
_______________
C Plasket
Acting Judge of Appeal
HEHER JA:
[72] I have had the privilege of reading the judgment of Plasket AJA. My
consideration of the matter leads me to a different conclusion.
[73] Counsel for the municipality has submitted that it was not open to the
appellants to resort to proceedings for judicial review, whether under PAJA or
the common law, because they possessed no direct interest in the decision of
the council to relax the side space requirement on erf 848,the property of the
second respondent. This is a challenge to their locus standi in these
proceedings. For the reasons that follow I agree with the submission.
[74] In the context of a town planning scheme, the concept of side space is
a land use control usually directed to the protection of the amenities of a
property adjoining the subject property on that side. The amenities would
typically include light, air and spatial factors such as access and private open
space, which often, although not invariably, stand to benefit residential usage
of the adjoining property.
[75] A similar effect can be achieved by providing for set backs of building
lines on street frontages. In such a case aesthetics might be added to the
amenities and a property located opposite the subject property will probably
possess a cognisable interest in the preservation of the building line.
(Depending on factors such as the rights attaching to the subject property, its
location and the nature and importance of the street, protectable interests
may extend to other properties within the area of the scheme.)
[76] The relevant provisions of the scheme relating to side space
Clause 2 of the scheme provides:
„2.6
SIDE AND REAR SPACE
2.6.1 No building shall be erected nearer than 2 metres to any side or rear
boundary of the lot on which it is situated provided that no building or portion of a
building intended to be used for the purpose of a residential building, medium density
housing unit, maisonette, semi-detached house or terraced house shall be erected
nearer than 4,5 metres to any such boundary, and provided the minimum side or rear
space, as the case may be, shall be increased by 1,5 metres for the full height of the
building for every storey above three storeys of the building.
2.6.2 The local authority may authorise the erection of single storey outbuildings on
the side and rear boundaries provided the owners of properties contiguous to the
affected boundaries have indicated in writing that they would have no objection to
such authorization.
2.6.3 The local authority may, in its discretion, permit in any zone any building to be
erected closer to any boundary than the distance specified in these clauses if on
account of the siting of existing buildings or the shape, size or levels of the lot, the
enforcement of these controls will, in the opinion of the local authority, render the
development of the lot unreasonably difficult. In considering any application under
this clause the local authority shall have due regard to any possible detrimental effect
on adjoining properties.
2.6.4 Where access to parking courts is required, the side space of affected lots
shall be calculated from the boundaries of such access road.‟
[77] It is significant that in the exercise of the general discretion conferred
on the council (by clause 2.6.3) to permit relaxation of building lines, the
council is obliged to have regard to the possible detrimental effect on
adjoining properties but is not required to have the same regard to the effect
on neighbouring properties (such as the first appellant‟s properties are in
relation to erf 848).
[78] Clause 2.6 contains general provisions applicable throughout the
scheme which in accordance with the maxim generalia specialibus non
derogant must be read subject to provisions dealing with the same subject
matter in relation to a particular case: R v Gwantshu 1931 EDL 31.
[79] In this last-mentioned regard special provisions govern the relaxation of
side space in commercial zones. This appeal concerns such a case since erf
848 (the subject property) is zoned General Commercial. However, in such a
zone „the building line shall be the street line‟ (clause 8.4.1). Thus, unlike
property adjacent to a side space, an erf located directly across the street (as
are the first appellant‟s erven 11 and 12) does not enjoy the benefit of set
back on the property opposite (erf 848).
[80] In relation to an application for special consent for the relaxation of side
space in a commercial zone the local authority may not grant such consent if
a building adjoins a lot zoned for residential purposes (clause 8.4.3).53 A
property that is zoned for residential purposes but does not adjoin the
53 The zoning of erf 776 permits, as a primary use, „residential buildings, except on the
ground floor‟. It was not contended by the appellants that erf 776 was, therefore, „zoned for
residential purposes‟.
property on which the side space is sought to be relaxed does not obtain a
similar protection if it is a neighbouring property even when simply separated
by a road from the property on which the side space is located.
[81] In the absence of some particular circumstance – for which no case is
made by the appellant – I see no reason to infer that a side space limitation
on a property within a commercial zoning is, in the context of the scheme in
question, intended to operate for the benefit of a neighbouring property also
zoned commercial, but not located adjacent to the side space which is the
subject of the limitation. The fact that both properties are sited in a
commercial zone is meaningless unless the restricting provision also has a
material bearing on both.
The locus standi of the first appellant
[82] The authorities cited by Eloff JP in Prinsloo & Viljoen Eiendomme
(Edms) Bpk v Morfou 1993 (1) SA 668 (T) at 670H-I bear out the conclusion
of the learned judge that where the owner of a property situated in the area of
a scheme attempts, solely on the strength of the scheme to restrain the owner
of another property in the same area from putting it to a use prohibited by the
scheme, the test is whether the restrictions on the use sought to be enforced
were enacted in the interests of a property owner in the position of the
applicant or whether the applicant has suffered loss or damage by reason of
the breach of the restriction.
[83] The full court in Prinsloo & Viljoen Eiendomme was required to
consider the locus standi of the owner of a stand in Kriel. The township was
the subject of a town planning scheme. The owner applied to interdict the use
of a building on a property in the same township which was zoned „special‟ for
the purpose of a hotel but upon which the business of a liquor store was being
conducted. The full court held that the owner had no locus standi to enforce
the particular provision of the scheme that limited the use of the property to
that of a hotel. Eloff JP said:
„It appears generally to have been accepted in the cases dealing with the point under
discussion that the test to be applied is that laid down in Patz v Greene & Co 1907
TS 427 at 433,subject to the gloss added in Roodepoort-Maraisburg Town Council v
Eastern Properties (Pty) Ltd 1933 AD 87 at 96,namely whether the restrictions on
use sought to be enforced were enacted in the interest of property owners in the
position of the applicants or whether the applicants have suffered loss or damage by
reason of the breaches of the restrictions (see CD of Birnam (Suburban) (Pty) Ltd
and Others v Falcon Investments Ltd 1973 (3) SA 838 (W) at 844D-H; BEF (Pty) Ltd
v Cape Town Municipality and Others 1983 (2) SA 387 (C) at 400D-H; and Randleigh
Buildings (Pty) Ltd v Friedman 1963 (3) SA 456 (D) at 458E-H).
It will be recalled that I found that the respondent made no averment of any
loss or damage to his own property by reason of the construction by the appellant of
its bottle store. The simple question remains whether respondent has shown that the
restriction on land created relative to stand I was enacted in the interest of property
owners such as the respondent. In each of the cases quoted to us in which it was
held that an owner of land subject to a town planning scheme may enforce any of its
terms applicable to another property, it was found that the nature of the conditions
and circumstances of the case showed that the condition and question was made in
the interest of persons such as the applicants. In the CD of Birnam case supra the
applicants were associated property development companies owning land in the
vicinity of the respondent‟s property (see at 840D). Their properties and that of the
respondent all fell within one and the same special residential use zone (see at
842A). In breach of the restrictions applicable to it,the respondent set up a quarrying
business on its property which was likely to affect the enjoyment by the applicants of
their properties adversely. On those facts Margo J held that the applicant had locus
standi. In the Randleigh Buildings case Warner AJ was concerned with restrictions
laid down in “residential areas”, where an owner of land in those areas sought to
restrict another from using it otherwise than for residential purposes. At 459A the
Court concluded:
“In the present case it seems to me that in preparing the scheme the Amanzimtoti
Town Council must have had in mind the interests of land owners in the area set
aside for residential purposes and consequently those owners have locus standi to
enforce that particular provision.”
In the BEF case supra the parties owned adjoining sites. Their properties were
subject to a town planning scheme which provided inter alia for open spaces. The
applicant in effect tried to enforce compliance with the scheme. After quoting the Patz
v Greene & Co case, Grosskopf J said (at 401B-F):
“The purposes to be pursued in the preparation of a scheme suggest to me that a
scheme is intended to operate, not in the general public interest, but in the interest of
the inhabitants of the area covered by the scheme, or at any rate those inhabitants
who would be affected by a particular provision.54 And by „affected‟ I do not mean
damnified in a financial sense. „Health, safety, order, amenity, convenience and
general welfare‟ are not usually measurable in financial terms. Buildings which do not
comply with the scheme may have no financial effect on neighbouring properties, or
may even enhance their value, but may nevertheless detract from the amenity of the
neighbourhood and, if allowed to proliferate, may change the whole character of the
area. This is, of course, a purely subjective judgment, but in my view this is the type
of value which the ordinance, and schemes created thereunder, are designed to
promote and protect. In my view a person is entitled to take up the attitude that he
lives in a particular area in which the scheme provides certain amenities which he
would like to see maintained. I also consider that he may take appropriate legal steps
to ensure that nobody diminishes those amenities unlawfully. I would not like to
assert dogmatically that such a remedy would be available to all persons living in the
area covered by a scheme as large as that of Cape Town. In the present case,
however, the applicant is an immediate neighbour to the property on which the non-
conforming garage was built.‟
I think it would be useful to deal further with the question posed by Grosskopf
J, whether any owner of a land covered by the Cape Town Town Planning Scheme
could enforce any condition applicable to any property in so large an area. I
respectfully venture to suggest that it depends on the circumstances and the nature
of the condition or restriction. There may be circumstances in which the particular
town planning scheme covers a large area with a variety of uses and restrictions and
that it is inconceivable that an owner in, say, the southern part of the area may
enforce a condition of a parochial nature applicable to the northern part of the
scheme. . . .
I do not think that the respondent has come near to showing that the
restriction on land which was imposed on the appellant‟s property was made in the
interests of properties such as his.‟
[84] I respectfully agree with the approach taken by the learned judge. A
town planning scheme frequently operates over areas markedly different in
location and intrinsic characteristics. It necessarily ranges over different uses
and land use controls many of which cannot be said to affect the overall
operation of the scheme. Not every control is of even indirect benefit to all
land in the scheme or all owners. The whole scheme is no doubt promulgated
in the general public interest of all owners of land in the area of the scheme in
54 The emphasis is mine.
the undefined senses of harmonious development, health, order, general
welfare etc which are the underlying purposes of such schemes. Such owners
may be regarded as a „class‟ within the public as that term is used in the
authorities. But the particular or direct interest of any owner in any provision of
the scheme must depend upon the reach of that provision in the context of the
scheme, and the nature of the adverse effects, if any, resulting from a breach
of the provision. Mere proximity without regard to the substance of the
restriction cannot be a sufficient determinant.
[85] In its application to the court a quo the present first appellant did not
allege, or set out any grounds upon which it can be found, that the side space
provision in question operates for the benefit of its property; indeed, as I have
attempted to show, such an inference runs counter to the context of the side
space provisions in the scheme. In clauses 8.4.3 and 2.6.3 it is not propinquity
which is important, but rather the adjacent location of the side space to a
residential erf. The first appellant also made no averment of actual or potential
loss or damage to its property by reason of the relaxation of the provision
(even in the wider sense ascribed to the concept of „adverse effects‟ by
Grosskopf J in BEF (Pty) Ltd v Cape Town Municipality 1983 (2) SA 387 (C)
at 401B-F). Neither the nature of the condition nor the circumstances of the
case conduce to a finding that the appellant‟s property benefits by the
maintenance of the side space restriction on the first respondent‟s erf or
suffers by its relaxation.
[86] I conclude as a result that the first appellant possessed no cognisable
legal interest in such illegality as the second respondent may have
perpetrated in relation to the relaxation of the side space condition on erf 848
and that the first appellant accordingly obtained no locus standi to impugn its
decision. The second appellant is merely the operator of the Spar
supermarket on the properties of the first appellant and can have no better
rights than the first appellant has.
[87] Although it is unnecessary to decide the question finally, if my
conclusion that only the owner of the adjoining erf 776 has a direct interest in
the maintenance and enforcement of the side space provision is correct, that
conclusion leads logically to a finding that the council‟s failure to follow the
procedures for special consent in Annexure 7 was not unlawful. This is
because the only person with an interest had furnished his consent for the
relaxation before the council made its decision. Public advertisement and the
opportunity to object, for which Annexure 7 provides, were therefore
superfluous and unnecessary.
[88] Having, for the reasons explained by Plasket AJA, failed to prove a
sustainable ground of review in relation to the parking provision over erf 848,
the appellants should have been non-suited.
[89] I would dismiss the appeal with costs.
_________________
J A HEHER
JUDGE OF APPEAL
THERON JA
[90] I have had the benefit of reading the judgments prepared by Plasket
AJA and Heher JA. I agree with both Plasket AJA and Heher JA that the
appellants have failed to prove any grounds upon which this court can set
aside the first respondent‟s decision to waive compliance with the parking
requirement. I agree with Heher JA that the appellants do not have standing
to challenge first respondent‟s decision regarding the side space requirement.
I would add the following brief comments.
[91] That Heher JA is correct is underscored by the fact that the appellants
did not seek an order that the building be demolished. The relief initially
sought by the appellants in respect of the side space requirement was that the
second respondent be ordered to demolish so much of the building that is
situated closer than two metres to the rear or side boundaries of the property.
It is so that the second respondent has undertaken „to restore the property or
alter it in accordance with any alteration of the … approvals on review‟. This
court has not given any directions as to the restoration or alteration of the
building. The abandonment of any relief against the second respondent raises
the question about the purpose of this appeal and might have rendered the
entire process academic.55
[92] The decision of the first respondent is an administrative act, which, until
set aside by a court in review proceedings, exists in fact and is capable of
having legally valid consequences.56 One of the consequences thereof is that
it gave the second respondent the right to proceed with building operations in
terms of the approved building plans, including the parking and side space
relaxations. The second respondent acted within the law and in accordance
with its rights, and within the terms of what it perceived to be a valid decision
taken by the first respondent. The administrative decision that the appellants
now seek to review and set aside have already been acted upon by the
second respondent.57 For as long as the decision of the first respondent
stood, the second respondent, in continuing with the building operations, was
acting lawfully.58 In my view, and having regard to the factual context in which
the decision was made, it would be unjust to grant the relief sought.
[93] I would dismiss the appeal, with costs.
_____________
L THERON
JUDGE OF APPEAL
55 West Coast Rock Lobster Association & others v Minister of Environmental Affairs and
Tourism & others [2011] 1 All SA 487 (SCA) para 45. Radio Pretoria v Chairman,
Independent Communications Authority of South Africa & another 2005 (1) SA 47 (SCA).
55 Oudekraal Estates (Pty) Ltd v City of Cape Town & Others 2004 (6) SA 222 (SCA) para
26.
55 Millennium Waste Management (Pty) Ltd v Chairperson, Tender Board: Limpopo Province
& others 2008 (2) SA 481 (SCA) para 23; Camps Bay Ratepayers and Residents Association
v Harrison [2010] 2 All SA 519 (SCA) para 59.
55 Heritage Hill Home Owners Association v Shoprite Checkers (Pty) Ltd & others [2012]
ZASCA 65 para 26.
APPEARANCES:
For appellant :
A Rall SC
Instructed by:
Christopher Richard Lee Attorney, Howick;
McIntyre & Van der Post, Bloemfontein
For the first respondent: R M van Rooyen
Instructed by:
PKX Incorporated, Pietermaritzburg;
Lovius Block, Bloemfontein
For the second respondent: A J Dickson SC
Instructed by:
Jasat & Jasat, Pietermaritzburg;
Lovius Block, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
29 November 2012
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not
form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
* * *
JDJ PROPERTIES V UMNGENI LOCAL MUNICIPALITY
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) today held that the decisions of the Umngeni Local
Municipality (the municipality) to relax the side space requirement of the Howick Town
Planning Scheme (the scheme) and to approve the building plans in favour of Triumph
Brokers (Pty) Ltd were unlawful. It upheld an appeal against an order of the KwaZulu-
Natal High Court dismissing a review application by JDJ Properties CC (the first appellant)
and Double Diamond CC (the second appellant).
The municipality had sold a certain immovable property to Triumph Brokers on which the
latter intended to build a shopping complex and lease it to Basfour 3281 (Pty) Ltd.
Subsequent to the sale agreement, the council approved Triumph Brokers’ building plans
and the general manager: planning and development services relaxed the side space
requirement of the scheme. The first and second appellants, who were the owner and lessee
of a property adjacent to Triumph Brokers’ property respectively, instituted an application
in the high court in terms of the provisions of the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act
3 of 2000 (the PAJA) to review and set aside the decisions. The bases for the order sought
were that the side space requirement was relaxed unlawfully and that the approval of the
building plans itself was invalid.
The high court had dismissed the application on the basis that the decision to approve the
building plans did not constitute administrative action as it did not adversely affect the
appellants’ rights and did not have a direct, external legal effect as required by the PAJA,
and that the appellants had failed to exhaust internal remedies available to them. The
appellants then appealed to the SCA against that order.
Before the SCA there were four questions. The first was whether the decision to approve
the building plans constituted administrative action. The court, with reference to the facts,
held that the decision had the capacity to affect the rights of the appellants and others living
and doing business in the area concerned, and would directly impact on them. The court
further held that the appellants, being the landowner and lessee respectively in the
immediate vicinity of the development, had the right to enforce compliance with the
scheme. Even if the decision did not constitute administrative action, the court said, it was
reviewable under the principle of legality. The second question was whether the appellants
had legal standing to challenge the decision. The SCA held that the scheme operated in the
interest of the appellants and that their right to enforce compliance therewith gave them
standing. The third question was whether the appellants had failed to exhaust internal
remedies. The SCA stated there were two possible remedies but held that the appellants
could not enforce those remedies as they were not available to them. The fourth question
related to the merits and in that respect the SCA made the order referred to above. In
making that order, the SCA held that Triumph Brokers had failed to seek special consent as
required by the scheme before the decision to relax the side space requirement was made
and that the decision maker had misconstrued the power delegated to him. With regard to
the decision to approve the building plans, the court held that a jurisdictional fact for the
proper exercise of the power, namely compliance with the scheme by Triumph Brokers’
application, was absent. The decisions, the SCA held, had to be set aside. |
230 | non-electoral | 2018 | `
THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 231/2017
In the matter between:
SENTE JOSEPH THAKELI FIRST APPELLANT
SAMUEL ZAMBUK MARUMO
SECOND APPELLANT
and
THE STATE RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Thakeli v S (231/2017) [2018] ZASCA 47 (28 March 2018)
Coram:
Lewis, Seriti, Saldulker and Van der Merwe JJA and
Makgoka AJA
Heard:
15 February 2018
Delivered:
28 March 2018
Summary: Criminal Law: appellants indicted for murder – charge sheet
referred to s 51(2) of the Criminal Law Amendment Act 105 of 1997 (the Act) –
trial court amended charge sheet, after appellants testified in their defence, by
deleting subsection (2), in terms of s 86 of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of
1977 – no opportunity afforded to appellants to address the court in respect of
amendment – appellants convicted and sentenced by the trial court in terms of
s 51(1) of the Act – sentence set aside – appellants ultimately sentenced to 15
years' imprisonment in terms of s 51(2) of the Act.
_____________________________________________________________
ORDER
______________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Free State Division of the High Court, Bloemfontein
(Mocumie J and Chesiwe AJ sitting as court of appeal):
1 The appeal against the sentence imposed on both appellants is upheld.
2 The sentence imposed by the trial court on the appellants is set aside and
substituted as follows:
‘Accused 1 and accused 4 are each sentenced to 15 years' imprisonment.'
______________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
______________________________________________________________
Saldulker JA (Lewis, Seriti and Van der Merwe JJA and Makgoka AJA
concurring):
[1] The appellants, Mr Sente Joseph Thakeli (first appellant) and Mr
Samuel Zambuk Marumo (second appellant), were indicted in the regional
court, Welkom, on a charge of murder, subject to the provisions of s 51(2) of
the Criminal Law Amendment Act 105 of 1997. Both appellants were convicted
on 23 August 2011 on the murder count and sentenced to 28 years'
imprisonment in terms of s 51(1) of the Act, and declared unfit to possess a
firearm. Their application for leave to appeal against conviction and sentence
in the regional court was unsuccessful. However, leave to appeal was granted
on petition against their conviction and sentence to the full bench of the Free
State High Court. On 23 March 2016, their appeal against both conviction and
entence was dismissed by the court a quo (Chesiwe AJ, Mocumie J
(concurring)). This appeal, against sentence only, is with special leave of this
court.
[2] The crisp issue is whether the trial court misdirected itself by amending
the charge sheet after the appellants had pleaded and testified to a charge of
murder read with the provisions of s 51(2) of the Act, and then convicted them
in terms s 51(1), thereby increasing the sentence faced by the appellants.
[3] Section 51(1) of the Act, read with Part 1 of Schedule 2, requires the
imposition of a minimum sentence of life imprisonment for murder when it is
planned or premeditated, unless there are substantial and compelling factors
that justify the imposition of a lesser sentence. In terms of s 51(2) of the Act,
read with Part II of Schedule 2, the minimum sentence to be imposed for
murder on a first offender following a conviction is 15 years’ imprisonment
unless there are substantial and compelling circumstances. I turn to consider
briefly the facts giving rise to the appeal.
[4] At the commencement of the trial in the regional court, the appellants
pleaded not guilty and tendered no plea explanation. Several witnesses
testified for the State and identified the appellants as the attackers who
confronted the unarmed deceased at his home, brutally stabbing him with a
pitchfork and knives. As a result of this attack the deceased succumbed to his
injuries. The appellants denied being involved in the deceased’s murder. At the
close of the defences’ case an application to re-open the State’s case was
allowed. Thereafter two witnesses called by the trial court testified. At the end
of their testimony the trial court amended the charge sheet in terms of s 86(4)
of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977, by deleting subsection (2) of s 51 of
the Act, stating that the amendment would not prejudice the appellants. The
charge was then vague – reference must be made to one of the two
subsections so that there is clarity as to which sentence is to be imposed.
[5] Thereafter the trial court convicted the appellants of murder in terms of
s 51(1) read with Part 1 of Schedule 2, on the basis of the amended charge
sheet, carrying with it the sentence of life imprisonment. However, the trial
court found that there were substantial and compelling circumstances justifying
a departure from the prescribed minimum sentence of life imprisonment and
sentenced the appellants to 28 years' imprisonment each. On appeal the court
a quo held that the amendment effected by the trial court was akin to curing a
‘typing error’ which did not go to the substance of the charge nor the
sentencing regime.
[6] This court has held in numerous decisions that an accused person must
be apprised from the outset what charge he or she has to meet, so that he or
she not only appreciates properly and in good time what the charges are that
he or she is facing but also the consequences. In S v Makatu,1 Lewis JA put it
succinctly:2
‘. . . [A]n accused faced with life imprisonment – the most serious sentence that can
be imposed – must from the outset know what the implications and consequences of
the charge are. Such knowledge inevitably dictates decisions made by an accused,
such as whether to conduct his or her own defence; whether to apply for legal aid;
whether to testify; what witnesses to call and any other factor that may affect his or
her right to a fair trial. If during the course of a trial the State wishes to amend the
indictment it may apply to do so, subject to the usual rules in relation to prejudice.'
See also S v Ndlovu 2003 (1) SACR 331 (SCA).3
[7] The effect of the amendment of the charge sheet brought about by the
magistrate was to expose the appellants to the prescribed minimum sentence
of life imprisonment as opposed to a prescribed minimum sentence of 15
years' imprisonment. This was done after all the evidence had been led and
without affording the appellants any opportunity to address the court on the
question of prejudice, and whether the amendment should be effected. The
failure to afford the appellants a full and proper opportunity to address this
question, in my view constituted a fundamental irregularity that infringed the
fair trial rights of the appellants, and destroyed the validity of the amendment. It
follows that it is not possible to say with certainty that the appellants suffered
1 S v Makatu 2006 (2) SACR 582 (SCA); [2007] All SA 470 (SCA).
2 Paragraph 7.
3 Mpati JA in S v Ndlovu 2003 (1) SACR 331 (SCA), stated at para 12 that ‘… it is implicit in
these observations that where the State intends to rely upon the sentencing regime created by
the Act a fair trial will generally demand that its intention be pertinently bought to the attention
of the accused at the outset of the trial, if not in the charge sheet then in some other form, so
that the accused is placed in a position to properly appreciate in good time the charge that he
faces as well as its possible consequences. Whether, or in what circumstances, it might suffice
if it is brought to the attention of the accused only during the course of the trial is not necessary
to decide in the present case. It is sufficient to say that what will at least be required is that the
accused be given sufficient notice of the State’s intention to enable him to conduct his defence
properly’.
no prejudice as a result of the amendment and that they should have been
sentenced in terms of s 51(2) of the Act. Had the appellants known that they
were being charged with murder that was premeditated, or that they had a
common purpose in killing the deceased, they may well have conducted their
defence differently.
[8] This matter is thus to be distinguished from those in which it was held
that an irregularity did not vitiate the proceedings, such as S v Kolea,4 where it
was found that the accused had known at the outset what charges they faced.
For these reasons the court a quo erred in dismissing the appeal.
[9] Accordingly, the appeal against sentence must succeed. Consequently
the appellants ought to have been sentenced to 15 years’ imprisonment in
terms of s 51(2) unless there were substantial and compelling factors justifying
a deviation. I turn to consider whether there are any. The personal
circumstances of both appellants are similar. Both are young, first offenders
and have spent at least two and half years incarcerated. These factors are to
be taken into account in determining whether a sentence of 15 years is
appropriate. The court must also take into account the aggravating factors
which are significant. The deceased died of eight stab wounds, four of which
penetrated the heart and the chest. This was a vicious and cruel attack
perpetrated with knives and a garden fork on an unarmed man: that it was a
heinous attack is apparent from the nature of the injuries and wounds.
Cumulatively the aggravating factors far outweigh the mitigating factors. There
is nothing exceptional about the personal circumstances of either of the
appellants. In S v Vilakazi 2009 (1) SACR 552 (SCA) para 58, Nugent JA
stated as follows: ‘[i]n cases of serious crime the personal circumstances of the
offender, by themselves will necessarily recede into the background'. In my
view, taking into account all of these factors, there are no substantial and
compelling circumstances present justifying a deviation from the prescribed
sentence of 15 years' imprisonment. It is a salutary sentence in the
circumstances of this case for both appellants.
4 S v Kolea [2012] ZASCA 199; 2013 (1) SACR 409 (SCA).
[9] Accordingly, the appeal is upheld. The following order is made:
1 The appeal against the sentence imposed on both appellants is upheld.
2 The sentence imposed by the trial court on the appellants is set aside and
substituted as follows:
‘Accused 1 and accused 4 are each sentenced to 15 years' imprisonment.'
______________________
H K Saldulker
Judge of Appeal
APPEARANCES:
For the Appellant:
S Kruger
Instructed by:
Bloemfontein Justice Centre
For the Respondent:
E Liebenberg
Instructed by:
Director of Public Prosecutions, Bloemfontein | SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
28 March 2018
STATUS
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not form
part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
Thakeli v S (231/2017) [2018] ZASCA 47 (28 March 2018)
___________________________________________________________________________
The SCA today set aside a decision of the Free State Division of the High Court and upheld the
appeal against sentence imposed on the appellants. Both were indicted in the regional court, Welkom
on a charge of murder, subject to the provisions of s 51(2) of the Criminal Law Amendment Act 105 of
1997(the Act) and convicted on the murder count and sentenced to 28 years' imprisonment in terms
of s 51(1) of the Act, and declared unfit to possess a firearm.
At the close of the defences’ case an application to re-open the State’s case was allowed. Thereafter
two witnesses called by the trial court testified. At the end of their testimony the trial court amended
the charge sheet in terms of s 86(4) of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977, by deleting subsection
(2) of s 51 of the Act, and stating that the amendment would not prejudice the appellants. Thereafter
the appellants were convicted of murder in terms of s51(1) read with Part 1 of Schedule 2 on the
basis of the amended charge sheet and sentenced to 28 years’ imprisonment.
The SCA held that the effect of the amendment of the charge sheet was to expose the appellants to
life imprisonment as opposed to the prescribed sentence of 15 years’ imprisonment. This was done
after all the evidence had been led and without affording the appellants an opportunity to address the
court on the question of prejudice, and whether the amendment should be effected. The SCA held
that an accused person must be apprised from the outset what charge he or she had to meet, so that
he or she not only appreciated properly and in good time what the charges were that he or she was
facing but also the consequences.
The SCA held that the failure to afford the appellants a full and proper opportunity to address the
question of prejudice, and whether the amendment should be effected, constituted a fundamental
irregularity that infringed the fair trial rights of the appellants, and destroyed the validity of the
amendment. Had the appellants known that they were being charged with murder that was
premeditated, or that they had a common purpose in killing the deceased, they may well have
conducted their defence differently. This matter was thus to be distinguished from those in which it
was held that an irregularity did not vitiate the proceedings. The SCA held that the appellants should
have been sentenced in terms of s 51(2) of the Act. The SCA held further, that cumulatively the
aggravating factors far outweighed the mitigating factors. There were no substantial and compelling
circumstances justifying a deviation from the prescribed sentence of 15 years’ imprisonment. Both the
appellants were sentenced to 15 years imprisonment in terms of s 51(2) of the Act. |
3082 | non-electoral | 2015 | `
THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Not Reportable
Case No: 459/15
In the matter between:
AVHAPFANI DANIEL KHAVHADI
FIRST APPELLANT
RUDZANI ELISAH SIGOVHO
SECOND APPELLANT
MASHUDU JOYCE MUDAU
THIRD
APPELLANT
and
THE STATE
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation: Khavhadi v S (459/15) [2015] ZASCA 191 (30 November 2015)
Coram:
Navsa, Lewis, Pillay, Mbha and Zondi JJA
Heard:
20 November 2015
Delivered:
30 November 2015
Summary:
Criminal law – evidence of death of deceased lacking – single
witness not credible and satisfactory – conviction overturned.
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from Limpopo Local Division of the High Court, Thohoyandou (Makgoba
AJ sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal is upheld and the appellants’ convictions and related sentences are set aside.
JUDGMENT
Zondi JA (Navsa, Lewis, Pillay and Mbha JJA concurring):
[1] The three appellants were convicted in the Limpopo Local Division of the High
Court, Thohoyandou (Makgoba AJ) of the murder of four-year old Tshilelo Sigovho
(Tshilelo). They were each sentenced to a period of life imprisonment. They appeal
against their convictions. The first and third appellants were granted leave to appeal by
this court. The second appellant was granted leave to appeal by the court below.
Tshilelo is the daughter of the second appellant, Rudzani Elisah Sigovho (Rudzani).
[2] In a nutshell, the State’s case, in the court below, was that after Tshilelo had been
left in the care of a friend and neighbour, namely, the principal witness on behalf of the
State, Ms Azwinndini Alice Maphosa (Maphosa), Rudzani arrived during the night of 14
September 1999 together with the other two appellants and took her daughter away in
order to present her as a sacrifice in a ritual murder to appease the gods Rudzani
believed in. It was alleged that Tshilelo had to be killed in order to harvest her body-
parts for presentation to the gods as part of the appeasement process. It is common
cause that Rudzani was in training to become a traditional healer. It is also undisputed
that the third appellant was a traditional healer and was training the second appellant to
be one as well.
[3] Rudzani and the other appellants were charged with the murder of Tshilelo after
the latter’s disappearance and after the release of two other suspects, which included
Maphosa. The deduction that the appellants had conspired to kill Tshilelo in order to
harvest her body-parts to appease the gods was based on Maphosa’s assertion that the
first appellant, Avhapfani Daniel Khavhadi (Khavadi), who is also her common-law
husband, had told her, on the night prior to Tshilelo being spirited away, that Rudzani’s
gods required human body-parts in order to be appeased.
[4] There was no witness to the murder that had allegedly been committed by the
three appellants. Approximately a week after Tshilelo’s disappearance, skeletal remains
were found in the vicinity of where she and her mother resided. At the commencement
of proceedings in the court below a post-mortem report was admitted by consent of the
appellants. They also appear to have admitted that the skeletal remains were that of
Tshilelo. It is necessary to record that all that was found was a skull and six ribs.
[5] The doctor who completed the post-mortem report, recorded that the child had
been found on 14 September 1999. That date is at odds with the evidence of a
policeman tendered in support of the State’s case that he had been to the place where
the remains had been found on 22 September 1999. From the photographs of the skeletal
remains it appears, at least superficially, that the body had been in a prolonged and
advanced stage of decomposition. The post-mortem report records that the sex of the
person whose remains were found was undetermined but that it was ‘probably male’.
This conclusion was based on the doctor’s observations of the clothing that had been
found with the skeletal remains. The time of death was estimated by the doctor to be
‘four weeks or longer’ prior to the date on which the post-mortem examination was
conducted. From the skeletal remains it was deduced that it was the remains of a child
who had been between four and seven-years old. The cause of death was
‘undetermined’. DNA testing, which would have been conclusive as to the sex of the
child, was not conducted.
[6] In light of the very unsatisfactory conclusions recorded in the post-mortem report,
the admission about the identity of the deceased person whose skeletal remains were
found is difficult to comprehend.
[7] The very first problem for the State is that in order to sustain a conviction for
murder it had to prove that the person the appellants are accused of having murdered
had in fact been killed. Even in the face of the apparently uninformed admissions made
by the appellants there must be grave doubt about whether the death of Tshilelo had
been proved. Put differently, there has to be substantial doubt about whether the skeletal
remains were those of Tshilelo. An essential element of the crime of murder would thus
not have been proved.1
[8] Even if the State were somehow to overcome the very fundamental hurdle
referred to in the preceding paragraph, the further difficulty it faces is that the evidence
of Maphosa, who was the only person who implicated the three appellants, was wholly
unreliable.
[9] It is common cause that at a stage when the community was first made aware of
Tshilelo’s disappearance and when Rudzani, at least superficially, appeared frantic and
sought the assistance of a traditional healer and arranged for community leaders to
conduct a search of the area, Maphosa went along with her and supported those efforts.
It was only when community suspicion fell on Maphosa that she publicly accused
Rudzani of being involved in Tshilelo’s disappearance. Her evidence in this regard is
noteworthy:
‘As people had gathered at my kraal I realised that there was a number of school children and anything
can happen. It is then that I told this group of people that people are just wasting time by searching my
kraal because the child was taken from my kraal by accused 1 and 2.’
It is clear from this testimony that fear for her own safety prompted the accusations she
levelled at two of the appellants. At that stage there was no mention of the third
appellant. It must also be borne in mind that she was among the first suspects to be
arrested and must have been keen to avoid being prosecuted.
[10] Furthermore, a person who was also taken into custody at about the same time
that Maphosa was arrested as a suspect, Mr Sonnyboy Netshitungulu, testified that he
had seen Tshilelo crying on the night on which she was allegedly spirited away by the
three appellants, saying that she was on her way to Maphosa’s house and that he then
saw her make her way in that direction. Netshitungulu testified in support of the State’s
case. However, his testimony, far from incriminating the appellants, casts a shadow of
suspicion on Maphosa.
[11] The court below, even though reminding itself that it was dealing with the
evidence of a single witness in the form of Maphosa and that it should be cautious in its
approach, did not consider the negative aspects referred to in the preceding two
paragraphs. There is no formula to apply when it comes to the consideration of the
credibility of a single witness. It is, however, a well-established judicial practice that the
evidence of a single witness should be approached with caution, and his or her merits
and demerits as a witness should be weighed against factors which militate against his
1 See C R Snyman Criminal Law, 5 ed (2008) at 447 et seq.
or her credibility.2
[12] The court below erred in unreservedly accepting the evidence of Maphosa. She
was far from a satisfactory witness. It is clear that the State failed to prove the
appellants’ guilt beyond a reasonable doubt. For the reasons set out above the
convictions and sentences are liable to be set aside.
[13] The appeal is upheld and the appellants’ convictions and related sentences are set
aside.
_________________
D H Zondi
Judge of Appeal
2 See E Du Toit et al Commentary on the Criminal Procedure Act, Service Issue 54 January 2015, at 24-1 to 24-2C
where the learned authors comment on section 208 of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 which provides that a
conviction may follow on the evidence of a single witness and see the authorities there cited.
Appearances
For the Appellant:
A L Thomu (Attorney)
Instructed by:
Thohoyandou Justice Centre, Thohoyandou
c/o Bloemfontein Justice Centre , Bloemfontein
For the Respondent:
R J Makhera
Instructed by:
Director of Public Prosecutions, Thohoyandou
Director of Public Prosecutions, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
30 November 2015
Status:
Immediate
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not form part of the
judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
Khavhadi & others v The State (459/15) [2015] ZASCA 191 (30 November 2015)
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld an appeal from the Limpopo Local Division of the High
Court, Thohoyandou and set aside the convictions and sentences of life imprisonment imposed on each of the
three appellants.
The issue before the SCA was whether the evidence on which the appellants were convicted was sufficient.
The appellants were charged with murder of a four year old child who disappeared on 14 September 1999. The
State’s case was that after the child had been left in the care of her mother’s friend and neighbour, the main
State witness, Ms Alice Maphosa, the second appellant arrived during the night of 14 September 1999, together
with the other two appellants and took her away in order to present her as a sacrifice in a ritual murder to
appease the gods the second appellant believed in. It was alleged that the child had to be killed in order to
harvest her body parts for presentation to the gods as part of the appeasement process. The second appellant was
in training to become a traditional healer and the third appellant was a traditional healer and was training the
second appellant to be one as well.
The post-mortem examination conducted on the skeletal remains – consisting of a skull and six ribs - which
were found in the vicinity of where the child and the second appellant resided could not establish the cause of
death and the sex of the victim. No DNA testing was conducted. There was a substantial doubt about whether
the skeletal remains were those of the child. An essential element of the crime of murder was thus not proved.
Maphosa who mentioned the appellants and suspects was wholly unreliable. The fear for her own safety
prompted the accusations she levelled at the two of the appellants.
The SCA held that the court below erred in unreservedly accepting the evidence of Maphosa. She was far from a
satisfactory witness. The SCA concluded that the guilt of the appellants had not been proved beyond reasonable
doubt and for that reason upheld the appeal. |
4104 | non-electoral | 2023 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 600/2022
In the matter between:
EMALAHLENI LOCAL MUNICIPALITY
APPELLANT
and
LEHLAKA PROPERTY DEVELOPMENT (PTY) LTD RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Emalahleni Local Municipality v Lehlaka Property Development
(Pty) Ltd (600/2022) [2023] ZASCA 138 (25 October 2023)
Coram:
MOCUMIE, NICHOLLS, HUGHES and WEINER JJA and SIWENDU
AJA
Heard:
18 May 2023
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties’ legal representatives by email. Publication was made on the Supreme Court
of Appeal website and release to SAFLII. The date and time for hand-down is deemed
to be at 11h00 on 25 October 2023.
Summary: Civil law and procedure – practice – joinder – no public law relationship
between private landowner and unlawful occupiers – notion of a ‘special cluster of
relationships’ did not translate into imposing obligations on private individuals, nor did
it convert a contractual relationship into an administrative one – no direct, substantial
and legal interest in dispute where no contractual privity – non-joinder point in limine
dismissed.
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
___________________________________________________________________
On appeal from: Mpumalanga Division of the High Court, Middelburg (Legodi JP,
sitting as court of first instance):
The appeal is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
___________________________________________________________________
JUDGMENT
___________________________________________________________________
Hughes JA (Mocumie JA concurring):
[1] This is an appeal against the judgment of the Mpumalanga Division of the High
Court, Middelburg (the high court) for declaratory and interdictory relief sought by the
respondent (applicant in the court a quo), Lehlaka Property Development (Pty) Ltd
(Lehlaka), against the appellant (respondent in the court a quo), Emalahleni Local
Municipality (the Municipality). Legodi JP granted the orders in the court a quo, which
I set out further below. The Municipality sought leave to appeal the orders, which was
refused by the court a quo. The appeal is with leave of this Court.
[2] At the centre of this appeal is a mining village, Rietspruit. This village was
formed by the Rietspruit Colliery Mine (the mine), situated in Witbank from 1978. The
village and its infrastructure catered for the miners who worked in the mine. The mine
supplied the village with electricity, which was initially obtained from Eskom directly,
and later from the Municipality.
[3] During 2002, the mine having exhausted all the resources from the land,
ceased mining operations. At the cessation of the mining operations, and in terms of
the mines’ responsibilities and obligations in accordance with the Mineral and
Petroleum Resources Development Act 28 of 2002 (MRPDA),1 the mine tasked
Lehlaka, a property development company, to ‘hand-over’ the mining village to the
community. To this end, in 2004, the Municipality, through a proclamation of the
village, established a formal municipal township, Rietspruit Township, commonly
known as Rietspruit village.
[4] Thereafter, Lehlaka took ownership of the various properties in Rietspruit
village. It complied with its duties in terms of the ‘hand-over’; distributed and
transferred most of the village property, save for the eight properties which remained
under Lehlaka’s ownership.
[5] During the course of Lehlaka’s ownership of the eight properties, and before
the township was proclaimed, in terms of the Emalahleni Local Municipality Electricity
By-laws (the Electricity By-laws),2 Lehlaka, as an owner, was responsible for the
payment of all municipal services. After the township was proclaimed, the
responsibility for the payment of the municipal services fell upon the new owners in
respect of their individual properties, but for the eight properties which were owned
by Lehlaka. For some years, these properties remained unoccupied and were as a
result invaded by unlawful occupiers. Lehlaka, as an owner, and in terms of its
consumer agreement with the Municipality, in accordance with the Electricity By-laws,
continued to pay for the municipal services.
[6] Section 3(1) of the Electricity By-laws states:
‘No person shall use or be entitled to use an electrical supply from the Council unless or until
such person has entered into an agreement in writing with the Council for such supply, and
such agreement together with the provisions of these By-laws shall in all respects govern such
supply. If a person uses an electrical supply without entering into an agreement, he shall be
liable for the cost of electricity and any other costs incurred by Council in such circumstances.’
1 Read with the Social and Labour Plan in terms of regulation 46 of the Mineral and Petroleum
Resources Development Regulations, GN R527, 23 April 2004.
2 Emalahleni Local Municipality Electricity By-laws, LAN 173, Mpumalanga Provincial Gazette 2229, 14
November 2013 (MP).
[7] As stated earlier, on proclamation of the township, the supply of electricity to
the village was from the Municipality since it had taken over from Eskom. Subsequent
to the invasion of the eight properties by unlawful occupiers who utilised the electricity,
Lehlaka fell into arrears with its electricity bills. In 2019, Lehlaka and the Municipality
concluded a settlement agreement in respect of the arrear charges. Thus, from
August 2019, Lehlaka made payments for the electricity as and when they became
due, and was up to date with its payments.
[8] However, as is common cause between the parties, on 10 February 2020
Lehlaka gave a notice of termination of its consumer agreement with the Municipality
and sought to have the electricity disconnected. Though Lehlaka sought the
disconnection of the electricity, it decided against this option, and as stated in the
founding affidavit, it accepted that this option had consequences for not only the
unlawful occupiers and the Municipality, but it could also ‘implicate rights and
obligations between them beyond Lehlaka’s consumer agreements’. There was
however no response from the Municipality.
[9] On 28 February 2020, Lehlaka and the Municipality held a meeting to discuss
the letter of termination served on 10 February 2020. In that meeting, the Municipality
did not dispute that Lehlaka had a right to terminate the consumer agreement.
Instead, it advised Lehlaka to first inform the unlawful occupiers, and then put a plan
in place to relocate them before disconnecting the electricity. Before this Court, both
parties agreed that the occupation of the properties by the unlawful occupiers and
Lehlaka’s responsibility to pay rates and electricity had been a topic that they had
engaged in for quite a while.
[10] On 23 April 2020, Lehlaka addressed a further letter of termination of the
consumer agreement ‘for the avoidance of any doubt’ about its previous letter of 10
February 2020. In this letter it gave the Municipality 14 days’ notice in terms of s 4(1)
of the Electricity By-laws – the said period would culminate on 15 May 2020. Section
4(1) provides:
‘Subject to the provision of section 7(9) and (13), the consumer’s agreement may be
terminated by the consumer, or his authorised representative, or by the Council giving
14 days’ notice in writing calculated from the date of service thereof, provided that if such
notice purports to terminate an agreement on a Saturday, Sunday or public holiday, such
termination shall only take effect on the following workday.’
However, in the latter termination notification of 23 April 2020, Lehlaka did not seek
the disconnection of the electricity but indicated that, if the Municipality continued to
supply electricity to the unlawful occupiers after the proposed termination date, this
would be for the Municipality’s own account.
[11] In its founding affidavit, Lehlaka stated that it had ‘on several occasions’
terminated the consumer agreement with the Municipality. The most recent being on
23 April 2020, which it submits was in the prescribed manner, as set out in s 4(1) of
the Electricity By-laws. Hence, in terms of the consumer agreement, the agreement
was effectively terminated on 15 May 2020. Thus, the issue was purely contractual in
nature, and Lehlaka had complied with the terms of the consumer agreement.
Therefore, Lehlaka was ‘not obliged to continue to pay for the electricity consumed
by the unlawful occupiers’.
[12] Although the Municipality did not dispute Lehlaka’s right to terminate the
consumer agreement, it however asserted that it had the discretion whether or not to
accept the termination, which it refused to accept. It reasoned that it could not accept
the purported termination without Lehlaka first informing the unlawful occupiers that
the electricity supply would be disconnected, and that a plan needed to be put in place
by Lehlaka to relocate the unlawful occupiers.
[13] As a result of the Municipality’s attitude, Lehlaka approached the high court
seeking declaratory and consequential relief, which was fashioned as follows:
‘1.
Declaring that the applicant has validly terminated the consumer agreements for the
supply of electricity that existed between it and the respondent in respect of the “Rietspruit
Properties”, fully described in paragraph 13 of the founding affidavit and also annexure “X” to
the notice of motion, with effect from 15 May 2020;
2.
Declaring that the applicant is not responsible for the payment of any electricity
consumed on the Rietspruit Properties after 15 May 2020;
3.
Ordering the respondent to reverse any amounts it has charged to the applicant’s
municipal accounts in respect of the consumption of electricity on the Rietspruit Properties
since 15 May 2020;
4.
Interdicting the respondent from issuing any further invoices to the applicant in respect
of any electricity consumed on the Rietspruit Properties;
5.
Directing the respondent to pay the costs of this application in the event of opposition;
and
6.
Further and/or alternative relief.’
[14] On 26 July 2021, the high court granted the aforesaid relief in its entirety. It is
this order that is the subject of this appeal. In the high court, the Municipality raised
three points in limine. First, that the matter was premature, as in terms of s 4(1) of the
Electricity By-laws, the Municipality could terminate the consumer agreement within
14 days’ notice to the consumer, yet, it had not given such notice. Before us, counsel
for the Municipality, correctly so, abandoned this point in limine. Second, the decision
of the Municipality not to accept Lehlaka’s termination of the agreement was an
administrative action, and thus, the procedure that ought to have been adopted was
by way of review under the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000 (PAJA)
and not declaratory or interdictory relief, as sought by Lehlaka. Third, was the issue
of non-joinder of the unlawful occupiers on the property of Lehlaka.
[15] The high court did not interrogate these points in limine at all. Yet, it found that
‘[t]he non-joinder issue perhaps is a smoke screen’.
[16] I first deal with the issue of non-joinder as it would be dispositive of the appeal,
if found to be a good point. In Matjhabeng Local Municipality v Eskom Holdings
Limited and Others,3 the Constitutional Court held the following:
‘At common law, courts have an inherent power to order joinder of parties where it is
necessary to do so even when there is no substantive application for joinder. A court could,
mero motu, raise a question of joinder to safeguard the interest of a necessary party and
decline to hear a matter until joinder has been effected. This is consistent with the
Constitution.’4 (Emphasis added.)
[17] The Constitutional Court further stated:
3 Matjhabeng Local Municipality v Eskom Holdings Limited and Others; Mkhonto and Others v
Compensation Solutions (Pty) Limited [2017] ZACC 35; 2017 (11) BCLR 1408 (CC); 2018 (1) SA 1
(CC).
4 Ibid para 91.
‘The law on joinder is well settled. No court can make findings adverse to any person’s
interests, without that person first being a party to the proceedings before it. The purpose of
this requirement is to ensure that the person in question knows of the complaint so that they
can enlist counsel, gather evidence in support of their position, and prepare themselves
adequately in the knowledge that there are personal consequences – including a penalty of
committal – for their non-compliance. All of these entitlements are fundamental to ensuring
that potential contemnors’ rights to freedom and security of the person are, in the end, not
arbitrarily deprived.’5 (Emphasis added.)
[18] In addition, I am mindful of the assertions made by Van der Westhuizen J in
Gcaba v Minister for Safety and Security and Others,6 that:
‘Jurisdiction is determined on the basis of the pleadings, as Langa CJ held in Chirwa and not
the substantive merits of the case. If Mr Gcaba’s case were heard by the High Court, he would
have failed for not being able to make out a case for the relief he sought, namely review of
an administrative decision. In the event of the Court’s jurisdiction being challenged at the
outset (in limine), the applicant’s pleadings are the determining factor. They contain the legal
basis of the claim under which the applicant has chosen to invoke the court’s competence.
While the pleadings – including in motion proceedings, not only the formal terminology of the
notice of motion, but also the contents of the supporting affidavits – must be interpreted to
establish what the legal basis of the applicant’s claim is, it is not for the court to say that the
facts asserted by the applicant would also sustain another claim, cognisable only in another
court. If however the pleadings, properly interpreted, establish that the applicant is asserting
a claim under the LRA, one that is to be determined exclusively by the Labour Court, the High
Court would lack jurisdiction. An applicant like Mr Gcaba, who is unable to plead facts that
sustain a cause of administrative action that is cognisable by the High Court, should thus
approach the Labour Court.’ (Footnotes omitted.)
[19] The test for non-joinder is set out by the Supreme Court of Appeal in Absa Bank
Ltd v Naude NO and Others,7 in the following terms:
‘The test whether there has been non-joinder is whether a party has a direct and substantial
interest in the subject matter of the litigation which may prejudice the party that has not been
joined. In Gordon v Department of Health, Kwazulu-Natal it was held that if an order or
judgment cannot be sustained without necessarily prejudicing the interest of third parties that
5 Ibid para 92.
6 Gcaba v Minister for Safety and Security and Others [2009] ZACC 26; 2010 (1) SA 238 (CC); 2010
(1) BCLR 35 (CC) para 75.
7 Absa Bank Ltd v Naude NO and Others [2015] ZASCA 97 (SCA); 2016 (6) SA 540 (SCA) para 10.
had not been joined, then those third parties have a legal interest in the matter and must be
joined.’
Essentially, the appellant must show that:
(a)
The unlawful occupiers have a direct and substantial interest in the subject
matter of the litigation which may prejudice them as they have not been joined; and
(b)
Such interest is not only a substantial interest but is a legal interest which
justifies that they must be joined.
[20] It is trite that the determination of a point in limine essentially deals with a
specific legal point that has a bearing on a jurisdictional matter prior to entertaining
the merits of the matter.8 Hence, if the point in limine of non-joinder raised, is found
to be good in law, there will be no need to deal with the merits advanced by Lehlaka,
as a jurisdictional issue raised does not necessitate dealing with the merits.
[21] In this Court, Brand JA, in Judicial Service Commission and Another v Cape
Bar Council and Another,9 said the following on the issue of non-joinder:
‘It has by now become settled law that the joinder of a party is only required as a matter of
necessity – as opposed to a matter of convenience – if that party has a direct and substantial
interest which may be affected prejudicially by the judgment of the court in the proceedings
concerned (see eg Bowring NO v Vrededorp Properties CC 2007(5) SA 391 (SCA) para 21).
The mere fact that a party may have an interest in the outcome of the litigation does not
warrant a non-joinder plea. The right of a party to validly raise the objection that other parties
should have been joined to the proceedings, has thus been held to be a limited one (see
eg Burger v Rand Water Board 2007 (1) SA 30 (SCA) para 7; Andries Charl Cilliers, Cheryl
Loots and Hendrik Christoffel Nel Herbstein & Van Winsen The Civil Practice of the High
Courts of South Africa 5 ed vol 1 at 239 and the cases there cited.)’.10 (Emphasis added.)
[22] As stated earlier, Lehlaka contended that its relationship with the Municipality
was purely contractual. The consumer agreement was between the Municipality and
itself and as such, it was entitled to seek a termination of the agreement, in line with
s 4(1) of the Electricity By-laws, which it had done.
8 Ibid para 75.
9 Judicial Service Commission and Another v Cape Bar Council and Another [2012] ZASCA 115; 2012
(11) BCLR 1239 (SCA); 2013 (1) SA 170 (SCA); [2013] 1 All SA 40 (SCA).
10 Ibid para 12.
[23] The Municipality stated that the contractual issue that Lehlaka had raised was
not as simple, since there was ‘a special cluster relationship’ between it, Lehlaka and
the unlawful occupiers: It alleged that this ‘special cluster relationship’ exists between
it and Lehlaka, between it and the occupiers, as well as between Lehlaka and the
occupiers. The Municipality relied on the case of Joseph and Others v City of
Johannesburg and Others11 (Joseph) and the cases cited therein, where the
Constitutional Court explained this ‘special cluster relationship’ as a ‘broader
constitutional relationship’ existing between ‘a public service provider and the
members of the local community [that] gives rise to rights that require the application
of s 3 of [the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act]’.12
[24] Furthermore, the Municipality submitted that Lehlaka was well within its right
to apply for the termination of the consumer agreement, however the decision to
accept such termination rested with the Municipality. This decision by the Municipality
– to accept or to reject the termination – amounted to an administrative action, which
ought to have been reviewed and set aside in terms of PAJA, if found to be
unreasonable. For the aforesaid proposition, the Municipality placed reliance on the
special cluster relationship and the Municipality’s public responsibility in terms of
Chapter 7 of the Constitution and the relevant legislation, being the Local
Government: Municipal Systems Act 32 of 2000 (Municipal Systems Act) and the
Municipal Finance Management Act 56 of 2003, in respect of those persons within its
jurisdiction. Hence, the Municipality contended that ‘the special cluster relationship’
was governed by administrative law principles.
[25] One of the fundamental duties and functions of a municipality under public law
is to provide basic municipal services to the occupants within its constituency, one of
these services being the supply of electricity. These constitutionally mandated duties
are derived from s 152 of the Constitution under Chapter 7, which states:
‘(1)
The objects of local government are—
(a)
to provide democratic and accountable government for local communities;
11 Joseph and Others v City of Johannesburg and Others [2009] ZACC 30; 2010 (3) BCLR 212 (CC);
2010 (4) SA 55 (CC).
12 Ibid para 32.
(b)
to ensure the provision of services to communities in a sustainable manner;
(c)
to promote social and economic development;
(d)
to promote a safe and healthy environment; and
(e)
to encourage the involvement of communities and community organisations in the
matters of local government.
(2)
A municipality must strive, within its financial and administrative capacity, to achieve
the objects set out in subsection (1).’
[26] Over and above, s 73 of the Municipal Systems Act states:
‘General duty
(1)
A municipality must give effect to the provisions of the Constitution and—
(a)
give priority to the basic needs of the local community;
(b)
promote the development of the local community; and
(c)
ensure that all members of the local community have access to at least the minimum
level of basic municipal services.
(2)
Municipal services must—
(a)
be equitable and accessible;
(b)
be provided in a manner that is conducive to—
(i)
the prudent, economic, efficient and effective use of available resources; and
(ii)
the improvement of standards of quality over time;
(c)
be financially sustainable;
(d)
be environmentally sustainable; and
(e)
be regularly reviewed with a view to upgrading, extension and improvement.’
Discussion
[27] The provision of municipal services, which includes the provision of electricity,
was highlighted in Joseph, where Skweyiya J said:
‘The provision of basic municipal services is a cardinal function, if not the most important
function, of every municipal government. The central mandate of local government is to
develop a service delivery capacity in order to meet the basic needs of all inhabitants of South
Africa, irrespective of whether or not they have a contractual relationship with the relevant
public service provider. The respondents accepted that the provision of electricity is one of
those services that local government is required to provide. Indeed, they could not have
contended otherwise. In Mkontwana, Yacoob J held that “municipalities are obliged to provide
water and electricity to the residents in their area as a matter of public duty.” Electricity is one
of the most common and important basic municipal services and has become virtually
indispensable, particularly in urban society.’13
[28] With this legal framework in mind, I now turn to the core issue for consideration
by this Court, that is, whether the unlawful occupiers within the Municipality’s
constituency are entitled to receive basic municipal services, electricity being one of
those services, and whether such duty falls upon Lehlaka.
[29] Unfortunately, the Constitution does not spell out the provision of electricity to
the occupants in its constituency, as it does in respect of water, yet, electricity is also
a basic service that the Municipality is obliged to provide and the occupants have a
public law right to hold the Municipality to its public law obligation.14 As was stated in
Joseph, the mistake that was made in the high court, as in this case, is ‘viewing the
issues through an entirely contractual lens’.15 To apply private law to the matter does
not give any credence to the public law rights and obligations. The ‘special cluster
relationship’ takes into account both private and public law. The working of such
relationship was eloquently explained in Joseph:
‘The starting point should therefore be whether any “rights” of the applicants have been
affected as that term is understood in PAJA, and if so, whether the relevant municipal by-laws
can be read consistently with PAJA. The focus of the enquiry therefore is the relationship, if
any, between City Power as a public service provider and users of the service with whom it
has no formal contractual relationship. This is similar to the approach adopted by Sachs J in
Residents of Joe Slovo, in which the lawfulness of the occupation of municipal council land
by homeless families was considered. Sachs J observed that this question—
“must be located not in the framework of the common law rights of landowners, but in the
context of the special cluster of legal relationships between the council and the occupants
established by the Constitution and the Housing Act. . . . The very manner in which these
relationships are established and extinguished will be different from the manner in which
these relationships might be created by the common law . . . . They flow instead from an
articulation of public responsibilities … and possess an ongoing, organic and dynamic
character that evolves over time.”’16
13 Joseph para 33.
14 Ibid para 39.
15 Ibid para 22.
16 Ibid para 23.
[30] In Joseph, Skweyiya J pertinently stated the following:
‘I am of the view that this case is similarly about the “special cluster of relationships” that exist
between a municipality and citizens, which is fundamentally cemented by the public
responsibilities that a municipality bears in terms of the Constitution and legislation in respect
of the persons living in its jurisdiction. At this level, administrative law principles operate to
govern these relations beyond the law of contract.’17 (Emphasis added.)
[31] On these facts, as was the case in Joseph, the ‘broader constitutional
relationship that exists between a public service provider and the members of the
local community gives rise to rights’18 that invoke the application of PAJA. Under
PAJA, the notion of a ‘right’, has to be interpreted ‘generously’ for purposes of s 3(1)
and as such, the interpretation is wider than the approach that is applied in private
law, taking into account the public law relationship that is at hand.19 The Municipality
has a public law duty and through just administration, should supply electricity to its
constituents, the unlawful occupiers included, by virtue of the Constitution and the
Municipal Systems Act. The corollary is that the unlawful occupiers have a right to
insist that the Municipality should discharge its public law duty to supply electricity.
[32] It is that right that will be adversely affected in this ‘special cluster of
relationships’, which requires that the unlawful occupiers be joined to the
proceedings. This is because they have a direct, substantial and legal interest that is
affected by the order made by the high court. The high court was bound to consider
the issue of non-joinder and ought to have come to the conclusion that it was
necessary that Lehlaka should have joined the unlawful occupiers, and it did not. For
this, it erred materially. The converse is true that the Municipality has succeeded to
show that the unlawful occupiers have a direct, substantial and legal interest in the
subject matter of the litigation which may prejudice them as parties that have not been
joined. Thus, it satisfied the test set out by this Court in Absa Bank Ltd v Naude NO.
For this reason alone, the appeal ought to succeed.
17 Joseph para 24.
18 Ibid para 32; Cape Gate (Pty) Ltd and Others v Eskom Holdings SOC Ltd and Others 2019 (4) SA 14
(GJ) para 123.
19 Walele v City of Cape Town and Others [2008] ZACC 11; 2008 (6) SA 129 (CC); 2008 (11) BCLR
1067 (CC); 2008 (6) SA 129 (CC); Premier, Mpumalanga and Another v Executive Committee,
Association of State-Aided Schools, Eastern Transvaal 1999 (2) SA 91 (CC).
Conclusion
[33] I have had the benefit of reading the third judgment, in support of the second
judgment, penned by Siwendu AJA, who wrote separately on two issues which are
addressed extensively in both the first and the second judgment. These issues are
first, the issue of non-joinder; and second, what she refers to as the purported ‘special
cluster of relationships'. Siwendu AJA concludes, in respect of the first issue, that ‘[i]t
would be speculative for a court to foretell what that dispute will be or express any
view in relation to a matter that is not yet ripe and which was not yet before the high
court for adjudication’. I have decided to express my views on this issue, of non-
joinder, as it is a jurisdictional question and dispositive of the appeal, as I have already
extensively dealt with in this judgment. In addition, I yet again to a very limited extent
address, the special cluster of relationships, to underscore its importance in resolving
this appeal.
[34] On the first issue, Siwendu AJA contends that ‘the source of that right, if it
exists, does not lie in the present dispute about the termination of the agreement’.
Further, that this issue was not before the high court for adjudication. I thus deem it
necessary, to illustrate the correct factual position, in that the issue of the rights of the
unlawful occupiers was raised in the high court.
[35] First, the Municipality raised the issue of non-joinder as one of the points in
limine, the third point in limine to be exact, in their answering affidavit. In essence, the
Municipality stated that there were still occupiers residing in Rietspruit Mining Village,
where Lehlaka sought to cancel its electricity agreement with the Municipality and the
Municipality sought direction of Lehlaka as to what would be done in order to deal
with this predicament. In its answering affidavit the Municipality makes reference to
the miners; the employment of the miners; the details of the employer and the basis
for the miners being employed; the underlying employment agreement and terms
thereof; and the basis for the present miners residing in Rietspruit Mining Village (not
the 1978 miners, unless they are one and the same persons); and finally it wanted to
know what steps have been taken by Lehlaka as the miners’ employer to deal with
the present predicament that the presence of the miners created for all the parties.
[37] Second, the high court noted the contention of the Municipality in its refusal to
disconnect the supply of electricity until a plan had been put in place to relocate the
unlawful occupiers.
[38] Third, in their supplementary affidavits filed in the high court application both
the Municipality and Lehlaka address the existence and non-existence of the unlawful
occupiers’ right in these proceedings.
[39] In the fourth place, one of the grounds of appeal raised before the high court,
with reference to the issue of non-joinder, is phrased as follows:
‘The Court erred in fact and in law in finding that the occupants of the Applicant’s properties
are “illegal occupiers”, without the occupants being joined to the proceedings to be heard in
this regard. The Court therefore also erred in law in failing to rule on, or failing to uphold, the
Respondent’s point in limine on a non-joinder. It erred in fact and law in finding that the non-
joiner issue is a smokescreen.’
[40] Last, and as stated before in this judgment, the high court did not deal
pertinently with the point in limine of non-joinder, suffice to hold that ‘[t]he non-joinder
issue is perhaps a smoke screen’.
[41] I find, with respect, that the contention that the issue of non-joinder was not
raised before the high court or this Court, is gratuitous to say the least, as the record
clearly shows that it was raised and dealt with extensively in both courts. It is the high
court that failed to deal with it and, thus, this Court was bound to deal with it, as it has
done in this judgment.
[42] The issue of ‘the purported special cluster of relationships’. The rights of the
unlawful occupiers are intrinsically linked to the relief that the judgment would grant.
The purported special cluster of relationships cannot be discarded and wished away
as the third judgment seems to suggest. It either exists as the Municipality contended
or it does not as Lehlaka contended. Both parties dealt with this extensively.
[43] For the conclusion I have reached in the preceding paragraphs, it is not
necessary to deal with the merits and other points in limine.
[44] Consequently, I would make the following order:
The appeal is upheld with costs including the costs for leave to appeal in the
high court, such costs to include the costs of two counsel where so employed.
The order of the high court is set aside and is substituted with the following:
‘(a)
The application is removed from the roll for the applicant to join the unlawful
occupiers.
(b)
The applicant is to pay the costs of the application.’
___________________
W HUGHES
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Nicholls JA (Weiner JA concurring):
[43] I have read the first judgment of my colleague, Hughes JA. Regretfully, I cannot
agree with the outcome thereof or its reasoning. In summary, her reasoning is that
because the Municipality has a constitutional duty to provide basic municipal services
to all occupants within its jurisdiction, it would be incorrect to apply private law in
circumstances where there exist public law rights and obligations. Instead, there is ‘a
special cluster of relationships’ between a public service provider and members of the
community that invokes the application of PAJA. She concludes that the unlawful
occupiers have a right to insist on being supplied with electricity, which right will be
adversely affected in this ‘special cluster of relationships’ should Lehlaka act in a
manner as to terminate the consumer agreement for the supply of electricity.
Consequently, as the unlawful occupiers have a direct and substantial interest in the
subject matter of the litigation, they should have been joined to the proceedings. On
this basis, the first judgment found that the special plea of non-joinder should be
upheld.
[44] The facts are set out in the first judgment and need not be repeated here. I am
also in agreement with the applicable legislation and the by-laws relating to the
termination of the consumer agreement (the Electricity By-laws). My fundamental point
of departure is that there exists no public law relationship between Lehlaka and the
unlawful occupiers. That there may be one between the Municipality and the unlawful
occupiers to provide basic services does not mean that the unlawful occupiers have a
direct and substantial interest in the dispute as to whether Lehlaka has a right to
terminate its consumer agreement with the Municipality. Or, as the Municipality
contends, whether it has a discretion not to accept the termination.
[45] The first point to be made is that there is no constitutional or other legal
obligation on a private property owner to pay for electricity consumed by unlawful
occupiers. There is no legislation that provides for this and insofar as it may be
suggested that the Constitutional Court has imposed such a duty, this is based on a
misunderstanding of the authorities. If Lehlaka owes no duty to supply electricity to the
unlawful occupiers in discharge of a public duty (and has no private law duty to do so),
then whether or not the contract between Lehlaka and the Municipality is terminated,
gives rise to no legal interest by the unlawful occupiers in that dispute.
[46] Much has been written about the nature of the ‘interest’ that a party must have
in order to be joined to proceedings. In Milani and Another v South African Medical
and Dental Council and Another (Milani),20 the court, in dealing with this issue, stated:
‘Our Courts have at times recognised that certain persons are affected by legal proceedings
but they have no right to be joined. The sub-tenant of the tenant in a suit against a lessor is a
case in point. (Compare Sheshe v Vereeniging Municipality 1951 (3) SA 661 (A) at 667A; and
Ntai and Others v Vereeniging Town Council and Another 1953 (4) SA 579 (A) at 591.) In the
United Watch case supra Corbett J at 417B-C said about such a sub-tenant:
“The sub-tenants’ right to, or interest in, the continued occupancy of the premises sub-leased
is inherently a derivative one depending vitally upon the validity and continued existence of
the right of the tenant to such occupation. The sub-tenant, in effect, hires a defeasible interest.
(See Ntai and Others v Vereeniging Town Council and Another 1953 (4) SA 579 (A) at 591.)
He can consequently have no direct legal interest in proceedings in which the tenant’s
continuing right of occupation is in issue, however much the termination of that right may affect
him commercially and financially.”’
20 Milani and Another v South African Medical and Dental Council and Another [1990] 3 All SA 633 (T);
1990 (1) SA 899 (T) at 903A-D.
[47] The principles applied in Milani are similar to those in issue in this case. The
unlawful occupiers may be affected by the termination of the consumer agreement,
but that does not amount to the legal interest required to be joined in the proceedings.
Furthermore, even if the unlawful occupiers were to be joined, it is unclear what
remedy they could possibly seek from Lehlaka.
[48] The first judgment places considerable reliance on the ‘special cluster of
relationships’ to find that the unlawful occupiers should be joined. However, it fails to
identify the source of Lehlaka’s obligation towards the unlawful occupiers and the
basis of their right and interest in the dispute over the termination of the consumer
agreement.
[49] The notion of a ‘special cluster of relationships’ was first coined by Sachs J in
Residents of Joe Slovo Community, Western Cape v Thubelisha Homes and Others
(Joe Slovo)21 and quoted with approval in Joseph and Others v City of Johannesburg
and Others (Joseph).22 In Joe Slovo, the question was whether the residents of the
Joe Slovo community were ‘unlawful occupiers’ in terms of the Prevention of Illegal
Eviction from and Unlawful Occupation of Land Act 19 of 1998 (PIE) and whether the
respondents had acted reasonably and constitutionally in seeking the eviction of
20 000 people (the applicants) from land owned by the municipality. The Constitutional
Court granted a structured eviction subject to certain conditions.
[50] In a concurring judgment, and considering the lawfulness of the occupation of
the residents, Sachs J held that this enquiry was not located in the common law rights
of landowners but in the context of the ‘special cluster of legal relationships’
established by the Constitution and the Housing Act 107 of 1997, between the
municipality and the occupants. He drew a distinction between the contractual
relationship between private owners of land and occupiers, on the one hand, with that
of the relationship between a local government authority and homeless people, on the
other. These relationships, he said, ‘flow instead from an articulation of public
21 Residents of Joe Slovo Community, Western Cape v Thubelisha Homes and Others [2009] ZACC
16; 2009 (9) BCLR 847 (CC); 2010 (3) SA 454 (CC).
22 Joseph and Others v City of Johannesburg and Others [2009] ZACC 30; 2010 (3) BCLR 212 (CC);
2010 (4) SA 55 (CC) para 24.
responsibilities . . . and possess an ongoing, organic and dynamic character that
evolves over time’.23 The ‘special cluster of legal relationships’ was a reference to the
constitutional obligations of the municipality to prevent homelessness, derived from a
person’s constitutional right to access to housing as well as the statutory duties of local
government.
[51] In Joseph, the focus of the enquiry was the nature of the relationship between
a public service provider of electricity and the users of the electricity with which it had
no formal contractual relationship. It concerned the termination of electricity following
the accumulation of substantial arrears owing by the landlord despite the fact that the
tenants had been paying their electricity to the landlord. The City of Johannesburg’s
electricity service provider, City Power (Pty) Ltd (City Power) had sent a pre-
termination notice to the landlord but failed to notify the tenants. The main issue was
whether tenants were entitled to procedural fairness in terms of s 3 of PAJA, by being
given a pre-termination notice, before City Power cut the electricity supply.
[52] The Constitutional Court found that because City Power knew that it was
providing electricity to the tenants in the building, it was artificial to think of the
contractual relationship between the landlord and City Power as unrelated to the
benefits that accrued to tenants under this contract.24 The landlord was acting merely
as a ‘conduit’ in the circumstances and the high court had failed to take into account
the role that PAJA may play with people who have no contractual relationship with the
service provider.
[53] In finding that the tenants were entitled to a pre-termination notice, the
Constitutional Court referred to the ‘special cluster of relationships’ between a
municipality and its citizens, which was founded in the public responsibility that a
municipality bears to its citizens in terms of the Constitution. When City Power supplied
electricity to the tenants, it did so in fulfilment of constitutional and statutory duties for
municipalities to provide basic services to all persons living within its jurisdiction.25 In
such instances, it was found that administrative law governs these relations beyond
23 Joe Slovo para 343.
24 Joseph paras 21-22.
25 Joseph para 47.
the law of contract.26 The public law duties of the municipality to the occupiers could
not be avoided by the contract between the municipality and the landlord. As such, it
was held that City Power was obliged to notify the tenants of its intended termination
even though the contract was with the landlord.
[54] Once again it is the constitutional obligations of the municipality (a sphere of
government) and City Power (an organ of state) that are emphasised, not that of the
private landowner. It was the threat of termination of the electricity supply by the
municipality that gave rise to the interest of the occupiers because their rights against
the municipality were effected.
[55] In the matter before us, however, an order is not sought to terminate the
electricity supply to the occupiers, who, unlike the tenants in Joseph, are unlawful
occupiers, but merely to terminate the consumer agreement Lehlaka has with the
Municipality. The Municipality may or may not decide to terminate the electricity supply
to the unlawful occupiers. Should it do so, it is only at that stage that the unlawful
occupiers may have rights vis-à-vis the Municipality, including the right to procedural
fairness in the form of a pre-termination notice.
[56] If the unlawful occupiers have a right to electricity as a component of their
constitutional right to basic services, then this is an obligation to be borne by the
Municipality. To find otherwise would be to make private citizens responsible for the
State’s constitutional duties. The notion of a ‘special cluster of relationships’ does not
translate into imposing obligations on private individuals, nor does it convert a
contractual relationship into an administrative one. In fact, the Constitutional Court in
Joseph rejected a submission that the definition of ‘customer’, in terms of the relevant
by-laws, be extended to persons that have no contractual relationship with the service
provider.27
26 Ibid para 24.
27 Joseph paras 74-75.
[57] The Municipality’s reliance on the Constitutional Court judgments of
Mkontwana v Nelson Mandela Metropolitan Municipality (Mkontwana)28 and Rademan
v Moqhaka Local Municipality and Others (Rademan),29 is also misplaced. Mkontwana
dealt with the constitutionality of a legislative provision that imposed an obligation on
an owner wishing to transfer property, to pay up to two years’ worth of arrear charges
for electricity, irrespective of who incurred them.30 It was argued that the section was
inconsistent with s 25 of the Constitution, in that it amounted to an arbitrary deprivation
of property. The Constitutional Court pointed out that while the deprivation was not
insignificant, it was only for a two-year period, not indefinitely. If desired, an owner
could delay transfer for two years and the new occupier would not be liable for the
debts of the previous occupier.31 Further, there was sufficient justification for the
deprivation that occurred because the purpose was compelling; it was not arbitrary.
[58] In the present matter, it is common cause that Lehlaka was involved in attempts
to donate the remaining properties to the Municipality in 2005, 2010 and 2018. While
initially agreeing to it, in the end the Municipality refused to accept the donation.
Notwithstanding this, in the same breath the Municipality complains that 40 756
unlawful households have invaded property within its jurisdiction and it has to deal with
95 000 households who require housing. This, so it claims, is in circumstances where
it cannot even provide services adequately to the formal households already in
existence. For this state of affairs, it blames the mines for ‘enticing many indigent and
vulnerable people to the Municipality’s jurisdiction’. In essence, it submits that should
Lehlaka successfully terminate its consumer agreement, this will mean more
households are the responsibility of the Municipality. That a municipality is
overwhelmed by its constitutional obligations towards its citizens cannot form a legal
basis for transferring these obligations to a private landowner.
28 Mkontwana v Nelson Mandela Metropolitan Municipality 2005 (1) SA 530 (CC); 2005 (2) BCLR 150
(CC).
29 Rademan v Moqhaka Local Municipality and Others [2013] ZACC 11; 2013 (4) SA 225 (CC); 2013
(7) BCLR 791 (CC).
30 See s 118(1) of Local Government: Municipal Systems Act 32 of 2000.
31 Ibid para 45. See also O’Regan J, in a separate concurring judgment, para 87, where she found that
the owner was not deprived of ownership by s 118 of the Local Government Municipal Systems Act 32
of 2000, but rather one of the incidents of ownership, namely, the ability to alienate immoveable
property, was impaired. She concluded that the section does constitute a deprivation, but found that it
was not arbitrary.
[59] Rademan also does not assist. Ms Rademan was amongst a group of
ratepayers who refused to pay rates in protest against poor services rendered by a
municipality in the Free State. She continued to pay her electricity account. Despite
this, the municipality gave her notice and then cut off her electricity supply. This Court
held that the municipality could consolidate the rates and the electricity accounts and
had the right to terminate the electricity supply without a court order, even though the
electricity account was not in arrears. Leave to appeal was granted to the
Constitutional Court, and duly dismissed. The Constitutional Court held that
consolidation is provided for in the relevant by-laws and once a customer pays only
part of the account, that customer is in breach of her obligations to make payment.
Therefore, to terminate the electricity supply was not unconstitutional.32
[60] Here, the consequence of termination of the consumer agreement may be that
the unlawful occupiers have to look to the Municipality for the supply of electricity, but
that is an incident of the public law duty owed by the Municipality. There is no reason
why this duty gives the unlawful occupiers a direct and substantial interest in the
private law contract between Lehlaka and the Municipality. Once the contract is
terminated between the Municipality and Lehlaka, and should the Municipality proceed
to cut off the electricity supply to the unlawful occupiers, they would then have the right
to be joined in any proceedings. But at this stage, the question of joinder does not
arise.
[61] It should be noted that in its papers the Municipality raised the non-joinder point
on the basis that the occupiers were employees and former employees of the mines.
It is on this basis that it was submitted that they should have been cited. It was pointed
out, and apparently accepted, that the occupiers inhabited the properties unlawfully
after the mines ceased operations in 2001. None of the unlawful occupiers are
employed by the mine or any related mining company.
[62] It is correct that no court can make a finding adverse to a party, without him or
her being party to the proceedings before the court. This is to effectuate the time-
32 Rademan paras 32-34.
honoured principle of audi alterem partem.33 Here, whether the termination of the
consumer agreement will be adverse to the unlawful occupiers depends entirely on
what the Municipality elects to do. It can install pre-paid meters; it can reduce the
electricity supplied;34 it can terminate the electricity supply on proper notice; or, it can
carry on with the electricity supply unimpeded.
[63] If the matter is a purely contractual one, as I believe the termination of the
consumer agreement to be, then there can be no question of joining the unlawful
occupiers as there is no contractual privity between them and Lehlaka and/or the
Municipality. Lehlaka has no constitutional obligation towards the unlawful occupiers
to provide electricity, and the unlawful occupiers have no corresponding legal right to
be provided with electricity by Lehlaka free of charge in perpetuity, or whenever the
Municipality in its discretion decides to accept the termination. They, therefore, have
no legal interest worthy of protection in the current litigation.35 This disposes of the
question of joinder. The point in limine thus falls to be dismissed.
[64] The other point in limine raised by the Municipality, which is directly related to
the merits, is the applicability of PAJA. The Municipality submitted that its decision to
refuse to terminate the consumer agreement should have been challenged as a review
in terms of PAJA. As pointed out in the first judgment, the Municipality does not dispute
Lehlaka’s right to terminate its consumer agreement with the Municipality. Its stance
is that it has a discretion whether or not to accept what it describes as a ‘unilateral’
termination. According to the Municipality, Lehlaka allowed its properties to be
occupied and for municipal services to be consumed. This created an ‘administrative
relationship’ between Lehlaka and the unlawful occupiers, which created ‘onerous
obligations on [the Municipality] when it comes to charging for electricity supplied to
the properties, or the termination of supply in the event of non-payment’.
33 South African Riding for the Disabled Association v Regional Land Claims Commissioner and Others
[2017] ZACC 4; 2017 (8) BCLR 1053 (CC); 2017 (5) SA 1 (CC) para 10; Matjhabeng Local Municipality
v Eskom Holdings Limited and Others; Mkhonto and Others v Compensation Solutions (Pty) Limited
[2017] ZACC 35; 2017 (11) BCLR 1408 (CC); 2018 (1) SA (CC) para 93.
34 See Joseph para 51.
35 Allers and Others v Fourie NO and Others [2006] ZASCA 152 (SCA) para 24.
[65] Administrative action is defined, in s 1 of PAJA, to mean any decision taken, or
any failure to take a decision, by an organ of state when exercising a power in terms
of the Constitution; or exercising a public power or performing a public function in terms
of any legislation.36 In respect of natural or juristic persons, which are not organs of
state, for any decisions they make to fall within the ambit of administrative action, they
must be exercising a public power or performing a public function in terms of an
empowering provision.37
[66] There can be no suggestion that Lehlaka was exercising a public power or
performing a public function in terms of an empowering provision when it terminated
the consumer agreement. Thus, in order to establish that PAJA applies, the
Municipality, as an organ of state, must demonstrate that in refusing to accept the
termination of the consumer agreement, it was taking a decision in exercise of a power
in terms of the Constitution or a statute. Did the impugned decision entail the exercise
by the Municipality of a power in terms the Constitution or provincial constitution, or
the exercise of public power in terms if any legislation? If it did not, then it was not
administrative action and consequently not susceptible to judicial review in terms of s
6 of PAJA.38
[67] This Court has held that administrative action entails a decision which involves
a choice or evaluation, thereby drawing a distinction between discretionary powers
and mechanical powers.39 Mechanical powers involve no choice, for example, in
instances where certain requirements are met, the decision-maker has no power to
refuse. In contrast, there are those circumstances where the decision-maker has to
make an assessment and come to a decision.40
[68] The termination of a consumer’s agreement is provided for in the Electricity By-
laws. Section 3(1) of the By-laws provides that no person shall be entitled to the use
36 Section 1(a)(i) and (ii) of PAJA.
37 Section 1(b) of PAJA.
38 Ma-Afrika Hotels (Pty) Ltd v Cape Peninsula University of Technology [2023] ZAWCHC 4; [2023] 1
All SA 731 (WCC); 2023 (3) 621 (WCC) para 11.
39 Nedbank Ltd v Mendelow NO and Another [2013] ZASCA 98; 2013 (6) SA 130 (SCA) paras 25-28;
Gamevest (Pty) Ltd v Regional Land Claims Commissioner for the Northern Province and Mpumalanga
and Others [2002] ZASCA 117; 2003 (1) SA 373 (SCA) paras 20 and 28.
40 C Hoexter and G Penfold Administrative Law in South Africa 3 ed (2021) at 250.
of electricity without having entered into a consumer’s agreement with the municipal
council in writing. If a person does use an electrical supply without entering into such
an agreement, he shall be responsible for the costs of electricity. Section 4 deals with
the termination of a consumer’s agreement and provides:
‘Subject to the provision of section 7(9) and (13), the consumer’s agreement may be
terminated by the consumer, or his authorised representative, or by [the Municipality] giving
14 days’ notice in writing calculated from the date of service thereof, provided that if such
notice purports to terminate an agreement on a Saturday, Sunday or public holiday, such
termination shall only take effect on the following workday.’41
[69] Other than the requisite 14 days’ written notice, which the Municipality has
accepted was given by 23 April 2020, the Municipality has no discretion to refuse to
terminate the consumer agreement. Insofar as the Electricity By-laws give rise to
legislative regulation of the contractual relationship between the Municipality and
Lehlaka, the Electricity By-laws do not accord the Municipality the discretionary power
to decide whether to accept or refuse a termination. Once that is so, the matter is
governed by the ordinary terms of the contract. The public law regulation is limited.
Hence, the right to terminate, which the Municipality acknowledges, must prevail
because there is no power given to the Municipality to decide whether or not that right
may be exercised.
[70] On the Municipality’s interpretation, the consumer may not terminate a
consumer agreement, but only request the Municipality to do so, which it has a
discretion to refuse. It would be extraordinary if a consumer agreement with a public
service provider could operate in perpetuity and only be terminated if the service
provider agreed to its termination. Once it is accepted that the consumer has a right
to terminate a consumer’s agreement on the requisite notice, there is no choice to be
made by the Municipality and thus no decision, other than a mechanical one, to be
made. The decision, therefore, does not amount to administrative action as defined in
PAJA.
41 Sections 7(9) and 7(13) deal with the prescribed disconnection fee and meter reading period once
an agreement has been terminated.
[71] For the reasons set out above, Lehlaka is entitled to terminate the contract with
the Municipality. Consequently, the appeal falls to be dismissed and the following order
is made:
The appeal is dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel.
____________________
C HEATON NICHOLLS
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Siwendu AJA:
[72] I have read the judgments by my colleagues Hughes JA (the first judgment)
and Nicholls JA (the second judgment). I concur in the second judgment and order
proposed by my colleague, Nicholls JA. I write separately, because in my view given
the contractual nature of the relationships between Lehlaka (as the owner of the
occupied properties), on the one hand, and the Municipality (a sphere of government),
on the other, a joinder of the unlawful occupiers is not necessary.
[73] First, it merits emphasis that only the Municipality singularly bears the outward
administrative law obligations in its dealings with its citizens.42 Those obligations may
not be transferred unless the Municipality contracts with a third party to perform
municipal services on its behalf.43 Second, private citizens, like Lehlaka, cannot ‘act
administratively’ and have no reciprocal administrative duties in their dealings with the
Municipality in law.
42 Section 239 of the Constitution defines an organ of state to include a local sphere of government;
See also Transnet Ltd v Goodman Brothers (Pty) Ltd 2001 (1) SA 853 (SCA), where the Court dealt
with contractual dealings which derive from the exercise of public power by an organ of state.
43 Section 78 of the Municipal Systems Act 32 of 2000 permits a municipality to decide on mechanisms
to deliver municipal services including contracting with private parties.
[74] The crux of the dispute before the high court involves Lehlaka’s right to resile
from and terminate the consumer agreement (the agreement) it has with the
Municipality and the Municipality’s refusal to accept Lehlaka’s termination notice. The
Municipality impermissibly seeks to engineer a tripartite relationship between it,
Lehlaka, and the unlawful occupiers to bolster the purported ‘special cluster of
relationships’ between the parties. There is no basis in law for the Municipality to
impose a contractual relationship on an unwilling party who is entitled in law to resile
from a contract.
[75] It is not disputed that Lehlaka had no prior relationship with the unlawful
occupiers, whether as an erstwhile lessor or a conduit for the provision of electricity to
the property occupied. The mere incident of ownership of the properties by Lehlaka
cannot, without more, create the ‘special cluster of relationships’ contended for by the
Municipality.
[76] Absent the purported ‘special cluster of relationships’ as between Lehlaka and
the Municipality, the dispute about the termination of the agreement is a purely
contractual one. The unlawful occupiers are not privy or a party to the agreement. As
held by the full court in Rosebank Mall (Pty) v Cradock Heights (Pty) Ltd:
‘There is a distinction between the case of a party whose rights are purely derived from “the
right which is the subject-matter of the litigation” and in which he has no legal interest, on the
one hand, and the case where the third party has a right acquired aliunde the right which is
the subject-matter of the litigation and which would be prejudicially affected if the judgment
and order made in the litigation to which he was not a party, were carried into effect.’44
[77] On the strength of the above judgment, the unlawful occupiers have no right or
claim in the subject matter of the termination dispute. They are strangers to the
agreement. The basis for the joinder is that the rights of the unlawful occupiers to be
provided with electricity will arise following the termination of the agreement. The
difficulty is that the source of that right, if it exists, does not lie in the present dispute
about the termination of the agreement. It would be speculative for a court to foretell
44 Rosebank Mall (Pty) and Another v Cradock Heights (Pty) Ltd [2003] 4 All SA 471 (W); 2004 (2) SA
353 (W) para 37.
what that dispute will be or express any view in relation to a matter that is not yet ripe
and which was not yet before the high court for adjudication.
[78] Accordingly, for these additional reasons, I concur in the second judgment that
a joinder of the unlawful occupiers to the termination dispute is not necessary.
_________________________
N T Y SIWENDU
ACTING JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For the appellant:
A Vorster
Instructed by:
Ka-Mbonane Cooper, Johannesburg
Van der Merwe and Sorour Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For the respondent:
M Wesley SC and T Mosikili
Instructed by:
Norton Rose Fulbright Incorporated, Johannesburg
Webbers Attorneys, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
From:
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
Date:
25 October 2023
Status:
Immediate
The following summary is for the benefit of the media in the reporting of this case and
does not form part of the judgments of the Supreme Court of Appeal
Emalahleni Local Municipality v Lehlaka Property Development (Pty) Ltd (600/2022) [2023]
ZASCA 138 (25 October 2023)
Today, the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) dismissed an appeal with costs, including the
costs of two counsel, against the decision of the Mpumalanga Division of the High Court,
Middelburg (the high court), which granted declaratory and interdictory relief sought by the
respondent, Lehlaka Property Development (Pty) Ltd (Lehlaka), against the appellant,
Emalahleni Local Municipality (the Municipality).
The facts of the matter were briefly as follows. Lehlaka was the owner of eight properties in a
mining village known as Rietspruit in Mpumalanga, which were invaded by unlawful occupiers.
Lehlaka, as owner, and in terms of its consumer agreement with the Municipality, in
accordance with the Emalahleni Local Municipality Electricity By-laws (the Electricity By-laws),
continued to pay for the municipal services. On 23 April 2020, Lehlaka addressed a letter of
termination of the consumer agreement. The Municipality however asserted that it had the
discretion whether or not to accept the termination, which it refused to accept.
The issues before the SCA were, firstly, whether the unlawful occupiers on Lehlaka’s
properties ought to have been joined to the proceedings, and secondly, whether the decision
of the Municipality not to accept Lehlaka’s termination of the agreement was an administrative
action, and thus, whether the procedure that ought to have been adopted was by way of review
under the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000 (PAJA) and not declaratory or
interdictory relief, as sought by Lehlaka.
The SCA, through the majority judgment penned by Nicholls JA (Weiner JA and Siwendu AJA
concurring), found that the point in limine regarding the non-joinder issue fell to be dismissed.
This was because there existed no public law relationship between Lehlaka and the unlawful
occupiers. That there may have been one between the Municipality and the unlawful occupiers
to provide basic services did not mean that the unlawful occupiers had a direct and substantial
interest in the dispute as to whether Lehlaka had a right to terminate its consumer agreement
with the Municipality. Or, as the Municipality contended, whether it had a discretion not to
accept the termination.
The majority judgment found that if Lehlaka owed no duty to supply electricity to the unlawful
occupiers in discharge of a public duty (and had no private law duty to do so), then whether
or not the contract between Lehlaka and the Municipality was terminated, gave rise to no legal
interest by the unlawful occupiers in that dispute. It found further that if the unlawful occupiers
had a right to electricity as part of their constitutional right to basic services, then this was an
obligation to be borne by the Municipality. To find otherwise, would have been to make private
citizens responsible for the State’s constitutional duties. The notion of a ‘special cluster of
relationships’ did not translate into imposing obligations on private individuals, nor did it
convert a contractual relationship into an administrative one.
With regard to the applicability of PAJA, the majority judgment found that the Municipality’s
decision to refuse to terminate the consumer agreement did not amount to administrative
action as defined in PAJA, and was consequently not susceptible to judicial review in terms of
s 6 of PAJA. It found that once it was accepted that the consumer had a right to terminate a
consumer’s agreement on the requisite notice, there was no choice to be made by the
Municipality and thus no decision, other than a mechanical one, to be made. In this regard,
the majority judgment found that other than the requisite 14 days’ written notice, which the
Municipality had accepted was given by 23 April 2020, the Municipality had no discretion to
refuse to terminate the consumer agreement. Thus, Lehlaka was entitled to terminate the
contract with the Municipality. Consequently, the SCA held that the appeal fell to be dismissed.
Siwendu AJA penned a separate concurring judgment, in which she agreed that given the
contractual nature of the relationships between Lehlaka (as the owner of the occupied
properties) and the Municipality (a sphere of government), a joinder of the unlawful occupiers
was not necessary. Siwendu AJA found that the crux of the dispute involved Lehlaka’s right to
resile from and terminate the consumer agreement and the Municipality’s refusal to accept
Lehlaka’s termination notice. Siwendu AJA found that there was no basis or power in law for
the Municipality to impose a contractual relationship on an unwilling party, who was entitled in
law to resile from a contract. Further, that absent the purported ‘special cluster of relationships’
as between Lehlaka and the Municipality, the dispute was purely contractual. Thus, the
unlawful occupiers had no right or claim in the subject matter of the termination dispute.
A minority judgment penned by Hughes JA (Mocumie JA concurring) would have upheld the
appeal on the basis of non-joinder of the unlawful occupiers. It found that the issue was
squarely raised by the Municipality as a point in limine before the high court. Despite it being
raised, the high court did not address it at all. The minority judgment found that the unlawful
occupiers ought to have been joined to the application in the high court. It further found that
there was a ‘special cluster relationship’ that invoked the application of PAJA on the facts of
this case. The Municipality had a public law duty to supply electricity to its constituents, the
unlawful occupiers included. The corollary was that the unlawful occupiers had a right to insist
that the Municipality discharged its public law duty to supply electricity. It was that right that
was adversely affected in this ‘special cluster relationship’, which required that the unlawful
occupiers be joined to the proceedings. This was because they had a direct, substantial and
legal interest that was affected by the order made by the high court. It was thus necessary that
Lehlaka should have joined the unlawful occupiers.
~~~~ends~~~~ |
3494 | non-electoral | 2020 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case no: 612/19
In the matters between:
THE PRESIDENT OF THE REPUBLIC
OF SOUTH AFRICA
FIRST APPELLANT
THE MINISTER OF JUSTICE AND
CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENT
SECOND APPELLANT
and
WOMEN’S LEGAL CENTRE TRUST FIRST RESPONDENT
THE MINISTER OF HOME AFFAIRS
SECOND RESPONDENT
SPEAKER OF THE NATIONAL ASSEMBLY THIRD RESPONDENT
CHAIRPERSON OF THE NATIONAL
COUNCIL OF PROVINCES FOURTH RESPONDENT
LAJNATUN NISAA-IL MUSLIMAAT
(ASSOCIATION OF MUSLIM
WOMEN OF SOUTH AFRICA) FIFTH RESPONDENT
UNITED ULAMA COUNCIL OF SOUTH AFRICA SIXTH RESPONDENT
SOUTH AFRICAN HUMAN RIGHTS
COMMISSION SEVENTH RESPONDENT
COMMISSION FOR THE PROMOTION AND
PROTECTION OF THE RIGHTS OF CULTURAL,
RELIGIOUS AND LINGUISTIC COMMUNITIES EIGHTH RESPONDENT
UNITED ULAMA COUNCIL OF SOUTH AFRICA
FIRST AMICUS CURIAE
LAW SOCIETY OF SOUTH AFRICA SECOND AMICUS CURIAE
SOUTH AFRICAN LAWYERS
FOR CHANGE THIRD AMICUS CURIAE
MUSLIM ASSEMBLY (CAPE) FOURTH AMICUS CURIAE
ISLAMIC UNITY CONVENTION FIFTH AMICUS CURIAE
COMMISSION FOR GENDER EQUALITY SIXTH AMICUS CURIAE
JAMIATUL ULAMA KWAZULU-NATAL SEVENTH AMICUS CURIAE
and
THE MINISTER OF JUSTICE AND
CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENT APPELLANT
and
TARRYN FARO FIRST RESPONDENT
MARJORIE BINGHAM NO
(IN HER CAPACITY AS THE EXECUTOR OF
THE DECEASED ESTATE OF MOOSA ELY –
ESTATE NO 4190/2010) SECOND RESPONDENT
MUJAID ELY THIRD RESPONDENT
SHARIFF ELY FOURTH RESPONDENT
TASHRICK ELY FIFTH RESPONDENT
MUSLIM JUDICIAL COUNCIL SIXTH RESPONDENT
IMAM IB SABAN SEVENTH RESPONDENT
THE MASTER OF THE HIGH COURT EIGHTH RESPONDENT
and
THE MINISTER OF JUSTICE AND
CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENT APPELLANT
and
RUWAYDA ESAU FIRST RESPONDENT
MAGAMAT RIETHAW ESAU SECOND RESPONDENT
THE CABINET OF THE REPUBLIC
OF SOUTH AFRICA THIRD RESPONDENT
GOVERNMENT EMPLOYEES PENSION FUND FOURTH RESPONDENT
MUSLIM JUDICIAL COUNCIL FIFTH RESPONDENT
MUNEEBAH JACOB SIXTH RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
President of the RSA and Another v Women’s Legal Centre Trust and
Others; Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development v Faro and
Others; and Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development v
Esau and Others (Case no 612/19) [2020] ZASCA 177 (18 December
2020)
Coram:
MAYA P, SALDULKER, VAN DER MERWE and PLASKET JJA AND
WEINER AJA
Heard:
25 and 26 August 2020 and 30 September 2020
Delivered: This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the parties’
legal representatives by email. It has been published on the Supreme Court of
Appeal website and released to SAFLII. The date and time for hand-down is
deemed to be 14h00 on 18 December 2020.
Summary:
Constitutional law – Muslim marriages – whether there is a constitutional
obligation on the State to enact legislation recognising Muslim marriages – in the event
that a breach of a constitutional obligation has been established, the appropriate remedy
to be awarded.
ORDER
On appeal from: Western Cape Division of the High Court, Cape Town (Boqwana, Desai
and Salie-Hlophe JJ sitting as court of first instance): judgment reported sub nom Women's
Legal Centre Trust v President of the Republic of South Africa and Others, Faro v Bingham
NO and Others, Esau v Esau and Others (22481/2014, 4466/2013, 13877/2015; 2018 (6)
SA 598 (WCC).
The appeal and the cross-appeals succeed in part and the order of the court a quo
is set aside and replaced with the following order:
‘1.1 The Marriage Act 25 of 1961 (the Marriage Act) and the Divorce Act 70 of 1979 (the
Divorce Act) are declared to be inconsistent with ss 9, 10, 28 and 34 of the
Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996, in that they fail to recognise
marriages solemnised in accordance with Sharia law (Muslim marriages) as valid
marriages (which have not been registered as civil marriages) as being valid for all
purposes in South Africa, and to regulate the consequences of such recognition.
1.2 It is declared that s 6 of the Divorce Act is inconsistent with ss 9, 10, 28(2) and 34
of the Constitution insofar as it fails to provide for mechanisms to safeguard the
welfare of minor or dependent children of Muslim marriages at the time of
dissolution of the Muslim marriage in the same or similar manner as it provides
mechanisms to safeguard the welfare of minor or dependent children of other
marriages that are being dissolved.
1.3
It is declared that s 7(3) of the Divorce Act is inconsistent with ss 9, 10, and 34 of
the Constitution insofar as it fails to provide for the redistribution of assets, on the
dissolution of a Muslim marriage, when such redistribution would be just.
1.4
It is declared that s 9(1) of the Divorce Act is inconsistent with ss 9, 10 and 34 of
the Constitution insofar as it fails to make provision for the forfeiture of the
patrimonial benefits of a Muslim marriage at the time of its dissolution in the same
or similar terms as it does in respect of other marriages.
1.5
The declarations of constitutional invalidity are referred to the Constitutional Court
for confirmation.
1.6
The common law definition of marriage is declared to be inconsistent with the
Constitution and invalid to the extent that it excludes Muslim marriages.
1.7 The declarations of invalidity in paras 1.1 to 1.4 above are suspended for a period
of 24 months to enable the President and Cabinet, together with Parliament to
remedy the foregoing defects by either amending existing legislation, or passing
new legislation within 24 months, in order to ensure the recognition of Muslim
marriages as valid marriages for all purposes in South Africa and to regulate the
consequences arising from such recognition.
1.8 Pending the coming into force of legislation or amendments to existing legislation
referred to in para 1.7, it is declared that a union, validly concluded as a marriage
in terms of Sharia law and subsisting at the date of this order, or, which has been
terminated in terms of Sharia law, but in respect of which legal proceedings have
been instituted and which proceedings have not been finally determined as at the
date of this order, may be dissolved in accordance with the Divorce Act as follows:
(a)
all the provisions of the Divorce Act shall be applicable save that all Muslim
marriages shall be treated as if they are out of community of property, except where
there are agreements to the contrary, and
(b)
the provisions of s 7(3) of Divorce Act shall apply to such a union regardless
of when it was concluded.
(c)
In the case of a husband who is a spouse in more than one Muslim marriage,
the court shall:
(i)
take into consideration all relevant factors including any contract or
agreement and must make any equitable order that it deems just, and;
(ii)
may order that any person who in the court’s opinion has a sufficient
interest in the matter be joined in the proceedings.
1.9
It is declared that, from the date of this order, s 12(2) of the Children’s Act 38 of
2005 applies to Muslim marriages concluded after the date of this order.
1.10 For the purpose of applying paragraph 1.9 above, the provisions of ss 3(1)(a),
3(3)(a) and 3(3)(b), 3(4)(a) and 3(4)(b), and 3(5) of the Recognition of Customary
Marriages Act 120 of 1998 shall apply, mutatis mutandis, to Muslim marriages.
1.11 If administrative or practical problems arise in the implementation of this order, any
interested person may approach this Court for a variation of this order.
1.12 The Department of Home Affairs and the Department of Justice & Constitutional
Development shall publish a summary of the orders in paragraphs 1.1 to 1.9 above
widely in newspapers and on radio stations, whatever is feasible, without
unreasonable delay.’
2 In the matter of Faro v The Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development and
Others (Case no 4466/2013), no order is made in relation to the cross-appeal. It is recorded
that:
2.1 In recognition of the fact that there currently are no policies and procedures in place
for purposes of determining disputes arising in relation to the validity of Muslim
marriages and the validity of divorces granted by any person or association
according to the tenets of Sharia law (Muslim divorces) in circumstances where
persons purport to be spouses of deceased persons in accordance with the tenets
of Sharia law and seek to claim benefits from a deceased estate in terms of the
provisions of the Intestate Succession Act 81 of 1987 and/or the Maintenance of
Surviving Spouses Act 27 of 1990, the Minister of Justice undertakes within 18
months of the granting of this order to put in place the necessary mechanisms to
ensure that there is a procedure by which the Master may resolve disputes arising
in relation to the validity of Muslim marriages and Muslim divorces, in all cases
where a dispute arises as to whether or not the persons purport to be married in
accordance with the tenets of Sharia law to the deceased persons and seek to claim
benefits from a deceased estate in terms of the provisions of the Intestate
Succession Act 81 of 1987 and/or the Maintenance of Surviving Spouses Act 27 of
1990;
2.2
In the event that the Minister of Justice fails to comply with the undertaking in para
2.1 the appellants may enrol the appeal in this Court on the same papers, duly
supplemented, in order to seek further relief.
The Appellants (the President and the Minister of Justice) shall in respect of the
matter under case no 13877/2015 (Esau) pay Ruwayda Esau’s costs in respect of claim A
(including the costs of the appeal and cross-appeal) such costs to include the costs of
three counsel to the extent of their employment.
In respect of the matters under Case nos 22481/2014 and 4466/2013:
4.1
Paragraph 8 of the order of the Western Cape Division of the High Court shall stand,
in terms whereof the President, the Minister of Justice and the Minister of Home
Affairs are to pay the costs of the Women’s Legal Centre Trust respectively, such
costs to include the costs of three counsel to the extent of their employment.
4.2
The President and the Minister of Justice shall pay the Women’s Legal Centre’s
costs of the appeal and the cross-appeal, such costs to include the costs of three
counsel to the extent of their employment.
JUDGMENT
Saldulker and Van der Merwe JJA (Maya P, Plasket JA and Weiner AJA concurring):
Introduction
[1] The recognition of marriages solemnised according to the tenets of the Islamic faith
(Muslim marriages) lies at the heart of this appeal. Muslim marriages have never been
recognised nor regulated by South African law as valid marriages despite 26 years under
a democratic constitutional dispensation that is founded, inter alia, on the values of
‘[h]uman dignity, the achievement of equality and the advancement of human rights and
freedoms’.1 This is, understandably, both an emotive and contentious issue. South Africa
has come a long way since the judgments in Ismail v Ismail,2 and other cases such as
Kader v Kader,3 Bronn v Fritz Bronn’s Executors and Others and Seedat’s Executors v The
Master (Natal),4 which withheld legal recognition from Muslim marriages. Although we have
had the benefit of judgments that have emerged from the Constitutional Court, this Court
and high courts, expressing trenchant criticism of the failure on the part of the State to take
steps to afford legal recognition to Muslim marriages, the historical disadvantages,
hardships and prejudice for parties to Muslim marriages, especially Muslim women and
children, continues to prevail.
1 Section 1(a) of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa 108 of 1996.
2 Ismail v Ismail 1983 (1) SA 1006 (A).
3 Kader v Kader 1972 (3) SA 203 (RA).
4 Bronn v Fritz Bronn’s Executors and Others (1860) 3 Searle 313; Seedat’s Executors v The Master (Natal)
1917 AD 302.
[2] The views held in the pre-constitutional era by the South African courts reflect a
refusal to recognise Muslim marriages, mainly because these marriages were viewed as
potentially polygynous, and thus contra bonos mores. A scornful and offensive attitude
towards persons married in terms of Sharia law prevailed.
[3] The plight of Muslim women and children and the injustices suffered by them as a
result of the absence of legal recognition of Muslim marriages are particularly highlighted
in the judgments that we refer to below.5
[4] In Daniels v Campbell NO and Others,6 Moseneke J succinctly stated:
‘This “persisting invalidity of Muslim marriages” is, of course, a constitutional anachronism. It
belongs to our dim past. It originates from deep-rooted prejudice on matters of race, religion and
culture. True to their worldview, Judges of the past displayed remarkable ethnocentric bias and
arrogance at the expense of those they perceived different. They exalted their own and demeaned
and excluded everything else. Inherent in this disposition, says Mahomed CJ, is “inequality,
arbitrariness, intolerance and inequity”.
These stereotypical and stunted notions of marriage and family must now succumb to the
newfound and restored values of our society, its institutions and diverse people. They must yield
to societal and constitutional recognition of expanding frontiers of family life and intimate
relationships. Our Constitution guarantees not only dignity and equality but also freedom of religion
and belief. What is more, s 15(3) of the Constitution foreshadows and authorises legislation that
recognises marriages concluded under any tradition or a system of religious, personal or family
law. Such legislation is yet to be passed in regard to Islamic marriages.’
[5] In a similar vein, in Hassam v Jacobs NO and Others,7 Nkabinde J espoused the
following:
‘The prejudice directed at the Muslim community is evident in the pronouncement by the Appellate
Division in Ismail v Ismail. The court regarded the recognition of polygynous unions solemnised
under the tenets of the Muslim faith as void on the ground of it being contrary to accepted customs
5 Ryland v Edros 1997 (2) SA 690 (C); Amod v Multilateral Motor Vehicle Accidents Fund (Commission for
Gender Equality Intervening) 1999 (4) SA 1319 (SCA); Daniels v Campbell NO and Others 2004 (5) SA 331
(CC); 2004 (7) BCLR 735(CC) paras 74-75; Khan v Khan 2005 (2) SA 272 (T).
6 Daniels v Campbell NO and Others 2004 (5) SA 331 (CC) paras 74-75.
7 Hassam v Jacobs NO and Others 2009 (5) SA 572 (CC); [2009] ZACC 19 para 25.
and usages, then regarded as morally binding upon all members of our society. Recognition of
polygynous unions was seen as a retrograde step and entirely immoral. The court assumed,
wrongly, that the non-recognition of polygynous unions was unlikely to “cause any real hardship to
the members of the Muslim communities, except, perhaps, in isolated instances”. That interpretive
approach is indeed no longer sustainable in a society based on democratic values, social justice
and fundamental human rights enshrined in our Constitution. The assumption made in Ismail, with
respect, displays ignorance and total disregard of the lived realities prevailing in Muslim
communities and is consonant with the inimical attitude of one group in our pluralistic society
imposing its views on another.’
The WLC application
[6] In 2009, the Women’s Legal Centre Trust (the WLC), an organisation established
to advance women’s rights by conducting constitutional litigation and advocacy on gender
issues, approached the Constitutional Court for direct access in terms of s 167 of the
Constitution, in an application concerning the same substantive issues raised in this
matter. The application was dismissed on the basis that no proper case had been made
out for direct access and so the matter was not properly before the court.8
[7] During November 2015, the WLC launched a semi-urgent application in the high
court against the President of the Republic of South Africa (the President), the Minister of
Justice and Constitutional Development (Minister of Justice), the Minister of Home Affairs,
the Speaker of the National Assembly, and the Chairperson of the National Council of
Provinces, being the first to the fifth respondents.
[8] The WLC contended that the State had failed to recognise and regulate marriages
solemnised in accordance with the tenets of Sharia law and was consequently in breach
of ss 7(2), 9(1), 9(2), 9(3), 9(5), 10, 15(1), 15(3), 28(2), 31 and 34 of the Constitution. The
WLC argued that s 7(2) of the Constitution obliged the State to prepare, initiate, introduce
and bring into operation legislation recognising Muslim marriages, and that the President
and Cabinet had failed to fulfil this obligation. In the alternative, it essentially sought orders
declaring the Marriage Act 25 of 1961 (the Marriage Act) and the Divorce Act 70 of 1979
8 Women’s Legal Centre Trust v President of the Republic of South Africa and Others 2009 (6) SA 94 (CC);
[2009] ZACC 20.
(the Divorce Act), as well as specified provisions thereof, unconstitutional insofar as they
fail to recognise and provide for Muslim marriages.
The Faro application
[9] In this application, Mrs Tarryn Faro, represented by the WLC, launched an
application against Ms Marjorie Bingham in her capacity as executrix of the estate of the
late Mr Moosa Ely, (to whom Mrs Faro had been married according to Islamic rites), the
Muslim Judicial Council (MJC), the Master of the High Court, Western Cape and the
Minister of Justice. The facts were as follows. On 28 March 2008, Mrs Faro and Mr Ely
concluded a Muslim marriage, which was terminated on 24 August 2009, when Mr Ely
issued a Talaq (an Islamic divorce). However, the Talaq was subsequently revoked when
Mr Ely and Mrs Faro resumed intimate marital relations. No further Talaq was pronounced
before Mr Ely died on 4 March 2010.
[10] On 8 April 2010, however, Mr Ely’s daughter from an earlier marriage, Ms Naziema
Bardien, obtained a certificate from the MJC, without Mrs Faro’s knowledge, declaring that
the marriage between Mrs Faro and Mr Ely had been annulled. On 21 April 2010, Mrs Faro
was appointed as the executrix of Mr Ely’s estate. The Master then informed her that Mr
Ely’s estate could not be wound-up until the dispute with regard to her marital status had
been resolved. After meeting with Ms Bardien and the MJC, the Master, on 7 December
2011, resolved that the Muslim marriage had been validly terminated. On 10 April 2012,
Ms Bingham was appointed as the executrix of Mr Ely’s estate and she then proceeded to
wind-up the estate.
[11] The WLC assisted Mrs Faro to lodge an objection to Mr Ely’s liquidation and
distribution account, but to no avail. In 2013, Mrs Faro launched an application in the high
court for relief that included: (a) the setting aside of the Master’s failure to uphold an
objection that would have resulted in the recognition of Mrs Faro as Mr Ely’s spouse for
the purposes of the Intestate Succession Act 81 of 1987 (Intestate Succession Act) and
the Maintenance of Surviving Spouses Act 27 of 1990 (the Maintenance of Surviving
Spouses Act); (b) for a declaration that Muslim marriages are deemed to be valid
marriages in terms of the Marriage Act; in the alternative, for a declaration that the common
law definition of marriage be extended to include Muslim marriages; and further in the
alternative, an order directing the Minister of Justice to put in place policies and procedures
in accordance with the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000 (PAJA), to
regulate the holding of enquiries by the Master into the validity of a Muslim marriage, where
persons purporting to be spouses of a Muslim marriage seek to claim benefits from a
deceased estate in terms of the provisions of the Intestate Succession Act and the
Maintenance of Surviving Spouses Act; and (c) declaring that the Minister’s failure to
implement such policies and procedures to be unlawful and unconstitutional. The matter
came before Rogers J, who upheld the relief claimed in (a), declaring that the marriage
between Mrs Faro and Mr Ely subsisted at the date of the latter’s death, and that she be
recognised as a ‘spouse’ for the purposes of the Intestate Succession Act, and as a
‘survivor’ for purposes of the Maintenance of Surviving Spouses Act. Mrs Faro thereafter
approached the high court in respect of the remaining issues.
The Esau application
[12] In this application, Mrs Ruwayda Esau launched an urgent application for an
interdict against Mr Esau, (with whom she had concluded a Muslim marriage in October
1999), the Government Employees Pension Fund (GEPF), the Minister of Justice, the
Cabinet of the Republic of South Africa and the MJC. The interdict was to prevent the
GEPF from paying out to Mr Esau 50% of his pension interest, pending an action to be
instituted by Mrs Esau for payment of the pension interest to her. The interdict was granted.
Mrs Esau’s claim in the action proceedings was premised on the State’s failure to enact
legislation recognising and regulating Muslim marriages, based on constitutional principles
and on the existence of a universal partnership. The issue of the constitutional claim was
separated from the other issues and it was heard in the high court in a consolidated
hearing.
Judgment of the high court.
[13] The three aforegoing applications, that of the WLC, Mrs Faro and Ms Esau, were
consolidated and came before the full bench of the Western Cape Division of the High
Court (the high court). Boqwana J (with whom Desai and Salie-Hlope JJ concurred) issued
the following order:
‘1. It is declared that the State is obliged by section 7(2) of the Constitution to respect, protect,
promote and fulfil the rights in sections 9, 10, 15, 28, 31 and 34 of the Constitution by preparing,
initiating, introducing, enacting and bringing into operation, diligently and without delay as required
by section 237 of the Constitution, legislation to recognise marriages solemnised in accordance
with the tenets of Sharia law (“Muslim marriages”) as valid marriages and to regulate the
consequences of such recognition.
2. It is declared that the President and the Cabinet have failed to fulfil their respective
constitutional obligations as stipulated in paragraph 1 above and such conduct is invalid.
3. The President and Cabinet together with Parliament are directed to rectify the failure within
24 months of the date of this order as contemplated in paragraph 1 above.
4. In the event that the contemplated legislation is referred to the Constitutional Court by the
President in terms of section 79(4)(b) of the Constitution, or is referred by members of the National
Assembly in terms of section 80 of the Constitution, the relevant deadline will be suspended
pending the final determination of the matter by the Constitutional Court;
5. In the event that legislation as contemplated in paragraph 1 above is not enacted within 24
months from the date of this order or such later date as contemplated in paragraph 4
above, and until such time as the coming into force thereafter of such contemplated legislation, the
following order shall come into effect:
5.1 It is declared that a union, validly concluded as a marriage in terms of Sharia law and which
subsists at the time this order becomes operative, may (even after its dissolution in terms
of Sharia law) be dissolved in accordance with the Divorce Act 70 of 1979 and all the provisions of
that Act shall be applicable, provided that the provisions of section 7(3) shall apply to such a union
regardless of when it was concluded; and
5.2 In the case of a husband who is a spouse in more than one Muslim marriage, the court shall:
(a) take into consideration all relevant factors including any contract or agreement and must make
any equitable order that it deems just; and
(b) may order that any person who in the court’s opinion has a sufficient interest in the matter be
joined in the proceedings.
5.3 If administrative or practical problems arise in the implementation of this order, any interested
person may approach this Court for a variation of this order.
5.4 The Department of Home Affairs and the Department of Justice shall publish a summary of
the orders in paragraphs 5.1 to 5.2 above widely in newspapers and on radio stations, whatever is
feasible, without unreasonable delay.
6. An order directing the Minister of Justice to put in place policies and procedures regulating
the holding of enquiries by the Master of the High Court into the validity of marriages solemnised
in accordance with the tenets of Islamic law is refused.
7. An order declaring the pro forma marriage contract attached as annexure “A” to the Women’s
Legal Centre Trust’s founding affidavit, to be contrary to public policy is refused.
8. In respect of matters under case numbers 22481/2014 and 4466/2013, the President, the
Minister of Justice and the Minister of Home Affairs are to pay the costs of the Women’s Legal
Centre Trust respectively, such costs to include costs of three counsel to the extent of their
employment.
9. In respect of the matter under case number 13877/2015:
9.1 Ruwayda Esau’s claim to a part of the Magamat Riethaw Esau’s estate, if any, is postponed
for hearing at trial along with Parts B and E of the particulars of claim.
9.2 The Cabinet and the Minister of Justice shall pay Ruwayda Esau’s costs in respect of Claim
A, such costs to include costs of two counsel to the extent of their employment.’
[14] The high court granted the President and the Minister of Justice leave to appeal to
this Court. It also granted the WLC and Mrs Esau leave to cross-appeal. The cross-appeal
of the WLC was directed at paras 5 and 6 of the order of the high court. Mrs Esau cross-
appealed to obtain effective interim relief pending the legislation envisaged in the order of
the high court. The WLC also obtained leave to conditionally cross-appeal: in the event of
the appeal succeeding in respect of the main relief, it would seek the granting of the
alternative relief that it had sought in the high court. The South African Human Rights
Commission (SAHRC) and Mrs Faro also opposed the appeal. The Commission for
Gender Equality and the United Ulama Council of South Africa (UUCSA) presented
argument to this Court as amici curiae.
[15] During argument in this Court the appellants made concessions that had a profound
impact on the determination of the appeal. After having had the opportunity to take specific
instructions, counsel for the appellants placed on record that they conceded that the
Marriage Act and the Divorce Act infringed the constitutional rights to equality, dignity and
access to justice of women in Muslim marriages in that they failed to recognise Muslim
marriages as valid marriages for all purposes. The appellants conceded too that the rights
of children born in Muslim marriages were, under s 28 of the Constitution, similarly
infringed. Thus the appellants, in essence, acceded to the alternative relief. These
concessions were made fairly and correctly, for the reasons elaborated upon in the high
court judgment. For present purposes it suffices to emphasise the following.
[16] The considerations that led Nkabinde J to conclude in Hassam9 that the differentiation
in respect of Muslim women amounted to discrimination on a ground listed in s 9(3), are of
equal application in this instance:
9 Hassam fn 7 paras 30-32.
‘The marriage between the applicant and the deceased, being polygynous, does not enjoy the
status of a marriage under the Marriage Act. The Act differentiates between widows married in
terms of the Marriage Act and those married in terms of Muslim rites; between widows in
monogamous Muslim marriages and those in polygynous Muslim marriages; and between widows
in polygynous customary marriages and those in polygynous Muslim marriages. The Act works to
the detriment of Muslim women and not Muslim men.
I am satisfied that the Act differentiates between the groups outlined above.
Having found that the Act differentiates between widows in polygynous Muslim marriages like the
applicant’s on the one hand, and widows who were married in terms of the Marriage Act, widows
in monogamous Muslim marriages and widows in polygynous customary marriages, on the other,
the question arises whether the differentiation amounts to discrimination on any of the listed
grounds in section 9 of the Constitution. The answer is yes. As I have indicated above our
jurisprudence on equality has made it clear that the nature of the discrimination must be analysed
contextually and in the light of our history. It is clear that in the past, Muslim marriages, whether
polygynous or not, were deprived of legal recognition for reasons which do not withstand
constitutional scrutiny today. It bears emphasis that our Constitution not only tolerates but
celebrates the diversity of our nation. The celebration of that diversity constitutes a rejection of
reasoning such as that to be found in Seedat’s Executors v The Master (Natal), where the court
declined to recognise a widow of a Muslim marriage as a surviving spouse because a
Muslim marriage, for the very reason that it was potentially polygynous, was said to be “reprobated
by the majority of civilised peoples, on grounds of morality and religion”.’
[17] In Moosa NO and Others v Minister of Justice and Correctional Services and
Others10 the Constitutional Court accurately described how the persistent non-recognition
of Muslim marriages infringed the right to dignity of Muslim women:
‘The non-recognition of her right to be treated as a “surviving spouse” for the purposes of the Wills
Act, and its concomitant denial of her right to inherit from her deceased husband’s will, strikes at
the very heart of her marriage of fifty years, her position in her family and her standing in her
community. It tells her that her marriage was, and is, not worthy of legal protection. Its effect is to
stigmatise her marriage, diminish her self-worth and increase her feeling of vulnerability as a
Muslim woman. Furthermore, as the WLC correctly submitted, this vulnerability is compounded
because there is currently no legislation that recognises Muslim marriages or regulates their
consequences.’
10 Moosa NO and Others v Minister of Justice and Correctional Services and Others [2018] ZACC 19; 2018
(5) SA 13 (CC) para 16.
[18] The rights to protection of children from Muslim marriages are infringed in that upon
the dissolution of the marriage they are not afforded the ‘automatic’ court oversight of s 6
of the Divorce Act in relation to their care and maintenance. In addition, they are not
protected by a statutory minimum age for consent to marriage. Neither s 24 of the Marriage
Act11 nor s 12(2)(a) of the Children’s Act 38 of 200512 are applicable. It goes without saying
that the non-recognition of Muslim marriages for women infringes the right to access to
courts under s 34 of the Constitution.
[19] In the light of the concessions made by the appellants, we requested the parties to
formulate a draft order by agreement or, at least, to find substantial common ground. For
this purpose the matter stood down from 26 August 2020 until 30 September 2020.
Nevertheless, the parties were unable to agree to a draft order. The appellants and the
WLC (supported by the SAHRC) each placed their own draft order before us. However, a
perusal of the draft orders indicated that a lot of common ground had indeed been found,
and that the issues for determination were reduced markedly. We appreciate the efforts
and inputs of the parties and the amici in this regard.
[20] In order to demonstrate the areas of agreement and the issues that remain for
decision, it is expedient to set out the draft order presented by the appellants, as amplified
in argument:
‘1.
The appeal and the cross-appeals succeed in part and the order of the court a quo is set
aside and replaced with the following order:
2.
The Marriage Act 25 of 1961 and the Divorce Act 70 of 1979 (the Divorce Act) are declared
to be inconsistent with sections 9,10, 28 and 34 of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa,
1996, in that they fail to recognise marriages solemnised in accordance with Sharia law (Muslim
11 Section 24 provides :
‘24 Marriage of minors:
(1) No marriage officer shall solemnize a marriage between parties of whom one or both are minors unless
the consent to the party or parties which is legally required for the purpose of contracting the marriage has
been granted and furnished to him in writing.
(2) For the purposes of subsection (1) a minor does not include a person who is under the age of twenty-one
years and previously contracted a valid marriage which has been dissolved by death or divorce.’
12 Section 12 provides:
‘12 Social, cultural and religious practices:
(1) . . .
(2) A child- (a) below the minimum age set by law for a valid marriage may not be given out in marriage or
engagement.’
marriages) as valid marriages (which have not been registered as civil marriages) as being valid
for all purposes in South Africa, and to regulate the consequences of such recognition.
3.
It is declared that s 6 of the Divorce Act is inconsistent with sections 9, 10, 28(2) and 34 of
the Constitution insofar as it fails to provide for mechanisms to safeguard the welfare of minor or
dependent children of Muslim marriages at the time of dissolution of the Muslim marriage in the
same or similar manners as it provides mechanisms to safeguard the welfare of minor or dependent
children of other marriages that are being dissolved.
4.
It is declared that s 7(3) of the Divorce Act is inconsistent with sections 9,10, and 34 of the
Constitution insofar as it fails to provide that at the dissolution of a Muslim marriage for the transfer
of assets of a spouse in a Muslim marriage where such spouse contributed directly or indirectly to
the maintenance or increase of the estate of the other party during the subsistence of the Muslim
marriage either by the rendering of services or the saving of expenses, which would otherwise
have been incurred or in any other manner.
5.
It is declared that s 9(1) of the Divorce Act is inconsistent with sections 9, 10 and 34 of the
Constitution insofar as it fails to make provision for the forfeiture of the patrimonial benefits of a
Muslim marriage at the time of its dissolution in the same or similar terms as is provided for in s
9(1) of the Divorce Act in respect of other marriages.
6.
The declarations of constitutional invalidity are referred to the Constitutional Court for
confirmation.
7.
The common law definition of marriage is declared to be inconsistent with the Constitution
and invalid to the extent that it excludes Muslim marriages.
8.
The declarations of invalidity in paras 2 to 5 above are suspended for a period of 24 months
to enable the President and Cabinet, together with Parliament to remedy the foregoing defects by
either amending existing legislation, or passing new legislation within 24 months, in order to ensure
the recognition of Muslim marriages as valid marriages for all purposes in South Africa and to
regulate the consequences arising from such recognition.
9.
Pending the coming into force of legislation or amendments to existing legislation referred
to in para 8:
9.1.
It is declared that a union, validly concluded as a marriage in terms of Sharia law and
subsisting at the date of this Order, or, which has been terminated in terms of Sharia law, but in
respect of which legal proceedings have been instituted and which proceedings have not been
finally determined as at the date of this order, may be dissolved in accordance with the Divorce Act
as follows:
9.1.1 all the provisions of the Divorce Act shall be applicable save that all Muslim marriages shall
be treated as if they are out of community of property “unless agreed otherwise”, and
9.1.2 the provisions of s 7(3) of Divorce Act shall apply to such a union regardless of when it was
concluded.
9.2. In the case of a husband who is a spouse in more than one Muslim marriage, the court
shall:
9.2.1 take into consideration all relevant factors including any contract or agreement and must
make any equitable order that it deems just, and;
9.2.2 may order that any person who in the court’s opinion has a sufficient interest in the matter
be joined in the proceedings.
9.3
It is declared that from the date of this order s 12(2) of the Children’s Act 38 of 2005 applies
to Muslim marriages concluded after the date of this order.
9.4
For the purpose of applying paragraph 9.3 above, the provisions of ss 3(1)(a), 3(3)(a) and
3(3)(b), 3(4)(a) and 3(4)(b), and 3(5) of the Recognition of Customary Marriages Act 120 of 1998
shall apply, mutatis mutandis to Muslim marriages.
9.5
If serious administrative or practical problems arise in the implementation of this order, any
interested person may approach this Court for a variation of this order.
9.6
The Department of Home Affairs and the Department of Justice shall publish a summary of
the orders in paragraphs 9.1 to 9.3 above widely in newspapers and on radio stations, whatever is
feasible, without unreasonable delay.
10. In the matter of Faro v The Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development and Others
(Case no 4466/2013), no order is made in relation to the cross-appeal. It is recorded that:
10.1 In recognition of the fact that there currently are no policies and procedures in place for
purposes of determining disputes arising in relation to the validity of Muslim marriages and the
validity of divorces granted by any person or association according to the tenets of Sharia law
(Muslim divorces) in circumstances where persons purport to be spouses in accordance with the
tenets of Sharia law of deceased persons and seek to claim benefits from a deceased estate in
terms of the provisions of the Intestate Succession Act and/or the Maintenance of Surviving
Spouses Act, the Minister of Justice undertakes within 18 months of the granting of this order to
put in place the necessary mechanisms to ensure that there is a procedure by which the Master
may resolve disputes arising in relation to the validity of Muslim marriages and Muslim divorces, in
all cases where a dispute arises as to whether or not the persons purport to be married in
accordance with the tenets of Sharia law to the deceased persons and seek to claim benefits from
a deceased estate in terms of the provisions of the Intestate Succession Act and/or the
Maintenance of Surviving Spouses Act ;
10.2 In the event that the Minister of Justice fails to comply with the undertaking in para 10.1,
the appellants may enrol the appeal in this Court on the same papers, duly supplemented with this
recordal, in order to seek further relief.
11.
The Appellants (the President and the Minister of Justice) shall in respect of the matter
under case no 13877/2015 (Esau) pay Ruwayda Esau’s costs in respect of claim A (including the
costs of the appeal and cross-appeal) such costs to include the costs of three counsel to the extent
of their employment.
12.
In respect of matters under Case nos 22481/2014 and 4466/2013:
12.1 Paragraph 8 of the order of the Western Cape High Court shall stand, in terms whereof the
President, the Minister of Justice and the Minister of Home Affairs are to pay the costs of the
Women’s Legal Centre Trust respectively, such costs to include the costs of three counsel to the
extent of their employment.
12.2
The President and the Minister of Justice shall pay the Women’s Legal Centre’s costs of
the appeal and the cross-appeal, such costs to include the costs of three counsel to the extent of
their employment.’
[21] The WLC and the SAHRC contended that the appeal against para 1 of the order of
the high court should be dismissed. This raised the question whether the Constitution
obliged the State to enact legislation. The WLC agreed that in the event of this question
being answered in the negative, orders should be made in terms of paras 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
of the appellants’ draft, save that paras 2 to 5 should include a reference to s 15 of the
Constitution. It was submitted that the relevant provisions are also inconsistent with s 15.
The WLC agreed that paras 6, 7, 8, 9.2, 9.3, 9.4, 9.5 and 9.6 should, in any event, be
granted. In respect of the regime to be put in place pending the coming into force of the
envisaged legislation, it proposed that the application of para 9.1 should not be limited to
existing Muslim marriages. Its stance was that the interim position as set out in para 9.1
should apply to all Muslim marriages which subsisted on or after 27 April 1994, regardless
of: when they were concluded; when they were dissolved (in terms of Sharia law); whether
litigation in respect of such dissolution and/or its consequences is pending; and
irrespective of the matrimonial property regime that applied. It suggested, however, that
this order should not invalidate a winding-up of a deceased estate that has been finalised
or the transfer of property by a party to the marriage that has been affected, unless: the
property is transferred to a person or legal entity connected to a party to the divorce action;
the transferee was aware at the time of transfer that the property formed part of assets in
a divorce action; or the transferee was married or had concluded a civil union with a party
to the divorce action. The draft orders reflected agreements that had been reached in the
Esau and Faro matters, and nothing more needs to be said about the issues in those
matters.
[22] It follows that the following issues remained for decision:
(a) Whether the Constitution places an obligation on the State to prepare, initiate, introduce
and bring into operation legislation to recognise Muslim marriages as valid marriages and
to regulate the consequences of such recognition;
(b) whether the provisions in question are inconsistent with s 15 of the Constitution; and
(c) whether the interim measure should have retrospective operation as contended for.
We address these issues in turn.
Is the State under an obligation to enact legislation under the Constitution
[23] The SAHRC contended that the State is bound by international instruments to which
it is a party, to enact legislation recognising and regulating Muslim marriages. Its argument
was based on four instruments that had been ratified by Parliament under s 231(2) of the
Constitution but not domesticated under s 231(4). They are:
(a) The United Nations Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination against
Women (CEDAW);
(b) the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (the ICCPR);
(c) the Protocol to the African Charter on Human and Peoples’ Rights on the Rights of
Women in Africa (the AC Women’s Protocol); and
(d) the SADC Protocol on Gender and Development (the SADC Gender Protocol).
[24] However, a perusal of the provisions relied upon, indicate that their purpose and
import are to advance equality between men and women or spouses. They require State
parties to enact legislation and take measures to this end. By way of example, we refer to
Article 16(1) of CEDAW;13 Article 23(4) of the ICCPR;14 Article 7 of the AC Women’s
Protocol15 and Article 8(1) of the SADC Gender Protocol.16 We were not referred to any
provision that requires legislation to establish equality between women that are married
under different marital regimes. In the result we find that these instruments do not oblige
the State to enact the legislation relevant to this matter.
13 Article 16(1) of CEDAW requires State parties to: ‘take all appropriate measures to eliminate discrimination
against women in all matters relating to marriage and family relations and in particular shall ensure, on a
basis of equality of men and women:
(a) The same right to enter into marriage;
(b) The same right freely to choose a spouse and to enter into marriage only with their free and full consent;
(c) The same rights and responsibilities during marriage and at its dissolution;
(d) The same rights and responsibilities as parents, irrespective of their marital status, in matters relating to
their children; in all cases the interests of the children shall be paramount;
(e) The same rights to decide freely and responsibly on the number and spacing of their children and to have
access to the information, education and means to enable them to exercise these rights;
(f) The same rights and responsibilities with regard to guardianship, wardship, trusteeship and adoption of
children, or similar institutions where these concepts exist in national legislation; in all cases the interests of
the children shall be paramount;
(g) The same personal rights as husband and wife, including the right to choose a family name, a profession
and an occupation;
(h) The same rights for both spouses in respect of the ownership, acquisition, management, administration,
enjoyment and disposition of property, whether free of charge or for a valuable consideration.’
14 Article 23(4) of the ICCPR provide that:
‘State Parties to the present Covenant shall take appropriate steps to ensure equality of rights and
responsibilities of spouses as to marriage and its dissolution. In the case of dissolution, provision shall be
made for the necessary protection of children.’
15 Article 7 provides that:
‘States Parties shall enact appropriate legislation to ensure that women and men enjoy the same rights in
case of separation, divorce or annulment of marriage. In this regard, they shall ensure that:
(a)
separation, divorce or annulment of a marriage shall be effected by judicial order;
(b)
women and men shall have the same rights to seek separation, divorce or annulment of a marriage;
(c)
in case of separation, divorce or annulment of marriage, women and men shall have reciprocal rights
and responsibilities towards their children. In any case, the interests of the children shall be given paramount
importance;
(d)
in case of separation, divorce or annulment of marriage, women and men shall have the right to an
equitable sharing of the joint property deriving from the marriage.’
16 Articles 8 (1), (2) and (3) of the SADC Protocol provide:
‘1.
State Parties shall enact and adopt appropriate legislative, administrative and other measures to
ensure that women and men enjoy equal rights in marriage and are regarded as equal partners in marriage.
2.
Legislation on marriage shall ensure that:
(a)
no person under the age of 18 shall marry unless otherwise specified by law which takes into account
the best interests and welfare of the child;
(b)
every marriage takes place with the free and full consent of both parties;
(c)
every marriage, including civil, religious, traditional or customary, is registered in accordance with
national laws; and
(d)
during the subsistence of their marriage the parties shall have reciprocal rights and duties towards
their children with the best interests of the children always being paramount.
3.
States Parties shall enact and adopt appropriate legislative and other measures to ensure that where
spouses separate, divorce or have their marriage annulled:
(a)
they shall have reciprocal rights and duties towards their children with the best interest of the children
always being paramount; and
(b)
they shall, subject to the choice of any marriage regime or marriage contract, have equitable share
of property acquired during their relationship.’
[25] As we have indicated, the WLC’s case was that s 7(2) of the Constitution placed an
enforceable obligation on the State to enact the legislation that it advocates for. Section 7
of the Constitution reads:
‘7 Rights
(1) This Bill of Rights is a cornerstone of democracy in South Africa. It enshrines the rights of all
people in our country and affirms the democratic values of human dignity, equality and freedom.
(2) The state must respect, protect, promote and fulfil the rights in the Bill of Rights.
(3) The rights in the Bill of Rights are subject to the limitations contained or referred to in section
36, or elsewhere in the Bill.’
[26] In arriving at its conclusion, on the issues relevant before this Court, the high court,
reasoned,17 inter alia:
‘Thus, as the State is under a section 7(2) duty “to respect, protect, promote and fulfil the rights in
the Bill of Rights”, this duty may be invoked where there is an alleged violation of rights in the Bill
of Rights by the State. This in turn may trigger the courts’ powers to determine whether the State
has fulfilled its obligations under section 7(2). How the State fulfils the duty is within its own power
to determine. However, what steps it takes must be “reasonable and effective”. The question of
what is reasonable and effective might be answered in part by examining the nature of the rights
violations and in part by international law, which courts are enjoined to consider when interpreting
the Bill of Rights.’
[27] The high court placed much reliance on Glenister v President of the Republic of
South Africa and Others18 where Moseneke DCJ and Cameron J, for the majority, said:19
‘The obligations in these [international] conventions are clear and they are unequivocal. They
impose on the Republic the duty in international law to create an anti-corruption unit that has the
necessary independence. That duty exists not only in the international sphere, and is enforceable
not only there. Our Constitution appropriates the obligation for itself, and draws it deeply into its
heart, by requiring the State to fulfil it in the domestic sphere. In understanding how it does so, the
starting point is s 7(2), which requires the State to respect, protect, promote and fulfil the rights in
the Bill of Rights. This court has held that in some circumstances this provision imposes a positive
obligation on the State and its organs “to provide appropriate protection to everyone through laws
and structures designed to afford such protection”. Implicit in s 7(2) is the requirement that the
17 Women's Legal Centre Trust v President of the Republic of South Africa and Others, Faro v Bingham
NO and Others, Esau v Esau and Others [2018] 4 All SA 551 (WCC); 2018 (6) SA 598 (WCC) para 178.
18 Glenister v President of the Republic of South Africa and Others 2011 (3) SA 347 (CC); [2011] ZACC 6.
19 Glenister fn 18 para 189.
steps the State takes to respect, protect, promote and fulfil constitutional rights must be reasonable
and effective.’
And:20
‘And since in terms of s 8(1), the Bill of Rights “binds the legislature, the executive, the judiciary
and all organs of state”, it follows that the executive, when exercising the powers granted to it under
the Constitution, including the power to prepare and initiate legislation, and in some circumstances
Parliament, when enacting legislation, must give effect to the obligations s 7(2) imposes on the
State.’
[28] In Glenister, the majority held that international law which was ratified had become
part of our law and part of our Constitution and this, therefore, imposed an obligation on
the State to legislate for an anti-corruption unit. The Glenister judgment was primarily
concerned with ss 39(1)(b) and 231 of the Constitution, two provisions in the Constitution
that regulate the impact of international law on the Republic. Both sections were concerned
with the State’s legal obligation in the international sphere. Section 39(1)(b) provides that
when interpreting the Bill of Rights, a court, tribunal or forum must consider international
law. Section 231(2) is directed at the Republic’s obligations under international law.
[29] It is important to look briefly to what transpired in Glenister. The applications
concerned the constitutional validity of two statutes (the two impugned laws), the National
Prosecuting Authority Amendment Act 56 of 2008 (NPAA Act) and the South African Police
Service Amendment Act 57 of 2008 (SAPSA Act). The gravamen of the complaint related
to the disbanding of the Directorate of Special Operations (DSO), a specialised crime-
fighting unit that was located within the National Prosecuting Authority (NPA), and its
replacement with the Directorate of Priority Crime Investigation (DPCI) which is located
within the South African Police Service (SAPS). It was the effect of these two statutes that
was at the centre of the challenge in Glenister.
[30] The majority judgment stressed that the Constitution did not, in express terms,
command that a corruption-fighting unit should be established, but espoused that s 7(2)
cast an especial duty upon the State to create efficient anti-corruption mechanisms.21
Moseneke DCJ and Cameron J said that ‘[i]n order to understand the content of the
20 Glenister fn 18 para 190.
21 Glenister fn 18 para 175.
constitutionally imposed requirement of independence we have to resort to international
agreements that bind the Republic’ and that ‘our Constitution takes into its very heart
obligations to which the Republic, through the solemn resolution of Parliament, has
acceded, and which are binding on the Republic in international law, and makes them the
measure of the State’s conduct in fulfilling its obligations in relation to the Bill of Rights’.22
[31] Moseneke DCJ and Cameron J held that the court’s obligation to consider
international law when interpreting the Bill of Rights was of pivotal importance, due to the
direct impact of s 39(1)(b). Thus, the Constitutional Court concluded in Glenister that the
fact that the Republic was bound under international law to create an anti-corruption unit,
with appropriate independence, was of the foremost interpretive significance in
determining whether the State had fulfilled its duty as required by s 7(2). In reaching this
conclusion the court said that ‘the fact that s 231(2) provides that an international
agreement that Parliament ratifies “binds the Republic” is of prime significance’ because it
‘makes it unreasonable for the State, in fulfilling its obligations under s 7(2), to create an
anti-corruption entity that lacks sufficient independence’.23 Notably the court pointed out
that ‘[i]t is possible to determine the content of the obligation s 7(2) imposes on the State
without taking international law into account’ but that ‘s 39(1)(b) makes it constitutionally
obligatory that we should’.24 In our view, it is thus clear that the Constitutional Court in
Glenister sourced the obligations imposed on the State from two provisions of the
Constitution which made it obligatory to do so.
[32] Thus, the true role that s 7(2) played in specific circumstances of Glenister,25 appears
from the following:
‘That the Republic is bound under international law to create an anti-corruption unit with appropriate
independence is of the foremost interpretive significance in determining whether the State has
fulfilled its duty to respect, protect, promote and fulfil the rights in the Bill of Rights, as s 7(2)
requires. Section 7(2) implicitly demands that the steps the State takes must be reasonable. To
create an anti-corruption unit that is not adequately independent would not constitute a reasonable
step. In reaching this conclusion, the fact that s 231(2) provides that an international agreement
that Parliament ratifies “binds the Republic” is of prime significance. It makes it unreasonable for
22 Glenister fn 18 para 178.
23 Glenister fn 18 para 194.
24 Glenister fn 18 para 201.
25 Glenister fn 18 para 194.
the State, in fulfilling its obligations under s 7(2), to create an anti-corruption entity that lacks
sufficient independence.’
[33] It is so that in Glenister it was stated that in some circumstances s 7(2) imposes a
positive obligation on the State.26 It relied on a dictum in Carmichele v Minister of Safety
and Security and Another (Centre for Applied Legal Studies Intervening) 2001 (4) SA 938
(CC) para 4427 where the court said:
‘Under both the IC [Interim Constitution] and the Constitution, the Bill of Rights entrenches the
rights to life, human dignity and freedom and security of the person. The Bill of Rights binds the
State and all of its organs. Section 7(1) of the IC [Interim Constitution] provided:
“This chapter shall bind all legislative and executive organs of State at all levels of government.”
Section 8(1) of the Constitution provides:
“The Bill of Rights applies to all law, and binds the Legislature, the Executive, the Judiciary and all organs of
State.’’
It follows that there is a duty imposed on the State and all of its organs not to perform any act that
infringes these rights. In some circumstances there would also be a positive component which
obliges the State and its organs to provide appropriate protection to everyone through laws and
structures designed to afford such protection.’
[34] These dicta do not prescribe that s 7(2) could oblige the State to enact legislation
on a specific subject, nor that a court may order it to do so. They state that there may be
a positive obligation on the State ‘to provide appropriate protection to everyone through
laws and structures designed to afford such protection’. What the appropriate protection
should be, is for the State to determine. This was put as follows in Glenister:28
‘Now plainly there are many ways in which the State can fulfil its duty to take positive measures to
respect, protect, promote and fulfil the rights in the Bill of Rights. This court will not be prescriptive
as to what measures the State takes, as long as they fall within the range of possible conduct that
a reasonable decision-maker in the circumstances may adopt. A range of possible measures is
therefore open to the State, all of which will accord with the duty the Constitution imposes, so long
as the measures taken are reasonable.’
26 Glenister fn 18 para 189.
27 Carmichele v Minister of Safety and Security and Another (Centre for Applied Legal Studies Intervening)
2001 (4) SA 938 (CC) para 44.
28 Glenister fn 18 para 191.
[35] Section 7(2) is a broad general provision that must be read in the context of the
Constitution and specifically in the context of the carefully constructed separation of
powers entrenched in the Constitution. The principle of separation of powers is crucial to
our democracy. The Constitutional Court has endorsed the principle of separation of
powers in various judgments. In Ex Parte Chairperson of the Constitutional Assembly: In
Re Certification of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa29 it was said:
‘The principle of separation of powers, on the one hand, recognises the functional independence
of branches of government. On the other hand, the principle of checks and balances focuses on
the desirability of ensuring that the constitutional order, as a totality, prevents the branches of
government from usurping power from one another. In this sense it anticipates the necessary or
unavoidable intrusion of one branch on the terrain of another. No constitutional scheme can reflect
a complete separation of powers: the scheme is always one of partial separation.’30
[36] In Doctors for Life International, the Constitutional Court said:31
‘The constitutional principle of separation of powers requires that other branches of government
refrain from interfering in parliamentary proceedings. This principle is not simply an abstract notion;
it is reflected in the very structure of our government. The structure of the provisions entrusting and
separating powers between the legislative, executive and judicial branches reflects the concept of
separation of powers. The principle “has important consequences for the way in which and the
institutions by which power can be exercised”. Courts must be conscious of the vital limits on
judicial authority and the Constitution's design to leave certain matters to other branches of
government. They too must observe the constitutional limits of their authority. This means that the
Judiciary should not interfere in the processes of other branches of government unless to do so is
mandated by the Constitution.’
[37] Further, in Doctors for Life International the following was said:32
‘But under our constitutional democracy, the Constitution is the supreme law. It is binding on all
branches of government and no less on Parliament. When it exercises its legislative authority,
Parliament “must act in accordance with, and within the limits of, the Constitution”, and the
supremacy of the Constitution requires that “the obligations imposed by it must be fulfilled”. Courts
29 Ex Parte Chairperson of the Constitutional Assembly: In Re Certification of the Constitution of the Republic
of South Africa 1996 (4) SA 744 (CC).
30 Ex Parte Chairperson fn 29 para 109. See also Glenister v President of the Republic of South Africa and
Others [2008] ZACC 19; 2009 (1) SA 287 (CC) para 35.
31 Doctors for Life International v Speaker of the National Assembly and Others 2006 (6) SA 416 (CC) para
37.
32 Doctors for Life fn 31 para 38.
are required by the Constitution “to ensure that all branches of government act within the law” and
fulfil their constitutional obligation.’
And later:33
‘Courts have traditionally resisted intrusions into the internal procedures of other branches of
government. They have done this out of comity and in particular, out of respect for the principle of
separation of powers. But at the same time they have claimed their right to intervene in order to
prevent any violation of the Constitution. To reconcile their judicial role to uphold the Constitution,
on the one hand and the need to respect the other branches of government, on the other, courts
have developed a settled practice or general rule of jurisdiction that governs judicial intervention in
the legislative process.’
And later still:34
‘The primary duty of the courts in this country is to uphold the Constitution and the law ‘’which they
must apply impartially and without fear, favour or prejudice”. And if in the process of performing
their constitutional duty, courts intrude into the domain of other branches of government, that is an
intrusion mandated by the Constitution. What courts should strive to achieve is the appropriate
balance between their role as the ultimate guardians of the Constitution and the Rule of law
including any obligation that Parliament is required to fulfil in respect of the passage of laws on the
one hand and the respect which they are required to accord to other branches of government as
required by the principle of separation of powers, on the other hand.’
[38] Similarly, in My Vote Counts NPC v Speaker of the National Assembly and
Others,35 s 32 of the Constitution was directly and expressly implicated. The issue was
whether Parliament had failed to fulfil an obligation the Constitution imposed on it in terms
of s 32 of the Constitution. Section 32 provides:
‘(1) Everyone has the right of access to-
(a) any information held by the state, and
(b) any information that is held by another person and that is required for the exercise of or
protection of any rights.
(2) National legislation must be enacted to give effect to this right, and may provide for reasonable
measures, to alleviate the administrative and financial burden on the State.’
33 Doctors for Life fn 31 para 68.
34 Doctors for Life fn 31 para 70.
35 My Vote Counts NPC v Speaker of the National Assembly and Others 2016 (1) SA 132 (CC); [2015] ZACC
31.
[39] As is clear from s 32, the State, in plain language, is specifically and expressly
obliged to enact legislation contemplated in s 32(2). The specific question raised in My
Vote Counts NPC was whether information on private funding of political parties was
information that was required to exercise the right to vote. In essence, what the applicant
required was information on the private funding of political parties to be made available in
a manner that required disclosure by way of legislation, as a matter of continuous course
rather than a once-off request. The State, the applicant contended, had failed to enact
national legislation by failing to comply with its obligations in terms of s 32 of the
Constitution. The respondents recognised the obligation that s 32(2) imposed but
contended that Parliament had fulfilled it by enacting the Promotion of Access to
Information Act 2 of 2000 (PAIA). The minority judgment concluded that Parliament had
failed to fulfil its constitutional obligation to enact the legislation in s 32(2) of the
Constitution.
[40] The majority in My Vote Counts held that PAIA was passed in compliance with s
32(2) of the Constitution, and focused on providing information in terms of s 32(1) of the
Constitution. It was for Parliament to make legislative choices as long as they were rational
and constitutionally compliant. The majority held:36
‘Despite its protestation to the contrary, what the applicant wants is but a thinly veiled attempt at
prescribing to Parliament to legislate in a particular manner. By what dint of right can the applicant
do so? None, in the present circumstances. That attempt impermissibly trenches on Parliament's
terrain; and that is proscribed by the doctrine of separation of powers.’
And:37
‘Also, we have demonstrated that the other basis of distinction, which is that the applicant is
seeking relief of a special kind, cannot succeed for the simple reason that what the applicant is
asking for flouts the separation of powers doctrine.’
The majority further said:38
‘According to the minority judgment, what South Africa must have is systematic disclosure. It may
well be that this is ideal; who knows? But that is not the issue. It is for Parliament to make legislative
choices as long as they are rational and otherwise constitutionally compliant.’
36 My Vote Counts NPC fn 35 para 156.
37 My Vote Counts NPC fn 35 para 172.
38 My Vote Counts NPC fn 35 para 155.
[41] Section 85 of the Constitution circumscribes that the power (not obligation) to prepare
and initiate legislation vests in the President and Cabinet. It provides that:
‘(1) The executive authority of the Republic is vested in the President.
(2) The President exercises the executive authority, together with the other members of the
Cabinet, by-
(a) implementing national legislation except where the Constitution or an Act of Parliament
provides otherwise;
(b) developing and implementing national policy;
(c) co-ordinating the functions of state departments and administrations;
(d) preparing and initiating legislation; and
(e) performing any other executive function provided for in the Constitution or in national
legislation.’
[42] Sections 4339 and 4440 of the Constitution stipulate that the legislative authority in
the national sphere of government is exclusively vested in Parliament. In terms of s 42(1)
39 Section 43 provides:
‘Legislative authority of the Republic
In the Republic, the legislative authority-
(a) of the national sphere of government is vested in Parliament, as set out in section 44;
(b) of the provincial sphere of government is vested in the provincial legislatures, as set out in section
104; and
(c) of the local sphere of government is vested in the Municipal Councils, as set out in section 156.’
40 Section 44 provides:
‘National legislative authority
(1) The national legislative authority as vested in Parliament-
(a) confers on the National Assembly the power-
(i) to amend the Constitution;
(ii) to pass legislation with regard to any matter, including a matter within a functional area listed in
Schedule 4, but excluding, subject to subsection (2), a matter within a functional area listed in Schedule 5;
and
(iii) to assign any of its legislative powers, except the power to amend the Constitution, to any legislative
body in another sphere of government; and
(b) confers on the National Council of Provinces the power-
(i) to participate in amending the Constitution in accordance with section 74;
(ii) to pass, in accordance with section 76, legislation with regard to any matter within a functional area
listed in Schedule 4 and any other matter required by the Constitution to be passed in accordance with
section 76; and
(iii) to consider, in accordance with section 75, any other legislation passed by the National Assembly.
(2) Parliament may intervene, by passing legislation in accordance with section 76 (1), with regard to a
matter falling within a functional area listed in Schedule 5, when it is necessary-
(a) to maintain national security;
(b) to maintain economic unity;
(c) to maintain essential national standards;
(d) to establish minimum standards required for the rendering of services; or
(e) to prevent unreasonable action taken by a province which is prejudicial to the interests of another
province or to the country as a whole.
(3) Legislation with regard to a matter that is reasonably necessary for, or incidental to, the effective
exercise of a power concerning any matter listed in Schedule 4 is, for all purposes, legislation with regard
to a matter listed in Schedule 4.
of the Constitution, Parliament consists of the National Assembly41 and the National
Council of Provinces.42 This legislative authority confers on the National Assembly and the
National Council of Provinces the power to pass legislation. It is the responsibility of
Parliament to make laws. The President and Cabinet are given a discretion as to the nature
and content of the legislation that it prepares and initiates. It must follow that the obligation
to enact legislation must be found outside of s 7(2) of the Constitution.
[43] We know of no authority, and we were not referred to any, where the court directed
the enactment of legislation outside of the parameters that we have mentioned, namely,
international law and specific constitutional obligations, and solely under s 7(2) of the
Constitution. In our view, for a court to order the State to enact legislation, on the basis of
s 7(2) alone, in order to realise fundamental rights would be contrary to the doctrine of
separation of powers, in light of the express provisions of ss 43, 44, and 85 of the
Constitution. As we have said, these sections vest the power to initiate legislation in the
President and Cabinet, and to adopt legislation in Parliament. This is not to say that this
Court is insulating itself from constitutional responsibility. It is for Parliament to make
legislative choices provided that they are rational and constitutionally compliant. And if they
are not, the court must act in terms of s 172 of the Constitution.43
(4) When exercising its legislative authority; Parliament is bound only by the Constitution, and must act in
accordance with, and within the limits of, the Constitution.’
41 Section 55(1) of the Constitution provides:
‘55 Powers of National Assembly
(1) In exercising its legislative power, the National Assembly may-
(a) consider, pass, amend or reject any legislation before the Assembly; and
(b) initiate or prepare legislation, except money Bills.
(2) The National Assembly must provide for mechanisms-
(a) to ensure that all executive organs of state in the national sphere of government are accountable to
it; and
(b) to maintain oversight of-
(i) the exercise of national executive authority, including the implementation of legislation; and
(ii) any organ of state.’
42 Section 68 of the Constitution provides:
‘Powers of National Council
In exercising its legislative power, the National Council of Provinces may-
(a) consider, pass, amend, propose amendments to or reject any legislation before the Council, in
accordance with this Chapter; and
(b) initiate or prepare legislation falling within a functional area listed in Schedule 4 or other legislation
referred to in section 76 (3), but may not initiate or prepare money.’
43 Section 172(1) provides:
‘(1) When deciding a constitutional matter within its power, a court-
(a) must declare that any law or conduct that is inconsistent with the Constitution is invalid to the extent of
its inconsistency; and
(b) may make any order that is just and equitable, including-
(i) an order limiting the retrospective effect of the declaration of invalidity; and
[44] As stated above, s 85(2) invests the executive authority with the power to prepare
and initiate legislation. Sections 43 and 44 make it clear that the National Legislative
authority is exclusively in the hands of Parliament. In our view, therefore, para 1 of the
order of the high court should be set aside and replaced with the declaratory orders that
the WLC had sought in the alternative, as encapsulated in the order set out below.
Section 15 of the Constitution
[45] Section 15 provides as follows:
‘Freedom of religion, belief and opinion
15. (1) Everyone has the right to freedom of conscience, religion, thought, belief and opinion.
(2) Religious observances may be conducted at state or state-aided institutions, provided that-
(a) those observances follow rules made by the appropriate public authorities;
(b) they are conducted on an equitable basis; and
(c) attendance at them is free and voluntary.
(3) (a) This section does not prevent legislation recognising-
(i) marriages concluded under any tradition, or a system of religious, personal or family law; or
(ii) systems of personal and family law under any tradition, or adhered to by persons professing a
particular religion.
(b) Recognition in terms of paragraph (a) must be consistent with this section and the other
provisions of the Constitution.’
[46] The Constitutional Court observed as follows in Minister of Home Affairs and Another
v Fourie and Another:44
‘The special provisions of s 15(3) are anchored in a section of the Constitution dedicated to
protecting freedom of religion, belief and opinion. In this sense they acknowledge the right to be
different in terms of the principles governing family life. The provision is manifestly designed to
allow Parliament to adopt legislation, if it so wishes, recognising, say, African traditional marriages,
or Islamic or Hindu marriages, as part of the law of the land, different in character from, but equal
in status to general marriage law. Furthermore, subject to the important qualification of being
consistent with the Constitution, such legislation could allow for a degree of legal pluralism under
which particular consequences of such marriages would be accepted as part of the law of the land.
(ii) an order suspending the declaration of invalidity for any period and on any conditions, to allow the
competent authority to correct the defect.’
44 Minister of Home Affairs and Another v Fourie and Another (Doctors for Life International and Others, Amici
curiae); Lesbian and Gay Equality Project and Others v Minister of Home Affairs and Others 2006 (1) SA
524 (CC) para 108.
The section “does not prevent” legislation recognising marriages or systems of family or personal
law established by religion or tradition. It is not peremptory or even directive, but permissive. It
certainly does not give automatic recognition to systems of personal or family law not accorded
legal status by the common law, customary law or statute.’ (Our emphasis.)
[47] Although the high court included a reference to s 15 of the Constitution in para 1 of
its order, it did not make a finding that any provisions of the Marriage Act or the Divorce
Act are inconsistent with the rights under s 15. This was also not the argument of the WLC.
The crux of its argument, quite correctly, was that the permissive powers in s 15(3) do not
prevent the legislation that it proposes. In the circumstances the aforesaid declarations of
unconstitutionality should not contain a reference to s 15.
Retrospectivity
[48] As we have said, the WLC requested that this Court’s order, granting interim relief,
be backdated to April 1994 and apply to Muslim marriages that had been dissolved under
Sharia law as far back as 26 years ago. This is a far-reaching proposal that goes a long
way beyond what it had sought in the high court and in the cross-appeal. This is a complex
subject and the proposed retrospectivity may have profound unforeseen circumstances.
Section 172(1) of the Constitution empowers this Court, upon a declaration of invalidity to
make any order that is just and equitable. But there is a fundamental reason why the
request should not be acceded to. It is the prerogative of Parliament to determine if and to
what extent the legislation that it enacts regarding Muslim marriages, should apply
retrospectively. The legislature is best placed to deal with the issue of retrospectivity. Only
when the court makes a final declaration of constitutional invalidity, without suspension
thereof, should it consider the consequences of the declaration and whether its
retrospective effect should be ameliorated on just and equitable grounds. In the result we
find that the interim measure proposed by the appellants is appropriate, fair and just.
Conclusion
[49] What this Court has done is craft an effective and comprehensive order in an
endeavour to cure the hardship suffered by parties to Muslim marriages, especially
vulnerable women and children, that will operate until appropriate legislation is put in place.
In the circumstances, for the reasons advanced, the orders granted by the high court must
be replaced and the interim relief in para 5 of the high court order cannot stand.
[50] The importance of recognising Muslim marriages in our constitutional democracy
cannot be gainsaid. In South Africa, Muslim women and children are a vulnerable group in
a pluralistic society such as ours. The non-recognition of Muslim marriages is a travesty
and a violation of the constitutional rights of women and children in particular, including,
their right to dignity, to be free from unfair discrimination, their right to equality and to
access to court. Appropriate recognition and regulation of Muslim marriages will afford
protection and bring an end to the systematic and pervasive unfair discrimination,
stigmatisation and marginalisation experienced by parties to Muslim marriages including,
the most vulnerable, women and children. The following words of Moseneke J in Daniels45
resonate:
‘I am acutely alive to the scorn and palpable injustice the Muslim community has had to endure in
the past on account of the legal non-recognition of marriages celebrated in accordance with Islamic
law. The tenets of our Constitution promises religious voluntarism, diversity and independence
within the context of the supremacy of the Constitution. The legislature has still not redressed, as
foreshadowed by the Constitution, issues of inequality in relation to Islamic marriages and
succession.’
[51] In the result the following order is made:
The appeal and the cross-appeals succeed in part and the order of the court a quo
is set aside and replaced with the following order:
‘1.1 The Marriage Act 25 of 1961 (the Marriage Act) and the Divorce Act 70 of 1979 (the
Divorce Act) are declared to be inconsistent with ss 9, 10, 28 and 34 of the Constitution of
the Republic of South Africa, 1996, in that they fail to recognise marriages solemnised in
accordance with Sharia law (Muslim marriages) as valid marriages (which have not been
registered as civil marriages) as being valid for all purposes in South Africa, and to regulate
the consequences of such recognition.
1.2 It is declared that s 6 of the Divorce Act is inconsistent with ss 9, 10, 28(2) and 34
of the Constitution insofar as it fails to provide for mechanisms to safeguard the welfare of
minor or dependent children of Muslim marriages at the time of dissolution of the Muslim
marriage in the same or similar manner as it provides mechanisms to safeguard the
welfare of minor or dependent children of other marriages that are being dissolved.
45 Daniels fn 6 para 108.
1.3
It is declared that s 7(3) of the Divorce Act is inconsistent with ss 9, 10, and 34 of
the Constitution insofar as it fails to provide for the redistribution of assets, on the
dissolution of a Muslim marriage, when such redistribution would be just.
1.4
It is declared that s 9(1) of the Divorce Act is inconsistent with ss 9, 10 and 34 of
the Constitution insofar as it fails to make provision for the forfeiture of the patrimonial
benefits of a Muslim marriage at the time of its dissolution in the same or similar terms as
it does in respect of other marriages.
1.5
The declarations of constitutional invalidity are referred to the Constitutional Court
for confirmation.
1.6
The common law definition of marriage is declared to be inconsistent with the
Constitution and invalid to the extent that it excludes Muslim marriages.
1.7 The declarations of invalidity in paras 1.1 to 1.4 above are suspended for a period
of 24 months to enable the President and Cabinet, together with Parliament to remedy the
foregoing defects by either amending existing legislation, or passing new legislation within
24 months, in order to ensure the recognition of Muslim marriages as valid marriages for
all purposes in South Africa and to regulate the consequences arising from such
recognition.
1.8 Pending the coming into force of legislation or amendments to existing legislation
referred to in para 1.7, it is declared that a union, validly concluded as a marriage in terms
of Sharia law and subsisting at the date of this order, or, which has been terminated in
terms of Sharia law, but in respect of which legal proceedings have been instituted and
which proceedings have not been finally determined as at the date of this order, may be
dissolved in accordance with the Divorce Act as follows:
(a)
all the provisions of the Divorce Act shall be applicable save that all Muslim
marriages shall be treated as if they are out of community of property, except where there
are agreements to the contrary, and
(b)
the provisions of s 7(3) of Divorce Act shall apply to such a union regardless of
when it was concluded.
(c)
In the case of a husband who is a spouse in more than one Muslim marriage, the
court shall:
(i)
take into consideration all relevant factors including any contract or agreement and
must make any equitable order that it deems just, and;
(ii)
may order that any person who in the court’s opinion has a sufficient interest in the
matter be joined in the proceedings.
1.9
It is declared that, from the date of this order, s 12(2) of the Children’s Act 38 of
2005 applies to Muslim marriages concluded after the date of this order.
1.10 For the purpose of applying paragraph 1.9 above, the provisions of ss 3(1)(a),
3(3)(a) and 3(3)(b), 3(4)(a) and 3(4)(b), and 3(5) of the Recognition of Customary
Marriages Act 120 of 1998 shall apply, mutatis mutandis, to Muslim marriages.
1.11 If administrative or practical problems arise in the implementation of this order, any
interested person may approach this Court for a variation of this order.
1.12 The Department of Home Affairs and the Department of Justice & Constitutional
Development shall publish a summary of the orders in paragraphs 1.1 to 1.9 above widely
in newspapers and on radio stations, whatever is feasible, without unreasonable delay.’
2. In the matter of Faro v The Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development and
Others (Case no 4466/2013), no order is made in relation to the cross-appeal. It is recorded
that:
2.1 In recognition of the fact that there currently are no policies and procedures in place
for purposes of determining disputes arising in relation to the validity of Muslim marriages
and the validity of divorces granted by any person or association according to the tenets
of Sharia law (Muslim divorces) in circumstances where persons purport to be spouses of
deceased persons in accordance with the tenets of Sharia law and seek to claim benefits
from a deceased estate in terms of the provisions of the Intestate Succession Act 81 of
1987 and/or the Maintenance of Surviving Spouses Act 27 of 1990, the Minister of Justice
undertakes within 18 months of the granting of this order to put in place the necessary
mechanisms to ensure that there is a procedure by which the Master may resolve disputes
arising in relation to the validity of Muslim marriages and Muslim divorces, in all cases
where a dispute arises as to whether or not the persons purport to be married in
accordance with the tenets of Sharia law to the deceased persons and seek to claim
benefits from a deceased estate in terms of the provisions of the Intestate Succession Act
81 of 1987 and/or the Maintenance of Surviving Spouses Act 27 of 1990;
2.2
In the event that the Minister of Justice fails to comply with the undertaking in para
2.1, the appellants may enrol the appeal in this Court on the same papers, duly
supplemented, in order to seek further relief.
3.
The Appellants (the President and the Minister of Justice) shall in respect of the
matter under case no 13877/2015 (Esau) pay Ruwayda Esau’s costs in respect of claim A
(including the costs of the appeal and cross-appeal) such costs to include the costs of
three counsel to the extent of their employment.
4.
In respect of the matters under Case nos 22481/2014 and 4466/2013:
4.1
Paragraph 8 of the order of the Western Cape Division of the High Court shall stand,
in terms whereof the President, the Minister of Justice and the Minister of Home Affairs are
to pay the costs of the Women’s Legal Centre Trust respectively, such costs to include the
costs of three counsel to the extent of their employment.
4.2
The President and the Minister of Justice shall pay the Women’s Legal Centre’s
costs of the appeal and the cross-appeal, such costs to include the costs of three counsel
to the extent of their employment.
__________________________
H K SALDULKER
JUDGE OF APPEAL
C H G VAN DER MERWE
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances:
President of the RSA & Another v Women’s Legal Centre Trust and Others
For appellants:
A A Gabriel SC, with her K Pillay SC and
S Humphrey
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Cape Town
State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For 1st respondent:
N Bawa, with her M O’ Sullivan and J L Williams
Instructed by:
WLC, Cape Town
Maduba Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For 5th respondent:
R Willis, with him A B Omar
Instructed by:
Z Omar Attorneys, Johannesburg
c/o C & A Friedlander, Cape Town
For 6th respondent:
M S Omar & Associates
Instructed by:
M S Omar Attorneys, Durban
Webbers Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For 7th respondent:
R Moultrie, with him S Kazee
Instructed by:
Bowman Gilfillan Inc, Sandton
c/o Bowman Gilfillan Inc, Cape Town
Matsepes Inc., Bloemfontein
For 1st amicus curiae:
M S Omar
Instructed by:
M S Omar & Associates, Durban
Webbers Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For 6th amicus curiae:
M Bishop, with him A Christians and
C McConnachie
Instructed by:
Legal Resources Centre, Cape Town
Legal Aid, Bloemfontein
Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development v Faro and Others
For appellant:
A A Gabriel SC, with her K Pillay SC and
S Humphrey
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Cape Town
State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For 1st respondent:
N Bawa, with her M O’ Sullivan and J L Williams
Instructed by:
WLC, Cape Town
Maduba Attorneys, Bloemfontein
Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development v Esau and Others
For appellant:
A A Gabriel SC, with her K Pillay SC and
S Humphrey
Instructed by:
State Attorney, Cape Town
State Attorney, Bloemfontein
For 1st respondent:
J de Waal SC, with him A Newton, P Olivier and
B Wharton
N Rawoot Attorney at Law, Cape Town
E G Cooper Majiedt Inc., Bloemfontein | SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA STATEMENT – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
18 December 2020
STATUS
Immediate
President of the RSA and Another v Women’s Legal Centre Trust and Others;
Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development v Faro and Others; and
Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development v Esau and Others (Case no
612/19) [2020] ZASCA 177 (18 December 2020)
______________________________________________________________
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media and does not form
part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
The Supreme Court of Appeal (the SCA) today upheld the appeal and cross-appeals in part;
setting aside and replacing the order of the Western Cape Division of the High Court (high
court). The issue before the SCA was whether the Constitution placed an obligation on the
State to prepare, initiate, introduce and bring into operation legislation to recognise Muslim
marriages as valid marriages and to regulate the consequences of such recognition.
In 2009, the Women’s Legal Centre Trust (the WLC), an organisation established to advance
women’s rights by conducting constitutional litigation and advocacy on gender issues,
approached the Constitutional Court for direct access in terms of s 167 of the Constitution. The
application was dismissed on the basis that no proper case had been made out for direct access
and so the matter was not properly before the court. During November 2015, the WLC launched
a semi-urgent application in the high court against the President of the Republic of South Africa
(the President), the Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development (Minister of Justice),
the Minister of Home Affairs, the Speaker of the National Assembly, and the Chairperson of the
National Council of Provinces. The WLC contended that the State had failed to recognise and
regulate marriages solemnised in accordance with the tenets of Sharia law and was
consequently in breach of ss 7(2), 9(1), 9(2), 9(3), 9(5), 10, 15(1), 15(3), 28(2), 31 and 34 of
the Constitution. The WLC argued that s 7(2) of the Constitution obliged the State to prepare,
initiate, introduce and bring into operation legislation recognising Muslim marriages, and that
the President and Cabinet had failed to fulfil this obligation. In the alternative, it essentially
sought orders declaring the Marriage Act 25 of 1961 (the Marriage Act) and the Divorce Act 70
of 1979 (the Divorce Act), as well as specified provisions thereof, unconstitutional insofar as
they failed to recognise and provide for Muslim marriages.
Three applications which were consolidated came before the high court, that of the WLC, Mrs
Faro and Mrs Esau. The high court declared that the State was obliged by s 7(2) of the
Constitution to respect, protect, promote and fulfil the rights in ss 9, 10, 15, 28, 31 and 34 of
the Constitution by preparing, initiating, introducing, enacting and bringing into operation,
legislation to recognise marriages solemnised in accordance with the tenets of Sharia law as
valid marriages and to regulate the consequences of such recognition. Further the high court
declared that the President and Cabinet had failed to fulfil their respective constitutional
obligations and such conduct was invalid. The high court granted the President and the Minister
of Justice (the appellants) leave to appeal to the SCA and also granted the WLC and Mrs Esau
leave to cross-appeal.
During argument in the SCA the appellants made concessions that had a profound impact on
the determination of the appeal. After having had the opportunity to take specific instructions,
counsel for the appellants placed on record that they conceded that the Marriage Act and the
Divorce Act infringed the constitutional rights to equality, dignity and access to justice of women
in Muslim marriages in that they failed to recognise Muslim marriages as valid marriages for all
purposes. The appellants conceded too that the rights of children born in Muslim marriages
were, under s 28 of the Constitution, similarly infringed.
The SCA held that the importance of recognising Muslim marriages in our constitutional
democracy cannot be gainsaid. In South Africa, Muslim women and children were a vulnerable
group in a pluralistic society such as ours. The SCA held further that the non-recognition of
Muslim marriages was a travesty and a violation of the constitutional rights of women and
children in particular, including, their right to dignity, to be free from unfair discrimination, their
right to equality and to access to court.
The SCA, inter alia, made the following order: 1.The appeal and the cross-appeals succeed in
part and the order of the high court is set aside and replaced with the following order: ‘1.1 The
Marriage Act 25 of 1961 (the Marriage Act) and the Divorce Act 70 of 1979 (the Divorce Act)
are declared to be inconsistent with ss 9, 10, 28 and 34 of the Constitution of the Republic of
South Africa, 1996, in that they fail to recognise marriages solemnised in accordance with
Sharia law (Muslim marriages) as valid marriages (which have not been registered as civil
marriages) as being valid for all purposes in South Africa, and to regulate the consequences of
such recognition. 1.2 It is declared that s 6 of the Divorce Act is inconsistent with ss 9, 10, 28(2)
and 34 of the Constitution insofar as it fails to provide for mechanisms to safeguard the welfare
of minor or dependent children of Muslim marriages at the time of dissolution of the Muslim
marriage in the same or similar manner as it provides mechanisms to safeguard the welfare of
minor or dependent children of other marriages that are being dissolved. 1.3 It is declared that
s 7(3) of the Divorce Act is inconsistent with ss 9, 10, and 34 of the Constitution insofar as it
fails to provide for the redistribution of assets, on the dissolution of a Muslim marriage, when
such redistribution would be just. 1.4 It is declared that s 9(1) of the Divorce Act is inconsistent
with ss 9, 10 and 34 of the Constitution insofar as it fails to make provision for the forfeiture of
the patrimonial benefits of a Muslim marriage at the time of its dissolution in the same or similar
terms as it does in respect of other marriages.1.5 The declarations of constitutional invalidity
are referred to the Constitutional Court for confirmation. 1.6 The common law definition of
marriage is declared to be inconsistent with the Constitution and invalid to the extent that it
excludes Muslim marriages. 1.7 The declarations of invalidity in paras 1.1 to 1.4 above are
suspended for a period of 24 months to enable the President and Cabinet, together with
Parliament to remedy the foregoing defects by either amending existing legislation, or passing
new legislation within 24 months, in order to ensure the recognition of Muslim marriages as
valid marriages for all purposes in South Africa and to regulate the consequences arising from
such recognition. 1.8 Pending the coming into force of legislation or amendments to existing
legislation referred to in para 1.7, it is declared that a union, validly concluded as a marriage in
terms of Sharia law and subsisting at the date of this order, or, which has been terminated in
terms of Sharia law, but in respect of which legal proceedings have been instituted and which
proceedings have not been finally determined as at the date of this order, may be dissolved in
accordance with the Divorce Act as follows: (a) all the provisions of the Divorce Act shall be
applicable save that all Muslim marriages shall be treated as if they are out of community of
property, except where there are agreements to the contrary, and (b) the provisions of s 7(3)
of Divorce Act shall apply to such a union regardless of when it was concluded. (c) In the case
of a husband who is a spouse in more than one Muslim marriage, the court shall: (i) take into
consideration all relevant factors including any contract or agreement and must make any
equitable order that it deems just, and; (ii) may order that any person who in the court’s opinion
has a sufficient interest in the matter be joined in the proceedings. 1.9 It is declared that, from
the date of this order, s 12(2) of the Children’s Act 38 of 2005 applies to Muslim marriages
concluded after the date of this order’.
The SCA made other ancillary orders in respect of Mrs Faro and Mrs Esau. |
1503 | non-electoral | 2008 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
CASE NO: 722/2007
No precedential significance
DIGICORE FLEET MANAGEMENT (PTY) LTD
Appellant
and
MARYANNE STEYN
1st Respondent
SMARTSURV WIRELESS (PTY) LTD
2nd Respondent
Neutral citation: Digicore Fleet Management v Steyn (722/2007) [2008]
ZASCA 105 (22 September 2008)
Coram:
SCOTT, BRAND, LEWIS, JAFTA JJA MHLANTLA AJA
Heard:
8 September 2008
Delivered:
22 September 2008
Summary:
Appeal against order refusing enforcement of contract in
restraint of trade dismissed: proprietary interest of appellant not
threatened by first respondent after termination of her employment with
appellant and on her employment by a competitor, the second
respondent.
______________________________________________________________
ORDER
On appeal from: High Court, Durban (Van der Reyden J sitting as court of
first instance)
The appeal is dismissed with costs.
JUDGMENT
LEWIS JA (Scott, Brand and Jafta JJA and Mhlanthla AJA concurring)
[1] The appellant, Digicore Fleet Management (Pty) Ltd (Digicore), seeks
to enforce an undertaking in restraint of trade made in its favour by the
respondent, Ms Maryanne Steyn. Digicore applied for an interdict,
alternatively interim relief, restraining Steyn from working for the second
respondent, Smartsurv Wireless (Pty) Ltd, a competitor of Digicore, for a
period of 24 months from the termination of her employment with Digicore, in
the greater Durban area. The high court refused the relief sought, finding that
the undertaking in restraint of trade was unenforceable. Van der Reyden J
granted leave to appeal to this court, however, on the basis that another court
might reach a different conclusion especially in so far as interim relief is
concerned. Smartsurv has played no role in this appeal.
[2] The facts in issue are largely undisputed and I shall deal with them only
briefly. Steyn was employed by Digicore from May to December 2006 as a
‘sales executive’ for motor vehicle tracking devices. She signed a contract of
employment that required her to maintain confidentiality in her work during the
course of her employment, and that restrained her from competing with
Digicore after the termination of her employment.
[3] Digicore’s business consists in the main of selling various kinds of
vehicle tracking systems to vehicle owners. It sells to fleet owner clients that
require systems to track vehicles in a fleet; to corporate clients that require
vehicle recovery systems to protect against theft, and trace stolen vehicles;
and to individual customers who purchase the second kind of tracking
systems for themselves.
[4] When Steyn joined Digicore she had previous experience in selling
tracking systems, and had also worked in the insurance business for a while.
She was particularly attractive and useful to Digicore because of her contacts
with insurance brokers in the Durban area who would refer potential clients to
her when they acquired new vehicles and wished to insure them against theft.
[5] The period of Steyn’s employment with Digicore was short: she was
approached by Smartsurv towards the end of 2006 and offered a more
lucrative position. She gave notice to Digicore and commenced working for
Smartsurv in January 2007. Digicore learned of approaches to two of their
clients by Steyn in early 2007 and commenced proceedings to prevent her
from working for Smartsurv or to compete with it for the period of the restraint
undertaking that she had made.
[6] The restraint provision in the employment contract reads:
‘19 RESTRAINT UNDERTAKINGS
19.1 The employee shall be restrained for a period of 2 years from the date of
termination of this Agreement from working within a 200km radius of the Durban
North area and / or be:
19.1.1 Directly or indirectly having any interest in (sic), involvement with, connection
to or being employed by any company, corporation, firm, partnership, association or
other form of business entity, whether incorporated or unincorporated (for
convenience “Competing Business”), which conducts business along lines similar to
or in competition with that of the employer; and
19.1.2 Acting as employee, director, shareholder, member, partner, consultant,
financier, agent or advisor to any Competing Business in respect of the Restrained
Activities in the aforementioned areas; and
19.1.3 Directly or indirectly soliciting or offering employment to any employee of the
employer who was an employee as at the date of signature of this Agreement, or at
any time within 3 (three) months preceding the date of signature of this Agreement,
nor shall they attempt to do so;
19.2 The employee acknowledges that these restraint of trade undertakings and
covenants are reasonable as to the period, the area of restraint and the nature and
extent of the Restrained Activities.’
[7] It is now trite that provisions in restraint of trade are enforceable unless
shown by the person wishing to escape an undertaking to be unreasonable
and hence contrary to public policy. It is not necessary to rehearse the
principles that have been set out by this and other courts governing
agreements in restraint of trade. Suffice it to say that Steyn, in order to escape
her contractual undertaking, must show that Digicore has no proprietary
interest that is threatened by her working for a competitor of Digicore.
[8] Digicore contends that the restraint is reasonably necessary to protect
its interest in its customer base because, when Steyn commenced her
employment with it, she underwent an induction programme and had training
and support that enabled her to market and sell Digicore’s stolen vehicle
recovery systems. They contend that she was provided with a client list with
names and contact details, including the information on the products
previously acquired by clients. Such information was alleged to be confidential
and part of Digicore’s goodwill. Moreover, Digicore argues, Steyn had access
not just to client information but also to details regarding confidential discounts
given to certain clients.
[9] Steyn’s response (which we must accept, these being motion
proceceedings) is that she was not trained by Digicore and did not undergo
any induction programme. She was given no support save for receiving a
laptop computer, a cellular telephone, and brochures describing Digicore’s
products. She was given no confidential client information save for the details
of about 20 clients whom a previous sales executive had cultivated. Digicore
had previously concentrated on corporate and fleet management clients. By
contrast, she had brought with her contacts with insurance brokers, and had
continued to cultivate those contacts. She had also shared the information
that she had with another sales executive at Digicore, Mr Stanley Strydom,
with whom she worked. During her employment with Digicore she continued
to work on her contacts and had followed them up when she started working
for Smartsurv.
[10] Steyn, as I have said, came to Digicore with experience in the field of
tracking devices: she had previously been employed by a company referred to
as Tracker Network, and subsequently by Bandit Vehicle Tracking. She had
also worked for an insurance brokerage. When she left Digicore she took with
her no more than she had brought to the business in the first place:
experience in the field and contacts with insurance brokers in the Durban
area. It can hardly be said, in the circumstances, that Digicore had any
proprietary right that was in jeopardy when she left to work for a competitor.
[11] There are two particular instances where Digicore alleges that Steyn
did approach its fleet management clients: she contacted Mr Rob Currie, a
client of Digicore, to canvas his business for Smartsurv, and she contacted Mr
Dieter Coetzee, also a Digicore client, and suggested that he move his
business to Smartsurv. Steyn denies any knowledge of Currie, and although
admitting that she contacted Coetzee, points out that he declined to move his
company’s business to Smartsurv. In neither case, therefore, can it be said
that she breached any obligation to Digicore.
[12] Steyn contends – and Digicore does not dispute this – that her value to
Digicore lay in her contacts with insurance brokers, a source of business
previously untapped by Digicore. Digicore accordingly had no proprietary
interest in her contacts and thus no right to prevent her from using them. She
maintains also that she did not acquire any confidential information while
working at Digicore. Although Digicore claimed that she had access to their
databases, Steyn denies that she had access to anything that was not in the
public domain.
[13] Accordingly this matter is entirely different from that in Reddy v
Siemens Telecommunications (Pty) Ltd,1 relied on by counsel for Digicore,
where a restraint was enforced on the basis that the employee had in fact
undergone extensive training and acquired confidential information which
warranted protection.
[14] It seems to me that, on the facts that are common cause, Steyn has
shown that Digicore did not have any proprietary interest that warranted
protection. It is useful to invoke the fourfold test enunciated by Nienaber JA in
Basson v Chilwan:2
(a) Is there an interest of the one party (Digicore) which pursuant to the
agreement warrants protection?
(b) Is that interest threatened by the other party (Steyn)?
(c) If so, does that interest weigh qualitatively and quantitatively against the
interest of the other so that he or she will be economically inactive and
unproductive?
(d) Is there another aspect of public interest that does not affect the parties
but does require that the restraint not be invoked?
[15] The answers to these questions in this case are in my view clear.
Digicore does have a proprietary interest in its client base, and information
1 2007 (2) SA 486 (SCA).
2 1993 (3) SA 742 (A) at 768F-H.
about it, that deserves protection. However, Steyn presents no threat to that
interest: she is using only her own contacts and information, acquired before
joining Digicore, and not making improper use of information that is
confidential to Digicore. Indeed, Digicore’s admitted main business is its fleet
management systems. Steyn had no experience of them or the fleet
management clients either before or after she joined Digicore, and made no
attempt to break into that area of the business.
[16] To the third question I would suggest that given the very short period of
Steyn’s employment by Digicore, the fact that she was recruited for her
contacts with insurance brokers, and that she was doing no more than
cultivating them when she worked there and then subsequently for Smartsurv,
Digicore’s interest cannot be regarded qualitatively or quantitatively as
warranting protection.3 To prevent Steyn from being economically active – by
enforcing the restraint – would not be reasonable. There is no commercial
justification for enforcing the provision in restraint of trade against Steyn. The
fourth question does not arise here.
[17] Accordingly the high court rightly found that any threat that Steyn’s
employment with Smartsurv might have posed did not ‘weigh qualitatively and
quantatively against her interest to be economically active and productive’ and
correctly refused to interdict her from working for Smartsurv or working in the
vehicle tracking business.
3 See in this regard Rawlins v Caravantruck (Pty) Ltd 1993 (1) SA 537 (A) at 541F-I.
[18] In so far as the alternative relief sought – the interim interdict – is
concerned, Digicore has shown neither an apprehension that any right will be
infringed by Steyn, nor that the balance of convenience favours interim relief
in its favour.
[19] The appeal is dismissed with costs.
______________
C H Lewis
Judge of Appeal
Appearances:
For Appellant:
F H Tereblanche SC
H R Fourie
Instructed by:
Edelstein Bosman Inc, Durban
Israel & Sackstein Matsepe Inc, Bloemfontein
For Respondent:
F Rautenbach
Instructed by:
Irish Ashman Attorneys, Durban
Lovius Block, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY – JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL
22 September 2008
STATUS: Immediate
Digicore Fleet Management v Steyn
Please note that the media summary is intended for the benefit of the media
and does not form part of the judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal
The Supreme Court of Appeal today dismissed an appeal against a decision
of the Durban High Court, refusing an interdict restraining Mrs Maryanne
Steyn from working for a competitor after leaving the employment of Digicore.
Although Steyn had signed an agreement in which she undertook not to work
for a competitor of Digicore for two years after the termination of her
employment, in the greater Durban area, the court found that Digicore did not
have a proprietary interest that was threatened by Steyn. She had acquired
no confidential information while in the employ of Digicore, and had taken with
her when she left no more than she had brought to Digicore in the first place –
her own experience, expertise and contacts. The restraint was thus not
reasonable and was accordingly unenforceable.
_____________ |
3024 | non-electoral | 2015 | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Case No: 00093/2015
Reportable
In the matter between:
RICHARD NEGONDENI
APPELLANT
and
THE STATE
RESPONDENT
Neutral citation:
Negondeni v the State (00093/15) [2015] ZASCA 132
(29 September 2015)
Coram:
Leach, Willis and Mathopo JJA
Heard:
28 August 2015
Delivered:
29 September 2015
Summary:
Criminal trial – accused given no warning of prospect of minimum
sentence – accused having incompetent legal representative selected by the judge –
s 112 of Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 not properly applied – accused did not
have a fair trial - conviction and sentence set aside – matter remitted to the court a
quo for trial de novo before a different judge.
___________________________________________________________________
ORDER
On appeal from: Limpopo Local Division of the High Court, Thohoyandou, (Renke
AJ sitting as the court of first instance)
The appeal is upheld.
The convictions and sentences in respect of all counts are set aside.
The case is remitted to the court a quo for trial de novo before a different
judge.
JUDGMENT
Willis JA (Leach and Mathopo JJA concurring):
[1] The appellant, Mr Richard Negondeni, was indicted in the Limpopo Local
Division, Thohoyandou High Court (Renke AJ) on a count of murder, a count of
robbery and two counts of rape. He pleaded guilty in terms of s 112 of the Criminal
Procedure Act 51 of 1977 (the Criminal Procedure Act) and was convicted on all four
counts. He was sentenced to life imprisonment on the count of murder, with which
lesser sentences imposed on the other counts were ordered to run concurrently.
With the leave of this court, he appeals against his convictions and sentences on all
counts.
[2] The indictment alleges, in relation to the murder count, that the appellant
killed an adult female, Ms Ntsombeni Makhanye (the deceased), on 2 April 2002 at
Ha-Dumasi, in the district of Thohoyando; in relation to the first count of rape that he
did so in respect of the same person at the same place at about the same time; in
relation to the count of robbery that, using force and violence, he took the
deceased’s cellular telephone from her at about the same place and time; and, in
relation to the second count of rape, that he committed the crime on 6 February 1999
at the Thohoyando Technical School, his victim having been another woman, Ms
Sylvia Netshiavha. The indictment made no reference to the prescribed minimum
sentences set out in the Criminal Law Amendment Act 105 of 1997.
[3] In the summary of substantial facts annexed to the indictment it is alleged
that ‘before leaving the scene (where the rape of the deceased had been
committed), the accused robbed the victim and then stoned her to death.’ It is also
alleged that the deceased’s decomposed body was recovered in the bush at Ha-
Dumasi on 11 July 2002 and that: ‘The cause of death could not be determined
because of the advanced state of decomposition of the deceased’s body.’ In respect
of the second count of rape, the summary alleges that the victim was forcefully taken
by the appellant from a shopping complex and then raped in the bush at knife-point.
[4] At the commencement of the appellant’s trial on 19 February 2007, the state
prosecutor informed the court that he had been given to understand, from the court
orderlies, that the appellant no longer wished to be represented by his legal
representative, appointed by ‘the Law Clinic’. The appellant’s legal representative
appeared to have been taken by surprise by this and said: ‘I have never heard
anything. Can he just speak for himself?’ The judge then asked the appellant
whether he had ‘a problem’. The appellant replied that he did not have a problem ‘so
far’ but said: ‘It is just that we have not yet finished a consultation.’ After further
questioning, the appellant repeated his complaint that: ‘We have not consulted
sufficiently.’ The judge then said that the trial should proceed but the appellant could
consult with his legal representative during the adjournments of the court.
[5] The counts were then put to the appellant. He pleaded guilty to the first count
of murder but, immediately thereafter, when asked by the judge to confirm this, said:
‘Maybe I did not understand well.’ Further discussions took place between the
appellant and the judge whereupon the appellant said: ‘I do understand but when I
am asked to plead on the charge of murder I am not so sure as to whether I should
plead not guilty or I should explain the circumstances.’ The court then decided that
the matter should stand down to the next day so that the appellant could consult
more fully with his legal representative. His legal representative then informed the
court that he would not be available the next day. At this, the court said:
‘I do not want, and I will not tolerate any further delays in the proceedings. The witnesses
are inconvenienced and so am I, and I want to proceed with this matter tomorrow. I
personally arranged with experienced counsel, Mr Dzumba, to come down now to see him.
Mr Dzumba will take over his defence.’
[6] The next day the trial proceeded with counsel, Mr Dzumba, appearing as the
appellant’s legal representative. At the commencement of the proceedings on that
day the court asked the appellant whether he was satisfied ‘with the change in his
legal representation’. The appellant replied: ‘I am satisfied.’
[7] The appellant was then asked to plead once more, and on this occasion he
pleaded guilty to all four counts. Mr Dzumba then read into the record a written
statement by the appellant in terms of s 112 of the Criminal Procedure Act. It reads
as follows:
‘1. I, the undersigned, RICHARD NEGONDENI, hereinafter referred to as Accused, do
hereby plead guilty to all the four counts, namely that of murder, rape, robbery and rape, and
explain as follows for the first three counts:
2. On the 2nd April 2002 as indicated in the indictment, I met the deceased NTSOMBENI
MAKHANYE at the Thohoyandou Shopping Complex.
3. I asked her to accompany me to Ha-Dumasi and we boarded the taxi together.
4. On arrival at Ha-Dumasi we sat in some bushes and I forced to have sexual intercourse
with her, without her consent.
5. We quarreled and I hit her on the head with a stone. She fell down and never spoke
again. I then got shocked, frustrated and confused.
6. I took her cellphone and left for home. I decided to tell nobody about what had happened.
7. In connection with count 4, I plead also guilty to the second charge of rape. I admit that I
met one Sylvia Netshiavha at the Thohoyandou Shopping Centre on the 6th February 1999.
8. I proposed love to her and together we went to Block F not far from the Thohoyandou
Technical School.
9. In the buses not far from the said school I forced one Sylvia Netshiavha to have sexual
intercourse with me without her consent.
10. Afterwards, the victim, one Sylvia Netshiavha, reported the matter to the police and I was
arrested later that day.
I know and understand that it is unlawful to kill another person intentionally without any
justifiable ground.
I further know that it is unlawful to intentionally take another person’s property without her
permission.
I further know that it is unlawful to intentionally have sexual intercourse with a female person
without her consent.’
[8] The judge then asked the appellant whether the statement was correct. The
appellant confirmed that it was. The judge then enquired from the appellant as to the
size of the stone that was used to hit the deceased. After the appellant had
demonstrated, it was agreed among all concerned that it was ‘about the size of a
soccer ball’1. The court then proceeded to find the appellant guilty on all four counts.
[9] The first issue that arises is whether this terse statement, especially insofar as
it relates to the count of murder, is sufficient to satisfy the requirements of s 112
(1)(b) of the Criminal Procedure Act which reads as follows:
‘the presiding judge, regional magistrate or magistrate shall, if he or she is of the opinion that
the offence merits punishment of imprisonment or any other form of detention without the
option of a fine or of a fine exceeding the amount determined by the Minister from time to
time by notice in the Gazette, or if requested thereto by the prosecutor, question the accused
with reference to the alleged facts of the case in order to ascertain whether he or she admits
the allegations in the charge to which he or she has pleaded guilty, and may, if satisfied that
1 In S v Makhaya 2004 (1) SACR 444 (C); JOL 12062 (C) it was held that it is ‘undesirable that the
accused should do any demonstration in court’ for purposes of section 112(1)(b) but, in the
circumstances of this case that issue is irrelevant.
the accused is guilty of the offence to which he or she has pleaded guilty convict the
accused on his or her plea of guilty of that offence . . . .’.
[10] It has been made clear in S v Mbuyisa2 that s 112(b) contemplates
admissions of facts and not admissions of law or legal conclusions.3 In S v Lebokeng
en ‘n ander4 it was stressed that the court should be satisfied not only that the
accused committed the act in question but that he committed it unlawfully and with
the necessary mens rea. As was stated in S v Nyanga
‘Section 112(1)(b) questioning has a twofold purpose. Firstly, to establish the factual basis
for the plea of guilty and secondly to establish the legal basis for such plea. In the first
phase of the enquiry, the admissions made may not be added to by other means such as a
process of inferential reasoning. (S v Nkosi 1986 (2) SA 261 (T) at 263H-I; S v Mathe 1981
(3) SA 664 (NC) at 669E-G; S vJacobs (supra at 1177B) (1978 (1) SA 1176 (C) at 1177B).
The second phase of the enquiry amounts essentially to a conclusion of law based on the
admissions. From the admissions the court must conclude whether the legal requirements
for the commission of the offence have been met. They are the questions of unlawfulness,
actus reus and mens rea. These are conclusions of law. If the court is satisfied that the
admissions adequately cover all these elements of the offence, the court is entitled to convict
the accused on the charge to which he pleaded guilty.
[11] From the record, it is not clear, beyond reasonable doubt, whether the
appellant admitted that his act of hitting the deceased on the head with a stone
caused her death. In addition, the appellant’s statement that he was shocked,
confused and surprised cries out for further enquiry, as it is not clear whether the
appellant even admitted that he had acted with the requisite intent – either in the
form of dolus directus or dolus eventualis – to kill the deceased, for a conviction on
the count of murder properly to be made. It is therefore not even certain whether the
correct conviction would have been culpable homicide. The conviction on the count
2 S v Mbuyisa 2012 (1) SACR 571 (SCA); (183/1) [2011] ZASCA 146.
3 Para 7. See also S v Zerky 2010 (1) SACR 460 (KZP) para 20; (R421/09)[2009] ZAKZPHC 17.
4 S v Lebokeng en ‘n ander 1978 (2) SA 674 (O); [1978] 3 ALL SA 139 (O). See also S v
Ngubane1978 (2) PH H189 (N); (30/83) [1985] ZASCA 41; S v Moniz 1982 (1) SA 41 (C) 46; [1982] 3
ALL SA 157 (C); S v Phikwa 1978 (1) SA 397 (E); [1978] 1 ALL SA 557 (E); S v Tshumi & others
1978 (1) SA 128 (N); [1978] 1 ALL SA 273 (N); S v Mthetwa; S v Khanyile 1978 (2) SA 773 (N);
[1978] 2 ALL SA 328 (N); S v Serumala 1978 (4) SA 811 (NC); [1978] 4 ALL SA 733 (NC). S v Naude
1978 (1) SA 566 (T); [1978] 1 ALL SA 685 (T); S v Thobejane 1978 (1) PH H116 (T); S v Jacobs 1978
(1) SA 1176 (C) 1178; S v Medupa 1978 (2) PH H125 (O); S v Matlabeng en ‘n ander 1983 (4) SA
431 (O) and S v Mbova en andere 1996 (1) SACR 239 (NC) 242(I).
of robbery and both counts of rape may be justified, if one has regard to the contents
of the statement, but clearly the appellant ought not to have been convicted of
murder merely on the strength of the s 112 proceedings.
[12] In addition, as appears from what is set out below, the events that occurred
after the appellant’s conviction, shows that he did not enjoy a fair trial. After a
previous conviction for assault perpetrated in 1990 was proven against him, the
judge then enquired from counsel for the State and the defence whether the
minimum sentencing provisions of s 51 of the Criminal Law Amendment Act 105 of
1997 were of application and, if so, what they prescribed in relation to the appellant’s
convictions. It is clear, from the record that both the judge and the appellant’s
counsel were unaware of what that Act in fact provided. Indeed it led to the judge
adjourning in order to discuss the provisions of the Criminal Law Amendment Act
with counsel in chambers. This in itself was irregular. It was a discussion which
ought to have taken place in open court. Importantly, counsel for the State did not
bring the minimum sentencing provisions to the attention either of the appellant or
the court before this enquiry was made, and the appellant’s plea was therefore
clearly tendered without his knowing of them.
[13] After the adjournment, the appellant was briefly led in mitigation. This
established that the appellant was 32 years of age at the time, he left school during
standard nine, had been working at a bakery at the time of his arrest in respect of
counts 1 to 3 and was married with two school-going children. He said he felt
ashamed at what he had done and was sorry for the pain which he had caused the
family of the deceased and the victim of the second count of rape. The state
prosecutor cross-examined the appellant as to the second count of rape. The
appellant explained that, although he had been arrested shortly after the date
relating to count four, ‘the matter was not proceeded with’, he had gone to the
parents of his victim ‘to settle this issue’ and was later informed in court that ‘the
charge was through’. Apart from this, no further evidence was adduced from the
appellant as to the circumstances under which the offences were committed.
[14] The State led the evidence of a police officer and the father of the deceased
as to the state of decomposition of the deceased’s body and that she had been
identified by her clothing. Photographs taken by the forensic photographer of the
deceased’s badly decomposed body, shortly after it had been discovered, were
handed in as exhibits. The complainant in respect of the second count of rape was
called by the State to testify. She confirmed that she had non-consensual sexual
intercourse with the appellant although the circumstances in which she agreed to
accompany the appellant on a walk from the shopping centre to the technical college
were sketchily put before the court. When asked whether she was scared of men
now, as a result of the rape, she replied: ‘No.’
[15] The court a quo then proceeded to sentence the appellant to life
imprisonment on the count of murder, holding that it was obliged to do so in terms of
the Criminal Law Amendment Act, on account of the close association between the
rape and murder of the deceased. The appellant had at no stage in the trial or, it
would appear from the record, at any time before that, been warned by the court
that, if convicted, he faced the risk of life imprisonment. The court a quo also
sentenced the appellant to ten years’ imprisonment for the rape of the deceased, two
years for the robbery and ten years for the rape of Ms Sylvia Netsiaba. The
sentences on counts two, three and four were, as mentioned previously, ordered to
run concurrently with the sentence on count 1. In any event, in terms of section 39
(2) of the Correctional Services Act, No 111 of 1998, the sentences on counts two,
three and four would automatically run concurrently with the sentence of life
imprisonment.
[16] In view of the appellant’s patently concerned and hesitant stance at the
commencement of the trial, the court a quo was at the outset of the proceedings
wrong in insisting that the trial proceed as it did. However well-intentioned the court a
quo may have been in appointing Mr Dzumba to act for the appellant, and even
though the appellant confirmed the next day that he was satisfied with this
arrangement, it was wrong for the court a quo to have prevailed upon him to accept
the arrangement. Quite apart from any other difficulties concerning issues of
principle that may exist with this course of action, it did not afford the appellant the
time for a proper consultation to be held. This legal representative’s apparent lack of
awareness about the minimum sentencing provisions in the Criminal Law
Amendment Act is indicative of the fact that the appellant did not have the quality of
legal representation that one could reasonably expect, especially in so gravely
serious a case. This court has repeatedly stressed the importance of warning a
person of the risk of minimum sentences being imposed.5 In the circumstances of
this particular case, the injustice of the appellant not having been so warned is
manifest. This is all the more obvious in a case in which a legal representative
appointed at the 11th hour is not fully aware of the implications of the minimum
sentencing legislation. Against this background the appellant did not have a fair trial.
[17] When the well settled law relating to the procedural fairness of an accused
person’s trial is applied against the aggregate of the facts and circumstances of this
case, one’s sense that the appellant did not have a fair trial is compounded. The
right of every person to a fair trial is a constitutional one.6 That right was infringed
and for that reason the conviction and sentence cannot be allowed to stand.
[18] What is to be done? On the one hand, the appellant manifestly did not have a
fair trial. Against this, the State, the victims and their families of serious crimes such
as these, including the family of the deceased also have an interest in the appellant
not being allowed to walk free, without further ado. In this regard the provisions of
s 312 of the Criminal Procedure Act are of importance They provide as follows:
‘(1) Where a conviction and sentence under section 112 are set aside on review or appeal
on the ground that any provision of subsection (1) (b) or subsection (2) of that section was
not complied with, or on the ground that the provisions of section 113 should have been
applied, the court in question shall remit the case to the court by which the sentence was
imposed and direct that court to comply with the provision in question or to act in terms of
section 113, as the case may be.
(2) When the provision referred to in subsection (1) is complied with and the judicial officer is
after such compliance not satisfied as is required by section 112 (1) (b) or 112 (2), he shall
enter a plea of not guilty whereupon the provisions of section 113 shall apply with reference
to the matter.’
5 See, for example, S v Legoa 2003 (1) SACR 13 (SCA) paras 20 and 21; (33/2002)[2002] ZASCA
122; S v Ndlovu 2003 (1) SACR 331 (SCA) para 12; (75/2002) [2002] ZASCA 144; and S v Makatu
2006 (2) SACR 582 (SCA) paras 3 and 17; (245/05) [2006] ZASCA 72.
6See s 34 of the Constitution, 1996.
[19] In S v Tshumi & others7 James JP, with Milne J concurring, said:
‘It is clear that the magistrate failed to appreciate what his duty was as laid down by sec.
112, and failed to satisfy himself on a number of important questions such as whether it was
established by the answers that the accused either individually or collectively acted
unlawfully, or with common purpose in assaulting the deceased. In fact the magistrate
appears to have completely failed to grasp the fact that since sec. 112 (1)(b) makes it
possible to dispense with evidence to establish all the essential elements of the charge, his
questions must be directed to satisfying himself that an accused fully understands all the
elements of the charge when pleading guilty, and that his answers reveal that he has in fact
committed the actual offence to which he has pleaded guilty.’8
Having found that the conviction could not stand, James JP continued as follows:
‘What should now be done? Clearly the convictions and sentences cannot stand, nor is it
possible, since the magistrate has retired, for the case to be remitted to him to deal correctly
with it by making proper use of the provisions of sec. 112 (1) (b). Justice will, I consider, be
done in these circumstances if the case is sent back for trial by another magistrate.
The convictions and sentences are accordingly set aside and the case is sent back for trial
de novo by another magistrate.’9
[20] Other cases in which it has been decided that a trial de novo is appropriate in
circumstances such as this include S v Witbooi & others,10S v Mokoena,11 S v Van
Deventer12 S v Mbova en andere13, S v Williams14 and S v Mofokeng.15 In S v
Heugh & others16 the case was remitted to the magistrate for him to deal with, in his
7 S v Tshumi & others 1978 (1) SA 128 (N); [1978] 1 ALL SA 273 (N).
8 At 130B-D.
9 At 130G-H.
10 S v Witbooi & others 1978 (3) SA 590 (T); [1978] 2 ALL SA 641 (T).
11 S v Mokoena 1982 (3) SA 967 (T); [1982] 4 ALL 461 (T).
12 S v Van Deventer 1978 (3) SA 97 (T); [1978] 2 ALL SA 573 (T).
13 S v Mbova en andere 1996 (1) SACR 239 (NC).
14 S v Williams 2008 (1) SACR 65 (C); (29/04/07) [2007] ZAWCHC 48.
15 S v Mofokeng 2013 (1) SACR 143 (FB); (191/2012) [2012] ZAFSHC 117.
16 S v Heugh & others 1997 (2) SACR 291 (E); [1997] JOL 1408 (E).
discretion, in terms of s 113 of the Criminal Procedure Act17. See also Mkhize v the
State & another Nene & others v the State & another.18 In S v Fikizolo19 the
conviction and sentence was set aside, consequent upon shortcomings applying the
provisions of s 112 of the Criminal Procedure Act properly, without ordering a trial de
novo, but there were additional serious misdirections by the magistrate that
compelled the appeal court to do so.20 Each case must be decided on its own merits.
In particular, as to whether the trial should be heard de novo, the interests of justice,
not only with respect to an accused person but also the State and society as a whole
should be taken into consideration.
[21] Even before s 112 of the Criminal Procedure Act came into operation, there
was precedent in this court for remitting a trial for a hearing de novo where
procedural irregularities had been committed and the interests of justice require it.21
[22] During the course of argument, counsel for the appellant placed considerable
reliance on the unreported judgment in this court in S v Mudau22 in which this court
recognised that, where a trial had been tainted by procedural unfairness, a court of
appeal had a discretion to remit the matter for a hearing de novo. Although in that
case the court declined to do so, each case must be decided on its own merits and
the facts of Mudau were materially different from this one. In this case, despite the
17 Section 113 of the Criminal Procedure Act reads as follows:
(1) If the court at any stage of the proceedings under section 112 (1) (a) or (b) or 112 (2) and before
sentence is passed is in doubt whether the accused is in law guilty of the offence to which he or she
has pleaded guilty or if it is alleged or appears to the court that the accused does not admit an
allegation in the charge or that the accused has incorrectly admitted any such allegation or that the
accused has a valid defence to the charge or if the court is of the opinion for any other reason that the
accused's plea of guilty should not stand, the court shall record a plea of not guilty and require the
prosecutor to proceed with the prosecution: Provided that any allegation, other than an allegation
referred to above, admitted by the accused up to the stage at which the court records a plea of not
guilty, shall stand as proof in any court of such allegation.
(2) If the court records a plea of not guilty under subsection (1) before any evidence has been led, the
prosecution shall proceed on the original charge laid against the accused, unless the prosecutor
explicitly indicates otherwise.
18 Mkhize v the State & another Nene & others v the State & another 1981 (3) SA 585 (N); [1981] 1
ALL SA 195 (N).
19 S v Fikizolo 1978 (2) SA 676 (NC); [1978] 3 ALL SA 229 (NC).
20 See for example S v Fikizolo 1978 (2) SA 676 (NC).
21 See for example R v Zackey 1945 AD 505. See also R v Read 1924 TPD 718 and S v Vezi 1963
(1) SA 9 (N); [1963] 1 ALL SA 315 (N); R v Foley 1926 TPD 168 and R v Cohen 1942 TPD 266 at
273.
22 S v Mudau (276/13) [2013] ZASCA 172 (28 November 2013.
period of imprisonment that the appellant has already served, the interests of justice
require a fresh trial. The appellant, after all, faces a possible life sentence should he
properly be convicted.
[23] In all the circumstances of this case, the interests of justice will best be served
by setting aside the convictions and sentences and remitting the matter for a trial de
novo. It is appropriate, against the full canvas of events, to direct that the trial be
heard by a different judge.
[24] One further aspect should be mentioned. At the commencement of the
appellant’s application for leave to appeal, his then legal representative (who had
neither appeared at his trial and who did not argue his appeal) stated that he agreed
with the conviction and sentence ‘meted out by the court’ and that he had explained
to the appellant that he had ‘no prospects of success’ in the matter and that, if he
wished to proceed, he would have to do so ‘on his own’. With that he abandoned the
appellant to argue the application in person. This is inexplicable. As should be
apparent from what has been set out above, there was much to be said. It also
constituted an extraordinary dereliction of the duty of defence counsel to do their
best, even if they privately consider the case to be a hopeless one. On his own, the
appellant performed rather well. For example, he submitted that the killing of the
deceased could be construed as ‘an accident’ and ‘it was not like it was planned that
I wanted to kill somebody or the deceased for that matter.’
[25] The following order is made:
1 The appeal is upheld.
2 The convictions and sentences in respect of all counts are set aside.
3 The case is remitted to the court a quo for trial de novo before a different
judge.
_________________________
N P WILLIS
JUDGE OF APPEAL
APPEARANCES:
For the Appellant:
S O Ravele (Attorney)
Instructed by:
S O Ravele Attorneys, Makhado
c/o Phatsoane Henney Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For the Respondent:
M Sebelebele
Instructed by:
The Director of Public Prosecutions, Thohoyandou
The Director of Public Prosecutions, Bloemfontein | THE SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
MEDIA SUMMARY OF JUDGMENT DELIVERED IN THE SUPREME COURT OF
APPEAL
FROM
The Registrar, Supreme Court of Appeal
DATE
29 September 2015
STATUS
Immediate
Negondeni v the State (00093/15) [2015] ZASCA 132 (29 September 2015)
Please note that the media summary is for the benefit of the media and does
not form part of the judgment.
Today the Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) upheld an appeal from the Limpopo
Local Division of the High Court, Thohoyandou (Renke AJ) set aside the convictions
and sentences in respect of all counts and remitted the case is remitted to the high
court for trial de novo before a different judge.
The appellant, Mr Richard Negondeni, had been indicted in the Limpopo Local
Division, Thohoyandou High Court (Renke AJ) on a count of murder, a count of
robbery and two counts of rape. He pleaded guilty in terms of s 112 of the Criminal
Procedure Act 51 of 1977 (the Criminal Procedure Act) and was convicted on all four
counts. He was sentenced to life imprisonment on the count of murder, with which
lesser sentences imposed on the other counts were ordered to run concurrently.
The indictment alleged, in relation to the murder count, that the appellant killed an
the deceased) on 2 April 2002 at Ha-Dumasi, in the district of Thohoyando; in
relation to the first count of rape that he did so in respect of the same person at the
same place at about the same time; in relation to the count of robbery that, using
force and violence, he took the deceased’s cellular telephone from her at about the
same place and time; and, in relation to the second count of rape, that he committed
the crime on 6 February 1999 at the Thohoyando Technical School, his victim having
been another woman. The indictment made no reference to the prescribed minimum
sentences set out in the Criminal Law Amendment Act 105 of 1997.
In the summary of substantial facts annexed to the indictment it had been alleged
that ‘before leaving the scene (where the rape of the deceased had been
committed), the accused robbed the victim and then stoned her to death.’ It is also
alleged that the deceased’s decomposed body was recovered in the bush at Ha-
Dumasi on 11 July 2002 and that: ‘The cause of death could not be determined
because of the advanced state of decomposition of the deceased’s body.’ In respect
of the second count of rape, the summary alleged that the victim was forcefully taken
by the appellant from a shopping complex and then raped in the bush at knife-point.
At the commencement of the appellant’s trial on 19 February 2007, the state
prosecutor informed the court that he had been given to understand, from the court
orderlies, that the appellant no longer wished to be represented by his legal
representative, appointed by ‘the Law Clinic’. The appellant’s legal representative
appeared to have been taken by surprise by this and said: ‘I have never heard
anything. Can he just speak for himself?’ The judge then asked the appellant
whether he had ‘a problem’. The appellant replied that he did not have a problem ‘so
far’ but said: ‘It is just that we have not yet finished a consultation.’ After further
questioning, the appellant repeated his complaint that: ‘We have not consulted
sufficiently.’ The trial judge then said that the trial should proceed but the appellant
could consult with his legal representative during the adjournments of the court.
The counts were then put to the appellant. He pleaded guilty to the first count of
murder but, immediately thereafter, when asked by the judge to confirm this, said:
‘Maybe I did not understand well.’ Further discussions took place between the
appellant and the judge whereupon the appellant said: ‘I do understand but when I
am asked to plead on the charge of murder I am not so sure as to whether I should
plead not guilty or I should explain the circumstances.’ The court then decided that
the matter should stand down to the next day so that the appellant could consult
more fully with his legal representative. His legal representative then informed the
court that he would not be available the next day. At this, the court said that it would
not tolerate any further delays in the proceedings and that it wished proceed with the
matter. The trial judge then informed that he had ‘personally arranged with experienced
counsel, Mr Dzumba, to come down now to see him. Mr Dzumba will take over his defence.’
The next day the trial proceeded with Mr Dzumba appearing as the appellant’s legal
representative. At the commencement of the proceedings on that day the court
asked the appellant whether he was satisfied ‘with the change in his legal
representation’. The appellant replied: ‘I am satisfied.’
The appellant was then asked to plead once more, and on this occasion, he pleaded
guilty to all four counts. Mr Dzumba then read into the record a written statement by
the appellant in terms of s 112 of the Criminal Procedure Act.
The judge then asked the appellant whether the statement was correct. The
appellant confirmed that it was. The judge then enquired from the appellant as to the
size of the stone that had been used to hit the deceased. After the appellant had
demonstrated, it was agreed among all concerned that it was ‘about the size of a
soccer ball’. The court then proceeded to find the appellant guilty on all four counts.
The SCA found that it was not clear, beyond reasonable doubt, whether the
appellant admitted that his act of hitting the deceased on the head with a stone
caused her death. In addition, the appellant’s statement that he was shocked,
confused and surprised cries out for further enquiry, as it is not clear whether the
appellant even admitted that he had acted with the requisite intent – either in the
form of dolus directus or dolus eventualis – to kill the deceased, for a conviction on
the count of murder properly to be made. It is therefore not even certain whether the
correct conviction would have been culpable homicide. The SCA found that the
conviction on the count of robbery and both counts of rape may be justified, if one
has regard to the contents of the statement, but clearly the appellant ought not to
have been convicted of murder merely on the strength of the s 112 proceedings.
The SCA said that it was clear,from the record that both the trial judge and the
appellant’s counsel were unaware of what that Act in fact provided. Indeed it led to
the judge adjourning in order to discuss the provisions of the Criminal Law
Amendment Act with counsel in chambers. This in itself was irregular. It was a
discussion which ought to have taken place in open court. Importantly, counsel for
the State did not bring the minimum sentencing provisions to the attention either of
the appellant or the court before this enquiry was made, and the appellant’s plea was
therefore clearly tendered without his knowing of them.
The appellant had briefly been led in mitigation of sentence. The trial court then
proceeded to sentence the appellant to life imprisonment on the count of murder,
holding that it was obliged to do so in terms of the Criminal Law Amendment Act, on
account of the close association between the rape and murder of the deceased. The
appellant had at no stage in the trial or at any time before that, been warned by the
court that, if convicted, he faced the risk of life imprisonment. The court a quo also
sentenced the appellant to ten years’ imprisonment for the rape of the deceased, two
years for the robbery and ten years for the other rape.
The SCA found that, in view of the appellant’s patently concerned and hesitant
stance at the commencement of the trial, the court a quo was at the outset of the
proceedings wrong in insisting that the trial proceed as it did. However well-
intentioned the court a quo may have been in appointing Mr Dzumba to act for the
appellant, and even though the appellant confirmed the next day that he was
satisfied with this arrangement, it was wrong for the court a quo to have prevailed
upon him to accept the arrangement. Quite apart from any other difficulties
concerning issues of principle that may exist with this course of action, it did not
afford the appellant the time for a proper consultation to be held. The legal
representative’s apparent lack of awareness about the minimum sentencing
provisions in the Criminal Law Amendment Act is indicative of the fact that the
appellant did not have the quality of legal representation that one could reasonably
expect, especially in so gravely serious a case.
The SCA has repeatedly stressed the importance of warning a person of the risk of
minimum sentences being imposed. In the circumstances of this particular case, the
injustice of the appellant not having been so warned was manifest. Against this
background, the appellant did not have a fair trial.
The SCA held that, when the well settled law relating to the procedural fairness of an
accused person’s trial is applied against the aggregate of the facts and
circumstances of this case, one’s sense that the appellant did not have a fair trial
was compounded. That right was infringed and for that reason the conviction and
sentence cannot be allowed to stand.
Against this, the SCA concluded that the State, the victims and their families of
serious crimes such as these, including the family of the deceased, also have an
interest in the appellant not being allowed to walk free, without further ado.
The SCA decided that, in all the circumstances of this case, the interests of justice
will best be served by setting aside the convictions and sentences and remitting the
matter for a trial de novo. The SCA found that it was appropriate, against the full
canvas of events, to direct that the trial be heard by a different judge.
The SCA also drew attention to the fact that, at the commencement of the
appellant’s application for leave to appeal, his then legal representative (who had
neither appeared at his trial and who did not argue his appeal) stated that he agreed
with the conviction and sentence ‘meted out by the court’ and that he had explained
to the appellant that he had ‘no prospects of success’ in the matter and that, if he
wished to proceed, he would have to do so ‘on his own’. With that he abandoned the
appellant to argue the application in person. The appellant’s counsel was criticised
for an extraordinary dereliction of the duty of defence counsel to do their best, even if
they privately consider the case to be a hopeless one. |