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582
2,022
208
A 53-year-old man with no history of interest who after a bad movement in the gym notices low back pain that after a few hours radiates to the back of the right leg and reaches the lateral edge of the foot. On examination he presents positive Lasègue maneuver at 40o, abolished hamstring reflex and he cannot stand on tiptoe. The most probable etiological diagnosis is:
He describes S1 root involvement by the inability to tiptoe and the absence of the Achilles reflex, in addition to the distribution of pain down the leg. Of our options, the cause that can produce damage to S1 is L5-S1 disc herniation.
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "Right L2-L3 disc herniation.", "2": "Right L3-L4 disc herniation.", "3": "Right L4-L5 disc herniation.", "4": "Right L5-S1 disc herniation.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 235 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 42 ] ], "text": "He describes S1 root involvement by the inability to tiptoe and the absence of the Achilles reflex, in addition to the distribution of pain down the leg. Of our options, the cause that can produce damage to S1 is L5-S1 disc herniation." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
160
2,013
117
A 35-year-old man presenting hematuria after respiratory infections for several years, a blood test shows creatinine 1 mg/dl with no other alterations and urine hematocytes 50/field being 80% dysmorphic, with proteinuria of 0.8 grams in 24 hours. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The correct answer is: 3. IgA nephropathy. Given that the clinical presentation of this nephropathy appears in a very unspecific way, to identify the responsible disease we must rely on its epidemiology. Since he is a young male, with a history of previous respiratory infections, a relationship between these infections and renal pathology is established. Based on this we think about IgA nephropathy, which besides being the most frequent glomerulonephritis, it is presented in most of the cases as described.
NEPHROLOGY
{ "1": "Minimal change nephropathy.", "2": "Membranous glomerulonephritis.", "3": "IgA nephropathy.", "4": "Proliferative and diffuse glomerulonephritis.", "5": "Focal and primary segmental glomerulosclerosis." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 204, 511 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 80 ] ], "text": "Since he is a young male, with a history of previous respiratory infections, a relationship between these infections and renal pathology is established. Based on this we think about IgA nephropathy, which besides being the most frequent glomerulonephritis, it is presented in most of the cases as described." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
312
2,016
217
An 84-year-old woman presents with loss of vision in the left eye of 4 days of evolution accompanied by metamorphopsia. The macula shows abundant hard exudates, two small deep hemorrhages and a localized neurosensory retinal detachment. In the contralateral eye there are abundant soft drusen. Given this picture, which of the following diagnoses do you think is the most likely?
In principle, this is an easy question, as it deals with a disease that is frequently repeated in the MIR exams. The description is typical of option 2. It is an exudative AMD (although as we said in question 215, with the new classification, we would speak of an advanced AMD in its neovascular variant). In any case, we have an elderly patient with vision loss and metamorphopsia in one eye. In the examination there are lesions in the macula. With that we can rule out acute posterior vitreous detachment, which does not produce visual loss, nor metamorphopsia, nor lesions in the macula. And also non-arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, because although it produces visual loss and is typical of older people, it does not produce metamorphopsia. And there are no lesions in the macula but papilla edema. In central retinal artery obstruction, metamorphopsia is not particularly characteristic (visual loss and advanced age are), but the lesions in the fundus of the eye vary. In the case of arterial occlusion, there is intracellular edema that is seen as absence of hemorrhages and a whitish, pale fundus. In addition, the entire retina is globally affected, and a cherry-red spot may appear in the macula. In this case the lesions are totally different. They describe hard exudates, deep hemorrhages and localized neurosensory retinal detachment. All this in the macula. These are the characteristic findings of neovascular (or exudative) AMD. As a clue, in the other eye there are abundant soft drusen. Drusen are the typical findings of AMD. So he has AMD in both eyes and in the right eye it has recently become complicated by the appearance of neovascularization.
OPHTHALMOLOGY
{ "1": "Acute posterior vitreous detachment.", "2": "Exudative age-related macular degeneration (AMD).", "3": "Central retinal artery obstruction.", "4": "Non-arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 394, 591 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 71, 103 ] ], "text": "In the examination there are lesions in the macula. With that we can rule out acute posterior vitreous detachment, which does not produce visual loss, nor metamorphopsia, nor lesions in the macula." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1270, 1459 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 211, 237 ] ], "text": "They describe hard exudates, deep hemorrhages and localized neurosensory retinal detachment. All this in the macula. These are the characteristic findings of neovascular (or exudative) AMD." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 990, 1269 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 164, 211 ] ], "text": "In the case of arterial occlusion, there is intracellular edema that is seen as absence of hemorrhages and a whitish, pale fundus. In addition, the entire retina is globally affected, and a cherry-red spot may appear in the macula. In this case the lesions are totally different." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 592, 759 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 103, 127 ] ], "text": "And also non-arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, because although it produces visual loss and is typical of older people, it does not produce metamorphopsia." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
24
2,011
115
A 68-year-old man is evaluated for fever, weight loss and dyspnea on exertion. The EP reveals a new aortic diastolic murmur and stigmata of peripheral embolisms. Echocardiography showed a 1 cm vegetation on the aortic valve and two blood cultures isolated penicillin-sensitive Streptococcus bovis. After starting treatment for endocarditis, which of the following examinations could help us in the diagnosis?
Another gift of a question, the association of S.bovis endocarditis and colon cancer. By the way, it is funny that they give Chest Rx as a test to be performed..... are you telling me that a patient with fever and dyspnea will have an echocardiogram before a simple chest x-ray? And on the other hand... why don't those who write the MIR ask shorter questions without so much back and forth? If what they want is to ask the test to be performed on a patient with S. bovis endocarditis, they could ask the question directly without telling us about the patient's moles...
INFECTIOUS
{ "1": "Glucose tolerance test.", "2": "Chest X-ray.", "3": "Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy.", "4": "Colonoscopy.", "5": "Abdominal ultrasound." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 28, 84 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 13 ] ], "text": "the association of S.bovis endocarditis and colon cancer." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
260
2,014
99
A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic referred from surgery with the diagnosis of a neuroendocrine tumor diagnosed after partial pancreatectomy for a 2-cm tumor in the tail of the pancreas. The tumor had been detected by chance in an abdominal CT scan requested to complete the study of a simple hepatic cyst. On questioning the patient, the history of irregular menstruation, amenorrhea for the last 6 months, and repeated renal colic since she was 20 years old, for which she has required lithotripsy on several occasions, stand out. She also has a family history of renoureteral colic. What is her suspected diagnosis?
Very nice clinical question from MEN. Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor + pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma) + hyperparathyroidism (renoureteral colic in young people): MEN 1. Medium difficulty because you have to know the MEN triad and recognize the different tumors.
ENDOCRINOLOGY
{ "1": "Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 or Wermer's syndrome.", "2": "Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 A or Sipple's syndrome.", "3": "Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B.", "4": "Somatostatinoma.", "5": "A PTH-producing neuroendocrine tumor." }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 38, 171 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 6, 22 ] ], "text": "Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor + pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma) + hyperparathyroidism (renoureteral colic in young people): MEN 1." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
211
2,014
87
A 78-year-old woman comes to the emergency department for left iliac fossa pain of 24 hours of evolution associated with fever and occasional vomiting. On examination, there is selective pain on palpation in the left iliac fossa with a feeling of occupation, defense and positive decompression. When acute diverticulitis is suspected, which of the following statements is correct?
Answer 1 is incorrect because the imaging tests of choice would be ultrasound or CT; answer 3 is incorrect because the laparoscopic approach is indicated from the start; answer 4 is incorrect because the indication in the first episode is for those under 50 years of age, in the rest it is indicated after the second episode or in cases of persistent symptoms or suspected neoplasia; and answer 5 is incorrect because surgery in cases of perforation with peritonitis should always resect the affected segment of colon to control the focus of the infection.
GENERAL SURGERY
{ "1": "The safest and best performing complementary examination is the barium contrast enema.", "2": "In case of contained pelvic abscess, percutaneous drainage guided by CT or ultrasound is indicated.", "3": "If surgical intervention is required after resolution of the acute episode, the laparoscopic approach is contraindicated.", "4": "In case of acute uncomplicated diverticulitis, elective sigmoidectomy is indicated after cure of the first acute episode.", "5": "If generalized peritonitis occurs, the most appropriate surgical technique is the practice of a derivative colostomy without resection of the affected sigmoid segment." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 84 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 15 ] ], "text": "Answer 1 is incorrect because the imaging tests of choice would be ultrasound or CT;" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 85, 169 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 15, 28 ] ], "text": "answer 3 is incorrect because the laparoscopic approach is indicated from the start;" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 170, 383 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 28, 66 ] ], "text": "answer 4 is incorrect because the indication in the first episode is for those under 50 years of age, in the rest it is indicated after the second episode or in cases of persistent symptoms or suspected neoplasia;" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 384, 556 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 66, 94 ] ], "text": "and answer 5 is incorrect because surgery in cases of perforation with peritonitis should always resect the affected segment of colon to control the focus of the infection." } }
162
2,013
121
A 52-year-old patient with stage V chronic kidney disease, secondary to autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, receives a cadaver donor kidney graft. A 34-year-old brother of his comes to visit him and says he does not know if he has the disease because he has never seen a doctor since he was a teenager. What attitude or test do you think is the most appropriate to recommend at that moment?
The correct answer is: 2. Abdomino-pelvic ultrasound. Abdomino-pelvic ultrasound is undoubtedly the most specific and sensitive test for the diagnosis of polycystic kidney disease and, above all, the cheapest to demonstrate whether or not the patient's sibling has inherited polycystic kidney disease.
NEPHROLOGY
{ "1": "Genetic mutational and linkage study.", "2": "Abdomino-pelvic ultrasound.", "3": "Helical computed axial tomography with iodinated contrast.", "4": "Abdominal and cerebral MRI.", "5": "Periodic clinical controls." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 54, 301 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 7, 42 ] ], "text": "Abdomino-pelvic ultrasound is undoubtedly the most specific and sensitive test for the diagnosis of polycystic kidney disease and, above all, the cheapest to demonstrate whether or not the patient's sibling has inherited polycystic kidney disease." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
207
2,014
181
A 43-year-old woman referred to the Hospital's Lower Genital Tract Pathology Clinic for presenting with a cervico-vaginal cytology reported as "L-SIL" (Low Grade Intraepithelial Lesion). She refers repeated vaginal infections (Trichomoniasis,...) and having had more than 5 sexual partners in her life. The best care strategy for this woman is:
The best answer to this question is number 5. Most of the lesions identified as L-SIL are associated with HPV infection: for this reason, it is advisable to stop smoking, as this is a factor in the progression of the said infection. On the other hand, according to the latest studies, 70% of the cytologies reported as LSIL will remit, 15% will persist and another 15% will show a more severe cytology, without being able to differentiate whether it is a biological progression or a lesion hidden in the initial cytology. Because of this, it is best to return for a follow-up at 6 months. Given the woman's personal history (more than 5 sexual partners and repeat infections) and her age, a referral for colposcopy would be ideal. However, answer 5 says control in 6 months, but does not specify which control (it could be a colposcopy or cytology).
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "Conization with diathermy loop.", "2": "Endocervical curettage with Kevorkian curettage.", "3": "Endometrial biopsy with Cornier cannula.", "4": "Hysterectomy without adnexectomy.", "5": "Advise her to stop smoking and contraceptives and to have a control in 6 months." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 46, 588 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 9, 105 ] ], "text": "Most of the lesions identified as L-SIL are associated with HPV infection: for this reason, it is advisable to stop smoking, as this is a factor in the progression of the said infection. On the other hand, according to the latest studies, 70% of the cytologies reported as LSIL will remit, 15% will persist and another 15% will show a more severe cytology, without being able to differentiate whether it is a biological progression or a lesion hidden in the initial cytology. Because of this, it is best to return for a follow-up at 6 months." } }
584
2,022
73
A 51-year-old woman, menopausal for a year and a half, who consults for vaginal spotting of 2 weeks' evolution. She reports that the spotting is less than a menstrual period. The ultrasound shows a 7 mm endometrium. Mark the correct option:
The endometrium is thickened for a menopausal woman (some guidelines put the limit at 5 and others at 3mm). And the first complementary test to perform would be an endometrial biopsy. If this is not decisive, hysteroscopy will be considered as a second option.
OBSTETRICS AND GYNECOLOGY
{ "1": "The endometrium is thickened and in view of the patient's symptoms, an endometrial biopsy is taken with a Cornier cannula.", "2": "The endometrium is not thickened so she is prescribed tranexamic acid and ambulatory follow-up.", "3": "Indications for diagnostic hysteroscopy without the need for endometrial biopsy.", "4": "The endometrium is not thickened, but since she has clinical signs of metrorrhagia, an endometrial biopsy is indicated.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 183 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 31 ] ], "text": "The endometrium is thickened for a menopausal woman (some guidelines put the limit at 5 and others at 3mm). And the first complementary test to perform would be an endometrial biopsy." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
138
2,012
165
A child who comes to the outpatient clinic because he brings his hand to his ear, without fever or acute inflammatory signs and who on examination shows a pinkish/amber eardrum. As history he refers that one month ago he presented an episode of otalgia, fever accompanied by irritability and that he was treated with amoxicillin 40 mg/kg/day. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Reading the case, we are discarding options: child with otalgia, but without fever or acute inflammatory signs: it is neither 1 (recurrent acute otitis media) nor 5 (mastoiditis). On otoscopy, a pinkish and amber eardrum is observed: there are no scales, so it is not 4 (cholesteatomatous chronic otitis media); nor perforations or adhesions, so it is not 3 (simple chronic otitis media). Otoscopy is characteristic of serous otitis media (answer 2 correct). It is known by ENT, pediatricians and family physicians that in the month following an acute otitis media, the middle ear is occupied by a mucous content whose evolution should be monitored. I do not think that this is a contestable issue either.
OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY
{ "1": "Recurrent acute otitis media.", "2": "Serous otitis media.", "3": "Simple chronic otitis media.", "4": "Chronic cholesteatomatous otitis media.", "5": "Mastoiditis." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 45, 179 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 7, 28 ] ], "text": "child with otalgia, but without fever or acute inflammatory signs: it is neither 1 (recurrent acute otitis media) nor 5 (mastoiditis)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 389, 458 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 63, 73 ] ], "text": "Otoscopy is characteristic of serous otitis media (answer 2 correct)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 312, 388 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 50, 63 ] ], "text": "nor perforations or adhesions, so it is not 3 (simple chronic otitis media)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 180, 311 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 28, 50 ] ], "text": "On otoscopy, a pinkish and amber eardrum is observed: there are no scales, so it is not 4 (cholesteatomatous chronic otitis media);" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 45, 179 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 7, 28 ] ], "text": "child with otalgia, but without fever or acute inflammatory signs: it is neither 1 (recurrent acute otitis media) nor 5 (mastoiditis)." } }
136
2,012
132
A 60-year-old man comes to the emergency department for a coma crisis. Ex-smoker for 3 years, with no other history of interest. A CT scan shows multiple metastases. What is the most probable origin?
Pretty easy, isn't it? Lung cancer is the most frequent cause of brain metastases and in 20-30% of cases it is as a result of them that the primary tumor is diagnosed (as here).
ONCOLOGY
{ "1": "Head and neck cancer.", "2": "Lung cancer.", "3": "Urinary bladder cancer.", "4": "Colon cancer.", "5": "Pancreatic cancer." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 23, 177 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 4, 34 ] ], "text": "Lung cancer is the most frequent cause of brain metastases and in 20-30% of cases it is as a result of them that the primary tumor is diagnosed (as here)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
518
2,021
105
A 24-year-old woman with a history of migraine, on propranolol and oral contraceptives, presents with severe dyspnea, hoarseness, rash, nausea and vomiting 30 minutes after taking metamizole. His blood pressure is 90/40 mmHg and SatO2 is 90%. The most correct initial treatment would be to administer:
We are faced with an anaphylactic reaction to metamizole, in which it is necessary to act quickly or the patient could progress to cardiac arrest. It is important to assess the severity of the allergic reactions, since, in this case, early treatment is essential to prevent high mortality if not applied. The treatment of choice is IM adrenaline (only switch to IV if anaphylaxis is refractory), which has been shown to increase survival, and administration can be repeated every 5-15 minutes if symptoms do not subside. As adjuvant treatment, dexchlorpheniramine could be administered. In this particular case, since the patient was previously treated with propranolol, this indicates that the correct answer is 4, which includes the administration of glucagon, which is administered because patients taking beta-blockers can be resistant to treatment with adrenaline and develop refractory hypotension and prolonged bradycardia. The dose in adults is 1 to 2mg, IV or IM, which can be repeated in 5 minutes or followed by an infusion at 5-15mcg/min.
CRITICAL AND EMERGENCY CARE
{ "1": "Adrenaline.", "2": "Adrenaline and dexchlorpheniramine.", "3": "Adrenaline, dexchlorpheniramine and methylprednisolone.", "4": "Adrenaline, dexchlorpheniramine and glucagon.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 587, 930 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 93, 140 ] ], "text": "In this particular case, since the patient was previously treated with propranolol, this indicates that the correct answer is 4, which includes the administration of glucagon, which is administered because patients taking beta-blockers can be resistant to treatment with adrenaline and develop refractory hypotension and prolonged bradycardia." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
581
2,022
205
61-year-old male, smoker and hypertensive, who comes to the emergency department for sudden loss of strength and tingling sensation in the right hand lasting about 15 minutes, with almost complete recovery afterwards. ECG: sinus rhythm at 93 bpm. In relation to the most probable diagnosis, indicate the FALSE answer:
The case is a TIA (transient ischemic attack). The basic etiological study includes echodoppler of supra-aortic trunks +/- cerebral arteries, echocardiogram and directed blood analysis.
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "A probable cause is an arterioarterial embolism due to detachment of a carotid plaque.", "2": "Doppler ultrasound of supra-aortic trunks is not very useful for diagnosis.", "3": "A cranial CT scan is necessary to assess the impact on the brain parenchyma.", "4": "Surgical treatment is indicated if imaging tests reveal carotid stenosis >70%.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
543
2,022
39
A 35-year-old patient consults to confirm a suspected allergy to Anisakis simplex. She has previously suffered a clinical picture of gastrointestinal anisakiasis after eating fish. The tests performed show specific IgE levels of 10 KU/l against Anisakis simplex. Which of the following would be the dietary recommendation for this patient?
Anisakis simplex is a parasite frequently found in fish. To avoid reactions with this parasite, a diet free of fresh and raw fish (anchovies in vinegar, smoked, salted fish, sushi, etc.) should be followed. Deep-frozen fish or fresh fish previously frozen at -20ºC for at least 5 days before cooking can be consumed, as long as it is cooked at high temperatures >60ºC (roasted, fried, etc.), avoiding raw, grilled or microwaved preparations. It is recommended to consume preferably the tails because the larvae of the parasite are usually close to the viscera of the head.
ALLERGOLOGY
{ "1": "He cannot eat any fish, crustaceans, mollusks or cephalopods.", "2": "He can eat fresh fish cooked on the grill.", "3": "May eat commercially flash-frozen fish.", "4": "You can eat fresh marinated or cold smoked fish.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
2
2,011
36
An 87-year-old patient with a history of chronic bronchitis and heart failure has been diagnosed with acute calculous cholecystitis. After 4 days of hospitalization and treatment with absolute diet, piperacillin-tazobactam serum therapy, the patient continues with fever, persistent abdominal pain and leukocytosis. The most appropriate attitude at this time would be:
In this question, they insist on the age and comorbidity of the patient, as well as the time of evolution, so the answer will probably not be 1. In any case, the ideal would be to drain the gallbladder that has not gone up again, so the answer I would give would be 2.
DIGESTIVE
{ "1": "Urgent surgical treatment.", "2": "Biliary drainage by percutaneous cholecystostomy.", "3": "Replace piperacillin-tazobactam with metronidazole-cefotaxime.", "4": "Replace piperacillin-tazobactam with amikacin-clindamycin.", "5": "Add an aminoglycoside such as gentamicin to the treatment." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 143 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 28 ] ], "text": "In this question, they insist on the age and comorbidity of the patient, as well as the time of evolution, so the answer will probably not be 1." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 146, 269 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 28, 54 ] ], "text": "In any case, the ideal would be to drain the gallbladder that has not gone up again, so the answer I would give would be 2." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
122
2,012
119
A 17-year-old woman came to the emergency department with acute symptoms of high fever, pharyngeal pain and cervical lymphadenopathy. She had previously been diagnosed with acute pharyngitis and was treated with amoxicillin, and later presented with a generalized macular skin rash. Laboratory tests showed slight leukocytosis and presence of activated leukocytes, slight thrombopenia and slightly increased transaminases. What would be the most likely diagnosis of this clinical picture?
The correct answer is the first one. It is a typical picture of infectious mononucleosis. Although a similar picture may occur in acute toxoplasmosis, less than 1% of acute toxoplasma infections present as mononucleosis. Characteristic of Epstein-Barr infectious mononucleosis is the appearance of macular rash after treatment with amoxicillin.
MICROBIOLOGY
{ "1": "It is a typical picture of infectious mononucleosis.", "2": "Varicella zoster infection.", "3": "Acute toxoplasmosis.", "4": "Lyme disease.", "5": "Infection by herpes virus 8." }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 221, 344 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 34, 49 ] ], "text": "Characteristic of Epstein-Barr infectious mononucleosis is the appearance of macular rash after treatment with amoxicillin." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 90, 220 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 15, 34 ] ], "text": "Although a similar picture may occur in acute toxoplasmosis, less than 1% of acute toxoplasma infections present as mononucleosis." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
36
2,011
130
An 85-year-old woman consults for fatigue and weakness especially in the mornings. She is sometimes unsteady when walking and has to sit down to regain her balance. On two occasions she has had to sit down to keep from falling but denies symptoms of dizziness. She has arterial hypertension, urinary incontinence and osteoarthritis. Her treatment is hydrochlorothiazide (25 mg/d), oxybutynin (10 mg/d), lisinopril (10 mg/d), calcium (1500 mg/d) and paracetamol (3 g/d). On examination he has a blood pressure of 115/70 mm Hg, pulse 80 bpm. His movements are slow. He has a moderate hand tremor. She can get up from the chair slowly but without needing to lean on her arms. She walks slightly leaning forward with little swinging of the arms. Turns slowly but without losing balance. She is unable to stand on one foot. Which of the following possible actions would you perform first?
The correct answer is to initiate treatment with L-dopa, since the clinical picture described is of a parkinsonism whose diagnosis is exclusively clinical. The rest of the answers can be made for differential diagnosis, but the performance of complementary tests does not justify delaying the initiation of treatment.
NEUROLOGY AND NEUROSURGERY
{ "1": "Assess visual acuity.", "2": "Perform an MRI.", "3": "Tilt table study.", "4": "Measure blood pressure lying down and standing up.", "5": "Therapeutic attempt with L-dopa." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 156, 317 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 48 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers can be made for differential diagnosis, but the performance of complementary tests does not justify delaying the initiation of treatment." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 156, 317 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 48 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers can be made for differential diagnosis, but the performance of complementary tests does not justify delaying the initiation of treatment." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 156, 317 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 48 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers can be made for differential diagnosis, but the performance of complementary tests does not justify delaying the initiation of treatment." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 156, 317 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 48 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers can be made for differential diagnosis, but the performance of complementary tests does not justify delaying the initiation of treatment." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 155 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 23 ] ], "text": "The correct answer is to initiate treatment with L-dopa, since the clinical picture described is of a parkinsonism whose diagnosis is exclusively clinical." } }
338
2,016
31
20-year-old woman with ovarian tumor of 15 cm, solid-cystic, detected by ultrasound after presenting with unspecific abdominal symptoms. In the histopathological study of the corresponding specimen, teeth, hairs, areas of intestinal epithelium, areas of squamous epithelium (15%) and bronchial epithelium, as well as neuroectodermal and embryonic elements are found in several of the histological preparations. In reference to this case, point out the correct diagnosis:
Mature cystic teratoma (common in the ovary of the adult female). Mass with a large cyst occupying most of it; in its cavity there is sebaceous material and hairs. The wall, generally a few millimeters thick, has the structure of skin, with its epidermal surface towards the cavity. Because of this preponderant development of cutaneous structures it is usually called dermoid cyst. The tissues that compose the tumor are well differentiated (mature or adult type); apart from skin structures many other tissues can be observed, particularly in a thickening or spur that eminences into the cavity, in which there are often teeth, cartilage and bone.
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "Teratocarcinoma.", "2": "Immature teratoma.", "3": "Mature cystic teratoma.", "4": "Dysgerminoma.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 383, 649 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 62, 105 ] ], "text": "The tissues that compose the tumor are well differentiated (mature or adult type); apart from skin structures many other tissues can be observed, particularly in a thickening or spur that eminences into the cavity, in which there are often teeth, cartilage and bone." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
432
2,018
117
An 85-year-old man with a peripheral venous catheter who, one week after being hospitalized for a stroke, begins with shivering and fever. Blood cultures are performed and microbiology reports that gram-positive cocci are growing in clusters. Pending the antibiogram, what is the most appropriate antibiotic treatment?
The most frequent cause of catheter infection is a bacterium that colonizes the skin. The Gram stain tells us that it is a staphylococcus, most of the species of this genus acquired in-hospital are methicillin resistant, so they are considered resistant to Cloxacillin, Cefazolin and there are no clinical data about the efficacy of linezolid for the treatment of systemic infection related to catheter. This, plus the experience with vancomycin use in this setting is considered the empirical choice for vancomycin.
INFECTIOUS DISEASES AND MICROBIOLOGY
{ "1": "Cefazolin.", "2": "Cloxacillin.", "3": "Vancomycin.", "4": "Linezolid.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 86, 279 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 14, 44 ] ], "text": "The Gram stain tells us that it is a staphylococcus, most of the species of this genus acquired in-hospital are methicillin resistant, so they are considered resistant to Cloxacillin, Cefazolin" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 86, 279 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 14, 44 ] ], "text": "The Gram stain tells us that it is a staphylococcus, most of the species of this genus acquired in-hospital are methicillin resistant, so they are considered resistant to Cloxacillin, Cefazolin" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 415, 516 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 66, 81 ] ], "text": "the experience with vancomycin use in this setting is considered the empirical choice for vancomycin." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 284, 403 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 45, 64 ] ], "text": "there are no clinical data about the efficacy of linezolid for the treatment of systemic infection related to catheter." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
513
2,021
38
A 72-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with severe lingual angioedema. She has no associated urticaria and no history of drug or food allergy. His personal history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, dyslipidemia, hypertension, hypothyroidism and Parkinson's disease. In regular treatment with metformin, simvastatin, enalapril, thyroxine and levodopa. Which of the following drugs is most likely the causal drug of the clinical picture described?
Of the proposed drugs, the least likely options would be 3, since metformin very rarely causes lingual angioedema (in March 2020 there was only one case described worldwide) and 4, since, among the adverse reactions of levodopa, angioedema is classified among the very rare ones (frequency less than 0.1%). Of the two remaining options, the drugs most frequently and classically associated with lingual angioedema are ACE inhibitors (frequency around 0.2%), and their association with simvastatin is also less than 0.1%.
CRITICAL AND EMERGENCY CARE
{ "1": "Enalapril.", "2": "Simvastatin.", "3": "Metformin or levodopa equally.", "4": "Levodopa.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 337, 457 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 54, 70 ] ], "text": "the drugs most frequently and classically associated with lingual angioedema are ACE inhibitors (frequency around 0.2%)," }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 462, 520 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 71, 80 ] ], "text": "their association with simvastatin is also less than 0.1%." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 66, 173 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 12, 28 ] ], "text": "metformin very rarely causes lingual angioedema (in March 2020 there was only one case described worldwide)" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 188, 306 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 31, 49 ] ], "text": "among the adverse reactions of levodopa, angioedema is classified among the very rare ones (frequency less than 0.1%)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
580
2,022
198
A 35-year-old woman referred to the emergency department for head trauma due to a fall on a scooter, with no loss of consciousness or amnesia. The examination shows a closed head injury with concussion and mild headache without nausea and vomiting. The neurological examination is normal and the Glasgow index is 15. In this situation, which imaging test is indicated first?
After a TBI in a patient who is not anticoagulated or antiplatelet, with no known risk factors for hemorrhage, and who does not present alarming data in the anamnesis or physical examination, it is not necessary to perform a cranial imaging test.
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "Cranial CT scan without contrast.", "2": "Cranial CT with contrast.", "3": "No imaging test.", "4": "Simple skull radiography.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 246 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 42 ] ], "text": "After a TBI in a patient who is not anticoagulated or antiplatelet, with no known risk factors for hemorrhage, and who does not present alarming data in the anamnesis or physical examination, it is not necessary to perform a cranial imaging test." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 246 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 42 ] ], "text": "After a TBI in a patient who is not anticoagulated or antiplatelet, with no known risk factors for hemorrhage, and who does not present alarming data in the anamnesis or physical examination, it is not necessary to perform a cranial imaging test." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 246 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 42 ] ], "text": "After a TBI in a patient who is not anticoagulated or antiplatelet, with no known risk factors for hemorrhage, and who does not present alarming data in the anamnesis or physical examination, it is not necessary to perform a cranial imaging test." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 246 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 42 ] ], "text": "After a TBI in a patient who is not anticoagulated or antiplatelet, with no known risk factors for hemorrhage, and who does not present alarming data in the anamnesis or physical examination, it is not necessary to perform a cranial imaging test." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
248
2,014
118
A 34-year-old man consults for fever and malaise. The medical history includes a history of homosexual relations for the last 4 months with a new partner. 2 months before the current consultation he had a painless ulcerative lesion on the glans penis with bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy, all self-limited. Serological studies were requested with the following results: HIV negative, RPR 1/320, HAART 1/128. What treatment would you indicate for this patient?
Direct response question. This is syphilis (both by antecendent and serology) in the secondary stage, so treatment is with Benzathine Penicillin 2.4 MU in a single dose.
INFECTIOUS DISEASES
{ "1": "None.", "2": "Intravenous penicillin G, 24 MU every day for 14 days.", "3": "Benzathine penicillin 2.4 MU intramuscular, 3 doses in three consecutive weeks.", "4": "Ceftriaxone 2 grams intramuscular in a single dose.", "5": "Benzathine penicillin 2.4 MU intramuscularly in a single dose." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 26, 169 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 3, 27 ] ], "text": "This is syphilis (both by antecendent and serology) in the secondary stage, so treatment is with Benzathine Penicillin 2.4 MU in a single dose." } }
222
2,014
197
30-year-old HIV (+) homosexual male who participates as a volunteer in an AIDS patient support center. According to his medical history he received diphtheria toxoid (Td) 6 years ago, MMR vaccine in childhood and adolescence, and hepatitis B 3 years ago. He is currently asymptomatic with a CD4 count above 200 cls/microliter. Which vaccines should we recommend?
Vaccination recommendations for HIV+ adults include hepatitis B, influenza, MMR, pneumococcal, Td and Tdap, and for some adults, hepatitis A, or combined A and B, bacterial meningitis, HPV and meningococcal (Source [1]). Considering that the individual has received some vaccines, has a CD4 count >100 (if lower there would be a contraindication) and works in a center that helps AIDS patients (he is equated to "health personnel") answers 2, 4 and 5 are wrong. All four vaccines in option 1 are administrable. In a little more detail: Vaccine against tetanus and diphtheria: all persons should be vaccinated against these two diseases. Hepatitis B vaccine: hepatitis B and HIV viruses share the same routes of transmission, so it is common for HIV-infected patients to also be infected with hepatitis B virus. It is therefore important to know whether the HIV-infected person has markers of hepatitis B infection and to proceed with vaccination if he/she does not have them. Vaccination against hepatitis A: Hepatitis A in a person with hepatitis B, hepatitis C or other liver disease can be very serious. Since these infections are more frequent in HIV-infected patients, vaccination against hepatitis A is recommended. Vaccination against influenza: influenza in a patient with a lack of immune response is more serious and presents a greater risk of complications, so annual vaccination against this disease is indicated. If the patient's immune status is very deteriorated, the response to vaccination is diminished. In this case, it is essential to vaccinate all the people living with the HIV-infected person to prevent them from transmitting the disease. Pneumococcal vaccine: pneumococcal infections (especially pneumonia) are up to 10 times more frequent in HIV-infected persons than in HIV-uninfected adults, so vaccination is recommended, although in patients with counts below 200/mm3 the protective response is usually not sufficient. They should receive a second dose at 3-5 years of age. HIV-infected children should be vaccinated with pneumococcal conjugate vaccine with the corresponding number of doses according to age. Vaccination against Haemophilus Influenzae type b: this bacterium causes pneumonia and meningitis, especially in children. Although in HIV-infected adults it represents a small number of the causes of infection, vaccination is recommended. Vaccination against measles, rubella and mumps (MMR): all three diseases can become more serious in HIV-infected patients, especially measles, so all of them should be vaccinated, provided that immunosuppression is not severe (count less than 200/mm3).
EPIDEMIOLOGY
{ "1": "Seasonal influenza, pneumococcal, tetravalent meningitis and hepatitis A.", "2": "Seasonal influenza, Td, pneumococcal and tetravalent meningitis.", "3": "Tetravalent meningitis, pneumococcal and seasonal flu.", "4": "Td, tetravalent meningitis, pneumococcal.", "5": "Triple viral, seasonal flu, pneumococcal." }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 462, 1948 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 74, 300 ] ], "text": "All four vaccines in option 1 are administrable. In a little more detail: Vaccine against tetanus and diphtheria: all persons should be vaccinated against these two diseases. Hepatitis B vaccine: hepatitis B and HIV viruses share the same routes of transmission, so it is common for HIV-infected patients to also be infected with hepatitis B virus. It is therefore important to know whether the HIV-infected person has markers of hepatitis B infection and to proceed with vaccination if he/she does not have them. Vaccination against hepatitis A: Hepatitis A in a person with hepatitis B, hepatitis C or other liver disease can be very serious. Since these infections are more frequent in HIV-infected patients, vaccination against hepatitis A is recommended. Vaccination against influenza: influenza in a patient with a lack of immune response is more serious and presents a greater risk of complications, so annual vaccination against this disease is indicated. If the patient's immune status is very deteriorated, the response to vaccination is diminished. In this case, it is essential to vaccinate all the people living with the HIV-infected person to prevent them from transmitting the disease. Pneumococcal vaccine: pneumococcal infections (especially pneumonia) are up to 10 times more frequent in HIV-infected persons than in HIV-uninfected adults, so vaccination is recommended, although in patients with counts below 200/mm3 the protective response is usually not sufficient." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 221, 461 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 74 ] ], "text": "Considering that the individual has received some vaccines, has a CD4 count >100 (if lower there would be a contraindication) and works in a center that helps AIDS patients (he is equated to \"health personnel\") answers 2, 4 and 5 are wrong." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 221, 461 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 74 ] ], "text": "Considering that the individual has received some vaccines, has a CD4 count >100 (if lower there would be a contraindication) and works in a center that helps AIDS patients (he is equated to \"health personnel\") answers 2, 4 and 5 are wrong." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 221, 461 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 74 ] ], "text": "Considering that the individual has received some vaccines, has a CD4 count >100 (if lower there would be a contraindication) and works in a center that helps AIDS patients (he is equated to \"health personnel\") answers 2, 4 and 5 are wrong." } }
244
2,014
114
A 16-year-old boy consults for presenting with pustular tonsillitis, fever up to 38.5°C, painful cervical lymphadenopathy, non-pruritic macular rash on the chest and mild hepatosplenomegaly, of 4-5 days of evolution. Paul-Bunnell test and Ig M for Epstein-Barr virus are positive. During his admission he developed continuous fever up to 40ºC, pancytopenia, icteric hepatitis and coagulopathy of progressive intensity. One week after admission, he was transferred to the ICU due to confusion and respiratory failure. Blood cultures and a urine culture were negative, CSF was normal and the chest x-ray showed no infiltrates. Procalcitonin is normal, but CRP and ferritin are very elevated. Of the following statements, which would be the most correct diagnostic and therapeutic approach?
Difficult question in which the correct answer could give rise to discussion. The patient is a 16-year-old male who is admitted for a fairly clear case of mononucleosis due to EBV infection that becomes complicated during admission. The data available to us are: - Pancytopenia. - Hepatopathy. - Coagulopathy. - Absence of infectious focus: negative blood cultures, negative urine cultures, normal X-ray, normal CSF. - CRP and Ferritin elevated / normal Procalcitonin. The possible complications that could have occurred (and that are considered in the answers) are sepsis or a bad evolution of mononucleosis. The clinical data could be consistent with a septic process, however, the main infectious foci have been reasonably ruled out and one of the most sensitive and specific markers of bacteremia (procalcitonin) is in the normal range, which should draw our attention. On the other hand, a complication of the EBV mononucleosis suffered by our patient should be evaluated, among the possible complications are hemolytic anemia, meningoecephalitis (normal CSF) or Guillain-Barré sd. Guillain-Barré syndrome, which are not very consistent with the clinical picture presented to us. Another possible complication of exceptional severity would be hemophagocytic syndrome; this is a rare entity that occurs in certain predisposed subjects and is characterized by an uncontrolled activation and proliferation of histiocytes and T lymphocytes, which produces a state of hypercytokinemia. The diagnostic criteria, revised in 2004, include persistent high fever, hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenias, hypertriglyceridemia, hyperferritinemia, and hypofibrinogenemia. Hyperferritinemia >3000 in a suggestive clinical context necessitates treatment of the patient (mainly with immunosuppressants and corticosteroids) since mortality is very high and early treatment is essential. The definitive diagnosis is made by microscopic study of an OM biopsy. Although in this question they do not quantify the value of ferritinemia, it is a remarkable data and given that the clinical picture is suggestive, meeting the diagnostic criteria, it seems to me that answer 5 would be the most accurate.
INFECTIOUS DISEASES
{ "1": "She has a bacterial sepsis of undetermined origin and should be given ceftriaxone and supportive care.", "2": "She has bacterial sepsis of undetermined origin and should be given vancomycin, ceftacidime and supportive care.", "3": "This is infectious mononucleosis with a severe course and glucocorticoids should be administered.", "4": "This is an infectious mononucleosis of severe course and treatment with Acyclovir should be initiated.", "5": "I would perform a bone marrow biopsy/aspirate and, if hemophagocytosis is confirmed, initiate treatment with immunosuppressants." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 610, 873 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 94, 136 ] ], "text": "The clinical data could be consistent with a septic process, however, the main infectious foci have been reasonably ruled out and one of the most sensitive and specific markers of bacteremia (procalcitonin) is in the normal range, which should draw our attention." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 610, 873 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 94, 136 ] ], "text": "The clinical data could be consistent with a septic process, however, the main infectious foci have been reasonably ruled out and one of the most sensitive and specific markers of bacteremia (procalcitonin) is in the normal range, which should draw our attention." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 874, 1184 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 136, 180 ] ], "text": "On the other hand, a complication of the EBV mononucleosis suffered by our patient should be evaluated, among the possible complications are hemolytic anemia, meningoecephalitis (normal CSF) or Guillain-Barré sd. Guillain-Barré syndrome, which are not very consistent with the clinical picture presented to us." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 874, 1184 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 136, 180 ] ], "text": "On the other hand, a complication of the EBV mononucleosis suffered by our patient should be evaluated, among the possible complications are hemolytic anemia, meningoecephalitis (normal CSF) or Guillain-Barré sd. Guillain-Barré syndrome, which are not very consistent with the clinical picture presented to us." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1657, 1938 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 237, 276 ] ], "text": "Hyperferritinemia >3000 in a suggestive clinical context necessitates treatment of the patient (mainly with immunosuppressants and corticosteroids) since mortality is very high and early treatment is essential. The definitive diagnosis is made by microscopic study of an OM biopsy." } }
420
2,018
78
A 52-year-old man was referred to the gastroenterology department for hematochezia, tenesmus and reduction of stool diameter. A series of tests were performed and a diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the sigma without distant metastasis was made. The patient underwent surgery and was referred to the medical oncology department for evaluation of complementary chemotherapy treatment. Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor after surgical resection and should be taken into account when planning chemotherapy treatment?
They are not asking about factors that affect oncologic prognosis and therefore imply a change in QT strategy. This question is straightforward. Option 4 is describing to us a T4 stage, either by invasion of adjacent organs or perforation. The T4s carry a much higher chance of recurrence, in fact there are ongoing studies that propose prophylactic HIPEC in T4 and second look surgery + HIPEC in perforated colon tumors.
GENERAL SURGERY
{ "1": "The presence of anemia at diagnosis.", "2": "The existence of a family history of colorectal cancer.", "3": "The size of the primary lesion and histological differentiation.", "4": "Perforation or adhesion of the tumor to adjacent organs.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 145, 421 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 22, 70 ] ], "text": "Option 4 is describing to us a T4 stage, either by invasion of adjacent organs or perforation. The T4s carry a much higher chance of recurrence, in fact there are ongoing studies that propose prophylactic HIPEC in T4 and second look surgery + HIPEC in perforated colon tumors." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
321
2,016
144
A 50-year-old man diagnosed with polyangiitis with granulomatosis 10 years earlier and untreated for the past 5 years is asymptomatic at a scheduled check-up. Chest X-ray, blood tests and urine sediment are normal except for positive anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) at titer 1/320, with anti-proteinase 3 specificity, which had previously been negative. What is the most advisable therapeutic approach?
In ANCA vasculitis, whatever it is, these antibodies have been shown to be related to the activity of the disease, but at no time are changes in treatment obligatory due to their levels. In this case, with the patient being asymptomatic and with objective evidence of lack of activity, close follow-up should be performed without restarting or modifying treatment.
RHEUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Start treatment with corticosteroids.", "2": "Initiate treatment with cyclophosphamide.", "3": "Initiate treatment with mycophenolate mofetil.", "4": "Watchful waiting.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 186 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 33 ] ], "text": "In ANCA vasculitis, whatever it is, these antibodies have been shown to be related to the activity of the disease, but at no time are changes in treatment obligatory due to their levels." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 186 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 33 ] ], "text": "In ANCA vasculitis, whatever it is, these antibodies have been shown to be related to the activity of the disease, but at no time are changes in treatment obligatory due to their levels." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 186 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 33 ] ], "text": "In ANCA vasculitis, whatever it is, these antibodies have been shown to be related to the activity of the disease, but at no time are changes in treatment obligatory due to their levels." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 201, 364 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 36, 59 ] ], "text": "with the patient being asymptomatic and with objective evidence of lack of activity, close follow-up should be performed without restarting or modifying treatment." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
516
2,021
103
A 56-year-old patient is found comatose at home. He has a history of arterial hypertension and diabetes mellitus. He has no toxic habits or any other chronic disease. He is on treatment with irbesartan and empaglifozin. He shows no signs of malnutrition. His blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg, heart rate 110 bpm, 90% SatO2, capillary glucose 120 mg/dl and respiratory rate 7 rpm. Which initial therapeutic approach do you think is the most correct?
We find a patient with hypoventilation. Glycemia is correct (we rule out hyperosmolar coma and hypoglycemia, option 2 and 4), so, although there is no history of intoxication, we have to go to the most frequent and that we can antagonize with antidotes: benzodiazepines (flumazenil) and opiates (naloxone). If we suspect ethylene glycol intoxication, we would administer thiamine, but there are no data to make us suspect.
CRITICAL AND EMERGENCY CARE
{ "1": "Administer naloxone, flumazenil and thiamine.", "2": "Administer naloxone, flumazenil and hypertonic glucose.", "3": "Administer naloxone and flumazenil.", "4": "Administer thiamine and hypertonic glucose.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 130, 306 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 21, 48 ] ], "text": "although there is no history of intoxication, we have to go to the most frequent and that we can antagonize with antidotes: benzodiazepines (flumazenil) and opiates (naloxone)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 307, 422 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 48, 67 ] ], "text": "If we suspect ethylene glycol intoxication, we would administer thiamine, but there are no data to make us suspect." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
44
2,011
153
Child 28 days old, born at term. History of normal pregnancy and delivery. He has been breastfed since birth. He consults because 8 days ago he started vomiting, initially sporadically and since 5 days ago, after all feedings. He is permanently hungry. The vomiting is of "squirting" food content. On palpation, the abdomen is soft and depressible, without visceromegaly. The blood gas analysis showed pH 7.49, bicarbonate 30 mEq/l, pCO2 53 mmHg, base excess +8 mEq/l. Ions: Na 137 mEq/l, K 3.1 mEq/l, Cl 94 mEq/l. Taking into account the most probable diagnosis in the clinical picture described, what is the complementary test of choice to confirm this clinical diagnosis?
The correct answer is 3. Easy question if pathology is suspected, which I also think is simple because the clinical description is textbook hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Simple abdominal X-ray.", "2": "pHmetry.", "3": "Abdominal ultrasound.", "4": "Determination of electrolytes in sweat.", "5": "Esophagogastroscopy." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 103, 170 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 18, 26 ] ], "text": "the clinical description is textbook hypertrophic pyloric stenosis." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
54
2,011
72
A 22-year-old female student with no history of pathology or use of medications except anovulatory drugs comes to the emergency department for deterioration of general condition and need to take deep breaths. She reports weight loss in the last 2-3 days, polydipsia, polyuria and nausea. No cough or febrile sensation. Examination: appearance of gravity, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, deep and rapid breathing (28rpm), level of consciousness preserved, dry mucous membranes. No fever. CBC: blood glucose 420 mg/dL, Na+ 131 mEq/L, K+ normal, pH 7.08, bicarbonate 8 mEq/L and ketonuria (+++) Which answer do you think is more correct?
Debut of DM with ketoacidosis. Priority is iv insulin administration and serum therapy. Bicarbonate if pH < 7. Insulin administration should never be delayed.
ENDOCRINOLOGY
{ "1": "Debut of type 2 diabetes mellitus, with dyspnea probably due to pneumonia or thromboembolism, since she is taking anovulatory drugs.", "2": "It is a diabetic ketoacidosis. It must be treated with intravenous insulin, serum therapy, general measures and search for precipitating cause.", "3": "Debut of type 1 diabetes with ketoacidosis. Treat with bicarbonate and after correction of acidosis, add intravenous insulin.", "4": "It looks like diabetic ketoacidosis, but it could be alcoholic. BAC should be determined before starting insulin therapy.", "5": "Treat with rapid subcutaneous insulin, serum therapy and ask him to drink plenty of fluids." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 31, 158 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 24 ] ], "text": "Priority is iv insulin administration and serum therapy. Bicarbonate if pH < 7. Insulin administration should never be delayed." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
553
2,022
177
33-year-old patient, resident of Valencia, who consults for presenting on the right cheek an erythematous-orange plaque after an insect bite that has been growing slowly until reaching 1.5 cm and that in the last weeks has ulcerated and covered with a scammocostra. The lesion only causes discrete discomfort if scratched. The patient has a history of plaque psoriasis treated with subcutaneous adalimumab. She is in good general condition and does not take any other drugs and does not report any drug allergies. Indicate the treatment you would use:
The fact that the place of residence is mentioned already gives us many clues. A "bite" that transforms into a lesion in an uncovered area with a crusty surface and that bothers little or nothing... in the Mediterranean basin this is cutaneous leishmaniasis or oriental button. And while it is true that the lesion is < 4 cm and unique, we are told that the patient is being treated with adalimumab, an anti-TNF monoclonal antibody. With the exception of meglumine antimoniate, none of the other treatments proposed in the different options are indicated in leishmaniasis, so it is clear. The only thing that is more debatable is that, as this is an immunosuppressed patient, systemic treatment would probably be more appropriate. I don't know if for that reason contestable, but at least, debatable.
DERMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Oral isotretinoin.", "2": "Intralesional meglumine antimoniate.", "3": "Systemic corticosteroids.", "4": "Oral amoxicillin.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 433, 588 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 75, 99 ] ], "text": "With the exception of meglumine antimoniate, none of the other treatments proposed in the different options are indicated in leishmaniasis, so it is clear." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 433, 588 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 75, 99 ] ], "text": "With the exception of meglumine antimoniate, none of the other treatments proposed in the different options are indicated in leishmaniasis, so it is clear." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 433, 588 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 75, 99 ] ], "text": "With the exception of meglumine antimoniate, none of the other treatments proposed in the different options are indicated in leishmaniasis, so it is clear." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 433, 588 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 75, 99 ] ], "text": "With the exception of meglumine antimoniate, none of the other treatments proposed in the different options are indicated in leishmaniasis, so it is clear." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
608
2,022
115
A 27-year-old male, a regular athlete, refers pain in the right leg after continuous running. He has visited a physiotherapist on several occasions and has been diagnosed with calf overload. Several months have passed, he has not improved and refers intense pain after physical activity that subsides with rest in the following hours of exercise. What test can help in the diagnosis?
We present a case of chronic compartment syndrome. For its diagnosis it is necessary to measure the pressure of the affected compartments at rest and after activity (answer 2 correct).
TRAUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Positron emission tomography with 18 FDG.", "2": "Determination of posterior compartment pressure immediately after activity.", "3": "Doppler ultrasound to rule out a circulatory disorder of the lower extremity.", "4": "Spectrometry by magnetic resonance.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 184 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 30 ] ], "text": "We present a case of chronic compartment syndrome. For its diagnosis it is necessary to measure the pressure of the affected compartments at rest and after activity (answer 2 correct)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
294
2,016
44
Amalia is a 3-year-old girl who has undergone surgery for tetralogy of Fallot. She also presented thymic dysfunction in the neonatal period and hypocalcemia as well as a nasal voice and psychomotor retardation. Which genetic test do you consider most appropriate to reach an etiological diagnosis?
Question in which the clinical picture must be recognized: cardiovascular anomalies - Tetralogy of Fallot -; thymic aplasia/hypoplasia - leading to primary T-cell immunodeficiency; parathyroid aplasia/hypoplasia - hence hypocalcemia -; palatal anomalies - nasal voice; psychomotor retardation. In my opinion, just with the words "thymic dysfunction", hypocalcemia and cardiopathy, we would have to go straight to DiGeorge syndrome. Indeed, the genetic defect is a 22q11.2 deletion (which if we know it, the better, but with the clinic it would be enough for us). The only option with which there could be doubt is Noonan syndrome, which can also be associated with cardiopathy, but above all it is characterized by short stature, cardiopathy and bone alterations; moreover, in most cases it is caused by an alteration in the PTPN11 gene, not in those mentioned in the question.
GENETICS AND IMMUNOLOGY
{ "1": "22q11 deletion study (Di George or Velo-cardio-facial syndrome).", "2": "Study of FMR1 gene expansion, responsible for Fragile X syndrome.", "3": "Sequencing of genes related to HRAS (Noonan syndrome).", "4": "Genetic study of Williams Beuren syndrome.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 309, 431 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 40, 58 ] ], "text": "just with the words \"thymic dysfunction\", hypocalcemia and cardiopathy, we would have to go straight to DiGeorge syndrome." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 637, 763 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 96, 115 ] ], "text": "can also be associated with cardiopathy, but above all it is characterized by short stature, cardiopathy and bone alterations;" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
156
2,012
230
A 40-year-old patient who comes to the emergency room with aphthous stomatitis, conjunctivitis, urethritis, balanitis and joint pain. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?
Given this clinical picture and without having complementary tests available, the most likely diagnosis is reactive arthritis. The only problem is that the statement speaks of joint pain and not arthritis... Reiter's syndrome (triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis) is one of the forms in which reactive arthritis can present. In Behçet's disease oral and genital aphthous ulcers may occur but urethritis is not a feature. And the characteristic ocular condition is uveitis.
RHEUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Behçet's disease.", "2": "Reactive arthritis syndrome.", "3": "Sweet's syndrome.", "4": "Vitamin A deficiency.", "5": "Gonococcal infection." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 339, 434 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 50, 66 ] ], "text": "In Behçet's disease oral and genital aphthous ulcers may occur but urethritis is not a feature." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 208, 338 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 31, 50 ] ], "text": "Reiter's syndrome (triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis) is one of the forms in which reactive arthritis can present." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
82
2,012
45
A 60-year-old man reports precordial pain after medium exertion. Coronary angiography shows significant stenosis in the proximal segments of the three main vessels with good distal bed. Ventricular function is depressed (<30%). What is the best therapeutic option?
We are talking about a patient with 3-vessel coronary artery disease and, very importantly, with severe ventricular dysfunction. Under these conditions, the treatment of choice would be surgical (myocardial revascularization surgery or by-pass). In the case of a patient with preserved LV function, the choice of surgical vs. percutaneous treatment would be more questionable, since today, thanks to drug-eluting stents, the differences in terms of morbidity and mortality between by-pass surgery and angioplasty are minimal.
CARDIOLOGY AND VASCULAR SURGERY
{ "1": "Percutaneous revascularization.", "2": "Medical treatment.", "3": "Myocardial revascularization surgery.", "4": "Implantation of balloon counterpulsation.", "5": "Cardiac transplantation." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 245 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 33 ] ], "text": "We are talking about a patient with 3-vessel coronary artery disease and, very importantly, with severe ventricular dysfunction. Under these conditions, the treatment of choice would be surgical (myocardial revascularization surgery or by-pass)." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
485
2,020
49
A 60-year-old man on carbamazepine treatment for epilepsy presenting with fever (38.8°C), odynophagia, conjunctivitis, brownish skin lesions spread over a large body surface, target-like in appearance and accompanied by epidermal detachment (greater than 30%) at the slightest friction. It is very likely that she is presenting a clinical picture of:
We are dealing with a severe patient, with target lesions and Nikolsky's sign in > 30% of the body surface area. Together with the history of treatment with carbamazepine, the suspicion will be of toxic epidermal necrolysis (answer 4). If the epidermal detachment is less than 10% then we would be dealing with Stevens-Johnson (and intermediate cases are referred to as overlap, since it is a whole spectrum). Incidentally, we would recommend immediate admission to a major burn unit.
DERMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Acute urticaria of pharmacological cause.", "2": "Erythema minor exudative secondary to drugs.", "3": "Pharmacological Stevens-Johnson syndrome.", "4": "Epidermal toxic necrolysis.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 236, 326 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 39, 54 ] ], "text": "If the epidermal detachment is less than 10% then we would be dealing with Stevens-Johnson" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 235 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 39 ] ], "text": "We are dealing with a severe patient, with target lesions and Nikolsky's sign in > 30% of the body surface area. Together with the history of treatment with carbamazepine, the suspicion will be of toxic epidermal necrolysis (answer 4)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
219
2,014
124
A 72-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and stage 5 chronic renal insufficiency. Given the suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, indicate which diagnostic test is contraindicated:
This is a very simple question and very useful for the management of PTE in the ED. There is no need to worry: a patient with advanced renal failure (stage 5) is contraindicated for any imaging study that requires the administration of IV contrast, such as CT angiography. All other examinations do not require it and therefore would be more than indicated in the presence of a PTE.
NEPHROLOGY
{ "1": "Disordered echocardiogram.", "2": "Pulmonary scintigraphy.", "3": "Pulmonary angio-CT.", "4": "Electrocardiogram.", "5": "Chest X-ray." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 111, 272 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 48 ] ], "text": "a patient with advanced renal failure (stage 5) is contraindicated for any imaging study that requires the administration of IV contrast, such as CT angiography." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
578
2,022
107
A 55-year-old male who suffers a subarachnoid hemorrhage due to a ruptured middle cerebral artery aneurysm. He is treated surgically. After a good evolution in which he recovers the ability to walk, one month after suffering the hemorrhage, he presents a progressive deterioration, becoming cloudy and with difficulty to obey orders. Mark the correct statement:
Vasospasm as a complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage usually occurs early, in the week after the hemorrhage. The progressive deterioration with alteration of the level of consciousness makes us suspect one of the complications that can occur in this condition: hydrocephalus. The diagnostic technique of choice in this case is neuroimaging with cranial CT.
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "She is in the moment of evolution in which vasospasm is more frequent.", "2": "This progressive deterioration is probably secondary to aneurysm rebleeding.", "3": "Subacute deterioration is most likely due to hydrocephalus.", "4": "The diagnostic technique of choice is cerebral angiography.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 277 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 40 ] ], "text": "Vasospasm as a complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage usually occurs early, in the week after the hemorrhage. The progressive deterioration with alteration of the level of consciousness makes us suspect one of the complications that can occur in this condition: hydrocephalus." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
199
2,013
74
In a patient presenting in the second decade of life with a progressive picture of parkinsonism, tremor, dystonia and behavioral alteration, you should always perform a study to rule out the presence of a disease whose appropriate treatment can improve neurological symptoms and stop the clinical course. What disease is it?
The key in the question is "stopping the clinical course", as Hungtinton's disease, Tourette's and Parkinson's disease do not have treatments that can stop the clinical course. Sydenham's chorea is typical of younger children with a history of streptococcal infection and resolution is usually spontaneous. On the other hand, in clinical cases it is recommended to rule out Wilson's disease in young patients with movement and neuropsychiatric disorders.
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "Huntington's disease.", "2": "Wilson's disease.", "3": "Tourette's syndrome.", "4": "Sydenham's chorea.", "5": "Juvenile-onset Parkinson's disease." }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 176 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 27 ] ], "text": "The key in the question is \"stopping the clinical course\", as Hungtinton's disease, Tourette's and Parkinson's disease do not have treatments that can stop the clinical course." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 326, 454 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 49, 68 ] ], "text": "in clinical cases it is recommended to rule out Wilson's disease in young patients with movement and neuropsychiatric disorders." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 176 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 27 ] ], "text": "The key in the question is \"stopping the clinical course\", as Hungtinton's disease, Tourette's and Parkinson's disease do not have treatments that can stop the clinical course." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 177, 306 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 27, 45 ] ], "text": "Sydenham's chorea is typical of younger children with a history of streptococcal infection and resolution is usually spontaneous." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 176 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 27 ] ], "text": "The key in the question is \"stopping the clinical course\", as Hungtinton's disease, Tourette's and Parkinson's disease do not have treatments that can stop the clinical course." } }
331
2,016
87
In a hospitalized patient who is unable to feed orally for more than 6 days, in which of the following clinical situations are we necessarily to use parenteral nutrition?
Paralytic ileus is a failure of intestinal propulsion that appears acutely in the absence of mechanical obstruction; it is secondary to various causes and affects intestinal contractility. Therefore, parenteral administration is necessary.
ENDOCRINOLOGY
{ "1": "Cardioembolic stroke with complete neurologic dysphagia.", "2": "Cachexia due to chronic empyema in immunocompromised patient.", "3": "Prolonged paralytic syndrome.", "4": "Advanced Alzheimer's disease with severe risk of bronchial aspiration.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 239 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 32 ] ], "text": "Paralytic ileus is a failure of intestinal propulsion that appears acutely in the absence of mechanical obstruction; it is secondary to various causes and affects intestinal contractility. Therefore, parenteral administration is necessary." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
205
2,014
214
A 24-year-old young man who 3 days after a risky sexual contact presents numerous pustular lesions, small, very pruritic and evolving to tiny erosions affecting the entire glans and the inner face of the foreskin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnostic approach?
Chancroid is a solitary lesion. Secondary syphilis usually occurs as a generalized rash or as characteristic lesions on palms and soles (syphilitic nails) with a longer latency period. Trichomonas balanitis is always associated with urethritis, which is not referred to in the question. Therefore, the answer is 1. However, the clinical picture suggests herpes simplex rather than candidiasis and 5 also refers to fungi (although dermatophytes do not cause balanitis).... from our point of view, even if we consider 1 to be correct, the question is misleading and could be open to challenge. Moreover, genital candidiasis is not necessarily sexually transmitted.
DERMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Genital candidiasis.", "2": "Chancroid.", "3": "Secondary syphilis.", "4": "Trichomonas balanitis.", "5": "Dermatophyte fungal infection." }
1
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 31 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 5 ] ], "text": "Chancroid is a solitary lesion." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 32, 184 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 28 ] ], "text": "Secondary syphilis usually occurs as a generalized rash or as characteristic lesions on palms and soles (syphilitic nails) with a longer latency period." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 185, 286 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 28, 43 ] ], "text": "Trichomonas balanitis is always associated with urethritis, which is not referred to in the question." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
441
2,018
98
A 21-year-old woman comes for consultation with a hormonal study showing FSH 0.29 mUl/mL (normal in follicular phase = 3.50-12.50 mUl/mL) and LH < 0.1 mUl/mL (normal in follicular phase 2.40-12.60 mUl/mL). We should make a differential diagnosis between the following clinical situations EXCEPT:
This is because in early ovarian failure FSH and LH are elevated. This is confirmed by the SEGO protocol called Early Menoguia. The rest of the diagnoses are consistent with these analytical parameters.
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "Administration of combined oral contraceptives.", "2": "Premature ovarian failure.", "3": "Eating behavior disorder.", "4": "Craniopharyngioma.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 128, 202 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 22, 33 ] ], "text": "The rest of the diagnoses are consistent with these analytical parameters." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 127 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 22 ] ], "text": "This is because in early ovarian failure FSH and LH are elevated. This is confirmed by the SEGO protocol called Early Menoguia." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 128, 202 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 22, 33 ] ], "text": "The rest of the diagnoses are consistent with these analytical parameters." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 128, 202 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 22, 33 ] ], "text": "The rest of the diagnoses are consistent with these analytical parameters." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
302
2,016
111
In a patient with rheumatoid arthritis treated with methotrexate, prednisone and indomethacin who acutely presents edema and increased plasma creatinine with a poorly expressive urine sediment and proteinuria less than 100 mg/24 h the most likely cause is:
Prerenal acute renal failure due to NSAIDs seems the most plausible option in this case. Tubulointerstitial nephritis due to methotrexate is less likely due to the absence of rash, fever or eosinophilia, which although rare in the MIR usually appear. Although GMN and renal amyloidosis are relatively frequent in RA, the anodyne urine sediment and the absence of proteinuria make these options unlikely.
NEPHROLOGY
{ "1": "Renal amyloidosis.", "2": "Glomerulonephritis secondary to rheumatoid arthritis.", "3": "Renal failure due to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.", "4": "Interstitial nephritis due to methotrexate.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 251, 403 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 40, 63 ] ], "text": "Although GMN and renal amyloidosis are relatively frequent in RA, the anodyne urine sediment and the absence of proteinuria make these options unlikely." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 88 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 15 ] ], "text": "Prerenal acute renal failure due to NSAIDs seems the most plausible option in this case." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 89, 250 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 15, 40 ] ], "text": "Tubulointerstitial nephritis due to methotrexate is less likely due to the absence of rash, fever or eosinophilia, which although rare in the MIR usually appear." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
517
2,021
104
A 34-year-old male is involved in a traffic accident and is attended at the scene of the accident. The medical personnel observe that he is pale, sweaty, has a thready pulse with a blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, a heart rate of 127 bpm, a respiratory rate of 28 rpm and an oxygen saturation of 92%. He was infused with 20 ml/kg of crystalloids. During his transfer to the hospital his vital signs improve transiently and then deteriorate on arrival at the hospital. Point out the correct answer:
In a polytraumatized patient, the first cause of shock is blood loss (hemorrhagic shock). The guidelines to follow should always contemplate the replenishment of blood volume (if possible, with blood products as early as possible) and control of the focus. In this case, given the vital compromise, the need for transfusion is very urgent, so the indication is emergency blood transfusion (O Rh negative).
CRITICAL AND EMERGENCY CARE
{ "1": "Type-specific blood transfusion required.", "2": "Requires emergency blood transfusion (O Rh negative).", "3": "A possible blood transfusion with crossmatching tests should be prepared.", "4": "Try again infusion of another 20 ml/kg of crystalloids.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 257, 405 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 40, 64 ] ], "text": "In this case, given the vital compromise, the need for transfusion is very urgent, so the indication is emergency blood transfusion (O Rh negative)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
520
2,021
38
A 72-year-old patient comes to the emergency department for presenting with severe and significant lingual angioedema. She does not present associated urticaria and has no history of drug or food allergy. His personal history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, dyslipidemia, hypertension, hypothyroidism and Parkinson's disease. She is on regular treatment with metformin, simvastatin, enalapril, thyroxine and levodopa. Which of the following drugs is most likely the causal drug of the clinical picture described?
Angioedema is a type of profound urticaria that can be of drug etiology (not IgE-mediated) and in this case, ACEIs (such as enalapril) are considered the most frequent pharmacological cause, so in this case it would be the correct answer (if we speak in probabilistic terms).
DERMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Enalapril.", "2": "Simvastatin.", "3": "Metformin or levodopa equally.", "4": "Levodopa.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 275 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 46 ] ], "text": "Angioedema is a type of profound urticaria that can be of drug etiology (not IgE-mediated) and in this case, ACEIs (such as enalapril) are considered the most frequent pharmacological cause, so in this case it would be the correct answer (if we speak in probabilistic terms)." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
379
2,016
133
A 20-year-old girl comes to the emergency department because she has noticed after getting up, when looking in the mirror, weakness in the right half of the face (including the forehead, closing the eyelid and smiling). She is accompanied by dysgeusia, with a sensation of metallic taste of food as well as hyperacusis and ipsilateral mastoid pain. On examination there is no evidence of strength deficits or sensory deficits in the extremities or speech or language disorders. In this case, which of the following statements is correct?
We describe a picture of typical peripheral facial paralysis, with dysgeusia, hyperacusis and mastoid pain. In this case the treatment is corticoid. The first one would not be correct because although within the age range of multiple sclerosis debut, the presentation is usually gradual over days and the nuclear involvement of the VII cranial nerve (which could simulate a peripheral facial) would not cause dysgeusia, hyperacusis or mastoid pain. In the third answer they propose us that it is a vascular picture and therefore that the facial paralysis is central, so it is discarded and the last one is not correct because most of the idiopathic peripheral facial paralysis (Bell's palsy) heal without sequelae.
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "The most probable diagnosis is a demyelinating plaque in the contralateral hemiprotuberance, the most necessary complementary exploration would be a cranial MRI.", "2": "Oral corticosteroids are the treatment of choice for the patient.", "3": "Intravenous fibrinolysis should be considered if the evolution time is less than 3h.", "4": "Most likely the picture is irreversible.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 149, 448 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 22, 69 ] ], "text": "The first one would not be correct because although within the age range of multiple sclerosis debut, the presentation is usually gradual over days and the nuclear involvement of the VII cranial nerve (which could simulate a peripheral facial) would not cause dysgeusia, hyperacusis or mastoid pain." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 148 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 22 ] ], "text": "We describe a picture of typical peripheral facial paralysis, with dysgeusia, hyperacusis and mastoid pain. In this case the treatment is corticoid." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 449, 585 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 69, 94 ] ], "text": "In the third answer they propose us that it is a vascular picture and therefore that the facial paralysis is central, so it is discarded" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 590, 714 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 95, 114 ] ], "text": "the last one is not correct because most of the idiopathic peripheral facial paralysis (Bell's palsy) heal without sequelae." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
600
2,022
184
A 70-year-old woman who has been complaining for 1 month of pain and stiffness in the shoulder girdle and pelvic girdle, which predominates when she gets up and improves with mobilization, without fever, headache or general condition. Physical examination showed stiffness and pain on mobilization of the shoulders and hips. Laboratory tests show elevated ESR and C-reactive protein. What is the most likely diagnosis and what treatment would you prescribe?
In this case, he is describing the cardinal symptoms of polymyalgia rheumatica. Older patient, over 50 years of age, presenting with pain and stiffness in both girdles, associated with an elevation of acute phase reactants. He presents all the indispensable criteria: age equal to or greater than 50 years, bilateral omalgia and increased acute phase reactants. Of the optional criteria, he presents stiffness, pain or limitation in the hip. Initial treatment is corticosteroids at medium doses.
RHEUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Rheumatoid arthritis, would initiate treatment with methotrexate.", "2": "Fibromyalgia, would initiate treatment with duloxetine.", "3": "Polymyalgia rheumatica, would initiate treatment with corticosteroids.", "4": "Ankylosing spondylitis, I would initiate treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 361 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 56 ] ], "text": "In this case, he is describing the cardinal symptoms of polymyalgia rheumatica. Older patient, over 50 years of age, presenting with pain and stiffness in both girdles, associated with an elevation of acute phase reactants. He presents all the indispensable criteria: age equal to or greater than 50 years, bilateral omalgia and increased acute phase reactants." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
415
2,018
72
A 45-year-old man with a history of febrile illness and chest pain comes to the hospital with dyspnea and tachypnea. On physical examination his blood pressure is low, jugular venous pressure is elevated with a prominent descending sinus x and he has a paradoxical pulse. What diagnosis would you suspect?
It is the classic exploration: he had a fever and pain, he had pericarditis with effusion, and now this is causing tamponade. Hence the hypotension (his heart cannot fill well with blood and pump), jugular engorgement and dependence on respiration to achieve preload and cardiac output (i.e. paradoxical pulse).
CARDIOLOGY AND CARDIOVASCULAR SURGERY
{ "1": "Dilated cardiomyopathy.", "2": "Pericardial effusion with cardiac tamponade.", "3": "Constrictive pericarditis.", "4": "Ischemic heart disease.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 31, 311 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 49 ] ], "text": "he had a fever and pain, he had pericarditis with effusion, and now this is causing tamponade. Hence the hypotension (his heart cannot fill well with blood and pump), jugular engorgement and dependence on respiration to achieve preload and cardiac output (i.e. paradoxical pulse)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
560
2,022
180
A 26-year-old woman diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus, on treatment with hydroxychloroquine, who consults for a feeling of generalized weakness that has progressively set in over the last 15 days. The physical examination reveals cutaneous pallor and the CBC shows Hb 7.4 g/dL, Hct 31%, MCV 108. Which of the following tests will be most useful in deciding the course of action?
They give to know of a patient with SLE in treatment with Hydroxychloroquine. She has a hb of 7.4 and a MCV over 100, adding pallor and weakness, we would be dealing with a macrocytic anemia. In my opinion, the most suitable would be alternative 2, since hydroxyloroquine has been reported to decrease the absorption of folic acid, and since she has a complication of SLE, in this case, we could be dealing with an autoimmune hemolytic anemia with folic acid consumption. And for this it would be first to determine with the direct coombs.
HEMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Haptoglobin.", "2": "Coombs' test.", "3": "Vitamin B12.", "4": "Antinuclear antibodies.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 192, 539 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 36, 95 ] ], "text": "In my opinion, the most suitable would be alternative 2, since hydroxyloroquine has been reported to decrease the absorption of folic acid, and since she has a complication of SLE, in this case, we could be dealing with an autoimmune hemolytic anemia with folic acid consumption. And for this it would be first to determine with the direct coombs." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
358
2,016
232
A 24-year-old woman consults after noticing inguinal lymphadenopathies. The interrogation does not show any local discomfort or data suggestive of sexually transmitted infection. The examination revealed two lymphadenopathies, one in each groin, 1 cm in diameter, soft, mobile, non-painful. No skin lesions are seen on the lower limbs, anus or perineum. Which test do you consider essential?
The correct answer is 3. In the inguinal region, the lymph nodes can acquire a size of up to 1.5 cm being normal. In addition, the rest of the data of the inguinal exploration (no pain, mobile, soft, etc.) corroborates this. On the other hand, there are no signs or symptoms that make us think of a sexually transmitted infection.
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "A lupus serology since it is most likely a Treponema pallidum infection.", "2": "A gynecological examination to rule out ovarian cancer.", "3": "From the clinical features it seems to be normal lymph nodes and complementary explorations should not be performed.", "4": "A Paul-Bunell test should be performed to rule out infectious mononucleosis.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 225, 330 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 41, 60 ] ], "text": "On the other hand, there are no signs or symptoms that make us think of a sexually transmitted infection." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 224 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 41 ] ], "text": "In the inguinal region, the lymph nodes can acquire a size of up to 1.5 cm being normal. In addition, the rest of the data of the inguinal exploration (no pain, mobile, soft, etc.) corroborates this." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
414
2,018
71
An 84-year-old man with chronic heart failure in functional grade II secondary to ischemic heart disease with severe non-revascularizable systolic dysfunction, stage 3 chronic kidney disease (glomerular filtration rate 45-50 mL/min) and permanent atrial fibrillation with heart rate >80 beats per minute. Which of the following drugs does NOT provide benefit to the patient according to the currently available evidence?
Ivabradine, in fact, is contraindicated in patients with atrial fibrillation. Initially (although evidence has recently emerged that qualifies this information) ivabradine was said to be selective over the sodium If current in the sinus node. If the patient is in AF, it makes no sense to act on the sinus node.
CARDIOLOGY AND CARDIOVASCULAR SURGERY
{ "1": "Ivabradine.", "2": "Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.", "3": "Antialdosterone.", "4": "Beta-blockers.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 77 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 10 ] ], "text": "Ivabradine, in fact, is contraindicated in patients with atrial fibrillation." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
131
2,012
221
An individual presents with "muscle weakness" (spastic hemiparesis) of both right extremities, with hyperreflexia and Babinski's sign, along with a "facial flaccid paralysis" of the left hemiface, with inability to close the left eye or retract the left side of the mouth, in addition to other alterations. From the data described, it is an alteration that affects, among other elements, the motor fascicles: cortico-spinal and cortico-nuclear, but at what level of the neuroaxis would the lesion be located?
Question always involves the brainstem. We have a right hemiparesis and involvement of the left facial nucleus, since it has affected the upper and lower facial; therefore we have a crossed clinical picture, having to think about brainstem involvement. If we have in a quick diagram where the nuclei of the cranial pairs start from: the first 4 above the pons, the next 4 in the pons, and the last 4 below the pons, we have that the facial nucleus is in the middle 4. That is, left facial nucleus, left pons, so answer 4.
NEUROLOGY AND NEUROSURGERY
{ "1": "At the level of the area 4 of Brodmann of the cerebral cortex of the right side.", "2": "In the internal capsule, posterior arm on the right side.", "3": "In the left cerebral peduncle.", "4": "In the medial portion of the caudal protuberance of the left side.", "5": "In the medulla oblongata before decussation of the right cortico-spinal fascicle." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 172, 521 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 27, 95 ] ], "text": "we have a crossed clinical picture, having to think about brainstem involvement. If we have in a quick diagram where the nuclei of the cranial pairs start from: the first 4 above the pons, the next 4 in the pons, and the last 4 below the pons, we have that the facial nucleus is in the middle 4. That is, left facial nucleus, left pons, so answer 4." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
70
2,012
127
A 30-year-old woman with a drug addiction PD in a current detoxification period is brought to the ED with profound somnolence, with no other symptoms. We find out that her treatment includes olanzapine and benzodiazepines. What should we do first?
Overuse of the drugs he is taking should be suspected. Olanzapine has no antidote, so, in principle, we should antagonize the effect of benzodiazepines. If the patient continues to be drowsy and does not respond to stimuli, we should proceed to intubate to secure the airway.
ANESTHESIOLOGY, CRITICAL CARE AND EMERGENCY MEDICINE
{ "1": "Proceed to IOT.", "2": "Perform a skull X-ray.", "3": "Administer flumazenil.", "4": "Administer naloxone.", "5": "Wait until he wakes up." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 152 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 24 ] ], "text": "Overuse of the drugs he is taking should be suspected. Olanzapine has no antidote, so, in principle, we should antagonize the effect of benzodiazepines." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
463
2,019
71
Woman with hypotension and tissue hypoperfusion in whom the following parameters are objectified after insertion of a Swan-Ganz catheter: cardiac index 1.4 L/min/m2, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure 25 mmHg and systemic vascular resistances 2000 dynes/m2. The type of shock presented by the patient is:
We are not given any further data on the patient except that she is in shock (tissue hypoperfusion) and on introducing a Swan-Ganz catheter we find a low cardiac index (<2), elevated PCP (25mmHg) and elevated systemic resistances (normal: 600-1200 dyne/m2). These data are compatible with cardiogenic origin of shock.
CRITICAL CARE AND EMERGENCY
{ "1": "Cardiogenic.", "2": "Septic.", "3": "Hypovolemic.", "4": "Anaphylactic.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 317 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 50 ] ], "text": "We are not given any further data on the patient except that she is in shock (tissue hypoperfusion) and on introducing a Swan-Ganz catheter we find a low cardiac index (<2), elevated PCP (25mmHg) and elevated systemic resistances (normal: 600-1200 dyne/m2). These data are compatible with cardiogenic origin of shock." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
476
2,020
93
A 58-year-old hypertensive man comes to the emergency department for a 30-second syncope while jogging, with spontaneous recovery and no sequelae. Blood pressure is 135/65 mmHg. Cardiac auscultation shows a loud, intense systolic murmur, which is reduced with Valsalva maneuvers and an attenuated second tone. The ECG shows sinus rhythm at 72 bpm, with criteria of left ventricular hypertrophy and inverted T waves in anterior face. Point out the correct statement:
The data provided on the characteristics of the murmur (it DECREASES with Valsalva) and the data on left ventricular hypertrophy, lead us to the diagnosis of severe aortic stenosis.
CRITICAL CARE
{ "1": "The clinical picture suggests pulmonary thromboembolism.", "2": "The data provided indicate hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with severe obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract.", "3": "These data correspond to severe aortic stenosis.", "4": "Aortic dissection should be excluded by contrast-enhanced computed tomography.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 181 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 29 ] ], "text": "The data provided on the characteristics of the murmur (it DECREASES with Valsalva) and the data on left ventricular hypertrophy, lead us to the diagnosis of severe aortic stenosis." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
546
2,022
124
82-year-old woman with chronic atrial fibrillation of 10 years of evolution and preserved biventricular systolic function who presents with episodes of symptomatic complete atrioventricular block, so it is decided to implant a definitive cardiac pacing system. Which of the following is indicated:
VVI pacemaker (ventricular unicameral).
CARDIOLOGY
{ "1": "DDD pacemaker (bicameral).", "2": "VVI pacemaker (ventricular unicameral).", "3": "AAI pacemaker (single-chamber atrial pacemaker).", "4": "Ventricular resynchronization therapy (CRT).", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 39 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 4 ] ], "text": "VVI pacemaker (ventricular unicameral)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
313
2,016
177
A 57-year-old patient diagnosed with stage T3N1M0 adenocarcinoma of the colon. He was treated with resection followed by postoperative FOLFOX chemotherapy (fluorouracil, leucovorin and oxaliplatin) for 6 months. In a routine control, two years later, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) elevation to 30 ng/mL (previously less than 2 ng/mL) was detected. She has no symptoms, physical examination is unremarkable, chest X-ray is normal. CT scan shows a 3 cm mass in the right hepatic lobe that is captured on PET. No other alterations are observed in CT or PET. What is the most correct approach?
We are faced with a situation of probable liver metastasis from a localized colon adenocarcinoma treated 2 years ago. Probable because we do not have histological confirmation, although as it usually happens, what else could it be? As this is a situation of oligometastasis and the treatments for advanced colon adenocarcinoma allow prolonged survival with good quality of life in these patients, if there is nothing to contraindicate surgery, this should be the first option (correct answer 3). I attach the algorithm proposed by the NCCN in situations of recurrence (http://www.nccn.org/professionals/physician_gls/pdf/colon.pdf). In case of an unresectable situation, chemotherapy treatment would be considered with the intention of converting the single metastatic lesion into a resectable one. Since more than 12 months have passed since FOLFOX treatment, the same scheme could be used, although FOLFIRI+bevacizumab would also be useful. Capecitabine monotherapy, in the patient's current situation, would also not be a good starting option, since the responses are lower compared to FOLFOX or FOLFIRI plus antiangiogenic combinations. Hepatic radiotherapy could be considered, since there are SBRT techniques that achieve very good results, but in this case it is best to start by asking for an assessment by the surgeons and if they rule out surgery we would consider RT.
ONCOLOGY
{ "1": "Chemotherapy with FOLFIRI (fluorouracil, leucovorin and irinotecan) plus bevacizumab.", "2": "Monochemotherapy with capecitabine.", "3": "Assessment for surgical resection of the hepatic lesion.", "4": "Hepatic radiotherapy.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 633, 942 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 91, 137 ] ], "text": "In case of an unresectable situation, chemotherapy treatment would be considered with the intention of converting the single metastatic lesion into a resectable one. Since more than 12 months have passed since FOLFOX treatment, the same scheme could be used, although FOLFIRI+bevacizumab would also be useful." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 943, 1140 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 137, 165 ] ], "text": "Capecitabine monotherapy, in the patient's current situation, would also not be a good starting option, since the responses are lower compared to FOLFOX or FOLFIRI plus antiangiogenic combinations." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 232, 495 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 37, 78 ] ], "text": "As this is a situation of oligometastasis and the treatments for advanced colon adenocarcinoma allow prolonged survival with good quality of life in these patients, if there is nothing to contraindicate surgery, this should be the first option (correct answer 3)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1141, 1378 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 165, 207 ] ], "text": "Hepatic radiotherapy could be considered, since there are SBRT techniques that achieve very good results, but in this case it is best to start by asking for an assessment by the surgeons and if they rule out surgery we would consider RT." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
482
2,020
173
A patient is brought to the ED from a fire occurring inside an enclosed building where polyurethane foams were present. He is conscious, but presents with increasing mental dullness, headache, and severe dyspnea. Oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry is 92% and capillary lactic acid is 8 mEq/l. What specific treatment do you consider most appropriate?
The first thing we need to know is that combustion of polyurethane at high temperature results in the release of cyanide (very intuitive, yes). Knowing this, and that we are dealing with cyanide poisoning, it is easier to answer the question. Among the basic initial treatment measures would be the administration of oxygen therapy with FiO2 1 (not 0.5 as stated in option 1), and an antidote, in this case hydroxycobalamin (this was asked similarly last year). Ventilation with hyperbaric chamber would only be indicated in case of coexistence of carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning. What is stated in option 4 about fluid therapy is not indicated; in case of associated shock, volume would be administered, but in any case not at that rate, but in rapid boluses.
CRITICAL CARE
{ "1": "Administration of oxygen by means of a 50% Venturi type mask.", "2": "Administration of intravenous hydroxycobalamin.", "3": "Ventilation with hyperbaric chamber.", "4": "Fluid therapy with infusion of physiological saline solution at 21 ml/h.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 243, 376 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 41, 64 ] ], "text": "Among the basic initial treatment measures would be the administration of oxygen therapy with FiO2 1 (not 0.5 as stated in option 1)," }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 243, 423 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 41, 71 ] ], "text": "Among the basic initial treatment measures would be the administration of oxygen therapy with FiO2 1 (not 0.5 as stated in option 1), and an antidote, in this case hydroxycobalamin" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 462, 579 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 77, 94 ] ], "text": "Ventilation with hyperbaric chamber would only be indicated in case of coexistence of carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 580, 759 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 94, 127 ] ], "text": "What is stated in option 4 about fluid therapy is not indicated; in case of associated shock, volume would be administered, but in any case not at that rate, but in rapid boluses." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
105
2,012
233
In a 35-year-old patient with a depressive syndrome on treatment with serotonin reuptake inhibitors, the use of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated:
Spontaneous reports of serotonergic syndrome associated with concomitant administration of linezolid and serotonergic agents, including antidepressants such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), have been reported.
PHARMACOLOGY
{ "1": "Doxycycline.", "2": "Amoxicillin-Clavulanic acid.", "3": "Daptomycin.", "4": "Linezolid.", "5": "Vancomycin." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 228 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 26 ] ], "text": "Spontaneous reports of serotonergic syndrome associated with concomitant administration of linezolid and serotonergic agents, including antidepressants such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), have been reported." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
73
2,012
62
A 37-year-old man with no past history of interest comes to the emergency department for syncope while walking. He had started two days earlier with dyspnea on exertion. Examination: weight 75 kg, BP 75/50 mm Hg. SatO2 89%. Pulmonary auscultation was normal. Cardiac auscultation: rhythmic tachycardic tones at 130 bpm. Abdomen normal. Extremities: no alterations. Normal hemogram. Troponin 1.2 ng / ml. ECG: Sensual tachycardia at 130 bpm. Inverted T in V1-V4. Thoracic CT angiography: repletion defect in both main pulmonary arteries. One hour after arrival at the emergency room, BP 70/55 mm Hg persists. What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?
The clinical case is a typical pulmonary thromboembolism. In this case it is associated with persistent arterial hypotension. Option 2 would be correct if the patient were not hypotensive. Option 3 is not correct since diagnostic confirmation is not necessary to initiate anticoagulant therapy in case of PTE without hypotension. Option 4 is not indicated. Option 5 would be correct only if the patient had a contraindication to fibrinolysis. Persistent hypotension in PTE is the most widely accepted indication for fibrinolysis, so the correct option is 1.
ANESTHESIOLOGY, CRITICAL CARE AND EMERGENCIES
{ "1": "Unfractionated heparin, 10,000U iv on clinical suspicion. Fibrinolysis with tPA 100 mg iv once the diagnosis is confirmed.", "2": "Enoxaparin: 80 mg sc every 12 hours, starting upon diagnostic suspicion.", "3": "Enoxaparin; 80 mg sc every 12 hours, starting upon diagnostic confirmation.", "4": "Fondaparinux: 7.5 mg sc daily.", "5": "Emergency pulmonary thromboendarterectomy." }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 443, 557 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 69, 87 ] ], "text": "Persistent hypotension in PTE is the most widely accepted indication for fibrinolysis, so the correct option is 1." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 126, 188 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 18, 29 ] ], "text": "Option 2 would be correct if the patient were not hypotensive." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 189, 329 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 29, 50 ] ], "text": "Option 3 is not correct since diagnostic confirmation is not necessary to initiate anticoagulant therapy in case of PTE without hypotension." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 330, 356 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 50, 55 ] ], "text": "Option 4 is not indicated." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 357, 442 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 55, 69 ] ], "text": "Option 5 would be correct only if the patient had a contraindication to fibrinolysis." } }
538
2,021
2
A fall with anterior shoulder fracture-dislocation that was reduced in the emergency department. A sling was placed and its removal was recommended after 3 weeks. On removal of the immobilization, an area of dysesthesia circumscribed to the lateral region of the shoulder was observed. The patient can perform abduction, but only reaches 15 degrees. She has a magnetic resonance imaging study in which the rotator cuff is undamaged. What is the most likely diagnosis of suspicion?
Dysesthesia of the lateral aspect of the deltoid region of the shoulder (area innervated by the axillary nerve) and paralysis of the deltoid (primary muscle for abduction beyond 15°). The rotator cuff is undamaged in the MRI, ruling out option 1 (it would show us tendinopathy of the teres major). Adhesive capsulitis presents with pain and stiffness of the shoulder, especially on active and passive external rotation. The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus muscle, which contributes to the first 15º of shoulder abduction (preserved in the statement) and does not innervate the skin of the reflected area.
TRAUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Tendinopathy of the teres major.", "2": "Adhesive capsulitis.", "3": "Suprascapular nerve neuropathy.", "4": "Axillary nerve injury.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 184, 297 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 29, 50 ] ], "text": "The rotator cuff is undamaged in the MRI, ruling out option 1 (it would show us tendinopathy of the teres major)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 298, 419 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 50, 67 ] ], "text": "Adhesive capsulitis presents with pain and stiffness of the shoulder, especially on active and passive external rotation." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 420, 621 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 67, 97 ] ], "text": "The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus muscle, which contributes to the first 15º of shoulder abduction (preserved in the statement) and does not innervate the skin of the reflected area." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 183 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 29 ] ], "text": "Dysesthesia of the lateral aspect of the deltoid region of the shoulder (area innervated by the axillary nerve) and paralysis of the deltoid (primary muscle for abduction beyond 15°)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
139
2,012
166
A 64-year-old smoker and heavy drinker with no other history of interest. The picture he explains is odynodysphagia of 3 months of evolution and left otalgia. He provides a dentist's report that rules out a dental cause. He also refers to having been visited by different specialists and provides a head and neck CAT scan (without iodine contrast) which is reported as normal. On examination there was a decrease in the propulsive capacity of the tongue; palpation of the base of the left tongue showed an induration of stony consistency of approximately 3cm and with indirect laryngoscopy no ulceration of the mucosa was observed. Cervical palpation is negative for lymphadenopathy. What is your presumptive diagnosis and course of action?
We are presented with a patient with risk factors for oropharyngeal cancer, but in whom the examination and tests are normal. What is going on here? This question is reverse psychology: what did the questioner want me to know? This question was asked by an otolaryngologist. He already tells you that the dentist "didn't see anything", so he rules out 1. It is not an abscess of the base of the tongue either, because in three months it would have killed him: neither is 2. So we are left with ankyloglossia, tongue base cancer and non-specific inflammation. When there is doubt that it could be cancer, we should not fool around and order a new CT scan and biopsy. Tongue base cancers are very treacherous and it is one of the fears of any otolaryngologist when he suspects a neoplasm. It is not uncommon for them to arise without exophytic masses or ulcerations of the tongue mucosa and they are difficult to detect on CT when contrast is not used. The correct answer is 4 and I do not think it can be challenged.
OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY
{ "1": "Dental cause / reevaluation by the dentist.", "2": "Abscess of the base of the tongue / debridement.", "3": "Ankyloglossia / surgical release of the same.", "4": "Malignant process of oropharynx / repeat CT scan and biopsy.", "5": "Nonspecific inflammation / corticosteroid treatment." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 301, 354 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 51, 61 ] ], "text": "the dentist \"didn't see anything\", so he rules out 1." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 355, 473 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 61, 85 ] ], "text": "It is not an abscess of the base of the tongue either, because in three months it would have killed him: neither is 2." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 559, 665 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 97, 119 ] ], "text": "When there is doubt that it could be cancer, we should not fool around and order a new CT scan and biopsy." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
446
2,018
130
A 28-year-old man comes to the hospital emergency room with gross hematuria. Which of the following urinalysis abnormalities would support a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis?
Glomerulonephritis is typically associated with dysmorphic red blood cells and hematic casts in the sediment (option 1 correct). Proteinuria can also appear in variable range, although it is not usual in the form of isolated microalbuminuria (incorrect option 2), and hematuria with pyuria although it is not characteristic (incorrect option 3). Clots usually appear in the context of alterations of the lower urinary tract (option 4 incorrect).
NEPHROLOGY
{ "1": "Dysmorphic red blood cells and/or hematic casts.", "2": "Proteinuria of 1 g/day, with negative test strip result and with microalbuminuria greater than 300 mg/24 hours.", "3": "Coexistence of hematuria with pyuria without bacteriuria.", "4": "Clots in the urine with the naked eye.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 128 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 18 ] ], "text": "Glomerulonephritis is typically associated with dysmorphic red blood cells and hematic casts in the sediment (option 1 correct)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 129, 263 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 18, 39 ] ], "text": "Proteinuria can also appear in variable range, although it is not usual in the form of isolated microalbuminuria (incorrect option 2)," }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 268, 345 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 40, 51 ] ], "text": "hematuria with pyuria although it is not characteristic (incorrect option 3)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 346, 445 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 51, 67 ] ], "text": "Clots usually appear in the context of alterations of the lower urinary tract (option 4 incorrect)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
551
2,022
130
An 85-year-old man in permanent atrial fibrillation consults for abrupt pain and coldness in the right foot for 6 hours. On examination he presents plantar cyanosis with partial sensory and mobility deficit. The femoral pulse is palpable, while the popliteal and distal pulses of this extremity are absent. Which of the following is the best therapeutic approach?
Urgent surgical treatment by thromboembolectomy.
CARDIOLOGY
{ "1": "Discourage revascularization surgery because of prolonged ischemia time.", "2": "Apply heat and notify the on-call vascular surgeon.", "3": "Urgent surgical treatment by thromboembolectomy.", "4": "Urgent medical treatment with intravenous prostaglandins.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 48 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 5 ] ], "text": "Urgent surgical treatment by thromboembolectomy." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
383
2,016
150
A 12-month-old boy, who in the health examinations performed since birth presents right testicle in the inguinal canal that is not possible to descend to the scrotum. Mark the correct answer:
The retractile testicle is characterized by the testicle being permanently outside the scrotal sac, being possible to descend it manually (although when it is released it automatically returns to its initial location). It is usually due to a short pedicle. In this case we are being told that the teste is always in the inguinal canal (cryptorchidism) so we can discard option 1. Hormonal treatment with HCG has already fallen into disuse, due to its low efficacy, possibility of reascension and because apoptotic and inflammatory phenomena have been described in the teste associated with its use (we discard option 3). Orchidopexy is the treatment of choice when we are faced with cryptorchidism, being desirable to perform it between 6 months and one year of age, and should not be deferred beyond two years of age.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "The most probable diagnosis is retractile testicle.", "2": "Wait until two years of age for its spontaneous decrease.", "3": "Human chorionic gonadotropin is the treatment of first choice.", "4": "The indication for orchidopexy should not be deferred.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 257, 379 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 40, 63 ] ], "text": "In this case we are being told that the teste is always in the inguinal canal (cryptorchidism) so we can discard option 1." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 380, 620 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 63, 100 ] ], "text": "Hormonal treatment with HCG has already fallen into disuse, due to its low efficacy, possibility of reascension and because apoptotic and inflammatory phenomena have been described in the teste associated with its use (we discard option 3)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 621, 766 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 100, 125 ] ], "text": "Orchidopexy is the treatment of choice when we are faced with cryptorchidism, being desirable to perform it between 6 months and one year of age," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
614
2,022
118
A 41-year-old male consults for gonalgia of several days' evolution. During the examination, the Thessaly test (pain with internal and external rotation movements with the knee flexed) is positive. Which of the following lesions is most likely to occur?
The Thessaly maneuver consists of the patient, using monopodal support and knee flexion of 5º and then 20º, performing internal and external rotations of the leg. In case this reproduces the pain that the patient refers, the test will be considered as positive. It is a test used for the diagnosis of meniscal pathology (sensitivity greater than 90% and specificity greater than 95%) (Answer 1 correct).
TRAUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Meniscal injury.", "2": "Injury by rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament.", "3": "Injury by rupture of the posterior cruciate ligament.", "4": "Degenerative arthropathy injury.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 403 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 66 ] ], "text": "The Thessaly maneuver consists of the patient, using monopodal support and knee flexion of 5º and then 20º, performing internal and external rotations of the leg. In case this reproduces the pain that the patient refers, the test will be considered as positive. It is a test used for the diagnosis of meniscal pathology (sensitivity greater than 90% and specificity greater than 95%) (Answer 1 correct)." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
499
2,020
182
A 60-year-old man with abdominal pain and upper gastrointestinal bleeding was found to have an abdominal tumor related to the gastric wall. Histology shows a spindle cell tumor with few mitoses, positive for CD117. The most likely diagnosis is:
The GI stromal tumor is better known as GIST, positive CD117, ckit, PDGF, manual.
MEDICAL ONCOLOGY
{ "1": "Neurofibroma of the gastric wall.", "2": "Gastrointestinal stromal tumor.", "3": "Leiomyoma.", "4": "Granulocytic sarcoma.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 81 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 14 ] ], "text": "The GI stromal tumor is better known as GIST, positive CD117, ckit, PDGF, manual." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
613
2,022
118
A 41-year-old male consults for gonalgia of several days' evolution. On examination, the Thessaly test (pain with internal and external rotation movements with the knee flexed) is positive. Which of the following injuries is more likely?
Thessaly test. Provocation test performed in suspected meniscal injury.
TRAUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Meniscal injury.", "2": "Injury due to rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament.", "3": "Injury by rupture of the posterior cruciate ligament.", "4": "Degenerative arthropathy injury.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 71 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 9 ] ], "text": "Thessaly test. Provocation test performed in suspected meniscal injury." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
247
2,014
117
A 54-year-old man diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to our office. He reported a fever of 40ºC with chills and shivering, arthromyalgia and headache, for which he started treatment with paracetamol. The symptoms started 24 hours before his return to Spain. Three days later she presented a generalized maculopapular rash that evolved into more intense petechiae on the lower limbs. She presented blood tests with leukopenia with 3,200/mm3 and platelets 91,000/mm3 and severe elevation of aminotransferases. The thick blood drop, peripheral blood smear, PCR and malaria antigen are negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
It is striking in this question that we are told that our patient has returned to Spain, but not from where (which could help us to make digressions about the possible cause). However, the description of the picture is very exhaustive as well as typical, so the question is easy. It is a disease that produces fever, arthralgias and a generalized exanthema with petechiae on the lower limbs. The CBC shows leukopenia accompanied by plateletopenia and elevated transaminases. Malaria has been ruled out as a possible cause. All the data are highly suggestive of Dengue, especially the plateletopenia and petechiae (suggestive of capillary fragility), answer 3 correct.
INFECTIOUS DISEASES
{ "1": "Coronavirus infection.", "2": "Lymphocytic choriomeningitis.", "3": "Dengue.", "4": "Chikungunya virus infection.", "5": "Saint Louis encephalitis." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 523, 649 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 87, 104 ] ], "text": "All the data are highly suggestive of Dengue, especially the plateletopenia and petechiae (suggestive of capillary fragility)," }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
88
2,012
56
A 78-year-old woman with a history of hypertension treated with amlodipine was admitted 3 months ago for heart failure and atrial fibrillation. She came to your office for a cardiological check-up. The discharge report shows the result of the echocardiogram showing moderate left ventricular dysfunction and the discharge treatment: amlodipine was discontinued and furosemide and enalapril were started. The patient reports feeling better, without fatigue and with less leg edema, but she is still not completely well. Physical examination showed no signs of heart failure, but her blood pressure and heart rate were 150/90 mmHg and 120 bpm, respectively. The ECG shows atrial fibrillation at 110-120 bpm. Which treatment is most likely to improve symptoms and reduce mortality from cardiovascular events?
Typical very long and rambling question but not really too complicated... The patient is in heart failure with moderate ventricular dysfunction and also presents atrial fibrillation; she has criteria for anticoagulation, and between the two options that include acenocoumarol we are inclined to choose option 4, since it includes carvedilol, a drug that has been shown to increase survival in heart failure. Verapamil (and calcium antagonists in general) are contraindicated in systolic heart failure: they do not increase survival (they even increase morbidity and mortality) and specifically the non-dihydropyridines (verapamil and diltiazem) should not be associated with beta-blockers due to the increased risk of conduction system blockade.
CARDIOLOGY AND VASCULAR SURGERY
{ "1": "Digoxin and acetylsalicylic acid.", "2": "Atenolol and acetylsalicylic acid.", "3": "Verapamil and acenocoumarol.", "4": "Carvedilol and acenocoumarol.", "5": "Carvedilol and clopidogrel." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 408, 501 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 62, 74 ] ], "text": "Verapamil (and calcium antagonists in general) are contraindicated in systolic heart failure:" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 182, 407 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 62 ] ], "text": "fibrillation; she has criteria for anticoagulation, and between the two options that include acenocoumarol we are inclined to choose option 4, since it includes carvedilol, a drug that has been shown to increase survival in heart failure." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
536
2,021
122
75-year-old male, hypertensive on treatment with enalapril (20 mg/day), who consults for deterioration of general condition, bitemporal headache and mandibular claudication of 3 weeks of evolution. In addition, in the last hours, he refers two episodes of amaurosis fugax of the left eye. Physical examination revealed thickening and absence of pulse in the left temporal artery. Analysis: CRP 6 mg/dl (VN <1); hemoglobin 10.5 g/dl; ESR 92 mm. Chest X-ray normal. Considering the most likely diagnosis, check the correct option regarding treatment:
Clinical case of giant cell arteritis. Corticosteroid therapy remains the first choice (answer 1 incorrect), to be administered as pulses (doses differ according to the literature, but at least 125 mg/d) in case of ocular involvement (answer 3 incorrect). The current treatment of choice for corticosteroid sparing is Tocilizumab (answer 4 incorrect), which has also been shown to reduce recurrences (answer 2 correct).
RHEUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Rituximab should be administered, since glucocorticoids have been relegated to second-line treatment due to their side effects.", "2": "Tocilizumab has been shown to be effective in reducing recurrences and cumulative prednisone dose in more than 50% of patients.", "3": "In the presence of ischemic symptoms, and in order not to worsen the vascular risk of the patient, the use of glucocorticoids at doses higher than 30 mg/day should be avoided.", "4": "In conjunction with glucocorticoid boluses of 1 g/day, infliximab should be used as a first-line drug for remission induction.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 108 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 15 ] ], "text": "Clinical case of giant cell arteritis. Corticosteroid therapy remains the first choice (answer 1 incorrect)," }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 352, 419 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 52, 63 ] ], "text": "which has also been shown to reduce recurrences (answer 2 correct)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 109, 255 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 15, 39 ] ], "text": "to be administered as pulses (doses differ according to the literature, but at least 125 mg/d) in case of ocular involvement (answer 3 incorrect)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 256, 351 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 39, 52 ] ], "text": "The current treatment of choice for corticosteroid sparing is Tocilizumab (answer 4 incorrect)," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
492
2,020
107
An 18-year-old patient who comes to the emergency department with epistaxis of several days' evolution, with no personal or family history of interest. On examination he is afebrile, multiple ecchymoses are observed, no splenomegaly is palpable. Laboratory tests: leukocytes 7.2 x103/μL, Hb 12.3 g/dL, platelets 6.0 x103/μL. Thrombocytopenia is confirmed in the smear, where platelets of increased size are observed. Coagulation and biochemistry studies are normal. What do you consider the most likely diagnosis?
This is an easy clinical case only presenting thrombopenia with clinic, petechiae and epistaxis. 1 is false, there would be fever, hemolysis data, neurological symptoms, in the smear there would be schistocytes. In 2 the coagulation must be altered and in this case it is not mentioned.
HEMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.", "2": "Disseminated intravascular coagulation.", "3": "Thrombocytopenia induced by infection.", "4": "Primary immune thrombocytopenia.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 97, 211 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 14, 32 ] ], "text": "1 is false, there would be fever, hemolysis data, neurological symptoms, in the smear there would be schistocytes." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 212, 286 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 47 ] ], "text": "In 2 the coagulation must be altered and in this case it is not mentioned." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
599
2,022
183
A 45-year-old woman with no history of interest consults for dyspneic sensation of about 4 days of evolution. Examination shows rhythmic tachycardia, without murmurs and pulmonary auscultation is normal. Arterial blood gases showed a pO2 of 70 mmHg and a pCO2 of 32 mmHg. Hemogram, renal and hepatic function are normal. Prothrombin time 90%, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) ratio of 2 to control (N <1.2). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
In this clinical case, we are presented with a woman who rapidly presents dyspnea with hypoxemia, a picture compatible with pulmonary thromboembolism. The prothrombin time of 90% and the aPTT with a ratio of 2, is translating a coagulation problem; and antiphospholipid antibodies can be detected through the prolongation of phospholipid-dependent coagulation tests, correct answer 1. On the other hand, although factor V Leiden has been identified as a common cause of familial thrombosis, it would not alter the clotting time. In the case of hemophilia there would be a problem in blood coagulation but it is not a frequent cause of thromboembolism. Finally, although acute pericarditis could manifest itself in 4 days and with tachycardia, the rest of the symptoms or analytical parameters are not characteristic.
RHEUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Antiphospholipid syndrome.", "2": "Factor V of Leiden.", "3": "Hemophilia.", "4": "Acute pericarditis.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 384 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 56 ] ], "text": "In this clinical case, we are presented with a woman who rapidly presents dyspnea with hypoxemia, a picture compatible with pulmonary thromboembolism. The prothrombin time of 90% and the aPTT with a ratio of 2, is translating a coagulation problem; and antiphospholipid antibodies can be detected through the prolongation of phospholipid-dependent coagulation tests, correct answer 1." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 385, 528 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 56, 81 ] ], "text": "On the other hand, although factor V Leiden has been identified as a common cause of familial thrombosis, it would not alter the clotting time." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 529, 651 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 81, 103 ] ], "text": "In the case of hemophilia there would be a problem in blood coagulation but it is not a frequent cause of thromboembolism." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 652, 816 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 103, 127 ] ], "text": "Finally, although acute pericarditis could manifest itself in 4 days and with tachycardia, the rest of the symptoms or analytical parameters are not characteristic." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
134
2,012
169
A 35-year-old man comes to the emergency department with pain in his right eye of 3 days' evolution. Biomicroscopic examination of the anterior segment shows, after fluorescein staining, a central corneal ulcer in the form of a dendrite. What is the diagnosis?
Dendritic corneal ulcer is typical of herpes simplex keratitis. It presents with pain, not too striking, and scarce or absent red eye. There are ulcers resembling dendrites that may confuse us in the diagnosis. These pseudodendrites are found in herpes Zoster and in corneal abrasions in resolution. Although in practice we should pay attention to the shape of the dendrite (the true dendrite is deeper and has terminal bulbs at the end of each branch), and pay attention to the evolution of the pain (in the pseudodendrite after abrasion the pain should improve), when answering a MIR question it is simpler: if it is a dendrite, the first thing we have to think is herpes. Fungal and bacterial keratitis have corneal infiltrates. And glaucomatocyclitic crisis (Posner Schlossman syndrome) is a type of idiopathic hypertensive anterior uveitis, which does not present with ulceration.
OPHTHALMOLOGY
{ "1": "Herpetic keratitis.", "2": "Corneal abrasion.", "3": "Fungal keratitis.", "4": "Bacterial keratitis.", "5": "Glaucomatocyclic crisis." }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 134 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 22 ] ], "text": "Dendritic corneal ulcer is typical of herpes simplex keratitis. It presents with pain, not too striking, and scarce or absent red eye." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 610, 674 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 101, 115 ] ], "text": "if it is a dendrite, the first thing we have to think is herpes." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 675, 731 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 115, 122 ] ], "text": "Fungal and bacterial keratitis have corneal infiltrates." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 675, 731 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 115, 122 ] ], "text": "Fungal and bacterial keratitis have corneal infiltrates." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 736, 885 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 123, 142 ] ], "text": "glaucomatocyclitic crisis (Posner Schlossman syndrome) is a type of idiopathic hypertensive anterior uveitis, which does not present with ulceration." } }
245
2,014
115
A patient undergoing chemotherapy for leukemia is admitted for pneumonia for which treatment with cefepime has been prescribed. A chest X-ray/CT scan shows an infiltrate with halo sign and crescentic meniscus. The lesion is peripheral and a transthoracic puncture is indicated for sampling. Pending definitive histologic and microbiologic results, what antimicrobial would you add to the treatment?
Direct response question. This is a patient undergoing chemotherapy with respiratory symptoms and the "halo sign" on X-ray, very suggestive of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis. Treatment is with voriconazole. Aspergillus is resistant to fluconazole, so it would not be a valid option.
INFECTIOUS DISEASES
{ "1": "Ganciclovir.", "2": "Caspofungin.", "3": "Fluconazole.", "4": "Piperacillin-tazobactam.", "5": "Voriconazole." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 209, 284 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 28, 41 ] ], "text": "Aspergillus is resistant to fluconazole, so it would not be a valid option." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 26, 208 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 3, 28 ] ], "text": "This is a patient undergoing chemotherapy with respiratory symptoms and the \"halo sign\" on X-ray, very suggestive of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis. Treatment is with voriconazole." } }
387
2,016
156
A 5-month-old infant exclusively breastfed until the present, who due to maternal work was introduced a bottle with formula and a few days ago was added cereals with and without gluten. Family history: 28-year-old mother with asthma, 32-year-old healthy father and 5-year-old brother with celiac disease and atopic dermatitis. As personal history, pregnancy without incidents and delivery by cesarean section, having been offered a bottle with starter formula on the first day of life in the maternity ward. Since a few days ago she starts with abdominal distension, diarrhea stools, refusal to feed, peribuccal erythema with longer duration after bottle feeding and lately vomiting after feeding, tolerating well the breast. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Child with multiple family history of allergy (asthma, atopy), who has received artificial milk in the first hours of life (sensitization to cow's milk protein) and who, coinciding with the intake of artificial milk, starts digestive symptoms and exanthema = APLV.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Celiac disease.", "2": "Acute gastroenteritis.", "3": "Cow's milk protein allergy.", "4": "Bottle allergy.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 264 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 41 ] ], "text": "Child with multiple family history of allergy (asthma, atopy), who has received artificial milk in the first hours of life (sensitization to cow's milk protein) and who, coinciding with the intake of artificial milk, starts digestive symptoms and exanthema = APLV." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
41
2,011
139
Given a patient with poor general condition, fever (axillary temperature 39.5º), bilateral submandibular swelling of six days' evolution, mouth pain and trismus, which of the following statements is correct?
This patient is in serious condition. The trismus and fever suggest a deep cervical space infection and that is not a game because the airway can become obstructed. Knowing this, options 1, 2 and 5 are out of place and I am left with 3 and 4. There may already be mediastinitis; after all, that is the natural history of cervical deep space infections, but answer 4 is more correct and besides, we are in the ENT block, the airway specialty. I like this question because it requires knowledge that is important in clinical practice.
OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY
{ "1": "The first diagnostic probability is carcinoma of the floor of the mouth with bilateral cervical metastases.", "2": "The therapeutic priority is to ensure the patient's nutrition.", "3": "We are almost certainly facing a mediastinitis.", "4": "We must consider as a priority the risk of airway obstruction.", "5": "We must perform as a first diagnostic measure a cytology by fine needle aspiration puncture." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 214 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 39 ] ], "text": "This patient is in serious condition. The trismus and fever suggest a deep cervical space infection and that is not a game because the airway can become obstructed. Knowing this, options 1, 2 and 5 are out of place" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 214 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 39 ] ], "text": "This patient is in serious condition. The trismus and fever suggest a deep cervical space infection and that is not a game because the airway can become obstructed. Knowing this, options 1, 2 and 5 are out of place" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 214 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 39 ] ], "text": "This patient is in serious condition. The trismus and fever suggest a deep cervical space infection and that is not a game because the airway can become obstructed. Knowing this, options 1, 2 and 5 are out of place" } }
385
2,016
153
What is the most likely diagnosis of a newborn with microcephaly, intrauterine growth retardation, congenital heart disease, vertical talus foot and a peculiar facies (microphthalmia, small palpebral fissures, micrognathia and dysplastic ears), hands with the index and little finger above the middle and ring fingers?
You are faithfully describing an Edwards' syndrome. Although the cardiopathies and the alteration of the foot that he describes are common to several chromosomopathies, the alteration of the fingers and toes is very characteristic of Edwards' syndrome.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Trisomy 18 (Edwards' syndrome).", "2": "Trisomy 13 (Patau's syndrome).", "3": "Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).", "4": "Trisomy 9.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 52, 252 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 7, 37 ] ], "text": "Although the cardiopathies and the alteration of the foot that he describes are common to several chromosomopathies, the alteration of the fingers and toes is very characteristic of Edwards' syndrome." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 52, 252 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 7, 37 ] ], "text": "Although the cardiopathies and the alteration of the foot that he describes are common to several chromosomopathies, the alteration of the fingers and toes is very characteristic of Edwards' syndrome." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 52, 252 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 7, 37 ] ], "text": "Although the cardiopathies and the alteration of the foot that he describes are common to several chromosomopathies, the alteration of the fingers and toes is very characteristic of Edwards' syndrome." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
194
2,013
162
A 3-year-old girl from Bangladesh consults for intermittent febrile episodes of 3 weeks' duration, associated with weakness and loss of appetite. Physical examination showed marked splenomegaly and mucocutaneous pallor. Complementary tests include: hemoglobin 8.5 mg/dL, hematocrit 26%, MCV 86 fL, MCH 29 pg, leukocytes 2800/mL with 300 neutrophils /ml, platelets 54000/ml, GOT 85 U/l, GPT92 U/l and polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia in serum proteinogram. Indicate the most probable diagnosis with the data available at this time:
Data such as pancytopenia and hypergammaglobulinemia are very characteristic of kala-azar. The origin of the girl is also indicative of this diagnosis, although it is a disease that also occurs in the Mediterranean area. In the differential diagnosis, it is important to keep in mind the possibility of leukosis.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia.", "2": "Burkitt's lymphoma.", "3": "Visceral leishmaniasis.", "4": "Miliary tuberculosis.", "5": "Chronic malaria." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 151 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 22 ] ], "text": "Data such as pancytopenia and hypergammaglobulinemia are very characteristic of kala-azar. The origin of the girl is also indicative of this diagnosis," }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
371
2,016
126
A 59-year-old woman with a personal history of breast cancer operated on 8 months ago and osteoporosis, suffers a fall and has a fracture of the neck of the right femur. She undergoes surgery and remains in the hospital resting in a cast for 10 days. A week after her discharge, she suddenly feels short of breath, which leads her to consult her family doctor who notices that her right calf has edema and pain on palpation. Which clinical elements would NOT be important in determining that she is at high clinical risk for pulmonary thromboembolism?
The other antecedents and findings are very directly related to the increased risk of thrombotic phenomena. Osteoporosis is not a risk factor for thrombosis.
PULMONOLOGY AND THORACIC SURGERY
{ "1": "History of breast cancer.", "2": "History of osteoporosis.", "3": "History of having been at rest for more than 3 days.", "4": "Presence of unilateral edema of the right calf.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 107 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 16 ] ], "text": "The other antecedents and findings are very directly related to the increased risk of thrombotic phenomena." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 108, 157 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 16, 24 ] ], "text": "Osteoporosis is not a risk factor for thrombosis." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 107 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 16 ] ], "text": "The other antecedents and findings are very directly related to the increased risk of thrombotic phenomena." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 107 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 16 ] ], "text": "The other antecedents and findings are very directly related to the increased risk of thrombotic phenomena." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
283
2,016
56
A 54-year-old patient is admitted for thermometric fever of 38°C in the previous five days and dyspnea at rest (LV) that appeared 6 hours before coming to the hospital. Examination in the emergency room was compatible with heart failure and the ECG showed complete atrioventricular block with an escape ventricular rate of 45 bpm. Signs of heart failure are refractory to medical treatment and transesophageal echocardiography shows an aortic valve with an effective regurgitant orifice of 0.5 cm2_ Serial cultures are positive for Streptococcus gallolyticus. Indicate the best course of action:
Cardiac surgery for aortic valve replacement by mechanical prosthesis with antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram.
CARDIOLOGY AND VASCULAR SURGERY
{ "1": "Cardiac surgery for aortic valve replacement by mechanical prosthesis with antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram.", "2": "Antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram and implantation of intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation and transient pacemaker for up to 3 weeks, after which a permanent pacemaker will be implanted.", "3": "Implantation of transient pacemaker, antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram and percutaneous implantation of aortic valve prosthesis.", "4": "Urgent implantation of definitive pacemaker with antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram for 6 weeks.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 119 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 15 ] ], "text": "Cardiac surgery for aortic valve replacement by mechanical prosthesis with antibiotic therapy according to antibiogram." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
109
2,012
149
A 32-year-old asymptomatic woman goes for a gynecological health check-up because she wishes to become pregnant. During this check-up, a 4cm uterine myoma is detected, partly intramural and partly subserosal, located on the anterior aspect of the uterus and which does not deform the endometrial cavity. What approach would you recommend?
The correct answer is 5. An asymptomatic myoma of this size that does not deform the endometrial cavity is not a problem for pregnancy.
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "Laparoscopic myomectomy.", "2": "Laparotomic myomectomy.", "3": "Myoma embolization by arterial catheterization.", "4": "Treatment with Gn-Rh analogues for three months before attempting pregnancy.", "5": "Attempting pregnancy without any previous treatment." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 135 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 24 ] ], "text": "An asymptomatic myoma of this size that does not deform the endometrial cavity is not a problem for pregnancy." } }
92
2,012
235
A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with breast neoplasia 10 years ago. She underwent treatment with radiochemotherapy and then hormonal therapy for 5 years. A bone scan study performed for polytopic bone pain showed the presence of bone metastases. She is currently under treatment with minor opioids and NSAIDs with good pain control. She consulted for headache that did not subside with the current analgesia and a CT scan of the brain showed images compatible with brain metastases. In relation to the treatment of pain, indicate the CORRECT one:
Brain metastases produce pain due to cranial hypertension. The treatment of choice is corticosteroids. Dexamethasone in oral doses of 4 to 16 mg/day is the treatment of choice.
PALLIATIVE CARE
{ "1": "Switch to major opioids.", "2": "Extra doses of opioids should be administered as necessary.", "3": "Corticoids should be added.", "4": "Switch to a major opioid and maintain NSAIDs.", "5": "The patient should be admitted for intravenous treatment with major opioid." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 102 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 14 ] ], "text": "Brain metastases produce pain due to cranial hypertension. The treatment of choice is corticosteroids." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
342
2,016
158
A 24-year-old woman, primigestation, suffers a spontaneous abortion at 7 weeks of gestation. The anatomopathological study of the abortive remains indicates molar disease. We should inform you that:
Gestational trophoblastic disease should be followed up (regardless of whether the evacuation has been complete or not) and the patient should be advised not to become pregnant again until at least 6 months with negative BHCG titers. The risk of recurrence in another pregnancy is low (1/55) and 90% of cases progress satisfactorily without developing neoplasia.
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "The risk of a new molar gestation in a future pregnancy is 50%.", "2": "She should not become pregnant until she has undergone periodic controls and has spent one year with negative BHCG levels.", "3": "Subsequent controls are not necessary if the evacuation of the trophoblastic tissue was complete.", "4": "It is necessary to carry out periodic controls since 40% of the cases will develop a gestational trophoblastic neoplasia.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 233 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 37 ] ], "text": "Gestational trophoblastic disease should be followed up (regardless of whether the evacuation has been complete or not) and the patient should be advised not to become pregnant again until at least 6 months with negative BHCG titers." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
357
2,016
232
A 24-year-old woman consults after noticing inguinal lymphadenopathy. The interrogation does not reveal any local discomfort or data suggestive of sexually transmitted infection. The examination revealed two lymphadenopathies, one in each groin, 1 cm in diameter, soft, mobile, non-painful. No skin lesions are seen on the lower limbs, anus or perineum. Which test do you consider essential?
The presence of inguinal nodes up to 1-1.5cm may be normal in the absence of symptoms. In this case, they are very nonspecific nodes, without signs of malignancy (mobile, soft, not painful) that do not lead us to suspect neoplastic infiltration and the lack of other clinical signs also leads us to rule out the presence of STD.
GYNECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS
{ "1": "A lues serology since it is most likely a Treponema pallidum infection.", "2": "A gynecological examination to rule out ovarian cancer.", "3": "By the clinical characteristics it seems to be normal lymph nodes and complementary explorations should not be done.", "4": "A Paul-Bunell test should be performed to rule out infectious mononucleosis.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 328 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 58 ] ], "text": "The presence of inguinal nodes up to 1-1.5cm may be normal in the absence of symptoms. In this case, they are very nonspecific nodes, without signs of malignancy (mobile, soft, not painful) that do not lead us to suspect neoplastic infiltration and the lack of other clinical signs also leads us to rule out the presence of STD." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
596
2,022
121
79-year-old woman admitted for an osteoporotic hip fracture. Regarding secondary prevention of fragility fractures, point out the WRONG answer:
This question corresponds to the section on traumatology; however, it could be answered with knowledge of rheumatology and with the osteoporosis recommendations of the Spanish Society of Rheumatology. In osteoporosis, one of the main risks associated with increased fracture risk is low adherence to treatment, so answer 1 is correct. Answer 2 is found in the SER guidelines, which confirm that some studies conclude that bone remodeling markers can be useful for early monitoring of adherence and response to treatment. Answer 4 is correct because again in the SER 2019 guidelines they quote: "The current scientific evidence allows us to affirm that neither increasing dietary calcium nor taking calcium supplements alone protects against the appearance of fractures". Therefore, the correct answer to this question is option 3. Patients on pharmacological treatment for OP should use calcium and vitamin D supplements because practically all clinical trials that have demonstrated efficacy of antiosteoporotic drugs routinely include calcium supplements and cholecalciferol (vitamin D3), but not in monotherapy.
RHEUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Low adherence to treatment is associated with an increased risk of fracture.", "2": "Bone remodeling markers may be useful for early monitoring of response to treatment.", "3": "Vitamin D monotherapy is effective in reducing such fractures in non-institutionalized elderly.", "4": "Increasing dietary calcium or taking calcium supplements alone does not protect against the occurrence of fractures.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 201, 334 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 28, 50 ] ], "text": "In osteoporosis, one of the main risks associated with increased fracture risk is low adherence to treatment, so answer 1 is correct." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 335, 520 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 50, 80 ] ], "text": "Answer 2 is found in the SER guidelines, which confirm that some studies conclude that bone remodeling markers can be useful for early monitoring of adherence and response to treatment." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 831, 1114 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 127, 164 ] ], "text": "Patients on pharmacological treatment for OP should use calcium and vitamin D supplements because practically all clinical trials that have demonstrated efficacy of antiosteoporotic drugs routinely include calcium supplements and cholecalciferol (vitamin D3), but not in monotherapy." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 521, 770 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 80, 117 ] ], "text": "Answer 4 is correct because again in the SER 2019 guidelines they quote: \"The current scientific evidence allows us to affirm that neither increasing dietary calcium nor taking calcium supplements alone protects against the appearance of fractures\"." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
334
2,016
82
A woman diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 24 years. She comes to the office with 3 months of clinical evolution of tingling in both feet, with distribution in sock, with paresthetic pain and sensation of hot feet predominantly at night, which significantly interferes with sleep. Which of the following drugs would you use in the first line for the treatment of her pathology?
Duloxetine; the clinical picture described is of diabetic neuropathy. Of the drugs proposed, the first choice would be a dual antidepressant such as duloxetine.
PHARMACOLOGY
{ "1": "Ibuprofen.", "2": "Oxycodone.", "3": "Duloxetine.", "4": "Paracetamol.", "5": null }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 12, 160 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 1, 24 ] ], "text": "the clinical picture described is of diabetic neuropathy. Of the drugs proposed, the first choice would be a dual antidepressant such as duloxetine." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
81
2,012
44
A 78-year-old patient diagnosed with idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy with mild left ventricular dysfunction (ejection fraction 48%) and chronic atrial fibrillation. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in his treatment?
Digoxin is useful as a symptomatic treatment (it is a positive inotropic) in heart failure, although it does not improve survival. Carvedilol is a very well tolerated aß-blocker (due to its anti-a1 effect) that is associated with symptomatic and survival improvement. Acenocoumarol (Sintrom) would be indicated in this patient with chronic AF to avoid thromboembolic events. Enalapril and ACE inhibitors in general, by inhibiting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis, suppress part of the neurohormonal effects that occur in heart failure; they improve survival in patients with systolic dysfunction. Ibuprofen and NSAIDs in general are contraindicated in patients with heart failure because they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis at the renal level, causing an increase in systemic vascular resistance, reduced renal perfusion, and inhibition of sodium and water excretion, which can precipitate decompensation of heart failure.
CARDIOLOGY AND VASCULAR SURGERY
{ "1": "Digoxin.", "2": "Carvedilol.", "3": "Acenocoumarol.", "4": "Enalapril.", "5": "Ibuprofen." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 130 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 21 ] ], "text": "Digoxin is useful as a symptomatic treatment (it is a positive inotropic) in heart failure, although it does not improve survival." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 131, 267 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 21, 41 ] ], "text": "Carvedilol is a very well tolerated aß-blocker (due to its anti-a1 effect) that is associated with symptomatic and survival improvement." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 268, 374 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 41, 56 ] ], "text": "Acenocoumarol (Sintrom) would be indicated in this patient with chronic AF to avoid thromboembolic events." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 375, 602 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 56, 86 ] ], "text": "Enalapril and ACE inhibitors in general, by inhibiting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis, suppress part of the neurohormonal effects that occur in heart failure; they improve survival in patients with systolic dysfunction." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 603, 750 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 86, 107 ] ], "text": "Ibuprofen and NSAIDs in general are contraindicated in patients with heart failure because they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis at the renal level," } }
386
2,016
154
The appearance of a high fever of 39°C in a 10-month-old infant that abruptly subsides after 3-5 days, followed by a cephalocaudal morbilliform exanthema with enanthema consisting of reddish papules on the palate, and resolving within a week, associated with good general condition, is usually caused by:
The question of exanthematous diseases that pediatricians and MIR exam takers like so much. By the picture of high fever of several days that suddenly subsides with the appearance of a rash, we have a sudden exanthem, caused by Herpes virus type 6 (remember the mnemonic rule of "sudden Hexanthem"). Parvovirus B19 is the cause of erythema infectiosum or "fifth disease", whose characteristic rash is on the cheeks, giving the appearance of a slapped face. Coxackie A16 causes herpangina and also boca-mano-pie disease, which presents an initially macular rash, which does not respect palms or soles and evolves into bursting vesicles. Finally, EBV infection produces a mononucleosis syndrome with high fever lasting several days, with pharyngeal erythema and grayish exudates on the tonsils. It can present if penicillins are given to treat it (when confused with a streptococcal pharyngotonsillitis) a generalized exanthema. In addition, it also presents with fatigue, hepatic inflammation with increased transaminases and splenomegaly.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Parvovirus B19.", "2": "Herpes virus type 6.", "3": "Coxackie A16 virus.", "4": "Primoinfection by Epstein-Barr virus.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 300, 456 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 50, 75 ] ], "text": "Parvovirus B19 is the cause of erythema infectiosum or \"fifth disease\", whose characteristic rash is on the cheeks, giving the appearance of a slapped face." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 92, 299 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 14, 50 ] ], "text": "By the picture of high fever of several days that suddenly subsides with the appearance of a rash, we have a sudden exanthem, caused by Herpes virus type 6 (remember the mnemonic rule of \"sudden Hexanthem\")." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 457, 635 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 75, 101 ] ], "text": "Coxackie A16 causes herpangina and also boca-mano-pie disease, which presents an initially macular rash, which does not respect palms or soles and evolves into bursting vesicles." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 636, 792 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 101, 123 ] ], "text": "Finally, EBV infection produces a mononucleosis syndrome with high fever lasting several days, with pharyngeal erythema and grayish exudates on the tonsils." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
239
2,014
146
An 80-year-old man is admitted for a sudden onset of aphasia and right hemiparesis. His history includes hypertension, well controlled with diet and cognitive deterioration in the last year under study by his neurologist. The emergency cranial CT scan shows a left frontal lobar hematoma without contrast uptake. What is the most probable cause of the hematoma?
Amyloid angiopathy is the most common cause of spontaneous non-hypertensive hemorrhage in elderly patients, and is usually lobar in location (as in the case). They often appear in association with Alzheimer's disease (CTO Manual). The response that may cause the most doubts is 2, hypertension, but the most frequent localizations are: putamen, thalamus, pons and cerebellum. Therefore, most of the time these are deep hemorrhages (CTO Manual). In addition, as a clue it tells us that the patient has well-controlled hypertension without drugs, although this data would not serve to rule out the response. Answer 1, a malformation is typical of young patients, rare in older people. It also decreases the chance of not finding a malformation with contrast-enhanced CT. Answer 4, a brain tumor, does not seem likely since the mass is not seen on CT, and as in the previous case, it is more difficult not to find such a lesion after contrast administration. Answer 3 does not seem correct since vasculitis is a rare entity and more so in older people.
NEUROLOGY
{ "1": "Arteriovenous malformation masked by acute hematoma.", "2": "Chronic arterial hypertension.", "3": "Isolated vasculitis of the nervous system.", "4": "Brain tumor.", "5": "Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (congophilic angiopathy)." }
5
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 606, 682 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 94, 107 ] ], "text": "Answer 1, a malformation is typical of young patients, rare in older people." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 299, 444 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 46, 67 ] ], "text": "the most frequent localizations are: putamen, thalamus, pons and cerebellum. Therefore, most of the time these are deep hemorrhages (CTO Manual)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 956, 1049 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 156, 174 ] ], "text": "Answer 3 does not seem correct since vasculitis is a rare entity and more so in older people." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 769, 955 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 120, 156 ] ], "text": "Answer 4, a brain tumor, does not seem likely since the mass is not seen on CT, and as in the previous case, it is more difficult not to find such a lesion after contrast administration." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 230 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 34 ] ], "text": "Amyloid angiopathy is the most common cause of spontaneous non-hypertensive hemorrhage in elderly patients, and is usually lobar in location (as in the case). They often appear in association with Alzheimer's disease (CTO Manual)." } }
525
2,021
53
A 42-year-old woman visits her family physician for gonalgia. Opportunistic use is made of the consultation to assess lifestyles, especially smoking. If you want to follow the health education strategy based on the five "a's" model, which of the following is NOT included in this strategy:
The 5A summarizes the activities that should be performed by healthcare personnel during the brief intervention with the patient to stop smoking and are: find out, advise, analyze, help, accompany or agree. Therefore, the one that is not included in the strategy would be option 2: increase.
PREVENTIVE MEDICINE
{ "1": "Inquire: ask about risk factors and risk behaviors (ask the patient if she smokes).", "2": "Increase: increase risk perception to facilitate change (explain the consequences of smoking).", "3": "Advise: give clear, specific and personalized advice (advise smoking cessation).", "4": "Agree: collaboratively agree on goals for change (assess readiness to make a quit attempt).", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 291 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 47 ] ], "text": "The 5A summarizes the activities that should be performed by healthcare personnel during the brief intervention with the patient to stop smoking and are: find out, advise, analyze, help, accompany or agree. Therefore, the one that is not included in the strategy would be option 2: increase." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
287
2,016
64
65-year-old patient presenting progressive dyspnea of 5 days of evolution until becoming resting, three-pillow orthopnea and episodes of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Auscultation highlights bilateral crackles, holosystolic murmur radiating to the axilla and gallop rhythm for the third and fourth sounds. Mark the CORRECT statement:
The fourth noise usually appears when there is a certain degree of valvular stenosis.
CARDIOLOGY AND VASCULAR SURGERY
{ "1": "The third noise coincides with the rapid filling phase of the ventricular diastole of the cardiac cycle.", "2": "The most likely diagnosis is heart failure.", "3": "The holosystolic murmur may correspond to mitral insufficiency.", "4": "The fourth noise usually appears when there is a certain degree of valvular stenosis.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 85 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 14 ] ], "text": "The fourth noise usually appears when there is a certain degree of valvular stenosis." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
472
2,020
140
65-year-old obese woman who suffers a fall on her hand with her elbow in extension. She presents with arm pain with swelling and functional impotence of the arm and inability to extend the wrist and fingers. It is most likely to present:
We must take into account all the clinical data provided: after trauma we have pain in the arm with soft tissue involvement and the impossibility of extending the wrist and fingers. The only option that includes all the data is 4. Option 1 does not explain the involvement of the wrist and fingers. The elbow dislocation does not explain the lack of finger mobility as well as the diaphyseal fracture of the humerus and double forearm. "Direct mechanism is possible, as is indirect transmission of forces from the elbow and hand...radial nerve involvement is extremely frequent, reaching an incidence of 10-18% of cases." Proximal humerus fracture-dislocation would have greater involvement at the shoulder, elbow dislocation at the elbow, and there is no data to suggest double forearm fracture.
ORTHOPEDIC SURGERY AND TRAUMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Dislocation fracture of proximal humerus.", "2": "Elbow dislocation.", "3": "Diaphyseal fracture of the humerus associated with double forearm fracture.", "4": "Diaphyseal fracture of humerus with radial nerve injury.", "5": null }
4
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 231, 298 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 41, 53 ] ], "text": "Option 1 does not explain the involvement of the wrist and fingers." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 299, 435 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 53, 76 ] ], "text": "The elbow dislocation does not explain the lack of finger mobility as well as the diaphyseal fracture of the humerus and double forearm." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 622, 796 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 103, 128 ] ], "text": "Proximal humerus fracture-dislocation would have greater involvement at the shoulder, elbow dislocation at the elbow, and there is no data to suggest double forearm fracture." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 58, 230 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 10, 41 ] ], "text": "after trauma we have pain in the arm with soft tissue involvement and the impossibility of extending the wrist and fingers. The only option that includes all the data is 4." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
173
2,013
51
A 53-year-old woman with bronchial asthma comes to the allergy clinic for a checkup. She reports repeated exacerbations with nocturnal symptoms, frequent use of rescue medication and dyspnea on exertion when walking on level ground. Spirometry shows a pre-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of 60% and FEV1 of 55%. Skin tests are positive for mites and total IgE of 150 IU/ml. The patient is being treated with a combination of high-dose salmeterol/budesonide (50/500 mg: 2 puffs twice daily), maintenance oral prednisone (10 mg/day) and theophylline. Of the following options, which is the most advisable therapeutic approach?
The indication of omalizumab in a patient such as the one referred to is a correct indication, although in severe asthma that is difficult to control, there are other prior measures that are not contemplated and that must always be taken into account before resorting to this treatment. It is mandatory to ensure firstly that it is truly asthma and not another disease that simulates asthma, secondly that there are no complications that worsen the evolution as could be the presence of gastroesophageal reflux, bronchiectasis, presence of opportunistic germs given the chronic treatment with steroids, etc; and thirdly, it is necessary to confirm that the patient complies with the treatments correctly, especially the inhaled treatment, etc. Once all of the above has been checked, it would be time to start a trial treatment with omalizumab.
PNEUMOLOGY
{ "1": "Add magnesium sulfate.", "2": "Increase the dose of prednisone to 30 mg/day.", "3": "Add omalizumab.", "4": "Nebulized treatment at home.", "5": "Switch to a combination with high doses of budesonide and formoterol." }
3
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 94 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 17 ] ], "text": "The indication of omalizumab in a patient such as the one referred to is a correct indication," }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
480
2,020
171
A 67-year-old woman with a history of dyslipidemia, who comes to the ED with dysuria and pollakiuria followed by fever, chills, and deterioration of general condition. On arrival she appears severe and is tachycardic, tachypneic, with blood pressure 60/40 mmHg and temperature of 39°C. Which of the following measures would NOT be included in the INITIAL management?
Among the options presented, the only measure not included in the Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines on the management of sepsis and septic shock (like the patient we are dealing with) is the administration of IV dobutamine. The appropriate procedure would consist of fluid administration, blood culture extraction, serum lactate measurement and early administration of broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy directed to the suspected septic focus. If we do not obtain mean arterial pressure for adequate perfusion of the organs, we would initiate noradrenaline perfusion, as discussed in question 51.
CRITICAL CARE
{ "1": "Intravenous perfusion of dobutamine.", "2": "Serum lactate measurement.", "3": "Extraction of blood cultures.", "4": "Fluid administration.", "5": null }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 226 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 36 ] ], "text": "Among the options presented, the only measure not included in the Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines on the management of sepsis and septic shock (like the patient we are dealing with) is the administration of IV dobutamine." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
58
2,011
199
An asymptomatic 31-year-old woman (Consultant) is asymptomatic and has a 10-week gestation according to ultrasound study (primiparous). Her younger brother (index case) aged 26 years is affected by ataxia and genetically diagnosed as a heterozygous carrier of an expansive mutation of 70 CAG repeats in the SCA3 gene (chromosome 14). The patient is referred to the genetic counseling office where a possible chorionic villus biopsy to study the fetal genotype is evaluated. Is this invasive procedure indicated as a pre-natal diagnosis (PND) in this case?
SCA3 is Spinocerebellar Ataxia type 3 also called Machado-Joseph disease. It is caused by mutations in the ATXN3 gene by the CAG triplet repeat expansion mechanism. Affected individuals have between 52 and 86 CAG triplet repeats in heterozygosis with complete penetrance. The heterozygous mutation carrier has the disease as its inheritance pattern is autosomal dominant. In this clinical case, the one who has the disease and has the mutated gene in heterozygosis is the brother (26 years old) of the pregnant woman. I think that before doing the chorion biopsy, the pregnant woman should be tested to know her ATXN3 gene status. She has a 50% chance of carrying the mutation and having the disease, but since she is 31 years old, I think she should have already had symptoms. Nevertheless, I would do the genetic test on the pregnant woman to be on the safe side. If she came out without the mutation, there would be nothing more to do because the disease would no longer be transmitted. If she came out with the mutation, then I would do a chorionic villus biopsy. Answers 1 and 2 are both true, but I think answer 1 is more true than answer 2.
GENETICS
{ "1": "It is indicated after studying the Consultant's genotype and only if it is heterozygous.", "2": "This is not indicated, since SCA3 ataxia is full penetrance and the Consultant is asymptomatic and therefore has not inherited the mutation.", "3": "It may be indicated in the next pregnancy, after studying the genotype of the first child and detecting the mutation in it.", "4": "SCA3 ataxia is recessively inherited, so there is no appreciable risk of disease transmission and PND is not indicated.", "5": "This is indicated regardless of the Consultant's genotype, since SCA3 ataxia is maternally inherited (transmitted by women)." }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 372, 777 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 55, 130 ] ], "text": "In this clinical case, the one who has the disease and has the mutated gene in heterozygosis is the brother (26 years old) of the pregnant woman. I think that before doing the chorion biopsy, the pregnant woman should be tested to know her ATXN3 gene status. She has a 50% chance of carrying the mutation and having the disease, but since she is 31 years old, I think she should have already had symptoms." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
51
2,011
230
37-week pregnant woman with positive hepatitis B virus surface antigen. She consults about the guidelines to be followed with the newborn and whether she can breastfeed. What advice do you think is most appropriate?
The correct answer is 4. Children born to HBV carrier mothers should be administered hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin at different puncture sites within the first 24 hours of life. Although the virus is excreted in breast milk, the risk of infection by this route is very low and therefore it is not currently a contraindication for breastfeeding.
PEDIATRICS
{ "1": "Administer hepatitis B vaccine at birth. Artificial feeding.", "2": "Vaccination and immunoglobulins should be administered at birth. Breastfeeding from one month onwards.", "3": "Immunoglobulins at birth and artificial breastfeeding.", "4": "Vaccination and immunoglobulins at birth. Maternal feeding.", "5": "Artificial feeding and isolation for 4 weeks." }
4
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 186 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 30 ] ], "text": "Children born to HBV carrier mothers should be administered hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin at different puncture sites within the first 24 hours of life." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
184
2,013
65
A patient with obesity (body mass index 38) is referred to your office. In the clinical history the patient refers that he/she has been obese since the age of 17 (currently 36 years old), having been on multiple diets with weight loss ranging from 5 to 10 kg but has subsequently regained weight. The patient is currently on a 1500 Kcal diet (self-administered and not restricted in fat) with a good follow-up of this diet, performing one hour of aerobic exercise 4 days a week. She has lost 3 kg but needs an additional loss of 7 kg more. Given the possibility of adding a drug against obesity, which one would you use to reduce fat absorption?
Orlistat acts by decreasing fat absorption; it is currently the only drug approved for use in obesity.
ENDOCRINOLOGY
{ "1": "Orlistat.", "2": "Topiramate.", "3": "Sibutramine.", "4": "Liraglutide.", "5": "Metformin." }
1
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 102 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 17 ] ], "text": "Orlistat acts by decreasing fat absorption; it is currently the only drug approved for use in obesity." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
295
2,016
75
Indicate the clinical situation that, in relation to hepatitis B virus infection, presents a 5-year-old patient from Nigeria, with normal physical examination and with the following serology against hepatitis B: HBsAg + / ANTI- HBs - / HBeAg - / ANTI- Hbe + / ANTI- Hbc IgM - / ANTI- Hbc IgG +/ DNA HBV +:
Question in which having a table in the head comes out alone discarding options: Option 1: The acute infection would be HBeAg + and ANTI-HBe - . In addition the ANTI-HBec would be IgM type (only for this last data, we would have to discard it in a direct way). Option 2: the correct one. It complies with all the characteristics. Option 3: The vaccinated patient cannot have DNA of the virus (the only thing that positivizes in a vaccinated patient is the AntiBs. IgG type). Option 4: The option that could offer more doubts. In the asymptomatic carrier (chronic carrier / seroconverted) the difference is that there is no viral DNA.
GENETICS AND IMMUNOLOGY
{ "1": "Acute infection.", "2": "Chronic infection.", "3": "Vaccinated patient.", "4": "Asymptomatic carrier.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 81, 260 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 14, 50 ] ], "text": "Option 1: The acute infection would be HBeAg + and ANTI-HBe - . In addition the ANTI-HBec would be IgM type (only for this last data, we would have to discard it in a direct way)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 261, 329 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 50, 61 ] ], "text": "Option 2: the correct one. It complies with all the characteristics." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 330, 391 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 61, 72 ] ], "text": "Option 3: The vaccinated patient cannot have DNA of the virus" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 475, 633 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 86, 112 ] ], "text": "Option 4: The option that could offer more doubts. In the asymptomatic carrier (chronic carrier / seroconverted) the difference is that there is no viral DNA." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
559
2,022
160
A 35-year-old woman, taking contraceptives, comes to the emergency department with febrile syndrome and paresthesias in the left hemibody. Blood tests show Hb 7.5 g/dL, platelets 7,000/microl, normal leukocytes with normal differential count, LDH 1,200 IU/l, reticulocytes 10% (normal 0.5-2%), undetectable serum haptoglobin, negative direct Coombs' test and peripheral blood smear with schistocytes. Coagulation (prothrombin time and APTT) normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
The fear of all on-call hematologists... that you will get a TTP. Because, although infrequent, it is the greatest hematologic emergency. The clinical case is fairly typical. A young person with fever and neurological symptoms that make him go to the emergency department (he is on the run). Laboratory tests show anemia with evidence of hemolysis (increased LDH and retis, presence of schistocytes in peripheral blood) and severe thrombopenia. In addition, coagulation is normal. To distinguish it from the rest of things (although you should not hesitate...) it tells you that the coombs is negative. As a reminder: URGENT TREATMENT: PLASMATIC REPLACEMENTS. The diagnostic confirmation is the ADAMTS 13 deficit, but treatment is started before having that value, which is not usually done urgently. And, as we all know, these things usually come at night and/or weekends, to make things more difficult....
HEMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Autoimmune hemolytic anemia.", "2": "Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.", "3": "Evans syndrome (hemolytic anemia and immune thrombopenia).", "4": "Idiopathic immune thrombocytopenia.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 139, 603 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 21, 95 ] ], "text": "The clinical case is fairly typical. A young person with fever and neurological symptoms that make him go to the emergency department (he is on the run). Laboratory tests show anemia with evidence of hemolysis (increased LDH and retis, presence of schistocytes in peripheral blood) and severe thrombopenia. In addition, coagulation is normal. To distinguish it from the rest of things (although you should not hesitate...) it tells you that the coombs is negative." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }
558
2,022
160
A 35-year-old woman, taking contraceptives, comes to the emergency department with febrile syndrome and paresthesias in the left hemibody. Blood tests showed Hb 7.5 g/dL, platelets 7,000/microl, normal leukocytes with normal differential count, LDH 1,200 IU/l, reticulocytes 10% (normal 0.5-2%), undetectable serum haptoglobin, negative direct Coombs' test and peripheral blood smear with schistocytes. Coagulation (prothrombin time and APTT) normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
The patient presents criteria for Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP): 1. Neurological alteration. 2. Febrile syndrome (fever). 3. Coombs negative migroangiopathic hemolytic anemia (presence of schistocytes). 4. Thrombopenia.
HEMATOLOGY
{ "1": "Autoimmune hemolytic anemia.", "2": "Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.", "3": "Evans syndrome (hemolytic anemia and immune thrombopenia).", "4": "Idiopathic immune thrombocytopenia.", "5": null }
2
{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 231 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 27 ] ], "text": "The patient presents criteria for Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP): 1. Neurological alteration. 2. Febrile syndrome (fever). 3. Coombs negative migroangiopathic hemolytic anemia (presence of schistocytes). 4. Thrombopenia." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }