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Osteoclasts Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: deposit bone and differentiate from periosteal mesenchymal cells., B: resorb bone and differentiate from periosteal mesenchymal cells., C: deposit bone and differentiate from monocytes., D: resorb bone and differentiate from monocytes.
D
The lateral pterygoid muscle Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: is attached to the coronoid process and elevates the mandible., B: is attached to the condylar process and elevates the mandible., C: is attached to the coronoid process and protrudes the mandible., D: is attached to the condylar process and protrudes the mandible.
D
In the fetus, the ductus arteriosus passes blood from the Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: pulmonary vein to the aorta., B: aorta to pulmonary vein., C: pulmonary artery to the aorta., D: aorta to the pulmonary artery.
C
Which of the following bones develop by endochondral ossification? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The ribs, B: The ribs and sternum, C: The ribs, sternum and clavicle, D: The ribs, sternum, clavicle and vertebrae
B
The mucosa of the hard palate is Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posterolaterally., B: non-keratinised and has submucosa and minor salivary glands posteromedially., C: keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands., D: non-keratinised and lacks submucosa and minor salivary glands.
A
The head of the sixth rib articulates with Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The inferior articular facet of T5 and superior articular facet of T6., B: The inferior articular demifacet of T5 and superior articular facet of T6., C: The inferior articular demifacet of T5 and the superior articular demifacet of T6., D: The superior and inferior demifacets of T6.
C
Which of the following is located beneath the diaphragm in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Appendix, B: Duodenum, C: Spleen, D: Pancreas
C
Proprioceptive nerve endings in synovial joints are located in Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: articular cartilage and synovial membrane., B: synovial membrane and capsule., C: capsule and ligaments., D: ligaments and articular discs.
D
The thoracic cage is a structural unit important for which of the following functions? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Alimentation, B: Menstruation, C: Mentation, D: Respiration
D
A patient is admitted after a head injury and sinks rapidly into a coma. An MRI scan indicates an extradural haemorrhage because extravasated blood can be detected between the Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: skull bones and dura mater., B: dura mater and arachnoid., C: arachnoid and pia mater., D: pia mater and brain surface.
A
A successful infraorbital nerve block will produce anaesthesia of the Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: maxillary anterior teeth., B: maxillary anterior teeth and their labial gingivae., C: maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae and the upper lip., D: maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae, the upper lip and anterior hard palate.
C
Which of the following foramina pierce the sphenoid bone? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The foramen ovale, B: The foramen ovale and rotundum, C: The foramen ovale, rotundum and spinosum, D: The foramen ovale, rotundum and spinosum and foramen lacerum
C
Which of the following is a disorder characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep during the day? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Dyslexia, B: Epilepsy, C: Hydrocephalus, D: Narcolepsy
D
Which of the following allows gas exchange in the lungs? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Alveoli, B: Bronchi, C: Bronchioles, D: Capillaries
A
A patient has a fracture in which the radius is bent but not displaced, and the skin is intact. This type of fracture is known as which of the following? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Closed, greenstick, B: Complex, comminuted, C: Compound, transverse, D: Open, spiral
A
Fertilization of an ovum by a spermatozoon occurs in which of the following structures? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Cervix, B: Fallopian tube, C: Ovary, D: Uterus
B
Ectoderm gives rise to Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: the neural tube., B: ectomesenchymal cells., C: dental enamel., D: all three structures.
D
In men, which of the following structures is located at the neck of the bladder and surrounds the urethra? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Epididymis, B: Prostate, C: Scrotum, D: Seminal vesicle
B
Which of the following options completes the following statement? "The right atrioventricular valve…" Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: is a semilunar valve, B: is prevented from everting by papillary muscles., C: is open during systole., D: prevents blood returning from the pulmonary trunk as the heart relaxes.
B
Which one of the following brain areas is supplied by branches of the subclavian arteries? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The frontal lobe, B: The parietal lobe, C: The hypothalamus, D: The cerebellum
D
Which of the following structures is part of the small intestine? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Ascending colon, B: Cecum, C: Ileum, D: Sigmoid colon
C
During an inferior alveolar nerve block the needle ideally passes Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: posterior and medial to medial pterygoid., B: anterior and lateral to medial pterygoid., C: through medial pterygoid., D: inferior to medial pterygoid.
B
Patients with which of the following diseases are treated with injections of vitamin B-12? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Bell's palsy, B: Crohn's disease, C: Pernicious anemia, D: Graves' disease
C
Which of the following bones has a process that joins with the zygomatic bone to form the zygomatic arch? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The maxillary bone, B: The temporal bone, C: The sphenoid bone, D: The frontal bone
B
Parasympathetic preganglionic axons leave the CNS with the Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: cervical spinal nerves., B: thoracic spinal nerves., C: lumbar spinal nerves., D: sacral spinal nerves.
D
A patient with damage to their cervical sympathetic chain will show the following signs and symptoms. Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Pupillary constriction, B: Pupillary constriction and vasodilation of facial vessels, C: Pupillary constriction, vasodilation of facial vessels and increased facial sweating, D: Pupillary constriction, vasodilation of facial vessels, increased facial sweating and decreased lacrimation
B
Which of the following cranial nerves is related to the sense of smell? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Abducens, B: Hypoglossal, C: Olfactory, D: Trochlear
C
Where are the vital centres located in the brainstem? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: midbrain, B: pons, C: medulla oblongata, D: cerebellum
C
Saliva contains an enzyme that acts upon which of the following nutrients? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Starches, B: Proteins, C: Fats, D: Minerals
A
During swallowing the Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: auditory tube opens., B: cricopharyngeus muscle contracts., C: rima glottis opens., D: gag reflex is suspended.
A
The dorsal roots of all spinal nerves contain Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: sensory neuronal processes., B: sensory and autonomic neuronal processes., C: motor neuronal processes., D: motor and autonomic neuronal processes.
A
Which of the following is the master gland of the endocrine system? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Adrenal, B: Pancreas, C: Pineal, D: Pituitary
D
Loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue indicates damage to the Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: lingual branch of the mandibular trigeminal nerve., B: chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve., C: lingual branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve., D: hypoglossal nerve.
A
In men, specimens for gonococcal cultures are most commonly obtained from which of the following structures? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Anus, B: Bladder, C: Urethra, D: Testicle
C
Which of the following structures should be visible on a dental panoramic radiograph? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The mandibular canal, B: The mandibular canal and maxillary sinus, C: The mandibular canal, maxillary sinus and hard palate, D: The mandibular canal, maxillary sinus, hard palate and zygomatic arch
D
What is true for a type-Ia ("type one-a") supernova? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: This type occurs in binary systems., B: This type occurs in young galaxies., C: This type produces gamma-ray bursts., D: This type produces high amounts of X-rays.
A
If you know both the actual brightness of an object and its apparent brightness from your location then with no other information you can estimate: Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Its speed relative to you, B: Its composition, C: Its size, D: Its distance from you
D
Why is the sky blue? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Because the molecules that compose the Earth's atmosphere have a blue-ish color., B: Because the sky reflects the color of the Earth's oceans., C: Because the atmosphere preferentially scatters short wavelengths., D: Because the Earth's atmosphere preferentially absorbs all other colors.
C
You’ve made a scientific theory that there is an attractive force between all objects. When will your theory be proven to be correct? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The first time you drop a bowling ball and it falls to the ground proving your hypothesis., B: After you’ve repeated your experiment many times., C: You can never prove your theory to be correct only “yet to be proven wrong”., D: When you and many others have tested the hypothesis.
C
Which of the following is/are true? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Titan is the only outer solar system moon with a thick atmosphere, B: Titan is the only outer solar system moon with evidence for recent geologic activity, C: Titan's atmosphere is composed mostly of hydrocarbons, D: A and D
D
A comet of mass m impacts the earth (mass M radius R) at the minimum impact speed. What is the expression for the total energy released in the impact? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: m*v, B: 0.5*m/(R^3), C: 0.5*m*(2GM/R), D: 0.6*G(M^2)/R
C
Some of Mars'water is frozen in the soil and the ice caps and some was lost due to solar wind stripping but much of the original water is thought to have been lost through another mechanism. What happened to this "lost"water? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: it was stripped away by the magnetic field when it rapidly decreased in strength, B: it was broken into hydrogen and oxygen by ultraviolet light and the hydrogen was lost through thermal escape, C: it was consumed by a civilization of thirsty Martians, D: it was vaporized during a period of intense volcanism and was lost to space through thermal escape
B
Most rocks on the Moon's surface are older than those on the Earth's surface. The best evidence for this is: Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Lunar rocks are composed of fragments pulverized by many impacts., B: Radioactive dating of lunar samples shows that they are older., C: The Moon's surface is more heavily eroded than the Earth's surface., D: The Moon's surface has more impact craters than the Earth's surface.
B
What is the second most common element in the solar system? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Iron, B: Hydrogen, C: Methane, D: Helium
D
What is the source of the material that causes meteor showers? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Near-Earth asteroids gradually disintegrate and spread out along their orbital path. When the Earth passes through the orbit of an asteroid we are bombarded by sand-sized particles which cause a meteor shower., B: Near-Earth asteroids disintegrate as they enter Earth's atmosphere creating hundreds of bright meteors that appear to radiate from a single location in the sky., C: The nuclei of comets disintigrate as they enter Earth's atmosphere creating hundreds of bright meteors that appear to radiate from a central location in the sky., D: The nuclei of comets gradually disintegrate and spread out along the comet's orbital path. When the Earth passes through the orbit of a comet we are bombarded by sand-sized particles which cause a meteor shower.
D
Why does the plasma (ion) tail of a comet always point away from the Sun? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Radiation pressure from the Sun's light pushes the ions away., B: The conservation of the angular momentum in the tail keeps it always pointing away from the Sun., C: The ions are following Keplerian orbits that lead away from the Sun., D: The solar wind electromagnetically "blows" the ions directly away from the Sun.
D
How did Eratosthenes estimate the size of Earth in 240 B.C.? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: By observing the duration of a solar eclipse., B: By measuring the size of Earth's shadow on the Moon in a lunar eclipse., C: By comparing the maximum altitude of the Sun in two cities at different latitudes at the same time on the same day., D: By sending fleets of ships around Earth.
C
The Large Magellanic Cloud is ... Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: a dwarf galaxy orbiting the Milky Way., B: the closest planetary nebula to the Earth., C: a bright star cluster discovered by Magellan., D: the outer arm of the Milky Way named after Magellan.
A
Why do we look for water-ice in craters at Mercury's pole? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Actually water-ice is all over Mercury and not just at the poles., B: The pole is the only place fortunate enough to have had comet impacts, C: Radar from the earth can only see Mercury's poles., D: These craters contain the only permanently shadowed regions on Mercury
D
The Milky Way is part of a giant supercluster with a diameter of 160 Mpc. What is the name of this supercluster? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Virgo, B: Laniakea, C: Sculptor, D: Boötes
B
On which planet in our solar system can you find the Great Red Spot? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Venus, B: Mars, C: Jupiter, D: Saturn
C
Why does Earth have the strongest magnetic field among the terrestrial worlds? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: It is by far the largest terrestrial world., B: It is the most volcanically active world., C: It is the only one that has both a partially molten metallic core and reasonably rapid rotation., D: It rotates much faster than any other terrestrial world.
C
Which of the following is not true? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The Earth and Venus are in a 1:1 orbital resonance (for every 1 Earth orbit there is exactly 1 Venus orbit), B: Neptune and Pluto are in a 3:2 orbital resonance (for every 3 Neptune orbits there are exactly 2 Pluto orbits), C: The Kirkwood Gaps in the asteroid belt are due to resonances with Jupiter, D: Neptune and Pluto won't collide because of their orbital resonance
A
Which of the following is/are common feature(s) of all fresh (i.e. not eroded) impact craters formed on solid surfaces: Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: ejecta, B: raised rims, C: central peaks, D: A and B only
D
From laboratory measurements we know that a particular spectral line formed by hydrogen appears at a wavelength of 486.1 nanometers (nm). The spectrum of a particular star shows the same hydrogen line appearing at a wavelength of 485.9 nm. What can we conclude? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The star is getting hotter., B: The star is getting colder., C: The star is moving toward us., D: The star is moving away from us.
C
The lithosphere of a planet is the layer that consists of Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: the softer rocky material of the mantle., B: the lava that comes out of volcanoes., C: material between the crust and the mantle., D: the rigid rocky material of the crust and uppermost portion of the mantle.
D
What is the Cassini division of Saturn's rings? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: a dark ring visible from Earth composed of dark dusty particles, B: the most opaque ring of Saturn made of highly reflective ice particles, C: the widest ring of Saturn located between two large ring gaps, D: a large gap visible from Earth produced by an orbital resonance with the moon Mimas
D
Which of the following statements about sidereal and solar days is not true? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The time it takes for the Sun to make one circuit of our sky is one solar day., B: A solar day is 4 minutes longer than a sidereal day., C: A solar day represents more than 360° of rotation for the earth., D: The time it takes for the Moon to make one circuit of our sky is one solar day.
D
Meteorites with high metal content probably are Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: pieces of comets rather than of asteroids., B: chunks of large differentiated asteroids that were shattered by collisions., C: chunks of rock chipped off the planet Mars., D: leftover chunks of rock from the earliest period in the formation of the solar system.
B
Most people use C°(degree Celsius) to measure everyday temperatures. Astronomers prefer to use K (Kelvin) to measure temperatures. Approximately how many Kelvin are 25 C°? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: 200 Kelvin, B: 250 Kelvin, C: 300 Kelvin, D: 350 Kelvin
C
The four big moons of Jupiter are Callisto Europa Ganymede and Io. Which one of them has the smallest distance to Jupiter? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Callisto, B: Europa, C: Ganymede, D: Io
D
Why are the season's in Mars' southern hemisphere so extreme? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: because Mars is farther from the sun than the Earth, B: because Mars has more carbon dioxide in its atmosphere than the Earth, C: because Mars has a more eccentric orbit than the Earth, D: because Mars' axis is more tilted than the Earth's
C
What Mars mission will be landing on May 25 2008 and will dig a trench into (hopefully) ice-rich soil? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: ExoMars, B: Mars Exploration Rovers, C: Mars Science Laboratory, D: Phoenix Mars Lander
D
What is the significance of the 1:2:4 resonance in the Jupiter's moons system? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The resonance pulls Io in different directions and generates heat., B: It makes the orbit of Io slightly elliptical., C: It creates a gap with no asteriods between the orbits., D: It prevents formation of the ring material into other moons.
B
The terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: the entire planets are made mostly of metal., B: metals condensed first in the solar nebula and the rocks then accreted around them., C: metals sank to the center during a time when the interiors were molten throughout., D: radioactivity created metals in the core from the decay of uranium.
C
Why are the inner planets made of denser materials than the outer planets? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: In the beginning when the protoplanetary disk was spinning faster centrifugal forces flung the lighter materials toward the outer parts of the solar nebula., B: In the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able to condense because of the high temperatures whereas hydrogen compounds although more abundant were only able to condense in the cooler outer regions., C: Denser materials were heavier and sank to the center of the nebula., D: When the solar nebula formed a disk materials naturally segregated into bands and in our particular solar system the denser materials settled nearer the Sun while lighter materials are found in the outer part.
B
What do meteorites reveal about the solar system? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: They reveal that the early solar system consisted mostly of hydrogen and helium gas., B: They reveal that meteorites are much older than the comets and planets., C: They reveal that the age of the solar system is approximately 4.6 billion years., D: They reveal that the solar system once contained 10 planets.
C
Venus shows evidence of which of the following surface processes? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Impacts, B: Erosion, C: Volcanism, D: A B and C
D
Planetary rings are Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: known to exist for all of the jovian planets., B: composed of a large number of individual particles that orbit their planet in accord with Kepler's third law., C: nearer to their planet than any of the planet's large moons., D: all of the above
D
Suppose the angular separation of two stars is smaller than the angular resolution of your eyes. How will the stars appear to your eyes? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: You will not be able to see these two stars at all., B: You will see two distinct stars., C: The two stars will look like a single point of light., D: The two stars will appear to be touching looking rather like a small dumbbell.
C
What is not true of Jupiter's magnetic field? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: it is about 20000 times stronger than Earth's magnetic field, B: it traps charged particles from Io's volcanoes in a "plasma torus" around the planet, C: it causes spectacular auroral displays at Jupiter's north and south poles, D: it switches polarity every 11 years
D
What does the astronomical term ecliptic describe? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The path of the Sun in the sky throughout a year., B: The axial tilt of the Earth throughout a year., C: The movement of the stars due to Earth’s rotation., D: The central line through the axis of rotation.
A
The so-called dark energy is a model to explain ... Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: the radiation of black holes., B: the mass distribution of galaxies., C: the acceleration of the universe., D: the microwave background of the universe.
C
How do scientists know that the majority of meteorites come from the asteroid belt? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Bubbles of gas trapped in the crystals within meteorites are identical to the gases trapped in asteroids., B: The spectra of some meteorites are similar to the spectra of asteroids in the asteroid belt., C: Collisions are common in the asteroid belt and we can track the fragments from their source asteroid to the Earth where they become meteorites., D: The asteroid belt is the only possible source of meteorites therefore they must originate there.
B
Jupiter and the other jovian planets are sometimes called "gas giants." In what sense is this term misleading? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The materials they are made of are not normally gaseous in everyday experience., B: They actually contain a significant fraction of non-gaseous matter., C: The materials that make up these planets are primarily in the form of a plasma not a gas., D: Actually it's a great description because these worlds are big and gaseous throughout.
B
Which of the following is not one of nor follows directly from Kepler's laws? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: As a planet moves around its orbit it sweeps out equal areas in equal times., B: The orbit of each planet about the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one focus., C: The force of attraction between any two objects decreases with the square of the distance between their centers., D: A planet travels faster when it is nearer to the Sun and slower when it is farther from the Sun.
C
The name of the black hole in the center of our Milky Way is ... Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Altair A*, B: Alsephina A*, C: Fomalhaut A*, D: Sagittarius A*
D
Why is Saturn almost as big as Jupiter despite its smaller mass? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Jupiter's greater mass compresses it more thus increasing its density., B: Saturn has a larger proportion of hydrogen and helium than Jupiter and is therefore less dense., C: Jupiter's strong magnetic field constrains its size., D: Saturn is further from the Sun thus cooler and therefore less compact.
A
Which of these has NOT been one of the main hypotheses considered for the origin of the Moon? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The Moon split from the Earth due to tidal forces., B: The Moon was captured into Earth orbit., C: The Earth and Moon co-accreted in the solar nebula., D: Earth was rotating so rapidly that the Moon split from it.
A
We were first able to accurately measure the diameter of Pluto from: Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: a New Horizons flyby in the 1990s, B: Hubble Space Telescope images that resolved Pluto's disk, C: brightness measurements made during mutual eclipses of Pluto and Charon, D: radar observations made by the Arecibo telescope
C
According to the Solar Nebular theory what are asteroids and comets? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: They are the shattered remains of collisions between planets., B: They are chunks of rock or ice that condensed long after the planets and moons had formed., C: They are chunks of rock or ice that were expelled from planets by volcanoes., D: They are leftover planetesimals that never accreted into planets.
D
How do we know how old the Earth is? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: From the layering of materials within the Earth., B: From fossils of ancient life., C: From the cratering history of Earth’s surface., D: From radioactive dating of rocks and meteorites.
D
Life on Earth originated from Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: We don't know for sure., B: aliens (panspermia)., C: comets., D: the Earth's oceans.
A
By locating the north celestial pole (NCP) in the sky how can you determine your latitude? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The azimuth of the NCP is the angular distance from the North Pole., B: The azimuth of the NCP is the same as your latitude., C: The altitude of the NCP is the same as your latitude., D: The altitude of the NCP is your angular distance from the North Pole.
C
How does the greenhouse effect work? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Ozone transmits visible light allowing it to heat the surface but then absorbs most of the infrared heat trapping the heat near the surface., B: Greenhouse gases transmit visible light allowing it to heat the surface but then absorb infrared light from Earth trapping the heat near the surface., C: Greenhouse gases absorb infrared light from the Sun which then heats the atmosphere and the surface., D: Greenhouse gases absorb X-rays and ultraviolet light from the Sun which then heat the atmosphere and the surface.
B
Why is Saturn almost as big as Jupiter despite its smaller mass? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Jupiter's greater mass compresses it more thus increasing its density., B: Saturn has a larger proportion of hydrogen and helium than Jupiter and is therefore less dense., C: Saturn is further from the Sun thus cooler and therefore less compact., D: Saturn's rings make the planet look bigger.
A
Calculate the ratio of the solar radiation flux on Mercury's surface for perihelion (0.304 AU) versus aphelion (0.456 AU). Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: 4:1, B: 1:2, C: 6:5, D: 9:4
D
The terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: the entire planets are made mostly of metal., B: radioactivity created metals in the core from the decay of uranium., C: metals condensed first in the solar nebula and the rocks then accreted around them., D: metals differentiated to the center during a time when the interiors were molten throughout.
D
Which of the following countries has sent landers to Venus? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: The U.S.S.R., B: The U.S., C: France, D: A and B
A
Which of the following is/are NOT caused by orbital resonance? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: 2:3 periodic ratio of Neptune:Pluto, B: Kirkwood Gaps., C: Gaps in Saturn's rings., D: Breaking of small Jovian moons to form ring materials.
D
Why is it thought that the climate on Mars changed when the planet lost its strong magnetic field? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: without a strong magnetic field the ozone layer was destroyed by the solar wind which stopped the greenhouse effect and cooled Mars down., B: without a strong magnetic field which enhances the greenhouse effect Mars cooled down., C: without a strong magnetic field the solar wind stripped away most of the atmosphere significantly reducing the greenhouse effect and cooling Mars down, D: without a strong magnetic field the planet recieves fewer charged particles from the solar wind and therefore is not heated as much
C
Which of the following moons is NOT one of the Galilean moons? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Ganymede, B: Callisto, C: Europa, D: Dione
D
Planet X orbits its sun once every 100 Earth days and rotates in the prograde direction around its axis with a sidereal day of 100 Earth days. How long is a solar day on Planet X? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: About 10 earth days, B: About 100 earth days, C: About 200 earth days, D: There is no solar day Planet X is tidally locked
D
When traveling north from the United States into Canada you’ll see the North Star (Polaris) getting _________. Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Brighter, B: Dimmer, C: Higher in the sky, D: Lower in the sky
C
When will the next major impact occur on Earth? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Hundreds of millennia in the future., B: Major impacts can no longer occur since the period of heavy bombardment is over., C: Hundreds of millennia after the last major impact., D: Could be any time. The probability of impact is the same next year as it is for any later year.
D
What about asteroids makes them stand out in sky surveys searching for them? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Asteroids emit pulsed radiation, B: Asteroids emit a lot of their own radiation, C: They reflect enough of the sun's light to make them brighter than most background stars, D: Asteroids have substantial motion relative to the background stars
D
Why did the solar nebula heat up as it collapsed? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Collisions among planetesimals generated friction and heat., B: Radiation from other nearby stars that had formed earlier heated the nebula., C: The shock wave from a nearby supernova heated the gas., D: As the cloud shrank its gravitational potential energy was converted to kinetic energy and then into thermal energy.
D
You observe the visible spectrum of a star viewed through a cloud of cool hydrogen gas. Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: You see only the star’s blackbody spectrum., B: You see the star’s blackbody spectrum with absorption lines due to hydrogen., C: You see only emission lines characteristic of hydrogen., D: You see only emission lines characteristic of the star’s composition.
B
Which of the following most likely explains why Venus does not have a strong magnetic field? Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: Its rotation is too slow., B: It has too thick an atmosphere., C: It is too large., D: It does not have a metallic core.
A
Which of the following characteristics would not necessarily suggest that a rock we found is a meteorite. Choose the correct answer from the choices below. A: It has a fusion crust, B: It contains solidified spherical droplets, C: It is highly processed, D: It has different elemental composition than earth
C