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MHC restriction is a pa of all except aEUR': (A) Antiviral cytotoxic T cell, (B) Antibacterial helper T cell/cytotoxic cells, (C) Allograft rejection, (D) Autoimmune disorder | Answer is D. Autoimmune disorder Major histocompatibility complex : Major histocompatibility complex, also called the human leucocyte antigen (HLA) complex is a 4 megahase region on chromosome 6. This region is densely packed with genes. These genes encodes two major proteins or antigens i.e., MHC I & MHC II. These pro... | |
During cardiac imaging the phase of minimum motion of hea is:: (A) Late systole, (B) Mid systole, (C) Late diastole, (D) Mid diastole | Answer is D. D i.e. Mid diastole- During cardiac imaging (such as MRI, CT, electron beam tomography), mid diastolic phase (or diastasis) of cardiac cycle is usually (but not always) associated with lowest (minimum) mean motion of hea.Q- Optimum phase (i.e. with minimum cardiac motion) for cardiac and coronary vessel im... | |
Mandibular nerve does not supply:?: (A) Buccinator, (B) Masseter, (C) Tensor tympani, (D) Temporalis | Answer is A. A. i.e. Buccinator | |
A 68-year-old man is admitted to the coronary care unit with an acute myocardial infarction. His postinfarction course is marked by congestive hea failure and intermittent hypotension. On the fouh day in hospital, he develops severe midabdominal pain. On physical examination, blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg and pulse is ... | Answer is C. In the absence of peritoneal signs, angiography is the diagnostic test of choice for acute mesenteric ischemia. Patients with peritoneal signs should undergo emergent laparotomy. Acute mesenteric ischemia may be difficult to diagnose. The condition should be suspected in patients with either systemic manif... | |
Drugs undergoing acetylation include all except:: (A) Dapsone, (B) Metoclopramide, (C) Procainamide, (D) INH | Answer is B. Ans. B. MetoclopramideAcetylation by N-acetyl transferases (NAT)e.g, S - SulfonamidesH - HydralazineI - IsoniazidP - Procainamide, PASD - DapsoneC - Clonazepam, Caffeine | |
A group of expes discussing a topic in front of the audience without any specific order. This mode of communication is known as: September 2008: (A) Panel discussion, (B) Group discussion, (C) Team presentation, (D) Symposium | Answer is A. Ans. A: Panel discussion In panel discussion there is a chairman/moderator and 4-8 speakers. Each speaker prepares separately, the other speakers hear one another for the time at the session itself. Panel discussions, however, differ from team presentations. Their purpose is different. In a team presentati... | |
Starvation and diabetes mellitus can lead on to ketoacidosis which of the following features is in our of ketoacidosis due to diabetes mellitus.: (A) Increase in glucagon/insulin ratio, increased CAMP and increased blood glucose, (B) Decreased insulin, increased free fatty acid which is equivalent to blood glucose, (C)... | Answer is A. A i.e. Increase in glucagons/ insulin ratio, increased C- AMP & increased blood sugar.In diabetes little glucose is oxidized as fuel, except by the brain. The rest of tissues burn a large amount of fat, paicularly the liver where the amount of acetyl COA formed from fatty acids exceeds the capacity of the ... | |
ARDS true?: (A) Type 2 respiratory failure, (B) Lung compliance decreased, (C) Increase in diffusion capacity, (D) none | Answer is B. ARDS is a clinical syndrome of severe dyspnoea of rapid onset, hypoxaemia and diffuse pulmonary infiltrates leading to respiratory failure.ARDS is characterised by Po2/Fio2(inspiratory O2 fraction)<200 mmHg.There will be no hypercapnia, so the patient will have type 1 respiratory failure.
There will be a ... | |
Hypeension is seen with all except-: (A) Erythropoitin, (B) Cyclosporine, (C) NSAID, (D) Levodopa | Answer is D. Ans. is d i.e., Levodopa Drug causing hypeension Cocaine MAO inhibitors Oral contraceptives Clonidine withdrawl Tricyclic antidepressants Cyclosporine Glucocoicoids Rofecoxib (NSAID) Erythropoietin Valdecoxib (NSAID) Sympathomimetics | |
Beta 2 agonist used in rescue therapy in acute respiratory conditions are all except?: (A) Formoterol, (B) Salbutamol, (C) Bambuterol, (D) Ketotifen | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ketotifen Formoterol, Salbutomol and bambuterol are p 2 agonists. o Ketotifen is a mast cell stabilizer. | |
The post mortem report in case of death in police custody should be recorded as: (A) Tape recording, (B) Video recording, (C) Photographic recording, (D) All | Answer is B. Ans. b (Video recording). (Ref. Parikh, FMT, 5th ed., 130)Installation of video camera in jail and recording of postmortem in case of death in police custody is according to human rights. | |
Reversible loss of polarity with abnormality in size and shape of cells is known as?: (A) Metaplasia, (B) Anaplasia, (C) Dysplasia, (D) Hyperplasia | Answer is C. Dysplasia is reversible
Anaplasia is irreversible | |
During autopsy for virology study which agent is used for storing tissue: NEET 14: (A) Sodium chloride, (B) Alcohol, (C) Rectified spirit, (D) 50% glycerine | Answer is D. Ans. 50% glycerine | |
The protective bacterium in the normal vagina is:: (A) Peptostreptococcus, (B) Lactobacillus, (C) Gardenella vaginalis, (D) E. coli | Answer is B. Vagina has inhabitant bacteria called as Doderleins bacteria which is a lactobaccilli, and converts the glycogen present in vaginal epithelium into lactic acid.
Thus, pH of the vagina is acidic
The pH of the vagina in an adult woman is 4 -5.5 with an average of 4.5.
The pH of vagina varies with age — for f... | |
Bence jones proteinuria is derived from?: (A) Alpha globulins, (B) Light chain globulins, (C) Gamma globulins, (D) Delta globulins | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Light chain globulins(Ref: R 9th/pg 598-602)Excretion of light chains in the urine has been referred to as Bence Jones proteinuria.Light chains includes k and l (kappa and lambda) | |
Which of the following drugs used to treat type II diabetes mellitus causes weight loss:: (A) Metformin, (B) Glimepiride, (C) Repaglinide, (D) Gliclazide | Answer is A. None | |
Pradhan mantra swasthya suraksha yojana was launched in:: (A) 2003, (B) 2006, (C) 2007, (D) 2008 | Answer is B. Pradhan mantra swasthya suraksha yojana was approved in 2006 with the objective of correcting imbalances in availability of affordable teiary level healthcare in the country. Ref: National Health Programmes in India, J.Kishore, 10th edition pg: 84 | |
Which of the following measures sensitivity: September 2011: (A) True negatives, (B) True positives, (C) False positives, (D) False negatives | Answer is B. Ans. B: True positives Sensitivity denotes true positives | |
Caput succedaneum in a newborn is: Karnataka 07: (A) Collection of blood under the pericranium, (B) Collection of sero-sanguineous fluid in the scalp, (C) Edema of the scalp due to grip of the forceps, (D) Varicose veins in the scalp | Answer is B. Ans. Collection of sero-sanguineous fluid in the scalp | |
Zero order kinetics is seen in all except: (A) High dose salicylates, (B) Phenytoin, (C) Ethanol, (D) Methotrexate | Answer is D. Zero order kinetics is seen in high dose of salicylates,ethanol and phenytoin. Ref-KDT 6/e p31 | |
In a normal healthy person the arterial oxygen is considered satisfactory if SPO2 is more than: (A) 80, (B) 85, (C) 90, (D) Any of the above | Answer is C. Ans. c (90) (Ref H-17th/l590-91; pg. A-15)In a normal healthy person the arterial oxygen is considered satisfactory if SP02 is more than 90.Arterial O2 tensionPaO212.7 +- 0.7 kPa (95 +- 5 mm Hg)Arterial CO2 tensionPaCO25.3 +- 0.3 kPa (40 +- 2 mm Hg)Arterial O2 saturationSaO20.97 +- 0.02 (97 +- 2%)Arterial ... | |
A 40-year-old man presents with 5 days of productive cough and fever. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is isolated from a pulmonary abscess. CBC shows an acute effect characterized by marked leukocytosis (50,000/mL) and the differential count reveals shift to left in granulocytes. Which of the following terms best describes thes... | Answer is A. Circulating levels of leukocytes and their precursors may occasionally reach very high levels (>50,000 WBC/mL). These extreme elevations are sometimes called leukemoid reactions because they are similar to the white cell counts observed in leukemia, from which they must be distinguished. The leukocytosis o... | |
A patient present with dysphagia of 4 weeks duration. Now he is able to swallow liquid food only. Which of the following is the one investigation to be done:: (A) Barium studies are the best to be done, (B) Upper GI endoscopy is to be done, (C) CT scan is needed, (D) Esophageal manometry | Answer is B. Answer is B (Upper GI endoscopy is to be done) The patient is presenting with new onset dysphagia for solids alone (able to swallow liquids). This suggests dysphagia due to mechanical obstruction (carcinoma, stricture, web) which is best diagnosed by endoscopy. Note: Barium swallow is the recommended initi... | |
Inhalation of fungal spores can cause primary lung infections. Of the following organisms, which one is most likely to be associated with this mode of transmission?: (A) C. immitis, (B) S. schenckii, (C) C. albicans, (D) T. tonsurans | Answer is A. C. albicans and Candida tropicalis are opportunistic fungi, and as part of the normal flora are not transmitted by inhalation. C. immitis is a dimorphic fungus and inhalation of the spores transmits the infection. Sprothrix is also a dimorphic fungus but its portal of entry is cutaneous. Trychophyton is a ... | |
Fleeting skin lesions are often present in patients with:: (A) Viral hepatitis B, (B) Acute cholangitis, (C) Viral hepatitis A, (D) Carcinoma head of pancreas | Answer is A. Fleeting skin lesions are often presents in patients with hepatitis B. Ref: Schiff's diseases of liver, Edition -11, Page - 3. | |
In which of the following locations, Carcinoid tumor is most common: (A) Esophagus, (B) Stomach, (C) Small bowel, (D) Appendix | Answer is D. carcinoid tumour commonly occurs in appendix(45%),ileum(25%),rectum(15%).other sites are(15%)other pas of GIT ,bronchus, and testis SRB,5th,877. | |
S100 is a marker used in the diagnosis of all Except: (A) Melanoma, (B) Schwannoma, (C) Histiocytoma, (D) Basal cell cancer | Answer is D. Acidic protein, 100% Soluble in ammonium sulfate at neutral pH (derivation of name) S100 protein family is multigenic group of nonubiquitous cytoplasmic EF-hand Ca2+-binding proteins, sharing significant structural similarities at both genomic and protein levels; S100 protein family has 24 known human memb... | |
A Patient who is on antihypertensive drug develops a dry cough. Which of the following drug might be responsible for the condition:: (A) Diuretics, (B) ACE inhibitors, (C) Calcium channel blockers, (D) Beta blockers | Answer is B. The angiotensin-converting enzyme normally helps in conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which acts as a vasoconstrictor in case of hypovolemia.
In addition to that, ACE also helps in the breakdown of bradykinin.
When ACE inhibitors (captopril) are given, it inhibits ACE and in addition inhibits ... | |
Mad Cow disease (Spongiform disease) occurs due to: (A) C J virus, (B) Arena Virus, (C) Kuru Virus, (D) Parvo Virus | Answer is A. Mad cow disease or bovine spongiform encephalopathy i.e. Caused by “prions”
“PRIONS” are unconventional transmissible agents, proteinaceous in nature.”
Diseases caused by prions are
Kuru
Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease.
Gerstmann Straussler Scheinker Syndrome
Fatal Familial Insomnia.
Scrapie Of Sheep
Transmissib... | |
Schwann cells are derived from:: (A) Neural crest cells, (B) Endoderm, (C) Mesoderm, (D) Ectoderm | Answer is A. None | |
A patient on lithium therapy was found to be hypeensive also. Which of the following antihypeensive drugs is contraindicated in a patient on lithium therapy in order to prevent toxicity?: (A) Clonidine, (B) Beta blockers, (C) Calcium channel blockers, (D) Diuretics | Answer is D. Diuretics (thiazide, furosemide) by causing Na+ loss promote proximal tubular reabsorption of Na+ as well as Li+ --plasma levels of lithium rise. ref : KD Tripati 8th ed. | |
In marasmus, which of the following is not seen?: (A) Edema, (B) Voracious appetite, (C) Hepatomegaly not seen, (D) Child is active | Answer is A. Edema is a feature of Kwashiorkor, not seen in marasmus. Kwashiorkor Marasmus Edema Present absent appetite poor Voracious appetite CNS involvement apathy Active child Hepatomegaly seen Not seen Skin and hair changes More common Less common | |
A 23-year-old woman presents with a rubbery, freely movable 2-cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. A biopsy of this lesion would most likely histologically reveal: (A) Large numbers of neutrophils, (B) A mixture of fibrous tissue and ducts, (C) Large numbers of plasma cells, (D) Necrotic fat surround... | Answer is B. The most common benign neoplasm of the breast is fibroadenoma, which typically occurs in the upper outer quadrant of the breast in women between the ages of 20 and 35. These lesions originate from the terminal duct lobular unit and histologically reveal a mixture of fibrous connective tissue and ducts. Cli... | |
Most common pa of larynx involved in TB ?: (A) Anterior, (B) Posterior, (C) Middle, (D) Anywhere | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Posterior Essential otolaryngology 2"d/e p. 1139] Disease affects the posterior third of larynx more commonly than anterior pa. The pas affected in descending order of frequency are :- i) Interarytenoid fold, ii) Ventricular band, iii) Vocal cords, iv) Epiglottis. | |
Pyogenic granuloma is associated with: (A) Gastric adenocarcinoma, (B) Pseudomonas infection, (C) Ulcerative colitis, (D) Intestinal tuberculosis | Answer is C. Pyogenic granuloma is a misnomer as there is no granuloma. It is a benign vascular lesion that bleeds easily on trauma.
It is associated with Inflammatory Bowel disease (Ulcerative colitis > Crohn's disease). | |
Epithelial rests of Malassez are found in: (A) Pulp, (B) Gingiva, (C) Periodontal Ligament, (D) Alveolar mucosa | Answer is C. None | |
Muscle relaxant used in renal failure -: (A) Ketamine, (B) Atracurium, (C) Pancuronium, (D) Fentanyl | Answer is B. As Atracurium and Cis-atracurium are inactivated by Hoffman's elimination, they are the muscle relaxants of choice for both liver and renal failure. | |
Ramachandran is on the surgical ward with non-seminomatous tumor of testis and more than 4 retroperitoneal lymph nodes involved. You are the resident who is making a decision about fuher management. The treatment include all of the following, except:: (A) Retroperitoneal Lymph Node Dissection (RPLND), (B) Inguinal orch... | Answer is D. Inguinal orchiectomy with high ligation of the cord at the internal ring is the initial management of testicular tumour. Multi Agent chemotherapy and followed by surgical resection is one modality of treatment. Ref: Bailey & Love, 25th Edition, Page 1269. | |
A 34-year-old female has a history of intermittent episodes of severe abdominal pain. She has had multiple abdominal surgeries and exploratory procedures with no abnormal findings. Her urine appears dark during an attack and gets even darker if exposed to sunlight. The attacks seem to peak after she takes erythromycin,... | Answer is A. The patient has acute intermittent porphyria, which is a defect in one of the early steps leading to heme synthesis. The buildup of the intermediate that cannot continue along the pathway leads to the dark urine, and it turns darker when ultraviolet (UV) light interacts with the conjugated double bonds in ... | |
Most common type of hypospadias is: September 2011: (A) Glandular, (B) Penile, (C) Coronal, (D) Perineal | Answer is A. Ans. A: Glandular Glandular hypospadias is common and does not usually require treatment Hypospadias: The external meatus opens on the underside of the penis or the perineum, and the inferior aspect of the prepuce is poorly developed (hooded prepuce) Meatal stenosis occurs Bifid scrotum 6 - 10 months of ag... | |
In a subclan aery block at outer border of 1st rib, all of the following aeries help in maintaining the circulation to upper limb, EXCEPT?: (A) Subscapular aery, (B) Superior thoracic aery, (C) Thyrocervical trunk, (D) Suprascapular aery | Answer is B. A rich anastomosis exists around the scapula between branches of subclan aery (first pa) and the axillary aery (third pa). This anastomosis provides a collateral circulation through which blood can flow to the limb when the distal pa of subclan aery or the proximal pa of axillary aery is blocked. Scapular ... | |
Lymphatics of suprarenal gland drain into lymph nodes -: (A) Internal iliac, (B) Para-aortic, (C) Superficial inguinal, (D) Coeliac | Answer is B. Suprarenal glands drain into para-aortic nodes. | |
All of the following can be involved in an injury to the head of the fibula, EXCEPT:: (A) Anterior tibial nerve, (B) Common peroneal nerve, (C) Superficial peroneal nerve, (D) Tibial nerve | Answer is D. The common peroneal nerve is extremely vulnerable to injury as it winds around the neck of the fibula. At this site, it is exposed to direct trauma or is involved in fractures of the upper pa of the fibula. While passing behind the head of the fibula, it winds laterally around the neck of the bone, pierces... | |
Pain felt between great toe and 2nd toe is due to involvement of which nerve root -: (A) L5, (B) S2, (C) S1, (D) S3 | Answer is A. First web space of foot is supplied by deep peroneal nerve (L5) | |
Which of the following is non-competitive inhibitor of intestinal alkaline phosphatase?: (A) L-Alanine, (B) L-Tyrosine, (C) L-Tryptophan, (D) L-Phenylalanine | Answer is D. Ans. d (L-Phenylalanine) (Ref. Biochemistry by Vasudevan, 4th ed., 57; 5th ed., 55-56)ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE# The pH optimum for the enzyme reaction is between 9 and 10.# It is activated by magnesium and manganese.# Zinc is a constituent ion of ALR# It is produced by osteoblasts of bone, and is associated wi... | |
Mondors disease is:: (A) Migratory thrombophlebitis seen in pancreatic Ca, (B) Thromboangitis obliterans, (C) Thrombosis of deep veins of the leg, (D) Thrombophlebitis of superficial veins of breast | Answer is D. Ans: D (Thrombophlebitis of superficial veins of breast) Ref: Bailey dt Love's Short Practice of Surgery, 25th Edition,833-4Explanation:Mondor's diseaseThrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the breast and anterior chest wallCan also involve armCauseIdiopathicClinical featuresThrombosed subcutaneous ... | |
Treatment of Choice in Sleep Apnea Syndrome:: (A) Continuous positive pressure ventilation., (B) Sedatives., (C) Antidepressants., (D) Antiepileptics | Answer is A. (A) Continuous positive pressure ventilation# Sleep apnea: Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep. Each episode, called an apnea, lasts long enough so that one or more breaths are missed, and such episodes occur repeatedly throughout sleep.> The standard definitio... | |
Rectal polyp most commonly presents as: (A) Obstruction, (B) Bleeding, (C) Infection, (D) Changes into malignancy | Answer is B. .LOWER GI BLEED- * Bleeding in the GIT below the level of the ligament of Treitz. * Normal faecal blood loss is 1.2 ml/day. A loss more than 10 ml/day is significant.* Angiodysplasia. * Diveicular disease - commonest cause in Western countries. * Tumours of colon or small bowel. * Anorectal diseases--Haemo... | |
Ulipristal acetate is a/an:: (A) GnRH agonist, (B) Androgen antagonist, (C) Selective estrogen receptor modulator, (D) Selective progesterone receptor modulator | Answer is D. Ans. is d, i.e. Selective progesterone receptor modulatorRef: Harrison's Principles of Internal medicine 19th/ed, p2391Ulipristal acetate (trade name Ella One in the European Union, Ella in the US for contraception, and Esmya for uterine fibroid) is a selective progesterone receptor modulator (SPRM).Pharma... | |
A patient presented with ahritis and purpura. Laboratory examination showed monoclonal and polyclonal cryoglobulins. Histopathology showed deposits of cryoglobulins around the vessels. The patient should be tested for which of the following ?: (A) HBV, (B) HCV, (C) EBV, (D) Parvovious | Answer is B. Hepatitis C This is caused by an RNA flavivirus. Acute symptomatic infection with hepatitis C is rare. Most individuals are unaware of when they became infected and are identified only when they develop chronic liver disease. Eighty per cent of individuals exposed to the virus become chronically infected a... | |
All of the following structures passes through the Alcock canal, EXCEPT:: (A) Internal pudendal vein, (B) Internal pudendal nerve, (C) Internal pudendal aery, (D) Obturator internus muscle | Answer is D. Alcock canal or pudendal canal stas from the lesser sciatic notch and runs forward on the medial surface of the ischial tuberosity up to the pubic arch where it is continuous with the deep perineal pouch. Contents of the pudendal canal are:Pudendal nervePudendal aery and veinWithin the canal pudendal nerve... | |
Marfans Syndrome affecting eyes, skeletal system, and the cardiovascular system is caued by the mutation in the gene: (A) Fibrillin 1, (B) Fibrillin 2, (C) Fibulin, (D) Elastin | Answer is A. Marfan Syndrome Is Caused by Mutations in the Gene for Fibrillin-1. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. It affects the eyes (eg, causing dislocation of the lens, known as ectopia lentis), the skeletal system (most patients are tall and exhibit long digits and hyperextensibility of the joints), ... | |
RNA primer is synthesized by -: (A) Topoisomerase, (B) Helicase, (C) DNA primase, (D) DNA ligase | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., DNA primase ProteinFunctionDNA polymerasesDeoxynucleotide polymerizationHelicasesProcessive unwinding of DNATopoisomerasesRelieve torsional strain that results from helicase-induced unwindingDNA primaseInitiates synthesis of RNA primersSingle-strand binding proteinsPrevent premature reann... | |
Biochemical analytes measured in the triple test are all the following Except: (A) hCG, (B) AFP, (C) Unconjugated estriol, (D) Inhibin A | Answer is D. Second-Trimester ScreeningPregnancies with fetal Down syndrome are characterized by lower maternal serum AFP levels--approximately 0.7 MoM, higher hCG levels--approximately 2.0 MoM, and lower unconjugated estriol levels--approximately 0.8 MoM. This triple test can detect 61 to 70 percent of Down syndrome.L... | |
A preterm baby is born with synchronised upper chest movement, minimal nasal flare, expiratory grunting heard by the stethoscope, but has no chest or xiphoid retractions. The Silverman score is:: (A) 1, (B) 2, (C) 3, (D) 4 | Answer is B. The Silverman Anderson retraction score of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS): Upper chest Lower chest Xiphoid retraction Nares dilatation Expiratory grunt Grade 0 Synchronised No retraction None None None Grade 1 Lag on inspiration Just visible Just visible Minimal By stethoscope Grade 2 See-saw Marked M... | |
Bacteriostatic antitubercular drug among the following is :: (A) Isoniazid, (B) Rifampicin, (C) Streptomycin, (D) Ethambutol | Answer is D. None | |
Yoke muscle pair is: (A) Rt LR and Rt MR, (B) Rt so and Lt Io, (C) Rt LR and Lt MR, (D) All the above | Answer is C. Right lateral rectus and left medial rectus.
Yolk muscles are pair of muscles one from eye which contracts simultaneously during version movement. | |
Causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy are -: (A) Amyloid, (B) Sarcoidosis, (C) Storage disease, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy is characterised by a primary decrease in ventricular compliance , resulting in impaired ventricular filling during diastole. Restrictive cardiomyopathy can be idiopathic or associated with systemic disease that also happen to affect the myocardium for example radiation fibrosis,... | |
3-year-old child comes in ER with Hv'o vomiting, loose watery motion for 3 days, on examination, the child was drowsy, sunken eye. Hypothermia and skin pinch take time to revert back, diagnosis: (A) No dehydration, (B) Mild dehydration, (C) Some dehydration, (D) Severe dehydration | Answer is D. on A child with severe dehydration will have at least two of the following four signs: sensorium is abnormally sleepy or lethargic, sunken eyes, drinking poorly or not at all, and a very slow skin pinch.
A child with some signs of dehydraon will have two of the following: restlessness or irritability, sun... | |
A 50 years old lady presented with lump in the left breast, which has developed suddenly in weeks. Perimenstrual symptoms are present. No associated family history. On examination, the lump is well circumscribed, fluctuant, 1.5 cm oval in shape. Most likely diagnosis:: (A) Breast cyst, (B) Galactocele, (C) Fibroadenoma... | Answer is A. Fibroadenoma - it occurs in 2nd to 3rd decade of life Galactocele - it occurs in 3rd to 4th decade of life. Breast cancer - there is no associated family history and lump has developed suddenly hence breast cancer is ruled out. Breast cyst - it occurs in 5th to 6th decade of life. Examination revealed fluc... | |
HIV can -: (A) Cross blood brain barrier, (B) RNA virus, (C) Inhibited by 0.3% H2O2, (D) Thermostable | Answer is A. it can cross blood brain barrier and cause cns infection REF:ANANTHANARAYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.576 | |
Heamorrhagic external otitis media is caused by: (A) Influenza, (B) Proteus, (C) Streptococcus, (D) Staphylococcus | Answer is A. Otitis externa haemorrhagica It is characterized by for mation of haemorrhagic bullae on the tympanic membrane and deep meatus. It is probably viral in origin and may be seen in influenza epidemics. The condition causes severe pain in the ear and blood-stained discharge when the bullae rupture. Treatment: ... | |
A 7 year old male patient presents to the clinic for routine dental examination and has history of frequent snacking and sugary beverages. Intraoral examination shows multiple pit and fissure caries and subsurface enamel porosity manifesting as milky white opacity. Tactile probing should not be used in this case becaus... | Answer is D. Traditionally, dentists have relied upon a visual-tactile radiographic procedure for the detection of dental caries. This procedure involves the visual identification of demineralized areas (typically white spots) or suspicious pits or fissures and the use of the dental explorer to determine the... | |
Most dangerous paicles causing pneumoconiosis are of size: (A) A. 1-5 micron, (B) B. <1 micron, (C) C. 5-15 micron, (D) D. 10-20 micron | Answer is A. In pneumoconiosis, the most dangerous paicles range from 1-5 micron in diameter, because they may reach the terminal small airway and settle in there lining notes The solubility and cytotoxicity of paicles ,modify the nature of pulmonary response | |
Calculate the deficit for a 60 kg person,with Hb - 5 g/dl add 1000 mg for iron stores.: (A) 1500, (B) 2500, (C) 3500, (D) 4000 | Answer is B. Iron deficit = Bodyweight(kg) x 2.3 x (15 - Hb) + 1000
= 60 x 2.3 x (15 - 5) + 1000
= 2380 (close to 2500) | |
Which of the following is not a cause of glomerular proteinuria?: (A) Diabetes Mellitus, (B) Amyloidosis, (C) Multiple myeloma, (D) Nil Lesion | Answer is C. Multiple myeloma is characterized by tubular proteinuria. The Bence Jones proteins induce tubular damage Increased beta-2-microglobulin levels in urine is an prognostic indicator of Multiple myeloma Diabetes Mellitus and amyloidosis lead to damage to basement membrane of the kidney leading to glomerular pr... | |
Which of the following does not cause Insulin release-: (A) Rosiglitazone, (B) Nateglinide, (C) Glimipiride, (D) Tobutamide | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rosiglitazone o Oral hypoglycemic drugs may be divided into two groups. 1. Group 1 These drugs reduce plasma glucose by stimulating insulin production, therefore called insulin secretogogues. Hypoglycemia is a well known side effect. Examples are: i) Sulfonylureas: first generation (chlor... | |
Which of the following endocrine tumors is most commonly seen in MEN I ?: (A) Insulinoma, (B) Gastrinoma, (C) Glucagonoma, (D) Somatotrophinoma | Answer is B. In MEN 1 : * Gastrinoma (>50%) * Insulinoma (10-30%) * Glucagonoma (<3%) * Somatotrophinoma (25%) Reference : page 2336 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition | |
The following is the least useful investigation in multiple myeloma :: (A) ESR, (B) X-Ray, (C) Bone scan, (D) Bone marrow biopsy | Answer is C. Answer is C (Bone scan) Bone scans are least useful for diagnosis of Multiple Myeloma. Cytokines secreted by myeloma cells suppress osteoblastic activity therefore typically no increased uptake is observed. In multiple myeloma the osteohlastic response to bone destruction is negligible. The bone scan there... | |
Most common organism causing ventilator associated pneumonia -: (A) Legionella, (B) Pneumococcus, (C) Pseudomonas, (D) Coagulase negative staphylococcus | Answer is C. None | |
A 2-week-old baby is irritable and feeding poorly. On physical examination, the infant is irritable, diaphoretic, tachypneic and tachycardic. There is circumoral cyanosis, which is not alleted by nasal oxygen. A systolic thrill and holosystolic murmur are heard along the left sternal border. An echocardiogram reveals a... | Answer is D. Truncus aeriosus refers to a common trunk for the origin of the aoa, pulmonary aeries and coronary aeries. It results from absent or incomplete paitioning of the truncus aeriosus by the spiral septum during development. Most infants with persistent truncus aeriosus have torrential pulmonary blood flow, whi... | |
prophylaxis for Pneumocystis carinii is indicated in HIV positive patents When CD4 count is-: (A) <300 cells/mm3, (B) < 200 cells / mm3, (C) < 100 cells/mm3, (D) < 50 cells / mm3 | Answer is B. Low CD4 count correlated with risk of PCP (p < 0.0001); 79% had CD4 counts less than 100/microl and 95% had CD4 counts less than 200/microl. Bacterial pneumonia has been linked to several HIV-related factors, including CD4 counts, having an uncontrolled viral load, and not being on antiretroviral therapy. ... | |
index finger infection spreads to -: (A) Thenar space, (B) Mid palmar space, (C) Hypothenar space, (D) Flexion space | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thenar space o Thenar space communicates w'ith the index finger while the mid palmar space communicates with the middle, ring and little fingers.o Thus infection of index finger leads to thenar space infection while the infection of middle, ring or little finger leads to mid palmar space ... | |
Acute appendicitis is best diagnosed by -: (A) History, (B) Physical examination, (C) X-ray abdomen, (D) Ba meal | Answer is B. None | |
All are clinical features of chalcosis except: (A) Kayser - Fleischer ring, (B) Sun - flower cataract, (C) Deposition of golden plaques at the posterior pole, (D) Dalen- fuch's nodules. | Answer is D. Dalen - fuch's nodules are formed due to proliferation of the pigment epithelium ----- sympathetic ophthalmitis. | |
Bidextrous grip is seen at what age?: (A) 4 months, (B) 5 months, (C) 6 months, (D) 7 months | Answer is A. Ans. A. 4 monthsFINE MOTOR MILESTONES: AgeMilestone4 monthsBidextrous reach6 monthsUnidextrous reach9 monthsImmature pincer grasp12monthsMature pincer grasp15monthsImitates scribbling, tower of 2 blocks18monthsScribbles, tower of 3 blocks2 yearsTower of 6 blocks, veical & circular stroke3 yearsTower of 9 b... | |
A victim of Tsunami has difficulty in overcoming the experience. She still recollects the happening in dreams and thoughts. The most likely diagnosis is: (A) Post traumatic stress disorder, (B) Conversion disorder, (C) Panic disorder, (D) Phobia | Answer is A. PTSD is characterised by recurrent and intrusive recollections of the stressful event, either in flashbacks (images, thoughts, or perceptions) and/or in dreams. There is an associated sense of re-experiencing of the stressful event. There is marked avoidance of the events or situations that arouse recollec... | |
A tumor has the following characteristic retrobulbar location within the muscle cone, well defined capsule, presents with slowly progressive proptosis, easily resectable, occurs most commonly in the 2nd to 4th decade. Most likely diagnosis is -: (A) Capillary hemangioma, (B) Cavernous hemangioma, (C) Lymhangioma, (D) H... | Answer is B. Ref: Clinical ophthalmology 5th/e p.670 *Cavernous hemangioma is the most common benign, intraconal tumor in adults. *Hemangiopericytoma is also retrobulbar intraconal lesion found in adults but is a rare tumor. Moreover owing to its tendency to invade the adjacent tissues, its margins are less distinct th... | |
For Status epilepticus, treatment of choice is: September 2012: (A) Ethosuximide, (B) Sodium valproate, (C) Lamotrigine, (D) Lorazepam | Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. Lorazepam | |
All are subjective tests for audiometry except:: (A) Tone decay, (B) Impedance audiometry, (C) Speech audiometry, (D) Pure tone audiometry | Answer is B. (b) Impedance audiometry(Ref. Scott Brown, 6th ed., Vol 2; 2/12/1)Impedance audiometry is an objective test. It does not require the cooperation of patient.Other objective audiometry tests are; OAEs, Electrocochleography and BERA | |
The mesial surface of the crown is almost parallel to long axis and the root of a:: (A) Maxillary 1st premolar, (B) Mandibular 2nd Premolar, (C) Maxillary canine, (D) Mandibular canine | Answer is D. None | |
Tonic neck relfex is lost in lesion of -: (A) Cerebral coex, (B) Midbrain, (C) Medulla, (D) Spinal cord | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Medulla | |
More than 90% patients of CREST syndrome with the limited cutaneous form of this disorder make which of the following autoantibodies?: (A) Anti-centromere, (B) Anti-DNA topoisomerase l, (C) Anti-double-stranded DNA, (D) Anti-Golgi | Answer is A. All forms of scleroderma are thought to have a strong autoimmune component, and glucocoicoids and azathioprine are used to suppress the inflammatory complications of scleroderma. (Other drugs that can be used in therapy include penicillamine, which inhibits collagen cross-linking, NSAIDS for pain, and ACE ... | |
Name of mumps vaccine is: (A) Jeryl Lynn, (B) Edmonshon Zagreb, (C) Schwatz, (D) Moraten | Answer is A. Widely used live attenuated mumps vaccine include the jeryl Lynn, RIT 4385, Leningrad-3, L-Zagreb and Urable strains. The current mumps strain (jeryl Lynn) has the lowest associated incidence of post-vaccine aseptic meningitis. | |
Sacro-Iliac joint involvement is common in which condition?: (A) Ankylosing spondylitis, (B) Rheumatoid arthritis, (C) Reiter's syndrome, (D) Osteoarthritis | Answer is A. (A) Ankylosing spondylitis # ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS (AS, from Greek ankylos, crooked; spondylos, vertebrae; -itis, inflammation), previously known as Bekhterev's disease, Bekhterev syndrome, and Marie-Strumpell disease, is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton with variable involvement of pe... | |
Infertility issues with leiomyoma can be addressed by: (A) Combined oral contraceptive pills, (B) DMPA, (C) GnRH agonist, (D) Ulipristal | Answer is C. GnRH agonist treatment is approved for treating infertility associated with fibroid uterus. | |
An adult male sustained accidental burns and died 1 hour later. Which of the following enzymes will be increased in the burn area?: (A) ATPase, (B) Aminopeptidase, (C) Acid phosphatase, (D) Alkaline phosphatase | Answer is A. Answer: a) ATPase (KS NARAYAN REDDY 33rd ED P-327)In antemortem burns, skin adjacent to the burnt area will show increase in the following enzymes after certain time intervalEnzymeAge of wounds (hour)ATPases1Esterases1Aminopeptidases2Acid phosphatase4Alkaline phosphatase8 | |
Recommended daily dietary requirment of folate (folic acid) in children ?: (A) 80-120 mg, (B) 200 mg, (C) 400 mg, (D) 600 mg | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 80-120 mg Recommended daily allowances of folic acid are:- Healthy adults - 200 micro gm.(mcg) Pregnancy - 500 mcg Lactation - 300 mcg Children - 80-120 mcg | |
Alcohol dependence is seen which of the following phase: (A) Oral, (B) Phallic, (C) Anal, (D) Latency | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Oral PhasePsychiatric disorders resulting from fixation of regression to this phase* Oral phase (Birth 1 Vx year)* Alcohol dependence or drug dependence* Severe mood disorder* Dependent personality traits and disorders* Schizophrenia* Ana! phase* Obsessive compulsive traits* Obsessive comp... | |
CAMP acts through:: (A) Activation of protein kinase, (B) Activation of adenylate cyclase, (C) Ca2+ release., (D) All | Answer is A. A i.e., Activation of protein kinase | |
A four-fold increase in the titre obtained in Weil- Felix reaction is diagnostic of -: (A) Rickettsial infection, (B) Fungal infection, (C) Spirochetal infection, (D) Viral infection | Answer is A. In weil-felix test, host antibodies to various rickettsial species cause agglutination of Proteus bacteria because they cross-react with bacterial cell surface antigens. Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 1011 | |
The diameter of Tricuspid orifice is: (A) 2cm, (B) 2.5cm, (C) 3cm, (D) 4cm | Answer is D. ValveDiameter of OrificePulmonary2.5cmAoic2.5cmMitral3cmTricuspid4cmRef: BD Chaurasia; Volume 1; 6th edition; Table 18.1 | |
Most common cause of hirsutism in a teenage girl:: (A) Ovarian disease, (B) Pheochromocytoma, (C) Obesity, (D) Adrenogenital syndrome | Answer is A. As explained earlier PCOD is the most common cause of hirsutism.
PCOD most common affects teenage girls (15–25 years). Therefore, In teenage girls most common cause of hirsutism is PCOD. | |
CSF is stored at:Kerala 11: (A) 4degC, (B) -20degC, (C) Room temperature, (D) -70degC | Answer is A. Ans. 4degC | |
Gastrosplenic ligament is derived from?: (A) Splenic artery, (B) Splenic vein, (C) Dorsal mesogastrium, (D) Ventral mesogastrium | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) Dorsal mesogastriumREF: Langman's Medical Embryology 9th edition 293The gastrosplenic ligament (ligamentum gastrosplenicum or gastrolienal ligament) is part of the greater omentum. Embryonically the gastrosplenic ligament is derived from the dorsal mesogastrium. The gastrosplenic ligament is ma... | |
A 59-year-old male is found to have a 3.5-cm mass in the right upper lobe of his lung. A biopsy of this mass is diagnosed as a moderately differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. Workup reveals that no bone metastases are present, but laboratory examination reveals that the man's serum calcium levels are 11.5 mg/dL. Thi... | Answer is C. Symptoms not caused by either local or metastatic effects of tumors are called paraneoplastic syndromes. Bronchogenic carcinomas are associated with the development of many different types of paraneoplastic syndromes. These syndromes are usually associated with the secretion of ceain substances by the tumo... | |
Crossing over, true is;: (A) Occurs during diplotene stage, (B) Between non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes, (C) Between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes, (D) Between non homologous chromosomes sister chromatids | Answer is B. Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes occuring during pachytene stage of prophase I of meiosis.Recombination of genes in the same chromosome is brought about by crossing over. Ref: PRINCIPLES OF GENETICS, By Eldon John Gardner, Michael J. ... | |
Bloom Richardson grading -: (A) Carcinoma breast, (B) Carcinoma lung, (C) Carcinoma prostate, (D) Cercinoma ovary | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Carcinoma breasto Bloom Richardson Grading and its variants are used to grade breast cancers. | |
Which among the following is FALSE about congenital toxoplasmosis?: (A) IgA is better than IgM in detection, (B) Diagnosed by detection of IgM in cord blood, (C) IgG is diagnostic, (D) Not recalled | Answer is C. Negative IgM with positive IgG indicates past infection. The presence of IgM antibody (which does not cross placenta) in the infant's circulation will diagnose congenital toxoplasmosis. The double sandwich IgA-ELISA is more sensitive than the IgM-ELISA for detecting congenital infection in the fetus and ne... | |
Superior suprarenal aery originates from:: (A) Abdominal aoa, (B) Renal aery, (C) Inferior phrenic aery, (D) Splenic aery | Answer is C. Inferior phrenic aery |
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