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{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 429, 535 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 66, 82 ] ], "text": "The correct action implies inescapably the personal and direct contact between the doctor and the patient." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Tell him to make the friend request and that he will accept it, as he is sure that there are no inappropriate items on his page for a girl of Sofia's age.", "2": "Because you consider Sofia a vulnerable patient and are concerned that she may misinterpret a rejection, agree to let her make the request but only allow her access to certain content on your page.", "3": "Answer that it is important to maintain certain professional boundaries between patients and physicians and that, unfortunately, if you make the request you will not be able to accept it, so it is better not to do so.", "4": "Tell him to make the request but without any intention of accepting it.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0091_3667", "title": "[Telling the patient the diagnosis of cancer].", "score": 0.009988023952095809, "content": "Four cases are presented for discussion. In the first case, the patient believed the doctor for a while when his suspicion of cancer was forcibly denied. But when radiotherapy followed the operation, he became convinced that he had been deceived and confronted the doctor aggressively to force him into a confession. In the second case, the patient, a resident of the U.S. for many years, was told on completion of tests the true diagnosis even before his American wife learned of it. He became very depressed, while his wife kept urging him to fight the cancer. In the third case, the doctor thought better of the earlier decision by another doctor not to tell the truth. The doctor called the patient's relatives to discuss the advisability of telling the truth and when he secured their confidence, he visited the patient with them and told him the true diagnosis. The patient recovered from the initial shock and lived peacefully for several months enjoying the new union he felt with his wife. In the fourth case, it is as if there were a kind of silent conspiracy between the doctor and the patient's relatives who kept her in the dark about her condition. When her illness went downhill, she became completely withdrawn, though she accepted religious ministering to the end. It is cruel to deceive the patient with false hopes. But to tell the patient the truth needs tact. The doctor in the third case gives a very good model of it. First, he assesses the patient's personality. Second, he convinces the patient's relatives of the advisability of truth-telling. Third, he assures the patient that he is in charge no matter what happens to him. Perhaps it was easier to tell the patient the diagnosis of cancer or its poor prognosis in bygone days than nowadays, when the wonders of modern medicine are too much publicized." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0648_15276", "title": "Who rules the roost?", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Adam's mother was concerned about her 3-year-old son's hyperactivity, violence, and activity level. Adam and his mom had recently moved into a shelter for pregnant women. The rest of the residents are primarily in their early 20s, whereas Adam's mom is 42. She had found about 3 months ago that she was pregnant. This was her fourth pregnancy, second with this father, and he had recently left her when she refused an abortion. Her other children are 22 and 24 and live out of state. She has a history of opioid addiction. She had been on methadone during Adam's gestation and had recently started on buprenorphine to treat her addiction during this pregnancy as well. Adam is here today for his 3-year-old checkup and you had not seen him for a year. Mom states that he has been healthy but has become progressively active over the last year. He is very angry about his dad leaving, and according to Adam's mother \"blames her\" for sending him away. They are living in 1 room at the shelter, and mom is finding it increasingly difficult to keep him busy all day. When she goes out looking for a job, he is very challenging at the shelter, and she constantly receives complaints that he is \"too loud\" in the common rooms. She feels like she is at the end of her rope with him, he is constantly climbing, bolting from her, and taking risks.When you examine Adam, you find a robust, healthy young boy. His eye contact is good, and he is socially related but does actively explore your office. When he begins taking the instruments off your wall, his mother sits passively watching him. When he begins playing with the faucet, she half heartedly tells him to \"stop\" but he looks at her and continues splashing. He then begins flicking the light switch on and off in the room with no response from mom. When you ask about discipline, mom states \"nothing works.\" When you ask about supports, she states \"I have nobody except Adam and the new baby now.\"Adam was born after an uneventful full-term pregnancy with his mother on 100 mg methadone daily. She denies cigarette smoking, drugs, alcohol, or other medications. Urine testing throughout was positive only for opioids. Motor milestones were achieved at the appropriate time. Language milestones at the 2-year-old visit consisted of 10 single words. Now, he has a 50 single-word vocabulary but no 2-word combinations. He primarily takes whatever he wants and has a tantrum if mom cannot figure out what he desires. Adam's medical history is unremarkable. Family history is significant for drug abuse by her father and mother; mental illness in the father's family consisting of bipolar disorder in several uncles. Where do you go from here?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en046_12836", "title": "Letter of appointment", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Other critics assert that the outer sheet containing the postmark and address is of different stock than the first two pages, however this is disputed. This theory infers that Strang disposed of the first two pages, retaining the last page with the post mark and composed his own partial letter containing the appointment. Analysis indicates that the handwriting on all three pages is the same. Vague references to Strang's appointment appear throughout the letter. On page one: \"The faith which thou hast in the Shepherd, the stone of Israel [Joseph Smith], hath been repaid to thee a thousandfold, and thou shalt be like unto him; but the flock shall find rest with thee, and God shall reveal to thee his will concerning them.\" Page two continues: \"[H]e [Strang] had faith in thee [Smith], the Shepherd and Stone of Israel, and to him shall the gathering of the people be.\" Page three: \"Thy [Strang] duty is made plain . ... [I]f evil befall me [Smith], thou shalt lead the flock to pleasant" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1027_22858", "title": "Questioning a Previous Autism Spectrum Disorder Diagnosis: Can You \"Lose\" the Diagnosis?", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Heidi is an almost 6-year-old girl presenting to your primary care office to establish care because of a change in insurance status. You review her previous medical records before seeing her.She was diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) when she was 25 months old. Her parents were initially concerned about language delay. Through a comprehensive evaluation by a developmental-behavioral pediatrician and a child psychologist, including administration of the Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development and the Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule, she was diagnosed with ASD. Her cognitive skills were reported to be within the average range. Soon after the diagnosis, she began receiving 20 hours of applied behavioral analysis (ABA) per week, as well as music therapy, occupational therapy, and a toddler playgroup through early intervention. Four months after the initial diagnosis, her parents reported that she had started making small improvements in her behavior, used more eye contact, and seemed more socially engaged. Approximately 1 year after the diagnosis, she was receiving 6 hours of ABA per week in addition to starting preschool with an Individualized Education Program. She reportedly continued to show progress with social communication and pretend play skills.At the age of 3 years, 8 months, neuropsychological testing was completed at her parent's request, and her cognitive skills and adaptive skills were reported to be within the average range. She continued to meet the diagnostic criteria for ASD, given her challenges with social awareness, communication, delayed play skills, decreased flexibility, and tendency toward subtle self-direction. She continued to receive speech/language therapy and attended an integrated preschool program within the school district because of her social and communication challenges. She also received ABA 4 hours weekly at home.During your first visit with Heidi, her parents report that she has continued to make progress in all areas, including social skills. She can engage in imaginary play with her friends, ask strangers questions, and comprehend the perspective of others, and she is no longer \"rigid.\" She is not receiving services outside of school and is only receiving once weekly speech/language therapy in school. Her parents no longer believe that she meets the criteria for ASD, and they are interested in further evaluation. Her parents ask if it is possible to \"lose\" the diagnosis of ASD. They also want to know if there are other things to be concerned about for her future. How do you respond?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en388_21724", "title": "Aidan Foster", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Chris' friendship with Natasha starts to affect his relationship with Aidan, who asks him to choose between them. When Natasha's party is ruined, Chris rushes straight to her aid. Natasha also steals Chris' attention from Aidan and he often drops everything for her, even though she would not do the same for him. Aidan, who has become tired of Chris always making excuses for Natasha, tells him to start asserting himself instead. Morley explained to a TV Soap writer, \"It's not that Aidan doesn't approve of Tash, rather it's the way that she has been treating Chris that Aidan doesn't agree with. This, coupled with the fact that Chris isn't standing up for himself, sends Aidan over the edge.\" Chris feels \"shattered\" at having to choose between his boyfriend and best friend. Mason commented that his character just needed to learn how to handle them both. Aidan feels the situation is just part of the \"getting to know each other\" phase, but Chris panics and assumes his relationship is about" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0900_12777", "title": "Supporting a Youth with Cerebellar Ataxia into Adolescence.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Zoe, a 13-year-old white girl, presents as a new patient to your pediatric clinic with complaints of frequent emesis, anxiety, and learning problems, and previous diagnosis of cerebellar ataxia. Parents accompany Zoe and state, \"it is really hard for her to go out, she gets sick and falls easily.\" She was born full term by vaginal delivery without complications. Given globally delayed milestones, she received early intervention services. Feeding problems began at infancy, including gastroesophageal reflux and aspiration pneumonia.At age 2, Zoe saw a neurologist and brain MRI revealed cerebellar atrophy. She recently saw a geneticist and genetic studies are pending. Parents report receiving \"little\" information regarding prognosis; through their own research, they read about individuals having similar symptoms in adulthood, with a degenerative pattern. They worry that Zoe is \"still very young and we do not know what her future will be like.\"Despite ongoing speech and feeding challenges, the parents report difficulty finding a speech and language therapist in their area. Zoe does see an otolaryngologist for frequent otitis media and hearing loss and an ophthalmologist for vision problems. Still, she continues to fall further behind in school. Furthermore, she is intensely afraid of falling at school and has few friends, resulting in the family being at a loss regarding \"what to do about school.\"She lives with both parents and 2 healthy older sisters. Her mother has Crohn's disease and has been unable to work. Her maternal aunt is close to Zoe and has hypothyroidism. Her father works as an insurance agent and resources have been \"tight.\" Zoe's mother describes \"making\" Zoe go out to the movies, \"otherwise she just stays home.\" Zoe usually needs assistance to walk in public, to keep from stumbling. Parents share that simply being in a public place or meeting a new physician may trigger emesis. Zoe does enjoy interacting with neighborhood children and says she wants to be \"normal,\" wear nail polish, and date. She seeks independence, often refusing to use her wheelchair. Parents feel she requires more intensive occupational and physical therapy.On examination, she is very slender with hypertelorism and nystagmus. Holding an emesis bag, she gags intermittently, producing clear secretions. She has a notable tremor and walks slightly stooped with wide-based gait. Her few words demonstrate articulation differences and cognitive expression characteristic of a younger child. She wears light make-up and age-appropriate clothes. She asks, \"When can I go home?\"At the end of the visit, parents share their worry that Zoe is \"so young and we do not know anything, what to expect, or what to tell her.\" As the family's new medical home, they ask you to weigh in on what to do next to best support her? Where do you begin?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en419_7457", "title": "The Clique (duo)", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "For the Judges' Choice-themed first live show, Third Degree sang \"thatPower\" by will.i.am and received positive feedback from the judges. In week six of the live shows, Third Degree fell into the bottom two alongside JTR but was saved after Keating, Minogue and Redfoo all opted to eliminate JTR. Following the eliminations of Adira-Belle and JTR, Third Degree became the only remaining act in the Groups category. In week eight of the live shows, Third Degree fell into the bottom two alongside Jiordan Tolli. The judges' vote went to deadlock, and Tolli was eliminated after it was revealed she received the fewest votes. In the semi-finals, Third Degree sang \"Give Me Everything\" by Pitbull and \"Pound the Alarm\" by Nicki Minaj, gaining positive reviews from the judges. Despite this, they fell into the bottom two alongside Taylor Henderson. The judges' vote went to deadlock, and Henderson advanced to the grand final after it was revealed he received the most public votes, leading to Third" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1132_11877", "title": "Let Me Spell It Out: The Impact of Microaggression on the Health Care Professional.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Rachel is a 10-year-old White girl with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and a history of trauma who presented for evaluation by Dr. Narayanaswamy, a developmental-behavioral pediatrician. A pediatric resident observed the visit with permission from Rachel's parents.During the visit, Dr. Narayanaswamy spoke to Rachel's case manager over the phone to advocate for a trauma-based day treatment program at her school. At the end of the call, the case manager asked the physician for her full name. Dr. Narayanaswamy responded with her name and asked the case manager, \"Would you like me to spell it?\" At that time, Rachel's father began to laugh, shook his head, and incredulously remarked, \"Ugh, yeah you need to spell it.\" Dr. Narayanaswamy ignored the comment and completed the phone call.After the visit, Dr. Narayanaswamy explained to the resident that the father's derisive laughter was a microaggression. The resident appreciated the observation and, after a pause, asked why she chose not to defend herself when the microaggression occurred. Dr. Narayanaswamy reflected that she had refrained from responding to Rachel's father over concern that he would retaliate by providing low ratings on the postvisit patient satisfaction survey sent to all patients who received care at the institution. The granular survey results, comprising ratings in each survey subheading category for each clinician, are made public to members of her division each quarter, and low ratings are scrutinized by the leadership. Dr. Narayanaswamy thought it unfortunate that she felt inhibited in her response because this deprived the resident of observing ways to address microaggressions during an encounter, deprived herself the opportunity to respond directly to Rachel's father, and deprived Rachel from an instructive moment about racial empathy.Dr. Narayanaswamy wrote a letter about the incident to the chief of clinical affairs to inquire what recourse clinicians had in these situations and whether certain patient encounters could be flagged to prevent the postvisit patient survey from being automatically sent. The chief responded that the incident was unfortunate and praised Dr. Narayanaswamy's restraint and professionalism but denied her request to have postvisit surveys blocked for certain encounters. He shared that if a clinician were to be dissatisfied with a visit satisfaction rating, the clinician could petition for a review, and a committee would subsequently determine whether the review could be removed.How can health care professionals respond to microaggressions while maintaining a therapeutic alliance with the patient/family members and how can institutions support health care professionals in this endeavor?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en404_14293", "title": "List of Person of Interest characters", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "(5.12 \".exe\") In a simulated world where the Machine never existed, Cole is shown to have survived and to still be partnered with Shaw. Henry Peck Henry Peck (played by Jacob Pitts) is a former NSA Analyst and Person of Interest. (1.22 \"No Good Deed\") When Peck discovers the existence of the mass surveillance program, \"Operation Northern Lights\", an ISA team is sent to kill him. Peck still refuses to stop investigating, so Finch is forced to tell him the truth and give him a new identity so he can escape the threat. Alicia Corwin secretly records their conversation and learns of Finch's involvement. (5.12 \".exe\") In a simulated world where the Machine never existed, Peck uncovers the existence of Samaritan. He presents his evidence to a member of the Office of Special Counsel, revealed to be Shaw. After she verifies that Peck hasn't told anyone else about his theory, she assassinates him." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1007_19220", "title": "Maintaining Safety and Planning for the Future.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Kevin is a 12-year-old boy with autism spectrum disorder, intellectual disability (nonverbal IQ scores in mid-40s), and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder who has been followed up by a developmental-behavioral pediatrician (DBP) and a child psychologist for medication and behavioral management since he was 4 years old. Kevin was placed in the care of his great-great-aunt shortly after he turned 2 years of age because of concerns of neglect. She is now his legal guardian.Kevin is predominately nonverbal but does use a few single words to make requests or label items. He attends a public school and receives full-time special education support. He has a personal care assistant (PCA) who provides in-home support 5 to 6 days/wk for 3 to 4 hours at a time. The PCA is working on toilet training, using a \"clock-training\" approach, and also takes Kevin outdoors to play or on short outings during her visits. In his free time, Kevin prefers to watch cooking shows on television.Over the past year, Kevin's behaviors have become more concerning. There have been several episodes of Kevin waking up during the early morning hours and going to the kitchen to \"cook.\" After one of these episodes, his guardian was not aware that Kevin had woken up until the next morning when she found a concoction of corn starch, coffee grounds, cottage cheese, and powdered drink mix in the blender. Kevin had also woken up during the night and ventured out of the house into the back yard. His guardian had woken up immediately as the alarm system sounded when he opened the outer door from the house to the yard.A door alarm was added to Kevin's bedroom door so that his guardian would be alerted when he leaves his bedroom; however, the alarm is not used consistently because there are times when the alarm cannot be found at bedtime. Kevin's guardian was able to obtain a GPS device for him to wear on his shoe from the local police department. He wears this without resistance every day.Kevin's guardian is in her mid-70s, and she has had several health issues over the past 2 to 3 years. There are no other family members who are willing or able to care for Kevin if his guardian were no longer able to. The DBP and child psychologist have encouraged Kevin's guardian to explore long-term residential care options with the state agency that provides support for individuals with intellectual disabilities and with Kevin's insurance provider, but the guardian is very reluctant to do this. She fears that Kevin will be removed from her care or placed in a \"home\" where someone will \"do bad things to him.\"What else would you recommend or actions would you take to support Kevin's guardian in ensuring Kevin's safety and planning for his future care?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en442_27108", "title": "Something There", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "In his biography I'm Not Dead... Yet!, actor Robby Benson, voice of the Beast, revealed that it was co-star Paige O'Hara's idea to have Benson's character duet with O'Hara's Belle in \"Something There\". According to Benson, the actress \"explained to Ashman and Menken that [Benson] had made records and sang in Broadway musicals.\" O'Hara briefly struggled to record one of the song's lines – \"a bit alarming\" – to which an ailing Ashman, who was forced to communicate with O'Hara and the studio via telephone from his hospital bed in New York due to his illness, simply responded \"Streisand.\" By this, Ashman meant that he wanted O'Hara to impersonate singer and actress Barbra Streisand, and by doing so O'Hara finally recorded the song successfully. \"Something There\" was recorded by O'Hara and Benson accompanied by a live orchestra." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0895_1202", "title": "Bullying and ADHD: Which Came First and Does it Matter?", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Aiden, a 13-year-old boy in the sixth grade who is relatively new to your practice, is seen for follow-up after his routine physical last month when you noted concerns for possible attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and gave the family Vanderbilt Scales to complete. Aiden has a family history of ADHD, specific learning disabilities, and mood disorder.His mother reports that she is concerned about how Aiden is doing at school; his teachers are complaining that he is not doing his work, and she is worried that he may be kept back in school. Aiden first began having trouble in the third grade. He was retained in the fourth grade for academic and behavioral reasons. Now his mother has been receiving calls about him not paying attention, distracting others, and staring at his paper. At home, he does not want to do homework and gets very frustrated. In fifth grade, he had a psychoeducational evaluation and was found not eligible for services. His achievement testing showed average scores in reading, math, and writing. Cognitive testing demonstrated average scores for verbal and nonverbal abilities and memory but was significantly below average for processing speed. Aiden continues to have problems now in into the sixth grade.You speak with Aiden in the office and ask him about school. He says, \"It's bad. I'm failing.\" He believes his major problems at school are that he is not doing his homework, he easily becomes frustrated, and he argues with the teachers. He has supportive relationships with his family and friends at school. He gets along well with some of his teachers, noting that he loves his science teacher even though she is tough and \"gives hard homework.\" He describes his history teacher as \"annoying.\" When you ask what he means he states this teacher \"Can be not nice and says mean things. She picks on me a lot.\" His description is consistent with the use of shaming as a behavior he experiences at school.You review the completed parent and teacher Vanderbilt forms; both are consistent and concerning for combined type ADHD. You discuss the diagnosis of ADHD with his mother and both agree to revisit pharmacotherapy in September when the school year resumes. You give her resources on ADHD and classroom accommodations and discuss requesting a 504 plan at school. You also discuss behavioral therapy to better address his self-regulation skills.A week later, you receive a telephone call from Aiden's mother. \"Aiden got home today and he is more upset than I have ever seen him! His teacher told him in front of the class that he would probably stay back a year and now he is saying there is no point in going to school.\" She is not aware if retention has been recommended for Aiden.What would you say to Aiden's mother? What would you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en113_36728", "title": "Re'eh", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "repayment would surely cause the person to decline assistance on a second occasion, Rav Papa explained that the community exacts repayment from the person's estate upon the person's death. Rabbi Simeon taught that the community need not become involved if a person who has the means for self-support chooses not to do so. Rabbi Simeon taught that if a person has no means but does not wish to receive support from the community's charity fund, then the community should ask for a pledge in exchange for a loan, so as thereby to raise the person's self-esteem. The Rabbis taught in a Baraita that the instruction to \"lend\" in refers to the person who has no means and is unwilling to receive assistance from the community's charity fund, and to whom the community must thus offer assistance as a loan and then give it as a gift. Rabbi Judah taught that the words \"you . . . shall surely lend him\" in refer to the person who has the means for self-support but chooses rather to rely on the" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0772_17523", "title": "Bullying and ADHD: which came first and does it matter?", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Aiden, a 13-year-old boy in the sixth grade who is relatively new to your practice, is seen for follow-up after his routine physical last month when you noted concerns for possible attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and gave the family Vanderbilt Scales to complete. Aiden has a family history of ADHD, specific learning disabilities, and mood disorder.His mother reports that she is concerned about how Aiden is doing at school; his teachers are complaining that he is not doing his work, and she is worried that he may be kept back in school. Aiden first began having trouble in the third grade. He was retained in the fourth grade for academic and behavioral reasons. Now his mother has been receiving calls about him not paying attention, distracting others, and staring at his paper. At home, he does not want to do homework and gets very frustrated. In fifth grade, he had a psychoeducational evaluation and was found not eligible for services. His achievement testing showed average scores in reading, math, and writing. Cognitive testing demonstrated average scores for verbal and nonverbal abilities and memory but was significantly below average for processing speed. Aiden continues to have problems now in into the sixth grade.You speak with Aiden in the office and ask him about school. He says, \"It's bad. I'm failing.\" He believes his major problems at school are that he is not doing his homework, he easily becomes frustrated, and he argues with the teachers. He has supportive relationships with his family and friends at school. He gets along well with some of his teachers, noting that he loves his science teacher even though she is tough and \"gives hard homework.\" He describes his history teacher as \"annoying.\" When you ask what he means he states this teacher \"Can be not nice and says mean things. She picks on me a lot.\" His description is consistent with the use of shaming as a behavior he experiences at school.You review the completed parent and teacher Vanderbilt forms; both are consistent and concerning for combined type ADHD. You discuss the diagnosis of ADHD with his mother and both agree to revisit pharmacotherapy in September when the school year resumes. You give her resources on ADHD and classroom accommodations and discuss requesting a 504 plan at school. You also discuss behavioral therapy to better address his self-regulation skills.A week later, you receive a telephone call from Aiden's mother. \"Aiden got home today and he is more upset than I have ever seen him! His teacher told him in front of the class that he would probably stay back a year and now he is saying there is no point in going to school.\" She is not aware if retention has been recommended for Aiden.What would you say to Aiden's mother? What would you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en357_27411", "title": "That Darn Priest", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "On February 28, 2011, during a national television interview in his home, Sheen publicly demanded a 50% raise for the show. Already the highest-paid actor on television, Sheen demanded $3 million per episode, claiming that in comparison to the amount that the series was making, he was \"underpaid.\" He later retracted that demand. A March 3, 2011, telephone survey of 1,000 people found that 71% of them had an unfavorable impression of Sheen and 16% had a positive opinion of him. On March 7, 2011, CBS and Warner Bros. officially fired Sheen from the show after eight seasons. The official statement read: \"After careful consideration, Warner Bros. Television has terminated Charlie Sheen's services on Two and a Half Men effective immediately.\" In the aftermath of his dismissal, Sheen remained vocally critical of Lorre, and repeatedly attacked him in an eight-minute Ustream video. On May 13, 2011, CBS and Warner Bros. announced that Ashton Kutcher would replace Sheen on the show." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0713_17582", "title": "[Power of personal goal sharing--treatment plan using personal goal maps for patients with mental disorders].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A female patient in her sixties with schizophrenia had secretly disposed of all her medication and was not cooperating with hospital staff for about four months. During one of our consultations she mentioned that she wanted to be out of hospital by a certain date. That date happened to be her grandchild's birthday. It was at this point that she shared her goals with us, and voluntarily started having treatment. She was able to return home three months later, just in time to celebrate her grandchild's birthday with her family. A male patient in his sixties was able to leave the seclusion room after 10 years. The first doctor in charge and other hospital staff had firmly believed that releasing him from the seclusion room wasn't a possibility. However the patient decided he wanted to be discharged and was interested in finding out how to go about it. The moment he realized it was possible, his outlook changed immensely. He gradually started to open up and communicate better with his new doctor in charge, and was able to work towards his newly found goals. Staff members were also surprised when he was able to leave the seclusion room. They realized this patient was another person like them who had dreams and goals, and stopped stereotyping patients who seemed to be 'difficult to handle'. I have always experienced the power of goal sharing at clinical scenes, and have noticed its importance for patients making a start on the road to recovery. In order to discuss goals and the way to go about achieving them, I use a simple drawing of a mountain. I call this mountain 'A Personal Goal Map'. I like to think of myself (the doctor) as the mountain guide, and my patient as the mountain climber. The three key philosophies are acknowledging individuality, diversity and freedom. These are important when we think about where we are now, where we are going, and where we want to be. Firstly at the start point, we need to define the patient's problem and discuss ideas and goals, which help us along the Trust Path. The more patients and staff trust and understand each other the easier it is to climb up the Initial Treatment Path. We need to build up trustful relations so we can share personal goals and make a proper assessment and diagnosis, and talk about the safety, efficacy, cost and suitability of the initial treatment. Secondly, we need to take a rest and make more plans for the Recovery Path. It is on this path that we decide on comprehensive treatment together. We may be able to improve the patient's cognitive functions by using atypical anti-psychotic agents. We can then give them information, instructions and warnings about medicine usage so the patient is able to understand their condition. It is only after the patient can understand these things fully and act positively that we can start to climb the final path, the Achievement Path. We should review the suitability and efficacy of the treatment again, and it is at this stage that the mountain guide steps back and watches the mountain climber take the final steps towards the mountain peak goal. Lastly, the patient will feel elation and a sense of fulfillment and self-pride, and no doubt will be ready to look for the next mountain peak to climb. In order for you to enjoy the benefits at the clinical scene, all you need is a piece of paper, a pen, and a limitless imagination for better personal goal sharing. At Meisei hospital we promote the 'Minotake Team Approach', which calls for flexible management so we hospital staff can help each other as professionals. We treat patients as individuals using words and expressions they understand (such as local dialect and nonmedical terms), and give them access to easy to understand resources such as leaflets delivered by universities or pharmaceutical companies. We ask our staff to act naturally with the patients, and to just do what they can do to help the patients work towards their personal goals." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en113_36729", "title": "Re'eh", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "as a loan and then give it as a gift. Rabbi Judah taught that the words \"you . . . shall surely lend him\" in refer to the person who has the means for self-support but chooses rather to rely on the community, to whom the community should give what the person needs as a gift, and then exact repayment from the person's estate upon the person's death. The Sages, however, said that the community has no obligation to help the person who has the means of self-support. According to the Sages, the use of the emphatic words \"you . . . shall surely lend him\" in (in which the Hebrew verb for \"lend\" is doubled, וְהַעֲבֵט, תַּעֲבִיטֶנּוּ) is merely stylistic and without legal significance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_1449", "title": "A dominating imaginary friend, cruelty to animals, social withdrawal, and growth deficiency in a 7-year-old girl with parents with schizophrenia.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Tessa is a 7-year-old girl with odd behaviors, worsening over the preceding year. She spends a significant amount of time alone in her room, talking to \"Richard.\" Her father observed that Tessa is \"in her own world.\" In school, she often glares at the teacher and refuses to work. She is alone at recess without any real friends. Her father reports that she eats little and only after he tastes the food. She is increasingly cruel to both real and toy animals. She tied a string around her cat's neck and swung it around, saying she wanted to punish it. She was heard to say to her stuffed cat, \"Die, b ... .; die.\" Richard told her to do this and other \"bad\" things. Tessa has not had chronic health problems or developmental concerns. During the first 18 months of life, her height was between the 5th and 10th percentiles; it declined to below the 3rd percentile over the past 2 years. Weight has been consistently between the 3rd and 5th percentiles. Tessa's parents both have been diagnosed with schizophrenia. There are at least 7 first- and second-degree relatives with the same diagnosis. Both parents cared for Tessa for 4 years with a lot of support. Then, her father left the home, but he was in contact with her while managing his own illness. When the mother's illness and compliance worsened, Tessa was removed for neglect at 5 (1/2) years old. Two foster homes preceded Dad's award of sole custody 13 months ago. Mother's weekly visitations are quite upsetting to Tessa. Tessa is a verbal, solemn, small, well-dressed girl with no physical abnormalities. She talks with advanced vocabulary and syntax, with normal prosody and good conversational skills. She says Richard is a bad boy who gets her into trouble at school. She equivocates when asked if he is real or imagined or if others can see him. She says that she misses her mother." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en545_26208", "title": "List of last words", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "\"On a certain occasion, I chanced to be one of three who sat in judgment on one of my own good friends, who, according to the laws, should have been punished with death. I was greatly embarrassed. One of two things was inevitable—either to violate the law or condemn my friend. After careful consideration, I devised this expedient. I delivered with such address all the most plausible arguments in behalf of the accused, that my two colleagues found no difficulty in acquitting him, and yet I, myself, condemned him to death without assigning any reason for my conduct. Thus I discharged two duties, those of friend and judge; yet I feel in my conscience something which makes me doubt whether my conduct was not criminal.\" — Chilon of Sparta, philosopher (6th century BCE), speaking to his friends before his death" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0712_25047", "title": "Diagnosis and management of carbon monoxide poisoning in the emergency department.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "An 89-year-old female is found by her family, lying unconscious on her kitchen floor after they had been unable to reach her by phone for several hours. EMS is activated and when the paramedics arrive, they note that the gas oven is on, and there is thin, gray smoke coming from around the door. The house gas supply is turned off, windows are opened, and the family and the patient are immediately evacuated from the home. En route to the hospital, the patient is placed on high-flow oxygen at 15 liters per minute by non-rebreather mask. Her bedside glucose determination is 229 mg/dL. Vital signs are within normal limits during transport. She opens her eyes to sternal rub, and makes spontaneous movements of all extremities. Upon arrival to the ED, the patient becomes more alert and is able to respond to your questions. She tells you that she remembers putting a tray of calzones into the oven, after which she has no recall of the day's events. She has a past medical history of \"well-controlled\" hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and non-insulin-dependent diabetes. Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily, lisinopril 10 mg daily, simvastatin 20 mg daily, and metformin 1000 mg twice daily. On physical examination, weight is 65 kg, blood pressure is 97/50 mm Hg, heart rate is 113 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, temperature is 37.1 degrees C (98.8 degrees F), and oxygen saturation is 99% on 15 liters per minute via non-rebreather mask. She appears her stated age. Cardiopulmonary examination is remarkable only for tachycardia. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender with normal bowel sounds. Her skin is warm and dry, and there is no peripheral edema. Her cranial nerves are intact, with briskly reactive, symmetric pupils. Motor and sensory examination is non-focal, and cerebellar testing is notable only for an intention tremor on finger-nose-finger test. Gait is normal and speech is fluent and without errors. Laboratory testing shows a hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dL and a leukocyte count of 11.7 x 10(9)/L. Electrolyte results fall within the normal range, and her serum creatinine is 1.7 mg/dL. Qualitative CK-MB and troponin I tests are positive, and the sample has been sent to the STAT lab for quantitative testing. Serum carboxyhemoglobin level is 15% with normal serum pH on an arterial blood gas. An ECG reveals deep, down-sloping inferior and lateral ST-segment depressions which were not present on a routine cardiogram 1 month prior. You have many questions about this patient's care. What symptoms and physical signs need to be addressed and treated? What additional diagnostic testing should be performed? What treatment regimen is appropriate and what should be avoided? What are the risks or delayed complications from her illness? Are there special considerations for this or other patient populations?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en248_19884", "title": "Elizabeth Needham", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Needham was taken from the pillory alive, but died on 3 May 1731, the day before she was due to stand in the pillory (this time at New Palace Yard) for the second time. With her last words she apparently expressed great fear at having to stand in the pillory again after the severe punishment she had received the first time. The Grub Street Journal, the satirical journal allied with Alexander Pope and others of Hogarth's friends, sardonically reported that the populace \"acted very ungratefully, considering how much she had done to oblige them\". Her demise was celebrated in a mocking rhyme: Ye Ladies of Drury, now weep Your voices in howling now raise For Old Mother Needham's laid deep And bitter will be all your Days. She who drest you in Sattins so fine Who trained you up for the Game Who Bail, on occasion would find And keep you from Dolly and Shame Now is laid low in her Grave..." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0385_3037", "title": "Case vignette: unanticipated propinquity.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "UNANTICIPATED PROPINQUITY. Dr. Marge N. O'Vera has a reputation in the community as a thoughtful, caring, and highly ethical psychotherapist. For more than a year she has been treating Greta Grievance, helping her to cope with emotional and financial insecurities in the aftermath of a highly contentious divorce. During a therapy session, Ms. Grievance tells Dr. O'Vera that she has decided to sue the attorney who represented her during the divorce. Ms. Grievance believes that he did not represent her interests effectively and that she foolishly took his advice in accepting a very inferior settlement. She has retained another attorney who, she tells O'Vera, will soon be calling to request information on the stress of the divorce and Ms. Grievance's continuing need for therapy. Dr. O'Vera will be asked to testify as to the harm caused to her client and resulting treatment expenses. As Ms. Grievance gets up to leave, she tells Dr. O'Vera, \"I'm so glad you'll help me teach that awful Tom Tort a lesson.\" As she hears the name of Attorney Tort for the first time, Dr. O'Vera begins to sweat. Thomas Tort, attorney at law, is also a client of hers. She had no idea that he had been Ms. Grievance's divorce lawyer. She has treated him for recurring major depression over several years and knows that he probably was sufficiently depressed so as to compromise his professional work at the time he represented Ms. Grievance. When she is named as an expert witness for the plaintiff, Attorney Tort will learn that his therapist was also treating Ms. Grievance. At the same time, her duty of confidentiality precludes her informing others that Tort is also her client. What is Dr. O'Vera to do?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en455_24915", "title": "Family Business (Once Upon a Time)", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Mr. Gold locates Ingrid and calls her out. Ingrid, knowing how well Gold works, tells him that she wanted Emma to find out about their past as part of her plan. Gold says he's there to offer her a deal, saying that if she declined, she'd better watch out. Then, Ingrid replies by saying that if there was something that he wanted from her, he should just take it, but she knows that he can't and needs leverage to make her accept the deal, so she turns him down, and warns Mr. Gold to stay out of her way. As Belle helps Elsa at the library, Elsa is convinced that everyone doesn't know if Anna is in Storybrooke, but Belle says otherwise and decides to seek out the answer back at the pawn shop. When Gold returns, she \"uses\" the fake dagger on him to take her to the Snow Queen's lair. After they find it, Belle orders Gold to stay outside while she goes in, but there is no sign of the Snow Queen anywhere. Belle then hears a voice, which draws her to a mirror, where an image of Belle taunts her" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0663_3305", "title": "Test your skills: a worsening rash.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A mother brings her 5-year-old boy in to your office because she is concerned about a rash on his legs that seems to be worsening. She tells you that he had a runny nose and a mild cough a week earlier, but that those symptoms resolved before the rash developed. He has also complained of \"belly pain.\" The boy's mother says he has been less active and more irritable since the onset of the rash, and that he is hardly eating. She also tells you that earlier in the day, her son told her that it hurts to walk. A complete review of systems is otherwise negative. The 5-year-old was born at term without complication. He has met all developmental milestones and his immunizations are up to date. He takes no medications. The boy's vital signs are normal. He has an erythematous maculopapular rash distributed on his legs symmetrically; it is palpable, nontender, and nonblanching. You detect no abnormalities in abdominal, neurologic, or musculoskeletal examinations. A complete blood count (CBC) and basic metabolic panel (BMP) reveal mild leukocytosis with a normal differential. Urinalysis shows moderate blood and trace protein. Laboratory results are otherwise normal. What's your diagnosis?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en113_36722", "title": "Re'eh", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Rabbi Shila of Nawha (a place east of Gadara in the Galilee) interpreted the word \"needy\" (, evyon) in to teach that one should give to the poor person from one's wealth, for that wealth is the poor person's, given to you in trust. Rabbi Abin observed that when a poor person stands at one's door, God stands at the person's right, as says: \"Because He stands at the right hand of the needy.\" If one gives something to a poor person, one should reflect that the One who stands at the poor person's right will reward the giver. And if one does not give anything to a poor person, one should reflect that the One who stands at the poor person's right will punish the one who did not give, as says: \"He stands at the right hand of the needy, to save him from them that judge his soul.\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0712_25046", "title": "An evidence-based approach to managing the anticoagulated patient in the emergency department.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "You start another busy shift with a double row of charts waiting to be seen. Your first patient is an elderly man who fell 1 hour prior to presentation. He did not lose consciousness, but he was dazed for a few minutes. He complains of a mild headache but denies any neck pain. He takes warfarin for valvular heart disease. He looks good and has no focal neurological complaints. His mental status is normal, he has a negative head CT scan, and his INR is 3.9. His family wants to take him home, which would help relieve some of the congestion in the ED, but you wonder what would be best. To observe and repeat imaging? Reverse his anticoagulation? Change his dosing regimen of warfarin? In the next room, you quickly evaluate a 51-year-old obese woman with nonspecific back and abdominal pain that started 24 hours before and has slowly progressed to become intolerable. She denies fever, chills, nausea, or vomiting. She is on the last day of a 5-day course of ciprofloxacin for a UTI. She takes warfarin for a pulmonary embolus that occurred 2 months prior. Her hematocrit is mildly decreased, and her white blood count is normal; however, the INR is 6.8. You wonder if her abdominal pain is related to the UTI, or if it could be somehow related to the prolonged INR. In fact, you wonder why her INR is so prolonged..." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en404_14291", "title": "List of Person of Interest characters", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Devon Grice Devon Grice (played by Nick Tarabay) is a Crimson 6 agent who was trained by Sameen Shaw herself when she was still working as an ISA operative. When they meet in New York whilst both on different ends of the same mission, Grice lets her live. When a Samaritan representative refuses to allow Control to review the contents of a relevant threat's laptop, she secretly enlists Grice's help to continue the investigation. When Control discovers the impending \"Correction\" and labels it as a Samaritan-sanctioned terrorist attack, she has Grice investigate the supposed target: the Supreme Court. When the \"Correction\" is revealed to be a purging of persons seen as threats to Samaritan, Grice is executed by an operative for his previous betrayal. Brooks Brooks (played by Theodora Miranne) is another Crimson 6 agent and Grice's partner." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_1457", "title": "Juan: a 9-year-old Latino boy with ADHD.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Juan, a 9-year-old Latino male, was referred to a community clinic by his third-grade teacher for evaluation of classroom behavior problems. He is an only child and lives with both parents. At home, Juan speaks Spanish with his parents although he occasionally speaks English with his father. His father came to the U.S. from Mexico as a small child and completed the 12 grade in the U.S. Juan's mother completed 8 grade in Mexico and immigrated to the U.S. as a teenager.Juan's mother reported that he has had no significant medical problems. Her report of his behavior included an inability to focus on tasks at hand and easy distractibility. She was concerned that the principal of the school mentioned that Juan may be asked to repeat the 3 grade or change schools. In the clinic, Juan sat quietly but appeared to be daydreaming and attentive to the conversation. The pediatrician called the principal who expressed frustration with Juan's behavior. In class, he was very fidgety, did not pay attention and usually did not answer questions. He also bothered other students when they were working. The principal explained that because Juan's school was a Spanish language immersion school, there were no special education services available. If a student at the school required special education services, he or she would be transferred to another school in the same school district. An evaluation for an Individualized Education Plan (IEP) indicated that Juan had above average cognitive ability (90 percentile), with superior ability to problem solve and process information simultaneously (99 percentile). The Woodcock Johnson III (Spanish version) indicated average achievement in academic skills, with low average in reading fluency, comprehension and spelling. On the Test of Auditory-Perceptual Skills, Juan tested generally low average in all domains, and was at the 14 percentile for both auditory number and auditory word memory. On the Test of Visual-Perceptual Skills, Juan scored above the 92 percentile. Juan did not qualify for special education services on the basis on the standardized tests. However, because of the individual attention required by Juan, a transfer to another school was considered inevitable if his classroom behaviors did not improve. Juan's mother and teacher filled-out the NICHQ Vanderbilt Assessment Scale. Their responses were consistent with the diagnosis of ADHD, inattentive type. In discussion of treatment options with the family, the possibility of stimulant medication use was raised. Juan's mother was opposed to the medication because of what she had heard from her friends-that these medications had bad side effects and did not work most of the time. Juan's father, however, was in favor of the medication because it might assist Juan to stay at the school. After several clinical visits that included further information about ADHD, behavioral treatment, and reviewing information from the school, Juan's parents agreed to a trial of medication. Juan was evaluated for a follow-up visit 2 weeks after starting fourth grade; he had been taking a stimulant medication for one month. He seemed much happier about school and was proud to report that he has completed all of his assignments in school as well as homework assignments, and he did well on a math quiz. Juan's mother was also pleased with his progress. The pediatrician called the principal, who reported that Juan was an entirely different student. He now sat at his desk and wrote down the assignments. He seemed eager to learn and able to be attentive in the classroom. The principal was amazed at the difference." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en104_14073", "title": "Who Do You Trust?", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "After a brief chat with Bergen (and his dummies \"Charlie McCarthy\", \"Mortimer Snerd\" and \"Effie Klinker\") the couples would try to answer four questions. The first was a match question, where the spouses tried to match each other's answer to a question about their married life. The remaining questions were of general knowledge, where after the category was revealed, the husband chose whether to answer himself or \"trust\" his wife to do so, hence the name of the show. The first correct answer won $100, the second added $200, and the third $300. For the fourth question they could wager any of their winnings by answering a question from one of six categories ranging in value and difficulty from $100 to $600. If the couple won no money, they would answer a very easy $100 question. The couple with the most money competed with the winners from the previous week's show to name as many items as possible in a category with the couple coming up with the most answers receiving $100 a week for a" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1092_16507", "title": "Disproportionate Representation of Children of Color and Parents with Disabilities in the Child Welfare System: The Intersection of Race/Ethnicity, Immigration Status, and Disability.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "An almost 5-year-old girl is referred to a developmental-behavioral clinician for developmental evaluation because of language and learning concerns. Her developmental screening in the primary pediatrics office showed scores concerning for delays in communication, social-emotional, gross, and fine motor domains. Her mother has concerns about her language. Her mother's primary language is Spanish, but the patient and her siblings speak primarily English. She speaks in short phrases and sentences with grammatical errors. Her mother understands approximately 75% of what she says, and strangers understand approximately 50%. She uses gestures and facial expression, is social and friendly, demonstrates pretend play, and plays well with her siblings and other children her age. She has occasional meltdowns, but there are no other major behavioral concerns. She feeds herself with utensils and is able to dress herself. She toilet trained recently, at about age 4.5 years.She did not receive early intervention before age 3 years and had no previous evaluations. She did not attend preschool or child care. Her mother reported that they were referred to the school district twice, but she had trouble requesting the evaluation.She lives with her parents and 2 brothers. The patient's parents immigrated to the United States from Mexico 7 years ago. They are both farm workers, and extended family members are in Mexico. On reviewing family history, the clinician learns that the patient's mother had trouble learning and attended school until she was 12 years old. She did not receive extra help at school. The child's mother said that she forgets things and \"has trouble with reading and writing fast.\" The patient's 10-year-old brother has an individualized education plan and is in a substantially separate classroom. He has inclusion activities of recess, art, and music. He receives speech-language therapy and academic support for reading and writing. The patient's mother becomes tearful and shares that Child Protective Services was notified because of her inability to request the school evaluation, but a case was not opened.Developmental evaluation reveals expressive language at a 33-month-old level and receptive language at a 39-month-old level. Cognitive testing shows extremely low verbal comprehension, borderline visual spatial skills, and fluid reasoning in the low average range. Working memory and processing speed fall in the borderline range. The clinician learns at a follow-up visit that the patient's mother was evaluated by state disability services and has mild intellectual disability.What is your next step in management? What feedback or resources would you provide to the pediatric clinician and family?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en113_36727", "title": "Re'eh", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "The Gemara turned to how the community should convey assistance to the pauper. Rabbi Meir taught that if a person has no means but does not wish to receive support from the community's charity fund, then the community should give the person what the person requires as a loan and then convert the loan into a gift by not collecting repayment. The Sages, however, said (as Rava explained their position) that the community should offer the pauper assistance as a gift, and then if the pauper declines the gift, the community should extend funds to the pauper as a loan. The Gemara taught that if a person has the means for self-support but chooses rather to rely on the community, then the community may give the person what the person needs as a gift, and then make the person repay it. As requiring repayment would surely cause the person to decline assistance on a second occasion, Rav Papa explained that the community exacts repayment from the person's estate upon the person's death. Rabbi" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0592_3030", "title": "Drug-facilitated sexual assault: educating women about the risks.", "score": 0.008620689655172414, "content": "\"Andrea,\" an 18-year-old college freshman, walked into her first fraternity party with a few of her sorority sisters. As she walked through the crowded house, one of the fraternity boys handed the girls large plastic cups. Another boy circulated through the crowd, filling up the cups of all guests from two pitchers of beer. When he filled Andrea's cup, he smiled and was polite and charming. She thought his act of filling her cup was kind and gentlemanly, and was flattered by his attention. She didn't notice he used a different pitcher for her than he had for her friends. She and her friends continued to mill through the crowd, sipping their beer. About 20 minutes later, Andrea suddenly had trouble focusing her vision. She felt disoriented and \"drunk\" even though she had only consumed a third of her beer. She started feeling nauseated, and tried to find her friends. The polite boy who had poured her beer asked her if she was all right, and offered to take her up to his room so she could rest. She followed him, grateful to be able to lie down. Forty-five minutes later, her concerned friends searched the house for Andrea. They found her upstairs passed out in a bedroom, lying on her side; she had vomited and her clothes were disheveled. Suspecting only alcohol intoxication; they picked her up, and walked her out of the party. After Andrea slept for about two hours, she woke up and told her friends something wasn't right. She had only drunk a small amount of her beer, and had no recollection after she walked up the stairs with the boy. She burst into tears, stating she feels some vaginal discomfort, and is afraid she may have been raped. Her friends looked at each other, thinking, \"How did this happen and what are we supposed to do?\"" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 186 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 30 ] ], "text": "Diffuse axonal injury produces an early and sustained deterioration of the level of consciousness (as mentioned in the case statement) without a lesion on CT scan to justify the picture." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Acute subdural hematoma.", "2": "Trobocytopenic purpura.", "3": "Cerebral hemorrhagic contusion.", "4": "Severe diffuse axonal injury.", "5": "Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0113_8474", "title": "[Clinicopathological studies of diffuse axonal injury--five autopsy cases].", "score": 0.01890999910801891, "content": "In severe head injuries, delayed intracerebral hematoma appearing lately is noted due to the spread use of serial CT scan. The authors experienced the autopsy of 5 cases who presented diffuse axonal injury (DAI) among these new lesions in repeated CT scan findings and report the pathohistological findings. Subjects were as follows: The age range of the patients was 15 to 25 years. The consciousness levels of the 5 cases on admission were 6 or less by the Glasgow coma scale. CT findings of DAI were revealed hemorrhage of the corpus callosum, basal ganglia, tegmentum of pons, intraventricular, and acute brain swelling. Total clinical courses were 2 to 29 days, but most of them were 9 or less days. In the macroscopic findings, marked congestion and edema revealed mainly in deep part of the white matter of the frontal lobe in all 5 cases. Callosal disruption and hematoma adjacent the corpus callosum revealed in 4 out of 5 cases. Cerebral contusion with hemorrhage revealed in 3 out of 5 cases. Intraventricular hemorrhage and traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage revealed in 2 out of 5 cases. Hemorrhage of basal ganglia and base of pons revealed in 2 cases. Microscopic examination of all 5 cases revealed pallor of myelin in the corpus callosum and white matter surrounding hemorrhagic lesion, and abnormal tortuous, swelling and fragmentation of axons in stained preparation. Axonal retraction ball was recognized in 3 out of 5 cases. In conclusion, five autopsied cases who presented acute brain swelling and hemorrhage of corpus callosum and tegmentum of pons in serial CT scan were examined.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0311_20846", "title": "[Clinical features and CT diagnostic criteria for diffuse axonal brain injury].", "score": 0.01731893837156995, "content": "The clinical and computed tomographic features of 117 patients with severe closed head injury were analysed. We put forward the CT diagnostic criteria of diffuse axonal injury (DAD)i.e. (1) single or multiple small intraparenchymal hemorrhages in the cerebral hemispheres (< 2 cm in diameter); (2) intraventricular hemorrhage; (3) hemorrhage in the corpus callosum; (4) small focal areas of hemorrhage adjacent to the third ventricle (< 2 cm in diameter); (5) brain stem hemorrhage. Our patients were divided into DAI group and non-DAI group according to the set of criteria. Traffic accidents were the main injury cause in patients with DAI. GCS on admission in patients with DAI were significantly lower than those in patients without DAI. The incidence of diffuse brain swelling in patients with DAI significantly higher than that in non-DAI patients, whereas the incidences of skull fracture and epidual hematoma were respectively significantly lower than those in non-DAI patients. There was no significant difference between the incidences of subarachnoid hemorrhage and subdual hematoma in the two groups. The incidence of poor outcome in DAI group was significantly higher than that in non-DAI group, although there was no significant difference between the mortalities in the two groups. Because DAI is a very important factor worsening the outcome of head-injured patient, it is very important to make a diagnosis as soon as we can. However, the clinical manifestations of DAI are not specific and DAI does not show directly on CT, so it is difficult to make a diagnosis. The CT diagnostic criteria of DAI we put forward now are practicable, though they are not perfect." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0257_9566", "title": "[An autopsy case of traumatic subdural hematoma from arterio-venous malformation with diffuse axonal injury].", "score": 0.01717142443124185, "content": "Diffuse axonal injury (DAI) is defined as widespread damage to axons in the white matter of the brain without focal injury such as contusion and acute subdural hematoma. A case of traumatic subdural hematoma from arterio-venous malformation accompanied by DAI is reported. A 58-year-old man was assaulted, and immediately lost consciousness, and remained unconscious during about 44 hours until his death. The autopsy revealed acute subdural hematoma (about 160 g) on left temporal lobe and left cingular, uncal and cerebellar tonsillar herniation, and tear and hemorrhage of the corpus callosum. Under this subdural hematoma, gray-whitish vascular lesion with subarachnoid hemorrhage was found. Histologically, this lesion was diagnosed as the arterio-venous malformation. Neuropathological examination of the corpus callosum, dorsolateral part of midbrain and superior cerebellar peduncle revealed DAI findings, such as swelling and ballooning of the myelin fibers, swelling and waving of axons, and retraction balls. Axon degenerations were also observed immunohistochemically by anti-200 kD neurofilament antibody. From the results, his unconsciousness from the moment of impact might be occurred from not only subdural hematoma but also DAI." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0304_5257", "title": "[Two cases of delayed posttraumatic vasospasm followed by brain SPECT].", "score": 0.01632680261228842, "content": "This is a report of two cases of delayed posttraumatic vasospasm. In case 1, a 68-year-old male was injured by falling. He did not show any neurological deficits on admission. CT scan revealed a diffuse subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) without brain contusion. Aneurysm was not disclosed by angiography. On the 7th day after admission, he presented disorientation. Reviewed angiography revealed diffuse delayed vasospasm. 123I-IMP brain SPECT showed an extensive low perfusion area in the bilateral parietal portion. In case 2, a 71-year-old female experienced immediate development of a deep comatose state after head injury. CT scan on admission disclosed a massive acute left subdural hematoma and the severe compression of the left cerebral hemisphere by the hematoma. But traumatic SAH was not diffuse and was restricted to the left basal cistern. After emergency operation, her consciousness level improved and the mass effect of the subdural hematoma was diminished. On the 7th day after the operation, her neurological condition worsened. CT scan showed some infarction lesions in the left cerebral hemisphere and mild left cerebral swelling. Angiography on the same day revealed vasospasm in M2-M3 portion of left middle cerebral artery. HM-PAO brain SPECT disclosed low perfusion in the left parietal region, but a state of high perfusion in the other region. In case 1, vasospasm might have been derived from diffuse clots of traumatic SAH caused by the same process as postruptured aneurysmal vasospasm. In case 2, the region of vasospasm was not associated with traumatic SAH. It corresponded to the site of the brain contusion. It was suggested that the cause of vasospasm might have been the direct mechanical injury to the arterial wall and chemical substances deriving from the contused brain tissues. We conclude that SPECT or transcranial Doppler monitoring should be used for the early detection of posttraumatic vasospasm." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0092_12125", "title": "[A clinical and pathological study of diffuse axonal injury].", "score": 0.015970668655232414, "content": "There is increasing evidence from human and experimental studies that the most important factor governing the outcome in head injury is the severity of diffuse axonal injuries. The authors have experienced 18 cases of severe diffuse axonal injury which showed post-traumatic coma for more than 24 hours and CT findings resembling those of shearing injuries of the cerebral white matter such as have been presented by Zimmerman et al. (1978). The consciousness levels on admission were 6 or less on the Glasgow Coma Scale and all cases were shown clinically to have primary brain stem injury. The main type of head trauma resulted from road traffic accidents (83%). Skull fractures were found in only 5 cases (28%). These findings suggested that acceleration/deceleration injury produce in the patients severe diffuse axonal injury. Initial ICP was below 20 mmHg in 11 cases out of 13 (85%). Parenchymal small hemorrhagic lesions of initial CT were basal ganglia (7 cases), corpus callosum (4 cases), pons (4 cases), midbrain (3 cases) and thalamus (2 cases). Extraparenchymal hemorrhagic lesions included intraventricular hemorrhage (6 cases) and subarachnoid hemorrhage (6 cases). Two autopsied cases of severe diffuse axonal injury (acute case and chronic case) showed remarkable congestion and edema in the deep part of the frontal white matter. Microscopic examination revealed marked axonal degeneration including axonal retraction ball in the corpus callosum, in the internal capsule and in the white matter of the brain stem. Glasgow Outcome Scale of the 18 patients at 3 months after the trauma made us concerned that no patients indicated good recovery or even only moderate disability.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0342_6378", "title": "Clinical studies on diffuse axonal injury in patients with severe closed head injury.", "score": 0.015201976794155567, "content": "To discuss the clinical criteria for diagnosing diffuse axonal injury (DAI). Clinical and computed tomographic features of 117 patients with severe closed head injury were analyzed. The authors preliminarily put forward CT diagnostic criteria of DAI, that is, 1) single or multiple small intraparenchymal hemorrhages in the cerebral hemispheres (< 2 cm in diameter); 2) intraventricular hemorrhage; 3) hemorrhage in the corpus callosum; 4) small focal areas of hemorrhage adjacent to the third ventricle (< 2 cm in diameter); and 5) brain stem hemorrhage. All patients were divided into two groups, DAI and non-DAI group, according to the criteria. There were 42 patients in the DAI group and 75 patients in the non-DAI group. The injury causes, Glasgow coma scale (GCS) scores on admission, coexisting injuries and outcomes were compared between the two groups. The relationship between DAI and the outcomes in the patients with severe head injury was analyzed. Traffic accident was the main injury cause in the cases of DAI. GCS scores on admission in patients with DAI were significantly lower than those in patients without DAI. The incidence of diffuse brain swelling (DBS) in the DAI group was significantly higher than that in the non-DAI group, whereas the incidences of both skull fracture and epidural hematoma (EDH) in the DAI group were significantly lower than those in non-DAI group. There was no significant difference between the incidence of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) and subdural hematoma (SDH) in the two groups. The incidence of poor outcome in the DAI group was significantly higher than that in the non-DAI group, although there was no significant difference between the mortalities in the two groups. Because DAI is a very important factor worsening the outcome of patients with head injury, it is essential to make a diagnosis as soon as possible. The clinical manifestations of DAI, however, are not specific and DAI does not show directly on CT scans, so it is difficult to make a definite diagnosis. The CT diagnostic criteria of DAI put forward in this article are practicable, though they are by no means perfect." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0047_4944", "title": "[Epidemiology of head traumas. \"Barcelona\" data base. Objectives, design and analysis of 584 cases].", "score": 0.014894795127353266, "content": "Descriptive analysis of some features in patients with cranio-encephalic traumatisms (CET) admitted to our hospital and collected in a data base, in order to establish the prognosis of the lesions and apply the most appropriate diagnostic and therapeutic procedures. Since July 1987 to June 1989 we collected data on 584 patients with CET who presented the following selection criteria: consciousness level lower than 13 points in the Glasgow scale and/or pathologic computerized tomography. According to the consciousness level (Glasgow scale) on admission, patients were classified into three groups: slight CET (Glasgow 15-13), moderate CET (Glasgow 12-9), and severe CET (Glasgow < 9). The traumatic mechanisms were divided into 8 categories (occupant, pedestrian, motorbike, aggression, labor, drop, sporting, cyclist). According to the main lesion we considered the following diagnoses: subdural hematoma, epidural hematoma, cerebral contusion (s), diffuse lesion with normal computerized tomography and/or subarachnoid hemorrhage, cerebral congestion, and diffuse axonal lesion. Results were evaluated six months after using the Glasgow scale. The mean age of patients with slight CET was 37.7 +/- 22.1 years, those with moderate CET 31.7 +/- 22.6 years, and those with severe CET 30.8 +/- 21.6 years. Four hundred and forty-two were men (75.6%). The time period between the accident and hospital admission could be determined in 512 cases (87.6%). Severe CET arrived to the hospital (4.8 +/- 7.3 hours) earlier than the other groups (6.6 +/- 11.9 hours in moderate CET and 14.2 +/- 23 hours in slight CET). Most of patients, 488 (83.5%), were referred from another hospital, whereas the remaining cases came directly from the accident place. Traumatic mechanisms according to the previous categories were: occupant 145 (25%), pedestrian 112 (20%), motorbike 104 (18%), cyclist 2 (0.003%), labor 39 (7%), drop 154 (27%), sporting 7 (1%), aggression 10 (2%). Percentage of traffic accident was higher in patients with severe CET (74.6, 64, and 47% in severe moderate, and slight CET, respectively). The main lesions were: acute subdural hematoma, 72 (12.3%); cerebral contusion, 207 (35.4%); epidural hematoma, 88 (15%); normal computerized tomography/subarachnoid hemorrhage, 87 (14.8%); swelling, 17 (2.9%); diffuse axonal injury, 74 (12.6%); and the remaining, 39 (6.6%) had other lesions such as hydrocephalus fracture-sinking, etc. Mortality was 44.2, 12.2, and 3.7% respectively in severe, moderate, and slight CET. Data base may contribute to establish the prognosis of CET and to determine the efficacy of therapeutic procedures as well as that of diagnostic and investigational methods." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0068_8932", "title": "[Bilateral traumatic hemorrhage in the basal ganglia: report of two cases].", "score": 0.014810306350172449, "content": "Hematomas of the basal ganglia in head injury have long been recognized by pathologists with an interest in head injury but their mechanism has not been revealed clearly. We report two cases of bilateral traumatic hemorrhage in the basal ganglia. Case #1, a 17-year-old male was admitted to our hospital immediately after a traffic accident. Neurological examination revealed that the patient was comatose and had right hemiparesis. CT scan showed bilateral hemorrhage of the basal ganglia and subarachnoid hemorrhage in the perimesencephalic cistern. MRI showed high signal intensity areas in the bilateral basal ganglia, perimesencephalic cistern, cerebral white matter and corpus callosum. The patient was diagnosed as having diffuse axonal injury coinciding with bilateral hemorrhage of the basal ganglia. Stereotactic aspiration for the hematoma of the left basal ganglia was carried out. Case #2, a 75-year-old male was admitted immediately after falling from the roof of his house. Neurological examination revealed no neurological deficit except for headache and nausea. CT scan on the day of injury revealed no abnormality. But CT scan 12 hours following the injury showed bilateral hemorrhage of the basal ganglia. Blood pressure of the patient was within normal range and he was diagnosed as having traumatic bilateral intracerebral hematoma. Conservative treatment was carried out and the patient was discharged 7 days after injury with no neurological deficit. The mechanism of traumatic hemorrhage of the basal ganglia has not been clear. In case #1, diffuse axonal injury (DAI) may have played an important role in the bilateral hemorrhage. But in case #2, non-DAI factor such as vasoparalysis syndrome may have existed.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0953_10680", "title": "Development of Delayed Posttraumatic Acute Subdural Hematoma.", "score": 0.014390344543016298, "content": "Prior studies have shown that most patients with mild traumatic brain injury or negative computed tomography (CT) scans of the head rarely decline or require neurosurgical interventions. One common reason for a delayed decline is an intracranial hemorrhage that presents within 24-48 hours. This is typically seen in elderly patients and/or patients on antiplatelet or anticoagulation agents. We describe a case of a delayed subdural hemorrhage presenting in a young adult not on any antiplatelet or anticoagulation therapy. A 19-year-old male presented to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. He had a Glasgow Coma Scale of 15, and an initial CT was negative for any intracranial hemorrhage or pathology, so he was then admitted to the intensive care unit for further care. The patient received 1 dose of aspirin 325 mg the following day for treatment of blunt cerebrovascular injury. Six hours later he reported a severe headache and had an episode of emesis with a subsequent rapid neurologic decline. Repeat CT showed an acute right subdural hematoma, and he underwent an emergent right decompressive hemicraniectomy. In rare cases, patients with negative initial head CT scans neurologically deteriorate as a result of a delayed acute subdural hematoma. We present an unusual case of a young patient on no medications with no CT findings of an intracranial injury who neurologically declined due to a delayed acute subdural hematoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0477_18777", "title": "Acute subdural hematoma and diffuse axonal injury in fatal road traffic accident victims: a clinico-pathological study of 15 patients.", "score": 0.014216843762298308, "content": "Although acute subdural hematoma (ASDH) and diffuse axonal injury (DAI) are commonly associated in victims of head injury due to road traffic accidents, there are only two clinico-pathological studies of this association. We report a clinical and pathological study of 15 patients with ASDH associated with DAI. The patients were victims of road traffic accidents and were randomly chosen. The state of consciousness on hospital admission was evaluated by the Glasgow coma scale. For the identification of axons the histological sections of the brain were stained with anti-neurofilament proteins. Twelve of the 15 patients were admitted to hospital in a state of coma; in three patients, the level of consciousness was not evaluated, as they died before hospital admission. The poorer prognosis in patients with ASDH who lapse into coma immediately after sustaining a head injury, as described by several authors, can be explained by the almost constant association between ASDH and DAI in victims of fatal road traffic accidents." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en070_31317", "title": "Cerebral contusion", "score": 0.014196706720071207, "content": "Multiple petechial hemorrhages Numerous small contusions from broken capillaries that occur in grey matter under the cortex are called multiple petechial hemorrhages or multifocal hemorrhagic contusion. Caused by shearing injuries at the time of impact, these contusions occur especially at the junction between grey and white matter and in the upper brain stem, basal ganglia, thalamus and areas near the third ventricle. The hemorrhages can occur as the result of brain herniation, which can cause arteries to tear and bleed. A type of diffuse brain injury, multiple petechial hemorrhages are not always visible using current imaging techniques like CT and MRI scans. This may be the case even if the injury is quite severe, though these may show up days after the injury. Hemorrhages may be larger than in normal contusions if the injury is quite severe. This type of injury has a poor prognosis if the patient is comatose, even with no apparent causes for the coma. Treatment" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0052_12018", "title": "[Acute subdural hematoma caused by mild head trauma in the aged].", "score": 0.01411519514967791, "content": "We encountered 8 cases of acute subdural hematoma caused by mild head trauma in the aged. In this report, these cases were analyzed, taking into consideration clinical symptoms, CT scan, operative findings and outcome. The age ranged from 70 to 92 years (mean age of 79.7 years). 4 patients were male and 4 female. Head trauma was caused by falls in 4 patients, but in the other 4 patients the causes were unknown. Initial symptoms were headache, nausea and vomiting in 5 patients and mild disturbance of consciousness with lucid intervals in 3 patients. Seven patients had more than 100 on JCS and less than 9 on GCS on admission. Small craniotomy (HITT) was performed in 4 patients. Large craniotomy was performed in 2 patients, and decompressive craniectomy was carried out in 2 patients. The bleeding focus came from the cortical artery of the middle cerebral artery in 4 patients, cerebral contusion in 2 patients, and was unknown in 2 patients for HITT. CT scan on admission showed mixed density area of acute subdural hematoma in all of the patients, and intraventricular hemorrhage, intracerebral hemorrhage and subarachnoid hemorrhage in 3 patients. CT scan after operation revealed a new area of cerebral contusion in 3 patients, delayed traumatic intracerebral hematoma (DTICH) in 2 patients, and hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage in 1 patient. Two patients recovered to good and fair without general complication. But the outcome in 5 patients with general complication was poor for 3 patients and fatal for 2 patients. In conclusion, large craniotomy is recommended because of bleeding from the cortical artery of the middle cerebral artery.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_55411", "title": "Subdural hematoma", "score": 0.013141240413967687, "content": "Classification Subdural hematomas are classified as acute, subacute, or chronic, depending on the speed of their onset. Acute bleeds often develop after high-speed acceleration or deceleration injuries. They are most severe if associated with cerebral contusions. Though much faster than chronic subdural bleeds, acute subdural bleeding is usually venous and therefore slower than the arterial bleeding of an epidural hemorrhage. Acute subdural hematomas due to trauma are the most lethal of all head injuries and have a high mortality rate if they are not rapidly treated with surgical decompression. The mortality rate is higher than that of epidural hematomas and diffuse brain injuries because the force required to cause subdural hematomas tends to cause other severe injuries as well." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_66084", "title": "Intracranial hemorrhage", "score": 0.012930023783204368, "content": "Subdural hematoma Subdural hematoma occurs when there is tearing of the bridging vein between the cerebral cortex and a draining venous sinus. At times they may be caused by arterial lacerations on the brain surface. Acute subdural hematoma are usually associated with cerebral cortex injury as well and hence the prognosis is not as good as extra dural hematoma. Clinical features depend on the site of injury and severity of injury. Patients may have a history of loss of consciousness but they recover and do not relapse. Clinical onset occurs over hours. A crescent shaped hemorrhage compressing the brain that does cross suture lines will be noted on CT of the head. Craniotomy and surgical evacuation is required if there is significant pressure effect on the brain. Complications include focal neurologic deficits depending on the site of hematoma and brain injury, increased intracranial pressure leading to herniation of brain and ischemia due to reduced blood supply and seizures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0542_16034", "title": "[Traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage: a prospective study of 58 cases].", "score": 0.01243894993894994, "content": "We evaluated the prognostic factors in traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage (tSAH). This study was conducted with 58 patients (44 males, 14 females; mean age 39.2; range 17 to 79 years) with tSAH, between 2001 and 2003. The patients who were admitted to the hospital within in the first 6 hours of head injury were included, whereas patients with gun shot wounds, multiple injured patients and postoperative patients were excluded. Fifty-eight patients with tSAH were prospectively followed. The neurological status of the patients and the outcomes were evaluated using Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) and Glasgow Outcome Scale (GOS), respectively and computed tomography (CT) examinations were done according to the grading criteria by Hijdra and Fisher. The etiology of tSAH included traffic accidents (73%), falls (20%) and others (7%). The GCS scores of patients at admission were mild (9%), moderate (39%) and severe (52%). In the CT scans, the amount and distribution of bleeding was grade 1 (small SAH) in 21 patients, grade 2 (moderate SAH) in 17 patients, and grade 3 (extensive SAH) in 20 patients according to Hijdra grading system and according to Fisher's criteria. The thickness of blood layer was grade 1 (no blood) in 6 patients, grade 2 (bleeding layer less than 1 mm) in 21 patients, grade 3 (bleeding layer more than 1 mm) in 15 patients and grade 4 (ventricular bleeding) in 16 patients. Neurological outcomes of patients were favorable (good recovery or moderate disability) in 59%, and unfavorable (severe disability, persistent vegetative state or death) in 41% according to GOS. We have found in our series that the prognosis was poor in patients with poor admission scores of GCS, cysternal or fissural hemorrhage, tSAH with cerebral contusion or acute subdural hematoma, higher than 13 points according to Hidjra's classification and patients of grade 3 or 4 in Fisher's criteria." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en082_15099", "title": "Blunt trauma", "score": 0.011921127244608642, "content": "Most patients with more severe traumatic brain injury have of a combination of intracranial injuries, which can include diffuse axonal injury, cerebral contusions, and intracranial bleeding, including subarachnoid hemorrhage, subdural hematoma, epidural hematoma, and intraparenchymal hemorrhage. The recovery of brain function following a traumatic accident is highly variable and depends upon the specific intracranial injuries that occur, however there is significant correlation between the severity of the initial insult as well as the level of neurologic function during the initial assessment and the level of lasting neurologic deficits. Initial treatment may be targeted at reducing the intracranial pressure if there is concern for swelling or bleeding within this skull, which may require surgery such as a hemicraniectomy, in which part of the skull is removed. Blunt trauma to extremities" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0930_22057", "title": "[Surgical Treatment for Traumatic Acute Subdural Hemorrhage in the Posterior Cranial Fossa:Three Cases Reports and Review of the Literature].", "score": 0.011847046773642882, "content": "Acute subdural hemorrhage(ASDH)in the posterior cranial fossa is rare. Extremely unfavorable outcomes are reported among cases accompanied by supratentorial hematoma, brainstem contusion, or intracerebellar contusion. We report three cases surgically evacuated several times for traumatic ASDH in the posterior cranial fossa simultaneously accompanied by supratentorial hematomas. In our three presented cases, the mean age was 72.3 years, and all patients were male. The mechanisms of injury included traffic accidents in two cases and fall in one. The median Glasgow Coma Scale score on admission was 6. On admission, the patients had traumatic ASDH in the posterior cranial fossa accompanied by supratentorial hematoma, so they first underwent external decompression or ICP sensor insertion for the supratentorial lesions. However, after their first surgery, all patients developed upward herniation, and subsequently underwent suboccipital craniotomy and evacuation of hematomas. Glasgow Outcome Scales were death in one case, persistent vegetable state in one case, and severe disability in one case. The patients with ASDH in the posterior cranial fossa accompanied by supratentorial hematoma should immediately undergo suboccipital craniotomy and supratentorial decompression simultaneously when the hematomas compress the brainstem and upward herniation develops." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0755_1137", "title": "A case of traumatic hematoma in the basal ganglia that showed deterioration after arrival at the hospital.", "score": 0.011680988184747582, "content": "A case of traumatic hematoma in the basal ganglia that showed deterioration after arrival at the hospital was reported. A 65-year-old man crashed into the wall while riding a motorcycle. His Glasgow coma scale was E3V4M6 and showed retrograde amnesia and slight right motor weakness. Because head CT in the secondary trauma survey showed subarachnoid hemorrhage in the right Sylvian fissure and multiple gliding contusions in the left frontal and parietal lobe, he was entered into the intensive care unit for diagnosis of diffuse brain injury. He showed complete muscle weakness of left upper and lower limbs 5 h after the accident. Head CT newly showed hematoma, 2 cm in diameter, in the right basal ganglia. The patient vomited following the CT scan, and so his consciousness suddenly deteriorated into a stupor. We performed head CT again. The hematoma had enlarged to 5 cm at the same lesion and partially expanded into midbrain. The patient died on the 13th day of trauma. Based on retrospective interpretation, we conclude that clinical examinations, follow-up CT scans and blood examinations should be performed frequently as part of ICU management for all TBI patients in the early phase after trauma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_5740", "title": "List of MeSH codes (C10)", "score": 0.011655011655011654, "content": "– craniocerebral trauma – brain injuries – brain concussion – post-concussion syndrome – brain hemorrhage, traumatic – brain stem hemorrhage, traumatic – cerebral hemorrhage, traumatic – brain injury, chronic – diffuse axonal injury – epilepsy, post-traumatic – pneumocephalus – shaken baby syndrome – cerebrospinal fluid otorrhea – cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea – coma, post-head injury – cranial nerve injuries – abducens nerve injury – facial nerve injuries – optic nerve injuries – head injuries, closed – brain concussion – post-concussion syndrome – head injuries, penetrating – intracranial hemorrhage, traumatic – brain hemorrhage, traumatic – brain stem hemorrhage, traumatic – cerebral hemorrhage, traumatic – hematoma, epidural, cranial – hematoma, subdural – hematoma, subdural, acute – hematoma, subdural, chronic – hematoma, subdural, intracranial – subarachnoid hemorrhage, traumatic – skull fractures" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_55414", "title": "Subdural hematoma", "score": 0.011594202898550725, "content": "Prognosis Acute subdural hematomas have one of the highest mortality rates of all head injuries, with 50 to 90 percent of cases resulting in death. About 20 to 30 percent of patients recover brain function. See also Concussion Diffuse axonal injury Extra-axial hemorrhage Intra-axial hemorrhage References External links Imaging and Mechanism of Subdural Hematoma - MedPix Neurotrauma Cerebrovascular diseases zh:硬膜下血肿" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_5488", "title": "List of MeSH codes (C21)", "score": 0.011213675213675214, "content": "– trauma, nervous system – cerebrovascular trauma – carotid artery injuries – carotid artery, internal, dissection – carotid-cavernous sinus fistula – vertebral artery dissection – craniocerebral trauma – brain injuries – brain concussion – post-concussion syndrome – brain hemorrhage, traumatic – brain stem hemorrhage, traumatic – cerebral hemorrhage, traumatic – brain injury, chronic – diffuse axonal injury – epilepsy, post-traumatic – pneumocephalus – shaken baby syndrome – cerebrospinal fluid otorrhea – cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea – coma, post-head injury – cranial nerve injuries – abducens nerve injury – facial nerve injuries – optic nerve injuries – head injuries, closed – head injuries, penetrating – intracranial hemorrhage, traumatic – brain hemorrhage, traumatic – brain stem hemorrhage, traumatic – cerebral hemorrhage, traumatic – hematoma, epidural, cranial – hematoma, subdural – hematoma, subdural, acute" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_30887", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010830545810557233, "content": "Acute Subdural Hematoma (Fig. 457e-3) Direct cranial trauma may be minor and is not required for acute subdural hemorrhage to occur, especially in the elderly and those taking anticoagulant medications. Acceleration forces alone, as from whiplash, are sometimes sufficient to produce subdural hematoma. Up to one-third of patients have a lucid interval lasting minutes to hours before coma supervenes, but most are drowsy or comatose from the moment of injury. A unilateral headache and slightly enlarged pupil on the side of the hematoma are frequently, but not invariably, present. Stupor or coma, hemiparesis, and unilateral pupillary enlargement are signs of larger hematomas. In an acutely deteriorating patient, burr (drainage) holes or an emergency craniotomy are required. Small subdural hematomas may be asymptomatic and usually do not require evacuation if they do not enlarge." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1024_1420", "title": "Early computed tomography for acute post-traumatic diffuse axonal injury: a systematic review.", "score": 0.010439605252426393, "content": "Diffuse axonal injury (DAI) is the rupture of multiple axons due to acceleration and deceleration forces during a closed head injury. Most traumatic brain injuries (TBI) have some degree of DAI, especially severe TBI. Computed tomography (CT) remains the first imaging test performed in the acute phase of TBI, but has low sensitivity for detecting DAI, since DAI is a cellular lesion. The aim of this study is to search in the literature for CT signs, in the first 24 h after TBI, that may help to differentiate patients in groups with a better versus worst prognosis. We searched for primary scientific articles in the PubMed database, in English, indexed since January 1st, 2000. Five articles were selected for review. In the DAI group, traffic accidents accounted 70% of the cases, 79% were male, and the mean age was 41 years. There was an association between DAI and intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) and traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage (tSAH); an association between the IVH grade and number of corpus callosum lesions; and an association between blood in the interpeduncular cisterns (IPC) and brainstem lesions. In closed TBI with no tSAH, severe DAI is unlikely. Similarly, in the absence of IVH, any DAI is unlikely. If there is IVH, patients generally are clinically worse; and the more ventricles affected, the worse the prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0050_10203", "title": "[Rapid resolution of acute subdural hematoma; report of two cases].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "We reported two cases of rapid resolution of acute subdural hematoma. Case 1, a 21-year-old female, sustained head trauma and became unconscious for about 15 min. Probably she was suffering from posttraumatic amnesia for about 1 day. On admission J.C.S and G.C.S were 20 and 9 (2 + 2 + 5) points, respectively. Neurological examination showed no abnormalities. An initial computed tomography (CT) scan taken 2 hours after the injury showed a high dense subdural hematoma on the left cerebral hemisphere and hemispheric swelling. She was conservatively treated. A follow up CT scan taken 8 hours after the injury disclosed rapid disappearance of the hematoma and cerebral swelling. Case 2a 23-year-old male, sustained head trauma and became unconscious for about 30 min. On admission J.C.S and G.C.S were 1 and 14 (4 + 4 + 6) points, respectively, and slight right hemiparesis was noted. An initial CT scan taken 2 hours after the injury showed subdural hematoma of the left cerebral hemisphere and hemispheric swelling. He was conservatively treated. A follow up CT scan taken 24 hours after the injury revealed almost complete disappearance of the subdural hematoma and cerebral swelling. It was suggested that the rapid resolution of acute subdural hematoma was attributable to redistribution due to decrease of ICP, and washing out by cerebrospinal fluid." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0052_2762", "title": "[MRI findings of closed head injury in children; with special reference to the effect of central shearing force].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "It is considered that shearing effect as introduced by Holbourn may produce central concussion, diffuse brain swelling and diffuse axonal injury according to its grade of force. MRI was performed in 38 children who had been admitted to our hospital during the previous 1 year for the treatment of closed head injury of varying severity. In 8 out of 38 cases, abnormal high signal intensity was observed in the medial and para-medial brain parenchyma on MRI. All of these 8 cases suffered from head trauma caused by motor vehicle accidents. They included 2 cases of cerebral concussion, 1 of diffuse brain swelling, and 5 cases of diffuse axonal injury. In 2 cases of cerebral concussion, MRI (T2 weighted) revealed only localized high intensity in the corpus callosum, while CT showed normal and subarachnoid hemorrhage only at the interposium. These two children had been unconscious for periods of 20 to 30 minutes. In one case of diffuse brain swelling, MRI (T2W) showed a slightly obscure border between gray and white matter due to generally increased intensity. In 5 cases of diffuse axonal injury, most of these cases manifested lesions at the corpus callosum, deep white matter, periventricular gray matter, pons, midbrain and the cerebellum as demonstrated by high signal intensity on MRI (T2W) while CT in the acute stage showed small hemorrhage at the corpus callosum, corticomedullary junction and mid-brain and in the ventricles. Among these, two cases also demonstrated subdural hematoma and cortical contusional hemorrhage. At 3-4 weeks after injury, the area of high intensity previously demonstrated in the deep white matter and the corpus callosum on MRI (T2W) was reduced.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0366_9056", "title": "Postraumatic intracranial hematomas in infancy. a 16-year experience.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The objective of this study is to analyze some of the epidemiological aspects in patients with post-traumatic intracranial hematomas (post-traumatic ICH) in infancy. These patients were treated at the Hospital Infantil Municipal de Córdoba, Argentina, between April 1980 and April 1996. A retrospective descriptive analysis was conducted on the 113 case histories of children with post-traumatic ICH, all of whom required surgical intervention during this period. Relevant information such as age, sex, mechanism of injury causing craniocerebral trauma (CCT), and data on clinical presentation on admission, diagnosis, morbidity and mortality rates were collected. The series revealed a greater incidence of post-traumatic ICH in boys (73.5%), whose average age was 6 years 5 months +/- 4 years 10 months (range 1 day to 15 years). Fifty-three percent of the girls suffered post-traumatic ICH before the age of 3, while 54% of the children were 7 years of age or older (P<0.05). Falls were the most frequent mechanism of injury causing CCT (36.3%), followed by vehicle accidents (33.6%) and unknown causes (15.9%), the latter mainly in children under 3 years old (31%). The most frequent symptoms were vomiting (58.6%), loss of consciousness (47.1%) and headaches (24.1%). Of all these children, 93.8% presented signs and symptoms at the time of hospital admission, alterations in the level of consciousness (66%), vomiting (47.2%) and headaches (26.4%) being among the most frequent. The hemorrhagic complications observed in the 113 patients took the form of extradural hematomas (EDH) in 75 (66.4%), of subdural hematomas (SDH) in 35 (31.0%), of hemorrhagic contusions (Hc) in 19 (16.8%), and of intracerebral hematomas (Ich) in 11 (9.7%). In 13 patients the site of the hematoma was the posterior cranial fossa (11.5%), and 22.1% of patients presented more than one type of hemorrhagic complication. Morbidity rates were 9.7% and mortality rates 17.7%." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0391_2817", "title": "[A postmortem view on \"pure\" subdural hemorrhages in infants and toddlers].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "In the last years, the discussion concerning the causes of infantile subdural hemorrhages became controversial. Many authors still suppose that child abuse is the predominant cause of such cases. On the other hand, reports presenting series of accidental cases were published, and the fear of an overdiagnosis of the shaken baby syndrome has been expressed. Our autopsy material concerning all lethal head injuries of infants and toddlers from 2 decades was reviewed. 17 of these 64 cases were characterized by the following: history of no trauma or only an insignificant event; children found dead or apnoic or in coma; no skull fractures; no focal brain injury; ruptures of several bridging veins but only minimal subdural bleeding. 11 victims were infants (1st year of life) and either 3 were 2 years resp. 3 - 6 years old; 50 % off all lethal head injuries of infants were of this type, while only 25 % resp. 10 % of the following age groups. None of these 17 cases was a result of a minor accident witnessed by unrelated persons. Abuse could be ascertained with a high degree of probability in most cases and remained quite likely in the others. Two different types of subdural hemorrhages should be kept from another: a) patients suffering a moderate head injury from a minor accident which results in a subdural bleeding (from a small intracranial lesion) often do not deteriorate soon after the impact, develop a hemorrhage of significant volume, respond well to therapy and have a good prognosis. b) cases with a history of no or only of an insignificant trauma, infants dead or nearly dead on clinical presentation, often a poor outcome in cases of survival. There is typically no significant subdural bleeding despite multiple bridging vein ruptures in the majority of these cases: the subdural hemorrhage is here only a visible sign of a much more serious and general cerebral alteration, resulting in a rapid increase of intracranial pressure (often complicated by respiratory arrest) which prevents a signifant bleeding into the subdural space. This combination of findings is typically found in victims of massive events (car occupants in high-velocity crashes) and not compatible with a supposition of a minor fall causing this." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0381_21594", "title": "Acute interhemispheric subdural hematomas. Report of nine cases.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Nine male patients with acute interhemispheric subdural hematoma (ISH) are presented. The etiologic factor was trauma for all patients (traffic accident and falling down). The young adult cases and one child had bad prognosis due to severe clinical findings and high mortality. The asymptomatic patients were treated conservatively. In this report, we discussed etiologic factors, presentation of age groups, whether an ISH progresses to a chronic convexity subdural hematoma (SH), and real mortality rates for ISH with relevant literature knowledge. As a result, ISHs can present in all age groups including shaken babies, severely injured young adults as well as low velocity trauma striken elderly patients (especially those under anticoagulant medication). We believe that an acute ISH does not change to chronic convexity SH; in fact they present as simultaneous acute thin convexity SH and acute ISH. It is also concluded that in contrast to previous literature ISH and acute SH patients of similar neurological status have similar mortality rates." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0299_4934", "title": "[Acute traumatic subdural haematomas: study of 110 cases].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "We report a series of 110 patients with acute traumatic subdural hematoma (ASDH) admitted at HBDF emergency within 1994 (January 1st to December 1st). All patients were treated according to the same protocol. There was a predominance of males (79%), with ages ranging from 14 to 70, being car accidents (20%) and car-pedestrian accidents (34%) the most frequent causes. The majority of patients (85.7%) was admitted in very serious condition, with a score of 8 points on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) or lesser, which directly influenced the mortality rates. CT scan was the diagnostic procedure of choice, and it showed contusion and brain swelling to be the most frequent associated intracranial lesions. Surgery was carried out in 45.1% of cases and, in most instances, through an ample fronto-temporo-parietal craniotomy, with hematoma drainage and dural reconstitution. In 54.9% of cases, clinical conditions did not allow surgery and in this group, 69.6%." }, { "id": "article-20077_13", "title": "Contrecoup Brain Injury -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.00940603700097371, "content": "The main differential for contrecoup injury is the condition of diffuse axonal injury (DAI). In DAI, petechial hemorrhages forms at the gray-white matter junction, corpus callosum, and brainstem. It is the result of traumatic acceleration/deceleration or rotational injuries, not attributed to a direct impact to the skull. It is a frequent cause of persistent vegetative state in patients. [20] [21]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0135_15341", "title": "[Traumatic hemorrhage in the basal ganglia in the child. Five cases].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Traumatic hemorrhages in the basal ganglia were seen in five children. The CT findings and the characteristics of these injuries were discussed. All of children were injured in car accidents. They ranged in age from 3 to 13 years. The patients comprised 3 boys and 2 girls. On admission, case 1 was conscious and case 2 was in a stupor. Case 1 and 2 were mild cases in which spotty hematomas were seen in the ganglionic region. They recovered fully. Case 3-5 were severe cases in which massive hematomas were seen in the ganglionic region. On admission, their consciousness ranged from stupor to coma. We performed operations on two of them but their recoveries were unsatisfactory. Their results were as follows. One had residual hemiparesis and dysarthria, one experienced tetraparesis and dysarthria and the last went from coma to a vegetative state. Concerning the directions of the impacts, 4 were hit in the frontal region or face and the last one received blows on the occipital region. Skull fractures were seen in two cases. Mandibula and clavicula fractures were seen in the other two cases. Only one child had no fractures. We conclude that pediatric traumatic hemorrhages in the basal ganglia are induced by severe impact on the frontal or occipital regions. The size of hematomas in this injury is spotty or massive. The massive type has a poor prognosis. On the other hand, the spotty type's prognosis is good. We speculate that impact to the head causes a shear strain in the ganglionic region. At that time, vessels in the area are injured." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0054_14141", "title": "[A case of acute subdural hematoma in the posterior fossa with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Intracranial bleeding is one of fatal complications in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura although its reported incidence is low. A case of spontaneous acute subdural hematoma complicated with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura was reported. He was hospitalized complaining of sudden onset of headache and nasal bleeding without neurological deficit. CT scan revealed subdural hematoma in the posterior fossa especially below the tentorium cerebelli. Further hematological examination proved very low platelet count (1,000/mm3) and antiplatelet antibody in confirmation of a diagnosis of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. As his neurological status was good, he was treated medically. His symptoms and platelet count improved gradually with corticosteroid therapy. Reviewing the literature, acute subdural hematoma with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura was quite rare and only three cases reported." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 140 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 24 ] ], "text": "In osteoporosis, one of the main risks associated with the increased risk of fracture is low adherence to treatment, so answer 1 is correct." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 140, 326 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 54 ] ], "text": "correct. Answer 2 is found in the SER guidelines, which confirm that some studies conclude that bone remodeling markers can be useful for early monitoring of adherence and response to treatment." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 577, 920 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 91, 138 ] ], "text": "Therefore, the correct answer to this question is option 3. Patients on pharmacological treatment for OP should use calcium and vitamin D supplements because practically all clinical trials that have demonstrated efficacy of antiosteoporotic drugs routinely include calcium supplements and cholecalciferol (vitamin D3), but not in monotherapy." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 327, 576 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 54, 91 ] ], "text": "Answer 4 is correct because again in the SER 2019 guidelines they quote: \"The current scientific evidence allows us to affirm that neither increasing dietary calcium nor taking calcium supplements alone protects against the appearance of fractures\"." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Low adherence to treatment is associated with an increased risk of fracture.", "2": "Bone remodeling markers may be useful for early monitoring of treatment response.", "3": "Vitamin D monotherapy is effective in reducing these fractures in non-institutionalized elderly people.", "4": "Increasing dietary calcium or taking calcium supplements in isolation does not protect against the appearance of fractures.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0298_13589", "title": "Prevention of hip fractures by correcting calcium and vitamin D insufficiencies in elderly people.", "score": 0.018311036789297658, "content": "For a 50-year old caucasian woman today, the risk of a hip fracture over her remaining lifetime is about 17%. Tomorrow the situation will clearly be worse because the continual increase in life expectancy will cause a 3-fold rise in worldwide fracture incidence over the next 60 years, particularly in women, but also in men. In addition, a secular increase in the incidence of hip fractures in individuals of the same age has been noted in both sexes by several investigators, and the cost of hip fractures is expected to dramatically increase in the next decades. Consequently, preventive strategies are urgently required. A great deal has been learned in recent years about the risk factors for hip fracture, the pathophysiology of this fracture, and the prediction of fracture risk, particularly through bone mass measurements on the hip and biochemical evaluations of parathyroid and vitamin D status. The two main determinants of hip fractures are falls and bone loss leading to an intrinsic femoral fragility. A substantial femoral bone loss continues throughout the old age, with a continuous and exponential increase in the risk of hip fracture, and any reduction or arrest of this loss will induce an important reduction in the incidence of hip fractures. A preventive effect on the risk of hip fracture may be partly achieved by using long term estrogen replacement therapy after menopause, but also by using vitamin D and calcium supplements for a late prevention in elderly people. Vitamin D insufficiency and deficit in calcium intake are very common in elderly people living either in institutions or at home, particularly in Europe where dairy products are not fortified with vitamin D. The cumulative response to this deficit in calcium intake and low vitamin D status is a negative calcium balance which stimulates parathyroid hormone secretion. In 300 residents of nursing homes, we recently found a significant negative correlation between serum 25 OHD and log serum PTH after age-adjustment. In addition, in 446 elderly women living at home in 5 French cities and selected from the voting lists, we also found an age-adjusted relationship between serum 25 OHD and PTH concentrations. This senile secondary hyperparathyroidism is one of the determinants of femoral bone loss and can be reversed by calcium and vitamin D supplements. We have shown in a 3-year controlled prospective study that the daily use of these supplements (1.2 g of calcium and 800 IU of vitamin D3) given in a large population of 3270 elderly ambulatory women living in nursing homes reduced of 23% (intention-to-treat analysis) the number of hip fractures and other non vertebral fractures. In parallel, serum perathyroid hormone concentration was reduced of 28% and low serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentration returned to normal values. After 18 months of treatment the bone density of the total proximal femoral region had increased 2.7% the vitamin D3-calcium group and decreased 4.6% in the placebo group (p < 0.001). This prevention is safe and can be recommended in people living in institutions. It could be also useful in other elderly subjects particularly at risk because of a low calcium intake, an absence of solar exposure and a previous history of falls. From the data of our study we assessed the economic consequences in terms of medical cost of this prevention. In case of treatment of all women living in nursing homes in France, this would saved FF 150000000 per year, the economic balance of prevention becoming positive as soon as the age of the beginning of the prevention reaches 73.5 years. It is now possible to partly stop bone loss in elderly people and it is never too late to prevent hip fractures with calcium and vitamin D supplements." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0396_7604", "title": "Combined calcium and vitamin D3 supplementation in elderly women: confirmation of reversal of secondary hyperparathyroidism and hip fracture risk: the Decalyos II study.", "score": 0.017067550050410486, "content": "Vitamin D insufficiency and low calcium intake contribute to increase parathyroid function and bone fragility in elderly people. Calcium and vitamin D supplements can reverse secondary hyperparathyroidism thus preventing hip fractures, as proved by Decalyos I. Decalyos II is a 2-year, multicenter, randomized, double-masked, placebo-controlled confirmatory study. The intention-to-treat population consisted of 583 ambulatory institutionalized women (mean age 85.2 years, SD = 7.1) randomized to the calcium-vitamin D3 fixed combination group (n = 199); the calcium plus vitamin D3 separate combination group (n = 190) and the placebo group (n = 194). Fixed and separate combination groups received the same daily amount of calcium (1200 mg) and vitamin D3 (800 IU), which had similar pharmacodynamic effects. Both types of calcium-vitamin D3 regimens increased serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D and decreased serum intact parathyroid hormone to a similar extent, with levels returning within the normal range after 6 months. In a subgroup of 114 patients, femoral neck bone mineral density (BMD) decreased in the placebo group (mean = -2.36% per year, SD = 4.92), while remaining unchanged in women treated with calcium-vitamin D3 (mean = 0.29% per year, SD = 8.63). The difference between the two groups was 2.65% (95% CI = -0.44, 5.75%) with a trend in favor of the active treatment group. No significant difference between groups was found for changes in distal radius BMD and quantitative ultrasonic parameters at the os calcis. The relative risk (RR) of HF in the placebo group compared with the active treatment group was 1.69 (95% CI = 0.96, 3.0), which is similar to that found in Decalyos I (RR = 1.7; 95% CI = 1.0, 2.8). Thus, these data are in agreement with those of Decalyos I and indicate that calcium and vitamin D3 in combination reverse senile secondary hyperparathyroidism and reduce both hip bone loss and the risk of hip fracture in elderly institutionalized women." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0655_3344", "title": "Efficacy of vitamin D3 supplementation in preventing fractures in elderly women: a meta-analysis.", "score": 0.016817410966647822, "content": "The efficacy of vitamin D(3) in preventing fractures and falls has been explored in a number of clinical trials. However, recent evidence revealed new questions about the adequate doses of vitamin D(3) supplementation and its efficacy in fracture prevention independent of calcium supplements for various types of fractures. To conduct a meta-analysis to estimate the effectiveness of 800 IU daily vitamin D(3) supplementation for increasing bone mineral density (BMD) and preventing fractures in postmenopausal women. Medline and EMBASE were searched for controlled trials comparing the effectiveness of cholecalciferol (vitamin D(3)) against placebo with or without background calcium supplementation in the treatment of postmenopausal women. Eight controlled trials evaluating the effect of vitamin D(3) supplementation with or without calcium were assessed. Of 12 658 women included in a Bayesian meta-analysis, 6089 received vitamin D(3) (with or without calcium) and 6569 received placebo (with or without calcium). Compared to placebo, vitamin D(3) with calcium supplementation showed beneficial effects on the incidence of non-vertebral (odds ratio [OR] 0.77, 95% credibility limit [CL] 0.6-0.93) and hip (OR 0.70, 95% CL 0.53-0.90) fractures, while the effects on non-vertebral-non-hip fractures (OR 0.84, 95% CL 0.67-1.04) % point increase) were associated with more uncertainty. Vitamin D(3) supplementation showed a 70% probability of being a better treatment than placebo for the prevention of non-vertebral fractures, hip fractures, and non-vertebral, non-hip fractures. Compared to calcium supplementation, vitamin D(3) plus calcium reduced non-vertebral fractures (OR 0.68, 95% CL 0.43-1.01) and non-vertebral, non-hip fractures (OR 0.64, 95% CL 0.38-0.99), but did not reduce hip fractures (OR 1.03, 95% CL 0.39-2.25). Key limitations to this analysis include a small number of studies and heterogeneity in the study populations. This meta-analysis supports the use of vitamin D3 of 800 IU daily to reduce the incidence of osteoporotic non-vertebral, hip, and non-vertebral-non-hip fractures in elderly women. Vitamin D(3) with calcium appears to achieve benefits above those attained with calcium supplementation alone for non-vertebral and non-vertebral-non-hip fractures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0275_4712", "title": "Prevention of hip fractures.", "score": 0.016391257995735608, "content": "For a 50-year old Caucasian woman today, the risk of a hip fracture over her remaining life-time is about 17%. Tomorrow the situation will clearly be worse because the continuous increase in life expectancy will cause a three-fold increase in worldwide fracture incidence over the next 60 years. Through diagnostic bone mass measurements at the hip and assessment of biochemical parameters, a great deal has been learned in recent years about reduction of hip fracture risk. Preventive strategies are based on prevention of falls, use of hip protectors, and prevention of bone fragility. The latter includes the optimization of peak bone mass during childhood, postmenopausal estrogen replacement therapy, and also late prevention consisting in reversing senile secondary hyperparathyroidism, which plays an important role in the decrease of skeletal strength. This secondary hyperparathyroidism, which results from both vitamin D insufficiency and low calcium intake, is preventable with vitamin D3 and calcium supplements. They have recently been shown capable of providing effective prevention of hip fractures in elderly women living in nursing homes, with a reduction of about 25% in the number of hip fractures noted in a 3-year controlled study in 3,270 women (intention-to-treat analysis). In conclusion, it is never too early to reduce the risk of osteoporosis and never too late to prevent hip fractures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0567_4693", "title": "Where do we stand on vitamin D?", "score": 0.016297428062133947, "content": "A meta-analysis of primary prevention high-quality trials published in 2005 found that oral cholecalciferol (D3) in a daily dose of 700-800 IU or intermittently 100,000 IU every 4 months with or without calcium, should reduce both hip and non-vertebral fracture risk significantly compared to placebo. Trials that administered 400 IU vitamin D did not achieve fracture efficacy. Notably, there was a significant association between higher achieved 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels (25(OH)D) in the treatment groups and fracture efficacy: The minimal mean level where fracture efficacy was observed was 74 nmol/l (25(OH)D). Epidemiological data for bone density and lower extremity strength support this threshold, and high-quality trials that used 700 to 800 IU D3 suggested fall risk reduction by 35 to 65% in institutionalized and community-dwelling older individuals. However, since the 2005 meta-analysis, benefits of vitamin D on fracture and fall reduction have been questioned by results from several recent trials. This review proposes that the interpretation of these recent trials is hindered by different doses of vitamin D, different types of supplemental vitamin D (D3 or ergocalciferol D2), low adherence, concurrent use of supplements outside the study protocol, open study design, short follow-up, and/or different patient risk profiles including primary and secondary fracture prevention. In most recent trials, low adherence, the use of the relatively less potent D2, or a too low dose of D3 (400 IU) may have prohibited a shift of (25(OH)D) levels in the treatment groups to the desirable range of at least 75 nmol/l. In summary, from recent trials, two lesson may be learned: (1) Adherence less than 60% is insufficient to achieve fracture efficacy with daily 800 IU D3 plus calcium, (2) D2 in any application or any previously studied dose may not reduce fractures in institutionalized or community-dwelling older individuals." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0671_592", "title": "Reducing fracture risk with calcium and vitamin D.", "score": 0.016242346116661296, "content": "Studies of vitamin D and calcium for fracture prevention have produced inconsistent results, as a result of different vitamin D status and calcium intake at baseline, different doses and poor to adequate compliance. This study tries to define the types of patients, both at risk of osteoporosis and with established disease, who may benefit from calcium and vitamin D supplementation. The importance of adequate compliance in these individuals is also discussed. Calcium and vitamin D therapy has been recommended for older persons, either frail and institutionalized or independent, with key risk factors including decreased bone mineral density (BMD), osteoporotic fractures, increased bone remodelling as a result of secondary hyperparathyroidism and increased propensity to falls. In addition, treatment of osteoporosis with a bisphosphonate was less effective in patients with vitamin D deficiency. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation is a key component of prevention and treatment of osteoporosis unless calcium intake and vitamin D status are optimal. For primary disease prevention, supplementation should be targeted to those with dietary insufficiencies. Several serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25(OH)D) cut-offs have been proposed to define vitamin D insufficiency (as opposed to adequate vitamin D status), ranging from 30 to 100 nmol/l. Based on the relationship between serum 25(OH)D, BMD, bone turnover, lower extremity function and falls, we suggest that 50 nmol/l is the appropriate serum 25(OH)D threshold to define vitamin D insufficiency. Supplementation should therefore generally aim to increase 25(OH)D levels within the 50-75 nmol/l range. This level can be achieved with a dose of 800 IU/day vitamin D, the dose that was used in successful fracture prevention studies to date; a randomized clinical trial assessing whether higher vitamin D doses achieve a greater reduction of fracture incidence would be of considerable interest. As calcium balance is not only affected by vitamin D status but also by calcium intake, recommendations for adequate calcium intake should also be met. The findings of community-based clinical trials with vitamin D and calcium supplementation in which compliance was moderate or less have often been negative, whereas studies in institutionalized patients in whom medication administration was supervised ensuring adequate compliance demonstrated significant benefits." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0667_6165", "title": "Treatment for osteoporosis in Australian residential aged care facilities: consensus recommendations for fracture prevention.", "score": 0.01605126253013577, "content": "Older people living in residential aged care facilities (RACFs) are at considerably higher risk of suffering fractures than older people living in the community. When admitted to RACFs, patients should be assessed for fracture risk to ensure early implementation of effective fracture prevention measures. Routine or regular determination of calcium and phosphate serum levels in institutionalised older people is not indicated. Opinion is divided about the value of routine measurements of serum concentrations of 25-hydroxyvitamin D, parathyroid hormone and bone turnover markers. The non-pharmacological approach to fracture prevention includes multifactorial programs of falls prevention and the use of hip protectors. Vitamin D supplementation is recommended for all patients in RACFs. Dietary calcium intake should be optimised (1200-1500 mg per day is recommended) and supplementation offered to those with inadequate intake. The decision to prescribe calcium supplements should be guided by patients' tolerance, whether or not they have a history of kidney stones, and emerging data about its cardiovascular safety. Bisphosphonates are the first-choice pharmacological agents for fracture prevention in older persons at high risk. Intravenous administration is as efficient as oral and has the significant advantage of better adherence. Use of strontium ranelate has not been tested on people in RACFs, but evidence in the \"old-old\" (those aged 75 years and older) suggests it could be a therapeutic option for fracture prevention in this setting. In general, teriparatide should not be considered as a first-line treatment for fracture prevention, particularly for people in RACFs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0575_244", "title": "Use of calcium or calcium in combination with vitamin D supplementation to prevent fractures and bone loss in people aged 50 years and older: a meta-analysis.", "score": 0.015198408312147674, "content": "Whether calcium supplementation can reduce osteoporotic fractures is uncertain. We did a meta-analysis to include all the randomised trials in which calcium, or calcium in combination with vitamin D, was used to prevent fracture and osteoporotic bone loss. We identified 29 randomised trials (n=63 897) using electronic databases, supplemented by a hand-search of reference lists, review articles, and conference abstracts. All randomised trials that recruited people aged 50 years or older were eligible. The main outcomes were fractures of all types and percentage change of bone-mineral density from baseline. Data were pooled by use of a random-effect model. In trials that reported fracture as an outcome (17 trials, n=52 625), treatment was associated with a 12% risk reduction in fractures of all types (risk ratio 0.88, 95% CI 0.83-0.95; p=0.0004). In trials that reported bone-mineral density as an outcome (23 trials, n=41 419), the treatment was associated with a reduced rate of bone loss of 0.54% (0.35-0.73; p<0.0001) at the hip and 1.19% (0.76-1.61%; p<0.0001) in the spine. The fracture risk reduction was significantly greater (24%) in trials in which the compliance rate was high (p<0.0001). The treatment effect was better with calcium doses of 1200 mg or more than with doses less than 1200 mg (0.80 vs 0.94; p=0.006), and with vitamin D doses of 800 IU or more than with doses less than 800 IU (0.84 vs 0.87; p=0.03). Evidence supports the use of calcium, or calcium in combination with vitamin D supplementation, in the preventive treatment of osteoporosis in people aged 50 years or older. For best therapeutic effect, we recommend minimum doses of 1200 mg of calcium, and 800 IU of vitamin D (for combined calcium plus vitamin D supplementation)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0359_17457", "title": "Effects of a short-term vitamin D and calcium supplementation on body sway and secondary hyperparathyroidism in elderly women.", "score": 0.014863387978142076, "content": "Long-term vitamin D and calcium supplementation is effective in reducing nonvertebral fractures in elderly people. Increased bone fragility caused by secondary hyperparathyroidism (sHPT) and impaired balance are known risk factors for hip fractures. The hypothesis is that short-term therapy with calcium and vitamin D may improve body sway as well as sHPT more effectively than calcium monotherapy. The effects of 8 weeks of supplementation with vitamin D (cholecalciferol) and calcium on body sway and biochemical measures of bone metabolism were measured. The sample consisted of 148 women (mean [+/-SD] age, 74 +/- 1 years) with a 25-hydroxycholecalciferol level below 50 nmol/liter. They received either 1200 mg of calcium plus 800 IU of vitamin D or 1200 mg of calcium per day. We measured intact parathyroid hormone (PTH), markers of bone turnover, and body sway before and after treatment. Falls and fractures among the participants were followed over a 1-year period. Compared with calcium mono, supplementation with vitamin D and calcium resulted in an increase in serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D of 72% (p < 0.0001), a decrease in the serum PTH of 18% ( p = 0.0432), and a decrease in body sway of 9% (p = 0.0435). The mean number of falls per subject during a 1-year follow-up period was 0.45 for the calcium mono group and 0.24 for the calcium and vitamin D group (p = 0.0346). Short-term supplementation with vitamin D and calcium improves sHPT and body sway and therefore may prevent falls and subsequent nonvertebral fractures in elderly women." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0705_13552", "title": "[Are calcium and vitamin D supplements for everyone?: Pro].", "score": 0.014732475268588448, "content": "Calcium and vitamin D are essential for the health of our bones and various scientific societies recommend an intake of 1,000 mg of calcium and 800 IU of vitamin D daily. Most people with osteoporosis do not eat food with this amount of calcium and also have insufficient levels of vitamin D, so supplements are recommended to provide osteoporotic patients with these amounts. Calcium supplements and vitamin D improve the effectiveness of anabolic and anti-catabolic agents and may have a small effect in reducing the number of fractures. Calcium supplements alone have not shown efficacy preventing fractures in patients with osteoporosis and may increase cardiovascular risk in healthy elderly women and is therefore not recommended for widespread use. Vitamin D supplements are recommended in persons with 25-OH vitamin D levels below 30 ng/ml, in particular the elderly and osteoporotic patients, due to its ability to halt the remodeling resulting from secondary hyperparathyroidism and reduce the loss of bone mass. Vitamin D supplements could help reduce falls and fractures in the institutionalized elderly. In addition, supplements of vitamin D may have other beneficial effects due to extra-osseous regulatory functions on the immune response and cell differentiation and proliferation that is associated with vitamin D. Trials begun in recent years clearly indicate a beneficial effect of vitamin D supplements on mortality, cardiovascular risk,development of tumors and prevention of infections." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_33041", "title": "Osteoporosis", "score": 0.014611613876319759, "content": "Studies of the benefits of supplementation with calcium and vitamin D are conflicting, possibly because most studies did not have people with low dietary intakes. A 2018 review by the USPSTF found low-quality evidence that the routine use of calcium and vitamin D supplements (or both supplements together) did not reduce the risk of having an osteoporotic fracture in male and female adults living in the community who had no known history of vitamin D deficiency, osteoporosis, or a fracture. The USPSTF does not recommend low dose supplementation (less than 1 g of calcium and 400 IU of vitamin D) in postmenopausal women as there does not appear to be a difference in fracture risk. A 2015 review found little data that supplementation of calcium decreases the risk of fractures. While some meta-analyses have found a benefit of vitamin D supplements combined with calcium for fractures, they did not find a benefit of vitamin D supplements (800 IU/day or less) alone. While supplementation does" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en289_2170", "title": "Vitamin D", "score": 0.014446444644464446, "content": "Bone health In general, no good evidence supports the commonly held belief that vitamin D supplements can help prevent osteoporosis. Its general use for prevention of this disease in those without vitamin D deficiency is thus likely not needed. For older people with osteoporosis, taking vitamin D with calcium may help prevent hip fractures, but it also slightly increases the risk of stomach and kidney problems. A study found that supplementation with 800 IU or more daily, in those older than 65 years was \"somewhat favorable in the prevention of hip fracture and non-vertebral fracture\". The effect is small or none for people living independently. Low serum vitamin D levels have been associated with falls, and low bone mineral density. Taking extra vitamin D, however, does not appear to change the risk." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0644_7970", "title": "Strategies for treatment to prevent fragility fractures in postmenopausal women.", "score": 0.014254192409532214, "content": "The objective of treatment of osteoporosis is to decrease the risk of fractures in patients at high risk for a first or subsequent fracture. The efficacy of treatment will depend on the efficiency and level of implementation of clinical case finding to select patients at risk, the results of additional investigations, the efficacy, tolerance and safety of medical intervention and the adherence to treatment during follow-up. Each of these steps is critical in treatment in daily practice. Failure to consider one or another step can result in suboptimal fracture prevention or overtreatment. The aim of case finding is to identify patients for treatment, who have disease characteristics of patients in whom fracture prevention has been demonstrated in randomised controlled trials (RCTs). These include patients with a low-trauma hip or vertebral fracture, with a low bone mineral density (BMD) or with a high risk of fracture based on the presence of clinical risk factors (CRFs) for osteoporosis and fractures such as included in the FRAX case-finding algorithm, with or without BMD. Case finding starts clinically, with systematic or opportunistic doctor- and/or patient-driven evaluation for the presence of CRFs, but its implementation is low. Further investigations aim to assess the risk of fracture(s) and to have baseline measurements for the subsequent monitoring of treatment, to exclude diseases that mimic osteoporosis, to identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors and to select the most appropriate treatment. Medical intervention consists of providing information about osteoporosis to the patient, lifestyle advice, optimalisation of calcium intake and vitamin D status, fall prevention to reduce fall risk, correction of reversible contributors to secondary osteoporosis and a wide array of drugs for prevention of a first or subsequent vertebral, hip and non-vertebral, non-hip fracture. Drug treatment is based on manipulation of bone remodelling by inhibiting bone resorption (bisphosphonates, selective oestrogen-receptor modulator (SERMs), calcitonin), stimulating bone formation (parathyroid hormone) or mixed effects (strontium ranelate). Follow-up allows to check tolerance and safety, to optimise adherence and to decide about adequacy of response, duration and switching of therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0044_15714", "title": "Vitamin D3 and calcium to prevent hip fractures in elderly women.", "score": 0.013963118108719726, "content": "Hypovitaminosis D and a low calcium intake contribute to increased parathyroid function in elderly persons. Calcium and vitamin D supplements reduce this secondary hyperparathyroidism, but whether such supplements reduce the risk of hip fractures among elderly people is not known. We studied the effects of supplementation with vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) and calcium on the frequency of hip fractures and other nonvertebral fractures, identified radiologically, in 3270 healthy ambulatory women (mean [+/- SD] age, 84 +/- 6 years). Each day for 18 months, 1634 women received tricalcium phosphate (containing 1.2 g of elemental calcium) and 20 micrograms (800 IU) of vitamin D3, and 1636 women received a double placebo. We measured serial serum parathyroid hormone and 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25(OH)D) concentrations in 142 women and determined the femoral bone mineral density at base line and after 18 months in 56 women. Among the women who completed the 18-month study, the number of hip fractures was 43 percent lower (P = 0.043) and the total number of nonvertebral fractures was 32 percent lower (P = 0.015) among the women treated with vitamin D3 and calcium than among those who received placebo. The results of analyses according to active treatment and according to intention to treat were similar. In the vitamin D3-calcium group, the mean serum parathyroid hormone concentration had decreased by 44 percent from the base-line value at 18 months (P < 0.001) and the serum 25(OH)D concentration had increased by 162 percent over the base-line value (P < 0.001). The bone density of the proximal femur increased 2.7 percent in the vitamin D3-calcium group and decreased 4.6 percent in the placebo group (P < 0.001). Supplementation with vitamin D3 and calcium reduces the risk of hip fractures and other nonvertebral fractures among elderly women." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0913_22460", "title": "Pharmacological treatment of osteoporosis in the oldest old.", "score": 0.013877207737594618, "content": "The incidence of osteoporotic fractures increases with age. Consequently, the global prevalence of osteoporotic fractures will increase with the aging of the population. In old age, osteoporosis is associated with a substantial burden in terms of morbidity and mortality. Nevertheless, osteoporosis in old age continues to be underdiagnosed and undertreated. This may, at least partly, be explained by the fact that evidence of the antifracture efficacy of osteoporosis treatments comes mainly from randomized controlled trials in postmenopausal women with a mean age of 70-75 years. However, in the last years, subgroup analyses of these landmark trials have been published investigating the efficacy and safety of osteoporosis treatment in the very elderly. Based on this evidence, this narrative review discusses the pharmacological management of osteoporosis in the oldest old (≥80 years). Because of the high prevalence of calcium and/or vitamin D deficiency in old age, these supplements are essential in the management of osteoporosis in the elderly people. Adding antiresorptive or anabolic treatments or combinations, thereof, reduces the risk of vertebral fractures even more, at least in the elderly with documented osteoporosis. The reduction of hip fracture risk by antiresorptive treatments is less convincing, which may be explained by insufficient statistical power in some subanalyses and/or a higher impact of nonskeletal risk factors in the occurrence of hip fractures. Compared with younger individuals, a larger absolute risk reduction is observed in the elderly because of the higher baseline fracture risk. Therefore, the elderly will benefit more of treatment. In addition, current osteoporosis therapies also appear to be safe in the elderly. Although more research is required to further clarify the effect of osteoporosis drugs in the elderly, especially with respect to hip fractures, there is currently sufficient evidence to initiate appropriate treatment in the elderly with osteoporosis and osteoporotic fractures." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en286_22362", "title": "Canadian health claims for food", "score": 0.013797313797313799, "content": "Research supporting the claim There is a significant body of evidence which establishes that high calcium intakes augment bone gain during growth, retards age-related bone loss, and reduces osteoporotic fracture risk. A meta-analysis study in 2007 assessed whether calcium supplementation can reduce osteoporotic fractures. The meta-analysis included all the randomized trials in which calcium, or calcium in combination with vitamin D, was used to prevent fracture and osteoporotic bone loss." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0540_22200", "title": "Addressing the musculoskeletal components of fracture risk with calcium and vitamin D: a review of the evidence.", "score": 0.013624338624338624, "content": "Osteoporotic fractures are an extremely common and serious health problem in the elderly. This article presents the rationale for calcium and vitamin D supplementation in the prevention and treatment of osteoporotic fractures and reviews the literature evidence on the efficacy of this strategy. Two musculoskeletal risk factors are implicated in osteoporotic fractures in the elderly: the loss of bone mass due to secondary hyperparathyroidism and the increased propensity to falls. Calcium and vitamin D reverse secondary hyperparathyroidism with resultant beneficial effects on bone mineral density (BMD). Additionally, calcium and vitamin D supplementation significantly improves body sway and lower extremity strength, reducing the risk of falls. The effects of combined calcium and vitamin D on parathyroid function and BMD provide a strong rationale for the use of this therapy in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis and osteoporotic fractures. There is general agreement that, in patients with documented osteoporosis, calcium and vitamin D supplementation should be an integral component of the management strategy, along with antiresorptive or anabolic treatment. Frail elderly individuals constitute another major target population for calcium and vitamin D because evidence from randomized studies in institutionalized elderly subjects demonstrates that these supplements reduce osteoporotic fracture risk, particularly in the presence of dietary deficiencies. However, the results of trials in community-dwelling subjects have been equivocal. Within the primary-care setting, further research is required to establish appropriate target subgroups for calcium and vitamin D supplementation; overall, the data are consistent with a benefit individuals with insufficient calcium and/or vitamin D, although patients with documented osteoporosis will derive further benefit in terms of fracture prevention from the addition of an antiresorptive agent." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en159_33147", "title": "Senile osteoporosis", "score": 0.013558201058201057, "content": "Calcium and vitamin D3 intake from diet or supplementation are crucial in the ethiopathogenesis of this disease; therefore, the effective treatments should consist of non pharmacological methods (such as a modified diet with more calcium 1000–1500 mg/day and vitamin D3 intake of 600-800 IU/day, exercising, smoking cessation, and alcohol restriction), fall prevention, and individually chosen pharmacological intervention (antiresorptive agent like bisphosphonate or estrogen replacement therapy in women). Given bone fracture (hip, vertebrae, and colles) is a devastating complication of osteoporosis, vitamin D3 combined with calcium are used as primary prevention, along with alendronate, residronate, strontium and zoledronic acid which have proven efficacy in primary and secondary hip fracture prevention. The Institute of Medicine recommends a daily allowance of 800 IU of Vitamin D for people 70 and over, to get to a level of serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25OHD) of at least 20 ng/ml (50" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en509_6723", "title": "Calcium supplement", "score": 0.013408636852620254, "content": "Health effects Bone health In healthy people, calcium supplementation is not necessary for maintaining bone mineral density, and carries risks that outweigh any benefits. Calcium intake is not significantly associated with hip fracture risk in either men or women. The U.S. Preventive Service Task Force recommends against a daily supplement of calcium or vitamin D. Although a slight increase in bone mineral density occurred in healthy children from calcium supplementation, using additional dietary calcium is not justified, according to a 2006 review. Cardiovascular impact There is good evidence that 1,000 mg to 1,500 mg of daily calcium supplementation can effect a modest reduction in blood pressure in adults who do not have a blood pressure condition." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en038_11967", "title": "Women's Health Initiative", "score": 0.013382754584471322, "content": "CaD component findings Among the intervention cohort, a small but significant improvement in hip bone density was observed, although a significant reduction in hip fractures was not observed. However, subgroup analysis revealed a possible benefit to older women in terms of a reduced risk of hip fractures, attributable to calcium plus vitamin D supplementation. It was also found that the intervention did not have an effect on the incidence of colorectal cancer, possibly owing to the long latency associated with colorectal cancers. Calcium plus vitamin D was not found to affect the incidence of breast cancer. Finally, an increased risk of kidney stones was observed among those taking calcium plus vitamin D." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en396_2959", "title": "Eldecalcitol", "score": 0.013305860166235943, "content": "The new analogs of vitamin D, such as eldecalcitol, are observed to have stronger effects in preventing bone loss, fractures, and falls in comparison to calcitriol. Eldecalcitol is even more effective than its counterpart alfacalcidol, another vitamin D analog. Studies have shown eldecalcitol is more effective than alfacalcidol in preventing vertebral and wrist fractures, and even falls, with osteoporotic patients with vitamin D insufficiencies. Eldecalcitol is also more effective at preventing fractures than vitamin D and calcium supplements. Eldecalcitol increases calcium absorption for vitamin D deficient patients, and therefore could be used for osteoporosis treatment for all age groups." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en004_137076", "title": "Dietary supplement", "score": 0.01323935257701201, "content": "\"Adequate calcium as part of a healthful diet, along with physical activity, may reduce the risk of osteoporosis in later life.\" \"Adequate calcium and vitamin D throughout life, as part of a well-balanced diet, may reduce the risk of osteoporosis.\" \"Adequate calcium and vitamin D as part of a healthful diet, along with physical activity, may reduce the risk of osteoporosis in later life.\" In the same year, the European Food Safety Authority also approved a dietary supplement health claim for calcium and vitamin D and the reduction of the risk of osteoporotic fractures by reducing bone loss." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0269_7683", "title": "Can we stop bone loss and prevent hip fractures in the elderly?", "score": 0.013131648936170214, "content": "The two main determinants of hip fractures are falls and bone loss leading to an intrinsic femoral fragility. Substantial femoral bone loss continues throughout old age, with a continuous and exponential increase in the risk of hip fracture; thus any reduction or arrest of this loss will induce an important reduction in the incidence of hip fracture. Preventive measures may be achieved during childhood by increasing peak bone mass with calcium and exercise, by using long-term estrogen replacement therapy after menopause, but also by using vitamin D and calcium supplements for late prevention in the elderly. Vitamin D insufficiency and a deficit in calcium intake are very common in the elderly living either in institutions or at home and the cumulative response to these deficits is a negative calcium balance which stimulates parathyroid hormone secretion. This senile secondary hyperparathyroidism is one of the determinants of femoral bone loss and can be reversed by calcium and vitamin D supplements. We have shown in a 3-year controlled prospective study that the daily use of supplements (1.2 g calcium and 800 IU vitamin D3) given in a large population of 3270 elderly ambulatory women living in nursing homes reduced the number of hip fractures by 23% (intention-to-treat analysis). In parallel, serum parathyroid hormone concentrations were reduced by 28% and low baseline serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentration returned to normal values. After 18 months of treatment the bone density of the total proximal femoral region had increased by 2.7% in the vitamin D3-calcium group and decreased by 4.6% in the placebo group (p < 0.001).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0364_20168", "title": "Effect of calcium or 25OH vitamin D3 dietary supplementation on bone loss at the hip in men and women over the age of 60.", "score": 0.012991339107261825, "content": "Dietary supplements that prevent bone loss at the hip and that can be applied safely in the elderly are likely to reduce hip fractures. A daily dietary supplement of 750 mg calcium or 15 microg 25OH vitamin D3 on bone loss at the hip and other sites, bone turnover and calcium-regulating hormones were studied over 4 yr in elderly volunteers using a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial. Bone mineral density (BMD) was measured by dual x-ray absorptiometry and bone structure by radiographs. Calcium biochemistry and bone turnover markers were measured in blood and urine. The 316 women entering the trial had a mean age of 73.7 yr and the 122 men of 75.9 yr. Baseline median calcium intake was 546 mg/day, and median serum 25OH vitamin D3 was 59 nmol/L. On placebo, loss of BMD at total hip was 2% and femoral medulla expansion was 3% over 4 yr. Calcium reduced bone loss, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and bone turnover. 25OH vitamin D3 was intermediate between placebo and calcium. Fracture rates and drop-out rates were similar among groups, and there were no serious adverse events with either supplement. A calcium supplement of 750 mg/day prevents loss of BMD, reduces femoral medullary expansion, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and high bone turnover. A supplement of 15 microg/day 25OH vitamin D3 is less effective, and because its effects are seen only at low calcium intakes, suggests that its beneficial effect is to reverse calcium insufficiency." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0913_22610", "title": "The use of cholecalciferol in patients with hip fracture.", "score": 0.012763750947309641, "content": "Major osteoporotic fractures are steadily increasing due to population aging. Programs of secondary prevention against refracture are essential to decrease morbidity and mortality and the cost for individuals and the society. Vitamin D supplementation and optimization of calcium intake are of a pivotal importance to start specific osteoporosis treatment and for its safety and efficacy. Cholecalciferol is the most widely employed drug for vitamin D supplementation. Aim of this study was to assess the trends in the use of vitamin D supplements containing cholecalciferol in the population of hip fracture patients older than 65 years, resident in the region of Tuscany (Italy) in the years 2011-2015 and to describe vitamin D status in a subgroup of this individuals directly referred to a bone clinic for further evaluation after hip osteoporotic fracture. Data were retrieved from the electronic anonymous regional administrative database administered by the Region of Tuscany (Italy) in the years 2011-2015 within the T.A.R.Ge.T. project (Trattamento Appropriato delle Rifratture Geriatriche in Toscana, i.e., \"Appropriate treatment of geriatric refractures in Tuscany\"), a program endorsed by the region itself. Data pertaining to cholecalciferol prescriptions and hospital discharge codes were retrieved and appropriately crossed to get data on the use of cholecalciferol supplements in patients before and after a hip fracture. A retrospective analysis was carried out in a subgroup of subjects (n 254) appropriately referred to the local fracture liaison service after the major osteoporotic fracture and vitamin D status in terms of serum 25(OH) vitamin D levels was assessed. The majority of subjects experiencing a hip fracture (98.2% and 88.3% in 2011 and 2015, respectively) did not receive vitamin D supplements at the time of the fracture event. Although a trend in increase in prescriptions for cholecalciferol supplements could be observed in the years of the study, the percentage of treated individuals remained low even after the fracture, since only 30-35% of subjects receives cholecalciferol supplements at one year after the fracture. Cholecalciferol remained the most prescribed drug in this population, while a substantial decrease of cholecalciferol in association with calcium salts was observed. The use of high doses of cholecalciferol has decreased in this population, while diminished the use of the drops has been accompanied by an increase in prescriptions of single monthly dose supplements. The correction of vitamin D inadequacy is preliminary to any treatment for osteoporosis and together with calcium may reduce fracture risk by itself. The prescription of vitamin D supplements is low in patients before and after a hip fracture in a Mediterranean region and despite the overall increase in vitamin use and abuse in the general population. Proper educational programs and active fracture liaison services are needed in order to bridge this gap." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1145_11485", "title": "What is the impact of daily oral supplementation of vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) plus calcium on the incidence of hip fracture in older people? A systematic review and meta-analysis.", "score": 0.01256885142878267, "content": "Hip fractures have a huge impact in reducing the quality of life and increasing mortality. This review aims to assess the impact of daily oral supplementation of vitamin D3 plus calcium on the incidence of hip fracture in people over 65 years. PRISMA guidelines were followed and RCTs that evaluated the effectiveness of daily oral supplementation of vitamin D3 plus calcium in preventing hip fracture in adults over 65 years were included in the study. The databases such as Cochrane Library, Embase, Medline, PubMed, CINAHL, Web of Science and Scopus were searched from October 2019- January 2020.The Cochrane risk of bias tool was used to check the quality of the included studies. A meta-analysis with fixed effect model using Review Manager (Revman 5.3) was used to analyse the data. The meta-analysis of seven RCTs on vitamin D3 plus calcium supplementation and hip fracture (n = 12,620) identified odds ratio (OR) of 0.75; 95% Confidence interval (CI): 0.64, 0.87; p = .0003. Daily oral supplementation of 800 IU of Vitamin D3 plus 1200 mg of calcium was found more effective (n = 5676 participants; OR = 0.69; 95% CI: 0.58, 0.82; p < .0001) than daily oral supplementation of 800 IU of Vitamin D3 plus 1000 mg of calcium (n = 6555,OR = 1.08; 95% CI: 0.74, 1.56; p = .70) in reducing hip fracture. A meta-analysis of the seven RCTs to identify the incidence of non-vertebral fracture gave the OR of 0.80; 95% CI: 0.72, 0.89; p < .0001. A meta-analysis of three RCTs on femoral neck bone mineral density (BMD) (n = 483) gave a mean difference of 1.21; 95% CI: -0.79, 3.20; p = .24. Daily oral supplementation 800 IU of vitamin D3 plus 1200 mg of calcium reduces hip fracture and non-vertebral fracture in older people. Administering vitamin D3 and calcium supplements had no effect in increasing the femoral neck BMD. Even though it is evident from the review that optimal daily intake of vitamin D3 plus calcium supplementation help in the prevention of fracture, it is only one essential element in fracture prevention. Also, people who are on dietary supplements should be compliant with same for better result. Efforts to prevent bone loss and osteoporosis should begin from an early age. It includes maintaining a healthy lifestyle, optimal intake of calcium and vitamin D3, proper nutrition, adequate exposure to sunlight, exercise etc. Proper education on healthy lifestyle, avoiding risk factors like smoking, caffeine, alcohol and awareness of bone health should continue throughout life with emphasis during menopause when increased bone loss is expected." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0480_21551", "title": "A randomised, controlled comparison of different calcium and vitamin D supplementation regimens in elderly women after hip fracture: The Nottingham Neck of Femur (NONOF) Study.", "score": 0.012470469772665659, "content": "survivors of hip fracture are at 5- to 10-fold risk of a second hip fracture. There is little consensus about secondary prevention. Many are given calcium and vitamin D, but the evidence supporting this is circumstantial. to compare the effects of different calcium and vitamin D supplementation regimens on bone biochemical markers, bone mineral density and rate of falls in elderly women post-hip fracture. randomised controlled trial. orthogeriatric rehabilitation ward. 150 previously independent elderly women, recruited following surgery for hip fracture, were assigned to receive a single injection of 300,000 units of vitamin D(2), injected vitamin D(2) plus 1 g/day oral calcium, 800 units/day oral vitamin D(3) plus 1 g/day calcium, or no treatment. Follow-up was one year, with measurement of 25-hydroxyvitamin D, parathyroid hormone, bone mineral density, and falls. mean 25-hydroxyvitamin D increased and mean parathyroid hormone was suppressed in all the actively treated groups, more so in the group receiving combined oral vitamin D and calcium. Twenty per cent of participants injected with vitamin D were deficient in 25-hydroxyvitamin D a year later. Bone mineral density showed small but statistically significant differences of up to 4.6% between actively treated groups and placebo. Relative risk of falling in the groups supplemented with vitamin D was 0.48 (95% CI 0.26-0.90) compared with controls. Vitamin D supplementation, either orally or with injected vitamin D, suppresses parathyroid hormone, increases bone mineral density and reduces falls. Effects may be more marked with calcium co-supplementation. The 300,000 units of injected vitamin D may not last a whole year." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_33474", "title": "Bone fracture", "score": 0.012408012408012408, "content": "Other A Cochrane review of low-intensity pulsed ultrasound to speed healing in newly broken bones found insufficient evidence to justify routine use. Other reviews have found tentative evidence of benefit. It may be an alternative to surgery for established nonunions. Vitamin D supplements combined with additional calcium marginally reduces the risk of hip fractures and other types of fracture in older adults; however, vitamin D supplementation alone did not reduce the risk of fractures. Children" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0617_17583", "title": "Calcium and vitamin d in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.", "score": 0.01227106227106227, "content": "An increasing prevalence of calcium and/or vitamin D deficiency in the general population (especially, but not only, in elderly subjects) has been emphasized in recent epidemiologic studies. These deficiencies could be responsible for accelerated bone loss mediated by secondary hyperpara-thyroidism and increased bone turnover and could explain the dramatic increase of the incidence of osteoporotic fractures with age. High calcium intake in prepubertal girls seems to be associated with higher peak bone mass in late adolescence. Calcium supplementation could slow bone turnover and bone loss in particular subsets of patients, including calcium-deficient postmenopausal women and elderly patients. A specific antif-racture effect of calcium supplementation in postmenopausal osteoporotic patients has not been established, but a calcium-plus-low-dose-vitamin D3 supplementation has been suggested to decrease the peripheral fracture incidence (especially hip fracture) in elderly institutionalized women. After a critical review of these data, some practical recommendations are suggested." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0624_21250", "title": "Prevention of nonvertebral fractures with oral vitamin D and dose dependency: a meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials.", "score": 0.01226321741588917, "content": "Antifracture efficacy with supplemental vitamin D has been questioned by recent trials. We performed a meta-analysis on the efficacy of oral supplemental vitamin D in preventing nonvertebral and hip fractures among older individuals (> or =65 years). We included 12 double-blind randomized controlled trials (RCTs) for nonvertebral fractures (n = 42 279) and 8 RCTs for hip fractures (n = 40 886) comparing oral vitamin D, with or without calcium, with calcium or placebo. To incorporate adherence to treatment, we multiplied the dose by the percentage of adherence to estimate the mean received dose (dose x adherence) for each trial. The pooled relative risk (RR) was 0.86 (95% confidence interval [CI], 0.77-0.96) for prevention of nonvertebral fractures and 0.91 (95% CI, 0.78-1.05) for the prevention of hip fractures, but with significant heterogeneity for both end points. Including all trials, antifracture efficacy increased significantly with a higher dose and higher achieved blood 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels for both end points. Consistently, pooling trials with a higher received dose of more than 400 IU/d resolved heterogeneity. For the higher dose, the pooled RR was 0.80 (95% CI, 0.72-0.89; n = 33 265 subjects from 9 trials) for nonvertebral fractures and 0.82 (95% CI, 0.69-0.97; n = 31 872 subjects from 5 trials) for hip fractures. The higher dose reduced nonvertebral fractures in community-dwelling individuals (-29%) and institutionalized older individuals (-15%), and its effect was independent of additional calcium supplementation. Nonvertebral fracture prevention with vitamin D is dose dependent, and a higher dose should reduce fractures by at least 20% for individuals aged 65 years or older." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1027_7405", "title": "Real-world effectiveness of osteoporosis treatment in the oldest old.", "score": 0.012191827085444105, "content": "We studied effectiveness of osteoporosis treatment in women older than 80 years, who often are not included in clinical trials. Treatments were as effective on bone density and fractures as in younger women. To study real-world effectiveness of osteoporosis treatment on BMD and fractures in the oldest old women (≥ 80 years) compared with women (60-79 years) in the clinical setting using Swedish health register data. National registers and data from DXA machines were used to study effectiveness of all available osteoporosis treatments in women 60-79 and ≥ 80 years using three approaches: (1) Total Hip BMD change up to 8 years after treatment start; (2) fracture incidence where patients served as their own controls, comparing the first 3 months after treatment start with the subsequent 12 months; and (3) comparison of fracture incidence post-fracture in women ≥ 80 years treated with osteoporosis treatment or calcium/vitamin D. Analysis 1: Total Hip BMD increased by up to 6.7% and 7.7% in women 60-79 and ≥ 80 years old, respectively. The mean increase in BMD was 1.1%-units per year in both age groups. Analysis 2: Relative to the 3-month baseline, fracture incidence decreased during the subsequent 12 months of treatment. Incidence rate ratios were estimated at 0.65, 0.74, 0.29, and 0.81 for any, hip, vertebral, and non-hip-non-vertebral fracture, respectively. Analysis 3: A 24-month incidence of any fracture in women ≥ 80 years given post-fracture osteoporosis treatment was lower (HR = 0.78) than in women given calcium/vitamin D, but treatment allocation was not random, with lower mortality (HR = 0.51) in patients receiving OP treatment. Osteoporosis medication in women > 80 years in clinical practice likely works, and the magnitude of effect is similar to what was estimated in younger women. The choice between osteoporosis treatment and calcium/vitamin D after fracture in women ≥ 80 years is not random but appears associated with the patient's health status and presence of vertebral fractures, rather than the known risk profile of sustaining a fracture at a high age." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0532_1411", "title": "Calcium, vitamin D and involutional osteoporosis.", "score": 0.012187557015143222, "content": "Previous studies suggest that combined calcium and vitamin D supplementation decreases the risk of fractures in older people, particularly those living in care homes, but trials of vitamin D alone in fracture prevention have generated inconsistent results. This review examines the physiological functions of calcium and vitamin D, and the contrasting views of what constitutes an adequate dietary calcium intake and vitamin D sufficiency in adults, and highlights the results of recent large studies of calcium and vitamin D supplementation. The RECORD study shows that calcium (1000 mg/day) and vitamin D (800 IU/day), either alone or in combination, are ineffective in the secondary prevention of osteoporotic fractures in older men and women living in the community. The Northern and Yorkshire Study also suggests that calcium (1000 mg/day) and vitamin D (800 IU/day) are of no benefit in the primary prevention of fractures in community-dwelling older women. Furthermore, the Wessex study demonstrated no reduction in fractures in older people living in the community treated with annual IM injections of vitamin D (300 000 IU). The latest studies highlight that vitamin D, either alone or in combination with calcium supplementation, is ineffective in the primary or secondary prevention of fractures in community-dwelling older people. In contrast, calcium and vitamin D supplementation prevents fractures in institutionalized elderly people, who commonly have vitamin D deficiency and secondary hyperparathyroidism." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Treatment with cloxacillin and ceftriaxone should be initiated pending the result of the fluid culture.", "2": "It is advisable to perform daily arthrocentesis to relieve symptoms and avoid joint destruction.", "3": "If the culture is negative, it is probably reactive arthritis.", "4": "The negativity of the Gram stain rules out septic arthritis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0705_7704", "title": "Approach to septic arthritis.", "score": 0.019324122479462285, "content": "Prompt diagnosis and treatment of infectious arthritis can help prevent significant morbidity and mortality. The acute onset of monoarticular joint pain, erythema, heat, and immobility should raise suspicion of sepsis. Constitutional symptoms such as fever, chills, and rigors are poorly sensitive for septic arthritis. In the absence of peripheral leukopenia or prosthetic joint replacement, synovial fluid white blood cell count in patients with septic arthritis is usually greater than 50,000 per mm3. Isolation of the causative agent through synovial fluid culture is not only definitive but also essential before selecting antibiotic therapy. Synovial fluid analysis is also useful to help distinguish crystal arthropathy from infectious arthritis, although the two occasionally coexist. Almost any microorganism can be pathogenic in septic arthritis; however, septic arthritis is caused by nongonococcal pathogens (most commonly Staphylococcus species) in more than 80 percent of patients. Gram stain results should guide initial antibiotic choice. Vancomycin can be used for gram-positive cocci, ceftriaxone for gram-negative cocci, and ceftazidime for gram-negative rods. If the Gram stain is negative, but there is strong clinical suspicion for bacterial arthritis, treatment with vancomycin plus ceftazidime or an aminoglycoside is appropriate. Evacuation of purulent material with arthrocentesis or surgical methods is necessary. Special consideration should be given to patients with prosthetic joint infection. In this population, the intraarticular cutoff values for infection may be as low as 1,100 white blood cells per mm3 with a neutrophil differential of greater than 64 percent." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_60828", "title": "Septic arthritis", "score": 0.01916024935826916, "content": "Diagnosis Septic arthritis should be considered whenever a person has rapid onset pain in a swollen joint, regardless of fever. One or multiple joints can be affected at the same time. The diagnosis of septic arthritis is based on physical exam and prompt arthrocentesis which yields synovial fluid from within the affected joint. This fluid should be collected before the administration of antibiotics and should be sent for gram stain, culture, leukocyte count with differential, and crystal studies. This can include NAAT testing for N. gonorrhoeae if suspected in a sexually active person." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_60834", "title": "Septic arthritis", "score": 0.018041446566436407, "content": "The Gram stain can rule in the diagnosis of septic arthritis, however, cannot exclude it. Synovial fluid cultures are positive in over 90% of nongonoccocal arthritis; however, it is possible for the culture to be negative if the person received antibiotics prior to the joint aspiration. Cultures are usually negative in gonoccocal arthritis or if fastidious organisms are involved. If the culture is negative or if a gonococcal cause is suspected, NAAT testing of the synovial fluid should be done. Positive crystal studies do not rule out septic arthritis. Crystal-induced arthritis such as gout can occur at the same time as septic arthritis. A lactate level in the synovial fluid of greater than 10 mmol/l makes the diagnosis very likely." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1048_2763", "title": "[Arthrocentesis in the Emergency Department].", "score": 0.017323775388291517, "content": "Arthrocentesis in the Emergency Department <bAbstract.</b Acute joint swelling is a common presentation to the emergency department. Although routine investigations like clinical exam, labs and eventually x-ray are usually obtained, definitive diagnosis must be established since timely recognition of septic arthritis in particular is crucial. Definitive diagnosis is achieved by performing an arthrocentesis of the affected joint. While arthrocentesis of larger joints and large effusions (e. g. knee) are relatively easy to perform using the landmark-technique, smaller and less accessible joints (shoulder, elbow, hip) are more difficult to access and it is therefore recommended to use ultrasound guidance. Compared with the landmark-technique, ultrasound-guided arthrocentesis is more successful and less painful. Synovial fluid should be analyzed for cell count with differential, crystals as well as for microbiological analysis such as Gram-stain and culture. Once the diagnosis of septic arthritis has been established, irrigation of the joint should be performed by orthopedic surgery. Antibiotic therapy should be withheld until the sampling of synovial fluid has been completed. After exclusion of septic arthritis, acute arthritis due to crystal arthropathy (CPPD or gout) is treated with either glucocorticoid-infiltration of the joint or with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. In this article, the different technical aspects of arthrocentesis are discussed, including asepsis, landmark- and ultrasound-guided access, preanalytics and interpretation of the laboratory results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0565_6409", "title": "Does this adult patient have septic arthritis?", "score": 0.015746109246261825, "content": "In patients who present with an acutely painful and swollen joint, prompt identification and treatment of septic arthritis can substantially reduce morbidity and mortality. To review the accuracy and precision of the clinical evaluation for the diagnosis of nongonococcal bacterial arthritis. Structured PubMed and EMBASE searches (1966 through January 2007), limited to human, English-language articles and using the following Medical Subject Headings terms: arthritis, infectious, physical examination, medical history taking, diagnostic tests, and sensitivity and specificity. Studies were included if they contained original data on the accuracy or precision of historical items, physical examination, serum, or synovial fluid laboratory data for diagnosing septic arthritis. Three authors independently abstracted data from the included studies. Fourteen studies involving 6242 patients, of whom 653 met the gold standard for the diagnosis of septic arthritis, satisfied all inclusion criteria. Two studies examined risk factors and found that age, diabetes mellitus, rheumatoid arthritis, joint surgery, hip or knee prosthesis, skin infection, and human immunodeficiency virus type 1 infection significantly increase the probability of septic arthritis. Joint pain (sensitivity, 85%; 95% confidence interval [CI], 78%-90%), a history of joint swelling (sensitivity, 78%; 95% CI, 71%-85%), and fever (sensitivity, 57%; 95% CI, 52%-62%) are the only findings that occur in more than 50% of patients. Sweats (sensitivity, 27%; 95% CI, 20%-34%) and rigors (sensitivity, 19%; 95% CI, 15%-24%) are less common findings in septic arthritis. Of all laboratory findings readily available to the clinician, the 2 most powerful were the synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) count and percentage of polymorphonuclear cells from arthrocentesis. The summary likelihood ratio (LR) increased as the synovial fluid WBC count increased (for counts &lt;25,000/microL: LR, 0.32; 95% CI, 0.23-0.43; for counts &gt; or =25,000/microL: LR, 2.9; 95% CI, 2.5-3.4; for counts &gt;50,000/microL: LR, 7.7; 95% CI, 5.7-11.0; and for counts &gt;100,000/microL: LR, 28.0; 95% CI, 12.0-66.0). On the same synovial fluid sample, a polymorphonuclear cell count of at least 90% suggests septic arthritis with an LR of 3.4 (95% CI, 2.8-4.2), while a polymorphonuclear cell count of less than 90% lowers the likelihood (LR, 0.34; 95% CI, 0.25-0.47). Clinical findings identify patients with peripheral, monoarticular arthritis who might have septic arthritis. However, the synovial WBC and percentage of polymorphonuclear cells from arthrocentesis are required to assess the likelihood of septic arthritis before the Gram stain and culture test results are known." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0529_20435", "title": "[Diagnosis of septic arthritis and initial antibiotic treatment].", "score": 0.01566111881645862, "content": "This study was designed to determine the similarities and differences in clinical, laboratory and radiographic presentation of septic arthritis in childhood and at adult ages, to find out its etiological profile, and to establish an antibiotic treatment protocol for the initial period and for patients in whom the causative agent could not be identified. Thirty-four patients (age range 15 months to 85 years) who underwent surgery with a diagnosis of septic arthritis were retrospectively studied in two groups, namely, children-adolescents (age = or &lt; 15 years ; 16 patients) and adults (age &gt;15 years; 18 patients). Clinical and laboratory findings of septic arthritis were compared with operation findings. The etiological profile and sensitivity patterns were investigated. Unflatering features in both groups were clinical findings of decreased range of motion and tenderness, laboratory findings of elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein, and domination of polymorphonuclear leukocytes in the joint fluid. Gram staining of the joint fluid was highly informative in terms of probable bacteria. During the first two years of life, the most common bacteria were H. influenzae and S. pneumoniae, and after two years, staphylococci and streptococci. Ciprofloxacin and sulbactam-ampicillin were found effective against most of the Gram-positive microorganisms isolated in both groups. The most useful test for septic arthritis is arthrosynthesis and macroscopic and microscopic analyses of the material. Gram staining is of great help in the planning of initial antibiotic treatment. For patients older than two years of age, treatment with sulbactam-ampicillin is effective against staphylococci and streptococci, and amikacin against Gram-negative bacteria. Detection of Gram-negative bacteria in patients younger than two years should bring H. influenzae in mind, for which ampicillin must be the first choice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0417_620", "title": "Septic arthritis caused by Granulicatella adiacens: diagnosis by inoculation of synovial fluid into blood culture bottles.", "score": 0.015518207282913164, "content": "Granulicatella species, formerly known as nutritionally variant streptococci, cause a variety of infections, primarily endocarditis. We report the first culture-proven case of a Granulicatella species causing septic arthritis. A 68-year-old female presented with knee pain and swelling. She was initially evaluated with arthrocentesis and arthroscopy, but no organism was identified. Her pain improved after a brief course of antibiotics but recurred 3 months later. She underwent repeat arthrocentesis, with direct inoculation of synovial fluid into blood culture bottles. Granulicatella adiacens was recovered from both bottles. She was treated with cefazolin for 4 weeks combined with gentamicin for the first 2 weeks. Her knee pain and swelling resolved without evidence of recurrence. Granulicatella should be considered in cases of septic arthritis with initially negative synovial fluid cultures. Inoculation of blood cultures bottles with synovial fluid may increase the diagnostic yield for these species." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0579_11075", "title": "How sensitive is the synovial fluid white blood cell count in diagnosing septic arthritis?", "score": 0.014870689655172414, "content": "This study was conducted to determine the sensitivity of the current standard for synovial fluid leukocytosis analysis in diagnosing infectious arthritis or a septic joint. How accurate is the standard synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) cutoff of 50,000 WBC/mm3 to rule out septic arthritis? We conducted a retrospective study at an urban tertiary care medical center with 50,000 adult emergency department visits per year. The study population consisted of patients with infectious arthritis confirmed by synovial fluid culture growth of a pathogenic organism. The study period lasted from January 1996 to December 2002. Extracted data included synovial fluid leukocyte count, Gram's stain, culture, past medical history, and discharge diagnosis. Fisher exact test was used to compare proportions. Sensitivity and means were calculated with 95% confidence intervals (CI). There were 49 culture-positive synovial fluid aspirates in the 6-year study period. Nineteen (39%) of 49 patients (95% CI, 25%-52%) had a synovial WBC of less than 50,000/mm3 and 30 (61%) of 49 patients (95% CI, 48%-75%) had a synovial WBC of more than 50,000/mm3. The sensitivity of the 50,000 synovial WBC/mm3 cutoff was 61% (95% CI, 48%-75%). Twenty-seven (55%) of 49 patients had a negative Gram's stain (95% CI, 41%-69%) and 15 (56%) of 27 patients (95% CI, 37%-74%) with negative Gram's stain had a synovial WBC of less than 50,000/mm3. A synovial fluid WBC cutoff of 50,000/mm3 lacks the sensitivity required to be clinically useful in ruling out infectious arthritis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0955_23546", "title": "Gram Stain is Not Clinically Relevant in Treatment of Pediatric Septic Arthritis.", "score": 0.014685756395410043, "content": "The diagnosis of pediatric septic arthritis (SA) can be challenging due to wide variability in the presentation of musculoskeletal infection. Synovial fluid Gram stain is routinely obtained and often used as an initial indicator of the presence or absence of pediatric SA. The purpose of this study was to examine the clinical utility of the Gram stain results from a joint aspiration in the diagnosis and management of pediatric SA. All patients with suspected SA who underwent arthrocentesis and subsequent surgical irrigation and debridement at an urban tertiary care children's hospital between January 2007 and October 2016 were identified. Results of the synovial fluid Gram stain, as well as synovial cell count/differential and serum markers, were evaluated. A total of 302 patients that underwent incision and drainage for suspected SA were identified. In total, 102 patients (34%) had positive synovial fluid cultures and 47 patients (16%) had a microorganism detected on Gram stain. Gram stain sensitivity and specificity for the detection of SA were 0.40 and 0.97, respectively. This yielded a number needed to misdiagnose of 4.5 (ie, every fifth patient was misdiagnosed by Gram stain). For gram-negative organisms, the sensitivity dropped further to 0.13, with only 2/16 gram-negative organisms identified on Gram stain. Stepwise regression showed that age, serum white blood cell, and absolute neutrophil count were significant independent predictors for having a true positive Gram stain result. Elevated synovial white blood cell count was a significant predictor of having an accurate (culture matching the Gram stain) result. The Gram stain result is a poor screening tool for the detection of SA and is particularly ineffective for the detection of gram-negative organisms. The clinical relevance of the Gram stain and cost-effectiveness of this test performed on every joint aspiration sent for culture requires additional evaluation. Patients with gram-negative SA may be at high risk for inadequate coverage with empiric antibiotics due to poor detection of gram-negative organisms on initial Gram stain. Level III-case-control study." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0407_10692", "title": "Gram staining in the diagnosis of acute septic arthritis.", "score": 0.014314038396440833, "content": "This study aimed at determining the sensitivity and specificity of Gram staining of synovial fluid as a diagnostic tool in acute septic arthritis. A retrospective study was made of 22 patients who had arthroscopic lavage following a provisional diagnosis of acute septic arthritis of the knee joint. Gram stains and cultures of the knee aspirates were compared with the clinical and laboratory parameters, to evaluate their usefulness in diagnosing acute arthritis. All patients who had septic arthritis had pain, swelling and limitation of movement. CRP was elevated in 90% of patients. The incidence of elevated white blood cell count was higher in the group of patients with a positive Gram stain study (60%) as compared to patients with a negative Gram stain study (33%). Gram staining sensitivity was 45%. Its specificity was however 100%. Gram staining is an unreliable tool in early decision making in patients requiring urgent surgical drainage and washout." }, { "id": "article-17857_17", "title": "Septic Arthritis -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.013678816431110009, "content": "Treatment of septic arthritis comprises antimicrobial therapy and joint fluid drainage (arthrotomy, arthroscopy, or daily needle aspiration). Empiric intravenous antimicrobial therapy should be initiated promptly after joint aspiration is complete and cultures obtained. Empiric antibiotic coverage includes antistaphylococcal coverage (nafcillin, oxacillin, or vancomycin) for all age and risk categories. Empiric antibiotics for nongonococcal septic arthritis usually involves the use of intravenous vancomycin directed against gram-positive organisms especially if there is a suspicion of MRSA based on community and institutional data. If the patient is immunocompromised, abuses intravenous drugs or the gram stain is negative, then a third-generation cephalosporin like ceftriaxone, ceftazidime or cefotaxime should be added for the additional gram-negative coverage. [4] [6] Age, risk factors, and gram stain result should direct additional antibiotics (e.g., a third-generation cephalosporin for suspected Salmonella or N. gonorrhea ). Blood and synovial fluid cultures and sensitivities should direct prolonged antimicrobial treatment. Early involvement by an orthopedic surgeon is essential. The procedure used to drain joint fluid depends on multiple factors and is determined by the orthopedic surgeon." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_4643", "title": "[Two cases of pneumococcal septic arthritis complicating rheumatoid arthritis].", "score": 0.013664770077418151, "content": "It is reported that most of the causative organisms of suppurative arthritis complicating rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is Staphylococcus aureus and that Streptococcus pneumoniae is rare, representing less than 5% of cases of suppurative arthritis complicating RA. We here report two cases of pneumococcal septic arthritis complicating RA. Both were female, and 68 and 64 years old, respectively. They had active, long-standing RA with destructed changes. Infected joints included both knees (case 1) and right knee (case 2). Pain and loss of motion in the septic joints were prominent. On admission, the physical examination showed severe redness, swelling and tenderness of the septic joints and the range of motion of those was markedly decreased. The radiograph of affected joints showed stage III. Laboratory data showed markedly elevated ESR of 127 mm/hr (case 1) and 142 mm/hr (case 2) and C-reactive protein of 49.91 mg/dl (case 1) and 30.36 mg/dl (case 2). Aspirate of the left knee of case 1 showed numerous neutrophils. Cultures of the joint fluid grew S. pneumoniae. Grossly purulent material was aspirated from the right knee of case 2 and cultures also grew S. pneumoniae. They were started on intravenous antibiotics with a good response and the function of involved joints returned to preseptic condition. The source of infection on case 1 was presumed to be otitis media because she had discharge from left ear concurrently with the exacerbation of joint symptoms. Case 2 had productive cough and cultures of sputum also disclosed S. pneumoniae when pain of right knee joint developed. The suggested source of infection was upper respiratory tract.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_60833", "title": "Septic arthritis", "score": 0.013379273313048147, "content": "In the joint fluid, the typical white blood cell count in septic arthritis is over 50,000-100,000 cells per 10−6/l (50,000-100,000 cell/mm3); where more than 90% are neutrophils is suggestive of septic arthritis. For those with prosthetic joints, white cell count more than 1,100 per mm3 with neutrophil count greater than 64% is suggestive of septic arthritis. However, septic synovial fluid can have white blood cell counts as low as a few thousand in the early stages. Therefore, differentiation of septic arthritis from other causes is not always possible based on cell counts alone. Synovial fluid PCR analysis is useful in finding less common organisms such as Borrelia species. However, measuring protein and glucose levels in joint fluid is not useful for diagnosis. The Gram stain can rule in the diagnosis of septic arthritis, however, cannot exclude it." }, { "id": "article-23916_15", "title": "Knee Effusion -- Evaluation -- Septic Arthritis", "score": 0.013325647633256476, "content": "Joint fluid appears cloudy or purulent. A cell count with WBC greater than 50,000 is considered diagnostic for septic arthritis. However, lower counts may still indicate infection (not sensitive). [9] A prosthetic joint with WBC greater than 1100 is considered septic. Gram stains only identify infective organisms one-third of the time. Glucose will be less than 50% of the serum level." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en168_21129", "title": "Arthrocentesis", "score": 0.013057150669948045, "content": "Arthrocentesis, or joint aspiration, is the clinical procedure performed to diagnose and, in some cases, treat musculoskeletal conditions. The procedure entails using a syringe to collect synovial fluid from or inject medication into the joint capsule. Laboratory analysis of synovial fluid can further help characterize the diseased joint and distinguish between gout, arthritis, and synovial infections such as septic arthritis. Uses In general, arthrocentesis should be strongly considered if there is suspected trauma, infection, or effusion of the joint. Diagnostic Arthrocentesis can be used to diagnose septic arthritis or crystal arthropathy. In the case of a septic joint, arthrocentesis should preferably be performed prior to starting treatment with antibiotics, in order to ensure a proper sample of synovial fluid is obtained." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0991_14358", "title": "Primary Meningococcal Septic Arthritis Case Report and Literature Review of an Unusual Manifestation of Meningococcal Disease.", "score": 0.013026723632403451, "content": "Primary meningococcal septic arthritis (PMSA) is an unusual manifestation of meningococcal disease. It is defined as the presence of acute septic arthritis without association with meningitis or the classic meningococcemia and isolation of Neisseria meningitidis in synovial fluid and blood culture. Diagnosis and early treatment, combining antibiotic and joint drainage, are fundamental. We present the case of a healthy 17-year-old male who presented with history of an acute onset, painful knee accompanied by fever. N. meningitidis was cultured from the synovial fluid. He was treated with arthroscopic lavage and intravenous ceftriaxone for 2 weeks. He was discharged 7 days after admission receiving outpatient intravenous ceftriaxione for 6 days and was ultimately transitioned to oral ciprofloxacin for 2 weeks thereafter. At the final follow-up visit, he had returned to sports activity with a normal knee joint. We have done an exhaustive literature review in PubMed. Forty-four articles were included, with a total of 46 patients, to which we added ours. We collected the available demographic data, analytical values, culture tests, treatment, and evolution. This case illustrates an unusual presentation of N. meningitidis infection. Diagnostic suspicion is essential. Joint washing and antibiotics are the mainstays of treatment. Early and proper treatment prevents complications and mortality. Our main objective was to evaluate the diagnostics tools and treatment in PMSA. As a secondary objective, we evaluated the cases with negative cultures in order to evaluate the criteria for the diagnostic suspicion of PMSA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0902_1815", "title": "Clinical presentation and treatment of septic arthritis in children.", "score": 0.012958626073380173, "content": "The aim of this study is to determine the epidemiological features, clinical presentation, and treatment of children with septic arthritis. A retrospective review was conducted on a total of 141 children with septic arthritis treated in Hospital Universitario La Paz (Madrid) between the years 2000 to 2013. The patient data collected included, the joint affected, the clinical presentation, the laboratory results, the appearance, Gram stain result, and the joint fluid culture, as well as the imaging tests and the treatment. Most (94%) of the patients were less than 2 years-old. The most common location was the knee (52%), followed by the hip (21%). The septic arthritis was confirmed in 53%. No type of fever was initially observed in 49% of them, and 18% had an ESR (mm/h) or CRP (mg/l) less than 30 in the initial laboratory analysis. The joint fluid was purulent in 45% and turbid in 12%. The Gram stain showed bacteria in 4%. The fluid culture was positive in 17%. Staphylococcus aureus was the most common pathogen found, followed by Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Kingella kingae. Antibiotic treatment was intravenous administration for 7 days, followed by 21 days orally. Surgery was performed in 18% of cases. The diagnosis was only confirmed in 53% of the patients. Some of the confirmed septic arthritis did not present with the classical clinical/analytical signs, demonstrating that the traumatologist or paediatrician requires a high initial level of clinical suspicion of the disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_60838", "title": "Septic arthritis", "score": 0.012755000990295109, "content": "Empiric antibiotics for suspected bacteria should be started. This should be based on Gram stain of the synovial fluid as well as other clinical findings. General guidelines are as follows: Gram positive cocci – vancomycin Gram negative cocci – Ceftriaxone Gram negative bacilli – Ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or ceftazidime Gram stain negative and immunocompetent – vancomycin Gram stain negative and immunocompromised – vancomycin + third generation cephalosphorin IV drug use (possible pseudomonas aeruginosa) – ceftazidime +/- an aminoglycoside" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en067_58319", "title": "Reactive arthritis", "score": 0.01273562490099794, "content": "Reactive arthritis usually manifests about 1–3 weeks after a known infection. The mechanism of interaction between the infecting organism and the host is unknown. Synovial fluid cultures are negative, suggesting that reactive arthritis is caused either by an autoimmune response involving cross-reactivity of bacterial antigens with joint tissues or by bacterial antigens that have somehow become deposited in the joints. Diagnosis There are few clinical symptoms, but the clinical picture is dominated by arthritis in one or more joints, resulting in pain, swelling, redness, and heat sensation in the affected areas. The urethra, cervix and the throat may be swabbed in an attempt to culture the causative organisms. Cultures may also be carried out on urine and stool samples or on fluid obtained by arthrocentesis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0397_14562", "title": "Pneumococcal septic arthritis of the shoulder. Case report and literature review.", "score": 0.012725844461901021, "content": "Septic arthritis due to Streptococcus Pneumoniae appears to be relatively uncommon. Single- or clustered-case histories constitute the majority of reports on pneumococcal septic arthritis. A 70-year-old man presented with a 7-day history of pain, erythema and swelling of the left shoulder. Physical examination of the left shoulder revealed a warm, swollen, erythematous, and markedly tender to light palpation. The patient was unable to elevate his arm more than 30 degrees without pain. Arthrocentesis performed on admission produced 30 cc of grossly purulent fluid whose culture demonstrated S. Pneumoniae. The septic arthritis was treated with intravenous vancomycin and imipenem. The antibiotics were substituted when the sensitivities were known with oral ciprofloxacin and rifampycin to complete 8 weeks' total treatment. On follow-up examination 1 year later, the patient has remained afebrile and asymptomatic without evidence of increasing joint effusion or acute joint inflammation. Pneumococcal arthritis is classically described as a painful monoarticular arthritis complicating an active pneumococcal infection, generally a primary pulmonary infection. Pneumococcal arthritis appears to be predominantly a disease affecting the elderly. Clinical presentation ranges from septicemia to indolent infection with few systemic symptoms. With adequate antibiotic therapy and aspiration or drainage of the joint, the prognosis for return of normal joint function appears to be excellent. Although pneumococcal organisms are not likely causes, this bacteria should certainly be considered as a possible cause of arthritis or prosthetic infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0819_20872", "title": "[Primary meningococcal infection of the knee. A rare cause of septic arthritis].", "score": 0.012523225566703829, "content": "This article presents a case of primary septic arthritis of the knee due to serogroup C Neisseria meningitidis. A 19-year-old female presented to the emergency department with a painless but swollen knee joint which had started 2 days previously and fever (38 °C). The patient reported that she suddenly felt unwell 3 days ago and developed a rush at the same time which had almost disappeared when arrived at the emergency department. The patient was admitted to hospital and an antibiotic therapy was started with sulbactam and ampicillin. Initially, incubation of synovial fluid over the next 3 days did not result in detection of any pathogens; therefore, a reactive arthritis was assumed until Neisseria meningitidis was detected in cultures of the synovial fluid. Therapy was then switched to antibiotic therapy with ceftriaxon and arthroscopic irrigation was performed. The patient quickly recovered and was discharged from hospital after 14 days. This case example shows the difficulties of the clinical and microbiological diagnostics of a primary septic meningococcal arthritis; however, the treatment is relatively easy and mostly successful compared to other forms of bacterial joint infection. " }, { "id": "article-23916_14", "title": "Knee Effusion -- Evaluation -- Synovial Fluid Aspirate Analysis", "score": 0.01231060606060606, "content": "Complete cell count with differential (white blood cell [WBC], polymorphonuclear leukocytes) Crystal examination of synovial fluid Bacterial Culture and Gram staining of synovial fluid Viscosity (RA: expect decreased viscosity and poor mucin clot formation) [8] Glucose A low level of synovial-fluid glucose is suggestive of an infected joint, but low glucose levels are present in only about 50% of patients with septic joints and can also occur in rheumatoid arthritis. Fasting glucose levels are usually reduced to less than half of the simultaneously obtained blood levels. The presence of crystals cannot exclude septic arthritis with certainty.[8] Septic arthritis occurs concurrently with gout or pseudogout in less than 5% of cases." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en168_21130", "title": "Arthrocentesis", "score": 0.012025442258000398, "content": "Synovial Fluid Analysis Patients with a fever, suspected flare of existing arthritis, or unknown cause of joint effusion should undergo arthrocentesis with synovial fluid analysis. Samples of synovial fluid can be analyzed for gross appearance, presence of crystals, white blood cell count with differential, red blood cell count, and bacterial culture. Normal synovial fluid should not have any cells or crystals present and should appear colorless and clear." }, { "id": "article-17857_14", "title": "Septic Arthritis -- Evaluation -- Laboratory Studies", "score": 0.011995284409077513, "content": "The most useful diagnostic laboratory test for identifying septic arthritis is an evaluation of the synovial fluid from the affected joint (culture, Gram stain, crystals analysis, white blood cell count with differential). Synovial fluid with a white blood cell (WBC) count greater than 50,000 and 90% neutrophil predominance suggests a bacterial source. [5] Identification of a bacterial organism in the synovial fluid confirms the diagnosis. Other useful laboratory tests include a complete blood count, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein (CRP), and blood cultures. The peripheral blood WBC count is typically elevated with a left shift. An elevated ESR and CRP support the diagnosis but are not definitive. A low synovial fluid WBC count may occur in peripheral leukopenia, early infection, disseminated gonococcal arthritis, and the presence of joint prosthesis. [3] [4] [5] [6]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0798_15491", "title": "Microorganisms and their sensitivity pattern in septic arthritis of north Indian children: a prospective study from tertiary care level hospital.", "score": 0.011919568822553897, "content": "Background. Septic arthritis is a true orthopaedic emergency. Important factors determining outcome are rapid diagnosis and timely intervention. Changing trends in microbiological spectrum and emerging drug resistance poses big challenge. Present study evaluates bacterial strains and their sensitivity pattern in septic arthritis of North Indian children. Methods. Fifty children with septic arthritis of any joint were evaluated. Joint was aspirated and 2 cc of aspirated fluid was sent for gram stain and culture. Blood cultures were also sent for bacteriological evaluation. Results. Fifty percent cases had definite radiological evidence of septic arthritis whereas ultrasound revealed fluid in 98% cases. Aspirated fluid showed isolates in 72% cases. The most common organism was Staphylococcus aureus (62%) followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Gr. B Streptococcus. Blood culture could grow the organism in 34% cases only. The bacterial strain showed significant resistance to common antibiotic cocktail in routine practice. Resistance to cloxacillin and ceftriaxone was 62% and 14% respectively. No organisms were resistant to vancomycin and linezolid. Conclusion. S. aureus is still the most common organism in septic arthritis. Though a significant resistance to common antibiotic cocktail is noticed, the strain is susceptible to higher antibiotics. We recommend using these antibiotics as an empirical therapy till culture and sensitivity report is available. " }, { "id": "article-17857_15", "title": "Septic Arthritis -- Evaluation -- Laboratory Studies", "score": 0.011771439948235528, "content": "In prosthetic joint infections, synovial fluid WBC count of 1100 with a neutrophil differential of 64% suggests septic arthritis. [6] Two sets of blood cultures should be obtained to rule out bacteremia. If Neisseria is suspected, one should obtain cultures from the cervix, rectum, and throat." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0998_11735", "title": "Bilateral septic arthritis of the knee caused by group B streptococci: a case report.", "score": 0.011496098391188465, "content": "Septic arthritis (SA) remains to be a critical diagnosis for a swollen knee at the emergency department. Here, we report a rare case of bilateral knee arthritis in a 59-year-old diabetic woman who had been immobilized 5 months prior to admission. Her right knee swelling exacerbated in 10 days leading to left knee involvement. In 5 days the clear synovial tap in the first hospital turned purulent in the second hospital and empirical antibiotics get started with high WBC count, dominant neutrophils, and Gram-positive cocci in smear. Knee arthrotomy was performed after 6 days in the third hospital with the same smear results but negative blood and synovial cultures of both knees. When followed in retrograde, two positive blood cultures were reported for <iStreptococcus agalactiae</i in the second hospital. Vancomycin was changed to ampicillin and symptoms were resolved in 4 weeks. Despite improvement, mobility was not retained. Uncommon etiologic agents of knee arthritis should be in mind specifically in debilitated patients. Timely initiation of proper antibiotics hinders permanent sequels, hence clinicians should be suspicious of such organisms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en168_21132", "title": "Arthrocentesis", "score": 0.010785510785510785, "content": "Therapeutic Aspiration of synovial fluid in cases of joint effusion or hemarthrosis can help reduce pressure around the joints, thus providing pain relief. Corticosteroid medications may also be injected into the joint capsule to provide pain relief and anti-inflammatory effects, especially for rheumatoid arthritis and less commonly osteoarthritis. Care should be taken to ensure sepsis has been ruled out before injecting corticosteroids, as doing so may worsen the joint infection. Less commonly, recurrent joint aspirations may be performed for cases of septic arthritis. Procedure Ultrasound is often used in conjunction with arthrocentesis to help identify appropriate anatomic markers of the joint. Typically, a 22 gauge needle is used along with a 5 mL syringe, but the sizes can be modified depending on the size of the joint that the procedure is being performed on." }, { "id": "article-17855_12", "title": "Gonococcal Arthritis -- Evaluation", "score": 0.010752160251374706, "content": "In patients who demonstrate joint swelling and effusion, arthrocentesis and synovial fluid analysis should be performed. Typically, a synovial fluid analysis will show a white blood cell (WBC) count of 50,000 cells/mm3 or more; although, a cell count below 10,000 cells/mm3 is not uncommon. This may be associated with reduced glucose concentration and elevated LDH levels but these findings are non-diagnostic and of limited value. In patients who present with localized purulent arthritis, N. gonorrhoeae will be isolated in only about 50% (range of 25% to 75%) of synovial fluid specimens. This is even less in patients who present with the arthritis-dermatitis syndrome. NAAT of synovial fluid is more sensitive (greater than 75%) than culture and should be performed if available." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_10398", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010515392597717053, "content": "disease occasionally occur together. Organisms are seen on synovial fluid smears in nearly three-quarters of infections with S. aureus and streptococci and in 30–50% of infections due to gram-negative and other bacteria. Cultures of synovial fluid are positive in >90% of cases. Inoculation of synovial fluid into bottles containing liquid media for blood cultures increases the yield of a culture, especially if the pathogen is a fastidious organism or the patient is taking an antibiotic. NAA-based assays for bacterial DNA, when available, can be useful for the diagnosis of partially treated or culture-negative bacterial arthritis." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_10397", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010484330484330485, "content": "Laboratory Findings Specimens of peripheral blood and synovial fluid should be obtained before antibiotics are administered. Blood cultures are positive in up to 50–70% of S. aureus infections but are less frequently positive in infections due to other organisms. The synovial fluid is turbid, serosanguineous, or frankly purulent. Gram-stained smears confirm the presence of large numbers of neutrophils. Levels of total protein and lactate dehydrogenase in synovial fluid are elevated, and the glucose level is depressed; however, these findings are not specific for infection, and measurement of these levels is not necessary for diagnosis. The synovial fluid should be examined for crystals, because gout and pseudogout can resemble septic arthritis clinically, and infection and crystal-induced disease occasionally occur together. Organisms are seen on synovial fluid smears in nearly three-quarters of infections with S. aureus and streptococci and in 30–50% of infections due to" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_26030", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010405976276283443, "content": "An algorithm for synovial fluid aspiration and analysis is shown in Fig. 393-6. Synovial fluid should be analyzed immediately for appearance, viscosity, and cell count. Monosodium urate crystals (observed in gout) are seen by polarized microscopy and arelong,needle-shaped,negativelybirefringent,andusuallyintracellular. In chondrocalcinosis and pseudogout, calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are usually short, rhomboid-shaped, and positively birefringent. Whenever infection is suspected, synovial fluid should be Gram stained and cultured appropriately. If gonococcal arthritis is suspected, nucleic acid amplification tests should be used to detect either Chlamydia trachomatis or N. gonorrhoeae infection. Synovial fluid from patients withchronicmonarthritisshouldalsobeculturedfor M. tuberculosis and fungi. Last, it should be noted that crystal-induced arthritis and septic arthritis occasionally occur together in the same joint." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 158 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 26 ] ], "text": "When a severe flare does not respond to iv corticosteroid therapy at full doses (1mg/kg body weight), it is necessary to switch to cyclosporine or infliximab." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 159, 248 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 26, 40 ] ], "text": "Etanercept is not approved in Europe for inflammatory bowel disease (for the time being)." } }

{ "1": "Emergency subtotal colectomy and in a second time prostectomy and ileoanal reservoir.", "2": "Associate an immunosuppressant such as azathioprine.", "3": "Associate mesalazine in doses of 4g per day orally and rectal triamcinolone 1 application every 12 hours.", "4": "Intravenous cyclosporine 2mg/kg.", "5": "Treatment with etanercept (an anti-TNFa antibody) should be considered." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0257_19331", "title": "Cyclosporine for the treatment of fulminant ulcerative colitis in children. Immediate response, long-term results, and impact on surgery.", "score": 0.018532818532818532, "content": "Emergency surgery for fulminant colitis is often complicated by high-dose steroid therapy, poor nutrition, and psychologic maladjustment. Cyclosporine is effective for fulminant ulcerative colitis in adults, resulting in avoidance of immediate surgery in 75 percent of patients and a 55 percent long-term remission rate. Over the last five years, we studied the effectiveness of cyclosporine in children with fulminant colitis. Fourteen patients with ulcerative colitis (age, 7-20 years) received cyclosporine after satisfying the following criteria: 1) greater than five bloody diarrheal stools per day; 2) severe abdominal pain; 3) no improvement after ten days of bowel rest, 4) intravenous methylprednisolone (1-2 mg/kg/day); and 5) parenteral nutrition. Treatment was begun with oral cyclosporine (4.6-9.6 mg/kg/day), and the dose was adjusted to achieve whole blood trough levels measured with a monoclonal radioimmunoassay between 150 and 300 ng/ml. If improved, patients were discharged on oral cyclosporine, prednisone, and a regular diet. Eleven of 14 patients (78 percent) responded within two to nine days and were able to consume a normal diet, had three or less soft stools per day, and had no pain. One did not respond after ten days and underwent an ileal pouch-anal anastomosis procedure. Two patients elected surgery after 20 days of therapy and a partial response. Of 11 patients who left the hospital, 4 had recurrent symptoms after 2 to 11 months of taking therapeutic doses of cyclosporine and 3 flare ups while weaning from cyclosporine after 4 to 8 months. Three patients have been weaned from cyclosporine after 8 to 13 months and have remained in remission from six months to five years. One patient is about to complete a six-month course of cyclosporine. Overall ten (72 percent) have undergone surgery, including 7 of 11 who responded initially to cyclosporine and left the hospital. Weight (P &lt; 0.001), albumin (P &lt; 0.01), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (P &gt; 0.05), and prednisone dose (P &lt; 0.001) improved significantly in the seven patients on cyclosporine who responded initially, left the hospital, and subsequently underwent surgery. Cyclosporine is effective in achieving clinical remission in 80 percent of children with refractory fulminant colitis; however, within one year, most initial responders will require colectomy because of a flare up of the disease. In a majority of patients, the role of cyclosporine therapy is to rapidly ameliorate symptoms and prevent precipitous colectomy, improve nutrition and psychologic adaptation, and reduce the steroid dose leading to surgery in a well-prepared patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0280_6753", "title": "Continuously infused cyclosporine at low dose is sufficient to avoid emergency colectomy in acute attacks of ulcerative colitis without the need for high-dose steroids.", "score": 0.016473581999598204, "content": "A dosage of 4 mg/kg/day intravenous cyclosporine as an adjunct to high-dosage hydrocortisone has been recommended to avoid colectomy in acute steroid-resistant ulcerative colitis. In treating eight such patients, four of whom presented with toxic megacolon, we immediately tapered the steroid dosage and infused a lower dosage of only 2 mg/kg cyclosporine for 15 days to fit a therapeutic range of 60-240 ng/ml, as previously designed for a kidney transplant program. Seven of the eight (87.5%), including three with megacolon, went into remission and started the chronic phase of treatment; the eighth patient underwent colectomy. Of the seven, one died on day 3 of the chronic phase because of pulmonary embolism while in clinical remission, and another discontinued treatment. The other five (62.5%) remain in remission on 6 mg/kg oral cyclosporine, or have already switched from cyclosporine to azathioprine. Two episodes of reversible nephrotoxicity appeared in the chronic phase only. These results emphasize the efficacy and safety of cyclosporine in acute ulcerative colitis, but there is still a need for further dose-response and drug association relationship studies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0796_18485", "title": "The effectiveness and safety of rescue treatments in 108 patients with steroid-refractory ulcerative colitis with sequential rescue therapies in a subgroup of patients.", "score": 0.01611899427433408, "content": "Among patients with steroid-refractory ulcerative colitis (UC) in whom a first rescue therapy has failed, a second line salvage treatment can be considered to avoid colectomy. To evaluate the efficacy and safety of second or third line rescue therapy over a one-year period. Response to single or sequential rescue treatments with infliximab (5mg/kg intravenously (iv) at week 0, 2, 6 and then every 8weeks), ciclosporin (iv 2mg/kg/daily and then oral 5mg/kg/daily) or tacrolimus (0.05mg/kg divided in 2 doses) in steroid-refractory moderate to severe UC patients from 7 Swiss and 1 Serbian tertiary IBD centers was retrospectively studied. The primary endpoint was the one year colectomy rate. 60% of patients responded to the first rescue therapy, 10% went to colectomy and 30% non-responders were switched to a 2(nd) line rescue treatment. 66% of patients responded to the 2(nd) line treatment whereas 34% failed, of which 15% went to colectomy and 19% received a 3(rd) line rescue treatment. Among those, 50% patients went to colectomy. Overall colectomy rate of the whole cohort was 18%. Steroid-free remission rate was 39%. The adverse event rates were 33%, 37.5% and 30% for the first, second and third line treatment respectively. Our data show that medical intervention even with 2(nd) and 3(rd) rescue treatments decreased colectomy frequency within one year of follow up. A longer follow-up will be necessary to investigate whether sequential therapy will only postpone colectomy and what percentage of patients will remain in long-term remission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0415_16315", "title": "Infliximab salvage therapy after cyclosporine in an acute flare of chronic ulcerative colitis.", "score": 0.015741253151325095, "content": "Although infliximab (Remicade, Schering Canada Inc, Quebec) therapy has been well studied in steroid refractory Crohn's disease, its use remains controversial in chronic ulcerative colitis. A 24-year-old woman with a 14-year history of well controlled left sided ulcerative colitis presented with an acute flare. Clinical, endoscopic and biopsy evidence of an acute flare of ulcerative pancolitis were present. There was no response to intravenous steroids but improvement was seen after receiving 14 days of intravenous cyclosporine (4 mg/kg/day continuous infusion). The patient was discharged from hospital with azathioprine (2.5 mg/kg/day) and low dose oral cyclosporine (4 mg/kg/day). She presented with worsening symptoms seven days after discharge. Because of the patient's unwillingness for surgery, she instead received two injections of infliximab 5 mg/kg at week 0 and week 2. An initial response occurred, but her clinical improvement was not durable. Colectomy was performed four weeks later. This is the first report of infliximab as a salvage therapy in an acute flare of chronic ulcerative colitis following failure of cyclosporine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0854_13885", "title": "Successful use of infliximab and tacrolimus combination therapy in a patient with ulcerative colitis refractory to infliximab dose intensification plus azathioprine.", "score": 0.015613696648179406, "content": "To report of a case successful use of infliximab (IFX) and tacrolimus (TAC) in a patient with ulcerative colitis (UC). A 22-year-old woman diagnosed with UC started treatment with azathioprine 2.5 mg/kg. After 3 years of therapy, she developed a severe relapse. A colonoscopy was performed showing diffuse continuous mucosal disease and multiple erosions (&lt; 5 mm) with no signs of spontaneous bleeding. Treatment with IFX 5 mg/kg at weeks 0, 2, and 6 was started. After IFX induction, she remained with symptoms: six stools per day, as well as presenting bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, and no abdominal pain. An IFX dose intensification of 5 mg/kg every 6 weeks was prescribed. After 6 months of azathioprine plus IFX therapy, patient's clinical condition was improved: 3 - 4 stools per day, 20% of bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, and no abdominal pain. Her Mayo endoscopic subscore was 6.3 months later, and a severe relapse of ulcerative colitis was presented. The patient refused a surgical treatment. Azathioprine 2.5 mg/kg/day was suspended and TAC 0.2 mg/kg/day (12 mg/day) as a compassionate use was added to IFX dose intensification of 10 mg/kg every 8 weeks and mesalamine 800 mg 3 times daily. After the first month of combined therapy, the patient's clinical condition improved with no bloody stools and abdominal pain. After 6 months of combination therapy, the patient was in remission, with two stools per day, no tenesmus and no abdominal pain. Due to the patient's clinical remission, IFX was suspended. Tacrolimus was continued on 10 mg/day. After 6 months of TAC monotherapy, the patient continued without symptoms (1 - 2 normal stools per day). Based on our case, the combination therapy of IFX and TAC could be selected as an effective approach for the patients with UC refractory to IFX dose intensification plus AZA. However, further studies need to be performed to evaluate the efficacy of this combination therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0511_18571", "title": "Cyclosporine A for induction of remission in severe ulcerative colitis.", "score": 0.01534090909090909, "content": "Ulcerative colitis (UC) is characterized by a life-long chronic course with remissions and exacerbations. Approximately 15% of patients have a severe attack requiring hospitalization at some time during their illness. These patients are traditionally treated with intravenous corticosteroids, with a response rate of approximately 60%. The patients who do not respond to steroid treatment usually require surgical removal of the large bowel (proctocolectomy or colectomy with an anal pouch). This surgical procedure essentially cures the patient from the disease but is associated with complications such as pouchitis. Few alternative treatments exist for severe ulcerative colitis: immunosuppressive medications (such as azathioprine) have a slow onset of action and are therefore usually ineffective. Antibiotics are not proven to be effective and biological treatments such as infliximab are still under investigation. The introduction of cyclosporine-A (CsA) for use in patients with severe ulcerative colitis (UC) has provided an alternative to patients previously facing only surgical options. Cyclosporine acts mainly by inhibiting T lymphocyte function, which is essential for the propagation of inflammation. Unlike most other immunosuppressive agents, CsA does not suppress the activity of other hematopoietic cells, does not cause bone marrow suppression and has a rapid onset of action. This reviews aims to systematically assess the effectiveness and safety of CsA for severe UC. This review aimed to evaluate the effectiveness of cyclosporine A for patients with severe ulcerative colitis. Electronic searches of The Cochrane Library (Issue 1, 2004), EMBASE (1980-2004), and MEDLINE (1966-2004); hand searching the references of all identified studies; contacting the first author of each included trial. Randomised clinical trials comparing cyclosporine A with placebo or no intervention to obtain and maintain remission of idiopathic ulcerative colitis. Two reviewers independently appraised the quality of each trial and extracted the data from the included trials. Relative risks (RR) with 95% confidence intervals (CI) were estimated. The reviewers assumed an intention to treat analysis for the outcome measures. Only two randomized controlled trials were identified that satisfied the inclusion criteria. These two trials could not be pooled for analysis because of major differences in design and patient populations. In the first trial, 11 patients received intravenous cyclosporine (4 mg/kg) and 9 received placebo. Two of 11 in the treatment group failed to respond to therapy compared with nine of nine in the placebo group (RR 0.18, 95% CI 0.05 - 0.64). However, 3/11 and 4/9 eventually underwent colectomy in the treatment and placebo groups respectively and follow-up was less than a month. In the second trial 15 patients were treated with intravenous cyclosporine and 15 with intravenous methylprednisolone. Five of 15 patients in the cyclosporine group failed to respond to therapy as compared to 7/15 in the methylprednisolone group (RR 0.71, 95% CI 0.29 - 1.75). After 1 year 7/9 responders in the cyclosporine group were still in remission compared with 4/8 in the steroid group (p &gt; 0.05) and the colectomy rate was similar in both groups. The mean time to response in the cyclosporine group in the 2 trials was short (7 days and 5.2 days). These results should be interpreted with caution given the small numbers of trials and patients evaluated for comparison, and limited follow-up (few weeks in one trial to a year in the other). The precise assessment of the occurrence of adverse events was difficult because the trials described different adverse reactions, which reversed after discontinuation of cyclosporine. There was no evidence in the trials reviewed that cyclosporine was more effective than standard treatment for preventing colectomy but this effect cannot be excluded due to the small sample size and rarity of this outcome. Additional limitations of current research include lack of data on quality of life, costs and long-term results of cyclosporine therapy. There is limited evidence that cyclosporine is more effective than standard treatment alone for severe ulcerative colitis. The relatively quick response makes the short-term use of cyclosporine potentially attractive, but the long-term benefit is unclear, when adverse events such as cyclosporine-induced nephrotoxicity may become more obvious. There is a need for additional research on quality of life, costs and long-term results from cyclosporine therapy in severe ulcerative colitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0609_6805", "title": "Treatment of severe steroid refractory ulcerative colitis.", "score": 0.015219907407407408, "content": "Although systemic steroids are highly efficacious in ulcerative colitis (UC), failure to respond to steroids still poses an important challenge to the surgeon and physician alike. Even if the life time risk of a fulminant UC flare is only 20%, this condition is potentially life threatening and should be managed in hospital. If patients fail 3 to 5 d of intravenous corticosteroids and optimal supportive care, they should be considered for any of three options: intravenous cyclosporine (2 mg/kg for 7 d, and serum level controlled), infliximab (5 mg/kg IV, 0-2-6 wk) or total colectomy. The choice between these three options is a medical-surgical decision based on clinical signs, radiological and endoscopic findings and blood analysis (CRP, serum albumin). Between 65 and 85% of patients will initially respond to cyclosporine and avoid colectomy on the short term. Over 5 years only 50% of initial responders avoid colectomy and outcomes are better in patients naive to azathioprine (bridging strategy). The data on infliximab as a medical rescue in fulminant colitis are more limited although the efficacy of this anti tumor necrosis factor (TNF) monoclonal antibody has been demonstrated in a controlled trial. Controlled data on the comparative efficacy of cyclosporine and infliximab are not available at this moment. Both drugs are immunosuppressants and are used in combination with steroids and azathioprine, which infers a risk of serious, even fatal, opportunistic infections. Therefore, patients not responding to these agents within 5-7 d should be considered for colectomy and responders should be closely monitored for infections." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0477_82", "title": "Combination immunomodulatory therapy with cyclosporine and azathioprine in corticosteroid-resistant severe ulcerative colitis: the Edinburgh experience of outcome.", "score": 0.014821272885789015, "content": "Cyclosporine is a fungal metabolite and a powerful immunosuppressant. While response to intravenous steroids in severe ulcerative colitis is in excess of 60%, the remainder of patients are left with the options of curative panproctocolectomy or administration of intravenous rescue therapy with cyclosporine. There have been conflicting reports on the efficacy of intravenous cyclosporine in acute ulcerative colitis, and there are serious concerns about potential toxicity and opportunistic infections such as Pneumocystis carnii pneumonia. There are also concerns about early relapse and colectomy following cyclosporine rescue. To date there has been a paucity of data available to help guide the gastroenterologist in the use of cyclosporine and the maintenance of remission once achieved. Between 1994 and 2001, a total of sixteen patients who had received intravenous cyclosporine for acute exacerbation of their known UC (seven females, nine males, mean age 33 years) whose records were available for analysis. All patients were refractory to intravenous methylprednisolone (60 mg/24 h). Patients who responded to cyclosporine were discharged on a regimen of oral cyclosporine, oral steroids oral azathioprine and 5-aminosalicylate. Median disease duration was 5.4 years (range 0.9-25 years). All sixteen patients were initially treated with cyclosporine at a dose of 4 mg/kg/day. Nine patients were started on oral azathioprine (median dose 1.8 mg/kg). Seven patients underwent surgery (panproctocolectomy), although none had surgery after 6 months. Comparisons were made between patients with &lt;7 days and &gt;7 days intravenous steroid. Other parameters analysed were stool frequency at 3 days and CRP at 3 days. There were no significant differences between these groups. Median bowel frequency at day 3 was higher in patients who finally underwent surgery. At 3 years follow-up, 56% of the sixteen patients had avoided surgery by using azathioprine immunosuppression. The initial response rate to intravenous cyclosporine was high (69%). Side effects were documented in the majority of patients, but none of the patients had to discontinue treatment on account of these. Azathioprine has a useful role in maintaining the remission achieved by i.v. cyclosporine for acute ulcerative colitis patients. More than half the patients will avoid colectomy long-term when using triple immunosuppressive therapy including azathioprine adding support for its relative safety and another role for its use." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1060_24758", "title": "Successful use of golimumab in a patient with ulcerative colitis refractory to infliximab and adalimumab.", "score": 0.014756258234519103, "content": "To report a case of successful use of golimumab (GLB) in a patient with ulcerative colitis (UC) refractory to infliximab (IFX) and adalimumab (ADA). A 60-year-old man was diagnosed with left UC and was given azathioprine 2.5 mg/kg to control UC symptoms and decrease corticosteroid patient dependence. Four years later, he developed adverse reaction to azathioprine and began treatment with mercaptopurine 1.5 mg/kg/day. Despite this treatment, he developed a severe relapse (Truelove-Witts modified: 15 points). Treatment with IFX 5 mg/kg at weeks 0, 2, 6, and every 8 weeks was started. After 1 year in clinical remission, the patient developed an infusion reaction to IFX, and IFX was suspended. The patient started treatment with ADA 40 mg every other week. After 2 years in clinical remission, ADA was suspended. 20 months after ADA discontinuation, the patient developed an acute episode of UC with a Truelove-Witts modified score of 16 points. ADA plus corticosteroid therapy was restarted. Despite these treatments, the patient's clinical condition did not improved. ADA 40 mg per week was started with not clinical improvement and with corticosteroid dependence after 4 months of ADA intensive therapy. The patient denied surgery, and cyclosporine was discarded because of its inability to be used as a maintenance drug. The patient started GLB with an induction dosage regimen of 200 mg subcutaneous at week 0, followed by 100 mg at week 2, and then maintenance therapy with 100 mg every 4 weeks (patient's weight = 84 kg), combined with mercaptopurine and corticosteroids. After 6 weeks of treatment, the patient achieved clinical remission, with just three non-bleeding stools per day, without stomach ache, apyretic, and no urgency or tenesmus rectal symptoms. One year later, the patient continued to be asymptomatic with a Truelove-Witts modified score of 2 points, corticoid-free treatment, and a complete clinical and endoscopic remission and normal calprotectin levels (&lt; 15 µg/g). We decided to suspend mercaptopurine in order to avoid side effects derived from the combined treatment. After 1 year on GLB therapy, the patient continued in clinical remission. Based on our case, GLB could be selected as an effective approach for patients with UC refractory to IFX and ADA. However, further studies need to be performed to evaluate the efficacy of GLB therapy as a rescue treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en115_381", "title": "Management of ulcerative colitis", "score": 0.014685679094225211, "content": "Refractory ulcerative colitis Refractory ulcerative colitis. Patients with toxic megacolon (colonic dilation > 6 cm and toxic appearing) who do not respond to steroid therapy within 72 hours should be consulted for colectomy. Those with less severe disease but do not respond to IV steroids within 7–10 days should be considered for colectomy or IV cyclosporine. IV cyclosporine at a rate of 2 mg/kg/day and if no response in 7–10 days, colectomy should be considered. If response is seen, oral cyclosporine at 8 mg/kg/day should be continued for 3–4 months while 6-MP or azathioprine is introduced. Those already on 6-MP or azathioprine should continue with these medications. A cholesterol level should be checked in patients taking cyclosporine as low cholesterol may predispose to seizures. Also, prophylaxis against PCP (Pneumocystis carinii) pneumonia is advised." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0501_14613", "title": "Review article: the management of mild to severe acute ulcerative colitis.", "score": 0.01408520312345557, "content": "The goals for the management of acute ulcerative colitis are the objective evaluation of disease activity, induction of remission, prevention of relapse and treatment of complications. Clinical practice should be guided by simple activity indices, as it is easy to underestimate severity. For the induction of remission, topical treatment with mesalazine (mesalamine) is appropriate initial therapy for distal disease but, if symptoms persist for over a fortnight, decisive treatment is usually appreciated by the patient. For mild to moderate disease, corticosteroids have been the mainstay in Europe, although high-dose aminosalicylates (such as Pentasa, 4 g orally daily and 1 g rectally) are an alternative for symptoms not interfering with daily activity. Novel therapeutic approaches in ulcerative colitis have lagged behind those used for Crohn's disease, but several (epidermal growth factor, RDP 58, basiliximab, leucocytapheresis) are on the horizon. Severe colitis, defined as a bloody stool frequency of more than six per day with any one of tachycardia (pulse &gt; 90 beats/min), temperature (&gt; 37.8 degrees C), anaemia (haemoglobin &lt; 10.5 g/dL) or raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (&gt; 30 mm/h), is an indication for intensive intravenous treatment. National UK figures indicate that 30% of ulcerative colitis cases progress to colectomy, and objective criteria for predicting the need for colectomy have been validated. The timing of colectomy is the most important decision that a physician is called upon to make, in conjunction with the patient and surgical colleagues. For the maintenance of remission, aminosalicylates continue to be first-line therapy, although the choice of 5-aminosalicylate appears to be influenced as much by geography as by theoretical considerations. Steroids have no place in the maintenance of remission. Indications for azathioprine include patients after a severe relapse of ulcerative colitis, those with early relapse after steroids (dose of &lt; 15 mg/day, or within 6 weeks of stopping) and those needing a second course of steroids within a year. Therapeutic decisions should have a strategy, aimed at navigating the patient around relapses and through to sustained remission. Good management depends on clinical skills, compassion and care of the individual, in addition to pharmaceuticals." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0349_6927", "title": "High-dose intravenous cyclosporine in steroid refractory attacks of inflammatory bowel disease.", "score": 0.013928571428571429, "content": "To determin whether cyclosporine is effective in inducing remission in patients with severe active inflammatory bowel disease, refractory to steroids. Twenty-three patients with severe and steroid-refractory inflammatory bowel disease (15 ulcerative colitis and 8 Crohn's disease) were included. The Mayo Clinic Score and the CDAI were used to evaluate activity. Cyclosporine (4 mg/kg/day) was administered for a maximum of ten and a minimum of 7 days. Ten of the 15 ulcerative colitis patients achieved remission with a mean response lag time to onset improvement of 8 days. Seven of these patients remained stable with mesalazine 4 months after cyclosporine treatment. Two patients relapsed and underwent colectomy on the 50th and 200th day after treatment. Five patients presented no response and required urgent colectomy. Six of the 8 Crohn's disease patients achieved remission with a mean response lag time to onset improvement of 7 days. The 6 patients remained stable with mesalazine four months after cyclosporine treatment. The other 2 developed reversible renal failure and had to be released from the study. Intravenous high dose cyclosporine is effective and can be used as a rapid onset treatment for acute steroid refractory IBD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0928_13613", "title": "[Acute severe ulcerative colitis treated with accelerated infliximab induction. Case report].", "score": 0.013854266538830297, "content": "Acute severe ulcerative colitis (ASUC) is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires early recognition, hospitalization and adequate treatment. Currently, the use of infliximab in ulcerative colitis (UC) is recommended in the case of severe disease refractory to corticosteroids, once that superimposed bacterial or viral infections (such as cytomegalovirus or Clostridium difficile) have been excluded. However, conventional weight-based regimens of infliximab might be insufficient for patients with ASUC. Accelerated infliximab induction regimen may increase its serum concentration levels and efficacy by reducing early colectomy rates in these patients. We report a 34 year old female presenting with an ASUC. She was initially treated with hydrocortisone 300 mg/day and mesalazine enemas 4 g/day with an unfavorable clinical response. At the fifth day of therapy, an accelerated induction therapy with infliximab was started in doses of 10 mg/kg at weeks 0, 1 and 4. After the second dose, there was a favorable response with reduction of abdominal pain, stool frequency and hematochezia. She was discharged with prednisone and azathioprine. After a year of starting infliximab, the patient remains in clinical remission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0812_563", "title": "Management of acute severe ulcerative colitis.", "score": 0.01375534188034188, "content": "The management strategy of acute severe ulcerative colitis has evolved over the past decade from being entirely restricted to twin choices of intravenous steroids or colectomy to include colon rescue therapies like cyclosporin as well as infliximab. However it still remains a medical emergency requiring hospitalization and requires care from a multidisciplinary team comprising of a gastroenterologist and a colorectal surgeon. The frame shift in management has been the emphasis on time bound decision making with an attempt to curtail the mortality rate to below 1%. Intravenous corticosteroids are the mainstay of therapy. Response to steroids should be assessed at day 3 of admission and partial/non-responders should be considered for alternative medical therapy/surgery. Medical rescue therapies include intravenous cyclosporin and infliximab. Cyclosporin is administered in a dose of 2 mg/kg per day and infliximab is administered as a single dose intravenous infusion of 5 mg/kg. Approximately 75% patients have short term and 50% patients have long term response to cyclosporin. Long term response to cyclosporin is improved in patients who are thiopurine naïve and are started on thiopurines on day 7. Infliximab also has a response rate of approximately 70% in short term and 50% in long term. Both cyclosporin and infliximab are equally efficacious medical rescue therapies as demonstrated in a recent randomized control trial. Patients not responding to infliximab or cyclosporin should be considered for colectomy. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en115_376", "title": "Management of ulcerative colitis", "score": 0.013635642936419851, "content": "Oral anti-inflammatory drugs require four to six weeks to work. Once remission is induced, maintenance levels can be used: sulfasalazine 2 g/day, mesalamine 1.2-2.4 g/day, or olsalazine 1 g/day. Patients on high dose sulfasalazine require folic supplementation (1 mg/day) because it inhibits folate absorption. If oral Mesalazine is still not working, prednisone is often given, starting at 40–60 mg/day. Prednisone often takes effect within 10–14 days. The dose should then be tapered by about 5 mg/week until it can be stopped altogether." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0517_17084", "title": "Efficacy of intravenous cyclosporin in moderately severe ulcerative colitis refractory to steroids.", "score": 0.013566961000735834, "content": "The efficacy of intravenous cyclosporin (CSA) in acute severe ulcerative colitis (UC) is well established. The aim of this study was to evaluate its efficacy in moderately severe colitis refractory to steroids. Twenty-six patients (17 men, mean age 41 +/- 14 yr) with UC refractory to steroids treated with CSA were included in this study. Severity was defined according to Truelove criteria. A clinical activity score below 10 during 2 consecutive days defined clinical response. According to Truelove criteria, all patients had moderate UC. CSA was administered IV at a mean daily dose of 3.7 +/- 0,5 mg/kg until response and then orally for 3.5 +/- 2.6 months. A clinical response was achieved in 20/26 patients (76,9%) within 5.7 +/- 2.8 days (5/6 failures were treated by proctocolectomy). During a follow-up of 27.8 +/- 20.8 months, relapse rate was 60% (12/20): 7 patients underwent proctocolectomy and 5 had clinical remission with CSA retreatment (N=4) and steroids (N=1). At the end of follow-up, 12 patients (46%) were in clinical remission, 12 (46%) required colectomy, 1 had chronic active UC and 1 was lost of follow-up. The probability to avoid surgery was 52% at 78 months. The only factor associated with avoidance of surgery was concomitant treatment with azathioprine (P=0.007). Ten reversible adverse events occurred in 9 patients. This study shows that CSA is safe and effective in moderately severe steroid resistant UC. Concomitant treatment with azathioprine significantly decreases the rate of subsequent surgery. CSA may act as a \"bridge\" until the therapeutic action of azathioprine is achieved for maintenance treatment. These results should be further confirmed by a prospective controlled study." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0301_8757", "title": "[Treatment of acute a steroid-resistant ulcerative colitis with continuous venous infusion of cyclosporine].", "score": 0.01346162533315264, "content": "Aim of this open study is to evaluate the efficacy and safety of a low-dose treatment of continuous intravenous infusion of cyclosporine. We treated twelve patients with severe active ulcerative colitis, that did not respond to high doses of intravenous steroid for at least ten days. We used a dose of 2 mg/kg/day for 15 days. After this period, if patients improved, cyclosporine was administered orally at the dose of 6 mg/kg/day for six months. The response rate to acute phase therapy was 92.8%. The mean response time was 5.8 days. Sixty-nine percent of patients responded within the first week. No adverse reaction was observed. The first five patients responding to acute phase therapy relapsed during or at the end of maintenance phase. Because of that, azathioprine was associated in the successive patients. Only 4 out of 12 patients (33%) were operated on. continuous intravenous infusion of cyclosporine at dosage of 2 mg/kg/day is a highly effective and safe therapy that may avoid or defer colectomy to eligible conditions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0498_6037", "title": "Cyclosporin for severe ulcerative colitis attacks.", "score": 0.013208369659982563, "content": "Cyclosporin-A is used as alternative medical therapy in steroid refractory ulcerative colitis with severe activity. In spite of known effectivity, the long term results of cyclosporin-A therapy is not clear for today. The results of 13 steroid refractory patients that treated with cyclosporin-A were retrospectively assessed. Cyclosporin-A was started as orally, 8 mg/kg/day in 4 patients and intravenously, 4 mg/kg/day in 9 patients. Intravenous therapy changed to oral therapy one week after beginning. Patients also received 5-ASA and azathioprine. Steroid was tapered. Ten patients responded to treatment in a mean of 9 days (range: 2-30 days). Three unresponded patients underwent total colectomy on 7, 11 and 19th day of therapy. Ten initially responded patients received the drug for average 4.9 months. Of these, four relapsed during and one relapsed soon after therapy. Four of 5 relapser patients underwent colectomy. One patient that not accepted surgical intervention is still receiving medical therapy. Remaining 5 patients, 38% of total group; 50% of patients that initially responded, maintain the remission at the end of average 17 months of follow up period. Cyclosporin-A therapy in severe ulcerative colitis that is refractory to steroids, provides initial remission in 80% of patients and allows 40% to retain their colon for 1 year." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0533_5430", "title": "Efficacy of cyclosporin in severe ulcerative colitis attack.", "score": 0.013128205128205127, "content": "Cyclosporin-A is used as a alternative medical therapy in steroid resistant ulcerative colitis with severe activity. In spite of its known efficacy, the long term effects of are not entirely clear. The records of 13 steroid resistant patients treated with cyclosporin-A were retrospectively assessed. Cyclosporin-A had been prescribed orally at a dose of 8 mg/kg/day in four patients and intravenously, 4mg/kg/day in nine patients. Intravenous therapy was changed to oral therapy after one week and patients also received 5-ASA and azathioprine. Steroid treatment was tapered. Ten patients responded to treatment in a mean of nine days (range: 2-30 days). Three patients who did not respond underwent total colectomy on day seven, 11 and 19 of therapy. The 10 patients who initially responded received the drug for an average of 4.9 months; four of these relapsed during and one relapsed soon after discontinuation of therapy. Four of the five patients who relapsed underwent colectomy and the one patient who did not accept surgical intervention continued medical therapy. The remaining five patients (38% of the total group; 50% of the patients who initially responded) remained in remission at the end of an average 17 month follow up period. Cyclosporin-A therapy in severe ulcerative colitis that is resistant to steroids, provides initial remission in 80% of patients and allows 40% to retain their colon for one year." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0475_14357", "title": "Randomized, double-blind comparison of 4 mg/kg versus 2 mg/kg intravenous cyclosporine in severe ulcerative colitis.", "score": 0.013015095879232965, "content": "Cyclosporine A is highly effective in severe attacks of ulcerative colitis (UC) but is associated with important adverse effects that are mainly dose dependent. Our single center, randomized, double-blind, controlled trial aimed to evaluate the additional clinical benefit of 4 mg/kg over 2 mg/kg IV cyclosporine in the acute treatment of severe UC. Primary end point was the proportion of patients with a clinical response. Secondary end points included time to response, colectomy rate, and adverse effects. Seventy-three patients were included. Day-8 response rates were 84.2% (32 of 38, 4 mg/kg) and 85.7% (32 of 35, 2 mg/kg) after a median of 4 days in both groups. Short-term colectomy rates were 13.1% (4 mg/kg) and 8.6% (2 mg/kg). Mean cyclosporine blood levels were 237 +/- 33 in the 2-mg/kg group and 332 +/- 43 ng/mL in the 4-mg/kg group. Active smoking was inversely correlated with clinical response (odds ratio, 0.06), but concomitant azathioprine or steroids were not predictive. A trend toward a higher incidence of hypertension was observed in the 4-mg/kg group (23.7% vs. 8.6%, 2 mg/kg, P &lt; 0.08). High-dose IV cyclosporine has no additional clinical benefit over low dose in the treatment of severe UC. Although we did not observe differences in adverse effects on the short term, the use of 2 mg/kg IV cyclosporine should provide an improved toxicity profile for medical treatment of severe UC." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0536_22454", "title": "[Cyclosporin for steroid refractory ulcerative colitis. Results of a study conducted at Turin General Hospital between 1990 and 1997].", "score": 0.012112472963229991, "content": "Four every ten patients receiving high-dose parenteral steroids for severe ulcerative colitis fail and may have their colon removed. Intravenous followed by oral cyclosporin has been shown to initially rescue approx. 70% of these non-responder patients, but dosages and long term-efficacy are still debated. We reviewed the clinical outcomes of patients treated with cyclosporin for refractory ulcerative colitis at our Center in the last 7 years. Fifty-four patients destined to colectomy because of refractory ulcerative colitis (previous failure to respond to 7 days of 1 mg/kg/day steroids) were enrolled to initially receive a two-week continuous infusion of 2 mg/kg/day cyclosporin. Responders (showing at least a 50% reduction of activity) were meant to be treated with oral drug at 6-8 mg/kg/day for 6 months with the maintenance of remission and the spare of steroids being the end-points. Data are available for 47 patients followed-up for a minimum of 6 months up to 6 years. Of these 47, 14 did not respond to the intravenous drug and were submitted to surgery; of the remaining 33 responders (70%) entering the oral 6-month phase, 17 relapsed before end or on leaving the drug and were considered as failures. The remaining 16 (34% of the 47) left cyclosporin in remission and in need of less than 20 mg steroids daily. Of them, 12 avoided colectomy in a follow-up of 6 months-6 years. Intravenous cyclosporin may be rapidly effective in 7 every 10 patients whose acute ulcerative colitis fails a full-dose steroid course. However, only 3 of the initial 10 may maintain remission over a 6-month oral course. Further efforts should concentrate on improving the long term efficacy of cyclosporin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1084_1094", "title": "Treatment of acute severe ulcerative colitis using accelerated infliximab regimen based on infliximab trough level: A case report.", "score": 0.011483753099308365, "content": "Acute severe ulcerative colitis (ASUC) is a complication of ulcerative colitis associated with high levels of circulating tumor necrosis factor alpha, due to the intense inflammation and faster stool clearance of anti-tumor necrosis factor drugs. Dose-intensified infliximab treatment can be beneficial and is associated with lower rates of colectomy. The aim of the study was to present a case of a patient with ASUC and megacolon, treated with hydrocortisone and accelerated scheme of infliximab that was monitored by drug trough level. A 22-year-old female patient diagnosed with ulcerative colitis, presented with diarrhea, rectal bleeding, abdominal pain, vomiting, and distended abdomen. During investigation, a positive toxin for <iClostridium difficile</i and colonic dilatation of 7 cm consistent with megacolon were observed. She was treated with oral vancomycin for pseudomembranous colitis and intravenous hydrocortisone for severe colitis, which led to the resolution of megacolon. Due to the persistent severe colitis symptoms, infliximab 5 mg/kg was prescribed, monitored by drug trough level (8.8 μg/mL) and fecal calprotectin of 921 μg/g (&lt; 30 μg/g). Based on the low infliximab trough level after one week from the first infliximab dose, the patient received a second infusion at week 1, consistent with the accelerated regimen (infusions at weeks 0, 1, 2 and 6). We achieved a positive clinical and endoscopic response after 6 mo of therapy, without the need for a colectomy. Infliximab accelerated infusions can be beneficial in ASUC unresponsive to the treatment with intravenous corticosteroids. Longitudinal studies are necessary to define the best therapeutic drug monitoring and treatment regimen for these patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0691_20955", "title": "[Allogeneic mesenchymal stromal cells in patients with ulcerative colitis: two years of observation].", "score": 0.010597145036504304, "content": "The aim of the study was to determine the efficacy and safety of mesenchymal stromal cells (MSCs) of bone marrow in the treatment of patients with ulcerative colitis (UC). The study included 44 patients with ulcerative colitis (UC), which was implemented MSC transplantation, 40 patients with UC who received standard therapy with mesalazane (salofalka) 4-6 g/day and corticosteroids (prednisone)--1-2 mg/kg, azathioprine--1.5 mg/kg methotrexate 20-50 mg/m2, and 12 patients who underwent induction and maintenance of infliximab therapy. 2-3 days prior to the induction of MSCs abolish immunosuppressive doses of corticosteroids reduced to 15-20 mg/day dose of aminosalicylates was left at 2.0 g/day. To quantify the results using the average values of indices of Rahmilevich clinical activity, indices of endoscopic and histological activity scales Mayo and Gebs. The patients were observed for 24 months after transplantation. Were studied parameters of the humoral immune status (immunoglobulin A, G, M, autologous antibody), cytokine profile. Bone marrow cells were obtained from the donor's sternum or the iliac crest. By culturing the end of 5 to 6 weeks received a population of allogeneic donor's MSCs in the amount of (1.5-2) x 10(8) cells needed for transplant patient. Culture of MSCs injected in the drip i/v, single dose. In 34 (72.7%) patients with UC after the induction of MSCs was statistically significant compared with the group of patients treated with drugs only 5-aminosalicylic acid and corticosteroids, reducing the clinical and morphological indices of inflammatory activity. In 12 patients with UC include MSCs in the treatment program did not have a therapeutic effect. Application of MSC allowed to cancel corticosteroids in most patients with hormone-dependent and steroid resistance forms of UC, and in 7 to reduce the dose of prednisolone to 5 mg/day, limiting the use of drugs 5-ASA. According to the anti-inflammatory effectiveness of combined therapy with MSCs comparable to infliximab therapy. The use of MSCs can be evaluated as a new strategic direction for therapy UC. MSC, introduced in I/O, have powerful immunomodulatory effects, reduce the activity of autoimmune inflammation and stimulate the reparative process in the intestinal mucosa, thereby increasing the duration of remission, reduces risk of recurrence of disease, reduces the frequency of hospitalizations." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_54773", "title": "Inflammatory bowel disease", "score": 0.010314814814814815, "content": "Medical therapies Medical treatment of IBD is individualised to each patient. The choice of which drugs to use and by which route to administer them (oral, rectal, injection, infusion) depends on factors including the type, distribution, and severity of the patient's disease, as well as other historical and biochemical prognostic factors, and patient preferences. For example, mesalazine is more useful in ulcerative colitis than in Crohn's disease. Generally, depending on the level of severity, IBD may require immunosuppression to control the symptoms, with drugs such as prednisone, tumor necrosis factor inhibitors (TNF inhibitors), azathioprine, methotrexate, or 6-mercaptopurine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0065_20626", "title": "Preliminary report: cyclosporin in treatment of severe active ulcerative colitis.", "score": 0.009913803628549801, "content": "Intravenous cyclosporin (4 mg/kg daily) was given to fifteen patients with severe active ulcerative colitis, fourteen of whom had failed to respond to at least 10 days' treatment with intravenous steroids. In the acute phase of the open trial, eleven patients (73%) improved and avoided colectomy; the mean response time was 5.8 days. Patients who responded were maintained on oral cyclosporin (6-8 mg/kg daily) for a 6-month chronic phase. Six of the eleven patients have been weaned from steroids and remain in clinical and endoscopic remission 5-18 months after discontinuation of cyclosporin; three are well at 5 months and their steroid dose is being tapered; one patient relapsed after 5 months on oral cyclosporin and underwent colectomy; and one patient failed to show continued improvement with oral cyclosporin but is in clinical remission after changing to mercaptopurine treatment. Slight self-limiting adverse side-effects of cyclosporin were seen, but none necessitated withdrawal from the study. Cyclosporin seems to be an effective treatment for patients with severe active ulcerative colitis who have not responded to steroids." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0688_17132", "title": "Successive treatment with cyclosporine and infliximab in steroid-refractory ulcerative colitis.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Rescue therapy with either cyclosporine (CYS) or infliximab (IFX) is an effective option in patients with intravenous steroid-refractory attacks of ulcerative colitis (UC). In patients who fail, colectomy is usually recommended, but a second-line rescue therapy with IFX or CYS is an alternative. The aims of this study were to investigate the efficacy and tolerance of IFX and CYS as a second-line rescue therapy in steroid-refractory UC or indeterminate colitis (IC) unsuccessfully treated with CYS or IFX. This was a retrospective survey of patients seen during the period 2000-2008 in the GETAID centers. Inclusion criteria included a delay of &lt;1 month between CYS withdrawal (when used first) and IFX, or a delay of &lt;2 months between IFX (when used first) and CYS, and a follow-up of at least 3 months after inclusion. Time-to-colectomy, clinical response, and occurrence of serious adverse events were analyzed. A total of 86 patients (median age 34 years; 49 males; 71 UC and 15 IC) were successively treated with CYS and IFX. The median (± s.e.) follow-up time was 22.6 (7.0) months. During the study period, 49 patients failed to respond to the second-line rescue therapy and underwent a colectomy. The probability of colectomy-free survival (± s.e.) was 61.3 ± 5.3% at 3 months and 41.3 ± 5.6 % at 12 months. A case of fatal pulmonary embolism occurred at 1 day after surgery in a 45-year-old man. Also, nine infectious complications were observed during the second-line rescue therapy. In patients with intravenous steroid-refractory UC and who fail to respond to CYS or IFX, a second-line rescue therapy may be effective in carefully selected patients, avoiding colectomy within 2 months in two-thirds of them. The risk/benefit ratio should still be considered individually." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en476_11785", "title": "Chronic relapsing inflammatory optic neuropathy", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Five diagnostic criteria have been proposed: History of optic neuritis with one relapse Objectively measured visual loss NMO-IgG seronegative Contrast enhancement on imaging of acutely inflamed optic nerves Response to immunosuppressive treatment and relapse on withdrawal or dose reduction Treatment Treatment consists of three phases: 1. Acute phase: IV steroids (methylprednisolone 1 mg/kg) for 3–5 days or plasmapheresis are given to restore visual function. 2. Intermediate phase: Oral steroids (typically prednisone 1 mg/kg) with taper are given to stabilize vision. 3. Long-term phase: To avoid adverse effects of long-term steroids and to avoid relapse of disease, physicians can transition to a steroid-sparing agent. Azathioprine, methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, mycophenolate, IVIG, plasma exchange, cyclosporine, and infliximab have been used." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0489_8837", "title": "Outcome of a conservative approach in severe ulcerative colitis.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Severe ulcerative colitis is potentially life threatening even though a policy of intensive medical management and early colectomy in recent years reduced mortality to almost zero. However, colectomy, with or without ileal-anal anastomosis, has its own problems (morbidity, pouchitis, cuffitis) and no reliable prognostic index of surgical outcome has been developed. Intravenous steroids are still the mainstay of medical therapy but their maximal duration before stating a 'treatment failure' has not been defined. To evaluate the effectiveness, safety and outcome of an intensive medical approach in a series of patients with severe ulcerative colitis. One hundred and forty-nine episodes of severe ulcerative colitis in 115 patients admitted to a Gastroenterology Unit in a 7-year period were retrospectively evaluated. Intravenous glucocorticosteroids--methylprednisolone 1 mg/kg/day--and topical steroids were administered, and supportive treatments with intensive monitoring were extended to all the patients. Second-line strategies for steroid-refractoriness were prolonged glucocorticosteroids treatment, oral ciclosporin, infliximab or surgery. The median number of Truelove criteria at admission was 3 (range 2-5), median CRP 34 mg/l (range 10-196). Median follow-up after discharge was 49 months. In 84 (57%) episodes an early response was noted, while 65 (43%) did not respond within 10 days to the standard steroid treatment. In the non-responders group, 28 patients went into remission with a prolonged steroid treatment (slow responders); 15 patients were treated with ciclosporin (eight responders) and 6 with infliximab (four responders). A total of 24 colectomies was performed in this group of patients (in 21 cases within 30 days from admission). Slow responders showed lower albumin levels (P = 0.02), higher cumulative dose of glucocorticosteroids in the year prior to admission (P = 0.02) and higher age (P = 0.03), in comparison with early responders. Major complications were noted in four episodes which responded to medical treatment. Disease-related mortality was zero. Medical treatment and use of second-line therapies were effective in the present series of patients. A group of slow responders has been identified and, if an intensive medical monitoring is guaranteed, steroids can be safely prolonged after the first 10 days of treatment. Cumulatively, about 80% of the patients responded to short-term medical treatment, only 5% of the patients underwent colectomy in the follow-up period. Major adverse events were recorded in four patients, who had recovered completely after adequate medical treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0481_12550", "title": "[Triple immunosuppressive therapy in the treatment of severe ulcerative colitis].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Severe episodes of steroid-refractory ulcerative colitis (UC) were considered an indication for surgery until the introduction of new immunosuppressive agents such as cyclosporine. 1) To confirm the efficacy of intravenous cyclosporine in inducing remission in severe episodes of steroid-refractory UC; 2) To analyze the efficacy of triple immunosuppressive therapy with cyclosporine, azathioprine and prednisone in the maintenance of remission induced by intravenous cyclosporine. Fourteen patients diagnosed with a severe episode of steroid-refractory UC were treated with intravenous cyclosporine at a dose of 4 mg/kg/day. In all patients, after response was induced, this regimen was substituted by oral cyclosporine plus azathioprine at a dose of 2-2.5 mg/kg/day and decreasing doses of corticoids. Neoral cyclosporine was progressively reduced until discontinuation within 3 months, coinciding with a simultaneous decrease of oral steroids. All patients showed response to intravenous cyclosporine with a significant reduction in the Truelove index calculated before and after treatment. After remission was induced, all patients followed triple immunosuppressive therapy for 3 months. In the follow-up for a mean of 24 months (range: 14-34) only two patients required admission for a new episode of UC and colectomy was finally indicated in only one. None of the 14 patients treated with cyclosporine showed severe adverse effects attributable to the drug. Intravenous cyclosporine is a safe and effective alternative in the treatment of severe episodes of steroid-refractory UC. Early initiation of oral administration associated with azathioprine is useful in maintaining response, reducing subsequent relapses and the need for colectomy during the follow-up of these patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en068_66243", "title": "Cladribine", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Two main approaches to multiple sclerosis treatment maintenance therapy are used – immunomodulation and immunosuppression and alternatively, immune reconstitution therapy. Classified as the latter, cladribine tablets are administered intermittently as a short treatment course without continuous immunosuppression. In contrast to maintenance therapies, clinical efficacy extends beyond the dosing period. Cladribine tablets are administered as 2 courses separated by 1 year (a maximum of 20 days of treatment). The recommended cumulative dose is 3.5 mg/kg weight over 2 years, administered as 1 treatment course of 1.75 mg/kg per year. Each treatment course consists of 2 treatment weeks, one at the beginning of the first month and one at the beginning of the second month of the respective treatment year. Each treatment week consists of 4 or 5 days on which a patient receives 10 mg or 20 mg (1 or 2 tablets) as a single daily dose based on body weight." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0495_2491", "title": "Ulcerative colitis: analyses of 116 cases (do extraintestinal manifestations effect the time to catch remission?).", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Evaluation of clinical, demographic and epidemiologic features of ulcerative colitis and therapy response of these patients. Retrospectively, 116 patients (64.7% female) were enrolled in this study. Mean age and mean follow-up period were 36+/-16, 5+/-2 years, respectively. The most common anatomic involvement was pancolitis (60.3%) and the others were as follows: left side 25%, rectum 13.8% and ileum (backwash ileitis) 0.9%. Extraintestinal manifestations were observed in 42.2% of patients (sacroiliitis 12%, primary sclerosing cholangitis 7.6%, pyoderma gangrenosum 2.4%, peripheral arthropathy 1.6%, autoimmune hepatitis 1.6%, steatosis 12.9%, gallstone 0.8%, perianal fistulas 0.8%, sagittal sinus thrombosis 0.8%, psoriasis 0.8%). Multiple extraintestinal manifestations were observed (primary sclerosing cholangitis + pyoderma gangrenosum) in 2 patients. Colonic perforation due to toxic megacolon was observed in only one patient during follow-up period. The mean period for remission was 3.7 months in 72% of patients with pancolitis by the treatment of 5-aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA) (2-3 gr/day) + methylprednisolone (1 mg/kg/day) +/- (for maintenance of remission) azathioprine (AZT) (1.5-2 mg/kg/day); 3.7 months in 72% of left-sided colitis by 5-ASA +/- corticosteroid enemas +/- methylprednisolone (1 mg/kg/day) +/- (for maintenance of remission) AZT (1.5-2 mg/kg/day) and 3.7 months in 62.5% of patients with distal colitis by 5-ASA (p.o. +/- enema) +/- corticosteroid enemas. Colectomy was performed on 7 patients refractory to these treatments. Six patients (4 of them had pancolitis) were treated with cyclosporine (Cys) (4 mg/kg/day, p.o.). Only one patient, a non-responder to Cys therapy, had colectomy. The mean remission time was 4.7 months in 80.6% of patients with extraintestinal involvement and 3.2 months in 71.2% of patients without extraintestinal involvement (P=0.002). Medical therapy was generally enough for the treatment. Cys and/or surgery can be another choice for the patients that do not respond to the medical therapy. Extraintestinal manifestations do not change the remission rate, but prolong the time to catch remission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0522_3159", "title": "Intravenous cyclosporine for the treatment of severe steroid refractory ulcerative colitis: what is the cost?", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Intravenous cyclosporine often is used to treat patients with severe steroid refractory colitis secondary to ulcerative colitis in an attempt to avoid urgent total abdominal colectomy. The purpose of this study was to evaluate the success and cost of cyclosporine. A retrospective, chart review of all patients from 1996 to 2002 who were treated with cyclosporine and/or had a three-stage ileal pouch-anal anastomosis for severe steroid refractory colitis at our institution was performed. Patients were divided into three groups: TAC and CyA: patients who failed cyclosporine and had urgent total abdominal colectomy on the same admission; TAC no CyA: patients who had an urgent total abdominal colectomy without cyclosporine; and CyA only: patients treated successfully with cyclosporine and discharged without surgery. A subgroup of patients who had an ileal pouch-anal anastomosis was identified from each group. Cost data were obtained from the hospital's financial records. Forty-one patients (25 males) were identified. Twenty-nine patients received cyclosporine for severe steroid refractory colitis. Of these, 18 (62 percent) failed and underwent total abdominal colectomy on the same admission. Eleven (38 percent) responded to the cyclosporine and were discharged. Of the 11, 4 never had surgery, 1 had a three-stage ileal pouch-anal anastomosis, 5 had a two-stage ileal pouch-anal anastomosis, and 1 had a total abdominal colectomy only. Only 14 percent of patients avoided colectomy in the long-term. Complications of cyclosporine occurred in 8 patients (28 percent), and surgical complications occurred in 12 patients. The highest costs, highest length of stay, and highest number of overall complications were found in the group of patients who failed intravenous cyclosporine and required colectomy during the same hospitalization." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 499, 585 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 84, 100 ] ], "text": "If we do 1 we take away life expectancy, because we allow the ventricle to claudicate." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 586, 666 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 100, 112 ] ], "text": "2 is outdated: balloon valvuloplasty? Only if the surgical risk is unaffordable," }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 338, 498 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 58, 84 ] ], "text": "this is a severe stenosis both in terms of area (<1 cm²) and mean gradient (>40 mmHg), with a preserved ejection fraction, and symptomatic. Surgical indication." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 971, 1018 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 169, 177 ] ], "text": "it's rare, complex and only done in pediatrics." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 732, 824 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 125, 142 ] ], "text": "this is a 52-year-old man, who we assume has good bodywork because he walks to have dyspnea," } }

{ "1": "Diuretics and more frequent check-ups by a specialist.", "2": "In case of increasing dyspnea on exertion, percutaneous dilatation of the aortic valve with a balloon catheter should be performed.", "3": "Replacement of the aortic valve with a prosthesis/bioprosthesis.", "4": "Replacement of the aortic valve with a homograft.", "5": "Implantation of a percutaneous valve." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0944_14334", "title": "[Aortic stenosis is a common disease which requires individualized treatment].", "score": 0.01738934056007227, "content": "Aortic stenosis is the most common valvular heart disease and the prevalence increases with age. Common symptoms include dyspnea, angina, and syncope. Echocardiography is a cornerstone in diagnosis of aortic stenosis. Severe aortic stenosis is defined as peak aortic jet velocity ≥4 m/s, a mean transvalvular gradient ≥40 mmHg, and/or an aortic valve area &lt;1.0 cm2. The two-year mortality in patients with symptomatic aortic stenosis is 50 percent without intervention. The only efficient treatment is intervention, either open heart valve replacement or percutaneous transcatheter implantation of an aortic valve prosthesis (TAVI), which both provide symptomatic relief and improved survival. Many patients with aortic stenosis are elderly with comorbidities, thus making treatment decision challenging and requiring individual judgement." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en063_19535", "title": "Valvular heart disease", "score": 0.016748366013071895, "content": "Aortic stenosis Treatment of aortic stenosis is not necessary in asymptomatic patients, unless the stenosis is classified as severe based on valve hemodynamics. Both asymptomatic severe and symptomatic aortic stenosis are treated with aortic valve replacement (AVR) surgery. Trans-catheter Aortic Valve Replacement (TAVR) is an alternative to AVR and is recommended in high risk patients who may not be suitable for surgical AVR. Any angina is treated with short-acting nitrovasodilators, beta-blockers and/or calcium blockers. Any hypertension is treated aggressively, but caution must be taken in administering beta-blockers. Any heart failure is treated with digoxin, diuretics, nitrovasodilators and, if not contraindicated, cautious inpatient administration of ACE inhibitors. Moderate stenosis is monitored with echocardiography every 1–2 years, possibly with supplementary cardiac stress test. Severe stenosis should be monitored with echocardiography every 3–6 months." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_7517", "title": "Aortic valve replacement", "score": 0.016461184121392768, "content": "Aortic stenosis Aortic stenosis is treated with aortic valve replacement in order to avoid angina, syncope, or congestive heart failure. Individuals with severe aortic stenosis are candidates for aortic valve replacement once they develop symptoms or when their heart function is impacted. Some people with asymptomatic aortic stenosis may also be candidates for aortic valve replacement, especially if symptoms appear during exercise testing. Patients with moderate aortic valve stenosis who need another type of cardiac surgery (i.e. coronary artery bypass surgery) should also have their valve addressed by the surgical team if echocardiography unveils significant heart problems." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en063_19536", "title": "Valvular heart disease", "score": 0.014991728701406122, "content": "Aortic regurgitation Aortic regurgitation is treated with aortic valve replacement, which is recommended in patients with symptomatic severe aortic regurgitation. Aortic valve replacement is also recommended in patients that are asymptomatic but have chronic severe aortic regurgitation and left ventricular ejection fraction of less than 50%. Hypertension is treated in patients with chronic aortic regurgitation, with the anti-hypersensives of choice being calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, or ARBs. Also, endocarditis prophylaxis is indicated before dental, gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedures. Mild to moderate aortic regurgitation should be followed with echocardiography and a cardiac stress test once every 1–2 years. In severe moderate/severe cases, patients should be followed with echocardiography and cardiac stress test and/or isotope perfusion imaging every 3–6 months." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0811_4511", "title": "[Therapy of aortic valve stenosis].", "score": 0.013804554079696395, "content": "Calcific aortic stenosis is the most frequent valve disorder in the western world. It is a degenerative and chronic progressive disease in the elderly with increasing prevalence due to the demographic development in the population. As there is no medical therapy, the only option in severe aortic stenosis is valve replacement. Echocardiography is the diagnostic tool to assess aortic stenosis severity and morphology of the valve. Aortic stenosis is severe if the valve area is &lt;1.0 cm(2), valve index &lt;0.6 cm(2)/m(2) body surface, mean gradient &gt;40 mmHg, and peak velocity &gt;4.0 m/s. The entity of low flow, low gradient aortic stenosis is complex, and diagnosis and therapy are still challenging. Asymptomatic patients have a good prognosis, but must be reevaluated on a regular basis for the onset of symptoms or signs of progression. If one of the classical symptoms dyspnea and fatigue, angina pectoris or syncope occurs prognosis worsens dramatically and valve replacement is indicated. Gold standard therapy for aortic stenosis is surgical valve replacement. For high-risk patients (older age and severe comorbidities), transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) is established as standard therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0083_17842", "title": "[Medium-term follow-up after percutaneous aortic valvuloplasty in the elderly. Clinical study apropos of 102 cases].", "score": 0.013793725207356652, "content": "Percutaneous transluminal balloon aortic valvuloplasty was introduced in 1985 and, owing to its sometimes dramatic short-term results, it has rapidly become a useful procedure in the management of aortic stenosis in elderly subjects. The purpose of this study was to determine its clinical results at medium-term and to identify possible prognostic factors in order to improve the selection of patients suitable for this technique. Between January 1986 and December 1987, 78 patients (30 men, 48 women, aged from 60 to 93 years, mean 80 +/- 6.7 years) totalling 85 procedures were selected among 102 dilatations on the basis of a primary success without complications. Dilatation was performed by a technique similar to that described by Cribier et al. The follow-up period was 10 +/- 5.7 months (range: 1 to 27 months). The aortic valve area increased from 0.47 +/- 0.15 cm2 to 0.77 +/- 0.23 cm2, i.e. from 0.29 +/- 0.09 cm2/m2 to 0.48 +/- 0.13 cm2/m2 as regards the indexed area. The hospital mortality rate was 3.3 p. 100. At the end of the follow-up period 55 p. 100 of the patients were in NYHA class I or II; 29 p. 100 had died, 10 p. 100 had undergone a second dilatation and 13 p. 100 had had aortic valve replacement. This distribution into functional classes and major cardiac events was not significantly different in the subgroup of patients with an aortic valve area greater than 0.9 cm2 or in the subgroup of primary failure. The patients who died for cardiac reasons were older (p less than 0.01), had a lower cardiac output before and after dilatation (p less than 0.001) and a lower ejection fraction after dilatation (p less than 0.05) or even before in case of early death (p less than 0.05). Mortality and morbidity therefore were high at medium-term and unrelated to the haemodynamic effect of dilatation. On the other hand, the left ventricular systolic function was determinant, mainly because it could improve or remain stable when initially altered. These results suggest that only patients for whom aortic valve replacement is truly contra-indicated and who have a limited alteration of left ventricular function should be selected for aortic valvuloplasty." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_55497", "title": "Aortic regurgitation", "score": 0.013216374269005848, "content": "Surgery A surgical treatment for AR is aortic valve replacement; this is currently an open-heart procedure. In the case of severe acute aortic regurgitation, all individuals should undergo surgery, if there are no absolute contraindications (for surgery). Individuals with bacteremia with aortic valve endocarditis should not wait for treatment with antibiotics to take effect, given the high mortality associated with the acute AI. Replacement with an aortic valve homograft should be performed if feasible. Prognosis The risk of death in individuals with aortic regurgitation, dilated ventricle, normal ejection fraction who are asymptomatic is about 0.2 percent per year. Risk increases if the ejection fraction decreases or if the individual develops symptoms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_7533", "title": "Aortic valve replacement", "score": 0.0127445049405122, "content": "Guidelines suggest TAVR for most patients aged 75 years and older, and surgical aortic valve replacement for most patients aged less than 75 years. Ultimately, the best treatment choice is a decision based on many individual factors. See also Aortic valve repair Artificial heart valve Valvular heart disease Minimally invasive cardiac surgery Pericardial heart valves Open aortic surgery References Sources External links The Society of Thoracic Surgeons – Aortic Valve Aortic Valve Replacement Animation Cardiology Cardiac surgery Implants (medicine) Prosthetics" }, { "id": "article-31500_6", "title": "Aortic Valve Replacement -- Introduction", "score": 0.012668053528735988, "content": "AS can be asymptomatic or can cause symptoms of syncope, angina and heart failure. [6] Severe AS is fatal with a 50% mortality at 2 years. [7] As per The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association (ACC/AHA) guidelines, AS is graded severe when the orifice area is less than 1.0 cm, the mean gradient is greater than 40 mmHg or the jet velocity is greater than 4 m/s. Prognosis is poor in symptomatic or severe cases unless the valve is replaced. Up to 30% of patients aged > 75 do not undergo surgical valve replacement either because of technical reasons; this may include porcelain aorta, general frailty, refusal to undergo surgery, and serious comorbid conditions. [8] The operative death risk for surgical aortic valve replacement (SAVR) is as high as 10% in patients with LV dysfunction, chronic renal disease, and advanced age. [9] Trans-catheter aortic valve replacement and trans-catheter aortic valve implantation (TAVR/TAVI) have emerged as a more feasible and less risky option for patients not suitable for surgery." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_85077", "title": "Aortic stenosis", "score": 0.012556208924247666, "content": "Aortic valve replacement In adults, symptomatic severe aortic stenosis usually requires aortic valve replacement (AVR). While AVR has been the standard of care for aortic stenosis for several decades, aortic valve replacement approaches include open heart surgery, minimally invasive cardiac surgery (MICS) and minimally invasive catheter-based (percutaneous) aortic valve replacement. However, surgical aortic valve replacement is well-studied, and generally has a good and well-established longer-term prognosis. A diseased aortic valve is most commonly replaced using a surgical procedure with either a mechanical or a tissue valve. The procedure is done either in an open-heart surgical procedure or, in a smaller but growing number of cases, a minimally invasive cardiac surgery (MICS) procedure." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en127_21406", "title": "Percutaneous aortic valve replacement", "score": 0.012349397590361445, "content": "Medical uses Patients with symptomatic severe aortic stenosis have a mortality rate of approximately 50% at 2 years without intervention. In patients who are deemed too high risk for open heart surgery, TAVR significantly reduces the rates of death and cardiac symptoms. At present, TAVR is not routinely recommended for low risk patients in favor of surgical aortic valve replacement, however it is increasingly being offered to intermediate risk patients, based on recent studies showing it to be non-inferior to surgical aortic valve replacement." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_7518", "title": "Aortic valve replacement", "score": 0.012264462809917356, "content": "Low gradient aortic stenosis with concomitant left ventricular dysfunction poses a significant question to the anesthesiologist and the patient. Stress echocardiography (i.e. with dobutamine infusion) can help determine if the ventricle is dysfunctional because of aortic stenosis, or because the myocardium lost its ability to contract. Aortic insufficiency Many people with aortic insufficiency often don’t develop symptoms until they have had the condition for many years. Aortic valve replacement is indicated for symptoms such as shortness of breath, and in cases where the heart has begun to enlarge (dilate) from pumping the increased volume of blood that leaks back through the valve. Types of valves There are two basic types of replacement heart valve: tissue (bioprosthetic) valves and mechanical valves. Tissue valves" }, { "id": "article-610_11", "title": "Mechanical Aortic Valve Replacement -- Indications", "score": 0.011783254501701104, "content": "Transthoracic and transesophageal echocardiography are the two best tools to evaluate the aortic valve morphology. There are strict criteria outlined by the American Society of Echocardiography for severe aortic stenosis and the need for aortic valve replacement. Severe aortic stenosis is described as follows: [9] Aortic valve area of less than or equal to 1.0 cm2 Mean transvalvular aortic gradient greater or equal to 40 mmHg The maximum aortic jet velocity of greater than equal to 4 m/s across the valve The following are the stages and recommendations for aortic valve replacement in valvular stenosis: [10] [11]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_7514", "title": "Aortic valve replacement", "score": 0.011413996492906106, "content": "Aortic stenosis most commonly is the result of calcification of the cusps. Other reasons for stenosis are the bicuspid valve (some patients have only two cusps at the aortic valve instead of the usual three) and rheumatic aortic stenosis (now rare in the West). Obstruction at the level of the aortic valve causes increased pressure within the heart's left ventricle. This can lead to hypertrophy and ultimately dysfunction of the heart. While x-ray and ECG might indicate aortic stenosis, echocardiography is the diagnostic procedure of choice. US findings also help in grading the severity of the disease. In cases of symptomatic severe aortic stenosis, AVR is warranted. In cases of asymptomatic but severe aortic stenosis, more factors should be taken into consideration." }, { "id": "article-610_12", "title": "Mechanical Aortic Valve Replacement -- Indications", "score": 0.011027934083601285, "content": "Severe high-gradient aortic stenosis with symptoms by either history or on exercise testing (stage D1). Asymptomatic patients with severe AS (stage C2) and left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) <50 %. Patients with severe AS (stage C or D) undergoing other cardiac surgery. Asymptomatic patients with severe AS and low surgical risk. Asymptomatic patients with severe AS and decreased exercise tolerance or fall in systemic blood pressure. A mechanical valve is preferable over a bioprosthetic valve in the following patients: [12] Surgical aortic valve replacement in patients age < 55 years old. No contraindication to anticoagulation with Vitamin K antagonist. An existing indication for anticoagulation like a prosthetic mechanical valve at a different location. High risk of morbidity and mortality with reintervention. The following are predictors of poor outcome in patients undergoing aortic valve replacement: [13] [14]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_153752", "title": "Aortic valve", "score": 0.0108038513210927, "content": "Aortic valve replacement Replacement of the aortic valve is done by replacing the native valve with a prosthetic valve. Traditionally, this has been a surgical procedure (surgical AVR or SAVR) but a non-surgical option called transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR) or TAVI transcatheter aortic valve implantation delivers a prosthetic valve through a catheter. The choice between SAVR and TAVR often relies on the open-heart surgical risk and indications for other open heart surgeries (etc., coronary bypass, other valve dysfunction). The Bentall procedure is a type of surgical procedure when the aortic valve, aortic root, and ascending aorta are replaced in a single operation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_7516", "title": "Aortic valve replacement", "score": 0.010295346208658903, "content": "Indications for surgery Guidelines for aortic valve replacement As long-term data on the survival and quality of life of people following valve replacement have become available, evidence-based guidelines for aortic valve replacement have been developed. These help healthcare professionals decide when aortic valve replacement is the best option for a patient. Two widely accepted sets of guidelines used by surgeons and cardiologists are the American Heart Association and American College of Cardiology Guidelines for the Management of Patients with Valvular Heart Disease, and the European Society of Cardiology and the European Association for Cardio‑Thoracic Surgery Guidelines for the management of valvular heart disease. Aortic stenosis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0329_6264", "title": "[Aortic valve replacement in patients over 70: a Doppler echocardiographic study].", "score": 0.010205125581871196, "content": "Aortic valve disease is known to be the most frequent valvular disease in the elderly and aortic valve replacement is often the best therapeutic strategy. Hemodynamic performance of prostheses is critical in this subset of patients to ensure an optimal quality of life. Moreover, old patients with small aortic ostia are getting more and more common in clinical practice, making often necessary to implant small prostheses. If a significant pressure drop is not achieved, hypertrophy persists and left ventricular function may not improve. Such conditions have not yet been extensively studied in the elderly. The aim of this study was firstly to assess echocardiographically the performance of aortic prosthetic heart valves in old patients (&gt; or = 70 years) and compare the results obtained in patients with prostheses of different type and size, and secondly to evaluate the postoperative changes in left ventricular hypertrophy and function in a subset of patients with isolated or prevalent aortic stenosis. One hundred fifty-one patients were initially considered; global mortality was 9.3% at 20 +/- 12 months from intervention. In the 75 patients with a postoperative echocardiogram, transprosthetic gradient was 27 +/- 12 (max) and 15.1 +/- 6.6 (mean) mmHg. Mean functional prosthetic area (FPA) was 1.5 +/- 0.5 cm2. No statistically significant differences could be demonstrated between mechanical and biological prostheses. Three groups were identified, according to prosthetic size (Group 1: diameter &lt; 23 mm, Group 2: diameter 23 mm, Group 3: diameter &gt; 23 mm). Among groups, max and mean gradients as well as FPA were found to be significantly different. Respectively max gradient was 33.2 +/- 13, 26 +/- 11, 20.2 +/- 7.2 mmHg (p &lt; 0.05), mean gradient was 17.2 +/- 6.1, 15.4 +/- 7.6, 11.7 +/- 4.3 mmHg (p &lt; 0.01) and FPA was 1.2 +/- 0.3, 1.5 +/- 0.3, 1.8 +/- 0.7 cm2 (p &lt; 0.05 between Group 1 and Group 3). In a subgroup of 31 patients with isolated or prevalent aortic stenosis, a significant interventricular septal thickness reduction was found postoperatively (14.3 +/- 2.3 vs 12.6 +/- 8.0 mm, p &lt; 0.001). Posterior wall thickness decreased similarly, but to a lesser extent; left ventricular diameters and myocardial mass also significantly decreased (left ventricular mass: 186 +/- 45 vs 146 +/- 38 g/m2, p &lt; 0.001). When prosthetic size was considered, septal thickness reduction was more evident in Group 1 and Group 2 (p &lt; 0.05 and p &lt; 0.01). On the contrary, a significant improvement in left ventricular diameters was observed only in Group 3 (p &lt; 0.05). Left ventricular mass decreased significantly in Group 2 and Group 3 (p &lt; 0.01 and p &lt; 0.05). Such improvements could be demonstrated only in those patients (79%) who showed at least a 50% reduction in the transvalvular gradient. In this subset, left ventricular function also significantly improved (fractional shortening: 29 +/- 0.7 vs 33 +/- 0.7%, p &lt; 0.02). In conclusion, aortic valve replacement in the elderly is a safe and effective therapeutic strategy. In patients with small aortic prostheses, the transvalvular gradient was found to be slightly but significantly higher as compared to that of larger prostheses. However, left ventricular function was good and similar in all subgroups. No significant differences were found between mechanical and biological prostheses. In old patients with isolated or prevalent aortic stenosis a significant reduction in left ventricular hypertrophy and mass is observed within 2 years from intervention. An increase in myocardial contractility can also be expected, if at least a 50% reduction in transvalvular gradient is obtained." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_7531", "title": "Aortic valve replacement", "score": 0.009949644035422816, "content": "Patient–prosthesis mismatch When dealing with a small aortic annulus, the surgeon might be forced to insert a small prosthetic aortic valve, with an orifice that is too small in relation to the size of the patient. This is known as patient–prosthesis mismatch. It increases the pressure of the blood flowing through the valve and can negatively affect outcomes. Various techniques and stentless valves have been utilized to avoid this phenomenon. Less invasive procedures Minimally invasive cardiac surgery Since the late 1990s, some cardiac surgeons have been performing aortic valve replacement procedures using an approach referred to as minimally invasive cardiac surgery (MICS). Using this approach, the surgeon replaces the valve through a smaller chest incision (6–10 cm) than that for a median sternotomy. MICS typically involves shorter recovery times and more attractive cosmetic results." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en127_21405", "title": "Percutaneous aortic valve replacement", "score": 0.009913673071567809, "content": "Severe symptomatic aortic stenosis carries a poor prognosis. No medical cure exists today, making the timing of aortic valve replacement the most important decision to make for these patients. Until recently, surgical aortic valve replacement was the standard of care in adults with severe symptomatic aortic stenosis. However, the risks associated with surgical aortic valve replacement are increased in elderly patients and those with concomitant severe systolic heart failure or coronary artery disease, as well as in people with comorbidities such as cerebrovascular and peripheral arterial disease, chronic kidney disease, and chronic respiratory dysfunction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0103_13995", "title": "[Percutaneous transluminal aortic valvuloplasty using a balloon catheter. A new therapeutic option in aortic stenosis in the elderly].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Aortic valvular dilatation with a balloon catheter was performed in 44 patients, 20 men and 24 women, most of whom were very elderly (average age 77 years). The indication for valvular replacement had not been retained in these cases because of surgical contra-indications or a very high operative risk and in 3 cases because of patient refusal. Twenty-nine patients were in functional classes III or IV of the NYHA classification; 12 had syncopal episodes and 18 had invalidating angina. The dilatation was performed by a femoral arterial approach in 34 cases, and by a brachial arterial approach in 10 cases. MEDI-TECH catheters with 15, 18 or 20 mm diameters when inflated were used in the majority of cases. Several inflations lasting 10 to 240 seconds were performed in each case with balloons of increasing size. This was well tolerated in all but one patients who had a sharp syncope. The immediate results confirmed valvular dilatation. The average transvalvular pressure gradient fell from 76 +/- 25 mmHg to 30 +/- 13 mmHg (p less than 0.001). The aortic valve surface area calculated by the Gorlin formula increased from 0.5 +/- 0.18 cm2 to 1 +/- 0.42 cm2 (p less than 0.01). After dilatation the gradient was less than or equal to 40 mmHg in 37 cases; aortic valve surface area was greater than or equal to 1 cm2 in 14 cases and less than or equal to 0.7 cm2 in only 5 cases. The left ventricular ejection fraction increased immediately after valvuloplasty from 44 +/- 16 p. 100 to 49 +/- 15 p. 100 (p less than 0.01). In the 18 cases in which it was less than 40 p. 100 before valvuloplasty, it increased from 30 +/- 6 p. 100 to 36 +/- 9 p. 100 (p less than 0.02). Residual aortic regurgitation was only observed in one case. Two patients died in the hospital period (4.6 p. 100). There were no other serious complications. During an average follow-up period of 60 days (3 weeks to 6 months) there was a big improvement in symptoms in the great majority of cases and, in particular, syncopal and anginal attacks disappeared. Only 4 patients remained in functional classes III or IV after valvuloplasty. Percutaneous aortic valvuloplasty is a new, relatively simple, low risk, economic and very effective therapeutic procedure in all cases in which aortic valve replacement is contra-indicated or refused by the patient.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0005_5116", "title": "[Results of isolated aortic valve replacement].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Progress in surgical technique and decreased early and late postoperative risk should lead to a modification in the indications for aortic valve replacement, before irreversible myocardial changes have definitively compromised the result of surgery. One hundred and seventy aortic valve replacements (100 pure or predominant aortic stenoses, 70 cases of aortic insufficiency) were carried out by the same surgeon over a period of 4 years with a minimum follow-up of one year and average of 25.4 months, using à Bjork prosthesis or a homograft. Early postoperative mortality was 5.3%, not differing from that associated with other types of valve replacement (mitral, polyvalvular). It is related more directly to surgical technique than to preoperative prognostic factors. Late mortality was 8.1%. Almost one third of these late deaths were related to the surgical technique or to the model of aortic prosthesis used. Stage IV cardiac failure plays a pejorative role in this late mortality, whilst no prognostic role could be demonstrated with respect to angina, meancardiac surface, Sokolow index, mean pulmonary artery pressure or diastolic pressure in the left ventricule. One year after surgery there was found to be a significantly important decrease in the Sokolow index and a modest decrease in mean radiological cardiac surface area. Beyond one year, no further improvement was seen. The majority of the patients surviving surgery had a good functional result since only 1% of the aortic stenosis patients and 7% of the aortic insufficiency group remained in stage III or IV cardiac failure. 78% of the patients who were working before operation were able to resume their professional activity after an average period of 6.2 months. However only 40% of the patients with stage IV failure who underwent surgery could return to work." }, { "id": "article-610_2", "title": "Mechanical Aortic Valve Replacement -- Introduction", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Aortic valve stenosis is the most common type of valvular heart disease in the elderly. The incidence of aortic valve disease increases with age; one in eight people over the age of 75 have moderate to severe valvular heart disease. [1] The natural history of aortic stenosis usually begins with an asymptomatic period with the development of symptoms once the valve is critically stenosed. The progression of stenotic valve and time of onset of symptoms varies from patient to patient. Symptomatic patients with severe stenosis have a poor prognosis. Ross first described the higher mortality rate after the onset of cardiac symptoms in 1968. [2]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en063_19520", "title": "Valvular heart disease", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Minor tricuspid insufficiency is common in healthy individuals. In more severe cases it is a consequence of dilation of the right ventricle, leading to displacement of the papillary muscles which control the valve's ability to close. Dilation of the right ventricle occurs secondary to ventricular septal defects, right to left shunting of blood, eisenmenger syndrome, hyperthyroidism, and pulmonary stenosis. Tricuspid insufficiency may also be the result of congenital defects of the tricuspid valve, such as Ebstein's anomaly. Signs and symptoms Aortic stenosis Symptoms of aortic stenosis may include heart failure symptoms, such as dyspnea on exertion (most frequent symptom), orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, angina pectoris, and syncope, usually exertional." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0886_14636", "title": "[The first 200 transcatheter aortic valve implantations in the Gottsegen Gyorgy Institute of Cardiology, Hungary].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Transcatheter aortic valve implantation is a therapeutic alternative for contraindicated and high surgical risk patients with severe symptomatic aortic stenosis. This intervention is part of daily routine in the Institute of the authors. In the present work the results of the first 200 patients are discussed. Until January, 2016, 200 patients (female 55%, mean age 79.9 years, average EuroSCORE 19.3%, left ventricular ejection fraction 54%, peak gradient 81.2 mmHg, mean aortic gradient 50.9 mmHg) underwent transcatheter aortic valve implantation. The procedure was performed with 99% success rate. Complications were evaluated according to VARC 2 definitions. Mortality was 5% at one month and 17.4% at one year. Cardiac mortality was 13.6 at one year. Cerebrovascular complications were 5% within one year, and 95% of patients were in NYHA I or II functional classes at one year. These findings are consistent with worldwide results. Orv. Hetil., 2016, 157(45), 1786-1792." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0059_512", "title": "[A comparative evaluation of a prosthetic operation and balloon valvuloplasty in aortic valve stenosis in elderly people].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The results of surgical treatment of aortic stenosis (AS) in elderly patients were studied in a group of 602 patients aged from 70 to 90 years (average age 74.6 years) chosen from a total number of 1,643 persons who underwent operation for AS in 1975-1988. Total operative mortality with consideration for mortality connected with combined interventions was 11.4%, in the group of isolated prosthetics it was 10.4%. The late-term results were appraised in 96.6% of patients (in 3.6 years, on the average). According to actuarial charts, survival after 3 years was 75.9%, after 5 years--66.7%, and after 7 years--55.6%. There was no difference in the survival values of recipients of biological and mechanical prostheses. Significant improvement of the functional condition was noted (96.5% of patients belonged to NYHA classes I and II). Demographic and epidemiological studies showed this pathology in the elderly to be a new problem of surgery. Surgical treatment is justified by the quality of the results, prolonged survival, and an admissible risk level even at the age of 80-90 years. Comparison with the results of aortic balloon valvuloplasty studied on basis of a rich literature review shows these to be much poorer. On the whole, only surgery may be the real method of treatment allowing effective removal of AS. The operation can be carried out even on very old patients if there are no substantiated contraindications on the part of the brain and the patient's general condition." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_19447", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009567996700690792, "content": "FIGURE 297e-12 After balloon valvuloplasty, the LV-AO mean pres-sure gradient decreased to 37.3 mmHg, indicating that the aortic valve area increased to 0.95 cm2. FIGURE 297e-14 Once the valve was deployed, the pressure gradi-ent between the LV and AO decreased to 11.6 mmHg, and the func-tional valve area is 1.34 cm2. The prevalence of calcific aortic stenosis is 2–3% in individuals age ≥75 years. Symptomatic aortic stenosis is associated with an average survival of 2–3 years and an increased risk of sudden death; aortic valve replacement improves both symptoms and survival. In high-risk patients with severe aortic stenosis who are not surgical candidates, 1and 5-year survival rates are ~62% and 38%, respectively. TAVR is approved in Europe and was recently approved in the United States as an alternative to surgical aortic valve replacement in high-risk patients. (Case contributed with permission by Dr. Andrew C. Eisenhauer.)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_153754", "title": "Aortic valve", "score": 0.009557119942969167, "content": "There are alternatives to animal tissue valves. In some cases, a human aortic valve can be implanted. These are called homografts. Homograft valves are donated by patients and recovered after the patient expires. The durability of homograft valves is probably the same as for porcine tissue valves. Another procedure for aortic valve replacement is the Ross procedure (after Donald Ross) or pulmonary autograft. The Ross procedure involves going to surgery to have the aortic valve removed and replacing it with the patient's own pulmonary valve. A pulmonary homograft (a pulmonary valve taken from a cadaver) or a valvular prothesis is then used to replace the patient's own pulmonary valve. The first minimally invasive aortic valve surgery took place at the Cleveland Clinic in 1996. Endocarditis Endocarditis is infection of the heart and this often results in vegetations growing on valves. While it is possible for it to affect the aortic valve, it is not the most likely spot. Evaluation" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_46301", "title": "Aortic valvuloplasty", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Aortic valvuloplasty also known as balloon aortic valvotomy is the widening of a stenotic aortic valve using a balloon catheter inside the valve. The balloon is placed into the aortic valve that has become stiff from calcium buildup. The balloon is then inflated in an effort to increase the opening size of the valve and improving blood flow. According to the ACC/AHA 2006 Guidelines for the Management of Patients With Valvular Heart Disease, balloon valvuloplasty (also referred to as balloon valvotomy) is not indicated for most patients with aortic stenosis. The preferred alternative, if available, is aortic valve replacement. However the guidelines noted specific settings in adults in which balloon valvotomy can be considered: As a \"bridge\" to surgery in hemodynamically unstable patients who are at high risk for aortic valve replacement. Use for palliation in patients with serious comorbid conditions that prevent performance of aortic valve replacement." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0514_7491", "title": "[Hemodynamic performance of mechanical aortic valves in narrow aortic annulus cases].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Small-sized prosthetic valves used in aortic valve position usually cause a high transvalvular gradient. This situation, especially in people with a high body surface area, causes a patient-prosthetic valve mismatch. In this study, hemodynamic performances of the two new generation bileaflet, small size mechanical valves were evaluated during rest and stress conditions. Eighteen patients with implanted 21-mm St. Jude HP (11 cases) and Sorin Bicarbon (7 cases) prosthetic valves in aortic position were evaluated at rest and during dobutamine infusion, 16.3+/-5.5 months after the operation. Dobutamine infusion was started at a dose of 5 microg/kg/min. The infusion rate was increased every 15 minutes up to 10-20-30 microg/kg/min. Maximum gradient, mean gradient, effective valve area (EVA), effective valve area index (EVAI) and performance index (PI) were calculated during rest and maximum dobutamine infusion rate. When the rest and dobutamine infusion measurements were compared, the maximum and mean gradients were found to be increased moderately, but EVA, EVAI, PI values did not change with increasing heart rates. For St. Jude valve; maximum gradient increased from 30.5+/-6.5 mmHg to 74.7+/-33.6 mmHg (p=0.03) and mean gradient increased from 17.9+/-3.8 to 40.8+/-23.8 mmHg (p=0.03). For Sorin Bicarbon valve; maximum gradient increased from 31.7+/-13.3 mmHg to 52.0+/-11.2 mmHg (p=0.01), mean gradient increased from 16.1+/-6.4 mmHg to 28.8+/-1.0 mmHg (p=0.01). The difference was not significant between the two valves with respect to measured parameters during rest and maximum dobutamine infusion. According to our findings, 21-mm Sorin Bicarbon and St. Jude HP mechanical bileaflet valves have good hemodynamic performance during exercise and these types of valves seem to be appropriate for patients with small aortic annulus." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1051_3516", "title": "Protected complex percutaneous coronary intervention and transcatheter aortic valve replacement using extracorporeal membrane oxygenation in a high-risk frail patient: a case report.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Transcatheter aortic valve replacement has become a routine procedure for patients with severe symptomatic aortic stenosis at increased surgical risk. Not much is known about using prophylactic support with venoarterial extracorporeal membrane oxygenation in patients undergoing transcatheter aortic valve replacement and eventually concomitant complex percutaneous coronary intervention. We present a successful procedure of transcatheter aortic valve replacement and high-risk percutaneous coronary intervention utilizing venoarterial extracorporeal membrane oxygenation for hemodynamic support in a very frail 88-year-old Caucasian woman with severe symptomatic aortic stenosis and coronary bypass grafting in the past. Echocardiography revealed a \"low-flow low-gradient\" aortic stenosis (mean transvalvular gradient 30 mmHg, aortic valve area 0.4 cm<sup2</sup, significant calcification), a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%, severe mitral regurgitation with moderate stenosis (mean transvalvular gradient 7 mmHg), with a systolic pulmonary artery pressure of 80 mmHg. Moreover, pre-interventional coronary angiography exposed a severe left main ostial stenosis and sequential subtotal heavily calcified stenosis of the left anterior descending artery . Computed tomographic angiography showed no heavy tortuosity but moderate calcification of the iliofemoral arteries. The procedure was performed under general anesthesia in our hybrid operating room. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation was established by left femoral percutaneous cannulation using a 21-Fr venous and 15-Fr arterial cannula. Subsequently, complex percutaneous coronary intervention with implantation of two drug-eluting stents from the left main into the left anterior descending artery was performed via a right femoral arterial 7F sheath. Thereafter, a 23-mm Sapien 3 aortic valve prosthesis (Edwards, Irvine, CA, USA) was implanted via right femoral artery in the usual manner, whereby the arterial pigtail catheter for marking the aortic annulus during transcatheter aortic valve replacement was inserted over a Check-Flo® Hemostasis Assembly (Cook Medical, Bloomington, IN, USA) on a Y-adapter via the arterial extracorporeal membrane oxygenation cannula. After extracorporeal membrane oxygenation decannulation, vascular closure was easily performed using the MANTA vascular closure device in order to reduce procedural time and risk of access site complications. In summary, we demonstrate the feasibility of elective prophylactic extracorporeal membrane oxygenation implementation in selected very high-risk and frail patients undergoing transcatheter aortic valve replacement and percutaneous coronary intervention in order to avoid intraprocedural complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0087_6603", "title": "[Comparative hemodynamic characteristics of Soviet-made mechanical heart valve prostheses in the mitral position].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The article deals with hemodynamic evaluation of Soviet-made, and heart valve prostheses in late-term periods after operation for mitral valve replacement. Fourty-six patients were examined: a ball prosthesis was implanted in 21 patients (1st group), as disk prosthesis--in 15 patients (2nd group) and a prosthesis--in 10 patients (3rd group). A good clinical result of the operation was achieved in all patients, they were referred to functional class I and II. Catheterization of the left and right parts of the heart, left ventriculography, and test with dosed physical exertion were carried out. Loading was continued till cardiac output increased approximately by 60 per cent in 6 patients of the 1st group, 12 patients of the second group, and in all 10 patients of the 3rd group. The study showed that the prostheses do not yield to foreign models of heart valves in hemodynamic characteristics and cause a lower stenosing effect than the prostheses do. No essential differences were detected between the prostheses." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 222 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 30 ] ], "text": "Patient on her 30th post-transplant day of hematopoietic precursor transplantation, in severe neutropenia who presents with cough with hemoptotic expectoration. This picture is usually seen in infection by Aspergillus spp." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 223, 304 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 30, 42 ] ], "text": "We can rule out infection by Staphylococcus aureus because of previous treatment," }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Septic embolisms.", "2": "Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis.", "3": "Pneumonia due to Staphylococcus aureus.", "4": "Systemic candidiasis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0610_2963", "title": "Septic pulmonary embolism: three case reports.", "score": 0.014958560743885182, "content": "We present three cases of septic pulmonary embolism which occurred as a result of three different causes. The first case, was a 23 year old woman suffering from cough, sputum, hemopthisis and pleuritic chest pain. She had a right subclavian port. On her thorax computed tomography (CT) scans there were widespread bilateral, irregular parenchymal nodular infiltrates and some of them beginning to cavitate. Meticilin resistant stafilococus aureus (MRSA) was isolated from the blood culture and septic embolism was diagnosed. A month after antibiotic theraphy her parenchymal nodules have considerably decreased in size. The second case was a 40 year old woman admitted to our hospital with the same complaints. Her radiological findings were similar. Meticilin sensitive stafilococus aureus (MSSA) was isolated from the blood cultures and antibiotic theraphy was initiated. To investigate the etiology of the nodules due to septic embolism, echocardiography was performed and infective endocarditis was diagnosed. After the antibiotic theraphy and a tricuspid valve operation her parenchymal nodules disappeared. The final case involved a 51 year old man suffering from fever, fatigue, cough and pain in the left arm for one week. His general status was bad. His radiological findings were also similar to the others. Staphillococcus aureus was isolated from blood and wound culture. Following clinical and radiological findings we thought it was a case of septic pulmonary embolism and antibiotic theraphy was started. Despite the therapy we did not take fever response and he died five days after antibiotic therapy. In conclusion, septic pulmonary embolism should be considered in bilateral cavitary nodular infiltrates and must be managed fast." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1159_21222", "title": "Fusariosis: An Invasive Fungal Disease in a Neutropenic Patient With Acute Myeloid Leukemia.", "score": 0.01484585143803021, "content": "Although rare in the U.S invasive Fusariosis (IF) is increasingly being recognized as a cause of severe invasive fungal disease in patients with neutropenia in the setting of hematologic malignancy and hematopoietic stem cell transplants (HSCT). IF in these patients is associated with high mortality, moreover there are no guidelines on effective therapy, thus early diagnosis and involvement of an expert with experience in treating Fusariosis are imperative. We present a case of IF in a patient with profound prolonged neutropenia in the setting of chemotherapy for relapsed, refractory acute myeloid leukemia. A 33-year-old woman with relapsed acute myeloid leukemia (AML) was hospitalized for re-induction chemotherapy. Five days post cycle 1 she became neutropenic. She was treated with prophylactic antimicrobials that included acyclovir, levofloxacin, and Posaconazole. On day sixty she began to run a high-grade fever. The physical exam was remarkable for a temperature of 102 degrees Fahrenheit and a heart rate of 116 beats per minute. Complete blood count was remarkable for 130 WBC/ml, Hb 6.5 g/dl, hematocrit (HCT) 18.7%, 13000 platelets/ml, absolute neutrophils counts (ANC) of 0. Her CT chest showed new bilateral lung nodules. Antibiotics were changed to cefepime, vancomycin, and metronidazole on day sixty-two without response. On day sixty-five meropenem was started and cefepime stopped. On day sixty-eight posaconazole was stopped and amphotericin B was started and two days later fever became low grade. She developed hyperpigmented skin lesions with necrotic centers on extremities that were biopsied. Histopathology staining favored the presence of rare fungal hyphae. The culture of the biopsy sample grew <iFusarium spp</i that was identified by DNA sequencing as <iFusarium falciforme</i. Voriconazole and terbinafine were added. Her fevers resolved within the next 24 hours and she remained afebrile. <iFusarium</i is a hyaline mold present in the environment. Infection is acquired by inoculation into the skin, intravascular devices, or inhalation. IF incidence is low in the United States. <iF. solani</i and <iF. oxysporum</i are the most predominant disease-causing species complexes. Invasive Fusariosis (IF) is a rare disease seen in patients with hematologic malignancy and hematopoietic stem cell transplants (HSCT) with profound neutropenia. Immunocompromised patients suffer disseminated disease to multiple sites as in this case, with mortality rates of between sixty to eighty percent in this patient population. Blood and skin lesions biopsy cultures are diagnostic. Blood cultures are positive in up to sixty percent of cases in about four days. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can identify <iFusarium</i but species identification by PCR is difficult. Newer molecular methods are better for species identification. Histopathology can be helpful. Differential diagnoses include invasive aspergillosis (IA), mucormycosis, mycobacterial and dimorphic fungal infections. There are no guidelines for standard therapy. Amphotericin B or voriconazole are preferred. Combination therapy may be indicated. Neutrophil recovery is crucial. Adjunctive and preventive measures have roles." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0329_6611", "title": "[Management of hemoptysis in invasive pulmonary aspergillosis].", "score": 0.013342198581560284, "content": "Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis is an opportunistic infection occurring in a background of severe immune depression. The majority of cases occur in patients who have malignant hematologic disease, particularly during chemotherapy induction or consolidations phases for acute non-lymphocytic leukemia. The principal risk factors are profound (PN &lt; 500 per mm3) and prolonged (very high risk beyond 20 days) neutropenia, perturbed phagocyte function and cellular immune deficiency (AIDS, immunosuppressive treatment in organ and bone marrow recipients). Clinically, invasive pulmonary aspergillosis presents as acute non-specific pneumonia with cough, chest pain and fever. The severe infection rapidly becomes life-threatening. The development of massive hemoptysis is a major risk. We report four cases of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis in patients who had hemoptysis. All four patients developed non-specific pneumonia resistant to broad-spectrum antibiotics during post-chemotherapy aplasia. Computed tomography of the thorax and bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage was performed due to the occurrence of hemoptysis. In the first two cases, the patients were recovering from aplasia. The thoracic CT scan showed evidence of a cavitating mass with peripheral vessels. Bronchoscopy findings suggested mucosal lesions. The patients were managed surgically. Pathology confirmed the diagnosis of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis with the presence of ischemic necrosis of the pulmonary parenchyma harboring numerous aspergillus filaments. Outcome was favorable and chemotherapy was re-initiated in one case. These two patient died from their hematological disease a few months later. The other two patients remained in aplasia. A CT of the thorax showed multifocal infiltration with vascular contact. Bronchoscopy was again suggestive. One patient developed massive hemoptysis with respiratory distress. Embolization was performed but the patient died two days after onset of hemoptysis. In the last case, embolization was successful and outcome was favorable enabling a bone marrow allograft; the patient died a few months later from the hematological disease. The potential gravity of hemoptysis in the course of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis should lead to early treatment with emergency CT scan and, if possible, bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage to establish the therapeutic strategy based on surgical excision or embolization of the pulmonary or bronchial arteries." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0709_168", "title": "Twenty-nine cases of invasive aspergillosis in neutropenic patients.", "score": 0.012406474270881051, "content": "Invasive aspergillosis is a life-threatening infectious complication in hematological patients undergoing immunosuppressive chemotherapy. We report 29 cases of invasive aspergillosis diagnosed in the Sousse Farhat Hached hospital Hematology unit, Tunisia, between 2002 and 2010. The most frequent disease (65.5%) was acute myeloid leukemia. All patients were severely neutropenic (&lt;500/mm(3), mean duration=27 days). Pulmonary invasive aspergillosis was suggested in 28 (96.5%) cases. The most frequent respiratory signs were cough (64.3%), chest pain (53.6%), and hemoptysis (50%). The chest X-ray showed suggestive lesions in 60.7% of cases. CT scans revealed nodules with cavitation in 65% of cases, a halo sign in 20% of cases, and nodules in 15% of cases. Galactomannan antigenemia was positive in 88%, mycological examination positive in 51.6%, and seroconversion was noted in 35.7% of the cases. Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis was classified, according to EORTC/MSG criteria, as probable in 26 cases, possible in one case, and proven in one case. Aspergillus flavus was the dominant species in pulmonary invasive aspergillosis accounting for 73.7% of isolates. Extrapulmonary involvement was suggested in 39.3% of cases, the most frequent were sinusitis and brain abscess. Primary cutaneous aspergillosis was observed in one case. The overall mortality rate was 64.2%; the 12-week survival rate was 71.4%. Our results are correlated to published data. A. flavus was the most frequent species in our region." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0710_18081", "title": "[Pneumonia caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum: is Lemierre syndrome still current?].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Fusobacterium necrophorum is a non-spore-forming gram-negative anaerobic bacillus that may be the causative agent of localized or severe systemic infections. Systemic infections due to F.necrophorum are known as Lemierre's syndrome, postanginal sepsis or necrobacillosis. The most common clinical course of severe infections in humans is a progressive illness from tonsillitis to septicemia in previously healthy young adults. A septic thrombophlebitis arising from the tonsillar veins and extending into the internal jugular vein leads to septicemia and septic emboli contributing to the development of necrotic abscesses especially in lungs and other tissues such as liver, bone and joints. In this case report, a previously healthy man with pneumonia and empyema due to F.necrophorum has been presented. A 22 year-old man suffering from sore throat for seven days was admitted to emergency department with ongoing fever and dysphagia for three days. On admission he was already taking amoxicillin-clavulanic acid and his complaints were relieved with continuation of therapy to a total of 10 days. However, five days after the cessation of treatment he developed productive cough, fever and generalized myalgia. On physical examination, there were crackles on right lower lung, and chest X-ray revealed pulmonary consolidation on the right middle lobe. Levofloxacin therapy was started based on the diagnosis of pneumonia. While polymorphonuclear leucocytes and intracellular gram-negative bacilli were seen in Gram stained sputum smear, sputum culture was reported as normal flora. Although the patient's status had started to improve with treatment, his condition deteriorated with development of fever and dyspnea. Chest X-ray revealed consolidation, pulmonary infiltrates, pleural effusion and air-fluid level on the right. Meropenem, clarithromycin and linezolid were initiated and a chest tube was inserted with the preliminary diagnosis of necrotizing pneumonia, empyema and type-1 respiratory failure. While there was no growth on bronchoalveolar lavage fluid culture, thoracentesis material inoculated into thioglycolate broth revealed turbidity. Further inoculation onto Schaedler agar which was incubated under anaerobic conditions, yielded growth of catalase negative, indol positive, gram-negative anaerobic bacilli identified as F.necrophorum by BBL Crystal system (Becton Dickinson, USA). The detailed history of the patient revealed that fish bone had stuck in his throat a week ago. Clarithromycin and linezolid were discontinued and he was recovered within six weeks of meropenem treatment. F.necrophorum infection should be considered in the differential diagnosis of persistent head and neck infections with rapidly progressive metastatic necrotic lesions especially in healthy young adults and clindamycin or metranidazol should be added to the treatment protocols." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0262_17510", "title": "[A case report of acute pulmonary valve endocarditis caused by fungi].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 42 years old female was admitted for evaluation of unrelenting fever and dyspnea on exertion in March, 1991. The patient had a VSD closure in 1968. After admission, serial blood cultures were found to be positive for Candida Parapsilosis and a massive vegetation on the pulmonary valve was demonstrated by echocardiography. Chest X-ray disclosed a wedge-shaped density in the right middle lung lobe that was a compatible finding with pulmonary infarction. At surgery, performed 3 days later the admission, pulmonary valve was entirely resected without replacing it with prosthesis. Antifungal treatment was intensively given afterwards. Her postoperative course was without event and she was sent home on the 51st postoperative day. Right heart catheterization done two years surgery, revealed the pulmonary vascular resistance was 216 dynes sec cm-5. We anticipate that this degree of pulmonary vascular resistance will allow the patient enough to do well without needing valve prosthesis in the near future." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0919_1729", "title": "A case of Legionella pneumophila evaluated with CT and ultrasound.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 36-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department of \"SS Annunziata\" hospital in Chieti complaining of a sharp chest pain arisen some hours before admission. On examination, the patient looked sweaty; his vital signs showed tachycardia and augmented breath rate; sinus tachycardia and normal ventricular repolarization were observed on ECG, and no abnormalities were observed in the echoscan of the hearth. According to the clinical and electrocardiographic findings, and to previous episode of DVT in anamnesis, a thorax CT scan was performed in order to rule out pulmonary embolism. It showed an \"area of parenchymal consolidation involving almost all the left lower lobe with patent bronchial structures\"; given the patient's CURB 65 score, he was then admitted to the pneumology ward where empiric treatment with levofloxacin (750 mg PO once daily) was initiated. Thoracic ultrasound was performed using a multifrequency convex transducer, and the posterior left area was examined through intercostal approach, placing the patient in a sitting position. A subpleural patchy hypoechoic lesion with irregular boundaries was detected; the maximum diameter was 11 cm, and the multiple hyperechoic spots inside it (elsewhere defined as \"air bronchogram\") showed no Doppler signal. Given the positive result of the Legionella urinary antigen test, antibiotic treatment was switched to Levofloxacin 1000 mg PO once daily and Claritromicin 500 mg PO twice daily. After 3 days, his clinical conditions improved dramatically. Ultrasound performed after 5 days from the diagnosis showed decreased dimensions of the lesion previously identified (maximum diameter 8.25 cm) and a marked reduction of the hyperechoic spots in it. The patient was discharged in good clinical conditions, and both thorax CT scan obtained after 1 and 4 months from the diagnosis showed radiological resolution of the parenchymal consolidation. The key to ultrasound visualization of pneumonia is its contact with the pleural surface (86-98% in cases of CAP) and the relative loss of aeration of the portion involved by the infection and a concomitant increase in the fluid content. A paradigmatic US image for parenchymal inflammatory infiltrate has not been established yet; anyway, some typical findings, when combined with the clinical features, can confirm the diagnostic hypothesis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0513_11347", "title": "Comparative bacteriological efficacy of pharmacokinetically enhanced amoxicillin-clavulanate against Streptococcus pneumoniae with elevated amoxicillin MICs and Haemophilus influenzae.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A new pharmacokinetically enhanced formulation of amoxicillin-clavulanate (2,000 mg of amoxicillin/125 mg of clavulanate twice a day; ratio 16:1) has been designed, with sustained-release technology, to allow coverage of bacterial strains with amoxicillin-clavulanic acid MICs of at least 4/2 mug/ml. The bacteriological efficacy of amoxicillin-clavulanate, 2,000/125 mg twice a day, ratio 16:1, was compared in a rat model of respiratory tract infection versus four other amoxicillin-clavulanate formulations: 8:1 three times a day (1,000/125 mg), 7:1 three times a day (875/125 mg), 7:1 twice a day (875/125 mg), and 4:1 three times a day (500/125 mg); levofloxacin (500 mg once a day); and azithromycin (1,000 mg on day 1 followed thereafter by 500 mg once a day). Bacterial strains included Streptococcus pneumoniae, with amoxicillin-clavulanic acid MICs of 2/1 (one strain), 4/2, or 8/4 microg/ml (three strains each), and Haemophilus influenzae, one beta-lactamase-positive strain and one beta-lactamase-negative, ampicillin-resistant strain. Animals were infected by intrabronchial instillation. Antibacterial treatment commenced 24 h postinfection, with doses delivered by computer-controlled intravenous infusion to approximate the concentrations achieved in human plasma following oral administration. Plasma concentrations in the rat corresponded closely with target human concentrations for all antimicrobials tested. Amoxicillin-clavulanate, 2,000/125 mg twice a day, ratio 16:1, was effective against all S. pneumoniae strains tested, including those with amoxicillin-clavulanic acid MICs of up to 8/4 microg/ml and against beta-lactamase-producing and beta-lactamase-negative ampicillin-resistant H. influenzae. These results demonstrate the bacteriological efficacy of pharmacokinetically enhanced amoxicillin-clavulanate 2,000/125 mg twice a day (ratio 16:1) against S. pneumoniae with amoxicillin-clavulanic acid MICs of at least 4/2 microg/ml and support clavulanate 125 mg twice a day as sufficient to protect against beta-lactamase in this rat model." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1026_18154", "title": "Saprochaete Capitata Infection in an 80-Year Old Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) Patient: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The fungal disease caused by invasive fungus Saprochaete capitata is becoming an increasingly popular infection. Fungal pathogens mainly occur in patients with immunocompromised disorders such as hematologic malignancies, acute myeloid leukemia, transplant patients. In this study, we presented a COPD patient infected with S. capitata. At the first check, the patient showed cough, dyspnea, chest pain on both sides. The clinical laboratory test result was characterized with high White blood cell (12.8 G/L), HIV negative. The X ray showed bronchitis and emphysema. Bronchoscopy illustrated bronchial mucositis. CT scanner demonstrated pneumonia with fuzzy nodular lesions and thick interstitial organization in both lungs. The patient was treated with ciprofloxacin 800 mg/day; cefuroxime 2250 mmg/day. However, the fever appeared 2 weeks thereafter. The S. capitata was discovered in the bronchial fluid. The patient was then treated with fluconazole 400 mg/day for 14 days. At the end of treatment, all signs and symptoms of S. capitata infection disappeared and the patient recovered. This case study showed that S. capitata infection can occur in the COPD patients and fluconazole is a pertinent drug for treatment of the infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1042_3326", "title": "A 46-Year-Old Woman Who Presented with Diabetic Ketoacidosis and COVID-19 Pneumonia with Multiple Pulmonary Thromboemboli: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "BACKGROUND Coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) occurs because of a novel enveloped ribonucleic acid coronavirus called severe acute respiratory distress syndrome coronavirus-2 (SARS-CoV-2). One of the major reported complications of COVID-19 includes both arterial and venous thromboembolism (VTE). Here we describe a case of COVID-19 provoked pulmonary embolism in a young patient already receiving prophylactic treatment for VTE. CASE REPORT A 46-year-old female with past medical history of diabetes mellites, hypertension, and asthma presented in the emergency department (ED) with dyspnea requiring 6 liters per minute of oxygen on presentation. Her main complaints were cough and vomiting. In the ED, hypoxemia worsened, and she ultimately required endotracheal intubation. Labs were suggestive of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and showed increase in all inflammatory markers and absolute lymphocytopenia. Chest X-ray showed bilateral diffuse patchy airspace opacities. Standard DKA management was started. She was also started on ceftriaxone, azithromycin, hydroxychloroquine, and subcutaneous heparin (5000 U every 8 h) for VTE prophylaxis. SARS-Cov2 reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction returned positive. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin were discontinued the very next day because of low suspicion of bacterial infection while hydroxychloroquine was completed for 5 days. On the third day of admission, the patient self-extubated and was immediately placed on nonrebreather with spO₂ in low 90s. On the fourth day of admission, D-dimer came back 4.74 mg/L, which was elevated from a prior value, so computed tomography angiography of the lungs was done, which disclosed multiple emboli in the lungs. She was started on therapeutic doses of enoxaparin sodium, which was continued through her admission. She was switched to Apixaban on discharge. CONCLUSIONS The finding of the case suggested that low-molecular-weight heparin prophylaxis may not be sufficient to prevent VTE in COVID-19 pneumonia. Some of these patients may benefit from receiving prophylactic half doses or full doses of anticoagulants." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0570_16707", "title": "[Staphylococcus pneumonia--complications].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The paper presents the case of a 4-year-old child who was admitted with the diagnosis Dg: Pleuropneumonia lat. sin, while in the further course as a suspicion due to progressive flow as staphylococcus pneumonia. The illness is complex in terms of treatment. The diagnosis was set based on the history of illness, its clinical course, laboratory findings, radiology tests. The boy was hospitalized in January in current year with symptoms (coughing, vomiting and fever) that have been lingering for the past two days. The boy has been treated with a ternary antibiotic therapy (cephalosporin of third generation parenterally with aminoglycosides, plus anti-staphylococcus therapy). In laboratory findings Sedimentation rate increased 88/134 WBC 75 thousands. Radiologically extended pleuropneumonia on the left side. In sputum staphylococcus aureus was isolated. In the further course of hospitalization, due to the development of progressive form of staphylococcus pneumoniae with a fever of up to 39 degrees, pale aspect and dyspnoic patient with anemia and with complications in the form of cysts, ruptures and pneumothorax, with a thoracic drainage performed. In the further course, the cysts were gradually absorbed, while the thoracic drain was grafted. Clinically, the child was looking better. We continued the anti-staphylococcus therapy (stanicide), to which the child reacted well clinically and radiologically. Auscultatory breathing on the left side was audible. The last follow-up and the last rtg pulmo et cor 6 months after the outbreak of illness with a complete regression of the foregoing changes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0055_5208", "title": "[The use of rifampin in the treatment of infection due to Staphylococcus aureus].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Infection due to Staphylococcus aureus continues to be a source of significant morbidity and mortality. However, its treatment is increasingly complicated by the rising prevalence of resistance to antibiotics. Apart from the two recognized modes of staphylococcal resistance, namely, penicillinase production and intrinsic resistance, Sabath and associates have described a third type in which resistance is manifested by susceptibility to growth inhibition but tolerance to the lethal action of bactericidal agents. The mechanism of tolerance is attributed to a deficiency of autolytic enzyme activity in the part of bacteria, possibly secondary to an inhibition of autolysins in the tolerant staphylococcal strains. These strains are found in patients with infections responding poorly to treatment with cell-wall active antibiotics including vancomycin. Because of its unique mechanism of action and pharmacokinetic properties, rifampin has been reported to be the most active among 65 antistaphylococcal agents tested and have the capacity to kill intraleukocytic staphylococci. We present 2 cases who were cured following the addition of rifampin to previously established regimens. Case 1 was a 40-year-old male who had fever, cough, dyspnea, a right elbow abscess and left leg swelling for 2 weeks prior to admission. Culture of purulent material from the elbow abscess grew staphylococcus aureus. Chest X-ray showed bilateral septic embolism and phleborheography showed partial deep vein occlusion of the left ileofemoral vein. Case 2 was 22-year-old female with fever, chills and cough for 3 weeks. Blood culture grew staphylococcus aureus, and Chest X-ray revealed bilateral septic embolism with pneumonia. Neither of them responded to standard antibiotics which were judged adequate by in vitro sensitivity tests. Clinical cure was later obtained after rifampin was added to the regimens. These results suggest that rifampin may be a useful adjunct in the therapy of staphylococcal infections." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1157_592", "title": "Disseminated Pulmonary Mycosis Caused by <i>Candida tropicalis</i> in an 11-Year-Old Male Patient with Chronic Granulomatous Disease.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Invasive fungal infection is a major threat to chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) patients. We present a rare case of invasive mycosis in a CGD boy. An 11-year-old preadolescent boy presented with fever, hypoxia, and dyspnea. Physical examination revealed left neck enlarged lymph nodes with healed scars. The chest revealed bilateral diminished air entry with bilateral coarse crackles. Peripheral blood leukocyte count was 28.260/<iμ</iL with 84% neutrophil, 11% lymphocyte, and 4.4% monocyte. The patient's condition deteriorated regardless of the empirical antibacterial against MRSA and suspected tuberculosis. A sputum sample was submitted for mycological investigation, and budding yeasts with pseudohyphae were detected in the direct smear and were isolated in pure culture using Sabouraud agar. <iCandida tropicalis</i was identified from cultural and microscopic features and confirmed by the Vitek 2 automated system. This result confirmed the invasive mycosis, obviously due to the underlying primary immunodeficiency, chronic granulomatous disease (CGD). Amphotericin was added, and he also received IV methylprednisolone for seven days. The patient improved and was weaned off oxygen with no fever. However, the patient was referred to a higher center for further workup, which confirmed CGD's diagnosis. He is on the list for HLA-identical bone marrow transplantation (BMT)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0593_16886", "title": "[A case of pneumothorax secondary to septic pulmonary embolism due to central venous catheter infection caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 72-year-old woman with deteriorated renal function underwent hemodialysis with a central venous double lumen catheter and was treated with predonisolone when diagnosed with MPO-ANCA associated rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. She developed a high fever. On hospital day 64, the central venous catheter was removed immediately, and VCM and RFP were started. On hospital day 70, chest CT showed multiple nodular cavitated lesions, and she was diagnosed as septic pulmonary embolism (SPE). Six days later, chest radiography showed asymptomatic right hydropneumothorax. An intercostal tube was inserted and purulent fluid drained. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus was isolated from blood culture, the central venous catheter, and pleural effusion. Her condition improved slowly, and she was discharged mobile on hospital day 129. Pneumothorax is reported to be a rare but possibly lethal complication of SPE in intravenous drug abusers. To our knowledge, this is the first case report of pneumothorax secondary to SPE due to central venous catheter infection. SPE related to intravascular devices or catheters has been increasing, and the significance of this SPE complication in the critically ill should be recognized." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0695_13145", "title": "[A clinical analysis of 9 cases of pulmonary alveolar proteinosis with secondary infection].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To describe the clinical characteristics of 9 cases of idiopathic pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (iPAP) with secondary infections. The clinical and radiological data of 9 patients with iPAP and secondary infections admitted into Peking Union Medical College Hospital from 1st January 1990 to 1st January 2010 were retrospectively analyzed. In that period, there were 97 patients of iPAP were admitted in our hospital. There were 9 patients of iPAP with secondary infections, aged (46.4 ± 14.6) y. There were 5 males and 4 females. Among them, 6 patients were misdiagnosed as interstitial pneumonia and corticosteroids were given to them. When the infection appeared, corticosteroids were still given to 3 patients, and the other 3 patients had stopped corticosteroids for 3 to 15 and a half months. Five patients had accepted mono-lung or whole lung lavage before 1, 2, 9, 14, 24 months. The clinical manifestations were fever (8 cases), cough (9 cases), expectoration (8 cases), hemoptysis (2 cases), chest pain (1 case) and moist rales (1 case). Glass-ground opacities (9 cases) and cavitations (4 case) were the main manifestations of chest radiology. Pleural effusions (1 case) was not common. The locations of infection was limited in chest: 9 cases had pulmonary infection and one case was associated with pleurisy. The infectious pathogens were the acid-fast tubercle bacillus (4 cases), fungus (3 cases, candida albicans, penicillium and aspergillus fumigatus for each one) and nocardia (2 cases, one case was associated with cytomegalovirus infection). 6 patients were cured, 1 patient was improved and 2 patients were died. For patients with iPAP, especially when they had been receiving corticosteroids, if they had fever and/or recently exaggerated dyspnea, especially whose chest radiology showed nodules and cavitations, the clinicians should be aware of infections diseases for them. Further specific microbiological studies and sufficient therapy should be obtained as quickly as possible." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0710_16619", "title": "Management of recurrent cutaneous abscesses during therapy with infliximab.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Infliximab is a chimeric monoclonal antibody, belonging to the class of anti-tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α) agents, approved for the treatment of psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis. Drugs of this class are known to be associated with an infective risk, probably because they interfere with inflammatory and immune response at different levels. Although cutaneous Staphylococcus aureus infections seem to be more frequent than any other infection in the course of anti-TNF-α treatment, only a few case reports in the literature deal with this side effect, and, in particular, with its management. Our aim was to report a case of recurrent methicillin-sensitive S aureus (MSSA) cutaneous abscesses during therapy with infliximab and successful management. In July 2009, a 53-year-old white woman (weighing 85 kg) affected by psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis was administered infliximab (5 mg/kg IV), based upon clinical appearance and previous unsuccessful treatment with cyclosporine, methotrexate, etanercept, and adalimumab. Three days after the first 3 infusions (at weeks 0, 2, and 6) she complained about the recurrent onset of painful, erythematous, indurated, and pus-draining cutaneous nodules located on her abdomen. The swab always revealed the presence of MSSA, and antibiotic oral therapy with amoxicillin + clavulanic acid (875 + 125 mg BID for 7 days) was established, with complete resolution of the abscesses. Routine laboratory findings were in normal ranges, with the exception of an elevated erythrosedimentation rate and an increased white blood cell count (range, 13,000-15,000/mm(3)) with neutrophilia (range, 75%-80%). HIV infection was ruled out. In agreement with the infectious disease consultant, 1 day before the fourth infusion, a prophylactic antibiotic therapy with amoxicillin + clavulanic acid (875 + 125 mg BID for 5 days) was added to the therapeutic regimen. This treatment schedule was successfully repeated at each following infusion (every 8 weeks), and no recurrence of skin abscesses was observed. The patient provided signed authorization for publication of this case. This case report describes a woman with psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis who developed MSSA skin abscesses after each of the first 3 infliximab infusions, which did not recur for the next 6 infusions after amoxicillin + clavulanic acid was added to her regimen, pre- and 4 days postinfusion. Adequately designed, placebo-controlled, double-blind trials are needed to determine whether such prophylactic antibiotic treatment is well tolerated or effective for this common complication of therapy with anti-TNF-α agents, when withdrawal of the drug is not advisable, as in this case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0385_1770", "title": "[Diagnostic problems in a patient with staphylococcal endocarditis].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A patient, aged 68, admitted to the Internal Medicine Ward, in connection with syncope and a persisting fever which had appeared for the third time during the last two months. The patient had an artificial aortic valve graft implanted and a heart bypass surgery (CAPG) in 1994. A urine examination, performed before his admission to hospital, showed the characteristic changes which appeared in UTI (urine tract infection). Then the patient was treated with quinolone (zanocin) and the abatement of the fever was achieved. After two weeks the recurrence of the intermittent fever appeared. The diagnosis of bacterial endocarditis was established and a broad spectrum antibiotic treatment was introduced and continued in spite of the negative blood culture. The circulatory failure and growing cachexia developed in the patient and led to his death within two weeks. From the last blood sample Staphylococcus aureus was cultured. In autopsy the phlegmonic and haemorrhagic changes were found, with foci of necrosis in the region of the implanted artificial valve graft. Some changes of the type of interstitial numerous, microfocal, phlegmonic foci were also found. The author drew the conclusion that if the treatment with broad spectrum antibiotics had been introduced, in the patient with a fever, after a heart surgery, there would have been a chance for the successful treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0552_1082", "title": "Levofloxacin 750 mg QD for five days versus amoxicillin/clavulanate 875 mg/125 mg BID for ten days for treatment of acute bacterial exacerbation of chronic bronchitis: a post hoc analysis of data from severely ill patients.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "This post hoc analysis of data from a previous randomized, blinded, multicenter, parallel, noninferiority study assessed the bacterial etiology, symptom resolution, and tolerability of severe acute bacterial exacerbation of chronic bronchitis (ABECB) patients treated with either levofloxacin 750 mg QD for 5 days or amoxicillin/clavulanate 875 mg/125 mg BID for 10 days. Severe ABECB was defined as ABECB and forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV(1)) &lt;50% of the predicted value, or (FEV(1)) of 50% to 65% of the predicted value plus comorbidities, or &gt; or =4 exacerbations per year. A total of 369 patients were included in the intent-to-treat (ITT) population (187 treated with levofloxacin and 182 treated with amoxicillin/clavulanate), and 175 patients were microbiologically assessable (MA) (86 treated with levofloxacin and 89 treated with amoxicillin/clavulanate). In the ITT population, the mean age was 58.7 years, 49.1 % were male, and 48.2% were current smokers. At the on-treatment visit, a significantly higher proportion of MA patients in the levofloxacin group resolved purulent sputum production (57.5% vs 35.6%; P &lt; 0.006), sputum production (65.4% vs 45.3%; P &lt; 0.013), and cough (60.0% vs 44.0%; P &lt; 0.045), compared with the amoxicillin/clavulanate group. However, no significant between-group differences were observed at posttreatment. A total of 341 pathogens were isolated, of which 143 (41.9%) were traditional ABECB flora, 181 (53.1%) were other gram-negative organisms, and 17 (5.0%) were gram-positive organisms. Overall susceptibility of the pathogens was 97.1% for levofloxacin and 90.6% for amoxicillin/clavulanate (P &lt; 0.001). The prevalence of treatment-emergent adverse events was 42.1 % in patients who received levofloxacin and 48.6 % in those who received amoxicillin/clavulanate (95% CI,-4.0 to 17.0)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0735_12256", "title": "[Clinical analysis of 20 cases with Streptococcus pneumoniae necrotizing pneumonia in China].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Streptococcus pneumoniae necrotizing pneumonia (SPNP) was reported elsewhere but not in China yet. Inappropriate treatment due to poor recognition of this disease could influence its prognosis. This paper presents the clinical characteristics, diagnosis and treatment of SPNP hoping to elevate pediatrician's recognition level for this disease. Clinical manifestations, radiological findings, treatment and prognosis of 20 patients (9 boys, 11 girls) who had been hospitalized with SPNP in Beijing Children's Hospital from 2004-2011 were retrospectively analyzed. The patients included in this study aged from 9 months to 6 years [(27.9 ± 15.8) m] and were healthy before admission. They were febrile for 8 to 50 days [(27.7 ± 13.5) d] and hospital day was 24 - 55 days [(36.5 ± 8.3) d]. The general condition of all subjects was relatively poor and they all had fever and cough. One child had moderate fever and nineteen children had high fever. Dyspnea was found in sixteen children. Fine rales were found on auscultation in 18 children, among whom diffuse wheeze appeared in 4 children, and wheezy phlegm was found in two children. Signs of pleural effusion were discovered in all cases by physical examination and chest X-ray. White blood cell (WBC) count was 16.2 - 60.95×10(9)/L and neutrophil was 70.5% - 80.2% in peripheral blood routine test. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was 44 - 109 mm/h [(69.6 ± 16) mm/h]and C-reactive protein (CRP) was 80 - &gt; 160 mg/L. The pleural effusion biochemistry and routine test revealed a WBC count of 6400×10(6)/L-too much to count, polykaryocyte of 51% - 90%, glucose of 0.02 - 1.8 mmol/L, protein of 32 - 51 g/L and LDH of 5475 IU/L-or higher. Pleural effusion culture in all cases and blood culture in 2 cases was positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae. Chest X-ray or CT revealed high density and well-distributed lobar consolidation in one lung or two lungs initially. Single or multiple low density lesions in the area of lobar consolidation were found a week later, accompanied by multiple cystic shadow or cavity at the same time or afterwards. Bulla of lung appeared later. Pleural effusions were found in all patients. Seven cases complicated with hydropneumothorax, two with otitis media, one with heart failure, one with cardiac insufficiency. Seventeen patients were treated with vancomycin or teicoplanin or linezolid two with amoxicillin and clavulanate potassium. Other two patients had been treated with meropenem and cephalosporin antibiotics respectively before admission, and they had been at recovery stage when they were hospitalized. Thoracic close drainage and thoracoscopy were performed respectively in 18 cases and 3 cases, respectively. After a follow up of more than 6 months, chest CT showed that almost all lesions in lungs recovered during 4-6 months. No one received pneumonectomy. SPNP has special manifestations. The incidence in infants is higher. Patients' general condition is poor and febrile course is relatively long. All patients manifested fever and cough, with a presence of dyspnea in most of them. WBC, neutrophil and CRP elevated apparently. The characteristic of pleural effusion indicates empyema. In early stage, the chest X-ray and CT showed high-density lobar lesions, followed by low-density lesions and cyst gradually. Bulla of lung and/or hydropneumothorax may appear at the late stage. But if diagnosed and treated promptly, the prognosis of SPNP was relatively good." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_6432", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "raises a distinct set of potential pathogens, including Legionella, Pneumocystis, and fungal agents that may require further diagnostic evaluations, such as bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage. Febrile neutropenic patients can be stratified broadly into two prognostic groups. The first, with expected short duration of neutropenia and no evidence of hypotension or abdominal or other localizing symptoms, may be expected to do well even with oral regimens, e.g., ciprofloxacin or moxifloxacin, or amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid. A less favorable prognostic group is patients with expected prolonged neutropenia, evidence of sepsis, and end organ compromise, particularly pneumonia. These patients require tailoring of their antibiotic regimen to their underlying presentation, with frequent empirical addition of antifungal agents if fever and neutropenia persists for 7 days without identification of an adequately treated organism or site." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0482_18895", "title": "Performance in practice: bacteriological efficacy in patients with drug-resistant S. pneumoniae.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Using pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic principles, pharmacokinetically enhanced amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg twice daily was designed to provide adequate levels of amoxicillin over the 12-h dosing interval to eradicate penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae (PRSP, penicillin MICs &gt; or = 2 mg/L) with amoxicillin MICs of at least 4 mg/L. The clinical efficacy of amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg was evaluated in patients with respiratory tract infections caused by S. pneumoniae, including isolates with elevated penicillin (2-8 mg/L) MICs. Data from 10 clinical studies were combined: seven randomised (1:1), double-blind, controlled trials (efficacy intent-to-treat [ITT]N = 3376): amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg twice daily vs. levofloxacin 500 mg once daily in acute bacterial sinusitis (ABS); levofloxacin 500 mg once daily in acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis (AECB); clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily in AECB; amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 mg twice daily/three times daily and 1000/125 mg three times daily in community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and three noncomparative studies (efficacy ITT N = 3024): two in ABS, one in CAP. The bacteriological per-protocol (PP) population at follow up (days 14-39) comprised 1295 patients for amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg and 241 for comparators. With amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg at follow-up, outcome was successful (clinical success and eradication/presumed eradication) in 85/90 (94.4%) patients with S. pneumoniae in comparative studies and 421/445 (94.6%) in noncomparative studies, and with comparators 58/70 (82.9%) were successes. In the amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg group at follow up, 52/552 S. pneumoniae isolates were resistant to penicillin. At follow up, 50/52 (96.2%) patients with PRSP were successes, including 6/7 with amoxicillin MICs of 4 mg/L and 7/8 with amoxicillin MICs of 8 mg/L. Success rates for amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg against PRSP were similar for CAP (96.0%[24/25]), AECB (100%[3/3]) and ABS (95.8%[23/24]). There were six PRSP isolates in the comparator group (two isolates were from one patient), and three of five patients in this group were successes. In conclusion, amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg demonstrated combined clinical/bacteriological success against 50/52 patients with PRSP, including 13/15 strains with amoxicillin MICs of 4-8 mg/L. These results for the pharmacokinetic-enhanced formulation of amoxicillin/clavulanate 2000/125 mg are in line with the high efficacy against PRSP predicted using pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic parameters." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0266_10179", "title": "[Septicemia due to Streptococcus milleri with pulmonary complications].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Streptococcus milleri can occasionally cause serious septicemia, that is often complicated by abscesses, particularly pulmonary. A 12.5 year-old boy was admitted because he had suffered from fever for 6 days. He also had headache, diffuse abdominal pain, chills and a cough. Laboratory investigations showed leukocytes: 9,300/mm3 (PMN: 6,700/mm3; lymphocytes: 1,400/mm3; monocytes: 1,200/mm3); hemoglobin: 12.5 g/dl; platelets: 106,000/mm3; sedimentation rate: 120 mm at 1 hour; blood fibrinogen: 5.6 g/l and C-reactive protein: 193 mg/l. His chest X-rays was normal. Four blood cultures showed Streptococcus milleri. The patient was given amoxicillin (150 mg/kg/d) plus gentamicin (3 mg/kg/d). Two foci of dental infection were found and treated by tooth extraction. Blood cultures remained positive 2, 3 and 6 days after onset of treatment and a second chest X-rays and CT scan showed several bilateral pulmonary abscesses. Cardiac ultrasonographs showed no valvular vegetations. The patient was then given ceftriaxone (100 mg/kg/d) plus rifampicin (20 mg/kg/d) and netilmicin (6 mg/kg/d). Blood culture was negative two days later, but the fever persisted and ceftriaxone was then successfully replaced by vancomycin (40 mg/kg/d) for three weeks. There are several reasons for the apparent resistance to treatment of this potentially severe infection; they are discussed by the authors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1117_9758", "title": "COVID-19 Infection and Late Manifestation of Pulmonary Aspergillosis.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We present the case of a 56-year-old woman who was diagnosed with severe coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) pneumonia complicated by severe acute respiratory distress syndrome who was intubated for 19 days. She recovered from COVID-19 after a month. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest, after a month, showed improved infiltrates with a small residual cavity within the lingula. A CT angiogram showed a more confluent density in the lingular portion on follow-up 2 months later. She developed intermittent hemoptysis after 3 months in December 2020, which persisted for almost 6 months, and CT of the chest showed the lingular nodular with resolution of the cavitation. She underwent bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage, confirming <iAspergillus fumigatus</i by galactomannan assay and histology showing branching hyphae. Once she started treatment with itraconazole, her hemoptysis resolved. The follow-up CT of the chest after 2 months of treatment did not show a cavity or a nodule in the lingula. Our patient developed invasive pulmonary aspergillosis (IPA) as a sequela of severe COVID-19 infection. COVID-19-associated invasive pulmonary aspergillosis (CAPA) is an underrecognized complication that needs to be investigated on whether prophylactic treatment is required. Our case also demonstrates that the diagnosis of IPA needs to be considered months after COVID-19 infection when a superimposed fungal infection can occur after a viral infection if the patient continues to have persistent symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0637_14928", "title": "Successful voriconazole treatment of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis in a patient with acute biphenotypic leukemia.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A 23-year old woman with acute biphenotypic leukemia (ABL) complained of chest pain with cough, high fever and hemoptysis during induction chemotherapy, although she had been treated with anti-biotics and micafungin. We made a clinical diagnosis of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis (IPA) based on a consolidation in the right upper lung field on a chest radiograph as well as a high level of serum beta-D-glucan (with no evidence of tuberculosis and candidiasis). We changed her treatment from micafungin to voriconazole. Later, we discovered an air-crescent sign by CT scan that supported the diagnosis of IPA. Following voriconazole treatment, clinical symptoms ceased and abnormal chest shadows improved gradually and concurrently with a recovery of neutrophils. IPA must be considered in immunocompromised patients with pulmonary infiltrates who do not respond to broad-spectrum antibiotics. Serological tests and CT findings can aid in early diagnosis of IPA, which, along with treatment for IPA, will improve clinical outcomes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0327_622", "title": "[A case of hypoxemic acute bronchiolitis presenting with diffuse nodular shadows caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A fifty year-old female who had previously been well presented with a productive cough and a high fever. Her initial chest X-ray film showed no abnormal lung shadows. Despite partial improvement of the fever and the serum level of acute phase reactant (CRP) in response to intravenous administration of piperacillin, she complained of increasing severity of cough and dyspnea. Follow-up chest X-ray films taken five days after therapy with piperacillin showed diffuse nodular shadows in the mid-to-lower lung fields bilaterally. Chest CT scan disclosed diffuse miliary nodules at the lung periphery and thickening of bronchovascular markings. Chest auscultation revealed late inspiratory coarse crackles and expiratory wheezing, and the patient's arterial oxygen tension was 61 mmHg. Suspected of suffering from primary atypical pneumonia, she was started on therapy with intravenous minocyclin (200 mg/day), two days after treatment her symptoms began improving significantly. Anti-mycoplasma antibody was found to be x 1280, and cold hemoagglutinin x 1024, establishing the diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection. The patient's condition completely recovered following a one week treatment with minocyclin. We concluded that her respiratory infection was caused by piperacillin-sensitive mico-organism, and also Mycoplasma pneumoniae which brought about hypoxic acute bronchiolitis to the patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0778_7082", "title": "Evaluation of pulmonary infections in solid organ transplant patients: 12 years of experience.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Recipients of solid organ transplants (SOTs) are at higher risk to develop pulmonary infections (PIs) owing to their immunocompromised state. Flexible bronchoscopy (FB) is frequently performed to diagnose nature of these infections. The aim of 12-year review was to evaluate the demographic characteristics of SOT recipients with PIs and to study diagnostic utility of FB in this group of patients. Medical records of patients who underwent SOT as well as FB between 2000 and 2012 were retrospectively reviewed. Patients' demographics, type of transplantation, primary diagnoses, thoracic computed tomography (CT) findings, total blood count and chemistry, indication for FB, FB results, specimen culture results, and suspected and final diagnoses were all recorded. If the bronchoscopy findings altered medical management and produced improvement in PI, the procedure was considered diagnostic. Ninety of 998 liver, heart, or kidney transplant recipients underwent FB (73 renal, 16 liver, and 1 heart; mean age, 42.3 ± 12.1 years) during the study period. CT findings were as follows: Consolidation (49.4%), lymphadenopathy (3.4%), nodular infiltrates (5.6%), and cavitary lesion (1.1%). FB was unremarkable in 29, but showed increased secretions in 33 patients (36.7%), chronic mucosal changes in 9 (10%), edema in 7 (7.8%), mucosal plaque in 7 (7.8%), friable mucosa in 3 (3.3%), and endobronchial lesion in 2 (2.2%). A total of 29 bronchial washings (BW; 32.6%) and 10 bronchoalveolar lavages (BAL; 11.2%) were performed. PI was diagnosed in 82% of the patients (n = 73). In 32 patients (36%), micro-organism growth was observed on either BW or BAL. Mycobacterium tuberculosis was detected in 6 (6.7%), Staphylococcus aureus in 4 (4.4%), Moraxella catharralis in 4 (4.4%), Candida albicans in 6 (6.7%), Klebsiella pneumonia in 2 (2.2%), Escherichia coli in 2 (2.2%), Streptococcus pneumoni in 2 (2.2%), Stenotrofomonas maltofilia in 1 (1.1%), Aspergillus fumigatus in 4 (4.5%), and Pseudomonas aeruginosa in 1 (1.1%). Final diagnosis was established by FB (n = 33) with a diagnostic yield of 36%. No significant finding was observed between the type of the transplant and the culture results (P &gt; .05). Suspected PI is the most common indication for FB in SOT recipients. It may identify the causative organism in &gt;30% of patients. Tuberculosis was found to be the most frequent agent, which is not surprising from such an endemic area. Bacteria were more common than fungal or viral micro-organisms. FB should be considered in SOT recipients presenting with lung infiltrates and suspected to have PI." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0321_21346", "title": "[Fulminant Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia resulting in respiratory failure and a prolonged pulmonary lesion].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "A previously healthy 26-year-old woman presented with a fever and coughing on October 1, 1995. Despite treatment with beta-lactam antibiotics at another hospital, she had a high fever, coughing, and dyspnea. A chest roentgenogram showed diffuse infiltrates in both lung fields. On October 9, she was transferred to our hospital. On admission, a chest X-ray film showed marked diffusely infiltrates in both lung fields and a effusion in the left lung. Arterial blood gas analysis after inhalation of 4 liters per minute of oxygen via a nasal cannula revealed a PaO2 of 39.0 torr. Despite treatment with various antibiotics, including minocyclin and gamma-globulin, her respiratory condition rapidly deteriorated. She was mechanically ventilated by with intermittent mandatory ventilation and positive end-experiatory pressure, and received antibiotics and methylprednisolone pulse therapy. He chest X-ray and arterial blood gase findings, gradually improved. The passive hemagglutination titer for Mycoplasma rose from 1:4 on October 9, to 1:2,560 on the 14th hospital day. Acute respiratory failure due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia was diagnosed. A chest X-ray film obtained 2 months after admission showed linear-reticular shadows in both lung fields and pulmonary-function tests revealed abnormally low vital capacity and diffusing capacity. Examination of a specimen obtained by transbronchial lung biopsy revealed focal intraalveolar exudate with fibrin and macrophages. Very mild interstitial thickening was also noted. The lymphocyte stimulation responses to PPD, PHA, and Con A were low early in the illness and became normal after recovery. Several reports have said that an enhanced pulmonary cellular immune response may be responsible for the development of severe Mycoplasma pneumoniae, resulting in a temporary decrease in the cell-mediated immune response. This case supports that hypothesis. We believe that in severe cases, steroid therapy including pulse therapy should be started as soon as possible." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0609_15988", "title": "[Pulmonary nocardiosis with a large solitary cavitary nodule caused by Nocardia cyriacigeorgica in a patient receiving corticosteroid therapy].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Nocardiosis is a rare disease generally caused by members of Nocardia asteroides complex, particularly in immunosupressed patients. Nocardia cyriacigeorgica is a newly described member of this complex. In this article, a case of pulmonary nocardiosis with a large solitary cavitary nodule caused by N. cyriacigeorgica, in a patient receiving corticosteroid therapy was presented. A 29 years old male patient receiving prednisolone for 5 months was admitted to our hospital with fever, cough, right thoracic pain and night sweats. Computed tomography scan of chest demonstrated a large solitary cavitary nodule in the right lower lobe. Gram stained smear of the sputum revealed gram-positive, beaded, branched filamentous bacilli. On the third day of his admission, a catalase positive, oxidase negative and immotile bacilli, compatible with Nocardia spp., were isolated from the sputum sample taken at the day of admission. The isolated bacterium was identified as N. cyriacigeorgica by reference laboratory (Lyon, France). Oral trimethoprim (320 mg/day) and sulfamethoxazole (1600 mg/day) therapy given for three months, resulted in complete cure of the lesion without any sequela. This was the fourth case of pulmonary nocardiosis caused by N. cyriacigeorgica reported from Turkey. Microbiological examination of sputum is the most important tool for the diagnosis. Treatment with appropriate antibiotics may achieve complete cure even in large cavitary lesions. In conclusion, pulmonary nocardiosis should be considered in differential diagnosis of solitary cavitary nodules, especially in immunocompromised patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en172_6621", "title": "Temsirolimus", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Lung toxicity Temsirolimus is associated with lung toxicity, and the risk of developing this complication may be increased among subjects with abnormal pre-treatment pulmonary functions or history of lung disease. The risk of interstitial lung disease is increased with temsirolimus doses greater than 25 mg, symptoms of which may include dry cough, fever, eosinophilia, chest pain, and dyspnea on exertion. Toxicity usually occurred early (within days to weeks) or late (months to years) after treatment. Dosing Although infusion reactions can occur while temsirolimus is being administered, most hypersensitivity reactions occurring on the same day as temsirolimus administration were not severe. Antihistamine pretreatment (e.g. 25–50 mg diphenhydramine, 30 minutes prior to administration) is recommended to minimize the risk of an allergic reaction. See also Discovery and development of mTOR inhibitors References External links" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0567_8563", "title": "Disseminated cutaneous Fusarium moniliforme infections in a leukemic child.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "A 5-year-old boy had a 10-month remission of acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) after chemotherapy. Re-induction chemotherapy was performed for relapse of ALL. Thereafter, he suffered from an episode of neutropenic fever with pneumonia. One week following control of the condition with antibiotics, a 1 x 1-cm, red, painful nodule appeared on the left thigh, which was initially suspected to be Pseudomonas infection. Parenteral ceftazidime and amikacin were administered, but persistent high fever, mild cough, and a few painful erythematous papulonodules on the face and lower extremities appeared several days later (Fig. 1). These lesions increased insidiously in diameter up to 2-5 cm with central necrosis. Hemogram showed neutropenia with a shift to the left [white blood cell (WBC) count, 2.1 x 10(9)/L; neutrophil count, 0.21 x 10(9)/L]. A skin biopsy showed heavy growth of hyaline branching septate hyphae in the deep dermis and subcutis, together with fat necrosis (Fig. 2). Invasion of molds into vessels and sweat glands was also seen. A culture from a lesion yielded Fusarium moniliforme, but no fungi were isolated from blood specimens. Only mild infiltrations on bilateral lower lung fields were detected by chest roentgenography. The skin lesions gradually healed and the fever subsided 2 weeks after the initiation of therapy with amphotericin B 30 mg and itraconazole 200 mg daily. Meanwhile, relapse of leukemia was detected by hemogram showing atypical leukocytosis (WBC count of 24,400 x 10(9)/L, with blast cells representing 78%). A course of chemotherapy with cytarabine, mitoxantrone, and VP-16 was prescribed, subsequently resulting in neutropenia (WBC count, &lt; 0.1 x 10(9)/L; neutrophil count, 0/L) and spiking fever. Although the aforementioned antifungal therapy was continued, the centers of the originally healed lesions turned dusky red, swollen, necrotic, and ulcerative. There were more than 10 such ecthymiform lesions. After administration for 22 days, itraconazole was discontinued because of no appreciable effects. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) salvage was used, and the neutropenia gradually subsided 20 days later. In addition, the ecthymiform lesions gradually resolved. Amphotericin B was discontinued 1 week following neutrophil recovery. The patient died of Acinetobacter baumannii and Stenotrophomonas maltophilia sepsis 8 months later." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1099_7026", "title": "Fentanyl-Induced Chest Wall Rigidity as a Cause of Acute Respiratory Failure in the Intensive Care Unit.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "We aim to report a case of chest wall rigidity induced by high-dose fentanyl infusion sedation and analgesia in the intensive care unit (ICU) for management of pneumonia and asthma. The patient is an 80-year-old woman, who presented to the hospital with complaints of fever and productive cough with yellowish expectoration of 2 days duration. She also had lethargy over the same time period and had sick contacts in the form of two daughters who both had recently recovered from a \"flu-like\" illness. She was known to have bronchial asthma treated with seretide 25/250 two puffs ON + PO monteleukast 10 mg ON, hypertension treated with PO losartan 50 mg BD, type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with PO linagliptin 5 mg OM and a previous right thalamic ischemic stroke 5 years ago for which she was on PO clopidogrel 75 mg OM and PO simvastatin. She developed severe ventilator desynchrony characterized by dramatic sudden onset of severe hypercarbia, severely decreased pulmonary compliance and episodic breath holding. She was empirically treated for asthma exacerbation and treated with steroids, bronchodilators and manual ventilation but despite doing so during this episode the patient failed to respond. The patient was clinically evaluated and dynamic hyperinflation was excluded as a cause of the respiratory failure. There was no evidence of pneumothorax and worsening pneumonia. Considerations of insufficient sedation and analgesia led to deepening sedation and analgesia without good response. Ventilation was dramatically improved after small doses of neuromuscular relaxation. This cycle was repeated many times. The patient was kept on high-dose propofol and fentanyl, but there were repeated cycles of sudden persistent severe hypercarbia, severely decreased pulmonary compliance and episodic breath holding. Eventually a suspicion of fentanyl-induced chest wall rigidity was made after excluding causes of airway resistance and reduction in pulmonary compliance. Gradual reduction in fentanyl infusion was associated with a reduction of episodes of reduced lung compliance and improvement in ventilation. Fentanyl is often used for analgesia and sedation in the ICU. It has a good side effect profile but it is not without harm. High doses of fentanyl can lead to dramatic worsening of respiratory mechanics that may be life threatening. Fentanyl-induced chest wall rigidity is an important side effect that needs to be considered in the differential diagnosis of respiratory failure in the ICU." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0908_5559", "title": "[A case of coccidioidomycosis in Turkey imported from the United States of America].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Coccidioidomycosis caused by Coccidioides immitis or Coccidioides posadasii is a rare infectious disease except in endemic regions. In this report the third documented imported case of coccidioidomycosis in Turkey was presented. A thirty-year-old male patient was admitted to our hospital with fever and purulent drainage from his chest tube. He had worked in Arizona, USA, until 4 months before this presentation. While in Arizona, he experienced cough and hemoptysis and was diagnosed as pulmonary coccidioidomycosis. He was treated with itraconazole for two months and he had no symptoms for 3 years. He then returned to Turkey and 2 months after his return to Turkey, he was admitted to another hospital in Istanbul with dyspnea and diagnosed as hydro-pneumothorax, and pleural fluid obtained from the inserted chest tube was found to be purulent. One gram of BID amoxicillin-clavulanate was given. Physical examination on admission revealed a purulent drainage on the right side chest tube, a temperature of 38.5°C and decreased breath sounds on the right lung. Piperacillin-tazobactam 3 x 4.5 g intravenous and fluconazole 400 mg intravenous once daily were started. Human immunodeficiency virus test was negative. Gram-negative diplococci and rods, gram-positive cocci and septate hyphae were seen in the Gram stain of his pleural fluid. Pleural fluid culture revealed Moraxella catarrhalis after 24 hours incubation and a mold after 72 hours of incubation. Anti-coccidioidal antibodies were found positive in a titer of 1/2. Hydro-pneumothorax, atelectasis and a 3 mm nodules in the right lung were seen in his thorax CT. The patient's pleural fluid and the culture plates were sent to the Public Health Institute of Turkey, Mycology Reference Laboratory (PHIT-MRL), with a clinical suspicion of coccidioidomycosis. The specimen and plates were submitted to the PHIT-MRL Bio Safety Level-3 laboratory for mycological evaluation. The microscopic examination of 15% KOH preparations of pleural fluid specimens revealed septate hyphae which appear to be in the early stages of forming arthroconidia. The pleural fluid culture grew buff-white coloured colonies with aerial hyphae, which were suspected of being a Coccidioides spp. The strain was identified as C.immitis/posadasii by direct microscopy and culture, and subsequently confirmed by the FDA-approved DNA probe. DNA sequence analysis of the ITS and D1/D2 rDNA regions confirmed the isolate to be C.posadasii species [ITS 100% match to GenBank Accession No. AB232901 (630/630 base pair match), and D1/D2 100% match to GenBank Accession No. AB232884 (617/617 base pair match)]. ITS1 and ITS2 barcode analysis also confirmed the species to be C.posadasii, which is the species endemic in Arizona. Susceptibility testing was performed according to Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute M38-A2 guidelines in the Fungus Testing Laboratory of the University of Texas Health Science Center at San Antonio and minimal inhibitory concentration values were; 0.125 µg/ml for amphotericin B, posaconazole and voriconazole, 0.5 µg/ml for itraconazole and 8 µg/ml for fluconazole. He had decortication of the pleura and was discharged from hospital after six weeks treatment with intravenous fluconazole which was continued orally for one year. Anti-coccidioidal antibodies were negative after two months of treatment. The patient is currently asymptomatic. The presented case is the third case reported from Turkey and provides additional contribution to the existing literature with regard to the appearance of arthroconidium, which is the unusual hyphal form, instead of the expected spherules in the infected tissue." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 585, 684 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 78, 93 ] ], "text": "Adenopathy being very typical of adenoviral conjunctivitis, this option is the easiest to rule out." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1180, 1405 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 174, 211 ] ], "text": "Even if we doubt with some of the previous options (especially with Parinaud), if we stay with the basic concepts (allergic conjunctivitis does not present with lymphadenopathies) we can be right. Option 2 is the correct one." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1074, 1179 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 156, 174 ] ], "text": "In any case, allergic conjunctivitis is not an infectious problem. So it is not going to have adenopathy." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 685, 884 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 93, 123 ] ], "text": "Considering that chlamydiae arouse the lymphoid response in a similar way to adenoviruses (they also produce conjunctival follicles, for example), this would be the second easiest option to rule out." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Adenoviral conjunctivitis.", "2": "Allergic conjunctivitis.", "3": "Parinaud's oculoglandular syndrome.", "4": "Chlamydia conjunctivitis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0668_21993", "title": "[Trachoma in patients with allergic conjunctivitis].", "score": 0.01869812145041503, "content": "The aim of this paper was to identify a possible association between allergic conjunctivitis and Chlamydia trachomatis infection. A prospective study was carried out in 104 eyes of 52 patients with diagnosis of vernal conjunctivitis and atopic keratoconjunctivitis. Conjunctival cytology was performed in all the 52 patients, once it can evidence eosinophils presence and inclusions corpuscles in the conjunctival scraping smear, as well as the direct immunofluorescence that is the choice exam for Chlamydia trachomatis infection confirmation. All procedures were approved by the Institutional Review Board Ethics Committee. Of the 52 patients, 41 (78.8%) presented vernal conjunctivitis and 11 (21.2%) atopic keratoconjunctivitis. Forty-one patients (78.8%) were male and 11 (21.2%) female. The ages varied from 3 to 19 years, with an average of 9.8 years. Regarding racial distribution, 16 (30.8%) patients were caucasian, 14 (26.9%) were black and 22 (42.3%) were brown. Regarding systemic allergic diseases, it was observed that 25 (48.1%) patients presented asthma, 20 (38.5%) allergic rhinitis and 5 (9.6%) atopic dermatitis. The main symptoms complained by the patients were coryza (59.6%), ocular itching (98.1%), burning (61.5%), tearing (65.3%) and photophobia (61.5%). The main clinical signs were: ocular hyperemia (100%), bilaterality (100%), superior tarsal papilla (92.3%) and mucous secretion (82.7%). The cytology of the conjunctival scrapings found eosinophil in 86.5% of the cases. Only seven patients did not present eosinophils in the conjunctival scrapings. Three patients (5.8%) presented positive immunofluorescence for Chlamydia, evidencing an association between allergic conjunctivitis and trachoma. It is important to determine the simultaneous coexistence of Chlamydia trachomatis and allergic conjunctivitis, due to the possibility to change the visual prognostic and of symptoms potentiation in case of double attack. Therefore, it is necessary to perform direct immunofluorescence for the correct diagnosis in patients with allergic conjunctivitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0069_11915", "title": "Chlamydial conjunctivitis in neonates and adults. History, clinical findings and follow-up.", "score": 0.016993188680570183, "content": "This study presents data from 73 neonatal and 60 adult patients with chlamydial conjunctivitis who were studied by culture, enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and immunofluorescence (IF) tests. All patients had visited three or more doctors before the diagnosis was established. Fourteen of the adults had consulted an ophthalmological emergency unit complaining of a foreign body sensation in the eye. The symptoms started monocularly in all 133 cases, however, the fellow eye was affected after 2-7 days in 54 of the neonates and in 5-30 days in 20 of the adult patients. The duration of symptoms before the etiological diagnosis was established was 5-198 days (mean 24 and median 15 days) in the neonates and 7-120 (mean 29 and median 22 days) in the adults. The conjunctivitis was mild, moderate and severe in 7, 72 and 48 of the neonatal eyes, when the etiological diagnosis was established. The corresponding figures for severity of conjunctivitis in the adult group were 9, 57 and 14. Nasopharyngeal colonization occurred in 56 (77%) of the children and in 35 (58%) of the adults. In the adults, only two males complained of symptoms of genital infection. In 46 (77%) adults one or more of the chlamydial diagnostic tests performed on genital samples was positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. Forty-five of the neonates were treated with erythromycin 40-50 mg per kg body weight divided in four daily doses for 14 days, while 35 of the adults were given 250 mg x 4 x 14 of erythromycin.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0700_4534", "title": "[Keratoconjunctivitis sicca during folicular conjunctivitis in adult patients with Chlamydia pneumoniae etiology (summarizing twelve years study)].", "score": 0.01665774685576666, "content": "Following the previous study observing keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) after treated follicular conjunctivitis of chlamydial etiology from the years 1999-2002, at this time the authors would like to point out the possible connection between KCS appearance and Chlamydia pneumoniae infection. In the Department of Ophthalmology, during the period of 12 months (in the years 2009 - 2010), there were treated 11 adult patients (6 women and 5 men) in the age of 28 - 81 years (median, 50 years) with follicular conjunctivitis lasting on average 2.5 years and caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae, and simultaneously were diagnosed the symptoms of KCS, out of the total number of 37 examined patients with similar clinical findings. The diagnosis of chlamydial infection in clinical symptoms of follicular conjunctivitis and simultaneous signs of KCS was established partly according to the serologic positivity of chlamydial genus (anti-LPS) and/or species (anti-Ch. pneumoniae and anti-Ch. trachomatis) IgG, IgM, and IgA antibodies together with simultaneous anti-cHSP60 IgG positivity, further using conjunctival prints examined by means of indirect immunofluorescence method using specific monoclonal antibodies; in conjunctival smears and peripheral leucocytes was tested also the presence of Chlamydia pneumoniae DNA. The main subjective complaints of the patients were burning sensation, sticking, or foreign-body sensation; the itching and lacrimation were less common. Among clinical signs dominated the hyperemia and the edema of the lower fornix; the tortuosity of the vessels and the follicles were not always present. The KCS diagnosis was confirmed by Bengal rose staining. In 10 patients, the positive IgA and/or IgM anti-Ch. pneumoniae antibodies were detected. Simultaneously, the positive anti-cHSP60 IgG were confirmed, out of them medium- and high-positive findings were in 7 patients, and anti-LSP antibodies IgA and/or IgM in 8 of them. Positive smears were found in 6 patients. In 2 persons of this group of treated patients, the general serologic findings were not significant, but the Chlamydia pneumoniae infection was confirmed by Chlamydia pneumoniae DNA positivity in peripheral leucocytes; in these 2 patients, the symptoms lasted for one half of the year. As the side findings were the confirmations of active Chlamydia trachomatis infection in other 4 patients of the whole group. The patients with Chlamydia pneumoniae infection were treated systemically by macrolide antibiotic azithromycine for 12 days. After the treatment, above all else the clinical signs of conjunctival inflammation disappeared, but remained KCS symptoms, which were disappearing only slowly. The optimal supporting therapies were lubricant drops with different concentration of sodium hyaluronide without preservatives. Control microbiological examinations during 6 months after the treatment termination confirmed negative smears findings, but the antibody levels were not decreased significantly. This study confirmed the possible connection between the KCS and Chlamydia pneumoniae infection in simultaneous clinical signs of follicular conjunctivitis. Along with that the study pointed out the necessity of simultaneous evaluating of the microbial findings and clinical symptoms to consider the systemic antibiotic treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1118_277", "title": "Adult inclusion conjunctivitis diagnosed by polymerase chain reaction and Giemsa stain.", "score": 0.016338801385530358, "content": "Adult inclusion conjunctivitis, caused by <iChlamydia trachomatis</i, is easily underdiagnosed with nonspecific ocular manifestation. Combined scrape cytology and molecular testing may be a useful strategy for its early diagnosis. A 24-year-old healthy male complained of blurred vision, foreign body sensation, and watery discharge in his right eye for four weeks. His visual acuity was 20/20 bilaterally at his first visit. Allergic conjunctivitis was the first impression, and topical treatment with corticosteroid and anti-histamine was prescribed. However, he returned five days later without symptom improvement, and his right eye vision declined to 20/40. Subepithelial corneal infiltration of his right eye was observed. According to his personal history, his girlfriend was diagnosed with sexually transmitted chlamydial infection and genital gonorrhea. Under the suspicion of sexually transmitted adult inclusion conjunctivitis, we collected his conjunctival lavage to both real-time polymerase chain reaction, which proved chlamydial infection, and Giemsa stain, which demonstrated typical basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions. To diagnose adult inclusion conjunctivitis, we can use real-time polymerase chain reaction or Giemsa stain to help us obtain a quick and correct diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0681_747", "title": "[The secret of red eyes].", "score": 0.014553770986017985, "content": "\"Red eye\" is a sign and the same time a symptom frequently met in the ophthalmological practice. The \"red eye\" is not always the clinical manifestation of a common conjunctivitis. We will present a case report of a patient who accused conjunctival hyperemia, lacrimation, foreign--body sensation; she was also describing recurrent conjunctivitis for the past year. After an detailed ophthalmologic examination and interdisciplinary consultations. She was diagnosed with Basedow Disease and paraselar meningioma with invasion in the pterigoid fossa. The authors are suggesting that there is an indirect left carotid - cavernous fistula." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0416_1622", "title": "Self-inflicted (factitious) conjunctivitis.", "score": 0.01319316468420171, "content": "To describe the diagnosis and management of self-inflicted factitious conjunctivitis in conscripted soldiers. Prospective, noncomparative, consecutive case series. Seventeen conscripted soldiers. Soldiers with chronic conjunctivitis (&gt;3 weeks) were referred by ophthalmologists, and cases of shorter duration were referred by primary-care physicians. All cases underwent thorough ophthalmic and systemic history and examination, as well as questioning regarding their military units, military duties, and social background. Exclusion criteria were any condition that may cause conjunctivitis. Inferior fornix specimen microscopy and culture and eye photography were performed in most cases. In cases suspected of self-inflicted conjunctivitis all medication, besides lubricant drops, was stopped. Underlying psychosocial problems were investigated and managed. Cases were followed for at least 3 months after resolution of the conjunctivitis, at which point the diagnosis was confirmed, and the case entered the analysis. Resolution of the conjunctivitis. Seventeen consecutive cases of self-inflicted conjunctivitis, 8 of long duration and 9 of short duration, were studied. All cases demonstrated inconsistent clinical findings. The ocular signs most suggestive of self-inflicted conjunctivitis were purulent discharge purposely left on the lashes and periorbital skin, discharge more severe than in conjunctival hyperemia, less conjunctival chemosis than in hyperemia, mainly inferior conjunctival involvement, and an uninvolved cornea. Five of the 8 chronic cases had significant underlying psychologic or social problems. Their conjunctivitis resolved only after their underlying problems were addressed. Two cases admitted introducing freshly scraped dental plaque into the lower conjunctival sac. In the remaining 15 the similarity of the clinical findings suggested that a similar method was used. In the context of a subject standing to gain by assuming the sick role and after exclusion of ocular pathology, self-inflicted conjunctivitis can be reliably diagnosed by noting the characteristic clinical profile. Effective management includes addressing the underlying psychologic and social problems." }, { "id": "article-19888_48", "title": "Conjunctivitis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.013159937888198758, "content": "While conjunctivitis often presents similarly, a thorough systematic history and physical exam can safely rule out any acute sight-threatening diagnoses and elucidate the likely cause of conjunctivitis. The classic findings of the 3 most common types of conjunctivitis are: Bacterial - Findings include conjunctival redness, having the sensation of a foreign body in the eye, morning matting of the eyes, white-yellow purulent or mucopurulent discharge, conjunctival papillae, and infrequently preauricular lymphadenopathy. [45] Viral - Findings include eye itching, watery discharge, tearing, a history of recent upper respiratory tract infection, inferior palpebral conjunctival follicles, and tender preauricular lymphadenopathy. [46] [47] Allergic: Findings include eye itching and burning, watery discharge, history of allergies/atopy, edematous eyelids, conjunctival papillae, and no preauricular lymphadenopathy. [48]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1049_25418", "title": "An Unusual Presentation of Retinal Detachment and Conjunctivitis: A Case Report.", "score": 0.01259106746911625, "content": "Vision loss is an ophthalmologic emergency with broad differential requiring prompt medical attention. We describe a 55-year-old male presenting to the emergency department (ED) with unilateral, painless visual field deficit with ipsilateral conjunctivitis induced by a presumed foreign body. The patient described a foreign body sensation nine days prior to developing visual changes. In the ED, the patient was diagnosed with a retinal detachment using point-of-care ultrasonography, and emergent ophthalmologic consultation was obtained. Concurrent retinal detachment and conjunctivitis in a patient is extremely rare. Healthcare providers should be aware that foreign body-induced conjunctivitis could lead to retinal detachment." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_15519", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012228901461574728, "content": "acUte HemorrHagic conjUnctivitis Patients with acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis present with an acute onset of severe eye pain, blurred vision, photophobia, and watery discharge from the eye. Examination reveals edema, chemosis, and subconjunctival hemorrhage and often shows punctate keratitis and conjunctival follicles as well (Fig. 228-2). Preauricular adenopathy is often found. Epidemics and nosocomial spread have been associated with enterovirus 70 and coxsackievirus A24. Systemic symptoms, including headache and fever, develop in 20% of cases, and recovery is usually complete in 10 days. The sudden onset and short duration of the illness help to distinguish acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis from other ocular infections, such as those due to adenovirus and Chlamydia trachomatis. Paralysis has been associated with some cases of acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis due to enterovirus 70 during epidemics." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0063_4224", "title": "[Persistence of Chlamydia trachomatis in patients with chronic therapy refractory conjunctivitis].", "score": 0.011366938999580198, "content": "We report three patients with recurrent Chlamydia-associated conjunctivitis. The clinical course of the Chlamydial infection was documented by positive conjunctival smears (direct immunofluorescence staining) and the evaluation of the IgA-titer in the sera (immunoperoxidase assay). The recovery of the ocular symptoms after therapy onset correlated well with the negative results of the conjunctival smears and the decrease in IgA level in the sera. The recurrence of the conjunctivitis was accompanied by an increase in the IgA titer in the sera of all three patients and the presence of Chlamydial elementary bodies in the conjunctival scrapings in two cases. Three patients showed immunologic pecularities: two had an allergic diathesis; the third patient developed Wegener disease 3 months after the onset of ocular inflammation. Inclusion bodies or Chlamydial DNA can persist in conjunctival cells. Anderson suggested that a recurrence of active Chlamydial infection may be induced by external causes, which lead to reconstitution of elementary bodies from the persisting DNA. The extraordinary immune situation of our patients might be one cause of the recurrent conjunctivitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0934_18393", "title": "Bacterial Conjunctivitis in Childhood: Etiology, Clinical Manifestations, Diagnosis, and Management.", "score": 0.010544085902474125, "content": "Bacterial conjunctivitis is a common reason for children to be seen in pediatric practices. A correct diagnosis is important so that appropriate treatment can be instituted. To provide an update on the evaluation, diagnosis, and treatment of bacterial conjunctivitis in children. A PubMed search was completed in Clinical Queries using the key term \"bacterial conjunctivitis\". Patents were searched using the key term \"bacterial conjunctivitis\" from www.freepatentsonline.com and www.google.com/patents. In the neonatal period, bacterial conjunctivitis is rare and the most common cause of organism is Staphylococcus aureus, followed by Chlamydia trachomatis. In infants and older children, bacterial conjunctivitis is most often caused by Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. Clinically, bacterial conjunctivitis is characterized by a purulent eye discharge, or sticky eyes on awakening, a foreign body sensation and conjunctival injection (pink eye). The diagnosis is made clinically. Cultures are unnecessary. Some authors suggest a watchful observation approach as most cases of bacterial conjunctivitis are self-limited. A Cochrane review suggests the use of antibiotic eye drops is associated with modestly improved rates of clinical and microbiological remission as compared to the use of placebo. Various investigators have also disclosed patents for the treatment of conjunctivitis. The present consensus supports the use of topical antibiotics for bacterial conjunctivitis. Topical antibiotics shorten the course of the disease, reduce discomfort, prevent person-to-person transmission and reduce the rate of reinfection." }, { "id": "article-19888_69", "title": "Conjunctivitis -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.010200429491768075, "content": "Compared to iritis, patients with infective keratitis often complain of a foreign body sensation and trouble opening or keeping the eye open. These symptoms are consistent with corneal involvement and can present with other corneal disorders such as corneal ulcer, abrasion, or foreign body. [58] Foreign body and orbital trauma can result in hyphema, which can also result in acute and permanent vision loss." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_53119", "title": "Conjunctivitis", "score": 0.010003889200985263, "content": "Bacterial Bacterial conjunctivitis causes the rapid onset of conjunctival redness, swelling of the eyelid, and a sticky discharge. Typically, symptoms develop first in one eye, but may spread to the other eye within 2–5 days. Conjunctivitis due to common pus-producing bacteria causes marked grittiness or irritation and a stringy, opaque, greyish or yellowish discharge that may cause the lids to stick together, especially after sleep. Severe crusting of the infected eye and the surrounding skin may also occur. The gritty or scratchy feeling is sometimes localized enough that patients may insist that they have a foreign body in the eye. Common bacteria responsible for nonacute bacterial conjunctivitis are Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Haemophilus species. Less commonly, Chlamydia spp. may be the cause." }, { "id": "article-19890_29", "title": "Allergic Conjunctivitis -- History and Physical -- Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis", "score": 0.009808210346971196, "content": "Symptoms of VKC are usually most severe during the spring season and can include thick mucus discharge, pain, lacrimation, photophobia, and blurred vision. Patients often complain of a foreign body sensation in the eye, and increased blinking may be observed. Upon examination, corneal ulcers and infiltrates on the conjunctival can occasionally be detected. Giant papillae on the tarsal conjunctiva are universally seen during the examination. [24]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0696_15659", "title": "Japanese guideline for allergic conjunctival diseases.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The definition, classification, pathogenesis, test methods, clinical findings, criteria for diagnosis, and therapies of allergic conjunctival disease are summarized based on the Guidelines for Clinical Management of Allergic Conjunctival Disease (Second Edition) revised in 2010. Allergic conjunctival disease is defined as \"a conjunctival inflammatory disease associated with a Type I allergy accompanied by some subjective or objective symptoms.\" Allergic conjunctival disease is classified into allergic conjunctivitis, atopic keratoconjunctivitis, vernal keratoconjunctivitis, and giant papillary conjunctivitis. Representative subjective symptoms include ocular itching, hyperemia, and lacrimation, whereas objective symptoms include conjunctival hyperemia, swelling, folliculosis, and papillae. Patients with vernal keratoconjunctivitis, which is characterized by conjunctival proliferative changes called giant papilla accompanied by varying extents of corneal lesion, such as corneal erosion and shield ulcer, complain of foreign body sensation, ocular pain, and photophobia. In the diagnosis of allergic conjunctival diseases, it is required that type I allergic diathesis is present, along with subjective and objective symptoms accompanying allergic inflammation. The diagnosis is ensured by proving a type I allergic reaction in the conjunctiva. Given that the first-line drug for the treatment of allergic conjunctival disease is an antiallergic eye drop, a steroid eye drop will be selected in accordance with the severity. In the treatment of vernal keratoconjunctivitis, an immunosuppressive eye drop will be concomitantly used with the above mentioned drugs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0311_16155", "title": "[Reddened eyes, what should be done?].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Not every patient who consults his physician because of reddening, pain, burning or itching sensation in an eye suffers from a bacterial or viral infection of the anterior eye segments. The sicca-syndrome mainly occurring in the elderly leads often to chronic reddening and a disturbing sensation of a foreign body in the eye. Allergic manifestations are often a cause for swelling and reddening of the conjunctiva. If next to reddening a rapidly progressing deterioration of vision develops, eventually accompanied by nausea and vomiting acute glaucoma has to be considered. In uveitis the patient mainly complains about sensations of dazzling, reduced visual acuity and pain, reddening of the conjunctiva may be variable. If in addition to acute hyperemia also a yellow-whitish infiltrate of the cornea is observed a bacterial ulcer of the cornea may be suspected. In this case an ophthalmologist has to be consulted without delay. Viral inflammations are often a diagnostic and therapeutic challenge. If reduced sensibility of the cornea is observed, herpetic infection should be considered." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0414_4133", "title": "[Evaluation of the efficacy and safety of lodoxamide in patients with allergic eye diseases].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To evaluate the effectiveness of lodoxamide in the therapy and prophylaxis of the ocular allergies. This prospective study included 64 patients divided in 2 groups. In the first group there were 47 symptomatic patients suffering from seasonal allergic conjunctivitis (n = 27), perennial allergic conjunctivitis (n = 16) and giant papillary conjunctivitis (n = 4). The symptomatic patients were examined upon arrival and every 2 weeks until the symptoms were reduced. During the period, lodoxamide drops were administered 4 times a day. In the second group there were 17 patients who had a history of seasonal ocular allergies during previous years but were still not symptomatic upon arrival. In the group of 17 patients who were very likely to develop ocular allergy but up to inclusion into the study had no ocular symptoms, 12 (70%) presented with allergic rhinitis while 5 (30%) had asthma. The symptoms intensity (itching, discomfort, foreign body sensation, pain, tearing) was graded on a 0-3 scale. The clinical signs (follicles, papillae, hyperemia, conjunctival edema, Trantas dots, stromal infiltrates) were detected on a slit lamp examination and graded on a 0-3 scale. In the group of 47 symptomatic patients 2-4 weeks after lodoxamide administration, 70-80% of symptomatic patients examined clinically had less or no follicles, 60-70% had reduced or no edema, the secretion was stopped or greatly reduced in 50-70% of patients. All of the patients reported reduced or no itching, 60% of patients reported less discomfort, photophobia and reduced tearing. In the asymptomatic group two weeks after the initiation of the prophylaxis 88% of patients were still with no ocular signs of allergy while 12% of patients had a conjunctival hyperemia and follicles. After 4 weeks of the prophylaxis 76% of patients patients were still asympthomatic while only 4 developed a mild form of allergic conjunctivitis (conjunctival hyperemia and papillae), but less severe than during previous episodes. Lodoxamide was effective in reduction of symptoms and clinical signs of the ocular allergies. The best results were obtained if the drug was administered as a prophylaxis or very early in the course of the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0991_733", "title": "Chlamydia trachomatis presenting as preseptal cellulitis in a 3-year-old girl.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Inclusion conjunctivitis usually presents with lid swelling, red eye, foreign body sensation, and a mucopurulent discharge in association with a follicular reaction involving the palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva and semilunar fold. Similar to epidemic keratoconjunctivitis, it may present with preauricular lymphadenopathy, superficial punctate keratitis, and subepithelial corneal infiltrates, which tend to be more peripheral. We present the case of preseptal cellulitis in a 3-year-old child, caused by nonconsensual sexual contact with chlamydia trachomatis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en221_36872", "title": "Brimonidine/timolol", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Adverse effects The most common adverse effects affecting 5 to 15% of the patients include allergic conjunctivitis, conjunctival folliculosis, conjunctival hyperemia, eye pruritus, ocular burning, and stinging. 1 to 5% of the patients in clinical trials experienced asthenia, blepharitis, corneal erosion, depression, epiphora, eye discharge, eye dryness, eye irritation, eye pain, eyelid edema, eyelid erythema, eyelid pruritus, foreign body sensation, headache, hypertension, oral dryness, somnolence, superficial punctate keratitis, and visual disturbance. Contraindications Contraindications of Combigan include the following: reactive airway disease including bronchial asthma, a history of bronchial asthma, severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, sinus bradycardia, secondary or third degree atrioventricular block, overt cardiac failure, cardiogenic shock, age less than 2 years, and hypersensitivity to any component of Combigan." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0078_7033", "title": "[Complaints following treatment of common acute eye diseases].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The aim of the study was to determine the duration of symptoms in patients treated in the emergency room at Glostrup Hospital for acute eye-trouble. Nine common diagnoses were selected for the study. All patients seen during a 2 1/2 month period were asked to complete a questionnaire one week after the consultation. Those who did not return the questionnaire, and cases where the diagnosis was changed by a doctor in the days following the consultation, were excluded. The final material comprised 422 patients. 28% did not have any complaints after the consultation. 50% were free of symptoms within 24 hours and 75% within 48 hours. 10% had symptoms for more than a week. Cases of infectious conjunctivitis and trauma to the eye (without intrabulbar lesion) had the highest risk of developing symptoms after the consultation. The lowest incidence of complaints was seen among patients in whom a foreign body was removed from the cornea or conjunctiva. The longest duration of symptoms was seen among patients with infectious conjunctivitis. Cases with a foreign body on the cornea or conjunctiva or trauma to the eye (without intrabulbar lesion) had a slightly longer duration of the symptoms when a corneal tear was present. Patients with photoelectric conjunctivitis and conjunctivitis caused by chemical products had the shortest durations of symptoms. Patients with pain should be treated with analgesic tablets as the pain-relief after application of local anaesthetics was brief. Only half of those who had a prescription for chloramphenicol used this for as long as it had been recommended. Compliance was better to ointment than to eye-drops." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0475_14847", "title": "[Chlamydia pneumoniae--the etiologic agent of follicular conjunctivitis followed by keratoconjunctivitis sicca in adult patients].", "score": 0.009613619676945668, "content": "The authors refer to 21 adult patients at the age of 22 to 87 years, who have suffered from a chronic form of follicular conjunctivitis, found to be caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae as the etiological agent. The observation was made in the period from July 1999 to December 2002. Chl. pneumoniae was detected by a direct demonstration of the conjunctiva smears and by means of serological examination. The print preparations on glass were examined by the method of indirect immunofluorescence by means of specific monoclonal antibodies (Medac, Germany). The serological examination included detection of genus-specific IgG, IgA, IgM antibodies, respectively (Medac, Germany) and species-specific anti-Ch. pneumoniae IgG, IgA abd IgM antibodies, respectively (FOCUS Technologies, U.S.A.). The clinical picture included various long-term subjective complaints (within the range of several months to ten years), particularly a pathological secretion or increased lacrimation, cutting, burning or feeling of a foreign body in the eye. The objective examination revealed chronic changes characterized by a mild edema of bulbar conjunctiva with increased meandering in vessels of irregular caliber and edema in the lower transition plica with follicular structure crossing into the tarsal conjunctiva. In the fornix there was an apparent sticking aqueous or mucinous secretion. The therapy was indicated by the positive smears alone in four patients or positive IgA and/or IgM of genus- or species-specific antibodies in 12 patients. The therapy in the remaining five patients was recommended by the combination of suspect-positive smears in combination with positive genus- or species specific antibody reaction. The therapy made use of systemic administration of a macrolide antibiotic, azithromycin, for the period of 12 to 14 days in a single course of treatment. The pretreatment was always followed by control smears after two weeks and by serological examinations after three and six months. The serological findings remained virtually unchanged during that period of time in all patients under observation. In two of them only the species-specific antibodies anti-Ch. pneumoniae IgA antibodies disappeared six months after the therapy. The clinical findings disappeared slowly, particularly the follicular changes occurred after more than six months after the therapy ended. The subjective complaints, accompanied by a transient hyperemia of conjunctives in particular, remained after the therapy in nine patients older than 45 years, who were found to suffer from kieratoconjnunctivitis sicca. The ocular symptomatology was not accompanied by symptoms of autoimmune disease. The general treatment by antibiotics and the results supportive treatment succeeded in 67% of patients who were completely free of subjective complaints and the pathological process in conjunctives was inhibited." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0415_1556", "title": "Efficacy and safety of topical azelastine compared with topical mitomycin C in patients with allergic conjunctivitis.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To compare the efficacy and safety of topical azelastine with topical mitomycin C (MMC) in patients with allergic conjunctivitis. Sixty-three patients (29 male, 29 female; 34 in the age range of 6 to 65 years) with allergic conjunctivitis were enrolled in this study. The patients were randomly assigned to receive topical azelastine 0.02% (n = 31) or topical MMC (0.2 mg/10 mL) (n = 31) four times daily for 3 months. Follow-up examinations were done at 2 weeks to examine side effects of the medications and again at 4 weeks to assess the outcome of treatment. The eyes were examined for relief of symptoms, cure of signs, and the appearance of side effects with use of these drugs. The mean age of the patients in this study was 34.8 +/- 17.3 years. The age of patients in the MMC group was significantly higher than patients in the azelastine group (mean +/- SD, 25.2 +/- 13.5 years). More patients in the MMC group had relief of symptoms like redness [25 (80.7%) in the MMC group versus 19 (55.9%) in the azelastine group; p= 0.033], photophobia [11 (35.5%) in the MMC group versus six (17.7%) in the azelastine group; not significant], discharge [17 (54.8%) in the MMC group versus 11 (32.3%) in the azelastine group; not significant], and foreign body sensation [21 (67.7%) in the MMC group versus 16 (47.1%) in the azelastine group; not significant], while more patients in the azelastine group had relief of lacrimation [14 (41.2%) in the azelastine group versus 10 (32.3%) in the MMC group; not significant] and pain [12 (35.3%) in the azelastine group versus eight (25.8%) in the MMC group; not significant]. The MMC group also showed a greater decrease in follicles [31 (100.0%) in the MMC group versus six (17.7%) in the azelastine group; p= 0.0001] and papillae [29 (93.6%) in the MMC group versus four (11.8%) in the azelastine group; p= 0.0001]. Both drugs were found to be equally effective in relieving itching [18 (58.1%) in the MMC group versus 18 (52.9%) in the azelastine group; not significant]. In the MMC group, 27 (87.1%) patients had conjunctival hyperemia, 28 (90.3%) patients had episcleritis, and 29 (93.6%) patients had irritation. The use of topical azelastine did not cause any adverse event. Though this was a short-term study, we found topical MMC to be more effective than topical azelastine in the treatment of allergic conjunctivitis both in terms of relief of symptoms and resolution of signs. The use of topical MMC in low doses does not cause any significant adverse effect." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en084_51258", "title": "Neonatal conjunctivitis", "score": 0.009464285714285713, "content": "If left untreated, neonatal conjunctivitis can cause blindness. Signs and symptoms Neonatal conjunctivitis by definition presents during the first month of life. Signs and symptoms include: Pain and tenderness in the eyeball Conjunctival discharge: purulent, mucoid or mucopurulent (depending on the cause) Conjunctival hyperaemia and chemosis, usually also with swelling of the eyelids Corneal involvement (rare) may occur in herpes simplex ophthalmia neonatorum Time of onset Chemical causes: Right after delivery Neisseria gonorrhoeae: Delivery of the baby until 5 days after birth (early onset) Chlamydia trachomatis: 5 days after birth to 2 weeks (late onset – C. trachomatis has a longer incubation period) Complications Untreated cases may develop corneal ulceration, which may perforate, resulting in corneal opacification and staphyloma formation. Cause" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0827_3444", "title": "Rapidly evolving conjunctivitis due to Pasteurella multocida, occurring after direct inoculation with animal droplets in an immuno-compromised host.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The rare descriptions, in the literature, of ocular infections due to Pasteurella multocida include: endophtalmitis, keratitis and corneal ulcers, Parinaud's oculoglandular syndrome, and conjunctivitis. Here, we report a rare case of rapidly evolving conjunctivitis due to Pasteurella multocida, occurring after direct inoculation with animal droplets in an immuno-compromised host. A 69-year-old, Caucasian male was referred to our department with purulent conjunctivitis, occurring five days after chemotherapy for an angioimmunoblastic-T-cell-lymphoma, and thirty-three hours after being struck in his right eye by his sneezing Dachshund dog. Physical examination revealed purulent conjunctivitis of the right eye associated with inflammatory edema of both lids. Direct bacteriological examination of conjunctival secretions showed gram-negative bacilli and regular, grey non-hemolytic colonies appearing the next day on blood agar. The oxidase test was positive for these colonies. An antibiotherapy associating intravenous amoxicillin and amoxicillin/clavulanate was administered. The outcome was favorable in the next three days allowing discharge of the patient with amoxicillin (2 g tid per os). This case report may be of interest for infectious diseases, ophthalmology or oncology specialists, especially nowadays with chemotherapy being administered in day care centres, where unusual home pathogens can be encountered in health related infections. In this case, previous animal contact and conjunctival samples showing Enterobacteriaceae like colonies with positive oxidase test were two important clues which could help clinicians to make the diagnosis of Pasteurella conjunctivitis in every day practice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0541_12470", "title": "[Ocular injuries related to Independence Day celebrations].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Each year, following Israel's Independence Day celebrations, patients are referred to the Soroka University Medical Center as a result of ocular injuries from items such as artificial snow spray, fireworks, plastic hammers and stick-lights (plastic tubes filled with fluorescent liquid). This study aims to describe and characterize the ocular injuries that are directly related to the use of these devices. The files of all patients who were referred to the Department of Ophthalmology in the Soroka University Medical Center, between the years 1998 and 2005, during the period of Israel's Independence Day, were screened. If a patient sustained an injury from a device used during the celebration, then data relating to the age, sex, injured eye, diagnosis, the device that caused the injury and treatment were collected. A total of 437 patients were included in this study; fifty-two patients had suffered an ocular injury directly due to a celebration device. The patients' mean age was 17.6 years; 61.5% of the patients were male. The three most common ocular injuries were corneal erosions, conjuctival erosions, and superficial punctate keratitis (38.5%, 28.9%, and 23.0%, respectively). Other injuries included corneal and conjuctival foreign bodies, traumatic iritis, elevated intraocular pressure, and subconjuctival hemorrhage. The devices responsible for most of the injuries were artificial snow spray and fireworks. Ocular injuries from stick-light liquid, plastic hammers, and balloon explosions were seen as well. Almost all patients (96.1%) required medical treatment. Patients injured by celebration devices accounted for 27.9% of all patients seen during this period in our Ophthalmology Department; after several years, the rate approached 40%. Strict enforcement of rules and legislation regarding the use of celebration devices must be upheld. The public's awareness of the harm that these devices can cause should be strengthened." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1129_23580", "title": "Tele-ophthalmology as an aid tool for primary care physicians in the IDF, during the Covid-19 lockdown.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To describe tele-ophthalmology consultations for primary-physicians in the IDF during the Covid-19 lockdown. Retrospective cross-sectional study. Medical records of tele-ophthalmology consultations from March to June 2020 were reviewed. The study included 245 cases in which an ophthalmologist was consulted. In 62.0% cell-phone camera photographs were used. The mean age was 21.5 ± 6.4 years. The most common diagnoses were acute-conjunctivitis (8.6%); conjunctival-hyperemia (non-specific diagnosis, 8.2%); scleritis/episcleritis (7.3%); chronic allergic-conjunctivitis (7.3%); chalazion (7.3%) hordeolum (6.5%); acute allergic-conjunctivitis (4.5%). 37.6% of patients received primary physician-based treatment, 24.9% of patients received specialist-based treatment. 13.1% were referred to the ER. The consult prevented ER referral for 39.2% and changed the physician's treatment plan in 70.6% of cases. Foreign-body sensation complaints were more likely treated by a primary-physician (p = 0.015). Cases with suspected foreign-body diagnosis were referred more to the ER (p &lt; 0.001). For most cases of eyelid complaints and diagnoses, primary physician care was sufficient (p &lt; 0.001). Conjunctival complaints and diagnoses received significantly more ophthalmologist-based treatment (p &lt; 0.001). Corneal disorders were significantly referred more to the ER (p = 0.001). Despite of possible ethical and legal problems and clinical limitations of this instrument, Tele-ophthalmology using objective aids such as smartphone photography can be an efficient tool in aiding the primary-physician, especially for patients with low access to ophthalmologists, with major impact on patient management." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en301_17646", "title": "Parinaud's oculoglandular syndrome", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Parinaud's oculoglandular syndrome is the combination of granulomatous conjunctivitis in one eye, and swollen lymph nodes in front of the ear on the same side. Most cases are caused by cat-scratch disease, although it is an unusual feature of this condition. Occasionally it may be caused by other infections. It should not be confused with the neurological syndrome caused by a lesion in the midbrain which is also known as Parinaud's syndrome. Both were named after the same person, Henri Parinaud. Causes Bartonella henselae Francisella tularensis herpes simplex virus type 1 Paracoccidioides brasiliensis Diagnosis References External links Infectious diseases Herpes simplex virus-associated diseases Syndromes caused by microbes" }, { "id": "article-19987_8", "title": "Corneal Foreign Body -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "If present for greater than 24 hours, WBCs may migrate into the cornea/ anterior chamber as a sign of iritis. Gross hyphema, however, may indicate globe perforation. Other gross exam findings may show eyelid edema, as well as generalized or focal injection of the conjunctiva." }, { "id": "article-19888_41", "title": "Conjunctivitis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The ocular exam should focus on visual acuity, extraocular motility, visual fields, discharge type, shape, size and response of pupil, the presence of proptosis, corneal opacity, foreign body assessment, tonometry, and eyelid swelling." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1073_19306", "title": "Conjunctival and bulbar sporotrichosis as Parinaud's oculoglandular syndrome acquired by blood inoculation.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Parinaud's oculoglandular syndrome (POS) is a clinical condition characterized by granulomatous conjunctivitis associated with homolateral neck pain and anterior preauricular lymphadenopathy. Several reports of this condition occurred and some bacterial etiological agents were identified. However, fungal infections have also been associated, especially sporotrichosis. A 40-year-old female patient complained about a \"little ball\" in the lower eyelid of the left eye. On ocular examination, visual acuity and fundoscopy were normal. The biomicroscopy revealed a granulomatous lesion in the lower eyelid of the left eye associated with yellowish discharge. The patient returned the next day, reporting worsening of the condition accompanied by low fever, malaise, preauricular and submandibular lymphadenomegaly. The examination showed the evolution of conjunctival edema and various conjunctival granulomas in the lower and upper tarsus of the left eye, a clinical picture compatible with POS. In the investigation of the clinical history, the patient remembered an episode of contact with blood of cats. During the investigation, we discarded differential diagnoses such as tuberculosis, toxoplasmosis, CMV, herpes virus and <iBartonella</i. Serology was positive for <iSporothrix</i. Treatment with itraconazole 100 mg once daily was started. By the eighth week, the conjunctival granulomas had disappeared, and the medication was discontinued after 90 days of treatment, after about 2 weeks of total remission. According to the literature, there are no cases of primarily ocular manifestation of blood sporotrichosis transmission. However, in the report, the form of transmission of the disease occurred by inoculation by direct contact with the blood of contaminated cats." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0533_13174", "title": "Acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis: an epidemic in August/September 2003.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "To clinically analyze 400 cases of red eye attending Nepal Eye Hospital in August/ September 2003 and to study the aetiology of the disease on the clinical basis with available laboratory resources. It is a prospective study of 400 cases of acute conjunctivitis visiting Nepal Eye Hospital during the epidemic of acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis in August/September 2003. 30.5% presented in the age group of 20-29 years. Males presented predominantly (73.3%). Maximum number of patients presented at two days of onset of symptoms. All 400 cases had red eye, 89.8% had pain, 86.3% had foreign body sensation and 87.5% had discharge. Bilateral involvement was seen in 73.5% and unilateral involvement in 26.5%, 4.3 % of the total cases had corneal involvement and 20% of the cases had associated fever and preauricular lymphadenopathy. Based on clinical presentation and the report of available laboratory results, picorna virus was found to be responsible for this epidemic of acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis." }, { "id": "article-19888_71", "title": "Conjunctivitis -- Differential Diagnosis -- Non-Emergent Diagnoses", "score": 0.00905273937532002, "content": "Pterygium and episcleritis are typically associated with localized redness, which differs from the diffuse redness in conjunctivitis. Blepharitis, contact overuse, and dry eyes are similar in presentation to allergic conjunctivitis. These conditions commonly present with a foreign body sensation, itching, or burning. History of contact use, lack of blinking, and allergies/atopy are important in differentiating contact lens overwear, dry eyes, and allergic conjunctivitis, respectively. Crusting of the eyelids, marked erythema, and edema of the eyelid margins are most consistent with blepharitis. Lastly, a subconjunctival hemorrhage is due to bleeding of conjunctival vessels and appears as blood in the subconjunctival space rather than the typical injection or vessel dilation seen in conjunctivitis. [46] [57] [60]" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 100, 458 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 21, 84 ] ], "text": "The statement of 1 is correct in cases of follicular carcinoma without capsular invasion a total thyroidectomy can be performed. But if there are data of poor prognosis and the possibility of metastases - as in this case - it is best to complete the thyroidectomy and perform a radioactive iodine scan to rule out metastases or treat them if they are present." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 232, 458 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 84 ] ], "text": "if there are data of poor prognosis and the possibility of metastases - as in this case - it is best to complete the thyroidectomy and perform a radioactive iodine scan to rule out metastases or treat them if they are present." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "As there is no capsular invasion, no further surgery is necessary.", "2": "Follicular pattern is an indication for prophylactic cervical lymph node emptying.", "3": "This is a follicular carcinoma and requires completion of thyroidectomy.", "4": "The report allows us to rule out with total certainty a papillary carcinoma in the remaining thyroid.", "5": "Measurement of plasma calcitonin will allow us to distinguish between papillary and follicular carcinoma." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0306_4298", "title": "Selective treatment of differentiated thyroid carcinoma.", "score": 0.01702405099971023, "content": "Over a period of 20 years 84 papillary and 82 follicular carcinomas operated on by one surgeon and examined by one pathologist were documented prospectively, treated selectively, and followed for 1 to 20 years (median 7 years). Tumors with a low risk of recurrence or incurable disease-i.e., papillary carcinoma pT1-3 N0 M0 (n = 56) and minimally invasive follicular carcinoma (n = 37)-were treated by a limited-radicality hemithyroidectomy or total thyroidectomy without radioiodine in 79 of the 93 cases (85%). No unfavorable course was observed, and only one curable recurrence (1.3%) developed contralaterally after hemithyroidectomy for papillary cancer. Of the remaining 73 patients, including 100% of those with nodal involvement, 65 (89%) underwent total thyroidectomy with radioiodine. Total thyroidectomy was achieved in 34% of the cases by completion thyroidectomy, based on definitive histologic examination. No instance of a serious, potentially incurable recurrence and no tumor-related death was observed in patients with a papillary TNM stage I+II or with a minimally invasive follicular carcinoma. Five of the patients (6%) with papillary carcinoma, all with TNM stage III or IV, and seven of the patients (8.5%) with follicular carcinoma, all grossly invasive and pT3 or pT4, had tumor-related deaths following total thyroidectomy in all and with remnant ablation in 10 cases. A potentially curable node recurrence occurred in two patients 1 and 10 years, respectively, after primary treatment. Permanent hypoparathyroidism (n = 4) (2.4%) and permanent recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy (n = 2) (1.2%) were observed only in patients with a grossly invasive follicular carcinoma and concomitant benign recurrent goiter. We conclude that (1) hemithyroidectomy or total thyroidectomy without radioiodine is adequate for papillary carcinoma pT1-3 N0 and minimally invasive follicular carcinoma; (2) there were no nodal recurrences in tumors recognized as node-negative; and (3) extracapsular excision of one or both lobes can be carried out technically with low morbidity. The study confirms the prognostic value of age-related TNM classification for papillary carcinoma; classification of follicular thyroid carcinoma as minimally invasive or grossly invasive proved to be useful." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0556_22646", "title": "[The lymph node dissection in thyroid carcinoma].", "score": 0.013871635610766046, "content": "Rule and indications of lymph node dissection (LD) in thyroid carcinoma is still under debate because of the biological variety of different histological types and the difficulty to have an accurate preoperative diagnosis of metastatic lymph nodes; moreover prognostic factors of metastatic lymph nodes are still unclear. The AA. have separately analyzed different thyroid carcinomas and different clinical situations requiring thyroid LD. Metastatic lymph nodes from differentiated carcinomas, including papillary and follicular type, range from 12 to 90% and apparently do not worsen the prognosis. Level II-VI LD is indicated in presence of metastatic lymph nodes or macroscopic nodal recurrence after a previous LD. No prognostic advantages have been demonstrated when LD is performed without clinical or instrumental evidence of metastatic disease, including suspected recurrence characterised only by plasma Thyreoglobulin increased values. Lymph node metastases from medullary carcinoma range from 25 to 63%. Level II-VI LD is indicated if node metastases are present, whereas prophylactic LD, confined to level VI, is always recommended. Controversies still remain about: 1) LD extension whether it is prophylactic (level VI vs. II- VI) or in case of nodal involvement (levels II- VI monolateral or bilateral), 2) LD indications in case of an increased plasma Calcitonin levels during the follow-up after total thyroidectomy, without clinical or instrumental evidence of nodes involvement. Anaplastic carcinoma represents 5% of all thyroid carcinomas; it is the most aggressive type with an early tendency to invade surrounding organs and to give metastases; prognosis is very poor. LD is indicated only for a palliation in cases with compression syndromes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0048_15738", "title": "Completion thyroidectomy: a critical appraisal.", "score": 0.013740521972267605, "content": "Completion thyroidectomy can most accurately be described as reexploration of the neck to remove the contralateral thyroid lobe. This procedure has commonly been performed when the histopathologic condition of the ipsilateral thyroid lobe reveals papillary or follicular carcinoma of the thyroid. Because of a definitely increased risk of complications with completion thyroidectomy, avoiding its routine use is important. The purpose of this paper is to define the specific indications for completion thyroidectomy. Over the past 9 years, we have performed 400 thyroidectomies; the patients ranged in age from 18 to 88 years. Although we have routinely used preoperative needle biopsy and intraoperative frozen section, decisions regarding the extent of thyroidectomy have been based on the gross findings at operation, taking into consideration such prognostic factors as patient age, tumor grade and size, the presence of extracapsular spread or distant metastasis, and associated risk factors. The minimal procedure for solitary thyroid nodule has been lobectomy with isthmusectomy. If the contralateral lobe is grossly normal, lobectomy with isthmusectomy has also been the maximal operation in most of patients. Very few specific indications exist for removal of the opposite lobe. Only three patients underwent completion thyroidectomy. All three patients had aggressive follicular carcinoma requiring radioactive iodine ablation, and all were referred after the initial surgery. We have not performed completion thyroidectomy on any of the patients on whom we initially operated. The most common indication considered for completion thyroidectomy is a frozen section diagnosis of a benign follicular adenoma that is subsequently changed on permanent pathologic condition to follicular carcinoma based on the presence of capsular and/or vascular invasion. However, if minimal invasion has occurred, no difference exists in survival related to the extent of the thyroidectomy. Local recurrence in the contralateral lobe occurs in less than 10% of the time. Because completion thyroidectomy carries more risks, it should be avoided in most patients when possible. The definitive decision should be made during the initial operation based on gross findings, prognostic factors, and frozen section, and this plan should only be changed to mandate completion thyroidectomy in select circumstances." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_55493", "title": "Thyroidectomy", "score": 0.01357521905467111, "content": "Hemithyroidectomy — Entire isthmus is removed along with 1 lobe. Done in benign diseases of only 1 lobe. Subtotal thyroidectomy — Removal of majority of both lobes leaving behind 4-5 grams (equivalent to the size of a normal thyroid gland) of thyroid tissue on one or both sides—this used to be the most common operation for multinodular goitre. Partial thyroidectomy —Removal of gland in front of trachea after mobilization. Done in nontoxic MNG. Its role is controversial. Near total thyroidectomy — Both lobes are removed except for a small amount of thyroid tissue (on one or both sides) in the vicinity of the recurrent laryngeal nerve entry point and the superior parathyroid gland. Total thyroidectomy — Entire gland is removed. Done in cases of papillary or follicular carcinoma of thyroid, medullary carcinoma of thyroid. This is now also the most common operation for multinodular goitre." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0668_7309", "title": "[Indication and extent of cervical lymph node dissection in differentiated thyroid carcinoma].", "score": 0.013430477528089887, "content": "Indication and extent of lymph node dissection in differentiated thyroid carcinoma are still subject to controversy. The overall favourable prognosis, low study numbers and the different biological features of papillary and follicular carcinoma lead to few evidence-based recommendations and a low level of evidence. The different therapeutic and operative strategies are illustrated on the principles of evidence-based medicine. A literature search was carried out in Medline and EMBase using the keywords differentiated/papillary/follicular thyroid carcinoma, lymphadenectomy, lymph node dissection. PTC: Eleven retrospective studies outline the effect of prophylactic vs. no lymph node dissection on tumour relapse rate and long-term survival. Six of these studies combine PTC and FTC. A minor evidence-based recommendation for prophylactic cervico-central lymph node dissection in PTC can be given (evidence level 3). Lymph node dissections involving the cervico-lateral compartment can be recommended in the case of clinically pathological findings at the lymph nodes (evidence level 3). A prophylactic mediastinal lymph node dissection is not indicated (evidence level 4), a therapeutic mediastinal LAD cannot be recommended because of higher morbidity and mortality (evidence level 3). FTC: 3 retrospective studies outline the effect of prophylactic lymph node dissection on tumour relapse rate and long-term survival. Based on these, a recommendation for prophylactic cervico-central systematic lymph node dissection can be given for invasive follicular carcinoma (evidence level 3). There is no indication for prophylactic cervico-lateral or mediastinal lymph node dissection (evidence level 3). The following recommendations can be given in differentiated thyroid carcinoma: In the case of clinically pathological findings in cervical lymph nodes, a systematic lymph node dissection of the lateral and central compartment is indicated (evidence level 3). Prophylactic cervico-central lymph node dissection is recommended for PTC larger than 10 mm in diameter and invasive FTC, a cervico-lateral or mediastinal prophylactic lymph node dissection is not indicated (evidence level 3). In papillary microcarcinoma and minimally invasive follicular carcinoma, a prophylactic lymph node dissection is not indicated (evidence level 3)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_1147", "title": "Follicular thyroid cancer", "score": 0.013325647633256476, "content": "Diagnosis It is difficult to correctly diagnose follicular neoplasms (FNs) on fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) because it shares many cytological features with other mimicking lesions. Classification It is impossible to distinguish between follicular adenoma and carcinoma on cytological grounds. If fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) suggests follicular neoplasm, thyroid lobectomy should be performed to establish the histopathological diagnosis. Features sine qua non for the diagnosis of follicular carcinoma are capsular invasion and vascular invasion by tumor cells. Still, focuses of the capsular invasion should be carefully evaluated and discriminated from the capsular rupture due to FNA penetration resulting in WHAFFT (worrisome histologic alterations following FNA of thyroid). Follicular carcinoma tends to metastasize to lung and bone via the bloodstream. Papillary thyroid carcinoma commonly metastasizes to cervical lymph nodes." }, { "id": "article-21869_23", "title": "Follicular Adenoma -- Evaluation", "score": 0.013294966125154805, "content": "FNA is performed to provide a cytological examination of the nodule, and it remains the mainstay for assessing these lesions, although it may not provide a diagnosis in all cases. [7] The success rate of FNA is improved when the procedure is done under ultrasound guidance. The cytopathological findings are reported using one of the three major international nomenclatures: the British Thyroid Association and Royal College of Pathologists (Thy), the Italian Consensus (TIR) and the Bethesda System for Reporting Thyroid Cytopathology [40] [28] . Thyroid nodule fine-needle aspiration (FNA) washout may be examined for calcitonin in the preoperative evaluation in patients with elevated serum calcitonin (20–100 pg/mL). In patients with follicular adenoma the cytological sample has abundant follicular epithelial cells organized in sheets with crowding and overlapping of cells, microfollicle formation with scant or absent colloid. Some patients have follicular cells with abnormal architecture with atypia that is more significant than usually seen with benign lesions but not sufficient enough to call it a neoplasm. According to the Bethesda classification system, these patients are characterized as having \"atypia of undetermined significance\" or \"follicular lesion of undetermined significance\". Molecular assessment of indeterminate cytology can be helpful [28] . A final diagnosis of follicular adenoma is made only after ruling out capsular and vessel invasion by standard nodulectomy or thyroidectomy with subsequent histological examination. Frozen section should not be requested in clinically benign nodules but is a common practice in cases of suspect papillary thyroid carcinoma hence its evaluation intraoperatively can guide in performing lymphadenectomy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_1146", "title": "Follicular thyroid cancer", "score": 0.013193058421568957, "content": "Hurthle cell variant Hurthle cell thyroid cancer is often considered a variant of follicular cell carcinoma. Hurthle cell forms are more likely than follicular carcinomas to be bilateral and multifocal and to metastasize to lymph nodes. Like follicular carcinoma, unilateral hemithyroidectomy is performed for non-invasive disease, and total thyroidectomy for invasive disease. Diagnosis It is difficult to correctly diagnose follicular neoplasms (FNs) on fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) because it shares many cytological features with other mimicking lesions." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_10881", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.013150309842916846, "content": "patients will have benign adenomas. Total thyroidectomy is recommended by some surgeons in older patients with follicular lesions >4 cm because of the higher risk of cancer in this setting (50%) and certainly should be performed in patients with atypia on FNA, a family history of thyroid cancer, or a history of radiation exposure. Intraoperative frozen-section examination usually is not helpful, but it should be performed when there is evidence of capsular or vascular invasion or when adjacent lymphadenopa-thy is present. Total thyroidectomy should be performed when thyroid cancer is diagnosed. There is debate among experts about whether patients with minimally invasive follicular can-cers should undergo completion thyroidectomy because the prognosis is so good in these patients. A diagnosis of frankly invasive carcinoma or follicular carcinoma with angioinvasion, with or without capsular invasion, necessitates completion of total thyroidectomy primarily so that 131I can be used to" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en262_816", "title": "Thyroid cancer", "score": 0.013057150669948045, "content": "The follicular and papillary types together can be classified as \"differentiated thyroid cancer\". These types have a more favorable prognosis than the medullary and undifferentiated types. Papillary microcarcinoma is a subset of papillary thyroid cancer defined as a nodule measuring less than or equal to 1 cm. 43% of all thyroid cancers and 50% of new cases of papillary thyroid carcinoma are papillary microcarcinoma. Management strategies for incidental papillary microcarcinoma on ultrasound (and confirmed on FNAB) range from total thyroidectomy with radioactive iodine ablation to lobectomy or observation alone. Harach et al. suggest using the term \"occult papillary tumor\" to avoid giving patients distress over having cancer. Woolner et al. first arbitrarily coined the term \"occult papillary carcinoma\", in 1960, to describe papillary carcinomas ≤ 1.5 cm in diameter." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0039_1484", "title": "Carcinoma of the thyroid with description of a new scanning technic.", "score": 0.012698288661405016, "content": "A statistical analysis of 193 patients with thyroid carcinoma encountered at Vanderbilt University Hospital from 1925 to 1974 is reported, from which the following conclusions are drawn: (1) Papillary thyroid carcinoma is an extremely favorable lesion that when grossly limited to one thyroid lobe can usually be managed successfully by ipsolateral total lobectomy. (2) Cervical lymph node enlargement in patients with papillary carcinoma requires lymph node dissection. When feasible, the spinal accessory nerve should be preserved. (3) Failure to cure papillary and follicular thyroid carcinoma is influenced by advanced age, inadequate local extirpation, and unresectability of the carcinoma. (4) Prophylactic lymph node dissection is rarely indicated in the treatment of follicular carcinoma. A new isotope scanning procedure, developed at Vanderbilt University Hospital, promises to be helpful in preoperatively differentiating benign from malignant solitary thyroid nodules." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_1149", "title": "Follicular thyroid cancer", "score": 0.012551174315880199, "content": "Initial treatment If follicular cells are found on cytological testing, it is common to carry out hemithyroidectomy to distinguish between follicular adenoma and follicular carcinoma on histopathological examination, proceeding to completion thyroidectomy and postoperative radioiodine ablation where carcinoma is confirmed. This way total thyroidectomy is not carried out unnecessarily. Thyroidectomy is invariably followed by radioiodine treatment at levels from 50 to 200 millicuries following two weeks of a low iodine diet (LID). Occasionally treatment must be repeated if annual scans indicate remaining cancerous tissue. Some physicians favor administering the maximum safe dose (calculated based on a number of factors), while others favor administering smaller doses, which may still be effective in ablating all thyroid tissue. I-131 is used for ablation of the thyroid tissue. Minimally invasive thyroidectomy has been used in recent years in cases where the nodules are small." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_1167", "title": "Medullary thyroid cancer", "score": 0.01212709192335678, "content": "Prognosis Depending on source, the overall 5-year survival rate for medullary thyroid cancer is 80%, 83% or 86%, and the 10-year survival rate is 75%. By overall cancer staging into stages I to IV, the 5-year survival rate is 100% at stage I, 98% at stage II, 81% at stage III and 28% at stage IV. The prognosis of MTC is poorer than that of follicular and papillary thyroid cancer when it has metastasized (spread) beyond the thyroid gland. The prognostic value of measuring calcitonin and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) concentrations in the blood was studied in 65 MTC patients who had abnormal calcitonin levels after surgery (total thyroidectomy and lymph node dissection). The prognosis correlated with the rate at which the postoperative calcitonin concentration doubles, termed the calcitonin doubling time (CDT), rather than the pre- or postoperative absolute calcitonin level:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0500_22451", "title": "Lymph node dissection in papillary or follicular thyroid carcinoma.", "score": 0.012020792722547108, "content": "Prospective randomized studies aimed at evaluating the different therapeutic protocols for the treatment of papillary or follicular carcinoma are lacking at the moment. Although total thyroidectomy is widely accepted, indication to locoregional lymphadenectomy is strongly debated. Fifty-four patients with papillary or follicular thyroid carcinoma (45 papillary and 9 follicular) underwent functional evaluation of the gland before intervention, FNAB included Surgical management was carried out as follows: 41 total thyroidectomy, 6 lobectomy with further totalization in 5, 6 total thyroidectomy plus central compartment lymphadenectomy and 1 left laterocervical lymphadenectomy (papillary carcinoma, treated elsewhere through total thyroidectomy plus central and right laterocervical lymphadenectomy). All operated patients were submitted to whole body scintigraphy and treated thereafter by radiometabolic therapy and chronic hormone suppressive therapy. Fifty-one patients are currently alive, 3 died from non-related causes; surgical complications included 1 permanent impairment of inferior laryngeal nerve function and 1 case of hypoparathyroidism. The follow-up was from 1 to 139 months. The optimal treatment of lymph node metastases, especially for papillary carcinomas, has not yet been defined. Two trends are evident concerning lymphadenectomy: the first one suggests routine lymphadenectomy, the second supports lymphadenectomy by necessity. In follicular carcinoma lymphadenectomy is recommended only in the presence of clinical evidence of lymph node involvement. Occult differentiated carcinoma does not require any further treatment of lymph nodes. Considering the high efficacy of radiometabolic treatment after total thyroidectomy combined with chronic TSH inhibition through L-tyrosine administration, lymphadenectomy is suggested only by necessity." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en498_25491", "title": "Noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features", "score": 0.011997885835095137, "content": "History Patients in the distant past with this lesion would have been regarded as showing signs of having a benign lesion, a follicular adenoma. However, over time and with additional evaluation and molecular testing, these lesions came to be regarded as showing features of a papillary thyroid carcinoma because of their papillary carcinoma type nuclei. Thus, the \"follicular variant\" of a tumor that normally shows a papillary architecture and papillary nuclear features was named. Over the years, those cases that do not show invasion of either the capsule of the tumor or the vessels in the capsule, have been shown to behave in an indolent fashion, with only rare reported cases of metastatic disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en498_25492", "title": "Noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features", "score": 0.011822890134148414, "content": "Over a multiyear time frame, an international consensus project was undertaken to re-define the pathological criteria for the encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma. Based on a rigorous review of the literature and a multicentre review of many cases with long-term follow-up (a minimum of 10 years) together with molecular analysis of some tumors, this working group has determined that tumors previously classified as the encapsulated follicular variant of papillary carcinoma—without any evidence of capsular or vascular invasion, provided that the entire periphery of the tumor (capsule if encapsulated or periphery if well circumscribed) has been sampled—can be reclassified as noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasms with papillary-like nuclear features. There are several major inclusion and exclusion criteria." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en262_819", "title": "Thyroid cancer", "score": 0.011629072681704261, "content": "Thyroid cancer can spread directly, via lymphatics or blood. Direct spread occurs through infiltration of the surrounding tissues. The tumor infiltrates into infrahyoid muscles, trachea, oesophagus, recurrent laryngeal nerve, carotid sheath, etc. The tumor then becomes fixed. Anaplastic carcinoma spreads mostly by direct spread, while papillary carcinoma spreads so the least. Lymphatic spread is most common in papillary carcinoma. Cervical lymph nodes become palpable in papillary carcinoma even when the primary tumor is unpalpable. Deep cervical nodes, pretracheal, prelaryngeal, and paratracheal groups of lymph nodes are often affected. The lymph node affected is usually the same side as that of the location of the tumor. Blood spread is also possible in thyroid cancers, especially in follicular and anaplastic carcinoma. The tumor emboli do angioinvasion of lungs; end of long bones, skull, and vertebrae are affected. Pulsating metastases occur because of their increased vascularity." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_1148", "title": "Follicular thyroid cancer", "score": 0.01118156837877827, "content": "Follicular carcinoma tends to metastasize to lung and bone via the bloodstream. Papillary thyroid carcinoma commonly metastasizes to cervical lymph nodes. HMGA2 has been proposed as a marker to identify malignant tumors. Treatment Treatment is usually surgical, followed by radioiodine." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en163_38213", "title": "Thyroid adenoma", "score": 0.011025265057523121, "content": "Careful pathological examination may be necessary to distinguish a thyroid adenoma from a minimally invasive follicular thyroid carcinoma. Management Most patients with thyroid adenoma can be managed by watchful waiting (without surgical excision) with regular monitoring. However, some patients still choose surgery after being fully informed of the risks. Regular monitoring mainly consists of watching for changes in nodule size and symptoms, and repeat ultrasonography or needle aspiration biopsy if the nodule grows. For patients with benign thyroid adenomata, thyroid lobectomy and isthmusectomy is a sufficient surgical treatment. This procedure is also adequate for patients with minimally invasive thyroid cancer. When histological examination shows no signs of malignancy, then no further intervention is required. These patients should continue to have their thyroid hormone status regularly checked. References External links Thyroid cancer" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en097_40041", "title": "Papillary thyroid cancer", "score": 0.010997067448680353, "content": "The so-called lateral aberrant thyroid is usually a lymph node metastasis from a papillary thyroid carcinoma. Papillary microcarcinoma is a subset of papillary thyroid cancer defined as measuring less than or equal to 1 cm. The highest incidence of papillary thyroid microcarcinoma in an autopsy series was reported by Harach et al. in 1985, who found 36 of 101 consecutive autopsies to have an incidental microcarcinoma. Michael Pakdaman et al. report the highest incidence in a retrospective surgical series at 49.9 percent of 860 cases. Management strategies for incidental papillary microcarcinoma on ultrasound (and confirmed on FNAB) range from total thyroidectomy with radioactive iodine ablation to observation alone. Harach et al. suggest using the term \"occult papillary tumor\" to avoid giving patients distress over having cancer. It was Woolner et al. who first arbitrarily coined the term \"occult papillary carcinoma\" in 1960, to describe papillary carcinomas ≤ 1.5 cm in diameter." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en498_25480", "title": "Noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features", "score": 0.01062467997951869, "content": "Abbreviations: NIFTP: Noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features EFVPTC: Encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma. PTC: Papillary thyroid carcinoma. The new classification will be included in the World Health Organization's new Classification of Endocrine Organ Tumours, due out in 2017. Imaging findings Clinical evaluation is usually done with ultrasound studies, which will usually show a solid, well demarcated mass, often showing limited shadowing (hypoechoic). Depending on the specific character on ultrasound and other clinical findings, a fine needle aspiration is often performed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en558_13574", "title": "Computed tomography of the thyroid", "score": 0.010465689570167181, "content": "Thyroid cancers Epidemiology Primary thyroid carcinomas include papillary, follicular, medullary, and anaplastic carcinomas. Lymphoma and metastasis of other primary malignancies to the thyroid gland represent a minority of thyroid carcinomas. Differentiated thyroid carcinomas (DTCs) originate from follicular epithelial cells and encompass PTCs and follicular thyroid carcinomas, including the Hurthle cell variant of follicular carcinoma. DTCs have an excellent prognosis and fortunately represent the majority of thyroid carcinomas. PTCs and follicular thyroid carcinomas represent 88 % and 8 %, respectively, of all thyroid malignancies. Medullary thyroid carcinoma arises from neuroendocrine C-cells and has a good prognosis. Anaplastic carcinoma is an aggressive undifferentiated tumour that usually affects the elderly and tends to have a worse prognosis. Role of imaging" }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_10880", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.010240446543580936, "content": "capsule without extension into the parenchyma and/or invasion into smallto medium-sized vessels (venous caliber) in or immediately out-side the capsule, but not within the tumor. On the other hand, widely invasive tumors demonstrate evidence of large vessel invasion and/or broad areas of tumor invasion through the cap-sule. They may, in fact, be unencapsulated. It is important to note that there is a wide variation of opinion among clinicians and pathologists with respect to the above definitions. Tumor infiltration and invasion, as well as tumor thrombus within the middle thyroid or jugular veins, may be apparent at operation.Surgical Treatment and Prognosis. Patients diagnosed by FNAB as having a follicular lesion should undergo thyroid lobectomy because at least 70% to 80% of these patients will have benign adenomas. Total thyroidectomy is recommended by some surgeons in older patients with follicular lesions >4 cm because of the higher risk of cancer in this setting (50%) and" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en019_41085", "title": "Thyroglobulin", "score": 0.010183469391162086, "content": "A subsequent elevation of the thyroglobulin level is an indication of recurrence of papillary or follicular thyroid carcinoma. In other words, a rise in thyroglobulin levels in the blood may be a sign that thyroid cancer cells are growing and/or the cancer is spreading. Hence, thyroglobulin levels in the blood are mainly used as a tumor marker for certain kinds of thyroid cancer (particularly papillary or follicular thyroid cancer). Thyroglobulin is not produced by medullary or anaplastic thyroid carcinoma. Thyroglobulin levels are tested via a simple blood test. Tests are often ordered after thyroid cancer treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0690_76", "title": "Fine-needle aspiration and intraoperative consultation in thyroid pathology: when and how?", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) and frozen section evaluation are traditional components of the management of thyroid lesions. Their role and usefulness are dictated by some basic facts about thyroid pathology: (a) nodules are very common; (b ) they are benign in the majority of cases; and (c) the diagnosis of malignancy is primarily based on cytologic features in the case of papillary carcinoma, and on the presence of invasion of the tumor capsule or of blood vessels in the case of follicular carcinoma. The common occurrence of benign thyroid nodules mandates a cost-effective effective method for preoperative screening. Since, as already stated, the diagnosis of papillary thyroid carcinoma (by far the most common thyroid malignancy) is based on the identification of characteristic cytologic features, FNA has easily emerged in the past 30 years as the most accurate and cost-effective tool-indeed a true cornerstone-for the preoperative management of thyroid nodules. Standardized terminology to report cytologic diagnoses is highly recommended and is being implemented worldwide. Conversely, the importance of intraoperative frozen section diagnosis has been constantly decreasing over the past years, as a direct consequence of the widespread application of FNA. It may, however, be very useful in cases that are suspicious for papillary carcinoma on FNA and in selected cases with an indeterminate cytologic diagnosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en498_25487", "title": "Noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features", "score": 0.009882047876545553, "content": "Exclusion criteria 1) Any invasion. 2) The presence of any other papillary thyroid carcinoma variant (examples would include tall cell, columnar cell, cribriform morular, diffuse sclerosing, etc.). 3) True papillary structures (a fibrovascular core surrounded by neoplastic cells). While originally limited to <1%, newer data suggests no papillary structures should be allowed. 4) Psammoma bodies. These are calcified remnants of papillary structures, and thus if a psammoma body is present anywhere within the tumor (in the correct location), then a NIFTP cannot be diagnosed. 5) Tumor necrosis: If there is true tumor necrosis not associated with a fine needle aspiration. 6) Increased mitoses: If there are ≥3 mitoses per 10 high-power fields, then this category cannot be used." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1078_23362", "title": "Additional Tissue Sampling Trials Did Not Change Our Thyroid Practice.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "This study aimed to determine whether additional tissue sampling of encapsulated thyroid nodules would increase the frequency of follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC) diagnoses. We examined thyroid tissue specimens from 86 patients suspected of FTC (84.9% female; mean age, 49.0 ± 17.8 years). The number of tissue blocks created for pathological assessments ranged from 3 to 20 (mean, 9.1 ± 4.1); the numbers in the previous method recommended by the Japanese General Rules for the Description of Thyroid Cancer and additional blocks ranged from 1 to 12 (mean, 6.0 ± 2.8) and from 1 to 8 (mean, 3.1 ± 2.0), respectively. The additional blocks were subsequently examined to determine whether any diagnoses changed from those based on the previous method. Five patients were diagnosed with FTC using the previous method; however, additional tissue blocks led to the diagnosis of FTC in 6 patients, as 1 diagnosis was revised from follicular adenoma to FTC. It has been reported that increasing the number of tissue blocks used for pathological assessments can increase the frequency of FTC diagnoses; however, this was not clinically significant in thyroid carcinoma, which requires completion thyroidectomy and radioactive iodine treatment. It resulted in no benefits to the patient because all minimally invasive FTCs, follicular tumors of uncertain malignant potential (FT-UMP), and follicular adenomas are treated with lobectomy alone in Japan. Additional tissue sampling only had a slight impact on our thyroid practice; therefore, we decided to cease it." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0093_7157", "title": "[Surgical treatment of differentiated thyroid carcinoma].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "This paper reports the results and experiences of 95 cases with differentiated thyroid carcinoma managed by surgical treatment. Eighty-two patients were followed up with an average time of 6.2 years, the longest was fifteen years and six months, 96% of patients were survival over 5 years. The factors influencing prognosis are as follows: 1. Age: Elder predicts worse prognosis. 2. Papillary is better then follicular. 3. The stage of thyroid carcinoma: Bigger mass, tumor cells spreading out of thyroid capsule with invasion of adjacent tissues and regional lymph nodes, and intravascular tumor cell embolus almost always shows higher recurrence and mortality. 4. Simple tumor removal before admission gives no reasonable cure, but increasing risk of spreading as showed in our cases. Therefore, we emphasize that thyroid carcinoma should be treated primarily with radical operation. By our experience thyroid carcinoma should be treated with lobectomy for affected site, excision of isthmus, and contralateral subtotal thyroidectomy. Because of the low grade malignancy in differentiated thyroid carcinoma, modified neck dissection is the surgical procedure of choice. Patients undergoing such surgical procedure as stated above can be prevented from sequelae." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0393_2323", "title": "The value of frozen section examinations in determining the extent of thyroid surgery in patients with indeterminate fine-needle aspiration cytology.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To determine the usefulness of intraoperative frozen section (FS) examinations in establishing the diagnosis of thyroid cancer in patients undergoing thyroidectomy for nodules with indeterminate cytological features and to determine the cost-effectiveness of FS examinations in this situation. Retrospective medical record review. The results of fine-needle aspiration biopsies (FNABs), FS examinations, and final pathologic examinations are compared. A cost-effectiveness analysis of routine FS examinations compared with the cost of additional surgical procedures is performed. A private surgical practice in a medical school-affiliated teaching hospital. The records of all 480 patients undergoing thyroidectomy between January 1, 1998, and September 30, 2000, were reviewed. All 199 patients with a dominant thyroid nodule and FNAB results either highly suggestive of papillary cancer or indeterminate were studied. Of the patients with FNAB results highly suggestive of papillary cancer, 95% had cancer according to the final pathologic examination results. The diagnosis of cancer was made by FS examination results in 67% of these patients. Of the remaining 178 patients whose FNAB result was indeterminate, 64 (36%) had thyroid cancer. Malignancy was diagnosed by FS examination results in 30 (47%) of these patients. If FS examinations had not been performed, these 30 patients would have required a second operation to complete a total thyroidectomy. The cost savings of routine FS examinations in patients with indeterminate FNAB results is 1298 US dollars per patient. The routine performance of FS examinations in patients with thyroid nodules with indeterminate cytological features is a cost-effective way of avoiding a second surgical procedure if a total thyroidectomy is indicated. In patients with FNAB results highly suggestive of papillary cancer, FS examinations are not useful. In these patients, the definitive operation can be based on the results of the FNAB." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en097_40047", "title": "Papillary thyroid cancer", "score": 0.009590643274853802, "content": "Treatment Surgery remains the mainstay of treatment for papillary thyroid cancer. The Revised 2009 American Thyroid Association guidelines for papillary thyroid cancer state that the initial procedure should be near-total or total thyroidectomy. Thyroid lobectomy alone may be sufficient treatment for small (<1 cm), low-risk, unifocal, intrathyroidal papillary carcinomas in the absence of prior head and neck irradiation or radiologically or clinically involved cervical nodal metastasis. Minimal disease (diameter up to 1.0 centimeters) - hemithyroidectomy (or unilateral lobectomy) and isthmectomy may be sufficient. There is some discussion whether this is still preferable over total thyroidectomy for this group of patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en097_40038", "title": "Papillary thyroid cancer", "score": 0.00958904109589041, "content": "Papillary thyroid carcinomas are also discovered when a hard nodule is found in multinodular goiter, when enlarged cervical lymph nodes are detected, or when there are unidentified metastatic lesions elsewhere in the body. Expanding lesions found in the thyroid gland, especially if they are painful, should be examined as they may indicate the presence of papillary thyroid carcinoma. Other clinical signs that could indicate papillary thyroid are fixation to the trachea, a firm neck mass, damage to recurrent laryngeal or cervical sympathetic nerves. Five percent of the population can have thyroid nodules, and the majority will be benign. Appropriate workup includes an ultrasound of the neck, followed by lab studies. Patients will usually meet with both an endocrinologist and a surgeon (head and neck surgeon or endocrine surgeon)." }, { "id": "article-30136_13", "title": "Thyroid Adenoma -- Evaluation", "score": 0.009494426751592358, "content": "Fine needle aspiration (FNA) has ultimately been used in evaluating a thyroid nodule with suspicious radiology features, especially in patients with a high risk of malignancy. It should be mentioned that fine-needle aspiration may not provide a definite diagnosis in all cases. In patients with thyroid adenoma, the cytological sample has organized follicular epithelial cells. On the other hand, aspiration can show follicular cells with abnormal architecture and atypia. These patients are characterized as having atypia of undetermined significance. [26] A benign thyroid adenoma is confirmed only after ruling out capsular and vessel invasion in the final histological examination done by pathologists after a partial or total thyroidectomy operation. Genetic testing has also helped a lot in predicting the risk of thyroid cancer, and it has frequently been used in the final decision-making of proceeding to surgical intervention of removing a thyroid nodule versus not. [27]" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 177, 205 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 26, 31 ] ], "text": "anti-Sm are specific to SLE," }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 254, 297 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 41, 46 ] ], "text": "anti-centromere are typical of scleroderma." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 206, 249 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 31, 40 ] ], "text": "ANA are detected in more than 90% of cases," }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 39, 159 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 22 ] ], "text": "Clinical case of SLE with renal involvement, in which positive double-stranded anti-DNA increases the risk of nephritis." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "The anti-Sm antibodies are not specific for this pathology.", "2": "Anti-centromere antibodies are detected in 90% of cases.", "3": "ANA (antinuclear antibodies) are detected in 50% of cases.", "4": "Anti-two-stranded or native anti-DNA correlates with the risk of nephritis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0395_10395", "title": "Clinical and laboratory features of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in Pakistani patients.", "score": 0.016190476190476193, "content": "To study the clinico-pathological features of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in Pakistani patients at the time of presentation in the four teaching hospitals of Rawalpindi-Islamabad area. Department of Immunology, Armed Forces Institute of Pathology (AFIP), Rawalpindi, Military Hospital (MH), Rawalpindi, Armed Forces Institute of Urology (AFIU), Rawalpindi, Combined Military Hospital (CMH), Rawalpindi, Department of Rheumatology, Pakistan Institute of Medical Sciences (PIMS), Islamabad. Patients suffering from SLE, diagnosed on the basis of the ARA criteria. Clinico-pathological features at the time of presentation. Twelve male patients in age range 5-30 years (mean 21.6 years) and 38 female patients in age range 8-37 years (mean 22.2 years) were included in the study, showing a female to male ratio of 3:1. Fever was the most common presenting feature (100%), followed by arthralgias/arthritis (98%), malar rash (64%) and oral ulcers (58%). Laboratory results showed antinuclear antibody to be positive in all patients followed by anti double stranded DNA antibodies (anti DNA antibodies: 64%), anti extractable nuclear antigen antibodies (anti ENA antibodies: 64%) and evidence of complement consumption in 64% of the patients. Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) was found to be increased with a mean of 64 mm first hour fall in males and a mean of 87 mm first hour fall in the female patients. The C reactive protein was detected to be normal or marginally increased inspite of the increased ESR with mean of 7 mg/l for male patients and 5 mg/1 for the females. The subject patient population presented almost universally with fever and arthralgias or arthritis in combination with malar rash or oral ulcers and in some patients a combination of all of the above was observed. A combination of positive anti nuclear antibody test, evidence for consumption of the complement in form of low C4 and C3, increased ESR and low C reactive protein were found to be a sensitive and cost effective set of laboratory findings for the diagnosis of patients suffering from SLE. The above mentioned set of clinical and laboratory features would help in the correct and early diagnosis of patients suffering from SLE, a relatively rare disease, in the busy medical out patient departments in our set up." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0779_16954", "title": "Identical twins:one with anti-glomerular basement membrane glomerulonephritis,the other with systemic lupus erythematosus.", "score": 0.015919917988301273, "content": "Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) glomerulonephritis and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are both disorders of the immune system; however, they are known as distinct diseases. Till now no clinical evidence suggests the genetic relationship between these two diseases. Herein, we present two identical twins; one was diagnosed as anti-GBM glomerulonephritis, the other SLE. This is the first clinical report on the genetic relationship between these two diseases. A 25-year-old female was admitted complaining of intermittent gross hematuria for 6 months and elevated serum creatinine for 1 month. She denied hemoptysis. Laboratory examinations showed hemoglobin 7.4 g/dL, serum creatinine 7.15 mg/dL and albumin 2.8 g/dL. Urinalysis showed hematuria (484 RBCs per high-power field) and proteinuria 4+. Antinuclear antibody, complement levels and ANCAs were all normal. Renal ultrasound showed normal-sized kidneys without obstruction or masses. Serum anti-GBM antibody assay showed 119.70 RU/mL (normal range, &lt;20 RU/mL). Chest X-ray was normal. She was diagnosed as anti-GBM glomerulonephritis and received plasma exchange (2000-3000 ml plasma/exchange, 5 turns), methylprednisolone 0.5 g for three days, plus cyclophosphamide. Although serum anti-GBM antibodies decreased gradually to a normal range, her renal function did not improve. One month later, her identical twin sister was diagnosed as SLE based on malar erythema, arthralgia, antinuclear antibody positive with liter 1:1000, and Anti-Smith (Sm) antibody ++. Anti-GBM antibody and complements were within normal ranges. Further study showed these twins were HLA-DRB1*1501 homozygotes. The presence of identical twins having anti-GBM nephritis and SLE respectively provides clinical evidence to support that anti-GBM nephritis and lupus may share a common genetic background to some extent, while environment may contribute to disease evolution in part." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1004_25990", "title": "Rowell Syndrome in Nigeria: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Presenting as Recurrent Erythema Multiforme in a Young Woman.", "score": 0.014003133568350961, "content": "Dear Editor, Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a heterogeneous autoimmune disease characterized by diverse patterns of auto-antibody production with multi-organ affectation. Cutaneous involvement, either alone or in association with other systemic illnesses, is one of its most common manifestations (1). Dermatologic disorders like malar and discoid rashes are quite suggestive of SLE. However, the occurrence of non-specific skin lesions like erythema multiforme (EM) in patients with SLE (Rowell syndrome) can rarely occur (1). In such patients, a diagnosis of SLE may be missed or delayed in the absence of other overt clinical features of lupus. Herein we report a case of recurring EM-like eruptions as the cardinal cutaneous manifestation of previously undiagnosed, active SLE in a young Nigerian woman. A 26-year-old Nigerian woman presented with a three-day history of non-pruritic, generalized, and target-like, erythematous annular patches and plaques which mostly affected the trunk. A few lesions had presented with crusting and erosions at the time of examination (Figure 1). Associated symptoms included oral painful ulcers, low grade fever, and malaise. The patient had no other systemic symptoms and her prior drug history was not remarkable. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was 66 mm/hour using the Westergren method. Screening for HIV and hepatitis B and C was negative. Herpes simplex, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein Barr viruses could not be screened for. Other baseline investigations (complete blood count, electrolytes, urea and creatinine as well as urinalysis) were within normal limits. The patient was managed as a case of EM of an unidentified inciting agent and her symptoms resolved with supportive care and antibiotics. However, she developed a recurrence about 5 weeks later, with more extensive and coalescent skin lesions (Figure 2). Additionally, there was a new onset of alopecia and pain in the small joints of the hands as well as both knees and ankles. At this time, the patient's ESR had gone up to 112 mm/h and she had developed significant proteinuria, with a protein creatinine ratio of 1.3 g/g (reference &lt;0.5 g/g). Her antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer was high (1:320) with a speckled pattern. Anti-Smith antibody was also positive. A renal biopsy was declined. A tentative diagnosis of Rowell syndrome was made. The patient was started on high-dose steroids and hydroxychloroquine 200 mg twice daily. Subsequent care included the use of mycophenolate mofetil 1 g twice daily for 6 months. This was then changed to azathioprine at 50 mg twice daily. Follow-up after 6 months showed sustained clearance of skin lesions, resolution of fever and joint pains, as well as improvement in the renal profile, with a urine protein-creatinine ratio of 0.77 g/g. The presence of systemic lupus erythematosus, EM-like lesions, and a speckled pattern of antinuclear antibody in our patient fulfils the revised diagnostic criteria for RS put forward by Zeitouni et al. at the turn of the twenty-first century (2). Considering the rarity of EM-like lesions in SLE and the possibility of constitutional symptoms in EM, a diagnosis of RS may be readily overlooked in patients like the one described, whose major cutaneous manifestation of severe active SLE was EM-like lesions. In contrast to classic EM, where skin lesions are concentrated in the extremities, a predominant truncal distribution of EM-like lesions as found in our patient may favor a clinical consideration of RS (3). However, some authors have challenged the existence of Rowell syndrome as a distinct clinical laboratory entity. Arguments put forward in this regard include the fact that none of the immunological markers that have been described in RS are specific to any disorder. Additionally, the annular polycyclic dermatosis seen in sub-acute cutaneous lupus erythematosus (SCLE) can be difficult to clinically and histologically differentiate from EM (4,5). Patients with SLE also have a higher likelihood of developing adverse drug reactions (6). The inherent complexity of SLE may make for delayed and oftentimes difficult diagnosis, especially in a country where immunologic tests are expensive and rheumatologists are scarce. When patients do occasionally present with recurrences of skin lesions in the spectrum of EM, Steven-Johnson syndrome, and toxic epidermal necrolysis in the absence of a definite inciting agent, undiagnosed lupus may indeed be present in some of these individuals and should be considered in the differential diagnosis. In conclusion, while it is very rare, SLE may present first with recurrent episodes of EM-like rash. Despite the various possibilities which underlie their association, prompt identification and treatment of SLE in patients presenting with EM is important to prevent death or irreversible organ damage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0053_2677", "title": "[Interstitial lupus nephritis].", "score": 0.0135492700729927, "content": "A 17-year old-male presented with a 6-week history of weight loss, lassitude and calf pains. On examination he was very pale. Laboratory tests showed a very high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (155 mm in the first hour), anaemia (haemoglobin 10.1 g/dl), and a raised serum creatinine of 1.54 mg/dl. Microhaematuria (5-10 erythrocytes/microliter) and pronounced pyuria (500 leucocytes/microliter) were present, but the urine was sterile and there was no increase in albumin excretion. The serum IgG was raised to 75.7 g/l, suggesting an autoimmune disorder. Anti-nuclear antibodies (titre 1 : 1920) and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies (31 U/ml) were present, while the serum complement C4 was decreased to 0.11 g/l. Renal histology showed an interstitial nephritis without glomerular involvement, while the bone marrow showed vasculitis accompanied by a prominent plasma-cell infiltrate. A diagnosis of interstitial nephritis associated with systemic lupus erythematosus was made, with asymptomatic cardiac and hepatic involvement. Renal function recovered rapidly with prednisolone therapy (initial dose 2 mg/kg.d). While glomerulonephritis is the most common lupus-associated renal disorder, isolated interstitial nephritis may occur in some cases, often with an absence of proteinuria." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_25088", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01256122847612465, "content": "Diagnostically, the most important autoantibodies to detect are ANA because the test is positive in >95% of patients, usually at the onset of symptoms. A few patients develop ANA within 1 year of symptom onset; repeated testing may thus be useful. ANA tests using immunofluorescent methods are more reliable than enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs) and/or bead assays, which have less specificity. ANA-negative lupus exists but is rare in adults and is usually associated with other autoantibodies (anti-Ro or anti-DNA). High-titer IgG antibodies to double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) (but not to single-stranded DNA) are specific for SLE. ELISA and immunofluorescent reactions of sera with the dsDNA in the flagellate Crithidia luciliae have ~60% sensitivity for SLE; identification of high-avidity anti-dsDNA in the Farr assay is not as sensitive but may correlate better with risk for nephritis. Titers of anti-dsDNA vary over time. In some patients, increases in quantities of anti-dsDNA herald" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en238_40288", "title": "Anti-dsDNA antibodies", "score": 0.012528717208954427, "content": "Anti-double stranded DNA (Anti-dsDNA) antibodies are a group of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) the target antigen of which is double stranded DNA. Blood tests such as enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and immunofluorescence are routinely performed to detect anti-dsDNA antibodies in diagnostic laboratories. They are highly diagnostic of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and are implicated in the pathogenesis of lupus nephritis. Discovery The first evidence for antinuclear antibodies arose in 1948 when Hargraves, Richmond and Morton discovered the LE cell. These abnormal cells, which are found in the bone marrow of persons who have SLE are categorised as polymorphonuclear leukocytes with phagocytosed whole nuclei. Subsequently, in 1957, antibodies to dsDNA were the first autoantibodies to be identified in patients with SLE. Antibody production" }, { "id": "article-130735_10", "title": "Shrinking Lung Syndrome -- Evaluation", "score": 0.01221590909090909, "content": "Routine blood testing is typically normal. A raised white cell count may be suggestive of infection. Raised levels of CRP may indicate serositis. The ESR may be raised in the context of active lupus. Renal function is expected to be normal unless there is co-existent lupus nephritis. Creatine kinase levels are typically normal unless active myositis elsewhere. The serological profile of the lupus patient should be clarified. A positive ANA is present in all cases. Positive antiphospholipid serology is noted in approximately 2/3 of patients. There may be evidence of hypocomplementemia, increased DNA binding (3/4 cases), and a positive ENA (including SS-A, SS-B, anti-RNP, and anti-Sm). However, these tests may also be normal and they neither confirm nor refute the diagnosis. [15]" }, { "id": "Obstentrics_Williams_8205", "title": "Obstentrics_Williams", "score": 0.011986642192095892, "content": "TABLE 59-1. Some Autoantibodies Produced in Patients with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) Best screening test, multiple antibodies; a second negative test makes SLE unlikely High titers SLE-specific; may correlate with disease activity, nephritis, and vasculitis Specific for SLE Not SLE-specific, high titers associated with rheumatic syndromes Not SLE-specific; associated with sicca syndrome, predisposes to cutaneous lupus, neonatal lupus with heart block, reduced risk of nephritis Associated with anti-Ro Common in drug-induced lupus Lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibodies associated with thrombosis, fetal loss, thrombocytopenia, valvular heart disease; false-positive test for syphilis Direct Coombs test, may develop hemolysis Thrombocytopenia in 15%; poor clinical test dsDNA = double-stranded DNA; RNP = ribonucleoprotein. Data from Arbuckle, 2003; Hahn, 2015. TABLE 59-2. Some Clinical Manifestations of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Modified from Kasper, 201r5." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0300_4107", "title": "[Membranous nephropathy in Japanese children].", "score": 0.011784511784511785, "content": "Since 1973, 15 patients, consisting of 8 boys and 7 girls, were diagnosed as having membranous nephropathy (MN). The average age at detection was 8.2 years (2-14 years). The presenting symptom was edema in 1, pyrexia in 1 and upper respiratory infection in 1 case, in the all other cases, abnormal urinalysis was detected by the school or chance urinalysis. Surface antigen of hepatitis B virus (HBs) was positive in 6 patients and negative in 9. Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) was positive in 3 and negative in 11. In one patient, ANA was not tested. One patient who was negative for ANA was diagnosed as having SLE 4 years later. At the last follow-up, 10 patients continued to have urinary abnormalities. Among these was one case positive for HBs antigen who went into end-stage renal failure. In the other 14 patients, the serum creatinine level was below 1.4 mg/dl. All patients showed a normal mesangium or mild mesangial proliferation. The patient diagnosed as having SLE. 4 years later showed mesangial deposits at the first renal biopsy. In our experience, most patients with MN were detected by the school or chance urinalysis and six of the these had positive HBs antigen. Lupus nephritis must be ruled out in making a diagnosis of idiopathic MN." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0318_19701", "title": "Clinical features and evolution of antinuclear antibody positive individuals in a rheumatology outpatient clinic.", "score": 0.011599530947928881, "content": "To identify individuals with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) not fulfilling criteria for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) or other connective tissue diseases (CTD); to describe their clinical and serological features, to identify factors indicating evolution to SLE. A case-control study, based on retrospective evaluation of clinical files. The cases were ANA positive individuals (n = 50) examined in a medical outpatient setting, for symptoms compatible with SLE, but not fulfilling SLE classification criteria. Two patients with SLE were matched to each case in terms of age at initial symptom onset and sex. Thyroid autoimmunity was assessed by detecting antithyroid antibodies. Fisher's exact test and conditional logistic regression were used to evaluate the predictive ability of initial findings for SLE development. ANA positive individuals suspected of having a CTD present a wide variety of symptoms and findings, usually at the 4th to 5th decade of life. Antibodies to Sm and U1RNP were absent; anti-Ro(SSA) and anti-La(SSB) occurred in 6%, while anti-dsDNA occurred in less than 10% of the cases. Arthritis, butterfly and discoid rash, Raynaud's phenomenon, and anti-Ro/SSA antibodies are the initial findings indicating evolution to SLE. Hematological abnormalities such as leukopenia and thrombocytopenia as well as constitutional symptoms such as easy fatigue and arthralgias are not associated with evolution to SLE. Antithyroid antibodies were detected in 16% of the cases and 2.3% of controls. ANA may connote a form of systemic autoimmunity that is expressed as a wide variety of complaints, even in the absence of a definite diagnosis of CTD. Arthritis, rash, Raynaud's phenomenon, and anti-Ro/SSA antibodies indicate evolution to SLE. Autoimmune thyroid disease occurs in ANA positive individuals not fulfilling SLE classification criteria rather than in patients with SLE." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0261_21300", "title": "[Systemic lupus erythematosus and silicosis].", "score": 0.011510654490106544, "content": "A 60-year-old stonemason, suffering for many years from joint pains and exertional dyspnoea, developed a high fever with weight loss. Physical examination revealed reddening of light-exposed skin areas, fine rales and overly warm and reddened hand and knee joints. Abnormal laboratory findings were increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 66 mm/h, C-reactive protein concentration of 1 mg/dl, haemoglobin of 9.4 g/dl and white cell count of 3300/microliters. Urine contained albumin (100 mg/dl) and cylinders. Titres of both antinuclear and anti-ds-DNA antibodies were elevated (1:2560 and &gt; 97 U/ml, respectively). The chest radiography showed enlarged hili, as well as reticular and nodular shadows which histologically showed silicosis. Systemic lupus erythematodes was diagnosed and the patient was treated with prednisone (2 mg/kg daily), the dosage being reduced to 12 mg daily within 3 months. When the joint pains recurred, azathioprine (50 mg daily) was added for 24 months. At present he is receiving prednisone (12 mg daily) and there has been no recurrence for 4 years." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1046_13218", "title": "An Unusual and Rare Case of a Seronegative Male Patient With Lupus Nephritis.", "score": 0.011400545667143044, "content": "Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease that can affect nearly every organ system. The 2019 European League Against Rheumatism and American College of Rheumatology (EULAR/ACR) SLE have proposed an additive, weighted multicriteria system for classifying SLE while using antinuclear antibody (ANA) as an entry criteria. Most patients with SLE will test positive for ANA. We report a 28-year-old half Caucasian and half Asian male patient who initially presented with malar rash, severe bilateral lower extremity edema, and proteinuria. Typical serological tests associated with SLE were negative. The diagnosis of seronegative lupus nephritis was made with kidney biopsy that revealed class IV and V lupus nephritis. Creatinine improved from 2.06 to 0.87 mg/dL with oral mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) and a tapered dose of glucocorticoids. This case highlights the difficulty of diagnosis and treatment of seronegative lupus nephritis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en250_2964", "title": "Lupus", "score": 0.011256200020244965, "content": "ANA screening yields positive results in many connective tissue disorders and other autoimmune diseases, and may occur in normal individuals. Subtypes of antinuclear antibodies include anti-Smith and anti-double stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibodies (which are linked to SLE) and anti-histone antibodies (which are linked to drug-induced lupus). Anti-dsDNA antibodies are highly specific for SLE; they are present in 70% of cases, whereas they appear in only 0.5% of people without SLE. The anti-dsDNA antibody titers also tend to reflect disease activity, although not in all cases. Other ANA that may occur in people with SLE are anti-U1 RNP (which also appears in systemic sclerosis and mixed connective tissue disease), SS-A (or anti-Ro) and SS-B (or anti-La; both of which are more common in Sjögren's syndrome). SS-A and SS-B confer a specific risk for heart conduction block in neonatal lupus." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1704", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011109849345143462, "content": "Fever ˜38.3° C (101° F) and illness lasting ˜3 weeks and no known immunocompromised state History and physical examination Stop antibiotic treatment and glucocorticoids Obligatory investigations: ESR and CRP, hemoglobin, platelet count, leukocyte count and differential, electrolytes, creatinine, total protein, protein electrophoresis, alkaline phosphatase, AST, ALT, LDH, creatine kinase, antinuclear antibodies, rheumatoid factor, urinalysis, blood cultures (n=3), urine culture, chest x-ray, abdominal ultrasonography, and tuberculin skin test" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1673", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011059718367766471, "content": "Fever >38.3°C (101°F) on at least two occasions 2. Illness duration of ≥3 weeks 3. 4. Diagnosis that remains uncertain after a thorough history-taking, physical examination, and the following obligatory investigations: determination of erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) level; platelet count; leukocyte count and differential; measurement of levels of hemoglobin, electrolytes, creatinine, total protein, alkaline phosphatase, alanine aminotransferase, aspartate aminotransferase, lactate dehydrogenase, creatine kinase, ferritin, antinuclear antibodies, and rheumatoid factor; protein electrophoresis; urinalysis; blood cultures (n = 3); urine culture; chest x-ray; abdominal ultrasonography; and tuberculin skin test (TST). The range of FUO etiologies has evolved over time as a result of changes in the spectrum of diseases causing FUO, the widespread Percentage of Cases Due to Indicated Cause" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0283_4604", "title": "[Systemic lupus erythematosus: a clinical and immunological study of 300 patients].", "score": 0.011019367372958534, "content": "The aims of the present study were to analyze the clinical and immunologic characteristics of a wide group of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and define homogeneous subgroups with their own characteristics. A prospective study of 300 patients diagnosed of SLE were studied. These patients were subdivided according to sex, age at the onset of the disease and immunologic profile. The statistical study was carried out by the chi (2), Fisher, Student's t and Mann-Whitney U tests. The series was made up of 266 (89%) females and 34 (11%) males. The mean age at onset of the disease was 31.8 +/- 14.6 years. In 48 (16%) patients the first manifestations appeared after the age of 50. Males were shown to present a lower prevalence of arthritis (59% vs 82% in woman, p &lt; 0.005) and malar rash (29% vs 50%, p &lt; 0.05), but had more cutaneous discoid lesions (18% vs 3% p &lt; 0.001). In patients in whom the disease appeared after the age of 50 a lower prevalence of arthritis was presented (67% vs 82% in patients of less than 50 years of age, p &lt; 0.005), malar rash (23% vs 53%, p &lt; 0.001) and nephropathy (21% vs 41%, p &lt; 0.05), but had greater myositis (17% vs 6%, p &lt; 0.01). The absence of antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and the presence of anti-ds DNA and anti-ENA antibodies were associated with differences in the prevalence of different clinical manifestations. Sex, age and immunologic pattern in systemic lupus erythematosus permit the definition of homogeneous subgroups with their own characteristics: a) males present a lower prevalence of arthritis and malar rash, but a greater prevalence of cutaneous discoid lesions; b) patients over the age of 50 develop arthritis, malar rash and nephropathy with a lower prevalence but have a greater prevalence of myositis; c) patients without antinuclear antibodies and those with anti-ds DNA and anti-ENA antibodies present differences in the prevalences of different clinical manifestations." }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_1970", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.010616438356164383, "content": "Cellular casts (RBC, granular, or tubular) Hemolytic anemia with reticulocytosis or Leukopenia (<4000 on two occasions) or Lymphopenia (<1500 on two occasions) or Thrombocytopenia (<100,000/mm3) Evidence of presence of antiphospholipid antibodies IgG or IgM anticardiolipin antibodies or Lupus anticoagulant or False-positive VDRL for >6 mo Positive ANA in absence of drugs known to induce lupus ANA, Antinuclear antibody; RBC, red blood cell; VDRL, Venereal Disease Research Laboratory. *These are the 1997 revised criteria for diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). A patient must have 4 of the 11 criteria to establish the diagnosis of SLE. These criteria may be present at the same or at different times during the patient’s illness. Additional, less specific diagnostic manifestations are noted in Table 90-2. proteinuria or hematuria to gross hematuria, nephrotic syndrome, and renal failure. Hypertension or the presence of edema suggests lupus renal disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1118_11498", "title": "Autoimmune manifestations of visceral leishmaniasis in Chinese patients.", "score": 0.01042224841924767, "content": "Visceral leishmaniasis (VL) is a rare, parasitic infection with distinctive features that may mimic autoimmune diseases. In this study, we report on the laboratory autoimmune manifestations of VL in Chinese patients. Twenty-seven patients who were hospitalized with VL were included in this retrospective study. Routine blood and biochemical tests were conducted, and a variety of autoimmune antibodies and complement fractions were detected. Continuous variables are expressed as means ± standard deviations, and categorical data are expressed as a number (percentage). Missing data were not included for statistical analysis. Data were analyzed with SPSS v. 13.0 statistical software. All patients had cytopenia (82% with pancytopenia) and hepatosplenomegaly, and 25 (93%) patients also suffered from fever. The prevalence of autoantibodies (number of patients with antibody detected/total number of patients tested for the antibody) for each antibody tested was as follows: antinuclear antibodies (ANA; 18/22, 82%), anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA; 4/5, 80%), anti-mitochondrial M2 antibodies (AMA-M2; 1/6, 17%), anti-liver cytosol specific type 1 antibodies (anti-LC1; 1/6, 17%), anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies (anti-LKM1; 1/6, 17%), anti-centromere protein-B antibodies (anti-CENP-B; 4/21, 19%), anti-Sjögren's syndrome type A antibodies (anti-SSA; 2/21, 10%), anti-Sjögren's syndrome type B antibodies (anti-SSB; 1/21, 5%), anti-Jo-1 antibodies (1/21, 5%), anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies (anti-dsDNA; 1/25, 4%), direct antiglobulin test (direct Coombs; 6/6, 100%), and rheumatoid factor (RF; 3/11, 27%). Increased serum C-reactive protein (CRP) was found in 14 (100%) patients. Of the 19 patients tested for serum IgG, 17 patients (89%) were found with increased IgG levels, while complement 3 protein (C3) and complement 4 protein (C4) levels were not decreased in any of the 19 patients. Of note, in one patient followed up 1 month after therapy, only ANA was still present, and all the other laboratory autoimmune manifestations had disappeared. VL infection associated with laboratory autoimmune manifestations is common. This may lead to patients with VL being misdiagnosed as having an autoimmune disorder. An obligatory differential diagnosis that considers VL should be undertaken for patients diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), especially in endemic areas, is necessary." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0392_16257", "title": "[Clinical and serological characteristics of systemic lupus erythematosus: 128 cases].", "score": 0.01014271151885831, "content": "To analyse the clinical and serological characteristics of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in the center of Tunisia. We studied 128 patients with SLE aged one to 73 years. Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) were detected by an immunofluorescence method. Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies, anti-extractable nuclear antigen antibodies (anti-Sm, anti-SS-A, anti-SS-B and anti-RNP) and anti-cardiolipin (aCL of IgG, IgA and IgM isotypes) antibodies were detected by ELISA. Malar rash (71%) and anemia (71%) were the most common clinical manifestations. Arthritis was seen in 62.5%. Severe kidney damage was observed in 39%. Pericarditis and pleuritis were observed in only 23%. Neurological manifestations (16%) were uncommon. Clinical manifestations of anti-phospholipid syndrome (SAPL) were observed in 15%. ANA were detected in 100%, anti-dsDNA in 76%, anti-Sm in 55.5%, anti-SS-A in 64%, anti-SS-B in 33.6%, anti-RNP in 49%. aCL of IgG, IgA and IgM isotypes were detected in 63.5%, 49% and 40.6% of the patients respectively. The only significant positive clinical associations were those of arthritis with anti-dsDNA antibodies (p = 0.022) and malar rash with anti-SS-A antibodies (p = 0.002). This study suggests that tunisians with SLE present, in general, a mild form of disease predominantly manifested by cutaneous, musculoskeletal and hematologic involvement but low prevalence of major organ damage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0265_17510", "title": "[A case of systemic lupus erythematosus presenting with myelofibrosis as a cause of pancytopenia].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 54 year-old woman who had a 6 month history of polyarthralgias, oral ulcers, weight loss and fatigue was admitted to the Urawa Municipal Hospital. She developed high fever, dyspnea and thrombocytopenia. Chest radiograph revealed massive right pleural effusion. At this time, laboratory investigations gave the following results: hemoglobin 12.7 g/dl, WBC 7700/microliters and platelet count 9.2 x 10(4)/microliters. Antibody to DNA was negative. Antinuclear antibody was positive at a titer of 320x in a centromere pattern; Anti-RNP and anti-Sm antibodies were negative. CH50 was 18.6 u/ml. C3 was 42.9 mg/dl. C4 was 11.5 mg/dl. Circulating immune complex (Clq) was 30.5 micrograms/ml. Circulating lupus anti-coagulant and anticardiolipine antibodies were positive. Thoracocentesis was performed; the material was a straw-colored exudate with over two thousands white cell per ul and showed marked reduction of complement titiers and elevated immune complex levels. She was then diagnosis as having SLE. Two weeks after admission, progressive leukopenia and anemia succeedingly occurred and resulted in severe pancytopenia. Bone marrow biopsy demonstrated marked marrow fibrosis and increased reticulin content with no evidence of malignancy. Steroid pulse therapy for 3 days started, and subsequently she was treated with 60 mg/day of prednisolone. Three weeks after starting on steroids, the massive pleural effusion was completely disappeared and complement titiers were normalized. Circulating immune complex has not been detected any more. After 8 weeks, the peripheral blood count was normalized. The dose of prednisolone was reduced progressively. On this occasion, the biopsy showed normocullular marrow with a marked reduction in the amount of reticulin.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0814_9741", "title": "Nephritis as an initial diagnosis of lupus in Nigerian patients.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is a multi-systemic autoimmune disease. Renal involvement is a common complication, causing considerable mortality and morbidity. SLE is rarely reported among black Africans, though recent reports from Nigeria indicate otherwise. Nephritis, though a common complication of SLE has rarely been reported as the initial diagnosis of lupus among black Africans. The aim of our study is to highlight the clinical, laboratory and histological features in Nigerian patients presenting with features of nephritis and subsequent diagnosis of SLE. This is a three year prospective study of patients with renal diseases, who were admitted to the rheumatology and nephrology units of the Lagos State University Teaching Hospital (LASUTH) Ikeja. Serology, biochemical, haematologic tests, kidney biopsy were done. Twelve patients were studied (F11; M1); mean age 30.4 years (SD ± 9.8); mean illness 8 weeks (SD ± 6.6). Six patients had a nephritic condition. Nine of the patients had baseline hypertension while 3 had a rapidly progressive nephritis. Two patients had baseline End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD). All had dipstick proteinuria 2+/3+, mean protein creatinine ratio 2.2 (SD ± 0.6), mean 24hr protein 2.8 gm (SD ± 2.7); more than 10 red blood cells/hpf haematuria (n-6), hyaline casts (n-5), granular casts (n-2), mean GFR 31.4 ml/ min (SD ± 21.3.), mean serum creatinine 6.9 mg/dl (SD ± 5.3); mean urea 138.8 mg/dl (SD ± 56.2). For the serology, Anti Nuclear Antibody (ANA) was positive in all the 12 subjects; positive anti dsDNA -10 patients; ENA - 10. Renal biopsy showed mostly WHO/ISSN classes III, IV and V. Treatment was with Euro Lupus regimen and rituximab/ cyclophosphamide. Four patients had dialysis. In terms of the outcome, there were 3 deaths while 9 patients were discharged. A high index of suspicion is needed to diagnose Lupus Nephritis in black Africans especially when their presentations do not fulfil the America College of Rheumatology (ACR) diagnostic criteria for SLE." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1836", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "sedimentation rate (ESR) as part of the evaluation for mimics, but unless the value is very high, such nonspecific testing in the absence of other features is unlikely to clarify the situation. Routine screening with an antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is also unlikely to be informative in isolation and is frequently positive at low titers in otherwise healthy adults. Additional unfocused studies, such as whole-body imaging scans, are usually not indicated; in addition to their inconvenience, potential risk, and cost, they often reveal unrelated incidental findings that can prolong the workup unnecessarily." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0620_22701", "title": "Pauci-immune lupus nephritis: a case report.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 26-year-old female with systemic lupus erythematosus was admitted because of dyspnea and progressive lower extremity edema. Laboratory testing showed blood urea nitrogen levels of 147 mg/dL, creatinine of 6.7 mg/dL, serum albumin of 1.7 g/dL and the daily protein loss was 12.7 g. Her C3 level was 60.4mg/dL and C4 level was 10.2 mg/dL. The antinuclear antibody titer was 1:320, with a homogeneous pattern, but she was negative for anti-dsDNA. ELISA testing for anti-PR3 antibodies and anti-MPO antibodies were all negative. She was also negative for circulating lupus anticoagulant. Renal biopsy revealed diffuse proliferation of glomerular cells, but immunofluorescent microscopy showed no immune deposits and electron microscopy revealed only scanty electron-dense deposits. She received 1 g/day of methylprednisolone intravenously for 3 days, followed by 60 mg/day of prednisolone. She was discharged with serum creatinine decreased to 4.7 mg/dL, and a great improvement in dyspnea. Diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis that contains little or no subendothelial deposits is rare. The differential diagnosis, possible mechanisms and treatment are discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0052_20671", "title": "Diagnostic and prognostic significance of different antinuclear antibodies in more than 1000 consecutive Albanian patients with rheumatic diseases.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "In an unselected population of 1390 consecutive Albanian patients with rheumatic diseases (RD) and other miscellaneous non-rheumatic diseases (MNRD), for whom antinuclear antibody (ANA) testing was requested, we calculated the diagnostic sensitivity, specificity and positive predictive value (PPV) of ANA positive results, ANA titres over 1:100, anti-native DNA (nDNA), anti-Sm, anti-U1 RNP, anti-SSA (Ro) anti-SSB (La) and anti-non-identified extractable nuclear antigen (NIENA) antibodies. The PPVs of these ANA types were found to be appreciable only for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE); only the positive predictive value of ANA for SLE (26.4%) was lower than that for RA (34.3%). The anti-snRNP (Sm/U1RNP) positive SLE patients were more likely to have over 4 of the ARA criteria for SLE, ANA titres over 1:100, and anti-nDNA antibodies, in contrast with the anti-snRNP negative subgroup. On the other hand, the anti-ENA positive and anti-nDNA positive SLE patients generally showed higher frequencies of renal disease, over 4 of the criteria for SLE and ANA titres over 1:100, compared to anti-ENA positive and anti-nDNA negative patients. Our data suggest that the association of anti-snRNP antibodies with a more severe form of SLE is not to be attributed to these antibodies themselves, but rather to their close association with the concomitant presence of anti-nDNA antibodies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0693_2003", "title": "The initial manifestations and final diagnosis of patients with high and low titers of antinuclear antibodies after 6 months of follow-up.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is the most commonly used test to screen for autoimmune diseases. However, only a limited numbers of studies have addressed the characteristics of patients positive for ANA. In this study, we aimed to clarify the relationship between initial presentations, ANA titer, and final diagnoses. Patients who visited National Taiwan University Hospital and received a first ANA test were enrolled and then followed for a further 6 months. The symptoms and signs at the time of ANA testing, ANA titers, and the final diagnoses were recorded and analyzed. A total of 355 patients were positive for ANA. Joint pain was the most common initial presentation at the time of ANA testing. Compared with the patients with low ANA titers (&lt;1:640), those with high ANA titers (≥ 1:640) were more susceptible to autoimmune diseases. More importantly, of the patients with initial presentations of joint pain, fever, abnormal urinalysis, or skin rash/skin tightness, autoimmune diseases were more frequently diagnosed in those with high ANA titers than with low ANA titers (p&lt;0.05). In addition, both anti-double strand DNA antibodies and anti-extractable nuclear antibodies were more commonly detected in patients with high ANA titers. A high ANA titer seems to be a useful biomarker for the diagnosis of autoimmune diseases, especially for patients presenting with joint pain, fever, abnormal urinalysis, or skin rash/skin tightness." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en250_2970", "title": "Lupus", "score": 0.009479475243334744, "content": "Other than the ACR criteria, people with lupus may also have: fever (over 100 °F/ 37.7 °C) extreme fatigue hair loss fingers turning white or blue when cold (Raynaud's phenomenon) Criteria for individual diagnosis Some people, especially those with antiphospholipid syndrome, may have SLE without four of the above criteria, and also SLE may present with features other than those listed in the criteria. Recursive partitioning has been used to identify more parsimonious criteria. This analysis presented two diagnostic classification trees: Simplest classification tree: SLE is diagnosed if a person has an immunologic disorder (anti-DNA antibody, anti-Smith antibody, false positive syphilis test, or LE cells) or malar rash. It has sensitivity = 92% and specificity = 92%. Full classification tree: Uses 6 criteria. It has sensitivity = 97% and specificity = 95%. Other alternative criteria have been suggested, e.g. the St. Thomas' Hospital \"alternative\" criteria in 1998." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0736_22873", "title": "A case of juvenile Sjögren's syndrome with interstitial nephritis.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS) is a rare autoimmune disease, especially in children. Juvenile primary SS with interstitial nephritis is rare in Japan. We report on a 12-year-old girl in whom salivary gland swelling had recurred from the age of 5 years, SS was diagnosed at the age of 10 years, and interstitial nephritis developed at the age of 12 years. The patient presented with a chief complaint of swelling of both parotid glands. The patient had a history of recurrent parotitis from 5 years of age, with episodes recurring 5 to 6 times a year and resolving within 3 days each time. However, at the age of 11 years, the patient had continuous mild swelling of the parotid glands. Examination on admission showed bilateral nontender parotid gland swelling; mild swelling of the lower extremities, xerostomia, and xerophthalmia but no exanthem. Laboratory findings were as follows: serum protein, 10.1 g/dL; immunoglobulin (Ig) G, 3,828 mg/dL; antinuclear antibodies, 1,280-fold; anti-Ro/SS-A antibody, 512-fold; anti-Ro/SS-B antibody, 4-fold; creatinine, 0.45 mg/dL; blood β2-microglobulin, 2.2 mg/L (slightly elevated); and cystatin C, 0.86 mg/L. Urinalysis showed proteinuria and a β2-microglobulin concentration of 11,265 mg/L. Thus, this patient had low molecular weight proteinuria. Schirmer's test showed decreased tear secretion (5 mm), and fluorescein staining showed marked bilateral superficial punctate keratitis. A lip biopsy showed infiltration by small round cells (mild to moderate), interstitial fibrosis, loss of salivary gland parenchyma, and atrophy, with no obvious epimyoepithelial islands, leading to a diagnosis of SS. Light microscopic examination of the renal biopsy specimens showed expansion of mononuclear cell infiltration in the renal interstitium, inflammatory cell infiltration of interstitial areas with edema and mild fibrosis, and tubulitis and mononuclear cell infiltration that included many lymphocytes and plasma cells. There were no pathological findings of glomerulonephritis. Small arteries showed no obvious abnormalities. Immunofluorescent staining showed slight, nonspecific deposition of IgM, but no deposition of IgG, complement 1q, 3, or 4. On the basis of the renal biopsy showing nonspecific chronic interstitial nephritis, renal tubular atrophy, and interstitial enlargement, tubulointerstitial nephritis associated with SS was diagnosed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1166_3749", "title": "Autoantibodies in lupus nephritis useful in distinguishing proliferative nephritis from membranous nephritis.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "This study was conducted to determine autoantibodies associated with lupus nephritis, especially those useful in diagnosing proliferative and membranous nephritis. 106 patients with lupus nephritis and 63 patients with SLE but no nephritis were enrolled. 55 patients were selected from the lupus nephritis group and were divided into two groups: proliferative nephritis patients (n=36) and membranous nephritis patients (n=19). The autoantibody profiles of patients' sera were evaluated using the EUROLINE ANA profile 3 (IgG) kit. A higher positivity rate of anti-dsDNA antibody and anti-histone antibody were seen in lupus nephritis patients compared to non-renal SLE patients. In comparing between proliferative and membranous nephritis, positivity of anti-nucleosome antibody was higher in proliferative nephritis compared to membranous nephritis, although it was not statistically significant. However, anti-nucleosome antibody-positive patients with lupus nephritis had higher prevalence of hematuria and pyuria, which are strong indications of proliferative nephritis. Also, a significantly higher positivity rate of anti-RNP70 antibody was seen in membranous nephritis compared to proliferative nephritis. Our results showed anti-nucleosome antibody and anti-RNP70 antibodies may be predictive non-histological factors for discriminating between proliferative and membranous lupus nephritis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0844_9194", "title": "When Coke Is Not Hydrating: Cocaine-Induced Acute Interstitial Nephritis.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A 47-year-old African American man was admitted with 4 days of back pain, nausea and vomiting, and low urine output. There was no history of fever, dysuria, frequency, hesitancy, viral symptoms, trauma, rash, or constipation. Despite his past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia he denied taking any medications for 18 months, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, acetaminophen, or antacids. He denied smoking and alcohol but admitted to cocaine use. No significant FH. Physical examination results were as follows: BP 235/125 mm Hg, heart rate 90 beats/min, temperature 98°F, O2 saturation normal; lungs and heart normal, abdomen soft but bilateral costovertebral angle tenderness. Neurological examination was normal. Laboratory tests yielded the following results: creatinine (Cr) 10.5 mg/dL (1.2 mg/dL in 2010), blood urea nitrogen 63 mg/dL, glucose 151 mg/dL, Ca 9.4 mg/dL, PO4 6.1 mg/dL, Hgb 15 g/dL, white blood cells (WBC) 9100, platelets 167 000, amylase/lipase normal, aspartate aminotransferase/alanine aminotransferase (AST/ALT) normal, bilirubin 1.4 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 39 IU/L, creatine phosphokinase 127 µg/L. Hepatic panel, C- and P-ANCA (cytoplasmic- and perinuclear-antineutrophil cytoplasm antibodies, respectively), anti-GBM (anti-glomerular basement membrane), antimyeloperoxidase, antinuclear antibody, and Helicobacter pylori were all negative. C3, C4 normal, urinalysis: 2+ blood, no white blood cells or eosinophils, no casts, no albumin, negative for nitrate/leukocyte esterase and bacteria. Imaging: chest radiograph, abdominal radiograph, computed tomography of the abdomen, electrocardiography, and transthoracic echocardiography were all normal. Course. The patient's urine output declined from 700 to 400 cm(3)/d and the on third day he required hemodialysis with Cr 14 mg/dL. Renal biopsy showed typical findings of interstitial nephritis. The patient was dialyzed for 10 days and responded to steroids and went home with an improving Cr of 3.5 mg/dL, back to baseline of 1.5 in 8 weeks. Discussion. Internists encounter patients with acute kidney injury (AKI) on a daily basis, most of which can be explained by prerenal azotemia, acute tubular necrosis (ATN), obstruction, or rhabdomyolysis among other etiologies. Cocaine is only rarely implicated as an etiology of AKI and if it is, usually the injury is due to ATN or pigment effects. Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) caused by cocaine, on the other hand, has only been described in a handful of cases. AIN is a renal lesion that causes a decline in creatinine clearance and is characterized by an inflammatory infiltrate in the kidney interstitium and is most often associated with drug therapy. AIN can also be seen in autoimmune disorders like systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjögren's syndrome, or sarcoidosis; or with infections remote to the kidney like Legionella, leptospirosis, and streptococcal disease. Our case was very similar to the other reported cases of AIN due to cocaine in that all have occurred in middle-aged African American males and all have responded to steroids. This case reminds clinicians to consider AIN in patients with AKI and a history of cocaine abuse. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0962_7228", "title": "New-onset lupus nephritis after male-to-female sex reassignment surgery.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "We report an original case of a 27-year-old transgender woman who developed lupus nephritis after male-to-female sex reassignment surgery. The patient had been taking hormones to induce feminization since the age of 18. She was admitted with malar \"butterfly\" rash, anasarca and hypertension, associated with an increase in serum creatinine (1.7 mg/dl). Renal involvement was characterized by nephritic and nephrotic syndrome. Autoantibody tests were positive for antinuclear antibodies and anti-double-stranded DNA, and complement levels were markedly reduced. Renal biopsy demonstrated diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis and granular immune complexes deposits with a \"full-house\" pattern at the immunofluorescence level. The induction treatment was realized with corticosteroid and cyclophosphamide and maintenance immunosuppression phase with mycophenolate, obtaining complete remission. We speculated that lupus nephritis was induced by estrogens and antiandrogen therapy and gonadectomy. In the present case, we discuss the role of sex hormones in systemic lupus erythematosus onset and review the cases linked to transgender patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0621_22618", "title": "[Curative effect of integrative medical therapy for systematic lupus erythematosus].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To observe the curative effect of integrative medicine for treatment of systematic lupu erythematosus (SLE). Totally 110 cases of SLE were randomized into two groups, 50 in the control group and 60 in the treated group, both were treated with prednisone, but to the treated group, integrative medica treatment was given additionally according to syndrome differentiation. The course for both groups was 6 months. Clinical symptoms, immunological indexes, peripheral blood figure, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), levels of C-reactive protein (CRP) and creatinine (Cr) in blood, and 24 h urinary total protein (u-TP/24 h) were observed before and after treatment. Of the 60 patients in the treated group, the treatment on 29 was evaluated as clinical remission, 18 as remarkably effective, 9 as effective, and 4 as ineffective, the total effective rate being 93.33% (56/60), while that in the control group was clinical remission in 11, remarkably effective in 10, effective in 19, ineffective in 10 respectively, and the total effective rate 80% (40/50), the difference on total ef fective rate between the two groups was significant (chi2 = 4.36, P &lt;0.05). Besides, the improvement in the treated group was superior to that in the control group in terms of clinical symptoms such as fever, arthralgia and baldness (P &lt;0.05, P &lt;0.01); the negative reversion rate of anti-nuclear antibody (ANA, 51.3% vs 28.1%), antidouble-stranded DNA (ds-DNA, 53.6% vs 26.1%), anti- ribonucleoprotein (RNP, 63.2% vs 29.4%) and circulating immnue complexes (CIC, 63.2% vs 29.4%, all P &lt;0.05); lowering of immunoglobulin (for IgG, P &lt; 0.05; IgA, P &lt;0.01; IgM, P &lt;0.01); as well as bettering in peripheral blood figure, ESR, CRP, Cr and u-TP/24 h (P &lt;0.05 or P &lt;0.01). Integrative medical treatment is obviously effective for SLE patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_34634", "title": "Polyarteritis nodosa", "score": 0.00920225624496374, "content": "A patient is said to have polyarteritis nodosa if he or she has three of the 10 signs known as the 1990 American College of Rheumatology (ACR) criteria, when a radiographic or pathological diagnosis of vasculitis is made: Weight loss greater than/equal to 4.5 kg Livedo reticularis (a mottled purplish skin discoloration over the extremities or torso) Testicular pain or tenderness (occasionally, a site biopsied for diagnosis) Muscle pain, weakness, or leg tenderness Nerve disease (either single or multiple) Diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg (high blood pressure) Elevated kidney blood tests (BUN greater than 40 mg/dL or creatinine greater than 1.5 mg/dL) Hepatitis B (not C) virus tests positive (for surface antigen or antibody) Arteriogram (angiogram) showing the arteries that are dilated (aneurysms) or constricted by the blood vessel inflammation" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 81 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 13 ] ], "text": "Clearly the answer is 4, with a very characteristic clinic of temporary seizures." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Generalized non-convulsive seizure or typical absence.", "2": "Continuous partial epilepsy.", "3": "Amyotonic crisis.", "4": "Complex partial temporal lobe seizure.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0334_12575", "title": "[Ictal semiology of temporal partial complex seizures: usefulness for localizing and lateralizing the origin of the attacks].", "score": 0.018812930577636458, "content": "To review signs and symptoms associated with temporal complex partial seizures (CPS) and their utility in the localization and lateralization of seizure onset. CPS are particularly resistant to the standard antiepileptic drugs. Since surgical treatment is a therapeutical alternative in patients with intractable seizures, localization and lateralization of seizure origin are the principal aims in the preoperative assessment. Video-EEG monitorization has made possible characterization of ictal behaviour and correlation with cerebral regions generating the epileptic discharge. Therefore, ictal semiology has increased its importance in the localization and lateralization of seizures. The utility of auras, automatisms, motor manifestations, speech disturbances and autonomic features have been reviewed in relation to this approach. Viscerosensorial and experiential auras have been associated with temporal lobe epilepsy. The automatisms are not exclusive of temporal seizures and may be observed in frontal epilepsy and parietal and occipital seizures with spreading to temporal structures. There is not agreement in relation to head turning and version, therefore, this clinical sign should be used in correlation to other clinical manifestations. Distonic posturing, comprehensible ictal speech and postictal dysphasia appear to be the most reliable clinical signs in the lateralisation of temporal lobe seizures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0757_18718", "title": "Semiology of temporal lobe epilepsies.", "score": 0.015247915752523036, "content": "Temporal lobe epilepsies (TLE) represent the majority of the partial symptomatic/cryptogenic epilepsies. Excellent results of epilepsy surgery in well-selected patients have encouraged a search for localizing and lateralizing signs that could assist in the identification of the best surgical candidates. Seizure types in TLE include simple partial, complex partial and secondarily generalized seizures. Temporal lobe seizures most often arise in the amygdalo-hippocampal region. More than 90% of patients with mesial TLE report an aura, most commonly an epigastric sensation that often has a rising character. Other autonomic symptoms, psychic symptoms, and certain sensory phenomena (such as olfactory) also occur. The complex partial seizures of mesial TLE often involve motor arrest, oroalimentary automatisms or non-specific extremity automatisms at onset. Ictal manifestations that have lateralizing value include dystonic posturing (contralateral), early head turning (usually ipsilateral), and adversive head turning in transition to generalization (contralateral). Well-formed ictal language favors right temporal localization. Ictal vomiting, spitting, and drinking tend to be right sided. The duration of TLE complex partial seizures is generally greater than one minute and postictal confusion usually occurs. When postictal aphasia is noted a left-sided lateralization is favored. A lateral temporal onset is less common in TLE, and is most often suggested by an auditory aura. Somatosensory and visual auras are highly unlikely with TLE, and suggest neocortical extratemporal localization. A cephalic aura is non-specific, but is more common in frontal lobe epilepsy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0257_1838", "title": "Psychomotor seizures of temporal lobe onset: analysis of symptom clusters and sequences.", "score": 0.015048671402262563, "content": "We analyzed 91 psychomotor seizures from 31 patients seizure free at least one year after temporal lobectomy (implying temporal lobe onset). Fifty symptoms were looked for in every seizure and their time of onset and ending noted. Statistical analysis was used to define symptom clusters and the order of appearance of symptoms. Of the eighteen most common symptoms examined, all of these symptoms form a tight cluster showing a high degree of correlation. Within this cluster, there was a tendency towards the following subclusters: (a) epigastric aura, ictal vomiting, alimentary and hand automatisms; (b) behavioral arrest, complete loss of consciousness, staring and bilateral facial contraction; (c) unilateral dystonic posturing of an arm, mimetic automatisms, complex gestures, ictal speech and partial loss of consciousness; (d) looking around, agitation, vocalizations and whole body movements. We also found a strong correlation between epigastric sensation and ictal vomiting in psychomotor seizures arising from the right but not the left temporal lobe. The commonest sequence of symptoms was: behavioral arrest followed by alimentary and hand automatisms, looking around and whole body movements, in that order." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0519_17055", "title": "Temporal lobe epilepsy: clinical semiology and age at onset.", "score": 0.014997032961104818, "content": "The objective of this study was to define the clinical semiology of seizures in temporal lobe epilepsy according to the age at onset. We analyzed 180 seizures from 50 patients with medial or neocortical temporal lobe epilepsy who underwent epilepsy surgery between 1997-2002, and achieved an Engel class I or II outcome. We classified the patients into two groups according to the age at the first seizure: at or before 17 years of age and 18 years of age or older. All patients underwent intensive video-EEG monitoring. We reviewed at least three seizures from each patient and analyzed the following clinical data: presence of aura, duration of aura, ictal and post-ictal period, clinical semiology of aura, ictal and post-ictal period. We also analyzed the following data from the clinical history prior to surgery: presence of isolated auras, frequency of secondary generalized seizures, and frequency of complex partial seizures. Non-parametric, chi-square tests and odds ratios were used for the statistical analysis. There were 41 patients in the \"early onset\" group and 9 patients in the \"later onset\" group. A relationship was found between early onset and mesial temporal lobe epilepsy and between later onset and neocortical temporal lobe epilepsy (p = 0.04). The later onset group presented a higher incidence of blinking during seizures (p = 0.03), a longer duration of the post-ictal period (p = 0.07) and a lower number of presurgical complex partial seizures (p = 0.03). The other parameters analyzed showed no significant differences between the two groups. We conclude that clinical and semiological differences exist between patients with temporal lobe epilepsy according to the age at onset. [Published with video sequences]." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en070_23759", "title": "Focal seizure", "score": 0.014978761457634698, "content": "Complex partial seizures A complex partial seizure is a seizure that is associated with unilateral cerebral hemisphere involvement and causes impairment of awareness or responsiveness, i.e. alteration of consciousness. Presentation Complex partial seizures are often preceded by an aura. The seizure aura is a focal aware seizure. The aura may manifest itself as a feeling of déjà vu, jamais vu, fear, euphoria or depersonalization. The aura might also occur as a visual disturbance, such as tunnel vision or a change in the perceived size of objects. Once consciousness is impaired, the person may display automatisms, such as lip smacking, chewing or swallowing. There may also be loss of memory (amnesia) surrounding the seizural event. The person may still be able to perform routine tasks such as walking, although such movements are not purposeful or planned. Witnesses may not recognize that anything is wrong. The person may or may not even realize that they experienced a seizure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0301_14541", "title": "Clinical characteristics of complex partial seizures: a temporal versus a frontal lobe onset.", "score": 0.014761956640156879, "content": "The site of origin of complex partial seizures (CPS) is predominantly in the temporal lobe, but frontal, parietal, and occipital lobes may also be involved. In order to correlate clinical behaviours with either a temporal or frontal site of origin, we analysed 211 seizures occurring during invasive monitoring in 26 patients with temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) and in eight patients with frontal lobe epilepsy (FLE). Although leg movements, defined as thrashing, pedalling and kicking, hand posturing, facial twitching, sitting up, and tonic-clonic movements occurred more frequently in FLE, and hand automatisms were more frequent in TLE, no statistically significant difference was found between the two groups. When analysing only electrographic seizures that did not spread or propagated only to homologous controlateral lobes, leg movements and hand posturing were seen only with FLE, and oral automatisms only in TLE. Seizures of temporal lobe origin were longer in duration and had a higher frequency of auras. We therefore conclude that the reliability of clinical behaviour alone to predict the site of origin of an epileptic discharge is limited when the surface EEG is equivocal or the neuroradiologic evidence of a focus is not clear." }, { "id": "article-25023_12", "title": "Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy -- History and Physical -- Seizure Semiology", "score": 0.014120399381710322, "content": "When there is preserved awareness, the patient can describe the occurrence of unusual sensations known as auras. Auras could be visceral, autonomic, gustatory, or affective symptoms. Patients commonly experience a rising epigastric sensation, nausea, and olfactory and/or gustatory hallucination. Psychic sensations can occur, such as depersonalization (out-of-body feeling), déjà vu (a feeling of familiarity), jamais vu (feeling of unfamiliarity), déjà entendu (hearing familiar sounds), or panoramic visions (a rapid recollection of episodes from the past). Dysphoric or euphoric feelings, fear, terror, anger, and other sensations can also occur. Often, the patients find the aura hard to describe. Autonomic features include piloerection, pallor/flushing, tachycardia, or pupillary dilatation. [24] With the loss of awareness, patients have a behavioral arrest and portray a blank staring facial appearance, which is followed by the development of oro/facial/alimentary automatisms such as lip-smacking, chewing, sucking, or swallowing, which is usually accompanied by ipsilateral gestural automatisms such as repetitive hand movements, picking and/or fidgeting behavior, disrobing and contralateral dystonic posturing of limbs. The presence of speech suggests non-dominant hemispheric seizure onset, but its absence is not a reliable lateralizing finding. Patients commonly have a period of postictal confusion following the episode. Less commonly, episodes may progress to generalized tonic-clonic seizures." }, { "id": "article-20913_39", "title": "EEG Localization Related Epilepsies -- Clinical Significance -- Temporal Lobe Epilepsy (TLE)", "score": 0.01383009932525879, "content": "Seizure semiology: Auras: Visceral sensations and fear are associated with mesial temporal lobe epilepsy, while auditory and vertiginous auras have been associated with the neocortical temporal lobe epilepsy. Neocortical temporal lobe epilepsy: At seizure onset, patients with neocortical TLE are more likely to describe any type of hallucination or illusion. Automatisms and dystonic posturing are not found in neocortical TLE. [32] [35] Mesial temporal epilepsy: Patients present with a behavioral arrest that is observed as a blank facial expression along with loss of awareness. This change is followed by oral, facial, or alimentary automatisms such as lip-smacking, chewing, sucking, or swallowing or is accompanied by ipsilateral automatisms such as repetitive hand movements, picking, or fidgeting behavior, and contralateral abnormal posturing of limbs. Patients commonly have a period of postictal confusion. Rarely, this progresses to secondary generalization. [36]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en074_28352", "title": "Temporal lobe epilepsy", "score": 0.012968540829986613, "content": "These may be: Sensations such as déjà vu (a feeling of familiarity), jamais vu (a feeling of unfamiliarity) Amnesia of a single memory or set of memories A sudden sense of unprovoked fear and anxiety Nausea Auditory, visual, olfactory, gustatory, or tactile hallucinations; olfactory hallucinations often seem indescribable to patients beyond \"pleasant\" or \"unpleasant\" Visual distortions such as macropsia and micropsia Dissociation or derealisation Synesthesia (stimulation of one sense experienced in a second sense) Dysphoric or euphoric feelings, fear, anger, and other emotions Focal aware seizures are often called \"auras\" when they serve as a warning sign of a subsequent seizure. Regardless, an aura is actually a seizure itself, and such a focal seizure may or may not progress to a focal impaired awareness seizure. People who experience only focal aware seizures may not recognize what they are, nor seek medical care." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en162_9674", "title": "Complex partial status epilepticus", "score": 0.012863311996569782, "content": "Complex partial status epilepticus (CPSE) is one of the non-convulsive forms of status epilepticus, a rare form of epilepsy defined by its recurrent nature. CPSE is characterized by seizures involving long-lasting stupor, staring and unresponsiveness. Sometimes this is accompanied by motor automatisms, such as eye twitching. Diagnosis As is the case with other non-convulsive status epilepticus forms, CPSE is dangerously underdiagnosed. This is due to the potentially fatal yet veiled nature of the symptoms. Usually, an electroencephalogram, or EEG, is needed to confirm a neurologist's suspicions. The EEG is also needed to differentiate between absence status epilepticus (which affects the entire brain), and CPSE, which only affects one region. Treatment Treatment is in the form of anti-epileptic drugs, such as barbiturates, benzodiazepines and topiramate. References External links Medical emergencies Epilepsy" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0830_13136", "title": "Complete seizure freedom is possible in patients with MTLE-HS after surgery in spite of extratemporal electro-clinical features.", "score": 0.012755102040816327, "content": "The aim was to identify the common typical and atypical ictal semiologic and EEG features of patients with mesial temporal lobe epilepsy and hippocampal sclerosis who became seizure-free postoperatively. The semiologic and EEG findings of 126 ictal video-EEG recordings of 50 patients who remained seizure-free for at least 2 years (mean=9.46±3.20; range=3-14.5 years) after surgery were reviewed. Statistical analysis was used to determine the frequencies of the most common auras, semiologic features and EEG patterns and to define the symptom clusters. Aura was reported in 82% (n:41) of patients and the most common type was epigastric sensation. Early symptoms were contralateral upper extremity dystonic posturing (66%), oro-alimentary automatisms (50%) and ipsilateral hand automatisms (40%). Ictal EEG findings revealed localized and lateralized activity in 62% of patients. Of the 17 most common early symptoms, there was a tendency toward two clusters. Cluster 2 consisted of findings that were typical for patients with mesial temporal lobe epilepsy whereas Cluster 1 mostly consisted of atypical findings. This study demonstrated two clusters of the semiologic repertoire, and the most frequent EEG finding was lateralized and localized ictal activity, while other types of EEG patterns were also recorded. Although the presence of atypical findings may suggest a more extended or even extratemporal zone, the seizure-free outcome demonstrated that if the critical amount of tissue can be resected within the epileptogenic network, this may be sufficient for termination of seizures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0390_14936", "title": "[A case with frontal lobe epilepsy presenting with absence seizures as cardinal manifestation: ictal EEG findings].", "score": 0.01232078853046595, "content": "We report here a 9-year-old boy presenting with absence and complex partial seizures. Absence seizures occurred several times a day, with sudden arrest of speech and gesture, alteration of consciousness, myoclonus of unilateral or bilateral angles of the mouth, occasional simple automatism and brisk recovery of consciousness. Complex partial seizures occurred once to three times a month with loss of consciousness, salivation, deviation of the head and eyes toward the left, elevation of upper limbs and tonic convulsion of the left upper and lower limbs. Interictal EEG showed right frontal pole-dominant high-voltage slow waves or spike-and-waves. Ictal simultaneous video-EEG recordings of absence seizures revealed a frontal dominant 3-3.5 Hz spike-wave burst lasting several seconds. A partial seizure never preceded the absence seizure. Transverse topographical analysis revealed that the first spike component of the spike-wave burst of absence seizure always showed phase reversal on the right anterior temporal electrode. The following ones, however, showed phase reversal on the left anterior temporal electrode. Ictal EEG of the complex partial seizure could not be detected because it rarely occurred. There was no abnormal finding on brain MRI. Interictal single photon emission tomography (SPECT) indicated hypoperfusion of the dorsal and medial cortex of the right middle frontal lobe. Interictal positron emission tomography (PET) also indicated hypometabolic areas in the dorsal and medial cortex of the right frontal lobe, together with those in the right temporal and parietal cortex. EEG evolution and neuroimaging studies suggested that the epileptic focus of the absence seizure might have originated at the dorsal cortex of the right middle frontal lobe and immediately spread to the medial cortex. Both the seizures were well controlled by the combination of phenytoin and high dose sodium valproate." }, { "id": "article-19792_4", "title": "Focal Impaired Awareness Seizure -- Introduction -- Seizures of Temporal Lobe Origin", "score": 0.011987363908162688, "content": "These are the most common type of focal impaired awareness seizures. Stereotyped automatisms occur in about 40% to 80% of patients with temporal lobe epilepsies. Seizures with predominantly oral and manual automatism and some other motor manifestations are highly suggestive of temporal lobe origin. About 60% of temporal lobe seizures have a secondary generalization. Gradual recovery after several minutes of confusion occurs postictally in most patients; however, in some patients, automatic behavior like running or walking about, the non-directed violent behavior may occur. Temporal lobe focal impaired seizures can have features similar to frontal seizures, but temporal lobe focal impaired seizures typically have slower onset and progression and more pronounced confusion. Certain features can help in localizing the seizure onset to one hemisphere. Ictal vomiting, ictal speech, urinary urge, and automatisms with intact consciousness suggest seizure onset in the non-dominant hemisphere, and speech disturbance postictally is suggestive of seizure onset in the dominant hemisphere. Upper limb dystonia lateralizes seizure to the opposite hemisphere." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en111_39130", "title": "Seizure types", "score": 0.011871693121693122, "content": "Focal seizures (Older term: partial seizures) Simple partial seizures – consciousness is not impaired With motor signs With sensory symptoms With autonomic symptoms or signs With psychic symptoms Complex partial seizures – consciousness is impaired (*Note: impaired does not necessarily mean [fully] lost) (Older terms: temporal lobe or psychomotor seizures) Simple partial onset, followed by impairment of consciousness With impairment of consciousness at onset Partial seizures evolving to secondarily generalized seizures Simple partial seizures evolving to generalized seizures Complex partial seizures evolving to generalized seizures Simple partial seizures evolving to complex partial seizures evolving to generalized seizures Generalized seizures Absence seizures (Older term: petit mal, meaning 'small, or smaller, bad') Myoclonic seizures Clonic seizures Generalized tonic–clonic seizures (Older term: grand mal, meaning 'great, or greater, bad') Atonic seizures" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0124_3903", "title": "Clinical and EEG features of complex partial seizures of extratemporal origin.", "score": 0.011598977945131792, "content": "Complex partial seizures (CPSs) of extratemporal origin are frequently misdiagnosed. Common reasons for diagnostic errors are failure to recognize the epileptic cause of the attacks or to appreciate localizing clinical seizure characteristics and nonspecific or misleading scalp EEG findings. This report describes clinical characteristics of two types of extratemporal CPSs, frontal and occipital. Frontal lobe CPSs are brief, frequent attacks that begin and end suddenly. They are dominated by complex, semi-purposeful motor automatisms, and vocalization and sexual automatisms are common. Their often bizarre appearance frequently leads to a misdiagnosis of hysteria. Occipital lobe CPSs are characterized primarily by their spread pattern, which can follow various paths. They may mimic temporal lobe CPSs, sensorimotor partial seizures, or supplementary motor partial seizures. Scalp EEGs are frequently misleading. The initial clinical symptoms are the most important clue to correct diagnosis and include elemental visual symptoms, visual loss, eye pulling or movement sensations in the absence of detectable movement, rapid forced blinking or eye flutter, and contralateral eye deviation." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_2482", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.01144554841223456, "content": "The motor components of a focal temporal lobe or limbic seizure, if they occur, arise during the later phase of the seizure and take the form of automatisms such as lip-smacking, chewing or swallowing movements, salivation, fumbling of the hands, or shuffling of the feet. Patients may walk around in a daze or act inappropriately. Complex acts that were initiated before the loss of consciousness—such as walking, chewing food, turning the pages of a book, or even driving—may continue. However, when asked a specific question or given a command, the patients are obviously out of contact with their surroundings. There may be no response at all, or the patient may look toward the examiner in a perplexed way or utter a few stereotyped phrases. The patient may walk repetitively in small circles (volvular epilepsy), run (epilepsia procursiva), or simply wander aimlessly, either as an ictal or postictal phenomenon (poriomania). These forms of seizure, according to some epileptologists, are" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en074_28355", "title": "Temporal lobe epilepsy", "score": 0.011181535517818704, "content": "These seizures tend to have a warning or aura before they occur, and when they occur they generally tend to last only 1–2 minutes. It is not uncommon for an individual to be tired or confused for up to 15 minutes after a seizure has occurred, although postictal confusion can last for hours or even days. Though they may not seem harmful, due to the fact that the individual does not normally seize, they can be extremely harmful if the individual is left alone around dangerous objects. For example, if a person with complex partial seizures is driving alone, this can cause them to run into the ditch, or worse, cause an accident involving multiple people. With this type, some people do not even realize they are having a seizure and most of the time their memory from right before or after the seizure is wiped. First-aid is only required if there has been an injury or if this is the first time a person has had a seizure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0383_20514", "title": "[Ictal semiology in patients with medial temporal lobe epilepsy: value in lateralizing the seizure focus].", "score": 0.011113802919265944, "content": "We have evaluated useful lateralizing signs in 28 patients with medial temporal lobe epilepsy who were seizure-free after anterior temporal lobectomy by reviewing videotapes during video-EEG monitoring. The most frequent types of aura were epigastric sensation and psychic symptom in 8, respectively, both of which did not predict lateralization of the focus. Of the motor signs, early head deviation and unilateral upper extremity automatism predicted an ipsilateral focus in 72 and 80%, respectively. On the other hand, late head deviation(&lt; 15 seconds before secondarily generalized seizure) and unilateral upper extremity dystonic posturing predicted a contralateral focus in 80 and 100%, respectively. Twelve of the patients displayed oroalimentary automatism which did not predict focus lateralization. Three patients with ictal speech demonstrated a seizure focus contralateral to their language-dominant hemisphere. In medial temporal lobe epilepsy, several clinical seizure manifestations such as: early and late head deviation, unilateral upper extremity automatism and dystonic posturing were not a little noted and provided additional information as to the side of seizure origin." }, { "id": "article-25023_29", "title": "Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.010996255471757818, "content": "The seizures in patients with MTLE share semiological characteristics with other types of epilepsies, such as absence seizures, insular seizures, and occipital lobe seizures. Patients with absence seizures also manifest with a blank stare and may have subtle automatisms which can mimic seizures of MTLE. [53] Patients with seizures arising from the insula can sometimes present in a very similar manner to TLE in terms of epigastric aura and oro-alimentary automatisms. [54] Some patients with occipital lobe epilepsy have seizures that rapidly spread anteriorly to the temporal lobes and can produce semiology very similar to TLE. [55]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en111_39142", "title": "Seizure types", "score": 0.010600990496586802, "content": "Self limiting seizure types Generalized seizures Tonic-clonic seizures (includes variations beginning with a clonic or myoclonic phase) Clonic seizures (with and without tonic features) Typical absence seizures Atypical absence seizures Myoclonic absence seizures Tonic seizures Spasms Myoclonic seizures Massive bilateral myoclonus Eyelid myoclonia (with and without absences) Myoclonic atonic seizures Negative myoclonus Atonic seizures Reflex seizures in generalized epilepsy syndromes Seizures of the posterior neocortex Neocortical temporal lobe seizures Focal seizures Focal sensory seizures Focal motor seizures Gelastic seizures Hemiclonic seizures Secondarily generalized seizures Reflex seizures in focal epilepsy syndromes Continuous seizure types Generalized status epilepticus Generalized tonic-clonic status epilepticus Clonic status epilepticus Absence status epilepticus Tonic status epilepticus Myoclonic status epilepticus Focal status epilepticus" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0249_13649", "title": "Complex partial seizures of temporal lobe origin in children of different age groups.", "score": 0.01058068118369626, "content": "The semiology of complex partial seizures (CPS) of temporal lobe origin in adults is well known and is important in establishing seizure localization in patients considered for epilepsy surgery. In contrast, the behavioral features of temporal lobe seizures (TLS) in children described in the literature have not been consistent. In the present study, we investigated children with TLS to compare their attacks to TLS occurring in adults. The study was based on video recordings of 29 children with TLS aged 18 months to 16 years. Children were included, if they became seizure-free after temporal lobectomy (except 4 children with a marked reduction in seizure frequency and 1 with isolated auras), and if clear unitemporal seizure onset in ictal EEG-recordings, unilateral radiological lesions, and corresponding histopathological findings were detected. Children aged &gt; 6 years had TLS with features similar to those of adults. In younger children, typical semiology included symmetric motor phenomena of the limbs, postures similar to frontal lobe seizures in adults, and head nodding as in infantile spasms. We concluded that the clinical features of TLS in younger children can be misleading and should therefore be considered with caution in selecting patients for surgical procedures on the temporal lobe." }, { "id": "article-20909_10", "title": "Epilepsy EEG -- Definition/Introduction", "score": 0.010442773600668337, "content": "Focal Seizures [2] In focal seizures, the onset of the seizure arises from one area of the brain. It also was previously known as a partial seizure. Focal seizure with intact awareness (previously called simple partial seizure): During the attack, the patient is fully alert and conscious. Electroencephalography performed during this condition rarely shows an ictal EEG discharge, but most of the time, scalp EEG cannot pick up the ictal activity. Focal seizure with impaired awareness (previously called complex partial seizure): During the attack, the patient develops a variable degree of impaired awareness, or consciousness gets altered. The clinical behavior of this condition will depend on region or lobe of onset. Combined Generalized and Focal Epilepsies [5]" }, { "id": "article-28842_22", "title": "Absence Seizure -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.01019163763066202, "content": "Focal epilepsy with alteration of awareness (previously called complex partial epilepsy) can also present with behavioral arrest and automatisms. However, these seizures are usually less frequent than absence seizures. Patients can have generalized seizures with focal epilepsy. The semiology of automatisms can vary depending on the area of the cerebral cortex where the seizures originate." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0371_20271", "title": "[Ictal automatisms during partial complex seizures in 36 children].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Partial complex seizures are relatively frequent type of epileptic seizures. These attacks are having aura in 60% of cases, that can be vegetative, motor, sensor or psychological one. Important is aura in the form of uncinatus seizures (unpleasant odor), because we must exclude tumor of temporal region in these patients. Altered consciousness comes after aura, patient has opened eyes, face can be pale or red, and automatism appear, in the form of different movements. These automatisms are often considered insignificant by parents or eyewitnesses. There is often misdiagnosis of this type of seizures, because only about 20% of standard EEG recordings find specific epileptic grapho-elements. Therapy of these seizures is difficult, with the success in only 50% of cases. Ictal automatisms were tested in the group of 36 children with partial complex seizures aged 4 to 17 years. Duration of epilepsy was 1 to 5 years. All patients had proved diagnosis of partial complex seizures, clinically and on electroencephalography, CT scan and MRI in medically intractable seizures. Eleven patients were videotaped during the attack. All patients had questionnaire filled by parents, about automatisms. Thirty-four patients (94.4%) had ictal automatisms, and 2 with epileptic focus in frontal region did not. Some patients had different types of automatisms. Most frequent ones were mimicking (15.19%), sitting-standing up (10.76%), swinging (8.23%), swallowing (7.59%) etc. It can be concluded that automatisms are almost obligatory part of partial complex seizure, and their registration is essential for correct diagnosis and treatment of these seizures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0301_10146", "title": "Ictal semiology in hippocampal versus extrahippocampal temporal lobe epilepsy.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We have analysed retrospectively the clinical features and electroencephalograms in 35 patients with complex partial seizures of temporal lobe origin who were seizure-free after epilepsy surgery. Two groups were differentiated for statistical analysis: 16 patients had hippocampal temporal lobe seizures (HTS) and 19 patients had extrahippocampal temporal lobe seizures (ETS) associated with a small tumour of the lateral or inferior temporal cortex. All patients in the HTS group had ictal onset verified with intracranial recordings (depth or subdural electrodes). In the ETS group, extrahippocampal onset was verified with intracranial recordings in eight patients and assumed, because of failure of a previous amygdalohippocampectomy, in one patient. Historical information, ictal semiology and ictal EEG of typical seizures were analysed in each patient. The occurrence of early and late oral automatisms and dystonic posturing of an upper extremity was analysed separately. A prior history of febrile convulsions was obtained in 13 HTS patients (81.3%) but in none with ETS (P &lt; 0.0001, Fisher's exact test). An epigastric aura preceded seizures in five patients with HTS (31.3%) and none with ETS (P = 0.0135, Fisher's exact test), while an aura with experiential content was recalled by nine patients with ETS (47.4%) and none with HTS (P = 0.0015), Fisher's exact test). Early oral automatisms occurred in 11 patients with HTS (68.8%) and in two with ETS (10.5%) (P = 0.0005, Fisher's exact test). Early motor involvement of the contralateral upper extremity without oral automatisms occurred in three patients with HTS (18.8%) and in 10 with ETS (52.6%) (P = 0.0298, Fisher's exact test). Arrest reaction, vocalization, speech, facial grimace, postictal cough, late oral automatisms and late motor involvement of the contralateral arm and hand occurred with similar frequency in both groups. These observations show that the early clinical features of HTS and ETS are different." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0653_2465", "title": "Analysis of the initial ictal phenomenon in patients with temporal lobe epilepsy.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "We aimed to assess the localizing value of the initial semiological element in temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE). Video-EEG-documented seizures of 97 adult TLE patients were studied in relation to seizure origin (left versus right; mesial versus extra-mesial). Strikingly, seizures with mesial onset started with very few ictal phenomena, while seizures of extra-mesial origin began with a larger variety of ictal elements. Furthermore, following noticeable distributions were observed for the mesial group: (i) aura was the most common initial ictal phenomenon in the total patient collective, occurring significantly more frequently in mesial than in extra-mesial seizure onset. Aura appeared most often in seizures of left mesial origin. (ii) Vocalization presented a trend towards mesial left seizure origin. (iii) Oral automatisms showed a trend towards mesial seizure origin. Following noticeable distribution was observed for the extra-mesial group: In patients without aura, restlessness as initial ictal phenomenon appeared exclusively in seizures of extra-mesial right origin. Finally, behavioral arrest showed a trend towards left-sided seizure origin. In conclusion, the initial ictal element may add useful information concerning differentiation of seizure onset in TLE." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0324_15913", "title": "Ictal oroalimentary automatisms with preserved consciousness: implications for the pathophysiology of automatisms and relevance to the international classification of seizures.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A patient showing seizures presenting ictal automatisms with preserved consciousness is reported. A 30-year-old, right-handed man with normal development and without family history of epilepsy was referred for surgical treatment of epilepsy. At 15 he began to have seizures, starting with an epigastric aura, occasionally developing automatisms (lip-smacking, chewing), sometimes followed by tonic-clonic convulsions. At the time of referral, he averaged six convulsive seizures per year and one nonconvulsive per week. His sleep EEG showed sharpened slow activity over the right anterior quadrant magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showed a benign lesion in the mesial aspect of the right occipital lobe. Simultaneous video monitoring and intracranial EEG with subdural strips recording from the right temporal and occipital lobes was undertaken. During one seizure, he had pronounced oroalimentary automatisms while holding a conversation with a technician, answering her questions, and explaining details of his seizures. Memory of this event was preserved. At seizure onset, spike activity was seen at the mesial occipital strips. At midseizure, high-voltage sharpened delta was seen throughout the right hemisphere. Left-sided scalp electrodes remained relatively uninvolved. The lesion, a dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumour was removed. Surgery was followed by abolition of seizures described. Because it is agreed that complex partial seizures require impaired consciousness, a history of automatisms with retained consciousness usually suggests nonepileptic attacks. This case suggests that automatisms in epileptic seizures can take place with minimal loss of consciousness, particularly if there is widespread but unilateral involvement. The need for a revision of the International Classification is suggested." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0549_3505", "title": "Value and limitations of seizure semiology in localizing seizure onset.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Seizure semiology has been the foundation of clinical diagnosis of seizure disorders. This article discusses the value and the limitations of behavioral features of seizure episodes in localizing seizure onset. Studies have shown that some semiologic features of seizures are highly accurate in the hemispheric lateralization and lobar localization of seizures. There is good agreement between blinded reviewers in lateralizing video-recorded seizures in temporal lobe and extratemporal lobe epilepsies. However, seizure semiology alone should not be used to determine the site of seizure onset. Each semiologic feature may falsely localize seizure onset. Seizure semiology in some patients may signify the site of seizure propagation rather than origination. Moreover, seizure semiology may not be as reliable in multifocal epilepsies as it is in unifocal epilepsies. Many semiologic features of seizures of adults are often missing in seizures of children. Seizure semiology should be analyzed and integrated with EEG and neuroimaging data to localize the seizure focus. A sample of the recorded seizures should be shown to the patient's relatives or friends to verify that it is representative of habitual seizures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0073_8347", "title": "[Psychomotor epilepsy: phenomenology, localization, pathogenesis and therapy].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Next to tonic-clonic seizures psychomotor (complex focal) seizures are the most common form of all epileptic seizures, except in infancy where they are seen rarely. Differently from generalised non convulsive seizures (like petit mal absences), their first appearance has no typical age limit, however, their proportion to other forms of seizures increases in adolescence and adults especially between the third and fifth decade of life. The main symptom is the disorder of consciousness which lasts at least more than half a minute, normally several minutes in completely distinct seizures, which doesn't begin abruptly and which often ends ill defined. This twilight attack is proceeded by an aura of sensory, psychic or vegetative character. The aura is followed either by a transitory state of immobility and later by motor phenomena or at once by motor phenomena in the form of diverse automatisms of variable intensity, reaching from mild movements in the oral region over verbal expressions to highly dramatic scenes, often accompanied by vegetative symptoms. Tonic versive and tonic symmetrical or tonic asymmetrical seizure symptoms are quite often motor variants which also can lead to sudden drops. Psychomotor attacks can be reduced to \"pseudo-absences\", however, they also can develop into tonic-clonic seizures (Grand mal). Generally, the succession of seizure symptoms is constant in the same patient, the expression can differ from seizure to seizure. Psychomotor attacks can be spread over the whole day or can show a strict connection to sleep, in the course they can likely occur in clusters and can accumulate to a continuous or discontinuous form of psychomotor status epilepticus. Predominantly, but not exclusively psychomotor attacks start from the temporal lobe, whereas neocortical temporal attacks (especially of lateral posterior origin) can be distinguished from those coming from the limbic system, especially from hippocampal or mesio-basal temporal structures and from the nucleus amygdalae. About 20% of the psychomotor attacks are of frontal origin coming from the mesial frontal region or from the gyrus cinguli anterior. Also seizures of occipital or parietal origin can spread so quickly that the seizure itself is impressing as a \"temporal lobe attack\". On account of that, epilepsies with psychomotor attacks cannot be compared to temporal lobe epilepsies. The etiology of psychomotor epilepsies is closely connected to the topographic site of the temporal lobe, who is especially vulnerable for traumatic lesions, cerebral edema and hypoxemia. Also small dysgeneses, heterotopies or small abnormalities of vessels are relatively often found in surgical specimens.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_158019", "title": "Epilepsy", "score": 0.009447426078916158, "content": "Signs and symptoms Epilepsy is characterized by a long-term risk of recurrent epileptic seizures. These seizures may present in several ways depending on the parts of the brain involved and the person's age. Seizures The most common type (60%) of seizures are convulsive which involve involuntary muscle contractions. Of these, one-third begin as generalized seizures from the start, affecting both hemispheres of the brain and impairing consciousness. Two-thirds begin as focal seizures (which affect one hemisphere of the brain) which may progress to generalized seizures. The remaining 40% of seizures are non-convulsive. An example of this type is the absence seizure, which presents as a decreased level of consciousness and usually lasts about 10 seconds." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0263_1979", "title": "[Quantitative clinical and EEG measures of epileptogenesis in temporal lobe epilepsy].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In this controlled, prospective and partially blind study two groups of patients with temporal lobe epilepsy were evaluated, respectively with good and bad prognosis. Measurements of epileptogenesis were based on frequency of seizures, and on epiletogenic electroencephalographic abnormalities obtained from scalp electrodes over the temporal lobes. The results were analysed by non-parametric analysis of variance, comparison of groups and analysis of correlation. The results indicated the temporal lobe groups were similar to at least one of the control groups in age, sex, educational and social level, therapeutic regime, age at onset and length of history of epilepsy. The quantitative measurements showed a global difference between the group of temporal lobe with bad and good prognosis, reaching statistical significance in clinical epileptogenesis, and a trend towards greater epileptogenesis on the electroencephalogram, in the same group of patients. The results indicate the experimental usefulness of some of the original measurements used in the study, but also their problems. A review of the literature is carried out." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0398_12373", "title": "The effect of age on seizure semiology in childhood temporal lobe epilepsy.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Complex partial seizure is the characteristic seizure type observed in epilepsy arising from temporal lobe structures. The seizure evolution in adult patients is quite stereotyped and well characterized, manifesting initially with an aura, behavioral arrest, and oroalimentary and gestural automatism. A greater variability of semiology including motor features with tonic or myoclonic components, as well as a paucity of automatism, has been reported in young children with temporal lobe epilepsy. The aim of our study was to examine in more detail the effects of age on individual ictal features to be able to determine the critical age when lesional temporal lobe seizure semiology undergoes transition from the pediatric to the more adult-type clinical pattern. We performed a video analysis of 83 seizures from 15 children (aged 11-70 months) selected by post-temporal lobectomy seizure-free outcome, looking specifically at the motor and behavioral (nonmotor) manifestations in relation to age of the children. All of the children younger than 42 months had seizures with early and marked motor features, which included tonic and myoclonic components and epileptic spasms. Parallel with age, the frequency of these motor components decreased, and in five of 11 children older than 3 years, motor features were totally absent. Analyzed quantitatively, we saw a linear and inverse correlation of the ratio of motor components with age at monitoring. These findings support the hypothesis that events in brain maturation significantly affect clinical seizure semiology and may override the more typical localizing features seen in adult-type temporal lobe epilepsy. These findings are important to consider in the early diagnosis of childhood temporal lobe epilepsy." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 456, 660 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 78, 110 ] ], "text": "Answers 1 and 3 are contrary, one recommends completing thyroidectomy and the other does not. The only ones in which complete thyroidectomy is not recommended are microcarcinomas measuring less than 1 cm." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 207, 259 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 38, 45 ] ], "text": "prophylactic emptying is indicated in the medullary." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 456, 660 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 78, 110 ] ], "text": "Answers 1 and 3 are contrary, one recommends completing thyroidectomy and the other does not. The only ones in which complete thyroidectomy is not recommended are microcarcinomas measuring less than 1 cm." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 270, 344 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 47, 61 ] ], "text": "simply by the way of expressing it, it should already have been ruled out." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 377, 455 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 67, 78 ] ], "text": "calcitonin is used in medullary carcinoma and not in differentiated carcinoma." } }

{ "1": "As there is no capsular invasion it is not convenient to perform further surgery.", "2": "The follicular pattern is an indication for prophylactic cervical lymph node emptying.", "3": "It is a follicular carcinoma and requires completion of thyroidectomy.", "4": "The report allows to rule out papillary carcinoma with total certainty in the remaining thyroid.", "5": "Measurement of plasma calcitonin will allow us to differentiate between papillary and follicular carcinoma." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en195_1167", "title": "Medullary thyroid cancer", "score": 0.01678690344062153, "content": "Prognosis Depending on source, the overall 5-year survival rate for medullary thyroid cancer is 80%, 83% or 86%, and the 10-year survival rate is 75%. By overall cancer staging into stages I to IV, the 5-year survival rate is 100% at stage I, 98% at stage II, 81% at stage III and 28% at stage IV. The prognosis of MTC is poorer than that of follicular and papillary thyroid cancer when it has metastasized (spread) beyond the thyroid gland. The prognostic value of measuring calcitonin and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) concentrations in the blood was studied in 65 MTC patients who had abnormal calcitonin levels after surgery (total thyroidectomy and lymph node dissection). The prognosis correlated with the rate at which the postoperative calcitonin concentration doubles, termed the calcitonin doubling time (CDT), rather than the pre- or postoperative absolute calcitonin level:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0556_22646", "title": "[The lymph node dissection in thyroid carcinoma].", "score": 0.016078164615670028, "content": "Rule and indications of lymph node dissection (LD) in thyroid carcinoma is still under debate because of the biological variety of different histological types and the difficulty to have an accurate preoperative diagnosis of metastatic lymph nodes; moreover prognostic factors of metastatic lymph nodes are still unclear. The AA. have separately analyzed different thyroid carcinomas and different clinical situations requiring thyroid LD. Metastatic lymph nodes from differentiated carcinomas, including papillary and follicular type, range from 12 to 90% and apparently do not worsen the prognosis. Level II-VI LD is indicated in presence of metastatic lymph nodes or macroscopic nodal recurrence after a previous LD. No prognostic advantages have been demonstrated when LD is performed without clinical or instrumental evidence of metastatic disease, including suspected recurrence characterised only by plasma Thyreoglobulin increased values. Lymph node metastases from medullary carcinoma range from 25 to 63%. Level II-VI LD is indicated if node metastases are present, whereas prophylactic LD, confined to level VI, is always recommended. Controversies still remain about: 1) LD extension whether it is prophylactic (level VI vs. II- VI) or in case of nodal involvement (levels II- VI monolateral or bilateral), 2) LD indications in case of an increased plasma Calcitonin levels during the follow-up after total thyroidectomy, without clinical or instrumental evidence of nodes involvement. Anaplastic carcinoma represents 5% of all thyroid carcinomas; it is the most aggressive type with an early tendency to invade surrounding organs and to give metastases; prognosis is very poor. LD is indicated only for a palliation in cases with compression syndromes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0306_4298", "title": "Selective treatment of differentiated thyroid carcinoma.", "score": 0.015188470066518847, "content": "Over a period of 20 years 84 papillary and 82 follicular carcinomas operated on by one surgeon and examined by one pathologist were documented prospectively, treated selectively, and followed for 1 to 20 years (median 7 years). Tumors with a low risk of recurrence or incurable disease-i.e., papillary carcinoma pT1-3 N0 M0 (n = 56) and minimally invasive follicular carcinoma (n = 37)-were treated by a limited-radicality hemithyroidectomy or total thyroidectomy without radioiodine in 79 of the 93 cases (85%). No unfavorable course was observed, and only one curable recurrence (1.3%) developed contralaterally after hemithyroidectomy for papillary cancer. Of the remaining 73 patients, including 100% of those with nodal involvement, 65 (89%) underwent total thyroidectomy with radioiodine. Total thyroidectomy was achieved in 34% of the cases by completion thyroidectomy, based on definitive histologic examination. No instance of a serious, potentially incurable recurrence and no tumor-related death was observed in patients with a papillary TNM stage I+II or with a minimally invasive follicular carcinoma. Five of the patients (6%) with papillary carcinoma, all with TNM stage III or IV, and seven of the patients (8.5%) with follicular carcinoma, all grossly invasive and pT3 or pT4, had tumor-related deaths following total thyroidectomy in all and with remnant ablation in 10 cases. A potentially curable node recurrence occurred in two patients 1 and 10 years, respectively, after primary treatment. Permanent hypoparathyroidism (n = 4) (2.4%) and permanent recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy (n = 2) (1.2%) were observed only in patients with a grossly invasive follicular carcinoma and concomitant benign recurrent goiter. We conclude that (1) hemithyroidectomy or total thyroidectomy without radioiodine is adequate for papillary carcinoma pT1-3 N0 and minimally invasive follicular carcinoma; (2) there were no nodal recurrences in tumors recognized as node-negative; and (3) extracapsular excision of one or both lobes can be carried out technically with low morbidity. The study confirms the prognostic value of age-related TNM classification for papillary carcinoma; classification of follicular thyroid carcinoma as minimally invasive or grossly invasive proved to be useful." }, { "id": "article-21869_23", "title": "Follicular Adenoma -- Evaluation", "score": 0.013852504564578868, "content": "FNA is performed to provide a cytological examination of the nodule, and it remains the mainstay for assessing these lesions, although it may not provide a diagnosis in all cases. [7] The success rate of FNA is improved when the procedure is done under ultrasound guidance. The cytopathological findings are reported using one of the three major international nomenclatures: the British Thyroid Association and Royal College of Pathologists (Thy), the Italian Consensus (TIR) and the Bethesda System for Reporting Thyroid Cytopathology [40] [28] . Thyroid nodule fine-needle aspiration (FNA) washout may be examined for calcitonin in the preoperative evaluation in patients with elevated serum calcitonin (20–100 pg/mL). In patients with follicular adenoma the cytological sample has abundant follicular epithelial cells organized in sheets with crowding and overlapping of cells, microfollicle formation with scant or absent colloid. Some patients have follicular cells with abnormal architecture with atypia that is more significant than usually seen with benign lesions but not sufficient enough to call it a neoplasm. According to the Bethesda classification system, these patients are characterized as having \"atypia of undetermined significance\" or \"follicular lesion of undetermined significance\". Molecular assessment of indeterminate cytology can be helpful [28] . A final diagnosis of follicular adenoma is made only after ruling out capsular and vessel invasion by standard nodulectomy or thyroidectomy with subsequent histological examination. Frozen section should not be requested in clinically benign nodules but is a common practice in cases of suspect papillary thyroid carcinoma hence its evaluation intraoperatively can guide in performing lymphadenectomy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en262_816", "title": "Thyroid cancer", "score": 0.013583638583638584, "content": "The follicular and papillary types together can be classified as \"differentiated thyroid cancer\". These types have a more favorable prognosis than the medullary and undifferentiated types. Papillary microcarcinoma is a subset of papillary thyroid cancer defined as a nodule measuring less than or equal to 1 cm. 43% of all thyroid cancers and 50% of new cases of papillary thyroid carcinoma are papillary microcarcinoma. Management strategies for incidental papillary microcarcinoma on ultrasound (and confirmed on FNAB) range from total thyroidectomy with radioactive iodine ablation to lobectomy or observation alone. Harach et al. suggest using the term \"occult papillary tumor\" to avoid giving patients distress over having cancer. Woolner et al. first arbitrarily coined the term \"occult papillary carcinoma\", in 1960, to describe papillary carcinomas ≤ 1.5 cm in diameter." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_55493", "title": "Thyroidectomy", "score": 0.01319670858562335, "content": "Hemithyroidectomy — Entire isthmus is removed along with 1 lobe. Done in benign diseases of only 1 lobe. Subtotal thyroidectomy — Removal of majority of both lobes leaving behind 4-5 grams (equivalent to the size of a normal thyroid gland) of thyroid tissue on one or both sides—this used to be the most common operation for multinodular goitre. Partial thyroidectomy —Removal of gland in front of trachea after mobilization. Done in nontoxic MNG. Its role is controversial. Near total thyroidectomy — Both lobes are removed except for a small amount of thyroid tissue (on one or both sides) in the vicinity of the recurrent laryngeal nerve entry point and the superior parathyroid gland. Total thyroidectomy — Entire gland is removed. Done in cases of papillary or follicular carcinoma of thyroid, medullary carcinoma of thyroid. This is now also the most common operation for multinodular goitre." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_1146", "title": "Follicular thyroid cancer", "score": 0.012766841839612837, "content": "Hurthle cell variant Hurthle cell thyroid cancer is often considered a variant of follicular cell carcinoma. Hurthle cell forms are more likely than follicular carcinomas to be bilateral and multifocal and to metastasize to lymph nodes. Like follicular carcinoma, unilateral hemithyroidectomy is performed for non-invasive disease, and total thyroidectomy for invasive disease. Diagnosis It is difficult to correctly diagnose follicular neoplasms (FNs) on fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) because it shares many cytological features with other mimicking lesions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0570_16251", "title": "[Papillary and follicular thyroid carcinoma].", "score": 0.012444444444444445, "content": "Papillary and follicular carcinomas of the thyroid are differentiated carcinomas developed from the follicular epithelium, that keep some of its morphological and functional characteristics. Their increased incidence is related to an improved screening. Thyroid carcinoma usually presents as a thyroid nodule. Only 5% of nodules are malignant and fine needle biopsy is the most accurate tool for their diagnosis. Initial treatment is standardized and includes a total thyroidectomy with central lymph node dissection in case of papillary carcinoma, that is followed by the administration of a large activity of radioiodine in case of incomplete surgery, distant metastases or high risk factors. Papillary carcinomas of less than 1 cm in diameter, when unifocal and intra-thyroid are treated with surgery only, and radioiodine is not indicated. Thyroxine treatment is given to all patients. The majority of patients are cured, as demonstrated by the work-up performed at 1 year (undetectable serum thyroglobulin following stimulation with recombinant human TSH and normal neck ultrasonography). Subsequent follow-up is yearly with serum Tg and TSH determinations that is maintained within the normal range. In the other patients, other tests may be indicated, starting with the administration of a large activity of radioiodine. In these patients, serum TSH should be decreased to a low level." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_1147", "title": "Follicular thyroid cancer", "score": 0.01236404428620202, "content": "Diagnosis It is difficult to correctly diagnose follicular neoplasms (FNs) on fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) because it shares many cytological features with other mimicking lesions. Classification It is impossible to distinguish between follicular adenoma and carcinoma on cytological grounds. If fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) suggests follicular neoplasm, thyroid lobectomy should be performed to establish the histopathological diagnosis. Features sine qua non for the diagnosis of follicular carcinoma are capsular invasion and vascular invasion by tumor cells. Still, focuses of the capsular invasion should be carefully evaluated and discriminated from the capsular rupture due to FNA penetration resulting in WHAFFT (worrisome histologic alterations following FNA of thyroid). Follicular carcinoma tends to metastasize to lung and bone via the bloodstream. Papillary thyroid carcinoma commonly metastasizes to cervical lymph nodes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0090_3626", "title": "[Critical reflections on differentiated carcinoma of the thyroid: difficulties, doubts and differential-diagnosis problems].", "score": 0.012301957129543337, "content": "This work reviews the problems associated with the diagnosis of well differentiated carcinomas of the thyroid (follicular and papillary), which anatomically and clinically can show characteristics not readily distinguishable from those found in thyroid hyperplasia and adenomas. Some features of atypical adenomas and Hurthle cell tumors are detailed, in particular the borderline malignancy of the latter. We have examined the histological parameters useful in diagnosis of follicular carcinoma (cellular polymorphism and size variability with increased and atypical mitoses, invasion of the capsule and vessels, metastasis to lymph nodes and distant organs) and of papillary carcinoma (true papillae, large and crowded nuclei displaying a \"ground glass\" appearance with grooves and cytoplasmic inclusions and psammoma bodies). The limitations of these parameters are discussed with emphasis on frozen section examination when the lack of time limits examination to few and small tissue fragments. Invasion of the capsule and vessels is not easily detected and the \"ground glass\" nucleus and presence of grooves are not evident. The biological behavior of well differentiated carcinomas is discussed and, although unpredictable and variable in the single case, is generally that of a slow growing tumor. It is partially influenced by the age of the patient, size and stage of the tumor, invasion of the capsule and vessels and metastatic spread. We have observed that the biological behavior, apparently different in the follicular and papillary forms, appears identical for both tumors when a large number of cases are analyzed. Mention is made of the various surgical choices (total thyroidectomy, subtotal thyroidectomy, lobectomy, different surgical procedures which take into account the various risk factors). No statistically significant differences in recurrences and metastatic spread are obtained by electing more or less aggressive surgery with or without extensive dissection of cervical lymph nodes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1024_5900", "title": "Utility of frozen section analysis on follicular lesions of the thyroid.", "score": 0.012140320359498441, "content": "The experience of one surgeon (R.H.) with intraoperative frozen sections (FS) performed on thyroid nodules over a 10-year period was studied to assess the utility of FS in follicular thyroid lesions. One hundred and ten patients with dominant or solitary nodules demonstrating a follicular growth pattern were evaluated. The FS slides and subsequently the permanent sections of the nodules were reviewed by the pathologists in the study (M.P.B., VAL.) without knowledge of the original diagnoses. Our results indicate: (1) if the FS was definitively benign (58 patients), the final diagnosis was benign [these lesions consisted of adenomatous nodule, nodular goiter, follicular adenoma, and Hürthle cell adenoma); (2) if an FS diagnosis of malignancy was rendered (4 patients), it was confirmed on permanent sections (follicular variant of papillary carcinoma in all 4); and (3) if the FS diagnosis was deferred (48 patients), the final diagnosis was benign in all but 10 (21 %) (of these 10, 6 had minimally invasive follicular carcinoma [2 of the Hürthle cell type], and 4 had follicular variants of papillary carcinoma). Overall, sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy rates for FS diagnoses were 29, 100, and 91%. Because unilateral lobectomy may be acceptable therapy for well-differentiated thyroid cancers, and because the efficiency of FS evaluation in diagnosing malignancy is low (only 4 malignancies of 110 total patients were diagnosed at FS, or 3.6% overall), we conclude that in this era of cost-containment, FS is not useful in the evaluation of follicular thyroid nodules identified preoperatively as follicular lesions by fine-needle aspiration cytology. Several recommendations concerning the 3 categories of FS diagnosis (i.e., definitively benign, definitively malignant-especially the follicular variant of papillary carcinoma-and deferred) are also put forward." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en498_25491", "title": "Noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features", "score": 0.011955147584235694, "content": "History Patients in the distant past with this lesion would have been regarded as showing signs of having a benign lesion, a follicular adenoma. However, over time and with additional evaluation and molecular testing, these lesions came to be regarded as showing features of a papillary thyroid carcinoma because of their papillary carcinoma type nuclei. Thus, the \"follicular variant\" of a tumor that normally shows a papillary architecture and papillary nuclear features was named. Over the years, those cases that do not show invasion of either the capsule of the tumor or the vessels in the capsule, have been shown to behave in an indolent fashion, with only rare reported cases of metastatic disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_1149", "title": "Follicular thyroid cancer", "score": 0.01190035762732766, "content": "Initial treatment If follicular cells are found on cytological testing, it is common to carry out hemithyroidectomy to distinguish between follicular adenoma and follicular carcinoma on histopathological examination, proceeding to completion thyroidectomy and postoperative radioiodine ablation where carcinoma is confirmed. This way total thyroidectomy is not carried out unnecessarily. Thyroidectomy is invariably followed by radioiodine treatment at levels from 50 to 200 millicuries following two weeks of a low iodine diet (LID). Occasionally treatment must be repeated if annual scans indicate remaining cancerous tissue. Some physicians favor administering the maximum safe dose (calculated based on a number of factors), while others favor administering smaller doses, which may still be effective in ablating all thyroid tissue. I-131 is used for ablation of the thyroid tissue. Minimally invasive thyroidectomy has been used in recent years in cases where the nodules are small." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0048_15738", "title": "Completion thyroidectomy: a critical appraisal.", "score": 0.011899717514124294, "content": "Completion thyroidectomy can most accurately be described as reexploration of the neck to remove the contralateral thyroid lobe. This procedure has commonly been performed when the histopathologic condition of the ipsilateral thyroid lobe reveals papillary or follicular carcinoma of the thyroid. Because of a definitely increased risk of complications with completion thyroidectomy, avoiding its routine use is important. The purpose of this paper is to define the specific indications for completion thyroidectomy. Over the past 9 years, we have performed 400 thyroidectomies; the patients ranged in age from 18 to 88 years. Although we have routinely used preoperative needle biopsy and intraoperative frozen section, decisions regarding the extent of thyroidectomy have been based on the gross findings at operation, taking into consideration such prognostic factors as patient age, tumor grade and size, the presence of extracapsular spread or distant metastasis, and associated risk factors. The minimal procedure for solitary thyroid nodule has been lobectomy with isthmusectomy. If the contralateral lobe is grossly normal, lobectomy with isthmusectomy has also been the maximal operation in most of patients. Very few specific indications exist for removal of the opposite lobe. Only three patients underwent completion thyroidectomy. All three patients had aggressive follicular carcinoma requiring radioactive iodine ablation, and all were referred after the initial surgery. We have not performed completion thyroidectomy on any of the patients on whom we initially operated. The most common indication considered for completion thyroidectomy is a frozen section diagnosis of a benign follicular adenoma that is subsequently changed on permanent pathologic condition to follicular carcinoma based on the presence of capsular and/or vascular invasion. However, if minimal invasion has occurred, no difference exists in survival related to the extent of the thyroidectomy. Local recurrence in the contralateral lobe occurs in less than 10% of the time. Because completion thyroidectomy carries more risks, it should be avoided in most patients when possible. The definitive decision should be made during the initial operation based on gross findings, prognostic factors, and frozen section, and this plan should only be changed to mandate completion thyroidectomy in select circumstances." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en558_13574", "title": "Computed tomography of the thyroid", "score": 0.0116106154198124, "content": "Thyroid cancers Epidemiology Primary thyroid carcinomas include papillary, follicular, medullary, and anaplastic carcinomas. Lymphoma and metastasis of other primary malignancies to the thyroid gland represent a minority of thyroid carcinomas. Differentiated thyroid carcinomas (DTCs) originate from follicular epithelial cells and encompass PTCs and follicular thyroid carcinomas, including the Hurthle cell variant of follicular carcinoma. DTCs have an excellent prognosis and fortunately represent the majority of thyroid carcinomas. PTCs and follicular thyroid carcinomas represent 88 % and 8 %, respectively, of all thyroid malignancies. Medullary thyroid carcinoma arises from neuroendocrine C-cells and has a good prognosis. Anaplastic carcinoma is an aggressive undifferentiated tumour that usually affects the elderly and tends to have a worse prognosis. Role of imaging" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en498_25492", "title": "Noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features", "score": 0.011500077966630282, "content": "Over a multiyear time frame, an international consensus project was undertaken to re-define the pathological criteria for the encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma. Based on a rigorous review of the literature and a multicentre review of many cases with long-term follow-up (a minimum of 10 years) together with molecular analysis of some tumors, this working group has determined that tumors previously classified as the encapsulated follicular variant of papillary carcinoma—without any evidence of capsular or vascular invasion, provided that the entire periphery of the tumor (capsule if encapsulated or periphery if well circumscribed) has been sampled—can be reclassified as noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasms with papillary-like nuclear features. There are several major inclusion and exclusion criteria." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en097_40041", "title": "Papillary thyroid cancer", "score": 0.011303511303511303, "content": "The so-called lateral aberrant thyroid is usually a lymph node metastasis from a papillary thyroid carcinoma. Papillary microcarcinoma is a subset of papillary thyroid cancer defined as measuring less than or equal to 1 cm. The highest incidence of papillary thyroid microcarcinoma in an autopsy series was reported by Harach et al. in 1985, who found 36 of 101 consecutive autopsies to have an incidental microcarcinoma. Michael Pakdaman et al. report the highest incidence in a retrospective surgical series at 49.9 percent of 860 cases. Management strategies for incidental papillary microcarcinoma on ultrasound (and confirmed on FNAB) range from total thyroidectomy with radioactive iodine ablation to observation alone. Harach et al. suggest using the term \"occult papillary tumor\" to avoid giving patients distress over having cancer. It was Woolner et al. who first arbitrarily coined the term \"occult papillary carcinoma\" in 1960, to describe papillary carcinomas ≤ 1.5 cm in diameter." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0039_1484", "title": "Carcinoma of the thyroid with description of a new scanning technic.", "score": 0.01129979570990807, "content": "A statistical analysis of 193 patients with thyroid carcinoma encountered at Vanderbilt University Hospital from 1925 to 1974 is reported, from which the following conclusions are drawn: (1) Papillary thyroid carcinoma is an extremely favorable lesion that when grossly limited to one thyroid lobe can usually be managed successfully by ipsolateral total lobectomy. (2) Cervical lymph node enlargement in patients with papillary carcinoma requires lymph node dissection. When feasible, the spinal accessory nerve should be preserved. (3) Failure to cure papillary and follicular thyroid carcinoma is influenced by advanced age, inadequate local extirpation, and unresectability of the carcinoma. (4) Prophylactic lymph node dissection is rarely indicated in the treatment of follicular carcinoma. A new isotope scanning procedure, developed at Vanderbilt University Hospital, promises to be helpful in preoperatively differentiating benign from malignant solitary thyroid nodules." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_1148", "title": "Follicular thyroid cancer", "score": 0.010734854560034993, "content": "Follicular carcinoma tends to metastasize to lung and bone via the bloodstream. Papillary thyroid carcinoma commonly metastasizes to cervical lymph nodes. HMGA2 has been proposed as a marker to identify malignant tumors. Treatment Treatment is usually surgical, followed by radioiodine." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_10836", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.010620656244759545, "content": "out to be malignant. This category also includes lesions suspicious for medullary carcinoma and lymphoma, and ancillary testing such as immunohistochemical analysis and flow cytometry may be helpful. The risk of malignancy in lesions classified as “malignant” by FNA is 97% to 99%, and near-total/total thyroidectomy is recommended.Laboratory Studies Most patients with thyroid nodules are euthyroid. Determining the blood TSH level is helpful. If a patient with a nodule is found to be hyperthyroid, the risk of malignancy is approximately 1%. Serum Tg levels cannot dif-ferentiate benign from malignant thyroid nodules unless the lev-els are extremely high, in which case metastatic thyroid cancer should be suspected. Tg levels are, however, useful in following patients who have undergone total thyroidectomy for thyroid cancer and also for serial evaluation of patients undergoing nonoperative management of thyroid nodules. Serum calcitonin levels should be obtained in patients with MTC or a" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en498_25480", "title": "Noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features", "score": 0.010392344497607656, "content": "Abbreviations: NIFTP: Noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features EFVPTC: Encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma. PTC: Papillary thyroid carcinoma. The new classification will be included in the World Health Organization's new Classification of Endocrine Organ Tumours, due out in 2017. Imaging findings Clinical evaluation is usually done with ultrasound studies, which will usually show a solid, well demarcated mass, often showing limited shadowing (hypoechoic). Depending on the specific character on ultrasound and other clinical findings, a fine needle aspiration is often performed." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_10881", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.010306434625608105, "content": "patients will have benign adenomas. Total thyroidectomy is recommended by some surgeons in older patients with follicular lesions >4 cm because of the higher risk of cancer in this setting (50%) and certainly should be performed in patients with atypia on FNA, a family history of thyroid cancer, or a history of radiation exposure. Intraoperative frozen-section examination usually is not helpful, but it should be performed when there is evidence of capsular or vascular invasion or when adjacent lymphadenopa-thy is present. Total thyroidectomy should be performed when thyroid cancer is diagnosed. There is debate among experts about whether patients with minimally invasive follicular can-cers should undergo completion thyroidectomy because the prognosis is so good in these patients. A diagnosis of frankly invasive carcinoma or follicular carcinoma with angioinvasion, with or without capsular invasion, necessitates completion of total thyroidectomy primarily so that 131I can be used to" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0093_7157", "title": "[Surgical treatment of differentiated thyroid carcinoma].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "This paper reports the results and experiences of 95 cases with differentiated thyroid carcinoma managed by surgical treatment. Eighty-two patients were followed up with an average time of 6.2 years, the longest was fifteen years and six months, 96% of patients were survival over 5 years. The factors influencing prognosis are as follows: 1. Age: Elder predicts worse prognosis. 2. Papillary is better then follicular. 3. The stage of thyroid carcinoma: Bigger mass, tumor cells spreading out of thyroid capsule with invasion of adjacent tissues and regional lymph nodes, and intravascular tumor cell embolus almost always shows higher recurrence and mortality. 4. Simple tumor removal before admission gives no reasonable cure, but increasing risk of spreading as showed in our cases. Therefore, we emphasize that thyroid carcinoma should be treated primarily with radical operation. By our experience thyroid carcinoma should be treated with lobectomy for affected site, excision of isthmus, and contralateral subtotal thyroidectomy. Because of the low grade malignancy in differentiated thyroid carcinoma, modified neck dissection is the surgical procedure of choice. Patients undergoing such surgical procedure as stated above can be prevented from sequelae." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en019_41085", "title": "Thyroglobulin", "score": 0.009865888090349075, "content": "A subsequent elevation of the thyroglobulin level is an indication of recurrence of papillary or follicular thyroid carcinoma. In other words, a rise in thyroglobulin levels in the blood may be a sign that thyroid cancer cells are growing and/or the cancer is spreading. Hence, thyroglobulin levels in the blood are mainly used as a tumor marker for certain kinds of thyroid cancer (particularly papillary or follicular thyroid cancer). Thyroglobulin is not produced by medullary or anaplastic thyroid carcinoma. Thyroglobulin levels are tested via a simple blood test. Tests are often ordered after thyroid cancer treatment." }, { "id": "article-30136_13", "title": "Thyroid Adenoma -- Evaluation", "score": 0.009700504674443618, "content": "Fine needle aspiration (FNA) has ultimately been used in evaluating a thyroid nodule with suspicious radiology features, especially in patients with a high risk of malignancy. It should be mentioned that fine-needle aspiration may not provide a definite diagnosis in all cases. In patients with thyroid adenoma, the cytological sample has organized follicular epithelial cells. On the other hand, aspiration can show follicular cells with abnormal architecture and atypia. These patients are characterized as having atypia of undetermined significance. [26] A benign thyroid adenoma is confirmed only after ruling out capsular and vessel invasion in the final histological examination done by pathologists after a partial or total thyroidectomy operation. Genetic testing has also helped a lot in predicting the risk of thyroid cancer, and it has frequently been used in the final decision-making of proceeding to surgical intervention of removing a thyroid nodule versus not. [27]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0904_18228", "title": "Influence of presence/absence of thyroid gland on the cutoff value for thyroglobulin in lymph-node aspiration to detect metastatic papillary thyroid carcinoma.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Thyroglobulin measurement with fine-needle aspiration (Tg-FNA) is a sensitive method for detecting metastatic papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC). However, the diagnostic threshold is not well established and the influence of the thyroid gland on the cutoff value is also controversial. In this study, patients were classified into two groups according to the presence or absence of thyroid tissue, to determine an appropriate cutoff value for clinical practice. Patients with a history of thyroid nodules or surgery for PTC and with enlarged cervical lymph nodes on an FNA examination were enrolled for Tg-FNA detection. One hundred ninety-six lymph nodes (189 patients) were included: 100 from preoperative patients, 49 from patients treated with partial thyroid ablation, and 47 from patients with total thyroid ablation. In 149 lymph nodes from patient with thyroids, the cutoff value for Tg-FNA was 55.99 ng/mL (sensitivity, 95.1%; specificity, 100%), whereas in 47 lymph nodes from patients without a thyroid, it was 9.71 ng/mL (sensitivity, 96.7%; specificity, 100%). Thus, the cutoff value for Tg-FNA was higher in patients with thyroids than in patients without thyroids. The cutoff value for Tg-FNA is influenced by residual thyroid tissue, and a higher cutoff value is recommended for patients with thyroids than for patients without thyroids." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en097_40042", "title": "Papillary thyroid cancer", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Several variants are recognized, although classic papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most frequent: microscopic-follicular variant, diffuse-sclerosing variant, tall-cell variant, columnar-cell variant, hobnail variant, and others. The encapsulated-follicular variant, specifically when noninvasive, has been newly reclassified as the noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features. Although papillary carcinoma has a propensity to invade lymphatics, it is less likely to invade blood vessels. These kinds of tumors are most commonly unencapsulated, and they have a high tendency to metastasize locally to lymph nodes, which may produce cystic structures near the thyroid that are difficult to diagnose because of the paucity of malignant tissue. Furthermore, papillary tumors may metastasize to the lungs and produce a few nodules or the lung fields may exhibit a snowflake appearance throughout." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1078_23362", "title": "Additional Tissue Sampling Trials Did Not Change Our Thyroid Practice.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "This study aimed to determine whether additional tissue sampling of encapsulated thyroid nodules would increase the frequency of follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC) diagnoses. We examined thyroid tissue specimens from 86 patients suspected of FTC (84.9% female; mean age, 49.0 ± 17.8 years). The number of tissue blocks created for pathological assessments ranged from 3 to 20 (mean, 9.1 ± 4.1); the numbers in the previous method recommended by the Japanese General Rules for the Description of Thyroid Cancer and additional blocks ranged from 1 to 12 (mean, 6.0 ± 2.8) and from 1 to 8 (mean, 3.1 ± 2.0), respectively. The additional blocks were subsequently examined to determine whether any diagnoses changed from those based on the previous method. Five patients were diagnosed with FTC using the previous method; however, additional tissue blocks led to the diagnosis of FTC in 6 patients, as 1 diagnosis was revised from follicular adenoma to FTC. It has been reported that increasing the number of tissue blocks used for pathological assessments can increase the frequency of FTC diagnoses; however, this was not clinically significant in thyroid carcinoma, which requires completion thyroidectomy and radioactive iodine treatment. It resulted in no benefits to the patient because all minimally invasive FTCs, follicular tumors of uncertain malignant potential (FT-UMP), and follicular adenomas are treated with lobectomy alone in Japan. Additional tissue sampling only had a slight impact on our thyroid practice; therefore, we decided to cease it." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en097_40038", "title": "Papillary thyroid cancer", "score": 0.009354756993449861, "content": "Papillary thyroid carcinomas are also discovered when a hard nodule is found in multinodular goiter, when enlarged cervical lymph nodes are detected, or when there are unidentified metastatic lesions elsewhere in the body. Expanding lesions found in the thyroid gland, especially if they are painful, should be examined as they may indicate the presence of papillary thyroid carcinoma. Other clinical signs that could indicate papillary thyroid are fixation to the trachea, a firm neck mass, damage to recurrent laryngeal or cervical sympathetic nerves. Five percent of the population can have thyroid nodules, and the majority will be benign. Appropriate workup includes an ultrasound of the neck, followed by lab studies. Patients will usually meet with both an endocrinologist and a surgeon (head and neck surgeon or endocrine surgeon)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0284_3520", "title": "[Prospective therapy study in differentiated thyroid carcinoma].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Controversy still exists regarding the appropriate treatment for differentiated thyroid carcinoma, i.e. the extent of surgery and the usefulness of prophylactic 131I thyroid ablation. However, the debate is nowadays confined to those patients who may be categorized as having a favorable prognosis with respect to tumor-related death or serious recurrence, and the point of discussion is essentially the optimal treatment to prevent curable recurrences. From the literature it may be deduced that patients with a node negative papillary tumor of stage I and II in the age-related TNM classification system, and patients with a minimally invasive follicular carcinoma, have an excellent prognosis with respect to survival and recurrence. In a prospective study during a 20-year period from one surgical and one pathological institution 136 consecutive patients were treated. Patients with an incidental pT1 N0 tumor, or with a stage I or II node negative papillary carcinoma, or with a minimally invasive follicular carcinoma respectively, had a reduced extent of treatment. This consisted in resection for the concomitant benign goiter (7%), hemithyroidectomy (32%), or total thyroidectomy without 131I ablation (18%). All other patients, including those with a node positive tumor in stage I or II, had total thyroidectomy and 131I ablation (43%). Patients with a multifocal tumor had total thyroidectomy with or without 131I ablation. Hemi- or total thyroidectomy was technically carried out by capsular dissection with identification of the parathyroids, as introduced by Kocher and Halsted. Peritracheal and -laryngeal nodes were regularly searched for, and functional neck dissection was done in node positive tumors. Total thyroidectomy was carried out by completion thyroidectomy in 29 (35%) of the 83 patients. 5 patients (7%) with papillary carcinoma, all in stage III or IV, and 5 patients (8%) with follicular carcinoma, all with a high degree of capsular angio-invasion, died from the tumor 6 months to 16 years after diagnosis. A further patient with a high degree follicular carcinoma is alive with residual disease. All these patients with an unfavorable course underwent total thyroidectomy and 131I ablation as initial therapy. Two patients with papillary carcinoma had a presumptively curable recurrence, namely, a node recurrence in a pT1 N1 tumor (following total thyroidectomy and radio-iodine ablation), and a contralateral recurrence after hemithyroidectomy in a pT2 N0 tumor in a young patient. In sum, in no case with an unfavorable course was a radical therapy omitted initially, and less than total thyroidectomy with 131I ablation (n = 77 [57%]) led to a (curable) recurrence in only one instance (1.3%).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0642_22447", "title": "[Thyroid cancers].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "During the last two decades, the incidence of thyroid cancer has doubled, mainly do to the early detection of small papillary tumors. However, mortality stayed stable (0.05/100.000). Well differentiated cancers (papillary and follicular) demonstrated a excellent survival prognosis (95 % at 30 years for the majority of the patients), factors of prognosis: age, size of the initial tumor, presence (or not) of distant metastases, lymph node involvement (only in patients 45 year or older). Surgery is the main treatment and should be with curative intent, hence the importance of a thorough preoperative work-up: sonography, needle aspiration cytology and MRI of cervicomediastinum for large tumors and/or suspected lymph nodes. Total thyroidectomy is mandatory, excepted for well selected patients with small (pT1) unilateral tumors under the age of 45. Central compartment lymph node clearance is advocated (but not evidence based) with presentation of the recurrent laryngeal nerves and of the parathyroids. Ablation of residual thyroid tissue (Iode 131) should be advocated for patients at high (or intermediary) risk of recurrence, only after multidisciplinary concertation. Unlimited follow-up checking the thyroglobulin serum local after the total thyroidectomy and radioactive ablation, the availability of recombinant rhTSH avoids the withdrawal of thyroid hormones (hypothyroid period). Anaplastic carcinomas are very aggressive, no therapeutic solution, excepted in some selected case for when radical surgery is possible (flap reconstruction) followed by chemoradiation. Calcitoninenia to detect and to follow medullary thyroid cancer after total thyroidectomy and lymph node clearance." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en558_13568", "title": "Computed tomography of the thyroid", "score": 0.009324394017534812, "content": "On CT scans, a malignant lesion is suspected when the margins are ill-defined and there is extra-thyroid extension, lymph node involvement, or invasion of the surrounding structures. The absence of these features does not exclude malignant tumours, especially papillary, follicular, and medullary thyroid carcinomas (Fig. 3). Therefore, ultrasound is the modality of choice for thyroid lesion evaluation, due to its superior spatial resolution compared to CT examinations. Sonographic features of malignancy are micro-calcifications, acoustic shadowing, anti-parallel orientation, marked hypoechogenicity, irregular or microlobulated margins, and increased vascularity. CT scans lack the ability to detect these reliable sonographic signs of malignancy. Therefore, further management of ITNs, if required, usually begins with thyroid ultrasound and FNA should be considered according to the ultrasound findings." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 238, 274 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 36, 44 ] ], "text": "Answer 1 can be ruled out visu visu," }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 70, 237 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 12, 36 ] ], "text": "positive HER2 receptors imply greater aggressiveness of the tumor but treatment with trastuzumab and positive hormone receptors would imply the use of hormone therapy." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 281, 444 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 45, 74 ] ], "text": "answers 3 and 4 should be ruled out since, being the first woman in the family with breast carcinoma, the study of the patient's relatives would not be obligatory." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 281, 444 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 45, 74 ] ], "text": "answers 3 and 4 should be ruled out since, being the first woman in the family with breast carcinoma, the study of the patient's relatives would not be obligatory." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Complete phenotypic study by flow cytometry.", "2": "Study of hormone receptors and HER2.", "3": "Study of hormone receptors, e-cadherin and study of first degree relatives.", "4": "Study of BRCA 1-2 and study of first-degree relatives.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0267_6734", "title": "The significance of family history for patients with carcinoma of the breast.", "score": 0.01532967032967033, "content": "Since the risk of carcinoma of the breast is increased in women with a family history of the disease, new primary carcinomas of the breast may be increased after treatment. Women with several relatives with carcinoma of the breast are thought to be at higher risk of having a second primary carcinoma of the breast develop and mastectomy is more frequently recommended. The computerized registry of the Mount Sinai Medical Center Breast Service was used to identify 1,337 patients with complete information concerning family history. Three hundred fifty-nine patients with a family history of carcinoma of the breast were compared with women with no family history. Compared with patients with no family history of carcinoma of the breast, patients with a family history of carcinoma of the breast were significantly younger (54.0 versus 55.8 years of age, p &lt; 0.01), were significantly more likely to have used oral contraceptives (26 versus 13 percent, p &lt; 0.001), had significantly more ductal carcinoma in situ (10 versus 4 percent, p &lt; 0.01), and were significantly more often treated with breast conservation (42 versus 31 percent, p &lt; 0.001). Simultaneous contralateral carcinoma of the breast was diagnosed more frequently in patients with a family history (3 versus 1 percent, p &lt; 0.025), but metachronous contralateral carcinomas were not increased. In comparing the two groups, there were no significant differences in proportion premenopausal, parity, use of postmenopausal hormones, tumor size, tumor differentiation, nodal involvement, TNM stage, estrogen receptor status, or use of adjuvant radiation, chemotherapy, or tamoxifen. Complete five-year follow-up evaluation for 748 patients, 179 with a family history, found no differences in local, distant, or disease-free survival rates for mastectomy or breast conservation in relation to family history. Outcome for patients with first-degree affected relatives and those with more than one affected relative was the same as those with no family history. These results indicate that women with a family history of carcinoma of the breast should be treated no differently than women with no family history." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en304_20305", "title": "BRCA mutation", "score": 0.013982004234297813, "content": "Relative indications for testing for a mutation in BRCA1 or BRCA2 for newly diagnosed or family members include a family history among 1st (FDR), 2nd (SDR), or 3rd(TDR) degree relatives usually on the same side of the family but not limited: A known mutation (BRCA1 or BRCA2) in a cancer susceptibility gene within the family Women affected with any breast cancer diagnosed under the age of 30 Women affected with triple negative breast cancer (TNBC) (estrogen receptor negative, progesterone receptor negative, and HER2/neu negative) under the age of 50 Two relatives (FDR/SDR) diagnosed under the age of 45 Three relatives (FDR/SDR) diagnosed with average age of 50 or less Four relatives at any ages Ovarian cancer with either an additional diagnosed relative or a relative with male breast cancer A single family member with both breast and ovarian cancer Male breast cancer Pancreatic cancer with breast or ovarian cancer in the same individual or on the same side of the family" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1012_9657", "title": "Clinical features and first degree relative breast cancer, their correlation with histological tumor grade: a 5-year retrospective case study of breast cancer in Mizoram, India.", "score": 0.013615803563186559, "content": "The aim was to assess the association of histological tumor grade with other clinical features and epidemiological factors of women with invasive breast carcinoma. A retrospective study of 103 Mizo breast cancer patients visiting hospitals was made in Aizawl, Mizoram, Northeast India. With a prior consent, information on epidemiological factors and family history in relation to cancer was obtained. Clinical reports were obtained from their medical records. The frequency of distribution was calculated for age at diagnosis and tumor characteristics. Statistical analysis for different variables was done using a chi-square test. p &lt; 0.05 was considered significant. The histological tumor grades in our studies were found to be associated with lymph node invasion (p &lt; 0.021), different subtype of hormone receptor such as ER status (p &lt; 0.004), ER/PR status (p &lt; 0.007), HER2/neu status (p &lt; 0.014), and ER/PR/HER2 status (p &lt; 0.025). A patient with a family history of breast cancer in their 1st degree relative is also seen to have association in determining the tumor grade (p &lt; 0.003). Reproductive history, lifestyle and dietary habits, tobacco, and alcohol consumption were found to have no influence on breast cancer tumor grade. Our results showing significant correlation between status of lymph node, ER, PR, and HER2/neu oncoprotein and family history with 1st degree relative breast cancer are the first time report to target and focus on the possible role of biomarkers for diagnosis among the Mizo tribal breast cancer patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0556_5828", "title": "Influence of young age at diagnosis and family history of breast or ovarian cancer on breast cancer outcomes in a population-based cohort study.", "score": 0.013565203675223785, "content": "The objective of this study was to examine the association of: (i) diagnosis at age &lt;/=35, (ii) first-degree family history of breast or ovarian cancer (BOC) and (iii) a research based definition of genetic risk, with tumor characteristics, treatment and survival in breast cancer (BC). Consenting female participants in the population-based Ontario Familial Breast Cancer Registry diagnosed with primary invasive BC between 1996 and 1998 were followed prospectively until 2005. Among 967 women, 105 were &lt;/=35 years old at diagnosis and 686 were classified as genetic risk cases, including 349 with a first-degree family history. Individuals diagnosed at age &lt;/=35 were more likely to self-detect tumors, to present with inflammatory BC, to have invasive ductal carcinoma of no special type, high T stage, and tumors with lymphovascular invasion (LVI), high grade and negative estrogen receptors. Younger women were more likely to receive chemotherapy and less likely to receive hormonal therapy. Diagnosis &lt;/=35 years old was associated with significantly reduced distant recurrence free survival, an effect that did not persist after adjustment for tumor and treatment related variables. Poor outcomes were restricted to younger women with hormone responsive BC. Family history was associated with increased rates of mammographic detection of BC, lower tumor stage and less frequent inflammatory BC, but had no association with BC outcomes. Women diagnosed with BC at age &lt;/=35 have more aggressive tumors; these adverse tumor characteristics, rather than age, lead to poor outcomes. Family history was not associated with survival." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en377_32343", "title": "Cancer biomarker", "score": 0.01309090909090909, "content": "Similarly, additional laboratory research has shown that tumor cells undergoing apoptosis can release cellular components such as cytochrome c, nucleosomes, cleaved cytokeratin-18, and E-cadherin. Studies have found that these macromolecules and others can be found in circulation during cancer therapy, providing a potential source of clinical metrics for monitoring treatment. Recurrence Cancer biomarkers can also offer value in predicting or monitoring cancer recurrence. The Oncotype DX® breast cancer assay is one such test used to predict the likelihood of breast cancer recurrence. This test is intended for women with early-stage (Stage I or II), node-negative, estrogen receptor-positive (ER+) invasive breast cancer who will be treated with hormone therapy. Oncotype DX looks at a panel of 21 genes in cells taken during tumor biopsy. The results of the test are given in the form of a recurrence score that indicates likelihood of recurrence at 10 years." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0657_19800", "title": "Four new cases of double heterozygosity for BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene mutations: clinical, pathological, and family characteristics.", "score": 0.012987497667475275, "content": "Double heterozygosity (DH) for BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations is a very rare finding, particularly in non-Ashkenazi individuals, and only a few cases have been reported to date. In addition, little is known on the pathological features of the tumors that occur in DH cases and on their family history of cancer. Four carriers of pathogenic mutations in both BRCA1 and BRCA2 were identified among women who underwent genetic counseling for hereditary susceptibility to breast and ovarian carcinoma at three different Italian institutions. Clinical, pathological, and family history data were collected from medical records and during genetic counseling sessions. All identified DH cases developed breast carcinoma and three of them were also diagnosed with ovarian carcinoma. Mean ages of breast and ovarian cancer diagnosis were 42.7 and 48.6 years, respectively. The majority of breast cancers showed a BRCA1-related phenotype, being negative for hormone receptors and HER2. Two cases reported different gastrointestinal tumors among relatives. Although the individuals described in this study show more severe clinical features in comparison to previously reported BRCA1 and BRCA2 DH cases, our observations support the hypothesis of a non specific phenotype of DH cases in terms of age of disease onset. In addition, our observations indicate that in DH patients breast carcinogenesis appears to be driven mainly by the mutations in BRCA1. The possible association of DH for BRCA gene mutations with gastrointestinal tumors is in keeping with previous reports, but needs to be confirmed by further analyses." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0671_14807", "title": "Family history of breast cancer in first-degree relatives and triple-negative breast cancer risk.", "score": 0.012751187431494337, "content": "Triple-negative breast cancer accounts for less than 20% of breast cancers overall, but is the predominant subtype among carriers of mutations in BRCA1. However, few studies have assessed the association between breast cancer family history and risk of triple-negative breast cancer. We examined the relationship between having a family history of breast cancer in first-degree relatives and risk of triple-negative breast cancer, and risk of two other breast cancer subtypes defined by tumor marker expression. We evaluated data collected by the Breast Cancer Surveillance Consortium from 2,599,946 mammograms on 1,054,466 women, among whom 15% reported a first-degree family history of breast cancer. Using Cox regression in this cohort, we evaluated subtype-specific associations between family history and risk of triple-negative (N = 705), estrogen receptor-positive (ER+, N = 10,026), and hormone receptor-negative/HER2-expressing (ER-/PR-/HER2+, N = 308) breast cancer among women aged 40-84 years. First-degree family history was similarly and significantly associated with an increased risk of all the subtypes [hazard ratio (HR) = 1.73, 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.43-2.09, HR = 1.62, 95% CI: 1.54-1.70, and HR = 1.56, 95% CI: 1.15-2.13, for triple-negative, ER+, and ER-/PR-/HER2+, respectively]. Risk of all the subtypes was most pronounced among women with at least two affected first-degree relatives (versus women with no affected first-degree relatives, HR(triple-negative) = 2.66, 95% CI: 1.66-4.27, HR(ER+) = 2.05, 95% CI: 1.79-2.36, HR(ER)-(/PR)-(/HER2+) = 2.25, 95% CI: 0.99-5.08). Having a first-degree family history of breast cancer was associated with an increased risk of triple-negative breast cancer with a magnitude of association similar to that for the predominant ER+ subtype and ER-/PR-/HER2+ breast cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0887_4130", "title": "Seven-year survey of classical and pleomorphic invasive lobular breast carcinomas in women from southeastern Serbia: Differences in clinicopathological and immunohistochemical features.", "score": 0.012678046358880361, "content": "The occurrence of different variants of invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC) of the breast is variable. For example, the pleomorphic variant of ILC has an incidence of around 5%; however, the number of analyzed cases of ILC is shadowed by the number of ductal type carcinoma (IDC). Thus, we aimed to analyze the classical and pleomorphic ILCs in women from southeastern Serbia. Analyzed were 296 cases (11.91%) diagnosed with ILC, out of 2486 cases of all breast cancers (BCs), during a 7-year period (2005-2011) from southeastern Serbia. The differences in clinicopathological and immunohistochemical features (estrogen receptor/ER, progesterone receptor/ PR, HER-2, Ki-67, BRCA-1, p53 and E-cadherin) of these cases of ILCs were assessed and compared. Pleomorphic ILC occurred relatively rarely compared to other variants, however almost one fifth of the ILC cases were pleomorphic. No statistically significant correlation was found between patient age, tumor stage and the presence/absence of multifocality (MFC), multicentricity (MCC) and bilaterality (BL) on one side, and ILC variant on the other. Only the expression of two prognostic and predictive immunohistochemical markers, important for endocrine therapy, ER and PR, showed significant correlation with the ILC variant. Although higher tumor stage, incidence of multicentricity, overexpression of HER2 and higher p53 positivity were deemed to be characteristic of pleomorphic ILC, in our study that included a much larger number of cases than previous studies did, such correlations were not observed. Thus, it appears that the only two features of pleomorphic ILCs is absence of ER and PR positivity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0715_5826", "title": "Negative/low HER2 expression alone or combined with E-cadherin positivity is predictive of better prognosis in patients with breast carcinoma.", "score": 0.012490640528214553, "content": "The loss of E-cadherin expression leads to absence of tissue integrity, an essential step in tumor progression. Methylation of CpG islands in the promoter region of the CDH1 gene coding E-cadherin might be an alternative for gene silencing. In the present study, we investigate the expression of E-cadherin and hormone receptors in invasive ductal breast carcinoma (IDCs). Protein expression was analysed immunohistochemically in 87 cases, including 26 familial tumors. The most interesting results revealed a significantly reduced E-cadherin expression in cases with familial history compared to sporadic tumors (p=0.009), as well as with tumors ≤5 cm (p=0.022). Moreover, HER2 over-expression was associated with distant metastasis (p=0.011) and overall survival (p log rank=0.028). Tumors displaying negative/low HER2 expression combined with E-cadherin positivity confer better patient survival (p=0.052). Triple Negative tumors (TN) were more frequently found in patients with advanced grade (GIII) (p=0.001) and TNM (III+IV) (p=0.018) which supports the aggressive behavior of TN tumors. On the other hand, hypermethylation of CDH1 gene promoter was observed in 46% of hereditary cases and strongly associated with loss of E-cadherin expression (p=0.002). Furthermore, patients with unmethylated CDH1 pattern have a better 5-year disease free survival (p=0.021). In conclusion, in patients with hereditary breast cancer, the CpG methylation event contributes to the loss of E-cadherin expression. On the other hand, HER2 over-expression is predictive of worse prognosis, either alone or combined with loss of E-cadherin expression in Tunisian patients with breast cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0519_19911", "title": "The molecular pathology of hereditary breast cancer: genetic testing and therapeutic implications.", "score": 0.012462686567164179, "content": "Cancer arising in carriers of mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes differs from sporadic breast cancer of age-matched controls and from non-BRCA1/2 familial breast carcinomas in its morphological, immunophenotypic and molecular characteristics. Most BRCA1 carcinomas have the basal cell phenotype, a subtype of high-grade, highly proliferating, estrogen receptor- and HER2-negative breast carcinomas, characterized by the expression of basal or myoepithelial markers such as basal keratins, P-cadherin, epidermal growth factor receptor, etc. This phenotype is rarely found in BRCA2 carcinomas, which are of higher grade than sporadic age-matched controls, but tend to be estrogen receptor- and progesterone receptor-positive. The expression of the cell-cycle proteins cyclins A, B1 and E and SKP2 is associated with a BRCA1 phenotype, whereas cyclin D1 and p27 expression is associated with BRCA2 carcinomas. Recent studies have shown that hereditary carcinomas that are not attributable to BRCA1/2 mutations have phenotypic similarities to BRCA2 tumors, but tend to be of lower grade and proliferation index. Somatic mutations in the BRCA genes are rarely found in hereditary tumors; by contrast, BRCA1 and BRCA2 loss of heterozygosity (LOH) is found in almost all BRCA1 and BRCA2 carcinomas, respectively. Furthermore, all types of hereditary breast carcinomas have a low frequency of HER2 expression. Finally, comparative genomic hybridization studies have revealed differences in chromosomal gains and losses between genotypes. The pathological and molecular features of hereditary breast cancer can drive specific treatments and influence the process of mutation screening. In addition, detecting molecular changes such as BRCA1/2 LOH in nonatypical cells obtained by random fine-needle aspiration, ductal lavage or nipple aspirate fluid may help to earlier identify carrier women who are at an even higher risk of developing breast carcinoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0289_14463", "title": "Breast cancer and family history: a multivariate analysis of levels of tumor HER2 protein and family history of cancer in women who have breast cancer.", "score": 0.012155513393574943, "content": "The HER2 gene, located on the long arm of chromosome 17, codes for a protein with the characteristics of a growth factor receptor. In a preliminary study, we reported that high levels of tumor HER2 (erbB-2/neu) protein are associated with a family history of breast cancer (that is, one or more female blood relatives with breast cancer). We have now collected a larger number of subjects (94) and performed a multivariate analysis of the independent variables family history of breast cancer, tumor estrogen receptor, age, and tumor DNA index. Family history of breast cancer was assessed by questioning the patient, in many cases by telephone. HER2 levels were significantly higher in women with a family history of breast cancer (p = 0.015, two-tailed t-test). The 27 women with family history were predominantly postmenopausal, mean age 61 +/- 2.3 (mean +/- SEM), versus a mean age of 56 +/- 1.7 for the 67 women with no family history. Of the 27 women with a family history of breast cancer, 13 had a first-degree relative (mother or sister) with the disease. The remaining 14 women had other relatives (grandmothers, aunts, cousins, or a niece) with breast cancer. The results of multiple linear regression analysis, with HER2 as the dependent variable, showed that family history of breast cancer was significantly associated with elevated HER2 levels in the tumors (p = 0.0038), after controlling for the effects of age, tumor estrogen receptor, and DNA index. The association of family history of breast cancer and elevated tumor HER2 protein suggests that postmenopausal familial breast cancer may be associated with altered HER2 expression." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0976_164", "title": "BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations in Japanese women with ductal carcinoma in situ.", "score": 0.01186954071569456, "content": "Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is considered a component of the clinical spectrum of breast cancer even in those with BRCA1/2 mutation. The aim of this study was to report the feature of DCIS raised in Japanese women with BRCA1/2 mutations. A total of 325 Japanese women with breast cancer (BC) (with or without invasive cancer) were referred for genetic counseling and underwent genetic testing for mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes in Showa University Hospital between December 2011 and August 2016. And 49 of them who were pathologically diagnosed as DCIS were included in this study. Logistic regression models were fit to determine the associations between potential predictive factors and BRCA status. A Cox proportional hazards model is used to predictive value of parameters for Ipsilateral breast tumor recurrence (IBTR) and contralateral breast tumor recurrence (CBTR). (a) Of 325 patients (with or without invasive cancer), 19.1% (62/325) tested positive for BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations. And 18.4% (9/49) was positive for BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations in DCIS, compared with 19.2% (53/276) in IDC (p = 1.000). Among BRCA mutations, 14.5% (9/62) had DCIS compared with nonmutations (15.2%, 40/263). Incidence of DCIS was 3.0% (1/33) of BRCA1 mutations and 27.5% (8/29) of BRCA2 mutation (p = 0.009). (b) Median age of diagnosis in BRCA mutation carriers was 39 years, compared with 46 years in noncarriers. Age, Family history (FH) of BC, FH of first or second BC and total number of relatives with BC diagnosis (DX) has significant difference between BRCA mutation carriers and noncarriers in univariate analysis. In a multivariate logistic model, total relatives with BC DX ≥ 2 (odds ratio [OR], 5.128; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.266-20.763; p = 0.022), age at diagnosis ≤35 years (OR 0.149, 95% CI 0.023-0.954, p = 0.045) and ER+/HER2+ status (OR 5.034, 95% CI 1.092-23.210, p = 0.038) remained as independent significant predictors for BRCA mutation. Ki67 index (cut off by 14% or 30%) did not differ between BRCA mutation carriers and noncarriers (p = 0.459 and p = 0.651). (c) There was a significant difference in ER-positive tumors among BRCA2 carriers and noncarriers (p = 0.042). Subgroup analysis showed BRCA2 carriers tend to be of higher grade (Grade 2 and 3), more frequently ER+/PR+ (p = 0.041) and lower proliferation (Ki67 index) than noncarriers, whereas differences in nuclear grade and ki67 index were not found significantly in our study. (d) BRCA mutation was not associated with an increased risk of IBTR and CBTR. DCIS is equally as prevalent in patients who were BRCA mutation carriers as in high familial-risk women who were noncarriers, but occurs at earlier age. BRCA2 carriers have higher incidence in DCIS than that of BRCA1 carriers, and tend to be higher grade and more frequently ER positive and lower proliferation. Total relatives with BC DX ≥2, age at diagnosis ≤35 years and ER+/HER2+ might be independent predictors for BRCA mutation in Japanese women with DCIS and patients of these risk factors should be recommended to receive genetic counseling and BRCA testing." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en192_25057", "title": "Basal-like carcinoma", "score": 0.011253196930946292, "content": "The most common histopathological type is invasive ductal carcinoma. It can also be metaplastic carcinoma, medullary carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma, with high grade, high mitosis count. Central necrosis, apoptotic cells, and stroma lymphocyte reaction and a small amount of interstitial components can be seen through microscopic examination. In BLBC, p53 mutations are usually found and the expression epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR or HER-1) and c-kit are usually positive. Through the genetic hybridization techniques, BLBC is verified to have the most complex gene phenotypes. The relationship between BLBC and familial BRCA1-associated breast cancer has been discussed in recent years. Several studies have demonstrated that BRCA1-associated breast cancer is more likely to be a BLBC. However, there are few BRCA1 mutations in BLBC, indicating that it is likely to be epigenetic changes. Studies have reported that the negative regulatory factor of BRCA1 gene, ID4, is often" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en191_9178", "title": "Metaplastic carcinoma", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Metaplastic carcinoma, otherwise known as metaplastic carcinoma of the breast (MCB), is a heterogeneous group of cancers that exhibit varied patterns of metaplasia and differentiation along multiple cell lines. This rare and aggressive form of breast cancer is characterized as being composed of a mixed group of neoplasms containing both glandular and non-glandular patterns with epithelial and/or mesenchymal components. It accounts for fewer than 1% of all breast cancer diagnoses. It is most closely associated with invasive ductal carcinoma of no special type. (IDC), and shares similar treatment approaches. Relative to IDC, MCB generally has higher histological grade and larger tumor size at time of diagnosis, with a lower incidence of axillary lymph node involvement. MCB tumors are typically estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor-2 (HER-2) negative, meaning hormone therapy is generally not an effective treatment option, which correlates to" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0598_18737", "title": "Breast cancer expression of E-cadherin does not differ between patients with positive and negative oncological history.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The question of whether or not non-sporadic breast malignancies have different immunohistochemical features than sporadic malignancies has not been investigated previously. Consequently, the purpose of this study was to compare the expression of E-cadherin (EC) in breast cancer patients with positive and negative oncologic histories. The study included 98 breast cancer patients divided into two groups: 1) without the personal or familial history of previous malignancies, and 2) with the personal history of previous malignancies and/or with the data on cancer episodes in first- and/or second-degree relatives. There were no significant differences in the expression of EC between breast malignancies of the two groups. Moreover, statistical relationships were not observed between the positive or negative oncologic history, the age, and the menopausal status of patients, or histological tumor grade. Although the results of our series revealed no significant differences in the expression of EC between assumed sporadic and assumed non-sporadic malignancies, there is a need for further comparative studies on the immunohistochemistry of both the breast carcinoma types in order to find the other biological markers that could suggest or exclude cancer susceptibility in a given patient. Nevertheless, the results of our study suggest that EC immunohistochemistry cannot be used as a surrogate marker for screening for hereditary breast cancer." }, { "id": "article-18576_4", "title": "Male Breast Cancer -- Etiology", "score": 0.0098893888263967, "content": "Similarly to women, males have a higher risk of breast cancer if they have a first- or second-degree relative with breast cancer. Studies have shown that an affected sibling or parent of either gender may increase the risk of breast cancer in either the males or females in the family. Bevier et al. (2012) noted in their study that the relative risk (RR) of breast cancer was similar in either offspring when the father or mother was affected (RR = 1.73 and 1.74, respectively), but the risk was slightly higher in the females when the brother is affected as opposed to when the sister is affected (RR = 2.48 and 1.39, respectively). [3] Also, in addition to a family history of breast cancer, males with a BRCA mutation appear to have increased risk for breast cancer as well. Although rare for a male to have a BRCA mutation, those with BRCA2 carrier mutation have a 6% increased risk and BRCA1 with a 4% risk of developing the disease. [4] Other genetic disorders have been implicated in increasing the risk of MBC, including Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY), Cowden syndrome ( PTEN tumor suppressor gene), Li-Fraumeni syndrome ( TP53 ), Lynch syndrome ( PALB2 and mismatch repair genes). [2] [4]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en188_32824", "title": "Somatostatin receptor 2", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "other components of the endocrine system and nervous system, so it can be drawn that the receptor family has great influence among these systems. The family was first discovered in a segment of a rat's pituitary gland known as the tumor cell line. A cell line is grown as a culture under controlled conditions, so the first discovery was found by culturing these cells in controlled conditions and in an environment outside of its norm. There, researchers found that the tumor cell line expresses a cell dividing inhibitor known as the transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta) and also acts as an inhibitor to the milk producing hormone in female mammals, prolactin, and growth hormones. Researchers studied the activity of the receptors by conducting an assay with Ligand binding studies, which basically means they were conducting studies to see how prevalent the binding of the receptors occurred. Differences in how prevalently they receptors bonded revealed the existence of multiple" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0396_8364", "title": "Does family history influence survival in breast cancer cases?", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A few studies have suggested a relatively better prognosis for breast cancer (BC) cases reporting a positive family history (FH). We aimed at comparing the survival of patients according to FH in a large hospital-based series of 1,278 BC cases. Information on FH for BC was obtained at diagnosis by interview. All cases reporting a first- or second-degree FH for breast carcinoma were compared with cases without FH. Overall survival was estimated using a product-limit method. Hazard ratios (HRs) and the corresponding 95% confidence intervals (95% CIs), adjusted for confounding factors, were computed using proportional hazard models. Overall, 240 (18.8%) cases reporting, at diagnosis, a positive FH (156 with at least 1 first-degree relative and 84 with at least 1 second-degree relative) were compared with 1,038 patients without FH for BC. No significant differences were found in terms of distribution of age at diagnosis, tumor stage, nodal involvement, receptor status and histology. Cumulative survival rates at 5 years for cases without FH and with first-degree and second-degree FH for BC were 79.8 (95% CI 77.0-83.0), 78.6 (95% CI 70.0-88.0) and 80.2 (95% CI 68.0-92.0), respectively (log-rank test, chi(2) (2) = 0.02, p = 1.0). After adjustment for age, pathologic size and nodal involvement, the HR among cases of invasive cancer with a first-degree FH of BC was 0.91 (95% CI 0.55-1.48); however, the HR for cases with second-degree FH was 1.18 (95% CI 0.62-2.25) compared to cases without FH. Our study, based on a large series of consecutive invasive BC cases, did not find any significant survival differences associated with a positive FH for breast carcinoma, suggesting the existence of a large heterogeneity among BC cases with FH." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en301_10160", "title": "Combined small-cell lung carcinoma", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Pemetrexed has been shown to improve survival in non-squamous cell NSCLC, and is the first drug to reveal differential survival benefit in large cell lung carcinoma. C-SCLC appear to express female hormone (i.e. estrogen and/or progesterone) receptors in a high (50–67%) proportion of cases, similar to breast carcinomas. However, it is at present unknown whether blockade of these receptors affects the growth of c-SCLC. Prognosis Current consensus is that the long-term prognosis of c-SCLC patients is determined by the SCLC component of their tumor, given that \"pure\" SCLC seems to have the worst long-term prognosis of all forms of lung cancer. Although data on c-SCLC is very sparse, some studies suggest that survival rates in c-SCLC may be even worse than that of pure SCLC, likely due to the lower rate of complete response to chemoradiation in c-SCLC, although not all studies have shown a significant difference in survival." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0324_15364", "title": "Clinical characteristics of breast cancer patients with family history.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "This study was conducted to acquire information as to the clinicopathological characteristics of breast cancer patients with family history. Of 583 patients with breast cancer, 60 (10.3%) had family history in at least one relative within the second-degree. The affected family member was most frequently a sister (43%), followed by the mother (23%) and an aunt (20%). Comparison of the data for the patients between with and without family history revealed no significant differences for any of mean age, menopausal status, histological type, histological staging, and estrogen receptor status. Although the sample size was small, neither the survival rate nor the bilaterality of disease was influenced by the family history of breast cancer." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en034_42642", "title": "Selective estrogen receptor modulator", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Tamoxifen is a first-line hormonal treatment of ER-positive metastatic breast cancer. It is used for breast cancer risk reduction in women at high risk, and as adjuvant treatment of axillary node-negative and node-positive, ductal carcinoma in situ. Tamoxifen treatment is also useful in the treatment of bone density and blood lipids in postmenopausal women. Adverse effects include hot flushes and more serious is two to three times higher relative risk of developing endometrial cancer compared to women of an age-matched population. Toremifene, a chlorinated tamoxifen derivative, causes fewer DNA adducts in liver than seen with tamoxifen in preclinical studies and was developed to avoid hepatic carcinomas. It is used as endocrine therapy in women with ER/PR-positive stage 4 or recurrent metastatic breast cancer and has demonstrated similar efficacy compared to tamoxifen as adjuvant treatment of breast cancer and in the treatment of metastatic breast cancer." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en188_32364", "title": "Parathyroid hormone 1 receptor", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Interactions Parathyroid hormone 1 receptor has been shown to interact with Sodium-hydrogen exchange regulatory cofactor 2 and Sodium-hydrogen antiporter 3 regulator 1. Model organisms Model organisms have been used in the study of PTH1R function. A conditional knockout mouse line called Pth1rtm1a(EUCOMM)Hmgu was generated at the Wellcome Trust Sanger Institute. Male and female animals underwent a standardized phenotypic screen to determine the effects of deletion. Additional screens performed: - In-depth immunological phenotyping See also Parathyroid hormone receptor References Further reading External links G protein-coupled receptors" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0494_12555", "title": "Prognosis of breast cancer patients with familial history classified according to their menopausal status.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Breast cancer patients were classified in the family history positive (FHP) group when they had at least one second-degree relative who was a breast cancer patient. The results of a comparative study with patients classified in the family history negative (FHN) group showed the prognosis of the FHP group was significantly better than that of the FHN group. However, when those patients were classified according to their menopausal status at onset, there were no significant differences in survival rates between the FHP and FHN groups with onset before menopause, whereas the survival rate of the FHP group was significantly higher than that of the FHN group with onset after menopause. The same results were found when the FHP group was subgrouped into the FHP group with first-degree relatives and the FHP group with second-degree relatives. Further investigations on background factors revealed that the patients with onset before menopause showed no significant differences between the FHP and FHN groups in age at surgery, diameter of the tumor, histologic grade, the number of metastatic lymph nodes, body weight, estrogen receptor (ER) status, and the values of CEA and CA15-3 before surgery. On the other hand, the FHP patients with onset after menopause showed significantly lower numbers of metastatic lymph nodes and trends showing higher ER values and lower CA15-3-values. Therefore the favorable prognosis in the FHP group seems to be attributable to the higher survival rate of the FHP patients with onset after menopause." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en615_20221", "title": "Karen E. Knudsen", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Research Knudsen is an oncology researcher whose studies are focused on precision medicine in advanced prostate cancer, with an emphasis on understanding therapeutic relapse and designing new means of clinical intervention. Her translational studies have resulted in new clinical trials targeting DNA repair, cell cycle, and hormonal regulation pathways in patients with advanced disease. Knudsen and her colleagues discovered the mechanisms by which androgen signaling impacts cancer cell proliferation and DNA repair processes, and identified novel strategies for therapeutic intervention. Notable discoveries include identification of RB tumor suppressor loss as a major mechanism of therapeutic bypass, discovery of the androgen-DNA repair axis, and elucidation of androgen receptor function in the mitotic cell cycle. Her discoveries were amongst the first to propose utilization of PARP 1/2 inhibitors for advanced disease, now an FDA-approved agent for selected prostate cancers." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0263_11157", "title": "A clinicopathological analysis of breast cancer in patients with a family history.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A study was conducted to investigate the clinical and pathological characteristics of breast cancer in patients with a family history (FH). Among 4,481 primary breast cancer patients, 394 (8.8%) had families which included two or more breast cancer patients within three generations (FH(+)group). This group was compared with the remaining 3,969 patients (FH(-) group) with the following results: (1) The tumor diameter in the FH(+) group was slightly less than that in the FH(-) group [not significant (NS)], with fewer lymph node metastases (P &lt; 0.05); (2) the positive rates for the estrogen receptor were 52% (138/266) and 49% (1,216/2,481), respectively (NS); (3) expression of the c-erbB-2 protein was observed in 14 out of 40 (35%) and 32 out of 100 cases (32%), respectively (NS); (4) the relative risk of bilateral occurrence in the FH(+) group was 1.4, with a 95% confidence interval of 0.9-2.4; (5) the 15-year survival rate was 72% and 60%, respectively, suggesting a better prognosis for the FH(+) group (P &lt; 0.01); and (6) multivariate analysis showed that the contribution of FH to postoperative survival was marginal (P = 0.07). Factors related to the hormonal environment such as age at menarche (P = 0.08) and age at menopause (P = 0.08) made a greater but non-significant contribution to the prognosis of the FH(+) group than to that of the FH(-) group. However, further genetic and molecular biological analyses of familial breast cancer are needed in order to clarify the mechanisms of cancer accumulation within families." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en490_9660", "title": "Abemaciclib", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "As of early 2016, abemaciclib was involved in 3 Phase III clinical trials: The JUNIPER Study is comparing abemaciclib against erlotinib in patients with stage IV non-small-cell lung carcinoma Due to collect data until September 2017. The MONARCH 2 study is investigating the effectiveness of abemaciclib in combination with fulvestrant for women with breast cancer. It is due to end in Feb 2017. In March 2017, Eli Lilly announced that it had met its primary endpoint of superior progression-free survival (PFS) over placebo plus fulvestrant in patients with estrogen receptor positive and HER2 negative advanced or metastatic breast cancer. This result led to the September 2017 FDA approval. The MONARCH 3 study is investigating the effectiveness of abemaciclib, plus either anastrozole or letrozole, as a first-line treatment for women with breast cancer. The trial is expected to end in June 2017." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en406_12297", "title": "Dynamic angiothermography", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "DATG is able to detect changes in blood flow that are indicative of breast cancer, may be used for younger patients, is completely non-invasive (no need for radiation or contrast agent, no need for compression of the breast) and is lower cost than alternatives requiring minimal facilities. This technology, performed quickly (5–6 minutes for visit) and very precise, is useful for screening and is also able to detect precancerous lesions. Studies have been conducted that have shown how it is possible, by means of this methodology, to diagnose invasive ductal carcinoma and infiltrating lobular carcinoma with the same accuracy. DATG can be strategic for young patients, or patients with dense breasts where the contrastive performance of mammography is challenged. Another application of DATG is the monitoring of at-risk patients with increased changes of breast cancer who take hormone replacement therapy (sometimes taken to reduce menopause symptoms) and participate in in-vitro" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0416_23268", "title": "Linking Histopathology and Family History in Breast Cancer.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "In order to assess the prognostic value of family history (FH) of malignancies in patients afflicted with breast cancer (BC), we examined FH and histopathologic characteristics of 542 Iranian primary BC patients. Cases with distant metastasis at the time of diagnosis were excluded. Mean age of the studied population was 49 and the most common presenting stage was stage IIA followed by stage IIB. Data on a total of 6089 relatives (1st to 4th generations with the assumption of probands as the 3rd generation) were gathered. FH of BC and other malignancies (OM) was positive in 29 and 54% of cases, respectively. The most common OM's were gastric (67), lung (52) and uterus (47) cancers. We found that a FH of BC does not have any significant correlation with proven prognostic factors but a history of BC among relatives at or before the age of 36 is associated with more aggressive tumours. On the other hand, although FH of OM was associated with an older age of the probands (which is generally associated with a favourable prognosis), tumours of the cases with FH of OM had higher grades, lymphatic invasion being detected more frequently. Also we noted that the younger the age of the relatives diagnosed with cancer, the higher the stage of the probands themselves. All together our study indicates the possibility of a relation between FH of BC and OM, and histopathologic characteristics of the probands' tumours which would put forward FH as a prognostic factor rather than a simple risk factor in BC." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0759_12700", "title": "Retrospective analysis of clinicopathological characteristics and family history data of early-onset breast cancer: a single-institutional study of Hungarian patients.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Patients at young age (≤ 35 years) diagnosed with breast cancer (BC) are considered to have poor prognosis. The aim of the present study was to retrospectively analyse clinicopathological characteristics and prognosis in a group of young BC patients. We included women diagnosed with invasive breast carcinoma younger than/or at the age of 35 years. Between 1999 and 2009, 107 women with early-onset BC were selected from the database of the 2nd Department of Pathology at Semmelweis University. For clinicopathological comparison, 55 women (36-45 years), 214 women (46-65 years), 110 women (66-75 years) and 58 women (76 ≤ years) were also included in the analysis. Family history, clinicopathological and follow-up data were analysed. The tissue specimens were reviewed for histological type, nuclear grade, and estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PgR), Ki67 and HER2 status (IHC4). The mean age in the study group was 31.6 years at the time of diagnosis. Histology showed a high incidence of grade III tumours in this group of patients (67.9 %), while only four cases (3.8 %) were considered grade I. According to the immunohistochemical results, 35.3 % of the study cases were considered as Luminal B (LumB: either being higly proliferative or co-expressing HER2) and 33.3 % as triple negative breast carcinomas (TNBC). The detailed questionnaire related to family history was completed and received in 49/107 cases (45.8 %). Analysis of these data revealed an affected family history of breast or ovarian carcinoma in first and second degree relatives in 51.0 %. A high proportion (52.0 %) of TNBC was observed among young women with a family history of the disease. Survival analysis of the 107 patients showed that 25 (23.3 %) women died until 31 December 2012. No significant difference in survival was detectable considering the regimen of systemic treatment (p = 0.188). Regarding clinicopathological parameters, the immunophenotypes, grade, pT and pN values differred substantially between the age groups (p = 0.001, for all), and the shortest relapse-free survival was seen among the youngest BC patients. This analysis illustrates that breast cancer arising in young women is characterized by the presence of less favorable subtypes such as LumB and TNBC. The increased proportion of TNBC was especially remarquable in the group of patients presenting with family history of the disease. The fact that a high rate of death occurred and no significant difference in OS were notable regarding the scheme of systemic therapies (neoadjuvant vs. adjuvant) highlight the necessity of the development of new treatment strategies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0933_10246", "title": "Family History and Risk of Second Primary Breast Cancer after <i>In Situ</i> Breast Carcinoma.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "<bBackground:</b Incidence rates of <iin situ</i breast carcinomas have increased due to widespread adoption of mammography. Very little is known about why some women with <iin situ</i breast cancer later develop second primary breast cancers.<bMethods:</b In this population-based nested case-control study among <iin situ</i breast cancer survivors, including 539 cases with a second primary breast cancer and 994 matched controls, we evaluated the association between first-degree family history of breast cancer and risk of developing a second primary breast cancer.<bResults:</b First-degree family history of breast cancer was associated with an increased risk of developing a second primary breast cancer among women with a previous <iin situ</i breast cancer [odds ratio (OR) = 1.33, 95% confidence interval (CI), 1.05-1.69] and those with two or more affected first-degree relatives had an even higher risk (OR = 1.94; 95% CI, 1.15-3.28). Those whose relative was diagnosed at less than 50 years old were more likely to develop a second primary breast cancer (OR = 1.78; 95% CI, 1.24-2.57). No difference in risks associated with number or age of affected relatives was observed by menopausal status.<bConclusions:</b Results from this study suggest that first-degree family history of breast cancer may be an important risk factor for development of a second primary breast cancer among women with a previous <iin situ</i breast cancer.<bImpact:</b Given the growing population of <iin situ</i breast cancer survivors, a better understanding of risk factors associated with development of a second primary breast cancer is needed to further understand risk. <iCancer Epidemiol Biomarkers Prev; 27(3); 315-20. ©2018 AACR</i." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en200_7950", "title": "CDH1 (gene)", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Clinical significance Loss of E-cadherin function or expression has been implicated in cancer progression and metastasis. E-cadherin downregulation decreases the strength of cellular adhesion within a tissue, resulting in an increase in cellular motility. This in turn may allow cancer cells to cross the basement membrane and invade surrounding tissues. E-cadherin is also used by pathologists to diagnose different kinds of breast cancer. When compared with invasive ductal carcinoma, E-cadherin expression is markedly reduced or absent in the great majority of invasive lobular carcinomas when studied by immunohistochemistry. E-cadherin and N-cadherin temporal-spatial expression are tightly regulated during cranial suture fusion in craniofacial development. Interactions CDH1 (gene) has been shown to interact with CBLL1, CDC27, CDON, CDH3, C-Met, CTNND1, CTNNB1, CTNNA1 FOXM1, HDAC1, HDAC2, IQGAP1, FYN, NEDD9, Plakoglobin, Vinculin, PTPmu(PTPRM) PTPrho(PTPRT)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0284_12194", "title": "Epidemiologic and genetic follow-up study of 544 Minnesota breast cancer families: design and methods.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "In 1944, a case-control family study was initiated at the Dight Institute for Human Genetics at the University of Minnesota to study the influences of childbearing breastfeeding, and hereditary susceptibility on the occurrence and age-of-onset of breast cancer. Index cases (probands) were women ascertained at the Tumor Clinic of the University of Minnesota Hospital. Medical history and life style information were obtained on probands and relatives, and all cancers were histologically verified. A total of 544 families were studied, with probands diagnosed between 1931 and 1952. All of the records and pathology slides have been maintained from the original study; for most probands this includes the original tissue blocks. We are conducting a historical cohort study of selected of selected first- and second-degree female relatives (sisters, daughters, nieces, granddaughters) of the probands and a group of control women identified as the spouses of all male first- and second-degree relatives (brothers, sons, grandsons, and nephews). The subsequent development of breast cancer is being determined to quantify the absolute risk associated with a positive family history. Current disease status is ascertained with mammography, and stromal density is measured using digital imaging. Segregation analysis will be applied to examine how non-genetic factors such as diet, exogenous hormone use, and body fat distribution influence risk in women at high risk because of family history. A subset of families are being selected for molecular analysis of the BRCA1 gene or for linkage analyses to identify putative susceptibility loci other than BRCA1. Documented cancer histories were known for at least three generations, and the current study extends the pedigrees up to four or five generations for every family, allowing a detailed description of familial risk. This cohort study of breast cancer families is likely to be important in both quantity and quality of data and will serve as a major genetic epidemiologic resource, being free of selection bias and having relevant non-genetic exposure determined in at least four generations." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1082, 1159 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 193, 208 ] ], "text": "The cause of shaken baby syndrome is almost always abuse, so the answer is 1." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1160, 1293 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 208, 232 ] ], "text": "Options 2 and 3 are easy to rule out: nothing indicates perforating trauma, and it does not explain the hemorrhages in the other eye." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1160, 1293 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 208, 232 ] ], "text": "Options 2 and 3 are easy to rule out: nothing indicates perforating trauma, and it does not explain the hemorrhages in the other eye." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1902, 2029 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 334, 353 ] ], "text": "In Purstcher's there are hemorrhages, but also cottony exudates and edema. If there are only hemorrhages, it's not Purstcher's." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "It is a highly suggestive history of child abuse.", "2": "It is the normal evolution of a non-perforating intraocular trauma.", "3": "The most likely diagnosis is Berlin edema.", "4": "It is the characteristic picture of Purstcher's traumatic retinal angiopathy.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0763_14041", "title": "History of head trauma in a 6-year-old boy: maybe more than meets the eye (and head).", "score": 0.015039606080068508, "content": "It is spring and you are meeting for the first time, Eddie, a recently turned 6-year-old boy who moved to the area in September of the previous year and is here for his 6-year-old health maintenance visit. Eddie's mother is concerned that although he is \"only\" in kindergarten, he is not retaining any information at school. His mother reports he knew some of his letters before kindergarten. Currently, when he is trying to write a word, for example, \"daddy\" he will need to ask his mother: \"what letter is the letter D?\" Before kindergarten, he knew his numbers 1 to 10. At times now, Eddie will forget these numbers. For example, \"if he is counting he will forget what comes after 4 and what comes after 9.\" Mother reports he will start crying for no apparent reason and if she asks why, he will say \"I don't know why.\" Mother is worried that Eddie is sad, although she denies suicidal ideation. She reports he used to like making noise with other kids, and now he cannot stand when the children are noisy. Eddie will comment he does not want to go to school because the kids make lots of noise and his head hurts. He complains of headaches as often as 2 to 3 times a month. She next states, \"This was not an issue before his head trauma.\" At this point, she reveals to you that in August, before the family relocated, Eddie fell from a 7-foot deck onto concrete while playing. He struck his head on the left side and lost consciousness for several seconds until shaken awake. He was nauseous and disoriented initially but without emesis or incontinence. He was taken to the local emergency department where he was admitted for 1 day and diagnosed with closed head injury, left frontal epidural hematoma, and question of postconcussive syndrome. Eddie has gone back to see the neurosurgeon twice over the last 6 months for scheduled visits and since the accident has had no further treatment.Eddie's mother reports that before the accident, if she read him a story from a book, he could remember the details from the story. Currently, he does not have good memory recall. Before the trauma, he did not attend a preschool program but stayed home with his mother full time. Eddie's first formal schooling has been kindergarten this year. When they moved, the neurosurgeon recommended he start school at the end of September given his head trauma in August. He had a recent computed tomography completed 3 months ago showing the epidural hematoma had completely resolved and the study was otherwise normal. His mother reports he had an evaluation the spring before the accident for a kindergarten screening test and was reported as \"excellent.\" Eddie's birth and medical history are otherwise unremarkable except for some seasonal allergies. He has not had a loss in language skill, although his mother reports he did not speak during his hospitalization. He would just stare and nod his head if someone would ask him a question. No family history of any learning or behavioral difficulties on either side of the family. Eddie has 2 older brothers, 10 and 7 years of age, with no learning issues.What would you do next?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0306_5822", "title": "[Ocular pathology of child abuse].", "score": 0.0136558538404176, "content": "In spite of a growing awareness in the population most cases of child abuse remain probably undetected. Ocular changes in this syndrome are manifold. Sometimes ocular signs can help to substantiate the suspicion of child abuse. On the other hand the ophthalmologist may be the first physician to be contacted. Thus, he plays an important role in diagnosis. Though there are a couple of clinical descriptions morphological data are almost completely missing in the German literature. A two-year-old girl died two days after severe abuse because of widespread intracranial hemorrhages with brain stem insufficiency. At autopsy both eyes were enucleated and sent for histological investigation. The anterior segments were unremarkable. Multiple hemorrhages were found in the inner retina bilaterally. Moreover there were preretinal, intrachoroidal, intrascleral (area of the circle of Zinn-Haller) and subdural hemorrhages. One eye showed a circular, perimacular fold of the central retina and a hemorrhagic retinoschisis. Intraretinal hemorrhages alone are typical though not pathognomonic for the \"battered-child syndrome\". However, in combination with a crater-like appearance of the central retina, a hemorrhagic retinoschisis; and intrascleral hemorrhages in the area of the circle of Zinn-Haller they suggest child abuse almost with certainty. The pathogenic mechanisms leading to the observed fundus changes lack definite clarification. The date of violence which is essential for legal prosecution can be difficult to evaluate on morphological grounds alone." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0529_6005", "title": "[Avulsion of the optic nerve: two case studies].", "score": 0.013176972281449893, "content": "Avulsion of the optic nerve is a rare and serious injury. The authors report two cases of optic nerve avulsion. The first one concerns a 5-year-old boy who presented ocular trauma after falling on the handlebars of a bicycle. His visual acuity was light perception in the right eye, and his right pupil was unresponsive to light. The anterior segment was normal. The ophthalmoscopic examination showed a total separation of the optic nerve head from the sclera with peripapillary hemorrhage. The second case concerns a 30-year-old man who was hit in the right eye with a stick. On admission, he had no light perception in the right eye, a right afferent pupil defect, a small laceration of the right lower eye lid and no abnormalities on the anterior segment. The fundus examination showed a mild vitreous hemorrhage. Ocular ultrasonography showed vitreous hemorrhage coming directly from the optic nerve head in a mushroom pattern. A CT scan of the orbit revealed a thickened optic nerve. Color Doppler ultrasonography documented slowing of blood flow in the central retinal artery. The two patients received 1 mg/kg/day of prednisone for 2 weeks. No improvement was noted. Optic nerve avulsion is often caused by sudden and forceful rotation of the eye with tearing of the optic nerve as it exits the globe. The nerve can be partially or totally avulsed. The prognosis is usually poor." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0610_12773", "title": "Shaken baby syndrome: intending to harm or attempting to help?", "score": 0.012116553188373966, "content": "To describe the role of ophthalmologists in shaken baby syndrome evaluation. Case report. A 3.5-month-old girl was admitted to the Pediatrics Clinic with lethargy. The mother, who brought in the baby, claimed that the baby had fallen from her cradle 6 hours ago. Clinical examination showed signs of head injury. Ophthalmologic examination was requested and revealed extensive retinal hemorrhages bilaterally covering the whole fundus, and retrohyaloid hematoma in the right eye. Computerized tomography neuroimaging documented large subdural hematomas exerting force on the brain parenchyma. The sum of the results of the clinical and neuroimaging examination-retinal hemorrhages and subdural hematomas-was indicative of violent shaking of the baby. Coronal evaluation was unable to determine whether the baby was abused by her parents or whether she was accidentally hurt. Ophthalmologic examination is necessary to document shaken baby syndrome since it reveals the retinal hemorrhages which together with the neuroimaging findings are almost always present in such cases. However, even when all the signs of shaken baby syndrome are present, it is difficult and sometimes destructive for a parent to be falsely accused of abusing his or her own child." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0704_22995", "title": "Parents seek early intervention services for a two-year-old without autism.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Sam is a 27-month-old boy who you have followed since birth. He lives with his parents in a small resort town approximately 90 miles outside a major city. Both his parents are professionals in their late 30s and have been highly involved in his care since birth. At the 12-month visit, they were concerned about his difficulty regulating. He was not sleeping through the night and had significant difficulty with baths. His physical examination and growth were normal. His eye contact was good, although it was difficult to see him smile. He had 1 or 2 words and was beginning to walk independently.At the 15-month checkup, they continued to be concerned about his poor regulation. He napped sporadically, and he was very difficult to take out on errands as he did not like his car seat. He now had approximately 10 single words, was using his fingers to point, and very clearly waved \"bye bye\" as soon as you entered the room.At the 18-month checkup, they state that he has not yet learned the word \"no.\" He will follow a 1-step command when he wants to but now has 15 single words without any combinations. He points for his needs and to show them something. He has become increasingly \"shy\" around strangers and prefers to play with one other child as opposed to a larger group. He does not like loud noises and prefers to go barefoot constantly. His physical examination was again normal as was his growth. He is referred for a full hearing evaluation, which is also normal. The family was referred to early intervention, and he began receiving speech and language therapy and occupational therapy for his sensory challenges as well as a play group.At the 24-month checkup, his language continued to consist of single words-now approximately 30. When the parents do not understand what he wants, he will often tantrum and has started banging his head on the floor when frustrated. He has no repetitive behaviors and is starting to demonstrate imaginative play. Bath time has becoming increasingly challenging because he does not like the sensation of soap and the water temperature must be \"just right.\" You refer the child to a Developmental and Behavioral Pediatrician for evaluation and at 28 months he is seen. During his testing visit, he had decreased eye contact and followed his own agenda but improved significantly as testing progressed. As he got more comfortable, he began making good eye contact, social referenced, and exhibited joint attention with his parents and the examiner. He did not meet criteria for an autism spectrum disorder or specifically pervasive developmental disorder-not otherwise specified (PDD-NOS). He was given a diagnosis of mixed receptive and expressive language delay and disruptive behavior disorder with sensory processing problems.The parents come to you a month after their evaluation visit asking you to give him a \"listed diagnosis of PDD-NOS\" that could be removed when he turns 3 years so that he may qualify for increased hours of services-up to 15 hours per week-as well as applied behavioral analysis therapy. A behavioral therapist through early intervention has told the family that he would benefit from this increased intervention, specifically applied behavioral analysis but the only way he can receive it is with a \"medical diagnosis\" on the autism spectrum. What do you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en204_15484", "title": "List of 2004 This American Life episodes", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Act 3: Admissions – Katia Dunn Episode 271 - \"Best Interests\" Act 1: I'd Rather Not – Ira Glass Act 2: Exodus of One – Alex Kotlowitz Episode 272 - \"Big Tent\" Show description: On the Republican Party during the campaign season preceding the U.S. presidential election, 2004 Act 1: Pink Elephant – Patrick Howell Act 2: Right and Righter – Alex Blumberg Act 3: Indecent Proposal – Shane DuBow Act 4: It's My Party Episode 273 - \"Put Your Heart In It\" Show description: On motivation and passion, especially regarding career choices Act 1: Farm Eye for the Farm Guy – George DeVault Act 2: Diary of a Long-shot – Teal Krech Act 3: Contrails of My Tears – Brett Martin Episode 274 - \"Enemy Camp '04\" Show description: On the Iraq war and the War on Terrorism (a discussion with James Fallows and Richard Perle), the Roman Catholic Church sex abuse scandal, and parasites Act 1: Our Own Worst Enemy? – Ira Glass Act 2: Confession – Carl Marziali Act 3: Blood Agent – Ira Glass" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0701_21678", "title": "Purtscher-like retinopathy following valsalva maneuver effect: case report.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Purtscher's retinopathy is a rare condition that is noted in cases related to various types of trauma. The characteristic finding in the fundus is the presence of multiple Purtscher flecken. Purtscher-like retinopathy has a similar presentation in the fundus, but without an association with trauma. A 43-year old Malay man presented with a sudden onset of central foggy vision in the left eye after holding his breath for two minutes while catching a falling object. It was not associated with floaters, flashes of light, or head trauma. His vision in the right eye was 6/6, and in his left eye it was finger counting. He had bilateral temporal sub-conjunctival hemorrhages. An examination of his left fundus revealed multiple white cotton wool spots and dot-blot retinal hemorrhages with diffuse retinal edema at the posterior pole. His right fundus was noted to have only mild temporal peri-papillary edema associated with a few dot-blot hemorrhages. Fundus fluorescein angiography showed good arterial perfusion and no evidence of leaking or neo-vascularization. A diagnosis of Purtscher-like retinopathy was made, and the patient was treated with indomethacin tablets for six weeks. At his six-week follow-up examination, his left eye visual acuity had improved to 6/12. His bilateral sub-conjunctival hemorrhage had resolved. His left fundus showed residual multiple cotton wool spots and reduced retinal edema. Treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs seems to be effective in reducing edema in patients with Purtscher-like retinopathy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0960_12607", "title": "Retinal Hemorrhages: Abusive Head Trauma or Not?", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Abusive head trauma is an important cause of morbidity and mortality in infants and young children. Retinal hemorrhages (RHs) are frequently seen, particularly during dilated eye examination of these children. This review focuses on the evaluation of children with RH, with emphasis on the differential diagnosis, pathophysiology, and distinguishing features of RHs due to abusive head trauma. Many causes exist for RHs in infants and children. Most medical and accidental traumatic causes result in a pattern of RH that is nonspecific and not typical of the pattern and distribution of RHs seen in children with abusive head trauma. In children with intracranial hemorrhage and concerns for abuse, the finding of severe, multilayered RHs extending to the periphery of the retina is very specific for abuse as the cause of the findings, especially if retinoschisis is present. There are few other accidental traumatic mechanisms associated with retinoschisis, and the history of such a traumatic event is readily apparent. The indications for ophthalmologic consult, optimal timing of the eye examination, and significance of the findings are specifically discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0512_4155", "title": "[Ophthalmological complications of the asphyxiophilic \"scarf game\" in a 12-year-old child].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To report a first case of Terson-like syndrome associated with asphyxiophilic practices in an adolescent. A 12-year-old boy was referred for decreased visual acuity in his right eye. His father had been diagnosed 3 weeks before with subarachnoidal hemorrhage. Fundus examination showed a dense preretinal hemorrhage in the right eye suggestive of Terson syndrome. Angio-magnetic resonance imaging eliminated aneurysm and arteriovenous malformation from the diagnosis. After questioning the boy further, he reported that he had participated in the \"scarf game\", a very popular (but lethal) asphyxiophilic practice in middle school, some hours before he noticed a sharp drop in the visual acuity of his right eye. After 2 months of follow-up, he recovered 20/20 vision in his right eye. Retinal hemorrhages are quite rare in children. When the cause is not clear (subarachnoidal hemorrhage, arteriovenous malformation, shaken baby syndrome), it must be determined whether the patient has participated in the asphyxiophilic \"scarf game\" in order to prevent its lethal consequences." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0864_19723", "title": "The natural history of retinal hemorrhage in pediatric head trauma.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Ophthalmologists are commonly asked to interpret appearance of retinal hemorrhages (RH) in children with suspected traumatic head injury. We sought to determine the natural history of RH in young children with head trauma and to identify patterns suggestive of chronicity in order to help establish timing of suspected traumatic injury. The medical records of children &lt;2 years of age with abusive or accidental head trauma and RH on initial fundus examination who had 1 or more follow-up examination were retrospectively reviewed. Types of RH (intraretinal, preretinal) were noted; intraretinal hemorrhage (IRH) severity was graded as mild (0-10), moderate (10-20), or severe (&gt;20, too numerous to count [TNTC]). A total of 91 eyes of 52 children were studied. All eyes had IRH (62 eyes with TNTC). In all but one eye, IRH resolved to none or mild within 1-2 weeks. TNTC IRH did not persist beyond a few days. The longest an isolated IRH persisted was 32 days. Preretinal hemorrhage (PRH) was present in 68 eyes, persisting 5-111 days. On initial examination, 25% of eyes had only IRH, 75% both PRH and IRH; no eyes had only PRH. At 2 weeks, 3% had only IRH, 18% both, and 45% only PRH. In no eyes did RH worsen. IRH clears rapidly, whereas PRH may persist for many weeks. The presence of TNTC IRHs indicates that trauma occurred within a few days prior to examination, whereas the presence of PRH with no or few IRHs suggests days to weeks since trauma. To accurately identify these patterns, eye examinations should be completed as soon as possible after admission, preferably within 24-48 hours." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1023_7810", "title": "Bilateral fungal infection inducing a serpiginous-like picture.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To report the clinical findings of a patient who presented with an atypical bilateral fungal retinitis that was established by retinochoroidal biopsy. Case report. A 56-year-old systemically healthy man presented with progressive visual loss in his left eye for 3 weeks. Visual acuity was 20/40 in the left eye, and 20/20 in the right eye and fundus examination showed macular retinal pigmented epithelium changes in his left eye. Over the following four months, his lesions progressed to serpiginous-like widespread retinal pigmented epithelium atrophy and his visual acuity decreased to 20/100, but no signs of ocular inflammation were found. Treatment with oral corticoids, valganciclovir and trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole showed no efficacy. Blood analysis and cultures, laboratory investigations, and imaging tests were carried out looking for infectious and inflammatory diseases, but all tests were negative. Two months later, the patient presented with the same kind of lesions in the other eye (right eye), so he was subjected to retinochoroidal biopsy. Histopathological examination of specimen revealed the presence of intraretinal and choroidal fungal hyphae. Oral voriconazole was initiated achieving clinical remission, but no visual improvement was obtained. The source of the infection remains unknown since all tests results were negative. However, his profession as brewmaster might be related to the origin of the infection. Diagnosis of intraocular fungal infection can be challenging. Retinochoroidal biopsy may be useful to establish the diagnosis in those atypical cases with nonrevealing workup and inflammation localized to the retina." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0666_17466", "title": "The eye examination in the evaluation of child abuse.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Retinal hemorrhage is an important indicator of possible abusive head trauma, but it is also found in a number of other conditions. Distinguishing the type, number, and pattern of retinal hemorrhages may be helpful in establishing a differential diagnosis. Identification of ocular abnormalities requires a full retinal examination by an ophthalmologist using indirect ophthalmoscopy through a pupil that has been pharmacologically dilated. At autopsy, removal of the eyes and orbital tissues may also reveal abnormalities not discovered before death. In previously well young children who experience unexpected apparent life-threatening events with no obvious cause, children with head trauma that results in significant intracranial hemorrhage and brain injury, victims of abusive head trauma, and children with unexplained death, premortem clinical eye examination and postmortem examination of the eyes and orbits may be helpful in detecting abnormalities that can help establish the underlying etiology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0102_4751", "title": "[Traumatic enucleation of the eye ball--report of a case and considerations concerning the pathogenic mechanism of intracranial complications].", "score": 0.009572649572649573, "content": "A 48-year-old man had his left eye ball enucleated by fingers of an assailant. The optic nerve, measuring 4 cm in length, was attached to the enucleated eye ball, but there was neither a wound in his eyelids nor cerebrospinal fluid leakage from inside the orbit. He was confused, but responsive and was able to recognize other persons with his right eye. His right-eye vision deteriorated within 24 hours and was almost totally lost for about one month. Three months after the trauma his vision recovered to 0.1, but his visual field showed severe concentric narrowing. An emergency CT on admission showed a small subarachnoid hemorrhage in the suprasellar cistern, and follow-up CT scanning on day 7 demonstrated a small infarction in the left globus pallidus and putamen. Cerebral angiography performed on day 17 showed residual vasospasm of the horizontal portion of left anterior cerebral artery. Left ophthalmic artery was patent and there was no aneurysm formation either on the intracranial or on the intraorbital arteries. Literature review yielded only three cases of eye ball enucleation by an assailant. Intracranial complications reported in the literature, including those associated with eye ball enucleation caused by other mechanisms, are; contralateral visual field defect: seven cases, hypothalamic involvement: two cases, subarachnoid hemorrhage: two cases, cerebrospinal fluid leakage: one case, and meningitis: one case. The optic nerve, from just behind the eye ball to the chiasm, is reported to be 40-50 mm long, and eye ball enucleation with the optic nerve measuring 4 cm or more is quite likely to cause intracranial complications such as are cited above." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1112_2732", "title": "A case series from a single family of familial retinal arteriolar tortuosity with common history of sudden visual loss.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To report family members with familial retinal arteriolar tortuosity (FRAT) identified after sudden visual loss. A 15-year-old boy had sudden visual loss in his left eye while playing on a horizontal bar. He was referred to Nagoya City University Hospital from an eye clinic. The ophthalmologic examination showed retinal hemorrhage bilaterally. His best-corrected visual acuity (BCVA) was 20/17 in the right eye and 20/67 in the left eye. Bilateral retinal arteriolar tortuosity as well as retinal hemorrhage was seen. Since his mother with 54 years of age also had a history of retinal hemorrhage that improved spontaneously, fundus examination was performed, revealing tortuosity of the retinal arterioles. Consequently, the patient and his mother were diagnosed as FRAT. He was followed without intervention. Retinal hemorrhage gradually decreased and resolved after 3 months. The BCVA of his left eye gradually improved and reached 20/20 after 1 year. In this case, the family history was very useful for early diagnosis. Immediate and accurate diagnosis allowed the patient to be followed without intervention and achieve subsequent resolution of retinal hemorrhage and improved vision. FRAT should be considered in cases of sub-internal limiting membrane hemorrhages in young patients even in the presence of discrete retinal arteriolar tortuosity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0955_24930", "title": "The Eye Examination in the Evaluation of Child Abuse.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Child abuse can cause injury to any part of the eye. The most common manifestations are retinal hemorrhages (RHs) in infants and young children with abusive head trauma (AHT). Although RHs are an important indicator of possible AHT, they are also found in other conditions. Distinguishing the number, type, location, and pattern of RHs is important in evaluating a differential diagnosis. Eye trauma can be seen in cases of physical abuse or AHT and may prompt referral for ophthalmologic assessment. Physicians have a responsibility to consider abuse in the differential diagnosis of pediatric eye trauma. Identification and documentation of inflicted ocular trauma requires a thorough examination by an ophthalmologist, including indirect ophthalmoscopy, most optimally through a dilated pupil, especially for the evaluation of possible RHs. An eye examination is helpful in detecting abnormalities that can help identify a medical or traumatic etiology for previously well young children who experience unexpected and unexplained mental status changes with no obvious cause, children with head trauma that results in significant intracranial hemorrhage and brain injury, and children with unexplained death." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1120_18181", "title": "Missed Opportunities and the Impact of the Pandemic.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Benjamin is a 9-month-old, former 36-week gestation infant who presented to the high-risk infant follow-up clinic with parental concern for developmental regression. His mother reported that Benjamin seemed to be developing typically, but over the past 2 months, he has lost the ability to visually track objects, is not as engaged with her as he once was, and now only rarely makes babbling sounds. His mother also reported episodes of intermittent \"bursts\" of stiffening of his extremities and brief staring spells. Benjamin's mother described him as a \"good, quiet baby.\" She commented that he used to laugh and cry more frequently but has recently been \"very peaceful and calm.\" Benjamin's mother recently relayed her concerns for developmental regression to his pediatrician during an audio-only telehealth visit. Benjamin was referred to a pediatric neurologist, and the consultation visit is pending.His mother is a 28-year-old single parent whose pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia, gestational diabetes, and anxiety. Benjamin required admission to the neonatal intensive care unit because of initial feeding difficulties. After 1 week, Benjamin was discharged to home and was referred for early intervention services. Owing to the pandemic, there were delays with initiating intervention, but bimonthly virtual interaction with a representative from the infant development program was eventually provided.Benjamin's mother expressed significant concerns regarding the potential of exposing him to a pandemic-related illness because of bringing her son to in-person medical visits. In fact, because of her concerns, she attended only virtual well-child pediatric visits over the past 6 months. A thorough social history revealed that she is a former dance studio instructor. The studio closed and she lost her primary source of income because of the pandemic. As a result, she decided to not send Benjamin to child care and maintained isolation from extended family members.On physical examination, pertinent findings included poor truncal tone, lack of orientation toward sounds, and limited eye contact. The Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development-Third Edition (Bayley-III) was administered, and the results indicated severe delays across all developmental areas, consistent with a diagnosis of global developmental delay.Benjamin's clinical presentation to the HRIF clinic and a history of developmental regression and intermittent body movements raised concerns for infantile spasms. He was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation and consideration for admission to the neurology service. An electroencephalogram confirmed epileptiform abnormalities consistent with infantile spasms, and he was immediately started on treatment.Impacts of the pandemic on the medical care of vulnerable/at-risk pediatric patients have included delayed receipt of early intervention services, parental fear regarding potential exposure to pandemic-related illness while seeking preventative care, increased use of virtual visit platforms for medical care and developmental intervention services, etc. What factors should be considered when providing support for these vulnerable/at-risk patients?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0377_7877", "title": "Manifestations of the shaken baby syndrome.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Retinal hemorrhages are the most common fundus finding in the shaken baby syndrome. They vary in type and location; no particular type is pathognomonic for the condition. Retinal hemorrhages are not needed to make a diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome. However, in a child under age 3 years, the presence of extensive bilateral retinal hemorrhages raises a very strong possibility of abuse, which must be investigated. The other possible causes for hemorrhages in this age child can be investigated and eliminated. The diagnosis of abuse should be made by someone particularly trained in this area, who can put together the entire picture of inadequate or changing history, fractures of various ages, particularly rib fractures, subdural hematoma of the brain, and retinal hemorrhages. Photographs of retinal hemorrhages are very helpful to child advocacy experts who take these cases to court." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0710_1177", "title": "Massive vitreous gel incarceration into the subretinal space following traumatic retinal detachment in a young patient: a case report.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "This paper reports a young patient with a traumatic rhegmatogenous retinal detachment and massive vitreous gel incarceration into the subretinal space, who was successfully treated with 23-gauge transconjunctival vitrectomy. An 11-year-old boy was referred to the authors' clinic with traumatic retinal detachment in the right eye, 2 weeks after ocular contusion in a baseball accident. At the time of the injury, emergency fundus examination by his local doctor had revealed vitreous hemorrhage in the inferior quadrant of the right eye. Visual acuity was 1.5. He had continued to play baseball as usual for 2 weeks after the injury. At his first visit to the authors' clinic, fundus examination showed a highly bullous retinal detachment involving the inferior two quadrants, associated with multiple irregular retinal breaks. There was an oval hole in the inferior quadrant which was 10-disc diameter × 5-disc diameter in size and was surrounded by edematous and hemorrhagic retina. The macula remained attached. Absolute rest for 4 hours in the supine position with binocular occlusion did not diminish the height of the retinal detachment. A 23-gauge three-port pars plana vitrectomy combined with 360° circumferential buckling was performed under general anesthesia. The lens was retained. Incarceration of massive vitreous gel, including vitreous hemorrhage into the subretinal space through the largest break, was observed during vitrectomy. Reattachment of the retina was achieved by fluid-air exchange and internal tamponade using SF(6) gas. At follow-up at 9 months, the retina remained attached and visual acuity in the right eye was 1.2." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0679_16224", "title": "A historical vignette (19). An orbital trauma in the 16th century.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "An orbital trauma in the 16th century. On 30 June 1559, during a jousting tournament, King Henri II of France incurred an injury to the eye from a shattered lance, dying ten days later. Trepanation was discussed briefly before being rejected. The autopsy on the King confirmed that it would have been justified. Even though there was no skull fracture, there was a secondary rebound trauma resulting in a subdural haematoma in the occipital area. This paper examines why the trepanation option was rejected (Figure 1)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0120_14767", "title": "[Not-always-apparent abuse: the shaken baby syndrome].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The authors report 3 cases of infants presenting with cerebral lesions related to violent head shaking. They emphasize the diagnostic difficulties when the classical signs of the battered child (marks of blows, fractures) are lacking. The traumatism is rarely recognized: only the negativity of the usual medical causes of subdural hematoma, meningeal or retinal hemorrhage and a peculiar familial history lead to the possible diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome. The value of skull CT-scan is major, showing intracranial lesions which could not be found before. Because of the observed lesions, evolution is often severe." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1143_1617", "title": "Case report: Partial visual recovery from incomplete traumatic optic nerve avulsion caused by a badminton shuttle.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Blunt ocular trauma rarely results in optic nerve avulsion. Here, we report a case of incomplete optic nerve avulsion caused by the impact of a badminton shuttlecock. The patient was a 16-year-old healthy male. A badminton shuttlecock hit his right eye from a short distance. On his first visit to the local eye clinic, his visual acuity in the right eye was hand motion. About 4-mm hyphema in height was observed in the right eye. Three days after the injury, visual acuity improved to 20/50, but the intraocular pressure increased to 40 mmHg; hence, intraocular pressure (IOP)-lowering medication was initiated. Five days after the injury, although hyphema had decreased gradually, he noticed a worsening of vision and was referred to our department. In his right eye, visual acuity was reduced to finger-counting, IOP was 38 mmHg. Slit-lamp examination of the right eye revealed a dilated pupil, hyphema, and angle recession. Fundus examination revealed dilation of the central retinal vein and edematous changes around the optic nerve head. Optical coherence tomography showed a very deep depression of the optic nerve head and partial rupture of the optic nerve axons. B-mode ultrasonography showed hypolucency just posterior to the optic nerve head. Goldmann perimetry revealed a central visual field defect in the right eye. Computed tomography showed no signs of optic canal fracture. These findings suggest that incomplete optic nerve avulsion had occurred. We performed IOP-lowering and anti-inflammatory therapy. After treatment, visual acuity was restored to 20/50, and the deep depression of the optic nerve head recovered to an almost normal range. It was assumed that the impact of the badminton shuttlecock caused irreversible changes in the optic nerve head, but the visual function partially improved with IOP-lowering and anti-inflammatory therapy. Because eye injury in badminton can cause severe damage to visual function, every badminton player needs to wear an appropriate eye shield, and rules or guidelines to prevent untoward accidents are needed in badminton." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0046_20081", "title": "Retinal hemorrhages: replicating the clinician's view of the eye.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The authors describe a technique for the gross examination of postmortem eyes of children who are suspected to have been the victims of deliberate trauma. By removing the anterior segment (cornea, iris, lens and pars plicata of the ciliary body) en bloc by a coronal incision through the pars plana just anterior to the ora serrata, the pathologist may view and photograph the fundus exactly as it would have been seen clinically. The photographs obtained with this technique correlate more closely with antemortem clinical examinations and photographs than conventional gross examination procedures and have been introduced as evidence in trials concerning the issue of retinal hemorrhages in injured children. The anterior segment and optic nerve are also examined to facilitate a comprehensive description of ocular findings." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0897_14511", "title": "Hemorrhagic occlusive retinal vasculitis after inadvertent intraocular perforation with gentamycin injection.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "To report a case of hemorrhagic occlusive retinal vasculitis (HORV) secondary to intraocular toxicity due to inadvertent intraocular injection of gentamycin. A 21-year-old woman was referred to our department because of severe ocular pain and sudden visual loss in her left eye after she received a subconjunctival gentamycin injection for chronic infectious keratitis. At presentation, best-corrected visual acuity was 20/20 in the right eye and counting fingers in the left eye. Fundus examination showed diffuse intraretinal and perivascular hemorrhages, vascular cuffing, white-centered hemorrhages, and diffuse retinal edema. Fluorescein angiography confirmed occlusive retinal vasculitis with capillary nonperfusion and spectral-domain optical coherence tomography revealed ischemic macular edema. The clinical diagnosis was compatible with HORV secondary to retinal toxicity due to high dose of intraocular gentamycin. We report a case of HORV secondary to inadvertent subconjunctival gentamycin injection. Ocular perforation and high dose of intravitreal gentamycin administration should be considered as a potential cause of HORV following subconjunctival injection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0805_4978", "title": "[Retinal haemorrhages in non-accidental head injury in childhood].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Retinal haemorrhages are one of the three cardinal manifestations of the \"shaken baby syndrome\" or \"non-accidental head injury\" in childhood. The role of an ophthalmologist in suspected non-accidental head injury has not only medical but also legal aspects and has been discussed controversially in the literature. The differential diagnosis and the specificity of retinal haemorrhages in childhood for an abusive head trauma will be pointed out in this paper. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0860_19951", "title": "Missed Diagnosis of an Intraorbital Foreign Body of Homemade Fireworks Origin: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We report a rare case of traumatic injury to the eye caused by homemade fireworks in a Chinese juvenile patient with a metal ring left in the orbit after having been sutured at the Emergency Department. An 11-year-old boy presented with a traumatic injury to the right eye from homemade fireworks. Following initial assessment involving maxillofacial computed tomography (CT) and suturing at the Emergency Department, he was transferred to our department for further evaluation because of his poor sight 1 day later. On examination, a skin laceration beneath the right eyebrow was noted, but the superior orbit was not fully visible on the maxillofacial CT performed 1 day previously. Therefore, an orbital CT scan was carried out on the second day, which showed a hyperdense ring embedded in the superior border of the orbital wall; the ring was surgically removed. On postoperative day 7, a fundus examination revealed resolving vitreous hemorrhage, blunt traumatic retinal detachment, and a large retinal tear superior to the macula. The patient refused to take surgery for retinal detachment into consideration. Therefore, we opted for oral steroids and careful observation. After 2 months' observation, the large retinal tear had healed and white fibrous scar tissue had developed, and the retinal detachment superior to the macula had reattached itself spontaneously. The patient's vision had further improved to 20/200. During 1 year of follow-up, he remained clinically stable. To avoid missing the diagnosis, a complete history of the mechanism of injury and accurate imaging still prove most useful. Complete removal of the foreign body by the emergency physician is necessary because of the ocular toxicity of an iron-containing foreign body. As evidenced by the current case, oral steroids and observation for a period of several months is a management of choice for traumatic retinal detachment and retinal tear superior to the macula associated with homemade fireworks in children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0387_6434", "title": "[Traumatic vitreous-retinal hemorrhage in infants].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "After a short review of the non-traumatic, and rare, causes of vitreoretinal hemorrhages in infants, we analyze the 4 situations where a traumatic hemorrhage can be found: accidental head trauma, which has to be very severe and is then an unfrequent etiology, head trauma in child abuse or the so-called \"shaken baby syndrome\", which is the most frequent cause, and where we point out the key role of the ophthalmologist in the diagnosis and the prognostic evaluation, the perinatal trauma, which is a frequent, benign, and ephemeral cause, and finally, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, which is a controversial and unlikely cause." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1023_7313", "title": "Subgaleal Hemorrhage Secondary to Child Physical Abuse in a 4-Year-Old Boy.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Subgaleal hemorrhage is commonly described in the neonatal population but is a rare injury in young children and adolescents. Though infrequently seen, it can follow blunt head trauma or hair pulling. This case report details a 4-year-old African American boy with massive subgaleal hemorrhage and bilateral periorbital swelling and ecchymosis as a result of hair pulling in the setting of child physical abuse. The patient was evaluated in the emergency department for swelling of his scalp several hours after reportedly bumping his head on a chair. He was discharged home after a head computed tomography only confirmed soft tissue hematoma. The following morning, the findings progressed and he returned to the emergency department. He was triaged as a trauma and initially evaluated by the emergency physician, pediatric trauma surgeon, and pediatric neurosurgeon. Head computed tomography scan confirmed diffuse scalp edema without skull fracture or intracranial pathology. The child abuse specialty service was consulted for suspected child physical abuse. Their examination revealed numerous scattered bruises on the trunk and thighs, several of which were patterned. Local police investigation resulted in the patient's grandfather confessing to striking the patient with a belt and picking him up from the ground by his hair, the latter of which is a mechanism consistent with the patient's dramatic scalp and facial findings. The authors encourage consultation by a specialist in child abuse pediatrics for subgaleal hemorrhage and/or raccoon eyes in the presence of minor trauma, as well as thorough head-to-toe skin examination for all children presenting with injuries." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0048_15127", "title": "Retinal findings after head trauma in infants and young children.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Many authorities believe that the finding of retinal hemorrhages in a child younger than 3 years of age with a history of head trauma, in the absence of an obvious cause for the injury, is pathognomonic of child abuse. To date, no studies have examined the prospective retinal examination of children who have had head trauma. The authors undertook such a study because the presence of retinal hemorrhage from any head trauma in children may have medicolegal diagnostic significance in differentiating accidental from nonaccidental trauma. Seventy-nine children younger than 3 years of age, each of whom experienced head injury, underwent an ophthalmologic assessment, which included a dilated funduscopic examination. Seventy-five children sustained accidental head injuries and had normal funduscopic examinations. Three children had nonaccidental head injuries and all were found to have varying degrees of retinal hemorrhages. One child, with a normal fundus examination, had injuries that were of indeterminate cause. The finding of retinal hemorrhages in a child with a head injury suggests a nonaccidental cause." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0658_23905", "title": "The language and culture of delay.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Satish is a 3 (1/2)-year-old boy you are seeing in your primary care office for a \"sick visit\" due to parental concerns about his language development. He is the only child of a couple who immigrated to the United States from India shortly before his birth. He received early intervention services for speech and language delays for a few months before he attained 2 years of age. However, services were discontinued when the family moved back to India for a year. After the family returned to the United States, they lived in a different state for several months before moving again recently to his current home, so he is relatively new to your practice. Satish's mother is concerned not only about his communication skills but also about his attention and social skills. She notes that he often plays alone or in parallel with other children. She was also told by his first pediatrician that Satish had \"a limited imagination.\" His parents feel that he has pretend play, in that he will pretend to get his haircut, talk on the phone, or ride on a train. Satish was born at term without complications. He passed his newborn hearing screen and a repeat hearing test at the age of 2 years. He has had no medical problems and takes a daily multivitamin. His parents are both of Indian descent. Satish's father is an engineer and had a history of being a late talker. His mother graduated from high school and is a homemaker. They are expecting their second child. Satish's developmental history is significant for language delays. He babbled at 6 months but did not have single words until he was 2 years. When he was 2 (1/2) years, he had 2 to 3 word sentences. He responded to his name at 15 months and could follow single step commands by the age of 2 years. Currently, Satish is noted to have difficulty with \"back and forth conversation.\" He sometimes repeats what others are saying.The family speaks Hindi, their native language, exclusively at home. When Satish speaks, he usually speaks in Hindi. His parents describe him as using \"odd language\" in that he will often mix up his pronouns. Satish is in an English-speaking preschool. His preschool teachers report concerns that he seems to \"withdraw into his own world,\" and does not interact well with the other children. They also report attentional problems and poor eye contact.In the office, Satish makes good eye contact with the examiner and his parents. He looks to his parents for approval when completing a task requested of him. He seems to like an Elmo toy that is in the room but holds it and looks at it closely rather than pretend to do anything with it. You ask him to feed Elmo, and he says, \"Feed Elmo.\" Because it is not clear whether he understands the verbal cues given to him, his parents repeat English directions to him in Hindi several times. He eventually complies but then leaves his chair to explore the room. His parents continue to translate your questions to him with variable results. He becomes increasingly difficult to engage, despite repeated attempts, in both English and Hindi, to attract his attention. Where do you go from here?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0815_6011", "title": "The eye in child abuse: key points on retinal hemorrhages and abusive head trauma.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "This review presents an up-to-date overview of ocular injuries resulting from child abuse, with a spotlight on abusive head trauma. Retinal hemorrhage is a principle finding of inflicted head trauma. The specific pattern of hemorrhages holds valuable diagnostic information, which can help to guide multidisciplinary assessments of the likelihood of abuse. Indirect ophthalmoscopy through dilated pupils by an ophthalmologist is necessary for adequate examination and documentation of retinal findings. Initial pediatrician evaluation of the eye and indications for ophthalmological consultation are reviewed. Focus is then placed upon understanding retinal hemorrhage patterns, their diagnostic significance and likely pathophysiological mechanisms. The differential diagnosis of retinal hemorrhage in young children is discussed, highlighting key distinctions among retinal hemorrhage patterns, severity and frequencies, as well as other ocular findings. The most common cause of retinal hemorrhage in an infant is trauma, and most other causes can be identified by considering the hemorrhage pattern, ocular or systemic signs and the results of laboratory and imaging tests, when indicated. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0714_16060", "title": "Attached to a diagnosis: the quandary of social deficits and reactive attachment disorder.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": ": Alex is a 9-year-old boy brought to you, his primary care provider, for a \"fifth opinion.\" You have cared for Alex since he was adopted from a Romanian orphanage at 3 years of age. He has been physically healthy with normal growth parameters and no evidence of fetal alcohol syndrome. Alex has long-standing history of social difficulties, impulsivity, lying, controlling, manipulative behaviors, violent outbursts at home with subsequent lack of remorse, and excessive chatter. You referred Alex to an interdisciplinary child development clinic 2 years ago, where he was diagnosed with reactive attachment disorder (RAD) and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). He was noted to have normal cognitive and language skills. Attachment therapy, stimulant therapy, and school accommodations for ADHD were recommended.Alex received some individual counseling with the school psychologist for a year after the first evaluation, with little improvement in core behaviors. The following year, Alex established care with a psychiatrist and a private counselor. The psychiatrist prescribed a succession of stimulants, each of which worked for only a short time and then had waning effect. The counselor worked with Alex and his parents on managing Alex's behavior, which the family reports has been somewhat helpful.Alex's parents express great frustration and sadness that parenting Alex has been such an ongoing struggle since he was adopted. They note that Alex is superficially friendly, chatty, and charming, with everyone he encounters, including strangers, but he never progresses past such superficial interaction, even with his adoptive parents. The parents express that they are deeply wounded that Alex is not more loving and is not more appreciative of the fact that they rescued him from the orphanage.His parents asked his pediatric clinician about Autism as they observe Alex's lack of real affection and social connection with parents or peers. They also note that Alex has difficulty verbalizing his feelings and that he lies frequently, chatters tangentially, and he can watch the Discovery channel for hours. A neurologist, to whom Alex was referred to evaluate staring spells, reassured the family that the spells did not seem to be epilepsy and also diagnosed Alex with \"Asperger's syndrome.\" The school psychologist, after 2 years of equivocation, recently made Alex eligible for autism spectrum services.During the interview and examination, Alex is funny, friendly, and a bit silly. He uses normal eye contact, seems to enjoy the neuromotor examination, and is eager to show you his cool, new handshake. He engages in easy banter, using normal vernacular and prosody. After the visit, you call the therapist to express your opinion that the RAD diagnosis is valid after all and to ask whether the family is engaged in attachment therapy. The therapist refutes the RAD diagnosis, endorsing Asperger's syndrome (AS) instead and notes that Alex is making good progress in school and in therapy, where he is learning pragmatic skills and basic social skills with the use of social stories.Where do you head next?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0888_8578", "title": "[Retinal haemorrhages as a symptom of child abuse].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Inflicted traumatic brain injury (ITBI) - a possible result of child abuse - is difficult to diagnose, yet the diagnosis bears great impact on patients and their relatives. The purpose of this paper is to describe ophthalmologic findings that can be seen in relation to ITBI. For exemplification, three different cases are described in detail. ITBI is diagnosed through a multidisciplinary approach by exclusion of other causes that could explain the clinical findings, and by linking factors that together raise a high suspicion of ITBI. The typical triad of ITBI includes intracerebral haemorrhage, encephalopathy and retinal haemorrhages. Therefore, detailed fundus examination by an ophthalmologist is important when ITBI is suspected. A pattern of bilateral, multiple retinal haemorrhages present in different retinal layers and widespread from posterior pole to the retinal periphery, is highly suspicious for ITBI, and contributes to the final diagnosis." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 64, 164 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 12, 27 ] ], "text": "the description of nail lesions highly suggestive of psoriasis makes this diagnosis the most likely." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Cutaneous lymphoma.", "2": "Atopic dermatitis.", "3": "Psoriasis.", "4": "Ichthyosis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0511_17192", "title": "Exfoliative dermatitis. Erythroderma can be a sign of a significant underlying disorder.", "score": 0.0196078431372549, "content": "64-year-old man presented with a 3-week history of a diffuse, pruritic rash that had started on his trunk and then spread to his entire cutaneous surface, including the palms of his hands and soles of his feet. Physical examination revealed widespread fine scaling and diffuse erythema. Generalized lymphadenopathy was noted. No fever, hair loss, onycholysis, or nail shedding was detected. The patient had neither a personal history of skin disorders or, specifically, atopic eczema or psoriasis nor a family history of eczema or psoriasis. He also had no history of malignancy and was taking no medications. The patient's complete blood cell count with differential was unremarkable. He was treated with moisturizers, topical corticosteroids, and antihistamines and was advised to avoid possible irritants. One week later, the patient returned because of a worsening of his erythroderma. He also reported malaise and chills. Three 4-mm biopsy specimens were obtained from representative areas (ie, back, arm, and abdomen), and a 2-week course of oral corticosteroids was prescribed. The erythroderma greatly improved but worsened shortly after the steroid dose was tapered. The specimens showed psoriasiform hyperplasia with features suggestive of psoriasis vulgaris. The patient was treated with 25 mg of oral acitretin once a day. His erythroderma slowly resolved over 6 months, at which time the acitretin dose was tapered. The patient reported no recurrence of the erythroderma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0865_24969", "title": "Erythroderma. A clinical and etiological study of 103 patients.", "score": 0.018672919923571306, "content": "Erythroderma is an uncommon and severe dermatological manifestation of a variety of diseases. It is commonly challenging to find the underlying cause. The aim of this study was to analyze the causes of the disease in patients with erythroderma. Data including the clinical symptoms, laboratory examinations, histopathology and follow-up information were collected from patients with erythroderma admitted to our department between 2000 and 2010. One-hundred and three patients diagnosed with erythroderma were identified during this period (11.9% of all hospitalized patients; hospital incidence = 9.4 cases/year). The mean age of onset was 54.4 years (range: 17-89 years) with a male:female ratio of 1.5:1. The most frequent cause of erythroderma was exacerbation of preexisting dermatoses (65.0%), including psoriasis (44.7%) and eczema (16.5%). Drugs (18.4%) and cutaneous T-cell lymphomas (11.7%) induced most of the remaining cases. No cause could be identified in four cases (3.9%). Apart from erythema and scaling, that were present in all patients, clinical findings were dominated by pruritus (97.1%), followed by edema (56.3%), fever (54.4%), palmoplantar keratoderma (50.5%), nail changes (42.7%), liver or spleen enlargement (41.7%) and lymphadenopathy (40.8%). Although numerous clinical features and laboratory values were abnormal, most findings were non-specific. The skin biopsy yielded a positive clinical correlation in most cases. Our study had a high percentage of erythroderma secondary to preexisting skin disease and a relatively low percentage of idiopathic erythroderma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0578_6329", "title": "Clinical presentation of psoriasis.", "score": 0.017806267806267807, "content": "Psoriasis is a chronic, inflammatory disease affecting 1-3% of the world's population. Joints can be affected in up to 30% of patients. About one third of patients have either severe or moderate (involving more than 10% of body surface area) disease. Patients affected with extensive psoriasis have an impaired quality of life. Psoriasis has a large spectrum of clinical features and evolution, so no complete agreement on the classification of the clinical variants exists. Plaque psoriasis is the commonest form (more than 80% of affected patients). The course of plaque psoriasis varies. Spontaneous resolution is possible, but rarely occurs. Plaques tend to remain static or slowly enlarge. Flexural (inverse, intertriginous) psoriasis manifests with lesions thinner than those of plaque form with no or minimal scaling, and is localized in the skin folds. Guttate (eruptive) psoriasis has frequently a sudden onset and frequently appears abruptly after a bacterial or viral febrile episode of inflammation of the upper ways. Pustular and erythrodermic psoriasis are the most severe clinical variants. In the diffuse pustular form recurrent episodes of fever occur, followed by new outbreaks of pustules. Erythrodermic psoriasis corresponds to the generalized form of the disease. The entire skin is bright red and is covered by superficial scales. Fatigue, myalgia, shortness of breath, fever and chills may also occur. In sebopsoriasis (seborrheic dermatitis + psoriasis) the lesions tend to occur at the same sites as seborrheic dermatitis; greasy scales predominate, but silvery scales can be found in some areas. Nail psoriasis shows various features: nail pits; oil spots; subungual hyperkeratosis; onycholysis. Rare forms include psoriasis circinata, lip psoriasis and oral psoriasis. Differential diagnosis includes many other dermatological conditions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0317_118", "title": "Erythroderma: a clinico-etiologic study of 90 cases.", "score": 0.016584429824561403, "content": "The difficulty with erythroderma lies in finding the underlying cause. Almost all the published original clinical series of erythroderma originate from western countries. Our aim was to evaluate various causes of exfoliative dermatitis in our community and compare the findings with previous studies. Ninety patients with erythroderma of either sex and any age, were studied at the Dermatology Department, Mayo Hospital, Lahore, Pakistan, between April 1992 and May 1995. A through clinical examination and relevant laboratory investigations, including skin biopsies, were performed. The mean age of onset was 41.6 years with a male:female ratio of 2.8:1. The onset was acute in 69% of patients. The salient features included nail changes (80%), mucosal involvement (36.6%), alopecia (30%), islands of normal skin (14.4%), and the \"deck chair sign\" (5.5%). The most frequent cause of erythroderma was pre-existing dermatoses (74.4%), including psoriasis (37.8%), dermatitis (12.2%), ichthyoses (7.8%), and pemphigus foliaceus (5.6%). Drugs and malignancy each induced erythroderma in 5.5% of cases. No cause could be found in 14.6% of cases. Etiologically, pre-existing dermatoses showed the highest incidence and drugs the lowest compared with previous studies. Dermatitis was less common. There was a greater variety of causes of erythroderma in our series. Hair and nails were more frequently involved. Mucosal involvement, not mentioned in other studies, was present in 36.6% of our cases. The \"deck chair sign\" and islands of normal skin were seen in dermatoses not reported previously." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0348_3467", "title": "Erythroderma in children: a clinico-etiological study.", "score": 0.016498316498316498, "content": "Although there are various published studies on erythroderma from western and Asian countries, most of them have only included patients in the adult age groups. As we have an exclusively pediatric dermatology unit, we thought it would be intriguing to study the clinical, etiological and laboratory parameters of erythroderma in children. Seventeen erythroderma patients of both sexes were inducted into the study between 1993 to 1998. The mean age of onset was 3.3 years and the male:female ratio was 0.89:1. Eight (47%) of the patients were infants; 9 (53%) others belonged to the preschool and school going age group (age range between 1 to 12 years). An acute onset of the disease was seen in 47% of the patients while 53% of the patients had a chronic onset. The main presenting complaints were itching in 41% and burning in 18% of patients. Scalp involvement (71%), nail involvement (18%), and alopecia (6%) were the main cutaneous features observed while fever (53%), tachycardia (53%), pedal edema (12%), lymphadenopathy (18%), and hepatomegaly (12%) were the main systemic features observed in this study. Etiologically, drugs (29%), showed the highest incidence, followed equally (18%) by genodermatoses, psoriasis, and staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS). Two (12%) patients had erythroderma due to atopic dermatitis, while one was (5%) due to infantile seborrheic dermatitis coexisting with dermatophytosis. Laboratory parameters contributed little towards diagnosis of the underlying dermatological condition. Thus, though erythroderma is a striking entity, it is yet uncommon in the pediatric age group. Because the drug induced group was the largest in this study, we recommend that drugs should be suspected as important causative factors of erythroderma in children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0644_12893", "title": "Psoriasis in a 3-month-old infant with Kawasaki disease.", "score": 0.01578785075547333, "content": "Kawasaki disease (KD) or mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome is a systemic vasculitis of unknown etiology affecting young children. Typical cutaneous manifestations of KD are polymorphous, including maculopapular or morbilliform rash and erythroderma. Occurrence of psoriasis following KD is rare. Herein we report a case of new onset of psoriasis in a 3-month-old that flared after a typical clinical case of KD, manifesting spiking fever, diffuse redness and fissuring of the lips, bilateral conjunctiva injection, injected throat, left cervical lymphadenopathy, erythema and desquamation of the lips, cheeks, hands, feet and perianal area, and a generalized maculopapular eruption. In addition, erythema and induration of the BCG vaccination site and coronary artery dilatation were noted. After fading of the initial rash, the patient developed widespread psoriasiform papules and plaques involving the face and extremities. The cheeks, lips and nail involvement with subunqual hyperkeratosis and pincer nail deformity were particularly striking. The diagnosis of psoriasis was confirmed by skin biopsy. The eruption resolved after one month of topical momentasone furoate treatment. The role of superantigens in KD-associated psoriasis is discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0999_25586", "title": "An Elusive Case of Mycosis Fungoides: Case Report and Review of the Literature.", "score": 0.015371127995324372, "content": "Erythroderma refers to a spectrum of skin diseases resulting in diffuse erythema and scaling encompassing ≥ 90% of the body surface area. The differential diagnosis ranges from primary dermatologic diseases such as atopic dermatitis and psoriasis to potentially deadly causes such as staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, and malignancy. Cutaneous T cell lymphoma (CTCL) is an uncommon but highly morbid cause of erythroderma. This non-Hodgkin lymphoma remains a diagnostic challenge due to its variable clinical presentation and varied histologic features. Mycosis fungoides (MF) is the most common form of CTCL. Making a timely diagnosis is challenging as it may mimic inflammatory diseases of the skin including eczema, psoriasis, lichen planus, and cutaneous lupus. We present a case of a 58-year-old man who presented with 5 years of cutaneous symptoms and several months of fevers and night sweats, ultimately diagnosed as MF. Owing to diffuse CD30 positivity, he was a candidate for brentuximab vedotin, an antibody-drug conjugate medication that selectively targets the CD30 antigen. This resulted in an excellent therapeutic response." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0126_5207", "title": "The nails in adult type 1 pityriasis rubra pilaris. A comparison with Sézary syndrome and psoriasis.", "score": 0.015042253521126762, "content": "The fingernails of twenty-four patients with classical adult (type 1) pityriasis rubra pilaris were examined for changes in nail morphology and a comparison was made with the fingernail morphology of twenty-seven consecutive psoriatic patients with nail changes. Distal yellow-brown discoloration, subungual hyperkeratosis, nail plate thickening, and splinter hemorrhages indicate a diagnosis of type 1 pityriasis rubra pilaris rather than psoriasis, while onycholysis (particularly marginal), salmon patches, small pits, and larger indentations of the nail plate indicate a diagnosis of psoriasis. Histology demonstrated that a nail biopsy would be a useful diagnostic procedure if nails were involved in isolation but provided no additional diagnostic features to those found from biopsy specimens of involved skin in the two conditions. The similarity in nail morphology between the type 1 pityriasis rubra pilaris patients and five patients with chronic erythroderma resulting from Sézary syndrome indicated that these changes may represent a nonspecific reaction pattern that may result from prolonged erythema of the proximal nail bed and matrix. The rough nails (trachyonychia) described in advanced Sézary syndrome were not observed in any of our patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en058_68529", "title": "Erythroderma", "score": 0.014345434543454345, "content": "Erythroderma is an inflammatory skin disease with redness and scaling that affects nearly the entire cutaneous surface. This term applies when 90% or more of the skin is affected. In ICD-10, a distinction is made between \"exfoliative dermatitis\" at L26, and \"erythroderma\" at L53.9. Causes Erythroderma is generalized exfoliative dermatitis, which involves 90% or more of the patient's skin. The most common cause of erythroderma is exacerbation of an underlying skin disease, such as psoriasis, contact dermatitis, seborrheic dermatitis, lichen planus, pityriasis rubra pilaris or a drug reaction, such as the use of topical steroids. Primary erythroderma is less frequent and is usually seen in cases of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, in particular in Sézary's disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1051_17286", "title": "Erythroderma: A clinicopathological study of 47 cases from 2018 to 2020.", "score": 0.014302507836990596, "content": "Erythroderma, or exfoliative dermatitis, is an inflammatory disorder characterized by erythema and scaling, affecting most of the skin surface. It may be a result of many different causes such as previous dermatoses (psoriasis, eczema, atopic dermatitis [AD], pityriasis rubra pilaris, and pemphigus foliaceous), drug reactions, malignancies (mycosis fungoides [MF], Sézary syndrome, adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma), infections, and idiopathic disorders. Regardless of the etiology, the clinical appearance of erythroderma is similar in all patients. The most prominent physical examination findings in almost all patients are diffuse erythema and scaling. In a 2-year period, 47 patients who were hospitalized and treated in our department were included in the study. We classified patients into seven subgroups: psoriasis, AD, drug-induced erythroderma, MF, pityriasis rubra pilaris, bullous pemphigoid, and polymorphous light eruption. All patients had a biopsy during the acute stage and diagnoses were histopathologically confirmed. Some patients had multiple biopsies for histopathological confirmation. In our study, the majority of the patients were men over the age of 54. The most common etiological cause of erythroderma is psoriasis. We aim to analyze clinical, laboratory, and histopathological findings of erythrodermic inpatients prospectively in Istanbul University-Cerrahpasa Cerrahpasa Medical Faculty between January 2018 and 2020." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en058_68530", "title": "Erythroderma", "score": 0.012991105819735276, "content": "The most common causes of exfoliative dermatitis are best remembered by the mnemonic device ID-SCALP. The causes and their frequencies are as follows: Idiopathic - 30% Drug allergy - 28% Seborrheic dermatitis - 2% Contact dermatitis - 3% Atopic dermatitis - 10% Lymphoma and leukemia - 14% Psoriasis - 8%" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_4041", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012795356062464229, "content": "aDiscussed in detail in Chap. 71; cardiovascular disease and the metabolic syndrome are comorbidities in psoriasis; primarily in Europe, hepatitis C virus is associated with oral lichen planus. bAssociated with chronic sun exposure more often than exposure to arsenic; usually one or a few lesions. cSee also Red Lesions in “Papulonodular Skin Lesions.” dAlso cutaneous lesions of HTLV-1-associated adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma. eSee also Red-Brown Lesions in “Papulonodular Skin Lesions.” (Table 72-2) Erythroderma is the term used when the majority of the skin surface is erythematous (red in color). There may be associated scale, erosions, or pustules as well as shedding of the hair and nails. Potential systemic manifestations include fever, chills, hypothermia, reactive lymphadenopathy, peripheral edema, hypoalbuminemia, and high-output cardiac failure. The major etiologies of erythroderma are (1) cutaneous diseases such as psoriasis and dermatitis (Table 72-3); (2) drugs; (3) systemic" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en004_124247", "title": "Psoriasis", "score": 0.012523971664514109, "content": "Diagnosis A diagnosis of psoriasis is usually based on the appearance of the skin. Skin characteristics typical for psoriasis are scaly, erythematous plaques, papules, or patches of skin that may be painful and itch. No special blood tests or diagnostic procedures are usually required to make the diagnosis. The differential diagnosis of psoriasis includes dermatological conditions similar in appearance such as discoid eczema, seborrheic eczema, pityriasis rosea (may be confused with guttate psoriasis), nail fungus (may be confused with nail psoriasis) or cutaneous T cell lymphoma (50% of individuals with this cancer are initially misdiagnosed with psoriasis). Dermatologic manifestations of systemic illnesses such as the rash of secondary syphilis may also be confused with psoriasis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en305_23359", "title": "Dermatopathic lymphadenopathy", "score": 0.012339806368571269, "content": "In pathology, dermatopathic lymphadenopathy, is lymph node pathology due to skin disease. Cause Also known as lipomelanotic reticulosis or Pautrier-Woringer disease, represents a rare form of benign lymphatic hyperplasia associated with most exfoliative or eczematoid inflammatory erythrodermas, including pemphigus, psoriasis, eczema, neurodermatitis, and atrophia senilis. Diagnosis Dermatopathic lymphadenopathy is diagnosed by a lymph node biopsy. It has a characteristic pattern of histomorphology and immunohistochemical staining: Paracortical histiocytosis Melanin-laden macrophages Eosinophils Plasma cells (medulla of lymph node) Differential diagnosis Cutaneous T cell lymphoma Hodgkin's lymphoma Melanoma Treatment The treatment is based on the underlying cause. See also Skin disease List of cutaneous conditions References External links Dermatopathic lymphadenitis - pathconsultddx.com. Cutaneous conditions" }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_102", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.012299311926605504, "content": "When pustular psoriasis, a less common form, is generalized, it can be life threatening, presenting with fever, electrolyte abnormalities, and loss of serum proteins. AB FIGURE 2.2-4. Psoriasis. (A) Skin changes. The classic sharply demarcated plaques with silvery scales are commonly located on the extensor surfaces (e.g., elbows, knees). (B) Nail changes. Note the pitting, onycholysis, and “oil spots.” (Reproduced, with permission, from Hur witz RM. Pathology of the Skin: Atlas of Clinical-Pathological Correlation, 2nd ed. Stamford, CT: Appleton & Lange, 1998: 15, 18.) Clinical impression is usually sufficient for diagnosis. Classically presents with the Auspitz sign (bleeding when scale is scraped), but biopsy can be useful. Histology classically shows a thickened epidermis, elongated rete ridges, an absent granular cell layer, preservation of nuclei, and a sterile neutrophilic infiltrate (Munro’s microabscess) in the stratum corneum." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en118_36673", "title": "Koilonychia", "score": 0.011950432863690375, "content": "Koilonychia, also known as spoon nails, is a nail disease that can be a sign of hypochromic anemia, especially iron-deficiency anemia. It refers to abnormally thin nails (usually of the hand) which have lost their convexity, becoming flat or even concave in shape. In a sense, koilonychia is the opposite of nail clubbing. In early stages nails may be brittle and chip or break easily. Koilonychia is associated with Plummer–Vinson syndrome and iron deficiency anemia. It has also been associated with lichen planus, syphilis, and rheumatic fever. The term is from the Greek: κοῖλος, koilos, \"hollow\", ὄνυξ, onyx, \"nail\". Even though Koilonychia has been associated with iron deficiency in case reports, it is more likely seen as an occupational change in nails and may be idiopathic; ruling out iron deficiency anemia in these patients is the only work-up necessary in this condition. See also Kyrle disease List of cutaneous conditions References External links" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0531_759", "title": "Diagnosis of nail psoriasis: importance of biopsy and histopathology.", "score": 0.011834733893557423, "content": "Involvement of the nail is quite common in psoriasis and at times may be the sole diagnostic clue. However, the histopathology of nail psoriasis has not been adequately evaluated. A confirmation of the diagnosis is required in cases suspected to have nail psoriasis in order to plan long-term therapy. To assess the diagnostic significance and safety profile of nail biopsy in cases with nail psoriasis. Clinical and mycological features were studied in 42 patients with nail psoriasis. Of these, 22 patients gave consent for nail biopsies to be taken and the histopathological changes were assessed. Males were affected more commonly (57%) with a peak incidence in the age group of 10-20 years (29%). Distal onycholysis, discoloration of nail plate, subungual hyperkeratosis and fine nail pitting were the predominant clinical features. In the 22 biopsies done, hyperkeratosis with parakeratosis (91%) was found to be the most common and hypergranulosis was the least common histological finding (36%). Clinicohistological correlation was possible only in 55% cases. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) staining was done for all biopsies. Histopathological examination of nails is a valuable diagnostic aid, especially in the absence of skin lesions. Examination of the PAS-stained sections is necessary before making a histological diagnosis of nail psoriasis because onychomycosis and psoriasis may show similar histology." }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_4019", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.011833278345980426, "content": "The color, texture, configuration, location, and distribution of the lesion should be recorded. A localized or grouped eruption may suggest a cutaneous infection, whereas widespread, symmetrical involvement of extensor surfaces may suggest a primary skin disorder, such as psoriasis. Herpesvirus lesions are usually grouped lesions. Annular lesions may suggest Lyme disease, syphilis, and fungal infections. Lesions on mucous membranes are usually short-lived, and lesions in thick-skinned areas, such as the palms and soles, may be particularly difficult to characterize. A thorough history and physical examination are usuallysufficient for diagnosis because of the visibility of the skin.Adjunctive tests at the time of examination include potassiumhydroxide (KOH) examination for fungi and dermatophytes,skin scrapings for scabies, cytologic examination (Tzancktest) for herpesvirus and varicella-zoster virus infection, andWood light examination for the yellowish gold fluorescence" }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step1_525", "title": "First_Aid_Step1", "score": 0.011505621606346259, "content": "Psoriasis Papules and plaques with silvery scaling H , especially on knees and elbows. Acanthosis with parakeratotic scaling (nuclei still in stratum corneum), Munro microabscesses.  stratum spinosum,  stratum granulosum. Auspitz sign ( I )—pinpoint bleeding spots from exposure of dermal papillae when scales are scraped off. Associated with nail pitting and psoriatic arthritis. Rosacea Inflammatory facial skin disorder characterized by erythematous papules and pustules J , but no comedones. May be associated with facial flushing in response to external stimuli (eg, alcohol, heat). Phymatous rosacea can cause rhinophyma (bulbous deformation of nose)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1057_25537", "title": "Topographic Differential Diagnosis of Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: Challenges and Tricks.", "score": 0.011431347150259067, "content": "Psoriasis is an inflammatory skin disease presenting with erythematous and desquamative plaques with sharply demarcated margins, usually localized on extensor surface areas. To describe the common differential diagnosis of plaque psoriasis classified according to its topography in the scalp, trunk, extremities, folds (i.e., inverse), genital, palmoplantar, nail, and erythrodermic psoriasis. A narrative review based on an electronic database was performed including reviews and original articles published until 1 September 2020, assessing the clinical presentations and differential diagnosis for psoriasis. Several differential diagnoses could be considered with other inflammatory, infectious, and/or neoplastic disorders. Topographical differential diagnosis may include seborrheic dermatitis, tinea capitis, lichen planopilaris in the scalp; lupus erythematosus, dermatomyositis, cutaneous T-cell lymphomas, atopic dermatitis, syphilis, tinea corporis, pityriasis rubra pilaris in the trunk and arms; infectious intertrigo in the inguinal and intergluteal folds and eczema and palmoplantar keratoderma in the palms and soles. Diagnosis of psoriasis is usually straightforward but may at times be difficult and challenging. Skin cultures for dermatophytes and/or skin biopsy for histological examination could be required for diagnostic confirmation of plaque psoriasis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0525_16959", "title": "Erythroderma in adults: a report of 80 cases.", "score": 0.01140819964349376, "content": "Erythroderma is a generalized erythema of the skin accompanied by a variable degree of scaling. However, most of the published series originate from Western countries. There is only one report from Africa, conducted in Dakar in 1979. The aim of our study was to provide information about this condition in our country. Our study was retrospective, dealing with 80 erythrodermic adults, examined between January 1981 and December 2000. Patient information included clinical, laboratory, histopathologic and therapeutic data. We also noted patients' outcomes within an average follow-up period of 30 months. Thus, we calculated the mortality rate and estimated the probability of survival without relapses according to the Kaplan-Meier method. The frequency of erythroderma in our dermatology department was 0.3. The sex ratio (male/female) was 2.2. The average age of our patients was 53.78 +/- 18 years. Previous history of skin disease was found in 49/80 patients (61.2%) and 32 of them were suffering from psoriasis. Hyperthermia was significantly associated with drug reactions (P = 0.013). Hypereosinophilia was not a specific finding. The mortality rate was higher than that of an age-matched population. Adult erythroderma is a rare condition. Its most common cause in our study was psoriasis. No cases of atopic dermatitis were found. Prognosis was adversely affected by the presence of erythroderma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en263_14459", "title": "Plummer's nail", "score": 0.011208048088161629, "content": "Plummer's nail is a clinical sign in which there is onycholysis, or separation of the nail from the nail bed, particularly affecting the ring and little fingers. It occurs in patients with thyrotoxicosis. About 5% of hyperthyroid patients display abnormal nail changes. Plummer's nail is also associated with psoriasis, traumatic injury, and allergic contact dermatitis. The sign is named after Henry Stanley Plummer. See also Pili bifurcati List of cutaneous conditions References External links Conditions of the skin appendages" }, { "id": "article-92201_38", "title": "Onychoscopy -- Clinical Significance -- Inflammatory Diseases", "score": 0.011179780926540046, "content": "Onycholysis has a distinct erythematous or bright yellow-orange border at the proximal end of the onycholytic band, which is relatively straight. In psoriasis, pitting of the nails and splinter hemorrhages have been observed as the most common feature, followed by onycholysis. [80] [81] The oil drop sign or salmon patch is an irregularly-shaped red-orange patch present in nail psoriasis. [82] The splinter hemorrhages appear as bright red to blackish longitudinal fusiform streaks. [82] [83] The nail bed compact hyperkeratosis in psoriasis is unique compared with distal lateral subungual onychomycosis. [12]" }, { "id": "article-24666_22", "title": "Malassezia Furfur -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.011143087371935076, "content": "Although the diagnosis of SD is usually clinical, clinicians should consider other skin conditions when the presentation is atypical or not responsive to treatment. SD can be challenging to distinguish from psoriasis. Cutaneous manifestations of psoriasis are typically more erythematous with prominent silvery scaling, and plaques are well demarcated. Psoriatic arthritis and nail changes may be present, and it is essential to determine a family history. Rosacea also causes facial erythema, but papules, pustules, and telangiectasis with no scaling occur on the nose and malar and perioral areas. Although atopic dermatitis should be a consideration when presumed SD is refractory to treatment, significant pruritis may be a distinguishing factor, and patch testing can confirm the diagnosis. Secondary syphilis, \"the great imitator,\" may present as multiple psoriasiform lesions and should be tested for with serologic testing when the index of suspicion is high. The malar erythema seen in acute systemic lupus erythematosus may be mistaken for SD, although the former does not affect the nasolabial folds or cross the bridge of the nose. Pemphigus foliaceous presents with erythematous lesions on the head and scalp that extend to the trunk. Prominent features include scaling, crusting, erosions, and pain. Pathohistological and serologic testing secure the diagnosis. In children, tinea infections and diaper dermatitis merit consideration. [11]" }, { "id": "article-27961_12", "title": "Psoriasis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010198951375421964, "content": "Erythrodermic psoriasis presents with widespread inflammation in the form of erythema and exfoliation of the skin covering more than 90% of the body area. It is associated with severe itching, swelling, and pain. It is the result of an exacerbation of unstable plaque psoriasis, following the abrupt withdrawal of systemic steroids. Complications of erythroderma include impairment in barrier functions of the skin, disturbance in basal metabolic rate, and increased cutaneous circulation in turn affecting the heart with cardiac failure. Nail changes in psoriasis are seen as pitting, oil spots, subungual hyperkeratosis, nail dystrophy, and anchylosis. Fissured tongue is the most common finding of oral psoriasis and has been reported to occur in 6.5% to 20% of people with psoriasis affecting the skin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0792_13589", "title": "Nail psoriasis: a review of the literature.", "score": 0.010075694286220602, "content": "Nails are considered epidermal appendages, and as such, are commonly affected in patients with psoriasis, 80% of whom are likely to develop nail psoriasis as a result of their condition. Two patterns of nail disorders have been shown to be caused by psoriasis. Nail matrix involvement can result in features such as leukonychia, pitting (punctures or cupuliform depressions), red spots in the lunula and crumbling. Nail bed involvement, on the other hand, can cause onycholysis, salmon or oil-drop patches, subungual hyperkeratosis and splinter hemorrhages. Nail disease causes aesthetic and functional impairment, and is indicative of more severe forms of psoriasis as well as of joint involvement. The treatment for nail psoriasis involves behavioral interventions, topical medications, or systemic therapy in case of extensive skin or joint involvement. This article presents a review of the main features of nail psoriasis, its clinical presentation, diagnostic and assessment methods, clinical repercussions, and of its available treatment options. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0897_24907", "title": "Patterns of clinical nail appearances in patients with cutaneous psoriasis.", "score": 0.009959123002601263, "content": "Nail manifestations are often an overlooked aspect in psoriatic disease, cutaneous and joint involvement being far more often reported and investigated. The reported prevalence of nail changes varies in literature, specific fingernail clinical features having different degrees of occurrence. The aim of this study was to describe specific clinical patterns of fingernail alterations in adult patients with plaque-type psoriasis in a university hospital in the North-West of Romania. Clinical data of 35 patients with fingernail psoriasis were collected and analyzed. Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) and Nail Psoriasis Severity Index (NAPSI) scores were used to quantify disease extension in each patient. PASI score proved linearly correlated with NAPSI score (p&lt;0.05). The age of onset of fingernail psoriasis was positively correlated with age of onset cutaneous psoriasis (p&lt;0.0001). Furthermore, the duration of cutaneous involvement and NAPSI proved significantly related (p&lt;0.05). The third fingernail in the right hand and first fingernail in the left hand were in most of the cases severely affected. The most common observed nail pattern was pitting, followed by salmon patches and subungual hyperkeratosis. Important nail changes appear even in moderate forms of cutaneous psoriasis. Particular localization of specific fingernail psoriasis pattern enables the possibility of detecting early stage disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en250_15256", "title": "Stippled nails", "score": 0.009814860732291925, "content": "Stippled nails are characterized by small, pinpoint depressions in an otherwise normal nail, and may be an early change seen in psoriasis. See also Nail anatomy List of cutaneous conditions References Conditions of the skin appendages" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en102_33935", "title": "Systemic disease", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "For example, pitting looks like depressions in the hard part of the nail. Pitting is to be associated with psoriasis, affecting 10% - 50% of patients with that disorder. Pitting also may be caused by a variety of systemic diseases, including reactive arthritis and other connective tissue disorders, sarcoidosis, pemphigus, alopecia areata, and incontinentia pigmenti. Because pitting is caused by defective layering of the superficial nail plate by the proximal nail matrix, any localized dermatitis (e.g., atopic dermatitis or chemical dermatitis) that disrupts orderly growth in that area also can cause pitting. See also Disease Disseminated disease Fred Siguier List of systemic diseases with ocular manifestations Localized disease Marfan syndrome Systemic autoimmune diseases Systemic inflammation Oral manifestations of systemic disease References Diseases and disorders Medical terminology" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0881_24943", "title": "Palmoplantar Dermatoses- A Clinical Study of 300 Cases.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Dermatoses affecting palms and soles are among the most difficult of all dermatological therapeutic problems. Many previous studies have focused on the specific diseases of palmoplantar dermatoses. However, none of them have included a comprehensive study of palmoplantar dermatoses. To study the epidemiological aspects like age distribution, sex distribution, the dermatoses affecting the palms &amp; soles and the frequency of involvement of palms, soles or both palms &amp; soles, in patient with palmoplantar dermatoses. This cross sectional study was conducted in the Department of Dermatology between October 2011 to September 2013. First 300 cases attending the department of dermatology primarily with complaints pertaining to palms and soles were enrolled in the study. After taking consent a detailed history and clinical examination pertaining to the aim of the study was recorded and analysed, which included inspection of morphology and distribution of lesions and palpation of any swelling. Direct microscopic examination of scrapings, wet mounted with 10% potassium hydroxide was done for cases with scaly lesions. Those who had a pustule, gram staining was done. Patch testing using Indian Standard Battery Series was done for those cases of eczema. A sample for biopsy was taken when diagnosis could not be arrived clinically, and subjected to histopathological examination. In our study of 300 patients with palmoplantar dermatoses, 164 were females and 136 were males, the ratio observed being 1.2:1. The peak incidence was found in the age group 21-30 years, with 41 females (25%) and 35 males (25.7%). Most frequently affected individuals in this study were housewives (30%). The most common five diseases of palmoplantar dermatoses were palmoplantar psoriasis (20.7%), moniliasis (19%), palmoplantar hyperhidrosis (7%), keratolysis exfoliativa (6%) and pitted keratolysis (6%). Majority of patients had involvement of both palms and soles (44.3%) as compared to patients with involvement of only palm (28%) and only sole (27.3%). The commonest palmoplantar dermatoses with only palm involvement was keratolysis exfoliativa (16.7%), with only sole involvement was moniliasis (41%) and with both palms and soles involvement was palmoplantar psoriasis (41.4%). Associated nail changes were seen in 80 cases (26.6%), with maximum incidence in palmoplantar psoriasis (62.5%). Associated dermatological conditions were observed in 43 patients (14.3%). Palmoplantar dermatoses are frequently encount-ered in the dermatologic field. Further investigation with a wider and larger population is necessary to understand the epidemiology, based on which accurate diagnosis and proper treatment could be achieved." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en154_43905", "title": "Trachonychia", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Trachyonychia, is a condition characterized by rough accentuated linear ridges (longitudinal striations) on the nails of the fingers and toes. When the condition occurs on all the twenty nails of the fingers and toes, it is known as twenty-nail dystrophy, most evident in childhood, favoring males. Trachyonychia causes the nails to become opalescent, thin, dull, fragile, and finely longitudinally ridged, and, as a result, distally notched. It can be a manifestation of lichen planus, psoriasis, alopecia areata, immunoglobulin A deficiency, atopic dermatitis, and ichthyosis vulgaris." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0896_9573", "title": "The role of histological presentation in erythroderma.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Erythroderma is a serious medical condition characterized by inflamed red skin involving over 90% of the body. It can be the common presentation of different diseases, therefore clinical diagnosis can be problematic. Controversial data are reported regarding the diagnostic value of histological examination in erythroderma subjects. A retrospective study was performed, investigating histological skin specimens of patients with a clinical diagnosis of erythroderma admitted to the Department of Dermatology of State Pediatric Medical University, Saint Petersburg, from 2001 to 2014. Histopathology examination was performed in each case by a pathologist with a special interest in the skin disease who was blind to any clinical information as well as to final diagnosis. Blinded histopathology examination alone was able to give the correct diagnosis in 61% (n = 50/82) of cases when compared to final diagnosis. A diagnosis of psoriasis was made in 23.2% (n = 19/82) of subjects, spongiotic dermatitis/eczema in 20.7% (n = 17/82), mycosis fungoides in 8.5% (n = 7/82), and drug eruption in 8.5%; histological diagnosis was inconclusive or not matching the final diagnosis when available in the remaining 39.1% of cases (n = 32/82). Erythroderma remains a condition difficult to study and treat. We showed that a correct judgment about its cause can be based on objective histopathological criteria in up to 60% of cases. More studies are needed to try to find out further histological and/or immunohistochemical markers that could help the clinician with the erythroderma etiology diagnostic process." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 538, 696 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 89, 115 ] ], "text": "Answer 1: it cannot be because a hemorrhagic transformation does not give such a brutal elevation of LDH and Cr, in addition to not explaining schistocytosis." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 697, 784 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 115, 126 ] ], "text": "Answer 2: urgent plasmapheresis... in case of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, yes;" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1270, 1429 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 201, 229 ] ], "text": "Answer 3: a situation as critical as that patient's indicates that something big is going on and I would not sit and wait for glucocorticoids to take effect...and" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1534, 1736 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 246, 283 ] ], "text": "Answer 4: looking for a trigger for DIC...it would make sense if it were not for the fact that in DIC it is VERY characteristic the consumption of coagulation factors, which is not present in this case." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1737, 1932 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 283, 315 ] ], "text": "Answer 5: a myeloma does not give schistocytosis nor does it have this symptomatology, they would have to give other data that would support this pathology, such as bone pain and hypercalcemia..." } }

{ "1": "New cranial CT in the presence of suspected hemorrhagic transformation of ischemic stroke.", "2": "Initiate urgent plasmapheresis.", "3": "Beginning of treatment with glucocorticoids at a dose of 1 mg/kg/day.", "4": "Search for triggering cause of DIC.", "5": "Suspected multiple myeloma: bone marrow aspirate." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0928_18867", "title": "Incidental Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura during Acute Ischemic Stroke and Thrombolytic Treatment.", "score": 0.019327731092436976, "content": "Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator (IV tPA) was shown to be an effective treatment for acute ischemic stroke (AIS). According to stroke guidelines, there is no need to wait for the complete blood count (CBC) and coagulation test results before application of IV alteplase if there is no suspected coagulation disorder. In this study, a patient with AIS and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) symptoms during thrombolytic treatment was presented. A 33-year-old male patient was admitted at the 2.5th hour of AIS symptoms onset with right hemiparesis and sensorimotor aphasia. Cranial computed tomography (CT) and diffusion magnetic resonance imaging did not reveal any abnormality. In his medical history, the patient did not have any contraindication for thrombolytic treatment. To avoid delays to thrombolytic therapy, blood samples were taken, and after that, IV bolus alteplase treatment was applied. During maintenance treatment, agitation and vomiting developed. The result of blood samples showed less than 26,000 mm<sup3</sup platelet count and maintenance therapy was stopped. In control cranial CT, there was no hemorrhage. In the laboratory examination; anemia, low platelet count; increased indirect bilirubin, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) levels were found, and fever was 38.4°C. Schistocytes were observed in peripheral blood smear and the patient was diagnosed as TTP. Stroke guidelines recommend not to wait for the results of CBC and coagulation tests before IV tPA treatment in patients who do not have any history of coagulopathy disorder. If possible, before applying IV tPA we may wait for the results of coagulation and CBC tests, keeping in mind the diseaes with high mortality such as TTP." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0319_13866", "title": "[A 45-year-old man with peripheral monocytosis and right hemiparesis].", "score": 0.01873249299719888, "content": "We report a 45-year-old man with monocytosis and right hemiparesis. The patient suffered from an acute myocardial infarction from which he recovered completely when he was 42 years old. One year prior to his death, he was found to have increase in monocyte count (35.5% of leukocytes) in peripheral blood and splenomegaly; he was admitted to the hematology service of our hospital. He was diagnosed as having chronic myelomonocytic leukemia after bone marrow examination. He was treated with radiation therapy with improvement in splenomegaly. In May of 1995, he had fever, anemia, and thrombocytopenia for which he needed daily blood transfusion. In November of 1995, he had an onset of weakness in his right hand, and neurologic consultation was asked for in November 27, 1995. Neurologic examination revealed a chronically ill japanese man in no acute distress. He was alert and not demented. Higher cerebral functions were intact. Cranial nerve examination revealed right facial paresis of the central type. Motor-wise, he was right hemiparetic. Generalized muscle wasting was noted apparently due to the chronic debilitating disease. Deep tendon reflexes were within normal range in the right upper extremity, but were diminished in other areas. Sensation was intact, and no meningeal signs were noted. Pertinent laboratory findings were as follows: Hb 8 g/dl, RBC 238 x 10(4)/microliter, WBC 2,900/microliter (band 1.0%, seg 18.5%, lym 28.0%, mono 44.0%, Baso 2.5%), Plt 13 x 10(4)/microliter, PT 16.6\"/10.9\", APTT 44.7\"/35.0\". CSF contained 87 mg/dl of protein, 155 mg/dl of glucose and 2 mononuclear cells/microliter. Bone marrow was slightly hypercellular with mild increase in blast forms. No chromosome abnormality was found. CT and MRI revealed a large mass in the left fronto-parietal region and the meninges showed marked thickening with enhancement after gadolinium-DTPA in MRI. The patient was treated with glycerol and steroid, but the subsequent course was complicated by a seizure, agitation, and pneumonia. He died from respiratory failure on January 13, 1996. The patient was discussed in a neurologic CPC and the chief discussant arrived at the conclusion that the patient had chronic myelomonocytic leukemia with infiltration of leukemic cells into meninges and the parenchyme of the cerebrum. Thickening of the dura was thought to be in part a reaction to the subdural hematoma as well as to leukemic cells along the meninges. Postmortem examination revealed hypercellular bone marrow with increase in monocytic cells (more than 20%). The lungs showed pneumonia with scattered old tuberculous lesions. The heart showed an old myocardial infarction in the posterior wall of the left ventricle. The brain showed an old chronic subdural hematoma in the left fronto-temporal region and a cystic mass lesion in the left frontoparietal region. The mass was hypercellular and most of them were monocytes. The dura mater showed reactive thickening without leukemic cell infiltration. It was concluded that this patient had chronic myelomonocytic leukemia with a formation of leukemic mass in the brain. Pathologists thought that the mass was a hematogenous spread. It is rare for chronic myelomonocytic leukemia to form a mass lesion in the brain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0059_11730", "title": "[Thrombotic thrombocytopenic pupura (TTP)--remission following treatment with high-dose immunoglobulin].", "score": 0.017105263157894735, "content": "A 60-year-old man was admitted to our hospital because of fever, hemorrhagic tendency, anemia and neurological abnormality. A blood count revealed that the hemoglobin was 6.8 g/dl, the reticulocyte was 17.3 percent with 2 erythroblasts per 100 white cells, the white cell count was 7,100/microliters and the platelet count was 0.8 x 10(4)/microliters. Peripheral blood smear demonstrated marked fragmentation of red cells. Bone marrow examination disclosed the marked erythroid hyperplasia. Although the bleeding time was prolonged (14 minutes 30 seconds), the other hemostatic data were within normal limits. The serum bilirubin level was 1.57 mg/dl; LDH level, 1,437 U/l; creatinine level, 0.92 mg/dl; BUN level 14.7 mg/dl. Haptoglobin was below 10 mg/dl. Results of immunological tests were all negative except the result of PAIgG (576.6 ng/10(7) cells). The urinalysis showed proteinuria, microhematuria and trace granular and hyaline casts. A diagnosis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura was made. The patient was initially treated with prednisolone (60 mg), aspirin (1,000 mg), dipyridamole (150 mg), gabexate mesilate (1.5 g), sodium oxagrel (80 mg) daily with little response. The thirty days after admission, infusion of gamma globulin (20 g, daily) was given for 3 days. The clinical state and laboratory findings became dramatically improved shortly after the administration of gamma globulin and the laboratory data came to be normalized after 1 month. After ten months of this treatment, the patient is remained asymptomatic and the hematological data are within normal range without using any drug. A trial seems justified to confirm the value of this mode of therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0282_16640", "title": "[An elderly case of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura].", "score": 0.017073525138041265, "content": "A 78-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital because of disorientation and fever on January 21, 1992. Two days before admission she experienced vomiting, anorexia and general malaise. Laboratory examinations on admission disclosed a hemoglobin level of 11.1 g/dl and a platelet count of 8,000/microliters. The peripheral blood smear revealed anisocytosis with numerous schistocytes and poikilocytes. Polychromatophilic and nucleated red blood cells were also seen, and the reticulocyte count was 38/1000. Her serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) value was 2,977 WU and the total serum bilirubin level was 3.5 mg/dl with 2.7 mg/dl indirect reacting fraction. Serum creatinine was 4.7 mg/dl. Her consciousness became semicomatose after a systemic seizure which lasted approximately 15 seconds and her hemoglobin level decreased to 8.5 g/dl on hospital day 2. Therefore, we diagnosed her as having thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) because of the presence of all 5 features, that is, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, fluctuating neurologic abnormalities, renal dysfunction and fever. A plasmapheresis with fresh frozen plasma (FFP) replacement was begun on that day. She was also treated with anti-platelet agents, 80 mg/day aspirin, and 300 mg/day dipyridamole. Moreover, packed red blood cells (PRC) were infused. While also receiving diphenylhydantoin and phenobarbital to prevent convulsions, status epilepticus developed on day 3. Because of inhibited spontaneous respiration which was an adverse effect derived from diazepam and sodium thiamylal administered intravenously to treat the status epilepticus, an artificial respiration was initiated.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0074_218", "title": "[Macrothrombocytopenia with deafness, nephritis, cataract, short small intestine, and double ureter].", "score": 0.01661220043572985, "content": "A 23 year old female, born in 1957, was diagnosed as having idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura at the age of 3 and treated with prednisolone during her childhood with no response. On her regular check-up in 1978, facial edema and proteinuria suggested renal disease. The family history was negative for bleeding diathesis or renal disease. Close examination revealed the following: WBC 4,200/microliters without leukocyte inclusions, RBC 3.42 x 10(6)/microliters, Hb 11.7 g/dl. PT 10.6 sec, APTT 28.9 sec. Platelet count 4,500/microliters by HEMATRAK 360, and 40 x 10(3)/microliters measured by microscopic method. Giant platelets were noted on peripheral blood smear with an average diameter of 6.1 microns. Bleeding time (Duke) was 12.0 min. Number of megakaryocytes was increased although platelet production was remarkably decreased. Results of platelet aggregation and retention tests were normal. Platelet life span (T1/2) was 2.3 days. Sensory neural hearing loss, congenital cataract, double ureter and short small intestine were also found. Chromosome analysis showed 46XX. She underwent splenectomy resulting in increase of the platelet count to 226 x 10(3)/microliters. The increased platelet count, however, gradually decreased to the initial count in 2 years although the bleeding tendency was improved. In 1987, renal function deteriorated, causing intractable hypertension. The serum creatinine was 4.8 mg/dl. The following year she developed cerebral bleeding and died 4 days after the episode. The serum creatinine was 8.6 mg/dl." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0312_4337", "title": "[(Neurological CPC-59). A 65-year-old man with a history of gastric cancer who presented progressive loss of vision, memory loss and consciousness disturbance].", "score": 0.01466181506849315, "content": "We report a 65-year-old man with progressive loss of vision and consciousness disturbance. The patient was well until his age of 63 when he was found to have a gastric cancer. He was treated by the tumor resection and chemotherapy; he was apparently well, but hepatic metastases were found in the next year (1996). In June, 1996, he noted an onset of blurred vision more on the left. He was admitted to the ophthalmology service of our hospital on July 14, 1996. His vision was 0.8 on the right and 0.15 on the left. He was treated with oral prednisolone with slight improvement. He was also found to have IgM kappa-type monoclonal gammopathy; Bence-Jones protein was positive and a bone marrow aspiration revealed that approximately 10% of bone marrow cells were atypical plasma cells. His vision had progressively got worse and he became blind by the end of October 1996. A chest X-ray and cranial CT scan revealed multiple abnormal nodular densities. In the middle of November 1996, he became confused, disoriented and agitated. His mental symptoms had progressively became worse, and a neurologic consultation was asked on December 10, 1996. Neurologic examination revealed that he was somnolent with decreased attention to his surroundings. He showed marked disorientation and memory loss. Higher cerebral functions appeared intact. He was able to recognize only light and dark. Pupils were moderately dilated with very sluggish light reflex remained. Vertical gaze was moderately restricted and horizontal nystagmus was noted upon left and right lateral gaze. The remaining of the neurologic examination were unremarkable. General physical examination revealed hepatosplenomegaly; the liver was palpable by 3 cm below the right costal margin. Laboratory examination revealed anemia (Hb10.1 g/dl) and thrombocytopenia (43,000/microliter). A cranial CT scan and MRI revealed a mass lesion in involving the chiasmatic and bilateral hypothalamic areas. The tumor showed intense homogeneous enhancement after Gd-DTPA infusion. The patient was treated with dexamethasone and radiation. After 9 Gray radiation, he showed deterioration in the sensorium; a cranial CT scan revealed a hydrocephalus of the right ventricle with the midline shift towards left. The radiation was discontinued. The subsequent clinical course was complicated by aspiration pneumonia and thrombocytopenia. He expired on January 4, 1997. The patient was discussed in a neurological CPC and the chief discussant arrived at the conclusion that the patient had systemic malignant lymphoma with metastasis to the brain judging from the characteristics of MRI and CT findings. Opinions were divided between malignant lymphoma and metastatic brain tumor. Post-mortem examination revealed plasmacytoid lymphocytic infiltration in the bone marrow. Immunologically, these cells were positive for IgM and kappa-type light chain. These plasmacytic infiltrations were seen in the lungs and lymph nodes. These findings were consistent with the diagnosis of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia. In the liver metastatic cancer tissues were seen; microscopic pictures were essentially similar to those of resected gastric cancer. No local recidive was noted in the stomach. In the central nervous system, a necrotic tissue was involving the hypothalamic area bilaterally; no clear neoplastic cells were found, however, lymphocytic and plasmacytic infiltrations were seen in the perivascular space. In the optic nerves, loss of myelin and axons were seen. These findings most likely mass formation from macroglobulinemia which underwent necrotic change after radiation. Mass formation in the brain is rare for Waldenström's macroglobulinemia, although it has been reported. The relation between gastric cancer and macroglobulinemia in this patient is unclear." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0658_24756", "title": "[Autopsy case of dural thickening caused by widespread dural vein thrombosis associated with disseminated bone marrow carcinomatosis].", "score": 0.013977762650329021, "content": "A 64-year-old woman was referred to our hospital because of disturbance of consciousness. She had undergone distal gastrectomy for gastric carcinoma 17 years previously. General physical examination was unremarkable, neurologic examination disclosed hyperactive deep tendon reflexes in the upper limbs. Laboratory abnormalities included elevations of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and findings suggesting disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Lumbar cerebrospinal fluid showed a protein concentration of 408 mg/dl and a glucose concentration of 82 mg/dl (blood: 110 mg/dl), as well as a cell count of 16/mm3. Cranial computed tomography indicated brain edema. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain showed diffuse thickening of the dura mater, with contrast enhancement upon gadolinium-DTPA administration. These findings suggested hypertrophic pachymeningitis. Magnetic resonance venography (MRV) showed occlusion of the left transverse sinus and attenuation of the straight sinus. MRI of the spine as well as gallium scintigrams demonstrated multiple areas of increased uptake in areas near the skull and spine. We therefore suspected tumor metastasis. The patient was given heparin as well as pulse therapy with methylprednisolone, but she died 7 weeks after symptom onset. At postmortem examination, the dura was thickened. Histopathologically, numerous tumor cell emboli in the dura were confined to the lumens of veins. The tumor cells were thought to have metastasized to the dura through the vertebral venous plexus (Batson's plexus). Immunostaining demonstrated immunoreactivity of tumor cells to epithelial membrane antigen (EMA) and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). The primary origin of the carcinoma was not precisely identified by these findings. Widespread dural vein tumor emboli should be taken into consideration as a cause in cases that develop rapid deterioration of consciousness associated dura mater thickening." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0354_2179", "title": "[Ticlopidine-associated thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (Morbus Moschcowitz)].", "score": 0.013905654000289702, "content": "A 75-year-old woman with a history of recurrent ischemic cerebral events was admitted with acute unspecific neurological symptoms and fever. Intracerebral hemorrhage due to hypertension and antithrombotic therapy with ticlopidine was ruled out with cranial computed tomography. Laboratory findings on admission included thrombocytopenia (12/nl), renal insufficiency (serum creatinine 1.6 mg/dl) and LDH elevation (1,218 U/l). The hemoglobin on admission was normal. In the presence of rapidly declining hemoglobin values and fragmentation of red cells thrombotic-thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) was diagnosed and the patient received fresh frozen plasma. Shortly after the plasma infusion the patient's condition deteriorated rapidly showing clinical signs of an allergic shock. In the sequel of 24 to 48 hours the patient developed renal failure, severe anemia and the thrombocyte count fell to 5/nl. The patient was mechanically ventilated during the next 48 hours and needed intravenous catecholamines. Even after restoration of spontaneous respiration and cessation of pharmacological sedation the patient remained comatose. Cranial computed tomography on the fourth day after admission showed multiple infarction syndrome. The patient died on the ninth day after admission in status epilepticus which could not be stopped with pharmacological means. The combination of neurological symptoms, thrombocytopenia, fever, renal failure and hemolytic anemia in a patient taking ticlopidine points to a diagnosis of TTP. The high mortality of TTP can probably only be reduced by early plasmapheresis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en085_21868", "title": "Thrombotic microangiopathy", "score": 0.013892838282487711, "content": "Diagnosis CBC and blood film: decreased platelets and schistocytes PT, aPTT, fibrinogen: normal markers of hemolysis: increased unconjugated bilirubin, increased LDH, decreased haptoglobin negative Coombs test. Creatinine, urea, to follow renal function ADAMSTS-13 gene, activity or inhibitor testing (TTP)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0303_12627", "title": "[A 36-year-old woman with acute onset left hemiplegia and anosognosia].", "score": 0.013721804511278194, "content": "We report a 36-year-old woman with right hemiplegia, anosognosia, and rapidly deteriorating course. She was well until the end of January, 1995 when she had an onset of fever, sputum, and cough. A 5 x 5 tumor was found in her left lower lobe. She was admitted to the Pulmonary Medicine on May 24, 1995 when she was 36-year-old. General physical examination was unremarkable. Bone scintigraphy revealed increased uptake in the skull, sternum, right scapula, vertebrae, right femur, and in ribs. Cranial CT scan revealed a large mass lesion in the right frontal subcortical region with central low density and peripheral high density areas, and small low density lesions in the right thalamic area and in the right posterior frontal region; ring enhancement was observed in the latter two lesions. On the second day of admission, she noted left-sided weakness which improved by corticosteroid treatment. On June 17, there was a sudden onset of left hemiparesis and a neurologic consultation was asked. Upon neurologic examination, she appeared somnolent but could understand verbal commands. She showed constructional apraxia, neglect of the left hemisphere, and anosognosia. Cranial nerves were unremarkable. Motor-wise, she showed flaccid left hemiplegia. Deep tendon reflexes were exaggerated on the left and the plantar response was extensor bilaterally. Nuchal stiffness was noted. Her cranial CT scan on June 17 revealed enlargement of the right frontal mass lesion. The subsequent course was complicated by DIC and progressive worsening of her consciousness. On June 18, she was comatose and pupillary light reflex was lost. She developed Cheyne-Stokes respiration and expired on that evening. The patient was discussed in a neurological CPC, and the chief discussant arrived at the conclusion that the patient had a primary adenocarcinoma in the lung with multiple metastases including the brain. The fulminant terminal course was ascribed to hemorrhage within the tumor and subsequent central type of transtentorial herniation. Opinions were divided regarding the cause of hemorrhage; some participants thought hemorrhage was caused by DIC. Post-mortem examination revealed an adenocarcinoma arising at the S6 segment of the left lung with multiple organ metastases. In the brain, a huge hemorrhagic metastasis was found in the right frontal lobe and a non-hemorrhagic metastasis in the right thalamic region. Probably, the size of the metastases influenced the occurrence of hemorrhage. The direct cause of the death was transtentorial herniation." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_9159", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012922138135263678, "content": "TTP is a devastating disease if not diagnosed and treated promptly. In patients presenting with new thrombocytopenia, with or without evidence of renal insufficiency and other elements of classic TTP, laboratory data should be obtained to rule out DIC and to evaluate for evidence of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Findings to support the TTP diagnosis include an increased lactate dehydrogenase and indirect bilirubin, decreased haptoglobin, and increased reticulocyte count, with a negative direct antiglobulin test. The peripheral smear should be examined for evidence of schistocytes (Fig. 140-1D). Polychromasia is usually also present due to the increased number of young red blood cells, and nucleated RBCs are often present, which is thought to be due to infarction in the micro-circulatory system of the bone marrow." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0570_13008", "title": "[A case of acute renal and liver dysfunction with light chain deposition disease].", "score": 0.012467292596583038, "content": "A 62 year old woman was referred to our hospital because of acute renal and liver dysfunction. Prior to admission, she had already been started on hemodyalysis filtration(HDF). She showed facial edema and lumbar pain caused by an Ll compressive fracture. Laboratory examinations revealed hypercalcemia (13.2 mg/dL), hyperammonemia (297 microg/dL) and her serum creatinine, blood urea nitrogen and total bilirubin levels were 3.9 mg/dL, 37.4 mg/dL and 3.2 mg/dL, respectively. Among the components of immunoglobulin, IgA was increased, while IgG and IgM were decreased. Serum immunoelectrophoresis revealed the presence of the IgA kappa type of M component. Punched out lesions were noted on her head radiography. Severe plasmacytosis (60-70 % of total cells) were observed by a bone marrow aspiration test, indicating the diagnosis of multiple myeloma. Steroid pulse therapy was started with dexamethasone (40 mg/day, 3 days), and plasma exchange was performed 8 times with continuous HDF. These treatments failed to control hemodynamics and she died of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Autopsy demonstrated amyloid-like depositions in perisinusoidal space in the liver. In the kidney, there were nodular lesions in the glomeruli, and depositions in the basement membrane of the uriniferous tubuli. Congo red staining of these organs for amyloid yielded negative results. Immunohistochemical staining gave positive results for IgA and kappa. Electron microscopy revealed granular electron deposits in the glomeruli and tubular basement membrane as well. Taken altogether, the diagnosis of the patient could be light chain deposition disease (LCDD)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1051_19020", "title": "Quetiapine-induced thrombotic microangiopathy in a patient on maintenance dialysis.", "score": 0.011083555310615107, "content": "Quetiapine has been reported to cause immune-mediated thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA), although few cases have been reported thus far. A 71-year-old man with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease on maintenance dialysis was hospitalized with a hemorrhagic basal ganglia stroke, and was treated with 25 mg quetiapine for delirium from day 4 of admission. There was no worsening of consciousness, fever, diarrhea, or elevated blood pressure during the hospitalization. Gingival bleeding appeared on day 35, and the platelet count on day 38 was 0.5 × 10<sup4</sup/μL (13.2 × 10<sup4</sup/μL on day 16). The presence of 1% schistocytes, high LDH level, inability to measure haptoglobin, negative direct Coombs test, and normal prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time indicated TMA. We considered an exclusionary diagnosis of drug-induced TMA, because of normal ADAMTS13 activity, no evidence of complement activation and the absence of Shiga toxin or symptoms of collagen disease or cancer. Quetiapine was the most likely causative factor; however, all drugs, including heparin, were discontinued or changed. Due to persistent microbleeding, platelet transfusions were performed several times. After only quetiapine was discontinued, the platelet count recovered smoothly to 3.1 and 7.2 × 10<sup4</sup/μL on days 45 and 72, respectively; LDH and fibrinogen levels normalized on day 47. All medications, except quetiapine, were restarted sequentially after day 47, without subsequent thrombocytopenia. Platelet activation predominantly by a drug-dependent antibody might be the etiology of quetiapine-induced TMA. Plasmapheresis may not be necessary for quetiapine, because of its unproven efficacy in drug-induced TMA." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_9237", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009929444157632077, "content": "The mortality ranges from 30 to >80% depending on the underlying disease, the severity of the DIC, and the age of the patient. The diagnosis of clinically significant DIC is based on the presence of clinical and/or laboratory abnormalities of coagulation or thrombocytopenia. The laboratory diagnosis of DIC should prompt a search for the underlying disease if it is not already apparent. There is no single test that establishes the diagnosis of DIC. The laboratory investigation should include coagulation tests (aPTT, PT, thrombin time [TT]) and markers of fibrin degradation products (FDPs), in addition to platelet and red cell count and analysis of the blood smear. These tests should be repeated over a period of 6–8 h because an initially mild abnormality can change dramatically in patients with severe DIC." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_91208", "title": "Multiple myeloma", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Signs and symptoms Because many organs can be affected by myeloma, the symptoms and signs vary greatly. Fatigue and bone pain are the most common symptoms at presentation. The CRAB criteria encompass the most common signs of multiple myeloma: Calcium: serum calcium >0.25 mmol/l (>1 mg/dl) higher than the upper limit of normal or >2.75 mmol/l (>11 mg/dl) Renal insufficiency: creatinine clearance <40 ml per minute or serum creatinine >1.77 mol/l (>2 mg/dl) Anemia: hemoglobin value of >2g/dl below the lowest limit of normal, or a hemoglobin value <10g/dl Bone lesions: osteolytic lesions on skeletal radiography, CT, or PET/CT Bone pain" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0851_23052", "title": "[Sudden death associated with myocardial damage caused by microthrombi in a patient with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura].", "score": 0.0097644621210317, "content": "We describe a 35-year-old woman with Down's syndrome who was admitted to a clinic with anorexia and vomiting. Since laboratory findings showed anemia (Hb 7.4 g/dl) and thrombocytopenia (0.5 × 10⁴/μl), she was transferred to our hospital for treatment. Further laboratory examinations revealed schistocytes, LDH elevation, and a negative Coombs' test. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) was suspected. Plasma exchange (PEX) and prednisolone administration were thus immediately initiated. Prior to these treatments, ADAMTS13 activity was less than 5% and inhibitors were detected at a level of 0.8 Bethesda U/ml. Although her platelet count had risen to 13.0 × 10⁴/μl by day 6 (post 4 sessions of PEX), it had decreased to 1.8 × 10⁴/μl on day 7. Despite ongoing PEX, thrombocytopenia persisted. On day 21, she suddenly died. Autopsy findings revealed no evidence of myocardial necrosis or coronary artery thrombosis. Extensive microthrombi were, however, detected in precapillary arterioles, capillaries, and post-capillary venules of the heart. Therefore, this patient's sudden death was clinically suspected to have been caused by cardiomyopathy, which had produced cardiogenic shock." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0681_21394", "title": "[Metastatic prostate cancer complicated with chronic disseminated intravascular coagulopathy causing acute renal failure, mimicking thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and hemolytic uremic syndrome: pathomechanism, differential diagnosis and therapy related to a case].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is characterized as activation of the clotting system resulting in fibrin thrombi, gradually diminishing levels of clotting factors with increased risk of bleeding. Basically two types of DIC are distinguished: (1) chronic (compensated) - with alteration of laboratory values and (2) acute (non-compensated) - with severe clinical manifestations: bleeding, shock, acute renal failure (ARF), transient focal neurologic deficit, delirium or coma. Chronic DIC related to metastatic neoplasia is caused by pancreatic, gastric or prostatic carcinoma in most of the cases. Incidence rate of DIC is 13-30% in prostate cancer, among those only 0.4-1.65% of patients had clinical signs and symptoms of DIC. In other words, chronic DIC is developed in one of eight patients with prostate cancer. DIC is considered as a poor prognostic factor in prostatic carcinoma. The similar clinical and laboratory findings of TTP-HUS (thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura - hemolytic uremic syndrome) and DIC makes it difficult to differentiate between them. A 71 years old male patient with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, benign prostatic hyperplasia, significant carotid artery stenosis, gastric ulcer and alcoholic liver disease was admitted to another hospital with melena. Gastroscopy revealed intact gastric mucosa and actually non-bleeding duodenal ulcer covered by clots. Laboratory results showed hyperkalemia, elevated kidney function tests, indirect hyperbilirubinemia, increased liver function tests, leukocytosis, anemia, thrombocytopenia and elevated international normalized ratio (INR). He was treated with saline infusions, four units of red blood cells and one unit of fresh frozen plasma transfusions. Four days later he was transported to our Institution with ARF. Physical examination revealed dyspnoe, petechiae, hemoptoe, oliguria, chest-wall pain and aggressive behavior. Thrombocytopenia, signs of MAHA (fragmentocytes and helmet cells in the peripheral blood), normal INR, elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and ARF suggested TTP-HUS. Hemodialysis and six plasmaferesis (PF) were carried out. After the fifth PF, skin manifestations of thrombotic microangiopathy occurred on the feet. Clotting analysis revealed elevated D-dimer (&gt;5 μg/mL), normal fibrinogen (3.2 g/L), a slightly raised INR (1.36) and activated partial prothrombin time (APTT) (45.8 sec), normal reticulocyte (57 G/L) and a slightly low platelet count (123 G/L), which proved to be chronic DIC. Therapeutic dose of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) was started. Elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) (109.6 ng/mL) suggested prostatic carcinoma. Prostate biopsy revealed adenocarcinoma (Gleason: 4+4 for left lobe and 3+3 for right lobe). Elevated alkaline phosphatase suggested metastases in the bone, which were confirmed by bone scintigraphy. Combined androgen blockade (CAB) was started. After three months follow-up our patient's status is satisfactory. PSA is in the normal range (4.6 ng/mL). Thrombocytopenia of uncertain origin with normal or raised INR, APTT, elevated D-dimer, normal fibrinogen and reticulocyte count prove the diagnosis of chronic DIC. This process warrants searching for metastatic neoplasia. Due to the relatively low serum levels of circulating procoagulant factors (e.g. tissue factor), therapeutic dose of LMWH can be used with good efficiency in chronic DIC with low risk of bleeding. Severe DIC as a complication of metastatic prostate cancer can be treated by androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) or CAB in combination with ketokonazole and concomitant use of supportive treatment. Deme D, Ragán M, Kovács L, Kalmár K, Varga E, Varga T, Rakonczai E. Metastatic prostate cancer complicated with chronic disseminated intravascular coagulopathy causing acute renal failure mimicking thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and hemolytic uremic syndrome: pathomechanism, differential diagnosis and therapy related to a case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0299_9493", "title": "[A 91-year-old man with a stroke, hypertension, and renal failure].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "We report a 91-year-old man who had a stroke and died of renal failure. He had been treated for hypertension since 20 years before the onset of the present illness. In addition, he was operated on a gastric cancer 17 years previously. Otherwise he was doing well until May 29, 1991 (when he was 87-year-old) when he had sudden onset of dysarthria and right facial weakness. He was admitted to our hospital. On admission, general physical examination was unremarkable, and neurologic examination revealed a mentally sound man with slight dysarthria, right facial weakness, orolingual dyskinesia, and dysequilibrium in which he showed difficulty in tandem gait; however, no cerebellar ataxia was noted. A cranial CT scan revealed leukoaraiosis with multiple low density areas in the cerebral white matter. His BUN was 37 mg/dl and Cr 2.2 mg/dl. His neurologic symptoms cleared within the next few weeks and he was discharged with ticlopidine 100 mg q.d.. He had been doing well after the discharge except for gradual worsening of his renal function; his BUN was 65 mg/dl and Cr 3.27 mg/dl in April of 1994. On March 10, 1995, he fell down and hit his back; he became unable to walk because of pain, and he was admitted again on March 16, 1995. On admission, his blood pressure was 170/80 mmHg. There was an 1 + pitting pretibial edema; otherwise general physical examination was unremarkable. Neurologic examination revealed an alert and oriented man, however, Hasegawa's dementia scale was 23/30. Higher cerebral functions as well as cranial nerves were intact. He showed some unsteadiness of gait, however, no motor weakness or ataxia was noted. Deep tendon reflexes were diminished, but Chaddock sign was positive bilaterally. Vibration was diminished in the feet, however, pain and touch sensations were intact. Laboratory examination revealed a compression fracture of the twelfth thoracic vertebra. Blood count and chemistries were as follows; Hb 7.6 g/dl, Hct 23.3%, TP 6.0 g/dl, Alb 3.6 g/dl, BUN 87 mg/dl, Cr 4.53 mg/dl, T-Chol 174 mg/dl, HDL-Chol 49 mg/dl, Glu 156 mg/dl, Na 142 mEq/L, K 5.4 mEq/L, Cl 115 mEq/L. A urine specimen contained 1 + protein and 1 + glucose, and the sediments contained hyaline casts. A cranial CT scan was essentially same as that taken four years ago. His hospital course was complicated with pneumonia, congestive heart failure, and progressive renal failure. He was treated with intravenous fluid, chemotherapy, and other supportive measures, however, he expired from respiratory failure on April 30, 1995. He was discussed in a neurologic CPC, and the chief discussant arrived at the conclusion that the patient had Binswanger's disease in the brain, benign nephrosclerosis from arteriolosclerosis due to hypertension, congestive heart failure, and pneumonia. Opinions were divided regarding the question as to whether or not this patient had Binswanger's disease. Although his cranial CT scan revealed leukoaraiosis, his dementia and gait disturbance was only mild until his fall on March, 1995. Clinical features did not conform to those of Binswanger's disease. Postmortem examination of the right hemisphere revealed wide spread atherosclerosis and arteriolosclerosis. The kidney showed benign nephrosclerosis due to arteriolosclerosis. Sclerotic changes were also seen in the coronary arteries and the left middle cerebral artery with 70% stenosis. Myelin stain showed diffuse myelin pallor of the cerebral white matters with scattered small infarcts. Arterioles in the white matter showed arteriolosclerosis. Small infarcts were also seen in the putamen and in the thalamus. This patient appeared to have had circulatory disturbance of the white matter which is the basic abnormality causing Binswanger's disease. However, white matter changes in this patient were not quite severe enough to make a pathologic diagnosis of Binswanger's disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0274_11506", "title": "[Clinical profile and course of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To evaluate the clinical characteristics, laboratory findings, course, treatment and survival of a series of patients with PNH. The clinical records of 21 patients diagnosed of PNH in the La Fe University Hospital between 1970 and July 1991 were revised. Positivity to Ham's and sucrose tests was the major diagnostic criterion. Haemolysis was studied by means of reticulocyte count, unconjugated bilirubin, LDH levels, haptoglobin, serum iron, and haemosiderinuria. The survival analysis was performed in accordance with Kaplan and Meier. The median age in the group was 38 years (range: 18-72 years) and the M/F ratio was 11/10. The commonest symptoms at onset were weakness (76%), dark urine (47%), jaundice (33%), and purpura (24%). All the patients had anaemia, six of them (28%) presenting with aplastic anaemia. The complications most frequently seen included thrombosis (documented in 7 cases, clinically suspected in 6 others), infection (6 cases) and haemorrhage (6 cases). One patient developed aplastic anaemia after 16 years of follow-up, and another one had AML. None of the patients with PNH-associated aplastic anaemia developed thrombosis. The incidence of severe cytopenia was: Hb &lt; 80 g/L, 62%; platelet count &lt; or = 20 x 10(9)/L, 29%, and white cell count &lt; or = 2 x 10(9)/L, 14%. The haemolysis-related findings were as follows: unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, 100%; haemosiderinuria, 87%; decreased haptoglobin, 80%. Transfusion support consisted of washed red cells (total amount, 1,684 units) and platelets (137 units). A female patient with anticoagulant therapy developed haemolysis after non-isogroup plasma transfusion. Five patients required no transfusions. One patient was subjected to splenectomy and other underwent a successful bone-marrow transplant. The cause of death was related to PNH in three of the five patients who had died when this study was finished (mesenteric thrombosis, subcapsular haematoma of the liver and AML). The actuarial survival at 10 years was 68%. 1) The incidence of PNH is very low in our experience, excessive delay in diagnosis being the rule, as in other reported series. 2) Early anti-thrombotic treatment should be carried out in PNH whenever severe thrombocytopenia is not associated. 3) Allogeneic BMT is the only curative treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0548_5253", "title": "Subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma with hemophagocytic syndrome successfully treated with cyclosporin A.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A 17-year-old girl previously in good health presented with a 2-month history of recurrent, high-grade fever; general fatigue; anorexia; a 10-kg weight loss; and multiple, painful, reddish skin lesions on the lower abdomen. Some lesions were ulcerated, with an oily yellowish brown discharge. A systemic review was unremarkable other than bleeding from the nose. Her medical and family histories were unremarkable. On examination, the patient was pale, jaundiced, and febrile (temperature of 39 degrees C). She had enlarged lymph nodes in the axillary and inguinal areas. There was moderate hepatosplenomegaly. Local skin examination revealed multiple erythematous, tender, and firm subcutaneous nodules of variable size (1-2 cm) on the lower abdomen. Some nodules were ulcerated, with oily yellowish brown discharge and overlying ecchymosis (Figures 1 and 2). Mucous membranes were free of lesions. Laboratory investigations showed pancytopenia, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (&gt;80 mm/h), normal renal function tests, abnormal hepatic function tests (alanine aminotransferase 172 U/L, aspartate aminotransferase 229 U/L, alkaline phosphatase 725 U/L, and total bilirubin 100 mmol/L [normal range 0-18 mmol/L]), conjugated bilirubin 45 mmol/L (normal range 0-5 mmol/L), and high triglycerides 855 mg/dL (normal range 20-200 mg/dL). Prolonged prothrombin time, 26 seconds (normal range 13-16 seconds); prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time, 61 seconds (normal range 26-38 seconds); positive disseminated intravascular coagulation studies evidenced by low fibrinogen, 74 mg/dL (normal range 160-350 mg/dL); and positive fibrinogen degradation products were also noted. Throat, midstream urine, and blood culture results were negative. Serologic tests for syphilis, HIV, and hepatitis B and C viruses were negative. Epstein-Barr virus and cytomegalovirus serologic values revealed evidence of past infection. Tuberculin and Coombs tests were negative. The alpha1-antitrypsin level was normal. Antinuclear and anti-smith antibodies, rheumatoid factor, and cryoglobulins were negative. CT showed enlarged lymph nodes in the axillary and inguinal areas, bilateral small pleural effusion, moderate hepatosplenomegaly, severe fatty infiltration of the liver, and thickening of lower abdominal subcutaneous tissue. A liver biopsy showed steatohepatitis. Bone marrow aspirate and trephine were normal. A deep punch biopsy of a nodule from the right lower abdomen revealed lobular panniculitis with atypical lymphocytes and large macrophages with cytophagocytosis (\"beanbag\" cells) (Figures 3 and 4). Immunohistochemistry showed that these atypical cells were positive for CD3, CD8, granzyme B, and perforin, and negative for CD56. T-cell gene rearrangement studies on skin lesions revealed a monoclonal T-cell receptor (gamma-chain) gene rearrangement, supporting the diagnosis of subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma. On presentation, the initial treatment included 6 U of fresh frozen plasma, 2 U of packed red blood cells, and 2 g IV fibrinogen for 3 consecutive days. The patient was started on prednisolone 60 mg orally once daily and cyclosporine A 5 mg/kg/d orally in two divided doses. The fever and other systemic symptoms and skin lesions resolved within 2 weeks after the treatment. The prednisolone dose was tapered gradually, and a maintenance dose of cyclosporine A was continued. The patient's condition remained in remission at 12-month follow-up; there was no evidence of clinical relapse." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0249_18191", "title": "[A 49-year-old man with progressive dysarthria, dysphagia, and left hemiparesis].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "We report a 49-year-old man who presented progressive dysarthria, dysphagia, and left hemiparesis. The patient was well until June 28th of 1993 when he noted 'weakness' in his both legs; despite his weakness, he could play golf on that day. In the beginning of July, he noted difficulty in swallowing solid foods. He was admitted to the neurosurgery service of our hospital on July 15th of 1993 and a neurologic consultation was asked on July 17th. Neurologic examination at that time revealed an alert but somewhat childish man who appeared to have some difficulty in paying attention to questions. He was disoriented to time and showed difficulty in recent memory and calculation. Higher cerebral functions were intact. The optic fundi were normal; pupils were isocoric and reacted to light promptly; ocular movements were intact, however, he showed difficulty in convergence. Facial sensation and facial muscles were intact. He had no deafness. He showed slurred speech and difficulty in swallowing solid foods. The remaining cranial nerves were intact. Motor-wise, he was able to walk normally and no weakness or atrophy was noted. Mild ataxia was noted in the finger-to-nose and the heel-to-knee test on the left. Muscle stretch reflexes were normal and symmetric, however, the plantar response was extensor bilaterally. Sensation was intact and no meningeal signs were noted. General routine laboratory findings were unremarkable. CSF was under a normal pressure containing 1 cell/microliter, 68 mg/dl of protein, and 54 mg/dl of glucose. Cranial CT scan showed low density areas involving the pons, midbrain, left thalamus, and the left parietal cortex. In MRI, these areas presented low signal intensity in T1-weighted images and high signal intensity in T2-weighted in images. The brain stem appeared swollen. Gadolinium enhancement was negative. He was given a course of steroid pulse with 1 g/day of DIV methylprednisolone for three days followed by oral steroid. He showed only temporary improvement in swallowing. In the subsequent course, he showed progressive deterioration in dysarthria and dysphagia. A biopsy was performed on the left parietal lobe lesion. After biopsy, he was treated with steroid and glycerol without improvement. A course of chemotherapy with procarbazine, MCNU, and vincristine was given; he did not respond to chemotherapy. His left hemiparesis deteriorated. He developed aspiration pneumonia from dysphagia and expired on October 22, 1993. The patient was discussed in a neurologic CPC, and the chief discussant arrived at the conclusion that the patient had astrocytoma grade III involving the pons, midbrain, thalamus, and the parietal cortex.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0221_15824", "title": "[Proceedings of the 7th Congress of Internal Medicine].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Hemostasis was studied in 55 patients with myeloma, grouped in three groups according to the clinical stage of the disease. Thrombocytic adhesion, aggregation, activity of TF3 and TF4, of antithrombin III, FMDC level, FDP titre and fibrinolysis test were determined on the background of the screening coagulation tests. The studies were carried out before the treatment and were followed up after the therapeutic response or in the absence of improvement. Thirty per cent of the patients had manifestations of hemorrhagic diathesis, and 5 per cent - thromboembolism. Essential hemostatic deviations were found: progressive thrombocytopenia and thrombopathia and DIC syndrome that correlate with the stage of the disease, being most severe among the stage III patients. The patients that responded to the treatment had a great part of the hemostatic disorders corrected, and in case of no effect from the treatment - the deviations persisted, intensified and in 5 of the patients were responsible for the fatal end. The pathogenesis of the hemostatic deviations is complex and is associated with the characteristics of the basic disease and the concomitant complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0968_3069", "title": "A Case of Recurrent Thrombotic Microangiopathy Caused by Hypertensive Urgency.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A 26-year-old man presented to the emergency room with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting for four days. His medical history was significant for hypertension and end-stage renal disease managed with hemodialysis. He had been noncompliant with the antihypertensive regimen which included nifedipine, hydralazine, and spironolactone. At presentation, his blood pressure was 231/123 mmHg. Laboratory workup showed white blood count 17.3 × 109/L (normal range: 4.5 to 11.0 × 109/L), hemoglobin 7.8 gm/dL (normal range: 13.5 to 17.5 g/dL), platelet count 46 × 109/L (normal range: 150 to 400 × 109/L), reticulocyte count 7.8%, total bilirubin 1 mg/dL (normal range: 0.1 to 1.2 mg/dL), lactate dehydrogenase 1,235 U/L (normal range: 140 to 280 U/L), haptoglobin &lt; 10 mg/dL, and a direct Coomb's test was negative. Numerous schistocytes were identified on the peripheral blood smear. The patient was diagnosed with thrombotic microangiopathy secondary to severe hypertension and was started on intravenous nicardipine. With appropriate blood pressure control, hematological parameters improved with normalization of the platelet count within 10 days. Notably, the patient had one similar episode of hypertension-induced thrombotic microangiopathy within a period of the last three months and ADAMTS-13 (a disintegrin and metalloprotease with thrombospondin type 1 motif 13) activity was normal on his previous admission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0213_1876", "title": "[Critical study of microscopic hematuria disclosed by screening tests].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Asymptomatic microscopic haematuria detected by dipstick in 0.28 p. 100 of 95,200 men was confirmed in only 0.11 p. 100. These results lead to the study of 272 cases to determine the value of dipsticks as a screening test and the benefits of complementary investigations to exclude symptomless diseases. Microscopic haematuria was confirmed in 65 p. 100 but results of other tests reduce the false positive screening results to 25.3 p. 100. Addis counting of at least 5,000 RBC/min is preferable to RBC count/ml which is dilution dependent. 77 p. 100 of microscopic haematuria are intermittent and can only be diagnosed by repeated Addis counts. In the absence of confirmed haematuria, only investigations to exclude proteinuria and urinary infections are justified." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1047_22213", "title": "Management of Frail Older Adults with Newly Diagnosed Multiple Myeloma - Moving Toward a Personalized Approach.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 75-year-old male undergoes an evaluation for progressively worsening fatigue with associated shortness of breath. He also reports back pain worse at night, which does not resolve with acetaminophen. He is retired, but over the past 2 months he is unable to garden or perform household chores. Due to his pain and fatigue, he has limited his activity. He currently takes 9 prescription medications for chronic medical conditions, which include diabetes mellitus with neuropathy, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and COPD. Initial evaluation reveals anemia (Hgb 9.0 g/dl last known normal was 2 years ago, Hgb 13.5 g/dl), renal impairment (serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL), hypercalcemia (11.5 g/dl). Plain X-rays reveal compression fractures involving T3 and T4. Multiple myeloma is suspected, further labs confirm the diagnosis of IgG kappa multiple myeloma. LDH is elevated, beta-2-microglobulin is elevated at 6.1 mg/L and albumin &lt; 3.5 mg/dl. Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy reveal plasmacytosis of 55% and on fluorescence in situ hybridization testing, del 17p/TP53 mutation in 85% of cells is detected. PET/CT confirms diffuse bone disease involving the axial and appendicular skeleton. His Karnofsky performance status (KPS) is 70%. He is widowed and lives alone but has 2 adult children who currently live out of state. This abstract will discuss how assessments of fitness/frailty may be used to develop personalized care tailored to the unique needs of older frail adults with multiple myeloma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0595_6427", "title": "Oxcarbazepine-induced hemolytic anemia in a geriatric patient.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Oxcarbazepine is a commonly used antiepileptic and mood stabilizer medication with a considerably good safety profile. Medication-induced side effects are a common cause of morbidity in the geriatric population. We describe a patient presenting with hemolytic anemia attributed to oxcarbazepine that resolved after discontinuation of the drug. A 75-year-old male was brought into the hospital because of lethargy for the previous few days. His medical history included diet-controlled diabetes mellitus, mild essential hypertension, ischemic stroke with no residual deficit, seizure disorder, and dementia. He was taking only trileptal for the previous 3 months. His other history was insignificant. Physical examination was remarkable for generalized pallor and impaired memory. Laboratory results showed hemoglobin of 4.6 g/dL. Serum lactate dehydrogenase was 1314 u/L, and total bilirubin was 3.4 mg/dL, with indirect bilirubin of 2.9 mg/dL. Peripheral blood smear revealed microspherocytes, polychromasia, and a few nucleated red blood cells. Urinalysis showed 12RBCs/high power field (HPF), hemosiderinuria, and moderate bilirubin. Coombs test, cold agglutinins, antinuclear antibodies, and cultures were negative. Computerized tomographic scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis was also normal. After exclusion of other causes of hemolysis, drug-induced hemolytic anemia was suspected, and oxcarbazepine was discontinued. The patient's symptoms and laboratory parameters improved. He was in a usual state of health at 7 months follow-up. To our knowledge, this is the first reported case of oxcarbazepine-induced hemolytic anemia in the medical literature, and it was reported to the manufacturing pharmaceutical company." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0079_9058", "title": "[Clinicopathological study of miliary tuberculosis in patients with hematologic disease].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Seven cases of miliary tuberculosis in patients with hematologic disease were analyzed clinicopathologically. Mean age of the patients was 65 years, and the hematologic diseases were CML, AML, ALL, MDS and malignant lymphoma. Diabetes mellitus was present as a complication in three patients. Miliary tuberculosis was found in 5 cases during the first admission to our hospital owing to hematologic problems. In 4 of 6 cases, fever had started more than two months before admission, consequently, the tuberculosis probably began about that time. After admission, chemotherapy was administered in 5 cases, and steroid in 6 cases for hematologic disease. The mean total quantity of steroid administered was 2,134 mg of prednisolone and average treatment duration was 69 days. The chest roentgenographic shadow was so atypical that miliary tuberculosis was suspected in only one case. The initial chest roentgenogram showed hilar and mediastinal lymph node swelling as well as the shadow of pulmonary tuberculosis in two cases. It was thought that the hilar and mediastinal lymph node swelling could be explained by primary complex, although the patients were of advanced age, or by \"secondary complex\" reported by Terplan, K in 1940. The diagnosis of tuberculosis was made in two patients before their death by smear of aspirated fluid of cervical lymph node and by bone marrow cell block in one patients, and by pathological examination of mediastinal lymph node biopsy in the other patients. Tubercles were found from bone marrow cell block in 2 out of 5 patients and from bone marrow biopsy in 1 out of 3 patients, but the positive results were reported in 2 patients following death. Smears of sputum, gastric juice, urine, spinal fluid and pleural effusion were negative in all cases. One patient diagnosed as miliary tuberculosis also had pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. This case was treated with antituberculosis drugs for 20 days without improvement. Another patient diagnosed as miliary tuberculosis improved under treatment with antituberculosis drugs, but died of cytomegalovirus pneumonia. Autopsy in 5 cases revealed non-reactive miliary tuberculosis, and pulmonary hemorrhage probably due to DIC was present as a complication in two cases. In these cases, severe immunosuppression, which is a major precipitating factor of miliary tuberculosis, is thought to be induced by hematologic disease itself, chemotherapy, steroid or other underlying disease such as diabetes mellitus. Miliary tuberculosis in such compromised host is cryptic and progresses rapidly. Consequently, early diagnosis is very important. Retrospectively, the unexplained pyrexia was most important to suspect tuberculosis.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "article-25360_16", "title": "Multiple Myeloma -- Evaluation", "score": 0.009161425576519916, "content": "Historically, we have diagnosed MM if clonal bone marrow plasma cells were greater than or equal than 10% on bone marrow biopsy (or if a biopsy-proven plasmacytoma was present) in addition to at least one of the following CRAB criteria: Serum calcium level greater than 0.25 mmol/L (greater than 1 mg/dL) higher than the upper limit of normal or greater than 2.75 mmol/L (greater than 11 mg/dL) Renal insufficiency (creatinine greater than 2 mg/dL [greater than 177 micromol/L] or creatinine clearance less than 40 mL per minute) Anemia (hemoglobin less than 10 g/dL or hemoglobin greater than 2 g/dL below the lower limit of normal) One or more osteolytic bone lesions on skeletal radiography, CT, or PET-CT often described as punched-out, round, radiolucent lesions" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1108_5666", "title": "Thrombotic Microangiopathy in a Severe Pediatric Case of COVID-19.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "In this case report, we report a pediatric patient with COVID-19 and atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (aHUS). A 3-year-old girl with fever and respiratory distress was admitted to the hospital. The patient tested positive for COVID-19 by a PCR test. As her respiratory distress increased and blood gas indicated deep respiratory acidosis on the third day of the pediatric intensive care unit follow-up, the patient was intubated and ventilated. Thorax computerized tomography (CT) showed bilateral effusion and atelectasis. During her follow-up, the pleural effusion resolved but there were marked consolidation areas and ground glass opacities compatible with COVID-19 on the follow-up CT. On the 10th day, she became anuric and developed progressive thrombocytopenia and persistent microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, which were suggestive of HUS given a high creatinine level (1.9 mg/dl), an undetectable haptoglobin level, reticulocytosis (8%), and an LDH level of 2540 U/l. Direct Coombs test returned negative. Examination of a peripheral blood smear revealed schistocytes. Disseminated intravascular coagulation was ruled out by normal INR and PTT. In the light of the available findings, we considered the patient to have thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) triggered by COVID-19. It was not a TTP-form of TMA but rather an aHUS type, based on an ADAMTS13 activity level &gt;5%. Hence, plasmapheresis was performed with fresh frozen plasma (FFP). After 4 weeks, she became completely asymptomatic, and her hemodynamic parameters normalized. COVID-19 induced uncontrolled complement activation leading to the development of aHUS. Early diagnosis and treatment may reduce morbidity and mortality since its treatment options." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0076_10047", "title": "[A case report of acute leukemia following the onset of cerebral sinus thrombosis].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A case was reported in which the patient, whose leukemic cells were not found in the peripheral blood, died several days after the onset of cerebral sinus thrombosis, and after the autopsy acute leukemia was diagnosed. The patient, a 68-year-old female, was admitted with clouding of the consciousness. In the initial examination, she was semicomatose, pendulum-like movement was seen in the eyeballs, and hemorrhagic maculae on the trunk and extremities. Among the laboratory findings, WBC was 8, 100 (B 1, St 6, S 77, L 14, Mon 2), RBC 375 x 10(4), Hb 12.5, Ht 37, PLT 3.5 x 10(4), PT 15.6, PTT 68, Fib 158, FDP 10 and AT-III 75. In contrast enhanced CT, an empty triangular sign was observed. On the third hospital day, the patient died of a cerebral hernia. On autopsy, thrombosis was found in the bilateral sigmoid sinus. In the cerebral tissue, congestion was throughout the brain, and many leukemic cells were seen in the dilated blood vessels, but there was no infiltration into the parenchyma. The bone marrow, hypercellular, showed many intermediate type and blastic myeloid cells. The main neurological complications of leukemia are leukemic infiltration and intracranial hemorrhages. Capillary obstructions associated with the disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) syndrome are rarely experienced, but obstructions of thick arteries or thick veins such as venous sinuses are seldom seen in general, and most reports of such cases were those resulting from chemotherapy after making a diagnosis of acute leukemia. In the literature, there have been only two reports in our literature.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0392_8074", "title": "Atherosclerotic Renovascular Disease.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The patient, a 78-year-old Asian male, was brought to the hospital because of acute shortness of breath that had progressively worsened over the course of the day. He complained of a nonproductive cough and claudication after walking 1 block. His past medical history was significant for mild renal insufficiency (serum creatinine 1.5--2.0 mg/dl), the etiology of which was never explored. Although there was a recent history of mild to moderate hypertension, at presentation his blood pressure was noted to be 240/118 mm Hg in both arms. His physical exam at the time of admission was remarkable for grade II hypertensive retinopathy, an S4 gallop, periumbilical systolic bruits, audible femoral arterial bruits and absent distal lower extremity pulses. Initial complete blood count, serum electrolytes and cardiac enzymes (including lactate dehydrogenase) were normal. His blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine concentrations were 51 and 3.6 mg/dl, respectively, and his urinalysis showed 1+ protein (both by dipstick and sulfasalicylic acid) with a \"benign\" sediment (0--1 WBC/HPE, 1--2 RBCs/HPF) with occasional granular casts. His electrocardiogram, apart from demonstrating left ventricular hypertrophy with secondary ST-T wave abnormalities, showed no acute changes; his chest X-ray demonstrated cardiomegaly and pulmonary vascular congestion. He was intubated and subsequently treated with increasing parenteral doses of furosemide (40--240 mg) and a nitroglycerine drip (up to 15 mcg/min). Over the course of the first 48 h, his blood pressure was gradually lowered to 170/100 mm Hg. His urine output increased from 20 ml/h to 125/ml/h, and his respiratory status improved, allowing him to be extubated. In spite of adequate control of his blood pressure in the ensuing days (150--170/80--90 mm Hg), his renal function continued to deteriorate. Renal sonography (without Doppler) demonstrated a right kidney of 9.6 cm and a left kidney of 9.3 cm in length without evidence of hydronephrosis. Both kidneys were noted to be echogenic. Assays for antinuclear antibodies and antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies were negative, and the patient's serum complement levels were normal. For several days after his admission, his serum creatinine gradually rose to 10.7 mg/dl, and hemodialysis was initiated for uremic encephalopathy. Because of the high index of suspicion for renal artery stenosis as the case of both his hypertension and renal failure, a renal angiogram was performed. It revealed a 90% occlusion of the right renal artery with ostial involvement and a 70% occlusion of the left renal artery; both kidneys had poor distal renal vasculature and there was marked atherosclerotic disease of the aorta. After being hemodialyzed for 3 treatments, his renal function began to improve spontaneously. His serum creatinine returned to 3.4 mg/dl, and a subsequent 24-hour urine demonstrated a creatinine clearance of 20 ml/min and an excretion of 1.2 g of protein. Following his discharge from the hospital, his renal function remained unchanged for 3 years, and his blood pressure was easily controlled on monotherapy with a long-acting calcium channel blocker. He recently died from pneumonia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0551_14672", "title": "[Occurrence of disseminated intravascular coagulation in purulent meningitis and influence on mortality in 118 patients].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is an important, but not satisfactory explained risk factor of death in purulent meningitis (PM). Evaluation of: 1) acute thrombocytopenia (ATP) in patients with PM, 2) dynamics in changes of peripheral blood platelet (PLT) count and serum coagulation factors, 3) correlation between acute DIC and mortality in PM. Analysis ofATP (platelets &lt; or = 150 K/microL and/or decrease in PLT &gt; or = 100 K/microL/24 hours) and prothrombin ratio, fibrinogen, d-dimmer and antithrombin III in survivors and nonsurvivors in 118 adult patients with PM. 37 further patients have been disclosed because of non-bacterial PM or chronic conditions predisposing to ATP or DIC. DIC defined as ATP occurred in 56 %, defined as elevated d-dimmer level in 72%. 16 (14%) patients died. Mortality correlated significantly with the lowest PLT count on first 3. days (p=0,049) and with PLT decline (p=0,015). Differences in survivors/nonsurvivors were observed in: ATP on 1. day 48% vs. 75% (p&lt;0,05), daily PLT decline 9%/day vs. 32%/day (p&lt;0,05), prothrombin ratio 89% vs. 74% (p&lt;0,05) and INR 1,2 vs. 1,7 (p&lt;0,005). DIC is an important risk factor in PM. Aggravated DIC do correlate significantly with higher risk of death." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 103 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 18 ] ], "text": "Perthes disease is more common and has a better prognosis in younger children." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "It is advisable to perform a hip X-ray.", "2": "In transient synovitis the onset is usually acute.", "3": "In Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease the prognosis is worse the younger the age of onset.", "4": "The cause may be a hypercoagulable state.", "5": "The therapeutic option will vary depending on the degree of involvement." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0585_17655", "title": "Legg-calve-perthes disease: a review of cases with onset before six years of age.", "score": 0.016483145308383435, "content": "The prognosis for children in whom Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease develops before the age of six years was initially reported to be good, but later studies demonstrated a less favorable prognosis. To assess the natural history of this condition in this age group, we reviewed a large cohort of children who had received minimal treatment for the disease. The medical records and radiographs of all children with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease seen at our institution between 1944 and 2000 were reviewed. The cases of 172 patients with a total of 188 affected hips were studied. The course of the disease and the final clinical and radiographic outcomes were evaluated in all patients. Typical Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease was noted in 164 hips of 160 patients. According to the lateral patellar classification, seven of these hips were in group A; 101, in group B; twenty-seven, in the B/C border group; and twenty-nine, in group C. According to the Stulberg classification, there were 131 Class-I or II (good) results, fourteen Class-III (fair) results, and nineteen Class-IV (poor) results. The lateral pillar classification was highly correlated with the outcome, whereas treatment did not correlate with the outcome. Only lateral pillar group-B/C border and C hips with an onset of the disease between the ages of four years and five years and eleven months had a poor prognosis. We unexpectedly encountered a group of twelve patients with bilateral, simultaneous development of apparent Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. In that group, there were twenty-one Stulberg Class-I or II (good), three Stulberg Class-III (fair), and no Stulberg Class-IV (poor) results, although fourteen of the twenty-four hips were in lateral pillar group C. The outcome in the hips in lateral pillar group C was significantly better when the patient had bilateral simultaneous involvement than when the patient had typical Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. The prognosis for patients with the onset of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease before the age of six years is favorable, with 80% having a good result. Only children between the ages of four years and five years and eleven months with a B/C or C lateral pillar classification of involvement have a less favorable prognosis. Treatment was not found to influence outcome. Simultaneous bilateral disease, which had a more favorable prognosis, may represent a unique disorder." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0614_1232", "title": "[Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease--diagnostics and contemporary treatment].", "score": 0.016297428062133947, "content": "Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease represents avascular necrosis of the femoral head in a growing child. It commonly affects children aged 2-14 years, mostly boys, and has familiar pattern. The etiology of this disease is unknown. It is based on avascular necrosis due to variations of the femoral head vascular supply, trauma, coagulation of endocrine disturbances. The disease presents with limping and pain localized in the hip with projection to thigh and knee, frequently accompanied by the limitation of abduction and internal rotation, as well as slight limitation in flexion of about 20 degrees. Plain radiography is most informative additional diagnostic procedure, enabling assessment of the stage of disease, containment of the femoral head within the acetabulum, acetabular coverage and the extent of disease. Main treatment goal is obtaining the spherical congruity of the hip joint. This can be achieved by abduction bracing, varization femoral osteotomies and various innominate osteotomies (sometimes combined with femoral osteotomies). Children younger than four years of age, with minimal femoral head involvement, do not need any treatment. These children with a larger involvement, older than four years of age, with possible containment in hip abducion, should be treated by one of the following procedures: Salter innominate osteotomy, Salter innominate osteotomy with femoral shortening, or triple pelvic osteotomy. The patients with containment of the hip is not possible in abduction (related to subluxation and femoral head crush), should be treated by Chiari pelvic osteotomy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_20194", "title": "[Legg-calvé-perthes disease.].", "score": 0.014775668679896463, "content": "The author summarizes basic findings on the etiology and epidemiology of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCP). Attention is paid to its pathogenesis, and the relationship of transient synovitis to LCP is discussed. Attention is paid to pathological findings in LCP and the relationship of growth to the development of LCP. The author analyzes work devoted to clinical and radiological findings, arthrography and scintigraphy of the hip joints, incl. MR, CT and US examinations. He deals also with the differential diagnosis of LCP and prognostic factors which have an impact on therapeutic results. Therapy is discussed from the aspect of conservative treatment (Atlanta splints did not prove very effective in severe forms of LCP), as well as from the aspect of surgical treatment. Special attention is paid to varus osteotomy and osteotomy of the pelvis according to views of various authors, and on the other hand to valgusextension osteotomy in patients where so-called abduction on a hinge with excentric rotation of the head of the femur develops. Special attention is devoted to therapeutic possibilities in severe forms of LCP. The latest views on classification of so-called abduction on a hinge are given corresponding to the grade of lateral extrusion of the head, incl. possibilities of suitable treatment. Key words: Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, diagnosis, treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0242_7093", "title": "The natural history of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease.", "score": 0.013953697056712133, "content": "Two groups of patients who had Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease were studied. The first group of patients consisted of eighty-eight patients (ninety-nine affected hips) followed in three hospitals for an average of forty years. The second group consisted of sixty-eight patients (seventy-two affected hips), all of whose radiographs from the onset of disease to maturity were available and all of whom had been treated in one hospital. The patients in this second group were followed for an average of thirty years. Each hip in both study groups could be placed into one of five classes of deformity based on its radiographic appearance at maturity. Each class showed a characteristic pattern of involvement during the active stages of the disease and had a specific long-term clinical and radiographic course. The clinical and radiographic course of an involved hip subsequent to childhood was related to the type of congruency that existed between the femoral head and acetabulum. Three types of congruency were recognized: (1) spherical congruency (Class-I and II hips) - in hips in this category arthritis does not develop; (2) aspherical congruency (Class-III and IV hips) - mild to moderate arthritis develops in late adulthood in these hips; and (3) aspherical incongruency (Class-V hips) - severe arthritis develops before the age of fifty years in these hips." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_12647", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.013779798814937303, "content": "and pelvic osteoto-mies, are done in older age groups and in more severe cases. Osteonecrosis of the femoral head is a possible complication of treatment and can result in pain and decreased range of motion.Legg-Calvé-Perthes DiseaseOsteonecrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis can cause flattening of the femoral head called Legg-Calvé Perthes disease. The age at presentation is between 4 and 8 years of age and occurs more in males, usually affecting one side. Younger age at presentation (less than 6 years old) will have a better prognosis. The patient presents with groin or knee pain, decreased hip motion, and a limp. Treatment includes traction, physical therapy, abduction exercises, and crutches. Restoration of range of motion is important. Femoral and pelvic osteotomies may be needed in extreme cases and in older children.Slipped Capital Femoral EpiphysisChildren ages 10 to 16 years can develop displacement of the epiphysis on the femoral neck with no history of injury. The" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0391_20981", "title": "[Rotational acetabular osteotomy in the treatment of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease].", "score": 0.013716854757317185, "content": "The material of prospective study involving 57 surgically treated hips in 55 patients suffering with a severe form of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD) was analysed by the use of statistical methods to depict the influence of age, of sex, of the amount of head involvement on the outcomes of surgical treatment by rotational acetabular osteotomy (Salter or Steel osteotomy from 9 years of age). During the period 1990-2000 rotational acetabular osteotomy for Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease was performed totally in 124 patients. Excluded were cases, in which the operation was done for residual subluxation as a definitive outcome of former LCPD, cases which did not return for controls, cases with not yet completed consolidation after surgery and cases operated by me abroad. Totally were analysed stastistical sheets from 57 rotational acetabular osteotomies, including basis dates from medical history, clinical and x-ray examinations. Special concern was given to the evaluation of remodellation of the affected femoral head chronologically. All patients were operated by the group of three senior orthopaedic surgeons. Indication for surgery was based on the evidence of the progressive collapse of the femoral head issuing in the lateral and anterior head extrusion. As the Mose as well as Stulberg classification are showing inter-rater discrepancies, authors measured as well head-neck index, epiphyseal index and acetabulum-head index to eliminate subjectives errors. Age at operation and sex did not affect the results expressed in epiphyseal quotient and acetabulum-head index. With the increasing age the head-neck index dropped down depicting the progressive shortening of the femoral neck the older kids. The periods from the operation till the consolidation of the lateral pillar of the femoral head were longer in younger than in older children. Although the evaluation of results in Mose classification showed poorer results generally and also specifically in relation to the increasing age, distribution of results in Stulberg classification showed excellent and fair results in almost 90% of all treated patients. Prospective study based on the use of rotational osteotomy, avoiding the routine combination with varisation of the proximal femur in older kids using in them Steel triple osteotomy, showed promising results especially in Stulberg classification. Contrary to Salter and others prerequisiting for the indication of operation only slight deformity of the affected femoral head, many of the enrolled cases appeared with the remarkable deformity of the femoral head before the operation. Rotational acetabular osteotomy showed its potential to involve the enlarged head and follow-up depicted its subsequent slow remodellation. Submitted study was prepared to be matched nextly with the conservative group, which will be published in another publication. Internal analysis of the presented cohort disclosed that presented surgical treatment (Salter or Steel osteotomy respectively) assured, that irrespective of higher age, the important parameters like epiphyseal quotient and acetabulum-head index did not become worse than in younger groups. Even in the group over 9 years of age, 87.5% were categorised like excellent and fair results in Stulberg classification." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en120_28432", "title": "Transient synovitis", "score": 0.01266927265112383, "content": "Some children may have a slightly raised temperature; high fever and general malaise point to other, more serious conditions. On clinical examination, the child typically holds the hip slightly bent, turned outwards and away from the middle line (flexion, external rotation and abduction). Active and passive movements may be limited because of pain, especially abduction and internal rotation. The hip can be tender to palpation. The log roll test involves gently rotating the entire lower limb inwards and outwards with the patient on his back, to check when muscle guarding occurs. The unaffected hip and the knees, ankles, feet and spine are found to be normal. Complications In the past, there have been speculations about possible complications after transient synovitis. The current consensus however is that there is no proof of an increased risk of complications after transient synovitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0559_20532", "title": "[The Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease: which assessment? Which therapeutic approach?].", "score": 0.01252517853872917, "content": "Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease remains indefinite from an etiologic point of view and unforeseable in its evolution. The evolution depends on the extent of epiphyseal involvement and the age of the child. It may safely be stated that the more extensive the epiphyseal involvement, the more compromised is the prognosis. Also the older the child, the more the femoral head remoulding will be limited. Preserving articular mobility and containing the head within the depth of acetabulum constitute the mainstay of treatment aiming for a femoral head as spherical as possible upon completion of growth. At the end of growth spherical or ovoid heads will cause no or few problems, however strongly deformed femoral heads will evolve into early hip arthritis. The early recognition of which hip will profit from which treatment, constitutes the major difficulty of the therapeutic process." }, { "id": "article-22895_7", "title": "Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome -- History and Physical", "score": 0.01249425318441193, "content": "Patients with greater trochanteric pain syndrome usually have lateral hip pain, tenderness over and around the greater trochanter, pain at end-range hip rotation, abduction or adduction, pain with resisted hip abduction, and a positive Patrick-FABER (flexion abduction external rotation) test. Patients usually suffer from chronic back pain radiating to the posterolateral aspect of the thigh, leg paresthesias, and tenderness over the iliotibial tract. [6] They will often complain of the inability to lay on the affected hip. The mean duration of symptoms before treatment ranges from 7.1 weeks to 4.4 years. Young adults (18 to 35 years old) with hip pain often present with non-specific symptoms and vague findings from the history and physical examination, which may lead to a misdiagnosis of GTPS or trochanteric bursitis. [1] [4]" }, { "id": "article-24174_22", "title": "Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease -- Prognosis -- Age at Onset", "score": 0.012319835277968427, "content": "Usually younger age at diagnosis equals a better outcome. Patients less than 6 years old may develop a normal hip joint. Patients older than 6 years may have continued pain and subsequent arthritis. Lateral Pillar Classification (degree of femoral head involvement: A [least] to C [most]) Patients more than 8 years old and patients in lateral pillar group B or B/C (border group) do better with surgery than with nonoperative treatment. Patients less than 8 years old and patients in group B do well regardless of treatment choice. Patients in group C experience poor outcomes regarding hip condition, regardless of treatment choice. [1]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_108562", "title": "Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease", "score": 0.01205080545229244, "content": "Signs and symptoms The condition is most commonly found in children between the ages of 4 and 10. Common symptoms include pain in the hip, knee, or ankle (since hip pathology can cause pain to be felt in a normal knee or ankle), or in the groin; this pain is exacerbated by hip or leg movement, especially internal hip rotation (with the knee flexed 90°, twisting the lower leg away from the center of the body). The range of motion is reduced, particularly in abduction and internal rotation, and the patient presents with a limp. Pain is usually mild. Atrophy of thigh muscles may occur from disuse and an inequality of leg length. In some cases, some activity can cause severe irritation or inflammation of the damaged area, including standing, walking, running, kneeling, or stooping repeatedly for an extended period of time. In cases exhibiting severe femoral osteonecrosis, pain is usually a chronic, throbbing sensation exacerbated by activity." }, { "id": "article-30477_8", "title": "Transient Synovitis -- History and Physical -- History [14] [15]", "score": 0.011802305098394484, "content": "TS most commonly presents as acute unilateral limb disuse ranging from nonspecific hip pain or subtle limp to a refusal to bear weight.  Depending on the age of the patient, the history may only be significant for the child or infant becoming increasingly agitated or crying more often than at baseline.  Therefore, heightened clinical suspicion is warranted in younger pediatric patients and infants.  In addition, examiners should elicit any pain or discomfort localized or radiating to or from the lower back.  Oftentimes the clinician may only be able to rely on the history obtained from the parents or guardians.  Direct observation of the child in the emergency room or clinic can often yield valuable information.  A recent history of an upper respiratory tract infection, pharyngitis, bronchitis, or otitis media is often elicited and favors a diagnosis of TS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1057_12203", "title": "Assessing the role of hip arthrography in the treatment decision making for children with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease.", "score": 0.011578244911578245, "content": "The aim of this study was to determine the role of hip arthrography in the treatment decision making for children with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD). A total of 47 consecutive children with LCPD (42 boys, 5 girls; mean age=7.5 years; range=6-10 years) who underwent operative treatment were included in the study. The patient demographics, physical examination findings (pain and hip range of motion [ROM]), standard anteroposterior and Löwenstein lateral hip radiographs, and hip arthrography data were retrospectively collected. The arthrographies were performed immediately before the surgery under general anesthesia. The patients were staged according to the Catterall and Herring classifications and examined in terms of head-at-risk signs before the study. Four sets of patient files were established based on the aforementioned data, with each child in a randomized and blinded order. Ten consultant pediatric orthopedic surgeons randomly assessed the patient files on 4 separate occasions (Set 1 vs Set 2 and Set 3 vs Set 4), with a minimum time interval of 4 weeks. In the first and second sets, the demographic and clinical information, including the age, gender, hip ROM, and hip radiographs, were presented. In the third and fourth sets, hip arthrography was presented in addition to the data from Set 1 and Set 2. The observers were instructed to choose the best treatment options. The percent agreement (PA) and Gwet's AC1 statistics were used to establish a relative level of agreement among the observers. The mean intra-observer reliabilities ranged from fair to moderate after adding the hip arthrography data (Gwet's AC1 = 0.36 for Set 1 vs Set 2 and 0.42 for Set 3 vs Set 4). The mean PA was 56.6% (range = 29.8% to 78.7%) with a Gwet's AC1 value of 0.51 (range: 0.21 to 0.77) between Set 1 and Set 3 (moderate intra-observer reliability). The decision for the treatment strategy was changed in 43.4% of the patients. For inter-observer reliability, Gwet's AC1 was computed as 0.48 (moderate reliability). The correlation between the intra-observer reliability and stage progression was not significant (p&gt;0.05) for any of the subgroups. Thus, there is a negative correlation with the disease progression. Hip arthrography seems to have a significant role in the treatment decision making for children with LCPD, especially in the advanced stages of the disease. Level IV, Therapeutic study." }, { "id": "article-24064_7", "title": "Lasegue Sign -- Definition/Introduction -- Examination Techniques", "score": 0.011566656424213161, "content": "The patient should be informed about the steps of the test, what to expect during the exam and to describe the pain distribution. The patient should be examined in a neutral supine position with the head slightly extended. During the exam, the hips and legs should stay neutral. No hips abduction or adduction is allowed as well as no leg internal or external rotation is permitted. The affected leg is then passively and slowly raised by the ankle with the knee fully extended. Upon eliciting pain, the examiner stops further leg elevation and records the range of motion along with the area of pain distribution. It is noteworthy that ankle dorsiflexion during SLRT may exaggerate the pain; notwithstanding, it is not part of the Lasegue sign. [13] Criteria for a true positive SLRT [14] [15] Radicular leg pain should occur (radiating below the knee). Pain occurs when the leg is between 30 and 60 or 70 degrees from horizontal." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0695_18749", "title": "[Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease].", "score": 0.011473737888832228, "content": "Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is characterized by avascular necrosis of the head of the femur. This article deals with the epidemiology, possible causes, treatment and prognostic factors connected with the disease. The article is based on a non-systematic literature search and own clinical practice, with special emphasis on a Norwegian countrywide study of children with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. The incidence of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease varies in different countries and regions. Those who are older than six years at the time of diagnosis and have over 50% femoral head necrosis have a worse prognosis than younger children where the necrosis is less extensive. Treatment has been discussed extensively over the past 100 years, and still varies considerably. The Norwegian countrywide investigation showed that the results in children who were over six years at the time of diagnosis and had more than 50% femoral head necrosis were significantly better after varus femoral osteotomy than after physiotherapy or orthosis. This agrees with the only other prospective study that has been published. Operative treatment should be considered in children who are six years old or older and have over 50% femoral head necrosis when the diagnosis Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is made. Those who are younger than six years at the time of diagnosis or who have less than 50% femoral head necrosis should be treated symptomatically. Abduction orthosis has no place in the treatment of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease." }, { "id": "article-24174_8", "title": "Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease -- History and Physical -- Physical Examination", "score": 0.011399259048161869, "content": "Decreased internal rotation and abduction of the hip Pain on rotation referred to the anteromedial thigh and/or knee Atrophy of thighs and buttocks from pain leading to disuse Afebrile Leg length discrepancy" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0557_722", "title": "[Legg-Calve-Perthes disease].", "score": 0.011176323676323676, "content": "Treatment of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease remains, in spite of realized progresses, difficult and disturbing. The important factors for establishing diagnosis concerning definition, etiology, physiopathology and clinical manifestations are reminded. The role of present complementary investigations as well as their evolution are very important to better establish the prognosis and the treatment. The most important factors for treating and establishing the prognosis of LPC are: 1) age. The prognosis is good in almost every case before 5 years old, without any treatment; 2) the prognosis is not good after 9 years, also, very often, after surgical treatment; 3) area of the epiphyseal necrosis, particularly of the lateral pillar; 4) extrusion of the hip at any age. Today, there is always no causal treatment of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. Conservative and surgical treatment aims to prevent deformities of the femoral head accompanied or not by articular incongruency, responsible for hip arthritis from the fourth decade. The place of conservative and surgical treatment as well as their complications are described; it aims to guide the spontaneous recovery with as little as possible, deformation of the femoral epiphysis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0358_2037", "title": "Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease.", "score": 0.010840824960338447, "content": "Legg-Calve,-Perthes disease is a self-limited disease of the femoral head that presents in the first decade. The pathogenesis is thought to involve bone necrosis, collapse, and repair. The presenting complaint is often a painless limp or hip pain, with decreased abduction and internal rotation of the hip. Factors that are believed to correlate with a poor prognosis are onset of symptoms after age 8 years, lateral head subluxation, involvement of over 50% of the femoral head with collapse of the lateral pillar, and the combination of an aspherical femoral head and an incongruent joint. The current cornerstones of treatment are maintenance of hip motion, relief of symptoms, and containment. Containment may be achieved by bracing or surgical means. The literature remains inconclusive on the indications for and effects of treatment. A long-term study has suggested that disabling arthritis of the hip develops in the sixth decade of life in 50% of untreated patients." }, { "id": "article-40881_3", "title": "Intoeing -- Introduction", "score": 0.010836451368868716, "content": "In coming to understand variational pathologies of the lower limb, it is important to be familiar with the normal growth and development of children’s lower extremities. Neonates are born with about 40 degrees of femoral anteversion or forward rotation of the femoral neck. This increased internal rotation of the hip decreases over time. By about 10 years old, the degree of anteversion decreases by about half. Any deviation from the expected course of limb development and rotation should be recognized and differentiated from the persistence of early angulation, to pathologies preventing normal rotation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_60811", "title": "Septic arthritis", "score": 0.01077088369594413, "content": "because there are usually few or no objective signs to rely upon. Needless to say history taking is not fully reliable and fever is not a constant sign in such an age group. Acute phase reactants like ESR and CRP may be unreliable in such an age group. Importantly, observation of active limb motion or kicking in the lower limb can provide valuable clues to septic arthritis of hip or knee. In neonates/new born and infants the hip joint is characteristically held in abduction flexion and external rotation. This position helps the infant accommodate maximum amount of septic joint fluid with the least tension possible. The tendency to have multiple joint involvements in septic arthritis of neonates and young children should be closely considered." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0661_14333", "title": "Recurrent Legg-Perthes-Calvé disease.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Legg-Perthes-Calvé disease (LPC), or primitive hip osteochondritis, is a frequent pathology but in which recurrence is extremely rare. WE REPORT: The case of a girl diagnosed with bilateral LPC at the age of 4.5 years. Containment in a Scottish-Rite (Atlanta) brace was prescribed. X-ray follow-up found complete right-hip healing at 1.5 years' evolution (Catterall group 2). The patient was seen again at the age of 8 years, for limp and functional disorder associated with recurrence of right-hip LPC (Catterall group 3). Evolution was satisfactory: the girl was assessed at the time of bone maturity, with good clinical and radiological findings. Children contracting LPC are commonly thought to be thereby \"vaccinated\" against it. This is wrong, and a literature search found 10 cases similar to the present one, making 11 children in all (two girls, nine boys) presenting with recurrent LPC. Mean age at initial onset was 4 years (range, 2.5-6 yrs). Five of the 11 had initially been presented with bilateral LPC. Mean age at recurrence was 9.4 years (range, 6-12 yrs). The recurrences were more severe than the initial episodes, but final prognosis after recurrence would not seem to be worse than normal. This exceptional case of recurrent LPC was well documented up to bone maturity. It does not support the notion of Meyer's disease at the initial episode, as suggested by certain authors, but rather that of true recurrence of the primitive LPC." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_20128", "title": "[Late results of conservative treatment of perthes disease.].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The objective of the submitted work was to assess the long-term prognosis of Perthes disease. From the originally invited 142 patients 72 attended the check-up examination, complete X-ray documentation was assembled only in 32 patients with 38 affected hip joints. The time interval which had elapsed since the onset of the disease was on average 17 years. The authors evaluated the clinical and X-ray picture of the hip joints and assessed retrospectively the affection of the head according to Catterall's method, incl. signs of a head associated with risk. Treatment provided during the sixties and beginning of the seventies did not meet the principles of modern \"containment\" therapy. It comprised bed rest, application of a plaster spike and aftertreatment with a Thomas splint. During late check-up examinations Wiberg's angle, the epiphyseal index, the index of overlapping of the head, the distance of the head from the floor of the acetabulum and the height of the peak of the greater trochanter above the centre of the head of the femur were assessed. In addition to assessment of these partial X-ray parameters the authors evaluated the spherical properties of the head by Mose's method and subjectively the X-ray picture, using a three grade scale (satisfactory, feasible, poor). In the majority of assessed parameters the authors found a statistically significant correlation with the retrospective classification of the original X-ray pictures classified according to Catterall. The clinical picture was satisfactory in the majority, the authors did not find painful restriction of movement, while almost half the patients reported occasional subjective complaints as regards the hip joint. On the X-ray changes in the overgrowth of the greater trochanter were more marked than changes of the spherical character of the head and the extent of decentering. The follow-up of the group will continue to obtain a longer time interval from the onset of the disease. Key words: Perthes disease, late results, Catterall's classification." }, { "id": "article-76242_12", "title": "Femoral Head Avascular Necrosis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.00989057239057239, "content": "Patients may be asymptomatic early on in the disease process. When they become symptomatic, however, the stated history is usually of hip pain that may radiate to the groin and/or thigh. The pain is typically aggravated by activities such as walking and climbing stairs and alleviated by rest. The pain will often still be present, even in the absence of movement. [17] Some examples of physical exam findings indicative of osteonecrosis of the femoral head are restricted range of motion, pain upon abduction and internal rotation, and tenderness to palpation of the hip region. [18]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0570_18704", "title": "[Perthes disease with onset after nine years of age].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The aim of this study is to evaluate and compare selected clinical and radiological hip joint parameters in Perthes disease with onset before and after 9 years of age. Analysis was based on 261 patients with unilateral Perthes disease. Patient with bilateral changes ware excluded because of earlier onset before 9 years old. The average age of patients at the time of initial symptoms was 7,1 years ( 2,5 - 13 years). The follow-up ranged from 16 to 50 years (average 20, 2 years). The clinical analysis was based on evaluation of age, gender and range of passive abduction. The radiological assessment was based on Catterall and Herring classifications, lateral subluxation, premature physeal closure by Bowen classification, limb length discrepancy, shape of the lateral acetabulum rim, ATD distance and index, center-edge angle, the Mose Classification, epiphyseal index and quotient. Assessments of final results were based on The Mose Classification and the Stulberg Classification. We affirmed that, in children with the onset of disease after 9 years of age, asymmetrical premature physeal closure, major lateralization, grater contour of the head deviation (Mose) and trochanteric overgrowth were more frequent occurred than in children with Perthes disease before 9 years of age. Patients who were over the age of 9 years at the time of onset and have a hip in Catterall 3 group and 4 group together with the lateral pillar B group or C group get a poor outcome. There were not any differences in the outcomes in Catterall 1 and 2 group together with Hering A group depending on age at the time of onset. Both age at the time of onset after 9 and quantity of femoral head necrosis have the most significant impact on the outcome, leading to poor final results. In accordance with our observation we do advise caution in older children's treatment with femoral varus osteotomy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en062_23912", "title": "Osteochondrosis", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Signs and symptoms These conditions nearly all present with an insidious onset of pain referred to the location of the bony damage. Some, notably Kienbock's disease of the wrist, may involve considerable swelling, and Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease of the hip causes the victim to limp. The spinal form, Scheuermann's disease, may cause bending, or kyphosis of the upper spine, giving a \"hunch-back\" appearance. Symptoms in animals The most common symptoms are lameness and pain in the affected joints. Animals may try to ease the pain and walk differently and the pain can be noticed by the change in animals walking style. The condition affects both sides (right and left leg). On most occasions, the other leg is worse. This can result that the dog starts encumbering the other leg and the healthier leg becomes more strained. Sometimes the symptoms are so mild or there are no symptoms which can make it hard to detect that there is something wrong with that dog." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_580", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.00968443706285527, "content": "Radiographs are unreliable until patients are > 4 months of age because of the radiolucency of the neonatal femoral head. Begin treatment early. < 6 months: Splint with a Pavlik harness (maintains the hip fl exed and abducted). To prevent AVN, do not flex the hips > 60 degrees. 6–15 months: Spica cast. 15–24 months: Open reduction followed by spica cast. Joint contractures and AVN of the femoral head. Without treatment, a significant defect is likely in patients < 2 years of age. Idiopathic AVN of the femoral head (see Figure 2.9-8). Most commonly found in boys 4–10 years of age. Usually a self-limited disease, with symptoms lasting < 18 months. F IGU R E 2.9-8 Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. AVN of the femoral head. (Reproduced, with permission, from Skinner HB. Current Diagnosis & Treatment in Orthopedics, 2nd ed. Stamford, CT: Appleton & Lange, 2000: 543.) Generally asymptomatic at first, but patients can develop a painless limp." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0762_17676", "title": "Valgus femoral osteotomy for noncontainable Perthes hips: prognostic factors of remodeling.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The authors have performed valgus femoral osteotomy (VFO) with rotational and sagittal components for Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease hips with hinge abduction. We analyzed skeletally mature patients to determine: (1) whether VFO improved hip function; (2) whether favorable radiographic remodeling of the hip occurred; and (3) whether any clinical or radiographic factors were associated with remodeling of femoral head deformity. Thirty-one patients (31 hips, 25 boys and 6 girls) who underwent VFO between 1986 and 2007, and subsequently followed until skeletal maturity constituted the study cohort. The mean age at surgery was 9.4 years (range, 3.5 to 15 y) and the mean age at the most recent follow-up was 20.2 years (range, 14.6 to 28.3 y). Clinical outcomes were evaluated using Iowa Hip Scores and ranges of hip motion. Radiographic outcomes were assessed with respect to the radiographic indices for femoral head deformity and subluxation. Clinical and radiographic parameters were analyzed to find correlations with the femoral head remodeling (preoperative to final follow-up changes in deformity index). Iowa Hip Score improved from 71 (30 to 91) to 92 (76 to 100). Ranges of hip abduction, internal rotation, and external rotation increased. At last follow-up evaluations, mean Mose sphericity index of the femoral head was 4.2 mm (range, 0 to 13 mm) and femoral heads had 4 Stulberg type II, 21 type III, and 6 type IV deformity. Overall radiographic indices for femoral head deformity and subluxation did not change during follow-up period except decreased medial joint space, but greater amount of preoperative to final follow-up changes in deformity index was associated with younger age (&lt;10 y) and earlier disease stages (fragmentation and early reossification stage) at time of surgery. VFO modified to accommodate the various hinging patterns of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease hips was found to beneficially improve hip function at skeletal maturity. Although overall radiographic remodeling was not definite, favorable remodeling of the femoral head can be expected when younger patients undergo this procedure at the fragmentation or early reossification stage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0678_21613", "title": "The natural history of Perthes' disease.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The prognosis in Perthes' disease varies considerably according to certain risk factors, but there is no concensus regarding the relative importance of these factors. We assessed the natural history of the disease and defined prognostic factors of value in deciding the proper treatment. During the 5-year period 1996-2000, a nationwide study on Perthes' disease was performed in Norway. 425 patients were registered. The present study involved the 212 children (mean age 5.1 years, 77% boys) who were affected unilaterally and who had been treated with physiotherapy only (which is considered not to change the natural history). They were followed by taking radiographs at the time of diagnosis and after 1, 3, and 5 years. At the 5-year follow-up, the outcome was evaluated according to a modification of the Stulberg classification: good (spherical femoral head), fair (ovoid femoral head), and poor (flat femoral head). The 5-year radiographic results were strongly dependent on 4 risk factors: age 6 years or more at diagnosis, total femoral head necrosis, height of the lateral pillar of the epiphysis less than 50% of normal height, and femoral head cover less than 80%. As the number of risk factors increased from 0 to 4, the proportion of patients with good radiographic 5-year outcome decreased from 79% to 0% and the proportion with poor outcome increased from 3% to 91%. Most children under 6 years of age do not need any special treatment. In older children, no special treatment is indicated if the whole femoral head is not necrotic and the femoral head cover is &gt; 80%. In the most severe forms of the disease (i.e. more than 2 risk factors), surgical containment treatment seems advisable." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_582", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009593253776376612, "content": "■Typically presents with acute or insidious thigh or knee pain and a painful limp. Differential diagnosis of pediatric limp— Acute cases present with restricted ROM and, commonly, inability to bear weight. Bilateral in 40–50% of cases. Characterized by limited internal rotation and abduction of the hip. Flex-ion of the hip results in an obligatory external rotation 2° to physical displacement that is observed as further loss of internal rotation with hip fl ex-ion. Radiographs of both hips in AP and frog-leg lateral views reveal posterior and medial displacement of the femoral head (see Figure 2.9-9). Rule out hypothyroidism with TSH. The disease is progressive, so treatment should begin promptly. No weight bearing should be allowed until the defect is surgically stabilized. Gentle closed reduction is appropriate only in acute slips. F IGU R E 2.9-9. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en038_85539", "title": "Limp", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Other A non-painful limp may be due to a number of mechanical conditions including hip dysplasia and leg length differences. Inflammatory Transient synovitis Transient synovitis is a reactive arthritis of the hip of unknown cause. People are usually able to walk and may have a low grade fever. They usually look clinically nontoxic or otherwise healthy. It may only be diagnosed once all other potential serious causes are excluded. With symptomatic care it usually resolves over one week. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis presents gradually with early morning stiffness, fatigue, and weight loss. Vascular Legg–Calvé–Perthes syndrome Legg–Calvé–Perthes syndrome is a degenerative disease of the head of the femur which results in bone loss and deformity. It usually presents as a chronic condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0127_15576", "title": "Conservative treatment of Legg-Calvé-Perthes condition.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "As we continue to learn more about the evolution of Legg-Calvé-Perthes condition, several advantages to early conservative treatment become apparent. First, since it may take as long as 6 months to determine the extent of femoral head involvement in patients who present early in the disease process, nonoperative methods may be used to improve the range of motion and to contain the femoral head within the acetabulum, thus minimizing further deformity. Second, since the duration of treatment need no longer be as extensive as was previously thought, the argument that nonoperative means are unrealistic for patient needs is not valid. Finally, it has been recognized that with moderate sphericity and moderate retention of the shape of the femoral head, as evaluated in relationship to secondary changes in the acetabulum, the patient can reach at least middle age before having significant secondary arthritic problems. A relatively conservative approach is therefore in order for most children whose disease is discovered in the early phases. Of course, it must be recognized that social problems develop in the older child, especially in girls, that contraindicate nonoperative care. Surgical considerations are indicated for many children in the older age group with more than one half of the femoral head involved, as well as in those with unsuccessful nonoperative efforts at containment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0921_19465", "title": "Clinical outcomes of conservative treatment with a non-weight-bearing abduction brace for Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Treatment with a brace is the first choice as conservative treatment via the containment method for Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD). The purpose of this study is to evaluate clinical outcomes and influential factors of conservative treatment with the non-weight-bearing abduction brace for LCPD. One hundred thirty hips in 130 patients were examined in this study. The mean age at onset was 7.0 years (3.3-12.4 years) and the mean follow-up period was 8.4 years (4.1-17.6 years). The extent of necrosis and lateral collapse of the femoral head were evaluated using the Catterall classification and the lateral pillar classification, respectively. Radiological outcome was assessed as good (classes I and II), fair (III), and poor (IV), according to the modified Stulberg classification. Radiographic outcome at final follow-up was good in 82 hips (63%), fair in 40 hips (31%), and poor in 8 hips (6%). Multinomial logistic regression analysis showed that major influential factors for good outcomes were as follows: age at onset, lateral pillar classification, and Catterall classification. From the receiver operating characteristic curve, the cut-off value for age at onset was 8.4 years old to obtain good outcomes. Hips with Catterall group I and II and lateral pillar group A and B had significantly better results. Patients younger than 8.4 years old at onset with lateral pillar group A or B or Catterall group I or II showed good outcomes with a non-weight-bearing abduction brace for LCPD. These results show that alternative treatment, such as surgery, may be another option for patients who are not included in the above groups." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 99 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 18 ] ], "text": "As long as the serological levels of anti-HBs are above 10 IU/l it is not necessary to revaccinate." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Restart vaccination schedule (0-1-6 months).", "2": "Restart vaccination schedule (0-1-2-12 months).", "3": "Do not revaccinate.", "4": "Give a booster dose.", "5": "Give anti-hepatitis B immunoglobulin and restart vaccination schedule (0-1-2-12 months)." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0084_11900", "title": "Vaccination against hepatitis B: comparison of three different vaccination schedules.", "score": 0.019149715961150816, "content": "Three different hepatitis B vaccination schedules employing injections at months 0, 1, 2, and 12, at months 0, 1, and 6, or at months 0, 1, and 12 were compared in 89 healthy young adults. Concentrations of antibodies to hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) after the third injection were dependent on the interval between the second and the third dose; geometric mean titers (GMTs) in the three groups were 53 IU/l, 5,846 IU/l, and 19,912 IU/l, respectively, when the third dose was given at month 2, 6, or 12. Whereas the anti-HBs responses to the third dose at month 6 or 12 were typical booster reactions, the kinetics after a third dose given at month 2 resembled those after only two doses but on a significantly higher level. A fourth dose given at month 12 to the individuals vaccinated at months 0, 1, and 2 led to a prompt anti-HBs response similar in height to the response in those vaccinated at months 0, 1, and 12. Thus, for achieving a high anti-HBs concentration guaranteeing its long-lasting persistence, vaccination at months 0, 1, and 12 seems to be preferable to vaccination at months 0, 1, and 6. For individuals at high risk of hepatitis B infection, vaccination at months 0, 1, 2, and 12 might be considered for obtaining an optimal early seroconversion as well as long-term protection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0662_1458", "title": "[Are teenagers immunized in infancy still protected against hepatitis B?].", "score": 0.018524871355060035, "content": "Immunization is the best method of protection against hepatitis B. Routine vaccination for newborns and infants was introduced in Poland in 1994-96. Although duration of protection afforded by vaccination remains unknown, no routine boosters are recommended. According to references, up to 50% of 15-year old children had lost the post vaccination immune memory protecting against HBV infection. The aim of the study was to determine the immunity against hepatitis B in 10-12-year old children and to establish indications for routine booster doses. In 130 children aged 10-12 years, immunized against hepatitis B with recombinant vaccine in infancy (10 microg, according to schedule: 0-1-2-12 months, first dose given at birth) humoral immunity (anti-HBs antibodies) as well as cellular memory (anamnestic response to booster given in children without protective titers of anti-HBs) were determined. Titers of anti-HBs &gt; or = 10 IU/l were considered protective. Anamnestic response was defined as increase in anti-HBs concentration from &lt; 10 IU/l to &gt; or = 10 IU/l 4 weeks after receiving a booster dose. MARKERS OF HBV INFECTION: hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg - marker of chronic hepatitis) and antibodies to core antigen (anti-HBc--marker of past HBV infection) were additionally determined. Protective level of anti-HBs was found in 102/130 (78%) children, including 43/130 (33%) with high (100-999 IU/l) and 16/130 (12%) with very high (&gt; or = 1000 IU/l) titers. 28/ 130 (22%) did not have protective level of anti-HBs, in 9/130 (7%) antibodies were undetectable. Immune memory was determined in 9 children--anamnestic response was revealed in eight of them (89%). In 6/130 (4.5%) of participants HBV infection was confirmed according to positive anti-HBc, including 2 (1.5% of the study group) with positive HBsAg. Most children in the studied group had seroprotection and immune memory against hepatitis B 10-12 years after vaccination. No routine booster seems to be necessary." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1134_15917", "title": "Modeling long-term persistence after 8 years of hepatitis B booster vaccination in 5- to 15-year-old children.", "score": 0.01676094699350513, "content": "Vaccination remains the most effective and cost-saving measure to protect against hepatitis B, a global health problem. It is crucial to characterize the persistence of the immune response after booster vaccination. This study aimed to quantify the persistence through mathematical modeling. Booster vaccination against hepatitis B was conducted in children 5-15 years in 2009-10 in Zhejiang Province. There were four dosage formulations of hepatitis B vaccines [Shenzhenkangtai Biotechnology Co. Ltd. Dalianhanxin Biotechnology Co. Ltd. NCPC GeneTech Biotechnology Pharmaceutical Co. Ltd. Sinovac Biotech Co. LTD. China]: 5, 10, and 20 μg hepatitis B vaccines or 5 μg hepatitis A and B (HAB) combination vaccine with a 0-1-6-month schedule. These were randomly administered to children negative for all hepatitis B markers, named as the schedule 2 group. Anti-HBs positive subjects were given one dose of booster, named as the schedule 1 group. Anti-HBs antibody was measured 1, 7, 18, 66, and 102 months after the first booster dose. A linear mixed-effects model was proposed to predict long-term persistence. One hundred two months after the booster dose, the mean anti-HBs levels were 33.8 mIU/mL, with 73.7 mIU/mL for the schedule 1 group and 20.2 mIU/mL for the schedule 2 group. The model predicted that 99.5% of subjects would remain seropositive (≥10mIU/mL) at year 20 post booster vaccination, with 100.0% and 98.8% for the schedule 1 group and the schedule 2 group, respectively, whereas at year 30, the seropositivity rates would decrease to 76.8%, with 99.4% for the schedule 1 group and 62.5% for the schedule 2 group. The immunogenicity of the booster vaccination could persist for at least 8 years. Mathematical modeling may predict even longer, up to 30 years of protection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0971_496", "title": "Comparison of anti-HBs persistence after hepatitis B vaccination on two-dose schedule and three-dose schedule among adults: results from a 12-year follow up study in China.", "score": 0.016698735568993952, "content": "Comparison of anti-HBs persistence after hepatitis B vaccination on two-dose schedule and three-dose schedule among adults is still controversial. In this study, adults were followed up at 12 years after the primary immunization. Three hundred and forty-one and 288 adults with age 15 through 40 years old were given anti-HBV vaccination on a 0-, 1-, and 6-month schedule or on a 0- and 6-month one, respectively (in 2003). Blood samples of 202 patients on 0-, 1- and 6-month schedule and 194 patients on 0- and 6-month regimen were collected at one month and twelve years (in 2015) after the primary series and anti-HBs levels were measured. The seroprotection rate for 3-dose schedule and 2-dose one was 71.78% (95%CI = 65.04%, 77.87%) and 53.61% (95%CI = 46.07%, 60.49%). The GMC of anti-HBs was 31 mIU/mL (95%CI = 24, 41) and 12 mIU/mL (95%CI = 9, 17), respectively. Participants using three doses had higher seroprotection rate and GMC (P &lt; 0.001). Multivariable analysis showed that subjects with anti-HBs titers ≥100 mIU/ml just after the primary series had a higher probability of anti-HBs levels than &lt;10 mIU/ml and 10-100 mIU/ml at follow-up (OR = 8.36, 95%CI: 3.41-20.49, P&lt; 0.001; OR = 43.28, 95%CI: 11.45-163.51, P&lt; 0.001; β = 0.77, 95%CI: 0.48-1.06, P&lt; 0.001; β = 1.20, 95%CI: 0.86 ~ 1.54, P&lt; 0.001). In conclusions, adults receiving HepB primary immunization on 0-, 1- and 6-month schedule might have more prolonged anti-HBs than those on 0-, 6-month schedule, although good anti-HBs persistence could be achieved after HepB immunization on both schedules." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0647_21275", "title": "Antibody persistence six years after two doses of combined hepatitis A and B vaccine.", "score": 0.016677089847821555, "content": "Persistent immunity to hepatitis A and hepatitis B antibodies six years after vaccination of adolescents (aged 12-15 years) with a combined hepatitis A and B (HAB) vaccine following a 0, 6 month or a 0, 12 month schedule was assessed. Yearly (Year-2-6) serum samples were tested for anti-HAV and anti-HBs using EIA. Subjects with anti-HBs concentrations &lt;10 mIU/mL (14/23) at Year-5 or Year-6, received an additional HBV vaccine dose approximately 12 months after Year-6. Blood samples were collected pre-booster and 1 month post-booster to assess booster response. 240 subjects were vaccinated in the study; at Year-6, data were available from 88 subjects. At that time 84.8% (39/46; 0, 6 month) and 92.9% (39/42; 0, 12 month) of subjects had anti-HBs concentrations &gt; or = 10 mIU/mL. All but one of the 14 boosted subjects responded to the additional HBV vaccine dose with anti-HBs concentrations &gt; or = 100 mIU/mL. All seroconverted subjects who returned at Year-6 were seropositive for anti-HAV. Simplification, reduced number of doses and similar long-term persistence of immunity make the 0, 6 month and 0, 12 month schedule preferable for immunization against HAV/HBV in this population." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0290_3281", "title": "Hepatitis B vaccination schedules in genitourinary medicine clinics.", "score": 0.016569667921944538, "content": "To compare two vaccination schedules in delivering hepatitis B vaccine to at-risk genitourinary medicine clinic attenders. Genitourinary medicine clinic of St Thomas' Hospital, London, UK. Two vaccination protocols were compared. Between January 1991 and December 1992, individuals had doses of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine at 0, 1 and 6 months (standard). From January until October 1993 doses of vaccine were administered at 0, 1 and 2 months (accelerated), following which timing of a booster dose was made on the basis of hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) assessment. Case notes were reviewed with regard to compliance rates and anti-HBs levels. Two hundred and fourteen individuals were included (standard 104, accelerated 110). Of the standard group 80.8% and 61.5% attended for the 2nd and 3rd doses respectively compared with 80.0% and 75.5% of the accelerated group (attendance for the 3rd dose chi 2 = 4.19, p &lt; 0.05). For both of these groups compliance was significantly better in those who requested vaccination rather than being offered it opportunistically (chi 2 = 4.86, p &lt; 0.05). Seroconversion rates were not significantly different between the two groups (87.5% versus 83.1%). A significantly higher proportion of the standard group, however, achieved anti-HBs levels greater than 100 i.u./l. Completion of hepatitis B vaccination was improved by changing to a 0, 1 and 2 month protocol. Levels of anti-HBs achieved in the accelerated group, however, were lower. If it is confirmed that maintaining anti-HBs levels is not important in retaining protection against hepatitis B then the accelerated schedule has clear advantage. If not, the advantages may be nullified by the need, in some, for an early booster." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0287_734", "title": "[Control of hepatitis B in French Polynesia with a program of systematic vaccination of newborns with the Genhevac B vaccine].", "score": 0.01538021726700972, "content": "In 1988, a 5-year vaccination program against hepatitis B was launched for all newborns in a pilot area, the Austral archipelago in French Polynesia. Genhevac B, a recombinant vaccine produced from mammalian cells was administered. Three different immunization schedules were used, none of them including additional specific immunoglobulin: i) four doses, one at each months (M) 0, 1, 2, and 12; ii) three doses one at each MO, M1 and M6; and iii) three doses one at each MO, M1 and M12. Each year during the 5 year period a serological survey was conducted. Of the 837 children who received at least one vaccine dose, 5 were HBsAg carriers. Seroprotection rates for anti-HBs and anti-PreS2 antibodies were 88% after one dose and 97% after two doses. After the third dose, seroprotection rates and geometric mean titers of anti-HBs antibodies were 95% and 217 mIU/ml for schedule (i) (three dose only); 92% and 389 mIU/ml for schedule (ii) and 93% and 344 mIU/ml for schedule (iii) respectively. After four doses (schedule i) the values were 100% and 1228 mIU/ml. Of the 18 newborns whose mothers were positive for both HBsAg and HBeAg, one was a HBsAg carrier. The estimated protective rate for prevention of perinatal transmission was 94%. This study suggests that in field conditions, systematic vaccination of newborns without using specific immunoglobulins can confer early protection. The schedule recommended for use in French Polynesia was three doses, at MO, M1 and M6-12 (between 6 and 12 months) with an additional booster dose at age 6 years, the last year of nursery school. Since April 1992, all children born in French Polynesia have been vaccinated according to this schedule. A catch-up program has been implemented for children aged 4 to 10 years old using a similar immunization schedule." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0046_18860", "title": "Influence of vaccination schedules and host factors on antibody response following hepatitis B vaccination.", "score": 0.014908976773383553, "content": "In a prospective multicentre trial, the influence of schedule, compliance, age, sex and weight on the antibody response to hepatitis B vaccination was investigated. Comparison of the vaccination schedules 0, 1, 6 months (group 1; n = 143) and 0, 1, 2, 12 months (group 2; n = 141) was performed in months 3, 7 and 12. In addition, the antibody response was compared one month after the third and one and six months after the last vaccination. Seroprotection rates (anti-HBs greater than 10 IU/l) and antibody titres, given as geometric means (GMTs), were higher in group 1 at month 12 as well as one month after completion of three immunizations. More vaccinees of group 2, however, showed seroprotection at month 3 with higher GMTs. In addition, GMTs in group 2 were higher both one month and six months after the last vaccine dose. Determination of parallel corrected correlation factors demonstrated that age was the most important single factor, followed by body weight and sex. However, no more than 3% of the variation in the GMT can be explained by the influence of age. Due to decreased compliance with the four-dose schedule with a drop-out rate of approximately 10% of the vaccinees, the total percentage of initial vaccinees who in the end developed protective antibody levels was higher in the 0, 1, 6 months schedule. Thus, it can be concluded that subjects likely to comply will benefit from the 0, 1, 2, 12 months schedule as more rapid protection is obtained and the higher antibody levels after the booster vaccination at month 12 provide longer protection. However, vaccinees whose compliance might be questionable over a period of 12 months, should be selected for the vaccination 0, 1, 6 months schedule as compliance is at a higher level over this period and advantage can be taken of the booster effect of the third dose given in month 6." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0252_6527", "title": "Response to an extra dose of hepatitis B vaccine and specific antibody persistence in non-responders to primary immunization.", "score": 0.014873653907666063, "content": "In a campaign to vaccinate health care workers, a three-dose schedule (0, 1, and 6 months) and a four-dose schedule (0, 1, 2, and 14 months) with hepatitis B (HB) vaccine were used. After primary immunization 26 subjects vaccinated with the 3-dose schedule and 4 subjects vaccinated with the 4-dose schedule had undetectable anti-HBs titres. All these 30 non-responders received an extra dose of the same vaccine 2 months after primary immunization and a booster dose with a yeast-derived vaccine 6 years later. Anti-HBs levels were evaluated 1 month after the extra dose and after the booster dose. One month after the extra dose 26.9% (7 of 26) of the subjects vaccinated with the 3-dose schedule became positive for anti-HBs. Six years later only two of these subjects had detectable anti-HBs. After the booster dose the seven subjects who responded to the extra dose showed an anamnestic type of response, and five additional subjects became positive for anti-HBs. Responders to the extra dose were significantly younger than the non-responders. In the four-dose group only one subject responded to the extra dose, and that subject maintained protective anti-HBs. About 25% of non-responders to primary HB vaccination could benefit from an extra dose, and these subjects show an anamnestic type of response to HBs antigen even after 6 years. This response seems to be influenced by age." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0325_8026", "title": "Long-term persistence of anti-HBs after vaccination with a recombinant DNA yeast-derived hepatitis B vaccine: 8-year results.", "score": 0.014870689655172414, "content": "The aim of this study was to evaluate the persistence of antibodies 7 years after hepatitis B booster administration in healthy adult volunteers who were vaccinated in 1986. In October 1986, 188 seronegative, healthy adult volunteers (117 men and 71 women) were vaccinated with a 20 micrograms dose recombinant DNA yeast-derived hepatitis B vaccine. Mean age of the study group was 23.3 years (+/- 0.28). Immunisation was carried out according to a 0-1-2 month vaccination schedule, with a booster dose at 12 months. Of the 159 subjects who received the full vaccination course, 63 (40%) had a blood sample taken 8 years after the first vaccination. Of these 63 subjects, five were excluded from the analysis due to an irregular vaccination schedule and four subjects did not complete the accompanying questionnaire on possible booster administration. So, 54 subjects remained available for further analysis. Fourteen individuals had received an additional booster of hepatitis B vaccine sometime between 1989 and 1994. The geometric mean titre (GMT) at month 13 for these 14 individuals was 1494 mIU ml-1, compared with 3103 mIU ml-1 for those who did not receive an interim booster. Forty subjects, who received no additional booster dose besides that of month 12, met the inclusion criteria of the follow-up study. Of these, all subjects except one were seropositive for anti-HBs at month 96 (GMT: 215.9 mIU ml-1). All subjects were still anti-HBc negative at that time. Distribution of individual antibody titres revealed that overall 92.5% of subjects retained protective antibody levels (&gt; or = 10 mIU ml-1); 72.5% of vaccinees retained high levels of anti-HBs (&gt; or = 100 mIU ml-1) as compared to 99.2 and 97.0% at month 13, respectively. A positive correlation was found between the subjects' titres at month 13 and month 96. A 0-1-2 dose vaccination course with a booster dose administered at month 12, induces a protective immune response which lasts at least until 7 years after the full vaccination course of the subjects. A positive correlation was found between the anti-HBs antibody titres at month 13 and month 96." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0317_19713", "title": "Combined intramuscular-intradermal protocol of universal neonate HB vaccination irrespective of mother's status of HBsAg.", "score": 0.014633889561509713, "content": "To evaluate a protocol of combined intramuscular-intradermal (i.m.-i.d.) universal hepatitis B (HB) vaccination of neonates regardless of the mothers' HB surface antigen HBsAg status, 160 full-term newborn babies were sequentially divided into groups A and B (test and control groups). The group A babies were immunized by giving 30 micrograms HB vaccine i.m. within 24 h after birth and 2 micrograms i.d. twice at 1 and 6 months of age. Group B babies were immunized by giving one initial dose of 30 micrograms i.m. and two booster doses of 10 micrograms i.m. after same 0, 1, 6-month schedule. Blood samples were collected at birth before the first dose of the HB vaccine, at 6 months of age before the third dose and at 12 months. The blood samples were tested for HBsAg and anti-HBs by using Abbott RIA reagents. All of the 160 newborns received three doses of vaccine, but in only 96 of them was the blood examination completed. The positive rate of anti-HBs &gt; 10 IU l-1 was 76.27 and 83.08% in groups A and B, respectively at 6 months, and 83.72 and 92.45%, respectively at 12 months. The geometric mean titres (GMT) of anti-HBs was 42.25 and 60.25 IU l-1 in groups A and B, respectively at 6 months, and 74.45 and 87.1 IU l-1, respectively at 12 months. HBsAg was negative in the two groups 6 and 12 months after birth. The chi 2 and t-tests showed there were no significant differences in these data between the two groups. Thus was it demonstrated that the combined i.m.-i.d. protocol using 34 micrograms of HB vaccine can produce a protection similar to that of the conventional 50 micrograms i.m. regimen, while ca on-third of the vaccine can be saved. The new protocol is theoretically rational and may be ideal according to the cost-effectiveness principle." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en122_811", "title": "Hepatitis A and B vaccine", "score": 0.01453061972863953, "content": "It is widely available. Administration schedule Routine Twinrix vaccination is administered by intramuscular injection in the deltoid area using a schedule of three separate doses at 0, 1, and 6 months ([minimum intervals: 4 weeks between doses 1 and 2, 5 months between doses 2 and 3]). In some circumstances, an accelerated dosing schedule of 0, 7 and 21 to 30 days followed by a booster at 12 months can be used and was shown to have similar efficacy as the traditional schedule. Efficacy The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) reports that clinical trials found the following levels of protection against Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B one month after each dose: A: 93.8%, 98.8%, 99.9% B: 30.8%, 78.2%, 98.5% GlaxoSmithKline claims that its studies found 70% of subjects had antibodies against hepatitis B a month after just the first dose, however." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1004_12548", "title": "Long-term persistence of anti-HBs after hepatitis B vaccination among adults: 8-year results.", "score": 0.014183708165347062, "content": "The long-term persistence of hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) after hepatitis B vaccination among adults was not known clearly. This study aimed to assess the immunogenicity and persistence of antibodies 8 years after hepatitis B immunization with different vaccination schedules among adults who tested negative for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), anti-HBs, and hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc). A total of 771 participants who received the full vaccination course (three doses) and also had a blood sample taken 1 month after the first vaccination were recruited. Of these, 529 were excluded due to the missing data of anti-HBs 8 years after the first vaccination. Vaccinations were carried out at 0-1-3, 0-1-6 and 0-1-12 month vaccination schedules, and 104, 45, and 93 participants were included, respectively. The positive seroprotection rate was 85.9% 1 month after the third vaccination, and 58.3% 8 years later (<iχ</i<sup2</sup = 54.52, <iP</i &lt; .001), while the geometric mean titer (GMT) of anti-HBs was 158.49 mIU/mL [95% confidence interval (CI): 131.83-190.55)] and 15.14 mIU/mL (95% CI: 10.96-20.42) after 1 month and 8 years, respectively. Compared with the standard 0-1-6 month vaccination schedule, the positive seroprotection rate and the GMT of the 0-1-3 month vaccination schedule had no difference. The long-term immune effect of the 0-1-3 month vaccination schedule was better than that of the 0-1-12 month vaccination schedule. No correlation was found between the GMT of anti-HBs 1 month and 8 years later." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_59", "title": "Evaluation of the immunogenicity of a recombinant vaccine against hepatitis B containing S and pre-S2 sequences using two different schedules.", "score": 0.013827277017461066, "content": "The immunogenicities of hepatitis B virus vaccines containing S and pre-S2 regions were compared using two different schedules of immunization (A: 0-1-2-12 months and B: 0-1-6 months). Two hundred males and females aged 17-22 years were vaccinated with 20 micrograms per dose. The follow-up period was extended up to 13 months. One month after the booster dose anti-HBs were detected in 98.9% of those vaccinated with schedule A and 100% of those vaccinated with schedule B. Geometric mean titres (GMT) of anti-HBs were significantly higher with schedule A than schedule B, reaching GMT of 16269.7 mIU ml-1 and 4372.4 mIU ml-1, respectively, one month after the booster dose. Seroconversion rates for the anti-pre-S2 antibodies one month after the booster dose were 89.4% for schedule A and 76.6% for schedule B. GMT were 157.8 mIU ml-1 and 67.5 mIU ml-1, respectively. We conclude that both vaccines elicit high titres of anti-HBs and anti-pre-S2 antibodies. Immunity lasts longer in schedule A than in schedule B." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0269_1916", "title": "[Anti-Hbs level after the basic course of vaccination against hepatitis B in health care workers].", "score": 0.013193735103847463, "content": "Health care workers are the group at high hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection risk. Groups of physicians and nurses working in hospitals of Lublin have been vaccinated since 1989. The aim of this work was to assess the level of anti-HBs in different years after the basic course of vaccination. We have examined 166 persons, aged from 18 to 65 years, vaccinated with a yeast recombinant hepatitis B vaccine Engerix B (Smith Kline Biologicals). They completed the full cycle of vaccination according to the pattern of 0, 1, 6 months. Within the group of people who had got the third dose one year ago we found 100% of women and 88% of men with a protective level of anti-HBs (&gt; or = 10 IU/l). Four years after the final inoculation differences between female and male population were even more significant: 93% of man had a protective level of anti-HBs. We have also found that humoral response was higher in the group of younger vaccinees (18-40 years). We propose that timing of booster vaccination should be scheduled on the basis of anti-HBs level. It seems to be necessary to control the level of anti-HBs at least 3 years after the last dose of vaccination." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en609_29297", "title": "Vaccination in Brazil", "score": 0.013159626266614028, "content": "Routine vaccinations Vaccination coverage includes: For children BCG vaccine, Intradermal, at birth Hepatitis B vaccine, at birth, 1 and 6 months Pentavalent vaccine, DTP (whole cell pertussis component), HB, and Hib, administered at 2, 4, and 6 months, with a booster (DTP) at 15 months and 4 years. Polio vaccine (inactivated), at 2 and 4 months Polio vaccine (oral), at 6 and 15 months Rotavirus vaccine (monovalent oral human rotavirus vaccine) at 2 and 4 months Pneumococcal vaccine 10-valent conjugate vaccine d at 2, 4, 6, and 10 months Yellow fever vaccine at 9 months and booster every 10 years MMR vaccine at 12 months and 4 years Meningococcal vaccine at 3, 5, and 15 months Influenza vaccine, annually MMRV vaccine, after 1 year of age Hepatitis A vaccine, at 0 and 6 to 12 months For adults:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1033_18755", "title": "Strategies for hepatitis B booster vaccination among children: an 8-year prospective cohort study.", "score": 0.012987560615644107, "content": "Debate continues regarding the need for a booster vaccination in children who received a universal infant hepatitis B virus (HBV) vaccination. The aim was to explore the need and the strategies for the booster HBV vaccination. 8-year prospective cohort study was conducted among children aged 5-15 years in 2009-2010 in Zhejiang Province. The participants were divided into groups A (&lt;0.1 mIU/mL), B (0.1 to &lt; 1 mIU/mL) and C (1 to &lt;10 mIU/mL) according to the pre-booster anti-HBs antibody levels. 5 μg (group I), 10 μg (group II), 20 μg hepatitis B vaccines (group III) or 5 μg hepatitis A and B (HAB) vaccines (group IV) with 0-1-6-month schedule were randomly administered to children negative for all markers. Blood samples were collected at baseline HBV marker testing, 1 month after the first dose, 1 month, 1 year, 5 years and 8 years after the third dose. Among 4170 children, 2326 (55.8%) were negative for all HBV markers. Group II showed the highest seropositive rates of 92.8%, 99.7%, 97.6%, 90.3% and 83.4% with GMTs of 4194.5 mIU/ml, 4163.9 mIU/ml, 466.9 mIU/ml, 190.6 mIU/ml, 122.6 mIU/ml from 1 month after dose 1 to 8 years after dose 3, respectively (<iP</i &lt; .01). Participants in group C showed seropositive rates of 98.9%, 99.9%, 99.5%, 95.5%, 92.8% after the revaccination with GMTs of 6519.6 mIU/ml, 5267.4 mIU/ml, 547.1 mIU/ml, 249.5 mIU/ml, 155.3 mIU/ml, respectively, higher than group A and B (<iP</i &lt; .001), except 1 month after the third dose. The 10 μg of HBV vaccine with a 0-1-6-month booster regimen may elicit robust responses and persist for 8 years or longer. Additionally, 1-dose revaccination maybe suitable for children with 1 to &lt; 10 mIU/ml anti-HBs titers." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0375_15138", "title": "A randomized trial of alternative two- and three-dose hepatitis B vaccination regimens in adolescents: antibody responses, safety, and immunologic memory.", "score": 0.012837339020588959, "content": "Hoping to increase hepatitis B (HB) vaccination of adolescents, we did the following: 1) studied if modified regimens of the recombinant HB vaccine, Recombivax HB (2 or 3 doses of 5 or 10 microg given over 4 or 6 months), induce protective anti-hepatitis B surface antibody [anti-HBsAb] levels (&gt;/=10 mIU/mL) comparable to the recommended regimen (5 microg at 0 and 1, and 6 months); 2) measured early antibody response after a single dose; and 3) assessed immunologic memory after 2- and 3-dose regimens. One thousand twenty-six adolescents were randomized to 1 of 5 treatment groups (10 microg at 0 and 4 or 0 and 6 months; 5 microg at 0 and 6 or 0, 2, and 4 or 0, 1, and 6 months) in an open trial. Anti-HBsAb was measured in all participants just before and 1 month after the last dose, and at several other times in a subset of vaccinees. Anti-HBsAb response to a booster dose 2 years later was examined to assess immunologic memory in participants vaccinated with 5 microg at 0 and 6 or 0, 1, and 6 months. All regimens induced &gt;/=10 mIU/mL of anti-HBs in &gt;/=95% of vaccinees. Geometric mean titers ranged from 674.8 to 3049.4 mIU/mL. Geometric mean titers were higher with regimens using the following: 1) 10 versus 5 microg; 2) 3 versus 2 doses; and 3) vaccination intervals of 6 versus 4 months. After 6 months, 63.8% of vaccinees given one 10-microg dose had &gt;/=10 mIU/mL of anti-HBsAb versus 41.6% after one 5-microg dose. Participants vaccinated with either two or three 5-microg doses retained robust immunologic memory. . The results of this study show that a 2-dose regimen of Recombivax HB is as immunogenic and induces immunologic memory as effectively as the recommended 3-dose regimen. A regimen of two 10-microg doses may be of significant benefit for vaccinees who are poorly compliant or deviate from the intended vaccination schedule." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0398_10412", "title": "Long term (24 months) follow-up of a hepatitis A and B vaccine, comparing a two and three dose schedule in adolescents aged 12-15 years.", "score": 0.012588543270711426, "content": "A two dose schedule (0 and 6 months) for a combined hepatitis A and B vaccine is currently being developed. The present study compared the combined hepatitis A and B vaccines in 12-15-year-old: Twinrix paediatric (360 EL.U HAV antigen/10 microg HBs antigen) on a three dose schedule (0, 1 and 6 months) to the adult formulation (720 EL.U HAV antigen/20 microg HBs antigen) on a two dose schedule (0 and 6 months) and also reports on the follow-up until 24 months. Seroconversion (SC) rates to HAV in both regimens reached 100% by month 7 and remained 100% up to month 24. Anti-HAV, GMTs were slightly higher for the two dose than the three dose regimens at this time point. Seroprotection against hepatitis B was &gt;99% in both groups by month 7 and 24, this was still 94 and 96%, respectively. Statistical non-inferiority of group 1 (two dose) versus group 2 (three dose) was demonstrated. All vaccines were well tolerated and the most frequently reported local and general symptoms were pain and fatigue. There were no vaccine-related serious adverse events reported during the study. The two dose regimen elicited similar immunogenicity to HAV and HBsAg and reactogenicity profiles as the three dose regimen in this group of healthy adolescents. The reduction in the number of doses from the current three dose schedule will make vaccination against hepatitis A and B more convenient to the vaccinee, reduce healthcare staff time required and may lower the overall costs associated with vaccination." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en178_5865", "title": "Hepatitis B vaccine", "score": 0.012469292041986154, "content": "An antibody level between 10 and 100mIU/ml is considered a poor response, and these people should receive a single booster vaccination at this time, but do not need further retesting. People who fail to respond (anti-Hbs antibody level below 10mIU/ml) should be tested to exclude current or past hepatitis B infection, and given a repeat course of three vaccinations, followed by further retesting 1–4 months after the second course. Those who still do not respond to a second course of vaccination may respond to intradermal administration or to a high dose vaccine or to a double dose of a combined hepatitis A and B vaccine. Those who still fail to respond will require hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG) if later exposed to the hepatitis B virus." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0366_16719", "title": "Ten-year serological follow up of hepatitis B vaccine recipients.", "score": 0.01243894993894994, "content": "To determine long-term persistence of antibodies to hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) after vaccination against hepatitis B. Thirty-four laboratory workers received hepatitis B vaccine in 1989 in a 0-1-6 month vaccination schedule. Group A (n = 16) received a booster at 3 years after vaccination whereas Group B (n = 18) did not. Anti-HBs was quantitated at 1 month and 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 and 8 years post-vaccination. At eight-year follow up, 10 of 15 subjects in Group A and 3 of 16 in Group B had protective levels of anti-HBs; in addition, two and four subjects, respectively, had detectable anti-HBs though below protective levels. At ten years, 9/15 and 3/16 were anti-HBs positive in Groups A and B, respectively. One subject in each group had rise in anti-HBs titer at 6-year follow up but both of them tested negative for IgG antibodies to hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc). A booster dose at 10 years to anti-HBs negative subjects led to an anamestic response in 3/4 and 8/10 persons in Groups A and B, respectively. Immunological memory after vaccination against hepatitis B is maintained for at least 10 years." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0835_21333", "title": "Optimal vaccination program for healthy adults in China.", "score": 0.010955459770114941, "content": "There is still no suitable routine hepatitis B immunization strategy for adults in China. To establish an optimal vaccination schedule for healthy adults, we investigated various schedules in healthy adults. In this randomized 5143 healthy adults received 10 μg hepatitis B vaccine at 0, 1 and 3 months(group A), 0, 1 and 6 months(group B), or 0, 1 and 12 months(group C). Blood samples were collected after 1 month and 12 months after the third dose. The geometric mean titer (GMT), seroconversion rate (levels of anti-HBs ≥ 10 mIU/mL) and high response rate (levels of anti-HBs ≥ 100 mIU/mL) were assayed. In our study, 2438 healthy adults finished the full vaccination program and follow-up. The seroconversion/sero-protective rate of groups A-C at one and 12 month after administration of the third vaccine dose was 100%, 99.9% and 97.9% verse 64.9%, 75.7% and 79.0%, respectively. GMT for anti-HBs tested in group A to C within 1 or 12 month after the third vaccination was 213.16, 432.58 and 451.47 mIU/ml verse 22.07, 46.70 and 56.18 mIU/ml, respectively. There were significant differences of seroconversion/sero-protective rate and GMT among the 3 groups (p &lt; 0.01). Given the high anti-HBs seroconversion rate and GMT in all 3 groups, a flexible schedule for Hepatitis B vaccine should be recommended to adults, but 0-1-12 schedule is a better choice." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en178_5864", "title": "Hepatitis B vaccine", "score": 0.010940470966798304, "content": "Hepatitis B vaccination, hepatitis B immunoglobulin, and the combination of hepatitis B vaccine plus hepatitis B immunoglobulin, all are considered as preventive for babies born to mothers infected with hepatitis B virus (HBV). The combination is superior for protecting these infants. The vaccine during pregnancy is not considered to be valuable in protecting babies of the infected mothers. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin before birth has not been well studied. Effectiveness Following the primary course of three vaccinations, a blood test may be taken after an interval of 1–4 months to establish if there has been an adequate response, which is defined as an anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-Hbs) antibody level above 100mIU/ml. Such a full response occurs in about 85–90% of individuals. An antibody level between 10 and 100mIU/ml is considered a poor response, and these people should receive a single booster vaccination at this time, but do not need further retesting." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0515_2181", "title": "A two-dose schedule for combined hepatitis A and B vaccination in children aged 6-15 years.", "score": 0.01093498599606698, "content": "A combined hepatitis A and B vaccine, Twinrix, in a paediatric formulation for ages 1-15 years and in an adult formulation for those ages 16 years and older, became commercially available in Turkey as well as in many countries. It is administered according to a three-dose schedule (0, 1 and 6 months). A reduction in the number of doses would improve the compliance rate and reduce administration costs. Therefore, we planned a trial evaluation of the immunogenicity, safety and reactogenicity profile of a high-dose combined hepatitis A and B vaccine, administered in two doses, compared with the profile of a paediatric-dose combined vaccine, administered in three doses, in healthy children aged 6-15 years. One hundred children were randomly attributed to the two study groups. The first group (paediatric-dose vaccine group) received the licensed Twinrix Paediatric, at months 0, 1 and 6; the second group (high-dose vaccine group) received the high-dose vaccine, following a 0, 6 months schedule. The reactogenicity was assessed after each vaccine dose. The immunogenicity was evaluated by testing for anti-HBs and anti-HAV antibodies. Seroconversion rates and geometric mean titres (GMTs) were compared. Both formulations of the combined vaccine were well tolerated. The high-dose combined vaccine administered in two doses, elicits satisfactory immunogenicity profiles, similar to those elicited by the paediatric vaccine administered in three doses. On completion of the vaccination schedule in the two groups all children were protected against hepatitis B and immune for hepatitis A. Anti-HAV GMTs after completion of the vaccination schedule were 7163 mlU/ml in the paediatric-dose group, 8241 mlU/ml in the high-dose group; anti-HBs GMTs were 8679 and 4583 mlU/ml, respectively. These results indicate that a two-dose schedule, compared with the standard three-dose schedule, offers fewer injections for satisfactory protection against the two infections. This means fewer clinic visits, lower administration costs, better compliance, and higher coverage rate. Therefore, this two-dose schedule can be considered an appropriate regimen for the immunization of children and adolescents against hepatitis A and B infection, in the context of school-based immunization programmes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0097_19463", "title": "[Course of antibody titer following preventive hepatitis B vaccination and a recommendation for renewal following the use of H-B-Vax vaccines].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "97% of the vaccinees developed anti-HBs independently of the applied vaccine (experimental vaccine or H-B-Vax). With the experimental vaccine the mean antibody titre was 1095 IMU/ml four weeks after third inoculation. Follow up revealed that during a period of 18 month individual antibody titres declined continuously to approximately one tenth. Therefore the duration of protection depends on the titre of anti-HBs which was measured after the third immunization. A control of the antibody titres should be performed after about 3-5 years, when the antibody titres are greater than 1000 IMU/ml 4 weeks after vaccination. But a control should be made already after about 1 1/2-3 years if the antibody titres are 200-1000 IMU/ml. Antibody titres between 100 and 200 IMU/ml should be estimated about 6-18 months later and titres between 10 and 100 IMU/ml already about 3-6 months later. We recommend an immediate revaccination for persons with anti-HBs titres below 10 IMU/ml. Serological findings in hospital staff of the University in Hamburg revealed the presence of protective antibodies in 11,6% which is due to a previous hepatitis B infection. In this cases vaccination was unnecessary." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0584_6495", "title": "Recombinant hepatitis B vaccine: a review of its immunogenicity and protective efficacy against hepatitis B.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Recombinant hepatitis B vaccine Engerix B((R)) [Hep-B(Eng)] is a noninfectious subunit hepatitis B viral vaccine indicated for the active immunisation of adults, children and infants against hepatitis B virus infection. It contains hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) which is produced by the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae by use of recombinant DNA technology. In adults and children seroprotection rates [anti-HBsAg antibody (anti-HBs) titres &gt;or=10 IU/L] were 93 to 100% 1 month after completion of the immunisation schedule with Hep-B(Eng) [0, 1, 6-month schedule]. A more rapid immunological response has been reported with accelerated Hep-B(Eng) immunisation schedules, such as the 0, 1, 2, 12-month schedule. Hep-B(Eng) produces seroprotection rates similar to those achieved with the plasma-derived vaccines and the recombinant hepatitis B vaccine, Recombivax-HB((R)) [Hep-B(Rax)] when administered at recommended doses. In studies in Taiwanese and Thai neonates born to hepatitis B carrier mothers, seroprotection rates were &gt;or=94% 12 months after immunisation with Hep-B(Eng) [+/- hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG)] and protective efficacy was high, with &lt;or=4% of neonates becoming chronic hepatitis B carriers. Similarly, among 119 homosexual men, none had any markers of hepatitis B infection 1 month after completion of immunisation with Hep-B(Eng). Immunoprophylaxis with Hep-B(Eng) +/- HBIG compared with no immunoprophylaxis also resulted in a lower incidence of acute symptomatic hepatitis B infection among healthcare workers accidentally exposed to HBsAg-positive blood (0 vs 6%). Although seroprotective levels of anti-HBs have been reported to persist for at least 5 years in adults and 8 years in children immunised with Hep-B(Eng), anti-HBs titres do decline with time and may become undetectable several years after immunisation in some vaccinees. Moreover, it is currently unclear whether vaccinees require booster doses or whether, on exposure to the virus, natural boosting occurs when anti-HBs titres fall below the protective level (&lt;10 IU/L). Long term follow-up studies should clarify this issue. Hep-B(Eng) is generally well tolerated with a tolerability profile similar to that of Hep-B(Rax) and plasma-derived vaccines. Mild soreness at the injection site is the most common adverse event associated with Hep-B(Eng). Although further long term follow-up is necessary to determine the persistence of protective immunity against hepatitis B, available data indicate that Hep-B(Eng) is an effective and suitable alternative to other vaccines currently used for immunisation against infection caused by hepatitis B virus." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0424_15518", "title": "[Compliance with the vaccination recommendations for 0- to 24-month-old infants in general or paediatric practice].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To describe the vaccine practice of general practitioners and paediatricians for the 0-24-month-old infants and their deviations to the official recommendations. One thousand three hundred and fifty-five practitioners, 46 +/- 8-year-old took part in the survey. Among them 42.7% were general practitioners and 57.3% were paediatrician. Only one third of them, strictly complied with the official vaccination recommendation (33.1%). This percentage was higher for the general practitioners (43.4%) than for the paediatricians (25.5% P &lt; 0.001). When practitioners adapted the vaccination program, their modifications essentially concerned the first administration of the DTCP Hib vaccine, which was delayed of 1 or 2 months. Some vaccines were specifically concerned by the modifications. The ROR was delayed and the vaccination coverage reached only 75% at 18 months. General practitioners adapted the vaccination calendar more often than paediatricians (16.9 vs. 9.0%: P &lt; 0.05). The B Hepatitis vaccination schedule was the most frequently adapted one by general practitioners as well as paediatricians to deal with multiple injections (53.5%), and the age of the infants (39.1%). The availability of hexavalent vaccination containing B Hepatitis should contribute to increase the vaccination coverage of the population against B Hepatitis and could allow an antipneumococcal vaccination through an heptavalent vaccine without increasing the number of injections. On the other hand, general practitioners and paediatricians must actively contribute to increase the ROR vaccination coverage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1098_24323", "title": "Comparative Efficacy of a High-Dose vs Standard-Dose Hepatitis B Revaccination Schedule Among Patients With HIV: A Randomized Clinical Trial.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Active immunization for hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection is recommended in patients living with HIV. Limited evidence is available about the most appropriate regimen of HBV vaccination among those who have not responded to an initial schedule. To determine the efficacy of a high-dose schedule compared with a standard dose of HBV vaccination. This double-masked, parallel-group, randomized controlled trial included patients living with HIV at a single outpatient HIV and hepatology clinic in Chile for whom previous HBV vaccination had failed. Patients with hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) titers less than 10 IU/L after an initial HBV vaccination regimen were included. Consecutive patients were recruited between December 2013 and March 2018. Data were analyzed in June 2018 using intention-to-treat analysis. The high-dose HBV vaccination group consisted of 3 doses of 40 μg recombinant hepatitis B vaccine at 0, 1, and 2 months. The standard-dose group received 3 doses 20 μg each at 0, 1, and 2 months. Primary outcome was the serologic response to HBV vaccination (anti-HBs greater than 10 IU/L) 4 to 8 weeks after completion of the schedule. Secondary outcomes were anti-HBs greater than 100 IU/L and seroprotective anti-HBs at 1 year follow up. A total of 107 patients underwent randomization (55 to the standard-dose group, 52 to the high-dose group); 81 (75.7%) were men, and the mean (SD) patient age was 47.0 (13.3) years. Nearly all patients were receiving antiretroviral therapy (105 patients [98%]) and 92 patients (86%) had an undetectable HIV viral load. Mean (SD) CD4 count was 418 (205) cells/mm3. There were no differences in baseline characteristics between groups. Serological response in the high-dose group was found in 36 of 50 patients (72%; 95% CI, 56.9%-82.9%) compared with 28 of 55 patients in the standard-dose group (51%; 95% CI, 37.1%-64.6%) (odds ratio, 2.48; 95% CI, 1.02-6.10; P = .03). Mean (SD) anti-HB levels were 398.0 (433.4) IU/L in the high-dose group and 158.5 (301.4) IU/L in the standard-dose group (P &lt; .001). Of patients with a serological response in the high-dose group, 29 of 36 (80.6%) had anti-HBs titers greater than 100 IU/L compared with 14 of 28 responders (50.0%) in the standard-dose group (P = .02). At 1-year follow-up, 20 of 25 patients (80.0%) with a serological response in the high-dose group had protective anti-HBs vs 9 of 23 patients (39.1%) in the standard-dose group (P = .01). The results of this randomized clinical trial suggest that use of a high-dose regimen for HBV revaccination for patients with HIV achieves a higher and longer-lasting serological response as compared with a standard-dose regimen. ClinicalTrials.gov Identifier: NCT02003703." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0490_344", "title": "[Persistence of anti-HB antibodies after vaccination against hepatitis B in medical staff of the Memorial Child Health Institute in 1994-1998].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The objective of the study was to assess the persistence of anti-HBs antibodies after vaccination against hepatitis B in the medical staff of the Children's Memorial Health Institute in 1994-1998. The workers were vaccinated with Engerix B, 20 mg per dose, scheme: 0, 1, 6 and 60 months. The anti-HBs level in vaccinated persons was assessed 3 months after basic vaccination and 1 month after administration of a booster dose. The persistence of antibodies was analyzed 2 and 5 years after basic vaccination and 2 years following the booster dose. The analysis revealed a very satisfactory response in 96.2% of workers, including 84.0% persons with preventive titre above 100 iu/l. The absence of response was found in 3.8% of persons, and very weak (below 100 iu/l response in 12.2% of workers. After 5 years, the percentage of good and very good responders diminished to 54.5 and that of non-responders increased to 12.6. For 12.6% of workers, a booster dose after 5 years proved to be too late as they required earlier revaccination and individual monitoring of antibodies titre. Only 87.4% of workers showed the protective anti-HBs level after 5 years. Booster administration after 5 years improved the response in persons with anti-HBs protective level; their percentage increased to 98.8% while the percentage of non-responders decreased to 1.2. Comparison between the antibody persistence 2 years after basic vaccination and after booster dose indicated its improvement in persons with seroconversion, however, the percentage of workers with anti-HBs antibodies below the protective level remained at the same level (3.3%)." }, { "id": "article-22786_4", "title": "Hepatitis A Vaccine -- Indications", "score": 0.009583419308985028, "content": "In the United States, recommendations are for all children to receive HAV beginning at age one year old (twelve to twenty-three months) following routine vaccine schedules. Children aged 12 to 23 months without documentation of hepatitis A vaccination or serologic evidence of immunity should receive a vaccination on arrival in the United States. [2] Children not vaccinated by age two years can receive the vaccination at subsequent visits. [4] Persons working in or traveling to places with high or intermediate endemicity of infection should receive HAV doses at the appropriate age. The first dose of HAV should be given at the earliest opportunity after planning travel, as the antibody formation might not be complete until four weeks after vaccination. Completion of the vaccine series is the recommendation for long-term protection according to routine vaccination schedules." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1075_9303", "title": "Three vs Four Dose Schedule of Double Strength Recombinant Hepatitis-B Vaccine in HIV-infected Children: A Randomized Controlled Trial.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To compare seroprotection rates and the anti-HBs titers following primary immunization with double strength (20 µg) recombinant hepatitis B virus (rHBV) vaccine administered intramuscularly (IM) in a 3-dose (0, 1 and 6 months) vs 4-dose (0, 1, 2 and 6 months) schedule in HIV-infected children receiving antiretroviral therapy (ART). An accelerated 3-dose schedule (0, 1, 2 months) within the 4-dose group was also compared. Randomized controlled trial. Pediatric ART clinic of a tertiary hospital in Delhi from November, 2017 to April, 2019. Fifty (25 per group) HIV-infected children aged 18 months - 12 years receiving ART for at least 6 months who had not received any prior dose of HBV vaccine, and were anti-HBs negative. Group 1 received 20 µg of rHBV vaccine IM (in deltoid muscle) at 0, 1, and 6 months, and group 2 received 20 µg the same vaccine at 0, 1, 2 and 6 months. Anti-HBs titers and proportion of responders in 3-dose vs 4-dose group at seventh and twelfth month and at third month after an accelerated 3-dose schedule. Median (IQR) anti-HBs titers at the seventh month were significantly higher in group 2 [225.7 (151-300) IU/L] compared to group 1 [138.2 (35.2-250) IU/L], but were comparable at the 12th month. Seroprotection rates were comparable between group 2 and group 1 at 7th month (96% vs 80%; P=0.19) and 12th month (96% vs 88%; P=0.61). The proportion of good responders were also comparable between the groups at 7th month and 12th month (both P=0.29). Accelerated 3-dose schedule achieved comparable anti-HBs titers [179.9 (130.6-250) IU/L] and seroprotection rate (92%) one month after completion of schedule to the standard 3-dose + schedule. A 3-dose double strength recombinant HBV vaccine schedule offers comparable seroprotection to 4-dose schedule for HIV-infected children receiving ART." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0105_6903", "title": "[Hepatitis B immunization--when is a booster injection necessary?].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Over 10,000 high risk individuals in the Zurich area have been vaccinated against hepatitis B with 3 initial injections of 20 micrograms H-B-Vax. The question arises whether, and if so when, booster injections should be given. Concentrations and persistence of the protective anti-HBs antibodies of 158 successfully vaccinated individuals (medical staff, patients on hemodialysis or with renal transplants) were analyzed. The anti-HBs behaved typically in most individuals, reaching maximum levels in the 7th month (1 month after the third vaccine injection) and then falling gradually, more rapidly in the next following month than later. Persistence of antibodies depended on the maximum anti-HBs concentration reached initially. Three years after the first vaccine injection anti-HBs concentrations had fallen below 10 mIU/ml in all healthy individuals with initial concentrations between 10-99 mIU/ml, in 44% vaccinees with initial titers between 100 and 499 mIU/ml, in 17% individuals with initial anti-HBs between 500 and 1499 mIU/ml but in none of the vaccinees whose antibodies had originally been higher than 1500 microIU/ml. Anti-HBs were undetectable in 6% of all medical staff members, in 30% of hemodialysis patients and in 59% of patients with renal transplants. Several policies for booster injections are discussed. One possible approach is to measure anti-HBs in all vaccinees after completion of the initial immunization, a further booster injection being recommended individually on the basis of the calculated time when anti-HBs fall lower than, for example, 10 mIU/ml having regard to the initial anti-HBs concentration.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 246, 448 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 33, 63 ] ], "text": "The most reasonable option would be to withdraw ibuprofen and replace it with an analgesic from a group other than NSAIDs (paracetamol, opiates), subsequently monitoring the evolution of blood pressure." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "I would add a calcium channel blocker.", "2": "I would increase the dose of hydrochlorothiazide to 25 mg/day.", "3": "I would change ibuprofen for paracetamol to avoid the possible influence of paracetamol on the effect of hypotensives.", "4": "I would add an alpha blocker because of the high prevalence of prostatic syndrome in males of this age.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0328_7036", "title": "Study population and treatment titration in the International Nifedipine GITS Study: Intervention as a Goal in Hypertension Treatment (INSIGHT).", "score": 0.019142700128228614, "content": "To ascertain the baseline characteristics of the high-risk hypertensive patients entering the International Nifedipine GITS Study: Intervention as a Goal in Hypertension Treatment (INSIGHT). To determine the success of single and combination therapy in achieving target blood pressures in such a population. INSIGHT is a double-blind, prospective outcome trial comparing the efficacy of the calcium channel blocker, nifedipine GITS, and the thiazide, co-amilozide, in preventing myocardial infarction and stroke. We recruited 2996 men and 3454 women, aged 55-80 years, with blood pressure during placebo run-in &gt;150/95 mmHg or isolated systolic blood pressure &gt;160 mmHg from nine countries. Treatment allocation to nifedipine GITS 30 mg daily or co-amilozide (hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg/amiloride 5 mg) once daily was performed by minimization rather than randomization to balance additional risk factors. This was followed by four optional increases in treatment: dose-doubling of the primary drug, addition of atenolol 25/50 mg or enalapril 5/10 mg, and then any other hypotensive drug excluding calcium blockers or diuretics. Target blood pressure was 140/90 mmHg or a fall &gt; or = 20/10 mmHg. Blood pressure at randomization was 172+/-15 / 99+/-9 mmHg. Thirteen per cent of the patients were previously untreated. The proportions of each additional risk factors were: smoking &gt; 10/day, 29%; cholesterol &gt; 6.43 mmol/l, 52%; family history of premature myocardial infarction or stroke, 21%; diabetes mellitus 20%; left ventricular hypertrophy, 10%; previous myocardial infarction, other presentations of coronary heart disease, and peripheral vascular disease, each 6%; proteinuria, 3%. Fifty-five per cent of patients had one additional risk factor, whereas 33%, 9% and 3% had two, three or more additional risk factors, respectively. The blood pressure (and falls in blood pressure) at the end of titration and at 1 year after minimization was 139+/-12 / 82+/-7 mmHg (33+/-15 / 17+/-9) in the 5226 patients still on randomized treatment The numbers requiring the four treatment increments were, respectively, 1591, 780, 597 and 294, meaning that almost 70% of patients on randomized treatment in INSIGHT are receiving only the primary drug. At one year, 69% of patients had a blood pressure &lt; or = 140/90 mmHg. INSIGHT is one of the first double-blind comparisons of active antihypertensive treatments, requiring high-risk patients to achieve sufficient power. Despite this requirement, it is possible to achieve good blood pressure control in most patients without the addition of multiple additional treatments that may dilute any differences between the primary agents." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0694_11720", "title": "[Merits of paracetamol in osteoarthritic hypertensive patients].", "score": 0.017534577885269444, "content": "Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) side effects can impair quality of life in patients with osteoarthritis. Due to its particular mechanism of action, paracetamol might bypass these negative effects. To determine both the role of paracetamol in the treatment of osteoarthritis patients and optimal combination of antihypertensives and antirheumatics for these patients. A prospective clinical trial in a family practice included 110 treated hypertensives aged over 55 years: 50 controls and 60 also taking NSAIDs for osteoarthritis. This 3-month study compared two antihypertensives, lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide fixed combination and amlodipine, with two NSAIDs, ibuprofen and piroxicam, and with paracetamol. Following clinical work-up and NSAID discontinuation for at least 3 days (run-in period of only 3-7 days), osteoarthritis subjects were randomized to 1-month periods of ibuprofen (400-600 mg t.i.d.) or piroxicam (10-20 mg o.d.) with one month of paracetamol (1000 mg t.i.d.) in the middle as a \"wash-out\" interval, continuing the prescribed amlodipine (5-10 mg o.d.) or lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide fixed drug combination (10/6.25-20/12.5 mg o.d.), while control subjects (hypertensives with no osteoarthritis) were just keeping their antihypertensive therapy. Blood pressure was measured with standard mercury sphygmomanometer and with an automatic device, in standing, sitting and supine position. The intensity of arthritic pain (on a visual analogue scale from 1 to 10, where 0 means \"no pain\" and 10 \"the worst pain you may imagine\") and the patient's quality of life estimate (on a visual analogue scale from 1 to 10, where 0 means \"general condition excellent\" and 10 \"the worst possible\") were recorded. Blood pressure control was unchanged in the amiodipine group across the study periods and impaired in the lisinopril/ hydrochlorothiazide group during either ibuprofen or piroxicam, but not during paracetamol. In the amlodipine +/- ibuprofen subgroup, the reduction of the average pain intensity score throughout the study was significant (chi2 = 8.250; df 3; P = 0.037). In the lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide +/- piroxicam subgroup, the assessed quality of life differed significantly (chi2 = 9.716; df 3; P = 0.018), while in the amlodipine +/- ibuprofen and amlodipine +/- piroxicam subgroups the changes were marginal (chi2 = 6.936; df 3; P = 0.072 and chi2 = 7146; df 3; P = 0.065, respectively)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0291_10230", "title": "[Evaluation of trandolapril alone or in combination with a calcium channel blocker in hypertensive patients over 60 years of age].", "score": 0.01670843776106934, "content": "The efficacy and safety of trandolapril alone and in combination with a calcium channel blocker were evaluated in 13,147 hypertensive patients over 60 years old. Two patient groups were constituted. After a 2-week wash-out period, the patients in group I received monotherapy with trandolapril 2 mg/day for 4 weeks. Trandolapril was continued for another 4 weeks in responding patient, otherwise the dosage of trandolapril was doubled or another antihypertensive was added. Group 2, composed of patients previously treated with a calcium channel blocker with insufficient efficacy, was treated according to the same treatment regimen, but the calcium channel blocker was maintained throughout the study. 13,147 patients (group 1: 11,329 patients, group 2: 1,818 patients) with a mean age of 68 +/- 7 years were followed. After 4 weeks of treatment, the blood pressure measured by mercury sphygmomanometer decreased from 176 + 11/99 +/- 8 mmHg to 164 +/- 12/87 +/- 7 mmHg (p &lt; 0.0001). This blood pressure fall was similar in group 1 (-22 +/- 12/-12 +/- 8 mmHg) and in group 2 (-21 +/- 11/-12 +/- 8 mmHg). In the pure systolic HT subgroup treated by trandolapril monotherapy, the antihypertensive effect predominantly affected the SBP (-23 +/- 12/- 4 +/- 6 mmHg). The antihypertensive effect was correlated with the initial blood pressure. In group 1, in the case of insufficient response to trandolapril monotherapy, the addition of a calcium channel blocker was the strategy which achieved the most marked antihypertensive effect (ANOVA, p &lt; 0.0001). This bitherapy was more effective than the trandolapril+diuretic combination (-18 +/- 11/- 11 +/- 8 mmHg and -15 +/- 10/- 9 +/- 7 mmHg, respectively (p &lt; 0.001). A total of 1,270 adverse events were reported by 996 patients (7.6%), leading to discontinuation of treatment in 372 patients (2.8%). The most frequent adverse effects were cough (2.8%), headache (0.8%), vertigo (0.8%) and nausea (0.5%). Only one minor equivalent of angioneurotic oedema was reported. In conclusion, trandolapril is effective and well tolerated in elderly hypertensive patients. In the case of pure systolic HTA, its action is essentially exerted on SBP. The combination of trandolapril+calcium channel blocker appears to be the most effective strategy in the case of incomplete blood pressure control by trandolapril alone." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_703", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.013674798721527694, "content": "In the United States, the JNC8 (Eighth Joint National Committee on the Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure) recommends thiazide-type diuretics to be one of the first-line drug treatments for hypertension, either as monotherapy or in combination with calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, or angiotensin II receptor antagonists. There are fixed-dose combination drugs, such as ACE inhibitor and thiazide combinations. Despite thiazides being cheap and effective, they are not prescribed as often as some newer drugs. This is because they have been associated with increased risk of new-onset diabetes and as such are recommended for use in patients over 65 where the risk of new-onset diabetes is outweighed by the benefits of controlling systolic blood pressure. Another theory is that they are off-patent and thus rarely promoted by the drug industry." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0623_12674", "title": "[Hypertension in the elderly: particularities and precautions].", "score": 0.013642249352571217, "content": "Hypertension is very common and inadequately controlled among the elderly. The HYVET study showed that antihypertensive therapy significantly reduces total mortality and cardiovascular events in people aged 80 years and older. The therapeutic goal for patients aged from 60 to 80 years is systolic blood pressure (SBP) less than 140 mmHg and a diastolic blood pressure (DBP) less than 90 mmHg, without orthostatic hypotension. For patients older than 80 years, the aim is keep SBP &lt; 150 mmHg. This goal also depends on comorbidities, iatrogenic risk, and life expectancy. The choice of treatment must be adapted to the patient's clinical situation, taking into account any cardiovascular diseases, organ damage, and comorbidities. All of the principal antihypertensive drugs can be used in the elderly, with a preference for thiazide diuretics or calcium channel blockers for those with systolic hypertension. Generally, no more than three antihypertensive drugs should be prescribed for octogenarians (including a thiazide diuretic). Particular attention must be paid to the renal risk (estimated by glomerular filtration rate), especially for nephrotoxic and multiple drugs. Blood levels of potassium, sodium, and creatinine must be monitored in patients receiving diuretics or renin angiotensin system blockers, particularly during acute events (e.g., fever, infection, dehydration, and diarrhea). Cognitive function should be assessed in patients with hypertension older than 80 years, with the MMSE (Mini-Mental-State-Examination) to assess the risk of poor adherence, in view of the increased risk of dementia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en226_4902", "title": "Alpha blocker", "score": 0.01357959827021784, "content": "Contraindications There is only one compelling indication for alpha blockers, which is for benign prostatic hyperplasia. Patients who need alpha blockers for BPH, but have a history of hypotension or postural heart failure, should use these drugs with caution, as it may result in an even greater decrease in blood pressure or make heart failure even worse. The most compelling contraindication is urinary incontinence and overall fluid retention. To combat such fluid retention, patients can take a diuretic in combination with the alpha-blocker. In the absence of compelling indications or contraindications, patients should take alpha blockers as a step 4 therapy to reduce blood pressure, but only if the use of ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-II receptor blockers, calcium channel blockers, or thazide diuretics (in full dose or in combinations) have not been efficacious." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0323_18777", "title": "[Influence of some parameters on the blood pressure reduction under treatment: experience from the Hypertension Optimal Treatment Study].", "score": 0.013428381962864722, "content": "The HOT study is the largest controlled therapeutic trial conducted to date in hypertension. This international, prospective, randomised trial is designed to determine the optimal blood pressure to be obtained during treatment, in order to achieve optimal reduction of complications and cardiovascular mortality. The HOT study is conducted according to the PROBE methodology (Prospective Randomised Open Blinded Endpoints. It has three objectives: 1) to evaluate the relationship between the development of major cardiovascular events and the DBP target level (DBP &lt; or = 90, DBP &lt; or = 85 or DBP &lt; or = 80 mmHg. 2) to evaluate the relationship between the development of major cardiovascular events and real DBP observed, 3) to determine whether low-dose acetylsalicylic acid (75 mg/day) provides an additional benefit in terms of cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in treated hypertensive subjects. Between April 1992 and October 1994, 18,790 patients, between the ages of 50 and 80 years (26 countries), were randomised to these 3 target DBP groups and several parameters likely to influence the blood pressure fall were identified. The reduction of DBP was all the more pronounced the higher the baseline DBP. For a baseline DBP equal to 100 mmHg, the mean fall was 18 mmHg and for a baseline DBP equal to 110 mmHg, the mean fall was 27 mmHg. Advanced age was also found to be a factor promoting reduction of DBP, which increased after the age of 65 years. Analysed in relation to the type of treatment, this more marked reduction in the elderly showed that monotherapy with a calcium channel blocker was very effective on DBP and especially after the age of 75 years. The data of the study also showed that SBP decreased in parallel to DBP, but to an even greater extent. Thus, a 10 mmHg reduction of DBP induces a reduction of SBP by approximately 20 mmHg. This reduction of SBP related to the level of DBP was even more marked the higher the baseline SBP and the higher the target DBP objective. Thus 80% of patients in the DBP &lt; or = 80 mmHg group had an SBP &lt; or = 150 mmHg during treatment. Among the other factors, weight appeared to clearly influence reduction of DBP, as the reduction of DBP was more marked the lower the patient's weight. In contrast, the body mass index was poorly correlated with the reduction in blood pressure. The blood pressure reduction, regardless of weight, was more marked when a stricter blood pressure objective was adopted (DBP &lt; or = 80 mmHg). Finally, in the particular case of elderly subjects, treatment with a calcium channel blocker appeared to be very effective in reducing the blood pressure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0545_22968", "title": "[Management of hypertension in the very elderly].", "score": 0.01331453634085213, "content": "The prevalence of hypertension in persons aged 80 years or older is about 70%. Recent studies in this population show the benefits of antihypertensive therapy, especially for stroke prevention. Accurate determination of blood pressure requires the use of ambulatory measurement methods or self-measurement at home because the frequency of \"white coat\" hypertension increases with age. It is essential to distinguish patients with sustained hypertension, who need antihypertensive drugs, from those with white coat hypertension, for whom treatment is not justified and may be dangerous because of the risk of hypotension. The objective of antihypertensive treatment is to decrease blood pressure to less than 140/90 mmHg for those aged 60 to 80 years and to decrease systolic pressure to less than 150 mmHg in those older than 80 years, without orthostatic hypotension. Any class of antihypertensive drugs can be used to start treatment, although in the absence of specific indications due to concomitant diseases, thiazide diuretics or calcium channel blockers are preferred for initial treatment. Most often, very elderly hypertensive patients will require two antihypertensive drugs for adequate blood pressure control. Generally their regimen should not include more than 3 antihypertensive drugs (including a thiazide diuretic)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_719", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.013312693498452013, "content": "Thiazide diuretics are effective, recommended as the best first-line drug for hypertension, and are much more affordable than other therapies, yet they are not prescribed as often as some newer drugs. Chlorthalidone is the thiazide drug that is most strongly supported by the evidence as providing a mortality benefit; in the ALLHAT study, a chlorthalidone dose of 12.5 mg was used, with titration up to 25 mg for those subjects who did not achieve blood pressure control at 12.5 mg. Chlorthalidone has repeatedly been found to have a stronger effect on lowering blood pressure than hydrochlorothiazide, and hydrochlorothiazide and chlorthalidone have a similar risk of hypokalemia and other adverse effects at the usual doses prescribed in routine clinical practice. Patients with an exaggerated hypokalemic response to a low dose of a thiazide diuretic should be suspected to have hyperaldosteronism, a common cause of secondary hypertension." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en477_24837", "title": "Management of hypertension", "score": 0.01235636162259449, "content": "Elderly Treating moderate to severe hypertension decreases death rates and cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in people aged 60 and older. The recommended blood pressure goal is advised as <150/90 mm Hg, with thiazide diuretic, CCB, ACEI, or ARB being the first-line medication in the United States. In the revised UK guidelines, calcium-channel blockers are advocated as first line, with targets of clinic readings <150/90, or <145/85 on ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. There are no randomized clinical trials addressing the goal blood pressure of hypertensives over 79 years old. A recent review concluded that antihypertensive treatment reduced cardiovascular deaths and disease, but did not significantly reduce total death rates. Two professional organizations have published guidelines for the management of hypertension in persons over 79 years old." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_155266", "title": "Hypertension", "score": 0.011940619621342512, "content": "Medications Several classes of medications, collectively referred to as antihypertensive medications, are available for treating hypertension. First-line medications for hypertension include thiazide-diuretics, calcium channel blockers, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors), and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs). These medications may be used alone or in combination (ACE inhibitors and ARBs are not recommended for use in combination); the latter option may serve to minimize counter-regulatory mechanisms that act to restore blood pressure values to pre-treatment levels. Most people require more than one medication to control their hypertension. Medications for blood pressure control should be implemented by a stepped care approach when target levels are not reached." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0701_13003", "title": "Hydrochlorothiazide versus calcium channel blockers: what is the best add-on to a renin-angiotensin system blocker for treating hypertension in patients with renal disease?", "score": 0.011648145668764227, "content": "Hypertension remains an important problem that increases the risk of cardiovascular disease and is a leading cause of mortality worldwide. Achieving long-term control of arterial hypertension, which has an estimated prevalence of 28% in the US adult population, would translate into a significant reduction in cardiovascular events. Specific causes can be identified and treated for certain forms of secondary hypertension, but often it is multifactorial. Therefore, it makes sense to attain blood pressure control by addressing more than one pressor mechanism. Several clinical studies have demonstrated that combination antihypertensive therapy is more effective than monotherapy, and a review of currently published data suggests that approximately 75% of hypertensive individuals will require some form of combination therapy to achieve target blood pressure (BP) goals. To this end, the Seventh Report of the Joint National Committee on Prevention, Detection, Evaluation and Treatment of Blood Pressure (JNC 7) has recommended that antihypertensive therapy should start with two drugs when a patient presents with systolic blood pressure (SBP) more than 20 mm Hg above target levels, diastolic blood pressure (DBP) more than 10 mm Hg above target levels, or both. This review attempts to analyze the current evidence in published medical literature to answer the question of whether hydrochlorothiazide or a calcium channel blocker is a better add-on to a renin-angiotensin system blocker for treating hypertension in patients with renal disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_700", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.011524723741489006, "content": "Which type of medication to use initially for hypertension has been the subject of several large studies and resulting national guidelines. The fundamental goal of treatment should be the prevention of the important endpoints of hypertension, such as heart attack, stroke and heart failure. Patient age, associated clinical conditions and end-organ damage also play a part in determining dosage and type of medication administered. The several classes of antihypertensives differ in side effect profiles, ability to prevent endpoints, and cost. The choice of more expensive agents, where cheaper ones would be equally effective, may have negative impacts on national healthcare budgets. As of 2018, the best available evidence favors low-dose thiazide diuretics as the first-line treatment of choice for high blood pressure when drugs are necessary. Although clinical evidence shows calcium channel blockers and thiazide-type diuretics are preferred first-line treatments for most people (from both" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en477_24831", "title": "Management of hypertension", "score": 0.011409865242817188, "content": "The best first-line medication is disputed, but the Cochrane collaboration, World Health Organization, and US guidelines support low-dose thiazide-based diuretic as first-line treatment. The UK guidelines emphasise calcium channel blockers (CCB) in preference for people over the age of 55 years or people of African or Caribbean descent, with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE-I) used as a first line for younger people. In Japan, starting with any one of six classes of medications, including CCB, ACEI/ARB, thiazide diuretics, beta-blockers, and alpha-blockers, is deemed reasonable, while in Canada and Europe all of these except alpha-blockers are recommended as options. Compared to placebo, beta-blockers have a greater benefit in stroke reduction, but no difference on coronary heart disease or all-cause mortality. However, three-quarters of active beta-blocker treatments in the randomised controlled trials included in the review used atenolol, and none used the newer" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0899_10659", "title": "[Comparative Efficacy of the Influence of Fixed Combinations of Antihypertensive Drugs That Block the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System, With Thiazide Diuretics on the Parameters of Ambulatory Blood Pressure Monitoring].", "score": 0.010916269887353384, "content": "to compare effects of fixed-dose combinations of antihypertensive drugs that block renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) with hydrochlorothiazide (HCT) on parameters of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM). Patients (n=50; 25 women, 25 men aged 40-75 years) with stage II essential hypertension who received no antihypertensive therapy for 12 weeks were randomized to receive once daily fixed-dose combinations of either valsartan/HCT (Val/HCT - group I) or quinapril/HCT (Quin/HCT - groupII) in starting doses of 80/12.5 or 10/12.5 mg, respectively. If target BP (&lt;140 and 90 mm Hg) was not achieved after 2 weeks, doses were increased to 160/12.5 and 20/12.5 mg, respectively. Patients in whom target BP was not achieved after another 2 weeks were excluded from the study. Follow - up after achieving target BP was 12 weeks. Both combinations significantly (p&lt;0.001) reduced office systolic and diastolic BP (SBP and DBP), however, BP decrease in group I was significantly (p&lt;0.01) greater (-42.0+/-2,7 /-22.2+/-1.2 mm Hg) than in group II (-26,4+/-2,1/-6.6+/-0.4 mm Hg). Significant reduction of day- and night-time BP (p&lt;0.001) observed in both groups was also more pronounced (p&lt;0.01) in group I. In both groups we recorded significant (p&lt;0.01) decreases of BP variability and morning BP rise. Variability of DBP at night (-3.3+/-0.2 mm Hg), magnitude and speed of morning DBP surge (-20.9+/-0.3 mm Hg and -3.4+/-0.2 mm Hg/hour, respectively) in group I decreased significantly (p&lt;0.05) greater compared with same parameters in group II (-2.5+/-0.2 mm Hg, -17.7+/-0.3 mm Hg, -2.6+/-0.2 mm Hg/hour, respectively). Fixed-dose combinations of RAAS blockers and HCT provided reliable reduction of BP, BP variability, morning BP rise, and high percentage of achievement of target BP. Val/HCT combination was more effective in terms of reducing SBP, DBP and pulse BP levels at routine measurement, and day- and night-time SBP and DBP, night-time DBP variability, and rate of morning DBP rise." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_722", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.010340244550770867, "content": "Patient factors The choice between the drugs is to a large degree determined by the characteristics of the patient being prescribed for, the drugs' side effects, and cost. Most drugs have other uses; sometimes the presence of other symptoms can warrant the use of one particular antihypertensive. Examples include: Age can affect the choice of medications. Current UK guidelines suggest starting patients over the age of 55 years first on calcium channel blockers or thiazide diuretics. Age and multi-morbidity can affect the choice of medication, the target blood pressure and even whether to treat or not. Anxiety may be improved with the use of beta blockers. Asthmatics have been reported to have worsening symptoms when using beta blockers. Benign prostatic hyperplasia may be improved with the use of an alpha blocker. Chronic kidney disease. ACE inhibitors or ARBs should be included in the treatment plan to improve kidney outcomes regardless of race or diabetic status." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_699", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.010018796992481203, "content": "Antihypertensives are a class of drugs that are used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure). Antihypertensive therapy seeks to prevent the complications of high blood pressure, such as stroke and myocardial infarction. Evidence suggests that reduction of the blood pressure by 5 mmHg can decrease the risk of stroke by 34%, of ischaemic heart disease by 21%, and reduce the likelihood of dementia, heart failure, and mortality from cardiovascular disease. There are many classes of antihypertensives, which lower blood pressure by different means. Among the most important and most widely used medications are thiazide diuretics, calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists (ARBs), and beta blockers." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_40479", "title": "Amiloride", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "minimal efficacy. For people with resistant hypertension, already taking a thiazide diuretic, an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE-i) or an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), and a calcium channel blocker, the addition of amiloride (or spironolactone) was better at reducing blood pressure than adding a beta-blocker (bisoprolol) or an alpha-1 blocker (doxazosin). When combined with hydrochlorothiazide, the addition of amiloride had positive effects on blood pressure and blood sugar tolerance. Amiloride may therefore be useful for preventing the metabolic side effects of thiazide diuretics, allowing for the use of higher thiazide doses (in line with how they were originally studied)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0387_14731", "title": "How far should we lower blood pressure in the elderly.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In the last few years several large intervention trials have addressed the treatment of hypertension in the elderly and how far blood pressure should be lowered in such patients. The positive results of intervention against high blood pressure in the elderly has resulted in a positive attitude towards treatment and today this is an accepted and highly effective medical intervention. Both stroke and coronary morbidity have been shown to be positively affected as has total mortality. The specific issue, how far to lower blood pressure in the elderly was probably best addressed in the Hypertension Optimal Treatment (HOT) stduy in which about a third of the patients, i.e. &gt;6,000 patients, were &gt; or =65 years of age. In most of the early intervention studies of antihypertensive treatment in elderly patients diuretics or beta-blockers or the two in combination were used as the therapy by which blood pressure was lowered. However, novel therapies, in particular calcium antagonists, have shown benefits of the same magnitude as the older therapies, e.g. in the STONE trial, the Syst-Eur study, the Syst-China study and the STOP-Hypertension-2 study. In the latter study a regimen based on either of two ACE inhibitors was also shown to be equally effective as conventional treatment, based on diuretics and/or betablockers, in the elderly. These trials will be briefly reviewed here as will the SCOPE study which is an ogoing trial in which hypertensive patients aged 70-89 years are being treated with an angiotensin II receptor antagonist under double-blind and placebo-controlled conditions. It can be concluded that a wealth of information, based on large intervention trials, has been accumulated during the last decade. It is quite obvious that the elderly hypertensive patients benefit from antihypertensive treatment to at least the same extent as the young and middle-aged. It appears that blood pressure ought to be lowered down to normotensive values also in the elderly in order to minimize their risk if cardiovascular complications, although more studies would be welcome to address this issue specifically in the elderly." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_706", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.00978494623655914, "content": "However, ACE inhibitors (and angiotensin II receptor antagonists) should not be a first-line treatment for black hypertensives without chronic kidney disease. Results from the ALLHAT trial showed that thiazide-type diuretics and calcium channel blockers were both more effective as monotherapy in improving cardiovascular outcomes compared to ACE inhibitors for this subgroup. Furthermore, ACE inhibitors were less effective in reducing blood pressure and had a 51% higher risk of stroke in black hypertensives when used as initial therapy compared to a calcium channel blocker. There are fixed-dose combination drugs, such as ACE inhibitor and thiazide combinations. Notable side effects of ACE inhibitors include dry cough, high blood levels of potassium, fatigue, dizziness, headaches, loss of taste and a risk for angioedema. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0795_13807", "title": "Blood pressure-lowering efficacy of monotherapy with thiazide diuretics for primary hypertension.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Hypertension is a modifiable cardiovascular risk factor. Although it is established that low-dose thiazides reduce mortality as well as cardiovascular morbidity, the dose-related effect of thiazides in decreasing blood pressure has not been subject to a rigorous systematic review. It is not known whether individual drugs within the thiazide diuretic class differ in their blood pressure-lowering effects and adverse effects. To determine the dose-related decrease in systolic and/or diastolic blood pressure due to thiazide diuretics compared with placebo control in the treatment of patients with primary hypertension. Secondary outcomes included the dose-related adverse events leading to patient withdrawal and adverse biochemical effects on serum potassium, uric acid, creatinine, glucose and lipids. We searched the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL 2014, Issue 1), Ovid MEDLINE (1946 to February 2014), Ovid EMBASE (1974 to February 2014) and ClinicalTrials.gov. We included double-blind, randomized controlled trials (RCTs) comparing fixed-dose thiazide diuretic monotherapy with placebo for a duration of 3 to 12 weeks in the treatment of adult patients with primary hypertension. Two authors independently screened articles, assessed trial eligibility, extracted data and determined risk of bias. We combined data for continuous variables using a mean difference (MD) and for dichotomous outcomes we calculated the relative risk ratio (RR) with 95% confidence interval (CI). We included 60 randomized, double-blind trials that evaluated the dose-related trough blood pressure-lowering efficacy of six different thiazide diuretics in 11,282 participants treated for a mean duration of eight weeks. The mean age of the participants was 55 years and baseline blood pressure was 158/99 mmHg. Adequate blood pressure-lowering efficacy data were available for hydrochlorothiazide, chlorthalidone and indapamide. We judged 54 (90%) included trials to have unclear or high risk of bias, which impacted on our confidence in the results for some of our outcomes.In 33 trials with a baseline blood pressure of 155/100 mmHg, hydrochlorothiazide lowered blood pressure based on dose, with doses of 6.25 mg, 12.5 mg, 25 mg and 50 mg/day lowering blood pressure compared to placebo by 4 mmHg (95% CI 2 to 6, moderate-quality evidence)/2 mmHg (95% CI 1 to 4, moderate-quality evidence), 6 mmHg (95% CI 5 to 7, high-quality evidence)/3 mmHg (95% CI 3 to 4, high-quality evidence), 8 mmHg (95% CI 7 to 9, high-quality evidence)/3 mmHg (95% CI 3 to 4, high-quality evidence) and 11 mmHg (95% CI 6 to 15, low-quality evidence)/5 mmHg (95% CI 3 to 7, low-quality evidence), respectively.Direct comparison of doses did not show evidence of dose dependence for blood pressure-lowering for any of the other thiazides for which RCT data were available: bendrofluazide, chlorthalidone, cyclopenthiazide, metolazone or indapamide.In seven trials with a baseline blood pressure of 163/88 mmHg, chlorthalidone at doses of 12.5 mg to 75 mg/day reduced average blood pressure compared to placebo by 12.0 mmHg (95% CI 10 to 14, low-quality evidence)/4 mmHg (95% CI 3 to 5, low-quality evidence).In 10 trials with a baseline blood pressure of 161/98 mmHg, indapamide at doses of 1.0 mg to 5.0 mg/day reduced blood pressure compared to placebo by 9 mmHg (95% CI 7 to 10, low-quality evidence)/4 (95% CI 3 to 5, low-quality evidence).We judged the maximal blood pressure-lowering effect of the different thiazides to be similar. Overall, thiazides reduced average blood pressure compared to placebo by 9 mmHg (95% CI 9 to 10, high-quality evidence)/4 mmHg (95% CI 3 to 4, high-quality evidence).Thiazides as a class have a greater effect on systolic than on diastolic blood pressure, therefore thiazides lower pulse pressure by 4 mmHg to 6 mmHg, an amount that is greater than the 3 mmHg seen with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) and renin inhibitors, and the 2 mmHg seen with non-selective beta-blockers. This is based on an informal indirect comparison of results observed in other Cochrane reviews on ACE inhibitors, ARBs and renin inhibitors compared with placebo, which used similar inclusion/exclusion criteria to the present review.Thiazides reduced potassium, increased uric acid and increased total cholesterol and triglycerides. These effects were dose-related and were least for hydrochlorothiazide. Chlorthalidone increased serum glucose but the evidence was unclear for other thiazides. There is a high risk of bias in the metabolic data. This review does not provide a good assessment of the adverse effects of these drugs because there was a high risk of bias in the reporting of withdrawals due to adverse effects. This systematic review shows that hydrochlorothiazide has a dose-related blood pressure-lowering effect. The mean blood pressure-lowering effect over the dose range 6.25 mg, 12.5 mg, 25 mg and 50 mg/day is 4/2 mmHg, 6/3 mmHg, 8/3 mmHg and 11/5 mmHg, respectively. For other thiazide drugs, the lowest doses studied lowered blood pressure maximally and higher doses did not lower it more. Due to the greater effect on systolic than on diastolic blood pressure, thiazides lower pulse pressure by 4 mmHg to 6 mmHg. This exceeds the mean 3 mmHg pulse pressure reduction achieved by ACE inhibitors, ARBs and renin inhibitors, and the 2 mmHg pulse pressure reduction with non-selective beta-blockers as shown in other Cochrane reviews, which compared these antihypertensive drug classes with placebo and used similar inclusion/exclusion criteria.Thiazides did not increase withdrawals due to adverse effects in these short-term trials but there is a high risk of bias for that outcome. Thiazides reduced potassium, increased uric acid and increased total cholesterol and triglycerides." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en064_36875", "title": "Alpha-1 blocker", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "In patients with neurogenic hypertension who fail in achieving blood pressure control with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEi), Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB) and calcium channel blockers (CCB), alpha- and beta- adrenergic receptor blockers constitute the main treatment options. This is supported by studies that show surprisingly though consistently that neither alpha- nor beta-blocker mono- therapy reduces sympathetically mediated blood pressure reactivity to acute experimental stressors. Studies of combined oral alpha- and beta-blockade using an alpha-blocker (e.g., doxazosin or terazosin) in combination with a nonlipophilic beta-blocker with more reliable bioavailability (e.g., betaxolol, bisoprolol, atenolol and others) have shown a larger antihypertensive effect. This approach also enables separate titration of alpha- and beta-blocking effects. In these studies, doxazosin was prescribed at the low dose of 1–2 mg." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0490_18074", "title": "[Perspectives on treatment of hypertension in elderly patients].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Hypertension increases in prevalence with age. Population-based studies suggest that more than 50% of people over the age of 65 years may have chronic hypertension, defined as blood pressure (BP) &gt; or = 140/90 mmHg. Hypertension, especially systolic hypertension, is the most common, powerful, however treatable risk factor for cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in the elderly. Large randomised trials have demonstrated that treating elderly and even very old persons (age &gt; 80 years) is highly efficacious. A recent meta-analysis, comparing active treatment with placebo in isolated systolic hypertension demonstrated highly significant benefits: stroke was reduced by 30%, coronary heart disease events by 23%, all cardiovascular events by 26%, and cardiovascular deaths by 13%. The classic strategy of an initial thiazide or thiazide-like diuretic therapy has been verified by the most recent trials. Furthermore it is not appropriate to limit the choice of initial drugs for hypertensive older individuals to a single class of agents, since so many older people have other medical problems that affect this decision and reaching the target blood pressure is the determinant factor for cardiovascular risk reduction. Therefore single drug therapy with long-acting (dihydropyridine-type) calcium-antagonists, beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting-enzyme-inhibitors or angiotensin-receptor-blockers is justified with respect to individual efficacy and comorbidity. If a combination of antihypertensive drugs is needed to reach blood pressure goal, thiazides remain the cornerstone. First line therapy with an alpha-blocker is no longer recommended, even for men with hypertension and benign prostatic hypertrophy. Today, recommended blood pressure goals are the same for younger individuals and the elderly." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0531_18133", "title": "Efficacy and safety of lercanidipine versus hydrochlorothiazide as add-on to enalapril in diabetic populations with uncontrolled hypertension.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors plus dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers or low-dose thiazide diuretics are considered first-line therapies in hypertensive diabetic patients as glucose metabolism is not relevantly affected. Most diabetic patients require at least two different drug classes to achieve the recommended target blood pressure of 130/85 mmHg. This controlled clinical trial investigated the calcium channel blocker lercanidipine versus hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) as add-on in diabetic patients with uncontrolled hypertension on enalapril monotherapy. Overall, 174 patients (18-80 years old, well-controlled diabetes type 1 or 2, mild to moderate hypertension) were included in a 2-week placebo run-in followed by 4 weeks on enalapril 20 mg. Subsequently, 135 non-responders (90 mmHg &lt; or = mean sitting diastolic blood pressure &lt; or = 109 mmHg) were randomized to 20 weeks of double-blind add-on therapy to enalapril with either lercanidipine 10 mg (n = 69) or HCTZ 12.5 mg (n = 66). The primary study objective was to prove non-inferiority of lercanidipine add-on versus HCTZ add-on in reducing sitting diastolic blood pressure; response rates and tolerability data were also observed. Both add-on treatments clearly decreased diastolic blood pressure to a greater extent than enalapril monotherapy (mean +/- SD changes at study end: lercanidipine, -9.3 mmHg; HCTZ, -7.4 mmHg); non-inferiority of lercanidipine versus HCTZ was formally proven. Blood pressure response rates reached 69.6% on enalapril plus lercanidipine as compared with 53.6% on enalapril plus HCTZ (difference between treatments, P &gt; 0.05). Blood pressure of 130/85 mmHg or less was achieved in 30.4% of patients on lercanidipine add-on and in 23.2% of those randomized to HCTZ add-on (P &gt; 0.05). Both treatment regimens were well tolerated. Lercanidipine add-on showed comparable efficacy to HCTZ add-on in diabetic patients with hypertension badly controlled on angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor monotherapy. The blood pressure response rates seemed to be somewhat higher following enalapril plus lercanidipine than enalapril plus HCTZ." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0641_9977", "title": "Management of hypertension in the elderly patient.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Hypertension in the elderly is associated with increased occurrence rates of sodium sensitivity, isolated systolic hypertension, and 'white coat effect'. Arterial stiffness and endothelial dysfunction also increase with age. These factors should be considered in selecting antihypertensive therapy. The prime objective of this therapy is to prevent stroke. The findings of controlled trials show that there should be no cut-off age for treatment. A holistic program for controlling cardiovascular risks should be fully discussed with the patient, including evaluation to exclude underlying causes of secondary hypertension, and implementation of lifestyle measures. The choice of antihypertensive drug therapy is influenced by concomitant disease and previous medication history, but will typically include a thiazide diuretic as the first-line agent; to this will be added an angiotensin inhibitor and/or a calcium channel blocker. Beta blockers are not generally recommended, in part because they do not combat the effects of increased arterial stiffness. The hypertension-hypotension syndrome requires case-specific management. Drug-resistant hypertension is important to differentiate from faulty compliance with medication. Patients resistant to third-line drug therapy may benefit from treatment with extended-release isosorbide mononitrate. A trial of spironolactone may also be worthwhile." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0514_3932", "title": "Adult hypertension: reducing cardiovascular morbidity and mortality.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "(1) Since our last review of treatments for arterial hypertension in 1999 (Prescrire International no.41), many new data have been published and new antihypertensive drugs have appeared on the market. (2) The working definition of hypertension is unchanged, namely blood pressure of at least 160/95 mm Hg in the general population, and at least 140/80 mm Hg in patients with diabetes and a history of stroke; these figures must be found on several occasions using a standardised method, with the patient at rest. (3) The goals of antihypertensive therapy are to reduce mortality and cardiovascular events, and not simply to drive blood pressure below a fixed (and often controversial) threshold. (4) Some drug and non drug interventions have a positive risk-benefit balance in the long term. (5) When antihypertensive drug therapy is needed, trials based on clinical endpoints show that it is best to start treatment with a single drug. (6) New data support the use of certain thiazide diuretics (chlortalidone, or hydrochlorothiazide if chlortalidone is not available) as first line treatment for most hypertensive patients, including non diabetic adults, diabetic adults, elderly subjects (over 65 years), and stroke patients. Some betablockers and angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitor) are second-line alternatives. (7) Assessment of other antihypertensive drugs has also progressed since 1999, including indapamide (thiazide-like diuretic), amlodipine, diltiazem and verapamil (calcium channel blockers), lisinopril (ACE inhibitor), and losartan and valsartan (angiotensin II antagonists). However, these drugs are not as thoroughly evaluated as thiazide diuretics, betablockers and some ACE inhibitors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0348_361", "title": "Guidelines for management of hypertension: report of the third working party of the British Hypertension Society.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Use non-pharmacological measures in all hypertensive and borderline hypertensive people. Initiate antihypertensive drug therapy in people with sustained systolic blood pressures (BP) &gt;/=160 mm Hg or sustained diastolic BP &gt;/=100 mm Hg. Decide on treatment in people with sustained systolic BP between 140 and 159 mm Hg or sustained diastolic BP between 90 and 99 mm Hg according to the presence or absence of target organ damage, cardiovascular disease or a 10-year coronary heart disease (CHD) risk of &gt;/=15% according to the Joint British Societies CHD risk assessment programme/risk chart. In people with diabetes mellitus, initiate antihypertensive drug therapy if systolic BP is sustained &gt;/=140 mm Hg or diastolic BP is sustained &gt;/=90 mm Hg. In non-diabetic hypertensive people, optimal BP treatment targets are: systolic BP &lt;140 mm Hg and diastolic BP &lt;85 mm Hg. The minimum acceptable level of control (Audit Standard) recommended is &lt;150/&lt;90 mm Hg. Despite best practice, these levels will be difficult to achieve in some hypertensive people. In diabetic hypertensive people, optimal BP targets are; systolic BP &lt;140 mm Hg and diastolic BP &lt;80 mm Hg. The minimum acceptable level of control (Audit Standard) recommended is &lt;140/&lt;90 mm Hg. Despite best practice, these levels will be difficult to achieve in some people with diabetes and hypertension. In the absence of contraindications or compelling indications for other antihypertensive agents, low dose thiazide diuretics or beta-blockers are preferred as first-line therapy for the majority of hypertensive people. In the absence of compelling indications for beta-blockade, diuretics or long acting dihydropyridine calcium antagonists are preferred to beta-blockers in older subjects. Compelling indications and contraindications for all antihypertensive drug classes are specified. For most hypertensives, a combination of antihypertensive drugs will be required to achieve the recommended targets for blood pressure control. Other drugs that reduce cardiovascular risk must also be considered. These include aspirin for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and primary prevention in treated hypertensive subjects over the age of 50 years who have a 10-year CHD risk &gt;/=15% and in whom blood pressure is controlled to the audit standard. In accordance with existing British recommendations, statin therapy is recommended for hypertensive people with a total cholesterol &gt;/=5 mmol/L and established vascular disease, or 10-year CHD risk &gt;/=30% estimated from the Joint British Societies CHD risk chart. Glycaemic control should also be optimised in diabetic subjects. Specific advice is given on the management of hypertension in specific patient groups, ie, the elderly, ethnic subgroups, diabetes mellitus, chronic renal disease and in women (pregnancy, oral contraceptive use and hormone replacement therapy). Suggestions for the implementation and audit of these guidelines in primary care are provided." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_41797", "title": "Chlortalidone", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Medical use High blood pressure Chlortalidone is considered a first-line medication for treatment high blood pressure. Some recommend chlortalidone over hydrochlorothiazide. A meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials found that chlortalidone is more effective than hydrochlorothiazide for lowering blood pressure, while the two drugs have similar toxicity. Trials of chlortalidone for high blood pressure found that lower doses of chlortalidone (e.g., 12.5 mg daily in ALLHAT study) had maximal blood pressure lowering effect and that higher doses did not lower it more. Chlortalidone, like other thiazides, appears effective in people with kidney disease. Chlortalidone and other thiazide diuretics are effective for lowering high blood pressure in persons with chronic kidney disease, although the risk of adverse effects is higher in these persons." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0613_18107", "title": "Interaction between antihypertensives and NSAIDs in primary care: a controlled trial.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may increase blood pressure (BP) and blunt the effects of many antihypertensives. It seems that NSAIDs and the antihypertensive drugs differ in their propensity to such an interaction. To determine the extent of the interaction between two antihypertensives and three NSAIDs. A prospective clinical trial in a family practice included 88 treated hypertensives aged over 55 years; 39 controls and 49, also taking NSAIDs for osteoarthritis. During this 3-month study, two antihypertensives, lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide and amlodipine, were compared with three NSAIDs: ibuprofen, acetaminophen, and piroxicam. BP was measured with standard mercury sphygmomanometer and with an automatic device, in standing, sitting, and supine position. The average starting blood pressure in the study group was 149.3A+/-9.8/88.6A+/-6.8 mm Hg. In the lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide subgroup, both ibuprofen and piroxicam elevated systolic BP by 7.7-9.9% (p&lt;0.001), which, during the acetaminophen period, decreased by 6.9-9.4% to 0.3-0.9% above baseline (p&lt;0.001), increasing again by 7.0-7.7% (p&lt;0.001) during the second exposition to these drugs. In the amlodipine subgroup, ibuprofen or piroxicam increased BP by 1.1-1.6% (p&gt;0.290) only, and there were no significant shifts in the follow-up periods. Analogous deviations were observed with both measurement devices, in all the examinee's positions. In the control group, BP did not change appreciably. Piroxicam and ibuprofen markedly blunt the effects of antihypertensive drugs while acetaminophen is almost inert. Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide combination is much more affected by this interaction than amlodipine (ClinicalTrials.gov #NCT00631514)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0748_3103", "title": "The older patient with hypertension: care and cure.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Hypertension is one of the most important clinical conditions affecting older people. Its prevalence in this group of subjects is above 60% and continues to grow. Isolated systolic hypertension accounts for the majority of cases as systolic blood pressure increases with advancing age, while diastolic blood pressure remains unchanged or even decreases. Nowadays hypertension is a well established risk factor for stroke and cardiovascular disease among older people and its treatment is considered mandatory. The general recommended blood pressure goal in uncomplicated hypertension is less than 140/90 mmHg, even if this target in older people is based mainly on expert opinion. All patients should receive nonpharmacological treatment, in particular reduction in excess body weight when body mass index is greater than 26 kg/m(2) and dietary salt restriction. Older patients with hypertension may also benefit from smoking cessation, physical activity and alcohol restriction. In relation to drug therapy, a low-dose thiazide diuretic could be a good first step. Other first-line drugs are long-acting calcium channel blockers, generally dihydropyridines, and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers. The HYVET study showed a specific protective effect of indapamide with or without perindopril in people older than 80 years. Since monotherapy normalizes blood pressure in only 40-50% of cases, a combination of two or more drugs is often required. Moreover the addiction of a second drug may reduce the dose-related adverse effects of the first one. Finally, compliance with treatment should always be achieved by giving complete information to patients and simplifying the drug regimen as much as possible." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en107_45777", "title": "Acute proliferative glomerulonephritis", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Treatment Acute management of acute proliferative glomerulonephritis mainly consists of blood pressure (BP) control. A low-sodium diet may be instituted when hypertension is present. In individuals with oliguric acute kidney injury, the potassium level should be controlled. Thiazide or loop diuretics can be used to simultaneously reduce edema and control hypertension; however electrolytes such as potassium must be monitored. Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and/or ACE inhibitors may be added if blood pressure is not effectively controlled through diureses alone. Epidemiology Acute glomerulonephritis resulted in 19,000 deaths in 2013 down from 24,000 deaths in 1990. References Further reading Group A Streptococcal Infections - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases External links Kidney diseases Disorders causing edema" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0695_17772", "title": "Office management of hypertension in older persons.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Antihypertensive drug therapy reduces cardiovascular events in older persons. In the Hypertension in the Very Elderly Trial, at 1.8-year follow-up, patients aged 80 years and older treated with antihypertensive drug therapy had a 30% reduction in fatal or nonfatal stroke (P=.06), a 39% reduction in fatal stroke (P=.05), a 21% reduction in all-cause mortality (P=.02), a 23% reduction in death from cardiovascular causes (P=.06), and a 64% reduction in heart failure (P&lt;.001). The goal of treatment of hypertension is to lower the blood pressure to less than 140/90 mm Hg in older persons and to less than 130/80 mm Hg in older persons with diabetes or chronic kidney disease if tolerated. The selection of antihypertensive drug therapy in persons with associated medical conditions depends on their medical conditions. Large meta-analyses of published trials show that thiazide diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, angiotensin receptor antagonists, and beta-blockers do not significantly differ in their ability to lower blood pressure and to exert cardiovascular protection in older and younger persons. If the blood pressure is more than 20/10 mm Hg above the goal blood pressure, drug therapy should be initiated with 2 antihypertensive drugs. Other coronary risk factors must be treated." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 637, 714 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 98, 112 ] ], "text": "And above all, because of its implications, the first one to always rule out." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 466, 575 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 71, 89 ] ], "text": "taking into account that this is a young male, the most likely option would be bacterial infectious arthritis" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 576, 635 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 89, 98 ] ], "text": "(that caused by mycobacteria usually have a chronic course)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Arthritis due to microcrystals.", "2": "Reactive arthritis.", "3": "Bacterial infectious arthritis.", "4": "Mycobacterial infectious arthritis.", "5": "Rheumatoid arthritis." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1134_16871", "title": "Early diagnosis and treatment of acute brucellosis knee arthritis complicated by acute osteomyelitis: two cases report.", "score": 0.018608274190756446, "content": "Brucellosis is an endemic systemic infectious disease, the most common complication is bone and joint involvement. Sacroiliac joint and spinal joint are the most frequently involved sites in adults, but knee joint infection is rare, and acute infectious knee arthritis complicated by acute osteomyelitis is even extremely uncommon in adults. Here, we report two cases of acute septic knee arthritis complicated by acute osteomyelitis caused by Brucella melitensis (B. melitensis). Both patients had a history of traveling in animal husbandry areas within three months. On clinical examination, their right knee joint was tender, swollen, had limited movement and an effusion was present. Imaging examination showed effusion and synovial thickening of the right knee joint, as well as subchondral bone edema of the distal femur and proximal tibia. Laboratory examination showed that the serum agglutination test (SAT) in both patients were positive (1: 640 and 1: 320) without leukocytosis, although the proportion of lymphocytes, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) significantly increased. Both patients underwent knee joint aspiration. Real-time polymerase chain reaction (Real-time PCR) analysis of synovial fluid showed that there was B. melitensis, and blood bacterial culture was negative. We determined that two patients had acute brucellosis knee arthritis complicated by acute osteomyelitis. Antibiotic treatment was given during hospitalization consisting of doxycycline (0.1 g po bid) and rifampicin (0.6 g po qd) for six weeks, and the changes of inflammatory indexes were closely monitored. At discharge, the symptoms had completely resolved, imaging abnormalities disappeared, and inflammatory indexes returned to normal. There was no recurrence of the disease at 1-year follow-up. Acute brucellosis knee arthritis complicated by acute osteomyelitis is a rare but serious complication of brucellosis in adults. There is no obvious specificity of clinical manifestation and imaging examination. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent the occurrence of knee joint deformity and even pathological fracture. Clinicians should fully consider the possibility of brucellosis where the travel or occupational history is suggestive." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_4643", "title": "[Two cases of pneumococcal septic arthritis complicating rheumatoid arthritis].", "score": 0.01752123786407767, "content": "It is reported that most of the causative organisms of suppurative arthritis complicating rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is Staphylococcus aureus and that Streptococcus pneumoniae is rare, representing less than 5% of cases of suppurative arthritis complicating RA. We here report two cases of pneumococcal septic arthritis complicating RA. Both were female, and 68 and 64 years old, respectively. They had active, long-standing RA with destructed changes. Infected joints included both knees (case 1) and right knee (case 2). Pain and loss of motion in the septic joints were prominent. On admission, the physical examination showed severe redness, swelling and tenderness of the septic joints and the range of motion of those was markedly decreased. The radiograph of affected joints showed stage III. Laboratory data showed markedly elevated ESR of 127 mm/hr (case 1) and 142 mm/hr (case 2) and C-reactive protein of 49.91 mg/dl (case 1) and 30.36 mg/dl (case 2). Aspirate of the left knee of case 1 showed numerous neutrophils. Cultures of the joint fluid grew S. pneumoniae. Grossly purulent material was aspirated from the right knee of case 2 and cultures also grew S. pneumoniae. They were started on intravenous antibiotics with a good response and the function of involved joints returned to preseptic condition. The source of infection on case 1 was presumed to be otitis media because she had discharge from left ear concurrently with the exacerbation of joint symptoms. Case 2 had productive cough and cultures of sputum also disclosed S. pneumoniae when pain of right knee joint developed. The suggested source of infection was upper respiratory tract.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0565_6409", "title": "Does this adult patient have septic arthritis?", "score": 0.01490015360983103, "content": "In patients who present with an acutely painful and swollen joint, prompt identification and treatment of septic arthritis can substantially reduce morbidity and mortality. To review the accuracy and precision of the clinical evaluation for the diagnosis of nongonococcal bacterial arthritis. Structured PubMed and EMBASE searches (1966 through January 2007), limited to human, English-language articles and using the following Medical Subject Headings terms: arthritis, infectious, physical examination, medical history taking, diagnostic tests, and sensitivity and specificity. Studies were included if they contained original data on the accuracy or precision of historical items, physical examination, serum, or synovial fluid laboratory data for diagnosing septic arthritis. Three authors independently abstracted data from the included studies. Fourteen studies involving 6242 patients, of whom 653 met the gold standard for the diagnosis of septic arthritis, satisfied all inclusion criteria. Two studies examined risk factors and found that age, diabetes mellitus, rheumatoid arthritis, joint surgery, hip or knee prosthesis, skin infection, and human immunodeficiency virus type 1 infection significantly increase the probability of septic arthritis. Joint pain (sensitivity, 85%; 95% confidence interval [CI], 78%-90%), a history of joint swelling (sensitivity, 78%; 95% CI, 71%-85%), and fever (sensitivity, 57%; 95% CI, 52%-62%) are the only findings that occur in more than 50% of patients. Sweats (sensitivity, 27%; 95% CI, 20%-34%) and rigors (sensitivity, 19%; 95% CI, 15%-24%) are less common findings in septic arthritis. Of all laboratory findings readily available to the clinician, the 2 most powerful were the synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) count and percentage of polymorphonuclear cells from arthrocentesis. The summary likelihood ratio (LR) increased as the synovial fluid WBC count increased (for counts &lt;25,000/microL: LR, 0.32; 95% CI, 0.23-0.43; for counts &gt; or =25,000/microL: LR, 2.9; 95% CI, 2.5-3.4; for counts &gt;50,000/microL: LR, 7.7; 95% CI, 5.7-11.0; and for counts &gt;100,000/microL: LR, 28.0; 95% CI, 12.0-66.0). On the same synovial fluid sample, a polymorphonuclear cell count of at least 90% suggests septic arthritis with an LR of 3.4 (95% CI, 2.8-4.2), while a polymorphonuclear cell count of less than 90% lowers the likelihood (LR, 0.34; 95% CI, 0.25-0.47). Clinical findings identify patients with peripheral, monoarticular arthritis who might have septic arthritis. However, the synovial WBC and percentage of polymorphonuclear cells from arthrocentesis are required to assess the likelihood of septic arthritis before the Gram stain and culture test results are known." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1115_611", "title": "Septic Arthritis: Diagnosis and Treatment.", "score": 0.014525691699604742, "content": "Septic arthritis must be considered and promptly diagnosed in any patient presenting with acute atraumatic joint pain, swelling, and fever. Risk factors for septic arthritis include age older than 80 years, diabetes mellitus, rheumatoid arthritis, recent joint surgery, hip or knee prosthesis, skin infection, and immunosuppressive medication use. A delay in diagnosis and treatment can result in permanent morbidity and mortality. Physical examination findings and serum markers, including erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein, are helpful in the diagnosis but are nonspecific. Synovial fluid studies are required to confirm the diagnosis. History and Gram stain aid in determining initial antibiotic selection. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common pathogen isolated in septic arthritis; however, other bacteria, viruses, fungi, and mycobacterium can cause the disease. After synovial fluid has been obtained, empiric antibiotic therapy should be initiated if there is clinical concern for septic arthritis. Oral antibiotics can be given in most cases because they are not inferior to intravenous therapy. Total duration of therapy ranges from two to six weeks; however, certain infections require longer courses. Consideration for microorganisms such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Borrelia burgdorferi, and fungal infections should be based on history findings and laboratory results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1067_16321", "title": "Arthritis associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae in a pediatric patient: A case report.", "score": 0.014437302316090195, "content": "Mycoplasma pneumoniae (MP) infection in infants is usually overlooked and it might result in important complications if left untreated. MP-induced arthritis is probably the least common extrapulmonary manifestation and frequently leads to delays in the diagnosis. We report the case of a 2-year-old female child admitted in our clinic for prolonged fever (onset 2 weeks before the admission), for which the general practitioner established the diagnosis of acute pharyngitis and recommended antibiotics. But the fever persisted and the patient was referred to a pediatrician. The laboratory tests revealed leukocytosis with neutrophilia, elevated C-reactive protein and liver cytolysis. The blood and urine cultures, as well as the serological hepatitis B and C, toxoplasmosis, Epstein Barr virus, Rubella, Herpes virus, and cytomegalovirus were negative. The chest X-ray established the diagnosis of pneumonia. The fever persisted for approximately 2 weeks after admission. On the 2nd week of admission, the patient began to experience gait difficulties complaining of pain in the right hip and ankle. The cardiology and pneumology consults revealed no pathological findings. The evolution was favorable after the initiation of Levofloxacin and MP infection was detected as we suspected. Moreover, the ultrasound of the hip revealed a mild joint effusion, while the ankle joint appeared to be normal at ultrasound. Thus, we established the diagnosis of hip and ankle arthritis based on the clinical and ultrasound findings. Levofloxacin by vein was continued for 5 days, replaced afterwards with clarithromycin orally for 2 weeks. The gait difficulties persisted for approximately 5 months from the initial diagnosis, and improved once the titer of immunoglobulin M anti-MP antibodies lowered considerably. After more than 8 months, the patient was completely asymptomatic and the immunoglobulin M anti-MP was close to the normal range. The awareness of MP-induced arthritis in children represents the cornerstone in preventing diagnostic delays and initiating the proper treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0306_14091", "title": "Monarthritis: differential diagnosis.", "score": 0.014348447712418302, "content": "Acute monarthritis should be regarded as infectious until proved otherwise. Early evaluation is crucial because of the capacity of some infectious agents to destroy cartilage rapidly. The history and physical examination can provide highly suggestive clues, but a definitive diagnosis may depend on arthrocentesis and analysis of synovial fluid. The diagnosis of acute monarthritis is rarely established by radiography. The most common cause of bacterial arthritis is Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Staphylococcus aureus and streptococci are the organisms most frequently implicated in nongonococcal bacterial arthritis, although the possibility of Gram-negative bacteria or anaerobes should not be overlooked in intravenous drug users or immunocompromised patients. Inflammation in a large joint, particularly the knee, might arouse suspicion of Lyme disease. Other, less frequently encountered infectious causes of acute monarthritis include tuberculosis and other mycobacteria, fungi, and viruses. Arthroscopic examination and synovial tissue biopsy may be necessary to diagnose such processes. Microscopic examination of the synovial fluid may reveal a crystalline etiology for monarthritis. Monosodium urate crystals induce gout, usually in the toe, ankle, or midfoot, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals cause pseudogout, most often in the knee or wrist. Acute monarthritis is sometimes a manifestation of osteoarthritis or an early sign of a systemic arthritis such as rheumatoid or reactive arthritis. Processes underlying acute monarthritis can also evolve into a more chronic clinical picture as exemplified by the spondyloarthropathies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0859_8258", "title": "A case of reactive arthritis due to Clostridium difficile colitis.", "score": 0.014030131826741996, "content": "Reactive arthritis is an acute, aseptic, inflammatory arthropathy following an infectious process but removed from the site of primary infection. It is often attributed to genitourinary and enteric pathogens, such as Chlamydia, Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, and Yersinia, in susceptible individuals. An uncommon and less recognized cause of this disease is preceding colonic infection with Clostridium difficile, an organism associated with pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea in hospitalized patients and those recently exposed to antibiotics. Recognition of this association may be complicated by non-specific presentation of diarrhea, the interval between gastrointestinal and arthritic symptoms, and the wide differential in mono- and oligoarthritis. We present the case of a 61-year-old, hospitalized patient recently treated for C. difficile colitis who developed sudden, non-traumatic, right knee pain and swelling. Physical examination and radiographs disclosed joint effusion, and sterile aspiration produced cloudy fluid with predominant neutrophils and no growth on cultures. Diagnostic accuracy is enhanced by contemporaneous laboratory investigations excluding other entities such as gout and rheumatoid arthritis and other infections that typically precede reactive arthritis. Contribution of Clostridium infection to reactive arthritis is an obscure association frequently difficult to prove, but this organism is warranted inclusion in the differential of reactive arthritis. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_65350", "title": "Tietze syndrome", "score": 0.013707909942219567, "content": "The true etiology of Tietze syndrome has not been established, though several theories have been proposed. One popular theory is based on observations that many patients begin developing symptoms following a respiratory infection and dry cough, with one study finding 51 out of 65 patients contracted Tietze syndrome after either a cough or respiratory infection. Thus, it has been hypothesized that the repetitive mild trauma of a severe cough from a respiratory infection may produce small tears in the ligament called microtrauma, causing Tietze syndrome. However, this theory is disputed as it does not account for symptoms such as the onset of attacks while at rest as well as the fact that swelling sometimes develops before a cough. The respiratory infection has also been observed accompanying rheumatoid arthritis which, coupled with leukocytosis, neutrophilia, c-reactive protein (CRP), and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), suggest an infectious and rheumatoid factor, though" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en120_21107", "title": "Knee effusion", "score": 0.013680425265791121, "content": "MRI Magnetic Resonance Imaging detects abnormalities of the bone or knee joint, such as a tear in the ligaments, tendons or cartilage. Blood tests If the knee is swollen and red and warm to the touch when compared to the other knee, a doctor may be concerned about inflammation due to rheumatoid arthritis or a crystalline arthritis, such as gout or pseudogout, or joint infection. Besides sending the joint fluid to a laboratory for analysis, blood tests may requested to determine a white blood cell count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and perhaps the level of C-reactive protein or uric acid. If blood tests reveal Lyme disease antibodies forming, the condition may be attributed to it. Treatment Treatment of fluid in the knee depends on the underlying cause of the swelling. General measures such as rest, ice, and analgesics such as acetaminophen (paracetamol) and NSAIDS are often recommended. Chymotrypsin, trypsin and Diclofenac are also recommended. References" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0116_8841", "title": "Clinical signs and laboratory tests in the differential diagnosis of arthritis in children.", "score": 0.013259259259259259, "content": "To develop a scheme for primary diagnosis, we analyzed the clinical findings and laboratory test results in 278 children with arthritis by using univariate analysis and multivariate logistic regression analysis. An elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) value, a temperature above 38.5 degrees C, and a high white blood cell count were independent predictors for the diagnosis of septic joint infection in patients with acute monoarthritis. The presence of either of the first two signs had a sensitivity of 100% and a specificity of 87% for septic arthritis. Sixty-seven percent of all patients with arthritis were cured within two weeks from the onset of joint symptoms. In patients whose disease duration exceeded two weeks, a low CRP value, the absence of fever, and an elevated IgG value were independent predictors for the diagnosis of juvenile arthritis. Antinuclear antibodies had a specificity of 100% and a sensitivity of 25% for juvenile arthritis or other connective tissue diseases. We recommend that laboratory tests indicated for all children with joint symptoms include determinations of the erythrocyte sedimentation rate and the CRP value, both total and differential leukocyte counts, urinalysis, and a bacterial culture of a throat smear. When arthritis is prolonged or when enteroarthritis is suspected, tests for antinuclear antibodies and serum immunoglobulins, serologic tests for Yersinia and Salmonella, and stool bacterial cultures should be included." }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_2484", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.012915714648387916, "content": "Minor genital tract symptoms that have been ignored may precede development of the early arthritis-dermatitis syndrome associated with disseminated gonococcal infection. A history of febrile illness antedating the development of monarticular arthritis characterizes late gonococcal arthritis. Reactive arthritis is typically symmetric, polyarticular, and usually involves the large joints, especially the hips. Patients may have had a preceding episode of gastroenteritis or urethritis. Urethritis may appear with the arthritis. Leukocytosis and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are common. Arthrocentesis is important to distinguish among the causes of arthritis (Table 118-2). Adolescents with acute infectious arthritis should have urethral, cervical, rectal, and pharyngeal examinations and cultures or nucleic acid amplification tests performed for Neisseria gonorrhoeae." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en120_28434", "title": "Transient synovitis", "score": 0.012755807522123894, "content": "Diagnosis There are no set standards for the diagnosis of suspected transient synovitis, so the amount of investigations will depend on the need to exclude other, more serious diseases. It is of great importance to exclude the diagnosis of septic arthritis. This is because if septic arthritis is missed in children, grave complications can occur. The exclusion of septic arthritis is mainly built upon the physician's clinical expertise and is supplemented by basic laboratory test and relevant imaging modalities. Additionally, beware to exclude the diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis, because it not uncommonly cooccurs with septic arthritis of the hip in children. Inflammatory parameters in the blood may be slightly raised (these include erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein and white blood cell count), but raised inflammatory markers are strong predictors of other more serious conditions such as septic arthritis." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_25966", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012701936120360094, "content": "In the course of a musculoskeletal evaluation, the examiner should determinethenatureoftheunderlyingpathologicprocessandwhether inflammatory or noninflammatory findings exist. Inflammatory disorders may be infectious (Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Mycobacterium tuberculosis), crystal-induced (gout, pseudogout), immune-related (rheumatoidarthritis[RA],systemiclupuserythematosus[SLE]),reactive (rheumatic fever, reactive arthritis), or idiopathic. Inflammatory disorders may be identified by any of the four cardinal signs of inflammation (erythema, warmth, pain, or swelling), systemic symptoms (fatigue, fever, rash, weight loss), or laboratory evidence of inflammation (elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate [ESR] or C-reactive protein [CRP], thrombocytosis, anemia of chronic disease, or hypoalbuminemia). Articular stiffness commonly accompanies chronic musculoskeletaldisorders. Thedurationofstiffnessmaybeprolonged (hours) with inflammatory disorders (such as RA or polymyalgia rheumatica) and" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en067_58319", "title": "Reactive arthritis", "score": 0.01238191632928475, "content": "Reactive arthritis usually manifests about 1–3 weeks after a known infection. The mechanism of interaction between the infecting organism and the host is unknown. Synovial fluid cultures are negative, suggesting that reactive arthritis is caused either by an autoimmune response involving cross-reactivity of bacterial antigens with joint tissues or by bacterial antigens that have somehow become deposited in the joints. Diagnosis There are few clinical symptoms, but the clinical picture is dominated by arthritis in one or more joints, resulting in pain, swelling, redness, and heat sensation in the affected areas. The urethra, cervix and the throat may be swabbed in an attempt to culture the causative organisms. Cultures may also be carried out on urine and stool samples or on fluid obtained by arthrocentesis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0018_1366", "title": "[Yersinia arthritis (author's transl)].", "score": 0.012364713706995586, "content": "Clinical picture and differential diagnosis of Yersinia arthritis are shown by means of three own observations. It is an acute oligoarthritis affecting especially knee- and ankle-joints. The involved joints are very painful, swollen and warm. There may be a history of enteritis or suspicion of acute appendicitis because of lower abdominal pain, but this is not obligatory. The laboratory parameters of inflammation (ESR, C-reactive protein, white blood count, serumproteinelectrophoresis) are changed significantly. Diagnosis is made by serum agglutination reaction (Widal-reaction) against ceesurface antigens (O-antigens) of Yersinia enterocolitica. Almost only people with the HL-A antigen B27 tend to get arthritis during Yersinia infection. The differential diagnosis has to consider reactive arthritis during Salmonella or Shigella infections, acute sarcoidosis, Reiter's disease and rheumatoid arthritis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0534_18497", "title": "Fever of unknown origin caused by late-onset rheumatoid arthritis.", "score": 0.012297226582940869, "content": "Fever of unknown origin (FUO) is always a diagnostic challenge. The causes of FUO are legion and may be due to malignancy, infection, collagen vascular disease, and a variety of other unusual disorders. Currently, malignancies-followed by infectious etiologies-are the most common cause of FUO. We present an elderly female patient with an FUO who was thought to have subacute bacterial endocarditis because of an antecedent history of recent dental work. Subacute bacterial endocarditis was ruled out on the basis of negative cultures and negative transesophageal echocardiography. No evidence for an infectious disease or neoplastic etiology could be demonstrated in this patient. The diagnosis of FUO is most difficult when there is a paucity of clues from the history and physical examination, as was the case in this patient. Nonspecific laboratory tests included highly increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (&gt;or=100 mm/h), highly increased C-reactive protein, relative lymphocytopenia, and chronic thrombocytosis. These findings are compatible with a variety of infectious and inflammatory disorders. No evidence could be found for vasculitis. The only laboratory diagnostic findings present in her case were a highly increased rheumatoid factor titer and perinuclear antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody level. Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arteritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and adult Still's disease were ruled out. The patient's FUO was best explained by the finding of late-onset rheumatoid arthritis (LORA), which is characterized by acute onset in elderly patients without the usual musculoskeletal manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis. Both the highly increased rheumatoid factor titer and perinuclear antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody level in the absence of an alternate explanation indicate that the FUO in this patient was caused by LORA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0294_22946", "title": "Poststreptococcal reactive arthritis: report of one case.", "score": 0.012121657361151925, "content": "Poststreptococcal reactive arthritis (PSRA) is a clinical syndrome of reactive arthritis. It is associated with recent streptococcal infections, but could not fulfill the revised Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever (ARF). The incidence of PSRA cardiac complications to develop was as high as the ARF's developing into rheumatic heart disease. A 9-year-old boy presented with limping gait. He had pain in his left knee for 4 days but no fever. His right knee was swelling with a limitation of movement. A throat culture showed positive growth for group A streptococcus, and consequently antistreptolysin-O serum titer and C-reactive protein were elevated. A synovial fluid examination was turbid but sterile. After 3 days the arthralgia subsided rapidly. A cardiac color Doppler and electrocardiogram showed no evidence of valvular disease. Under the threat of high incidence of rheumatic heart disease in PSRA, we treated this patient with prophylactic antibiotics as acute rheumatic fever. A clinic follow up one year later showed neither sequels nor heart murmur on physical examination." }, { "id": "article-17857_14", "title": "Septic Arthritis -- Evaluation -- Laboratory Studies", "score": 0.012103174603174602, "content": "The most useful diagnostic laboratory test for identifying septic arthritis is an evaluation of the synovial fluid from the affected joint (culture, Gram stain, crystals analysis, white blood cell count with differential). Synovial fluid with a white blood cell (WBC) count greater than 50,000 and 90% neutrophil predominance suggests a bacterial source. [5] Identification of a bacterial organism in the synovial fluid confirms the diagnosis. Other useful laboratory tests include a complete blood count, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein (CRP), and blood cultures. The peripheral blood WBC count is typically elevated with a left shift. An elevated ESR and CRP support the diagnosis but are not definitive. A low synovial fluid WBC count may occur in peripheral leukopenia, early infection, disseminated gonococcal arthritis, and the presence of joint prosthesis. [3] [4] [5] [6]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0623_5263", "title": "Acute pediatric monoarticular arthritis: distinguishing lyme arthritis from other etiologies.", "score": 0.012092758571631812, "content": "Identify clinical predictors of Lyme arthritis among patients with acute monoarticular arthritis. A medical chart review was conducted of children &lt;/=18 years of age with monoarticular arthritis who underwent arthrocentesis in a pediatric emergency department located in the northeast United States. Patients were classified into 3 categories of arthritis: septic, Lyme, or nonseptic non-Lyme arthritis. Historical, clinical, and laboratory data were compared to identify distinguishing features of Lyme arthritis. One hundred seventy-nine patients were studied: 46 (26%) patients with septic arthritis, 55 (31%) patients with Lyme arthritis, and 78 (43%) patients with nonseptic non-Lyme arthritis. Compared with those with septic arthritis, patients with Lyme disease were more likely to have a tick-bite history, knee involvement, and less likely to have a history of fever or elevated temperature at triage. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein, joint white blood cell count, and joint neutrophil percentage were also statistically lower. In comparison to nonseptic non-Lyme arthritis, knee involvement and tick-bite history were predictors of Lyme. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate, joint white blood cell count, and joint neutrophil percentage were also statistically different. Multivariate analysis comparing Lyme to septic arthritis demonstrated fever history and elevated C-reactive protein level to be negative predictors of Lyme arthritis and knee involvement to be a positive predictor (model sensitivity: 88%; specificity: 82%). Lyme arthritis shares features with both septic and nonseptic non-Lyme arthritis. This overlap prevents the creation of a clinically useful predictive model for Lyme arthritis. In endemic areas, Lyme testing should be performed on all patients presenting with acute monoarticular arthritis." }, { "id": "article-23916_20", "title": "Knee Effusion -- Evaluation -- Blood Work", "score": 0.012044445701037632, "content": "Infectious processes: Lyme disease (especially in the pediatric population with atraumatic unilateral knee effusion) [11] Antistreptolysin-O for post-streptococcal infection [12] Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) for syphilis Elevated WBC in a complete blood count (CBC) for osteomyelitis, inflammation, malignancy Inflammatory markers, including C-reactive protein and sedimentation rate ANA for possible autoimmune disorders Urine studies check for urinary tract infections and sexually transmitted diseases, including gonorrhea, chlamydia, and trichomonas, which can cause reactive arthritis. Polymerase chain reaction tests of affected mucosal sites for gonorrhea and chlamydia should also be considered. Stool cultures can detect salmonella, yersinia, campylobacter, and shigella, which can all cause reactive arthritis. [13]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_65351", "title": "Tietze syndrome", "score": 0.011970466308533862, "content": "rheumatoid arthritis which, coupled with leukocytosis, neutrophilia, c-reactive protein (CRP), and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), suggest an infectious and rheumatoid factor, though the evidence is conflicting. Many theories such as malnutrition, chest trauma, and tuberculosis, were thought to be among the potential causes but have since been disproven or unsupported." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en119_40665", "title": "Palindromic rheumatism", "score": 0.011540654578629262, "content": "No single test can confirm a diagnosis. A doctor may make a diagnosis based on medical history and signs and symptoms. Palindromic rheumatism must be distinguished from acute gouty arthritis and an atypical, acute onset of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Without specific tests (such as analysis of joint fluid), it may be difficult to distinguish palindromic rheumatism from other episodic joint problems. It is important to note that a person may experience more than one autoimmune disorder at the same time, as overlap syndrome. Laboratory findings are usually normal. Blood tests may show an elevation of the ESR and CRP, but are otherwise unremarkable. Rheumatoid factor may be present especially in the group that is likely to develop rheumatoid arthritis." }, { "id": "Pediatrics_Nelson_4147", "title": "Pediatrics_Nelson", "score": 0.0112151964610981, "content": "The mean age at onset is 6 years, with a range of 3 to 8 years. It is twice as common in male children. The patient or family will describe an acute onset of pain in the groin/hip, anterior thigh, or knee. Irritation of the obturator nerve can cause referred pain in the thigh and knee when the pathology is at the hip. Patients with transient synovitis are often afebrile, walk with a painful limp, and have normal to minimally elevated white blood cell count, C-reactive protein, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate compared with bacterial diseases of the hip (Table 199-1). Table 197-3 lists the differential diagnosis of a limping child. Anteroposterior and frog-leg radiographs of the hip are usually normal. Ultrasonography may reveal a joint effusion. It is mandatory to rule out septic arthritis in the presence of effusion with a joint aspiration and cell count." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_60810", "title": "Septic arthritis", "score": 0.01117072389493914, "content": "In children septic arthritis usually affects the larger joints like the hips, knees and shoulders. The early signs and symptoms of septic arthritis in children and adolescence can be nonspecific and may be confused with childhood limb trauma. A child with septic arthritis may suffer from a painful limb that gradually worsens until the child is unable to weight bear. This is usually associated with marked local tenderness over the affected joint line and greatly decreased range of motion on the joint. Local swelling and redness are known signs but are usually difficult to detect in deep joints like the hip. Kocher criteria have been suggested to predict the diagnosis of septic arthritis in children. Clinical examination of neonates and infants with septic arthritis is particularly difficult because there are usually few or no objective signs to rely upon. Needless to say history taking is not fully reliable and fever is not a constant sign in such an age group. Acute phase reactants" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0703_69", "title": "Evidence-based diagnostics: adult septic arthritis.", "score": 0.01103988603988604, "content": "Acutely swollen or painful joints are common complaints in the emergency department (ED). Septic arthritis in adults is a challenging diagnosis, but prompt differentiation of a bacterial etiology is crucial to minimize morbidity and mortality. The objective was to perform a systematic review describing the diagnostic characteristics of history, physical examination, and bedside laboratory tests for nongonococcal septic arthritis. A secondary objective was to quantify test and treatment thresholds using derived estimates of sensitivity and specificity, as well as best-evidence diagnostic and treatment risks and anticipated benefits from appropriate therapy. Two electronic search engines (PUBMED and EMBASE) were used in conjunction with a selected bibliography and scientific abstract hand search. Inclusion criteria included adult trials of patients presenting with monoarticular complaints if they reported sufficient detail to reconstruct partial or complete 2 × 2 contingency tables for experimental diagnostic test characteristics using an acceptable criterion standard. Evidence was rated by two investigators using the Quality Assessment Tool for Diagnostic Accuracy Studies (QUADAS). When more than one similarly designed trial existed for a diagnostic test, meta-analysis was conducted using a random effects model. Interval likelihood ratios (LRs) were computed when possible. To illustrate one method to quantify theoretical points in the probability of disease whereby clinicians might cease testing altogether and either withhold treatment (test threshold) or initiate definitive therapy in lieu of further diagnostics (treatment threshold), an interactive spreadsheet was designed and sample calculations were provided based on research estimates of diagnostic accuracy, diagnostic risk, and therapeutic risk/benefits. The prevalence of nongonococcal septic arthritis in ED patients with a single acutely painful joint is approximately 27% (95% confidence interval [CI] = 17% to 38%). With the exception of joint surgery (positive likelihood ratio [+LR] = 6.9) or skin infection overlying a prosthetic joint (+LR = 15.0), history, physical examination, and serum tests do not significantly alter posttest probability. Serum inflammatory markers such as white blood cell (WBC) counts, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and C-reactive protein (CRP) are not useful acutely. The interval LR for synovial white blood cell (sWBC) counts of 0 × 10(9)-25 × 10(9)/L was 0.33; for 25 × 10(9)-50 × 10(9)/L, 1.06; for 50 × 10(9)-100 × 10(9)/L, 3.59; and exceeding 100 × 10(9)/L, infinity. Synovial lactate may be useful to rule in or rule out the diagnosis of septic arthritis with a +LR ranging from 2.4 to infinity, and negative likelihood ratio (-LR) ranging from 0 to 0.46. Rapid polymerase chain reaction (PCR) of synovial fluid may identify the causative organism within 3 hours. Based on 56% sensitivity and 90% specificity for sWBC counts of &gt;50 × 10(9)/L in conjunction with best-evidence estimates for diagnosis-related risk and treatment-related risk/benefit, the arthrocentesis test threshold is 5%, with a treatment threshold of 39%. Recent joint surgery or cellulitis overlying a prosthetic hip or knee were the only findings on history or physical examination that significantly alter the probability of nongonococcal septic arthritis. Extreme values of sWBC (&gt;50 × 10(9)/L) can increase, but not decrease, the probability of septic arthritis. Future ED-based diagnostic trials are needed to evaluate the role of clinical gestalt and the efficacy of nontraditional synovial markers such as lactate." }, { "id": "article-23916_18", "title": "Knee Effusion -- Evaluation -- Inflammatory Synovial Fluid", "score": 0.010955846922472166, "content": "Greater 50,000 leukocytes/mL; Although other diseases, including trauma, may produce WBC cells in joint fluid, levels greater than 50,000/mm3 are usually due to infectious arthritis. Usually causes most intense synovial fluid leukocytosis, w/ 50,000 to 200,000 cells/mL and usually over 90% PMNs. Lower leukocyte counts are more common early in bacterial arthritis and in patients with disseminated gonococcal infection. Non-infectious conditions such as gout, pseudogout, acute rheumatic fever, reactive arthritis, and RA can cause a markedly inflammatory synovial effusion. A finding of greater than 90% PMNs despite a relatively low total leukocyte count should prompt concern about infection or crystal-induced disease. However, the presence of crystals cannot exclude septic arthritis with certainty [10]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en039_8558", "title": "Monoarthritis", "score": 0.010880615469157851, "content": "Psoriatic arthritis Occurs in 5-10% of patients who have psoriasis. Classic presentation involves the DIP(distal interphalangeal joints). Morning stiffness is present. Deformity of involved joints, dactylitis and nail involvement are common. Well demarcated red plaques with silvery scaling - the classic lesions of psoriasis are seen on the dorsum of the hand. Diagnosis When faced with monoarthritis, one of the main decisions to make is whether to perform a joint aspirate by inserting a needle into the affected joint and removing some fluid for microscopic analysis. This decision is largely taken on inflammatory markers in blood tests (e.g. CRP), fever and the clinical picture. The main use of aspiration is to detect bacteria and neutrophil granulocytes (in septic arthritis) and crystals (crystal arthropathies). Treatment See also Gout Pseudogout Septic arthritis Osteoarthritis References External links Arthritis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1108_21524", "title": "Septic Arthritis Masquerading as a Flare of Rheumatoid Arthritis: A Not So Straightforward Diagnosis.", "score": 0.010655286343612336, "content": "A typical presentation of septic arthritis (SA) includes pain, swelling, and erythema in the affected joint. Often, patients complain of inability to bear weight on the affected limb. However, some patients may present with subtle symptoms of pain and no fever or obvious swelling of the affected limb thus making the initial suspicion of SA low. Especially, patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) may present with polyarticular joint pain and initial synovial fluid analysis from an infected joint not consistent with overt septic arthritis. In such situations, the diagnosis of septic arthritis could be missed on delayed. In this case report, we present a 79-year-old female with a history of RA who presents with polyarticular pain, most notably in her right knee. SA was not initially suspected because of her history of RA and her current presentation with polyarticular pain. The initial synovial analysis did not suggest SA as well. However, cultures of synovial fluid from her right knee confirmed SA. Thus, we have highlighted that physicians should have a high suspicion for SA when addressing joint pain in RA patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_89034", "title": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "score": 0.010605216745567622, "content": "Involvement of 1–3 small joints (with or without involvement of large joints) gives 2 points Involvement of 4–10 small joints (with or without involvement of large joints) gives 3 points Involvement of more than 10 joints (with involvement of at least 1 small joint) gives 5 points serological parameters – including the rheumatoid factor as well as ACPA – \"ACPA\" stands for \"anti-citrullinated protein antibody\": Negative RF and negative ACPA gives 0 points Low-positive RF or low-positive ACPA gives 2 points High-positive RF or high-positive ACPA gives 3 points acute phase reactants: 1 point for elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, ESR, or elevated CRP value (c-reactive protein) duration of arthritis: 1 point for symptoms lasting six weeks or longer" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_89031", "title": "Rheumatoid arthritis", "score": 0.010473754719279017, "content": "The by far most common clinical test for ACPAs is the anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti CCP) ELISA. In 2008 a serological point-of-care test for the early detection of RA combined the detection of RF and anti-MCV with a sensitivity of 72% and specificity of 99.7%. Other blood tests are usually done to differentiate from other causes of arthritis, like the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein, full blood count, kidney function, liver enzymes and other immunological tests (e.g., antinuclear antibody/ANA) are all performed at this stage. Elevated ferritin levels can reveal hemochromatosis, a mimic of RA, or be a sign of Still's disease, a seronegative, usually juvenile, variant of rheumatoid arthritis. Classification criteria In 2010, the 2010 ACR / EULAR Rheumatoid Arthritis Classification Criteria were introduced." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1090_4703", "title": "A case report on non-specific synovitis of the knee due to septic foreign body in the Hoffa fat pad causing diagnostic dilemma.", "score": 0.010380163534034193, "content": "Recurrent chronic synovitis due to foreign body is a rare entity and it may progress into chronic septic arthritis. Chronic recurrent synovitis or septic arthritis may leave permanent damage to the articular cartilage and renders the child with permanent disabilities. A 03-year-old girl has been transferred to a tertiary centre with a history of recurrent pain and swelling of the right knee and on and off limping for six weeks duration. These symptoms were preceded by a history of prick injury to the ipsilateral knee. The knee was warm to the touch, moderately tender and contains effusion. C-Reactive peptide level series were elevated, Erythrocyte sedimentation rate was 83 mm/1 st hour and White cell count was 10,300/mm3. The ultrasonography revealed suprapatellar bursitis, other investigations such as Antinuclear antibody levels, Rheumatoid factor and Bacterial culture of the aspirate were negative. Arthrotomy and synovectomy performed. While performing synovectomy, an organic thorn has been retrieved from the Hoffa fat pad. The child was treated with intravenous antibiotics for ten days (Co-amoxiclav) and discharged. Her recovery was uneventful and in six weeks she has shown marked improvement of the knee function. Histological examination revealed non-specific chronic synovitis. Chronic synovitis due to foreign body mimicking septic arthritis or causing diagnostic difficulty is a rare entity in the paediatric population. Careful clinical evaluation after creating a good rapport with the child is of utmost importance." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en004_55548", "title": "Scarlet fever", "score": 0.00998408084163898, "content": "Poststreptococcal reactive arthritis: The presentation of arthritis after a recent episode of group A streptococcal pharyngitis raises suspicion for acute rheumatic fever, since it is one of the Jones criteria for that separate complication. But, when the arthritis is an isolated symptom, it is referred to as poststreptococcal reactive arthritis. This arthritis can involve a variety of joints throughout the body, unlike the arthritis of acute rheumatic fever, which primarily affects larger joints such as the knee joints. It can present less than 10 days after the group A streptococcal pharyngitis." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 210, 353 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 48 ] ], "text": "All these data are suggestive of visceral Leishmaniasis, so an OM biopsy should be performed to look for amastigotes and confirm the diagnosis." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "I would perform a bone marrow biopsy, since the most probable diagnosis is visceral leishmaniasis.", "2": "Pancytopenia is justified by C virus-associated cirrhosis and I would not perform further testing.", "3": "Probably a medullary toxicity due to prednisone that would be treated with drug withdrawal and filgastrim.", "4": "I would request an ANAs determination to rule out disseminated systemic lupus.", "5": "I would intensify antiretroviral therapy, as it is likely that all manifestations are due to HIV." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "Pharmacology_Katzung_5336", "title": "Pharmacology_Katzung", "score": 0.015720418404982162, "content": "Sharon Safrin, MD A 35-year-old white woman who recently tested seropositive for both HIV and hepatitis B virus surface antigen is referred for evaluation. She is feeling well overall but reports a 25-pack-year smoking history. She drinks 3–4 beers per week and has no known medication allergies. She has a history of heroin use and is currently receiving methadone. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs and no abnormalities. White blood cell count is 5800 cells/mm3 with a normal differential, hemoglobin is 11.8 g/dL, all liver tests are within normal limits, CD4 cell count is 278 cells/mm3, and viral load (HIV RNA) is 110,000 copies/mL. What other laboratory tests should be ordered? Which antiretroviral medica-tions would you begin?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en243_17832", "title": "Gero Hütter", "score": 0.014228255404725994, "content": "to express wildtype CCR5 (because they hadn't been replaced yet from bone marrow precursors), also had no detectable virus. After 600 days without antiretroviral drug treatment, the patient's blood, bone marrow and bowel HIV levels were below the limit of detection; the virus was thought to be present in other tissues. However, the patient actually had a brain biopsy, in addition to biopsies of his intestines, liver, lymph nodes, bone marrow—basically, every part of the body that can be biopsied. All were negative for virus. There is no virus in this person's body out to two and a half years off of all anti-HIV drugs. His antibody levels—called titers—are declining just the way expected if the patient was vaccinated against HIV and then the levels of antibodies were examined. They'd be very strong in the beginning, but would weaken if they are not re-exposed to the virus. It is believed this patient has no HIV in his body and therefore there is nothing to re-expose him, so the" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0811_21553", "title": "Haemophagocytic syndrome and elevated EBV load as initial manifestation of Hodgkin lymphoma in a HIV patient: case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.013292589763177997, "content": "In HIV patients, haemophagocytic syndrome (HPS) may occur in the presence of cancer, concomitant viral infection, HIV primo-infection or at the initiation of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). Hodgkin lymphoma remains a rare cause of HPS. We describe a case of HPS with very high Epstein Barr virus (EBV) load in a HIV patient as initial manifestation of Hodgkin lymphoma. A 29-year-old HIV positive man, successfully treated with HAART with an undetectable viral load and CD4 cells count of 438/µl, was admitted for high fever of unknown origin. Laboratory results showed a pancytopenia with haemoglobin at 82 g/l, lymphocyte count at 0.36G/l and platelets count at 47G/l; a highly elevated ferritine &gt;7500 µg/l; increased lactate dehydrogenase at 885U/l and soluble IL2 receptor (CD25) &gt;60 ng/ml. EBV load was measured and confirmed at 2,600,000 copies/ml. A PET-CT imaging showed diffuse elevated metabolic activity in the bone marrow and in two lesions in the spleen without lymphadenopathy. Bone marrow and liver biopsies revealed images of haemophagocytosis and lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin lymphoma. Treatment consisted in etoposid, steroids, and R-ABVD (rituximab, doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, dacarbazine) chemotherapy. The patient completed six cycles of chemotherapy. We reviewed the literature in PubMed with the following keywords: HPS, HIV, EBV, Hodgkin lymphoma. We identified four publications and two reviews reporting cases of HPS associated with Hodgkin lymphoma in HIV patients with either a positive EBV load either the presence of encoded EBV RNA in tumour cells. Twenty-two cases (including one pediatric case) were described. Among adults, mostly men, the median age was &lt;50 years and immune suppression was marked with a median CD4 cell count&lt;100 cells/µl, even in patients receiving HAART. When measured, EBV load in the serum was high. Prognosis was poor with a high mortality despite adequate treatment consisting in steroids and chemotherapy, with or without etoposide (Table 1). Our case report and the review of literature suggest that physicians should be aware of the association between EBV infection/reactivation and Hodgkin lymphoma as a cause of HPS in HIV patients, even if successfully treated with HAART. The pathogenesis of these three interrelated conditions (viral infection, oncogenesis and immunologic reaction) remains unclear." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1063_18797", "title": "[Parvovirus B19 infection in HIV-infected patients].", "score": 0.012122993277249184, "content": "Here we provide a review of the literature and a description of our own clinical case. The patient was a 32-year-old woman who had been infected with HIV for 6 years without antiretroviral therapy. The test results showed CD4 87 cells/l, viral load 3750 copies/ml. Normochromic normocytic anemia and reticulocytopenia developed soon. In the myelogram, all erythroblasts were 0.5%. The viral load of parvovirus B19 DNA according to PCR was more than 9 million IU/ml. Pure red cell aplasia associated with parvovirus B19 was diagnosed. We started antiretroviral therapy with efavirenz, lamevudine and tenofovir. In addition to blood transfusions, we administered intravenous donor immunoglobulin with a dose increase from 5000 mg to 20 000 mg per day. After discontinuing of intravenous immunoglobulins, the laboratory test results were stable over the next 5 months: hemoglobin was more than 115 g/L, reticulocytes more than 3%, in the myelogram all erythroblasts were 21%. However, the elimination of parvovirus B19 wasnt achieved. The maximum decrease in viral load for parvovirus B19 was down to 720 IU/ml. A typical feature of the case was the lack of pure red cell aplasia of the bone marrow with the existing viral load of parvovirus B19. HIV infection progressed: 44 cells/l, viral load not determined. The case ended lethally." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0308_3696", "title": "[Visceral leishmaniasis with an unusually long incubation time].", "score": 0.011299435028248588, "content": "A 25-year-old woman of Yugoslavian origin came to Germany two years before and did not leave Germany since this time. She developed a phlebothrombosis during pregnancy which was treated surgically and with subsequent heparinisation. The pregnancy had to be terminated by section because of abnormal liver functions and increased blood pressure. These values returned to normal within two months. Further tests again showed raised liver function tests (GOT 57 U/l, GPT 71 U/l) and antibodies against smooth muscle and actin. Autoimmune hepatitis was diagnosed and prednisolone given (100 mg daily). In the subsequent 4 months the patient progressively lost more weight and a pancytopenia developed. Suspected of having a systemic haematological syndrome she was admitted to hospital. Physical examination was unremarkable except for hepato- and splenomegaly (spleen 15.6 cm in diameter by sonography). Laboratory tests showed hypergammaglobulinaemia (50 g/l, 53%), increased WBC count, as well as decreased haemoglobin concentration and platelet count (900 WBC/microliter, Hb 10.9 g/l, 146,000 platelets/microliter). Bone marrow puncture unexpectedly revealed a large number of Leishmania donovani. Five-valent antimony was administered (sodium stibogluconate 20 mg/kg daily intravenously as bolus for 14 days). She has been free of symptoms since then (follow-up period of one year). Visceral leishmaniasis is a rare disease in Europe. Incubation periods of several years have been reported and the infection can be easily mistaken for other chronic liver disease, in this case for an autoimmune hepatitis. Leishmaniasis should be included in the differential diagnosis of unclear liver disease if there is a suggestive history (country of origin or journey into an endemic area)." }, { "id": "article-22918_11", "title": "HIV Nephropathy -- Evaluation", "score": 0.010473873247595876, "content": "Currently, combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) induced nephropathy is a far more common disease than HIVAN. Differentiating patients with HIVAN versus cART induced nephropathy is important, as management is different. Besides history and physical examination findings, patients with HIVAN present with CD4 count <200 cells/mm, viral load >400 copies/mL, a rapid decline in renal function, proteinuria >300 mg/24h, hyaline or proteinaceous casts on urinalysis, and large-sized kidneys with intense cortical echogenicity. In contrast, cART induced nephropathy presents in patients with CD4 count >200 cells/mm, viral load <400 copies/mL, proteinuria <30 mg/24h, an indolent decline in renal function, hematuria or leukocyturia, needle or rod-like crystals on urine microscopy and unremarkable ultrasound findings. [13] [14]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0387_7095", "title": "Disseminated histoplasmosis presenting as pyoderma gangrenosum-like lesions in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 33-year-old Hispanic woman with newly diagnosed human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, a CD4 T-lymphocyte count of 2, viral load of 730,000 copies/mL, candidal esophagitis, seizure disorder, a history of bacterial pneumonia, and recent weight loss was admitted with tonic clonic seizure. On admission, her vital signs were: pulse of 88, respiration rate of 18, temperature of 37.7 degrees C, and blood pressure of 126/76. Her only medication was phenytoin. On examination, the patient was found to have multiple umbilicated papules on her face, as well as painful, erythematous, large, punched-out ulcers on the nose, face, trunk, and extremities of 3 months' duration (Fig. 1). The borders of the ulcers were irregular, raised, boggy, and undermined, while the base contained hemorrhagic exudate partially covered with necrotic eschar. The largest ulcer on the left mandible was 4 cm in diameter. The oral cavity was clear. Because of her subtherapeutic phenytoin level, the medication dose was adjusted, and she was empirically treated with Unasyn for presumptive bacterial infection. Chest radiograph and head computed tomography (CT) scan were within normal limits. Sputum for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear was negative. Serologic studies, including Histoplasma antibodies, toxoplasmosis immunoglobulin M (IgM), rapid plasma reagin (RPR), hepatitis C virus (HCV), and hepatitis B virus (HBV) antibodies were all negative. Examination of the cerebrospinal fluid was within normal limits without the presence of cryptococcal antigen. Blood and cerebrospinal cultures for bacteria, mycobacteria, and fungi were all negative. Viral culture from one of the lesions was also negative. The analysis of her complete blood count showed: white blood count, 2300/microl; hemoglobin, 8.5 g/dL; hematocrit, 25.7%; and platelets, 114,000/microl. Two days after admission, the dermatology service was asked to evaluate the patient. Although the umbilicated papules on the patient's face resembled lesions of molluscum contagiosum, other infectious processes considered in the differential diagnosis included histoplasmosis, cryptococcosis, and Penicillium marnefei. In addition, the morphology of the ulcers, particularly that on the left mandible, resembled lesions of pyoderma gangrenosum. A skin biopsy was performed on an ulcer on the chest. Histopathologic examination revealed granulomatous dermatitis with multiple budding yeast forms, predominantly within histiocytes, with few organisms residing extracellularly. Methenamine silver stain confirmed the presence of 2-4 microm fungal spores suggestive of Histoplasma capsulatum (Fig. 2). Because of the patient's deteriorating condition, intravenous amphotericin B was initiated after tissue culture was obtained. Within the first week of treatment, the skin lesions started to resolve. Histoplasma capsulatum was later isolated by culture, confirming the diagnosis. The patient was continued on amphotericin B for a total of 10 weeks, and was started on lamivudine, stavudine, and nelfinavir for her HIV infection during hospitalization. After amphotericin B therapy, the patient was placed on life-long suppressive therapy with itraconazole. Follow-up at 9 months after the initial presentation revealed no evidence of relapse of histoplasmosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0344_9912", "title": "[The usefulness of the bone marrow examination in the etiological diagnosis of prolonged fever in patients with HIV infection].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "To analyze the usefulness of bone marrow (BM) study in the diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO) in patients infected by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) in a single center during a period of 42 months. 182 episodes of FUO in 162 patients p3th HIV infection were studied. Age, sex, risk factor for HIV infection, hemoglobin level, counts of leucocytes, neutrophils, lymphocytes, CD4 positive lymphocytes, platelets and levels of hepatic enzymes, albumin and beta 2-microglobulin were studied. BM aspirate was performed in all episodes for cytologic and microbiologic examination, and BM biopsy was done in 43. Analysis of factors related with the probability of diagnosis by BM examination was carried out. The median age was 33 years (range, 22-70), and 123 were males. Drug abuse was the most frequent risk factor for HIV infection (63%). One hundred thirty patients had previous AIDS diagnosis before they were evaluated for unexplained fever. A specific diagnosis was achieved in 161 episodes (88%) and the most frequent diagnoses were Mycobacterium spp. (55%) and Leishmania spp. (14%) infections. Fifty-four episodes (30%) were diagnosed by BM examination, and in 36 (20%) BM study was the only diagnostic tool. Examination of the BM aspirate yielded the diagnosis in 40 out of the 178 episodes (13%), whereas BM biopsy was a diagnostic tool in 8 (19%); in 9 additional cases (21%) granulomas were observed. Microbiologic study of BM smears for mycobacterial infections was positive in 28 of the 143 episodes (19%), and the culture for Leishmania was positive in 2 out of the 42 cases. The presence of thrombocytopenia (&lt; 75 x 10(9)/l) and elevated serum levels of aspartate-aminotransferase (AST) (&gt; 100 U/l) were the factors associated with a high probability to obtain the diagnosis through BM study. In patients infected by the HIV and unexplained fever, BM examination is an useful procedure for the diagnosis, particularly in areas where infections by Mycobacterium spp. and Leishmania are prevalent. So that, in our setting, systematic use of this procedure is justified for diagnosis of FUO in those patients." }, { "id": "article-40409_9", "title": "Adenopathy -- Introduction -- Algorithmic Analysis of Lymphadenopath y", "score": 0.009812336623619836, "content": "Although there is no \"cookbook\" for the laboratory evaluation of generalized unexplained lymphadenopathy, the initial steps are to obtain a complete blood count (CBC) with a manual differential and EBV serology. If non-diagnostic, the next steps would be PPD placement, RPR, chest x-ray, ANA, hepatitis B surface antigen, and HIV test. Again if any of the above are positive, appropriate treatment can be initiated. In the presence of negative serological examinations and radiological examinations, and or significant symptomology, a biopsy of the abnormal node is the gold standard for diagnosis. [9] [10] [11] [12] Statistics concerning lymphadenopathy are not accurate as the great majority of lymphadenopathy is caused by a non-reportable illness and thus not reported or taken into account. This results in a statistical bias, or skew, toward the reportable causes of lymphadenopathy:  malignancies, HIV, tuberculosis, and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Citations in the recent literature for general medical practice indicate that less than 1% of people with lymphadenopathy have malignant disease most often due to leukemia and younger children Hodgkin disease in adolescence non-Hodgkin disease and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) in adults. It has been reported the general prevalence of malignancy is 0.4% in patients under 40 years and around 4% in those older than 40 years of age seen in a primary care setting. It is reported that the prevalence rate of neoplastic disease rises to near 20% in referral centers and rises to 50% or more in patients with initial risk factors. [13]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0655_4744", "title": "Simultaneous pancreas-kidney transplantation in a human immunodeficiency virus-positive recipient: a case report.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "After the development of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for patients with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), there has been increased interest in organ transplantation for this selected population. There is a lack of reports about pancreas transplant in HIV+ recipients. We report the case of a 43-year-old HIV+ man who presented with type 1 diabetes for 25 years and end-stage-renal disease. He underwent dialysis therapy for the prior 3 years. His CD4 count was 830 cells/mL and a negative viral load was achieved after 3 months of antiretroviral therapy. His nutritional status was favorable; no opportunistic infections had occurred. A simultaneous pancreas-kidney transplantation (SPKT) was performed from a 19-year-old deceased trauma victim. Pancreas implantation was enteric-portal drainage. No induction immunosuppression was used, but rather tacrolimus, sodium mycophenolate, and steroids. In the postoperative period, there was a delayed kidney graft function requiring hemodialysis for 14 days. On postoperative day 11, a kidney biopsy specimen showed mild rejection, which was successfully treated with steroids. The patient was discharged after 22 days; he was normoglycemic and insulin-independent with a serum creatinine value of 1.9 mg/dL. Currently, his outcome has been uneventful, without a readmission or opportunistic infections. After 5 months postoperation, the viral load is negative and the CD4 count is 460 cells/mL. The current serum creatinine level is 1.1 mg/dL; no insulin has been required. HIV has been considered to be an absolute contraindication to organ transplantation, because of the infection risk due to severe immunosuppression, to interactions between antiretroviral and immunosuppressive drugs, and to reluctance to offer an organ to a terminal patient. However, transplants in HIV+ patients have shown good results, when a patient has an acceptable CD4 level, a low viral load, and minimal antiretroviral therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0083_11631", "title": "[The natural history and laboratory parameters of HIV infection].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Since 1983 the morbidity and mortality rates as well as results of haematological, immunological and (later) HIV serological tests were recorded prospectively for 497 HIV-positive patients during 1837 clinic visits at least twice within at most six months for a median period of observation of 18 months (range 6-64 months). The rate of progression to a higher stage was calculated according to the method of Kaplan-Meier. The rate for asymptomatic patients was 16% after one and 33% after two years; for patients with persisting generalized lymphadenopathy it was 13% and 21%, respectively, for those with AIDS-related complex 28% and 47%, respectively, and for those with AIDS 33% and 82%, respectively. As for results of laboratory tests, patients with progressive disease had significantly lower titres of anti-HIV nuclear antibodies, as well as a higher incidence of HIV-p24 antigen. Haemoglobin levels, platelet and lymphocyte counts and number of CD-4-positive lymphocytes were significantly lower, Neopterin and beta 2-microglobulins higher (P less than 0.01)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0744_19819", "title": "Is there a role for the use of IFN-α in primary myelofibrosis?", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 62-year-old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension is referred to your hematology clinic for an incidental discovery of anemia. He does not have any constitutional symptoms and previous blood counts have been within the normal range. He has hepatosplenomegaly with a palpable spleen of 6 cm below the left costal margin and a liver size of 2.5 cm below the right costal margin. Laboratory evaluation shows a WBC count of 12.8 K/μL, hemoglobin of 11.0 g/dL, and platelets of 202 K/μL, with a mean corpuscular volume of 85.7, 72% neutrophils, 13% lymphocytes, 4% monocytes, 5% eosinophils, 1% basophils, 1% promyelocytes, 4% myelocytes, and lactate dehydrogenase of 447 U/L (upper limit of normal is &lt; 340 U/L). Peripheral blood smear shows 2+ teardrop-shaped RBCs, large hypogranular platelets, and rare nucleated RBCs. Bone marrow (BM) biopsy exhibits a hypercellular BM with atypical megakaryocytes and increased reticulin fibrosis (MF-1). BCR-ABL gene rearrangement by FISH was negative and JAK2 V617F mutation was 95% positive. He was diagnosed with primary myelofibrosis considered low risk (risk score of 0) by the International Prognostic Scoring System.(1) Because he is low risk and asymptomatic, he does not need treatment at this time.(2) However, he has read about the possible clinical benefits of IFN-α and its potential reduction of BM fibrosis and wonders whether this would be an appropriate treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0353_11731", "title": "[Visceral leishmaniasis: a comparative study of patients with and without human immunodeficiency virus infection].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The changes that HIV coinfection can induce in clinical symptoms, response to treatment and prognosis of visceral Leishmaniasis (VL) are not well known. We retrospectively describe the characteristics of VL in patients with and without HIV infection, between 1988-1998. Fifty episodes of VL were diagnosed in 40 patients. Nineteen (47.5%) were HIV coinfected, 57.8% of them have had an aids defining illness, and the median of CD4+ lymphocytes was 50/mm3. Clinical and laboratory data were similar to patients non HIV infected, except for lower levels of LDH (437 vs 578 U/ml; p = 0.02) and total lymphocytes (665 vs 1.500/mm3; p = 0.004) and higher levels of hemoglobin (9.8 vs 8.7 gr/dl; p = 0.01) and ESR (85 vs 44 mm; p = 0.01). The first episode of VL was diagnosed in 87.5% patients through bone marrow aspirate, and the other cases were diagnosed by biopsies of gum (2), lymph node (1) or liver (1). One patient was diagnosed clinically: he had a positive serology and a good response to antileishmanial therapy. Treatment failed in nine patients (22.5%), 7 HIV-coinfected. Eight patients died (20%), 6 HIV-coinfected. Five deaths were directly attributed to VL. Six coinfected patients (31.5%) relapsed and only one (4.7%) in the other group. We did not find major differences in clinical manifestations or laboratory data between the two groups. Biopsies of several tissues can be particularly helpful for diagnosis in immunocompromised patients with negative bone marrow aspirates. Failures, mortality and relapses are more common in HIV infected patients. VL coinfection usually affects HIV infected patients when they develop severe immunodepression." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0548_5253", "title": "Subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma with hemophagocytic syndrome successfully treated with cyclosporin A.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 17-year-old girl previously in good health presented with a 2-month history of recurrent, high-grade fever; general fatigue; anorexia; a 10-kg weight loss; and multiple, painful, reddish skin lesions on the lower abdomen. Some lesions were ulcerated, with an oily yellowish brown discharge. A systemic review was unremarkable other than bleeding from the nose. Her medical and family histories were unremarkable. On examination, the patient was pale, jaundiced, and febrile (temperature of 39 degrees C). She had enlarged lymph nodes in the axillary and inguinal areas. There was moderate hepatosplenomegaly. Local skin examination revealed multiple erythematous, tender, and firm subcutaneous nodules of variable size (1-2 cm) on the lower abdomen. Some nodules were ulcerated, with oily yellowish brown discharge and overlying ecchymosis (Figures 1 and 2). Mucous membranes were free of lesions. Laboratory investigations showed pancytopenia, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (&gt;80 mm/h), normal renal function tests, abnormal hepatic function tests (alanine aminotransferase 172 U/L, aspartate aminotransferase 229 U/L, alkaline phosphatase 725 U/L, and total bilirubin 100 mmol/L [normal range 0-18 mmol/L]), conjugated bilirubin 45 mmol/L (normal range 0-5 mmol/L), and high triglycerides 855 mg/dL (normal range 20-200 mg/dL). Prolonged prothrombin time, 26 seconds (normal range 13-16 seconds); prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time, 61 seconds (normal range 26-38 seconds); positive disseminated intravascular coagulation studies evidenced by low fibrinogen, 74 mg/dL (normal range 160-350 mg/dL); and positive fibrinogen degradation products were also noted. Throat, midstream urine, and blood culture results were negative. Serologic tests for syphilis, HIV, and hepatitis B and C viruses were negative. Epstein-Barr virus and cytomegalovirus serologic values revealed evidence of past infection. Tuberculin and Coombs tests were negative. The alpha1-antitrypsin level was normal. Antinuclear and anti-smith antibodies, rheumatoid factor, and cryoglobulins were negative. CT showed enlarged lymph nodes in the axillary and inguinal areas, bilateral small pleural effusion, moderate hepatosplenomegaly, severe fatty infiltration of the liver, and thickening of lower abdominal subcutaneous tissue. A liver biopsy showed steatohepatitis. Bone marrow aspirate and trephine were normal. A deep punch biopsy of a nodule from the right lower abdomen revealed lobular panniculitis with atypical lymphocytes and large macrophages with cytophagocytosis (\"beanbag\" cells) (Figures 3 and 4). Immunohistochemistry showed that these atypical cells were positive for CD3, CD8, granzyme B, and perforin, and negative for CD56. T-cell gene rearrangement studies on skin lesions revealed a monoclonal T-cell receptor (gamma-chain) gene rearrangement, supporting the diagnosis of subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma. On presentation, the initial treatment included 6 U of fresh frozen plasma, 2 U of packed red blood cells, and 2 g IV fibrinogen for 3 consecutive days. The patient was started on prednisolone 60 mg orally once daily and cyclosporine A 5 mg/kg/d orally in two divided doses. The fever and other systemic symptoms and skin lesions resolved within 2 weeks after the treatment. The prednisolone dose was tapered gradually, and a maintenance dose of cyclosporine A was continued. The patient's condition remained in remission at 12-month follow-up; there was no evidence of clinical relapse." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0956_9270", "title": "[Evolution of biochemical and hematological parameters in patients living with HIV/AIDS treated with antiretroviral therapy at the Aboubacar Sangoulé Lamizana General Camp Medical Center].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "This study aimed to evaluate the impact of treatment on biochemical and hematological parameters in HIV-positive patients followed up at the Aboubacar Sangoulé Lamizana General Camp Medical Center in Burkina Faso. We conducted a retrospective study over the period January 2010-September 2015. The study only included HIV-positive patients treated with ART having undergone laboratory tests at treatment initiation (M0), at sixth month (M6), and at twelfth month (M12). Sex-ratio was 0.88 and the most affected age group was 45-55 years. The most prescribed treatments were triple combination therapies based on 2INTI + 1INNTI (74,5%), 2INTI+1 IP (14,9%). Viral load test was little requested. The rate of patients with normal laboratory tests showed a statistically significant regression between M0 (70%), and M6 (13%) (p&lt;0.05). Severely immunocompromised patients showed a significant increase in average TCD4 lymphocytes value, ranging from 79,22 at M0 to 227.95 cells/mm<sup3</sup at M12 (p&lt;0.05). Anaemic patients showed a significant increase in the rate of mean haemoglobin levels from 10.5 g/dl at M0 to 12.53 g/dl at M12 (p&lt;0.05). The analysis of biochemical parameters could not be performed because of a lack of data. The increase in the rate of TCD4 lymphocytes and in the rate of hemoglobin levels gives an indication of ART effectiveness and of patient's tolerance to treatment. Viral load test accessibility and an improvement in laboratory testing monitoring are essential." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en564_210", "title": "Virological failure", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Virological failure is defined as the failure to meet a specific target of antiviral drug treatment, namely the non-attainment or non-maintenance of undetectable viral load, particularly in the treatment of HIV. As antiretroviral therapy is evaluated by detecting the amount of copies of the virus in blood samples, the concept of virological failure gives a way to modify treatment of this disease. Virological failure in HIV is characterized by a confirmed viral load above 400 copies / ml after 24 weeks or above 50 copies / ml after 48 weeks of treatment or, even for individuals who have reached complete viral suppression, by confirmed rebound of viral load above 400 copies / ml. Non-adherence of HIV antiretroviral therapy increases the risk of drug suppression and resistance (Bangsberg, D. R., Moss, A. R., & Deeks, S. G. (2004))." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0299_3955", "title": "[Efficiency of bone marrow aspirate for diagnosis of opportunistic infections in HIV infected patients].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "AIDS is the first cause of opportunistic infections. The objective of the present study was the evaluation of the efficiency of bone marrow aspirate (BMA) for diagnosis of opportunistic infections in HIV infected patients with prolonged fever. Charts from 92 patients with BMA from 1992 to 1994 were reviewed. Diagnosis was achieved in 14.1% of cases. Diagnosis cannot be made by other methods in six leishmaniasis and in two disseminated tuberculosis. The sensibility was of 33.3% for mycobacterial infections, the sensibility of hemoculture was of 50%. The hemoglobin level was lower for patients with diagnostic BMA than for patients with not diagnostic BMA (77 g/l vs 97 g/l, p &lt; 0.0004). The WBC counts was not different in both groups of patients, and platelets counts was greater in patients with BMA diagnostic (165 x 10(9)/l vs 102 x 10(9)/l, p &lt; 0.001). In the patients with hemoglobin lower than 100 g/l the diagnostic efficiency was 18.6% (11 of 59 cases). The BMA was unprofitable in HIV infected patients with prolonged fever without hemocytopenias. Profitability increase in patients with hemoglobin lower than 100 g/l. The BMA in useful for leishmania identification. The hemoculture has greater sensitivity than BMA for the diagnosis of mycobacterial disseminated infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1078_5134", "title": "Case of haemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis following Epstein-Barr virus infection.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Haemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) is a rare diagnosis that carries a high degree of mortality. We present this case of a previously healthy 22-year-old woman, who was admitted acutely ill to the hospital. One week prior, she had been seen by her primary care physician for fatigue and malaise. At that time, she was noted to have anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. She was referred to the emergency room and was diagnosed with acute Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) mononucleosis based on her clinical symptoms and positive heterophile antibody test. She was discharged after an uneventful 48-hour stay on the wards. She represented 7 days after discharge with cough, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, epigastric abdominal pain, diarrhoea, weight loss and subjective fevers. She had also reported haematemesis, epistaxis and melaena. Vital signs included temperature 36.9°C, blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg, heart rate 130 beats per minute and respiratory rate 32 breaths per minute. Physical examination was notable for an acutely ill appearing woman with scleral icterus, hepatosplenomegaly and palpable cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy. Complete blood count showed pancytopaenia with haemoglobin 59 g/L (normal 120-160 g/L), white blood cell count 2.7×10<sup9</sup/L (normal 4-10.5×10<sup9</sup/L) and platelet count 50×10<sup9</sup/L (normal 150-450×10<sup9</sup/L). The white blood cell count differential included 58% neutrophils (normal 38%-77%) with immature neutrophils in band form elevated at 45% (normal &lt;14%), 16% lymphocytes (normal 20%-48%), 7% monocytes (normal &lt;12%) and no eosinophils (normal &lt;6%). Blood smear revealed anisocytosis, poikilocytosis and hypochromia. Coagulation panel showed elevated levels of d-dimer level at 1.39 µg/mL (normal &lt;0.45 µg/mL), prolonged prothrombin time at 34.4 s (normal 11-15 s), prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time of 55.6 s (normal 25-34 s), prolonged international normalised ratio at 3.31 (normal &lt;1.1) and low fibrinogen 60 mg/dL (normal &gt;200 mg/dL). Lipid panel showed cholesterol at 114 mg/dL (normal 125-200 mg/dL), triglycerides 207 mg/dL (normal 30-150 mg/dL), high-density lipoprotein cholesterol 10 mg/dL (normal 40-60 mg/dL) and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol 63 mg/dL (normal &lt;100 mg/dL). Other lab abnormalities included elevated ferritin of 6513 ng/mL (normal 10-150 ng/mL) and elevated lactate dehydrogenase of 1071 unit/L (normal 95-240 unit/L). Soluble interleukin-2 receptor alpha level was elevated at 60 727 units/mL (normal 223-710 units/mL). Fluorodeoxyglucose-positron emission tomography (FDG-PET) scan showed abnormal tracer localisation within the paratracheal, hilar, pelvic, abdominal and subcarinal lymph nodes, along with FDG-PET positive hepatosplenomegaly. A bone marrow biopsy showed hypercellular marrow (95% cellularity) with trilineage haematopoiesis, haemophagocytic cells, polytypic plasmacytosis and T-cell lymphocytosis, along with positive latent membrane protein-1 immunohistochemical staining for EBV. EBV quantitative DNA PCR showed &gt;1 million copies. These findings were consistent with a diagnosis of HLH secondary to EBV infection. Despite intense therapy with the HLH-94 protocol, the patient expired from her illness after a prolonged hospital course." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0562_7952", "title": "[HIV/AIDS and pathology in blood count].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "HIV/AIDS pandemy has hit the entire world. With the use of retroviral therapy the disease became chronic. The life prolongation often leads to complications in various organs. The aim of our work was to determine the frequency of blood count pathology at the time when the HIV infection was diagnosed, that means before any antiretroviral treatment was administered, and its relation to the disease stage. Out of 70 patients registered in AIDS centre in Brno University Hospital by 1st March 2006, we have complete blood count results including absolute number of CD4+ lymphocytes. Out of these 70 we evaluated a group of 64 HIV-positive individuals (17 women, 47 men), who were examined at the time the disease was diagnosed. Average and medians of all blood count parameters were within the reference range, only CD4+ lymphocytes in 1 mm(3) were out of range. Pathology in red blood cells count was found 26 times (41.9 % of examined patients), in white cell count 22 times (35.5 %). Thrombocyte number was affected 3 times, and only in one of these cases it was a separate finding. Blood count pathology is relative frequent in the HIV infected. Therefore HIV infection should be considered as one of the possible causes of unexplained blood count pathology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0480_3917", "title": "[Agranulocytosis due to anti-tuberculosis drugs including isoniazid (INH) and rifampicin (RFP)--a report of four cases and review of the literature].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We experienced 4 cases of agranulocytosis due to anti-tuberculosis drugs (rifampicin [RFP], isoniazid [INH], ethambutol [EB], streptomycin [SM] or pyrazinamide [PZA]) among some 6,400 tuberculosis patients who underwent chemotherapy over the past 20 years from 1981 to 2002 in our hospital, and the incidence rate of agranulocytosis was estimated at 0.06%. The 4 cases of agranulocytosis were as follows. CASE 1: A 51-year-old woman with right chest pain and fever was admitted to our hospital on Jan 4, 2001. The white blood cell (WBC) count was 5,200/microliter. The tubercle bacilli were cultured in her sputum. The treatment with INH 0.3, RFP 0.45, EB 0.75, PZA 1.2 g/day, allopurinol and teprenone was started on Jan 13. Pyrazinamide and allopurinol were stopped because of hyper-uric acidemia on Feb 7. Agranulocytosis and eosinophilia (WBC 1,300 [Neut 1%, Ly 57%, Eos 35%]) developed on Feb 13. All drugs were withdrawn and G-CSF drug nartograstim 100 micrograms was injected subcutaneously for 3 days. The WBC recovered to normal level and she was thereafter treated with INH, EB and Levofloxacin (LVFX) without any further trouble. Agranulocytosis in this case was supposed to be due to RFP. CASE 2: A 66-year-old man who had had nephrotic syndrome and hypothyroidism and has been treated with prednisolone 10 mg/day was admitted to our hospital on Aug 9, 2000 because of miliary tuberculosis. The tubercle bacilli were cultured in his sputum and the treatment with INH 0.3, RFP 0.45, and EB 0.75 g/day were started on Aug 10, but it was withdrawn on Aug 17 because of general skin eruption. After re-starting treatment with EB and INH on Aug 24, RFP was added in small dosage (0.05 g) on Oct 12, but agranulomatosis (WBC 2,300/microliter [Neut 2%]) developed on Nov 21, and all drugs were withdrawn again. The G-CSF drug filgrastim was used once subcutaneously, and WBC recovered immediately. He was thereafter treated with INH, EB, LVFX successfully. Agranulocytosis was supposed to be due to RFP. CASE 3: A 60-year-old woman without symptoms had abnormal chest roentgenograph, and consulted with our hospital on Aug 26, 2002. The broncho-alveolar lavage fluid was smear and culture-negative, but PCR-TB positive, and the case was diagnosed as pulmonary tuberculosis. Treatment with INH 0.3, RFP 0.45, EB 0.75, PZA 1.2 g/day, alloprinol 300 mg and rebamipide 300 mg/day was started on Sept. 5, 2002. Late in September, she complained of appetite loss. The laboratory data on Oct 3 revealed WBC 900/microliter (Neut 1%, Ly 94%), aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 199 IU/l, and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 253 IU/l, showing agranulocytosis and drug-induced hepatitis. The chemotherapy was immediately withdrawn and she was admitted to our hospital on the next day. Glycyrrhizin derivative (SNMC) 40 ml was injected for 5 days, and WBC recovered, and AST and ALT also became normal. CASE 4: A 60-year-old man was admitted to our hospital on March 11, 1981 because pulmonary tuberculosis had recurred. He had been treated with SM, PAS and INH in 1973 for pulmonary tuberculosis. On admission examination of blood count and blood chemistry were normal. Treatment with RFP, INH and SM was started on March 11. He stopped out from the hospital on April 17, but in a few days he returned back with sore throat, lower lip swelling and gingival bleeding. Blood cell count on April 24 showed pancytopenia with RBC 226, Hb 7.5, WBC 800 (Ly 96%, Eos 4%) and Plt 10,000/microliter. The bone-marrow showed NCC (nuceated cell count) of 5,500, and megakaryocyte 0. Thereafter ground glass appearance shadows were seen on the whole lung field, and he died May 26. Autopsy showed generalized aspergillosis. It was strongly suspected that either of RFP, INH or SM was responsible for his pancytopenia. We collected another 10 cases of agranulocytosis due to anti-tuberculosis drugs in the world wide literature, and found men/women ratio 5/8 (in one case gender was not known), the duration of chemotherapy before appearance of agranulocytosis 1-3 months, no change in the lymphocyte count of the peripheral blood, and the accompanying of another allergic signs such as skin eruption, blood eosinophilia or drug-induced hepatitis in some cases, and these findings suggest that the mechanism of agranulocytosis due to anti-tuberculosis drugs was allergic in nature." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1704", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Fever ˜38.3° C (101° F) and illness lasting ˜3 weeks and no known immunocompromised state History and physical examination Stop antibiotic treatment and glucocorticoids Obligatory investigations: ESR and CRP, hemoglobin, platelet count, leukocyte count and differential, electrolytes, creatinine, total protein, protein electrophoresis, alkaline phosphatase, AST, ALT, LDH, creatine kinase, antinuclear antibodies, rheumatoid factor, urinalysis, blood cultures (n=3), urine culture, chest x-ray, abdominal ultrasonography, and tuberculin skin test" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0331_2651", "title": "[Focal mycobacterial lymphadenitis after starting highly active antiretroviral therapy].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 30-year-old man with a known HIV infection for 7 years presented for treatment with antiretroviral drugs. He was known to have had herpes zoster, oral hairy leukoplakia and recurrent Candida stomatitis, but was otherwise without symptoms. The CD4 lymphocyte count was 19 cells/mm3 and there were 41,000 HIV-RNA copies/ml. The HIV infection was in CDC stage B3, indicating the need for combined antiretroviral treatment. A week after starting stavudine, saquinavir and ritonavir he had to be admitted because of nausea and vomiting, colicky abdominal pain, diarrhea, fever up to 39 degrees C and a rise of C-reactive protein to 207 mg/dl. Bacteriological examination of feces and biopsy of an enlarged retroperitoneal lymph node revealed atypical mycobacteria. Antituberculosis treatment was started. The CD4 cell count rose to 56/mm3 and the viral count fell to 11,000/ml. Each time after initiating a different antiviral regimen the symptoms recurred. This case illustrates an atypical manifestation of on opportunistic infection: during combined antiviral treatment the CD4 cell count rose and thus precipitated an heretofore subclinical mycobacterial infection with focal lymphadenitis. If, on starting antiretroviral treatment at a late HIV stage, new symptoms develop within 1-3 weeks, one should consider drug-induced side effects or the onset of an opportunistic infection that has become manifest as the result of an improved immunological state." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0324_19001", "title": "[Discriminative value for AIDS case of erythrocyte sedimentation rate, immunoglobulins IgA and IgM, and beta 2-microglobulin in combination with the CD4+ lymphocyte count].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To establish the probability to discriminate the evolution to \"AIDS case\" in relation to the common laboratory parametres in the follow-up of the HIV infection. We have studied a cohort of 118 patients (1986-95) with HIV infection, 14 of them (12%) had clinical criteria for AIDS (CDC/93) during the follow-up. Clinical evaluations and CD4+ and CD8+ lymphocytes, beta 2M, IgG, IgA, IgM and E.S.R determinations were done. Multivariate analysis (RSIGMA) was done. with the initial laboratory values, according to the clinical diagnostic (AIDS and NO AIDS) done during the follow-up. By multiple logistic regression those laboratory variables with more predictor value for \"AIDS CASE\" were selected. With the initial value of these variables (E.S.R., beta 2M, IgA, IgM and CD4+ lymphocytes) and the clinical diagnostic of AIDS done during the follow-up, we did the linear discriminatory analysis between two groups (AIDS, NO AIDS) obtaining generalized distance between both groups of 3,4609 and a probability of classification error of 4%. A very significant difference (p &lt; 0.001) was obtaining when we compare the variables' mean of each of the clinical groups. In the HIV infection the values of ESR, beta 2M, IgA and IgM in combination with the absolute value of the CD4+ lymphocytes allows to discriminate those patients who will develop AIDS with a probability of classifications error of 4%. This has clinical interest in absence of viral load and helps to take therapeutical decisions." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en192_7546", "title": "Long-term nonprogressor", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Long-term nonprogressors (LTNPs), sometimes also called elite controllers, are individuals infected with HIV, who maintain a CD4 count greater than 500 without antiretroviral therapy with a detectable viral load. Many of these patients have been HIV positive for 30 years without progressing to the point of needing to take medication in order not to develop AIDS. They have been the subject of a great deal of research, since an understanding of their ability to control HIV infection may lead to the development of immune therapies or a therapeutic vaccine. The classification \"Long-term non-progressor\" is not permanent, because some patients in this category have gone on to develop AIDS. Long-term nonprogressors typically have viral loads under 10,000 copies /mL blood, do not take antiretrovirals, and have CD4+ counts within the normal range. Most people with HIV not on medication have viral loads which are much higher." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0047_1929", "title": "[Peripheral and bone marrow hematological modifications in infection by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) in central Africa. Diagnostic and prognostic significance].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "From the 24 March 1988 to the 15 June 1989, we noticed the peripheric and medullar haematologic modifications of 46 patients infected by HIV, classified in the group IV of CDC. The haematologic modifications found are: a peripheric cytopenia with a constant anemia often serious, a leuconeutropenia, a mild or missing lymphopenia. In comparison: the bone marrow is often rich in the different lineage with more often a sharp lymphoplasmocytal reaction, sometime very characteristic on the cytological side. 2 myeloid leukemia were diagnosed by participation of the myelogram. At least, the proteinogram showed a major polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemy sometimes monoclonal." }, { "id": "article-24581_14", "title": "Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma -- Evaluation", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A detailed clinical and physical examination and the laboratory and imaging studies are essential for the diagnosis of lymphoma. Laboratory data include Complete blood count with differential (CBC), comprehensive metabolic profile (CMP), lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), HIV and Hepatitis B and C serologies, and serum protein electrophoresis. CBC can show cellular atypia on smears as well as cytopenias. Patients with symptoms or at risk of central nervous system (CNS) involvement should have a lumbar puncture. HIV should be tested as B cell lymphomas can be an AIDS-defining illness. Besides, as the treatment involves significant immunosuppression, it requires consideration of the patient’s HIV and hepatitis status. Renal involvement can be seen by up to 14% of the patients. LDH is elevated in more than 50% of the cases. LDH is a predictor of survival. [15]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0264_9149", "title": "Initial assessment of patients infected with human immunodeficiency virus: the yield and cost of laboratory testing.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Our objective was to determine the yield and cost of standardized laboratory testing of HIV-infected patients entering medical care after testing positive for HIV. An HIV staging and referral clinic in a municipal public hospital was our site for a cross-sectional study, and 308 patients were evaluated in the clinic between February 1, 1990 and October 1, 1991. Patients underwent standardized laboratory testing, including hematologic studies, serum chemistries, infectious disease serologies, and chest radiographs. The percentage of abnormal results for each test was determined. Abnormal results were stratified as mild or severe. They were also examined with regard to whether injection drug users or other patient subgroups had higher percentages of abnormalities. Changes and Medicare reimbursements for the tests were also determined. There were substantial numbers of abnormalities in all types of laboratory testing. Only 3% of patients had normal CD4 lymphocyte counts; 85% had counts of &lt; 500/mm3, and 35% were &lt; 200/mm3. Forty-four percent of patients had at least one abnormal hematologic study; 8% were severe. Nearly 75% had abnormal liver function tests; 20% of these were severe abnormalities. Fifteen percent of patients were PPD-positive, and &gt; 50% were anergic. Fourteen percent had a positive nonspecific test for syphilis, and 7% had a positive confirmatory test. Fourteen percent of patients had an abnormal chest radiograph.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0764_24542", "title": "[Severe oral mucositis in a patient with HIV infection].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A 50-year-old man with HIV infection (first diagnosed &gt; 20 years ago) presented at our hospital with fulminant oral mucositis. Antiretroviral therapy (tenofovir, emtricitabine, raltegravir) had been started 2 months ago. Previously he had no opportunistic infections and no other pre-existing illnesses. He had not travelled outside Europe but stayed in Spain for several weeks during summer. Physical examination revealed swelling of the lips and severe ulcerative mucositis of the gums and pharynx. The patient complained of painful swallowing. The blood-chemistry showed no abnormalities. The microscopical analysis of a smear and a biopsy of the buccal mucosa revealed amastigotes of leishmania. By means of PCR technique, Leishmania donovani complex was specified. The patient was treated with liposomal amphotericin B (1 mg/kg) for 21 days. Because of the immunosuppression he was put on maintenance therapy afterwards (liposomal amphotericin B every 3 weeks). However, 4 months later there was a clinical relapse of the mucositis and a new cultural and PCR detection of leishmania in a buccal biopsy. After another course of 21 days with liposomal amphotericin B (3 mg/kg) and miltefosine (150 mg/d), the mucositis subsided. Therapy with liposomal amphotericin B (3 mg/kg single dose every 3 weeks) has since been maintained. The antiretroviral therapy was changed meanwhile to lamivudin, abacavir and raltegravir because of kidney failure with elevated urea and creatinine. The patient has been clinically stable ever since without any other HIV-related problems. The latest CD4 count was 456/µl and the HIV load 340 copies/ml. Leishmaniasis is a severe infection in HIV-positive patients. Clinical manifestations can be atypical in immunosuppressed patients and the treatment is complicated with HIV coinfection. This is also due to a lifelong persistence of the parasite with potential reactivation especially in patients with suppressed CD4 cells. Therefore maintenance therapy after standard therapy of leishmaniasis is mandatory at least for a CD4 count below 350/µl. Especially in HIV patients with a leishmaniasis relapse lifelong maintenance therapy should be considered." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0290_6012", "title": "Prognostic value of some laboratory parameters in a group of intravenous drug users in the early stages of HIV infection.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "During a 5 year follow-up we found significantly reduced survival for non-accidental deaths in 37 intravenous drug users (IVUDs) in the early stages of HIV infection when compared with 32 HIV-negative IVUDs (p = 0.017). Moreover, in HIV-positive subjects, survival was significantly reduced for those groups which at the beginning of the follow-up showed the following values: circulating CD4+ lymphocytes &lt;250/mmc (p = 0.007), CD4+/CD8+ ratio &lt; 0.5 (p = 0.027), serum albumin &lt; 4.13 g/dl (p = 0.045), IgA &gt; or = 2.5 g/l (p = 0.043), IgM &lt; 1.8 g/L (p = 0.041) and platelet count &lt; 130 x 1,000/mmc (p = 0.038). In HIV positive patients, the value of 250 units/mmc for the circulating CD4+ lymphocytes still remained the most predictive parameter of increased mortality for disease at 5 years, even following investigations conducted with other cut-offs. Relationships existing at the beginning of the follow-up between circulating CD4+ lymphocytes and other prognostic parameters suggest that IgA (r = -0.34; p = 0.04), serum albumin (r = 0.33; p = 0.05), and CD4+/CD8+ ratio (r = 0.72; p = 0.0001), but not IgM (r = 0.25; N.S.) and platelets (r = 0.07; N.S.), are dependent variables of shortened survival." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0586_2813", "title": "[Chronic hepatitis C in patients with HIV/HCV coinfection with high CD4+ lymphocytes count].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "analysis of data characterizing HCV infection in patients infected with HIV. 37 persons (29 male and 8 female) aged 23-49 years (mediana 34), with HIV/HCV coinfection, treated (n=25) and untreated (n=12) with antiretroviral therapy. HAART was effective in treated patients; CD4+ count &gt;350 cells/microl. Viral load of HIV and HCV, HCV genotypes, CD4/CD8, biochemical tests, histopathological examination were measured. Results were analyzed statistically. the majority of patients were former IVDUs (n=31.84%), 3 persons (8%)--MSM, 3 (8%)--route of infection unknown. Duration of HCV infection 1-10 years, mediana 5. All patients were in A1 or A2 stage of HIV infection. Among patients treated with HAART (n=25) mediana of CD4+ count before treatment was 263 (69-595) cells/micro, mediana of HIV viral load 75000 copies/ml (n=7); 2040-263414 copies/ml. 17 patients were currently treated with PI, 17 with NNRTI, and 2 patients with NRTI only. HCV genotype was determined in 32 patients: 3a--n=19 (59%), 1--n= 9 (28%) 4--n=4 (13%). HCV viral load: 2.4 x 10(5)-7.73 x 10(6) IU/ml, mediana 1.6 x 10(6). Levels of ALT: 21-358 IU/ml, mediana 102, AST: 20-195 IU/ml, mediana 62, GGTP--9-463 IU/ml, mediana 58. ALT level was significantly higher in HCV genotype 3a infection (p=0.0214). Fibrosis stage above 2 was revealed in 3 patients and in majority (62%) was below 2. None patient had liver cirrhosis. Fibrosis was significantly higher in patients with low CD4+ nadir (p=0.03). Progression of liver fibrosis is slow in patients coinfected with HIV/HCV with high CD4+ count. High percentage of HCV genotype 3 and mild fibrosis are good prognostic factors for effectiveness of HCV infection treatment in HIV infected persons." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1019_17937", "title": "Burkitt's lymphoma nodular cystic hepatosplenic, in HIV patient. Case report", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Patients with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are more likely to develop cancer. Malignant lymphomas are the main cancer group seen in these patients. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma including central nervous system lymphoma and Burkitt's lymphoma account for 90% of HIV-related non-Hodgkin's lymphomas. A 22-year-old man with fever up to 39 ° C, malaise, excessive tiredness and night sweats, loss of 8 kg of weight, abdominal pain in the right hypochondrium, all 5 months before hospitalization. Hemoglobin: 9.5 g/dL, leukocytes 5.13 x 103/mm3, platelets 124 000 cel/mm3; albumin 2.9 g/dL, alanine aminotransferase 28 IU/L, aspartate aminotransferase 105 IU/L; HIV reactive, beta 2 microglobulin: 20 000 ng/mL. Viral load for HIV 100 034 cp/mL, CD4: 76 cel/mcL (5%). It was performed abdominal ultrasound and denoted cysts in the liver and spleen. Abdominal-pelvic computed tomography with hepatosplenomegaly, retroperitoneal and inguinal adenopathies and free fluid in abdominal cavity. Splenectomy was performed and Burkitt's lymphoma was reported in the histopathological study. HIV predisposes patients to any type of cancer. Intra-abdominal findings should be a warning of lymphoma suspicious and may occur from infiltration of the small intestine, solid organ and soft tissues." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0878_4390", "title": "[A pediatric case of HIV who diagnosed by virtue of disseminated cryptococcus infection].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Cryptococcus neoformans is an important opportunistic pathogen that causes serious mortality and morbidity in AIDS patients. Although its incidence has decreased with proper antiretroviral treatment (ART), it is still a major concern in areas with low socioeconomic HIV endemic countries with poor sources of therapy. In our country, pediatric HIV infection and so, HIV-related opportunistic infections are very rare. In order to pay attention to this unusual collaboration; herein, we presented a pediatric case who was diagnosed with HIV and disseminated cryptococcus infection concomitantly. A 6.5-year-old previously healthy girl has admitted to our hospital with the complaints of prolonged fever, cough and hemoptysis. On her physical examination she had oral candidiasis, generalized lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory findings were as follows; white blood cell count: 3170 µL (neutrophil: 2720 µL, lymphocyte: 366 µL), hemoglobin level: 7.8 gr/dl, hematocrit: 25.5% platelets: 170.000 µL, CRP: 15.2 mg/L and serum IgG level: 1865 mg/dl. Her anti-HIV test yielde,d positive result and confirmed by Western blot assay, together with a high viral load (HIV-RNA: 3.442.000 copies/ml). She was started ART (lamivudine, zidovudine and lopinavir/ritonavir combination) with the diagnosis of stage 3 HIV infection (AIDS). Posteroanterior chest radiograph showed mediastinal extension and nodular parenchyma. Since the patient was suspected to have pulmonary tuberculosis based on the clinical and radiological findings, empirical antituberculosis therapy was started. Because of the insistance of fever, three different blood specimens, bone marrow and gastric aspirates were collected for culture, in which all of them yielded C.neoformans growth. She was then diagnosed as disseminated cryptococcosis and treated with liposomal amphotericin B and fluconazole successfully. Although pediatric HIV infection is usually diagnosed secondary to maternal disease, it can rarely be presented later in life with opportunistic infections. In the case of unusual infectious diseases, in addition to primary immune deficiency syndromes, HIV infection should also be kept in mind. Herein, we discussed a pediatric case with two rare infectious agents reported in our country and wanted to focus on secondary immune deficiency related with pediatric HIV infection. " } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1166, 1235 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 184, 196 ] ], "text": "Breaking up with a partner I understand is hard, but not exceptional." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 227, 392 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 40, 63 ] ], "text": "We first eliminate the most striking \"acute\" personality disorder. Personality accompanies us all our lives. There are no \"acute\" characteristics in our personality." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 414, 497 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 65, 83 ] ], "text": "There is a time criterion that is not met, it may be sad, but sad is not depression" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 516, 581 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 85, 98 ] ], "text": "if it was something like that we would have been told the context" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Post-traumatic stress reaction.", "2": "Acute\" dependent personality disorder.", "3": "Depressive disorder.", "4": "Agoraphobia.", "5": "Anguish crisis." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0691_18392", "title": "[Depressive symptoms in pathomimia: comorbidity or psychiatric factitious disorder?].", "score": 0.013958849141978997, "content": "The factitious disorders, more commonly known as pathomimia, are mainly expressed as organic symptoms voluntarily induced by the patient. Patients suffering from these disorders do not seek to obtain immediate secondary benefits, contrary to simulation. They send the physician a challenge, sometimes by means of self-mutilation, or exposure to a vital risk. Their objective is to raise the interest and the mobilization of the medical community. The patient will develop intense relationships with the medical staff, technically mobilized as well as emotionally, as far as the factitious character of the disorder is uncovered. In some cases, factious disorders are conditions in which a person acts as if he or she has a psychiatric disorder, by deliberately exhibiting psychiatric symptoms. Most often described are factitious acute psychotic disorders, mourning, affective disorders and post-traumatic stress disorders. Psychiatric factitious disorders are difficult to diagnose, but they share common diagnosis criteria with other pathomimias. These subjects may suffer from pathomimia because of the occurrence of other psychiatric symptoms, such as pathological personalities, adaptation disorders, abuse and/or dependence on alcohol or other substances, or depressive disorders. This paper describes three clinical cases of pathomimia, diagnosed after hospitalization in a psychiatric unit for depressive symptoms, as a correlate to their factitious or authentic character. Three case reports, describing patients with pathomimia hospitalized in a department of psychiatry for depressive disorders. The first case was a 57 year-old man considered as suffering from a bipolar disorder hospitalized for a depressive syndrome. The symptoms described and reported are those of a factitious disorder. The patient interrupted the medical care by asking to be discharged from the hospital. The second case was a young woman hospitalized following a suicide attempt. She has a history of multiple somatic and psychiatric factitious disorders. On admission she had depressive symptoms, more likely linked with a pathological personality, rather than with a major depressive episode. The third case presented a Munchausen syndrome. He was hospitalized for depressive symptoms. He had a comorbid major depressive episode. The prescription of antidepressants led to a significant clinical improvement. These three cases indicate that a real depressive syndrome may be observed with a patient suffering from pathomimia. Therefore, a neutral and complete psychiatric evaluation is necessary so as to not deprive these patients from the opportunity for an adapted treatment." }, { "id": "Psichiatry_DSM-5_1410", "title": "Psichiatry_DSM-5", "score": 0.011559056739779631, "content": "Anxiety disorders and obsessive-compulsive disorder. In OCD, there are recurrent intrusive thoughts, but these meet the definition of an obsession. In addition, the intrusive thoughts are not related to an experienced traumatic event, compulsions are usually pres- ent, and other symptoms of PTSD or acute stress disorder are typically absent. Neither the arousal and dissociative symptoms of panic disorder nor the avoidance, irritability, and anxiety of generalized anxiety disorder are associated with a specific traumatic event. The symptoms of separation anxiety disorder are clearly related to separation from home or family, rather than to a traumatic event. Major depressive disorder. Major depression may or may not be preceded by a trau- matic event and should be diagnosed if other PTSD symptoms are absent. Specifically, ma- jor depressive disorder does not include any PTSD Criterion B or C symptoms. Nor does it include a number of symptoms from PTSD Criterion D or E." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0573_15273", "title": "[Cerebral hydatic cyst and psychiatric disorders. Two cases].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The hydatidosis is an endemic illness in regions of the Middle Orient, Mediterranean, south of America, north Africa and the Australia. The preferential localization of cyst hydatic is the liver (48%), the lung (36%) and in 6% of cases it localizes in unaccustomed place as the brain. Intracerebral localization is relatively rare, its impact is 1 to 5% of all cases of hydatidose. This localization is the child's appendage with a masculine predominance. The cyst hydatic intracranien is often lone, of localization usually supratentorielle, sometimes infratentorielle. Symptoms are especially the diffuse headache associated to various neurological signs in relation with sits of the tumor. The psychiatrics symptoms depends on its localization, sides, intracranial hypertension, and the previous personality. In 15 to 20% of cases these tumors can appear in the beginning of their evolution by the isolated psychiatric symptoms. We report the case of two patients that have been hospitalized first in the Academic Psychiatric Unit of Marrakech for isolates psychiatric disorders and whose scanning revealed the presence of cerebral hydatic cyst and that required a surgical intervention in neurosurgery. Case 1 - Patient 29 years old, bachelor, uneducated, leaving in country outside, fermar, in permanent contact with dogs. No particular medical history. The patient has been brought by his family to the psychiatric emergencies after behavior disorders. The beginning of his symptomatology was one year ago by behavior disorders: instability, violence, isolation, and a corporo-sartorial carelessness. His symptomatology worsened and the patient became very aggressive. In psychiatric unit, he was disregarded, sad, anguished, indifferent to his state, very dissonant, completely detached, depersonalized. He brought back some visual and auditory hallucinations with attitude of monitoring. He was raving with delirium of persecution, of ideas of reference and delirium of bewithment. He was unconscious of his disorders. The patient has first been put under classical neuroleptic 9 mg/day of Haloperidol and 200 mg/day of chlorpromazine. The diagnosis of schizophrenia has been kept according to criteria of DSM IV. The PANSS (Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale) was to 137 (score on a positive scale was to 34, score on a negative scale was to 35 and the general psychopathologie scale was to 58). One week after his hospitalization, he developed headache with subconfusion, a cerebral scanning has been made in emergency and showed a voluminous cyst in oval foramen compressing the mesencephalon strongly. The cyst was well limited, hypodense, not taking the contrast, and without intracerebral oedema, the diagnosis of cerebral hydatic cyst has been made. The complementary exploration didn't show any other localizations, and biologic exam results didn't show any particular anomalies. The patient has been operated in neurosurgery. The immediate evolution was favorable with disappearance of confusion and absence of complications. The patient was lost of view. Six months after, the patient has been readmitted to the psychiatric emergency. He dropped his neuroleptic treatment. He was aggressive, raving, hallucinated and depersonalized. The global score to the PANSS was 63. He has been put back under neuroleptics. Three weeks after improvement and passage of the PANSS to 30, the patient went out. We couldn't have a cerebral scanner of control because the patient had no medical assurance and no money for cerebral scanner. Case 2 - Patient aged of 53 years, father of four children, uneducated, native and resident of Marrakech, confectioner as profession. He is in contact with dogs since 12 years. He has been brought to the psychiatric emergencies by his family after an agitation. The history of his illness seemed to go back at eight months ago, by the progressive apparition of an instability, sleep disorders, hostility, associated with an emotional lability. To the interview he was agitated and had a delirium of persecution. He was convinced that his wife and his children plotted against him. He had sad mood. He was anguished and had auditory and visual hallucinations. The patient was not confused but it had a hypoproxie, an fixing amnesia, a disorders of judgment and a light left hemiparesia. Cerebral scanner revealed three cerebral cyst. The first measuring 42 x 40 mm, sitting at the level parietal right, to the contact of the occipital horn, dragging his/her/its amputation and an effect of mass on ventricle homolateral, the median line and ventricle controlateral. The two other, at the level of the center semi oval, behind the first, measuring 23 mm and 15 mm on the big axis. The patient has been addressed in neurosurgery. He had a completeray exploration to search other localizations. The thoracic x-ray showed 2 pulmonary cyts. The abdominal scan and imagery by magnetic resonance showed liver cyst, peri-heart cyst and mediastinal cyst. The patient has been operated for these three cysts with good recuperation on the psychiatric and neurological symptoms. He has been addressed in heart surgery for the heart localization. The hydatidose is an endemic illness in Morocco and constitute a public health problem. The cerebral localization is rare and appear by signs of cerebral hypertension and signs of focusing. The psychiatric demonstrations are rare but preserve a major interest, by the therapeutic measure specificity that they impose. Of course, the surgical ablation of the tumor can be sufficient to attenuate the psychiatric symptoms but the recourse to a specific treatment can prove to be necessary to act on the precise targets. We are conscious of the methodological difficulties that present these 2 cases but there are unfortunately due to the financial difficulties of our patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0754_14202", "title": "Female same gender stalking: a brief review of the literature and case report.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The authors analyze a rare case of female same gender stalking that came to their observation as forensic psychiatry experts. Despite previously only heterosexual experiences, the woman, who was 30 in 2002, had three intimate same gender relationships in succession from 2002 to 2009: she broke off with each woman in order to take up with another. When she separated from the third woman she began violent persecutory behavior against her, in the form of harassment coming under the heading of stalking, and was reported to the authorities. In treatment with SSRI since 2003 for an anxiety disorder with panic episodes, she had been taking the drugs irregularly during the stalking period. At the end of the third relationship, after she had violently attacked her girlfriend she was advised by her family to present to a Hospital center in Northern Italy. There, she was diagnosed with a \"Narcissistic Paranoid Personality Disorder\", and it was hypothesized that the SSRI she was taking could have induced hypo/manic episodes and disinhibition in the woman, who had previously been heterosexual. At this hospital, mood stabilizers were prescribed. The defending lawyer therefore applied for a forensic psychiatry assessment, claiming that the persecutory behavior against the third girlfriend was induced by taking SSRI. In Italy the penal code specifies the recognition of abolished or diminished liability for crimes if a correlation between the mental disease and the crime can be demonstrated, if the disease was in course at the time of the crime, and if the motives behind the crime and the disease can be shown to be linked. In short, if the crime can be shown to be a symptom of the disease. But the forensic psychiatry assessment demonstrated that despite the presence of some factors of a psychopathological nature, the motives underlying the harassment were attributable to the woman's existential history and personality structure rather than to psychopathological causes. She was therefore judged guilty of the crime of stalking and a plea for a reduced sentence was granted. In this case, the gender of the stalker and victim seemed to be irrelevant." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en045_2747", "title": "Acute stress disorder", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "History The term \"acute stress disorder\" was first used to describe the symptoms of soldiers during World War I and II, and it was therefore also termed \"combat stress reaction\" (CSR). Approximately 20% of U.S. troops displayed symptoms of CSR during WWII. It was assumed to be a temporary response of healthy individuals to witnessing or experiencing traumatic events. Symptoms include depression, anxiety, withdrawal, confusion, paranoia, and sympathetic hyperactivity. The APA officially included the term ASD in the DSM-IV in 1994. Before that, symptomatic individuals within the first month of trauma were diagnosed with adjustment disorder. According to the DSM-IV, acute stress reaction refers to the symptoms experienced immediately to 48 hours after exposure to a traumatic event. In contrast, acute stress disorder is defined by symptoms experienced 48 hours to one month following the event. Symptoms experienced for longer than one month are consistent with a diagnosis of PTSD." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en020_58971", "title": "Jenny Jones (presenter)", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Controversy On an episode called \"Same-Sex Secret Crushes\" taped on March 6, 1995, a gay man named Scott Amedure confessed his love for an acquaintance, Jonathan Schmitz. While on the show, Schmitz reacted with laughter; three days after the show's taping, he killed Amedure. He was later convicted of second degree murder and received a sentence of 25–50 years in prison. Amedure's family then sued the producers of The Jenny Jones Show, saying they should have known about Schmitz's history of mental illness. In interviews, Jones said the producers told Schmitz that his admirer could be a man, but Schmitz thought that the admirer was a woman. Jones also said that the show didn't want Schmitz to know the outcome of his secret crush. Amedure's family won the initial ruling, and the show was ordered to pay them $25 million. The verdict was later overturned by the Michigan appellate court." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0708_22294", "title": "[Mood disorder after malaria prophylaxis with mefloquine (two case reports)].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Mefloquine (Lariam) is the drug of choice as malaria prophylaxis for travel to chloroquine-resistant areas. Severe neuropsychiatric side effects are rare. We report two clinical cases of mood disorders: mania and a major depressive episode with psychotic characteristics in two patients with mefloquine antimalarial prophylaxis. FIRST CLINICAL CASE: A 31-year-old man had taken mefloquine at a rate of 250mg/week as malaria prophylaxis for his mission in Democratic Republic of Congo. He developed mania with psychotic symptoms after taking five tablets of 250mg of mefloquine. He exhibited an elevated mood and also developed delusions of grandeur, reference and persecution, with auditory hallucinations. The physical examination and the blood laboratory tests were normal. The patient was treated with an atypical neuroleptic (olanzapine 20mg/d) leading to a complete resolution of symptomatology at the end of 3 weeks. SECOND CLINICAL CASE: A 27-year-old man presented a major depressive episode with psychotic symptoms after 1 week on his return from a stay in Democratic Republic of Congo, where he had taken mefloquine during 6 months as malaria prophylaxis (250mg/week). His physical examination and investigations (full blood test, serology and MRN) were normal. The patient was treated with clomipramine (150mg/d) and olanzapine (20mg/d). The outcome was favorable after 4 weeks. Mefloquine is widely accepted as a safe and effective treatment and a prophylactic agent for chlorquine-resistant malaria. Common neuropsychiatric adverse effects of mefloquine can occur in up to 40% of patients, such as dizziness, sleep disturbances, anorexia, ataxia, and fatigue. Other more serious adverse reactions are rare. They are represented primarily by panic attacks, convulsions, acute psychosis, paranoid delusions, suicidal ideation, disorders of mood: major depressive episode and the manic excitation. The incidence of such neuropsychiatric effects is 1/10,000 to 1/15,000 during the prophylactic treatment. The causal mechanism for the side effects is not known. Several risk factors increasing the neurotoxicity of mefloquine can be identified, the patient with personal or family history of psychiatric disorders are more frequently concerned. Alcohol and the association with other drugs (like quinine) are two other risk factors. It is relevant for medical practitioners to be aware of the severe neuropsychiatric side effects of mefloquine as malaria prophylaxis. It requires investigation of the risk factors such as personal or family history of psychiatric disorders." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_90788", "title": "History of mental disorders", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "16th to 18th centuries" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en247_7681", "title": "Self-embedding", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The majority of people who engage in self-embedding are white teenage females with psychiatric diagnoses. Self-embedding has a high comorbidity with other psychological disorders such as post-traumatic stress disorder, dissociative disorder, and borderline personality disorder. Additionally, deliberate self-harm is associated with externalizing pathology such as oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder. Adolescents who self-injure have higher mean depression scores and report more depressive symptoms than adolescents who do not self-injure. They also report more symptoms of anxiety. Life stressors such as sexual abuse, witnessing family violence or experiencing a traumatic event have also been found to be associated with deliberate self-harm. The frequency and the presence of deliberate self-harm are correlated with the number of stressful life events adolescents report. Adolescents with a history of deliberate self-harm report more stressful life events and those with" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en033_91054", "title": "Psychiatric history", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Source and method of presentation The next step is to determine why the patient is there. How did they get to be in the interview? Were they referred by someone (such as another clinician, a relative or friend, or by the police or the courts) or did they come looking for help? If they were referred by someone then what was that person's reason for the referral. Often such information is provided in a referral letter or by an earlier phone call. The main (chief) complaints The clinician next tries to clarify what are the main problems that have brought the patient to be there. Some of this may have already been achieved in the previous section. The patient may have more than one problem and these may be related, such as posttraumatic stress disorder and alcohol abuse or seemingly unrelated, such as panic disorder and premature ejaculation. The patient is unlikely to present a diagnosis and is more likely to describe the nature of their problems in common language." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0573_15297", "title": "[Pseudo-dementia conversion and post-traumatic stress disorder].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is often associated with other psychiatric syndromes. However, studies exploring conversion and PTSD comorbidity are scarce. This paper reports the case of a 45 year-old patient without medical or psychiatric history. In 2003, he suddenly started suffering from amnesia and symptoms of delirium: he was at his office with a cup of coffee but he did not remember why. Aphasia, trembling, behavioural disorders appeared over the next hours and days. Numerous neurological examinations and laboratory tests (including cerebral imagery) were performed without evidence of any physical disease. Three psychiatric examinations were also negative, even if a possible psychogenic origin was hypothesized. Neurological or psychiatric diagnoses were discussed but without definitive conclusion. One year later, the symptoms were unchanged until the patient watched a movie (\"Mystic River\") that described the story of a man with sexual abuse in childhood. He suddenly remembered that he lived the same experience when he was 8 years old. At the end of the movie, his wife surprisingly noticed that he was walking and speaking normally. All the neurological symptoms disappeared. Unfortunately, symptoms of a severe PTSD appeared, as well as a major depressive disorder. The patient and his parents remembered that he had been more irritable, depressed and anxious at school and during the night, between 8 and 13 years of age, with a possible PTSD during this period. He always refused to talk with his parents about the traumatic event. When he was 13, the family moved house, the patient seemed to forget everything and the symptoms disappeared. About thirty years later, the symptoms were similar with the reexperien of the traumatic event through unwanted recollections, distressing images, nightmares, or flashbacks. He had also symptoms of hyperarousal with physiological manifestations, such as irritability, insomnia, impaired concentration, hypervigilance, and increased startle reactions. Hospitalisation became necessary because of a severe depressive disorder with suicidal ideation and suicidal attempt by hanging. After two failed treatments with SSRI antidepressants, the administration of clomipramine (200 mg/d) and a combined therapy with Eyes Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) led to a significant improvement of PTSD and depression symptoms. Even if PTSD and conversion may share common dissociative mechanisms, the links between both syndromes have not yet been sufficiently explored. Our clinical case raises specifically the question of the initial manifestations of pseudo-dementia (why this type of symptoms, and why at this particular moment of his life, without any targeting events). Moreover, the case of this patient is particularly interesting because of the very long amnesia period between the traumatic event and the onset of PTSD. The different phases of this case warrant more precise exploration of the links between PTSD and conversion, with clinical, epidemiological and cerebral imagery perspectives." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_92483", "title": "Dookie", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The hit single \"Basket Case\", which appeared on many singles charts worldwide, was also inspired by Armstrong's personal experiences. The song deals with Armstrong's anxiety attacks and feelings of \"going crazy\" prior to being diagnosed with a panic disorder. In the third verse, \"Basket Case\" references soliciting a male prostitute; Armstrong noted that \"I wanted to challenge myself and whoever the listener might be. It's also looking at the world and saying, 'It's not as black and white as you think. This isn't your grandfather's prostitute – or maybe it was.' \" The music video was filmed in an abandoned mental institution. It is one of the band's most popular songs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0083_1204", "title": "[A rare and little-known method of elaborating the loss of the object in melancholia].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The author presents a fully detailed report of the observation of two economically secure young women who were caught shop-lifting in a large department store; one woman was apprehended while suffering from depression, the other was caught just prior to the onset of a depressive episode. It is hoped that the details referred here may contribute to the insufficient data published on this subject up to the present. It is important to note that the thefts committed by these patients show the typical characteristics of \"impulsive behavior\". Furthermore, the impulse to steal may appear in various psychiatric conditions. Therefore, the author first considered the hypothesis that these thefts may have been computed during an acute dysthymic psychosis. Epilepsy was ruled out in both cases based on anamnestic data, electroencephalographic findings and, even after the administration of a pharmacological trigger, no epileptic symptoms appeared. These negative results prompted the author to propose a psychosemeiogenetic rapport between the depressive conditions and the thefts. Considering basic information regarding the psychodynamic of impulsive behavior in general, and that manifested in the course of melancholia in particular, the author confronts the problem of the psychosemeiogenesis of the impulsive to steal in the depressed patient. In order to understand this problem, the author proposes several interpretative hypotheses (equivalence of suicide or \"parasuicide\" according to Deshaies; attempt to give a concrete reason for the \"feeling of guilt\"; conduct to symbolically compensate the loss of the \"object\"). Following an in-depth, critical discussion, the author concludes that the \"parasuicide\" hypothesis is most accurate in the case of the first patient, whereas \"compensation\" more adequately explains the second. In conclusion, the interest that these cases present in the forensic medical sphere is also brought to light." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en032_78372", "title": "Combat stress reaction", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Combat stress reaction is an acute reaction that includes a range of behaviors resulting from the stress of battle that decrease the combatant's fighting efficiency. The most common symptoms are fatigue, slower reaction times, indecision, disconnection from one's surroundings, and the inability to prioritize. Combat stress reaction is generally short-term and should not be confused with acute stress disorder, post-traumatic stress disorder, or other long-term disorders attributable to combat stress, although any of these may commence as a combat stress reaction. The US Army uses the term/acronym COSR (Combat Stress Reaction) in official medical reports. This term can be applied to any stress reaction in the military unit environment. Many reactions look like symptoms of mental illness (such as panic, extreme anxiety, depression, and hallucinations), but they are only transient reactions to the traumatic stress of combat and the cumulative stresses of military operations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0403_5555", "title": "[The concept of anniversary reaction - an explanation for the onset of depression].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "In this contribution, the concept of anniversary reaction is explained and elucidated by a paradigmatic case-report. The influence of a certain date, e.g. birthday, on mortality is epidemiologically well proven. The psychoanalytical comprehension of anniversary reaction emphasizes the significant coherence to a biographical trauma. An anniversary reaction emerges on a specific date or age of life that reminds and actualises the conflict attached to the trauma. The anniversary reaction may appear in the shape of a psychic or an organic disease. In the case described, the anniversary reaction emerged on the anniversary of the death of the partner of life that had initially been followed by pathological mourning." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en157_48046", "title": "Stress-related disorders", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "These defenses prevent person from knowing what is wrong, but they do not prevent us from feeling bad. Stress as in clinical medicine Acute stress disorder Acute stress disorder occurs in individuals without any other apparent psychiatric disorder, in response to exceptional physical or psychological stress. While severe, such reactions usually subside within hours or days. The stress may be an overwhelming traumatic experience (e.g. accident, battle, physical assault, rape) or unusually sudden change in social circumstances of the individual, such as multiple bereavement. Individual vulnerability and coping capacity play a role in the occurrence and severity of acute stress reactions, as evidenced by the fact that not all people exposed to exceptional stress develop symptoms. However, an acute stress disorder falls under the class of an anxiety disorder." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en556_8111", "title": "Hilde Purwin", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Someone who did commit suicide at the end of April 1945 was Adolf Hitler. A couple of weeks earlier he gave orders that all the Ciano papers should be destroyed. However, Hilde Beetz had somehow got hold of two volumes of Ciano diaries that had been left by Edda while a patient at the \"La Ramiola\" clinic at Parma shortly before her husband was executed. These covered the important pre-war period from 1937 till 1939. It is not clear whether Beetz had the originals or merely micro-fiched copies of them. In the summer of 1944, by now back in Weimar living with her mother in the house where she had grown up, she was instructed to produce translations of them all. These, it turns out, are the papers (or possibly only some of the papers) identified in the US intelligence report produced by Lt. Col. Andrew H. Berding in June 1945. Beetz had sorted them and hid them in her parents' garden during the early months of 1945. They were buried in a tin under a bed of roses which has led to them" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en029_36780", "title": "Adjustment disorder", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Common characteristics of Adjustment disorder include mild depressive symptoms, anxiety symptoms, and traumatic stress symptoms or a combination of the three. According to the DSM-5, there are six types of Adjustment disorder, which are characterized by the following predominant symptoms: depressed mood, anxiety, mixed depression and anxiety, disturbance of conduct, mixed disturbance of emotions and conduct, and unspecified. However, the criteria for these symptoms are not specified in greater detail. Adjustment disorder may be acute or chronic, depending on whether it lasts more or less than six months. According to the DSM-5, if the Adjustment disorder lasts less than six months, then it may be considered acute. If it lasts more than six months, it may be considered chronic. Moreover, the symptoms cannot last longer than six months after the stressor(s), or its consequences, have terminated. However, the stress-related disturbance does not only exist as an exacerbation of a" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en231_18906", "title": "List of Mad Men characters", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Arnold Wayne Dr. Arnold Wayne (Andy Umberger) is Betty's psychiatrist during the first season, who she began seeing because of her problem with her hands going numb unexpectedly in the wake of her mother's death. While she is seeing him, Dr. Wayne is secretly in contact with Don to discuss her sessions, which Betty finds out about in the Season 1 finale. She uses that to her advantage by confiding in Dr. Wayne her anger at Don's infidelity, knowing that the doctor will report the session to Don. Abigail Whitman Abigail Whitman is the stepmother of Dick Whitman and the mother of Adam Whitman. She was married to Archie Whitman and had recently miscarried when a midwife gave her Dick, the child of Archie and the prostitute Evangeline, to raise. However, Abigail resented Dick and regularly referred to him as a \"whore's son.\" Don greatly hated Abigail in return; in Season 1's \"5G\", when Adam tells Don that Abigail has died, Don's response is, \"Good.\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0941_5569", "title": "Post-traumatic psychiatric disorders: PTSD is not the only diagnosis.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Traumatic events and their consequences are often hidden or minimised by patients for reasons linked to the post-traumatic stress disorder itself (inexpressibility, shame, depressive thoughts, fear of stigmatisation, etc.). Although post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) remains the most widely known disorder, chronic post-traumatic psychiatric disorders are many and varied. After a trauma, the practitioner has to check for the different clinical forms of post-traumatic psychological consequences: PTSD is not the only diagnosis. Based on our own clinical experience compared to the international literature, we think necessary to build a didactic classification describing chronic post-traumatic symptoms and syndromes. Post traumatic depressions and bereavement lead to high risk of suicidal crisis and self-harm behaviours. Re-experiencing are felt with anxiety, hyper arousal increases anxious reactivity, and avoidance strategies increase anticipatory anxiety, indicating post-traumatic anxiety disorders (agoraphobia, specific phobia, obsessive compulsive disorder, separation anxiety, social phobia). Characterising an often-severe clinical picture, the co-occurrence of post-traumatic and chronic psychotic symptoms is not unusual (post-traumatic schizophrenia, post-traumatic depression with mood-congruent psychotic features, non-schizophrenic post-traumatic psychotic disorder, and bipolar reaction to trauma). A physical injury occurring at the same time as a traumatic exposure increases the risk of developing post-traumatic stress disorder later which, in turn, afflicts the subjective perception of the physical health (development of somatoform and psychosomatic disorders, comorbidity with a post-concussion syndrome). The trauma may cause a rupture in the biography of a person, also in his/her internal physiological functioning as in his/her social activities (impacts of instinctive functions and behaviours, personality changes, and adjustment difficulties on professional and personal life). Although a nomenclature is necessary for semiological descriptions, a thorough analysis of the patient's general psychological functioning must also be conducted." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0648_4352", "title": "[Drop-out from a mental health centre after the first contact].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Many patients drop-out from treatment after a single contact; however, characteristics have only rarely been investigated. We aimed at estimating the frequency of early drop-out and identifying possible risk factors. The study was performed at the Palestrina Mental Health Centre, located near Rome, Italy. The clinical charts of all first-time attenders who did not come back during a 7-year index period (2000-2006) were reviewed and information was collected on sociodemographic factors, psychiatric history, clinical presentation, and process of care. During the index period, 97 of 1.001 first-time attenders dropped out after the first contact. We excluded patients with symptoms of organic (N = 9) or severe mental disorders (N = 3). Of the remaining 85 patients, 49 presented with symptoms related to life events or situations (\"reactive symptoms\", RS), while 36 had \"non-reactive symptoms\" (NRS). Eighty-five randomly selected patients with comparable conditions (psychogenic reaction; anxiety, dysthymic or somatoform disorder; ICD-9 code 300.x, 308.x, 309.x) who came back to visit were included as controls. First-only contact patients tended to present with RS more often (58% vs. 43%) than controls. Therefore, the analyses were stratified for reactivity of symptoms. Among patients with NRS, first-only contact patients tended to be younger than controls. Among patients with RS, time until the next appointment tended to be longer in first-only contact patients than in controls. No other differences were observed between first-only contact patients and controls on sociodemographic variables, source of referral, and previous treatment history. The occurrence of early drop-out was relatively low. The higher prevalence of RS among first-only contact patients may suggest a greater disposition towards conflict or ambivalence in interpersonal situations. Patient-perceived service availability, in the form of shorter appointment delay, seems to promote maintenance of contact. Younger patients who tend to be at higher risk of early drop-out deserve increased clinical attention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1000_3195", "title": "Transitions, Suicidality, and Underappreciated Autism Spectrum Disorder in a High School Student.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Alex is a 14-year-old Portuguese-American boy with a psychiatric history starting at age 5 who presents to your primary care practice after an insurance change.He was delivered prematurely at 32 weeks and diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism at the age of 6 weeks and growth hormone deficiency at the age of 2 years; he is in active treatment for both. He otherwise met developmental milestones on time yet continues to have significant fatigue despite adequate sleep and vitamin D supplementation.His family history is remarkable for maternal anxiety, depression, suicidal thoughts, and previous attempted suicide, as well as anxiety, alcoholism, depression, and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in the extended family.Alex has had multiple psychiatric diagnoses by sequential providers. He was diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder and ADHD by 5 years of age, major depressive disorder by 11 years of age, persistent depressive disorder by 12 years of age, and ultimately disruptive mood dysregulation disorder because of severe and persistent temper outbursts associated with negative mood and behavioral dysregulation, leading to recurrent crisis evaluations. He has been psychiatrically hospitalized twice, in the fifth and seventh grade, for suicidal ideation (SI) and elopement from home, respectively. He recently completed a 2-week acute residential placement, during which no medication changes were made. Current medications include escitalopram 20 mg daily, guanfacine 1 mg 3 times daily, sustained release bupropion 100 mg twice daily, levothyroxine, vitamin D, and a weekly somatropin injection. He has not been able to tolerate psychostimulants or nonstimulant agents because of treatment-emergent SI.Now in the ninth grade, he continues to be easily distracted by peers, with impulsive behaviors and reduced self-regulation. Despite receiving special education services since the fifth grade, his academic performance has been poor, and he has limited motivation. Previous testing indicated average in an intelligence quotient test, with relative deficits in working memory compared with above average strength in fluid reasoning. He dislikes school and has few friends. He has always been noted to be \"immature.\" He displays temper tantrums at home and school around transitions and behavioral expectations and has complained of feeling \"different\" and misunderstood by peers in addition to having difficulty reading social cues. His interests include acting and playing Fortnite and other video/computer games. His screen time is limited to 1 to 2 hr/d by the family.As the new clinician, you raise the possibility of undiagnosed autism spectrum disorder as a unifying/underlying diagnosis with his mother, who disagrees and does not consent to additional workup despite your recommendations. How would you proceed with next steps to best support your patient and his family in obtaining further clarifying evaluation?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0053_4349", "title": "[On trigger experience of a group of anxiety neurotics--its psychopathology and therapeutic utilization].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "There is a group of anxiety neurotics, characterized by trigger experience (specific experience that triggers the anxiety attack at the initial phase of the illness). These are the patients, whose chief clinical manifestation is anxiety attack and anticipatory anxiety, with the additional feature of the recognizable trigger experience. Because of this additional feature, psychotherapeutic approach is often made in these cases. In this article, we present 7 such cases, in which we attempted psychotherapeutic approach with the special emphasis on the reconstruction of their trigger experience. Then we discuss the characteristics of the trigger experience and the therapeutic utilization of its reconstruction. The basic structure of their trigger experience is as follows. 'The experience of being taken by surprise, and shaken off something, which they believed to be, or tried to believe to be, firm and secure to them'. This 'something' is mainly concerned with their self-image. The self-image of 'the person who is healthy and has nothing to do with death, disease and madness' is common to all cases. But they also get different features, and can be divided into 3 subtypes, according to the difference in their self-images. 1. Compulsive-phobic type (case 1, 2, 3); 'the harmless person without impulsiveness and aggression'. 2. Hysterical type (case 4, 5, 6); 'the good mother, doing their best for their children, suppressing their own desire'. 3. Narcissistic type (case 7); 'the manly, energetic and ambitious person'. Symbolically speaking, in the contrast of 'ordinariness and extraordinariness', 'something familiar and something unfamiliar and uncanny', they exclude 'extraordinariness, something unfamiliar and uncanny', and rely only on 'ordinariness, something familiar'. They are clinging to the world of 'ordinariness', and thrown into confusion and anxiety when they catch a glimpse of the world of 'extraordinariness', which they have tried desperately to exclude from their life until then. Therapeutic efficacy of the reconstruction of the trigger experience is summarized in 3 factors as follows. 1. Explanation of their pathogenesis. It is a grave shock to them that the anxiety attack has occurred 'out of the blue' and 'with no reason'. In addition to the general explanation of the pathogenesis of anxiety neurosis, it is a relief to them that the explanation for each individual is possible. 2. Reinforcement of the transference cure ('faith care'). By putting into words what they did not make explicit until then, their belief in the therapist is intensified, and the function of the therapist of endowing them with the basis of security is reinforced.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0801_11078", "title": "[Reactive anxiety crisis and chronic adjustment disorder: a unique case of work injury and suspected occupational disease].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The present study aims to describe a case of work injury and occupational disease which is unique for the type of disease diagnosed, conditions of onset and mode of management by INAIL (Italian National Institute of Insurance for Injuries at Work and Occupational Diseases). A worker, after a verbal animated dispute with some collegues and superiors, had an acute psychiatric agitation attack and went to the nearest emergency room, where he was subjected to clinical exams. No neuropsychiatric alteration was found, but the physicians diagnosed an anxiety crisis reactive to the work environment. Consequently, the medical certificate for work injury was edited and sent to INAIL. The worker has been off work for 110 days because of a anxious and depressive syndrome, due to the verbal conflict. In a later assessment, INAIL recognized only the first 30 days of the employee's time off as injury at work, while judging the following period off work as related to affectivity disturbance due to common disease, not related to work environment. The following year, \"anxious-depressive syndrome\" is worsened and attributed by the same worker to the recurrence of acts of persecution and discrimination against him at work. For this reason he applied for recognition of occupational disease diagnosed as \"Chronic Adjustment Disorder with prolonged depressive reaction and somatic anxiety, which developed into a protracted conflict marked the employment situation\". INAIL rejected that request, but in the same year the employee has submitted the complaint for \"mobbing\". Even this request was rejected. Literature shows many examples of traumatic events during working activities which cause psychiatric disturbances. These events include industrial disasters, explosions, transport and mining accidents, accidents in psychiatric units with high risks of assaults, armed conflicts, war, assault and sexual assault, natural disasters. Victims show symptoms of acute stress disorder (ASD) or post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Cases of acute stress disorder resulting only from verbal conflict recognised as work injury aren't currently described. This case opens new perspective for the occupational physician in the assessment of ASD as work injury and of PTSD as professional disease, suggesting to put more attention to psychiatric health of workers." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en033_91052", "title": "Psychiatric history", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "This article mainly covers the initial assessment history taking of a patient presenting for the first time with a new complaint. Background In the field of medicine a patient history is an account of the significant events in the patient's life that have a relevance to the issue being addressed. The clinician taking the history guides the process in an attempt to achieve a succinct summary of these relevant details. Much of the history is obtained by asking questions. Some of these questions are quite specific, such as, \"How old are you?\" and others are more open, such as, \"How have you been feeling lately?\" Although the structure of the interview may appear disjointed, the end result is usually under a set of headings which have a worldwide similarity." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_208191", "title": "Agoraphobia", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Agoraphobia is believed to be due to a combination of genetic and environmental factors. The condition often runs in families, and stressful or traumatic events such as the death of a parent or being attacked may be a trigger. In the DSM-5 agoraphobia is classified as a phobia along with specific phobias and social phobia. Other conditions that can produce similar symptoms include separation anxiety, post-traumatic stress disorder, and major depressive disorder. The diagnosis of agoraphobia has been shown to be comorbid with depression, substance abuse, and suicide ideation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_90795", "title": "History of mental disorders", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "19th century" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1142_1758", "title": "Psychiatric reaction of an intensive care unit survivor in the context of coronavirus disease 2019: a case report.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "The coronavirus disease 2019 pandemic has had a serious impact on global mental health, particularly in intensive care unit survivors. Given the lethal potential and unpredictability of coronavirus disease 2019, a high risk of posttraumatic stress disorder was identified in the beginning of the crisis. There are insufficient details in current literature and no official guidelines available for the treatment and follow-up of acute stress disorder and the prevention of posttraumatic stress disorder for intensive care unit survivors in the context of coronavirus disease 2019. We hereby describe a 67-year-old Swiss patient presenting a psychiatric reaction in the context of coronavirus disease 2019. He was admitted to the intensive care unit due to severe acute respiratory distress syndrome from severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 and intubated for 13 days. Afterwards, there was a severe worsening of acute renal failure prompting hemodialysis, and he developed delirium. Psychiatric liaison was requested 4 days post-intubation because the patient presented residual symptoms of delirium, false memories about the real context of his medical care, and ideas of persecution toward medical caregivers. He suffered from a very strong peritraumatic reaction, then developed an acute stress disorder linked with his care on the intensive care unit. We looked for strategies to prevent progression from acute stress disorder to posttraumatic stress disorder. We proceeded to the following therapeutic interventions: intensive psychiatric follow-up, intensive care unit diary, and low-dose antipsychotic treatment. The aim of our psychotherapeutic approach was to allow him to increase his feeling of security and to cope with the reality of his traumatic experience. He showed clinical improvement in his mental state after 3 months, despite several predictive factors of evolution to post-intensive care unit posttraumatic stress disorder. This case report illustrates how a delusional clinical presentation after intensive care in the context of coronavirus disease 2019 can hide psychotraumatic symptoms. It is important to highlight that the intensive care unit diary completed by the intensive care team and the follow-up by the psychiatric liaison team helped the patient reconstruct an appropriate and coherent account. Further studies are needed to determine the psychiatric effects of coronavirus disease 2019 and to assess early and appropriate psychiatric intervention for patients hospitalized for coronavirus disease 2019 to prevent posttraumatic stress disorder." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0889_25158", "title": "[The Psychiatric Archives: An Opportunity to Grasp the Patient's Experience (in Belgium during the inter-war years)].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "This paper presents an exploratory reflection on the question of individual experience by patients in psychiatric institutions, in its historical dimension. Are such experiences comprehensible through an analysis of the archives originating in the hospital? This reflection forms part of a study concerning the circumstances in which women were placed in psychiatric institutions, in Belgium during interwar period (1918-1940); its ultimate objective is to come to an understanding of the social, individual and familial situations that lead to a decision to intern a woman in a closed psychiatric institution. Here, the concept of experience is used to ascertain whether a different understanding of psychiatry is viable, that is to say, to understand it as a personal life-story and as a social fact. Could we, by dint of the psychiatric archives produced by medical institutions, go beyond institutional and medical issues, so as to understand how those placed in a psychiatric institution lived through their mental illness? The objective of this article is also to prepare several methodological markers with respect to issues of interpretation, of individual experience and of emotion. This article is not so much a summing-up of the results of research conducted in psychiatric archives, but rather a deliberation on the historian's approach and appropriate course of action on the question of first-hand experience in psychiatry." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1063_2969", "title": "Brief psychotic disorder associated with quarantine and mild COVID-19.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "A 30-year-old man with no significant previous or family psychiatric history became severely anxious about his health after a positive COVID-19 test. Physical symptoms of COVID-19 were mild, with no evidence of hypoxia or pneumonia, throughout his illness. He was admitted to a quarantine facility. He remained highly anxious, and 1 week later, he developed paranoid delusions and auditory hallucinations (his first psychotic episode). He was treated with lorazepam 1 mg four times a day, mirtazapine 30 mg nocte and risperidone 1 mg two times a day. His psychotic symptoms lasted 1 week. He stopped psychiatric medication after 4 weeks and had remained well when reviewed 3 months later. A Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders fifth edition diagnosis of brief psychotic disorder with marked stressor (brief reactive psychosis) was made. Anxiety about his health and social isolation appeared the main aetiological factors but an inflammatory component cannot be excluded. The case highlights that first episode psychosis can be associated with mild COVID-19." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en594_11932", "title": "The Diary of the Rose", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Commentary The concept of \"political psychosis\" can be compared with Orwellian \"thoughtcrimes\". The whole setup of the story is reminiscent of the punitive psychiatry in the Soviet Union. Some critics link the novelette with the Orsinian cycle, however in the introduction to the collection Where on Earth Ursula Le Guin remarked that while the protagonist has an Orsinian name, she would rather think that the events took place in South America rather than in Orsinia. When asked in an interview about her Orwellian-type stories, \"The New Atlantis\", \"SQ\", and \"The Diary of the Rose\", Ursula Le Guin commented: Those three stories arose out of rage and fear at the institutionalised cruelty and stupidity of national governments-abroad and at home. None of them is more than slightly exaggerated. It is hard for a story to come close to the terrible reality of government-directed punishment of dissent and government-directed torture." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1165_13051", "title": "Long-Term Retrograde Global Amnesia Following Minor Trauma.", "score": 0.008620689655172414, "content": "BACKGROUND Retrograde amnesia has several causes and may be the core concern in several conditions. When acute, somatic, and neurologic causes are excluded, along with substance use, a consideration of psychiatric disease is imminent. Here, we present a case with amnesia, where diagnostics and treatment were challenging due to severe psychiatric symptoms and course of the disease. CASE REPORT After a minor trauma while driving an electric scooter, a 41-year-old man lost all memories of the past 20 years. The patient was raised in a refugee camp, where he experienced traumatic events, and later came to Denmark and established family and work life. He had 1 prior contact with the psychiatric ward. After the incident, the patient was brought to the emergency room. The patient could not recognize his wife or children and believed he was 21 years old and living with his mother in the refugee camp. A full somatic and neurological workup was performed and no somatic or organic cause could explain the retrograde amnesia. He developed post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and psychotic symptoms. Treatment consisted of a combination of psychoeducation, cognitive remediation, and medical treatment for psychotic symptoms and PTSD. CONCLUSIONS The diagnosis \"prolonged delirium\", \"PTSD\", and \"dissociative amnesia\" were considered. Psychiatric comorbidity and previous traumatic experiences might have contributed to the development of long-term amnesia, which eventually was considered to be dissociative. During 8 months, the patient slowly regained his memory. It is impossible to conclude with certainty whether the successful outcome was the result of psychological treatment, pharmacological treatment, the passing of time, or a mixture of these." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Inject an intravenous anticholinergic.", "2": "Do not treat until an electroencephalogram is performed in the following days.", "3": "Do not treat until the result of the cerebrospinal fluid culture is known in the next few days.", "4": "Call the on-call psychiatrist.", "5": "Start an intravenous antibiotic after obtaining a pharyngeal swab." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en201_27434", "title": "Kay's Tutor v Ayrshire & Arran Health Board", "score": 0.013917054356038013, "content": "\"Meningitis is a disease which causes inflammation of one or more of the three membranes which envelop the central nervous system consisting of the brain and spinal chord. The three membranes are the dura mater, the arachnoid and the pia mater. Between the arachnoid and the underlying pia mater is the subarachnoid space, which is filled with cerebro-spinal fluid (CSF). The general practitioner had treated the respiratory infection with ampicillin administered orally, but due to vomiting its therapeutic effect may have been to some extent frustrated. On admission to hospital Andrew was found to be seriously ill. He was treated with benzyl penicillin and sulphadiazine administered intravenously. A specimen of CSF was taken and sent for analysis. On the following day, 29 November, the laboratory reported that two cultures of pneumococci had been cultivated from the specimen. This led to a confirmed diagnosis of pneumococcal meningitis, a most virulent form of the disease. The consultant" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0748_617", "title": "Pearls and oy-sters: tuberculous meningitis: not a diagnosis of exclusion.", "score": 0.013858195211786372, "content": "A 21-year-old man presented to his local emergency department with 5 days of headache, which was dull, occipital, bilateral, nonthrobbing, and progressively worsening. It was associated with mild fever, photophobia, and neck pain and stiffness. He had no history of headache, chronic illness, recent vaccinations, cutaneous rash, cough, diarrhea, arthralgia, or myalgia. He was from Ecuador and had been living in the United States for less than 1 year. He had been incarcerated while in Ecuador. Sublingual temperature on admission was 102.6°F. Other vital signs were within normal limits. On physical examination, he appeared thin but not cachectic. He had meningismus and photophobia, but no papilledema and his mental status was alert and attentive. There were no focal neurologic deficits. CSF contained red blood cells: 24 × 10(3)/μL; white blood cells: 85/μL (lymphocytic predominant); protein: 128 mg/dL; and glucose: 48 mg/dL (CSF/serum glucose ratio = 0.53). CSF Gram stain and cultures, PPD test, and blood and urine cultures were all negative. CT scan of the head on day of admission was entirely normal. MRI without gadolinium contrast showed a single punctate T2 hyperintensity in the left frontal periventricular white matter. Chest radiograph was clear. He received empiric vancomycin, ceftriaxone, and acyclovir. Corticosteroids were not given. The patient did not improve with antibiotics and continued to be intermittently febrile. On day 5, he became abruptly more somnolent, then comatose, opening eyes only to pain, his pupils were 5 mm and reactive, he had intact brainstem reflexes, withdrawing both arms and legs. Emergent head CT showed development of hydrocephalus and a ventriculoperitoneal shunt was emergently placed. The neurologic examination did not improve after shunt placement, and repeat head CT showed increased hydrocephalus with bilateral cerebral infarcts. On day 11, he was transferred to Columbia University Medical Center for intensive care. He was febrile and comatose. He did not open his eyes to pain, pupils were 7 mm minimally reactive, brainstem reflexes were intact, and he exhibited extensor posturing to pain. Mannitol was given, corticosteroid therapy was started, and an extraventricular drain was placed. The next day, his right pupil was 8 mm and nonreactive. MRI showed diffuse contrast enhancement of the arachnoid, extensive infarction of basal ganglia, midbrain, and pons, and small ring-enhancing lesions in the cerebellum (figure 1, A-D). Repeat lumbar puncture showed red blood cells: 550 × 10(3)/μL; white blood cells: 250/μL (14% neutrophils, 80% lymphocytes, 6% monocytes); protein: 65 mg/dL; and glucose: &lt;10 mg/dL (CSF/serum glucose ratio = 0.08). CSF testing for Cryptococcus and toxoplasmosis was negative. CSF acid fast bacilli (AFB) smear was negative ×2, and CSF nucleic acid amplification test was also negative for tuberculosis. Serum HIV test was negative. Not until 14 days after initial presentation and 3 days after transfer to the intensive care unit was antituberculosis therapy finally started, because the pattern of infarcts on the MRI suggested basilar meningitis and he had not improved on broad-spectrum antibiotics. That same day, the first sputum AFB smear was positive, as were all succeeding daily sputum AFB smears. Tuberculosis nucleic acid amplification was positive from the sputum, but persistently negative from the CSF. Daily portable chest radiographs had been normal (read as likely atelectasis), but chest CT showed dense consolidations in the left lung and diffuse micronodular opacities throughout both lungs. Two days later, only 21 days after the onset of his headache, the patient died of cardiopulmonary arrest secondary to transtentorial cerebral herniation. Thirteen days later, the CSF culture became positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis sensitive to streptomycin, isoniazid, ethambutol, rifampin, and pyrazinamide." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0371_16489", "title": "[Acute meningococcemia in a 4-month-old infant].", "score": 0.012768449824287388, "content": "What causes meningococcial diseases (MD) is a Gramm-negative diplococcus Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus). Most frequently it manifests itself in the form of meningitis and meningococcemia. The mortality rate of those suffering from MD has not significantly changed for three decades and ranges from 7% to 19%, and for meningococcemia from 18% to 53%. According to the data presented by domestic authors, of the total of the diseased with bacterial meningitis 75% are children with mortality rate from 6% to 15%. Severe forms of meningococcemia sometimes have extremely rapid development and lethal outcome within a few hours. Key elements for establishing the diagnosis of meningococcemia are presence of hemorrhagic rash with high fever, loss of interest in the environment, loss of consciousness and paleness. The boy was admitted to hospital as an emergency case on 29 December 1988 at 11:45. The disease manifested abruptly the day before. He burst into tears easily, would take very little food and in the evening his temperature rose T degree 40.8 degrees C. Before midnight, in the village he was given injections of: lincomycin 300 mg and lasdol 250 i.m. During admittance the infant was agitated, kept moaning. His skin was pail gray with dot-like and spot-like hematoma which were more numerous and intense on the left ear, lower part of the body, scrotum and legs. The infant breathed heavily and fast (FR: 100/min) Cardiologist's finding showed: tahicardia over 200/min, buffled tones, gallop rhythm, pulsating neck veins and edema point to acute heart failure. Large fontanelles remained swollen even after lumbar puncture (LP) and extraction of 15 ml of clear cerebro-spinal fluid. Soon after admittance the boy stopped moaning but didn't cry when pricked and slipped deeper into coma. During the third hour of treatment generalized convulsions began which lasted approximately 10 minutes and stopped after i.v. administered diazepam. The boy remained in coma the second day in lethargy and with swollen fontanelles on the third day, so the first subdural puncture was then performed bilaterally. On that occasion only from the right side 8 ml of reddish liquid was obtained. Right after he was admitted we began permanent transfusion, which lasted 17 days. On the first day he received fresh blood transfusion. He was administered benzinpenicilline, chloramphenicol-succinate, lanatoside, human albumins, dexamethasone.... Blood oxygenation was carried out in the first few days of illness during the exhibited cardio-respiratory failure. Among risk factors, which contribute to occurrence of meningococcemia, is also artificial infant food. The reported boy was incorrectly fed with overdiluted cow milk. That and apparent hemostasis brake-down only worsened anemia and increased susceptibility to infections. Although LP was performed when the boy was admitted and the nutritious foundation was soaked with cerebro-spinal fluid, no bacteria were isolated or their presence confirmed in cerebro-spinal fluid colored after Gramm's method, because the child was given linkomycin the previous night. On the basis of clinical findings, hemorrhagic rush, convulsions, coma and acute heart failure as well as the laboratory findings it was concluded that it was a case of severe meningococcemia, meningitis and subdural effusion. Listed therapy and six subdural punctures led to full recovery of the patient. Further examination by a pediatrician and a psychologist eliminated the possibility of mental deficiency. The boy is now a good fifth grade elementary school pupil." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1007_19220", "title": "Maintaining Safety and Planning for the Future.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Kevin is a 12-year-old boy with autism spectrum disorder, intellectual disability (nonverbal IQ scores in mid-40s), and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder who has been followed up by a developmental-behavioral pediatrician (DBP) and a child psychologist for medication and behavioral management since he was 4 years old. Kevin was placed in the care of his great-great-aunt shortly after he turned 2 years of age because of concerns of neglect. She is now his legal guardian.Kevin is predominately nonverbal but does use a few single words to make requests or label items. He attends a public school and receives full-time special education support. He has a personal care assistant (PCA) who provides in-home support 5 to 6 days/wk for 3 to 4 hours at a time. The PCA is working on toilet training, using a \"clock-training\" approach, and also takes Kevin outdoors to play or on short outings during her visits. In his free time, Kevin prefers to watch cooking shows on television.Over the past year, Kevin's behaviors have become more concerning. There have been several episodes of Kevin waking up during the early morning hours and going to the kitchen to \"cook.\" After one of these episodes, his guardian was not aware that Kevin had woken up until the next morning when she found a concoction of corn starch, coffee grounds, cottage cheese, and powdered drink mix in the blender. Kevin had also woken up during the night and ventured out of the house into the back yard. His guardian had woken up immediately as the alarm system sounded when he opened the outer door from the house to the yard.A door alarm was added to Kevin's bedroom door so that his guardian would be alerted when he leaves his bedroom; however, the alarm is not used consistently because there are times when the alarm cannot be found at bedtime. Kevin's guardian was able to obtain a GPS device for him to wear on his shoe from the local police department. He wears this without resistance every day.Kevin's guardian is in her mid-70s, and she has had several health issues over the past 2 to 3 years. There are no other family members who are willing or able to care for Kevin if his guardian were no longer able to. The DBP and child psychologist have encouraged Kevin's guardian to explore long-term residential care options with the state agency that provides support for individuals with intellectual disabilities and with Kevin's insurance provider, but the guardian is very reluctant to do this. She fears that Kevin will be removed from her care or placed in a \"home\" where someone will \"do bad things to him.\"What else would you recommend or actions would you take to support Kevin's guardian in ensuring Kevin's safety and planning for his future care?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0763_14041", "title": "History of head trauma in a 6-year-old boy: maybe more than meets the eye (and head).", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "It is spring and you are meeting for the first time, Eddie, a recently turned 6-year-old boy who moved to the area in September of the previous year and is here for his 6-year-old health maintenance visit. Eddie's mother is concerned that although he is \"only\" in kindergarten, he is not retaining any information at school. His mother reports he knew some of his letters before kindergarten. Currently, when he is trying to write a word, for example, \"daddy\" he will need to ask his mother: \"what letter is the letter D?\" Before kindergarten, he knew his numbers 1 to 10. At times now, Eddie will forget these numbers. For example, \"if he is counting he will forget what comes after 4 and what comes after 9.\" Mother reports he will start crying for no apparent reason and if she asks why, he will say \"I don't know why.\" Mother is worried that Eddie is sad, although she denies suicidal ideation. She reports he used to like making noise with other kids, and now he cannot stand when the children are noisy. Eddie will comment he does not want to go to school because the kids make lots of noise and his head hurts. He complains of headaches as often as 2 to 3 times a month. She next states, \"This was not an issue before his head trauma.\" At this point, she reveals to you that in August, before the family relocated, Eddie fell from a 7-foot deck onto concrete while playing. He struck his head on the left side and lost consciousness for several seconds until shaken awake. He was nauseous and disoriented initially but without emesis or incontinence. He was taken to the local emergency department where he was admitted for 1 day and diagnosed with closed head injury, left frontal epidural hematoma, and question of postconcussive syndrome. Eddie has gone back to see the neurosurgeon twice over the last 6 months for scheduled visits and since the accident has had no further treatment.Eddie's mother reports that before the accident, if she read him a story from a book, he could remember the details from the story. Currently, he does not have good memory recall. Before the trauma, he did not attend a preschool program but stayed home with his mother full time. Eddie's first formal schooling has been kindergarten this year. When they moved, the neurosurgeon recommended he start school at the end of September given his head trauma in August. He had a recent computed tomography completed 3 months ago showing the epidural hematoma had completely resolved and the study was otherwise normal. His mother reports he had an evaluation the spring before the accident for a kindergarten screening test and was reported as \"excellent.\" Eddie's birth and medical history are otherwise unremarkable except for some seasonal allergies. He has not had a loss in language skill, although his mother reports he did not speak during his hospitalization. He would just stare and nod his head if someone would ask him a question. No family history of any learning or behavioral difficulties on either side of the family. Eddie has 2 older brothers, 10 and 7 years of age, with no learning issues.What would you do next?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0364_22996", "title": "[Rational use of antibiotics in pediatrics: impact of a rapid test for detection of beta-haemolytic group A streptococci in acute pharyngotonsillitis].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To assess the reliability and validity of a rapid test for the identification of Streptococcus pyogenes in the pharyngeal exudate of children presenting with pharyngotonsillitis. To evaluate the impact of its use in outpatient clinics on antibiotic use, on the incidence of second medical visits and complications, and on the degree of parental satisfaction. After a clinical diagnosis of acute pharyngitis was established and written informed consent obtained from the parents, dual throat swabs were collected from 430 children who attended the emergency department of our hospital or the pediatric offices of three health centers in our area. The first specimen was examined by the rapid test, QuickVue Flex Strep A, and the second one was sent to the laboratory for conventional culture. As a rule, antibiotics were indicated only when the rapid test was positive. Special emphasis was placed on explaining to parents that treatment was not necessary when the test was negative. Telephone follow-up was provided to the family during the next four weeks, after which a satisfaction survey was carried out. The sensitivity of the investigated rapid test was 91.2% (negative predictive value: 96.5%) and specificity was 96.2% (positive predictive value: 90.4%). Antibiotics were given to 41.9% of the patients, approximately half the expected rate in the absence of the rapid test. There was no significant difference in the number of second visits or hospitalizations between the groups of treated and non-treated subjects. Clinical evolution was good in all cases. The degree of parental satisfaction was very high, independent of the treatment given to the patients. The rapid test for the detection of group A streptococci is a reliable tool for the selection of patients able to benefit from antibiotic treatment. It is easy to handle and apply and its use allows a significant reduction in the administration of antibiotics in pharyngotonsillitis. Most users accept and are satisfied with this novel diagnostic and therapeutic procedure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1009_24025", "title": "Toddler Sleep Challenges: All in a Day's Work.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Leo is a 26-month-old boy who you are seeing for an urgent care visit due to \"sleep difficulty,\" particularly sleep onset. Since age 1, he screams, hits, and kicks his mother every day, starting after she gets home from work at 5 PM (or before the family's dinnertime on her days off) and escalating over the course of the evening until he \"wears himself out\" and falls asleep in a crib in his own room around 9 to 10 PM Once asleep, he sleeps well through the night and wakes easily around 7 AM in a pleasant mood; his mother leaves for work soon after he awakens. He naps after lunch for 2 to 3 hours on weekdays at an in-home child care with 1 to 2 adult caregivers and 5 other children aged 0 to 5 years. He refuses to nap at home.Leo goes to bed easily when his father puts him to bed if his mother is not at home, but his mother feels that evenings are the only time she can spend with Leo, and so, she tries to put him to bed most nights. However, because of Leo's behaviors at bedtime with her, she feels inadequate, depressed, and guilty; when she tries to disengage or allow her husband to help, Leo screams, \"Mommy, mommy!\" and tries to gain access to her and resists his father putting him to bed until his mother returns. Both parents worry that \"he would not grow out of this,\" and his mother now avoids coming home from work for fear of Leo's behavior. Both parents feel that this situation is causing marital strain.Leo was born healthy at full-term and is an only child; pregnancy was complicated by hyperemesis gravidarum. Leo has been healthy and meeting developmental milestones. His parents describe his temperament as \"like his father at that age,\" \"easy, but never able to self-soothe,\" \"intense\" in his emotional reactions, persistent, \"strong-willed and serious,\" and \"shy and observant, withdrawn at first and then getting more pleasant after a while\" in novel situations. Behaviorally, he engaged in noninjurious head-banging at home when upset between 12 and 15 months; bit children a few times at child care between 20 and 24 months; and lately refuses to share or will push other children at child care every few weeks. His parents recently read a book about parenting \"spirited\" children but did not find it helpful. What would you do next?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0626_14398", "title": "Where do out-of-hours calls to a consultant microbiologist come from?", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "There is little in the literature about out-of-hours calls to medical microbiologists. The calls taken by a consultant medical microbiologist over a five-year period in an Irish tertiary referral hospital were reviewed. Excluding calls on weekend mornings and significant evening positive blood cultures, the mean annual number of calls on a one-in-four rota was 89 (range 70-111). Over 90% of calls were received before midnight and 51% were from specialist registrars. Medical specialties, neurosurgery and intensive care were the most common departments seeking advice. Two-thirds of calls related to the management of an individual patient, but advice on infection prevention and control is increasingly requested. Calls out-of-hours are not insignificant but little is known about how these vary between hospitals and what contribution they make to patient care." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0712_25046", "title": "An evidence-based approach to managing the anticoagulated patient in the emergency department.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "You start another busy shift with a double row of charts waiting to be seen. Your first patient is an elderly man who fell 1 hour prior to presentation. He did not lose consciousness, but he was dazed for a few minutes. He complains of a mild headache but denies any neck pain. He takes warfarin for valvular heart disease. He looks good and has no focal neurological complaints. His mental status is normal, he has a negative head CT scan, and his INR is 3.9. His family wants to take him home, which would help relieve some of the congestion in the ED, but you wonder what would be best. To observe and repeat imaging? Reverse his anticoagulation? Change his dosing regimen of warfarin? In the next room, you quickly evaluate a 51-year-old obese woman with nonspecific back and abdominal pain that started 24 hours before and has slowly progressed to become intolerable. She denies fever, chills, nausea, or vomiting. She is on the last day of a 5-day course of ciprofloxacin for a UTI. She takes warfarin for a pulmonary embolus that occurred 2 months prior. Her hematocrit is mildly decreased, and her white blood count is normal; however, the INR is 6.8. You wonder if her abdominal pain is related to the UTI, or if it could be somehow related to the prolonged INR. In fact, you wonder why her INR is so prolonged..." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0678_21069", "title": "[Meningococcemia and meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis W135 developed in two cases vaccinated with bivalent (A/C) meningococcal vaccine].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Meningococcal infections may develop as episodic or endemic cases particularly among children attending day-care centers, boarding schools or among military personnel. Bivalent (A/C) meningococcal vaccine is applied to all new military stuff since 1993 in Turkey. In this report two cases of meningococcemia and meningitis, developed in two soldiers vaccinated with meningococcal vaccine, were presented. The first case was a 21 years old male patient who was admitted to the emergency service with the complaints of high fever, headache, fatigue and vomiting. He was conscious, cooperative and oriented with normal neurological findings. Maculopapular exanthems were detected at the lower extremities. The patient was hospitalized with the initial diagnosis of sepsis or meningococcemia and empirical treatment was initiated with ceftriaxone and dexamethasone. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) examination yielded 10 cells/mm3 (lymphocytes) with normal CSF biochemical parameters. A few hours later skin rashes spread over the body rapidly, the symptoms got worse, confusion, disorientation and disorientation developed, and the patient died due to cardiac and respiratory arrest at the seventh hour of his admission. The second case was also a 21 years old male patient who was admitted to the hospital with the complaints of fever, headache, painful urination, confusion and agitation. He was initially diagnosed as acute bacterial meningitis due to clinical (stiff neck, positive Kernig and Brudzinsky signs) and CSF (8000 cells/mm3; 80% polymorphonuclear leukocytes, increased protein and decreased glucose levels) findings. Empirical antibiotic therapy with ceftriaxone was initiated and continued for 14 days. The patient was discharged with complete cure and no complication was detected in his follow-up visit after two months. The first case had an history of vaccination with bivalent (A/C) meningococcal vaccine three months ago and the second case had been vaccinated one month ago. The bacteria isolated from the blood culture of the first case and the CFS culture of the second case, were identified as Neisseria meningitidis by conventional and API NH system (BioMerieux, France). The isolates were serogrouped as W135 by slide agglutination method (Difco, USA), and both were found to be susceptible to penicillin and ceftriaxone. As far as the last decade's literature and these two cases were considered, it might be concluded that N.meningitidis W135 strains which were not included in the current bivalent meningococcal vaccine, gained endemic potential in Turkey. Since N.meningitidis W135 strains may lead to serious diseases, vaccination of the risk population with the conjugate tetravalent meningococcal vaccine (A/C/Y/W135) should be taken into consideration in Turkey." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0839_18211", "title": "Electrocardiogram before starting stimulant medications: to order or not?", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "D is an 8-year-old boy brought to his paediatrician for evaluation. His mother is concerned as his teacher has been frequently complaining that he is very restless and often disturbs the rest of the class by getting up on some pretext or the other. He is unable to concentrate on his work and gets distracted very easily. He makes many careless mistakes and can hardly finish his tasks on time. He is frequently reprimanded for talking during class. He often answers out of turn or before the question has been completed; however, so far, he has been managing to get passing grades. At home, he is constantly on the go while he is awake. If he is forced to sit, like at mealtimes, he fidgets a lot. He also needs to be constantly nagged to do everything, even his daily activities such as brushing his teeth, or he forgets to do them or leaves them incomplete. He takes ages to finish his food. It is a major job to get him to do his homework. His mother says that at home he has been like that since the last 2 to 3 years, but now she is concerned because of the difficulties he is experiencing at school as well. After obtaining his medical history, examination, and getting response from parents and teachers--using Vanderbuilt Assessment Scales--the paediatrician diagnoses him to have attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Besides behavioural interventions, he considers medications for his management. The paediatrician is debating the merits of performing electrocardiogram and/or referring the boy to a cardiologist before starting stimulant medications. If you were caring for this patient, how would you proceed?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0323_13231", "title": "A proactive, data-based determination of the standard of medical care in pediatrics.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A 3-week-old infant awoke with a fever. He was taken to the doctor who noted that the child was irritable. The doctor took him to the hospital where a resident performed a spinal tap, started an intravenous (IV) line, and ordered antibiotics. The entire drama, from entering the doctor's office to infusion of ampicillin, took 2 hours. The doctor was sued for malpractice. Expert witnesses for the plaintiff testified that he had deviated from the standard of medical care by taking too long to administer antibiotics, which, in their view, ought to have been given within 30 minutes. Expert witnesses for the defense testified that 2 hours to administer antibiotics in this case was within the standard of care. What ought to be the response of the pediatric community to discrepant expert testimony such as this? One possible response is nothing. Lawyers from both sides will find expert medical witnesses who articulate positions favorable to their clients (as they did in this case), and the truth will emerge after vigorous cross-examination. This, we suggest, is inadequate. We believe that some expert opinions can be viewed as better than others. That is, some opinions describe the standard of medical care correctly while other expert opinions are (to put it charitably) idiosyncratic, failing to depict accurately the skill and care ordinarily administered in comparable situations. Currently, jurors are informed about the standard of care by expert witnesses, who rely on their own medical knowledge and experience. However, a huge body of literature demonstrates that recollections of individual experience are inevitably flawed, and flawed in a nonrandom direction (the Monday morning quarterback phenomenon). Consider the infant with meningitis. When experts in pediatric emergency medicine and pediatric infectious diseases (ID) were asked about the median time from emergency room (ER) presentation to administration of antibiotics in a child with suspected meningitis, their opinions were wrong and slanted toward the outcome known to be desired (namely, a shorter elapsed time). ER physicians (median estimated time to antibiotic administration [AB-TIME] = 46 minutes) and ID physicians (median estimated AB-TIME = 80 minutes) consistently underestimated the actual median value of AB-TIME determined by chart review (120 minutes). From the judicial perspective such potential flaws in expert testimony are assumed to be equally distributed among experts. All admissible evidence is a priori of equal weight until a jury decides otherwise. The standard of medical care is created anew by expert testimony in each individual case, disappearing, like Brigadoon, upon resolution of the dispute. However, to anyone but a lawyer, the standard of medical care must exist as something outside the courtroom testimony of experts, and if it does exist, it should be easily described so that expert testimony can be judged more (or less) accurate in depicting it. We contend that medical care is not a single behavior that conforms to or deviates from an idiosyncratic and retrospectively determined standard, but rather a distribution of behaviors in response to a variety of medical circumstances. For a given scenario, each of several possible responses can be ascribed a relative frequency based on empirical data, and the consequent normal curve depicts the totality of medical care. Substandard care then falls out neatly as behaviors lying outside the large majority of cases. Juries would be empowered (as they are currently) to determine exactly where on this curve substandard care lies, but at least the debate would share the same description of reality. Recent US Supreme Court guidelines regarding expert testimony provide an opportunity to expand the use of databases in medical negligence cases. The Court restricted expert testimony to \"scientific knowledge ... based on generating hypotheses and testing them to see if they can be falsified ... (ABSTRACT TRUNCATED)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1017_5978", "title": "When to Raise Our White Flag-A Discussion of Scope of Practice in a Resource Scarce World.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Thomas is a 13-year-old boy with autism spectrum disorder, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), generalized anxiety disorder, separation anxiety disorder, and major depressive disorder who presented for a follow-up to his developmental and behavioral pediatrician (DBP). His mother describes an increase in symptoms of anxiety and depression for the last 6 weeks, accompanied by suicidal ideation and thoughts of self-mutilation.Before this increase in symptoms, he had been doing well for the last several months with the exception of increasing weight gain, and Abilify was decreased from 5 mg to 2.5 mg at his last visit. Other medications at that time included Zoloft 100 mg twice daily, Focalin XR 40 mg every morning, and Focalin 5 mg every night. Without seeking the guidance of our developmental and behavioral pediatrics clinic, his mother increased his intake of Zoloft to 150 mg each morning and continued 100 mg each evening because of worsening anxiety and depression.Religion is very important to Thomas and his family. He acknowledges that he does not want to die and feels badly because \"suicide is against our religion.\"Helping Thomas receive appropriate care has been a challenge. He was diagnosed with ADHD and Asperger disorder at the age of 5. Thomas is homeschooled and is very attached to his mother. His parents have very different parenting styles, with his mother being more permissive and his father more authoritarian. At the time of initial diagnosis, the behavioral health services (BHS) in Thomas' community, which is about an hour away from the DBP, were limited to older children, and he was followed by a DBP for ADHD medication management. At the age of 11, he expressed passive suicidal ideation and described that he imagined his mother as \"the devil with fire coming out of her eyes\" when she corrected him. He was evaluated by BHS, diagnosed with anxiety disorder, and started on Lexapro. BHS linked to the DBP were out of network for his insurance. The family was unable to pay out of pocket, so care was subsequently transferred to a DBP clinic that was in network. Soon after, Thomas developed auditory hallucinations, and Abilify was added after consultation with BHS.Over the last few years, Thomas' symptoms have waxed and waned. He did well for a short time and then again developed auditory hallucinations, worsening symptoms of anxiety and depression, and increasing somatic symptoms including vomiting and penile pain. Medications were adjusted with input from BHS, and further attempts were made to link him to local BHS but were unsuccessful. With his current concerns of suicidal ideation and self-mutilation, what would be your next steps?" }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_5531", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Duration of therapy Most cases of bacterial meningitis should be treated for a period of 10 to 14 days except when there is a persistent parameningeal focus of infection (otitic or sinus origin), in which cases longer treatment may be needed. Antibiotics should be administered in full doses parenterally (preferably intravenously) throughout the period of treatment. Treatment failures with certain drugs, notably ampicillin, may be attributable to oral or intramuscular administration, resulting in inadequate concentrations in the CSF. Repeated lumbar punctures are not necessary to assess the effects of therapy as long as there is progressive clinical improvement. The CSF glucose may remain low for many days after other signs of infection have subsided and should occasion concern only if bacteria are present in the fluid and the patient remains febrile and ill." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_1466", "title": "Chronic hip pain in a boy with mental retardation and cerebral palsy.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Jonny is a 13 year old boy with spastic quadriparesis and severe mental retardation following Haemophilus influenza type B (HIB) meningitis at 2-months of age. Signs of meningitis started on the evening of his 2-month immunizations that included the HIB vaccine. He presented to his pediatrician with left hip pain that occurred intermittently for a few years and more frequently in the past six months. His parents initially attributed the pain to whizzing around the back yard in a motorized wheelchair. An earlier evaluation of hip pain led to bilateral femoral osteotomies for hip dysplasia. Obesity, associated with inactivity and a tendency to consume fatty foods, complicates Jonny's disabilities. His only activity is a modest amount of physical therapy at school and \"floor time\" for about one hour each day at home. In the office of his pediatrician, Jonny is friendly, smiling, and verbalizing a few words with his limited expressive vocabulary. He is resistant to a hip examination and grimaces with manipulation of his left hip. Spasticity of the left leg appears increased compared to previous examinations. He has nonpitting edema of his lower legs and feet, a cryptorchid left testicle, and a somewhat tender left inguinal area. Jonny lives with his mother and father in a small house on a busy street less than one-half mile from the pediatrician's office. Jonny's pediatrician often sees him in his wheelchair, accompanied by his mother or grandmother, and waves or stops to chat. He has van services to school, and there is a Hoyer lift in the home, but his parents do not own a van. Recently, Jonny's father finds it more difficult to lift him. The family has also been challenged by the mental health problems of Jonny's two older brothers, and a serious eye injury suffered by his middle brother in a motor-vehicle accident. Jonny's pediatrician has cared for him and his two brothers since birth. Although the parents continue to believe that the HIB vaccine caused his catastrophic illness, they remain with the pediatrician. In general, they are satisfied with the individualized educational plan at a local public school. When he was 6.5 years old, Jonny's school aid reported that he attempted to touch her in the genital area. The pediatrician attended the meeting to review this incident and successfully advocated for Jonny by pointing out that this was an isolated incident; it did not occur again. At 6 years old Jonny functioned in the 1.5-2.5 year old range with motor skills in the 6-12 month level according to the Bayley Scales of Infant Development and the Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales. In the past a neurologist and a physiatrist saw Jonny, but both of these individuals moved from the community. He had prior evaluations at a children's orthopedic clinic at a small community hospital and at the local Shriner's hospital. He had a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy at 7 years old. He is currently treated for constipation and receives dental care at a clinic for people with disabilities. His pediatrician has always respected the parents for their care and obvious love for their disabled child. However, parental resistance to addressing major issues such as obesity has frustrated his pediatrician. When the pediatrician suggested that Jonny was eligible for the state's managed care program, which would convert Medicaid coverage to a state sponsored program with more extensive services and case management, Jonny's mother repeatedly said that she would \"think it over.\" At the current visit, the pediatrician recommended an adjustment of Jonny's wheelchair, a hip x-ray, a referral to Shriner's Hospital, and an appointment with a pediatric surgeon to address the undescended testicle and possible hernia. Jonny's mother mentioned that he had been to Shriner's Hospital for hip pain two years earlier but was told nothing could be done \"because nothing was wrong with his bone.\" The hip x-ray was normal as well as a complete blood count and a C-reactive protein. The pediatric surgeon did not find a hernia and deferred treatment of the cryptorchid testicle. His parents contacted the wheelchair company to arrange adjustments. The pediatrician called the medical director at the Shriner's Hospital to discuss Jonny's case, but 2 months after the initial visit, the parents had not arranged for an appointment at the Shriner's Hospital. Jonny's hip pain persisted. The pediatrician now wonders how he can more effectively address Jonny's current problems and improve overall care for him and his family." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_92674", "title": "The X-Files (season 2)", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Scully turns up comatose in a hospital four week later with no explanation about how she got there. X provides Mulder with information allowing him to take revenge on her captors, but Mulder is instead convinced by Scully's sister Melissa to visit her bedside. Scully recovers and returns to work shortly thereafter. The agents later investigate a case involving alien biology being injected into teenagers in Wisconsin, and once again they encounter Deep Throat's killer, who is killed by the local sheriff." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_1459", "title": "Discovering gifted children in pediatric practice.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Casey is a first grader who is brought to the pediatrician for consideration of ADHD. His mother is concerned that he is very difficult to focus at home when asked to do anything and gets so distracted at meals that he eats very little. The teachers last year and this year say that Casey is very distracted, always \"in a fog\" and just can't seem to get his work done. \"He's in his own world.\" His report card has several unsatisfactory marks because of poor completion of work, doing things other than the assignment and talking too much to the kids around him. The parents are very upset as they see their son as very bright. His advanced vocabulary, early reading skills and his extensive knowledge of engines, machines and aircraft were all noted in his medical chart in the past as part of his health supervision visits. He has lots of friends, mostly third graders and plays soccer with moderate success. The paternal grandmother says Casey is just like his dad who is now a biochemical geneticist. He too had a hard time getting his work in as a child and \"always talked back\" to the teacher. Casey's mother would like him on medication before the Iowa Basics come around. The Vanderbilt rating scales by both teacher and parent are positive for inattention and borderline for hyperactivity. Casey took it upon himself to speak to the principal about how bored he was with the classroom work. She agreed that he could have some special assignments. In the pediatrician's office, Casey is a delightful, verbal, thin boy who has about 100 things to talk about, from train engines to the sports scores, acquired from the television sports channel, to what should be done to \"fix\" his school. He said he was bored and knew more about volcanoes than the science teacher. He just wanted to get home each day and work on his elaborate train setup. He doesn't seem overly active, distractible, anxious, inattentive or oppositional. Testing by the school psychologist showed him to have an IQ of 138 with an even verbal/performance profile. Sam is a 4-year old whose parents brought him to the local private school for application to kindergarten. The admission requirements consisted of a group \"developmental\" test, given to groups of 20 youngsters at a time. Sam failed the test. The report said that he was too immature, talked out of turn and generally wasn't ready for the vigorous academic program planned at that school. He asked too many questions and argued with the admissions person. They suggested he might need medication before he attempted school. His parents asked their pediatrician for an opinion on the school report. They asked for a referral for testing as they could not believe their son was a preschool failure. The psychologist reported that his IQ was 142 (verbal 146 and performance 136)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0646_1258", "title": "[An infant less than three months of age at emergency call service].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Examination and treatment of an infant less than three months of age requires different action at the emergency department as compared with bigger children. Even slight cough and vomiting may be indications of a severe disease in this age group. In addition, symptoms in small infants are often diffuse and sometimes difficult to observe and analyze. A general assessment by the physician constitutes the basis for diagnostics. Of the severe diseases, most are infections." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0841_5977", "title": "Spiritual Assessment in a Patient With Lung Cancer.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "CASE STUDY  Mr. G., an 82-year-old retired European man, was diagnosed with stage 4 non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) and recently enrolled on a phase II clinical trial. He is married and has two adult children, who are very supportive. He and his wife described themselves as nonpracticing Catholics. He had never smoked, and there was no personal or family history of cancer. Fatigue was the main side effect from the clinical trial drugs, necessitating frequent periods of rest throughout the day and ultimately requiring dose reduction. His left leg was edematous and painful, and he was diagnosed with and treated for deep-vein thrombosis. Over time, these symptoms resolved, and Mr. G. enjoyed a fairly normal quality of life (QOL). He continued to do well for almost a year, but then his cancer progressed and his performance status began to decline. When offered treatment options, he elected to discontinue the clinical trial, take a break, and then initiate single-agent chemotherapy. Mr. G. was enrolled in a palliative care research study that provided patient-tailored education by an advanced practitioner (AP). The education addressed each QOL domain: physical, psychological, social, and spiritual. When the AP connected with Mr. G. during one of his clinic appointments, he appeared very concerned. He shared that he previously had lived in a communist country and now that he was in the United States, he was afraid of losing his insurance and having to stop treatment. The conversation was interrupted as he was called in for his appointment, yet he consented to talk about the matter further by telephone. The AP contacted Mr. G. the next day. He shared a glimpse of his childhood and experience in his homeland to try to explain his current fears. After reassuring him that his insurance would not be withdrawn, the AP asked whether he would be willing to talk about his life before coming to the United States more than 50 years ago. She wanted to assess where he was spiritually as a self-described nonpracticing Catholic. Mr. G. began by stating that he knew he was going to die of his lung cancer. He added that he did not know whether he was afraid of dying or believed in an afterlife, as he felt ambivalent about faith and religion. The AP learned that what gave his life meaning was his family. His \"boys\" were everything to him, and he did not want to be a burden to them or his wife. The AP listened and then encouraged Mr. G. to tell his whole story. As a child, he had lived in an occupied country in Eastern Europe during World War II. Mr. G. and his family spent over a year in a concentration camp. They slept on straw, their heads were shaved, and they all had lice. Men aged 18 to 40 were shipped to Russia to work in the copper mines, where many died of exhaustion. Most older men were killed, and he watched his grandfather die beside him. Horse-drawn buggies took dead bodies to mass graves, where lime was poured over them. Mr. G. had boils over his entire body from lack of nutrition. Though technically Catholic, Mr. G. did not ask God to save him; he had seen too much to believe that God would be involved. One day, he escaped with two other boys. With the help of a stranger, they crossed at night into Romania. They walked for miles into Hungary, where they found shelter in a convent for several weeks. The Mother Superior collected money so he could take the train to Budapest and arranged for him to stay in a Catholic home. From Budapest, he went to Austria, living in refugee camps until moving into an apartment of his own. Mr. G. attended college in Austria and later moved with his wife to the United States, where they raised two boys and owned a successful business. " }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_21153", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Administration of hypotonic intravenous solutions should be monitored carefully in any serious acute brain illness because of the potential for exacerbating brain swelling. Cervical spine injuries must not be overlooked, particularly before attempting intubation or evaluation of oculocephalic responses. Fever and meningismus indicate an urgent need for examination of the CSF to diagnose meningitis. If the lumbar puncture in a case of suspected meningitis is delayed, an antibiotic such as a third-generation cephalosporin may be administered, preferably after obtaining blood cultures. The management of raised ICP is discussed in Chap. 330." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0877_1388", "title": "A curious cause of appendicitis.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A previously healthy 10-year-old boy presented to the emergency department with central abdominal pain, loose stool and vomiting. He was diagnosed with gastroenteritis, but was well enough to be discharged. The next day he reattended with ongoing diarrhoea and vomiting, with the pain now localised to the right iliac fossa (RIF). Acute appendicitis was suspected, and he was taken for laparoscopic appendicectomy. At surgery, a gangrenous appendix was found, with pus extending from the pelvis up to the liver. The appendix was excised and thorough peritoneal washout performed. Postoperatively, he received 48 hours of intravenous antibiotics and was discharged home. Unfortunately the boy presented again 11 days later with right lower quadrant pain and fever. Ultrasound revealed a collection in the RIF, and he returned to theatre for washout. His recovery was slow until the peritoneal pus sent for bacterial culture grew Salmonella enteritidis, identification of which facilitated appropriate antibiotic treatment. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en616_7700", "title": "261st Medical Battalion", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The data demonstrates that for the first week the battalion averaged 1035 admissions each day. Then the rate fell and the average daily admission rate for the first two months was 571.6 patients. After that the rate became much lower - the breakthrough at St. Lo occurred on 25 July 1944, and the front moved in all directions requiring new evacuation points, accounting for the drop in patient load in the 261st's treatment facilities." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1151_20626", "title": "Interoception in Practice: The Gut-Brain Connection.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Tony is a five and a half-year-old boy who has been a patient in your primary care practice since he was adopted at birth. He has been treated by a child and adolescent psychiatrist for behavioral concerns starting at age 3 years and has been diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) combined type, anxiety disorder, and insomnia. He presents today with complaints of repeated emesis and refusal to eat or drink over the past 2 weeks and is now dehydrated. Tony was born at 30 weeks' gestational age by vaginal delivery with a birth weight of 4lbs 15oz and was described as minimally responsive at birth. There was known prenatal exposure to tobacco and methamphetamine and inadequate prenatal care. The maternal history is notable for a reported diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder, prostitution, and being unhoused at the time of delivery. Tony received antibiotics after delivery for presumed newborn infections. As an infant, he had kidney reflux, low serum ferritin, insomnia, and failure to thrive. Regarding developmental milestones, Tony was sitting up at 7 months, walking at 14 months, talking at 18 months, and speaking in full sentences by 24 months. When he presented to the psychiatric service at age 3 years, behavioral problems included irritability with destructive rages, excessive fears, separation anxiety, hyperactivity, and impulsivity with a lack of awareness of danger to the extent that he required a safety harness when in public and security locks in the home because of repeated elopements. Tony also had at the time of his initial presentation significant defiance, extreme tantrums, violent aggressive outbursts, cognitive rigidity, repetitive behaviors, resistance to change, frequent nondirected vocalizations, and self-injurious behaviors including slapping himself on the head and biting of his hands and feet. Review of systems includes complaints of frequent abdominal and neck pain, persistent insomnia, night terrors, restrictive eating habits with poor weight gain, and reduced sensitivity to pain. Treatment history included gabapentin and subsequently divalproex for seizure-like episodes (despite negative EEG) described as frequent staring spells with repetitive biting of his lips. Psychotropic medications were risperidone for irritability associated with autism and clonidine extended release for ADHD. He also took melatonin for sleep. During his well-child check at the age of 5 years, Tony is making good progress from a developmental standpoint, has age-appropriate expressive and receptive language skills, is fluent in both English and Spanish, is able to recite the alphabet, counts to 20, has learned to swim, and is demonstrating interest in planets and astrology. He is reported to have a secure attachment to his adoptive parents and is described as emotionally sensitive, caring, kind, considerate, and empathetic. He has good eye contact and can read facial expressions. He is affectionate and protective of his infant sibling, his biological sister, who is also adopted by his parents and now living in the home. Tony made an excellent adjustment to the start of kindergarten and up until this point was responding positively to his psychotropic medication regimen. But then at age five and a half, Tony experienced sudden and unexplained behavioral worsening, which was followed by the onset of recurrent vomiting and refusal to eat or drink. Comprehensive medical workup including upper endoscopy and biopsy resulted in a diagnosis of eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE). What would be your next step?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0110_11269", "title": "Rapid throat-culture as diagnostic aid: ineffective in decreasing antibiotic prescriptions.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "An overnight slide-culture for the detection of group A streptococci was introduced in a Finnish health centre. The number of patients from whom a throat culture was obtained increased from 55% to 70% with the new method. Despite this increase, the prescribing habits of primary care physicians did not change. Treatment was in most cases (84-90% of those treated) still initiated before culture results were available, and antibacterial medication was discontinued only occasionally (1-3%). Physicians usually decided the treatment during the first consultation. These findings contradict earlier studies where prescriptions decreased during rapid culture. Use of throat cultures as diagnostic aid should be reconsidered, especially when more rapid methods now are available." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0114_1436", "title": "Management of cryptococcal meningitis in patients with AIDS.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A case of cryptococcal meningitis in a patient with the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is described, as well as the epidemiology, pathogenesis, clinical manifestations, diagnosis, and therapeutic management of the disease. In July 1987 a 38-year-old white man was admitted to the hospital because of confusion, disorientation, and headache. His medical history was notable for a positive human immunodeficiency virus test. Culture of the cerebrospinal fluid was positive for Cryptococcus neoformans. The patient was started on amphotericin B 16 mg/day (0.3 mg/kg/day) intravenously and flucytosine 2 g every six hours (150 mg/kg/day) orally. Despite premedication with diphenhydramine and acetaminophen, he experienced rigors that were treated with hydrocortisone and meperidine. Three weeks later he was discharged on flucytosine 2 g orally every six hours and amphotericin B 50 mg intravenously every other day. One week later the patient developed fever and chills; blood cultures were positive for methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus, and his peripheral leucocyte count was 1.8 X 10(3)/cu mm. Flucytosine was discontinued, and he was treated with intravenous nafcillin while remaining on amphotericin B. In October the patient complained of nausea, vomiting, weakness, and agitation. A CSF latex agglutination titer for cryptococcal antigen was 1:32. He was treated with amphotericin B 50 mg daily until symptoms resolved and then continued on amphotericin B 50 mg twice weekly. Cryptococcosis is the most common life-threatening fungal infection among AIDS patients. In contrast to immunocompetent hosts, this population invariably develops disseminated disease, with 85% having meningeal involvement. The most effective therapy for cryptococcal meningitis in patients with AIDS has not been established.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0521_4202", "title": "[A case of sphenoid sinusitis which could be diagnosed by orbital computed tomography after detected Strepotococcus pneumoniae from blood culture].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "We report a case of sphenoid sinusitis which could be diagnosed by orbital CT after detecting Strepotococcus pneumoniae from blood culture. A previously healthy 47 year-old Japanese male was admitted to our hospital with severe left-sided headache of 2 days duration. From 9 days before hospitalization (1st day), the patient complained of cough and sputum. On physical examination, his neck was supple and his temperature was 38.3 degrees C. The rest of the examination was normal. A chest radiograph, sinus radiograph, and head computed tomographic (CT) scan without contrast material disclosed no abnormalities. Lumbar puncture was done and cerebrospinal fluid was clear and cell counts and the levels of glucose and protein were normal. The peripheral white blood cell count was 14,400/fl, and the C-reactive protein level was 9.6 mg/dl. After blood, urine, pharyngeal mucus and cerebrospinal fluid cultures were obtained, empirical antibiotic therapy with 2 gms of piperacillin twice daily was begun. He complained sever left-sided retro-orbital headahe on the next day too. The lumbar puncture and head CT scan with contrast material was done again but gave no diagnostic clues. The examinations by the otolaryngologist, ophthalmologist and dentist found no abnormal findings. On the 3rd hospitalized day, Strepotococcus pneumoniae was detected from the blood culture taken on the 1st hospitalized day. A CT scan focused on orbita was done and revealed a low density area of the left sphenoid sinus. The dose of piperacillin was increased to 4 gms twice daily and continued for 24 days. The patient's headache improved and piperacillin was changed to oral levofloxacin 100 mg, three times daily on the 26th day. The medication was stopped on the 73th day. Isolated sphenoid sinusitis is rare, but crtitical complications such as cranial nerve involvement, brain abscess, and bacterial meningitis may happen. It is necessary to also think of sphenoid sinusitis in practices of patients with severe headache." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0609_8033", "title": "Severe sepsis caused by Arcanobacterium haemolyticum: a case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "To describe a case of severe sepsis, cavitary pneumonia, and pyomyositis caused by Arcanobacterium haemolyticum. An 18-year-old male with a medical history significant for mild asthma presented to the emergency department complaining of a 7-day history of fever, diffuse myalgias, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and pain in his right upper quadrant, right shoulder, and left thigh. Cultures of blood, bronchoalveolar fluid, and surface and surgical swabs from the patient's left lower extremity grew A. haemolyticum. The patient was successfully treated with intravenous penicillin G 4 million units every 4 hours and azithromycin 500 mg once daily for 14 days. Within 36 hours after initiation of focused therapy, he became afebrile, pain decreased, and pulmonary symptoms abated. Oral azithromycin 500 mg/day for an additional 3 weeks was prescribed on discharge, and the patient showed no relapse at 2-month follow-up. A. haemolyticum is a weakly acid-fast, branching gram-positive bacillus most commonly implicated in pharyngitis in healthy adolescents and skin and soft-tissue infections in older, immunocompromised patients. Systemic infections are rarely reported in the literature. This organism remains susceptible to most classes of antimicrobials, including penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, macrolides, tetracyclines, clindamycin, and vancomycin. Routine resistance has been reported only with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. To our knowledge, there are no published case reports of severe sepsis caused by A. haemolyticum. While treatment options are numerous, we recommend the use of intravenous penicillin or a cephalosporin as first-line pharmacologic management of deep-seated infections caused by this rare organism." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en408_12212", "title": "Johnny Weeks", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "While in the hospital for that beating, Johnny discovers he is HIV positive; he also undergoes a colostomy operation. Season 2 Johnny is first seen by Detective Jimmy McNulty, stealing from a shopping centre with Bubbles. McNulty catches Johnny and Bubbles, but instead of arresting them asks them to find stick up artist Omar Little. At the end of Season 2, Officer Santangelo arrests Bubbles and Johnny stealing morphine from an ambulance. They are released because Bubbles gives information about Proposition Joe's dealers at the projects, when Cheese is shot in the shoulder by Brother Mouzone. Season 3 Johnny and Bubbles continue to steal from scrapyards. Bubbles would rather make money by continuing to inform detectives McNulty and Greggs. Johnny finds out that Bubbles is a police informant and the two men quarrel and split up. Without Bubbles looking after him, Johnny overdoses and his body is discovered in a vacant house in Major Colvin's \"Hamsterdam\" free zone." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0796_16550", "title": "Attention deficit hyperactivity, fetal alcohol spectrum disorder, or something else: the broad differential of kindergarten suspension.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Thomas is a 5-year 6-month-old boy whose parents requested an urgent care appointment because he has recently been suspended from kindergarten stating \"and his doctor must see him before he can come back.\" His suspension from kindergarten was due to kicking and biting his classmates, but he has also become increasingly aggressive at home. His teacher reported that he has always had a high activity level and difficulty shifting attention between tasks, as well as noncompliance with rules and directions. He is noted to have learning challenges and is showing difficulties in the concept of numbers and letter sounds. The practice has followed Thomas since his healthy birth. He has a history of delayed language development, and he received early intervention services from 2 years of age. He spoke his first word at 2 years 6 months. He started a half-day preschool program at 3 years of age. He had difficulty acclimating to preschool, interacting with peers, and was described as \"hyperactive\" by his teachers. His program was modified to decrease his time having to sit in a circle time, and he often required the support of the paraprofessional in the classroom. His parents have always described him as a \"difficult child.\" He gets frustrated easily and can tantrum for up to 2 hours multiple times in a week when his immediate needs or requests are not met. He has difficulty falling asleep, has frequent night awakenings, and often has trouble getting back to sleep. His self-help skills are poor, and he has difficulty with activities such as brushing his teeth and dressing. His parents report that he does not seem to remember rules from day to day. He was evaluated at 5 years of age and diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, but his response to stimulants has been limited. Thomas is an only child. His parents are college educated and professionally employed. They deny drug use, domestic violence, and guns in the home. They reported that prior to the pregnancy, they enjoyed \"partying\" with friends on the weekends, but Thomas's mother reported that she stopped drinking as soon as she realized she was pregnant. All are wondering whether this child might have a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder, although he seems to have no clear facial dysmorphology. It is unsure what the next step might be and if there is value added in pursuing this diagnosis. What do you do next?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0734_23009", "title": "[Imminent peritonsillar abscess: when should a general practitioner refer?].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Antimicrobial management of an imminent peritonsillar abscess is still under debate. Clinical experience shows that early administration of amoxicillin-clavulanic acid could prevent unilateral peritonsillitis from developing into an abscess. Here we describe two patients who initially received penicillin V treatment. They both recovered but only after the ENT specialist switched their antibiotic treatment to amoxicillin-clavulanic acid. Although sound evidence is lacking, we suggest that the Practice Guidelines should be revised. In the primary health care setting, amoxicillin-clavulanic acid should become the first drug of choice for patients presenting with unilateral peritonsillar swelling and trismus in situations where the patient is still able to eat and drink and can be seen again within 24 hours." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0298_11176", "title": "[A 56-year-old man with fever, backache and tetraparesis].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "We report a 56-year-old man who developed progressive paraparesis. He was apparently well, except for left Bell's palsy which developed on May 9 of 1994, for which he received stellate ganglion block on the left side more than ten times until July 2nd of 1994, when he noted pain in his left shoulder and in his lumbar region. On July 5th, he noted some difficulty in urination. On July 6th, he noted tingling sensation in his four extremities and difficulty in gait. He was admitted to another hospital where he was treated with intravenous infusion of glycerol. After this treatment, his gait and sensory disturbance showed some improvement, however, on July 7th, his shoulder and lumbar pain worsened, and he became unable to stand. His temperature went up to 39 degrees C on the next day. Lumbar CSF on that day contained 119 cells/microliters, 112 mg/dl of protein, and 53 mg/dl of sugar. He was transferred to our hospital on July 14th. His past medical history revealed that he had suffered from frequent bouts of osteomyelitis since the age of 13 years. He was operated on several times on osteomyelitis. He had been treated on his tooth ache until shortly before the onset of the present illness. He also received steroid hormone for his Bell's palsy. On admission, his consciousness varied from alert to stupor. His BP was 150/100 mmHg, HR 98/min and regular, BT 39.4 degrees C. The bulbar conjunctiva appeared somewhat icteric. Otherwise, general physical examination was unremarkable. On neurologic examination, there was no apparent dementia. Higher cerebral functions appeared intact. The optic discs were flat. Pupils were round and isocoric reacting to light and accommodation promptly. Ocular movements were full without nystagmus. Some exophthalmos was noted bilaterally. The sensation of the face and facial muscles were intact. The remaining cranial nerves also appeared intact. Nuchal rigidity was present. He was unable to stand or walk. Muscle strength was markedly diminished in all four limbs; manual muscle testing revealed 1 to 2/5 weakness in both upper and lower extremities bilaterally. Muscle stretch reflexes were decreased or lost in both upper and lower limbs, but the plantar response was extensor on the right. Sensation appeared to be diminished in legs, but detail was not clear because of disturbance of consciousness. Pertinent laboratory findings were as follows: WBC 12,800/microliter, GPT 58 IU/l, total bilirubin 2.65 mg/dl, and CRP 16.8 mg/dl. Cerebrospinal fluid contained 34 cells/microliter (approximately two thirds were neutrophils), RBC 1,110/microliter, 2,949 mg/dl of protein, and 119 mg/dl of glucose; stapylococcus aureus was cultured from the CSF. Myelogram showed a filling defect in the anterior epidural space between the low thoracic and the upper lumbar region. The patient was treated with cephotaxim, aminobenzyl penicillin, and chloramphenicol. On the second hospital day, his BT was still 39 degrees C and he was agitated His weakness was worse than the previous day. Spinal MRI was attempted; as he was agitated 5 mg of diazepam was given intravenously at 4 PM. His respiration was rapid and somewhat shallow. At 6 PM, gadolinium DTPA was injected intravenously; at that time, he was breathing and pupils were 3 mm on both sides. At 6:35 PM, an examiner noted that he stopped breathing; the left pupil was dilated to 5 mm. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation was initiated immediately, and intubation was performed. He was placed on a respirator. His blood pressure did not reach 100 mmHg; he was in deep coma. Cardiac arrest occurred at 8:53 AM on the next morning. The patient was discussed in a neurological CPC. Most of the participants thought that the patient had either spinal epidural empyema or spinal subdural abscess. The question was what might be the original focus of infection. Three possibilities were considered, i.e., stellate ganglion block, teeth infection, and osteomyelitis..." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0087_8714", "title": "[A case of favorable outcome of conservative treatment of acute otogenic cerebellar abscess].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "The authors report a case of conservatively cured abscess in the left cerebellar hemisphere demonstrated by CT. The patient was admitted in serious condition to a neurotraumatology centre. After pharmacological treatment a quick improvement of patient's health was achieved and control CT examination during his stay in hospital and after discharge from hospital confirmed the relation between clinical improvement and regression of changes in CT. The presented case points to the possibility of conservative treatment of brain abscesses if the patient meets certain clinical criteria, and CT provides the possibility of repeated checking of the dynamics of intracranial lesion." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 142, 306 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 26, 55 ] ], "text": "Option 1 leaves the treatment incomplete, there is only ATRA and it must be treated as long as the patient's condition allows it, whether or not there are symptoms." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 141 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 26 ] ], "text": "It is a definitive promyelocytic leukemia with t(15;17), and as it is well known by all of you the treatment is with arsenic trioxide + ATRA." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 307, 417 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 55, 74 ] ], "text": "Option 3 3 years ago would have been the correct option but nowadays neither chemotherapy nor heparin is used." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 422, 550 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 75, 98 ] ], "text": "option 4 is false because that fever is due to the leukemia itself and the priority is to start specific treatment for leukemia." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "If asymptomatic, transretinoic acid (ATRA) will be started and day hospital controls will be recommended.", "2": "Start treatment with arsenic trioxide, ATRA and supportive therapy.", "3": "It is a myeloblastic leukemia type M3, so chemotherapy and heparin will be started to control disseminated intravascular coagulation.", "4": "Antibiotic treatment should be started. When the fever disappears, leukemia treatment should be started.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0807_4899", "title": "Postremission therapy in acute promyelocytic leukemia: room for improvement?", "score": 0.018812930577636458, "content": "A 29-year-old white man presented to the hospital with a 3-week history of fatigue, generalized weakness, gingival swelling and bleeding, and headaches. Laboratory work revealed WBC 30.4 k/μL, hemoglobin 7.9 g/dL, and platelets 16 k/μL. The WBC differential showed 64% blasts and 24% promyelocytes. Coagulation studies revealed prothrombin time (PT) 13.5 seconds, internationalized normalized ratio (INR) 1.3, fibrinogen 199 mg/dL, D-dimer greater than 1.0 μg/mL, and fibrin split products greater than 40 μg/mL. A bone-marrow aspirate with biopsy was performed, yielding the diagnosis of acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL), with t(15;17)(q23;q21.1) in all metaphases. Induction therapy commenced with daunorubicin, cytarabine (Ara-C), and all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA), and complete remission was documented 5 weeks later. PML-RARA fusion transcripts were still detected by reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction. He is now referred to you for consideration of postremission therapy in the setting of high-risk acute promyelocytic leukemia in first remission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0866_3216", "title": "DIC Complicating APL Successfully Treated With Recombinant Thrombomodulin Alfa.", "score": 0.018558295386201563, "content": "An 8-year-old boy developed anorexia, fatigue, and fever. Laboratory examination revealed a high white blood cell (WBC) count of 145×10/μL with 97.5% abnormal promyelocytic cells that contained Auer bodies. Faggot cells were seen. He was diagnosed with acute promyelocytic leukemia. Later, a chromosome analysis showed 46,XY,t(15;17)(q22;q12). Promyelocytic Leukemia-retinoic acid receptor α-fused gene and chimeric mRNA were confirmed by fluorescence in situ hybridization and reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction, respectively. He was complicated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and his fibrin and fibrinogen degradation product at the onset was 37.6 μg/mL. Human recombinant thrombomodulin (rTM) was started for DIC. After dexamethasone was administered at a dose of 8 mg/m to prevent all-trans retinoic acid syndrome on day 1, all-trans retinoic acid was started at a dose of 45 mg/m on day 4. Cytarabine (100 mg/m/d) and daunorubicin (45 mg/m/d) were started on day 9. The WBC count gradually increased to 270×10/μL on day 8, and then decreased beginning on day 9. DIC improved after the initiation of chemotherapy and only minor petechia was noted. DIC did not become worse even after rTM was stopped on day 8. The risk of DIC and bleeding is high in the early stage of treatment for acute promyelocytic leukemia, especially in patients with a high WBC count. In our patient, rTM may have prevented fatal DIC and made it possible to safely administer induction chemotherapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0282_16642", "title": "[Complete remission of acute promyelocytic leukemia accompanied by DIC in an elderly patient treated with all-trans retinoic acid].", "score": 0.018304351443547716, "content": "In this paper we report on a 74-year-old female patient who was suffering from acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) and who, upon admission to our hospital on February 20, 1992, was also found to be stricken with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The DIC, however, was quickly arrested by administration of heparin and there was no exacerbation. Also, on admission her peripheral blood leukocyte count was 700/ul, but after oral administration of all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) (45 mg/m/day) was begun on February 22, this count gradually increased and peaked at 35,200/ul on March 7. Some of these matured leukocytes revealed dysplastic features; some had Auer bodies. At this time cytogenetic analysis of bone marrow cells showed 46XX, t (15;17). The leukocyte count gradually decreased to 1,500/ul, and the dysplastic features disappeared. On March 21 her thrombocytes and reticulocytes began to increase, and she achieved complete remission when her abnormal karyotype disappeared on March 24. She suffered no severe complications such as infection or hemorrhage during treatment. We therefore suggest that ATRA is very effective for APL in elderly patients. It neither exacerbates DIC nor increases the risk of infection. In fact, when ATRA treatment is compared to the standard cytotoxic chemotherapy there is a reduced risk of infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0530_16261", "title": "[Effect of all-trans retinoic acid on the newly diagnosed acute promyelocytic leukaemia: our experience].", "score": 0.018187830687830687, "content": "Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is characterised by the morphology of bias cells (M3), t(15;17) translocation, and coagulopathy combining disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and fibrinolysis. Anthracy cline-cytosine arabinoside (Ara C) intensive chemotherapy yields a complete remission in 50 percent (%) to 80% of newly diagnosed APL patients. Failure to achieve complete remission results in fatal bleeding due to coagulopathy or fatal sepsis during the phase of aplasia. It has been recently shown that all trans retinoic acid (ATRA) selectively differentiates abnormal promyelocytes into mature granulocytes in APL, both in vitro and in vivo, and induced complete remission in 80% to 90% of the newly diagnosed patients. It has also been observed that therapy with ATRA rapidly improved coagulopathy, and induced no aplasia. However, in 30% of patients the treatment with ATRA as a single drug was associated with rapid increase in leukocytes and signs of \"ATRA syndrome\", which could have fatal outcome. Therefore the European study group initiated in 1991 a multicentre randomised trial comparing chemotherapy with daunorubicin Ara C (chemotherapy group) and ATRA combined to the same chemotherapy (ATRA group) in newly diagnosed APL patients, aged 65 years or less. Results of this study strongly suggest that ATRA should be incorporated in the front line therapy of newly diagnosed APL. The aim of our study was to confirm their results in our newly diagnosed patients. In our study we had 15 subsequently hospitalised patients with APL in whom diagnosis was made according to MIC classification, and who were treated with ATRA (Vesanoid-Hoffman La Roche) combined with chemotherapy according to the recommendation of the European study groups. The comparison of the effect of ATRA we has evaluated by the outcome of APL in 12 patients who received only combined chemotherapy in induction phase according to the Yu-AML-89 protocol 12 or 01-AM-86 protocol. Both protocols include daunorubicin and Ara C. In all patients MIC classification was performed. Characteristics of the patients included in the study with special emphasis to symptoms at presentation, are given in Table 1. Patients treated with ATRA plus chemotherapy received daily oral dose of ATRA 45 mg/m2 until the complete remission, or for a maximum of 90 days. After complete remission they received three courses of daunorubicin 60 mg/m2 for 3 days, and Ara C 200 mg/m2 for 7 days. However, course one was added to ATRA on day one of treatment of initial leukocyte counts were greater than 5 x 10(9)/L or rapidly started to increase to above 6 x 10(9)/L or more. Patients treated with chemotherapy received only in induction phase daunorubicin 45 mg/m2 for 4 days and Ara C 200 mg/m for 7 days as well as the intensive platelet support, heparin, fresh frozen plasma in those with bleeding. During the study haemostasis monitoring was performed in all patients. Complete remission was defined according to the criteria of the European study group. Early death was defined as a death during the therapy with ATRA or chemotherapy due to \"ATRA syndrome\", bleeding, aplasia, or resistant leukaemia. Statistical analysis was performed according to the Kruskal-Wallis test. Relevant haematological and pathobiological characteristics at presentation are shown in Table 2. It can be seen that there were no significant characteristic differences at presentation between ATRA group and chemotherapy group. The effects of the treatment are shown in Table 3. It can be seen that complete remission was achieved in 87% of patients receiving ATRA combined with chemotherapy and only in 42% of patients who received combined chemotherapy. This difference is significant (p &lt; 0.01). Duration of complete remission lasted for 14 months (median) in the patients receiving ATRA while only 5 months (median) in the patients who received combined chemotherapy. Fatal outcome in ATRA group occurred in 13% due to the \"ATRA syndrome\" and in 58% of the patients treated with combined chemotherapy due to bleeding. Table 4 shows four selected patients from ATRA group in whom complete remission was followed with disappearance of t (15;17), thus providint the evidence of the eradication of clonal abnormalities. It should be emphasised that 2 of 15 patients developed ATRA syndrome during the early phases of the treatment with a feature of cardiorespiratory distress. The therapy with steroid was unsuccessful. Nine of 13 patients in ATRA group had moderate side effects with no necessity to discontinue the therapy. Our clinical trial shows for the first time in our county a beneficial effect of ATRA in addition to chemotherapy compared with chemotherapy alone in newly diagnosed APL, thus comfirming the results of the European study group. The only flaw of in our study may come from the fact that the patients included in the study were not randomised and that for the comparison of the ATRA group were used previously treated patients with chemotherapy alone. However, we believe that this flaw has been overcome since uniform diagnostic procedure and particularly MIC classification were performed in all patients. In addition to that, all patients included in the trial were subjected to the analysis of haemostatic status as well as to precise biochemical studies, ECG and abdominal echography. It is interesting to note that in our study, similarity to the European study group, 13% of patients developed \"ATRA syndrome\". Therefore, it is recommended that further effort should be made in order to prevent this fatal and not yet resolved syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0792_7774", "title": "[Analysis of empirical treatment for newly diagnosed acute promyelocytic leukemia combined with disseminated intravascular coagulation].", "score": 0.017905459175553078, "content": "This study was aimed to explore the clinical characteristics and optimal therapeutic methods for newly diagnosed acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) combined with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) so as to guide the clinical therapy. The clinical date and therapeutic outcome of 25 cases of APL combined with DIC treated from January 2008 to March 2013 in our department were analysed retrospectively. The 25 patients were given ATRA 20 mg orally twice a day and arsenic trioxide (ATO) 10 mg intravenously once a day to induce differentiation therapy, the chemotherapy was added after degranulation of promyelocytes. At the same time the platelets, fresh frozen plasma, fibrinogen, cryoprecipitate,prothrombin complex and amino methylbenzoic acid, low molecular weight heparin were given to treat DIC. According to the laboratorial examination of coagulation and fibrinolysis, the medication was adjusted.The white blood cell count, platelet level, prothrombin time (PT), partial thromboplastin time of plasma (APTT), fibrinogen level were detected, and the relation of those factors and age with bleeding severity was analyzed by multivariate manner. The results showed that among 25 patients with APL (low-risk 5 cases, intermediate risk 13 cases and high risk 7 cases), 22 cases combined with DIC, incidence of DIC was 88%. Out of 22 patients with DIC 21 patients (95.5%) were corrected, except 1 case death. After the first course of treatment, 23 cases (92%) gained complete remission (CR) with average CR time 31.8 ± 7.2 days. During the induction of CR, the average platelet transfusion level was 75.68 ± 55.88 U, the RBC level was 8.90 ± 5.69 U, the average level of fresh frozen plasma transfusion of APL patients with DIC was 21.92 ± 19.32 U. The recovery time of platelet level to normal was 29.3 ± 9.3 days, the recovery time of PT, APTT, FDP and fibrinogen to normal were 12.7 ± 9.5 days, 11.6 ± 8.6 days, 16.0 ± 9.3 days and 125.3 ± 85.3 days respectively. The multivariate analysis showed that WBC count at onset was &gt;10 × 10(9)/L and APTT was prolonged. These two factors were main reasons resulting in severe bleeding. It is concluded that the newly diagnosed APL always combined with DIC, therefore in the early phase of disease active transfusion of blood products, application of anti-coagulation and anti-fibrinolytic drugs as well as heparin should be performed; the coagulation function should be as soon as recovered to normal so as to early correct DIC. These measures can significantly decrease the mortality of APL patients resulting from DIC. The hyperleukocytosis and prolonged APTT are the main factors for severe bleeding." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0232_221", "title": "Acute promyelocytic leukemia with (15;17) translocation and chromosome no. 11 deletion (q23).", "score": 0.017467581998474445, "content": "The patient, a 76-year-old man, was referred with fever, large ecchymotic lesions and ulcerative laryngitis. Blood counts showed a hemoglobin of 11 g/100 ml, hematocrit of 31%, red blood cell count of 3.5 X 10(12)/1, white blood cell count of 6.8 X 10(9)/1 and platelet count of 16.0 X 10(9)/1. The differential count showed 17% neutrophils, 4% lymphocytes, 40% promyelocytes and 39% myeloblasts. The sternal marrow sample showed a marked hypercellularity. Of the cells, 80-85% were hypergranular promyelocytes, some of them showing bundles of Auer rods. No granulocytic maturation was observed. A few erythroblasts were present. A disseminated intravascular coagulation was observed (fibrinogen 0.85 g/l, factor V 18%, fibrin degradation products 640 mg/l). The serum creatinin was at 217 micromol/1 and the urea at 16.8 mmol/1. The treatment (daunorubicin, heparin, platelet transfusion) was unsuccessful and the patient died three days after entering hospital. The bone marrow karyotype by direct examination showed only normal metaphases (32 photographed). All the metaphases from the unstimulated blood 48-h culture (25 photographed) were clonal, showing the pattern 47,XY,del(11) (q23),t(15;17) (q24? q22?), +mar. The marker was '16 like' in size but its origin could not be determined (Figs. 1 and 2)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0814_24602", "title": "[An unusual cause of febrile neutropenia: brucellosis].", "score": 0.017011197243755383, "content": "Febrile neutropenia which is a common complication of cancer treatment, is one of the major causes of morbidity and mortality. Several gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria are responsible for infections in neutropenic patients, however the most common microorganisms are Escherichia coli and coagulase-negative staphylococci, in decreasing order. Although Brucella spp. infections are endemic in Turkey, brucellosis-related febrile neutropenia has only rarely been reported. In this report, a case of brucellosis-related febrile neutropenia in a patient with acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) was presented. A 56-year-old male patient presenting with fever, petechiae/purpura, leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, and anemia was admitted to our hospital. Laboratory studies revealed a hemoglobin level of 8.27 g/dl, leukocyte count of 77.100 k/ml, absolute neutrophil count of 200 k/ml, and platelets at 94.200 k/ml. The patient was diagnosed as AML-M1 and piperacillin/tazobactam was started as the first-line antibiotic therapy due to the febrile neutropenia. On admission, blood and urine cultures were negative. Once the fever was controlled, remission/induction chemotherapy was initiated. However, fever developed again on the eight day, and vancomycin was added to the therapy. Since the fever persisted, the antibiotic therapy was gradually replaced with meropenem and linezolid. However, fever continued and the patient's general condition deteriorated. Subsequently performed Brucella tube agglutination test revealed positivity at 1/320 titer and the microorganism grown in blood culture (Bactec 9050; BD, USA) was identified as B.melitensis by conventional methods. Rifampicin and doxycycline therapy was started immediately, however, the patient died due to septic shock. If the tests for brucellosis were performed earlier when response to second step antibiotic therapy lacked in this patient, it was assumed that mortality could be prevented by the prompt initiation of the appropriate treatment. Thus, since brucellosis is endemic in Turkey, it should be considered as a possible agent of febrile neutropenia especially in patients unresponsive to empiric antibiotherapy and appropriate diagnostic tests should be performed. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0305_19231", "title": "[All-trans retinoic acid-induced myelomonocytoid differentiation in acute promyelocytic leukemia].", "score": 0.016864591385004568, "content": "A 30-year-old man with a diagnosis of acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) was admitted. Laboratory findings were as follows: WBC 32,900/microliter with 88% promyelocytes, Hb 10.4 g/dl, platelets 2.6 x 10(4)/microliter. Coagulation tests revealed DIC. Bone marrow was hypercellular with 91.8% promyelocytes which were strongly positive for peroxidase and positive for alpha-naphthyl butyrate esterase. Cytogenetic study revealed 46, XY, t(15;17) (q22:q11). He was treated with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) along with hydroxyurea (HU) and low-molecular weight heparin (LMH). Because his WBC increased to 93,700/microliter on day 6 of ATRA therapy, DCMP chemotherapy was given, while ATRA was withheld. He developed enterocolitis due to myelosuppression. ATRA was restarted along with granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF). His WBC rose to 10,400/microliter with a marked, but temporary predominance of myelomonocytes both in peripheral blood and in bone marrow. These myelomonocytoid cells were positive for specific and nonspecific esterase double stainings. Then he entered complete remission. It was of interest that myelomonocytoid differentiation of APL cells was induced by ATRA. The etiology was discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0064_21285", "title": "[Marked bone marrow necrosis preceding acute myeloblastic leukemia in childhood].", "score": 0.01668520578420467, "content": "A 3-year-old boy was transferred to our hospital because of fever, abdominal pain and severe systemic bone pain on October 16, 1989. Hematological examination showed hemoglobin 8.7 g/dl, white blood cell count 5300/microliters with 9% neutrophils and platelet count 5.5 x 10(4)/microliters. Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy revealed markedly necrotic cells. Blood chemistry showed transient elevation of CRP, serum LDH, FDP, FDP-Ddimer and fibrinogen. Tc99m pyrophosphate bone scanning showed multiple uptake spots in various bone. Although the sign of fever, abdominal pain and bone pain disappeared spontaneously after three weeks, anemia persisted. About two months later from bone marrow necrosis, abnormal cells appeared in the bone marrow. A diagnosis of AML (M3) was made and a combination chemotherapy started. This case is remarkable for elevation of acute phase protein in association with bone marrow necrosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0783_1213", "title": "Comparison of laboratory characteristics between acute promyelocytic leukemia and other subtypes of acute myeloid leukemia with disseminated intravascular coagulation.", "score": 0.016463414634146342, "content": "Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) is an acute myeloid leukemia (AML) subtype with distinctive cell morphology, molecular presentation, clinical course, and treatment. About 90% of APL patients present with hemorrhagic complications due to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). When APL is suspected, all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) treatment is recommended even before confirmation by molecular tests. Specific criteria for differentiating unconfirmed APL from other AML subtypes with DIC are currently lacking. We aimed to achieve the early diagnosis of APL from other AML types with DIC by restricting the DIC criteria. We retrospectively analyzed 29 patients newly diagnosed with AML accompanied by DIC from January 2005 to January 2013. Fibrin degradation products (FDP) (77.7 µg/mL vs. 23.7 µg/mL, p=0.026), D-dimer (7,376.2 ng/mL vs. 1,315.2 ng/mL, p=0.018), and TIBC (264.4 µg/dL vs. 206.8 µg/dL, P=0.046) were higher, while fibrinogen (133.8 mg/dL vs. 373.2 mg/dL, p&lt;0.001), WBC (14.988×10(9)/L vs. 70.755×10(9)/L, p=0.015), and ESR (7.1 mm/h vs. 50.0 mm/h, p &lt;0.001) were lower in APL patients than in the patients with other AML subtypes. FDP ≥27 µg/mL, D-dimer ≥2,071 ng/mL, and fibrinogen ≤279 mg/dL were our threshold values. These markers may be characteristic to APL and helpful in presumptive diagnosis. APL may be differentiated from other AML subtypes by core markers of DIC (FDP, D-dimer, and fibrinogen). We suggest that clinicians set new diagnostic thresholds by restricting the DIC criteria. These findings support the early initiation of ATRA, prior to confirmation by PML-RARA molecular testing." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1087_24691", "title": "Successful treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia in a 92-year-old man using all-trans retinoic acid combined with oral arsenic: A case report.", "score": 0.016337285902503294, "content": "Acute promyelocytic leukemia is a special subtype of acute myeloid leukemia. The incidence of early death and complications is high. An oral regimen of all-trans retinoic acid combined with the realgar-indigo naturalis formula (RIF) without chemotherapy has provided a new strategy for the treatment of these patients. A 92-year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital due to fatigue and oral bleeding. He had no fever or lung infection. Routine blood test showed white blood cell count 1.0 ×109/L, hemoglobin 100 g/L, and platelets 21 × 109/L. Coagulation function indicated fibrinogen 1.02 g/L and D-dimer 2360 ng/mL. And 28% abnormal promyelocytes were observed in peripheral blood. A bone marrow morphologic, immunophenotypic, cytogenetic, and molecular examination was performed. Routine bone marrow examination showed active proliferation of nucleated cells, with promyelocytes accounting for 91%; immunophenotyping revealed an early myeloid cell population, accounting for approximately 82.4% of all cells. From February 15, 2020, 25 mg/m2 all-trans retinoic acid was orally administered daily. After the fusion gene result was obtained, oral administration of 60 mg/kg RIF daily began since February 18, 2020. The combination of the 2 agents was given until March 16, 2020. Oral administration of 25 mg/m2 retinoic acid daily began from March 20, 2020 for 2 weeks, and oral administration of 60 mg/kg RIF daily lasted for 4 weeks as the consolidation therapy. During the treatment, the proportion of promyelocytes in peripheral blood, white blood cell count, platelets, coagulation function, liver function, and QT interval were monitored. Oral retinoic acid and oral RIF were given without chemotherapy and the patient achieved bone marrow remission after 1 month, and molecular remission was achieved 2 months later. In the early stage of acute promyelocytic leukemia, combined thrombocytopenia and disseminated intravascular coagulation may develop. Platelet and fresh frozen plasma infusion were proactively given until platelets were stabilized above 30 × 109/L, and the coagulation function returned to normal. The regimen was safe and effective, and subsequent treatment did not require hospitalization, which helped to improve the patient's quality of life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0714_17965", "title": "Newly diagnosed acute promyelocytic leukemia.", "score": 0.015811730097444382, "content": "Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) represents a medical emergency with a high rate of early mortality. As a consequence, as soon as the diagnosis is suspected based upon cytologic criteria, it is necessary to start all- trans retinoic acid (ATRA) treatment without delay. For patients with newly diagnosed APL, induction therapy with ATRA plus anthracycline based chemotherapy is recommended. At present the combination of arsenic trioxide plus ATRA should be considered for patients who are not candidates for anthracycline-based therapy. For pediatric and adult patients with APL aged &lt; 60 years who achieve a CR with induction, I recommend 3 intensive courses of consolidation chemotherapy associated to ATRA, targeted on the basis of the risk group at diagnosis. In patients treated with a very intensive consolidation chemotherapy maintenance treatment can be omitted. However If a maintenance treatment has to be adopted I suggest the use of intermittent ATRA for 15 days every 3 months for a period of 2 years, rather than ATRA associated to chemotherapy. Moreover, taking into account the medical literature, a reduced dosage of ATRA ( 25 mg/m(2)) in pediatric patients and a consolidation chemotherapy of reduced intensity in elderly patients is recommended. Furthermore, in order to maximize survival, careful attention should be reserved to the coagulopathy and to the appearance of the differentiation syndrome. Finally, PCR for the PML/RARA fusion gene on a bone marrow specimen every three months for two years, and then every six months for additional three years are needed during the follow-up." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0548_7830", "title": "Successful treatment of retinoic acid syndrome with dexamethasone: a case report.", "score": 0.015696649029982364, "content": "Retinoic acid syndrome (RAS) is the clinical syndrome that occurs after treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia with all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA). The patients experience fever, dyspnea, hypotension, respiratory distress, edema and weight gain. Chest x-ray will show pulmonary infiltrates and pleuropericardial effusion. The onset of this syndrome is usually 5-21 days after ATRA treatment when white blood cell counts are rising more than 10,000/cu.mm. The authors have reported a case of RAS. The patient was a 29-year-old man who had been working in a battery manufacturing factory for 7 years. He presented with easily bruising for one month. The initial blood test showed hematocrit of 36.2%, white blood cells count of 3,200/cu.mm with 28% neutrophils, 20% lymphocytes, 2% eosinophils and 50% promyelocytes and platelet of 20,000/cu.mm. Peripheral blood smear revealed numerous fragmented red blood cells. Bone marrow examination showed hypercellularity with abnormal promyelocytes of 95% and bone marrow cytogenetics was translocation of chromosome 15 and 17 [t (15;17)(q22;q12)]. The diagnosis was acute promyelocytic leukemia and the patient was treated with ATRA 45 mg/m2/day per oral starting on day 1 and intravenous idarubicin 10 mg/n2 on day 4, 5 and 6. On day 13, he had a body temperature of 39 degrees C and a dry cough. The white blood cells were rising to 7,400/cu.mm with 16% neutrophils. On day 18, he had oliguria, high grade fever, hypotension, cough with chest pain and white blood cells rose to 21,300/cu.mm with 65% neutrophils and rising of blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. Chest x-ray showed enlarged cardiac shadow with pleural effusion. Echocardiogram revealed moderate amount of pericardial effusion. The diagnosis of RAS was made and ATRA was withdrawn. Intravenous dexamethasone 4 mg every 6 hours and hemodialysis was started. The patient's symptoms improved dramatically and bone marrow examination was in complete remission. He was subsequently given cytarabine and idarubicin as consolidation. This patient had clinical manifestation consistent with RAS, which improved after prompt treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0682_7935", "title": "Acquired protein C deficiency in a child with acute myelogenous leukemia, splenic, renal, and intestinal infarction.", "score": 0.015491452991452992, "content": "We report the case of a 6-year-old boy diagnosed with acute promyelocytic leukemia (AML-M3V) when he presented with pallor, abdominal pain, anorexia, and fatigue. Induction chemotherapy was started according to the AML-BFM 98 protocol along with Vesanoid (ATRA, All-trans retinoic acid). On the sixth day of induction, he developed splenic and gallbladder infarcts. Splenectomy and cholecystectomy were performed while chemotherapy induction continued as scheduled. Four days later, he developed ischemic areas in the kidneys and ischemic colitis in the sigmoid colon. Hypercoagulation studies showed severe deficiency of protein C. Tests showed protein C 16% (reference range 70-140%), protein S 87% (reference range 70-140%), antithrombin III 122% (reference range 80-120%), prothrombin time 13.6 s (reference = 11.3), INR (international normalized ratio) 1.21, partial thromboplastin time 33 s (reference = 33), fibrinogen 214 mg/dl, D-dimer 970 μg/ml, factor II 98%, and that antinuclear antibody, antiphospholipid antibodies, mutation for factor II gene (G20210A), and mutation for Arg506 Gln of factor V were all negative (factor V Leiden). There was no evidence of clinical disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). He was treated with low molecular weight heparin and did well. He continues to be in complete remission 7 years later with normal protein C levels. Acquired protein C deficiency can occur in a variety of settings and has been reported in acute myelocytic leukemia. However, clinically significant thrombosis in the absence of clinical DIC, such as our case, remains extremely rare." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0299_14175", "title": "[CD2 and CD8 expression in acute promyelocytic leukemia].", "score": 0.014677501269680041, "content": "A 34-year-old man was admitted to our hospital for a headache in March, 1995. The patient's hemoglobin was 7.5 g/dl, platelet count was 1.8 x 10(4)/microliter and white blood cell (WBC) count was 12,400/microliters with 99% myeloblasts. Myeloblasts were agranular or hypogranular but electron microscopy revealed microgranules in cytoplasm, and a few faggots were observed. The bone marrow was hyperplastic due to myeloblasts and chromosomal abnormality was recognized: 46, XY, t(15; 17) (q22; q12). PML-RAR alpha with intron 3 breakpoint of the PML locus, and rearrangements of the T-cell receptor beta and gamma genes were detected. These cells were positive for CD2 (63%), CD8 (47%), CD13 (87%) and CD33 (99%). Microgranular variant type of acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) was diagnosed. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) was also present. The patient was treated with enocitabine, daunorubicin, 6-mercaptopurine, dalteparin sodium, anti-thrombin III concentrates and gabexate mesilate with prophylactic frozen transfusions of fresh plasma and platelet transfusions for 5 days, but WBC count did not decrease and DIC did not improve. The patient died of cerebral hemorrhage 7 days after diagnosis of APL. APL with CD8 expression has never been reported. We suggest that therapy should be modified in this type of APL and conclusions concerning the most appropriate therapeutic strategy will depend on the results of treatment of similar cases in the future." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en090_18824", "title": "Acute myeloid leukemia", "score": 0.014640326591900897, "content": "Acute promyelocytic leukemia is treated with all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA) and either arsenic trioxide (ATO) monotherapy or an anthracycline. A syndrome similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation can develop during the initial few days of treatment or at the time the leukemia is diagnosed, and treatment can be complicated by a differentiation syndrome characterised by fever, fluid overload and low oxygen levels. Acute promyelocytic leukemia is considered curable. There is insufficient evidence to determine if prescribing ATRA in addition to chemotherapy to adults that suffer from acute myeloid leukaemia is helpful. Consolidation Even after complete remission is achieved, leukemic cells likely remain in numbers too small to be detected with current diagnostic techniques. If no consolidation therapy or further postremission is given, almost all people with AML will eventually relapse." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0755_21996", "title": "Current routine practice and clinico-pathological characteristics associated with acute promyelocytic leukemia in Korea.", "score": 0.014005229801001641, "content": "Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) can be life threatening, necessitating emergency therapy with prompt diagnosis by morphologic findings, immunophenotyping, cytogenetic analysis, or molecular studies. This study aimed to assess the current routine practices in APL and the clinico-pathologic features of APL. We reviewed the medical records of 48 Korean patients (25 men, 23 women; median age, 51 (20-80) years) diagnosed with APL in 5 university hospitals between March 2007 and February 2012. The WBC count at diagnosis and platelet count varied from 0.4 to 81.0 (median 2.0)×10(9)/L and 2.7 to 124.0 (median 54.5)×10(9)/L, respectively. The median values for prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time were 14.7 (11.3-44.1) s and 29 (24-62) s, respectively. All but 2 patients (96%) showed a fibrin/fibrinogen degradation product value of &gt;20 µg/mL. The D-dimer median value was 5,000 (686-55,630) ng/mL. The t(15;17)(q22;q12 and PML-RARA fusion was found in all patients by chromosome analysis and/or multiplex reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), with turnaround times of 8 (2-19) d and 7 (2-13) d, respectively. All patients received induction chemotherapy: all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) alone (N=11, 26%), ATRA+idarubicin (N=25, 58%), ATRA+cytarabine (N=3, 7%), ATRA+idarubicin+cytarabine (N=4, 9%). Since APL is a medical emergency and an accurate diagnosis is a prerequisite for prompt treatment, laboratory support to implement faster diagnostic tools to confirm the presence of PML-RARA is required." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0526_9444", "title": "Delayed recovery of normal hematopoiesis in arsenic trioxide treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia: a comparison to all-trans retinoic acid treatment.", "score": 0.012692307692307694, "content": "To examine laboratory data including total blood cell count, leukocyte morphology and coagulation parameters during treatment for acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) at a single institute, and compare the precise differences between all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) and arsenic trioxide (As2O3) treatment. Sixteen patients with APL who were treated with ATRA or As2O3 alone and achieved complete remission (CR) were analyzed. ATRA 45 mg/m2/day was given orally until CR. As2O3 0.15 mg/kg/day was given intravenously until leukemic blasts and promyelocytes were eliminated from the bone marrow. All 7 patients in the ATRA-treated group were primary cases and all 9 patients in the As2O3-treated group were relapsed cases after the achievement of CR with the ATRA. There was no difference in the data before treatment between these two groups. The duration of leukocytopenia and neutropenia during As2O3 treatment was significantly longer than those of ATRA treatment. The nadir of leukocyte and neutrophil counts was observed later in the As2O3-treated group. Terminal neutrophil differentiation was observed more obviously in the ATRA-treated group. The red blood cell count and hemoglobin concentration decreased significantly at the end of As2O3 treatment and were lower than those of ATRA treatment. Platelets recovered earlier in the ATRA-treated group. Coagulation parameters were not significantly changed between the two groups. In comparison with ATRA treatment, the recovery of several components in the peripheral blood cells was delayed in As2O3 treatment. Therefore we should pay more and longer attention in As2O3 treatment." }, { "id": "article-24207_24", "title": "Leukemia -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.011939056398438001, "content": "APL: APL patients typically present with bleeding diathesis with increased coagulation parameters (elevated PT, aPTT) and low fibrinogen. Peripheral smear shows a predominance of myeloid blasts with Auer rods. It is important to start the treatment with ATRA (all-trans-retinoic acid) when APL is suspected rather than awaiting confirmatory tests with FISH. ATRA advances arrested promyeloblasts into becoming mature granulocytes which can result in differentiation syndrome. [17] Differentiation syndrome is seen during 48 hours of ATRA initiation to even three weeks from starting therapy for APL. Patients have a fever, respiratory distress with acute pulmonary infiltration on imaging, and capillary leak resulting in edema. It can mimic sepsis, resulting in delaying the treatment with dexamethasone. The commonly accepted starting dosage is 10mg every 12 hours till improvement in symptoms and counts. [18] Other significant complication with ATRA includes raised intracranial pressure leading to headaches and significant vision changes from papilledema." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0560_171", "title": "[Complete remission of acute promyelocytic leukemia resisting all-trans retinoic acid of one case treated by tanshinone II A].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 30 years-old man was administrated with dizziness and fatigue for half month, and the big toe on his left foot got the prolonged bleeding of wound complicated with fever 7 days before the admission. The physical examination (PE) discovered that the case suffered from the anemic appearance, lower part tenderness of sternum, petechiae and purpura on skin of lower extremities, and with remaining not to be remarkable. The examination of blood routine showed WBC 2.3 x 10(9)/L, Hb 60/L, BPC 34 x 10(9)/L and blasts 0. 85. The bone marrow smear indicated markedly the hypercellularity, promyelocytes 89% and strongly positive myeloperoxidase (MPO). The PT and APTT were prolonged, and the FDP and D-dimer were positive. The acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) with DIC was diagnosed. The patient was administered with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) with dosage of 20 mg three times per day. After 14 week treatment, the patient did not get complete remission. Then the tanshinone II A was taken orally with 30mg twice each day. After 8 week treatment of tanshinone II A, the blood routine was restored to normal. Four weeks later, the bone marrow also became normally, and the patient got a complete remission (CR). After more than 3 months of consolidation therapy with tanshinone II A, the patient was relapsed. When the homoharringtonine and cytarabine (HA) were given, the patient was got CR again. Three years later, he was relapsed secondarily, and then died of intracranial hemorrhage. The tanshinone II A could induce CR of APL with ATRA resistance, no side effect was observed; there is a reoccurring possibility from consolidation therapy with tanshinone II A." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0647_4761", "title": "Gangrenous cheilitis associated with all-trans retinoic acid therapy for acute promyelocytic leukemia.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 67-year-old Japanese woman who presented with erythema on the abdomen and pancytopenia was found to have acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL). A skin biopsy revealed invasion of APL cells. She was started on induction treatment with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) at 45 mg/m(2). On day 4, the leukemic cell number had increased to over 1.0 x 10(9)/L. Consequently, chemotherapy with idarubicin and cytarabine was initiated. On day 10, dryness of the lips appeared. The lower lip swelled and developed painful black eschars. A high fever was also present. Despite discontinuing ATRA on day 20 and administering antibiotics, an anti-fungal agent and valaciclovir, these signs did not improve. Histopathologically, the biopsied lip revealed infiltration of neutrophils and vasculitis. The patient was given ATRA on days 29 and 30 due to an increase in APL cell numbers, after which the gangrenous cheilitis extended over the whole lip. On day 49, the patient was started on re-induction treatment with arsenic trioxide. She achieved complete remission and the gangrenous cheilitis slowly healed over the following 8 weeks. Since the clinical features of the gangrenous cheilitis in this case were similar to those of ATRA-associated scrotal ulcers, it appears that activated neutrophils derived from differentiated APL cells may have caused the gangrenous cheilitis. Physicians should be alert to the development of gangrenous cheilitis during treatment with ATRA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0260_6702", "title": "[Late and slow diagnosis of acute promyelocytic leukemias--the main cause of early death].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Acute hypergranular promyelocytic leukemia (AML M3) belongs to malignant diseases leading very rapidly to death. Immediate treatment based on early diagnosis may cure one third of patients. The typical finding in peripheral blood of patients is pancytopenia with or without atypical promyelocytes. In published studies only 15-25% patients exhibit leukocyte counts above 10 x 10(9)/l. Five of our ten patients studied had leukocyte count above 10 x 10(9)/l. The difference might be in connection with late and slow diagnosis of AML M3. AML is not taken into consideration during medical examination even if the disease occurs in medical family. Thus we describe clinical signs of AML M3 that could be divided into three main groups: bleeding, infections and anemia. In patients with bleeding or anemia or with infections repeating within a short period or with an infection and concurrent signs of bleeding or anemia the complete blood cell count should be examined immediately. If blood cell count abnormalities are found the patient should be sent immediately to hematology unit for further examination and treatment. Early diagnosis enables to start \"differentiation therapy\" with all-trans retinoic acid that could be administered as monotherapy only in patients with leukocytes below 5 x 10(9)/l. Early diagnosis of AML M3 might ameliorate the fate of patients, since four of our five patients referred to us with elevated leukocyte counts expired in the first five days." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0272_8087", "title": "[Therapy of disseminated intravascular coagulation in acute promyelocytic leukemias. Apropos of 19 cases].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To evaluate our experience in the treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) associated to AML-M3 with substitution therapy with or without heparin. The clinical records of 19 patients diagnosed of AML-M3 in the Hospital Juan Canalejo, in La Coruña, between 1986 and 1991 were revised. DIC was defined by abnormalities in one or more of the following: prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastic time, thrombin time, fibrinogenaemia, fibrin/fibrinogen degradation products, D-dimers. The treatment given to 13 patients was only substitutive including platelets, fresh-frozen plasma, cryoprecipitates and antithrombin III. Low-dose sodium heparin (Kabi) in continuous intravenous infusion was associated to the treatment of the remaining 6 patients. With regard to the leukaemic therapy, most of the patients received daunorubicin, 2 mg/kg/day x 5 days, and AraC, 100 mg/Kg/day x 7 days. All patients showed haemorrhagic symptoms at diagnosis, and laboratory data of DIC were present in 11 cases (57%). The mean duration of DIC was 6.5 days for the patients receiving substitutive treatment and 9.5 days for those given heparin. Complete remission (CR) of the leukaemia was attained in 12 cases (63%); of the patients treated with heparin, 50% achieved CR whereas 75% of those receiving substitute therapy attained CR. The 24-months survival rate was 30% for the patients treated with substitutive therapy and 16% for those treated with heparin. The incidence of death associated to haemorrhage during induction therapy was 30% for the substitutive treatment group and 50% for the heparin group. Shorter duration of DIC, lesser rate of early death, higher CR rate and longer 2-year survival were found in those AML-M3 patients not receiving heparin." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en051_5938", "title": "Pancytopenia", "score": 0.009436986575836505, "content": "Diagnosis Pancytopenia usually requires a bone marrow biopsy in order to distinguish among different causes. anemia: hemoglobin < 13.5 g/dL (male) or 12 g/dL (female). leukopenia: total white cell count < 4.0 x 109/L. Decrease in all types of white blood cells (revealed by doing a differential count). thrombocytopenia: platelet count < 150×109/L. Treatment Treatment is done to address the underlying cause. To tide over immediate crisis Blood transfusion with packed red blood cells (PRBC) or platelet transfusion may be done. Sometimes there are obvious clinical clues to suggest underlying B12 deficiency for a cause of pancytopenia. In this selected cases even with severe anemia blood product transfusions can be avoided and vitamin B12 treatment itself suffice. In other situations like acute leukemia, Myelodysplastic syndrome, aplastic anemia etc. disease specific therapy is needed. References External links EID Journal (Volume 6, Number 6), CDC, December 2000." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0780_13350", "title": "Co-expression of t(15;17) and t(8;21) in a Case of Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia: Review of the Literature.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Additional chromosomal abnormalities in acute myelogenous leukemia have been identified as one of the most important prognostic factors. Favorable chromosomal changes such as t(8;21), inv(16), and t(15;17) are associated with higher rates of complete remission and event-free survival. Translocation (15;17) characterizes acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) (French-American-British class M3) in almost all patients. Secondary chromosomal abnormalities are also present in approximately 23%-29% of patients with newly diagnosed APL. The prognostic implications of t(8;21) and other secondary cytogenetic aberrations in APL are reviewed here. We present a 47-year-old woman diagnosed with APL whose initial cytogenetic analysis included both t(8;21) and t(15;17). The initial induction chemotherapy included 3 days of idarubicin (12 mg/m2/day) and daily all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA; 45 mg/m2/day). At the sixth week of treatment, a control bone marrow biopsy was found to be normocellular, t(15;17) bcr3 and t(8;21) were negative, and t(15;17) bcr1 fusion transcripts were reduced from 5007 (1.78525699%) copies per 1 µg RNA to 40 (0.00062020%) with real-time quantitative polymerase chain reaction. Consolidation with 4 days of idarubicin (5 mg/m2/day), ATRA (45 mg/m2/day for 15 days), and cytarabine (1 g/m2/day for 4 days) was then started. However, the patient became pancytopenic and had neutropenic fever after consolidation treatment. Unfortunately, she died 3 months after the time of APL diagnosis, due to acute respiratory distress syndrome-like respiratory problems and multiorgan dysfunction requiring respiratory support and hemodialysis. None declared." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0364_7931", "title": "[Hemostatic changes during the treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia with all-transretinoic acid].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To study hemostasis in ATRA treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL). Hemostasis was studied in 8 newly admitted APL patients treated with ATRA. All of them had hemorrhages, thrombocytopenia 5-15 x 10(9)/l at diagnosis, laboratory signs of the DIC syndrome at induction therapy. Hemorrhage arresting was seen on the ATRA therapy day 14 to 30. Duration of thrombocytopenia under 20 x 10(9)/l was 5.8 +/- 1.8 days. After 7 days of ATRA therapy coagulation tests improved with some hypercoagulation tendency. Subsequent condition of hemostasis was considered as normo/hypercoagulation accompanied by constant thrombin persistence (in the presence of FDP) and depression of hageman-dependent fibrinolysis even in remission. A case of ileofemoral thrombosis followed by fatal thromboembolism of the pulmonary artery is reported. It is suggested to use heparin, especially low molecular weight heparin when there are signs of hypercoagulation in APL patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1043_7936", "title": "[A Case of Simultaneous Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia Diagnosis with Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever (CCHF) is a zoonotic disease that can be presented with fever, fatigue, generalized joint/body pain, diarrhea and bleeding in various parts of the body. The risk of developing a severe fatal disease in humans, the possibility of being infected with aerosols and the risk of being used as a biological weapon make the disease still an important health problem all over the world as there is no a specific treatment and vaccine that has proven effective againt the virus today. The pathogenesis of the disease is not known, but vascular endothelial damage is prominent. Therefore, it progresses with thrombocytopenia, anemia, leukopenia and this hematological findings can be confused with hematological malignancies. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a malignancy included in differential diagnoses and occurs as a result of mutations occuring at a stage of differentiation in the lymphoid precursor cells in the bone marrow. In this study, we present a case of ALL who was diagnosed with CCHF simultaneously. A 43-year old female patient who works in the library and does not have a chronic disease other than asthma and thyroid disorder, has admitted to our hospital with the complaints of intermittent fever, weakness, generalized joint and body pain for about 3 weeks. She had fever and the physical examination revealed bilateral cervical and right postauricular lymphadenopathies. Her aspartate aminotransferase: 77 U/L, alanine aminotransferase: 117 U/L, lactate dehydrogenase: 616 U/L, hemoglobin: 8.27 g/dl, leukocyte count: 15.690/mm3 , neutrophil count: 550/mm3 (%3.5), lymphocyte count: 6690/mm3 (%42.6), platelet count: 102.100/mm3 , C-reactive protein: 163.6 mg/L was detected and the patient was hospitalized on 5 August 2019 for further examination and treatment. Considering that the patient may have viral infection in the foreground the requested test results were detected as; anti-CMV IgM negative, anti-CMV IgG positive, anti-toxoplasma IgM negative, anti-toxoplasma IgG positive, anti-rubella IgM negative, anti-rubella IgG positive, HBsAg negative, anti-HBc IgM negative, antiHBs positive, anti-HAV IgM negative, anti-HAV IgG positive, anti-HCV negative, anti-HIV negative, EpsteinBarr virus (EBV) VCA IgM negative, EBV VCA IgG positive, EBV EBNA IgG positive. Brucella Rose Bengal and Coombs tube agglutination was found be negative. As the cytopenia of the patient deepened, the patient was accepted to have neutropenic fever and it was planned to start piperacillin-tazobactam 4 x 4.5 g/day and two units of erythrocyte replacement therapy. When the patient's history was questioned again, it was learned that she had a tick on her neck about three weeks ago and she had removed the tick herself; 4-5 days later she had the complaints of fever and flu like symptoms and also diarrhea complaints lasting for 3-4 days. Considering the current anamnesis and laboratory findings, the patient was thought to have CCHF and the patient was isolated. The serum sample taken from patient with an initial diagnosis of CCHF and sent to Department of Microbiology Reference Laboratory Public Health Agency of Turkey. The patient was referred to the Antalya Training and Research Hospital. The patient's CCHF serum result was positive. Ribavirin treatment was not initiated in the patient who was accepted to be in the convalescence period, piperacillin-tazobactam 4 x 4.5 g/day treatment was continued and supportive treatment was given. In the follow-up, as the patient's neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and lymphocytopenia still continuing, she was transferred to hematology clinic for malignancy examination and bone marrow biopsy performed by hematology and B cell ALL was diagnosed. She was accepted to be convalescent in terms of CCHF and chemotherapy was started for ALL treatment by hematology. The patient is still being followed up by the hematology clinic and allogenic hematopoietic stem cell tranplantation is planned for the patient. As a result, CCHF is a disease that can be confused with many differential diagnosis. With this case, it is aimed to draw attention to the diagnostic difficulties of CCHF and ALL and to be the first case in the literature." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0514_19491", "title": "Neutropenic enterocolitis in acute myeloid leukemia.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "In this report we focus on the importance of an accurate diagnosis of gastrointestinal complications during chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia. The leukemic infiltrtion of the digestive system may cause mucosal ulcers which can lead to bleeding or perforation. The immune system deficiency in this cohort of patients may result in necrotic enterocolitis (leukemic typhlitis), perianal inflammation, abscesses, and peritonitis. We describe a 37-year old male who presented in June 2004 with 2-month history of fever, weakness and sore throat, treated with antibiotic therapy. Physical examination demonstrated palor. The peripheral blood count at admittance was as follow: Hemoglobin 87 g/l, WBC 63 x 10(9)/l, and platelets 56 x 10(9)/l. The peripheral blood differential count showed: myeloblasts 4%, polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMN) 20%, monocytes 60%, lymphocytes 16%. The diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) was confirmed by bone marrow aspirate, which presented an almost total infiltration by monocytoid blasts, AML type M5 according to FAB classification. Immunophenotypic evaluation by flow cytometry showed that the blast cells reacted with antibodies to CD33, CD13, CD14, CD64, CD15, cytogenetics showed normal karyotype. Induction treatment consisting of cytarabine 2 x 200 mg intravenously in push on days 1-8, vepeside 200 mg i.v. on days 1-5, adriblastine 90 mgon days 1,3 and 5. On day 15 of chemotherapy the patient got fever 38.5 degrees C, abdominal pain and diarrhea (10 stools daily). Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy with ceftriaxone and amikacin was promptly instituted but condition worsened, abdominal pain extended to all abdomen while the fever and diarrhea persisted. Ultrasonography on day 18 documented bowel wall thickness of colic tract, part of duodenum and jejunum. Owing to suspicion of neutropenic enterocolitis, antibiotic therapy intensified with teicoplanin, fluconazole, metronidazole and pipril. Patient was neutropenic and thrombocytopenic, although daily platelet transfusion from a single donor were given. We started with granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) 5 g/kg, which was adiminstered for 7 days. After 7 days neutrophil value reached 1 x 10(9)/l, but fever persisted, abdominal distension and diarrhea progressively improved. The fever peristed and central venous catheter was removed on day 30. After removal of the catheter the patient was getting better: the fever disappeared. The blood count showed Hb 91 g/l, WBC 3,4 x 10(9)/l, platelet 114 x 10(9)/l and normal leukocyte differential count. We emphesize the importance of collaboration between the hematologist and the surgeon in monitoring gastrointestinal complications during and after chemotherapy for acute leukemias and value of abdominal ultrasonography evaluation." }, { "id": "article-27807_14", "title": "Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia -- Treatment / Management -- Supportive Therapy", "score": 0.009115448504983388, "content": "Supportive therapy plays a very important role in the survival of patients with acute leukemia. Bleeding diathesis is a known complication, especially in patients receiving treatment and platelets, should be maintained above 30 to 50 × 10/l and fibrinogen above 100 mg/dl to 150 mg/dl, with aggressive blood product support. High suspicion should be maintained for systemic infections as the patients are routinely immunosuppressed. In granulocytopenic patients with fever, an empiric antibiotic regimen to treat gram-negative bacteria should be instituted. Vancomycin should be started, if there is suspicion of catheter-related infection or based on blood cultures or if there is a suspicion of severe unknown infection. Antifungal should be considered if fever persists 5 days after the initiation of empiric antibiotics with appropriate testing." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0258_10368", "title": "[Treatment of promyelocytic leukemia with retinoic acid: results in Cuba].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "To assess the results attained with all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA) in a group of Cuban patients with acute promyelocytic leukaemia (PML). Twenty-one patients with PML were studied. Their cytogenetic study was performed with G-band techniques. ATRA was given orally as a single dosis of 50 mg/m2 a day, or divided in two doses. After attaining complete remission (CR), ATRA was maintained for 1-3 months in association with minimal doses of Ara-C or alpha-interferon. A rotation of three therapeutic regimes (TRAP, POMP and DOAP) was subsequently administered. Twelve of the patients were women and 9 men; 15 were adults and 6 were children, the median age being 19 years (range: 6-60 years). Only two patients had leucocytosis, all others presented with leucopenia. Platelet count below 30 x 10(10)/L was found in 67% of the cases, while some sort of bleeding was present in 81% of them. Laboratory evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation was seen in 52% of the cases, and t (15; 17) appeared in 67% of the evaluable cytogenetic studies. CR was attained in 17 patients (81%) within a mean of 40 days. Headache was the commonest untoward effect of the treatment. Eight patients developed leucocytosis during treatment, white-cell count being over 20 x 10(9)/L in six of them. Fever without infectious signs was present in 5 patients, and in 3 of them the temperature recovered with steroid therapy. Two patients had retinoic acid syndrome prior to achieving CR. Four patients relapsed and 13 (76%) have maintained CR after 1 to 24 months. The incidence of CR in this series is within the limits reported in the literature. The secondary effects of the treatment are the same than those reported by others, and they were transient and well tolerated. The response to steroids of those patients with fever secondary to ATRA is noteworthy. The efficacy of ATRA, in general terms, in the induction of CR in PML seems confirmed by these results." }, { "id": "article-27807_18", "title": "Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia -- Medical Oncology", "score": 0.008918025041341838, "content": "Guidelines Immediately admit patient, initiate ATRA and manage the coagulopathy Confirm the diagnosis Monitor coagulation parameters Start transfusions until coagulation parameters are normalized Start therapy with ATRA Perform bone marrow assessment to determine the response Continue ATRA therapy until there is clinical benefit Combine ATRA with chemotherapy in patients who relapse" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en566_561", "title": "Epstein–Barr virus-associated lymphoproliferative diseases", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "receptor, and, in EBV+ HLH cases, circulating EBV. In the latter cases, histological examination of lymphatic, bone marrow, liver, neuronal, and other involved tissues show infiltrations of small EBV+ T cells, scattered small bystander EBV+ B cells, reactive histiocytes, reactive macrophages, and, in ~70% of cases, hemophagocytosis, i.e. ingestion of erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets, and/or their precursor cells by histiocytes and macrophages. (Evidence of hemophagocytosis is not critical for the diagnosis of HLH.) The EBV in infected lymphocytes is in its lytic cycle rather than any latent phase. Criteria consistent with the diagnosis of HLH, as developed by the Histiocytic Society (2004), include finding five of the eight following signs or symptoms: fever ≥38.5 °C; splenomegaly; low blood levels of any two of the following, hemoglobin (<10 mg/L), platelets (<100,000/μL), or neutrophils <1,000/μl; either one or both of the following, blood fasting triglyceride levels >265 mg/dL" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 633, 770 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 106, 131 ] ], "text": "We would have been told of a history of NSAID use, or a history of pain that improves with ingestion, of pneumoperitoneum on chest X-ray." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 788, 1018 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 134, 175 ] ], "text": "There would be a history of biliary colic or pain in the right hypochondrium, they would also speak of aerobilia in the imaging test and dilatation of the small loops with image (or not) of biliary lithiasis in the terminal ileum." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 1040, 1230 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 178, 210 ] ], "text": "In the myocardial imaging they would speak of weight loss, change of stool habit, pneumoperitoneum in Rx or CT and peritonitic abdominal exploration and may even be able to palpate the mass." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 214, 334 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 41, 60 ] ], "text": "at the ED door, any elderly person with AF and abdominal pain is emboligenic mesenteric ischemia until proven otherwise." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Perforation of gastric or duodenal ulcus.", "2": "Biliary leak.", "3": "Obstructive neoplasm of the sigma with perforation.", "4": "Mesenteric ischemia.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0710_17980", "title": "Synchronous celiac axis and superior mesenteric artery embolism.", "score": 0.015858324077502158, "content": "We present a case of combined celiac axis and superior mesenteric artery embolism in a 70-year-old patient that was examined in emergency department for atrial fibrillation and diffuse abdominal pain. Standard abdominal x-ray showed air in the portal vein. CT scan with contrast showed air in the lumen of the stomach and small intestine, bowel distension with wall thickening, and a free gallstone in the abdominal cavity. Massive embolism of both celiac axis and superior mesenteric artery was seen after contrast administration. On laparotomy, complete necrosis of the liver, spleen, stomach and small intestine was found. Gallbladder was gangrenous and perforated, and the gallstone had migrated into the abdominal cavity. We found free air that crackled on palpation of the veins of the gastric surface. The patient,s condition was incurable and she died of multiple organ failure a few hours after surgery. Acute visceral thromboembolism should always be excluded first if a combination of atrial fibrillation and abdominal pain exists. Determining the serum levels of d-dimers and lactate, combined with CT scan with contrast administration can, in most cases, confirm the diagnosis and lead to faster surgical intervention. It is crucial to act early on clinical suspicion and not to wait for the development of hard evidence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1026_10129", "title": "A Case of Strangulation Ileus Due to a Low-Grade Appendiceal Mucinous Neoplasm.", "score": 0.015852130325814534, "content": "BACKGROUND Strangulation ileus is caused by external obstruction to the small bowel, which results in ischemia and loss of bowel peristalsis. Low-grade appendiceal mucinous neoplasm (LAMN) is a low-grade adenocarcinoma that arises in the appendix. LAMN is usually asymptomatic but can present with appendiceal rupture and pseudomyxoma peritonei (PMP). This report is of a rare presentation of LAMN with strangulation ileus in a 92-year-old man. CASE REPORT A 92-year-old man was admitted to the emergency room with sudden onset of lower abdominal pain and abdominal distension. Laboratory investigations showed a leukocytosis with a white blood cell (WBC) count of 14.6×10³/μL with 85.5% neutrophils, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 26.6 mg/dL, and serum creatinine of 2.6 mg/dL, consistent with acute renal failure. Arterial blood gas analysis showed lactic acidosis (pH of 7.11) with a base excess of -20.8 mmol/L and lactate of 13.7 mmol/L. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) showed ascites and a dilated obstructed closed loop of the distal ileum associated with an external mass (3.9×2.8 cm). An initial diagnosis was of strangulation ileus due to Meckel's diverticulum. Emergency ileocecal resection was performed. Histopathology showed a low-grade mucinous tumor arising from the mucosa of the appendix, consistent with LAMN. At a 13-month follow-up, the patient was well with no tumor recurrence. CONCLUSIONS This report is of a rare case of LAMN that presented as a surgical emergency with strangulation ileus." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1094_17295", "title": "Portal pneumatosis in a patient with severe Salmonella colitis.", "score": 0.01459995165578922, "content": "A 65-year-old patient with a history of ischemic stroke, residual ophthalmoparesis, positive fecal occult blood screening and pending colonoscopy attended the Emergency Room due to three days with pain, abdominal distension and diarrhea. In the Emergency Room, he presented diffuse abdominal pain, hemodynamic instability with acute renal failure and metabolic acidosis, with severe elevation of acute phase reactants. Abdominal fluid resuscitation and computed tomography (CT) were performed, which reported a dilatation of the loops of the small intestine to the distal ileum with thickening of the wall of the right colon and gas, dissecting intrahepatic portal branches and splanchnic veins." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0312_16149", "title": "[Twenty-six consecutive patients with acute superior mesenteric infarction. Comparison of conventional radiology, ultrasonography, and computerized tomography].", "score": 0.012857142857142857, "content": "Ischemic bowel disease is a rare disorder whose incidence is increasing as the mean age of the population increases. Diagnosis by clinical, laboratory and radiologic means is often difficult, and delay in definitive therapy results in substantial morbidity and mortality. A series of 26 consecutive patients, with proved acute superior mesenteric ischemia, was retrospectively reviewed: the authors report the diagnostic methods performed preoperatively, the site and the cause of infarction and the time passed between the first radiograph ans surgery. Plain abdominal radiographs were performed in 25 of 26 patients, screening abdominal US in 23 cases and CT in 19 cases. All radiological examinations were retrospectively reviewed by three authors, independently, to recognize the different signs of infarction. On plain abdominal films, the findings warranting a presumptive diagnosis of bowel infarction were air-fluid levels (84% of cases), dilated bowel loops (48%), thickened and unchanging loops (20%), gastric distension and gasless abdomen (12%), small bowel pseudo-obstruction (8%). Screening abdominal US demonstrated intraperitoneal free fluid (26%) and dilated bowel loops (22%). Abdominal CT showed air-fluid levels (79%), dilated loops and free intraperitoneal fluid (47%), intramural gas and thickened bowel loops (36.8%), engorgement of the mesenteric vessels (31%), mesenteric-portal gas, mesenteric thrombus and marked reduction in the volume of gas in the small bowel (10.5%) and paper-thin bowel loops (5%). The authors conclude that air-fluid levels, dilated loops and intraperitoneal free fluid are the most frequent findings, even though they are not specific. While abdominal plain film and screening ultrasonography can be negative, CT detects at least one abnormal finding and at least three abnormal findings in 73% of cases." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_23152", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01268071551090419, "content": "Nonocclusive or vasospastic mesenteric ischemia presents with generalized abdominal pain, anorexia, bloody stools, and abdominal distention. Often these patients are obtunded, and physical findings may not assist in the diagnosis. The presence of a leukocytosis, metabolic acidosis, elevated amylase or creatinine phosphokinase levels, and/or lactic acidosis is useful in support of the diagnosis of advanced intestinal ischemia; however, these markers may not be indicative of either reversible ischemia or frank necrosis. Investigational markers for intestinal ischemia include D-dimer, glutathione S-transferase, platelet-activating factor (PAF), and mucosal pH monitoring. Regardless of the need for urgent surgery, emergent admission to a monitored bed or intensive care unit is recommended for resuscitation and further evaluation. Early manifestations of intestinal ischemia include fluid sequestration within the bowel wall leading to a loss of interstitial volume. Aggressive fluid" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0743_9562", "title": "A rare case of digestive hemorrhage in an elderly patient: diagnosis and treatment difficulties.", "score": 0.012461171711334249, "content": "Abdominal pain represents one of the most common clinical conditions. However, there are some challenging cases in which an extensive work-up is mandatory for the diagnosis. We present the case report of a 65-year-old man admitted to our department for diffuse abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, painful joints and rectal tenesmus. He initially had an urticarial rash, followed by palpable purpura involving the lower extremities. The diarrheic stools evolved towards melena. Endoscopic examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract showed hiatal hernia, superficial erosions in the stomach and multiple areas of deep and superficial ulcerations disseminated from the second to the third portion of the duodenum. Terminal ileum intubation at colonoscopy showed redness, edema, swelling, petechiae and ecchymosis, irregular erosions and ulcers. Endoscopic biopsy specimens showed non-specific inflammation. Computed tomography showed moderate ascites, small pleural effusion, mesenteric lymphadenopathy and small bowel wall thickening at the level of the second duodenum, proximal jejunum and segments of ileum. The urine analysis revealed microscopic hematuria with nephrotic range proteinuria, red cells and cellular casts. Therapy with corticosteroids and pulses of cyclophosphamide was started with significant clinical improvement. Three weeks after the first admission, the patient developed an acute peritonitis due to an intestinal perforation and acute mesenteric ischemia of the small bowel. We concluded that the patient had a Henoch-Schönlein type vasculitis with acute mesenteric ischemia and perforation of the small bowel." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_92250", "title": "Abdominal pain", "score": 0.012340014489253804, "content": "By location The location of abdominal pain can provide information about what may be causing the pain. The abdomen can be divided into four regions called quadrants. Locations and associated conditions include: Diffuse Peritonitis Vascular: mesenteric ischemia, ischemic colitis, Henoch-Schonlein purpura, sickle cell disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, polyarteritis nodosa Small bowel obstruction Irritable bowel syndrome Metabolic disorders: ketoacidosis, porphyria, familial Mediterranean fever, adrenal crisis Epigastric Heart: myocardial infarction, pericarditis Stomach: gastritis, stomach ulcer, stomach cancer Pancreas: pancreatitis, pancreatic cancer Intestinal: duodenal ulcer, diverticulitis, appendicitis Right upper quadrant Liver: hepatomegaly, fatty liver, hepatitis, liver cancer, abscess Gallbladder and biliary tract: inflammation, gallstones, worm infection, cholangitis" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en056_56030", "title": "Necrotizing enterocolitis", "score": 0.011949844315408567, "content": "Diagnosis is usually suspected clinically, but often requires the aid of diagnostic imaging, most commonly radiography, which can show the intestines and may show areas with death tissue or a bowel perforation. Specific radiographic signs of NEC are associated with specific Bell's stages of the disease: Bell's stage 1 (suspected disease): Mild systemic disease (apnea, lethargy, slowed heart rate, temperature instability) Mild intestinal signs (abdominal distention, increased gastric residuals, bloody stools) Nonspecific or normal radiological signs Bell's stage 2 (definite disease): Mild to moderate systemic signs Additional intestinal signs (absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness) Specific radiologic signs (pneumatosis intestinalis or portal venous gas) Laboratory changes (metabolic acidosis, too few platelets in the bloodstream) Bell's stage 3 (advanced disease): Severe systemic illness (low blood pressure)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en130_51797", "title": "Pylephlebitis", "score": 0.01191860465116279, "content": "Pylephlebitis is an uncommon thrombophlebitis of the portal vein or any of its branches (i.e. a portal vein thrombosis) that is caused by infection. It is usually a complication of intra-abdominal sepsis, most often following diverticulitis, perforated appendicitis, or peritonitis. Considered uniformly lethal in the pre-antibiotic era, it still carries a mortality of 10-30%. Presentation It typically presents with fever, rigors, and right upper quadrant abdominal pain, but sometimes abdominal pain may be absent. Liver function test abnormalities are usually present but frank jaundice is uncommon. Cause It is a cause of portal hypertension and can cause bowel ischemia sometimes leading to bowel infarction. Diagnosis In the modern era, it is usually diagnosed by CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis. Bacteriology is often polymicrobial and blood cultures are positive in some cases. A significant fraction of people presenting with this condition have an underlying hypercoagulable state." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_6228", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.011858266825154243, "content": "localized in the upper abdomen, which may be precipitated by meals.Diagnostic EvaluationThe differential diagnosis of acute mesenteric ischemia includes other causes of severe abdominal pain of acute onset, such as perforated viscus, intestinal obstruction, pancreatitis, cholecys-titis, and nephrolithiasis. Laboratory evaluation is neither sensitive nor specific in distinguishing these various diagnoses. Figure 23-39. A lateral projection of the magnetic resonance angi-ography of the aorta showing a chronic compression of the celiac artery by the median arcuate ligament (arrow).Brunicardi_Ch23_p0897-p0980.indd 93027/02/19 4:14 PM 931ARTERIAL DISEASECHAPTER 23In the setting of mesenteric ischemia, complete blood count may reveal hemoconcentration and leukocytosis. Metabolic acidosis develops as a result of anaerobic metabolism. Elevated serum amylase may indicate a diagnosis of pancreatitis but is also com-mon in the setting of intestinal infarction. Finally, increased lac-tate" }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_6226", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.01171903610928001, "content": "ensues. The classical symptoms include postprandial abdominal pain, food fear, and weight loss. Persistent nausea and occasionally diarrhea may coexist. Diagnosis remains challenging, and most of the patients will undergo an extensive and expensive gastro-intestinal tract workup for the above symptoms prior to referral to a vascular service.The typical patient who develops nonocclusive mesenteric ischemia is an elderly patient who has multiple comorbidities, such as congestive heart failure, acute myocardial infarction with cardiogenic shock, hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock, sepsis, pancreatitis, and administration of digitalis or vasocon-strictor agents such as epinephrine. Abdominal pain is only present in approximately 70% of these patients. When present, the pain is usually severe but may vary in location, character, and intensity. In the absence of abdominal pain, progressive abdominal distention with acidosis may be an early sign of isch-emia and impending bowel" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en158_23059", "title": "Intestinal ischemia", "score": 0.011461902431065426, "content": "Diagnostic heuristics In the absence of adequate quantitative studies to guide diagnosis, various heuristics help guide diagnosis: Intestinal ischemia\" should be suspected when individuals, especially those at high risk for acute intestinal ischemia, develop severe and persisting abdominal pain that is disproportionate to their abdominal findings\"., or simply, pain out of proportion to exam. Regarding intestinal arterial thrombosis or embolism: \"early symptoms are present and are relative mild in 50% of cases for three to four days before medical attention is sought\". Regarding intestinal arterial thrombosis or embolism: \"Any patient with an arrhythmia such as atrial fibrillation who complains of abdominal pain is highly suspected of having embolization to the superior mesenteric artery until proved otherwise.\"" }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_303", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.011432967266167967, "content": "Patients present with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain out of proportion to the exam. A history of prior episodes of similar abdominal pain after eating (“intestinal angina”) may be present. Other symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and bloody stools. Early abdominal exam is often unremarkable; later findings may include peritoneal signs (suggest bowel infarction). Lab tests may show leukocytosis, metabolic acidosis with ↑ lactate, ↑ amylase, ↑ LDH, and ↑ CK. AXR and CT may reveal bowel wall edema (“thumbprinting”) and air within the bowel wall (pneumatosis intestinalis). Mesenteric angiography is the gold standard for arterial occlusive disease. Volume resuscitation, broad-spectrum antibiotics, optimization of hemodynamics, and avoidance of vasoconstrictors. Anticoagulation for arterial or venous thrombosis or embolism. The mortality rate for acute mesenteric ischemia is > 50%." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_92244", "title": "Abdominal pain", "score": 0.011286325749042578, "content": "Given that a variety of diseases can cause some form of abdominal pain, a systematic approach to the examination of a person and the formulation of a differential diagnosis remains important. Differential diagnosis The most frequent reasons for abdominal pain are gastroenteritis (13%), irritable bowel syndrome (8%), urinary tract problems (5%), inflammation of the stomach (5%) and constipation (5%). In about 30% of cases, the cause is not determined. About 10% of cases have a more serious cause including gallbladder (gallstones or biliary dyskinesia) or pancreas problems (4%), diverticulitis (3%), appendicitis (2%) and cancer (1%). More common in those who are older, ischemic colitis, mesenteric ischemia, and abdominal aortic aneurysms are other serious causes." }, { "id": "article-143520_76", "title": "Renal Infarction -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.011205128205128204, "content": "Aortic dissection and renal cell carcinoma are other differentials for patients presenting with flank pain. Other causes of abdominal pain, like mesenteric ischemia, should also be ruled out because systemic embolization in a patient with atrial fibrillation could potentially occlude the blood vessels supplying the intestine leading to acute bowel infarction. Aortic aneurysm Aortic dissection Appendicitis Biliary colic Diverticulitis Gastroenteritis Gynecologic and ovarian disorders Mesenteric ischemia Nephrolithiasis \"Passed\" urinary stone Pancreatitis Pyelonephritis Renal cell carcinoma" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_24368", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011010466988727858, "content": "Any severe acute pain in the abdomen or back should suggest the possibility of acute pancreatitis. The diagnosis is established by two of the following three criteria: (1) typical abdominal pain in the epigastrium that may radiate to the back, (2) threefold or greater elevation in serum lipase and/or amylase, and (3) confirmatory findings of acute pancreatitis on cross-sectional abdominal imaging. Patients also have associated nausea, emesis, fever, tachycardia, and abnormal findings on abdominal examination. Laboratory studies may reveal leukocytosis, hypocalcemia, and hyperglycemia. Although not required for diagnosis, markers of severity may include hemoconcentration (hematocrit >44%), admission azotemia (BUN >22 mg/dL), SIRS, and signs of organ failure (Table 371-3)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en099_51689", "title": "Acute abdomen", "score": 0.01086563657721153, "content": "An acute abdomen refers to a sudden, severe abdominal pain. It is in many cases a medical emergency, requiring urgent and specific diagnosis. Several causes need immediate surgical treatment. Differential diagnosis The differential diagnosis of acute abdomen includes: Acute appendicitis Acute peptic ulcer and its complications Acute cholecystitis Acute pancreatitis Acute intestinal ischemia (see section below) Acute diverticulitis Ectopic pregnancy with tubal rupture Ovarian torsion Acute peritonitis (including hollow viscus perforation) Acute ureteric colic Bowel volvulus Bowel obstruction Acute pyelonephritis Adrenal crisis Biliary colic Abdominal aortic aneurysm Familial Mediterranean fever Hemoperitoneum Ruptured spleen Kidney stone Sickle cell anaemia Carcinoid" }, { "id": "article-18478_12", "title": "Bowel Ischemia -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010461810895195489, "content": "A careful review of the patient's medical conditions and family history is essential for the evaluation of intestinal ischemia. The history of cardiac disease [34] , aortic surgery, peripheral artery disease, hemodialysis, vasoconstrictive medications, acquired or hereditary thrombotic conditions, hypovolemia, and inflammation or infections should increase suspicion of intestinal ischemia in a patient with abdominal pain. [35] Abdominal pain is the most common symptom in patients with intestinal ischemia. Some features of a patient can help to distinguish between the acute small bowel and colonic ischemia. Patient's characteristics, such as age over 60 years, not appearing severe ill, mild abdominal pain, tenderness, rectal bleeding, or bloody diarrhea, are the features that are more common in acute colonic ischemia. [9] The features of the pain, physical exam, and accompanying symptoms can help to distinguish the etiology of intestinal ischemia. In mesenteric artery embolism, usually, the pain is sudden onset, severe, periumbilical, and often accompanied by nausea and vomiting. [36] The pain in thrombotic mesentery ischemia commonly presented postprandial. [37] In mesenteric veins thrombosis, the pain usually described as wax and wane before the definite diagnosis. [38] The patients with nonocclusive mesenteric ischemia do not have classic severe pain and typically present in patients with a history of hypotension, hypovolemia, cardiac arrhythmia, and heart failure. [39] Patients with chronic mesenteric ischemia usually present with recurrent abdominal pain after eating and subsequently can cause patients losing weight. [26] Patients with acute colonic ischemia commonly are presented with sudden onset cramping abdominal pain, which usually involves the left side. The pain can be accompanied by an urgent desire for a bowel movement. Instead of periumbilical pain in small intestine ischemia, patients with colonic ischemia usually feel the pain laterally. [40] [41] Physical examination in patients with intestinal ischemia can vary from normal to peritoneal sign (rebound tenderness and guarding) based on the time course of the onset. [42]" }, { "id": "article-18478_13", "title": "Bowel Ischemia -- Evaluation", "score": 0.01034258355413006, "content": "Laboratory tests in intestinal ischemia are nonspecific. In the early stage of the disease, complete blood cell count can be normal, but with the progression of the ischemia, leukocytosis with the leftward shift, elevated amylase, and lactate dehydrogenase levels may be observed. [43] Based on underlying risk factors, laboratory studies can be abnormal. In MVT, patients need to evaluate for hypercoagulopathy states such as examined for protein C and S and antithrombin III deficiency, lupus anticoagulant, and platelet aggregation. [15] [44] In CMI, abnormal laboratory tests, including leukopenia, hypoalbuminemia, and electrolyte abnormalities, may be observed secondary to malnourishment. [45] The diagnostic approach in patients with intestinal ischemia depends on the severity of symptoms. In patients with peritonitis signs, the diagnosis will be made by abdominal exploration. Plain radiographs, computed tomography angiography (CTA) or magnetic resonance angiography (MRA), invasive angiography, and duplex ultrasound are common radiology studies in patients with suspicion of intestinal ischemia. [42] Plain abdominal radiography is nonspecific; however, the presence of ileus with bowel loops distention, bowel wall thickening, and pneumatosis intestinalis can be suggestive for mesenteric ischemia. Plain abdominal radiography commonly used in patients with signs of sepsis and unstable hemodynamics. [46] Generally, abdominal CT is used in hemodynamically stable patients who present with acute abdominal pain. In addition to, rule out other causes of abdominal pain, some findings including pneumatosis intestinalis, portal vein gas, mesenteric edema, streaking of the mesentery, focal edematous bowel wall, abdominal gas pattern, and solid organ infarction can be suggestive for acute mesenteric ischemia in abdominal CT scan. [10] [11] In patients with high suspicious for intestinal ischemia, CT angiography, and MR angiography are the initial tests. However, the CTA is preferred over MRA due to lower cost, white availability, and speed. [12] The CT scans should be done without oral contrast due to oral contrast that can obscure the bowel wall enhancement and the mesenteric vessels, which both lead to a delay of definitive diagnosis. [47] [48] [49] [50] Angiography usually reserved in patients with high suspicious of AMI with negative CTA or patients with NOMI. Diffuse stenosis in mesenteric vessels with the absence of occlusive lesions is the finding in NOMI patients by angiography. [51] The role of duplex ultrasound is just limited to the detection of clots in the proximal of the main vessels. In addition to that, peritoneal gas, previous abdominal surgical intervention, obesity can decrease the sensitivity of duplex ultrasound. [42] In hemodynamically stable patients with clinical features of acute colonic ischemia, including abdominal pain, urgent desire to defecation, diarrhea, and lower gastrointestinal bleeding in addition to common imaging studies (plain radiography, CTA) may require sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy and biopsy for definitive diagnosis. [52] If colonic ischemia is suspected, colonoscopy preferred to be performed within 48 hours of initial symptoms rather than later. [53] [54]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0598_8772", "title": "[Mesenteric ischemia in hemodialysis patients].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Mesenteric ischaemia is an abdominal pathology with a high mortality rate. Among the population under dialysis treatment it presents some different traits such as non-occlusive mesenteric attacks in most of the cases. Its diagnosis is difficult and it is usually the result of an interdisciplinary collaboration. It is necessary to know better the symptoms of this illness among dialytic patients in order to improve its prognosis. Eleven haemodialytic patients in our hospital (0.87% per patient-year) have diagnosed with mesenteric ischaemia confirmed by a laparothomy. We will list the main risk factors of this pathology, its symptoms, its evolution, some radiological and laboratory data more pointed out, the surgical findings anf its treatment. Ten patients (91%) had suffer from cardiovascular pathologies, five of them (45%) had suffer an ischaemia cardiopathy. Seven patients (64%) had a spell of arterial hypotension during their haemodialysis session, which preceded mesenteric ischaemia. The reason for consulting a physician was abdominal pain, specially on the right hemiabdomen (64%). The analytical date most frequently observed was leucocytosis (54%). The usual radiological tests such as abdominal plain radiography and ecography didn't give any detailed formation. Ten out of eleven patients (91%) had necrosis on the intestinal wall. The ileum was the most affected intestinal section. Five of the patients presented only a limited damage of the ileum (45%). Two patients (18%) presented an extensive damage in the whole small intestine and part of the right colon. Intestinal resection was the most chosen way of treatment, which was practiced on eight patients (73%). Only three of them (27%) survived the mesenteric ischaemia and were sent to their homes. The key factor of their survival was that they were operated on in less than 8 hours from their arrival at emergency room. Mesenteric ischaemia must be expected among patients under haemodialysis who suffer from abdominal pain, especially if they have had some arterial hypotensive spells during their previous dialytic session. It s a matter of urgent surgery where not only its diagnosis but also its early surgical treatment can lessen its high morbi-mortality risk." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0523_1906", "title": "Clinical factors and outcomes in patients with acute mesenteric ischemia in the emergency department.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The purpose of this study was to determine the initial clinical characteristics of acute mesenteric ischemia and identify variables associated with adverse outcomes in the emergency department (ED). The charts of 124 consecutive patients with surgically and pathologically identified acute mesenteric ischemia from September 1990 to September 2000 were reviewed retrospectively to obtain data about demographics, initial clinical presentations, predisposing diseases, previous medications, laboratory tests, and common findings on computed tomography scans with contrast. Only patients admitted through the ED and treated on medical or surgical wards were enrolled. Mean patient age was 71.1 years (range, 25-100 years). The overall mortality rate was 50%. There were no significant differences in gender, underlying disease, previous medication, initial signs and symptoms, and causes of mesenteric infarction, between survivors and non-survivors. Univariate analysis demonstrated that older age, bandemia, hepatic and renal impairment, hyperamylasemia, metabolic acidosis, hypoxia, intramural pneumatosis, and septic syndrome, were more frequent in patients who died than in those who survived (p &lt; 0.05). Logistic regression identified the following variables as independent predictors of death: old age (odds ratio, OR, 1.077; 95% confidence interval, Cl, 1.013, 1.146; p = 0.02); bandemia (OR, 3.894; 95% Cl, 1.160, 13.074; p = 0.03); elevated serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST; OR, 4.532; 95% Cl, 1.274, 16.122; p = 0.02); increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN; OR, 7.219; 95% Cl, 1.166, 44.696; p = 0.03); and metabolic acidosis (OR, 6.604; 95% Cl, 1.804, 24.171; p &lt; 0.01). A high index of suspicion and aggressive diagnostic imaging can facilitate early diagnosis and improve outcomes for patients with acute mesenteric ischemia. Risk stratification showed that elderly patients with metabolic acidosis, bandemia, or elevated AST and BUN had a poor prognosis. Greater therapeutic intervention is advocated to reduce mortality in high-risk patients with acute mesenteric ischemia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en164_18523", "title": "Abdominal x-ray", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "An abdominal x-ray is an x-ray of the abdomen. It is sometimes abbreviated to AXR, or KUB (for kidneys, ureters, and urinary bladder). Indications In children, abdominal x-ray is indicated in the acute setting: Suspected bowel obstruction or gastrointestinal perforation; Abdominal x-ray will demonstrate most cases of bowel obstruction, by showing dilated bowel loops. Foreign body in the alimentary tract; can be identified if it is radiodense. Suspected abdominal mass In suspected intussusception, an abdominal x-ray does not exclude intussusception but is useful in the differential diagnosis to exclude perforation or obstruction. Yet, CT scan is the best alternative for diagnosing intra-abdominal injury. Computed tomography provides an overall better surgical strategy planning, and possibly less unnecessary laparotomies. Abdominal x-ray is therefore not recommended for adults with acute abdominal pain presenting in the emergency department. Projections" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0272_3074", "title": "[Diagnosis and prognosis of mesenterial infarct].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "28 cases of arterial thrombosis, 18 arterial embolism, 16 venous thrombosis and twelve cases of nonocclusive intestinal ischemia were diagnosed. History of symptoms on admission was longer in venous thrombosis (80 hours) than in arterial vascular occlusion (40 hours). There was a leukocytosis of 19.7/nl and lactate in serum was elevated in 85.1% of patients. Sonographic abdominal examination without preparation of the gut was normal in 44.6% (33/74 patients), variable distended loops of small intestine in the other cases. Sonographic measurement of mesenteric vascular flow succeeded only in 10.9%. Abdominal X-ray photography showed no characteristic signs in 21.6%. Variable degree of gaseous distension and fluid levels was described in 73.7%. Angiography was only performed in patients which were not supposed to be operated because of clinical examination (e.g. peritonitis). Eleven of 19 cases were diagnosed correctly (specificity 73.7%). Mortality rate of all patients was 70.3% and showed in further analysis significant differences in age, etiology of mesenteric ischemia, the length of ischemic and operatively resected gut. If mesenteric vascular occlusion is suspected a quick diagnostic procedure and laparotomy for resection of gangrenous bowel is to be planned." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en158_20838", "title": "Abdominal guarding", "score": 0.009650870374604003, "content": "Diagnosis Differential diagnosis Abdominal aortic aneurysm Appendicitis Blunt force trauma to the abdomen Bowel obstruction Diverticulitis Dyspepsia Ectopic pregnancy GERD Ileus Inflammatory bowel disease Intussusception Mesenteric ischemia Nephrolithiasis Ovarian cyst Pancreatitis Pelvic inflammatory disease Perforated peptic ulcer disease Pneumonia Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) Urinary tract infection/pyelonephritis Volvulus Zoster Skin lesions may not be visible until another day or two Abdominal migraine Abdominal wall strain/injury Abscess (e.g. iliopsoas) Hepatic or splenic contusion/laceration Incarcerated hernia Insect toxins (e.g. black widow spider) Malingering Pneumoperitoneum secondary to abdominal trauma Septic miscarriage (See Miscarriage)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_92251", "title": "Abdominal pain", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Right upper quadrant Liver: hepatomegaly, fatty liver, hepatitis, liver cancer, abscess Gallbladder and biliary tract: inflammation, gallstones, worm infection, cholangitis Colon: bowel obstruction, functional disorders, gas accumulation, spasm, inflammation, colon cancer Other: pneumonia, Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome Left upper quadrant Splenomegaly Colon: bowel obstruction, functional disorders, gas accumulation, spasm, inflammation, colon cancer Peri-umbilical (the area around the umbilicus, aka the belly button) Appendicitis Pancreatitis Inferior myocardial infarction Peptic ulcer Diabetic ketoacidosis Vascular: aortic dissection, aortic rupture Bowel: mesenteric ischemia, Celiac disease, inflammation, intestinal spasm, functional disorders, small bowel obstruction Lower abdominal pain Diarrhea Colitis Crohn's Dysentery Hernia Right lower quadrant Colon: intussusception, bowel obstruction, appendicitis (McBurney's point)" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_23144", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Acute mesenteric ischemia resulting from arterial embolus or thrombosis presents with severe acute, nonremitting abdominal pain strikingly out of proportion to the physical findings. Associated symptoms may include nausea and vomiting, transient diarrhea, anorexia, and bloody stools. With the exception of minimal abdominal distention and hypoactive bowel sounds, early abdominal examination is unimpressive. Later findings will demonstrate peritonitis and cardiovascular collapse. In the evaluation of acute intestinal ischemia, routine laboratory tests should be obtained, including complete blood count, serum chemistry, coagulation profile, arterial blood gas, amylase, lipase, lactic acid, blood type and cross match, and cardiac enzymes. Regardless of the need for urgent surgery, emergent admission to a monitored bed or intensive care unit is recommended for resuscitation and further evaluation. If the diagnosis of intestinal ischemia is being considered, consultation with a surgical" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_92246", "title": "Abdominal pain", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Selected causes Traumatic: blunt or perforating trauma to the stomach, bowel, spleen, liver, or kidney Inflammatory: Infections such as appendicitis, cholecystitis, pancreatitis, pyelonephritis, Peritonitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, hepatitis, mesenteric adenitis, or a subdiaphragmatic abscess Perforation of a peptic ulcer, a diverticulum, or the caecum Complications of inflammatory bowel disease such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis Mechanical: Small bowel obstruction secondary to adhesions caused by previous surgeries, intussusception, hernias, benign or malignant neoplasms Large bowel obstruction caused by colorectal cancer, inflammatory bowel disease, volvulus, fecal impaction or hernia Vascular: occlusive intestinal ischemia, usually caused by thromboembolism of the superior mesenteric artery" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en556_34602", "title": "Biloma", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Biloma is collection of bile within the abdominal cavity. It happens when there is a bile leak, for example after surgery for removing the gallbladder (laparoscopic cholecystectomy), with an incidence of 0.3–2%. Other causes are biliary surgery, liver biopsy, abdominal trauma, and, rarely, spontaneous perforation. Symptoms are usually diffused or localized abdominal pain. Ascites and peritonitis are less common. Fever is often absent. Blood tests may show leukocytosis and nonspecific liver test abnormalities. Diagnosis is by abdominal ultrasound, MRCP, or HIDA scan. Treatment depends on the severity of the condition and ranges from ERCP with sphincterotomy or stent placement to surgical hepaticojejunostomy. See also Biliary injury References External links Bile Duct Leaks Biliary tract disorders" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_145860", "title": "Defecation", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Bowel obstruction Bowel obstruction is a bowel condition which is a blockage that can be found in both the small intestines and large intestines. Increase of contractions can relieve blockages, however, continuous contractions with decreasing functionality may lead to terminated mobility of the small intestines, which then forms the obstruction. At the same time, the lack of contractility encourages liquid and gas accumulation. and \"electrolyte disturbances\". Small bowel obstruction can result in severe renal damage and hypovolemia. while evolving into \"mucosal ischemia and perforation\". Patients with small bowel obstruction were found to experience constipation, strangulation and abdominal pain and vomiting. Surgical intervention is primarily used to cure severe small bowel obstruction condition. Nonoperative therapy included nasogastric tube decompression, water-soluble-contrast medium process or symptomatic management can be applied to treat less severe symptoms" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0226_7371", "title": "[Abdominal complications of heart surgery].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Abdominal complications after cardiac surgery (excluding \"medical\" jaundice) are rare. Twenty six cases were observed out of a total of 7 847 operations (0.33%) performed between 1973 and 1980. The causes were very diverse; the most common being gastroduodenal ulceration, usually acute (9 cases). Other cases included intestinal (3 cases of postoperative ileus, 4 cases of mesenteric infarction, 2 cases of necrosing enterocolitis), biliary (2 cases of acute cholecystitis) and splenic pathology (2 cases of splenic infarction, one associated with necrosing enterocolitis). Anticoagulant therapy was implicated in 3 cases. Diagnosis is difficult in the immediate postoperative period, some complications only being recognised at autopsy. The clinical signs may be misleading and the interpretation of complementary investigations difficult. Therefore, the possibility of abdominal complications must be kept in mind, especially in patients with one or more predisposing factors. Excluding accidents due to anticoagulant therapy the following factors were associated with an increased risk of abdominal complications: previous history of gastro intestinal pathology (ulcer, gall stone, alcoholism) the nature of the underlying cardiac disease (coronary artery and aortic valve disease), cardiopulmonary bypass, and, above all, per- and postoperative incidents: hypovolaemia, low output syndrome (half the patients in this series) respiratory and infectious complications. The inappropriate use of vasoconstricting agents may also play a role. The majority of abdominal complications seemed to be related to ischaemia and anoxia in the splanchnic territory, which explains the important role of the preceding factors. The prognosis of abdominal complications after cardiac surgery was poor, mortality reaching 50 to 100% in some causes: in this series, 12 of the patients died. This justifies certain prophylactic measures: strict selection of patients, diagnosis and treatment of associated abdominal pathology before operation, prevention of low output states, respiratory and infectious complications ... and careful examination of the abdomen after operation to ensure the early diagnosis and treatment of complications, should they develop." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0422_2981", "title": "[Color Doppler ultrasound in acute mesenteric ischemia: 2 case reports].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Acute mesenteric insufficiency is a surgical emergency with a difficult methodological approach. Its high mortality is mainly due to delay in the correct diagnosis. In turn this is due to the lack of specificity, especially in the early-middle phase of the clinical presentation, and of the laboratory data and abdominal radiographic findings. Echo-doppler ultrasound promises to be more accurate than conventional ultrasound in the diagnosis of visceral ischemia and may help to identify those patients who may require angiography. Two women presenting atrial fibrillation, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, hyperamylasemia were accepted in October 2000 ad March 2001. US colordoppler was performed 12 hours after admittance demonstrating a \"stop\" of enhancement of the superior mesenteric artery in one case and absence of enhancement in the other." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_34631", "title": "Polyarteritis nodosa", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Renal system: Kidney involvement is common and often leads to death of parts of the kidney. Involvement of the renal artery, which supplies the kidneys with highly oxygenated blood, often leads to high blood pressure in about one-third of cases. deposition of protein or blood in the urine may also be seen. Almost all patients with PAN have renal insufficiency caused by renal artery narrowing, thrombosis, and infarctions. Cardiovascular system: Involvement of the arteries of the heart may cause a heart attack, heart failure, and inflammation of the sac around the heart (pericarditis). Gastrointestinal system: Damage to mesenteric arteries can cause abdominal pain, mesenteric ischemia, and bowel perforation. Abdominal pain may also be seen. Musculoskeletal system: Muscle and joint aches are common. Complications Stroke Heart failure resulting from cardiomyopathy and pericarditis Intestinal necrosis and perforation" } ] } } }

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{ "1": "He needs treatment for heart failure.", "2": "She may present with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia.", "3": "The 2D-Doppler ultrasound will rule out its association with Ebstein's disease.", "4": "It is convenient to perform a 24-hour ECG (Holter) and ergometry.", "5": "In certain patients, ablation of the accessory pathway with radiofrequency constitutes the therapeutic action." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0310_4422", "title": "[Tachycardia-induced syncopes].", "score": 0.015123088293820003, "content": "In 50% of the patients presenting with a syncope, the cause is cardiac. The incidence of sudden death with 24% is high in this group. Since most of the tachycardia-induced syncopes are due to ventricular tachycardia (VT), a careful diagnostic approach must be used. The possibility of a VT to end in a fibrillation is great, especially in the presence of a organic heart disease, which leads to a bad prognosis in such patients. The aim of a careful anamnesis and clinical history is to establish the presence of a cardiac disease. A Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, a long QT, an old myocardial infarction or a coronary artery disease (CAD) can be assessed by echocardiography (ECG). Stress testing is useful in evaluating a CAD and can possibly lead to a diagnosis when a VT or a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is induced. ECG is used to assess the cardiac ejection fraction and in the evaluation of a suspected right or left cardiomyopathy. The ambulatory ECG allow a diagnosis only in 2 to 3% of the cases. Nevertheless, the presence of more than 10 PVC/h and/or asymptomatic nonsustained VT is a predictor for sudden death in syncopy patients. Detection of late potentials has a sensitivity of 50 to 83% and a sensibility of 89 to 91% for the prediction of inducible sustained VT during electrophysiological studies (EPS) in patients with syncope. However, the usefulness of this technique is not fully established, since there is no significant difference in survival or recurrence of syncope between patients with and without late potentials. The EPS is an invasive technique and therefore used at the end of the investigations. The cardiovascular mortality is low (4%) in patients with a negative EPS. A treatment is mandatory in tachycardia-induced syncopes even when the cause is a SVT. Antiarrhythmic drugs are useful for the treatment of SVT. However, radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway is preferable, since the success rate is over 90%, and the side effects of chronic ingestion of antiarrhythmic drugs can therefore be avoided. Some VT can be treated successfully with drugs under the control of an EPS, but most of the patients must have the implantation of an internal cardiac defibrillator (ICD)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0251_18062", "title": "[Location of atrial and ventricular insertions of accessory atrioventricular pathways using surface ECG mapping and its importance in catheter ablation therapy].", "score": 0.014916595380667237, "content": "The modern non-pharmacological therapy of the WPW syndrome by means of catheter ablation is based on the interruption of the accessory pathway(-s) by radiofrequency current energy. Destruction of the morphologic substrate of the arrhythmia alters the activation wave spread in the heart. It was the aim of this report to demonstrate the diagnostic potential of BSM in localizing both overt and concealed accessory pathways. Presented study analyzes the alterations of the cardioelectric field by means of body surface ECG mapping in two female patients with accessory pathways before and after their successful curative treatment by radiofrequency catheter ablation. Five patients were analyzed prior and after RF catheter ablation by BSM, two of them were selected for this presentation. One patient with WPW syndrome suffered from frequent supraventricular tachycardia due to in one female patient with an overt accessory pathway. The other patient was for several years incessantly in permanent junctional reentry tachycardia due to a concealed accessory pathway. The examination comprised 12-lead ECG, orthogonal vectorcardiogram according to Frank, BSM using a regular 80-electrode-array system and signal-averaged ECG. The RF ablation was successful in both patients and their arrhythmia was abolished. By means of a detailed analysis of the ventricular activation prior RF ablation in the patient with WPW syndrome the precise site of the ventricular insertion of the accessory pathway in the left lateral free wall was predicted. Furthermore, alterations of the terminal QRS complex were observed when comparing pre- versus post-ablation maps. In the second patient the atrial insertion of the accessory pathway with retrograde and decremental conduction was successfully localized to the right septal region by means of pre-ablation BSM. Both ventricular and atrial activation can be in detail analyzed by means of BSM. Such analysis offers more precise information on the spatial component of the activation wave spread. This case report gives further evidence that BSM is a useful method for precise localization of both ventricular and atrial insertion sites of accessory pathways in patients with paroxysmal tachycardias due to this electrophysiologic abnormality. This information gained recently clinical impact since it can be directly used for faster arrhythmogenic substrate targeting during ablation therapy. (Fig. 5, Ref. 17.)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0086_2067", "title": "[Usefulness of transesophageal electrophysiological study during the ergometric test in the evaluation of supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia occurring during exertion].", "score": 0.014300254452926209, "content": "Transesophageal electrophysiologic study has recently been proposed for the evaluation of supraventricular arrhythmias. In this report we present 13 cases, with palpitations occurring only during effort, due to a suspected supraventricular tachycardia, in which the usefulness of the transesophageal electrophysiologic study performed during stress test was evaluated. Of these 13 patients, nine were male and four were female, mean age was 29 yrs. Twelve cases had no heart disease, one had a moderate mitral valve insufficiency. Nine cases had a normal ECG, four had a WPW pattern. In 9/13 cases no significant arrhythmia was ever documented, in 1/13 ventricular premature beats were present in the basal ECG, in 1/13 a atrial fibrillation and in 2/13 a supraventricular reciprocating tachycardia was recorded. In all cases a maximal exercise test and a 24-hour Holter monitoring were performed. In all pts a transesophageal electrophysiologic study was performed both at rest and during extra-stimuli and incremental atrial pacing. The end point of transesophageal study was the induction of a sustained (greater than 30\") supraventricular tachycardia. RESULTS. Maximal exercise test was negative in 11/13 cases; it showed ventricular premature beats in one case and initiated a supraventricular tachycardia in one. The 24 hour Holter monitoring was negative in 12/13 cases while it showed frequent ventricular premature beats in one. Resting transesophageal electrophysiologic study revealed dual A-V nodal pathways in six pts: in one of them a junctional re-entry was induced; in two a single echo beat was observed, while in three no reentry was observed. In three cases a supraventricular tachycardia was induced which was sustained in one and unsustained (7\" and 24\") in two cases. In 4 cases transesophageal electrophysiologic study gave no information. Transesophageal stimulation during exercise induced a greater than 30\" reciprocating tachycardia in all patients, at work loads of 30-180 watts. Six pts had an intranodal tachycardia (V-A less than 70 msec) a further six pts had a atrioventricular tachycardia involving a Kent bundle (V-A greater than or equal to 70 msec), which was concealed in two, and one had a atrial tachycardia. In four cases (3 with intranodal and 1 with atrioventricular tachycardia), exercise transesophageal study was repeated after chronic therapy with betablockers (sotalol 240 mg/die or metoprolol 200 mg/die). In all cases, after therapy, the induced tachycardia had a longer cycle and in two cases it was induced at a higher work load. In a further two cases flecainide (200 mg/die) was tested. In one case (with atrial tachycardia), the arrhythmia was no longer inducible after therapy, in another case (with intranodal tachycardia) the drug had no effect. CONCLUSIONS. In patients with paroxysmal supraventricular tachyarrhythmias occurring during effort the basal ECG is normal or shows a WPW pattern. The maximal exercise test and 24 hour Holter monitoring give no information in over 90% of cases.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0059_16263", "title": "[Non-invasive evaluation of a population with WPW syndrome].", "score": 0.01362176054829728, "content": "Evaluation of a WPW Syndrome population by non invasive methods; identification of the sudden death risk; results of treatment and patient selection for Electrophysiologic Studies (EPS). Retrospective study. Arrhythmology Outpatients Clinic from a Cardiac Department. Successive patients older than 12 years with a WPW pattern on the ECG and history of paroxysmal tachycardia followed-up for a period of 46 +/- 29 months. The clinical, ECG, Holter, stress test and echocardiographic data from 32 patients, were analysed. A study evaluating clinical follow up and the results of treatment was done. The group of patients was very symptomatic. The main complaint was a feeling of tachycardia (84.4%). Orthodromic tachycardia was documented in 7 cases and atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular rate in five. Intermittent delta wave pattern was found in 21 patients, with 11 cases identified by Holter and 4 by stress test. A predominant left accessory pathway was found (47%), but the anteroseptal location was frequent too (25%). The echocardiogram was not useful in any case. Eighty per cent of the patients became asymptomatic with medical treatment. Beta blockers and amiodarone (the last chance) were the most useful drugs. No mortality was found in the study group. EPS was considered for the 5 patients with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and the 7 cases resistant to medical treatment. The difficulty to define the risk of a population with WPW Syndrome by non invasive methods was demonstrated. Eighteen one cases were included in a low risk group, due to the intermittent WPW pattern in the ECG. A high risk group was considered for the 5 patients with atrial fibrillation with fast ventricular rate. The risk was not established in 9 cases. Most of the patients became asymptomatic by medical treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0476_23917", "title": "[15-year-old patient with decompensated heart failure and tachycardia with negative P-waves in inferior ECG recordings. An indication for heart transplantation?].", "score": 0.01321642983630631, "content": "A 15-year-old girl was admitted with signs of severe cardiac failure. There were no symptoms of cardiac insufficiency 4 weeks before hospital admission. She presented with permanent supraventricular tachycardia with negative P-waves in leads II, III and aVF, the heart rate was 150 beats per minute. The electrophysiological examination showed a permanent junctional reentry tachycardia. A postero-septal accessory pathway could be eliminated successfully by radiofrequency catheter ablation. Immediately after the procedure cardiac function deteriorated with slight decrease of the strongly reduced cardiac output. Intensive care and application of dobutamine led to clinical stability. During a follow-up of two years the young patient showed permanent sinus rhythm and an age related physical strain. This case report documents the rapid and severe manifestation of cardiac failure owing to permanent junctional reentry tachycardia in a 15-year-old girl. She was referred for consideration of heart transplantation. Invasive electrophysiological treatment led to permanent sinus rhythm with improvement of left ventricular function." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1125_23114", "title": "Electocardiographic features in Ebstein's disease.", "score": 0.01303475935828877, "content": "Ebstein's disease (ED) is a rare and heterogeneous congenital heart disease affecting the tricuspid valve and the right ventricle. Few studies have analyzed the electrocardiographic features of this disease. To describe the electrocardiographic features observed in Ebstein's disease. We conducted a retrospective descriptive study that enrolled 26 patients followed for ED. The mean age of discovery of the ME was 103.5±99 months [0-31 years]. The diagnosis of ME is most often made between 5 and 10 years. We noted right atrial hypertrophy in 11 patients (42%), right ventricular hypertrophy in half of the patients. Right axial deviation was noted in 11 patients (42%). Eight patients (30%) had wide QRS≥ 120 ms. Seven of these 8 patients (27%) had a fragmented QRS appearance. A right bandle block was noted in 22 patients (84%), it was a complete block in 7 cases (27%). A preexcitation was found in 6 patients (23%). The localization of accessory pathway was right postero-septal in all cases. Rhythmic disorders were noted in 9 patients (34%). It was a junctional tachycardia in 3 patients (11%), atrial flutter in 4 patients (15%) and atrial fibrillation in 2 patients (7%). A second degree atriventricular block was observed in one patient, it was Mobitz I type. Two cases of postoperative rhythm disturbances were recorded: paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and junctional tachycardia related to Wolf Parkinson White (WPW) syndrome. Surface ECG in the ED is often pathological with prevalence of rhythm disturbances related to WPW syndrome." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en029_37472", "title": "Supraventricular tachycardia", "score": 0.012366942428777141, "content": "Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is an umbrella term for fast heart rhythms arising from the upper part of the heart. This is in contrast to the other group of fast heart rhythms - ventricular tachycardia, which start within the lower chambers of the heart. There are four main types of SVT: atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) and Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome. The symptoms of SVT include palpitations, feeling of faintness, sweating, shortness of breath, and/or chest pain. These abnormal rhythms start from either the atria or atrioventricular node. They are generally due to one of two mechanisms: re-entry or increased automaticity. Diagnosis is typically by electrocardiogram (ECG), holter monitor, or event monitor. Blood tests may be done to rule out specific underlying causes such as hyperthyroidism or electrolyte abnormalities." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0583_905", "title": "[Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome in Ebstein's anomaly].", "score": 0.011331535695942476, "content": "The abnormal development of the tricuspid valve in patients with Ebstein's anomaly results in several activation abnormalities including delayed intraatrial conduction, right bundle branch block, and ventricular preexcitation. In the present review, the aim was to define the ECG characteristics before and after ablation of an accessory A-V pathway in patients with Ebstein's anomaly. In a series of 224 patients studied at the Instituto Nacional de Cardiologia \"Ignacio Chávez\", Sixty-four patients (28%) had documented tachycardia. Thirty-three patients with recurrent tachycardia were found to have a single right-sided AP that was successfully ablated. Only 21 of 33 patients (62%), had typical of ECG pattern of preexcitation. In addition, none of the patients had an ECG pattern of RBBB during sinus rhythm. Radiofrequency catheter ablation resulted in appearance of RBBB in 94% patients. The absence of RBBB in patients with Ebstein's anomaly and recurrent tachycardia had a 98% sensitivity and 92% specificity for the diagnosis of an AP. One third of patients with Ebstein's anomaly and symptomatic tachyarrhythmias have minimal or absent ECG features of ventricular preexcitation. In these patients, the absence of RBBB pattern is a strong predictor of an AP." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0500_1240", "title": "Utility of transesophageal atrial pacing in the diagnostic evaluation of patients with unexplained syncope associated or not with palpitations.", "score": 0.010643103156230592, "content": "Noninvasive studies are often negative in patients with syncope, normal surface ECG and without heart disease. The purpose of the study was to determine the diagnostic impact of an esophageal electrophysiological study performed during a consultation. A total of 154 patients aged from 16 to 87 years were consecutively recruited for unexplained syncope; they had a normal ECG in sinus rhythm, no documented arrhythmia and no patent heart disease. Half of them complained of palpitations. Electrophysiologic study was performed during a consultation by transesophageal route: rate of 2nd d AV block occurrence during atrial pacing and sinus node recovery time were determined; programmed atrial stimulation using one and two atrial extrastimuli were delivered in control state and then after infusion of 0.02-1 microg/min of isoproterenol; arterial blood pressure was monitored. (1) Electrophysiologic study was positive in 107 patients (69%); (2) sinus node dysfunction was noted in 9 patients (6%); (3) atrioventricular conduction disturbances were noted in 2 patients (1%); (4) vasovagal reaction which associated a junctional bradycardia and a fall of arterial blood pressure and which reproduced spontaneous symptoms was provoked by isoproterenol infusion in 21 patients (14%); (5) sustained atrial fibrillation was induced in 23 patients (15%); and (6) paroxysmal junctional tachycardia was induced in 52 patients (34%). Patients with negative study were younger (44+/-21.5 years) than those with sinus node dysfunction or atrial fibrillation (71+/-9 and 63+/-14 years, respectively). The treatment was guided by these data: patients with inducible atrial fibrillation were treated by antiarrhythmic drugs and those with inducible paroxysmal junctional tachycardia by the radiofrequency ablation of reentrant circuit. Syncope disappeared in all patients but 2. Esophageal electrophysiologic study performed during a consultation was a safe, rapid and economic means to detect an arrhythmia (sinus node dysfunction or supraventricular tachycardia) in patients with dizziness/syncope and palpitations in half cases. Supraventricular tachycardia was clearly an underestimated cause of syncope in this population." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_152344", "title": "Electrocardiography", "score": 0.010112017841755791, "content": "An esophogeal lead can be inserted to a part of the esophagus where the distance to the posterior wall of the left atrium is only approximately 5–6 mm (remaining constant in people of different age and weight). An esophageal lead avails for a more accurate differentiation between certain cardiac arrhythmias, particularly atrial flutter, AV nodal reentrant tachycardia and orthodromic atrioventricular reentrant tachycardia. It can also evaluate the risk in people with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, as well as terminate supraventricular tachycardia caused by re-entry. An intracardiac electrogram (ICEG) is essentially an ECG with some added intracardiac leads (that is, inside the heart). The standard ECG leads (external leads) are I, II, III, aVL, V1, and V6. Two to four intracardiac leads are added via cardiac catheterization. The word \"electrogram\" (EGM) without further specification usually means an intracardiac electrogram." }, { "id": "article-31383_17", "title": "Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.010089098532494758, "content": "In general, patients with asymptomatic WPW pattern are considered at low-risk of a cardiac arrest. Those patients who have had a cardiac arrest usually almost always experience preceding tachycardia related symptoms. Thus, most asymptomatic patients may be managed by reassurance and close watchful clinical monitoring. Patients may be advised to notify their clinician urgently in case of rapid palpitations or syncope. Alternatively, an additional risk stratification strategy may be utilized.  Risk stratification of asymptomatic WPW pattern may be performed either invasively or by non-invasive means. Neither risk-stratification scheme is 100% perfect due to some false positives or false negatives. Non-invasive evaluation is usually a preferred initial modality. Patients can undergo exercise treadmill testing, ambulatory ECG monitoring, or sodium channel blocker challenge.  The presence of an abrupt and clear loss of preexcitation at faster sinus rates on electrocardiogram suggests a weak or low-risk pathway. These pathways thus are unlikely to result in life-threatening ventricular rates during AF. They can usually be managed with watchful monitoring alone without subjecting them to an invasive EP study. On the other hand, if preexcitation persists at faster heart rates during exercise testing, or is persistent during the entire ambulatory monitoring period, then it may suggest that an invasive evaluation may be further needed. However, it does not necessarily mean that the pathway is \"high-risk.\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0955_22469", "title": "Antidromic Atrioventricular Reentry Tachycardia with Wolff Parkinson White Syndrome: A Rare Beast.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Orthodromic atrioventricular reentrant tachycardia (AVRT) is the second-most-common form of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and is inducible in approximately 55% of individuals with Wolff Parkinson White (WPW) syndrome. Antidromic AVRT, where the accessory atrioventricular connection is used as the antegrade limb and the atrioventricular node serves as the retrograde limb of the circuit, has been clinically documented in less than 5% of patients with WPW syndrome and may be induced in less than 10% of these WPW cases in the electrophysiology laboratory. Left lateral pathways are considered more frequent and septal locations are less common when associated with antidromic AVRT. We report a case of 21-year-old male with a history of WPW syndrome who had undergone a prior electrophysiology study in 2010 at an outlying facility, documenting an anteroseptal accessory pathway near the His bundle along with an unsuccessful attempt at radiofrequency ablation at that time. No supraventricular tachycardia was induced at that previous study. The surface electrocardiogram (ECG), at this time, was consistent with the anteroseptal WPW pattern. The patient now presented with a complaint of intermittent palpitations with no definitive trigger. He also described a recent syncopal episode while walking inside his home. His physical exam and all lab work were within normal limits for his age. He underwent a repeat electrophysiology (EP) study where the baseline PR interval was 62 milliseconds and the QRS duration was 172 milliseconds in a pre-excited pattern. There was found to be an antegrade-only conducting accessory pathway at the anteroseptal region near the His bundle. Antegrade AVRT was induced with a single ventricular extra stimulus while on 2 mcg/min isoproterenol. Cryoablation was performed in a position slightly posterior to the His bundle, which successfully resolved the accessory pathway conduction. First-degree atrioventricular (AV) block was noted in the sinus rhythm with a PR interval of 226 milliseconds post-cryoablation. There was no recurrence of accessory pathway conduction on follow-up ECG 24 hours post-cryoablation. Antidromic AVRT is a very rare finding in WPW syndrome during an EP study. Catheter ablation is the treatment of choice for patients who have symptomatic WPW syndrome. Catheter ablation can be especially challenging when the accessory pathway is in close proximity to the normal conduction pathways. The prognostic significance of inducible antidromic AVRT is controversial in asymptomatic patients and limited data indicate it may be a poor prognostic sign in children. In adults, the prognostic significance is not well-established. Cryoablation is an option for the ablation of accessory pathways that are close to the normal conduction pathways. \"Cryomapping\" is designed to have precise ablation and to reassure the absence of complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0222_504", "title": "[Usefulness of electrophysiologic studies. Report of 224 cases].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Two hundred and twenty four electrophysiologic studies were performed in 194 patients during a two-year period. One hundred and six (54.6%) had tachyarrhythmias: 21 had atrial tachycardia, 28 had the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Of 51 patients with a normal electrocardiogram a concealed left Kent bundle was observed in 21 cases and only one concealed right Kent bundle; functional James fibers were seen in 7 patients and Mahaim fibers in two. In 15 patients A-V nodal reentry was diagnosed and functional ectopy was observed in 5 patients. The sick-sinus-syndrome was seen in 24 patients and atrial arrest in three. Thirty patients underwent a second electrophysiologic study to evaluate proper antiarrhythmic therapy. Atrioventricular conduction was evaluated in 52 patients. A \"suprahisian\" delay was found in 34%, troncular lesions were diagnosed in 31%, a distal delay in 25% and mixed conduction disturbances in 10%. We conclude that electrophysiologic studies are a useful procedure to: 1) establish the etiologic diagnosis of tachyarrhythmias; 2) evaluate their potential danger; 3) objectively evaluate antiarrythmic therapy; 4) establish the need for surgical treatment; 5) give the topographic diagnosis and severity of A-V conduction disturbances and 6) indicate the need for definitive pacemaker implant." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en293_12816", "title": "Atrioventricular reentrant tachycardia", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Atrioventricular reentrant tachycardia (AVRT), or atrioventricular reciprocating tachycardia, is a type of abnormal fast heart rhythm and is classified as a type of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). AVRT is most commonly associated with Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome, but is also seen in permanent junctional reentrant tachycardia (PJRT). In AVRT, an accessory pathway allows electrical signals from the heart's ventricles to enter the atria and cause earlier than normal contraction, which leads to repeated stimulation of the atrioventricular node. Signs and symptoms An episode of SVT may present with palpitations, dizziness, shortness of breath, or losing consciousness (fainting). The electrocardiogram (ECG) would appear as a narrow-complex SVT. Between episodes of tachycardia the affected person is likely to be asymptomatic; however, the ECG would demonstrate the classic delta wave in Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome. Pathophysiology" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0057_16523", "title": "Diagnostic approach to cardiac arrhythmias.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The diagnostic approach to cardiac arrhythmias should be logical and starts with the clinical history, which provides two types of information: (a) the presence of symptoms, and (b) the clinical context, including the presence of an underlying heart disease. Clinical history and examination are helpful in the choice of pertinent invasive or noninvasive tests. The tolerance of the arrhythmia is not helpful in determining the type of arrhythmia because ventricular tachycardia, for example, may be well tolerated or even asymptomatic. The electrocardiogram (ECG) in sinus rhythm may be suggestive of the origin or etiology of arrhythmia as the presence, for example, of the Wolff-Parkinson-White pattern. An essential step in the diagnostic approach to arrhythmia is the ECG documentation. Ambulatory Holter monitoring, radiotelemetry, intermittent recorders, exercise testing, and electrophysiological testing will help in this endeavor. The latter is particularly useful in paroxysmal circus movement tachycardias. Once the tachycardia is recorded, a number of clues, including the regularity of the RR interval and the width of the QRS complex, may facilitate the diagnosis. In tachycardias with wide QRS complexes, preexcitation has to be excluded. The first step is then to look for atrioventricular dissociation, which is diagnostic of ventricular tachycardia. Other diagnostic clues (QRS duration, axis deviation, QRS morphology) may be useful. In case of difficulty because of preexisting bundle branch block or aberrancy, esophageal, right atrial, or His bundle recordings are indicated. If the tachycardia is not well tolerated, prompt termination with electrical DC shock should be performed.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0515_11773", "title": "Radiofrequency catheter ablation of accessory pathway in a patient with Ebstein's anomaly and atrial septal defect--a case report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The authors report the case of a 57-year-old woman with Ebstein's anomaly and atrial septal defect. She was referred to their hospital for treatment of refractory paroxysmal wide QRS tachycardia. Her 12-leads ECG in sinus rhythm showed ventricular preexcitation of type B Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. In a baseline electrophysiological study, a wide QRS tachycardia with right bundle branch block configurations was induced. This tachycardia was orthodromic atrioventricular reciprocating tachycardia with a right inferior accessory pathway. Radiofrequency current was successfully delivered at the inferior site of the atrialized right ventricle. Radiofrequency catheter ablation seems to be useful for supraventricular tachycardia in patients with Ebstein's anomaly and atrial septal defect." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0074_8977", "title": "[Clinical and prognostic value of evaluation of atrial vulnerability in an electrophysiological endocavitary and transesophageal study].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Atrial fibrillation or flutter is frequently inducible during endocavitary or transesophageal electrophysiologic study. However, its clinic and prognostic significance has not yet been clarified. We studied 443 patients: 276 underwent endocavitary electrophysiologic study, 228 underwent transesophageal electrophysiologic study and 61 underwent both methods. In 343 of them a satisfactory echocardiogram was obtained. Patients were divided in three groups: gr. I, 93 patients with documented episodes of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation or flutter; gr. II, 257 patients with or without heart disease without clinical atrial fibrillation or flutter; gr. III, 93 symptomatic or asymptomatic Wolff-Parkinson-White patients without clinical atrial fibrillation or flutter. Gr. I included patients without overt heart disease (20), with WPW (11), mitral valve prolapse (4), and miscellaneous (58). Gr. II included patients without overt heart disease (49), with concealed Kent bundles (7), Mahaim (1) or James fibers (1) mitral valve prolapse (6), sick sinus syndrome (40), miscellaneous (91), or syncope of an unknown origin (62). Atrial vulnerability was evaluated both by endocavitary and transesophageal electrophysiologic study using two different protocols; the first protocol was moderately aggressive (prot. A), while the second was aggressive (prot. B). Endocavitary electrophysiologic study. Prot. A: single and double extrastimuli at the three heart rates (sinus, 100 and 150/m'), 10/m' incremental atrial pacing from 160 to 250/m; prot. B: prot. A + incremental atrial pacing from 260/m' up to 2:1 St-A block. Transesophageal electrophysiologic study. Prot. A: 10\" atrial burst at 100-600/m' prot. B: prot. A + 6-9\" increasing rate bursts from 200 to 800/m'. End point of all protocols: initiation of greater than 1' atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. Endocavitary electrophysiologic study. A greater than 1' atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter was induced with the two protocols respectively in 67% (52/78) and 85% (51/60) of gr. I, in 17% (26/150) and 36% (38/105) of gr. II and in 35% (17/48) and 44% (21/48) of gr. III (gr. I vs gr. II p less than 0.001 for prot. A and p less than 0.01 for prot. B; gr. II vs gr. III p less than 0.001 for prot. A and NS for prot. B). Induced atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter using the two protocols had a greater than 5' duration respectively in 83 and 78% of gr. I, 62 and 42% of gr. II and in 41 and 38% of gr. III.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en074_7353", "title": "Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) is a type of supraventricular tachycardia, named for its intermittent episodes of abrupt onset and termination. Often people have no symptoms. Otherwise symptoms may include palpitations, feeling lightheaded, sweating, shortness of breath, and chest pain. The cause is not known. Risk factors include alcohol, caffeine, nicotine, psychological stress, and Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, which often is inherited. The underlying mechanism typically involves an accessory pathway that results in re-entry. Diagnosis is typically by an electrocardiogram (ECG) which shows narrow QRS complexes and a fast heart rhythm typically between 150 and 240 beats per minute." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0089_15811", "title": "[Significance of isotopes in the study of pre-excitation and ventricular tachycardia].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "In normal patients, Mac Carthy has demonstrated that there was a very close correlation between the ventricular contractile activity, evaluated by Fourier's isotopic phase analysis, and electrical depolarization, evaluated by endocardial mapping. It has therefore been possible to study asynchronisms or asymmetries of the ventricular contraction-depolarization and particularly the syndromes of ventricular pre-excitation and ventricular tachycardias. In Wolff-Parkinson-White syndromes (WPW), the mapping obtained by heart cavity tomography in addition to dual-plane gamma-angiography, provides most useful informations, due to additional section planes permitting tridimensional location of the earliest site of ventricular activation. It is quite useful to locate the bundle of Kent always difficult on surface electrocardiogram, or when the endocardial exploration does not permit to precisely locate the site of the excentric atrial activation in case of multiple bundles of Kent or without retrograde conduction. When the left bundle of Kent is barely identified, the isotopic image may be improved by oesophageal stimulation. Additional parameters (use of several harmonics, factorial analysis) will permit to improve the localization of accessory pathways, to be destroyed by fulguration or surgery. In case of ventricular tachycardias with limited functional tolerance, only gamma-angiography, lasting only 3 to 5 minutes, may be used. Combined with endocardial tomography or even gamma-angiography performed in sinus rhythm, not only the site of origin of the ventricular ectopy may be localized, but it also can be correlated with ventricular kinetics abnormalities and the cardiopathy in question may be identified. Most authors consider that there is a close relationship between isotopic site, electrocardiographic appearance and the site found by endocardial mapping or \"pace-mapping\". In patients with ventricular tachycardias of different morphologies, isotopic mapping permits to differentiate those originating from a same lesion (which may be treated by surgery of fulguration) from those originating in remote areas. Therefore, this technique is a non aggressive and rapid method providing accurate informations on severe rhythm disorders currently treated by eradication of their anatomical substratum." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1003_12187", "title": "[Inadequate, inappropriate sinus-node tachycardia. <i>An old cardiac arrhythmia in a new perspective</i>].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "<iIntroduction:</i The inadequate, inappropriate sinus-node tachycardia is not a rare clinical syndrome, defined as a non-paroxysmal, increased sinus-rate at rest, and/or inadequate response to physical and/or emotional stress, and palpitations. <iAim:</i The aim of this study was to describe our experiences with the investigations of our inappropriate sinus-node tachycardia patients. <iMethod:</i In the last years, 104 patients (92 women, 12 men, mean age: 31 ± 10 years) were treated with this cardiac arrhythmia entity. All patients underwent 12 leads ECG, chest X-ray, echocardiography, Holter-monitoring and transtelephonic ECG observations. The quality of life score was estimated by using the European Heart Rhythm Association scale. <iResults:</i Patients had no structural heart disease (physical examination ECG, chest X-ray, echocardiography were normal), the laboratory values (TSH, blood count) were within normal limits, but the resting heart rates were repeatedly high (102 ± 8/min). The results of Holter recording (expressed as minimal-maximal [average] heart rate/min) without drug therapy showed high heart rate values (59 ± 8, 160 ± 14 [94 ± 6]/min). The standard bicycle ergometry showed an average loading capacity of 124 ± 23 watt (heart rate: control: 99 ± 12/min, top: 167 ± 13/min) with early, inadequate sinus tachycardia. To disclose the episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, beside the Holter-monitoring transtelephonic ECG system was used. This diagnostic modality was very useful for the exclusion of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia episodes during the palpitation symptoms. Out of 104 patients, 4 patients (3.8%) showed familiar occurrence, another 16 patients (15.2%) had previous slow-pathway radiofrequency ablation due to atrioventricular nodal reentry tachycardia. <iConclusions:</i Based on our clinical observations, it can be pointed out that inappropriate sinus-node tachycardia syndrome (1) occurs mainly in young women, mostly in students, inducing decreased quality of life scores (EHRA score: 2.3 ± 0.4); (2) the prevalence in our outpatient clinic was 0.7%; (3) the patient population is not homogeneous: familiar or postablation occurrence is possible in some patients; (4) transtelephonic ECG has been proved to be very useful to disclose episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia in these patients. Orv Hetil. 2019; 160(37): 1464-1470." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0303_21558", "title": "[Possible mechanisms of false positive results of averaged ECG].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The objective of this retrospective study was to investigate the causes of high amplification (HA) ECG abnormalities detected in apparently healthy subjects. This study was based on 14 patients derived from a population of 167 admitted for assessment of malaise or supraventricular tachycardia and who had no apparent heart disease. The surface ECG showed fine QRS complexes (&lt; 120 ms) with no left hemiblock on ECG. All of these subjects underwent a complete electrophysiological study and high amplification ECG using a 40 Hertz high-pass filter. For these 14 patients, the amplitude of the last 40 milliseconds (ms) of the mean QRS (RMS 40) was less than or equal to 20 microvolts (microV). Eight of them also had a duration of the terminal part of the QRS complex less than 40 microV (LAS) greater than 40 ms and 6 others had and LAS greater than 35 ms. The mean QRS interval was normal in all patients (&lt; 120 ms). The usual causes for reduction of the RMS 40-were eliminated: programmed ventricular pacing using 3 extrastimuli under basal conditions and with isuprel remained negative. E chocardiography and the right ventricular angiography were normal. The surface ECG showed slight abnormalities: absence of Q wave in V6 without delay of the intrinsic-like deflection in 3 subjects, increased R wave in V1 in 2 subjects and especially deep S wave in V5-V6 with no left axis deviation in 10 patients. Programmed or increasing frequency atrial pacing induced RBB or LBB in 13 of these 14 subjects (RBB: 7, LBB : 3, RBB and LBB:3). Follow-up, ranging from 6 months to 3 years, did not reveal any cardiac events, but signs of RBB appeared in 3 patients and signs of LBB were observed in 1 patient. an abnormal high amplification ECG in apparently healthy subjects could be explained by minor conduction disorders essentially in the right branch. The presence of a deep S wave (&gt; 2 mm) in V5-V6 is the commonest ECG sign in these subjects. This diagnosis can only be proposed after exclusion of right ventricular dysplasia in symptomatic patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0285_4079", "title": "[Analysis of arrhythmias using Holter electrocardiographic monitoring in patients with ventricular preexcitation].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "It is known that patients with preexcitation of ventricles (PE) have a predisposition to paroxysmal supraventricular tachyarrhythmias (PSVT). There is a relatively small amount of knowledge concerning the occurrence and clinical significance of other disturbances of the cardiac rhythm in these patients. 1. To consider the possibility of utilization of Holter monitoring (HM) of electrocardiograms (ECG) in the detection of PSVT; 2. To find out the occurrence and evaluate the significance of other than paroxysmal tachycardias; 3. By means of correlation of subjective complaints with objectively documented arrhythmias to consider the extent, to which the subjective complaints are determined by disturbances of cardiac rhythm. 24-hour HM ECG was performed under clinical conditions in 50 patients, 23 male and 27 female patients at the average age of 35 +/- 13 (ranging 15-17) years, with manifestant PE on ECG. 21 (42%) patients with documented PSVT and/or atrial paroxysmal fibrillation (APF) constituted a group with Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. 29 (58%) patients without these arrhythmias were ranked among the group with WPW pattern. 22 (44%) patients had concomitant organic heart disease (OHD). Each long-term electrocardiographic ECG recording was judged in order to specify the occurrence of individual types of arrhythmias and to perform their quantitative analysis per 24 hours. Subjective complaints presented by patients during HM were correlated with the objectively documented arrhythmias. Arrhythmias were recorded in HM in 35 (70%) of patients with PE. Supraventricular premature beats (SVPBs) occurred in 32 (64%) and ventricular premature beats (VPBs) in 15 (32%) patients with PE. When comparing the patients with PE and OHD with subjects with PE without OHD, no statistical differences in the occurrence of SVPBs and VPBs as well as in numbers per 24 hours were discovered. PSVT were recorded by HM only in 2 patients, and AV reciprocating echoes in another patient with WPW syndrome. Short runs of atrial tachycardia occurred in 2 patients with WPW syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0546_4655", "title": "[Respective interest of two techniques of electrophysiological study in patient without heart disease].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Electrophysiologic study (EPS) frequently is required to assess the prognosis of asymptomatic Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW) or to prove the nature of no documented tachycardia. EPS usually is performed by intracardiac route and hospitalization is required. Similar data are given by an EPS performed by oesophageal route during a consultation. The purpose of the study was to evaluate the cost of both techniques in France. Transesophageal EPS was performed during a consultation in 100 patients with asymptomatic WPW syndrome and 100 patients with no heart disease, complaining of no documented tachycardias with abrupt beginning and end, suggesting a paroxysmal junctional re-entrant tachycardia (PJRT). The cost of transesophageal study including isoproterenol infusion is 127.75 euros. The cost of intracardiac EPS is at least 1460 euros, cost of hospitalization during only one day. In patients with WPW syndrome, 15 had a potentially malignant form with the induction of a tachycardia conducted through the accessory pathway at a high rate (&gt; 240/min in control state, &gt; 300/min with isoproterenol); radiofrequency catheter ablation was indicated in a second time. In the group with no documented tachycardia, PJRT was induced in 30 patients and indication of ablation was discussed. In other 155 patients with either a benign form of WPW syndrome or with a tachycardia unrelated to a PJRT, hospitalization was not required; in these patients, intracardiac study performed during one day of hospitalization would have costed 226,300 Euros. The cost for the esophageal EPS and a similar diagnosis was 19,801 Euros, with a save money of 206,499 Euros. In 45 patients in whom hospitalization was indicated in a second time to perform catheter ablation of the arrhythmia, the cost related to esophageal EPS was 5749 Euros. In the total group, considering the final diagnosis and the need of hospitalization in 45 patients, the save money related to the use of esophageal EPS was 206,499 E-5749 E = 200,750 euros. We should take into account the cost studies, when various techniques could be used for a similar diagnosis. There are important differences in the cost of diagnostic methods and it is easy to decrease this cost." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0267_21303", "title": "[Radiofrequency catheter ablation in patients with Mahaim-type slow-conduction accessory right atrioventricular pathway].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "In some cases undergoing radiofrequency catheter ablation (RFCA) of accessory pathway (AP), a Mahaim-like right-sided atrioventricular AP (M-AP) showing slow and decremental conduction is observed. Among 200 consecutive patients referred to our Institution up to September 1993 for arrhythmias related to an AP and undergoing RFCA, 8 patients (6 males, 2 females; mean age 24 +/- 8 years, range 8-35) showed a M-AP. Seven out of 8 patients have been complaining episodes of palpitation for 13 +/- 7 years (range 1-20), while 1 subject was an asymptomatic young athlete. In 2/8 patients an Ebstein disease (Eb) was present and they had previously undergone right-sided Kent bundle (Kb) ablation elsewhere. During sinus rhythm, QRS was normal in 1 patient, while it showed ventricular preexcitation due to right-sided Kb in 3 patients and right bundle branch block in another 4 patients. A left bundle branch block morphology (LBBBM) reentrant tachycardia (RT) was observed in 7 patients (in 1, only after RFCA of a right-sided Kb); 3 showed also orthodromic RT. In the asymptomatic young athlete, a preexcitation atrial fibrillation with very rapid ventricular response was inducible. All patients underwent diagnostic electrophysiologic (EP) study and RFCA in the same session. In 2/8 patients M-AP was manifest only after right-sided Kb RFCA. In all patients, associated EP abnormalities were noted: in 5/8 patients a dual A-V node pathway was present and in 5/8 patients 6 right-sided Kbs were associated. Patients have been divided in 3 groups, according to the mechanism involving the M-AP in the RT. In the 2 Group I patients showing also Eb, antidromic LBBBM RT and orthodromic RT involving the M-AP anterogradely and retrogradely, respectively, were observed; both arrhythmias were abolished by ablating the M-AP. The 3 Group II patients showed only antidromic LBBBM RT, involving a fast A-V node pathway retrogradely; also in these patients, the M-AP was the target of RFCA. This was performed only in 1 patient, in whom A-V node RT was also observed and ablated after RFCA of M-AP; as to the other 2 patients, in 1 the ablation of M-AP was not considered mandatory, since it was responsible for inducible not sustained LBBBM RT observed only after RFCA of a Kb in the same EP session, while in the other it was not possible because of a prolonged traumatic conduction block through the M-AP.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0515_6857", "title": "Arrhythmias and conduction abnormalities in children after repair of tetralogy of Fallot.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To find out types and frequency of cardiac arrhythmias and conduction abnormalities in the group of children who underwent surgery for tetralogy of Fallot (TOF). Forty-six pedicatric patients who underwent a complete repair of TOF at the age of 1 to 13 (mean 2.89+/-2.36) were studied Thirty-eight (82.60%) had total correction and 8 (17.40%) had palliative operation first, and total correction afterwards. Twenty-four-hour Holter ECG monitoring was performed in all 46 pediatric patients aged from 1 to 16 yrs (mean 6.48+/-4.04) after surgery as follows: in 1 patient (2.17%) after a year, in 20 patients (43.477%) after 2 to 5 years and in 25 patients (54.34%) after 5 years. Mean age of patients on Holter monitoring was 9.25+/-4.39 (range 4-19). Twenty of them (43.47%) were girls and 28 (56.53%) were boys. All the patients were evaluated by standard methods (clinical signs, clinical findings, ECG before surgery, ECG before Holter monitoring and 2D Doppler echocardiography. Types of heart rhythm found out by Holter monitoring were: sinus nodus dysfunction in 1 child (2.17%), significant premature atrial contraction (PAC) in 8 (17.39%), supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia in 3 (6.535), transient nodal rhythm in 2 (4.34%), premature ventricular contraction (PVC) Lown grade 1-III in 9 (19.56%) and Lown grade IV in 2 (4.34), atrioventricular (AV) block grade I in 2, right bundle branch block (RBBB) in all 46 (100%) and RBBB + left anterior hemiblock (LAH) in 4 (8.96%). There was no presence of atrial flutter, ventricular tachycardia or complete A V block. None of them experienced sudden death. Using cross procedure statistical methods, it was found that all the patients with PVC had right ventricular dilatation. There was no relation of other types of arrhythmia found on Holter monitoring to the other parameters from echocardiography, neither to the other standard methods. Children did not need the pace-maker, but 36.95% of the them required antiarrhythmic drugs. Twenty-four hour Holter ECG is a noninvasive and very sensitive method for discovering heart rhythm disturbances in children after the repair of tetralogy of Fallot, especially in asymptomatic patients. The patients after the repair of this congenital heart disease needed a long-term follow-up for early recognition of serious heart rhythm disturbances and their treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0050_18532", "title": "[Who should be referred for electrophysiologic studies?].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Prerequisite of a rational antiarrhythmic therapy is the correct diagnosis of the given cardiac rhythm disorder. The majority of intermittent and latent cardiac arrhythmias can be reliably induced and analyzed during the electrophysiologic study (EPS). In case of bradyarrhythmias, the method is indicated in patients with suspected sinus node disease or high-grade AV conduction disturbances, as far as the cause of clinical symptoms cannot be settled by Holter recordings. Since patients with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias (WPW syndrome and AV nodal reentrant tachycardia) can be cured by transvenous ablation techniques, EPS is indicating in this setting in all symptomatic patients for the diagnosis and the treatment of the given arrhythmia. In patients with recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmias, EPS should be performed to establish the diagnosis and to control medical treatment; in addition, EPS is a prerequisite for nonpharmacologic treatment modalities such as defibrillator therapy and transvenous or surgical ablation techniques. In survivors of cardiac arrest without new Q-wave myocardial infarction, persistent ventricular tachyarrhythmias can be induced in some 50% of the patients. Patients should be evaluated by EPS in case the reasons for significant clinical symptoms cannot be determined otherwise, given the likelihood, that brady- or tachyarrhythmias are the cause of the clinical symptoms; this includes patients with organic heart disease and with unexplained syncopes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0067_19336", "title": "Diagnosis and cure of the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome or paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias during a single electrophysiologic test.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "We conducted this study to determine the feasibility of an abbreviated therapeutic approach to the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome or paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, in which the diagnosis is established and radiofrequency ablation carried out during a single electrophysiologic test. One hundred six consecutive patients were referred for the management of documented, symptomatic paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias (66 patients) or the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (40 patients). All agreed to undergo a diagnostic electrophysiologic test and catheter ablation with radiofrequency current. No patient had had such a test previously. Among the 66 patients with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias, the mechanism was found to be atrioventricular nodal reentry in 46 (70 percent) (typical in 44 and atypical in 2), atrioventricular reciprocating tachycardia involving a concealed accessory pathway in 16 (24 percent), atrial tachycardia in 2 (3 percent), and noninducible paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia in 2 (3 percent). A successful long-term outcome was achieved in 57 of 62 patients (92 percent) with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia in whom ablation was attempted and in 37 of 40 patients (93 percent) with the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. The only complications were one instance of occlusion of the left circumflex coronary artery, leading to acute myocardial infarction, and one instance of complete atrioventricular block. The mean (+/- SD) duration of the electrophysiologic procedures was 114 +/- 55 minutes. The diagnosis and cure of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia or the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome during a single electrophysiologic test are feasible and practical and have a favorable risk-benefit ratio. This abbreviated therapeutic approach may eliminate the need for serial electropharmacologic testing, long-term drug therapy, antitachycardia pacemakers, and surgical ablation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0033_12079", "title": "[The mitral prolapse syndrome. Observation of 100 cases (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "100 patients with mitral prolapse syndrome (MPS) were studied with electrocardiogram, phonocardiogram, thorax radiography and echocardiogram. In 44 of the patients, the effort test and dynamic electrocardiogram were performed; 25 underwent hemodynamic examination, and 10 underwent selective coronarography. The most frequent symptomatologies were palpitations and vertigo; the most-registered electrocardiographic alterations were ventricular extrasystoles and altered electrical repolarization in the inferior seat. The symptomatic patients with rhythm disturbances showed reduced work capacity (RWC) with aggravation of the effort arrhythmias. The phonocardiogram showed variability of the phonoauscultatory reports, not only from patient to patient, but also in the same patient. The apicocardiogram presented a characteristic systolic re-entry which coincided with the non-ejective click. In all cases, the echocardiogram demonstrated a systolic movement backwards from the mitralic strips with different aspects. The endocavitary pressures in the studied cases were normal or only slightly altered. The left ventriculography frequently demonstrated assynergic areas, and constantly, eversion of the posterior mitralic strips in the left atrium. In most of the cases, the selective coronarography showed the absence of the ventricular atrial tract of the circumflex. The sustained role of the mixomatous degeneration in the pathogenetic mechanism of the MPS must be emphasized. The beta-blockers were the most effective drugs against arrhythmias, which in some cases showed themselves impervious to any medicinal treatment. MPS is considered a very diffuse disease which can run its course without detection or which can be accompanied by serious rhythm disturbances that can threaten the patient's life. The importance of echocardiography in the diagnosis of MPS is emphasized. The SPM patient showed undergo a series of wave tests which reveal malignant potentialities, so that the best therapeutic principles, both for the treatment and prevention of the arrhythmias, can be applied." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0325_15123", "title": "Successful radiofrequency current catheter ablation of accessory atrioventricular pathway after tricuspid replacement in Ebstein's anomaly.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A 15-year-old female with Ebstein's anomaly was referred to hospital for radiofrequency (RF) current catheter ablation of her refractory paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) after tricuspid valve replacement. A surface ECG showed ventricular preexcitation of type B Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. In a baseline electrophysiological study, two types of PSVT with left and right bundle branch block (LBBB and RBBB) configurations were induced. The LBBB type was antidromic and the RBBB type was orthodromic atrioventricular reciprocating tachycardia (AVRT) with a right posterolateral accessory pathway. RF current was successfully delivered at the posterolateral site above the prosthetic valve (V-delta interval = -30 msec). The patient has been free from arrhythmias during a follow-up period of 9 months. RF current ablation seems to be useful for AVRT patients with corrected Ebstein's anomaly." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0360_20279", "title": "[Idiopathic right ventricular tachycardia or arrhythmogenic right ventricular tachycardia?].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "While cycling a 38-year-old man suddenly experienced palpitations associated with marked weakness. 90 min later his general practitioner, having diagnosed a ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a rate of 218/min, terminated it by a drug injection. Electrocardiography (ECG), echocardiography and biventricular cardiac catheterization with right ventricular contrast injection failed to provide any evidence of structural abnormality. However, ergometry and EPS with programmed ventricular stimulation induced VT of identical morphology (left bundle branch bloc [LBBB] with right axis deviation [RAD]). Idiopathic right-ventricular outflow tract tachycardia (IRVT) having been diagnosed, the patient was put on a maintenance dose of 50 mg/d atenolol. After 6 months without symptoms he again experienced several attacks of tachycardia. Resting ECG merely revealed an epsilon potential and negative T waves in V1-V3. Right ventricular contrast injection revealed inferolateral dyskinesia. EPS demonstrated both the known VT and a second, morphologically different one (LBBB with LAD). These findings indicated arrhythmogenic right-ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARCV). A cardioverter/defibrillator was implanted (ICD) and over the subsequent 8 months he had six episodes of VT which were quickly terminated by the ICD. At first presentation of right-ventricular outflow tract tachycardia it is often not possible to differentiate between IRVT and arrhythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy. The two being significantly different in prognosis and treatment, follow-up monitoring is essential to establish the definitive diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0482_22390", "title": "The different electrophysiological characteristics in children with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome between those with and without atrial fibrillation.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Atrioventricular reciprocating tachycardia (AVRT) is known to be the most common supraventricular tachycardias in childhood. Because AF with rapid ventricular response may degenerate to ventricular fibrillation through conduction of accessory pathways (APs), it can be potentially life-threatening in some pediatric patients with WPW syndrome. However, information about WPW syndrome children associated with AF is limited. The purpose of this study was to investigate the specific electrophysiological characteristics in pediatric patients with WPW syndrome and AF. From July 1992 to February 2002, 51 pediatric patients with manifest WPW syndrome and documented AVRT underwent electrophysiological study and radiofrequency catheter ablation. In these patients, two (4%) were found to have several spontaneous episodes of AF recognized on 12-lead standard ECG or 24-hour Holter monitoring. Eleven (22%) patients had AF induced by rapid atrial pacing during the baseline procedure of electrophysiological study. The children with manifest WPW syndrome were divided into two groups: those with AF (group 1; n = 11) consisted of seven male and four female children (mean age 15 +/- 3 years, range 10-18), and those without AF (group 2; n = 40) consisted of 22 boys and 18 girls (mean age 16 +/- 3 years, range 7-18). The study excluded a patient who had Ebstein's anomaly associated with moderate tricuspid regurgitation and right atrial enlargement. The onset and duration of symptoms were not significantly different between the two groups. Comparing the electrophysiological characteristics, the atrial effective refractory period (ERP) was shorter in WPW syndrome children with AF (170 +/- 36 vs 190 +/- 38 ms, P = 0.041). This study demonstrated that the pediatric WPW syndrome patients with AF had different electrophysiological characteristics from those without AF." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0273_19662", "title": "[The diagnosis and ablation of accessory atrioventricular pathways in the initial electrophysiological exam: a new therapeutic modality in pre-excitation syndromes].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To describe the experience and results in the diagnosis and catheter ablation of atrioventricular accessory (AP) pathways during the initial electrophysiologic study. We performed catheter ablation at the time of an initial electrophysiologic study in 22 consecutive patients (12 W and 10 M, mean age 42 +/- 15) with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome or supraventricular tachycardia. Cardiology Department at University Hospital. The precise AP mapping was performed with the ablation catheter (4 mm distal electrode and deflectable tip) according to the earlier ventricular activation during sinus rhythm or the earlier atrial activation during ventricular pacing or orthodromic reentrant tachycardia. For left-sided pathways the ablation catheter was positioned on the mitral annulus retrogradely across the aortic valve, while for right-sided pathways it was positioned on the tricuspid annulus or near the coronary sinus os. Radiofrequency energy was applied for 20-60 segs with 55-65 Volts. Seventeen AP were manifest and five were concealed. AP were left lateral in 11 patients (50%), left posterior in 5, and right postero-septal, right posterior or antero-septal in 2 patients each. The ablation was initially successful in 18/22 (82%), with 9 +/- 8 radiofrequency applications. Mean duration of the entire procedure was 145 +/- 59 min and the fluoroscopy duration was 39 +/- min. There were no major complications. During 2-9 months of follow-up AP conduction returned in two patients. Radiofrequency catheter ablation of AP is effective and safe and can be performed at the time of an initial electrophysiologic test, avoiding the need for long-term antiarrhythmic drug therapy or surgical ablation." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 344 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 57 ] ], "text": "Mature cystic teratoma is a common benign tumor of the ovary in adult women. The tissues that make up the tumor are well differentiated (mature or adult-type); apart from cutaneous structures many other tissues can be seen, particularly in a thickening or spur that eminences into the cavity, in which there are often teeth, cartilage and bone." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Teratocarcinoma.", "2": "Immature teratoma.", "3": "Mature cystic teratoma.", "4": "Dysgerminoma.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0721_21912", "title": "Malignant transformation of ovarian mature cystic teratoma with a predominant pulmonary type small cell carcinoma component.", "score": 0.016298946531504672, "content": "A 68-year-old woman was diagnosed with mature cystic teratoma of the left ovary when she was 44 years old. The tumor recently enlarged rapidly, and abdominal magnetic resonance imaging revealed an intrapelvic cystic lesion, which measured 123 × 120 × 107 mm and contained a mural nodule. Under a clinical diagnosis of malignant transformation of mature cystic teratoma, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with total hysterectomy and omentectomy were performed. The resected specimen showed a unilocular cystic lesion containing a well-demarcated mural nodule measuring 35 × 30 × 25 mm in the left ovary. A microscopic examination revealed various types of carcinoma in the mural nodule: pulmonary type small cell carcinoma (65%), adenocarcinoma (25%), squamous cell carcinoma (5%), and transitional cell carcinoma (5%). Small cell carcinoma was positive for CD56, synaptophysin, and chromogranin A. The adenocarcinoma component showed intestinal phenotypes; i.e. cytokeratin (CK) 7(-), CK20(+), CDX2(+), estrogen receptor(-), and progesterone receptor (-). Interestingly, CDX2 positivity was retained in all of the carcinomas. It was assumed that the adenocarcinoma had arisen from an intestinal epithelium in the mature cystic teratoma and then differentiated into the diverse histological types mentioned above." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0622_6174", "title": "Adenocarcinoma arising from the respiratory ciliated epithelium in a benign cystic teratoma of the ovary.", "score": 0.01607142857142857, "content": "Benign cystic teratoma of the ovary (BCTO) is the most common benign ovarian tumor, accounting for 15-20% of all ovarian tumors. It is usually diagnosed in the third and fourth decades of life. Malignant transformation is rare, occurring in approximately 1-2% of reported cases, with squamous cell carcinoma being the most common form. Adenocarcinoma arising from mature cystic teratoma is extremely rare. We present the patient with a BCTO, where a malignant transformation of respiratory ciliated epithelium resulted in well differentiated adenocarcinoma. Although respiratory epithelium is often found in BCTOs, adenocarcinoma arising from this cell type is uncommon. To our knowledge, this is the fourth reported case of adenocarcinoma arising from the respiratory epithelium of a BCTO." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0902_19530", "title": "Ovarian Teratoma in Routine Biopsy Material During a Five-Year Period.", "score": 0.01502919522721503, "content": "Teratomas are tumors derived from germ cells, most frequently arising in the gonads. The aim of this study was to determine the number of ovarian teratomas diagnosed in the routine biopsy material at Ljudevit Jurak Clinical Department of Pathology, Sestre milosrdnice University Hospital Center during a 5-year period, as well as their clinical, gross and microscopic characteristics. Teratomas accounted for 48.6% (n=166) of primary ovarian tumors. The patient mean age was 34.74±12.37 years. Difference in the incidence of teratoma between the left and right ovary was not significant; bilateral teratoma was found in 13 patients. Teratomas were detected by ultrasonography in 115 (69.27%) cases and the rest were found during surgery performed for other indications. Most teratomas (n=161; 96.9%) were mature and cystic (dermoid cysts). Mature and solid teratomas were diagnosed in 5 (3.01%), ovarian struma in 2 (1.8%) cases and strumal carcinoid in 1 (1.2%) case. Mature cystic teratomas contained sebaceous material in 123 (76.8%) cases, and a total of 16 teeth were found; 157 (94.5%) teratomas measured &lt;10 cm in largest diameter. Microscopically, mature cystic teratomas most frequently contained ectodermal (skin with appendages, mature glia and nerve ganglia) and mesodermal (fi brous, fat tissue, cartilage and bone) tissues. Frequently found tissues of endodermal origin were respiratory and intestinal epithelia. Small foci of thyroid tissue were found in 20 (12%) teratomas. Chronic granulomatous foreign body reaction in the wall of mature cystic teratomas was found in 11 (6.8%) tumors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0555_19922", "title": "A case of ovarian mature cystic teratoma presenting as a pedunculated ileal tumor.", "score": 0.014333976833976834, "content": "We report on a 34-year-old Japanese woman who presented with a pedunculated ileal tumor and who was finally diagnosed as having a right ovarian mature cystic teratoma penetrating and protruding into the ileum. She had undergone laparoscopic left ovarian cystectomy, whose specimen was diagnosed as dermoid cyst when she was 27 years old. The colon fiberscope revealed an ileal polyp, diagnosed as mature teratoma. Because of adhesion to the necrotic nodule between the tumor and the right ovary, ileocecal resection and right ovarian cystectomy were performed. The ileal tumor contained tissues of skin, neuroglia, ganglion, choroid, retina, smooth muscle, as well as fibrous and adipose tissues, cartilage, bone, mucous epithelium, and bronchial structures with bronchial glands. The necrotic nodule showed abscess, granulation tissue, foreign body reaction, hairs, normal ileal epithelium, and the ovary with ovums." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_56033", "title": "Teratoma", "score": 0.013748345501900005, "content": "Malignant transformation A \"benign\" grade 0 (mature) teratoma nonetheless has a risk of malignancy. Recurrence with malignant endodermal sinus tumor has been reported in cases of formerly benign mature teratoma, even in fetiform teratoma and fetus in fetu. Squamous cell carcinoma has been found in a mature cystic teratoma at the time of initial surgery. A grade 1 immature teratoma that appears to be benign (e.g., because AFP is not elevated) has a much higher risk of malignancy, and requires adequate follow-up. This grade of teratoma also may be difficult to diagnose correctly. It can be confused with other small round cell neoplasms such as neuroblastoma, small cell carcinoma of hypercalcemic type, primitive neuroectodermal tumor, Wilm's tumor, desmoplastic small round cell tumor, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0602_9674", "title": "Adenocarcinoma arising from respiratory ciliated epithelium in benign cystic teratoma of the ovary: a case report with analyzes of the CT, MRI, and pathological findings.", "score": 0.013401559454191032, "content": "The malignant transformation of mature cystic teratoma is rare, thus occurring in only 1-2% of all cases. The most common malignancy arising in mature cystic teratoma is squamous cell carcinoma. Adenocarcinoma occurs with less frequency. We herein present a patient with an ovarian mature cystic teratoma who demonstrated a malignant transformation to well-differentiated adenocarcinoma. Malignant transformation was diagnosed preoperatively by contrast enhanced computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Microscopically and immunohistochemically, the adenocarcinoma was considered to have arisen from the ciliated respiratory epithelium. After a 28-month of follow-up period, she remains free of the disease. This is the third reported case of adenocarcinoma arising in the respiratory epithelium of an ovarian mature cystic teratoma. Contrast enhanced CT and MRI are useful for making a preoperative diagnosis and an immunohistochemical study is helpful for defining its origin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0352_14243", "title": "[Malignant transformation of thyroid tissue in an ovarian dermoid cyst: case report].", "score": 0.012932269285860446, "content": "Mature cystic teratoma is the most common type of ovarian teratomas and also the most frequent tumor originating from germ cells. Usually unilateral, it is, by definition, composed of well-differentiated derivates which originate from all three layers. It is most frequently diagnosed in the female reproductive period; in its pure form, it is generally benign, but occasionally it may undergo malignant transformation in one of its elements. The authors report a case of a 43-year-old woman who underwent a thyroid regulation substitutive therapy 12 years after thyroidectomy which had been performed because of Basedow's disease. On the occasion of her fourth delivery by cesarean section, bilateral cystical formations in both ovaries were found. Upon ending the delivery, the right ovary with the cyst was surgically removed, as well as part of the cystically changed left ovary. The pathohistological analysis of the samples taken from the left ovary cyst pointed to the following diagnosis: dermoid cyst of the ovary a mature cystic teratoma, whereas the samples from the cystic tumor of the right ovary were diagnosed as: ovarian teratoma malignant a papillary carcinoma of the thyroid tissue and cystadenoma papillare serosum ovarii. The histological type of the malignant thyroid tissue neoplasm in the teratoma was a papillary carcinoma consisting of papillary proliferations lined by cuboidal, cylindrical and pseudostratified epithelium with charasteristic \"ground glass\" nuclei, but without invasion into the blood vessels. Malignant transformation of the ectopic thyroid tissue, which is one of the elements of the ovarian cystic teratoma, is extremely rare: it is diagnosed on basis of the histological picture and criteria which are the same as for the tumor of the thyroid gland. One should not exclude a pssibility that the identical or different pathological alterations characteristic of the thyroid gland may also be detected in the ectopic thyroid tissue of a dermoid cyst. The reported case was chosen due to its complex and rich clinical and pathohistological picture characterized by the occurrence of a bilateral dermoid cyst with the malignant transformation of the thyroid tissue. The malignant neoplasm in the mature ovarian cystic teratoma was papillary carcinoma of the thyroid tissue with all histological properties typical for the thyroid gland carcinoma. The possibility of the malignant transformation of the endodermal thyroid tissue in the mature ovarian cystic teratoma and changes in the thyroid gland of the Basedow's disease type diagnosed before are without clear causation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_23573", "title": "Immature teratoma", "score": 0.012913866069205873, "content": "An immature teratoma is a teratoma that contains anaplastic immature elements, and is often synonymous with malignant teratoma. A teratoma is a tumor of germ cell origin, containing tissues from more than one germ cell line, It can be ovarian or testicular in its origin. and are almost always benign. An immature teratoma is thus a very rare tumor, representing 1% of all teratomas, 1% of all ovarian cancers, and 35.6% of malignant ovarian germ cell tumors. It displays a specific age of incidence, occurring most frequently in the first two decades of life and almost never after menopause. Unlike a mature cystic teratoma, an immature teratoma contains immature or embryonic structures. It can coexist with mature cystic teratomas and can constitute of a combination of both adult and embryonic tissue. The most common symptoms noted are abdominal distension and masses. Prognosis and treatment options vary and largely depend on grade, stage and karyotype of the tumor itself." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_65513", "title": "Ovarian cancer", "score": 0.012349414159194674, "content": "Immature, or solid, teratomas are the most common type of ovarian germ cell tumor, making up 40–50% of cases. Teratomas are characterized by the presence of disorganized tissues arising from all three embryonic germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm; immature teratomas also have undifferentiated stem cells that make them more malignant than mature teratomas (dermoid cysts). The different tissues are visible on gross pathology and often include bone, cartilage, hair, mucus, or sebum, but these tissues are not visible from the outside, which appears to be a solid mass with lobes and cysts. Histologically, they have large amounts of neuroectoderm organized into sheets and tubules along with glia; the amount of neural tissue determines the histologic grade. Immature teratomas usually only affect one ovary (10% co-occur with dermoid cysts) and usually metastasize throughout the peritoneum. They can also cause mature teratoma implants to grow throughout the abdomen in a disease" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en574_16633", "title": "Ovarian germ cell tumors", "score": 0.012179218480741466, "content": "Teratomas Teratoma are most common germ cell tumor of ovary. Teratomas can be divided into two types: mature teratoma (benign) and immature teratoma (malignant). Immature teratomas contain immature or embryonic tissue which significantly differentiates them from mature teratomas as they carry dermoid cysts. It is commonly observed in 15 to 19-year-old women and rarely in women after menopause. Immature teratomas are characterized with a diameter of 14–25 cm, encapsulated mass, cystic areas, and occasional appearance of hemorrhagic areas. The stage of immature teratomas is determined depending on the amount of immature neuroepithelium tissue detected. Yolk sac tumor" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0600_18102", "title": "[Benign mature teratomas of the mediastinum].", "score": 0.01206992230854606, "content": "Mature teratomas of the mediastinum are rare. However, they represent the most common mediastinal germ cell tumours. The aim of this study is to describe their clinical and pathological characteristics. Fourteen cases of mediastinal mature teratoma, diagnosed between January 1992 and December 2006, were reviewed retrospectively, noting the clinical, radiological, surgical, and pathological findings. The patient population consisted of 10 females and 4 males with mean age of 29 years (5-56 years). Chest pain was the main symptom. Imaging features comprised a heterogeneous anterior mediastinal mass containing soft-tissue, fluid, fat, or calcium attenuation, or any combination of the four. Macroscopically all the tumours were cystic, or predominantly cystic, containing mostly grumous material. The mean size was 9 cm (5-12 cm). Histological examination constantly revealed skin with or without appendages. Other components identified were bronchial mucosa (12 cases), fat (12 cases), muscle (10 cases), cartilage (8 cases), bone (7 cases), gastrointestinal mucosa (7 cases), pancreas (5 cases), urothelial epithelium (3 cases), nervous and prostatic tissues (one case each). All the teratomas were mature, and 7 of them were intrathymic. Every form of teratoma occurs in the mediastinum (mature, immature and with malignant transformation) but, in our study, they were exclusively mature. The histology is essentially similar to that of teratomas of gonads. However, pancreatic tissue occurs frequently in mediastinum (54% in literature, 25% in our study) but not in the gonads. On the other hand, thyroid follicles have not yet been seen in mediastinal teratomas." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0408_4863", "title": "Adenocarcinoma arising from respiratory ciliated epithelium in mature ovarian cystic teratoma.", "score": 0.011297852474323064, "content": "Malignant transformation of a mature cystic teratoma of the ovary is rare, that of an adenocarcinoma is extremely rare. A 32-year-old woman was suspected as having a malignant transformation of her mature cystic teratoma of the ovary because the preoperative level of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) was extremely high. Resections of her ovarian cysts were performed, and this particular tumor was histopathologically diagnosed as an adenocarcinoma arising from a mature cystic teratoma of the left ovary. Because adenocarcinomas arising from mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are extremely rare, we report this case with a review of some of the literature." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_65518", "title": "Ovarian cancer", "score": 0.011102981525516736, "content": "Histologically, embryonal carcinoma appears similar to the embryonic disc, made up of epithelial, anaplastic cells in disorganized sheets, with gland-like spaces and papillary structures. Polyembryoma Polyembryomas, the most immature form of teratoma and very rare ovarian tumors, are histologically characterized by having several embryo-like bodies with structures resembling a germ disk, yolk sac, and amniotic sac. Syncytiotrophoblast giant cells also occur in polyembryomas. Squamous cell carcinoma Primary ovarian squamous cell carcinomas are rare and have a poor prognosis when advanced. More typically, ovarian squamous cell carcinomas are cervical metastases, areas of differentiation in an endometrioid tumor, or derived from a mature teratoma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_23575", "title": "Immature teratoma", "score": 0.010304312312815464, "content": "Ovarian cancer is staged using the FIGO staging system and uses information obtained after surgery, which can include a total abdominal hysterectomy via midline laparotomy, unilateral (or bilateral) salpingo-oophorectomy, pelvic (peritoneal) washings, assessment of retroperitoneal lymph nodes and/or appendectomy. The AJCC staging system, identical to the FIGO staging system, describes the extent of tumor (T), the presence of absences of metastases to lymph nodes (N), the presence or absence of distant metastases (M). Pathology An immature teratoma contains varying compositions of adult and embryonic tissue. The most common embryonic component identified in immature teratomas is the neuroectoderm. Occasionally, tumors may present neuroepithelium that resemble neuroblasts. Tumors may also present embryonic components such as immature cartilage and skeletal muscle of mesodermal origin. Immature teratomas composed of embryonic endodermal derivatives are rare." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_56020", "title": "Teratoma", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Types Mature teratoma A mature teratoma is a grade 0 teratoma. They are highly variable in form and histology, and may be solid, cystic, or a combination of the two. A mature teratoma often contains several different types of tissue such as skin, muscle, and bone. Skin may surround a cyst and grow abundant hair (see dermoid cyst). Mature teratomas generally are benign, with 0.17-2% of mature cystic teratomas becoming malignant. Immature teratoma Immature teratoma is the malignant counterpart of the mature teratoma and contains immature tissues which typically show primitive or embryonal neuroectodermal histopathology. Immature teratoma has one of the lowest rates of somatic mutation of any tumor type and results from one of five mechanisms of meiotic failure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0541_8717", "title": "[Laparoscopic extirpation of retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst is an extremely rare anomaly. During the examination of an 18-year-old female patient due to her extreme thinness, the abdominal ultrasound and later the CT indicated as an accidental finding--a left side adrenal/suprarenal adenoma, which turned out to be hormonally inactive. But while we were doing a laparoscopic surgical intervention we found a 6-8-cm cyst in the retroperitoneum, between the greater curvature and the spleen. It contained light grey, mucinous liquid. The left suprarenal gland had normal size and appearance. During the microscopic examination the removed terime showed cystic structures, which were covered inside with multilayer ciliated columnar epithelium, mucous excretory glands, a whole layer of connective/interstitial and smooth muscle tissue. Neither cartilage, nor gastrointestinal epithelium was found. Only a few publications have reported about retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst so far. These lesions occur very rarely at the greater curvature. Although this alteration is really unusual, bronchogenic cysts have to be expected in the differential diagnostics of the retroperitoneal tumors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0043_4765", "title": "Pulmonary blastoma. Comparison between its epithelial components and fetal bronchial epithelium.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Three cases of pulmonary blastoma exhibiting biphasic epithelial and stromal patterns, and a case of fetal lung-type adenocarcinoma, were examined by immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy (EM) and compared with fetal bronchial epithelium in order to explore the multidirectional differentiation of their epithelial components. The glandular cells of all four tumors resembled fetal bronchial epithelial cells in the pseudoglandular stage. Neuroendocrine (NE) cells were also present; they were argyrophilic and expressed pan-NE markers, neurosecretory granules and peptide hormones. The neural cell adhesion molecule (NCAM) was strongly expressed on the cell membranes of glandular cells, as in the case of proximal bronchial epithelial cells at the pseudoglandular stage in fetal lung. Sialosylated Lewis X was also expressed, indicating that the epithelial cells were possibly of endodermal origin. Two of the four cases showed considerable immunoreactivity for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). The epithelial cells of pulmonary blastomas may occasionally de-differentiate into cells functionally resembling fetal hepatic, foregut and yolk sac cells expressing AFP. Tumor examination by immunohistochemistry and EM suggested that the glandular cells of the tumors may differentiate to some extent like those of fetal large bronchi at the pseudoglandular stage, but there was concordance and discordance in the expression of neuroendocrine and oncofetal markers between blastomatous tumors and fetal bronchial epithelium." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1069_8899", "title": "Primary Mature Teratoma of the Rectum: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "BACKGROUND Teratomas are embryonal neoplasms that contain tissues derived from 1 or more of the 3 germ layers. They commonly are found in the sacrococcygeal-gonadal location, sometimes in midline locations such as the mediastinum, retroperitoneum, and head and neck region. Primary rectal teratomas are extremely rare. Extragonadal teratomas can originate from pluripotent germ cells present in abnormal embryonic rests. CASE REPORT Here, we report a rare case of a primary mature, solid teratoma of the rectum. A 68-year-old woman presented with hematochezia and denied any history of abdominal pain or a change in bowel habits. Colonoscopy revealed a 4-cm pedunculated polyp in the rectum. No hair was present on its surface. The polyp was completely removed by polypectomy. Histologically, the tumor consisted of mature components from all 3 germ layers. Its surface was covered by squamous epithelium with hair follicles and sweat glands. Adipose tissue, blood vessels, bone, and glandular epithelium were present inside the mass. No evidence was found of immature elements or malignant features. CONCLUSIONS When polypoid lesions are found in the rectum, teratoma should be considered in the differential diagnosis. Histopathological confirmation is necessary to diagnose teratoma. Primary rectal teratomas should be distinguished from other neoplastic polyps as well as from local spread of teratomas arising in adjacent organs. These neoplasms are usually mature (benign) but may undergo malignant transformation. Therefore, complete resection is recommended to alleviate symptoms and avoid the risk of malignancy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1132_5448", "title": "Clinicopathological observation of mature teratoma with malignant transformation, a single center retrospective study.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To investigate the clinicopathological features of mature teratoma with malignant transformation. Retrospectively analysis of 1179 cases mature teratoma was done from August 1999 to December 2019 in Institution. 14 cases of mature teratoma with malignant transformation were discussed mainly for the pathological characteristics and clinical manifestations. 4 of them were less than 40 years old. All but one occurred in the ovaries, and the one was in the left anterior mediastinum which was the only male. The clinical manifestations of the patients were atypical. Imaging showed cystic solid mass. Surgery was performed. Polypoid mass, solid nodule and thickened area of cyst wall can be seen on the section of tumor. Pathological results show that there were 5 cases of squamous cell carcinoma, 3 cases of carcinoid, 2 cases of serous carcinoma and 2 cases of thyroid papillary carcinoma, 1 case of carcinosarcoma and 1 case of strumal carcinoid. Two cases of squamous cell carcinoma had pelvic and abdominal metastasis. Immunohistochemistry of case 14 showed that AE1/AE3, CD56, SYN, NSE, PSAP, CDX2 were positive in carcinoid. EMA and CK20 were positive in mucinous glands around carcinoid. Calretinin and inhibin were positive in the mesenchyme adjacent to intestinal mucinous gland. Teratoma with malignant transformation is a rare malignancy, although teratoma is a common germ cell tumor. And it's more common in patients over 40 years, especially those patients who were in menopause. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type and prone to metastasis. Strumal carcinoid was well-defined, but as an endocrine tumor, it may cause a series of digestive, respiratory or hormonal disorders. Therefore, the mature teratomas should be removed in time after detection." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en063_44842", "title": "International Classification of Diseases for Oncology", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "M9064/3 Germinoma Germ cell tumor, NOS M9065/3 Germ cell tumor, nonseminomatous M9070/3 Embryonal carcinoma, NOS Embryonal adenocarcinoma M9071/3 Yolk sac tumor Endodermal sinus tumor Polyvesicular vitelline tumor Orchioblastoma Embryonal carcinoma, infantile Hepatoid yolk sac tumor M9072/3 Polyembryoma Embryonal carcinoma, polyembryonal type M9073/1 Gonadoblastoma Gonocytoma M9080/0 Teratoma, benign Adult cystic teratoma Adult/cystic teratoma, NOS Teratoma, differentiated Mature teratoma M9080/1 Teratoma, NOS Solid teratoma M9080/3 Teratoma, malignant, NOS Embryonal teratoma Teratoblastoma, malignant Immature teratoma, malignant or NOS M9081/3 Teratocarcinoma Mixed embryonal carcinoma and teratoma M9082/3 malignant teratoma, undifferentiated Malignant teratoma, anaplastic M9083/3 Malignant teratoma, intermediate M9084/0 Dermoid cyst, NOS Dermoid, NOS" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0546_2919", "title": "[Mature cystic teratoma of the ovary with a small ganglioneuroma].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A case of ganglioneuroma arising within a cystic mature teratoma of the ovary in a 34-year-old woman is reported. Patient underwent right adnexectomy. The ovary was completely replaced by a bilocular cystic lesion, measuring 8 cm in diameter and filled with adipose tissue and pilosebaceous material. Microscopically the cyst was composed by a mature cystic teratoma containing skin with dermal appendages, fatty tissue and bronchial epithelium. Furthermore a nodule (0.5 cm in size) composed of mature ganglion cells, axons and Schwann cells, was identified. Ganglion cells were positive for NSE and synaptophysin, while Schwann cells stained positively with S100 protein and GFAP. To the best of our knowledgment this is the first reported cases of ganglioneuroma arisen within a cystic mature teratoma of the ovary." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0359_12455", "title": "An intrapulmonary teratoma associated with bronchiectasia containing various kinds of primordium: a case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "An intrapulmonary teratoma (IPT), multiloculated and bronchiectatic, with two polyps inside a 23-year-old man is reported. The IPT, a very rare benign cystic lesion, was communicating with segmental bronchus and was removed by a segmental resection from the upper lobe of the left lung. The teratoma contained various kinds of primordial derivatives, such as mesoderm, ectoderm, and endoderm. Though 65 cases of IPT have been reported in the literature (1839-1996), in the present case there were over 15 germ derivatives, the largest number reported to date. The tumor contained thymic tissue, apart from mediastinum, which may be significant in relation to the pathogenesis of IPT. Clinical manifestations, age, and gender distributions and the kind of germ cell derivatives are discussed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_99046", "title": "Dermoid cyst", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A dermoid cyst is a teratoma of a cystic nature that contains an array of developmentally mature, solid tissues. It frequently consists of skin, hair follicles, and sweat glands, while other commonly found components include clumps of long hair, pockets of sebum, blood, fat, bone, nail, teeth, eyes, cartilage, and thyroid tissue. As dermoid cysts grow slowly and contain mature tissue, this type of cystic teratoma is nearly always benign. In those rare cases wherein the dermoid cyst is malignant, a squamous cell carcinoma usually develops in adults, while infants and children usually present with an endodermal sinus tumor. Location Due to its classification, a dermoid cyst can occur wherever a teratoma can occur. Vaginal and ovarian dermoid cysts" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0016_922", "title": "[Mature benign teratomas with malignant tumors and malignant monodermal ovarian teratomas. Anatomo-clinical presentation of 10 cases].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The clinicopathologic features are presented of 8 malignant neoplasms occurring in adult teratomas, and of 2 malignant monodermal teratomas found in a continuous series of 1029 cases of ovarian adult teratomas. The age of the patients was 44--76 years. The first 8 observations included 6 epidermoid carcinomas, 1 undifferentiated carcinoma and 1 strumal carcinoid. In the epidermoid carcinomas malignancy was recognized peroperatively only in three instances. One tumor had infiltrated the broad ligament on one side and another the urinary bladder. The neoplasm appeared as a mass which thickened the wall of a typical dermoid cyst. Four patients died of the tumor from 3 months to 1 year after operation; one is alive more than 19 years later and one is lost to follow-up. The crucial factor in prognosis is the integrity of the ovarian capsule. The undifferentiated carcinoma, which had infiltrated the pelvic walls, could only be incompletely resected and caused death within 3 1/2 months. The strumal carcinoid was discovered by chance during laparotomy for a far-advanced adenocarcinoma of the pancreas which led to death within 2 months. The two cases of malignant monodermal teratoma comprised 1 thyroid papillary carcinoma and 1 carcinoid. Both patients are alive more than 8 and 5 years after operation. The carcinoid manifested itself by persistant diarrhea which ceased soon after operation and did not recur subsequently." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0636_16507", "title": "Benign cystic teratoma of the parotid gland: a case report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Mature cystic teratomas of the major salivary glands are rare. This report describes a case of a mature cystic teratoma of the left parotid gland, including the cytologic and histopathologic findings. A 17-year-old young woman presented with a slow-growing left parotid mass that had been present for 4 years. Preoperative fine needle aspiration cytology showed the presence of acinar and ductal cells, foamy cells and multinucleated giant cells. Imprint cytology of the surgical material showed the presence of some squamous cells and sebaceous gland-like cells with hair shafts. Cellular atypia was inconspicuous. Grossly, the 3-cm lesion was unicystic and embedded within the parotid gland parenchyma. Microscopically, the inner surface of the cyst was lined with keratinized squamous epithelium. The cyst wall contained skin adnexa such as sebaceous, eccrine and apocrine glands, as well as hair follicles. Some mature cartilage tissue was also detected. Foreign body granulomatous change was seen focally. No immature tissue or malignant transformation was found. There is no previous report describing the cytologic findings of a mature cystic teratoma of the parotid gland. Mature cystic teratomas should therefore be considered in the differential diagnosis of a cystic lesion of the parotid" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0812_4036", "title": "Retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst: a case report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Bronchogenic cysts are among developmental disorders of the primitive foregut which are typically found above the diaphragm. Bronchial cysts discovered in the abdominal cavity or retroperitoneum are extremely rare. We present a rare case of a retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst which was incidentally detected after a wrestling injury in a 23-year-old man who had a negative medical history. Although initial imaging studies suggested an adrenal tumor, histopathological analysis provided a definite diagnosis of bronchogenic cyst. Though rare, bronchogenic cysts must be considered in the differential diagnosis of retroperitoneal cystic lesions. This is the first case of a retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst reported in Iran. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0572_20287", "title": "A case of concomitant occurrence of struma ovarii and malignant transformation of cystic teratoma.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 77-year-old woman received a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy because of a tumor in the left ovary. The surgical specimen measured 8.5x4.5x4.0 cm, and the solid lesion measured 4.0x3.5x3.5 cm. The solid lesion was diagnosed as struma ovarii. The cyst wall partially comprised squamous epithelium-like and ciliated columnar epithelium-like cells. The tumorous lesion of the cyst wall revealed a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemically, the tumor cells were positive for cytokeratin7, and were negative for cytokeratin20 and thyroid transcription factor-1. The authors diagnosed that struma ovarii and other parats coexisted as a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma that had arisen from a mature ovarian cystic teratoma. As for the identification of the origin of adenocarcinomas arising from mature ovarian cystic teratomas, more cases need to be identified and investigated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0547_18353", "title": "[Bronchogenic cyst of the tongue].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Bronchogemc cyst is a rare aberration secondary to abnormal detachment of accessory lung buds from the primitive foregut. Through one case of bronchogenic cyst of the tongue, the authors made a review of this exceptional localisation. We report one case of bronchogenic cyst of the tongue treated in the Ibn Sina Hospital. Our patient was a new born admitted in our formation for a voluminous cystic mass ot the tongue, responsible of difficulty for mouth occlusion and feeding The radiology I confirms the liquid nature of this mass. The treatment was surgical, and the diagnosis of bronchogenic cyst was histological. Bronchogenic cysts are generally intrathoracic. The localization in the cervico-facial area is rare, and only 4 cases of bronchogenic cyst of the tongue were described in the literature. The clinical presentation is non specific, depending on the volume of the cyst. Radiology permits to confirm the nature of the mass. The certitude diagnosis is histological: bronchogenic cysts are lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with accessory tissues in the cyst wall, smooth muscle, seromucinous glands and cartilage, simulating a bronchus. Complete surgical excision is the base of the treatment." }, { "id": "article-29964_19", "title": "Testicular Teratoma -- Histopathology", "score": 0.009103641456582632, "content": "Microscopy : Any epithelial, mesenchymal, or neural-derived tissue can be seen. Less common are tissues derived from the respiratory, gastrointestinal, or genitourinary tract. Skin-derived structures such as epithelial-derived (epidermoid cyst) or appendages is a quite common finding, especially in prepubertal-type teratomas, while postpubertal-type teratomas tend to appear as multiloculated cysts lined by other tissue types such as glandular epithelium and contain solid areas formed by parenchymal structure or mesenchymal tissues. A certain element of immature tissues can also be encountered, consisting of ectodermal, endodermal, or mesenchymal structures. Neuroectodermal tissue is the most common immature type and often has several differentiation stages of embryonic/fetal nervous system tissue. Historically teratoma has been differentiated into mature and immature, but this distinction is not recommended any more due to the lack of a prognostic significance. Teratoma can occur paired with other histotypes of germ cell neoplasia, such as yolk sac tumor or embryonal carcinoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0724_11860", "title": "A bronchogenic cyst, presenting as a retroperitoneal cystic mass.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Bronchogenic cysts are mostly benign, congenital abnormalities originating from the remnants of the primitive foregut. A retroperitoneal location is rare. Due to the mostly asymptomatic behavior and the historical confusion regarding histology, an exact prevalence is not known. We present here a case report of a retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst. A literature review was performed for cases of retroperitoneal bronchogenic cysts written in English. Anatomopathological criteria for inclusion were pseudo stratified, ciliated, columnar epithelium together with the presence of at least one of the following: cartilage, smooth muscle or seromucous glands. In addition, the embryology, pathogenesis, radiological, clinical and suggested treatment modalities are reviewed. We report the surgical excision of a retroperitoneal bronchogenic cyst that presented as a non-functioning left adrenal mass. Our review of literature revealed only 62 potential cases of retroperitoneal bronchogenic cysts. After applying the strict anatomopathological criteria, only 30 cases of true retroperitoneal bronchogenic cysts could be identified. Retroperitoneal location of a bronchogenic cyst is rare. Despite the rarity of this pathologic entity, bronchogenic cysts should be considered in the differential diagnosis of retroperitoneal cystic lesions. Only histology can confirm definitive diagnosis. Surgery remains the recommended treatment of choice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0628_11241", "title": "[Bronchogenic cyst: a rare cause of a retroperitoneal mass].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Bronchogenic cysts are developmental abnormalities of the primitive foregut which typically occur in the lung. Subdiaphragmatic and, especially, retroperitoneal locations are rare. The histopathological definition consists of the presence of ciliated epithelium together with cartilage or bronchial mucous glands. We report on a 49-year-old patient with the incidental finding of a large cystic mass between the diaphragm and the stomach. Imaging studies suggested an adrenal tumour. Surgical resection and postoperative follow-up were uneventful. Histological examination revealed the surprising diagnosis of a bronchogenic cyst. Bronchogenic cysts must be considered in the differential diagnosis of retroperitoneal cystic lesions. Regardless of being asymptomatic most of the time, surgical resection is recommended to obtain definitive histological diagnosis and avoid future complications." }, { "id": "Pathology_Robbins_4347", "title": "Pathology_Robbins", "score": 0.008959188123129373, "content": "Benign (mature) cystic teratomas are marked by the presence of mature tissues derived from all three germ cell layers: ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. Usually these tumors contain cysts lined by epidermis replete with adnexal appendages—hence the common designation dermoid cysts. Most are discovered in young women as ovarian masses or are found incidentally on abdominal radiographs or scans because they contain foci of calcification produced by toothlike structures contained within the tumor. About 90% are unilateral, with the right side more commonly affected. Rarely do these cystic masses exceed 10 cm in diameter. On cut section, they often are filled with sebaceous secretion and matted hair that, when removed, reveal a hair-bearing epidermal lining ( Fig. 19.18 ). Sometimes there is a nodular projection from which teeth protrude. Occasionally, foci of bone and cartilage, nests of bronchial or gastrointestinal epithelium, or other tissues are present." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 282 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 40 ] ], "text": "Exercise-induced compartment syndrome is an exercise-induced condition of the leg. It is characterized by reversible ischemia of the muscles of a muscle compartment. Diagnosis is made by measuring compartment pressures at rest, during exercise and after exercise (answer 2 correct)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 356, 461 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 49, 66 ] ], "text": "Although MRI is not very useful in establishing the diagnosis, it can help in the differential diagnosis." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Positron emission tomography with 18 FDG.", "2": "Determination of posterior compartment pressure immediately after activity.", "3": "Doppler ultrasound to rule out a circulatory disorder of the lower extremity.", "4": "Magnetic resonance spectroscopy.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0489_6509", "title": "[MR-Imaging of lower leg muscle perfusion].", "score": 0.017677937316658947, "content": "This article describes the potential of dynamic contrast- enhanced magnetic resonance tomography (DCE-MRT) for the visualization and quantification of blood flow of lower leg muscles at rest and after individually adjusted muscular exercise. Five cases were chosen to exemplify the qualitative and semi-quantitative blood flow evaluation in the lower leg muscles. The crural muscle state was determined with an isometric maximal strength measurement from a female patient with peripheral arterial occlusive disease (pAVK), a male patient with coronary heart disease (KHK) without clinical signs of a pAVK, a volunteer with sufficient physical activity in accordance with the Freiburg Questionnaire of Physical Activity and two professional athletes. After calibration of the plantarflexion ergometer MR-PEDALO (Figures 2a and 2b) for the execution of auxotonic muscle work a 1- minute alternating foot extension and flexion exercise on MRPEDALO was performed in the MR machine. Instead of the lower leg splint shown in Figures 2a and 2b the MR coil fits exactly in MR-PEDALO used for DCE-MRT. Mechanical work performed during the 1-minute exercise ranged from 52 watt seconds (Ws) to 244 Ws (0.65 W to 4.07 W), indicating similar interindividual work loads in relation to the individual maximum isometric strength. DCE-MRT was performed at rest and immediately after auxotonic exercise test (T1w 2DFLASH- GE sequence with TR/TE/alpha: 100 ms/6 ms/70 degrees; field of view: 400; matrix: 81 x 256; slice thickness: 10 mm; acquisitions: 73 at 8.3 s each; total examination time: 9.24 min; bolus application of Magnevist, Schering, 0.02 ml/kg kg, 20 ml bolus NaCl, flow 2 ml/s, 22G cannula in a cubital vein). Signal intensity (SI) curves were analyzed with DynaVision (MeVis gGmbH, Bremen, Germany). Measuring peripheral blood flow needs appropriate muscular stress tests. The SI-curves of the region of interest (ROI) representing the peroneus, tibialis anterior and gastrocnemius muscle run almost parallel at rest. Workloads between 52 Ws and 244 Ws (0.65 W and 4.07 W), similar in relation to the individual maximum isometric strength, induce distinctive changes of the upslope, wash-in, peak and washout of SI-curves preferably for the peroneus muscle and less predominant also for the tibialis anterior muscle and gastrocnemius muscle respectively. The first case, a 55-year-old female patient with peripheral arterial occlusive disease (pAVK) stage Fontaine IIb before (Figure 3a) and after (Figure 3b) percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) of a right femoral artery stenosis shows after interventional treatment a rapid post-exercise SI-increase in the peroneus muscle. The steeper SI-curve indicates a better contrast medium inflow due to an improved perfusion. The second case, a 65-year-old man suffering from coronary heart disease without clinical signs of pAVK (Figure 4) exercised with a workload of 92 Ws. After stress test the ROI for the peroneus muscle shows a clear intensity increase. After exercise the SI-curve for the tibialis anterior muscle shows a similar, but less predominant change while the shape of the SI-curve of the gastrocnemius muscle remains mainly identical. A 23-year-old male person with average physical activity (Figure 5) performed DCE-MRT of the left lower leg after stress test with 172 Ws demonstrating a rapid signal increase in the peroneus muscle while the synergistic tibialis anterior muscle and antagonistic gastrocnemius muscle show a comparatively slow contrast-medium wash-in. A 26-year-old male athlete (Figure 6) exercised with 196 Ws showing a rapid contrast medium inflow in the peroneus muscle and initially also in the synergistic tibialis anterior muscle. A contrast-medium wash-out appears in both muscles, while the shape of the gastrocnemius muscle SI-curve remains substantially unchanged. A 26-year-old female athlete (Figure 7) exercised with 244 Ws. Post exercise SI-curves show a distinctive and rapid increase of contrast medium wash-in with a sharp peak particularly in the peroneus muscle and similarly in the tibialis anterior and gastrocnemius muscle. After exercise all SI-curves show a wash-out phase. SI-curves show relative increase in correlation with Time-to-Peak (TTP) decrease and Mean-Intensity to Time Ratio (MITR) increase indicating blood flow reserve mobilization after exercise. Individual muscle state seems to be linked to muscle recruitment and muscle coordination reflected by post-exercise SI-curves. The gastrocnemius muscle shows comparatively low SI-curve changes after muscular load test. Further methodological standardization and optimization of the stress test is mandatory to assure intra- and interindividual comparisons. Due to direct visualization and quantitative evaluation of the peripheral microcirculation DCE-MRT has a diagnostic potential for monitoring therapeutic response in peripheral circulation disorders and sports medicine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0608_10255", "title": "[Athletes with exercise-related pain at the medial side of the lower leg].", "score": 0.016230104023060535, "content": "Two patients were diagnosed with exercise-related pain at the medial side of the lower leg. The first patient, an 18-year-old woman who had expanded her athletic activities extensively, had developed pain at the inner side of the distal third portion of the left lower leg. She showed over-pronation of the ankle during running. A 3-phase bone scintigram revealed diffuse uptake of the tracer covering a large portion of the medial tibia margin. Based on this evidence, a diagnosis of periostalgia was made. She recovered after a period of relative calf massages and used insoles. The second patient was a 28-year-old male endurance runner who developed pain at the medial shin after intensifying his training regimen. The periods without pain during running became increasingly shorter, and the medial side of the lower leg became sore and tense. Intracompartmental pressure measurements indicated exercise-related posterior deep compartment syndrome of the calf. The patient recovered after fasciotomy. In athletes, exercise-related symptoms of the medial side of the lower leg can be usually attributed to the tibial periosteum or tendons of the deep calfmusculature, tibial stress reaction or fracture, or a compartment syndrome of the deep calf. Surgery is indicated for chronic compartment syndrome, but conservative therapy provides favourable outcomes in the other types of disorders. The optimal conservative therapeutic approach is unknown, but it is advisable to temporary reduce symptom-provoking athletic activity and modify any risk factors present. Ankle over-pronation during running is considered a very relevant intrinsic risk factor." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0555_18593", "title": "High-energy phosphate metabolism during calf ergometry in patients with isolated aorto-iliac artery stenoses.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Patients with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) and aorto-iliac atherosclerotic lesions suffer from a broad range of complaints, such as pain at the hip, the thigh, and calf claudication. The purpose of this study was to investigate the high-energy metabolism in the calf muscle of patients with PAD with isolated aorto-iliac stenoses during incremental plantar flexion exercise. Using a 1.5 T whole-body magnetic resonance (MR) scanner, 12 patients with PAD with uni- or bilateral aorto-iliac atherosclerotic lesions and 10 healthy male controls underwent serial phosphor-31 MR spectroscopy during incremental exercise at 2, 3, 4, and 5 W. The phosphocreatine (PCr) time constants were calculated for each increment and recovery using a monoexponential model. In the patient group, the run-off resistance was determined on MR angiograms. In both the patients and the controls, the ankle brachial pressure index was measured. The diseased legs exhibited significantly increased PCr time constants during the second and the third workload increment at 3 and 4 W, but not during the first increment at 2 W and recovery compared with normal controls. Only 3 diseased legs succeeded the last increment at 5 W. We detected significant correlations between the ankle brachial pressure index scores and the PCr time constants when including both the diseased and the control legs. The diseased legs showed a significant correlation with the run-off resistance only during the first increment. Our study shows that the impairment of muscle metabolism, expressed by prolonged PCr time constants, occurs with greater work intensities in patients with aorto-iliac disease compared with patients with multisegmental PAD, as recently published, whereas our patients collective exhibited normal PCr recovery time constants. Our findings may help to understand variability of clinical symptoms in aorto-iliac PAD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1010_3690", "title": "Unilateral Exertional Compartment Syndrome in a Pediatric Competitive Figure Skater.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Chronic exertional compartment syndrome (CECS) occurs when there is an increase in interstitial pressure within a non-compliant fascial compartment during exercise. The hallmark sign of CECS is a consistent onset of symptoms at a specific time, distance or intensity of activity followed by resolution of symptoms when the activity is stopped. Chronic exertional compartment syndrome commonly occurs in the lower legs, is bilateral 85% to 95% of the time and occurs most often in running athletes. The purpose of this case report is to describe the clinical presentation of unilateral chronic exertional compartment syndrome in a pediatric athlete that did not present with the hallmark signs for CECS and additionally participates in a sport where CECS is not common. The subject is a 13 year old female competitive figure skater who presented to physical therapy with right calf pain when figure skating and performing functional tasks. During the initial evaluation the patient had pain at rest as well as with objective testing of the right lower leg. The patient did not progress as expected in physical therapy and therefore the differential diagnosis was re-visited and additional measures were performed. The patient was re-diagnosed with unilateral chronic exertional compartment syndrome. The diagnosis was first clinical and later confirmed by intracompartmental testing. This case report illustrates a patient diagnosed with CECS by intra-compartmental pressure testing that did not present with the standard signs and symptoms; she did not participate in a sport where CECS is typically seen and her symptoms were unilateral. This report represents the importance of consistently including CECS in the differential diagnosis of lower leg pain in athletes regardless of the initial presentation and the sport in which they participate. Additionally, it highlights the importance of a detailed subjective history and the significance of aggravating and alleviating factors in relation to training." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0962_15295", "title": "Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) with Normal Values of Both Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) and C-Reactive Protein (CRP) Concentration at the Time of Diagnosis in a Centenarian Man: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The possibility that polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) can be diagnosed when both ESR and CRP are normal at the time of diagnosis and before therapy with glucocorticoids, has been often discussed in the literature. We present a case report of a 100-year-old Caucasian man referred to our outpatient clinic, complaining of chronic pain in the shoulder and hip girdle associated with normal values of both ESR (21 mm/1st hour) and CRP (4 mg/dL). In the previous four months, several anti-inflammatory drugs and painkillers associated with physiotherapy treatments gave no significant improvement in pain and self-care. After an ultrasound (US) and an 18-fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography associated with total body computed tomography (18-FDG PET/CT) examination, PMR was diagnosed and he started therapy with 17.5 mg prednisone, obtaining a fast improvement in pain and self-care. After 10 months of tapering, he stopped prednisone without relapse. During a 3-year follow-up, no alternative diagnosis was done. When a patient complains of chronic bilateral shoulder and hip girdle pain associated with normal inflammatory indices, it is reasonable to think in the first instance that this person is not suffering from PMR. Moreover, the possibility that PMR may onset in a centenarian person, is exceptional. In our patient, when we piece the puzzle together, the diagnosis of PMR was the most possible one." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0070_12650", "title": "[Value of transcutaneous staged dynamic oximetry of stage II arteritis of the leg].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The clinical and prognostic value of transcutaneous oxygen pressure measurements at rest has been established in Leriche Stage III and IV occlusive peripheral arterial disease but is controversial in Stage II because there is an overlap of transcutaneous pO2 (Tc pO2) values with those of normal subjects. The authors report the results of Tc pO2 measurements during exercise testing in a group of patients with Stage II occlusive arterial disease of the lower limbs. Seventy-eight patients with an average age of 53 years (range 40 to 65 years) whose claudication perimeter and site of pain had been carefully assessed and who had also recently undergone Doppler arterial examination and arteriography and 35 control subjects with an average age of 54 years (range 45 to 70 years) were studied. The Tc pO2 was continuously measured with a multimodular Kontron Supermon at 4 different sites simultaneously: precordium (reference probe), thigh, calf and foot in the dorsal recumbent position after 30 minutes rest, during a standardised exercise stress test at 50 watts and during the recovery phase. The results were expressed as ratio of tissue oxygenation (RTO): thigh, calf or foot Tc pO2/precordial Tc pO2 X 100 in order to take into account the patients cardiorespiratory status and adaptation to exercise. The RTO in normal subjects remained at the upper limits of the resting value throughout exercise and then returned slowly to basal values during the recovery phase.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1076_13149", "title": "Bilateral Exertional Compartment Syndrome With Endoscopic Fasciotomy Surgical Intervention in a High School Athlete.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 17-year-old female presented to the physical therapy clinic with bilateral lower leg pain that worsened with activity. The patient experienced numbness, tingling, and cramping along the lateral and posterior portions of her legs during basketball practice, and her symptoms had gradually worsened over the past eight months. She obtained minimal relief with conservative treatments such as stretching and rest. X-rays and MRI of the lower limbs were obtained six months after symptoms began and were unremarkable. Further evaluation included compartment pressure testing taken before and after exercise. The patient demonstrated diagnostic pressures indicative of compartment syndrome in two compartments bilaterally. The patient was subsequently diagnosed with exertional compartment syndrome. Exertional compartment syndrome is a cause of muscle pain that occurs due to increased tissue pressure within the confinement of the closed fascial space during exercise. Patients are often misdiagnosed or there is a significant delay in the correct diagnosis. The gold standard for diagnosis is measurement of intracompartmental pressures with the Stryker catheter. Clinicians should consider exertional compartment syndrome in active patients who present with generalized muscle pain or sensation deficits that worsen with activity and are relieved with rest. Surgical intervention is a reasonable intervention and the only definitive option for an athlete with chronic exertional compartment syndrome who wants to continue high-level competition. Endoscopic fasciotomies are the new preferred techniques compared to more invasive open surgeries, which require a full incision. Endoscopic fasciotomy has a quicker healing time and has been shown to be as effective at relieving compartment syndrome symptoms as invasive open techniques. After surgical intervention, the patient reported a 90% reduction in symptoms and had returned to full sport participation within two months." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0245_9231", "title": "Exercise hyperemia for the study of peripheral circulation.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Blood flow in the calf was measured during postexercise hyperemia in normal subjects and in PAD patients by means of a foot ergometer that gives direct reading of the work performed. In normals, first and peak flow increased with the rise of work load up to 100 KGM. The duration of hyperemia increased with a work load of 30 to 200 KGM. In PAD patients, first flow did not coincide with peak flow. Peak flow was lower and delayed, and the duration of hyperemia was more prolonged than in normal subjects. In patients with intermittent claudication, first flow, peak flow, and work load were higher than in patients with rest pain or impending gangrene. Exercise hyperemia appears as a useful test for screening normal limbs from those with arterial obstruction. Since in PAD patients exercise is interrupted when muscular pain appears, it is evident that the earlier the arrest of work and the appearance of pain, the greater is the involvement in the arterial tree of the leg. Therefore the exercise hyperemia test can be used also as a means of evaluating the different stages of PAD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0629_2565", "title": "Non-invasive neurosensory testing used to diagnose and confirm successful surgical management of lower extremity deep distal posterior compartment syndrome.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Chronic exertional compartment syndrome (CECS) is characterized by elevated pressures within a closed space of an extremity muscular compartment, causing pain and/or disability by impairing the neuromuscular function of the involved compartment. The diagnosis of CECS is primarily made on careful history and physical exam. The gold standard test to confirm the diagnosis of CECS is invasive intra-compartmental pressure measurements. Sensory nerve function is often diminished during symptomatic periods of CECS. Sensory nerve function can be documented with the use of non-painful, non-invasive neurosensory testing. Non-painful neurosensory testing of the myelinated large sensory nerve fibers of the lower extremity were obtained with the Pressure Specified Sensory Device in a 25 year old male with history and invasive compartment pressures consistent with CECS both before and after running on a tread mill. After the patient's first operation to release the deep distal posterior compartment, the patient failed to improve. Repeat sensory testing revealed continued change in his function with exercise. He was returned to the operating room where a repeat procedure revealed that the deep posterior compartment was not completely released due to an unusual anatomic variant, and therefore complete release was accomplished. The patient's symptoms numbness in the plantar foot and pain in the distal calf improved after this procedure and his repeat sensory testing performed before and after running on the treadmill documented this improvement. This case report illustrates the principal that non-invasive neurosensory testing can detect reversible changes in sensory nerve function after a provocative test and may be a helpful non-invasive technique to managing difficult cases of persistent lower extremity symptoms after failed decompressive fasciotomies for CECS. It can easily be performed before and after exercise and be repeated at multiple intervals without patient dissatisfaction. It is especially helpful when other traditional testing has failed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0542_17919", "title": "High-energy phosphate metabolism during incremental calf exercise in patients with unilaterally symptomatic peripheral arterial disease measured by phosphor 31 magnetic resonance spectroscopy.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The treadmill exercise test is the most important examination of the functional ability of patients with intermittent claudication or leg pain during exercise, but it does not provide any metabolic information in the calf muscle. The purpose of this study was to investigate the high-energy metabolism in the calf muscle during incremental progressive plantar flexion exercise of a selected peripheral arterial disease (PAD) patient group. Using a 1.5-T whole-body magnetic resonance scanner, 17 male patients with PAD who had 1 symptomatic and 1 asymptomatic leg and 9 healthy male controls underwent serial phosphor 31 (31P) magnetic resonance spectroscopy during incremental exercise at 2, 3, 4, and 5 W. Furthermore, magnetic resonance angiography was performed, and the ankle-brachial pressure index was determined in the patient group. The runoff resistance (ROR) was separately assessed in each patient's leg. The symptomatic legs exhibited significantly increased phosphocreatine (PCr) time constants during the first three workload increments (2-4 W) and the recovery phase compared with the asymptomatic legs and the normal controls. Only two symptomatic legs reached the last increment at 5 W. Compared with the normal controls, the asymptomatic legs showed significantly increased PCr time constants only at 5 W. In the patient group, we detected significant correlations between the PCr time constants and the ROR, as well as the ankle-brachial pressure index. Moreover, the symptomatic legs presented significantly lower PCr levels and pH values at the end of exercise compared with the asymptomatic and control legs. Our study shows that muscle function in PAD patients can be objectively quantified with the help of 31P magnetic resonance spectroscopy and correlates significantly with hemodynamic parameters such as ROR and ankle-brachial pressure index. Consequently, 31P magnetic resonance spectroscopy seems to be a useful method to monitor the muscle function of PAD patients for evaluation of established therapies or new therapeutic strategies during research trials." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0511_11216", "title": "Effect of dry needling of gluteal muscles on straight leg raise: a randomised, placebo controlled, double blind trial.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To use a randomised, double blind, placebo controlled trial to establish the effect on straight leg raise, hip internal rotation, and muscle pain of dry needling treatment to the gluteal muscles in athletes with posterior thigh pain referred from gluteal trigger points. A randomised, double blind, placebo controlled trial of 59 male runners was performed during the 2002 Australian Rules football season. Subjects were thoroughly screened and had magnetic resonance imaging of their hamstring muscles to exclude local pathology. The inclusion criterion was reproduction of recognisable posterior thigh pain with the application of digital pressure to the gluteal trigger points. Subjects randomly received either therapeutic or placebo needle treatment on one occasion at their gluteal trigger points. Range of motion and visual analogue scale data were collected immediately before, immediately after, 24 hours after, and 72 hours after the intervention. Range of motion was measured with passive straight leg raise and hip internal rotation. Visual analogue scales were completed for hamstring and gluteal pain and tightness at rest and during a running task. Magnetic resonance imaging scans revealed normal hamstring musculature in most subjects. Straight leg raise and hip internal rotation remained unchanged in both groups at all times. Visual analogue scale assessment of hamstring pain and tightness and gluteal tightness after running showed improvements immediately after the intervention in both groups (p = 0.001), which were maintained at 24 and 72 hours. The magnitude of this improvement was the same for therapeutic and placebo interventions. Resting muscle pain and tightness were unaffected. Neither dry needling nor placebo needling of the gluteal muscles resulted in any change in straight leg raise or hip internal rotation. Both interventions resulted in subjective improvement in activity related muscle pain and tightness. Despite being commonly used clinical tests in this situation, straight leg raise and hip internal rotation are not likely to help the therapist assess response to treatment. Patient reports of response to such treatment are better indicators of its success. The mechanisms by which these responses occur and the reasons for the success of the placebo needling treatment are areas for further investigation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0108_12287", "title": "[Regional blood flow and oxygen consumption in the leg muscles of normal subjects and in those with arterial insufficiency. Study of the distribution of C15O2 and of 15O2 using positron emission tomography].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "We first studied the distribution of radioactivity during continuous inhalation of C15O2 and 15O2 in traverse tomograms of the greatest diameter of legs, at rest and immediately after exercise (ankle flexions). C15O2 and 15O2 were distributed homogeneously and symmetrically in both legs of normal subjects at rest. The activity accumulated in the anterolateral region after exercise. In patients, this pattern of distribution was similar but asymmetrical, depending on the arterial pathology. No systematic distribution of either C15O2 or 15O2 was observed. In a second step, we studied quantitatively blood flow (F), oxygen uptake (R) and oxygen extraction (E) in 11 subjects: 5 normals (23 +/- 1 years) and 6 patients (60 +/- 11 years) suffering from unilateral intermittent claudication. We used the bolus inhalation technique of C15O2 and 15O2. In the normal leg at rest, ranges were 2.5 to 8.0 ml/min.hg for F, 0.9 to 21.3 mumol/min.hg for R and 3.6 to 33.4% for E. In the pathological leg at rest, ranges were 3.7 to 11.3 ml/min.hg for F, 3.8 to 10.6 mumol/min.hg for R and 7.1 to 24.5% for E. After exercise, ranges were 6.4 to 62.8 ml/min.hg for F, 66.0 to 386.3 mumol/min.hg for R and 29.2 to 89.5% for E in both legs. There was no straight difference between normal and pathological legs soon after exercise. This study allows us to expect that the demonstration of such a difference implies a longer delay of data acquisition following the slow post-ischemia recovery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0710_15889", "title": "Can pain influence the severity of findings of an (18)F-FDG PET/CT scan in loosening hip arthroplasty?", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Pain is a common symptom after loosening and/or after infection of arthroplasty. The aim of the present case report is to indicate that fluorine-18-fluorodeoxy-glucose positron emission tomography/computerized tomography((18)F-FDG PET/CT) scan can be used for the evaluation of pain at the site of arthroplasty with a semi quantitative measurement. An 84 years old male patient, with a history of papillary thyroid cancer was referred to our Nuclear Medicine Department for an (18)F-FDG PET/CT scan for evaluation of his metastatic disease. He reported right hip prosthesis thirty years ago and now suffered from significant pain in the right hip joint which on a scale from 1 to 10 could be rated as grade 8. White blood cell count, sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein were within normal limits. Four years ago he also had severe pain on the right leg that could be rated as grade 8, and underwent an (18)F-FDG PET/CT scan that showed a maximum standardized uptake value (SUV(max)) of 9.8. A year later, at a follow up (18)F-FDG PET/CT scan and under a similar severe pain, SUV(max) was 10. The patient had a hip prosthesis in the left leg 3 years ago, for which he reported pain that could be rated as grade 3 and the SUV(max) was then 3.7. The degree of (18)F-FDG uptake is related to cellular metabolic rate and to the number of glucose transporters. In inflammation, the activated inflammatory cells demonstrate increased expression of glucose transporters and the affinity of glucose transporters for deoxyglucose is increased by various cytokines and growth factors. Furthermore, when the mononuclear cells and the granulocytes are activated by certain infectious humoral stimuli, they use large amounts of glucose by the hexose monophosphate shunt and the rate of oxygen uptake is intensely increased, during the so called \"respiratory burst\". In the present case, it was interesting to note that the degree of (18)F-FDG uptake at the sites of loosening hip arthroplasty was related to the severity of pain. Signs of infection or inflammation although not obvious in our case, could not be excluded because sensitivity, specificity and accuracy of PET for detecting infection associated with hip prostheses has been reported to be, 90%, 89.3% and 89.5%, respectively and sensitivity and specificity for detecting periprosthetic inflammation 100% and 45.5%,respectively. In another study using as a criterion for periprosthetic infection the increased (18)F-FDG activity at the bone-prosthesis interface of the femoral component, sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values for the (18)F-FDG PET study where 85%, 93%, 80% and 95%, respectively. Inflammation, often intense, may be present in aseptic loosening and characterized by increased periprosthetic (18)F-FDG uptake. In conclusion, in our case the degree of (18)F-FDG uptake in a loosening hip arthroplasty was related to the severity of pain although inflammation or infection could also play some role. Further studies are required to prove this suggestion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0971_19514", "title": "[Contribution of the maximal exercise test to diagnosis the vascular origin of leg pain in athletes].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Leg pain is a common debilitating symptom in athletes. Vascular disease is not often proposed as a possible cause. Maximal exercise with measure of the ankle-brachial index after exercise can be an interesting diagnostic test. We report an illustrative case where an athlete presented leg pain revealing arterial disease disclosed by exercise. Interestingly, sub-maximal exercise did not cause pain, causing a delay in diagnosis. The vascular origin of leg pain can be detected with a maximal exercise test that induces the symptomatic pain or at least clinical discomfort." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0513_6232", "title": "The diagnostic value of intracompartmental pressure measurement, magnetic resonance imaging, and near-infrared spectroscopy in chronic exertional compartment syndrome: a prospective study in 50 patients.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Patients with chronic exertional compartment syndrome have pain during exercise that usually subsides at rest. History and physical examination may raise suspicion of the syndrome; diagnosis is usually confirmed with intracompartmental pressure measurement after exercise. Studies have shown that magnetic resonance imaging and near-infrared spectroscopy have diagnostic ability in this syndrome. Magnetic resonance imaging and near-infrared spectroscopy can be used to diagnose chronic exertional compartment syndrome. Cohort study (diagnosis); Level of evidence, 2. Patients were enrolled if there was clinical suspicion of chronic exertional compartment syndrome, and a fasciotomy was performed based on this suspicion. Before fasciotomy, intracompartmental pressure, near-infrared spectroscopy, and magnetic resonance imaging data were collected during and after exercise on a treadmill. Near-infrared spectroscopy and intracompartmental pressure values were recorded in the same manner after fasciotomy. Retrospective proof that diagnosis of the syndrome had been correct was the absence of exertional complaints from the preoperative examination during exercise at postfasciotomy visit. Fifty patients (100 legs) participated in the prefasciotomy visit; 3 refused fasciotomy; 2 were lost to follow-up. Of 45 patients who completed the postfasciotomy visit, the diagnosis of chronic exertional compartment syndrome was retrospectively confirmed in 42 patients and discarded in 3 patients. The sensitivity for intracompartmental pressure (cutoff point, 35 mmHg) found in this study was 77% (67%-86%, exact 95% confidence interval), lower than estimates from the literature (93%). The sensitivity (previously defined cutoff) for near-infrared spectroscopy was 85% (76%-92%, exact 95% confidence interval), validating the estimate found in the literature (85%). Sensitivity of magnetic resonance imaging was comparable to that of intracompartmental pressure and near-infrared spectroscopy; associated specificity at a given sensitivity appeared to be lower with magnetic resonance imaging. This study validates the sensitivity of near-infrared spectroscopy and provides estimates for the sensitivity and specificity of magnetic resonance imaging in chronic exertional compartment syndrome in a large group of patients. The sensitivity of noninvasive near-infrared spectroscopy is clinically equivalent to that of invasive intracompartmental pressure measurements." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0282_2845", "title": "[Quantitative 201Tl-scintigraphy of the lower limb in arterial occlusive disease].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "201Tl scintigraphy is useful in evaluating the hemodynamic consequences of arterial stenoses in arterial occlusive disease. The aim of the present study was to determine normal values for absolute Tl uptake in the lower leg, for the quotient between left and right lower leg uptake as well as for the redistribution pattern after bicycle exercise. We examined as reference 49 patients without clinical evidence of peripheral or coronary artery disease: absolute Tl uptake in the lower leg in anterior scintigraphy (acquisition time: 120 sec) was 5.02 +/- 1.70 counts/pixel (left) and 5.21 +/- 1.53 counts/pixel (right), the quotient between right and left lower leg was 0.85 +/- 0.09 and the redistribution pattern (quotient of the mean activity exercise/rest) 0.82 +/- 0.17 (left) and 0.83 +/- 0.15 (right). The arithmetic mean minus 2 standard deviations was regarded as the lower limit of normal. In 8 patients with mechanical compression of the left femoral artery before injection at least two scintigraphic parameters were abnormal, in 7 patients with angiographically proven peripheral artery disease at least one scintigraphic parameter was below normal. Quantification of Tl redistribution offers diagnostic advantages in bilateral peripheral artery disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0875_23782", "title": "Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Caused by Lumbar Herniated Intervertebral Disc Disease.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Most cases of complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) occur after some inciting injury. There are a few cases of CRPS after an operation for disc disease. CRPS from a mild herniated intervertebral disc (HIVD) without surgical intervention is even rarer than CRPS after an operation for disc disease.A 22-year-old man was transferred to a pain clinic. He had continuously complained about back and right leg pain. He presented with a skin color change in the right lower leg, intermittent resting tremor, stiffness, and swelling in the right leg. He complained of a pulling sensation and numbness in his right buttock, posterior thigh, lateral calf, and ankle. This symptom was in accordance with L4/5 radiculopathy. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) also showed L4/5 HIVD that was central to the bilateral subarticular protrusion.He was diagnosed as having CRPS, which fits the revised International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) criteria. He fulfilled 4 symptom categories (allodynia, temperature asymmetry and skin color change, sweating changes, decreased range of motion and motor dysfunction) and 3 of 4 sign categories (allodynia, temperature asymmetry and skin color changes, decreased range of motion and motor dysfunction). The bone scan and thermography also revealed CRPS.For the past 2 months, we have performed intensive treatments. But, he never became pain-free and walking for 5 minutes led to persistent leg pain. We decided to perform percutaneous nucleoplasty, which can directly decompress a HIVD. On the next day, he achieved dramatic symptom relief. The visual analog scale (VAS) score improved to 3, compared to the VAS score of 9 at the first visit. The skin color change, allodynia, and tremor in the right leg disappeared, and the temperature asymmetry normalized. Motor weakness of the right leg also recovered.We report an unusual case of CRPS that was caused by L4/5 HIVD without a history of trauma or surgery. It has a clear causal relationship between HIVD and CRPS and definitively fits in the newly revised IASP criteria. In conclusion, mild HIVD can cause CRPS without any trauma. And percutaneous nucleoplasty can be considered as a treatment option." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0518_11229", "title": "Effects of prior heavy-intensity exercise during single-leg knee extension on VO2 kinetics and limb blood flow.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The effects of prior heavy-intensity exercise on O(2) uptake (Vo(2)) kinetics of a second heavy exercise may be due to vasodilation (associated with metabolic acidosis) and improved muscle blood flow. This study examined the effect of prior heavy-intensity exercise on femoral artery blood flow (Qleg) and its relationship with Vo(2) kinetics. Five young subjects completed five to eight repeats of two 6-min bouts of heavy-intensity one-legged, knee-extension exercise separated by 6 min of loadless exercise. Vo(2) was measured breath by breath. Pulsed-wave Doppler ultrasound was used to measure Qleg. Vo(2) and blood flow velocity data were fit using a monoexponential model to identify phase II and phase III time periods and estimate the response amplitudes and time constants (tau). Phase II Vo(2) kinetics was speeded on the second heavy-intensity exercise [mean tau (SD), 29 (10) s to 24 (10) s, P &lt; 0.05] with no change in the phase II (or phase III) amplitude. Qleg was elevated before the second exercise [1.55 (0.34) l/min to 1.90 (0.25) l/min, P &lt; 0.05], but the amplitude and time course [tau, 25 (13) s to 35 (13) s] were not changed, such that throughout the transient the Qleg (and DeltaQleg/DeltaVo(2)) did not differ from the prior heavy exercise. Thus Vo(2) kinetics were accelerated on the second exercise, but the faster kinetics were not associated with changes in Qleg. Thus limb blood flow appears not to limit Vo(2) kinetics during single-leg heavy-intensity exercise nor to be the mechanism of the altered Vo(2) response after heavy-intensity prior exercise." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en098_6018", "title": "Utilization behavior", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Diagnosis Quantitative methods of assessing utilization behavior are not available for use and because of this those who notice changes in behavior similar to that of the signs of UB should see a doctor. Many functional disorders can be mistaken for frontal dysfunction as several neurological causes can be attributed to frontal dysfunction. Proper criteria need to be in place for determining UB but because this disorder is in the elementary stage, researchers have not arrived at a full understanding of the disorder. Doctors can test the patient's response, communication and motor skills but the only way to fully diagnose this disorder is to do a scan of the brain to see if the frontal lobe has been damaged. This can be done with the following scan types: CT Scan (X-ray computed tomography) MRI (Magnetic resonance imaging) PET (Positron emission tomography) SPECT (Single-photon emission computed tomography)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0995_9179", "title": "Exercise testing criteria to diagnose lower extremity peripheral artery disease assessed by computed-tomography angiography.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The sensitivity and specificity of exercise testing have never been studied simultaneously against an objective quantification of arterial stenosis. Aims were to define the sensitivity and specificity of several exercise tests to detect peripheral artery disease (PAD), and to assess whether or not defined criteria defined in patients suspected of having a PAD show a difference dependent on the resting ABI. In this prospective study, consecutive patients with exertional limb pain referred to our vascular center were included. All patients had an ABI, a treadmill exercise-oximetry test, a second treadmill test (both 10% slope; 3.2km/h speed) with post-exercise pressures, and a computed-tomography-angiography (CTA). The receiver-operating-characteristic curve was used to define a cut-off point corresponding to the best area under the curve (AUC; [CI95%]) to detect arterial stenosis ≥50% as determined by the CTA. Sixty-three patients (61+/-11 years-old) were included. Similar AUCs from 0.72[0.63-0.79] to 0.83[0.75-0.89] were found for the different tests in the overall population. To detect arterial stenosis ≥50%, cut-off values of ABI, post-exercise ABI, post-exercise ABI decrease, post-exercise ankle pressure decrease, and distal delta from rest oxygen pressure (DROP) index were ≤0.91, ≤0.52, ≥43%, ≥20mmHg and ≤-15mmHg, respectively (p&lt;0.01). In the subset of patients with an ABI &gt;0.91, cut-off values of post-exercise ABI decrease (AUC = 0.67[0.53-0.78]), and DROP (AUC = 0.67[0.53-0.78]) were ≥18.5%, and ≤-15mmHg respectively (p&lt;0.05). Resting ABI is as accurate as exercise testing in patients with exertional limb pain. Specific exercise testing cut-off values should be used in patients with normal ABI to diagnose PAD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0874_12450", "title": "Accuracy of Palpation-Guided Catheter Placement for Muscle Pressure Measurements in Suspected Deep Posterior Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome of the Lower Leg: A Magnetic Resonance Imaging Study.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A diagnosis of lower leg deep posterior chronic exertional compartment syndrome (dp-CECS) is made by a dynamic pressure measurement. The insertion of a pressure catheter is guided by anatomic landmarks (freehand) or by ultrasound. The catheter tip is ideally positioned in the tibialis posterior muscle (TP). The accuracy of in vivo catheter placement using lower leg magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in healthy patients suspected of having dp-CECS has never been studied. To analyze whether a freehand catheter insertion results in accurate positioning in the TP as confirmed by MRI in patients with suspected dp-CECS. Case series; Level of evidence, 4. Catheters were inserted into central portions of the TP using a standard puncturing technique guided by lower leg anatomic landmarks. After timed muscle pressure measurements during a standard provocative treadmill running test, lower leg MRI scans were obtained and evaluated by 2 skilled radiologists. Catheter tip placement was termed accurate (in the TP), suboptimal (in the deep posterior compartment but outside the TP), or inaccurate (outside the deep posterior compartment). Between March 2013 and September 2014, a total of 24 patients (8 male, 16 female; mean age, 30 years [range, 18-54 years]) underwent an intracompartmental pressure (ICP) measurement, followed by MRI. Cardinal symptoms were pain during exertion (20% very severe, 53% severe, and 20% moderate) and tightness (29% very severe, 43% severe). Symptoms were bilateral in 74% of patients. Nine of the 24 patients were diagnosed with dp-CECS based on elevated ICPs. Of the 24 patients, catheter tip placement was accurate in 10 (42%), whereas suboptimal placement was achieved in 9 (38%). Five procedures were inaccurate (transition zone between the deep and superficial compartments, n = 3; in the superficial lower leg compartment, n = 2). Signs of a hematoma were found in 38% of the patients, although there were no associated clinical symptoms. Palpation-guided placement of catheters for TP pressure measurements is suboptimal in more than half of the patients with suspected lower leg dp-CECS. Optimizing the pressure catheter tip positioning technique may improve diagnostic accuracy in dp-CECS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0295_13206", "title": "The quantitation of blood flow/metabolism coupling at rest and after exercise in peripheral arterial insufficiency, using PET and 15-0 labeled tracers.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Regional blood flow and oxygen uptake of the lower limbs were studied in 11 patients with arterial insufficiency (10 with severe unilateral, 1 with bilateral intermittent claudication). Regional muscle blood flow (F), oxygen consumption rate (R), and oxygen extraction fraction (E) were evaluated by positron emission tomography (PET) and bolus inhalation of C15O2 and 15O2 by the patient. Tomograms were recorded at the greatest diameter of legs, at rest and ten minutes after a treadmill walk test leading to the development of ischemic pain in the affected leg. In 5 patients, F and E were correlated with the results of occlusive venous strain gauge plethysmography and with the measurements of blood gases in one brachial artery and in the femoral vein of the affected limb. Blood flow values measured at rest and after exercise by PET were poorly correlated with the plethysmographic findings. This may be because PET does not interfere with flow as venous occlusion plethysmography does in low peripheral pressure conditions. The results show that F, R, and E were not significantly different in normal and pathologic legs at rest. The values of F and R were significantly higher in pathologic than in normal lower limbs, ten minutes after exercise, whereas E was not significantly altered by exercise at any side. This suggests that, during the recovery from a walk test, the delayed increase in oxygen uptake is proportional to the delayed hyperemia in the ischemic muscles (\"oxygen debt\") and probably not linked to a luxury perfusion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0520_3702", "title": "Medial collateral ligament bursitis in a 12-year-old girl.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A 12-year-old female athlete, training for an international career in pentathlon, was referred to our clinic because of 2 years of recurrent localized swelling and activity-related pain in the medial aspect of her right knee, since falling from a horse and hitting her knees on the ground. She had been examined by a number of doctors over this period and treated with physiotherapy without a proper diagnosis and with no improvement. She could run only very limited distances before excruciating pain and swelling, and she had to abandon participation in competitions. During rest, the swelling decreased but never disappeared entirely. Clinical examination revealed minor effusion and localized tenderness on palpation around the medial joint line. Magnetic resonance imaging showed fluid between the medial capsule and medial collateral ligament, but could not identify any connection to the joint. Arthroscopy revealed a cleavage in the posterior medial joint capsule, superior and close to the medial meniscus, that was connected to the medial collateral ligament bursa. The cleavage was simply expanded, which emptied the bursa, followed by compression bandage and ice for 2 weeks. An immediate positive effect was observed and she could run pain free without swelling within 3 weeks of surgery. Six months after surgery, there has been no recurrence. To our knowledge, this is the first time this injury has been described in a child." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0276_3583", "title": "99Tcm-sestamibi uptake in the leg muscles and in the myocardium in patients with intermittent claudication.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "99Tcm-Sestamibi has now replaced 201Tl as a cardiac imaging agent. In addition to the myocardial uptake there is also a considerable uptake in the striated muscle, which may be used for analyzing the muscular perfusion. Sixteen patients with intermittent claudication were investigated with 99Tcm-Sestamibi-SPECT (single photon emission computerized tomography) in order to visualize coronary ischemic disease. After the registration of the myocardial perfusion they were also studied regarding their leg muscle perfusion. This was done at rest and during standardized stress test using a bicycle ergometer. In 10 of the patients there was an increase in the isotope uptake in the myocardium from work to rest &gt; 10% reflecting pronounced myocardial ischemia, which, however, was symptomatic in only 4 of the patients. The muscular uptake in the myocardium of 99Tcm-Sestamibi in the thigh increased significantly from rest to exercise (P &lt; 0.01), while it remained unchanged in the calf muscle. There were no significant correlations at rest between the ratio of the right and left systolic blood pressure in the ankles and the ratio between the right and left isotope uptake in the calves, but the increase in the isotope uptake from rest to work correlated with the blood pressure ratio at r = 0.79, P &lt; 0.01 (anterior projection) and r = 0.71, P &lt; 0.01 (posterior projection)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1058_5933", "title": "Sacral fatigue fracture in a young girl with no history of trauma or reported athletic activity: a case report.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Sacral fatigue fractures in the young population usually occur due to repetitious physical strain from vigorous athletic activity; they are extremely rare in those younger than 13 years without intense physical activity. We report a case of sacral fatigue fracture in a healthy elementary school girl without any history of trauma or excessive athletic activity. A healthy 11-year-old girl experienced sudden low back pain upon standing after a short break in a normal running exercise for physical education at school. At her first orthopaedic visit, she was unable to walk independently and was limping on her left leg. Neurological examination revealed that the left straight leg raising test was positive at 80 degrees with associated left buttock pain but without motor and sensory deterioration. Radiological examination showed no obvious fractures in the lumbar vertebrae or pelvis. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated high intensity signal changes on the short tau inversion recovery image of the left ala, and sacral fatigue fracture in the left ala was diagnosed. She was instructed to rest at home and allowed minimal walking with a crutch under endurable pain for 4 weeks. Within 3 weeks, her low back pain gradually reduced, and after 4 weeks, she could walk independently without gait pain. Sacral fatigue fractures should be considered in the diagnosis of young patients who present with unexplained low back pain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0245_6591", "title": "Simultaneous isotope clearance from the muscles of the calf and thigh.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "There has been no end to the attempts made to determine the site and severity of arterial lesions in claudicants by the use of non-invasive methods but, so far, their diagnostic value has been limited. A method whose diagnostic accuracy in determining the site and functional severity of the lesions approaches that of arteriography is discussed. The hyperaemic index, which is the ratio of the total excess of blood supply during post-exercise hyperaemia over the maximum hyperaemic flow, has been determined in the thigh and calf simultaneously, by measuring the 99Tcm muscle clearance in 30 limbs of 20 healthy volunteers and 139 limbs of 145 patients with claudication. Lumbar arteriography classified the lesions in all patients as 0-10 per cent, 10-40 per cent, 40-70 per cent and more than 70 per cent stenosis. A bivariate analysis of the hyperamic indices of the thigh and calf determined the site and whether single lesions consisted of a stenosis greater or less than 70 per cent. In limbs with combined aorto-iliac and superficial femoral lesions the values of the hyperaemic indices could determine which of the two lesions was the more severe in addition to whether lesions consisted of a stenosis greater or less than 70 per cent. These findings have been confirmed in a further blind prospective study of 47 limbs in which determination of the site and severity of lesions preceded aortography." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1152_1959", "title": "Case report: the role of multimodal imaging to optimize the timing of return to sports in an elite athlete with persistent COVID-19 myocardial inflammation.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "COVID-19 has been associated with myocardial abnormalities on cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (CMR). We report a case of COVID-19 myocarditis in an elite athlete. A male, 21-year-old elite football player had tested positive for SARS-CoV-2 on a polymerase-chain-reaction test and was referred for cardiac evaluation after experiencing palpitations after returning to sports (RTS). Biochemical evaluation demonstrated elevated N-terminal pro b-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) and high-sensitive Troponin T. Echocardiography demonstrated left ventricular function within normal ranges for athletes but with diminished basal, posterolateral, and septal strain. Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (CMR) showed increased T1 values and late gadolinium enhancement (LGE) in the basolateral and mid-ventricular posterior segments. Focal COVID-19 myocarditis was diagnosed and the patient remained restricted from sports, in line with the 2020 ESC sports cardiology guidelines. Two months later, his electrocardiogram (ECG) showed inferoposterolateral T-wave inversion (TWI). Serial imaging studies were performed to optimize RTS timing. Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging showed persistently increased T1/T2 values and persistent LGE at 5 and 7 months. At 9 months, 18 F-fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG)-positron emission tomography (PET)-computerized tomography (CT) demonstrated no pathologically increased cardiac FDG-uptake. Subsequent exercise ECG and Holters demonstrated no complex ventricular arrhythmias. The patient made a complete return to elite competitive sports, without any adverse events at 15 months of follow-up. Cardiac symptoms in athletes post-COVID-19 should prompt cardiac evaluation. As COVID-19 myocarditis inflammation can persist beyond the 3-6 months of recommended sports restriction, a more personalized approach to RTS timing can be warranted. In cases with myocardial oedema without other signs of inflammation, FDG-PET-CT can be of added value to assess active myocardial inflammation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0747_5132", "title": "Calf muscle stimulation with the Veinoplus device results in a significant increase in lower limb inflow without generating limb ischemia or pain in patients with peripheral artery disease.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Increase in arterial inflow to the lower limbs is important to obtain functional improvement in peripheral artery disease (PAD) patients with claudication. The aim of this study was to assess the effect of electrical stimulation of calf muscles on arterial inflow and tissue oxygen content in PAD in the area of stimulation. Fifteen adult patients [mean (standard deviation) age, 62 (12 ) years; height, 165 (8)cm; weight, 76 (13) kg; lowest ankle-brachial index 0.66 (0.19)] with stable arterial claudication were recruited. All patients performed a treadmill test (3.2 km/h, 10% slope) associated with a transcutaneous oximetry test expressed as decrease from rest of oxygen pressure (DROP) index values (calf changes minus chest changes from rest) with a maximum walking distance (median [25th/75th percentiles]) of 295 [133-881] m. The DROP index on the symptomatic side was -25 [-18/-34] mm Hg. On another day the patients underwent electrical stimulation in the seated position on the leg that was the most symptomatic on the treadmill. After resting values were recorded, the gastrocnemius was stimulated for 20minutes at increasing contraction rates at 5-minute steps of 60, 75, 86, and 100bpm on the most symptomatic side. Arterial blood inflow with duplex Doppler ultrasound scanning of the femoral artery, DROP transcutaneous oxygen pressure value, and oxygen concentration (O2Hb) from the near-infrared spectroscopic signal of the calf were recorded on both sides. Patients were instructed to report eventual contraction-induced pain in the stimulated calf. Results are given as mean (standard deviation) or median [25th/75th percentiles] according to distribution, and the level of statistical significance was set at P &lt; .05 on two-tailed tests. Lower limb inflow (mL/min) was 64 [48/86] vs 63 [57/81] (P&gt; .05) before stimulation, 123 [75/156] vs 57 [44/92] (P &lt; .01) at 60bpm, 127 [91/207] vs 49 [43/68] (P &lt; .01) at 75bpm, 140 [84/200] vs 57 [45/71] (P &lt; .01) at 86bpm, and 154 [86/185] vs 55 [46/94] (P &lt; .01) at 100bpm on the stimulated vs nonstimulated limb, respectively. No apparent decrease or significant leg difference was observed in DROP index or O2Hb values. None of the patients reported contraction-induced pain in the leg. Electrical stimulation of calf muscle with the Veinoplus device results in a significant increase of arterial inflow without measurable muscle ischemia or pain. Potential use of this device as an adjuvant treatment to improve walking capacity in PAD patients remains to be evaluated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0712_11198", "title": "Deep vein thrombosis in a young marathon athlete.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Resident's case problem. A 21-year-old athletic male college student presented to a direct-access physical therapy clinic with complaints of left calf pain 4 days in duration. After initial examination, a working diagnosis of calf strain was formulated. Three days following initial examination, the patient reported 80% improvement in symptoms and was performing activities of daily living pain free. Four weeks later, the patient returned with complaints of reoccurring calf pain. The patient's signs, symptoms, and history at subsequent follow-up no longer presented a consistent clinical picture of calf strain; therefore, a D-dimer assay was ordered to rule out a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The D-dimer was elevated so the patient was admitted to the hospital and started on low-molecular-weight heparin. A compression ultrasound revealed an extensive left superficial femoral and popliteal DVT in this otherwise healthy athlete. Lower extremity DVT is a serious and potentially fatal disorder. Physical therapists need to be diagnostically vigilant for vascular pathology in all patients with extremity pain and swelling. Employing the best current evidenced-based screening tools to rule out vascular pathology, such as deep and superficial vein pathology, should be the goal of every clinician. The Wells score is one such screening tool that has proven to be beneficial in this area. This case report presents a dilemma in diagnosis and illustrates the importance of revisiting differential diagnoses with each patient encounter. Clinicians must consider the possibility of a DVT with every patient seen with posterior leg pain. Diagnosis, level 4. doi:10.2519/jospt.2011.3823." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0309_22434", "title": "Blood flow measurements in lower limb arteries using duplex ultrasound.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "The increase in blood flow in exercise is to provide more oxygen to tissues. The kinetics of flow at the common femoral artery bifurcation were established in normal subjects together with its relationship with oxygen uptake. Furthermore, the changes in flow were evaluated in patients undergoing superficial femoral artery angioplasty. After a known anaerobic test (Wingate test), normal subjects underwent a preferential increase in profunda femoris artery flow (ninefold increase), compared with superficial femoral artery flow (fourfold increase), indicating predominantly thigh exercise. The relationship between oxygen uptake and lower limb blood flow was studied before, during and after moderate intensity exercise. Oxygen uptake was measured by mass spectrometry and assessed by breath-by-breath analysis. The rate of increase for limb blood flow, as indicated by the time constant, was faster (28.8 +/- 4.4 s; mean +/- sem) than oxygen uptake (41.5 +/- 7.2 s) at the onset of exercise. This implies that limb blood flow is in excess of the oxygen requirements of muscle and therefore not the critical determinant for oxygen uptake by muscle. Flow in the lower limb arteries was measured before and after superficial femoral artery angioplasty in 22 patients. In addition, collateral blood flow was estimated using a mathematical model. Follow-up was carried out to 1 year. At 1 month, a significant decrease in profunda femoris artery flow (from 224 +/- 84 to 98 +/- 43 ml min-1, P &lt; 0.05, paired t test) and a marked diminution in collateral flow (from 186 +/- 34 to 18 +/- 8 ml min-1, P &lt; 0.05) was noted with no change in total limb blood flow. As expected, a significant increase in superficial femoral artery blood flow was seen (148 +/- 79 to 312 +/- 94 ml min-1, P &lt; 0.05). From the studies, it can be seen that non-invasive duplex ultrasound flow measurements can reliably be obtained in the lower limb, allowing the kinetics of flow after exercise and the changes in flow after surgical intervention to be evaluated. This work provides a foundation for the study of oxygen kinetics and limb blood flow in athletes, the elderly and patients with peripheral vascular disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0665_13024", "title": "Intractable sciatica due to intraneural nodular fasciitis detected by positron emission tomography.", "score": 0.008620689655172414, "content": "Case report. To describe a patient with nodular fasciitis in the sciatic nerve, detected by positron emission tomography (PET). Severe sciatic pain is commonly caused by lumbar disc herniation, lumbar spinal stenosis, or neoplastic lesion. These lesions are usually diagnosed by plain radiograph, myelography, computed tomography, and magnetic resonance imaging.Nodular fasciitis is a benign connective tissue tumor usually presenting as a firm, rapidly-growing lesion, occasionally arising in the forearm. Only 5 cases of intraneural nodular fasciitis have been reported in the published data, and although some have demonstrated mild neuropathy, none have shown nodular fasciitis with intractable sciatica. A 37-year old woman experienced severe sciatica after hitting her left buttock hard on the edge of a bathtub. Physical examination demonstrated intense radiating pain from the left buttock to the lateral calf. There was weakness in the sciatic nerve innervated musculature. She was diagnosed with piriformis syndrome in a local hospital. However, the symptoms remained unchanged after surgery, releasing the piriformis. Conventional imaging of the sciatica including plain radiograph, computed tomography, and magnetic resonance imaging of the spine showed a return of abnormal findings. PET detected an abnormal lesion in the sciatic nerve in the posterior compartment of the patient's left thigh, indicating an intraneural tumor in the sciatic nerve. Subtotal resection was achieved and histologic evaluation of the specimen showed the typical features of nodular fasciitis. After surgery, the patient was relieved of all symptoms, with no evidence of recurrence at the recent 2-year follow-up. This is the first reported case of intraneural nodular fasciitis presenting with severe radiculopathy. Nodular fasciitis should be considered in the differential diagnosis of severe sciatica. PET may be a useful tool for diagnosing sciatica of unknown origin that cannot be identified using conventional imaging tools." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0524_16939", "title": "High-energy phosphate metabolism in the calf muscle during moderate isotonic exercise under different degrees of cuff compression: a phosphorus 31 magnetic resonance spectroscopy study.", "score": 0.008620689655172414, "content": "The purpose of this study was to investigate phosphocreatine (PCr) and inorganic phosphate levels as well as pH changes in exercising muscle at a workload of 4.5 W under progressive cuff stenoses, whereby the flow reduction due to cuff compression was quantified by flow-sensitive magnetic resonance imaging. By using a whole-body 1.5-T magnetic resonance scanner and an exercise bench, serial phosphorus 31 (31P) magnetic resonance spectroscopy with a time resolution of 30 seconds was performed in 10 healthy men. Percentage changes in PCr, inorganic phosphate (Pi), and pH were statistically evaluated in comparison with baseline. The exercise protocol was characterized by a constant workload level of 4.5 W. Ischemic conditions were achieved by a cuff that was placed at the upper leg. Consecutively, increments of 0, 60, 90, 120, and 150 mm Hg were applied. Each increment lasted for 3 minutes. The following rest period was 10 minutes. Blood flow increased significantly immediately after the onset of muscle exercise. No significant changes in blood flow were detected as long as the air pressure of the pneumatic cuff was 60 to 90 mm Hg. Significant reductions in blood flow were observed immediately after inflation of the cuff to 120 and 150 mm Hg. PCr passed into a steady state during the first increment with 0 mm Hg and showed no substantial changes during the increment with 60, 90, and 120 mm Hg. PCr hydrolysis seemed progressive during the 150-mm Hg increment. Pi passed into a plateau level at the onset of exercise and increased significantly at the increment of 150 mm Hg. The pH turned into a steady state with no significant changes during the increments up to 120 mm Hg. At 150 mm Hg, pH decreased progressively. PCr levels at the end of the 150-mm Hg increment correlated significantly and moderately with the reduction in blood flow. Our study shows that the ischemic condition during constant muscle exercise is clearly characterized by PCr and Pi kinetics, as well as by pH changes. The correlation between the degree of blood flow reduction and PCr levels in the exercising muscle groups, which are supplied by the stenosed arteries, is the first essential of using 31P magnetic resonance spectroscopy in the assessment of the effect of arterial stenoses on muscle function in claudicants." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 116 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 17 ] ], "text": "We are being asked about the pertussis vaccine. Option 1 is correct, it is the diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis vaccine." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 236, 357 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 38, 62 ] ], "text": "Option 3 is the one that \"is not true among all those proposed to us\": immunity lasts about 10 years after the last dose." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 117, 185 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 17, 27 ] ], "text": "Option 4 is also correct, since they are inactivated microorganisms." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "The vaccine in Spain is administered in combination with diphtheria and tetanus.", "2": "Adults who will be in contact with infants under 6 months of age should be vaccinated.", "3": "Both natural and vaccinal immunity remains for life.", "4": "Vaccination is prepared from killed microorganisms.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0415_19247", "title": "[Culture-confirmed whooping cough in a tertiary center over a twelve-year period].", "score": 0.01575757575757576, "content": "To study the characteristics of patients diagnosed with whooping cough at a tertiary center in Barcelona, Spain. We performed a retrospective study of patients aged less than 18 years treated for pertussis-like cough or clinically-suspected whooping cough over a 12-year period (1989-2000). Only patients with isolated Bordetella spp. were included. The variables of age, sex, vaccination status, hospitalization, clinical manifestations, severity, and lethality were analyzed. One hundred sixty-one patients with positive Bordetella spp. culture were identified. Of these, complete information was available in 149 (79 boys and 70 girls) with a median age of 3 months (range: 13 days-17 years); 77.2 % were aged 6 months or less. All the isolated strains corresponded to B. pertussis except three that corresponded to B. parapertussis. Three epidemic cycles (in 1989, 1992 and 2000) were observed during the study period. A total of 72.5 % of cases occurred between May and September. Bordetella spp. was associated with other bacteria in 28.2 % of the patients, viruses in 13.4 % and a bacterium and a virus in 4.7 %. One hundred twenty-one patients required hospitalization, of which 14.9 % were admitted to the intensive care unit. Age was the only factor associated with risk for hospitalization, which was more frequent in younger infants (p &lt; 0.0001). Paroxysmal cough with cyanosis was present in 53.4 % of the patients, leucocytosis with lymphocytosis occurred in 67.5 % and apneas were present in 21.5 %. Chest X-ray revealed atelectasis in 34.1 %. The mean length of hospital stay was 11 days (range: 1-70 days). Three boys aged less than 3 months with malignant pertussis syndrome died (lethality: 2 %). More than half the patients (59.7 %) were not vaccinated (55.4 % for being under the age of 3 months) and only 16 % had received three or more vaccination doses. Whooping cough continues to be a severe disease in infants, with a high admission rate during the first 6 months of life. New preventive strategies are required to protect infants who have not yet developed full immunity to this infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0854_16486", "title": "[Clinical analysis of 247 children with whooping cough and the risk factors of severe cases].", "score": 0.015407319952774497, "content": "To summarize the clinical characteristics of whooping cough in children and analyze the risk factors for severe whooping cough. A retrospective analysis was made on the clinical data of 247 children with whooping cough in Children's Hospital of Chongqing Medical University between Jan 2013 and Dec 2014. Of these patients, 126 were male, 121 were female, the median age was 3.1 months (23 days-4 years and eight months old). The patients were divided into two groups, group 1 had infants less than 3 months of age (n=120) and group 2 had infants and young children older than 3 months (n=127) according to their age. On the other hand, the patients were also divided into two groups according to vaccination status: vaccinated group (received diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, and acellular pertussis, DTP) (n=31) and unvaccinated group (n=188). Pure Bordetella pertussis infection was seen in 106 cases, and 141 cases had mixed infection. Severe disease was seen in 13 cases, and the other 234 cases had the modest disease. Clinical data were retrospectively analyzed and compared. (1) Bordetella pertussis was identified in 57/680 cases (8.4%) in 2013, and 190/1 856 cases (10.2%) in 2014. The disease could be seen throughout the year, but 182 cases (73.7%) occurred in summer or autumn; 202 cases (81.8%) were less than 6 months. (2) Paroxysmal cough was seen in 238 cases (96.4%) , 61 cases (24.7%) had inspiratory whoop. Infants in group 1 often had episodes of cyanosis, apnea and suffocation (χ² = 19.999, 12.081, 6.508, P&lt;0.05), persistent cough was often seen in group 2 (χ² = 9.885, P&lt;0.05). Complications such as severe pneumonia, pulmonary consolidation and encephalopathy were more common in the group 1 than in group 2 (χ² = 17.340, 6.080, 11.030, 23.545, P&lt;0.05). (3) The length of stay of group 1, and of unvaccinated group was significantly longer than that of group 2 and of vaccinated group (t=19.331, 26.741, P&lt;0.05). (4) Leukocytosis was found in 224 cases (90.7%), 182 cases (73.7%) had predominant lymphocytosis. White blood cell in group 1, unvaccinated group and severe disease group was higher than the corresponding group (t=11.075,13.739,3.469, P&lt;0.05). (5) Patients who had a history of exposure, fever, leukocytosis and pulmonary consolidation or atelectasis on chest imaging were prone to develop into severe pertussis (OR=4.521, 4.900, 1.085, 4.792, 50.400; P&lt;0.05). A total of 244 cases (98.8%) recovered, 3 cases (1.2%) died, they were less than 3 months old and unvaccinated. The number of cases with whooping cough in Chongqing area tends to be rising. The disease occurred mostly in summer and fall. Infants less than 3 months old, unvaccinated with DTP had high susceptibility to pertussis, often had a severe clinical presentation and severe complications, had a high mortality rate." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en029_35011", "title": "DPT vaccine", "score": 0.01453061972863953, "content": "Infants younger than 12 months of age, specifically less than three months of age, are at highest risk of acquiring pertussis. In U.S, there is no current tetanus-diphtheria-pertussis vaccination (whooping cough) recommended or licensed for new born infants. As a result, in their first few months of life, unprotected infants are at highest risk of life-threatening complications and infections from pertussis. Infants should not receive pertussis vaccination younger than six weeks of age. Ideally, Infants should receive DTaP (name of whooping cough vaccine for children from age 2 months through 6 years) at 2, 4, 6 months of age and they are not protected until the full series is completed. To protect infants younger than twelve months of age not vaccinated with Tdap against pertussis, ACIP also recommends adults (e.g., parents, siblings, grandparents, childcare providers, and healthcare personnel) and children to receive Tdap at least two weeks before being in contact with the infant." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en335_10996", "title": "Cocooning (immunization)", "score": 0.014001349527665317, "content": "Cocooning is especially commonly used for pertussis. It aims to protect newborn infants from becoming infected with pertussis by administering DTaP/Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria and acellular pertussis) booster vaccine to parents, family members and any individuals who would come into regular contact with the newborn infant. By vaccinating these individuals with a pertussis booster, a pool of persons is established around the newborn who are themselves protected from getting pertussis and passing it on to the infant, thereby creating a \"cocoon\" of protection around the newborn. Young infants have the highest rate of pertussis; in 87-100% of all deaths caused by pertussis, the victim is an infant of less than 6 months of age, too young to have finished acquiring vaccine-induced immunity. Adolescents and young adults whose immunity has just worn off are often infected, but very unlikely to die. They can, however, infect others. 35% to 68% of infants infected with pertussis are infected by a" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en250_20769", "title": "Pertussis vaccine", "score": 0.013222894922556922, "content": "Pertussis vaccine is a vaccine that protects against whooping cough (pertussis). There are two main types: whole-cell vaccines and acellular vaccines. The whole-cell vaccine is about 78% effective while the acellular vaccine is 71–85% effective. The effectiveness of the vaccines appears to decrease by between 2 and 10% per year after vaccination with a more rapid decrease with the acellular vaccines. The vaccine is only available in combination with tetanus and diphtheria vaccines. Pertussis vaccine is estimated to have saved over 500,000 lives in 2002. Vaccinating the mother during pregnancy may protect the baby. The World Health Organization and Center for Disease Control and Prevention recommend all children be vaccinated for pertussis and that it be included in routine vaccinations. Three doses starting at six weeks of age are typically recommended in young children. Additional doses may be given to older children and adults. This recommendation includes people who have HIV/AIDS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0520_16299", "title": "[Action to be taken when facing one or more cases of whooping-cough].", "score": 0.012905655210187595, "content": "The evolution of the epidemiology of pertussis, new licensed macrolides and vaccines, new recommendations for vaccination among adolescents and adults need an update of the French guidelines for prevention of the disease around one or grouped cases of the disease. A particular attention should be raised to the diagnosis of whooping cough in adults who are presently the main reservoir of Bordetella pertussis. Whooping cough in adults presents as an unexplained prolonged cough with nocturnal exacerbation witch accounts for most of the contaminations of young infants. A bacteriological confirmation of pertussis should be provided before implementation of preventive measures: culture and PCR are presently the gold standard for the diagnosis of pertussis in infants, children and even adults who have been coughing for less than 20 days. Later on, serology (Elisa, immuno-empreinte) is the only technique available, but cannot be interpreted if the patient has been vaccinated less than one year ago. Infants under three months should be admitted to hospital and every case submitted to respiratory isolation. Eviction from the community should be pronounced within the five first days following the onset of an effective antibiotic treatment. New macrolides should be favoured: clarithromycin for seven days or azithromycin for five days. Household contacts should be given the same prophylactic antibiotic treatment: children and adolescent not correctly immunized, parents of the index case as adults parents of not or not completely immunized infants. The vaccination program of the household should be updated. The same measures should be applied in case of grouped cases (at least two contemporary or consecutive cases in the same area). In that case, the Public Health System doctors should be involved in the investigation and the classification of the cases. The close contacts not or not completely immunized should be prescribed and antibiotic prophylaxis and an update of their vaccination program. Among the occasional contacts, high-risk people only should be treated. In the day care centres an antibiotic prophylaxis should be given to children who have received less than four vaccine shots against pertussis and to the personnel contact to the cases as well. In the schools, the antibiotic prophylaxis should be prescribed to all children of the classroom(s) not completely vaccinated and to the teacher(s) as well. In the boarding schools and institutions with handicapped children, antibiotic prophylaxis could be applied to every member if the pertussis vaccine coverage is at less than 50%. In hospitals, coughing personnel should wear masks and investigations towards pertussis should be performed in people with a more than seven day unexplained cough. Preventive measures should be applied in case of confirmation of pertussis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_42850", "title": "Childhood immunizations in the United States", "score": 0.012797619047619047, "content": "Pertussis (whooping cough) Pertussis is a highly contagious disease that is caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. The bacteria clings to cilia in the lungs and releases a toxin that damages the cilia and causes inflammation in the respiratory tract. Transmission Many infants are infected by older siblings or caregivers that don't even know they have the disease. The bacteria is spread through respiratory secretions, often through coughing or sneezing, or just from breathing in the bacteria while around someone who is infected. Unfortunately, the effectiveness of the Pertussis vaccine is dependent on herd immunity, if pertussis is circulating in the community it is still possible for a vaccinated individual, of any age, to become ill. However, those that are vaccinated may have a less severe infection." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en009_114382", "title": "Whooping cough", "score": 0.01238082627118644, "content": "The multicomponent acellular pertussis vaccine is 71–85% effective, with greater effectiveness against more severe strains. However, despite widespread vaccination, pertussis has persisted in vaccinated populations and is today \"one of the most common vaccine-preventable diseases in Western countries\". The 21st-century resurgences in pertussis infections is attributed to a combination of waning immunity and bacterial mutations that elude vaccines. Immunization does not confer lifelong immunity; a 2011 CDC study indicated that protection may only last three to six years. This covers childhood, which is the time of greatest exposure and greatest risk of death from pertussis. An effect of widespread immunization on society has been the shift of reported infections from children aged 1–9 years to infants, adolescents, and adults, with adolescents and adults acting as reservoirs for B. pertussis and infecting infants who have had fewer than three doses of vaccine." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en250_20772", "title": "Pertussis vaccine", "score": 0.012320593452668924, "content": "Some studies have suggested that while acellular pertussis vaccines are effective at preventing the disease, they have a limited impact on infection and transmission, meaning that vaccinated people could spread the disease even though they may have only mild symptoms or none at all. Children For children, immunizations are commonly given in combination with immunizations against tetanus, diphtheria, polio, and haemophilus influenzae type B at two, four, six, and 15–18 months of age. Adults In 2006 the CDC recommended adults receive pertussis vaccination along with the tetanus and diphtheria toxoid booster. In 2011 they began recommended boosters during each pregnancy. In the UK vaccination of pregnant women (between 28 and 38 weeks of pregnancy) is also recommended." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_42851", "title": "Childhood immunizations in the United States", "score": 0.011881310022162028, "content": "Symptoms Symptoms usually develop 7–10 days after being exposed, but sometimes they don't appear for as long as 6 weeks after infection. The disease begins with cold-like symptoms and after a week or two, severe coughing begins that can continue for 10 weeks or more. Infants may develop \"apnea\" rather than a cough. Apnea is when the child stops breathing momentarily. Approximately half of the infants, younger than one year of age, who get the disease are hospitalized. 1 in 4 get pneumonia 1 or 2 in 100 will have convulsions (violent, uncontrolled shaking) 2/3 will have apnea 1 in 300 will have encephalopathy (disease of the brain) 1 or 2 in 100 will die In teens and adults symptoms include weight loss loss of bladder control passing out rib fractures from severe coughing exhaustion If someone with the vaccine becomes infected, in most cases the cough won't last for many days, symptoms occur less often and the percent of children with severe symptoms is less." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en438_32471", "title": "World Immunization Week", "score": 0.011173831234621508, "content": "Immunization can protect against 25 different infectious agents or diseases, from infancy to old age, including diphtheria, measles, pertussis, polio, tetanus and COVID-19. The World Health Organization (WHO) estimates active immunization currently averts 2 to 3 million deaths every year. However 22.6 million infants worldwide are still missing out on basic vaccines, mostly in developing countries. Inadequate immunization coverage rates often result from limited resources, competing health priorities, poor management of health systems and inadequate surveillance. The goal of World Immunization Week is to raise public awareness of how immunization saves lives, and support people everywhere to get the vaccinations needed against deadly diseases for themselves and their children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0621_12774", "title": "Is the vaccination coverage established enough to control pertussis, or it is a re-emerging disease?", "score": 0.01110463421742932, "content": "Although vaccination coverage is high in Catalonia, Spain, pertussis is still a significant cause of morbidity and mortality among infants, overall due to adolescent and adult contacts. An epidemiological study from voluntary health care centres to detect confirmed pertussis cases was carried out in Catalonia. From 465 pertussis-suspect-cases, we identified 126 confirmed events, 73 of them confirmed by laboratory tests. Most of cases were infants less than 4 months old 23 (18.3%), adolescents 22 (17.4%) and adults 46 (36.5%). Sixty-one cases (49.6%) presented paroxysmal cough, 33 (26.8%) post-tussive vomiting and inspiratory whoop, and 27 (22%) apnoea. The vaccination status was not known for 46 (36.5%) patients. Of the total vaccine status documented, 59 (73.8%) patients had received at least one dose. Sixty patients (47.6%) were considered index cases, 32 of them (53.3%) were children under 1-year old. Among contacts identified as pertussis cases, 63.6% (42/66) were older than 14 years of age. These contacts were parents (30), siblings (19), grandmother (4), and others (13). These results confirm protective efficacy of pertussis vaccine only during few time. Regular pertussis boosters in teenagers, and/or in adults who take care of young children, could decrease the incidence of the infection." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en252_14014", "title": "Healthcare in Denmark", "score": 0.011046557069535992, "content": "Vaccinations The National Childhood Vaccination Program in Denmark provides vaccinations to children for many diseases, including diphtheria, tetanus, and whooping Cough. From 1980 to 2015, vaccination coverage for those diseases increased from 88% to 93% of the children in Denmark, and the nation has consistently maintained 90% coverage or more since 2010. Those aged 65+ also receive the influenza vaccine. Denmark vaccinated 41.9% of the population aged 65 or above in 2015, a drastic increase from 6.2% in 2002. The cost of vaccinations is covered by the regions, with the exception of vaccinations required for vacation travel. References External links \"Health care systems in transition - Denmark, HiT Summary\" - World Health Organization Denmark" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0334_1459", "title": "[Pertussis in young infants].", "score": 0.010805472448949952, "content": "Four infants, three girls aged 4 weeks, 2.5 months and 3 months, and a boy aged 2 months, were hospitalized because of severe respiratory distress. Apnoea spells with bradycardia and hypoxia were seen in two of the patients, one showing convulsions as well, and bronchopneumonia in the other two, of whom one eventually died. All suffered from pertussis. During outbreaks of pertussis, infants less than 6 months of age are at highest risk for severe disease. In this age group, however, the clinical signs of pertussis are often atypical. Classical symptoms such as paroxysms of cough and loud whoops may be absent while feeding problems, apnoea, cyanosis and bradycardia may be present. For infants younger than 6 months with signs indicating pertussis hospitalization is indicated. In the current vaccination schedule in the Netherlands infants are vaccinated at 3, 4, 5 and 11 months of age. Starting in 1999 the first vaccination will be administered at the age of 2 months." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en009_114371", "title": "Whooping cough", "score": 0.0108038513210927, "content": "Prevention is mainly by vaccination with the pertussis vaccine. Initial immunization is recommended between six and eight weeks of age, with four doses to be given in the first two years of life. Protection from pertussis decreases over time, so additional doses of vaccine are often recommended for older children and adults. Antibiotics may be used to prevent the disease in those who have been exposed and are at risk of severe disease. In those with the disease, antibiotics are useful if started within three weeks of the initial symptoms, but otherwise have little effect in most people. In pregnant women and children less than one year old, antibiotics are recommended within six weeks of symptom onset. Antibiotics used include erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin, or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. Evidence to support interventions for the cough, other than antibiotics, is poor. About 50% of infected children less than a year old require hospitalization and nearly 0.5% (1 in 200)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0068_13408", "title": "[Whooping cough necessitating hospitalization in Denmark, 1980-1986].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Information from the Danish National Patient Register revealed that 817 patients had been hospitalized with verified whooping cough during the period 1980-1986. The letters of discharge or the case records were obtained for all patients under one year for the entire period and for all patients over one year for the period 1984-1986, a total of 627 persons. These were supplemented by information from forms with information about positive cultures for whooping cough in nasopharyngeal swabs and from individual notifications about children under one year. 65% of the hospitalized patients were under one year and only 2% over 15 years. The severity of the disease measured by the duration of hospitalization and the presence of serious complications and symptoms decreased with age. The average duration of hospitalization was 15 days for children under one year and seven days for children over one year. Five children died. One child developed epilepsy, nine of the remainder required assisted respiration and recovered apparently without permanent damage. Out of the 627 patients who were hospitalized, pneumonia developed in 12%, seizures in 2% under one year and 5% over one year, apnoea occurred in 10% under one year and 2% over one year and cyanosis occurred in 61% under one year and 30% over one year. None of the vaccinated children developed seizures, required assisted ventilation or died and only 2% had apnoea as compared with 7% in the unvaccinated children. Children under two months and children in whom vaccination was contraindicated were responsible for 56% of the hospitalizations among children under one year and for 79% of the most severe cases.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en235_43974", "title": "Breastfeeding", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Maternal vaccinations while breastfeeding is safe for almost all vaccines. Additionally, the mother's immunity obtained by vaccination against tetanus, diphtheria, whooping cough and influenza can protect the baby from these diseases, and breastfeeding can reduce fever rate after infant immunization. However, smallpox and yellow fever vaccines increase the risk of infants developing vaccinia and encephalitis. Mortality Babies who receive no breast milk are almost six times more likely to die by the age of one month than those who are partially or fully breastfed. Childhood obesity The protective effect of breastfeeding against obesity is consistent, though small, across many studies. A 2013 longitudinal study reported less obesity at ages two and four years among infants who were breastfed for at least four months. Allergic diseases" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0068_13409", "title": "[Whooping cough in Denmark among children under 1 year of age during 1980-1986].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "On the basis of individual notifications, reports of cases verified by culture and letters of discharge or case reports of infants under one year with whooping cough during the period 1980-1986, the distribution of the disease is described together with vaccine efficacy and the presumed sources of infection for infants in this age group. The incidence of whooping cough in infants under one year is estimated to be approximately three cases per 1,000 per annum as compared with 150 per 1,000 at the beginning of this century and 60 per 1,000 in the nineteen fifties before routine vaccination was introduced in 1961. The first vaccination is calculated to provide a vaccine efficacy of 39%, after the second vaccination the vaccine efficacy rises to 86% and after the third vaccination the vaccine efficacy is about 98% during the remainder of the first year of life. Even although the times of vaccination were advanced in 1970, this has not reduced the frequency of whooping cough in infants as the vaccination programme has simultaneously been weakened because children are now vaccinated only three times with a weaker vaccine and the immunity is of briefer duration. The commonest sources of infection for infants are siblings. A lower infective risk is desirable and this could be obtained by vaccinating infants an extra time. Alterations in the system of notification in 1980 have resulted in increased under-notification of whooping cough in children under one year while, simultaneously, the notified cases have been described better." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en594_15557", "title": "National Immunisation Program Schedule", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The national coverage rate has increased over the last 10 years, as of 2019. National Immunisation Program Schedule Childhood vaccinations Birth Hepatitis B 2 weeks (Can be given from 6 weeks of age) Diphtheria Tetanus Pertussis (whooping cough) Hepatitis B Polio Haemophilus influenzae type b Pneumococcal Rotavirus (\"First dose must be given by 14 weeks of age, and the second dose by 24 weeks of age\") 4 months Diphtheria Tetanus Pertussis (whooping cough) Hepatitis B, polio Haemophilus influenzae type b Pneumococcal Rotavirus 6 months Diphtheria Tetanus Pertussis (whooping cough) Hepatitis B, polio Haemophilus influenzae type b 12 months Meningococcal ACWY Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR Vaccine) Pneumococcal 18 months Haemophilus influenzae type b Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR Vaccine) Varicella (chickenpox) Diphtheria Tetanus Pertussis (whooping cough) 4 years Diphtheria Tetanus Pertussis (whooping cough) Polio" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0571_574", "title": "[Pertussis: a reemerging infection?].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To analyze the incidence of pertussis in the Czech Republic, influencing factors and, in particular, the effect of vaccination on pertussis morbidity, clinical seriousness of the disease and circulation of Bordetella pertussis in the population. To study the causes of defective diagnosis and reporting and to propose remedial measures. Data on pertussis morbidity were obtained from the archives of the National Institute of Public Health and the public health information systems ISPO and EPIDAT. Mortality data were taken from the above sources and literature. The case definition was used as specified in the Methodical Guidance for Pertussis Surveillance and the EC Directive. Laboratory diagnosis was based on culture and serology. An at least fourfold increase in the serum antibody titer found within an experiment was considered as a positive result. Pertussis together with diphteria and measles used to be among the most dangerous infections in childhood. The oldest mortality data date back to 1890 when 62 deaths per 100,000 population were reported. In 1951, the death rate still reached 3.6/100,000. The pertussis morbidity peaked in 1955 with 540 cases per 100,000 population. Vaccination against pertussis since the early 1950's led to a rapid reduction of morbidity in children. Nevertheless, higher pertussis morbidity rates were observed at 2-4-year intervals (in the so- called epidemic years). The lowest morbidity rates were reported during the 1980's. However, a stable upward trend has been observed over the following years. In 2006, a neonate died from pertussis. The age specific morbidity rates in 1980 through 2000 were highest in children under one year of age. This fact together with the regularly increased morbidity rates observed at 2-3-year intervals indicate that Bordetella pertussis still circulates in the population. While in the 1980's, the cases of pertussis were reported almost exclusively in children under one year of age, in the 1990's, they became more common also among children 1-4 years of age and started to be prevalent in children 10-14 years of age since 2001. A high immunisation coverage (97%) with five doses of high quality whole-cell vaccine of Czech origin introduced into practice in 1958 played a crucial role in the reduction of pertussis morbidity from more than 500/100,000 in the mid-1950's to less than 0.5/100,000 in the 1980's. Nevertheless, this strategy did not lead to elimination of the causative agent in the population. It is evident that the current immunization scheme with the use of the available vaccines cannot solve the epidemiological situation. Since the efficacy of the currently available acellular pertussis vaccines is, at the best, the same as that of the whole-cell vaccines, any improvement of the current status cannot be expected. Only effective active surveillance, the use of new more immunogenic pertussis vaccines and revaccination of older age groups can result in desirable outcomes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en260_21217", "title": "Louis W. Sauer", "score": 0.009670781893004115, "content": "Louis Wendlin Sauer (born August 13, 1885 in Cincinnati; d. February 10, 1980 in Miami) was an American pediatrician who became known for perfecting the vaccine used to prevent pertussis (whooping cough), saving countless lives around the world. After five years of work, Dr. Sauer developed the vaccine in 1931, inoculating children against pertussis, a respiratory infection that had been the most fatal disease for children under two years old. He later developed the DPT vaccine, which allowed the vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus to be administered as a single injection. Dr. Sauer never asked for compensation for developing vaccines and told an interviewer later, \"One doesn't do that thing for money.\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0525_19442", "title": "[Why still whooping cough?].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Whooping cough is a human respiratory infection, dramatic for newborns and elderly, by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis and parapertussis. Intensive vaccination of children allowed an important decrease of mortality and morbidity. However, generalization of vaccination conducted to a change in the transmission of the disease due to the short duration of vaccinal immunity and the lack of vaccinal or natural boosters. The disease affects now adolescents and adults who contaminate new-borns too young to be vaccinated. For this reason, many countries including France, decided to add vaccine boosters for adolescents and young adults." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0387_258", "title": "Sustained efficacy during the first 6 years of life of 3-component acellular pertussis vaccines administered in infancy: the Italian experience.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "In 1992-1993, a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trial of two 3-component acellular pertussis vaccines was started in 4 of Italy's 20 regions. During the trial, the children had been randomized to receive 3 doses of 1 of 2 acellular pertussis vaccines combined with diphtheria and tetanus toxoids (DT) or of a DT vaccine only, at 2, 4, and 6 months of age. Both diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccines, 1 manufactured by SmithKline Beecham (DTaP SB; Infanrix) and 1 manufactured by Chiron Biocine (DTaP CB; Triacelluvax), contain pertussis toxin (PT), filamentous hemagglutinin, and pertactin. The results of the first period of follow-up, which ended in 1994 (stage 1), showed that both vaccines had a protective efficacy of 84% in the first 2 years of life; when the trial's follow-up was extended under partial blinding until the participating children had reached 33 months of age (stage 2 of the follow-up), these high levels of efficacy had persisted. Therefore, the objective of this study was to estimate the persistence of protection from 3 to 6 years of age of the 2 3-component DTaP vaccines administered as primary immunization in infancy. An unblinded prospective longitudinal study of vaccinated and unvaccinated children in 4 Italian regions, with active surveillance of cough, was conducted by study nurses, and Bordetella pertussis infections were confirmed laboratory. The present study (stage 3) included those children who completed stage 2 of the follow-up and were still under active surveillance as of October 1, 1995, accounting for 4217 children who had received DTaP SB (representing 94% of the vaccine's recipients in the initial phase of the trial), 4215 who had received DTaP CB (95% of the original recipients), and 266 who had received DT only (18% of the original recipients). Because the parents of most of the original DT placebo group accepted pertussis vaccination during stage 2 in 1995, an additional 856 children were recruited in the DT group at the initiation of stage 3. These additional children were identified from the census list of children born in the same period and living in the same areas as the trial participants but who had been vaccinated in infancy with DT only. Eligible children were included in stage 3 if they had no history of either pertussis or pertussis vaccination and if a serum sample obtained at the time of enrollment had undetectable immunoglobulin G (IgG) against PT. Parental consent to participate in the study was obtained. Active surveillance for pertussis was conducted in the field by 72 study nurses through monthly contact with each family in the study. A cough episode that lasted &gt;/=7 days was considered to be a laboratory-confirmed infection by Bordetella pertussis if at least 1 of the following 5 criteria (listed in hierarchic order) was met: 1) B pertussis was obtained from nasopharyngeal culture (culture-confirmed infection); 2) the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) IgG or IgA titer against PT in the convalescent-phase serum sample increased by at least 100% compared with the acute-phase sample; 3) the PT-neutralizing titers in Chinese hamster ovary assay in the convalescent-phase sample increased by at least 4-fold compared with the acute-phase sample; 4) the ELISA IgG or IgA titer against filamentous hemagglutinin in the convalescent-phase sample increased by at least 100% and the culture or the polymerase chain reaction assay on the nasopharyngeal aspirate was negative for B parapertussis; and 5) the ELISA IgG PT titer in 1 of the 2 serum samples exceeded the geometric mean titer computed on convalescent sera of the children with a culture-confirmed B pertussis infection in each study group. Incidence of laboratory-confirmed B pertussis infection, using case definitions that varied in terms of duration and type of cough, was computed and the proportion of cases prevented among DTaP recipients in comparison with DT recipients was calculated. A total of 391 laboratory-confirmed infections were identified in the 3-year follow-up period (138 DTaP SB, 126 DTaP CB, 127 DT recipients, respectively). The mean duration of cough in children with laboratory-confirmed infection was 48, 47, and 70 days for the DTaP SB, DTaP CB, and DT recipients, respectively; the mean duration of spasmodic cough was 15, 13, and 23 days, respectively. When using the primary case definition (ie, laboratory-confirmed B pertussis infection and &gt;/=14 days of spasmodic cough or &gt;/=21 days of any cough), the efficacy was 78% for the DTaP SB vaccine (95% confidence interval [CI]: 71%-83%) and 81% for the DTaP CB vaccine (95% CI: 74%-85%). When using the case definition based on a more severe clinical presentation (&gt;/=21 days of spasmodic cough), the vaccine efficacy was 86% (95% CI: 79%-91%) for both vaccines. When using the case definition based on milder clinical presentation (any cough for &gt;/=7 days), the efficacy was 76% (95% CI: 69%-81%) for the DTaP SB vaccine and 78% (95% CI: 72%-83%) for the DTaP CB vaccine. The persistence of protection through 6 years of age suggests that the fourth DTaP dose could be postponed until preschool age in children who received 3-component acellular pertussis vaccines in infancy, provided that immunity to diphtheria and tetanus is maintained. Additional booster doses could be administered at older ages to reduce reactogenicity induced by multiple administrations and to optimize the control of pertussis in adolescents and young adults." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0350_1214", "title": "[Whooping cough today].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Vaccination has totally modified the epidemiology of pertussis in France. The classically described childhood forms have become quite exceptional compared with early cases in infants and later cases in older children, adolescents and adults. Whooping cough is often misdiagnosed in adults as the expression is less typical, largely contributing to further transmission. Pertussis should be envisaged as a possible diagnosis in adults with persistent or worsening cough for more than 7 days. Early vaccination should be encouraged with a late booster at 11-13 years as recommended in the 1998 guidelines. Bacterial isolates provide the diagnosis, requiring samples as early as possible in the disease course both in the primary patient and in persons in his/her contact. The PCR is reimbursed by the French health insurance system. Serology can be useful for retrospective diagnosis, particularly in children and adults even in case of vaccination, as well as in mothers of young infants due to the prepartum serum. Whole-cell vaccine has proven its excellent efficacy and remains the only vaccine indicated for infants. New acellular pertussis vaccines are well tolerated and are indicated for boosters at 18 months and at 11-13 years." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en158_45229", "title": "Expanded Program on Immunization (Philippines)", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "General Principles in Infants/Children Immunization Because measles kills, every infant needs to be vaccinated against measles at the age of 9 months or as soon as possible after 9 months as part of the routine infant vaccination schedule. It is safe to vaccinate a sick child who is suffering from a minor illness (cough, cold, diarrhea, fever or malnutrition) or who has already been vaccinated against measles. If the vaccination schedule is interrupted, it is not necessary to restart. Instead, the schedule should be resumed using minimal intervals between doses to catch up as quickly as possible." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0527_5232", "title": "[Time for booster doses against whooping cough for 10-year-old children].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Acellular pertussis vaccine was introduced in Sweden in 1996 at the age of 3, 5 and 12 months, after a 17 year period without general vaccination against pertussis. At present, the incidence of notified pertussis has decreased to 1/10 of what was seen 10 years ago. In spite of the dramatic decrease, the disease is not eliminated. In accordance with the experience of other countries, most cases in Sweden are reported among older children and adults, while the highest risk of severe disease is still seen in infants. Many industrialized countries have introduced booster dose(s) in order to control the spread of pertussis. The Swedish National Board of Health and Welfare has recently initiated a major revision of the vaccines used and the schedule of the national vaccination program. Until the final proposal and in order not to miss the opportunity to boost pertussis immunity in children who were vaccinated as infants at the reintroduction of pertussis vaccination, the Board now recommends the Swedish municipalities as an interim measure to include pertussis in the current school booster against diphtheria and tetanus at 10 years of age with a full dose vaccine." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en101_10630", "title": "Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Children at special risk (e.g., sickle cell disease and asplenia) require as full protection as can be achieved using the conjugated vaccine, with the more extensive polysaccharide vaccine given after the second year of life: United States In 2001, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), upon advice from its Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), recommended the vaccine be administered to every infant and young child in the United States. The resulting demand outstripped production, creating shortages not resolved until 2004. All children, according to the U.S. vaccination schedule, should receive four doses, at two months, four months, six months, and again between one year and fifteen months of age. The CDC updated the pneumococcal vaccine guidelines for adults 65 years of age or older in 2019." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0325_13709", "title": "[Whooping cough: a retrospective study of the cases diagnosed over a period of 15 years].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Our objective was to study the whooping cough cases diagnosed in a 15-year period in our hospital, referring to its clinical features, epidemiology and analytical findings. A retrospective study based on 144 cases with a clinical diagnosis of whooping cough, from 1981 to 1995, was carried out. Special attention was paid to those cases with cultures positive for B. pertussis. Nasopharyngeal specimens for culture were taken in 119 cases. This was not carried-out in those with previous antibiotic therapy. Cultures were positive for B. pertussis in 46 patients (38.7%). The age varied between 20 days and 30 months. Twenty-one were female. The initial symptoms were: paroxysmal cough in 44 (95.7%), cyanosis in 34 (73.9%), inspiratory whoop in 27 (58.7%), respiratory distress in 12 (26.1%) and post-tussive vomiting in 10 (21.7%). Thirty-nine children (84.8%) of this group had not received any pertussis vaccine, the rest had received just the first dose. It had been contacted by persons having cough in 19 patients (41.3%). Leukocytosis (mean: 19,818/mm3), lymphocytosis (mean: 13,047/mm3) and high platelet count (mean 459,522/mm3) were common findings. Cultures were positive in 38.7% of the patients. There are similar findings by other authors. In this group, most of the children were unvaccinated, and less than 3 months of age. Typical symptoms of pertussis were observed in the majority of patients. In one forth of them respiratory distress was found, probably related to their young age. Vaccinated adults emerge as a contact group that should be studied." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en029_35006", "title": "DPT vaccine", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 2019 study in the American Economic Journal found that state requirements mandating the use of the Tdap vaccine \"increased Tdap vaccine take-up and reduced pertussis (whooping cough) incidence by about 32 percent.\" Related combination vaccines Excluding Pertussis DT and Td vaccines, lack the pertussis component. The Td vaccine is administered to children over the age of seven as well as to adults. It is most commonly administered as a booster shot every 10 years. The Td booster shot may also be administered as protection from a severe burn or dirty wound. Including Polio In the United States, an inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) is administered along with the tetanus, diphtheria, and acellular pertussis vaccines (DTaP) and a pediatric dose of hepatitis B vaccine. In the UK, IPV is combined with tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis, and Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccines." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0354_5576", "title": "[The effect of the initial level of immunity on the efficacy of antidiphtheria inoculations in children and adults].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Based on results of examination in the passive hemagglutination test of 1440 subjects at different ages, several distinguishing features were revealed of formation of artificial active antidiphtheria immunity depending on the basic level of immunity. Single revaccination of those subjects presenting with the basic immunity of less than 0.03 IU/ml provides defence against diphtheria in only 33.3 percent of adults and 50 percent of children, in those subjects presenting with immunity between 0.03 to 0.99 IU/ml it is highly effective, in the immunity 1 IU/ml and beyond the effect of further immunization is very low since 25 to 33.3 percent of subjects demonstrate enhancement of immunity, whereas 16.7 to 25 percent show lowering of it. The analysis of the immunological structure of the population shows that 45 to 60 percent of adults in different age groups need to be exposed to single revaccination, 14 to 37 present will find it insufficient, 3 to 36 percent redundant. We suggest that revaccination against diphtheria be conducted under control of the level of antitoxic immunity." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en523_27167", "title": "Rohingya refugees in Bangladesh", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "In October 2017, a mass vaccination effort spearheaded by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and partners provided 900,000 doses of oral cholera vaccine in two phases. More than 700,000 people over 1 year of age received a single dose during the first phase; in the second, an additional dose of the oral cholera vaccine was administered to 199,472 children ages 1 to 5 years. In addition, 236,696 children under 5 years of age were also vaccinated against polio. No new cases of cholera were detected in the 3 months following mass vaccination. However, Rohingya refugees arriving after the mass vaccination remain unprotected. As a result, a new cholera vaccination campaign began in May 2018. Also in Cox's Bazar, Rohingya children up to age 6 were immunized in December 2017 against pneumococcal disease, pertussis, tetanus, influenza B, and diphtheria in an effort to prevent future outbreaks and to control the spread of diphtheria." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1050_2358", "title": "Association of Routine Infant Vaccinations With Antibody Levels Among Preterm Infants.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The standard schedule of national immunization programs for infants may not be sufficient to protect extremely and very preterm infants. To evaluate the immunogenicity of routine vaccinations administered to preterm infants. A multicenter, prospective, observational cohort study of preterm infants stratified according to gestational age recruited from 8 hospitals across the Netherlands between October 2015 and October 2017, with follow-up until 12 months of age (October 2018). In total, 296 premature infants were enrolled and compared with a control group of 66 healthy term infants from a 2011 study, immunized according to the same schedule with the same vaccines. Three primary doses of the diphtheria-tetanus toxoids-acellular pertussis-inactivated poliomyelitis-Haemophilus influenza type b-hepatitis B combination vaccine were given at 2, 3, and 4 months after birth followed by a booster at 11 months and a 10-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine at 2, 4, and 11 months after birth. Primary end points were (1) proportion of preterm infants who achieved IgG antibody against vaccine antigens at concentrations above the internationally defined threshold for protection after the primary series and booster dose and (2) serum IgG geometric mean concentrations after the primary series and booster vaccination. Proportions and geometric mean concentrations were compared in preterm infants and the control group of term infants. Of 296 preterm infants (56.1% male; mean gestational age, 30 weeks), complete samples before vaccination, 1 month after the primary series, and 1 month after the booster were obtained from 220 preterm infants (74.3%). After the primary series, the proportion of preterm infants across all gestational age groups who achieved protective IgG antibody levels against pertussis toxin, diphtheria, tetanus and 6 of 10 pneumococcal serotypes varied between 83.0% and 100%, Haemophilus influenzae type b between 34.7% and 46.2% (40.6% among all preterm infants overall), and pneumococcal serotypes 4, 6B, 18C, and 23F between 45.8% and 75.1%. After the booster dose, protective antibody levels were achieved in more than 95% of all preterm groups, except for Haemophilus influenzae type b (88.1%). In general, geometric mean concentrations of all vaccine-induced antibodies were significantly lower in all preterm infants vs term infants, except for pertussis toxin and pneumococcal serotypes 4 and 19F after the primary series and booster vaccination. Among preterm infants, administration of routine vaccinations during the first year of life was associated with protective antibody levels against most antigens in the majority of infants after the primary series and booster, except for Haemophilus influenzae type b. However, antibody concentrations were generally lower among preterm infants compared with historical controls." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 115, 261 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 14, 33 ] ], "text": "Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by fluent speech (even in excess) with paraphasias and problems with comprehension, nomination and repetition." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 41, 114 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 4, 14 ] ], "text": "Broca's aphasia has preserved comprehension and absence of fluent speech." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 40 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 4 ] ], "text": "Transcortical have preserved repetition." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 40 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 4 ] ], "text": "Transcortical have preserved repetition." } }

{ "1": "Global aphasia.", "2": "Wernicke's aphasia.", "3": "Broca's aphasia.", "4": "Sensitive transcortical aphasia.", "5": "Transcortical motor aphasia." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0350_5294", "title": "Frontal-opercular aphasia.", "score": 0.015045248868778281, "content": "The standard nomenclature divides nonfluent aphasic syndromes with relatively spared comprehension into Broca's aphasia and transcortical motor aphasia. We report on a patient with a persistent nonfluent aphasia from a discrete, primarily cortical, frontal-opercular lesion who had impaired syntax but intact repetition and, therefore, did not conform to the traditional classification. Based on this patient's behavior and a review of other cases, we have divided the nonfluent aphasias with intact comprehension into five disorders. (1) Verbal akinesia-exhibiting diminished intention or drive to speak and associated with medial frontal lesions (supplementary motor area and cingulate gyrus) or with lesions damaging the efferent projections from these areas. (2) Disorders of syntax-telegraphic and agrammatic utterances that may be associated with dominant pars opercularis lesions. (3) Phonemic disintegration-a failure to correctly produce phonemes, which may be associated with injury to the opercular primary motor cortex or efferent projections from this area. (4) Defects of lexical access-patients who struggle to find words and are impaired at timed word-generation tasks. Defects of lexical access may be associated with lesions of the pars triangularis and adjacent prefrontal cortex. (5) Mixed defects. According to this model, the traditional patient with Broca's aphasia would exhibit disorders of syntax, phonemic disintegration, and defects of lexical access, whereas the traditional patient with transcortical motor aphasia would have verbal akinesia or defects of lexical access or both. Our patient had defects of lexical access and syntax, but only mild symptoms of phonemic disintegration, suggesting that his opercular primary motor cortex was relatively intact. Our patient's ability to repeat normally while his propositional speech remained telegraphic suggests that different neural mechanisms subserve these functions." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_7030", "title": "Mixed transcortical aphasia", "score": 0.014308498519024836, "content": "Symptoms and language characteristics Mixed transcortical aphasia is characterized by severe speaking and comprehension impairment, but with preserved repetition. People who suffer mixed transcortical aphasia struggle greatly to produce propositional language or to understand what is being said to them, yet they can repeat long, complex utterances or finish a song once they hear the first part. Persons with mixed transcortical aphasia are often nonfluent, and in most cases do not speak unless they are spoken to, do not comprehend spoken language, cannot name objects, and cannot read or write. However, they often have the ability to repeat what is said to them. In fact, persons with mixed transcortical aphasia often repeat in a parrot-like fashion. Some patients with this disorder can experience many different types neurological symptoms including, bilateral paralysis, lack of voluntary speech, and difficulty with producing spontaneous speech." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0216_17163", "title": "[Spontaneous speech disturbances in so called transcortical motor aphasia--comparison of 3 cases with the different lesion sites].", "score": 0.013878406708595387, "content": "So called transcortical motor aphasia (TCMA) is frequently subdivided, because the clinical features and the localization of the lesions are variable. The authors have been attempting to classify TCMA into three types according to the distribution of the lesions, such as Type F 1, Type F 2 and Type F 3. Case 1 N.S. belongs to Type F 1 showing the clinical features of TCMA with bleeding in the territory of the left anterior cerebral artery. Case 2 M.E. belongs to Type F 2 (published case). This case is similar to Luria's dynamic aphasia in its clinical features and results from the lesions including the posterior parts of left middle frontal gyrus. Case 3 N.T. belongs to Type F 3 who recovered from typical Broca aphasia after language training for four years. The case is similar to Goldstein's Type 1 of TCMA in its clinical features. These three cases are compared with regard to the fundamental bases of spontaneous speech disturbance. The items of comparison are as follows; the volume of speech production and the the time taken to start speech, word fluency test, cue effects necessary for the success of sentence constructions grammatical ability. The results are summerized in Table 2. Type F1 shows the most conspicuous defect of spontaneous speech, but no disturbance in grammatical ability. And when the top word of a sentence (a subject word) is given by the examiner, the patient can construct a structurally correct sentence. These findings imply that the spontaneous speech disturbance of Type F 1 is due to a defect of the starting mechanism of speech.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_7039", "title": "Mixed transcortical aphasia", "score": 0.01370873786407767, "content": "For most patients, formal and informal language assessments are initially administered during his/her acute hospital stay by a licensed speech-language pathologist. However, a standardized assessment may provide further information regarding an aphasia classification. While there are different classifications of aphasia (i.e., Broca’s, Wernicke’s, Conduction, Anomia), they each have hallmark deficits. Research has shown, a patient presenting with mixed transcortical aphasia will have impairments in all communicative areas, with the exception of the preserved ability to repeat a person’s words or phrases. Patients with mixed transcortical aphasia demonstrate similar deficits as those seen in patients with global aphasia. Therefore, assessment of repetition is most critical in order to differentially diagnose. Specifically, language based standardized assessments such as the Western Aphasia Battery (WAB), and the Folstein Mini Mental State Exam include a repetition subtest amongst" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0694_17053", "title": "[The phonological variant of primary progressive aphasia, a single case study].", "score": 0.013626071486333494, "content": "Primary progressive aphasia (PPA) is a neurodegenerative syndrome characterized by an insidious onset and gradual progression of deficits that can involve any aspect of language, including word finding, object naming, fluency, syntax, phonology and word comprehension. The initial symptoms occur in the absence of major deficits in other cognitive domains, including episodic memory, visuospatial abilities and visuoconstruction. According to recent diagnostic guidelines, PPA is typically divided into three variants: nonfluent variant PPA (also termed progressive nonfluent aphasia), semantic variant PPA (also termed semantic dementia) and logopenic/phonological variant PPA (also termed logopenic progressive aphasia). The paper describes a 79-yr old man, who presented with normal motor speech and production rate, impaired single word retrieval and phonemic errors in spontaneous speech and confrontational naming. Confrontation naming was strongly affected by lexical frequency. He was impaired on repetition of sentences and phrases. Reading was intact for regularly spelled words but not for irregular words (surface dyslexia). Comprehension was spared at the single word level, but impaired for complex sentences. He performed within the normal range on the Dutch equivalent of the Pyramids and Palm Trees (PPT) Pictures Test, indicating that semantic processing was preserved. There was, however, a slight deficiency on the PPT Words Test, which appeals to semantic knowledge of verbal associations. His core deficit was interpreted as an inability to retrieve stored lexical-phonological information for spoken word production in spontaneous speech, confrontation naming, repetition and reading aloud." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_49819", "title": "Transcortical sensory aphasia", "score": 0.013162588285653134, "content": "Transcortical sensory aphasia is characterized as a fluent aphasia. Fluency is determined by direct qualitative observation of the patient’s speech to determine the length of spoken phrases, and is usually characterized by a normal or rapid rate; normal phrase length, rhythm, melody, and articulatory agility; and normal or paragrammatic speech. Transcortical sensory aphasia is a disorder in which there is a discrepancy between phonological processing, which remains intact, and lexical-semantic processing, which is impaired. Therefore, patients can repeat complicated phrases, however they lack comprehension and propositional speech. This disconnect occurs since Wernicke’s area is not damaged in patients with TSA, therefore repetition is spared while comprehension is affected. Patients with intact repetition can repeat both simple and complex phrases spoken by others, e.g. when asked if the patient would like to go for a walk, he or she would respond \"go for walk.\" Although patients can" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_26971", "title": "Aphasia", "score": 0.013116424182611188, "content": "Recent classification schemes adopting this approach, such as the Boston-Neoclassical Model, also group these classical aphasia subtypes into two larger classes: the nonfluent aphasias (which encompasses Broca's aphasia and transcortical motor aphasia) and the fluent aphasias (which encompasses Wernicke's aphasia, conduction aphasia and transcortical sensory aphasia). These schemes also identify several further aphasia subtypes, including: anomic aphasia, which is characterized by a selective difficulty finding the names for things; and global aphasia, where both expression and comprehension of speech are severely compromised. Many localizationist approaches also recognize the existence of additional, more \"pure\" forms of language disorder that may affect only a single language skill. For example, in pure alexia, a person may be able to write but not read, and in pure word deafness, they may be able to produce speech and to read, but not understand speech when it is spoken to them." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_49824", "title": "Transcortical sensory aphasia", "score": 0.012694835680751174, "content": "Naming Naming involves the ability to recall an object. Patients with TSA, as well as patients with all other aphasia subtypes, exhibit poor naming. Clinical assessment of naming involves the observer first asking the patient to name high frequency objects such as clock, door, and chair. TSA patients who name common objects with ease generally have difficulty naming both uncommon objects and specific parts of objects such as lapel, or the dial on a watch. Paraphasia Patients with TSA typically exhibit paraphasia; their speech is fluent but often error-prone. Their speech is often unintelligible as they tend to use the wrong words, e.g. tree instead of train or uses words in senseless and incorrect combinations. Diagnosis Clinical assessment" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_26964", "title": "Aphasia", "score": 0.012664165103189493, "content": "Individuals with conduction aphasia have deficits in the connections between the speech-comprehension and speech-production areas. This might be caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, the structure that transmits information between Wernicke's area and Broca's area. Similar symptoms, however, can be present after damage to the insula or to the auditory cortex. Auditory comprehension is near normal, and oral expression is fluent with occasional paraphasic errors. Paraphasic errors include phonemic/literal or semantic/verbal. Repetition ability is poor. Conduction and transcortical aphasias are caused by damage to the white matter tracts. These aphasias spare the cortex of the language centers but instead create a disconnection between them. Conduction aphasia is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus. The arcuate fasciculus is a white matter tract that connects Broca's and Wernicke's areas. People with conduction aphasia typically have good language comprehension, but poor" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_6889", "title": "Transcortical motor aphasia", "score": 0.01249127447738712, "content": "There are some other forms of aphasia that relate to TMoA. For instance, adynamic aphasia is a form of TMoA that is characterized by sparse speech. This occurs as a result of executive functioning in the frontal lobe. Another form of aphasia related to TMoA is dynamic aphasia. Patients with this form of aphasia may present with a contiguity disorder in which they have difficulty combining linguistic elements. For dynamic aphasia, this is most apparent when the patient is asked to sequence at the sentence level whereas for other aphasias contiguity disorder can be seen at the phoneme or word level." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0057_12838", "title": "Errors resembling semantic paralexias in Spanish-speaking aphasics.", "score": 0.012429083308450283, "content": "Forty-one Spanish-speaking left-hemisphere-damaged patients were selected and divided into seven groups (transcortical, Broca's aphasia, conduction aphasia, Wernicke's aphasia, anomic aphasia, alexia without agraphia, and global aphasia). A reading battery composed of eight different subtests was given to each patient (reading of letters, reading of syllables, reading of pseudowords, reading of words, reading of sentences, understanding commands, reading and comprehension of texts, and logographic reading). Different types of reading errors were analyzed. Only in the logographic reading subtest were some word-recognition errors found, resembling semantic paralexias. It is proposed that semantic paralexias in English (and other languages) depend upon the partial logographic nature of the reading system. The importance of cross-linguistic analysis of reading errors, taking into account reading system idiosyncracies, is emphasized." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_6891", "title": "Transcortical motor aphasia", "score": 0.012380821729885451, "content": "TMoA is classified as a non-fluent aphasia that is characterized by a significantly reduced output of speech, but good auditory comprehension. Auditory comprehension skills remain intact because the arcuate fasciculus and Wernicke's area are not impaired. Individuals with TMoA also exhibit good repetition skills and can repeat long, complex phrases effortlessly and without error. However, spontaneous speech often presents with paraphasias (a wide category of speech errors that are caused by aphasia). Regardless of any relative communication strengths, individuals with TMoA are typically poor conversational partners. Due to damage in the anterior superior frontal lobe, people with TMoA have deficits in initiation and maintenance of conversations, which results in reduced speech output. A person with TMoA may seldomly produce utterances and typically remain silent. The utterances that they do produce are typically only one to two words long. However, in more structured and predictable" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_26970", "title": "Aphasia", "score": 0.012204424103737605, "content": "Transcortical motor aphasia and transcortical sensory aphasia, which are similar to Broca's and Wernicke's aphasia respectively, but the ability to repeat words and sentences is disproportionately preserved." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_3859", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.012083145561063541, "content": "Language is clearly affected in a restricted way in Broca aphasia. Speech is sparse (10 to 15 words per minute as compared with the normal 100 to 115 words per minute) and consists mainly of nouns, transitive verbs, or important adjectives; phrase length is abbreviated and many of the small words (articles, prepositions, conjunctions) are omitted, giving the speech an abbreviated, telegraphic character (so-called agrammatism). The substantive content of the patient’s language permits the crude communication of ideas, sometimes despite gross expressive difficulties. Repetition of the examiner’s spoken language is as abnormal as the patient’s own speech. If a patient with nonfluent Broca aphasia has no difficulty in repetition, the condition is termed transcortical motor aphasia (see further on). Furthermore, a true defect in language production is evidenced by impairment in the content of written words and sentences. Should the right hand be paralyzed, the patient cannot print with the" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_43280", "title": "Wernicke's area", "score": 0.012068739341466614, "content": "to more complex phrases. Both comprehension and repetition would be abnormal in Wernicke's aphasia. Content should also be assessed, by listening to a patient's spontaneous or instructed speech. Content abnormalities include paraphasic errors and neologisms, both indicative of a diagnosis of Wernicke's aphasia. Neologisms are novel words that may resemble existing words. Patients with severe Wernicke's aphasia may also produce strings of such neologisms with a few connecting words, known as jargon. Errors in the selection of phonemes of patients with Wernicke's aphasia include addition, omission, or change in position. Another symptom of Wernicke's aphasia is use of semantic paraphasias or \"empty speech\" which is the use of generic terms like \"stuff\" or \"things\" to stand in for the specific words that the patient cannot think of. Some Wernicke's aphasia patients also talk around missing words, which is called \"circumlocution.\" Patients with Wernicke's aphasia can tend to run on when" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en145_12260", "title": "Boston Diagnostic Aphasia Examination", "score": 0.012022050199390101, "content": "The Boston Diagnostic Aphasia Examination provides a comprehensive exploration of a range of communicative abilities. Its results are used to classify patient's language profiles into one of the localization based classifications of aphasia: Broca's, Wernicke's, anomic, conduction, transcortical, transcortical motor, transcortical sensory, and global aphasia syndromes, although the test does not always provide a diagnosis or a therapeutic approach. The assessment provides a severity rating. The Examination is designed to go beyond simple functional definitions of aphasia into the components of language dysfunctions (symptoms) that have been shown to underlie the various aphasic syndromes. Thus, this test evaluates various perceptual modalities (e.g., auditory, visual, and gestural), processing functions (e.g., comprehension, analysis, problem-solving), and response modalities (e.g., writing, articulation, and manipulation). This approach allows for the neuropsychological analysis and" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_283913", "title": "Language center", "score": 0.012016251205068173, "content": "There are numerous distinctive ways in which language can be affected. Phonemic paraphasia, an attribute of conduction aphasia and Wernicke aphasia, is not the speech comprehension impairment. Instead, it is the speech production damage, where the desire phonemes are selected erroneously or in an incorrect sequence. Therefore, although Wernicke’s aphasia, a combination of phonological retrieval and semantic systems impairment, affects speech comprehension, it also involves speech production damage. Phonemic paraphasia and anomia (impaired word retrieval) are the results of phonological retrieval impairment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_26962", "title": "Aphasia", "score": 0.011941665492461603, "content": "Individuals with anomic aphasia have difficulty with naming. People with this aphasia may have difficulties naming certain words, linked by their grammatical type (e.g., difficulty naming verbs and not nouns) or by their semantic category (e.g., difficulty naming words relating to photography but nothing else) or a more general naming difficulty. People tend to produce grammatic, yet empty, speech. Auditory comprehension tends to be preserved. Anomic aphasia is the aphasial presentation of tumors in the language zone; it is the aphasial presentation of Alzheimer's disease. Anomic aphasia is the mildest form of aphasia, indicating a likely possibility for better recovery. Individuals with transcortical sensory aphasia, in principle the most general and potentially among the most complex forms of aphasia, may have similar deficits as in receptive aphasia, but their repetition ability may remain intact." }, { "id": "article-31335_6", "title": "Wernicke Aphasia -- History and Physical", "score": 0.011899890889252591, "content": "In Wernicke's aphasia language output is fluent with a normal rate and intonation. However, the content is often difficult to understand because of paraphrastic errors. Paraphasic errors come in two forms: semantic paraphasia errors where one word is substituted for another and phenomic paraphrastic errors where one sound or syllable is substituted for another. An example of a semantic paraphasia error would be a patient saying \"watch\" instead of \"clock.\"  An example of a phonemic paraphasic error would be a patient saying \"dock\" instead of \"clock.\" In severe cases, these errors can result in neologisms (new words) or word salad which makes communication nearly unintelligible. Because of these deficits, patients may find it easier to substitute a generic word such as \"thing\" or \"stuff\" instead of saying the word they wish to say. Reading involves the comprehension of written words, and thus reading is also often impaired in Wernicke's aphasia. As with Broca's aphasia, repetition is also impaired." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_91372", "title": "Receptive aphasia", "score": 0.011644876862268167, "content": "Wernicke's aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, sensory aphasia or posterior aphasia, is a type of aphasia in which individuals have difficulty understanding written and spoken language. Patients with Wernicke's aphasia demonstrate fluent speech, which is characterized by typical speech rate, intact syntactic abilities and effortless speech output. Writing often reflects speech in that it tends to lack content or meaning. In most cases, motor deficits (i.e. hemiparesis) do not occur in individuals with Wernicke's aphasia. Therefore, they may produce a large amount of speech without much meaning. Individuals with Wernicke's aphasia are typically unaware of their errors in speech and do not realize their speech may lack meaning. They typically remain unaware of even their most profound language deficits." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0259_13078", "title": "Hypothesis on the nature of comprehension deficit in a patient with transcortical mixed aphasia with preserved naming.", "score": 0.011620167507903933, "content": "Patients with poor comprehension and preserved naming have been occasionally described. Such patients, who are affected by transcortical aphasia, have been taken as evidence of the possibility of naming an object while bypassing the semantic system. We describe a patient affected with mixed transcortical aphasia who presented a clear dissociation between ability in naming and difficulties in performing word-picture matching tasks. The pattern is explained by the existence of covert compulsory automatic naming that interferes with less automatic procedures involved in word-picture matching. In fact, when we tried to oppose automatic naming by using, in word-picture matching tasks, pictures difficult to name, the comprehension improved. This finding excludes a semantic deficit at the basis of poor comprehension of our patient. We suggest that the dissociation between naming and comprehension could be an expression of a computational limitation within the processes involved in word-picture matching, due to the competition for limited processing resources by automatically activated hyperactive naming." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_6897", "title": "Transcortical motor aphasia", "score": 0.011528822055137843, "content": "Treatment Treatment for all types of aphasia, including transcortical motor aphasia, is usually provided by a speech-language pathologist. The SLP chooses specific therapy tasks and goals based on the speech and language abilities and needs of the individual. In general for individuals with TMoA, treatment should capitalize on their strong auditory comprehension and repetition skills and address the individual's reduced speech output and difficulty initiating and maintaining a conversation. New research in aphasia treatment is showing the benefit of the Life Participation Approach to Aphasia (LPAA) in which goals are written based on the skills needed by the individual patient to participate in specific real-life situations (i.e. communicating effectively with nurses or gaining employment). Based on the specific needs of the patient, SLPs can provide a variety of treatment activities." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en153_19375", "title": "Paraphasia", "score": 0.011151229337066786, "content": "Wernicke’s aphasia is characterized by fluent language with made up or unnecessary words with little or no meaning to speech. Those who suffer from this type of aphasia have difficulty understanding others speech and are unaware of their own mistakes. When corrected they will repeat their verbal paraphasias and have trouble finding the correct word. Wernicke’s area is found in the dominant hemisphere of the posterior gyrus of the first temporal convolution of the brain, whereas Broca’s area is found anterior to the Wernicke’s area. Symptoms" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_26966", "title": "Aphasia", "score": 0.010850206224221972, "content": "Transcortical aphasias include transcortical motor aphasia, transcortical sensory aphasia, and mixed transcortical aphasia. People with transcortical motor aphasia typically have intact comprehension and awareness of their errors, but poor word finding and speech production. People with transcortical sensory and mixed transcortical aphasia have poor comprehension and unawareness of their errors. Despite poor comprehension and more severe deficits in some transcortical aphasias, small studies have indicated that full recovery is possible for all types of transcortical aphasia." }, { "id": "article-43129_4", "title": "Aphasia -- Introduction", "score": 0.010795454545454546, "content": "Specific aphasia syndromes are dependent on the location of the lesion in the brain. [3] In fluent aphasia, the patient can speak in sentences that sound like normal speech, but some of the words are made-up words or have some sounds that are not correct.  People with non-fluent aphasia struggle to get words out, omit words, and speak in very short sentences. Specific non-fluent aphasia syndromes include Broca, transcortical motor, mixed transcortical, and global. Fluent aphasia syndromes include Wernicke, transcortical sensory, conduction, and anomic." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_7038", "title": "Mixed transcortical aphasia", "score": 0.010559006211180125, "content": "If a client has deficits in the following areas, drawing therapy might be an appropriate therapy technique: Western Aphasia Battery (WAB) 1. Responsive Speech (\"What do you write with?\") 2. Spontaneous Speech a. Conversational questions b. Picture descriptions Boston Diagnostic Aphasia Examination (BDAE) 1. Oral expression (word reading, sentence reading) 2. Written section (writing to dictation, writing to describe a picture) Overall, drawing therapy offers a means of accessing language to patients with aphasia who have difficulty expressing themselves with different modalities. Assessment" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_49820", "title": "Transcortical sensory aphasia", "score": 0.010261729266893234, "content": "intact repetition can repeat both simple and complex phrases spoken by others, e.g. when asked if the patient would like to go for a walk, he or she would respond \"go for walk.\" Although patients can respond appropriately, due to the extent of their TSA, it is most likely that they do not comprehend what others ask them. In addition to problems in comprehension, transcortical sensory aphasia is further characterized based on deficits in naming and paraphasia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_7033", "title": "Mixed transcortical aphasia", "score": 0.010086210557608187, "content": "the BDAE can rule out global aphasia if the ability to repeat is present. If verbal fluency is depressed transcortical aphasia gets ruled out and if auditory processing and comprehension is weak then it cannot be transcortical motor aphasia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0845_7096", "title": "Varieties of semantic 'access' deficit in Wernicke's aphasia and semantic aphasia.", "score": 0.010033668532185779, "content": "Comprehension deficits are common in stroke aphasia, including in cases with (i) semantic aphasia, characterized by poor executive control of semantic processing across verbal and non-verbal modalities; and (ii) Wernicke's aphasia, associated with poor auditory-verbal comprehension and repetition, plus fluent speech with jargon. However, the varieties of these comprehension problems, and their underlying causes, are not well understood. Both patient groups exhibit some type of semantic 'access' deficit, as opposed to the 'storage' deficits observed in semantic dementia. Nevertheless, existing descriptions suggest that these patients might have different varieties of 'access' impairment-related to difficulty resolving competition (in semantic aphasia) versus initial activation of concepts from sensory inputs (in Wernicke's aphasia). We used a case series design to compare patients with Wernicke's aphasia and those with semantic aphasia on Warrington's paradigmatic assessment of semantic 'access' deficits. In these verbal and non-verbal matching tasks, a small set of semantically-related items are repeatedly presented over several cycles so that the target on one trial becomes a distractor on another (building up interference and eliciting semantic 'blocking' effects). Patients with Wernicke's aphasia and semantic aphasia were distinguished according to lesion location in the temporal cortex, but in each group, some individuals had additional prefrontal damage. Both of these aspects of lesion variability-one that mapped onto classical 'syndromes' and one that did not-predicted aspects of the semantic 'access' deficit. Both semantic aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia cases showed multimodal semantic impairment, although as expected, the Wernicke's aphasia group showed greater deficits on auditory-verbal than picture judgements. Distribution of damage in the temporal lobe was crucial for predicting the initially 'beneficial' effects of stimulus repetition: cases with Wernicke's aphasia showed initial improvement with repetition of words and pictures, while in semantic aphasia, semantic access was initially good but declined in the face of competition from previous targets. Prefrontal damage predicted the 'harmful' effects of repetition: the ability to reselect both word and picture targets in the face of mounting competition was linked to left prefrontal damage in both groups. Therefore, patients with semantic aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia have partially distinct impairment of semantic 'access' but, across these syndromes, prefrontal lesions produce declining comprehension with repetition in both verbal and non-verbal tasks. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_43279", "title": "Wernicke's area", "score": 0.00998112317130722, "content": "Diagnosis of aphasia, as well as characterization of type of aphasia, is done with language testing by the provider. Testing should evaluate fluency of speech, comprehension, repetition, ability to name objects, and writing skills. Fluency is assessed by observing the patient's spontaneous speech. Abnormalities in fluency would include shortened phrases, decreased number of words per minute, increased effort with speech, and agrammatism. Patients with Wernicke's aphasia should have fluent speech, so abnormalities in fluency may indicate a different type of aphasia. Comprehension is assessed by giving the patient commands to follow, beginning with simple commands and progressing to more complex commands. Repetition is evaluated by having the patient repeat phrases, progressing from simple to more complex phrases. Both comprehension and repetition would be abnormal in Wernicke's aphasia. Content should also be assessed, by listening to a patient's spontaneous or instructed speech." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0278_13134", "title": "Impairments of lexical-semantic processing in aphasia: evidence from the processing of lexical ambiguities.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Broca's and Wernicke's aphasics performed speeded lexical decisions on the third member of auditorily presented triplets consisting of two word primes followed by either a word or a nonword. In three of the four priming conditions, the second prime was a homonym with two unrelated meanings. The relation of the first prime and the target with the two meanings of the homonym was manipulated in the different priming conditions. The two readings of the ambiguous words either shared their grammatical form class (noun-noun ambiguities) or not (noun-verb ambiguities). The silent intervals between the members of the triplets were varied between 100, 500, and 1250 msec. Priming at the shortest interval is mainly attributed to automatic lexical processing, and priming at the longest interval is mainly due to forms of controlled lexical processing. For both Broca's and Wernicke's aphasics overall priming effects were obtained at ISIs of 100 and 500 msec, but not at an ISI of 1250 msec. This pattern of results is consistent with the view that both types of aphasics can automatically access the semantic lexicon, but might be impaired in integrating lexical-semantic information into the context. Broca's aphasics showed a specific impairment in selecting the contextually appropriate reading of noun-verb ambiguities, which is suggested to result from a failure either in the on-line morphological parsing of complex word forms into a stem and an inflection or in the on-line exploitation of the syntactic implications of the inflectional suffix. In a final experiment patients were asked to explicitly judge the semantic relations between a subset of the primes that were used in the lexical decision study. Wernicke's aphasics performed worse than both Broca's aphasics and normal controls, indicating a specific impairment for these patients in consciously operating on automatically accessed lexical-semantic information." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_49815", "title": "Transcortical sensory aphasia", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Transcortical sensory aphasia (TSA) is a kind of aphasia that involves damage to specific areas of the temporal lobe of the brain, resulting in symptoms such as poor auditory comprehension, relatively intact repetition, and fluent speech with semantic paraphasias present. TSA is a fluent aphasia similar to Wernicke's aphasia (receptive aphasia), with the exception of a strong ability to repeat words and phrases. The person may repeat questions rather than answer them (\"echolalia\")." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 412, 487 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 68, 78 ] ], "text": "prescribing cyclic progesterone is not indicated in a postmenopausal woman." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 171 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 28 ] ], "text": "We are being presented with a case of postmenopausal metrorrhagia. In a case like this we must rule out endometrial neoplasia, so an endometrial biopsy would be indicated," }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 231, 309 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 37, 52 ] ], "text": "A cervical biopsy is not of interest in this case since the cytology is normal" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 314, 402 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 53, 67 ] ], "text": "hormonal assessment is not going to be useful in the diagnosis of endometrial neoplasia." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Prescribe cyclic progesterone.", "2": "Endometrial biopsy.", "3": "Random cervical biopsies.", "4": "Hormonal evaluation with FSH, LH and estradiol.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0356_10102", "title": "Transvaginal ultrasonography of the endometrium in women with postmenopausal bleeding: is it always necessary to perform an endometrial biopsy?", "score": 0.01702405099971023, "content": "This study was undertaken to evaluate whether it was possible to abstain from performing an endometrial biopsy when endometrial thickness according to transvaginal ultrasonography was &lt;/=4 mm in women with postmenopausal bleeding or irregular bleeding during hormone replacement therapy. Transvaginal ultrasonography was performed in 361 women aged &gt;/=50 years who were referred because of postmenopausal bleeding or irregular bleeding during hormone replacement therapy. If endometrial thickness was &lt;/=4 mm, a Papanicolaou cervical smear was performed and the woman was reexamined with transvaginal ultrasonography after 4 and 12 months. Subjects were also instructed to return if they had recurrent bleeding, in which case transvaginal ultrasonography was performed and an endometrial biopsy specimen was obtained. Women with an endometrial thickness &gt;/=5 mm underwent either curettage or endometrial biopsy. One hundred sixty-three women had an endometrial thickness &lt;/=4 mm. In this group one endometrial cancer that was missed by ultrasonography was diagnosed by cervical cytologic examination and two adnexal malignancies were diagnosed by ultrasonography. Endometrial malignancy was diagnosed in 0.6% of the women with an endometrial thickness &lt;/=4 mm. Endometrial biopsy was performed because of recurrent bleeding in 6.1% of cases and because of endometrial thickening in 8.1%. No cancer or hyperplasia was subsequently diagnosed among the women with an endometrial thickness &lt;/=4 mm. Endometrial cancer was diagnosed in 18.7% of the women with an endometrial thickness &gt;/=5 mm. The corresponding figure when atypical hyperplasia and endometrial metastases were included was 20. 2%. If the false-negative rate of endometrial biopsy techniques is taken into account, then the combination of transvaginal ultrasonography and cervical cytologic examination is an adequate form of management for women with postmenopausal bleeding or irregular bleeding during hormone replacement therapy as long as endometrial thickness is &lt;/=4 mm. A randomized prospective study is necessary to verify this finding." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0391_1186", "title": "Atypical complex endometrial hyperplasia treated with the GyneLase system.", "score": 0.015671870217324763, "content": "A 47-year-old premenopausal, para 1, gravida 1 woman complained of menometrorrhagia. She had no risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, and office endometrial biopsy indicated focal, nonatypical endometrial hyperplasia. Seven months later the patient was scheduled for hysteroscopic endometrial resection. Instead she was treated by hysteroscopy, curettage, and the GyneLase system. The curetting indicated atypical, complex endometrial hyperplasia. The woman refused hysterectomy and salpingo-oophorectomy and adjunctive therapy with progesterone. She agreed to close surveillance and further treatment if she had any vaginal bleeding. At 13 months she remains amenorrheic, the endometrial echo is 2 mm, and follicle-stimulating hormone level is 63 IU/L. Based on the patient's amenorrhea and ultrasound uterine measurement, it is tempting to assume that GyneLase treatment may have cured her atypical hyperplasia. However, at this time, we have no evidence to substantiate this assumption." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0013_9950", "title": "A prospective, controlled trial of six forms of hormone replacement therapy given to postmenopausal women.", "score": 0.014345794392523363, "content": "This study was undertaken to investigate the effect of various forms of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) upon postmenopausal women while controlling as many variables as possible. It was felt that the age, duration of amenorrhoea and the general health of the patients should be as comparable as possible and that each patient should provide her own pretherapy and post-therapy control data. In addition, it was felt that any placebo effect should be investigated and the patients were therefore randomly allocated to placebo tablets or one of six available forms of HRT. The age/sex registers of two large general practices were scrutinized and all women between 49 and 54 years of age were asked to cooperate; for a variety of reasons only 56 women were suitable and willing to take part in the project, yielding 8 women for each of the seven possible therapy groups. Blood samples were taken at 7-day intervals three times before therapy was given and the mean of the three values was used as the control value. The women returned on day 21 of each subsequent therapy cycle for six consecutive months and finally three months after discontinuing therapy. From the data the following broad conclusions can be drawn: (i) some women have classic symptoms of hot flushes and sweating despite high endogenous oestrogen concentrations; (ii) vaginal cytology is a relatively poor indicator of endogenous oestrogen status; (iii) while follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations are reduced on HRT neither is decreased to anywhere near premenopausal values while prolactin is unaffected; (iv) plasma cholesterol levels are reduced on HRT, the pulse rate is slower and both systolic and diastolic blood pressure are reduced to a small but significant extent; (v) there is no adverse effect upon blood clotting; and (vi) most women experience significant or complete relief of symptoms on all forms of HRT as do some women taking a placebo. The combined preparations containing an oestrogen and progestogen produced vaginal bleeding in only 80 per cent of the women. Thus protection by regular endometrical shedding may not be afforded to all women. As vaginal bleeding is unacceptable to most women if they can achieve the same symptomatic relief without inducing menstruation, it is suggested that women have a low dose oestrogen preparation prescribed cyclically for 6 to 12 months. If therapy is to be maintained for a longer time, uterine curretage should be undertaken at regular intervals to exclude the possibility of endometrial carcinoma developing." }, { "id": "article-21104_28", "title": "Endometrial Hyperplasia -- Treatment / Management -- Treatment duration and follow up:", "score": 0.011201298701298702, "content": "In order to induce the regression of the hyperplasia, treatment should be for at least six months. Endometrial surveillance with office endometrial biopsy is recommended at six-monthly intervals. Before discharging the patient, two consecutive 6 – monthly negative biopsies should be obtained. Women who have a BMI of more than 35 and who were treated with oral progestogens are at a higher risk of relapse and should be advised annual follow -up. All women should be advised to come for a follow -up if they experience the symptoms of abnormal uterine bleeding.[2]" }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_1988", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.010515392597717053, "content": "3. If this hormonal therapy is not effective, the patient should be reevaluated and the diagnosis should be reassessed. The failure of hormonal management suggests that a local cause of bleeding is more likely. In this event, consideration should be given to a pelvic ultrasonographic examination to determine any anatomic causes of bleeding (such as uterine leiomyomas, endometrial polyps, or endometrial hyperplasia) and to assess the presence of intrauterine clots that may impair uterine contractility and prolong the bleeding episode. Although anatomic causes of heavy menstrual bleeding are rare in adolescents, they become increasingly common in women of reproductive age. 4. If intrauterine clots are detected, evacuation of the clots (suction curettage or D&C) is indicated. Although a D&C will provide effective immediate control of the bleeding, it is unusual to reach this step in adolescents." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_819", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009997065081810846, "content": "First step: Obtain a β-hCG to rule out ectopic pregnancy. Second step: Order a CBC to rule out anemia. Third step: Pap smear to rule out cervical cancer (which can present with bleeding). TFTs to rule out hyper-/hypothyroidism and hyperprolactinemia. Obtain platelet count, bleeding time, and PT/PTT to rule out von Willebrand’s disease and factor XI def ciency. Order an ultrasound to evaluate the ovaries, uterus, and endometrium. Look for uterine masses, polycystic ovaries, and thickness of the endometrium. If the endometrium is ≥ 4 mm in a postmenopausal woman, obtain an endometrial biopsy. An endometrial biopsy should also be obtained if the patient is > 35 years of age, obese (BMI > 35), and diabetic. Heavy bleeding: Since heavy or prolonged uterine bleeding has likely denuded the endometrial cavity, estrogen is needed to rapidly promote endometrial growth." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2127", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009985885673959069, "content": "Table 14.16 Etiology of Postmenopausal Bleeding From Hacker NF, Moore JG. Essentials of obstetrics and gynecology, 3rd ed. Philadelphia: WB Saunders, 1998:635, with permission. Endometrial sampling is indicated for any unexpected bleeding that occurs with hormonal therapy. A significant change in withdrawal bleeding or breakthrough bleeding (e.g., absence of withdrawal bleeding for several months followed by resumption of bleeding or a marked increase in the amount of bleeding) should prompt endometrial sampling. Patient adherence to hormonal regimens is a significant issue with hormone therapy, with the challenges of oral therapy mitigated by nonoral routes of administration (247). Missed doses of oral medication and failure to take the medication in the prescribed fashion can lead to irregular bleeding or spotting that is benign in origin but that can result in patient dissatisfaction (248)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0769_20667", "title": "Management of hypogonadism in adolescent girls and adult women with Prader-Willi syndrome.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by an insatiable appetite, dysmorphic features, cognitive and behavioral difficulties, and hypogonadism. The heterogeneous reproductive hormone profiles indicate that some PWS women may have symptoms of hypoestrogenism, while others may potentially be fertile. We describe our experience in the assessment and treatment of hypogonadism in adolescents and adult females with PWS. The study population consisted of 20 PWS females, age ≥16 years (27.3 ± 7.9 years), followed in our clinic (12 deletion, 7 uniparental disomy, 1 imprinting-center defect). General physical examination, pubertal assessment, body mass index (BMI), gynecological examination, ultrasonography, bone densitometry, and hormonal profiles [FSH, LH, inhibin B, estradiol, prolactin, and TSH] were performed. The relevant assessed factors were: FSH and inhibin B, menstrual cycles (oligo/amenorrhea or irregular bleeding), ultrasound findings (endometrial thickness, uterine/ovarian abnormalities), BMI, bone densitometry, and patient/caregivers attitude. We classified seven women with inhibin B &gt;20 ng/ml as potentially fertile. Following the assessment of the above factors, we recommended the individual-specific treatment; contraceptive pills, intra-uterine device, estrogen/progesterone replacement, and cyclic progesterone, in 3, 1, 4, and 1 patients, respectively. Four patients did not follow our recommendations due to poor compliance or family refusal. We recommended contraception pills for one 26-year-old woman with inhibin B and FSH levels 53 ng/ml and 6.4 IU/L; however, she refused treatment, conceived spontaneously and had an abortion. Guidelines for hormonal replacement therapy in PWS need to be tailored individually depending on physical development, hormonal profiles, bone density, and emotional and social needs of each PWS adolescent and adult." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0389_9120", "title": "[Evaluation of weight and morphotype of French women in gynecological consultation].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Weight and morphology change with age in proportions which depend on numerous environmental factors. This French study on 3,000 women age between 40 and 70, seeing their gynecologist, has shown that the average body mass index of this population is 23.97 kg/m2, and that the waist hip ratio is 0.81. Those two parameters increase with age and are reduced when women have a physical activity for more than 2 hours a week and are on oral contraception or hormone replacement therapy. Women on percutaneous hormone replacement therapy have a lower body mass index and a lower waist hip ratio. Cigarette smoking goes with a lower body mass index. When it dates back to more than 5 years, menopause is associated with a body mass index increase. In this population, the proportion of women under hormone replacement therapy is 69%, mostly percutaneous estrogenotherapy on a discontinuous sequential rhythm." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0930_19913", "title": "Menstrual restoration in severe panhypopituitarism many years after cranial irradiation for suprasellar germinoma.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We report a very rare case showing menstrual restoration in severe pan-hypopituitarism many years after cranial irradiation for suprasellar germinoma. A 30-year-old, almost primarily amenorrheic woman with severe panhypopituitarism presented with cyclic genital bleeding for the previous five months. She had menstruated once, when she was 13 years old. When she was 14 years old, she was diagnosed with a suprasellar germinoma measuring 10 mm in diameter, which led to diabetes insipidus. Cranial irradiation with a total dose of 24 Gy and chemotherapy resulted in complete tumor remission. She developed severe hypopituitarism [luteinizing hormone (LH) = 0.4 mIU/mL, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) = 1.7 mIU/mL, and serum estradiol (E2) level &lt; 10 pg/mL]. She had received multiple hormone replacement therapies for many years. When she was 29 years old, she expressed a desire to become pregnant. Serum gonadotropin and E2 levels increased (LH = 5.8 mIU/mL, FSH = 5.9 mIU/mL, and E2 = 58 pg/mL). She conceived with clomiphene therapy, and then delivered a healthy baby. Eight months after parturition, her basal body temperature and serum progesterone levels indicated recovery of ovulatory cycles. Ten months after parturition, she also spontaneously conceived. Menstrual restoration is very rare in severe panhypopituitarism after cranial irradiation. A relatively low dose of irradiation and small tumor size may have contributed to the recovery of menstruation in our patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0507_19555", "title": "[Women's opinion on hormone pills and the main sources of information].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The aim of this paper was to analyze and to evaluate women's opinion on hormone pills and the influence on hormone pill usage and reveal the main sources of information. Women who came for pregnancy termination (Group A) and women who came for consultation on further usage of contraception (Group K) have been interrogated. Interrogation according the special questionnaire has been performed at four consultation centers and three gynecologic clinics of Kaunas city. It was find out that due to the wrong information 25.1% of women in group A and 35% of women in group K thought that hormone pills cause irregular bleeding (p=0.01). Another myth - the possibility to become pregnant when taking pills - was indicated by 17% of women in group A and 32.4% of women in group K (p=0.01). Nine percent in group A and 12% in group K were confident that when taking hormone pills for some period of time one will not be able to become pregnant in the future. Seventy three percent of group A women and 80% of group K women indicated that the use of hormone pills increases the body weight (p=0.01). This research showed that the women that used hormone pills were properly informed about their treatment and side effects. Fifty four percent of group A women and 36% of group K women indicated that hormone pills were not suitable in case of several diseases (p=0.01). Eighty three percent of group A women and 71% of group K knew that hormone pills did not protect from cervical cancer (p=0.01). This information was mainly obtained from medical workers. The main reason why women of fertile age who took part in our research used little of hormone pills was false information received from insufficiently skilled persons and accordingly the negative opinion about hormone pills. Women's opinion on hormone pills is a very important factor for its usage. This opinion depends on sources of information, whether women received correct or false information on hormone pills. The most reliable source of information indicated by investigated women was medical personnel." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_113881", "title": "Menopause", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The stages of the menopause transition have been classified according to a woman's reported bleeding pattern, supported by changes in the pituitary follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels. In younger women, during a normal menstrual cycle the ovaries produce estradiol, testosterone and progesterone in a cyclical pattern under the control of FSH and luteinizing hormone (LH), which are both produced by the pituitary gland. During perimenopause (approaching menopause), estradiol levels and patterns of production remain relatively unchanged or may increase compared to young women, but the cycles become frequently shorter or irregular. The often observed increase in estrogen is presumed to be in response to elevated FSH levels that, in turn, is hypothesized to be caused by decreased feedback by inhibin. Similarly, decreased inhibin feedback after hysterectomy is hypothesized to contribute to increased ovarian stimulation and earlier menopause." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0667_14440", "title": "Clinical practice guidelines on menorrhagia: management of abnormal uterine bleeding before menopause.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Normal menstrual periods last 3-6 days and involve blood loss of up to 80ml. Menorrhagia is defined as menstrual periods lasting more than 7 days and/or involving blood loss greater than 80ml. The prevalence of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) is estimated at 11-13% in the general population and increases with age, reaching 24% in those aged 36-40 years. A blood count for red cells+platelets to test for anemia is recommended on a first-line basis for women consulting for AUB whose history and/or bleeding score justify it. A pregnancy test by an hCG assay should be ordered. A speculum examination and Pap smear, according to the French High Health Authority guidelines should be performed early on to rule out any cervical disease. Pelvic ultrasound, both abdominal (suprapubic) and transvaginal, is recommended as a first-line procedure for the etiological diagnosis of AUB. Hysteroscopy or hysterosonography can be suggested as a second-line procedure. MRI is not recommended as a first-line procedure. In idiopathic AUB, the first-line treatment is medical, with efficacy ranked as follows: levonorgestrel IUD, tranexamic acid, oral contraceptives, either estrogens and progestins or synthetic progestins only, 21 days a month, or NSAIDs. When hormone treatment is contraindicated or immediate pregnancy is desired, tranexamic acid is indicated. Iron must be included for patients with iron-deficiency anemia. For women who do not wish to become pregnant in the future and who have idiopathic AUB, the long-term efficacy of conservative surgical treatment is greater than that of oral medical treatment. Placement of a levonorgestrel IUD (or administration of tranexamic acid by default) is recommended for women with idiopathic AUB. If this fails, a conservative surgical technique must be proposed; the choices include second-generation endometrial ablation techniques (thermal balloon, microwave, radiofrequency), or, if necessary, first-generation techniques (endometrectomy, roller-ball). A first-line hysterectomy is not recommended in this context. Should a hysterectomy be selected for functional bleeding, it should be performed by the vaginal or laparoscopic routes." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2049", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009646456566949287, "content": "Endometrial Sampling Endometrial sampling should be performed to evaluate abnormal bleeding in women who are at risk for endometrial pathology, including polyps, hyperplasia, or carcinoma. Such sampling is mandatory in the evaluation of anovulatory bleeding in women older than 35 to 40 years of age, in younger women who are obese, and in those who do not respond to medical therapy or those with a history of prolonged anovulation (143). The technique of D&C, which was used extensively for the evaluation of abnormal bleeding, was largely replaced by endometrial biopsy in the office. The classic study in which a D&C was performed before hysterectomy with the conclusion that less than one-half of the endometrium was sampled in more than one-half of the patients led to questioning the use of D&C for endometrial diagnosis (176,177). Hysteroscopy, either diagnostic or operative, with endometrial sampling, can be performed either in the office or operating room (178)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1080_739", "title": "Estrogen-secreting adrenocortical tumor in a postmenopausal woman: a challenging diagnosis.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Adrenocortical carcinoma (ACC) is a malignant disorder with rapid evolution and severe prognosis in adults and most produce cortisol and androgen. Estrogen-secreting adrenocortical carcinomas are extremely rare, especially in women, tend to be larger and have worse prognosis compared with other types of ACCs. We report the case of a 58-year-old woman who presented with bilateral breast enlargement and postmenopausal genital bleeding. She presented high estradiol (818 pg/mL - 25 times above upper normal limit for postmenopausal women) and testosterone (158 ng/dL - 2 times above upper normal limit) levels and no suppression of cortisol after overnight 1 mg dexamethasone test (12.5 µg/dL; normal reference value: &lt; 1.8 µg/dL). The patient had no clinical features of cortisol excess. MRI showed a 12 cm tumor in the right adrenal. Clinical findings of bilateral breast enlargement and postmenopausal genital bleeding with no signs of hypercortisolism associated with hormonal findings of elevated estradiol and testosterone levels would indicate either an ovarian etiology or an adrenal etiology; however, in the context of plasma cortisol levels non-suppressive after dexamethasone test and the confirmation of an adrenal tumor by MRI, the diagnosis of an adrenal tumor with mixed hormonal secretion was made. The patient underwent an open right adrenalectomy and pathological examination revealed an ACC with a Weiss' score of 6. Estradiol and testosterone levels decreased to normal range soon after surgery. She was put on mitotane treatment as adjuvant therapy, but due to side effects, we were unable to up-titrate the dose and she never achieved serum mitotane dosage above the desired 14 µg/mL. The patient remained in good health without any local recurrence or metastasis until 5 years after surgery, when increased levels of estradiol (81 pg/mL - 2.5 times above upper normal limit) and testosterone (170 ng/dL - 2.1 times above upper normal limit) were detected. MRI revealed a retroperitoneal nodule measuring 1.8 × 1.2 cm. The pathological finding confirmed the recurrence of the estrogen-secreting ACC with a Weiss' score of 6. After the second procedure, patient achieved normal estrogen and androgen serum levels and since then she has been followed for 3 years. The overall survival was 8 years after the diagnosis. In conclusion, although extremely rare, a diagnosis of an estrogen-secreting ACC should be considered as an etiology in postmenopausal women presenting with bilateral breast enlargement, genital bleeding and increased pure or prevailing estrogen secretion. Estrogen-secreting adrenocortical carcinomas are exceedingly rare in adults and account for 1-2% of adrenocortical carcinomas. Estrogen-secreting adrenal tumors can be present in females, but are even more rare, we found few cases described in the literature. In women, they present with precocious puberty or postmenopausal bleeding. Feminization in the context of an adrenal tumor is considered almost pathognomonic of malignancy. Feminizing ACCs tend to be larger and with worse prognosis compared with nonfeminizing ACCs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0363_22476", "title": "[Guideline for the diagnosis of postmenopausal bleeding. PMPB Working Group of the SGGG].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "2.1. History and clinical-gynecological investigation including a Pap smear are the first step in the clarification. The history should make sure if there is in fact bleeding from the genital and not from the urological or the intestinal region. Drug intake should be recorded, and risk factors for the development of endometrial carcinoma should be considered. This will not affect further investigation. The clinical-gynecological investigation should prove the source of postmenopausal bleeding according to the anatomical site--uterine, infra-, or suprauterine. The causes of infrauterine bleeding may easily be diagnosed by means of inspection of the external genitalia and further by using a speculum. The causes of uterine bleeding are of major importance. Cytology and colposcopy, supported by bimanual investigation, exclude cervical carcinoma as a cause of bleeding. Atypical endometrial cells on the cytological smear arouse suspicion of endometrial carcinoma. 2.2. Transvaginal sonography (TVS) is the next step if the above-mentioned investigations are negative. Both adnexa should always be investigated and the findings sonographically documented, so that solid cystic masses in the adnexal area can be better identified as suprauterine causes of postmenopausal bleeding. Then the uterus should be investigated. Further procedures are decided from the results of measurement of the longitudinal section of the endometrium at the level of maximum endometrial thickness. If the endometrial thickness is _&lt;4 mm, an observant attitude can be assumed. After 3 months the patient should be controlled against using TVS. If bleeding recurs or the endometrial thickness is &gt;4 mm on TVS, the procedure given in subparagraph 2.3 should be followed. In case the endometrial thickness is &gt;4mm or not measurable, a histomorphological investigation according to subparagraph 2.3 should be performed. In such cases, saline infusion sonohysterography(SIS) is useful as a simple method to supplement TVS. It can aid in the decision making as to which further, more invasive measures should be taken (endometrial biopsy/hysteroscopic resection). Computerized tomography or magnetic resonance imaging are, as a rule, not indicated in patients with postmenopausal bleeding. 2.3. A definite diagnosis is possible only on the basis of a histological investigation. If TVS or SS show evidence of a polypoid state, removal under hysteroscopic control is the diagnostic method of choice. In cases of symmetrical or asymmetrical thickening of the endometrium on SIS, a less invasive biopsy may be sufficient. If the biopsy specimen does not yield representative diagnostic material, one should proceed as described above. A fractionated curettage should as a rule not be performed solely, but in combination with hysteroscopy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1107_13669", "title": "Cyclic Progesterone Therapy in Androgenic Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)-A 6-Month Pilot Study of a Single Woman's Experience Changes.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "<iBackground and Objectives:</i Women with androgenic Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) have increased endometrial cancer risk that cyclic progesterone will prevent; it may also reverse PCOS's neuroendocrine origins. This pilot study's purpose was to document 6-month <iexperience changes</i in a woman with PCOS taking cyclic progesterone therapy because she was intolerant of combined hormonal contraceptive therapy, the current PCOS standard of care. A 31-year-old normal-weight woman with PCOS had heavy flow, irregular cycles, and was combined hormonal contraceptives-intolerant. She was prescribed cyclic oral micronized progesterone (OMP) (300 mg/<ih.s.</i cycle days 14-27). She kept Menstrual Cycle Diary© (Diary) records, starting with the 1st treatment cycle for six cycles; she was on no other therapy. Statistical analysis <ia priori</i hypothesized progesterone decreases high estradiol (E2) experiences (flow, cervical mucus, fluid retention, front-of-the-breast tenderness and anxiety); analysis focused on these. Our objectives: (1) changes from cycles 1 to 6 in E2-related experiences; and (2) follicular phase E2-related changes from cycle 1 (no therapy) to cycles 3 and 6. <iMaterials and Methods:</i Data from consecutive Diaries were entered into an SPSS database and analyzed by Wilcoxon Signed Rank Test (Objective #1) within-person whole cycle ordinal data, and (Objective #2 follicular phase) repeated measures ANOVA. <iResults:</i Cyclic OMP was associated with regular, shorter cycles (±SD) (28.2 ± 0.8 days). Comparison of cycles 1-6 showed decreased fluid retention (<ip</i = 0.001), breast tenderness (<ip</i = 0.002), and cervical mucus (<ip</i = 0.048); there were no changes in flow or anxiety. Fluid retention in the follicular phase also significantly decreased over time (F (1.2, 14.7) = 6.7, <ip</i = 0.017). <iConclusions:</i Pilot daily Diary data suggest women with PCOS have improved everyday experiences on cyclic progesterone therapy. Larger prospective studies with more objective outcomes and randomized controlled trials of this innovative PCOS therapy are needed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0396_12308", "title": "[Endometrial hyperplasias resistant to progestins: alternatives to traditional treatments].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Endometrial hyperplasias are mainly regarded as a response to unopposed endogenous estrogenic stimulation and concern 12% of perimenopausal women. They are usually diagnosed because of irregular bleeding. They are divided into two categories based on the presence or absence of cytological atypia and further classified as simple or complex according to the extent of architectural abnormalities. Endometrial hyperplasias with cytological atypia are classically treated by hysterectomy. Endometrial hyperplasias without cytological atypia are classically treated by progestins. The bad observance (25% spontaneously stopping), the 30% recurrence rate after stopping progestin and the 12-53% resistance rate to treatment lead to propose a second-line therapy after endocrinological check-up, exploration of haemostasis, pelvic ultrasonography, hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsies. Standard treatments include uterine curettage which is not very effective and hysterectomy. Medical alternatives (gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists, levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device) and surgical alternatives (endometrial resection, thermal balloon endometrial ablation) were developed to avoid treating functional pathology radically. These conservative procedures correct 80% of endometrial hyperplasia symptoms with a low rate of lateral effects. However, these results need to be confirmed by long-term studies. Some economical, legal or material factors can also limit carrying out the procedures. Clinical trials need to be performed to better define the place of medical and surgical alternatives to hysterectomy in the treatment of endometrial hyperplasias resistant to progestins." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0226_936", "title": "The effect of a synthetic progestogen, ethylnorgestrienone, on hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian function, cervical mucus, vaginal cytology, and endometrial morphology.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The antifertility mechanism of a new progestin preparation, ethylnorgestrienone (13 beta-ethyl-17 alpha-ethynyl-17-hydroxy-gona-4,9,11-triene-3-one) (R2323), was evaluated. The compound was administered orally in doses of 5 mg weekly to seven subjects for a total of nine treatment cycles. Each woman served as her own control and was studied during a normal menstrual cycle followed by a cycle in which she received R2323. Serum concentrations of luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), estradiol, and progesterone, as well as cervical mucus properties, were studied serially during the control and treatment cycles. Results indicated that all control cycles were ovulatory. Ovulatory gonadotropin patterns were observed in four treated cycles, but preovulatory FSH and LH peaks and progesterone production during the luteal phase were suppressed significantly. Estradiol levels showed an early increase during the follicular phase and a significantly decreased preovulatory peak. Cervical mucus properties were altered and sperm penetration in cervical mucus was inhibited in all treatment cycles. These findings suggest that at least two different factors might be involved in the contraceptive mechanism of R2323: (1) alteration of the ovulatory process and progesterone production, and (2) cervical mucus changes leading to inhibition of sperm migration." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2126", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Differential Diagnosis The causes of postmenopausal bleeding and the percentage of patients who seek treatment for different conditions are presented in Table 14.16. Hormone therapy may be used to manage troublesome menopausal symptoms; it is recommended to treat with the lowest effective dose with the risks versus benefits regularly reviewed by a woman and her doctor (246). Women who are taking hormone therapy during menopause may be using a variety of hormonal regimens that can result in bleeding (see Chapter 34). Because unopposed estrogen therapy can result in endometrial hyperplasia, various regimens of progestins are typically added to the estrogen regimen; they are given in a continuous fashion, although they may be given in a sequential fashion for women within 1 year of menopause (246). Table 14.16 Etiology of Postmenopausal Bleeding From Hacker NF, Moore JG. Essentials of obstetrics and gynecology, 3rd ed. Philadelphia: WB Saunders, 1998:635, with permission." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_90829", "title": "Anorgasmia", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Women suffering from anorgasmia with no obvious psychological cause would need to be examined by their GP to check for absence of disease. Blood tests would also need to be done (full blood count, liver function, oestradiol/estradiol, total testosterone, SHBG, FSH/LH, prolactin, thyroid function, lipids and fasting blood sugar) to check for other conditions such as diabetes, lack of ovulation, low thyroid function or hormone imbalances. The normal thresholds for these tests and timing in a woman's menstrual cycle is detailed in Berman et al., 2005. They would then need to be referred to a specialist in sexual medicine. The specialist would check the patient's blood results for hormonal levels, thyroid function and diabetes, evaluate genital blood flow and genital sensation, as well as giving a neurological work-up to determine the degree (if any) of nerve damage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1026_22092", "title": "A Case of Uterine Cervical Adenocarcinoma in Which Initial Total Laparoscopic Hysterectomy Was Performed for Suspected Atypical Endometrial Hyperplasia.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The patient was a 69-year-old multiparous female (gravida/para, 3/3) who had hypertension and arrhythmia. Her history included cerebral infarction treated with conservative therapy. She visited our hospital for atypical genital bleeding. She was diagnosed with atypical glandular cells (AGC) based on cervical cytology, atypical cells in endometrial cytology, and atypical endometrial hyperplasia on preoperative endometrial biopsy, and underwent total laparoscopic hysterectomy. However, in a postoperative pathologic examination, she was diagnosed with stage IB1 cervical adenocarcinoma without endometrial abnormality. AGC appeared in cervical cytology before surgery, but a surgical plan was not made with consideration of cervical adenocarcinoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0727_22359", "title": "Postmenopausal bleeding should be referred urgently.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Postmenopausal bleeding is an episode of bleeding 12 months or more after the last menstrual period. It occurs in up to 10% of women aged over 55 years. All women with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred urgently. Endometrial cancer is present in around 10% of patients; most bleeding has a benign cause. The peak incidence for endometrial carcinoma is between 65 and 75 years of age. Causes of postmenopausal bleeding include: endometrial carcinoma; cervical carcinoma; vaginal atrophy; endometrial hyperplasia +/- polyp; cervical polyps; hormone-producing ovarian tumours; haematuria and rectal bleeding. The aim of assessment and investigation of postmenopausal bleeding is to identify a cause and exclude cancer. Assessment should start by taking a detailed history, with identification of risk factors for endometrial cancer, as well as a medication history covering use of HRT, tamoxifen and anticoagulants. Abdominal and pelvic examinations should be carried out to look for masses. Speculum examination should be performed to see if a source of bleeding can be identified, assess atrophic changes in the vagina and look for evidence of cervical malignancy or polyps. Ultrasound scan and endometrial biopsy are complementary. Ultrasound scan can define endometrial thickness and identify structural abnormalities of the uterus, endometrium and ovaries. Endometrial biopsy provides a histological diagnosis. The measurement of endometrial thickness aims to identify which women with postmenopausal bleeding are at significant risk of endometrial cancer. If the examination is normal, the bleeding has stopped and the endometrial thickness is &lt; 5 mm on transvaginal ultrasound scan, no further action need be taken." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1071_16833", "title": "Endometriosis presenting as vaginal polyps: outpatient vaginoscopic treatment.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To demonstrate an outpatient vaginoscopic technique for treating multiple vaginal polyps. Demonstration of surgical technique using slides, pictures, and video. Private hospital. Thirty-two-year-old nulligravid woman presenting to the gynecology clinic with one episode of intermenstrual bleeding, regular menstrual cycles with normal flow, and no history of dysmenorrhoea or dyspareunia. The genital local examination was normal, and speculum examination showed multiple vaginal lesions like polyps in the proximal posterior two-thirds and right lateral vaginal walls. Her transvaginal ultrasound read a normal uterus with a right ovarian simple cyst. The surgeon performed an outpatient operative vaginoscopy using a 5-mm continuous flow office hysteroscope with a 2.9-mm rod lens optical system and a 5F working channel. Distension of the vagina was achieved with a normal saline solution, and an intrauterine pressure of 50 to 60 mm Hg was maintained by an irrigation and aspiration electronic pump. An inspection of the vaginal walls, fornices, and the external cervical os (Fig. 1) revealed 10 vaginal lesions like polyps in the proximal two-thirds of the posterior and right lateral vaginal wall. The vaginal lesions (Fig. 2) varied in size from 0.5 cm to 4 cm. An excisional biopsy was performed and the sample sent for histopathologic evaluation. The vaginal lesions &lt;2 cm in length were excised by cutting the base with scissors or using a bipolar vaporization electrode, which was connected to an electrocautery unit by a bipolar high-frequency cord. Vaginal lesions &gt;2 cm were excised with the TruClear 5C Hysteroscopic Tissue Removal System (HTRS) with a zero-degree scope using the 2.9-mm incisor with a 5-mm cutting window at one end attached to a reusable handpiece with two connectors-one to the motor unit and second to the suction bottle with a collection bag. The overall diameter of TruClear 5C is 5.7 mm, and the optic size is 0.8 mm. The same irrigation pump is compatible with HTRS, and the pressure was increased to 150 mm Hg to maintain vaginal distension. Three factors influenced our decision to use the HTRS intraoperatively: the number and size of the vaginal lesions and the surgical time in the outpatient setting. A mechanical system that works on the principle of excising and aspirating tissue, the HTRS incisor has a rotatory action with the excising window placed against the most distal part of the vaginal lesions. The cutting action is controlled via a foot pedal attached to a motor control with 800 rotations per minute. The handpiece remains stationary while the polyp is excised and aspirated through the window into the collection bag. Minimal bleeding occurred and stopped spontaneously. The institutional ethics committee exempted this case report from review, and we obtained informed written consent from the patient. All vaginal lesions excised in an outpatient setting via vaginoscopy technique without anesthesia. The operative time with the Bettocchi hysteroscope was 14 minutes, and HTRS was 6 minutes. The patient did not complain of pain but did describe minimal discomfort, rated on the visual analog scale as 2 (where ≥5 is severe pain). She was discharged 1 hour later. The histopathology was reported as vaginal endometriosis (ectopic presentation of endometriosis is rare, accounting for 0.02% of cases). After surgery, she was started on cyclical oral contraceptive pills (OCP) in the combination of 30 mg of ethinyl estradiol + 2 mg of dienogest because she desired to delay pregnancy by 1 year. She remained asymptomatic for 6 months. These contraceptive hormones are available in the form of oral pills, vaginal rings, and transdermal patches, and a physician can provide OCP continuously or cyclically. Continuous OCP is more efficacious for control of dysmenorrhoea, but cyclical OCP is preferred because it is affordable, tolerable, effective, produces no unpredictable bleeding, and slows the progression of the disease. (A cohort study found the contraceptive vaginal ring to be more effective for symptom-control in rectovaginal endometriosis with higher patient satisfaction than the transdermal patch; vaginal rings or transdermal patches are not available in some countries.) CONCLUSION(S): Vaginoscopy allows a more in-depth visualization of the vagina with complete inspection and removal of all polyps. Vaginoscopy is feasible in the outpatient setting and allows a comfortable, ergonomic position for the surgeon. Vaginoscopy or no-touch technique avoids the use of a speculum or tenaculum and results in minimal pain during the outpatient procedure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0573_47", "title": "[The effect of postmenopausal hormone replacement therapy on endometrial bleeding].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The aim of this study was to determine the effect of postmenopausal hormone replacement therapy (exclusively oestrogen or sequential/continuous combined oestrogen-progestogen treatment) on endometrial bleeding, including the histological alteration of the endometrium. From January 2000 to December 2005, 5893 women were treated by the authors in the menopause unit of their department. They examined the frequency of menopausal bleeding in treated and control groups. In case of bleeding, dilatation and fractional curettage was always carried out and the tissues were histologically evaluated. In menopausal patients who did not obtain hormone replacement therapy, bleeding occurred twice as frequently as in the treated group. Proliferating or hyperplastic endometrium was observed mainly among the treated patients, suggesting that in due time, even before the age of menopause, hormonal treatment might decrease hyperplasia and indirectly the chance of occurrence of adenocarcinoma. Hyperplasia was found more frequently in patients obtaining only oestrogen. According to the authors' view, unbalanced oestrogen treatment might further aggravate the existing hyperplasia of the endometrium. In the group treated with hormonal therapy, only simplex hyperplasia was observed. No case of complex hyperplasia with atypia was found among these patients. In the majority of patients on continuous balanced hormonal therapy, the myometrium underwent atrophy and the frequency of hyperplasia, including the chance of bleeding, mostly decreased. Endometrial polyps most frequently were found under hormonal therapy, but no acceptable explanation can be provided. The rate of cervical polyps was also higher in this group. According to the observations of the authors, hormone replacement therapy does not increase the risk of endometrial carcinoma. Combined preparations decrease the frequency of hyperplasia and consequently the chance of occurrence of adenocarcinoma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en558_21966", "title": "Pharmacodynamics of estradiol", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Generally, estrogens are antigonadotropic and inhibit gonadotropin secretion. However, in women, a sharp increase in estradiol levels to about 200 to 500 pg/mL occurs at the end of the follicular phase (mid-cycle) during the normal menstrual cycle and paradoxically triggers a surge in LH and FSH secretion. This occurs when estradiol concentrations reach levels of about 250 to 300 pg/mL. During the mid-cycle surge, LH levels increase by 3- to 12-fold and FSH levels increase by 2- to 4-fold. The surge lasts about 24 to 36 hours and triggers ovulation, the rupture of the dominant ovarian follicle and the release of the egg from the ovary into the oviduct. This estrogen-mediated gonadotropin surge effect has also been found to occur with exogenous estrogen, including in transgender women on hormone therapy and pre-hormone therapy transgender men acutely challenged with a high dose of an estrogen, but does not occur in men, pre-hormone therapy transgender women, or transgender men on" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0268_8086", "title": "[A \"no-bleeding\" substitute hormone treatment with an oral microdose progesterone. A prospective multicenter study].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Study of influence of different sequences of oral micronized progesterone (Pg) on endometrial morphology and the incidence of bleeding. Prospective comparative multicentric study conducted in 101 post-menopausal patients. 98 patients who did not wish any regular withdrawal bleeding were given percutaneous oestradiol 17-beta (E2) (1.5 mg/d) associated with micronized Pg (100 mg/d) at bedtime during either 21 out of 28 days (group I), or 25 days per calendar month (group III), during a minimum of 6 months. For those wishing withdrawal bleeding (n = 3), E2 (3 mg/d) during 25 days was associated with Pg (300 mg/d) from the 16th to the 25th day of the month (group III). Endometrial biopsies were performed after 6 months of the same treatment and blindly analysed; transvaginal ultrasonography (measurement of endometrial mucosa thickness) was done in case of insufficient amount of tissue. Groups I and II: 61% of the endometrium were quiescent without mitosis, 23% were slightly active with rare mitoses, 8% partly secretory and 4% subatrophic. Sampling was inadequate in the remaining 4%. Mitotic activity of glands was low on the overall samplings (average &lt; 0.53/1,000 cells). The average mucosa thickness was at 3.9 mm. No bleeding (spotting or withdrawal bleeding) occurred in 73.3% and 82.1% of cycles at the 3rd and 6th months of administration, respectively. Group III: endometrium were quiescent or slightly active and combined with frequent withdrawal bleeding. A relatively low dose of oral progesterone (100 mg/d) combined with E2 during 21d/28d or 25 d/month efficiently controls proliferation, induces a very low endometrial cyclic activity--while reducing spottings--and maintains an amenorrhea in the majority of women. This simple treatment is likely to improve compliance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0047_2561", "title": "[Suprasellar arachnoid cyst associated with precocious puberty: report of an operated case and review of the literature].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The pathogenesis remains unknown in the majority of patients with precocious puberty, and yet infrequently such causative cerebral lesions as hypothalamic hamartomas are associated with sexual precocity. We reported a rare case of suprasellar arachnoid cyst in an infant presenting with precocious puberty, which eventually disappeared after a cyst-peritoneal shunt. It was believed that the mass effect of the arachnoid cyst upon the hypothalamus was, at least in part, responsible for development of precocious puberty. The role of surgical decompression of the cyst was also discussed. A one-year-old girl was admitted to the hospital for evaluation of genital bleeding which had persisted on and off for two months. The height, 80cm, and the weight, 12.4kg, exceeded by far the two standard deviations from the mean level of the normal population. In addition she had the development of breast tissue as classified Tanner's Stage II, and both pubic and axillary hair. The bone age by skeletal survey of the hand was rated as 3 years. Endocrinological examination showed that serum levels of luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and estradiol had increased for her age, to levels equivalent to those for females at puberty. An LH-RH test revealed an excessive LH reaction. There were no definite neurological deficits. CT and MRI demonstrated the presence of a large arachnoid cyst involving the suprasellar region as well as the right middle and posterior fossa. After the patient underwent a cyst-peritoneal shunt, the cyst decreased in size and such symptoms as genital bleeding and breast growth disappeared. Serum levels of her LH and FSH also significantly decreased.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0211_10370", "title": "[Endometrial biopsy in hormonal imbalance].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Despite the new techniques of biochemical evaluation of steroid hormones in the plasma and urines, the endometrial biopsy remains an easy valuable method of evaluation of ovarian activity. The clinical indications of the endometrial biopsy are mainly a history of sterility or an abnormal uterine bleeding if we exclude the diagnosis of cancer. Different technical procedures should be followed carefully in order to get a valuable answer. The biopsy should be taken at the right time of the cycle which means 10 to 12 days after ovulation. The danger of interrupting a pregnancy is minimal but in a case of sterility, the biopsy can be performed 4 to 6 days after ovulation to prevent any interference with a early pregnancy. Proper fixation, embedding and staining must be the rule. A fragment of the middle layer of the functionalis must be present to evaluate accurately the hormonal stimulation. Isthmic or cervical tissues are unsuited for functional diagnosis. The existence of an endometritis or the administration of steroid hormones are clinical circumstances which prevent any functional evaluation. The normal menstrual cycle can be divided into different functional phases: the early, the middle and the late proliferative phases, and the early and late secretory phases followed by the menstruation period. The different cellular components of the endometrial mucosa will exhibit various changes corresponding to each of the phases. The interpretation of the endometrial biopsy lies in the correlation between the observed image and the image corresponding to that date of the cycle. The functional disturbances are associated with absent, deficient or excessive function of the ovarian hormonal secretion. The endometrial mucosa will reflect these anomalies revealing atrophic, hypoplastic or hyperplastic conditions of the glandular and stromal components. It is essential to obtain the clinical informations including the knowledge of any hormone administration to provide a valuable diagnosis. Properly interpreted, the endometrial biopsy remains a very useful technique in the study of hormonal ovarian disturbances." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_103786", "title": "Heavy menstrual bleeding", "score": 0.008966727716727716, "content": "Pap smear to rule out cervical neoplasia Pelvic ultrasound scan is the first line diagnostic tool for identifying structural abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy in women with high risk endometrial cancer or atypical hyperplasia or malignancy. Hysteroscopy (anaesthesia should be offered) Thyroid-stimulating hormone and thyrotropin-releasing hormone dosage to rule out hypothyroidism" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0495_23772", "title": "Endometrial carcinoma on continuous combined HRT: case report and literature review.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Continuous combined hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been introduced in an attempt to increase patient compliance by eliminating withdrawal bleeding which is one of the most significant and troublesome side effects of sequential HRT. Moreover, when given on a daily basis, progestin is thought to be more protective against the development of endometrial carcinoma. We describe the case of a 59-year-old woman, diagnosed with endometrial carcinoma while on continuous combined HRT. Her last menstrual period was 7 years ago and she had been on HRT ever since. Initially, she tricycled her preparation using transdermal gel 17beta-estradiol 1.5 mg daily along with vaginal micronised progesterone 200 mg daily from day 1 to 12 every 3 months for the first 5 years and she had regular withdrawal bleeding. She was then moved on to continuous combined HRT (transdermal gel 17beta-estradiol 2.25 mg daily plus dydrogesterone 10 mg per os daily) and started to be amenorrhoeic. A routine transvaginal ultrasound showed an increased endometrial echo (10 mm). She was completely asymptomatic. Further investigations resulted in a report of a well differentiated grade II endometrial carcinoma with squamous differentiation. A review of literature confirms endometrial cancer to be rare while on continuous progesterone and difficulties posed in diagnosing it." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1121_2196", "title": "A Case Report of Hyperestrogenism in Prader-Willi Syndrome.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is associated with multiple endocrinopathies, including hypogonadism. The mechanism underlying hypogonadism in PWS is thought to be secondary to hypothalamic dysfunction, primary gonadal defect, or a combination of both. Here, we present a case of hyperestrogenism in PWS due to concomitant polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) and therapeutic considerations regarding hormone replacement therapy (HRT). An 18-year-old woman with PWS transferred to adult care from pediatrics was found to have hyperestrogenism (specifically, elevated estrone with normal estradiol levels). Additionally, she demonstrated oligomenorrhea and hyperandrogenism, meeting diagnostic criteria for PCOS. After 3 months of therapy with cyclic medroxyprogesterone alone, she developed normal withdrawal bleeding. Given the elevated estrone and normal estradiol levels, our patient's hyperestrogenism is thought to be a direct result of her hyperandrogenism due to peripheral conversion. Prolonged exposure to unopposed estrogen is an established risk factor for endometrial cancer development in PCOS; thus, this was taken into account regarding her HRT, and she was treated with cyclic progesterone alone. Women with PWS are typically treated with combined estrogen and progesterone HRT; however, our case, a unique presentation of PCOS in PWS, demonstrated the importance of tailoring HRT to a patient's specific needs." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Enalapril.", "2": "Propanolol.", "3": "Amiloride.", "4": "Prazosin.", "5": "Amlodipine." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1056_17286", "title": "[Hypertensive crisis in a 3-year-old boy - neurovascular conflict?]", "score": 0.017261904761904763, "content": "Hypertensive crisis is a sudden rise in blood pressure with accompanying clinical symptoms. The disease is extremely rare in small children and is always a complication of secondary hypertension. 3-year-old boy (spontaneous delivery, 37 week of gestation, birth weight 2170g, 10 AS, unremarkable family history) was admitted to a hospital because of weight loss (1.5 kg, i.e. approx. 15% in 6 months), anorexia, abdominal and limb pain and lethargy. On admission, very high blood pressure values (190/150 mm Hg), lean subcutaneous tissue, frequent blinking, height 88 cm (&lt;3c), body weight 9.5 kg (&lt;3c). In additional tests: blood morphology, parameters of renal function, ions, gasometry, catecholamine urinary excretion, steroid profile and daily cortisol profile were within normal limits. Elevated plasma renin activity was found. In imaging studies kidneys, adrenal glands and renal arteries were normal. Normotension was not obtained on two antihypertensive drugs - metoprolol and amlodipine. In angio-CT tortuous right vertebral artery, extending to the left on the anterolateral surface of the medulla oblongata - possible compression of the vessel of the left side of medulla - was found. Diagnosis of neurovascular conflict was made. The patient was consulted by neurosurgeon who declare no possibility of surgical treatment of anomalies. In the treatment, according to the literature, a drug blocking the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-enalapril system was used, which normalized blood pressure. At the same time, intensive nutritional treatment was used. Resolution of symptoms and weight gain was observed. In further follow-up patients' parents withdrew enalapril lawlessly, which did not lead to recurrent rise in blood pressure. The latter may suggest other, transient cause of hypertensive crisis e.g. intoxication. Severe hypertension in pediatric patients can give symptoms as weight loss and behavioral disorders. In the diagnostic of hypertensive crisis in children, neuroimaging studies and toxicological tests should be performed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0384_6139", "title": "Resistance to antihypertensive medication as predictor of renal artery stenosis: comparison of two drug regimens.", "score": 0.016372141372141373, "content": "Renal artery stenosis is among the most common curable causes of hypertension. The definitive diagnosis is made by renal angiography, an invasive and costly procedure. The prevalence of renal artery stenosis is less than 1% in non-selected hypertensive patients but is higher when hypertension is resistant to drugs. To study the usefulness of standardised two-drug regimens for identifying drug-resistant hypertension as a predictor of renal artery stenosis. Prospective cohort study carried out in 26 hospitals in The Netherlands. Patients had been referred for analysis of possible secondary hypertension or because hypertension was difficult to treat. Patients &lt; or =40 years of age were assigned to either amlodipine 10 mg or enalapril 20 mg, and patients &gt;40 years to either amlodipine 10 mg combined with atenolol 50 mg or to enalapril 20 mg combined with hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg. Renal angiography was performed: (1) if hypertension was drug-resistant, ie if diastolic pressure remained &gt; or =95 mm Hg at three visits 1-3 weeks apart or an extra drug was required, and/or (2) if serum creatinine rose by &gt; or =20 micromol/L (&gt; or =0.23 mg/dL) during ACE inhibitor treatment. Of the 1106 patients with complete follow-up, 1022 had been assigned to either the amlodipine- or enalapril-based regimens, 772 by randomisation. Drug-resistant hypertension, as defined above, was identified in 41% of the patients, and 20% of these had renal artery stenosis. Renal function impairment was observed in 8% of the patients on ACE inhibitor, and this was associated with a 46% prevalence of renal artery stenosis. In the randomised patients, the prevalence of renal artery stenosis did not differ between the amlodipine- and enalapril-based regimens. In the diagnostic work-up for renovascular hypertension the use of standardised medication regimens of maximally two drugs, to identify patients with drug-resistant hypertension, is a rational first step to increase the a priori chance of renal artery stenosis. Amlodipine- or enalapril-based regimens are equally effective for this purpose." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0419_20618", "title": "Arterial hypertension with brachydactyly in a 15-year-old boy.", "score": 0.01634768740031898, "content": "Autosomal dominant brachydactyly with hypertension is the only form of monogenic hypertension which is not sodium dependent. The disease is characterized by brachydactyly type E, short stature, arterial hypertension and aberrant loop of posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) causing neurovascular conflict. So far the syndrome was described in one family in Turkey and two in Canada. We report a case of a 15-year-old boy who was admitted because of arterial hypertension 160/100 mmHg. He complained also of attacks of bilateral numbness of hands with deterioration of visual field. Examination revealed short stature (156 cm) and bone deformities of hands and feet consistent with brachydactyly type E. Ophthalmoscopy showed mild narrowing of retinal arteries. Serum electrolytes, blood gases, and renal function were normal. Renin activity and aldosterone concentrations were raised, and 24-h urinary excretion of catecholamines and urinary steroid profile were in normal range. Renal Doppler ultrasound was normal, but renal scintigraphy suggested vascular changes in the left kidney. Echocardiographic examination, besides mild left ventricular hypertrophy, was normal. Magnetic resonance angiography (angio-MR) revealed bilateral abnormal PICA loops and neurovascular conflict. Spiral angiotomography of renal arteries revealed narrow additional left renal artery. Both nonconsanguineous parents and younger brother were healthy, with normal height, without bone deformities, and had normal intracranial vessels. Amlodipine and metoprolol were given, and blood pressure lowered to 143/87. Adding rilmenidine gave no effect and enalapril was then added. It led to further improvement in blood pressure control. To our knowledge, this is the first pediatric description of a sporadic form of autosomal dominant brachydactyly with hypertension with abnormalities of brain and renal arteries." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0628_6440", "title": "[Comparative evaluation of the antihypertensive efficacy of amlodipine versus enalapril].", "score": 0.01578785075547333, "content": "Goal of this study was to compare the efficacy and safety of amlodipine with enalaprile in case of patients with moderate essential arterial hypertension. Study involved 40 patients with hypertension, 22 males and 18 females, age 39-80 years. Diastolic blood pressure was from 100-120 mmHg. Patients were for two weeks without any therapy and after that were divided into two groups of 20, fortherapy with amlodipine or enalaprile. The patients received 5-10 mg of amlodipine or enalaprile once daily. Initial blood pressure, before therapy was similar in groups, 173.00/108.00 mmHg and 175.25/106.75 mmHg (mean value). After four weeks on treatment the BP was reduced in both groups, in group on amlodipine from 173.00/108.00 to 129.75/78.50 mmHg (mean value), and in the group on enalaprile from 175.25/106.75 to 133.50/81.50 mmHg. Patients did not report any side effects in either of the groups. We prove that one day therapy with small doses, 5-10 mg of amlodipine, new calcium channels blocker and enalaprile, ACE inhibitor were efficient and safe in therapy of the essential hypertension. We found that amlodipine was somewhat more efficient than enalaprile in lowering the blood pressure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0633_19110", "title": "[Case of fibromuscular dysplasia revealed by the emergence of severe hypertension in the early phase of pregnancy].", "score": 0.015756050802779774, "content": "A 25-year-old female at 10 weeks of her first pregnancy abruptly developed severe hypertension as high as 230/160 mmHg and thus was referred to our hospital. Her past history was unremarkable and no medication or supplement was prescribed. The laboratory findings revealed that plasma renin activity was 59.0 ng mL hr and plasma aldosterone concentration was 1700 pg mL together with serum creatinine of 0.42 mg dL and serum potassium of 2.8 mEq L. Urinalysis revealed insignificant findings. Her hypertension was extremely resistant to antihypertensive agents, including hydralazine, alpha-methyldopa, and alpha beta blocker, leading to suspicion of secondary hypertension as a cause. Adrenal tumor was not detected but Doppler ultrasonography suggested the constriction of the right renal artery consistent with renovascular hypertension. Considering the following imaging test and medications, the patient and her family decided to abort the pregnancy. 3D-CT and MR angiography showed stenosis of the right renal artery, therefore, percutaneous transcatheter renal angioplasty was performed, resulting in normalization of the blood pressure without antihypertensives. Two years later she successfully gave birth uneventfully. Her hypertension was presumably irrelevant to preeclampsia because it occurred at 10 weeks of pregnancy and proteinuria was not associated. The stenosis of the right renal artery was probably due to fibromuscular dysplasia, which is one of the major causes of renal artery stenosis in young women. This patient was such a case and presented a difficult decision on how to treat and whether or not to abort. We will discuss the mechanism of hypertension in pregnancy and the advantages and disadvantages of available treatments for such cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0494_3591", "title": "Hyponatremic hypertensive syndrome (HHS) in an 18-month old-child presenting as malignant hypertension: a case report.", "score": 0.015720953082780643, "content": "The combination of hyponatremia and renovascular hypertension is called hyponatremic hypertensive syndrome (HHS). Malignant hypertension as a presentation has been reported in adults with HHS but is rare in children. An eighteen month-old male presented with drowsiness, sudden onset status epilepticus and blood pressure of 210/160. The electrolytes on admission revealed sodium of 120 mEq/L and potassium of 2.1 mEq/L. The peripheral renin activity (PRA) was 172 ng/ml/min (normal 3-11 ng/ml/min) and serum aldosterone level was 91 ng/dl (normal 4 to 16 ng/dl). Patient underwent angioplasty with no success, followed by surgical correction. Two years since the diagnosis, the blood pressure is controlled with labetolol and amlodipine (at less than sixth of the pre-operative dosages). The PRA is 2.4 ng/ml/min and aldosterone 15.5 ng/dl. The child not only had three renal arteries on left but all of them were stenosed which to best of our knowledge has not been described. As uncommon as HHS with malignant hypertension may be in adults it is under-reported in children and purpose of the case report is to raise its awareness." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0968_20548", "title": "Unique imaging findings in fibromuscular dysplasia of renal arteries: A case report.", "score": 0.014162077104642014, "content": "Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD) is a rare vascular disorder that causes abnormal cell growth in arterial walls. The classic \"string of beads\" sign has been reported in many cases, whereas the appearance of tubular stenosis and distal tapering of renal arteries with multiple renal infarctions, as well as left kidney atrophy occurring in one patient, has not been precisely described. A 19-year-old woman presented to us with a history of elevated blood pressure without any symptoms for the past 1 month. Routine laboratory tests indicated a moderately impaired renal function, and ultrasound examination demonstrated a small-sized left kidney and seriously decreased blood flow of the left renal artery and its branches. Subsequent contrast-enhanced computed tomographic angiography (CTA) demonstrated multiple ischemic infarctions in the bilateral kidneys, and FMD was suggested at that time. Thereafter, we performed selective reno-angiography, which confirmed that the all left renal arteries had tubular stenosis and that right renal arterial branches presented distal tapering. Antihypertensive drugs were prescribed conservatively, including nifedipine 60 mg/d and prazosin 4 mg/d, to lower the patient's blood pressure. The patient had a well-controlled blood pressure and an improved renal function at her 6-month follow-up. We should take the diagnosis of FMD into account if young women develop asymptomatic hypertension. To our knowledge, this is the first case that exhibited renal artery FMD manifesting as tubular stenosis and distal tapering, especially followed by bilateral renal infarctions and significant atrophy of the left kidney. In addition, CTA combined with digital subtraction angiography (DSA) may be more sensitive than other tests with respect to the detection of intrarenal infarctions and arterial variants of FMD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0089_17071", "title": "The simultaneous occurrence of renal artery stenosis and an aldosteronoma in a patient with hypertension.", "score": 0.013851054988688306, "content": "The simultaneous occurrence of renovascular hypertension and an adrenocortical adenoma is a rare entity. The case of a 64-year-old woman who underwent an aortorenal bypass graft for renovascular hypertension requiring a multidrug antihypertensive regimen is presented. Persistently elevated blood pressures in the postoperative period prompted further workup for other causes of hypertension. Laboratory evaluation showed hyperaldosteronism and hyporeninemia despite enalapril administration. Abdominal computerized tomography (CT) revealed a left adrenal mass which, on surgical removal, was found to be a cortical adenoma. Subsequently, her antihypertensive therapy has been reduced to a single agent. Previous authors have described only four patients with malignant hypertension who had the rare clinical combination of renal artery stenosis and an aldosteronoma. This case reemphasizes the critical need for a thorough search for other surgically correctable lesions in those patients who remain severely hypertensive after the \"definitive\" operation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0098_8285", "title": "[Renovascular hypertension with renal failure: value of renal revascularization].", "score": 0.013808105168581832, "content": "The purpose of this work was to determine the effects of renal revascularization on blood pressure and renal function in 9 patients with arterial stenosis involving both kidneys (7) or a solitary kidney (2). There were five women and four men with a mean (SD) age for 64.5 +/- 7 years. The duration of hypertension ranged from 2 to 28 years (mean = 12 +/- 8). Blood pressure ranged from 210/100 to 260/150 mmHg, despite the use of three or more antihypertensive agents in 7 cases. The serum creatinine level, on presentation, ranged from 160 to 265 mumol/l (mean = 198 +/- 30 mumol/l). Intravenous pyelograms were not suggestive of renovascular disease in 4 of 7 cases. Digital angiography or arteriography demonstrated severe stenosis of the artery of the solitary kidney in 2 patients, severe bilateral atherosclerotic disease in 7 patients, three of them had complete occlusion of a main renal artery. During hospitalization, therapy with captopril (5 patients) or minoxidil (1 patient) lowered blood pressure in 3 cases, but induced a marked increase in serum creatinine level in 4 cases. In two patients, medically treated, severe and rapidly progressive impairment of renal function was observed. The seven remaining patients underwent surgical revascularization (two after unfructuous percutaneous transluminal angioplasty). One died 45 days later. Blood pressure control with diastolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg or less was achieved in the other six, although each patient continued to require antihypertensive medication (bitherapy: 2, monotherapy: 4).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_4157", "title": "[Hypoplasia of the renal artery as a cause of renovascular hypertension. A case report].", "score": 0.013204187117230596, "content": "The authors report the case of an 8-year-old Libyan boy who presented with hypertension, episodes of vomiting and headaches during the past year. Routine blood tests, including nitrogen and urea clearances, were normal; an ultrasound scan and a urography demonstrated a left kidney smaller than the right. Further tests were carried out to evaluate the morphology and the function of the kidney; a scintigraphy confirmed the hypoplasia of the left kidney with reduction of the glomerular filtration rate. The arteriography of the abdominal aorta was decisive, confirming not only the hypoplasia of the left kidney, but also the presence of a hypoplasic renal artery. The latter appeared to be uniformly hypoplasic, with no signs of segmentary stenosis. This fact suggested the hypothesis of renovascular hypertension caused by a hypoplasia of the renal artery. The medical treatment with enalapril gave good results, with normalization of the pressure levels after 5 days of administration. However, only nephrectomy is able to give excellent long-term results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0536_389", "title": "Management of severe hypertension in a child with tuberous sclerosis-related major vascular abnormalities.", "score": 0.012900641025641025, "content": "We report the case of a 4-year-old girl with tuberous sclerosis who presented with severe renovascular hypertension secondary to compression of the renal arteries by a large infradiaphragmatic abdominal aortic aneurysm. Case report of a previously unreported case. Normotension could not be achieved despite conservative treatment with three antihypertensive drugs at high doses. An aortic graft was performed successfully but failed to correct the hypertension. Postoperatively, the child experienced acute renal failure after attempting treatment with additional enalapril. Further investigations revealed ischaemia of the left kidney and stenosis of the right renal artery. Subsequently, a combination of maximum dose minoxidil, a calcium antagonist, clonidine and peripheral alpha and beta-blockers, and diuretics was used, but her blood pressure control remained poor. A bypass between the hepatic artery and the right renal artery restenosed at the proximal anastomosis. Her renovascular hypertension was finally improved with an autotransplantation of her right kidney into the right iliac fossa. Fibromuscular dysplasia and abundant collagen deposition were the predominant features seen on histology. She is currently normotensive on moderate doses of a beta-blocker, amlodipine and a diuretic. Hypertension in this case was impossible to control medically, and the surgical approach was compromised by numerous complications. This case illustrates the challenges in the management of renovascular hypertension in a child with disease-associated vascular malformations." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_120253", "title": "Hypertensive urgency", "score": 0.012802126692084368, "content": "In a hypertensive urgency blood pressure should be lowered carefully to ≤160/≤100 mmHg over a period of hours to days, this can often be done as an outpatient. There is limited evidence regarding the most appropriate rate of blood pressure reduction, although it is recommended that mean arterial pressure should be lowered by no more than 25 to 30 percent over the first few hours. Recommended medications for hypertensive urgencies include: captopril, labetalol, amlodipine, felodipine, isradipine, and prazosin. Sublingual nifedipine is not recommended in hypertensive urgencies. This is because nifedipine can cause rapid decrease of blood pressure which can precipitate cerebral or cardiac ischemic events. There is also lack of evidence on the benefits of nifedipine in controlling hypertension. Acute administration of drugs should be followed by several hours of observation to ensure that blood pressure does not fall too much. Aggressive dosing with intravenous drugs or oral agents which" }, { "id": "article-41059_8", "title": "Case Study: 8-Year-Old With a Murmur and Hypertension -- Management", "score": 0.012639090469279149, "content": "In the ED, nifedipine was given once for hypertension, and her blood pressure responded appropriately. The patient also had a 4/5 headache that was treated with acetaminophen and ibuprofen, and it improved. Nephrology was consulted. The specialist recommended a renal ultrasound and other labs as well as starting amlodipine 5 mg daily. The patient was admitted to the hospital for further management. [4] [5] [6]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en107_1595", "title": "Hypertensive encephalopathy", "score": 0.012155388471177945, "content": "Once the BP is controlled, the person should be switched to medication by mouth, with the diastolic pressure being gradually reduced to 85 to 90 mmHg over two to three months. The initial reduction to a diastolic pressure of approximately 100 mmHg is often associated with a modest worsening of renal function; this change, however, is typically transient as the vascular disease tends to resolve and renal perfusion improves over one to three months. Antihypertensive therapy should not be withheld in this setting unless there has been an excessive reduction in BP. A change in medication, however, is indicated if the decline in renal function is temporally related to therapy with an angiotensin (ACE) converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker, which can interfere with renal autoregulation and produce acute kidney failure in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis. (See \"Renal effects of ACE inhibitors in hypertension\".)ref" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0218_352", "title": "[Hypotensive properties of nisoldipine. Comparative study in essential, renal and renovascular hypertension].", "score": 0.010431509611506923, "content": "Calcium antagonists are increasingly used in the treatment of primary and secondary hypertension. A new substance of this group, isobutyl methyl 1,4-dihydro-2,6-dimethyl-4-(2-nitrophenyl)-3,5-pyridinecarboxylate (nisoldipine, Bay k 5552) inhibits the calcium-induced contraction of arteries and veins in concentrations 5-20 times lower compared to those of nifedipine in vitro. The effect of nisoldipine (10 mg orally) on blood pressure and heart rate in supine and upright position, on serum electrolytes (Na+, K+, Ca2+) and on serum aldosterone and serum hydrocortisone (cortisol) was comparatively studied in patients with essential hypertension (n = 6, 57 +/- 7 years), in patients with hypertension and chronic renal failure (n = 6, 46 +/- 4 years, serum creatinine 2.1 +/- 0.5 mg/100 ml) and in 6 patients with unilateral renal artery stenosis. In patients with essential hypertension, systolic blood pressure (BP) dropped by 26 mmHg; diastolic BP was lowered by 17 mmHg after 150 min compared to placebo. In patients with chronic renal failure, decrement in BP was 25/16 mmHg (systolic and diastolic BP, respectively). In patients with renal artery stenosis, blood pressure declined by 31/18 mmHg after nisoldipine. Serum electrolytes (Na+, K+ and Ca2+) and serum aldosterone as well as serum hydrocortisone remained unchanged. The hypotensive action of nisoldipine seems to be independent of the type of hypertension. However, the hypotensive activity correlates with the level of the baseline blood pressure." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en042_35249", "title": "Renal artery", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Clinical significance Stenosis Renal artery stenosis, or narrowing of one or both renal arteries will lead to hypertension as the affected kidneys release renin to increase blood pressure to preserve perfusion to the kidneys. RAS is typically diagnosed with duplex ultrasonography of the renal arteries. It is treated with the use of balloon angioplasty and stents, if necessary. Atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis can also affect the renal arteries and can lead to poor perfusion of the kidneys leading to reduced kidney function and, possibly, renal failure. Trauma A renal artery is damaged in 4% of blunt traumas and 7% of penetrating traumas to the abdomen. Additional images References External links - \"Posterior Abdominal Wall: Branches of the Abdominal Aorta\" Arteries of the abdomen" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0640_19248", "title": "Hypokalemia induced myopathy as first manifestation of primary hyperaldosteronism - an elderly patient with unilateral adrenal hyperplasia: a case report.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Primary hyperaldosteronism is only rarely caused by unilateral adrenal hyperplasia. A 73-year-old hypertensive Greek man (on 10 mg amlodipine for the last ten years) presented in the emergency department with severe muscle weakness of all limbs. The initial physical and laboratory examination revealed normal blood pressure, muscle weakness, severe hypokalemia, sinus rhythm and U wave, rhabdomyolysis and metabolic alkalosis. The patient was immediately treated with intravenous administration of potassium-rich solutions, 25 mg spironolactone with progressive dose titration up to 100 mg. Because of high arterial blood pressure, irbesartan was added. On day 6, muscle weakness was completely restored with decrease of arterial blood pressure and further improvement of laboratory tests. The combination of hypokalemia with arterial hypertension raised the suspicion of primary hyperaldosteronism; therefore, we performed abdomen computed tomography scan, which revealed a nodular mass (15 mm in diameter) in the left adrenal gland. Plasma renin activity was in the lower normal range with a three-fold increase of plasma aldosterone concentration. We performed total resection of the left adrenal gland and the histopathological examination revealed hyperplasia of the left adrenal gland. This report presents a rare case of an elderly patient under antihypertensive treatment the last ten years for essential hypertension, who admitted to our emergency department with hypokalemia - induced myopathy as first manifestation of primary hyperaldosteronism due to unilateral adrenal hyperplasia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en038_54429", "title": "Renal artery stenosis", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Changes include: Fibrosis Tubular cell size (decrease) Thickening of Bowman capsule Tubulosclerosis Glomerular capillary tuft (atrophy) Diagnosis The diagnosis of renal artery stenosis can use many techniques to determine if the condition is present, a clinical prediction rule is available to guide diagnosis. Among the diagnostic techniques are: Doppler ultrasound study of the kidneys Refractory hypertension Auscultation (with stethoscope) - bruit (\"rushing\" sound) Captopril challenge test Captopril test dose effect on the differential renal function as measured by MAG3 scan. Renal artery arteriogram. The specific criteria for renal artery stenosis on Doppler are an acceleration time of greater than 70 milliseconds, an acceleration index of less than 300 cm/sec² and a velocity ratio of the renal artery to aorta of greater than 3.5. Treatment" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0532_2400", "title": "[Refractory hypertention in a female patient with renal failure].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We report one sixty-seven years-old female who presented with hypertension refractory to antihypertensive drugs. She had an elevated BP for approximately 15 years. In the last 8-10 months her hypertension had become difficult to control. Her BP ranged between 180/100 mmHg and 220/1220 mmHg on atenolol 100 mg once daily, methyldopa 500 mg three times daily, furosemide 25 mg twice daily, doxazosine 4 mg twice daily. When she was referred to our unit serum creatinine was 2.3 mg/dL and she had a mild proteinuria (70 mg/dL) without microematuria. Ultrasonography showed a left kidney size in the low-normal range (LD 11 cm) and a small right kidney (LD 9 cm). Renal angiography showed a severe, ostial stenosis of the left renal artery and a total thrombosis of the right renal artery with a blood supply to the right kidney provided by collateral channels. An ACE-I was added to the therapy but a sharp increase in serum creatinina (up to 6.4 mg/dL) prompted us to withdraw the drug. She underwent a renal angioplasty on the left side and a Palmaz stent was placed. The control angiography showed a good anatomical result. Three months after the manoeuvre the patient was again referred to our unit with headache, nausea vomiting and hyper-tension refractory to amlodipine 10 mg/day, doxazosine 4 mg twice a a day, atenolol 50 mg/day, furosemide 50 mg/day. A doppler ultrasonography and a magnetic resonance angiogram showed no restenosis on the treated artery. An ACE-I was again administered and BP on this drug was 145/90 mmHg after one month and 130/85 after three months. Headache, nausea and vomiting disappeared. Serum creatinina kept unchanged (2.2 mg/dL). Comment. In this case the benefit of angioplasty on blood pressure control was indirect. Apparently the manoeuvre showed no effect on blood pressure, but the angioplasty allowed us to use of an ACE-Inhibitor, without any negative effect on renal function, and thus to adequately control blood pressure." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en038_54427", "title": "Renal artery stenosis", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Renal artery stenosis (RAS) is the narrowing of one or both of the renal arteries, most often caused by atherosclerosis or fibromuscular dysplasia. This narrowing of the renal artery can impede blood flow to the target kidney, resulting in renovascular hypertension – a secondary type of high blood pressure. Possible complications of renal artery stenosis are chronic kidney disease and coronary artery disease. Signs and symptoms Most cases of renal artery stenosis are asymptomatic, and the main problem is high blood pressure that cannot be controlled with medication. Decreased kidney function may develop if both kidneys do not receive adequate blood flow, furthermore some people with renal artery stenosis present with episodes of flash pulmonary edema." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1023_1809", "title": "Amlodipine-Induced Gingival Hyperplasia in a Young Male with Stage 5 Chronic Kidney Disease.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Gingival hyperplasia is a rare finding in clinical practice. Nevertheless, when it occurs, it is a finding of great value as it can lead to definite clinical diagnosis. The present case is a 19-year-old male who was referred for further management of stage 5 chronic kidney disease. On evaluation, he was found to have gingival hyperplasia. He was evaluated for reversible causes of kidney disease, and since none were found, renal replacement therapy was advised. He had been taking amlodipine for blood pressure control. As this was presumed to be the cause of gingival hyperplasia, it was stopped and replaced by a combination of beta-blocker and prazosin. At six-month follow-up, he had complete resolution of gingival hyperplasia. Amlodipine as a cause of gingival hyperplasia is a rare occurrence. However, it is crucial to keep in mind such a possible side effect of this commonly prescribed antihypertensive drug." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0307_11520", "title": "[The role of calcium inhibitors in the treatment of arterial hypertension].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Base on their own experience with isradipine and results of a multicentric study with amplodipine in the Slovak Republic, as well as based on data in the literature the authors conclude that: 1. In the treatment of arterial hypertension associated in the syndrome of insulin resistance (syndrome X and 5H resp.) with type 2 diabetes, hyperlipiproteinaemia and hyperinsulinism drugs of first choice include ACE-inhibitors and Ca antagonist of the second generation, dihydropiridine type, such as amplodipine, isradipine, fellodipine, nirtendipine etc. ACE inhibitors and Ca antagonist of the dihydropyridine type with prolonged effect have a good tolerance, few undesirable effect, a favourable effect on the decline of BP, regression of hypertrophy of the left ventricle and vascular wall; they do not cause deterioration of insulin resistance and thus do not interfere with compensation of diabetes and associated hyperlipoproteinaemia. 2. ACE inhibitors moreover reduce glomerular filtration and albuminuria and thus retard along with the effect on BP the progression of diabetic nephropathy. 3. In pre-existing hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism (cca in 18% diabetic subjects) they can however cause dangerous hyperkalinaemia by further inhibition of the damaged renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. In instances Ca inhibitors are indicated. The latter activate RAAS and do not have an impact on albuminuria. By their effect on the vas deferens they can increase glomerular filtration. 4. Diuretics are not suitable for the treatment of hypertension in X syndrome and the use of beta-blocking agents even with ISA and beta-1-selective preparations in restricted in particular when insulin is administered or other numerous contraindications are present (cardiac failure, bradyarrythmias, bronchitis etc.). Perhaps a combination of ACE-inhibitors and Ca antagonists of the 2nd generation with an alpha-blocking agent or hybrid alpha-beta-blocking agent is a suitable solution." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0203_10177", "title": "[Modern treatment of hypertension in older patients (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "In aged people a differentiation has to be made between \"arteriosklerotic hypertension\" due to increased stiffness of the aorta and true hypertension in older patients. The therapy of hypertension in older patients principally is the same as in younger individuals; however, blood pressure should be lowered slowly with the respect to concomitant diseases of the kidney, coronary arteriosclerosis and heart failure. Usually, in older patients there long-standing hypertension with increased peripheral resistance and low cardiac output. Therefore, a diuretic or vasodilating agent may be the drug of first choice. Betablockers are not generally contraindicated, but given with caution. The same is true for ganglionblocking agents. In a large number of cases salt restriction and general measures will lead to a suitable blood pressure control." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0686_15328", "title": "Renovascular hypertension due to bilateral renal artery stenosis treated with stent implantation in a 12-year old girl.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Renovascular hypertension (RVH) in children is a relatively rare disease, but it is important in that it is a treatable condition when properly diagnosed. Percutaneous transluminal renal angioplasty (PTRA) with or without stenting is widely applied to adult patients with RVH. However, limited information is available as to PTRA with stenting in pediatric patients. We experienced a case of RVH in a 12-year-old girl, who had severe hypertension (180/110 mmHg). Bilateral renal artery stenosis was demonstrated by 3D-CT, MR angiography and selective renal arteriography. Renal function and plasma renin activity were normal. Angiotensin blockade was refrained for fear of functional deterioration of the kidney. Medical treatment with amlodipine insufficiently lowered the pressure to 140-160/80-100 mmHg, so we performed PTRA. Stenotic lesion and pressure gradient was still present after balloon angioplasty on both sides, prompting us to place LUMINEXX® stents on both renal arteries. Blood pressure dropped dramatically after the intervention. Amlodipine was discontinued, and then, enalapril and warfarin were administered to prevent neointima and thrombus formation. Her blood pressure and renal function was stable 18 months after PTRA. Oversized self-expanding stent such as LUMINEXX® stent could be used for renal artery stenting even in pediatric patients with RVH." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en038_54430", "title": "Renal artery stenosis", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Treatment Atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis It is initially treated with medications, including diuretics, and medications for blood pressure control. When high-grade renal artery stenosis is documented and blood pressure cannot be controlled with medication, or if renal function deteriorates, surgery may be resorted to. The most commonly used procedure is a minimally-invasive angioplasty with or without stenting. It is unclear if this approach yields better results than the use of medications alone. It is a relatively safe procedure. If all else fails and the kidney is thought to be worsening hypertension and revascularization with angioplasty or surgery does not work, then surgical removal of the affected kidney (nephrectomy) may significantly improve high blood pressure. Fibromuscular dysplasia Angioplasty with or without stenting is the best option for the treatment of renal artery stenosis due to fibromuscular dysplasia. See also Renovascular hypertension References" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_155226", "title": "Hypertension", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Secondary hypertension Secondary hypertension is hypertension due to an identifiable cause, and may result in certain specific additional signs and symptoms. For example, as well as causing high blood pressure, Cushing's syndrome frequently causes truncal obesity, glucose intolerance, moon face, a hump of fat behind the neck and shoulders (referred to as a buffalo hump), and purple abdominal stretch marks. Hyperthyroidism frequently causes weight loss with increased appetite, fast heart rate, bulging eyes, and tremor. Renal artery stenosis (RAS) may be associated with a localized abdominal bruit to the left or right of the midline (unilateral RAS), or in both locations (bilateral RAS). Coarctation of the aorta frequently causes a decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities relative to the arms, or delayed or absent femoral arterial pulses. Pheochromocytoma may cause abrupt episodes of hypertension accompanied by headache, palpitations, pale appearance, and excessive sweating." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0104_18617", "title": "[Natural history of arterial hypertension due to primary hyperreninism].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "This case report deals with an eight-year duration severe high renin hypertension and its consequences. In 1975, a 13 years old girl was found to have blood pressure (BP) levels of 240/150 mmHg with bilateral papilloedema. Hypokalemic alkalosis, a 45 mm Sokolow index (SI) and very high peripheral renin activity (PRA) were also noticed. Renal vein renin sampling (RVRS) suggested secretion from the left kidney but intravenous pyelography and renal arteriography were normal. BP levels were first controlled by triple treatment but rose one year later, despite adjunction of beta-blockers. High PRA was again found, but without hormonal gradient on a second RVRS. From 1977 to 1982, BP never fell to normal levels despite quadruple treatment. In 1982, a stage II optic fundus, a 58 mm SI and 2 g/day proteinuria are noticed, so that a new complete etiologic work up is undertaken in 1983: PRA is still high, with a dramatic acute BP fall after captopril and no gradient on a third RVRS, but intravenous pyelography, tomodensitometry and selective arteriography disclose a 4 cm diameter poorly vascularized tumour on the surface of the lower pole of the right kidney. BP levels are controlled for three months by captopril + chlorothiazide. The tumour is removed in january 1984. RVRS by direct peroperative punction indicates (a posteriori) hormonal secretion from the right kidney lower pole. Histologic examination and immunofluorescence with antirenin serum corroborate the juxtaglomerular origin of the tumour. Eighteen months later, BP is permanently normal, SI is 30 mm, and there is no proteinuria.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0279_8816", "title": "Double-blind, parallel, comparative study on quality of life during treatment with amlodipine or enalapril in mild or moderate hypertensive patients: a multicentre study.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To compare tolerance, antihypertensive efficacy and impact on quality of life of amlodipine and enalapril in patients with mild or moderate hypertension. Multicentre, double-blind, double-dummy, comparative trial in general practice. Three phases were conducted: 4 weeks on placebo, 12 weeks of dose adjustment (amlodipine or enalapril) and a 38-week maintenance period. Four hundred and sixty-one patients of both sexes were enrolled; 451 were available for efficacy evaluation at the end of the trial. The patients were allocated to either amlodipine (231) or enalapril (230) treatment. If at the end of dose adjustment (amlodipine 5-10 mg/day, enalapril 10-40 mg/day) diastolic blood pressure was &gt; or = 95 mmHg, hydrochlorothiazide (25-50 mg/day) was added (27 amlodipine patients and 45 enalapril patients). Blood pressure changes after 1 year of treatment; between- and within-group changes in quality of life as assessed by psychological general well-being, social and sexual functioning, health-risk perception, alertness, behaviour, and impact of symptom and side effects. Indices on quality of life were unchanged or increased (2-9%) in both groups. Blood pressure was normalized or reduced by &gt; or = 10 mmHg in 204 (90%) and 190 (85%) patients on amlodipine and enalapril, respectively. Cough was the most frequently reported adverse event in the enalapril group (13%) and oedema in the amlodipine group (22%). Only eight (4%) patients on amlodipine and nine (4%) on enalapril were withdrawn because of drug-related adverse events. At similar blood pressure reduction in mild and moderate hypertension, quality of life is equally well maintained on amlodipine and enalapril therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0086_10370", "title": "[Treatment procedures in the vasoconstrictive form of hypertension using calcium antagonists in relation to their effect on kidney function].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Single sublingual administration of nifedipine at a dose of 20 mg to patients with essential hypertension (EH) with subsequent hemodynamic observation every hour for 4 h resulted in the reduction of systolic and diastolic arterial pressure (AP) by 10-15%, arteriolar tone (AT) by 30-40%. Renal metabolism was assessed by the presence of slow isoenzymes of carbonic esterases in urine. They were absent in healthy persons; before nifedipine administration they were detected in 62% of cases, after it--in 22%. Regular administration of nifedipine (30-60 mg/day) and verapamil (160-240 mg/day) in a less severe course of EH (AT less than 4500 conv. units) improved the renal blood flow decreasing AT and AP. Severe EH (AT greater than 4500 conv. units) was characterized by cases of inadequate action of the drugs: dramatic reduction of ERF was followed by a rise of AT and AP which could be accounted for by excessive vasodilation at the 1st stage with further development of the renal steal syndrome and a rise of AP and AT. In such cases lower doses of nifedipine, the combination of verapamil with hydrochlorthiazide and verapamil with prazosin hydrochloride were more effective; the combination of nifedipine with propranolol did not prevent a negative effect on the kidneys and was ineffective in high AT." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_91433", "title": "Angioplasty", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Based on the BASIL trial, the ACCF/AHA guidelines recommend balloon angioplasty only for patients with a life expectancy of 2 years or less or those who do not have an autogenous vein available. For patients with a life expectancy greater than 2 of years life, or who have an autogenous vein, a bypass surgery could be performed first. Renal artery angioplasty Renal artery stenosis is associated with hypertension and loss of renal function. Atherosclerotic obstruction of the renal artery can be treated with angioplasty with or without stenting of the renal artery. There is a weak recommendation for renal artery angioplasty in patients with renal artery stenosis and flash edema or congestive heart failure. Carotid angioplasty" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0570_15630", "title": "Diagnosis of primary aldosteronism in a patient with an incidentally found adrenal mass.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A 50-year-old woman who was complaining of abdominal pain was referred to the endocrine clinic after a small (0.8 cm by 0.8 cm) mass was found in her right adrenal gland on CT examination of the abdomen. She had a history of hypertension for 10 years, generalized anxiety disorder for 5 years and a weight increase of 18 kg over the previous 3 years. The patient did not report weakness, polyuria or excessive thirst. She had a history of hypokalemia while on hydrochlorothiazide therapy. To improve blood pressure control, a total of three antihypertensive medications had been sequentially added to her regimen. At presentation, medications included 300 mg irbesartan daily, 5 mg amlodipine daily and 100 mg sustained-release metoprolol daily. Renin activity, levels of plasma aldosterone and levels of fractionated plasma metanephrines were measured and an overnight 1 mg dexamethasone suppression test was performed. In addition, measurements of urine aldosterone excretion on a high-salt diet, MRI-examination of the adrenal glands and bilateral adrenal vein sampling were conducted. An aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma. The patient underwent laparoscopic resection of the right adrenal gland, which led to normalization of aldosterone excretion, lowering of her blood pressure on a single antihypertensive medication (50 mg sustained-release metoprolol daily) and resolution of hypokalemia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en610_22478", "title": "Kidney ischemia", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Renovascular hypertension Renovascular hypertension or renal artery stenosis is characterized as an increase in blood pressure through the arteries to the kidneys. This is due to an abnormal narrowing of the arteries. Acute Renal Failure caused by the treatment of hypertension In patients with hypertension, treatment of the disease using Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) are sometimes necessary. The glomerular filtration rate(GFR) in patients is regulated by vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole. When ACEI is taken by the patient, this vasoconstrictor effect of the efferent arteriole is blocked. This then leads to a decrease in GFR and leads to acute renal failure. Studies have shown that 6-38% of patients with renal vascular disease or hypertension will develop acute renal ischemia through acute renal failure." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 613, 718 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 93, 111 ] ], "text": "the vasoactive drug of choice in the context of septic shock is noradrenaline ([3], [4]) (answer 1 FALSE)" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 862, 1086 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 133, 168 ] ], "text": "On the other hand, it is interesting to determine blood lactic acid levels for two purposes: it is currently considered the best marker of tissue hypoperfusion/hypoxia and it predicts the response to treatment[2] (answer 2)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 719, 857 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 111, 132 ] ], "text": "A minimum of two blood cultures is mandatory (answer 3), for the diagnosis of bacteremia and facilitating a targeted antibiotic treatment." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 121, 444 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 14, 65 ] ], "text": "sepsis is a SIRS due to infection, which leads to a decrease in SVR, resulting in a decrease in preload and stroke volume leading to hypotension. The first therapeutic measures are the administration of empirical broad-spectrum antibiotics and fluid replacement (answer 4) to try to compensate for this decrease in preload." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Intravenous perfusion of dobutamine.", "2": "Serum lactate measurement.", "3": "Extraction of blood cultures.", "4": "Fluid administration.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0712_25044", "title": "Sepsis, severe sepsis, and septic shock: current evidence for emergency department management.", "score": 0.017427884615384616, "content": "In the middle of a busy shift, a patient arrives by ambulance from a local long-term care facility with a report of altered mental status. You enter the room to find a chronically ill-appearing 85-year-old man with fever, tachycardia, and hypotension, and it is instantly apparent that this patient is septic. What is not clear is what the source is, what modifications in treatment might be necessary based on preexisting microbial resistance, and which of the array of invasive resuscitation techniques are appropriate when meaningful recovery is questionable and efforts may not be desired by the patient and family. You order IV fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics; send lab tests, including lactate and cultures of blood, urine, and sputum; and begin to review his extensive history to discuss goals of care with his family and primary doctor. While reviewing these issues, a 54-year-old woman with a history of asthma is brought straight back from triage with respiratory distress. You listen to her lungs, expecting wheezes, but hear decreased lung sounds at the right base, preserved air movement elsewhere, and her skin radiates heat. Now, on the monitor, she has a heart rate of 135 beats per minute, blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, O2 saturation of 86%, and a temperature of 39.4 degrees C (103 degrees F). You again identify sepsis and instruct your team that you will be using your department's severe sepsis protocol. Equipment for monitoring and procedures is assembled, your staff provides preprinted order and monitoring flow sheets, and the ICU is alerted. Within an hour, the patient is intubated, has a central line placed, and has received IV fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics and norepinephrine, and you are pleased to see a MAP of 67 mm Hg, a lactate decreasing from an initial value of 7.0, CVP of 10, and ScvO2 of 78%." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_20890", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011382344592676697, "content": "Bacteremia Presence of bacteria in blood, as evidenced by positive blood cultures Signs of possibly harmful systemic Two or more of the following condi response tions: (1) fever (oral temperature >38°C [>100.4°F]) or hypothermia (<36°C [<96.8°F]); (2) tachypnea (>24 breaths/min); (3) tachycardia (heart rate >90 beats/min); (4) leukocytosis (>12,000/μL), leukopenia (<4000/μL), or >10% bands Sepsis (or severe sepsis) The harmful host response to infection; systemic response to proven or suspected infection plus some degree of organ hypofunction, i.e.: 1. Cardiovascular: Arterial systolic blood pressure ≤90 mmHg or mean arterial pressure ≤70 mmHg that responds to administration of IV fluid 2. Renal: Urine output <0.5 mL/kg per hour for 1 h despite adequate fluid resuscitation 3. Respiratory: PaO2/FIO2 ≤250 or, if the lung is the only dysfunctional organ, ≤200 4." }, { "id": "Obstentrics_Williams_7292", "title": "Obstentrics_Williams", "score": 0.01101866983608181, "content": "One scheme for management of acute pyelonephritis is shown in Table 53-2. Urine cultures are taken, but prospective trials show that blood cultures are of limited clinical utility (Gomi, 2015; Wing, 2000). We obtain blood cultures if the temperature is >39°C. Intravenous hydration to ensure adequate urinay ouput is the cornerstone of treatment. Antimicrobials are also begun promptly with the caveat that they may initially worsen endotoxemia from bacterial lysis. Surveillance for worsening sepsis syndrome includes serial monitoring of urinary output, blood pressure, pulse, temperature, and oxygen saturation. High fevers are lowered with a cooling blanket and acetaminophen. his is especially important in early pregnancy because of possible teratogenic efects from hyperthermia." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_1332", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.010389132783230285, "content": "tachycardic, but they do not exhibit a reduction in blood pressure until over 1500 mL of blood loss, or class III shock. Physical findings should be used as an aid in the evaluation of the patient’s response to treatment. The goal of fluid resuscitation is to re-establish tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation usually begins with isotonic crystalloid, typically Ringer’s lactate. However, for patients arriving in shock (persistent SBP <90 mmHg in an adult), instead of crystalloid the current practice is to activate a massive trans-fusion protocol (MTP) in which red blood cells (RBC) and fresh frozen plasma (FFP) are administered. The details of a MTP are discussed later. Patients who have a good response to Brunicardi_Ch07_p0183-p0250.indd 19110/12/18 6:17 PM 192BASIC CONSIDERATIONSPART Ifluid infusion (i.e., normalization of vital signs, clearing of the sensorium) and evidence of good peripheral perfusion (warm extremities with normal capillary refill) are presumed to have adequate" }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_497", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009990097920563318, "content": "■Signs and symptoms are similar to those of cystitis but show evidence of upper urinary tract disease. ■ Symptoms include f ank pain, fever/chills, and nausea/vomiting. Dysuria, frequency, and urgency are also possible. ■UA and culture: Results are similar to those of cystitis, but with WBC casts. Send blood cultures to rule out urosepsis. Pyelonephritis is the most common serious medical complication of pregnancy. Twenty to thirty percent of patients with untreated bacteriuria will develop pyelonephritis. When in doubt, admit a patient with pyelonephritis and administer IV antibiotics. Urosepsis must be considered in any elderly patient with altered mental status. SIRS = two or more of the following: 1. Temperature: Either < 36°C or > 38°C (i.e., hypothermia or fever). 2. Tachypnea: > 20 breaths per minute or PaCO2 < 32 mmHg on ABG. 3. Tachycardia: HR > 90 bpm. 4. Leukocytosis/leukopenia: WBC < 4000 cells/mm3 or > 12,000 cells/mm3. CBC: Reveals leukocytosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0583_9222", "title": "Rapidly progressive fatal pneumococcal sepsis in adults: a report of two cases.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "We report two cases of a rapidly progressive fatal overwhelming pneumococcal infection. Patient 1 was a 67-year-old man with a 24-h history of fever and malaise and was transferred to our department. He was severely ill, tachypneic, and felt a chill. A purpuric discoloration with ecchymosis of the skin was noted over the body. The chest X-ray findings demonstrated thickening of the bronchovascular bundle in the right lower lung field, which later revealed the presence of bronchopneumonia. Laboratory studies revealed the presence of metabolic acidosis and disseminated intravascular coagulation. After presentation, rapid deterioration occurred followed by cardiopulmonary arrest. Despite cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the patient died only 3 h after presentation. The isolates from the patient's blood revealed penicillin-susceptible Streptococcus pneumoniae, serotype 4. Patient 2 was a 30-year-old woman with a prior history of uneventful pregnancies was transferred to our department with a 2-day history of fever, nausea, headache, and malaise. Although she was in the 19th week of pregnancy at the time, she suffered a miscarriage just prior to admission. Upon presentation to our department, she demonstrated unstable vital signs, diminished consciousness, anuria, and icterus. Purpuric discoloration with ecchymosis of the skin was noted in over most of her body, including the distal extremities. The chest X-ray findings were close to normal. Initial laboratory studies revealed the presence of severe metabolic acidosis and disseminated intravascular coagulation with multiple organ failure. Despite aggressive cardiopulmonary support, normal neurological responses disappeared on the 2nd day following admission and the patient died on the 16th day after admission. The patient's isolates from blood and vaginal swabs both later revealed penicillin-susceptible Streptococcus pneumoniae, serotype 12F. The presentation of rapidly progressive septic shock should raise the treating physician's suspicion of overwhelming pneumococcal infection, which has limited management options." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0599_9063", "title": "Who needs a blood culture? A prospectively derived and validated prediction rule.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The study objective was to derive and validate a clinical decision rule for obtaining blood cultures in Emergency Department (ED) patients with suspected infection. This was a prospective, observational cohort study of consecutive adult ED patients with blood cultures obtained. The study ran from February 1, 2000 through February 1, 2001. Patients were randomly assigned to derivation (2/3) or validation (1/3) sets. The outcome was \"true bacteremia.\" Features of the history, co-morbid illness, physical examination, and laboratory testing were used to create a clinical decision rule. Among 3901 patients, 3730 (96%) were enrolled with 305 (8.2%) episodes of true bacteremia. A decision rule was created with \"major criteria\" defined as: temperature &gt; 39.5 degrees C (103.0 degrees F), indwelling vascular catheter, or clinical suspicion of endocarditis. \"Minor criteria\" were: temperature 38.3-39.4 degrees C (101-102.9 degrees F), age &gt; 65 years, chills, vomiting, hypotension (systolic blood pressure &lt; 90 mm Hg), neutrophil% &gt; 80, white blood cell count &gt; 18 k, bands &gt; 5%, platelets &lt; 150 k, and creatinine &gt; 2.0. A blood culture is indicated by the rule if at least one major criterion or two minor criteria are present. Otherwise, patients are classified as \"low risk\" and cultures may be omitted. Only 4 (0.6%) low-risk patients in the derivation set and 3 (0.9%) low-risk patients in the validation set had positive cultures. The sensitivity was 98% (95% confidence interval [CI] 96-100%) (derivation) and 97% (95% CI 94-100%) (validation). We developed and validated a promising clinical decision rule for predicting bacteremia in patients with suspected infection." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en009_14185", "title": "Sepsis", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Early recognition and focused management may improve the outcomes in sepsis. Current professional recommendations include a number of actions (\"bundles\") to be followed as soon as possible after diagnosis. Within the first three hours, someone with sepsis should have received antibiotics and, intravenous fluids if there is evidence of either low blood pressure or other evidence for inadequate blood supply to organs (as evidenced by a raised level of lactate); blood cultures also should be obtained within this time period. After six hours the blood pressure should be adequate, close monitoring of blood pressure and blood supply to organs should be in place, and the lactate should be measured again if initially it was raised. A related bundle, the \"Sepsis Six\", is in widespread use in the United Kingdom; this requires the administration of antibiotics within an hour of recognition, blood cultures, lactate, and hemoglobin determination, urine output monitoring, high-flow oxygen, and" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_32531", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The disposition of younger, previously healthy heat-exhaustion patients who have no major laboratory abnormalities may include hospital observation and discharge after IV rehydration. Older patients with comorbidities (including cardiovascular disease) or predisposing factors often require inpatient fluid and electrolyte replacement, monitoring, and reassessment. The clinical manifestations of heatstroke reflect a total loss of thermo-regulatory function. Typical vital-sign abnormalities include tachypnea, various tachycardias, hypotension, and a widened pulse pressure. Although there is no single specific diagnostic test, the historical and physical triad of exposure to a heat stress, CNS dysfunction, and a core temperature >40.5°C helps establish the preliminary diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0991_9316", "title": "Near-infrared Spectroscopy in Transport With a Patient in Multi-factorial Shock.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 14-year-old male with a history of repaired truncus arteriosus presented to an outside hospital emergency room in respiratory distress. The triage report to the transport referral center included the following vital signs: temperature of 36.6°C, respiratory rate (RR) of 26 breaths/min, heart rate (HR) of 144 beats/min, and blood pressure (BP) of 113/52 mm Hg with peripheral capillary oxygen saturation (SpO<sub2</sub) of 95% on 4 L via an OxyMask (SouthMedic, Barrie, Ontario, Canada). Additional information indicated severe right ventricle to pulmonary artery conduit stenosis; anuria for 2 days; and cool, mottled extremities. The transport team was dispatched via helicopter. The vital signs upon arrival were as follows: temperature of 36.5°C, HR of 153 beats/min, RR of 48 breaths/min, BP of 81/52, mean arterial pressure of 62, and SpO<sub2</sub of 96% on 8 L via an OxyMask. Physical assessment revealed the patient was alert and oriented, tachypneic, tachycardic, and displaying poor perfusion. An epinephrine drip was initiated while the patient was being prepared for transport. Near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS) was initiated with cerebral NIRS of 71% and renal NIRS of 39%. The epinephrine drip was escalated, and norepinephrine was initiated and titrated up for continued poor perfusion and low renal NIRS. Vitals at the transfer of care at the receiving facility were HR of 142 beats/min, BP of 91/51 mm Hg, RR of 56 breaths/min, SpO<sub2</sub of 99%, and cerebral NIRS of 75% and renal NIRS of 53%. The patient required mechanical circulatory support shortly after admission. NIRS monitoring was used to help measure perfusion and reassess interventions made during transport." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0546_6181", "title": "Risk factors for heat related death during the August 2003 heat wave in Paris, France, in patients evaluated at the emergency department of the Hôpital Européen Georges Pompidou.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "This study sought to determine the risk factors for short term mortality in the victims of the heat wave of August 2003 in France from among patients evaluated in our emergency department (ED). It was hypothesised that age, temperature, and some long term therapies and pre-existing pathologies were factors associated with short term mortality. A retrospective analysis of a seven day period. Four experts decided blindly, in pairs, whether a patient had presented with a heat related problem. Inclusion criteria were: core temperature &gt; or =38 degrees C and/or clinical signs of dehydration. Comparisons were made between the survivors and one month non-survivors for 57 different items. Short term mortality was defined as death in the ED or within the first month of the ED visit. Of 841 patients attending the ED in the study period, 165 were included in the study, of which most were elderly women. Thirty one (18.8%) died within one month. Factors associated with short term mortality were: a greater degree of dependent living; more severe clinical condition on admission (higher temperature and heart rate, lower blood pressure, hypoxia, and altered mental status); higher values of blood glucose, troponin, and white blood cell count; lower values of serum protein and prothrombin levels; pre-existing ischaemic cardiomyopathy; pneumonia as associated infection; and previous psychotropic treatment. The total number of survivors at one year was 91. Although this study is limited because of the small sample size, the results have helped determine factors useful for future identification of patients at greatest risk of death in order to implement a more efficient patient care protocol." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0088_2504", "title": "[Status epilepticus induced by prolonged immersion in hot herb bath: report of one case].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 6-year-old girl with cerebral palsy developed conscious disturbance and generalized convulsion after one-hour hot herb drug bath. Physical examination on admission revealed rectal temperature 41 degrees C, hot skin, respiration 46/min, regular heart beat 98/min, BP 130/60 mmHg, Glascow coma scale 4 (E2M1V1), soft and flat abdomen, no hepatosplenomegaly, no skin rash, no focal neurological sign, increased generalized muscle ton. Laboratory data showed CBC: WBC 20400 cumm (Neutrophils 31%, Lymphocytes 69%), Hb 11.6gm%, ESR 11 mm/hr, arterial blood gas: PH 7.077, PO2 43mmHg, PCO2 57.1mmHg, HCO3- 16 mEq/L, BE-11.5mEq/L, serum sodium 143 mEq./L, potassium 5.2 mEq/L, chloride 101 mEq/L, free calcium ion 3.8mg%, GOT 63IU/L, GPT 263 IU/L, amylase 193 IU/L, alkaline phosphatase 388 IU/L, LDH 1245 IU/L, CPK 677 IU/L, total bilirubin 0.8 mg/dl, direct type 0.1 mg/dl, BUN 18 mg/dl, Glucose 35 mg/dl. Urinalysis revealed proteinuria( ) trace hematuria and pyuria, but no cast. Lumbar puncture is within normal limits. Bacteriology including blood and CSF are normal. Multiple organ failure was noted at that time. Intensive cooling methods were performed including central and peripheral cooling. We used luminal and valium to control the seizure. Condition didn't improve. Afterwards cardiopulmonary arrest developed. Patient expired 8 hours after admission despite of resuscitation. Heat stroke in infancy and childhood is different from that in adulthood. The predisposing factors are high ambient temperature, dehydration, very young baby, sweat gland dysfunction, or ectodermal dysplasia. Definition of heat stroke includes 1) rectal temperature above 41 degrees C, 2) behavioral change, 3) warm skin, wet or dry.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en020_27369", "title": "Hypotension", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Volume resuscitation (usually with crystalloid or blood products) Blood pressure support with a vasopressor (all seem equivalent with respect to risk of death, with norepinephrine possibly better than dopamine). Trying to achieve a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of greater than 70 mmHg does not appear to result in better outcomes than trying to achieve a MAP of greater than 65 mm Hg in adults. Ensure adequate tissue perfusion (maintain SvO2 >70 with use of blood or dobutamine) Address the underlying problem (i.e., antibiotic for infection, stent or CABG (coronary artery bypass graft surgery) for infarction, steroids for adrenal insufficiency, etc...) The best way to determine if a person will benefit from fluids is by doing a passive leg raise followed by measuring the output from the heart." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0124_8843", "title": "[Electrocardiographic and hemodynamic changes during systemic hyperthermia (42 degrees C)].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "During systemic hyperthermia (42 degrees C), depression of ST segments or T wave changes in the left precordial leads were noticed in 56% of patients, and 29% of cases showed right bundle branch block. Supraventricular tachycardia was found in 26% and temporary deviation of mean frontal vector to the left axis was observed in 15%. These changes disappeared following recovery to normal temperature. The ECG findings for any particular patient were similar even during a second period of hyperthermia. Pulse rate became elevated by 1.7 times, and cardiac output became up to 2.4 times higher at 42 degrees C." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1041_1216", "title": "A Middle-Aged Woman With Hematochezia, Hypotension, and Leg Cramps.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 57-year-old woman with a history of mantle cell lymphoma presented to the ED with complaints of vomiting, bleeding per rectum, and leg cramps, that started 6 h prior to her arrival. She had received chemotherapy a week prior. Her leg cramps were not associated with pain or swelling of the legs; she also denied any trauma to the legs. She did complain of mild lower abdominal pain at presentation. Review of systems was negative for fever, chills, diarrhea, chest pain, and dizziness. She denied using alcohol or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The patient was tachycardic with a systolic BP (SBP) of 85 mm Hg and was administered 1-L normal saline, with improvement in her SBP to 90 mm Hg. The hematocrit level was 24%, the WBC count was 0.3 × 10<sup9</sup/L, and the platelet count was 6 × 10<sup9</sup/L in the ED. On arrival in the ICU, she was noted to have an SBP of 70 mm Hg. Resuscitation with IV fluids was initiated, followed by transfusion of packed RBCs and platelets, based on the blood counts. Despite aggressive fluid resuscitation and improvement in her hemoglobin, the patient remained persistently hypotensive. The diagnosis of underlying septic shock because of neutropenia was considered; the patient was started on vasopressors and empirical broad-spectrum antibiotics, with improvement in her BP. After this, the patient was sent to radiology for a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast to evaluate for mesenteric infarction, enteric or colonic bleeding, and the need for arterial embolization." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0495_3220", "title": "Cases from the Osler Medical Service at Johns Hopkins University.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "PRESENTING FEATURES: A 70-year-old African American man was admitted with a history of fever, chills, and malaise of several days' duration. His past medical history was notable for end-stage renal disease requiring hemodialysis, coronary artery disease, and aortic stenosis requiring a bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement. On the day of admission, the patient was noted to have a shaking chill while undergoing dialysis through his catheter and was admitted to the hospital. He complained of pain at the catheter insertion site, shortness of breath, and dyspnea on exertion, but denied chest pain. On physical examination, the patient had a temperature of 100.4 degrees F, with a heart rate of 64 beats per minute, blood pressure of 127/72 mm Hg, and an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. He was a mildly obese man in no apparent distress. He had shotty cervical lymphadenopathy and a right subclavian dialysis catheter in place, with erythema and pus at the entry site. His jugular venous pressure was 10 cm H(2)O. Lung examination showed bibasilar rales. Heart sounds were normal, with no rub or gallop. He had a 2/6 systolic ejection murmur best heart at the left sternal border as well as a 3/6 holosystolic murmur at the apex that radiated to his left axilla. Examination of the abdomen and extremities was unremarkable. The patient's neurological examination was unremarkable, and he was alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Laboratory studies showed an elevated white blood cell count of 16,700 cells/microL. His blood urea nitrogen level was 43 mg/dL and his serum creatinine level was 4.9 mg/dL. Multiple blood cultures grew methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. An admission, chest radiograph showed no infiltrate. An admission electrocardiogram showed normal sinus rhythm with first degree atrioventricular block, left anterior fascicular block, and left ventricular hypertrophy. shows rhythm strips from lead II electrocardiograms 5 months before admission (top), on admission (middle) and 5 days after admission (bottom). What is the diagnosis?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0597_11615", "title": "A middle-aged female with recurrent sinopulmonary infections: a case report.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is a form of severe antibody deficiency with an estimated prevalence of 1 in 25,000 to 1 in 100,000. The disorder apparently results from currently undefined immune deregulations resulting in failed B-cell differentiation with impaired secretion of immunoglobulins. It has a broad range of clinical symptoms including recurrent infections of the respiratory tract, chronic lung disease, autoimmune diseases, liver and gastrointestinal disorders, granulomatous infiltrations, lymphoma and solid tumors. A 42-year-old Caucasian female presented with a one-day history of high-grade fever and productive cough associated with retrosternal chest pain. The patient had been discharged one week prior after a prolonged stay in an intensive care unit with multiorgan failure requiring temporary hemodialysis for two weeks secondary to sepsis. Past medical history was significant for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, recurrent pneumonias and recurrent sinus infections since adolescence. She had a temperature of 99.8 degrees F, was tachycardic (137/min), tachypneic (26/min) with a blood pressure of 109/59 mmHg and oxygen saturation of 88% on 2 l/min nasal oxygen. Physical examination was significant for bibasilar rhonchi. Laboratory data were significant for leukocytosis of 15,700/mm3. Chest X-ray demonstrated bibasilar infiltrates. The patient was started on intravenous levofloxacin and vancomycin, and sputum gram stain and cultures were performed. Given the patient's recurrent respiratory infections, an underlying immunologic disorder was considered. Work-up revealed immunoglobulin A (IgA) 11 mg/dl (normal 70-400 mg/dl), immunoglobulin M (IgM) 2 mg/dl (normal 40-230 mg/dl) and IgG 53 mg/dl (normal 700-1,600 mg/dl). The patient was diagnosed with CVID and started on intravenous immunoglobulin. She was initially started on a four-week regimen of intravenous immunoglobulin, which was later switched to a three-week regimen as the patient had respiratory infections on the four-week regimen. She remained asymptomatic on a three times/week intravenous immunoglobulin regimen. This case emphasizes the need for a high index of clinical suspicion for CVID in patients presenting with recurrent sinopulmonary infections. Although intravenous immunoglobulin provides improvement in these patients, early diagnosis is the key to preventing significant morbidity and mortality and improving prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0004_14676", "title": "[Factor analysis fever in the early postoperative period following cardiopulmonary bypass surgery in adults. Correlation with bacteriological data. Statistical study of 518 case histories by computer].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The results of a continuous series of 518 adults undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass surgery, operated on by the same surgeon, comprising valvular replacement and aorto-coronary bypass surgery with a peroperative protocol of asepsis and a short prophylactic course of Penicillin and Streptomycin, a preoperative and postoperative bacteriological study, were treated by computer. The postoperative temperature chart showed a progressively decreasing pyrexia in the first 8 days after cardiopulmonary bypass. The nature of the operation, the bypass time, the quantity of blood used during operation and the blood loss were statistically significant factors. Patients with a clinical infection had significantly higher temperatures from the first on. 8,9% of patients had a febrile reaction which continued after the 10th day after cardiopulmonary bypass. The cause was not always apparent but the appearance of their temperature graphs was distinguishable after the first week. Analysis of the systematic bacterial specimens showed bacterial contamination of nearly 10% of drains, 10% of blood cultures, over 15% of intravenous infusion catheters and 70% of urinary catheters. The significance of these results is discussed. The normal appearance of the temperature chart after cardiopulmonary bypass surgery in the absence of clinical complications and bacterial contamination has been established." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0360_11272", "title": "[Autoimmune hepatitis complicated by intolerable pain of lower extremities and shock due to azathioprine].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 24-year-old woman was followed for about ten months with oral administration of prednisolone (22.5-35 mg/d) for autoimmune hepatitis. In June 1995, she noticed fatigue and appetite loss and blood chemistry revealed markedly deteriorated liver function. She was admitted to our hospital. The daily dose of prednisolone was increased to 60 mg. Her elevated levels of transaminases decreased gradually. Administration of azathioprine (100 mg/d) was started with tapering of prednisolone on August 18th. Ten days later, tender cervical lymphadenopathy and high fever occurred. Azathioprine administration was stopped immediately and intravenous antibiotics were given. On September 5th, 50 mg of azathioprine was administered again. Two hours later, the patient complained of intolerable pain from the lumbar region to the knee joints, which subsided following two injections of analgesics within a few hours. However, chills, high fever and hypotension (86/30 mmHg) subsequently developed. No bacterial growth was detected in blood culture. She was discharged on September 12th. On October 4th, she visited our out-patient clinic. The next day, she took one tablet (50 mg) of azathioprine at 10 o'clock. She noted intense pain from the thighs to the knees and calves around noon again. Her home doctor found that she exhibited shock (BP 67/?). She was immediately taken to our department. The same symptoms and signs as the above-mentioned occurred. Azathioprine was considered responsible for these two adverse reactions (shock) as an allergen. Later, systemic lupus eythematosus was diagnosed in 1996. And she died to pulmonary hypertension in May 1999. Physicians should be aware of the potential adverse effect of azathioprine administered in order to manage the patients with autoimmune disorders." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0573_19564", "title": "[Influence of axillary temperature on blood culture yield in the emergency department].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To determine the clinical and epidemiological characteristics of patients undergoing blood culture in the emergency department and to identify the relation between the results of blood culture and axillary temperature at blood extraction. We performed a prospective, observational study. All patients who underwent blood extraction by 2 emergency department nurses, as indicated by physicians, between January 2004 and December 2005 were included. The patients were stratified into subgroups according to their temperature on extraction and final diagnosis. Bivariate analysis was performed to compare the clinical and epidemiological characteristics of the patients in relation to the presence of bacteremia and the distinct subgroups established. Isolates of common contaminating microorganisms were discarded. A total of 603 patients were included. The highest percentages of bacteremia were found in patients with high fever or hypothermia. Among the overall group of patients, a significant correlation was found between axillary temperature and bacteremia. However, when patients with a final diagnosis of a disease with a low probability of bacteremia were excluded, this correlation disappeared and no association was found between temperature and the risk of bacteremia in specific infectious processes (pneumonia, pyelonephritis, etc). The main factor associated with bacteremia was the disease prompting blood culture rather than patient temperature." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0921_24414", "title": "2-Methyl-4-chlorophenoxyacetic acid (MCPA) and bromoxynil herbicide ingestion.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Ingestion of bromoxynil and 2-methyl-4-chlorophenoxyacetic acid (MCPA) in combination is associated with high mortality. Toxicity is characterised by hyperthermia and metabolic acidosis. Dialysis is a proposed treatment, but little data exist regarding its effectiveness. Case 1: A 50-year-old female presented 18 h post-ingestion of 200  mL of bromoxynil(200 g/L) and MCPA(200 g/L). She was agitated, tachycardic and tachypnoeic. She was intubated and continuous venovenous haemodiafiltration (CVVHDF) was commenced. She deteriorated, becoming hypotensive, hyperthermic (39.5 °C) and hypercapnic (80 mmHg). She was cooled, paralysed, received CVVHDF for 2d and was extubated on day 4 making a full recovery. Case 2: A 60-year-old male presented 6 h post-ingestion of an unknown amount of bromoxynil (200 g/L) and MCPA (200 g/L). On arrival, he was tachycardic and tachypneic (pCO<sub2</sub 25 mmHg). At 8h post-ingestion he became hyperthermic, hypercapnic and acidotic (pH 7.15), and was intubated, paralysed, cooled and received CVVHDF for 36 h. He was extubated after 42 h and made a full recovery. Bromoxynil and MCPA serum and effluent concentrations were measured. Peak MCPA serum concentrations were 161 µg/ml and 259 µg/ml and peak bromoxynil concentrations were 119 µg/ml and 155 µg/ml in case 1 and 2, respectively. The estimated clearance of both herbicides by CVVHDF was low (&lt;10 mL/min). CVVHDF did not result in significant clearance of either herbicide but may have assisted with hyperthermia control. Both patients survived with vigorous cooling, paralysis and ventilatory support." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0678_2820", "title": "[Blood cultures when fever?].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 78-year-old man was referred from his residency where he lives to the emergency division due to general deterioration and frequent falls in the last week. His personal history is remarkable for arterial hypertension and diabetes. Two weeks before he needed a vesical catheterism that was traumatic and profilactic ciprofloxacin was prescribed. On physical exploration he appears disoriented, blood pressure is 9/40 mm Hg, cardiac rythm 120 beats per minute, temperature 37,3 °C and 24 respirations per minute. He appears to have pain on his upper left abdomen cuadrant. When the nurse gets a peripheral vein she asks, ¿should I obtain hemocultures?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en027_60985", "title": "Major trauma", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A FAST exam may help assess for internal bleeding. In certain traumas, such as maxillofacial trauma, it may be beneficial to have a highly trained health care provider available to maintain airway, breathing, and circulation. Intravenous fluids Traditionally, high-volume intravenous fluids were given to people who had poor perfusion due to trauma. This is still appropriate in cases with isolated extremity trauma, thermal trauma, or head injuries. In general, however, giving lots of fluids appears to increase the risk of death. Current evidence supports limiting the use of fluids for penetrating thorax and abdominal injuries, allowing mild hypotension to persist. Targets include a mean arterial pressure of 60 mmHg, a systolic blood pressure of 70–90 mmHg, or the re-establishment of peripheral pulses and adequate ability to think. Hypertonic saline has been studied and found to be of little difference from normal saline." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0900_20858", "title": "The Absence of Fever Is Associated With Higher Mortality and Decreased Antibiotic and IV Fluid Administration in Emergency Department Patients With Suspected Septic Shock.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "This study evaluates whether emergency department septic shock patients without a fever (reported or measured) receive less IV fluids, have decreased antibiotic administration, and suffer increased in-hospital mortality. This was a secondary analysis of a prospective, observational study of patients with shock. The study was conducted in an urban, academic emergency department. The original study enrolled consecutive adult (aged 18 yr or older) emergency department patients from November 11, 2012, to September 23, 2013, who met one of the following shock criteria: 1) systolic blood pressure less than 90 mm Hg after at least 1L IV fluids, 2) new vasopressor requirement, or 3) systolic blood pressure less than 90 mm Hg and IV fluids held for concern of fluid overload. The current study is limited to patients with septic shock. Patients were grouped as febrile if they had a subjective fever or a measured temperature &gt;100.4°F documented in the emergency department; afebrile patients lacked both. Among 378 patients with septic shock, 207 of 378 (55%; 50-60%) were febrile by history or measurement. Afebrile patients had lower rates of antibiotic administration in the emergency department (81% vs 94%; p &lt; 0.01), lower mean volumes of IV fluids (2,607 vs 3,013 mL; p &lt; 0.01), and higher in-hospital mortality rates (33% vs 11%; p &lt; 0.01). After adjusting for bicarbonate less than 20 mEq/L, lactate concentration, respiratory rate greater than or equal to 24 breaths/min, emergency department antibiotics, and emergency department IV fluids volume, being afebrile remained a significant predictor of in-hospital mortality (odds ratio, 4.3; 95% CI, 2.2-8.2; area under the curve = 0.83). In emergency department patients with septic shock, afebrile patients received lower rates of emergency department antibiotic administration, lower mean IV fluids volume, and suffered higher in-hospital mortality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1007_14583", "title": "A successful management after preterm delivery in a patient with severe sepsis during third-trimester pregnancy.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A 33-year-old woman visited the emergency department presenting with fever and dyspnea. She was pregnant with gestational age of 31 weeks and 6 days. She had dysuria for 7 days, and fever and dyspnea for 1 day. The vital signs were as follows: blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 118 beats/minute, respiratory rate 28/minute, body temperature 38.7℃, and oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry 84% during inhalation of 5 liters of oxygen by nasal prongs. Crackles were heard over both lung fields. There were no signs of uterine contractions. Chest X-ray and chest computed tomography scan showed multiple consolidations and air bronchograms in both lungs. According to urinalysis, there was pyuria and microscopic hematuria. She was diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia and urinary tract infection (UTI) that progressed to severe sepsis and acute respiratory failure. We found extended-spectrum beta-lactamase producing <iEscherichia coli</i in the blood culture and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus in the sputum culture. The patient was transferred to the intensive care unit with administration of antibiotics and supplementation of high-flow oxygen. On hospital day 2, hypoxemia was aggravated. She underwent endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation. After 3 hours, fetal distress was suspected. Under 100% fraction of inspired oxygen, her oxygen partial pressure was 87 mmHg in the arterial blood. She developed acute kidney injury and thrombocytopenia. We diagnosed her with multi-organ failure due to severe sepsis. After an emergent cesarean section, pneumonia, UTI, and other organ failures gradually recovered. The patient and baby were discharged soon thereafter." }, { "id": "article-31671_2", "title": "EMS Clinical Diagnosis Without The Use Of A Thermometer -- Issues of Concern", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The subjective assessment of fever, as well as the assessment of other signs and symptoms that occur with infectious disease, is important in EMS. Pulse can be high due to fever, or with possible associated dehydration or shock. Palpating a pulse not only gives an accurate rate, but it also gives information about the effectiveness of blood pressure and flow. This can be of significant concern with a severe infectious disease, especially sepsis. Shock can develop quickly and differentiating infectious cause for shock will be important for definitive treatment. Unfortunately, people taking medications affecting the heart rate (such as beta blockers or calcium channel blockers) may not mount a tachycardic response, so a normal heart rate does not rule out fever or infection. Additionally, sepsis, especially in the elderly, can actually cause bradycardia (associated with end-organ failure.)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en018_74247", "title": "Septic shock", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Treatment Treatment primarily consists of the following: Giving intravenous fluids Early antibiotic administration Early goal directed therapy Rapid source identification and control Support of major organ dysfunction Fluids Because lowered blood pressure in septic shock contributes to poor perfusion, fluid resuscitation is an initial treatment to increase blood volume. Patients demonstrating sepsis-induced hypoperfusion should be initially resuscitated with at least 30 ml/kg of intravenous crystalloid within the first three hours. Crystalloids such as normal saline and lactated Ringer's solution are recommended as the initial fluid of choice, while the use of colloid solutions such as hydroxyethyl starch have not shown any advantage or decrease in mortality. When large quantities of fluids are given, administering albumin has shown some benefit." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0120_14524", "title": "[Accidental deep hypothermia and circulatory arrest. Treatment with extracorporeal circulation].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A 27-year old female was discovered at 4 a.m. lying in a wet field, the ambient temperature being of 4 degrees C. Her rectal temperature had fallen to 19 degrees C. She was comatose and failed to respond to noxious stimuli. Her pupils were dilated and fixed. Her respiratory rate was reduced to three to four breaths per min. Her blood pressure was not measurable and neither femoral or carotid pulse could be detected. The heart was in sinus rhythm with a rate of 40 b X min-1. During her transfer to hospital, she was ventilated with oxygen, a tidal volume of 300 ml and a rate of 10 b X min-1. On arrival in the emergency room, a short period of ventricular fibrillation preceded cardiac arrest. Cardiac massage and sodium bicarbonate infusion were continued during the transfer of the patient to the operating theatre. A femoro-femoral cardiopulmonary bypass was started with a bloodless priming, 3 mg X kg-1 heparin and a flow of 3,000 to 3,500 ml X min-1. Mean arterial pressure was maintained between 65 and 85 mmHg; cardiac massage was discontinued during the bypass. Within 50 min, ventricular fibrillation appeared, rectal temperature had increased to 33 degrees C. Electrical defibrillation (300 J) was successful. Cardiopulmonary bypass was stopped after 63 min. The postoperative course was uneventful, apart from transient pulmonary oedema. At the time of discharge, a week later, no loss of intellect or change in behaviour could be perceived.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en008_58101", "title": "Shock (circulatory)", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "of 40 mmHg from baseline) despite adequate fluid resuscitation along with the presence of perfusion abnormalities that may include, but are not limited to, lactic acidosis, oliguria, or an acute alteration in mental status. Patients who are receiving inotropic or vasopressor agents may have a normalized blood pressure at the time that perfusion abnormalities are identified. The pathophysiology behind septic shock is as follows: 1) Systemic leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells 2) Reduced contractility of the heart 3) Activation of the coagulation pathways, resulting in disseminated intravascular coagulation 4). Increased levels of neutrophils" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0493_1726", "title": "Mycotic pseudoaneurysm of the brachiocephalic artery.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "A 73-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presented with a sharp pain ranging from the right shoulder to the upper limb. She had suffered a sharp pain at rest accompanied by general fatigue and nausea for about ten months prior to admission. Her white blood cell count was 12,800/microl, and her serum C-reactive protein was 17.5 mg/dl. A chest computed tomography scan revealed an aneurysmal change of the origin of the brachiocephalic artery. Pseudoaneurysm due to infection and aortic dissection was considered as a preoperative diagnosis. A total arch replacement was performed under cardiopulmonary bypass, deep hypothermia, and selective cerebral perfusion. Postoperatively, a bacteriologic culture of the contents of the aneurysm revealed Staphylococcus aureus. Perioperative administration of antibiotics was effective and the postoperative course was uneventful." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en009_14154", "title": "Sepsis", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that arises when the body's response to infection causes injury to its own tissues and organs. This initial stage is followed by suppression of the immune system. Common signs and symptoms include fever, increased heart rate, increased breathing rate, and confusion. There may also be symptoms related to a specific infection, such as a cough with pneumonia, or painful urination with a kidney infection. The very young, old, and people with a weakened immune system may have no symptoms of a specific infection, and the body temperature may be low or normal instead of having a fever. Severe sepsis causes poor organ function or blood flow. The presence of low blood pressure, high blood lactate, or low urine output may suggest poor blood flow. Septic shock is low blood pressure due to sepsis that does not improve after fluid replacement." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0253_4620", "title": "[An elder case of accidental hypothermia].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "A 87-year-old woman with accidental hypothermia was admitted to our hospital. On admission, she showed consciousness disturbance (JSC III-200) the decorticate rigidity and shock. Her body temperature was too low to been measured and her ECG revealed a J wave. She received the external rewarming and warm fluid replacement. Her consciousness level recovered to JSC II-20 after 2.5 hours of treatment, to JCSI-1 after 7.5 hours. Her body temperature reached 34.5 degrees C 9.5 hours later, and the J wave on ECG disappeared. She was discharged without complications on the 6th hospital day. it was suggested that early diagnosis and the proper therapy improves the mortality of accidental hypothermia." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 422 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 65 ] ], "text": "Correct Answer 1: Given that this is a displaced subcapital hip fracture, the surgical treatment we should consider is hip joint replacement, given that the injury described presents a high probability of necrosis of the femoral head. The options would be total or partial arthroplasty: in elderly patients, partial arthroplasty is preferred because it is a shorter and less aggressive surgery than total hip arthroplasty." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 423, 561 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 65, 84 ] ], "text": "Answer 2 incorrect: We would consider this technique in basicervical fractures and trochanteric mass lesions, not in subcapital fractures." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 562, 670 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 84, 99 ] ], "text": "Incorrect Answer 3: We would consider this technique in nondisplaced subcapital fractures in young patients." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 671, 839 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 99, 124 ] ], "text": "Incorrect answer 4: We would only consider non-surgical treatment in a patient with a very poor baseline general condition: bedridden patients with low life expectancy." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Hip hemiarthroplasty.", "2": "Trochanteric nail fixation.", "3": "Fixation with cannulated screws.", "4": "Conservative: bed-chair life.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0359_688", "title": "Ethics in practice.", "score": 0.018706293706293706, "content": "H. K. is a ninety-two-year-old woman with Alzheimer's disease and mild hypertension. She resides at a nursing home, where she transfers from bed to chair with maximal assistance. She presents to our emergency department with a painful right hip. Physical examination demonstrates a confused, elderly patient with significant right hip pain and shortening and external rotation of the lower extremity. Radiographs demonstrate a displaced intertrochanteric hip fracture. The patient lacks the capacity for informed consent. Her family is contacted to obtain consent for insertion of a compression screw. The family refuses to give consent, stating that the patient is too old and the surgery is too dangerous." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0513_14674", "title": "[Evaluation of the postoperative quality of life in the elderly over 80 years old who underwent hip hemiarthroplasty for femoral neck fracture].", "score": 0.015358455378201963, "content": "To evaluate the postoperative quality of life of aged patients (&gt; 80 years old) who underwent hip hemiarthroplasty for femoral neck fracture one year ago. From February 1995 to February 2001, 52 elderly patients (&gt; 80 years old) underwent the hip hemiarthroplasty after femoral neck fractures. There were 28 males and 24 females, with the average age of 84.2 years old (ranged from 80 - 95 years old). The fracture type was Garden III or IV, and all the patients underwent the hip hemiarthroplasty of domestic prosthesis. Before the operation, most of them were accompanied with pre-existed diseases. Harris hip score including symptoms and the ability of daily life at the one year after operation was adopted for the follow-up. Postoperative A-P and lateral X-ray of hip joint in different phase were also assayed. Forty-six patients (88.46%) were free of pain and satisfied their operations, only 6 patients (11.54%) complained about slight pain. Twenty-four patients (46.2%) were able to walk without any assistant, 24 patients (46.2%) managed to walk by walker, 4 patients (7.7%) could only lie on the bed or move by wheel chair. Postoperatively, patients with neurological diseases such as Parkinson dementia, Senile dementia, cerebrovascular diseases got poor result of the quality of life. However, the other comorbid diseases such as cardiovascular diseases, diabetes mellitus, chronic renal failure, chronic bronchitis did not affect the result. Thirty-eight patients had the postoperative X-ray when they were followed up. Postoperatively, the X-ray were taken from 3 months to 5 years and 6 months, averaged 54.2 months. Sclerotic line were discovered around the shaft of prosthesis only in 3 patients. No complications such as femoral head central dislocation or hip osteoarthritis were found. Operative treatment could be actively adopted for aged femoral neck fracture patients without surgical contraindication, which can contribute to obtain the motion ability, reduce complication caused by lying in bed, and keep a good quality of life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1017_1095", "title": "MR-Brain Causing Confusion.", "score": 0.015281915480525212, "content": "An 82-year-old lady was found on the floor of her home, confused and surrounded by vomitus. She had a past medical history of type II diabetes, hypothyroidism, previous left total hip replacement, and previous hip fracture treated with right dynamic screw fixation. Prior to the current presentation she had been living alone, mobilizing independently with a walking stick and self-caring for her activities of daily living. She was last seen by her daughter on the previous day, and reported no concerning symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0812_25999", "title": "Ground-level geriatric falls: a not-so-minor mechanism of injury.", "score": 0.013338496622348435, "content": "Introduction. Ground-level falls are typically regarded as a minor mechanism of injury that do not necessitate trauma team activation; however, they represent a significant proportion of hospitalised trauma and can result in multisystem injury. Case Presentation. A 79-year-old nursing home resident was brought to the emergency department following an unwitnessed fall. She suffered dementia and had a seizure in the department resulting in a reduced GCS, making history and examination difficult. She was diagnosed with a right proximal humerus fracture and admitted under joint orthopedic and medical care. Following orthopedic review, further X-rays were requested which showed bilateral neck of femur fractures. The following day she had bilateral hip hemiarthroplasties and K-wire stabilisation of the right shoulder. Several days later, when cognition had improved, she was noted to be avoiding use of the left arm and was found to also have a left proximal humerus fracture which was managed conservatively. Conclusion. Trauma patients with reduced cognitive function should undergo full ATLS assessment, and a prospective trial is required to see if age should be incorporated as a criteria for trauma team activation. More liberal use of advanced imaging such as a full body CT-scan may be beneficial. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0383_18195", "title": "Mortality and quality of life after trochanteric hip fracture.", "score": 0.01262884569989771, "content": "The objective was to evaluate the survival and some aspects of the quality of life of patients with trochanteric hip fracture after long-term follow-up in comparison with the age- and sex-matched controls without fracture. Two hundred consecutive patients (mean age at fracture 77 y) with trochanteric hip fractures were compared with the age- and sex-matched controls representing an average population from the same area. After a mean 7 y follow-up period a questionnaire concerning their place of residence, ambulation, causes leading to impairment, need for locomotor aids and management of activities in daily living (ADL) functions was sent to the surviving patients and controls. Mortality increased gradually being 4.5 percent above the control level one month after the fracture, 6.0 percent above at three months, 3.5 percent above at one year, 4.5 percent above at two years, 6.5 percent above at five years and 9.0 percent above at six years. Thirty (48%) of the surviving 62 patients and 83 (90%) of the 92 surviving controls were living in their own homes and 2 (3%) and 4 (4%) in service apartments respectively. Seventeen (27%) of patients alive were institutionalized in a chronic care hospital unit and 13 (21%) in an old people's home as compared with 2 (2%) and 3 (3%) of the controls respectively. Twenty-two (35%) of the patients and 73 (79%) of the controls were able to move about independently. The patients were significantly worse at ADL-management, required more home help and had fewer social contacts and outdoor hobbies than the controls. In conclusion surgically-treated trochanteric hip fractures markedly increase mortality rate, reduce independence and impair walking ability and ADL-functions, and thus seriously affect the health-related quality of life of the patients. This fact should be considered in the planning of the healthcare of elderly people." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0417_6300", "title": "Internal fixation compared with total hip replacement for displaced femoral neck fractures in the elderly. A randomised, controlled trial.", "score": 0.012620837808807732, "content": "The treatment algorithms for displaced fractures of the femoral neck need to be improved if we are to reduce the need for secondary surgery. We have studied 102 patients of mean age 80 years, with an acute displaced fracture of the femoral neck. They were randomly placed into two groups, treated either by internal fixation (IF) with two cannulated screws or total hip replacement (THR). None showed severe cognitive dysfunction, all were able to walk independently, and all lived in their own home. They were reviewed at four, 12 and 24 months after surgery. Outcome measurements included hip complications, revision surgery, hip function according to Charnley and the health-related quality of life (HRQoL) according to EuroQol (EQ-5D). The failure rate after 24 months was higher in the IF group than in the THR group with regard to hip complications (36% and 4%, respectively; p &lt; 0.001), and the number of revision procedures (42% and 4%, p &lt; 0.001). Hip function was significantly better in the THR group at all follow-up reviews regarding pain (p &lt; 0.005), movement (p &lt; 0.05 except at 4 months) and walking (p &lt; 0.05). The reduction in HRQoL (EQ-5D index score) was also significantly lower in the THR group than in the IF group, comparing the pre-fracture situation with that at all follow-up reviews (p &lt; 0.05). The results of our study strongly suggest that THR provides a better outcome than IF for elderly, relatively healthy, lucid patients with a displaced fracture of the femoral neck." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0395_17116", "title": "[Femoral shaft fractures in the elderly treated by intramedullary nailing].", "score": 0.012048613536355382, "content": "Little work has been devoted to femoral shaft fractures in the elderly, contrasting with the data available for proximal neck or trochanteric fractures. The purpose of this study was to determine the epidemiological and clinical features of femoral shaft fractures in the elderly from a retrospective series of 58 patients who underwent locked intramedullary nailing procedures with Grosse and Kempf (GK) or long gamma (GL) nails. The series included 38 women and 20 men, mean age 83.6 years, who suffered a fracture of the femoral diaphysis due to a fall at home (49 fractures), a traffic accident (8 fractures) or a high-energy fall (1 fracture). Prior to the fracture, 10 patients had homolateral osteoarthritis and two had a contralateral hip arthroplasty. Twenty-six patients were in very good health, 19 had a history of cardiovascular disease, 9 had diabetes and 12 suffered parkinsonian syndromes or dementia. The ASA score was I in 24, II in 23 and III in 11. The diaphyseal fracture was isolated in 31 cases and associated with trochanteric involvement in 27. The upper third of the femur was involved in 37 cases, the middle third in 7 and the lower third in 14. Generally there was a simple spiroid subtrochanteric fracture line (36 cases), or a torsion wedge with or without a proximal extension. Mean delay to surgery was 1.9 days. Subtrochanteric fractures with a proximal line were stabilized with a GL (34 nails) and diaphyseal fractures with a GK (24 nails). Mean duration of the procedure was 1.9 for GL and 2 hours for GK. In 22 cases (17 GL and 5 GK), a minimally invasive access was needed to achieve reduction or stabilization during reaming and insertion of complementary fixation (3 screw fixations, 7 cerclages). Six patients died before six months, 4 during the initial hospitalization. Twenty patients experienced general complications: 7 cases of phlebitis and 5 \"end-of-life\" syndromes. Infection occurred in 3 cases including one septic arthritis leading to a bedridden situation. A new fracture beyond the ends of the implant occurred in 2 others. The upright position was achieved within 31 days and total weight bearing within 69 days. Bone fusion was achieved at 4 months (mean). Six patients died between 6 and 12 months, giving a 20.6% mortality at 1 year. Clinical outcome at 12 months was available for 42 living patients: 21 were walking without assistance, 7 used a cane, 8 required crutches or another assistance device and 6 were bedridden. The general and functional prognosis of femoral shaft fractures in the elderly is the same as for proximal fractures. These diaphyseal fractures can be individualized due to their characteristic mechanical and anatomic features: composite fracture with a rotation element involving the distal portion of the trochanter and the proximal quarter of the diaphysis. Several types of ostheosynthesis have been proposed for fixation. Locked intramedullary nailing has been found to be effective despite the difficulty in reduction, especially for particularly proximal fractures. There is a risk of iterative fracture in the transition zones between the femoral component and the osteoporotic bone." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en512_13521", "title": "Kitni Girhain Baaki Hain (season 2)", "score": 0.01169925290096964, "content": "a new mobile. While, another woman's brother is unconscious because of drinking alcohol but he also survives! Bushra, angrily goes to her home, pushes a tap to get water and water comes hardly. She comes to home and shakes her bhandara. She abuses to doctor to not let die patient. She says to kill doctor. She again prays that someone should die. But again that patient survives. Doctor sees her and again says her that why has she come here and gives her money but she refuses. She goes to home where same doctor comes in ike and asks her to do nursing of hospital. She doesn't give answer but comes in hospital to be a nurse. Nurse guides her, she falls with that doctor and they both smile. She comes to home in night, where her father says that 3 persons died in highway and tap contains much water. She says her father if he could make her doctor. She sleeps in bed in ankles. Doctor comes and wakes her up that patient is dying and she is sleeping and warns that her father will be" }, { "id": "article-21679_7", "title": "Femoral Neck Fractures -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010165389269866883, "content": "In the majority of cases, the patient will have had recent trauma. In cases of dementia or cognitive impairment, the history may be scant without the report of any trauma. This is where obtaining an account from the nursing home, or health aids is crucial. Question the nurse aids of any recent falls and change in cognition the past few days. The patient will complain of pain with a decreased range of motion of the hip. In non-displaced fractures, there may be no deformity. However, displaced fractures may present with a shortened and externally rotated lower limb. The patient history varies depending on the mechanism of injury. The following should be obtained during the history and physical examination:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0348_11865", "title": "Subcapital femoral neck fracture after closed reduction and internal fixation of an intertrochanteric hip fracture: a case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A subcapital femoral neck fracture in a healed intertrochanteric fracture treated by an open reduction and internal fixation is a rare, but catastrophic, event. We present the case of an 86-year-old woman, a community ambulator, who sustained a displaced right intertrochanteric hip fracture during a fall. She was treated with closed reduction and internal fixation with a dynamic compression hip screw and side plate. Four months later, she was noted to have a displaced subcapital femoral neck fracture and underwent hip screw and side plate hardware removal and cemented bipolar hemiarthroplasty. Both postoperative recoveries were uncomplicated, and she was discharged to a rehabilitation facility able to ambulate with minimal assistance. This devastating complication in patients with osteoporosis may be prevented by deeper placement of the dynamic hip compression lag screw to within 5 mm to 8 mm of the subchondral bone, which may decrease the stress forces in the subcapital femoral neck." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0038_9199", "title": "Fractures of the hip in the tenth decade of life. Findings in 25 cases.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A report is given of the results of treatment of 25 patients with a fracture of the hip who were over 90 years of age. Twenty three patients were subjected to operation: 5 of these died in hospital, but not as a direct consequence of operation. Of the 18 patients discharged after an average hospital stay of 32 days, 13 were able to walk independently at home, on the average for over two years. It is concluded that surgical treatment of fractures of the hip in very old people is advisable and useful, provided they are in reasonable general condition and do not exhibit dementia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0781_4597", "title": "The effects of a Pilates-based exercise rehabilitation program on functional outcome and fall risk reduction in an aging adult status-post traumatic hip fracture due to a fall.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Currently, little information describing the relationship of Pilates-based strength and stability exercises with fall risk in the geriatric population exists. The purpose of this report was to examine the impact of a Pilates-based rehabilitation (PBR) program on reducing fall risk in an aging adult status postfall with resulting hip fracture and open reduction and internal fixation. The patient was an 84-year-old woman admitted to a skilled nursing facility (SNF) after a right hip fracture resulting from a fall at home. The patient's relevant medical history included frequent falls due to loss of balance, a previous left hip fracture with resultant arthroplasty, and a stroke roughly 20 years prior. The patient received physical therapy and occupational therapy 6 days per week for 26 days in an SNF. The physical therapy intervention consisted of gait and transfer training, neuromuscular reeducation, and an adjunct of specialized PBR exercises for the following impairments: decreased core strength and awareness and poor dynamic stabilization during functional activities. The patient demonstrated increases in lower extremity strength and active range of motion, ambulation distance and speed, and transfer ability. The patient was able to return home and live with her husband while requiring only incidental assistance with activities of daily living. She was able to independently ambulate around her home with her rolling walker. Her fall risk was also reduced from initial evaluation based on several fall risk assessments, including the Four Square Step Test, the Berg Balance Scale, and the Timed Up and Go. This case illustrates the benefit of integrating PBR exercises into a standard SNF rehabilitation program, which may contribute to decreased fall risk." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0812_6234", "title": "Home, please: A conjoint analysis of patient preferences after a bad hip fracture.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "An Australian study of older, community-dwelling women found that 80% would rather be dead than experience loss of independence and nursing home admission after a bad hip fracture. We re-examined this issue using a conjoint analysis approach. We asked older hospital patients with a history of falls, fracture or osteoporosis to imagine they had a hip fracture resulting in significant residual disability. Subjects were asked to rank in order of preference an orthogonal array of nine out of 36 potential outcome scenarios reporting risk of falls, life expectancy, discharge home with support or to a nursing home and family agreement or disagreement with discharge location. Of 192 patients satisfying inclusion criteria, 183 agreed to participate and 97 completed the study. Those who failed to complete the study were older and had lower Mini-Mental State Examination scores than those who completed the study. For the group as a whole, averaged importance scores were: discharge residence 31.3%, length of life 27%, fall risk 26.4% and family preference 15.5%. On average, subjects would be willing to sacrifice approximately 9 months of life in order to return home rather than go to a nursing home. In the present study, older people at high risk for fracture judged that after a bad hip fracture their main priority would be to remain at home." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1159_2", "title": "Bilateral atraumatic femoral neck fractures resulting from transient osteoporosis of the hip.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A woman in her mid-30s presented to the orthopaedic team, unable to mobilise, shortly after her caesarean section. On questioning, she reported 10 weeks of atraumatic right hip pain. A radiograph revealed a displaced right subcapital neck of femur fracture. An MRI confirmed this, as well as identifying a minimally displaced left subcapital neck of femur fracture. She underwent a right total hip replacement and internal fixation of the left hip. A dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan showed severe osteoporosis, and a diagnosis of transient osteoporosis of the hip was made. She was seen by the bone metabolism team and given calcium and vitamin D medication. Although atraumatic hip fractures are rare in young patients, disproportionate or persisting hip pain in pregnant patients should raise the index of suspicion and prompt further investigation in the form of an MRI. This will allow timely management of hip fractures and improve patient outcomes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0838_6344", "title": "Long-Term Outcomes Following Reduction and Fixation of Displaced Subcapital Hip Fractures in the Young Elderly.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The surgical treatment of hip fractures remains controversial especially when considering age. To investigate the long-term functional outcomes of displaced subcapital hip fractures that were reduced and surgically fixed using parallel cannulated screws in patients aged 60 years and younger. During the period 1996-2005, 27 patients under age 60 with displaced subcapital hip fractures classified as Garden III or IV were treated with fracture reduction and surgical internal fixation using cannulated screws. Patient outcomes were assessed using the Harris Hip Score (HHS) and physical examination. During a follow-up period of 8-17 years 4 of the 27 patients (14.8%) developed non-union/femoral head avascular necrosis and had undergone hip arthroplasty. All reoperations were performed within the first year after fracture fixation, all in the 50-60 year old age group. The revision rate among patients 50-60 years old was significantly higher than that of patients 50 years and younger (40% vs. 0%, P = 0.037). Mean HHS was higher for patients not requiring revision surgery (85.4) than for patients with revision surgery (75.5), but this difference was not significant. Internal fixation using fracture reduction and cannulated screw fixation is a successful treatment modality for displaced subcapital hip fractures in patients under 50 years old. Patients aged 50-60 may have a higher risk of avascular necrosis or non-union and require arthroplasty, often within the first year after fracture fixation. The long-term outcome following these fractures is good when excluding patients who had early complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0903_12274", "title": "[Life-threatening sleepwalking (Elpenor's syndrome) in a 10-year-old child].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Though benign in the majority of cases, sleepwalking sometimes causes injuries due, among other causes, to falls. Such accidents can be life-threatening - a situation that has been termed Elpenor syndrome (in reference to an accident experienced by a character in Homer's epic The Odyssey) - in particular when entailing defenestration. This syndrome has been described in adults and adolescents; we report here a case in a child. This 10-year-old girl was admitted at night to our hospital after a 3-m fall at home. She was alert (Glasgow score, 15) at admission; a frontal wound and a deformation of the right wrist were noted. Brain CT scans showed a frontal skull fracture and frontal lobe contusion, wrist x-rays showed a displaced right fracture. The patient underwent urgent neurosurgery (wound excision and suture after reduction of skull fracture) and closed reduction and immobilization of the wrist fracture, both under general anesthesia. She underwent a psychiatric assessment in the intensive care unit 3 days after her fall. She was alert, well-oriented in time and space, and spoke fluently. She had no memory of her fall, only remembering going to bed in the evening before the accident and waking up in the ambulance on the way to the hospital. She displayed no sign of a concurrent mental illness and no suicidal ideas. Her parents reported that the evening of the accident she and her two brothers had all fallen asleep about 11:00 pm while watching TV, in the double bed of the guest room, placed just beside its window. At approximately 1:00 am, her father, who was going to bed and had just made noise in the hall, heard a cry from the guest room. He entered the room immediately and saw the opened window and his daughter lying on the outside ground; the brothers only awakened after the fall. The family had returned 2 days before from a 6-month stay in the United States, with jet-lag, sleep deprivation, and a disorganized sleep/wake rhythm in the patient. There was no medication before the accident, no substance use (including caffeine), and no concurrent medical problem. Over the 2 preceding years, the patient had undergone two witnessed episodes of early-nighttime arousal with altered consciousness and calm wandering (including going downstairs on one occasion), both strongly suggesting sleepwalking. There was a history of sleepwalking in her father and her older brother. Life-threatening sleepwalking (Elpenor syndrome) was diagnosed. The child and her parents were educated about sleepwalking; regularization of sleep schedules and sleep extension (avoidance of sleep deprivation, short napping when possible) were prescribed. We also recommended securing the home (bed, windows, and stairways). No pharmacological treatment was instituted. During the following 18 months, the child manifested only one noted sleepwalking episode, without risk-taking. She had no neurological or psychopathological sequela from her accident, of which she never had a memory. Elpenor syndrome can occur in a child; consequently, it is important to inform parents of children with sleepwalking about the necessity of always securing the night-time environment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1000_4255", "title": "Predictors of community reintegration and quality of life after hip fracture among community-dwelling older adults.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We aim to explore factors contributing to community reintegration and health-related quality of life (HRQoL) among community-dwelling older adults three months after discharge from inpatient rehabilitation following hip fracture. We performed a prospective cohort study with follow-up. Thirty-three consecutive patients (age 66-89) after surgery for hip fracture repair were recruited from an inpatient rehabilitation unit. Participants were 65+ years old, did not have dementia, and were independent in basic activities of daily living (BADL) at discharge. We examined the contribution of independent variables measuring BADL, cognition, emotional status, pain and social support to the explained variance of two main outcomes: the Reintegration to Normal Living Index (RNLI), measuring self-reported ability to participate in activities and return to life roles; and the Medical Outcomes Study Short-Form Health Survey (SF-12), assessing mental and physical aspects of HRQoL. Stepwise regression analyses revealed that: social support and pain while walking significantly explained 42.1% of variance in the RNLI; social support significantly explained 31.1% of the variance in the SF-12-physical subscale; the number of falls in the previous year, social support and executive functions assessed by the clock drawing test significantly explained 61.9% of the variance in the SF-12 mental subscale. Social support, pain while walking and the number of falls in the previous year can predict community reintegration and HRQoL among older adults three months after discharge from rehabilitation following a surgical hip fracture repair. These factors need to be addressed in rehabilitation programs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0784_11448", "title": "Participation and quality of life of cognitively impaired older women in Israel following hip fractures.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The main objective of this study was to identify the impact of cognitive problems on the participation and quality of life of individuals following hip fracture among senior women. Sixty women aged ≥65 years after an operation due to a hip fracture, half with non-impaired cognition (average Mini Mental State Examination 27) and half with mild cognitive impairment (average Mini Mental State Examination 21) were examined and interviewed at admission to a rehabilitation hospital in Israel and 1 month after discharge with the following measures: Functional Independence Measure, Geriatric Depression Scale, Israeli Adults Assessment of Participation and questionnaire and 12-item short-form health status survey questionnaire. The average age was 83 years (SD = 6.5), 63% were widows. No difference was found between those with and without cognitive impairment. A month after discharge, the average general participation score of the cognitively unimpaired women was 11.5, and of those with impaired cognition was 7.5 (p &gt; 0.001). Four participation subscales revealed significant differences between the two groups (homecare, physical exercise, self-care and quiet pastimes), and two subscales (going out and entertainment and enrichment activities) showed no significant differences. Quality of life was lower a month after discharge for both physical and mental components, with no differences between the two groups. Therefore, specific attention should be given to those with mild cognitive impairment during rehabilitation. It is recommended to practise the basic functions over and over as part of their re-adjustment to their new situation. Attention should also be given in order to improve their re-involvement in the community." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0737_13858", "title": "Prospective randomized controlled trial comparing dynamic hip screw and screw fixation for undisplaced subcapital hip fractures.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Neck of femur fractures (NOFFs) are a common cause of morbidity and mortality in our community. Minimally displaced intracapsular fractures are treated with internal fixation by a two-hole dynamic hip screw (DHS) or three partially threaded cancellous screws. Data to support the superiority of one are limited. This prospective randomized controlled trial compares outcomes with these two fixation methods. We prospectively recruited patients over 50 years, with an acute fracture subcapital NOFF, who walked and lived independently, and were cognitively intact. They were randomized into DHS or cancellous screw groups and followed up for 2 years (overall 75.9%). Outcomes of mortality, revision, loss of fixation, avascular necrosis, surgical complications, WOMAC, Harris hip score and SF-12 were measured. We recruited 62 patients (31 DHS, 29 cancellous screws, 2 failed consent). Six deaths (19.3%) were seen in each group. A total of 3.2% of DHS (1 out of 31) and 10.3% (3 out of 29) of cancellous screw patients required re-operation (P = 0.272). There was no statistical significant difference in patient satisfaction, quality of life (QoL), radiological union or osteonecrosis. There are trends towards better functional scores and QoL in cancellous screws, particularly at 1 year (P = 0.0061), but with a higher re-operation rate. There was a combined mortality and transition to institutional care of 40.0% (24 out of 60) at 2 years. This study found no difference in outcomes between DHS and cancellous screws in the treatment of subcapital NOFFs in a fit, independent population, but we found a high level of physical decline in previously fit, independently ambulating patients. A large, multicentre trial will be required to differentiate between these two fixation methods." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0822_19941", "title": "What is backward disequilibrium and how do i treat it? A complex patient case study.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Postural vertical refers to a component of an individual's perception of verticality that is derived from information about the direction of gravitational forces. Backward disequilibrium (BD) is a postural disorder observed in some older adults who have a distortion in their perception of postural vertical. Individuals with BD sustain their center of mass (COM) posterior to their base of support and resist correction of COM alignment. The purposes of this case study are to describe a patient with BD and propose a physical therapy management program for this condition. The patient was an 83-year-old woman admitted for home care services 4 months after falling and sustaining a displaced right femoral neck fracture and subsequent hemiarthroplasty. Details of the clinical examination, diagnosis, and intervention are provided and a treatment protocol for physical therapy management is suggested. During the episode of care, the patient (1) decreased her dependence on caregivers, (2) surpassed minimal detectable change or minimal clinically important improvements in gait speed and on the Short Physical Performance Battery and Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment, and (3) achieved her primary goal of staying in her own apartment at an assisted living facility. Knowledge of BD coupled with a thorough clinical examination may assist physical therapists in identifying this condition and employing the specific intervention we have proposed. We believe that failure to recognize and manage our patient's condition appropriately would have led to nursing home placement.Video Abstract available for more insights from the authors (see Supplemental Digital Content 1, http://links.lww.com/JNPT/A94)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1072_19324", "title": "Subcapital Fracture with Avascular Necrosis of the Whole Femoral Head After Fixation of an Intertrochanteric Fracture: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Subcapital fractures following internal fixation of an intertrochanteric fracture are relatively rare. It has been reported that these fractures are caused by improper placement of implants, osteoporosis, and any trauma episode. We report a rare case of subcapsular fracture possibly caused by whole femoral head necrosis following intertrochanteric fracture treatment. An 88-year-old woman fell and sustained an intertrochanteric fracture of the left femur. She was treated with a short femoral nail (SFN) and 3 months after the surgery, bone union was observed. One year after the internal fixation of the intertrochanteric fracture, she complained of the left hip joint pain without any trauma, and the X-ray showed a subcapital fracture of the femur. She underwent nail removal and was treated with a bipolar hemiarthroplasty. Magnetic resonance imaging showed a change in the signal intensity of the entire head, and pathological findings revealed osteonecrosis. Normally, the reaction of bone resorption occurs below the necrosis area. We believe that the avascular necrosis (AVN) of the whole femoral head made the subcapital area fragile, resulting in a subcapital fracture. We should consider AVN of the whole femoral head as a potential cause of subcapital fracture after SFN fixation of intertrochanteric fractures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0877_9881", "title": "The difference in activity of daily living (ADL) and mortality in patients aged over 80 years with femoral neck fracture treated with hemiarthroplasty or osteosynthesis at 2 years of follow-up.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Hip fractures are one of the major causes of morbidity and mortality in the elderly and outcomes following hip fracture have been the focus of several studies over recent decades. Among all types of fall-related injuries, hip fractures cause the greatest number of deaths, lead to severe health problems and reduce quality of life. Improving the outcome of hip fracture surgery has thus become one of the main areas of interest for orthopaedic surgeons. The aim of this study was to compare the difference in activity of daily living (ADL) and mortality between patients aged over 80 years with hip fracture treated with osteosynthesis versus prosthesis at 2 years of follow-up. The data were collected on admission and during in-hospital stay. Information recorded on admission included: age, sex, type and mechanism of fracture, functional and cognitive status, comorbidity, and severity of illness. Prefracture functional status was measured. The follow-up was clinical and radiographical, or was by telephone for patients who were not able to come to the clinic. Patients aged over 80 years who underwent a single surgical procedure treated with intramedullary nail or hemiarthroplasty were included in the study. A total of 174 patients (45 male and 129 female) were included in the study. The two treatment groups were comparable for all preoperative parameters except for preoperative haemoglobin, which was an average of 1g/dl higher in the patients given hemiarthroplasty compared with those treated with intramedullary nail (t-test: p&lt;0.05). The average observation period was 594.99days; the number of deaths was 62 of 164 contacted patients, and the survival rate at 2 years was 62.2%. There was increased mortality in patients who underwent hemiarthroplasty (Log-rank Mantel-Cox, p: 0,048). The difference in ADL between preoperative and follow-up is not statistically significant between the two groups. In the literature, there are few specific studies that consider these parameters in this population. However, these findings are consistent with the findings from other studies. Patients who received hemiarthroplasty have a higher mortality risk than those treated with intramedullary nail; there are no differences in ADL at follow-up." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0915_13068", "title": "Bilateral Subcapital Femoral Neck Fracture in a 28 Year Old Postpartum Woman.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Subcapital femoral neck fractures are associated with high morbidity and mortality. These fractures mostly occur as a result of a high-force impact from traffic accidents and a fall from a great height, though non-traumatic forms are described in transient osteoporosis during the second half of pregnancy, in convulsions during electric shock, eclampsia, hypocalcemia, osteomalacia, renal osteodystrophy and myeloma. In this report we present a bilateral subcapital femoral neck fracture in a woman sustained two days after delivery. The right hip fracture was treated with fixation using three spongious screws without capsular decompression, while for the left hip a capsular decompression by open reduction and fixation was performed. Physical treatment based on active and passive movements was immediately initiated. The patient was able to rest upon her right leg within seven and upon the left leg within eight months. X-Rays showed the accurate position of fragments and implants throughout the recovery period. Twelve years later, the patient made a full recovery and the x-rays showed that both femoral heads are vital and fully recovered. Early anatomical reconstruction followed by internal fixation is crucial in the prevention of long-term complications. Complications of internal fixations include non-union (10-30%), avascular necrosis (15-33%), deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1042_17461", "title": "Effects of fragility fracture integrated rehabilitation management on mobility, activity of daily living and cognitive functioning in elderly with hip fracture.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To determine the effectiveness of Fragility Fracture Integrated Rehabilitation Management (FIRM) on mobility, activity of daily living and cognitive functioning in elderly with hip fracture. A randomized control trial was conducted at Seoul National University Bundang Hospital, South Korea from August 2017 to January 2018. Patients of both genders with the age 65-95 years, diagnosed cases of hip fracture specifically fractures neck of femur, intertrochanteric, subtrochantric, patients who got bipolar hemiarthroplasty, total hip replacement arthroplasty, reduction and internal fixation were included in this study. A total of n=39 sample was collected through non probability convenience sampling technique and randomly divided into Fragility Integrated Rehabilitation Management (FIRM) group (n=20) and Conventional Physical therapy (CPT) group (n=19). The data was collected through KOVAL for walking ability, modified barthal index (MBI) for behaviors related to activities of daily living (ADLS) and mini mental status examination (MMSE) for cognitive functions at baseline on 2<supnd</sup postoperative day and after 10<supth</sup FIRM session on 15<supth</sup postoperative day. The mean age of study participants was 82.07±6.00 years. The post intervention comparison did not show any significant difference (<ip</i&gt;0.05) in walking ability, overall ADLs and cognitive functioning. But FIRM group showed significant improvement in stair climbing {0(5) ver. 2(7.5), <ip</i=0.049} and ambulation or walker use {8(5) ver. 2(4), <ip</i=0.037}, as compared to CPT group. Both groups improved in indoor mobility with walker and crutches as well as activities of daily living. But FIRM showed more improving ambulation with walker and stair climbing. While cognitive functioning was observed only in FIRM group." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0685_4166", "title": "Causes of decreased activity of daily life in elderly patients who need daily living care.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The causes of decreased activity of daily life (ADL) in elderly patients include cerebrovascular diseases, bone fracture by falls, and dementia. The present study was conducted among elderly patients with decreased ADL who were hospitalized in nursing wards in order to investigate the causes of becoming early bedridden and to determine precautionary measures against decreased ADL. The study subjects were 224 elderly patients with decreased ADL (mean age: 83.3 ± 8.0 years) and 49 outpatients without decreased ADL (mean age: 76.8 ± 5.3 years). Current age, age at the start of ADL decrease, medical history and history of smoking were investigated. In the groups with decreased ADL, current age and the age of becoming bedridden in non-diabetic versus diabetic groups were 84.7 ± 7.9 versus 80.3 ± 7.5 and 82.7 ± 8.3 versus 77.6 ± 8.0 years, respectively, both showing significantly lower values in the diabetic group (P &lt; 0.05). Multiple regression analysis revealed that sex difference and diabetes were the factors determining the age of becoming early bedridden. Diabetic patients with smoking habit were significantly younger than diabetic and non-diabetic patients without smoking habit. Sex difference, smoking habit and presence of diabetes mellitus are independent risk factors of becoming early bedridden. Therefore, the major targets of medical care among elderly should be diabetic men with a smoking habit to lower the risks of decreased ADL." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0875_16294", "title": "Internal fixation versus conservative treatment for elderly patients with a trochanteric hip fracture in conjunction with post-stroke hemiplegia.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To retrospectively evaluated Gamma nail internal fixation in the treatment of elderly patients with post-stroke hemiplegia experiencing trochanteric hip fracture. The patients were obtained consecutively from January 2005 to December 2010 with inclusion criteria. The total number was 138 and allocated to two groups: treated with the Gamma nail (n=72,group A) and continuous skin traction (n=66,group B). Preoperative variables including patient age, gender, duration of cerebrovascular accident, duration of hypertension, ASA risk score, Harris hip score and fracture type were recorded and compared. After treatment, time of patients activity on the bed, ambulation time, Harris hip score, mortality, complications were recorded and used to compare the outcomes. (1) Follow-up was undertaken from 3 to 10 years, with an average of 5.8 years. (2) No statistical difference in preoperative variables was found between the 2 groups. (3) two groups had statistical significance (P=0.000) in the time of patients activity on the bed and ambulation time and group A can activities on the bed and ambulates earlier. (4) There were significant differences between 2 groups in Harris hip score at 1 and 3 years and group A was significantly higher than group B. (5) there were statistically significant differences in mortality of 3 years, 5 years and 10 years and the group B was significantly higher than the group A. (6) There was a statistical significance in complications between 2 groups and group B was higher than group A. Major complications in group A were pain, lag screw cut out, implant infection and distal femoral fractures caused by fall after the surgery. On elderly patients with trochanteric hip fracture on the hemiplegic lower side, Gamma nail internal fixation treatment can achieve better effect, patients can be early activity, fewer complications, and less mortality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0411_17790", "title": "[Prediction of mortality, mobility and admission to long-term care after hip fractures].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Surgical treatment, discharge planning and rehabilitation procedures are rarely based upon defined assessment procedures. It might therefore be useful to develop simple and reliable screening tools to identify patients for early discharge, intensified rehabilitation and limited treatment. 234 patients were initially contacted. From these 217 gave informed consent. The reported study included the 134 home dwelling elderly. All patients could be contacted or died after six month. Thus,data from more than 90% could be used for the analysis. The six month mortality was 10%. A population based cohort of elderly patients referred to five local hospitals was tested. Mortality, institutionalisation and mobility were defined as major outcome criteria. Only information that was available during the first week of treatment was used in the model. Predictors expressed as odd ratios (OR) were calculated using logistic regression with variable selection. The most important predictors for institutionalisation were age, inability to eat without assistance, postoperative night time confusion, stroke history, cognitive deficit and fear of falling. Outdoor mobility was strongly associated to the preoperative ADL performance measured as the Barthel-Index, history of malignancy and fear of falling. Six month mortality was associated with male sex, the Barthel-Index and fear of falling. It seems feasible to improve postoperative resource allocation by predictor led stratification. This need to be tested in intervention trials under the specific condition of the German health care system." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1050_5824", "title": "Bilateral sub-trochanteric femur fragility fractures in a patient on antiretroviral therapy: a case based discussion and review of literature.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The burden of HIV/AIDS is ever increasing, affecting populations all over the world. Along with the disease, its effects and consequences on bone health are also on a rise. A commonly used drug in managing HIV, \"Tenofovir\" has been shown to affect bone health, specifically on prolonged usage. Osteomalacia and osteoporosis secondary to drug induced Fanconi syndrome and the disease itself, could lead to pathological/fragility fractures with trivial trauma. A 45 year old female on antiretroviral drugs (ART) for HIV, presented with right hip pain and inability to bear weight. She has had similar symptoms previously in the left hip which resolved after 6 weeks of limited weight bearing. Anteroposterior and lateral radiographs of pelvis with hips showed bilateral sub-trochanteric fractures; healed on the left side and displaced on the right side. The patient was managed with cessation of tenofovir and right side proximal femoral nail anti-rotation (PFNA). Patient was lost to follow up but had started to ambulate independently with a cane, by the end of 6 weeks, before she succumbed to systemic complications. Patients receiving antiretrovirals especially tenofovir should be regularly investigated for their renal impairment and bone health. Fixation of pathological fractures and early mobilization are important to prevent prolonged bed immobilization and associated complications in these immunocompromised patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0628_23856", "title": "Patients with isolated hip fracture must be considered for surgery irrespectively of their age, comorbidity status and provenance: a statement applicable even to nonagerians.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Hip fractures are associated with high rates of adverse outcome but previous research has not lead to the identification of any subgroups for whom surgery could be contraindicated. The purpose of this study was to identify factors that could help in the decision making process. We identified 965 consecutive patients operated for an isolated hip fracture from 1 April 1996 to 31 March 2003 in a single large volume centre. We collected information on age, gender, comorbidities and place of injury (in-house, outdoors, nursing home). Outcome measures were mortality and orientation at discharge. Multiple logistic regression and recursive partitioning were used to identify factors associated with poor outcome. Median age was 81.4 with 121 patients aged 90 and over. Seventy-six percent were female. The fall occurred at home in 59%, outdoors in 19% and at a nursing home in 22%. Death was significantly associated with the number of comorbidities, age and place of injury. Dementia (23%) was the most significant predictor of orientation to a new nursing home. Among 121 nonagerians, 89 survived and 59 returned home. Among 53 nonagerians with two or more comorbidities, 34 survived and 20 returned home. Comorbidities, age and provenance of patients appear to be the most significant factors associated with adverse outcome. However, even among nonagerians with a heavy comorbidity burden, results do not contraindicate surgical intervention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0939_20005", "title": "[Comparison of clinical effects of total artificial hip replacement and cannulated screw fixation for the treatment of displaced femoral neck fractures in elderly patients].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "To compare of clinical effects of different surgical methods in the treatment of elderly femoral neck fractures. From January 2013 to June 2016, 144 elderly patients with femoral neck were treated and divided into artificial hip replacement group and cannulated screw fixation group according to the surgical methods. In the total hip arthroplasty group, there were 89 cases, 28 males and 61 females, with an average age of(84.10±3.10) years old;Hollow nail fixation group 55 cases, 20 males and 35 females, with an average age of (86.80±2.88) years. Preoperative patients data, postoperative complications, mortality and postoperative Harris hip score were compared between the two groups. A total of 144 cases were followed up for 12 to 36 months with an average of 18 months. There was no significant difference between two groups in gender, fracture side, preoperative complications, osteoporosis, ASA score, injury to surgery interval, the number of patients admitted to ICU and perioperative death. However, the patients in hollow screw fixation group was older than the joint replacement group(<it</i=5.311, <iP</i&lt;0.05);The degree of preoperative fracture displacement in the joint replacement group was higher than that in the hollow nail fixation group(χ²=6.894, <iP</i=0.009&lt;0.05);Hollow nail fixation group in operation time, hospital stay, intraoperative blood loss, perioperative blood transfusion was significantly better than the number of joint replacement group(<iP</i&lt;0.05);The Harris score of the joint replacement group was higher than that of the hollow screw fixation group(<iP</i&lt;0.05). For elderly femoral neck patients, if there is a significant shift in the fracture (Garden III, IV), the preferred treatment is hip replacement. Postoperative complications are relatively small, satisfactory joint function recovery. If the fracture displacement is not obvious (Garden type I, II) or patients with more medical diseases, poor physical condition, poor surgical tolerance, postoperative life expectancy is not high, the first choice is closed reduction and cannulated screw fixation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0521_9624", "title": "Epidemiology of hip fracture in Japan: incidence and risk factors.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Hip fracture is the most serious complication of osteoporosis and has been recognized as a major public health problem. The prevention of hip fractures is an high-priority issue because of the rapid increase of the number of elderly people in Japan. The General Research Committee for the Prevention and Treatment of Osteoporosis in Silver Health Science Researches sponsored by the Ministry of Health and Welfare (Director, Hajime Orimo) first undertook a nationwide survey of femoral neck fracture in 1987. This nationwide survey has been continued every 5 years, in 1992, 1997, and 2002. The total number of new cases was nearly 120,000 in the latest survey, and has been rising in every survey. Total number of new cases was about 1.4 times the baseline 1987 figures in 1992, 1.7 times in 1997, and 2.2 times in 2002. The total number of new female patients was about three times higher than that of new male patients, a finding identical to those of the previous surveys. The incidences of hip fracture (per 10,000) according to sex and age was increased in both men and women, particularly among individuals 80 years old or over. The Epidemiological Research Group on Osteoporosis, Ministry of Health and Welfare (Chairman; Hajime Orimo) undertook a nation-wide case-control study to clarify the risk factors for hip fractures among Japanese in 1994. Cases of hip fracture in people aged 65-89 were selected from 21 hospitals in seven areas of Japan. Two sex- and age-matched controls were selected from the same residential area for each case using resident registration lists. During this 1-year survey, 249 cases of hip fractures (43 men and 206 women) were reported. The following risk factors for hip fractures were identified using multivariate analysis: past history of stroke with hemiplegia, sleep disturbance, sleeping in a Western-style bed, and drinking more than 3 cups of coffee daily." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0838_24123", "title": "[Curative effect analysis on proximal frmoral nail antirotation for the treatment of femoral intertrochanteric fracture and integrity of lateral trochanteric wall].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "To explore clinical efficacy and key matters for the treatment of femoral intertrochanteric fracture and integrity of lateral trochanteric wall by proximal frmoral nail antirotation (PFNA). From June 2010 to December 2012,210 femoral intertrochanteric fracture patients treated with PFNA were retrospectively analyzed, including 76 males and 134 females aged from 46 to 96 years old with an average of 71 years old. All fracture were caused by injury and classified to type I (5 cases) type II (16 cases), type III (73 cases) and type IV (116 cases) according to Evans classification. The time of getting out of bed, postoperative complications and displacement of screw blade and fracture healing were observed, Baumgaertner criteria were used to evaluate quality of fracture reduction, Harris criteria were used to evaulate hip joint function. All incisions were healed at stage I, no complications occurred except incomplete of lateral trochanteric wall patients without reconstruction, other patients could get out of bed with crutches at one week and all patients discharged from hospital at 10 days after operation. One hundred and seventy-eight patients were followed up from 3 to 17 months with an average of 10 months. One case occurred unhealed fracture displacement caused by screw blade cutting, 2 cases occurred screw blade transfomed to proximal and out femoral head, other patients obtained fracture healing at 12 to 16 weeks after operation. According to Baumgaertner criteria, 130 cases obtained good results, 45 cases acceptable, and 3 poor; while 107 cases obtained excellent results, 65 good, 3 good and 3 poor according to Harris score. PFNA with mechanical advantage of intramedullary fixation has advantsges of stable fixation, shorter operation time, minimally invasive. Satisfied clinical effects could obtained by grasping fixation principle, dealing with negative factors in operation. Intraoperative reconstruction for integrity of lateral trochanteric wall could assure stable fixation and earlier get out of bed." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 199 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 30 ] ], "text": "They are describing HELLP syndrome. With these weeks of gestation and with the fetus recently matured (she has already been given two doses of corticosteroids), the attitude is immediate termination." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Expectant management with antihypertensive drugs and magnesium sulfate until the maternal platelets improve.", "2": "Expectant attitude with antihypertensive treatment at home and controls every 48 hours.", "3": "Termination of gestation when she completes fetal lung maturation.", "4": "Immediate termination of pregnancy.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1161_25666", "title": "HELLP syndrome manifesting as abnormal fetal umbilical artery blood flow and rapidly worsening laboratory indexes: A case report.", "score": 0.019424799622819428, "content": "HELLP syndrome, a rare but serious obstetric complication, is often overdiagnosed due to its nonspecific symptoms and inappropriate clinical testing. A 30-year-old nulliparous pregnant Chinese woman at gestational age of 28+1 weeks was admitted to our hospital because Doppler ultrasonography at a local hospital had detected loss of fetal umbilical artery end-diastolic blood flow lasting 12 hours. On admission to our hospital, the patient showed elevated blood pressure (148/84 mm Hg), but blood pressure and laboratory indicators after admission were normal. However, the patient developed abdominal pain during hospitalization. Dexamethasone was given after admission to our hospital to promote fetal lung maturation, magnesium sulfate was given to protect fetal brain nerves, and maternal blood pressure was closely monitored. In addition, fetal umbilical artery blood flow was dynamically monitored. After three days in hospital with normal blood pressure, the patient developed abdominal pain accompanied by diarrhea. She was positive for Murphy's sign and laboratory tests showed no obvious abnormalities. Acute cholecystitis was suspected, but symptomatic and supportive treatment did not relieve abdominal pain and her blood pressure increased progressively to 212/130 mm Hg. Magnesium sulfate was given immediately to prevent spasm, and nitroglycerin was administered intravenously against hypertension. Liver enzymes, blood coagulation, and routine urinalysis were abnormal. The patient was diagnosed with HELLP syndrome, and an emergency cesarean section was performed. HELLP syndrome. After the cesarean section, platelet (PLT) count continuously decreased and transaminase and bilirubin levels continously increased. The newborn was transferred to the neonatal intensive care unit after birth and discharged at a corrected gestational age of 34 weeks. By postoperative day 6, laboratory indicators had returned to normal and the patient was discharged. Our case highlights that HELLP syndrome is a serious complication, and it should be diagnosed carefully and not arbitrarily on the basis of some abnormal indicators and stable clinical manifestations. Accurate early identification, active monitoring and management are essential for improving prognosis and avoiding maternal or infant mortality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0834_6456", "title": "OS078. Fetal growth restriction: A marker of severity of early-onset pre-eclampsia?", "score": 0.01899189918991899, "content": "Pre-eclampsia (PE), particularly early-onset PE (PE requiring delivery before 34 weeks), is commonly associated with fetal growth restriction (FGR). The evidence for an association between FGR and a more severe PE phenotype is controversial. The main aim of this study was to investigate whether the presence of FGR in women with early-onset PE is associated with more severe maternal disease compared to those with appropriately grown fetuses (AGA). This was a retrospective cohort study of women with early-onset PE between 2001 and 2010 at University College London Hospital. The diagnosis of PE was made according to the criteria defined by the International Society of the Study of Hypertension in Pregnancy (ISSHP). PE was diagnosed when the systolic blood pressure was 140mmHg or more and/or the diastolic blood pressure 90mmHg or more on at least two occasions four hours apart developing after 20 weeks of gestation in previously normotensive women with proteinuria of 300 mg or more in 24h or two readings of at least ++ on dipstick analysis of midstream or catheter urine specimens if no 24-h collection is available. FGR was defined as birthweight less than the 5th centile, with abnormal umbilical artery Doppler (raised pulsatility index, absent or reversed end-diastolic flow). Maternal, fetal and neonatal data were collected and study groups compared using Chi-square test or Fisher's exact test (categorical variables), and Mann Whitney-U test (continuous variables). Data analysis was performed using SPSS 16.0. In women with early-onset PE (n=134), FGR (n=66, 49%) was associated with significantly higher perinatal mortality (p=0.02). Gestational age at delivery was significantly lower in the FGR group (median, IQR: 29.0 weeks, 28.0-32.8 vs 32.0, 30.0-33.2, p=0.01). However, maternal indicators of PE severity, including blood pressure (3)160mmHg systolic or (3)110mmHg diastolic, ALT&gt;100U/L, platelet count &lt;100×10(9)/L, use of magnesium sulphate or use of antihypertensive therapy, were similar in the two groups. In women with early onset PE, FGR was associated with worse perinatal outcome, but was not associated with a more severe maternal PE phenotype. This may be because the presence of FGR in these women leads to earlier iatrogenic delivery, before the maternal condition deteriorates, but further studies are needed to investigate this." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0818_25015", "title": "Preeclampsia: an update.", "score": 0.0174984783931832, "content": "Preeclampsia was formerly defined as a multisystemic disorder characterized by new onset of hypertension (i.e. systolic blood pressure (SBP) ≥ 140 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) ≥ 90 mmHg) and proteinuria (&gt; 300 mg/24 h) arising after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously normotensive woman. Recently, the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists has stated that proteinuria is no longer required for the diagnosis of preeclampsia. This complication of pregnancy remains a leading cause of maternal morbidity and mortality. Clinical signs appear in the second half of pregnancy, but initial pathogenic mechanisms arise much earlier. The cytotrophoblast fails to remodel spiral arteries, leading to hypoperfusion and ischemia of the placenta. The fetal consequence is growth restriction. On the maternal side, the ischemic placenta releases factors that provoke a generalized maternal endothelial dysfunction. The endothelial dysfunction is in turn responsible for the symptoms and complications of preeclampsia. These include hypertension, proteinuria, renal impairment, thrombocytopenia, epigastric pain, liver dysfunction, hemolysis-elevated liver enzymes-low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome, visual disturbances, headache, and seizures. Despite a better understanding of preeclampsia pathophysiology and maternal hemodynamic alterations during preeclampsia, the only curative treatment remains placenta and fetus delivery. At the time of diagnosis, the initial objective is the assessment of disease severity. Severe hypertension (SBP ≥ 160 mm Hg and/or DBP ≥ 110 mmHg), thrombocytopenia &lt; 100.000/μL, liver transaminases above twice the normal values, HELLP syndrome, renal failure, persistent epigastric or right upper quadrant pain, visual or neurologic symptoms, and acute pulmonary edema are all severity criteria. Medical treatment depends on the severity of preeclampsia, and relies on antihypertensive medications and magnesium sulfate. Medical treatment does not alter the course of the disease, but aims at preventing the occurrence of intracranial hemorrhages and seizures. The decision of terminating pregnancy and perform delivery is based on gestational age, maternal and fetal conditions, and severity of preeclampsia. Delivery is proposed for patients with preeclampsia without severe features after 37 weeks of gestation and in case of severe preeclampsia after 34 weeks of gestation. Between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation, conservative management of severe preeclampsia may be considered in selected patients. Antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to less than 34 gestation week preeclamptic women to promote fetal lung maturity. Termination of pregnancy should be discussed if severe preeclampsia occurs before 24 weeks of gestation. Maternal end organ dysfunction and non-reassuring tests of fetal well-being are indications for delivery at any gestational age. Neuraxial analgesia and anesthesia are, in the absence of thrombocytopenia, strongly considered as first line anesthetic techniques in preeclamptic patients. Airway edema and tracheal intubation-induced elevation in blood pressure are important issues of general anesthesia in those patients. The major adverse outcomes associated with preeclampsia are related to maternal central nervous system hemorrhage, hepatic rupture, and renal failure. Preeclampsia is also a risk factor for developing cardiovascular disease later in life, and therefore mandates long-term follow-up." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0996_4052", "title": "Two-stage approach for prediction of small-for-gestational-age neonate and adverse perinatal outcome by routine ultrasound examination at 35-37 weeks' gestation.", "score": 0.01514161220043573, "content": "Justification of prenatal screening for small-for-gestational-age (SGA) fetuses near term is based on, first, evidence that such fetuses/neonates are at increased risk of stillbirth and adverse perinatal outcome, and, second, the expectation that these risks can be reduced by medical interventions, such as early delivery. However, there are no randomized studies demonstrating that routine screening for SGA fetuses and appropriate interventions in the high-risk group can reduce adverse perinatal outcome. Before such meaningful studies can be undertaken, it is essential that the best approach for effective identification of SGA neonates is determined, and that the contribution of SGA neonates to the overall rate of adverse perinatal outcome is established. In a previous study of pregnancies undergoing routine ultrasound examination at 35 + 0 to 36 + 6 weeks' gestation, we found that, first, screening by estimated fetal weight (EFW) &lt; 10<supth</sup percentile provided poor prediction of SGA neonates and, second, prediction of &gt; 85% of SGA neonates requires use of EFW &lt; 40<supth</sup percentile. To examine the contribution of SGA fetuses to the overall rate of adverse perinatal outcome and, to propose a two-stage approach for prediction of a SGA neonate at routine ultrasound examination at 35 + 0 to 36 + 6 weeks' gestation. This was a prospective study of 45 847 singleton pregnancies undergoing routine ultrasound examination at 35 + 0 to 36 + 6 weeks' gestation. First, we examined the relationship between birth-weight percentile and adverse perinatal outcome, defined as stillbirth, neonatal death or admission to the neonatal unit for ≥ 48 h. Second, we used a two-stage approach for prediction of a SGA neonate and adverse perinatal outcome; in the first stage, fetal biometry was used to distinguish between pregnancies at very low risk (EFW ≥ 40<supth</sup percentile) and those at increased risk (EFW &lt; 40<supth</sup percentile) and, in the second stage, the pregnancies with EFW &lt; 40<supth</sup percentile were stratified into high-, intermediate- and low-risk groups based on the results of EFW and pulsatility index in the uterine arteries, umbilical artery and fetal middle cerebral artery. Different percentiles of EFW and Doppler indices were used to define each risk category, and the performance of screening for a SGA neonate and adverse perinatal outcome in pregnancies delivered at ≤ 2, 2.1-4 and &gt; 4 weeks after assessment was determined. We propose that the high-risk group would require monitoring from initial assessment to delivery, the intermediate-risk group would require monitoring from 2 weeks after initial assessment to delivery, the low-risk group would require monitoring from 4 weeks after initial assessment to delivery, and the very low-risk group would not require any further reassessment. First, although in neonates with low birth weight (&lt; 10<supth</sup percentile) the risk of adverse perinatal outcome is increased, 84% of adverse perinatal events occur in the group with birth weight ≥ 10<supth</sup percentile. Second, in screening by EFW &lt; 10<supth</sup percentile, the predictive performance for a SGA neonate is modest for those born at ≤ 2 weeks after assessment (83% and 69% for neonates with birth weight &lt; 3<suprd</sup and &lt; 10<supth</sup percentiles, respectively), but poor for those born at 2.1-4 weeks (65% and 45%, respectively) and &gt; 4 weeks (40% and 30%, respectively) after assessment. Third, improved performance of screening, especially for those delivered at &gt; 2 weeks after assessment, is potentially achieved by a proposed new approach for stratifying pregnancies into management groups based on findings of EFW and Doppler indices (prediction of birth weight &lt; 3<suprd</sup and &lt; 10<supth</sup percentiles for deliveries at ≤ 2, 2.1-4 and &gt; 4 weeks after assessment: 89% and 75%, 83% and 74%, and 88% and 82%, respectively). Fourth, the predictive performance for adverse perinatal outcome of EFW &lt; 10<supth</sup percentile is very poor (26%, 9% and 5% for deliveries at ≤ 2, 2.1-4 and &gt; 4 weeks after assessment, respectively) and this is improved by the proposed new approach (31%, 22% and 29%, respectively). This study presents an approach for stratifying pregnancies undergoing routine ultrasound examination at 35 + 0 to 36 + 6 weeks' gestation into four management groups based on findings of EFW and Doppler indices. This approach potentially has a higher predictive performance for a SGA neonate and adverse perinatal outcome than that of screening by EFW &lt; 10<supth</sup percentile. Copyright © 2019 ISUOG. Published by John Wiley &amp; Sons Ltd." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0395_11515", "title": "Conservative management of eclampsia and severe pre-eclampsia--A Bangladesh experience.", "score": 0.014071870425461586, "content": "To observe whether the pregnancy can be safely continued for a reasonable period to gain fetal maturity in cases of eclampsia and severe pre-eclampsia. Fifty-one patients were followed up in a specialized care (eclampsia) unit in Dhaka Medical College and Hospital between January 1998 and October 2000. Twenty-one patients with complaints of headache and blurred vision, and 30 patients with history of convulsion, all at gestational age &lt; 36 weeks, were enrolled for this study. Magnesium sulfate was used to prevent convulsion in severe pre-eclampsia and to control convulsion in eclampsia. After conducting a baseline assessment, pregnancy was continued to gain fetal maturity. Patients were monitored closely. Diastolic blood pressure, 24-hour urinary total protein (UTP), and serum uric acid were chosen as the main parameters to detect the deterioration of a patient's condition. Pregnancy was terminated when deterioration occurred, as determined clinically or by 1 or more of the above parameters. Dexamethasone was used during the waiting period for fetal lung maturity. Patient outcomes were analyzed. At admission, the patients' mean gestational age ( SD) was 30.65 2.38 weeks, and the range was 24-34 weeks. Mean diastolic blood pressure was 109.06 11.61 mm Hg, 24-hour UTP was 2.25 1.73 g/24 h, and serum uric acid level was 5.5 1.12 mg/dL. Pregnancy was continued for a mean of 13.27 8.26 days (range, 3-35 days). Thirty-two babies (62.75%) with birth weight 1.0-2.5 kg (2.02 0.45) were born alive. Six of them (18.75%) weighing between 1.0 and 1.5 kg at birth were referred to the intensive care unit, and 1 (3.13%) weighing 1 kg at birth died within 5 minutes after birth. Among live-born babies, 93.75% were in good condition at the time of discharge from the hospital. Intrauterine death occurred in 19 (37.25%).cases. Twelve of them delivered spontaneously within 7 days of death and 7 required induction. In all cases, maternal condition was satisfactory. In carefully selected cases and with close supervision, pregnancy may be continued in women with eclampsia and severe pre-eclampsia to increase fetal maturity without increasing the risk to the mother." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0350_4599", "title": "[Hypertensive disorders in pregnancy].", "score": 0.013181623014169171, "content": "Hypertension in pregnancy is defined by a systolic blood pressure &gt; or = 140 mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure of &gt; or = 90 mm Hg or by a rise in blood pressure of systolic &gt; or = 30 mm Hg and diastolic &gt; or = 15 mm Hg. High blood pressures are found in 5-10% of all pregnancies. The outcome of pregnancy is influenced by the fact whether there occurs a proteinuria in addition to hypertension. While the prognosis of an isolated hypotension is good, the combination of hypertension and proteinuria leading to preeclampsia is the primary cause of maternal death in many countries and is responsible for 20-25% of perinatal mortality. A simple classification divides between chronic hypertension, preeclampsia, preeclampsia superimposed on chronic hypertension and transient hypertension. With chronic hypertension pregnancy outcome is determined by a preexisting nephropathy and the occurrence of a superimposed preeclampsia. Preeclampsia and superimposed preeclampsia are pregnancy induced multiorganic diseases, endangering both the mother and the fetus. Transient hypertension is a benign pathology, which occurs toward the end of pregnancy usually on the basis of a latent essential hypertension, which is laid open through pregnancy. While a severe chronic hypertension in pregnancy must be treated to prevent a hypertensive maternal encephalopathy, a less severe chronic hypertension should not be treated as the risk of a superimposed preeclampsia and the maternal and fetal outcome cannot be influenced by antihypertensive therapy. The incidence of preeclampsia is 3-5% in nulliparae and 0.5% in multiparae. Preeclampsia is a severe and dangerous pathology with an unknown etiology. Pregnancy termination is the only causal therapy. At present it is still recommended to terminate a severe preeclampsia after stabilizing the mother, irrespective of gestational age. In less severe preeclampsia occurring before 32 weeks of gestation, termination of pregnancy can be postponed under intensive monitoring and a prophylaxis with magnesium sulfate in order to accelerate the fetal lung maturation with glucocorticoids. A conservative management in the case of a HELLP-syndrome (Haemolyis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets), which is a very severe form of preeclampsia, is not recommended because it hasn't been validated in prospective controlled studies. The most dangerous complication of preeclampsia is eclampsia, which is defined by general tonic-clonic convulsions before or after birth. The most effective prophylaxis of eclamptic attacks is the intravenous therapy with magnesium sulfate. A primary prohylaxis for preeclampsia doesn't exist. Treatment with low-dose aspirin in high-risk patients, i.e. after a severe preeclampsia, in cases of chronic hypertension, in cases of nephropathy and in cases with antiphospholipid-syndrome++ can be recommended. The prophylactic use of low-dose heparin, which has lead to a significant decreased incidence of preeclampsia in retrospective analysis, is now the object of a randomized, controlled trial in our hospital. All women who suffered from a preeclampsia should have a check-up after 3-6 months. Preexisting pathologies are found in up to 40% of patients, mostly in multiparae, i.e. chronic hypertension, nephropathy, endocrine pathologies, anomalies of blood coagulation and antiphospolipid-syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0650_12113", "title": "[Treatment of severe preeclampsia: until when and for what risks/benefits?].", "score": 0.012579599171777943, "content": "The four major hypertensive disorders related to pregnancy are preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, preeclampsia superimposed upon chronic hypertension, and gestational hypertension. The development of hypertension and proteinuria in pregnancy is usually due to preeclampsia, particularly in a primigravida. These findings typically become apparent in the latter part of the third trimester and progress until delivery, but some women develop symptoms in the latter half of the second trimester, or intrapartum, or the early postpartum period. Preeclampsia is characterized as mild or severe. Severe hypertension, coagulopathy, thrombocytopenia, liver function abnormalities, and fetal growth restriction are features of severe disease. Laboratory evaluation should assess haemoglobin/hematocrit and platelet count, renal and hepatic function, as well as assessment of fetal well-being and growth. Timing of delivery is based upon gestational age, maternal and fetal condition, and the severity of preeclampsia. Maternal end organ dysfunction and nonreassuring tests of fetal well-being are indications for delivery at any gestational age. Antihypertensive treatment aims at protecting the mother from severe hypertensive encephalopathy, but may jeopardize the fetus. We recommend antenatal corticosteroids (betamethasone) be given to women with preeclampsia at 26 to 34 weeks of gestation. Magnesium sulfate is more effective than phenytoin for prevention of eclamptic seizures." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_155475", "title": "Obstetrics", "score": 0.012431328356106493, "content": "Fetal assessments Obstetric ultrasonography is routinely used for dating the gestational age of a pregnancy from the size of the fetus, determine the number of fetuses and placentae, evaluate for an ectopic pregnancy and first trimester bleeding, the most accurate dating being in first trimester before the growth of the foetus has been significantly influenced by other factors. Ultrasound is also used for detecting congenital anomalies (or other foetal anomalies) and determining the biophysical profiles (BPP), which are generally easier to detect in the second trimester when the foetal structures are larger and more developed. Specialised ultrasound equipment can also evaluate the blood flow velocity in the umbilical cord, looking to detect a decrease/absence/reversal or diastolic blood flow in the umbilical artery." }, { "id": "Obstentrics_Williams_5019", "title": "Obstentrics_Williams", "score": 0.01230355665839537, "content": "Frequent evaluation: vital signs, UOP Serial lab evaluation of re n.aI function and for HELLP syndrome Daily fetal assessment and evaluation of serial growth and amnionic fluid FIGURE 40-14 Clinical management algorithm for severe preeclampsia at <34 weeks. HELLP = hemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, low platelet count; L&D = labor and delivery; MgS04= magnesium sulfate; UOP = urine output. (Adapted from the Society for 2008; Budden, 2006; Gaugler-Senden, Maternal-Fetal Medicine, 2011.) 2006). Maternal complications developed in 60 percent, and there was one maternal death. he perinatal mortality rate was 650 per 1000 births. At this time, no comparative studies attest to perinatal benefits of such expectant treatment versus early delivery in the face of serious maternal complications, which approach rates of 50 percent. We do not recommend such management." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en008_88979", "title": "Intrauterine growth restriction", "score": 0.0114510575504181, "content": "The optimal timing of delivery for a fetus with IUGR is unknown. However, the timing of delivery is currently based on the cause of IUGR and parameters collected from the umbilical artery doppler. Some of these include: pulsatility index, resistance index, and end-diastolic velocities, which are measurements of the fetal circulation. Fetuses with an anticipated delivery before 34 weeks gestation are recommended to receive corticosteroids to facilitate fetal maturation. Anticipated births before 32 weeks should receive magnesium sulfate to protect development of the fetal brain. Outcomes Postnatal complications" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0683_8433", "title": "[Clinical analysis of eleven patients with chronic myeloproliferative disorders complicating pregnancy].", "score": 0.011403508771929825, "content": "To investigate the clinical characteristics, the antenatal management, the outcome and prognosis of chronic myeloproliferative disorders(CMPD) complicating pregnancy. Retrospectively analyze the clinical data of eleven patients with CMPD complicating pregnancy hospitalized in Peking University People's Hospital from 2000 to 2009, including five patients with essential thrombocythemia, one with primary myelofibrosis and five with chronic myeloid leukemia. (1) Five pregnancies had periodic antenatal care and laboratory monitorings like full blood count. Reasonable anti-coagulation therapy was given to prevent the complications. One patient with PMF diagnosed before conception had her first pregnancy ended with mild pre-eclampsia and intrauterine death at the gestational age of 32 weeks. During the first trimester of her second pregnancy two years later, the test for anti-β2 glycoprotein antibody was positive. She received low-dose aspirin and low-molecular-weight heparin as anti-coagulants. An uneventful course was obtained and she delivered a healthy term infant. (2) Five pregnancies had occasional antenatal examination, including two patients with ET and three patients with CML. One patient with ET developed severe pre-eclampsia at the gestational age of 25 weeks. Umbilical artery Doppler showed reversed end-diastolic velocity. The management with anti-convulsants, anti-hypertensives and anti-coagulants showed no effect. An emergency cesarean section had to be performed because of the aggressive hypertension and placental abruption, with still birth as a result. Two pregnancies never had an antenatal care. Both of them were admitted on labor and the diagnoses of CML were made. (3) Four pregnancies developed oligohydramnios and three developed preelampsia (two severe pre-eclampsia and one mild pre-eclampsia). There was no other hemorrhage and thrombosis event. (4) Eight pregnancies reached full-term with four cesarean sections and four vaginal births. Two preterm cesarean sections were performed because of a progressive oligohydramnios. The ten live neonates weighed 1820 - 3600 g. All were appropriate for gestational age, except one fetal growth retardation (FGR) developed in one patient with severe pre-eclampsia. (5) As for the CMPD, the eleven patients were all in stable conditions. Three patients with CML received hydroxyurea in the third trimester, four with ET and one with CML had platelet-pheresis before delivery with favorable effect. All patients were uneventful postpartum, except one with CML who died in 5 months after childbirth. The pregnancy outcomes for patients with CMPD are mostly good. However, antenatal care should pay more attention to the complications such as thromboembolic accidents, pre-eclampsia, still birth and fetal growth retardation. Management including reasonable anti-coagulation therapy should be considered, which may help improve the prognosis." }, { "id": "article-105819_10", "title": "Antepartum Care -- Function -- Second Trimester Antepartum Care (15 0/7 - 28 6/7 weeks)", "score": 0.011162314388120839, "content": "Care also includes repeat blood pressure recordings, maternal weight, fundal height, and fetal heart rate. Fetal heart rates can be detected via Doppler ultrasound, in nonobese patients, at as early as 10 weeks gestation. Because the second trimester encompasses a vast majority of the rapid fetal growth period, several essential screening and laboratory tests are collected during this trimester. Earlier in the second trimester, the second portion of combined-trimester fetal aneuploidy testing or single-test quadruple maternal screening is collected between 16 to 20 weeks gestation. In addition to this, fetal sonography for the anatomic survey is performed during 18 to 20 weeks gestation." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_758", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009891557717644675, "content": "Affected infants are commonly born to women with systemic diseases that lead to uteroplacental insuffciency (intrauterine infection, hypertension, anemia). Other risk factors include maternal substance abuse, placenta previa, and multiple gestations. First step: Diagnose by confrming serial fundal height measurements with ultrasound. Second step: Ultrasound the fetus for EFW (although as pregnancy advances, ultrasound fetal weight estimates become increasingly unreliable). First step: Explore the underlying etiology and correct if possible. If near due date: Administer steroids (e.g., betamethasone) to accelerate fetal lung maturity. Then: Perform fetal monitoring with NST, CST, BPP, and umbilical artery Doppler velocimetry. A nonreassuring status near term may prompt delivery. ↑ perinatal morbidity and mortality. Defned as a birth weight > 90th percentile. A common sequela of gestational diabetes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0378_11205", "title": "[Effects of betamethasone administration on maternal-fetal Doppler velocimetry].", "score": 0.009877085162423178, "content": "The effect of antenatal betamethasone on fetal parameters includes a transient reduction of fetal heart rate variation and of fetal body movements. An effect on maternal-fetal blood flow has also been shown, with non-univocal results. To evaluate the effect of antenatal betamethasone in third trimester singleton high-risk pregnancies by Doppler technology. Thirty-six pregnant women who received a full course of betamethasone (12 mg i.m. two times, 24 hrs apart) were studied. The Doppler examination included the assessment of the pulsatility index (PI) of the umbilical artery (UA PI), the middle cerebral artery (MCA PI) and of resistance index of uterine arteries (Ut RI) before treatment, and 48 and 96 hrs after second dose of betamethasone. No significant variation was noted in UA PI through betamethasone therapy. MCA PI decreased significantly 48 hours from the last injection of betamethasone (p = 0.004), and returned to basal values at 96 hours. No difference was found for the other Doppler parameters examined. When serial Doppler studies were analyzed according to the gestational age, in the group &lt; 32 wks' gestation, MCA PI decreased significantly after 48 hours (p &lt; 0.006) and returned to pre-treatment values after 96 hours from the last betamethasone dose. Conversely, no difference was found in Doppler serial measurements in any of the analyzed districts in the subgroup &gt; or = 32 wks' gestation. Betamethasone treatment is associated with an increase in end diastolic flow of the middle cerebral artery, as reflected by a significant, although transient, reduction of MCA PI, especially at gestational ages &lt; 32 weeks." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1033_370", "title": "Society for Maternal-Fetal Medicine Consult Series #52: Diagnosis and management of fetal growth restriction: (Replaces Clinical Guideline Number 3, April 2012).", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Fetal growth restriction can result from a variety of maternal, fetal, and placental conditions. It occurs in up to 10% of pregnancies and is a leading cause of infant morbidity and mortality. This complex obstetrical problem has disparate published diagnostic criteria, relatively low detection rates, and limited preventative and treatment options. The purpose of this Consult is to outline an evidence-based, standardized approach for the prenatal diagnosis and management of fetal growth restriction. The recommendations of the Society for Maternal-Fetal Medicine are as follows: (1) we recommend that fetal growth restriction be defined as an ultrasonographic estimated fetal weight or abdominal circumference below the 10th percentile for gestational age (GRADE 1B); (2) we recommend the use of population-based fetal growth references (such as Hadlock) in determining fetal weight percentiles (GRADE 1B); (3) we recommend against the use of low-molecular-weight heparin for the sole indication of prevention of recurrent fetal growth restriction (GRADE 1B); (4) we recommend against the use of sildenafil or activity restriction for in utero treatment of fetal growth restriction (GRADE 1B); (5) we recommend that a detailed obstetrical ultrasound examination (current procedural terminology code 76811) be performed with early-onset fetal growth restriction (&lt;32 weeks of gestation) (GRADE 1B); (6) we recommend that women be offered fetal diagnostic testing, including chromosomal microarray analysis, when fetal growth restriction is detected and a fetal malformation, polyhydramnios, or both are also present regardless of gestational age (GRADE 1B); (7) we recommend that pregnant women be offered prenatal diagnostic testing with chromosomal microarray analysis when unexplained isolated fetal growth restriction is diagnosed at &lt;32 weeks of gestation (GRADE 1C); (8) we recommend against screening for toxoplasmosis, rubella, or herpes in pregnancies with fetal growth restriction in the absence of other risk factors and recommend polymerase chain reaction for cytomegalovirus in women with unexplained fetal growth restriction who elect diagnostic testing with amniocentesis (GRADE 1C); (9) we recommend that once fetal growth restriction is diagnosed, serial umbilical artery Doppler assessment should be performed to assess for deterioration (GRADE 1C); (10) with decreased end-diastolic velocity (ie, flow ratios greater than the 95th percentile) or in pregnancies with severe fetal growth restriction (estimated fetal weight less than the third percentile), we suggest weekly umbilical artery Doppler evaluation (GRADE 2C); (11) we recommend Doppler assessment up to 2-3 times per week when umbilical artery absent end-diastolic velocity is detected (GRADE 1C); (12) in the setting of reversed end-diastolic velocity, we suggest hospitalization, administration of antenatal corticosteroids, heightened surveillance with cardiotocography at least 1-2 times per day, and consideration of delivery depending on the entire clinical picture and results of additional evaluation of fetal well-being (GRADE 2C); (13) we suggest that Doppler assessment of the ductus venosus, middle cerebral artery, or uterine artery not be used for routine clinical management of early- or late-onset fetal growth restriction (GRADE 2B); (14) we suggest weekly cardiotocography testing after viability for fetal growth restriction without absent/reversed end-diastolic velocity and that the frequency be increased when fetal growth restriction is complicated by absent/reversed end-diastolic velocity or other comorbidities or risk factors (GRADE 2C); (15) we recommend delivery at 37 weeks of gestation in pregnancies with fetal growth restriction and an umbilical artery Doppler waveform with decreased diastolic flow but without absent/reversed end-diastolic velocity or with severe fetal growth restriction with estimated fetal weight less than the third percentile (GRADE 1B); (16) we recommend delivery at 33-34 weeks of gestation for pregnancies with fetal growth restriction and absent end-diastolic velocity (GRADE 1B); (17) we recommend delivery at 30-32 weeks of gestation for pregnancies with fetal growth restriction and reversed end-diastolic velocity (GRADE 1B); (18) we suggest delivery at 38-39 weeks of gestation with fetal growth restriction when the estimated fetal weight is between the 3rd and 10th percentile and the umbilical artery Doppler is normal (GRADE 2C); (19) we suggest that for pregnancies with fetal growth restriction complicated by absent/reversed end-diastolic velocity, cesarean delivery should be considered based on the entire clinical scenario (GRADE 2C); (20) we recommend the use of antenatal corticosteroids if delivery is anticipated before 33 6/7 weeks of gestation or for pregnancies between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation in women without contraindications who are at risk of preterm delivery within 7 days and who have not received a prior course of antenatal corticosteroids (GRADE 1A); and (21) we recommend intrapartum magnesium sulfate for fetal and neonatal neuroprotection for women with pregnancies that are &lt;32 weeks of gestation (GRADE 1A)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0968_6114", "title": "Two-stage screening for preterm preeclampsia at 11-13 weeks' gestation.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Screening for preeclampsia at 11-13 weeks' gestation by a combination of maternal factors, mean arterial pressure, uterine artery pulsatility index, and serum placental growth factor (triple test) can predict about 90% of preeclampsia, with delivery at &lt;32 weeks (early-preeclampsia), and 75% of preeclampsia with delivery at &lt;37 weeks (preterm preeclampsia), at a screen-positive rate of 10%. In pregnancies identified as being at high risk for preeclampsia by such screening, administration of aspirin (150 mg/d from 11 to 14 weeks' gestation to 36 weeks) reduces the rate of early preeclampsia by about 90% and preterm preeclampsia by about 60%. Recording of maternal history and blood pressure are part of routine prenatal care, but measurement of uterine artery pulsatility index and placental growth factor require additional costs. To explore the possibility of carrying out first-stage screening in the whole population by maternal factors alone or a combination of maternal factors, mean arterial pressure and uterine artery pulsatility index or maternal factors, mean arterial pressure, and placental growth factor and proceeding to second-stage screening by the triple test only for a subgroup of the population selected on the basis of the risk derived from first-stage screening. The data for this study were derived from prospective nonintervention screening for preeclampsia at 11<sup+0</sup to 13<sup+6</sup weeks' gestation in 61,174 singleton pregnancies. Patient-specific risks of delivery with preeclampsia at &lt;37 and &lt;32 weeks' gestation were calculated using the competing risks model to combine the prior distribution of the gestational age at delivery with preeclampsia, obtained from maternal characteristics and medical history, with various combinations of multiple of the median values of mean arterial pressure, uterine artery pulsatility index, and placental growth factor. We estimated the detection rate of preterm-preeclampsia and early-preeclampsia at overall screen-positive rate of 10%, 15%, and 20% from a policy in which first-stage screening of the whole population is carried out by some of the components of the triple test and second-stage screening by the full triple test on women selected on the basis of results from first-stage screening. If the method of first-stage screening is maternal factors, then measurements of mean arterial pressure, uterine artery pulsatility index, and placental growth factor can be reserved for only 70% of the population, achieving similar detection rate and screen-positive rate as with screening the whole population with the triple test. In the case of first-stage screening by maternal factors, mean arterial pressure, and uterine artery pulsatility index, then measurement of placental growth factor can be reserved for only 30-40% of the population, and if first-stage screening is by maternal factors, mean arterial pressure, and placental growth factor, measurement of uterine artery pulsatility index can be reserved for only 20-30% of the population. Empirical results were consistent with model-based performance. Two-stage screening and biomarker testing for only part of the population will have financial benefits over conducting the test for the entire population." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0790_9078", "title": "[Atypical preeclampsia and perinatal success: a case report].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Preeclampsia is a multi systemic syndrome of variable severity, pregnancy specific, consequence of an abnormal vascular response to placentation, with increase in peripheral vascular resistance, stimulation of platelet aggregation, activation of the coagulation cascade, and endothelial dysfunction. In the majority of cases, it will present with gestational hypertension and proteinuria, after 20 weeks, nevertheless, in other cases, it has presented as an atypical form (with absence of hypertension and/or proteinuria) behaving like severe preeclampsia. We report the case of a patient, 32 year old primigravida, with a 26.6 weeks gestation, that comes to the office with postprandial projectile vomiting. At the time of admission, she presents with sudden headache, phosphenes, and tinnitus, associated to epigastric pain, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg; fetal heart rate of 146 bpm, normal lower limbs and reflexes. The Complete Blood Count and liver function tests are within normal values, urinalysis with proteinuria. Normal hepatic ultrasound. Obstetric ultrasound; with fetal measurements of 2.6 weeks below, with flattening of the growth curve, Doppler flowmetry with an increase in placental resistance and oligohydramnios. Given the clinical manifestations compatible with severe preeclampsia, magnesium sulfate, and antenatal corticosteroid therapy are initiated, and abdominal termination of pregnancy is decided. A female newborn is obtained, of 595 g, Apgar 4/7. On immediate puerperium, she presents with an increase in blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, discharged with normal blood pressure 96 hours later. The newborn girl was discharged when she reached a weight of 2000 g. Today, she is neurologically unimpaired." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0516_22899", "title": "[Effect of heparin on the ratio of peak systolic to least diastolic flow velocity of umbilical artery at second-trimester pregnancies].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To evaluate the efficiency of heparin on the ratio of peak systolic to least diastolic flow velocity (S/D) of umbilical artery flow velocity waveforms at second-trimester pregnancies. Sixty-seven pregnant women carrying 72 fetuses (5 twins) whose fetal umbilical artery flow S/D ratios were more than the 95(th) percentage were divided into study and control groups. In study group, 35 women carrying 38 fetuses were treated with heparin at a dose of 6250 U or 12,500 U + 5% glucose 500 ml intravenously per day for a mean of (3.7 +/- 2.1) days, ranging from 1 to 10 days. In control group, another 32 women with 34 fetuses were treated regularly with dextran-40,500 ml and 10% glucose 500 ml + rooted salvia 30 ml; and 10% glucose 500 ml + 654-II 20 mg for a mean of (6.8 +/- 2.8) days, ranging from 3 to 14 days. After treatment the S/D ratios were re-examined, and compared between two groups. The mean of decreased S/D ratios per day in heparin group and control group was 0.37 (t = 3.620, P &lt; 0.01) and 0.135 (t = 3.061, P &lt; 0.01), respectively. There was significant deference between two groups (t = 1.998, P &lt; 0.05). The treatment time was significantly shorter in heparin group than in the control (t = 3.435, P &lt; 0.01). The effective rate was significantly higher in heparin group than in the control (chi(2) = 10.636, P &lt; 0.01). In the control group, there were 10 cases with S/D ratio increasing continuously. Two of them died of S/D ratio infinity. None of the study group died. Heparin can significantly decrease the high S/D ratios of umbilical artery flow velocity waveforms at second trimester of pregnancy. It is effective for improving fetal outcomes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en081_51196", "title": "Intrauterine hypoxia", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Underlying etiology of intrauterine hypoxia serves as a potential therapeutic target. If maternal preeclampsia is the underlying cause of fetal growth restriction (FGR) antihypertensive therapy and magnesium sulfate are potential therapies. Antihypertensive treatment is used to reduce blood pressure and prevent pulmonary edema and cerebral hemorrhages. An effective course of antihypertensive treatments should reduce blood pressure to below 160/110 mmHg. Magnesium sulfate acts as a vasodilator, reducing vascular resistance and protect the blood-brain barrier (BBB). The goal of these treatments is to prolong pregnancy and increase fetal survival. Each day gained by treatment in utero increases fetal survival and intact survival by 1%–2% up to 28 weeks gestation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en030_291", "title": "HELLP syndrome", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "There is a general consensus regarding the main three diagnostic criteria of HELLP syndrome, which include hepatic dysfunction, thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia in patients suspected to have preeclampsia. A blood smear will often exhibit abnormalities, such as schistocytes, bur cells, and helmet cells, which indicate erythrocyte damage. Thrombocytopenia, which is the earliest coagulopathy present in all HELLP syndrome patients, is indicated by low platelet count (below 100 x 109 L-1) or by testing the levels of fibrin metabolites and antithrombin III. Elevated serum levels of certain proteins, in particular, LDH, alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST), are indicative of hepatic dysfunction. Extremely high serum levels of these proteins, specifically LDH levels > 1,400 IU/L, AST levels > 150 IU/L and ALT levels > 100 IU/L, significantly elevate the risk of maternal mortality." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_771", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009503717098653807, "content": "Check fetal heart tracing, maternal temperature, WBC count, and uterine tenderness for evidence of chorioamnionitis. Depends on GA and fetal lung maturity. Term: First check GBS status and fetal presentation; then labor may be induced or the patient can be observed for 24–72 hours. > 34–36 weeks’ gestation: Labor induction may be considered. < 32 weeks’ gestation: Expectant management with bed rest and pelvic rest. Antibiotics: Given to prevent infection and to prolong the latency period in the absence of infection. Antenatal corticosteroids (e.g., betamethasone or dexamethasone × 48 hours): Can be given to promote fetal lung maturity in the absence of intra-amniotic infection prior to 32 weeks’ GA. If signs of infection or fetal distress develop, give antibiotics (ampicillin and gentamicin) and induce labor. Preterm labor and delivery, chorioamnionitis, placental abruption, cord prolapse. Defned as onset of labor between 20 and 37 weeks’ gestation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0259_5820", "title": "Hemodynamic, hematological and hemorrheological evaluation of post-term pregnancy.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To evaluate the hemorrheological modifications in post-term pregnant women. Pregnant women (n = 48) at &gt; 280 days' gestation, were tested on alternate days by nonstress test; ultrasound assessment of amniotic fluid volume, placental grading, hourly measurement of fetal urine production, and maternal fetal Doppler analysis. We further recorded maternal: plasma viscosimetry, red blood cells, hemoglobin, hematocrit, platelet count, mean platelet volume, fibrinogen, antithrombin III, creatinine, uric acid, plasma calcium, hPL, and estriol. We analyzed the last values obtained within 48 hours prior to delivery. The subjects were divided into Group I (40 wks to 40 wks+3 days; n = 16); Group II (40 wks+4 days to 41 wks; n = 16); Group III (&gt; 41 wks; n = 16). The time-averaged maximum velocity of the fetal descending thoracic aorta was lower at Doppler analysis in Group III (29.0 +/- 3.5 cm/s) than in Group I (34.0 +/- 4.3 cm/s; p &lt; 0.05). A decrease of the middle cerebral/umbilical pulsatility index ratio (1.75 in the Group I vs 1.52 in the Group III; p &lt; 0.05) was shown. Furthermore, the incidence of oligohydramnios; Grannum placental grade III; plasma viscosity and coagulation parameters were significantly higher in Group III patients. The plasma viscosity resulted positively correlated with uric acid, and inversely correlated with fibrinogen, antithrombin III and platelet number values. From the present data we conclude that post-term pregnancy may mimic a mild 'fetal growth restriction'." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0329_423", "title": "Effect of aspirin in pregnant women is dependent on increase in bleeding time.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Randomized trials with low-dose aspirin to prevent preeclampsia and intrauterine growth restriction have yielded conflicting results. In particular, 3 recent large trials were not conclusive. Study designs, however, varied greatly regarding selection of patients, dose of aspirin, and timing of treatment, all of which can be determinants of the results. Retrospectively analyzing the conditions associated with failure or success of aspirin may therefore help to draw up new hypotheses and prepare for more specific randomized trials. We studied a historical cohort of 187 pregnant women who were considered at high risk for preeclampsia, intrauterine growth restriction, or both and were therefore treated with low-dose aspirin between 1989 and 1994. Various epidemiologic, clinical, and laboratory data were extracted from the files. Univariate and multivariate analyses were performed to search for independent parameters associated with the outcome of pregnancy. Age, parity, weight, height, and race had no influence on the outcome. The success rate was higher when treatment was given because of previous poor pregnancy outcomes than when it was given for other indications, and the patients with successful therapy had started aspirin earlier than had those with therapy failure (17.7 vs 20.0 weeks' gestation, P =.04). After multivariate analysis an increase in Ivy bleeding time after 10 days of treatment by &gt;2 minutes was an independent predictor of a better outcome (odds ratio 0.22, 95% confidence interval 0.09-0.51). Borderline statistical significance was observed for aspirin initiation before 17 weeks' gestation (odds ratio 0.44, 95% confidence interval 0.18-1. 08). Abnormal uterine artery Doppler velocimetric scan at 20-24 weeks' gestation (odds ratio 3.31, 95% confidence interval 1.41-7.7), abnormal umbilical artery Doppler velocimetric scan after 26 weeks' gestation (odds ratio 37.6, 95% confidence interval 3.96-357), and use of antihypertensive therapy (odds ratio 6.06, 95% confidence interval 2.45-15) were independent predictors of poor outcome. Efficacy of aspirin seems optimal when bleeding time increases &gt;/=2 minutes with treatment, indicating a more powerful antiplatelet effect. This suggests that the dose of aspirin should be adjusted according to a biologic marker of the antiplatelet effect. A prospective trial is warranted to test this hypothesis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en182_30596", "title": "Percutaneous umbilical cord blood sampling", "score": 0.009260617917991359, "content": "If the fetus is viable, the procedure is performed close to an operating room in case an emergency cesarean section is necessary due to complications caused by the procedure. Currently, there is no definite age of viability because this depends on the fetus’ ability to survive outside the womb, which in cases of premature births, can depend on access to medical care and technology needed to keep the fetus alive through the neonatal stage. Fetal viability typically occurs at about 24 to 25 weeks of gestation. When the fetus is in between the ages of 24–34 weeks, a glucocorticoid is given to the patient about 24 hours before the procedure to stimulate lung maturity. An ultrasound is performed before the procedure to view the position of the fetus and may be used during the procedure to help guide the needle. The mother’s blood is drawn for comparison against fetal blood, and intravenous access is established in the mother in order to supply medications as needed. To reduce the" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0766_13639", "title": "Preeclampsia: a link between trophoblast dysregulation and an antiangiogenic state.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 24-year-old nulliparous woman developed mildly elevated blood pressure (140-150/90-100 mmHg) without proteinuria (20 mg protein in a 24-hour urine collection) at 30⁶/⁷ weeks of gestation. The fetus was small for gestational age (estimated fetal weight under the fifth percentile). At 32⁵/⁷ weeks of gestation, the patient complained of epigastric pain, blood pressure was 180/110 mmHg, proteinuria was documented (780 mg protein in a 24-hour urine collection), schistocytes were detected in the peripheral smear, platelet count was 60,000 cells per mm³, and serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase was 234 U/l. The patient was diagnosed with severe preeclampsia/HELLP syndrome. Antenatal steroids were administered to induce fetal lung maturity. She and her family want to know the causes of this condition, what treatment is available, and whether there are any long-term implications of this diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1019_23432", "title": "Fetomaternal Outcome in Women with Pregnancy Induced Hypertension versus Normotensive Pregnancy.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A hypertensive disorder in pregnancy comprises one of the deadly triad along with hemorrhage and infection-that contributes greatly to maternal morbidity and mortality. The aim of this study was to compare the feto-maternal outcome in pregnancy induced hypertension with normotensive pregnant women. A cross sectional prospective study was conducted in Paropakar Maternity and Women's Hospital from 1st February 2018 to 1st May 2018. All pregnant women seeking help for hypertension during this period was included in the study and were followed up to six weeks of postpartum period. Total 40 patients were enrolled in each arm. The highest number of pregnancy induced hypertension cases was seen in age group 20-24years (32.5%) and were mostly primigravidas (60%). The commonest symptom in Pregnancy induced hypertension was headache 47.5 %. The mean hemoglobin value was 11.91 gm/dl, mean SGPT (Gestational hypertension 25.44 IU/L, preeclampsia 55.25 IU/L and eclampsia 32.17 IU/L) and mean platelet count was 1, 95,140 lakh/cumm in pregnancy induced hypertension. Mean prothrombin time in gestational hypertension was 13.78±0.7 seconds. Most common maternal complication was preterm labor and fetal complication was prematurity. The most common mode of delivery was vaginal. Pregnancy induced hypertension was more common in primigravida with young age group of 20-24 years and presented commonly with complain of headache. Preterm labor was the most common maternal complication similarly prematurity was the commonest fetal complication seen in pregnancy induced hypertension. Vaginal delivery was the commonest mode of delivery. Blood investigation showed significant thrombocytopenia in eclampsia and decreased prothrombin time in gestational hypertension." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_375", "title": "[Dopplerometry in the 2nd trimester of pregnancy].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Ultrasonic device Toshiba 140 A/G was used to examine 118 women at pregnancy terms 10 to 30 weeks. Umbilical artery, intraplacental arteries, and retroplacental blood flow were assessed. All the women were divided into two groups by the results of retrospective analysis of dopplerograms. Group 1 were 47 women whose intraplacental blood flow values were higher than umbilical artery blood stream parameters. Group 2 were 71 women with the umbilical artery pulsation index higher than in intraplacental vessels. In group 2 blood clotting disorders were more incident (p &lt; 0.01) presenting as platelet hyperaggregation and/or hypercoagulation and sometimes as increased plasma concentrations of fibrin and fibrinogen degradation products. Study of intraplacental and retroplacental blood flow helps differentiate between preclinical and compensated stages of placental insufficiency and thus timely administer the needed drug therapy with due consideration for the time of discirculatory abnormalities, predominantly uteroplacental or fetoplacental." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0077_8504", "title": "[Clinical trends in 520 twin pregnancies in 22 years].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "In the last 22 years 520 twin pregnancies were seen at the Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology, University of Ulm. The material was analyzed retrospectively according to the 4 time periods 1965-1974, 1975-1980, 1981-1983, and 1984-1987. An equal-size group of singleton pregnancies was used as control. 1. By the 20th week the diagnosis had been established in 67% between 1984 and 1987 and 29% between 1975 and 1980. 2. A cervical cerclage was most commonly done between 1981 and 1983 (75%). The frequency decreased afterwards and a cerclage was only done in 18% in 1987. 3. Tocolytic agents were used in 7% between 1965 and 1974 and in two thirds of cases in the last years. 4. Hospital admission before delivery was most common between 1975 and 1980 (33%). In the last 7 years it was only half as common (15%). 5. There was no difference in the frequency of preeclampsia and eclampsia between singleton and twin pregnancies in the last years. 6. Maternal hemoglobin levels below 10% were more common in twin pregnancies than in the control group: Before delivery 11%, after delivery 22% in the twin pregnancies, compared with 6% and 4% in the singleton pregnancies. 7. There was no increase in the duration of pregnancy in the last 22 years. The difference between actual birth date and estimated date of delivery remained about the same in the 4 examined time periods: 21 days, 20 days, 21 days, 27 days. There was a slight increase in the frequency of delivery before the 37th week in twin pregnancies: 38%, 41%, 43%, 47%." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0615_13270", "title": "[Management of the HELLP syndrome].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Defined by the association of hemolysis, hepatic dysfunction and thrombocytopenia, the Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzyme, Low Platelets (HELLP) syndrome can complicate preeclampsia and worsen maternal and fetal prognosis. It can be diagnosed in the immediate postpartum (30%) or in the absence of preeclampsia (10-20%). Clinical diagnosis can be difficult because there is no specific symptom. Abdominal pain or vomiting during the third trimester must lead to think about this diagnosis. Biological criteria are well defined: hemolysis by the presence of schistocytes, increased serum total bilirubin &gt;12 mg/L or LDH &gt;600 IU/L, hepatic dysfunction by increased transaminases and thrombocytopenia by a platelet count &lt;100,000/microL. The evolution of those parameters is a major prognostic factor. With the HELLP syndrome, maternal morbidity is dramatically increased compared to isolated preeclampsia with complications such as eclampsia, placental abruptio, disseminated intravascular coagulation, pulmonary edema, acute renal insufficiency, subcapsular liver hematoma. The management of a HELLP syndrome requests level 3 hospital with intensive care units for neonate and mother. The treatment of this syndrome requires termination of the pregnancy as soon a possible, either by cesarean section or by vaginal delivery if cervical conditions are optimal (without any maternal or fetal complications). Before 32 weeks, a more expectative attitude could be acceptable with the prematurity permitting corticotherapy for fetal pulmonary maturation. This corticotherapy can improve temporary biological parameters but there are no proven benefits to consider improvement for long term maternal or fetal prognosis. During the postpartum, evolution is usually spontaneously favorable. Recurrences are not frequent." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1151_13239", "title": "Comparison of Hemodynamic and Biochemical Factors and Pregnancy Complications in Women with/without Preeclampsia.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "<bBackground:</bPreeclampsia is the second most common cause of maternal mortality in the world after hemorrhage. The present study was conducted to compare the hemodynamic and biochemical levels and pregnancy complications in women with preeclampsia and normal blood pressure. <bMethods:</bThis cross-sectional descriptive study was conducted on two groups of healthy mothers and mothers with preeclampsia. The research sample included 147 people selected among all mothers referred to Kamali Educational and Medical Center of Alborz. The relationship of preeclampsia and its severity with indices such as age, maternal and fetal weight, body mass index, Apgar score, liver enzymes, laboratory indices, Doppler ultrasound, economic status and other hemodynamic and biochemical indices was examined. <bResults:</bThe mean age of patients with normal blood pressure and preeclampsia was 29.2 and 29.9 years, respectively. In the control group, no history of hospitalization in an intensive care unit (ICU) was reported, while in the case group, 28% of mothers were admitted to ICU. In the control group, 93% of the fetal middle cerebral arterial (MCA) index, 95% of UA index, 93% of SD index and 95% of CPR index were normal, while in the case group, 67% of MCA index, 65% of the umbilical arterial (UA) index, 70% of SD index and 36% of CPR index were normal. The mean uric acid was about 32% higher in the case group than the control group. The mean neonatal weight was about 20% higher in mothers with normal blood pressure (2836 g in the control group and 2345 g in the case group). In the multivariate logistic regression, platelet (OR=1, P=.018), pulse rate of mother (OR=1.198, P=.044), uric acid (OR=2.057, P&lt;.001) and LDH (OR=1.006, P=.015) were significant predictors of preeclampsia. <bConclusion:</bBy examining the indices at different ages of pregnancy, the occurrence of preeclampsia can be predicted at the appropriate time and its complications for both the mother and fetus can be thus prevented. Platelet, pulse rate of the mother, uric acid and LDH were significant predictors of preeclampsia, of which just uric acid was a strong predictor, with odds ratio (OR)=2.057 - for example, for one unit increase in uric acid, the odds of preeclampsia increase by about two times. Preeclampsia may cause low birth weight as well." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en178_38961", "title": "Ranson criteria", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Acute pancreatitis not secondary to gallstones At admission: Blood glucose > 11.11 mmol/L (> 200 mg/dL) Age > 55 years Serum LDH > 350 IU/L Serum AST > 250 IU/L WBC count > 16000 cells/mm3 Within 48 hours: Serum calcium < 2.0 mmol/L (< 8.0 mg/dL) Hematocrit decreased by > 10% Oxygen (hypoxemia with PaO2 < 60 mmHg) BUN increased by 1.8 or more mmol/L (5 or more mg/dL) after IV fluid hydration Base deficit (negative base excess) > 4 mEq/L Sequestration of fluids > 6 L Acute pancreatitis secondary to gallstones At admission: Glucose > 220 mg/dl Age > 70 years LDH > 400 IU/L AST > 250 IU/ 100 ml WBC count > 18000 cells/mm3 Within 48 hours: Serum calcium < 8 mg/dL Hematocrit decreased by > 10% Base deficit > 4 mEq/L BUN increased by > 2 mg/dL Sequestered fluid > 6L" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1141_13591", "title": "Reducing Perinatal Mortality in India: Two-Years Results of the IRIA Fetal Radiology Samrakshan Program.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "<bAim</b  The aim of the study is to determine improvements in perinatal mortality at the end of the first 2 years from the initiation of the Samrakshan program of the Indian Radiological and Imaging Association. <bMethods</b  Samrakshan is a screening program of pregnant women that uses trimester-specific risk assessment protocols including maternal demographics, mean arterial pressure, and fetal Doppler studies to classify women as high risk or low risk for preterm preeclampsia (PE) and fetal growth restriction (FGR). Low dose aspirin 150 mg daily once at bedtime was started for pregnant women identified as high risk in the 11-13 <sup6/7</sup weeks screening. The third-trimester screening focused on the staging of FGR and protocol-based management for childbirth and risk assessment for PE. Outcomes of childbirth including gestational age at delivery, development of PE, and perinatal mortality outcomes were collected. <bResults</b  Radiologists from 38 districts of 16 states of India participated in the Samrakshan program that screened 2,816 first trimester, 3,267 second trimester, and 3,272 third trimester pregnant women, respectively. At 2 years, preterm PE was identified in 2.76%, preterm births in 19.28%, abnormal Doppler study in 25.76% of third trimester pregnancies, and 75.32% of stage 1 FGR delivered at term. The neonatal mortality rate was 9.86/1,000 live births, perinatal mortality rate was 18.97/1,000 childbirths, and maternal mortality was 58/100,000 live births compared with 29.5, 36, and 113, respectively in 2016. <bConclusion</b  Fetal Doppler integrated antenatal ultrasound studies in Samrakshan led to a significant reduction in preterm PE rates, preterm birth rates, and a significant improvement in mean birth weights. Perinatal, neonatal, and maternal mortality rates are significantly better than the targets for 2030 set by the Sustainable Development Goals-3." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 39, 157 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 9, 29 ] ], "text": "It is a pancreatic adenocarcinoma with metastasis, so the treatment should be palliative, so we remove options 1 and 5." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 160, 354 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 29, 62 ] ], "text": "In principle she is a patient in moderately good general condition, so the ideal would be to perform a permanent biliary diversion and chemotherapy, option 4 being the one I consider most correct." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 39, 157 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 9, 29 ] ], "text": "It is a pancreatic adenocarcinoma with metastasis, so the treatment should be palliative, so we remove options 1 and 5." } }

{ "1": "Neoadjuvant chemo/radiotherapy, conditioning the option of radical surgery on initial response.", "2": "Percutaneous external biliary drainage with palliative character with eventual reconversion to internal drainage in case of intolerance or complications.", "3": "Palliative surgical biliary bypass with or without prophylactic gastrojejunostomy depending on intraoperative findings.", "4": "Metallic biliary prosthesis by endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography with the option of palliative chemotherapy.", "5": "Cephalic duodenopancreatectomy, with percutaneous ablation by radiofrequency or alcoholization of the hepatic lesion." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0965_4332", "title": "Endoscopic Ultrasound-Guided Biliary Drainage in Two Patients with Difficult Biliary Access.", "score": 0.01504603637996856, "content": "Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography is the method of choice for biliary drainage, although in some cases standard biliary access is difficult or even impossible. Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)-guided endoluminal procedures are an alternative in these cases, although experience with these techniques is still limited. We present two cases of successful EUS-guided biliary drainage. In the first case, a hepaticogastrostomy was performed in a patient with stage IV gastric adenocarcinoma with obstructive jaundice due to compression of the hilum, where malignant gastric stenosis and previous palliative gastrojejunostomy precluded access to the second part of the duodenum. In the second case, a patient with a pancreatic head adenocarcinoma with duodenal invasion that precluded major papillae identification was submitted to a choledochoduodenostomy. Both procedures occurred without immediate or delayed adverse events, with technical and clinical success. Although experience with EUS-guided biliary drainage is still limited, its efficacy and safety is favorable when compared with percutaneous and surgical drainage, and should be considered an alternative to these techniques where sufficient expertise exists." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0243_9694", "title": "[Percutaneous transhepatic biliary drainage in obstructive jaundice. Report of 19 cases (author's transl)].", "score": 0.01481846019247594, "content": "The development of percutaneous transhepatic techniques of access to biliary tree with the fine needle made possible the wide diffusion of percutaneous biliary drainage. Results of 19 attempts of biliary drainage are presented; success rate in positioning external or external-internal drainage was 79% (92.3% in the last year). The technique employed is described and discussed comparing it with the methods proposed by other authors. Early therapeutic effects and long-term benefits on bilirubin levels and survival were good. Only 2 major complications were observed (hepatic abscess and biliary subcapsular cyst) but they did not require surgery. Cholangiocarcinomas and ilar hepatic metastases appeared to be elective indications to definitive palliative drainage, but pre-surgical or palliative drainage is also recommended in all cases of obstructive jaundice. Careful follow-up and check of patients with the biliary drainage improves the drainage function and reduces the complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0339_18781", "title": "[Interventional radiology in the palliative treatment of pancreatic cancer].", "score": 0.01411519514967791, "content": "Pancreatic carcinoma often involves the head of the pancreas and obstructive jaundice is its earliest sign. It sometimes extends to celiac plexus and duodenum causing pain and bowel obstruction respectively. Only 20% of cases are totally resectable (stage I) at the time of diagnosis. Palliative treatment is the only available therapeutic option when the tumor extends surrounding organs or has given lymphatic metastases (stage II, III, IV). The aim of this study is to evaluate effectiveness of interventional radiology procedures on unresectable cancer palliative treatment. Between Jan 90 and Sep 98, 195 patients with unresectable pancreatic carcinoma received percutaneous treatments. They were 104 males and 91 females with mean age of 74 years (range, 48-95). One hundred eighty four patients underwent biliary drainage, six patients underwent celiac plexus block, two patients were treated by bowel stenting. Two patients received both biliary and bowel stents, one patient underwent biliary drainage and celiac plexus block. Jaundice treatment was performed by placement of drainage catheters in 48 patients, polymeric endoprostheses in 58 and metallic stents in 77 (67 Wallstents). Biliary drainage was successful in all cases obtaining appreciable bilirubin serum levels reduction and jaundice regression in 175 patients (95%). In 44 patients Wallstents were placed during a single PTC session time (\"one step\" technique). In 21 cases (11%) peri-procedural complications occurred. Follow-up related to 85 patients shows survival rate covered between 30 and 570 days (mean, 142). Best survival values occurred in patients who underwent \"one step\" technique. Celiac plexus block was successful in 5/7 cases (71%) with no complications, total pain relief and withdrawal of pharmacological treatment. Bowel stenting achieved complete recanalization of intestinal loop in 2 cases but showed troubles related to management of these patients. In patients with unresectable pancreatic carcinoma palliation is the only therapeutic option and has the purpose to achieve biliary tree decompression and eliminate jaundice associated symptoms, improving quality of life and reducing hospitalization. Jaundice relief is reachable by surgical, endoscopic or percutaneous approach. Surgical palliation is characterized by disadvantageous cost-effectiveness rate. Endoscopic and percutaneous palliations are alternative, although, in selected patients, percutaneous Wallstents placement by one step technique is perhaps the most successful procedure, showing high rate of technical outcome with low complications and short time spent in hospital. Celiac plexus block under CT guidance constitutes a reliable method for management of pain. At present bowel stricture treatment is surgical." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en144_7134", "title": "Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography", "score": 0.012078438802576735, "content": "Cholangiography during a biliary drainage intervention is called perioperative or primary choloangiography, and when performed later in the same drain it is called secondary cholangiography. Indications Cholestatic jaundice, to exclude extra hepatic bile duct obstruction, prior to biliary drainage procedure. If endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography has failed and/or there is an obstruction in the proximal biliary tree. Contraindications Bleeding tendency Biliary tract sepsis Being unfit for surgery Hydatid cysts Ascites CLD (Chronic liver disease)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en144_7133", "title": "Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography", "score": 0.011993040308214922, "content": "Technique It is predominantly now performed as a therapeutic technique. There are less invasive means of imaging the biliary tree including transabdominal ultrasound, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography, computed tomography and endoscopic ultrasound. If the biliary system is obstructed, percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography may be used to perform biliary drainage until a more permanent solution for the obstruction is performed (e.g. surgery). Additionally, self expanding metal stents can be placed across malignant biliary strictures to allow palliative drainage. Percutaneous placement of metal stents can be utilised when therapeutic endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography has been unsuccessful, anatomy is altered precluding endoscopic access to the duodenum, or where there has been separation of the segmental biliary drainage of the liver, allowing more selective placement of metal stents." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en144_7132", "title": "Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography", "score": 0.01124242633676596, "content": "Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography, percutaneous hepatic cholangiogram, or percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography and drainage is a radiological technique used to visualize the anatomy of the biliary tract. A contrast medium is injected into a bile duct in the liver, after which X-rays are taken. It allows access to the biliary tree in cases where endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography has been unsuccessful. Initially reported in 1937, the procedure became popular in 1952." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0250_24579", "title": "[Palliative surgical and endoscopic therapy of malignant bile duct occlusion].", "score": 0.010757663389242337, "content": "Cholestatic jaundice is the result of a malignancy of the bile duct itself, of the gallbladder, of the ampulla or (as in most cases) of the pancreas. Patients without evidence of metastases or other signs of advanced cancer (e.g. ascites) are candidates for explorative laparotomy. In the vast majority of cases resection of a tumor is not feasible and the surgeon is faced with the objective of providing palliation. To date there exists not only one palliative procedure, and the surgeon has to take into account the following: In patients with pancreatic cancer palliation can be given with biliary bypass with or without gastroenterostomy. This carries an operative mortality of almost 20% and means a survival of only 5-6 months. Nonsurgical procedures as transpapillary stenting play an increasing role in the management of patients with obstructive jaundice due to pancreatic cancer. In some cases however resectable tumors perhaps will be overlooked. The results of controlled studies comparing endoscopic stenting and surgical bypass are encouraging for stenting techniques (lower morbidity and mortality (&lt; 10%), technical success rates exceeding 90%). The availability of different palliative treatment modalities for carcinoma of the bile ducts suggests that no approach is definitely superior. Operative biliary-enteric anastomosis gives a tolerable operative mortality rate in younger patients, less morbidity, than external biliary drainage by better quality of life of the patients. In retrograde placement of prosthetic stents, in patients with high bile duct obstruction difficulties are frequently. In such cases the percutaneous drainage should be reserved for endoscopic failures, in cases the endoscopic and percutaneous approaches can be combined in the 'rendezvous' procedure. In recent years several reports have advocated extensive surgery for biliary neoplasms. Preoperative staging of these patients remains an issue as none of the commonly modalities are accurate in predicting resectability." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_6934", "title": "ICD-9-CM Volume 3", "score": 0.01046652989894385, "content": "() Repair of liver () Other operations on liver () Operations on gallbladder and biliary tract () Cholecystotomy and cholecystostomy () Diagnostic procedures on biliary tract () Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) () Cholecystectomy () Anastomosis of gallbladder or bile duct () Incision of bile duct for relief of obstruction () Other incision of bile duct () Local excision or destruction of lesion or tissue of biliary ducts and sphincter of Oddi () Repair of bile ducts () Other operations on biliary ducts and sphincter of Oddi () Other operations on biliary tract () Operations on pancreas () Pancreatotomy () Diagnostic procedures on pancreas () Local excision or destruction of pancreas and pancreatic duct () Marsupialization of pancreatic cyst () Internal drainage of pancreatic cyst () Partial pancreatectomy () Total pancreatectomy () Radical pancreaticoduodenectomy () Transplant of pancreas () Other operations on pancreas" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_7155", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Tissue Diagnosis and Cytology Preoperative confirmation of malignancy is not always necessary in patients with radiologic appearances consistent with operable pancreatic cancer. However, EUS-guided fine-needle aspiration is the technique of choice when there is any doubt, and also for use in patients who require neoadjuvant treatment. It has an accuracy of approximately 90% and has a smaller risk of intraperitoneal dissemination compared with the percutaneous route. FIGURE 112-1 Coronal computed tomography showing pancre-atic cancer and dilated intrahepatic and pancreatic ducts (arrows). showing contrast in dilated pancreatic duct (arrows). Percutaneous biopsy of the pancreatic primary or liver metastases is only acceptable in patients with inoperable or metastatic disease. ERCP is a useful method for obtaining ductal brushings, but the sensitivity of ERCP for diagnosis ranges from 35 to 70%." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0270_14505", "title": "Endoscopic sphincterotomy in the management of posttraumatic biliary fistula.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Complications after nonoperative management of hepatic trauma are rare but include persistent biliary fistula in 4% of cases. Therapy usually involves surgical drainage or hepatic resection to control the fistula. The authors present a case of hepatic biliary fistula treated nonoperatively with percutaneous drainage and endoscopic sphincterotomy. A 16-year-old girl suffered a grade III parenchymal liver fracture to the right lobe in an automobile accident. She was hemodynamically stable with no coexistent injuries and was treated nonoperatively. Over 2 weeks her total bilirubin rose to 3.2 mg/dL, and alkaline phosphatase was 463 U/L. Ultrasound showed free intraperitoneal fluid, and 2 L of bilious fluid were retrieved by paracentesis. A radionuclide scan confirmed massive extravasation of isotope from the right lobe. Two drains percutaneously placed over the parenchymal fracture produced 500 to 600 mL of bile daily. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) 1 week later showed a normal extrahepatic biliary system. A 1-cm sphincterotomy was performed without difficulty. Within 72 hours, percutaneous drains produced only 35 mL per day. The follow-up radionuclide scan showed no evidence of extrahepatic biliary extravasation, and 3 weeks later the drains were removed. Six months after the accident, results of the computerized tomography scan and liver function tests were normal. It was believed that endoscopic sphincterotomy reduced fistula output by decreasing the intrabiliary pressure caused by the ampulla, thus favoring internal drainage. This case demonstrates the effectiveness of endoscopic sphincterotomy as an alternative to direct surgical intervention for the management of posttraumatic biliary fistula." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1128_2139", "title": "Recent advances regarding endoscopic biliary drainage for unresectable malignant hilar biliary obstruction.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Biliary drainage for unresectable malignant hilar biliary obstruction (UMHBO) is still associated with a number of controversies to be resolved. The superiority of bilateral drainage in comparison to unilateral drainage has not been proven obviously yet. However, bilateral drainage is necessary to treat obstructive jaundice in some UMHBO patients, and this may be connected with preservation of the functional liver volume. The partial stent-in-stent (SIS) method and side-by-side (SBS) method developed as bilateral drainage methods. There is no significant difference in the technical or clinical success rates of the SIS and SBS methods. In addition, these methods are comparable in terms of adverse events, patency period, and survival period. On the other hand, reintervention for recurrent biliary obstruction (RBO) after the SBS method seems to be easier in comparison to cases with RBO after the SIS method; however, there is no remarkable difference in the clinical results of these procedures. Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)-guided biliary drainage also has become an option for patients with UMHBO. Left hepatic drainage using EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy (EUS-HGS) has become common; however, few studies have reported the results of bridging drainage for the right lobe using the EUS-HGS route or EUS-guided hepaticojejunostomy. A few studies addressed the results of newly designed stents, such as the 6-mm braided metal stent and inside stent. The development of various drainage methods and new devices is necessary for the further advancement of endoscopic biliary drainage for patients with UMHBO, further studies to evaluate those methods and devices are warranted." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0761_9329", "title": "Endoscopic ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy for advanced cholangiocarcinoma after failed stenting by endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Cholangiocarcinoma is common in Thailand. There are many palliative treatments available for patients with unresectable tumor, such as endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) with stents, percutaneous transhepatic biliary drainage, or surgery. In cases in which ERCP has failed, we propose an alternative technique: the use of endoscopic ultrasound with fluoroscopy to perform hepaticogastrostomy for palliative drainage instead of percutaneous transhepatic biliary drainage. A case series study was conducted between December 2005 and December 2009 of 10 patients (4 male and 6 female, average age: 57 years) who presented with severe jaundice caused by advanced cholangiocarcinoma, who were treated with this procedure after failure to drain by ERCP. We used an electronic convex curved linear-array fluoroscopy-guided echoendoscope to drain the left dilated intrahepatic duct to the stomach by metallic wallstent. We performed the procedure with the first six patients under general anesthesia and with the other four under conscious sedation. Follow-up liver function tests were done, and clinical symptoms and survival times were recorded. Hepaticogastrostomy was unsuccessful on the first two patients (success rate = 8/10; 80%), and effective drainage was obtained in only seven patients. Average total bilirubin reduction was 14.96 mg/dL (58.75%) and 18.13 mg/dL (71.20%) after 2 weeks and 4 weeks, respectively, with good quality of life. One patient was not effectively drained because of malposition of the stent. There were two patients whose stent migrated into the stomach; one needed a second session with a second wallstent, and the other needed a double pigtail stent inside the second wallstent. Follow-up survival rates were 32-194 days (average: 123 days). Endoscopic-ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy is safe and can be a good palliative option for advanced malignant biliary obstruction because it drains internally and is remote from the tumor site, promoting a long patency period of prosthesis and better quality of life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1083_12135", "title": "Outcomes and limitations of endoscopic ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy in malignant biliary obstruction.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Transpapillary biliary drainage in ERCP is an established method for symptomatic treatment of patients with unresectable malignant biliary obstruction. Percutaneous transhepatic biliary drainage frequently remains the treatment of choice when the transpapillary approach proves ineffective. Recently, EUS-guided extra-anatomical anastomoses of bile ducts to the gastrointestinal tract have been reported as an alternative to percutaneous biliary drainage. To assess the usefulness of extra-anatomical intrahepatic biliary duct anastomoses to the gastrointestinal tract as endotherapy for unresectable malignant biliary obstruction and to determine factors affecting the efficacy of treatment. A prospective analysis of the treatment results of all patients with unresectable biliary obstruction treated with EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy at our institution in the years 2016-2019. Transmural intrahepatic biliary drainage (EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy) was performed due to the ineffectiveness of ERCP in 53 patients (38 males, 15 females; mean age 74.66 [56-89] years) with unresectable biliary obstruction. Technical success of EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy was achieved in 52/53 (98.11%) patients. Complications of endoscopic treatment were observed in 10/53 (18.87%) patients. Clinical success of EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy was achieved in 46/53 (86.79%) patients. Bismuth type II-IV cholangiocarcinoma, hepatic metastases, ascites, suppurative cholangitis, and high blood bilirubin levels exceeding 30 mg/dL were independent factors for increased complications and inefficacy of EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy. In the event of transpapillary biliary drainage proving ineffective, extra-anatomical anastomoses of intrahepatic bile ducts to the gastrointestinal tract provide an effective method for the treatment of patients with malignant biliary obstruction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0723_15086", "title": "Indirect biliary drainage as an alternative solution for biloma due to complicated biliary drainage.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Pancreas cancer has increased morbidity and mortality. It generally result in biliary obstruction which life threatening importance. Main biliary drainage method is endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography. When endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography is not successful, second preferred method is percutaneous biliary drainage. Percutaneous biliary drainage has some complications which is an invasive procedure. A complication of percutaneous biliary drainage due to patient iatrogenity which was not ever reported in the literature biliary drainage according to our literature research. In these circumstances an alternative solution is indirect biliary drainage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0546_12617", "title": "[Obstruction icterus--our experience].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The most common causes of extrahepatic obstruction are choledocholithiasis, malignant and benign stenosis of biliary ducts, pancreatic head carcinoma, and chronic cephalic pancreatitis. Differentiation between hepatocellular icterus with intrahepatic obstruction and extrahepatic mechanical obstruction is of utmost importance. Differential diagnosis usually includes a combination of clinical examination, biochemical testing, ultrasonography, endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), transhepatic cholangiography, computed tomography (CT), nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) and endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS). Choledocholithiasis mostly develops due to concrement migration from the gallbladder. The treatment of choice is operative therapy by either conventional method with laparotomy or endoscopic concrement extraction, the latter being preferred in case of residual concrements. Malignant stenoses of extrahepatic ducts can involve any segment of the biliary ducts or the gallbladder. The main symptom is so-called painless icterus. The condition is treated surgically by radical (various types of resection) or palliative (biliodigestive anastomoses) methods. Intraoperative lesion occurring on biliary duct procedures is generally involved in the etiology of benign stenoses of extrahepatic biliary ducts. The treatment is surgical and consists of the creation of hepaticojejunal anastomosis. The study included 151 patients admitted during a 5-year period (1999-2003) to Department of Surgery, Zabok General Hospital. Icterus was caused by choledocholithiasis in 112, carcinoma of extrahepatic biliary ducts in seven, carcinoma of the gallbladder in five, and carcinoma of the head of pancreas in 18 patients. Cephalic pancreatitis, malposition of a clamp placed during laparoscopic procedure, postoperative choledochus stricture, stricture of choledochoduodenal anastomosis and multiple cystic liver disease caused icterus in nine patients. In 106 choledocholithiasis patients, the concrement was removed by choledocholithotomy; duodenotomy and papillotomy in addition to choledochotomy were required in four patients; and creation of biliodigestive anastomosis was needed in two patients due to impossible concrement removal. Biliodigestive anastomosis was created in another 20 patients with the findings of inoperable tumor of the head of pancreas, inoperable tumor of the papilla of Vater, postoperative choledochus stenosis, stenosis of choledochoduodenal anastomosis, and chronic cephalic pancreatitis. Cephalic duodenopancreatectomy was performed in two patients, whereas other methods consistent with the etiologic substrate were employed in 17 patients. The following complications were observed in 151 patients operated on: T drain fall off (n = 2), lesion of retroduodenal choledochus (n = 1), and loosening of the cholecystojejunal anastomosis suture line (n = 1). The hospital mortality rate was 3.31% (n = 5). Impairment in the biliary duodenal drainage is an etiologic factor in the development of obstructive icterus. It is of utmost importance to differentiate hepatocellular icterus with intrahepatic obstruction from extrahepatic mechanical obstruction. The treatment depends on the etiologic factor involved. Operative treatment can be fully successful in cases caused by lithiasis or benign stenosis, whereas in cases due to malignant disease a variety of radical and operative procedures associated with a variable level of success are available. Mechanical obstructive icterus of extrahepatic biliary ducts ranks high in the morbidity and mortality in the Krapina--Zagorje County. Timely diagnosis, well planned and properly performed operative procedures could considerably improve the results achieved by the operative treatment of the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0089_16796", "title": "[Extrahepatic biloma secondary to choledocholithiasis].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We present a case of extrahepatic biloma in a patient who was an emergency admission to the hospital and had a clinical pattern of obstructive jaundice secondary to choledocholithiasis. The diagnosis was made by echography and needle aspiration (PAAF). Due to the unfavorable evolution of the patient in the 48 hours after admission, she underwent surgery, which confirmed the diagnosis. Cholecystectomy was performed, with removal of the choledochal gallstone and side-to-side choledochoduodenostomy, and the postoperative evolution was satisfactory. We review the pathophysiologic characteristics of this entity and its etiology, symptomatology, diagnosis and treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1131_4652", "title": "Endoscopic Ultrasound-Guided Biliary Drainage: Endoscopic Ultrasound-Guided Hepaticogastrostomy in Malignant Biliary Obstruction.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Patients with unresectable malignant biliary obstruction often require biliary drainage to decompress the biliary system. Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is the primary biliary drainage method whenever possible. Percutaneous Transhepatic Biliary Drainage (PTBD) is used as a salvage method if ERCP fails. Endoscopic Ultrasound-Guided Biliary Drainage (EUS-BD) provides a feasible alternative biliary drainage method where one of the methods is EUS guided Hepaticogastrostomy (EUS-HGS). Here we describe the EUS-HGS technique in a case of unresectable malignant hilar biliary obstruction to achieve biliary drainage. Presented here is the case of a 71-year-old female with painless jaundice and weight loss for 2 weeks. Computed Tomography (CT) imaging showed a 4 x 5 cm hilar tumor with lymphadenopathy and liver metastasis. EUS fine needle biopsy (FNB) of the lesion was consistent with cholangiocarcinoma. Her bilirubin levels were 212 µmol/L (&lt;15) during presentation. A linear echoendoscope was used to locate the left dilated intrahepatic ducts (IHD) of the liver. The segment 3 dilated IHD was identified and punctured using a 19 G needle. Contrast was used to opacify the IHDs under fluoroscopic guidance. The IHD was cannulated using a 0.025-inch guidewire. This was followed by the dilation of the fistula tract using a 6 Fr electrocautery dilator along with a 4 mm biliary balloon dilator. A partially covered metallic stent of 10 cm in length was deployed under fluoroscopic guidance. The distal part opens in the IHD and the proximal part was deployed within the working channel of the echoendoscope that subsequently released into the stomach. The patient was discharged three days after the procedure. Follow up performed in the second and fourth weeks showed that the bilirubin levels were 30 µmol/L and 14 µmol/L, respectively. This indicates that EUS-HGS is a safe method for biliary drainage in unresectable malignant biliary obstruction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1161_25690", "title": "Feasibility of endoscopic ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy using a 22-gauge needle.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "This study aimed to evaluate the feasibility of performing endoscopic ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy using a 22-gauge fine-needle aspiration needle. This was a single-center retrospective study. Fourteen patients who underwent endoscopic ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy with a 22-gauge fine-needle aspiration needle were examined. Fourteen eligible patients were included in this study. The age of patients ranged from 55 to 93 years, with a median of 76 years. Of patients with existing underlying diseases, there were 8 cases of pancreatic cancer (57.1%), 2 cases of metastatic liver tumor (14.3%), 2 cases of bile duct stones (14.3%), 1 case of hilar cholangiocarcinoma (7.1%), and 1 case of gallbladder cancer (7.1%). Regarding gastrointestinal anatomy, there were 11 cases (78.6%) of normal and 3 cases (21.4%) of gastric resection with Roux-en-Y. Reasons for endoscopic ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy were duodenal obstruction in 7 cases (50.0%), surgically altered anatomy in 3 cases (21.4%), and 4 cases (28.6%) of failed endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography. Technical success was achieved in 11 cases (78.6%). Subsequently, 11 cases of technical success were analyzed. There were 5 cases of puncturing B2 (45.5%). The puncture bile duct diameter ranged from 3.1 to 5.7 mm, with a median of 4.4 mm. endoscopic ultrasound-guided antegrade procedures was combined with endoscopic ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy in 2 cases (18.2%). Clinical success was achieved in all the cases. The procedure time ranged from 15 to 93 minutes, with a median duration of 35 minutes. Regarding the type of stent placed in hepaticogastrostomy, a plastic stent was placed in 10 cases (90.9%) and a metal stent was placed in 1 case (9.1%). Early adverse events occurred in 4 cases (36.4%), and all of these cases developed biliary peritonitis, late adverse events occurred in 1 case (9.1%), this was biloma. A change to a 0.025-inch guidewire during the procedure was required in 8 cases (72.7%). Esophageal puncture was not performed. endoscopic ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy using a 22-gauge fine-needle aspiration needle is effective. However, in 72.7% of the cases started using the 0.018-inch guidewire, the guidewire was exchanged for a 0.025-inch guidewire during procedure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0386_9072", "title": "Extrahepatic biliary stenoses after hepatic arterial infusion (HAI) of floxuridine (FUdR) for liver metastases from colorectal cancer.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Hepatic arterial infusion of floxuridine is an effective treatment for unresectable hepatic metastases from colorectal cancer. Despite its pharmacological advantage of higher tumor drug concentration with minimal systemic toxicity, hepatic arterial infusion of floxuridine is characterized by regional toxicity, including hepatobiliary damage resembling idiopathic sclerosing cholangitis (5-29% of treated cases). Unlike previous reports describing biliary damage of both intrahepatic and extrahepatic ducts, a case series of extrahepatic biliary stenosis after hepatic arterial infusion with floxuridine is herein described. Between September 1993 and February 1999, 54 patients received intraarterial hepatic chemotherapy based on continuous infusion of floxuridine (dose escalation 0.15-0.30 mg/kg/day for 14 days every 28 days) plus dexamethasone 28 mg. Twenty-seven patients underwent laparotomy to implant the catheter into the hepatic artery, the other 27 patients receiving a percutaneous catheter into the hepatic artery through a transaxillary access. Five patients (9.2%) developed biliary toxicity with jaundice and cholangitis (3 cases), alterations of liver function tests and radiological features of biliary tract abnormalities. They received from 9 to 19 cycles (mean 14.5 +/- 6.3 cycles) of floxuridine infusion with a total drug delivered dose ranging from 20.3 to 41.02 mg/kg (mean: 31.4 +/- 13.5 mg/kg). Extrahepatic biliary sclerosis was discovered by computed tomography scan and ultrasound, followed by endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography and/or percutaneous cholangiography in 3 cases. Radiological findings included common hepatic duct complete obstruction in 1 case, common hepatic duct stenosis in 2 cases, common bile duct obstruction in 1 case, and intrahepatic bile ducts dilation without a well-recognized obstruction in 1 case. Two patients were treated by sequentially percutaneous biliary drainage and balloon dilation while 1 patient had an endoscopic transpapillary biliary prosthesis placed. Percutaneous or endoscopic procedures obtained the improvement of hepatic function and cholestatic indexes without subsequent jaundice or cholangitis. In two patients suppression of floxuridine infusion allowed the improvement of hepatic function. The present series suggests that in some patients receiving hepatic arterial infusion of floxuridine extrahepatic biliary stenosis may represent the primary event leading to a secondary intrahepatic biliary damage that does not correlate with specific floxuridine toxicity but results from bile stasis and infection, recurrent cholangitis and eventually biliary sclerosis. Aggressive research for extrahepatic biliary sclerosis is advised, since an early nonsurgical treatment of extrahepatic biliary stenosis may prevent an irreversible intrahepatic biliary sclerosis worsening the prognosis of metastatic liver disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0403_14004", "title": "[Role of interventional radiography in the treatment of the hepato-pancreato-duodenal area, complicated by obstructive jaundice].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We assessed the role of interventional radiological procedures used in the treatment of patients with hepatopancreatobiliary cancer complicated by obstructive jaundice. Between 1990 and 2000, 71 patients underwent percutaneous transhepatic biliary drainage (PTBD): external drainage--18 (group A); external-internal drainage or stenting (group B), and external-internal drainage or stenting plus chemoinfusion or chemoembolization of the hepatic artery--15 (group C). Mean survival (M(SD) calculated for patients who died was 2.1(0.5 mo for group A; (pb,c(0.01), 7.9(6.7 mo (group B), and 16.6(14.8 mo for group C (NS with B). The actual one-year survival was 10, 25, and 45%, respectively. External-internal PTBD and stenting are safe effective palliative procedures for patients with malignant obstructive jaundice. Survival in patients with hepatopancreatobiliary cancer doubled after chemoinfusion or chemoembolization, without grave complications or lethality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0816_2549", "title": "Non-surgical and non-chemical attempts to treat echinococcosis: do they work?", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Cystic echinococcosis (CE) and alveolar echinococcosis (AE) are chronic, complex and neglected diseases. Their treatment depends on a number of factors related to the lesion, setting and patient. We performed a literature review of curative or palliative non-surgical, non-chemical interventions in CE and AE. In CE, some of these techniques, like radiofrequency thermal ablation (RFA), were shelved after initial attempts, while others, such as High-Intensity Focused Ultrasound, appear promising but are still in a pre-clinical phase. In AE, RFA has never been tested, however, radiotherapy or heavy-ion therapies have been attempted in experimental models. Still, application to humans is questionable. In CE, although prospective clinical studies are still lacking, therapeutic, non-surgical drainage techniques, such as PAIR (puncture, aspiration, injection, re-aspiration) and its derivatives, are now considered a useful option in selected cases. Finally, palliative, non-surgical drainage techniques such as US- or CT-guided percutaneous biliary drainage, centro-parasitic abscesses drainage, or vascular stenting were performed successfully. Recently, endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)-associated techniques have become increasingly used to manage biliary fistulas in CE and biliary obstructions in AE. Development of pre-clinical animal models would allow testing for AE techniques developed for other indications, e.g. cancer. Prospective trials are required to determine the best use of PAIR, and associated procedures, and the indications and techniques of palliative drainage. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0250_3582", "title": "[The surgical treatment of carcinoma of the extrahepatic bile ducts].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The authors have carried out a retrospective analysis of 157 patients with Ca in the extrahepatic biliary system, treated at the Clinic for Hepato-Biliary and Pancreatic Surgery within the period 1982-1992. From them 68 patients (43.31%) were with Ca in vesicule biliary and with Ca in the biliary tracts--89 patients (56.69%). The ratio men:women was respectively 1:4.67 and 1.12:1. The medium age of the patients was 63.08 years. In the group of the patients with Ca in biliary tracts the carcinoma was located in the upper third in 20.22% of the cases, in the middle third--in 24.72%, in the distal third--in 55.06%. Radical operations were made in 31.46% of the patients, with lethality 28.57%, whereas the postoperative lethality of the patients with duodeno-hemipancreatectomy was 6.67%, and the average postoperative survival was 32 months. The palliative operated patients constituted 65.17% in the general series, with lethality 15.52% and average postoperative survival 10.4 months. The explorative laparatomies constitute 3.37% from the operated patients. The total operative lethality was 19.1%. In the article the authors discussed the diagnostical methods, stated the preference for echography, computer axial tomography and retrograde cholangio-pancreatography in the mentioned sequence. The endoscopic procedures were discussed as and alternative for the non-resectable carcinomas of the biliary tracts." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1019_10747", "title": "Palliative Measures with Ethanol Gallbladder Ablation and Endobiliary Radiofrequency Ablation Followed by Endoscopic Biliary Stent Placement in an Advanced Case of Common Bile Duct Cancer: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Endobiliary radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is a procedure performed widely to induce locoregional tumor control by the transfer of thermal energy to the lesion and subsequent tumor necrosis. A 72-year-old male with a prior history of acute calculous cholangitis and perforated cholecystitis was admitted to the Kyungpook National University Hospital complaining of fever and nausea. He had an indwelling percutaneous transhepatic gallbladder drainage (PTGBD) catheter from the previous episode of perforated cholecystitis. An abdominal CT scan showed marked dilation of both the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts. Common bile duct cancer was confirmed histologically after an endobiliary biopsy. A surgical resection was considered to be the initial treatment option. During open surgery, multiple metastatic nodules were present in the small bowel mesentery and anterior abdominal wall. Resection of the tumor was not feasible, so endobiliary RFA was performed prior to biliary stenting. Cholecystectomy was required for the removal of the PTGBD catheter, but the surgical procedure could not be performed due to a cystic ductal invasion of the tumor. Instead, chemical ablation of the gallbladder (GB) with pure ethanol was performed to breakdown the GB mucosa. Palliative treatment for a biliary obstruction was achieved successfully using these procedures. In addition, a PTGBD catheter was removed successfully without significant side effects. As a result, an improvement in the patient's quality of life was accomplished." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_24326", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS) produces high-resolution images of the pancreatic parenchyma and pancreatic duct with a transducer fixed to an endoscope that can be directed onto the surface of the pancreas through the stomach or duodenum. EUS and MRCP have largely replaced ERCP for diagnostic purposes in many centers. EUS allows one to obtain information about the pancreatic duct as well as the parenchyma and has few procedure-related complications associated with it, in contrast to the 5–10% of post-ERCP pancreatitis observed. EUS is also helpful in detecting common bile duct stones in acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic masses can also be biopsied via EUS in cases with suspected pancreas cancer, and one can deliver nerve-blocking agents through EUS fine-needle injection in patients suffering from pancreatic pain from chronic pancreatitis or cancer. EUS has been studied as a diagnostic modality for chronic pancreatitis. Criteria for abnormalities on EUS in severe chronic pancreatic" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en105_10328", "title": "Ascending cholangitis", "score": 0.00910689170182841, "content": "Percutaneous biliary drainage In cases where a person is too ill to tolerate endoscopy or when a retrograde endoscopic approach fails to access the obstruction, a percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram (PTC) may be performed to evaluate the biliary system for placement of a percutaneous biliary drain (PBD). This is often necessary in the case of a proximal stricture or a bilioenteric anastomosis (a surgical connection between the bile duct and small bowel, such as the duodenum or jejunum). Once access across the stricture is obtained, balloon dilation can be performed and stones can be swept forward into the duodenum. Due to potential complications of percutaneous biliary drain placement and the necessity of regular drain maintenance, a retrograde approach via ERCP remains first-line therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0819_1128", "title": "Autoimmune pancreatitis or pancreatic cancer? A dilemma in a pregnant woman.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Autoimmune pancreatitis is now a defined entity and it could mimic a pancreatic malignancy. True oncological emergencies in pregnant patients are rare. A 39 years-old pregnant woman was admitted to our emergency unit due to right upper quadrant abdominal pain and evidence of obstructive jaundice. Since computed tomography-scan and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography are contraindicated in pregnant woman, a cholangio-Nuclear Magnetic Resonance was performed, confirming the biliary tract dilatation with stenosis of the intrapancreatic portion of the common bile duct and a shaded image of a mass in the pancreatic head. An endoscopic ultrasound with fine needle aspiration biopsy were performed. US-guided external percutaneous trans-hepatic biliary drainage was successfully performed. The cytological examination showed the presence of erythrocytes, granulocytes, histiocytes and rare lymphocytes; a diagnosis of AIP was supposed, and steroid therapy with metilprednisolone was started. Laboratory tests and jaundice were normalized within 15 days, and the fetus was born in very good health, 22 weeks after. The follow-up was uneventful and a CT-scan confirmed the complete normalization of the pancreatic gland, 12 months after hospital discharge. Autoimmune pancreatitis should be taken into account in the differential diagnosis of a not well defined pancreatic mass; in the event of pancreatic mass-forming disease in pregnancy, the differential diagnosis should be early and accurate, because destructive surgery involves an high rate of morbidity and may interrupt pregnancy. A US-guided FNAB and the response to the corticosteroid therapy should lead to a correct diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1020_5467", "title": "Percutaneous transhepatic biliary drainage may be the preferred preoperative drainage method in hilar cholangiocarcinoma.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "<bBackground and study aims</b  Preoperative biliary drainage of hilar cholangiocarcinoma (HC) is controversial. The goal of this study was to compare the clinical outcome and associated complications for types II, III, and IV HC managed by percutaneous transhepatic biliary drainage (PTBD) and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). <bPatients and methods</b  Between January 2011 and June 2017, a total of 180 patients with II, III, and IV HC were enrolled in this retrospective cohort study. According to the drainage method, patients were divided into two groups: PTBD (n = 81) and ERCP (n = 99). This study was registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, NCT03104582, and was completed. <bResults</b  Compared with the PTBD group, the ERCP group had a higher incidence of post-procedural cholangitis (37 [37.37 %] vs. 18 [22.22 %], <iP</i  = 0.028) and pancreatitis (17 [17.17 %] vs. 2 [2.47 %], <iP</i  = 0.001); required more salvaged biliary drainage (18 [18.18 %] vs. 5 [6.17 %], <iP</i  = 0.029), and incurred a higher cost ( <iP</i  &lt; 0.05). Patients with type III and IV HC in the ERCP group had more cholangitis than those in the PTBD group (26 [36.62 %] vs. 11 [18.03 %], <iP</i  = 0.018). The rate of cholangitis in patients who received endoscopic bilateral biliary stents insertion was higher than patients with unilateral stenting (23 [50.00 %] vs. 9 [26.47 %], <iP</i  = 0.034), and underwent PTBD internal-external drainage had a higher incidence of cholangitis than those with only external drainage (11 [34.36 %] vs. 7 [14.29 %], <iP</i  = 0.034). No significant difference in the rate of cholangitis was observed between the endoscopic unilateral stenting group and the endoscopic nasobiliary drainage group (9 [26.47 %] vs. 5 [26.32 %], <iP</i  = 0.990). <bConclusion</b  Compared to ERCP, PTBD reduced the rate of cholangitis, pancreatitis, salvage biliary drainage, and decreased hospitalization costs in patients with types II, III, and IV HC. Risk of cholangitis for patients with types III and IV was significantly lower in the PTBD group." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0699_3260", "title": "Endoscopic ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy for hilar cholangiocarcinoma: the first trial in Thailand.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "There are many palliative treatments for patients with unresectable malignant biliary obstruction, e.g. endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) with stents, percutaneous transhepatic biliary drainage (PTBD) or surgery. We propose a new technique by using endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) with fluoroscopy to perform hepaticogastrostomy for palliative drainage far from the site of tumor to avoid tumor obstruction. Between December 2005 and June 2006, two patients with severe jaundice by hilar cholangiocarcinoma were treated with this new procedure. The first case was a 44-year female post partial resection of tumor and Roux en Y hepaticojejunostomy and the second case was a 48-year male post ERCP and right hepatic stent. We used an electronic convex curved linear-array echo-endoscope with fluoroscope guided to drain left dilated intrahepatic duct to the stomach by inserting 8 Fr 60 mm metallic wallstent via lesser curvature. We performed under general anesthesia and followed-up every two weeks. There were former two patients failed to place the stents. Hepaticogastrotomy of both patients were our first successful trial but stent site of the first case was not good because the insertion was at esophagogastric junction. Total bilirubin of first and second case fell from 38.4 mg/dl to 27.3 mg/dl and 22.0 mg/dl to 3.4 mg/ dl in two weeks, respectively. No immediate complication was found and oral diet was well succeeded on the next day after procedure in both cases. The first case was dead after 32 days of operation from sepsis and hepatic failure. The second case was clinically much improved after 3 months and died from liver failure after 6 months and 10 days. This new interventional EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy is safe, feasible and may provide an alternative to surgery or PTBD or failed ERCP. It can improve the palliative treatment in hilar lesions because it's internal drainage and far from tumor site that promote fast recovery. However, long term study is still necessary to evaluate the results and cost-effectiveness of this technique." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0386_16736", "title": "[Clinical signs, diagnosis and surgical treatment of extrahepatic biliary duct tumors].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Experience of surgical treatment of 271 patients the extrahepatic biliary ducts tumor for the 1992-1999 yrs period is presented. Indirect signs of extrahepatic biliary ducts tumor were revealed in 84% of observations. Depending on the tumor localization the trustworthiness of the endoscopic retrograde pancreatocholangiography method had constituted from 79.8 to 96.4%. Correct diagnosis was established before the operation in 94.3% of patients. Radical operation was done in 93 (34.3%) of patients, including 22 with proximal localization of tumor, 13--with central one, 10--distal, 48--terminal. Palliative operation was performed in 178 patients, in 76 of them biliodigestive anastomosis was done. Total postoperative mortality was 14.8%." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en144_7135", "title": "Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography", "score": 0.008972953216374268, "content": "Contraindications Bleeding tendency Biliary tract sepsis Being unfit for surgery Hydatid cysts Ascites CLD (Chronic liver disease) Complications Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography may increase the incidence of metastasis, tube dislocation, and bleeding when compared to endoscopic biliary drainage. However, it has lower rate of cholangitis, pancreatitis when compared to endoscopic biliary drainage, probably because the latter has higher chance of incomplete drainage of infected bile, or accidental resection of papilla that causes the backflow of infected bile from the duodenum into the biliary system. References External links Medline page Projectional radiography Digestive system imaging" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1122_16333", "title": "Diagnostic challenges and management of choledochal cyst in an 11-year-old child: a delayed diagnosis (a case report).", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Choledochal cyst are rare congenital disease of the biliary tree. It presenting as cystic dilatations of the biliary tree can involve the extrahepatic biliary radicles, the intrahepatic biliary radicles or both. They are typically a surgical problem of infancy and childhood, but less than a quarter of the patients the diagnosis is delayed until adulthood as it presenting with vague and nonspecific signs and symptoms. In a case with biliary symptoms, abdominal ultrasound scan is the initial imaging modality of choice. Precise and accurate delineation of the biliary system mandates cholangiography with the advantage of non-invasive magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) over endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography. A case report of 11-year-old Tanzania girl with abdominal swelling and jaundice presented to a health facility for evaluation. She complained of abdominal swelling that her mother noticed when she was 3 years old, located above the umbilicus and since then it was not changed its size until 8 years later when it rapidly increased in size associated with non-specific dull pain. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan was done showed A well-defined hypo-attenuated non-enhancing retro-gastric cyst. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiopancreatography (PTC) was performed due to inconclusive findings from CT-scan showed extrahepatic huge cystic dilatation, dilated central right hepatic ducts, left intrahepatic ducts failed to be visualize. Diagnosis of choledochal cyst type isovaleric acidaemia (IVA) was made. Explorative laparotomy was done, huge cystic mass occupying common bile duct was seen below the liver with distended gallbladder covered with visceral peritoneum. Second part of duodenum, pancreases and transverse colon was adhered to the inferior surface of the mass that further make difficult for cyst excision and reconstruction. Cyst was decongested and cholangioenterostomy with Roue-en-Y reconstruction was made. Cholecystectomy was done, hemostasis archived abdomen closed and patient sent to Intensive care units (ICU). Despite of advanced diagnostic modalities, delayed diagnosis of choledochal cyst can be a challenge due to its vague and nonspecific signs and symptoms. Excision of the cyst and reconstruction by hepatojejunostomy as the standard therapy could be difficult due to its biliary complications such as adhesion and infection and hence cyst-enterostomy drainage procedure can be done as option for relief of patient discomfort and prevent further complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1133_13512", "title": "Efficacy of primary drainage by endoscopic ultrasound-guided biliary drainage for unresectable pancreatic adenocarcinoma.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Obstructive jaundice induced by pancreatic adenocarcinoma is typically treated with biliary drainage with endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)-guided biliary drainage (ERCP-BD). Recently, endoscopic ultrasonography-guided biliary drainage (EUS-BD) was employed as an alternative method after ERCP-BD failed. We aimed to determine the efficacy and safety of EUS-BD for primary biliary drainage. Between December 2011 and February 2019, at Kawasaki General Medical Center, we retrospectively enrolled 33 patients who had undergone endoscopic biliary drainage with a metal stent, in a first attempt to relieve obstructive jaundice caused by unresectable pancreatic adenocarcinoma. We compared the technical and clinical outcomes between ERCP-BD and EUS-BD. Twenty-three patients underwent ERCP-BD and 10 underwent EUS-BD. Both groups achieved 100% technical success. The clinical success rates were similar between the groups: 91% (21/23 patients) for ERCP-BD and 100% (10/10 patients) for EUS-BD (<iP</i = 0.48). Biliary obstruction recurred in 6/23 patients (26%) treated with ERCP-BD and 1/10 patients (10%) treated with EUS-BD (<iP</i = 0.40). Other adverse events occurred in 4/23 patients (17%) in the ERCP-BD group and 1/10 patients (10%) in the EUS-BD group (<iP</i = 0.99). We suggest that EUS-BD could be employed for primary biliary drainage in patients with obstructive jaundice caused by unresectable pancreatic adenocarcinoma." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 97, 620 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 14, 92 ] ], "text": "the existence of an endometrial pathology cannot be ruled out. According to the SEGO: \"Abnormal genital bleeding is the main sign of suspicion that should lead us to rule out an endometrial neoplastic pathology, particularly in postmenopausal patients, or those with associated risk factors (...) Given the sign of suspicion, the performance of a transvaginal ultrasound, or in its absence transrectal, allows us to: rule out organic pathology (fibroids, polyps); measurement of endometrial thickness in a longitudinal cut." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Transvaginal ultrasound and measurement of endometrial thickness. Depending on this, an endometrial biopsy should be taken or not.", "2": "Endometrial biopsy by aspiration in consultation. With it I can get the diagnosis very reliably and it is inexpensive.", "3": "Hysteroscopy with sedation and directed biopsy if a lesion is seen.", "4": "I would perform a microbleed, since it is the test that would provide me with the definitive diagnosis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en024_103785", "title": "Heavy menstrual bleeding", "score": 0.017523809523809525, "content": "Diagnosis The NICE guidelines states that: \"Many women presenting to primary care with symptoms of HMB can be offered treatment without the need for further examination or investigation. However, investigation via a diagnostic technique might be warranted for women for whom history or examination suggests a structural or endometrial pathology or for whom the initial treatment has failed.\" Diagnosis is largely achieved by obtaining a complete medical history followed by physical exam and vaginal ultrasonography. If need be, laboratory tests or hysteroscopy may be used. The following are a list of diagnostic procedures that medical professionals may use to identify the cause of the abnormal uterine bleeding. Pelvic and rectal examination to ensure that bleeding is not from lower reproductive tract (i.e. vagina, cervix) or rectum Pap smear to rule out cervical neoplasia Pelvic ultrasound scan is the first line diagnostic tool for identifying structural abnormalities." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en168_15946", "title": "Endometrial biopsy", "score": 0.01632679401135777, "content": "Transvaginal ultrasonography is generally done before obtaining an endometrial biopsy as it may help in the gynecologic diagnosis, or even make the taking of a biopsy superfluous if the lining is thin. If the endometrial lining is less than 5 mm thick on sonography, it is highly unusual to encounter endometrial cancer. The test is usually done in women over age 35. A more thorough histologic evaluation can be obtained by a dilatation and curettage, which requires anesthesia. Contraindications The procedure is contraindicated in pregnancy. Therefore, women in the reproductive years may need a pregnancy test before a biopsy is taken to assure that the test is not done during a pregnancy. Other contraindications are pelvic inflammatory disease and coagulopathies." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_17456", "title": "Vaginal bleeding", "score": 0.016233766233766232, "content": "Diagnostic evaluation The cause of the bleeding can often be discerned on the basis of the bleeding history, physical examination, and other medical tests as appropriate. The physical examination for evaluating vaginal bleeding typically includes visualization of the cervix with a speculum, a bimanual exam, and a rectovaginal exam. These are focused on finding the source of the bleeding and looking for any abnormalities that could cause bleeding. In addition, the abdomen is examined and palpated to ascertain if the bleeding is abdominal in origin. Typically a pregnancy test is performed as well. If bleeding was excessive or prolonged, a CBC may be useful to check for anemia. Abnormal endometrium may have to be investigated by a hysteroscopy with a biopsy or a dilation and curettage." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_58093", "title": "Endometrial cancer", "score": 0.0155842683894367, "content": "Transvaginal ultrasound to examine the endometrial thickness in women with postmenopausal bleeding is increasingly being used to aid in the diagnosis of endometrial cancer in the United States. In the United Kingdom, both an endometrial biopsy and a transvaginal ultrasound used in conjunction are the standard of care for diagnosing endometrial cancer. The homogeneity of the tissue visible on transvaginal ultrasound can help to indicate whether the thickness is cancerous. Ultrasound findings alone are not conclusive in cases of endometrial cancer, so another screening method (for example endometrial biopsy) must be used in conjunction. Other imaging studies are of limited use. CT scans are used for preoperative imaging of tumors that appear advanced on physical exam or have a high-risk subtype (at high risk of metastasis). They can also be used to investigate extrapelvic disease. An MRI can be of some use in determining if the cancer has spread to the cervix or if it is an endocervical" }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2132", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.013137236053702457, "content": "Diagnosis of Postmenopausal Abnormal Bleeding Pelvic examination to detect local lesions and a Pap test to assess cytology are essential first steps in finding the cause of postmenopausal bleeding. Pelvic ultrasonographic examination and, in particular, transvaginal ultrasonography or sonohysterography can suggest the cause of bleeding (250,254). Endometrial sampling, through office biopsy, hysteroscopy, or D&C, is usually considered essential. An endometrial thickness of less than 5 mm measured by transvaginal ultrasonography is unlikely to indicate endometrial cancer, although some authors suggest that the diagnostic accuracy is overestimated and recommend a cutoff of 3 mm (250,255). Management of Postmenopausal Abnormal Bleeding" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0727_22359", "title": "Postmenopausal bleeding should be referred urgently.", "score": 0.012569020633536761, "content": "Postmenopausal bleeding is an episode of bleeding 12 months or more after the last menstrual period. It occurs in up to 10% of women aged over 55 years. All women with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred urgently. Endometrial cancer is present in around 10% of patients; most bleeding has a benign cause. The peak incidence for endometrial carcinoma is between 65 and 75 years of age. Causes of postmenopausal bleeding include: endometrial carcinoma; cervical carcinoma; vaginal atrophy; endometrial hyperplasia +/- polyp; cervical polyps; hormone-producing ovarian tumours; haematuria and rectal bleeding. The aim of assessment and investigation of postmenopausal bleeding is to identify a cause and exclude cancer. Assessment should start by taking a detailed history, with identification of risk factors for endometrial cancer, as well as a medication history covering use of HRT, tamoxifen and anticoagulants. Abdominal and pelvic examinations should be carried out to look for masses. Speculum examination should be performed to see if a source of bleeding can be identified, assess atrophic changes in the vagina and look for evidence of cervical malignancy or polyps. Ultrasound scan and endometrial biopsy are complementary. Ultrasound scan can define endometrial thickness and identify structural abnormalities of the uterus, endometrium and ovaries. Endometrial biopsy provides a histological diagnosis. The measurement of endometrial thickness aims to identify which women with postmenopausal bleeding are at significant risk of endometrial cancer. If the examination is normal, the bleeding has stopped and the endometrial thickness is &lt; 5 mm on transvaginal ultrasound scan, no further action need be taken." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en168_15949", "title": "Endometrial biopsy", "score": 0.012400118378218408, "content": "Procedure Generally, an endometrial biopsy follows this process: The patient is asked to lie on the table with her feet in the stirrups for a pelvic examination. She may or may not be given localized anesthesia. A speculum will be inserted into the vagina to spread the walls of the vagina apart to expose the cervix. The cervix will then be cleansed with an antiseptic solution. A tenaculum, a type of forceps, will hold the cervix steady for the biopsy. The biopsy curette will be inserted into the uterine fundus and with a scraping and rotating motion some tissue will be removed. The removed tissue will be placed in formalin or equivalent for preservation. The tissue will be sent to a laboratory, where it will be processed and tested. It will then be read microscopically by a pathologist who will provide a histologic diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0279_5323", "title": "[Ultrasonographic diagnosis of endometrial disorders: correlation with the histological results in 112 patients].", "score": 0.012219409282700423, "content": "The diagnosis of endometrial lesions hitherto was mainly made on the basis of histological examination. The objective of this study was the assessment of the diagnostic accuracy of transvaginal ultrasound investigation by comparison with the usual histological investigation, which implies painful endometrial sampling. 112 perimenopausal women with irregular vaginal blood loss were examined by transvaginal ultrasound. Shortly afterwards endometrial sampling was performed by means of aspiration, conventional curettage or hysteroscopically guided biopsies. The group of 112 patients included 11 women who had previously received hormone substitution therapy (10%). The other patients (without previous hormone substitution therapy) were divided into a premenopausal group (n = 47) and a postmenopausal group (n = 54). In case of an endometrial thickness (single layer) of less than 3 mm in postmenopausal patients, no (pre)malignant lesions were found. In the pre- and postmenopausal group, using this cut-off-level two of the five endometrial hyperplasias were ultrasonographically missed. All fourteen endometrial carcinomas in 112 patients were ultrasonographically detected by an endometrial thickness &gt; or = 4 mm. In the postmenopausal group specificity was 73% (16/22) using a cut-off-level of 3 mm, in the premenopausal patients it was only 36% (11/31). Regular echo-density or a clear alignment between endo- and myometrium hardly had any value in the diagnosis of (pre)malignant lesions of the endometrium. If our patients with an endometrial thickness of less than 3 mm would not have had an endometrial curettage, 38 of 112 (34%) endometrial samplings might have been avoided. According to our view, transvaginal endometrial examination can be of distinct value in the detection of (pre)malignant endometrium." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_6584", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.012118376418294536, "content": "Symptoms Endometrial carcinoma most often occurs in women in the sixth and seventh decades of life, at an average age of 60 years; 75% of cases occur in women older than 50 years of age. About 90% of women with endometrial carcinoma have vaginal bleeding or discharge as their only presenting symptom. Most women recognize the importance of this symptom and seek medical consultation within 3 months. Some women experience pelvic pressure or discomfort indicative of uterine enlargement or extrauterine disease spread. Bleeding may not have occurred because of cervical stenosis, especially in older patients, and may be associated with hematometra or pyometra, causing a purulent vaginal discharge. This finding is often associated with a poor prognosis (69). Less than 5% of women diagnosed with endometrial cancer are asymptomatic. In the absence of symptoms, endometrial cancer usually is detected as the result of investigation of abnormal Pap test results, discovery of cancer in a uterus" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_2443", "title": "Adenomyosis", "score": 0.012067228430115404, "content": "Histopathology The diagnosis of adenomyosis is through a pathologist microscopically examining small tissue samples of the uterus. These tissue samples can come from a uterine biopsy or directly following a hysterectomy. Uterine biopsies can be obtained by either a laparoscopic procedure through the abdomen or hysteroscopy through the vagina and cervix. The diagnosis is established when the pathologist finds invading clusters of endometrial tissue within the myometrium. Several diagnostic criterion can be used, but typically they require either the endometrial tissue to have invaded greater than 2% of the myometrium, or a minimum invasion depth between 2.5 and 8mm." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_155454", "title": "Obstetrics and gynaecology", "score": 0.012067089174828757, "content": "Colposcopy: If the results of a cervical cancer screening test, such as Pap smear or HPV test, are abnormal this more thorough examination of the cervix and vaginal tissues may be needed. Loop electrical excision procedure (LEEP): a procedure to quickly remove abnormal vaginal tissue within the cervix. A local anesthetic and a solution to enhance the points of removal visually is administered during the process. There is a chance of experiencing watery, pinkish discharge, brownish discharge, and mild cramping. Endometrial biopsy: a procedure that collects a tissue sample from the endometrium lining of the uterus. The sample is tested and checked under a microscope for abnormals cells or indicators of cancer. IUD insertion: an intrauterine device that is T-shaped and is placed in the uterus through the cervix. It is a reversible contraceptive that can be done in a doctor's office." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_58095", "title": "Endometrial cancer", "score": 0.01143859649122807, "content": "Dilation and curettage or an endometrial biopsy are used to obtain a tissue sample for histological examination. Endometrial biopsy is the less invasive option, but it may not give conclusive results every time. Hysteroscopy only shows the gross anatomy of the endometrium, which is often not indicative of cancer, and is therefore not used, unless in conjunction with a biopsy. Hysteroscopy can be used to confirm a diagnosis of cancer. New evidence shows that D&C has a higher false negative rate than endometrial biopsy. Before treatment is begun, several other investigations are recommended. These include a chest x-ray, liver function tests, kidney function tests, and a test for levels of CA-125, a tumor marker that can be elevated in endometrial cancer. Classification Endometrial cancers may be tumors derived from epithelial cells (carcinomas), mixed epithelial and mesenchymal tumors (carcinosarcomas), or mesenchymal tumors." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_6592", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.01135786682713101, "content": "Diagnosis Office endometrial aspiration biopsy is the accepted first step in evaluating a patient with abnormal uterine bleeding or suspected endometrial pathology (76). The diagnostic accuracy of office-based endometrial biopsy is 90% to 98% when compared with subsequent findings at dilation and curettage (D&C) or hysterectomy (77–79)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en168_15945", "title": "Endometrial biopsy", "score": 0.011281512605042017, "content": "Medical uses There are a number of indications for obtaining an endometrial biopsy in a non-pregnant woman: Women with chronic anovulation such as the polycystic ovary syndrome are at increased risk for endometrial problems and an endometrial biopsy may be useful to assess their lining specifically to rule out endometrial hyperplasia or cancer. In women with abnormal vaginal bleeding the biopsy may indicate the presence of abnormal lining such as endometrial hyperplasia or cancer. In patients with suspected uterine cancer, the biopsy may discover the presence of cancer cells in the endometrium or cervix. In female infertility the assessment of the lining can determine, if properly timed, that the patient ovulated, however, the same information can be obtained by a blood test of the progesterone level." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0663_22260", "title": "Modern evaluation of the endometrium.", "score": 0.010798356651121475, "content": "Abnormal uterine bleeding in women older than age 35 years, and certainly in menopausal patients, mandates evaluation, mainly to exclude cancer and hyperplasia, but also to better diagnose the source of the bleeding to appropriately manage the patient. In the past, dilation and curettage was the mainstay of diagnosis. This gave way to in-office suction pump-generated biopsies. Most recently, disposable biopsy instruments with their own internal piston to generate suction have become the standard of care. Rarely has such a technique received such widespread acceptance with such limited validation. Transvaginal ultrasonography, when technically feasible, is a noninvasive way to image the endometrial cavity. Saline-infusion sonohysterography is a subset of transvaginal ultrasonography reserved for patients in whom an adequate endometrial echo is not seen or when an endometrial echo is seen but not sufficiently thin. Appropriate understanding and use of transvaginal ultrasonography and addition of sonohysterography when necessary can allow a clinical algorithm that can triage patients with abnormal uterine bleeding to 1) no anatomic pathology best treated expectantly; 2) a global endometrial process, in which case random blind endometrial sampling is appropriate; or 3) a focal endometrial abnormality in which case endometrial sampling should be done with the visualization offered by hysteroscopy. Finally, the incidence of thick endometrial echo found incidentally in postmenopausal women with no bleeding is extremely high (10-17%) and should not trigger invasive endometrial sampling automatically." }, { "id": "article-21101_2", "title": "Endometrial Biopsy -- Introduction", "score": 0.010321852472147381, "content": "Endometrial biopsy is frequently used to evaluate abnormal uterine bleeding. It is a relatively quick and cost-effective way to sample the endometrium to allow for direct histological evaluation of the endometrium. It is an essential skill to have as endometrial cancer is the fourth most common cancer among women. The American Cancer Society estimates there will be 65,950 new uterine cancer cases and 12,550 related deaths in 2022 [American Cancer Society. Facts & Figures, 2022]. The patient does not need to undergo more invasive procedures as endometrial biopsies have a high sensitivity and specificity for detecting endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial malignancy, equal to the diagnostic accuracy of dilatation and curettage (D&C) procedure. [1]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0417_1991", "title": "[Assessment of the reliability of different methods in diagnosing endometrial cancer].", "score": 0.01024247491638796, "content": "Endometrial cancer is the most common gynecologic malignancy. The purpose of the study was to compare the reliability of different methods for diagnosing endometrial cancer. A prospective study from January 1996 to September 1998. 264 women at risk of endometrial cancer with clinical indications for hysteroscopy with curettage participated in the study. They underwent different diagnostic methods: endometrial cytology (121 cases), endometrial biopsy (150) or ultrasonography (200). The accuracy of these methods was related to the following results obtained from hysteroscopy with curettage. The results of the study suggest higher reliability of endometrial biopsy from cytology. The hysteroscopic diagnosis conforms with the histologic examination showed by the curettage. Endometrial cancer as the cause of post-menopausal bleeding can be excluded in cases with endometrial thickness of &lt; or = 5 mm measured by vaginal ultrasonography. We concluded that the combination of hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy may substitute for curettage and become the method of choice for the endometrium." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_6575", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.010155784138342278, "content": "Endometrial Cancer Screening in the General Population Screening for endometrial cancer should not be undertaken because of the lack of an appropriate, cost-effective, and acceptable test that reduces mortality (31–33). Routine Papanicolaou (Pap) testing is inadequate, and endometrial cytologic assessment is too insensitive and nonspecific to be useful in screening for endometrial cancer, even in a high-risk population. A progesterone challenge test reveals whether the endometrium is primed by estrogen, but it does not identify abnormal endometrial pathology. Transvaginal ultrasonographic examination of the uterus and endometrial biopsy are too expensive to be employed as screening tests." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_17457", "title": "Vaginal bleeding", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Postmenopausal bleeding In postmenopausal vaginal bleeding, the primary goal of any diagnostic evaluations is to exclude endometrial hyperplasia and malignancy. Transvaginal ultrasonography and endometrial sampling are common methods for an initial evaluation. Guidelines from the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) recommend transvaginal ultrasonography as an appropriate first-line procedure to identify which patients are at higher risk of endometrial cancer. Endometrial sampling is indicated if having the following findings and/or symptoms: Endometrial thickness greater than 4 mm Diffuse or focal increased echogenicity (heterogeneity) Failure to visualize the endometrium Persistent or recurrent bleeding regardless of endometrial thickness Endometrial sampling can be obtained either by an endometrial biopsy using an endometrium sampling device such as a pipelle or by dilation and curettage (D&C) with or without a hysteroscopy. FIGO classification" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en168_15944", "title": "Endometrial biopsy", "score": 0.009873188405797102, "content": "The endometrial biopsy is a medical procedure that involves taking a tissue sample of the lining of the uterus. The tissue subsequently undergoes a histologic evaluation which aids the physician in forming a diagnosis." }, { "id": "article-22469_2", "title": "Gynecologic Examination -- Introduction", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The gynecological exam traditionally includes an examination of the external and internal genitalia. Under some conditions, it may be necessary to perform a rectal examination as well. A gynecological exam is typically needed for females with gynecological complaints or for screening for cervical cytology at 21 years of age. [1]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0307_1363", "title": "Endometrial sampling and general practice.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Endometrial sampling is an 'office' technique that has gained widespread acceptance in the United States (US). It is as accurate as dilatation and curettage (D&amp;C) in the diagnosis of endometrial atypia and carcinoma. It appears to be the most suitable method of endometrial assessment for general practice. It has the potential for the earlier detection of endometrial abnormality and for increasing the number of women with abnormal vaginal bleeding who can be wholly managed within primary care. However, research is lacking on the effect of the widespread introduction of the technique into general practice. This paper puts forward recommendations for the use of endometrial sampling by general practitioners (GPs) based on current evidence." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_6585", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "endometrial cancer are asymptomatic. In the absence of symptoms, endometrial cancer usually is detected as the result of investigation of abnormal Pap test results, discovery of cancer in a uterus removed for some other reason, or evaluation of an abnormal finding on a pelvic ultrasonography examination or computed tomography (CT) scan obtained for an unrelated reason. Women who are found to have malignant cells on Pap test are more likely to have a more advanced stage of disease (70)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_58090", "title": "Endometrial cancer", "score": 0.009501241254795758, "content": "Diagnosis Diagnosis of endometrial cancer is made first by a physical examination, endometrial biopsy, or dilation and curettage (removal of endometrial tissue; D&C). This tissue is then examined histologically for characteristics of cancer. If cancer is found, medical imaging may be done to see whether the cancer has spread or invaded tissue. Examination" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0254_7502", "title": "[Diagnostic accuracy in transvaginal echography in benign endometrial diseases and its comparison with hysteroscopic biopsy].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Abnormal uterine bleeding is one of the main indications for hysteroscopy in peri-menopausal age. Transvaginal ultrasound allows for an accurate study of the endometrium through the evaluation of thickness, homogeneity. The aim of this retrospective study was the evaluation of transvaginal ultrasound versus hysteroscopy in diagnostic approach to abnormal uterine bleeding in peri- and post-menopause. 130 Women referred to the Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology of the University of Pavia for abnormal uterine bleeding entered the study; all them underwent transvaginal ultrasound and hysteroscopy with directed biopsy, with histological diagnosis of benign endometrial disease. On the basis of endometrial thickness measured at ultrasound, premenopausal patients were divided into two groups, post menopausal patients into three groups, and for each group a comparison between hysteroscopic findings, histological diagnosis and echographic aspect was performed. A 100% correspondence between ultrasound, hysteroscopy and histology was found in the group of subjects with endometrial atrophy, with an endometrial thickness of 2.9 +/- 0.68 at ultrasound; in the remaining groups sensibility and specificity of transvaginal ultrasound seem to be lower. In our experience a cut-off of 4 mm can be established for endometrial thickness measured by transvaginal ultrasound. Values that are below this cut-off point are diagnostic for endometrial atrophy, precluding the need for more invasive examinations: a medical treatment can then be administered. On the contrary, an endometrial thickening of 4 mm or more requires an hysteroscopic examination with directed biopsy and histological diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0731_24083", "title": "[Comparison of the measurement line cervical and endometrial ultrasound techniques using two].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Cervical and endometrial measurement in the gynecological and obstetric patients is of vital importance. There is no consensus for the correct way in which should be made the measurement, more than anything is for an opinion of some experts. To determine whether there are differences in measurement of endometrial or sagittal cross section of the uterus and cervix in the measurement of fractional linear fashion or along the cervical canal. Using a transvaginal ultrasound, was measured in a transverse and longitudinal endometrial lining. And by fractional measuring along the cervical canal and a linear manner from the internal to the external. We studied a total of 63 patients. The mean endometrial transversal measurement in a cross was 7.1. mm (SD +/- 3.3) The mean endometrial longitudinally measured were: 7.9 mm (SD +/- 3.4). The mean cervical measurement was fractionally 3.3 cm (SD +/- 0.4) Mean cervical linear measurement was 3.9 cm (SD +/- 0.4). Using student's t test where the value of p in the endometrial measurement was 0.0871 and p value in cervical measurement was 0.009, the latter being statistically significant. With respect to the measurement of the endometrial lining, there is no significant difference do any of the two different techniques. However, measurement of the cervix, another significant difference (p = 0.009), so it should be further investigated which of these two techniques is the right way to establish more accurate diagnoses." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2049", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009427803379416282, "content": "Endometrial Sampling Endometrial sampling should be performed to evaluate abnormal bleeding in women who are at risk for endometrial pathology, including polyps, hyperplasia, or carcinoma. Such sampling is mandatory in the evaluation of anovulatory bleeding in women older than 35 to 40 years of age, in younger women who are obese, and in those who do not respond to medical therapy or those with a history of prolonged anovulation (143). The technique of D&C, which was used extensively for the evaluation of abnormal bleeding, was largely replaced by endometrial biopsy in the office. The classic study in which a D&C was performed before hysterectomy with the conclusion that less than one-half of the endometrium was sampled in more than one-half of the patients led to questioning the use of D&C for endometrial diagnosis (176,177). Hysteroscopy, either diagnostic or operative, with endometrial sampling, can be performed either in the office or operating room (178)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0306_19467", "title": "Transvaginal ultrasonography and hysteroscopy in the diagnosis of endometrial abnormalities.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To investigate the value of transvaginal ultrasonography, aspiration biopsy, and hysteroscopy combined with curettage or directed biopsy in detecting endometrial pathology in women with abnormal uterine bleeding. Prospective, nonrandomized study. A university-affiliated hospital. One hundred twenty-two premenopausal and 78 postmenopausal women with abnormal uterine bleeding. The women underwent transvaginal ultrasonography (TVS) combined with aspiration Pipelle biopsy. They were scheduled for hysteroscopy and endometrial sampling by curettage or directed biopsy within 4 weeks. Ultrasonographic findings were evaluated on the basis of final diagnoses established by hysteroscopy and histologic examination. The endometrium was measured at its thickest part in the longitudinal plane. In premenopausal women, endometrial thickness was measured during the early proliferative phase of the cycle. Ultrasound examination was considered negative if single-layer thickness was less than 5 mm in the absence of endometrial projections. In all other cases it was classified as positive. For postmenopausal women the cutoff point was 4 mm (single layer). In postmenopausal women with endometrial thickness less than 4 mm, as well as in premenopausal patients with negative TVS, the combination of TVS and aspiration biopsy missed only one case of atypical hyperplasia. In premenopausal patients TVS clearly detected 73% of polyps and myomata, permitting diagnostic and surgical hysteroscopy to be performed at the same time. In postmenopausal women with endometrial thickness 4 mm or greater, aspiration biopsy failed to detect two cases of atypical hyperplasia and one of focal adenocarcinoma. Pipelle sampling was technically infeasible in a woman with endometrial cancer because of a stenotic cervix. It also missed the majority of benign lesions (polyps and myomas). Transvaginal ultrasound seems to be an excellent initial diagnostic method, with high sensitivity in diagnosing endometrial abnormalities. Its combination with aspiration biopsy seems to be safe in women with a thin endometrium. Hysteroscopy is necessary in postmenopausal women with an endometrium of 4 mm or more, as well as in premenopausal patients with endometrial thickness more than 5 mm (preovulatory phase of the cycle) and in those with suspected polyps or myomas." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_4086", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009317493594223153, "content": "for neoplasia and provide enough information to support an initial management strategy. In the absence of a satisfactory diagnosis or if unexplained bleeding continues without response to treatment, further investigation is appropriate, using one or a combination of ultrasound, endometrial sampling, SIS, or office hysteroscopy. For women in their earlier reproductive years who have AUB, medical or expectant management may be used initially, depending on the severity and inconvenience of the bleeding. For those who do not respond to medical treatments such as oral contraceptives, further diagnostic procedures such as transvaginal ultrasonography, SIS, or hysteroscopy with biopsy can be performed (165)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0422_11900", "title": "Ultrasonographic evaluation of the endometrium in postmenopausal vaginal bleeding.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Transvaginal ultrasound with SIS is a cost-minimizing screening tool for perimenopausal and postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding. Its use decreases the need for invasive diagnostic procedures for women without abnormalities, and ultrasound increases the sensitivity of detecting abnormalities in women with pathologic conditions. Vaginal sonography is preferred over uniform biopsy of postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding because it (1) is a less invasive procedure, (2) is generally painless, (3) has no complications, and (4) may be more sensitive for detecting carcinoma than blind biopsy. Transvaginal sonography is rarely nondiagnostic. Endometrial sampling is less successful in women with a thin endometrial stripe on ultrasound than in women with real endometrial pathologic condition. A limitation of ultrasound is that an abnormal finding is not specific: ultrasound cannot always reliably distinguish between benign proliferation, hyperplasia, polyps, and cancer. Although ultrasound may not be able to distinguish between hyperplasia and malignancy, the next step in the clinical treatment requires tissue sampling. Because of the risk of progression of complex hyperplasia to carcinoma, patients with this finding may benefit from hormonal suppression, dilatation and curettage, endometrial ablation, or hysterectomy, depending on the clinical scenario. The inability to distinguish these two entities based on ultrasound alone should not be seen as a limitation because tissue sampling is required in either case. Occasionally (in 5% to 10% of cases), a woman's endometrium cannot be identified on ultrasound, and these women also need further evaluation. Ultrasonography also may be used as a first-line investigation in other populations with abnormal uterine bleeding. In a multicenter, randomized, controlled trial of 400 women with abnormal uterine bleeding, the investigators found that transvaginal sonography combined with Pipelle endometrial biopsy and outpatient hysteroscopy was as effective as inpatient hysteroscopy and curettage. The subject, included women older than 35 years with PMB, menorrhagia, intermenstrual bleeding, postcoital bleeding, or irregular menses. Transvaginal sonography may be a cost-effective. sensitive, and well-tolerated method to evaluate most women with abnormal bleeding in combination with physical examination and endometrial biopsy and hysteroscopy us indicated. Hysteroscopy is likely to become the new gold standard in the future because of its ability to visualize directly the endometrium and perform directed biopsies as indicated. As office-based hysteroscopy becomes more practical and widespread, the technique may become more cost effective. An evaluation plan using transvaginal sonography as the initial screening evaluation followed by endometrial biopsy or, more likely, hysteroscopy is likely to become the standard of care (Fig. 12). It remains unproven whether certain patients at higher risk for carcinoma should proceed directly to invasive evaluation. Women on tamoxifen with persistent recurrent bleeding, women with significant risk factors for carcinoma, and women with life-threatening hemorrhage comprise this group. Further studies are still necessary to evaluate high-risk patients and determine whether ultrasound or biopsy is really the most cost-effective initial test." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0412_2333", "title": "[How I explore...a gynecologic pathology. Part 1: clinical history and examination].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "After major technical advances in obstetrics and gynecology, one can unfortunately observe a decreased quality of the clinical history and gynecological examination, and of usual paraclinical tests. However, outpatient gynecological examination is the main component of a precise diagnosis and of possible medical or surgical treatments. In this article, we review the successive steps of outpatient clinic examination, with emphasis on the important parts of clinical examination. The complementary explorations will be detailed in the second part of this article, in a future issue of the Revue Médicale de Liège. The pathologies will not be exhaustively reviewed in this manuscript; only the diagnostic side of clinical examination will be detailed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0131_3184", "title": "Gynaecological history, complaints and examinations in a middle-aged population.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A sample of women aged 40-56 years (n = 1349) was selected at random from the Census Register of Göteborg, Sweden. Altogether, 1095 (81%) filled out a questionnaire concerning gynaecological data. A control group (n = 170) was established and 135 women from this group (79%) underwent an extensive personal interview and pelvic examination. One aim was to investigate the representativity of the control group for the initial random sample and to compare the information obtained from the questionnaire with the information acquired by personal interview. An additional aim was to obtain information related to pelvic examination and FSH concentrations in the serum of middle-aged women. In general there was a good agreement between information from questionnaires and from personal interviews. The pelvic examination revealed that 53% of the post-menopausal women showed signs of genital atrophy and this condition was more common in sexually inactive than active women. Weakness of the pelvic floor was encountered in 16%. The uterus was of normal size in 94%, anteflexed in 76%, mid-positioned in 8% and retroflexed in 16%. There was a positive correlation between a pathological smear and cervical ectopy. Serum FSH values in menstruating women ranged from 6.4 to 47 IU/l. A cut-off value of 50 IU/l gave a complete separation between menstruating and post-menopausal subjects." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 186, 279 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 31, 46 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers touch on many of the \"myths\" and customs surrounding gastroenteritis." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 186, 279 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 31, 46 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers touch on many of the \"myths\" and customs surrounding gastroenteritis." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 186, 279 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 31, 46 ] ], "text": "The rest of the answers touch on many of the \"myths\" and customs surrounding gastroenteritis." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 280, 417 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 46, 66 ] ], "text": "There is also no evidence of lactose intolerance (perianal irritation, frothy and acid stools, etc.) that would advise lactose-free milk." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 185 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 31 ] ], "text": "The baby is not dehydrated and is in good general condition. Try to avoid dehydration by replenishing what is being lost, avoiding drastic changes in feeding habits as much as possible." } }

{ "1": "An estimation of losses should be made, recommend a 4-hour fast and rehydrate during this time with oral rehydration solution.", "2": "It is advisable to introduce rice cereals for their astringent effect.", "3": "A stool culture should be performed as soon as possible to exclude a bacterial origin.", "4": "The use of lactose-free formula should be recommended.", "5": "It is advisable to replace losses after each bowel movement with oral rehydration solution and continue with the patient's usual diet." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en044_38924", "title": "Oral rehydration therapy", "score": 0.017806267806267807, "content": "An exception is if the severely malnourished child also has severe diarrhea (in which case ReSoMal may not provide enough sodium), in which case standard reduced-osmolarity ORS (75 mmol sodium/L) is recommended. Malnourished children should be rehydrated slowly. The WHO recommends 10 milliliters of ReSoMal per kilogram body weight for each of the first two hours (for example, a 9-kilogram child should be given 90 ml of ReSoMal over the course of the first hour, and another 90 ml for the second hour) and then continuing at this same rate or slower based on the child's thirst and ongoing stool losses, keeping in mind that a severely dehydrated child may be lethargic. If the child drinks poorly, a nasogastric tube should be used. The IV route should not be used for rehydration except in cases of shock and then only with care, infusing slowly to avoid flooding the circulation and overloading the heart." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0499_8931", "title": "Randomized, double-blind clinical trial of a lactose-free and a lactose-containing formula in dietary management of acute childhood diarrhea.", "score": 0.017379679144385027, "content": "Refeeding of artificially fed infants with lactose-containing formula after oral rehydration therapy in the treatment of acute diarrhea was concluded to be indifferent to non-lactose formula by a meta-analysis. In Thai as well as Asian infants and children with low lactase level from genetically determinant and with rotavirus infection, lactose malabsorption is most likely to occur and cause delayed recovery. The aim of this study was to compare the effect of a lactose-free and a lactose-containing formula in dietary management of acute childhood diarrhea. A randomized, double-blind clinical trial of 80 male children, formula-fed, aged 3 to 24 months, admitted with acute watery diarrhea and mild or moderate dehydration, was carried out. All children received oral rehydration therapy for the first 4 hours. After appropriate rehydration, they were fed either a lactose-free formula (Dumex Lactose-Free Formula; treatment group, n = 40) or a lactose-containing formula (Dumex Infant Formula; control group, n = 40) in adjunction with oral rehydration solution. In addition, the infants were fed rice gruel as tolerated. Comparisons of duration of diarrhea, weight gain, vomiting, biochemical changes, stool frequency and weight and unscheduled intravenous fluid were made. Three children (2 treatment, and 1 control) dropped out from the study. The total number of unscheduled intravenous infusions were 6 of 80 children (7.5%), including 2 (5.0%) in the treatment group and 4 (10.0%) in the control group. Three children in the control group did not resolve from diarrhea within 7 days of treatment. Rotavirus was identified in approximately 50% of the children in each group. Using survival analysis, the median duration of diarrhea was significantly shortened by 20.5 hours in the treatment group compared to the control group (77.0 hours in the treatment group vs 97.5 hours in the control group; P = 0.002). Significantly decrease in stool frequency and increase in percent weight gain were seen in the treatment group at 24 hours. Moderate acidosis cleared up to near normal at 24 hours in the treatment group but acidosis persisted in the control group. In the rotavirus diarrhea subgroup, moderate acidosis turned to be mild in treatment group, but acidosis was unchanged with increased plasma chloride level in the control at 24 hours thus suggesting that the children in the control group might have lactose malabsorption and osmotic diarrhea. Duration of rotavirus diarrhea was shortened 23.6 hours in treatment group compared to the control (P = 0.0034). In this study, lactose-free formula was shown to be effective in the dietary management of acute childhood diarrhea. Duration of diarrhea was shortened, weight gain was better, and stool frequency was less when compared to lactose-containing formula. Moderate acidosis cleared up spontaneously at 24 hours. Unscheduled IV could be decreased by 50%. Children receiving lactose-free formula tolerated it well. Data of subgroup analysis of rotavirus diarrhea revealed lactose-free formula scored higher than the control group for all parameters studied." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0384_2443", "title": "Acute diarrhoea in infants: oral rehydration is crucial.", "score": 0.01688515246508977, "content": "(1) Dehydration is the most immediate complication of acute diarrhoea. Infants still die by dehydration, or suffer severe repercussions. (2) Thirst is an early sign of dehydration in an infant. Other signs are delayed capillary filling, absence of tears, mucosal dryness and a \"sickly\" appearance. Fever or vomiting in the first 24 hours facilitate dehydration. Weight loss is the main clinical index of the degree of dehydration. (3) Oral rehydration with glucose-electrolyte solution is as effective as intravenous rehydration. It must start immediately dehydration occurs. Infants with signs of severe dehydration must be hospitalised. (4) Oral rehydration of a vomiting infant is feasible, by giving a teaspoonful of solution every one or two minutes. (5) A dehydrated infant rarely refuses oral rehydration solutions. (6) Beverages such as cola drinks are inappropriate for rehydration, as they contain too little sodium and are excessively hyperosmolar, which may worsen the diarrhoea. Rice gruel is better. (7) Antidiarrhoeal drugs do not prevent dehydration. (8) Feeding must be resumed as soon as dehydration has been corrected, as it shortens the course of diarrhoea. Continuing maternal breast-feeding reduces the severity of diarrhoea. Lactose-free \"milk\" has no demonstrated benefit. (9) Those in charge of an infant with diarrhoea must know how to prevent severe dehydration, which can occur very rapidly. Fluid intake must always be increased in an infant with diarrhoea. Sachets of powder for oral rehydration should be kept at home. Their prescription and dispensing should be accompanied by written instructions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0572_4047", "title": "[Prevention and treatment of acute diarrhea in infants].", "score": 0.016511936339522547, "content": "The prognosis of acute diarrhoea in infants is most often satisfactory in industrialized countries. However, it has been estimated that 10 to 15 children die every year in France from acute dehydration due to acute diarrhoea. In spite of an increasing use over the least few years, oral rehydration solutions (ORS) are used in only 70% of infants presenting with acute diarrhoea. The use of homemade ORS, plain water or fizzy drink should be strictly avoided. In case of acute diarrhoea there is no indication to stop breastfeeding or the use of infant formula for more than 4 hours. Lactose intolerance is observed in only 5-10% of infants. Lactose free formulae should only be used in infants with severe, persistent or recurrent diarrhoea. Under 3-4 months of age, infants with severe diarrhoea should receive for a period of 2-4 weeks lactose free protein hydrolysate formulae. Racecadotril is the only drug with anti-diarrheal properties, with a reduction of the stool output of 50%. Oral antibiotics should only be used in case of Shigella infection or in case of bacterial infection with severe sepsis or underlying debilitating disease. Oral Rotavirus vaccine, that is not reimbursed yet in France, has been shown to dramatically reduce the number of severe cases of diarrhoea with dehydration, and has been associated with a striking reduction of both morbidity and mortality, as well as of the number of hospitalisations during periods of epidemics." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0110_83", "title": "Controlled clinical trial on the efficacy of rice powder-based oral rehydration solution on the outcome of acute diarrhea in infants.", "score": 0.01646787747357007, "content": "We report a controlled clinical trial of rice powder-based oral rehydration solution (ORS) versus glucose ORS on the outcome of acute diarrhea in infants. The rice ORS group (n = 30) received ORS containing 50 g rice powder instead of standard WHO solution (20 g glucose, n = 30). Formula-fed male infants were enrolled to enable calculation of milk intake and excretion of urine. Patient allocation to either group depended on the method of random permuted blocks. Both groups were comparable regarding age (4-18 months), duration of diarrhea, number of bowel movements or vomiting per 24 h, rectal temperature, dehydration score, and nutritional status. Results revealed that the rice ORS group had a shorter duration of diarrhea (28.4 +/- 5.1 vs 34.3 +/- 2.3 h) and greater mean weight gain in the first 24 h as percentage of recovery weight (5.7 +/- 0.5% vs 4.1 +/- 0.6%). Furthermore, the mean amount of ORS intake, mean stool output, and mean number of episodes of vomiting were lower in the rice-ORS group as compared with the glucose ORS group. All differences were statistically significant. Due to its observed superiority and low cost, the widespread use of rice ORS should be considered for treatment of acute diarrhea." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0637_24111", "title": "Acute infectious diarrhea in children.", "score": 0.01642068873819971, "content": "Acute infectious enteritis is one of the more common childhood diseases worldwide, especially in the first three years of life. Every year, in Germany, one in six children under age 5 is taken to a physician at least once because of infectious diarrheal disease. 10% of the children presenting with rotavirus infection are admitted to hospital. The existing national and international recommendations for the treatment of acute infectious diarrheal disease are inadequately followed, despite the high level of evidence on which they are based. Selective literature search based on national and international guidelines. The therapeutic goal is to replace the fluid and electrolyte losses resulting from diarrhea and vomiting. The administration of a hypotonic oral rehydration solution (ORS) is indicated to treat impending dehydration (infants aged up to 6 months with diarrhea and/or more than 8 watery stools in the last 24 hours and/or more than 4 episodes of vomiting in the last 24 hours), or when mild or moderate dehydration is already present. Oral rehydration with ORS given in frequent, small amounts over 3-4 hours is successful in more than 90% of cases. Regular feeding can be begun immediately afterward. Laboratory testing of blood or stool is usually unnecessary. Children who can be rehydrated orally or through a nasogastric tube should not be given intravenous fluids." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0653_10425", "title": "[A multicentric study of a lactose free formula supplemented with Saccharomyces boulardii in children with acute diarrhea].", "score": 0.016282051282051284, "content": "In a double-blind, randomized, controlled, multicentric study, the study compared the efficacy of a specific adapted formula (lactose-free, high-mineral, low-osmolarity formula, containing rice and pectin fortified with Saccharomyces boulardii) in the management of infants with acute diarrhea with a standard formula used to feed healthy infants from birth. Seventy infants with an average age of 163 days+/-11.7 suffering from acute diarrhea with an average of 6.6+/-0.4 stools per day received, after randomization, either a standard (control) formula (n=36) or an adapted lactose-free formula fortified with S. boulardii (26mg/100ml; n=34). The duration of the diarrhea was defined as the time needed until the occurrence of the first normal stool after the last liquid stool. At inclusion, the age, weight, and number of stools per day were the same in the two groups. There were 15 infants with rotavirus in the treated group and 13 in the control group. The duration of the diarrhea from time of inclusion was significantly reduced in the treated group (35.4+/-3.7h) versus the control group (67.1+/-5h; p&lt;0.001), In both groups, with or without rotavirus, the duration of diarrhea did not depend on the presence or absence of rotavirus but only on the treatment. The average daily weight gain was significantly higher in the treated group compared with the control group (74.2+/-26.4g versus 23.7+/-6.7g; p&lt;0.05). The oral rehydration solution consumption was, however, higher in the control group than in the treated group; the consumption of formula was higher in the treated group, but these differences were not significant. The number of stools as of Day 4 remained significantly higher in the control group than in the treated group. After 6.5 days, almost no S. boulardii was found in the stools. In moderately dehydrated infants (&lt;10 %), the use of a specially designed formula, containing S. boulardii (Novalac AD+/Diarinova+), significantly shortens the duration of diarrhea and allows quicker weight regain than a standard formula." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0371_18361", "title": "[Treatment of infants with acute diarrhea in Hungary].", "score": 0.015537488708220417, "content": "In the treatment of infants with acute diarrhoea complicated by mild to moderate dehydration, there is a great importance of rapid rehydration over 3-4 hours with oral rehydration solution containing 60 mmol/l sodium and then the rapid reintroduction of normal diet or breast feeding which should be continued all the time if possible. The pharmacological treatment of diarrhoea is not justified. In the present study which was part of a European multicentre survey using questionnaires the authors analysed how the recommendation of European Society of Pediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology and Nutrition are followed in Hungary. It was evaluated 131 returned questionnaires, 80 of primary care and 51 of hospital-based pediatricians. The overwhelming majority of pediatricians (92%) recommended the oral rehydration at the beginning of treatment. The four fifth of them use the ORS with recommended composition. Only 31% of them use rapid oral rehydration over 3-4 hours. Merely 10% of them suggest the early reintroduction of normal feeding after the oral rehydration, while more than half of the respondent pediatricians (52%) think that temporarily the use of lactose free formula is justified. It is a very favourable fact that 84% of doctors recommend the continuation of breast feeding. Some kind of drugs for the treatment of diarrhoea is suggested by 15% of repliers. On the base of results it is obvious that the guidelines for the treatment of acute diarrhoea in infancy is complied only partially in Hungary and the reintroduction of normal feeding is delayed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0070_13061", "title": "A comparison of rice-based oral rehydration solution and \"early feeding\" for the treatment of acute diarrhea in infants.", "score": 0.015259813932380304, "content": "To compare the use of rice-based oral rehydration solution (R-ORS), with the introduction of food immediately after rehydration (\"early feeding\"), using standard glucose-based oral rehydration solution (G-ORS) in the management of acute diarrhea, we conducted a four-cell randomized, controlled trial among 200 hospitalized Egyptian infants between 3 and 18 months of age. During the rehydration phase (first 4 hours), three groups were given G-ORS and a fourth group was given R-ORS. During the subsequent maintenance phase, the control group was given a soy-based, lactose-free formula (G-ORS + SF), a second group (G-ORS + RF) was given a rice-based formula, and a third group (G-ORS + rice) was given boiled rice. The fourth group (R-ORS + SF) continued to receive R-ORS for the first 24 hours of the maintenance period, followed by a soy-based lactose-free formula. During the first and second 24 hours of the maintenance period, infants in the three treatment groups had a lower mean stool output in comparison with the control group (p = 0.006 and 0.03, respectively). The mean total stool output in the R-ORS + SF group was significantly lower than in the control group (p = 0.02). There were no statistically significant differences among the four groups in the mean duration of diarrhea. We conclude that (1) infants who were given R-ORS had reduced total stool output (by 35%) compared with the control group and (2) feeding of boiled rice or a rice-based formula immediately after rehydration therapy was as efficacious as treatment with R-ORS alone for 24 hours, followed by feeding with a soy-based, lactose-free formula." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_38925", "title": "Oral rehydration therapy", "score": 0.015191995390015192, "content": "Feeding should usually resume within 2–3 hours after starting rehydration and should continue every 2–3 hours, day and night. For an initial cereal diet before a child regains his or her full appetite, the WHO recommends combining 25 grams skimmed milk powder, 20 grams vegetable oil, 60 grams sugar, and 60 grams rice powder or other cereal into 1,000 milliliters water and boiling gently for five minutes. Give 130 ml per kilogram of body weight during per 24 hours. A child who cannot or will not eat this minimum amount should be given the diet by nasogastric tube divided into six equal feedings. Later on, the child should be given cereal made with a greater amount of skimmed milk product and vegetable oil and slightly less sugar. As appetite fully returns, the child should be eating 200 ml per kilogram of body weight per day. Zinc, potassium, vitamin A, and other vitamins and minerals should be added to both recommended cereal products, or to the oral rehydration solution itself." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0257_10296", "title": "Use of a single solution for oral rehydration and maintenance therapy of infants with diarrhea and mild to moderate dehydration.", "score": 0.015159345391903532, "content": "To compare the efficacy of two commonly used solutions in the rehydration of infants with mild to moderate dehydration caused by acute diarrhea in the United States. Double-blind, parallel-group, randomized study performed at Children's Hospital Medical Center. Sixty infant boys (&lt; or = 2 years old), with mild (&lt; or = 5%) or moderate (6 to 9%) dehydration caused by acute diarrhea of less than 1 week's duration were included in the study. Infants were randomly assigned to receive treatment with either a glucose-based oral rehydration solution (ORS) (Pedialyte, Ross Laboratories, Columbus, OH) or a rice syrup solids-based ORS (Infalyte, Mead Johnson Nutritional Group, Evansville, IN). After rehydration was achieved, patients entered a maintenance phase during which, in addition to a maintenance ORS, breast milk or a soy-based formula was offered; infants older than 1 year were also given a lactose-free diet. Rehydration was judged clinically. Infants remained on a metabolic bed during the study in to separate and quantitate urine and stool output. Therefore, in addition to clinical outcome, we compared intake, output and apparent absorption and retention of fluid, sodium, and potassium between groups. All patients were successfully rehydrated using an ORS without the use of intravenous fluids. No differences were detected between treatment groups in time to rehydration, percentage of weight gain after rehydration, consumption of ORS to achieve rehydration, or stool output. However, the apparent sodium absorption (net intake less fecal output) was greater in the Infalyte group than the Pedialyte group during the first 24 hours. The two maintenance oral electrolyte solutions (Pedialyte and Infalyte) most commonly used in the United States are effective as rehydration solutions for infants with mild to moderate dehydration. We speculate that a strategy for oral rehydration therapy in the United States, based on the use of a single solution during the rehydration and maintenance phase, might gain additional acceptance by practicing pediatricians and family physicians." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0582_17670", "title": "[Feeding infants and young children with acute diarrhea].", "score": 0.015079365079365081, "content": "Acute gastroenteritis remains a common and often severe illness among infants and children throughout the world. The management of a child with acute diarrhea includes rehydration and maintenance fluids with oral rehydration solutions (ORS), combined with continued age-appropriate nutrition. However, although substantial data support the role of continued nutrition in improving gastrointestinal function and anthropometric, biochemical, and clinical outcomes, the practice of continued feeding during diarrheal episodes has been difficult to establish as accepted standard of care. Recommendations for maintenance dietary therapy depend on the age and diet history of the patient. It has been clear for many years that, when affected by gastroenteritis, breastfed infants should be continued on breast milk without any need for interruption and, by that way, will get faster recovery and improved nutrition. Moreover, many well-conducted studies have provided evidence that in formula-fed children not severely dehydrated, a rapid return to full feeding is well tolerated. Lactose intolerance and/or secondary cow's milk allergy are not a clinical concern for the vast majority of patients. In fact early refeeding i.e resumption of normal diet, in amounts sufficient to satisfy energy and nutrient requirements, should be the rule. However, in children younger than 6 months of age, the lack of suitable studies must lead to caution and use of specific lactose-free or extensively hydrolysate formulae, especially in case of severe and/or prolonged diarrhea. Several studies support the use of zinc supplementation or probiotics for acute diarrhea but some doubts persist in infant in developed countries." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0059_14958", "title": "After rehydration: what happens to the child?", "score": 0.014661654135338344, "content": "Three-hundred infants and toddlers with diarrhoea were followed up for 5 days after initial rehydration with oral rehydration solution (ORS). When an average of 300-340 ml per day was given at home (520 ml if the diarrhoea was watery), only two children required re-hospitalization; one other child died whose voluminous losses should not have been treated at home. Fifteen per cent of the children still had watery diarrhoea and vomiting by the fifth day, perhaps as a result of multiple drug therapy. Continued feeding, especially breast milk and cereal grains, should reduce the duration of diarrhoea and vomiting (and perhaps the number of drugs). The amount of time a mother can spend giving ORS ultimately limits the amount a child receives." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0572_9398", "title": "WITHDRAWN: Rice-based oral rehydration solution for treating diarrhoea.", "score": 0.01443001443001443, "content": "Oral rehydration therapy is used to treat dehydration caused by diarrhoea. However the rehydration solution does not reduce stool loss or length of illness. A solution able to do this may lessen the use of ineffective diarrhoea treatments as well as improve morbidity and mortality related to diarrhoea. The objective of this review was to assess the effects of rice-based oral rehydration salts solution compared with glucose-based oral rehydration salts solution on reduction of stool output and duration of diarrhoea in patients with acute watery diarrhoea. We searched the Cochrane Infectious Diseases Group trials register, the Cochrane Controlled Trials Register, Medline, Embase, Lilacs and the reference lists of relevant articles. We also contacted researchers in the field. Randomized trials comparing standard World Health Organization oral rehydration solution with an experimental oral rehydration salts solution in which glucose (20 grams per litre) was replaced by 50-80 grams per litre of rice powder, with the electrolytes remaining unchanged. Data were extracted independently by a statistician and a clinician. Twenty-two trials were included. Concealment of allocation was adequate in 15 of these trials. Irrespective of age, people with cholera who were given rice oral rehydration salts solution had substantially lower rates of stool loss than those given oral rehydration salts solution in the first 24 hours. Mean stool outputs in the first 24 hours were lower by 67 millilitres/kg of body weight (weighted mean difference -67.40, 95% confidence interval -94.26 to -41.53) in children, and by 51 millilitres/kg of body weight (weighted mean difference -51.07, 95% confidence interval -65.87 to -36.27) in adults. The rate of stool loss in infants and children with acute non-cholera diarrhoea was reduced by only four millilitres/kg of body weight (weighted mean difference -4.29, 95% confidence interval -9.36 to 0.78). Rice-based oral rehydration appears to be effective in reducing stool output in people with cholera. This effect was not apparent in infants and children with non-cholera diarrhoea." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_8431", "title": "[Recommendations for the diagnosis and management of pediatric acute gastroenteritis in Israel].", "score": 0.014381914381914381, "content": "Nearly all children will experience at least one episode of acute gastroenteritis (AGE) by the age of three years. Acute gastroenteritis is a common cause of admissions to the pediatric wards in Israel, but usually the disease is mild. This paper aims to present guidelines for diagnosis and management of pediatric AGE in Israel, based on the recently published European recommendations after adjustment to the Israeli setup. The recommendations arising from the systematic review of the literature were graded by level of evidence. The guidelines were endorsed by the Israeli associations of Pediatric Gastroenterology, Pediatric Infectious Diseases and Pediatrics. The clinical signs with the predictive value for dehydration are weight loss, prolonged capillary refill, poor turgor, reduced urinary output and abnormal respiration. Routine stool or blood cultures are not recommended. Reduced or low osmolarity oral rehydration solutions (ORS) are the first line therapy for rehydration. Full diet, including lactose, should be resumed following the four hours required for rehydration. In most cases no medications are required for this self-limited disease but certain types of probiotics may shorten the diarrheal episode and reduce its severity. Antimicrobial therapy is not recommended in most cases but should be considered in shigellosis, during the first three days of campylobacter infectious and in other selected cases. Vaccination against rotavirus is recommended as per the recent European, American and Israeli guidelines. Implementation of the scientific evidence in clinical practice, may improve the standard of care of pediatric AGE in Israel." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0304_4190", "title": "Comparison of two regimens of feeding and oral electrolyte solutions in infants with diarrhea.", "score": 0.014285714285714285, "content": "Glucose-based oral rehydration solutions (ORS) available in the United States do not appear to reduce the severity or duration of diarrhea. The use of cereal-derived ORS and cereal-based feedings appears to diminish the severity of illness in studies conducted in the developing world. To our knowledge, no controlled trials of cereal-derived ORS or cereal-based feedings have been performed in the United States. We performed a randomized, double-blind trial of two ORS feeding regimens in outpatients with diarrhea. Patients aged 2-13 months with acute watery diarrhea were enrolled. Subjects received standard glucose-based ORS in alternation with soy-based, lactose-free infant formula (Group 1) or rice syrup solid containing ORS in alternation with rice-based, lactose-free infant formula (Group 2). Subjects were visited at home daily to determine the severity of illness and characteristics of the stool. After the first 2 days, significantly more Group 1 subjects continued to have diarrhea than did Group 2 subjects (median duration of diarrhea 3 vs. 2 days) as demonstrated by Kaplan-Meier survival curves (p = 0.04). We conclude that infants fed a regimen consisting of rice syrup solid containing ORS and rice formula resolved their diarrhea sooner than did infants fed a regimen of standard glucose-based ORS and formula. The relative contributions of ORS and formula to this more rapid recovery can be elucidated by further studies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0390_16898", "title": "Breath hydrogen responses in infants using lactose-rice formula and regular lactose formula.", "score": 0.014174311926605506, "content": "Starch thickened infant formulas have been shown to relieve regurgitation and increase caloric retention. We compared the completeness of digestion of the carbohydrates in lactose-rice formula (study formula) with routine infant formula in infants with GER. A prospective open study of 30 normal, well-nourished infants with simple regurgitation was conducted. The clinical history on regurgitation, stool pattern and baseline breath hydrogen (bH2) test were obtained at entry, with the infants still using their original routine infant formula, and after a wash out period of 7 days, during which they were fed only with study formula. Analysis of bH2 results showed lower levels of bH2 at 1, 2 and 3 hours with study formula compared with the original formula at the 2nd and 3rd hour (p&lt;0.05). The effectiveness of the study formula in managing GER was demonstrated by the fact that 26 out of 30 had either \"some improvement\" or a \"good response.\" Hardening of the stool pattern was reported in 13 of the 30 infants after 1 week of study formula. The mean of peak bH2 in study formula fed subjects with formed and firm/hard stool was significantly lower than in those with soft and pasty stool. In conclusion, this study has shown the effectiveness of rice thickened infant formulas in managing infants with GER. Rice-starch has an additional advantage of ease of digestion. The hardening of stool pattern was also frequently observed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0270_2165", "title": "Comparative efficacy of rice-based and glucose-based oral rehydration salts plus early reintroduction of food.", "score": 0.014130434782608696, "content": "The use of oral rehydration salts (ORS) to restore fluid balance in children with diarrhoea is universally accepted. However, there is uncertainty about whether glucose-based ORS or ORS based on precooked rice powder is more effective. In a randomised trial we compared the two types of ORS in children who were given food immediately after completion of rehydration. 460 boys aged 3-18 months, admitted to hospital with acute diarrhoea and signs of dehydration, were randomly assigned to groups receiving rice-based and glucose-based ORS solution (230 to each group). After full rehydration (4-12 h), a weaning food consisting of rice and mixed vegetables was given until the diarrhoea stopped. Continuing losses of liquid stool and vomitus were replaced with the assigned ORS solution. There were no differences between the groups during the rehydration phase in stool volume, volume of ORS solution taken, duration of rehydration phase, or weight gain. However, after initiation of feeding, the glucose-based ORS group had significantly lower stool volumes than the rice-based ORS group (142 [95% CI 117-173] vs 96 [77-120] g/kg); they also took a smaller amount of ORS solution (153 [127-185] vs 111 [90-136] mL/kg) and had a shorter duration of diarrhoea (55 [SD 35] vs 44 [35] h). Glucose-based ORS solution was more effective than rice-based ORS solution for the treatment of diarrhoea in children when feeding with a rice-based diet was started soon after correction of dehydration. These results support the continued recommendation of glucose-based ORS solution as standard therapy for treatment of children with acute diarrhoea and emphasize the importance of resuming feeding as soon as dehydration has been corrected." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0358_22084", "title": "Management of acute gastroenteritis in Europe and the impact of the new recommendations: a multicenter study. The Working Group on acute Diarrhoea of the European Society for Paediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology, and Nutrition.", "score": 0.013984133387118462, "content": "The European Society for Paediatric Gasteroenterology, Hepatology and Nutrition (ESPGHAN) issued two sets of recommendations for the treatment of infants with acute gastroenteritis (1992, 1997). The purpose of this multicentre study performed in 29 European countries was to determine how closely current treatment compares with the ESPGHAN recommendations. The outline of the study was based on a questionnaire that addressed the management of a 6-month-old infant with acute gastroenteritis complicated by mild to moderate dehydration. National coordinators circulated the questionnaire to randomly selected primary care physicians and to hospital-based paediatricians. A total of 2997 questionnaires were returned, of which 1768 were from Western Europe (WE) and 1229 from Central and Eastern Europe (CEE). Eighty-four percent of responding physicians said they would follow the ESPGHAN recommendation to use oral rehydration solution (ORS) for rehydration, with 66% using an ORS containing 60 mmol/l sodium ORS. Only 16% (WE 15%, CEE 19%) would follow the guidelines and use rapid oral rehydration over 3 to 4 hours. Forty-five percent would rehydrate infants in a 3- to 6-hour period (WE 35%, CEE 60%), and 17% (WE 23%, CEE 9%) would extend the rehydration period to 12 to 24 hours. ESPGHAN recommendation of rapid reintroduction of normal feeding after 3 to 4 hours of oral rehydration would be followed by only 21% of responding physicians, and only 43% (WE 46%, CEE 38%) would start feeding with full-strength formula. However, the guideline about continuation of breast-feeding is widely followed (total 77%; WE 78%, CEE 75%). Thirty-six percent (WE 45%, CEE 23%) use a lactose-containing formula after successful oral rehydration. Contrary to the ESPGHAN guideline 35% (WE 30%, CEE 42%) would use a lactose-free formula and 19% (WE 12%, CEE 28%) a lactose and cow's milk protein-free formula. Only 37% (WE 30%, CEE 46%) of responding physicians would follow the recommendation to use ORS to replace ongoing losses from watery diarrhoea. The results of the survey suggest that with the exception of recommending ORS for rehydration and continuation of breast-feeding during diarrhoea, a minority of responding European physicians follow the ESPGHAN guidelines for optimal management of children with acute gastroenteritis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0389_22184", "title": "[Acute gastroenteritis and dehydration in infants].", "score": 0.013980263157894735, "content": "Gastroenteritis continue to be a major cause of mortality and morbidity worldwide. The main objectives in the approach to a child with acute gastroenteritis are to assess the degree of dehydration and provide fluid and electrolyte replacement. The general agreement among paediatric gastroenterologists is to consider that the optimal management of acute gastroenteritis in mild to moderately dehydrated children in Europe should consist of the following practical guidelines: use of oral fast rehydration solution (ORS) to correct estimated dehydration over 3-4 hours using an hypo-osmolar solution; continuation of breast feeding throughout; early refeeding i.e. resumption of normal diet (without restriction of lactose intake) after 4 hours rehydration in most children, while maintaining supplementing fluids with ORS in order to prevent further dehydration; no unnecessary medication." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en029_14024", "title": "Gastroenteritis", "score": 0.013878406708595387, "content": "Dietary It is recommended that breast-fed infants continue to be nursed in the usual fashion, and that formula-fed infants continue their formula immediately after rehydration with ORT. Lactose-free or lactose-reduced formulas usually are not necessary. Children should continue their usual diet during episodes of diarrhea with the exception that foods high in simple sugars should be avoided. The BRAT diet (bananas, rice, applesauce, toast and tea) is no longer recommended, as it contains insufficient nutrients and has no benefit over normal feeding." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0063_9145", "title": "[Comparison of an oral rehydration solution (ORS 90) and a \"supersolution\" during acute infantile diarrhea].", "score": 0.013800052571628845, "content": "As acute diarrhoea gives rise to a loss of water and electrolytes, the most effective therapy results the oral rehydration. Harrison and Darrow tried this way first. Only in the years '60 we began to use oral rehydration commonly. Usually, solutions contain glucose, Na, K, Cl, Bicarbonate in various concentration. When glucose is replaced by rice starch or when amino acid are added, then we have a \"supersolution\". Nutrients intake provides more calories and increases absorption Na-depending. We used one of these new \"supersolutions\". Two groups of children, hospitalised for acute diarrhoea, were treated with different rehydration solutions. The first one (Dicodral Forte), prepared according to the WHO, contains glucose and electrolytes as we know. The second one (Amidral) has rice starch instead of glucose and presents a lower concentration of Na and Cl. The present study looked over: A) Weight increase from the first to the third day of hospitalisation in our department. B) Duration of diarrhea. C) Number of stools. D) Haematological values before and after rehydration. All the patients ingested the same amount of solution. Children which received WHO's solution presented diarrhea longer than others (2.55 +/- 2.06 vs 2.2 +/- 1.1 days). Number of stools was below average too (3.05 +/- 2.64 vs 2.8 +/- 1.5). Refeeding was done employing the same milk used in former times. AMIDRAL was used to dilute the milk when it was possible. Most important result is the increase of weight we had using this \"supersolution\". 15/20 children which received AMIDRAL showed an increase of their weight as shown in Tab. 1." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0686_67", "title": "Effectiveness of packed rice-oral rehydration solution among children with acute watery diarrhea.", "score": 0.013550747549573151, "content": "This study aims to compare the effectiveness between the packed rice-oral rehydration solution (R-ORS) and the glucose-based oral rehydration solution (G-ORS) in children with acute watery diarrhea. Randomized control trial was conducted to compare duration of diarrhea, stool frequency, incremental weight gain, intravenous fluid requirement, and duration of admission. Subjects were 70 pediatric patients (9-60 months-old) and were equally divided into two groups (n=35 for each): treatment group (with R-ORS treatment) and control group (with G-ORS treatment). The data were collected during January 1, 2007 to January 2008. All patients were treated with oral rehydration therapy within first 4 hours of admission. Intravenous rehydration was also scheduled. Both groups were fed with rice gruel or lactose-free formula as tolerated. Using survival analysis, both duration of diarrhea and admission was significantly shortened in the treatment group compared to the control group. (27.5 hrs. vs. 40.5 hrs: p = 0.01 and 40.1 hrs. vs. 56.0 hrs: p = 0.02 respectively). However, stool frequency, incremental weight gain and intravenous fluid requirement between the two groups remained insignificantly different. R-ORS was more effective in the management of acute watery diarrhea in children. Duration of diarrhea and treatment was shortened when compared to G-ORS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0268_20337", "title": "Is rice based oral rehydration therapy effective in young infants?", "score": 0.013428381962864722, "content": "Rice based oral rehydration therapy (ORT) solutions have been shown to be superior to glucose oral rehydration salts (World Health Organisation (WHO) ORS) in reducing stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in children and adults. Rice based ORT has been used only sparingly in young infants, however, because of theoretical concerns about digestibility. A randomised controlled trial of rice based ORT (50 g rice and electrolytes identical to WHO ORS) and WHO ORS was carried out in 52 male infants less than 6 months old with moderately severe acute diarrhoea to evaluate efficacy and digestibility. Nineteen (70%) of 27 children who received rice based ORT and 18 (72%) of 25 children who received WHO ORS were treated successfully. The mean (SD) diarrhoeal stool output for the first 24 hours of treatment was significantly lower in the infants receiving the rice based ORT than in those receiving WHO ORS (101.0 (60.5) v 137.1 (74.6) g/kg). The stool output was also significantly less in the rice based ORT group in the second 24 hours. Infants in the rice based ORT group drank significantly less rehydration solution than infants in the WHO ORS group (mean (SD) 165.4 (77.4) v 217.9 (86.1) during the first 24 hours of treatment. There was no difference in the duration of diarrhoea between the groups. The volume of breast and formula feeding was similar in the two groups. No difference was seen in the frequency of finding reducing substances or acid pH in the stools of either group of children. The results suggest that rice based ORT is as effective as WHO ORS in infants with moderately severe diarrhoea and that rice based ORT is as well tolerated as WHO ORS in infants." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0348_1088", "title": "Management of acute diarrhea in infants.", "score": 0.01329004329004329, "content": "In 1999, children seen in the emergency room of a developed country for watery diarrhea and dehydration will most likely receive an intravenous infusion of fluid, followed by instructions to give oral rehydration solution (ORS) and clear liquids for a day, followed by half-strength lactose-free formula. In fact, the majority of these children could best be managed with supervised ORS followed by early (within 4-6 h) refeeding of their normal diet, based on large numbers of clinical trials and a meta-analysis. In the next decade, effective therapy in addition to glucose-containing oral rehydration solutions should be available which should reduce diarrheal volume and duration of purging. These include amino acid-supplemented \"Super ORSs,\" ORS with soluble fibers, liquid zinc, and probiotic milks containing bacteria which boost the immune response and reduce stool number. In addition, children wealthy enough to be able to afford the new tetravalent vaccine will be largely protected from dehydrating rotavirus diarrhea, the most common cause of dehydration in infants." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_12823", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.013147743345763147, "content": "Moderatec,d <4 months (<5 kg) 200–400 mL of ORS 4–11 months (5–<8 kg) 400–600 mL of ORS 12–23 months (8–<11 kg) 600–800 mL of ORS 2–4 years (11–<16 kg) 800–1200 mL of ORS 5–14 years (16–<30 kg) 1200–2200 mL of ORS ≥15 years (≥30 kg) 2200–4000 mL of ORS All ages and weights Undertake IV fluid replacement with Ringer’s lactate (or, if not available, normal saline). Give 100 mL/kg in the first 3-h period (or the first 6-h period for children <12 months old); start rapidly, then slow down. Give a total of 200 mL/ kg in the first 24 h. Continue until the patient is awake, can ingest ORS, and no longer has a weak pulse. aAdapted from World Health Organization: First steps for managing an outbreak of acute diarrhoea. Global Task Force on Cholera Control, 2009 (www.who.int/topics/cholera). bContinue normal feeding during treatment. cReassess regularly; monitor stool and vomit output. dVolumes of ORS listed should be given within the first 4 h. Abbreviation: ORS, oral rehydration solution." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_38919", "title": "Oral rehydration therapy", "score": 0.013075657894736841, "content": "WHO/UNICEF guidelines suggest ORT should begin at the first sign of diarrhea in order to prevent dehydration. Babies may be given ORS with a dropper or a syringe. Infants under two may be given a teaspoon of ORS fluid every one to two minutes. Older children and adults should take frequent sips from a cup, with a recommended intake of 200–400 ml of solution after every loose movement. The WHO recommends giving children under two a quarter- to a half-cup of fluid following each loose bowel movement and older children a half- to a full cup. If the person vomits, the caregiver should wait 5–10 minutes and then resume giving ORS. ORS may be given by aid workers or health care workers in refugee camps, health clinics and hospital settings. Mothers should remain with their children and be taught how to give ORS. This will help to prepare them to give ORT at home in the future. Breastfeeding should be continued throughout ORT. Associated therapies Zinc" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0358_6792", "title": "Rice-based oral rehydration solution for treating diarrhoea.", "score": 0.012950495049504952, "content": "Oral rehydration therapy is used to treat dehydration caused by diarrhoea. However the rehydration solution does not reduce stool loss or length of illness. A solution able to do this may lessen the use of ineffective diarrhoea treatments as well as improve morbidity and mortality related to diarrhoea. The objective of this review was to assess the effects of rice-based oral rehydration salts solution compared with glucose-based oral rehydration salts solution on reduction of stool output and duration of diarrhoea in patients with acute watery diarrhoea. We searched the Cochrane Infectious Diseases Group trials register, the Cochrane Controlled Trials Register, Medline, Embase, Lilacs and the reference lists of relevant articles. We also contacted researchers in the field. Randomized trials comparing standard World Health Organization oral rehydration solution with an experimental oral rehydration salts solution in which glucose (20 grams per litre) was replaced by 50-80 grams per litre of rice powder, with the electrolytes remaining unchanged. Data were extracted independently by a statistician and a clinician. Twenty-two trials were included. Concealment of allocation was adequate in 15 of these trials. Irrespective of age, people with cholera who were given rice oral rehydration salts solution had substantially lower rates of stool loss than those given oral rehydration salts solution in the first 24 hours. Mean stool outputs in the first 24 hours were lower by 67 millilitres/kg of body weight (weighted mean difference -67.4, 95% confidence interval -94.3 to -41.0) in children, and by 51 millilitres/kg of body weight (weighted mean difference -51.1, 95% confidence interval -65.9 to -36.3) in adults. The rate of stool loss in infants and children with acute non-cholera diarrhoea was reduced by only four millilitres/kg of body weight (weighted mean difference -4.3, 95% confidence interval -9.3 to 0.8). Rice-based oral rehydration appears to be effective in reducing stool output in people with cholera. This effect was not apparent in infants and children with non-cholera diarrhoea." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0059_17135", "title": "A traditional diet as part of oral rehydration therapy in severe acute diarrhoea in young children.", "score": 0.012941628264208908, "content": "Recently, the role of feeding as treatment of acute diarrhoea has received increasing attention. To assess the efficacy of early feeding in acute diarrhoea, we conducted a randomised, clinical trial of a traditional legume-based weaning diet khitchri in boys 9 to 48 months old with moderate to severe dehydration. Khitchri is composed of rice and lentils cooked with cottonseed oil. Children were randomly allocated to 2 groups: group A received only WHO ORS but no food for the first 24 hours and then khitchri and half-strength cow's milk formula freely; group B received khitchri and the half-strength formula in addition to ORS after the initial rehydration period of 4 to 6 hours. The mean period of evaluation was 3 days. 69 patients were admitted into the study, 33 in group A and 36 in group B. The initial mean purging rate for the children was greater than 200 g/kg/day. Six children did not complete the study because they developed intercurrent infections or were removed by their parents for non-medical reasons. Of the 63 patients who were evaluated, 44 (70%) were successfully treated, 21 in group A and 23 in group B. There were no significant differences in the 2 groups in mean stool output, number of stools, or weight gain, although a trend toward earlier improvement was seen in group B. These data indicate that early feeding of khitchri and WHO/ORS may be as well tolerated as WHO/ORS alone in the first 24 hours treatment of severe acute diarrhoea in young children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0278_1655", "title": "[Oral rice-based rehydration solution (SRO), alternative of SRO of WHO in acute diarrhea in malnourished patients].", "score": 0.012821039654818164, "content": "Although malnutrition is frequently associated with diarrhea, most oral rehydration solutions have been tested in well-nourished children. The study tests efficacy of rice, a traditional treatment for diarrhea in Madagascar. 150 severely malnourished children, aged 6 months to 3 years, took part in this randomized trial. All the children were given oral rehydration solution, (100 ml/kg) in the first 6 hours. The first group (68 children) was given a solution containing glucose, (20 g/l). The second group (82 children) was given a solution containing rice powder (50 g/l). Treatment was then continued according to WHO recommendations, including feeding after rehydration (mixture of milk, oil and sugar). The age, weight, height, duration of diarrhea before admission, degree of dehydration and pathogens in stools of the two groups were comparable on admission. Only 2 patients were withdrawn from the trial. The percentage of death was the same in both groups: 16% of those given glucose and 15% of those given rice-based rehydration solution. The weight gains were similar in both groups; the duration of diarrhea was 89 +/- 6 hours in the glucose-fed groups and 68 +/- 4 hours for those given the rice-based rehydration solution (p &lt; 0.02). Both glucose and rice-based rehydration solutions are equally effective for rehydrating severely malnourished children with acute diarrhea. The rice-based rehydration solution also reduces the duration of diarrhea." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en540_17966", "title": "Low milk supply", "score": 0.012618608328940432, "content": "To evaluate whether milk supply is actually insufficient, qualitative parameters should be used such as the following: By 3–5 days, of age, the infant should be stooling 3–4 times per day and urinating 3—5 times per day. By 5–7 days of age, there should be 3—6 stools per day and 4—6 urines. The infant should be alert, have good muscle tone, and show no signs of dehydration. The infant should be consistently gaining weight and growing. In newborns, a loss of more than 5 to 7 percent of birth weight warrants investigation. The use of IV fluids in labour tends to artificially increase the birth weight of the baby, and subsequently inflate the baby's weight loss. Newborns should regain their birth weight by two weeks of age, and gain at least 150 g per week. If an infant is not showing these signs of growing well, other possible causes include: Poor milk transfer due to tongue-tie, or cleft palate. Medical conditions in the infant, such as malabsorption of nutrients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_38921", "title": "Oral rehydration therapy", "score": 0.012614386233548436, "content": "Feeding After severe dehydration is corrected and appetite returns, feeding the person speeds the recovery of normal intestinal function, minimizes weight loss and supports continued growth in children. Small frequent meals are best tolerated (offering the child food every three to four hours). Mothers should continue to breastfeed. A child with watery diarrhea typically regains his or her appetite as soon as dehydration is corrected, whereas a child with bloody diarrhea often eats poorly until the illness resolves. Such children should be encouraged to resume normal feeding as soon as possible. Once diarrhea is corrected, the WHO recommends giving the child an extra meal each day for two weeks, and longer if the child is malnourished. Children with malnutrition" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 203, 415 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 35, 63 ] ], "text": "In patients with hemodynamic instability, decreased level of consciousness, decreased visual acuity and extensive visual field defects, surgical decompression is recommended in the first week after symptom onset." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Diagnostic suspicion is pituitary apoplexy.", "2": "Treatment with high-dose corticosteroids should be initiated and the evolution observed, since this treatment could reduce the volume of the lesion and avoid intervention.", "3": "Treatment with glucocorticoids should be considered to avoid secondary adrenal insufficiency that would compromise the patient's vital prognosis.", "4": "The presence of ophthalmoplegia and visual defects are indications for prompt intervention by urgent surgical decompression.", "5": "After resolution of the acute picture, the development of panhypopituitarism is frequent." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0904_4285", "title": "Presenting Symptoms of Pituitary Apoplexy.", "score": 0.019327731092436976, "content": "The classical term \"pituitary apoplexy\" (PA) describes a clinical syndrome usually characterized by abrupt onset of headache accompanied by neurologic and/or endocrinologic deterioration due to sudden expansion of a mass within the sella turcica as a result of hemorrhage or infarction within a pituitary tumor and adjacent pituitary gland. PA is a medical emergency and a difficult diagnosis to establish. Thus this article reviews the presenting symptoms of PA patients to help clinicians recognize or at least suspect this critical condition early on. PA commonly occurs in the setting of a preexisting adenoma, and several patients are unaware of its existence prior to the onset of apoplexy symptoms, which are mainly of a neurologic, ophthalmologic, and endocrinologic nature. Neurologic symptoms include sudden-onset severe headache and other symptoms of subarachnoid hemorrhage, symptoms from compression of the cavernous sinus contents, nausea/vomiting, impaired consciousness, and symptoms of meningeal irritation. Ophthalmologic symptoms include visual field defects, visual loss, diplopia, and ophthalmoplegia. Endocrinologic disturbances include pituitary adenoma symptoms, cortisol deficiency, panhypopituitarism, diabetes insipidus, and syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone. Magnetic resonance imaging is the imaging method of choice to aid the PA diagnosis. Its differential diagnoses include cerebrovascular accidents, infectious diseases, and other causes of endocrinologic imbalance. Transsphenoidal surgery is the treatment of choice, especially if there are associated visual abnormalities and ophthalmoplegia. Clinicians should be aware of the presenting symptoms because early diagnosis may reduce the morbidity and mortality of this neurosurgical emergency." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0536_16587", "title": "Classical pituitary tumour apoplexy: clinical features, management and outcomes in a series of 24 patients.", "score": 0.01827849783981389, "content": "We retrospectively analysed the incidence, clinical presentation, endocrinological and radiological findings, medical and surgical management of pituitary apoplexy in our department (single-centre study), having a large experience in pituitary surgery. Among 1540 pituitary lesions, 24 patients presented with pituitary apoplexy. Their charts were retrospectively reviewed. The symptoms included headache (92%), nausea and vomiting (54%), visual deficit (50%), oculomotor paresis (54%) and/or an altered mental state (42%). Skull X-rays (n = 14) demonstrated an enlarged sella turcica in all cases; CT-scan and/or MRI always revealed a sellar and suprasellar expanding lesion. Panhypopituitarism was present on admission in 70% of the patients. Urgent therapeutic management included high-dose cortisone treatment in all but one patients and CSF drainage in three. Three patients were treated conservatively. Nine patients were operated on rapidly, within hours or a few days because of severe visual deficit and/or altered level of consciousness. Nineteen patients were operated by the trans-sphenoidal approach; one of them required a second operation by craniotomy. There were two deaths related to the illness and one to an ill-defined reason at 4 months. Among the other patients 95% made a good recovery. All but two patients required a substitutive treatment with adrenal (83%), thyroid (68%), gonadal (42%) and/or growth (16%) hormones. The preoperative visual deficits recovered in all but one patients (92%) whereas the oculomotor pareses improved in all but two patients (85%). In conclusion, pituitary tumour apoplexy is a rare event, complicating in our series 1.6% of 1540 pituitary adenomas. Even in severe cases, complete recovery is possible if the diagnosis is rapidly obtained and adequate management is initiated in time. Surgical results after trans-sphenoidal approach are in the majority of cases very satisfactory." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0495_17211", "title": "Management of pituitary apoplexy.", "score": 0.017966484047695776, "content": "Pituitary apoplexy is a rare clinical syndrome caused by sudden haemorrhaging or infarction of the pituitary gland, generally within a pituitary adenoma. Headache of sudden and severe onset is the main symptom, associated with visual disturbances or ocular palsy. Signs of meningeal irritation or altered consciousness may complicate the diagnosis. Corticotropic deficiency (secondary adrenal failure) may be life-threatening if untreated. Computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) confirm the diagnosis by revealing a pituitary tumour with haemorrhagic and/or necrotic components: CT is most useful in the acute setting (24 - 48 h), MRI is useful for identifying blood components in the subacute setting (4 days to 1 month). Owing to the highly variable course of this syndrome and the limited individual experience, the optimal management of acute pituitary apoplexy is controversial. Some authors advocate early transphenoidal surgical decompression for all patients, whereas others adopt a more conservative approach for selected patients (those without visual acuity or field defects and with normal consciousness). Glucocorticoid treatment must always be initiated immediately, at a dose of hydrocortisone 50 mg every 6 h." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0089_11438", "title": "Adrenal and pituitary emergencies.", "score": 0.01731893837156995, "content": "Although loss of normal pituitary function may be silent and asymptomatic, sudden loss of gland function (pituitary apoplexy) typically results in characteristic presentations. Sheehan's syndrome is the development of hypopituitarism after postpartum hemorrhage or shock. Patients with Sheehan's syndrome may have typical or atypical presentations based on the extent of pituitary gland destruction. Patients with typical symptoms fail to lactate after giving birth; subsequently these patients also develop symptoms and signs of hypopituitarism. Measuring the serum prolactin level after giving thyrotropin-releasing hormone is a reasonable first step in the diagnosis of this condition in patients who fail to lactate after giving birth. The diagnosis of hypopituitarism is delayed for up to 7 years in patients with atypical symptoms. Acute symptomatic failure of the pituitary gland (pituitary apoplexy) commonly occurs in patients who have asymptomatic pituitary tumors. Many patients with pituitary tumors do not have signs of abnormal endocrine gland secretion and have a normal appearance. Most patients have the following signs or symptoms: headache; acute disturbances in visual acuity or visual fields; ophthalmoplegia, and changes in the level of consciousness. The syndrome of pituitary apoplexy usually evolves over hours to days. Subarachnoid hemorrhage and acute bacterial meningitis are the two most important mimics of pituitary apoplexy. Intravenous steroids and prompt neurosurgical consultation are mandatory in cases of pituitary apoplexy since both steroids and surgery can improve vision. Testings for acute or chronic hypopituitarism is challenging in the Emergency Department setting; however, carefully chosen tests will aid in the subsequent early correct diagnosis after initial Emergency Department management." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0570_7414", "title": "An interesting case of a pituitary adenoma apoplexy mimicking an acute meningitis. Case report.", "score": 0.016566063044936286, "content": "Apoplexy of a pituitary adenoma is a rare and under-diagnosed clinical occurrence. It results from either infarction or haemorrhage into an adenoma of the pituitary gland. Its clinical presentation more often includes rapid development of impaired consciousness, severe headache, visual disturbance and variable association of oculomotor nerve palsy. Meningeal irritation signs are considered very rare and usually not reported as presenting symptoms. A 33-year-old male suffered a pituitary macroadenoma apoplexy, clinically indistinguishable from an infectious meningitis at presentation. Three days after surgery, the patient developed a left ophthalmoplegia due to 3(rd) nerve palsy, which fully resolved within 2 months. A right pterional craniotomy was performed during which complete tumour removal was achieved. In conclusion the authors believe that, despite many reports in the literature, encouraging conservative management in pituitary apoplexy by administering intravenous steroids, surgery should be undertaken in order to avoid eventual visual field defects, relieve pituitary gland compression and prevent a possible recurrent apoplectic episode or tumor re-growth." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0088_6621", "title": "[Surgical treatment of pituitary apoplexy].", "score": 0.016271409749670618, "content": "Hypophysis apoplexy is a clinical syndrome characterized by the sudden development of headache, visual disturbance, associated with nausea, vomiting, signs of meningeal irritation and ophthalmoplegia. The symptoms are caused by the hemorrhage of a hypophyseal adenoma. This leads to the swelling of the tumor and compression of the perisellar structures. The authors processed the clinical and pathological characteristics of 28 cases occurring among the patient material of the National Institute of Neurosurgery of the past 10 years. According to the experiences the most important factor of a successful treatment of hypophyseal apoplexy is an early diagnosis and quick admittance to an institute of neurosurgery of satisfactory conditions. Thereafter a steroid hormone therapy of large doses and decompression operation performed by transnasal-transsphenoidal approach leads in the majority of cases to recovery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0843_25420", "title": "Pituitary Apoplexy.", "score": 0.016012909632571994, "content": "Pituitary apoplexy, a rare clinical syndrome secondary to abrupt hemorrhage or infarction, complicates 2%-12% of pituitary adenomas, especially nonfunctioning tumors. Headache of sudden and severe onset is the main symptom, sometimes associated with visual disturbances or ocular palsy. Signs of meningeal irritation or altered consciousness may complicate the diagnosis. Precipitating factors (increase in intracranial pressure, arterial hypertension, major surgery, anticoagulant therapy or dynamic testing, etc) may be identified. Corticotropic deficiency with adrenal insufficiency may be life threatening if left untreated. Computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging confirms the diagnosis by revealing a pituitary tumor with hemorrhagic and/or necrotic components. Formerly considered a neurosurgical emergency, pituitary apoplexy always used to be treated surgically. Nowadays, conservative management is increasingly used in selected patients (those without important visual acuity or field defects and with normal consciousness), because successive publications give converging evidence that a wait-and-see approach may also provide excellent outcomes in terms of oculomotor palsy, pituitary function and subsequent tumor growth. However, it must be kept in mind that studies comparing surgical approach and conservative management were retrospective and not controlled. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0533_2708", "title": "[Pituitary apoplexy: an endocrinologic emergency].", "score": 0.015810768751945224, "content": "A 32-year-old woman, a 73-year-old man and a 26-year-old pregnant woman presented with headache, vomiting, and variable presence of visual disturbances, impaired consciousness, and circulatory shock. All three had pituitary apoplexy. In the first patient lymphocytic hypophysitis was diagnosed, the second had a nonfunctional adenoma and the last patient probably also. All three patients were treated conservatively with full recovery of signs and symptoms. However pituitary insufficiency remained in all three. Pituitary apoplexy is an acute event with significant morbidity and mortality. The cause is a rapid expansion of, usually, a pre-existing, often not yet known, adenoma by massive haemorrhage or infarction. Pressure, among other things, causes hypopituitarism, meningism, compression of the chiasma opticum and visual disturbances. Although many predisposing factors have been identified, pituitary apoplexy is often an unpredictable event. Diagnosis is made by the typical clinical presentation, eye examination, MRI and by measuring pituitary hormones. Treatment is with suppletion of the deficient hormones and in selected patients by transsphenoidal decompression surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0258_4555", "title": "[Pituitary apoplexy].", "score": 0.015565134099616858, "content": "Pituitary apoplexy results from necrosis or haemorrhage of a pituitary adenoma. This rare complication occurs in 2 to 10% of operated adenomas. The acute form results from massive intrapituitary bleeding leading to violent headache, meningeal signs, impaired conscience and ophthalmology signs, basically bilateral blindness. Associated signs are frequent including paralysis of the oculomotor nerves, epilepsy seizure, hemiplegia. Diabetes insipidis is exceptional. In less acute forms, the sudden nature of the headache and ophthalmology signs can suggest diagnosis. Standard X-ray reveals destruction of the sella turcica. Computed tomography shows either a haematoma or a cystic cavity in the pituitary gland which must be perfectly described together with the integrity of the bone structures due to the risk of lysis. Magnetic resonance imaging is an essential technique which can be used to describe the volume and suprasellar extension of the tumour, its texture, possible compression of adjacent structures and determine the age of the haemorrhage. This imaging technique can also isolate rare optochiasmatic apoplexia requiring intracranial evacuation. Emergency surgery is mandatory for most all authors. Rhinal-septal decompression is usually used, but the intracranial route may be preferred for very large suprasellar tumours. Medical treatment alone may be successful for small prolactin adenomas. Outcome depends on the time lapse to decompression. Optic nerve recovery is usually possible if the delay is less than 7 days. Cranial nerve recovery is less dependent on the time interval. In all cases hormone substitution is required." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1141_20305", "title": "An altered state of consciousness while using anticoagulants and the incidental discovery of a pituitary lesion: considering pituitary apoplexy.", "score": 0.0152089072543618, "content": "Pituitary apoplexy (PA) is a medical emergency with complex diagnosis and management. In this study, we describe a case of PA in a 63-year-old male treated with oral anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. In the patient, PA manifested itself with asthenia and severe headache not responsive to common analgesics. Despite the finding of a pituitary mass through CT, and in anticipation of the endocrinological evaluation and pituitary MRI, the patient's clinical condition worsened with an escalation of headache and asthenia associated with deterioration of the visual field and impairment of consciousness level. The emergency assessments revealed an adrenal failure, whereas MRI showed a haemorrhagic pituitary macroadenoma with compression of the optic chiasm. Intravenous fluids repletion and high-dose hydrocortisone were started with a rapid improvement of the patient's health and visual field abnormalities. Hydrocortisone was gradually reduced to a replacement dose. During the follow-up, panhypopituitarism was documented, and replacement therapies with l-thyroxine and testosterone were introduced. Three months later, a pituitary MRI showed a 50% reduction in the pituitary adenoma volume. Pituitary apoplexy (PA) is a medical emergency that can result in haemodynamic instability and abnormalities in the level of consciousness. The management of PA requires a multidisciplinary team that includes endocrinologists, ophthalmologists, neuro-radiologists, and neuro-surgeons. Pituitary MRI with gadolinium is the diagnostic gold standard for PA. PA therapy aims to improve general conditions and treat compression symptoms, especially visual field abnormalities. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone deficiency is a common and severe complication of PA. Thus, all patients with PA must be promptly treated with injective synthetic glucocorticoids (e.g. hydrocortisone 100 mg) and i.v. saline. PA must be taken into consideration in case of sudden headache in patients with a pituitary macroadenoma, especially if other risk factors are recognized." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0577_1616", "title": "Complete surgical resolution of bilateral total opthalmoplegia without visual field defect in an acromegalic patient presented with pituitary apoplexy.", "score": 0.015193747608897632, "content": "Pituitary apoplexy (PA), which is one of the most serious life-threatening complications of pituitary adenoma, is characterized by abrupt onset of headache, nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances and oculomotor paresis. Combination of oculomotor cranial nerve paralysis with normal visual fields is very rare in PA. We report a 60-year-old acromegalic man presented with panhypopituitarism and bilateral total opthalmoplegia without a visual field defect. At initial evaluation his clinical findings were compatible with adrenal crisis and eye examination revealed total opthalmoplegia, bilateral ptosis and normal vision. MRI showed a large heterogeneous mass in the pituitary fossa. Although clinical findings due to adrenal crisis improved after glucocorticoid therapy there was no improvement in opthalmoplegia and ptosis. The patient underwent transsphenoidal excision of the pituitary mass. Histological examination revealed an adenoma with large areas of hemorrhagic infarction and most of the cells were positive for GH in immunohistochemical analysis. Although opthalmoplegia was severe at presentation, total recovery was achieved 3 months after transsphenoidal surgery. Therefore the presented case clearly demonstrates that opthalmoplegia without a visual field defect due to PA has a good prognosis and early diagnosis and treatment including surgical decompression are crucially important." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1128_19094", "title": "Neurological Presentation of Giant Pituitary Tumour Apoplexy: Case Report and Literature Review of a Rare but Life-Threatening Condition.", "score": 0.01514135657615376, "content": "Giant pituitary adenomas are benign intracranial tumours with a diameter ≥4 cm. Even if hormonally non-functional, they may still cause local extension, leading to symptoms that include mostly gland dysfunction, mass effects, and, much less frequently, apoplexy due to haemorrhage or infarction. Neurological presentation of giant pituitary tumour apoplexy is even more rare and has not been systematically reviewed. An 81-year-old woman was admitted to the Emergency Department because of acute onset headache, bilateral visual deficit, and altered consciousness. Computed tomography showed a giant mass lesion (&amp;gt;5.5 cm diameter) expanding upward to the suprasellar cistern, optic chiasm, and third ventricle, over-running the sphenoid sinus, and with lateral invasion of the cavernous sinus. Laboratory investigations revealed central adrenal and hypothyroidism insufficiency, while magnetic resonance imaging confirmed a voluminous suprasellar tumour (~6 cm diameter), with signs of pituitary tumour apoplexy. Neurological manifestations and gland-related deficits improved after hormonal replacement therapy with a high dose of intravenous hydrocortisone, followed by oral hydrocortisone and levo-thyroxine. The patient declined surgical treatment and follow-up visit. Giant pituitary tumour apoplexy is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition. Prompt diagnosis and multidisciplinary management may allow a remarkable clinical improvement, as seen in this case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0757_11650", "title": "Hypothalamitis: a diagnostic and therapeutic challenge.", "score": 0.014797008547008548, "content": "To report an unusual case of biopsy-proven autoimmune hypophysitis with predominant hypothalamic involvement associated with empty sella, panhypopituitarism, visual disturbances and antipituitary antibodies positivity. We present the history, physical findings, hormonal assay results, imaging, surgical findings and pathology at presentation, together with a 2-year follow-up. A literature review on the hypothalamic involvement of autoimmune hypophysitis with empty sella was performed. A 48-year-old woman presented with polyuria, polydipsia, asthenia, diarrhea and vomiting. The magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed a clear suprasellar (hypothalamic) mass, while the pituitary gland appeared atrophic. Hormonal testing showed panhypopituitarism and hyperprolactinemia; visual field examination was normal. Pituitary serum antibodies were positive. Two months later an MRI documented a mild increase of the lesion. The patient underwent biopsy of the lesion via a transsphenoidal approach. Histological diagnosis was lymphocytic \"hypothalamitis\". Despite 6 months of corticosteroid therapy, the patient developed bitemporal hemianopia and blurred vision, without radiological evidence of chiasm compression, suggesting autoimmune optic neuritis with uveitis. Immunosuppressive treatment with azathioprine was then instituted. Two months later, an MRI documented a striking reduction of the hypothalamic lesion and visual field examination showed a significant improvement. The lesion is stable at the 2-year follow-up. For the first time we demonstrated that \"hypothalamitis\" might be the possible evolution of an autoimmune hypophysitis, resulting in pituitary atrophy, secondary empty sella and panhypopituitarism. Although steroid treatment is advisable as a first line therapy, immunosuppressive therapy with azathioprine might be necessary to achieve disease control. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0813_17065", "title": "Management of endocrine disease: pituitary tumour apoplexy.", "score": 0.014665889665889668, "content": "Pituitary tumour apoplexy (PA) is a rare clinical syndrome that occurs as a result of acute haemorrhage and/or infarction within a frequently undiagnosed pituitary tumour. The sudden enlargement of the pituitary mass undergoing PA is responsible for a wide range of acute symptoms/signs (severe headache, visual loss, diplopia, hypopituitarism, impaired consciousness) which, together with the radiological evidence of a pituitary lesion, establish the diagnosis. The optimal care of PA requires involvement of a multidisciplinary team including endocrinologist, neurosurgeon, neuroophthalmologist and the management strategy that depends on the clinical manifestations, as well as the presence of co-morbidities. Prompt surgical decompression is initially indicated in cases with severe or progressive impairment of the visual acuity or the visual fields or with altered mental state and leads to visual and neurological recovery in most of the patients. The patients with mild, stable clinical picture (including those with isolated ocular palsies) can be managed conservatively (support of fluid and electrolyte balance and stress doses of steroids in most cases) with favourable visual and neurological outcome. Frequent reassessment is mandatory because the clinical course can be unpredictable; if progression of symptoms occurs, later elective surgery is indicated and is beneficial, especially in terms of visual outcome. The endocrinological outcome is less favourable, irrespective of the treatment option, with many patients remaining on long-term replacement therapy. Despite the above guidelines, clear proof of optimal outcomes in the form of randomised controlled trials is lacking. Regrowth of the pituitary tumour years after a PA episode is possible and patients require long-term surveillance. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0072_10400", "title": "Improvement of pituitary function after surgical decompression for pituitary tumor apoplexy.", "score": 0.014554659072931499, "content": "Hypopituitarism is a major manifestation of pituitary adenoma apoplexy. We postulated that the acute deterioration in pituitary function may be caused by compression of portal vessels and the pituitary stalk, secondary to a sudden increase in intrasellar contents. If this were the case, one would predict improvement in pituitary function to occur after surgical decompression. We studied pituitary function in eight patients presenting with the clinical syndrome of pituitary adenoma apoplexy before and on multiple occasions after urgent surgical decompression. Partial or complete hypopituitarism was seen in all subjects at the time of presentation. Serum cortisol levels were inappropriately low (5.9 +/- 1.4 micrograms/dL; 162.8 +/- 38 nmol/L) for the degree of stress in seven patients and appropriately elevated in only one subject (55.3 micrograms/dL; 1525.7 nmol/L). High normal increments in cortisol levels were noted in three subjects given test doses of cosyntropin. Patients were given glucocorticoids before, during, and for 2 days after surgery. Serum cortisol concentrations measured on or after the third day when glucocorticoids had already been stopped were normal in seven subjects and consistently low in one. These seven subjects were discharged on no replacement and were subsequently documented by dynamic testing to have normal pituitary-adrenal function. Gonadal function improved in two of four men and in one of two women who had hypogonadism on presentation. Improvement in thyroid function was documented in two of three subjects with preoperative hypothyroidism. Gradual improvement and almost complete resolution of the neuroophthalmological abnormalities occurred days to weeks after decompression. These observations demonstrate that urgent surgical decompression after pituitary tumor apoplexy was associated with improvement not only in neurological defects but also in pituitary function. The rapid improvement in pituitary function indicates not only that the hypopituitarism was reversible, but also that it might be caused by compression of the portal circulation and pituitary stalk by the sudden increase in intrasellar contents." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0989_7738", "title": "Gestational pituitary apoplexy: Case series and review of the literature.", "score": 0.014506172839506172, "content": "Pituitary apoplexy is an uncommon but potentially life-threatening emergency due to abrupt ischemic infarction or hemorrhage of the pituitary tumor. In many instances, pituitary apoplexy is the initial presentation in patients who were not previously diagnosed to have pituitary adenomas. Variety of precipitating factors have been linked to the occurrence of pituitary apoplexy, which include pregnancy. However, pituitary apoplexy related to pregnancy is limited to isolated case reports and very small case series. The main symptom is headache of sudden onset associated with visual disturbances, signs of meningeal irritation, and/or endocrine dysfunction. In the context of pregnancy the diagnosis of pituitary apoplexy can be challenging and confused with other complex conditions such as pre-eclampsia. Magnetic resonance imaging is the most sensitive sequence to confirm the diagnosis by revealing a pituitary tumor with hemorrhagic and/or necrotic components. Corticotropic deficiency with adrenal insufficiency is a potentially life-threatening disorder for both mother and the fetus if left untreated. The choice between conservative management with dopamine agonists and glucocorticoid, this \"wait and see approach\" and trans-sphenoidal resection depend on the severity of neuro-ophtalmic signs and the gestational week. In this article, we present three cases of pituitary apoplexy related to pregnancy. Pituitary apoplexy occurred in the third trimester in the three cases. It was the first presentation of an unknown pituitary adenoma in two cases, and complicated a preexisting macroprolactinoma in the other case. All three cases of our patients had sudden onset of severe headache and deterioration of the visual field in two cases. The pituitary MRI performed in our patients was the essential tool confirming the diagnosis of pituitary apoplexy. In all the patients was prompt replacement of deficient hormones especially glucocorticoids with close surveillance. The trans-sphenoidal resection was indicated in two pregnant women; as the first choice treatment in one case presenting with papillary edema, and as the second line after the deterioration of the visual field in one case. In the lack of guidelines of management pituitary apoplexy in case of pregnancy, we review the existing literature with pertinent clinical presentation, radiological findings, management and maternal/fetal outcomes of this rare pathology. The aim is to provide a rational framework for therapeutic management of pituitary apoplexy during pregnancy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0259_9908", "title": "[Adenomatous hypophyseal apoplexy. Clinical, diagnostic and therapeutic aspects of a frequently misdiagnosed emergency state].", "score": 0.014494861353500097, "content": "Pituitary adenoma apoplexy was considered an acute life-threatening condition until more benign and even asymptomatic courses were found by advanced neuroimaging procedures. Necrosis and hemorrhage in the pituitary adenoma can cause acute enlargement of the tumor. sometimes with rupture of the tumor capsule and bleeding into the subarachnoid space and surrounding parts of the brain. Clinical symptoms include acute or subacute headache in combination with signs of meningeal irritation and neuroophthalmological and cerebral dysfunction. Severe panhypopituitarism may be an additional complication. Acute blindness due to compression of the optic chiasm and symptomatic compression of basal cerebral arteries require immediate transsphenoid tumor resection. If panhypopituitarism is suspected, immediate hormone substitution is necessary." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_56674", "title": "Pituitary apoplexy", "score": 0.014448074356968665, "content": "Pituitary apoplexy is bleeding into or impaired blood supply of the pituitary gland. This usually occurs in the presence of a tumor of the pituitary, although in 80% of cases this has not been diagnosed previously. The most common initial symptom is a sudden headache, often associated with a rapidly worsening visual field defect or double vision caused by compression of nerves surrounding the gland. This is often followed by acute symptoms caused by lack of secretion of essential hormones, predominantly adrenal insufficiency. The diagnosis is achieved with magnetic resonance imaging and blood tests. Treatment is by the timely correction of hormone deficiencies. In many cases, surgical decompression is required. Many people who have had a pituitary apoplexy develop pituitary hormone deficiencies and require long-term hormone supplementation. The first case of the disease was recorded in 1898. Signs and symptoms" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_10826", "title": "Pituitary apoplexy.", "score": 0.014019607843137254, "content": "Pituitary apoplexy is a clinical syndrome of headache, visual deficits, ophthalmoplegia, and alteration in mental status resulting from the sudden hemorrhage or infarction of a pituitary adenoma. Infarction of a normal gland also may occur in certain circumstances. Its manifestations are variable, ranging from a clinically benign event to a catastrophic presentation with permanent neurologic deficits or even death. It frequently mimics other intracranial processes and, without a high index of suspicion, may be difficult to diagnose. Radiographic studies, particularly CT and MR imaging, are helpful for diagnosis in both the acute and subacute settings. In its most fulminant presentation, prompt neurosurgical decompression is necessary to preserve sight and life. Corticosteroid replacement is also essential in the acute phase because of the high incidence of adrenal insufficiency. Fortunately, however, with proper management most patients may have good outcomes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en032_19246", "title": "Pituitary adenoma", "score": 0.013730610952833176, "content": "Pituitary apoplexy is a condition that occurs when pituitary adenomas suddenly hemorrhage internally, causing a rapid increase in size or when the tumor outgrows its blood supply which causes tissue necrosis and subsequent swelling of the dead tissue. Pituitary apoplexy often presents with visual loss and sudden onset headache and requires timely treatment often with corticosteroids and if necessary surgical intervention. Central diabetes insipidus is caused by diminished production of the antidiuretic hormone vasopressin that causes severe thirst and excessive production of very dilute urine (polyuria) which can lead to dehydration. Vasopressin is produced in the hypothalamus and is then transported down the pituitary stalk and stored in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland which then secretes it into the bloodstream." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0267_9372", "title": "[Pituitary abscess, treated by medication].", "score": 0.013682909604519775, "content": "Pituitary abscesses are rare. The case reported here concerns a 28-year old African. Gradual development of diplopia over 6 months was the first clinical manifestation. Three months later this development had reached a more severe and infectious context, with complete right ophthalmoplegia, meningitis and coma (GCS = 9). CT scan showed an image in favour of a pituitary abscess with suprasellar extension, associated with thrombophlebitis of the cavernous sinus. An antibiotic therapy consisting of cefotaxime and metronidazole administered for 1 month, and netilmicin for 15 days succeeded in controlling the infectious syndrome. This resulted in cure of visual disorders, reduction in size of the CT scan image and reconstruction of the pituitary sella which had been destroyed. The diagnosis of pituitary abscess should be made when confronted with an infectious syndrome (unexplained fever, repeated meningitis). CT does not recognize the nature of the hypophyseal mass it shows: necrosis of a pituitary adenoma, giant aneurysm or craniopharyngioma may mimic local infection. Surgery confirms the diagnosis and is regarded as the best treatment. The patient's life is threatened when meningitis is present, and the functional prognosis is poor when recovery from visual disorders is compromised due to late diagnosis. In this paper a comparative analysis of the clinical course of the disease and therapeutic data in our patient is presented and compared with other reported cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0769_23056", "title": "[Clinical practice guideline for the diagnosis and treatment of pituitary apoplexy].", "score": 0.013212977498691783, "content": "Classic pituitary apoplexy (PA) is an acute, life-threatening clinical syndrome caused by acute hemorrhage and/or infarction of the pituitary gland. PA is considered a neuroendocrinological emergency. However, there is no consensus about the best options for PA diagnosis and management. To develop a clinical practice guideline with a number of recommendations for diagnosis and treatment of patients with PA based on the medical evidence available, in order to help clinicians involved in their care. The clinical guideline for diagnosis and treatment of pituitary apoplexy issued in 2006 by the Neuroendocrinology Working Group of the Spanish Society of Endocrinology and Nutrition (SEEN) and the British Clinical Practice Guideline published in 2011 were taken as the basis. The text has been adapted to the format used in most international medical journals. For this, after updated medical literature, the quality of evidence and the strength of the recommendations were evaluated using the system proposed by the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR). Diagnosis of pituitary apoplexy should be considered in all patients with acute severe headache with or without neuro-ophthalmic signs. Patients with PA must undergo a complete history and physical examination. All patients with suspected pituitary apoplexy should have urgent blood samples drawn to test electrolytes, renal function, liver function, coagulation screen, complete blood count, and basal levels of pituitary and peripheral hormones, and to rule out adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) deficiency. Formal visual field assessment should be performed when the patient is clinically stable. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the imaging test of choice to confirm diagnosis. Indications for empirical urgent corticosteroid therapy in patients with PA include hemodynamic instability, impaired consciousness, reduced visual acuity, and severe visual field defects. In patients with these severe neuro-ophthalmic signs, surgery should be considered. Surgery should preferably be performed within seven days of the onset of symptoms. Patients with mild and stable signs may be managed conservatively with careful monitoring. Treatment and long-term follow-up of patients with PA should be conducted by a multidisciplinary team consisting, amongst others, of an experienced pituitary neurosurgeon, an ophthalmologist, and an endocrinologist." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0034_5902", "title": "Pituitary apoplexy, therapeutic assessment.", "score": 0.013154639175257731, "content": "The management of pituitary apoplexy with reference to both diagnosis and operative sequelae remains a major challenge. Acute onset of retro-orbital headache in association with visual loss and ophthalmoplegia are the cardinal symptoms; however, obtundation and signs of subarachnoid hemorrhage also may be present. Good quality plain skull radiographs and complete angiography prove sufficient for preoperative radiographic studies. Preoperative endocrine preparation focuses on supplemental glucocorticoids since these patients must be presumed deficient in cortisol reserve. Residual visual deficit appears to be more a function of the extent of damage at the time of ictus rather than rapidity of decompression. Our experience indicates that transsphenoidal decompression in appropriate cases offers an ideal opportunity to minimize mortality and morbidity. The acute onset of severe retro-orbital headache in association with stupor and ocular palsies would alert most physicians to the potential diagnosis of spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage. The association of complex ophthalmoplegias and visual defects in this constellation of symptoms should, in addition, alert one to the possibility of an acute intrasellar or parassellar expansile process. During the past two years, we have had the opportunity to care for 8 such patients with confirmed diagnoses of acute hemorrhagic infarction of the pituitary enabling us to formulate diagnostic and therapeutic schemata with reference to management of this problem." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0826_11614", "title": "Management and outcomes of pituitary apoplexy.", "score": 0.013018242122719735, "content": "This study was undertaken to analyze the predisposing factors, clinical presentation, therapeutic management, and clinical recovery in patients with pituitary apoplexy, with an emphasis on the long-term visual, endocrine, and functional outcomes. The authors performed a retrospective analysis of consecutive cases involving patients treated at Mayo Clinic between 1992 and 2013. Patients were included in the study only if they had 1) abrupt onset of severe headache or visual disturbance in the presence of a pituitary adenoma and 2) radiological or surgical confirmation of a pituitary mass. The primary endpoints of analysis were the visual (ocular motility, visual fields, and visual acuity), endocrine, and functional outcomes (using the modified Rankin Scale). Eighty-seven patients were identified (57 males and 30 females, mean age 50.9 years, range 15-91 years). Twenty-two patients (25.3%) had a known pituitary adenoma. Hypertension was the most common associated factor (39%). Headache was the most frequent presenting symptom (89.7%), followed by visual abnormalities (47.1%). Cranial nerve palsies were present in 39% and visual field defects in 34.1%. MRI detected hemorrhage in 89% patients, as compared with 42% detected by CT scan. Sixty-one patients (70.1%) underwent surgery during acute hospitalization (median time from apoplexy 5 days, IQR 3-10 days), 8 (9.2%) had delayed surgery, and 18 (20.7%) were treated conservatively. Histopathological examination revealed adenoma with pure necrosis in 18 (30%), pure hemorrhage in 4 (6.7%), and both in 6 (10%) patients. Four patients died during hospitalization. The average duration of follow-up was 44.2 ± 43.8 months. All survivors were independent and had complete resolution or substantial improvement in eye movements and visual fields at the last follow-up. Many patients needed long-term hormonal replacement with levothyroxine (62.7%) and cortisol (60%). Daily desmopressin was needed in 23% of all surgical patients at 3 months (versus none of the medically treated) and this requirement decreased slightly over time. Regrowth of pituitary adenoma was seen in 7 patients (8.6%). There were no statistically significant differences in any of the outcome measures across the treatment groups. The outcome of most patients with pituitary apoplexy is excellent. Selected patients can be managed conservatively, and patients with severe neuro-ophthalmological deficits treated with early surgery can achieve an excellent recovery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1016_11657", "title": "Pituitary Apoplexy Following Systemic Anticoagulation.", "score": 0.012168340713539979, "content": "Pituitary apoplexy is a rare medico-surgical emergency that stems from an acute expansion of a pituitary adenoma from infarction or haemorrhage and where the treatment strategy is still controversial. Clinical presentation is highly variable and a high index of suspicion is needed to make the diagnosis. Furthermore, in less than half of cases, a precipitating event is identified. We report a case of a 74-year-old female who, after introduction of anticoagulation for pulmonary thromboembolism, presented with pituitary apoplexy heralded by acute adrenal insufficiency, headaches, visual symptoms and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Timely initiation of corticosteroids was crucial, and after stabilisation, a conservative treatment strategy was favoured with good long-term prognosis. Long-term follow-up of pituitary function also revealed new growth hormone deficiency. Corticosteroid therapy may be crucial in the emergency setting, and it is recommended for all patients with suspected pituitary apoplexy (PA).Early recognition of PA and its predisposing factors is crucial for the best outcome for the patient.Initial conservative treatment strategies are gaining popularity but close clinical monitoring is fundamental to recognise the need for sellar decompression." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en032_19264", "title": "Pituitary adenoma", "score": 0.012103174603174602, "content": "Ectopic pituitary adenoma An ectopic (occurring in an abnormal place) pituitary adenoma is a rare type of tumor which occurs outside of the sella turcica, most often in the sphenoid sinus, suprasellar region, nasopharynx and the cavernous sinuses. Metastases to the pituitary gland Carcinomas that metastasize into the pituitary gland are uncommon and typically seen in the elderly, with lung and breast cancers being the most prevalent, In breast cancer patients, metastases to the pituitary gland occur in approximately 6-8% of cases. Symptomatic pituitary metastases account for only 7% of reported cases. In those who are symptomatic Diabetes insipidus often occurs with rates approximately 29-71%. Other commonly reported symptoms include anterior pituitary dysfunction, visual field defects, headache/pain, and ophthalmoplegia." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_26424", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01130667578035999, "content": "Pituitary Apoplexy Acute intrapituitary hemorrhagic vascular events can cause substantial damage to the pituitary and surrounding sellar structures. Pituitary apoplexy may occur spontaneously in a preexisting adenoma; postpartum (Sheehan’s syndrome); or in association with diabetes, hypertension, sickle cell anemia, or acute shock. The hyperplastic enlargement of the pituitary, which occurs normally during pregnancy, increases the risk for hemorrhage and infarction. Apoplexy is an endocrine emergency that may result in severe hypoglycemia, hypotension and shock, central nervous system (CNS) hemorrhage, and death. Acute symptoms may include severe headache with signs of meningeal irritation, bilateral visual changes, ophthalmoplegia, and, in severe cases, cardiovascular collapse and loss of consciousness. Pituitary computed tomography (CT) or MRI may reveal signs of intratumoral or sellar hemorrhage, with pituitary stalk deviation and compression of pituitary tissue." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_26425", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011008811986276009, "content": "Patients with no evident visual loss or impaired consciousness can be observed and managed conservatively with high-dose glucocorticoids. Those with significant or progressive visual loss, cranial nerve palsy, or loss of consciousness require urgent surgical decompression. Visual recovery after sellar surgery is inversely correlated with the length of time after the acute event. Therefore, severe ophthalmoplegia or visual deficits are indications for early surgery. Hypopituitarism is common after apoplexy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0944_3124", "title": "Clinical and imaging features of pituitary apoplexy and role of imaging in differentiation of clinical mimics.", "score": 0.010730841870314199, "content": "To discuss the clinical syndrome, review common imaging findings of pituitary apoplexy (PA) and role of imaging in therapy and follow-up. Also, to review other acute clinical scenarios with similar clinical and/or imaging findings as PA. PA is a severe and potentially life-threatening medical emergency, characterized by constellation of symptoms/signs that occur as a result of acute hemorrhage and/or infarction in pituitary gland. Patients present with acute and sudden onset of symptoms/signs, most commonly with severe headache, vision deficits/ophthalmoplegia, altered mental status, and possible pan hypopituitarism. Pre-existing macro adenoma (65-90%), especially non-functioning and prolactinomas, are most susceptible to apoplexy, which undergoes hemorrhage or infarct, but PA can occur with normal pituitary or microadenoma. Because of the probable grave prognosis of PA, imaging characteristics of PA and other acute clinical scenarios with similar clinical and/or imaging findings should be familiar to radiologists. PA is potentially a life-threatening clinical syndrome, however, imaging and clinical findings can lead the radiologist towards appropriate diagnosis, and rule out other clinical mimics. When hemorrhage is secondary to an underlying lesion, regrowth of the pituitary tumor years after a PA episode is possible and patients require long-term clinical and imaging surveillance." }, { "id": "article-27244_14", "title": "Pituitary Apoplexy -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.010041205812188245, "content": "Management of the mass is controversial as some advocate early transsphenoidal surgical decompression in all patients, whereas others adopt a conservative approach for those patients without visual acuity or field defects and with normal consciousness. Emergency surgery should be reserved for patients with progressive deterioration of consciousness, hypothalamic involvement, and progressive visual worsening. It has been demonstrated that a significant postoperative clinical improvement is a consequence of a surgical procedure performed as soon as possible. [23] Decompressive surgery can be delayed but performed within 1 week when visual acuity defects appear stable. If ophthalmoplegia is improving or stable, a conservative strategy could be considered. [34] [35] Microscopic endonasal or sublabial transsphenoidal surgery is commonly used. For very large tumors and those extending over the chiasm or laterally to the temporal fossa, a craniotomy should be used to achieve complete resection. Endoscopic endonasal approaches for pituitary apoplexy are effective. [30] [36] [37] Patients operated using the endoscopic approach have a similar visual outcome, but a better endocrinological outcome as the viable tumoral component can be removed from restricted areas like the cavernous sinus. [38] Sometimes, an endoscopic approach can prove difficult to perform if required at late night hours as it needs the collaboration of an otolaryngologist with the neurosurgeon." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0480_2175", "title": "Acute sterile meningitis as a primary manifestation of pituitary apoplexy.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Pituitary apoplexy is a rare and underdiagnosed clinical syndrome. It results from hemorrhagic infarction of the pituitary gland. In its classical form it is characterized by acute headache, ophthalmoplegia, visual loss and pituitary insufficiency. Meningeal irritation signs, clinically indistinguishable from infectious meningitis, are considered rare and have not been reported as presenting signs. We report a 53-yr-old man who was admitted to hospital following acute headache, fever, neck stiffness and paresis of the left oculomotor and abducent nerves. A lumbar puncture revealed an increased number of polymorphs but with a sterile cerebral spinal fluid. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showed an intrasellar mass with central necrosis in an enlarged sella. Endocrinological evaluation demonstrated insufficient thyroid, adrenocortical, and gonadal function. Necrosis within a chromophobe adenoma was found upon surgical decompression of the sella. After surgery anterior panhypopituitarism did not recover, while ophthalmoplegia subsided. The patient is now in good health under appropriate hormonal replacement therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0769_20122", "title": "Corticosteroid treatment buys time in case of a newly diagnosed hypophysitis with visual deterioration.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Hypophysitis is an important differential diagnosis for a pituitary mass, especially in young women at the end of or shortly after pregnancy. It commonly results in hypopituitarism and can be differentiated from adenoma on MRI. Typical MRI characteristics of hypophysitis are symmetry, loss of posterior bright spot, intense and homogeneous gadolinium enhancement, a thickened pituitary stalk and intact sellar floor. Treatment of choice in the acute phase of a hypophysitis is corticosteroids. Adequate corticosteroid treatment may effectively buy time and avoid unnecessary surgical treatment and is related to further decrease of pituitary function, even in progressive cases of deterioration due to compression of the chiasm. Strict monitoring of the vision and a control MRI is obligatory to evaluate the treatment after 48-36 h. Tissue diagnosis is mandatory when there are multiple relapses. We present a case of progressive visual deterioration in hypophysitis, successfully treated with high-pulse dose prednisolone. " } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 981, 1097 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 151, 167 ] ], "text": "Biliary reflux gastropathy is an endoscopic diagnosis, moreover it is not associated with diarrhea or malabsorption." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 699, 872 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 113, 135 ] ], "text": "If it were gastric adenocarcinoma, they would have spoken of constitutional syndrome, extradigestive manifestations (sister Maria Jose node, Krukenberg tumor, Virchow node)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 873, 980 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 135, 151 ] ], "text": "It is not dumping because it does not speak of vegetative symptoms (palpitations, facial flushing, etc...)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 350, 698 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 57, 113 ] ], "text": "What has occurred is a stenosis of the afferent loop, so that biliary and pancreatic secretions do not mix with the bolus, they accumulate, produce pain that is relieved by vomiting, fat absorption is not possible (lack of pancreatic lipase), so there is diarrhea, and if associated with bacterial overgrowth, there is malabsorption of vitamin B12." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Biliary reflux gastropathy.", "2": "Gastric adenocarcinoma.", "3": "Rapid gastric emptying syndrome (dumping).", "4": "Afferent loop syndrome with bacterial overgrowth.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22609", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.018672919923571306, "content": "afferent loop synDromes Although rarely seen today as a result of the decrease in the performance of Billroth II anastomosis, two types of afferent loop syndrome can occur in patients who have undergone this type of partial gastric resection. The more common of the two is bacterial overgrowth in the afferent limb secondary to stasis. Patients may experience postprandial abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea with concomitant malabsorption of fats and vitamin B12. Cases refractory to antibiotics may require surgical revision of the loop. The less common afferent loop syndrome can present with severe abdominal pain and bloating that occur 20–60 min after meals. Pain is often followed by nausea and vomiting of bile-containing material. The pain and bloating may improve after emesis. The cause of this clinical picture is theorized to be incomplete drainage of bile and pancreatic secretions from an afferent loop that is partially obstructed. Cases refractory to dietary measures may need" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0054_17321", "title": "[The Soupault-Bucaillle operation in the treatment of Billroth II gastric resection syndrome].", "score": 0.017157397310069065, "content": "The study analyzes the benefits related to the gastroduodenojejunoplasty (GDJP) according to Soupault &amp; Bucaille, adopted as the corrective treatment of the Billroth II gastric resection syndrome in those cases resistant to the dieting-pharmacological supports. Our experience is based on 18 cases (13 males, 5 females, mean age 39 yrs), treated from 1982 to 1987 with GDJP for a gastric resection syndrome. The patients were observed 5 years after their resection: 10 presented with an atrophic gastritis/gastric atrophy and all had a diffuse acute phlogosis in presence of biliary storage. Manual anastomoses were performed in the first 8 cases, while staplers were used in the remaining cases. Results were quite satisfying; no operative mortality or specific complications, nor pain and biliary vomiting were registered; 14 patients over 18 (77%) gained weight significantly; only 1 patient reported low-intense early \"dumping-like\" symptoms easily controlled by medical therapy. Endoscopy showed no biliary reflux in all cases. Biopsies of the stump, carried on before and after the GDJP intervention, showed a marked reduction of the inflammatory aspects in 76% (13) of the patients. Among the 10 patients with atrophic gastritis/gastric atrophy, only 2 (20%) presented a significant increase in the number of gastric parietal cells and gastric principal cells." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0369_8185", "title": "[Restoration of duodenal transit in the surgical treatment of postgastrectomy syndrome. The Soupault-Bucaille procedure].", "score": 0.014831869779396016, "content": "Between 5-50% of patients undergoing gastric resection still develop postgastrectomy syndrome in spite of the development of surgical techniques and an improved knowledge of gastrointestinal physiopathology: unfortunately, 2-5% of these patients require surgery. The technique to be used depends on a careful clinical and instrumental evaluation aimed at identifying the dominant type of postresection syndrome and any associated lesions, on the previous operation and obviously on the intraoperative situation. Soupault-Bucaille's gastroduodenojejunoplasty aims to correct the postresection syndrome by reinserting the duodenum in the digestive circuit, interposing between it and the gastric stump a jejunal loop made from the efferent (or afferent in the case of Billroth II with efferent on the lesser gastric curvature). This reconstitutes a paraphysiological condition of the digestive circuit, reduces biliary reflux and resolves acute gastritis. It is indicated in patients affected by early or late dumping syndrome, or multi-deficiency syndromes that do not respond to pharmacological therapy. The presence of concomitant biliary reflux is not a contraindication for this procedure, but confirms the need. Roux-en-Y is able to produce better results in postgastrectomy syndromes with alkaline gastritis and/or esophagitis sustained by biliary reflux, gastric atonia and afferent loop syndromes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0400_11435", "title": "[Gastrocolic fistula - a rare cause of cachexia and polyneuropathy].", "score": 0.014716075713143161, "content": "Gastrocolic fistula is a rare clinical disorder which in the past most often occurred after gastric surgery or carcinoma of the gastrointestinal tract. However, during the last decade an increasing number of cases after benign gastric ulcers have been described. Most common symptoms have been weight loss, abdominal pain, diarrhea and copremesis. A 49-year-old cachectic patient presented with a 2-year history of abdominal discomfort and diarrhea. He reported a weight loss of 32 kg during this period and was finally unable to move because of exhaustion. Furthermore, he suffered of burning paresthesia of the legs and the abdomen. His medical history included a Billroth II operation because of recurrent ulcer disease in 1987. Barium enema revealed a gastrocolic fistula which caused small bowel bacterial overgrowth with villous atrophy and malabsorption and development of polyneuropathy. The fistula was surgically resected, and postoperatively, the patient improved and regained his weight. Gastrocolic fistula is a rare cause of diarrhea and should be considered in clinical practice. Barium enema is superior to endoscopy in detecting gastrocolic fistula." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0234_2015", "title": "Postgastrectomy syndromes.", "score": 0.014465317217610796, "content": "The preceding briefly summarizes some mechanical, metabolic, and motility disturbances that develop after gastric operations. Clearly, the more thorough the search and questions, the greater the incidence of minor, moderate, or severe impairment by one or more of these disorders. Our previous fears in treating benign ulcer disease were, first, mortality and, then, recurrent ulcers. Postgastrectomy syndromes were thought of secondarily. The seriousness, frequency, and lack of specific treatment available for most postgastrectomy syndromes were generally not recognized. While serious sequelae are infrequent, some take years to develop. A few, such as cancer, are regrettable even if treatable. Surgical correction of most of these syndromes is at best 50 to 80 percent effective. Poor selection of patients, mixed symptoms, and our inability to repiece vagus nerves and excised antrums make it difficult, if not impossible, to correct totally the anatomic and physiologic changes. Surgical intervention is infrequent. For some abnormalities, such as bile reflux gastritis, correction is uniformly good if gastric emptying is satisfactory and the syndrome exists alone. For others, such as dumping and diarrhea, treatment is less exacting, and the variety of operative alternatives often confuses rather than helps. My own continually changing experiences have taught me to correct the major disability in the simplest way. My experience with take-down of gastrojejunostomies and pyloroplasties is limited but encouraging. My satisfaction with Roux-en-Y conversions of Billroth II resections in reflux gastritis has been extended to the correction of diarrhea and dumping. Creating a long isoperistaltic limb between stomach and jejunum has provided surprisingly excellent relief for the problems of rapid emptying, although I have not objectively verified emptying changes in all successfully treated patients. The best results come with avoidance of these disorders. It is hoped that simpler operations for ulcer disease will continue to gain in popularity. Highly selective vagotomy is an easier, more attractive alternative than any of the aforementioned remedial procedures, particularly if the long-term results are good." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0103_5653", "title": "Causes of malabsorption in the elderly.", "score": 0.014170733795701686, "content": "The pathogenesis of malabsorption has been studied in 70 patients who presented over the age of 65 years and who were referred to a special investigative unit. Often more than one cause was apparent. Fourteen patients had pancreatic insufficiency, most of whom had no history of pain, alcoholism or gallstones. Twenty-three patients had the postgastrectomy syndrome or small-bowel diverticulosis or both. There were eight coeliacs aged 65-72 years at diagnosis. Fifteen patients had an anatomically normal small bowel; eight of these were over 80 years old, and 10 had vitamin B12 deficiency of whom five had confirmed pernicious anaemia. Enterobacterial overgrowth was a feature of all diagnostic groups except pancreatic and coeliac disease. Vitamin B12 deficiency may be an effect of malabsorption, but can also be a cause through impairment of enterocyte function. The association of pernicious anaemia and B12 deficiency with otherwise unexplained malabsorption and bacterial overgrowth suggests that gastric atrophy is a major causal factor in this syndrome, combined in some cases with a 'vicious circle' of B12 malabsorption and deficiency." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0527_16747", "title": "[Late follow-up of gastrectomized patients for peptic ulcer: clinical, endoscopic and histopathological aspects].", "score": 0.013954094940010433, "content": "The gastrectomy is an uncommon procedure because the proton bomb inhibitors associated to the antibiotic outlines used to eradicate the Helicobacter pylori changed the focus of the peptic ulcer treatment. Later evaluation on those patients who underwent partial gastrectomy as a treatment for peptic ulcer, at that time when any drug to eradicate the Helicobacter pylori was not used. The clinical evaluation included the late postoperative symptoms and postgastrectomy syndromes like dumping, diarrhea, alkaline gastritis and nutritional aspects. The upper digestive endoscopy analysed the surgery reconstruction and the gastric stump, the duodenum and the jejunum mucosa aspects. The histopathological evaluation included looking for Helicobacter pylori by using two different methods: histology and urease test. Fifty-nine patients, 44 (74.6%) male, median age 55.5 years old (range from 31 to 77 years old), who underwent a clinical interview and an upper digestive endoscopy. Paraffin blocks from the surgical specimen were reviewed in order to find out if the patients did have or did not have Helicobacter pylori before surgery. The final results show that most of the patients had very good and good clinical evolution (Visick I e II) in 96%. The most common symptoms on late postoperative are mild dyspepsia with or without Helicobacter pylori, and diarrhea, anemia and dumping occurred in, respectively, 11 (18.6%), 2 (3.4%) and 2 (3.4%) cases. The Billroth I reconstruction had the best clinical results on statistical rate. The endoscopic finding showed normal results in the most number of cases, and reflux alkaline gastritis or erosive gastritis in a few cases. Ulcer recurrences were diagnosed in two patients (3.4%), and both had positive Helicobacter pylori. Most of the patients had Helicobacter pylori (86%) before surgery and also in the postoperative time (89.9%). The patients had a very good clinical evolution after the gastrectomy. The Billroth I reconstruction had the best clinical results. The Helicobacter pylori is still present on gastric stump in late postoperative time, and we believe that it does not bring any negative influence to surgical results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0072_22461", "title": "Metabolic problems after gastric surgery.", "score": 0.013716673479583958, "content": "The findings on dumping syndrome (DS) are not consistent considering its relations with age, sex, weight/height, smoking habits, race, dose of oral glucose, the time elapsed since surgery, the function of exocrine pancreas nor the duration of ulcer symptoms. The patients after total gastrectomy (TG) may present relative postprandial lack of insulin. As a sign of long-term hyperglycemia elevated HbA1 has been measured in DS patients. Oral galactose test may reveal new features of DS. Abnormalities in splanchnic blood circulation as well as release of intestinal hormones are involved with DS. Dietary habits including fibers, pectin and guar gum, play a central role in the prevention and treatment of DS. In unresponsive cases several operative methods have been applied with success. Alkaline reflux gastritis is most often seen after B II and I reconstructions and after pyloroplasty. Chronic diarrhea follows mostly after truncal vagotomy. Ten to 50% of patients after gastrectomy (GE) waste 10 to 20% of their body weight because of decreased food, energy, vitamin and mineral intake caused by eating-related symptoms. Vitamin and mineral supplements, a small snack 20 min before the major meal, digestive enzymes, treatment of colonization with antibiotics and protein foods may help. About 50% of GE patients show iron deficiency anemia. Easily dissolved iron between meals with ascorbic acid give the most effective response. Deficiency of vitamin B12 or of folate may develop as megaloblastic anemia. B12 supplement and antibiotics are effective in bacterial overgrowth, but surgical correction is necessary in troublesome blind loop. Folic acid deficiency is corrected by oral folic acid.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en038_41887", "title": "Short bowel syndrome", "score": 0.013450026521179055, "content": "The resection of specific areas of the small bowel can lead to distinct symptoms in short bowel syndrome. The resection of the ileum leads to a malabsorption of vitamin B12, bile acids and the fat soluble vitamins A, D, E and K. Loss of the distal ileum also leads to loss of inhibitory hormones; leading to gastric hypersecretion, intestinal hypermotility (decreases in the intestinal transit time) leading to secretory diarrhea and macronutrient, micronutrient, vitamin and mineral deficiencies. Loss of the ileocecal valve leads to small intestinal bacterial overgrowth(SIBO) as bacterial flora normally found in the large intestines migrate proximally and colonize the small intestines leading to further malabsorption. SIBO leads to malabsorption as the bacteria colonizing the small intestine metabolize nutrients, directly competing with the intestinal absorption of nutrients. The bacteria colonizing the small intestines in SIBO may also cause bile acid deconjugation leading to" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0071_21164", "title": "[The reinsertion of the duodenum into the digestive circuit. The indications and surgical technics in operated stomach syndromes].", "score": 0.013444244604316547, "content": "The authors analyse, retrospectively, the experience of the Clinic of Surgery III. Cluj-Napoca, in the indications and surgical methods for reintroducing the duodenum in the digestive circuit in the syndromes of the stomach operated for benign affections. Between 1974 and 1987, the duodenum was reinstated in the digestive circuit in 37 patients, operated previously for duodenal ulcer (32 cases), gastric ulcer (3 cases), syndrome of mesenteric clip (2 cases). The primary surgeries that led to the exclusions of the duodenum from the digestive tract were gastroenteroanastomosis in 4 cases, and the gastric resections with gastrojejunal anastomoses of the Billroth II type in 33 cases (Reichel-Polya in 28 cases. Hoffmeister-Finsterer in 3 cases, Roux in 2 cases). The reintroduction of the duodenum in the digestive circuit, based on clinical and paraclinical criteria, was indicated in anastomotic ulcer (in 17 cases), gastric ulcer following gastroenteroanastomoses (in 1 case), syndrome of afferent loop (in 11 cases), persistent \"dumping\" syndrome (in 8 cases), association of plurideficiency syndrome (in 54% of the cases). The way of reconstructing the duodenum was adapted to the type and correctness of the primary operation, to the dominant clinical syndrome and associated lesions to the biological background and possibilities offered by the intrasurgical situation: reconversion by direct gastroduodenal anastomosis after degastrogastrectomy was used in 31 cases, the indirect methods by transposition of the afferent loop (Soupault--Bucaille) in 4 cases, or of the afferent one (Henley)--1 case gastrography and segmentary enterectomy in 1 case. The postoperative complications appeared in 35.1% of case, with a mortality of 8.1%. The therapeutic results were good and very good in 89.3% of the cases. The authors insist on the importance of maintaining the duodenum in the digestive circuit, during the primary surgeries for preventing some severe postsurgical syndromes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en175_15230", "title": "Vitamin B12 deficiency", "score": 0.013009009009009009, "content": "Impaired absorption of vitamin B12 leads to pernicious anemia a type of megaloblastic anemia. Pernicious anemia comes about from the lack of gastric intrinsic factor produced by parietal cells in the stomach, and needed in the ileum for the absorption of vitamin B12. Pernicious anemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency. Any disruption that leads to the loss of parietal cells can lead to malabsorption, and includes atrophic gastritis, a condition that often affects the elderly, and gastric surgeries that involve the removal of all or part of the stomach, such as Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery. Surgical removal of the small bowel such as in Crohn's disease results in short bowel syndrome and the inability to absorb vitamin B12. Impaired absorption can also result from blind loop syndrome where an overpopulation of bacteria in the small intestine absorb the vitamin. Some infections such as giardiasis, and diphyllobothriasis caused by parasites can also cause" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0816_6669", "title": "Highly selective vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy in the treatment of peptic ulcer induced gastric outlet obstruction.", "score": 0.012792574656981436, "content": "The incidence of peptic ulcer-induced gastric outlet obstruction is constantly declining. The aim of this study was to present our results in the treatment of gastric outlet obstruction with highly selective vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy. This retrospective clinical study included 13 patients with peptic ulcer-induced gastric outlet obstruction operated with higly selective vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy. A 3-year follow-up was conducted including clinical interview and upper gastrointestinal endoscopy on 1 and 3 years after the surgery. The most common preoperative symptom was vomiting (in 92.3% of patients). The mean preoperative body mass index was 16.3 +/- 3.1 kg/m2, with 9 patients classified preoperatively as underweight. There were no intraoperative complications, nor mortality. At a 3-year follow-up there was no ulcer recurrence. Delayed gastric emptying was present in 1, bile reflux in 2, and erosive gastritis in 1 patient. Two patients suffered from mild \"dumping\" syndrome. Higly selective vagotomy combined with gastrojejunostomy is a safe and easily feasible surgical solution of gastric outlet obstruction induced by peptic ulcer. Good functional results and low rate of complications can be expected at a long-term follow-up." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en027_75865", "title": "Gastrectomy", "score": 0.012673889780631354, "content": "Another side effect is the loss of ghrelin production, which has been shown to be compensated after a while. Lastly, this procedure is post-operatively associated with decreased bone density and higher incidence of bone fractures. This may be due to the importance of gastric acid in calcium absorption. Post-operatively, up to 70% of patients undergoing total gastrectomy develop complications such as dumping syndrome and reflux esophagitis. A meta-analysis of 25 studies found that construction of a \"pouch\", which serves as a \"stomach substitute\", reduced the incidence of dumping syndrome and reflux esophagitis by 73% and 63% respectively, and led to improvements in quality-of-life, nutritional outcomes, and body mass index. After Bilroth II surgery, a small amount of residual gastric tissue may remain in the duodenum. The alkaline environment causes the retained gastric tissue to produce acid, which may result in ulcers in a rare complication known as retained antrum syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0231_3048", "title": "Partial gastrectomy for peptic ulcer by the Krønlein method. An outpatient follow-up study 12 years later with particular reference to endoscopy with biopsy and brush cytology and to clinical-chemical and radiological results.", "score": 0.0123602329153717, "content": "Forty-six patients were studied 12 years after partial gastrectomy for peptic ulcer. They had all been subjected to a standard Billroth II type operation as described by Krønlein, with emphasis laid upon the transverse position of the gastrojejunostomy. The clinical examination was supplemented by an outpatient gastroscopy with photography, biopsy and brush cytology, and by a series of blood analyses and X-ray of the gastric remnant. The general finding on gastroscopy was a slightly injected mucosa with flattened folds near the anastomosis, no or slight reflux of bile. The cytological examination revealed metaplasia in 7.5-15 per cent of the specimens, no sign of dysplasia or carcinoma. Biopsy showed severe atrophic gastritis in 0-13 per cent of the specimens, slight to moderate in 58-96 per cent, no signs of cellular atypia or irregular arrangements. Judged by the results of blood analyses a deficiency in iron, Vitamin B12 or both, was demonstrated in about 25 per cent of patients and of these more than 50 per cent were anaemic. X-ray examination showed that 70 per cent of the patients had an emptying time of the gastric remnant of 10-20 minutes. A transverse position of the anastomosis could be demonstrated in about 67 per cent. The necessity of a close follow-up of these patients is stressed." }, { "id": "article-17087_20", "title": "Achlorhydria -- Complications", "score": 0.012093912093912093, "content": "The majority of the complications found in achlorhydria are due to nutrient deficiency. They are also more common compared to the other complications. Iron deficiency Vitamin-B12 deficiency Vitamin-D and calcium deficiency leading to osteoporosis and bone fracture Gastric adenocarcinoma Gastric carcinoid tumor Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth syndrome" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en167_34720", "title": "Gastroparesis", "score": 0.012019591183967214, "content": "Diagnosis is via one or more of the following: barium swallow X-ray, barium beefsteak meal, radioisotope gastric-emptying scan, gastric manometry, and esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Complications include malnutrition, fatigue, weight loss, vitamin deficiencies, intestinal obstruction due to bezoars, and small intestine bacterial overgrowth. Treatment includes dietary modifications, medications to stimulate gastric emptying, medications to reduce vomiting, and surgical approaches. Signs and symptoms The most common symptoms of gastroparesis are the following: Chronic nausea Vomiting (especially of undigested food) Abdominal pain A feeling of fullness after eating just a few bites" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0051_19236", "title": "Postgastrectomy syndromes.", "score": 0.011777155731549123, "content": "Anatomic and physiological changes introduced by gastric surgery result in postgastrectomy syndromes in approximately 20% of patients. Most of these disorders are caused by operation-induced abnormalities in the motor functions of the stomach, including disturbances in the gastric reservoir function, the mechanical-digestive function, and the transporting function. Division of the vagal innervation to the stomach and ablation or bypass of the pylorus are the most significant factors contributing to postgastrectomy syndromes. Either rapid or slow emptying may result, depending on the relative importance of lack of a compliant gastric reservoir, loss of an effective contractile force, and loss of controlling factors that slow or speed gastric emptying and result in duodenal-gastric reflux. Clearly defining which syndrome is present in a given patient is critical to developing a rational treatment plan. In syndromes with slow gastric emptying, bilious vomiting, or alkaline reflux gastritis, the use of endoscopy is essential to rule out mechanical causes of the syndrome. Contrast radiography and scintigraphic gastric emptying studies are useful to document rapid or delayed gastric emptying. Postgastrectomy syndromes often abate with time. Conservative measures, including medical, dietary, and behavioral therapy, should be given at least a 1-year trial. If these nonoperative measures fail, surgical therapy is recommended. The Roux-en-Y gastrojejunostomy is useful for patients with dumping, because it slows gastric emptying and the transit of chyme through the Roux limb. The same operation helps patients with alkaline reflux gastritis, because it diverts pancreaticobiliary secretions away from the gastric remnant. Near-total gastrectomy, which reduces the size of a flaccid gastric reservoir, can be used to treat delayed gastric emptying. This operation should be combined with the Roux procedure to prevent postoperative reflux gastritis and esophagitis. Newer techniques, such as gastrointestinal pacing and the uncut Roux operation, may improve the treatment of the postgastrectomy syndromes in the future." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0032_9471", "title": "A porspective study of parietal cell vagotomy and selective vagotomy-antrectomy for treatment of duodenal ulcer.", "score": 0.0117012617012617, "content": "A prospective, randomized, study involving 92 patients who required elective operation for treatment of duodenal ulcer was performed to compare the results of Parietal Cell Vagotomy (PCV) and selective vagotomy-antrectomy Billroth I (SV-A-BI). The protocol was broken twice. One patient was unable to undergo PCV because of pyloric stenosis and one patients underwent Billroth II anastomosis instead of Billroth I because of post-bulbar stenosis. Performance of PCV was never aborted because a patient was obese. There were no deaths. Diarrhea, dumping and other gastric complaints were less frequent after PCV than after SV-A-BI for all time periods studies up to two years. Two months after operation, the Hollander tests were negative in 59% of patients after PCV and in 100% after SV-ABI. Inhibition of Bao and MAO were also significantly less after PCV than after SV-A-BI. Since vagotomy of the parietal cell mass was identical in both groups of patients it was concluded that the differences in the secretory rates and the fewer negative Hollander tests in the PCV group than in the SV-A-BI group were due to retention of the antrum irrespective of its innervation. There was no explanation for the gradual increase in the BAO in the PCV group. One recurrent ulcer occurred in the PCV group in a patient who overindulged in alcohol and aspirin. After 4 days of medical management, this superficial ulcer healed as demonstrated by endoscopy. There were no recurrent ulcers after SV-A-BI. As a result of this study, it is concluded that PCV is superior to SV-A-BI because of the lower frequency of postoperative complications, diarrhea, dumping and other symptoms associated with gastric surgery. PCV may be the operation of choice for the elective treatment of duodenal ulcer; however, it remains undetermined whether the recurrent ulcer rate following PCV will be sufficiently low that the procedure can retain a position of superiority over SV-A-BI." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_5796", "title": "List of MeSH codes (C06)", "score": 0.011570551503384582, "content": "– peptic ulcer – duodenal ulcer – esophagitis, peptic – peptic ulcer perforation – stomach ulcer – zollinger-ellison syndrome – stomach diseases – achlorhydria – diverticulosis, stomach – duodenogastric reflux – bile reflux – gastric antral vascular ectasia – gastric dilatation – gastric outlet obstruction – pyloric stenosis – pyloric stenosis, hypertrophic – gastritis – gastritis, atrophic – gastritis, hypertrophic – gastroparesis – peptic ulcer – peptic ulcer perforation – stomach ulcer – postgastrectomy syndromes – dumping syndrome – stomach neoplasms – stomach rupture – stomach volvulus – zollinger-ellison syndrome – tuberculosis, gastrointestinal – visceral prolapse – liver diseases – cholestasis, intrahepatic – alagille syndrome – liver cirrhosis, biliary – fatty liver – fatty liver, alcoholic – reye syndrome – focal nodular hyperplasia" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0285_22989", "title": "[Peptic ulcer: late complications of the surgical treatment].", "score": 0.01148857725985911, "content": "The incidence of surgical treatment of peptic ulcer decreased in the last two decades. The majority of procedures for surgical management of peptic disease impairs the ability of the stomach to receive and to store food. The intake of high protein-caloric content diets can improve some nutritional deficits expressed by loss of body weight and anemia. The mechanism responsible for diarrhea is unknown, but truncal vagotomy has the highest incidence. It is usually episodic, lessens over the first year after operation and rarely remains a severe problem. The decreasing levels of colecistokinin response after meal in gastrectomy and the division of hepatic branch of anterior vagus can cause gallbladder sludge and stone formation. Alkaline reflux explains gastritis and esophagitis after partial gastric resection. Surgical duodenal diversion, like a Roux-en-Y limb, have been successful in its control. The mechanism that leads to the dumping syndrome are loss of gastric reservoir function and rapid emptying of hyperosmolar meals into small intestine. Somatostatin analogues improve the symptoms caused by abnormal release of neurohormonal agents responsible of the behaviour of the gastrointestinal tract after meals. Cancer of gastric remanent may be due to increased bacterial overgrowth and nitrosation formation. The endoscopic follow-up is essential for early diagnosis of the stump cancer. In spite of all complications, the surgeon cannot have hesitations by carrying out radical approach meanly during catastrophic emergencies of peptic disease i.e. in elderly aged patients. Nowadays, the control of chronic sequelas is easy with conservative therapeutic." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0066_10862", "title": "Alkaline reflux gastritis.", "score": 0.011366865586814436, "content": "Alkaline reflux gastritis and the symptoms associated with alkaline reflux gastritis have been reported in the medical literature since shortly after Billroth successfully performed his first gastrectomy in the 1880s. The disease process is produced by, or at least is associated with, the reflux of alkaline secretions into the gastric remnant. Although it occurs after any procedure that ablates the pylorus including pyloroplasty, it would appear to be most common after a Billroth II gastrojejunostomy. How the alkaline secretions cause the gastritis is still controversial. Clearly, the most effective therapy is to reroute the secretions from the biliary tract, pancreas, and duodenum so that they will not reflux into the gastric remnant. This is most effectively accomplished by a Roux-en-Y gastrojejunostomy with the afferent limb measuring at least 18 inches (40 cm). The surgeon and the patient should be aware that the construction of such a gastric outlet channel is associated with delayed gastric emptying. The etiology of this impaired emptying is also controversial. If the patient has symptoms of dumping (either early or late), these symptoms may also be abated using the Roux limb. At least 40% of patients will have gastric outlet obstruction. Supportive therapy is appropriate in the majority of these patients." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22618", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011183261183261184, "content": "malDiGestion anD malabsorption Weight loss can be observed in up to 60% of patients after partial gastric resection. Patients can experience a 10% loss of body weight, which stabilizes 3 months postoperatively. A significant component of this weight reduction is due to decreased oral intake. However, mild steatorrhea can also develop. Reasons for maldigestion/malabsorption include decreased gastric acid production, rapid gastric emptying, decreased food dispersion in the stomach, reduced luminal bile concentration, reduced pancreatic secretory response to feeding, and rapid intestinal transit. Decreased serum vitamin B12 levels can be observed after partial gastrectomy. This is usually not due to deficiency of IF, since a minimal amount of parietal cells (source of IF) are removed during antrectomy. Reduced vitamin B12 may be due to competition for the vitamin by bacterial overgrowth or inability to split the vitamin from its protein-bound source due to hypochlorhydria." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en027_52191", "title": "Gastric bypass surgery", "score": 0.011148522259633371, "content": "Mini-gastric bypass (MGB) The mini-gastric bypass procedure was first developed by Robert Rutledge from the US in 1997, as a modification of the standard Billroth II procedure. A mini gastric bypass creates a long narrow tube of the stomach along its right border (the lesser curvature). A loop of the small gut is brought up and hooked to this tube at about 180 cm from the start of the intestine. Numerous studies show that the loop reconstruction (Billroth II gastrojejunostomy) works more safely when placed low on the stomach, but can be a disaster when placed adjacent to the esophagus. Today thousands of \"loops\" are used for surgical procedures to treat gastric problems such as ulcers, stomach cancer, and injury to the stomach. The mini-gastric bypass uses the low set loop reconstruction and thus has rare chances of bile reflux." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en058_40061", "title": "Adjustable gastric band", "score": 0.010823541865142373, "content": "Unlike more open forms of weight loss surgery (e.g. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery (RNY), Biliopancreatic diversion (BPD) and Duodenal Switch (DS)), gastric banding does not require cutting or removing any part of the digestive system. It is removable, requiring only a laparoscopic procedure to remove the band, after which the stomach usually returns to its normal pre-banded size so it is not unusual for a person to gain weight after having a band removed. However, it is not entirely reversible as adhesions and tissue scarring are inevitable. Unlike those who have procedures such as RNY, DS, or BPD, it is unusual for gastric band patients to experience any nutritional deficiencies or malabsorption of micro-nutrients. Calcium supplements and Vitamin B12 injections are not routinely required following gastric banding (as is often the case with RNY, for example). Gastric dumping syndrome issues also do not occur since intestines are not removed or re-routed." }, { "id": "article-22077_36", "title": "Gastric Resection -- Complications -- Late Complications", "score": 0.01073224043715847, "content": "Bile reflux gastritis Dumping syndrome Afferent and efferent limb syndrome Malnutrition and nutritional deficiencies Internal hernia or Peterson hernia Anastomotic stricture Marginal ulcer Cancer recurrence" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en557_31752", "title": "Retained antrum syndrome", "score": 0.010430045617609282, "content": "Retained antrum syndrome or retained gastric antrum syndrome is one of the rare postgastrectomy syndromes. It happens after Billroth II surgery and the mechanism involved is the inadequate removal of the distal antrum and pylorus during resection of the antrum and gastrojejunostomy. Lack of the usual acid-secreting gastric glands makes the antral segment continually exposed to the alkaline environment of the duodenum, which causes it to secrete excessive acid and be prone to form ulcers. References Gastrointestinal tract disorders" }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_7629", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.010424270072992702, "content": "operation successfully in the management of the dumping syndrome. Although this is probably the procedure of choice in the small group of patients requiring operation for severe dumping fol-lowing gastric resection, gastric stasis may result, particularly if a large gastric remnant is left. In the presence of significant gastric acid secretion, marginal ulceration is common after both jejunal interposition and Roux-en-Y procedures; thus, concomitant vagotomy and hemigastrectomy should be con-sidered. The theoretical possibility of treating postpyloroplasty dumping with a Roux-en-Y to the proximal duodenum (the duodenal switch, a potentially reversible operation) has not yet been reported (Fig. 26-67). Because pyloric ablation seems to be the dominant factor in the etiology of dumping, it is not sur-prising that conversion of Billroth II to Billroth I anastomosis has not been successful in the treatment of dumping.DiarrheaDiarrhea following gastric surgery may be the result of trun-cal" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1123_19110", "title": "An Unusual Presentation of Obstructive Jaundice Due to Dilated Proximal Small Bowel Loops After Gastrojejunostomy: Afferent Loop Syndrome.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Afferent loop syndrome is reported to be one of the very rare complications after gastrojejunostomy. The usual presentation in patients is with abdominal pain, distension and vomiting. It may present acutely because of complete obstruction, usually occurs early after surgery and is lethal in its course unless treated promptly with surgical management. In chronic cases obstruction is intermittent. There may be a reflux of bowel material into the biliary system and because of bacterial overgrowth patient may present with ascending cholangitis and obstructive jaundice. Here we report a case of 43-year-old gentleman presenting with jaundice, diffuse abdominal pain and distension. Later on, he was found to have a recurrence of gastric carcinoma associated with peritoneal carcinomatosis after subtotal gastrectomy and gastrojejunostomy for gastric carcinoma one year ago. He was diagnosed to be a case of afferent loop syndrome presenting as obstructive jaundice. The patient was managed conservatively by endoscopic decompression after confirmation of the diagnosis of afferent loop syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0032_2873", "title": "Alkaline reflux gastritis.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Any surgical procedure that ablates the pyloric sphincter mechanism permits increased reflux of duodenal fluid into the stomach or gastric remnant. Although it is reported as most common with Billroth II gastrectomy, our experience indicates that reflux is nearly as frequent after Billroth I gastroduodenostomy and is not at all infrequent after pyloroplasty. The precise constituents of duodenal fluid which damage the gastric mucosa remain controversial. The best present evidence is that the bile acids are probably essential, but that one or more other constituents of duodenal content are also necessary. The clinical history differs significantly from chronic afferent loop syndrome in that the quality of pain is different, pain tends to be more continuous and less closely related to food-taking, and bile vomiting does not provide dramatic relief, often containing food due to coexistent interference with gastric emptying. Diagnosis is confirmed by gross endoscopic findings and characteristic histopathologic changes in the endoscopic biopsies. Treatment with an interposed isoperistaltic jejunal segment has been disappointing. Only four of ten patients experienced lasting relief, indicating that the relatively short 10 to 12 cm. of jejunum does not adequately prevent duodenogastric reflux. We have, therefore, shifted to the Roux-en-Y duodenal diversion implanting the afferent limb 40 cm. caudad to the gastrojejunostomy. Results have been excellent in 24 of 25 cases with prompt improvement in gastric emptying, absence of bile vomiting, progressive regression in abdominal distress and progressive improvement in nutrition. Endoscopic evaluation at three to four months has indicated marked gross improvement and striking histologic improvement in 23 of 25 cases. The question is raised whether the Roux-en-Y reconstruction should not be used primarily, particularly if both vagotomy and antrectomy are to be performed for peptic ulcer. Both the afferent loop syndrome and alkaline reflux gastritis would be prevented, and it is doubted that the incidence of marginal ulcer would increase appreciably." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_5164", "title": "Bloating", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Common causes of abdominal bloating are: Overeating Gastric distension Lactose intolerance, fructose intolerance and other food intolerances Premenstrual Syndrome Food allergy Aerophagia (air swallowing, a nervous habit) Irritable bowel syndrome Celiac disease Non-celiac gluten sensitivity Partial bowel obstruction Gastric dumping syndrome or rapid gastric emptying Gas-producing foods Constipation Visceral fat Splenic-flexure syndrome Menstruation, dysmenorrhea Polycystic ovary syndrome and ovarian cysts Alvarez' syndrome, bloating of unknown or psychogenic origin without excess gas in the digestive tract Massive infestation with intestinal parasites (e.g., Ascaris lumbricoides) Diverticulosis Certain medications, such as phentermine Occurs in some due to salivary hypersecretion and dehydration. Ovarian cancer Important but uncommon causes of abdominal bloating include:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0530_18772", "title": "Small bowel bacterial overgrowth in symptomatic older people: can it be diagnosed earlier?", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "In older people, small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome may be a common, but under-diagnosed, cause of diarrhoea and nutrient malabsorption. We aim to determine which clinical features and baseline laboratory investigations indicate a high likelihood of small bowel bacterial overgrowth as defined by a positive glucose breath test. A retrospective analysis of records for all patients referred for glucose breath test over a 6-year period to a teaching hospital. Out of 197 referrals, 168 patient records were located and analysed (62 male, 106 female; median age 65). Patient characteristics predictive of a positive glucose breath test were: increasing age (p &lt; 0.01), low serum vitamin B12 (p = 0.02), low serum albumin (p = 0.03), previous partial gastrectomy (p &lt; 0.01), previous right hemi-colectomy (p &lt; 0.01), presence of small bowel diverticulae (p = 0.01) and concurrent use of a proton pump inhibitor (p &lt; 0.01). 52.5% (n = 21/40) of patients studied who were over 75 years old versus 21.8% (n = 28/128) of those under 75 years old had a positive glucose breath test (p &lt; 0.01). The median time to diagnosis, from first hospital visit to positive glucose breath test, was 39 weeks. There is often a significant delay in diagnosis of small bowel bacterial overgrowth. We suggest that this diagnosis should be considered earlier in the investigative algorithm in older patients with indicative symptoms and a predisposing factor (including previous partial gastrectomy, previous right hemi-colectomy, small bowel diverticulae or use of a proton pump inhibitor) or concurring laboratory indices (low vitamin B12 or albumin)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0224_836", "title": "Experience with vagotomy--antrectomy and Roux-en-Y gastrojejunostomy in surgical treatment of duodenal, gastric, and stomal ulcers.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I) is our reconstruction of choice following gastric resection for gastroduodenal ulcer. Dissatisfaction with a Billroth II anastomosis has led us in recent years to employ a Roux-en-Y diversion in selected cases, particularly those in which the pathologic state of the pyloroduodenal canal would render a Billroth I anastomosis unsafe. During the past 7 years, truncal vagotomy-antrectomy and Roux-en-Y (VARY) has been carried out in 50 selected patients: duodenal ulcer (DU) 13 patients, gastric ulcer (GU) 11 patients, and stomal ulcer (SU) 26 patients. Fourteen patients (28%) developed postoperative complications, of which nine (18%) were of major degree and five (10%) of a lesser degree. No hospital death occurred among the 50 patients. Five patients (10%) developed postoperative delayed gastric emptying and two of the five required revision of the Roux. Forty-five patients had no clinical problems with delayed emptying. Overall results showed a Visick grading of I in 72%, Visick II in 24%, and Visick III in 4%. Further analysis revealed that of the 13 patients with DU who had VARY, 62% were Visick I, 30% Visick II, and 8% Visick III. The 11 GU patients with VARY were graded Visick I 73% and Visick II 27%. Of 26 patients with SU who underwent VARY, 77% were Visick I, 19% Visick II, and 4% Visick III. Mild to moderate dumping took place in 8% of the 50 patients, mild diarrhea 10%, weight loss 10%, and no patient experienced alkaline reflux gastritis. Long-range postoperative gastric emptying studies among nine patients using a radionuclide revealed varying patterns of emptying. Overall clinical results have been satisfactory and we are continuing to use VARY in selected cases, particularly those in which a Billroth I reconstruction appears contraindicated." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 281, 505 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 47, 86 ] ], "text": "High adenosine deaminase in LP would point with great certainty to a pleural TB although it would be advisable to confirm the diagnosis with a pleural biopsy since it can also occur in lymphomas and empyemas of other origin." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "A thoracic computed tomography (CT) scan.", "2": "Pleural fluid pH measurement.", "3": "Measurement of pleural fluid adenosine deaminase.", "4": "Tuberculin test.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0492_372", "title": "[Cuttoff values of biochemical tests on pleural fluid: their usefulness in differential diagnosis of 1,040 patients with pleural effusion].", "score": 0.01951265943270512, "content": "The aim of biochemical pleural fluid testing is to reach an etiological diagnosis of the pleural effusion. We assessed the utility of considering cuttoff points for the wide range of analytes used to investigate pleural fluid. Among 1,040 patients with pleural effusion, we sought the etiologies of those fluids which showed any of the following characteristics: red blood cell count = 10 x 109/L, leukocytes = 10 x 109/L, percentage of neutrophils or lymphocytes &gt;50%, protein = 50 g/L, glucose = 60 mg/dL, pH = 7.2, lactate dehydrogenase = 1,000 U/L, adenosine deaminase = 40 U/L, amylase = 100 U/L or cholesterol = 60 mg/dL. Some of the more prominent findings were: a) a sixth of transudates were blood-tinged or contained predominantly neutrophils; b) a groosly bloody fluid suggests malignant disease, trauma, or pulmonary embolization; c) nearly 90% of fluids containing = 10 x 10(9) leukocytes/L were parapneumonics; d) 73% of tuberculous pleural fluids had protein &gt; or = 50 g/L, e) tuberculosis and parapneumonics explained more than 90% of fluids with high adenosine deaminase content; f) one third of amylase-rich pleural effusions were malignant; g) a low pleural glucose or pH levels indicate that patient probably has a parapneumonic, tuberculous or malignant etiology; y h) the diagnostic yield of pleural fluid cytology in malignant effusions was 57%, a percentage which raised to 94% in those with low glucose fluid level. Cuttof values of biochemical pleural fluid tests may greatly support particular causes of pleural effusions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0093_15500", "title": "The clinical manifestations of the tuberculous pleural effusion in adult patients.", "score": 0.016281512605042014, "content": "The clinical data of 52 patients with tuberculous pleural effusion were analyzed. Their average age was 48 years old. Thirty two (62%) of them were sick for less than one week. Fever, chest pain and cough were the predominant pictures. Six of the 52 patients had coexisting disease. Intermediate strength protein purified derivative (PPD) test was found to be positive in 14 out of 31 (45%) patients. Their pleural effusions were usually unilateral, right-sided, and nearly half of them occupied more than half of the hemithorax. One third of these patients and concomitant pulmonary tuberculosis and pleural effusion. None of the patients had grossly bloody effusion. All of the effusions were exudative, and the glucose levels in the pleural fluid were invariably above 60 mg/dl. Presence of mesothelial cells in the pleural fluid was found in 28% of them, but none of the patients presented with significant eosinophils in the pleural fluid. Pleural fluid and sputum cultures for Mycobacterium tuberculosis usually reveal a negative study unless a concomitant pulmonary lesion was present. Combined antituberculosis and prednisolone treatment decreased the duration of constitutional symptoms and hastened the resolution of pleural effusion. In conclusion, tuberculous pleural effusion should be considered in elderly patients presenting with massive exudative pleural effusion even with a negative PPD study. Cultures of sputum and pleural fluid are less helpful in patients without parenchymal disease. Prednisolone is recommended in extremely ill patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0589_512", "title": "Explosive pleuritis.", "score": 0.01597542242703533, "content": "The objective of the present paper is to describe the clinical and computed tomography features of 'explosive pleuritis', an entity first named by Braman and Donat in 1986, and to propose a case definition. A case report of a previously healthy, 45-year-old man admitted to hospital with acute onset pleuritic chest pain is presented. The patient arrived at the emergency room at 15:00 in mild respiratory distress; the initial chest x-ray revealed a small right lower lobe effusion. The subsequent clinical course in hospital was dramatic. Within 18 h of admission, he developed severe respiratory distress with oxygen desaturation to 83% on room air and dullness of the right lung field. A repeat chest x-ray, taken the morning after admission, revealed complete opacification of the right hemithorax. A computed tomography scan of the thorax demonstrated a massive pleural effusion with compression of pulmonary tissue and mediastinal shift. Pleural fluid biochemical analysis revealed the following concentrations: glucose 3.5 mmol/L, lactate dehydrogenase 1550 U/L, protein 56.98 g/L, amylase 68 U/L and white blood cell count 600 cells/mL. The pleural fluid cultures demonstrated light growth of coagulase-negative staphylococcus and viridans streptococcus, and very light growth of Candida albicans. Cytology was negative for malignant cells. Thoracotomy was performed, which demonstrated a loculated parapneumonic effusion that required decortication. The patient responded favourably to the empirical administration of intravenous levofloxacin and ceftriaxone, and conservative surgical methods in the management of the empyema. This report also discusses the patient's rapidly progressing pleural effusion and offers a potential case definition for explosive pleuritis. Explosive pleuritis is a medical emergency defined by the rapid development of a pleural effusion involving more than 90% of the hemithorax over 24 h, which causes compression of pulmonary tissue and mediastinal shift to the contralateral side." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0424_13856", "title": "Etiology and pleural fluid characteristics of large and massive effusions.", "score": 0.015889029003783105, "content": "To report the etiology of large and massive pleural effusions, and to compare their biochemical fluid characteristics with those of smaller size, and between malignant and nonmalignant conditions. Retrospective chart review of all patients undergoing thoracentesis at an academic medical center in Lleida, Spain, during a 10-year period. Posteroanterior chest radiographs were available in 766 patients during the study period. Large pleural effusions (ie, two thirds or more of the hemithorax without its complete obliteration) were identified in 70 patients (9%), and massive pleural effusions (ie, hemithorax was completely opacified) were identified in 93 patients (12%). A similar etiologic spectrum between large and massive pleural effusions was observed. The most frequent cause of these pleural effusions was malignancy (89 patients; 55%), followed by complicated parapneumonic or empyema (36 patients; 22%), and tuberculosis (19 patients; 12%). Compared with nonmalignant pleural effusions, patients with large or massive malignant pleural effusions were more likely to have pleural fluids with higher RBC counts (18.0 x 10(9) cells/L vs 2.7 x 10(9) cells/L, respectively; p &lt; 0.001) and lower adenosine deaminase (ADA) activity (11.5 vs 31.5 U/L, respectively; p &lt; 0.001), which were the two parameters that were selected by a stepwise logistic-regression model as independent predictors of malignancy. In addition, large/massive malignant pleural effusions showed higher median RBC counts (18.0 x 10(9) cells/L vs 4.3 x 10(9) cells/L, respectively; p &lt; 0.001), higher lactate dehydrogenase levels (641 vs 409 U/L, respectively; p = 0.001), lower pH (7.39 vs 7.42, respectively; p = 0.006) content, but similar cytologic yield (63% vs 53%, respectively; p = 0.171) than smaller malignant pleural effusions. The presence of a large or massive pleural effusion enables the clinician to narrow the differential diagnosis of pleurisy, since most effusions are secondary to malignancy or infections (either bacterial or mycobacterial). Bloody pleural fluid with low ADA content favors a malignant condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0301_988", "title": "Diagnostic principles in pleural disease.", "score": 0.015083679778275237, "content": "When a patient with an undiagnosed pleural effusion is evaluated, the first question to answer is whether the patient has a transudate or an exudate. This is best done using Light's criteria, but these criteria occasionally misidentify a transudate as an exudate. If the patient's pleural fluid meets exudative criteria, but the patient appears clinically to have a transudative effusion, then the serum-pleural fluid albumin gradient should be measured. If this is greater than 1.2 g-dL-1, the patient probably does have a transudative effusion. If the patient has an exudative pleural effusion, additional tests are indicated to determine the aetiology of the effusion. The gross appearance and the odour of the pleural fluid should be noted and samples of all exudates should be sent for bacterial cultures. Laboratory tests that are useful in the differential diagnosis of exudative pleural effusions include: differential white cell count of the pleural fluid; cytology of the pleural fluid; and levels of adenosine deaminase, glucose, amylase and lactate dehydrogenase in the pleural fluid. If pleural tuberculosis is suspected, a needle biopsy of the pleura is indicated. Thoracoscopy is very efficient at diagnosing malignant pleural effusion and tuberculosis pleuritis, but rarely establishes any other diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0574_9664", "title": "Responsive treatment of pleural effusion due to probable tuberculosis infection.", "score": 0.0150789330430049, "content": "Early diagnosis of Mycobacterium tuberculosis disease is crucial for initiating treatment and interrupting disease transmission. In keeping with the pathophysiology of disease, bacteriological evidence in extra-pulmonary tuberculosis proves to be difficult. Clinical judgment and radiographic findings are important to establish diagnosis and to evaluate treatment response. A case of 27 year-old-male with shortness of breath and associated TB symptoms is reported. The tuberculin test was highly positive and chest X-ray showed massive right-lung pleural effusion. Pleural analysis showed exudates with high mononuclear cells (98%), protein level of 5.0 g/dL, glucose level of 87 mg/dL, and high LDH level (1240 IU/L). The acid-fast bacilli (AFB) tests were negative for pleural fluid and sputum. Cultures of fluid and sputum were also negative. After being treated adequately with non-specific treatment, which showed no improvement and having undergone pleural puncture for his treatment and diagnosis, the patient started to have antituberculosis treatment. His condition was improved significantly as shown by a serial of chest X-ray follow-up." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0320_9651", "title": "Management of parapneumonic effusions.", "score": 0.014674719220173766, "content": "When a patient with a parapneumonic pleural effusion is first evaluated, a therapeutic thoracentesis should be performed if more than a minimal amount of pleural fluid is present. Fluid obtained at the therapeutic thoracentesis should be gram-stained and cultured and analyzed for glucose, pH, LDH, white blood cells, and differential cell count. If the fluid cannot be drained because of loculations, a chest tube should be inserted and thrombolytic agents administered. If the pleural fluid recurs after the initial therapeutic thoracentesis but the patient is doing well clinically and the initial pleural fluid glucose was greater than 60 mg/dL; the pH, greater than 7.2; the LDH, less than three times the upper normal limit for serum and the cultures are negative; he or she can be observed. If one or more of the aforementioned criteria are not met, a second therapeutic thoracentesis should be performed, with repeat diagnostic evaluations of the pleural fluid. If the fluid recurs a second time, a small chest tube should be placed if the pleural fluid glucose and pH were lower and the LDH higher on the second thoracentesis than on the first thoracentesis. Patients with loculated-parapneumonic effusions should be treated with tube thoracostomy and thrombolytic agents. If drainage is incomplete, thoracoscopy, with breakdown of adhesions and debridement of the pleural space, is indicated. If thoracoscopy is unsuccessful, then thoracotomy, with decortication, is indicated unless the patient is too debilitated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0582_10405", "title": "Clinical and laboratory parameters in the differential diagnosis of pleural effusion secondary to tuberculosis or cancer.", "score": 0.014443791617704661, "content": "To evaluate the clinical and laboratory characteristics of pleural effusions secondary to tuberculosis (TB) or cancer (CA). A total of 326 patients with pleural effusion due to TB (n=182) or CA (n=144) were studied. The following parameters were analyzed: patient gender, age and pleural effusion characteristics (size, location, macroscopic fluid aspect, protein concentration, lactate dehydrogenase (DHL) and adenosine deaminase activity (ADA) and nucleated cell counts). Young male patients predominated in the tuberculosis group. The effusions were generally moderate in size and unilateral in both groups. Yellow-citrine fluid with higher protein (p &lt; 0.001) levels predominated in effusions from the tuberculosis group (5.3 + 0.8 g/dL) when compared to the CA group (4.2 +/- 1.0 g/dL), whereas DHL levels were more elevated in CA (1,177 +/- 675 x 1,030 +/- 788 IU; p = 0.003) than in TB. As expected, ADA activity was higher in the TB group (107.6 +/- 44.2 x 30.6 +/- 57.5 U/L; p &lt; 0.001). Both types of effusions presented with high nucleated cell counts, which were more pronounced in the malignant group (p &lt; 0.001). TB effusion was characterized by a larger percentage of leukocytes and lymphocytes (p &lt; 0.001) and a smaller number of mesothelial cells (p = 0.005). Lymphocytes and macrophages were the predominant nucleated cell in neoplastic effusions. Our results demonstrate that in lymphocytic pleural exudate obtained from patients with clinical and radiological evidence of tuberculosis, protein and ADA were the parameters that better characterize these effusions. In the same way, when the clinical suspicion is malignancy, serous-hemorrhagic lymphocytic fluid should be submitted to oncotic cytology once this easy and inexpensive exam reaches a high diagnostic performance (approximately equal 80%). In this context, we suggest thoracocentesis with fluid biochemical and cytological examination as the first diagnostic approach for these patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0668_12903", "title": "Does pleural fluid appearance really matter? The relationship between fluid appearance and cytology, cell counts, and chemical laboratory measurements in pleural effusions of patients with cancer.", "score": 0.014011589246698965, "content": "Previous reports have suggested that the appearance of pleural effusions (i.e., the presence or absence of blood) might help to establish the etiology of the effusions. This study explores the relationship between pleural fluid appearance and the results of chemical and cytological analyses in a group of patients with recurrent symptomatic pleural effusions and a diagnosis of cancer. Medical records were reviewed from all 390 patients who were diagnosed with cancer, who underwent thoracentesis before placement of an intrapleural catheter (IPC) between April 2000 and January 2006. Adequate information for data analysis was available in 365 patients. The appearance of their pleural fluid was obtained from procedure notes dictated by the pulmonologists who had performed the thoracenteses. The patients were separated into 2 groups based on fluid appearance: non-bloody and bloody. Group differences in cytology interpretation were compared by using the chi square test. Cellular counts, chemical laboratory results, and survival after index procedure were compared by using the student's t test. Pleural fluid cytology was positive on 82.5% of the non-bloody effusions and on 82.4% of the bloody ones. The number of red blood cells (220.5 x 103/microL vs. 12.3 x 103/microL) and LDH values (1914 IU/dl vs. 863 IU/dl) were statistically higher in bloody pleural effusions. The presence or absence of blood in pleural effusions cannot predict their etiology in patients with cancer and recurrent symptomatic pleural effusions." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_101884", "title": "Pleural effusion", "score": 0.013357619914996965, "content": "The sensitivity and specificity of Light's criteria for detection of exudates have been measured in many studies and are usually reported to be around 98% and 80%, respectively. This means that although Light's criteria are relatively accurate, twenty percent of patients that are identified by Light's criteria as having exudative pleural effusions actually have transudative pleural effusions. Therefore, if a patient identified by Light's criteria as having an exudative pleural effusion appears clinically to have a condition that usually produces transudative effusions, additional testing is needed. In such cases, albumin levels in blood and pleural fluid are measured. If the difference between the albumin level in the blood and the pleural fluid is greater than 1.2 g/dL (12 g/L), this suggests that the patient has a transudative pleural effusion. However, pleural fluid testing is not perfect, and the final decision about whether a fluid is a transudate or an exudate is based not on" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_101869", "title": "Pleural effusion", "score": 0.013275009509319133, "content": "When a pleural effusion has been determined to be exudative, additional evaluation is needed to determine its cause, and amylase, glucose, pH and cell counts should be measured. Red blood cell counts are elevated in cases of bloody effusions (for example after heart surgery or hemothorax from incomplete evacuation of blood). Amylase levels are elevated in cases of esophageal rupture, pancreatic pleural effusion, or cancer. Glucose is decreased with cancer, bacterial infections, or rheumatoid pleuritis. pH is low in empyema (<7.2) and maybe low in cancer. If cancer is suspected, the pleural fluid is sent for cytology. If cytology is negative, and cancer is still suspected, either a thoracoscopy, or needle biopsy of the pleura may be performed. Gram staining and culture should also be done." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0664_1227", "title": "Pearls and myths in pleural fluid analysis.", "score": 0.013121693121693121, "content": "Virtually all patients with a newly discovered pleural effusion should undergo thoracentesis to aid in diagnosis and management. The routine pleural fluid (PF) evaluation usually includes the following: cell count and differential; tests for protein, LDH, glucose, adenosine deaminase, cytology and, if infection is a concern, pH and bacterial and mycobacterial cultures. Distinguishing transudates from exudates with Light's criteria is a pragmatic first step. If the effusion is an exudate, various PF tests have proven diagnostic utility: adenosine deaminase levels &gt;35 IU/L usually indicate tuberculosis in lymphocyte-predominant PF; pH &lt; 7.2 or glucose less than 60 mg/dL allow the clinician to identify complicated parapneumonic effusions; and conventional cytology may reveal malignant cells in 60% of the patients with malignant effusions. A number of optional PF tests may complement the diagnostic approach to an undiagnosed pleural effusion. For example, natriuretic peptide assays significantly improve the accuracy of a diagnosis of cardiac pleural effusion, whereas PF mesothelin levels greater than 20 nmol/L are highly suggestive of mesothelioma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en063_55701", "title": "Thoracentesis", "score": 0.013095878277923639, "content": "pH Normal pleural fluid pH is approximately 7.60. A pleural fluid pH below 7.30 with normal arterial blood pH has the same differential diagnosis as low pleural fluid glucose. Triglyceride and cholesterol Chylothorax (fluid from lymph vessels leaking into the pleural cavity) may be identified by determining triglyceride and cholesterol levels, which are relatively high in lymph. A triglyceride level over 110 mg/dl and the presence of chylomicrons indicate a chylous effusion. The appearance is generally milky but can be serous. The main cause for chylothorax is rupture of the thoracic duct, most frequently as a result of trauma or malignancy (such as lymphoma). Cell count and differential The number of white blood cells can give an indication of infection. The specific subtypes can also give clues as to the type on infection. The amount of red blood cells are an obvious sign of bleeding." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1076_2561", "title": "IgG4-related pleural effusion with high adenosine deaminase levels: A case report and literature review.", "score": 0.012976056564358025, "content": "Levels of pleural fluid adenosine deaminase (ADA), a useful marker for the diagnosis of tuberculous pleurisy, are elevated in some reports of immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4)-related pleural effusion. We describe a patient with IgG4-related pleural effusion who exhibited a high concentration of ADA. Furthermore, we reviewed the literature to compare patients with IgG4-related pleural effusion and tuberculous pleurisy. A 75-year-old male patient had dyspnea for 1 month with a left pleural effusion that was exudative, lymphocyte dominant. The pleural fluid test results revealed a total protein (TP) concentration of 6.60 g/dl, a lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level of 383 IU/dl, and an ADA concentration of 54.5 U/L. An interferon gamma release assay showed a negative result. Histological analysis of the thoracoscopic pleural biopsy revealed lymphoplasmacytic infiltration, with 80 IgG4-positive plasma cells/high-power field, and an IgG4/IgG ratio of approximately 40% to 50%. Other diseases were ruled out based on symptoms, negative autoimmune antigen results, and histopathologic findings. Thus, he was diagnosed with IgG4-related pleural effusion. He received 15 mg of prednisolone as therapy. His pleural effusion and symptoms improved gradually within several months, and prednisolone was tapered to 6 mg daily. It is important to distinguish between IgG4-related pleural effusion and tuberculous pleurisy. Therefore, we compared 22 patients with IgG4-related pleural effusion from PubMed and the Japan Medical Abstracts Society to 40 patients with tuberculous pleurisy at Fukujuji Hospital from January 2017 to May 2019. According to thoracentesis findings, 14 of 18 patients with IgG4-related pleural effusion had high ADA more than 40 U/L. The pleural effusion of patients with IgG4-related pleural effusion showed higher TP levels (P &lt; .001) and lower LDH (P &lt; .001) and ADA levels (P = .002) than those with tuberculous pleurisy. Moreover, the pleural fluid ADA/TP ratio was a good predictor for differentiating IgG4-related pleural effusion and tuberculous pleurisy (area under the receiver operating characteristic curve of 0.909; 95% confidence level: 0.824-0.994)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0705_12555", "title": "[A case of tuberculous pleurisy developing contralateral effusion during anti-tuberculosis chemotherapy].", "score": 0.012940151797934552, "content": "A 55-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital because of chest pain, fever, and right pleural effusion that was exudative and lymphocyte-dominant with a high level of adenosine deaminase (ADA). Since her blood QuantiFERON-TB 3G test (QFT) was positive, she was diagnosed with tuberculous pleurisy. After initiation of anti-tuberculosis chemotherapy with isoniazid, rifampicin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide, her symptoms improved. Later, liquid culture of the pleural effusion turned positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis. On the 18th day of treatment, her chest X-ray and computed tomography exhibited pleural effusion in a moderate amount in the left thorax, with subsiding pleural effusion in the right thorax. Thoracocentesis demonstrated that the left thorax effusion was also exudative and lymphocyte-dominant, with elevated QFT response and high ADA concentration, suggesting tuberculous pleurisy. Mycobacterium tuberculosis was detected in the culture of a left pleural biopsy specimen obtained by thoracoscopy. We assumed that the left pleural effusion was due to paradoxical worsening because (1) on admission no effusion or lung parenchymal lesion was detected in the left hemithorax, (2) on the 14th day of treatment she was afebrile without pleural effusion on both sides, and (3) the bacilli were sensitive to the drugs she had been taking regularly. We performed drainage of the left effusion and continued the same anti-tuberculosis drugs, which led to the elimination of all her symptoms and of the pleural effusion on both sides. In conclusion, paradoxical worsening should be included in the differential diagnosis when contralateral pleural effusion is detected during the treatment of tuberculosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0648_13335", "title": "[Clinical analysis of lymphoma with chest involvement: report of 25 cases].", "score": 0.012912535148734645, "content": "To study clinical characteristics and diagnostic methods of lymphoma with chest involvement. Twenty-five lymphoma patients with chest involvement were retrospectively analysed, they were all diagnosed in Peking University Third Hospital during 2000 to 2007. The data were collected including clinical manifestations, blood examinations, chest X-ray and CT scan, diagnostic methods and pathologic diagnosis. The median age of the 25 patients was 46 years old. Pyrexia (13 cases), weight loss over 10 percent in 6 months (11 cases), cough (10 cases), shortness of breath (9 cases) and painless enlargement of the peripheral lymph nodes (16 cases) were common manifestations. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level were increased in 72.7% and 81% patients, respectively. The enlargement of mediastinum lymph nodes (16 cases, 64%) was the most common presentation of chest radiography, followed by pulmonary involvement (15 cases, 60%) including infiltration or pulmonary consolidation, mass, multiple nodules, diffuse ground-glass shadow, miliary lesion. There were also presentations of pleural effusion (10 cases, 40%), pericardial effusion (4 cases, 16%), chest wall mass (2 cases, 8%). Eighteen patients (72%) had at least two kinds of these presentations. The appearance of pleural effusion were yellow turbid, bloody or chyliform. Rivalta tests were all positive. The median value of pleural effusion examinations were listed as follows: specific gravity 1.031, total cells 9800 x 10(6)/L, WBC 6.72 x 10(9)/L, lymphocyte 86%, neutrophil 14%, protein 31.4 g/L, LDH 296 U/L, adenosine deaminase (ADA) 67.4 U/L. Most patients (16 cases) were diagnosed by surgical biopsy, especially peripheral lymph nodes biopsy (12 cases). Other patients were diagnosed by ultrasound or CT-guided biopsy (5 cases), video-assisted thoracoscopic pleural biopsy (1 case), video-mediastinoscopic mediastinum lesion biopsy (1 case), bronchial mucosa biopsy through bronchoscope (1 case), bone marrow examination (1 case). All the cases were non-Hodgkin lymphoma except one. There was no specific clinical manifestation for lymphoma with chest involvement, but in almost half of patients there were enlargement of not only peripheral but also mediastinum lymph nodes. And there were some characteristics in serum, pleural effusion, chest X-ray and CT scan. Surgical biopsy of peripheral lymph nodes was a simple and convenient method for diagnosis. Micro-invasive biopsy had good diagnostic value for lymphoma with chest involvement, including ultrasound- or CT-guided biopsy for superficial mass, pleura, lung, liver, spleen and deep lymph nodes, video-assisted thoracoscopic and video-mediastinoscopic biopsy for pleura, lung and mediastinum lesions. But bronchial mucosa and lung biopsy during bronchoscopy had a low diagnostic rate for lymphoma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en191_9136", "title": "Malignant pleural effusion", "score": 0.012515262515262516, "content": "Diagnosis Clinical evaluation Clinical factors predicting the diagnosis of malignant pleural effusions are symptoms lasting more than 1 month and the absence of fever. Imaging This is needed to confirm the presence of a pleural effusion. Chest radiograph is usually performed first and may demonstrate an underlying lung cancer as well as the pleural effusion. Ultrasound has a sensitivity of 73% and specificity of 100% at distinguishing malignant pleural effusions from other causes of pleural effusion, based on the presence of visible pleural metastases, pleural thickening greater than 1 cm, pleural nodularity, diaphragmatic thickening measuring greater than 7mm and an echogenic swirling pattern visible in the pleural fluid. Biochemical analysis Malignant pleural effusions are exudates. A low pleural fluid pH is associated with poorer survival and reduced pleurodesis efficacy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0287_18501", "title": "Serial pleural fluid analysis in a new experimental model of empyema.", "score": 0.012360446570972888, "content": "Prior attempts to create an animal model of empyema by direct inoculation of bacteria alone into the pleural space have been unsuccessful. The animals either died of overwhelming sepsis or cleared the infection from the pleural space without development of an empyema. We hypothesized that injection of bacteria with a nutrient agar into the pleural space would allow the bacteria to remain in the pleural space for an extended time period, permitting an empyema to develop. The bacterium Pasteurella multocida in brain heart infusion (BHI) agar was injected into the right hemithorax of 12 New Zealand white male rabbits. Our preliminary studies showed that the animals died in less than 7 days if they were not given parenteral antibiotics. For this reason, the rabbits were given penicillin, 200,000 U, IM, every 24 h starting 24 h after bacterial injection. Pleural fluid was sampled by thoracentesis at 12, 24, 48, 72, and 96 h after bacterial injection. Pleural fluid pH, glucose, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), leukocyte count, and Gram's stain and culture (in one half of the animals) were obtained at each time point. Pleural biopsy specimens were obtained at autopsy after 96 h. The mean pleural fluid pH reached a nadir of 7.01 at 24 h and remained less than 7.1 throughout the experiment. The mean pleural fluid glucose level reached a nadir of 10 mg/dL at 24 h. The mean pleural fluid LDH peaked at 21,000 IU/L at 24 h and the mean pleural fluid leukocyte count peaked at 12 h with a value of 67,000 cells per cubic millimeter. Gram's stains revealed organisms and cultures were positive for growth in all animals at 12 and 24 h. Some animals had positive Gram's stains and growth on cultures up to 72 h after bacterial injection. At autopsy, all rabbits injected with bacteria had gross pus in the right pleural space and had developed a thick pleural peel. Microscopic specimens of the pleura revealed large numbers of leukocytes (primarily polymorphonuclear lymphocytes) with invasion of the adjacent lung and chest wall. In conclusion, this model more closely mimics the empyema that occurs in humans, relative to previous animal models. This model appears appropriate for additional randomized studies in which different methods for the treatment of empyema can be evaluated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0735_12256", "title": "[Clinical analysis of 20 cases with Streptococcus pneumoniae necrotizing pneumonia in China].", "score": 0.012348883779574278, "content": "Streptococcus pneumoniae necrotizing pneumonia (SPNP) was reported elsewhere but not in China yet. Inappropriate treatment due to poor recognition of this disease could influence its prognosis. This paper presents the clinical characteristics, diagnosis and treatment of SPNP hoping to elevate pediatrician's recognition level for this disease. Clinical manifestations, radiological findings, treatment and prognosis of 20 patients (9 boys, 11 girls) who had been hospitalized with SPNP in Beijing Children's Hospital from 2004-2011 were retrospectively analyzed. The patients included in this study aged from 9 months to 6 years [(27.9 ± 15.8) m] and were healthy before admission. They were febrile for 8 to 50 days [(27.7 ± 13.5) d] and hospital day was 24 - 55 days [(36.5 ± 8.3) d]. The general condition of all subjects was relatively poor and they all had fever and cough. One child had moderate fever and nineteen children had high fever. Dyspnea was found in sixteen children. Fine rales were found on auscultation in 18 children, among whom diffuse wheeze appeared in 4 children, and wheezy phlegm was found in two children. Signs of pleural effusion were discovered in all cases by physical examination and chest X-ray. White blood cell (WBC) count was 16.2 - 60.95×10(9)/L and neutrophil was 70.5% - 80.2% in peripheral blood routine test. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was 44 - 109 mm/h [(69.6 ± 16) mm/h]and C-reactive protein (CRP) was 80 - &gt; 160 mg/L. The pleural effusion biochemistry and routine test revealed a WBC count of 6400×10(6)/L-too much to count, polykaryocyte of 51% - 90%, glucose of 0.02 - 1.8 mmol/L, protein of 32 - 51 g/L and LDH of 5475 IU/L-or higher. Pleural effusion culture in all cases and blood culture in 2 cases was positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae. Chest X-ray or CT revealed high density and well-distributed lobar consolidation in one lung or two lungs initially. Single or multiple low density lesions in the area of lobar consolidation were found a week later, accompanied by multiple cystic shadow or cavity at the same time or afterwards. Bulla of lung appeared later. Pleural effusions were found in all patients. Seven cases complicated with hydropneumothorax, two with otitis media, one with heart failure, one with cardiac insufficiency. Seventeen patients were treated with vancomycin or teicoplanin or linezolid two with amoxicillin and clavulanate potassium. Other two patients had been treated with meropenem and cephalosporin antibiotics respectively before admission, and they had been at recovery stage when they were hospitalized. Thoracic close drainage and thoracoscopy were performed respectively in 18 cases and 3 cases, respectively. After a follow up of more than 6 months, chest CT showed that almost all lesions in lungs recovered during 4-6 months. No one received pneumonectomy. SPNP has special manifestations. The incidence in infants is higher. Patients' general condition is poor and febrile course is relatively long. All patients manifested fever and cough, with a presence of dyspnea in most of them. WBC, neutrophil and CRP elevated apparently. The characteristic of pleural effusion indicates empyema. In early stage, the chest X-ray and CT showed high-density lobar lesions, followed by low-density lesions and cyst gradually. Bulla of lung and/or hydropneumothorax may appear at the late stage. But if diagnosed and treated promptly, the prognosis of SPNP was relatively good." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0110_7544", "title": "Pleural fluid pH: diagnostic, therapeutic, and prognostic value.", "score": 0.012299566119600074, "content": "Measurement of pleural fluid pH has diagnostic, therapeutic, and prognostic implications in exudative pleural effusions (Table II). A parapneumonic effusion with a pleural fluid pH below 7.2 indicates an empyema is forming which necessitates chest tube drainage in all patients, whereas a pleural fluid pH over 7.3 does not require drainage. If the pH of a parapneumonic effusion is 7.2 to 7.3, serial pleural fluid pH measurements with clinical observation will help to determine the need for chest tube drainage. A pleural fluid glucose level of below 60 mg/dl and a lactic dehydrogenase level over 1,000 IU/dl in conjunction with a pleural fluid pH of 7.2 to 7.3 indicate an impending empyema. These findings are consistent with our clinical experience in patients with parapneumonic effusion. Tuberculous pleural effusions had a pleural fluid pH below 7.4 in all reported patients. This pH may be of value in distinguishing tuberculous pleural effusions from recent malignant effusions, which tend to have a higher pleural fluid pH, particularly if used in conjunction with other pleural fluid values, cell counts, and other clinical parameters. In patients with malignant pleural effusions, a pH of less than 7.3 is usually seen in those effusions present for several months and is associated with a lower glucose level and a higher white cell count and lactic dehydrogenase level. Results of cytologic study of the pleural fluid and pleural biopsy are often positive, there is poor response to sclerosing agents, and the prognosis is poor. A rheumatoid pleural effusion most often has a pleural fluid pH below 7.3. A pleural fluid pH below 6 is seen almost exclusively in esophageal rupture but rarely with empyemas, whereas a pleural fluid pH below 7 occurs in esophageal rupture, empyema, and rheumatoid pleural effusions. In pleural effusions secondary to congestive heart failure, the pH is almost always greater than 7.4 unless systemic acidemia coexists, in which case the pleural fluid pH is within 0.04 units of the simultaneous arterial pH. The major value of pleural fluid pH is to determine the need for chest tube drainage in parapneumonic effusions and to determine the response to sclerosing agents in patients with malignant pleural effusions. As with all diagnostic tests, the results should be interpreted in the context of other diagnostic tests of the pleural fluid and clinical aspects before diagnostic or therapeutic decisions are made." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0658_12328", "title": "Clinical and laboratory parameters of pleural tuberculosis.", "score": 0.012086004273504274, "content": "This prospective observational clinical study was done to find out the clinical and laboratory parameters of pleural tuberculosis patients, to find out a sensitive and specific tool for diagnosis and to see the effectively of a standard anti-TB regime Isoniazide, Rifampicine, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol, (2HRZE/4HR) for treatment of pleural tuberculosis in an adult medicine unit, department of Medicine, Chittagong Medical College Hospital, Chittagong, Bangladesh. A series of total thirty-three consecutive pleural tuberculosis patients admitted in that unit over a period of 6 months were enrolled. All thirty-three pleural tuberculosis patients were observed for their demographic and clinical parameters and undergone some relevant investigations like complete blood count, Mantoux test, pleural fluid study and pleural histopathological study. Later on, they were put on anti-tuberculosis therapy without steroid and followed their response after one month. All patients of pleural tuberculosis presented in this medicine unit had fever and cough associated with chest pain (87.9%), dysnoea (42.4%), haemoptysis (9.1%), weight loss (84.4%), anorexia (90.9%). Age of presentation was 34.1+/-16.2 years and of them, 60.7% patients were below 30. Mean Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) was 97.04 mm in 1st hour and 57.6% cases had ESR more than 100. 63.6% had Mantoux Test (MT) positive (&gt;10 mm). Only 6.1% had hemorrhagic effusion and others had straw colored fluid. Mean pleural fluid protein is 5.9 gram/L and sugar 65.7 mg/dl. No Acid Fast Bacilli (AFB) was seen on microscopy in pleural fluid. Pleural biopsy revealed 54.5% granulomatous lesion with or without caseation and another 24.2% shows chronic inflammation. Seventy seven percentage (77%) patients were attended follow-up clinic after 1 month and all patients (100%) were improved with this anti-TB therapy. Of the total patient treated with anti TB drug, 53.5% had no pleural effusion, other had minimum effusion. Only 6.06% require subsequent steroid addition and other measures. Pleural biopsy is the investigations of choice for pleural tuberculosis especially in resource poor countries. Pleural tuberculosis can be treated with a standard anti-TB regime successfully without steroid." }, { "id": "article-130747_47", "title": "Malignant Pleural Effusion -- Evaluation -- Histopathological Diagnosis", "score": 0.011858349577647823, "content": "Pleural Fluid Analysis - Normal physicochemical characteristics include pH between 7.60 and 7.64, protein levels of less than 2 percent (2 gm/dl), less than 100 WBC’s per cubic millimeter, Glucose content similar to that of plasma, LDH level less than half of that present within the plasma. The following parameters can be used in making a diagnosis of malignant etiology underlying the accumulation of pleural fluid – pH less than 7.30, LDH levels greater than 1000 U/l, reduced pleural fluid glucose concentration (30 to 50 mg/dl), lymphocyte values greater than 50 to 70%. [109] [115]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0494_6579", "title": "[Pleural mesothelioma: experience with 62 cases in 9 years].", "score": 0.011763555787278415, "content": "To describe the diagnostic approach, clinical and radiological characteristics, and survival of patients with pleural mesothelioma treated in our hospital over a 9-year period. All patients with a diagnosis of pleural mesothelioma diagnosed in our hospital from January 1992 through December 2000 were studied. Sixty-two patients (49 men) with a mean age of 65 years (range, 45-85) were diagnosed. Probable or known contact with asbestos was established for 41 patients (66%). Ninety-four percent of the patients had chest pain or dyspnea at the onset of clinical assessment. The tumor was situated in the right hemithorax in 33 patients; 59 patients had pleural effusion, and 3 only had pleural thickening. The pleural fluid was bloody in 19% of patients, glucose levels were less than 60 mg/dL in 44%, and the pH of pleural fluid was less than 7.20 in 19%. The diagnosis was established by pleural biopsy for 52%, and by thoracoscopy or thoracotomy for 44%. The median survival was 11 months (95% confidence interval, 8-15); the probability of survival was 0.22 after 2 years, and 0.09 after 5. For the subgroup of patients with epithelial tumors the probability of survival was 0.31 after 2 years and 0.16 after 5 years. In the univariate analysis the predictors of survival were general clinical status (Karnofsky scale), platelet count, serum albumin level, pleural pH, glucose and lactate dehydrogenase levels, and histological type. The clinical, radiological, and biochemical characteristics of the pleural fluid from patients with pleural mesothelioma and their survival rate were described." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en427_20595", "title": "Urinothorax", "score": 0.01171800571610035, "content": "Diagnosis Due to the main symptoms typically being urological rather than respiratory, the condition requires exclusion of other conditions and the identification of specific symptoms before diagnosis. Pleural fluid analysis is one way to diagnose the condition. The pleural fluid is most often straw-colored, and it has a distinct smell like ammonia. The fluid usually has a nucleated cell count between 50 and 1500 per cm3. The pH of the fluid is usually between 5 and 7. Primary factors for diagnosing urinothorax by pleural fluid include low protein and high lactate dehydrogenase content. Low glucose levels and acidity are also described, but are not reliable ways to diagnose or rule out urinothorax. The most important chemical diagnostic factor of the fluid is that the ratio of creatinine to serum is more than 1 and usually more than 10." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_89504", "title": "Pleurisy", "score": 0.011510296557025528, "content": "Sometimes an x-ray is taken while lying on the painful side. This may show fluid, as well as changes in fluid position, that did not appear in the vertical x-ray. Blood test Blood tests can detect bacterial or viral infections, pneumonia, rheumatic fever, a pulmonary embolism, or lupus. ECG Electrocardiography test can determine if a heart condition contributes to the symptoms. Ultrasound Ultrasonography uses sound waves to create an image. It may show where fluid is located in the chest. It also can show some tumors. Although ultrasound may detect fluid around the lungs, also known as a pleural effusion, sound waves are scattered by air. Therefore, an actual picture of the lungs cannot be obtained with ultrasonography. Computed tomography (CT) scan A CT scan provides a computer-generated picture of the lungs that can show pockets of fluid. It also may show signs of pneumonia, a lung abscess, or a tumor." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en056_29755", "title": "Hemothorax", "score": 0.011386775265244883, "content": "Although imaging techniques can demonstrate that fluid is present within the pleural space, it may be unclear what this fluid represents. To establish the nature of the fluid, a sample can be removed by inserting a needle into the pleural cavity in a procedure known as a thoracentesis or pleural tap. In this context, the most important assessment of the pleural fluid is the percentage by volume that is taken up by red blood cells (the hematocrit) A hemothorax is defined as having a hematocrit of at least 50% of that found in the affected person's blood, although the hematocrit of a chronic hemothorax may be between 25 and 50% if additional fluid has been secreted by the pleura. Pleural fluid can dilute hemothoraces in as low as 3–4 days. The red blood cells in the effusion spontaneously break down. Distinguishing the pleural fluid from blood by colour is impossible when the hematocrit value is over 5%. For these reasons, even if there is a hematocrit value under 50%, further" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0570_2075", "title": "[Case of tuberculous pleurisy with eosinophilic pleural effusion and hematological eosinophilia].", "score": 0.011314433804241332, "content": "A 30-year-old man suffered from a chest-pain on his left side and was also having a low-grade fever though he actually neglected these symptoms for a while. Later, he was referred to our hospital due to the detection of chest abnormal shadows through the mass examination of chest X-ray taken on 18th October, 2005. His chest X-ray showed bilateral pleural effusion and it was confirmed that the right pleural effusion was encapsulated by his chest CT. The patient's hematological examination performed during his initial visit, showed an increased level of WBC with blood eosinophilia. He also had a puncture of pleural effusion at the time of admission to the center. Moreover, pleural effusion on both sides was exudative and elevations of ADA and eosinophil count as well were traced. In the patient's right pleural effusion, mycobacterium tuberculosis direct (MTD) test was positive. As there were no findings suggesting collagen disease, malignancy, parasite infection, and other complications, he was diagnosed as tuberculous pleurisy with eosinophilic pleural effusion and blood eosinophilia. He was treated with four antitubercular agents, namely, INH, RFP, EB and PZA. As the result, his pleural effusion and blood eosinophil counts were decreased along with an improvement in inflammatory reaction. The most common conditions associated with eosinophilic pleural effusion are described as malignancy, collagen disease, paragonimiasis, drug induced pleurisy, asbestosis, pneumothorax, and trauma, while there are only a few reports about such eosinophilic pleural effusion caused by tuberculous pleurisy. In this case, he also showed blood eosinophilia. Based on these findings, we finally came to the conclusion that the case is a very rare and significantly unique case of eosinophilic pleurisy with blood eosinophilia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_101881", "title": "Pleural effusion", "score": 0.011286325749042578, "content": "Chemical composition including protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), albumin, amylase, pH, and glucose Gram stain and culture to identify possible bacterial infections White and red blood cell counts and differential white blood cell counts Cytopathology to identify cancer cells, but may also identify some infective organisms Other tests as suggested by the clinical situation – lipids, fungal culture, viral culture, tuberculosis cultures, lupus cell prep, specific immunoglobulins Light's criteria Definitions of the terms \"transudate\" and \"exudate\" are the source of much confusion. Briefly, transudate is produced through pressure filtration without capillary injury while exudate is \"inflammatory fluid\" leaking between cells." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_151657", "title": "Bornholm disease", "score": 0.011097440351258113, "content": "Physical exam findings In a studied case of Bornholm disease the chest pain was unable to be reproduced on palpation and failed to improve with changes in position. The pain was made worse during deep inhalation. A pleural rub was present, however lung auscultation was clear and rashes were absent. Laboratory findings and imaging In a prior case of Bornholm disease the laboratory results showed the white blood cell count, hemoglobin, hematocrit, creatinine, liver function test (LFT), troponin, and creatine kinase (CK) were all within normal limits. The chest x-ray showed bilateral pleural effusions which resolved after infection. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels were found to be elevated. The electrocardiogram (EKG) did not show any abnormalities related to ischemia." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_13324", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01107130417475245, "content": "The fluid is straw colored and at times hemorrhagic; it is an exudate with a protein concentration >50% of that in serum (usually ~4–6 g/dL), a normal to low glucose concentration, a pH of ~7.3 (occasionally <7.2), and detectable white blood cells (usually 500–6000/μL). Neutrophils may predominate in the early stage, but lymphocyte predominance is the typical finding later. Mesothelial cells are generally rare or absent. AFB are rarely seen on direct smear, and cultures often may be falsely negative for M. tuberculosis; positive cultures are more common among postprimary cases. Determination of the pleural concentration of adenosine deaminase (ADA) may be a useful screening test, and TB may be excluded if the value is very low. Lysozyme is also present in the pleural effusion. Measurement of IFN-γ, either directly or through stimulation of sensitized T cells with mycobacterial antigens, can be helpful. Needle biopsy of the pleura is often required for diagnosis and is recommended over" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en015_101880", "title": "Pleural effusion", "score": 0.010838045527040742, "content": "Thoracentesis Once a pleural effusion is diagnosed, its cause must be determined. Pleural fluid is drawn out of the pleural space in a process called thoracentesis, and it should be done in almost all patients who have pleural fluid that is at least 10 mm in thickness on CT, ultrasonography, or lateral decubitus X-ray and that is new or of uncertain etiology. In general, the only patients who do not require thoracentesis are those who have heart failure with symmetric pleural effusions and no chest pain or fever; in these patients, diuresis can be tried, and thoracentesis is avoided unless effusions persist for more than 3 days. In a thoracentesis, a needle is inserted through the back of the chest wall in the sixth, seventh, or eighth intercostal space on the midaxillary line, into the pleural space. The use of ultrasound to guide the procedure is now standard of care as it increases accuracy and decreases complications. After removal, the fluid may then be evaluated for:" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_106209", "title": "Ascites", "score": 0.010747303543913712, "content": "Classification Ascites exists in three grades: Grade 1: mild, only visible on ultrasound and CT Grade 2: detectable with flank bulging and shifting dullness Grade 3: directly visible, confirmed with the fluid wave/thrill test Pathophysiology Ascitic fluid can accumulate as a transudate or an exudate. Amounts of up to 35 liters are possible. Roughly, transudates are a result of increased pressure in the hepatic portal vein (>8 mmHg, usually around 20 mmHg (e.g., due to cirrhosis), while exudates are actively secreted fluid due to inflammation or malignancy. As a result, exudates are high in protein and lactate dehydrogenase and have a low pH (<7.30), a low glucose level, and more white blood cells. Transudates have low protein (<30 g/L), low LDH, high pH, normal glucose, and fewer than 1 white cell per 1000 mm3. Clinically, the most useful measure is the difference between ascitic and serum albumin concentrations. A difference of less than 1 g/dl (10 g/L) implies an exudate." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 174 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 25 ] ], "text": "Currently the only effective treatment capable of modifying the natural course of respiratory allergy is specific allergen immunotherapy for a minimum of 3 consecutive years." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 174 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 25 ] ], "text": "Currently the only effective treatment capable of modifying the natural course of respiratory allergy is specific allergen immunotherapy for a minimum of 3 consecutive years." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 473, 617 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 79, 100 ] ], "text": "Omalizumab is a biological treatment that would only be indicated in cases of severe moderate bronchial asthma secondary to respiratory allergy." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 473, 617 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 79, 100 ] ], "text": "Omalizumab is a biological treatment that would only be indicated in cases of severe moderate bronchial asthma secondary to respiratory allergy." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Specific immunotherapy by sublingual or subcutaneous route for a minimum period of 3 years.", "2": "Specific immunotherapy by sublingual or subcutaneous route for a maximum period of 1 year.", "3": "Omalizumab subcutaneously every 4 weeks for up to 1 year.", "4": "Omalizumab subcutaneously every 4 weeks for a minimum period of 6 months.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0596_8782", "title": "Comparison of the long-term efficacy of subcutaneous and sublingual immunotherapies in perennial rhinitis.", "score": 0.019424799622819428, "content": "Both sublingual and subcutaneous immunotherapies have a documented clinical efficacy, but only a few comparative studies have been performed. To evaluate and compare the long-term efficacies of subcutaneous and sublingual immunotherapy. One hundred and ninety-three patients with house dust mite allergies, out of an original total of 230, were treated with subcutaneous and sublingual house dust mite-specific immunotherapies for 3 years and also observed for 3 years after discontinuation of the treatment. The patients were randomized into 2 groups: the sublingual group (97 patients) and the subcutaneous group (96 patients). The therapy's success was evaluated using the symptom score, skin prick test results, and the nasal allergen challenge score. The patients were evaluated at the beginning of the study, at the end of years 1, 2, and 3, and also at the end of the 1st and 3rd years after discontinuation of the specific immunotherapy treatment. Immunotherapy induced a significant improvement during the treatment and the follow-up period. We found a greater improvement in the subcutaneous group compared to the sublingual group when we looked at the comparative results of the total 6 years. We suggest subcutaneous immunotherapy for patients with perennial allergic rhinitis due to the better results that were obtained during our study period. Nevertheless, sublingual immunotherapy is now accepted by WHO as a valid alternative to the subcutaneous route and should be used in all patients who require immunotherapy and do not accept the subcutaneous route of allergen administration." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1047_5404", "title": "Compliance in subcutaneous and sublingual allergen immunotherapy: A nationwide study.", "score": 0.017908538535337384, "content": "Allergic rhino-conjunctivitis is a highly prevalent condition. In moderate to severe cases, allergen immunotherapy (AIT) is a cost-effective therapeutic option. Previous data have reported a large difference in treatment compliance of subcutaneously (SCIT) and sublingually (SLIT) administered AIT. By use of the unique civil registration number assigned to all Danish citizens and the Danish National Health Service Prescription Database, compliance rates of all patients prescribed with grass pollen AIT from January 1998 until December 2016 were analysed annually during the three-year treatment period. The male/female ratio was close to 1:1 in SCIT, while SLIT was more frequently used by men. A large proportion of users was children or adolescents (32% and 45%, SCIT and SLIT, respectively). Compliance of both subcutaneous and sublingual treatment gradually fell each year; compliance in year 3 was 57% and 53% for subcutaneous and sublingual treatment, respectively. Compliance of grass pollen sublingual treatment was also analysed each year after registration on the Danish market. Compliance significantly increased following the introduction and stabilised on a relatively high level. Based on previous studies, we hypothesised that AIT compliance would be low, especially in SLIT. However, in Denmark, compliance in SCIT and SLIT was almost similar, and the majority of patients completed the three-year treatment period with a compliance in the last quintile." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0697_21253", "title": "Specific immunotherapy for allergic rhinitis to grass and tree pollens in daily medical practice-symptom load with sublingual immunotherapy compared to subcutaneous immunotherapy.", "score": 0.01655719759168035, "content": "Abstract Background. Despite strong evidence for subcutaneous and sublingual immunotherapy for the treatment of allergic rhinoconjunctivitis, comparative data are scarce. Objectives. We performed an individual patient data meta-analysis of four observational studies to compare the effectiveness of both application routes. Methods. After individual analysis, a subsequent analysis of the total data pool was performed. Descriptive and explorative data analysis methods were used. Results. Altogether 847 patients (382 male, 453 female) aged 3-78 years (mean age 28.3 years) were treated with specific immunotherapy: 665 (78.5%) patients sublingual and 182 (21.5%) subcutaneous. The majority of patients (61.6%) in both treatment groups started specific immunotherapy due to severe rhinitis symptoms which occurred frequently or very frequently. Most patients in both treatment groups had moderate to severe conjunctivitis symptom load which occurred frequently or very frequently. Median rhinitis and conjunctivitis symptom loads decreased during both treatments to the same extent. Similar improvements in the symptom loads were observed in patients stratified for age, disease duration, and presence or absence of mild to moderate asthma. Conclusion. The effectiveness of sublingual and subcutaneous immunotherapy with pollen extracts appeared virtually equal in daily medical routine. Due to the advantageous safety profile, the sublingual application may be favorable." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1144_18208", "title": "Long-term efficacy of the sublingual and subcutaneous routes in allergen immunotherapy.", "score": 0.01605126253013577, "content": "Allergen immunotherapy is highly effective in selected patients with allergic rhinitis, allergic asthma, and Hymenoptera venom allergy. Unlike anti-allergic drugs, both subcutaneous and sublingual immunotherapies have been shown to modify the underlying cause of the disease, with proved long-term clinical benefits after treatment cessation. In this review, we analyzed 10 randomized, double-blind, placebo controlled clinical trials of allergen immunotherapy that included blinded follow-up for at least 1 year after treatment withdrawal. Three studies of pollen subcutaneous immunotherapy provided evidence that a sustained, tolerogenic effect of subcutaneous immunotherapy can be achieved after 3 years of treatment. Six trials of sublingual immunotherapy provided robust evidence for long-term clinical benefit and persistent immunologic changes after grass pollen, house-dust mite, or Japanese cedar immunotherapy, whereas a clinical trial of both sublingual and subcutaneous grass pollen immunotherapies showed that 2 years of immunotherapy were efficacious but insufficient to induce long-term tolerance. These studies strongly supported international guidelines that recommend at least 3 years of allergen immunotherapy of proven value to achieve disease modification and sustained clinical and immunologic tolerance." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en045_50546", "title": "Allergen immunotherapy", "score": 0.015603408567480425, "content": "Sublingual Sublingual immunotherapy involves putting drops or a tablet of allergen extracts under the tongue, which are then absorbed through the lining of the mouth. Sublingual immunotherapy has been demonstrated to be effective against rhinoconjuctivitis and asthma symptoms. This effectiveness, however, varies depending on the type of allergen. The strongest evidence for the efficacy of sublingual immunotherapy comes from studies that used grass allergens or mite allergens to alleviate allergic rhinitis symptoms; the evidence shows modest improvement. Sublingual immunotherapy is used to treat allergic rhinitis, often from seasonal allergies, and is typically given in several doses over a 12-week period. It works best when given 12 weeks before the start of the pollen season. The first dose is given by a physician to monitor for any rare reactions or anaphylaxis. Subsequent doses can be taken at home which makes this a convenient alternative to subcutaneous immunotherapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0290_6014", "title": "[Oral immunotherapy in oculorhinitis from Gramineae].", "score": 0.01554001554001554, "content": "We have evaluated the efficacy of oral immunotherapy in 34 patients affected by seasonal allergic rhinoconjunctivitis due to grass pollen. Diagnosis was performed on the basis of medical history, Skin Prick Test and Rast and the mean duration of the disease was 6 years. The treatment started in November and consisted of increasing daily doses of allergen; when the maximum dose was reached, it was continued twice a week till April. After two years of treatment we observed a statistically significant reduction in the severity of the symptoms considered and in the amount of oral antihistamines taken during the pollen season. The treatment was well tolerated and patients did not experienced any adverse effect. We therefore conclude that oral immunotherapy is a valid alternative to traditional subcutaneous immunotherapy in the treatment of seasonal allergic rhinoconjunctivitis due to grass pollen." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0961_24306", "title": "Duration of Allergen Immunotherapy for Long-Term Efficacy in Allergic Rhinoconjunctivitis.", "score": 0.015229885057471264, "content": "Subcutaneous and sublingual immunotherapy are effective for allergic rhinitis. An important question is whether allergen immunotherapy provides a sustained clinical effect after treatment cessation. In view of potential side effects, cost and the necessary patient commitment, long-term benefit is an important consideration for the recommendation of immunotherapy over standard pharmacotherapy. In this review, we analyse the existing evidence for long-term effects of both routes of administration in the context of double-blind, placebo-controlled, randomised clinical trials that included a follow-up phase of at least 1 year after treatment cessation. Overall, evidence suggests that 3 years of either subcutaneous or sublingual immunotherapy result in clinical benefit and immunological changes consistent with allergen-specific tolerance sustained for at least 2-3 years after treatment cessation. The data presented here support recommendations in international guidelines that both routes of administration should be continued for a minimum of 3 years. Gaps in the evidence remain regarding the long-term efficacy of immunotherapy for perennial rhinitis and studies performed in children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1108_17826", "title": "Effectiveness of Sublingual Immunotherapy in the Treatment of HDM-Induced Nasobronchial Allergies: A 3-Year Randomized Case-Control Study From Kashmir.", "score": 0.014699173805058544, "content": "Allergen immunotherapy (AIT) is the only disease-modifying treatment for allergic disorders that induces immunological tolerance through administration of specific allergens. Studies on AIT for subcutaneous route are in abundance; however, the efficacy of AIT in tablet form through sublingual route has not been well elucidated. The present prospective, parallel-group, controlled study sought to compare the efficacy of sublingual immunotherapy (SLIT) tablets with pharmacotherapy (PT) in 332 house dust mite (HDM)-specific allergic asthma and/or rhinitis patients over a period of 3 years. Patients were followed up for a 6-month run-in period and then randomly stratified as those who would receive SLIT, SLIT in addition to PT (SLIT+PT), and PT alone. AIT was administered in the form of sublingual tablets. Symptom and medication scores were measured every 3 months. <iIn vitro</i evaluation of serum total and HDM specific immunoglobulin E (HDM sIgE) levels was carried out every 3 months, whereas <iin vivo</i skin prick test was performed annually for 3 years. Our study demonstrated sustained clinical improvement, reduction in inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) dose and duration as well as prevention from development of neosensitization to other aero allergens in HDM-allergic asthmatics and/or rhinitis patients treated with 3 years SLIT. Despite a remarkable clinical improvement with AIT, we observed that SLIT did not significantly change the skin reactivity to HDM at 3 years and there was no significant change in the ratio of serum total and HDM sIgE. Given the immune and disease modifying effects of AIT in allergic diseases, the present study supports the notion of its sublingual mode being an effective long-term immunomodulator in HDM-sensitized nasobronchial allergies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0834_19233", "title": "Efficacy of Grass Pollen Allergen Sublingual Immunotherapy Tablets for Seasonal Allergic Rhinoconjunctivitis: A Systematic Review and Meta-analysis.", "score": 0.014443791617704661, "content": "Randomized clinical trials (RCTs) and meta-analyses of sublingual immunotherapy (SLIT) for the treatment of seasonal allergic rhinoconjunctivitis (SARC) have shown a modest clinical benefit compared with placebo. Furthermore, indirect comparison by meta-analyses showed that subcutaneous immunotherapy is more effective than SLIT. Despite these data, SLIT has become the most prescribed treatment of SARC in Europe in recent years, and it was approved by the US Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of SARC to grass pollen in the United States on April 1, 2014. To assess the efficacy and safety of the grass pollen sublingual tablets licensed as drugs in the treatment of patients with SARC to grass pollen. Computerized bibliographic searches of MEDLINE, EMBASE, the Cochrane Library, and ClinicalTrials.gov (from inception to April 30, 2014) were supplemented with a manual search of reference lists. Randomized clinical trials were included if they compared the grass pollen SLIT tablets approved by regulatory authorities in the European Union and the United States for SARC with placebo. Data on populations, interventions, and outcomes were extracted from each RCT according to the intent-to-treat method by 2 independent observers and were combined using the method by DerSimonian and Laird. The primary end point was the difference in the symptom score and medication score between SLIT and placebo. We pooled data using random-effects meta-analysis, with standardized mean differences (SMDs) and 95% CIs reported. Data were available in 13 RCTs for the symptom score (4659 patients) and in 12 RCTs for the medication score (4558 patients). We found a small treatment benefit in the symptom score (SMD, -0.28; 95% CI, -0.37 to -0.19; P &lt; .001) and in the medication score (SMD, -0.24; 95% CI, -0.31 to -0.17; P &lt; .001). Adverse events were reported in 1384 of 2259 patients (61.3%) receiving SLIT and in 477 of 2279 patients (20.9%) receiving placebo. Seven patients in the SLIT group reported treatment-related adverse events requiring epinephrine. Findings show a small benefit of the grass pollen sublingual tablets in reducing symptoms and in decreasing the use of symptomatic medication (antihistamines and corticosteroids) in patients with SARC. Considering the low magnitude of the benefit, the convenience and easy administration do not seem to be sufficient reasons for the choice of SLIT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0549_7444", "title": "Efficacy and safety of sublingual immunotherapy with grass allergen tablets for seasonal allergic rhinoconjunctivitis.", "score": 0.014346764346764346, "content": "Allergen immunotherapy (desensitization) by injection is effective for seasonal allergic rhinitis and has been shown to induce long-term disease remission. The sublingual route also has potential, although definitive evidence from large randomized controlled trials has been lacking. The aim was to confirm the efficacy of a rapidly dissolving grass allergen tablet (GRAZAX, ALK-Abelló, Hørsholm, Denmark) compared with placebo in patients with seasonal rhinoconjunctivitis. A longitudinal, double-blind, placebo-controlled, parallel-group study that included 51 centers from 8 countries. Subjects were randomized (1:1) to receive a grass allergen tablet or placebo once daily. A total of 634 subjects with a history of grass pollen-induced rhinoconjunctivitis for at least 2 years and confirmation of IgE sensitivity (positive skin prick test and serum-specific IgE) were included in the study. Subjects commenced treatment at least 16 weeks before the grass pollen season, and treatment was continued throughout the entire season. The primary efficacy analysis showed a reduction of 30% in rhinoconjunctivitis symptom score (P &lt; .0001) and a reduction of 38% in rhinoconjunctivitis medication score (P &lt; .0001) compared with placebo. Side effects mainly comprised mild itching and swelling in the mouth that was in general well tolerated and led to treatment withdrawal in less than 4% of participants. There were no serious local side effects and no severe systemic adverse events. Sublingual immunotherapy with grass allergen tablets was effective in grass pollen-induced rhinoconjunctivitis. The tablet was well tolerated with minor local side effects. The grass allergen tablet represents a safe alternative to injection immunotherapy suitable for home use." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0479_1332", "title": "Double-blind, placebo-controlled study with sublingual immunotherapy in children with seasonal allergic rhinitis to grass pollen.", "score": 0.01400898507318487, "content": "Sublingual immunotherapy (SLIT) has been recognized as a viable alternative to subcutaneous immunotherapy for respiratory allergies both in adults and children, but clinical documentation about safety and efficacy in children is still poor. The purpose of this study was to assess the efficacy and tolerance of SLIT in children who are sensitized to grass pollen. Children with a clinical history of intermittent rhinoconjunctivitis, with or without mild asthma and positive skin prick tests to grass pollen, were selected to participate in a 2-year double-blind, placebo-controlled study with SLIT, using a grass extract (ALK-Abellò). 22 children were analyzed at the end of the study. No relevant side effects occurred in the active group. A statistically significant difference (p = 0.05; Mann-Whitney test) in favor of the active group (n = 10) could be shown for drug consumption during the second year, as well as a significant improvement as compared to the first year of SLIT (p = 0.05; Wilcoxon test). Despite the small number of patients, our data suggest that SLIT with a grass pollen extract is well tolerated in children and is able to significantly reduce drug consumption during the second year of treatment. Studies in larger groups of children sensitized to both grass and tree pollens are needed to definitively assess the role of SLIT in intermittent, seasonal rhinitis and pollen asthma." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_57708", "title": "Allergic rhinitis", "score": 0.013954094940010433, "content": "Allergen immunotherapy Allergen immunotherapy (AIT, also termed desensitization) treatment involves administering doses of allergens to accustom the body to substances that are generally harmless (pollen, house dust mites), thereby inducing specific long-term tolerance. Allergen immunotherapy is the only treatment that alters the disease mechanism. Immunotherapy can be administered orally (as sublingual tablets or sublingual drops), or by injections under the skin (subcutaneous). Subcutaneous immunotherapy is the most common form and has the largest body of evidence supporting its effectiveness." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0476_3282", "title": "[Comparison of injection-related and local immunotherapy].", "score": 0.013947469325153374, "content": "Allergen-specific immunotherapy is a well-accepted method in the management of respiratory allergic diseases, applied since over 90 years. Traditional immunotherapy is the practice of subcutaneous administering to subjects with allergy, increasing amounts of modified allergen to achieve hyposensitisation. Recently other routes of allergen administration were proposed including bronchial, nasal, oral and sublingual routes. Controlled trials failed to demonstrate the clinical efficacy and the safety of oral and bronchial administration. Nasal immunotherapy is also declining due to limited efficacy and special administration technique. The sublingual route is safe and efficacious. Unfortunately, up to date no well-designed controlled study comparing subcutaneous with sublingual methods of immunotherapy is available. Still several points need to be elucidated, including long lasting efficacy, mechanism of action, optimal dose, adherence to this therapy and cost-effectiveness. However, sublingual immunotherapy is now accepted by WHO as a valid alternative to the subcutaneous route and should be used in all patients who require immunotherapy and do not accept subcutaneous route of allergen administration. One question is presently beyond discussion: it is better to administer sublingual immunotherapy in patients with allergic diseases than not to give immunotherapy at all." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en038_37787", "title": "Omalizumab", "score": 0.01339437738847478, "content": "Chronic spontaneous urticaria Omalizumab is indicated for chronic spontaneous urticaria in adults and adolescents (>12 years old) poorly responsive to H1-antihistamine therapy. When administered subcutaneously once every four weeks, omalizumab has been shown to significantly decrease itch severity and hive count. Adverse effects The main adverse effect is anaphylaxis (a life-threatening systemic allergic reaction), with a rate of occurrence of 1 to 2 patients per 1,000." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0738_6342", "title": "Efficacy of subcutaneous and sublingual immunotherapy with grass allergens for seasonal allergic rhinitis: a meta-analysis-based comparison.", "score": 0.013353856394042764, "content": "Subcutaneous (SCIT) and sublingual (SLIT) immunotherapy are the 2 most prescribed routes for administering allergen-specific immunotherapy. They were shown to be effective in control of symptoms and in reducing rescue medication use in patients with allergic diseases, but their effectiveness has to be balanced against side effects. In recent years, SLIT has been increasingly prescribed, instead of SCIT, because of improved safety and easy administration. We assessed which route is the most effective in the treatment of patients with seasonal allergic rhinitis to grass pollen. An indirect meta-analysis-based comparison between SCIT and SLIT was performed. Treatment efficacy was determined as the standardized mean difference (SMD) in symptom and medication scores obtained with active treatment, SCIT or SLIT, compared with placebo. Studies were included if they were double-blind randomized controlled trials comparing SCIT or SLIT with placebo. Thirty-six randomized controlled trials (3014 patients; 2768 controls) were analyzed. The overall effect size of SCIT for symptom score (SMD, -0.92; 95%CI, -1.26 to -0.58) was significantly higher than SLIT, both administered via drops (SMD, -0.25; 95% CI, -0.45 to -0.05) and tablets (SMD, -0.40; 95%CI, -0.54 to -0.27). Similar results were reported for medication score (SCIT: SMD, -0.58; 95% CI, -0.86 to -0.30. SLIT drops: SMD, -0.37; 95% CI, -0.74 to -0.00. SLIT tablets SMD, -0.30; 95% CI, -0.44 to -0.16). Our results provide indirect but solid evidence that SCIT is more effective than SLIT in controlling symptoms and in reducing the use of antiallergic medications in seasonal allergic rhinoconjuntivitis to grass pollen." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en045_50542", "title": "Allergen immunotherapy", "score": 0.01325773027657665, "content": "Side effects during sublingual immunotherapy treatment are usually local and mild and can often be eliminated by adjusting the dosage. Anaphylaxis during sublingual immunotherapy treatment has occurred on rare occasions. Potential side effects related to subcutaneous immunotherapy treatment for asthma and allergic rhinoconjunctivitis include mild or moderate skin or respiratory reactions. Severe side effects such as anaphylaxis during subcutaneous immunotherapy treatment are relatively uncommon. Discovered by Leonard Noon and John Freeman in 1911, allergen immunotherapy is the only medicine known to tackle not only the symptoms but also the causes of respiratory allergies. A detailed diagnosis is necessary to identify the allergens involved. Types" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_84930", "title": "Pollen", "score": 0.0131341645103113, "content": "Treatment Antihistamines are effective at treating mild cases of pollinosis; this type of non-prescribed drugs includes loratadine, cetirizine and chlorpheniramine. They do not prevent the discharge of histamine, but it has been proven that they do prevent a part of the chain reaction activated by this biogenic amine, which considerably lowers hay fever symptoms. Decongestants can be administered in different ways such as tablets and nasal sprays. Allergy immunotherapy (AIT) treatment involves administering doses of allergens to accustom the body to pollen, thereby inducing specific long-term tolerance. Allergy immunotherapy can be administered orally (as sublingual tablets or sublingual drops), or by injections under the skin (subcutaneous). Discovered by Leonard Noon and John Freeman in 1911, allergy immunotherapy represents the only causative treatment for respiratory allergies." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en045_50543", "title": "Allergen immunotherapy", "score": 0.012759710930442638, "content": "Types Subcutaneous Subcutaneous immunotherapy (SCIT), also known as allergy shots, is the historical route of administration and consists of injections of allergen extract, which must be performed by a medical professional. Subcutaneous immunotherapy protocols generally involve weekly injections during a build-up phase, followed by monthly a maintenance phase that consists of injections for a period of 3–5 years. The build-up phase involves the patient being administered injections which contain increasing amounts of allergens about one to two times per week. The length of the build-up phase is dependent upon how often injections are administered, but normally ranges from three to six months. After the effective dose is reached, the maintenance phase is implemented, which varies depending upon an individual’s response to the build-up phase." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0690_9084", "title": "Both sublingual and supralingual routes of administration are effective in long-term allergen-specific immunotherapy.", "score": 0.011744281045751634, "content": "The aim of this study was to confirm or refute the difference between efficacy of long-term specific immunotherapy (SIT) with standardized allergen vaccine consisting of six grass pollens (oat grass, orchard grass, fescue, rye grass, timothy grass, and rye) administered either by sublingual or by supralingual route. To investigate clinical and immunologic changes, 51 patients of a previous 1-year double-blind, placebo-controlled, randomized study were enrolled in an open randomized study that continued over the next 3 years. Sublingual or supralingual immunotherapy (SLIT) was performed in the same way, keeping the drops under or on the tongue, respectively, for 1-2 minutes before swallowing them. Data about symptoms scores and rescue medication intake during grass pollen seasons, as well as skin-prick test results, levels of specific IgG, and IgE antibodies were collected after each pollen season. It was clearly shown that both routes of administration were effective, leading to a significant decrease of clinical symptoms of grass pollen allergy after SIT lasting 3-4 years. No statistically significant difference between sublingually and supralingually treated patients was observed at the end of the study. Adverse effects were limited to a small number of generally mild local and/or systemic reactions with no significant difference between both administration ways of SIT. The significant therapeutic effect of both SLIT and supralingual immunotherapy lasting 3-4 years was clearly achieved. Despite no significant difference between efficacy of both administration ways of SIT, the onset of sublingual SIT effect seems to be slightly faster than that of supralingual SIT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0779_17612", "title": "The placebo effect in allergen-specific immunotherapy trials.", "score": 0.011664286200095218, "content": "Double-blind, placebo-controlled (DBPC) trials are the gold standard for demonstrating clinical efficacy and tolerability. The placebo effect, although an important feature in placebo-controlled studies, has never been systematically investigated in allergen-specific immunotherapy (SIT) studies. This study was performed to examine the placebo response in SIT trials that employed a baseline observational period and two treatment years using a symptom-medication-score (SMS) as the primary endpoint. The placebo effect was evaluated in six DBPC SIT studies (five studies using subcutaneous SIT (SCIT) and one sublingual (SLIT)), two grass, two birch and two house dust mite (HDM) SIT, including a total of 472 adult patients treated with a placebo. The results were reported as changes from baseline of the SMS area under the curve after two years of perennial placebo therapy during the respective evaluation periods. Pollen counts and IgG4 levels were additionally analysed. Subcutaneously treated placebo patients displayed a marked decrease in the SMS. The mean placebo effect in the SCIT trials with comparable allergen exposure was up to 41% in the second treatment year and, in contrast, reached only 1% in the SLIT trial. Allergen exposure had an inverse influence on the placebo effect. No changes from baseline in allergen specific IgG4 antibodies were observed in the placebo-treated patients. SIT studies display a significant placebo effect, mainly observed in subcutaneous immunotherapy, with high variability depending on the route of application and allergen exposure. Our findings indicate the differential role of the placebo effect in SIT efficacy depending on the route of administration and pollen exposure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0973_8916", "title": "Efficacy and safety of birch pollen allergoid subcutaneous immunotherapy: A 2-year double-blind, placebo-controlled, randomized trial plus 1-year open-label extension.", "score": 0.011589458176460959, "content": "Previous clinical trials with birch pollen subcutaneous immunotherapy have been conducted over a 1- to 2-year treatment period and involved mostly a single geographic location. This study (EudraCT-Number: 2005-000025-35) intended to evaluate the effect of subcutaneous immunotherapy with high-dose hypoallergenic birch pollen allergoid in patients with confirmed moderate to severe seasonal allergic rhinitis/rhinoconjunctivitis over a 3-year course in 19 European centres. Adults with confirmed birch pollen allergy (n = 253) were randomized to preseasonal placebo (n = 129) or active treatment (n = 124). Primary endpoint was change in Symptom Medication Score after 2 years treatment (2007). The change in Symptom Medication Score of active- vs placebo-treated patients for the Full Analysis Set (n = 227, 15.2% reduction, P = 0.0710) and Per-Protocol Set (n = 216, 16.7% reduction, P = 0.0523) showed a positive trend, although significance was not achieved. The primary endpoint, assessed in 2007, coincided with the lowest pollination during the study period. In a subgroup analysis of patients in the north-eastern region (n = 102), where birch is the major tree and consequently patients' exposure is higher, changes in Symptom Medication Score (32.7% reduction, P = 0.0034) and median number of well days (P = 0.0232) were highly significant in favour of the active group. During the open-label third year of treatment, the mean Symptom Medication Score of active-treated patients was further reduced despite an increased pollen count. Subcutaneous immunotherapy was well tolerated and consistent with the known safety profile. Although the primary endpoint was not reached for the Full Analysis Set, a significant and clinically relevant effect on Symptom Medication Score was clearly demonstrated for the subgroup of patients in the north-eastern region of Europe, where birch is the predominant tree species. Proving efficacy of birch allergen subcutaneous immunotherapy is challenging due to the numerous factors influencing birch pollen allergen exposure in field studies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0602_7531", "title": "Double-blind, placebo-controlled evaluation of grass pollen specific immunotherapy with oral drops administered sublingually or supralingually.", "score": 0.011562041849926697, "content": "Forty-one patients suffering from grass pollen allergy underwent specific immunotherapy with standardized allergen extract consisting of six grass pollens (H-Al per os) administered either sublingually or supralingually for one year. In order to investigate clinical and immunological changes induced by the administration of allergens via the oral mucosa, the double-blind, placebo-controlled, randomized design of the trial with 30 other patients enrolled in placebo groups was applied. Specific immunotherapy with oral drops administered sublingually or supralingually was performed in the same way, keeping the drops under or on the tongue, respectively, for 1-2 min before swallowing them; at the end of the trial the cumulative dose of the allergen was almost 20 times higher than that of the subcutaneous therapy with corresponding allergen preparation. Data about symptoms scores and drugs intake during grass pollen season, as well as skin reactivity, levels of specific IgG and IgE antibodies, before the study and after the study's completion, were obtained. It was found that both routes of administration are effective according to subjective clinical parameters and drug consumption, with a highly significant reduction of symptoms and drug intake favoring sublingual administration where a reduction of more than 60% was achieved. Only sublingual active group showed a significant increase in Dactylis glomerata-specific IgG serum levels. Adverse effects were limited to a small number of generally mild local and/or systemic reactions. The results suggest that the administration of allergens via the oral mucosa is safe and clinically effective, favoring the sublingual rather than supralingual route." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en040_16139", "title": "Allergic conjunctivitis", "score": 0.011378608216552882, "content": "Many of the eye drops can cause burning and stinging, and have side-effects. Proper eye hygiene can improve symptoms, especially with contact lenses. Avoiding precipitants, such as pollen or mold can be preventative. Immunotherapy Allergen immunotherapy (AIT) treatment involves administering doses of allergens to accustom the body to substances that are generally harmless (pollen, house dust mites), thereby inducing specific long-term tolerance. Allergy immunotherapy can be administered orally (as sublingual tablets or sublingual drops), or by injections under the skin (subcutaneous). Discovered by Leonard Noon and John Freeman in 1911, allergy immunotherapy represents the only causative treatment for respiratory allergies." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en045_50544", "title": "Allergen immunotherapy", "score": 0.011207162704538438, "content": "When accounting for a person’s age, type of allergen, and severity of allergy, there is a high probability that subcutaneous allergen immunotherapy may provide greater clinical and immunological responses than sublingual allergen immunotherapy. Compared to sublingual allergen immunotherapy, there are no significant differences observed in quality of life. It is possible, but rare (1/2.5 million), that people undergoing subcutaneous allergen immunotherapy may experience a fatal anaphylactic event. Subcutaneous allergen immunotherapy adverse events vary significantly depending on different allergenic extracts and the application of different allergen immunotherapy schedules." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0505_17051", "title": "Coseasonal sublingual immunotherapy reduces the development of asthma in children with allergic rhinoconjunctivitis.", "score": 0.01079844826587922, "content": "We wondered whether short-term coseasonal sublingual immunotherapy (SLIT) can reduce the development of asthma in children with hay fever in an open randomized study. We sought to determine whether SLIT is as effective as subcutaneous immunotherapy in reducing hay fever symptoms and the development of asthma in children with hay fever. One hundred thirteen children aged 5 to 14 years (mean age, 7.7 years) with hay fever limited to grass pollen and no other clinically important allergies were randomized in an open study involving 6 Italian pediatric allergy centers to receive specific SLIT for 3 years or standard symptomatic therapy. All of the subjects had hay fever symptoms, but at the time of study entry, none reported seasonal asthma with more than 3 episodes per season. Symptomatic treatment was limited to cetirizine, loratadine, nasal budesonide, and salbutamol on demand. The hay fever and asthma symptoms were quantified clinically. The actively treated children used less medication in the second and third years of therapy, and their symptom scores tended to be lower. From the second year of immunotherapy, subjective evaluation of overall allergy symptoms was favorable in the actively treated children. Development of asthma after 3 years was 3.8 times more frequent (95% confidence limits, 1.5-10.0) in the control subjects. Three years of coseasonal SLIT improves seasonal allergic rhinitis symptoms and reduces the development of seasonal asthma in children with hay fever." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_222233", "title": "Allergen", "score": 0.01054421768707483, "content": "An example of nasal decongestants is pseudoephedrine and its side-effects include insomnia, restlessness, and difficulty urinating. Some other nasal sprays are available by prescription, including Azelastine and Ipratropium. Some of their side-effects include drowsiness. For eye symptoms, it is important to first bath the eyes with plain eyewashes to reduce the irritation. People should not wear contact lenses during episodes of conjunctivitis. Allergen immunotherapy treatment involves administering doses of allergens to accustom the body to induce specific long-term tolerance. Allergy immunotherapy can be administered orally (as sublingual tablets or sublingual drops), or by injections under the skin (subcutaneous). Immunotherapy contains a small amount of the substance that triggers the allergic reactions. See also References" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1024_11480", "title": "Basophil sensitivity reflects long-term clinical outcome of subcutaneous immunotherapy in grass pollen-allergic patients.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Allergic rhinoconjunctivitis is a public health problem. Allergen Immunotherapy is an effective and safe treatment, that modifies the natural course of allergic disease and induces long-term tolerance. To correlate basophil and antibody biomarkers of subcutaneous immunotherapy to clinical outcomes and cellular changes in target tissue. Adults suffering from allergic rhinoconjunctivitis due to grass pollen allergy were randomized to receive subcutaneous immunotherapy (n = 18) or to an open control group (n = 6). Patients reported daily symptom and medication scores and weekly rhinitis related quality of life scores during four pollen seasons. Biomarkers were measured every 3 months for three years treatment and every 6 months in the follow-up year. Nasal and cutaneous allergen challenge tests were performed annually. Leukocyte subsets were assessed in nasal mucosa biopsies at baseline and after treatment. Subcutaneous immunotherapy led to a 447-fold decrease in basophil sensitivity during the first treatment year. This remained 100-fold lower than baseline during the 3 year-treatment period and 10-fold lower during the follow-up year (n = 18, P = .03). Decrease in basophil sensitivity after three weeks of treatment predicted long-term improvement in seasonal combined symptom and medication scores (ῥ=-0.69, P = .0027) during three years of treatment. AUC of IgE-blocking factor correlated to nasal allergen challenge (ῥ = 0.63, P = .0012) and SPT (ῥ = 0.45, P = .03). Plasma cell numbers in the nasal mucosa increased during treatment (P = .02). Decrease in basophil sensitivity after three weeks of subcutaneous allergen immunotherapy predicted the clinical outcome of this treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0561_19346", "title": "Advances in upper airway diseases and allergen immunotherapy.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The purpose of this review is to highlight important articles on upper airway diseases and immunotherapy that appeared during 2006. Studies from Europe continue to examine the usefulness of the Allergic Rhinitis and its Impact on Asthma classification of allergic rhinitis as intermittent or persistent and its levels of severity as mild or moderate/severe. A number of physical agents were shown to effect nasal inflammation: sudden temperature changes in patients with allergic rhinitis increased eosinophilic inflammation; in children with allergic asthma, the personal exposure to particles &lt;2.5 microm air pollution correlated with percent of nasal eosinophils and levels of markers of nasal exudation; and in patients who developed rhinorrhea on exposure to cold and windy weather, nasal challenge with cold dry air caused sloughing of nasal epithelial cells. A 3-month double-blind, placebo-controlled study of nasal washes with amphoteracin B showed no benefit in patients with chronic rhinosinusitis. Studies of immunotherapy with grass and dog dander extracts confirmed the need for doses containing 15 to 20 microg of the major allergen for optimal effectiveness. The protective effect of immunotherapy on the development of asthma in children with allergic rhinitis was shown to still be present 2 years after completion of a 3-year course of treatment. Injection immunotherapy with a moderate dose of house dust mite extract in house dust-sensitive adults with atopic dermatitis reduced symptoms and use of corticosteroids and antihistamines compared with treatment with about 1/1000 of that dose of the same extract. Pretreatment for 9 weeks with the monoclonal anti-IgE antibody omalizumab reduced systemic reactions during rush immunotherapy 5-fold and allowed further build-up at weekly intervals without systemic reactions. A review of sublingual immunotherapy confirmed both efficacy and safety, but evidence for appropriate dosing and for the effectiveness of sublingual immunotherapy employing multiple allergen mixes was still lacking. Two studies with a sublingual grass pollen extract tablet showed a clear dose response and the ability to initiate sublingual immunotherapy without an up-dosing phase. A pilot study with cytosine phosphorothionate quanosine DNA conjugated to the major allergen of ragweed reported impressive improvement in symptoms the first pollen season that persisted during the second pollen season without any further administration of the conjugate. In conclusion, studies on rhinitis and sinusitis explored the pathophysiology of the disease more than offering new therapeutic approaches. Studies on immunotherapy addressed optimal dosing, but also a variety of safer and more convenient approaches such as reduction of IgE with omalizumab, conjugating allergen to immunostimulatory DNA sequences, or administration by the sublingual route." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0539_15953", "title": "[Efficacy and safety of sublingual immunotherapy--a detailed analysis].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Sublingual immunotherapy (SLIT) was developed to avoid the risk of severe systemic side effects which occur in subcutaneous immunotherapy. Data from more than 20 controlled studies clearly show the efficacy and safety of this type of immunotherapy in patients with allergic rhino-conjunctivitis due to pollen and mites. The data for allergic asthma still need confirmation. Sublingual immunotherapy is no substitute for subcutaneous immunotherapy but an additional option for defined groups of patients. The application of a sufficient amount of allergen is important for the efficacy of SLIT. According to the recommendation of the ARIA working group, a 50- to 100-fold cumulative dose should be applied as compared to subcutaneous immunotherapy. SLIT can be used preseasonally, during the saison or perennially. Therapy starts with a daily increase of the dose. In some cases, e. g., in adult patients with pollen allergy, doses can be increased within hours. The well-tolerated maintenance dose should be taken three times a week or daily. The sublingual seasonal short-time immunotherapy may become an additional option for subgroups of patients, e. g., for adolescents." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0896_13476", "title": "Effect of 2 Years of Treatment With Sublingual Grass Pollen Immunotherapy on Nasal Response to Allergen Challenge at 3 Years Among Patients With Moderate to Severe Seasonal Allergic Rhinitis: The GRASS Randomized Clinical Trial.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Sublingual immunotherapy and subcutaneous immunotherapy are effective in seasonal allergic rhinitis. Three years of continuous treatment with subcutaneous immunotherapy and sublingual immunotherapy has been shown to improve symptoms for at least 2 years following discontinuation of treatment. To assess whether 2 years of treatment with grass pollen sublingual immunotherapy, compared with placebo, provides improved nasal response to allergen challenge at 3-year follow-up. A randomized double-blind, placebo-controlled, 3-parallel-group study performed in a single academic center, Imperial College London, of adult patients with moderate to severe seasonal allergic rhinitis (interfering with usual daily activities or sleep). First enrollment was March 2011, last follow-up was February 2015. Thirty-six participants received 2 years of sublingual immunotherapy (daily tablets containing 15 µg of major allergen Phleum p 5 and monthly placebo injections), 36 received subcutaneous immunotherapy (monthly injections containing 20 µg of Phleum p 5 and daily placebo tablets) and 34 received matched double-placebo. Nasal allergen challenge was performed before treatment, at 1 and 2 years of treatment, and at 3 years (1 year after treatment discontinuation). Total nasal symptom scores (TNSS; range; 0 [best] to 12 [worst]) were recorded between 0 and 10 hours after challenge. The minimum clinically important difference for change in TNSS within an individual is 1.08. The primary outcome was TNSS comparing sublingual immunotherapy vs placebo at year 3. Subcutaneous immunotherapy was included as a positive control. The study was not powered to compare sublingual immunotherapy with subcutaneous immunotherapy. Among 106 randomized participants (mean age, 33.5 years; 34 women [32.1%]), 92 completed the study at 3 years. In the intent-to-treat population, mean TNSS score for the sublingual immunotherapy group was 6.36 (95% CI, 5.76 to 6.96) at pretreatment and 4.73 (95% CI, 3.97 to 5.48) at 3 years, and for the placebo group, the score was 6.06 (95% CI, 5.23 to 6.88) at pretreatment and 4.81 (95% CI, 3.97 to 5.65) at 3 years. The between-group difference (adjusted for baseline) was -0.18 (95% CI, -1.25 to 0.90; [P = .75]). Among patients with moderate to severe seasonal allergic rhinitis, 2 years of sublingual grass pollen immunotherapy was not significantly different from placebo in improving the nasal response to allergen challenge at 3-year follow-up. clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT01335139; EudraCT Number: 2010-023536-16." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1010_15919", "title": "30 years of sublingual immunotherapy.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Allergen Immunotherapy (AIT) was introduced in clinical practice on an empirical basis more than 100 years ago. Since the first attempts, AIT was administered subcutaneously. Indeed, other routes of administration were proposed and studied, in particular to improve the safety, but only the sublingual route (SLIT) achieved a credibility based on evidence and was then accepted as a viable \"alternative\" option to the subcutaneous route. SLIT was largely used in clinical trials and clinical practice in this last 30 years. Thus, a large amount of data is available, coming from either controlled trials and postmarketing surveillance studies. It is clear that SLIT is overall effective, but it is also clear that the efficacy is not \"class-related,\" as derived from meta-analyses, but restricted to each specific product. The 30-year lasting use of SLIT allowed to clarify many clinical aspects, such as efficacy, safety, use in asthma, regimens of administration, and optimal doses. In parallel, the mechanisms of action of AIT were elucidated, and new indications were proposed (eg food allergy, atopic dermatitis). In addition, the introduction of molecular-based diagnosis, allowed to better refine the prescription of SLIT, based on specific sensitization profiles. The present article will describe the origin and evolution of SLIT for respiratory allergy, taking into account the clinical context that suggested this form of treatment, the recently developed aspects, the future perspectives and unmet needs, This is not, therefore, a systematic review, rather a narrative historical description of the past history, and a look forward to the future opportunities." }, { "id": "article-20403_14", "title": "Allergy Immunotherapy -- Clinical Significance -- Asthma", "score": 0.009688013136289, "content": "Allergen immunotherapy can reduce short-term symptoms in allergic asthma; however, there is a moderate increase in the risk of systemic and local reactions based on a meta-analysis. [6] A 3-year course of either sublingual or subcutaneous immunotherapy prevents asthma for up to 2 years in children and adolescents with grass/birch pollen that triggers moderate to severe allergic rhinitis. However, this still requires further research. [4]" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 102 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 13 ] ], "text": "Typical medullary thyroid RET (C cells, elevated calcitonin, inherited MEN-2nd, typical MIR question)." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Multifocal medullary carcinoma.", "2": "Multifocal papillary carcinoma.", "3": "Follicular carcinoma.", "4": "Hyperplasia of parafollicular cells.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0614_16360", "title": "Histopathologic and clinical features of medullary microcarcinoma and C-cell hyperplasia in prophylactic thyroidectomies for medullary carcinoma: a study of 42 cases.", "score": 0.015399194503672116, "content": "Prophylactic thyroidectomies are increasingly performed on patients at risk for developing medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC); consequently, pathologists are more commonly encountering these specimens in routine practice. To describe the detailed clinicopathologic features of prophylactic thyroidectomies for medullary carcinoma. We present a retrospective series of 42 prophylactic thyroidectomies for MTC performed for one or more of the following: family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) or MTC, elevated serum calcitonin level, or detection of a RET proto-oncogene mutation. Patients included 22 men and 20 women (mean age, 26.2 years). Among those with known RET proto-oncogene mutations, affected sites included exons 10, 11, 14, and 16. In 93% (n = 39) of cases, either C-cell hyperplasia (n = 36), medullary microcarcinoma (MMC; n = 29), or medullary macrocarcinoma (n = 1) was found. C-cell hyperplasia was often multifocal (n = 30) and bilateral (n = 23) and included both nonnodular and nodular patterns. A total of 94% of C-cell hyperplasia cases and all MMC cases were microscopically detectable using hematoxylin-eosin stains. The MMCs were characterized by a complex microarchitectural pattern with a desmoplastic stromal response (n = 29) and focal amyloid deposition (n = 12). Most MMCs exhibited a solid pattern (n = 24) of round, polygonal, spindled, or plasmacytoid-shaped cells. Only 1 case of MMC showed evidence of metastatic disease to a pretracheal lymph node. Based upon our clinicopathologic findings and review of the literature, we conclude that thyroidectomies in at-risk patients are very frequently associated with C-cell hyperplasia and/or MMC; however, the clinical prognosis for these patients is very good." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0897_15866", "title": "Ultrasonographic findings of thyroglossal duct papillary carcinoma: A case report.", "score": 0.014207281833943364, "content": "Reports on thyroglossal duct cyst carcinoma (TGDCCa) are rare, occurring in approximately 1% of thyroglossal duct cyst (TGDC) cases. The origin and treatment of carcinoma arising in TGDC are controversy. A 38-year-old woman presented with a midline neck mass at the thyrohyoid level for 3 years. Ultrasound revealed a 2.4cm cystic mass with a solid mural component and microcalcification. A small right thyroid nodule was also detected. Sistrunk's operation was performed and the pathology was a primary carcinoma arising in the TGDC with a close surgical margin. Total thyroidectomy was done and revealed a 4mm papillary carcinoma with partial invasion through the thyroid capsule of the right lobe with a 1mm papillary carcinoma at the isthmus. The diagnosis was a primary TGDCCa with multifocal papillary thyroid carcinoma. Sistrunk's operation is an accepted procedure for the treatment of both TGDC and TGDCCa. Additional total thyroidectomy has been proposed but still controversial. The aims of preoperative ultrasound and ultrasound-guided fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB) are differential diagnosis of the possible diseases and operative planning. The results which suggest a carcinoma arising in the TGDC, synchronous thyroid malignancy and metastatic cervical lymph nodes are helpful in determining the magnitude of the operation. Ultrasound and FNAB of the TGDC, thyroid gland and cervical lymph nodes are the useful preoperative evaluations leading to the accurate diagnosis. The definitive treatment is Sistrunk's operation with the possible addition of total thyroidectomy and neck dissection when indicated." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en097_40038", "title": "Papillary thyroid cancer", "score": 0.013703703703703704, "content": "Papillary thyroid carcinomas are also discovered when a hard nodule is found in multinodular goiter, when enlarged cervical lymph nodes are detected, or when there are unidentified metastatic lesions elsewhere in the body. Expanding lesions found in the thyroid gland, especially if they are painful, should be examined as they may indicate the presence of papillary thyroid carcinoma. Other clinical signs that could indicate papillary thyroid are fixation to the trachea, a firm neck mass, damage to recurrent laryngeal or cervical sympathetic nerves. Five percent of the population can have thyroid nodules, and the majority will be benign. Appropriate workup includes an ultrasound of the neck, followed by lab studies. Patients will usually meet with both an endocrinologist and a surgeon (head and neck surgeon or endocrine surgeon)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0780_24534", "title": "Fibro-hyaline involution of a papillary thyroid carcinoma metastasis in a lymph node, consecutive to radioiodine therapy, mimicking a parathyroid adenoma. A case presentation.", "score": 0.013351360486733143, "content": "The aim of the study is to present the unusual changes that a lymph node metastasis of papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC) underwent after radioiodine therapy, leading to the confusion with a parathyroid adenoma (PA). Eight years after a total thyroidectomy and radioiodine ablation with 73.35 mCurie 131I for PTC, a 67-year-old female presented with an enlarged, painless, nodular mass in the left lateral neck region. Clinical examination revealed a firm nodule located on the site of the left inferior parathyroid gland. Elevated serum parathyroid hormone level (120 pg/mL) and parathyroid scintigraphy led to a suspicion of PA. A minimally invasive surgical procedure was performed to remove the mass, which was sent to the Department of Pathology, Emergency County Hospital, Tirgu Mures, Romania, as left PA. It was fixed and processed for microscopic evaluation. On macroscopic examination, the surgical specimen was oval; it had 13 mm at the largest diameter and weighted 2 g. On microscopy, the lesion appeared as a fibro-hyaline, intensely acidophilic, acellular mass, with calcifications. It was limited by a delicate capsule in which one typical psammoma body was present. At the periphery, on one single level, a small mass of cells of indefinite origin was noticed. Immunohistochemistry (IHC) was done to ascertain the origin of these cells: they were negative for Pan-Cytokeratin AE1/AE2, Parathormone and Thyroglobulin antibodies, but positive for Leukocyte Common Antigen (LCA) antibody, proving that they were lymphocytes, most likely residual from a lymph node. These IHC data, together with the microscopic feature, the presence of the psammoma body and the patient's history, excluded a PA and led to a diagnosis of fibro-hyaline involution of a PTC metastasis in a lymph node, consecutive to radioiodine therapy. Without careful microscopic examination and accurate clinical information, this lesion could represent a real diagnostic challenge." }, { "id": "Pathoma_Husain_391", "title": "Pathoma_Husain", "score": 0.01297671172028682, "content": "Invasion through the capsule helps distinguish follicular carcinoma from follicular adenoma. 2. Entire capsule must be examined microscopically. 3. FNA only examines cells and not the capsule; hence, a distinction between follicular adenoma and follicular carcinoma cannot be made by FNA. B. Metastasis generally occurs hematogenously. V. A. Malignant proliferation of parafollicular C cells; comprises 5% of thyroid carcinomas 1. C cells are neuroendocrine cells that secrete calcitonin. 2. Calcitonin lowers serum calcium by increasing renal calcium excretion but is inactive at normal physiologic levels. 3. High levels of calcitonin produced by tumor may lead to hypocalcemia. 4. Calcitonin often deposits within the tumor as amyloid. B. Biopsy reveals sheets of malignant cells in an amyloid stroma (Fig. 15.7). C. Familial cases are often due to multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) 2A and 2B, which are associated with mutations in the RET oncogene. 1." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0962_1176", "title": "[A Case of Carcinoma Showing Thymus-Like Differentiation (CASTLE) of the Thyroid].", "score": 0.01282642089093702, "content": "The case presented herein was a 70-year-old woman who had no compliant, but had a mass in the lower part of the right lobe of the thyroid detected by ultrasound (US). The US image of the tumor, measuring 13 mm in diameter, showed a low and heterogeneous internal echo level with calcification and an irregular margin. The tumor appeared to extend to the adjacent sternothyroid muscle, and cervical lymph node swelling was detected in a computer tomography (CT) image, but no metastatic lesion was found by positron emission tomography (PET)-CT. In a fine needle aspiration cytology of the tumor, papillary thyroid carcinoma was suggested because of the atypical epithelial cells having some changes other than intranuclear inclusion bodies. A subtotal thyroidectomy and central neck lymph node dissection were performed. The excised tumor was histologically composed of irregular nests or sheets of atypical squamoid epithelial cells with some ductal structures that leached to the sternothyroid muscle and involved the right lower parathyroid gland. Carcinoma showing thymus-like differentiation (CASTLE) was diagnosed histopathologically and immunohistochemically with the following immunohistochemical results: Cluster of differentiation 5 (CD5) (+), tumor protein p63 (p63) (+), KIT proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase (c-KIT(CD117)) (+), thyroglobulin (-), and thyroid transcription factor-1 (TTF-1) (-). CASTLE is a rare carcinoma of the thyroid that architecturally resembles thymic epithelial tumors. Many CASTLE patients have been misdiagnosed as other carcinomas, such as anaplastic carcinoma, poorly differentiated carcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma of the thyroid. Immunohistochemical examination, including CD5 played an important role in the final diagnosis of CASTLE, although the distinction from diagnosis as squamous cell carcinoma or mucoepidermoid carcinoma in Hematoxylin-Eosin staining was challenging in our case. Nodal metastasis and perithyroidal tumor extension of CASTLE can predict its worse prognosis. Thus, at least careful follow-up studies are mandatory in cases of CASTLE." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en558_13564", "title": "Computed tomography of the thyroid", "score": 0.012651162790697675, "content": "Thyroid calcifications on a CT scan can be seen in both benign and malignant thyroid lesions. Sonographic examination of the thyroid can differentiate between micro-calcifications, which are highly associated with papillary thyroid carcinoma, and eggshell calcifications, which favour a benign process such as colloid cysts (Figs. 1 and and2)2). In a retrospective review of preoperative CT scan, 35 % (135 of 383) of the patients had detectable intra-thyroidal calcifications. Among them, 48 % had a histopathologically proven thyroid cancer. Calcified nodules had a significantly higher incidence of thyroid cancer and lymph node metastases. The incidence of thyroid cancer among nodules with different calcifications patterns were 79 % of nodules with multiple punctate calcifications, 58 % of nodules with a single punctate calcification, 21 % of nodules with coarse calcification, and 22 % of nodules with peripheral calcification. Most of the single calcified nodules were malignant. However," }, { "id": "pubmed23n0581_5570", "title": "[Surgical management of medullary thyroid carcinoma. Personal experience].", "score": 0.01249760398696569, "content": "Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC) is a rare malignancy of the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland. Aim of our study is reporting retrospective analysis of our experience about the surgical treatment of MTC, especially pointing on lymphadenectomy. from January 2000 to March 2006, were performed 546 thyroidectomy, 6 of them for MTC (1.09%): 5 sporadic and 1 familiar. All the patients were operated with standard technique (total thyroidectomy) and submitted to endocrinologic and instrumental follow-up. in our experience, we do not registered early or late complications as bleeding, laryngeal nerves lesions and parathyroid lesions or intra-postoperative deaths. MTC occurs sporadically or as part of the multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2 a/b) syndromes in patients who have inherited a mutation in the RET proto-oncogene. The diagnosis is made by fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB) and by measuring calcitonin levels in the blood. Primary treatment consists of surgical resection including a total thyroidectomy, central neck nodal dissection and functional lateral neck nodal dissections. Most patients with a palpable primary tumour have nodal disease at the time of operation, and nodal involvement is often bilateral. adequate resection of the primary tumour and cervical lymph nodes is important to optimize outcome and minimize the risk of recurrent disease. Following primary surgical resection, more than 50% of the patients will have recurrent disease with persistent elevation of calcitonin levels. Currently, there is no adequate systemic therapy for recurrent disease. Surgical reoperation or conservative observation are the best available options." }, { "id": "article-30159_14", "title": "Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma -- Histopathology -- Gross Findings", "score": 0.012456293706293708, "content": "Grossly, PTC typically presents as an invasive neoplasm with poorly defined margins, a firm consistency, and a granular white-cut surface. Calcifications may be present. The size is widely variable, with a mean diameter of 2-3 cm. Papillary thyroid carcinoma has three classification categories based on the size and extent of the primary lesion. Minimal carcinoma or occult carcinoma/micro-carcinoma tumors are 1.5 cm or smaller and show no evidence of invasiveness through the thyroid capsule or cervical lymph nodes. These lesions are typically nonpalpable, and they are usually found as incidental findings during operative or autopsy examination. Intra-thyroid tumors are greater than 1.5 cm in diameter but remain confined to the thyroid gland with no evidence of extra-thyroid invasion. Extra-thyroid tumors extend through the thyroid capsule to involve the surrounding viscera. [16]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en063_67854", "title": "Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2", "score": 0.012382379677173674, "content": "The common feature among the three sub-types of MEN2 is a high propensity to develop medullary thyroid carcinoma. A variant of MEAs 2A was described in 1989. This variant also has patches of cutaneous amyloidosis in the mid/upper back and is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion. Management Management of MEN2 patients includes thyroidectomy including cervical central and bilateral lymph nodes dissection for MTC, unilateral adrenalectomy for unilateral pheochromocytoma or bilateral adrenalectomy when both glands are involved and selective resection of pathologic parathyroid glands for primary hyperparathyroidism. Familial genetic screening is recommended to identify at risk subjects who will develop the disease, permitting early management by performing prophylactic thyroidectomy, giving them the best chance of cure." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_1146", "title": "Follicular thyroid cancer", "score": 0.012253267126164183, "content": "Hurthle cell variant Hurthle cell thyroid cancer is often considered a variant of follicular cell carcinoma. Hurthle cell forms are more likely than follicular carcinomas to be bilateral and multifocal and to metastasize to lymph nodes. Like follicular carcinoma, unilateral hemithyroidectomy is performed for non-invasive disease, and total thyroidectomy for invasive disease. Diagnosis It is difficult to correctly diagnose follicular neoplasms (FNs) on fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) because it shares many cytological features with other mimicking lesions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1012_17682", "title": "Concomitant medullary thyroid carcinoma with paraganglioma-like pattern and papillary thyroid carcinoma.", "score": 0.011645962732919254, "content": "A 74-year-old man was referred to the Endocrinology Unit because of multinodular goiter. The dominant nodule (1.7 × 1.9 × 2.4 cm), at the medium-superior third of the left lobe, was inhomogeneously hypoechoic, with irregular margins, macrocalcifications and intranodular vascularization. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB) was performed. The cytological diagnosis was TIR 2, benign, according to the 2013 Italian thyroid cytology classification system. Moderately high serum calcitonin (s-Ct) (61.5 pg/mL, n.r. 0-7.5) and normal CEA were detected. The Ct level in FNAB wash-out fluid (Ct-FNAB) was 1450 pg/mL. Based on s-Ct and Ct-FNAB levels, patient underwent total thyroidectomy. Macroscopically, a dominant circumscribed nodule of 2 ecm was described; the histological and immunohistochemical features identified medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC) with paraganglioma (PG)-like pattern positive for Ct, CEA and chromogranin and negative for S-100 sustentacular cells (SC). Moreover, papillary carcinoma of 3 mm in the right lobe was also associated. No areas of hyperaccumulation of the tracer were documented at Ga68 PET/CT. No RET-proto-oncogene mutations were found. Post-surgery s-Ct levels were within normal range (4 pg/mL). Two years after thyroidectomy, the patient is still disease-free. We reported a case of sporadic and rare variant of MTC: this is the ninth described case of PG-like MTC. In this case, cytologically benign, the clinical suspicion arose from high Ct values at FNAB wash-out fluid. Even if clinical behavior of this variant seems indolent, additional studies are necessary to understand prognoses and predictive factors. Several unusual histological variants of medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC) have been described such as spindle cell, giant cell, clear cell, melanotic, squamous, angiosarcoma-like variants; even rarer is the paraganglioma (PG)-like pattern. We here describe a case of medullary PG-like thyroid carcinoma in a 74-year-old man. This is a rare histological variant of MTC hardly diagnosed by cytology, since immunohistochemical investigations are necessary. Measurement of calcitonin both in serum and in wash-out fluid from fine-needle aspiration could be an additional tool for an early and non-invasive identification of these variants." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en097_40040", "title": "Papillary thyroid cancer", "score": 0.0111518708730741, "content": "Papillary thyroid cancer gets its name from the papillae among its cells, visible on microscopy. Features include: Characteristic Orphan Annie eye nuclear inclusions (nuclei with uniform staining, which appear empty due to powdery chromatin and marginal micronucleoli) and psammoma bodies on light microscopy. The former is useful in identifying the follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinomas. Lymphatic spread is more common than hematogenous spread Multifocality is common The so-called lateral aberrant thyroid is usually a lymph node metastasis from a papillary thyroid carcinoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0593_13134", "title": "[Multiple endocrine neoplasia 2a: late manifestation of a newly-discovered mutation].", "score": 0.010968866450294507, "content": "A 55-year-old patient presented with a painless right-sided cervical swelling, which had been present for four months and seemed to get larger. The patient denied dyspnea, dysphagia, \"a lump in the throat\" or thyroid disease. Two of his paternal aunts had thyroid carcinoma and an adrenal tumor. Ultrasonography revealed an enlarged lymphoid nodule and a large lesion in the right thyroid lobe, the latter with deficient technetium uptake on scintigraphy. A total thyroidectomy with bilateral centrocervical and lateral neck dissection was performed. Histology revealed a bilateral medullary thyroid carcinoma [MTC: pT3, pN1b (9/34), pM0 (UICC 2002)] and the genetic screening showed a double mutation in codon 611 (TGC&gt;TAT; p.Cys611Tyr; C611Y), and exon 10 of the RET proto-oncogene, which has not been described before. Pheochromocytoma and hyperparathyroidism were excluded. Genetic screening of all close family members was initiated and showed that four of them were gene carriers. Three of them have been operated and a MTC found. The described newly discovered mutation is associated with MTC and pheochromocytoma. This case underlines the need of genetic screening in all patients who present with a MTC only, no matter what the person's age of manifestation, even in the absence of any other MEN-related disease." }, { "id": "article-25357_8", "title": "Multiple Endocrine Neoplasias Type 2 -- Pathophysiology -- Thyroid Gland", "score": 0.01070772460852069, "content": "Medullar thyroid cancer (MTC) is the most common manifestation of MEN2A and MEN2B with 100% penetrance and usually the first manifestation in MEN2 patients. MTC is a neuroendocrine tumor of the thyroid gland caused by the hyperplasia of calcitonin-producing parafollicular C-cells, the only cells in the thyroid gland derived from neural crest cells. [5] Almost 100% of patients with MEN2A and MEN2B develop MTC, particularly early in life, with the highest incidence in the third decade, while 25% of MTC cases have RET proto-oncogene mutation. MTC most commonly presents with a solitary thyroid nodule and/or cervical lymphadenopathy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en184_6401", "title": "Thyroid nodule", "score": 0.010544910993341487, "content": "Fine needle biopsy Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC) is a cheap, simple, and safe method in obtaining cytological specimens for diagnosis by using a needle and a syringe. The indications to do FNAC are: nodules more than 1 cm with two ultrasound criteria suggestive of malignancy, nodules of any size with extracapsular extension or lymph nodes enlargement with unknown source, any sizes of nodules with history of head and neck radiation, family history of thyroid carcinoma in two or more first degree relatives, multiple endocrine neoplasia type II, and increased calcitonin levels. However, increased calcitonin levels can also be attributable to smoking, chronic alcohol consumption, usage of proton pump inhibitors, and renal failure. The Bethesda System for Reporting Thyroid Cytopathology is the system used to report whether the thyroid cytological specimen is benign or malignant. It can be divided into six categories:" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_55493", "title": "Thyroidectomy", "score": 0.010477267830209008, "content": "Hemithyroidectomy — Entire isthmus is removed along with 1 lobe. Done in benign diseases of only 1 lobe. Subtotal thyroidectomy — Removal of majority of both lobes leaving behind 4-5 grams (equivalent to the size of a normal thyroid gland) of thyroid tissue on one or both sides—this used to be the most common operation for multinodular goitre. Partial thyroidectomy —Removal of gland in front of trachea after mobilization. Done in nontoxic MNG. Its role is controversial. Near total thyroidectomy — Both lobes are removed except for a small amount of thyroid tissue (on one or both sides) in the vicinity of the recurrent laryngeal nerve entry point and the superior parathyroid gland. Total thyroidectomy — Entire gland is removed. Done in cases of papillary or follicular carcinoma of thyroid, medullary carcinoma of thyroid. This is now also the most common operation for multinodular goitre." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en195_1160", "title": "Medullary thyroid cancer", "score": 0.010329113924050632, "content": "Markers While the increased serum concentration of calcitonin is not harmful, it is useful as a marker which can be tested in blood. A second marker, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), also produced by medullary thyroid carcinoma, is released into the blood and it is useful as a serum or blood tumor marker. In general, measurement of serum CEA is less sensitive than serum calcitonin for detecting the presence of a tumor, but has less minute to minute variability and is therefore useful as an indicator of tumor mass. Diagnosis Diagnosis is primarily performed via fine needle aspiration of the lesion of the thyroid to distinguish it from other types of thyroid lesions. Microscopic examination will show an amyloid stroma with hyperplasia of parafollicular cells." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0603_17817", "title": "Paraganglioma-like medullary thyroid carcinoma: fine needle aspiration cytology features with histological correlation.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Two cases of an extremely rare paraganglioma-like variant of medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC) are reported. The patients were a 65-year-old male (case 1) and a 14-year-old female (case 2). Unilateral thyroid nodule and homolateral cervical lymphadenopathy was present in case 1; bilateral thyroid nodules were seen in case 2. Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) was performed from thyroid nodules (in both cases) and from a cervical lymph node (in case 1). The cytological smears contained predominantly ovoid to spindled epithelial cells arranged in cohesive three-dimensional clusters with sharp margins; isolated individual cells were seen only rarely. No colloid or other material was present in the background. The tumour cells showed significant nuclear atypia with occasional bizarre and/or binucleated cells. The nuclear chromatin was coarse and granular, sometimes with grooves and intranuclear inclusions. The cytoplasm was inconspicuous. Polygonal or triangular cells, amyloid and azurophillic cytoplasmic granules were absent in both cases. Calcitonin expression was demonstrated in case 2. Histological examination confirmed the paraganglioma variant of MTC in both cases. Mutation of RET proto-oncogene in exon 16 (Met918Thr) - germline in case 2 and somatic in case 1 was detected by sequencing of DNA in both cases. This is the first description of cytological findings in the paraganglioma-like variant of MTC. Despite its rarity, it can be reliably diagnosed by FNAC if material for immunocytochemistry is obtained." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en097_40037", "title": "Papillary thyroid cancer", "score": 0.009811879297173413, "content": "Diagnosis Papillary thyroid carcinoma is usually discovered on routine examination as an asymptomatic thyroid nodule that appears as a neck mass. In some instances, the mass may have produced local symptoms. This mass is normally referred to a fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNA) for investigation. FNA accuracy is very high and it is a process widely used in these cases. Other investigation methods include ultrasound imaging and nuclear scan. The ultrasound is a useful test to distinguish solid from cystic lesions and to identify calcifications. The thyroid ultrasound is also very effective to discover microcarcinomas, which refer to very small carcinomas (<1 cm)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en558_13568", "title": "Computed tomography of the thyroid", "score": 0.009808718861209965, "content": "On CT scans, a malignant lesion is suspected when the margins are ill-defined and there is extra-thyroid extension, lymph node involvement, or invasion of the surrounding structures. The absence of these features does not exclude malignant tumours, especially papillary, follicular, and medullary thyroid carcinomas (Fig. 3). Therefore, ultrasound is the modality of choice for thyroid lesion evaluation, due to its superior spatial resolution compared to CT examinations. Sonographic features of malignancy are micro-calcifications, acoustic shadowing, anti-parallel orientation, marked hypoechogenicity, irregular or microlobulated margins, and increased vascularity. CT scans lack the ability to detect these reliable sonographic signs of malignancy. Therefore, further management of ITNs, if required, usually begins with thyroid ultrasound and FNA should be considered according to the ultrasound findings." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1037_6271", "title": "Intermixed medullary and papillary thyroid cancer in a patient with renal cell carcinoma.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We report a rare case of concurrent medullary thyroid cancer (MTC) and papillary thyroid cancer (PTC) with intermixed disease in several of the lymph node (LN) metastases in a patient who was subsequently diagnosed with clear cell renal cell carcinoma (RCC). A 56 year old female presented with dysphagia and was found to have a left thyroid nodule and left superior cervical LN with suspicious sonographic features. Fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB) demonstrated PTC in the left thyroid nodule and MTC in the left cervical LN. Histopathology demonstrated multifocal PTC with 3/21 LNs positive for metastatic PTC. One LN in the left lateral neck dissection exhibited features of both MTC and PTC within the same node. In the right lobe, a 0.3 cm focus of MTC with extra-thyroidal extension was noted. Given persistent calcitonin elevation, a follow-up ultrasound displayed an abnormal left level 4 LN. FNAB showed features of both PTC and MTC on the cytopathology itself. The patient underwent repeat central and left radical neck dissection with 3/6 LNs positive for PTC in the central neck and 2/6 LNs positive for intermixed PTC and MTC in the left neck. There was no evidence of distant metastases on computed tomography and whole body scintigraphy, however a 1.9 x 2.5 cm enhancing mass within the right inter-polar kidney was discovered. This lesion was highly suspicious for RCC. Surgical pathology revealed a 2.5 cm clear cell RCC, Fuhrman grade 2/4, with negative surgical margins. She continues to be observed with stable imaging of her triple malignancies. Mixed medullary-papillary thyroid neoplasm is characterized by the presence of morphological and immunohistochemical features of both medullary and papillary thyroid cancers within the same lesion. Simultaneous occurrence of these carcinomas has been previously reported, but a mixed disease within the same lymph node is an infrequent phenomenon. Prognosis of mixed medullary-papillary thyroid carcinomas is determined by the medullary component. Therefore, when PTC and MTC occur concurrently, the priority should be given to the management of MTC, which involves total thyroidectomy and central lymph node dissection. Patients with thyroid cancer, predominantly PTC, have shown higher than expected rates of RCC. To our knowledge, this is the first report describing the combination of MTC, PTC, and RCC in a single patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0895_19050", "title": "High frequency ultrasound features and pathological characteristics of medullary thyroid carcinoma.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To study high-frequency ultrasound features and pathological characteristics of medullary thyroid carcinoma (medullary thyroid carcinoma, MTC) with the purpose to improve the diagnostic accuracy of this disease. The clinical data of 20 cases of patients with MTC confirmed by the clinical surgery were retrospectively analyzed. And the high-frequency ultrasound features were analyzed and compared with the pathological characteristics. There were 16 cases with tumor invasion into one side of the thyroid gland; 17 cases with tumor in the middle-upper pole of the thyroid gland. And 8 cases were detected with uneven echo of high frequency ultrasound appearance and pathological manifestations of cystic degeneration to necrosis seen under the light microscope or normal thyroid tissue within part of the lump. 16 cases were tested with even echo of high frequency ultrasound appearance, and tumor cells were formed in the solid and block-like shape under the light microscope. And 18 cases were manifested with low echo, with proliferation of fibrous tissue within the intercellular substance under the light microscope. 18 cases could be seen the calcification points and often amyloid-like content deposited in the intercellular substance seen under the light microscope. In addition, the pathological manifestations of the 8 cases combined with lymph node metastasis were the \"lash tumor\" of the metastatic lymph nodes and primary tumor. MTC was commonly located in the middle-upper region of the thyroid gland and in one leaf of the thyroid gland, combined with lymph node metastasis. The high frequency ultrasound appearance was the even low-echo tumor in round or quasi-circular shape, with obscure boundary and often combined with rough calcification. High frequency ultrasound could be used as the prior physical diagnostic method for medullary thyroid carcinoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0639_22226", "title": "Prophylactic thyroidectomy in ethnic Chinese patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A syndrome after the introduction of genetic testing.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To evaluate the impact of genetic testing in the management of familial multiple endocrine neoplasia 2A patients. Retrospective study. University teaching hospital, Hong Kong. Twenty-two patients from eight multiple endocrine neoplasia 2A families underwent prophylactic total thyroidectomy based on a positive RET mutation genetic testing. All mutations were located at codon 634 of exon 11. Nineteen patients had preoperative basal serum calcitonin measured, and the 12 with normal levels had pentagastrin stimulation tests. Preoperative thyroid ultrasound examination was performed for 17 patients. There were 13 females and 9 males with a median age of 25.1 (range, 6.1-71.9) years. Histopathology revealed medullary thyroid carcinoma in 17 (77%), C-cell hyperplasia in four (18%), and normal pathology in one (5%) of the patients. Five patients with either C-cell hyperplasia or normal pathology were among the youngest (age range, 6-9 years). The youngest patient with medullary thyroid carcinoma was nearly 9 years old. The median size of medullary thyroid carcinomas was 8.3 (range, 0.1-18) mm, but there were no lymph node metastases. Of 15 patients with normal basal calcitonin levels, 10 had medullary thyroid carcinoma, though two tested negative with the pentagastrin-stimulated calcitonin assay. Five of six patients with normal preoperative ultrasonographic examinations had medullary thyroid carcinoma. Three (14%) of the patients were prescribed long-term calcium and vitamin D supplementation. After a median follow-up of 49 (range, 13-128) months, no patient had recurrence of medullary thyroid carcinoma. Genetic testing has replaced conventional biochemical and radiological modalities to identifying multiple endocrine neoplasia 2A carriers, in order to offer them prophylactic thyroidectomy. Chinese multiple endocrine neoplasia 2A patients with codon 634 mutation seem to have less aggressive forms of medullary thyroid carcinoma, for whom prophylactic thyroidectomy can be considered at the age of 8 years." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0477_13848", "title": "Concurrent lymph node metastases of medullary and papillary thyroid carcinoma in a case with RET oncogene germline mutation.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We report the case of a 72 yr-old woman who underwent total thyroidectomy and resection of neck lymph nodes because of a firm nodule in the right lobe, which was consistent with medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC) on cytological examination. Histology showed multifocal bilateral MTC; a 2 mm papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC) was also detected in the right lobe, next to a focus of MTC; five cervical lymph nodes contained MTC. In one right perithyroidal lymph node, concurrent metastases of MTC and PTC were demonstrated. DNA analysis showed a point mutation in exon 14 at codon 804 of the RET proto-oncogene locus, as frequently found in cases of familial MTC (FMTC). To our knowledge, this case represents the first documented case of concurrent lymph node metastases of MTC and PTC in a patient with RET proto-oncogene germline mutation. We report this unique case, discuss related thyroid malignancies, and suggest possible underlying pathogenetic mechanisms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0907_20990", "title": "Clinical and pathological analysis of 19 cases of medullary thyroid carcinoma without an increase in calcitonin.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC), defined as a malignant tumour with C-cell differentiation, is of neuroendocrine origin and is characterized by the synthesis and secretion of calcitonin (CT). MTC without CT secretion has been reported on rare occasions. The purpose of this study was to evaluate the histological, immunohistochemical, and molecular pathologic features as well as the clinical significance of non-secretory MTC (NCR-MTC). A retrospective analysis of patients with NCR-MTC was performed. The clinical features of NCR-MTC, including age, gender, tumour size and number, clinical signs of hypocalcaemia and diarrhoea, and the presence of lymph node metastasis, as well as the pathologic features of the disease, including tumour morphology, presence of neuroendocrine structures, capsular invasion, and immunohistochemical expression and presence of mutations in the RET gene, were evaluated. Nineteen patients with NCR-MTC were identified among 158 patients with MTC, resulting in a prevalence rate of 12.02%. Patients with NCR-MTC typically had masses less than 1cm in size (73.7%, 14/19). Hypocalcaemia was not present in 94.7% (18/19) of patients. While 42.1% (8/19) of patients with NCR-MTC did not have amyloid deposits, only 18% (25/139) of patients with secretory MTC did not have such deposits. While 95.7% (133/139) of the control group of patients with secretory MTC had neuroendocrine tumour structure, only 84.2% (16/19) of the patients with NCR-MTC had this type of tumour structure. Patients with NCR-MTC were also less likely to have vascular tumour thrombus, lymph node metastasis or thyroid capsular invasion. With regard to immunohistochemistry, CT expression was mostly negative, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) expression was positive in 21.1% (4/19) of patients with NCR-MTC, while only 5.8% (8/139) of patients in the control group had positive CEA expression. The prevalence of NCR-MTC was low (12.02%). This type of tumour was smaller in size and more differentiated. Compared with the control group, relatively few patients had obvious symptoms, hypocalcaemia, lymph node metastasis, thyroid capsular or vascular invasion, or tumours with amyloid or neuroendocrine tumour structure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0393_12387", "title": "Very early detection of RET proto-oncogene mutation is crucial for preventive thyroidectomy in multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 children: presence of C-cell malignant disease in asymptomatic carriers.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2) is an inherited disease caused by germline mutations in the RET proto-oncogene, and is responsible for the development of endocrine neoplasia. Its prognosis is dependent on the appearance and spread of medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC). Relatives at risk can be identified before clinical or biochemical signs of the disease become evident. Twenty-one families with MEN 2 (16 families with MEN 2A and 5 families with MEN 2B) were studied. Peripheral blood DNA was amplified by polymerase chain reaction. DNA sequence or restriction enzyme analysis was performed to detect mutations of RET proto-oncogene exons 10, 11, and 16. Molecular analysis was carried out in all index patients as well as in 98 relatives of MEN 2A patients (60 juveniles, ages 6 months to 21 years, and 38 adults, ages 22 to 81 years) and in 13 relatives (6 juveniles ages 10 to 21 years, and 7 adults ages 41 to 66 years) from MEN 2B families. Molecular studies showed a mutation at codon 634, exon 11 in all MEN 2A patients. All MEN 2B patients showed an ATG to ACG (Met918Thr) mutation. In MEN 2A families, 42 out of 98 relatives were affected. Total thyroidectomy was performed in 18 juvenile carriers ages 17 months to 21 years. Histopathologic studies of the glands revealed parafollicular cell (C-cell) hyperplasia in all of these carriers, medullary thyroid carcinoma in 15 carriers, and only one carrier with lymph node metastases. The consistent finding of C-cell disease in all the juvenile carriers who underwent preventive thyroidectomy emphasizes the relevance of early screening in children at risk of developing MTC. The presence of MTC in the specimen of prophylactic thyroidectomy from a 17 month old girl highlights the importance of thyroidectomy as soon as the molecular diagnosis is confirmed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0550_12701", "title": "[Unusual non-neoplastic lesions in the \"surgical pathology\" of the thyroid].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "This review aims to describe and assist in the categorization of most of the unusual non-neoplastic conditions, encountered in the surgical pathology of the thyroid. The conditions included are: normal intrathyroidal vestigial tissues/structures (i.e. rests of the ultimobranchial body and thyroglossal duct) and their relevant pathological derivatives (ultimobranchial body cyst, intrathyroidal lymphoepithelial cyst, thyroglossal duct cyst); mature intrathyroidal heterologous tissues/organs of either metaplastic or heterotopic origin (adipose tissue, striated skeletal muscle, cartilage, parathyroid glands, thymus, salivary gland tissue) and their relevant pseudotumoural lesions; varieties of metaplastic and non-metaplastic morphologic changes of the thyroid follicular epithelium (oncocytic, clear cell/signet ring cell, darkly pigmented cell, mucinous (myxoid), squamous, spindle cell); amyloid goiter; some reactive and/or degenerative cytologic and nuclear atypicalities (nuclear pseudoclearing and cell pleomorphism) as well as some hyperplastic or peculiar growth patterns (capsular pseudoinvasion; vascular invasion; papillary carcinoma-like and paraganglioma-like patterns) of benign conditions mimicking neoplasia; and finally. some pseudotumoural lesions of the stroma (pseudoangiosarcomatous vascular proliferation, and post-fine-needle aspiration spindle cell nodule). The pathogenetic mechanism, the morphologic interpretation, and the differential diagnosis of each of the above-listed conditions are discussed and pertinent illustrations for many of them are also provided. Lesions of thyroid tissue situated outside of the gland itself are not discussed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en126_880", "title": "Cervical lymph nodes", "score": 0.009418009803292023, "content": "Clinical significance Infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) affects the cervical lymph nodes which become swollen. The characterization of cancerous lymph nodes on CT scan, MRI or ultrasound is difficult, and usually requires confirmation by other nuclear imaging techniques such as PET scans. Tissue diagnosis by fine needle aspiration (which has a high rate of accuracy), may also be required. Involvement of the cervical lymph nodes with metastatic cancer is the single most important prognostic factor in head and neck squamous cell carcinoma and may be associated with a halving of survival. Where the cancer has penetrated the capsule of the lymph gland (extracapsular extension) survival may be decreased by a further 50%. Other important factors are the level, the number of nodes and their size, which are also correlated with the risk of distant metastases. Cervical lymph node metastasis is also a common feature of papillary thyroid carcinoma. Additional images References" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0713_15665", "title": "Medullary and papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland occurring as a collision tumor with lymph node metastasis: A case report.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Papillary thyroid carcinoma and medullary thyroid carcinoma are two different thyroid neoplasia. The simultaneous occurrence of medullary thyroid carcinoma and papillary thyroid carcinoma as a collison tumor with metastases from both lesions in the regional lymph nodes is a rare phenomenon. A 32-year-old Iranian man presented with a fixed anterior neck mass. Ultrasonography revealed two separate thyroid nodules as well as a suspicious neck mass that appeared to be a metastatic lesion. The results of thyroid function tests were normal, but the preoperative calcitonin serum value was elevated. Our patient underwent a total thyroidectomy with neck exploration. Two separate and ill-defined solid lesions grossly in the right lobe were noticed. Histological and immunohistochemical studies of these lesions suggested the presence of medullary thyroid carcinoma and papillary thyroid carcinoma. The lymph nodes isolated from a neck dissection specimen showed metastases from both lesions. The concomitant occurrence of papillary thyroid carcinoma and medullary thyroid carcinoma and the exact diagnosis of this uncommon event are important. The treatment strategy should be reconsidered in such cases, and genetic screening to exclude multiple endocrine neoplasia 2 syndromes should be performed. For papillary thyroid carcinoma, radioiodine therapy and thyroid-stimulating hormone suppressive therapy are performed. However, the treatment of medullary thyroid carcinoma is mostly radical surgery with no effective adjuvant therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0324_484", "title": "Marginal vacuoles in thyroid aspirates.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To report on two cases of metastatic follicular carcinoma with marginal vacuoles (MVs) and review smear results in 441 solitary nodular goiters (SNGs) for this cytologic feature. The first case was a 55-year-old male who presented with a huge mass in the left hip region; the second case was a 50-year-old male with a thyroid nodule and a large mass on the scalp. The age of the 441 ultrasonographically diagnosed SNG cases ranged from 11 to 75 years. The May-Grünwald-Giemsa-stained fine needle aspiration (FNA) smears of these cases were reviewed by one of the authors (D.K.D.) for various cytomorphologic features, including MVs. FNA smears from the mass in the hip in the first case showed follicular cells with acinar formation and MVs, indicating metastatic follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC). These features were of help in detecting the thyroid primary, which had previously gone undetected. Aspiration smears from the thyroid nodule and the mass on the scalp in the second case showed tumor cells of FTC with MVs and microfilariae. Review of 441 SNG cases revealed MVs in 42.6% of hyperplastic nodules; that rate was significantly higher (P &lt; .001) than that of colloid goiter (5.2%) and neoplastic goiter (13.3%) but lower (P &lt; .05) than that of thyrotoxic goiter (100%). MVs were limited to neoplasms with a follicular component; that included 15% of follicular neoplasms and 50% of follicular variant of papillary carcinoma (FVPC). The difference between FVPC and the rest of the neoplastic goiters (6%) was statistically significant (P = .002)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0841_24457", "title": "A nonfunctioning parathyroid carcinoma misdiagnosed as a follicular thyroid nodule.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Parathyroid carcinoma (PC) is a rare endocrine malignancy. The tumor is mostly functioning, causing severe primary hyperparathyroidism, with high serum calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. Nonfunctioning PC is extremely rare. We report a 50-year-old male patient who was referred to our Department for a right thyroid nodule, incidentally detected on carotid Doppler ultrasound scan, with a fine-needle aspiration cytology showing a follicular lesion. At the time of our evaluation, neck ultrasound showed a 1.3 cm right hypoechoic thyroid nodule with irregular margins and the absence of enlarged bilateral cervical lymph nodes. Thyroid function tests were normal. Serum calcium was normal and plasma PTH slightly above the upper limit of the normal range. The patients underwent right lobectomy. The intraoperative frozen-section pathological examination raised the suspicion of a PC. Definitive histology showed a markedly irregular infiltrative growth of the tumor with invasion of the thyroid tissue and cervical soft tissues. Immunostaining for thyroglobulin was negative, whereas staining for chromogranin A and PTH showed a strong reactivity. Based on the microscopic findings and the immunohistochemical profile, the tumor was diagnosed as a PC. Postoperative serum calcium and phosphate levels were in the normal range. One month after surgery, serum calcium and PTH were normal. Neck ultrasound and total body computed tomography scan were negative for local and metastatic disease. Eight months later, serum calcium was normal and plasma PTH level remained around the upper limit of normal range. Neck ultrasound did not show any pathological lesions. This is the first case of a nonfunctioning sporadic PC misdiagnosed prior of surgery as a follicular thyroid nodule. The parathyroid nature of the neck lesion could not be suspected before surgery. Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) may fail to distinguish a parathyroid tumor from a benign thyroid nodule because at FNAC, parathyroid and thyroid lesions have some morphological similarities. Histological criteria are not always sufficient for the differential diagnosis, which can definitely be established using immunohistochemistry." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 158, 300 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 27, 52 ] ], "text": "Biopsy would be useful if the diagnosis is uncertain or if we would like to assess liver involvement that is not suspected with this analysis." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Perform liver biopsy.", "2": "Perform hepatic MRI.", "3": "Initiate treatment with phlebotomies.", "4": "Start treatment with desferroxamine.", "5": "Start treatment with Vitamin E." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1071_23095", "title": "Hemochromatosis, alcoholism and unhealthy dietary fat: a case report.", "score": 0.019801980198019802, "content": "Hereditary hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disorder where the clinical phenotype of skin pigmentation and organ damage occurs only in homozygotes. Simple heterozygotes, that is, just C282Y, typically do not develop iron overload. Here we present a case where a simple heterozygote in combination with alcoholism developed high ferritin and high transferrin saturation levels indicative of iron overload. Though alcoholism alone could explain her presentation, we hypothesize that an inflammatory cocktail of iron and alcohol probably caused our patient to succumb to acute liver failure at a very young age. A 29-year-old Caucasian woman presented to the hospital with progressively worsening yellowish discoloration of her eyes and skin associated with anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diffuse abdominal discomfort, increasing abdominal girth, dark urine and pale stools for about 2 weeks. Family history was significant for hereditary hemochromatosis. Her father was a simple heterozygote and her grandmother was homozygous for C282Y. Physical examination showed scleral icterus, distended abdomen with hepatomegaly and mild generalized tenderness. Lab test results showed an elevated white blood cell count, ferritin 539 ng/dL, transferrin saturation 58.23%, elevated liver enzymes, elevated international normalized ratio (INR), low albumin, Alcoholic Liver Disease/Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (ALD/NAFLD) Index (ANI) of 2.6, suggesting a 93.2% probability of alcoholic liver disease, and phosphatidyl ethanol level of 537ng/ml. Genetic testing showed that the patient was heterozygous for human homeostatic iron regulator protein (HFE) C282Y mutation and the normal allele. Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen revealed hepatomegaly, portal hypertension and generalized anasarca. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) showed negative results for bile duct pathology. Workup for other causes of liver disease was negative. A diagnosis of acute alcoholic hepatitis was made, with Maddrey's discriminant function of &gt; 32, so prednisolone was started. Her bilirubin and INR continued to increase despite steroids, and the patient unfortunately died. Our case highlights the importance of considering hemochromatosis in the differential diagnosis of young patients presenting with liver failure, including cases suggestive of alcoholism as the likely etiology. Larger studies are needed to investigate the role of non-iron factors like alcohol and viral hepatitis in the progression of liver disease in simple heterozygotes with hereditary hemochromatosis, given the high prevalence of this mutation in persons of Northern European descent." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0356_3189", "title": "[Primary hemochromatosis in asymptomatic young patients].", "score": 0.01913919413919414, "content": "In order to increase our knowledge of adult haemochromatosis epidemiology and its clinical behaviour in young patients, we studied 4 patients from 3 pedigrees with idiopathic haemochromatosis. Diagnostic criteria were: 1) Discarding the presence of secondary haemosiderosis. 2) Histological and histochemical confirmation of hepatic iron overload. Mean age at time of diagnosis was 25.2 years. Male/female ratio was 1. All of them were clinically asymptomatic, what shows the main difference with juvenile haemochromatosis, presenting earlier and more aggressively. Physical examination could not find abnormalities in any case. Regarding analytical studies, the main results were as follows: mean serum iron level was 209.5 mg/dl (s = 37.8), transferrin 206 mg/dl (s = 24.5), transferrin saturation was 77.4% (s = 9); ferritin, ASAT &amp; ALAT were abnormal exclusively in the 2 males), the other measurements being between normal limits in all cases. Abdominal MRI showed an impaired hepatic signal in 2 cases. Liver biopsy was accomplished in 3 of them, showing massive deposits of hemosiderin in the hepatocytes in the 2 male cases and chronic hepatitis in one of them. There was no evidence of damage to other organs. Genetic studies showed that the 2 siblings were homozygous for the HFE 845GAEA (C282Y) mutation and in the other 2 cases HLA-A3,B7 was found to be associated. At present, after a year or more, all of them remain asymptomatic, liver function tests and mean serum ferritin levels are within normal limits, IST is &lt; 65%, while Hb continues being &gt; 11 g/dl. To conclude, we would like to emphasize the extraordinary importance of early diagnosis and careful treatment in this common and remediable illness (otherwise lethal), to reach a normal and symptoms-free lifespan." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0770_11840", "title": "Rare cause of weight loss in a kidney transplant recipient: iron overload.", "score": 0.018543956043956044, "content": "Various reasons such as malignancies and chronic infections may cause weight loss in kidney transplant patients. In this report, iron overload as a rare cause of weight loss in a kidney transplant patient is presented. Forty-seven-year-old male patient who transplanted from a deceased donor 5 years ago was hospitalized because of 20 kg of weight loss. In medical history, he had history of hemodialysis for 89 months and received 100-300 mg of intravenous iron therapy per week before transplantation and transfused eight units of blood. In physical examination, weight and height were 45 kg and 185 cm, respectively. Respiratory and cardiac auscultation was normal. Laboratory results revealed as follow: glucose 76 mg/dL, urea 60 mg/dL, creatinine 1.35 mg/dL, aspartate aminotransferase 74 U/L, alanine aminotransferase 77 U/L, C-reactive protein 2.59 mg/dL, albumin 3.3 g/dL, globulin 3.4 g/dL, white blood cells 3200/mm(3), hemoglobin 13.1 g/dL and platelets 190,000/mm(3). Chest and abdominal tomography didn't reveal any pathology. Portal Doppler ultrasound showed signs of early cirrhosis. Viral and autoimmune hepatitis markers were negative. Ferritin was 5300 ng/mL and transferrin saturation was 82%. In liver biopsy, hemosiderosis was diagnosed and heterozygous H63D gene mutation was detected. Totally, 19 units of phlebotomy were performed. Liver function tests and serum ferritin decreased gradually. At outpatient follow-up in 6 months, he returned to former weight. In conclusion, there can be several causes of weight loss in kidney transplant patients. Iron overload can come across as a rare cause of weight loss. In these patients, ferritin levels should be checked and diagnosis should be clarified by liver biopsy and gene mutation analysis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0548_17581", "title": "[Molecular genetic diagnostics and screening of hereditary hemochromatosis].", "score": 0.0179549114331723, "content": "Hereditary hemochromatosis is considered one of the most common hereditary diseases in population of Caucasian origin. In recent years, a candidate gene for HLA-linked hemochromatosis, HFE, has been cloned, and a single G-to-A mutation resulting in a cysteine-to-tyrosine substitution (C282Y) has been identified in up to 80% of study patients with type 1 hereditary hemochromatosis. The purpose of the paper was to confirm the importance of genetic testing for HFE mutations in making the diagnosis of hemochromatosis and find out a suitable diagnostic algorithm for the indication of this form of diagnostics in patients suspected of hereditary hemochromatosis. The examination of C282Y mutation was conducted in 500 subjects. The most frequent indications for DNA analysis were hepatopathy of unknown ethiology, liver cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, bronze skin pigmentation in connection with high serum iron concentration, elevated transferrin saturation and elevated serum ferritin levels. In our group of patients, 29 homozygotes and 75 heterozygotes for C282Y mutation were identified, 10 patients carried both C282Y and H63D mutations of HFE gene (compound heterozygotes), whereas in 386 subjects the mutation was not found. The genotype-phenotype correlation showed that 22 homozygotes had liver affection proved by imaging and/or histologic methods. Except the liver disorders, the most common symptoms of these patients were type 2 diabetes mellitus or glucose tolerance disorder (10 patients), arthritis or joint pain (9 patients) and cardiovascular disorders, such as cardiomyopathy (2 patients). Bronze skin pigmentation was present in 9 homozygotes. Transferin saturation values were significantly higher in homozygotes for C282Y mutation as compared to C282Y heterozygotes (p &lt; 0.001), C282Y/H63D compound heterozygotes (p &lt; 0.05) or wild type subjects (p &lt; 0.001) respectively. Also serum ferritin levels were significantly higher in homozygotes for C282Y mutation as compared to C282Y heterozygotes (p &lt; 0.001), C282Y/H63D compound heterozygotes (p &lt; 0.001) and wild type subjects (p &lt; 0.001) respectively. Our observations confirm that DNA analysis significantly contributes to differential diagnostics of this severe, but in early recognition curable disease. Early detection and phlebotomy treatment prior to the onset of cirrhosis can reduce morbidity and normalize life expectancy. It is readily identified through biochemical testing for iron overload using serum transferrin saturation and genetic testing for C282Y homozygosity. DNA analysis is recommended in patients whose transferrin saturation is 45% or more on a repeated test. General population screening has been waived in preference to targeting high-risk groups such as first-degree relatives of affected individuals and those with secondary iron overload, especially patients with chronic liver disorders and chronic anemia. This screening strategy is likely to continue until uncertainties regarding the natural history of the disease, age-related penetrance, and management of asymptomatic individuals are clarified." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0507_17516", "title": "[Study of patients referred for elevated ferritin levels and/or transferrin saturation: significance of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease].", "score": 0.016955114675671873, "content": "To determine the etiology of increased ferritin concentrations and/or transferrin saturation in patients in whom classical causes were ruled out. We studied 43 patients (35 males and 8 females) who were referred for ferritinemia greater than 300 ng/ml and or a transferrin saturation index (TSI) greater than 40%. In all patients, glycemia, cholesterol, triglycerides, uric acid, total and fractionated bilirubin, transaminase, gammaglutamyltranspeptidase, sideremia, TSI, ferritin, HFE gene mutations, ceruloplasmin and total 24-hour urine porphyrin were evaluated and abdominal ultrasonography was performed. In 14 patients liver biopsy was performed. Fifty-three percent was overweight and 19% was obese. Alterations in carbohydrate metabolism were detected in 33%, hypercholesterolemia was found in 14%, hypertriglyceridemia in 35%, and hyperlipemia type IIb in 16%. Thirty-two percent showed isolated elevated ferritin, 12% had elevated TSI and 56% showed elevation of both. Transaminase levels were normal in 61%. No mutation in the HFE gene was found in 10 patients, the H63D/wt mutation was found in 18, C262Y/wt in 1, C282Y/H63D in 5, C282Y/C282Y in 4, H63D/H63D in 3 and Ser65cys/wt in 1. Ultrasonography revealed steatosis in 19 patients (44%). Definitive diagnoses were HFE-linked hemochromatosis (4 patients), juvenile hemochromatosis (1 patient), hepaticocutaneous porphyria (1 patient), and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (22 patients; 51%). Most of the remaining patients could be included under insulin resistance syndrome. Phlebotomy was performed in 25 patients, with improvement in clinical and laboratory parameters. Non-alcoholic fatty acid disease is frequently detected in patients with iron metabolism disorders. These patients should undergo investigations for metabolic alterations and liver ultrasonography and, if necessary, biopsy. Phlebotomy can be useful in the treatment of these patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0410_9415", "title": "[Rare, but important chronic liver diseases].", "score": 0.015791945520723258, "content": "The presence of steatosis and inflammatory infiltrate in liver biopsies is essential for the diagnosis of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH). These findings are similar to those with alcoholic liver disease. However, in the NASH-situation alcohol doesn't play an important role. Risk factors for the development of NASH are obesity and diabetes. Most of the patients are clinically asymptomatic. This means, that a diagnosis of NASH is a diagnosis of exclusion: Viral induced, autoimmune, metabolic and toxic liver disease have to be excluded. The disease has a benign clinical course. The risk of cirrhosis is low. So far, there is no established treatment. Preliminary reports suggest a positive effect of weight-loss and ursodeoxycholic acid. Wilson's disease, a copper storage disorder, in which biliary copper excretion is reduced, is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. Most patients with Wilson disease become symptomatic between the ages of 6 and 15. In about 90% of patients serum ceruloplasmin levels and serum copper concentrations are reduced. Copper excreation is increased. Histologic examination of liver biopsy specimens reveals fatty infiltration, Mallory bodies and ballooned glycogen nuclei, abnormalities which are also found in alcoholic liver disease. The definitive diagnostic parameter is the quantitative determination of liver copper content (&gt; 250 micrograms/g dryweight). Untreated Wilson disease is always fatal. Lifelong treatment with anti-copper drugs are essential, D-penicillamine being the firstline therapy. Hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) is an iron overload disease inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. The frequency of the disease is high. The first symptoms usually can be found at the age of 20-50 years. Arthralgia develops in up to 50% of the patients. Many organs are involved, most often the liver. The organ is usually enlarged, transaminases are always moderately elevated. Laboratory findings disclose a marked elevation in serum ferritin and transferrin saturation. More than 80% of HH-patients are homozygous for the C282Y-mutation in the HFE-gene. The firstline treatment of HH is phlebotomy. Treatment is lifelong. When serum ferritin drops below 50 micrograms/l, the frequency of phlebotomy should be reduced (4-12 per year). If the patient already has cirrhosis, the risk of HCC is very high." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0368_8274", "title": "[Hereditary hemochromatosis].", "score": 0.015640273704789834, "content": "Hereditary hemochromatosis is a fairly common disease in the Caucasian population, with a prevalence estimated at between 1.5 to 3/1,000 inhabitants. Over the past few years, its symptomatology has altered; at present, its clinical aspect with diabetes mellitus, cirrhosis, and darker skin pigmentation only constitutes 10% of new cases of this disease. In 1996, the discovery of the C282Y mutation in the HFE gene radically altered the diagnostic approach to hereditary hemochromatosis. At present, any patient admitted with an isolated case of asthenia, or with arthralgia or hypertransaminasemia should be examined via transferrin-saturation testing: if the transferrin saturation coefficient is &gt; 45%, then the presence of the C282Y mutation should be investigated to confirm the diagnosis of hemochromatosis. A liver biopsy is no longer necessary to establish the diagnosis, but this is still useful in cases of possible cirrhosis, which is the main risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma. Phlebotomy remains the sole recommended treatment, and should be undertaken in a case-specific manner. Family screening should be carried out for all first-degree relatives for every new case that is diagnosed. The discovery of the HFE gene has permitted hereditary hemochromatosis to be easily differentiated from other forms of hepatic iron overload including a new syndrome, dysmotabolic hepatosiderosis. Casos of homozygotic C282Y without hepatic iron overload have been described, but the clinical outcome of some of these cases requires further study, and adds to the controversy on whether systematic population screening should be made available." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0368_1044", "title": "Clinical aspects of hemochromatosis.", "score": 0.015114143269483075, "content": "Hemochromatosis is one of the most frequent genetic diseases among the white populations, affecting one in three hundred persons. Its diagnosis has been radically transformed by the discovery of the HFE gene. In a given individual, the diagnosis can, from now on, be ascertained on the sole association of a plasma transferrin saturation (TS) over 45% and homozygosity for the C282Y mutation. Liver biopsy is only required to search for cirrhosis whenever there is hepatomegaly and/or serum ferritin &gt;1000 ng/ml and/or elevated serum AST. Family screening is mandatory, primarily centered on the siblings. The treatment remains based on venesection therapy which improves many features of the disease (one of the most refractory, however, being the joint signs) and permits normal life expectancy provided the diagnosis is established prior to the development of cirrhosis or of insulin-dependent diabetes. In view of the prevalence, the non-invasive diagnosis, the spontaneous severity and the efficacy of a very simple therapy, hemochromatosis should benefit from population screening. This screening could be based, first, on the assessment of transferrin saturation, followed - when elevated - by the search for the C282Y mutation. The discovery of the HFE gene has also paved the road for the individualization of other types of iron overload syndromes which are not HFE-related." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0546_8541", "title": "Liver diseases in the hemochromatosis and iron overload screening study.", "score": 0.014626594779266535, "content": "The Hemochromatosis and Iron Overload Screening (HEIRS) Study screened 101,168 primary care participants for iron overload with serum transferrin saturation (TS), ferritin, and C282Y and H63D mutations of the HFE gene. All C282Y homozygotes and participants with an increased TS (&gt;45% women, &gt;50% men) and serum ferritin level (&gt; 200 microg/L women, &gt;300 microg/L men) were recalled for a clinical history and physical examination, and blood tests including alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase levels. Hepatitis B surface antigen and anti-hepatitis C virus were measured if the ALT level was increased (&gt;31 IU/L in women, &gt;40 IU/L in men). In the group of participants selected to return for clinical examination because of increased TS and ferritin levels, ALT increases and anti-hepatitis C virus were found in 95 of 284 (33%) African Americans, 50 of 466 (11%) Asian and Pacific Islanders, 21 of 120 (18%) Hispanics, and 40 of 477 (8.4%) Caucasians. ALT increases and hepatitis B surface antigen were detected in 24 of 466 (5%) Asian and Pacific Islanders, 10 of 284 (3.5%) African Americans, 3 of 120 (2.5%) Hispanics, and 2 of 477 (.42%) Caucasians. Of 86 liver biopsy specimens obtained for clinical purposes, 53 were reviewed by a single study pathologist. Liver fibrosis (stage 3 or 4) was present in 2 of 11 (18.2%) C282Y homozygotes that underwent central review and 2 of 302 (.66%) C282Y homozygotes attending the clinical examination. Screening for iron overload with ferritin and TS detects persons with viral hepatitis and other types of liver disease. A minimum of .66% C282Y homozygotes have liver fibrosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0989_3100", "title": "John's story - living with hereditary haemochromatosis.", "score": 0.014496532304322886, "content": "Iron can accumulate in the body due to several causes, resulting in iron overload syndrome. The most common cause is hereditary haemochromatosis (HH), a genetic disorder triggered by inactivation of the iron hormone hepcidin, which results in hyperferraemia and excessive tissue iron deposition. Other causes include repeated blood transfusion, iron-loading anaemias and some chronic liver diseases. Left undiagnosed, HH can cause significant damage to the liver, heart, pancreas and joints, because excess iron is toxic. This also increases the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma, especially in those with cirrhosis of the liver, with an estimate of 1 in 10 HH patients affected. The risk of developing type 2 diabetes is increased by 2.5-7.1 times compared with non-diabetic patients. Haemochromatosis is usually considered when elevated serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels are found. Ferritin in excess of 300 ng/mL usually indicates iron overload. Genetic testing can identify the two most common mutations in the HFE gene - a positive result confirms the diagnosis of haemochromatosis - but there are also rare forms of the disease unrelated to HFE mutations. Liver biopsy can be used to ascertain iron accumulation and histological presence of fibrosis (cirrhosis). Assessment of the hepatic iron index is considered the gold standard for diagnosis of haemochromatosis. Magnetic resonance imaging has been used as a non-invasive alternative to accurately estimate iron deposition levels in the liver, heart, joints and pituitary gland. Population screening is not recommended; however, family members of identified people should be screened to determine their phenotypic or carrier potential. Early diagnosis enables preventative measures to be commenced. Routine treatment is by regular venesection of 500 mL of whole blood per session. An initiation phase of weekly or twice-weekly venesection is common until serum ferritin (SF) is reduced to normal. When SF and other markers are within normal range, regular venesections are usually scheduled 1-3 months apart, depending on the underlying cause and SF response. Dietary iron including red meat and fortified foods such as cereals should be avoided. Vitamin C promotes iron absorption, and supplementation should be avoided, as should alcohol, which can increase the risk of concomitant liver disease. John's story outlines a typical journey through diagnosis, treatment and care during HH while living on Arran, an island off the coast of Scotland. Subsequently, John developed hepatocellular carcinoma, and his treatment and palliative care are described. We wrote this article to give the reader an insight to this silent disorder and the value of recognising the signs and symptoms for early diagnosis and subsequent treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0350_1206", "title": "[Flu-like infection and liver disease after a stay in the tropics].", "score": 0.014271255060728745, "content": "A 38-year-old patient, an experienced traveller to the tropics, fell ill with a flu-like infection, a fever of up to 38.6 degrees C and nausea on returning from an 8-week trip to southern Africa (Namibia, Zambia and Zimbabwe). Physical examination was unremarkable, except for slight physical debility. His father had died of liver cirrhosis of unknown aetiology, aged 68 years. Laboratory tests revealed eosinophilia (12% on a count of 7,800 WBC/microliter, increased transaminase activities [SGPT 142 U/l, SGOT 50 U/l, gamma GT 32 U/l], slightly increased serum ferritin [1057 ng/dl], but normal serum iron and transferrin levels). Untreated stool contained Schistosoma mansoni eggs. Tests for a haemochromatosis gene and its type showed a homozygotic C282Y variant. Liver biopsy demonstrated chronic portal hepatitis with parenchymal transformation and marked haemosiderin deposits in liver epithelium. The schistosomiasis was treated with praziquantel, 40 mg/kg by mouth on one day, divided in three doses, without complication. The haemochromatosis was treated symptomatically, at first by weekly bloodletting 500 ml while monitoring serum ferritin concentration. Life-long bloodletting at longish intervals is anticipated. The incidence of some infectious diseases has greatly risen as a result of an increase in tourism to distant lands. In particular, the diagnosis of frequent parasitic diseases should become part of the expertise in internal medicine. The combination of several diseases should be considered in the differential diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0536_7282", "title": "Screening for hemochromatosis in asymptomatic subjects with or without a family history.", "score": 0.013829022988505746, "content": "Hemochromatosis in white subjects is mostly due to homozygosity for the common C282Y substitution in HFE. Although clinical symptoms are preventable by early detection of the genetic predisposition and prophylactic treatment, population screening is not currently advocated because of the discrepancy between the common mutation prevalence and apparently lower frequency of clinical disease. This study compared screening for hemochromatosis in subjects with or without a family history. We assessed disease expression by clinical evaluation and liver biopsy in 672 essentially asymptomatic C282Y homozygous subjects identified by either family screening or health checks. We also observed a subgroup of untreated homozygotes with normal serum ferritin levels for up to 24 years. Prevalence of hepatic iron overload and fibrosis were comparable between the 2 groups. Disease-related conditions were more common in male subjects identified by health checks, but they were older. Hepatic iron overload (grades 2-4) was present in 56% and 34.5% of male and female subjects, respectively; hepatic fibrosis (stages 2-4) in 18.4% and 5.4%; and cirrhosis in 5.6% and 1.9%. Hepatic fibrosis and cirrhosis correlated significantly with the hepatic iron concentration, and except in cases of cirrhosis, there was a 7.5-fold reduction in the mean fibrosis score after phlebotomy. All subjects with cirrhosis were asymptomatic. Screening for hemochromatosis in apparently healthy subjects homozygous for the C282Y mutation with or without a family history reveals comparable levels of hepatic iron overload and disease. Significant hepatic fibrosis is frequently found in asymptomatic subjects with hemochromatosis and, except when cirrhosis is present, is reversed by iron removal." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0401_17367", "title": "[Hereditary hemochromatosis].", "score": 0.013392857142857144, "content": "Hereditary hemochromatosis is an inherited autosomal recessive disease, associated to a mutation in the recently described HFE gene, which is located on the short arm of chromosome 6. The product of this gene combines with the beta-2-microglobulin and the ferritin receptor, and regulates the iron absorption in the small intestine crypt cells. It is possible that the mutation may cause the increased iron uptake by the intestinal cells. The disease is very much common in men after the forties, and its expression is influenced by concomitant alcoholism, iron rich diet, oral and parenteral iron administration, menstrual blood loss or abnormal hemorrhages, blood donations, pregnancy, lactation, and iron malabsorption clinical conditions, like celiac disease. Many patients are asymptomatic, and the diagnosis may be suspected by hepatomegaly of unknown cause, abnormal iron metabolism tests, increased serum aminotransferase levels, diabetes mellitus, and anonymous arthropathy. Less commonly hereditary hemochromatosis presented by symptoms and signs of chronic liver disease, or by the classic triad described by Trousseau skin pigmentation, hepatomegaly and diabetes mellitus. The diagnosis is confirmed by the increased serum ferritin levels and transferrin saturation, and the stainable iron in hepatocytes, measured by scale devised by Scheuer et al, or the measurement of the hepatic iron. The C282Y mutation was found in 64 to 100% of patients; eventually, subjects with hepatic iron overload identical to hereditary hemochromatosis has no mutation, and homozygous for the C282Y mutation do not express iron overload. Iron is best and quickly removed by weekly or twice-weekly phlebotomy of 500 ml, containing approximately 250 mg iron. One to 3 years of weekly phlebotomy may be required to reduce stores to normal. As a guide to long-term maintenance therapy, is recommended phlebotomy every 3 months and the serum ferritin level should be maintained by less than 50 ng/ml." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_84325", "title": "Hereditary haemochromatosis", "score": 0.013272672582343211, "content": "Other blood tests routinely performed include blood count, renal function, liver enzymes, electrolytes, and glucose (and/or an oral glucose tolerance test). Liver biopsy Liver biopsies involve taking a sample of tissue from the liver, using a thin needle. The amount of iron in the sample is then quantified and compared to normal, and evidence of liver damage, especially cirrhosis, is measured microscopically. Formerly, this was the only way to confirm a diagnosis of haemochromatosis, but measures of transferrin and ferritin along with a history are considered adequate in determining the presence of the malady. Risks of biopsy include bruising, bleeding, and infection. Now, when a history and measures of transferrin or ferritin point to haemochromatosis, whether a liver biopsy is still necessary to quantify the amount of accumulated iron is debatable. MRI MRI-based testing is a noninvasive and accurate alternative to measure liver iron concentrations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0349_5713", "title": "[The diagnosis of hemochromatosis in the era of the gene].", "score": 0.013044579533941236, "content": "The discovery of the hemochromatosis gene has deeply changed and simplified the diagnosis of the disease. In a given individual, establishing the diagnosis relies, from now on, on a simple blood sample showing the couple: elevated transferrin saturation and homozygous C282Y mutation (= C282Y +/+). Liver biopsy should only be performed when iron overload is massive in order to detect cirrhosis (or bridging fibrosis), i.e. in a prognostic view. Practically, liver biopsy is confined to the following two situations: when the C282Y +/+ patient exhibits hepatomegaly and/or an increase in serum transaminases and/or a serum ferritin level above 1,000 micrograms/L; whenever, despite a strong bio-clinical suspicion of iron overload, genetic testing does not show the expected homozygosity for C282Y. At the family level, evaluating the risk for hemochromatosis is now \"instantaneous\" thanks to genetic testing. One must, however, keep in mind in interpreting the data of the family members that: clinical expression of the homozygous status is not constant; heterozygosity for C282Y does not per se lead to significant iron overload, but may constitute a co-factor exacerbating (or increasing the risk of) other hepatic or non hepatic diseases. Heterozygosity exposes also to the risk of homozygosity among the offspring; this knowledge of C282Y status must be balanced by the negative impact from the standpoint of possible societal genetic discrimination." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_29041", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012151046859421734, "content": "TAblE 428-2 REPRESEnTATivE iRon vAluES in noRmAl SubJECTS, PATiEnTS wiTH HEmoCHRomAToSiS, AnD PATiEnTS wiTH AlCoHoliC livER DiSEASE Adult first-degree relative of patient with HH Subjects with unexplained liver disease Individual with suggestive symptoms (see text) Transferrin saturation and serum ferritin* TS <45% SF <300 TS ˜45% and/or SF >300 °gL Reassure, possibly retest later HFE Genotype PhlebotomyNormal Counsel and consider non-HFE hemochromatosis Serum ferritin – 300–1000 °g/L LFT normal Serum ferritin > 1000 °g/L and/or LFT abnormal Serum ferritin <300 °g/L LFT normal Observe retest in 1–2 years C282Y Homozygote C282Y/H63D (Compound Heterozygote) Confirmed iron overload *For convenience both genotype and phenotype (iron tests) can be performed together at a single visit in first-degree relatives. Liver biopsy No iron overload Investigate and treat as appropriate" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_68056", "title": "Iron overload", "score": 0.012040761598283722, "content": "Biopsy Liver biopsy is the removal of small sample in order to be studied and can determine the cause of inflammation or cirrhosis. In someone with negative HFE gene testing, elevated iron status for no other obvious reason, and family history of liver disease, additional evaluation of liver iron concentration is indicated. In this case, diagnosis of haemochromatosis is based on biochemical analysis and histologic examination of a liver biopsy. Assessment of the hepatic iron index (HII) is considered the \"gold standard\" for diagnosis of haemochromatosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is used as a noninvasive way to accurately estimate iron deposition levels in the liver as well as heart, joints, and pituitary gland. Treatment Phlebotomy" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_29038", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01157796451914099, "content": "The role of liver biopsy in the diagnosis and management of hemochromatosis has been reassessed as a result of the widespread availability of genetic testing for the C282Y mutation. The absence of severe fibrosis can be accurately predicted in most patients using clinical and biochemical variables. Thus, there is virtually no risk of severe fibrosis in a C282Y homozygous subject with (1) serum ferritin level less than 1000 μg/L, (2) normal serum alanine aminotransferase values, (3) no hepatomegaly, and (4) no excess alcohol intake. However, it should be emphasized that liver biopsy is the only reliable method for establishing or excluding the presence of hepatic cirrhosis, which is the critical factor determining prognosis and the risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma. Biopsy also permits histochemical estimation of tissue iron and measurement of hepatic iron concentration. Increased density of the liver due to iron deposition can be demonstrated by computed tomography (CT) or" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0360_12954", "title": "[Diagnosis and treatment of genetic hemochromatosis].", "score": 0.011152761857554448, "content": "Genetic hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disease, characterized by an increased iron absorption, leading to progressive iron overload. The fully expressed phenotype comprises fatigue, skin pigmentation, liver disease with hepatomegaly, cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma, and diabetes. Arthralgias are frequent, cardiopathy or impotence may occur. This presentation is now unfrequent with earlier diagnosis, and patients are often asymptomatic--with only biochemical expression--or pauci-symptomatic (mild fatigue, arthralgias or increased transaminases). Transferrin saturation is always increased. Serum ferritin is proportional to iron burden. Diagnosis is now easy, since most patients are homozygote for the C282Y mutation of the HFE gene. Liver biopsy can be useful to quantify iron overload and assess liver fibrosis. The disease can be lethal due to liver disease, carcinoma or heart disease, but life expectancy goes to normal if patients are treated before the occurrence of cirrhosis. Treatment relies on regular venesections. Familial screening is essential." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_352", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.011147403434119445, "content": "■↑ serum iron, percent saturation of iron, and ferritin with ↓ serum transferrin. Fasting transferrin saturation (serum iron divided by transferrin level) > 45% is the most sensitive diagnostic test. Glucose intolerance and mildly elevated AST and alkaline phosphatase can be present. Perform a liver biopsy (to determine hepatic iron index), hepatic MRI, or HFE gene mutation screen. Weekly phlebotomy; when serum iron levels ↓, perform maintenance phlebotomy every 2–4 months. Deferoxamine can be used for maintenance therapy. Cirrhosis, hepatocellular carcinoma, cardiomegaly leading to CHF and/or conduction defects, DM, impotence, arthropathy, hypopituitarism. ■↓ ceruloplasmin and excessive deposition of copper in the liver and brain due to a deficient copper-transporting protein. Linked to an autosomalrecessive defect on chromosome 13. Usually occurs in patients < 30 years of age; 50% of patients are symptomatic by age 15." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en114_9174", "title": "Brodifacoum", "score": 0.01048202909003486, "content": "In another case reported in 2013, a 48-year-old female patient reported 4 days of mild dyspnea, dry cough, bilateral popliteal fossae pain, and diffuse upper abdominal pain. She had no history of liver disease or alcohol or illicit substance abuse. Initial physical examination was remarkable only for mildly pale conjunctivae and mild abdominal tenderness and pain in the left popliteal fossa. A complete blood count and complete metabolic panel were normal. Prothrombin time (PT) was above 100 s, partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was above 200 s and international normalized ratio (INR) was reported as above 12.0. Urinalysis revealed hematuria (blood in the urine). Venous Doppler ultrasound of lower extremities demonstrated left popliteal vein thrombosis. Computed tomography scan of the abdomen demonstrated transmural hematoma, and a fecal occult blood test was positive. A full anticoagulant work-up showed critical reduction of vitamin K-dependent factors II, VII, IX, and X. PT and PTT" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_29042", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010378957980112725, "content": "FIGURE 428-3 Algorithm for screening for HFE-associated hemochromatosis. HH, hereditary hemochromatosis, homozygous subject (C282Y +/+); LFT, liver function tests; SF, serum ferritin concentration; TS, transferrin saturation. normal, the child is merely an obligate heterozygote and at no risk. Otherwise, for practical purposes, children need not be checked before they are 18 years old. The role of population screening for hemochromatosis is controversial. Recent studies indicate that it is highly effective for primary care physicians to screen subjects using transferrin saturation and serum ferritin levels. Such screening also detects iron deficiency. Genetic screening of the normal population is feasible but is probably not cost effective." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en085_30376", "title": "Abdominal mass", "score": 0.010206810483152078, "content": "Diagnosis The first steps in diagnosis are a medical history and physical examination. Important clues during history include weight loss, diarrhea and abdominal pain. During physical examination, the clinician must identify the location of the mass, as well as characterize its location (usually specified in terms of quadrants). The mass should be assessed for whether it is rigid or mobile. It should also be characterized for pulse or peristalsis, as these would help in further identifying the mass. Routine blood tests are usually the next step in diagnosis after a thorough medical history and physical examination. They should include a full blood count, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, and liver function tests such as albumin, international normalized ratio (INR), partial thromboplastin time (PTT), serum amylase and total bilirubin (TBIL). If late-stage liver disease is suspected, then a serum glucose may be appropriate." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_29040", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010161929940515532, "content": "When the diagnosis of hemochromatosis is established, it is important to counsel and screen other family members (Chap. 84). Asymptomatic and symptomatic family members with the disease usually have an increased saturation of transferrin and an increased serum ferritin concentration. These changes occur even before the iron stores are greatly increased (Fig. 428-2). All adult first-degree relatives of patients with hemochromatosis should be tested for the C282Y and H63D mutations and counseled appropriately (Fig. 428-3). In affected individuals, it is important to confirm or exclude the presence of cirrhosis and begin therapy as early as possible. For children of an identified proband, testing for HFE of the other parent is helpful because if TAblE 428-2 REPRESEnTATivE iRon vAluES in noRmAl SubJECTS, PATiEnTS wiTH HEmoCHRomAToSiS, AnD PATiEnTS wiTH AlCoHoliC livER DiSEASE" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en029_4119", "title": "Liver disease", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Diagnosis A number of liver function tests are available to test the proper function of the liver. These test for the presence of enzymes in blood that are normally most abundant in liver tissue, metabolites or products. serum proteins, serum albumin, serum globulin, alanine transaminase, aspartate transaminase, prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time. Imaging tests such as transient elastography, ultrasound and magnetic resonance imaging can be used to examine the liver tissue and the bile ducts. Liver biopsy can be performed to examine liver tissue to distinguish between various conditions; tests such as elastography may reduce the need for biopsy in some situations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0283_20693", "title": "[Asymptomatic carriers of HBsAg: is a follow-up necessary?].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We evaluated the clinical and epidemiological data of 142 HBsAg carriers. This prospective trial is part of a program of study and follow-up in HVB patients. The median age was 34.58 years old, males 56.3%. The average follow-up was 32.4 months. Complete clinical history, routine analysis, liver function tests, alfa-fetoprotein, serology for HVB, HCV and HDV and abdominal ecography were done in all patients. DNA-HVB was done only in special cases. Patients with less than 6 months of follow-up were excluded. The 118 remaining carriers were classified into two groups, depending on ALT values. Group 1 (normal ALT): included 98 carriers, 3 of them developed an active chronic hepatitis that was treated with interferon. A small CHC was diagnosed in another patient and it was resected. Group 2 (elevated ALT): included 20 carriers, only 9 of them agreed to biopsy and we found severe hepatic lesions in 4 of them. No group presented coinfection with HCV or HDV. No patient died. We conclude that the study and follow-up of asymptomatic HBsAg carriers permits an early diagnosis and treatment of the complications of this pathology (chronic hepatitis, CHC, etc); in our study, three patients developed chronic hepatitis, successfully treated with interferon, and one small size CHC was diagnosed in another patient. The study of relatives permits also detect subclinic liver disease and facilitates vaccination to prevention transmission of this infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0347_14789", "title": "A population-based study of the clinical expression of the hemochromatosis gene.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Hereditary hemochromatosis is associated with homozygosity for the C282Y mutation in the hemochromatosis (HFE) gene on chromosome 6, elevated serum transferrin saturation, and excess iron deposits throughout the body. To assess the prevalence and clinical expression of the HFE gene, we conducted a population-based study in Busselton, Australia. In 1994, we obtained blood samples for the determination of serum transferrin saturation and ferritin levels and the presence or absence of the C282Y mutation and the H63D mutation (which may contribute to increased hepatic iron levels) in 3011 unrelated white adults. We evaluated all subjects who had persistently elevated transferrin-saturation values (45 percent or higher) or were homozygous for the C282Y mutation. We recommended liver biopsy for subjects with serum ferritin levels of 300 ng per milliliter or higher. The subjects were followed for up to four years. Sixteen of the subjects (0.5 percent) were homozygous for the C282Y mutation, and 424 (14.1 percent) were heterozygous. The serum transferrin saturation was 45 percent or higher in 15 of the 16 who were homozygous; in 1 subject it was 43 percent. Four of the homozygous subjects had previously been given a diagnosis of hemochromatosis, and 12 had not. Seven of these 12 patients had elevated serum ferritin levels in 1994; 6 of the 7 had further increases in 1998, and 1 had a decrease, although the value remained elevated. The serum ferritin levels in the four other homozygous patients remained in the normal range. Eleven of the 16 homozygous subjects underwent liver biopsy; 3 had hepatic fibrosis, and 1, who had a history of excessive alcohol consumption, had cirrhosis and mild microvesicular steatosis. Eight of the 16 homozygous subjects had clinical findings that were consistent with the presence of hereditary hemochromatosis, such as hepatomegaly, skin pigmentation, and arthritis. In a population of white adults of northern European ancestry, 0.5 percent were homozygous for the C282Y mutation in the HFE gene. However, only half of those who were homozygous had clinical features of hemochromatosis, and one quarter had serum ferritin levels that remained normal over a four-year period." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1113_2603", "title": "Liver Disease: Evaluation of Patients With Abnormal Liver Test Results.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The prevalence of abnormal liver test results in the general population is estimated to be between 10% and 20%. The terms <iliver tests</i or <iliver chemistries</i are recommended to describe more accurately the tests used to assess liver health, instead of the term <iliver function tests</i. Defining normal ranges for liver transaminase levels can be challenging. Levels are affected by factors such as body mass index and sex. Elevated transaminase levels are associated with increased risks of liver-related and all-cause mortality. Patient with signs or symptoms of liver disease or abnormal liver test results should be evaluated to determine the etiology. For patients with abnormal liver test results, the initial evaluation should include a review of previous laboratory test results, medical and family histories, substance use, and drugs, including over-the-counter drugs and herbal supplements. Physical examination results often are normal but findings may be consistent with acute disease. Tests should include a complete blood cell count; alanine aminotransferase, aspartate aminotransferase, alkaline phosphatase, total bilirubin, and albumin levels; prothrombin time; hepatitis B surface antigen; hepatitis B core antibody; hepatitis C antibody; ferritin and iron levels and transferrin saturation; and right upper quadrant abdominal ultrasonography. Additional tests and imaging should be based on patient-specific risk factors and the pattern of abnormal liver test results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0501_23829", "title": "Klinefelter's syndrome presenting with leg ulcers.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A 54-year-old man of Persian origin presented to our department with a 1-year history of ulcers on the right leg that had been unresponsive to numerous topical treatments, accompanied by lymphedema of the right leg. Medical history included hypergonadotropic hypogonadism, which had not been further investigated. He was treated for 20 years with testosterone IM once monthly, which he stopped a year before the current hospitalization for unclear reasons. The patient reported no congenital lymphedema. Physical examination revealed two deep skin ulcers (Figure 1) on the right leg measuring 10 cm in diameter with raised irregular inflammatory borders and a boggy, necrotic base discharging a purulent hemorrhagic exudate. Bilateral leg pitting edema and right lymphangitis with lymphadenitis were noted. He had low head hair implantment, sparse hair on the body and head, hyperpigmentation on both legs, onychodystrophia of the toenails (mainly the large toe and less prominent on the other toes), which was atrophic lichen-planus-like in appearance and needed no trimming (Figure 2), normal hand nails, oral thrush, and angular cheilitis. Other physical findings were gynecomastia, pectus excavatum, small and firm testicles, long extremities, asymmetrical goiter, systolic murmur 2/6 in left sternal border, and slow and inappropriate behavior. The patient's temperature on admission was 39 degrees C. Blood cultures were negative for bacterial growth. Results of laboratory investigations included hemoglobin (11.2 g/dL), hematocrit (26.8%), normal mean corpuscular volume and mean corpuscular hemoglobin volume, and red blood cell distribution width (16%). Blood smear showed spherocytes, slight hypochromia, anisocytosis, macrocytosis, and microcytosis. Blood chemistry values were taken for iron (4 micro g/dL [normal range 40-150 micro g/dL]), transferrin (193 mg/dL [normal range 220-400 mg/dL]), ferritin (1128 ng/mL [normal range 14-160 ng/mL]), transferrin saturation (1.5% [normal range 20%-55%]), serum folate (within normal limits), and vitamin B12 (within normal limits). Direct Coombs' test equaled positive 2 + IgG. All these values indicated anemia of chronic diseases combined with hemolytic anemia. Further blood work-up tested antinuclear antibody (positive &lt;1:80 homogeneous pattern), rheumatoid factors (143 IU/mL [positive &gt;8.5 IU/mL]), C-reactive protein (286 mg/L [normal range 0-5 mg/L]), anticardiolipin IgM antibody (9.0 monophosphoryl lipid U/mL [normal range 0-7.00 MPL U/mL]) and antithrombin III activity (135% [normal range 74%-114%]). Results of other blood tests were within normal limits or negative, including lupus anticoagulant, beta2 glycoprotein, anticardiolipin IgG Ab, anti-ss DNA Ab, C3, C4, anti-RO, anti-LA, anti-SC-70, anti-SM Ab, P-ANCA, C-ANCA, TSH, FT4, anti-T microsomal, antithyroglobulin, protein C activity, protein S free, cryoglobulins, serum immunoelectrophoresis, VDRL, hepatitis C antibodies, hepatitis B antigen, and human immunodeficiency virus. Endocrinological work-up examined luteinizing hormone (22.9 mIU/mL [normal range for adult men 0.8-6 mIU/mL]), follicle stimulating hormone (49.7 mIU/mL [normal range for adult men 1-11 mIU/mL]), testosterone (0.24 ng/mL [normal range for adult men 2.5-8.0 ng/mL]), bioavailable testosterone (0.02 ng/mL [normal range for adult men &gt;0.6 ng/mL]), and percent bioavailable test (8.1% [normal value &gt;20%]). These results indicate hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. Plasminogen activator inhibitor 1 was 6 U (normal value 5-20 U/mL). Karyotyping performed by G-banding technique revealed a 47 XXY karyotype, which is diagnostic of Klinefelter's syndrome. Doppler ultrasound of the leg ulcers disclosed partial thrombus in the distal right femoral vein. X-rays and bone scan displayed osteomyelitis along the right tibia. Histological examination of a 4-mm punch biopsy from the ulcer border revealed hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, hypergranulosis, and mixed inflammatory infiltrate containing eosinophils compatible with chronic ulcer. Multiple vessels were seen, compatible with a healing process. Direct immunofluorescence of the biopsy revealed granular IgM in the dermo-epidermal junction. Indirect immunofluorescence was negative. Thyroid function tests showed normal thyroid stimulating hormone and free throxine4. Multinodular goiter was seen on thyroid scan and ultrasound. Thyroid fine needle aspiration was compatible with multinodular goiter (normal follicular cells, free colloid, macrophages with pigment). IV treatment with amoxicillin-clavulanic acid 1 g t.i.d. was administered for 2 weeks, with a decrease in temperature and normalization of the leukocyte level. Oral antibiotic treatment with amoxicillin-clavulanic acid was continued for 10 more days, followed by 25 days of ciprofloxacin for the osteomyelitis. Local treatment included saline soakings followed by application of Promogran (Johnson &amp; Johnson, New Brunswick, NJ) and Kaltostat (ConvaTec Ltd., a Bristol-Myers Squibb Company, New York, NY) with slight improvement. At the same time, the patient was treated with warfarin sodium due to deep vein thrombosis under international normalized ratio 2-3. The patient was treated with IM testosterone once monthly for 1 year, which resulted in a reduction in the diameter and depth of the leg ulcers (Figure 3). Blood tests were not performed for follow-up of the immune state." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0515_10367", "title": "Mildly elevated liver transaminase levels in the asymptomatic patient.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Mild elevations in liver chemistry tests such as alanine transaminase and aspartate transaminase can reveal serious underlying conditions or have transient and benign etiologies. Potential causes of liver transaminase elevations include viral hepatitis, alcohol use, medication use, steatosis or steatohepatitis, and cirrhosis. The history should be thorough, with special attention given to the use of medications, vitamins, herbs, drugs, and alcohol; family history; and any history of blood-product transfusions. Other common health conditions, such as diabetes, heart disease, and thyroid disease, can cause or augment liver transaminase elevations. The recent American Gastroenterological Association guideline regarding the evaluation and management of abnormal liver chemistry tests proposes a practical, algorithmic approach when the history and physical examination do not reveal the cause. In addition to liver chemistries, an initial serologic evaluation includes a prothrombin time; albumin; complete blood count with platelets; hepatitis A, B, and C serologies; and iron studies. Depending on the etiology, management strategies may include cessation of alcohol use, attention to medications, control of diabetes, and modification of lifestyle factors such as obesity. If elevations persist after an appropriate period of observation, further testing may include ultrasonography and other serum studies. In some cases, biopsy may be indicated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0823_4924", "title": "Successful Treatment of Rapid Onset, Symptomatic de novo Non-alcoholic Steatohepatitis Following Liver Transplantation: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 45 year old female with a body mass index (BMI) of 24 underwent successful liver transplantation (LT) for alcoholic cirrhosis using a donor liver from an obese woman with microvesicular steatosis (80%) and minimal macrovesicular steatosis (5-10%) on liver biopsy. Ascites and hepatosplenomegaly developed soon after LT with progressive increase of serum alkaline phosphatase to 1340 IU/L while aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and alanine transaminase (ALT), and total bilirubin remained normal. Imaging showed marked hepatomegaly, extensive fatty infiltration of the liver, and compression of the hepatic veins with narrowing of the intrahepatic inferior vena cava (IVC). Liver biopsy on post-operative day 39 revealed 90-100% macrovesicular steatosis, steatohepatitis, and portal fibrosis. A hepatic venogram showed a 10 cm segment of intrahepatic IVC stenosis that was stented, improving portal venous pressure measurements. However, portal hypertension requiring diuretic therapy and multiple paracenteses remained. By 3 months after LT, her liver had grown to 22 cm, transaminases increased 2-4 times the upper limit of normal with a 2:1 AST to ALT ratio. Liver biopsy at post-LT day 82 showed no change in steatosis and steatohepatitis despite corticosteroid withdrawal and interval periportal and perisinusoidal fibrosis. 12 weeks after LT, the patient was found to have low apolipoprotein B (65 mg/dL), high-density lipoprotein (HDL) (&lt;10 mg/dL), low-density lipoproteins (LDL) (9 mg/dL), and total cholesterol (&lt;50 mg/dL) levels. Therapy was started for NASH with high dose (800 IU daily) vitamin E and pioglitazone 15 mg daily, and she received topical vegetable oil and oral essential fatty acid supplements. Liver enzymes normalized after 3 months and her lipid profile improved markedly (HDL 27 mg/dL, total cholesterol 128 mg/dL), with progressive decrease in liver size and resolution of ascites after 5 months of therapy. At 2 years post-LT, the liver enzymes remain normal and lipids have normalized. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0410_2628", "title": "[Five-year follow-up of clinical and laboratory data of early liver cirrhosis patients confirmed by liver biopsy].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "It is important to evaluate the general status of the liver including the structural and inflammatory aspects, as well as the functional aspects, in order to determine a patient's treatment modality and prognosis. 55 Child-Pugh class A liver cirrhosis patients confirmed by liver biopsy have been categorized into 4 groups based on the shunt index and p-value(Y= 3.3431-0.8160 ALT/AST ratio-0.0343 X prothrombin time+2.6963 X shunt index, p = e(y)/(e(y)+1)), which was obtained by Thallium- 201 scan; group I - shunt index less than 0.3 and p-value less than 0.7; group II - shunt index less than 0.3 and p-value more than 0.7; group III - shunt index more than 0.3 and p-value less than 0.7; and group IV - shunt index more than 0.3 and p-value more than 0.7. Statistical analyses used were ANOVA, paired t-test, and Chi-square test. 1. The laboratory data after a 5-year follow-up also showed a significant difference between four groups. 2. In group IV, the Child-Pugh class after 5 years worsened, and complications of liver cirrhosis such as esophageal varix, ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy occurred more frequently. 3. In group II, the laboratory data after a 5-year follow-up indicated some improvement. It can be seen that even early in patients with initially the same cirrhosis, the course of the illness can progress to a variety of different situations. The measurement of shunt index and the p-value of cirrhosis will be more helpful in the follow-up evaluation and predicting its prognostic index in liver cirrhosis patients." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 119, 410 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 21, 66 ] ], "text": "According to the DSM-5, a compulsion is a repetitive behavior (e.g., washing hands, tidying up, checking things) or mental act (e.g., praying, counting, repeating words silently) that the subject performs in response to an obsession or in accordance with rules that must be rigidly enforced." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Obsessive-compulsive disorder.", "2": "Obsession.", "3": "Impulsion.", "4": "Compulsion.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1009_24025", "title": "Toddler Sleep Challenges: All in a Day's Work.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Leo is a 26-month-old boy who you are seeing for an urgent care visit due to \"sleep difficulty,\" particularly sleep onset. Since age 1, he screams, hits, and kicks his mother every day, starting after she gets home from work at 5 PM (or before the family's dinnertime on her days off) and escalating over the course of the evening until he \"wears himself out\" and falls asleep in a crib in his own room around 9 to 10 PM Once asleep, he sleeps well through the night and wakes easily around 7 AM in a pleasant mood; his mother leaves for work soon after he awakens. He naps after lunch for 2 to 3 hours on weekdays at an in-home child care with 1 to 2 adult caregivers and 5 other children aged 0 to 5 years. He refuses to nap at home.Leo goes to bed easily when his father puts him to bed if his mother is not at home, but his mother feels that evenings are the only time she can spend with Leo, and so, she tries to put him to bed most nights. However, because of Leo's behaviors at bedtime with her, she feels inadequate, depressed, and guilty; when she tries to disengage or allow her husband to help, Leo screams, \"Mommy, mommy!\" and tries to gain access to her and resists his father putting him to bed until his mother returns. Both parents worry that \"he would not grow out of this,\" and his mother now avoids coming home from work for fear of Leo's behavior. Both parents feel that this situation is causing marital strain.Leo was born healthy at full-term and is an only child; pregnancy was complicated by hyperemesis gravidarum. Leo has been healthy and meeting developmental milestones. His parents describe his temperament as \"like his father at that age,\" \"easy, but never able to self-soothe,\" \"intense\" in his emotional reactions, persistent, \"strong-willed and serious,\" and \"shy and observant, withdrawn at first and then getting more pleasant after a while\" in novel situations. Behaviorally, he engaged in noninjurious head-banging at home when upset between 12 and 15 months; bit children a few times at child care between 20 and 24 months; and lately refuses to share or will push other children at child care every few weeks. His parents recently read a book about parenting \"spirited\" children but did not find it helpful. What would you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_36101", "title": "Fourth Way", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Teachings and teaching methods Basis of teachings Present here now We do not remember ourselves Conscious Labor is an action where the person who is performing the act is present to what he is doing; not absentminded. At the same time he is striving to perform the act more efficiently. Intentional suffering is the act of struggling against automatism such as daydreaming, pleasure, food (eating for reasons other than real hunger), etc. In Gurdjieff's book Beelzebub's Tales he states that \"the greatest 'intentional suffering' can be obtained in our presences by compelling ourselves to endure the displeasing manifestations of others toward ourselves\" To Gurdjieff, conscious labor and intentional suffering were the basis of all evolution of man. Self-Observation Observation of one's own behavior and habits. To observe thoughts, feelings, and sensations without judging or analyzing what is observed. The Need for Effort" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0395_16097", "title": "[Amnesic presentations of the compulsive obsessional confusions (about 3 patients appearing in a consultation of memory)].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Disorders or complaints of memory are a frequent cause of consultation in depression, major anxiety and psychiatry disease with personality disorders. We report 3 patients with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), without diagnosis and treatment, examined in a specialized memory consultation. They always had OCD with cognitive checking. Diagnosis of transient global amnesia and temporal complex seizure were discussed in 2 cases. Psychometric impairment only was observed in first free recall of a verbal memory task and was no specific. Behavioural during testing seemed to be very important to analyse. First, a 49-year-old man consulted because he had stereotyped transient amnesia lasted one minute, 2 or 3 times a week, since 6 months. He was a teacher. Transient amnesia always occurred during lessons. Suddenly he didn't know where he was or what he was speaking about. Episodes lasted one minute. After them, he had no confusion and no difficulty in concentration but intense anxiety. In an another hand, when he was in his car, after lessons, he could forget where he was during some minutes. CT scan and EEG were normal. Neuropsychological tests only objectived impairment in first free recall of Grober and Buschke's words. Patient explained that he could not prevent to check responses. He told us checking obsessive compulsive disorder during since long time ago. We discussed clear differences which existed between seizure and ruminations or preoccupations. Secondly, a 55-year-old woman was afraid of her memory performances. She was medical secretary and had no problem in her work but she would like a memory consultation to reassure herself. She was neither depressed nor anxious. She presented curious production in fluency task. She had to produce as many animals's names as possible: she could say 35 names which was an excellent performance but only in alphabetic order! Neuropsychological tests objectived impairment in her first free recall of Grober and Buschke's words. She tried in her first free recall to remember words in alphabetic order. She explained how she was bound to range everything in alphabetic order! She had a lot of rituals. She thought that she had an obsessive compulsive disorder but never consulted about this. The observation illustrated suspiscions about memory operations which could be observed in patients group with obsessive compulsive disorders. Finally, a 62-year-old man told us that he had presented a transient global amnesia during 4 hours. He had an important appointment and was upset about that. He didn't go to it and wandered in his flat. He always asked the same questions and forgot everything. He had no neurological deficit. He was anxious, sad and cried several times. He perfectly remembered the episod and thought that he had a panic attack! Verbal memory tests only objectived difficulties in his first free recall of Grober and Buschke words as the two others patients. He had a story of obsessive compulsive disorder with checking and rituals. In this observation, we discussed clear differences which existed between panic attacks and global transient amnesia. We analyzed patterns of neuropsychological performances which illustrated clinical features of obsessive compulsive disorder. These three patients impaired in their first free recall of verbal memory task. It is not a specific result. We observed during psychometric evaluation, strategic processing which impaired episodic memory: patients tried to check their performances. Memory complaints only were observed in checking obsessive compulsive disorder. It is a difficulty or a doubt about memory capacities. Difficulties could be due to particular cognitive processes who pertubate normal memory capacities." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en216_19721", "title": "Let Every Man Mind His Own Business", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "After some time the Howards begin to socialize more outside the home and engage in more \"excitement\". Eventually, the two have children and Augusta is unable to leave the house as frequently. During this time Edward succumbs to temptation and begins drinking more and more heavily, having to be carried home one evening by friends. Unfortunately, even Augusta's pleas cannot save him at this point and he begins to travel extensively, involving himself in risky business ventures which eventually leave him bankrupt. Once all has been lost the Howard family moves to a new city where they are unknown so that they may fade into the background. For some time they live in poverty until one day Augusta's brother Henry arrives in an attempt to save her. She resists at first, but eventually leaves, an act which does cause a slight moral upturn in Edward." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1007_19220", "title": "Maintaining Safety and Planning for the Future.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Kevin is a 12-year-old boy with autism spectrum disorder, intellectual disability (nonverbal IQ scores in mid-40s), and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder who has been followed up by a developmental-behavioral pediatrician (DBP) and a child psychologist for medication and behavioral management since he was 4 years old. Kevin was placed in the care of his great-great-aunt shortly after he turned 2 years of age because of concerns of neglect. She is now his legal guardian.Kevin is predominately nonverbal but does use a few single words to make requests or label items. He attends a public school and receives full-time special education support. He has a personal care assistant (PCA) who provides in-home support 5 to 6 days/wk for 3 to 4 hours at a time. The PCA is working on toilet training, using a \"clock-training\" approach, and also takes Kevin outdoors to play or on short outings during her visits. In his free time, Kevin prefers to watch cooking shows on television.Over the past year, Kevin's behaviors have become more concerning. There have been several episodes of Kevin waking up during the early morning hours and going to the kitchen to \"cook.\" After one of these episodes, his guardian was not aware that Kevin had woken up until the next morning when she found a concoction of corn starch, coffee grounds, cottage cheese, and powdered drink mix in the blender. Kevin had also woken up during the night and ventured out of the house into the back yard. His guardian had woken up immediately as the alarm system sounded when he opened the outer door from the house to the yard.A door alarm was added to Kevin's bedroom door so that his guardian would be alerted when he leaves his bedroom; however, the alarm is not used consistently because there are times when the alarm cannot be found at bedtime. Kevin's guardian was able to obtain a GPS device for him to wear on his shoe from the local police department. He wears this without resistance every day.Kevin's guardian is in her mid-70s, and she has had several health issues over the past 2 to 3 years. There are no other family members who are willing or able to care for Kevin if his guardian were no longer able to. The DBP and child psychologist have encouraged Kevin's guardian to explore long-term residential care options with the state agency that provides support for individuals with intellectual disabilities and with Kevin's insurance provider, but the guardian is very reluctant to do this. She fears that Kevin will be removed from her care or placed in a \"home\" where someone will \"do bad things to him.\"What else would you recommend or actions would you take to support Kevin's guardian in ensuring Kevin's safety and planning for his future care?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en577_29633", "title": "Four Good Days", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "On the second day, Sean, Molly's ex and her children's father, allows her to see them. Although at first reluctant, they are happy to see her and make the most of their time together. She and Deb go grocery shopping, where they see Coach Miller, who invites Molly to speak to her class on drug addiction. Back at home Deb reveals that she was very unhappy with Molly's father Dale, as she felt forced into marriage after becoming pregnant with Molly's older sister Ashley, and thus walking out on the family. Her abandonment is something Molly has always held against Deb, attributing it to her having become an addict. Deb dismisses this, admitting that Dale's implied mental and emotional abuse as the reason for her leaving, much to Molly's surprise." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0895_1225", "title": "\"Media Addiction\" in a 10-Year-Old Boy.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Bryan is a 10-year-old boy who is brought to his pediatrician by his parents with concerns about oppositional behaviors. Bryan's parents report that he has always been hyperactive and oppositional since a very young age. He has been previously diagnosed with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder and has been treated with appropriate stimulant medications for several years; however, despite this, his parents feel increasingly unable to manage his difficult behaviors. He refuses to do chores or follow through with household routines. He refuses to go to bed at night. His family feels unable to take him to public places because he \"climbs all over everything.\" At school, he acts up in class, is often disruptive, and requires close supervision by teachers. He was recently kicked off of the school bus. He has very few friends, and his parents state that other children do not enjoy to be around him.Bryan's parents also report that he is \"obsessed\" with electronics. He spends most his free time watching TV and movies and playing computer games. He has a television in his bedroom because otherwise he \"monopolizes\" the family television. The family also owns several portable electronic devices that he frequently uses. Bryan insists on watching TV during meals and even that the TV stays on in an adjacent room while showering. He gets up early each morning and turns on the television. He refuses to leave the house unless he can take a portable screen device with him. His parents admit to difficulty placing limits on this behavior because they feel it is the only way to keep his other behaviors under control. His mother explains \"it is our only pacifier\" and that attempts to place restrictions are met with explosive tantrums and have thus been short lived. These efforts have also been impeded due to the habits of his parents and older sibling, who also enjoy spending a significant amount of time watching television." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en064_54747", "title": "No Longer at Ease", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Themes Though set several decades after \"Things Fall Apart\", \"No Longer at Ease\" continues many of the themes from Achebe's first novel. Here, the clash between European culture and traditional culture has become entrenched during the long period of colonial rule. Obi struggles to balance the demands of his family and village for monetary support while simultaneously keeping up with the materialism of Western culture. Furthermore, Achebe depicts a family continuity between Ogbuefi Okonkwo in \"Things Fall Apart\" and his grandson Obi Okonkwo in \"No Longer at Ease\". Both men are confrontational, speak their minds, and have some self-destructive tendencies. However, this aggressive streak manifests itself in different ways. Where his grandfather was a man of action and violence, Obi is a man of words and thoughts to the exclusion of action.The story portrays the theme of corruption." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0760_21826", "title": "\"Media addiction\" in a 10-year-old boy.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Bryan is a 10-year-old boy who is brought to his pediatrician by his parents with concerns about oppositional behaviors. Bryan's parents report that he has always been hyperactive and oppositional since a very young age. He has been previously diagnosed with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder and has been treated with appropriate stimulant medications for several years; however, despite this, his parents feel increasingly unable to manage his difficult behaviors. He refuses to do chores or follow through with household routines. He refuses to go to bed at night. His family feels unable to take him to public places because he \"climbs all over everything.\" At school, he acts up in class, is often disruptive, and requires close supervision by teachers. He was recently kicked off of the school bus. He has very few friends, and his parents state that other children do not enjoy to be around him. Bryan's parents also report that he is \"obsessed\" with electronics. He spends most his free time watching TV and movies and playing computer games. He has a television in his bedroom because otherwise he \"monopolizes\" the family television. The family also owns several portable electronic devices that he frequently uses. Bryan insists on watching TV during meals and even that the TV stays on in an adjacent room while showering. He gets up early each morning and turns on the television. He refuses to leave the house unless he can take a portable screen device with him. His parents admit to difficulty placing limits on this behavior because they feel it is the only way to keep his other behaviors under control. His mother explains \"it is our only pacifier\" and that attempts to place restrictions are met with explosive tantrums and have thus been short lived. These efforts have also been impeded due to the habits of his parents and older sibling, who also enjoy spending a significant amount of time watching television." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_45216", "title": "Homer Simpson", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Bart angering him (and can also be seen saying one of his catchphrases, \"Why you little—!\") in a cartoonish manner. The first instance of Homer strangling Bart was in the short \"Family Portrait\". According to Groening, the rule was that Homer could only strangle Bart impulsively, never with premeditation, because doing so \"seems sadistic. If we keep it that he's ruled by his impulses, then he can easily switch impulses. So, even though he impulsively wants to strangle Bart, he also gives up fairly easily.\" Another of the original ideas entertained by Groening was that Homer would \"always get his comeuppance or Bart had to strangle him back\", but this was dropped. Homer shows no compunction about expressing his rage, and does not attempt to hide his actions from people outside the family." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0895_1202", "title": "Bullying and ADHD: Which Came First and Does it Matter?", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Aiden, a 13-year-old boy in the sixth grade who is relatively new to your practice, is seen for follow-up after his routine physical last month when you noted concerns for possible attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and gave the family Vanderbilt Scales to complete. Aiden has a family history of ADHD, specific learning disabilities, and mood disorder.His mother reports that she is concerned about how Aiden is doing at school; his teachers are complaining that he is not doing his work, and she is worried that he may be kept back in school. Aiden first began having trouble in the third grade. He was retained in the fourth grade for academic and behavioral reasons. Now his mother has been receiving calls about him not paying attention, distracting others, and staring at his paper. At home, he does not want to do homework and gets very frustrated. In fifth grade, he had a psychoeducational evaluation and was found not eligible for services. His achievement testing showed average scores in reading, math, and writing. Cognitive testing demonstrated average scores for verbal and nonverbal abilities and memory but was significantly below average for processing speed. Aiden continues to have problems now in into the sixth grade.You speak with Aiden in the office and ask him about school. He says, \"It's bad. I'm failing.\" He believes his major problems at school are that he is not doing his homework, he easily becomes frustrated, and he argues with the teachers. He has supportive relationships with his family and friends at school. He gets along well with some of his teachers, noting that he loves his science teacher even though she is tough and \"gives hard homework.\" He describes his history teacher as \"annoying.\" When you ask what he means he states this teacher \"Can be not nice and says mean things. She picks on me a lot.\" His description is consistent with the use of shaming as a behavior he experiences at school.You review the completed parent and teacher Vanderbilt forms; both are consistent and concerning for combined type ADHD. You discuss the diagnosis of ADHD with his mother and both agree to revisit pharmacotherapy in September when the school year resumes. You give her resources on ADHD and classroom accommodations and discuss requesting a 504 plan at school. You also discuss behavioral therapy to better address his self-regulation skills.A week later, you receive a telephone call from Aiden's mother. \"Aiden got home today and he is more upset than I have ever seen him! His teacher told him in front of the class that he would probably stay back a year and now he is saying there is no point in going to school.\" She is not aware if retention has been recommended for Aiden.What would you say to Aiden's mother? What would you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en082_42877", "title": "Work behavior", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "When people or someone ignore their colleagues while at work. When people work slowly and the work needs to be done fast. When people refuse to help their colleagues. When people refuse to accept a task. When people show less interest in their work. When people show destructive behavior against their colleagues. When people do not appreciate their colleague's success. These are the examples of counterproductive behavior that people confront in their daily life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0772_17523", "title": "Bullying and ADHD: which came first and does it matter?", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Aiden, a 13-year-old boy in the sixth grade who is relatively new to your practice, is seen for follow-up after his routine physical last month when you noted concerns for possible attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and gave the family Vanderbilt Scales to complete. Aiden has a family history of ADHD, specific learning disabilities, and mood disorder.His mother reports that she is concerned about how Aiden is doing at school; his teachers are complaining that he is not doing his work, and she is worried that he may be kept back in school. Aiden first began having trouble in the third grade. He was retained in the fourth grade for academic and behavioral reasons. Now his mother has been receiving calls about him not paying attention, distracting others, and staring at his paper. At home, he does not want to do homework and gets very frustrated. In fifth grade, he had a psychoeducational evaluation and was found not eligible for services. His achievement testing showed average scores in reading, math, and writing. Cognitive testing demonstrated average scores for verbal and nonverbal abilities and memory but was significantly below average for processing speed. Aiden continues to have problems now in into the sixth grade.You speak with Aiden in the office and ask him about school. He says, \"It's bad. I'm failing.\" He believes his major problems at school are that he is not doing his homework, he easily becomes frustrated, and he argues with the teachers. He has supportive relationships with his family and friends at school. He gets along well with some of his teachers, noting that he loves his science teacher even though she is tough and \"gives hard homework.\" He describes his history teacher as \"annoying.\" When you ask what he means he states this teacher \"Can be not nice and says mean things. She picks on me a lot.\" His description is consistent with the use of shaming as a behavior he experiences at school.You review the completed parent and teacher Vanderbilt forms; both are consistent and concerning for combined type ADHD. You discuss the diagnosis of ADHD with his mother and both agree to revisit pharmacotherapy in September when the school year resumes. You give her resources on ADHD and classroom accommodations and discuss requesting a 504 plan at school. You also discuss behavioral therapy to better address his self-regulation skills.A week later, you receive a telephone call from Aiden's mother. \"Aiden got home today and he is more upset than I have ever seen him! His teacher told him in front of the class that he would probably stay back a year and now he is saying there is no point in going to school.\" She is not aware if retention has been recommended for Aiden.What would you say to Aiden's mother? What would you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en560_29", "title": "Willow Harris", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Writers planned a break-up for Willow and Dean following her continuous problems. Dean confides in Justin about Willow's gambling and requests that he look after her. He then breaks-up with her leaving Justin free to help her. A Home and Away publicist revealed that Dean \"reluctantly\" ends the relationship and \"knows that Justin is the only person she will listen to.\" Justin struggles to help Willow overcome her addiction. She lashes out at Justin and blames him for her addiction, but Tori tells her that she ruined her own life. Roberts did not believe that Willow and Dean's relationship was good for her character. She branded it a \"whirlwind relationship\" that created a \"worrying future\". Despite this she noted that Home and Away viewers \"love\" the duo's \"history and unyielding friendship\"." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0658_23905", "title": "The language and culture of delay.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Satish is a 3 (1/2)-year-old boy you are seeing in your primary care office for a \"sick visit\" due to parental concerns about his language development. He is the only child of a couple who immigrated to the United States from India shortly before his birth. He received early intervention services for speech and language delays for a few months before he attained 2 years of age. However, services were discontinued when the family moved back to India for a year. After the family returned to the United States, they lived in a different state for several months before moving again recently to his current home, so he is relatively new to your practice. Satish's mother is concerned not only about his communication skills but also about his attention and social skills. She notes that he often plays alone or in parallel with other children. She was also told by his first pediatrician that Satish had \"a limited imagination.\" His parents feel that he has pretend play, in that he will pretend to get his haircut, talk on the phone, or ride on a train. Satish was born at term without complications. He passed his newborn hearing screen and a repeat hearing test at the age of 2 years. He has had no medical problems and takes a daily multivitamin. His parents are both of Indian descent. Satish's father is an engineer and had a history of being a late talker. His mother graduated from high school and is a homemaker. They are expecting their second child. Satish's developmental history is significant for language delays. He babbled at 6 months but did not have single words until he was 2 years. When he was 2 (1/2) years, he had 2 to 3 word sentences. He responded to his name at 15 months and could follow single step commands by the age of 2 years. Currently, Satish is noted to have difficulty with \"back and forth conversation.\" He sometimes repeats what others are saying.The family speaks Hindi, their native language, exclusively at home. When Satish speaks, he usually speaks in Hindi. His parents describe him as using \"odd language\" in that he will often mix up his pronouns. Satish is in an English-speaking preschool. His preschool teachers report concerns that he seems to \"withdraw into his own world,\" and does not interact well with the other children. They also report attentional problems and poor eye contact.In the office, Satish makes good eye contact with the examiner and his parents. He looks to his parents for approval when completing a task requested of him. He seems to like an Elmo toy that is in the room but holds it and looks at it closely rather than pretend to do anything with it. You ask him to feed Elmo, and he says, \"Feed Elmo.\" Because it is not clear whether he understands the verbal cues given to him, his parents repeat English directions to him in Hindi several times. He eventually complies but then leaves his chair to explore the room. His parents continue to translate your questions to him with variable results. He becomes increasingly difficult to engage, despite repeated attempts, in both English and Hindi, to attract his attention. Where do you go from here?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en082_42176", "title": "The Entertainer (play)", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Act 2 The next day at the house, the rest of the family find out from the newspaper that Mick is a prisoner of war. They take comfort from the report which says he will be sent back home. Billy and Phoebe talk about Archie's lack of understanding. Billy talks about the good old days, and snaps at Phoebe for talking too much. Phoebe talks about Bill, Archie's brother, and how he bailed Archie out of a lot of trouble and has treated Phoebe kindly. Frank and Archie come home. Archie agrees Bill has been good to them. Frank wants to celebrate Jean's visit and Mick's homecoming. Archie gives a monologue about how crazy the family is and how it is hard for Jean to understand them well since she is the sensible one. Billy comes in from the kitchen and Phoebe finds that he has been eating the cake she has bought to welcome Mick back home. She becomes hysterical and Archie tries to calm the family down." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_1459", "title": "Discovering gifted children in pediatric practice.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Casey is a first grader who is brought to the pediatrician for consideration of ADHD. His mother is concerned that he is very difficult to focus at home when asked to do anything and gets so distracted at meals that he eats very little. The teachers last year and this year say that Casey is very distracted, always \"in a fog\" and just can't seem to get his work done. \"He's in his own world.\" His report card has several unsatisfactory marks because of poor completion of work, doing things other than the assignment and talking too much to the kids around him. The parents are very upset as they see their son as very bright. His advanced vocabulary, early reading skills and his extensive knowledge of engines, machines and aircraft were all noted in his medical chart in the past as part of his health supervision visits. He has lots of friends, mostly third graders and plays soccer with moderate success. The paternal grandmother says Casey is just like his dad who is now a biochemical geneticist. He too had a hard time getting his work in as a child and \"always talked back\" to the teacher. Casey's mother would like him on medication before the Iowa Basics come around. The Vanderbilt rating scales by both teacher and parent are positive for inattention and borderline for hyperactivity. Casey took it upon himself to speak to the principal about how bored he was with the classroom work. She agreed that he could have some special assignments. In the pediatrician's office, Casey is a delightful, verbal, thin boy who has about 100 things to talk about, from train engines to the sports scores, acquired from the television sports channel, to what should be done to \"fix\" his school. He said he was bored and knew more about volcanoes than the science teacher. He just wanted to get home each day and work on his elaborate train setup. He doesn't seem overly active, distractible, anxious, inattentive or oppositional. Testing by the school psychologist showed him to have an IQ of 138 with an even verbal/performance profile. Sam is a 4-year old whose parents brought him to the local private school for application to kindergarten. The admission requirements consisted of a group \"developmental\" test, given to groups of 20 youngsters at a time. Sam failed the test. The report said that he was too immature, talked out of turn and generally wasn't ready for the vigorous academic program planned at that school. He asked too many questions and argued with the admissions person. They suggested he might need medication before he attempted school. His parents asked their pediatrician for an opinion on the school report. They asked for a referral for testing as they could not believe their son was a preschool failure. The psychologist reported that his IQ was 142 (verbal 146 and performance 136)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en590_548", "title": "Them Are Us Too", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "One day after the birthday party, Ashlyn invited Askew to join her band. As Ashlyn recalled, \"The day after the party, I was playing one of the only three Them Are Us Too shows that I did without Cash, at this weird hippy commune. We were drinking moonshine, walking around arm in arm, and I was just like, 'You should be in my band.' It was pretty immediate—day one: friends; day two: bandmates. We’d always call her birthday our 'friendaversary,' and then the next day is our 'bandaversary.'In their first session, Askew attempted to play the synthesizer, but she then switched to the guitar. Musical sensibility The duo felt a deep creative connection. As explained by Ashlyn, \"There are things that I could say to Cash like, 'The snare should be like this,' or even, 'Can we make that bass tone a little bluer?' And she would know exactly what I was talking about.\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0876_17161", "title": "Trichotillomania: Bizzare Patern of Hair Loss at 11-Year-old Girl.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Trichotillomania (TTM) is defined by the Diagnostics and Statistic Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition (DMS-IV) as hair loss from a patient`s repetitive self-pulling of hair. The disorder is included under anxiety disorders because it shares some obsessive-compulsive features. Patients have the tendency towards feelings of unattractiveness, body dissatisfaction, and low self-esteem (1,2). It is a major psychiatric problem, but many patients with this disorder first present to a dermatologist. An 11-year-old girl came to our department with a 2-month history of diffuse hair loss on the frontoparietal and parietotemporal area (Figure 1). She had originally been examined by a pediatrician with the diagnosis of alopecia areata. The patient`s personal history included hay fever and shortsightedness, and she suffered from varicella and mononucleosis. Nobody in the family history suffered from alopecia areata, but her father has male androgenetic alopecia (Norwood/Hamilton MAGA C3F3). The mother noticed that the child had had changeable mood for about 2 months and did not want to communicate with other persons in the family. The family did not have any pet at home. At school, her favorite subjects were Math and Computer Studies. She did not like Physical Education and did not participate in any sport activities during her free time. This was very strange because she was obese (body-mass index (BMI) 24.69). She was sometimes angry with her 13-year-old sister who had better results at school. The girl had suddenly started to wear a blue scarf. The parents did not notice that she pulled out her hair at home. Dermatological examination of the capillitium found a zone of incomplete alopecia in the frontoparietal and parietotemporal area, without inflammation, desquamation, and scaring. Hairs were of variable length (Figure 1). There was a patch of incomplete alopecia above the forehead between two stripes of hair of variable length (Figure 2). The hair pull test was negative along the edges of the alopecia. Mycological examination from the skin capillitium was negative. The trichoscopy and skin biopsy of the parietotemporal region of the capillitium (Figure 3) confirmed trichotillomania. Laboratory tests (blood count, iron, ferritin, transferrin, selenium, zinc, vitamin B12, folic acid, serology and hormones of thyroid gland) were negative. We referred the girl for ophthalmologic and psychological examination. Ophthalmologic examination proved that there was no need to add any more diopters. The psychological examination provided us with a picture in which she drew her family (Figure 4). The strongest authority in the family was the mother because she looked after the girls for most of the day. She was in the first place in the picture. The father had longer working hours and spent more time outside the home. He worked as a long vehicle driver. He was in the second place in the picture. There was sibling rivalry between the girls, but the parents did not notice this problem and preferred the older daughter. She was successful at school and was prettier (slim, higher, curly brown hair, without spectacles). Our 11-years-old patient noticed all these differences between them, but at her level of mental development was not able to cope with this problem. She wanted to be her sister's equal. The sister is drawn in the picture in the third place next to father, while the patient's own figure was drawn larger and slim even though she was obese. Notably, all three female figures had very nice long brown hair. It seemed that the mother and our patient had better quality of hair and more intense color than the sister in the drawing. The only hairless person in the picture was the father. The girl did not want to talk about her problems and feelings at home. Then it was confirmed that our patient was very sensitive, anxious, willful, and withdrawn. She was interested in her body and very perceptive of her physical appearance. From the psychological point of view, the parents started to pay more interest to their younger daughter and tried to understand and help her. After consultation with the psychiatrist, we did not start psychopharmacologic therapy for trichotillomania; instead, we started treatment with cognitive behavioral therapy, mild shampoo, mild topical steroids (e.g. hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%) in solution and methionine in capsules. With parents' cooperation, the treatment was successful. The name trichotillomania was first employed by the French dermatologist Francois Henri Hallopeau in 1889, who described a young man pulling his hair out in tufts (3-5). The word is derived from the Greek thrix (hair), tillein (to pull), and mania (madness) (5). The prevalence of TTM in the general adult population ranges from 0.6% to 4%, and 2-4% of the general psychiatric outpatient population meet the criteria for TTM (2-5). The prevalence among children and adolescents has been estimated at less than 1% (5). The disease can occur at any age and in any sex. The age of onset of hair pulling is significantly later for men than for women (3). There are three subsets of age: preschool children, preadolescents to young adults, and adults. The mean age of onset is pre-pubertal. It ranges from 8 to 13 years (on average 11.3 years) (2-5). The occurrence of hair-pulling in the first year of life is a rare event, probably comprising &lt;1% of cases (5). The etiology of TTM is complex and may be triggered by a psychosocial stressor within the family, such as separation from an attachment figure, hospitalization of the child or parent, birth of a younger sibling, sibling rivalry, moving to a new house, or problems with school performance. It has been hypothesized that the habit may begin with \"playing\" with the hair, with later chronic pulling resulting in obvious hair loss (2). Environment is a factor because children usually pull their hair when alone and in relaxed surroundings. The bedroom, bathroom, or family room are \"high-risk\" situations for hair-pulling (5). Men and women also differed in terms of the hair pulling site (men pull hair from the stomach/back and the moustache/beard areas, while women pull from the scalp) (3). Pulling hair from siblings, pets, dolls, and stuffed animals has also been documented, often occurring in the same pattern as in the patient (5). Genetic factors contributing to the development of TTM are mutations of the SLITRK1 gene, which plays a role in cortex development and neuronal growth. The protein SAPAP3 has been present in 4.2% of TTM cases and patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). It may be involved in the development of the spectrum of OCD. A significantly different concordance rate for TTM was found in monozygotic (38.1%) compared with dizygotic (0%) twins in 34 pairs (3). The core diagnostic feature is the repetitive pulling of hairs from one`s own body, resulting in hair loss. The targeted hair is mostly on the scalp (75%), but may also be from the eyebrows (42%), eyelashes (53%), beard (10%), and pubic area (17%) (3,5). There are three subtypes of hair pulling - early onset, automatic, and focused. Diagnostic criteria for TTM according to DSM-IV criteria are (2,3,5): 1) recurrent pulling of one`s hair resulting in noticeable hair loss; 2) an increasing sense of tension immediately prior to pulling out the hair or when attempting to resist the behavior; 3) pleasure, gratification, or relief when pulling out the hair; 4) the disturbance is not better accounted for by another mental disorder and is not due to a general medical condition (e.g., a dermatologic condition); 5) the disturbance causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. The differential diagnosis includes alopecia areata (Table 1) (6), tinea capitis, telogen effluvium, secondary syphilis, traction alopecia, loose anagen syndrome, lichen planopilaris, alopecia mucinosa, and scleroderma (2-5). Biopsy of an involved area (ideally from a recent site of hair loss) can help to confirm the diagnosis (5). On histologic examination, there are typically increased numbers of catagen and telogen hairs without evidence of inflammation. Chronic hair pulling induces a catagen phase, and more hairs will be telogen hairs. Pigment casts and empty anagen follicles are often seen. Perifollicular hemorrhage near the hair bulb is an indicator of TTM (2). Complications of TTM are rare, but they comprise secondary bacterial infections with regional lymphadenopathy as a result of picking and scratching at the scalp. Many patients play with and ingest the pulled hairs (e.g. touching the hair to lips, biting, and chewing). Trichophagia (ingestion of the hair) can lead to a rare complication named trichobezoar (a \"hair ball\" in stomach). This habit is present in approximately 5% to 30% of adult patients, but it is less frequent in children. Patient with trichophagia present with pallor, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and weight loss. Radiologic examination and gastroscopy should not be delayed (2,4,5). The management of the disease is difficult and requires strong cooperation between the physician, patient, and parents. The dermatologist cannot take part in the therapy, strictly speaking, but without the psychological, psychopharmacologic, and topic dermatologic treatment a vicious circle will be perpetuated. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en172_14279", "title": "Masood Ahmed", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Much to Shabnam's disapproval, Masood and Jane begin dating again when she returns to Walford. Shabnam attempts to reunite Jane with her ex-husband Ian, even though Ian is now engaged to Denise. When Ian's daughter, Lucy (Hetti Bywater) is murdered (see Who Killed Lucy Beale?), Jane and Ian find solace together and have sex. Jane then breaks up with Masood and abruptly leaves Walford. Masood, having found out what had transpired between Ian and Jane, angrily accuses Ian of stealing his girlfriend but later feels remorse about confronting Ian while he was grieving. Weeks later, Masood helps Ian out at Ian's restaurant and the two make amends. Ian then offers Masood a job. Masood starts gambling once again after being denied the chance to acquire the Arjee Barjee, he uses his family's money to fund his habit" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0763_14041", "title": "History of head trauma in a 6-year-old boy: maybe more than meets the eye (and head).", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "It is spring and you are meeting for the first time, Eddie, a recently turned 6-year-old boy who moved to the area in September of the previous year and is here for his 6-year-old health maintenance visit. Eddie's mother is concerned that although he is \"only\" in kindergarten, he is not retaining any information at school. His mother reports he knew some of his letters before kindergarten. Currently, when he is trying to write a word, for example, \"daddy\" he will need to ask his mother: \"what letter is the letter D?\" Before kindergarten, he knew his numbers 1 to 10. At times now, Eddie will forget these numbers. For example, \"if he is counting he will forget what comes after 4 and what comes after 9.\" Mother reports he will start crying for no apparent reason and if she asks why, he will say \"I don't know why.\" Mother is worried that Eddie is sad, although she denies suicidal ideation. She reports he used to like making noise with other kids, and now he cannot stand when the children are noisy. Eddie will comment he does not want to go to school because the kids make lots of noise and his head hurts. He complains of headaches as often as 2 to 3 times a month. She next states, \"This was not an issue before his head trauma.\" At this point, she reveals to you that in August, before the family relocated, Eddie fell from a 7-foot deck onto concrete while playing. He struck his head on the left side and lost consciousness for several seconds until shaken awake. He was nauseous and disoriented initially but without emesis or incontinence. He was taken to the local emergency department where he was admitted for 1 day and diagnosed with closed head injury, left frontal epidural hematoma, and question of postconcussive syndrome. Eddie has gone back to see the neurosurgeon twice over the last 6 months for scheduled visits and since the accident has had no further treatment.Eddie's mother reports that before the accident, if she read him a story from a book, he could remember the details from the story. Currently, he does not have good memory recall. Before the trauma, he did not attend a preschool program but stayed home with his mother full time. Eddie's first formal schooling has been kindergarten this year. When they moved, the neurosurgeon recommended he start school at the end of September given his head trauma in August. He had a recent computed tomography completed 3 months ago showing the epidural hematoma had completely resolved and the study was otherwise normal. His mother reports he had an evaluation the spring before the accident for a kindergarten screening test and was reported as \"excellent.\" Eddie's birth and medical history are otherwise unremarkable except for some seasonal allergies. He has not had a loss in language skill, although his mother reports he did not speak during his hospitalization. He would just stare and nod his head if someone would ask him a question. No family history of any learning or behavioral difficulties on either side of the family. Eddie has 2 older brothers, 10 and 7 years of age, with no learning issues.What would you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en577_29632", "title": "Four Good Days", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "On her first day at home, Molly discovers through Deb, many of her misdeeds during her time as an addict, of which Molly clearly regrets. Although at home, Deb remains suspicious of Molly's intentions, but by the end of the day, secretly begins to have hope." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0956_4804", "title": "Autism Spectrum Disorder and Mental Health Comorbidity Leading to Prolonged Inpatient Admission.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Sam is a 6-year-old boy with a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) who recently relocated and has an appointment with you, his new pediatric clinician, to establish care. He was previously followed by a psychiatrist for 2 years for additional diagnoses of insomnia, bipolar disorder, anxiety, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, and intellectual disability. He has tried and (apparently) failed multiple psychotropic trials including stimulants, nonstimulants, mood stabilizers, atypical antipsychotics, and nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics. He has a delayed sleep onset and frequent night awakenings each night for the past 3 months, during which he \"screams, cries, and thrashes and can stay up for over an hour.\" His behaviors are described as irritable, self-injurious, and aggressive with no clear pattern of triggers according to his mother. He is nonverbal and communicates by leading and rarely pointing. The patient's current medication regimen includes clonidine 0.2 mg at night, lorazepam 1.5 mg as needed at night, olanzapine 5 mg twice daily, and diphenhydramine as needed for sleep/agitation. His mother is concerned that he is developing \"tolerance\" to the regimen and wants to wean him off some of the medications. His mother is struggling to take care of the patient given his worsening behavior and body habitus (body mass index &gt;99%; z = 3.41).There is a family history of depression, anxiety, bipolar disorder, and autism. He has a 3-year-old sister, who is also diagnosed with ASD, though she is not as severely impacted. His mother's partner recently moved in along with 2 children of his own, aged 3 and 4 years. Sam attends a specialized school, where he receives behavior therapy and occupational therapy. He has undergone inpatient pediatric hospitalization twice, 1 time for 3 weeks and the other for 6 days, for aggressive behavior, and in both instances, he was discharged before inpatient psychiatric placement because of a lack of available beds.After urgent consultation with your local developmental and behavioral pediatrician, a slight reduction was made in the lorazepam because of concerns about tolerance and side effects. However, within a week of this, he was brought to the emergency department for continued self-injurious behavior and increased trouble with sleeping. His mother voiced concerns about his safety in the home, which were particularly related to aggression toward his younger sister. He was admitted to the pediatric inpatient floor for observation, and medication adjustment (increasing olanzapine), which was initially helpful in improving behavior, but mostly behavioral/environmental strategies were used to soothe him, including frequent wagon rides through the hospital corridors.Despite the patient being stable from the medical standpoint, Sam's mother did not feel comfortable taking him home. Social work contacted local community mental health services to pursue outpatient resources and respite care options and sought inpatient pediatric psychiatry. After several failed attempts to find placement, he remained in pediatric inpatient care for 1 and a half months with no acute medical interventions other than his oral medications.He was finally accepted to the in-state pediatric psychiatric facility when a bed was available. During his week-long stay, he had further medication adjustments with a decrease in olanzapine and optimization of his clonidine dose. During his psychiatric hospital stay, care coordination succeeded in arranging center-based applied behavior analysis interventions and respite care and parent training for his family. Sam began to show improvement in his overall agitation and aggression, requiring less clonazepam, and his mother then maintained outpatient follow-up.The day before discharge, you visit him in the hospital, and a medical student asks you why he was in the hospital for so long. How would you answer the question?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en430_28071", "title": "Henry Michell Wagner", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Character Always a strong and assertive character, Wagner was not afraid to challenge behaviour and people he disapproved of. In 1822, when the then 15-year-old Marquess of Douro was behaving arrogantly towards the household's servants, Wagner hit him and wrote a strongly worded letter to the Duchess of Wellington criticising the boy as \"haughty in the extreme\" and the Duchess's own attitude: \"There is a veil before your eyes. You overlook Douro's faults\". Likewise, when conducting evensong at St Peter's Church one evening in 1834, he saw two military officers talking and misbehaving. \"He strode down the aisle ... and stationed himself between them for the rest of the service\", and when they asked for an apology for the embarrassment caused to them he instead demanded that they apologise for their conduct, otherwise he would write to his friend the Duke of Wellington and inform him about his officers' behaviour." }, { "id": "article-18185_4", "title": "Behavior Modification -- Introduction", "score": 0.008889324960753533, "content": "Conversely, positive punishment is the addition of an adverse consequence. For example, a child gets spanked when he crosses the street without holding his mother’s hand. He then no longer crosses the street alone. Spanking is positive punishment because it is a consequence added to the situation that decreases the likelihood of the child crossing the street alone. Negative punishment is taking away favorable consequences to reduce unwanted behavior. For example, if Emily doesn’t finish her homework on time, her cell phone gets taken away. She makes it a priority to finish her homework immediately after school before she does anything else. Removal of the cell phone would be a “negative” because it takes something away, decreasing the chance that she won’t finish her homework the next time." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0648_15276", "title": "Who rules the roost?", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Adam's mother was concerned about her 3-year-old son's hyperactivity, violence, and activity level. Adam and his mom had recently moved into a shelter for pregnant women. The rest of the residents are primarily in their early 20s, whereas Adam's mom is 42. She had found about 3 months ago that she was pregnant. This was her fourth pregnancy, second with this father, and he had recently left her when she refused an abortion. Her other children are 22 and 24 and live out of state. She has a history of opioid addiction. She had been on methadone during Adam's gestation and had recently started on buprenorphine to treat her addiction during this pregnancy as well. Adam is here today for his 3-year-old checkup and you had not seen him for a year. Mom states that he has been healthy but has become progressively active over the last year. He is very angry about his dad leaving, and according to Adam's mother \"blames her\" for sending him away. They are living in 1 room at the shelter, and mom is finding it increasingly difficult to keep him busy all day. When she goes out looking for a job, he is very challenging at the shelter, and she constantly receives complaints that he is \"too loud\" in the common rooms. She feels like she is at the end of her rope with him, he is constantly climbing, bolting from her, and taking risks.When you examine Adam, you find a robust, healthy young boy. His eye contact is good, and he is socially related but does actively explore your office. When he begins taking the instruments off your wall, his mother sits passively watching him. When he begins playing with the faucet, she half heartedly tells him to \"stop\" but he looks at her and continues splashing. He then begins flicking the light switch on and off in the room with no response from mom. When you ask about discipline, mom states \"nothing works.\" When you ask about supports, she states \"I have nobody except Adam and the new baby now.\"Adam was born after an uneventful full-term pregnancy with his mother on 100 mg methadone daily. She denies cigarette smoking, drugs, alcohol, or other medications. Urine testing throughout was positive only for opioids. Motor milestones were achieved at the appropriate time. Language milestones at the 2-year-old visit consisted of 10 single words. Now, he has a 50 single-word vocabulary but no 2-word combinations. He primarily takes whatever he wants and has a tantrum if mom cannot figure out what he desires. Adam's medical history is unremarkable. Family history is significant for drug abuse by her father and mother; mental illness in the father's family consisting of bipolar disorder in several uncles. Where do you go from here?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en053_40159", "title": "Housesitter", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Soon after, Newton travels to his hometown and is shocked to see that his house is lived in. When he finds out what Gwen has done he is initially furious, but he soon sees the potential in her being there. Gwen starts creating all sorts of opportunities for Newton: mending his relationship with his parents, helping out with his career by befriending Newton's boss and highlighting his long-ignored talent, and making Becky jealous. Newton and Gwen come to an agreement in which Gwen will help Newton win Becky, and in return she'll get all the furniture in the house. Through their time together, Newton begins to rely more on Gwen beyond their agreement, and Gwen starts to feel attached to her life with Newton. It is also revealed that Gwen became a compulsive liar in order to escape from what she feels is her own inadequate background, and that she has \"changed\" her life numerous times." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0631_24605", "title": "[Addiction and brief-systemic therapy: working with compulsion].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "In our daily practice in public hospitals, we are regularly confronted with the paradox of helping patients, who do not ask for help. Although the French law is clearly defined to allow us to treat patients suffering from psychiatric conditions, who are unable to give their consent, it is not the case for those with addictive disorders. In fact, their disorder does not always (or does not yet) justify treatment without their consent, according to the 1990 law (psychiatric treatment without the patient's consent). However, many of them are referred to us because a third party has forced them (spouse, general practitioner, treatment order) and even though some patients consult spontaneously, they often do so more \"for others\" than for themselves. Because of this, the therapist (doctor, psychologist or nurse), in addition to the paradox of treating patients who do not ask for treatment, find themselves in a situation with two-fold compulsion, fixed by the social (or family) setting, both as a helper and as a coercive agent, thus, putting the fundamental concepts of treatment into question. A therapeutic agreement, free-will and motivation are in jeopardy when the pressure is strong, which removes the therapist from his mission of treating. Although we would not question the necessity for psychiatric treatment in patients who do not ask for it (addictions are a major public-health problem), we should not forget that motivation is one of the essential elements for making any changes in behavior. Although compulsion (external or internal) is recognized by everyone as a limiting factor, we would like to show here how much it can be a lever for change, as long as this compulsion is identified right from the first meeting with the patient, who consults in an addiction centre. Brief systemic therapy may be of interest for these patients, since it reinforces the motivating approach, which is recommended today and since the compulsive nature of the request for treatment is not an obstacle for such treatment to be started. We try to outline here how the therapist can get out of this two-fold compulsion and help the patient to become the instigator of this change, often imposed on him. Two elements are fundamental to understand the function of brief systemic therapy. First of all, \"systemic\" means \"interaction\". A systemic approach to treatment requires working in clinical situations, particular attention being paid to interactions. Second, brief therapy does not mean short therapy, but rather therapy with an objective in view. The objective is determined by the patient together with the therapist and they work out together how to reach it, with or without the family's help. Because of this, we use a five-point assessment to offer a concrete response to the patients in these psychotherapeutic consultations. Firstly, is the patient the one who has asked for treatment? We know that in addictive behavior, it is not always the one with symptoms who asks for help (many couples consult who are persuaded that the other one needs to change). Once we know who has asked for treatment, we clarify (with the patient's help) that his/her objectives are not the same as someone who asks for treatment and we can then redefine them (first step in the therapeutic agreement). Once the request for treatment is clarified, we can clearly define what the problem is, the objectives that the patient fixes for him/herself and how to reach them. A large proportion of therapeutic failures result from the request for treatment being unclear. In this way, we define the problem in concrete terms, without using classifications and the previous attempts to solve it (third point). In fact, we often find that the problem itself is the solution, which is chosen to try to resolve it. Knowing which solutions have been tried (and failed) allows the patient to realize what is effective and what is not. The role of the therapist is to help the family and the patient to find other types of solution to their problem. The therapist only offers concrete tasks, which can be done in the near future (minimal changes). Finally, the therapist takes into account the patient's beliefs, values and personal priorities, to which they are attached and which have determined up to now, how they react to the problem. To work with a patient suffering from addiction, it is important, first of all, to find the elements of compulsion, which are hiding behind each request for treatment. This is because, if the patient does not follow the initial therapeutic objectives, there is always the underlying complaint, which should motivate the patient to improve the situation. An individual patient only has a few possibilities for adapting to this type of situation (agreeing, refusal or negotiation) and the role of the therapist is first of all to help him to realize this. This helps to avoid resistance developing, by underlying the compulsive aspect, which originates from the family's request for treatment. We offer a way for setting up the first meeting: working on the role of the patient in the treatment. Three types of patients consult: patients who are \"not concerned\" (sent by a third party; their main problem is with the person who asked for them to be treated), \"victims\" (they complain and consult because they put the responsibility of their problem on someone else) and \"clients\" (they consult because they consider that their problem depends on themselves and they want help to solve it actively). In fact, changing is not easy and does not happen without making an effort. Change comes from a complex cycle of interactions, for which it is often impossible to find a single origin for the situation in question. The psychological world tends towards homeostasis, just like all human systems, and so, suggesting making changes can only be experienced as an intrusion. Pathology begins when an individual can no longer choose what he/she needs to do. We do not consider that a brief-concrete approach is better than any other approach, but its pragmatic nature seems to fit in with the new conception of addiction therapy, with earlier intervention. However, is it possible to make changes outside of a crisis situation? We are unable to answer this question, except to say that the best time for change is that chosen by the patient." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_45215", "title": "Homer Simpson", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "The comic efficacy of Homer's personality lies in his frequent bouts of bumbling stupidity, laziness and his explosive anger. He has a low intelligence level and is described by director David Silverman as \"creatively brilliant in his stupidity\". Homer also shows immense apathy towards work, is overweight, and \"is devoted to his stomach\". His short attention span is evidenced by his impulsive decisions to engage in various hobbies and enterprises, only to \"change ... his mind when things go badly\". Homer often spends his evenings drinking Duff Beer at Moe's Tavern, and was shown in the episode \"Duffless\" (season four, 1993) as a full-blown alcoholic. He is very envious of his neighbors, Ned Flanders and his family, and is easily enraged by Bart. Homer will often strangle Bart on impulse upon Bart angering him (and can also be seen saying one of his catchphrases, \"Why you little—!\") in a cartoonish manner. The first instance of Homer strangling Bart was in the short \"Family Portrait\"." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_1463", "title": "A 7-year-old child with Down syndrome and disruptive behaviors.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Steve is a 7-year-old child with Down syndrome who was referred to the Developmental and Behavioral Pediatrics Clinic for increasing hyperactivity and disruptive behaviors. He is followed closely for complex congenital heart disease, oxygen dependent pulmonary hypertension and chronic lung disease. He is accompanied by his mother who, while greeting the staff with a smile, apologizes as Steve attempts to get out of his stroller. His mother reports that the pulmonologist requested an evaluation of Steve's disruptive behaviors during recent clinic visits. She states that new people and unfamiliar surroundings cause Steve to become \"over-stimulated.\" He moves around the room, plays with everything available for brief moments, is difficult to examine and difficult to redirect. His mother states that these behaviors are limited to the doctor's office. However, she is even more concerned about his behavior since his recent discharge from the hospital 8 days prior to the clinic visit. Steve was hospitalized for two weeks with a febrile illness associated with pulmonary edema. He required an increase in oxygen and maintenance of his usual medications: digoxin, furosemide, aldactone, an inhaled steroid, levalbuteral, and potassium chloride. During the hospitalization, sildenafil was increased to manage pulmonary hypertension and lorazepam was prescribed for disruptive behaviors. Steve's mother observed that the increase in sildenafil was associated with a significant change in behavior including difficulty following directions, impulsivity and over activity. She worries that he will hurt himself accidentally. Behavioral techniques that were previously helpful at home are no longer are effective. As Steve's mother describes the behaviors, she began to cry. She recently adopted Steve, whom she has cared for since his birth but now confides, \"I may have made the wrong decision.\" She also cares for her biological adult daughter who has Down syndrome. Steve has remained home for several weeks as a result of his physician's recommendations in order to prevent another infectious illness. At home, his mother is struggling with his behaviors and talks about her increasing sense of frustration and anxiety. At the clinic visit, Steve is an active child with physical features typical of Down syndrome. He is wearing a nasal canula with a protective plastic cover, acyanotic and breathing comfortably. He looks at a book and colors on the pages briefly but then loses interest. Steve is in constant motion and interested in exploring the examination room. He particularly likes to climb onto the examination table and look at a mirror while playing with various objects. Steve has limited responsive to redirection. He speaks only a few single words, but he understands simple directions." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en490_25594", "title": "Julun Yeti Reshimgathi", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Upset with Meghana's lack of response to his apologies, Sureshrao impulsively walks away from home to seek solace in some godman's advice leaving Madhavi - his wife - worried sick. When the Desai family hears this, they silently condemn this gesture but Archana vehemently opposes this behavior. She challenges this behavior and these questions make Madhavi reconsider her marriage with Suresh. However, it upsets Meghana that her parents may get separated. However, Maai asks her to look at the whole matter as a woman and not as a daughter. After an upsetting and selfish call from her father makes her see light, she decides to support her mother. When Sureshrao discovers this, he doesn't take it seriously, he starts to realize the seriousness of the situation and the error of his ways. He decides to make amends and change his attitude. With time, Madhavi sees the change in him and decides to return home and start anew. This changed dynamic also happens to boost Madhavi's morale and makes" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1017_5978", "title": "When to Raise Our White Flag-A Discussion of Scope of Practice in a Resource Scarce World.", "score": 0.008620689655172414, "content": "Thomas is a 13-year-old boy with autism spectrum disorder, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), generalized anxiety disorder, separation anxiety disorder, and major depressive disorder who presented for a follow-up to his developmental and behavioral pediatrician (DBP). His mother describes an increase in symptoms of anxiety and depression for the last 6 weeks, accompanied by suicidal ideation and thoughts of self-mutilation.Before this increase in symptoms, he had been doing well for the last several months with the exception of increasing weight gain, and Abilify was decreased from 5 mg to 2.5 mg at his last visit. Other medications at that time included Zoloft 100 mg twice daily, Focalin XR 40 mg every morning, and Focalin 5 mg every night. Without seeking the guidance of our developmental and behavioral pediatrics clinic, his mother increased his intake of Zoloft to 150 mg each morning and continued 100 mg each evening because of worsening anxiety and depression.Religion is very important to Thomas and his family. He acknowledges that he does not want to die and feels badly because \"suicide is against our religion.\"Helping Thomas receive appropriate care has been a challenge. He was diagnosed with ADHD and Asperger disorder at the age of 5. Thomas is homeschooled and is very attached to his mother. His parents have very different parenting styles, with his mother being more permissive and his father more authoritarian. At the time of initial diagnosis, the behavioral health services (BHS) in Thomas' community, which is about an hour away from the DBP, were limited to older children, and he was followed by a DBP for ADHD medication management. At the age of 11, he expressed passive suicidal ideation and described that he imagined his mother as \"the devil with fire coming out of her eyes\" when she corrected him. He was evaluated by BHS, diagnosed with anxiety disorder, and started on Lexapro. BHS linked to the DBP were out of network for his insurance. The family was unable to pay out of pocket, so care was subsequently transferred to a DBP clinic that was in network. Soon after, Thomas developed auditory hallucinations, and Abilify was added after consultation with BHS.Over the last few years, Thomas' symptoms have waxed and waned. He did well for a short time and then again developed auditory hallucinations, worsening symptoms of anxiety and depression, and increasing somatic symptoms including vomiting and penile pain. Medications were adjusted with input from BHS, and further attempts were made to link him to local BHS but were unsuccessful. With his current concerns of suicidal ideation and self-mutilation, what would be your next steps?" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 81, 532 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 13, 93 ] ], "text": "The first step would be to try oral tolerance with oral rehydration saline and continue with normal feeding if well tolerated. Answer 1 may give rise to doubts, due to the fact that the statement says that the patient \"does not tolerate the oral route\". In this case, intravenous rehydration could be started... but it would not be advisable to leave the patient on an absolute diet for 8 hours, nor a subsequent astringent diet, so I prefer answer 2." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 81, 532 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 13, 93 ] ], "text": "The first step would be to try oral tolerance with oral rehydration saline and continue with normal feeding if well tolerated. Answer 1 may give rise to doubts, due to the fact that the statement says that the patient \"does not tolerate the oral route\". In this case, intravenous rehydration could be started... but it would not be advisable to leave the patient on an absolute diet for 8 hours, nor a subsequent astringent diet, so I prefer answer 2." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 533, 587 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 93, 103 ] ], "text": "The rest of the treatments do not provide any benefit." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 533, 587 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 93, 103 ] ], "text": "The rest of the treatments do not provide any benefit." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 533, 587 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 93, 103 ] ], "text": "The rest of the treatments do not provide any benefit." } }

{ "1": "Intravenous rehydration, absolute diet 8 hours and start feeding with astringent diet.", "2": "Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq/L) and continue with his usual diet.", "3": "Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq/L) maintain usual feeding and oral amoxicillin 10 days.", "4": "Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq/L) and start feeding with lactose-free formulas.", "5": "Rehydration with low osmolality oral rehydration solution (sodium 60-75 mEq/L) maintain usual feeding and loperamide 7 days." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0075_19694", "title": "[Comparative study of 2 oral rehydration solutions containing 60 or 90 mmol/L of sodium and with different osmolalities].", "score": 0.017588325652841783, "content": "A total of 186 infants, suffering from acute diarrhea were studied and divided into two groups: 84 children were placed in group A and given the ORS recommended by the World Health Organization which contains sodium and glucose at concentrations of 60 and 90 mmol/L respectively and an osmolality of 311 mOsm/kg (mmol/kg) (ORS-90). Group B included 82 children who received an ORS containing sodium and glucose at concentrations of 60 and 90 mmol/L respectively and with an osmolality of 240 mOsm/kg (mmol/kg) (ORS-60). Seven belonging to group A (8.3%) required intravenous rehydration due to the severity of the diarrhea (three cases), persistent vomiting (three cases) and paralytic ileus (one case), while only two cases belonging to group B (2.5%) required intravenous rehydration due to severe losses through feces (one case) and another due to paralytic ileus (one case). No differences were observed due to the variations in sodium concentrations among either of the groups of patients, whether that be in the natremias when admitted or once rehydrated, with a general tendency towards the correction of the hypernatremia or hyponatremia seen during admittance with both types of ORS. A similar situation was observed with the variations in serum potassium. The results obtained from this study show the different advantages of using an ORS with lesser sodium and glucose concentrations as well as minor osmolality with those from using the solution recommended by the World Health Organization, when a lesser index of failures is observed in the treatment of children with acute diarrhea with oral rehydration therapy. Yet before widely recommending its' use, it should be demonstrated that the new ORS induces lesser losses through feces during the rehydrating period in children dehydrated due to acute diarrhea." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0078_4950", "title": "Comparison of two oral rehydration solutions in children with gastroenteritis in Australia.", "score": 0.01739656606913244, "content": "An open-label inpatient study is in progress to compare the efficacy and safety of two oral rehydration solutions in children and infants with acute diarrhea and mild to moderate dehydration. One solution (ORS-60) contains 60 mmol/L of sodium and 1.8% glucose, with a total osmolality of 240 mosm/kg; the other (ORS-26) contains 26 mmol/L of sodium, 2.7% glucose, and 3.6% sucrose, with a total osmolality of 340 mosm/kg. An outcome analysis of 28 children with gastroenteritis indicated that ORS-60 (n = 13) reduced stool volume during the first eight hours after admission to a significantly greater (P less than 0.05) extent than did ORS-26 (n = 15). Diarrhea had ceased by 24 hours in 64% of ORS-60 patients but in only 31% of ORS-26 patients, and the patients' clinical condition was improved at eight hours in 84% of ORS-60 patients versus 60% of ORS-26 patients. Differences between treatments in degree of dehydration at each follow-up point, total duration of diarrhea, and duration of hospital stay were not detected. No adverse drug reactions occurred. Four patients received intravenous rehydration therapy, but none was considered a treatment failure. We conclude that the lower osmolar solution, ORS-60, conferred earlier recovery and reduced continuing fluid losses in the management of gastroenteritis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0416_6632", "title": "[Oral hydratation with a low osmolality solution in dehydrated children with diarrheic diseases: controlled clinical trial].", "score": 0.017133275007290755, "content": "A clinical trial was conducted to compare the efficacy of a low-osmolarity solution (245 mOsm/L), and a standard oral rehydration solution (ORS) recommended by WHO for children dehydrated by diarrhea. Group 1 (69 children) received WHO/ORS (311 mOsml/L) and group 2 (71 children) received a low-osmolarity solution (245 mOsm/L). Rehydration was successful in 88.4% in group 1 and 92.9% in group 2 (p = 0.35). Rehydration was completed in 5.2 h (SD +/- 1.8) in group 1 and 5.5 (SD +/- 1.7) in group 2 (p = 0.31). Stool output was 6.3 g/kg/h (SD +/- 5.0) in group 1 and 5.6 g/kg/h (SD +/- 5.1) in group 2 (p = 0.94). Sodium at rehydration-completion was 139.3 mEq/L (SD +/- 7.1) in group 1 and 136.7 mEq/L (SD +/- 4.3) in group 2 (p = 0.014). Group 1 was under observation for 21 hours (SD +/- 5.7) and group 2, for 22 hours (SD +/- 5.6). Stool output in group 1 was 5.2 g/kg/h (SD 4.1) and 4.2 gr./kg/h (SD +/- 4.1) in group 2 (p = 0.16). In group 1, 23.1% required intravenous solutions and 9.8% in group 2 (p = 0.03). In treating dehydrated children, the low-osmolarity solution diminished the need for intravenous solutions, corrected most plasmatic sodium disorders, and produced no-risk of developing hyponatremia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_38924", "title": "Oral rehydration therapy", "score": 0.017095234703326447, "content": "An exception is if the severely malnourished child also has severe diarrhea (in which case ReSoMal may not provide enough sodium), in which case standard reduced-osmolarity ORS (75 mmol sodium/L) is recommended. Malnourished children should be rehydrated slowly. The WHO recommends 10 milliliters of ReSoMal per kilogram body weight for each of the first two hours (for example, a 9-kilogram child should be given 90 ml of ReSoMal over the course of the first hour, and another 90 ml for the second hour) and then continuing at this same rate or slower based on the child's thirst and ongoing stool losses, keeping in mind that a severely dehydrated child may be lethargic. If the child drinks poorly, a nasogastric tube should be used. The IV route should not be used for rehydration except in cases of shock and then only with care, infusing slowly to avoid flooding the circulation and overloading the heart." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0076_7738", "title": "[Oral rehydration solutions with 60 or 90 nmol/L of sodium for infants with acute diarrhea in accord with their nutritional status].", "score": 0.01675320179993077, "content": "A total of 186 infants suffering from dehydration due to acute diarrhea were studied and divided into two groups: 84 children were placed in group A and received the oral rehydration solution (ORS) recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO), know as ORS-90 and those placed in group B were given an ORS with 60 and 90 mmol/L of sodium and glucose, respectively, with an osmolality of 240 mOsm/kg (ORS-60). Seven patients from group A (8.3%) and two from group B (2.5%) could not be orally rehydrated and required intravenous rehydration. The children were divided according to their weight for their age into eutrophics, grade I malnutrition (10 to 25% deficit), grade II (26 to 40% deficit) and grade III (more than 40% deficit). In those patients who evolved favorably, the average rehydration time was 4.5 to 5.3 hours, independently from their nutritional state. In the same way, no important variations were seen in the average sodium and potassium serum levels once the dehydration was corrected, in either of the groups. Yet, both groups showed a persistence in hypokalemia and hyperkalemia seen when admitted, once the dehydration was corrected, demonstrating that the short time needed for the correction of the dehydration was insufficient to completely corrected the changes in serum potassium. Closer studies must be conducted on the hydric balance to adequately demonstrate if the new ORS-60 induces lesser losses through vomiting and feces when compared to the ORS-90 recommended by the WHO." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0285_432", "title": "A double-blind clinical trial comparing World Health Organization oral rehydration solution with a reduced osmolarity solution containing equal amounts of sodium and glucose.", "score": 0.016600082656013225, "content": "To compare the safety and efficacy of an oral rehydration solution (ORS) containing 75 mmol/L of sodium and glucose each with the standard World Health Organization (WHO) ORS among Egyptian children with acute diarrhea. One hundred ninety boys, aged 1 to 24 months, who were admitted to the hospital with acute diarrhea and signs of dehydration were randomly assigned to receive either standard ORS (311 mmol/L) or a reduced osmolarity ORS (245 mmol/L). Intake and output were measured every 3 hours. In the group treated with reduced osmolarity ORS, the mean stool output during the rehydration phase was 36% lower (95% confidence interval, 1%, 100%) than in those treated with WHO ORS. The relative risk of vomiting during the rehydration phase was significantly lower in children treated with reduced osmolarity ORS (relative risk, 2.4; 95% confidence interval, 1.2, 4.8). During the maintenance phase, stool output, mean intake of food and ORS, duration of diarrhea, and weight gain were similar in the treatment groups. The relative risk of treatment failure (need for unscheduled administration of intravenous fluids) was significantly increased in children receiving standard WHO ORS (relative risk, 7.9; 95% confidence interval, 1.1, 60.9). The mean serum sodium concentration at 24 hours was significantly lower in children receiving the reduced osmolarity ORS solution (134 +/- 6 mEq/L) than in children receiving the standard WHO ORS (138 +/- 7 mEq/L) (p &lt; 0.001). The relative risk of the development or worsening of hyponatremia was not increased in children given the reduced osmolarity ORS, and urine output was similar in the treatment groups. The reduced osmolarity ORS has beneficial effects on the clinical course of acute diarrhea in children by reducing stool output, and the proportion of children with vomiting during the rehydration phase, and by reducing the need for supplemental intravenous therapy. These results provide support for the use of a reduced osmolarity ORS in children with acute noncholera diarrhea." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_38912", "title": "Oral rehydration therapy", "score": 0.016597796143250687, "content": "Oral therapy was developed in the 1940s using electrolyte solutions with or without glucose on an empirical basis chiefly for mild or convalescent patients, but did not come into common use for rehydration and maintenance therapy until after the discovery that glucose promoted sodium and water absorption during cholera in the 1960s. It is on the World Health Organization's List of Essential Medicines. Globally, , oral rehydration therapy is used by 41% of children with diarrhea. This use has played an important role in reducing the number of deaths in children under the age of five. Medical uses ORT is less invasive than the other strategies for fluid replacement, specifically intravenous (IV) fluid replacement. Mild to moderate dehydration in children seen in an emergency department is best treated with ORT. Persons taking ORT should eat within six hours and return to their full diet within 24–48 hours." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0078_4951", "title": "Clinical experience in Mexico with a new oral rehydration solution with lower osmolality.", "score": 0.016271409749670618, "content": "A clinical trial was conducted to compare the safety and efficacy of a new oral rehydration solution (ORS) with that of the ORS recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO). One hundred thirty infants with dehydration due to acute diarrhea were randomized into two groups: 68 infants received the WHO ORS containing sodium and glucose in a concentration of 90 and 111 mmol/L, respectively, and an osmolality of 311 mosm/kg (ORS-90); 62 infants received an ORS containing sodium and glucose in a concentration of 60 and 90 mmol/L, respectively, with an osmolality of 240 mosm/kg (ORS-60). Treatment failure was noted in seven infants (10.3%) in the ORS-90 group; the causes of failure were high stool output (three cases), persistent vomiting (three cases), and ileus (one case). Only one patient in the ORS-60 group (1.6%) was considered a failure because of high stool output. No significant differences were noted in the serum sodium levels in either group of patients, both in relation to the natremia seen on admittance or that seen after rehydration. A trend was observed toward correction of hypernatremia or hyponatremia with both types of ORS. A similar situation was observed with respect to the variations seen in serum potassium levels. The results from this study suggest that there may be clinical advantages of using an ORS with concentrations of sodium and glucose and a total osmolality lower than that of ORS-90, because of the lower incidence of treatment failures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0257_10296", "title": "Use of a single solution for oral rehydration and maintenance therapy of infants with diarrhea and mild to moderate dehydration.", "score": 0.016148827595116592, "content": "To compare the efficacy of two commonly used solutions in the rehydration of infants with mild to moderate dehydration caused by acute diarrhea in the United States. Double-blind, parallel-group, randomized study performed at Children's Hospital Medical Center. Sixty infant boys (&lt; or = 2 years old), with mild (&lt; or = 5%) or moderate (6 to 9%) dehydration caused by acute diarrhea of less than 1 week's duration were included in the study. Infants were randomly assigned to receive treatment with either a glucose-based oral rehydration solution (ORS) (Pedialyte, Ross Laboratories, Columbus, OH) or a rice syrup solids-based ORS (Infalyte, Mead Johnson Nutritional Group, Evansville, IN). After rehydration was achieved, patients entered a maintenance phase during which, in addition to a maintenance ORS, breast milk or a soy-based formula was offered; infants older than 1 year were also given a lactose-free diet. Rehydration was judged clinically. Infants remained on a metabolic bed during the study in to separate and quantitate urine and stool output. Therefore, in addition to clinical outcome, we compared intake, output and apparent absorption and retention of fluid, sodium, and potassium between groups. All patients were successfully rehydrated using an ORS without the use of intravenous fluids. No differences were detected between treatment groups in time to rehydration, percentage of weight gain after rehydration, consumption of ORS to achieve rehydration, or stool output. However, the apparent sodium absorption (net intake less fecal output) was greater in the Infalyte group than the Pedialyte group during the first 24 hours. The two maintenance oral electrolyte solutions (Pedialyte and Infalyte) most commonly used in the United States are effective as rehydration solutions for infants with mild to moderate dehydration. We speculate that a strategy for oral rehydration therapy in the United States, based on the use of a single solution during the rehydration and maintenance phase, might gain additional acceptance by practicing pediatricians and family physicians." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0130_4218", "title": "Evaluation of an oral rehydration solution with Na+ 60 mmol/l in infants hospitalized for acute diarrhoea or treated as outpatients.", "score": 0.01597703301504088, "content": "An oral rehydration solution (ORS) containing 60 mmol/l of Na+ (ORS60) was compared in a randomized trial with the ORS of WHO formula (Na+ 90 mmol/l = ORS90) for the treatment of diarrhoeal dehydration in 66 hospitalized infants aged 3 to 34 months. The infants had a 5 +/- 3% dehydration, and received within 6-10 hours 76 +/- 32 ml/kg of ORS60 or 74 +/- 41 ml/kg of ORS90 corresponding to a sodium input of 4.6 +/- 1.9 mmol/kg and 6.6 +/- 3.7 mmol/kg, respectively. Both treatments were found adequate and equally effective for the correction of dehydration and sodium deficit. The same ORS60 was also compared to a commercial low sodium glucose-electrolyte solution (sodium 35 mmol/l, glucose 3.5 milligrams) for ambulatory treatment of acute diarrhoea in infants. Satisfactory rehydration was achieved within 6 hours in 19 of 23 infants receiving ORS60 as opposed to 6 of 18 infants receiving the commercial solution (p less than 0.001); the poor result with the latter was in most cases attributed to a refusal by the infant to consume the sweetish solution. It is concluded that ORS60 is suitable for the treatment of isotonic diarrhoeal dehydration in hospitalized children as well as outpatients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0134_4154", "title": "Oral rehydration, rapid feeding, and cholestyramine for treatment of acute diarrhea.", "score": 0.015973630831643, "content": "Different combinations of fluid therapy, feeding regimen, and cholestyramine were compared in search for optimal treatment of infants hospitalized for acute diarrhea. The infants (n = 81) received either rapid oral rehydration using the oral rehydration solution-World Health Organization formula (sodium 90 mmol/L, ORS-WHO) or traditional oral fluid replacement using a commercial glucose-electrolyte solution (sodium 35 mmol/L). One-half of the infants in both groups received full feedings at 24 h of hospitalization; in the remaining infants, feedings were gradually introduced over a period of 5 days. In addition, all the children were randomized to receive either cholestyramine 2 g four times daily or an equivalent amount of placebo. Rehydration with ORS-WHO, but not traditional fluid replacement therapy, led to correction of initial metabolic acidosis after 6-10 h; no cases of hypernatremia were observed with the use of ORS-WHO. Rapid return to full feedings appropriate for age, including milk products, was associated with better weight gain and significantly shorter duration of diarrhea compared with gradual introduction of feedings. Cholestyramine treatment further shortened the duration of diarrhea without adverse effects in those children who had received ORS-WHO and thus were properly rehydrated. In contrast, in children with poor initial hydration, cholestyramine treatment was associated with prolonged metabolic acidosis. We conclude that treatment of acute diarrhea by rehydration with ORS-WHO and rapid introduction of full feedings is effective and safe, and this combination forms a therapy of choice for typical hospitalized cases of acute infantile diarrhea in Finland. Cholestyramine may be of value as an adjunct therapy after adequate rehydration." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0797_22167", "title": "Comparison of three oral rehydration strategies in the treatment of acute diarrhea in a tropical country.", "score": 0.01595677050222505, "content": "The administration of hydrating solutions and early refeeding improve recovery for infants and children with diarrhea. The aim of this study was to assess the efficacy of a low-osmolarity (30 mEq/L Na(+)) solution administered after the standard, high-osmolarity (90 mEq/L Na(+)) solution via a nasogastric tube (NGT) and followed by early refeeding to achieve more rapid body weight recovery in infants and children with acute diarrhea. Infants and children aged &lt;5 years with acute diarrhea and dehydration (body weight loss of ≥10%) observed from January to August 2001 at Saint Camille Medical Center, Ouagadougou, Burkina Faso, were enrolled. Patients were randomized to 1 of 3 treatment protocols. Patients in group A received, via NGT, rehydration with a high-osmolarity solution for 3 hours, followed by a low-osmolarity solution for at least 3 additional hours. Patients in group B were given only a low-osmolarity solution via NGT. In group C, rehydration was carried out using a high-osmolarity solution via NGT. Four thousand consecutively treated infants and children (2010 boys, 1990 girls; mean [SD] age, 3.5 [2.7] years) were enrolled. After the first 6 hours of infusion, 90% of the patients who had received the combined rehydration (group A) showed significant body weight recovery, versus 80% and 79% of the patients in groups B and C, respectively. Stool output significantly decreased for group A compared with groups B and C (114 vs 125 and 120 g/kg, respectively). Only 7% of the patients in group A required prolonged rehydration (&gt;6 hours) with the low-osmolarity solution, versus 10% and 12% in groups B and C, respectively. A total of 3% of patients treated with combined rehydration required hospitalization, compared with 10% and 9% in groups B and C, respectively. At the end of infusion, 25% of the patients rehydrated only with a low-osmolarity solution showed poor body weight recovery and appeared lethargic, versus 10% in group A and 15% in group C. Patients who were rehydrated with a high-osmolarity solution showed symptoms of hypernatremia (serum Na(+) concentration &gt;140 mEq/L). At the end of rehydration (≥6 hours), all patients recovered their previous body weight, partially or totally, and refeeding was begun. Rehydration and diet were continued at home, or in neighboring areas for those living far away. In this study population, the administration of a high-osmolarity solution followed by a low-osmolarity solution and early refeeding was effective in the treatment of acute diarrhea and was well tolerated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0476_2806", "title": "Simplified treatment strategies to fluid therapy in diarrhea.", "score": 0.015115780445969125, "content": "Dehydration resulting from diarrhea remains an important cause of morbidity and mortality among infants and children worldwide. Although it is well established that rapid and generous intravenous restoration of extracellular fluid, followed by oral rehydration therapy (ORT) should be used in children with severe dehydration, physicians continue to be reluctant to use such therapy. Applying the principle of body fluid physiology to the current treatment of dehydration, we developed a simple and yet effective treatment strategy to fluid therapy for children with diarrheal dehydration using commercially manufactured solutions. Children with mild-to-moderate dehydration are best treated with ORT using commercially available oral solutions containing 45-75 mEq/l of Na(+). Children who have clinical evidence of severe dehydration should receive intravenous fluids, 60-100 ml/kg of 0.9% saline in the first 2-4 h to restore circulation. Oliguric patients with severe acidosis should receive a physiological dose of bicarbonate to correct blood pH level to 7.25. Once circulation is restored, the ORT should be given in small quantities to replace losses of water and Na(+) over 6-8 h. Age-appropriate diet should be started as soon as tolerated. Those who cannot tolerate ORT should receive intravenous rehydration for the remainder of the deficit and maintenance. Addition of 20 mEq/l K(+) to rehydration solutions permits repair of cellular K(+ )deficits without risk of hyperkalemia. The amount of Na(+) given to replace maintenance and deficit fluids varies with the forms of dehydration. Isonatremic dehydration is best treated with 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline containing 20 mEq/l KCl over 24 h. Hyponatremic dehydration is best treated with 0.9% saline and 0.45% saline alternately in a 1:1 ratio in 5% dextrose containing 20 mEq/l KCl over 24 h. Hypernatremic dehydration is best treated with 5% dextrose in 0.2% saline containing 20 mEq/l KCl over 2-3 days to avoid cerebral edema. Maintenance hydration is best treated with 5% dextrose in 0.2% saline containing 20 mEq/l KCl. Ideal commercial intravenous maintenance and deficit solutions have yet to appear." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0134_6546", "title": "Oral rehydration therapy in infectious diarrhoea. Comparison of rehydration solutions with 60 and 90 mmol sodium per litre.", "score": 0.014552276645370652, "content": "The clinical response and changes in water and salt homeostasis as judged from serum sodium levels, salt and water retention and renal handling of sodium was studied during 36 hours following the start of oral rehydration therapy (ORT) with a solution containing 60 mmol Na/l (ORS60) in 17 well-nourished, moderately dehydrated Turkish infants aged 3 to 15 months who had acute infectious diarrhoea (7 with rotavirus, 3 with enteropathogenic E. coli 0 111: B 84, and one with enteropathogenic E. coli 0 125: B 15, one with salmonella and 5 of unknown etiology. In the successfully treated patients sodium and water balance was normalized within 36 hours. In the cases with hypernatremic dehydration the serum sodium concentration rapidly became normal. The results were compared with those obtained in a previous study of the same type of patients who were rehydrated with a solution containing 90 mmol Na/l (ORS90). Although retention was considered to be satisfactory after ORS60 it was less than after ORS90. The changes in the fractionary urinary sodium excretion and the potassium sodium quotient in the urine indicated a less rapid normalization after ORS60 than after ORS90." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0064_12203", "title": "[Fast intravenous rehydration with 90 mmol/L of sodium in dehydrated children with diarrhea].", "score": 0.014493506493506494, "content": "Twenty-two infants with moderate dehydration due to diarrhea in whom oral rehydration therapy (ORT) was contraindicated or who failed to respond to this method of therapy were treated with rapid intravenous rehydration (RIR). Clinical signs of dehydration without shock allowed us to estimate 5% to 10% of weight loss. Patients were 11 days to 19 months old, and 9 of them were undernourished. A standard solution containing 90 mmol/L sodium, 80 mmol/L chloride, 30 mmol/L bicarbonate, 20 mmol/L potassium and 111 mmol/L glucose was used for all patients. The IV infusion was maintained until the rehydration was completed at a rate of 15 to 20 mL/kg/hour. Complete rehydration was successfully achieved in all patients. A total of 89.5 +/- 25.0 mL/kg (mean +/- SD) was needed and the duration of the IV infusion was 5.1 +/- 1.6 hours. Weight gain achieved was 6.5 +/- 1.6%. None of the patients developed hypernatremia following treatment. The initial base deficit, -9.5 +/- 6.6, was reduced to -3.5 +/- 2.9. All of the patients tolerated refeeding immediately after completion of the IV infusion. Our study suggests that this modality of rehydration is well tolerated, safe and effective and enhances the possibility of an early hospital discharge." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0112_9256", "title": "Salt and water homeostasis during oral rehydration therapy in neonates and young infants with acute diarrhoea. II. Rehydration with a solution containing 90 mmol sodium per litre (ORS90).", "score": 0.014344997182232696, "content": "The clinical response and changes in water and salt homeostasis were studied during oral rehydration therapy (ORT) with a solution containing 90 mmol sodium per 1 (ORS90) in 9 infants less than 2 months old (range 2-60 days). Two infants were still dehydrated 36 hours after starting ORT and were excluded from the study. Fluid was retained more rapidly and also to a larger extent than in infants of the same age treated with a solution with a sodium concentration of 60 mmol/l (ORS60). The stool sodium output was higher than that found previously in infants of the same age treated with ORS60. We conclude that during ORT the gut plays an active role in the regulation of salt homeostasis. When the sodium intake is high the percentage of sodium remaining unabsorbed is higher than when the intake is low. This mechanism reduces the risk of hypernatremia in young infants treated with ORS90. The study thus demonstrates that ORS90 is effective and also seems to be safe in the treatment of neonates and young infants with dehydration secondary to diarrhoea if fluid intake is kept around 200 ml/kg/day during the rehydration period." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_38925", "title": "Oral rehydration therapy", "score": 0.01411988911988912, "content": "Feeding should usually resume within 2–3 hours after starting rehydration and should continue every 2–3 hours, day and night. For an initial cereal diet before a child regains his or her full appetite, the WHO recommends combining 25 grams skimmed milk powder, 20 grams vegetable oil, 60 grams sugar, and 60 grams rice powder or other cereal into 1,000 milliliters water and boiling gently for five minutes. Give 130 ml per kilogram of body weight during per 24 hours. A child who cannot or will not eat this minimum amount should be given the diet by nasogastric tube divided into six equal feedings. Later on, the child should be given cereal made with a greater amount of skimmed milk product and vegetable oil and slightly less sugar. As appetite fully returns, the child should be eating 200 ml per kilogram of body weight per day. Zinc, potassium, vitamin A, and other vitamins and minerals should be added to both recommended cereal products, or to the oral rehydration solution itself." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0482_468", "title": "Safety and efficacy of a premixed, rice-based oral rehydration solution.", "score": 0.01373652133145804, "content": "The authors compared the safety and efficacy of a ready-to-use, premixed, rice-based oral rehydration solution (R-ORS) with a glucose-based oral rehydration solution (G-ORS), each containing 75 mmol/L sodium, in Mexican children with acute diarrhea for less than 5 days. One hundred eighty-nine boys 3 to 24 months old admitted to the hospital with acute diarrhea and signs of dehydration were randomly assigned to receive either G-ORS or R-ORS. Intake and output were measured every 3 hours. In the group treated with R-ORS, significantly fewer patients required supplemental intravenous fluids during the rehydration phase compared to the G-ORS group (1% v 8.7%; P &lt; 0.01). Mean stool output, percent weight gain, ORS intake, urine output, and number of patients who vomited during rehydration were similar in the two groups. The mean total stool output after the first 24 hours of maintenance phase was significantly lower in the R-ORS group than in the G-ORS group. The authors found rice-based ORS to be safe, and its use reduced the rate of intravenous fluid therapy in comparison with the use of a glucose-based ORS." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en302_9818", "title": "Chronic diarrhea of infancy", "score": 0.013678065054211843, "content": "While treatments for chronic diarrhea of infancy aren't clear cut, it is crucial to address the complications of dehydration that may arise from chronic diarrhea with the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) guidelines recommendation of oral rehydration therapy (ORT). Oral rehydration solution (ORS), recommended by both AAP and the World Health Organization (WHO), must be composed of 50-90mEq/L sodium and 2% glucose or other complex carbohydrates. ORS is easily found in the US because it is available without a prescription. The typical amount of ORS administered is 50mL/kg over a 4-hour time period for mild dehydration and 100mL/kg over a 4-hour time period for moderate dehydration with an extra 10mL/kg for every loose stool. Repeat this administration regimen for as long as the signs and symptoms of dehydration continue. It is important to take measures early on to maintain hydration. Along with ORT, WHO recommends a 10-14 day course of 20 mg zinc tablet supplementation, stating it" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0127_2754", "title": "Efficacy comparison of oral rehydration solutions containing either 90 or 75 millimoles of sodium per liter.", "score": 0.013403263403263404, "content": "In a randomized trial, 62 infants 2 to 35 months of age with dehydration due to acute watery diarrhea were allocated to one of two groups: group A received solution A (World Health Organization-recommended oral rehydration solution), which contained (mmol/L): Na+ 90, K+ 20, Cl- 80, citrate3- 10, and glucose 110; group B received solution B (Pedialyte RS; Abbott Laboratories, North Chicago), which contained (in mmol/L): Na+ 75, K+ 20, Cl- 65, citrate3- 10, and glucose 139. Oral therapy was given until clinical signs of hydration status were normal. During the 48-hour trial, the following laboratory data were collected: blood gases, serum electrolytes, glucose, urea, and creatinine values and sodium and potassium concentrations in stool and urine; serial weights and clinical signs were also reported. Six of the 62 infants, three in each group, required intravenous fluids because of high stool output. Results of clinical outcome and normalization of altered serum electrolyte values were similar in both groups. During the 48-hour trial, eight patients in group A and four in group B had mild, asymptomatic hypernatremia. Pedialyte RS was found to be a safe glucose/electrolyte solution for oral rehydration therapy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_38923", "title": "Oral rehydration therapy", "score": 0.013234279218933949, "content": "The original ORS (90 mmol sodium/L) and the current standard reduced-osmolarity ORS (75 mmol sodium/L) both contain too much sodium and too little potassium for severely malnourished children with dehydration due to diarrhea. ReSoMal (Rehydration Solution for Malnutrition) is recommended for such children. It contains less sodium (45 mmol/l) and more potassium (40 mmol/l) than reduced osmolarity ORS. It can be obtained in packets produced by UNICEF or other manufacturers." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_38917", "title": "Oral rehydration therapy", "score": 0.013176638176638177, "content": "Reduced-osmolarity In 2003, WHO and UNICEF recommended that the osmolarity of oral rehydration solution be reduced from 311 to 245 mOsm/L . These guidelines were also updated in 2006. This recommendation was based on multiple clinical trials showing that the reduced osmolarity solution reduces stool volume in children with diarrhea by about twenty-five percent and the need for IV therapy by about thirty percent when compared to standard oral rehydration solution. The incidence of vomiting is also reduced. The reduced osmolarity oral rehydration solution has lower concentrations of glucose and sodium chloride than the original solution, but the concentrations of potassium and citrate are unchanged." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0546_7715", "title": "Standard WHO-ORS versus reduced-osmolarity ORS in the management of cholera patients.", "score": 0.012990624503416495, "content": "The study compared the safety and efficacy of an oral rehydration salts (ORS) solution, containing 75 mmol/L of sodium and glucose each, with the standard World Health Organization (WHO)-ORS solution in the management of ongoing fluid losses, after initial intravenous rehydration to correct dehydration. The study was conducted among patients aged 12-60 years hospitalized with diarrhoea due to cholera. One hundred seventy-six patients who were hospitalized with acute diarrhoea and signs of severe dehydration were rehydrated intravenously and then randomly assigned to receive either standard ORS solution (311 mmol/L) or reduced-osmolarity ORS solution (245 mmol/L). Intakes and outputs were measured every six hours until the cessation of diarrhoea. During maintenance therapy, stool output, intake of ORS solution, duration of diarrhoea, and the need for unscheduled administration of intravenous fluids were similar in the two treatment groups. The type of ORS solution that the patients received did not affect the mean serum sodium concentration at 24 hours after randomization and the relative risk of development of hyponatraemia. However, patients treated with reduced-osmolarity ORS solution had a significantly lower volume of vomiting and significantly higher urine output than those treated with standard WHO-ORS solution. Reduced-osmolarity ORS solution was as efficacious as standard WHO-ORS solution in the management of cholera patients. The results indicate that reduced-osmolarity ORS solution is also as safe as standard WHO-ORS solution. However, because of the limited sample size in the study, the results will have to be confirmed in trials, involving a larger number of patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0303_19961", "title": "Randomised double blind study of hypotonic oral rehydration solution in diarrhoea.", "score": 0.012981030945102803, "content": "A hypotonic (osmolality 224 mmol/l, sodium 60 mmol/l) oral rehydration solution (ORS) was compared with an isotonic high glucose ORS (osmolality 304 mmol/l, sodium 60 mmol/l) in children with acute diarrhoea in a randomised double blind study. The stool output and hence the mean consumption of ORS for maintenance hydration was less (p = 0.036) in patients receiving hypotonic (69 ml/kg) than isotonic (97 ml/kg) ORS. Hypotonic ORS was more effective in patients with rotavirus positive than with rotavirus negative diarrhoea." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_38928", "title": "Oral rehydration therapy", "score": 0.012654968178641063, "content": "Physiological basis Fluid from the body enters the intestinal lumen during digestion. This fluid is isosmotic with the blood and contains a high quantity, about 142 mEq/L, of sodium. A healthy individual secretes 2000–3000 milligrams of sodium per day into the intestinal lumen. Nearly all of this is reabsorbed so that sodium levels in the body remain constant. In a diarrheal illness, sodium-rich intestinal secretions are lost before they can be reabsorbed. This can lead to life-threatening dehydration or electrolyte imbalances within hours when fluid loss is severe. The objective of therapy is the replenishment of sodium and water losses by ORT or intravenous infusion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0070_13061", "title": "A comparison of rice-based oral rehydration solution and \"early feeding\" for the treatment of acute diarrhea in infants.", "score": 0.012493921370590655, "content": "To compare the use of rice-based oral rehydration solution (R-ORS), with the introduction of food immediately after rehydration (\"early feeding\"), using standard glucose-based oral rehydration solution (G-ORS) in the management of acute diarrhea, we conducted a four-cell randomized, controlled trial among 200 hospitalized Egyptian infants between 3 and 18 months of age. During the rehydration phase (first 4 hours), three groups were given G-ORS and a fourth group was given R-ORS. During the subsequent maintenance phase, the control group was given a soy-based, lactose-free formula (G-ORS + SF), a second group (G-ORS + RF) was given a rice-based formula, and a third group (G-ORS + rice) was given boiled rice. The fourth group (R-ORS + SF) continued to receive R-ORS for the first 24 hours of the maintenance period, followed by a soy-based lactose-free formula. During the first and second 24 hours of the maintenance period, infants in the three treatment groups had a lower mean stool output in comparison with the control group (p = 0.006 and 0.03, respectively). The mean total stool output in the R-ORS + SF group was significantly lower than in the control group (p = 0.02). There were no statistically significant differences among the four groups in the mean duration of diarrhea. We conclude that (1) infants who were given R-ORS had reduced total stool output (by 35%) compared with the control group and (2) feeding of boiled rice or a rice-based formula immediately after rehydration therapy was as efficacious as treatment with R-ORS alone for 24 hours, followed by feeding with a soy-based, lactose-free formula." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0270_2165", "title": "Comparative efficacy of rice-based and glucose-based oral rehydration salts plus early reintroduction of food.", "score": 0.012461394814335992, "content": "The use of oral rehydration salts (ORS) to restore fluid balance in children with diarrhoea is universally accepted. However, there is uncertainty about whether glucose-based ORS or ORS based on precooked rice powder is more effective. In a randomised trial we compared the two types of ORS in children who were given food immediately after completion of rehydration. 460 boys aged 3-18 months, admitted to hospital with acute diarrhoea and signs of dehydration, were randomly assigned to groups receiving rice-based and glucose-based ORS solution (230 to each group). After full rehydration (4-12 h), a weaning food consisting of rice and mixed vegetables was given until the diarrhoea stopped. Continuing losses of liquid stool and vomitus were replaced with the assigned ORS solution. There were no differences between the groups during the rehydration phase in stool volume, volume of ORS solution taken, duration of rehydration phase, or weight gain. However, after initiation of feeding, the glucose-based ORS group had significantly lower stool volumes than the rice-based ORS group (142 [95% CI 117-173] vs 96 [77-120] g/kg); they also took a smaller amount of ORS solution (153 [127-185] vs 111 [90-136] mL/kg) and had a shorter duration of diarrhoea (55 [SD 35] vs 44 [35] h). Glucose-based ORS solution was more effective than rice-based ORS solution for the treatment of diarrhoea in children when feeding with a rice-based diet was started soon after correction of dehydration. These results support the continued recommendation of glucose-based ORS solution as standard therapy for treatment of children with acute diarrhoea and emphasize the importance of resuming feeding as soon as dehydration has been corrected." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0067_2921", "title": "Alanine-based oral rehydration therapy for infants with acute diarrhea.", "score": 0.01231060606060606, "content": "Twenty male infants less than 1 year of age with acute diarrhea and dehydration were randomly assigned to a study group and studied in blind fashion in a metabolic unit to assess the efficacy of the addition of 30 mmol/L alanine to the standard World Health Organization (WHO) oral rehydration solution (ORS). Patients were exclusively rehydrated with one of two types of ORS during the first 24 hours of treatment. On the second day, oral feedings were started with a lactose-free formula, and ORS was given to replace stool losses. Body weight, ORS, food intake, vomitus, stool, and urine output were recorded at 6-hour intervals. Blood was drawn at the time of admission, after rehydration, and at 24 and 48 hours of hospitalization to monitor blood gases and electrolytes. Rehydration was satisfactory in both groups of patients. ORS that contained alanine did not reduce the purging rates of the infants compared with those who received standard ORS. Clinically no adverse effect of the alanine-based ORS was observed during hospitalization. None of the patients had significant hypernatremia or hyponatremia, and serum amino acid levels were not altered. These data show that the addition of 30 mmol/L alanine to the standard WHO-ORS produces no further improvement in the outcome of the infants with acute diarrhea compared with those fed the standard WHO-ORS." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_12823", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01220911176663389, "content": "Moderatec,d <4 months (<5 kg) 200–400 mL of ORS 4–11 months (5–<8 kg) 400–600 mL of ORS 12–23 months (8–<11 kg) 600–800 mL of ORS 2–4 years (11–<16 kg) 800–1200 mL of ORS 5–14 years (16–<30 kg) 1200–2200 mL of ORS ≥15 years (≥30 kg) 2200–4000 mL of ORS All ages and weights Undertake IV fluid replacement with Ringer’s lactate (or, if not available, normal saline). Give 100 mL/kg in the first 3-h period (or the first 6-h period for children <12 months old); start rapidly, then slow down. Give a total of 200 mL/ kg in the first 24 h. Continue until the patient is awake, can ingest ORS, and no longer has a weak pulse. aAdapted from World Health Organization: First steps for managing an outbreak of acute diarrhoea. Global Task Force on Cholera Control, 2009 (www.who.int/topics/cholera). bContinue normal feeding during treatment. cReassess regularly; monitor stool and vomit output. dVolumes of ORS listed should be given within the first 4 h. Abbreviation: ORS, oral rehydration solution." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en044_38918", "title": "Oral rehydration therapy", "score": 0.011922852133255406, "content": "The reduced osmolarity solution has been criticized by some for not providing enough sodium for adults with cholera. Clinical trials have, however, shown reduced osmolarity solution to be effective for adults and children with cholera. They seem to be safe but some caution is warranted according to the Cochrane review. Administration ORT is based on evidence that water continues to be absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract even while fluid is lost through diarrhea or vomiting. The World Health Organization specify indications, preparations and procedures for ORT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0252_3236", "title": "Rice starch low sodium oral rehydration solution (ORS) in infantile diarrhoea.", "score": 0.011894939493949395, "content": "The relative efficacy and incidence of hypernatremia of a rice starch based low sodium (sodium of 60 mmol/L) oral electrolyte solution was compared to the standard WHO oral rehydration solution (ORS; sodium 90 mmol/L) in 60 infants with non choleragenic acute diarrhoea. Both solutions were found to be equally effective in correcting dehydration as determined by the respective post hydration weight gain which was 150 +/- 175 gms in the rice starch low sodium ORS group and 164 +/- 125 gms in the standard WHO ORS group. However, the mean frequency of stools was greater and the duration of stay longer in the WHO ORS group compared to the rice starch low sodium group. There were 5 cases of hypernatremia in the WHO ORS group as opposed to only one in the rice starch low sodium ORS group. The present study shows that a rice starch low sodium ORS was as effective as the standard WHO ORS and had a lower incidence of hypernatremia in the fluid and electrolyte management of infants with non choleragenic diarrhoea." }, { "id": "article-26833_20", "title": "Pediatric Gastroenteritis -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.011804158283031524, "content": "The treatment of choice is a low-osmolarity fluid, with 75 mEq of Na, 64 mEq of Cl, 20 mEq of K, and 75 mmol of glucose per liter; the total osmolarity should be 245 mOsm/L. In mild to moderate emesis, give ondansetron (4 mg for children 4 to 11 years, and double the doses for older children) is often considered for better oral rehydration. IV rehydration is done with a lactated Ringer's solution or normal saline at 20 mL/Kg body weight." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 272 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 38 ] ], "text": "This case describes an Alzheimer's disease with insidious onset of short-term memory problems. Clinically it can be distinguished from other options by the absence of behavioral problems (typical of frontotemporal dementia) and hallucinations (early in Lewy body disease)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 272 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 38 ] ], "text": "This case describes an Alzheimer's disease with insidious onset of short-term memory problems. Clinically it can be distinguished from other options by the absence of behavioral problems (typical of frontotemporal dementia) and hallucinations (early in Lewy body disease)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 273, 416 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 38, 58 ] ], "text": "Vascular dementia is diagnosed by criteria that include deficits in memory and two other cognitive areas with consequent functional impairment," }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 272 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 38 ] ], "text": "This case describes an Alzheimer's disease with insidious onset of short-term memory problems. Clinically it can be distinguished from other options by the absence of behavioral problems (typical of frontotemporal dementia) and hallucinations (early in Lewy body disease)." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 541, 693 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 76, 94 ] ], "text": "Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is mostly rapidly progressive and usually presents with other clinical, abnormal neurological examination and MRI alterations." } }

{ "1": "Frontotemporal dementia.", "2": "Alzheimer's disease.", "3": "Vascular dementia.", "4": "Lewy body disease.", "5": "Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en001_276351", "title": "Dementia", "score": 0.014585883312933496, "content": "Imaging A CT scan or MRI scan is commonly performed to possibly find either normal pressure hydrocephalus, a potentially reversible cause of dementia, or connected tumor. The scans can also yield information relevant to other types of dementia, such as infarction (stroke) that would point at a vascular type of dementia. These tests do not pick up diffuse metabolic changes associated with dementia in a person who shows no gross neurological problems (such as paralysis or weakness) on a neurological exam. The functional neuroimaging modalities of SPECT and PET are more useful in assessing long-standing cognitive dysfunction, since they have shown similar ability to diagnose dementia as a clinical exam and cognitive testing. The ability of SPECT to differentiate vascular dementia from Alzheimer's disease, appears superior to differentiation by clinical exam." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en231_13433", "title": "Alzheimer's disease", "score": 0.013699245418613008, "content": "Alzheimer's disease is usually diagnosed based on the person's medical history, history from relatives, and behavioral observations. The presence of characteristic neurological and neuropsychological features and the absence of alternative conditions supports the diagnosis. Advanced medical imaging with computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and with single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) or positron emission tomography (PET), can be used to help exclude other cerebral pathology or subtypes of dementia. Moreover, it may predict conversion from prodromal stages (mild cognitive impairment) to Alzheimer's disease. FDA-approved radiopharmaceutical diagnostic agents used in PET for patients with Alzheimer's disease are florbetapir (2012), flutemetamol (2013), florbetaben (2014), and flortaucipir (2020). Because many insurance companies in the United States do not cover this procedure, its use in clinical practice is largely limited to clinical trials as" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_2020", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.013115179846773146, "content": "Abbreviations: CT, computed tomography; EEG, electroencephalogram; MRI, magnetic resonance imaging; PET, positron emission tomography; RBC, red blood cell; RPR, rapid plasma reagin (test); SPECT, single-photon emission computed tomography; TSH, thyroid-stimulating hormone; VDRL, Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (test for syphilis). Abbreviations: AD, Alzheimer’s disease; CBD, cortical basal degeneration; CJD, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease; DLB, dementia with Lewy bodies; FLAIR, fluid-attenuated inversion recovery; FTD, frontotemporal dementia; MND, motor neuron disease; MRI, magnetic resonance imaging; PSP, progressive supranuclear palsy; REM, rapid eye movement." }, { "id": "article-20337_3", "title": "Major Neurocognitive Disorder (Dementia) -- Etiology", "score": 0.012654898293196166, "content": "Several conditions can cause major neurocognitive disorder with Alzheimer dementia (AD) being the most common cause accounting for about 70% of cases. [6] The DSM-5 criteria for major neurocognitive disorder further delineate 13 etiological subtypes that indicate the possible etiology of the disorder. These subtypes include Alzheimer disease, vascular disease, frontotemporal lobar degeneration, Lewy body disease, Parkinson disease, HIV infection, Huntington disease, prion disease, substance and or medication use, traumatic brain injury, another medical condition, multiple etiologies, and unspecified. A patient may have more than one etiology contributing to MND. For example, there may be a mixed picture of Alzheimer disease with vascular disease in the same patient. Other medical conditions that can lead to dementia include progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal syndrome, and, less commonly, multiple system atrophy. The etiology is further characterized by \"possibly\" vs. \"probably,\" assigning the degree of certainty as to the cause of the major neurocognitive disorder. It often takes time to distinguish the etiology and can be aided by many factors, including the results of imaging studies, lab studies, genetic markers, patient comorbidities, medical and family history, and clinical findings. [1]" }, { "id": "Psichiatry_DSM-5_48", "title": "Psichiatry_DSM-5", "score": 0.012055455093429777, "content": "Specify if: Acute, Persistent Specify if: Hyperactive, Hypoactive, Mixed level of activity 780.09 (R410) Other Specified Delirium (602) 780.09 (R41.0) Unspecified Delirium (602) Specify whether due to: Alzheimer’s disease, Frontotemporal lobar degeneration, Lewy body disease, Vascular disease, Traumatic brain injury, Substance/medication use, HIV infection, Prion disease, Parkinson’s disease, Huntington’s disease, Another medical condition, Multi- ple etiologies, Unspecified aSpecify Without behavioral disturbance, With behavioral disturbance. For possible major neuro- cognitive disorder and for mild neurocognitive disorder, behavioral disturbance cannot be coded but should still be indicated in writing. bSpecify current severity: Mild, Moderate, Severe. This specifier applies only to major neurocogni— tive disorders (including probable and possible)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en077_1825", "title": "Psychoorganic syndrome", "score": 0.01169234928359016, "content": "Diagnosis Along with occupational and environmental evaluation, a neurological exam, ECHO, EEG, CT-San, and X-ray of the brain may be conducted to determine disorder. Neuroimaging that detects cerebral atrophy or cardiovascular subcortical alterations can help point to psychoorganic syndrome. Strong CNS lesions are detected in POS patients. However, this is found to be difficult as many psychiatric disorders, like dementia, have common diagnosis. Diagnosing POS is an ongoing and developing in the medical and psychiatric industry. Exact diagnosis is difficult due to many symptoms mirroring other psychological disorders in the older aged patients. Various symptom diagnosis CT scan or MRI can confirm dementia via observation of ventricular dilation and cortical substance degeneration. Pick's disease can be confirmed via CT scan or MRI with atrophy of frontal and temporal lobe roots." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_8503", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.010280664357402967, "content": "Studies with CT and MRI are useful, but not definitive ancillary tests (Fig. 38-3). In patients with advanced Alzheimer disease, the lateral and third ventricles are enlarged to about twice the normal size and the cerebral sulci are proportionately widened, both as a result of cerebral atrophy. Coronal MRI of the medial temporal lobes shows a disproportionate atrophy of the hippocampi and a corresponding enlargement of the temporal horns of the lateral ventricles. Early in the disease, however, the changes do not exceed those found in many mentally intact old persons. For this reason, one cannot rely solely on imaging procedures for diagnosis and CT and MRI are most valuable in excluding alternative causes of dementia such as brain tumor, subdural hematoma, cerebral infarction, and hydrocephalus. The EEG undergoes mild diffuse slowing, but only late in the course of the illness; it is useful again, in the exclusion of alternative causes of mental decline that manifest themselves in" }, { "id": "Psichiatry_DSM-5_3943", "title": "Psichiatry_DSM-5", "score": 0.009961698420265317, "content": "F0280 Major neurocognitive disorder probably due to Parkinson’s disease, Without F0280 Major neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease, Without behavioral F0280 Major neurocognitive disorder due to traumatic brain injury, Without behavioral disturbance (codefirst SO6.2X9S diffuse traumatic brain injury with loss of consciousness of unspecified duration, sequela) F0280 Probable major frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder, Without behavioral disturbance (codefirst 631.09 frontotemporal disease) F0280 Probable major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease, Without behavioral disturbance (codefirst 630.9 Alzheimer’s disease) F0280 Probable major neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies, Without behavioral disturbance (codefirst 631.83 Lewy body disease) F02.81 Major neurocognitive disorder due to another medical condition, With F02.81 Major neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection, With behavioral" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en190_15193", "title": "Pseudodementia", "score": 0.00993922222729973, "content": "A significant overlap in cognitive and neuropsychological dysfunction in Dementia and pseudodementia patients increases the difficulty in diagnosis. Differences in the severity of impairment and quality of patients' responses can be observed, and a test of antisaccadic movements may be used to differentiate the two, as pseudodementia patients have poorer performance on this test. Individuals with pseudodementia present considerable cognitive deficits, including disorders in learning, memory and psychomotor performance. Substantial evidences from brain imaging such as CT scanning and positron emission tomography (PET) have also revealed abnormalities in brain structure and function. A comparison between dementia and pseudodementia is shown below." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_99806", "title": "Vascular dementia", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The disease is described as both a mental disorder and behavioural disorder within the International Classification of Diseases. Signs and symptoms are cognitive, motor, behavioral, and for a significant proportion of patients, also affective. These changes typically occur over a period of 5–10 years. Signs are typically the same as in other dementias, but mainly include cognitive decline and memory impairment of sufficient severity as to interfere with activities of daily living, sometimes with presence of focal neurologic signs, and evidence of features consistent with cerebrovascular disease on brain imaging (CT or MRI). The neurologic signs localizing to certain areas of the brain that can be observed are hemiparesis, bradykinesia, hyperreflexia, extensor plantar reflexes, ataxia, pseudobulbar palsy, as well as gait problems and swallowing difficulties. People have patchy deficits in terms of cognitive testing. They tend to have better free recall and fewer recall intrusions when" }, { "id": "Psichiatry_DSM-5_3890", "title": "Psichiatry_DSM-5", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Probable (code first 332.0 [620] Parkinson’s disease) Major neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease (code first 046.79 [A819] prion disease) Major neurocognitive disorder due to traumatic brain injury (code first 907.0 late effect of intracranial injury without skull fracture [506.2X9S diffuse traumatic brain injury with loss of conscious- ness of unspecified duration, sequela]) Major vascular neurocognitive disorder, Possible Major vascular neurocognitive disorder, Probable Medication-induced delirium (for ICD-IO-CM codes, see specific Mild neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease Mild neurocognitive disorder due to another medical condition Mild neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection Mild neurocognitive disorder due to Huntington’s disease Mild neurocognitive disorder due to multiple etiologies Mild neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson’s disease Mild neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_102282", "title": "Frontotemporal dementia", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Structural MRI scans often reveal frontal lobe and/or anterior temporal lobe atrophy but in early cases the scan may seem normal. Atrophy can be either bilateral or asymmetric. Registration of images at different points of time (e.g., one year apart) can show evidence of atrophy that otherwise (at individual time points) may be reported as normal. Many research groups have begun using techniques such as magnetic resonance spectroscopy, functional imaging and cortical thickness measurements in an attempt to offer an earlier diagnosis to the FTD patient. Fluorine-18-fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography (FDG-PET) scans classically show frontal and/or anterior temporal hypometabolism, which helps differentiate the disease from Alzheimer's disease. The PET scan in Alzheimer's disease classically shows biparietal hypometabolism. Meta-analyses based on imaging methods have shown that frontotemporal dementia mainly affects a frontomedial network discussed in the context of social" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0325_2840", "title": "[A 64-year-old woman with progressive gait disturbance and dementia for one year].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "We report a 64-year-old Japanese woman who died one year after the onset of progressive gait disturbance and dementia. She noted a difficulty in holding a glass and hand tremor in June of 1996 when she was 63 years old. In July of 1996, she tended to lean toward left when she walked. She also noted truncal titubation. In November of 1996, she started to have visual hallucination and delusion in which she said \"I see something is flying on the wall.\", \"Somebody has come into my room\", and things like that. She was admitted to our service on November 22, 1996. On admission, she was alert and general physical examination was unremarkable. Neurologic examination revealed disturbance in recent memory. Hasegawa's dementia rating scale was 22/30. She showed vivid visual hallucination with colors in which she saw faces of dwarfs and angels, a space ship, and others. Higher cerebral functions were normal. She showed left oculomotor palsy which was a sequel of an aneurysm and subarachnoid hemorrhage nine years before. Otherwise cranial nerves were unremarkable. She showed ataxic gait, limb ataxia, truncal titubation, and postural hand tremor. She had no weakness and no muscle atrophy. Deep tendon reflexes were within normal limits. Plantar response was flexor. Sensation was intact. Laboratory examination was also unremarkable. Complete survey for occult malignancy was negative. CSF was under a normal pressure and cell count was 1/microliter, total protein 27 mg/dl, and sugar 68 mg/dl. Cranial CT scan was unremarkable. MRI was not obtained because of the presence of an aneurysm clip in the left internal carotid-posterior communication artery junction. She showed progressive deterioration in her mental function. By January 1997, she became unable to stand or walk with marked dementia. Repeated CSF exams and cranial CT scans were unremarkable. She suffered from several episodes of aspiration pneumonia. A trial of three days methylprednisolone pulse therapy was given starting on March 7, 1997, which was of no effect on her neurologic status. On March 28, 1997, she was intubated because of acute respiratory distress syndrome. In April 2, her body temperature rose to 38 degrees C. On April 9, 1997, her blood pressure dropped and resuscitation was unsuccessful. She was pronounced dead on the same day. The patient was discussed in a neurologic CPC and the chief discussant arrived at the conclusion that the patient had primary leptomeningeal lymphoma. Other possibilities entertained among the audience included brain stem encephalitis of unknown type, carcinomatous cerebellar degeneration plus limbic encephalitis, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, thalamic degeneration, and progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. Post-mortem examination revealed thickening and clouding of the leptomeninges; Gram-positive diplococci were found in the leptomeninges. This meningitis appeared to have been an complication in the terminal stage of her illness. Microscopic examination revealed astrocytosis in the midbrain tegmentum. Cerebral cortices showed only mild astrtocytosis. No cerebellar atrophy was seen and Purkinje cells were retained which excluded paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration. Neuropathologic diagnosis was bacterial meningitis, however, the presence of brain stem encephalitis prior to the onset of bacterial meningitis could not be excluded. It is interesting to note that the diagnosis of the primary neurologic disease of this patient was not easy even after autopsy. As autopsy permission was obtained only for the brain, it was not clear whether or not this patient had an occult malignancy somewhere in her body, however, there was no evidence to indicate paraneoplastic degeneration of the central nervous system. As the patient did not have meningeal signs until one month before her death, it is difficult to ascribe her entire neurologic problems to her meningitis. Finally, her visual hallucination was vivid and colorful; we thought this might have been" }, { "id": "Psichiatry_DSM-5_3070", "title": "Psichiatry_DSM-5", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "When a cerebrovascular etiology is contributing to the neurocognitive disorder, the diagno- sis of vascular neurocognitive disorder should be listed in addition to major neurocognitive disorder due to multiple etiologies. For example, for a presentation of major neurocognitive disorder due to both Alzheimer's disease and vascular disease, with behavioral disturbance, code the following: 331.0 (630.9) Alzheimer’s disease; 294.11 (F02.81) major neurocogni- tive disorder due to multiple etiologies, with behavioral disturbance; 290.40 (F01.51) major vascular neurocognitive disorder, with behavioral disturbance. For mild neurocognitive disorder due to multiple etiologies, code 331.83 (631.84). (Note: Do not use the additional codes for the etiologies. Behavioral disturbance cannot be coded but should still be indicated in writing.)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en509_25127", "title": "Alzheimer Society of Ireland", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The Alzheimer Society of Ireland also operates the Alzheimer National Helpline, offering information and support to anyone affected by dementia on 1800 341 341. Activities The Alzheimer Society of Ireland provides services such as the Alzheimer National Helpline, Social Clubs, Support Groups, Day Care Services, Home Care, Dementia Advisor Service and the Mobile Information Bus. The charity does not exclusively help people with Alzheimer's disease. There are many types of dementia, which is an umbrella term. Dementia types include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, frontotemporal dementia, Korsakoff's syndrome, Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease, HIV related cognitive impairment, mild cognitive impairment, and other rarer causes of dementia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0253_11792", "title": "[A 51-year-old man with early onset parkinsonism].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We report of 51-year-old man with early onset parkinsonism. The patient was well until 38 years of age, when he noted a difficulty in the use of his right leg; this difficulty improved after he received a medicine from his physician. He did not take medicine regularly, and he noted difficulty in standing up from a chair and in rolling over at age 40. Tremor was not a feature, but he noted slowness in his movements at age 42; at age 49, he noted diurnal fluctuation in his symptoms and at times he experienced hallucination. He was admitted to our hospital in September of 1992 for the first time when he was 50-year-old. At that time, neurologic examination revealed an alert and somewhat bradyphrenic man; Hasegawa dementia rating scale was 20/30. Cranial nerves were intact except for masked face and small voice. He showed stooped posture and small step gait cogwheel rigidity was noted in the four limbs more on the left; tremor was absent. Deep reflexes were within normal range and the sensation was intact. As he showed diurnal fluctuation in his symptoms, his medication was switched to levodopa 3,000 mg/day without a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor. He was discharged for out patient follow up. But he did not take drugs regularly, and his neurologic condition deteriorated; he was admitted to another hospital. Neurologic examination at that time was essentially similar to that of his first admission to our hospital, except that he showed more severe rigidity and akinesia; again tremor was not detected. His cranial CT scan showed a mild ventricular dilatation without cortical or brain stem atrophy. During his hospital stay, he developed episodes of oculogyric crisis during peak dose of levodopa, and orthostatic hypotension. He developed pneumonia and expired on October 28, 1993. He was discussed in a neurological CPC, and the chief discussion arrived at the conclusion that the patient had early onset Parkinson's disease of Lewy body type. As differential diagnoses, early onset parkinsonism without Lewy body, pure form of diffuse Lewy body disease, pallidoluysian atrophy, and other conditions were considered; however, all of those possibilities were excluded. Early onset parkinsonism without Lewy body would have much earlier onset than this patient, and diffuse Lewy body disease would show more profound dementia 13 years after the onset. Pallidoluysian atrophy would be complicated with some dystonic features. Post-mortem examination showed marked discoloration and degeneration of the substantia nigra. The degeneration was most prominent in the ventrolateral tier of the substantia nigra.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en437_21693", "title": "Florbetaben (18F)", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Single dose pharmacokinetics of 300 MBq florbetaben of low or high mass dose (<=5 and 50–55 μg) showed no relevant differences between Japanese and Caucasian populations. When compared to healthy subjects, cortical uptake of florbetaben was demonstrated to be generally higher in a large proportion of patients with a clinical diagnosis of AD or mild cognitive impairment. Longitudinal data of 45 patients with MCI indicated that florbetaben PET imaging may be useful to identify patients who will progress to AD. A substantial proportion of patients with a positive florbetaben PET scan progressed to AD-dementia over a 2-year and 4-year time frame. At 4-year follow-up, 88% (21/24) of individuals with MCI and positive florbetaben uptake converted to clinical dementia due to AD, whereas none of 21 florbetaben-negative individuals with MCI experienced a conversion. The pivotal phase III study investigated the relationship of florbetaben imaging and amyloid deposition in the brain in patients" }, { "id": "Psichiatry_DSM-5_2890", "title": "Psichiatry_DSM-5", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "D. The cognitive deficits are not better explained by another mental disorder (e.g., major depressive disorder, schizophrenia). Specify whether due to: Alzheimer’s disease (pp. 611—614) Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (pp. 614—618) Lewy body disease (pp. 618—621) Vascular disease (pp. 621—624) Traumatic brain injury (pp. 624—627) Substance/medication use (pp. 627-632) HIV infection (pp. 632—634) Prion disease (pp. 634—636) Parkinson’s disease (pp. 636—638) Huntington's disease (pp. 638—641) Another medical condition (pp. 641—642) Multiple etiologies (pp. 642—643) Unspecified (p. 643) Coding note: Code based on medical or substance etiology. In some cases, there is need for an additional code for the etiological medical condition, which must immediately pre- cede the diagnostic code for major neurocognitive disorder, as follows: Probable: 331.0 (G309) Probable: 294.1x 331.83 (G31.84)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0420_13094", "title": "[An autopsy case of encephalopathy associated with small cell carcinoma of the stomach with nonconvulsive status epilepticus resembling Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A 64-year-old man developed progressive dementia and altered consciousness with myoclonus over 2 months. Neurological examination revealed mild dysphagia and negative myoclonus of both hands. Electroencephalography (EEG) showed continuous periodic synchronous discharge (PSD) of 1 Hz, although his EEG abnormality was not similar to that usually observed in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain revealed only few lacunes. Laboratory data were also normal. Since his consciousness level fluctuated and the PSD were spiky, we came to a diagnosis of nonconvulsive status epilepticus (NCSE). After administering the valproic acid, his symptoms and EEG finding improved. Nine months after the onset, despite his continued valproic acid, the patient had recurrent NCSE and PSD of 1 Hz. Diffusion-weighted MRI showed a T2-hyperintense lesion in the right parietal lobe, where SPECT scans showed hyperperfusion. After adding zonisamide, he improved slowly. The follow-up MRI and SPECT showed a disappearance of the previous lesion. Now CT scans of the abdomen showed enlarged periaortic lymph node and endoscopic ultrasonography disclosed a submucosal tumor of the stomach. Biopsy of the periaortic lymph node by laparotomy revealed undifferentiated adenocarcinoma with its origin being unclear. Chemotherapy didn't work well for the tumor and the patient underwent a downhill course, although his mental and neurological manifestation were mostly unremarkable. Two years and four months after the onset, he died in emaciation. Autopsy confirmed small cell carcinoma originating in the stomach and metastases in the liver and lungs. Neuropathological examination revealed only mild scattered gliosis. This case was unique in the prolonged CJD-like manifestations, which turned out to be due to NCSE. Despite anti-neuronal antibodies were not detected, we suspect yet another paraneoplastic brain syndrome in this patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0642_17056", "title": "[The basics of imaging dementia].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Dementia is becoming more common as the population ages. We review the prevalence of different causes of dementia. Alzheimer's disease heads the list, followed by vascular dementia, Lewy body dementia, and frontotemporal lobar degeneration. Although these are distinct entities, their symptoms overlap and they have many comorbid conditions in common. We review the importance of recognizing the early symptoms and signs of dementia and point out the key differences between different types of dementia. We illustrate the fundamental importance of differentiating between reversible and irreversible disease on imaging and of establishing the follow-up of patients with irreversible conditions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0400_9232", "title": "[Is it Alzheimer disease? Recognizing the first signs of dementia syndrome].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Today, early diagnosis of different forms of dementia is possible with a relatively easy-to-apply set of diagnostic tools. The quality of the medical history, including the information supplied by relatives and friends, together with the psychological and physical findings, determine the diagnostic hit rate. Laboratory investigations and imaging techniques are indispensable for detecting the underlying cause of existing dementia. Standardized rapid screening procedures for the identification of mild cognitive deficits have speeded up the reliable selection of suspicious cases needing referral to a specialist. Identification of individual day-to-day problems and non-cognitive disorders round off the diagnosis of dementia, and establish the conditions for planning a suitable treatment strategy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1149_682", "title": "Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease presenting with bilateral hearing loss: A case report.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) is a prion disease characterized as a fatal transmissible neurodegenerative disorder. Dizziness is often the first presenting symptom of sCJD, but hearing loss as an early manifestation is very rare. A 76-year-old man presented with bilateral sudden hearing impairment and dizziness for 10 d. He was taking medications for hypertension and diabetes. He denied any difficulty with activities of daily living or hearing impairment before the onset of symptoms. Pure tone audiometry showed bilateral severe hearing impairment. Brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and laboratory tests were within normal limits. Given his diagnosis of sudden sensory hearing loss, the patient received corticosteroid treatment but it was ineffective. Two weeks later, he complained of aggravated gait impairment, disorientation, and cognitive impairment. Repeat brain MRI showed diffuse cortical high signal intensities on diffusion-weighted imaging. In cerebrospinal fluid analysis, the real-time quaking-induced conversion assay was positive, and 14-3-3 protein was detected in the by western blotting. Considering all the data, we diagnosed probable sCJD, and the patient's symptoms rapidly progressed into akinetic mutism. For patients with abrupt bilateral hearing impairment, especially in the elderly, various differential diagnoses, including sCJD, should be considered." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0834_1637", "title": "[Structural neuroimaging in dementia for outpatient clinic visit].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Dementia is a common illness to find in a psychiatric consultation and its incidence is rising as the aged population increases. Traditionally the imagines in dementia were used to rule out etiologies that had pharmacological o surgery treatments. However, in the last years neuroimaging has played a very important role in the field of dementia. Structural imaging (particularly MRI) has become an important tool in the diagnosis of degenerative dementias because of findings that help us to support the diagnosis of different etiologies. Different patterns of atrophy can be identified on visual inspection of MRI in various neurodegenerative conditions. However, it's sometimes difficult to recognize or acknowledge these patterns during a regular outpatient clinic visit. In this review we describe the most important findings in structural neuroimaging in the most common causes of dementia and we analyze the most useful visual scales that can help us in the differential diagnosis of dementia during a regular outpatient clinic visit. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0476_23968", "title": "[Frontal dementia or dementia praecox? A case report of a psychotic disorder with a severe decline].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Many authors have described these last years the difficulty to establish a differential diagnosis between schizophrenia and frontotemporal dementia. However treatment and prognosis of these two separate diseases are not the same. Schizophrenia is a chronic syndrome with an early onset during teenage or young adulthood period and the major features consist of delirious ideas, hallucinations and psychic dissociation. However a large variety of different symptoms describes the disease and creates a heterogeneous entity. The diagnosis, exclusively defined by clinical signs, is then difficult and has led to the research of specific symptoms. These involve multiple psychological processes, such as perception (hallucinations), reality testing (delusions), thought processes (loose associations), feeling (flatness, inappropriate affect), behaviour (catatonia, disorganization), attention, concentration, motivation (avolition), and judgement. The characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia have often been conceptualised as falling into three broad categories including positive (hallucination, delision), negative (affective flattening, alogia, avolition) and disorganised (poor attention, disorganised speech and behaviour) symptoms. No single symptom is pathogonomonic of schizophrenia. These psychological and behavioural characteristics are associated with a variety of impairments in occupational or social functioning. Cognition impairments are also associated with schizophrenia. Since the original clinical description by Kraepelin and Bleuler, abnormalities in attentional, associative and volitional cognitive processes have been considered central features of schizophrenia. Long term memory deficits, attentional and executive dysfunctions are described in the neurocognitive profile of schizophrenic patients, with a large degree of severity. The pathophysiology of schizophrenia is not well known but may be better understood by neuronal dysfunctions rather than by a specific anatomical abnormality. Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is one of the most common causes of cortical dementia. FTLD is associated with an anatomical atrophy that can be generalised, with a frontotemporal or focal lobar predominance. Histologically there is severe neuronal loss, gliosis and a state of spongiosis. In a minority of case Pick cells and Pick bodies are also found. The usual clinical features of FTLD are divided in three prototypic syndromes: frontotemporal dementia (FTD), progressive non-fluent aphasia (PA) and semantic dementia (SD). FTD is the most common clinical manifestation of FTLD. FTD is first characterised by profound alteration in personality and social conduct, characterised by inertia and loss of volition or social disinhibition and distractibility. There is emotional blunting and loss of insight. Speech output is typically economical, leading ultimately to mutism, although a press of speech may be present in some overactive, disinhibited patients. Memory is relatively preserved in the early stage of the disease. Cognitive deficits occur in the domains of attention, planning and problems solving, whereas primary tools of language, perception and spatial functions are well preserved. PA is an initial disorder of expressive language, characterised by effortful speech production, phonologic and grammatical errors. Difficulties in reading and writing also occur but understanding of word meaning is relatively well preserved. In SD a severe naming and word comprehension impairment occur on the beginning in the context of fluent, effortless, and grammatical speech output. There is also an inability to recognise the meaning of visual percepts. The clinical syndromes of FTLD are associated with the brain topography of the degeneration. So considerable clinical overlap can exist between schizophrenia and FTLD and the object of the following case report is to remind the difficulty to make a differential diagnosis between these two pathologies. A 34 year old non-married man is admitted in mental health district of a general hospital for behavioural disturbances that include repeated aggressions towards his family. At initial interview visual and auditives hallucinations are described. The patient doesn't care about these abnormalities and a poverty of speech is observed. The affects, globally blunted, show some degree of sadness however. The patient's birth and early development were unremarkable. At the age of 26, the patient dismissed from his job because of poor performance and absenteeism. He spent a lot of time watching TV, showed poverty of speech and become sometimes angry and violent without an explanation. He was hospitalised for several months and a schizophrenia including predominant negative features, hallucinations and delusion was diagnosed. He was treated with bromperidol, could go back to home and was followed by a general practitioner for 8 years. The patient had a stereotyped way of life during these years with a poor communication and little activity. During the months preceding the current hospitalisation, these characteristics and avolition emphasised, urinary incontinence appeared. The patient receives risperidone 8 mg/day associated with citalopram 40 mg/day during several months of hospitalisation. No significant evolution is observed regarding apathic and stereotyped way of live. The capacity of communication remains very poor. Neurocognitive assessments reveal multiple and severe dysfunctions. Memory, executive and attentional tasks are extremely disturbed. Physical and neurological examinations reveal an isolated bilateral Babinski sign. Cerebral scanner and magnetic resonance show bifrontal atrophy and PET scan is normal. There are no significant abnormalities found on blood and urine samples and on lumbar puncture. The patient is sent to a chronic neuropsychiatric hospital and the treatment is stopped. One year later, a comparative evaluation is realised. The general clinical state shows no evolution. Neurocognitive assessments are repeated and severe dysfunctions are observed with more perseverations. A diagnosis of FTLD for this patient can be discussed regarding clinical features, neurocognitive testings and neuroradiological findings. Schizophrenia is a major differential diagnosis. Psychotic symptoms like hallucinations and age of onset are essential observations for the diagnosis of schizophrenia but can not exclude FTLD. Memory, intellectual functions, executive and attentional abilities may all be disturbed in schizophrenia and FTLD. Cerebral abnormalities well established in schizophrenia are lateral ventricles enlargements. Frontal lobar atrophy is a major argument for FTLD and is only a sporadic finding in schizophrenic populations. Schizophrenia and FTLD could be comorbid diseases by several ways. A differential diagnosis between schizophrenia and FTLD is difficult to establish. Schizophrenia is a heterogeneous disease with a large variety of cognitive dysfunctions. Neurocognitive tools may improve our knowledge of schizophrenia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0069_17218", "title": "The diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is a diagnosis of exclusion. First, dementia must be properly diagnosed using the four-part definition mentioned above and considering the caveat regarding educational levels. Next, the differential diagnosis of dementia must be examined, disease by disease, with clinical and laboratory criteria used to accept or reject each diagnosis. If all other causes of dementia are rejected this way (usually after a thorough history and physical, B-12 and thyroid levels, CT scan, and removal of possibly offending medications), then a diagnosis of probable Alzheimer's disease is made. If at that time the pattern of disease progression, mental status abnormalities, and personality changes is consistent with one of the presentations of Alzheimer's, the diagnosis is made with confidence. If these patterns are not consistent, re-examining the differential diagnosis is indicated." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en350_15354", "title": "Computed tomography of the head", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Comparison with MRI Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head provides superior information as compared to CT scans when seeking information about headache to confirm a diagnosis of neoplasm, vascular disease, posterior cranial fossa lesions, cervicomedullary lesions, or intracranial pressure disorders. It also does not carry the risks of exposing the person to ionizing radiation. CT scans may be used to diagnose headaches when neuroimaging is indicated and MRI is not available, or in emergency settings when hemorrhage, stroke, or traumatic brain injury is suspected. MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) provides more sensitivity in the evaluation of the cavernous sinus and the orbital apex. One advantage over a brain MRI is in the evaluation of intracerebral calcifications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0909_21151", "title": "Clinical variables related to the diagnostic stability of demential syndromes.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Assigning a diagnosis to a patient with dementia is important for the present treatment of the patient and caregivers, and scientific research. Nowadays, the dementia diagnostic criteria are based on clinical information regarding medical, history, physical examination, neuropsychological tests, and supplementary exams and, therefore, subject to variability through time. A retrospective observational study to evaluate variables related to clinical diagnostic stability in dementia syndromes in at least one year follow up. From a sample of 432 patients, from a single university center, data were collected regarding sociodemographic aspects, Clinical Dementia Rating, physical examination, neuropsychological tests, and supplementary exams including a depression triage scale. From this sample, 113 (26.6%) patients have their diagnosis changed, most of them adding a vascular component to initial diagnosis or depression as comorbidity or main disease. Our findings show that many factors influence the diagnostic stability including the presence of symmetric Parkinsonism, initial diagnosis of vascular dementia, presence of diabetes and hypertension, the presence of long term memory deficit in the neuropsychological evaluation, and normal neuroimaging. We discuss our findings with previous findings in the literature. Every step of the clinical diagnosis including history, vascular comorbidities and depression, physical examination, neuropsychological battery, and neuroimaging were relevant to diagnosis accuracy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_99601", "title": "Dementia with Lewy bodies", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "PET or SPECT imaging can be used to detect reduced dopamine transporter uptake and distinguish AD from DLB. Severe atrophy of the hippocampus is more typical of AD than DLB. Before dementia develops (during the mild cognitive impairment phase), MRI scans show normal hippocampal volume. After dementia develops, MRI shows more atrophy among individuals with AD, and a slower reduction in volume over time among people with DLB than those with AD. Compared to people with AD, FDG-PET brain scans in people with DLB often show a cingulate island sign. In East Asia, particularly Japan, is used in the differential diagnosis of DLB and AD, because reduced labeling of cardiac nerves is seen only in Lewy body disorders. Other indicative and supportive biomarkers are useful in distinguishing DLB and AD (preservation of medial temporal lobe structures, reduced occipital activity, and slow-wave EEG activity)." }, { "id": "Psichiatry_DSM-5_50", "title": "Psichiatry_DSM-5", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Note: Code first 331.19 (G31.09) frontotemporal disease. 294.1 1 (F02.81) With behavioral disturbance 294.10 (F02.80) Without behavioral disturbance 331 .9 (631.9) Possible Major Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Frontotemporal 331.83 (631.84) Mild Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Frontotemporal Lobar _._ (7.7) Probable Major Neurocognitive Disorder With Lewy Bodiesb Note: Code first 331.82 (631.83) Lewy body disease. 294.1 1 (F02.81) With behavioral disturbance 294.10 (F02.80) Without behavioral disturbance 331.9 (631.9) Possible Major Neurocognitive Disorder With Lewy Bodiesa' b 331.83 (631.84) Mild Neurocognitive Disorder With Lewy Bodiesa 7.7 (7.7 Probable Major Vascular Neurocognitive Disorderb Note: No additional medical code for vascular disease. 290.40 (F01.51) With behavioral disturbance 290.40 (F01.50) Without behavioral disturbance 331.9 (631.9) Possible Major Vascular Neurocognitive Disordera' b 331.83 (631.84) Mild Vascular Neurocognitive Disordera" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0867_23599", "title": "Homonymous Hemianopsia Associated with Probable Alzheimer's Disease.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Posterior cortical atrophy (PCA) is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that has cerebral atrophy in the parietal, occipital, or occipitotemporal cortices and is characterized by visuospatial and visuoperceptual impairments. The most cases are pathologically compatible with Alzheimer's disease (AD). We describe a case of PCA in which a combination of imaging methods, in conjunction with symptoms and neurological and neuropsychological examinations, led to its being diagnosed and to AD being identified as its probable cause. Treatment with donepezil for 6 months mildly improved alexia symptoms, but other symptoms remained unchanged. A 59-year-old Japanese woman with progressive alexia, visual deficit, and mild memory loss was referred to our neurologic clinic for the evaluation of right homonymous hemianopsia. Our neurological examination showed alexia, constructional apraxia, mild disorientation, short-term memory loss, and right homonymous hemianopsia. These findings resulted in a score of 23 (of 30) points on the Mini-Mental State Examination. Occipital atrophy was identified, with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showing left-side dominance. The MRI data were quantified with voxel-based morphometry, and PCA was diagnosed on the basis of these findings. Single photon emission computed tomography with (123)I-N-isopropyl-p-iodoamphetamine showed hypoperfusion in the corresponding voxel-based morphometry occipital lobes. Additionally, the finding of hypoperfusion in the posterior associate cortex, posterior cingulate gyrus, and precuneus was consistent with AD. Therefore, the PCA was considered to be a result of AD. We considered Lewy body dementia as a differential diagnosis because of the presence of hypoperfusion in the occipital lobes. However, the patient did not meet the criteria for Lewy body dementia during the course of the disease. We therefore consider including PCA in the differential diagnoses to be important for patients with visual deficit, cognitive impairment, and cerebral atrophy in the parietal, occipital, or occipitotemporal cortices. A combination of imaging methods, including MRI and single photon emission computed tomography, may help identify probable causes of PCA. " }, { "id": "Psichiatry_DSM-5_52", "title": "Psichiatry_DSM-5", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Specify if: Persistent Major or Mild Neurocognitive Disorder Due to HIV Infection (632) .7) Major Neurocognitive Disorder Due to HIV Infectionb Note: Code first 042 (320) HIV infection. 294.11 (F02.81) With behavioral disturbance 294.10 (F02.80) Without behavioral disturbance 331.83 (631.84) Mild Neurocognitive Disorder Due to HIV Infectiona Major or Mild Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Prion Disease (634) 7.7 ( .7) Major Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Prion Diseaseb Note: Code first 046.79 (A813) prion disease. 294.1 1 (F02.81) With behavioral disturbance 294.10 (F02.80) Without behavioral disturbance 331.83 (631.84) Mild Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Prion Diseasea Major or Mild Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Parkinson’s Disease (636) 7.7 (7.7) Major Neurocognitive Disorder Probably Due to Parkinson’s Note: Code first 332.0 (020) Parkinson’s disease." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_3516", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Three categories of data are useful for the recognition and differential diagnosis of dementing brain disease: 1. A reliable history of the illness and its impact on daily life 2. Findings on mental examination 3. Ancillary examinations: CT, MRI, functional imaging, sometimes lumbar puncture, EEG, and appropriate laboratory procedures, as described in Chap. 2. The history should be supplemented by information obtained from a person other than the patient, because, through lack of insight, the patient will have limited and variable grasp of his illness or its gravity; indeed, he may be unaware even of his chief complaint. Special inquiry should be made about the patient’s general behavior, capacity for work, personality changes, language, mood, special preoccupations and concerns, delusional ideas, hallucinatory experiences, personal habits and care in hygiene, and such faculties as memory and judgment." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 171, 412 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 26, 61 ] ], "text": "The clinical history and ultrasound give a diagnosis of suspicion, but the diagnosis of certainty is given by direct observation (with or without associated biopsy) of ectopic endometrial tissue implants, either by laparotomy or laparoscopy." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Transvaginal ultrasound.", "2": "Diagnostic laparoscopy.", "3": "Magnetic resonance imaging.", "4": "Colonoscopy.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0525_18087", "title": "[Endometriosis with massive hemorrhagic ascites: a case report and review of the literature].", "score": 0.013496616651956457, "content": "Endometriosis is defined as the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity. It generally involves the peritoneum, ovaries and rectovaginal septum. Its characteristic symptoms include dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, deep dyspareunia and infertility. It may also involve the gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract or extra abdominal sites, giving rise to a wide variety of clinical symptoms such as bloody stools, renal haemorrhage, hemoptysis and pleural effusion during menstruation. Recurrent hemorrhagic ascites secondary to endometriosis is an unusual occurrence, 41 cases have been reported since 1954. Here we report an additional case, in order to draw attention to this condition. A 28 years-old black nulligravida woman was seen for the first time in april 2000 with a chief complaint of infertility. Her past medical history was unremarkable. She had regular menses but associated with severe dysmenorrhea. She also recalled abdominal and pelvic pain for several years. She underwent an ovulation induction with gonadotrophin, which resulted in a progressive increase of pelvic pain. A first laparoscopy was performed, revealing voluminous ascites (10 I). Two years later the ascites recurred spontaneously. Ultrasound examination revealed suspect \"para uterine masses\". A second exploratory laparoscopy showed a voluminous bloody ascites (71), and extensive adhesions. On histologic examination all specimens (peritoneal biopsies) were compatible with endometriosis and ruled out malignancy. Treatment with Gn RH analog was performed and full remission was obtained after 6 months. One year later the ascites recurred again spontaneously, leading to a third laparoscopy in an other medical institution. Histologic examination showed endometrial stromal tissue and fibrous proliferation. Later she became pregnant after in vitro fertilization. In the first trimester of pregnancy, the pelvic ultrasound showed only a small effusion in the pouch of Douglas. Still, the ascites did not progress during pregnancy. The patient was hospitalized from 27 to 33 weeks of gestational age for threatened labor, but she finally had a normal vaginal delivery at 36 weeks of gestational age. Four months later, she had no complaint, but the pelvic ultrasound showed the recurrence of the ascites. She will have a drainage. The future treatement will consists of GnRH analog for about six months, which will be relayed by a long term progestative therapy. A diagnosis of endometriosis should always be considered in middle-age women who presents with bloody ascites. Long follow-up is advisable for patients who undergo conservative treatment because of thehigh risk of recurrence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0350_14102", "title": "Endometriosis.", "score": 0.012998935115484889, "content": "27 year old Melinda presents to you with increasingly severe dysmenorrhoea. She has been using condoms for contraception and is no longer able to control the pain with the anti inflammatory tablets you suggested at the last consultation 6 months ago. She also complains of the recent development of deep dyspareunia. She has been in her current relationship for the last 5 years. Examination illicits similar pain and tenderness to that which she feels during intercourse. A Pap smear and STD screen are normal. You refer her to a gynaecologist who undertakes a laparoscopy on Melinda. What is seen? Ovarian adhesions secondary to endometriosis (Figure 1). Classic endometriosis (Figure 2)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1003_10794", "title": "Sonographic Evaluation for Endometriosis in Routine Pelvic Ultrasound.", "score": 0.012215099715099716, "content": "To show how the evaluation for endometriosis can be included in the routine pelvic ultrasound examination. Stepwise narrated video demonstration of the sonographic evaluation for endometriosis in routine pelvic ultrasound following the recommended sonographic approach published in the 2016 consensus paper by the International Deep Endometriosis Analysis (IDEA) group [1]. Endometriosis is a common and often debilitating gynecological disorder that affects 5-10% of women [2]. The prevalence is even higher among women with symptoms of endometriosis [2], which include chronic pelvic pain, acquired dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dyschezia, menorrhagia, abnormal bleeding, and infertility. Approximately 80% of women who have endometriosis have superficial lesions, whereas 20% have deep infiltrating endometriosis (DIE; [3]). Laparoscopy is the gold standard for diagnosing endometriosis, because it allows the diagnosis of all forms of endometriosis and often immediate removal of superficial endometriosis. The removal of DIE is considerably more complicated and usually cannot be completed unless it was diagnosed preoperatively. The technique to diagnose DIE with transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS) was first described in detail in 2009 [4]. Since then, the accuracy of TVUS for the prediction of DIE has been well established in the literature [5-7]. TVUS is widely used as a first-line investigation for women with gynecological symptoms. The inclusion of an assessment for endometriosis in the routine pelvic ultrasound allows earlier diagnosis and better surgical outcomes for all women with DIE. The evaluation for endometriosis in routine pelvic ultrasound based on the IDEA consensus promotes a 4-step dynamic ultrasound approach [1]: (1) routine evaluation of uterus and adnexa with particular attention for sonographic signs of adenomyosis and the presence or absence of endometriomas; (2) evaluation of transvaginal sonographic 'soft markers' such as site-specific tenderness and ovarian mobility; (3) assessment of status of pouch of Douglas using the real-time ultrasound-based \"sliding sign;\" and (4) assessment of DIE nodules in the anterior and posterior compartments, which involves assessment of the bladder, vaginal vault, uterosacral ligaments, and bowel, including rectum, rectosigmoid junction, and sigmoid colon. Because 5-10% of women with DIE also have ureteric endometriosis, it is useful to assess the kidneys. Silent hydronephrosis is easily identified in 50-60% of patients with ureteric involvement. Although it is possible to identify DIE involving the ureters more directly, this requires more advanced skills, and further studies are still needed to better define the accuracy of ureteric DIE detection by TVUS [8-10]. Traditionally, only pathologies of the uterus and ovaries are assessed during a routine pelvic ultrasound. Here we demonstrate that the routine ultrasound examination can easily be extended beyond the uterus and ovaries into the posterior and anterior pelvic compartments to evaluate structural mobility and to look for deep infiltrating endometriotic nodules, wherewith women suffering from DIE can benefit from a preoperative diagnosis and subsequently, a single, well-planned procedure in the hands of a well-prepared team." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_53103", "title": "Dysmenorrhea", "score": 0.01053079459631954, "content": "Further work-up includes a specific medical history of symptoms and menstrual cycles and a pelvic examination. Based on results from these, additional exams and tests may be motivated, such as: Gynecologic ultrasonography Laparoscopy Management Treatments that target the mechanism of pain include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and hormonal contraceptives. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin production. With long-term treatment, hormonal birth control reduces the amount of uterine fluid/tissue expelled from the uterus. Thus resulting in shorter, less painful menstruation. These drugs are typically more effective than treatments that do not target the source of the pain (e.g. acetaminophen). Regular physical activity may limit the severity of uterine cramps." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_91", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.010037688680138632, "content": "Adolescent Patients A pelvic examination may be less revealing in an adolescent than in an older woman, particularly if it is the patient’s first examination or if it takes place on an emergency basis. An adolescent who presents with excessive bleeding should have a pelvic examination if she had intercourse, if the results of a pregnancy test are positive, if she has abdominal pain, if she is markedly anemic, or if she is bleeding heavily enough to compromise hemodynamic stability. The pelvic examination occasionally may be deferred in young teenagers who have a classic history of irregular cycles soon after menarche, who have normal hematocrit levels, who deny sexual activity, and who will reliably return for follow-up. A pelvic examination may be deferred in adolescents who present to the office requesting oral contraceptives before the initiation of intercourse or at the patient’s request, even if she has had intercourse. Newer testing methods using DNA amplification techniques" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1076_23833", "title": "Surgical treatment of deep endometriosis with adenomyosis externa: a challenging case in an infertile woman.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "To describe the management and the fertility-enhancing potential of surgery in an infertile patient with deep-infiltrating endometriosis and adenomyosis externa. Video case report. Minimally invasive and robotic gynecologic surgery unit of a university hospital. A 31-year-old nulliparous patient with dysmenorrhea, dysuria, dyspareunia, and primary infertility. Bimanual examination, transvaginal ultrasound, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) were performed as a comprehensive preoperative workup. The findings were consistent with bladder endometriosis and a 4-cm right pararectal cystic mass suggestive of adenomyosis externa. Laparoscopic excision of all visible endometriosis was performed. A pararectal lesion was found, completely developing in the retroperitoneal spaces, from the right medial pararectal space to the rectovaginal space, reaching the pelvic floor fascia without infiltration of the levator ani muscle. According to Koninckx classification, this kind of lesion corresponds to type III endometriosis or adenomyosis externa. Nerve-sparing eradication of the nodule was performed. The decision to use these techniques was taken with the intention to treat the patient, and not with the aim of testing the procedures performed. Therefore, as a common clinical practice in our institution and for the above reasons, there was no need for consultation of the institutional review board for approval. Improvement of symptoms and spontaneous conception after surgical removal of all endometriotic implants. There were no intraoperative or postoperative complications, and the patient was discharged after 3 days. She discontinued postoperative hormone therapy with gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogue after 3 months because she desired fertility. She conceived spontaneously after 2 months of attempting. She delivered vaginally and had no complications during pregnancy and labor. Neither recurrence of pain symptoms nor voiding or rectal dysfunctions were reported by the patient. In the management of a case of deep endometriosis, the preoperative assessment should be carefully carried out to give the surgeon the most accurate information about the extent of the disease and the patient's main objectives. Imaging techniques such as ultrasound and MRI play a fundamental role along with the clinical evaluation in also detecting lesions that are not visible at first laparoscopic inspection. In this case of a young woman without any detectable fertility issues except for endometriosis, the laparoscopic excision of endometriosis was feasible, safe, and effective in improving the patient's fertility and pain symptoms. The fertility-enhancing potential of complete eradication of pelvic endometriosis, including removal of deep posterior localizations such those presented in this case, has been hypothesized by various investigators. It has been suggested that skilled surgical management for symptomatic deep endometriosis may be followed by a high pregnancy rate, with most pregnancies resulting from postoperative natural conception even in patients with primary infertility." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2406", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The uterus is typically diffusely enlarged, although usually less than 14 cm in size, and is often soft and tender, particularly at the time of menses. Mobility of the uterus is not restricted, and there is no associated adnexal pathology (48). Adenomyosis is a clinical diagnosis. Imaging studies including pelvic ultrasound or MRI, although helpful, are not definitive. Because of the cost of MRI and negligible improvement in diagnostic accuracy, this study is not recommended routinely. In women with diffuse uterine enlargement and negative pregnancy test results, secondary dysmenorrhea may be attributed to adenomyosis; however, the pathologic confirmation of suspected adenomyosis can be made only at the time of hysterectomy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0891_9621", "title": "Rectovaginal Splenosis: An Unexpected Cause of Dyspareunia Approached by Laparoscopy.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To demonstrate the technique of laparoscopic approach in a rare case of rectovaginal splenosis with severe dyspareunia and dyschesia. A step-by-step explanation of the patient's condition, diagnosis, surgical technique, and postoperative results (Canadian Task Force classification II-3). Splenosis consists of ectopic functioning splenic tissue that can be located anywhere within the abdomen or pelvis. Fragments are often multiple and range in diameter from a few millimeters to a few centimeters. They are reddish-blue and are sessile or pedunculated. Their appearance can mimic that of neoplasms or endometriosis, which are the main differential diagnoses. Trauma and subsequent splenectomy is the cause in most cases. Splenosis is a benign condition usually found incidentally and is usually asymptomatic. The need for therapy is controversial, and treatment is suggested only in symptomatic cases, primarily those related to pelvic or abdominal lesions, as in our patient. The diagnosis of splenosis in a woman complaining of pelvic pain may present diagnostic difficulties. The splenic tissue has the macroscopic appearance of endometriosis, and its position in the pelvis also may suggest this diagnosis. Where excision of splenosis is considered necessary, the approach should be laparoscopic, unless this is considered too risky owing to the proximity of vital structures. A 40-year-old woman was referred to our department for severe dyspareunia and dyschezia. The gynecologic examination revealed a painfull nodularity on the posterior vaginal cul de sac. Further evaluation with 2- and 3-dimensional ultrasound and magnetic resonance imaging revealed several soft tissue nodules in the pouch of Douglas (POD), which were enhanced on contrast administration. She had undergone a splenectomy 15 years earlier after a car accident. A laparoscopic approach to a rectovaginal nodularity was performed. Under general anesthesia, the patient was placed in the dorsal decubitus position with her arms alongside her body and her legs in abduction. Pneumoperitoneum was achieved using a Veres needle placed at the umbilicus. Four trocars were placed: a 10-mm trocar at the umbilicus for the 0-degree laparoscope; a 5-mm trocar at the right anterosuperior iliac spine; a 5-mm trocar in the midline between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis, approximately 8 to 10 cm inferior to the umbilical trocar; and a 5-mm trocar at the left anterosuperior iliac spine. The entire pelvis was inspected for endometriotic lesions. In the pelvis, hypervascular and bluish nodules were visible with extension from the POD into the deep rectovaginal space. The macroscopic appearance was atypical for endometriotic implants. The nodularities were carefully dissected and excised, and histological assessment revealed splenic tissue. At the time of this report, the patient had been asymptomatic for 6 months after surgery. Rectovaginal splenosis may mimic endometriosis. The laparoscopic approach to rectovaginal splenosis avoids an abdominal incision, with its associated pain and possible adhesion formation. It also provides a better view for dissection. In this patient, the splenosis was removed by laparoscopy, with no postoperative dyspareunia or dyschesia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0741_21893", "title": "[Diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease. Which clinical and paraclinical criteria? Role of imaging and laparoscopy?].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease is difficult. We focus on a systematic literature review to study diagnostic values of history-taking, clinical examination, laboratory tests and imagery. After this literature review, we build a diagnostic model for pelvic inflammatory disease. This diagnostic model is built on two major criteria: presence of adnexal tenderness or cervical motion tenderness. Additional minor criteria, increasing the likelihood of the diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease were added based on their specificity and their positive likelihood ratio. These minor criteria are supported by history-taking, clinical examination, laboratory tests and also on relevant ultrasonographic criteria." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_4858", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "2. Loose stools are rarely present without the use of laxatives, and there are insufficient criteria for IBS. 3. a Criteria fulfilled for the last 3 months with symptom onset at least 6 months prior to diagnosis. From Drossman DA, Corazziari E, Talley NJ, et al., eds. Rome III: the functional gastrointestinal disorders. 3nd ed. McLean, VA: Degnon Associates, 2006:885–897, Appendix A, with permission. Table 28.6 Functional Defecation Disorders 1. The patient must satisfy diagnostic criteria for functional constipation (Table 28.5) 2. During repeated attempts to defecate must have at least two of the following: a. Evidence of impaired evacuation, based on balloon expulsion test or imaging b. Inappropriate contraction of the pelvic floor muscles (i.e., anal sphincter or puborectalis) or less than 20% relaxation of basal resting sphincter pressure by manometry, imaging, or EMG c." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0923_8210", "title": "Multidisciplinary Resection of Deeply Infiltrative Endometriosis.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To describe a multidisciplinary approach for the resection of deeply infiltrative endometriosis using the robotic platform. A technical video showing a step-by-step approach for the resection of deeply infiltrative endometriosis (Canadian Task Force classification level III). Institutional review board approval was not required for this study. There is considerable involvement of the bowel and bladder with deeply infiltrative endometriosis [1-3]. The need for operative procedures involving multiple organs while performing a complete resection is common. The benefits of minimally invasive surgery for a gynecologic pathology have been documented in numerous studies. Patients had fewer medical and surgical complications postoperatively, better cosmesis, and better quality of life [4-6]. We believe that deeply infiltrative endometriosis does not preclude patients from having a minimally invasive resection procedure. In this video, we describe how the robotic platform was used for a seamless transition between surgical specialties including gynecology, colorectal, and urology to ensure complete resection of endometriosis lesions involving multiple organs. A 47-year-old woman with a 4-year history of severe pelvic pain, dysuria, dyspareunia, dyschezia, and dysmenorrhea failing multiple medical therapies presented to our clinic to discuss surgical options. After thorough counseling, the decision was made to proceed with definitive surgical management. Postoperatively, the patient was admitted for 2 days of postoperative inpatient care. After meeting all immediate postoperative milestones, she was discharged with an indwelling Foley catheter and instructed to follow up in the clinic with all 3 surgical specialties. At the 1-week interval, she was seen by the urology team; her indwelling catheter was removed after a cystoscopy was performed documenting adequate healing. Two weeks postoperatively, the patient was seen by the gynecology and colorectal teams and was noted to be healing adequately from the procedure. Her six-week visit was also unremarkable. She continued to follow up with the gynecology team for her yearly well-woman examinations and has been symptom free for 2 years after the surgery. She takes norethindrone daily to minimize recurrence. Preoperative pelvic magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showed bladder endometriosis and extensive rectovaginal endometriosis. We describe the multidisciplinary approach used for surgery and the procedures performed by each specialty. The urology team performed a cystoscopy preoperatively to assess for full-thickness erosions and the location of those lesions in that event. The urology team also reviewed the magnetic resonance images with the radiology team, and the endometriosis lesions were suspected to be close to the bladder trigone, keeping in mind that this finding could be overestimated given that the bladder was deflated at the time the imaging was obtained. Accordingly, at the time of surgery, the decision was made to proceed with cystoscopy and the placement of ureteral stents as a prophylactic measure. An intentional cystotomy and resection of the bladder section involved with endometriosis were performed followed by watertight closure. The trigone area of the bladder was not involved, and ureteral reimplantation was not needed in this case. The gynecology team operated second and performed an extensive dissection of the retroperitoneal space with the development of the pararectal and paravesical spaces. They also ligated the uterine artery at its origin followed by dissection of the uterovesical space, effectively reflecting the bladder off of the lower uterine segment. At this point, they proceeded with a total hysterectomy, and the specimen was removed from the pelvis through the vaginal cuff. Preoperatively, the colorectal surgeon ordered a colonoscopy to determine if full-thickness erosions were present and reviewed the magnetic resonance images with the radiology team. Based on the MRI and colonoscopy, all patients are counseled and consented for the possibility of a low anterior resection and loop ileostomy to protect the anastomosis. Based on the understanding that colorectal and gynecologic surgeries have a different approach when dissecting the pararectal space at our institution, a discussion between the 2 teams is initiated at the multidisciplinary session for surgery planning. In the case we present, the colorectal surgeon opted for the removal of the uterus before his dissection was initiated given that he dissects this space presacrally and not retroperitoneally like the gynecology counterpart. He would also benefit from the extra space for dissection with the uterus out of the pelvis. The colorectal part of the case was initiated by mobilization of the rectum and dissecting the obliterated rectovaginal space. The presacral space was then opened followed by mobilization of the rectosigmoid from its attachment. The case was concluded with full transection and reanastomosis of the rectum section involved with endometriosis. The specimen was also removed from the pelvis through the vaginal cuff. Complete resection of deeply infiltrative endometriosis spanning beyond the scope of 1 surgical specialty. No immediate intraoperative, perioperative, or long-term complications from surgery. Complete resolution of endometriosis symptoms. We encourage collaborative care for planning and performing comprehensive and safe resection of deeply infiltrative endometriosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0517_8369", "title": "[Results of diagnostic hysteroscopy in a 7-year period in the gynecological clinic of \"UMBAL-Pleven\"].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The aim of the authors is to show the data for the reception diagnosis, age, histological results and the conduct after the performed diagnostic hysteroscopies in Gynecological clinic of UMBAL-Pleven. For the fulfillment of this aim was made a prospective study for 7 years' period: from 01/01/1997 to 31/01/2003. The objects of observation were 74 women of age from 16 to 65 years, with performed hysteroscopies for gynecologic complaints. There were performed 74 diagnostic hysteroscopies for the studied period. The hysteroscopic findings were 20 cases with endometrial polyposis, 14--submucosal myoamatic nodes, deforming the uterine cavity, 4--cervical polyp, 19--increased endometrium, 9--Asherman syndrome, 1--bicomous uterus, 1--a suspected section for endometrial carcinoma and 6 cases without pathologic findings. There were performed 59 trial abrasions and the removed materials were sent for histological examination The performed comparative analysis between the hysteroscopic presentation and histological findings showed a coincidence of the diagnosis. It was made the conclusion, that the hysteroscopy is an easy, accessible and inexpensive diagnostic method, which must take its place as one of the basic contemporary diagnostic methods in gynecology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0636_18547", "title": "Patient with pelvic pains: retroperitoneal fibrosis or pelvic endometriosis? A case report and review of literature.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To describe how a hydronephrosis can lead to a difficult differential diagnosis between endometriosis and retroperitoneal fibrosis. Case report. Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology, Sacro Cuore Don Calabria General Hospital, Negrar, Verona, Italy. The history of a 34-year-old woman revealed the appearance of hydroureteronephrosis on the right side at the 35th week of pregnancy. She had an magnetic resonance imaging scan and was diagnosed with a spread retroperitoneal fibrosis. After 2 months, the patient reported the occurrence of pelvic pain, dyspareunia and dysmenorrhea. She was treated with corticosteroids and tamoxifen with no results. Laparoscopic surgery. A complete retroperitoneal extirpation was done of an endometriotic nodule of the right broad ligament, near the right ureter (without stenosis). Reduction of pelvic pain. She noticed an important decrease of pain. The cause of hydronephrosis could be a physiologic hydroureteronephrosis, which is the most common cause of dilatation of the urinary tract in pregnancy. The pain symptoms of the patients seemed to be linked to endometriosis and not to retroperitoneal fibrosis. Magnetic resonance imaging sometimes does not enable a correct diagnosis between these two pathologies. Fertile women with suspected fibrosis should undergo a diagnostic laparoscopy by an expert surgeon in retroperitoneal surgery." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_2446", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Pelvic congestion affects women of reproductive age. Typical symptoms include bilateral lower abdominal and back pain that is increased with standing for long periods, secondary dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, abnormal uterine bleeding, chronic fatigue, and irritable bowel symptoms (97). Pain usually begins with ovulation and lasts until the end of menses. The uterus is often bulky, and the ovaries are enlarged with multiple functional cysts. The uterus, parametria, and uterosacral ligaments are tender. Transuterine venography is the primary method for diagnosis, although other modalities, such as pelvic ultrasound, magnetic resonance imaging, and laparoscopy, may disclose varicosities (93). Because of the cost and possible side effects of treatment, further management should be based on related symptoms and not simply on the presence of varicosities." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1027_22858", "title": "Questioning a Previous Autism Spectrum Disorder Diagnosis: Can You \"Lose\" the Diagnosis?", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Heidi is an almost 6-year-old girl presenting to your primary care office to establish care because of a change in insurance status. You review her previous medical records before seeing her.She was diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) when she was 25 months old. Her parents were initially concerned about language delay. Through a comprehensive evaluation by a developmental-behavioral pediatrician and a child psychologist, including administration of the Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development and the Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule, she was diagnosed with ASD. Her cognitive skills were reported to be within the average range. Soon after the diagnosis, she began receiving 20 hours of applied behavioral analysis (ABA) per week, as well as music therapy, occupational therapy, and a toddler playgroup through early intervention. Four months after the initial diagnosis, her parents reported that she had started making small improvements in her behavior, used more eye contact, and seemed more socially engaged. Approximately 1 year after the diagnosis, she was receiving 6 hours of ABA per week in addition to starting preschool with an Individualized Education Program. She reportedly continued to show progress with social communication and pretend play skills.At the age of 3 years, 8 months, neuropsychological testing was completed at her parent's request, and her cognitive skills and adaptive skills were reported to be within the average range. She continued to meet the diagnostic criteria for ASD, given her challenges with social awareness, communication, delayed play skills, decreased flexibility, and tendency toward subtle self-direction. She continued to receive speech/language therapy and attended an integrated preschool program within the school district because of her social and communication challenges. She also received ABA 4 hours weekly at home.During your first visit with Heidi, her parents report that she has continued to make progress in all areas, including social skills. She can engage in imaginary play with her friends, ask strangers questions, and comprehend the perspective of others, and she is no longer \"rigid.\" She is not receiving services outside of school and is only receiving once weekly speech/language therapy in school. Her parents no longer believe that she meets the criteria for ASD, and they are interested in further evaluation. Her parents ask if it is possible to \"lose\" the diagnosis of ASD. They also want to know if there are other things to be concerned about for her future. How do you respond?" }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_61", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Finally, before dismissing the symptom under study, inquire about other symptoms that might reasonably be expected under the clinical circumstances of the case. Symptoms specifically sought but denied are known as negative symptoms. These negative symptoms may confirm or rule out diagnostic possibilities suggested by the positive symptoms. 3. The data secured by the techniques described in the first two phases of the interview should now suggest several diagnostic possibilities. Test these possibilities further by inquiring about other symptoms or events that may form part of the natural history of the suspected disease or group of diseases. 4." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0557_533", "title": "Delayed diagnosis of partially obstructed longitudinal vaginal septa.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To report delayed diagnosis in two cases because of subtle manifestations of partially obstructive müllerian anomalies. Case report. Academic medical center. The first case is a 30-year-old woman who was seen initially with irregular vaginal bleeding, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. On physical examination she was noted to have an anterior vaginal mass with a fistulous tract adjacent to the cervix. Blood and mucus issued from the fistulous tract when the anterior blade of the speculum compressed the vaginal mass. In case 2 a 40-year-old nulligravida was seen with infertility and mild dysmenorrhea. Her history was significant for a Strassman's metroplasty. On examination she was noted to have a bulging at the apex of the vagina adjacent to the cervix. Transvaginal ultrasound, fistulogram, hysterosalpingogram, resection of the longitudinal vaginal septa, and cycle day 3 FSH. Symptoms. In case 1 the subject had resolution of irregular vaginal bleeding, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. In case 2 the patient declined to pursue further therapy. Common gynecologic symptoms resulted from partially obstructed vaginal septa. These cases demonstrate the importance of a high index of suspicion in subjects who do not respond to standard therapies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1081_12192", "title": "Critical Role of 3D ultrasound in the diagnosis and management of Robert's uterus: a single-centre case series and a review.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A septate uterus with a non-communicating hemicavity was first described by Robert in 1969/70 as a specific malformation of the uterus. The condition is commonly associated with a blind uterine hemicavity, unilateral haematometra, a contralateral unicornuate uterine cavity and a normal external uterine fundus. The main symptoms are repetitive attacks of pain at four-weekly intervals around menarche, repeated dysmenorrhea, recurrent pregnancy loss and infertility. In this report, we review the disease, its diagnosis and treatment, and describe five cases of Robert's uterus. Three dimensional (3D) ultrasound (US) imaging was performed by the transvaginal route in four cases. In the fifth case of a 13-year-old girl, we avoided the vaginal route and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and 3D transrectal US yielded the correct diagnosis. The following treatment procedures were undertaken: laparoscopic endometrectomy, hysteroscopic septum resection, laparoscopic uterine hemicavity resection and total laparoscopic hysterectomy (TLH). The diagnosis and optimum treatment of Robert's uterus remains difficult for clinicians because of its rarity. A detailed and careful assessment by 3D US should be performed, followed by hysteroscopy in combination with laparoscopy, to confirm the diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1128_74", "title": "Ultrasound-Guided Transvaginal Aspiration and Sclerotherapy for Uterine Cystic Adenomyosis: Case Report and Literature Review.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Uterine cystic adenomyosis is a very rare type of adenomyosis which can be easily misdiagnosed in clinical practice. In the past, cases have been mostly treated with surgical resection of the uterine lesion. We report the case of a 25-year-old woman who presented with severe dysmenorrhea for more than 1 year. Physical examination showed that the uterus was enlarged. The transvaginal ultrasound showed a cystic mass of about 5.0 × 3.6 × 3.6 cm in the posterior myometrium, with dense echo spots and no blood flow signal in the cystic part. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) indicated hemorrhages within the cystic mass, suggesting the possibility of uterine cystic adenomyosis. The lower abdominal pain and severe dysmenorrhea were not alleviated after a 6-month trial of oral contraceptives. Subsequently, she underwent ultrasound-guided transvaginal aspiration and sclerotherapy for uterine cystic adenomyosis. Approximately 90 mL of chocolate-colored fluid was aspirated from the mass and 20 mL of lauromacrogol was injected in the cyst. The reduction rates of the mass 3 and 12 months after the procedure were 92.01 and 99.10%, respectively. Her dysmenorrhea completely resolved. One and half year after the operation, she had a successful pregnancy and gave birth to a healthy baby through vagina. The rare entity of uterine cystic adenomyosis can be treated safely and effectively by ultrasound-guided transvaginal aspiration and sclerotherapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0509_1593", "title": "Endometriosis is not only a gynecologic disease.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The efficacy of medical and surgical treatment of endometriosis and pelvic pain is a source of questions and controversies. Complete resolution of endometriosis is not yet possible but therapy has essentially three main objectives: 1) to reduce pain; 2) to increase the possibility of pregnancy; 3) to delay recurrence for as long as possible. In case of moderate and severe endometriosis, operative laparoscopy must be considered as first line treatment. The mean pregnancy rate of 50% reported in the literature following surgery provides scientific proof that operative treatment should first be undertaken to give our patients the best chance of conceiving naturally. In case of rectovaginal adenomyotic nodules, surgery must also be considered as first line therapy, medical therapy being relatively inefficacious. Careful preoperative examination is mandatory (transrectal sonography, magnetic resonance imaging, bowel barium enema or intravenous pyelography) to evaluate potentially severe complications of the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0828_23796", "title": "Laparoscopic Double Discoid Resection With a Circular Stapler for Bowel Endometriosis.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To demonstrate the technique of laparoscopic double discoid resection with a circular stapler for bowel endometriosis. Case report (Canadian Task Force classification III). Private hospital in Curitiba, Paraná, Brazil. A 33-year-old woman was referred to our service complaining about cyclic dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, chronic pelvic pain, and cyclic dyschezia. Transvaginal ultrasound with bowel preparation showed a 6-cm endometriotic nodule at the retrocervical area, uterosacral ligaments, posterior vaginal fornix, and anterior rectal wall, infiltrating up to the submucosa, 5 cm far from the anal verge. Under general anesthesia, the patient was placed in the dorsal decubitus position with her arms alongside her body and her lower limbs in abduction. Pneumoperitoneum was achieved using a Veres needle placed at the umbilicus. Four trocars were placed: a 10-mm trocar at the umbilicus for the zero-degree laparoscope; a 5-mm trocar at the right anterosuperior iliac spine; a 5-mm trocar in the midline between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis, approximately 8 to 10 cm inferior to the umbilical trocar; and a 5-mm trocar at the left anterosuperior iliac spine. The entire pelvis was inspected for endometriotic lesions, and all implants in the anterior compartment of the pelvis were resected. The lesions located at the ovarian fossae were completely removed. The ureters were identified bilaterally, and both para-rectal fossae were dissected. The right hypogastric nerve was released from the disease laterally. The lesion was separated from the retrocervical area, and the posterior vaginal fornix was resected (reverse technique), leaving the disease attached to the anterior surface of the rectum. The lesion was shaved off the anterior rectal wall using a harmonic scalpel. A x-shaped stitch was placed at the anterior rectal wall using 2-0 mononylon suture. A 33-mm circular stapler was placed transanally under laparoscopic control, and once it reached the area to be resected, it was opened. A gap was created between the envil and the stapler. The anterior rectal wall was placed inside this gap with the aid of the stitch at the anterior rectal wall. The stapler was fired, and a piece of the anterior rectal wall was resected. The same procedure was performed using a 29-mm circular stapler, which allowed for the complete removal of the lesion. We usually perform the second discoid resection using a 29-mm circular stapler to allow an easy progression of the stapler through the rectum beyond the first stapler line, so not to put too much pressure on it. In our experience, the first discoid resection removes most of the disease, and the second discoid resection is only needed to remove a small amount of residual disease, along with the first staple line. The procedure took 177 min, and the estimated blood loss was 100 mL. The patient started clear liquids 6 hours after the procedure, and was discharged 19 hours after that [1]. Pathological examination of the 2 strips of the anterior rectal wall revealed infiltration of the bowel wall by endometriotic tissue. She had an uneventful postoperative course, and was able to re-start sexual intercourse 50 days after surgery. Between January 2010 and January 2015, 315 women underwent laparoscopic surgery for the treatment of bowel endometriosis in our service. Among them, 16 (5.1%) were operated on by using the double discoid resection technique. Median age of the patients was 34 years, and median body mass index was 25.9 kg/m(2). Median preoperative cancer antigen-125 level was 26.5 U/mL (normal value is &lt;35 U/mL). Median size of the rectosigmoid nodule was 35 mm (range: 30-60), and median distance from the anal verge was 10.5 cm (range: 5-15 cm). Median surgical time was 160 min (range: 54-210 min). Concomitant procedures included hysterectyomy (n = 5), partial cystectomy (n = 3), resection of the posterior vaginal fornix (n = 4), and appendectomy (n = 1). Median estimated intraoperative bleeding was 32.5 mL (range: 30-100), and median time of hospitalization was 19 hours (range: 10-41). Median American Fertility Society score was 46 (10-102). Two minor complications (12.5%) occurred in this initial series: 1 patient required bladder catheterization for urinary retention; and 1 patient developed a urinary tract infection that required oral antibiotic treatment. One major complication (6.2%) was observed; the patient developed fever and abdominal pain on the fourth postoperative day. She was re-operated, and the intraoperative diagnosis was pelviperitonitis. The abdominal cavity was inspected for any dehiscence of the bowel and then washed. She was discharged on the second day after re-operation with oral antibiotic therapy. In our daily practice, we are used to discharging our patients soon in the postoperative setting (19 hours for rectal shaving or discoid resection and 28 hours for segmental bowel resection) [1] because the rate of postoperative fistula seems to be low [2]. Because we still have not seen any fistulas after conservative surgery (rectal shaving, discoid resection, and double discoid resection), we usually prefer to perform this type of surgery compared with segmental bowel resection, when possible. Laparoscopic double discoid resection with circular stapler may be an alternative to segmental bowel resection in selected patients with bowel endometriosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0553_4116", "title": "Surgery for gastrointestinal endometriosis: indications and results.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Although gastrointestinal endometriosis is an uncommon and often unexpected finding, the best treatment requires removal of all endometriotic lesions. The purpose of our study was to report our experience with the diagnosis and treatment of bowel endometriosis. From January 1997 to January 2004, 13 patients (mean 35.7y ; range 21-55y) were operated for bowel endometriosis. We noted: age, history of endometriosis, previous pregnancies, preoperative investigations and symptoms, operative procedure and intraoperative findings. Follow-up varied between one month postoperative examination and seven years. Presenting symptoms of the cases were: acute appendicitis (3), dysmenorrhoea (7), constipation (6), pelvic pain (2), rectal bleeding (3) and dyspareunia (2). Operative management was performed in accordance with the anatomical distribution. Seven patients had a history of previous operations and multifocal involvement was present in 61.5% of cases. At a median follow-up of 12.2 months, 83.3% had complete relief of their initial complaints, with only one reoperation needed. The pregnancy rate after surgery was 66.6%. Preoperative tests were: ultrasound for ovarian endometriomas, coloscopy, barium enema, vaginal palpation for detecting rectovaginal involvement, MRI and CT scan. These tests predicted the extension of endometriotic process correctly in 50% of the cases. Endometriosis of the sigmoid and rectum is rare but can give rise to severe gastrointestinal and pelvic symptoms. Preoperative investigations are not infallible in predicting the extent of the disease, sometimes placing the surgeon before a dilemma, because it involves mostly young women in the reproductive phase of life. The colorectal surgeon, therefore, should seek the advice of an experienced gynaecologist and vice versa. Removal of all endometriotic lesions is mandatory for obtaining an optimal relief of symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1009_364", "title": "Herlyn-Werner-Wunderlich syndrome presenting with dysmenorrhea: a case report.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Herlyn-Werner-Wunderlich syndrome is a rare congenital anomaly characterized by uterus didelphys, obstructed hemivagina, and ipsilateral renal agenesis. The most common presentation is abdominal pain, dysmenorrhea, and abdominal mass secondary to hematocolpos. We present the first case report on Herlyn-Werner-Wunderlich syndrome from Bangladesh. A 15-year-old Asian girl presented with lower abdominal pain of 3 months' duration. She had had menarche 3 months earlier and had a regular menstrual cycle with cyclical abdominal pain. Abdominal examination found a tender mass on the right iliac fossa. Further evaluation with ultrasound revealed distended endometrial cavity filled with complex fluid and nonvisualization of the right kidney. Pelvic magnetic resonance imaging showed absent right kidney and two separate endometrial stripes surrounded by endometrium and a muscular layer. The right endometrial cavity and cervix were distended with blood. This magnetic resonance imaging finding is consistent with Herlyn-Werner-Wunderlich syndrome with uterine didelphyis, right-sided hematometra resulting from obstructed hemivagina, and ipsilateral agenesis of the right kidney. The vaginal septum was resected for vaginoplasty. She was discharged 5 days after surgery and came for follow-up after 7 days. Vaginal examination revealed a healthy wound with no adhesion of the vaginal wall. She also informed us that she had started regular menstruation without any pain 30 days after the operation. An unusual presentation of regular menstruation and nonspecific abdominal pain delays the diagnosis, which can lead to complications such as endometriosis and infertility. Awareness is required; otherwise, misdiagnosis clearly can occur." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_57", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Table 1.5 Technique of Taking the History of the Present Illness 1. The technique used in taking the history of the present illness varies with the patient, the patient’s problem, and the physician. Allow the patient to talk about her chief symptom. Although this symptom may or may not represent the real problem (depending on subsequent evaluation), it is usually uppermost in the patient’s mind and most often constitutes the basis for the visit to the physician. During the phase of the interview, establish the temporal relation of the chief symptom to the total duration of the illness. Questions such as, “Then up to the time of this symptom, you felt perfectly well?” may elicit other symptoms that may antedate the chief one by days, months, or years. In this manner, the patient may recall the date of the first appearance of illness. Encourage the patient to talk freely and spontaneously about her illness from the established date of onset. Do not interrupt the patient’s account," }, { "id": "pubmed23n0623_896", "title": "Transvaginal-laparoscopic anterior rectum resection in a hysterectomized woman with deep-infiltrating endometriosis: Description of a gynecologic natural orifice transendoluminal surgery approach.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Deep-infiltrating endometriosis may affect the vagina, the rectum, and the cervicoisthmic part of the uterus, resulting in severe pain, particularly dyschezia, dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and diminished quality of life. Advanced surgical techniques, such as laparoscopic-assisted anterior rectum resection, are recognized as safe and effective therapeutic approaches. In some cases, a laparotomy or minilaparotomy has to be performed for technical reasons. This can be avoided in some cases by transvaginal-laparoscopic low anterior rectum resection. The technique is a 4-step procedure, which can be described as follows: step 1 (vaginal) - rectovaginal examination, preparation of the rectovaginal septum, opening of the pouch of Douglas, mobilization of the endometriotic nodule and the rectum, temporary vaginal closure; step 2 (laparoscopic) - removal of additional endometriotic lesions, adhesiolysis, final mobilization of the rectum, mobilization of the rectosigmoid, endoscopic resection using an endoscopic stapler step 3 (vaginal) - transvaginal resection of the lesion, preparation of the oral anvil, closure of the vagina; and step 4 (laparoscopic) - endoscopic transanal stapler anastomosis and underwater rectoscopy, prophylaxis of adhesions, drainage. We used this procedure to treat a 46-year-old woman (gravida 2, para 2) who was admitted to our hospital for severe lower abdominal pain, constipation, dyspareunia, dyschezia, and cyclic rectal bleedings. The symptoms were caused by an endometriotic nodule accompanied by a palpable rectum stenosis. In addition, she reported a past abdominal hysterectomy with complications caused by symptomatic myomatous uterus. As a gynecologic natural orifice surgery approach, the transvaginal-laparoscopic anterior rectum resection may be an additional useful surgical technique that could be offered by surgical gynecologists to some women with deep-infiltrating endometriosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0046_23599", "title": "Diagnosis of acute pelvic pain.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The diagnosis of acute pelvic pain in the woman of reproductive age represents a major clinical challenge. In approaching such a patient, the clinician must differentiate between pregnancy-related causes, gynecologic disorders, and nonreproductive tract causes. A careful history and physical examination, along with selective and knowledgeable use of diagnostic tests and procedures, are essential to the diagnostic process. Diagnostic laparoscopy represents the reference standard for diagnosis of many of its possible causes and can obviate the need for exploratory laparotomy. Once competing diagnoses have been adequately excluded, an empiric trial of antibiotic therapy for acute pelvic inflammatory disease, coupled with close clinical follow-up, should be considered in patients with acute pelvic pain found to have cervical motion tenderness and bilateral adnexal tenderness on examination." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1109_8001", "title": "Disorders, Disabilities, and Differences: Reconciling the Medical Model with a Neurodiversity Perspective.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Zoe is a 25-month-old girl who presented to developmental-behavioral pediatrics with her parents for follow-up after receiving a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder with global developmental delay and language impairment 3 months ago. Zoe was born by spontaneous vaginal delivery at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy, labor, and delivery. She had a routine newborn course and was discharged home with her parents 2 days after her birth.At 7 months, Zoe was not able to sit independently, had poor weight gain, and had hypertonia on physical examination. Her parents described her to tense her arms and have hand tremors when she held her bottle during feedings and reported that she had resisted their attempts to introduce pureed or other age-appropriate table foods into her diet. The Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development Screening Test was administered and found a cognitive composite score of 70, language composite score of 65, and motor composite score of 67. Chromosomal microarray analysis, testing for fragile X syndrome, laboratory studies for metabolic disorders, magnetic resonance imaging of the brain, and an audiologic examination were normal. Zoe was referred to and received early intervention services including physical therapy, feeding therapy, and infant stimulation services. By 16 months, Zoe was walking independently and was gaining weight well but continued to have sensory aversions to some foods.At 22 months, Zoe was evaluated by a multidisciplinary team because of ongoing developmental concerns and concerning results on standardized screening for autism spectrum disorder completed at her 18-month preventive care visit. Her parents also reported concern about the possibility of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) because they both were diagnosed with ASD as young children. Both parents completed college and were employed full-time. Zoe's mother seemed to be somewhat anxious during the visit and provided fleeting eye contact throughout the evaluation. Zoe's father was assertive, but polite, and was the primary historian regarding parental concerns during the evaluation.Zoe was noted to have occasional hand flapping and squealing vocalizations while she roamed the examination area grabbing various objects and casting them to the floor while watching the trajectory of their movements. She did not use a single-finger point to indicate her wants or needs and did not initiate or follow joint attention. She met criteria for ASD. In discussing the diagnosis with Zoe's parents, they shared that they were not surprised by the diagnosis. They expressed feeling that Zoe was social and playful, although delayed in her language. Hence, they were more concerned about her disinterest in eating. They were not keen on behavioral intervention because they did not want Zoe to be \"trained to be neurotypical.\" Although the mother did not receive applied behavior analysis (ABA), the father had received ABA for 3 years beginning at age 5 years. He believed that ABA negatively changed his personality, and he did not want the same for Zoe.How would you assist Zoe's parents in identification of priorities for her developmental care while ensuring respect for their perspective of neurodiversity?" }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_60", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "2. Because all available data regarding the symptoms are usually not elicited by the aforementioned techniques, the initial phase of the interview should be followed by a series of direct and detailed questions concerning the symptoms described by the patient. Place each symptom in its proper chronologic order and then evaluate each in accordance with the directions for analyzing a symptom. In asking direct questions about the details of a symptom, take care not to suggest the nature of the answer. This particularly refers to questions that may be answered “yes” or “no.” If a leading question should be submitted to the patient, the answer must be assessed with great care. Subject the patient to repeated cross-examination until you are completely satisfied that the answer is not given just to oblige you." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_4503", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Imaging Tests The role of imaging techniques in studying female urinary incontinence is not yet established. Researchers are evaluating the potential roles of ultrasonography, fluoroscopy, functional neuroimaging, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). These tests should not be done routinely but are useful in certain conditions. If the patient’s symptoms (easily remembered by the three Ds: dysuria, dribbling, and dyspareunia) or examination suggests a urethral diverticulum, MRI is the test of choice (44)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1035_3786", "title": "Peritoneal Retraction Pocket Defects and Their Important Relationship with Pelvic Pain and Endometriosis.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "The objective of this video is to demonstrate different clinical presentations of peritoneal defects (peritoneal retraction pockets) and their anatomic relationships with the pelvic innervation, justifying the occurrence of some neurologic symptoms in association with these diseases. Surgical demonstration of complete excision of different types of peritoneal retraction pockets and a comparison with a laparoscopic retroperitoneal cadaveric dissection of the pelvic innervation. Private hospital in Curitiba, Paraná, Brazil. A pelvic peritoneal pocket is a retraction defect in the surface of the peritoneum of variable size and shapes [1]. The origin of defects in the pelvic peritoneum is still unknown [2]. It has been postulated that it is the result of peritoneal irritation or invasion by endometriosis, with resultant scarring and retraction of the peritoneum [3,4]. It has also been suggested that a retraction pocket may be a cause of endometriosis, where the disease presumably settles in a previously altered peritoneal surface [5]. These defects are shown in many studies to be associated with pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and secondary dysmenorrhea [1-4]. Some studies have shown that the excision of these peritoneal defect improves pain symptoms and quality of life [5]. It is important to recognize peritoneal pockets as a potential manifestation of endometriosis because in some cases, the only evidence of endometriosis may be the presence of these peritoneal defects [6]. In this video, we demonstrate different types of peritoneal pockets and their close relationship with pelvic anatomic structures. Case 1 is a 29-year-old woman, gravida 0, with severe dysmenorrhea and catamenial bowel symptoms (bowel distension and diarrhea/constipation) that were unresponsive to medical treatment. Imaging studies were reported as normal, and a laparoscopy showed a posterior cul-de-sac peritoneal pocket infiltrating the pararectal fossa, with extension to the lateral border of the rectum. Case 2 is a cadaveric dissection of a posterior cul-de-sac peritoneal pocket infiltrating the pararectal fossa, with extension to the pelvic sidewall. After dissection of the obturator fossa, we can observe that the pocket is close to the sacrospinous ligament, pudendal nerve, and some sacral roots. Case 3 is a 31-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, with severe dysmenorrhea that was unresponsive to medical treatment and catamenial bowel symptoms (catamenial bowel distention and diarrhea). Imaging studies were reported as normal and a laparoscopy showed left uterosacral peritoneal pocket infiltrating the pararectal fossa in close proximity to the rectal wall. Case 4 is a cadaveric dissection of the ovarian fossa and the obturator fossa showing the proximity between these structures. Case 5 is a 35-year-old woman, gravida 0, with severe dysmenorrhea that was unresponsive to medical treatment, referring difficulty, and pain when walking only during menstruation. A neurologic physical examination revealed weakness in thigh adduction, and the magnetic resonance imaging showed no signs of endometriosis. During laparoscopy, we found a peritoneal pocket infiltrating the ovarian fossa, with involvement in the area between the umbilical ligament and the uterine artery. This type of pocket can easily reach the obturator nerve. Because the obturator nerve and its branches supply the muscle and skin of the medial thigh [7,8], patients may present with thigh adduction weakness or difficulty ambulating [9,10]. Case 6 is a cadaveric dissection of the sacrospinous ligament and the pudendal nerve from a medial approach, between the umbilical artery and the iliac vessels. Case 7 is a 34-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, with severe dysmenorrhea and catamenial bowel symptoms as well as deep dyspareunia. The transvaginal ultrasound showed focal adenomyosis and a 2-cm nodule, 9-cm apart from the anal verge, affecting 30% of the bowel circumference. In the laparoscopy, we found a posterior cul-de-sac retraction pocket associated with a large deep endometriosis nodule affecting the vagina and the rectum. In all cases, endometriosis was confirmed by histopathology, and in a 6-month follow-up, all patients showed improvement of bowel, pain, and neurologic symptoms. Peritoneal pockets can have different clinical presentations. Depending on the topography and deepness of infiltration, they can be the cause of some neurologic symptoms associated with endometriosis pain. With this video, we try to encourage surgeons to totally excise these lesions and raise awareness about the adjacent key anatomic structures that can be affected." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_4855", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Table 28.4 Irritable Bowel Syndrome Recurrent abdominal pain or discomfortb at least 3 days per month in the last 3 months associated with two or more of the following: 1. Improved with defecation 2. Onset associated with a change in frequency of stool 3. Onset associated with a change in form (appearance) of stool a Criterion fulfilled for the last 3 months with symptom onset at least 6 months prior to diagnosis. b“Discomfort” means an uncomfortable sensation not described as pain. In pathophysiology research and clinical trials, a pain/discomfort frequency of at least 2 days a week during the screening evaluation is recommended for subject eligibility. From Drossman DA, Corazziari E, Talley NJ, et al., eds. Rome III: the functional gastrointestinal disorders. 3nd ed. McLean, VA: Degnon Associates, 2006:885–897, Appendix A, with permission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0936_1388", "title": "A case report of Tubo-ovarian abscess caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Melioidosis, the disease caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei is endemic in the Northeastern part of Thailand, South-East Asia, and Northern Australia. The pelvic involvement of disease is rare even in an endemic area. Therefore, we describe in this report the clinical presentation, management, and outcome of the patient with primary tubo-ovarian abscess due to melioidosis. A 31-year-old Thai cassava farmer woman presented with fever and abdominal pain at left lower quadrant for one month. She also had pain, swelling, and redness of the genitalia without any ulcer. She had odorless whitish vaginal discharge. The pelvic examination revealed excitation pain on the left side of her cervix. Transvaginal ultrasonography revealed a large left tubo-ovarian abscess size 9.4 × 4.8 cm located at anterior of the uterus. Urgent exploratory laparotomy revealed left hydrosalpinx with a large amount of pus. The pus culture grew Burkholderia pseudomallei. The computer tomography of the abdomen revealed multiple hepatosplenic abscesses. The patient underwent left salpingo-oophorectomy and pus drainage. The pathological examination of excised left adnexa revealed chronic and acute suppurative inflammation with necrotic tissue. She was given intravenous ceftazidime for one month, and her clinical symptom improved. She was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus at this visit and treated with insulin injection. She continued to take oral co-trimoxazole for 20 weeks. The final diagnosis was disseminated melioidosis with left tubo-ovarian abscess and hepatosplenic abscesses in a newly diagnosed morbidly obese diabetic patient. Burkholderia pseudomallei should be considered as the causative organism of gynecologic infection among patient with risk factor resided in an endemic area who do not respond to standard antibiotics. The pus culture from the site of infection is the only diagnostic method of pelvic melioidosis, appropriate antibiotics, and adequate surgical drainage were the components of the successful outcome." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 131 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 22 ] ], "text": "The most likely cause is a digitalis intoxication, which would produce this slowing of conduction, which is seen in the heart rate." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Progression of Alzheimer's disease.", "2": "Worsening depression.", "3": "Digitalis intoxication.", "4": "Dementia due to Lewy bodies.", "5": "Ibuprofen toxicity." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0973_23808", "title": "Paraneoplastic Encephalopathy in a Patient With Metastatic Lung Cancer: A Case Study.", "score": 0.01595873786407767, "content": "<bCASE STUDY</b RS, a 36-year-old female, presented to the emergency department (ED) of a large academic medical center upon the advice of her primary care provider because of 3 weeks of progressive mental status changes, weakness, and decreased oral intake. According to her husband, RS was diagnosed with stage IIIA large cell lung cancer 8 months earlier and was treated with concurrent chemotherapy (carboplatin, pemetrexed, and bevacizumab) and radiation therapy that was completed 4 months prior to admission. No other specific information about her treatment or outside health records was available. According to her husband, RS had been in her usual state of health until approximately 3 weeks prior, when she began having significant mental status changes. She first exhibited some difficulty finding words and later was noted to be putting food in a coffee maker. This spontaneously resolved after approximately 1 week; however, she rapidly developed slurred speech and began to make nonsensical statements. These manifestations also slowly improved but were followed by worsening speech deficit, difficulty walking, and impaired balance. During one of these episodes, she had an occurrence of incontinence. Her husband also noted an incident where her \"eyes were beating back and forth and the left side of her face was twitching.\" RS also had periods (according to her husband) where she \"did not seem to be interacting with her environment.\" These progressively worsened during the last week, and she completely stopped walking and talking 2 days prior to coming to the ED. According to her husband, RS had rheumatoid arthritis and no surgical history. Her family history was unknown except that RS's mother had \"seizures.\" RS had reportedly not used tobacco, alcohol, or drugs, and she was sexually active with her husband. Home medications included transdermal fentanyl 12 μg/hr patch changed every 72 hours; oxycodone-acetaminophen tablets 5-325 mg, two every 4 hours as needed for pain; prednisone 10 mg, one tablet daily; and megestrol 40 mg/mL suspension, 20 mL once daily for appetite stimulation. RS was admitted to an inpatient medical oncology service and evaluated by the oncology advanced practitioner (AP) on her second inpatient day. Upon exam, RS was nonverbal except for moaning in response to painful stimuli and to her sister's voice. Her vital signs were normal. She appeared ill but well-nourished, and she was mildly diaphoretic. Neurologic examination revealed that her pupils were slightly sluggish but equal, round, and reactive to light. Extraocular muscle movements were intact, but she did not move her eyes in response to commands. She tracked the AP and family members around the room with her eyes. Cranial nerve examination was intact with the exception of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI, which were difficult to examine given her inability to cooperate and open her mouth. Motor examination revealed increased tone throughout and intermittent, inconsistent resistance to passive movement. She was seen to move all four extremities spontaneously although not in response to commands. Deep tendon reflexes were intact and equal in all extremities. Examination of other body systems was as follows: there was dry, peeling skin on her lips, but her mucous membranes were moist and free of erythema or lesions. Her lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her heart rate and rhythm were regular, there were no murmurs, rubs, or gallops, and distal pulses were intact. Her abdomen was nondistended with normally active bowel sounds in all four quadrants. Her abdomen was soft, nontender to palpation, and without palpable masses. There was no peripheral discoloration, temperature changes, or edema, and examination of her skin was benign. <bWorkup</b On admission to the emergency department, serum laboratory studies were unrevealing for any potential causes of encephalopathy. Kidney and liver function were normal, making diagnoses of uremic and hepatic encephalopathies less likely. Cultures of the urine and blood were negative. Samples of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) were obtained via lumbar puncture and were unrevealing for any abnormalities. Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast was negative for any acute intracranial process. Ultrasound of the right upper quadrant revealed a single, nonspecific, hypoechoic hepatic lesion. Computed tomography scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis demonstrated the primary malignancy in the upper lobe of the left lung, as well as possible metastatic disease within the left lung, right lung, and liver, and widespread osseous metastatic disease. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain performed 1 day after admission demonstrated numerous scattered punctate foci of enhancement throughout the supratentorial and infratentorial brain parenchyma, measuring at most 3 to 4 millimeters in diameter. There was no significant mass effect or midline shift. A paraneoplastic panel was sent to an outside laboratory and returned positive for antivoltage-gated potassium channel (VGKC) autoantibodies. <bDifferential Diagnosis</b Clinically, RS was exhibiting signs of encephalopathy, a broad term that indicates general brain dysfunction, the hallmark of which is altered mental status. Diagnosing encephalopathy is challenging, as many differential diagnoses must be considered. The clinician must consider metabolic derangements, toxic and infectious etiologies, psychiatric disorders, and less commonly, prion disorders and progressive dementia. Cultures of RS's blood and urine as well as other specialized endocrine tests were negative, decreasing the likelihood of a metabolic or infectious cause for her presentation. The abnormalities on her brain MRI were reviewed by a neuro-oncology team, who felt that the faint, nondescript nature of the visualized lesions was not suspicious for metastatic disease. Sequelae of seizures was also considered by neuro-oncology but dismissed given a grossly normal prolonged electroencephalogram. Some encephalopathies are caused by autoimmune or inflammatory mechanisms, which are confirmed by the presence of autoantibody markers and/or clear response to immunomodulatory treatment (Vernino, Geschwind, &amp; Boeve, 2007). These types of encephalopathies have been seen in patients with cancer and have thus been termed paraneoplastic. The presence of anti-VGKC antibodies on RS's paraneoplastic panel directed the inpatient medical oncology team toward a paraneoplastic neurologic disorder (PND) as the most likely diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0540_20027", "title": "[Three Japanese cases of hypnic headache].", "score": 0.01443355119825708, "content": "We described three cases of hypnic headache with successful treatment by lithium carbonate or caffeine. This is the first detail report of Japanese cases. An endocrinological test and rhythm analyses of ambulatory blood pressure (ABP) and heart rate variability in a case suggested possible association between hypnic headache and hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction. Case 1: A 48-year-old female migraineur complained of new-onset nocturnal headaches. Her headache awakened her from sleep between 1 AM and 2 AM. The headache occurred 3-4 times per week and lasted from 1 hour to 2 hours. The headache were moderate intensity and bilateral dull throbbing pain that located in the forehead to temples. There was no accompanying symptoms such as nausea, phonophobia, photophobia, nor the other autonomic features including conjunctival injection or tearing during the headache attacks. Physical and neurological examinations showed normal results except slight weakness and mild dysesthesia of the left arm due to a vertebral disk herniation at C5/6 level. In the pituitary endocrinological test, the prolactin level remarkably increased in response to the TRH loading. The single cosinor analysis demonstrated significant circadian rhythm of ABP parameters. However, the analysis did not demonstrate any significant circadian rhythm of Holter ECG parameters of time domain analysis and frequency analysis. Receiving 200 mg lithium bicarbonate before sleep, her nocturnal headache completely disappeared. Case 2: A 68-year-old woman had been followed up by her chronic tension-type headache since her forties. At her 66-years, she suffered from a new nocturnal headache. She awoke from sleep by the headache about 3 AM and the headache lasted 30 min. Moderate, dull headache located on her left temple to parietal head, 3-4 times/week. She was able to go back asleep without any medication after spontaneous headache cessation. She first complained the nocturnal headache at the 10 months later of the new headache appearance. She received 200 mg caffeine just before sleep and her headache has been disappeared. Case 3: 70-year-old women had been regularly visited our clinics for her migraine and chronic tension-type headache. She received amitriptyline and her headaches was well controlled. At her 69 years, she complained nocturnal headache. It occured every other day. The headache was moderate pulsative dull pain on the occipital region and lasted 90 minutes without any autonomic symptoms. Headache began between midnight and 1 AM. She told us her new nocturnal headache one year later of the onset. Oral caffeine (200 mg) just before sleep did not improve her headache and caused insomnia. Receiving 100 mg lithium before sleep, her hypnic headache disappeared completely. These three cases are compatible with the diagnostic criteria proposed in ICHD-II. There were some patients with hypnic headache in Japan and neurologists should pay attentions to this form of benign headache, because some beneficial treatments are currently available." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0325_2840", "title": "[A 64-year-old woman with progressive gait disturbance and dementia for one year].", "score": 0.013860911270983215, "content": "We report a 64-year-old Japanese woman who died one year after the onset of progressive gait disturbance and dementia. She noted a difficulty in holding a glass and hand tremor in June of 1996 when she was 63 years old. In July of 1996, she tended to lean toward left when she walked. She also noted truncal titubation. In November of 1996, she started to have visual hallucination and delusion in which she said \"I see something is flying on the wall.\", \"Somebody has come into my room\", and things like that. She was admitted to our service on November 22, 1996. On admission, she was alert and general physical examination was unremarkable. Neurologic examination revealed disturbance in recent memory. Hasegawa's dementia rating scale was 22/30. She showed vivid visual hallucination with colors in which she saw faces of dwarfs and angels, a space ship, and others. Higher cerebral functions were normal. She showed left oculomotor palsy which was a sequel of an aneurysm and subarachnoid hemorrhage nine years before. Otherwise cranial nerves were unremarkable. She showed ataxic gait, limb ataxia, truncal titubation, and postural hand tremor. She had no weakness and no muscle atrophy. Deep tendon reflexes were within normal limits. Plantar response was flexor. Sensation was intact. Laboratory examination was also unremarkable. Complete survey for occult malignancy was negative. CSF was under a normal pressure and cell count was 1/microliter, total protein 27 mg/dl, and sugar 68 mg/dl. Cranial CT scan was unremarkable. MRI was not obtained because of the presence of an aneurysm clip in the left internal carotid-posterior communication artery junction. She showed progressive deterioration in her mental function. By January 1997, she became unable to stand or walk with marked dementia. Repeated CSF exams and cranial CT scans were unremarkable. She suffered from several episodes of aspiration pneumonia. A trial of three days methylprednisolone pulse therapy was given starting on March 7, 1997, which was of no effect on her neurologic status. On March 28, 1997, she was intubated because of acute respiratory distress syndrome. In April 2, her body temperature rose to 38 degrees C. On April 9, 1997, her blood pressure dropped and resuscitation was unsuccessful. She was pronounced dead on the same day. The patient was discussed in a neurologic CPC and the chief discussant arrived at the conclusion that the patient had primary leptomeningeal lymphoma. Other possibilities entertained among the audience included brain stem encephalitis of unknown type, carcinomatous cerebellar degeneration plus limbic encephalitis, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, thalamic degeneration, and progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. Post-mortem examination revealed thickening and clouding of the leptomeninges; Gram-positive diplococci were found in the leptomeninges. This meningitis appeared to have been an complication in the terminal stage of her illness. Microscopic examination revealed astrocytosis in the midbrain tegmentum. Cerebral cortices showed only mild astrtocytosis. No cerebellar atrophy was seen and Purkinje cells were retained which excluded paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration. Neuropathologic diagnosis was bacterial meningitis, however, the presence of brain stem encephalitis prior to the onset of bacterial meningitis could not be excluded. It is interesting to note that the diagnosis of the primary neurologic disease of this patient was not easy even after autopsy. As autopsy permission was obtained only for the brain, it was not clear whether or not this patient had an occult malignancy somewhere in her body, however, there was no evidence to indicate paraneoplastic degeneration of the central nervous system. As the patient did not have meningeal signs until one month before her death, it is difficult to ascribe her entire neurologic problems to her meningitis. Finally, her visual hallucination was vivid and colorful; we thought this might have been" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0414_11905", "title": "[Catatonia de novo, report on a case: immediate vital prognosis and psychiatric prognosis in longer term].", "score": 0.012962962962962964, "content": "We report on the case of a 20 year old woman with no previous psychiatric history, who displayed a first episode of catatonia with acute onset. Symptoms started plainly with sudden general impairment, intense asthenia, headache, abdominal pain and confusion. After 48 hours, the patient was first admitted to an emergency unit and transferred to an internal medicine ward afterwards. She kept confused. Her behaviour was bizarre with permanent swinging of pelvis, mannerism, answers off the point and increasingly poor. The general clinical examination was normal, except for the presence of a regular tachycardia (120 bpm). The paraclinical investigations also showed normal: biology, EEG, CT Scan, lumbar puncture. Confusion persisted. The patient remained stuporous, with fixed gazing and listening-like attitudes. She managed to eat and move with the help of nurses but remained bedridden. The neurological examination showed hypokinaesia, extended hypotonia, sweating, urinary incontinence, bilateral sharp reflexes with no Babinski's sign and an inexhaustible nasoorbicular reflex. The patient was mute and contrary, actively closed her eyes, but responded occasionally to simple instructions. For short moments, she suddenly engaged in inappropriate behaviors (wandering around) while connecting back to her environment answering the telephone and talking to her parents. The patient's temperature rose twice in the first days but with no specific etiology found. During the first 8 days of hospitalization, an antipsychotic treatment was administered: haloperidol 10 mg per os daily and cyamemazine 37.5 mg i.m. daily. Despite these medications, the patient worsened and was transferred to our psychiatric unit in order to manage this catatonic picture with rapid onset for which no organic etiology was found. On admission, the patient was stuporous, immobile, unresponsive to any instruction, with catalepsy, maintenance of postures, severe negativism and refusal to eat. A first treatment by benzodiazepine (clorazepate 20 mg i.v.) did not lead to any improvement. The organic investigations were completed with cerebral MRI and the ruling out of a Wilson's disease. Convulsive therapy was then decided. It proved dramatically effective from the first attempt; 4 shocks were carried out before the patient's relatives ask for her discharge from hospital. The patient revealed she had experienced low delirium during her catatonic state. The clinical picture that followed showed retardation with anxiety. She was scared with fear both for the other patients and the nursing team. She kept distant and expressed few affects. The treatment at the time of discharge was olanzapine 10 mg per os. She was discharged with a diagnosis of catatonia but with no specific psychiatric etiological diagnosis associated. She discontinued her follow-up a few weeks later. After one year, we had no information about her. Catatonia has now become rare but remains a problem for clinicians. We reviewed data concerning short term vital prognosis and psychiatric long term prognosis in catatonia. Lethal catatonia is associated with acute onset, both marked psychomotor and neurovegetative symptoms. In the light of literature, there is no proband clinical criterion during the episode that is of relevant diagnostic value to ascertain the psychiatric etiology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0768_9623", "title": "[State of dementia due to intermittent acute porphyria: a case report].", "score": 0.010734400267662968, "content": "Porphyrias are rare inherited disorders due to specific enzyme abnormalities of heme biosynthesis. We can classify them as hepatic or erythropoïetic, the type depends on the organ in which the enzyme is deficient. Among the hepatic forms, three of them are clinically characterised by acute abdominal pain and neuropathy, sometimes associated with psychiatric disorders. This 58-year-old woman has been hospitalized frequently since 1995 with depression, apathy, or for suicide attempts. She has a history of alcohol addiction and since 1992 suffers from non-insulin dependant diabetes. She had been treated by benzodiazepines and neuroleptic medication for several years. Psychiatric examination revealed persecution and megalomania delirium associated with a Capgras syndrome, confusion, disorientation, depression and blunted affect. Results of neurologic examination showed reduced deep tendon reflexes, and nerve conduction revealed sensitive neuropathy. Moreover, she lay down, remained non-responsive and resisted care. The whole clinical picture evoked early dementia. Coloured urine was noticed and porphyria tested. When the diagnosis of intermittent acute porphyria was made, she gradually improved by stopping the drugs not indicated for the case, and by treating her diabetes. A few months later, while hospitalized for a similar episode, she choked on her food and died, probably caused by autonomic neuropathy. Our hypothesis was that chronic and debilitating psychopathology may be due to acute intermittent porphyria. Probably, among patients treated for psychiatric illness, some of them may suffer from this enzyme abnormality. Above all, the psychopathology associated with intermittent acute porphyria is polymorphous such as atypical psychosis, schizoaffective disorder, depression, apathetic withdrawal, and in this case report dementia. In like manner, organic manifestations are numerous and varied, leading to erroneous diagnosis. We suspect that patients with porphyria are common among mentally ill subjects. Do we have to test all our psychiatric patients for porphyria? It seems that the prevalence of intermittent acute porphyria in the psychiatric patient population is 0.21%, whereas the prevalence in the normal population is from 0.001 to 0.002%. The early detection of porphyria may diminish morbidity and mortality rates, and perhaps heal some chronic atypical psychiatric illnesses." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0800_14851", "title": "Breathlessness with pulmonary metastases: a multimodal approach.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Case Study  Sarah is a 58-year-old breast cancer survivor, social worker, and health-care administrator at a long-term care facility. She lives with her husband and enjoys gardening and reading. She has two grown children and three grandchildren who live approximately 180 miles away. SECOND CANCER DIAGNOSIS  One morning while showering, Sarah detected a painless quarter-sized lump on her inner thigh. While she thought it was unusual, she felt it would probably go away. One month later, she felt the lump again; she thought that it had grown, so she scheduled a visit with her primary care physician. A CT scan revealed a 6.2-cm soft-tissue mass in the left groin. She was referred to an oncologic surgeon and underwent an excision of the groin mass. Pathology revealed a grade 3 malignant melanoma. She was later tested and found to have BRAF-negative status. Following her recovery from surgery, Sarah was further evaluated with an MRI scan of the brain, which was negative, and a PET scan, which revealed two nodules in the left lung. As Sarah had attended a cancer support group during her breast cancer treatment in the past, she decided to go back to the group when she learned of her melanoma diagnosis. While the treatment options for her lung lesions included interleukin-2, ipilimumab (Yervoy), temozolomide, dacarbazine, a clinical trial, or radiosurgery, Sarah's oncologist felt that ipilimumab or radiosurgery would be the best course of action. She shared with her support group that she was ambivalent about this decision, as she had experienced profound fatigue and nausea with chemotherapy during her past treatment for breast cancer. She eventually opted to undergo stereotactic radiosurgery. DISEASE RECURRENCE  After the radiosurgery, Sarah was followed every 2 months. She complained of shortness of breath about 2 weeks prior to each follow-up visit. Each time her chest x-ray was normal, and she eventually believed that her breathlessness was anxiety-related. Unfortunately, Sarah's 1-year follow-up exam revealed a 2 cm × 3 cm mass in her left lung, for which she had a surgical wedge resection. Her complaints of shortness of breath increased following the surgery and occurred most often with anxiety, heat, and gardening activities, especially when she needed to bend over. Sarah also complained of a burning \"pins and needles\" sensation at the surgical chest wall site that was bothersome and would wake her up at night. Sarah met with the nurse practitioner in the symptom management clinic to discuss her concerns. Upon physical examination, observable signs of breathlessness were lacking, and oxygen saturation remained stable at 94%, but Sarah rated her breathlessness as 7 on the 0 to 10 Borg scale. The nurse practitioner prescribed duloxetine to help manage the surgical site neuropathic pain and to assist with anxiety, which in turn could possibly improve Sarah's breathlessness. Several nonpharmacologic modalities for breathlessness were also recommended: using a fan directed toward her face, working in the garden in the early morning when the weather is cooler, gardening in containers that are at eye level to avoid the need to bend down, and performing relaxation exercises with pursed lip breathing to relieve anxiety-provoked breathlessness. One month later, Sarah reported relief of her anxiety; she stated that the fan directed toward her face helped most when she started to feel \"air hungry.\" She rated her breathlessness at 4/10 on the Borg scale. SECOND RECURRENCE: MULTIPLE PULMONARY NODULES  Sarah's chest x-rays remained clear for 6 months, but she developed a chronic cough shortly before the 9-month exam. An x-ray revealed several bilateral lung lesions and growth in the area of the previously resected lung nodule. Systemic therapy was recommended, and she underwent two cycles of ipilimumab. Sarah's cough and breathlessness worsened, she developed colitis, and she decided to stop therapy after the third cycle. In addition, her coughing spells triggered bronchospasms that resulted in severe anxiety, panic attacks, and air hunger. She rated her breathlessness at 10/10 on the Borg scale during these episodes. She found communication difficult due to the cough and began to isolate herself. She continued to attend the support group weekly but had difficulty participating in conversation due to her cough. Sarah was seen in the symptom management clinic every 2 weeks or more often as needed. No acute distress was present at the beginning of each visit, but when Sarah began to talk about her symptoms and fear of dying, her shortness of breath and anxiety increased. The symptom management nurse practitioner treated the suspected underlying cause of the breathlessness and prescribed oral lorazepam (0.5 to 1 mg every 6 hours) for anxiety and codeine cough syrup for the cough. Opioids were initiated for chest wall pain and to control the breathlessness. Controlled-release oxycodone was started at 10 mg every 12 hours with a breakthrough pain (BTP) dose of 5 mg every 2 hours as needed for breathlessness or pain. Sarah noted improvement in her symptoms and reported a Borg scale rating of 5/10. Oxygen therapy was attempted, but subjective improvement in Sarah's breathlessness was lacking. END OF LIFE  Sarah's disease progressed to the liver, and she began experiencing more notable signs of breathlessness: nasal flaring, tachycardia, and restlessness. Opioid doses were titrated over the course of 3 months to oxycodone (40 mg every 12 hours) with a BTP dose of 10 to 15 mg every 2 hours as needed, but her breathlessness caused significant distress, which she rated 8/10. The oxycodone was rotated to IV morphine continuous infusion with patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) that was delivered through her implantable port. This combination allowed Sarah to depress the PCA as needed and achieve immediate control of her dyspneic episodes. Oral lorazepam was also continued as needed. Sarah's daughter moved home to take care of her mother, and hospice became involved for end-of-life care. As Sarah became less responsive, nurses maintained doses of morphine for control of pain and breathlessness and used a respiratory distress observation scale to assess for breathlessness since Sarah could no longer self-report. A bolus PCA dose of morphine was administered by Sarah's daughter if her mother appeared to be in distress. Sarah died peacefully in her home without signs of distress. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0018_6902", "title": "Digitalis delirium in elderly patients.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Case histories of four elderly patients with central nervous system signs of digitalis toxicity were reviewed. Evidence of toxicity included lethargy, depression which was not present previously, confusion, restlessness, emotional instability, hyperventilation, and vertigo. Vomiting developed four days after the onset of the mental changes. No cardiac arrhythmias were observed. Digoxin serum levels ranged between 4.2 and 7.0 ng/ml. Serum potassium values were within normal limits. Three of the four patients recovered with a return of their mental status to the pretoxic state. The fourth case was fatal. At autopsy long-standing myocardial ischemia was the only significant finding." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0103_11131", "title": "Digitalis for congestive heart disease in the elderly. A family practice view of the efficacy of long-term therapy.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The long-term efficacy of digoxin maintenance therapy must be determined individually for patients with normal sinus rhythm who have a history of congestive heart failure but no remaining signs or symptoms. Predictive factors for successful discontinuation of the agent in the elderly include normal mental status (including absence of depression), ability to adequately perform activities of daily living, general feelings of well-being, absence of multiple organic disease, absence of multiple drug use, and no evidence of existing congestive heart failure or atrial fibrillation. Our findings indicate that physicians and patients need to reexamine the concept that congestive heart failure is necessarily a chronic disease. Certainly, evidence exists that continuing digitalis therapy indefinitely is inappropriate and may be harmful. Further investigation may prove that congestive heart failure in the elderly, like pneumonia, is a common acute occurrence and in many cases not a chronic state for which patients are destined to receive medication indefinitely. We hope that the findings from our small sample will stimulate other investigators to question the indiscriminate long-term use of digitalis in the elderly." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0528_9530", "title": "[Delirium attributed to the use of metoprolol].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 53-year-old man with a known history of alcohol abuse was admitted to hospital after a minor collapse. He had a laceration to the forehead and three rib fractures. Laboratory blood-analysis showed raised non-cholestatic liver-enzyme levels suggesting alcohol-abuse. On history taking the patient was shown to have been suffering from personality changes and multiple hallucinogenic episodes for the previous two years. He had been seen and evaluated by a neurologist to that effect. The patient's family had accepted the situation and thought of it as dementia, probably caused by alcohol abuse. He had been treated for atrial flutter and was taking acenocoumerol, atorvastatin, quinapril and metoprolol 50 mg twice daily as medication. During admission the patient appeared to be suffering from a delirium with complex visual and auditory hallucinations, for which he was given haloperidol. Revision of medication use led to the stopping of metoprolol, which had been started two years earlier. Within 24 hours the delirium had disappeared completely. There was spontaneous fall in the liver enzymes. At his last follow-up, the patient had had no psychiatric symptoms for 6 months. The relationship between stopping metoprolol and the disappearance of the psychosis appeared to be a causal one and this is supported by the limited literature available on this subject." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0876_17161", "title": "Trichotillomania: Bizzare Patern of Hair Loss at 11-Year-old Girl.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Trichotillomania (TTM) is defined by the Diagnostics and Statistic Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition (DMS-IV) as hair loss from a patient`s repetitive self-pulling of hair. The disorder is included under anxiety disorders because it shares some obsessive-compulsive features. Patients have the tendency towards feelings of unattractiveness, body dissatisfaction, and low self-esteem (1,2). It is a major psychiatric problem, but many patients with this disorder first present to a dermatologist. An 11-year-old girl came to our department with a 2-month history of diffuse hair loss on the frontoparietal and parietotemporal area (Figure 1). She had originally been examined by a pediatrician with the diagnosis of alopecia areata. The patient`s personal history included hay fever and shortsightedness, and she suffered from varicella and mononucleosis. Nobody in the family history suffered from alopecia areata, but her father has male androgenetic alopecia (Norwood/Hamilton MAGA C3F3). The mother noticed that the child had had changeable mood for about 2 months and did not want to communicate with other persons in the family. The family did not have any pet at home. At school, her favorite subjects were Math and Computer Studies. She did not like Physical Education and did not participate in any sport activities during her free time. This was very strange because she was obese (body-mass index (BMI) 24.69). She was sometimes angry with her 13-year-old sister who had better results at school. The girl had suddenly started to wear a blue scarf. The parents did not notice that she pulled out her hair at home. Dermatological examination of the capillitium found a zone of incomplete alopecia in the frontoparietal and parietotemporal area, without inflammation, desquamation, and scaring. Hairs were of variable length (Figure 1). There was a patch of incomplete alopecia above the forehead between two stripes of hair of variable length (Figure 2). The hair pull test was negative along the edges of the alopecia. Mycological examination from the skin capillitium was negative. The trichoscopy and skin biopsy of the parietotemporal region of the capillitium (Figure 3) confirmed trichotillomania. Laboratory tests (blood count, iron, ferritin, transferrin, selenium, zinc, vitamin B12, folic acid, serology and hormones of thyroid gland) were negative. We referred the girl for ophthalmologic and psychological examination. Ophthalmologic examination proved that there was no need to add any more diopters. The psychological examination provided us with a picture in which she drew her family (Figure 4). The strongest authority in the family was the mother because she looked after the girls for most of the day. She was in the first place in the picture. The father had longer working hours and spent more time outside the home. He worked as a long vehicle driver. He was in the second place in the picture. There was sibling rivalry between the girls, but the parents did not notice this problem and preferred the older daughter. She was successful at school and was prettier (slim, higher, curly brown hair, without spectacles). Our 11-years-old patient noticed all these differences between them, but at her level of mental development was not able to cope with this problem. She wanted to be her sister's equal. The sister is drawn in the picture in the third place next to father, while the patient's own figure was drawn larger and slim even though she was obese. Notably, all three female figures had very nice long brown hair. It seemed that the mother and our patient had better quality of hair and more intense color than the sister in the drawing. The only hairless person in the picture was the father. The girl did not want to talk about her problems and feelings at home. Then it was confirmed that our patient was very sensitive, anxious, willful, and withdrawn. She was interested in her body and very perceptive of her physical appearance. From the psychological point of view, the parents started to pay more interest to their younger daughter and tried to understand and help her. After consultation with the psychiatrist, we did not start psychopharmacologic therapy for trichotillomania; instead, we started treatment with cognitive behavioral therapy, mild shampoo, mild topical steroids (e.g. hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%) in solution and methionine in capsules. With parents' cooperation, the treatment was successful. The name trichotillomania was first employed by the French dermatologist Francois Henri Hallopeau in 1889, who described a young man pulling his hair out in tufts (3-5). The word is derived from the Greek thrix (hair), tillein (to pull), and mania (madness) (5). The prevalence of TTM in the general adult population ranges from 0.6% to 4%, and 2-4% of the general psychiatric outpatient population meet the criteria for TTM (2-5). The prevalence among children and adolescents has been estimated at less than 1% (5). The disease can occur at any age and in any sex. The age of onset of hair pulling is significantly later for men than for women (3). There are three subsets of age: preschool children, preadolescents to young adults, and adults. The mean age of onset is pre-pubertal. It ranges from 8 to 13 years (on average 11.3 years) (2-5). The occurrence of hair-pulling in the first year of life is a rare event, probably comprising &lt;1% of cases (5). The etiology of TTM is complex and may be triggered by a psychosocial stressor within the family, such as separation from an attachment figure, hospitalization of the child or parent, birth of a younger sibling, sibling rivalry, moving to a new house, or problems with school performance. It has been hypothesized that the habit may begin with \"playing\" with the hair, with later chronic pulling resulting in obvious hair loss (2). Environment is a factor because children usually pull their hair when alone and in relaxed surroundings. The bedroom, bathroom, or family room are \"high-risk\" situations for hair-pulling (5). Men and women also differed in terms of the hair pulling site (men pull hair from the stomach/back and the moustache/beard areas, while women pull from the scalp) (3). Pulling hair from siblings, pets, dolls, and stuffed animals has also been documented, often occurring in the same pattern as in the patient (5). Genetic factors contributing to the development of TTM are mutations of the SLITRK1 gene, which plays a role in cortex development and neuronal growth. The protein SAPAP3 has been present in 4.2% of TTM cases and patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). It may be involved in the development of the spectrum of OCD. A significantly different concordance rate for TTM was found in monozygotic (38.1%) compared with dizygotic (0%) twins in 34 pairs (3). The core diagnostic feature is the repetitive pulling of hairs from one`s own body, resulting in hair loss. The targeted hair is mostly on the scalp (75%), but may also be from the eyebrows (42%), eyelashes (53%), beard (10%), and pubic area (17%) (3,5). There are three subtypes of hair pulling - early onset, automatic, and focused. Diagnostic criteria for TTM according to DSM-IV criteria are (2,3,5): 1) recurrent pulling of one`s hair resulting in noticeable hair loss; 2) an increasing sense of tension immediately prior to pulling out the hair or when attempting to resist the behavior; 3) pleasure, gratification, or relief when pulling out the hair; 4) the disturbance is not better accounted for by another mental disorder and is not due to a general medical condition (e.g., a dermatologic condition); 5) the disturbance causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. The differential diagnosis includes alopecia areata (Table 1) (6), tinea capitis, telogen effluvium, secondary syphilis, traction alopecia, loose anagen syndrome, lichen planopilaris, alopecia mucinosa, and scleroderma (2-5). Biopsy of an involved area (ideally from a recent site of hair loss) can help to confirm the diagnosis (5). On histologic examination, there are typically increased numbers of catagen and telogen hairs without evidence of inflammation. Chronic hair pulling induces a catagen phase, and more hairs will be telogen hairs. Pigment casts and empty anagen follicles are often seen. Perifollicular hemorrhage near the hair bulb is an indicator of TTM (2). Complications of TTM are rare, but they comprise secondary bacterial infections with regional lymphadenopathy as a result of picking and scratching at the scalp. Many patients play with and ingest the pulled hairs (e.g. touching the hair to lips, biting, and chewing). Trichophagia (ingestion of the hair) can lead to a rare complication named trichobezoar (a \"hair ball\" in stomach). This habit is present in approximately 5% to 30% of adult patients, but it is less frequent in children. Patient with trichophagia present with pallor, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and weight loss. Radiologic examination and gastroscopy should not be delayed (2,4,5). The management of the disease is difficult and requires strong cooperation between the physician, patient, and parents. The dermatologist cannot take part in the therapy, strictly speaking, but without the psychological, psychopharmacologic, and topic dermatologic treatment a vicious circle will be perpetuated. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0060_212", "title": "Poisoning in the elderly. Epidemiological, clinical and management considerations.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Poisoning is a significant problem in the elderly. The majority of poisonings in older people are unintentional and may result from dementia and confusion, improper use of the product, improper storage or mistaken identities. Depression is also common in the elderly and suicide attempts are more likely to be successful in this age group. The elderly patient's recuperative abilities may be inadequate as a result of numerous factors including impaired hepatic or renal function as well as chronic disease processes. General management of poisoning in the elderly parallels management of younger adults, but it is especially important to ascertain underlying medical conditions and concurrent medications. In most poisonings, activated charcoal and cathartic are sufficient. Haemodialysis or haemoperfusion may be required at lower plasma drug concentrations in elderly patients. While the specific indications for antidotes are the same for all age groups, dosage alterations and precautions may need to be considered in the elderly. Drugs most often implicated in poisonings in the elderly include psychotherapeutic drugs, cardiovascular drugs, analgesics and anti-inflammatory drugs, oral hypoglycaemics and theophylline. Cardiovascular and neurological toxicities occur with overdoses of neuroleptic drugs and, more frequently and severely, with cyclic antidepressants. Patients with pre-existing cardiovascular disease are at particular risk of worsening ischaemic heart disease and congestive heart failure. Benzodiazepines only appear to produce significant toxicity during long term administration or in combination with other CNS depressants. Digoxin can cause both chronic and acute intoxication, most seriously cardiac toxicity including severe ventricular arrhythmias, second or third degree heart block or severe refractory hyperkalaemia. Immune Fab antibody is indicated for the management of digoxin toxicity, although patients dependent on the inotropic effect of digoxin may develop heart failure after digoxin Fab antibody administration. Nitrates can cause toxicity including headache, vomiting, hypotension and tachycardia from excessive sublingual, transdermal or intravenous doses. Conduction disturbances and hypotension occur with overdoses of antihypertensive drugs; these effects are mild with angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, occasionally severe with beta-blockers and of significant concern with calcium channel antagonists. The elderly commonly use aspirin and other salicylates, are more likely to develop chronic intoxications to these agents, and are more susceptible to severe complications such as pulmonary oedema. Salicylate poisoning, recognition of which is often delayed, should be considered in elderly patients with neurological abnormalities or breathing difficulties, especially in the setting of acid-base abnormalities. The clinical effects of NSAID overdose are mild and usually involve the central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0833_7616", "title": "Intoxication due to Papaver rhoeas (Corn Poppy): Five Case Reports.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Introduction. In this paper, we aimed to present five Papaver rhoeas intoxication cases, which is very rare in the literature. Case 1. A 35-year-old female patient was admitted to our emergency room with the complaints of nausea, restlessness, and dyspnea developing 3 hours after eating Papaver rhoeas. On physical examination, her general condition was moderate; she was conscious and the vital findings were normal. The pupils were myotic. She was transferred to the toxicology intensive care unit as she experienced a generalized tonic clonic seizure lasting for three minutes. Case 2. A 41-year-old female patient was brought to our emergency room by 112 ambulance as she had contractions in her arms and legs, unconsciousness, and foam coming from her mouth two hours after Papaver rhoeas ingestion. On physical examination, she was confused, the pupils were myotic, and she was tachycardic. Arterial blood gases analysis revealed lactic acidosis. Case 3. A 38-year-old female patient was admitted to our emergency room with complaints of nausea and vomiting two hours after ingestion of Papaver rhoeas. Her physical examination and tests were normal. Case 4. A 34-year-old male patient was admitted to our emergency room with complaints of numbness and loss of power in his arms and legs one hour after Papaver rhoeas ingestion. He was hospitalized at the toxicology intensive care unit for follow-up and treatment. Dyspnea and bradycardia developed on the follow-up. The oxygen saturation without oxygen support was 90%. ECG revealed sinus bradycardia. The cardiac enzymes did not increase. Case 5. A 42-year-old female patient was brought to our emergency room by 112 ambulance with contractions in her arms and legs and unconsciousness two hours after Papaver rhoeas ingestion. On her physical examination, she was confused and the pupils were myotic. Arterial blood gases analysis revealed lactic acidosis. Conclusion. All patients were followed up for a few days and then discharged from the hospital with recovery. Unconscious consumption of Papaver rhoeas leads to a clinical condition resembling morphine intoxication, CNS depression, and epileptic seizures. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0610_5373", "title": "A probable case of gabapentin-related reversible hearing loss in a patient with acute renal failure.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "As described in the literature, gabapentin toxicity in patients with impaired renal function can manifest as coma, myoclonus, tremulousness, or altered mental status. Gabapentin is an antiepileptic agent indicated for use as an adjunct therapy in partial seizures and postherpetic neuralgia but is also prescribed for the treatment of diabetic peripheral neuropathy. A 46-year-old white woman (height, 167 cm; weight, 177 kg; body mass index, 62.8 kg/m2) with a 6-year history of diabetes mellitus and previously normal renal function, presented to the emergency department of Wake Forest University Baptist Medical Center with anuria (a serum creatinine level of 7.4 mg/dL), hearing loss, myoclonus, and confusion with hallucinations lasting for 3 days. Her blood pressure was 110/74 mm Hg. The patient's preadmit medication list included: lisinopril (40 mg QD), hydrochlorothiazide (25 mg QD), and furosemide (80 mg QD) for hypertension; atorvastatin (10 mg QD) for hyperlipidemia; omeprazole (20 mg QD) for gastroesophageal reflux disease; salmeterol/fluticasone inhaler (100/50 microg; 1 puff BID) and albuterol metered-dose inhaler (90 microg as needed) for asthma; metformin (500 mg BID) and insulin lispro per sliding scale for type 2 diabetes mellitus; oxycodone controlled release (60 mg TID) for chronic osteoarthritis and low back pain; alprazolam (0.5 mg every 8 hours as needed) for generalized anxiety disorder; venlafaxine (150 mg BID) for depression; and gabapentin (300 mg TID) for diabetic peripheral neuropathy. The patient's symptoms (hearing loss, myoclonus, and confusion) improved after 1 session of hemodialysis (approximately 10 hours following admission) and had resolved at the time of discharge (4 days later). On admission, the gabapentin concentration was 17.6 microg/mL, and following hemodialysis, the gabapentin concentration was undetectable (by discharge/day 4). The timing of the patient's last dose of gabapentin is unknown. Normal doses for the treatment of diabetic peripheral neuropathy range from 900 to 3600 mg/d divided 3 times daily. We report a patient with acute renal failure who developed hearing loss, myoclonus, and confusion with hallucinations in the presence of elevated gabapentin concentrations. Due to rapid improvement after hemodialysis and discontinuation of gabapentin, we believe that these symptoms were probably due to gabapentin toxicity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0917_2643", "title": "Managing a patient with burning mouth syndrome.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 64-year-old woman presented with an increasing frequency of symptoms of heartburn and retrosternal pain over the last few months, and a constant and intense burning pain affecting her tongue tip, mouth and lips for the past 5 years. She found consuming hot drinks exacerbated the burning oral pain and chewing gum seemed to alleviate some of her symptoms. She thought these oral sensations were caused by frequently licking her finger tips to separate prints in her work in publishing. She had been previously diagnosed with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), and her heartburn symptoms had been controlled until recently with lansoprazole 15 mg daily. Her past medical history included irritable bowel syndrome and depression, for which she had been treated with mebeverine and paroxetine for a number of years. She was a non-smoker and did not consume alcohol. Clinical examination was unremarkable with no oral lesions on examination. Her routine laboratory tests, including autoimmune serology, haematinics and thyroid function tests were all within normal limits. She underwent a gastroscopy, which revealed moderate reflux oesophagitis, and following commencing omeprazole 20 mg twice daily, her heartburn resolved. However, her oral burning symptoms were not affected and a diagnosis of burning mouth syndrome (BMS) was made. Following explanation and reassurance concerning the cause of her BMS symptoms, she chose not to receive treatment for this but to access cognitive behavioural therapy in the future if her symptoms worsened." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0089_513", "title": "Management of depression in the elderly.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Primary care physicians have a vital role to play in identifying depression in their elderly patients. Diagnosis may be difficult, because symptoms are atypical and frequently include psychomotor agitation, somatic symptoms, and complaints of memory loss. Patients with medical illnesses, such as cancer, postmyocardial infarction, stroke, Parkinson's disease, and early Alzheimer's disease are particularly vulnerable to depression. Drugs that may cause depressive symptoms are digitalis at toxic levels, beta-blockers, centrally acting antihypertensives, immunosuppressants, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents. Cyclic antidepressants are the drugs of first choice. Selection depends on the patient's physical health and current medications and the side effect profile of the drug. Side effects are more pronounced in old age because of drug accumulation owing to slowed clearance. Troublesome side effects are anticholinergic effects, orthostatic hypotension, sedation, cardiotoxicity, and weight gain. The most useful antidepressants for geriatric patients are the secondary amines, desipramine and nortriptyline. The second-generation drug trazodone has the advantage of causing the least anticholinergic effects, but it is very sedating. Before treatment, the patient should have an electrocardiogram, liver function tests, tonometry, sitting and standing blood pressures, evaluation of urinary symptoms for outflow obstruction, review of current medications, and estimation of suicide risk. Cyclic antidepressants are contraindicated during recovery from myocardial infarction, in heart disease when there is severe impairment of myocardial performance, in seizure disorders, and in the presence of glaucoma or a large prostate. Drug interactions that may cause trouble can occur with epinephrine, MAO inhibitors, thyroid hormone, cimetidine, and centrally acting antihypertensives. Dosage should start low, increasing usually by 25 mg every 4 to 5 days until a therapeutic level is reached. Failure of a noradrenergic antidepressant after 4 to 5 weeks can be followed by a trial of a serotonergic drug. Drug serum level monitoring is useful for imipramine, desipramine, and nortriptyline. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are effective in many elderly patients who are resistant to TCAs. Sympathomimetic drugs must be avoided with MAOIs. Elderly patients are at high risk of toxicity and drug interactions with lithium. Electroconvulsive therapy is useful for patients who do not respond to drug treatment, but medical complications, particularly cardiovascular, often occur in patients 75 or older. Many patients relapse after ECT. Psychotherapy together with pharmacotherapy may be the optimal treatment for elderly depressives. Older patients are more likely to become chronically depressed than younger patients. The risk of suicide in depressed elderly males is high, particularly in those with psychosocial problems, and depression rises with age." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0346_1385", "title": "[An 80-year-old woman with parkinsonism and progressive dementia].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We report an 80-year-old Japanese woman who presented levodopa-responsible parkinsonism followed by progressive dementia. She was well until her 61 years of age (in 1978) when she noted onset of resting tremor in her right hand followed by tremor in her right leg. She was treated with levodopa and trihexyphenidyl with good response, however, later on, she suffered from gait disturbance. In 1985, she had an episode of cardio-pulmonary arrest from which she was resuscitated, however, she started to show hypermetamorphosis, memory defect, and aggressive behaviors. She also developed motor fluctuations and dyskinesias from levodopa. She was admitted to our service in 1986; she showed rather typical parkinsonism and mild dementia. She received left Vim thalamotomy in the same year. Her dyskinesias improved, however, her gait disturbance became progressively worse. In 1995, she was admitted to our service again; she showed marked dementia and advanced parkinsonism; she was unable to walk unsupported. She became bedridden in 1996 and gastrostomy was placed. She was transferred to Zushi Aoki Hospital. Her dementia became progressively worse, and she was in the akinetic and mute state. She expired on April 22, 1998. She was discussed in a neurological CPC. The chief discussant arrived at a conclusion that the patient had Parkinson's disease with complication by Alzheimer's disease in her later clinical course. The diagnoses of participants were divided among Parkinson's disease with dementia, Parkinson's disease and Alzheimer's disease, and diffuse Lewy body disease. Postmortem examination revealed marked neuronal loss in the substantia nigra and the locus coeruleus. Lewy bodies were found in the substantia nigra. In addition, rather many Lewy bodies of cortical type were seen in the cingulate gylus, inferior temporal gylus, and in the amygdaloid nucleus. These Lewy bodies were positive for alpha-synuclein. Also, tau-positive intra-neuronal tangles were seen in the hippocampus and in the substantia nigra. The Meynert nucleus showed marked neuronal loss. Pathologic findings were consistent with the diagnosis of diffuse Lewy body disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0377_2676", "title": "The influence of new scientific information on the treatment of elderly patients in general practice.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "It has been proven that with an increasing number of diseases elderly patients are treated by an increasing number of drugs despite the fact that treatment of elderly persons should be as simple as possible. Simpler dosage of (fewer?) drugs may contribute to a good cooperation on the part of patients, as well as to a lower incidence of undesirable effects and drug interactions. Sticking to established medication schemes is another feature observed in practice, which interferes with the introduction of novelties. The aim of this study was to investigate the actual situation of medication of elderly patients treated by general practitioners in this country. Between 1996 and 1998, a random group of 1481 patients aged older than 75 was studied in cooperation with general practitioners. A detailed history was obtained and physical examination was performed, signs of depression were assessed, Barthel's test of everyday activities, and IADL (activities of daily living) and MMSE (Mini Mental State Examination) tests were applied. A unified \"Protocol on Examination\" was used in which three questions were concerned with medication--the kinds of drugs taken by the patient, their names and dosage, and whether any hypnotics were taken. The five most frequently prescribed groups include vasodilators (62% patients), cardiotonics (39%), analgetics (41%) and Ca-antagonists (25%). The dynamics of the prescription were remarkable--a significant decrease of the use of analgetics and cardiotonics was observed in comparison with a significant increase in the use of ACE inhibitors. The number of drugs administered is as follows: while only 1.3% patients took no drugs, 1.6% patients took more than 13 drugs. 61% patients rank among the categories taking 4-5 or 6-8 kinds of drugs. On the whole, general practitioners tend to prescribe medicaments in doses one tablet per day. The results suggest that, even nowadays, elderly patients are treated with a rather high number of medicaments. In contrast, the dosage of one tablet a day decreases the total number of the tablets taken. A significant influence of new scientific information was visible in the prescription habits of general practitioners. Be that as it may, in elderly patients, the simplest possible medication should continue to be aimed at." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1119_5187", "title": "Thymoma Removal Improved Cognitive Function in a Patient with Alzheimer disease: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Purpose Alzheimer disease (AD) is an irreversible neurodegenerative disease that causes progressive cognitive decline. Co-existing thymoma should be considered when rapid deterioration of cognition was noted in AD patients and removal of thymoma may improve cognition in AD. Case report We report a 72-year-old woman with initial complaints of memory impairment for 2 years. After detailed history taking, neuropsychological tests, brain magnetic resonance imaging, and positive amyloid positron emission tomography, she was diagnosed as having dementia of the Alzheimer type. At the time of diagnosis, her dementia condition was mild (clinical dementia rating [CDR] is equal to 1, CDR sum of boxes [CDR-sb] = 4.5, Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is equal to 21 divided by 30). She needed moderate assistance in performing daily life activities. One year after AD diagnosis, her condition deteriorated drastically, and she experienced frequent falls and severe weakness apart from cognitive symptoms. Concurrent myasthenia gravis (MG) with thymoma was found later, and thymectomy was performed. Her symptoms related to MG alleviated after the operation. Notably, her cognitive symptoms also improved 4 months after the operation, and her dementia reversed to mild cognitive impairment. Conclusion Although the role of neuroinflammation in AD has been widely discussed, it remains elusive. Removal of the co-existing thymoma not only alleviated the patient's MG symptoms but also improved her cognitive performance. We supposed that this effect may have been a direct result of the decrease in acetylcholine receptor antibody or reduction in the degree of neuroinflammation. Keywords Alzheimer disease, thymoma, neuroinflammation, central cholinergic effects, acetylcholine receptor antibody." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en064_63824", "title": "List of unsolved deaths", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A worker at a Fenton, Missouri, senior living facility found the body of Shirley Rae Neumann, 78, on the grounds outside the facility on the afternoon of October 31, 2013. At first it appeared that Neumann, who suffered from advanced arthritis and dementia, had fallen from the balcony of her apartment, since its railing had been broken, and the county coroner ruled the death accidental. But tests also found a level of the sedative Zolpidem in her blood that was eight times higher than a normal dose would have left. The last person to see Neumann alive was her daughter, Pam Hupp. Hupp told staff that her mother would not be leaving her apartment the next day, and stood to benefit financially from her mother's death. Hupp had also pleaded guilty to another murder that prosecutors alleged she had committed to point suspicion at the husband of a murdered friend of Hupp's who had been acquitted at a retrial after spending several years in prison, a murder in which Hupp herself has been" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0797_11068", "title": "Safety of fluoxetine treatment in a case of acute intermittent porphyria.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) is a metabolic disease characterized by recurrent attacks of neurological and psychiatric dysfunction. It is a rare disorder of heme metabolism that usually presents with abdominal pain, gastrointestinal symptoms and autonomic nervous system disturbances. Exposure to certain drugs, dieting, starvation and infection during pregnancy may precipitate AIP attacks. Psychiatric manifestations of AIP include mood changes, organic brain syndrome and psychosis. Here, we present a 21-year-old female patient with AIP and major depression. She had a caesarean section under general anesthesia with pentothal and her recovery time from anesthesia took longer than usual. She had a blood transfusion because of severe anemia following the operation. Three days after her discharge she was readmitted to the hospital with confusion and seizure. It was her first AIP attack and it started 6 days after caesarean section. Two months after her first attack, we saw her for anxiety and depressive symptoms. She was in severe anxiety and depression and she was put on fluoxetine (20 mg/day liquid form). Following the treatment she did not develop any other porphyria attack. Her symptoms vanished and she improved functionally. She stayed on fluoxetine for 6 months without any new AIP attack. Despite limited data regarding fluoxetine therapy in porphyria patients, it seems to be safe for the treatment of depressive and anxiety symptoms in these patients. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0582_23843", "title": "[Depressive symptoms as a risk factor for polypharmacy in patients over 60 years of age].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To determine the association between depressive symptoms not identified by the family physician and polypharmacy in patients over 60 years old. A case-control design with non-probabilistic sampling. &gt; or = 60 years old both sexes, without disease or with one disease-balanced illness, and with reliable recording in chart by the last 12 month. cognitive deterioration, obstructive chronic lung disease, cardiopathy, infarct record, alcoholism, smoking addiction and functional dependence's. Elimination criteria: depression's previous diagnoses and hospitalization during a year before the study. The cases were patients who have simultaneously received 4 o more pharmacologic prescriptions in 5 of 6 last medical visits. The controls were patients who have simultaneously received 3 o less pharmacologic prescriptions in 5 of 6 last medical visits. Depressive symptoms: grading &gt; or = 6 (Yesavage and Brink scale). 200 patients per group, aged 69 +/- 6 years agreed to participate. Logistics regression (OR;CI(95%)): hypertension (6.0;3.6-10.3), diabetes mellitus type 2 (3.7;2.3-5.9), depression (2.1;1.2-3.4), and female sex (1.7;1.1-2.7). Hypertension, diabetes mellitus type 2, depressive symptoms not identified by the family physician, and female sex are risk factors for polypharmacy in the elderly." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0395_16097", "title": "[Amnesic presentations of the compulsive obsessional confusions (about 3 patients appearing in a consultation of memory)].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Disorders or complaints of memory are a frequent cause of consultation in depression, major anxiety and psychiatry disease with personality disorders. We report 3 patients with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), without diagnosis and treatment, examined in a specialized memory consultation. They always had OCD with cognitive checking. Diagnosis of transient global amnesia and temporal complex seizure were discussed in 2 cases. Psychometric impairment only was observed in first free recall of a verbal memory task and was no specific. Behavioural during testing seemed to be very important to analyse. First, a 49-year-old man consulted because he had stereotyped transient amnesia lasted one minute, 2 or 3 times a week, since 6 months. He was a teacher. Transient amnesia always occurred during lessons. Suddenly he didn't know where he was or what he was speaking about. Episodes lasted one minute. After them, he had no confusion and no difficulty in concentration but intense anxiety. In an another hand, when he was in his car, after lessons, he could forget where he was during some minutes. CT scan and EEG were normal. Neuropsychological tests only objectived impairment in first free recall of Grober and Buschke's words. Patient explained that he could not prevent to check responses. He told us checking obsessive compulsive disorder during since long time ago. We discussed clear differences which existed between seizure and ruminations or preoccupations. Secondly, a 55-year-old woman was afraid of her memory performances. She was medical secretary and had no problem in her work but she would like a memory consultation to reassure herself. She was neither depressed nor anxious. She presented curious production in fluency task. She had to produce as many animals's names as possible: she could say 35 names which was an excellent performance but only in alphabetic order! Neuropsychological tests objectived impairment in her first free recall of Grober and Buschke's words. She tried in her first free recall to remember words in alphabetic order. She explained how she was bound to range everything in alphabetic order! She had a lot of rituals. She thought that she had an obsessive compulsive disorder but never consulted about this. The observation illustrated suspiscions about memory operations which could be observed in patients group with obsessive compulsive disorders. Finally, a 62-year-old man told us that he had presented a transient global amnesia during 4 hours. He had an important appointment and was upset about that. He didn't go to it and wandered in his flat. He always asked the same questions and forgot everything. He had no neurological deficit. He was anxious, sad and cried several times. He perfectly remembered the episod and thought that he had a panic attack! Verbal memory tests only objectived difficulties in his first free recall of Grober and Buschke words as the two others patients. He had a story of obsessive compulsive disorder with checking and rituals. In this observation, we discussed clear differences which existed between panic attacks and global transient amnesia. We analyzed patterns of neuropsychological performances which illustrated clinical features of obsessive compulsive disorder. These three patients impaired in their first free recall of verbal memory task. It is not a specific result. We observed during psychometric evaluation, strategic processing which impaired episodic memory: patients tried to check their performances. Memory complaints only were observed in checking obsessive compulsive disorder. It is a difficulty or a doubt about memory capacities. Difficulties could be due to particular cognitive processes who pertubate normal memory capacities." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0830_6507", "title": "ECG Case of the Month: Unexpected Atrioventricular Conduction in High-Grade Atrioventricular Block. Sinus rhythm; high-grade second degree atrioventricular block with a junctional escape rhythm and three capture complexes, each with right bundle branch block aberration; possible septal myocardial infarct of indeterminate age; ST-T and U wave changes suggesting hypokalemia.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A 90-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure, a cerebrovascular accident without focal residua, dementia, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease went to the emergency department because of dizziness and near syncope. His medications were aspirin 81 mg qd, clopidogrel 75 mg qod, escitalopram oxalate 10 mg qd, Seroquel 25 mg qd, and memantine hydrochloride 10 mg qd. He had orthostatic hypotension with supine blood pressure of 173/77 mm Hg falling to 116/68 on standing, while pulse increased from 66 to 84 beats/ min. He received IV fluid and returned home. Two days later he saw his primary care physician because of episodes of dizziness and confusion. The figure shows an electrocardiogram recorded during that visit. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0373_16737", "title": "[An 84-year-old woman with progressive mental deterioration and abnormal behavior].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We report an 84-year-old woman with progressive mental deterioration. She was well until January 1994, when she was 80 years of the age. At that time she developed a delusional ideation, in that she stated that she would be killed by her fellow members of the society for elderly, in which she was belonging. At times, she closed the shutter of her house saying that a stranger was wandering outside of her house. In 1995, she could not identify the face of her son's wife. When she went out for shopping, she lost her way to the home. She prowled about in and out of her home. In 1996, she had to be admitted to a nursing home, where quarrelled with other patients and behaved violently. She was admitted to the neurology service of Hatsuishi Hospital on November 20th, 1997. Family history revealed that her mother was said to be demented. On admission, she was alert and behaved in a good manner. She was disoriented to the time and unable to do serial 7. Her memory was very poor. She did not show aphasia or apraxia. Cranial nerves appeared to be intact. She showed no weakness or muscle atrophy. Gait was normal for her age. Plastic rigidity was noted in four limbs more on the right side. No ataxia was noted. Deep tendon reflexes were exaggerated, however, no Babinski sign was noted. Sensory examination was intact. Her hospital course was characterized by the development of progressive gait disturbance, violent behaviour, and prowling around. On November 30th, 1998, she fell down and suffered from a fracture in the neck of her femur. Although replacement of the femur head was performed, she became unable to walk after this episode. Her mental functions deteriorated further. She developed pneumonia and expired on February 2, 1999. She was discussed in a neurological CPC and the chief discussant arrived at a conclusion that the patient probably had diffuse Lewy body disease, because of the combination of dementia and parkinsonism. Other possibilities discussed in the CPC included Pick's disease, frontotemporal dementia and parkinsonism, and Alzheimer's disease. Post-mortem examination revealed moderate atrophy in the frontal and temporal cortices. Microscopic examination showed atrophy and gliosis in the hippocampus. Many diffuse plaque and neuritic plaques were seen in the frontal cortex by methenamine silver staining. Neurofibrillary tangles were also found. The Meynert nucleus was preserved. The putamen and the substantia nigra were also intact. Pathologic diagnosis was consistent with Alzheimer's disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0632_20569", "title": "Sertraline-induced rhabdomyolysis in an elderly patient with dementia and comorbidities.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To describe a case of sertraline-induced rhabdomyolysis in an elderly patient with dementia and comorbidities. A 71-year-old woman visited a psychiatrist in September 2007 for her depressed mood. Her medical history included vascular dementia accompanied by depression, arterial hypertension, and heart failure, as well as cardiac pacemaker implantation several years earlier for severe bradyarrythmia. She had begun taking amisulpride 50 mg/day and diazepam 2 mg at bedtime 6 months prior to the psychiatrist appointment, with poor relief of her depressed mood. Her drug therapy also included nicergoline 30 mg/day, amlodipine 5 mg/day, aspirin 100 mg/day, candesartan 16 mg/day, and atenolol 25 mg/day. At this psychiatrist visit, sertraline 50 mg/day was added for her depression, and was continued after a geriatrician visit in October. Her mood improved significantly. On December 18, 2007, she was admitted to the cardiology unit to undergo a pacemaker replacement. Laboratory tests revealed creatine kinase (CK) 7952 IU/L, lactate dehydrogenase 1021 IU/L, myoglobin 2322 U/L, and aspartate aminotransferase 362 IU/L, resulting in a diagnosis of iatrogenic rhabdomyolysis. Amisulpride and sertraline were discontinued. On December 24, serum CK was 839 IU/L and myoglobin was 91 U/L and the patient was discharged. On January 22, laboratory tests showed normal values of CK, CK-MB, and myoglobin. Sertraline 50 mg/day was again prescribed for the patient's persistent depressed mood. Fifteen days later, blood tests showed CK 1327 IU/L and myoglobin 324 U/L; therefore, the drug was discontinued. CK and myoglobin levels normalized a week later. On April 2, escitalopram was started. At time of writing, there was no evidence of any increase in CK, myoglobin, or other markers of rhabdomyolysis. The Naranjo probability scale indicated a probable relationship between sertraline treatment and the onset of rhabdomyolysis. No relationship between amisulpride and rhabdomyolysis was found. Furthermore, rechallenge with sertraline caused CK and myoglobin to again increase, which was reversed following a discontinuation of sertraline. The patient's other comorbidities and medications have not been suggested as possible interactions with sertraline that can cause rhabdomyolysis. Genetic defects of sertraline demethylation and/or Pglycoprotein binding or concurrent circumstances may explain the onset of rhabdomyolysis in this particular patient. This patient's rhabdomyolysis was probably induced by sertraline therapy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en008_133813", "title": "Ibuprofen", "score": 0.008952254641909813, "content": "Ibuprofen overdose has become common since it was licensed for OTC use. Many overdose experiences are reported in the medical literature, although the frequency of life-threatening complications from ibuprofen overdose is low. Human response in cases of overdose ranges from an absence of symptoms to a fatal outcome despite intensive-care treatment. Most symptoms are an excess of the pharmacological action of ibuprofen, and include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, dizziness, headache, ear ringing, and nystagmus. Rarely, more severe symptoms, such as gastrointestinal bleeding, seizures, metabolic acidosis, high blood levels of potassium, low blood pressure, slow heart rate, fast heart rate, atrial fibrillation, coma, liver dysfunction, acute kidney failure, cyanosis, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest have been reported. The severity of symptoms varies with the ingested dose and the time elapsed; however, individual sensitivity also plays an important role." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0666_7781", "title": "Respiratory failure following delayed intrathecal morphine pump refill: a valuable, but costly lesson.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Spinal analgesia, mediated by opioid receptors, requires only a fraction of the opioid dose that is needed systemically. By infusing a small amount of opioid into the cerebrospinal fluid in close proximity to the receptor sites in the spinal cord, profound analgesia may be achieved while sparing some of the side effects due to systemic opioids. Intraspinal drug delivery (IDD) has been increasingly used in patients with intractable chronic pain, when these patients have developed untoward side effects with systemic opioid usage. The introduction of intrathecal opioids has been considered one of the most important breakthroughs in pain management in the past three decades. A variety of side effects associated with the long-term usage of IDD have been recognized. Among them, respiratory depression is the most feared. To describe a severe adverse event, i.e., respiratory failure, following delayed intrathecal morphine pump refill. A 65-year-old woman with intractable chronic low back pain, due to degenerative disc disease, and was referred to our clinic for an intraspinal drug delivery evaluation, after failing to respond to multidisciplinary pain treatment. Following a psychological evaluation confirming her candidacy, she underwent an outpatient patient-controlled continuous epidural morphine infusion trial. The infusion trial lasted 12 days and was beneficial in controlling her pain. The patient reported more than 90% pain reduction with improved distance for ambulation. She subsequently consented and was scheduled for permanent intrathecal morphine pump implantation. The intrathecal catheter was inserted at right paramedian L3-L4, with catheter tip advanced to L1, confirmed under fluoroscopy. Intrathecal catheter placement was confirmed by positive CSF flow and by myelogram. A non-programmable Codman 3000 constant-flow rate infusion pump was placed in the right mid quandrant between right rib cage and right iliac crest. The intrathecal infusion consisted of preservative free morphine, delivering 1.0 mg /day. Over the following 6 months, the dosage was gradually titrated up to 4 mg/day with satisfactory pain control without significant side effects. However, the patient was not able to return to the clinic for pump refill until 12 days later than the previously scheduled pump-refill date. Her pump was accessed and was noted to be empty. Her intrathecal pump was refilled with preservative free morphine, delivering 4 mg/day (the same daily dose as her previous refill). However, on the night of pump refill, 10 hours after the pump refill, the patient was found to be unresponsive by her family members. 911 was called. Upon arriving, paramedics found her in respiratory failure, with shallow breathing at a rate of 5/min, pulse oxymetry showing oxygen saturation about 55-58%. She was emergently intubated on site and rushed to local hospital ER. The on call physician for our clinic was immediately contacted, and advised the administration of intravenous Naloxone. Her respiratory effort improved dramatically after receiving a total of 0.6 mg IV Naloxone IV over 25 minutes. Her intrathecal pump was immediately accessed by clinic on call physician and the remainder of the medication in the catheter space was aspirated. The pump infusate was immediately diluted with preservative free normal saline, to deliver preservative free morphine at 1mg/day. She was transferred to the intensive care unit and extubated the next morning. She recovered fully without any sequelae. Loss of opioid tolerance due to delayed pump refill may subject patients to the development of severe respiratory depression. Meticulous approach should be employed when refilling pumps in these patients when their pumps are completely empty. To our knowledge, this is the first reported case of this type." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0903_16159", "title": "[Age 89 years, depression, fall with pelvic fracture, severe confusion - serotonin syndrome : Differential diagnosis, importance of CYP450 and economic considerations].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A case study of an 89-year-old patient is reported, who was admitted to hospital because of immobility due to pain. After the cause of the pain could initially be clarified and treated, the further clinical course in this very old woman showed an alarming symptom complex of agitation, confusion and cognitive deterioration, which took on grave forms. The work-up of this case showed a typical constellation of pain and depression in old age; however, the pharmaceutical treatment in this case is not atypical and could lead to a severe serotonin syndrome. The interaction, diagnostics, differential diagnosis, pharmacological, functional, codification and economic aspects of the course of the disease are discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1060_952", "title": "Ivermectin to prevent hospitalizations in patients with COVID-19 (IVERCOR-COVID19): a structured summary of a study protocol for a randomized controlled trial.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "To assess the efficacy of ivermectin in addition to standard treatment compared to standard treatment alone in reducing hospitalizations in the COVID-19 patient population. IVERCOR-COVID19 will be a single-center, prospective, randomized, double-blind, parallel group (1:1 ratio), placebo-controlled study. Patients who meet the following criteria will be invited to participate: Inclusion criteria: (1) Over 18 years of age who reside in the province of Corrientes at the time of diagnosis. (2) Confirmed diagnosis of COVID-19 by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for detection of SARS-CoV2 in the last 48 h. (3) In the case of women of childbearing age, they must be using a contraceptive method of proven efficacy and safety (barrier, hormonal, or permanent contraceptives) for at least 3 months prior to inclusion in the present study and for the entire period of time for the duration of the study and until at least 30 days after the end of this study. A woman will be considered to have no reproductive capacity if she is postmenopausal (at least 2 years without her menstrual cycles) or if she has undergone surgical sterilization (at least 1 month before the time of inviting her to participate in this study). (4) Weight at the time of inclusion greater than 48 kg. (5) That they sign the informed consent for participation in the study. (1) pregnant or breastfeeding women; (2) known allergy to ivermectin or some of the components of ivermectin tablets or placebo; (3) current use of home oxygen; (4) require hospitalization due to COVID-19 at the time of diagnosis or history of hospitalization for COVID-19; (5) presence of mal-absorptive syndrome; (6) presence of any other concomitant acute infectious disease; (7) known history of severe liver disease, for example liver cirrhosis; (8) need or use of antiviral drugs at the time of admission for another viral pathology other than COVID-19; (9) need or use of hydroxychloroquine or chloroquine; (10) use of ivermectin up to 7 days prior to randomization; (11) patients on dialysis or who have required it in the last 2 months or who plan to do it in the next 2 months; and (12) current participation or in the last 30 days in a research study that has included the administration of a drug (Table 1). Table 1 Ivermectin/placebo dose according to patient weight Patient weight Ivermectin/placebo dose Total dose (mg) Equal to or greater than 48 kg and less than 80 kg 2 tablets of 6 mg each at the time of inclusion and 2 tablets 24 h after the first intake 24 Equal or greater than 80 kg and less than 110 kg 3 tablets of 6 mg each at the time of inclusion and 3 tablets 24 h after the first intake 36 Equal or greater than 110 kg 4 tablets of 6 mg each at the time of inclusion and 4 tablets 24 h after the first intake 48 The study will be carried out by the Ministry of Public Health of the Province of Corrientes (Argentina) in coordination with the Institute of Cardiology of Corrientes in the Province of Corrientes, Argentina. Intervention group: patients who are randomized to ivermectin will receive the dose according to their weight (patients up to 80 kg will receive 2 tablets of 6 mg ivermectin; patients with more than 80 kg and up to 110 kg will receive 3 tablets of 6 mg of ivermectin; patients weighing more than 110 kg will receive 4 tablets of 6 mg ivermectin) the day they enter the study and the same dose 24 h after the first dose. patients who are randomized to placebo will receive the dose according to their weight (patients up to 80 kg will receive 2 tablets of 6 mg placebo; patients with more than 80 kg and up to 110 kg will receive 3 tablets of 6 mg of placebo; patients weighing more than 110 kg will receive 4 tablets of 6 mg placebo) on the day they enter the study and the same dose 24 h after the first dose (Table 2). Table 2 Inclusion and exclusion criteria Inclusion criteria Exclusion criteria 1. Over 18 years of age who reside in the province of Corrientes at the time of diagnosis 1. Pregnant or breastfeeding women 2.Confirmed diagnosis of COVID-19 by polymerase chain reaction test for detection of SARS-CoV2 in the last 48 h 2. Known allergy to ivermectin or some of the components of ivermectin tablets or placebo 3. In case of being women of childbearing age, they must be using a contraceptive method of proven efficacy and safety (barrier, hormonal, or permanent contraceptives) for at least 3 months prior to inclusion in the present study, during the entire period of time for the duration of the study, and until at least 30 days after the end of this study. A woman will be considered to have no reproductive capacity if she is postmenopausal (at least 2 years without her menstrual cycles) or if she has undergone surgical sterilization (at least 1 month before the time of inviting her to participate in this study) 3. Current use of home oxygen 4. Weight at the time of inclusion equal to or greater than 48 kg 4. That require hospitalization due to COVID-19 at the time of diagnosis or history of hospitalization for COVID-19 5. That they sign the informed consent for participation in the study 5. Presence of mal-absorptive syndrome 6. Presence of any other concomitant acute infectious disease 7. Known history of severe liver disease, for example liver cirrhosis 8. Need or use of antiviral drugs at the time of admission for another viral pathology other than COVID-19 9. Need or use of hydroxychloroquine or chloroquine 10. Use of ivermectin up to 7 days prior to randomization 11. Patients on dialysis or who have required it in the last 2 months or who plan to do it in the next 2 months 12. Current participation or in the last 30 days in a research study that has included the administration of a drug MAIN OUTCOMES: Primary outcome will be the percentage of hospitalizations in patients with COVID-19 in the intervention and control groups. time to hospitalization in each of the arms of the study: number of days elapsed from the inclusion in the study until the hospitalization of the patient; percentage of use of invasive mechanical ventilation in each of the study arms: every patient who is connected to invasive mechanical ventilation after signing the informed consent and before the final study visit; time to invasive mechanical ventilation in each of the arms of the study: number of days elapsed from inclusion in the study to connection to invasive mechanical ventilation of the patient; percentage of patients requiring dialysis in each of the study arms: all patients who require renal replacement therapy of any kind, temporary or permanent, and which begins after signing the informed consent and before the final visit; mortality from all causes in each of the two trial groups: death of the patient, from any cause. Negative PCR swab at 3 ± 1 and 12 ± 2 days after entering the study. Ivermectin safety: it will be analyzed according to the incidence of adverse events that patients present in the intervention and control groups. The end of study (EOS) is recorded as the day the patient is discharged or death. Discharge will be granted according to the current recommendations of the Ministry of Public Health of the Province of Corrientes. A follow-up visit (EOF) will be made by phone 30 days after the EOS when vital status will be verified. Randomization will be done through a web system with randomly permuted blocks. Randomization will be carried out by one of the investigators who will not participate in the inclusion of patients or in the delivery of medication (Table 3). Table 3 EOS end of study, EOF end of follow-up Visit Basal and randomization, day 0 Day 3 ± 1 Day 12 ± 2 V#1 V#2 V#3 EOS EOF Informed consent X - - - - Inclusion/exclusion criteria X - - - - Demographic data and medical history X - - - - Concomitant medication X - - - - Vital signs* X X - - - Anthropometric data<sup^</sup X - - - - Basal laboratory X - - - - PCR swab - X X - - Assessment of adverse events - X X X - Final objective evaluation - X X X X Randomization X - - - - Adherence to treatment X X - - - *Includes heart rate, temperature, and oxygen saturation by a digital saturometer ^Includes weight and height BLINDING (MASKING): The participants, investigators, care providers, and outcome assessors will be blinded. We will include a total of 500 patients (250 patients in each group). This is version 1.0, 17 August 2020. The recruitment started on 19 August 2020, and we anticipate the trial will finish recruitment on 31 December 2020. ClinicalTrials.gov NCT04529525 . Registered on 26 August 2020 FULL PROTOCOL: The full protocol is attached as an additional file, accessible from the Trials website (Additional file 1). In the interest of expediting the dissemination of this material, the familiar formatting has been eliminated; this letter serves as a summary of the key elements of the full protocol." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en454_2202", "title": "Louise Pearce", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "subnormal in the morning, the range often extending over four degrees or more, and the pulse of very low tension is accelerated, varying from 90 to 130 beats per minute. These two symptoms are of the greatest diagnostic importance in the early recognition of the disease... Drowsiness, which has gradually been increasing, now passes on to coma, from which the patients can only be roused with difficulty; the temperature falls to subnormal, in rare cases convulsive fits appear, and the patient dies in a complete state of coma. This is the common course of an ordinary acute case of the disease, the different changes taking about a month or six weeks for completion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0915_1898", "title": "Research Priorities in Subspecialty Palliative Care: Policy Initiatives.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Palliative care demonstrably improves quality of life for the seriously ill in a manner that averts preventable health crises and their associated costs. Because of these outcomes, palliative care is now broadening its reach beyond hospitals, and hospice care for those near death, to patients and their families living in the community with chronic multimorbidities that have uncertain or long expected survival. In this article, we address research needed to enable policies supportive of palliative care access and quality, including changes in regulatory, accreditation, financing, and training approaches in the purview of policy makers. Mr. K. is an 86-year-old male with multimorbidities, including severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, congestive heart failure, peripheral vascular disease, and atrial fibrillation requiring anticoagulation therapy. He fell in his mobile home and was unable to reach the telephone to call for help. Six hours later, his neighbor found him lying on the bedroom floor in pain and confused, and called 911. On examination, he was found to have a cold blue foot complicated by a large hematoma. The vascular surgery service was consulted to evaluate Mr. K. for revascularization or amputation. Although Mr. K. had several risk factors complicating his candidacy for general anesthesia, the team thought the benefits of surgery would outweigh the risks. Mr. K's daughter agreed to surgery telling her father \"the doctors know best.\" Mr. K. replied \"I just want to be out of pain.\" Six months later, Mr. K. remains in a skilled nursing facility due to post-op complications, including pneumonia, worsened confusion, and the inability to recover to enough function to live safely at home. He now suffers from depression, cognitive deficits, and social isolation. His daughter has had to take on a second job because she is struggling to pay for his continued long-term care, which costs $6000 per month. Money she had saved for her own retirement and her daughter's college tuition is already gone. In retrospect, she realizes the surgical team did not discuss the possibility of his survival with chronic debility and long-term functional dependency, nor the fact that Medicare would not pay for the care he now requires." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0216_5694", "title": "A long-term study with co-dergocrine mesylate (Hydergine) in healthy pensioners. Results after 3 years.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Started in 1976, a long-term study in healthy pensioners is now in progress in Basel, Switzerland, to investigate medical, psychological, and electrophysiological aspects of the normal aging process and to establish whether these can be influenced by drug treatment. The subjects are receiving co-dergocrine mesylate (Hydergine) 1.5 three times daily or placebo orally under double-blind conditions. At 1-year intervals each subject's case history is reviewed, a clinical examination and laboratory tests are carried out, an ECG and an EEG are recorded, and a shortened form of the Hamburg-Wechsler Intelligence Test for Adults (German version of the WAIS, i.e., the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale), the Raven Coloured Progressive Matrices Test, and the Maudsley Personality Inventory are administered. Treatment compliance is being monitored by pill counting and determination of drug plasma levels. The results after 3 years of the study are presented. The subjects included in this evaluation are those who have undergone all examinations under double-blind conditions (n = 99). During the 3-year period, 27 of the 148 subjects (64 women and 84 men, mean age 63 years) initially recruited for the study have withdrawn, mainly because serious illness has supervened. Three subjects in the placebo group and 1 in the co-dergocrine mesylate group have died. The double-blind code has been broken for medical reasons in 18 cases; these subjects have continued to participate under open conditions. During this 3-year period, the following changes have been observed: A slight but statistically significant rise in systolic and diastolic blood pressure in the sample as a whole (mean increase 12 mm Hg). A decrease in systolic blood pressure in subjects with high initial values (mean decrease 6 mm Hg in the placebo group, and 18 mm Hg in the co-dergocrine mesylate group). An increase in systolic blood pressure in subjects with low initial values (mean increase 17 mm Hg in the placebo group and 16 mm Hg in the co-dergocrine mesylate group). A significant decrease in pulse rate in all subjects (mean decrease 7 beats/min). An increase in the number of subjects with pathological ECGs. A significant decrease in mean serum creatinine and lipid levels (all subjects) and a decrease of about 70% in the number of subjects with pathologically raised values. A decrease in the number of subjects from both groups with pathological signs in the EEG.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 280 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 48 ] ], "text": "The fact that there is intestinal aeration points to the existence of a fistula of the lower esophageal segment with the trachea or with a bronchus. In this case, pulmonary complications are frequent due to the passage of gastric contents into the airway." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Due to the impossibility of swallowing saliva.", "2": "Because of frequently associated cardiac malformations.", "3": "Because of the risk of aspiration pneumonitis.", "4": "Due to the impossibility of enteral feeding.", "5": "Associated tracheomalacia." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0895_14968", "title": "The prevalence and effects of aspiration among neonates at the time of discharge.", "score": 0.01720573032048442, "content": "Neonates undergoing heart surgery for CHD are at risk for postoperative gastrointestinal complications and aspiration events. There are limited data regarding the prevalence of aspiration after neonatal cardiothoracic surgery; thus, the effects of aspiration events on this patient population are not well understood. This retrospective chart review examined the prevalence and effects of aspiration among neonates who had undergone cardiac surgery at the time of their discharge. Introduction This study examined the prevalence of aspiration among neonates who had undergone cardiac surgery. Demographic data regarding these patients were analysed in order to determine risk factors for postoperative aspiration. Post-discharge feeding routes and therapeutic interventions were extracted to examine the time spent using alternate feeding routes because of aspiration risk or poor caloric intake. Modified barium swallow study results were used to evaluate the effectiveness of the test as a diagnostic tool. Materials and methods A retrospective study was undertaken of neonates who had undergone heart surgery from July, 2013 to January, 2014. Data describing patient demographics, feeding methods, and follow-up visits were recorded and compared using a χ2 test for goodness of fit and a Kaplan-Meier graph. The patient population included 62 infants - 36 of whom were male, and 10 who were born with single-ventricle circulation. The median age at surgery was 6 days (interquartile range=4 to 10 days). Modified barium swallow study results showed that 46% of patients (n=29) aspirated or were at risk for aspiration, as indicated by laryngeal penetration. In addition, 48% (n=10) of subjects with a negative barium swallow or no swallow study demonstrated clinical aspiration events. Tube feedings were required by 66% (n=41) of the participants. The median time spent on tube feeds, whether in combination with oral feeds or exclusive use of a nasogastric or gastric tube, was 54 days; 44% (n=27) of patients received tube feedings for more than 120 days. Premature infants were significantly more likely to have aspiration events than infants delivered at full gestational age (OR p=0.002). Infants with single-ventricle circulation spent a longer time on tube feeds (median=95 days) than infants with two-ventricle defects (median=44 days); the type of cardiac defect was independent of prevalence of an aspiration event. Aspiration is common following neonatal cardiac surgery. The modified barium swallow study is often used to identify aspiration events and to determine an infant's risk for aspirating. This leads to a high proportion of infants who require tube feedings following neonatal cardiac surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0837_2485", "title": "[Congenital Esophageal Atresia].", "score": 0.015176419022572867, "content": "In this report, we describe the esophageal atresia in terms of current surgical management on the basis of our experience and literatures. Traditionally, infants with esophageal atresia have presented shortly after birth because of an inability to pass an orogastric tube, respiratory distress, or an inability to tolerate feeding. And also, an isolated trachea-esophageal fistula (TEF) usually cases coughing, recurrent pneumonia, or choking during feedings. To ignore these symptoms is to risk a delayed diagnosis. The condition may be associated with other major congenital anomalies such as those seen in the vertebral, anal, cardiac, tracheo-esophageal, renal/radial (VACTER) association, or it may be an isolated defect. Therapeutic strategies for esophageal atresia are a prevention of pulmonary complication by TEF closing and an early establishment of enteral alimentation. We promptly repair healthy infants without performing a gastrostomy and delay repair in infants with high-risk factors such as associated severe cardiac anomaly and respiratory insufficiency. Esophageal atresia has been classically approached through a thoracotomy. The disadvantages of such a thoracotomy have been recognized for a long time, for example winged scapula, elevation of fixation of shoulder, asymmetry of the chest wall, rib fusion, scoliosis, and breast and pectoral muscle maldevelopment. To avoid such disadvantages, thoracoscopic repair was recently reported." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0820_4289", "title": "Unilateral pulmonary agenesis associated with oesophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula: A case report with prenatal diagnosis.", "score": 0.015130752540824483, "content": "We describe herein a case of unilateral pulmonary agenesis (PA) with oesophageal atresia (EA)/tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) that was diagnosed prenatally and repaired by esophagoesophagostomy with stable postoperative course. The patient was born at 34 weeks gestation, after ultrasonography at 22 weeks gestation showed possible right-sided diaphragmatic eventration or PA and EA was subsequently suspected due to hydramnios. The initial X-ray showed mediastinal shift to the right, and coil up sign of the nasogastric tube, without intracardiac anomaly. Immediately after the diagnosis of EA/TEF and unilateral PA on day 0, the patient was intubated in the operating room, and a gastrostomy tube was placed. After pulmonary status stabilized, at 4 days old, EA/TEF was repaired through a thoracotomy in the right 4 th intercostal space. The right main bronchus was noted to continue into the distal oesophagus; this fistula was ligated and divided, and a single-layer esophagoesophagostomy was performed under mild tension with one vertebral gap. The neonate was maintained on mechanical ventilation and gradually weaned to extubation at 7 days old. The postoperative course was uneventful, with the exception of prolonged jaundice that emerged at 3 months old. Laparoscopic cholangiography at that time excluded biliary atresia, and jaundice resolved spontaneously. The patient has not shown any respiratory symptoms or feeding difficulties as of the 12-month follow-up. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0765_8641", "title": "A case series study of therapeutic implications of type IIIb4: a rare variant of esophageal atresia and distal tracheoesophageal fistula.", "score": 0.015097092827477832, "content": "A wide spectrum of variations can occur in type IIIb esophageal atresia and distal tracheoesophageal fistula [EA-TEF] (Kluth D. Atlas of esophageal atresia. J Pediatr Surg 1976; 11 (6):901-19). The aim of this study was to evaluate the variant anatomy of subtype IIIb4 EA-TEF and its therapeutic implications. We performed a retrospective review of 4 patients of this variant subtype within a series of 259 esophageal atresias, managed over a study period of three years, at our institution. The diagnosis was made at thoracotomy. The overlapping upper and lower esophageal pouches, initially, gave a false impression of esophageal continuity. The long TEF coursed parallel in proximity to the upper pouch (UP) and the trachea needing meticulous dissection. The TEF measured 8-10mm in diameter and was ligated and divided high on the trachea near the thoracic inlet. The patients were followed up by a contrast swallow, radioactive technetium-99m- sulfur colloid scan, echocardiography and bronchoscopy (if indicated). The mean birth weight and gestational age was 2250 g and 38 weeks respectively. The mean follow up was eighteen months (range 5-42 months). An associated anorectal malformation was present in two patients while none had associated congenital heart disease. The Waterston grading was A and B in one patient each and C in two patients. All the patients had muscular UP extending up-to the level of arch of azygous vein (T(3-4)). The lower esophageal pouch (LP) and the fistula extended high, near the thoracic inlet. Tracheal injury occurred in one patient, with thin LP, warranting postoperative elective ventilation. A postoperative barium swallow did not reveal anastomotic leak or stricture in any patient. Follow-up barium swallow showed long LP extending high up in the chest, up to clavicles in all four patients and redundancy of UP in case 1. Severe gastroesophageal reflux was present in two patients. Bronchoscopy revealed tracheomalacia in case 1. Three patients were thriving well at the last follow-up. One patient died at five months of age due to aspiration pneumonia. The knowledge of diagnostic and therapeutic implications of the variant subtype IIIb4 EA-TEF should be in the armamentarium of the treating surgeon to reduce pitfalls in its management." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_30099", "title": "Esophageal atresia", "score": 0.013784146137087314, "content": "Diagnosis This condition may be visible, after about 26 weeks, on an ultrasound. On antenatal USG, the finding of an absent or small stomach in the setting of polyhydramnios was considered a potential symptom of esophageal atresia. However, these findings have a low positive predictive value. The upper neck pouch sign is another sign that helps in the antenatal diagnosis of esophageal atresia and it may be detected soon after birth as the affected infant will be unable to swallow its own saliva. On plain X-ray, a feeding tube will not be seen pass through the esophagus and remain coiled in the upper oesophageal pouch. Classification This condition takes several different forms, often involving one or more fistulas connecting the trachea to the esophagus (tracheoesophageal fistula)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1089_21346", "title": "Dynamic esophageal patency assessment: an effective method for prenatally diagnosing esophageal atresia.", "score": 0.013235602094240838, "content": "Esophageal atresia is a major anomaly with a low prenatal detection rate. We propose a sonographic method termed dynamic esophageal patency assessment. This study aimed to assess the feasibility and performance of the dynamic esophageal patency assessment in a high-risk population. A prospective study was conducted in a single tertiary fetal ultrasound unit for 12 months. The study group included pregnant women referred for a targeted scan because of one or more of the following: (1) polyhydramnios; (2) small or absent stomach; (3) vertebral, anal atresia, cardiac, tracheoesophageal fistula, renal, and limb abnormalities; (4) first-degree relative with esophageal atresia; and (5) genetic mutation associated with esophageal atresia. In addition to dynamic esophageal patency assessment, a comprehensive anomaly scan was carried out. The fetal esophagus was observed during swallowing. Cases that demonstrated uninterrupted fluid propagation through the esophagus were classified as normal. Cases that demonstrated interrupted fluid propagation, with the formation of a pouch, were classified as abnormal. Cases with unclear visualization of the esophagus or cases that failed to demonstrate either fluid propagation or a pouch were classified as undetermined. Dynamic esophageal patency assessment results were compared with postnatal findings, considered \"gold standard.\" Test performance indices and intra- and interobserver agreements were calculated. For 12 months, 130 patients were recruited, and 132 fetuses were scanned. The median gestational age (interquartile range) at the time of scan was 31.4 weeks (29.0-35.3). Of 132 fetuses enrolled, 123 (93.2%) were normal, 8 (6%) were abnormal, and 1 (0.8%) was undetermined. Excluded from test performance analysis were 3 cases that were terminated without postmortem autopsy (1 was abnormal and 2 were normal), and a fourth case was excluded as it was classified as undetermined. The detection rate of esophageal atresia was 100%, with no false-positive or false-negative case. Sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values of the dynamic esophageal patency assessment were 100%. The Kappa coefficient was 1 for both inter- and intraobserver agreements (P&lt;.0001). The median time (interquartile range) required to complete the dynamic esophageal patency assessment was 6.00 minutes (3.00-13.25). The dynamic esophageal patency assessment is a feasible and highly effective method of ascertaining an intact esophagus and detecting esophageal atresia in suspected cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1043_1833", "title": "Care recommendations for the respiratory complications of esophageal atresia-tracheoesophageal fistula.", "score": 0.012792574656981436, "content": "Tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) with esophageal atresia (EA) is a common congenital anomaly that is associated with significant respiratory morbidity throughout life. The objective of this document is to provide a framework for the diagnosis and management of the respiratory complications that are associated with the condition. As there are no randomized controlled studies on the subject, a group of experts used a modification of the Rand Appropriateness Method to describe the various aspects of the condition in terms of their relative importance, and to rate the available diagnostic methods and therapeutic interventions on the basis of their appropriateness and necessity. Specific recommendations were formulated and reported as Level A, B, and C based on whether they were based on \"strong\", \"moderate\" or \"weak\" agreement. The tracheomalacia that exists in the site of the fistula was considered the main abnormality that predisposes to all other respiratory complications due to airway collapse and impaired clearance of secretions. Aspiration due to impaired airway protection reflexes is the main underlying contributing mechanism. Flexible bronchoscopy is the main diagnostic modality, aided by imaging modalities, especially CT scans of the chest. Noninvasive positive airway pressure support, surgical techniques such as tracheopexy and rarely tracheostomy are required for the management of severe tracheomalacia. Regular long-term follow-up by a multidisciplinary team was considered imperative. Specific templates outlining the elements of the clinical respiratory evaluation according to the patients' age were also developed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0568_2926", "title": "Oesophageal atresia.", "score": 0.012570588690338053, "content": "Oesophageal atresia (OA) encompasses a group of congenital anomalies comprising of an interruption of the continuity of the oesophagus with or without a persistent communication with the trachea. In 86% of cases there is a distal tracheooesophageal fistula, in 7% there is no fistulous connection, while in 4% there is a tracheooesophageal fistula without atresia. OA occurs in 1 in 2500 live births. Infants with OA are unable to swallow saliva and are noted to have excessive salivation requiring repeated suctioning. Associated anomalies occur in 50% of cases, the majority involving one or more of the VACTERL association (vertebral, anorectal, cardiac, tracheooesophageal, renal and limb defects). The aetiology is largely unknown and is likely to be multifactorial, however, various clues have been uncovered in animal experiments particularly defects in the expression of the gene Sonic hedgehog (Shh). The vast majority of cases are sporadic and the recurrence risk for siblings is 1%. The diagnosis may be suspected prenatally by a small or absent stomach bubble on antenatal ultrasound scan at around 18 weeks gestation. The likelihood of an atresia is increased by the presence of polyhydramnios. A nasogastric tube should be passed at birth in all infants born to a mother with polyhydramnios as well as to infants who are excessively mucusy soon after delivery to establish or refute the diagnosis. In OA the tube will not progress beyond 10 cm from the mouth (confirmation is by plain X-ray of the chest and abdomen). Definitive management comprises disconnection of the tracheooesophageal fistula, closure of the tracheal defect and primary anastomosis of the oesophagus. Where there is a \"long gap\" between the ends of the oesophagus, delayed primary repair should be attempted. Only very rarely will an oesophageal replacement be required. Survival is directly related to birth weight and to the presence of a major cardiac defect. Infants weighing over 1500 g and having no major cardiac problem should have a near 100% survival, while the presence of one of the risk factors reduces survival to 80% and further to 30-50% in the presence of both risk factors." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_11319", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.011216917599622529, "content": "more difficult for the infant to breathe. This leads to further atelecta-sis, which compounds the pulmonary dysfunction. In patients with type C and D varieties, the regurgitated gastric juice passes through the fistula where it collects in the trachea and lungs and leads to a chemical pneumonitis, which further exacerbates the pulmonary status. In many instances, the diagnosis is actually made by the nursing staff who attempt to feed the baby and notice the accumulation of oral secretions.The diagnosis of esophageal atresia is confirmed by the inability to pass an orogastric tube into the stomach (Fig. 39-10). The dilated upper pouch may be occasionally seen on a plain chest radiograph. If a soft feeding tube is used, the tube will coil in the upper pouch, which provides further diagnostic cer-tainty. An important alternative diagnosis that must be consid-ered when an orogastric tube does not enter the stomach is that of an esophageal perforation. This problem can occur in infants" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en265_15852", "title": "Double aortic arch", "score": 0.011015300488984699, "content": "Diagnosis Prenatal diagnosis (fetal ultrasound): Today the diagnosis of double aortic arch can be obtained in-utero in experienced centers. Scheduled repair soon after birth in symptomatic patients can relieve tracheal compression early and therefore potentially prevent the development of severe tracheomalacia. Chest X-ray: Plain chest x-rays of patients with double aortic arch may appear normal (often) or show a dominant right aortic arch or two aortic arches . There might be evidence of tracheal deviation and/or compression. Sometimes patients present with radiologic findings of pneumonia." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_959", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.010304480787129372, "content": "Tracheoesophageal f stula Tract between the trachea and esophagus. Associated with defects such as esophageal atresia and VACTERL (Vertebral, Anal, Cardiac, Tracheal, Esophageal, Renal, Limb) anomalies. Presentation: Polyhydramnios in utero, ↑ oral secretions, inability to feed, gagging, aspiration pneumonia, respiratory distress. Diagnosis: CXR showing an NG tube coiled in the esophagus identifes esophageal atresia. The presence of air in the GI tract is suggestive; confrm with bronchoscopy. Treatment: Surgical repair. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia GI tract segments protrude through the diaphragm into the thorax; 90% are posterior left (Bochdalek). Presentation: Respiratory distress (from pulmonary hypoplasia and pulmonary hypertension); sunken abdomen; bowel sounds over the left hemithorax. Diagnosis: Ultrasound in utero; confrmed by postnatal CXR. Treatment: High-frequency ventilation or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation to manage pulmonary hypertension; surgical repair." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0747_9135", "title": "Perinatal outcome after ultrasound prenatal diagnosis of persistent right umbilical vein.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Our aim was to describe ultrasound findings and perinatal outcome after prenatal diagnosis of persistent right umbilical vein (PRUV). We performed a retrospective analysis of fetuses with an ultrasound-based prenatal diagnosis of PRUV on record at 2 tertiary centers in Madrid, Spain. We describe clinical, maternal, fetal and perinatal variables for all cases. A total of 20,426 fetuses were delivered between the study centers. We detected 22 cases (0.1%) of PRUV. The male-to-female ratio was 1:1. All cases were intrahepatic type and diagnosed during the second and third trimesters (median, 21 weeks; IQR, 20-29 weeks). Doppler ultrasound revealed normal flow in the ductus venosus in all cases. Nine fetuses (40.9%) had additional ultrasound anomalies but no chromosomal abnormalities. Cardiovascular malformations were the most frequently associated congenital anomalies (4/9), followed by neurological malformations (2/9). In 5 of the cases with no concomitant anomalies, the weight of the newborn was below the tenth percentile for gestational age. Gestational development was normal for the remaining newborns. Delivery was unremarkable, and post-natal evolution was favorable. Our results point to a potential association between PRUV and other fetal malformations and a very low rate of chromosomal abnormalities. Prenatal diagnosis of PRUV should be followed by detailed anatomical evaluation and echocardiography in order to rule out other structural malformations. The indication for a fetal karyotype study must be made on an individual basis considering PRUV type and other ultrasound findings." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0413_6570", "title": "[Prognosis assessment of esophageal atresia: our experience of 29 years].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The major advances in neonatal intensive care have made less useful the Waterston's criteria for esophageal atresia (EA) and/or tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF), and other prognostic classifications have been reported. The aim of this study was to determine the influence of various parameters on the outcome of EA-TEF. We reviewed 97 cases admitted in our hospital for 29 years. We divided the cases in two groups in relation to the improvement of our neonatal unit care during the years: 1st. 1971-1982 (n = 46); 2nd. 1983-1999 (n = 51). chi 2 squared test and logistic regression analysis of the influence of several parameters before surgical treatment (Waterston's and Spitz's birth weight groups, pneumonia, ventilator dependence, severity of associated anomalies and cardiac malformations) on mortality was performed. The survival rate increased since 1983, reaching 86.2% in the last 10 years, although the number of neonates with birth weight &lt; 1500 g has increased. Association with a major anomaly increased the mortality significantly in the 2nd. group only (45.5% major vs 7.1% minor and 8.3% none). The cardiac malformations were the most common, not only before 1983 (26.8%), but also since then (31.3%). When the neonate associated a major cardiac malformation the mortality was significantly higher in the 2nd. group (71.4%). The mortality, when pneumonia was present, was significantly higher before 1983 only (75% vs 32.4%), whereas the mortality was significantly increased by the need of ventilator in the 2nd. group only (85.7% vs 9.1%). Before 1983, the best prognostic parameters were the pneumonia and the severity of associated anomalies, whereas only the ventilator dependence was selected between 1983 and 1999. The EA-TEF mortality has decreased in the last years. The associated cardiac malformation is the most common. We think that the ventilator dependence is the most reliable prognostic risk factor, showing a poor physiologic status of the neonate." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0742_12388", "title": "Unusual presentation of sacrococcygeal teratomas and associated malformations in children: clinical experience and review of the literature.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Sacrococcygeal teratomas are the most common and best known extragonadal teratomas in neonates and infants, but they sometimes present unique, distinctive features unlike those commonly described, that can be considered exceptional and noteworthy. The Authors reviewed the most significant (Table I, II) clinical, laboratory, radiological and pathologic findings, surgical procedure, and early and long-term results in 5 children, 2 males and 3 females, suffering from sacrococcygeal teratomas. Four of 5 patients were observed and managed in the neonatal age. A prenatal diagnosis had already been made in 2 of them between the 2nd and 3rd trimester of pregnancy. Two patients were also suffering from the Currarino syndrome associated with Hirschsprung's disease and other, multiple malformations and a cloacal anomaly with anal imperforation, respectively. This last developmental anomaly had been prenatally suspected at US scanning, which had demonstrated a severe sacral anomaly and a large abdominal mass with perineal extension and dilated bowel loops. All the infants were born by scheduled caesarean section in a tertiary care hospital and were then referred to the N.I.C.Us. because of a mostly acute clinical presentation, except for case N°4, who was referred at the age of 3.3 years. Laboratory and radiologic investigations confirmed the clinical diagnosis of teratoma on the basis of elevated AFP values and imaging findings. All patients underwent emergency surgical management, in accordance with recommended practice, consisting of complete exeresis of the tumor, including coccygectomy, in 3 of the 5 children. Of the 5 patients, the female newborn affected by the Currarino syndrome, associated with persistence of the common cloacal canal and anal imperforation, died two days after surgery, of cardiovascular and respiratory complications. All the other patients had an uneventful postoperative course. Two years after the first exeresis at birth, relapse was observed in case N° 3, with a malignant component, YST, anticipated by elevated AFP values but negative physical signs and a benign cystic imaging pattern. After adjuvant chemotherapy she underwent a second complete exeresis. So far, 3 years after the second surgery and 5 years after the diagnosis and first treatment, no local recurrence or distant metastases have occurred. The other 3 patients are also all alive, disease-free and with no signs of relapse or distant metastasis, after a follow-up ranging from 2 years to 28 years. None of the 3 cases treated for sacrococcygeal teratoma, operated in 1985, 1984 and 2006, have ever developed functional sequelae such as ano-rectal and/or bladder dysfunction or hypotonia of the lower limbs. From this review of our selected cases and in the light of literature reports, we can draw the following conclusions. Some sacrococcygeal teratomas may have unique characteristics distinguishing them from more common cases, especially those included in the Currarino Syndrome, with or without an association with other malformations such as Hirschsprung's Disease and Cloacal anomalies. Being congenital tumors, prenatal diagnosis by US scan is extremely important in order to decide either for an anticipated delivery or to perform, in critical fetuses, prenatal treatment within highly specialized facilities, or to organize proper perinatal care, always in appropriate facilities where it is possible to define the diagnosis and carry out emergency surgery. An emergency procedure is frequently dictated both by complications related to the mass effect, and by the need to define the histology of the whole mass rather than just small biopsy specimens. Some sacrococcygeal teratomas can hide more or less extensive islands of immaturity or signs of malignant transformation that are clinically evident. The prognosis is generally benign, although AIEOP (Associazione Italiana Ematologia Oncologica Pediatrica) 2004 guidelines pointed out that high levels of circulating markers, including AFP, in children affected by mature or immature teratomas would indicate the presence of micro-foci of YST, marking them out as at high risk. The UKCCSG II (Children UK Cancer Study Group) and the SFOP (Société Française d'Oncologie Pédiatrique) indicated AFP values exceeding 10,000 ng / ml as the threshold identifying a group of patients with severe prognosis. The treatment indicated is early, complete exeresis, followed by a careful, extensive microscopic examination associated, if necessary, with adjuvant chemotherapy, that is indicated before surgery only in infiltrating primary malignant teratomas. Sacrococcygeal teratomas are commonly considered as lesions at particular risk, in which the coccyx must always be removed together with the mass and overlying skin, taking particular care of the deep pelvic fascia to prevent functional disorders of the bladder and anal canal, as well as any motor alterations of the lower limbs, usually due to iatrogenic lesions of the subfascial nerve structures. There is a ananimous consensus that to improve the prognosis, close, long-term clinical, laboratory and imaging surveillance is essential at shorter intervals during the first 5 years after the exeresis and annually thereafter. In newborns or infants suffering from congenital malformations associated with teratomas, definitive surgical correction, if indicated, must obviously be postponed to a proper time, especially in patients with multiple malformations or needing adjuvant chemotherapy, unless a complication arises or the repair cannot be delayed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0998_12195", "title": "Aspiration After Congenital Heart Surgery.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Dysphagia and vocal cord dysfunction are frequent complications after congenital heart surgery. Both are risk factors for aspiration, which can lead to pneumonia, progressive lung disease, and respiratory arrest. A protocol was implemented to promote early detection of aspiration in a high-risk cohort of patients. Retrospective data were collected on all patients under 120 days old who underwent the Norwood procedure, aortic arch repair, Blalock-Taussig shunt placement, or cervical cannulation for extracorporeal membrane oxygenation from 10/2012 to 05/2016 at a single institution. Patients underwent an assessment of symptoms, fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing (FEES), and modified barium swallow (MBS) study in the postoperative period prior to initiating oral feeds. Patients with and without aspiration were compared. Of the 96 patients included in the study, one-third (33%) of patients had evidence of vocal cord dysfunction by FEES and just over half (51%) had evidence of aspiration by FEES or MBS. Most (73%) of the patients with aspiration were asymptomatic and a majority (53%) of patients with aspiration had normal vocal cord function. Aspiration is common after congenital heart surgery, and an assessment of vocal cord or swallow function in isolation may lead to underdiagnosis. A comprehensive protocol including MBS and FEES is necessary for the early detection of vocal cord dysfunction and aspiration and may prevent adverse outcomes in high-risk postoperative patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en032_56991", "title": "Tracheoesophageal fistula", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "TEF can also occur due to pressure necrosis by a tracheostomy tube in apposition to a nasogastric tube (NGT). Diagnosis TEF should be suspected once the baby fails to swallow after their first feeding during the first day of life. Esophageal atresia can be diagnosed by Ryle nasogastric tube; if the Ryle fails to pass into the stomach, then this indicates esophageal atresia and loss of communication between stomach and esophagus. TEF may be diagnosed by MRI which clarifies the atretic esophagus (if presents) and TEF, as well as its location and anatomy. Gastrograffin contrast swallow should not be used if TEF is suspected, due to its high risk of allergy and severe intractable chest infection. Classification Fistulae between the trachea and esophagus in the newborn can be of diverse morphology and anatomical location. However, various pediatric surgical publications have attempted a classification system based on the below specified types." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0402_13470", "title": "Bronchoscopy in newborns with esophageal atresia.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The aim was to evaluate the influence of rigid laryngotracheo-bronchoscopy in newborns with oesophageal atresia (OA) and tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF) in preventing complications, improving diagnosis and surgical treatment. Among 76 consecutive newborns, received in the Paediatric Intensive Care Unit (PICU) from January 1990 to September 2001 with prenatal o perinatal suspected OA, forty-five had one or more other congenital anomalies. They were divided in I Montreal's risk group for 73.7% (56) and in the II one for 26.3% (20). Endoscopic procedure was performed in the operating room with Storz's rigid ventilating bronchoscope just before surgery, in all babies. With bronchoscopic examination we were able to identify the level, number and size of TOF and to visualise anatomical variants in 76 children. 15 children with OA had a gasless abdomen, but an upper pouch fistula was found only in three cases. In another four cases bronchoscopy confirmed the diagnosis of an \"H\" fistula and cervical surgical approach was established. One case had only oesophageal stenosis. 56 patients had fistula in lower pouch and in the last 38 cases we proceeded with selective transtracheal fistula incannulation and then we provided gastric drainage. One quadriforcation, 2 triforcations, 3 aberrant right upper lobe bronchi, 1 congential subglottic stenosis and 1 associated with a congenital subglottic stenosis and 1 left main bronchus agenesia were detected. No complications were correlated to the procedure and no babies had early pneumonia. Continuous feeding was achieved in 70 out of 76 patients: 46 primary anastomosis with 12 staged repairs (OA I and II type long gap), 4 resections of TEF, 8 oesophagocoloplasty. Nine babies (11.8%) did not survive. Clinical follow-up was possible in all the survivors. Mortality rate in the high-risk patients with OA remains high because of the many complications that may occur. Tracheal endoscopy is useful in improving the diagnostic approach and to prevent pulmonary complications. Fistula incannulation minimizes the risk of gastric distension and its detrimental effect on ventilation, helping the surgeon to identify TEF easily and quickly. Moreover, the endoscopic approach offers obvious advantages for the anaesthesiologist and the surgeon and has proven, in our experience, to be effective." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0620_21625", "title": "[A rare case of esophageal atresia type I].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "An extremely rare case of type A esophageal atresia is reported. The baby girl patient born spontaneously after a 38-week pregnancy, was diagnosed prenatally with suspected type A esophageal atresia. Diagnosis was confirmed at birth by chest and abdominal X-ray. As per protocol, a naso-esophageal tube was positioned in aspiration and a Stamm gastrostomy made for nutritional purposes. Evaluation of the distance between blind pouches at one month of life showed they were overlapping. At intervention the pouches were found to be united by a fibrous bridge about 1.5 cm long. Anastomosis was carried out with ease. The postoperative course was trouble-free. On the X day the baby girl was being fed completely per os. Histolo-gical examination of the fibrous residue excluded the presence of a mucosa-lined lumen. X-ray examination of the esophageal-gastric passage, one month after the operation, showed the smooth transit of the contrast medium and an adequate anastomotic lumen. At follow-up, at the age of 9 months, the baby was growing normally and being fed per os with a diet appropriate for her age; no oesophageal dilatation was necessary. Type A oesophageal atresias are long-gap forms: they are treated with direct anastomosis after the blind pouches come together spontaneously in the first four months of life. Stress is laid on the rarity of the case. According to Kluth's classification of 1976, this form was described by Mason in 1855 and Jlott in 1905 on the basis of autopsy findings. A review of the literature did not show any similar clinical cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0930_13207", "title": "Esophageal atresia with distal fistula - unusual case series. Considerations related to epidemiological aspects, malformative associations, and prenatal diagnosis.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Esophageal atresia (EA) is the most frequent and severe congenital anomaly of the esophagus, occurring in 1:2500-1:4500 live births. Five types of EA have been described, EA with tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) being the most frequent. The aim of this paper is to evaluate epidemiological aspects, malformative associations, and prenatal diagnosis in an unusual case series of EA with distal TEF. The authors are analyzing a series of seven cases of EA with distal TEF. The seven cases of EA with TEF presented occurred during a period of two years, resulting in an unusually increased rate - 1.1:1000 live births. Except a late suspicion of EA (one day before delivery), EA was not diagnosed during prenatal scans despite association with polyhydramnios in two cases and single umbilical artery in four cases. None of the two cases of unilateral renal agenesis or anorectal malformations were diagnosed on prenatal ultrasound scans. In two of the cases, EA was part of VACTERL (vertebral defects, anorectal malformations, heart defects, EA with or without TEF, renal anomalies/dysplasia, and limb defects) association. Despite lack of prenatal diagnosis, postnatal diagnosis of EA was suspected at birth in four cases, at two hours in one case. An increased index of suspicion for congenital structural defects, particularly for EA, should be maintained in the presence of a single umbilical artery and÷or polyhydramnios on prenatal ultrasound scan. Prenatal diagnosis of EA offers the chance for parental counseling, planned birth and transfer for corrective surgery and decreases the risk for postnatal aspiration pneumonia associated with early feedings." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1142_17626", "title": "Unusual Cause of Respiratory Distress in a Term Neonate.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "<bBackground:</b Respiratory distress is a clinical finding often seen in neonates. Common causes of respiratory distress in this population include respiratory distress syndrome, transient tachypnea of the newborn, infection, aspiration, and cardiac etiologies. We present the case of a neonate who presented with respiratory distress with no identifiable cause on initial workup. The patient was eventually found to have a variant of a genetic mutation that predisposed the infant to this presentation. <bCase Report:</b A term male infant born via spontaneous vaginal delivery was admitted to the pediatric service at 3 weeks of age because of tachypnea. Chest x-ray showed perihilar infiltrates. Septic screen, thyroid function test, sweat test, echocardiogram, intracranial ultrasound, and modified barium swallow were normal. Computed tomography scan of the chest showed ground glass opacities in the upper and lower lobes. Airway evaluation showed no evidence of obstruction or anatomic abnormalities. Bronchoscopy showed no masses or tracheomalacia. Bronchoalveolar lavage was negative for infection. The infant was treated with intravenous antibiotics, steroids, and furosemide but continued to be tachypneic and required supplemental oxygen. Genetic studies were obtained to assess for surfactant deficiencies, and the patient was transferred to another center for a higher level of care. Genetic evaluation was positive for NKX2.1 variance mutation C.190C. The patient's symptoms improved, and he was weaned to room air by 3 months of age. <bConclusion:</b When evaluating a child with unexplained pulmonary disease, clinicians should have a high index of suspicion for interstitial lung disease including surfactant protein mutations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0090_788", "title": "[Antenatal diagnosis of lung malformations. Apropos of 9 case reports].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The authors report 9 cases of prenatal diagnosis of lung malformations. The diagnoses was performed between 17 to 33 weeks amenorrhea (mean = 25.5 weeks). The clinical findings were: 7 cystic adenomatoid malformations of the lung, 1 intralobar sequestration and 1 bronchogenic cyst associated with extralobar sequestration and esophageal duplication. In two cases of cystic adenomatoid malformation of the lung with polyhydramnios and fetal hydrops death occurred at 27 and 32 weeks amenorrhea. In the seven other cases surgery was performed shortly after birth, before any serious complications occurred. No problems were encountered following the surgical intervention and the remaining lung inflated after a few days. All these children are currently alive and well, without pulmonary or thoracic disorder. The authors first explain the echographic findings in each malformation and later discuss the sonographic criteria of the diagnoses. The antenatal diagnosis permits early recognition and thus adequate management using a team of neonatologists, radiologists and pediatric surgeons. This type management involves: --normal vaginal delivery if there are no obstetrical problems; --if it is possible, artificial ventilation should be avoided as it may increase respiratory distress. If however, it is necessary, the healthy lung should be intubated; --the surgical procedure should be performed as soon as possible, before complications as respiratory distress or recurring pulmonary infections occur; --the major risk of this surgery is respiratory and heart failure when the child is placed in the operating position. A rapid thoracotomy permits the extraction of the compressed lung and the resuscitation of the patient." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en397_28571", "title": "Transmediastinal gunshot wound", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Previously every stable patient that suffered a TMGSW received extensive evaluation that included chest radiography, oesophagography, esophagoscopy, angiography, bronchoscopy, cardiac ultrasound. Grossman et al. found evidence that the trajectory of the bullet can be delineated with the use of Computed Tomographic Scan (CT). Subsequently other studies demonstrated the use of CT as a screening tool for stable patients who suffered TMGSW is a reliable tool for ruling out, diagnosing and avoiding missed injuries. For example Stassen et al. showed data of 22 stable patients who were screened with CT, chest x ray and abdominal ultrasound; seven patients showed a positive CT scan and required additional evaluation, and of these seven patients, three required surgical management. Additionally the work of Burack et al., whose evaluation of stable patients with penetrating injuries to the mediastinum — this time including stab wounds — relied mostly on CT and ultrasound, showed similar" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0273_20207", "title": "Recent evaluation of prognostic risk factors in esophageal atresia--a multicenter review of 223 cases.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In this study, 223 cases of esophageal atresia (Type IIIb: 85.7%; Type II: 5.8%; Type IIIc: 4.0%; Type IIIa: 2.2%; Type IV: 2.2%) from 6 pediatric surgery centers of Austria, were retrospectively examined for the following parameters and their influence on the prognosis: Birth weight (2494.7 +/- 702.0 g), gestation week (range 27-42 weeks; mean 37.3 +/- 3.1 weeks), sex (male: n = 128; female: n = 95), long-gap atresia (&gt; or = 2 cm: n = 33), Tracheomalacia (n = 16), associated malformations (n = 122; cardiac 27.4%, renal 17.9%, skeletal 17.0%, anal: 10.3%, intestinal 9.9%, mediastinal 7.6%, chromosomal 2.2%), preoperative aspiration (n = 92), pneumonia (n = 96), anastomotic insufficiency (n = 45), empyema (n = 5), mediastinitis (n = 8), sepsis (n = 32), other medical complications (n = 122, in 80 infants), other surgical complications (n = 57). The mortality rate was 41.3% overall, from 1975 to 1991; however, it was 25% from 1987 to 1991 and 0% in 1991. A statistically significant correlation was found between prognosis and the following factors: Cardiac malformations (p = 0.0001), medical complications except aspiration and pneumonia (p = 0.0001), empyema (p = 0.0081), mediastinitis (p = 0.0214), and sepsis (p = 0.0295). These 5 significant factors were given different points and a prognostic score was calculated by the addition of these points. This score was predictive for survival in 90.6% of cases and for mortality in 94% of cases.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0363_18157", "title": "[Prenatal diagnosis of skeletal dysplasia: case report of a fetus with multiple anomalies].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Skeletal anomalies are in the group of anomalies most difficult to be diagnosed antenatally. But, because of high lethality and morbidity rate as well as high possibility to be found again in the next pregnancy, they need to be systematically and actively looked for during every scan. A pregnant woman, aged 18, primigravida, was admitted to the Dept. of Obstetrics and Gynaecology because of polyhydramnios and suspected multiple fetal malformations. Fetal biparietal diameter and abdominal circumference were adequate for 33 weeks gestation, whereas all the long bones were short for the gestational age. A detailed ultrasound morphology check was impossible because of the excessive amount of amniotic fluid, but the skull, brain, lungs, spine and abdomen appeared normal. There was an impression of frontal bossing and left-sided cleft lip. A thoraco-abdominal disproportion was evident. All the extremities were short, feet were normal, and hands were not extended during the whole scan. The woman underwent an uneventful amino-drainage and three days after that she ruptured the membranes, giving birth to a live female, 2150 gr, 46 cm, Apgar score 6/7. The anomalies seen on ultrasound were confirmed after birth. After a series of dyspnea the neonate was transferred to the Dept. of Paediatrics where it underwent a series of further extensive diagnostic procedures and 37 days after birth it passed away. Postmortem examination led to the following diagnoses: Neonatus femininus eutrophicus temporis aetatis. Defectus partis memebranacei septi interventricularis. Ductus arteriosus Botalli persistence. Hypoplasia thymi. Cheliognathopalatoschisis. Low set ears. Extremitates breves. Atelectasis subtotalis pulmonis bilateralis. Foramen ovale apertum cum valvula competent. Oedema cerebri gradus maioris. Majority of fetal skeletal malformations can be relatively easily visualised during ultrasound scans and hence ultrasound is the most sensitive way of prenatal diagnosis of these anomalies. Maternal habitus, fetal position, alteration of amniotic fluid volume and gestational age can be factors that may aggravate check-ups. A prerogative for an early prenatal diagnosis of fetal skeletal anomalies is a well organized scan of each and every fetus that checks all bones, starting with the skull and finishing with hands and feet. Should an anomaly be found an extensive detailed scan by an expert should be performed, as well as karyotyping and a consultation with pediatrician/surgeon. In case of a lethal anomaly, an option of pregnancy termination should be considered and if the parents decide against it, the pregnancy should be closely monitored, with parents fully counseled about the prognosis for the child. In this case the anomaly was noted only after the 30th week of gestation and even then only because the patient came because she had some subjective difficulties because of the excessive amniotic fluid volume. On the other hand, some skeletal dysplasias can be diagnosed only in the late second, early third trimester and sometimes stay unnoticed until the end of pregnancy. This case could not be resolved definitely, for the anomalies were conclusive neither of a specific genetic syndrome, nor of an isolated skeletal dysplasia. Extensive further examination of parents as well as their families is needed in order to be able to give some information about the risks in the next pregnancy. Although skeletal anomalies are extremely difficult to diagnose antenatally, a detailed scan of a complete fetal anatomy between 20 and 32 gestational weeks with special attention given to the entire skeleton, gives certain assurance of excluding majority of major skeletal dysplasias or enables their diagnosis and further adequate plan for pregnancy management." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0120_11047", "title": "Tracheoesophageal anomalies in Waterston C neonates: a 30-year perspective.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Two hundred and seventy-eight infants with congenital tracheoesophageal anomalies have been managed at the Columbus Children's Hospital since 1955. Fifty-four (20%) have been classified as high risk using Waterston's criteria of birth weight, associated anomalies, and pneumonitis. The infants have been divided into group I (n = 27, 1955 to 1969) and group II (n = 27, 1970 to 1984) to reflect the onset of mechanical ventilation and effective neonatal intensive care. The mean birth weight of infants in group II was significantly less than in group I (1,753 +/- 390 g v 1,950 +/- 505 g, P less than .05). The incidence of prematurity, measured by gestational age, has significantly increased with 9 of 27 (33%) infants in group II and 2 of 27 (7%) infants in group I less than 32 weeks gestation (P less than .05). The presence or severity of associated anomalies was not significantly different in groups I and II. Twenty patients in group I and 22 patients in group II underwent definitive management of their tracheoesophageal anomaly. Operative survival was 30% in group I and 74% in group II (P less than .05). Long-term survival was 15% in group I and 64% in group II (P less than .05). Early postoperative complications included aspiration pneumonitis, anastomotic leak, or stricture. The most frequent complications in long-term follow-up were recurrent pneumonias, which were observed in 9 of 16 children. Esophageal dysmotility or gastroesophageal reflux was documented in five of these children; four were managed successfully with positional or pharmacologic manipulations while one required an antireflux procedure. Thirty percent (5/16) are asymptomatic.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_30098", "title": "Esophageal atresia", "score": 0.009202195018995357, "content": "This birth defect arises in the fourth fetal week, when the trachea and esophagus should begin to separate from each other. It can be associated with disorders of the tracheoesophageal septum. Complications Any attempt at feeding could cause aspiration pneumonia as the milk collects in the blind pouch and overflows into the trachea and lungs. Furthermore, a fistula between the lower esophagus and trachea may allow stomach acid to flow into the lungs and cause damage. Because of these dangers, the condition must be treated as soon as possible after birth. Associated birth defects Other birth defects may co-exist, particularly in the heart, but sometimes also in the anus, spinal column, or kidneys. This is known as VACTERL association because of the involvement of Vertebral column, Anorectal, Cardiac, Tracheal, Esophageal, Renal, and Limbs. It is associated with polyhydramnios in the third trimester." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en099_51694", "title": "Acute abdomen", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Workup Stable patients presenting to A&E (accident and emergency department) or ER (emergency room) with severe abdominal pain will almost always have an abdominal x-ray and/or a CT scan. These tests can provide a differential diagnosis between simple and complex pathologies. However, in the unstable patient, fluid resuscitation and a FAST-ultrasound are done first, and if the latter is positive for free fluid, straight to surgery. They may also provide evidence to the doctor whether surgical intervention is necessary. Patients will also most likely receive a complete blood count (or full blood count in the U.K.), looking for characteristic findings such as neutrophilia in appendicitis. Traditionally, the use of opiates or other painkillers in patients with an acute abdomen has been discouraged before the clinical examination, because these would alter the examination. However, the scientific literature does not reveal any negative results from these alterations. References" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0507_8588", "title": "[Results of treatment of esophageal atresia].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The aim of the study was to analyze morality, incidence of complications and influence of various prognostic factors on the outcome of patients with esophageal atresia. A retrospective analysis of the records of 109 consecutive cases of esophageal atresia and/or tracheoesophageal fistula operated in 1992-2001 was undertaken. Primary anastomosis was achieved in 68 (62.4%) patients, in 7 (6.4%) procedures aimed at esophageal substitution in future were performed and in 34 (31.2%) delayed anastomosis was primarily planned. Major associated anomalies were found in 55 (50.4%), cardiac anomalies in 19 (17.4%), and more than one associates anomaly in 16 (14.7%) patients. The most frequent surgical complication was anastomotic leak in 11.9%, septic complications were the most frequent and occurred in 66 (60.5%) patients. Gastroesophageal reflux was diagnosed in 30.3% and treated surgically in 14.7% of infants. The overall mortality was 20.2% (22 patients). The most frequent cause of death was sepsis and/or pneumonia. Long gap esophageal atresia was not found to be a significant factor in mortality. Factors significantly increasing mortality were birth weight below 2000g (OR 3.94), cardiac anomalies (OR 3.95), and mechanical ventilation before the operation (OR 2.97). Analysis of the outcome suggests that improved strategy in treating infants with multiple anomalies and more frequent attempts at primary anastomosis even in children in sub optimal general condition at diagnosis could decrease mortality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0257_9237", "title": "Unconventional treatment of neuroenteric cyst in a newborn.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Neuroenteric cysts are uncommon congenital malformations that can require early surgical treatment. The authors report on an unusual treatment of a very large neuroenteric cyst that involved most of the small bowel and extended into the chest. A 1-day-old boy was admitted because of abdominal distension. The prenatal ultrasound results at 8 and 36 weeks had been normal. Examination showed right upper quadrant fullness and mild respiratory distress. A malformed sternum and asymmetric upper thoracic vertebra were seen on the initial x-rays. The possibility of a midthoracic right paravertebral mass was raised. Abdominal ultrasound findings were consistent with a large bowel duplication cyst. Laboratory results were all normal except the bilirubin level, which was (59 mmol/L). During laparotomy, the second part of the duodenum was found to enter a dilated cyst, and the terminal ileum arose from the cyst. The total length of the intact small bowel was 20 cm including a competent ileocecal valve. The site of the biliary duct entering the cyst was not clear. The surgical procedure involved partial resection of the anterior wall of the cyst, creation of an enteric tube from the posterior cyst wall to communicate between the duodenum and the ileum, and addition of another 25 cm of length to the small bowel. An enterocutaneous fistula was created with the proximal portion of the cyst because the site of the papilla of Vater was suspected to enter this part of the cyst. A postoperative HIDA scan showed good uptake with no excretion into the gut or the proximal pouch.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0879_19538", "title": "A Case of the TOF with APV Complicated with Polyhydramnios and Severe Bronchomalacia.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Absent pulmonary valve syndrome (APVS) is a rare congenital heart disease with severe pulmonary insufficiency, characterized with aneurysmal dilation in the pulmonary artery and one or both of its branches. We presented a rare case with APVS and literature review in this letter. Prenatal USG examination of the fetus at the 26th week of gestation revealed severe polyhydramnios, dilatation at right ventricle, and abnormal appearance of the heart. At the 31st gestational week, the baby was born with cesarean section. The newborn had right heart failure but had no hydrops fetalis. Therefore, severe respiratory distress observed in the infant has been associated with pulmonary complications. The infant, who had respiratory acidosis according to blood gas analysis, was intubated and attached to mechanical ventilator. Despite progressively increased respiratory support and other interventions, the infant died on the 3rd day of admission. Compression against bronchial tree and esophagus due to dilated pulmonary artery and its branches may inevitably lead to bronchomalacia and polyhydramnios. In conclusion, presence of polyhydramnios and the possibility of severe bronchomalacia should be kept in mind; and due to the risk of early neonatal mortality, delivery should be performed in a center where pediatric heart surgery is available. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0320_9661", "title": "Congenital malformations presenting during the neonatal period.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Discharge of the newborn within 24 to 48 hours after birth makes it more difficult to detect some congenital malformations and increases the need for careful examination and review of the history of the pregnancy, delivery, and nursery course. Progressive physiologic changes after birth, especially in the cardiovascular system, precede the development of signs indicative of disease for certain congenital malformations. Discharge before these changes occur may delay their detection because the newborn is not being monitored by medical or nursing caregivers. The AAP Committee on the Fetus and Newborn has published guidelines for criteria for safe discharge and follow-up evaluation to help create a safe situation for such early discharges. Some specific observations at birth may lead to earlier diagnosis. Careful attention to subtle differences between the initial and follow-up examination, such as a changing cardiac murmur or quality of pulses or abdominal fullness, may provide clues to the diagnosis of congenital malformations. Coordinated suck and swallow with successful feeding and passage of stool and urine within 24 hours after birth should occur before discharge. Reports of feeding difficulties should be reviewed. Although a thorough examination is facilitated by a sleeping infant, documentation of a normal pitched cry helps in the evaluation of the upper airway. Parents should be counseled about signs of illness that warrant medical attention, and early follow-up is needed to detect problems early enough to intervene effectively. In addition, although passage of a feeding tube through each nare and to the stomach with aspiration and measurement of gastric volume is not a routine procedure in the well, term newborn, this may be a useful early diagnostic tool in infants with signs or a maternal or nursery history suggestive of nasal or GI obstruction." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en221_30114", "title": "Abdominal trauma", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Diagnosis Ten percent of people with polytrauma who had no signs of abdominal injury did have evidence of such injuries using radiological imaging. Diagnostic techniques used include CT scanning, ultrasound, and X-ray. X-ray can help determine the path of a penetrating object and locate any foreign matter left in the wound, but may not be helpful in blunt trauma. Diagnostic laparoscopy or exploratory laparotomy may also be performed if other diagnostic methods do not yield conclusive results. Ultrasound Ultrasound can detect fluid such as blood or gastrointestinal contents in the abdominal cavity, and it is a noninvasive procedure and relatively safe. CT scanning is the preferred technique for people who are not at immediate risk of shock, but since ultrasound can be performed right in an emergency room, the latter is recommended for people who are not stable enough to move to CT scanning. A normal ultrasound does not rule out all injuries." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 181, 255 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 28, 38 ] ], "text": "Remember that activated charcoal is NOT indicated in lithium intoxication." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 180 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 28 ] ], "text": "We are dealing with a case of severe lithium intoxication (lithemia > 3.5 mEq/L is life threatening), therefore, the therapeutic option of choice is to start hemodialysis urgently." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Aminophylline associated with a cathartic.", "2": "Activated charcoal.", "3": "Hemodialysis.", "4": "Forced diuresis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0522_8152", "title": "[Acute intoxication with sustained-release lithium carbonate tablets. A propos of a case].", "score": 0.019232547387887194, "content": "To describe the case of a patient who ingested 50 sustained release lithium carbonate 400 mg tablets, and reached a late peak concentration above 3 mEq/L. A 32-year-old male with bipolar mood disorder ingested 50 sustained-release lithium carbonate tablets. Upon admission to the emergency room, a gastric wash was performed,from which several tablet remnants were obtained, as well as an intestinal lavage using activated carbon. good general status, no fever, blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg, no edemas. Neurologic, pulmonary, and cardiac examinations were normal. CBC and the chemistry panel were normal. The patient's psychopathological examination suggested a stable status with no apparent manifestations arising from a decompensated mood disorder. Five hours after his massive lithium ingestion the drug's plasma levels were 0.75 mEq/L. At 22 hours post-ingestion a chemistry panel was obtained, which showed serum creatinin at 1.38 mg/dL and a lithium plasma concentration of 3.15 mEq/L. A hemodyalisis trial was attempted for 4 hours. At 73 hours post-ingestion, lithium plasma levels were 0.6 mEq/L, that is, within therapeutic range. The patient was hemodynamically stable and serial blood tests were normal; he was discharged. Acute lithium intoxication with plasma levels above 3 mEq/l can be fatal or result in irreversible neurologicsequelae in almost one third of cases, with persistent cerebellar dysfunction in association with dementia of variable degree, andrenal, blood, and liver disturbances. Sustained-release tablets may prolong absorption and delay peak plasma concentrations. In such cases, therefore, it is recommended that drug plasma concentrations be monitored during 48-72 hours post-ingestion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0968_28", "title": "Lithium intoxication presenting as altered consciousness and arrhythmia with cardiogenic shock: A case report.", "score": 0.018350930115636, "content": "Lithium has been used to treat bipolar disorder. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index, with a therapeutic level between 0.6 and 1.5 mEq/L. The possible complications of lithium overdose include altered mental status, hand tremor, muscle weakness, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, seizure, syncope, and arrhythmia. Lithium intoxication can be fatal and is difficult to diagnose in patients without a history of lithium intake. The occurrence of serious cardiac arrhythmias is rare in lithium intoxication. An 81-year-old man was brought to the emergency department because of consciousness disturbance for 2 days. According to his daughter, he had a history of hypertension and diabetes. Recently, his family also observed slurring of speech and easy choking. The physical examination findings were unremarkable. Blood examination only revealed impaired renal function. Twelve-lead electrocardiography revealed sinus rhythm with first-degree atrioventricular block. Chest radiography revealed mediastinal widening. The blood pressures obtained from the 4 limbs showed no significant differences. Subsequently, brain computed tomography revealed no obvious intracranial lesion. A neurologist was consulted, and a recent ischemic stroke could not be ruled out. While in the observation area, his systolic blood pressure decreased to &lt;90 mm Hg and he showed bradycardia, and 12-lead electrocardiography revealed an AV block and long pulse. Contrast-enhanced chest computed tomography revealed no evidence of aortic dissection. Another family member reported a history of lithium intake for bipolar disorder for &gt;30 years. Blood examination revealed a lithium concentration of 2.65 mEq/L. A nephrologist was consulted, and emergency hemodialysis was indicated. Dopamine was administered for his shock status via a right neck central venous catheter. His lithium level gradually declined after the hemodialysis, and blood pressure and consciousness level improved subsequently. The patient was discharged 9 days later in a stable condition. If an emergency physician encounters a patient with altered consciousness and arrhythmia with cardiogenic shock, the patient's drug intake history should be carefully reviewed to rule out cardiovascular problems on the basis of the patient's clinical condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_22478", "title": "Prolonged neurological burden in severe lithium intoxication.", "score": 0.01778827233372688, "content": "A 53-year-old woman was brought to the Emergency Department for a persistent state of stupor, tremors, fever and oliguria. The patient had been under treatment for depression. The electrocardiogram showed a wider QRS complex; laboratory tests were as follows: urea 110 mg/dL, creatinine 3 mg/dL, sodium 135 mEq/L, potassium 4.5 mEq/L, and lithium 8.0 mEq/L. Renal replacement was initiated to normalize plasma lithium levels; both stupor and speech impairment persisted for several days after dialysis. Complete recovery was achieved several days afterwards." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0691_20683", "title": "[Difficulty in determining when to end continuous hemodialysis for lithium intoxication: case report].", "score": 0.016677089847821555, "content": "The patient was a 26-year-old woman who ingested a total of 230 tablets, including 160 lithium carbonate tablets (200 mg), in a suicide attempt, and was brought to our hospital 5 hr later. After arriving at the hospital, her only complaint was mild nausea, and no neurological abnormalities or renal dysfunction was observed. We were unable to learn the blood concentration of lithium immediately. A forced diuresis was performed after admission, but the nausea persisted. Continuous hemodialysis (CHD) was performed for 23.5 hr starting 19 hr after ingesting the tablets because the patient had ingested a large amount of lithium carbonate, 32,000 mg. Since the nausea resolved after the CHD was started and no manifestations of lithium intoxication had developed as of 91 hr after ingestion, the patient was discharged. The blood lithium concentrations (mEq/L) revealed at a later date showed that the concentration 5 hr (at the time of the initial examination), 19 hr (start of CHD), 44.5 hr (end of CHD), and 91 hr after ingestion (at the time of discharge) was 4.08, 3.30, 1.09, and 0.38, respectively. Blood purification is said to be effective in treating serious lithium intoxication, but it is difficult to judge when to stop. A favorable outcome of treatment of acute lithium intoxication in a patient with normal renal function appears to have been achieved by performing CHD guided by the clinical manifestations, intravascular redistribution times, etc." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0743_22851", "title": "Lithium toxicity precipitated by thyrotoxicosis due to silent thyroiditis: cardiac arrest, quadriplegia, and coma.", "score": 0.016196721311475412, "content": "Lithium is widely used to treat bipolar disorders. Lithium toxicity is generally caused by inappropriately high doses of lithium or impaired lithium excretion. Most lithium is eliminated via the kidneys and, since thyroid hormone increases tubular reabsorption of lithium, thyrotoxicosis could contribute to the development of lithium toxicity. We report a case of severe lithium toxicity that was apparently precipitated by the onset of thyrotoxicosis resulting from silent thyroiditis and dehydration. The patient was a 64-year-old woman who was admitted for muscle weakness in the lower extremities, diarrhea, and palpitations. She had bipolar disorder and was being treated with lithium carbonate, which she discontinued one week before admission. Her circulating lithium levels had been monitored yearly. Early in her admission she was dehydrated and had febrile episodes, paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, and muscle weakness. Initially, fluid therapy was started, but she lost consciousness and had a cardiac arrest for 2 minutes due to prolonged sinus arrest. Chest compression and manual artificial ventilation were performed, and body surface pacing was started. Serum lithium was markedly elevated to 3.81 mEq/L (therapeutic range, 0.4-1.0 mEq/L), and thyroid hormone levels were increased (free triiodothyronine, 8.12 pg/mL; free thyroxine, 4.45 ng/dL), while thyrotropin (TSH) was suppressed (&lt;0.01 μIU/mL). Hemodialysis was performed, and a temporary pacemaker was inserted for severe sinus bradycardia. The serum thyroglobulin was 4680 ng/mL (reference range, &lt;32.7 ng/mL). A TSH receptor antibody test was negative. Glucocorticoid therapy and inorganic iodine (100 mg) were administered and continued until day 11. However, her neurological symptoms deteriorated with floppy quadriplegia and deep coma. She gradually recovered. On day 36, she was discharged without any neurological symptoms or thyrotoxicosis. A 64-year-old woman taking lithium for bipolar disorder developed lithium toxicity in the setting of what seemed likely to be a recent onset of thyrotoxicosis due to silent thyroiditis. Thyrotoxicosis may be a contributing cause of lithium toxicity, particularly if it is abrupt in onset and even with cessation of lithium therapy if renal function is compromised. Thyroid function should be assessed immediately in patients with suspected lithium toxicity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0479_3914", "title": "[Reversible choreoathetosis associated with lithium intoxication].", "score": 0.01606699751861042, "content": "Several reports have been published in the literature of choreoathetosis associated with lithium intoxication, but little is known about choreoathetosis without concurrent antipsychotic treatment. We report a 65-year-old woman with lithium intoxication whose choreoathetosis completely recovered without sequela following decrease of her serum lithium level. She had been treated elsewhere for bipolar II disorder and also for hypertension, chronic hepatitis type C and diabetes mellitus. As she became hypomanic, lithium carbonate at 600 mg/day was commenced, which was increased to 1200 mg/day due to unfavorable therapeutic response. She began to manifest disorientation and abnormal involuntary movement and was therefore referred to our Department of Psychiatry. Her clinical symptoms at admission included consciousness disturbance with marked bilateral symmetrical slow-wave activity in her EEG and choreoathetosis was observed in her face and upper and lower extremities. Cerebellar symptoms were minimal with only mild ataxic gait and finger-to-nose test did not show dysmetria or intention tremor. Her serum lithium level was 3.52 mEq/L, which was clearly in the toxic range. She demonstrated no metabolic abnormalities including hyperglycemia, and was diagnosed with lithium intoxication and treated with water loading and mannitol for forced diuresis. On the 14th day after admission her consciousness disturbance and choreoathetosis resolved, but EEG abnormalities still persisted. On the 23rd day after admission, she was discharged with clinical remission and normal EEG background activity. Although she developed mild renal dysfunction, hemodialysis was not indicated. Hypersensitivity of dopamine receptor in the nigrostriatal pathways may contribute to choreoathetosis in association with the patient's vulnerability. Choreoathetosis can be a sign of lithium intoxication and prompt treatment is required following careful differential diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1080_6407", "title": "[Lithium sulfate poisoning treated with hemodialysis in a patient with normal renal function: a case report].", "score": 0.015763076188201577, "content": "Lithium is the milestone of psychiatric patients' therapy, in particular in bipolar disorder. Despite its high therapeutic efficacy, there are several side effects (renal, thyroid, parathyroid, dermatological) and management problems linked to its narrow therapeutic range, which exposes patients to a high risk of toxicity. We describe the case of a male patient with bipolar disorder in therapy with lithium sulfate who developed a severe acute-on-chronic intoxication. He came to our attention in a somnolent state with lithemia &gt;3 mEq/L and therefore underwent hemodialysis. In view of the high toxicity of lithium, a timely and correct therapeutic choice is important to improve the patient's outcome. In this context, considering lithemia, but also kidney function and the patient's clinical status, it is necessary to consider extracorporeal treatments, of which hemodialysis is the most preferable." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en487_12076", "title": "Lithium toxicity", "score": 0.013792040682667489, "content": "Gastric lavage and whole bowel irrigation may be useful if done early. Activated charcoal is not effective. For severe toxicity hemodialysis is recommended. The risk of death is generally low. Acute toxicity generally has better outcomes than chronic toxicity. In the United States about 5,000 cases are reported to poison control centers a year. Lithium toxicity was first described in 1898. Signs and symptoms Symptoms of lithium toxicity can be mild, moderate, or severe. Mild symptoms include nausea, feeling tired, and tremor occur at a level of 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L. Moderate symptoms include confusion, an increased heart rate, and low muscle tone occur at a level of 2.5 to 3.5 mEq/L. Severe symptoms include coma, seizures, low blood pressure and increased body temperature which occur at a lithium concentration greater than 3.5 mEq/L. When lithium overdoses produce neurological deficits or cardiac toxicity, the symptoms are considered serious and can be fatal." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_2387", "title": "Treatment of bipolar disorder", "score": 0.01339437738847478, "content": "Potential side effects from lithium include gastrointestinal upset, tremor, sedation, excessive thirst, frequent urination, cognitive problems, impaired motor coordination, hair loss, and acne. Excessive levels of lithium can be harmful to the kidneys, and increase the risk of side effects in general. As a result, kidney function and blood levels of lithium are monitored in patients being treated with lithium. Therapeutic plasma levels of lithium range from 0.5 to 1.5 mEq/L, with levels of 0.8 or higher being desirable in acute mania. Lithium levels should be above 0.6 mEq/L to reduce both manic and depressive episodes in patients. A recent review concludes that the standard lithium serum level should be 0.60-0.80 mmol/L with optional reduction to 0.40-0.60 mmol/L in case of good response but poor tolerance or an increase to 0.80-1.00 mmol/L in case of insufficient response and good tolerance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0316_15490", "title": "Antacid-induced hypermagnesemia in a patient with normal renal function and bowel obstruction.", "score": 0.01329004329004329, "content": "To report a case of severe hypermagnesemia caused by magnesium hydroxide in a woman with normal renal function. A 42-year-old Hispanic woman with schizophrenia and bipolar affective disorder was transported from jail to the emergency department with confusion, abdominal pain, vomiting, and constipation. She had been treated in jail with magnesium hydroxide, ordered as milk of magnesia 30 mL po each night and Maalox 30 mL po three times daily. Additional medications included lithium carbonate 300 mg po three times daily, chlorpromazine 150 mg po three times daily, benztropine mesylate 1 mg po twice daily, and docusate sodium 100 mg po each morning. Her temperature was 35.1 degrees C, blood pressure 108/58 mm Hg, heart rate 112 beats/min, and respiratory rate 24 breaths/min. She would respond only briefly to voice or painful stimuli. Her abdomen was distended and diffusely tender. Laboratory tests included serum magnesium concentration 9.1 mEq/L (normal 1.3-2), blood urea nitrogen 16 mg/dL (8-22), creatinine 0.9 mg/dL (0.5-1.1), calcium 3.9 mEq/L (4.2-5.2), and lithium 1.0 mEq/L. A laparotomy was performed, and an adhesive band from a previous oophorectomy was found to be compressing the sigmoid colon. Hypermagnesemia, hypothermia, and hypotension continued in the intensive care unit. Despite successful treatment of the hypermagnesemia with calcium, intravenous fluids, and furosemide, the patient's cardiac rhythm degenerated into fatal, pulseless electrical activity on postoperative day 2. This case of severe hypermagnesemia from magnesium hydroxide ingestion illustrates many of the risk factors for hypermagnesemia in patients with normal renal function. People using magnesium-containing medications for relief of gastrointestinal distress may be at increased risk for hypermagnesemia. A brief review of magnesium physiology, clinical effects, and treatment is provided. Frequent use of the laboratory to identify hypermagnesemia is encouraged because it is often a clinically unexpected finding and responds well to early treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1156_1115", "title": "[Diagnostic trap: Lithium neurotoxicity with normal lithemia].", "score": 0.013289183222958058, "content": "We describe here the case of a 54-year-old bipolar woman, followed in psychiatry and treated with lithium and a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (escitalopram) and lamotrigine, presenting a lithium poisoning with an altered state of consciousness caused by a supposed mismanagement of her treatment. Lithium poisoning was suggested based on neurological clinical features, but the blood test brought out a lithium concentration within the therapeutic values at 1,2 mmol/L (N: 0,6-1,2 mmol/L). The classic biological complications related to lithium poisoning (hypercalcemia, diabetes insipidus) confirmed the diagnosis. The patient has been transferred to our nephrology department where she got two hemodialysis sessions conducting to clinical and biological improvement, confirming the diagnosis of lithium poisoning despite the normal blood levels. Later, she was transferred to the psychiatry department for follow-up and for treatment adjustment." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3617", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.013096965927154605, "content": "A 63-year-old man was admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a severe aspiration pneumonia. Past medical history included schizophrenia, for which he required institutional care; treatment had included neuroleptics and intermittent lithium, the latter restarted 6 months before admission. The patient was treated with antibiotics and intubated for several days, with the development of polyuria (3–5 L/d), hypernatremia, and acute renal insufficiency; the peak plasma Na+ concentration was 156 meq/L, and peak creatinine was 2.6 mg/dL. Urine osmolality was measured once and reported as 157 mOsm/kg, with a coincident plasma osmolality of 318 mOsm/kg. Lithium was stopped on admission to the ICU. On physical examination, the patient was alert, extubated, and thirsty. Weight was 97.5 kg. Urine output for the previous 24 h had been 3.4 L, with an IV intake of 2 L/d of D5W." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0590_20860", "title": "Lithium intoxication-induced acute parkinsonism complicated with hyperparathyroidism and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus: report of a case.", "score": 0.012099083619702175, "content": "To describe a patient with lithium intoxication presenting as acute parkinsonism, adverse metabolic effects and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI). We report a case of a 67-year-old woman with a bipolar affective disorder who was treated with lithium for 10 years. Under concomitant renal insufficiency and urinary tract infarction, she experienced progressive hand tremor, bradykinesia, and unsteady gait. Laboratory results revealed hypercalcemia and hypermagnesiemia. A high serum lithium level (3.6 mEq/L) was found; thus lithium was discontinued. She was found to have a high serum level of intact parathyroid hormone: 135.0 pg/ml and a suspicious parathyroid adenoma. Polyuria with hypernatremia was also noted. A water deprivation test confirmed nephrogenic diabetes insipitces. After correction of electrolyte imbalance and reduction of lithium level, her consciousness recovered. Her parkinsonian features were responsive to levodopa 400 mg/day in 2 divided doses. One month later, apart from the residual extrapyramidal symptoms and mania, her condition was otherwise stationary. Tremor is the most frequent movement disorder associated with lithium therapy, while severe parkinsonism has been rarely reported. It should be kept in mind in differential diagnosis of acute parkinsonism especially in elder patients who receive a chronic lithium carbonate therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0917_11038", "title": "[Reversible alterations in the dentate nuclei and rapid-onset cerebral atrophy due to neurotoxicity caused by lithium].", "score": 0.011761914446478205, "content": "Treatment with lithium can cause several neurological side effects, even at therapeutic levels. We report the case of a 49-year-old woman, with bipolar disorder and depression, undergoing treatment with lithium, antidepressants and antipsychotics, who was admitted to hospital due to a clinical picture of visual hallucinations with an elevated lithaemia of 2.1 mEq/L (therapeutic range: 0.6-1.2 mEq/L). The patient developed a severe encephalopathy that required the use of assisted ventilation in the intensive care unit. Initial magnetic resonance imaging showed a reversible bilateral symmetrical hyperintensity in the dentate nuclei in T2 and T2-FLAIR sequences. Over the following months she gradually developed a pancerebellar syndrome with evidence of a marked loss of bilateral volume in the cerebellum, above all at the expense of the vermis, which was accompanied by a permanent and disabling cerebellar syndrome. Although treatment with lithium can cause a variety of neurological side effects, they are usually reversible. However, they occasionally give rise to permanent and disabling sequelae, as in the case of the patient reported here, with a marked and progressive cerebellar atrophy, accompanied by permanent sequelae in the form of a disabling cerebellar syndrome. The cerebellar neurotoxicity of lithium must be taken into account in the broad differential diagnosis of cerebellar ataxia in adults." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0915_18044", "title": "Use of the anion gap and intermittent hemodialysis following continuous hemodiafiltration in extremely high dose acute-on-chronic lithium poisoning: A case report.", "score": 0.011430064334933543, "content": "A 35-year-old woman intentionally took 40,000 mg of lithium carbonate, and she was transferred to our hospital with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. She was diagnosed as having bipolar disorder 10 years ago and was receiving oral lithium therapy. Blood test results on arrival were remarkable for a negative anion gap of -2.1 and later, the serum lithium level turned out to be as high as 15.4 mEq/L. Intubation was required because of disrupted consciousness, and continuous hemodiafiltration (CHDF) was immediately started in the intensive care unit to obtain constant removal of lithium. After adding intermittent hemodialysis (IHD) twice during the daytime to accelerate the lithium clearance, CHDF became unnecessary on day 4, and she was extubated on day 6 with complete recovery of consciousness. Close monitoring of the patient data showed recovery of the decreased anion gap as indicator of the serum lithium level reduction. On day 36, she was discharged without any complication and sequela. The current case highlighted the effective use of CHDF between IHD sessions to prevent the rebound elevation of lithium and the role of the anion gap as a surrogate marker of serum lithium concentration during the treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_324536", "title": "Mood stabilizer", "score": 0.011349477219784387, "content": "Mineral Lithium – Lithium is the \"classic\" mood stabilizer, the first to be approved by the US FDA, and still popular in treatment. Therapeutic drug monitoring is required to ensure lithium levels remain in the therapeutic range: 0.6 or 0.8-1.2 mEq/L (or millimolar). Signs and symptoms of toxicity include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and ataxia. The most common side effects are lethargy and weight gain. The less common side effects of using lithium are blurred vision, a slight tremble in the hands, and a feeling of being mildly ill. In general, these side effects occur in the first few weeks after commencing lithium treatment. These symptoms can often be improved by lowering the dose." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en415_39692", "title": "Lithium (medication)", "score": 0.010789014821272886, "content": "Lithium concentrations in whole blood, plasma, serum or urine may be measured using instrumental techniques as a guide to therapy, to confirm the diagnosis in potential poisoning victims or to assist in the forensic investigation in a case of fatal overdosage. Serum lithium concentrations are usually in the range of 0.5–1.3 mmol/L (0.5–1.3 mEq/L) in well-controlled people, but may increase to 1.8–2.5 mmol/L in those who accumulate the drug over time and to 3–10 mmol/L in acute overdose. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, so should not be prescribed unless facilities for monitoring plasma concentrations are available. Doses are adjusted to achieve plasma concentrations of 0.4 to 1.2 mmol /L on samples taken 12 hours after the preceding dose. Given the rates of thyroid dysfunction, thyroid parameters should be checked before lithium is instituted and monitored after 3–6 months and then every 6–12 months." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en487_12081", "title": "Lithium toxicity", "score": 0.010607759587351424, "content": "Gastric lavage. A tube is placed through the nose or mouth into the stomach. The tube is used to remove lithium that has not been digested yet. It may also be used to put medicines directly into the stomach to help stop lithium from being absorbed. Use of an artificial kidney to clean the blood (dialysis). This is usually done only in the most severe cases. Diuretic medications such as furosemide and hydration via intravenous normal saline appear to be effective in speeding the removal of lithium and also rehydrate patients who've lost fluids. Hemodialysis. Hemodialysis is widely advocated as a means of reducing the risk of permanent neurological sequelae following lithium poisoning. Although hemodialysis clearly enhances the elimination of lithium, it is unclear whether this translates into improved patient outcomes. People may be sent home once their lithium level is less than 1.5 mEq/L and they have no symptoms. See also" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3685", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010577236383687997, "content": "A stuporous 22-year-old man was admitted with a history of behaving strangely. His friends indicated he experienced recent emotional problems stemming from a failed relationship and had threatened suicide. There was a history of alcohol abuse, but his friends were unaware of recent alcohol consumption. The patient was obtunded on admission, with no evident focal neurologic deficits. The remainder of the physical examination was unremarkable. Na+ 140 meq/L K+ 5 meq/L Cl− 95 meq/L HCO3− 10 meq/L Glucose 125 mg/dL BUN 15 mg/dL Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL Ionized calcium 4.0 mg/dL Plasma osmolality 325 mOsm kg/H2O Urinalysis revealed crystalluria, with a mixture of envelope-shaped and needle-shaped crystals." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_9710", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.010146056015667398, "content": "With blood levels of lithium in the upper therapeutic range (therapeutic 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L), it is not uncommon to observe a fast-frequency action tremor or asterixis, together with nausea, loose stools, fatigue, polydipsia, and polyuria. These symptoms usually subside with time. Above a level of 1.5 to 2 mEq/L, particularly in patients with impaired renal function or in those taking a thiazide diuretic, serious intoxication becomes manifest—clouding of consciousness, confusion, delirium, dizziness, nystagmus, ataxia, stammering, diffuse myoclonic twitching, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Vertical (downbeating) nystagmus and opsoclonus (see Chap. 13) may also be prominent. A variety of skin problems is common including worsening of acne vulgaris. An uncommon toxic effect is the development of goiter but most patients remain euthyroid although the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels may increase slightly. The goiter usually requires no treatment but it is possible to" }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_12202", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.01009266720386785, "content": "becomes effective, usually a matter of 4 or 5 days. The usual dosage of lithium is 1,200 to 2,400 mg daily in divided oral doses, which produces a desired serum level of 0.9 to 1.4 mEq/L. The serum level of lithium must be checked frequently, both to ensure that a therapeutic dose is being taken and to guard against toxicity (see later)." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_31726", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010035035035035035, "content": "In the treatment of acute mania, lithium is initiated at 300 mg bid or tid, and the dose is then increased by 300 mg every 2–3 days to achieve blood levels of 0.8–1.2 meq/L. Because the therapeutic effect of lithium may not appear until after 7–10 days of treatment, adjunctive usage of lorazepam (1–2 mg every 4 h) or clonazepam (0.5–1 mg every 4 h) may be beneficial to control agitation. Antipsychotics are indicated in patients with severe agitation who respond only partially to benzodiazepines. Patients using lithium should be monitored closely, since the blood levels required to achieve a therapeutic benefit are close to those associated with toxicity. Valproic acid may be better than lithium for patients who experience rapid cycling (i.e., more than four episodes a year) or who present with a mixed or dysphoric mania. Tremor and weight gain are the most common side effects; hepatotoxicity and pancreatitis are rare toxicities." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3656", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009956492637215528, "content": "A 32-year-old man was admitted to the hospital with weakness and hypokalemia. The patient had been very healthy until 2 months previously when he developed intermittent leg weakness. His review of systems was otherwise negative. He denied drug or laxative abuse and was on no medications. Past medical history was unremarkable, with no history of neuromuscular disease. Family history was notable for a sister with thyroid disease. Physical examination was notable only for reduced deep tendon reflexes. Sodium 139 143 meq/L Potassium 2.0 3.8 meq/L Chloride 105 107 meq/L Bicarbonate 26 29 meq/L BUN 11 16 mg/dL Creatinine 0.6 1.0 mg/dL Calcium 8.8 8.8 mg/dL Phosphate 1.2 mg/dL Albumin 3.8 meq/L TSH 0.08 μIU/L (normal 0.2–5.39) Free T4 41 pmol/L (normal 10–27)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0035_294", "title": "[Origin and treatment of the hypokalemic paresis (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The abuse of laxatives and a prolonged treatment with diuretics has to be brought into consideration as the most common cause for renal or intestinal loss of potassium. Besides characteristical alterations at the E.C.G. and besides intestinal disturbances there do occur again and again acute, life-threatening aspects of cases connected with tetraplegias and a respiratory failure. By means of 3 cases from our hospital and 27 casuistics in literature symptomatology and dynamic in the development of hypokaliemia is discussed. The mean of potassium in the serum of the 16 patients, those having quadriplegias, ran up to 1,7 mval/l (range 1,4-2,5). Paralysis develops peracutely in 4 of the cases within hours and in 12 of the cases within days. In the anamnesis symptoms of adynamia could be traced with nearly every patient. A functional psychosis (reversible physically founded psychosis) couldn't be detected in any of the cases. With the help of a administration of potassium one could achieve a total retrogression of the symptoms. Besides this a normalisation of the acide-base equilibrium is required because of a metabolic alkalosis, detectable in most of the cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0422_8094", "title": "[Aetiologies of lithium overdose: 10-year experience of Marseille poison centre].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Lithium is used for control of bipolar disorders. In order to precise the different circumstances at the origin of poisonings, the authors present the cases of lithium intoxication observed in the Marseille poison centre between January 1991 and December 2000. Retrospective study. Three hundred and four cases were observed during the studied period (1 patient a case), concerning 6 different circumstances. For 3 of them, the symptoms were mild: accidental ingestion with children (13 cases); mistakes on the quantities of ingested tablets (43 cases); elevation of lithium blood level due to diuretic therapy (8 cases). For 2 other circumstances, the clinical signs were more severe: treated patients who developed renal failure (15 cases, 6 patients managed in intensive care unit [ICU], 1 death) or dehydration (35 cases, 8 patients treated in ICU and 1 death). Finally, the most severe cases were collected with suicide attempts. Fifty-six percent of the patients were managed in ICU, 5% needed haemodialysis, 10% had cardiac (repolarization disturbances) or neurological (seizures) complications, 2% died. The severity of lithium poisonings depends of the circumstances. Ingestion of high quantities of sustained released tablets is the most dangerous situation. Accidental ingestion, even with children, must be considered as less severe situations." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_9712", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.009769961808331113, "content": "The myoclonic state, particularly when combined with confusion and sharp waves in the EEG, may mimic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (see Chap. 32) but there should be no problem in diagnosis if the setting of the illness and the administration of lithium are known. At blood lithium concentrations above 3.5 mEq/L, these symptoms are replaced by stupor and coma, sometimes with convulsions, and may prove fatal. Discontinuing lithium in the intoxicated patient, which is the initial step in therapy, does not result in immediate disappearance of toxic symptoms. This may be delayed by a week or two, and the diabetes insipidus may persist even longer. Fluids, sodium chloride, aminophylline, and acetazolamide promote the excretion of lithium. Lithium coma may require hemodialysis, which has proved to be the most rapid means of reducing the blood lithium concentration." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_287929", "title": "Lithium carbonate", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Lithium carbonate is used as a psychiatric medication to treat mania, the elevated phase of bipolar disorder. Prescription lithium carbonate from a pharmacy is suitable for use as medicine in humans while industrial lithium carbonate is not since the latter may, for example, contain unsafe levels of toxic heavy metals or other toxicants. After ingestion, lithium carbonate is dissociated into pharmacologically active lithium ions (Li+) and (non-therapeutic) carbonate, with 300 mg of lithium carbonate containing approximately 8 mEq (8 mmol) of lithium ion. According to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), 300–600 mg of lithium carbonate taken two to three times daily is typical for maintenance of bipolar I disorder in adults, where the exact dose given varies depending on factors such as the patient's serum lithium concentrations, which must be monitored by a physician to avoid lithium toxicity and potential kidney damage (or even failure) from lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes" }, { "id": "article-24349_30", "title": "Lithium -- Toxicity -- Recommendations", "score": 0.009705540488182875, "content": "The guidelines established by EXtracorporeal TReatments In Poisoning (EXTRIP) are listed below. Initiate extracorporeal treatment for patients with severe lithium poisoning presenting with coma, myoclonus, convulsions, or cardiopulmonary collapse. Initiate extracorporeal treatment when impaired kidney function is evident, and the lithium concentration surpasses 4 mEq/L. Hemodialysis is also indicated in patients with altered consciousness, seizures, or life-threatening dysrhythmias, regardless of the lithium concentration. Consider extracorporeal treatment if the lithium concentration exceeds 5 mEq/L, significant confusion is evident, or the projected duration for reducing the lithium concentration below 1 mEq/L extends beyond 36 hours. Continue extracorporeal treatment until clinical improvement or lithium concentration drops below 1 mEq/L. In cases where lithium concentration measurement is unattainable, maintain extracorporeal therapies for at least 6 hours." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en487_12075", "title": "Lithium toxicity", "score": 0.009641537774530102, "content": "Lithium toxicity, also known as lithium overdose, is the condition of having too much lithium. Symptoms may include a tremor, increased reflexes, trouble walking, kidney problems, and an altered level of consciousness. Some symptoms may last for a year after levels return to normal. Complications may include serotonin syndrome. Lithium toxicity can occur due to excessive intake or decreased excretion. Excessive intake may be either a suicide attempt or accidental. Decreased excretion may occur as a result of dehydration such as from vomiting or diarrhea, a low sodium diet, or from kidney problems. The diagnosis is generally based on symptoms and supported by a lithium level of greater than 1.2 mEq/L." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0802_12127", "title": "Case report on lithium intoxication with normal lithium levels.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "An 18-year old female was admitted to a psychiatric hospital with an initial episode of mania. Treated with routine dosages of lithium bicarbonate, her symptoms resolved after two weeks; she was discharged on a dosage of 250mg lithium bid. Five days after discharge she was taken to the emergency department of a general hospital with loss of appetite and disturbed consciousness. The general hospital physicians were unable to diagnose the problem so she was transferred back to the psychiatric hospital. At that time she had a lithium blood level of 0.57 mmol/L (i.e., at the lower end of the therapeutic range) but was, nevertheless, clearly experiencing lithium intoxication with anuria, trembling extremities, blurred speech, muscle rigidity and hyperactive tendon reflexes. Treated with intravenous mannitol, her acute symptoms resolved quickly. The case highlights the need to monitor clinical symptoms of intoxication in all patients taking lithium, regardless of their blood level, and to inform patients, family members, and general physicians about the symptoms and management of lithium intoxication." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0607_14684", "title": "[Analysis of the poisonings by lithium in a department of internal medicine].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Lithium salts have been mainly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. Because of its narrow therapeutic range, and several well characterised adverse effects, serum lithium levels must be monitored regularly in patients given lithium treatment in order to prevent intoxication. To describe the clinic and toxic characteristics in inpatients at our Clinic Toxicologic Unit. Descriptive and retrospective study of lithium intoxications in 150 inpatients between 2003 and 2006. Patients were classified based on their neuropsychiathric symptom profile and serum lithium levels. Sixteen of 150 inpatients had lithium intoxication: 58.3% women and 43.8% men; 49.19% +/- 18.49% years old. Lithium was used as treatment of bipolar disorder in 87.5% of cases. The most frequent cause of intoxication was attempted suicide. Using neuropsychiatric parametres, intoxication was moderate in 50% of cases, and mild in 25% and severe or very severe in 25%. Using serum lithium levels, intoxication was very severe in 31.35%, severe in 25%, and slight-moderate in 43.7%. Conservative measures were used as the most frequent treatment (50%), and haemodialfiltration was needed in 37.5%. Mean stay was 4,8 days in acute intoxication, and 11.2 days in chronic. Sequelaes were found in two patients (ataxia). Death was not present. Lithium intoxications can involve severe complications, even death. Narrow control is encouraged in polymedicated and elderly patients, and in concommitant treatment with antidepressant and neuroleptics." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1041_9231", "title": "Lithium toxicity with prolonged neurologic sequelae following sleeve gastrectomy: A case report and review of literature.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Lithium is the first-line medication for bipolar disorder, given a narrow therapeutic window of 0.8 to 1.2 mEq/L. Change of lithium pharmacokinetics following bariatric surgery may lead to lithium toxicity, which is particularly concerned. We presented a 39-year-old man with morbid obesity and bipolar affective disorder for 20 years, who was treated with lithium. He developed serious lithium toxicity following sleeve gastrectomy and prolonged neurologic sequelae. He suffered from persistent watery diarrhea, general weakness, and then drowsy consciousness. Lithium level was checked immediately to be 3.42 mEq/L and lithium toxicity was diagnosed. After 3 courses of hemodialysis, his serum lithium level subsequently declined to 0.63 mEq/L, while his consciousness returned normal. Lithium was replaced by lamotrigine. The patient was discharged thirty-five days after admission, while his serum lithium declined to 0.06 mEq/L. Neurologic sequelae were noted by muscle weakness and pain sensation in both feet. The nerve conduction test revealed sensorimotor polyneuropathy with conduction block. He was advised to keep a passive range of motion exercise. Although the consensus guideline remains lacking, our report reviewed cases of relevance in the literature and highlighted the awareness of the potential risk of lithium toxicity following bariatric surgery. We suggest close monitoring of the lithium levels and perhaps a dosage adjustment for the postoperative period." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 641, 1101 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 101, 175 ] ], "text": "Sinus X represents the systolic collapse of the venous pulse, i.e., the pressure drop due to atrial relaxation (also partly due to a downward displacement of the RV base during systole). Sinus Y represents the diastolic collapse of the venous pulse, i.e., the pressure drop that occurs from the moment blood enters the tricuspid valve into the ventricle. In cardiac tamponade, the deep sinus X is characteristic. In constrictive pericarditis, the deep Y sinus." } }

{ "1": "Ischemic heart disease.", "2": "Dilated cardiomyopathy.", "3": "Severe aortic stenosis.", "4": "Constrictive pericarditis.", "5": "Pericardial effusion with cardiac tamponade." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0495_3220", "title": "Cases from the Osler Medical Service at Johns Hopkins University.", "score": 0.017324133793310333, "content": "PRESENTING FEATURES: A 70-year-old African American man was admitted with a history of fever, chills, and malaise of several days' duration. His past medical history was notable for end-stage renal disease requiring hemodialysis, coronary artery disease, and aortic stenosis requiring a bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement. On the day of admission, the patient was noted to have a shaking chill while undergoing dialysis through his catheter and was admitted to the hospital. He complained of pain at the catheter insertion site, shortness of breath, and dyspnea on exertion, but denied chest pain. On physical examination, the patient had a temperature of 100.4 degrees F, with a heart rate of 64 beats per minute, blood pressure of 127/72 mm Hg, and an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. He was a mildly obese man in no apparent distress. He had shotty cervical lymphadenopathy and a right subclavian dialysis catheter in place, with erythema and pus at the entry site. His jugular venous pressure was 10 cm H(2)O. Lung examination showed bibasilar rales. Heart sounds were normal, with no rub or gallop. He had a 2/6 systolic ejection murmur best heart at the left sternal border as well as a 3/6 holosystolic murmur at the apex that radiated to his left axilla. Examination of the abdomen and extremities was unremarkable. The patient's neurological examination was unremarkable, and he was alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Laboratory studies showed an elevated white blood cell count of 16,700 cells/microL. His blood urea nitrogen level was 43 mg/dL and his serum creatinine level was 4.9 mg/dL. Multiple blood cultures grew methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. An admission, chest radiograph showed no infiltrate. An admission electrocardiogram showed normal sinus rhythm with first degree atrioventricular block, left anterior fascicular block, and left ventricular hypertrophy. shows rhythm strips from lead II electrocardiograms 5 months before admission (top), on admission (middle) and 5 days after admission (bottom). What is the diagnosis?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0552_7649", "title": "[Recurrent autoreactive pericardial effusion. Impact of an aetiological classification of pericarditis].", "score": 0.015547905909351694, "content": "A 36 year-old man suffered from fever, fatigue, pleurodynia and precordial discomfort. His family physician suspected febrile tracheobronchitis and treated it with ampicillin for 5 days. Because symptoms persisted an ECG was done which suggested acute myocardial infarction. The patient underwent an emergency coronary angiography which excluded coronary artery disease and aortic dissection. Pericarditis was suspected and the patient put on aspirin, 500 mg/d. Because of persisting cardiac symptoms an echocardiography was performed which revealed systolic separation between epi- and pericardium, characteristic of a small pericardial effusion after acute pericarditis. The symptoms improved after one week of treatment with diclofenac and the ECG had become normal. Two months later the patient was seen at our cardiac outpatient clinic. He had night sweats, sporadic precordial pain and severe dyspnoe. Further investigations revealed tachycardia (120/min), hypotension (95/70 mm Hg), pulsus paradoxus and jugular vein sustension. Echocardiography revealed a large pericardial effusion (\"swinging heart\"), which explained the low voltage and the electrical alternans in the ECG. Pericardiocentesis was carried out the same day to relieve the tamponade. It was followed by pericardioscopy and epi- as well as pericardial biopsy. 485 ml of a serous effusion were drained. Cytology and histology demonstrated a lymphocytic fibrinous pericarditis. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) on viral and bacterial RNA and DNA of potentially cardiotropic agents remained negative. The pigtail catheter was left in place and 80 mg of gentamycin were given intrapericardially on day 1 and 2, followed by 500 mg of crystalloid triamcinolone acetate after the PCR was found to be negative. Oral treatment with 0.5 mg colchicine three times a day (off-label use) was started and maintained for 6 months. After 9 months no effusion was detected and the patient was free of symptoms. After exclusion of bacterial and viral pericardial infection, a high single dose of intrapericardial triamcinolone combined with long-term oral colchicine has proven to be a highly efficacious treatment of autoreactive pericarditis which will avoid relapses in most cases." }, { "id": "article-17749_11", "title": "Aortic Valve Disease -- History and Physical", "score": 0.0126241897591214, "content": "Aortic regurgitation when acute and/or severe can be suspected when the patient has a wide pulse pressure, and a low pitched early diastolic murmur is auscultated again over the right sternal border at the second intercostal space. Accentuated P2 may also be noticed due to elevated pressures in the pulmonary vasculature. Chronic aortic regurgitation may illicit a blowing diastolic decrescendo murmur with a positive correlation between the duration of murmur and the severity of the disease. Often auscultation of a laterally and inferiorly displaced apical impulse is present and sustained. Often there is the phenomenon of Corrigan pulse (water hammer), a bounding and forceful pulse that rapidly increases and collapses. Other less common physical exam findings include the de Musset sign, which is subtle head bobbing with a pulse, as well as the Quincke sign and Muller sign (pulsations on the fingernails and uvula, respectively). Similar physical exam findings to aortic stenosis can also be seen late in disease progression. Acute aortic regurgitation will present differently depending on the etiology. If a patient presents with tearing severe chest pain along with physical exam findings such as variation in blood pressure between the right and left extremities, consider aortic dissection as a cause. If the patient presented with a history of streptococcal infection along with fevers, swollen and tender joints, skin nodules, new onset of rash, then rheumatic heart disease would be high on the differential." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0083_1888", "title": "[Lassa fever associated with effusive constrictive pericarditis and bilateral atrioventricular annular constriction: a case report].", "score": 0.012349397590361445, "content": "A case of Lassa fever associated with effusive constrictive pericarditis and bilateral atrioventricular annular constriction was reported. A 49-year-old man, who had been diagnosed by indirect fluorescent antibody test as the first case of Lassa fever in Japan, was referred to the Hiroo Hospital because of syncope, progressive hepatomegaly, ascites and pericardial effusion in spite of pericardiocentesis and corticosteroid therapy. On admission, his blood pressure was 92/60 mmHg and he had a paradoxical pulse. Two-dimensional echocardiography revealed a localized pericardial effusion adjacent to the right ventricular wall and behind the left ventricular posterior wall. Bilateral atrioventricular annular constriction was also present. On pulsed Doppler echocardiography, the peak inflow velocities of the right and left ventricles increased during atrial systole. Right heart catheterization revealed a mean diastolic pressure gradient of 8 mmHg across the tricuspid valve. After pericardiectomy, a diastolic dip and plateau pattern became evident in the right ventricular pressure tracing, suggesting the presence of residual constriction. However, the atrioventricular annular constriction was no longer evident on two-dimensional echocardiography. This is considered the first reported case of subacute effusive constrictive pericarditis caused by Lassa fever." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_2955", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01229877293707081, "content": "Additional clues to the etiology and importance of a heart murmur can be gleaned from the history and other physical examination findings. Symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, neurologic, or pulmonary disease help focus the differential diagnosis, as do findings relevant to the jugular venous pressure and waveforms, the arterial pulses, other heart sounds, the lungs, the abdomen, the skin, and the extremities. In many instances, laboratory studies, an ECG, and/or a chest x-ray may have been obtained earlier and may contain valuable information. A patient with suspected infective endocarditis, for example, may have a murmur in the setting of fever, chills, anorexia, fatigue, dyspnea, splenomegaly, petechiae, and positive blood cultures. A new systolic murmur in a patient with a marked fall in blood pressure after a recent MI suggests myocardial rupture. By contrast, an isolated grade 1 or 2 mid-systolic murmur at the left sternal border in a healthy, active, and asymptomatic young" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en025_33861", "title": "Pericarditis", "score": 0.011991499696417728, "content": "Physical examinations The classic sign of pericarditis is a friction rub heard with a stethoscope on the cardiovascular examination, usually on the lower left sternal border. Other physical signs include a person in distress, positional chest pain, diaphoresis (excessive sweating); possibility of heart failure in form of pericardial tamponade causing pulsus paradoxus, and the Beck's triad of low blood pressure (due to decreased cardiac output), distant (muffled) heart sounds, and distension of the jugular vein (JVD)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_9481", "title": "Kussmaul's sign", "score": 0.011940673705379587, "content": "Causes The differential diagnoses of Kussmaul's sign includes constrictive pericarditis, restrictive cardiomyopathy, pericardial effusion, and severe right-sided heart failure. With cardiac tamponade, jugular veins are distended and typically show a prominent x descent and an absent y descent as opposed to patients with constrictive pericarditis (prominent x and y descent), see Beck's triad. Other possible causes of Kussmaul's sign include: Right ventricular infarction - low ventricular compliance Right heart failure Cardiac tumours Tricuspid stenosis Restrictive cardiomyopathy Pulmonary embolism Constrictive pericarditis History Kussmaul's sign is named after the German doctor who first described it, Adolph Kussmaul (1822-1902). He is also credited with describing Kussmaul breathing. See also Pulsus paradoxus References Symptoms and signs: Vascular" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0052_18986", "title": "[A case of subacute effusive-constrictive pericarditis].", "score": 0.011906273812547625, "content": "A 30-year-old female with effusive-constrictive pericarditis was admitted to our hospital because of dyspnea, ascites and edema. On examination, her blood pressure was 118/94 mmHg and her pulse rate was 90 bpm. Physical examination revealed pulsus paradoxus, markedly raised venous pressure and pericardial knock sound. Chest X-ray showed marked cardiomegaly and bilateral pleural effusion. After cardiac catheterization there was elevation of mean right atrial pressure, right ventricular end-diastolic pressure, pulmonary-capillary-wedge pressure, and their pressures during diastole were approximately 30 mmHg. After successful pericardiocentesis, their diastolic pressures still remained at 15 mmHg. Additionally, pressure wave of the right ventricle showed distinct diastolic dip and plateau pattern, and that of the right atrium showed deep x and y descents. The pressure pattern suggested that not only pericardial effusion but also decreased compliance of the pericardium was the main factor contributing to the cardiac diastolic dysfunction. Histological examination of the pericardium showed diffuse lymphocyte infiltration and fibrosis. These findings strongly suggested that there might have been viral infection." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_252441", "title": "Heart", "score": 0.011897016451343062, "content": "Pericardial disease The sac which surrounds the heart, called the pericardium, can become inflamed in a condition known as pericarditis. This condition typically causes chest pain that may spread to the back, and is often caused by a viral infection (glandular fever, cytomegalovirus, or coxsackievirus). Fluid can build up within the pericardial sac, referred to as a pericardial effusion. Pericardial effusions often occur secondary to pericarditis, kidney failure, or tumours, and frequently do not cause any symptoms. However, large effusions or effusions which accumulate rapidly can compress the heart in a condition known as cardiac tamponade, causing breathlessness and potentially fatal low blood pressure. Fluid can be removed from the pericardial space for diagnosis or to relieve tamponade using a syringe in a procedure called pericardiocentesis. Congenital heart disease" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_18858", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011733804649335985, "content": "Viral or idiopathic acute pericarditis occurs at all ages but is more common in young adults and is often associated with pleural effusions and pneumonitis. The almost simultaneous development of fever and precordial pain, often 10–12 days after a presumed viral illness, constitutes an important feature in the differentiation of acute pericarditis from AMI, in which chest pain precedes fever. The constitutional symptoms are usually mild to moderate, and a pericardial friction rub is often audible. The disease ordinarily runs its course in a few days to 4 weeks. The ST-segment alterations in the ECG usually disappear after 1 or more weeks, but the abnormal T waves may persist for several years and be a source of confusion in persons without a clear history of pericarditis. Pleuritis and pneumonitis frequently accompany viral or idiopathic acute pericarditis. Accumulation of some pericardial fluid is common, and both tamponade and constrictive pericarditis are possible, but infrequent," }, { "id": "pubmed23n0098_15242", "title": "[Acute nonspecific pericarditis].", "score": 0.011613876319758673, "content": "In order to learn the natural history of nonspecific acute pericarditis in our environment, we studied retrospectively 50 patients seen at The Instituto Nacional de Cardiología Ignacio Chávez, between 1972-1985. The clinical history, electrocardiogram, chest x ray, laboratory findings, as well as the outpatient follow-up were analyzed. There was a history of a respiratory or gastrointestinal infection, probably viral in origin, in almost half of the cases (46%). Chest pain was present in 96% of the patients and was the most common symptom. In only half of the patients a pericardial friction rub was heard. A typical S-T elevation was found in 90% of the electrocardiograms. Arrhythmias and conduction disorders were unusual. The echocardiogram showed a pericardial effusion in seven patients and six had a pleural effusion. Only one patient developed signs of cardiac tamponade. None of the patients in this study developed a chronic constrictive pericarditis and there were no deaths. Before or after hospitalization, 14 patients (28%) had multiple episodes of chest pain suggestive of recurrent pericarditis. This study shows that nonspecific acute pericarditis seems to be a self-limited illness with a good prognosis, few recurrences and practically no complications." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_20985", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011502534035575872, "content": "Diagnosis Due to the unstable condition of these patients, supportive therapy must be initiated simultaneously with diagnostic evaluation (Fig. 326-2). A focused history and physical examination should be performed, blood specimens sent to the laboratory, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) and chest x-ray obtained. Etiologies of Cardiogenic Shock or Pulmonary Edema Acute myocardial infarction/ischemia LV failure Ventricular septal rupture Papillary muscle/chordal rupture–severe MR Ventricular free wall rupture with subacute tamponade Other conditions complicating large MIs Post-cardiac arrest Post-cardiotomy Refractory sustained tachyarrhythmias Acute fulminant myocarditis End-stage cardiomyopathy LV apical ballooning Takotsubo’s cardiomyopathy Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with severe outflow obstruction Aortic dissection with aortic insufficiency or tamponade Severe valvular heart disease Other Etiologies of Cardiogenic Shockb RV failure due to:" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en093_40523", "title": "Acute pericarditis", "score": 0.011472222222222222, "content": "Corticosteroids are usually used in those cases that are clearly refractory to NSAIDs and colchicine and a specific cause has not been found. Systemic corticosteroids are usually reserved for those with autoimmune disease. Prognosis One of the most feared complications of acute pericarditis is cardiac tamponade. Cardiac tamponade is accumulation of enough fluid in the pericardial space --- pericardial effusion --- to cause serious obstruction to the inflow of blood to the heart. Signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds when listening with a stethoscope, and low blood pressure (together known as Beck's triad). This condition can be fatal if not immediately treated." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_11539", "title": "Jugular venous pressure", "score": 0.011381817445369303, "content": "An exaggerated \"y\" wave or diastolic collapse of the neck veins from constrictive pericarditis is referred to as Friedreich's sign. Raised JVP, normal waveform Bradycardia Fluid overload Heart failure Raised JVP, absent pulsation Superior vena cava syndrome Large 'a' wave (increased atrial contraction pressure) Tricuspid stenosis Right heart failure Pulmonary hypertension Cannon 'a' wave (atria contracting against closed tricuspid valve) Atrial flutter Premature atrial rhythm (or tachycardia) Third degree heart block Ventricular ectopics Ventricular tachycardia Absent 'a' wave (no unifocal atrial depolarisation) Atrial fibrillation Large 'v' wave (c–v wave) Tricuspid regurgitation Absent 'x' descent Tricuspid regurgitation (sometimes 'x' wave is replaced by a positive wave) Prominent 'x' descent Cardiac tamponade Slow 'y' descent Tricuspid stenosis Cardiac tamponade Prominent & deep 'y' descent Constrictive pericarditis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0607_2757", "title": "Constrictive pericarditis impressing and narrowing the ascending aorta.", "score": 0.01136075145976136, "content": "A 77-year-old male patient was admitted to our institution with 1-year history of progressive dyspnea on exertion, and lower extremity edema. His chest x-ray showed a circumferential pericardial calcification and right-sided pleural effusion. The electrocardiography revealed atrial fibrillation with low voltage in all derivations and diffuse nonspecific T-wave inversions. The transesophageal echocardiography showed a thickened pericardium with biatrial enlargement and normal right and left ventricular systolic functions. A thick echogenic structure that caused impression and narrowing of the ascending aorta was observed. Simultaneous right and left heart catheterization showed elevation and equalization of right-sided and left-sided diastolic filling pressures, with characteristic dip and plateau. Aortic angiogram showed the ascending aorta was impressed and narrowed by calcified pericardium. Cine magnetic resonance imaging showed pericardial calcifications impressing and narrowing of the ascending aorta. All these findings were consistent with constrictive pericarditis. The patient had no history of tuberculosis, cardiac surgery, or mediastinal irradiation. His HIV antibody test was negative. Marked pericardial thickening and calcifications were evident during pericardiectomy. Histological analysis of the pericardium showed dense collageneous matrix, mild chronic inflammation and calcification. The culture of pericardial tissue revealed no identifiable cause including tuberculosis. The patient was diagnosed as idiopathic constrictive pericarditis. The patient's symptoms and edema decreased remarkably after pericardial stripping. He remained well at 1-year follow-up." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_17406", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011320324089923542, "content": "or absence of a third heart sound (S3). Accurate characterization of cardiac murmurs provides important insight into the natural history of many valvular and congenital heart lesions. Finally, the important role played by the physical examination in enhancing the clinician-patient relationship cannot be overestimated. THE GENERAL PHYSICAL EXAMINATION Any examination begins with an assessment of the general appear-ance of the patient, with notation of age, posture, demeanor, and 267 SEC Tion 2 DiAgnoSiS oF CARDiovASCulAR DiSoRDERS overall health status. Is the patient in pain or resting quietly, dyspneic or diaphoretic? Does the patient choose to avoid certain body positions to reduce or eliminate pain, as might be the case with suspected acute pericarditis? Are there clues indicating that dyspnea may have a pulmonary cause, such as a barrel chest deformity with an increased anterior-posterior diameter, tachypnea, and pursed-lip breathing? Skin pallor, cyanosis, and jaundice can be" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0944_25265", "title": "Diagnostic Challenges in Chronic Constrictive Pericarditis.", "score": 0.01130717288826602, "content": "Chronic constrictive pericarditis (CCP) is a disease that has multiple possible causes and is associated with variable clinical findings, depending on its severity. It develops insidiously, and in many cases, particularly in developed countries, no antecedent diagnosis can be found. These cases are termed idiopathic. Tuberculosis is the leading cause of constrictive pericarditis in developing nations but represents only a small minority in developed countries. Here the authors describe two different case reports where tuberculosis was the probable cause of CCP. A 21-year-old man born in Cape Verde living in Europe for 4 years and a 24-year-old man born in Guiné Bissau were both admitted due to intense precordial pain and syncope after exertion. Interestingly both had fatigability, dyspnea, chest discomfort and palpitations on exertion, as well as progressive involuntary weight loss and decubitus cough. On physical examination they had tachycardia, jaundice, cachexia, elevated jugular venous pressure, hepatomegaly and ascites. Both electrocardiograms showed prominent P waves and chest X-ray showed bilateral pulmonary interstitial infiltrates and enlargement of the right cavities. Analytically, elevated bilirubin, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia was also found in both. Echocardiography revealed findings, in both cases, compatible with CCP including less common signs as annulus reversus and annulus paradoxus. Thoraco-abdomino-pelvic CT from both patients revealed chronic liver disease with congestion, pleural effusion, pericardial calcifications, ascites and massive mediastinal and abdominal adenopathies. Blood cultures and IGRA test were negative. However, given the presumptive diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB), anti-TB therapy was started. Despite the diagnosis of \"end-stage\" CCP with very high operative risk multidisciplinary team decided after informed consent, to perform total anterior pericardiectomy, that occurred without complications. Pericardial and mediastinal biopsies, pericardial/pleural fluid cultures/ immune-phenotyping were inconclusive. Anti- tuberculosis therapy was maintained. After surgery, the patients had a remarkable clinical improvement (NYHA I) that persisted in 6- month follow-up. These two case reports illustrate that despite the markedly elevated operative risk of pericardiectomy in \"end-stage\" forms of disease after patients informed consent must be a considered option. The other point to consider is that, despite rare, tuberculosis still is a possible diagnosis to consider in CCP in Portugal." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0348_20097", "title": "Constrictive pericarditis following hemopericardium due to ascending aortic dissection: A case report.", "score": 0.011275877257377772, "content": "A 79-year-old woman, who had had no history of trauma, tuberculosis, or collagen diseases, was referred for examination of general fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. Physical examination revealed engorged neck veins, hepatomegaly, and ascites with abdominal distention. On chest x-ray the cardiac shadow was slightly enlarged and bilateral pleural effusion was present. An electrocardiogram showed low voltage of the QRS complex. Computed tomographic scans revealed two lumens in the remarkably dilated ascending aorta and the severely thickened pericardium. Cardiac catheterization showed elevated right atrial pressure and elevated right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures, in addition to a pressure record of early diastolic dip and end-systolic plateau in the right ventricle. Aortography demonstrated aortic dissection localized to the ascending aorta. On the basis of these findings, the diagnosis of chronic ascending aortic dissection complicated with constrictive pericarditis was made. After subtotal pericardiectomy, graft replacement of the ascending aorta and proximal aortic arch was performed with successful results. Her postoperative recovery was uneventful. Histological studies of the pericardium showed fibrosis and marked infiltration of the inflammatory cells. No findings of specific pericarditis such as tuberculosis or collagen diseases were detected." }, { "id": "article-38171_16", "title": "Cardiac Syncope -- History and Physical", "score": 0.011191967575534267, "content": "A careful physical exam will assess heart rate and rhythm. Any abnormalities will increase suspicion of cardiac arrhythmia. In addition, an elevated respiratory rate or hypoxia will increase suspicion of a pulmonary embolism. Jugular venous distention and hypotension are suggestive signs of an obstructive mechanical cardiac etiology. Pathological cardiac murmurs, specifically new ones, will clue one into a valvular etiology, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, or an obstructive intracardiac lesion. Muffled sounds can be heard with pericardial tamponade. Pedal edema or other evidence of deep venous thrombosis increases a patient's risk of pulmonary embolism. [10]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en324_30932", "title": "Myocardial infarction diagnosis", "score": 0.011131214600377595, "content": "Physical examination The general appearance of patients may vary according to the experienced symptoms; the patient may be comfortable, or restless and in severe distress with an increased respiratory rate. A cool and pale skin is common and points to vasoconstriction. Some patients have low-grade fever (38–39 °C). Blood pressure may be elevated or decreased, and the pulse can become irregular. If heart failure ensues, elevated jugular venous pressure and hepatojugular reflux, or swelling of the legs due to peripheral edema may be found on inspection. Rarely, a cardiac bulge with a pace different from the pulse rhythm can be felt on precordial examination. Various abnormalities can be found on auscultation, such as a third and fourth heart sound, systolic murmurs, paradoxical splitting of the second heart sound, a pericardial friction rub and rales over the lung. Electrocardiogram" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_17791", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010625501202886928, "content": "Suspected severe valve disease in symptomatic patients—dyspnea, angina, heart failure, syncope Infective endocarditis with need for cardiac surgery Asymptomatic patients with aortic regurgitation and cardiac enlargement or Prior to cardiac surgery in patients with suspected coronary artery disease New onset with angina or suspected undiagnosed coronary artery disease New-onset cardiomyopathy of uncertain cause or suspected to be due to coronary artery disease Prior to surgical correction, when symptoms or noninvasive testing suggests coronary disease Symptomatic patients with suspected cardiac tamponade or constrictive pericarditis Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with angina Diseases of the aorta when knowledge of coronary artery involvement is necessary for management" }, { "id": "article-17105_12", "title": "Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome -- History and Physical -- Cardiac System [8]", "score": 0.010600255427841635, "content": "HIV infection and ART likely contribute to increased cardiovascular disease in patients. Common presenting symptoms may include chest pain, shortness of breath, or fatigue. The examination should proceed as one would when assessing for acute coronary syndrome or valvular disease, palpating for chest wall pain, observing for jugular venous distension and peripheral edema, and auscultating for abnormal heart sounds, murmurs, or evidence of pulmonary edema. Cardiovascular AIDS-related illnesses could include purulent pericarditis or cardiac tamponade caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis . If these conditions are suspected, observing for Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, jugular venous distension, and muffled heart sounds may confirm a compressive pericardial effusion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0741_6379", "title": "A case of dilated cardiomyopathy.", "score": 0.01059310190619934, "content": "Dilated cardiomyopathy is a significant health problem in Africa. Diagnosis and treatment can be challenging as it frequently affects young patients and those without risk factors for cardiac disease. A previously well HIV negative 17 year old boy presented to Mseleni hospital in December 2011 with a short history of worsening shortness of breath on exertion. The history had been preceded by a brief upper respiratory tract infection with general malaise and headache, from which he had recovered fully. On examination, he was clammy, peripherally shut down and clearly in respiratory distress. He had a raised jugular venous pressure (JVP) and palpable displaced apex beat. He had a loud P2, third heart sound and pansystolic murmur over the apex. He had scattered inspiratory crepitations bibasally. Routine blood tests on admission, including malaria and viral serology, were unremarkable. A chest x-ray showed a grossly dilated cardiac shadow and enlarged pulmonary trunk. A cardiac ultrasound ruled out pericardial effusion but did show a dilated and hypokinetic left ventricle. He was diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy secondary to a viral infection and managed accordingly. Dilated cardiomyopathy, although rare worldwide, is a significant problem throughout Africa. It has been shown to account for up to 48% of admissions with heart failure. Its aetiology is multifactorial and includes exposure to toxins and infectious agents. Presenting symptoms can be vague but improved prognosis and outcomes require prompt diagnosis and appropriate management." }, { "id": "article-18905_7", "title": "Cardiac Tamponade -- History and Physical", "score": 0.01029922458493887, "content": "Patients with cardiac tamponade present similar to patients with other forms of cardiogenic or obstructive shock. They may endorse vague symptoms of chest pain, palpitations, shortness of breath, or in more severe cases, dizziness, syncope, and altered mental status.  They may also present in a pulseless electrical activity cardiac arrest. The classic physical findings in cardiac tamponade included in Beck’s triad are hypotension, jugular venous distension, and muffled heart sounds. Pulsus paradoxus, which is a decrease in systolic blood pressure by more than 10 mm Hg with inspiration is an important physical exam finding that suggests a pericardial effusion is causing cardiac tamponade. Pulsus paradoxus may be absent in patients with ASD, elevated diastolic pressures, pulmonary hypertension and aortic regurgitation. The Kussmaul sign - a paradoxical elevated in JVP and pressure during inspiration is sometimes seen in cardiac tamponade." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_18131", "title": "Dilated cardiomyopathy", "score": 0.010240655401945725, "content": "Signs and symptoms Dilated cardiomyopathy develops insidiously, and may not initially cause symptoms significant enough to impact on quality of life. Nevertheless, many people experience significant symptoms. These might include: Shortness of breath Syncope (fainting) Angina, but only in the presence of ischemic heart disease A person suffering from dilated cardiomyopathy may have an enlarged heart, with pulmonary edema and an elevated jugular venous pressure and a low pulse pressure. Signs of mitral and tricuspid regurgitation may be present." }, { "id": "article-28076_10", "title": "Pulsus Paradoxus -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010122261035249285, "content": "Intracardiac shunts or moderate to severe valvular insufficiency Co-existing disease that significantly increases left or right ventricular diastolic pressure such severe systemic hypertension, aortic stenosis, or cor pulmonale Aortic dissection resulting in pericardial effusion/tamponade Cardiac tamponade in hypovolemia" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_11540", "title": "Jugular venous pressure", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Prominent 'x' descent Cardiac tamponade Slow 'y' descent Tricuspid stenosis Cardiac tamponade Prominent & deep 'y' descent Constrictive pericarditis Parodoxical JVP (Kussmaul's sign: JVP rises with inspiration, drops with expiration) Pericardial effusion Constrictive pericarditis Pericardial tamponade" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0133_17859", "title": "Combined multiple-valve procedures. Factors influencing the early and late results.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The early and late results were retrospectively evaluated in 57 cases of double or triple valve replacement or repair performed in 1970-1983. The causes of the valvular lesions were rheumatic fever (43 cases), bacterial endocarditis (6), syphilis (1) and unknown (7 cases). The preoperative NYHA classification was III in 29 patients and IV in 28, due mainly to dyspnea of effort. Cardiomegaly (mean radiologic volume 880 cm3/m2) and atrial fibrillation were the dominant clinical findings. Surgery was on emergency indications in five cases. Cold cardioplegia combined with external cardiac cooling has been used for myocardial protection since 1977. The valve replacements were 56 aortic, 50 mitral and 2 tricuspid. In addition there were three closed and two open mitral commissurotomies, two mitral plastic repairs, three tricuspid valve anuloplasties (DeVega) and one aortic anuloplasty. Follow-up (0.3-13, mean 3.5 years) was supplemented with a check-up including two-dimensional echophonocardiography and hematologic tests. The operative mortality (10/57 patients) fell from 26% in 1970-1976 to 12% in 1977-1983. The causes of death were low cardiac output in preoperatively ill patients (5), myocardial infarction (2), technical failure (2) and sepsis (1 case). There were 11 late deaths (6.7/100 patient-years of observation), the commonest cause (5 patients) being congestive heart failure. The respective incidences of thromboembolism, paravalvular leak and postoperative endocarditis were 2.1, 4.2 and 2.1 episodes/100 patient-years.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0287_21288", "title": "[Pericardial tuberculosis in Madagascar. 23 cases].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 56 months retrospective study, from October 1990 to May 1995, at the Centre Hospitalier de Soavinandriana in Antananarivo pointed out 29 tuberculous pericarditis among the 97 pericardial effusions discovered by the echocardiography of 5600 patients. The sex-ratio was 0,81 and the mean age 38,6 years old (+/- 14,3). Hospitalization was justified by dyspnea (18 cases), thoracic pain (18 cases), lower limbs edema (6 cases) and ascitis (3 cases). Moreover, electrocardiography showed microvoltage in 18 cases and thoracic radiography showed one heart enlargement. Even if for 15 cases a pleural effusion was associated, only 2 patients had a pulmonary image suggestive of tuberculosis. Tuberculous pericarditis has been proved by the following examinations: pericardium puncture (21 cases), pericardium and pleural biopsy (respectively 11 and 13 cases), ganglionic biopsy and search of alcohol-acid-fast bacilli in sputum: 1 case. Histologic proof has been obtained 8 times out of 9 pericardial biopsies and 6 times out of 7 pleural biopsies. Bacteriological proof has been obtained 11 times by pathological samples cultivation: twice from fresh caseous material taken from the pericardium, once from 13 pleural fluids, 5 times from 6 pericardial biopsies, 3 times from 3 pleural biopsies. The patients have been put under antituberculous treatment associated with prednisone. 20 patients have been declared cured at the end of the treatment, 5 were dead and 4 were lost out of sight. Tuberculous pericarditis has become rare in developed countries but it is still challenging in Madagascar. In spite of the antituberculous treatment associated with corticoids, prognosis is severe (evolution towards pericardial constriction death." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1782", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.00973255743222693, "content": "Echocardiography should be performed in patients with a history of cardiac disease or if abnormalities are found on physical examination or the ECG. Echocardiographic diagnoses that may be responsible for syncope include aortic stenosis, hyper-trophic cardiomyopathy, cardiac tumors, aortic dissection, and pericardial tamponade. Echocardiography also has a role in risk stratification based on the left ventricular ejection fraction. Treadmill exercise testing with ECG and blood pressure monitoring should be performed in patients who have experienced syncope during or shortly after exercise. Treadmill testing may help identify exercise-induced arrhythmias (e.g., tachycardia-related AV block) and exercise-induced exaggerated vasodilation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en329_16514", "title": "Postpericardiotomy syndrome", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Complications Complications include pericarditis, pericardial effusion, pleuritis, pulmonary infiltration, and very rarely pericardial tamponade. Of these cardiac tamponade is the most life-threatening complication. The pericardial fluid increases intra-pericardial pressure therefore preventing complete expansion of the atria and the ventricles upon the diastole. This causes equilibration of the pressure in all four heart chambers, and results in the common findings of the tamponade which are pulsus paradoxus, Beck's triad of hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and raised jugular venous pressure, as well as EKG or Holter monitor findings such as electrical alternans. Physically the patients who progress to severe pericardial tamponade obtundate, become mentally altered, and lethargic. If left untreated, severe decrease in cardiac output, vascular collapse, and hypoperfusion of body including the brain results in death." }, { "id": "article-26960_10", "title": "Constrictive-Effusive Pericarditis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.00964811527618252, "content": "In effusive-constrictive pericarditis, patients commonly present with chronic symptoms that mimic volume overload. These include jugular venous distension, ascites, hepatomegaly, peripheral edema, and pleural effusions. Tachycardia occurs reflexively due to decreased cardiac output. Other signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output include increased fatigue, hypotension, altered mental status, dyspnea, and tachypnea. Signs of active pericarditis may also ensue, including fever, pleuritic substernal chest pain, and a pericardial friction rub. Jugular venous distention also occurs due to decreased right heart filling and subsequent backup into the venous system." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 194, 446 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 33, 71 ] ], "text": "The patient presents with respiratory acidosis (PaCO2 60 mmHg; normal to 50) and compensatory metabolic alkalosis (bicarbonate 36 mmol/l; normal to 28). This is the typical blood gas of the patient with COPD and compensated chronic respiratory failure." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "None, pH is normal.", "2": "Respiratory acidosis.", "3": "Respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis.", "4": "Metabolic alkalosis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en040_1133", "title": "Respiratory acidosis", "score": 0.018596642272922945, "content": "Diagnosis Diagnoses can be done by doing an ABG (Arterial Blood Gas) laboratory study, with a pH <7.35 and a PaCO2 >45 mmHg in an acute setting. Patients with COPD and other Chronic respiratory diseases will sometimes display higher numbers of PaCO2 with HCO3- >30 and normal pH. Terminology Acidosis refers to disorders that lower cell/tissue pH to < 7.35. Acidemia refers to an arterial pH < 7.36. See also Acidosis Alkalosis Arterial blood gas Chemical equilibrium pCO2 pH pKa Metabolic acidosis Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory alkalosis References External links Acid–base disturbances" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_157315", "title": "Arterial blood gas test", "score": 0.017494270435446907, "content": "In general, it is much easier to correct acute pH derangement by adjusting respiration. Metabolic compensations take place at a much later stage. However, in a critical setting, a person with a normal pH, a high CO2, and a high bicarbonate means that, although there is a high carbon dioxide level, there is metabolic compensation. As a result, one must be careful as to not artificially adjust breaths to lower the carbon dioxide. In such case, lowering the carbon dioxide abruptly means that the bicarbonate will be in excess and will cause a metabolic alkalosis. In such a case, carbon dioxide levels should be slowly diminished. See also Anion gap Radial artery puncture Chemical equilibrium Hemoximetry Arteriovenous oxygen difference References External links Online arterial blood gas calculator Diagnostic intensive care medicine Respiratory physiology Blood tests Respiratory therapy" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en054_12514", "title": "Respiratory alkalosis", "score": 0.016666666666666666, "content": "pH Alkalosis refers to the process due to which there is elevation of blood pH. Alkalemia refers to an arterial blood pH of greater than 7.45. Treatment Respiratory alkalosis is very rarely life-threatening, though pH level should not be 7.5 or greater. The aim in treatment is to detect the underlying cause. When PaCO2 is adjusted rapidly in individuals with chronic respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis may occur. If the individual is on a mechanical ventilator then preventing hyperventilation is done via monitoring ABG levels. In popular culture In The Andromeda Strain, one of the characters is exposed to contamination, but saves himself by increasing his respiratory rate to induce alkalosis. See also References Further reading External links Acid–base disturbances" }, { "id": "article-17837_19", "title": "Arterial Blood Gas -- Results, Reporting, and Critical Findings", "score": 0.01642643812491884, "content": "Example 1 [28] : ABG: pH = 7.39, PaCO 2 = 51 mm Hg, PaO 2 = 59 mm Hg, HCO 3 = 30 mEq/L and SaO 2 = 90%, on room air. pH is in the normal range, so use 7.40 as a cutoff point, in which case it is < 7.40, and acidosis is present. The elevated PaCO 2 indicates respiratory acidosis, and the elevated HCO 3 indicates a metabolic alkalosis. The value consistent with the pH is PaCO 2 . Therefore, this is a primary respiratory acidosis. The acid-base that is inconsistent with the pH is the elevated HCO3, indicating a metabolic alkalosis, so there is compensation signifying a non-acute primary disorder because it takes days for metabolic compensation to be effective. Last, the decreased PaO 2 indicates an abnormality with oxygenation. However, a history and physical will help delineate the severity and urgency of required interventions, if any. Example 2 [28] : ABG: pH = 7.45, PaCO 2 = 32 mm Hg, PaO 2 = 138 mm Hg, HCO 3 = 23 mEq/L, the base deficit = 1 mEq/L, and SaO 2 is 92%, on room air." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en074_45830", "title": "Base excess", "score": 0.01597676107480029, "content": "Interpretation Base excess beyond the reference range indicates metabolic alkalosis if too high (more than +2 mEq/L) metabolic acidosis if too low (less than −2 mEq/L) Blood pH is determined by both a metabolic component, measured by base excess, and a respiratory component, measured by PaCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide). Often a disturbance in one triggers a partial compensation in the other. A secondary (compensatory) process can be readily identified because it opposes the observed deviation in blood pH. For example, inadequate ventilation, a respiratory problem, causes a buildup of CO2, hence respiratory acidosis; the kidneys then attempt to compensate for the low pH by raising blood bicarbonate. The kidneys only partially compensate, so the patient may still have a low blood pH, i.e. acidosis. In summary, the kidneys partially compensate for respiratory acidosis by raising blood bicarbonate." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en054_12513", "title": "Respiratory alkalosis", "score": 0.015873015873015872, "content": "Diagnosis The diagnosis of respiratory alkalosis is done via test that measure the oxygen and carbon dioxide levels (in the blood), chest x-ray and a pulmonary function test of the individual. The Davenport diagram allows clinicians or investigators to outline blood bicarbonate concentrations (and blood pH) after a respiratory or metabolic acid-base disturbance Classification There are two types of respiratory alkalosis: chronic and acute as a result of the 3–5 day delay in kidney compensation of the abnormality. Acute respiratory alkalosis occurs rapidly, have a high pH because the response of the kidneys is slow. Chronic respiratory alkalosis is a more long-standing condition, here one finds the kidneys have time to decrease the bicarbonate level. pH Alkalosis refers to the process due to which there is elevation of blood pH. Alkalemia refers to an arterial blood pH of greater than 7.45." }, { "id": "article-17837_18", "title": "Arterial Blood Gas -- Results, Reporting, and Critical Findings", "score": 0.015489084684886918, "content": "The first step is to look at the pH and assess for the presence of acidemia (pH < 7.35) or alkalemia (pH > 7.45). If the pH is in the normal range (7.35-7.45), use a pH of 7.40 as a cutoff point. In other words, categorize a pH of 7.37 as acidosis and a pH of 7.42 as alkalemia. Next, evaluate the respiratory and metabolic components of the ABG results, the PaCO 2 and HCO 3 , respectively. The PaCO 2 indicates whether the acidosis or alkalemia is primarily from a respiratory or metabolic acidosis/alkalosis. PaCO 2 > 40 with a pH < 7.4 indicates a respiratory acidosis, while PaCO 2 < 40 and pH > 7.4 indicates a respiratory alkalosis (but is often from hyperventilation from anxiety or compensation for a metabolic acidosis). Next, assess for evidence of compensation for the primary acidosis or alkalosis by looking for the value (PaCO 2 or HCO 3 ) inconsistent with the pH. Lastly, assess the PaO2 for any abnormalities in oxygenation. [29]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_157313", "title": "Arterial blood gas test", "score": 0.014565879664889567, "content": "Respiratory alkalosis (Pa CO2 < 35 mmHg) occurs when there is too little carbon dioxide in the blood. This may be due to hyperventilation or else excessive breaths given via a mechanical ventilator in a critical care setting. The action to be taken is to calm the person and try to reduce the number of breaths being taken to normalize the pH. The respiratory pathway tries to compensate for the change in pH in a matter of 2–4 hours. If this is not enough, the metabolic pathway takes place. Under normal conditions, the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation will give the blood pH where: 6.1 is the acid dissociation constant (pKa) of carbonic acid () at normal body temperature [] is the concentration of bicarbonate in the blood in mEq/L PaCO2 is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood in mmHg" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0088_10230", "title": "Simple acid-base disorders.", "score": 0.01428930817610063, "content": "The body regulates pH closely to maintain homeostasis. The pH of blood can be represented by the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation: pH = pK + log [HCO3-]/PCO2 Thus, pH is a function of the ratio between bicarbonate ion concentration [HCO3-] and carbon dioxide tension (PCO2). There are four simple acid base disorders: (1) Metabolic acidosis, (2) respiratory acidosis, (3) metabolic alkalosis, and (4) respiratory alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis is the most common disorder encountered in clinical practice. The respiratory contribution to a change in pH can be determined by measuring PCO2 and the metabolic component by measuring the base excess. Unless it is desirable to know the oxygenation status of a patient, venous blood samples will usually be sufficient. Metabolic acidosis can result from an increase of acid in the body or by excess loss of bicarbonate. Measurement of the \"anion-gap\" [(Na+ + K+) - (Cl- + HCO3-)], may help to diagnose the cause of the metabolic acidosis. Treatment of all acid-base disorders must be aimed at diagnosis and correction of the underlying disease process. Specific treatment may be required when changes in pH are severe (pH less than 7.2 or pH greater than 7.6). Treatment of severe metabolic acidosis requires the use of sodium bicarbonate, but blood pH and gases should be monitored closely to avoid an \"overshoot\" alkalosis. Changes in pH may be accompanied by alterations in plasma potassium concentrations, and it is recommended that plasma potassium be monitored closely during treatment of acid-base disturbances." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en019_114897", "title": "Acidosis", "score": 0.014043245756800743, "content": "Mutations to the V-ATPase 'a4' or 'B1' isoforms result in distal renal tubular acidosis, a condition that leads to metabolic acidosis, in some cases with sensorineural deafness. Arterial blood gases will indicate low pH, low blood HCO3, and normal or low PaCO2. In addition to arterial blood gas, an anion gap can also differentiate between possible causes. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is useful for calculating blood pH, because blood is a buffer solution. In the clinical setting, this equation is usually used to calculate HCO3 from measurements of pH and PaCO2 in arterial blood gases. The amount of metabolic acid accumulating can also be quantitated by using buffer base deviation, a derivative estimate of the metabolic as opposed to the respiratory component. In hypovolemic shock for example, approximately 50% of the metabolic acid accumulation is lactic acid, which disappears as blood flow and oxygen debt are corrected. Treatment" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0083_6786", "title": "Hydrochloric acid infusion for treatment of metabolic alkalosis associated with respiratory acidosis.", "score": 0.013778801843317971, "content": "Hypercapnia due to respiratory failure can be more severe when accompanied by coexistent metabolic alkalosis. We therefore tested the hypothesis that hydrochloric acid (HCl) infusion could improve PaCO2 in 15 critically ill patients admitted with mixed respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis, and a pH of between 7.35 and 7.45. HCl was infused at a constant rate of 25 mmol/h until the bicarbonate concentration decreased less than 26 mmol/L, or until the pH decreased less than 7.35 (initial pH greater than 7.40) or 7.30 (initial pH less than 7.40). Administration of 170 +/- 53 mmol of HCl decreased the bicarbonate concentration from 34 +/- 3 to 25 +/- 2 mmol/L (p less than .001), the pH from 7.41 +/- 0.03 to 7.33 +/- 0.02 (p less than .001), and the PaCO2 from 54 +/- 8 to 48 +/- 8 torr (p less than .001). Postinfusion PaCO2 could be predicted accurately from the initial status of the patients (r = .95, p less than .001) except in one patient with fixed hypercapnia. PaCO2 increased from 77 +/- 19 to 94 +/- 24 torr (p less than .001) and PaO2/PAO2 increased from 59 +/- 17 to 66 +/- 17% (p less than .001). The effects of HCl were still present 12 h after the end of the infusion. No complications related to the acid infusion were noted. These results indicate that, even in the absence of alkalemia, active correction of metabolic alkalosis by HCl infusion can improve CO2 and oxygen exchange in critically ill patients with mixed respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0063_13679", "title": "Chronic respiratory alkalosis. The effect of sustained hyperventilation on renal regulation of acid-base equilibrium.", "score": 0.013752913752913754, "content": "In normal subjects, chronic hyperventilation lowers plasma bicarbonate concentration, primarily by inhibiting the urinary excretion of net acid. The quantitative relation between reduced arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) and the plasma bicarbonate concentration in the chronic steady state has not been studied in humans, however, and the laboratory criteria for the diagnosis of chronic respiratory alkalosis therefore remain undefined. We wished to provide such reference data for clinical use. Moreover, because chronic hyperventilation paradoxically lowers blood pH still further in dogs with metabolic acidosis, we desired to study the effect of chronic hypocapnia on the plasma bicarbonate concentration (and blood pH) in normal human subjects in whom acidosis had been induced with ammonium chloride. Under metabolic-balance conditions, we used altitude-induced hypobaric hypoxia to produce chronic hypocapnia in nine normal young men, five of whom received ammonium chloride daily to cause metabolic acidosis (the mean [+/- SE] steady-state plasma bicarbonate level in these five was 12.0 +/- 0.5 mmol per liter). For each decrease of 1 mm Hg (0.13 kPa) in the PaCO2, the plasma bicarbonate concentration decreased by 0.41 mmol per liter in the subjects who started with a normal plasma bicarbonate concentration and by 0.42 mmol per liter in the subjects with acidosis. In contrast to the findings in previous studies of dogs, hypocapnia increased blood pH similarly in both groups; the blood hydrogen ion concentration decreased by about 0.4 nmol per liter for every decrease of 1 mm Hg (0.13 kPa) in PaCO2. These results provide reference data for the diagnosis of chronic respiratory alkalosis in humans. Although chronic hypocapnia decreased plasma bicarbonate levels similarly in normal subjects with acidosis and without acidosis, the percent reduction in PaCO2 was always greater than the corresponding percent reduction in the plasma bicarbonate concentration. Therefore, as was not true of the response in dogs, the subjects' blood pH always increased with hyperventilation, regardless of the initial plasma bicarbonate concentration." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0246_6905", "title": "The metabolic and respiratory alterations of heat stroke.", "score": 0.013432323405716248, "content": "The metabolic and respiratory changes of 21 patients with heat stroke were studied. Admission arterial blood gas levels were measured, and serum bicarbonate, lactate, calcium, phosphorus, and anion gap determinations were performed. Seven patients had a metabolic acidosis (pH 7.20 +/- 0.04, PCO2 32 +/- 2 mm Hg, and bicarbonate 12 +/- 1 mEq/L), seven a combined metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.39 +/- 0.01, PCO2 25 +/- 1 mm Hg, and bicarbonate 15 +/- 1 mEq/L), four a respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.45 +/- 0.01, PCO2 30 +/- 1 mm Hg, and bicarbonate 20 +/- 1 mEq/L), one a metabolic and respiratory acidosis (pH 7.13, PCO2 52 mm Hg, and bicarbonate 17 mEq/L), and one a respiratory acidosis (pH 7.30, PCO2 56 MM Hg, and bicarbonate 27 mEq/L). The 15 patients with a metabolic acidosis had a pH of 7.28 +/- 0.03, PCO2 of 30 +/- 2 mm Hg, bicarbonate level of 14 +/- 1 mEq/L, lactate concentration of 6.5 +/- 1.0 mEq/L, and an anion gap of 26 +/- 4 mEq/L. Nine patients were hypocalcemic (7.8 +/- 0.3 mg/dL), and five patients were hypophosphatemic (2.0 +/- 0.2 mg/dL). The predominant metabolic change in heat stroke is a metabolic acidosis secondary to increased lactate content and/or a respiratory alkalosis. Hypocalcemia is common and hypophosphatemia is not infrequent." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_157311", "title": "Arterial blood gas test", "score": 0.013411600062198725, "content": "The normal range for pH is 7.35–7.45. As the pH decreases (< 7.35), it implies acidosis, while if the pH increases (> 7.45) it implies alkalosis. In the context of arterial blood gases, the most common occurrence will be that of respiratory acidosis. Carbon dioxide is dissolved in the blood as carbonic acid, a weak acid; however, in large concentrations, it can affect the pH drastically. Whenever there is poor pulmonary ventilation, the carbon dioxide levels in the blood are expected to rise. This leads to a rise of carbonic acid, leading to a decrease in pH. The first buffer of pH will be the plasma proteins, since these can accept some H+ ions to try to maintain acid-base homeostasis. As carbon dioxide concentrations continue to increase (PaCO2 > 45 mmHg), a condition known as respiratory acidosis occurs. The body tries to maintain homeostasis by increasing the respiratory rate, a condition known as tachypnea. This allows much more carbon dioxide to escape the body through the" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en040_1095", "title": "Metabolic acidosis", "score": 0.013355530891601923, "content": "Diagnostic approach and causes Metabolic Acidosis is defined as a reduced serum pH, and an abnormal serum bicarbonate concentration of <22 mEq/L, below the normal range of 22 to 29 mEq/L. However, if a patient has other coexisting acid-base disorders, the pH level may be low, normal or high in the setting of metabolic acidosis. In the absence of chronic respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis can be clinically diagnosed by measuring serum bicarbonate levels in the blood, which is generally a standard component of blood panels. Imperatively, when weighing a metabolic acidosis diagnosis, the change in serum bicarbonate levels over time should be considered; if baseline bicarbonate results are unknown, a single set of values may be misinterpreted. Causes Generally, metabolic acidosis occurs when the body produces too much acid (e.g., lactic acidosis, see below section), there is a loss of bicarbonate from the blood, or when the kidneys are not removing enough acid from the body." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en142_15270", "title": "Pulmonary gas pressures", "score": 0.013252044392523364, "content": "The alveolar pO2 is not routinely measured but is calculated from blood gas measurements by the alveolar gas equation. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide Pathology The partial pressure of carbon dioxide, along with the pH, can be used to differentiate between metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis. Hypoventilation exists when the ratio of carbon dioxide production to alveolar ventilation increases above normal values – greater than 45mmHg. If pH is also less than 7.35 this is respiratory acidosis. Hyperventilation exists when the same ratio decreases – less than 35mmHg. If the pH is also greater than 7.45 this is respiratory alkalosis. See also Alveolar-arterial gradient Diffusing capacity Pulmonary alveolus References Respiratory physiology" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_55445", "title": "Metabolic alkalosis", "score": 0.013157013726146635, "content": "To calculate the expected pCO2 in the setting of metabolic alkalosis, the following equations are used: pCO2 = 0.7 [HCO3] + 20 mmHg ± 5 pCO2 = 0.7 [HCO3] + 21 mmHg Treatment To effectively treat metabolic alkalosis, the underlying cause(s) must be corrected. A trial of intravenous chloride-rich fluid is warranted if there is a high index of suspicion for chloride-responsive metabolic alkalosis caused by loss of gastrointestinal fluid (e.g., due to vomiting). Terminology Alkalosis refers to a process by which the pH is increased. Alkalemia refers to a pH which is higher than normal, specifically in the blood. See also Hypokalemia Metabolic acidosis Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis References External links Acid–base disturbances" }, { "id": "article-17837_20", "title": "Arterial Blood Gas -- Results, Reporting, and Critical Findings", "score": 0.013137236053702457, "content": "pH is in the normal range. Using 7.40 as a cutoff point, it is >7.40, so alkalemia is present. The decreased PaCO 2 indicates a respiratory alkalosis, and the HCO 3 is normal but on the low end of normal. The value consistent with the pH is PaCO 2 . Therefore, this is a primary respiratory alkalosis. The HCO 3 is in the normal range and, thus, not inconsistent with the pH, so there is a lack of compensation. Last, the PaO 2 is within the normal range, so there is no abnormality in oxygenation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0909_8597", "title": "Metabolic Acidosis or Respiratory Alkalosis? Evaluation of a Low Plasma Bicarbonate Using the Urine Anion Gap.", "score": 0.013113223561364793, "content": "Hypobicarbonatemia, or a reduced bicarbonate concentration in plasma, is a finding seen in 3 acid-base disorders: metabolic acidosis, chronic respiratory alkalosis and mixed metabolic acidosis and chronic respiratory alkalosis. Hypobicarbonatemia due to chronic respiratory alkalosis is often misdiagnosed as a metabolic acidosis and mistreated with the administration of alkali therapy. Proper diagnosis of the cause of hypobicarbonatemia requires integration of the laboratory values, arterial blood gas, and clinical history. The information derived from the urinary response to the prevailing acid-base disorder is useful to arrive at the correct diagnosis. We discuss the use of urine anion gap, as a surrogate marker of urine ammonium excretion, in the evaluation of a patient with low plasma bicarbonate concentration to differentiate between metabolic acidosis and chronic respiratory alkalosis. The interpretation and limitations of urine acid-base indexes at bedside (urine pH, urine bicarbonate, and urine anion gap) to evaluate urine acidification are discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0324_17072", "title": "Effects of respiratory alkalosis and acidosis on myocardial blood flow and metabolism in patients with coronary artery disease.", "score": 0.012745740498034076, "content": "Variation of the arterial carbon dioxide partial pressure (PaCO2) is not uncommon in anesthetic practice. However, little is known about the myocardial consequences of respiratory alkalosis and acidosis, particularly in patients with coronary artery disease. The aim of the current study was to investigate the effects of variation in PaCO2 on myocardial blood flow (MBF), metabolism, and systemic hemodynamics in patients before elective coronary artery bypass graft surgery. In 10 male anesthetized patients, measurements of MBF, myocardial contractility, metabolism, and systemic hemodynamics were made in a randomized sequence at PaCO2 levels of 30, 40, and 50 mmHg, respectively. The MBF was measured using the Kety-Schmidt technique with argon as a tracer. End-diastolic left ventricular pressure and the maximal increase of left ventricular pressure were assessed using a manometer-tipped catheter. The cardiac index significantly changed with varying PaCO2 levels (hypocapnia, - 9%; hypercapnia, 13%). This reaction was associated with inverse changes in systemic vascular resistance index levels. The MBF significantly increased by 15% during hypercapnia, whereas no change was found during hypocapnia. Myocardial oxygen and glucose uptake and the maximal increase of left ventricular pressure were not affected by varying PaCO2 levels. In anesthetized patients with coronary artery disease, short-term variations in PaCO2 have significant effects on MBF but do not influence global myocardial oxygen and glucose uptake. Changes in systemic hemodynamics associated with respiratory alkalosis and acidosis are caused by changes in systemic vascular resistance rather than by alterations in myocardial contractility." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en147_46232", "title": "Respiratory compensation", "score": 0.01273924360741081, "content": "In metabolic alkalosis, chemoreceptors sense a deranged acid-base balance with a plasma pH of greater than normal (>7.4). The chemoreceptors send afferent fibers to the brainstem respiratory centers. The brainstem respiratory centers decrease alveolar ventilation (hypoventilation) to create a rise in arterial carbon dioxide () tension, resulting in a decrease of plasma pH. The respiratory brainstem centers can only compensate for metabolic acid-base disturbances (metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis). Renal compensation is needed to balance respiratory acid-base syndromes (respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis). The kidneys can compensate for both, respiratory and metabolic acid-base imbalances. References Acid–base disturbances" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0070_20729", "title": "[Gas acidosis and alkalosis].", "score": 0.012701225815979916, "content": "Arterial concentration of CO2 (PaCO2) is dependent of pulmonary excretion. When this excretion is lower than cellular production respiratory acid-basis occurs: rise in PaCO2 which lowers pH and produces secondary increases in bicarbonate (HCO3-) plasma concentration. Respiratory alkalosis, generated by a CO2 pulmonary excretion greater than metabolic production is characterized by a fall in PaCO2 which raises pH and induces secondary reduction of plasmatic HCO3- concentration. Attention to the possibility of serious hypoxemia, cause or consequence, should always be regarded and treated in respiratory acid-base disorders." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0554_16321", "title": "[Characteristics of acid-base balance in patients with chronic severe hepatitis: analysis of 126 cases].", "score": 0.012690763052208835, "content": "To investigate the characteristics of acid-base balance in patients with chronic severe hepatitis. Samples of venous blood and arterial blood were collected from 126 patients with chronic severe hepatitis, 106 males and 20 females, aged 44 +/- 13 (25 - 74), to undergo measurement of the potassium, sodium, and chloride ions, and urea nitrogen and creatine, blood electrolytes and blood gas analysis respectively. Acid-base disturbance (ABD) was found in 115 of the 126 patients (91.3%). 40 of the 115 patients with ABD (31.7%) had respiratory alkalosis combined with metabolic alkalosis, 32 of them (25.4%) had respiratory alkalosis combined with metabolic acidosis; 28 of them (22.2%) had pure respiratory alkalosis, and 8 (6.3%) had pure metabolic acidosis. Five patients had triple acid-base disturbance, 4 of which had respiratory alkalosis (combined with metabolic alkalosis and metabolic acidosis, 3.2%), and 1 of which had respiratory acidosis (combined with metabolic alkalosis and metabolic acidosis, 0.8%). There was no significantly difference in the prevalence rates of pure acid-base disturbance and multiple acid-base disturbances between the patients with cirrhosis-base chronic severe hepatitis and those with chronic hepatitis-based chronic severe hepatitis. Hypoxia symptoms were seen in 34 patients (27%). 103 patients died. All the 15 patients with their blood pH &lt; 7.35 died. ABD in the patients with chronic severe hepatitis is mainly alkalosis with respiratory alkalosis as the basic ABD type. The appearance of ABD is not associated with the underlying illness. Patients of chronic severe hepatitis often suffer from hypoxia. Low blood pH is an important factor causing death." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en136_70", "title": "Acid–base homeostasis", "score": 0.012637436310002682, "content": "Acidemia and alkalemia unambiguously refer to the actual change in the pH of the extracellular fluid (ECF). Two other similar sounding terms are acidosis and alkalosis. They refer to the customary effect of a component, respiratory or metabolic. Acidosis would cause an acidemia on its own (i.e. if left \"uncompensated\" by an alkalosis). Similarly, an alkalosis would cause an alkalemia on its own. In medical terminology, the terms acidosis and alkalosis should always be qualified by an adjective to indicate the etiology of the disturbance: respiratory (indicating a change in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide), or metabolic (indicating a change in the Base Excess of the ECF). There are therefore four different acid-base problems: metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, and respiratory alkalosis. One or a combination of these conditions may occur simultaneously. For instance, a metabolic acidosis (as in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus) is almost always partially" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_157318", "title": "Blood gas test", "score": 0.012503878374185541, "content": "Blood gas tests also measure the levels of bicarbonate and of standard bicarbonate, of base excess, of oxygen saturation, and of pH. An arterial blood gas test is more often used. Clinical significance Blood gas tests can be used in the diagnosis of a number of acidosis conditions such as lactic, metabolic, and respiratory acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis, and also of respiratory alkalosis. Particularly, umbilical cord blood gas analysis can give an indication of preceding fetal hypoxic stress. In combination with other clinical information, normal paired arterial and venous cord blood gas results can usually provide a robust defence against a suggestion that an infant had an intrapartum hypoxic‐ischaemic event." }, { "id": "article-26709_8", "title": "Partial Pressure of Carbon Dioxide -- Clinical Significance", "score": 0.012301804264625477, "content": "There are differences in the acute and chronic stages of respiratory acidosis or alkalosis. Acute respiratory acidosis from increased PCO2 will result in immediate changes to serum bicarbonate levels due to the bicarbonate buffer system; however, this is limited in its ability to achieve homeostasis. The kidney will gradually increase the serum bicarbonate levels in chronic cases. Chronic respiratory acidosis is when the acidemia exists for 3 to 5 days, which is approximately how long it will take the kidney to buffer the acidemia. In acute respiratory acidosis, normally, the serum bicarbonate will increase by 1 mEq/L for every 10 mmHg increase in PCO2. For chronic respiratory acidosis, the serum bicarbonate will increase by 4 to 5 mEq/L for every 10 mmHg rise in PCO2. [6] [5] The result typically causes a mild chronic acidosis or low-normal pH near 7.35. [6] In regards to respiratory alkalosis, the same timeframe applies to acute versus chronic. In acute respiratory alkalosis, for every decrease in PCO2 by 10 mmHg, the serum bicarbonate will also decrease by 2 mEq/L. In chronic respiratory alkalosis, or alkalosis lasting 3 to 5 days, for every 10mmHg drop in PCO2, it is expected that serum bicarbonate will decrease by 4 to 5 mEq/L. [5] [6]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0564_4476", "title": "[Meeting point Stewart. Buffer bases, base excess and strong ions].", "score": 0.012220155237667585, "content": "Development of a two-buffer model which simulates the acid-base properties of blood and allows comparison of the different acidbase concepts according to Stewart and to Siggaard-Andersen. The two-buffer model consisted of different aqueous solutions of bicarbonate/CO(2) (pCO(2), sCO(2), pK(1)), HEPES buffer (A(tot), pK(a)) and electrolytes. These were used to calculate the pH from the independent variables according to Stewart - strong ion difference (SID), pCO(2) and total concentration of the weak acids (A(tot)) - from which all other dependent variables (cHCO(3)(-), cA(-), BB, BE) were obtained and compared with the measured values. The normal pH (7.408) was calculated from the normal values for SID (48 mmol/l), pCO(2) (40 mmHg) and A(tot) (45.2 mmol/l) and agreed perfectly with the measured value (7.409+/-0.001). This was also valid for all calculated and measured pH values when the SID was varied: non-respiratory alkalosis ( upward arrow) or acidosis ( downward arrow), pCO(2):respiratory acidosis ( upward arrow) or alkalosis ( downward arrow) and A(tot):hyperproteinemic acidosis ( upward arrow) or hypoproteinemic alkalosis ( downward arrow) were varied and the sum of the buffer bases (BB) was always equal to the SID. All changes and hence BE were also equal, providing that A(tot) was normal. This was not the case, however, if A(tot) was outside the normal range, when BE was then the difference from the normal BB at the respective reference point. Whereas the deviation of the measured pCO(2) was acceptable (1.74+/-0.86 mmHg), this was not the case for the SID (-6.18+/-3.58 mmol/l) calculated from the measured ion concentrations (Na, K, Ca, Cl). Despite controversial discussions, both concepts are much closer than might be expected. Whereas in the Stewart approach the focus of analysis is on plasma, with the Siggaard-Andersen approach it is on blood. Hence, a combined analysis of the blood gases (pH, pCO(2), pO(2), sO(2), cHb, BE) and of the strong ion gap (SIG) may be useful." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0320_8270", "title": "[Preclinical blood gas analysis. 1. The value of preclinical blood gas analysis].", "score": 0.012183372183372183, "content": "Prehospital blood gas analysis is a new method in out-of-hospital emergency care. In a prospective pilot study we evaluated the feasibility of prehospital compensation of severe acidosis relying on different monitoring systems to evaluate patients oxygen, carbon dioxide or acid-base status, respectively. With the help of arterial blood gas checks taken at the site of the emergency, the acid base status of patients undergoing out of hospital cardiopulmonary resuscitation was analysed. The values derived from the first arterial puncture were used to determine the presence and the type of acidosis. The data of the arterial blood gas checks were set into relation with the time elapsed since the beginning of resuscitation and they were compared with end-tidal CO2. During the observation period 26 blood gas analyses from patients who had out-of-hospital resuscitation because of cardiac arrest were done. Twenty three patients had severe acidosis (pH range &lt; 6.9 to 7.31), one had alkalosis (pH 7.51). Only two had an arterial pH within normal range. The pCO2 was variable (range: 24 to 97 mm Hg). The correlation of pH with time from the beginning of resuscitation to arterial puncture was poor (r = 0.407, p &lt; 0.05). There was no correlation between pH and BE (r = 0.267) or pH and pCO2, (r = 0.016) respectively. Prehospital capnometry had a poor correlation with arterial pCO2 in most emergency patients. Only patients with respiratory disturbances of extrapulmonary origin showed a good correlation between end-tidal CO2 and the arterial pCO2. In severely ill patients the arterio-alveolar CO2-difference was unexpectedly high (&gt; 15 mm Hg). In four patients resuscitation was not successful until compensation of an unexpectedly severe acidosis based upon the findings from blood-gas analysis had been performed. Arterial blood gas analysis proved to be helpful in the optimal management of out of hospital cardiac arrest. The incidence of severe acidosis in patients undergoing cardiopulmonary resuscitation was 80%. The probability of developing acidosis was found to increase slightly depending on the time elapsed since the beginning of CPR. The application of a calculated buffering of acidosis with sodium bicarbonate showed a good outcome in selected cases. In emergency patients alternative methods fail to detect severe disturbances of the patients oxygen and/or carbon dioxide status and the acid-base balance. Management of prehospital cardiac arrest could be optimized by the routine use of blood gas analysis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en198_22391", "title": "PCO2", "score": 0.01211459907112081, "content": "Medicine In medicine, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood is called or PaCO2. Measurement of in the systemic circulation indicates the effectiveness of ventilation at the lungs' alveoli, given the diffusing capacity of the gas. It is a good indicator of respiratory function and the closely related factor of acid–base homeostasis, reflecting the amount of acid in the blood (without lactic acid). Normal values for humans are in the range 35–45 mmHg. Values less than this may indicate hyperventilation and (if blood pH is greater than 7.45) respiratory alkalosis. Values greater than 45 mmHg may indicate hypoventilation, and (if blood pH is less than 7.35) respiratory acidosis. Aquatic Sciences" }, { "id": "article-17360_2", "title": "Physiology, Metabolic Alkalosis -- Related Testing", "score": 0.01195664320035758, "content": "An arterial blood gas is a laboratory test used for the measurement of arterial pH, the arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2), the arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2), bicarbonate (HCO3), base excess, total CO2, and O2 saturation. A venous blood gas is a laboratory test identical to an arterial blood gas measurement, except the blood is drawn from a venous site. This results in a slightly more acidic “normal” pH range. Urine chloride is a direct measurement of chloride being excreted into urine. This test is useful to help determine the etiology of metabolic alkalosis. [3] [4] [5]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0286_14097", "title": "Base excess or buffer base (strong ion difference) as measure of a non-respiratory acid-base disturbance.", "score": 0.011921677352278635, "content": "Stewart in 1983 (Can J Physiol Pharmacol 1983: 61: 1444) reintroduced plasma buffer base under the name \"strong ion difference\" (SID). Buffer base was originally introduced by Singer and Hastings in 1948 (Medicine (Baltimore) 1948: 27: 223). Plasma buffer base, which is practically equal to the sum of bicarbonate and albuminate anions, may be increased due to an excess of base or due to an increased albumin concentration. Singer and Hastings did not consider changes in albumin as acid-base disorders and therefore used the base excess, i.e., the actual buffer base minus the buffer base at normal pH and pCO2, as measure of a non-respiratory acid-base disturbance. Stewart and followers, however, consider changes in albumin concentration to be acid-base disturbances: a patient with normal pH, pCO2, and base excess but with increased plasma buffer base due to increased plasma albumin concentration get the diagnoses metabolic (strong ion) alkalosis (because plasma buffer base is increased) combined with metabolic hyperalbuminaemic acidosis. Extrapolating to whole blood, anaemia and polycytaemia should represent types of metabolic alkalosis and acidosis, respectively. This reveals that the Stewart approach is absurd and anachronistic in the sense that an increase or decrease in any anion is interpreted as indicating an excess or deficit of a specific acid. In other words, a return to the archaic definitions of acids and bases as being the same as anions and cations. We conclude that the acid-base status (the hydrogen ion status) of blood and extracellular fluid is described in terms of the arterial pH, the arterial pCO2, and the extracellular base excess. It is measured with a modern pH-blood gas analyser. The electrolyte status of the plasma is a description of the most important electrolytes, usually measured in venous blood with a dedicated electrolyte analyser, i.e., Na+, Cl-, HCO3-, and K+. Albumin anions contribute significantly to the anions, but calculation requires measurement of pH in addition to albumin and is usually irrelevant. The bicarbonate concentration may be used as a screening parameter of a nonrespiratory acid-base disturbance when respiratory disturbances are taken into account. A disturbance in the hydrogen ion status automatically involves a disturbance in the electrolyte status, whereas the opposite need not be the case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0629_21325", "title": "[Cardiac arrest in chronic metabolic alkalosis due to sodium bicarbonate abuse].", "score": 0.011742424242424242, "content": "Moderate metabolic alkalosis has not been considered as a life-threatening situation by many authors, but when it persists and pH increases above 7.65, the situation may become critical. We present a case of a 61-yr-old alcoholic male patient, who had been consuming approximately 200 g of sodium bicarbonate daily for twenty years, due to persisitent heartburn and abdominal pains. The patient was admitted to the ITU after home cardiac arrest and resuscitation. On admission he was unconscious and in respiratory distress, with a GCS of 5. Blood gases revealed that his pH was 7.64, HCO3 44 mmol L(-1), K+ 2.4 mmol L(-1)l, Cl- 44 mmol L(-1), and lactate concentration over 15 mmol L(-1). He was treated with controlled hypercapnia, up to a PaCO2 of 63 mm Hg, sedation, and administration of a large amount of chloride (864 mmol during the first day). The patient regained consciousness after 48 h, was extubated and transferred to the internal medicine department where he died 3 days later. Chronic alkali abuse can lead to various metabolic disturbances, neurologic disturbances and cardiovascular compromise. In the described case, the exact cause of cardiac arrest remained unknown, but may have been caused by alkalosis combined with hypoxia, hypokalemia and poor general condition. The extreme metabolic alkalosis (pH 7.8) could also have been enhanced by the administration of i.v. sodium bicarbonate during resuscitation. The treatment of choice in such cases should consist of vigorous chloride containing fluid resuscitation, ammonium chloride and hemodialysis." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Factitious thyrotoxicosis.", "2": "Hyperthyroidism due to Graves' disease.", "3": "Ovarian teratoma (ovarian stromal).", "4": "Subacute thyroiditis.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0534_2003", "title": "RET/PTC3 rearrangement and thyroid differentiation gene analysis in a struma ovarii fortuitously revealed by elevated serum thyroglobulin concentration.", "score": 0.019232547387887194, "content": "Struma ovarii (SO) is usually asymptomatic and only in a few cases it is associated with thyrotoxicosis. The presurgical diagnosis is very uncommon. In the majority of cases a pelvic mass is discovered at physical examination or by abdominal ultrasound. Only the hystopathologic examination is able to reveal the characteristic features of SO, with thyroid cells organized in follicles as the main tumoral tissue constituent. The histologic recognition of malignancy is not easy and usually requires an exhaustive sampling of the lesion to evaluate the extracapsular invasion. We report the case of a 59-year-old woman who came to our observation for the fortuitous finding of elevated serum thyroglobulin (Tg) levels (600-800 ng/mL). Because the thyroid function was normal and the ultrasound showed only a subcentrimetric nodule, the clinical suspicious of a SO was considered. Ultrasound examination of the abdomen showed a solid mass of 2 cm in the left ovary. A (131)I uptake was observed at scintiscan in the site of the solid mass. Three months after the resection of the left ovary serum Tg levels were markedly reduced (106 ng/mL), and its values continued to decrease down to 34 ng/mL at last control. The histology showed that the ovarian mass was mainly constituted of thyroid tissue (98%), with no malignant features. The molecular analysis of several thyroid differentiation gene mRNAs in the SO tissue showed an abundant expression of all genes but pendrin (PDS). A reduced PDS mRNA expression might explain the defective thyroxine (T(4)) production. Despite the absence of malignant features, the expression of RET/PTC3 rearrangement was found, raising the possibility of a potential malignant nature of the tumor. A cancer-free period of 3-4 years, as in our patient, is not long enough to definitively exclude a late onset metastatic disease but, unfortunately, the patient died of nonmedical reasons. In conclusion, we report a case of SO that, to our knowledge, is the first in which the clinical suspicion arose from the inappropriately elevated presurgical serum levels of Tg. A quite exhaustive molecular analysis of thyroid specific genes and oncogenes provided two interesting findings: the low PDS mRNA expression, which may explain the low hormonal production and the absence of thyrotoxicosis and the presence of a RET/PTC3 rearrangement, which prompts the possibility of a late malignant evolution." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1090_24702", "title": "First case report of papillary thyroid carcinoma arising within a functional teratoma in Graves' disease patient.", "score": 0.01809771141048531, "content": "Mature cystic teratoma is the most common kind of ovarian germ tumor. However, malignant transformation is uncommon, differentiated thyroid carcinoma is even rare. Hyperthyroidism due to coexistence of Graves' disease (GD) and struma ovarii has been reported. Functional teratoma with papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC) in GD case has never been reported in literature. A 48-year-old woman with GD for 4 years, who visited our hospital with complaints of severe abdominal pain for 1 day. Computed tomography of the abdominal revealed a large fat-containing lesion with dense calcification, measured 8.6 × 7.2 cm in size. Laparotomy right total oophorectomy was performed, and a huge gangrenous right ovary was noted during exploration. The final pathological diagnosis was teratoma with PTC change at right ovary. We performed thyroglobulin, TTF-1 and CK19 staining in the teratoma, the results were positive, suggesting the thyroid-hormone secretion in the PTC tissue. After resection of the ovarian lesion, euthyroidism was achieved. Adjuvant thyroidectomy is not performed for no evidence of thyroid lesion or distant metastases. No GD recurrence in the 2 years after operation. The patient also does not manifest any gynecological disease symptoms, whereas the other ovary, in the follow-up ultrasound examinations, shows normal size and echo structure. PTC can arise within ovarian teratoma and may have thyroid hormone production. Surgeries of unilateral oophorectomy or cystectomy are a reasonable treatment, and follow-up of thyroid image and data is necessary." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1097_19359", "title": "Hyperthyroidism associated with <i>struma ovarii</i> - a case report and review of literature.", "score": 0.01745598057073467, "content": "Hyperthyroidism is a state characterized by elevated serum level of thyroid hormones: thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). This is mainly related to the condition and functioning of the thyroid gland. In 60-80% of cases elevation of these hormones are caused by Grave's disease. Thyrotoxicosis is an extreme presentation of hyperthyroidism which can, in rare cases, be caused by excessive synthesis of thyroxine by tumor cells. Struma ovarii is a rare ovarian teratoma composed of thyroid tissue in more than 50%. To present a case of a 30-year-old female patient with a past history of Grave's disease treated by strumectomy 7 years prior; now presenting for the assessment of secondary amenorrhea. Pelvic ultrasound revealed bilateral solid tumors on the left and right ovary, respectively measuring 5 cm and 6 cm in diameter. Her clinical presentation was suggestive of overt hyperthyroidism, and she presented with a significantly elevated CA-125 (152.7 U/mL). The patient subsequently underwent a bilateral oophorectomy in which both masses were excised and histopathological examination confirmed teratoma maturum cysticum. Struma ovarii was noted as a component of the left ovary teratoma. Establishing a proper diagnosis of hyperthyroidism and elucidating its origin is often challenging. Struma ovarii is a rare cause of hyperthyroidism but should always be considered in case of treatment resistant hyperthyroidism. This case-report lends itself as an example of the value in maintaining gynecological-endocrinological knowledge in the setting if clinical gynecology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0498_12183", "title": "Coexistence of malignant struma ovarii and Graves' disease.", "score": 0.016025641025641024, "content": "To report an unusual case of hyperthyroidism from Graves' disease that was coexistent with malignant struma ovarii. We summarize the clinical history, physical findings, laboratory data, imaging studies, pathologic features, and treatment in a patient with recurrent hyperthyroidism and discuss the incidence of ovarian tumors of various histologic origins, including thyroid tissue (that is, struma ovarii). Five years after diagnosis of Graves' disease and resolution of symptoms with 1 year of antithyroid drug therapy, a 53-year-old woman had recurrence of palpitations, tremors, and weight loss. Results of thyroid function tests showed high total and free thyroxine levels and a low thyrotropin level. Thyroid radioiodine uptake was high (69% at 24 hours). Abdominal ultrasound studies disclosed a cystic mass in the right adnexal area. Total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral oophorectomy revealed a 7.5-cm cystic right ovary that contained a 1.0-cm struma ovarii with a 0.4-cm nodule of follicular variant papillary thyroid carcinoma within it. The patient was treated with methimazole and radioiodine ablation of the thyroid. Three months later, a massive myocardial infarction resulted in her death. The concomitant presence of Graves' disease complicates the management of struma ovarii and raises interesting questions about treatment and prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1080_12085", "title": "Resolution of hyperthyroidism and thyroid antibodies following struma ovarii resection: an uncommon entity.", "score": 0.015811730097444382, "content": "We report a case of 34-year-old clinically asymptomatic woman who had been followed for 6 years for hyperthyroidism with thyroid stimulating hormone &lt;0.006 uIU/mL, free T4 1.98 ng/mL, free T3 5.3 pg/mL, elevated thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin 1.70 IU/L, thyroid peroxidase antibody 38 IU/mL and thyroglobulin antibody 9.3 IU/mL. Radioiodine thyroid scan showed minimal uptake in both thyroid lobes (24-hour uptake was 0.3%). She subsequently underwent evaluation for lower abdominal pain and menstrual irregularities, which revealed a large left ovarian cyst measuring 15.9 cm × 10.8 cm × 13.2 cm and right-sided ovarian cyst measuring 2.7 cm × 3.3 cm × 3.5 cm. Laparoscopic bilateral ovarian cystectomy was performed and the final pathology revealed struma ovarii of the left ovarian cyst with the entire ovarian tumour made up of benign thyroid tissue. Thyroid function tests performed 3 months after surgical removal of struma ovarii showed euthyroidism. We present a rare case with detailed laboratory and immunological data before and after ovarian extirpation with resolution of hyperthyroidism associated with functional struma ovarii." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0668_12653", "title": "Expression of benign and malignant thyroid tissue in ovarian teratomas and the importance of multimodal management as illustrated by a BRAF-positive follicular variant of papillary thyroid cancer.", "score": 0.014629904342933143, "content": "The most common type of ovarian germ cell tumor is the teratoma. Thyroid tissue, both benign and malignant, may be a component of an ovarian teratoma. Here we review this topic and illustrate major features by presenting multimodal management of a patient with BRAF-positive disseminated follicular thyroid cancer arising in an ovarian teratoma. Malignant thyroid tissue is often difficult to distinguish from benign thyroid tissue arising in ovarian teratomas. Preoperatively, an elevated thyroglobulin (Tg) level, laboratory or clinical evidence of hyperthyroidism, or ultrasonography appearance of \"struma pearl\" should prompt referral to oncologist for surgical management of a possibly malignant ovarian teratoma. Postoperatively, tumor tissue should be referred to pathologists experienced with differentiating benign from malignant struma ovarii. Once diagnosed, treatment of this rare condition should be handled by a team of specialists with combined treatment modalities. We cared for woman with disseminated thyroid cancer arising in an ovarian teratoma whose history illustrates the complexity of managing ovarian teratomas with malignant thyroid tissue. At age 33 she had an intraoperative rupture of an ovarian cyst, thought to be struma ovarii. During her next pregnancy, pelvic masses were noted; biopsies revealed well-differentiated papillary thyroid carcinoma, follicular variant. She was euthyroid, but had elevated serum Tg levels. Surgical staging demonstrated widely metastatic intraabdominal dissemination. A thyroidectomy revealed no malignancy. A post-(131)I treatment scan revealed diffuse uptake throughout the abdomen. She then developed abdominal pain and, on computed tomography, was found to have multiple intraabdominal foci of disease. Serum Tg was 264 ng/mL while on L-thyroxine for hypothyroidism and to obtain thyrotropin suppression. A 18 fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography scan showed no pathological uptake. The tumor was found to be BRAF mutation positive (K601E). She underwent extensive secondary debulking and a second course of (131)I with lithium pretreatment. Posttreatment scan revealed diffuse abdominal uptake. Six months posttherapy, the patient is asymptomatic with a serum Tg of 18.1 ng/mL. Aggressive multimodal management appears to be the most promising approach for malignant thyroid tissue arising in ovarian teratomas." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1116_12785", "title": "Malignant Struma Ovarii with Concurrent Thyroid Cancer: Outcomes during and after Pregnancy.", "score": 0.014320521107851425, "content": "Struma ovarii (SO) is a rare ovarian teratoma characterized by the presence of thyroid tissue in more than 50% of the tumor. Malignant transformation is rare and the most common associated malignancy is papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC). Pregnancy may represent a stimulus to differentiated thyroid cancer (DTC) growth in patients with known structural or biochemical evidence of disease, but data about malignant SO evolution during pregnancy are rare. We present the first reported case of a pregnant patient with malignant SO and biochemical evidence of disease. A previously healthy 35-year-old female diagnosed with a suspicious left pelvic mass on routine ultrasound was submitted to laparoscopic oophorectomy which revealed a malignant SO with areas of PTC. A 15-mm thyroid nodule (Bethesda V in the fine-needle aspiration cytology) was detected by palpation and total thyroidectomy was performed. Histology revealed a 15 mm follicular variant of PTC (T1bNxMx). Subsequently, she received 100 mCi of radioactive iodine therapy (RAIT) with the whole-body scan showing only moderate neck uptake. Her suppressed thyroglobulin (Tg) before RAI was 1.1 ng/mL. She maintained biochemical evidence of disease, with serum Tg levels of 7.6 ng/mL. She got pregnant 14 months after RAIT, and during pregnancy, Tg increased to 21.5 ng/mL. After delivery, Tg decreased to 14 ng/mL but, 6 months later, rose again and reached 31.9 ng/mL on the last follow-up visit. TSH was always suppressed during follow-up. At the time of SO diagnosis, a chest computed tomography scan showed 4 bilateral lung micronodules in the upper lobes which were nonspecific, and 9 months after diagnosis, a pelvic MRI revealed a suspicious cystic nodule located on the oophorectomy bed. These lung and pelvic nodules remained stable during follow-up. Neck ultrasonography, abdominal MRI, and fluorodeoxyglucose-positron emission tomography showed no suspicious lesions. As for DTC, pregnancy seems to represent a stimulus to malignant SO growth. This can be caused by the high levels of estrogen during pregnancy that may bind to receptors in malignant cells and/or by the high levels of hCG which is known to stimulate TSH receptors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0575_2431", "title": "[Particular evolution of the thyroid state in Grave's disease: two cases].", "score": 0.01358830146231721, "content": "We report two cases of Grave's disease (GD) caracterized by the succession of hypothyroid and hyperthyroid states. Case 1: A 32 years old woman, has presented initially a typical GD with hyperthyroidism. Grave's ophtalmopathy and homogenous goiter. Four months later, she presented a spontaneous hypothyroidism necessiting treatment with thyroxine and a severe myasthenia gravis. More later (6 months), she experienced symptoms of hyperthyroidism after thymectomy. The level of anti-thyrotropin-receptor antibodies (TSab) was very high (141 UI/I, NV &lt; 10). Case 2: A 29 years old woman has been treated by thyroxine (150 microg/day) for a primary hypothyroidism. Ten months later, she presented symptoms of hyperthyroidism even after stoppage of thyroxine. TSH value was decreased (TSH &lt; 0.05 microU/ml) and FT4 level was raised (FT4 = 25.5 pmol/l). The thyroid antibodies were positive. We discuss, after review of the litterature, the physiopathological mecanisms of these changes in the thyroid state, particularly the role of the blocking and stimulating anti-thyrotropin-receptor antibodies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0571_5079", "title": "Hyperthyroidism due to coexistence of Graves' disease and Struma ovarii.", "score": 0.01339605734767025, "content": "To report an unusual case of persistent thyrotoxicosis after treatment of Graves' disease, because of coexistence of struma ovarii. We report the clinical history, imaging studies, laboratory and pathologic data, and treatment in a patient with persistent hyperthyroidism after surgical treatment of Graves' disease. In addition, we discuss some aspects of the pathogenesis of hyperthyroidism due to functioning struma ovarii. A 42-year-old woman underwent near-total thyroidectomy for treatment of Graves' disease. Post-operatively, hyperthyroidism was still present. Methimazole was administered again, and performance of a 131I whole-body scan demonstrated a focus of intense uptake in the pelvis. Pelvic ultrasonography revealed a mass (11 by 8 by 7.1 cm) arising from the right ovary, with both solid and cystic components. Abdominal surgical exploration was performed, and the final histologic diagnosis was struma ovarii. The symptoms of hyperthyroidism diminished, and 3 weeks postoperatively, the thyroid hormone levels were in the hypothyroid range. In patients with refractory hyperthyroidism after thyroid surgical treatment, radioiodine scanning should be performed to diagnose or exclude the functioning profile of ovarian masses." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0755_2240", "title": "A case of simultaneous occurrence of Graves' disease and Hashimoto's thyroiditis.", "score": 0.01325926526640175, "content": "Simultaneous occurrence of Hashimoto's thyroiditis (HT), and Graves' disease (GD) is rare. We report a case of simultaneous occurrence of GD and HD, at presentation. A 60-year-old lady presented with tremulousness of hands, palpitation, and excessive sweating. She had a history of weight loss and neck-swelling. Her weight was 46 kg, BMI 17, afebrile, regular pulse rate of 110/min with fine tremor in hands. Thyroid gland was symmetrically enlarged, firm, without any bruit, but mildly tender with lobular surface. There were no occular manifestations. Initial thyroid function tests (TFT) revealed: T3: 3.80 ng/ml (0.80-2.10), T4: 12.40 ug/dl (5.10-12), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH): 0.20 μU/L (0.70-5). Her anti thyroperoxidase (TPO) antibody: 374 IU/ml (normal [nl.] &lt;35) and TSH receptor antibody: 15 U/L (nl. &lt;1) were both strongly positive. Ultrasonogram of thyroid revealed a hypoechoic enlarged gland. 99mTc pertechnetate scan showed an enlarged gland with increased uptake of radiocontrast: 17% (nl. 0.4-4%) with some patchy defects in both lower poles. Thyroid fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) showed sheets of Hurthle cells with abdunce of lymphocytes indicating HT. She was observed on beta blockers. Repeat TFT, 3 months later showed: T3: 4.20 ng/ml, T4: 14.40 ug/dl, TSH: 0.001 μU/L, with increased uptake on repeat scan. HT rarely occurs following GD. Our case of an elderly lady with no eye signs, lobular, firm tender goiter with patchy uptake in both lower poles on Tc99m scan were odd points in diagnosing isolated GD. FNAC confirmed simultaneous HD with GD." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_81643", "title": "Hashimoto's thyroiditis", "score": 0.012206173888416879, "content": "Given the relatively nonspecific symptoms of initial hypothyroidism, Hashimoto's thyroiditis is often misdiagnosed as depression, cyclothymia, premenstrual syndrome, chronic fatigue syndrome, fibromyalgia, and less frequently, as erectile dysfunction or an anxiety disorder. On gross examination, a hard goiter that is not painful to the touch often presents; other symptoms seen with hypothyroidism, such as periorbital myxedema, depend on the current state of progression of the response, especially given the usually gradual development of clinically relevant hypothyroidism. Testing for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), free T3, free T4, and the antithyroglobulin antibodies (anti-Tg), antithyroid peroxidase antibodies (anti-TPO, or TPOAb) and antimicrosomal antibodies can help obtain an accurate diagnosis. Earlier assessment of the person may present with elevated levels of thyroglobulin owing to transient thyrotoxicosis, as inflammation within the thyroid causes damage to the integrity" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_205311", "title": "Hyperthyroidism", "score": 0.011973118965590574, "content": "Measuring specific antibodies, such as anti-TSH-receptor antibodies in Graves' disease, or anti-thyroid peroxidase in Hashimoto's thyroiditis—a common cause of hypothyroidism—may also contribute to the diagnosis. The diagnosis of hyperthyroidism is confirmed by blood tests that show a decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level and elevated T4 and T3 levels. TSH is a hormone made by the pituitary gland in the brain that tells the thyroid gland how much hormone to make. When there is too much thyroid hormone, the TSH will be low. A radioactive iodine uptake test and thyroid scan together characterizes or enables radiologists and doctors to determine the cause of hyperthyroidism. The uptake test uses radioactive iodine injected or taken orally on an empty stomach to measure the amount of iodine absorbed by the thyroid gland. Persons with hyperthyroidism absorb much more iodine than healthy persons which includes radioactive iodine which is easy to measure. A thyroid scan" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1162_13604", "title": "Strumal Carcinoid Tumor of the Ovary: Report of Rare Occurrence with Review of Literature.", "score": 0.01143454539514522, "content": "The primary ovarian carcinoid tumor is a very rare ovarian tumor, which accounts for approximately 0.5% to 1.7% of all carcinoids and 1% of ovarian cancer. According to its histopathological features, it can be divided into four categories: insular, trabecular, strumal, and mucinous, among which insular carcinoid is common in Western countries. By comparison, the chain-typed and trabecular carcinoid seem to be common in Asian countries. To date, about 150 cases have been reported in the world, and 40% of them are strumal carcinoid tumor of the ovary (SCTO), which is a highly specialized teratoma differentiated from the monomer, and often characterized by the coexistence of thyroid follicular tissue and carcinoid tissue with the neuroendocrine function. Preoperative diagnosis may be difficult due to the very insidious nature of the disease and its multiple imaging manifestations. We reported the case of a 39-year-old woman with a 5-year clinical history. Gynecologic examination and ultrasonic testing revealed an enlarged ovary with a diameter of about 60 mm, accompanied by a hypoechoic area, which was suspected to be a benign teratoma. Ca-125, AFP, free T4, TSH, and other diagnostic indicators were normal. During the laparoscopic oophorocystectomy of the left ovary, a smooth and solid tumor with the size of 6 × 6 × 5 cm was found in the right ovary. During the operation, a mature cystic teratoma containing a struma was frozen, then the oophorocystectomy of the left ovary was performed. According to the Federation International of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) in 2014, histopathological examination showed a mature teratoma with thyroid carcinoid stage Ic, and Douglas's cystic hygroma cytopathology was negative. One year after the operation, the patient was tumor-free, with Ca-125, FT4, and TSH being within the normal range. Specific diagnostic tools and serological monitoring of malignant tumors of the ovary have low specificity and sensitivity in the diagnosis of this rare malignant tumor of the ovary. Female patients with habitual constipation, chronic abdominal colic, diarrhea, and endocrine dysfunction also need to be alert to this rare malignant tumor of the ovary." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_5517", "title": "List of MeSH codes (C19)", "score": 0.01103248316870608, "content": "– polyendocrinopathies, autoimmune – thyroid diseases – euthyroid sick syndromes – goiter – goiter, endemic – goiter, nodular – goiter, substernal – graves disease – graves ophthalmopathy – lingual goiter – hyperthyroidism – graves disease – graves ophthalmopathy – thyrotoxicosis – thyroid crisis – hyperthyroxinemia – hyperthyroxinemia, familial dysalbuminemic – thyroid hormone resistance syndrome – hypothyroidism – congenital hypothyroidism – myxedema – thyroid dysgenesis – lingual thyroid – lingual goiter – thyroid neoplasms – thyroid nodule – thyroiditis – thyroiditis, autoimmune – hashimoto disease – postpartum thyroiditis – thyroiditis, subacute – thyroiditis, suppurative – thyrotoxicosis – thyroid crisis – tuberculosis, endocrine The list continues at List of MeSH codes (C20). C19" }, { "id": "article-23323_22", "title": "I-123 Uptake -- Normal and Critical Findings -- Thyrotoxicosis of Extrathyroidal Origin", "score": 0.010897175370859581, "content": "There are multiple sources of extrathyroidal thyroid hormone, including exogenous thyroid hormone ingestion seen in factitious hyperthyroidism, thyroid hormone-producing metastatic thyroid cancer, and struma ovarii, a teratomatous ovarian mass that contains functional thyroid tissue. Another extrathyroidal cause of thyrotoxicosis includes TSH-induced thyrotoxicosis, which is caused by an autonomous TSH secreting pituitary adenoma, the only extrathyroidal cause associated with an elevated RAIU. Clinically, patients can have varying levels of thyrotoxicosis, depending on the level of excretion the exogenous source releases. Factitious hyperthyroidism can often be difficult to diagnose as the patients rarely disclose exogenous thyroid ingestion. Oftentimes the ingested thyroid hormone is T4, which may yield a higher than normal T4 to T3 ratio. Thyroid hormone production from metastatic thyroid malignancy is not very common as it requires a well-differentiated metastatic malignancy, which is usually less efficient at producing and excreting thyroid hormone. These metastases are usually seen in the setting of known thyroid cancer on I-131 imaging. Similar to metastasis, struma ovarii does not efficiently excrete thyroid hormone and rarely produces significant amounts of thyroid hormone. Struma ovarii is often found incidentally when pathology of an ovarian mass returns with thyroid tissue. RAIU of the overall thyroid gland in the neck is decreased, while the lesion may have elevated RAIU. [11]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0930_23907", "title": "Concurrent Intrathyroidal Thyroid Cancer and Thyroid Cancer in Struma Ovarii: A Case Report and Literature Review.", "score": 0.010409906986805105, "content": "The presence of differentiated thyroid cancer in mature cystic teratomas in the ovaries is rare, and usually incidentally found on surgical pathology specimens. We present a case of simultaneous intrathyroidal thyroid cancer and thyroid cancer within a struma ovarii, presenting specific diagnostic challenges. A 55-year-old woman had an intrathyroidal, encapsulated 1.2-cm papillary thyroid carcinoma, follicular variant, which was resected. Laboratory studies showed an elevated thyroglobulin level of 35 ng/mL while on suppressive levothyroxine therapy. During preparation for radioactive iodine ablation, thyroglobulin increased dramatically to 3490 ng/mL. A pretreatment whole-body scan showed residual tracer uptake in the thyroid bed and increased radiotracer uptake in the pelvis that raised concern for a pelvic metastasis, given the marked thyroglobulin elevation. After ablation, the posttreatment scan showed intense focal uptake in the pelvis. Single-photon emission computed tomography-computed tomography confirmed that the tracer uptake corresponded to a right adnexal mass. The patient underwent a laparoscopic bilateral salpingo-oophorecotomy with pelvic washings. The final pathology of the right ovary showed papillary thyroid carcinoma arising in a mature cystic teratoma. In addition, there was abundant normal thyroid tissue with colloid surrounding the carcinoma, indicating a source for the dramatic rise in thyroglobulin levels and suggesting that the ovarian papillary thyroid cancer arose within the teratoma and was not metastatic disease. Thyroglobulin measurements have been undetectable for 5 years since surgery and radioiodine treatment. Concurrent intrathyroidal thyroid cancer and differentiated thyroid cancer in struma ovarii are very rare, but can often be distinguished on clinical grounds." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_156556", "title": "Thyroid", "score": 0.010239684466019416, "content": "An examination of the thyroid will also include observation of the person as a whole, to look for systemic signs such as weight gain or loss, hair loss, and signs in other locations – such as protrusion of the eyes or swelling of the calves in Graves' disease. Tests Thyroid function tests include a battery of blood tests, including the measurement of the thyroid hormones, as well as the measurement of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). They may reveal hyperthyroidism (high T3 and T4), hypothyroidism (low T3, T4), or subclinical hyperthyroidism (normal T3 and T4 with a low TSH)." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_5689", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009962331482950039, "content": "Tumors secreting human chorionic gonadotropin (molar pregnancy, choriocarcinoma) a similar clinical picture include toxic adenomas and toxic multinodular goiter. A radioactive iodine uptake thyroid scan may help differentiate these two conditions from Graves disease. Rare conditions resulting in thyrotoxicosis include metastatic thyroid carcinoma causing thyrotoxicosis, amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis, iodine induced thyrotoxicosis, postpartum thyroiditis, a TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma, an hCG-secreting choriocarcinoma, struma ovarii, and “de Quervan’s” or subacute thyroiditis (394). Factitious ingestion of thyroxine or desiccated thyroid should be considered in patients with eating disorders. Patients with thyrotoxicosis factitia demonstrate elevated T3 and T4, suppressed TSH, and a low serum thyroglobulin level, whereas other causes of thyroiditis and thyrotoxicosis demonstrate high levels of thyroglobulin. Potential causes of hyperthyroidism are listed in Table 31.14." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en190_18552", "title": "Thyrotoxicosis factitia", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Patients present with hyperthyroidism and may be mistaken for Graves’ disease, if TSH receptor positive, or thyroiditis because of absent uptake on a thyroid radionuclide uptake scan due to suppression of thyroid function by exogenous thyroid hormones. Ingestion of thyroid hormone also suppresses thyroglobulin levels helping to differentiate thyrotoxicosis factitia from other causes of hyperthyroidism, in which serum thyroglobulin is elevated. Caution, however, should be exercised in interpreting thyroglobulin results without thyroglobulin antibodies, since thyroglobulin antibodies commonly interfere in thyroglobulin immunoassays causing false positive and negative results which may lead to clinical misdirection. In such cases, increased faecal thyroxine levels in thyrotoxicosis factitia may help differentiate it from other causes of hyperthyroidism. See also Foodborne illness Liothyronine References External links Thyroid disease Toxicology" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0601_12532", "title": "Malignant struma ovarii.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 25-year-old woman presented to her gynecologist with pelvic pain. Pelvic ultrasonography showed a 9 cm left ovarian mass. The patient underwent left oophorectomy, omental biopsy, and lymph node sampling. The ovarian mass proved to be a struma ovarii with numerous microscopic foci of papillary thyroid carcinoma. The patient had no symptoms of hyperthyroidism, and her thyroid function and serum thyroglobulin levels were normal. Investigations included a pelvic ultrasound scan, histological examination of the ovarian mass and omental nodules, and lymph node sampling. Malignant struma ovarii. The patient was referred to an endocrinology clinic for further investigations. Serum levels of TSH, thyroglobulin and thyroglobulin antibodies were measured. In addition, the patient underwent thyroid ultrasonography, which showed a 1 cm nodule that proved benign on biopsy. She was treated with thyroxine to reduce TSH secretion. Follow-up pelvic ultrasonography 1 year later showed no evidence of recurrent disease, and her serum thyroglobulin levels remained normal." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_139837", "title": "Graves' disease", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Another sign of Graves' disease is hyperthyroidism; that is, overproduction of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4. Normal thyroid levels are also seen, and occasionally also hypothyroidism, which may assist in causing goiter (though it is not the cause of the Graves' disease). Hyperthyroidism in Graves' disease is confirmed, as with any other cause of hyperthyroidism, by measuring elevated blood levels of free (unbound) T3 and T4. Other useful laboratory measurements in Graves' disease include thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH, usually undetectable in Graves' disease due to negative feedback from the elevated T3 and T4), and protein-bound iodine (elevated). Serologically detected thyroid-stimulating antibodies, radioactive iodine (RAI) uptake, or thyroid ultrasound with Doppler all can independently confirm a diagnosis of Graves' disease. Biopsy to obtain histiological testing is not normally required, but may be obtained if thyroidectomy is performed." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_3696", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.009646502364948966, "content": "Diffuse toxic goiter (Grave’s disease) is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism and results from abnormal stimulation of the thyroid gland by antithyroid antibodies. Other causes of hyperthyroidism include multinodular goiter, excess thyroid hormone, or thyroiditis. Any signs or symptoms suggestive of weight loss, tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, goiter, or proptosis should initiate a more extensive laboratory evaluation of thyroid function. Total thyroxin, free triiodothyronine (T3), free thyroxin (T4), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) tests are useful in diagnosis. In hyperthyroidism, the free T4 level will be elevated, and the TSH level will be suppressed (154). A new diagnosis of hyperthyroidism necessitates postponement of elective surgery until adequate treatment with antithyroid medication is received because of the risk of thyroid storm. Thyroid storm is associated with mortality of up to 40% (168). Stable thyroid conditions do not require any special preoperative" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en090_14501", "title": "De Quervain's thyroiditis", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Patients will experience a hyperthyroid period as the cellular lining of colloid spaces fails, allowing abundant colloid into the circulation, with neck pain and fever. Patients typically then become hypothyroid as the pituitary reduces TSH production and the inappropriately released colloid is depleted before resolving to euthyroid. The symptoms are those of hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism. In addition, patients may suffer from painful dysphagia. There are multi-nucleated giant cells on histology. Thyroid antibodies can be present in some cases. The clinical presentation during the hyperthyroid phase can mimic those of Diffuse Toxic Goiter or Graves' disease. In such cases, a radionuclide thyroid uptake and scan can be helpful, since subacute thyroiditis will result in decreased isotope uptake, while Graves' disease will generally result in increased uptake. Distinguishing between these two types of disease is important, since Graves' disease and Diffuse Toxic Goiter can be" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0093_17916", "title": "Ovarian and cervical thyroid struma. A case report.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A case of associated ovarian and cervical thyroid struma in a 24-year old female, is reported. The patient was affected by a right thyroid cold nodule which at fine needle aspiration biopsy showed the cytological pattern of benign follicular adenoma; as the nodule was increasing after one year of suppressive therapy, the patient was selected for surgery. At admission during routine physical examination a previously undetected left pelvic mass was discovered: at laparotomy it proved to be a cystic tumor consisting of benign thyroid tissue at the level of left ovary. Histology confirmed the diagnosis of follicular adenoma of the right thyroid nodule after right lobectomy. Albeit cases of thyroid tissue in the ovary have been reported, true struma ovarii is a rare occurrence. A concomitant hyperthyroidism is seen in only 1/4 of cases and the patients can be divided into three groups: hyperthyroid, ascitic and asymptomatic: our patient was in the asymptomatic group." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_205296", "title": "Hyperthyroidism", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Graves' disease is the cause of about 50% to 80% of the cases of hyperthyroidism in the United States. Other causes include multinodular goiter, toxic adenoma, inflammation of the thyroid, eating too much iodine, and too much synthetic thyroid hormone. A less common cause is a pituitary adenoma. The diagnosis may be suspected based on signs and symptoms and then confirmed with blood tests. Typically blood tests show a low thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and raised T3 or T4. Radioiodine uptake by the thyroid, thyroid scan, and TSI antibodies may help determine the cause." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0314_8803", "title": "[A case of ovarian struma causing symptoms of hyperthyroidism].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The authors report the case of a 46-year old woman, who went with diffuse complaints to the endocrinology department. The laboratory date showed hyperthyroidism. She had hypogastric complaints, therefore a gynecological consultation was carried out. An infant--head sized elastic formation was found on the left hand side next to a female fist sized myomatous uterus. On sonographic examination the growth proved to have a size of 12 x 14 cm. Besides the myomatous uterus the histology of the operative specimen confirmed a left sided ovarious teratoma, which was composed solely of usual thyroid tissue. After the operation it the patient's endocrine disorders became spontaneously regulated. Our attention to called the fact that especially in case of therapy resistant hyperthyroidism we should think of this infrequent clinical picture." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0297_14548", "title": "The many causes of subclinical hyperthyroidism.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Subclinical hyperthyroidism, defined as serum thyroid hormone levels in the reference range with low serum TSH concentration, is a well recognized clinical entity, but little information is available concerning the prevalence of the disorders that produce it. We conducted a 24-month retrospective survey of subclinical hyperthyroidism patients referred to a university hospital nuclear medicine service for diagnostic studies. Twenty-four consecutive patients were evaluated (22 outpatients and 2 inpatients). All patients had highly sensitive TSH determination, thyroid hormone levels, radioiodine uptake and scan (except for 2 postpartum women), and, selectively, TSH-receptor antibody (TRAb), serum thyroglobulin, antithyroid antibodies, T3-suppression test, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. A TSH value of about 0.1 microIU/mL was used as the cutoff. Only one patient in the group had a nonthyroidal disorder. In 14 patients (61%) subclinical hyperthyroidism was self-limited, due to silent thyroiditis (5 patients), iodine-induced hyperthyroidism (3 patients), postpartum thyroiditis (2 patients), subacute thyroiditis (2 patients), and probable hemorrhage into a functioning nodule (2 patients). Of the non-self-limited disorders (39%), Graves' disease accounted for 6 patients and solitary or multinodular goiter for 3. Graves' disease proved difficult to diagnose because the thyroid gland was normal in size in two of the six patients, TRAb was positive in only two of six, and the radioiodine uptake and gradient were normal in all six; the T3-suppression test was positive in two of two patients. We conclude that the causes of subclinical hyperthyroidism are the disorders that commonly produce overt thyrotoxicosis in medical practice, Graves' disease being the most frequent. However, the tests used to diagnose overt Graves' disease often fail in the setting of subclinical hyperthyroidism, except possibly the T3-suppression test." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0963_754", "title": "Hyperthyroidism due to struma ovarii: Diagnostic pitfalls and preventing thyroid storm.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We report struma ovarii in a case that had hyperthyroidism and was treated with laparoscopic tumor resection. A 40-year-old Japanese woman presented with tachycardia, finger tremor, and weight loss. Although blood examination showed hyperthyroidism, test results for thyroid stimulating hormone receptor antibody and thyroid stimulating antibody were negative, and thyroid scintigraphy showed no abnormal findings. Because she was diagnosed with an ovarian tumor, and whole-body scintigraphy showed that iodine uptake was detected in the pelvic space, we diagnosed her with an ovarian tumor, which caused excessive thyroid hormone secretion. After controlling the thyroid hormone level, we resected the ovarian tumor laparoscopically. The thyroid hormone level was within the normal range postoperatively without any medications. Based on our experience, physicians need to remember that ovarian tumors can cause hyperthyroidism. Controlling the thyroid hormone level preoperatively by using antithyroid drugs and performing minimally invasive laparoscopic surgery is considered useful for preventing thyroid storm." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en073_42718", "title": "Thyroiditis", "score": 0.009286364819151703, "content": "Diagnosis The most common and helpful way to diagnose thyroiditis is first for a physician to palpate the thyroid gland during a physical examination. Laboratory tests allow doctors to evaluate the patient for elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rates, elevated thyroglobulin levels, and depressed radioactive iodine uptake (Mather, 2007). Blood tests also help to determine the kind of thyroiditis and to see how much thyroid stimulating hormone the pituitary gland is producing and what antibodies are present in the body. In some cases, a biopsy may be needed to find out what is attacking the thyroid. Classification Thyroiditis is a group of disorders that all cause thyroidal inflammation. Forms of the disease are Hashimoto's thyroiditis, the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the US, postpartum thyroiditis, subacute thyroiditis, silent thyroiditis, drug-induced thyroiditis, radiation-induced thyroiditis, acute thyroiditis, and Riedel's thyroiditis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0584_6750", "title": "Multiple ovarian cysts in a young girl with severe hypothyroidism.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Case study of a young female patient with severe hypothyroidism due to autoimmune thyroiditis and multiple ovarian cysts is reported. A 14-year 7-month-old girl presented with pelvic and abdominal pain and severe asthenia. Her last menstrual period was 10 months before presentation. Physical examination showed obesity; apathetic and flat expression; periorbital puffiness; pale, cold, dry skin and slow sustained reflexes; swelling in the hands and feet; no galactorrhea; a hardly palpable thyroid gland; and ovaries with a palpable irregular surface. Her heart rate was 90 bpm with a blood pressure within the normal range (110/70 mmHg). Laboratory findings showed severe hypothyroidism (thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH]: 960 mIU/L), gravis macrocytic anemia, hyperfibrinogenemia, and hyperprolactinemia. Imaging examinations revealed a normal-size thyroid with irregular echogenicity, strongly hypoechogenous area at the neck ultrasonography, bilateral multilocular ovarian masses with cystic components at pelvic ultrasound and computed tomography, and both anterior and posterior pericardial effusion at echocardiography. As soon as thyroid replacement therapy was initiated, all symptoms progressively disappeared and biochemical and hormonal values normalized, while the right ovary did not decrease in size during the follow-up period. For this reason, our patient underwent right ovarian wedge resection 14 months after the initiation of medication replacement. Ovarian histological examination showed a benign ovarian cyst with extensive hemorrhage and myxedematous infiltration. It is concluded that it is important to recognize early in young girls the association between large multiple ovarian cysts and high elevated levels of TSH in order to resolve this disorder with substitutive therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0573_2199", "title": "[Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid and diffuse toxic goiter. Case report].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Follicular thyroid cancer rarely manifests itself as a distant metastatic lesion. We report a case of a male with follicular thyroid cancer that presented as a distant metastatic lesion and diffuse toxic goiter. A 50-year-old man was evaluated because of a soft, painless, pulsating sternal mass of 6 x 6 cm. An incisional biopsy of the soft tissue showed metastatic thyroid follicular neoplasm. History and general examination revealed a weight loss of 10 kg, palpebral retraction and thyrotoxicosis, serum concentration of free thyroxine was elevated and TSH undetectable. A thyroid scan revealed uptake of (131)I in all thyroid areas of 36%. Clinical improvement was observed after methimazole (30 mg/day). Total thyroidectomy was performed: right lobe (5 x 4 x 2 cm), left lobe (4 x 3 x 1 cm), without nodules or lymphadenopathy. During the postoperative period, serum thyroglobulin level was 350 ng/ml, radioiodine treatment (100 mCi) was given, and there was a 75% reduction in the sternal mass. CT of the thorax showed bone destruction in the sternum and soft tissue. Clinical and radiological examination revealed no other metastases. Three months later, thyroid scan was negative and thyroglobulin was 17 ng/ml. We report this case of follicular thyroid cancer because of its uncommon initial sternal presentation and soft tissue metastasis with diffuse toxic goiter." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0735_5991", "title": "Ovarian Cyst Enlargement in a 14 Year Old Female with Persistent Ascities, Severe Hypothyroidism and Elevated Serum CA-125 Level.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 14 year old female complained of abdominal pain and distention with vomiting. The physical exam showed thyroid enlargement and ascites. The imaging evaluation demonstrated a large ovarian cyst. Laboratory tests depicted hypothyroidism and marked elevation of Carbohydrate antigen 125 (CA-125) levels. As the bone age was 10 years, more retarded than the chronological age, Van Wyk and Grumbach syndrome was suspected. Treatment with thyroid hormone was initiated and the condition improved dramatically with disappearance of symptoms and signs 5 weeks later." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Place an indwelling SNG and discharge to a skilled nursing home.", "2": "Place a mid-term NGUS and discharge to a nursing home with specialized care until bedsores heal.", "3": "Discharge to a nursing home with specialized care until pressure ulcers heal.", "4": "Place a gastrostomy tube and discharge home.", "5": "Discharge home with palliative care from the health area." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0313_6771", "title": "[For terminal cancer patient inserted with four tubes to live at home--from discussion with family].", "score": 0.01814449917898194, "content": "The patient was an 86-year-old man with mild dementia, and a urinary bladder catheter already inserted for benign prostata hypertrophy. At this time he had jaundice due to duodenal papillary cancer and was inserted with a percutaneous transhepatic bile drainage tube (PTBD). Additionally, due to an obstruction of his duodenum, he received a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube (PEG) for suction of gastric juice and intravenous hyperalimentation catheter (IVH) for nutrition. He always wished to return home. The medical staff and his family discussed this many times to realize his hope. We his daughter-in-law how to handle the 4 tubes. When she learned how, he went home and was on the visiting care system. But only one week after, despite his stability, his son, who was living apart got drunk and sent him back to the hospital. We tried to persuade them, including all family members living apart. At last he could return home again, and one week after died quietly at home. We learn from this case that it is important and very difficult for a family to accept a terminal cancer patient at home. It is necessary to advice them from two stand-points, the medical techniques and the mental aspects." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0790_17659", "title": "[Discharge planning in which a discharge planning nurse was involved in the choice of nutrition management for an elderly person with dementia].", "score": 0.016160350767303475, "content": "A discharge planning nurse at an acute care hospital conducted discharge planning for an elderly person with dementia who is in his/her 90s and his/her family. The nurse was involved in the choice of nutrition management method and was able to support the family's decision-making. The family had high expectations for oral ingestion, and there was disparity between those expectations and the actual state of the disease, in which aspiration occurred frequently. The nurse respected the family's wishes, but also helped the family to correctly understand the state of the disease and to make satisfactory choices about future daily life. In order to guarantee safety, the discharge planning nurse held a conference with people related to homecare, such as the home-visiting physician, the home-visiting nurse, and the care manager. As a result of the conference, that family was able to feel satisfied with and choose gastrostomy as the nutrition method. The current situation was better understood because information was shared with the community, and the confidence in the community was strengthened by giving consideration to the family's burden. It was reconfirmed that the cooperation of local staff members is useful in discharge planning." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0568_3166", "title": "Advance directives at end-of-life: nursing home resident preferences for artificial nutrition.", "score": 0.015763546798029555, "content": "Nursing homes are increasingly the place where many Americans die. Thus, advance directives are critical to the preservation of the autonomous wishes at end-of-life. The purpose of this paper is to determine if preferences for artificial nutrition, as stated in the advance directives of nursing home residents, are honored in the last 2 months of life. Secondary analysis. Six Maryland community nursing homes. Fifty-seven consented residents (age 62 to 98) from the parent study who died during the study period. Retrospective document review including advance directives and clinical care provided in the last 2 months of life. Most of the nursing home residents in this sample refused feeding tubes, and these preferences were honored during the last 2 months of life (93%), despite some (17% to 26%) with documented weight loss. A small percentage (8.8%) of residents received feeding tubes at end-of-life and, of those, only 1 was consistent with advance directive preferences. Most advance directives in this study included feeding tube preferences. In this nursing home sample, advance directives were significant documents guiding decisions on artificial nutrition, and feeding tubes were in fact uncommon at the end of life. The study suggests that advance care planning, quality palliative care training, and administrative support are necessary for the honoring of preferences. Future research is needed to examine more broadly tube-feeding practices and prevalence in nursing homes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0500_23495", "title": "Using rapid-cycle quality improvement methodology to reduce feeding tubes in patients with advanced dementia: before and after study.", "score": 0.01562881562881563, "content": "Despite lack of evidence that enteral feeding tubes benefit patients with dementia, and often contrary to the wishes of patient and family, patients with dementia who have difficulty swallowing or reduced food intake often receive feeding tubes when hospitalised for an acute illness. We conducted a retrospective chart review of all patients receiving percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy or jejunostomy tubes between March and September 2002. QI interventions including a palliative care consulting service and educational programmes were instituted. We conducted a second chart review for all patients receiving feeding tubes between March and September 2003. 652 bed urban acute care hospital. We measured the number of feeding tubes placed in patients with dementia, the number of feeding tubes placed in patients with dementia capable of taking food by mouth, and the number of feeding tubes placed in patients with dementia with an advance directive stating the wish to forgo artificial nutrition and hydration. Medical and allied health staff received educational programmes on end of life care and on feeding management of patients with dementia. A palliative care consulting team was established. After the interventions, the number of feeding tubes placed in all patients and in patients with dementia was greatly reduced. Multidisciplinary involvement, including participation by the administration, was essential to effect change in practice. The intensive focus on a particular issue and rapid change led to \"culture shift\" within the hospital community. The need to establish unified goals of care for each patient was highlighted. A growing body of research over the past decade has questioned the utility of placing feeding tubes (percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) or jejunostomy) in patients with advanced dementia. Studies have found no evidence that feeding tubes in this population prevent aspiration, prolong life, improve overall function, or reduce pressure sores. Additionally, the quality of life of a patient with advanced dementia can be adversely affected when a feeding tube is inserted. The patient may require wrist restraints to prevent pulling on the tube or may develop cellulitis at the gastrostomy site, develop decubitus ulcers, be deprived of the social interaction and pleasure surrounding meals, and require placement in a nursing home. Unfortunately, many doctors are unfamiliar with this literature or face barriers-attitudinal, institutional, or imposed by the healthcare industry-to applying its findings to their practice. Thus feeding tubes are placed in patients who will not benefit from this intervention and whose quality of life in the terminal stage of their illness will be adversely affected. With the expected increase of elderly people with dementia, a great change in doctors' knowledge, attitudes, and practice is necessary to prevent even greater numbers of patients receiving this futile treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_2324", "title": "Use of feeding tubes in patients with advanced dementia: are we doing harm?", "score": 0.014550656012627011, "content": "The decision to place a feeding tube in a patient with advanced dementia is difficult for both family members and health care professionals. There is increasing evidence that the use of feeding tubes in these patients does not improve survival, prevent aspiration pneumonia, prevent or heal decubitus ulcers, or improve other clinical outcomes. Yet, despite this evidence, more than one third of nursing home residents with advanced dementia have feeding tubes, and many of these individuals have feeding tubes inserted on hospital admission for an acute care problem. Health care professionals need to examine the evidence carefully to identify practices that provide patients and families with information to make informed choices and respect their rights and dignity at end of life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0370_21404", "title": "[Two cases of home parenteral nutrition in which home care was difficult].", "score": 0.014154177686355178, "content": "Home parenteral nutrition (HPN) is usually conducted after hospital training and home trials, but in more than a few cases self-care is virtually impossible or the ability of carers is insufficient. We investigated the problem points in the cases of two HPN patients from our hospital. Patient 1 was a 76-year-old man who had undergone surgery for esophageal cancer. He was rehospitalized with passage disorders due to eating difficulties such as dysmasesis and dysphagia and an insufficient ability to comprehend meals. Self-care was virtually impossible owing to his lack of understanding of the disease and his dementia. Even if subcutaneous leakage of the subcutaneously implanted port occurred or the connecting portion became dislocated, the patient would not be able to alert others to this by himself. His wife, the key person in his care, could not undergo hospital training because of her advanced age. She received instruction on the techniques for the completion of IVH for one month from the visiting carer, but handling the syringe and needle and the clamp maneuver were difficult for her, and she later developed an infection and was hospitalized. Upon consultation with the primary physician, a change was made to a Groshong catheter, which reduced the maneuver burden, but the prepared checklist was not used and there were problems in the handling of the catheter and management during the period when the maneuvers were being carried out. In addition, discord arose in the family relations, so a grandchild who was a university student rather than the daughter-in-law received instruction according to the manual in order to care for the patient on the nurse's days off. Currently, HPN is being carried out 3/week with meal instructions adjusted to the patient's dysphagia and contact with the family on the nurse's days off. An issue remaining for the future is the use of informal resources in terms of both micro-intervention, including selection of a catheter with consideration of care ability and meal instruction matched to his eating function, and macro-intervention with consideration of the family environment and interpersonal relationships. Patient 2 was a 41-year-old woman with SLE. She was a former nurse, but self-care was not possible due to steroid myopathy. Her main carer was her mother, but due to Alzheimer's-type dementia her mother had difficulty with sterile maneuvers, and sometime allowed the syringe, needle, and set to get dirty or refused to administer the medication or change the batteries on the pump. A visiting nurse and helper visit twice/week each and another volunteer provides daily support, but to continue home care in the future it will be essential to further train the helper and deepen the cooperation between all related." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0717_23098", "title": "[End-of-life care in a special elderly nursing home characteristics of patients who died in nursing home facilities and current status of end-of-life decision-making].", "score": 0.013425237644726765, "content": "We investigated the characteristics of people who died in a special elderly nursing home and the current status of end-of-life decision-making. Subjects comprised 168 residents who were discharged from a special elderly nurshing home in Yokohama between April 1998 and June 2008. A total of 3 patients were excluded from this study due to insufficient inclusion criteria. We collected and retrospectively examined the basic descriptive information regarding the terminal phase of care from medical records, death certificates, and the notes of nurses, caregivers and counseling staff. Of a total of 165 subjects comprising 38 men (23%) and 127 women (77%), 30 (18%) died in a nursing home facility (facility mortality group), 101 (61%) died in hospitals (hospital mortality group) and 34 (21%) were discharged from special elderly nursing homes for transfer to long-term hospitalization (hospitalization group). To clarify the factors which led to death within the facilities, we analyzed: 1) age at discharge, 2) sex, 3) residency period, 4) number of hospitalizations, 5) length of hospital stay, 6) number of children, 7) number of conferences regarding end-of-life care in 2 groups: the facility mortality group and all others as the second group, as explanatory variables on multiple discriminant analysis. This revealed a higher number of conferences, a higher age at discharge, and a smaller number of hospitalizations in the facility mortality group. Only 12 (7%) people were able to convey by themselves how they wanted to spend the remainder of their lives, and 61 (37%) people conveyed this information via family members. However, 100 (61%) people were unable to confirm it by either self-report or family members. The people who died in special elderly nursing homes had a higher age, fewer hospitalizations, and had been involved in more conferences regarding terminal care. However, it was very hard to confirm individual intentions regarding terminal care periods. Further studies will be necessary to determine what kind of terminal care is needed in special elderly nursing homes when it is difficult to confirm individual or family intention regarding the terminal period." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0891_22177", "title": "End-of-life treatment decisions in nursing home residents dying with dementia in the Netherlands.", "score": 0.011495771670190275, "content": "The objective was to describe end-of-life treatment decisions for patients dying with dementia in various stages of dementia in long-term care facilities in the Netherlands with elderly care physicians responsible for treatment and care. We present data collected in the nationally representative Dutch End of Life in Dementia study (2007-2011). Within 2 weeks after death, 103 physicians completed questionnaires about the last phase of life in 330 residents with dementia who resided in 1 of 34 participating long-term care facilities. We used descriptive statistics. Advance directives were rare (4.9%). A minority was hospitalized (8.0%) in the last month (mainly for fractures) or received antibiotics (24.2%) in the last week (mainly for pneumonia). Four residents received tube feeding or rehydration therapy in the last week. In almost half of the residents (42.3%), decisions were made not to start potentially life-prolonging treatment such as hospital transfer and artificial nutrition and hydration. In more than half of the residents (53.7%), decisions were made to withdraw potentially life-prolonging treatment such as artificial nutrition and hydration and medication. Antibiotics were more frequently prescribed for residents with less advanced dementia, but otherwise there were no differences in treatment decisions between residents with advanced and less advanced dementia. Physicians often withhold potentially burdensome life-prolonging treatment in nursing home residents in all stages of dementia in the Netherlands. This suggests that the physicians feel that a palliative care approach is appropriate at the end of life in dementia in long-term care. Copyright © 2016 John Wiley &amp; Sons, Ltd. StartCopTextCopyright © 2016 John Wiley &amp; Sons, Ltd." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_216133", "title": "Medicare (United States)", "score": 0.00992063492063492, "content": "A preceding hospital stay must be at least three days as an inpatient, three midnights, not counting the discharge date. The skilled nursing facility stay must be for something diagnosed during the hospital stay or for the main cause of hospital stay. If the patient is not receiving rehabilitation but has some other ailment that requires skilled nursing supervision (e.g., wound management) then the nursing home stay would be covered. The care being rendered by the nursing home must be skilled. Medicare part A does not pay for stays that only provide custodial, non-skilled, or long-term care activities, including activities of daily living (ADL) such as personal hygiene, cooking, cleaning, etc. The care must be medically necessary and progress against some set plan must be made on some schedule determined by a doctor." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1073_24590", "title": "Navigating Medical Care for a Young Adult with Developmental Disability.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Sam is a 20-year-old young man with intermittent gastritis, autism spectrum disorder, and intellectual disability who was admitted to the hospital because of nutritional concerns. His parents have legal guardianship and report that he has had increasing frequency of refusal to eat, resulting in a 15-pound weight loss over the past 3 months. On admission, a multidisciplinary team including specialists in gastroenterology, nutrition, feeding (behavioral and mechanical), psychiatry, palliative care, and social work was engaged to develop an evaluation and care plan. Sam's nutritional assessment was significant for severe malnutrition. An upper endoscopy was performed and was without abnormalities, including signs of significant gastritis.An upper endoscopy was performed and was without abnormalities, including signs of significant gastritis.A carefully obtained history found that Sam does not have a primary care physician. He was recently hospitalized at another facility because of his weight loss and nutritional concerns but was discharged against medical advice because of parental dissatisfaction with his care. His mother shared that she has tried many strategies to encourage Sam to eat including pushing spoons of food into his mouth, syringe feeding, and verbally pleading with Sam to take a bite, but all of these have been without success.Because of concerns that persistent attempts to verbally and physically coerce Sam to eat may be contributing to his aversion to food/eating, the feeding team provided Sam's parents with education and coaching for utilization of behavioral cues to determine when Sam wanted to eat. Despite parents expressing their understanding of the importance of avoiding physical attempts to \"make\" Sam eat and the team palliative care physician meeting with Sam's parents to elicit their goals for Sam's care, his nurses reported observing several instances of Sam's mother tapping a loaded spoon on his lips. Because of minimal oral intake, a nasogastric tube was placed for provision of hydration and nutrition. Sam's parents consented to the use of soft restraints and the presence of a bedside patient care assistant because of Sam becoming agitated and pulling at the tube.After 10 days of hospitalization, Sam was taking about 50% of his goal intake by mouth. Unfortunately, Sam removed his NG tube, and his parents refused to allow the tube to be replaced. Sam's parents then discharged him against medical advice, stating that they believed he would recover better at home. What are important considerations in caring for patients like Sam in the hospital setting and beyond?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0754_17159", "title": "The determinants of patients in a palliative care unit being discharged home in Japan.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "In Japan, regarding the place of end-of-life care, many people preferred the home. However, there is a discrepancy between patients' wishes and the actual circumstances. The primary aim of this study was to explore the factors that determine discharge home of patients in a palliative care unit. A total of 31 patients met the criteria. The patients who could be discharged home (group 1; n = 23) were compared with the others (group 2; n = 8). Palliative prognostic index was significantly lower in group 1 than in group 2 (P = .032). Regarding routes of feeding, oral intake was significantly higher in group 1 than in group 2 (P = .043). That is to say, factors determining discharge home of patients may be influenced by the patient's prognosis and the necessity of a feeding device. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0480_17150", "title": "[A case of serious aspiration pneumonia associated with multiple cerebral infarctions and Alzheimer's disease followed by hospital and home care service team].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 81-year-old man, who had been diagnosed in multiple cerebral infarction and Alzheimer's disease, was followed up in his local clinic since 1997. He had been bedridden before admission, but could eat. He was admitted with severe aspiration pneumonia in December 1999. Since severe dementia and dysphagia were noted after admission, he was examined to find out whether or not he could swallow while the treatment of his pneumonia was conducted at the same time. The water swallowing test indicated a risk of aspiration, thus, percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy was performed on January 26, 2000 after the completion of the treatment for pneumonia. Although the patient's condition was complicated by aspiration pneumonia, enteral feeding through the gastric fistula gradually became successful, and he was discharged in June 2000. His family physician followed him up by visiting at home to examine and observe his general physical condition including consciousness, vital signs, skin and respiration, while taking measures in cooperation with the local health care visiting nurse. The patient, thereafter, was repeatedly admitted and discharged because of exacerbation and remission of symptoms, including coughing, sputum and fever, probably caused by aspiration pneumonia. When he was admitted in December 2001, which was his sixth admission, since there were troubles with the infusion tube and frequent gastroesophageal reflux, the gastric fistula management was judged to be a great burden on the patient. In January 2002, the gastrostomy tube was removed and the patients, whose alimentation was managed using intra-venous hyperalimentation (IVH), was discharged. Besides periodic visits by his family physician, a 24-hour house visit system was introduced to control his IVH and deal with his family members' anxiety. His general condition, thereafter, has not markedly changed. The patient has continuously received medical treatment for 14 months after being discharged and his condition is stable." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0590_5490", "title": "[Elements necessary for end-of-life care for terminal cancer patients and standardization of discharge planning].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Unitil now, most terminal cancer patients have received end-of-life care service in a hospital. How, recently, home health care services have received much attention instead of the hospital care. In this study, we investigated important factors affecting smooth transition to home health care from hospital care. We examined the records of 66 deceased subjects with terminal cancers who received medical care by staff of home heath care agency \"Yunomori Tnapopo clininc\" were included in this study. The categories evaluated were: 1) general condition, 2) breakdown of family caregivers, 3) rate of application for care insurance, 4) the percentage of cases with a discharge planning conference, 5) the time of death and, 6) frequency of visiting care in the first 1 week and the last 1 week. The 66 subjects consisted of 38 men (58%) and the average age of the group was 71.1 2.0. 1) Dementia was indicated in 20 (30%) patients and 23% of the patients were reliant on intravenous nutrition. Oxygen treatment was required for 45% of the patients. Some help for excretion was required by 70% of the patients. 2) 70% of a main care giver were woman and the average number of persons per household was 2.0. 3) 50% of the patients did not apply for care insurance. 4) Discharge planning conferences between the hospital and the clininc were held in only 21% of the case. 5) over 70% of the patients died outside duty hours (between 8AM and 6PM). 6) Although the average duration of stay at home was 62.5 days, 10% of the cases died or had to leave their home due to worsening condition during the first 2 weeks. Vsits by medical doctor in the last 1 week significantly increased in frequency compared to that in the last 1 week. (5.0 0.2 vs. 3.9 0.2, p&lt;0.01). In addition, frequency of care visits by nurses increased significantly as well (3.2 0.2 vs. 2.4 0.2, p&lt;0.01). Overall the number of care visits in the last 1 week was more than once a day. 1. A home-health care clinic which gives 24-hour care is necessary so that the patients receive end-of-life care as well as hospital care. 2. Earliest possible transfer to the home health care setting is needed so trhat the patients could have enough time to live in their hom with their family. On this account, it is most important to convene a conference co-organaized by the home health care adjusytment. In addition, the patients or their family need to apply to the munided office for care insurance. Medical staff should provide information and help them." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0370_21428", "title": "[A patient with dysphagia treated successfully and discharged without nutritional support].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "One of the main targets of medical care provided in our ward, which specializes in the cooperative practice of hospital- and home-doctors, is to maintain the quality of patients' lives after they are discharged from our hospital through home medical care by home-doctors. Intravenous hyperalimentation and tube-feeding at home are suitable solutions for some patients with dysphagia after cerebral infarction. However, the difficulties faced in their management are the burden on the families, which tends to be an obstacle for at-home-practice. We describe herein a case of severe dysphagia treated successfully through our rehabilitation program and discharged without nutritional supports. An 82-year-old man was admitted to our hospital suffering from pyrexia and dysbasia. The man, who lives with his wife and his son's family, was diagnosed with aspiration pneumonia and multiple cerebral infarctions. The test for swallowing reflex revealed an impaired first phase reflex and intravenous hyperalimentation was performed for his nutritional support. He was still suffering from dysphagia but had the desire to eat orally after his dysbasia and aspiration pneumonia were cured. A rehabilitation program was scheduled with the aims of 1) recovery of ingestion and 2) sufficient expectoration, with an ongoing teaching program for the management of intravenous hyperalimentation. After one month of rehabilitation (ice-massaging, muscle rehabilitation of the tongue and neck and expectoration training in a prone position and after gorging), his ability to swallow was gradually recovered. With the frequent confirmation of absence of aspiration, special forms of diets were served and upgraded from jelly, paste-like-food to soft-cooked steamed rice. The patient is now at home without any nutritional support. Nutritional management without intravenous hyperalimentation or tube-feeding is important or even essential for some families providing home-care for patients. The problem of aging requires us to reduce the burden that families (who may be also getting older) should carry. We try to support patients and families for better home-care through cooperation with society and home-doctors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0345_22658", "title": "Interpreting a living will after stroke.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Mr. Duffy is 83 years old and is admitted to rehabilitation 4 weeks after a right thalamic cerebral vascular accident (CVA). He has dysphagia, dysarthria, left hemiplegia, and is moderately-severely confused. He pulls out his nasogastric feeding tube and his physician decides not to reinsert it because of significant nasal tissue necrosis. The team recommends a gastrostomy tube for nutrition because of Mr. Duffy's lack of alertness and high risk for aspiration. Mr. Duffy has a Living Will that states he does not wish to have his life sustained with a feeding tube. He does not have a formal Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care. His wife has dementia and their daughters are making decisions for both parents. They are not sure about his wishes in this particular circumstance, but report that he said of a relative who died of cancer, \"things went on too long because of that feeding tube.\" After 3 days, Mr. Duffy is more alert, and during a discussion about tube feedings he says, \"I'll go for the works.\" His fluctuating alertness level prevents him from responding to this question again. His daughters feel he would not want the tube and suggest waiting to see if his swallowing improves in the next week before making a decision." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0544_17172", "title": "Expectations and outcomes of gastric feeding tubes.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To compare expected outcomes with actual outcomes from tube feeding in adult patients. This prospective cohort study was conducted in two North Carolina hospitals. Surrogates were interviewed shortly after feeding tube insertion and at 3- and 6-month follow-up; chart abstraction and death certificate review also were carried out. Participants were surrogate decision-makers for consecutive adult patients who received new feeding tubes. There were 288 patients with surrogate decision-makers enrolled. Mean age was 65 years; 30% had a primary diagnosis of stroke, 16% neurodegenerative disorder, 20% head and neck cancer, and 30% other diagnoses. At 3 months, 21% of patients had died, and 6-month mortality was 30%. At 3 months, 38% of survivors were residing in a nursing home, and 27% had the feeding tube removed. Patients were impaired in most activities of daily living (ADLs) with little change over time. Medical complications were common: 25% of patients had decubitus ulcers at 3 months, and 24% had at least one episode of pneumonia. Perceived global quality of life was poor at 4.6 (on a 0-10 scale) at baseline, and surrogates anticipated this would improve to 8.0 with tube feeding. Family surrogates' expectations for improvement from the feeding tube were very high at baseline and remained so at 3 and 6 months. Families' high expectations of benefit from tube feeding are in contrast to clinical outcomes. Providers and families need better information about the outcomes of this common procedure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0790_17661", "title": "[Case report--cooperation among medical staff to improve home enteral nutrition and increase hope in a patient with dementia].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Herein, we describe the case of a man in his 70s who had slight dementia. Because of dysphagia, the patient received enteral nutrition by gastrostomy. The patient wished to care for his wife, who had severe dementia and was also receiving enteral nutrition. He was later re-hospitalized for aspiration-related pneumonia. At this point, it was discovered that the management of enteral nutrition via gastrostomy was different from that at the time of discharge from our hospital. Nutritional management during home care may change for various reasons after discharge from hospital. If a change is identified at the time of re-hospitalization, this process should be confirmed. In addition, it is necessary that any changes in nutritional management should benefit the patient. In order to improve the home care of the present patient, we changed his diet to semisolid enteral nutrition that was easier for him to manage. This diet would also be beneficial for the aspiration-related pneumonia. Importantly, we shared these changes in enteral nutrition with all medical staff involved in his care. This included explaining changes in nutritional content, dose, and method of delivery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0956_4804", "title": "Autism Spectrum Disorder and Mental Health Comorbidity Leading to Prolonged Inpatient Admission.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Sam is a 6-year-old boy with a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) who recently relocated and has an appointment with you, his new pediatric clinician, to establish care. He was previously followed by a psychiatrist for 2 years for additional diagnoses of insomnia, bipolar disorder, anxiety, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, and intellectual disability. He has tried and (apparently) failed multiple psychotropic trials including stimulants, nonstimulants, mood stabilizers, atypical antipsychotics, and nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics. He has a delayed sleep onset and frequent night awakenings each night for the past 3 months, during which he \"screams, cries, and thrashes and can stay up for over an hour.\" His behaviors are described as irritable, self-injurious, and aggressive with no clear pattern of triggers according to his mother. He is nonverbal and communicates by leading and rarely pointing. The patient's current medication regimen includes clonidine 0.2 mg at night, lorazepam 1.5 mg as needed at night, olanzapine 5 mg twice daily, and diphenhydramine as needed for sleep/agitation. His mother is concerned that he is developing \"tolerance\" to the regimen and wants to wean him off some of the medications. His mother is struggling to take care of the patient given his worsening behavior and body habitus (body mass index &gt;99%; z = 3.41).There is a family history of depression, anxiety, bipolar disorder, and autism. He has a 3-year-old sister, who is also diagnosed with ASD, though she is not as severely impacted. His mother's partner recently moved in along with 2 children of his own, aged 3 and 4 years. Sam attends a specialized school, where he receives behavior therapy and occupational therapy. He has undergone inpatient pediatric hospitalization twice, 1 time for 3 weeks and the other for 6 days, for aggressive behavior, and in both instances, he was discharged before inpatient psychiatric placement because of a lack of available beds.After urgent consultation with your local developmental and behavioral pediatrician, a slight reduction was made in the lorazepam because of concerns about tolerance and side effects. However, within a week of this, he was brought to the emergency department for continued self-injurious behavior and increased trouble with sleeping. His mother voiced concerns about his safety in the home, which were particularly related to aggression toward his younger sister. He was admitted to the pediatric inpatient floor for observation, and medication adjustment (increasing olanzapine), which was initially helpful in improving behavior, but mostly behavioral/environmental strategies were used to soothe him, including frequent wagon rides through the hospital corridors.Despite the patient being stable from the medical standpoint, Sam's mother did not feel comfortable taking him home. Social work contacted local community mental health services to pursue outpatient resources and respite care options and sought inpatient pediatric psychiatry. After several failed attempts to find placement, he remained in pediatric inpatient care for 1 and a half months with no acute medical interventions other than his oral medications.He was finally accepted to the in-state pediatric psychiatric facility when a bed was available. During his week-long stay, he had further medication adjustments with a decrease in olanzapine and optimization of his clonidine dose. During his psychiatric hospital stay, care coordination succeeded in arranging center-based applied behavior analysis interventions and respite care and parent training for his family. Sam began to show improvement in his overall agitation and aggression, requiring less clonazepam, and his mother then maintained outpatient follow-up.The day before discharge, you visit him in the hospital, and a medical student asks you why he was in the hospital for so long. How would you answer the question?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0891_19183", "title": "[Collaboration of Hospitals and Home Care Providers - Lessons to be Learned from an Actual Case to Enable Patients to Keep Living at Home by Their Own Values].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The aging society has arrived, and home care options are being promoted. To date, because of an increase in the number of patients with higher disability levels in greater need of medical help and senior people living alone or in senior-person households, more patients are in need of discharge support. Many medical institutions cannot consider the option of staying at home and receiving home care services for such patients, and such patients often give up on going home. In the case of service recipients suffering from incurable diseases or disabilities and undergoing age-related changes, it is necessary that they decide on their own\"where and how they want to live.\"For their decision to be respected, a key is collaboration with those who support patient discharge from the hospital and those who support patient home care. This paper explores a patient appropriate for level-3 care with brain hemorrhage and paralysis of the left half of the body. This patient required supportive and adaptive devices, a cane for walking, and constant observation. In consideration of the wishes of the patient and his family, he was allowed to go home." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en364_27688", "title": "Eastern Health Alliance", "score": 0.00935887343654334, "content": "Home Care Service St. Andrew's Community Hospital's Home Care Service attended to the nursing needs of patients residing in the east. These patients were discharged from acute care hospitals or community hospitals and usually have medical histories of strokes, fractures and multiple diseases. Common nursing care provided to them included changing their urinary catheters; nasalgastric tubes for feeding, wound care, dressings, and removal of stitches after a surgery. References External links Eastern Health Alliance - official website Launch of the Eastern Health Alliance - official video Medical and health organisations based in Singapore Singaporean companies established in 2011 2011 establishments in Singapore 2018 disestablishments in Singapore" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0411_7039", "title": "[Discussion on care management operation of a visiting nurse--a case of increased ADL by the support of independent life].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "In addition to the visiting nursing service conventionally provided, the Department of Long-term Care Insurance Service of this hospital inaugurated the home care supporting service in April 2000. Senior citizens rated higher in the degree of necessity of care in the initial accreditation and in the renewal accreditation of the Long-term Care Insurance tend to have fewer changes in the services for the last two years. At present, care managers of various professions are involved in the home care supporting services and have no choice but to provide care in non-specialty areas. Under the situation, care management by the visiting nurse helped an elderly increase ADL and live on his own, and the case is introduced in this article. Mr. K.T. developed angina pectoris at the age of 76, had recurrences of complications and repeated transfers of hospitals and was eventually admitted to the hospital. Though he had declined muscular strength and ADL because of the long bed-ridden life, he was discharged from the hospital. Nursing services centered on visiting nursing were provided as the home care supporting service when home medical care for the patient was started. Since Mr. K.T. required medical management, he and his family members were not sure whether it is possible to provide care for him at home and required guidance about health/life and mental supports. Therefore, visiting nursing care was provided by a nurse to assess needs or condition of the person, which reduced anxiety and encouraged the person. As a result, ADL increased and the degree of necessity of care decreased from 4 to 2. This success is attributed to the visiting nurse's appropriate care management based on the medical expertise from the perspective of nursing and the introduction of necessary services at the necessary time based on the appropriate assessment of changes in the physical condition or willingness and the nursing condition of family members. Coordination with the staffs engaged in each service also contributed to the success. As shown by this case, it may be necessary for care managers who can exercise their specialty to be engaged in the service or to change care managers depending on the condition of the care service receiver or considering the specialty of care managers for the benefit of the care service receiver and for the improvement of the efficiency of the operations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0656_6691", "title": "[End-of-life care in special elderly nursing home for very elderly adults in comparison with emergency palliative therapy in general hospitals].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Although the facilities for end-of-life care in the special elderly (SE) nursing home are increasing, there are no standard guidelines for end-of-life care interventions. Furthermore, in the SE nursing home, there are not enough data concerning those who have had end-of-life care and/or emergency hospital palliative therapy. Therefore, we compared the clinical outcome of end-of-life care patients and emergency palliative therapy patients. Five end-of-life care patients (99+/-10 years old) in the SE nursing home, and 48 emergency palliative therapy patients (89+/-15 years old) in the hospitals. All end-of-life care patients are still living after 300+/-70 days by standard nursing care (mainly fluid diets with small doses of vasodilators and antibiotics) with bed side music. Their average CRP values in terminal end-of-life care patients decreased from 10+/-12 mg/dl to 1.2+/-0.5 (p&lt;0.05), serum albumin levels increased from 2.7+/-1.6 g/dl to 3.5+/-2.6 and body mass index increased from 16+/-1.6 to 18.3+/-0.75 (p&lt;0.05). Among 48 emergency hospitalized palliative patients, 32 patients were discharged to our facility after 120+/-26 days of hospitalization, whereas 16 patients died in hospital after 100+/-36 days of hospitalization (aspiration pneumonia: 11 patients, heart failure: 3 patients and G-I causes: 2 patients). End-of-life care in the SE nursing home prolonged their life expectancy despite centenarian status. Hospital mortality rates of palliative emergency therapy were higher than usual end-of-life care. These data suggest that end-of-life care interventions, including bed side music, could provide physical satisfaction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0872_18464", "title": "The Case.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Mr. Hope is a 40-year-old man who has resided at a long-term care facility for the past 10 years. The resident was originally admitted to the nursing home for his inability to care for himself secondary to advanced AIDS and complications from progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML). When he initially arrived at the nursing home, Mr. Hope was able to smile and appeared to respond to some of the staff's requests. Now, he responds by wincing when told that procedures are being performed and especially when he is told that he has to go back to the hospital. He is extremely contracted, with his arms wedded to his chest in a crossed fashion, as though he is protecting himself from blows. Mr. Hope's family consists of a partner, his parents, and one sibling. Numerous conversations have been had with the family, and according to the facility staff, \"they persist in continuing aggressive measures with the hope that the patient will wake up and walk out of the facility.\" What had been frequent visits to the local hospital ER have increased substantially in the last few months, for what appear to be new infections and pneumonia. During most visits he ultimately spends a few days in the hospital to resolve his acute issues. On his most recent return to the long-term care facility, the medical staff approached the family about Mr. Hope's code status. The family continues to insist on a full code status and that he be provided every opportunity to \"live.\" The staff is very concerned about Mr. Hope and his welfare. Many of the nursing staff have grown attached to him over the years, and watching him deteriorate has been distressing. They see part of their role as being his advocate and supporting him in ways that his own family has not. They express very strong reservations about performing CPR on Mr. Hope because they think it will be ineffective and they will have to break his upper extremities in order to gain access to his chest for resuscitation. The staff has contacted the ethics consultation service with the request that Mr. Hope needs protection and that his own family is not making the best decisions for him. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n1066_20216", "title": "[Clinical ethic consultations in longterm care in Upper Austria-5 years report of the Landesverband Hospiz Upper Austria].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Despite the unique nature of ethical issues in a longterm care setting, there is limited help in decision making for nursing home personnel. 2015 the Hospizverband of Upper Austria established a clinical ethic committee to help providing a good quality of decision making in nursing home. A consultation could be asked by the managing nurses of the longterm care institution, by the resident or by relatives of the nursing home residents. Since the start of the ethic committee 24 from 137 nursing homes in Upper Austria asked for a consultation. All consultations came from the personnel of the nursing homes. Beside the nursing team and 1-3 members of the ethic committee, in 75% of the consultations the physician was present. The most often discussed ethical issues were hospital admission (25%), conflicts with relatives of the residents, artificial nutrition (including PEG tube insertion and displacement) and use of restraints. The most underlying illness was dementia (50%). 20% of the residents were competent in their wishes, but none of the involved residents had a written precisely patient decree." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0959_23519", "title": "No place like home: A case study of a patient discharged from an Intensive Care Unit for end of life care at home.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Both in the UK and internationally, discharge from an intensive care unit to home for end of life care is a rare and challenging occurrence. These challenges include clinicians' ability to identify appropriate patients in whom it is possible to communicate with about their wishes and preferences, the critical nature of their condition and the interface between hospital and community services. We present a case report of a patient who had been admitted to hospital with a myocardial infarction and subsequently suffered a cardiac arrest, from which he was successfully resuscitated. Subsequently, he suffered multi-organ failure, but despite treatments, the ceiling of care was reached. With a poor prognosis, medical and nursing staff engaged in advance care planning to determine his wishes and preferences at the end of life and to facilitate his discharge from the intensive care unit to his home. This case study has highlighted that through good communication amongst patients, families and professionals and collaborative working across boundaries and organisations, appropriate patients in the critical care setting can have a real choice regarding where they wish to be cared for and die at the end of their life." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en575_18739", "title": "Home care", "score": 0.00909953780125454, "content": "Occasionally, palliative and end-of-life care can be provided through home health nursing. Home health nurses may assist patients with activities of daily living (ADLs) such as bathing, toileting, and feeding, or they direct and supervise the aide in providing ADL care. Nurses keep track of vital signs, carry out physician orders, draw blood, document the tasks they perform and the patient’s health status, and communicate between the patient, family, and physician. Some nurses travel to multiple homes per day and provide short visits to multiple patients, while others may stay with one patient for a certain amount of time per day. See also Aging in place Assisted living Home care in the United Kingdom Home care in the United States Healthcare in India References Caregiving" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_24360", "title": "[A useful support through pre-discharge conferences by the people in charge preparing for a successful long-term home care].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "An elderly man with contracture of extremities due to cerebral infarction was admitted to a hospital because of both malnutrition and bedsore. His wife was afraid of taking care of him at home after he was discharged from the hospital due to a lack of homecare knowledge. Prior to his discharge, conferences toward a successful homecare by the people concerned from various kinds of professions studied all sorts of risk factors to prevent him from back to hospital soon. Thereby he was successfully cared at home more than one year." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0525_18202", "title": "Tube feeding, antibiotics, and hospitalization of nursing home residents with end-stage dementia: Perceptions of key medical decision-makers.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "This article discusses the literature supporting the limited use of tube feeding, antibiotics, and hospital transfers of nursing home residents with end-stage dementia. This article also presents the findings of a study that queried 138 nursing home social service staff members in New York State regarding positions taken by key medical decision makers regarding tube feeding, antibiotic use, and hospitalization of nursing home residents with end-stage dementia. Results are discussed in the context of positions taken by experts in palliative and dementia care. According to social service staff perceptions, the majority of these key decision-makers (e.g., administrators, directors of nursing, and medical directors) take positions inconsistent with palliative care experts. Instead, a majority of them were perceived as more likely to encourage tube feeding, antibiotics, and hospitalization of nursing home residents with end-stage dementia. These findings indicate a strong need for educating administrative staff in state-of-the-art care of residents with end-stage dementia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0595_20189", "title": "Long-term ventilation for high-level tetraplegia: a report of 2 cases of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Ventilator-dependent patients with tetraplegia rarely use noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV) for long-term ventilation. We report 2 patients with high-level traumatic tetraplegia who were able to return home after being changed from traditional ventilation to NPPV. When they were referred to our hospital from acute care hospitals 2 to 6 months after injury, both were on tracheostomy ventilation with a cuff inflated 24 hours a day, and tidal volume (Vt) settings were low. In case 1, a man with complete C1 tetraplegia was admitted to our hospital 6 months after injury. We changed ventilator settings to high Vt and introduced NPPV. He was discharged home with NPPV with a volume-setting ventilator. Case 2 involved a man in his late twenties with complete C1 tetraplegia who was discharged home with NPPV. After discharge, he trained in glossopharyngeal breathing by himself, enabling him to breathe up to 1900mL of maximum insufflation capacity. Both have lived nearly 1 year without pulmonary complications in the community. They use visiting nurses 3 times a week and services of visiting caregivers. Further study is needed to determine the usefulness of NPPV for long-term ventilatory management." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0253_8915", "title": "The decision to withdraw tube feeding.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Physicians involved in the care of elderly patients are often faced with end-of-life decisions including withholding or withdrawal of tube feeding. More than 80% of deaths take place in the hospital or nursing home and the prolongation of life by medical technology has replaced natural processes. We believe the availability of life-sustaining medical technology including tube feeding does not make physicians ethically obligated to use it once it is known that health and function cannot be restored and the burdens outweight the benefits. Patients and their surrogate decision-makers have a right to refuse life-sustaining medical treatment they find burdensome. Tube feeding as a medical treatment, witholding of tube feeding as equivalent to withdrawal of tube feeding, the benefits versus the burdens of tube feeding, and the decision-making process involved in the withdrawal of medical treatment are considered Hawaii's statutes as they apply to decision-making and examples of cases to illustrate how these concepts are pertinent to patients whom we encounter in clinical practice are discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0643_25517", "title": "Respecting patient autonomy versus protecting the patient's health: a dilemma for healthcare providers.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A 74-year-old man with multiple chronic medical problems was hospitalized for respiratory distress. He experienced recurrent aspiration and required frequent suctioning and endotracheal intubation on several occasions. The patient was deemed competent and steadfastly refused feeding tube placement. The patient demanded that he be allowed to eat a normal diet despite being told that it could lead to his death. The patient wanted to go home, but there was no one there to care for him. Additionally, neither a nursing home nor hospice would accept him in his present condition. The case is especially interesting because of the symbolic value of food and the plight of the patient who has no alternative to hospitalization. The hospital staff experienced considerable stress at having to care for him. They were uncertain whether their obligation was to respect his autonomy and continue to provide food or to protect his health by avoiding aspiration, pneumonia, and possible death by denying him food. This ethical dilemma posed by the professionals' duty to do what is in the patient's best interest versus the patient's right to decide treatment serves as the focus for this case study. Ethical, legal, and healthcare practitioners' considerations are explored. The case study concludes with specific recommendations for treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0313_6772", "title": "[The present state of the visiting nurse support system of our hospital].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "In our hospital, a Visiting Care Service System was started in 1985, and now we have four nurses and one public health nurse. In the first half of 1996, we visited 116 patients. Their average age was 79.5 years-old, and most of them were almost bedridden all day. In 63.8% of these cases, the underlying disease was cerebrovascular. Frequency of visits was once a week in 45.7%, but in the terminal state we visited more frequently almost all days. In 79.3% of these cases, the duration of this service was less than three years, but in a few cases more than 10 years. Some patients were given the following medical care: gastrostomy (39.7%), care of bed sores (29.3%), necessity of suction of sputa (26.7%), urinary drainage tube (13.0%), tracheostomy, home oxygen therapy, home parenteral nutrition therapy, bile drainage tube insertion and so on. Persons providing care were mostly female (87.8%), and most of them were 40 to 60-year-old women. It is important to create a suitable support system to continue treatment at home." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 362, 448 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 55, 69 ] ], "text": "To induce testicular maturation, pulsatile GnRH with pump, hCG or FSH+hCG can be used." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 84, 238 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 10, 35 ] ], "text": "Triptorelin is a GnRH agonist, which by continuous action reduces FSH and LH, and is used in sex hormone-dependent cancers, as well as precocious puberty." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 449, 524 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 69, 83 ] ], "text": "LH is not used as a treatment, it would be stimulated by intermittent GnRH." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 239, 336 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 35, 49 ] ], "text": "Bromocriptine is a dopaminergic agonist used in hyperPRL (he has normal PRL), pituitary tumors..." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "GnRH infusion pump.", "2": "Monthly intramuscular administration of triptorelin.", "3": "Intramuscular administration of FSH and LH once a week.", "4": "Treatment with bromocriptine.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0871_1415", "title": "[Effect of pulsatile GnRH therapy on pituitary-testicular axis function in male patients with pituitary stalk interruption syndrome].", "score": 0.013652036156928525, "content": "To evaluate the efficacy of pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) therapy in male patients with pituitary stalk interruption syndrome (PSIS). Fourteen male PSIS patients, who had received subcutaneous pulsatile GnRH therapy for at least four weeks at Peking Union Medical College Hospital from April 2014 to September 2015, were included in the study. Serum luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), testosterone level, testicular volume and sperm in ejaculation were measured. After treatment for four weeks, subjects with serum LH≥1.24 U/L were classified as\"good response group\", and others were classified as\"poor response group\". All patients were born by breech delivery and presented with absent pubertal development. Laboratory findings showed combined pituitary hormone deficiency in all patients. Pituitary stalk interruption syndrome was diagnosed based on MRI findings. Totally 11 out of 14 patients showed good response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Their LH level increased from 0.32 (0.15, 0.61) U/L to 4.34(2.52, 7.39)U/L(P&lt;0.001), FSH from 0.84 (0.30, 1.50) U/L to 7.12 (4.53, 10.09) U/L(P&lt;0.001); serum testosterone level from 0 (0, 0.45) nmol/L to 2.46 (0.56, 11.45) nmol/L (P=0.004) and testicular volume from 2.0 (2.0, 4.0) ml to 4.0 (3.0, 6.0) ml (P=0.005). Sperm was detected in seminal samples after treatment for 8 weeks in two patients and for 12 weeks in one patients. Three out of 14 patients showed poor response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Pulsatile GnRH therapy can effectively establish the pituitary-testicular axis function for most patients with pituitary stalk interruption syndrome, indicating enough reserve of gonadotrophs in the pituitary." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en061_51682", "title": "Desogestrel", "score": 0.013599448360404536, "content": "of FSH and testosterone levels. A previous study by the same authors found that increasing the dosage of desogestrel from 300 μg/day to 450 μg/day resulted in no further suppression of gonadotropin concentrations. The addition of a low dose of 50 or 100 mg/week intramuscular testosterone enanthate after 3 weeks increased testosterone levels and further suppressed LH and FSH levels, to the limits of assay detection (i.e., to undetectable or near-undetectable levels), in both the 150 μg/day and 300 μg/day desogestrel groups. Upon cessation of treatment, levels of LH, FSH, and testosterone all recovered to baseline values within 4 weeks." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0083_6545", "title": "Testosterone administration inhibits gonadotropin secretion by an effect directly on the human pituitary.", "score": 0.013458110516934046, "content": "Testosterone (T) administration slows LH pulse frequency in man, presumably by an effect on the hypothalamic GnRH pulse generator, but it also may have a direct action on the pituitary. To determine if T does indeed affect gonadotropin secretion by acting directly on the pituitary, we studied the effect of T on GnRH-stimulated gonadotropin secretion. Six men with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism were treated with physiological doses of GnRH (5 micrograms every 2 h, sc by automatic infusion pump) for 6 weeks. Once their gonadotropin levels were normal, the men received a supraphysiological dosage of T enanthate (200 mg, im, weekly for 8 weeks) in addition to GnRH. They then received GnRH alone for a final 8-week period. Blood sampling was performed every 10 min for 8 h at the end of each of the three study periods. T administration suppressed the mean serum LH level to about 50% of the value during GnRH alone [18 +/- 2 (+/- SE) vs. 37 +/- 2 micrograms/L; P less than 0.05] and suppressed the mean serum FSH level to about 30% of the value during GnRH alone (39 +/- 6 vs. 128 +/- 28 micrograms/L; P less than 0.05). Eight weeks after stopping T, while continuing GnRH alone, serum LH and FSH levels were similar to those at the end of the first period of GnRH administration. The mean LH response to GnRH was reduced during T administration (17 +/- 3 micrograms/L) compared to that during the initial period of GnRH alone (31 +/- 4 micrograms/L; P less than 0.05). Serum T and estradiol levels were in the low normal range after GnRH alone before T administration (11 +/- 2 nmol/L and 105 +/- 17 pmol/L, respectively) and increased to just above the normal adult ranges after 8 weeks of T administration (36 +/- 5 nmol/L and 264 +/- 49 pmol/L, respectively). These results demonstrate that T and/or its metabolites inhibit LH and FSH secretion by a GnRH-independent mechanism, probably directly on the pituitary gland, in man." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0011_8325", "title": "Hypogonadism, galactorrhoea and hyper-prolactinaemia: Evaluation of pituitary gonadotrophins reserve before and under bromocriptine.", "score": 0.013377037562012757, "content": "Twenty patients with hypogonadism (19 women with amenorrhoea and 1 man with impotence and infertility), galactorrhoea and hyper-prolactinaemia (range: 36 to 344 ng/ml) were studied. The radiological study of the sella turcica, including in all cases hypocycloidal tomograms, allowed classification of the patients into 3 groups: group I (n = 4) had a grossly enlarged sella turcica, group II (n = 12) had localized alterations indicating the probable existence of a prolactin-secreting microadenoma (\"microdeformation\") while group III patients presented no radiological abnormality. Before treatment, all the patients were submitted to a complete evaluation of the function of their anterior pituitary, including the LH and FSH responses to iv administration of Gn-RH. All the group I patients had low basal LH levels and a blunted response to Gn-RH. The basal LH and in response to Gn-RH were normal in most of the group II patients and in all of the group III patients. An exaggerated FSH response to Gn-RH was observed in 6/12 patients with microdeformation (group II) but not in groups I and III patients. A low LH and a blunted LH response to Gn-RH is highly suggestive of the existence of a pituitary prolactin-secreting adenoma in case of amenorrhoea and hyper-prolactinaemia patients; a normal response does not however rule out such a diagnosis. The reasons for a exaggerated FSH response to Gn-RH in patients with suspected prolactin-secreting microadenoma remain to be investigated though this pattern can also occur in other cases of amenorrhoea. Hence the Gn-RH test might contribute to the assessment of the hypothalamo-pituitary axis of patients with hyper-prolactinaemia. Six patients treated for 4 months with bromocriptine (CB-154) were submitted to re-evaluation of their pituitary gonadotrophins reserve. All the women experienced restoration of menses with 39 days of treatment and the male patient regained potency. It was observed that bromocriptine treatment and subsequent normalized prolactin levels in the 4 group II women tested were associated with normalization of their previously exaggerated FSH response to Gn-RH; LH responses were also diminished in these cases. These data are compatible with the hypothesis that hyper-prolactinaemia per se could interfere with the endogenous secretion of Gn-RH at the hypothalamic level. In one patient with grossly enlarged sella turcica and a previous lack of an LH and FSH response to Gn-RH, bromocriptine treatment restored a normal gonadotrophins response, confirming that, in this case, the alteration of this response was indeed due to a prolonged lack of endogenous Gn-RH secretion." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en381_28806", "title": "Gonadotropin-releasing hormone insensitivity", "score": 0.012695438687168886, "content": "Diagnosis When suspected on the basis of the clinical presentation or physical findings, the diagnosis of GnRH insensitivity should be confirmed biochemically. The diagnosis requires the following findings: The demonstration of prepubertal serum concentrations of sex steroid hormones (serum testosterone less than 100 ng/dL [3.5 nmol/L] in males or serum estradiol less than 20 pg/mL [73 pmol/L] in females). Inappropriately low or normal serum luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) concentrations (usually less than 4 to 5 international units/L) rather than the high concentrations expected with primary gonadal failure. Otherwise normal anterior pituitary function." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0253_7357", "title": "Clinical and hormonal response to short-term intermittent versus continuous oral bromocriptine in hyperprolactinemic women.", "score": 0.01261841606669193, "content": "OBJECTIVE -- To determine if intermittent oral bromocriptine administration could be a useful therapeutic alternative in infertile hyperprolactinemic women. DESIGN -- Open, randomized and prospective study. SETTING -- Outpatient infertility clinic of a third-level medical institution. PATIENTS -- Fourteen low-income women, 23 to 36 years of age with anovulatory infertility (1-13 years in duration) secondary to hyperprolactinemia (&gt;35 ng/mL). Endocrine profile ruled out anovulation of other origin. INTERVENTIONS -- After a control period of 30 days, seven women (group 1) received daily oral bromocriptine (2.5-10.0 mg/day) continuously during two consecutive 30-day periods (T-1 and T-2), and seven women (group 2) received oral bromocriptine only from day 1 to 15 of each 30-day period of treatment. Morning blood samples were drawn similarly during the three periods on days 6 to 8, 13 to 15, and 21 to 23. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES -- FSH, LH, and prolactin were determined in all samples, estradiol only in samples of days 6 to 8 and 13 to 15, and progesterone exclusively between days 21 and 23. Mean serum prolactin levels during the control period were similarly elevated in groups 1 and 2. A marked decrease occurred during period T-1 (P &lt; .004) and further during period T-2 (P &lt; .05) in both groups, but at no time were significant intergroup differences documented. During the control period all women had a serum progesterone &lt; 3.0 ng/mL (&lt;9.54 nmol/L); during period T-2 it was &gt; or = 3.0 ng/mL in three and five women of groups 1 and 2, respectively. Over the following 10 months of treatment, two and three normal pregnancies and deliveries ensued in groups 1 and 2, respectively. CONCLUSION -- The intermittent use of oral bromocriptine may indeed be a useful therapeutic approach in treating infertile hyperprolactinemic women." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0638_10869", "title": "Prolactin regulation of testosterone secretion and testes growth in DLS rams at the onset of seasonal testicular recrudescence.", "score": 0.011915706102821583, "content": "Our objective was to test the hypothesis that prolactin (PRL) acts at both the pituitary and testis levels to regulate testosterone secretion in the adult ram. The focus was on the mid-regression to mid-redevelopment stages of a photoperiod-condensed 'seasonal' testicular cycle. DLS rams (six per group) were given daily s.c. injections of bromocriptine (4 mg) or vehicle during the entire period. Serum PRL concentration in control rams peaked at 103.4+/-22.1 ng/ml in late regression and then steadily declined (P&lt;0.01) to 19.5+/-4.3 ng/ml, whereas PRL in treated rams was always &lt; or =4.0 ng/ml. Suppression of PRL tended (P&lt;0.10) to increase the amplitude of natural LH pulses (transition stages) or reduce the number of LH receptors in the testis (regressed stage), although neither change disturbed testosterone levels in peripheral blood. These subtle changes were accompanied by significant (P&lt;0.05) alterations in the capability of the pituitary to release LH (85% more) and of the testes to secrete testosterone (20% less). These effects of PRL were unmasked when rams were given highly stimulative i.v. injections of GNRH (single 3 microg dose) and NIH-oLH-S24 (three 5 microg doses given 20 min apart) respectively. PRL insufficiency also appeared to slow down the 'seasonal' rise in FSH secretion and slightly delayed (2 weeks) the times when the testes began to grow and were first significantly (P&lt;0.05) enlarged from the regressed state. We conclude that PRL is an important part of the intricate regulation of the pituitary-gonadal system in moderately seasonal DLS rams." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en077_5952", "title": "Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist", "score": 0.011557935477029928, "content": "Agonists do not quickly dissociate from the GnRH receptor. As a result, initially there is an increase in FSH and LH secretion (so-called \"flare effect\"). Levels of LH may increase by up to 10-fold, while levels of testosterone generally increase to 140 to 200% of baseline values. However, after continuous administration, a profound hypogonadal effect (i.e. decrease in FSH and LH) is achieved through receptor downregulation by internalization of receptors. Generally this induced and reversible hypogonadism is the therapeutic goal. During the flare, peak levels of testosterone occur after 2 to 4 days, baseline testosterone levels are returned to by 7 to 8 days, and castrate levels of testosterone are achieved by 2 to 4 weeks. Following cessation of exogenous GnRH agonist it takes 5 to 8 days before normal gonadotropin secretion is completely restored." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en381_28875", "title": "Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism", "score": 0.010307105772362397, "content": "Diagnosis The clinical presentation of HH depend on the time of onset as well as the severity of the defect. Diagnostic tests to measure GnRH levels are difficult. This is because GnRH is confined within hypophyseal portal system and has a short half-life of 2–4 minutes. GnRH levels are thus checked indirectly via LH and FSH levels which will be totally or partially absent in HH. Exogenous GnRH can be used as a diagnostic tool. If the patient has hypothalamic GnRH deficiency, LH and FSH will gradually appear in response to the exogenous GnRH but in pituitary cases of HH, a minimal response will be generated. Typically, CHH is diagnosed in adolescence due to a lack of pubertal development, but it can be possible to diagnose in male neonates. Clinical presentations of CHH involve an absence of puberty by 18 years of age, poorly developed secondary sexual characteristics, or infertility." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_5822", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.010155784138342278, "content": "Brain imaging (MRI is the gold standard) to exclude  Pituitary microadenoma  Pituitary macroadenoma  Other abnormal brain mass Hypothyroidism  Exclude secondary causes  Treat condition  Supplement with thyroid hormone if indicated  Spontaneous ovulation will occur when thyroid function normalizes  Treat underlying condition  When prolactin normalizes, spontaneous ovulation should occur Anovulation Normal or high day 3 FSH and LH Ovarian disorders (see Figure 30.3) Low LH, FSH, TSH, GH, ACTH High serum prolactin levels Abnormal TSH or T4Low FSH, LH, E2 Hypothalmic disorders Thyroid disease Hyperprolactinemia Panhypopituitarism Assess and treat condition Repeat test to exclude false positive Elevated prolactin If a pituatary microadenoma is diagnosed  Bromocriptine or cabergoline to normalize prolactin level  Spontaneous ovulation should occur when prolactin is normal Anorexia  Medical and psychiatric assessment  Treat condition  Aim to increase BMI to allow spontaneous" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0104_6207", "title": "Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analog suppression renders polycystic ovarian disease patients more susceptible to ovulation induction with pulsatile GnRH.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Pulsatile GnRH administration consistently restores normal reproductive hormone levels and ovulation in women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, but is less effective in those with polycystic ovarian disease (PCOD). We pharmacologically created a hypogonadotropic condition with a GnRH analog (GnRH-A) in six women with PCOD to investigate the role of deranged gonadotropin secretion in PCOD and to improve the response to pulsatile GnRH ovulation induction. Before GnRH and GnRH-A treatment the women with PCOD had increased LH pulse frequency [one pulse every 55 +/- 2 (+/- SE) min; P less than 0.05] and LH pulse amplitude (10.9 +/- 1.4 U/L; P less than 0.05) compared to normal women in the follicular phase of their menstrual cycle. Each PCOD woman completed one cycle of pulsatile GnRH administration for ovulation induction before (pre-A cycles; n = 6) and one or two cycles after (post-A cycles; n = 9) GnRH-A administration [D-Ser(tBu)6-Des,Gly10-GnRH; 300 micrograms, sc, twice daily for 8 weeks]. Pulsatile GnRH (5 micrograms/bolus) was given at 60-min intervals using a Zyklomat pump. Daily blood samples were drawn during the pulsatile GnRH ovulation induction cycles for the determination of serum LH, FSH, estradiol (E2), progesterone, and testosterone, and pelvic ultrasonography was done at 1- to 4-day intervals. Mean (+/- SE) serum LH levels were elevated during the pre-A cycle (49.2 +/- 3.1 IU/L) and decreased to normal levels during the post-A cycles (19.6 +/- 1.4 IU/L; P less than 0.0001). Mean testosterone concentrations were lower during the post-A cycles [88 +/- 2 ng/dL (3.1 +/- 0.1 nmol/L)] than during the pre-A cycles [122 +/- 3 ng/dL (4.2 +/- 0.1 nmol/L); P less than 0.0001]. In the follicular phase of the post-A cycles E2 levels were significantly lower [81 +/- 5 pg/mL (300 +/- 20 pmol/L) vs. 133 +/- 14 pg/mL (490 +/- 50 pmol/L); P less than 0.0001], preovulatory ovarian volume was smaller (24.6 +/- 2.0 vs. 31.4 +/- 2.4 cm3; P less than 0.01), and the FSH to LH ratio was higher (0.56 +/- 0.03 vs. 0.16 +/- 0.01) than in the pre-A cycle, suggesting more appropriate function of the pituitary-gonadal axis. Excessive LH and E2 responses to pulsatile GnRH administration in the early follicular phase of the pre-A cycle were abolished in the post-A cycles.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0226_13879", "title": "Treatment of hypogonadotropic hypogonadal male patients with the luteinizing hormone-relasing hormone (LH-RH) anolog D-Ser(TBU)6 EA10 LH-RH: transient disappearance of gonadotropin stimulation.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "We have studied the effect of prolonged treatment with a long-acting luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LH-RH) analog (D-Ser-(TBU)6 EA10 LH-RH in six patients with isolated gonadotropin deficiency. Before treatment, all subjects responded to LH-RH (100 microgram intravenously [IV]); one responded immediately, and five after 5 daily infusions of LH-RH (200 microgram). Treatment by LH-RH analog (348 microgram every 2 days with a nasal spray for 90 or 120 days) is only efficient for 1 month; a consistent increase in serum LH and a slight increase in testosterone (T) were observed in all patients, but no increase of serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) was detectable. Then a paradoxical effect appeared: LH and T levels returned to the basal values. Moreover, this treatment induced refractoriness of the pituitary to LH-RH for several months after the end of treatment. The appearance of antibodies to LH-RH and LH-RH analog was eliminated. A pituitary response was obtained in three patients when a new LH-RH stimulation was repeated 7 and 11 months after the end of treatment. The mechanism of this pituitary desensitization is discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0359_3396", "title": "Spontaneous and GnRH-provoked gonadotropin secretion and testosterone response to human chorionic gonadotropin in adolescent boys with thalassaemia major and delayed puberty.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To elucidate whether the cause of sexual maturation arrest in thalassaemia is of gonadal or pituitary etiology, 10 males with thalassaemia and delayed puberty and 10 with constitutional delay of growth and pubertal maturation (CSS) were extensively studied. Their spontaneous nocturnal gonadotropin secretion and gonadotropin response to intravenous 100 micrograms gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) were evaluated. Circulating testosterone concentration and clinical response were evaluated after 3 days, 4 weeks and 6 months of intramuscular administration of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) (2500 U/m2/dose). Thalassaemic boys had significantly lower circulating concentrations of testosterone compared to those with constitutional delay of growth and sexual maturation (CSS) at the same pubertal stage. Short- and long-term testosterone response to administrations of HCG was markedly decreased in thalassaemic boys. After 6 months of HCG administration 50 per cent (5/10) of the boys did not show significant testicular enlargement or genital changes. Despite the low circulating concentrations of testosterone, none of the patients had high basal or exaggerated gonadotropin response to gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulation. Luteinizing hormone (LH) peak responses to GnRH were significantly lower as compared to controls. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) peak responses to GnRH did not differ among the two study groups. The mean nocturnal LH and FSH secretion was significantly decreased in all thalassaemic boys as compared to boys with CSS at the same pubertal stage (testicular volume). These data proved that hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is the main cause of delayed/failed puberty in adolescents with thalassaemia major. MRI studies revealed complete empty sella (n = 5), marked diminution of the pituitary size (n = 5), thinning of the pituitary stalk (n = 3) with its posterior displacement (n = 2), and evidence of iron deposition in the pituitary gland and midbrain (n = 8) in thalassaemic patients, denoting a high incidence of structural abnormalities (atrophy) of the pituitary gland. Moreover, in many of the thalassaemic boys, the defective testosterone response to long-term (6 months) HCG therapy denoted significant testicular atrophy and/or failure secondary to siderosis. It appears that testosterone replacement might be superior to HCG therapy in these patients. This therapy should be introduced at the proper time in these hypogonadal patients to induce their sexual development and to support their linear growth spurt and bone mineral accretion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0005_3512", "title": "[Effects of a new analogue of LH-RH, D-Ser(TBU)6- EA10-LH-RH, on gonadotropin liberation in males (author's transl)].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Effects on the secretion of gonadotropins by D-Ser (TBU)6-EA10-LH-RH were investigated in 7 male volunteers without known endocrine disturbances. One week after subcutaneous injection of 100 mug of LH-RH the probands were given 5 mug of the LH-RH analogue subcutaneously into the abdominal wall. LH, FSH and testosterone concentrations were estimated in the serum and compared with each other at varying intervals after each injection. LH-RH caused a marked increase of the LH content in serum after 20 minutes with a maximum after 40 minutes. The effect of the analogue occurred with a delay. After 40 minutes an LH level was reached which still persisted 6 hours later. Contrary to LH there were considerable individual differences in serum FSH levels. In the initial phase after injection of LH-RH and LH-RH analogue that increase of the FSH level in serum was almost parallel. However, the analogue showed a marked depot effect. Serum concentrations of testosterone showed no significant changes after administration of the releasing hormones. D-Ser(TBU)6-EA10-LH-RH is approximately 20 times effective as LH-RH. A dose of 5 mug is effective for 6-8 hours." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0553_4742", "title": "Testicular leydig cell tumor presenting as primary infertility.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 29-year old male and his wife presented with an 18 month history of primary infertility. History and initial investigations suggested no major female pathologic component but a semen analysis revealed azoospermia. There was no history of any sexual dysfunction and neither partner was receiving any medication. Clinical examination revealed normal secondary sexual characteristics. Both testicles were of normal consistency with a volume of approximately 15 ml but a 4 x 2 cm mass was palpable at the lower pole of the left testis. Laboratory investigations revealed: serum testosterone 37.1 nmol/l (NV:10.0-38.0 nmol/l), LH&lt;0.3 U/L (NV:3.0-12.0 U/L), and FSH &lt;0.1 IU/L (NV:3.0-11.0 U/L). Serum b-HCG, aFP, LDH, oestradiol and inhibin levels were within the normal range. A repeated semen analysis confirmed azoospermia. Testicular ultrasound demonstrated a well-defined hypoechoic mass, measuring 31 x 23 x 17 mm and containing several flecks of calcification, arising from the lower pole of the left testis. A left orchidectomy was performed. Macroscopical histopathological examination revealed a single firm dark brown nodule 2.8 cm in diameter arising from the lower pole of the testis. The tumor distended the capsule of the testis without extending through it. Microscopical examination was consistent with a Leydig cell tumor. Computerised tomography of the chest, abdomen and pelvis was normal. Six months later, laboratory investigations revealed a serum testosterone of 14.3 nmol/l, an LH of 5.4 U/L and an FSH of 4.3 U/L, respectively. A repeated semen analysis was normal: volume 1.8 ml(2-10 ml), count 124 x 10(6) (20-350 x 10(6)), motility 80%(&gt;60%), abnormal forms &lt;15%(&lt;15%). Three months later his wife was pregnant. In summary, our patient presented with azoospermia, secondary to a Leydig cell tumor, which was reversible after removal of the tumor." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0026_10025", "title": "Effect of a new LH-RH analogue (D-Ser(TBU)6-EA10-LH-RH) on gonadotrophin and gonadal steroid secretion in men.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The effect of a new analogue of the gonadotrophin-releasing hormone LH-RH, D-Ser(TBU)6-EA10-LH-RH, on the secretion of LH, FSH, as well as testosterone, oestradiol, HGH, prolactin, TSH, and cortisol was studied in normal men. The same subjects were injected intravenously in 4-day intervals with 1.0, 2.5, 5.0, and 10.0 mug of this substance. A significant LH but no FSH release was seen after doses of 1.0 and 2.5 mug LH-RH analogue, while after 5.0 and 10.0 mug dose-dependent increases of LH and imposed elevations of FSH were observed. Peak levels of LH were reached after 30 min, those of FSH after intravenous injection after 120 min. LH and FSH remained elevated for 8-10 h. LH peak levels after 5 mug of LH-RH analogue were comparable to those seen after injection of 100 mug of the decapeptide LH-RH. Following the release of LH and FSH after doses of 5.0 and 10.0 mug LH-RH analogue, there was a late stimulating effect in testosterone and oestradiol secretion. HGH, TSH, prolactin, and cortisol were not influenced by the LH-RH analogue." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0117_15714", "title": "Further acquisitions on gonadal function in bromocriptine treated hyperprolactinemic male patients.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The diurnal variation of plasma total and free testosterone (tT and fT) and the gonadotropinemic response to LH-RH were evaluated in a group of hyperprolactinemic impotent males with pituitary microprolactinoma before and during therapy with bromocriptine, a well known dopamine agonist drug. Before treatment, basal levels not only of tT but also of fT were decreased and the diurnal variation of both tT and fT was absent. Moreover, the LH-RH test showed a delay in the LH response peak, together with normal basal levels of LH. Bromocriptine therapy caused normalization of both the secretion response of LH to LH-RH and of the secretion pattern of tT and of fT (basal levels and diurnal variation) besides a significant decrease in PRL levels and an improvement in sexual function. The possible effects of high plasma levels of PRL at various levels of the hypothalamus-pituitary-testicular axis are discussed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_965", "title": "Kallmann syndrome", "score": 0.00953995479324558, "content": "Treatment for both males and females with KS/CHH normally consists of one of three options which can be used for both hormone replacement therapy and/or fertility treatment. Sex hormone replacement (testosterone or oestrogen & progesterone). Gonadotropin therapy (medications that replicate the activity of FSH and LH). GnRH pulsatile therapy. Hormone replacement therapy The method and dose of treatment will vary depending on the individual being treated. Initial treatment is normally made with lower doses in younger patients in order to develop the secondary sexual characteristics before adult doses are reached." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0738_23671", "title": "Comparison of detection of normal puberty in boys by a hormonal sleep test and a gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist test.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The magnitude of sleep-related gonadotropin rise required to activate pubertal gonadal function is not established. Our objective was to determine the normal relationship between sleep-related pubertal hormone levels and pituitary-testicular responsiveness to a GnRH agonist (GnRHag) test across the pubertal transition. DESIGN/SETTING AND PARTICIPANTS: We conducted a prospective study in a General Clinical Research Center with healthy 9- to 15-yr-old volunteer boys. INTERVENTIONS included overnight blood sampling followed by leuprolide acetate injection (10 μg/kg). LH, FSH, and testosterone levels were evaluated. LH levels during sleep and post-GnRHag rose steadily during the late prepubertal years. Sleep peak LH correlated highly with the LH response to GnRHag across groups (r = 0.913). A sleep peak LH level of at least 3.7 U/liter predicted pubertal testicular activation with 100% accuracy. LH of at least 14.8 and at least 19.0 U/liter 4 h after GnRHag, respectively, predicted puberty with 100% sensitivity/94% specificity and 100% specificity/94% sensitivity. Overweight pubertal boys had transiently prolonged responses to GnRHag. FSH rose during both waking and sleeping hours during the prepubertal years, and all pubertal boys had an FSH level of at least 0.9 U/liter awake and at least 1.2 U/liter asleep. Sleep LH was more closely related than FSH to testicular size. These data suggest that a critical LH level during sleep (≥3.7 U/liter) heralds the onset of pubertal virilization and that this level is predictable by LH of at least 14.8-19 U/liter 4 h after GnRHag. These data also suggest that LH stimulation of testicular androgen production plays a role in stimulating testicular tubule growth once a critical level of FSH is achieved." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0130_16090", "title": "[The effects of bromocriptine on anovulatory patients with high LH and euprolactinemia].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "It is well known that an acute administration of Bromocriptine (dopamine agonist) suppresses the serum LH level either in normal women or in women with polycystic ovary syndrome, in whom the serum LH level is elevated. The present study was carried out to examine the effectiveness of Bromocriptine on anovulatory women with a high LH level (serum LH greater than 30 mIU/ml). Bromocriptine was administered for 3 months, 5 mg daily, to 9 anovulatory women with euprolactinemia (serum PRL less than 25 ng/ml). Ovulation was observed by their BBT charts. Before and after the treatment of Bromocriptine, FSH, LH and PRL secreting capacities were tested by LHRH and TRH injection. Also, estrone, estradiol and testosterone levels were measured before and after the Bromocriptine administration. Resting levels of LH, FSH and PRL were 45.4 +/- 11.0 mIU/ml, 11.4 +/- 3.0 mIU/ml, and 14.3 +/- 4.7 ng/ml (M +/- SD), respectively, before the treatment. As a result of the treatment, the LH level was markedly decreased to 27.3 +/- 14.5 (M +/- SD, P less than 0.05), and PRL decreased to 3.76 +/- 4.2 ng/ml (M +/- SD, P less than 0.005). On the other hand, FSH did not show a marked change. The responsiveness of LH to LHRH before the treatment showed a marked increase, which was suppressed by Bromocriptine. However, FSH showed no change. The responsiveness of PRL to TRH was suppressed by Bromocriptine. Serum estrone, estradiol and testosterone levels before the treatment were 115.5 +/- 76.7 pg/ml, 93.7 +/- 61.0 pg/ml and 0.809 +/- 0.209 ng/ml (M +/- SD), respectively, which showed no significant change after the treatment.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0377_14527", "title": "Aromatization mediates testosterone's short-term feedback restraint of 24-hour endogenously driven and acute exogenous gonadotropin-releasing hormone-stimulated luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone secretion in young men.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The present clinical study examines the neuroregulatory hypothesis that feedback restraint of LH and FSH secretion by testosterone requires in vivo aromatization. To test this postulate, we prospectively and randomly assigned 47 healthy young men to 1 of 5 parallel short-term (5-day) double-blind interventions with: 1) placebo; 2) high-dose ketoconazole (KTCZ, 400 mg orally 4 times daily) to block both Leydig-cell and adrenal steroidogenesis; 3) KTCZ and transdermal testosterone delivery (7.5 mg daily); 4) KTCZ and transdermal estradiol (0.05 mg daily); or 5) KTCZ, testosterone, and the selective and potent aromatase inhibitor, anastrazole (5 mg orally twice daily). Blood was sampled every 10 min for 27 h on the last day of intervention to quantitate 24-h mean spontaneous and 3-h post-GnRH-stimulated (100 ng/kg iv bolus) LH and FSH release. KTCZ administration lowered the serum total testosterone concentration markedly from (mean +/- SEM) 423 +/- 57 ng/dL (15 +/- 2.0 nmo/L) during placebo ingestion to 58 +/- 8.6 ng/dL (2.0 +/- 0.3 nmol/L) (P &lt; 10(-3)). Transdermal androgen addback along with KTCZ blockade increased testosterone levels to 607 +/- 57 ng/dL (21 +/- 2.0 nmol/L). KTCZ exposure alone drove a 3-fold increase in serum LH concentrations (P &lt; 10(-3)) and a 2.5-fold rise in FSH secretion (P = 0.015), as assessed by high-specificity immunoradiometric assays. Concomitant transdermal testosterone (or estradiol) delivery repressed the elevated secretion of both LH and FSH to mid-normal baseline values. A 3-fold administration of anastrazole, KTCZ, and testosterone completely opposed exogenous testosterone's suppression of 24-h LH and FSH secretion. Anastrazole coadministration likewise abolished testosterone-dependent inhibition of 3-h GnRH-stimulated LH and FSH release. In summary, assuming the specificity of anastrazole's inhibition of aromatase activity, we conclude that circulating testosterone in healthy men curtails endogenously driven as well as exogenous GnRH-stimulated LH and FSH secretion conditional on its in vivo aromatization." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0225_11278", "title": "[Increased and prolonged release of lh and fsh on intravenous administration of a synthetic analogue of lh-rh [d-ser(tbu)6-ea10-lh-rh] in healthy men of various age groups (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Healthy male subjects of various age groups respond to the administration of D-Ser(TBU)6-EA10-LH-RH, an analogue of LH-RH substituted in positions 6 and 10, by a prolonged and increased release of LH and FSH. Increased serum concentrations of LH and FSH were observed 20 minutes after intravenous administration of the compound. Maximum concentrations of LH and FSH were seen after 60, and 60 to 240 minutes, respectively. Serum concentrations of both gonadotropins remained elevanted for up to 8 hours after the administration of 10 microgram of the LH-RH analogue. A dose response relationship was observed with regard to the serum concentrations of LH and FSH over the range of 1.25 to 5.0 microgram of the LH-RH analogue. The administration of 10 or 20 microgram of the compound, however, did not cause a further rise in plasma FSH, although the release of LH was further enhanced." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en075_60789", "title": "Polyestradiol phosphate", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Antigonadotropic effects PEP has antigonadotropic effects due to its estrogenic activity. It has been found to suppress testosterone levels in men by 55%, 75%, and 85% at intramuscular dosages of 80, 160, and 240 mg every 4 weeks, respectively. A single intramuscular injection of 320 mg PEP in men has been found to suppress testosterone levels to within the castrate range (< 50 ng/dL) within 3 weeks. This was associated with circulating estradiol levels of just over 200 pg/mL. The suppression of testosterone levels that can be achieved with PEP is equal to that with orchiectomy. However, to achieve such concentrations of testosterone, which are about 15 ng/dL on average, higher concentrations of estradiol of around 500 pg/mL were necessary. This was associated with a dosage of intramuscular 320 mg PEP every four weeks and occurred by 90 days of treatment. However, 240 mg PEP every four weeks has also been reported to eventually suppress testosterone levels in the castrate range." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0226_2613", "title": "Results of three-times-per-week long-term administration of a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) analog, D-Ser-(TBU)6-LHRH-(EA)10 in primary amenorrhea.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The effectiveness of a luteinizing hormone (LH)-releasing hormone (LHRH) analog, D-Ser-(TBU)6-LHRH-(EA)10 (Hoe 766), applied intranasally in a 3 days-per-week regimen, was assessed in four patients with hypogonadotropic or normogonadotropic primary amenorrhea by measuring LH, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and estradiol (E2) levels before and 4 hours after its application and by observing the clinical effects of these hormones on the genital tract. The LH response increased progressively over the first 21 days (nine applications) in three of the four patients; it was subsequently reduced but never abolished throughout the study, which was terminated with the 25th application on the 59th day. Basal values of E2 increased until the 12th to 14th day (fifth or sixth application) and then showed a definite decline despite the continuing increase in LH response. FSH release attained a maximum by the second to fourth application and its magnitude of response remained remarkably stable thereafter. The clinical response did not correspond to the serum levels of E2. It is postulated that the development of LH unresponsiveness is due to desensitization of the receptors by the analog. The poor response of the genital tissues to the normal levels of E2 and the subsequent decrease in E2 levels, which occurred despite increasing LH responsiveness, are attributed to an inhibitory action of the analog on E2 biosynthesis in the ovary and on E2 receptors in the genital organs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0900_21700", "title": "Meta-Analysis of Paediatric Patients with Central Precocious Puberty Treated with Intramuscular Triptorelin 11.25 mg 3-Month Prolonged-Release Formulation
.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A meta-analysis was undertaken to assess the effect of triptorelin 11.25 mg 3-month prolonged-release formulation in central precocious puberty (CPP). All available clinical studies with triptorelin 11.25 mg were included. The primary outcome was the proportion of children with suppressed luteinising hormone (LH) response (peak LH ≤3 IU/L) to the gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) test 3 months after triptorelin 11.25 mg injection. Secondary outcomes included: the proportion with suppressed peak LH response at 6 months and the proportion with suppressed peak follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) response (≤3 IU/L), suppressed oestradiol (≤20 pmol/L) in girls or suppressed testosterone (≤30 ng/dL) in boys at 3 months. 153 children (13 boys, 140 girls) were included. The proportion with a suppressed peak LH response to the GnRH test was 87.6% (95% CI: 81.3-92.4, p &lt; 0.0001, for a proportion &gt;70%) and 92.8% (95% CI: 87.5-96.4, p &lt; 0.0001, for a proportion &gt;70%) at 3 and 6 months, respectively. FSH peak, oestradiol, and testosterone were suppressed in 86.7% (95% CI: 79.1-92.4), 97.1% (95% CI: 91.6-99.4), and 72.7% (95% CI: 39.0-94.0) of children at 3 months, respectively. Triptorelin 11.25 mg 3-month formulation is efficacious in suppressing LH peak and other gonadal hormones and in slowing the progression of CPP in children.
." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0012_2983", "title": "Pituitary and testicular response to LH-RH and to a long-acting analogue (D-leu-6-LH-RH-ethylamide).", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The LH, FSH and testosterone response to 50 microgram i.v. LH-RH and to 2.5, 5.0, 10.0, and 20.0 microgram i.m. D-Leu-6-LH-RH-ethylamide was studied in 6 subjects with normogonadotrophic, idiopathic oligozoospermia. All injections were given between 8:00 and 9:00 a.m. at weekly intervals. Blood samples were collected before and 30 and 45 minutes after injection of LH-RH, and before and 2, 4, 6, 12, and 24 hours after D-Leu-6-LH-RH-ethylamide injections. Serum levels of LH, FSH, and testosterone were measured by triplicate by R.I.A. LH and FSH responses to LH-RH showed peak values at 30 minutes, whereas following injections of D-Leu-6-LH-RH-ethylamide, maximal values were recorded between 4 and 6 hours and were higher than those obtained with LH-RH. A significant rise of serum testosterone levels was observed after all stimuli, with peak values 45 minutes after LH-RH and 4 to 6 hours after D-Leu-6-Lh-RH-ethylamide injections. The testosterone levels obtained following LH-RH and different doses of the analogue did not differ significantly from one another. The same sequence of maximal LH and FSH values was obtained after injections of LH-RH and of D-Leu-6-LH-RH-ethylamide, particularly at doses of 10.0 and 20.0 microgram. This suggests that the gonadotrophin response to these agents would be a true reflection of the individual mode of pituitary response." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0214_10304", "title": "Reduction of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) secretion in FSH-producing pituitary adenoma by bromocriptine.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "An FSH-secreting pituitary adenoma was demonstrated in a 32-yr-old man who presented with unilateral optic atrophy without any clinical or laboratory evidence of hypogonadism. Semen analysis was normal, although basal FSH levels were markedly elevated (greater than 80 mIU/ml). He had normal plasma LH levels and no other detectable endocrine abnormalities. Administration of GnRH elicited delayed and sustained FSH and brisk LH responses. Administration of TRH resulted in TSH and PRL responses and unexpected FSH and LH elevations. Two surgical operations resulted in temporary reduction of plasma FSH levels, but it increased later concomitant with CT demonstration of tumor growth. After pituitary irradiation, no reduction in FSH levels occurred. A single dose of 5 mg bromocriptine elicited a significant reduction in FSH levels from 137 to 64 mIU/ml. Long term treatment with 15 mg/day bromocriptine resulted in further reduction of FSH level, to 36.4 mIU/ml, without any change in tumor size. This finding implies that bromocriptine could be an adjunctive therapy or an alternative to other modes of treatment in patients with these rare tumors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0667_8518", "title": "Pituitary response to steroid replacement therapy in fertile, subfertile and infertile stallions after castration.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Recent studies in our laboratory investigating plasma gonadotrophin concentrations before and after castration indicate that the hypothalamic-pituitary axis is not the original site of dysfunction in stallions with idiopathic infertility. In the present study, fertile, subfertile and infertile stallions were subjected to replacement therapy with oestradiol and testosterone 1 year after castration to investigate hypothalamic-pituitary axis function further. Fertile (n=5), subfertile (n=3) and infertile (n=2) castrated stallions of Light horse breeds, aged 11-23 years, were given either oestradiol cypionate or testosterone propionate for 28 days during the breeding season. Oestradiol cypionate in cottonseed oil (30 mg; 6 mg ml(-1)) was administered i.m. at 2 day intervals starting in May for 28 days. Eight weeks after the last oestradiol cypionate injection, testosterone propionate in vegetable oil (85 mg; 8.5 mg ml(-1)) was administered i.m. at 2 day intervals for 28 days. Heparinized blood samples were taken from the jugular vein three times a week from 3 weeks before the start of oestradiol cypionate treatment until 4 weeks after the last testosterone propionate injection. Saline or 25 microg GnRH in 1 ml saline were administered to the stallions on days 24 and 25, respectively, of the 28 day steroid treatments. Jugular blood samples were collected periodically through a catheter from 60 min before saline or GnRH injection until 420 min after injection. The plasma samples were stored at -20 degrees C until analysed for plasma LH, FSH, oestradiol and testosterone concentrations by validated radioimmunoassay. Exogenous steroid treatment increased plasma oestradiol and testosterone concentrations to concentrations close to normal circulating values (oestradiol: 49 pg ml(-1); testosterone: 1.3 ng ml(-1)) in all the groups. There were no significant differences in plasma LH or FSH concentrations among the groups during any of the treatment periods. Oestradiol treatment significantly increased (P &lt; 0.05) LH concentrations, whereas testosterone treatment decreased LH concentrations, although the difference was not significant. Oestradiol treatment significantly decreased FSH concentrations (P &lt; 0.05), whereas testosterone treatment significantly increased FSH concentrations (P &lt; 0.05). There were no differences in LH and FSH responses to GnRH challenge among the three groups of stallions. In conclusion, the results of the present study indicate that the hypothalamic-pituitary axes in these subfertile and infertile stallions were not the original sites of dysfunction. Further studies at the testicular level are required." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0013_7512", "title": "Inhibitory effects on gonadotrophin secretion and gonadal function in men during chronic treatment with a potent stimulatory luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone analogue.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Long-term treatment with the potent and long-acting stimulatory luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LRH) analogue D-Ser(TBU)6-EA10-LRH was given to 4 healthy men to study its effects on pituitary gonadotropin secretion and gonadal function. Five micrograms of the LRH agonist was self-administered sc once daily over 17 weeks. Weekly basal blood samples were obtained for determination of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), prolacting (PRL) and testosterone. The gonadotrophin responses to the LRH analogue were also determined during the treatment period. LRH tests were performed after treatment. Seminal fluid specimens were collected during and after treatment. A reduction of the basal serum gonadotrophin and testosterone levels were observed during the treatment period. The FSH and LH responses to the analogue were also diminished. After discontinuation of treatment the gonadotrophin and testosterone concentrations returned to pre-treatment levels within a week. The PRL levels and the seminal fluid specimens did not show any significant changes during the study period. The results suggest that chronic treatment with D-Ser(TBU)6-EA10-LRH has an inhibitory effect on the pituitary gonadotrophin secretion in healthy men. It seems likely that the reduced testosterone level is secondary to the diminished gonadotrophin secretion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0346_19842", "title": "Nitric oxide regulation of gonadotrophin secretion in prepubertal heifers1.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Mechanisms responsible for the pulsatile release of gonadotrophin secretion in prepubertal heifers are not fully known. We have shown that an excitatory amino acid agonist, N-Methyl-D,L-aspartic acid (NMA), induces an immediate release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) in prepubertal heifers. Nitric oxide (NO) has also emerged as an important regulator of LH release in rats. This study was designed to test the role of NO in the regulation of gonadotrophin release as well as the possible mediation by NO of the effects of NMA and gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) on gonadotrophin secretion in heifer calves. In experiment 1, four groups of five prepubertal heifers (33 weeks old) received one of the following treatments: (1); N-G-nitro-L-arginine methyl ester (L-NAME, a NO synthase inhibitor, 35 mg/kg, i.v., once); (2) NMA (4.7 mg/kg, i.v., once); (3) L-NAME+NMA (as above); and (4) Vehicle (saline, i.v.). All heifers in all groups were also challenged with a bolus injection of GnRH (10 ng/kg, i.v., once). Blood samples were collected every 15 min for 10 h. L-NAME was injected after the first blood sample, NMA after 2 h and GnRH after 6 h of blood sampling. Administration of L-NAME alone, suppressed the spontaneous pulses of LH (P&lt;0.04). Heifers in the NMA group responded with a significantly greater LH release than did the heifers in the L-NAME+NMA group (P&lt;0.05). Following the GnRH challenge, heifer calves treated with L-NAME or NMA had higher LH pulse responses than the controls (P&lt;0.05). In a second experiment, four groups of five heifer calves (34 weeks old) were given one of the following treatments: (1) L-NAME (as above); (2) L-arginine, a NO precursor (ARG, 100 mg/kg/h, i.v. drip infused for 6 h starting 2 h after first blood sample was taken); (3) L-NAME+ARG (as above); and (4) Vehicle (saline i.v. bolus and drip for 6 h). Blood samples were taken every 10 min for 8 h. Administration of L-NAME suppressed the pulsatile release of LH and FSH (P&lt;0.05). Compared to the control group, infusion of ARG by itself did not change the pattern of LH secretion (P&gt;0.05); however, in heifers given L-NAME, ARG restored a normal pattern of LH pulses, similar to the control values (P&gt;0.05). It was therefore concluded that NO is involved in the regulation of LH, and possibly FSH, secretion and that NO may mediate, at least in part, the stimulatory effects of NMA on LH, and to some extent FSH, release. The responses to GnRH led us to suggest that NO may have inhibitory effects on the pituitary and NMA may have increased pituitary sensitivity to GnRH." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0283_1511", "title": "Bromocriptine effects on plasma luteinizing hormone and its responses to gonadotropin-releasing hormone in normal men.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Secretory changes in plasma pituitary luteinizing hormone (LH) after administration of a dopaminergic drug were studied in five normal men. Each subject received orally 5 mg of bromocriptine (Brc) daily for 8 weeks. Each received gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulation tests at the beginning (control), and at 2, 4, 6, and 8 weeks after initiation of Brc treatment. We referred the basal plasma LH and a ratio of maximally GnRH-responded plasma LH to its basal level (R-Max) as indicators of secretory alterations of the LH. Mean basal levels of plasma LH in the five subjects at the beginning and those of R-Max were 3.4 +/- 2.3 (SD) mIU/mL and 8.5 +/- 2.9 units, respectively. Statistically, both the mean values of plasma LH and R-Max during the control period did not differ significantly from those obtained after Brc treatment, although mean basal levels of plasma prolactin during the control period (15.6 +/- 4.6 ng/mL) decreased significantly (p &lt; 0.05) after initiation of treatment. A low dose of Brc administered to normal men for 8 weeks does not significantly influence pituitary secretion of LH." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_104912", "title": "Hypopituitarism", "score": 0.008954932055919445, "content": "Basal tests Levels of LH/FSH may be suppressed by a raised prolactin level, and are therefore not interpretable unless prolactin is low or normal. In men, the combination of low LH and FSH in combination with a low testosterone confirms LH/FSH deficiency; a high testosterone would indicate a source elsewhere in the body (such as a testosterone-secreting tumor). In women, the diagnosis of LH/FSH deficiency depends on whether the woman has been through the menopause. Before the menopause, abnormal menstrual periods together with low estradiol and LH/FSH levels confirm a pituitary problem; after the menopause (when LH/FSH levels are normally elevated and the ovaries produce less estradiol), inappropriately low LH/FSH alone is sufficient. Stimulation tests with GnRH are possible, but their use is not encouraged." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 80 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 9 ] ], "text": "Displaced hip fracture, Garden III-IV. Surgical treatment. Hip hemiarthroplasty." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 81, 130 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 9, 15 ] ], "text": "Option 2 treatment for pertrochanteric fractures." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 131, 165 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 15, 19 ] ], "text": "Option 3. Non-displaced fractures." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 166, 241 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 19, 31 ] ], "text": "Option 4. Non ambulatory patients with minimal pain and high surgical risk." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Hip hemiarthroplasty.", "2": "Trochanteric nail fixation.", "3": "Fixation with cannulated screws.", "4": "Conservative: bed-chair life.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0359_688", "title": "Ethics in practice.", "score": 0.018089960886571055, "content": "H. K. is a ninety-two-year-old woman with Alzheimer's disease and mild hypertension. She resides at a nursing home, where she transfers from bed to chair with maximal assistance. She presents to our emergency department with a painful right hip. Physical examination demonstrates a confused, elderly patient with significant right hip pain and shortening and external rotation of the lower extremity. Radiographs demonstrate a displaced intertrochanteric hip fracture. The patient lacks the capacity for informed consent. Her family is contacted to obtain consent for insertion of a compression screw. The family refuses to give consent, stating that the patient is too old and the surgery is too dangerous." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0513_14674", "title": "[Evaluation of the postoperative quality of life in the elderly over 80 years old who underwent hip hemiarthroplasty for femoral neck fracture].", "score": 0.015584415584415586, "content": "To evaluate the postoperative quality of life of aged patients (&gt; 80 years old) who underwent hip hemiarthroplasty for femoral neck fracture one year ago. From February 1995 to February 2001, 52 elderly patients (&gt; 80 years old) underwent the hip hemiarthroplasty after femoral neck fractures. There were 28 males and 24 females, with the average age of 84.2 years old (ranged from 80 - 95 years old). The fracture type was Garden III or IV, and all the patients underwent the hip hemiarthroplasty of domestic prosthesis. Before the operation, most of them were accompanied with pre-existed diseases. Harris hip score including symptoms and the ability of daily life at the one year after operation was adopted for the follow-up. Postoperative A-P and lateral X-ray of hip joint in different phase were also assayed. Forty-six patients (88.46%) were free of pain and satisfied their operations, only 6 patients (11.54%) complained about slight pain. Twenty-four patients (46.2%) were able to walk without any assistant, 24 patients (46.2%) managed to walk by walker, 4 patients (7.7%) could only lie on the bed or move by wheel chair. Postoperatively, patients with neurological diseases such as Parkinson dementia, Senile dementia, cerebrovascular diseases got poor result of the quality of life. However, the other comorbid diseases such as cardiovascular diseases, diabetes mellitus, chronic renal failure, chronic bronchitis did not affect the result. Thirty-eight patients had the postoperative X-ray when they were followed up. Postoperatively, the X-ray were taken from 3 months to 5 years and 6 months, averaged 54.2 months. Sclerotic line were discovered around the shaft of prosthesis only in 3 patients. No complications such as femoral head central dislocation or hip osteoarthritis were found. Operative treatment could be actively adopted for aged femoral neck fracture patients without surgical contraindication, which can contribute to obtain the motion ability, reduce complication caused by lying in bed, and keep a good quality of life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0383_18195", "title": "Mortality and quality of life after trochanteric hip fracture.", "score": 0.012981030945102803, "content": "The objective was to evaluate the survival and some aspects of the quality of life of patients with trochanteric hip fracture after long-term follow-up in comparison with the age- and sex-matched controls without fracture. Two hundred consecutive patients (mean age at fracture 77 y) with trochanteric hip fractures were compared with the age- and sex-matched controls representing an average population from the same area. After a mean 7 y follow-up period a questionnaire concerning their place of residence, ambulation, causes leading to impairment, need for locomotor aids and management of activities in daily living (ADL) functions was sent to the surviving patients and controls. Mortality increased gradually being 4.5 percent above the control level one month after the fracture, 6.0 percent above at three months, 3.5 percent above at one year, 4.5 percent above at two years, 6.5 percent above at five years and 9.0 percent above at six years. Thirty (48%) of the surviving 62 patients and 83 (90%) of the 92 surviving controls were living in their own homes and 2 (3%) and 4 (4%) in service apartments respectively. Seventeen (27%) of patients alive were institutionalized in a chronic care hospital unit and 13 (21%) in an old people's home as compared with 2 (2%) and 3 (3%) of the controls respectively. Twenty-two (35%) of the patients and 73 (79%) of the controls were able to move about independently. The patients were significantly worse at ADL-management, required more home help and had fewer social contacts and outdoor hobbies than the controls. In conclusion surgically-treated trochanteric hip fractures markedly increase mortality rate, reduce independence and impair walking ability and ADL-functions, and thus seriously affect the health-related quality of life of the patients. This fact should be considered in the planning of the healthcare of elderly people." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0417_6300", "title": "Internal fixation compared with total hip replacement for displaced femoral neck fractures in the elderly. A randomised, controlled trial.", "score": 0.012976056564358025, "content": "The treatment algorithms for displaced fractures of the femoral neck need to be improved if we are to reduce the need for secondary surgery. We have studied 102 patients of mean age 80 years, with an acute displaced fracture of the femoral neck. They were randomly placed into two groups, treated either by internal fixation (IF) with two cannulated screws or total hip replacement (THR). None showed severe cognitive dysfunction, all were able to walk independently, and all lived in their own home. They were reviewed at four, 12 and 24 months after surgery. Outcome measurements included hip complications, revision surgery, hip function according to Charnley and the health-related quality of life (HRQoL) according to EuroQol (EQ-5D). The failure rate after 24 months was higher in the IF group than in the THR group with regard to hip complications (36% and 4%, respectively; p &lt; 0.001), and the number of revision procedures (42% and 4%, p &lt; 0.001). Hip function was significantly better in the THR group at all follow-up reviews regarding pain (p &lt; 0.005), movement (p &lt; 0.05 except at 4 months) and walking (p &lt; 0.05). The reduction in HRQoL (EQ-5D index score) was also significantly lower in the THR group than in the IF group, comparing the pre-fracture situation with that at all follow-up reviews (p &lt; 0.05). The results of our study strongly suggest that THR provides a better outcome than IF for elderly, relatively healthy, lucid patients with a displaced fracture of the femoral neck." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0812_25999", "title": "Ground-level geriatric falls: a not-so-minor mechanism of injury.", "score": 0.011945514191984025, "content": "Introduction. Ground-level falls are typically regarded as a minor mechanism of injury that do not necessitate trauma team activation; however, they represent a significant proportion of hospitalised trauma and can result in multisystem injury. Case Presentation. A 79-year-old nursing home resident was brought to the emergency department following an unwitnessed fall. She suffered dementia and had a seizure in the department resulting in a reduced GCS, making history and examination difficult. She was diagnosed with a right proximal humerus fracture and admitted under joint orthopedic and medical care. Following orthopedic review, further X-rays were requested which showed bilateral neck of femur fractures. The following day she had bilateral hip hemiarthroplasties and K-wire stabilisation of the right shoulder. Several days later, when cognition had improved, she was noted to be avoiding use of the left arm and was found to also have a left proximal humerus fracture which was managed conservatively. Conclusion. Trauma patients with reduced cognitive function should undergo full ATLS assessment, and a prospective trial is required to see if age should be incorporated as a criteria for trauma team activation. More liberal use of advanced imaging such as a full body CT-scan may be beneficial. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en512_13521", "title": "Kitni Girhain Baaki Hain (season 2)", "score": 0.011347853068944118, "content": "a new mobile. While, another woman's brother is unconscious because of drinking alcohol but he also survives! Bushra, angrily goes to her home, pushes a tap to get water and water comes hardly. She comes to home and shakes her bhandara. She abuses to doctor to not let die patient. She says to kill doctor. She again prays that someone should die. But again that patient survives. Doctor sees her and again says her that why has she come here and gives her money but she refuses. She goes to home where same doctor comes in ike and asks her to do nursing of hospital. She doesn't give answer but comes in hospital to be a nurse. Nurse guides her, she falls with that doctor and they both smile. She comes to home in night, where her father says that 3 persons died in highway and tap contains much water. She says her father if he could make her doctor. She sleeps in bed in ankles. Doctor comes and wakes her up that patient is dying and she is sleeping and warns that her father will be" }, { "id": "article-21679_7", "title": "Femoral Neck Fractures -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010549039681303274, "content": "In the majority of cases, the patient will have had recent trauma. In cases of dementia or cognitive impairment, the history may be scant without the report of any trauma. This is where obtaining an account from the nursing home, or health aids is crucial. Question the nurse aids of any recent falls and change in cognition the past few days. The patient will complain of pain with a decreased range of motion of the hip. In non-displaced fractures, there may be no deformity. However, displaced fractures may present with a shortened and externally rotated lower limb. The patient history varies depending on the mechanism of injury. The following should be obtained during the history and physical examination:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0348_11865", "title": "Subcapital femoral neck fracture after closed reduction and internal fixation of an intertrochanteric hip fracture: a case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A subcapital femoral neck fracture in a healed intertrochanteric fracture treated by an open reduction and internal fixation is a rare, but catastrophic, event. We present the case of an 86-year-old woman, a community ambulator, who sustained a displaced right intertrochanteric hip fracture during a fall. She was treated with closed reduction and internal fixation with a dynamic compression hip screw and side plate. Four months later, she was noted to have a displaced subcapital femoral neck fracture and underwent hip screw and side plate hardware removal and cemented bipolar hemiarthroplasty. Both postoperative recoveries were uncomplicated, and she was discharged to a rehabilitation facility able to ambulate with minimal assistance. This devastating complication in patients with osteoporosis may be prevented by deeper placement of the dynamic hip compression lag screw to within 5 mm to 8 mm of the subchondral bone, which may decrease the stress forces in the subcapital femoral neck." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0038_9199", "title": "Fractures of the hip in the tenth decade of life. Findings in 25 cases.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A report is given of the results of treatment of 25 patients with a fracture of the hip who were over 90 years of age. Twenty three patients were subjected to operation: 5 of these died in hospital, but not as a direct consequence of operation. Of the 18 patients discharged after an average hospital stay of 32 days, 13 were able to walk independently at home, on the average for over two years. It is concluded that surgical treatment of fractures of the hip in very old people is advisable and useful, provided they are in reasonable general condition and do not exhibit dementia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0838_6344", "title": "Long-Term Outcomes Following Reduction and Fixation of Displaced Subcapital Hip Fractures in the Young Elderly.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The surgical treatment of hip fractures remains controversial especially when considering age. To investigate the long-term functional outcomes of displaced subcapital hip fractures that were reduced and surgically fixed using parallel cannulated screws in patients aged 60 years and younger. During the period 1996-2005, 27 patients under age 60 with displaced subcapital hip fractures classified as Garden III or IV were treated with fracture reduction and surgical internal fixation using cannulated screws. Patient outcomes were assessed using the Harris Hip Score (HHS) and physical examination. During a follow-up period of 8-17 years 4 of the 27 patients (14.8%) developed non-union/femoral head avascular necrosis and had undergone hip arthroplasty. All reoperations were performed within the first year after fracture fixation, all in the 50-60 year old age group. The revision rate among patients 50-60 years old was significantly higher than that of patients 50 years and younger (40% vs. 0%, P = 0.037). Mean HHS was higher for patients not requiring revision surgery (85.4) than for patients with revision surgery (75.5), but this difference was not significant. Internal fixation using fracture reduction and cannulated screw fixation is a successful treatment modality for displaced subcapital hip fractures in patients under 50 years old. Patients aged 50-60 may have a higher risk of avascular necrosis or non-union and require arthroplasty, often within the first year after fracture fixation. The long-term outcome following these fractures is good when excluding patients who had early complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0812_6234", "title": "Home, please: A conjoint analysis of patient preferences after a bad hip fracture.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "An Australian study of older, community-dwelling women found that 80% would rather be dead than experience loss of independence and nursing home admission after a bad hip fracture. We re-examined this issue using a conjoint analysis approach. We asked older hospital patients with a history of falls, fracture or osteoporosis to imagine they had a hip fracture resulting in significant residual disability. Subjects were asked to rank in order of preference an orthogonal array of nine out of 36 potential outcome scenarios reporting risk of falls, life expectancy, discharge home with support or to a nursing home and family agreement or disagreement with discharge location. Of 192 patients satisfying inclusion criteria, 183 agreed to participate and 97 completed the study. Those who failed to complete the study were older and had lower Mini-Mental State Examination scores than those who completed the study. For the group as a whole, averaged importance scores were: discharge residence 31.3%, length of life 27%, fall risk 26.4% and family preference 15.5%. On average, subjects would be willing to sacrifice approximately 9 months of life in order to return home rather than go to a nursing home. In the present study, older people at high risk for fracture judged that after a bad hip fracture their main priority would be to remain at home." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0737_13858", "title": "Prospective randomized controlled trial comparing dynamic hip screw and screw fixation for undisplaced subcapital hip fractures.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Neck of femur fractures (NOFFs) are a common cause of morbidity and mortality in our community. Minimally displaced intracapsular fractures are treated with internal fixation by a two-hole dynamic hip screw (DHS) or three partially threaded cancellous screws. Data to support the superiority of one are limited. This prospective randomized controlled trial compares outcomes with these two fixation methods. We prospectively recruited patients over 50 years, with an acute fracture subcapital NOFF, who walked and lived independently, and were cognitively intact. They were randomized into DHS or cancellous screw groups and followed up for 2 years (overall 75.9%). Outcomes of mortality, revision, loss of fixation, avascular necrosis, surgical complications, WOMAC, Harris hip score and SF-12 were measured. We recruited 62 patients (31 DHS, 29 cancellous screws, 2 failed consent). Six deaths (19.3%) were seen in each group. A total of 3.2% of DHS (1 out of 31) and 10.3% (3 out of 29) of cancellous screw patients required re-operation (P = 0.272). There was no statistical significant difference in patient satisfaction, quality of life (QoL), radiological union or osteonecrosis. There are trends towards better functional scores and QoL in cancellous screws, particularly at 1 year (P = 0.0061), but with a higher re-operation rate. There was a combined mortality and transition to institutional care of 40.0% (24 out of 60) at 2 years. This study found no difference in outcomes between DHS and cancellous screws in the treatment of subcapital NOFFs in a fit, independent population, but we found a high level of physical decline in previously fit, independently ambulating patients. A large, multicentre trial will be required to differentiate between these two fixation methods." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1000_4255", "title": "Predictors of community reintegration and quality of life after hip fracture among community-dwelling older adults.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "We aim to explore factors contributing to community reintegration and health-related quality of life (HRQoL) among community-dwelling older adults three months after discharge from inpatient rehabilitation following hip fracture. We performed a prospective cohort study with follow-up. Thirty-three consecutive patients (age 66-89) after surgery for hip fracture repair were recruited from an inpatient rehabilitation unit. Participants were 65+ years old, did not have dementia, and were independent in basic activities of daily living (BADL) at discharge. We examined the contribution of independent variables measuring BADL, cognition, emotional status, pain and social support to the explained variance of two main outcomes: the Reintegration to Normal Living Index (RNLI), measuring self-reported ability to participate in activities and return to life roles; and the Medical Outcomes Study Short-Form Health Survey (SF-12), assessing mental and physical aspects of HRQoL. Stepwise regression analyses revealed that: social support and pain while walking significantly explained 42.1% of variance in the RNLI; social support significantly explained 31.1% of the variance in the SF-12-physical subscale; the number of falls in the previous year, social support and executive functions assessed by the clock drawing test significantly explained 61.9% of the variance in the SF-12 mental subscale. Social support, pain while walking and the number of falls in the previous year can predict community reintegration and HRQoL among older adults three months after discharge from rehabilitation following a surgical hip fracture repair. These factors need to be addressed in rehabilitation programs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1072_19324", "title": "Subcapital Fracture with Avascular Necrosis of the Whole Femoral Head After Fixation of an Intertrochanteric Fracture: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Subcapital fractures following internal fixation of an intertrochanteric fracture are relatively rare. It has been reported that these fractures are caused by improper placement of implants, osteoporosis, and any trauma episode. We report a rare case of subcapsular fracture possibly caused by whole femoral head necrosis following intertrochanteric fracture treatment. An 88-year-old woman fell and sustained an intertrochanteric fracture of the left femur. She was treated with a short femoral nail (SFN) and 3 months after the surgery, bone union was observed. One year after the internal fixation of the intertrochanteric fracture, she complained of the left hip joint pain without any trauma, and the X-ray showed a subcapital fracture of the femur. She underwent nail removal and was treated with a bipolar hemiarthroplasty. Magnetic resonance imaging showed a change in the signal intensity of the entire head, and pathological findings revealed osteonecrosis. Normally, the reaction of bone resorption occurs below the necrosis area. We believe that the avascular necrosis (AVN) of the whole femoral head made the subcapital area fragile, resulting in a subcapital fracture. We should consider AVN of the whole femoral head as a potential cause of subcapital fracture after SFN fixation of intertrochanteric fractures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0781_4597", "title": "The effects of a Pilates-based exercise rehabilitation program on functional outcome and fall risk reduction in an aging adult status-post traumatic hip fracture due to a fall.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Currently, little information describing the relationship of Pilates-based strength and stability exercises with fall risk in the geriatric population exists. The purpose of this report was to examine the impact of a Pilates-based rehabilitation (PBR) program on reducing fall risk in an aging adult status postfall with resulting hip fracture and open reduction and internal fixation. The patient was an 84-year-old woman admitted to a skilled nursing facility (SNF) after a right hip fracture resulting from a fall at home. The patient's relevant medical history included frequent falls due to loss of balance, a previous left hip fracture with resultant arthroplasty, and a stroke roughly 20 years prior. The patient received physical therapy and occupational therapy 6 days per week for 26 days in an SNF. The physical therapy intervention consisted of gait and transfer training, neuromuscular reeducation, and an adjunct of specialized PBR exercises for the following impairments: decreased core strength and awareness and poor dynamic stabilization during functional activities. The patient demonstrated increases in lower extremity strength and active range of motion, ambulation distance and speed, and transfer ability. The patient was able to return home and live with her husband while requiring only incidental assistance with activities of daily living. She was able to independently ambulate around her home with her rolling walker. Her fall risk was also reduced from initial evaluation based on several fall risk assessments, including the Four Square Step Test, the Berg Balance Scale, and the Timed Up and Go. This case illustrates the benefit of integrating PBR exercises into a standard SNF rehabilitation program, which may contribute to decreased fall risk." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0875_16294", "title": "Internal fixation versus conservative treatment for elderly patients with a trochanteric hip fracture in conjunction with post-stroke hemiplegia.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To retrospectively evaluated Gamma nail internal fixation in the treatment of elderly patients with post-stroke hemiplegia experiencing trochanteric hip fracture. The patients were obtained consecutively from January 2005 to December 2010 with inclusion criteria. The total number was 138 and allocated to two groups: treated with the Gamma nail (n=72,group A) and continuous skin traction (n=66,group B). Preoperative variables including patient age, gender, duration of cerebrovascular accident, duration of hypertension, ASA risk score, Harris hip score and fracture type were recorded and compared. After treatment, time of patients activity on the bed, ambulation time, Harris hip score, mortality, complications were recorded and used to compare the outcomes. (1) Follow-up was undertaken from 3 to 10 years, with an average of 5.8 years. (2) No statistical difference in preoperative variables was found between the 2 groups. (3) two groups had statistical significance (P=0.000) in the time of patients activity on the bed and ambulation time and group A can activities on the bed and ambulates earlier. (4) There were significant differences between 2 groups in Harris hip score at 1 and 3 years and group A was significantly higher than group B. (5) there were statistically significant differences in mortality of 3 years, 5 years and 10 years and the group B was significantly higher than the group A. (6) There was a statistical significance in complications between 2 groups and group B was higher than group A. Major complications in group A were pain, lag screw cut out, implant infection and distal femoral fractures caused by fall after the surgery. On elderly patients with trochanteric hip fracture on the hemiplegic lower side, Gamma nail internal fixation treatment can achieve better effect, patients can be early activity, fewer complications, and less mortality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0784_11448", "title": "Participation and quality of life of cognitively impaired older women in Israel following hip fractures.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The main objective of this study was to identify the impact of cognitive problems on the participation and quality of life of individuals following hip fracture among senior women. Sixty women aged ≥65 years after an operation due to a hip fracture, half with non-impaired cognition (average Mini Mental State Examination 27) and half with mild cognitive impairment (average Mini Mental State Examination 21) were examined and interviewed at admission to a rehabilitation hospital in Israel and 1 month after discharge with the following measures: Functional Independence Measure, Geriatric Depression Scale, Israeli Adults Assessment of Participation and questionnaire and 12-item short-form health status survey questionnaire. The average age was 83 years (SD = 6.5), 63% were widows. No difference was found between those with and without cognitive impairment. A month after discharge, the average general participation score of the cognitively unimpaired women was 11.5, and of those with impaired cognition was 7.5 (p &gt; 0.001). Four participation subscales revealed significant differences between the two groups (homecare, physical exercise, self-care and quiet pastimes), and two subscales (going out and entertainment and enrichment activities) showed no significant differences. Quality of life was lower a month after discharge for both physical and mental components, with no differences between the two groups. Therefore, specific attention should be given to those with mild cognitive impairment during rehabilitation. It is recommended to practise the basic functions over and over as part of their re-adjustment to their new situation. Attention should also be given in order to improve their re-involvement in the community." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1050_5824", "title": "Bilateral sub-trochanteric femur fragility fractures in a patient on antiretroviral therapy: a case based discussion and review of literature.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The burden of HIV/AIDS is ever increasing, affecting populations all over the world. Along with the disease, its effects and consequences on bone health are also on a rise. A commonly used drug in managing HIV, \"Tenofovir\" has been shown to affect bone health, specifically on prolonged usage. Osteomalacia and osteoporosis secondary to drug induced Fanconi syndrome and the disease itself, could lead to pathological/fragility fractures with trivial trauma. A 45 year old female on antiretroviral drugs (ART) for HIV, presented with right hip pain and inability to bear weight. She has had similar symptoms previously in the left hip which resolved after 6 weeks of limited weight bearing. Anteroposterior and lateral radiographs of pelvis with hips showed bilateral sub-trochanteric fractures; healed on the left side and displaced on the right side. The patient was managed with cessation of tenofovir and right side proximal femoral nail anti-rotation (PFNA). Patient was lost to follow up but had started to ambulate independently with a cane, by the end of 6 weeks, before she succumbed to systemic complications. Patients receiving antiretrovirals especially tenofovir should be regularly investigated for their renal impairment and bone health. Fixation of pathological fractures and early mobilization are important to prevent prolonged bed immobilization and associated complications in these immunocompromised patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1042_17461", "title": "Effects of fragility fracture integrated rehabilitation management on mobility, activity of daily living and cognitive functioning in elderly with hip fracture.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To determine the effectiveness of Fragility Fracture Integrated Rehabilitation Management (FIRM) on mobility, activity of daily living and cognitive functioning in elderly with hip fracture. A randomized control trial was conducted at Seoul National University Bundang Hospital, South Korea from August 2017 to January 2018. Patients of both genders with the age 65-95 years, diagnosed cases of hip fracture specifically fractures neck of femur, intertrochanteric, subtrochantric, patients who got bipolar hemiarthroplasty, total hip replacement arthroplasty, reduction and internal fixation were included in this study. A total of n=39 sample was collected through non probability convenience sampling technique and randomly divided into Fragility Integrated Rehabilitation Management (FIRM) group (n=20) and Conventional Physical therapy (CPT) group (n=19). The data was collected through KOVAL for walking ability, modified barthal index (MBI) for behaviors related to activities of daily living (ADLS) and mini mental status examination (MMSE) for cognitive functions at baseline on 2<supnd</sup postoperative day and after 10<supth</sup FIRM session on 15<supth</sup postoperative day. The mean age of study participants was 82.07±6.00 years. The post intervention comparison did not show any significant difference (<ip</i&gt;0.05) in walking ability, overall ADLs and cognitive functioning. But FIRM group showed significant improvement in stair climbing {0(5) ver. 2(7.5), <ip</i=0.049} and ambulation or walker use {8(5) ver. 2(4), <ip</i=0.037}, as compared to CPT group. Both groups improved in indoor mobility with walker and crutches as well as activities of daily living. But FIRM showed more improving ambulation with walker and stair climbing. While cognitive functioning was observed only in FIRM group." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0939_20005", "title": "[Comparison of clinical effects of total artificial hip replacement and cannulated screw fixation for the treatment of displaced femoral neck fractures in elderly patients].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To compare of clinical effects of different surgical methods in the treatment of elderly femoral neck fractures. From January 2013 to June 2016, 144 elderly patients with femoral neck were treated and divided into artificial hip replacement group and cannulated screw fixation group according to the surgical methods. In the total hip arthroplasty group, there were 89 cases, 28 males and 61 females, with an average age of(84.10±3.10) years old;Hollow nail fixation group 55 cases, 20 males and 35 females, with an average age of (86.80±2.88) years. Preoperative patients data, postoperative complications, mortality and postoperative Harris hip score were compared between the two groups. A total of 144 cases were followed up for 12 to 36 months with an average of 18 months. There was no significant difference between two groups in gender, fracture side, preoperative complications, osteoporosis, ASA score, injury to surgery interval, the number of patients admitted to ICU and perioperative death. However, the patients in hollow screw fixation group was older than the joint replacement group(<it</i=5.311, <iP</i&lt;0.05);The degree of preoperative fracture displacement in the joint replacement group was higher than that in the hollow nail fixation group(χ²=6.894, <iP</i=0.009&lt;0.05);Hollow nail fixation group in operation time, hospital stay, intraoperative blood loss, perioperative blood transfusion was significantly better than the number of joint replacement group(<iP</i&lt;0.05);The Harris score of the joint replacement group was higher than that of the hollow screw fixation group(<iP</i&lt;0.05). For elderly femoral neck patients, if there is a significant shift in the fracture (Garden III, IV), the preferred treatment is hip replacement. Postoperative complications are relatively small, satisfactory joint function recovery. If the fracture displacement is not obvious (Garden type I, II) or patients with more medical diseases, poor physical condition, poor surgical tolerance, postoperative life expectancy is not high, the first choice is closed reduction and cannulated screw fixation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0411_17790", "title": "[Prediction of mortality, mobility and admission to long-term care after hip fractures].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Surgical treatment, discharge planning and rehabilitation procedures are rarely based upon defined assessment procedures. It might therefore be useful to develop simple and reliable screening tools to identify patients for early discharge, intensified rehabilitation and limited treatment. 234 patients were initially contacted. From these 217 gave informed consent. The reported study included the 134 home dwelling elderly. All patients could be contacted or died after six month. Thus,data from more than 90% could be used for the analysis. The six month mortality was 10%. A population based cohort of elderly patients referred to five local hospitals was tested. Mortality, institutionalisation and mobility were defined as major outcome criteria. Only information that was available during the first week of treatment was used in the model. Predictors expressed as odd ratios (OR) were calculated using logistic regression with variable selection. The most important predictors for institutionalisation were age, inability to eat without assistance, postoperative night time confusion, stroke history, cognitive deficit and fear of falling. Outdoor mobility was strongly associated to the preoperative ADL performance measured as the Barthel-Index, history of malignancy and fear of falling. Six month mortality was associated with male sex, the Barthel-Index and fear of falling. It seems feasible to improve postoperative resource allocation by predictor led stratification. This need to be tested in intervention trials under the specific condition of the German health care system." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0838_24123", "title": "[Curative effect analysis on proximal frmoral nail antirotation for the treatment of femoral intertrochanteric fracture and integrity of lateral trochanteric wall].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To explore clinical efficacy and key matters for the treatment of femoral intertrochanteric fracture and integrity of lateral trochanteric wall by proximal frmoral nail antirotation (PFNA). From June 2010 to December 2012,210 femoral intertrochanteric fracture patients treated with PFNA were retrospectively analyzed, including 76 males and 134 females aged from 46 to 96 years old with an average of 71 years old. All fracture were caused by injury and classified to type I (5 cases) type II (16 cases), type III (73 cases) and type IV (116 cases) according to Evans classification. The time of getting out of bed, postoperative complications and displacement of screw blade and fracture healing were observed, Baumgaertner criteria were used to evaluate quality of fracture reduction, Harris criteria were used to evaulate hip joint function. All incisions were healed at stage I, no complications occurred except incomplete of lateral trochanteric wall patients without reconstruction, other patients could get out of bed with crutches at one week and all patients discharged from hospital at 10 days after operation. One hundred and seventy-eight patients were followed up from 3 to 17 months with an average of 10 months. One case occurred unhealed fracture displacement caused by screw blade cutting, 2 cases occurred screw blade transfomed to proximal and out femoral head, other patients obtained fracture healing at 12 to 16 weeks after operation. According to Baumgaertner criteria, 130 cases obtained good results, 45 cases acceptable, and 3 poor; while 107 cases obtained excellent results, 65 good, 3 good and 3 poor according to Harris score. PFNA with mechanical advantage of intramedullary fixation has advantsges of stable fixation, shorter operation time, minimally invasive. Satisfied clinical effects could obtained by grasping fixation principle, dealing with negative factors in operation. Intraoperative reconstruction for integrity of lateral trochanteric wall could assure stable fixation and earlier get out of bed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0822_19941", "title": "What is backward disequilibrium and how do i treat it? A complex patient case study.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Postural vertical refers to a component of an individual's perception of verticality that is derived from information about the direction of gravitational forces. Backward disequilibrium (BD) is a postural disorder observed in some older adults who have a distortion in their perception of postural vertical. Individuals with BD sustain their center of mass (COM) posterior to their base of support and resist correction of COM alignment. The purposes of this case study are to describe a patient with BD and propose a physical therapy management program for this condition. The patient was an 83-year-old woman admitted for home care services 4 months after falling and sustaining a displaced right femoral neck fracture and subsequent hemiarthroplasty. Details of the clinical examination, diagnosis, and intervention are provided and a treatment protocol for physical therapy management is suggested. During the episode of care, the patient (1) decreased her dependence on caregivers, (2) surpassed minimal detectable change or minimal clinically important improvements in gait speed and on the Short Physical Performance Battery and Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment, and (3) achieved her primary goal of staying in her own apartment at an assisted living facility. Knowledge of BD coupled with a thorough clinical examination may assist physical therapists in identifying this condition and employing the specific intervention we have proposed. We believe that failure to recognize and manage our patient's condition appropriately would have led to nursing home placement.Video Abstract available for more insights from the authors (see Supplemental Digital Content 1, http://links.lww.com/JNPT/A94)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0540_15383", "title": "Fractures of the femoral neck: a review and personal statement.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The number of hip fractures will increase enormously in the decades to come as will the cost of treatment of these patients do. In the USA the annual cost has estimated to be nearly $10 billion. Hip fractures, therefore, represent an enormous socio-economic and medical problem and challenge (orthopaedic) surgeons an anaesthetists to find the cheapest and most effective way to treat them. At the same time the search for preventive measures should be continued. Biphosphonates and hip protectors seem to be able to decrease the risk of suffering a hip fracture with 50%. The first classification of femoral neck fractures, proposed by Abraham Colles, in displaced and non-displaced (impacted) fractures appears to be still the most useful one. The Pauwels classification cannot be applied to the preoperative x-ray, because the fractured leg is always in external rotation. The Garden classification is not reproducible and does not lead us to the right treatment. Stability and healing chances of impacted fractures depend especially on age and general condition. In patients under 70 years of age without co-morbidity, the secondary instability rate after non-operative treatment is very low: 5%. In elderly people with multiple co-morbidity secondary instability can go up to 80%. These patients are better served with primary operative treatment. Although the majority of surgeons feel good with a strategy of prophylactic internal fixation in all patients, this author pleads for non-operative (early mobilization) treatment of all patients, who are healthy or have only one serious comorbidity. There is consensus about the treatment of displaced fractures in patients under 65 years of age: closed reduction and internal fixation. The best treatment for patients over 80 years of age is prosthetic replacement. In the (large) group of patients between 65 and 80 years of age calendar age is not a reliable guide to the right treatment. There is a growing conviction that the choice between internal fixation and prosthetic replacement in these patients should be made on the basis of the biological age (ASA-score, habitat, the activity level, the need for walking aids and cognitive function). Bone density does not seem to play an important role. If internal fixation is the preferred treatment, the choice of implant is controversial. It is the author's experience that fractures with a steep fracture line (Pauwels 3) should be anatomically reduced and stabilized with a sliding hip screw. The less steep fractures (Pauwels 1 and 2) can be slightly over-reduced in valgus and anteversion, which provides a bony support against shearing forces, and fixed with parallel screws according to the 3-point-fixation principle. The timing of surgery continues to be a controversial subject. From a recent study in our own institution we concluded that no significant association could be found between delay to surgery and the clinical outcomes.However, considering the trends towards less complications and shorter length of hospital stay, early surgery (within 1 day from admission) is likely to be beneficial for hip fracture patients who are able to undergo operation. There is agreement about the use of the cemented arthroplasty. If a hemiarthroplasty is chosen, the bipolar type is to be preferred to the unipolar type. The difference in price between both prostheses is negligible because the overall cost of the treatment have gone up so immensely. Furthermore, a basic advantage of the bipolar system is the relatively small operation, needed for conversion to a total hip replacement, because the stem can stay in place. As to the question hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement, the discussion has not yet been closed. We studied the natural history of the cemented bipolar hemiarthroplasty by evaluating 307 patients, operated between 1975 and 1989 in our institution. Only 3 patients, who not have been revised, were alive at the end of the observation period (2004). A striking difference was found in the occurrence of late mechanical complications (aseptic loosening and acetabular wear) between patients under 75 years of age (22%) and the older group of patients (6%). As to the patient's overall satisfaction 56% suffered no impairment from their sustained fracture, 36% were slightly impaired. We concluded that the use of the cemented bipolar prosthesis is justified in patients over 75 years of age. Patients between 65 and 75 years of age should either be treated with internal fixation or with a total hip replacement. NONUNION OF THE FEMORAL NECK: Nowadays in cases of nonunions of the femoral neck the surgeon is tempted to perform prosthetic replacement of the hip, the more so if there is also evidence of a disturbed vascularisation of the head. This will provide rapid pain relief and mobilization. However, long-term results of hip arthroplasties, especially in younger people and in presence of bone atrophy, are not always as expected and a less radical approach is worth considering. The intertrochanteric valgization osteotomy, described by Pauwels is an excellent alternative for patients up to 65 years of age with a non-union of the femoral neck. A union rate of 80-90% is described by most authors. Leg length, rotational and angular deformities can be corrected at the same time. Between 65 and 80 years a total hip replacement is probably the best option for fit patients. For elderly patients a cemented bipolar hemiarthroplasty is an adequate treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1027_19308", "title": "Resuming Normal Life as a Family Caregiver During Drip-Like Recovery of Older Persons With Cognitive Impairment Recovering From Hip Surgery: A Grounded Theory.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "This study was undertaken to develop a theoretical framework explaining family caregiving processes for older persons with cognitive impairment recovering from hip fracture surgery. In this grounded theory study, data were collected in audio-recorded face-to-face interviews with 21 family caregivers. Among these caregivers, 14 cared for hip-fractured persons with cognitive impairment, and seven cared for those without cognitive impairment. Caregivers were interviewed five times after patients' discharge: at 1 week and at 1, 3, 6, and 12 months. Data were analyzed by constant comparative analysis. The core category explaining the family caregiving process for hip-fractured persons with cognitive impairment was \"resuming normal life during drip-like recovery.\" This category captures the slowness of the recovery process, as slow as dripping water. During the early postoperative period, caregivers attempted to gain control of the postoperative situation, using various maintenance and improvement strategies to deal with the chaos in individuals and the family and to protect hip-fractured persons with cognitive impairment from further harm. The goal of recovery was to get back to their original life. Family caregivers of hip-fractured older persons with cognitive impairment needed to deal with more complex chaotic situations, exerted more efforts to administer safety measures, and required more time to achieve a stable life pattern. Since postoperative recovery was perceived as extremely slow, family caregivers of hip-fractured older persons with cognitive impairment should be patient regarding recovery and be informed before hospital discharge of different strategies to resume normal life during postoperative recovery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1159_2", "title": "Bilateral atraumatic femoral neck fractures resulting from transient osteoporosis of the hip.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A woman in her mid-30s presented to the orthopaedic team, unable to mobilise, shortly after her caesarean section. On questioning, she reported 10 weeks of atraumatic right hip pain. A radiograph revealed a displaced right subcapital neck of femur fracture. An MRI confirmed this, as well as identifying a minimally displaced left subcapital neck of femur fracture. She underwent a right total hip replacement and internal fixation of the left hip. A dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan showed severe osteoporosis, and a diagnosis of transient osteoporosis of the hip was made. She was seen by the bone metabolism team and given calcium and vitamin D medication. Although atraumatic hip fractures are rare in young patients, disproportionate or persisting hip pain in pregnant patients should raise the index of suspicion and prompt further investigation in the form of an MRI. This will allow timely management of hip fractures and improve patient outcomes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0628_23856", "title": "Patients with isolated hip fracture must be considered for surgery irrespectively of their age, comorbidity status and provenance: a statement applicable even to nonagerians.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Hip fractures are associated with high rates of adverse outcome but previous research has not lead to the identification of any subgroups for whom surgery could be contraindicated. The purpose of this study was to identify factors that could help in the decision making process. We identified 965 consecutive patients operated for an isolated hip fracture from 1 April 1996 to 31 March 2003 in a single large volume centre. We collected information on age, gender, comorbidities and place of injury (in-house, outdoors, nursing home). Outcome measures were mortality and orientation at discharge. Multiple logistic regression and recursive partitioning were used to identify factors associated with poor outcome. Median age was 81.4 with 121 patients aged 90 and over. Seventy-six percent were female. The fall occurred at home in 59%, outdoors in 19% and at a nursing home in 22%. Death was significantly associated with the number of comorbidities, age and place of injury. Dementia (23%) was the most significant predictor of orientation to a new nursing home. Among 121 nonagerians, 89 survived and 59 returned home. Among 53 nonagerians with two or more comorbidities, 34 survived and 20 returned home. Comorbidities, age and provenance of patients appear to be the most significant factors associated with adverse outcome. However, even among nonagerians with a heavy comorbidity burden, results do not contraindicate surgical intervention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0878_12767", "title": "Simultaneous Bilateral Fracture of Femoral Neck in Korea: A Case Report.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Unilateral femoral neck factures are common and their incidence is increasing. However, simultaneous bilateral femoral neck fractures are rare. Although cases of simultaneous bilateral femoral neck fractures have been reported, most were caused by strong muscle contractions during electroconvulsive therapy. Simultaneous bilateral femoral neck fractures caused by a simple fall are an extremely rare injury; therefore, limited literature is available, and no case has been reported in Korea. We report herein a case of simultaneous bilateral femoral neck fractures caused by a simple fall. An 83-year-old woman visited the emergency department with bilateral hip joint pain and gait disturbance, which developed 1 day after a fall. Tenderness and severe limitation in left hip joint range of motion and mild limitation in right hip joint range of motion were observed on a physical examination. A Garden type IV femoral neck fracture in the left hip joint and a Garden type I femoral neck fracture in the right hip joint were observed on plain radiography. She underwent right screw fixation and left bipolar hemiarthroplasty 2 days after admission. The patient could walk using a walker 4 weeks postoperatively. Bone union in the right femoral neck was observed at the 3 month follow-up. No specific findings were observed at the left hip hemiarthroplasty site. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0204_8606", "title": "[Falls and accidents in the nursing home--review of a 5-year period].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "61 falls and accidents and one suicide needed medical attention in our nursing home during a five-year period. Most frequent sequelae were scalp lacerations, followed by fractures of the femoral neck. 73% of the patients who got hurt by falls suffered of dementia. 38% were being treated with neuroleptic, antihypertensive or diuretic drugs. It was not possible however to document a relationship between drug treatment and falls. Most falls occurred while patients were walking on the floor without obstacles and without external influences. 3 patients died as immediate consequence of their falls. We observed falls more often in the first period of the patient's stay in our institution and again shortly before the patient's death. Prophylactic measures against falls include bed-rails, little tables that can be fixed to the wheel-chairs in order to hinder unassisted standing up of patients, unable to walk alone and judicious treatment with sedative drugs. The most important measure however seems to be compassionate and attentive patient care that conveys trust and confidence between patients and the nursing personnel. Possibly the incidence of falls and accidents could be used as a measure of the quality of nursing care in geriatric institutions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1029_5658", "title": "[Effectiveness analysis of closed or limited open reduction and intramedullary nail fixation in treatment of Seinsheimer type Ⅴ subtrochanteric fracture].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "To investigate the effectiveness of closed or limited open reduction and intramedullary nail fixation in the treatment of Seinsheimer type Ⅴ subtrochanteric fracture. Between May 2014 and July 2018, 36 patients with Scinsheimer type Ⅴ subtrochanteric fractures were treated with closed or limited open reduction and intramedullary nail fixation. There were 25 males and 11 females with an age of 23-86 years (mean, 55.8 years). The cause of injury included falling in 19 cases, traffic accident in 9 cases, falling from height in 7 cases, and heavy object injury in 1 case; all were fresh closed injuries. The interval between injury and operation was 1-14 days (mean, 6.8 days). There were 18 cases of closed reduction and 18 cases of limited open reduction during the operation. Seventeen cases were fixed with femoral reconstruction intramedullary nail, 5 with InterTan long nail, 14 with lengthened proximal femoral nail anti-rotation, and 7 cases were assisted with auxiliary steel wire binding. After operation, through X-ray film and clinical follow-up, the fracture reduction and maintenance status, internal fixation position, and fracture healing were judged; the range of motion, walking ability, and complications of hip joint were observed, and the function of hip joint was evaluated according to Merle d'Aubigne Postel hip joint scoring standard. All the incisions of medullary operation healed by first intention, and no vascular, nerve injury, or infection occurred. All patients were followed up 12-24 months, with an average of 14.2 months. Among the 36 patients, 1 patient received revision surgery due to varus displacement of femoral head and screw penetration at 2 months after closed reduction, with poor recovery of hip function. X-ray film re-examination showed that the fractures of the other 35 patients healed after 9-15 months, with an average of 11.5 months. During follow-up, there was no complication such as internal fixation failure, fracture redisplacement, bone nonunion or malunion, and deep vein thrombosis of lower extremity occurred. The function of hip joint recovered well, and the patients could walk and squat normally without affecting daily life or work. At last follow-up, according to Merle d'Aubigne Postel hip joint scoring standard, 28 cases were rated as excellent, 4 cases as good, 3 cases as fair, and 1 case as poor, the excellent and good rate was 88.9%. C-arm X-ray fluoroscopic closed or limited open reduction and intramedullary nail fixation for the treatment of Seinheimer Ⅴ type subtrochanteric fracture, if necessary, with the aid of auxiliary steel wire binding, it has the advantages of less blood supply destruction at the fracture end, satisfactory reduction, firm fixation, and early rehabilitation training, with definite effectiveness." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0277_7400", "title": "[Epidemiological study on hip fractures in Tottori Prefecture].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "These days, hip fractures are becoming serious health problem in elderly people. We have, therefore, conducted an epidemiological study in Tottori prefecture, Japan on the following elements related to the hip fracture of patients: the incidence, cause, environment, state of individual health, outcome and risk factors. We obtained data from hospital records and from hip fracture patients by mailed questionnaires. The incidence of hip fractures per 100000 person-years was 67.8 and 165.9 for male and female 50 years of age and older. This incidence is a half or one-third of that in North Europe or North America. We assume that the difference of physique and life style between Japanese and Caucasian have some effect on incidence. Almost all fractures occurred by falling over from a standing position. The incidence of distal radius fracture in past history is four times more frequent in female patients compared to that in males. About 12% of male and 19% of female patients aged 60 and over with hip fracture were demented before the injury. The case-control study revealed that thin figure and bed-ridden were significant risk factors for the hip fracture. Thin figure was more prevalent in the group with cervical fracture than that with the trochanteric fracture. Analyzing our data with the Cox proportional hazards model, our study has shown that male, aging and dementia were important factors in determining the life expectancy of patients with hip fracture." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0915_13068", "title": "Bilateral Subcapital Femoral Neck Fracture in a 28 Year Old Postpartum Woman.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Subcapital femoral neck fractures are associated with high morbidity and mortality. These fractures mostly occur as a result of a high-force impact from traffic accidents and a fall from a great height, though non-traumatic forms are described in transient osteoporosis during the second half of pregnancy, in convulsions during electric shock, eclampsia, hypocalcemia, osteomalacia, renal osteodystrophy and myeloma. In this report we present a bilateral subcapital femoral neck fracture in a woman sustained two days after delivery. The right hip fracture was treated with fixation using three spongious screws without capsular decompression, while for the left hip a capsular decompression by open reduction and fixation was performed. Physical treatment based on active and passive movements was immediately initiated. The patient was able to rest upon her right leg within seven and upon the left leg within eight months. X-Rays showed the accurate position of fragments and implants throughout the recovery period. Twelve years later, the patient made a full recovery and the x-rays showed that both femoral heads are vital and fully recovered. Early anatomical reconstruction followed by internal fixation is crucial in the prevention of long-term complications. Complications of internal fixations include non-union (10-30%), avascular necrosis (15-33%), deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 73, 211 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 11, 32 ] ], "text": "It describes a patient worried about a non-existent physical defect, whose concern distresses him and prevents him from leaving the house." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Major depressive disorder with delusional ideas incongruent with mood.", "2": "Obsessive-compulsive disorder.", "3": "Paranoid schizophrenia.", "4": "Body dysmorphic disorder.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0648_15276", "title": "Who rules the roost?", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Adam's mother was concerned about her 3-year-old son's hyperactivity, violence, and activity level. Adam and his mom had recently moved into a shelter for pregnant women. The rest of the residents are primarily in their early 20s, whereas Adam's mom is 42. She had found about 3 months ago that she was pregnant. This was her fourth pregnancy, second with this father, and he had recently left her when she refused an abortion. Her other children are 22 and 24 and live out of state. She has a history of opioid addiction. She had been on methadone during Adam's gestation and had recently started on buprenorphine to treat her addiction during this pregnancy as well. Adam is here today for his 3-year-old checkup and you had not seen him for a year. Mom states that he has been healthy but has become progressively active over the last year. He is very angry about his dad leaving, and according to Adam's mother \"blames her\" for sending him away. They are living in 1 room at the shelter, and mom is finding it increasingly difficult to keep him busy all day. When she goes out looking for a job, he is very challenging at the shelter, and she constantly receives complaints that he is \"too loud\" in the common rooms. She feels like she is at the end of her rope with him, he is constantly climbing, bolting from her, and taking risks.When you examine Adam, you find a robust, healthy young boy. His eye contact is good, and he is socially related but does actively explore your office. When he begins taking the instruments off your wall, his mother sits passively watching him. When he begins playing with the faucet, she half heartedly tells him to \"stop\" but he looks at her and continues splashing. He then begins flicking the light switch on and off in the room with no response from mom. When you ask about discipline, mom states \"nothing works.\" When you ask about supports, she states \"I have nobody except Adam and the new baby now.\"Adam was born after an uneventful full-term pregnancy with his mother on 100 mg methadone daily. She denies cigarette smoking, drugs, alcohol, or other medications. Urine testing throughout was positive only for opioids. Motor milestones were achieved at the appropriate time. Language milestones at the 2-year-old visit consisted of 10 single words. Now, he has a 50 single-word vocabulary but no 2-word combinations. He primarily takes whatever he wants and has a tantrum if mom cannot figure out what he desires. Adam's medical history is unremarkable. Family history is significant for drug abuse by her father and mother; mental illness in the father's family consisting of bipolar disorder in several uncles. Where do you go from here?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en132_40997", "title": "Madhoshi", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "and family try to explain to her that Aman doesn't exist. Anupama refuses to listen. Then, suddenly, Aman comes and everyone can see him. On Anupama's and Aman's wedding day Aman confesses that he is really Arpit and that he got plastic surgery. The only way that his face looks exactly like Aman's is that Arpit got the drawings from Anupama's sketchbook. Anupama doesn't believe him and still believes that he is truly Aman. Anupama's best friend asks her to show proof. Anupama shows pictures of her and Aman at the movies when Arpit is still in America without even taking a second glance at the pictures. Her friend shows the pictures to her and she sees that Aman wasn't there. Later, it is revealed that she was the victim of schizophrenia and Aman was just a part of her imagination. Arpit and Anupama soon get married." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0956_4804", "title": "Autism Spectrum Disorder and Mental Health Comorbidity Leading to Prolonged Inpatient Admission.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Sam is a 6-year-old boy with a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) who recently relocated and has an appointment with you, his new pediatric clinician, to establish care. He was previously followed by a psychiatrist for 2 years for additional diagnoses of insomnia, bipolar disorder, anxiety, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, and intellectual disability. He has tried and (apparently) failed multiple psychotropic trials including stimulants, nonstimulants, mood stabilizers, atypical antipsychotics, and nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics. He has a delayed sleep onset and frequent night awakenings each night for the past 3 months, during which he \"screams, cries, and thrashes and can stay up for over an hour.\" His behaviors are described as irritable, self-injurious, and aggressive with no clear pattern of triggers according to his mother. He is nonverbal and communicates by leading and rarely pointing. The patient's current medication regimen includes clonidine 0.2 mg at night, lorazepam 1.5 mg as needed at night, olanzapine 5 mg twice daily, and diphenhydramine as needed for sleep/agitation. His mother is concerned that he is developing \"tolerance\" to the regimen and wants to wean him off some of the medications. His mother is struggling to take care of the patient given his worsening behavior and body habitus (body mass index &gt;99%; z = 3.41).There is a family history of depression, anxiety, bipolar disorder, and autism. He has a 3-year-old sister, who is also diagnosed with ASD, though she is not as severely impacted. His mother's partner recently moved in along with 2 children of his own, aged 3 and 4 years. Sam attends a specialized school, where he receives behavior therapy and occupational therapy. He has undergone inpatient pediatric hospitalization twice, 1 time for 3 weeks and the other for 6 days, for aggressive behavior, and in both instances, he was discharged before inpatient psychiatric placement because of a lack of available beds.After urgent consultation with your local developmental and behavioral pediatrician, a slight reduction was made in the lorazepam because of concerns about tolerance and side effects. However, within a week of this, he was brought to the emergency department for continued self-injurious behavior and increased trouble with sleeping. His mother voiced concerns about his safety in the home, which were particularly related to aggression toward his younger sister. He was admitted to the pediatric inpatient floor for observation, and medication adjustment (increasing olanzapine), which was initially helpful in improving behavior, but mostly behavioral/environmental strategies were used to soothe him, including frequent wagon rides through the hospital corridors.Despite the patient being stable from the medical standpoint, Sam's mother did not feel comfortable taking him home. Social work contacted local community mental health services to pursue outpatient resources and respite care options and sought inpatient pediatric psychiatry. After several failed attempts to find placement, he remained in pediatric inpatient care for 1 and a half months with no acute medical interventions other than his oral medications.He was finally accepted to the in-state pediatric psychiatric facility when a bed was available. During his week-long stay, he had further medication adjustments with a decrease in olanzapine and optimization of his clonidine dose. During his psychiatric hospital stay, care coordination succeeded in arranging center-based applied behavior analysis interventions and respite care and parent training for his family. Sam began to show improvement in his overall agitation and aggression, requiring less clonazepam, and his mother then maintained outpatient follow-up.The day before discharge, you visit him in the hospital, and a medical student asks you why he was in the hospital for so long. How would you answer the question?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en384_5632", "title": "Perry Mason moment", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Swingle researched the scientific literature on the subject as part of his extensive preparation for the cross. He found that the concept was both highly controversial within the psychiatric and psychological communities, and older than Dinwiddie claimed. At trial he got Dinwiddie to admit that she had only reviewed the victim's letters, had not been allowed to speak at length with any of her family members, and could not officially make a diagnosis as she was, unlike a psychiatrist, not a physician. Finally he asked if she agreed with a statement by Harvard Medical School psychiatry professor Harrison Pope that \"it would be pure speculation for a psychiatrist to try to give a formal diagnosis of a dead person he has never met.\" She did agree, undermining her previous testimony. Seeing how effective that answer was, he ended the examination at that point. After a short redirect examination, she left the courtroom in tears. A cameraman for a local TV station called him \"Perry Mason\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0704_22995", "title": "Parents seek early intervention services for a two-year-old without autism.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Sam is a 27-month-old boy who you have followed since birth. He lives with his parents in a small resort town approximately 90 miles outside a major city. Both his parents are professionals in their late 30s and have been highly involved in his care since birth. At the 12-month visit, they were concerned about his difficulty regulating. He was not sleeping through the night and had significant difficulty with baths. His physical examination and growth were normal. His eye contact was good, although it was difficult to see him smile. He had 1 or 2 words and was beginning to walk independently.At the 15-month checkup, they continued to be concerned about his poor regulation. He napped sporadically, and he was very difficult to take out on errands as he did not like his car seat. He now had approximately 10 single words, was using his fingers to point, and very clearly waved \"bye bye\" as soon as you entered the room.At the 18-month checkup, they state that he has not yet learned the word \"no.\" He will follow a 1-step command when he wants to but now has 15 single words without any combinations. He points for his needs and to show them something. He has become increasingly \"shy\" around strangers and prefers to play with one other child as opposed to a larger group. He does not like loud noises and prefers to go barefoot constantly. His physical examination was again normal as was his growth. He is referred for a full hearing evaluation, which is also normal. The family was referred to early intervention, and he began receiving speech and language therapy and occupational therapy for his sensory challenges as well as a play group.At the 24-month checkup, his language continued to consist of single words-now approximately 30. When the parents do not understand what he wants, he will often tantrum and has started banging his head on the floor when frustrated. He has no repetitive behaviors and is starting to demonstrate imaginative play. Bath time has becoming increasingly challenging because he does not like the sensation of soap and the water temperature must be \"just right.\" You refer the child to a Developmental and Behavioral Pediatrician for evaluation and at 28 months he is seen. During his testing visit, he had decreased eye contact and followed his own agenda but improved significantly as testing progressed. As he got more comfortable, he began making good eye contact, social referenced, and exhibited joint attention with his parents and the examiner. He did not meet criteria for an autism spectrum disorder or specifically pervasive developmental disorder-not otherwise specified (PDD-NOS). He was given a diagnosis of mixed receptive and expressive language delay and disruptive behavior disorder with sensory processing problems.The parents come to you a month after their evaluation visit asking you to give him a \"listed diagnosis of PDD-NOS\" that could be removed when he turns 3 years so that he may qualify for increased hours of services-up to 15 hours per week-as well as applied behavioral analysis therapy. A behavioral therapist through early intervention has told the family that he would benefit from this increased intervention, specifically applied behavioral analysis but the only way he can receive it is with a \"medical diagnosis\" on the autism spectrum. What do you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en261_6280", "title": "Man of Many Many Faces", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Man of Many Many Faces or The Man with Two Thousand Faces () is the sequel of Man of Many Faces. It is shown in Iran from March 21. Mehran Modiri is once again the director and main character for this TV show. It also starts: Pejman Bazeghi, Reza Feiz Noroozi, Siamak Ansari and Borzoo Arjmand." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0658_23905", "title": "The language and culture of delay.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Satish is a 3 (1/2)-year-old boy you are seeing in your primary care office for a \"sick visit\" due to parental concerns about his language development. He is the only child of a couple who immigrated to the United States from India shortly before his birth. He received early intervention services for speech and language delays for a few months before he attained 2 years of age. However, services were discontinued when the family moved back to India for a year. After the family returned to the United States, they lived in a different state for several months before moving again recently to his current home, so he is relatively new to your practice. Satish's mother is concerned not only about his communication skills but also about his attention and social skills. She notes that he often plays alone or in parallel with other children. She was also told by his first pediatrician that Satish had \"a limited imagination.\" His parents feel that he has pretend play, in that he will pretend to get his haircut, talk on the phone, or ride on a train. Satish was born at term without complications. He passed his newborn hearing screen and a repeat hearing test at the age of 2 years. He has had no medical problems and takes a daily multivitamin. His parents are both of Indian descent. Satish's father is an engineer and had a history of being a late talker. His mother graduated from high school and is a homemaker. They are expecting their second child. Satish's developmental history is significant for language delays. He babbled at 6 months but did not have single words until he was 2 years. When he was 2 (1/2) years, he had 2 to 3 word sentences. He responded to his name at 15 months and could follow single step commands by the age of 2 years. Currently, Satish is noted to have difficulty with \"back and forth conversation.\" He sometimes repeats what others are saying.The family speaks Hindi, their native language, exclusively at home. When Satish speaks, he usually speaks in Hindi. His parents describe him as using \"odd language\" in that he will often mix up his pronouns. Satish is in an English-speaking preschool. His preschool teachers report concerns that he seems to \"withdraw into his own world,\" and does not interact well with the other children. They also report attentional problems and poor eye contact.In the office, Satish makes good eye contact with the examiner and his parents. He looks to his parents for approval when completing a task requested of him. He seems to like an Elmo toy that is in the room but holds it and looks at it closely rather than pretend to do anything with it. You ask him to feed Elmo, and he says, \"Feed Elmo.\" Because it is not clear whether he understands the verbal cues given to him, his parents repeat English directions to him in Hindi several times. He eventually complies but then leaves his chair to explore the room. His parents continue to translate your questions to him with variable results. He becomes increasingly difficult to engage, despite repeated attempts, in both English and Hindi, to attract his attention. Where do you go from here?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en226_30730", "title": "Sorry, I've Got No Head", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Introduced in Series 1 Headless Bill, a man with no head who gets into some sticky situations and who gives the show its name. Appears in series 1–2 but not in series 3. Jasmine and Prudith, who believe everything will cost a thousand pounds, despite what the person they're interacting with says. However, after they encounter the person they say that they will do something that would generally cost at least a thousand pounds, such as buying a mansion or a yacht. Appears in every series. The Fearsome Vikings who are scared of everything. Appears in every series. Emily and Monty Forrest, a brother and sister duo act who try to get a performance in a show, but fail at getting the part when a routine of theirs goes horribly wrong. In series 3, they try to make their own show. Appears in every series." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0987_16248", "title": "High-Functioning Autism, Severe Anxiety, and Bullying in a 26 Year Old.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Peter is a 26-year-old group home resident in Austria with a history of poor peer relationships, including being bullied, and previous diagnoses of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, Asperger syndrome, social anxiety, depression, and developmental coordination disorder. Consultation from our international neurodevelopmental team was requested for severe anxiety and avoidance of social interactions. He reported 4 or more spontaneous anxiety episodes per day. Anxiety triggers included returning to his group home from his vocational rehabilitation program each evening or returning to the group home after weekends at his parents' house. Each Sunday evening, in anticipation of returning to the group home, Peter engaged in tantrums, including screaming and throwing objects and suicidal threats without intent, but not direct aggression toward family members. He phoned his mother several times per day on weekdays.Peter's early history was significant for hyperactivity, impulsivity, aggression, and socially intrusive behavior; he repeated kindergarten and by first grade was characterized as motorically clumsy and \"too much in [peers'] personal space.\" He played alone in kindergarten and had poor social boundaries; when older, he evidenced reduced social perception, and his family reported he did not notice when peers made fun of him. His language developed normally, but he had a \"sophisticated style of speaking\" and as an adult continued to have trouble understanding gestures, jokes, and social themes in movies.Between ages 7 and 11 years, Peter had been bullied and ostracized by male peers but did well academically, always got along well with adults, and preferred to play with girls. Exclusion by peers persisted through high school, at which time his independent functioning declined and he required his mother's assistance with organizing his materials. At age 15 years, Peter repeated a grade so that he could change classmates, and by the equivalent of his junior year, his grades deteriorated. He had several psychiatric admissions for depression and destructive outbursts (to avoid going to school) and was diagnosed with Asperger disorder. At age 18 years, Peter refused to return to school. He lived at home with his parents, only leaving the house to accompany them on errands, until placed in a group home for people with mental health disorders at age 20 years. At age 26 years, he is sharing a supported-living apartment with 2 young adults with chronic psychiatric disorders. He works in 3 highly structured sheltered workshops for a few hours each and becomes easily overwhelmed in unstructured situations and/or in situations in which he anticipates being reprimanded or letting someone down. Despite a strong interest in marine biology, anxiety prevents him from considering college.How would you proceed with diagnostic testing or intervention to help this young man?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en065_17810", "title": "Bénédict Morel", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "In 1857, Morel published his degeneration theory in Traité des dégénérescences physiques, intellectuelles et morales de l'espèce humaine et des causes qui produisent ces variétés maladives. In his work, he included images of twelve patients that demonstrated the physical, mental, and moral traits that were evidence of degeneration. Some of these characteristics included altered ear shape, asymmetrical faces, extra digits, and high-domed palates that had psychological representations as well. Morel's work was well received. It connected psychiatric medicine to general medicine to provide a complete and well-researched cause for a large social problem. It became dominant because it grounded moral treatment, which was questionable in this time period, in science. Morel's theory also allowed psychiatrists who were unable to help their patients explain why they had not been successful. Degeneration theory meant that there were some psychological disorders that were genetic and could not" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1009_24025", "title": "Toddler Sleep Challenges: All in a Day's Work.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Leo is a 26-month-old boy who you are seeing for an urgent care visit due to \"sleep difficulty,\" particularly sleep onset. Since age 1, he screams, hits, and kicks his mother every day, starting after she gets home from work at 5 PM (or before the family's dinnertime on her days off) and escalating over the course of the evening until he \"wears himself out\" and falls asleep in a crib in his own room around 9 to 10 PM Once asleep, he sleeps well through the night and wakes easily around 7 AM in a pleasant mood; his mother leaves for work soon after he awakens. He naps after lunch for 2 to 3 hours on weekdays at an in-home child care with 1 to 2 adult caregivers and 5 other children aged 0 to 5 years. He refuses to nap at home.Leo goes to bed easily when his father puts him to bed if his mother is not at home, but his mother feels that evenings are the only time she can spend with Leo, and so, she tries to put him to bed most nights. However, because of Leo's behaviors at bedtime with her, she feels inadequate, depressed, and guilty; when she tries to disengage or allow her husband to help, Leo screams, \"Mommy, mommy!\" and tries to gain access to her and resists his father putting him to bed until his mother returns. Both parents worry that \"he would not grow out of this,\" and his mother now avoids coming home from work for fear of Leo's behavior. Both parents feel that this situation is causing marital strain.Leo was born healthy at full-term and is an only child; pregnancy was complicated by hyperemesis gravidarum. Leo has been healthy and meeting developmental milestones. His parents describe his temperament as \"like his father at that age,\" \"easy, but never able to self-soothe,\" \"intense\" in his emotional reactions, persistent, \"strong-willed and serious,\" and \"shy and observant, withdrawn at first and then getting more pleasant after a while\" in novel situations. Behaviorally, he engaged in noninjurious head-banging at home when upset between 12 and 15 months; bit children a few times at child care between 20 and 24 months; and lately refuses to share or will push other children at child care every few weeks. His parents recently read a book about parenting \"spirited\" children but did not find it helpful. What would you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en556_27127", "title": "The Man Who Had No Idea", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "\"The Man Who Had No Idea\" is a 1978 science fiction story by Thomas M. Disch. It was first published in The Magazine of Fantasy and Science Fiction. Plot summary In a world where licenses are required in order to participate in conversation, Barry Riordan risks failing his exam because he cannot think of anything original. Reception \"The Man Who Had No Idea\" was a finalist for the 1979 Hugo Award for Best Novelette John Sladek considered it to depict \"delightful problems\". Kirkus Reviews noted that it \"say(s) a great deal about our expectations of ourselves and others.\" John Clute, however, found it to be \"unaccountably genial and without formal bite\", such that its \"potentially formidable idea gradually declines into doodle\". Origins" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_1451", "title": "Scott: an 11-year-old boy with repetitive lying.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Scott, an 11-year-old boy in the fifth grade, is brought to his pediatrician, Dr. Lewis, by his maternal grandparents with the principle concern that \"he lies constantly.\" Scott lived with his maternal grandparents since he was 2 years old, and they have full custody. His mother and father had serious substance abuse problems. The grandparents provide a stable home for Scott and his 15-year-old sister. Scott has had no contact with his mother in more than 6 years and sees his father infrequently. During the last visit with his father, he was so inebriated that he was thrown out of the movie theatre and barely avoided several car accidents on the way home. He left the children at the curb of their home and made them promise that they would lie to their grandparents about the reasons for the early return. Scott was diagnosed with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in second grade. Methylphenidate (36 mg) provides improvement in attention and concentration. His grandfather describes Scott as highly unpredictable. When he is the \"good Jake,\" he is eager to help, polite, and caring. When Scott gets behind in school or is avoiding his chores and assignments, he lies by saying that he got it all done, even though he knows his grandfather will discover the lie and punish him. When confronted with reports from school, Scott often lies and may develop more elaborate confabulatory stories. His grandfather admits that he becomes irate at these moments. He responds by removing Scott's privileges. When he planned to take Scott to see his favorite sport team in the playoffs, Scott was caught in a lie the day of his departure. His grandfather offered him a chance to fess up, pay a small price in extra chores, and save the trip. Scott stubbornly refused to admit that he lied and lost the trip. His grandfather worries that Scott has no \"moral compass.\" He takes things that do not belong to him and violates household curfew rules. He has never been physically aggressive or has never stole items from a store. He takes his sister's CD player or his grandfather's cell phone even when he has been told not to. He will then lie that he did not take it. Even when it is pulled out of his backpack, he will say he did not put it in there. His grandfather is a businessman with high moral integrity. He loves his grandson and is eager to help him. He asks Dr. Lewis what they should do about Scott's persistent lying." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en224_1767", "title": "The Amazing Maleeni", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The show centers on FBI special agents Fox Mulder (David Duchovny) and Dana Scully (Gillian Anderson) who work on cases linked to the paranormal, called X-Files. Mulder is a believer in the paranormal, while the skeptical Scully has been assigned to debunk his work. In this episode, The Amazing Maleeni, a small-time magician, performs an amazing feat to impress a heckler—he turns his head 360 degrees. So when he is later found without a head at all, Mulder and Scully arrive on the case and discover an angry ex-con, an unimpressed rival, and Maleeni’s twin brother. All seem to have something to do with a plan to rob a major bank." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0984_8677", "title": "Features of Catatonia in a 12-Year-Old Boy with Autism Spectrum Disorder.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Thomas is a 12-year-old boy with autism spectrum disorder who presents to his primary care clinician with symptoms of worsening mood in the last 3 months. On review of his last school testing, his cognitive abilities are found to be within the average range, with a relative vulnerability with his processing speed. He can speak in sentences to communicate and answer questions, but he rarely picks up on conversational bids. He has had difficulties developing friendships and often prefers to play by himself.Thomas has a long history of some features of anxiety and depression for which it was recommended that he establish care with a therapist, but his family has had a hard time finding a provider for him. At this visit, the mother reports that for the past several months he has been more anxious, sad, and easily overwhelmed. He seems irritable at home and school and cries often. His family has been advocating for him to receive increased school supports, as school is a source of anxiety for him, but there are no recent changes in school services. There is a family history of both anxiety and depression. Given his worsening mood functioning, Thomas was started on selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) medication in addition to again recommending a therapist. Weekly phone call check-ins and an in-person clinic visit in 1 month are planned.About 1 month after starting the SSRI medication, he is still not showing any improvement in mood functioning, and his family reports he seems more \"sluggish\" than usual. There are no side effects reported with the medication, and the dose is increased to see whether it will help. However, about 2 weeks later, he is seen again in the clinic because there are increasing concerns. He continues to be \"sluggish.\" During the clinic visit, he lies down on the examination table, sometimes holding his head off the edge of the table, which he has never done before. He responds very slowly to the questions and often says \"I don't know, I don't know,\" almost in an automatic way. His mother reports that he is now engaging in some repetitive hand movements which he had not done previously. He is no longer able to shower independently. He is still eating and drinking adequately. What would you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en055_67119", "title": "The Man Who Saw Tomorrow", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Welles himself completely rejected the central theme of the film after having made it. It is not known if Welles was contractually obligated to narrate the film, or if he simply grew disenchanted with its subject matter and presentation after completing it. Perhaps Welles' most public criticism of the subject matter of the film occurred during a guest appearance on an early 1980s episode of The Merv Griffin Show; \"One might as well make predictions based on random passages from the phone book\", he offered when asked about the film, before moving on to discuss other projects more interesting to him personally. Alleged predictions of Nostradamus in The Man Who Saw Tomorrow" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0892_24815", "title": "Care under the Influence.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A forty-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his wife at five in the morning, two hours after he fell down the stairs at home, hitting his head and injuring his arm. He tells the ER physician that he got up to get a drink of water and tripped in the dark. His speech is slurred, and he smells strongly of alcohol. Lab results reveal elevated liver enzymes, and his blood alcohol level is 0.1. His medical history is unremarkable. When asked about his alcohol consumption, he says he usually has one or two drinks a night with dinner but that he drinks more on holidays and special occasions. He admits he had more to drink than usual last night because it had been a stressful day at work, but he is vague about how much he drank. His wife takes the ER physician aside and describes a very different situation. She says that her husband regularly has three or four drinks a night. She always goes to bed before he does and thinks he stays up later so he can continue to drink. She says that he often has no memory of conversations they had the night before and is concerned because he makes work-related calls at night. When asked what he does for a living, she hesitates, and then answers that he is an internist. He does not work at this hospital but works at one of its affiliated clinics. The ER doctor is concerned that his patient is an impaired physician. Yet when the admitting hospitalist, to whom he explains the situation, asks if he really wants to \"go there,\" he shrugs his shoulders. \"I suppose,\" she replies, \"you might as well call an ethics consult.\"" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en129_9481", "title": "Meredith Grey", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Rhimes felt that the 100th episode showed well Meredith's evolution throughout the show from a \"dark and twisty girl\" to a \"happy woman\". She said: \"She is the thing her mother wished for her. She is extraordinary. Because, to get past the crap of your past? To move on? To let the past go and change? That is extraordinary. To love? Without fear? Without screwing it up? That is extraordinary. It makes me happy to see her happy.\" Following the departure of Patrick Dempsey's character, Rhimes was quoted as saying that \"... Meredith and the entire Grey's Anatomy family are about to enter uncharted territory as we head into this new chapter of her life. The possibilities for what may come are endless.\" With at least a year left in Pompeo's contract with the show, viewers are sure to witness some of the most difficult times of Meredith's life yet. Reception Reviews" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0872_18464", "title": "The Case.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Mr. Hope is a 40-year-old man who has resided at a long-term care facility for the past 10 years. The resident was originally admitted to the nursing home for his inability to care for himself secondary to advanced AIDS and complications from progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML). When he initially arrived at the nursing home, Mr. Hope was able to smile and appeared to respond to some of the staff's requests. Now, he responds by wincing when told that procedures are being performed and especially when he is told that he has to go back to the hospital. He is extremely contracted, with his arms wedded to his chest in a crossed fashion, as though he is protecting himself from blows. Mr. Hope's family consists of a partner, his parents, and one sibling. Numerous conversations have been had with the family, and according to the facility staff, \"they persist in continuing aggressive measures with the hope that the patient will wake up and walk out of the facility.\" What had been frequent visits to the local hospital ER have increased substantially in the last few months, for what appear to be new infections and pneumonia. During most visits he ultimately spends a few days in the hospital to resolve his acute issues. On his most recent return to the long-term care facility, the medical staff approached the family about Mr. Hope's code status. The family continues to insist on a full code status and that he be provided every opportunity to \"live.\" The staff is very concerned about Mr. Hope and his welfare. Many of the nursing staff have grown attached to him over the years, and watching him deteriorate has been distressing. They see part of their role as being his advocate and supporting him in ways that his own family has not. They express very strong reservations about performing CPR on Mr. Hope because they think it will be ineffective and they will have to break his upper extremities in order to gain access to his chest for resuscitation. The staff has contacted the ethics consultation service with the request that Mr. Hope needs protection and that his own family is not making the best decisions for him. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en444_9346", "title": "I Wanna Get Better", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The video depicts a day in the life of a therapist (Antonoff) who, after getting dumped by his girlfriend (Kimiko Glenn), proceeds to his office and meets a variety of clients, all of whom are depicted describing their own personal problems. Comedian Retta and actor Mike Doyle play a couple who are suffering from marital problems while actor Rizwan Manji plays a highly-strung patient who gets distracted by \"Bring Your Daughter To Work\" Day. Actress Mary Kay Place plays a patient who is accused of creating \"drama\" because she thinks her husband is having an affair and the therapist does not believe her. Musician Arrow De Wilde appears in the video as a sullen, disaffected teen. Throughout the video, the cast are filmed lip-synching to the song's lyrics and sometimes even playing instruments as the band members." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0895_1202", "title": "Bullying and ADHD: Which Came First and Does it Matter?", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Aiden, a 13-year-old boy in the sixth grade who is relatively new to your practice, is seen for follow-up after his routine physical last month when you noted concerns for possible attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and gave the family Vanderbilt Scales to complete. Aiden has a family history of ADHD, specific learning disabilities, and mood disorder.His mother reports that she is concerned about how Aiden is doing at school; his teachers are complaining that he is not doing his work, and she is worried that he may be kept back in school. Aiden first began having trouble in the third grade. He was retained in the fourth grade for academic and behavioral reasons. Now his mother has been receiving calls about him not paying attention, distracting others, and staring at his paper. At home, he does not want to do homework and gets very frustrated. In fifth grade, he had a psychoeducational evaluation and was found not eligible for services. His achievement testing showed average scores in reading, math, and writing. Cognitive testing demonstrated average scores for verbal and nonverbal abilities and memory but was significantly below average for processing speed. Aiden continues to have problems now in into the sixth grade.You speak with Aiden in the office and ask him about school. He says, \"It's bad. I'm failing.\" He believes his major problems at school are that he is not doing his homework, he easily becomes frustrated, and he argues with the teachers. He has supportive relationships with his family and friends at school. He gets along well with some of his teachers, noting that he loves his science teacher even though she is tough and \"gives hard homework.\" He describes his history teacher as \"annoying.\" When you ask what he means he states this teacher \"Can be not nice and says mean things. She picks on me a lot.\" His description is consistent with the use of shaming as a behavior he experiences at school.You review the completed parent and teacher Vanderbilt forms; both are consistent and concerning for combined type ADHD. You discuss the diagnosis of ADHD with his mother and both agree to revisit pharmacotherapy in September when the school year resumes. You give her resources on ADHD and classroom accommodations and discuss requesting a 504 plan at school. You also discuss behavioral therapy to better address his self-regulation skills.A week later, you receive a telephone call from Aiden's mother. \"Aiden got home today and he is more upset than I have ever seen him! His teacher told him in front of the class that he would probably stay back a year and now he is saying there is no point in going to school.\" She is not aware if retention has been recommended for Aiden.What would you say to Aiden's mother? What would you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en341_38789", "title": "The Doctor's Wife", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The move to the sixth series also meant Gaiman had to include Rory, who had ceased to exist in the original slot in the fifth series. With Rory included, Gaiman had to \"reshape\" much of the second half of the episode, featuring Amy being on the run in the TARDIS. In the original draft where Amy was the only companion, Gaiman added a \"heartbreaking monologue\" by the character, further stating \"you get to see what it's like to be the companion from the companion's point of view, and she got to talk about essentially in that version how sad it is, in some ways. One day something will happen to her, she'll get married, she'll get eaten by monsters, she'll die, she'll get sick of this, but he'll go on forever.\" At a certain point, Gaiman became tired of rewriting drafts and asked Steven Moffat for help. Moffat wrote in what Gaiman called \"several of [the episode's] best lines\" and rapidly rewrote several scenes when budget problems harmed filming locations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0772_17523", "title": "Bullying and ADHD: which came first and does it matter?", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Aiden, a 13-year-old boy in the sixth grade who is relatively new to your practice, is seen for follow-up after his routine physical last month when you noted concerns for possible attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and gave the family Vanderbilt Scales to complete. Aiden has a family history of ADHD, specific learning disabilities, and mood disorder.His mother reports that she is concerned about how Aiden is doing at school; his teachers are complaining that he is not doing his work, and she is worried that he may be kept back in school. Aiden first began having trouble in the third grade. He was retained in the fourth grade for academic and behavioral reasons. Now his mother has been receiving calls about him not paying attention, distracting others, and staring at his paper. At home, he does not want to do homework and gets very frustrated. In fifth grade, he had a psychoeducational evaluation and was found not eligible for services. His achievement testing showed average scores in reading, math, and writing. Cognitive testing demonstrated average scores for verbal and nonverbal abilities and memory but was significantly below average for processing speed. Aiden continues to have problems now in into the sixth grade.You speak with Aiden in the office and ask him about school. He says, \"It's bad. I'm failing.\" He believes his major problems at school are that he is not doing his homework, he easily becomes frustrated, and he argues with the teachers. He has supportive relationships with his family and friends at school. He gets along well with some of his teachers, noting that he loves his science teacher even though she is tough and \"gives hard homework.\" He describes his history teacher as \"annoying.\" When you ask what he means he states this teacher \"Can be not nice and says mean things. She picks on me a lot.\" His description is consistent with the use of shaming as a behavior he experiences at school.You review the completed parent and teacher Vanderbilt forms; both are consistent and concerning for combined type ADHD. You discuss the diagnosis of ADHD with his mother and both agree to revisit pharmacotherapy in September when the school year resumes. You give her resources on ADHD and classroom accommodations and discuss requesting a 504 plan at school. You also discuss behavioral therapy to better address his self-regulation skills.A week later, you receive a telephone call from Aiden's mother. \"Aiden got home today and he is more upset than I have ever seen him! His teacher told him in front of the class that he would probably stay back a year and now he is saying there is no point in going to school.\" She is not aware if retention has been recommended for Aiden.What would you say to Aiden's mother? What would you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en559_22780", "title": "Jalebi (film)", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Unfortunately, Aisha has a miscarriage and Dev's mother blames Aisha for it. Aisha feels humiliated and insulted and leaves Dev. A few days later, Dev and his family try to bring her back but she doesn't return. She calls Dev to meet her in Kashmir if he really loves her, but Dev does not come. Seven years later, Aisha calls off her second wedding as she is still in love with Dev. She decides to face her problems and travels to Delhi. On her way, she meets a woman named Anu and her daughter, Pulti, and discovers that Anu is Dev's second wife. She also meets Dev in the same train. During the journey, she reminisces about her marriage with him. She also finds out that Pulti's original name was Disha, and feels upset, chiding Dev for naming her that. Anu also reveals that Pulti was not Dev's child but Anu and her lover's. Dev lifted at the very next moment he saw Pulti and before marriage he had a single condition that she should be named Disha." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0760_21826", "title": "\"Media addiction\" in a 10-year-old boy.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Bryan is a 10-year-old boy who is brought to his pediatrician by his parents with concerns about oppositional behaviors. Bryan's parents report that he has always been hyperactive and oppositional since a very young age. He has been previously diagnosed with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder and has been treated with appropriate stimulant medications for several years; however, despite this, his parents feel increasingly unable to manage his difficult behaviors. He refuses to do chores or follow through with household routines. He refuses to go to bed at night. His family feels unable to take him to public places because he \"climbs all over everything.\" At school, he acts up in class, is often disruptive, and requires close supervision by teachers. He was recently kicked off of the school bus. He has very few friends, and his parents state that other children do not enjoy to be around him. Bryan's parents also report that he is \"obsessed\" with electronics. He spends most his free time watching TV and movies and playing computer games. He has a television in his bedroom because otherwise he \"monopolizes\" the family television. The family also owns several portable electronic devices that he frequently uses. Bryan insists on watching TV during meals and even that the TV stays on in an adjacent room while showering. He gets up early each morning and turns on the television. He refuses to leave the house unless he can take a portable screen device with him. His parents admit to difficulty placing limits on this behavior because they feel it is the only way to keep his other behaviors under control. His mother explains \"it is our only pacifier\" and that attempts to place restrictions are met with explosive tantrums and have thus been short lived. These efforts have also been impeded due to the habits of his parents and older sibling, who also enjoy spending a significant amount of time watching television." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en616_17401", "title": "Last Remains", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "best for everyone, and that his hubris causes his loved ones to either get hurt or die. But instead of Peter accepting his mistakes, he chose to bury them or ignore them, like what he did to Norman Osborn in \"Sins Rising\". Harry is also disgusted that Peter tried to bargain and make the deal with him while also not revealing the truth to his allies like Doctor Strange. Peter sees Sin-Eater shooting Morlun, and also sees Sin-Eater waiting for the spider-heroes. A frantic Peter brings up their deal, to which Kindred notes that he had kept his end of the deal, that their arrival was an unintended consequence of Peter's actions and thus doesn't absolve him. Since they came for Peter, Kindred asks his confused old friend what else he did to bring unintended suffering onto others. Kindred urges the begging Peter to answer quickly, presenting on a large mirror display that Mary Jane Watson is entering his cemetery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_1459", "title": "Discovering gifted children in pediatric practice.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Casey is a first grader who is brought to the pediatrician for consideration of ADHD. His mother is concerned that he is very difficult to focus at home when asked to do anything and gets so distracted at meals that he eats very little. The teachers last year and this year say that Casey is very distracted, always \"in a fog\" and just can't seem to get his work done. \"He's in his own world.\" His report card has several unsatisfactory marks because of poor completion of work, doing things other than the assignment and talking too much to the kids around him. The parents are very upset as they see their son as very bright. His advanced vocabulary, early reading skills and his extensive knowledge of engines, machines and aircraft were all noted in his medical chart in the past as part of his health supervision visits. He has lots of friends, mostly third graders and plays soccer with moderate success. The paternal grandmother says Casey is just like his dad who is now a biochemical geneticist. He too had a hard time getting his work in as a child and \"always talked back\" to the teacher. Casey's mother would like him on medication before the Iowa Basics come around. The Vanderbilt rating scales by both teacher and parent are positive for inattention and borderline for hyperactivity. Casey took it upon himself to speak to the principal about how bored he was with the classroom work. She agreed that he could have some special assignments. In the pediatrician's office, Casey is a delightful, verbal, thin boy who has about 100 things to talk about, from train engines to the sports scores, acquired from the television sports channel, to what should be done to \"fix\" his school. He said he was bored and knew more about volcanoes than the science teacher. He just wanted to get home each day and work on his elaborate train setup. He doesn't seem overly active, distractible, anxious, inattentive or oppositional. Testing by the school psychologist showed him to have an IQ of 138 with an even verbal/performance profile. Sam is a 4-year old whose parents brought him to the local private school for application to kindergarten. The admission requirements consisted of a group \"developmental\" test, given to groups of 20 youngsters at a time. Sam failed the test. The report said that he was too immature, talked out of turn and generally wasn't ready for the vigorous academic program planned at that school. He asked too many questions and argued with the admissions person. They suggested he might need medication before he attempted school. His parents asked their pediatrician for an opinion on the school report. They asked for a referral for testing as they could not believe their son was a preschool failure. The psychologist reported that his IQ was 142 (verbal 146 and performance 136)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en184_28279", "title": "Assyrian law", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "\"If a man catch a man with his wife, both of them shall they put to death. If the husband of the woman put his wife to death, he shall also put the man to death. If he cut off the nose of his wife, he shall turn the man into a eunuch, and they shall disfigure the whole of his face.\" \"If a man have relations with the wife of a man at her wish, there is no penalty for that man. The man shall lay upon the woman, his wife, the penalty he wishes.\" \"If a man say to his companion, \"They have had intercourse with they wife; I will prove it,\" and he be not able to prove it, and do not prove it, on that man they shall inflict forty blows, a month of days he shall perform the king's work, they shall mutilate him, and one talent of lead he shall pay.\" \"If a man have intercourse with his brother-in-arms, they shall turn him into a eunuch.\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0796_16550", "title": "Attention deficit hyperactivity, fetal alcohol spectrum disorder, or something else: the broad differential of kindergarten suspension.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Thomas is a 5-year 6-month-old boy whose parents requested an urgent care appointment because he has recently been suspended from kindergarten stating \"and his doctor must see him before he can come back.\" His suspension from kindergarten was due to kicking and biting his classmates, but he has also become increasingly aggressive at home. His teacher reported that he has always had a high activity level and difficulty shifting attention between tasks, as well as noncompliance with rules and directions. He is noted to have learning challenges and is showing difficulties in the concept of numbers and letter sounds. The practice has followed Thomas since his healthy birth. He has a history of delayed language development, and he received early intervention services from 2 years of age. He spoke his first word at 2 years 6 months. He started a half-day preschool program at 3 years of age. He had difficulty acclimating to preschool, interacting with peers, and was described as \"hyperactive\" by his teachers. His program was modified to decrease his time having to sit in a circle time, and he often required the support of the paraprofessional in the classroom. His parents have always described him as a \"difficult child.\" He gets frustrated easily and can tantrum for up to 2 hours multiple times in a week when his immediate needs or requests are not met. He has difficulty falling asleep, has frequent night awakenings, and often has trouble getting back to sleep. His self-help skills are poor, and he has difficulty with activities such as brushing his teeth and dressing. His parents report that he does not seem to remember rules from day to day. He was evaluated at 5 years of age and diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, but his response to stimulants has been limited. Thomas is an only child. His parents are college educated and professionally employed. They deny drug use, domestic violence, and guns in the home. They reported that prior to the pregnancy, they enjoyed \"partying\" with friends on the weekends, but Thomas's mother reported that she stopped drinking as soon as she realized she was pregnant. All are wondering whether this child might have a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder, although he seems to have no clear facial dysmorphology. It is unsure what the next step might be and if there is value added in pursuing this diagnosis. What do you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en169_11009", "title": "List of Keeping Up Appearances characters", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Those around her despise her snobbery, her constant meddling, her outlandish plans and her refusal to listen to others. Hyacinth seems completely oblivious of everyone's terror of her and wants to believe the best of most people, that they are either enamoured with her and too shy to say so or that they are trying to be considerate of her by not bothering her. However, she cannot abide anyone one-upping her when it comes to social events or showing the same snobbery she herself shows. She has a penchant for finding the most disagreeable people to try to impress, while at the same time shunning agreeable people who are of lower social standing, but never seems to learn from her mistakes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en230_18494", "title": "Norman Osborn", "score": 0.008681644764730819, "content": "Norman Osborn is shown to be severely manic depressive. This has been referenced several times in a myriad of Spider-Man stories. When he is not under the direction of a psychiatrist and taking medication, he has dangerous mood swings. At the apex of his mania, he is paranoid, delusional, and suffers from visual and auditory hallucinations, including hearing the voice of his Green Goblin persona and seeing its face in the mirror rather than his own. Previously, Osborn's arrogance caused him to refuse to submit to psychiatric treatment unless forced to; he viewed mental illness as an imperfection and therefore would not admit that he is mentally ill. In later conversations with the Sentry, Osborn revealed that he had come to accept his own mental illness. After having rid of his powers after the confrontation with the Superior Spider-Man (Doctor Octopus), Osborn's sanity apparently restored but remains a villain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0839_18211", "title": "Electrocardiogram before starting stimulant medications: to order or not?", "score": 0.008620689655172414, "content": "D is an 8-year-old boy brought to his paediatrician for evaluation. His mother is concerned as his teacher has been frequently complaining that he is very restless and often disturbs the rest of the class by getting up on some pretext or the other. He is unable to concentrate on his work and gets distracted very easily. He makes many careless mistakes and can hardly finish his tasks on time. He is frequently reprimanded for talking during class. He often answers out of turn or before the question has been completed; however, so far, he has been managing to get passing grades. At home, he is constantly on the go while he is awake. If he is forced to sit, like at mealtimes, he fidgets a lot. He also needs to be constantly nagged to do everything, even his daily activities such as brushing his teeth, or he forgets to do them or leaves them incomplete. He takes ages to finish his food. It is a major job to get him to do his homework. His mother says that at home he has been like that since the last 2 to 3 years, but now she is concerned because of the difficulties he is experiencing at school as well. After obtaining his medical history, examination, and getting response from parents and teachers--using Vanderbuilt Assessment Scales--the paediatrician diagnoses him to have attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Besides behavioural interventions, he considers medications for his management. The paediatrician is debating the merits of performing electrocardiogram and/or referring the boy to a cardiologist before starting stimulant medications. If you were caring for this patient, how would you proceed?" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 133 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 25 ] ], "text": "Mortality is not so low, the oximetric jump occurs in the case of septum rupture, as well as fremitus (hence the correct answer is 3)" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Mortality with medical treatment is 20%.", "2": "In case of free wall rupture, there is an oxymetric jump in the right ventricle in the Swan-Ganz catheterization.", "3": "In case of free wall rupture, there is no palpable frémito.", "4": "Mechanical complications usually appear on the first post-infarction day.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0114_7402", "title": "Myocardial rupture following acute myocardial infarction.", "score": 0.019704911667637354, "content": "Ten patients, eight males and two females, suffered myocardial rupture following acute myocardial infarction and required surgery. There were five ventricular septal ruptures, four papillary muscle ruptures and one free wall rupture. Ventricular septal rupture was suspected clinically by the appearance of a new systolic murmur, usually associated with a thrill at the left sternal border. A left to right shunt was confirmed by bedside oximetry using a Swan-Ganz catheter. The mean pulmonary to systemic flow ratio was 3.04:1. Following cardiac catheterization all patients underwent corrective surgery with or without aortocoronary bypass grafting. Three patients with inferior wall myocardial infarction died. Papillary muscle rupture was suspected clinically following the abrupt onset of hypotension with severe acute pulmonary edema accompanied by a new systolic murmur. The diagnosis was confirmed by cardiac catheterization. All underwent surgery for mitral valve replacement with or without aortocoronary bypass grafting. One patient died postoperatively of multiorgan failure. Free wall rupture was suspected clinically by the sudden onset of loss of consciousness, apnea, junctional bradycardia and severe hypotension leading to electromechanical dissociation. The diagnosis was confirmed by demonstrating a significant pericardial effusion by two dimensional echocardiography. Immediate surgery was performed. This patient is totally asymptomatic on no drug treatment six months following discharge. Ten patients underwent emergency surgery for myocardial rupture. Operative mortality was 40%. Patients with ventricular septal rupture associated with an inferior myocardial infarction had a poor prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0974_20927", "title": "Right ventricular rupture induced by cardiopulmonary resuscitation.", "score": 0.018255746411086217, "content": "Right ventricular rupture is a rare complication of cardiopulmonary resuscitation and could be fatal. We report a survival case of right ventricular rupture induced by cardiopulmonary resuscitation in a patient with acute myocardial infarction. A 57-year-old man was admitted to our hospital with ventricular fibrillation. Although chest compression and defibrillation were performed, ventricular fibrillation continued. We inserted a percutaneous cardiopulmonary system and performed coronary angiography, which revealed occlusion of the left anterior descending artery. After coronary stenting and intra-aortic balloon pumping, we succeeded in defibrillation and vital signs became stable. Twenty hours after the intervention, systolic blood pressure dropped to 60 mmHg. Ultrasonic cardiogram at that time revealed massive pericardial effusion. We diagnosed cardiac tamponade, and 8Fr drainage tube was placed in the pericardial space. We determined that emergent operation was necessary because we suspected left ventricular rupture due to acute myocardial infarction or coronary rupture induced by percutaneous coronary intervention. However, operative findings revealed right ventricular free wall rupture, which could have been induced by chest compression. In these cases, we should consider the possibility of not only the rupture of left ventricle and coronary artery but also the rupture of right ventricle induced by cardiopulmonary resuscitation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0074_12913", "title": "[Myocardial infarction complicating left ventricular free wall blowout rupture: a survival case after surgical repair].", "score": 0.016817410966647822, "content": "A 58-year-old man who suffered from acute myocardial infarction complicated with left ventricular rupture and subacute pericardial tamponade was reported. On admission, echocardiography strongly suspected presence of intrapericardial fluid. And immediate pericardiocentesis proved left ventricular free wall rupture (LVFWR). Coronary angiography with the support of IABP revealed occlusion of LAD (# 8). Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty was performed with partial success. After pericardiotomy, the hemodynamic state was improved, however, 2 hours later, his blood pressure fell down to 40 mmHg suddenly. Emergent operation (re-mediastinumotomy+ ) was performed under the suspicion of left ventricular blowout rupture with the direct closure of the perforated site with 4 woven Dacron pledgets at bedside in ICU. The patient ran an uneventful postoperative course and is now doing well. Clinical and therapeutic features of LVFWR were discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0870_9152", "title": "Intraprocedural left ventricular free wall rupture diagnosed by left ventriculogram in a patient with infero-posterior myocardial infarction and severe aortic stenosis.", "score": 0.015567765567765568, "content": "Left ventricular wall rupture remains a major lethal complication of acute myocardial infarction and hypertension is a well-known predisposing factor of cardiac rupture after myocardial infarction. An 87-year-old man was admitted to our hospital, diagnosed as acute myocardial infarction (AMI). The echocardiogram showed 0.67-cm(2) aortic valve, consistent with severe aortic stenosis (AS). A coronary angiography showed a chronic occlusion of the proximal left circumflex artery and a 99 % stenosis and thrombus in the mid right coronary artery. During percutaneous angioplasty of the latter, transient hypotension and bradycardia developed at the time of balloon inflation, and low doses of noradrenaline and etilefrine were intravenously administered as needed. The patient suddenly lost consciousness and developed electro-mechanical dissociation. Cardio-pulmonary resuscitation followed by insertion of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) and percutaneous cardiopulmonary support were initiated. The echocardiogram revealed moderate pericardial effusion, though the site of free wall rupture was not distinctly visible. A left ventriculogram clearly showed an infero-posterior apical wall rupture. Surgical treatment was withheld because of the interim development of brain death. In this patient, who presented with severe AS, the administration of catecholamine to stabilize the blood pressure probably increased the intraventricular pressures considerably despite apparently normal measurements of the central aortic pressure. IABP, temporary pacemaker, or both are recommended instead of intravenous catecholamines for patients with AMI complicated with significant AS to stabilize hemodynamic function during angioplasty." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1033_9637", "title": "Surviving Case of a Blowout-Type Left Ventricular Free Wall Rupture During Percutaneous Coronary Intervention for a Lateral Acute Myocardial Infarction.", "score": 0.014612811937226654, "content": "A 76-year-old man suffering from chest pain was admitted to our hospital with a suspected acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Emergent coronary angiography revealed a totally occluded proximal left circumflex artery (LCX). During primary percutaneous coronary intervention, his blood pressure suddenly fell within seconds, and he developed pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Surprisingly, the 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) findings including the heart rate remained unchanged before and after the PEA, but a heart rate reduction and asystole occurred a few minutes after developing PEA. After tracheal intubation and mechanical assistance by venoarterial extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (VA-ECMO), the sudden onset of PEA appeared to be caused by cardiac tamponade due to a blowout-type left ventricular free wall rupture (BO-LVFWR) diagnosed by transthoracic echocardiography. While pericardiocentesis was performed and the drained blood was directly continuously perfused intravenously to keep the VA-ECMO flow, the patient was moved to the operation room. The surgical findings revealed a solitary BO-LVFWR due to a lateral AMI, and a direct closure was performed. Successful perioperative management, oral medication administration, and rehabilitation lead to the patient being transferred to a rehabilitation hospital without any serious cerebral damage. This case report suggested the detailed onset pattern of a BO-LVFWR followed by a rapid diagnosis by echocardiography and lifesaving treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0267_10368", "title": "[Subacute rupture of the free wall of the heart. Clinical echocardiographic and pathological aspects apropos of 10 cases].", "score": 0.014433962264150942, "content": "Three distinct forms of rupture of the heart may be identified after myocardial infarction: sudden rupture with massive intrapericardial haemorrhage, and sudden death with clinical signs of electromechanical dissociation; rupture into the pericardium resulting in a false aneurysm, the treatment of which is surgical; subacute rupture which accounts for 30% of cases in which bleeding into the pericardium is slow and/or repeated. Over an 8 year period and in a series of 2,400 consecutive infarcts admitted to the intensive care unit, 10 cases of subacute rupture of the heart were diagnosed. They were 6 men and 4 women, with a mean age of 73.6 years. The clinical presentation was isolated chest pain in 5 cases, syncope alone in 2 cases and the association of pain and syncope in 3 cases. Six patients were in shock on admission. In two cases, shock developed after admission. The infarction was confirmed biologically by a significant elevation of creatinine kinase in 9 out of 10 cases. Transmural infarction was observed in 9 cases: the infarct was electrocardiographically non-transmural in 1 case. Emergency echocardiography showed pericardial effusion in all cases, usually moderate, but sometimes compressive with an intrapericardial echogenic mass suggesting a thrombus. Haemodynamic improvement was obtained by medication allowing cardiac catheterisation which showed adiastole in 3 cases. Coronary angiography was performed in 7 cases. In 5 of the 7 cases, apart from occlusion of the artery presumed to be responsible for the infarct, the coronary vessels were diffusely infiltrated without significant stenosis. Left ventriculography was performed in 7 cases. In 6 of the 7 cases regional akinesis was demonstrated: the 7th case showed dyskinesia of the anterior wall. In two cases, contrast medium was observed to fill the pericardium during ventriculography, indicating myocardial rupture. The diagnosis of subacute rupture, suggested by clinical and paraclinical (particularly echocardiography), was confirmed in 9 cases at surgery and in the 10th case at autopsy. Surgery consisted of repairing the rupture. In the last two cases, biological glue was used to reinforce the surgical repair. The clinical outcome was good after surgery in 6 cases with a follow-up of 5 months to 8 years. The diagnosis of subacute rupture should therefore be made on clinical and echocardiographic criteria, as these results suggest that surgery is often possible, with a good prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0958_22306", "title": "Bedside Echocardiography in Acute Myocardial Infarction Patients with Hemodynamic Deterioration.", "score": 0.014009009009009008, "content": "Ventricular septal (VS) rupture after acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is an uncommon complication in the reperfusion era. Bedside echocardiography (BECH) continues to be a strong diagnostic tool for emergency physicians treating dyspneic patients, especially for decision-making on the management strategies to use with these unstable patients. In the case we present here, a patient is diagnosed with a delayed mechanical complication after AMI, and a swift management plan is made with the aid of point-of-care BECH. The patient is a 72-year-old man with dyspnea who was admitted to the ED 5 days after receiving a primary percutaneous coronary intervention with stent implantation for AMI; in the ED, the patient was diagnosed, via BECH, with a VS rupture. On arrival, his vital signs and the results of his physical examination depicted shock and low perfusion with wet lung. A cardiac examination revealed a new 2/6 harsh holosystolic murmur along the left sternal border without pretibial oedema. Emergency physicians performed BECH, and subcostal views of the heart revealed a wide interventricular septal rupture and left-to-right shunting with minimal pericardial effusion. The patient underwent surgery immediately to repair the defect. The post-operative course was uneventful, and he was discharged in stable condition on the seventh day after the surgery. The use of BECH to recognize a VS rupture is critical because such a defect may be the most important determinant of mortality in AMI patients who are in shock. BECH thus can influence clinicians' acute management and disposition decisions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0046_13457", "title": "[Doppler echocardiography in the diagnosis of mechanic complications of acute myocardial infarction].", "score": 0.013157894736842105, "content": "To evaluate the ability of bedside emergency Doppler/Echocardiographic (ECOCG/DP) studies in the diagnosis of mechanic complications during acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Retrospective analysis of 44 fatal AMI cases, studied by ECOCG/DP and with diagnostic confirmation by surgery and/or necropsy. Patients (pts) with AMI admitted to an Intensive Care Unit of a tertiary Hospital (UCIM), Hospital de Santa Maria. 44 fatal AMI cases were analysed (24 men and 20 women; mean age +/- SD: 72 +/- 9 years) and were divided in two groups according to Killip classification in Group 1 (III/IV): 35 pts and Group 2 (I/II): 9 pts. ECOCG/DP was performed in a routine basis at admission, using all standard views and by subcostal view when in an emergency scenario. In 20 pts with bad left ventricular function (LVF) (Group 1) at admission, ECOCG/DP monitoring showed that death was due to worsening of LVF, which was confirmed by necropsy. In the other 15 pts of this group, ECOCG/DP documented the clinical diagnosis of cardiac rupture (free wall: 4 pts; papillary muscle: 4 pts; interventricular septum: 7 pts) which was confirmed by surgery and/or necropsy. In the 9 pts of Group 2, ECOCG/DP disclosed, at admission, good LVF in all. In 5 pts there was a sudden worsening clinical status, and ECOCG/DP showed a severe pericardial effusion with right chambers collapse, highly suggestive of free wall rupture also confirmed at necropsy. In the other 4 pts, ECOCG/DP showed aggravation of wall motion abnormalities and of LVF without rupture, once again in agreement with necropsy. Five clinical cases are presented for illustration of this issue. In the 44 fatal AMI cases of our study there was complete agreement between the ECOCG/DP and necropsy studies. In AMI patients, ECOCG/DP monitoring can in a routine basis, evaluate wall motion abnormalities and LVF. In an emergency setting ECOCG/DP can diagnose all the mechanic complications with a great certainty." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0390_21577", "title": "Review of ventricular rupture: key concepts and diagnostic tools for success.", "score": 0.011816787506971557, "content": "Although a rare complication of acute myocardial infarction (AMI), ventricular rupture is a serious event associated with significant mortality and morbidity. Patients normally present with hemodynamic instability, often in cardiogenic shock. Despite improvements in surgical techniques and diagnostic tools, post-myocardial infarction ventricular rupture remains a difficult therapeutic challenge. There are three categories of ventricular rupture: free wall rupture (FWR), ventricular septal rupture (VSR), and papillary muscle rupture (PWR). The incidence of FWR occurs following up to 10% of myocardial infarctions. VSR and PWR have a lower incidence of 1-2% and 0.5-5%, respectively. Patients often present with single-vessel coronary artery disease and usually do not have a positive history for a previous myocardial infarction. The incidence of post infarction angina in these patients is significantly greater than in patients without ventricular rupture. Delay in treatment and continued physical activity post infarction increases the risk of ventricular rupture. Diagnostic tools such as two-dimensional echocardiography and cardiac catheterization confirm the diagnosis of ventricular rupture in only 45-88% of cases. Knowledge of the disease progression is necessary to insure accurate and timely diagnosis. Due to the rapid deterioration of these patients, there is a 50-80% mortality rate within the first week if untreated. With surgical correction, patients can extend their 5-year survival rates to 65%. A good example of the complex course of ventricular rupture is the case of a 71-year-old patient at our institution. The patient presented in cardiogenic shock following an AMI. Preoperative diagnosis was unsuccessful in determining the extent of the ventricular rupture. The correct diagnosis was determined in the operating room, and both a mitral valve replacement and closure of a ventricular septal defect were completed. The patient was successfully treated with this difficult pathology." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en133_43048", "title": "Myocardial rupture", "score": 0.01151221659696236, "content": "Risk factors for rupture after an acute myocardial infarction include female gender, advanced age of the individual, first ischemic event, and a low body mass index. Other presenting signs associated with myocardial rupture include a pericardial friction rub, sluggish flow in the coronary artery after it is opened i.e. revascularized with an angioplasty, the left anterior descending artery being often the cause of the acute MI, and delay of revascularization greater than 2 hours. Diagnosis Due to the acute hemodynamic deterioration associated with myocardial rupture, the diagnosis is generally made based on physical examination, changes in the vital signs, and clinical suspicion. The diagnosis can be confirmed with echocardiography. The diagnosis is ultimately made at autopsy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0648_1127", "title": "Repair of ventricle free wall rupture after acute myocardial infarction: a case report.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Acute myocardial infarction (AMI) may culminate in sudden death by ventricular fibrillation, cardiogenic shock, and cardiac rupture. We present a case of postinfarction rupture treated by direct closure and coronary artery bypass grafting after thrombolytic therapy. A 67-year-old woman with cardiac risk factors of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and being post-menopausal was admitted complaining of chest pain and sweating. Thrombolytic therapy with streptokinase was started due to acute myocardial infarction. But, reperfusion criteria were not achieved. Echocardiography revealed a moderate pericardial effusion with mild right chamber collapse and pericardial thrombus. Cardiac catheterization revealed totally occluded left anterior descending (LAD) and circumflex coronary arteries. She was taken to the operating-room immediately. The pericardium was opened and a large amount of blood with thrombus was removed. Her hemodynamic indices improved immediately. There was active bleeding from multiple sites with a 4 mm rupture. Cardiopulmonary bypass was established. Direct closure of rupture was carried out. Reversed autogenous saphenous vein bypass grafts were placed to the LAD and second obtuse margin coronary arteries. Postoperative recovery was uneventful and she was discharged from hospital in good condition. She remained asymptomatic during first year following the surgery. This case demonstrates that left ventricular free wall rupture is not always fatal and that early diagnosis and emergency surgical therapy may be successful. The combination of surgical repair with revascularization should be considered, because 80% of patients who experience LVFWR have multivessel coronary artery disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0046_23193", "title": "[A case of acute right ventricular infarction and life-saving right ventricular assistance following emergency coronary revascularization and resection of a left ventricular aneurysm--discussion of indication and proper assist flow volume].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Right ventricular assistance (RVA) using centrifugal pump in combination with IABP was used to treat a patient who was difficult to wean from a cardiopulmonary bypass following emergency coronary revascularization and resection of a ventricular aneurysm performed to treat acute right ventricular infarction due to a PTCA complication. After 131 hours of RVA at 3.2 to 4.8 l/min, it was possible to remove the pump. No heparin was administered during this time, changing the pump head twice, was used for 64 and 50 hour period, no thrombi were detected either time. After being weaned from RVA, the patient developed severe respiratory dysfunction, but on the 10th postoperative day (POD) IABP was weaned, and on the 13th POD the artificial respirator was withdrawn. The results of the postoperative cardiac catheterization were favorable, the patient was discharged on the 57th POD, and has returned to society at the present time. The indications for RVA include a central venous pressure &gt; 20 mmHg and a cardiac index &lt; 1.8 l/min/m2, and tissue perfusion pressure and general preoperative condition should severe as guides. The higher the assisted flow volume the more efficacious in relieving ventricular load, but, since there is a limit to how much the left ventricle and lungs can withstand, it should not exceed levels which ensure the maintainance of cardiac output and tissue perfusion pressure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0754_4961", "title": "Delayed ventricular septal rupture complicating acute inferior wall myocardial infarction.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Ventricular septal rupture is a potentially fatal complication of acute myocardial infarction. Its incidence has declined with modern reperfusion therapy. In the era of percutaneous coronary interventions, it occurs a median of 18-24 hours after myocardial infarction and is most commonly associated with anterior myocardial infarction. We present a case of delayed ventricular septal rupture complicating acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. A 53-year-old Caucasian male presented with epigastric pain for three days and electrocardiographic evidence for an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. Coronary angiography revealed a total occlusion of the proximal right coronary artery. Reperfusion was achieved by balloon angioplasty followed by placement of a bare metal stent. On hospital day six, the patient developed acute respiratory distress, a new loud pansystolic murmur, and hemodynamic instability. Echocardiography revealed the presence of a large defect in the inferobasal interventricular septum with significant left-to-right shunt consistent with ventricular septal rupture. The patient underwent emergent surgical repair with a bovine pericardial patch. Ventricular septal rupture after myocardial infarction should be suspected in the presence of new physical findings and hemodynamic compromise regardless of revascularization therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0075_14406", "title": "[A case report of right ventricular infarction clearly detected by transesophageal echocardiography].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "We reported a case of a 70 year-old woman who suffered from right ventricular infarction with cardiogenic shock, detected clearly by transesophageal echocardiography. On admission, her pulse rate was 31 bpm and her blood pressure was unobtainable. Conscious level was III-1-2 and she was cold and clammy. The ECG showed complete AV block with junctional escape rhythm at a rate of 31 bpm which required temporary pacing and ST elevation in leads II, III, a VF, V4R, V3R, V1. An echocardiogram showed akinesis of RV free wall and paradoxical septal motion. Transesophageal echocardiography was performed safely on the 5th hospital day and detected RV wall motion abnormality clearly. A Swan-Ganz catheter was inserted. Mean PCW was 12 mmHg. PA pressure was 19/11 mmHg. Mean RA pressure was 13 mmHg. Cardiac index was 1.33 l/min/m2. SvO2 was 54%. Volume loading, administration of dopamine, dobutamine and nitroprusside were started. Cardiac index increased to 1.88 l/min/m2, and SvO2 increased to 59%. On the 4th hospital day, mean RA pressure increased to 29 mmHg and PA pressure increased to 47/31 mmHg acutely. Endotracheal intubation was done and PEEP 6 cmH2O was used and mean RA pressure and PA pressure decreased. On the 6th hospital day, cardiac index increased 4.08 l/min/m2. Cardiac catheterization done two months after acute myocardial infarction showed 75% stenosis of the proximal right coronary artery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0530_16006", "title": "Delayed ventricular septal rupture after percutaneous coronary intervention in acute myocardial infarction.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "In the era before reperfusion therapy, ventricular septal rupture complicated 1approximate3% of acute myocardial infarctions (AMI) usually 3-5 days after onset. Studies have reported a positive correlation between the incidence of septal perforation and total occlusion of the coronary arteries. A 70-year old female patient was referred to the emergency room with the diagnosis of acute anterior myocardial infarction (MI) and recent cerebral infarction. The coronary angiogram showed a 90% stenosis at the mid-portion of the left anterior descending artery (LAD), and the lesion was successfully treated by percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with stent implantation. After PCI, the anterior wall motion improved on the follow-up echocardiogram. However, on the 20th hospital day, the patient condition deteriorated suddenly with pulmonary congestion. The echocardiography revealed a 1.3 cm ventricular septal defect at the apical septum with a left-to-right shunt. We report this rare case of delayed septal rupture in a patient with patent LAD after PCI and recovery of wall motion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0646_4190", "title": "No fate but what we make: a case of full recovery after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "An 80 years old man suffered a cardiac arrest shortly after arrival to his local health department. Basic Life Support was started promptly and nine minutes later, on evaluation by an Advanced Life Support team, the victim was defibrillated with a 200J shock. When orotracheal intubation was attempted, masseter muscle contraction was noticed: on reevaluation, the victim had pulse and spontaneous breathing.Thirty minutes later, the patient had been transferred to an emergency department. As he complained of chest pain, the ECG showed a ST segment depression in leads V4 to V6 and laboratory tests showed cardiac troponine I slightly elevated. A coronary angiography was performed urgently: significant left main plus three vessel coronary artery disease was disclosed.Eighteen hours after the cardiac arrest, a quadruple coronary artery bypass grafting operation was undertaken. During surgery, a fresh thrombus was removed from the middle left anterior descendent artery. Post-operative course was uneventful and the patient was discharged seven days after the procedure. Twenty four months later, he remains asymptomatic.In this case, the immediate call for the Advanced Life Support team, prompt basic life support and the successful defibrillation, altogether, contributed for the full recovery. Furthermore, the swiftness in the detection and treatment of the acute reversible cause (myocardial ischemia in this case) was crucial for long-term prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0963_22274", "title": "Left ventricle pseudoaneurysm: Diagnosis by a new murmur.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Incomplete rupture of the ventricle free wall can occur after myocardial infarction. This occurs when an organized thrombus and the pericardium seal the ventricular perforation. This can progress to the formation of a left ventricle pseudoaneurysm (LVPA). A 70-year-old male with an antero-septal ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) underwent an emergent left heart catheterization which revealed severe three-vessel disease with occluded grafts, non-amenable to re-vascularization, and an apical thrombus. As he was high-risk for repeat coronary artery bypass graft, he was medically managed. Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) showed a normal left ventricle ejection fraction (LVEF), apical anterior and inferior wall akinesis, moderate sized apical thrombus, and pericardial thickening. On hospital day 7, examination revealed a new 3/6 to-and-fro murmur that was loudest at the apex. The patient was asymptomatic with normal vital signs. A repeat TTE revealed an apical wall rupture with flow into the pericardial cavity and absence of the apical thrombus. A LVPA was diagnosed and the patient was immediately referred for surgical repair. This case illustrates the potential for developing LVPA in STEMI patients and the importance of physical examination. If identified early a potential emergent situation in a previously asymptomatic patient can be averted, thereby preventing fatal consequences. &lt;<bLearning objective:</b With the growing use of diagnostic testing the importance of physical examination is being lost. However, with an astute cardiac examination, potential complications such as a left ventricular pseudoaneurysm can be identified and promptly managed. In addition, a ventricular pseudoaneurysm must be considered in the differential as a rare complication in post ST-elevation myocardial infarction patients with a new murmur.&gt;." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0497_21555", "title": "Ventricular septal rupture after early successful thrombolytic therapy in acute myocardial infarction: a case report.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a severe complication of acute myocardial infarction and has a high mortality rate. This complication appears to have declined in the reperfusion era. It has mostly been reported in elderly or female patients who suffer from anterior wall infarction, patients with multivessel coronary artery disease (CAD) or occluded infarct-related artery (IRA) without collateral circulation, or patients who have had delayed reperfusion therapy. Here, we report the case of a 60-year-old male patient who presented with persistent chest pain and Killip I ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction. Thrombolytic therapy was started 3 hours after the onset of chest pain. Based on the subsidence of chest pain, resolution of the elevated ST segment, and early peak of cardiac enzymes, reperfusion was thought to be successful. However, on the third day of admission, the patient complained of dyspnea after defecation and was found to have new-onset grade 3 pansystolic murmur over the left sternal border. Cardiac echography showed an apical VSD. A Swan-Ganz catheter was inserted into the right side of the heart; analysis of blood oxygen saturation revealed a 6% step-up of oxygen in the right ventricle. Coronary angiography showed only one-vessel CAD and TIMI 3 flow in the IRA. The patient received intensive medical management and underwent VSD repair and internal mammary artery bypass grafting to the left anterior descending artery. His recovery was uneventful. This case illustrates that VSD can be found in patients receiving early successful reperfusion therapy, with one-vessel CAD, and TIMI 3 flow in the IRA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0799_5052", "title": "[Surgical therapy of myocardial infarction].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) has been replaced by percutaneous coronary interventions in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI) nowadays. The surgical repair is the only option for mechanical complications of MI. The aim of our study was to assess the results of surgical treatment of MI. From January 2008 to December 2012 one thousand nine hundred fifty nine patients were operated on at Centre of cardiovascular surgery and transplantations in Brno for coronary artery disease, 103 (5.3 %) of them suffered from acute MI. The interval between MI and operations was longer than 24 hours in more than half of the patients. Nineteen patients underwent PCI before operation, 32 were in cardiogenic shock with intraaortic balloon pump in 12, twelve patients were after cardiopulmonary resuscitation and 18 were on ventilation. CABG alone was performed in 78 patients, in 25 patients mechanical complication of MI occurred; rupture of papillary muscle with mitral regurgitation in 8, rupture of interventricular septum in 11, rupture of free wall of left ventricle in 1 and evolving aneurysm of left ventricle in 5 patients. Several serious complications occurred in the postoperative period; disturbances of heart rhythm, syndrome of low cardiac output and pulmonary complications with the necessity of prolonged ventilation being the most frequent. Fourteen patients died during hospital stay (mortality 13.4 %). Patients after acute MI create the highest-risk group for surgical treatment. The reasons comprise serious preoperative status, delayed re-perfusion of ischemic area and serious hemodynamic effect of mechanical complications of MI. A lot of complications may occur during postoperative course and mortality is high. In the survivals the long term follow-up is promising." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0814_12759", "title": "Subacute myocardial rupture following tirofiban treatment.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 74-year-old male patient was admitted to our emergency department with post-MI angina. On account of the anginal complaint that continued for three days, a coronary artery angiography was undertaken. A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty was performed, followed by the implantation of a coronary stent, and coronary perfusion (TIMI-3) was achieved in the left anterior descending artery. Medical treatment (with acetylsalicylic acid, clopidogrel, metoprolol, atorvastatin and enoxaparine) and tirofiban infusion were duly administered in the coronary care unit. After twenty-four hours, however, acute dyspne, hypotension and tachycardia developed, making it necessary to perform an echocardiography. Since the echocardiography revealed a frank pericardial effusion, the patient was immediately taken to the operation room. The ventricular free wall rupture was repaired with Surgicel, which was prepared in three layers and fixed to the myocardium by tissue glue; cardiopulmonary bypass was not used. To our knowledge, our study constitutes the first case report of a tirofiban-induced free wall rupture. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0228_16173", "title": "Subacute left ventricular free wall rupture following acute myocardial infarction: bedside hemodynamics, differential diagnosis, and treatment.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Six patients with subacute left ventricular free wall rupture (anatomically proved) following acute myocardial infarction are presented. Diagnosis of cardiac rupture in every case was suspected several hours before death or surgical intervention, when clinical and hemodynamic data of cardiac tamponade were found. In three patients right atrial pressure decreased with inspiration and in the other three cases it did not show any modification. These latter three patients had associated right ventricular infarction; the abnormal respiratory behavior could be explained by restriction produced by a noncompliant right ventricle. All six patients improved initially with medical treatment (inotropics and fluid infusion) and three of them were operated upon. One of the latter patients died on the eighteenth postoperative day of extracardiac causes and two are long-term survivors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0083_2933", "title": "[Acute cardiac rupture in myocardial infarction. A case report].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 60 year old woman with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction developed severe hypotension 12 hr after admission to the coronary care unit. X rays showed an enlarged cardiac shadow and echocardiography signs of pericardial effusion. Swan Ganz catheterization revealed severe venous hypertension and no suggestion of ventricular septal rupture. Emergency surgery, initiated with partial cardiopulmonary bypass, showed a 1 cm tear of the anterior wall of the left ventricle, close to the left anterior descending artery. A successful repair was obtained by suture on teflon pledgets. After a difficult postoperative course, the patient was doing well 8 months after surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0050_9131", "title": "[A successful repair of concomitant rupture of the interventricular septum and left ventricular free wall after acute myocardial infarction].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 74-year-old woman had acute anteroseptal myocardial infarction. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) was infused intravenously about five hours later from the onset of myocardial infarction. Six hours after the infusion of t-PA her blood pressure fell suddenly with the appearance of a grade 3/6 holosystolic murmur. There was a prominent step up of oxygen saturation in the right ventricle which indicated the presence of a left-to-right shunt. Intraaortic balloon pumping for the support of cardiac function was ineffective. At the emergent operation concomitant rupture of the left ventricular free wall and interventricular septum was seen and successfully repaired. She could be weaned from cardiopulmonary bypass easily with the aid of the intraaortic balloon pumping. Her postoperative course was uneventful. The postoperative angiography showed good left ventricular wall motion without any residual shunt." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en133_43052", "title": "Myocardial rupture", "score": 0.00911961444181312, "content": "Prognosis The prognosis of myocardial rupture is dependent on a number of factors, including which portion of the myocardium is involved in the rupture. In one case series, if myocardial rupture involved the free wall of the left ventricle, the mortality rate was 100.0%. The chances of survival rise dramatically if the patient: 1. has a witnessed initial event; 2. seeks early medical attention; 3. has an accurate diagnosis by the emergentologist; and 4. happens to be at a facility that has a cardiac surgery service (by whom a quick repair of the rupture can be attempted). Even if the individual survives the initial hemodynamic sequelae of the rupture, the 30‑day mortality is still significantly higher than if rupture did not occur." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0891_21095", "title": "Respiratory and Cardiac Characteristics of ICU Patients Aged 90 Years and Older: A Report of 12 Cases.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Objective To investigate the respiratory and cardiac characteristics of elderly Intensive Care Unit (ICU) patients.Methods Twelve senior ICU patients aged 90 years and older were enrolled in this study. We retrospectively collected all patients' clinical data through medical record review. The basic demographics, primary cause for admission, the condition of respiratory and circulatory support, as well as prognosis were recorded. Shock patients and pneumonia patients were specifically analyzed in terms of clinical manifestations, laboratory variables, echocardiography, and lung ultrasound Results.Results The mean age of the included patients was 95 years with a male predominance (8 to 4, 66.7%). Regarding the reasons for admission, 6 (50.0%) patients had respiratory failure, 1 (8.3%) patient had shock, while 5 (41.7%) patients had both respiratory failure and shock. Of the 6 patients who suffered from shock, only 1 was diagnosed with distributive shock, 5 with cardiogenic shock. Of the 5 cardiogenic shock patients, 1 was diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome. The rest 4 cardiogenic shock patients were diagnosed with Takotsubo cardiomyopathy. The patient with ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction died within 24 hours. Of the 4 Takotsubo patients, 1 died on day-6 and the other 3 patients were transferred to ward after heart function recovered in 1 to 2 weeks. Of the 10 pneumonia patients, 3 were diagnosed as community acquired pneumonia, and 7 as hospital acquired pneumonia. Only 3 patients were successfully weaned from ventilator. The others required long-term ventilation complicated with heart failure, mostly with diastolic heart failure. Lung ultrasound of 6 patients with diastolic dysfunction showed bilateral B-lines during spontaneous breathing trial.Conclusions Elderly patients in shock tend to develop Takotsubo cardiomyopathy. Diastolic heart dysfunction might be a major contributor to difficult weaning from ventilator in elderly patients. Bedside lung ultrasonography and echocardiography could help decide the actual cause of respiratory failure and shock more accurately and effectively." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0041_2293", "title": "[Evaluation of 2 years' experience with assisted circulation by diastolic counterpulsation].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The authors report their two years' experience of circulatory assistance by diastolic counter-pulsation with an intra-aortic balloon. This technique was used in 23 patients: 9 cases of cardiogenic shock due to acute myocardial infarction, 9 septal ruptures, 1 rupture of the papillary muscle of the mitral valve, 1 acute ventricular aneurysm, 2 high risk coronary arteriographies and 1 case of early post-infarction recurrent ischemia. It confirms the gravity of cardiogenic shock as, in spite of the frequent improvement in hemodynamic parameters under counter-pulsation, there was only one survivor. The efficacy is greater in cases of septal rupture, where the author obtained 3 survivors out of 6 operated cases. The security of the method and its innocuity permit one to carry out high risk coronary arteriography and extend the indications for circulatory assistance, to certain cases of unstable angina or early recurrent anginal following acute infarction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0739_21064", "title": "Timely diagnosis of left ventricular posterior wall rupture by echocardiography: a case report.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Left ventricular free wall rupture is responsible for up to 10% of in-hospital deaths following myocardial infarction. It is mainly associated with posterolateral myocardial infarction, and its antemortem diagnosis is rarely made.One of the medical complications of myocardial infarction is the rupture of the free wall, which occurs more frequently in the anterolateral wall in hypertensives, women, and those with relatively large transmural myocardial infarction usually 1-4 days after myocardial infarction.We herein present the case of a 66-year-old man suffering inferior wall myocardial infarction with abrupt hemodynamic decompensation 9 days after myocardial infarction. Emergent transthoracic echocardiography revealed massive pericardial effusion with tamponade, containing a large elongated mass measuring 1 × 8cm suggestive of hematoma secondary to cardiac rupture. In urgent cardiac surgery, the posterior wall between the left coronary artery branches was ruptured." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0049_17469", "title": "[Two separate surgical repairs of post-infarction blowout rupture of the left ventricular free wall and subsequently developed subepicardial aneurysm].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A 69-year-old female patient with acute myocardial infarction was admitted to our hospital. After i.v. administration of the rt-PA, echocardiography disclosed pericardial effusion to which pericardial drainage was performed first through subxiphoid incision. Immediately after the drainage, electromechanical dissociation emerged and emergency thoracotomy was performed. There was a small blowout rupture of the left ventricular free wall that was successfully repaired using single suture buttressed with Dacron felt without cardiopulmonary bypass support. On the 38th day after the surgery, cineangiography disclosed ventricular aneurysm, to which aneurysmectomy was performed under the cardiopulmonary bypass and her post operative progress was uneventful. Histological study of the resected specimen revealed so called subepicardial aneurysm. Although blowout rupture of the left ventricular free wall used to be lethal, there might be a chance of life saving even without cardiopulmonary bypass support, if the left thoracotomy could be done as quickly as possible." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0086_15177", "title": "[Surgical treatment of ventricular septal rupture following myocardial infarction in an aged patient with bronchial asthma].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Urgent surgery for ventricular septal rupture following myocardial infarction in a 75-year-old female with bronchial asthma was successfully performed. On Feb 28, 1988, she had chest pain, and was admitted 5 days later because of the appearance of heart murmur. Pansytolic murmur (Levine 4/VI) on 3 LSB and piping sound on both lung fields was heard, ECG showed acute anteroseptal infarction. Right heart Swan-Ganz catheterization revealed left to right shunt, and the diagnosis was ventricular septal rupture following acute anteroseptal infarction with bronchial asthma. The initial hemodynamic condition was not serious, but soon after the diagnosis was confirmed, IABP was inserted and operation was indicated because of the advanced age, high shunt ratio (70%) and complication of bronchial asthma. The operation was performed a day after septal rupture. The perforation in the ventricular septum of the apex was sutured with a xenopericardium patch by mattres sutures through a left ventricle approach, and the ventricular wall was closed with this patch together. The postoperative course was uneventful, and the patient was discharged on the 43rd day after the operation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0213_9629", "title": "[Acute rupture of the left ventricle 12 hours after an anteroseptal myocardial infarct. Successful surgical repair].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Acute rupture of the left ventricular free wall was suspected in a 53 year old hypertensive patient at the 12th hour of primary antero-septo-apical myocardial infarction. He developed acute tamponade with severe cardiogenic shock during his transfer to hospital. Cardiac compression due to hemopericardium was confirmed by M mode echocardiography (pericardial effusion), right heart catheterisation (adiastole and low cardiac output) and pericardial puncture during which several ccs of blood were aspirated leading to a slight improvement in the patient's condition. At operation under cardiopulmonary bypass 2,5 hours after hospital admission, the surgeon found a hemopericardium related to fissuration of an acute apical infarct which was sutured on a Teflon support. The initial postoperative course was complicated by unexplained gastro-intestinal hemorrhage, transient functional renal failure, cardiac failure and mediastinitis, but the final outcome was successful with a follow-up of 24 months. This appears to be the 9th reported case of long-term survival after surgical repair of rupture of the heart in the acute phase of myocardial infarction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0402_13851", "title": "Oozing-type of left ventricular rupture treated under percutaneous cardiopulmonary support without surgical repair.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "A 65-year-old man was admitted to the National Defense Medical College Hospital for acute anterolateral myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock. Emergency coronary angiography demonstrated occlusion of the proximal left anterior descending artery. Primary percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) was successfully performed with the support of intra-aortic balloon pumping (IABP) and medical treatment to stabilize the patient's blood pressure. On the second hospital day, the patient suffered cardiac tamponade. Pericardiocentesis showed bloody fluid and revealed that an oozing-type of left ventricular rupture had occurred after the myocardial infarction. Cardiogenic shock persisted after successful removal of the pericardial effusion. Although the heparinization required during percutaneous cardiopulmonary support (PCPS) can increase pericardial effusion, PCPS was initiated to correct the systemic hypoperfusion; a surgical team was on standby in case massive pericardial effusion resulted, but fortunately that did not occur, and cardiac function recovered. The patient was weaned successfully from PCPS and IABP and has remained in a satisfactory condition for over 1 year. PCPS contributed to the patient's recovery from cardiac shock and may have decreased the effusion from the oozing-type rupture by reducing ventricular wall tension." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0528_14276", "title": "[The results of the treatment of right ventricle myocardial infarction].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "To present the results and experience in diagnosing and treating of patients with acute right ventricle infarction, during the period of hospitalization of one month, with adjuvant analyses of the obtained results in the period of fifteen years. Acute right ventricle infarction porved clinicaly, enzymologicaly, by ECG, echochardiographically or scintigraphically we treated with thrombolitic therapy within first six hours after admittion, with salvaged PTA in case of the cardiogenic shock or AV block II degrees-III degrees despite of thrommbolitic therapy, or with postponed PTA within first month of intrahospital treatment. In the period from 1990 to 2004, 3 225 patients of both sexes were treated for acute myocardial infarction at the different localization in patients' at the mean age of 53.7 +/- 5.8. One-hundred-thirty-nine (43.9%) patients were treated with thrombolitic therapy according to the speed up protocole. Heparin was administered to 160 (50.7%) patients with water load, and 17 (5.4%) patients had the primary percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PPTCA), so that the mechanical blood flow could be established, by the implantation of a stent when necessary. In 316 patients with right ventricle infarction, 58 (18.3%) had postponed and salvaged percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). Twenty-two (15.8%) patients had thrombolitic therapy, whereas 36 (22.5%) patients were treated with heparin. We had a successful balloon dilatation in 21 (36.2%), whereas 32 (55.2%) patients had 1-3 intracoronary stents inplanted, depending upon the necessity, and 5 (8.6%) patients from this group were sent to surgical intervention. In the group of 214 (67.7%) patients treated with heparin or thrombolitic therapy combined therapy, with PTCA, 12 (5.7%) patients died, whereas in the group of 124 (39.3%) patients treated only with heparin 26 (16.2%) patients died, statistically significant difference (p &lt; 0.001, chi2 = 18.423). Was noticed n the group of 1 204 patients with inferoposterior infarction, 122 (10.1%) patients died. In the group of 316 patients with right ventricle infarction, 38 (12%) died. In the group of 888 control patients with inferoposterior infarction, but without right ventricle infarction, 84 (9.4%) patients died. In the group of 2 021 patients (62.2%) with anterior infarction, 248 (12.3%) died. CONCLUSION. The obtained results showed that the patients with right ventricle infarction, due to the great expansion of necrosis and the involvement of the inferoposterior wall of the left ventricle, as well as the ischemia of sinus and AV nodes, were the patients of a high risk. That was why it was essential to do urgent widening of the artery to reestablish blood flow either by using drugs or by means of mechanical methods." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 159 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 26 ] ], "text": "The correct answer is 2 because it presents the case with the typical symptoms of dementia due to Lewy bodies, being the guiding symptom visual hallucinations." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Alzheimer's disease.", "2": "Dementia due to Lewy bodies.", "3": "Frontotemporal dementia.", "4": "Vascular dementia.", "5": "Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0783_9659", "title": "Unusual features of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease followed-up in a memory clinic.", "score": 0.018436703483432453, "content": "Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) generally manifests itself by cognitive or rapidly progressive motor symptoms. An atypical onset or an unusual evolution may delay the diagnosis. Among patients with a confirmed diagnosis of sCJD following a post-mortem neuropathological examination at the Neuropathology Centre of Lille, France, those who had presented with atypical cognitive disorders at onset were included in the study. Four patients were included. The first patient (64-years-old) presented early language disorders, later accompanied by apathy and behavioral disorders. The prolonged course suggested a diagnosis of progressive primary aphasia. The second patient (68-years-old) presented with aphasia, apraxia, and ataxia of the right upper limb with parkinsonian syndrome, suggesting corticobasal degeneration. In the two last patients (58- and 61-years-old), the onset was marked by an anxiety-depression syndrome, falls, visual hallucinations, extra-pyramidal syndrome, and fluctuating cognitive decline. The diagnosis raised was probable Lewy body dementia. The 14.3.3 protein was found in two of the four cases. The clinical elements found may initially suggest focal atrophy or Lewy body dementia. A very rapid clinical deterioration generally suggests sCJD, but in the last case, the evolution was particularly slow. The diagnosis of sCJD must be considered in cases of rapid-onset dementia, even if all of the clinical criteria are not present. The detection of the 14.3.3 protein and multifold increase in total-Tau with normal or slightly increased phosphorylated-Tau in the CSF are additional arguments to reinforce the diagnosis. The post-mortem neuropathological examination is important to confirm the diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0476_23968", "title": "[Frontal dementia or dementia praecox? A case report of a psychotic disorder with a severe decline].", "score": 0.017549261083743842, "content": "Many authors have described these last years the difficulty to establish a differential diagnosis between schizophrenia and frontotemporal dementia. However treatment and prognosis of these two separate diseases are not the same. Schizophrenia is a chronic syndrome with an early onset during teenage or young adulthood period and the major features consist of delirious ideas, hallucinations and psychic dissociation. However a large variety of different symptoms describes the disease and creates a heterogeneous entity. The diagnosis, exclusively defined by clinical signs, is then difficult and has led to the research of specific symptoms. These involve multiple psychological processes, such as perception (hallucinations), reality testing (delusions), thought processes (loose associations), feeling (flatness, inappropriate affect), behaviour (catatonia, disorganization), attention, concentration, motivation (avolition), and judgement. The characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia have often been conceptualised as falling into three broad categories including positive (hallucination, delision), negative (affective flattening, alogia, avolition) and disorganised (poor attention, disorganised speech and behaviour) symptoms. No single symptom is pathogonomonic of schizophrenia. These psychological and behavioural characteristics are associated with a variety of impairments in occupational or social functioning. Cognition impairments are also associated with schizophrenia. Since the original clinical description by Kraepelin and Bleuler, abnormalities in attentional, associative and volitional cognitive processes have been considered central features of schizophrenia. Long term memory deficits, attentional and executive dysfunctions are described in the neurocognitive profile of schizophrenic patients, with a large degree of severity. The pathophysiology of schizophrenia is not well known but may be better understood by neuronal dysfunctions rather than by a specific anatomical abnormality. Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is one of the most common causes of cortical dementia. FTLD is associated with an anatomical atrophy that can be generalised, with a frontotemporal or focal lobar predominance. Histologically there is severe neuronal loss, gliosis and a state of spongiosis. In a minority of case Pick cells and Pick bodies are also found. The usual clinical features of FTLD are divided in three prototypic syndromes: frontotemporal dementia (FTD), progressive non-fluent aphasia (PA) and semantic dementia (SD). FTD is the most common clinical manifestation of FTLD. FTD is first characterised by profound alteration in personality and social conduct, characterised by inertia and loss of volition or social disinhibition and distractibility. There is emotional blunting and loss of insight. Speech output is typically economical, leading ultimately to mutism, although a press of speech may be present in some overactive, disinhibited patients. Memory is relatively preserved in the early stage of the disease. Cognitive deficits occur in the domains of attention, planning and problems solving, whereas primary tools of language, perception and spatial functions are well preserved. PA is an initial disorder of expressive language, characterised by effortful speech production, phonologic and grammatical errors. Difficulties in reading and writing also occur but understanding of word meaning is relatively well preserved. In SD a severe naming and word comprehension impairment occur on the beginning in the context of fluent, effortless, and grammatical speech output. There is also an inability to recognise the meaning of visual percepts. The clinical syndromes of FTLD are associated with the brain topography of the degeneration. So considerable clinical overlap can exist between schizophrenia and FTLD and the object of the following case report is to remind the difficulty to make a differential diagnosis between these two pathologies. A 34 year old non-married man is admitted in mental health district of a general hospital for behavioural disturbances that include repeated aggressions towards his family. At initial interview visual and auditives hallucinations are described. The patient doesn't care about these abnormalities and a poverty of speech is observed. The affects, globally blunted, show some degree of sadness however. The patient's birth and early development were unremarkable. At the age of 26, the patient dismissed from his job because of poor performance and absenteeism. He spent a lot of time watching TV, showed poverty of speech and become sometimes angry and violent without an explanation. He was hospitalised for several months and a schizophrenia including predominant negative features, hallucinations and delusion was diagnosed. He was treated with bromperidol, could go back to home and was followed by a general practitioner for 8 years. The patient had a stereotyped way of life during these years with a poor communication and little activity. During the months preceding the current hospitalisation, these characteristics and avolition emphasised, urinary incontinence appeared. The patient receives risperidone 8 mg/day associated with citalopram 40 mg/day during several months of hospitalisation. No significant evolution is observed regarding apathic and stereotyped way of live. The capacity of communication remains very poor. Neurocognitive assessments reveal multiple and severe dysfunctions. Memory, executive and attentional tasks are extremely disturbed. Physical and neurological examinations reveal an isolated bilateral Babinski sign. Cerebral scanner and magnetic resonance show bifrontal atrophy and PET scan is normal. There are no significant abnormalities found on blood and urine samples and on lumbar puncture. The patient is sent to a chronic neuropsychiatric hospital and the treatment is stopped. One year later, a comparative evaluation is realised. The general clinical state shows no evolution. Neurocognitive assessments are repeated and severe dysfunctions are observed with more perseverations. A diagnosis of FTLD for this patient can be discussed regarding clinical features, neurocognitive testings and neuroradiological findings. Schizophrenia is a major differential diagnosis. Psychotic symptoms like hallucinations and age of onset are essential observations for the diagnosis of schizophrenia but can not exclude FTLD. Memory, intellectual functions, executive and attentional abilities may all be disturbed in schizophrenia and FTLD. Cerebral abnormalities well established in schizophrenia are lateral ventricles enlargements. Frontal lobar atrophy is a major argument for FTLD and is only a sporadic finding in schizophrenic populations. Schizophrenia and FTLD could be comorbid diseases by several ways. A differential diagnosis between schizophrenia and FTLD is difficult to establish. Schizophrenia is a heterogeneous disease with a large variety of cognitive dysfunctions. Neurocognitive tools may improve our knowledge of schizophrenia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0762_3722", "title": "Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease: a case report and differential diagnoses.", "score": 0.01670174485708466, "content": "Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare neurodegenerative disorder of unknown etiology that causes rapidly progressive dementia. This disease is uniformly fatal and most patients die within 12 months. Clinical findings include myoclonus, visual disturbances, and cerebellar and pyramidal/extrapyramidal signs in addition to rapidly progressive cognitive and functional impairment. These findings are all non-specific and it is often difficult and challenging to diagnose premortem because of low awareness and clinical suspicion. We present a 66-year-old woman with a 5-month history of rapidly progressive dementia. After a series of extensive diagnostic examinations and continuous follow-up, she was diagnosed with probable sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease based on Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) criteria, with key findings of rapidly progressive dementia, blurry vision, extrapyramidal signs (cogwheel rigidity), and abnormal hyperintensity signals on diffusion-weighted MRI. Her symptoms progressively worsened and she died 7 months after the onset. The postmortem brain autopsy demonstrated the presence of abnormal protease-resistant prion protein by Western Blot analysis. A literature review was performed on differential diagnoses that present with rapidly progressive dementia and thereby mimic sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. These include Alzheimer's disease, dementia with Lewy Bodies, frontotemporal dementia, meningoencephalitis, corticobasal degeneration, progressive supranuclear palsy, CADASIL, and paraneoplastic encephalomyelitis. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0389_3079", "title": "[A 64-year-old man with parkinsonism as an initial symptom followed by dementia associated with marked abnormal behaviours].", "score": 0.014944769330734242, "content": "We report a 64-year-old man with parkinsonism as an initial symptom, which was followed by dementia and abnormal behaviours. He was well until 1985, when he was 49 years old, when he noted rest tremor in his right hand. Soon tremor appeared in his left hand as well. He was seen in our clinic and levodopa was prescribed. He was doing well with this medication, however, in 1993, he started to suffer from on-off phenomenon. He also noted visual hallucination. In 1994, he stole a watermelon and ate it in the shop. He repeated such abnormal behaviours. In 1995, he was admitted to the neurology service of Hatsuishi Hospital. On admission, he was alert and oriented. He did not seem to be demented; however, he admitted stealing and hypersexual behaviours. No aphasia, apraxia, or agnosia was noted. In the cranial nerves, downward gaze was markedly restricted. He showed masked and seborrhoic face, and small voice. No motor palsy was noted, but he walked in small steps with freezing and start hesitation. Marked neck and axial rigidity was noted. Tremor was absent except for in the tongue. No cerebellar ataxia was noted. Deep tendon reflexes were diminished. Plantar response was extensor bilaterally. Forced grasp was noted also bilaterally. He was treated with levodopa and pergolide, but he continued to show on-off phenomenon. His balance problem and akinesia became progressively worse; still he showed hypersexual behaviour problems. He also showed progressive decline in cognitive functions. In 1997, he started to show dysphagia. He developed aspiration pneumonia in July of 1998. In 1999, he developed emotional incontinence and became unable to walk. He also developed repeated aspiration pneumonia. He died on March 1, 2000. He was discussed in a neurological CPC and the chief discussant arrived at a conclusion that the patient had corticobasal degeneration. Other diagnoses entertained included dementia with Lewy bodies, diffuse Lewy body disease, and frontotemporal dementia. Majority of the participants thought that diffuse Lewy body disease was most likely. Post-mortem examination revealed marked nigral neuronal loss, gliosis and Lewy bodies in the remaining neurons. Abundant Lewy bodies of cortical type were seen wide spread in the cortical areas, but particularly many in the amygdaloid nucleus. Lewy bodies were also seen in the subcortical structures such as the dorsal motor nucleus, oculomotor nucleus, Meynert nucleus, putamen, and thalamus. What was interesting was marked neuronal loss of the pontine nuclei, demyelination of the pontocerebellar fiber, and moderate neuronal loss of the cerebellar Purkinje neurons, a reminiscent of pontocerebellar atrophy. However, the inferior olivary nucleus was intact." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0371_17437", "title": "Successful use of donepezil for the treatment of dementia with Lewy bodies.", "score": 0.012191528545119706, "content": "To report a case of the successful use of donepezil for treatment of cognitive and noncognitive symptoms in a patient with dementia with Lewy bodies. CASE SUMARY: An 86-year-old white woman with dementia was experiencing early-onset significant fluctuation of her cognitive status, functional impairment, visual hallucinations, aggression, and parkinsonism. She was intially diagnosed with Alzheimer disease and Parkinsons disease and prescribed donepezil 5 mg/d and benztropine 1 mg twice daily. On reexamination of the case by a neurologist, the diagnoses were revised to dementia with Lewy bodies. The benztropine was discontinued, and donepezil was increased to 10 mg/d. The patient's cognitive and functional status significantly improved, as did her visual hallucinations. This case supports previous reports of the marked responsiveness of patients with dementia with Lewy bodies to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. This may be explained by the marked cholinergic deficit observed in patients with dementia with Lewy bodies and the evidence linking cognitive as well as noncognitive symptoms to this deficit. The present case suggests that patients with dementia with Lewy bodies respond well to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. Controlled trials are necessary to further define the role of these drugs for this disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0702_23960", "title": "The clinical diagnosis of early-onset dementias: diagnostic accuracy and clinicopathological relationships.", "score": 0.012020202020202021, "content": "Accuracy of clinical diagnosis of dementia is increasingly important for therapeutic and scientific investigations. In this study, we examine diagnostic accuracy in a consecutive series of 228 patients referred to a specialist early-onset dementia clinic, whose brains were subsequently examined at post-mortem. Diagnosis was based on structured history, neurological examination and neuropsychological assessment, with emphasis on qualitative as well as quantitative aspects of performance. Neuroimaging provided support for but did not alter the clinical diagnosis. We set out the principles that guided diagnosis: (i) time course of illness; (ii) weighting of physical, behavioural and cognitive symptoms and signs; (iii) 'anterior' versus 'posterior' hemisphere character of cognitive change; and (iv) specificity of deficit, paying attention to the differentiation between syndromes of frontotemporal lobar degeneration and focal forms of Alzheimer's disease. Forty-two per cent of the patients had clinical diagnoses of one of the syndromes of frontotemporal lobar degeneration, the high proportion reflecting the research interests of the group. Forty-six per cent were diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease and the remaining patients, dementia with Lewy bodies, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, vascular or unclassified dementia. Frontotemporal lobar degeneration was identified with 100% sensitivity and 97% specificity and Alzheimer's disease with 97% sensitivity and 100% specificity. Patients with other pathologies were accurately identified on clinical grounds. Examination of subsyndromes of frontotemporal lobar degeneration showed a relatively predictable relationship between clinical diagnosis and pathological subtype. Whereas the behavioural disorder of frontotemporal dementia was associated with tau, transactive response DNA binding protein 43 and fused-in-sarcoma pathology, cases of frontotemporal dementia with motoneuron disease, semantic dementia and, with one exception, progressive non-fluent aphasia were associated with transactive response DNA binding protein 43 pathology, distinguished by ubiquitin subtyping (types B, C and A, respectively). Clinical diagnoses of progressive apraxia, corticobasal degeneration and progressive supranuclear palsy were, with one exception, associated with Pick, corticobasal and progressive supranuclear palsy subtypes of tau pathology, respectively. Unanticipated findings included Alzheimer pathology in two patients presenting with the behavioural syndrome of frontotemporal dementia and corticobasal pathology in four others with clinical frontotemporal dementia. Notwithstanding such anomalies, which serve as a reminder that there is not an absolute concordance between clinical phenotype and underlying pathology, the findings show that dementias can be distinguished in life with a high level of accuracy. Moreover, careful clinical phenotyping allows prediction of histopathological subtype of frontotemporal lobar degeneration. The principles guiding diagnosis provide the foundation for future prospective studies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0931_8886", "title": "Applicability of long-term electroencephalography in pre-mortem diagnosis of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease: A case report.", "score": 0.01173604200267664, "content": "Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease accounts for more than 90% of all sporadic prion disease cases. The molecular MM2 genotype has been divided into cortical and thalamic subtypes based on structures involved and is characterized clinically by progressive dementia without ataxia or typical electroencephalography changes. Proposed diagnostic criteria for MM2 cortical type sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease include progressive dementia, cortical hyper-intensity on diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging, increased cerebrospinal fluid 14-3-3 protein level, and the exclusion of other types of dementia. The presence of periodic discharges on electroencephalography in MM2 cortical type were reported in 42% of the cases. We are reporting a case of sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease cortical MM2-type presenting with rapid cognitive decline, who survived 8 months since symptom onset. Brain imaging, cerebrospinal fluid analysis, and long-term electroencephalography monitoring were obtained and diagnosis was confirmed by autopsy. Short-term electroencephalography recording, performed 5 months after symptom onset, demonstrated diffuse background slowing without epileptiform activity. Long-term video electroencephalography monitoring demonstrated generalized slowing, maximum in bilateral frontal areas, which intermittently would become rhythmic (1-2 Hz) without hemispheric predominance. If the findings do not clearly meet the proposed clinical criteria for sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, the use of long-term electroencephalography could increase the sensitivity. We question whether the lack of the characteristic findings on electroencephalography in some cases could be due to insufficient time of recording. Application of long-term electroencephalography monitoring increases the sensitivity of electroencephalography and the certainty of pre-mortem diagnosis of sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0955_4309", "title": "Probable Lewy Body Dementia with a Predilection for Auditory Hallucinations.", "score": 0.011248981638152534, "content": "The patient was a 60-year-old male who initially presented to the emergency room with extreme agitation aggravated by internal stimuli as well as visual hallucinations, paranoia, and grandiose delusions. He was diagnosed with nonspecific schizophrenia and treated with risperidone, trazodone, and lithium. Approximately 16 months later, he was readmitted to the hospital trying to enter a stranger's car that he thought was his. He was confused and was unable to give an accurate history. His psychomotor retardation and confusion were thought to be due to risperidone. When his dose was decreased, he displayed involuntary movements of the mouth and extremities, restlessness, and a patting of his head. The risperidone was switched to zyprexa in an effort to decrease extrapyramidal symptoms. About two months later, he was found unresponsive and catatonic in his car. During his stay, the patient had a fluctuation in the latency of his responses on a daily basis. He would be aware of where he was but was unable to explain why or for how long. He had a difficult time remembering names and was still exhibiting abnormal involuntary movements around the mouth and extremities. The patient's course of initial predominantly auditory and visual hallucinations that progressed to extrapyramidal symptoms and fluctuating cognition one year later may suggest Lewy body dementia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_79514", "title": "Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease", "score": 0.011142721669037459, "content": "Signs and symptoms The first symptom of CJD is usually rapidly progressive dementia, leading to memory loss, personality changes, and hallucinations. Myoclonus (jerky movements) typically occurs in 90% of cases, but may be absent at initial onset. Other frequently occurring features include anxiety, depression, paranoia, obsessive-compulsive symptoms, and psychosis. This is accompanied by physical problems such as speech impairment, balance and coordination dysfunction (ataxia), changes in gait, and rigid posture. In most people with CJD, these symptoms are accompanied by involuntary movements. The duration of the disease varies greatly, but sporadic (non-inherited) CJD can be fatal within months or even weeks. Most victims die six months after initial symptoms appear, often of pneumonia due to impaired coughing reflexes. About 15% of people with CJD survive for two or more years." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_99603", "title": "Dementia with Lewy bodies", "score": 0.010509860509860509, "content": "Frontotemporal dementias Corticobasal syndrome, corticobasal degeneration and progressive supranuclear palsy are frontotemporal dementias with features of parkinsonism and impaired cognition. Similar to DLB, imaging may show reduced dopamine transporter uptake. Corticobasal syndrome and degeneration, and progressive supranuclear palsy, are usually distinguished from DLB by history and examination. Motor movements in corticobasal syndrome are asymmetrical. There are differences in posture, gaze and facial expressions in the most common variants of progressive supranuclear palsy, and falling backwards is more common relative to DLB. Visual hallucinations and fluctuating cognition are unusual in corticobasal degeneration and progressive supranuclear palsy. Management" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en509_25127", "title": "Alzheimer Society of Ireland", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The Alzheimer Society of Ireland also operates the Alzheimer National Helpline, offering information and support to anyone affected by dementia on 1800 341 341. Activities The Alzheimer Society of Ireland provides services such as the Alzheimer National Helpline, Social Clubs, Support Groups, Day Care Services, Home Care, Dementia Advisor Service and the Mobile Information Bus. The charity does not exclusively help people with Alzheimer's disease. There are many types of dementia, which is an umbrella term. Dementia types include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, frontotemporal dementia, Korsakoff's syndrome, Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease, HIV related cognitive impairment, mild cognitive impairment, and other rarer causes of dementia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0536_20625", "title": "[Changeover to risperidone after treatment with conventional low potency neuroleptics in dementia patients. An observation study during usage].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Up to 90% of the patients with dementia develop behavioral and psychological symptoms during the course of their illness. Since 1999 the atypical neuroleptic risperidone is the only drug approved by the German authorities for the treatment of aggressive behavior or psychotic symptoms of dementia, which was defined in March 2004 with respect to severe chronic aggressive behavior, endangering themselves or others, or impoverishing psychotic symptoms. This prospective investigation was aimed at detecting therapeutic efficacy and the tolerability of risperidone after changing from low-potency neuroleptics in patients, for whom the broader indications before March 2004 were still valid. Symptoms, activities of daily living and caregivers\" burden were documented for 6 weeks in 111 demented patients with chronic aggressive behavior and psychotic symptoms. Marked improvements of psychotic symptoms, aggressiveness, other behavioral disorders and activities of daily living were observed. Furthermore, a substantial reduction of caregivers' burden was noted. The treatment with risperidone was well tolerated. No patient died and no cerebrovascular events were observed. Changing the treatment of demented patients from low-potency neuroleptics to risperidone led to marked improvement of symptoms and to a substantial decrease of caregivers' burden." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0043_12291", "title": "[A clinicopathological study on 13 cases of motor neuron disease with dementia].", "score": 0.009805924412665985, "content": "Thirteen patients suffering from motor neuron disease with dementia were studied to analyze the clinicopathological spectrum. The diagnosis of the disease was made on the basis of a clinical history of progressive dementia and motor neuron involvement. The mean age at onset of 11 sporadic cases was 54.9 years (range, 43 to 69 years), with a mean duration of disease of 25 months (range, 11 to 47 months). The initial symptoms were dementia in 7 cases, motor neuron involvement in 2 cases, and both dementia and motor neuron involvement in 2 cases. The clinical picture of motor neuron disturbance in sporadic cases represented bulbar-type of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Bulbar palsy was the initial symptom in 7 sporadic cases and all 11 patients developed bulbar palsy with advancing course of illness. Muscular wasting and fasciculation were more predominant in the upper limbs, shoulder girdle and anterior chest. Fasciculation was more extensively and frequently observed in those portions than that of classical ALS. In contrast, muscle strength in the lower limbs was well preserved so that all patients could walk even when respiratory failure developed. Hyperreflexia including jaw jerk was found in all cases and positive Babinski sign in 7 cases. Parkinsonism appeared in the initial stage in one sporadic case and in two familial cases. The type of dementia with uninhibited behavior and personality change closely mimicked that of Pick's disease. The degree of dementia was mild or moderate in 8 cases and severe in 3 cases. Language disorder was characterized by progressive reduction of speech output, leading finally to mutism in 5 cases. Perseveration was observed in 10 cases. Visuospatial disorder was absent even in the advanced stage. Mild memory disturbance was noted in the early stage in 10 cases. Pathological examination was performed in 7 cases including one familial case, revealing frontal atrophy in 3 cases, frontotemporal atrophy in 2 cases and temporal atrophy in 2 cases. On microscopic examination there were mild neuronal loss, gliosis, mild spongy state of the cortical superficial layers and fibrous gliosis in the frontotemporal white matter. The scattered senile plaques in one case did not justify a diagnosis of Alzheimer's type dementia. Neither circumscribed atrophy nor Pick body was found in any case. The nucleus basalis of Meynert showed no neuronal loss. The substantia nigra showed a mild to severe loss of nerve cells without Lewy bodies in all cases.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_15728", "title": "Alzheimer's Society", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Alzheimer's Society is a United Kingdom care and research charity for people with dementia and their carers. It operates in England, Wales and Northern Ireland, while its sister charities Alzheimer Scotland and Alzheimer's Society of Ireland cover Scotland and the Republic of Ireland respectively. Despite its name, the charity does not exclusively help people with Alzheimer's disease. There are many types of dementia, which is an umbrella term. Dementia types include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, frontotemporal dementia, Korsakoff's syndrome, Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease, HIV-related cognitive impairment, mild cognitive impairment, and other rarer causes of dementia. It is a membership organisation, which works to improve the quality of life of people affected by dementia in England, Wales and Northern Ireland. Many of the 25,000 members have personal experience of dementia, as carers, health professionals or people with dementia themselves." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0961_25630", "title": "Rapidly Progressive Dementia in the Outpatient Clinic: More Than Prions.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Published approaches to the evaluation and management of patients with rapidly progressive dementia (RPD) have been largely informed by experience at academic hospitals and national centers specializing in the diagnosis of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Whether these approaches can be applied to patients assessed within lower-acuity outpatient settings is unknown. A total of 96 patients with suspected RPD were assessed within the Washington University School of Medicine (Saint Louis, MO) outpatient memory clinic from February 2006 to February 2016. Consensus etiologic diagnoses were established following independent review of clinical data by 2 dementia specialists. In total, 67/90 (70%) patients manifested with faster-than-expected cognitive decline leading to dementia within 2 years of symptom onset. Female sex (42/67, 63%), median patient age (68.3 y; range, 45.4 to 89.6), and years of education (12 y; range, 6 to 14) were consistent with clinic demographics. Atypical presentations of common neurodegenerative dementing illnesses accounted for 90% (60/67) of RPD cases. Older age predicted a higher odds of amnestic Alzheimer disease dementia (OR, 2.1 per decade; 95% CI, 1.1-3.8; P=0.02). Parkinsonism (OR, 6.9; 95% CI, 1.6-30.5; P=0.01) or cortical visual dysfunction (OR, 10.8; 95% CI, 1.7-69.4; P=0.01) predicted higher odds of another neurodegenerative cause of RPD, including sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. The clinical environment influences the prevalence of RPD causes. The clinical evaluation should be adapted to promote detection of common causes of RPD, specific to the practice setting." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_276341", "title": "Dementia", "score": 0.00975886524822695, "content": "Many other medical and neurological conditions include dementia only late in the illness. For example, a proportion of patients with Parkinson's disease develop dementia, though widely varying figures are quoted for this proportion. When dementia occurs in Parkinson's disease, the underlying cause may be dementia with Lewy bodies or Alzheimer's disease, or both. Cognitive impairment also occurs in the Parkinson-plus syndromes of progressive supranuclear palsy and corticobasal degeneration (and the same underlying pathology may cause the clinical syndromes of frontotemporal lobar degeneration). Although the acute porphyrias may cause episodes of confusion and psychiatric disturbance, dementia is a rare feature of these rare diseases. Limbic-predominant age-related TDP-43 encephalopathy (LATE) is a type of dementia that primarily affects people in their 80s or 90s and in which TDP-43 protein deposits in the limbic portion of the brain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0701_13247", "title": "[Two new cases of sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in Madrid, Spain].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy, in which there is typically an accumulation of an altered isoform of the prion protein in the brain. The sporadic form is characterised by presenting a rapidly progressive dementia, with signs and symptoms of pyramidal, extrapyramidal, cerebellar and cortical involvement, as well as the presence of myoclonias. Diagnosis is based on the clinical findings in combination with the typical results of an electroencephalogram, cerebrospinal fluid study or neuroimaging. We report two cases detected between the years 2008 and 2010 in the Hospital del Henares, in Coslada, Madrid. Case 1: a female with progressive loss of strength in her limbs, change in her behaviour with mood swings and a tendency towards seeking to isolate herself. Although initially considered a psychiatric patient, in the months that followed she became absolutely immobile with a tendency towards mutism. Death occurred six months after the onset of symptoms. Case 2: a male with a progressive picture of altered vision in the form of right homonymous hemianopia, difficulty in verbally expressing language, dizziness and instability. The patient gradually developed a cerebellar syndrome with generalised myoclonias until his death, 10 weeks after the onset of symptoms. In both cases, the electroencephalogram showed a typical pattern and 14-3-3 protein was positive in the cerebrospinal fluid study. Such a high incidence over such a short period of time and in a health district of barely 170,000 inhabitants seems rather surprising." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en549_10562", "title": "Corticobasal syndrome", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The diagnosis is excluded if there is evidence of: Lewy body disease multiple system atrophy Alzheimer's disease amyotrophic lateral sclerosis semantic or logopenic variant primary progressive aphasia structural lesion suggestive of focal cause granulin mutation or reduced plasma progranulin levels TDP-43 or fused in sarcoma (FUS) mutations The diagnostic criteria for clinical use may result in a misdiagnosis of other tau-based diseases. The probable criteria are proposed for clinical research. Differential Other degenerative pathologies that can cause corticobasal syndrome include: Alzheimer's disease Pick's disease with Pick bodies Lewy body dementias Neurofilament inclusion body disease Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease Frontotemporal degeneration due to progranulin gene mutation Motor neuron disease‐inclusion dementia. The symptoms of classic CBS differ from CBD in that CBD also includes cognitive deficits in the executive functions. Prognosis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0079_18913", "title": "[Primary degeneration of the thalamus with dementia--2 cases with family background].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "This is a report on two male patients aged 22 and 43 years, respectively, who developed a fatal progressive demential syndrome that lead to the death of one after 16 months and of the other patient after 25 months and that presented with the typical clinical pattern of \"subcortical dementia\". In both the cases, the hospital had suspected Creutzfeldt-Jacob's disease but this was not confirmed by microscopy of the tissue; the typical form of manifestation was absent. Instead, microscopy of the brain revealed a marked symmetric degeneration of the thalamus with special preference given to the anterior and media nuclear groups. Predilection for the neothalamic against the palaeothalamic and archithalamic structures produced a very strong impression of a system-related thalamic degeneration process of the type occasionally discussed on the basis of similar observations. Parallel to the atrophic process there were also degenerative changes that were less pronounced, in the rubro-olivo-cerebellar system and in one case a moderately pronounced involvement of the second motor neuron. Both observations of a \"thalamic dementia\" are discussed against the background of relevant literature published so far on the subject." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_276387", "title": "Dementia", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The most common type of dementia is Alzheimer's disease. Other common types include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include normal pressure hydrocephalus, Parkinson's disease dementia, syphilis, HIV, and Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0259_5280", "title": "[Care for patients with Pick's disease--by using their preserved procedural memory].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Pick's disease are more often complicated than Alzheimer's disease by behavioral disturbances such as social misconduct and stereotypy, that are troublesome and clinically difficult to manage. The purpose of this study was to investigate the possibility of improvement in care for patients with Pick's disease by using their presumably preserved procedural memory. Four inpatients and two outpatients with Pick's disease were studied. Case 1: A 54-year-old right-handed retired clerk presented with a 3-year history of increasing restlessness, word-finding difficulty and impaired comprehension of nominal terms. He was forced to retire from his work because of his social misconduct and incommunicability. On admission he wandered about the ward irritably, did not enter into any conversation, and destroyed all keys in the ward by putting a pencil into keyholes. Neuroradiological examination revealed circumscribed bilateral frontotemporal atrophy which was more marked on the left side. However, he has become more adaptive to the life in the ward and his expression has become peaceful since he began to play othello games with other patients and his doctors. Case 2: A 71-year-old right-handed housewife had progressively altered in her personality and behavior over 4 years. She was restless and showed striking palilalia with marked right frontotemporal atrophy when initially evaluated 2 years after her initial symptoms. Subsequently, her verbal output decreased. She ate large amounts of food and her overweight became a serious problem in her care at home. On admission she wandered about the ward irritably, ate meals of other patients, and put on a quilt on their head. However, these troublesome behavior disappeared when she was bent on knitting that was her former hobby. Case 3: A 63-year-old right handed physician presented with a 5-year history of increasing word-finding difficulty and impaired comprehension of nominal terms. His conversation was limited to continuous repetition of a few phrases. He wandered into several hospitals around his house in fixed order every day. On examination, he was mildly disinhibited and distractible with circumscribed bilateral frontotemporal atrophy which was more marked on the left side. Wandering away from home overnight necessitated admission to the hospital. In the ward he wandered about and tried to open each door restlessly and irritably. However, he has become calm and his expression has become peaceful since he was conducted to measure blood pressures of his nurses. Case 4: A 65-year-old right-handed retired office worker.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en518_5765", "title": "Neuroscience of aging", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "DNA damage Certain genes of the human frontal cortex display reduced transcriptional expression after age 40, and especially after age 70. In particular, genes that have central roles in synaptic plasticity display reduced expression with age. The promoters of genes with reduced expression in the cortex of older individuals have a marked increase in DNA damage, likely oxidative DNA damage. Pathological changes Roughly 20% of persons greater than 60 years of age have a neurological disorder, with episodic disorders being the most common followed by extrapyramidal movement disorders, and nerve disorders. Diseases commonly associated with old age include Multiple system atrophy Parkinson's disease Alzheimer's disease Stroke. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease Frontotemporal Dementia Dementia with Lewy bodies Corticobasal Degeneration Transient ischemic attack Vascular dementia" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0946_1960", "title": "Low mood, visual hallucinations, and falls - heralding the onset of rapidly progressive probable sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in a 73-year old: a case report.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare and rapidly fatal neurodegenerative disease. Since clinicians may see only very few cases during their professional career, it is important to be familiar with the clinical presentation and progression, to perform appropriate investigations, and allow for quick diagnosis. A 73-year-old British Caucasian woman presented with acute confusion of 2 weeks' duration on a background of low mood following a recent bereavement. Her symptoms included behavioral change, visual hallucinations, vertigo, and recent falls. She was mildly confused, with left-sided hyperreflexia, a wide-based gait, and intention tremor in her left upper limb. Initial blood tests, computed tomography, and magnetic resonance imaging of her brain showed no significant abnormality. Following admission, she had rapid cognitive decline and developed florid and progressive neurological signs; a diagnosis of prion disease was suspected. A lumbar puncture was performed; cerebrospinal fluid was positive for 14-3-3 protein, real-time quaking-induced conversion, and raised levels of s-100b proteins were detected. An electroencephalogram showed bilateral periodic triphasic waves on a slow background. The diagnosis of probable Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease was made. This case report highlights key features in the initial presentation and clinical development of a rare but invariably rapidly progressive and fatal disease. It emphasizes the importance of considering a unifying diagnosis for multifaceted clinical presentations. Although it is very rare, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease should be considered a diagnosis for a mixed neuropsychiatric presentation, particularly with rapid progressive cognitive decline and development of neurological signs. However, to avoid overlooking early signal change on magnetic resonance imaging, it is important to take diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging for all patients with neuropsychological symptoms. Importantly, early diagnosis also ensures the arrangement of suitable contamination control measures to minimize the risk of infection to health care professionals and other patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en262_22450", "title": "Pimavanserin", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "On June 29, 2018 the FDA approved new dosages of pimavanserin to treat hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson’s disease psychosis. A 34 mg capsule and 10 mg tablet formulation were approved. Previously, patients were required to take two 17 mg tablets to achieve the recommenced 34 mg dose per day. The 10 mg dose is indicated for patients also taking CYP3A4 inhibitors (eg. ketoconazole). HARMONY-Trial In a phase 3, double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial (ClinicalTrials.gov number NTC03325556) pimavanserin was applicated in patients with dementia-related psychosis. The dementia was caused by Alzheimer's disease, dementia with Lewy bodies, frontotemporal dementia, Parkinson's disease with dementia, or vascular dementia. The trial was stopped early for efficacy. Patients treated with pimavanserin had a relapse in 13 %, without in 28% (hazard ratio 0.35; 95 % - CI = 0.17-0.73; p= 0.005). Longer and larger trials are suggested." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en019_111288", "title": "Human brain", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Disease Neurodegenerative diseases result in progressive damage to different parts of the brain's function, and worsen with age. Common examples include dementia such as Alzheimer's disease, alcoholic dementia or vascular dementia; Parkinson's disease; and other rarer infectious, genetic, or metabolic causes such as Huntington's disease, motor neuron diseases, HIV dementia, syphilis-related dementia and Wilson's disease. Neurodegenerative diseases can affect different parts of the brain, and can affect movement, memory, and cognition. The brain, although protected by the blood–brain barrier, can be affected by infections including viruses, bacteria and fungi. Infection may be of the meninges (meningitis), the brain matter (encephalitis), or within the brain matter (such as a cerebral abscess). Rare prion diseases including Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease and its variant, and kuru may also affect the brain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0885_7523", "title": "[Reconciliating neurology and psychiatry: The prototypical case of frontotemporal dementia].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Frontotemporal degeneration (FTD) in its behavioral variant (bvFTD) is probably one of the conditions that best illustrates the links between psychiatry and neurology. It is indeed admitted that between a third and half of patients with this condition, especially in early-onset forms, receive an initial diagnosis of psychiatric disorder (depression, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder) and are then referred to a psychiatric ward. BvFTD can thus be considered a neurological disorder with a psychiatric presentation. Among psychiatric symptoms reported in this disease, psychotic symptoms (hallucinations, delusions, especially of persecution), which have long been underestimated in bvFTD and are not part of the current diagnostic criteria, are present in about 20% of cases and may be inaugural. They are particularly common in the genetic forms related to a mutation in the C9orf72 gene (up to 50%), and to a lesser extent in the GRN gene (up to 25%). C9orf72 gene mutation is often associated with a family history of dementia or motor neuron disease but also of psychiatric disorders. It has also been described in sporadic presentation forms. Sometimes, the moderate degree of brain atrophy on MRI described in patients carrying this mutation may complicate the differential diagnosis with late-onset psychiatric diseases. In the present article, we underline the importance of considering that psychiatric - especially psychotic - symptoms are not rare in bvFTD, which should lead to a revision of the diagnostic criteria of this disease by taking greater account of this fact. We also propose a diagnostic chart, based on concerted evaluation by neurologists and psychiatrists for cases of atypical psychiatric symptoms (late-onset or pharmacoresistant troubles) leading to consider the possibility of a neurological disorder, in order to shed a new light on these difficult clinical situations. In the field of research, bvFTD may constitute a model to explore the neural basis of certain psychiatric disorders, and a possible molecular link between bvFTD and psychoses, which could eventually lead to new therapeutic approaches, has been recently suggested. Thus, bvFTD illustrates how the links between neurology and psychiatry are close and tend to evolve with the progress of scientific knowledge. It is necessary to strengthen collaboration between the two disciplines both to improve the care - diagnosis and management of these patients - and to promote the emergence of innovative clinical research." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en454_5446", "title": "Mini-SEA", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The mini-SEA (mini-Social cognition & Emotional Assessment) is a neuropsychological battery aiming to evaluate the impairment of the social and emotional cognition. Developed by Maxime Bertoux in 2012, the mini-SEA has been preferentially designed for the assessment, follow-up and diagnosis of neurodegenerative diseases such as the frontotemporal dementia, but is more generally designed to evaluate the integrity of the frontal lobes. Constituents of the mini-SEA The estimation completion time for the mini-SEA is 30 minutes. The whole battery is composed from two subtests : (1) a reduced and modified version of the Faux-Pas test, assessing Theory of Mind and (2) a facial emotions recognition test. Both tests are among the most sensitive and specific tests for the diagnosis of the frontotemporal dementia and accurately discriminate frontotemporal dementia patients from controls or patients with Alzheimer's disease. Brain regions involved" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0036_9396", "title": "[Electro-clinical evolution of cerebral spongiosis].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Electroencephalogram was repeated about every third week in the last five months' course of a spongiform encephalopathy, Creutzfeldt-Jakob type. This confirms the interest of EEG and its diagnostic value in certain presenile dementias. The appearance of triphasic stereotyped complexes with a short periodic interval is the fundamental pattern allowing to predict, then to assess, the diagnosis. Our study is based upon 14 polygraphic records (including EEG, respiratory rhythm, ocular movements and limbs' actogram); compared with previous studies from the literature it shows some pecularities: - periodic discharges with an interval of about one second appearing early, i.e. before the clinical picture became typical, -lack of any change under the influence of various drugs and stimulations, - stability of the pattern throughout the whole course of the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0679_17059", "title": "Rapidly progressive dementias and the treatment of human prion diseases.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Rapidly progressive dementia (RPD) has many possible etiologies and definitive treatment is reliant upon an accurate diagnosis from an appropriate diagnostic work-up. A large portion of the neurodegenerative causes of RPD are due to prion diseases (e.g., Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease). The study of prion diseases, for which there is no currently available treatment, has public health implications and is becoming increasingly more relevant to our understanding of other protein misfolding disorders including Alzheimer's disease, frontotemporal degeneration, and Parkinson's disease. This article begins with an overview of the etiologies and diagnostic work-up of RPD followed by a detailed review of the literature concerning the treatment of human prion diseases (1971 to present). The reader will understand the differential diagnosis and work-up of RPD as it pertains to its treatment, as well as an in-depth understanding of treatments of human prion diseases. An accurate diagnosis of the cause of RPD is of paramount importance when determining appropriate treatment. Most studies of the treatment for human prion diseases are case reports or case series, and results from only one randomized, placebo-controlled study have been reported in the literature (flupirtine). Studies have been hindered by disease heterogeneity and lack of standardized outcome measures. Although no effective prion disease treatment has been revealed through these studies, they provide important considerations for future studies." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en539_16847", "title": "Clive Ballard", "score": 0.009032424560821397, "content": "---., et al. Diagnosis and management of dementia with Lewy bodies: third report of the DLB Consortium. Neurology, Dec 2005, 65 (12). ---., et al. Evaluation of the safety, tolerability, and efficacy of pimavanserin versus placebo in patients with Alzheimer's disease psychosis: a phase 2, randomised, placebo-controlled, double-blind study. The Lancet Neurology, Volume 17, Issue 3. ---., et al. Impact of person-centred care training and person-centred activities on quality of life, agitation, and antipsychotic use in people with dementia living in nursing homes: A cluster-randomised controlled trial. PLOS Medicine 15(2): e1002500. ---., et al. Cognitive decline in Parkinson disease. Nature Reviews Neurology, volume 13. ---., et al. Dementia prevention, intervention, and care. The Lancet, Volume 390, Issue 10113." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en491_26173", "title": "Early onset dementia", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Early onset dementia is dementia in which symptoms first appear before the age of 65. The term favored until about 2000 was presenile dementia; young onset dementia is also used. Early onset dementia may be caused by degenerative or vascular disease, or it may be due to other causes, such as alcohol-related dementia and other inflammatory or infectious processes. Early-onset Alzheimer's disease, vascular dementia and frontotemporal lobar degeneration are the most common forms of early onset dementia, with Alzheimer's accounting for between 30 and 40%. Early onset dementia may also occur, less frequently, in the Lewy body dementias (dementia with Lewy bodies and Parkinson's disease dementia), multiple sclerosis, Huntington's disease and other conditions. References Further reading Cognitive disorders Dementia" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1155_14764", "title": "An Indonesian elderly with primary progressive aphasia and behavioral variant of frontotemporal dementia: A case report and review article.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) or Pick's disease, is the second most frequent cause of primary degenerative dementia in those between 55 and 65 years old. A 57-year-old Indonesian female reported family that six months until one year prior to the presentation of her first symptoms, the patient had problems with memory, particularly short-term memory loss, with the patient unable to remember the task she was doing on time. The electroencephalogram revealed slowing background cerebral activity and diffuse slowing activity, indicating encephalopathy diffuse moderate state. CSF showed no pleocytosis and no elevated CSF Protein, but we did not perform tau level. She underwent brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) because of her aggression and impulsiveness. Brain MRI was notable for bilateral frontal and temporal atrophy. Incidentally, there was the leptomeningeal enhancement of the bilateral frontotemporal lobe. The patients were administered Haloperidol 0.5 mg orally twice daily, Donepezil 5 mg oral once daily, Aripiprazole 2.5 mg once daily, and Memantine 10 mg twice daily. The patient was discharged one week after admission and was started on antiviral therapy Acyclovir 800 mg 5 times a day for 14 days. The patient had shown more cooperative and less agitative. We report that FTD aims to help improve effective management. Awareness of FTD needs to be increased even though this case is sporadic because it does not demand the possibility of this case occurring at a young age." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Instruct her to go to the waiting room. You will be notified for tests.", "2": "This patient should be treated in the vital emergency room (shock room).", "3": "We will notify the cardiologist on duty to evaluate the patient.", "4": "From the Triage consultation, the patient will be referred to the Coronary Unit.", "5": "We will do an ECG in less than 10 minutes." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0824_24077", "title": "Breaking bad (news) death-telling in the emergency department.", "score": 0.016946778711484593, "content": "Many physicians struggle with death-telling in sudden death. Families can be negatively impacted by suboptimal death-telling. Appropriate preparation and education can make death notification less stressful for the physician and may help decrease the development of pathologic grief in the surviving family members that can occur when death is unexpected. Although still controversial, there is a growing body of evidence that family witnessed resuscitation may be beneficial to the grieving process and desired by the public. A previously healthy 21-year-old male comes toyour community emergency department (ED) for a cough that started 4 days ago. He denies fever, shortness of breath, and chest pain. He does admit to a remote history of drug abuse. He states he is feeling \"OK\" and is only here because his family insisted he come because they were worried he might have pneumonia. His vital signs are normal and he appears well; therefore, he is triaged to the waiting room. About 30 minutes lates the patient complains of shortness of breath and he is brought back to an exam room. The patient is now hypotensive, tachycardic, and pulse oximetry is noted to be 87% on room air. A chest x-ray reveals severe pulmonary edema and an EKG shows ST segment elevation in multiple leads. The patient is taken to the cardiac catheterization lab by the interventional cardiologist, who makes the diagnosis of a ruptured aortic valve due to damage from endocarditis. The patient is returned to the ED to await emergent transfer to a tertiary facility; however, the patient rapidly decompensates and a Code Blue is called. Despite the absence of return of spontaneous circulation, resuscitation efforts are prolonged while the ED social worker attempts to contact the patient's family to come to the ED. Finally, the resuscitation is terminated and the patient is pronounced dead. Several hours later the patient's elderly mother arrives and asks you: \"What's going on with Mikey?\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0566_6692", "title": "Electrocardiographic recording and timeliness of clinician evaluation in the emergency department in patients presenting with chest pain.", "score": 0.015938890893780824, "content": "Acute chest pain (CP), a leading symptom of persons presenting to emergency departments (EDs), may represent a life-threatening emergency or nonurgent condition requiring routine outpatient follow-up. In either case, rapid provision of an electrocardiogram and clinician evaluation are essential for determining appropriate treatment or discharge from the ED. Data from the National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey were used to estimate the proportion of hospital ED visits for a chief symptom of CP in adults aged &gt;or=25 years with documentation of both an electrocardiogram and mean and/or median wait time to see a clinician in the ED. In 2004, adults aged &gt;or=25 years made nearly 5.3 million (men 2.5, women 2.8) CP-ED visits. Patients arrived by means of ambulance in only 25% of visits. Overall, a quarter of the patients with CP visits waited &lt;10 minutes to see a physician in 2003 to 2004. Mean wait time was 36 +/- 1.7 (SE) minutes, an increase of 5 minutes from that in 1997 to 1998. In 2003 to 2004, provision of an electrocardiogram was documented for about 80% of all patients with CP-related ED visits and 90% of those with visits for undifferentiated or cardiac CP. The odds of having an electrocardiogram taken in the ED increased (p &lt;or=0.05) for older adults, men, and those triaged as emergency cases (vs unknown or no triage) or who waited &lt;10 minutes to see a physician (vs &gt;or=10-minute wait time). A large proportion of visits were for undifferentiated CP (54%). Cardiac CP accounted for 16% (3% ischemic) and noncardiac CP accounted for 30% of visits. Median wait times for a physician were 12 minutes for those with ischemic CP, 15 minutes for those with other cardiac CP, 18 minutes for those with undifferentiated CP, and 25 minutes for those with noncardiac CP. From 1993 to 2004, ED visits for CP increased for younger (25 to 64 years) adults (1993: 15.6 per 1,000 population, 2.5 million visits vs 2004: 20.9 per 1,000, 4.0 million) and decreased for older adults (&gt;or=65 years) (1993: 9.7 per 1,000; 1.5 million vs 2004: 7.3 per 1,000; 1.3 million). In conclusion, most ED patient visits for undifferentiated and cardiac CP included an electrocardiogram and timely clinician evaluation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0546_14715", "title": "Initial experience with a cardiologist-based chest pain unit in an emergency department in Israel.", "score": 0.015318168730204435, "content": "Emergency room triage of patients presenting with chest pain syndromes may be difficult. Under-diagnosis may be dangerous, while over-diagnosis may be costly. To report our initial experience with an emergency room cardiologist-based chest pain unit in Israel. During a 5 week pilot study, we examined resource utilization and ER diagnosis in 124 patients with chest pain of uncertain etiology or non-high risk acute coronary syndrome. First assessment was performed by the ER physicians and was followed by a second assessment by the CPU team. Assessment was based on the following parameters: medical history and examination, serial electrocardiography, hematology, biochemistry and biomarkers for ACS, exercise stress testing and/or 64-slice multi-detector cardiac computed tomography angiography. Changes in decision between initial assessment and final CPU assessment with regard to hospitalization and utilization of resources were recorded. All patients had at least two cardiac troponin T measurements, 19 underwent EST, 9 echocardiography and 29 cardiac MDCT. Fourteen patients were referred for early cardiac catheterization (same/next day). A specific working diagnosis was reached in 71/84 patients hospitalized, including unstable angina in 39 (31%) and non-ST elevation myocardial infarction in 12 (10%). Following CPU assessment, 40/124 patients (32%) were discharged, 49 (39%) were admitted to Internal Medicine and 35 (28%) to the Cardiology departments. CPU assessment and extended resources allowed discharge of 30/101 patients (30%) who were initially identified as candidates for hospitalization after ER assessment. Furthermore, 13/23 patients (56%) who were candidates for discharge after initial ER assessment were eventually hospitalized. Use of non-invasive tests was significantly greater in patients discharged from the ER (85% vs. 38% patients hospitalized) (P &lt; 0.0001). The mean ER stay tended to be longer (14.9 +/- 8.6 hours vs. 12.9 +/- 11, P = NS) for patients discharged. At 30 days follow-up, there were no adverse events (myocardial infarction or death) in any of the 40 patients discharged from the ER after CPU assessment. One patient returned to the ER because of chest pain and was discharged after reassessment. Our initial experience showed that an ER cardiologist-based chest pain unit improved assessment of patients presenting to the ER with chest pain, and enhanced appropriate use of diagnostic tests prior to a decision regarding admission/discharge from the ER." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en009_161880", "title": "Emergency department", "score": 0.013256234757296828, "content": "Most patients will be initially assessed at triage and then passed to another area of the department, or another area of the hospital, with their waiting time determined by their clinical need. However, some patients may complete their treatment at the triage stage, for instance, if the condition is very minor and can be treated quickly, if only advice is required, or if the emergency department is not a suitable point of care for the patient. Conversely, patients with evidently serious conditions, such as cardiac arrest, will bypass triage altogether and move straight to the appropriate part of the department." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1112_1091", "title": "Emergent cardiac outcomes in patients with normal electrocardiograms in the emergency department.", "score": 0.013018242122719735, "content": "Emergency physicians (EP) are frequently interrupted to screen electrocardiograms (ECG) from Emergency Department (ED) patients undergoing triage. Our objective was to identify discrepancies between the computer ECG interpretation and the cardiologist ECG interpretation and if any patients with normal ECGs underwent emergent cardiac intervention. We hypothesized that computer-interpreted normal ECGs do not require immediate review by an EP. This was a retrospective study of adult (≥ 18 years old) ED patients with computer-interpreted normal ECGs. Laboratory, diagnostic testing and clinical outcomes were abstracted following accepted methodologic guidelines. The primary outcome was emergent cardiac catheterization (within four hours of ED arrival). All ECGs underwent final cardiologist interpretation. When cardiology interpretation differed from the computer (discrepant ECG interpretation), the difference was classified as potentially clinically significant or not clinically significant. Data was described with simple descriptive statistics. 989 ECGs interpreted as normal by the computer were analyzed with a mean age of 50.4 ± 16.8 years (range 18-96 years) and 527 (53%) female. Discrepant ECG interpretations were identified in 184 cases including 124 (12.5%, 95% CI 10.4, 14.7%) not clinically significant and 60 (6.1%, 95% CI 4.6, 7.7%) potentially clinically significant. The 60 potentially clinically significant changes included: ST/T wave changes 45 (75%), T wave inversions 6 (10%), prolonged QT 3 (5%), and possible ischemia 10 (17%). Of these 60, 21 (35%) patients were admitted. Six patients had potassium levels &gt;6.0 mEq/L, with one having a potentially clinically significant ECG change. No patient (0%, 95% CI 0, 0.3%) underwent immediate (within four hours) cardiac catherization whereas two underwent delayed cardiac interventions. Cardiologists frequently disagree with a computer-interpreted normal ECG. Patients with computer-interpreted normal ECGs, however, rarely had significant ischemic events. A rare number of patients will have important cardiac outcomes regardless of the computer-generated normal ECG interpretation. Immediate EP review of the ECG, however, would not have changed these patients' ED courses." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0637_14781", "title": "Utility of the emergency department observation unit in ensuring stress testing in low-risk chest pain patients.", "score": 0.011878863220415068, "content": "Recent research has noted low rates of compliance among ED chest pain patients referred for outpatient stress testing. The practice at our institution, a 39,000 visits per year emergency department (ED), is to place chest pain patients considered low risk for acute coronary syndrome in an observation unit for serial biomarker testing and provocative cardiac testing. Our objective was to determine the rates of positive stress tests among this group and to extrapolate from this the potential missed positive stress tests if these patients were referred instead for outpatient stress testing. This was a retrospective chart review of all chest pain patients admitted to the ED observation unit between April 2006 and June 2007. Baseline information, including a history of coronary disease, was recorded. Patients underwent a treadmill stress test, nuclear stress test, or coronary CT scan at the discretion of the attending emergency physician and/or the consulting cardiologist. Rates of positive stress test or coronary CT and patient disposition (admission to an inpatient unit versus discharge for outpatient follow-up) were noted. A total of 353 patients underwent stress testing or coronary CT during the study period: 257 (72.8%) patients had an exercise treadmill echocardiogram, 61 (17.3%) patients underwent nuclear stress testing, and 35 (9.9%) patients had a coronary CT. Seventy patients (19.8%) had a history of coronary disease but had been considered appropriate for observation by the attending emergency physician. Thirty-nine stress tests were positive (11%) and 11 were indeterminate (3.1%). Among patients with no history of coronary disease, 20 stress tests were positive (7.1%), and 10 were indeterminate (3.5%). Of all patients with a positive stress test, 19 (48.7%) underwent cardiac catheterization and 1 (2.6%) had coronary artery bypass graft. Twenty-one of 39 patients with a positive stress test (54%) were ultimately admitted to an inpatient unit per the recommendation of the consulting cardiologist. Assuming a best-case scenario in which 70% of patients referred for outpatient stress testing actually have the testing done (based on a recent report of outpatient compliance), physicians would miss approximately 3.3% of patients with a positive stress test if these patients were discharged directly from the ED. Among chest pain patients admitted to an ED observation unit, the rate of positive stress tests was 11%. Approximately 3.3% of patients with positive stress tests may have been missed if these patients were instead referred for outpatient testing." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0074_11914", "title": "Impact of the availability of a prior electrocardiogram on the triage of the patient with acute chest pain.", "score": 0.011385380788365863, "content": "To determine whether information from a prior electrocardiogram (ECG) improves diagnostic accuracy in the emergency department (ED) evaluation of patients with acute chest pain. Analysis of prospectively collected data from a cohort study. Emergency departments of four community and three university hospitals. 5,673 patients aged greater than or equal to 30 years who presented to the EDs of participating hospitals for evaluation of acute chest pain, including 772 (14%) with acute myocardial infarction (AMI). After adjusting for clinical characteristics, no significant difference was found in the sensitivities of admission to the hospital or to the coronary care unit (CCU) between AMI patients with and without prior ECGs available for review. However, non-AMI patients with prior ECGs available for review were more likely to avoid CCU admission than were non-AMI patients without prior ECGs. This improvement in specificity was most marked in the 2,024 patients whose current ED ECGs had changes consistent with ischemia or infarction: when a prior ECG was available, non-AMI patients were more than twice as likely to be discharged (26% vs. 12%) and about 1.5 times as likely to avoid CCU admission (39% vs. 27%) (both p less than 0.0001). Admission rates of AMI patients with and without prior ECGs were similar. When the current ECG is consistent with ischemia or infarction, the availability of a prior ECG for comparison to determine whether the ECG changes are old or new improves diagnostic accuracy and triage decisions by reducing the admission of patients without AMI or acute ischemic heart disease (increased specificity) without reducing the admission of patients with these diagnoses (unchanged sensitivity)." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1385", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010952988517028167, "content": "Chest pain is common in outpatient practice, with a lifetime prevalence of 20–40% in the general population. More than 25% of patients with MI have had a related visit with a primary care physician in the previous month. The diagnostic principles are the same as in the ED. However, the pretest probability of an acute cardiopulmonary cause is significantly lower. Therefore, testing paradigms are less intense, with an emphasis on the history, physical examination, and ECG. Moreover, decision-aids developed for settings with a high prevalence of significant cardiopulmonary disease have lower positive predictive value when applied in the practitioner’s office. However, in general, if the level of clinical suspicion of ACS is sufficiently high to consider troponin testing, the patient should be referred to the ED for evaluation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0664_3885", "title": "Safety of assessment of patients with potential ischemic chest pain in an emergency department waiting room: a prospective comparative cohort study.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Emergency department (ED) crowding has been associated with a variety of adverse outcomes. Current guidelines suggest that patients with potentially ischemic chest pain should undergo rapid assessment and treatment in a monitored setting to optimize the diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome. These patients may be at high risk of incorrect diagnosis and adverse events when their evaluation is delayed because of crowding. To mitigate crowding-related delays, we developed processes that enabled emergency physicians to evaluate potentially sick patients in the waiting room when all nurse-staffed stretchers are occupied. The objective of this study was to investigate the safety of waiting room chest pain evaluation. This prospective comparative cohort study was conducted in a busy urban, tertiary care ED. Explicit triage and waiting room evaluation processes were introduced. One thousand one hundred seven patients with chest pain of potential cardiac origin were triaged either to a monitored bed or a waiting room chair, depending on bed availability and triage judgment. After diagnostic evaluation, patients were followed for 30 days to identify the proportion of missed cases of acute coronary syndrome (primary outcome) and other prespecified adverse events. Analysis was based on intention to treat. Eight hundred four patients were triaged to monitored bed and 303 to waiting room evaluation. Initial vital signs were similar, but the waiting room group was younger and had lower rates of some cardiovascular risk factors. The rate of acute coronary syndrome, defined as acute myocardial infarction or objective unstable angina, was 11.7% in the monitored bed group and 7.6% in waiting room patients. There were no missed acute coronary syndrome cases in either the monitored bed group (0%; 95% confidence interval [CI] 0% to 0.4%) or the waiting room group (0%; 95% CI 0% to 1.0%). There were 32 adverse events in the monitored bed group (4.0%; 95% CI 2.6% to 5.3%) and 2 in the waiting room group (0.7%; 95% CI 0% to 1.6%). Our organized approach to triage and waiting room evaluation for stable chest pain patients was safe and efficient. Although waiting room evaluation is not ideal, it may be a feasible contingency strategy for periods when ED crowding compromises access to monitored, nurse-staffed ED beds." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0367_22907", "title": "Triage of patients for a rapid (5-minute) electrocardiogram: A rule based on presenting chief complaints.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A rule based on presenting chief complaints can identify patients for a rapid (5-minute) ECG and decrease delays in treatment of patients with acute myocardial infarction (MI). The presenting chief complaint was electronically collected on all patients treated in a community teaching hospital emergency department. A rule for ordering ECG on patient presentation to the ED was developed from a model set of patients presenting from July through December 1994 (22,717 patients) and then tested on a validation set of patients from January through May 1995 (18,759 patients). Outcome measures (delay in performance of ECG and delay in administration of thrombolytic agents) were prospectively collected on written data sheets before (April 1993-May 1995, n=67) and after (June 1995-March 1997, n=128) implementation of the rule at the study hospital. On the model set, 193 patients had the final diagnosis of MI, with 5 chief complaints having the best performance in identifying patients with acute MI and comprising the rapid ECG rule: older than 30 years with chest pain (130 [67.4%] patients); older than 50 years with syncope (5 [1%] patients); weakness (12 [6.2%] patients); rapid heart beat (2 [1%] patients); and difficulty breathing or shortness of breath (20 [10.4%] patients). On the validation set, 142 patients had the final diagnosis of MI, with the rule performing better than chest pain in identifying patients for a \"stat\" ECG (sensitivity 93.7% versus 67. 4% [95% confidence interval (CI) of the difference, 15.6% to 33.8%]), although a larger percentage of ED patients would receive a stat ECG (7.3% versus 6.3% [95% CI of the difference, 0.7% to 1.7%]). During the model and validation period, 44 (13.1%) of 335 patients with MI received thrombolytic agents. The rule had higher sensitivity on patients with MI treated with thrombolytic agents compared with patients with MI not treated with thrombolytic agents (sensitivity 100% versus 86.4% [95% CI of the difference, 1.7% to 20. 3%] and specificity of 90.4% versus 93.8% [95% CI of the difference, 3.0% to 3.8%]). For the 4-year study period, outcome improved after the implementation of the rule: mean delay in performing ECGs in patients with MI who were administered thrombolytic agents decreased from 10.0 to 6.3 minutes (95% CI of the difference, 1.1 to 6.4), and mean delay in administering thrombolytic agents decreased from 36.9 to 26.1 minutes (95% CI of the difference, 3.5 to 17.7). Use of a rule based on chief complaints can identify patients with MI for immediate ECG and decrease delays in performing ECGs and administration of thrombolytic agents." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0581_4075", "title": "Emergency department crowding is associated with poor care for patients with severe pain.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "We study the impact of emergency department (ED) crowding on delays in treatment and nontreatment for patients with severe pain. We performed a retrospective cohort study of all patients presenting with severe pain to an inner-city, teaching ED during 17 months. Poor care was defined by 3 outcomes: not receiving treatment with pain medication while in the ED, a delay (&gt;1 hour) from triage to first pain medication, and a delay (&gt;1 hour) from room placement to first pain medication. Three validated crowding measures were assigned to each patient at triage. Logistic regression was used to test the association between crowding and outcomes. In 13,758 patients with severe pain, the mean age was 39 years (SD 16 years), 73% were black, and 64% were female patients. Half (49%) of the patients received pain medication. Of those treated, 3,965 (59%) experienced delays in treatment from triage and 1,319 (20%) experienced delays from time of room placement. After controlling for factors associated with the ED treatment of pain (race, sex, severity, and older age), nontreatment was independently associated with waiting room number (odds ratio [OR] 1.03 for each additional waiting patient; 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.02 to 1.03) and occupancy rate (OR 1.01 for each 10% increase in occupancy; 95% CI 0.99 to 1.04). Increasing waiting room number and occupancy rate also independently predicted delays in pain medication from triage (OR 1.05 for each waiting patient, 95% CI 1.04 to 1.06; OR 1.18 for each 10% increase in occupancy; 95% CI 1.15 to 1.21) and delay in pain medication from room placement (OR 1.02 for each waiting patient, 95% CI 1.01 to 1.03; OR 1.06 for each 10% increase in occupancy, 95% CI 1.04 to 1.08). ED crowding is associated with poor quality of care in patients with severe pain, with respect to total lack of treatment and delay until treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0344_2821", "title": "[Diagnosis of unstable angina in the emergency room. The clinical value and limitations of electrocardiography and other tests].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The quick and accurate diagnosis of acute coronary heart disease in the emergency department constitutes a first line medical challenge. About 5% of patients attending to the emergency department present chest pain or symptoms suggesting myocardial ischemia. A prompt diagnosis contributes to patient survival while an incorrect one can be associated to an increased risk of unfavorable outcome. On the other hand, unnecessary admissions into high technology hospital areas determine important expenses unacceptable from a cost-benefit point of view. In the present paper, the usefulness of different diagnostic tools used in emergency department (case history, electrocardiogram, nuclear perfusion imaging, echocardiography, exercise test) is reviewed, their advantages and limitations reviewed, with special emphasis on the importance of having an electrocardiogram as soon as possible, and based on the electrocardiographic findings the most appropiate management is discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1063_4560", "title": "Chest Pain: A Relatively Benign Symptom of Type IV Hiatal Hernia.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Hiatal hernia results from the translocation of intra-abdominal contents from their usual position into the thorax. They can be categorized into type I-IV which implies varying gradations of herniation. The symptomatology can range from just chest pain in the less severe types to respiratory and hemodynamic compromise resulting from strangulation in the advanced hernias. Our patient was an 81-year-old female with a past medical history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), deep venous thrombosis (DVT), hypertension, hyperlipidemia, coronary artery disease (CAD), and cerebrovascular accident (CVA), who presented to the emergency department (ED) with the chief complaint of chest pain. Assessment of the vitals in the ED revealed a temperature of 37.2 °C, respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute with an oxygen saturation of 100% on room air, heart rate of 95 beats/min, and blood pressure reading of 132/110 mmHg. Due to significant concern of a possible coronary pathology leading to chest pain, the patient was given 325 mg of aspirin and one tablet of sublingual nitroglycerin. Her electrocardiogram (EKG) was unremarkable but the chest X-ray revealed a large retrocardiac hernia. The finding was corroborated after a review of the computerized tomography (CT) scan performed at the outlying facility. She was treated with omeprazole, a gastroenterologist was consulted, and an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) performed which revealed significant erosions in the distal esophagus and gastric antrum. She was deemed a high-risk surgical candidate for any intervention and thus managed conservatively with proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. The case highlights the pertinent facts about hiatal hernia. Although the diagnosis of chest pain with the aforementioned comorbidities could be skewed towards coronary pathology, keeping a wide differential is important so that the right diagnosis can be made in a timely fashion and complications avoided." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0320_8975", "title": "[Role of cardiac first aid in a level-II Emergency Department].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "We report our experience in the organization and management of a Cardiac First Aid Unit (CFAU) which was developed according to the guidelines of the National Hospital Cardiologists Association as a part of a General Emergency Department. The CFAU is a 24 hour service directed by a Senior Cardiologist. The medical facilities are two monitored beds for short-term observation (cardio-pulmonary resuscitation instruments, echocardiograph, endoesophageal pacing for overdrive). The main goals of CFAU are the treatment of cardiac emergencies (acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary oedema, threatening arrhythmias, etc.) and the screening of patients presenting with chest pain or symptoms suggesting cardio-vascular involvement. In one year, there were 1700 admissions to the CFAU (3.7% of the total Medical Emergencies). The frequency of hospital admissions was 81% and coronary heart disease accounted for 38.3%. A sample of 100 consecutive patients with acute myocardial infarction admitted in the period October-November 1996 was examined to explore the impact of a CFAU on in-hospital delay in the application of thrombolysis. Thirty-nine patients were treated with thrombolysis, 15 in CFAU and 24 in Coronary Care Unit (CCU). The mean in-hospital delay to thrombolysis was 30 +/- 14 minutes for those treated in CFAU and 55 +/- 12 minutes for those treated in CCU (p &lt; 0.0004). In a second sample of 100 consecutive patients with undetermined chest pain, by means of our protocol of short observation we identified 22 cases of acute myocardial infarction (AMI), 8 cases of angina pectoris, 18 various cardiac causes, 30 non-cardiac causes, 22 absent disease. ECG was obtained in all 100 pts, cardiac enzymes in 74, echocardiogram and chest X-ray in 48, ST monitoring in 26. In no case was diagnosed AMI after discharge. Cardiac First Aid Unit, as designed in our Hospital, suits the needs of a level II Emergency Department. It is a useful tool to shorten in-hospital delay to thrombolysis and to screen chest pain with nearly complete safety." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0692_19298", "title": "Mandatory triage does not identify high-acuity patients within recommended time frames.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We determine whether mandatory formal triage of walk-in emergency department (ED) patients provides timely recognition of the most acutely ill. This retrospective cross-sectional study was conducted at a US urban academic ED, annual census 39,000, which uses Emergency Severity Index-5 triage (ESI-5) for all arriving patients. ESI-5 recommends that level 1 and 2 patients be treated by a physician immediately or within 10 minutes, respectively. For all high-acuity (ESI 1 or 2) patients presenting between January 1 and December 31, 2008, data from electronic medical records and registration and tracking systems were used to determine elapsed time from arrival to completion of triage (median, range, 95th percentile), proportion of these intervals that met ESI-5 recommendations, and whether triage throughput differed during peak arrival hours. For 3,932 high-acuity walk-in visits (ESI 1=63; ESI 2=3,869), median time from arrival to triage completion was 12.3 minutes, range 0 to 128 minutes. Twenty-seven percent (95% confidence interval [CI] 26% to 29%) of high-acuity patients were taken to rooms on arrival; 41% (95% CI 40%, 43%), including those roomed immediately, completed triage within 10 minutes. Twenty-five percent (95% CI 24% to 26%) completed triage in greater than 20 minutes and 10% (95% CI 9% to 11%) greater than 30 minutes after arrival. Between 10 am and 10 pm (peak arrival hours), triage took longer for level 2 patients, and fewer met ESI recommendations. Less than half of high-acuity patients in this urban ED completed triage within time frames recommended by the ESI-5, resulting in potentially unsafe delays. Although mandatory formal triage theoretically identifies patients who should be treated most quickly, the value and safety of this process should be reassessed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0066_16747", "title": "Rapid and correct diagnosis of myocardial infarction: standardized case history and clinical examination provide important information for correct referral to monitored beds.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The value of thorough examination of the case history as a diagnostic tool on hospitalization of patients with suspected myocardial infarction was investigated in three independent prospective studies. Use of a limited number of pain-related elements (= 'criteria'), that had already been obtained in the emergency room, could improve the decision on whether or not to admit patients to the coronary-care unit. As an example, in one of the studies, use of such criteria would have reduced the number of 'unnecessary' coronary-care-unit admissions from 298 to 162, a 46% reduction (P less than 0.001). In the same patient sample, use of the criteria could have reduced the number of patients with definite acute myocardial infarction, admitted to the general wards, from 47 to 22, a 53% reduction (P less than 0.01). These favourable results were confirmed in the two independent, smaller-scale studies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0851_16318", "title": "Assessing sensitivity and specificity of the Manchester Triage System in the evaluation of acute coronary syndrome in adult patients in emergency care: a systematic review protocol.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The objective of this review is to assess the sensitivity and specificity of the Manchester Triage System in the evaluation of adult patients with acute coronary syndrome in emergency departments. Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a group of clinical conditions that include myocardial infarction with or without elevation of the ST segment and unstable angina. The term acute myocardial infarction (AMI) can be applied when there is evidence of myocardium necrosis with a clinical sign compatible with myocardial ischaemia. Acute myocardial infarction can be identified using clinical methods including electrocardiography (ECG), elevation in myocardium necrosis biomarkers, and imaging. Acute myocardial infarction is one of the leading causes of death and disability worldwide, and may be the first manifestation of coronary artery disease.Estimating the prevalence of coronary diseases in the general population is quite a complex task. In 2010, the prevalence of coronary diseases was reported as 6.4% among the general population in the United States.One of the main manifestations of ACS is chest pain. However, even in the presence of this typical symptom, early diagnosis of ACS is a challenge for health care professionals who initially attend to these patients. Several authors have indicated the importance and difficulty of recognizing chest pain of cardiac origin, where immediate medical attention is required.Triage, or risk classification, is a clinical management tool used in emergency services to guide patient flow when the need for medical attention exceeds that available. The Manchester Triage Group was developed in 1994 in the United Kingdom. The aim was to establish a consensus among physicians and nurses in the emergency room by creating a triage pattern focused on the development of the following:Thus, the Manchester Triage System (MTS) was created. The MTS simplifies the clinical management of each patient, and consequently, the whole service, by utilizing a system that defines the clinical priority for adults and children. The assessment of clinical priority needs to be fast; therefore, it is separated from the process of medical diagnosis. Restricting the time allocated for patient classification prevents an attempt to make a medical diagnosis at the time of classification.The main goal of the MTS is to set a time limit for each patient to be attended to safely, that is, with no risk to the patient's health. One of the main principles of the system is the higher the perceived risk to the patient's health, the shorter the waiting time for medical attendance. The MTS comprises a scale of five priority levels ().(Table is included in full-text article.)The MTS is composed of 52 distinct flowcharts that \"guide\" the triage decision-making process. Based on the main presenting symptom of the patient seeking emergency care, the health care professional must choose one of the 52 flowcharts in order to proceed with evaluation. Classification into one of the five clinical priority levels is set for each patient using the selected flowchart.The lack of a risk classification system within an emergency room implies attendance on a first-come, first-served basis, which in many cases may jeopardize a patient's safety, as patients whose health status is more unstable or severe are not prioritized.The MTS is a tool that aims to define the degree of severity and associated safe waiting time for patients in the emergency department, establishing an order of priority for medical care. It determines the clinical priority of every patient who comes to the emergency department. It is possible to evaluate the sensitivity and specificity of the MTS by calculating the frequency of appropriately assigned clinical priority levels to patients presenting at the emergency department.A \"diagnostic test\" can be understood as a laboratory or imaging test: however, the concepts related to \"test\" also apply to clinical information from other findings, such as physical examination and patient history. The sensitivity of a test is understood as the capacity of the test to detect individuals who present with a particular condition, or the proportion of individuals with a particular condition who have been tested positive for this condition (true positive). Highly sensitive tests can be used at the beginning of the diagnostic process, when a great number of possibilities are being considered, with the intention of excluding as many options as possible. The specificity of a test is defined as the capacity of the test to identify individuals who do not have a particular medical condition, or the proportion of individuals without the condition who have a negative test (true negative). A triage system that presents a good sensitivity can minimize the occurrence of undertriage, the same way, systems with suitable specificity can avoid the occurrence of overtriage.The assessment of patients with ACS suspected using the MTS, can occur through different flow charts, since the patient does not always have typical symptoms and concerns such as chest pain as the main complaint. For this reason, in addition to the flowchart \"chest pain\", other flowcharts, including \"shortness of breath in adults\", \"unwell adult\", \"collapsed adult\", and \"palpitations\", enable distinguishing chest pain and other urgent conditions from non-urgent conditions, and can assist the appraiser to establish the highest priority level to treat patients with these urgent conditions.According to the algorithm from the American Heart Association, every patient who presents symptoms of chest discomfort suggestive of ischaemia must receive medical attention within 10 minutes. Therefore, in order to recognize patients in those conditions, the health care professional applying MTS must establish priority levels of \"red\" or \"orange\", thereby setting a safe waiting time for these patients.Although there are well-established criteria for the prioritization of patients with suspected ACS, several studies have reported the difficulties of evaluating patients with these conditions. Various factors can interfere with the outcome of this process, such as atypical presentation of symptoms, AMI classification, patient age, and professional skill.Primary studies have addressed the issue from different perspectives. Studies have been conducted to evaluate the ability of nurses using MTS to detect high-risk patients with chest pain, the impact of MTS on short-term mortality in AMI, and the sensitivity and specificity of MTS for patients with ACS, and to assess whether the MTS was used effectively in patients admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome.These studies concluded that use of the MTS by nurses is a sensitive method for identifying high risk cardiac chest pain, but further studies are required to assess whether additional training can improve the sensitivity of MTS. The MTS safeguards patients with typical AMI presentation and ST elevation during myocardial infarction, and who are under 70 years of age. The MTS has a high sensitivity in prioritization (immediate/very urgent) of patients with ACS. Additionally, most patients admitted for ACS are initially triaged as \"orange\" or \"yellow\", an indication for prompt assessment in the emergency department. This has a positive effect on time to first medical assessment, but has no effect on time to hospital admission.A systematic review addressing a similar theme was published. The review evaluated the efficacy of MTS for all groups of patients and included studies that evaluated the MTS in relation to different outcomes. This proposed review is different as it will include primary studies with a specific sub-population (patients with ACS). Another important difference lies in the fact that the published review did not include critical appraisal of the primary studies included in review. A systematic review that synthesizes the available evidence on the sensitivity of MTS to evaluate patients with an ACS medical diagnosis is necessary to guide decisions related to the use or adoption of the instrument, as well as providing data that can contribute to improvements to the system." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0561_23283", "title": "[The examination space of time from the beginning symptoms of the acute coronary syndrome to the time of the urgent treatment].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Aim of this study is to examinate time period from the beginning of symptoms in acute coronary syndrome to the arrival time in Department of emergency medical service Zivinice where electrocardiogram is only one exact method for diagnosis of the myocardial ischemia. In retrospectively-prospectively study during one year, every patient with symptoms of acute coronary syndrome were taken beside and performed physical survay. We recorded ECG, performed ECG monitoring and/or serial ECG records. We investigated reasons for the lete arrival, sex and age and risk factors. In 167 patients with diagnostic acute coronary syndromes, average time period from beginning symptoms to the arrival time was 8.12 (+/-5,87) hours, significant longer from optimal 2 hours (p=0,001). Average age of these patients was 60,4 years. Male subjects were ill for about 9,2 years earlier than women and 1,6 times higher incidence than female subjects in all age groups. Most important risk and precipitating factors were hypertension, smoking, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, obesity. Leading factors for late arrival was unadequate attributing for importance of the acute chest pain and nonexistance of emergency medical service \"on call\". It is necessary to informe citizens about risiko factors of acute coronary syndrome development, its symptoms, characteristic and consequences . Necessity is to organize emergency medical service \"on call\" and establish modern emergency centers. It is necessery to adequately equip stationary emergency medical services and train doctors and other medical staff to point out and adopt the usage of algoritms and protocols for acute coronary syndromes management. To educate members of public services about basic principles of cardiopulmonary reanimation." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1310", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009375737086248918, "content": "Chest Discomfort David A. Morrow Chest discomfort is among the most common reasons for which patients present for medical attention at either an emergency depart-ment (ED) or an outpatient clinic. The evaluation of nontraumatic chest discomfort is inherently challenging owing to the broad variety 19 of possible causes, a minority of which are life-threatening conditions that should not be missed. It is helpful to frame the initial diagnostic assessment and triage of patients with acute chest discomfort around three categories: (1) myocardial ischemia; (2) other cardiopulmonary causes (pericardial disease, aortic emergencies, and pulmonary conditions); and (3) non-cardiopulmonary causes. Although rapid identification of high-risk conditions is a priority of the initial assessment, strategies that incorporate routine liberal use of testing carry the potential for adverse effects of unnecessary investigations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0885_25278", "title": "Comparison of clinical-based and ECG-based triage of acute chest pain in the Emergency Department.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "In the Emergency Department, chest pain triage systems are based on either clinical features or ECG recording. In this prospective, single-center, observational study, we aimed to compare the diagnostic performance of these triage systems in distinguishing acute coronary syndromes (ACS) from diseases of mild severity. Patients were sorted into the triage systems based on collected data at admission and on a systematic 12-lead ECG performed at triage. The final diagnosis was determined after a 30-day follow-up. For ACS, we determined a high-acuity triage score (Level 1 or 2) as being adequate, and for mild severity diseases a low-acuity triage score (Level 3, 4 or 5) as being adequate. The diagnostic performance of all studied systems was moderate (AUC from 0.644 to 0.694), with no statistically significant difference found between them. However, characteristics of the systems differed because the clinical-based systems had a higher sensitivity (87-91%) but lower specificity (32-39%) compared with the ECG-based system (sensitivity 62% and specificity 64%). A higher sensitivity limits the risk of a patient with acute coronary syndrome staying unsafely in the waiting room, while a higher specificity prevents overcrowding. ECG at triage also ensures that no STEMIs or high-risk NSTEMIs are missed. Based on these findings, each Emergency Depatment could more accurately select the triage system that fits their local particularities." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0130_4693", "title": "Cardiopulmonary diagnoses by nuclear medicine techniques--where we have been, where we are, where we are going.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "In order to not only survive, but to carry out our mission in health care delivery, nuclear medicine procedures will have to be competitive with the many other techniques that are available for assessing cardiopulmonary structure or function. Our tests must also be shown to be cost-effective. According to the American Heart Association, cardiovascular diseases alone had an economic cost of 56.9 billion dollars in 1983. Of this enormous sum only a very small percentage could be attributed to the performance of diagnostic nuclear medicine examinations. In addition to the economic cost, cardiovascular diseases accounted for 51% of all deaths in 1980. Statistics from the U.S. Department of Health show that 8.26 million (26.3%) of the national noninstitutionalized handicapped are the result of heart conditions and hypertension. These statistics are especially tragic since cardiovascular disease tends to strike a large proportion of persons in their most productive working years. We must avoid becoming penny wise and pound foolish when we decide whether or not to perform diagnostic examinations. Information obtained from these tests can be used to evaluate the effectiveness of therapy (or lack thereof), determine those patients who are at greatest risk of subsequent events and, therefore, require the most intensive investigation and therapy, and similarly identify that population at very low risk of having subsequent cardiac events and, therefore, requiring little, if any, therapy and no further investigation. Is such an approach economically feasible? An estimated 1.5 million Americans will have a heart attack this year, and about 550,000 of them will die. Of these persons, 350,000 will die before they reach the hospital. This leaves 1,150,000 persons who will be hospitalized due to myocardial infarction. As an example, if every one of these patients had a GBP study, at an estimated cost of +350.00 per examination, the cost would be about +400,000,000 or 0.7% of the total cost of cardiovascular diseases. This figure would roughly double if either a 201Tl or GBP study was performed with stress. Thus, our examinations constitute only a small percentage of the overall cost of cardiopulmonary disease. If one of these tests results in even a day early CCU to general bed transfer, early discharge, deferment of angiography, or surgery, or long-term medical therapy, then they will be cost-effective. We believe that a strong case can be made for optimism about the continued growth and expansion of nuclear techniques.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0712_25044", "title": "Sepsis, severe sepsis, and septic shock: current evidence for emergency department management.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "In the middle of a busy shift, a patient arrives by ambulance from a local long-term care facility with a report of altered mental status. You enter the room to find a chronically ill-appearing 85-year-old man with fever, tachycardia, and hypotension, and it is instantly apparent that this patient is septic. What is not clear is what the source is, what modifications in treatment might be necessary based on preexisting microbial resistance, and which of the array of invasive resuscitation techniques are appropriate when meaningful recovery is questionable and efforts may not be desired by the patient and family. You order IV fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics; send lab tests, including lactate and cultures of blood, urine, and sputum; and begin to review his extensive history to discuss goals of care with his family and primary doctor. While reviewing these issues, a 54-year-old woman with a history of asthma is brought straight back from triage with respiratory distress. You listen to her lungs, expecting wheezes, but hear decreased lung sounds at the right base, preserved air movement elsewhere, and her skin radiates heat. Now, on the monitor, she has a heart rate of 135 beats per minute, blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, O2 saturation of 86%, and a temperature of 39.4 degrees C (103 degrees F). You again identify sepsis and instruct your team that you will be using your department's severe sepsis protocol. Equipment for monitoring and procedures is assembled, your staff provides preprinted order and monitoring flow sheets, and the ICU is alerted. Within an hour, the patient is intubated, has a central line placed, and has received IV fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics and norepinephrine, and you are pleased to see a MAP of 67 mm Hg, a lactate decreasing from an initial value of 7.0, CVP of 10, and ScvO2 of 78%." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_19268", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Source: K Thygesen: Eur Heart J 33:2551, 2012. of performing resuscitative maneuvers, including defibrillation; (3) expeditious transportation of the patient to a hospital facility that is continuously staffed by physicians and nurses skilled in managing arrhythmias and providing advanced cardiac life support; and (4) expeditious implementation of reperfusion therapy (Fig. 295-3). The greatest delay usually occurs not during transportation to the hospital but, rather, between the onset of pain and the patient’s decision to call for help. This delay can best be reduced by health care professionals educating the public concerning the significance of chest discomfort and the importance of seeking early medical attention. Regular office visits with patients having a history of or who are at risk for ischemic heart disease are important “teachable moments” for clinicians to review the symptoms of STEMI and the appropriate action plan." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0814_24972", "title": "What do patients want? Survey of patient desires for education in an urban university hospital.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "This study examines the emergency department (ED) waiting room (WR) population's knowledge about the ED process and hospital function and explores the types of educational materials that might appeal to patients and their companions in an ED waiting room. Our goal was to identify potential high-impact opportunities for patient education. A 32-question survey about demographics, usage of primary care physicians (PCP), understanding of the ED and triage process, desire to know about delays, health education and understanding of teaching hospitals was offered to all qualified individuals. Five hundred and forty-four surveys were returned. Fifty-five percent reported having a PCP, of which 53% (29% of all WR patients) called a PCP prior to coming to the ED. It was found that 51.2% can define triage; 51% as an acuity assessment and 17% as a vital signs check. Sixty-nine percent knew why patients were seen according to triage priority. Seventy-two percent wanted to know about delays, yet only 25% wanted to know others' wait times. People wanted updates every 41 minutes and only three percent wanted a physician to do this. Forty-one percent wanted information on how the ED functions, 60% via handouts and 43% via video. Information on updates and common medical emergencies is significantly more important than material on common illnesses, finding a PCP, or ED function (p&lt;0.05). Median estimated time for medical workup ranged from 35 minutes for radiographs, to one hour for lab results, computed tomography, specialist consult, and admission. Sixty-nine percent knew the definition of a teaching hospital and of those, 87% knew they were at a teaching hospital. Subgroup analysis between racial groups showed significantly reduced knowledge of the definitions of triage and teaching hospitals and significantly increased desire for information on ED function in minority groups (p&lt;0.05). The major findings in this study were that many visitors would like handouts about ED function and medical emergencies over other topics. Additionally, the knowledge of functions such as triage and teaching hospitals were 70% and 69%, respectively. This was reduced in non-Caucasian ethnicities, while there was an increased desire for information on ED function relative to Caucasians. This research suggests increasing updates and educational materials in the waiting room could impact the waiting room and overall hospital experience." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0412_1915", "title": "Evaluation of chest pain in the ED: factors affecting triage decisions.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The emergency physician's (EP) fast and correct diagnosis of patients with chest pain is crucial for preventing inappropriate discharge and dire consequences. To determine which factors affect admission decisions in the ED, we studied epidemiologic characteristics of both discharged and admitted patients, and the percentage of discharged patients who returned to the ED with acute myocardial infarction. The study included 185 patients seen in the ED because of chest pain between July 1 and 31, 1997 (every third day not included). Ninety patients were admitted: 36.7% were admitted for \"observation of chest pain\" and 63.3% met the criteria for active coronary heart disease. A form was used to collect personal data, medical history, risk factors, clinical examination, electrocardiogram interpretation, laboratory data, and admittance decision. EPs' diagnosis of cardiac chest pain demonstrated a sensitivity of 93.4%, a specificity of 73.4%, and a positive predictive value of 63.3%. Sensitivity for diagnosing acute myocardial infarct was 100%, with no erroneous discharges. The EP's ability to integrate the medical history information, including risk factors and pain characteristics, had a marked influence on the admittance decision. Efforts to reduce missed diagnoses are warranted." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en393_11176", "title": "Computer-aided simple triage", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Examples CAST for coronary artery disease CAST system is available for the detection of significant (>50%) coronary stenosis in coronary CT angiography (cCTA) studies. The system exhibits \"per study\" specificity of 60–70%, while keeping the sensitivity above 90%. It can be used for chest pain patient triage in emergency room. CAST for Intracranial Hemorrhages A deep learning system is available for automatic detection of Intracranial Hemorrhages in acute care settings. See also Aidoc References Medical expert systems Radiology Health informatics" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0609_9685", "title": "Just point and click. Is your system ready for point-of-care testing?", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Your ALS service is called to evaluate a 47-year-old female with epigastric pain that came on suddenly about six hours ago; she has vomited once. She thought it was the flu and that it would subside, but it has not. She smokes, is overweight and has a family history of early cardiac disease. Her vital signs are unremarkable and her belly is nontender. You perform a 12-lead ECG that shows nonspecific ST-T wave changes inferiorly. You place a few drops of blood obtained as part of your field-drawn bloods into an i-STAT cartridge. The result surprises you: Her cardiac enzyme (troponin I) is markedly elevated. Should she be transported to the closer facility without primary coronary intervention (PCI) capability or further down the road to a facility that has it?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0649_10554", "title": "The impact of crowding on time until abdominal CT interpretation in emergency department patients with acute abdominal pain.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We assessed the relationship between emergency department (ED) crowding and delays in care in patients presenting with abdominal pain who receive abdominal computed tomography (CT). Prospective cohort study of adults who presented over a 1-year period to 2 urban academic EDs with abdominal pain and received CT. Each subject had 3 validated crowding measures assigned at enrollment (ED census, waiting room number, number of admitted patients). These were normalized to quartiles to signify least to most crowded. The Cuzick test was used for trend and log-linear regression and tested the association between ED crowding and time from triage to CT read. The time interval was further decomposed into triage to room, room to CT order, and order to CT read times. The adjusted analysis controlled for age, sex, race, pain score, time of day, triage level, and site. 767 patients were enrolled (mean age, 44 +/- 17 years; 61% female; 60% black). Median time from triage to CT read was 375 minutes (interquartile range [IQR], 276-497). Individual time intervals included triage to room (46 minutes [IQR, 16-111]), room to CT order (83 minutes [IQR, 38-151]), and order to CT read (203 minutes [IQR, 138-375]). Across waiting room quartiles, triage to CT read was associated with progressively longer times (318 vs 364 vs 414 vs 445 minutes; P &lt; 0.001 for trend). Similar trends were noted for waiting room number and admitted patients (P &lt; 0.001). In multivariable analysis, the association between ED crowding and time from triage to CT read remained significant and consistent across all crowding measures (P &lt; 0.001). When decomposed into time intervals, triage to room time showed the greatest difference (22 vs 38 vs 72 vs 92 minutes; P &lt; 0.001). ED crowding is associated with an approximately 2-hour delay to CT interpretation availability. Attempts to reduce delays in abdominal CTs may include earlier provider evaluation and placement in the queue for scanning." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0613_9290", "title": "[Evaluation of patients' knowledge regarding counsels provided in case of chest pain after an acute myocardial infarction].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "an early call to the department of urgent medical assistance--Center 15 (SAMU-centre 15) is associated to shortest delays of reperfusion in case of myocardial infarction. However, patients are not always aware of this. to assess the assimilated counsels by patients after an acute myocardial infarction. from January 1998 to June 2004, patients managed by SAMU 93 and having benefited from thrombolytic therapy prior to hospitalization and/or primary angioplasty for a ST+ acute coronary syndrome with a confirmation of acute myocardial infarction during their hospital stay were prospectively enrolled into this study. A questionnaire was administered by phone from december 2003 to july 2005, assessing the knowledge about the necessity to alert SAMU-center 15 in case of chest pain and availability of medical files data. among the 976 patients: 111 (11%) were lost during follow-up, 162 (19%) were deceased when phone contact and 119 (12%) could not be interrogated. Among the 584 (60%) remaining subjects interrogated with a median follow-up period of 985 days (413-1596), 290 (50%) patients answered they received counseling, including 156 (27%) for taking nitrates, 19 (29%) stated they know that they should call SAMU-center 15. Patients with a high level of education and those treated by thrombolytic therapy prior to hospitalization were better informed; 464 (79%) patients declared having a prescription, 392 (67%) a hospital report, 406 (69%) an electrocardiogram, 227 (39%) a CD with their coronary angiography, and 79(14%) their medical file. the level of knowledge regarding the recommended attitude in case of chest pain is poor. The availability of medical data was better. Arch Mal Cceur" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0700_10836", "title": "A randomized controlled trial of the effect of service delivery information on patient satisfaction in an emergency department fast track.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The objective was to determine the effect on patient satisfaction of providing patients with predicted service completion times. A randomized controlled trial was conducted in an urban, community teaching hospital. Emergency department (ED) patients triaged to fast track on weekdays between October 26, 2009, and December 30, 2009, from 9 am to 5 pm were eligible. Patients were randomized to: 1) usual care (n = 342), 2) provided ED process information (n = 336), or 3) provided ED process information plus predicted service delivery times (n = 333). Patients in group 3 were given an \"average\" and \"upper range\" estimate of their waiting room times and treatment times. The average and upper range predictions were calculated from quantile regression models that estimated the 50th and 90th percentiles of the waiting room time and treatment time distributions for fast track patients at the study site based on 2.5 years of historical data. Trained research assistants administered the interventions after triage. Patients completed a brief survey at discharge that measured their satisfaction with overall care, the quality of the information they received, and the timeliness of care. Satisfaction ratings of very good versus good, fair, poor, and very poor were modeled using logistic regression as a function of study group; actual service delivery times; and other patient, clinical, and temporal covariates. The study also modeled satisfaction ratings of fair, poor, and very poor compared to good and very good ratings as a function of the same covariates. Survey completion rates and patient, clinical, and temporal characteristics were similar by study group. Median waiting room time was 70 minutes (interquartile range [IQR] = 40 to 114 minutes), and median treatment time was 52 minutes (IQR = 31 to 81 minutes). Neither intervention affected any of the satisfaction outcomes. Satisfaction was significantly associated with actual waiting room time, individual providers, and patient age. Every 10-minute increase in waiting room time corresponded with an 8% decrease (odds ratio [OR] = 0.92; 95% confidence interval [CI] = 0.89 to 0.95) in the odds of reporting very good satisfaction with overall care. The odds of reporting very good satisfaction with care were lower for several triage nurses and fast track nurses, compared to the triage nurse and fast track nurse who treated the most study patients. Each 10-minute increase in waiting room time was also associated with a 10% increase in the odds of reporting very poor, poor, or fair satisfaction with overall care (OR = 1.10; 95% CI = 1.06 to 1.14). The odds of reporting very poor, poor, or fair satisfaction with overall care also varied significantly among the triage nurses, fast track doctors, and fast track nurses. The odds of reporting very poor, poor, or fair satisfaction with overall care were significantly lower among patients aged 35 years and older compared to patients aged 18 to 34 years. Satisfaction with overall care was influenced by waiting room time and the clinicians who treated them and not by service completion time estimates provided at triage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1099_21870", "title": "Can an ECG performed during emergency department triage and interpreted as normal by computer analysis safely wait for clinician review until the time of patient assessment? A pilot study.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Electrocardiograms (ECGs) are frequently performed during patient triage in Emergency Departments (EDs). Emergency Physicians (EPs) are interrupted during other tasks to review ECGs. Critics believe this practice could lead to distraction with consequent medical error and decision fatigue. ECGs can be interpreted by computer software at the time of capture; some evidence exists to suggest that an ECG performed during ED triage with an immediate computer interpretation (ICI) of 'normal' will seldom contain information necessitating a change to triage management. All ED triage ECGs performed in the Royal Derby Hospital between 13th July 2017 and 12th July 2018 in patients without chest pain and with an ICI of 'normal' were identified through a database search. Forty were randomly selected and reviewed by two EPs (blinded to patient details, ICI and outcome) who were asked to identify those that required a change to triage management. The study processes were feasible. At least one of the two EP reviewers felt that a change to triage management was required in 48% of cases (e.g. \"review patient\", \"obtain blood gas\", \"review old ECGs\"); they agreed on the need for change of management in 13% of cases. An ICI of normal had a NPV of 53% (95% CI 37-67%) for the need for a change to triage management based upon ECG findings. Inter-observer agreement was poor (kappa = 0.17). Based on these results, ED triage ECGs should still be presented to EPs for immediate review regardless of the ICI. Inter-observer agreement between EPs was poor. Further research is required to link triage ECG interpretation, need for intervention and patient outcome." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en009_161899", "title": "Emergency department", "score": 0.008893280632411068, "content": "Critical conditions handled Cardiac arrest Cardiac arrest may occur in the ED/A&E or a patient may be transported by ambulance to the emergency department already in this state. Treatment is basic life support and advanced life support as taught in advanced life support and advanced cardiac life support courses. Heart attack Patients arriving to the emergency department with a myocardial infarction (heart attack) are likely to be triaged to the resuscitation area. They will receive oxygen and monitoring and have an early ECG; aspirin will be given if not contraindicated or not already administered by the ambulance team; morphine or diamorphine will be given for pain; sub lingual (under the tongue) or buccal (between cheek and upper gum) glyceryl trinitrate (nitroglycerin) (GTN or NTG) will be given, unless contraindicated by the presence of other drugs." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 209 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 32 ] ], "text": "The patient has a PSA >4 and a palpation with increased consistency, which implies the need for a transrectal ultrasound-guided biopsy to diagnose whether it is Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia or Prostate Cancer." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Suggest to the patient the performance of a transrectal ultrasound and prostate biopsy.", "2": "Perform an abdominopelvic CT scan.", "3": "Initiate treatment with 5 alpha Reductase Inhibitors to reduce PSA levels by half.", "4": "Initiate combined treatment of LHRH analogues and antiandrogens.", "5": "Perform a bone scan." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1038_3448", "title": "Histopathology, pharmacotherapy, and predictors of prostatic malignancy in elderly male patients with raised prostate-specific antigen levels - A prospective study.", "score": 0.018041446566436407, "content": "Prostate cancer is the second most common cancer among adult men in the world, and the diagnosis requires biopsy. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test along with digital rectal examination (DRE) increases the detection rate of prostate cancer than DRE alone. The objective of this study was to correlate serum PSA level with histopathological diagnosis, identify the predictors of malignancy, and describe the pharmacotherapy of patients with serum PSA levels &gt;4 ng/ml. This was a hospital-based observational study done among patients who presented with lower urinary tract symptoms and PSA levels &gt;4 ng/ml who were planned to undergo prostatic biopsy. DRE followed by transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) assessment and guided sextant (6-core) prostatic biopsy was performed. One hundred and four patients were screened and 87 were included. Nineteen patients were diagnosed with malignancy, and among them, eight had bone metastasis. Spearman's correlation coefficient between PSA and malignancy was 0.449 (<iP</i ≤ 0.001). Multivariate analysis suggested that the factors (adjusted odds ratio; 95% confidence interval; <iP</i value) such as increasing age (1.127; 1.013, 1.253; 0.027), nodular prostate (22.668; 4.655, 110.377; <iP</i &lt; 0.001), and PSA (1.034; 1.004, 1.064; 0.024) were significant predictors of prostate cancer. All patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia were advised a combination therapy with 5-alpha reductase inhibitor and selective alpha-1 receptor antagonist while those with malignancy were prescribed androgen deprivation therapy with antiosteoporosis therapy. In elderly patients with raised PSA levels or suspicious DRE findings, TRUS-guided prostate is recommended to rule out malignancy and plan appropriate management." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0314_17151", "title": "Characteristics of screening detected prostate cancer in men 50 to 66 years old with 3 to 4 ng./ml. Prostate specific antigen.", "score": 0.015509259259259259, "content": "We defined the yield and nature of prostate cancer in the setting of population based, randomized prostate specific antigen (PSA) guided screening in men with PSA levels between 3 and 4 ng./ml. who were 50 to 65 years old at the time of randomization. Sextant biopsies were performed in 243 men with PSA of 3 to 4 ng./ml. Therapy decisions were based on core cancer length, histological grade and life expectancy. Of the men 32 (13.2%) had prostate cancer constituting 23% of all of the 137 prostate cancers to data detected in the first round of our screening study. Age and PSA were similar in men with and without prostate cancer. Men with prostate cancer had significantly lower free PSA and free-to-total PSA ratio, and higher PSA density. Cancer was clinical stage T1c in 27 cases and stage T2 in 5. Hypoechoic areas were noted at transrectal ultrasound in 10 cases. Digital rectal examination and transrectal ultrasound were normal in 21 cases (66%). To date 14 patients have undergone prostatectomy. Surgical specimens showed a mean tumor volume of 1.8 cc (range 0.6 to 4.4) and significant amounts of high grade tumor were present in only 3 cases. Margins were positive in 5 cases, and pathological stage was pT2 in 8 cases and pT3 in 6. By lowering the PSA cutoff from 4 to 3 ng./ml. an increase in cancer detection by 30% was achieved. While the addition of free-to-total ratio and PSA density may reduce the number of biopsies by about 15% with sensitivity maintained at 90%, systematic sextant biopsies were necessary in most of these mean as 66% of the tumors were negative on transrectal ultrasound and digital rectal examination. The majority of these cancers were clinically significant and suitable for curative treatment. If therapy decisions are based on the pathological findings of the biopsies, the risk of treating insignificant cancers seems low." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0332_3970", "title": "Evaluation and management of the man who has failed primary curative therapy for prostate cancer.", "score": 0.015151515151515152, "content": "The recurrence of prostate cancer after potentially curative local therapy is becoming a significant urologic problem. There are few prospective randomized trials, and the optimal diagnostic and treatment strategies for men who fail potentially curative therapy are not known. The experience to date seems to suggest the following as a reasonable approach. A detectable serum PSA level (&gt; or = 0.4 ng/mL) after radical prostatectomy is evidence of residual or recurrent prostate cancer. Men with low- or moderate-grade cancers (Gleason score &lt; 7), with capsular penetration, or with positive surgical margins in whom disease recurs more than 2 years after radical prostatectomy with a PSA doubling time greater than 12 months seem likely to harbor a local recurrence and are the only good candidates for salvage therapy. Unless there is a palpable recurrence, transrectal ultrasound and biopsy are generally not recommended, and CT scanning and bone scintigraphy usually do not provide helpful information. The role of monoclonal antibody scanning is currently investigational. Men with high-grade tumors (Gleason score &gt; or = 7) or with seminal vesicle or lymph node involvement in whom disease recurs within 2 years of radical prostatectomy are most appropriately observed or treated with early hormonal therapy. Men who do not achieve a PSA nadir of 0.5 ng/mL or less within 2 years of radiotherapy are very likely to harbor residual disease. For young healthy men who are willing to accept a substantial risk of impotency, urinary incontinence, and bladder neck contractures, salvage radical prostatectomy is a reasonable option if the preradiation tumor characteristics are acceptable (PSA &lt; 10 ng/mL, Gleason score &lt; or = 6) and if the current PSA is less than 10 ng/mL. Salvage cryotherapy may result in substantial morbidity and should only be offered on an investigational basis. Other men failing radiation may be observed or treated with hormonal therapy. There is seldom a role for repeat biopsy. Because the optimal time to begin hormone therapy is still not known, early or delayed treatment are both reasonable options. Testicular androgen ablation by orchiectomy or LHRH agonists is considered standard therapy. Combined therapy with an antiandrogen does not seem to be beneficial for all patients and should not be routinely used. Sexually active men in whom preservation of potency is important can be offered an investigational regimen such as a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor combined with an oral antiandrogen or intermittent LHRH agonist therapy. It is hoped that the results of ongoing randomized trials and future research will establish efficient and effective practice guidelines to evaluate and treat men who have failed potentially curative therapy for localized prostate cancer. This remains a very important and controversial topic that will challenge many practicing urologists." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0046_3326", "title": "Prostate cancer. Finding and managing it.", "score": 0.0145224171539961, "content": "Despite development of new technology for the diagnosis and treatment of prostate cancer, the age-adjusted mortality rate for the disease has not declined for nearly half a century. Physicians now have the ability to diagnose very small tumors in asymptomatic patients, but it remains to be determined which subset of patients would benefit most from early identification and treatment. Studies that are currently under way hopefully will clarify what screening protocols, if any, actually reduce the mortality and morbidity that are associated with prostate cancer and its treatment. Until such evidence becomes available, screening measures for the general population are unwarranted, with the possible exception of digital rectal examination performed as part of other healthcare services. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) determination may have a place in screening patients whose family history puts them at increased risk. In patients with symptoms or findings suggestive of prostate cancer, diagnosis and staging can be accomplished more accurately and easily than ever before with a combination of PSA determination, transrectal ultrasound, ultrasound-guided tissue sampling using a biopsy gun, and the judicious use of imaging techniques such as bone scans, magnetic resonance imaging, and computed tomography. New treatment methods are being studied, and the options available, especially for management of disease progression, are expected to increase. Monitoring of treated patients has been greatly facilitated by determination of PSA levels, which are predictive of both long- and short-term prognosis. Although much work remains to be done, we may finally be on the verge of making real progress in control of prostate cancer." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_6130", "title": "Prostate-specific antigen", "score": 0.013663967611336033, "content": "PSA levels can be also increased by prostatitis, irritation, benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), and recent ejaculation, producing a false positive result. Digital rectal examination (DRE) has been shown in several studies to produce an increase in PSA. However, the effect is clinically insignificant, since DRE causes the most substantial increases in patients with PSA levels already elevated over 4.0ng/mL. The \"normal\" reference ranges for prostate-specific antigen increase with age, as do the usual ranges in cancer, as per table below. PSA velocity Despite earlier findings, recent research suggests that the rate of increase of PSA (e.g. >0.35ng/mL/yr, the 'PSA velocity') is not a more specific marker for prostate cancer than the serum level of PSA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0250_1288", "title": "The value of screening tests in the detection of prostate cancer. Part II: Retrospective analysis of free/total prostate-specific analysis ratio, age-specific reference ranges, and PSA density.", "score": 0.013597655892317553, "content": "The ratio between free and total prostate-specific antigen (PSA) in serum (F/T ratio) was shown to improve the specificity of total serum PSA for the detection of prostate carcinoma in selected populations. In this study, the value of the F/T ratio for screening of prostate cancer was compared with that of age-specific reference ranges for PSA and PSA density (PSAD) by a simulation experiment. In 1726 men between 55 and 76 years old, 67 prostate carcinomas were detected by application of digital rectal examination (DRE), transrectal ultrasonography (TRUS), and total serum PSA. A serum PSA of 4.0 ng/mL or more, an abnormal DRE, or an abnormal TRUS were the indications to perform 308 biopsies. A simulation was performed in which an F/T ratio of 0.20 (ProStatus PSA Free/Total), age-specific PSA reference ranges, and a PSAD of 0.12 ng/mL/cc were used to study their capability to increase the specificity of total serum PSA in predicting prostate biopsy results. Using age-specific PSA reference ranges and DRE as indicators for biopsy, a reduction of 37% (113) of biopsies would have been obtained with a loss of detected cancers of 12% (11). For the use of PSAD and DRE, these numbers were 28% (96) and 11% (7), respectively. Application of a serum PSA of 4.0 ng/mL or more and an F/T ratio of 0.20 or less and an abnormal DRE as indicators for biopsy would reduce the number of biopsies by 37% (112) and the number of detected cancers by 11% (7). The biopsy to prostate cancer ratio of these simulations varied between 3.3 and 3.6. Minimal loss of cancer detection of 3% (2) with a reduction in the number of biopsies of 17% (53) is obtained when TRUS is omitted from the screening protocol. Selecting men by a total serum PSA value of 2.0 ng/mL for further diagnostic workup by TRUS and DRE would have reduced the number of biopsies by 30% (102), and the number of cancers detected by 6% (4). The most cost-effective protocol for screening prostate carcinoma appears to be prescreening by total serum PSA. The F/T ratio might be used to detect carcinomas in the PSA range below 4.0 ng/mL, but the best threshold remains to be assessed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0744_15090", "title": "Prostatic specific antigen and bone scan in the diagnosis and follow-up of prostate cancer. Can diagnostic significance of PSA be increased?", "score": 0.013523358528367179, "content": "Prostate cancer (PC) is currently the most frequently diagnosed cancer in males and constitutes a major health issue in developed countries. On the other hand, the majority of PC cases are considered clinically not significant and certainly not lethal. These discrepancies highlight the need for the early detection of especially those cases that have aggressive features and call for early and radical intervention. The clinical use of prostatic specific antigen (PSA) towards this end is recognized as inadequate since PSA is prostate specific, but not a PC specific marker, as it is known to increase in other prostate diseases such as benign hyperplasia, inflammations, transrectal ultrasound examination, biopsy and after transurethral prostatectomy. However due to lack of other more specific markers, digital rectal examination combined with serum PSA are suggested for PC screening and diagnosis. With regard to advanced disease where bone involvement is the rule, nuclear medicine bone scan using radioactive bisphosphonates such as technetium-99m methylene-diphosphonate is quite common and reliable technique for detecting and monitoring bone metastases. The major advantage of nuclear scintigraphy is its ability to reveal bone metastases significantly earlier than the conventional X-ray imaging techniques. PSA density, velocity, doubling time and free to total PSA ratio increase the significance of serum PSA in diagnosing PC. The combination of an increased PSA (&gt;20ng/mL) and a high biopsy Gleason score (&gt;8) enhances the possibility of bone metastases (P&lt;0001) and mandates a bone scan. In conclusion, serum PSA testing is currently recommended in symptomatic PC patients for disease staging and treatment monitoring and in asymptomatic selected population groups aged more than 50 years. It is reasonable to suggest that PSA density, velocity, doubling time and free to total PSA ratio or combining PSA with Gleason score shall greatly increase PSA specificity in detecting PC cases. Radioisotopic bone scan by SPET or PET can demonstrate osseous metastases at later stages of PC, but should also be applied in cases falsely considered as an early stage of PC, for better staging and for periodic follow-up of the disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en343_38270", "title": "Active surveillance of prostate cancer", "score": 0.013401043870785724, "content": "Risks of over treatment of prostate cancer Over diagnosis is the detection of a cancer that would otherwise not have been diagnosed in the lifetime of the host if the detection test (e.g., PSA and/or prostate biopsy) had not been performed. Treatment of men who would otherwise not have known about their cancer in the absence of PSA testing and biopsy are over treated. Over treatment exacts a cost to the health care system and potential harm to a patient (decrease in quality of life), with no benefit. Over treatment is most likely to occur when a low grade prostate cancer is detected, especially in an older man. Data from various sources suggest that in the PSA range where many men are undergoing prostate biopsy today (PSA 2-4 ng/ml), 15-25% will have prostate cancer detected, and 80-90% will be low grade." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_6129", "title": "Prostate-specific antigen", "score": 0.013309931256399005, "content": "PSA was first measured quantitatively in the blood by Papsidero in 1980, and Stamey carried out the initial work on the clinical use of PSA as a marker of prostate cancer. Serum levels PSA is normally present in the blood at very low levels. The reference range of less than 4ng/mL for the first commercial PSA test, the Hybritech Tandem-R PSA test released in February 1986, was based on a study that found 99% of 472 apparently healthy men had a total PSA level below 4ng/mL. Increased levels of PSA may suggest the presence of prostate cancer. However, prostate cancer can also be present in the complete absence of an elevated PSA level, in which case the test result would be a false negative. Obesity has been reported to reduce serum PSA levels. Delayed early detection may partially explain worse outcomes in obese men with early prostate cancer. After treatment, higher BMI also correlates to higher risk of recurrence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0339_9931", "title": "Diagnostic value of percent free prostate-specific antigen: retrospective analysis of a population-based screening study with emphasis on men with PSA levels less than 3.0 ng/mL.", "score": 0.012361126910097449, "content": "To retrospectively investigate the use of percent free prostate-specific antigen (PSA) compared with total PSA in serum as predictor of prostate cancer in men selected randomly from the general population who underwent biopsy on the basis of abnormal findings on digital rectal examination (DRE) or transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) and/or serum PSA levels greater than 10 ng/mL. A single intervention, population-based screening study was undertaken in 1988 and 1989. Of the 2400 men aged 55 to 70 years invited to participate, 1782 men responded and were examined with DRE, TRUS, and PSA testing (Tandem-Hybritech). In 1995, frozen serum samples from 1748 men were analyzed for percent free PSA (Prostatus, Wallac OY). Five-year follow-up data on new cancers in the screened population were obtained from the Swedish Cancer Registry (SCR). Of the 1748 men, 367 underwent TRUS-guided biopsies because of abnormal findings on either DRE or TRUS or serum PSA levels of greater than 10 ng/mL. This resulted in the diagnosis of 64 cases of prostate cancer (3.7%). PSA levels of 3.0 ng/mL or greater were found in 55 (86%) of 64 cancer cases and in 399 (24%) of the 1684 benign cases. Among the 1294 men with PSA less than 3.0 ng/mL, 9 prostate cancers were diagnosed (14% of all prostate cancers). All 9 patients with cancer and with PSA less than 3.0 ng/mL had a percent free PSA of 18% or less. In the group of 1109 patients with PSA less than 3.0 ng/mL and a percent free PSA greater than 18%, 159 biopsies were performed because of abnormal DRE or TRUS. However, no prostate cancer was diagnosed in this category of patients. Five years after the screening intervention, 7 more cases of prostate cancer were clinically diagnosed in the screened population according to the SCR. The combination of PSA levels less than 3.0 ng/mL and percent free PSA greater than 18% defines a large part of the population at a very low risk of cancer of the prostate both at the time of screening and during the following 5 years. Men in this group may be spared DRE, and longer screening intervals may be considered. However, the risk of having prostate cancer is not negligible in men with PSA less than 3.0 ng/mL and percent free PSA of 18% or less. The results of this study indicate that biopsy should be recommended to men fulfilling these criteria, although these results should be confirmed in larger prospective studies because of the limited number of patients with prostate cancer in the present series." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_189538", "title": "Prostate", "score": 0.012285902503293807, "content": "A digital rectal examination and the measurement of a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level are usually the first investigations done to check for prostate cancer. PSA values are difficult to interpret, because a high value might be present in a person without cancer, and a low value can be present in someone with cancer. The next form of testing is often the taking of a biopsy to assess for tumour activity and invasiveness. Because of the significant risk of overdiagnosis with widespread screening in the general population, prostate cancer screening is controversial. If a tumour is confirmed, medical imaging such as an MRI or bone scan may be done to check for the presence of tumour in other parts of the body." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_6115", "title": "Prostate-specific antigen", "score": 0.012162695800974068, "content": "PSA levels between 4 and 10ng/mL (nanograms per milliliter) are considered to be suspicious and consideration should be given to confirming the abnormal PSA with a repeat test. If indicated, prostate biopsy is performed to obtain a tissue sample for histopathological analysis. While PSA testing may help 1 in 1,000 avoid death due to prostate cancer, 4 to 5 in 1,000 would die from prostate cancer after 10 years even with screening. This means that PSA screening may reduce mortality from prostate cancer by up to 25%. Expected harms include anxiety for 100 – 120 receiving false positives, biopsy pain, and other complications from biopsy for false positive tests." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_6132", "title": "Prostate-specific antigen", "score": 0.011974789915966387, "content": "Free PSA Most PSA in the blood is bound to serum proteins. A small amount is not protein-bound and is called 'free PSA'. In men with prostate cancer, the ratio of free (unbound) PSA to total PSA is decreased. The risk of cancer increases if the free to total ratio is less than 25%. (See graph at right.) The lower the ratio is, the greater the probability of prostate cancer. Measuring the ratio of free to total PSA appears to be particularly promising for eliminating unnecessary biopsies in men with PSA levels between 4 and 10ng/mL. However, both total and free PSA increase immediately after ejaculation, returning slowly to baseline levels within 24 hours. Inactive PSA" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en343_38282", "title": "Active surveillance of prostate cancer", "score": 0.01196208020574778, "content": "Most urologists will monitor a patient on surveillance with PSA and digital rectal examination at least biannually, and perform surveillance prostate biopsies at 1-2 year intervals. However, defining disease progression is problematic. Progression in active surveillance programs has been defined based on PSA kinetics or exceeding a given PSA threshold, increased extent of cancer or higher grade disease on prostate biopsy, change in digital rectal examination, and proceeding to curative intervention. Yet, PSA changes and exceeding a given threshold PSA value may not reflect progression of disease. A change in stage or digital rectal examination findings is unusual among patients with low risk disease. Switching from surveillance to curative intervention may be triggered by a patient's personal preference or anxiety and not necessarily by a change in the cancer. Cancer grade is the strongest feature associated with long term freedom from disease in untreated men, and therefore the" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_6131", "title": "Prostate-specific antigen", "score": 0.01185029864023383, "content": "However, the PSA rate of rise may have value in prostate cancer prognosis. Men with prostate cancer whose PSA level increased by more than 2.0ng per milliliter during the year before the diagnosis of prostate cancer have a higher risk of death from prostate cancer despite undergoing radical prostatectomy. PSA velocity (PSAV) was found in a 2008 study to be more useful than the PSA doubling time (PSA DT) to help identify those men with life-threatening disease before start of treatment. Men who are known to be at risk for prostate cancer, and who decide to plot their PSA values as a function of time (i.e., years), may choose to use a semi-log plot. An exponential growth in PSA values appears as a straight line on a semi-log plot, so that a new PSA value significantly above the straight line signals a switch to a new and significantly higher growth rate, i.e., a higher PSA velocity. Free PSA" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en004_21489", "title": "Benign prostatic hyperplasia", "score": 0.011573111573111573, "content": "PSA density, free PSA, rectal examination, and transrectal ultrasonography may be helpful in determining whether a PSA increase is due to BPH or prostate cancer. Ultrasound examination of the testes, prostate, and kidneys is often performed, again to rule out cancer and hydronephrosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_44562", "title": "Prostate cancer screening", "score": 0.011123103675721054, "content": "One commentator observed in 2011: “[I]t is prudent only to use a single PSA determination as a baseline, with biopsy and cancer treatment reserved for those with significant PSA changes over time, or for those with clinical manifestations mandating immediate therapy..... absolute levels of PSA are rarely meaningful; it is the relative change in PSA levels over time that provides insight, but not definitive proof of a cancerous condition necessitating therapy.“ History Screening of PSA began in the 1990s. In the European Randomized Study of Screening for Prostate Cancer (ERSPC) initiated in the early 1990s, the researchers concluded that PSA-based screening did reduce the rate of death from prostate cancer but created a high risk of overdiagnosis, i.e., 1410 men would need to be screened and 48 additional cases of prostate cancer would need to be treated to prevent just one death from prostate cancer within 9 years." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en067_61796", "title": "Prostate biopsy", "score": 0.010217198581560283, "content": "Prostate biopsy is a procedure in which small hollow needle-core samples are removed from a man's prostate gland to be examined for the presence of prostate cancer. It is typically performed when the result from a PSA blood test is high. It may also be considered advisable after a digital rectal exam (DRE) finds possible abnormality. PSA screening is controversial as PSA may become elevated due to non-cancerous conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), by infection, or by manipulation of the prostate during surgery or catheterization. Additionally many prostate cancers detected by screening develop so slowly that they would not cause problems during a man's lifetime, making the complications due to treatment unnecessary. The most frequent side effect of the procedure is blood in the urine (31%). Other side effects may include infection (0.9%) and death (0.2%)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0400_4231", "title": "Effect of antibiotic treatment on serum PSA and percent free PSA levels in patients with biochemical criteria for prostate biopsy and previous lower urinary tract infections.", "score": 0.009915596507775279, "content": "Controversy exists as to the influence of inflammatory foci on total and free prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentrations. The objective was to analyze the biological variations of PSA and percent free PSA (%f-PSA) in patients with biochemical criteria for prostate biopsy (PSA higher than 4 ng/mL and normal rectal examination) and compare them with the variation induced by antibiotic treatment in a cohort of patients with a history of lower urinary tract infections and no clinical evidence of prostatitis. Ninety patients with a history of lower urinary tract infections, non-suspicious digital rectal examination and PSA between 4 and 20 ng/mL were analyzed. PSA concentration and %f-PSA were determined. Forty-five patients were treated with three weeks of ofloxacin, following which marker determination was repeated. All patients underwent ultrasound-controlled transrectal six-core prostate biopsy. Sixty-seven patients presented benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) (30 with prostatitic foci) and 23 cancer. Significant variations in PSA (6.97 ng/mL vs. 5.82 ng/mL, p=0.001) and %f-PSA (14.84% vs. 17.53%, p=0.01) were found only in the treated patients. These differences were significant for patients with BPH-associated prostatitic foci and not for patients with BPH or cancer. The tendency was for PSA to decrease (15 treated patients with PSA &lt;4 ng/mL vs. six non-treated patients) and for %f-PSA to increase. The median variation of %f-PSA was greater than that of PSA. When the cutoff for %f-PSA was set at 25%, 18.9% of unnecessary biopsies after the first determination and 20% after the second could be avoided. By associating the reduction in PSA, up to 46% could be avoided in treated patients. Biochemical criteria for prostate biopsy may be modified in patients with a history of lower urinary tract infections due to variations greater than those explained by intraindividual biological variations, and may be influenced by the antibiotic treatment. These results suggest that subclinical inflammatory foci may influence PSA and %f-PSA." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en004_21488", "title": "Benign prostatic hyperplasia", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Urinalysis is typically performed when LUTS are present and BPH is suspected to evaluate for signs of a urinary tract infection, glucose in the urine (suggestive of diabetes), or protein in the urine (suggestive of kidney disease). Bloodwork including kidney function tests and prostate specific antigen (PSA) are often ordered to evaluate for kidney damage and prostate cancer, respectively. However, checking blood PSA levels for prostate cancer screening is controversial and not necessarily indicated in every evaluation for BPH. Benign prostatic hyperplasia and prostate cancer are both capable of increasing blood PSA levels and PSA elevation is unable to differentiate these two conditions well. If PSA levels are checked and are high, then further investigation is warranted. Measures including PSA density, free PSA, rectal examination, and transrectal ultrasonography may be helpful in determining whether a PSA increase is due to BPH or prostate cancer. Ultrasound examination of the" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0354_1279", "title": "[Prostatic carcinoma. Screening--when and what?].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Prostate cancer is now the most common cancer and the second most common cause of death from cancer among men. Therapy of curative intention is only possible in organ confined disease. The use of prostate specific antigen (PSA) and digital rectal examination (DRE) results in a three fold increase in prostatic carcinoma detection. Levels of PSA &gt; 4 ng/ml are indications for sextant biopsies of the prostate. There did not exist an intermediate range or 'grey zone' of PSA 4-10 ng/ml where wait and see diagnostic procedure is indicated. In PSA levels &gt; 10 ng/ml curative therapy can only performed in 15-44% of the cases. PSA and DRE examination should be performed between the age of 50 and 70 years when life expectancy exceeds ten years. In case of familiar history the case finding has to start at the age of 45. There is no support for the common opinion that early detection finds clinically insignificant cancer since autoptical prevalence of prostate cancer is about 40% and early detection discover only 3-4%. Results about the usefulness of active screening in a population will be available in 2005." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0562_19815", "title": "Are prostatic biopsies necessary in men aged &gt; or =80 years?", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To examine whether prostatic biopsies are necessary in all men aged &gt; or =80 years, as men found to have prostate cancer are frequently treated with a 'watch and wait' policy or with hormonal withdrawal alone, and biopsies are associated with a small but significant complication rate. The findings on a digital rectal examination (DRE), the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level, the biopsy and staging bone scan results for all men aged &gt; or = 80 years who had prostatic biopsies over a 3-year period were reviewed, together with those in a group of men aged &lt;80 years for comparison. All biopsy samples had been examined in one of three histopathology units, and 33 consultant urological surgeons contributed. In all, 210 biopsies from 205 men aged &gt; or = 80 years were identified, of whom 163 (79%) had biopsy-confirmed prostate cancer. All 29 men with a PSA level of &gt; or = 100 ng/mL, 98% of 47 with &gt; or = 50 ng/mL, 97% of 76 with &gt; or = 30 ng/mL and 92% of 101 with &gt; or = 20 ng/mL had biopsy cores containing cancer; 63% of men with a PSA level of &lt;20 ng/mL had cancer on biopsy. In men with cancer and a PSA level of &gt; or = 30 ng/mL, 92% had Gleason grade &gt; or = 7 and 93% were treated with hormonal withdrawal alone. In all men with cancer the DRE was abnormal in 91%, the mean number of positive cores was 59% and the bone scan was positive in 18%. The DRE was abnormal in 77% of men with benign biopsies. In men aged &gt; or = 80 years with a PSA level of &gt; or = 30 ng/mL, at least 97% had prostate cancer, &gt;90% of whom had high-grade disease, and nearly all with cancer received active pharmacological treatment. In the vast majority of these men prostate biopsies did not alter their cancer management. The value of prostatic biopsy in this age group, with a PSA level of &gt; or = 30 ng/mL, is questionable." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_44551", "title": "Prostate cancer screening", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Other A number of biomarkers for prostate cancer exist. These include: The 4Kscore combines total, free and intact PSA together with human kallikrein 2. It is used to try to determine the risk of a Gleason score greater than 6. The Prostate Health Index (PHI) is a PSA-based blood test for early prostate cancer screening. It may be used to determine when a biopsy is needed. Prostate cancer antigen 3 (PCA3) is a urine test that detects the overexpression of the PCA3 gene, an indicator of prostate cancer. ConfirmMDx is performed on tissue taken during a prostate biopsy. The test identifies men with clinically significant prostate cancer who would benefit from further testing and treatment. It can also help men without significant prostate cancer avoid unnecessary repeat biopsies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0490_440", "title": "[Prostate cancer screening using prostate-specific antigen (PSA) determinations in plasma. National Academy of Medicine].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Prostate cancer is the most frequent cancer in man above 50 years. There is an increase in its incidence due to the longer life of the population. Prostate cancer is a slowly progressing disease. If life expectation is smaller than 10 years, the risk of death from another cause is greater than that from cancer whereas it is the opposite in younger patients. Therefore, screening of the disease by rectal examination and prostatic specific antigen (PSA) assay is necessary, confirmation being obtained by prostate biopsy. Total prostatectomy and radiotherapy can cure the disease or inhibit its progression. Plasma PSA is a general marker of prostate lesions. It is easy to measure and the cost of the assay is acceptable; but its specificity and its sensitivity remain too low. In order to improve these two parameters, it has been proposed to follow PSA kinetics and to measure the ratio free PSA/total PSA. Taken together, these data lead us to recommend, in agreement with the French Association of Urology, that a PSA assay be proposed and a rectal examination be performed every year by a general practitioner in men between 50 and 75 years and from 45 years in case of familial history. If an anomaly is found, the patient must take advice from an urologist who will decide which examinations and which treatment are to be proposed. Moreover, studies are necessary to compare the principal treatments in the long term, to precise the distribution with age of plasma PSA in the population and to improve the specificity and the sensitivity of the screening test." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_44542", "title": "Prostate cancer screening", "score": 0.00967373142203852, "content": "Screening precedes a diagnosis and subsequent treatment. The digital rectal examination (DRE) is one screening tool, during which the prostate is manually assessed through the wall of the rectum. The second screening tool is the measurement of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) in the blood. The evidence remains insufficient to determine whether screening with PSA or DRE reduces mortality from prostate cancer. A 2013 Cochrane review concluded PSA screening results in \"no statistically significant difference in prostate cancer-specific mortality...\". The American studies were determined to have a high bias. European studies included in this review were of low bias and one reported \"a significant reduction in prostate cancer-specific mortality.\" PSA screening with DRE was not assessed in this review. DRE was not assessed separately." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0549_23073", "title": "[Clinical course of patients with negative initial prostate biopsy].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Of 227 men with a negative initial biopsy, the clinical course of 99 men who could be regularly followed using prostate specific antigen (PSA) determination was retrospectively analyzed. A repeat biopsy was recommended if the men showed persistent elevation of PSA &gt; 10 ng/ml, PSA velocity (PSAV) &gt; 0.75 ng/ml/year, or persistent abnormality on digital rectal examination and/or transrectal ultrasonography. A repeat biopsy was performed on 43 men. Because of the indication for a repeat biopsy, the PSAV of the 43 men who received a repeat biopsy was higher than that of the 56 men who did not. Clinically organ-confined cancer was detected in 18 patients (detection rate 41.9%). The patients having cancer had a higher PSAV (median 1.950) than those without the disease (median 0.900). Of 19 men aged 75 years and older at the initial biopsy, a repeat biopsy revealed organ-confined cancers in 4 out of 10 men. During follow-up of the 19 elderly men, 11 developed co-morbid illnesses such as cerebral infarction, ischemic heart diseases and other malignancies, and 4 died of the diseases. Thus, PSAV seems to be the best parameter for a repeat biopsy. Elderly men may not benefit from a repeat biopsy because they are unlikely to have lethal prostate cancer and highly likely to develop co-morbid illness that would affect their life-span." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0806_20503", "title": "The role of empiric antibiotic treatment in preventing unnecessary prostate biopsies in asymptomatic patients with PSA levels between 4 and 10 ng/ml.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To evaluate exclusion of prostate cancer (PCa) by using empiric antibiotic treatment for patients with total prostate specific antigen (PSA) between 4-10 ng/ml. A hundred asymptomatic men with a PSA between 4-10 ng/ml and normal digital rectal examination (DRE) were enrolled in this randomized prospective study. The treatment group (n=50) was given 400 mg of ofloxacin daily for 4 weeks, whereas the control group (n=50) was followed without any treatment. At the end of the four weeks, repeat PSA were measured and all patients underwent transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) guided biopsy, regardless of the repeat PSA levels. Totally 22 patients (22%) had prostate cancer (9 in treatment group and 13 in control group). A significant PSA decrease was observed in the treatment group at repeat PSA measurements (p=0.001). The PSA drop was also significantly more in patients without PCa than with PCa (p=0.028). In patients whose repeat PSA after antibiotic treatment decreased below 4 ng/ml, 2 times as many patients (16.6%) had PCa in the control group when compared with the treatment group (8.3%). On the other hand, in patients whose repeat PSA remained above 4 ng/ml, PCa was detected in 27.3% of the patients in the control group and 21% in the treatment group. Empirical antibiotic treatment in asymptomatic patients with a PSA level 4-10 ng/ml and a normal DRE may be used to select prostate biopsy candidates. Studies with higher number of patients may result in more powerful associations with narrower confidence intervals for increased confidence. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_44545", "title": "Prostate cancer screening", "score": 0.009436986575836505, "content": "Screening with PSA has been associated with a number of harms including over-diagnosis, increased prostate biopsy with associated harms, increased anxiety, and unneeded treatment. The evidence surrounding prostate cancer screening indicates that it may cause little to no difference in mortality. On the other hand, up to 25% of men diagnosed in their 70s or even 80s die of prostate cancer, if they have high-grade (i.e., aggressive) prostate cancer. Conversely, some argue against PSA testing for men who are too young, because too many men would have to be screened to find one cancer, and too many men would have treatment for cancer that would not progress. Low-risk prostate cancer does not always require immediate treatment, but may be amenable to active surveillance. A PSA test cannot 'prove' the existence of prostate cancer by itself; varying levels of the antigen can be due to other causes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0302_106", "title": "Early detection of prostate cancer. Part II: Estimating the risks, benefits, and costs. American College of Physicians.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To evaluate the potential benefits, harms, and economic consequences of digital rectal examination and measurement of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) for the early detection of prostate cancer. Relevant studies were identified from a MEDLINE search (1966 to 1995), reviews, bibliographies of retrieved articles, author files, and abstracts. Probabilities for individual clinical outcomes were derived from various sources, including the largest screening study of community volunteers to data, analyses of Medicare claims, and recently published meta-analyses of the outcomes of alternative treatment strategies. Cost estimates were based on the 1992 Medicare fee schedule. A cost-effectiveness model for one-time digital rectal examination and PSA measurement was constructed to examine the possible outcomes. If a favorable set of assumptions is used, one-time digital rectal examination and PSA measurement may increase average life expectancy by approximately 2 weeks at a reasonable marginal cost for men who are between 50 and 69 years of age. Considerable iatrogenic illness would occur. If less favorable assumptions are used, the estimated net benefit would decrease and cost-effectiveness ratios would dramatically increase. Even if favorable assumptions are used, the model suggests that screening adds only a few days to the average life expectancy of men who are older than 69 years of age. If the assumptions are less favorable, older men are harmed. The model suggests that screening may be reasonable in younger men if optimistic assumptions consistent with existing observational data are made. The lack of direct evidence showing a net benefit of screening for prostate cancer seems to mandate more clinician-patient discussion for this procedure than for many other routine tests." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en235_45445", "title": "High-grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Diagnosis HGPIN is diagnosed from tissue by a pathologist, which may come from: a needle biopsy taken via the rectum and, surgical removal of prostate tissue: transurethral resection of the prostate - removal of extra prostate tissue to improve urination (a treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia), radical prostatectomy - complete removal of prostate and seminal vesicles (a treatment for prostate cancer). Blood tests for prostate specific antigen (PSA), digital rectal examination, ultrasound scanning of the prostate via the rectum, fine needle aspiration or medical imaging studies (such as magnetic resonance imaging) are not useful for diagnosing HGPIN. Treatment HGPIN in isolation does not require treatment. In prostate biopsies it is not predictive of prostate cancer in one year if the prostate was well-sampled, i.e. if there were 8 or more cores." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0372_15539", "title": "[Screening for early detection of prostate cancer (first experience in Israel)].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Prostatic cancer (PC) is second only to lung cancer as a cause of cancer mortality in men word-wide. In Israel it is the most common cause of cancer mortality in men, after lung cancer and colo-rectal cancer. We screened, for the first time in Israel, for prostatic cancer using serum levels of PSA and a digital rectal examination (DRE). The purpose was not only to diagnose PC but also to increase public awareness of the condition. 300 men in the Haifa area who met statistical criteria for early diagnosis of PC participated. They filled a questionnaire regarding risk factors for PC (age, family history (FH) of prostatic and breast cancer, cigarette smoking, alcohol consumption, previous PSA sampling) and were examined. Those who had out-of-range, age-related PSA values, or a pathologic DRE underwent trans-rectal ultrasound (TRUS) examination and guided biopsy of the prostate. Those with a positive biopsy for PC underwent radical prostatectomy or radiation therapy. 41 (14.3%) had out-of-range, age-related PSA levels and 10 (3.5%) had a pathologic DRE. 39 (13.3%) underwent TRUS and biopsy and 6 (2.04%) had clinically significant PC, all early stages (Gleason 4-6). Correlation between age and PSA has been proven statistically significant (p &lt; 0.05). Symptoms of urinary tract obstruction and nocturia were related to a high PSA (p = 0.035 and 0.002, respectively). Those with PC had at least 1 symptom of urinary tract obstruction; 6 (15.3%) who underwent TRUS and biopsy and a FH of prostate cancer. However, no subject with a FH of PC had biopsy-proven cancer. Those with PC had PSA values from 4.9 to 31.8 ng/ml (9.6 median). Age-related PSA had a positive predictive value of 17.1%. Results of our annual screening for early detection of PC using age-related PSA, and DRE are encouraging: cases detected were clinically significant and treatable. It would appear that screening for PC will result in decreasing the incidence of metastatic cancer and therefore mortality." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_6121", "title": "Prostate-specific antigen", "score": 0.009173536964454656, "content": "Following radiation therapy of any type for prostate cancer, some PSA levels might be detected, even when the treatment ultimately proves to be successful. This makes it more difficult to interpret the relationship between PSA levels and recurrence/persistence of prostate cancer after radiation therapy. PSA levels may continue to decrease for several years after radiation therapy. The lowest level is referred to as the PSA nadir. A subsequent increase in PSA levels by 2.0ng/mL above the nadir is the currently accepted definition of prostate cancer recurrence after radiation therapy." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 207, 265 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 28, 37 ] ], "text": "Normal ADAMTS-13 levels rule out TTP (incorrect choice 1)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 450, 681 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 66, 102 ] ], "text": "The history of respiratory infection (not specified, it could be pneumococcal pneumonia) together with the absence of DIC data (no mention of bleeding or altered coagulation tests) makes me think of atypical HUS (option 2 correct)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 266, 362 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 37, 51 ] ], "text": "The absence of gastrointestinal symptoms rules out typical Shiga toxin HUS (incorrect choice 4)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.", "2": "Atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome.", "3": "Disseminated intravascular coagulation.", "4": "Typical hemolytic uremic syndrome.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1108_5666", "title": "Thrombotic Microangiopathy in a Severe Pediatric Case of COVID-19.", "score": 0.017966484047695776, "content": "In this case report, we report a pediatric patient with COVID-19 and atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (aHUS). A 3-year-old girl with fever and respiratory distress was admitted to the hospital. The patient tested positive for COVID-19 by a PCR test. As her respiratory distress increased and blood gas indicated deep respiratory acidosis on the third day of the pediatric intensive care unit follow-up, the patient was intubated and ventilated. Thorax computerized tomography (CT) showed bilateral effusion and atelectasis. During her follow-up, the pleural effusion resolved but there were marked consolidation areas and ground glass opacities compatible with COVID-19 on the follow-up CT. On the 10th day, she became anuric and developed progressive thrombocytopenia and persistent microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, which were suggestive of HUS given a high creatinine level (1.9 mg/dl), an undetectable haptoglobin level, reticulocytosis (8%), and an LDH level of 2540 U/l. Direct Coombs test returned negative. Examination of a peripheral blood smear revealed schistocytes. Disseminated intravascular coagulation was ruled out by normal INR and PTT. In the light of the available findings, we considered the patient to have thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) triggered by COVID-19. It was not a TTP-form of TMA but rather an aHUS type, based on an ADAMTS13 activity level &gt;5%. Hence, plasmapheresis was performed with fresh frozen plasma (FFP). After 4 weeks, she became completely asymptomatic, and her hemodynamic parameters normalized. COVID-19 induced uncontrolled complement activation leading to the development of aHUS. Early diagnosis and treatment may reduce morbidity and mortality since its treatment options." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en019_45579", "title": "Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura", "score": 0.016877937615724255, "content": "TTP is characterized by thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA), the formation of blood clots in small blood vessels throughout the body, which can lead to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. This characteristic is shared by two related syndromes, hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) and atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (aHUS). Consequently, differential diagnosis of these TMA-causing diseases is essential. In addition to TMA, one or more of the following symptoms may be present in each of these diseases: neurological symptoms (e.g. confusion, cerebral convulsions seizures,); kidney impairment (e.g. elevated creatinine, decreased estimated glomerular filtration rate [eGFR], abnormal urinalysis); and gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms (e.g. diarrhea nausea/vomiting, abdominal pain, gastroenteritis. Unlike HUS and aHUS, TTP is known to be caused by an acquired defect in the ADAMTS13 protein, so a lab test showing ≤5% of normal ADAMTS13 levels is indicative of TTP. ADAMTS13 levels" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0909_5513", "title": "Malignant hypertension as a rare cause of thrombotic microangiopathy.", "score": 0.01683644595359366, "content": "Malignant hypertension can occasionally be associated with microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia. A 38-year-old male presented with nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite and oliguria for 2 weeks. He was diagnosed with hypertensive emergency with cardiac and renal dysfunction. Interestingly, further workup was diagnostic for the presence of thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA): haemoglobin =12.7 g/dL, indirect bilirubin =2.0 mg/dL, haptoglobin ≤6 mg/dL, platelet count =121 000/μL and schistocytes on peripheral smear. At the outset, the cause of TMA was unclear. Patient denied having diarrhoea, making haemolytic uremic syndrome less likely. A normal ADAMTS13 activity test ruled out thrombotic thrombocytopaenic purpura. Malignant hypertension induced TMA was highest on the differential and plasma exchange was deferred. Renal biopsy revealed features of TMA and malignant nephrosclerosis. Patient eventually became dialysis dependent. Aggressive blood pressure control was obtained with multiple medications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0059_11730", "title": "[Thrombotic thrombocytopenic pupura (TTP)--remission following treatment with high-dose immunoglobulin].", "score": 0.015749007936507936, "content": "A 60-year-old man was admitted to our hospital because of fever, hemorrhagic tendency, anemia and neurological abnormality. A blood count revealed that the hemoglobin was 6.8 g/dl, the reticulocyte was 17.3 percent with 2 erythroblasts per 100 white cells, the white cell count was 7,100/microliters and the platelet count was 0.8 x 10(4)/microliters. Peripheral blood smear demonstrated marked fragmentation of red cells. Bone marrow examination disclosed the marked erythroid hyperplasia. Although the bleeding time was prolonged (14 minutes 30 seconds), the other hemostatic data were within normal limits. The serum bilirubin level was 1.57 mg/dl; LDH level, 1,437 U/l; creatinine level, 0.92 mg/dl; BUN level 14.7 mg/dl. Haptoglobin was below 10 mg/dl. Results of immunological tests were all negative except the result of PAIgG (576.6 ng/10(7) cells). The urinalysis showed proteinuria, microhematuria and trace granular and hyaline casts. A diagnosis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura was made. The patient was initially treated with prednisolone (60 mg), aspirin (1,000 mg), dipyridamole (150 mg), gabexate mesilate (1.5 g), sodium oxagrel (80 mg) daily with little response. The thirty days after admission, infusion of gamma globulin (20 g, daily) was given for 3 days. The clinical state and laboratory findings became dramatically improved shortly after the administration of gamma globulin and the laboratory data came to be normalized after 1 month. After ten months of this treatment, the patient is remained asymptomatic and the hematological data are within normal range without using any drug. A trial seems justified to confirm the value of this mode of therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0896_14500", "title": "Manifestation of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria as repeated acute kidney injury.", "score": 0.015649738156132017, "content": "The triad of hemolytic anemia, pancytopenia, and thrombosis makes paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) a truly unique clinical syndrome. Intravascular hemolysis in PNH can lead to a severe hemolytic episode with massive hemoglobinuria which can cause acute kidney injury (AKI) probably from acute tubular necrosis (ATN). A 15 -year-old girl was admitted with history of fever, diarrhea, vomiting followed by decreased urine output since 3 days. Urinalysis showed nil protein, no red blood cells (RBCs) on microscopy. Plasma hemoglobin level, total leukocyte count, platelet count, and serum creatinine were 6.5 gm/dl, 6440/μl, 205 000/μl, and 3.1 mg/dl, respectively. She received 3 units of packed red blood cells and the patient was discharged with normal renal function test with a diagnosis of acute gastroenteritis with recovered AKI. After 8 months she again had fever, vomiting, nausea with decreased urine output since 3 days. Laboratory investigations showed hemoglobin - 5.5 gm/dl, total leukocyte count - 1550/ μl, platelet count - 165000/μl, and serum creatinine - 4.89 mg/dl. Serum LDH level was 2188 U/l. She was managed conservatively with steroids, antibiotics and she recovered her kidney functions to normal in a week. Presentation of repeated AKI with hemolytic anemia in a short span after fever led us to perform flow cytometric analysis of peripheral blood granulocytes which revealed the presence of PNH clone. PNH may present with renal disease and anemia only even without classical history of hematuria or venous thrombosis. Thus it needs high index of suspicion as early diagnosis and treatment will help in preventing repeated episodes of AKI and thus chronic kidney disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en400_30299", "title": "Atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome", "score": 0.014908976773383553, "content": "Clinical signs and symptoms of complement-mediated TMA can include abdominal pain, confusion, fatigue, edema (swelling), nausea/vomiting and diarrhea. aHUS often presents with malaise and fatigue, as well as microangiopathic anemia. However, severe abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea are unusual. Laboratory tests may also reveal low levels of platelets (cells in the blood that aid in clotting), elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH, a chemical released from damaged cells, and which is therefore a marker of cellular damage), decreased haptoglobin (indicative of the breakdown of red blood cells), anemia (low red blood cell count)/schistocytes (damaged red blood cells), elevated creatinine (indicative of kidney dysfunction), and proteinuria (indicative of kidney injury). Patients with aHUS often present with an abrupt onset of systemic signs and symptoms such as acute kidney failure, hypertension (high blood pressure), myocardial infarction (heart attack), stroke, lung complications," }, { "id": "pubmed23n0282_16640", "title": "[An elderly case of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura].", "score": 0.014772727272727272, "content": "A 78-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital because of disorientation and fever on January 21, 1992. Two days before admission she experienced vomiting, anorexia and general malaise. Laboratory examinations on admission disclosed a hemoglobin level of 11.1 g/dl and a platelet count of 8,000/microliters. The peripheral blood smear revealed anisocytosis with numerous schistocytes and poikilocytes. Polychromatophilic and nucleated red blood cells were also seen, and the reticulocyte count was 38/1000. Her serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) value was 2,977 WU and the total serum bilirubin level was 3.5 mg/dl with 2.7 mg/dl indirect reacting fraction. Serum creatinine was 4.7 mg/dl. Her consciousness became semicomatose after a systemic seizure which lasted approximately 15 seconds and her hemoglobin level decreased to 8.5 g/dl on hospital day 2. Therefore, we diagnosed her as having thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) because of the presence of all 5 features, that is, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, fluctuating neurologic abnormalities, renal dysfunction and fever. A plasmapheresis with fresh frozen plasma (FFP) replacement was begun on that day. She was also treated with anti-platelet agents, 80 mg/day aspirin, and 300 mg/day dipyridamole. Moreover, packed red blood cells (PRC) were infused. While also receiving diphenylhydantoin and phenobarbital to prevent convulsions, status epilepticus developed on day 3. Because of inhibited spontaneous respiration which was an adverse effect derived from diazepam and sodium thiamylal administered intravenously to treat the status epilepticus, an artificial respiration was initiated.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1025_3774", "title": "Atypical Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome With the p.Ile1157Thr C3 Mutation Successfully Treated With Plasma Exchange and Eculizumab: A Case Report.", "score": 0.014718614718614718, "content": "To describe a case of atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome induced by influenza A infection with the p.Ile1157Thr C3 mutation. Clinical observations of a patient. Case reports. Data extracted from medical records, after patient's consent. Four days prior to presentation to our hospital, a 16-year-old adolescent had a fever and arthralgia with hematuria. He was found to be positive for type A influenza and prescribed oseltamivir and acetaminophen by a primary-care physician. A bleeding tendency and purpura in the extremities and on the trunk developed; therefore, he was transferred to Chiba University Hospital. Hematology revealed severe thrombocytopenia, hyperbilirubinemia, and acute kidney injury. Aspartate aminotransferase, lactate dehydrogenase, and potassium could not be determined because of severe hemolysis. Highly elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels indicated acute kidney injury. A platelet count of 24,000/μL indicated thrombocytopenia, with low hemoglobin level. Peripheral blood profiling identified schistocytes. Continuous hemodiafiltration and plasma infusion were initiated immediately; however, he became oliguric. Plasma exchange was initiated on ICU day 3, but decreased urine output, hemolysis, and thrombocytopenia persisted. IV eculizumab therapy was initiated on day 7 and resulted in recovery of these symptoms and also successful discontinuation of renal support. The patient showed a stable condition without recurrence of hemolytic findings and acute kidney injury and is currently on maintenance therapy of eculizumab (1,200 mg, every other week) without any relapse of atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome symptoms. A plasma sample collected prior to initiation of plasma exchange showed an disintegrin-like and metalloprotease with thrombospondin type 1 motifs 13 activity level of 104.9%. The absence of both Shiga toxin-producing <iEscherichia coli</i in feces led to suspicion of atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome. Subsequent genetic analysis identified a mutation in <iC3</i (p.Ile1157Thr), confirming the diagnosis of atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome. Although managing thrombocytopenia secondary to infection, inclusion of atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome in the differential diagnosis at an early stage is important in clinical practice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0946_17728", "title": "Severe renal failure and thrombotic microangiopathy induced by malignant hypertension successfully treated with spironolactone.", "score": 0.01466795615731786, "content": "Malignant hypertension can cause thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) characterized by hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. On the other hand, severe hypertension is sometimes associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Distinguishing these entities is important because of therapeutic implications. Plasmapheresis should be initiated as soon as possible if we are dealing with TTP. We describe the case of a 30-year-old man referred to our hospital with malignant hypertension, severe renal failure and TMA: haemoglobin=9g/dL, total bilirubin=0.4mg/dL, haptoglobin≤10mg/dL, platelet count=59,000/μL and schistocytes on peripheral smear. He required initiation of hemodialysis. Additionally, we considered that the possible cause of TMA was malignant hypertension according to the presence of hypertensive retinopathy and thrombocytopenia which remitted only with blood pressure control, hence, plasmapheresis was not given. Renal function did not improve and the patient remained chronic hemodialysis. Intensive therapy for hypertension with a combination of antihypertensive drugs including spironolactone successfully lowered his blood pressure without developing hyperkalemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0657_17051", "title": "[Diabetes mellitus as a rare complication of hemolytic uremic syndrome--case report].", "score": 0.01464741577735928, "content": "A 4-year-old girl was hospitalized in a local hospital with bloody diarrhoea, vomitus and abdominal pain. Because of acute abdominal symptoms she underwent appendectomy after which convulsions and acute respiratory distress were noticed. The child was transferred to the intensive care unit. During the examination she was unconscious, pale, oedematous with scattered ecchymoses, severe hypertension and urine output diminished to several ml per day. Routine blood tests showed microangiopathic anaemia, thrombocytopenia (52000/ul.) and uremia. Proteinuria and hematuria were revealed on urine examination. Among coagulation parameters kaolin-kefalin time (69 s) and D-dimers (2000-4000/ul.) were abnormal. On the strength of history, clinical and laboratory investigation the diagnosis of D-positive hemolytic uremic syndrome was established. Controlled artificial respiration (for 10 weeks), total parenteral alimentation (TPN), antihypertensive treatment and diuretics (furosemide, dopamine) were introduced. Daily temporary access hemodialyses were performed for 4 weeks. Subsequently peritoneal dialysis was started for 2 weeks. Despite the appropriate TPN glucose blood levels were unexpectedly high from first days from admission (200-330 mg%). Intensive intravenous insulin therapy was performed for 50 days. The child was discharged after 72 days with moderate renal function impairment (blood urea-53 mg%, creatinine-1,2 mg%), mild hypertension and proteinuria. Additional factor prone to thrombotic events was the 4G/4G genotype responsible for increased PAI-1 blood concentration, which may result in intensified fibrinolysis inhibition. Diabetes mellitus as a rare immunological complication of haemolytic uremic syndrome was suspected on the following evidence: positive anti-GAD antibodies (ELISA), elevated levels of glycosylated haemoglobin A1c, three-fold reduction of blood C-peptide concentration, negative family history for diabetes. After 12 y of follow up glucose and C-peptide concentrations were normal. Glucose loading test gave adequate response. Kidney function was decreased with serum creatinine 1.7-1.9 mg/dl and urea 60-75 mg/dl." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0681_21394", "title": "[Metastatic prostate cancer complicated with chronic disseminated intravascular coagulopathy causing acute renal failure, mimicking thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and hemolytic uremic syndrome: pathomechanism, differential diagnosis and therapy related to a case].", "score": 0.014442778610694653, "content": "Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is characterized as activation of the clotting system resulting in fibrin thrombi, gradually diminishing levels of clotting factors with increased risk of bleeding. Basically two types of DIC are distinguished: (1) chronic (compensated) - with alteration of laboratory values and (2) acute (non-compensated) - with severe clinical manifestations: bleeding, shock, acute renal failure (ARF), transient focal neurologic deficit, delirium or coma. Chronic DIC related to metastatic neoplasia is caused by pancreatic, gastric or prostatic carcinoma in most of the cases. Incidence rate of DIC is 13-30% in prostate cancer, among those only 0.4-1.65% of patients had clinical signs and symptoms of DIC. In other words, chronic DIC is developed in one of eight patients with prostate cancer. DIC is considered as a poor prognostic factor in prostatic carcinoma. The similar clinical and laboratory findings of TTP-HUS (thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura - hemolytic uremic syndrome) and DIC makes it difficult to differentiate between them. A 71 years old male patient with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, benign prostatic hyperplasia, significant carotid artery stenosis, gastric ulcer and alcoholic liver disease was admitted to another hospital with melena. Gastroscopy revealed intact gastric mucosa and actually non-bleeding duodenal ulcer covered by clots. Laboratory results showed hyperkalemia, elevated kidney function tests, indirect hyperbilirubinemia, increased liver function tests, leukocytosis, anemia, thrombocytopenia and elevated international normalized ratio (INR). He was treated with saline infusions, four units of red blood cells and one unit of fresh frozen plasma transfusions. Four days later he was transported to our Institution with ARF. Physical examination revealed dyspnoe, petechiae, hemoptoe, oliguria, chest-wall pain and aggressive behavior. Thrombocytopenia, signs of MAHA (fragmentocytes and helmet cells in the peripheral blood), normal INR, elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and ARF suggested TTP-HUS. Hemodialysis and six plasmaferesis (PF) were carried out. After the fifth PF, skin manifestations of thrombotic microangiopathy occurred on the feet. Clotting analysis revealed elevated D-dimer (&gt;5 μg/mL), normal fibrinogen (3.2 g/L), a slightly raised INR (1.36) and activated partial prothrombin time (APTT) (45.8 sec), normal reticulocyte (57 G/L) and a slightly low platelet count (123 G/L), which proved to be chronic DIC. Therapeutic dose of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) was started. Elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) (109.6 ng/mL) suggested prostatic carcinoma. Prostate biopsy revealed adenocarcinoma (Gleason: 4+4 for left lobe and 3+3 for right lobe). Elevated alkaline phosphatase suggested metastases in the bone, which were confirmed by bone scintigraphy. Combined androgen blockade (CAB) was started. After three months follow-up our patient's status is satisfactory. PSA is in the normal range (4.6 ng/mL). Thrombocytopenia of uncertain origin with normal or raised INR, APTT, elevated D-dimer, normal fibrinogen and reticulocyte count prove the diagnosis of chronic DIC. This process warrants searching for metastatic neoplasia. Due to the relatively low serum levels of circulating procoagulant factors (e.g. tissue factor), therapeutic dose of LMWH can be used with good efficiency in chronic DIC with low risk of bleeding. Severe DIC as a complication of metastatic prostate cancer can be treated by androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) or CAB in combination with ketokonazole and concomitant use of supportive treatment. Deme D, Ragán M, Kovács L, Kalmár K, Varga E, Varga T, Rakonczai E. Metastatic prostate cancer complicated with chronic disseminated intravascular coagulopathy causing acute renal failure mimicking thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and hemolytic uremic syndrome: pathomechanism, differential diagnosis and therapy related to a case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1128_4219", "title": "Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome Associated with Norovirus Gastroenteritis: Case Report and Literature Review.", "score": 0.014423076923076924, "content": "A previously healthy 3-year-old girl was admitted with fever, nonbloody diarrhea, vomiting for 3 days, and oliguria. Physical examination showed fatigue, pale appearance, hypertension, and mild periorbital edema. Laboratory examinations revealed anemia, thrombocytopenia, acute kidney injury, high LDH, and low haptoglobin levels. Urinalysis showed proteinuria and hematuria. Schistocytes and helmet cells were detected in the peripheral blood smear. There were no electrolyte imbalance and hypocomplementemia. Direct Coombs and viral panel were negative. Blood, urine, throat, and stool cultures were negative. Norovirus GII was positive in stool PCR, while other diarrheal agents were negative. The patient was diagnosed with norovirus gastroenteritis-induced hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS). Furosemide was started for oliguria and hypertension, and blood pressure was controlled with oral nifedipine. On the 12th day of hospitalization, he was discharged with fully recover. To date, norovirus-associated HUS has been reported in 5 cases. Two of these are adult cases and the other three and our case are pediatric patients. In this case report and literature review, we observed that norovirus can cause HUS, especially in children, with a milder course than other types of HUS. The reason why it is more complicated in adult cases may be the presence of an additional underlying kidney disease. Since it was detected coincidentally in 1 case in the literature, it may be useful to screen for mutations in the complement pathway that may cause aHUS, if possible, in diarrhea-associated HUS caused by norovirus agents, but it was not present in our case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0968_3069", "title": "A Case of Recurrent Thrombotic Microangiopathy Caused by Hypertensive Urgency.", "score": 0.014345369688037337, "content": "A 26-year-old man presented to the emergency room with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting for four days. His medical history was significant for hypertension and end-stage renal disease managed with hemodialysis. He had been noncompliant with the antihypertensive regimen which included nifedipine, hydralazine, and spironolactone. At presentation, his blood pressure was 231/123 mmHg. Laboratory workup showed white blood count 17.3 × 109/L (normal range: 4.5 to 11.0 × 109/L), hemoglobin 7.8 gm/dL (normal range: 13.5 to 17.5 g/dL), platelet count 46 × 109/L (normal range: 150 to 400 × 109/L), reticulocyte count 7.8%, total bilirubin 1 mg/dL (normal range: 0.1 to 1.2 mg/dL), lactate dehydrogenase 1,235 U/L (normal range: 140 to 280 U/L), haptoglobin &lt; 10 mg/dL, and a direct Coomb's test was negative. Numerous schistocytes were identified on the peripheral blood smear. The patient was diagnosed with thrombotic microangiopathy secondary to severe hypertension and was started on intravenous nicardipine. With appropriate blood pressure control, hematological parameters improved with normalization of the platelet count within 10 days. Notably, the patient had one similar episode of hypertension-induced thrombotic microangiopathy within a period of the last three months and ADAMTS-13 (a disintegrin and metalloprotease with thrombospondin type 1 motif 13) activity was normal on his previous admission." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0901_9801", "title": "Eculizumab experience in an adult patient with atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome.", "score": 0.01422081769701758, "content": "Atypical hemolytic-uremic syndrome is a disease characterized by nonimmune hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. In this study, we present a case of a patient with atypical hemolytic-uremic syndrome treated successfully with eculizumab. A 20-year-old female was admitted with clinical signs of atypical hemolytic syndrome. The laboratory findings were as follows: hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL, platelet count 18 × 103/μL, creatinine 4.69 mg/dL, schistocytes were in peripheral blood smear, lactate dehydrogenase 2080 U/L, and emergency plasmapheresis procedure with fresh frozen plasma were initiated. The patient was anuric within 12 h of her admittance. ADAMTS13 activity was normal. Her mother's cousin developed acute rejection immediately after receiving a renal transplant and died two months later. As she did not respond to the treatment and considering her family history, eculizumab was initiated which resulted in platelet counts starting to rise on day 5, and the patient no longer needed dialysis after 22 days." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0249_2786", "title": "[A case of hemolytic uremic syndrome associated with circulating anticoagulant].", "score": 0.014001349527665317, "content": "A previously well 66-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital because of severe abdominal pain, oliguria, jaundice and hemoglobinuria. At admission, the following values were obtained: red blood cell count 261 x 10(4)/mm3, serum creatinine 2.8mg/100ml, total bilirubin 8.0mg/ml, indirect bilirubin 5.7mg/100ml, LDH 13886 WU, negative direct and indirect Coomb's test and peripheral blood smear showing schistocytosis. She was diagnosed as hemolytic uremic syndrome and was successfully treated with plasma infusion, plasma exchange and hemodialysis. The results of the tests for verotoxin titer of E. coli O157: H7 and circulating anticoagulant were positive. The test result for anticoagulant eventually became negative during her clinical course. In this case, circulating anticoagulant might have contributed to the pathogenesis of hemolytic uremic syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1047_15428", "title": "Diagnostic dilemma in postpartum associated hemolytic uremic syndrome in a 38th week pregnant 31-year-old Congolese: a case report.", "score": 0.013739883305100696, "content": "Thrombotic microangiopathy is associated with HELLP syndrome, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, or atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (aHUS) during pregnancy. Standard laboratory and physical examinations can help distinguish between these three diseases promptly and guide their management. This is critical because their managements and prognoses differ considerably. The ADAMTS13 test, complement tests, and biopsies can help ascertain the diagnosis; however, they take time, and are not widely available. In this case report, we present a case that highlights the diagnostic and therapeutic dilemmas associated with the aforementioned diseases. A 31-year old P3G3 patient presented at 38 weeks with high blood pressure, bilateral pitting edema, and a low fetal heart rate. A cesarean section was performed to extract the fetus. On postoperative day 2, the suites were marked by anemia, low platelet count, acute kidney injury, declining liver function, and the presence of schistocytes on the peripheral thin smear. The patient was lucid, coherent, and presented no neurological deficits. The ADAMTS13 test and anti-complement therapy were not readily available, so the team made a presumptive diagnosis of aHUS based on the history, clinical presentation, and standard laboratory results. Due to a lack of anticomplement therapy, the patient was prescribed four sessions of hemodialysis. The renal function and platelet count gradually increased, and the patient was discharged on postoperative day 18. The patient was followed for over a year and did not present relapses of thrombocytopenia or microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. The prompt diagnosis and management of aHUS lead to favorable outcomes. Healthcare providers should be able to rapidly differentiate between pregnancy-associated thrombotic microangiopathies and prescribe appropriate management. Here, we highlighted the challenges of diagnosing and managing postpartum associated aHUS in a low-resource setting." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en435_34729", "title": "Upshaw–Schulman syndrome", "score": 0.01348254526010236, "content": "Diagnosis A diagnosis of TTP is based on the clinical symptoms with the concomitant presence of thrombocytopenia (platelet count below 100×109/L) and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia with schistocytes on the blood smear, a negative direct antiglobulin test (Coombs test), elevated levels of hemolysis markers (such as total bilirubin, LDH, free hemoglobin, and an unmeasurable haptoglobin), after exclusion of any other apparent cause. USS can present similar to the following diseases, which have to be excluded: fulminant infections, disseminated intravascular coagulation, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Evans syndrome, the typical and atypical form of hemolytic uremic syndrome, HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets) syndrome, pre-eclampsia, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, cancer that is often accompanied with metastasis, kidney injury, antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, and side effects from hematopoietic stem cell transplantation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1113_24476", "title": "Uncommon Presentation of Atypical Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome: A Case Report.", "score": 0.013076142131979695, "content": "Atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (aHUS) is an ultra-rare disease characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia and renal damage. Its presentation as nephrotic syndrome (NS) during first year of life is uncommon; we describe a child with clinical and laboratory findings of NS whose renal biopsy revealed thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA). A previously healthy 4-month-old male was admitted with severe dehydration, diarrhea and anuria. Laboratory results showed electrolyte disturbances, increased serum creatinine, anemia without schistocytes, thrombocytosis, normal lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) levels, hypoalbuminemia hypercholesterolemia and decreased C3 levels. After rehydration hematuria and massive proteinuria were also documented and an initial diagnosis of NS of the first year was established. Studies seeking for infectious agents were negative. During hospitalization he continued to be oligo-anuric needing dialysis and a renal biopsy was performed, which showed TMA findings. We here considered the diagnosis of aHUS and started plasma infusions as a bridge until starting eculizumab. After two infusions urine output improved leading to discontinuation dialysis. The diagnoses of STEC infection and thrombocytopenic thrombotic purpura were ruled out. Factor B, H, I and properdin levels were normal. Antibodies against CFH negative were negative. Screening for genes causative of aHUS detected a heterozygous variant in CFHR3 of uncertain significance. On day 20, treatment was switched to eculizumab, which induced a progressive remission of the NS. This case outlines the need for a heightened diagnosis suspicion of this already rare disease since early initiation of eculizumab therapy improves its prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0402_11618", "title": "[Hemolytic-uremic syndrome and Streptococcus pneumoniae].", "score": 0.012878787878787878, "content": "Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is an uncommon complication of pneumococcal infection. Highly suggesting findings in a patient with Streptococcus pneumoniae infection are: microangyopatic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia and acute renal failure. We report a 41 years old woman, admitted to the hospital due to a severe pneumonia, that required the surgical drainage of an empyema. On admission, a drop in packed red cell volume from 41 to 25%, the presence of schistocytes in the blood smear, an elevation of LDH to 1,700 IU/L, a fall in haptoglobin to 5.8 mg/dL and a thrombocytopenia of 72,000 per mm3 were detected. These alterations coincided with an oliguric acute renal failure. She was treated with hemodialysis and the hemolytic syndrome was managed with plasmapheresis. She was discharged 35 days after admission and in the follow up, after 2.5 months, her serum creatinine is 1.2 mg/dL and her packed red cell volume is 41%." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_49098", "title": "Hemolytic–uremic syndrome", "score": 0.012787994081589515, "content": "People with HUS commonly exhibit the symptoms of thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA), which can include abdominal pain, low platelet count, elevated lactate dehydrogenase LDH, (a chemical released from damaged cells, and which is therefore a marker of cellular damage) decreased haptoglobin (indicative of the breakdown of red blood cells) anemia (low red blood cell count), schistocytes (damaged red blood cells), elevated creatinine (a protein waste product generated by muscle metabolism and eliminated renally), proteinuria (indicative of kidney injury), confusion, fatigue, swelling, nausea/vomiting, and diarrhea. Additionally, patients with aHUS typically present with an abrupt onset of systemic signs and symptoms such as acute kidney failure, hypertension (high blood pressure), myocardial infarction (heart attack), stroke, lung complications, pancreatitis (inflammation of the pancreas), liver necrosis (death of liver cells or tissue), encephalopathy (brain dysfunction), seizure, and" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0969_4465", "title": "Thrombotic microangiopathy following Bothrops jararaca snakebite: case report.", "score": 0.012507066139061617, "content": "Thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) is an uncommon and severe complication of snakebites, and is similar, in general, to hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS). We describe a case of TMA following envenomation by Bothrops jararaca. A 56-y-old-woman with controlled hypertension was transferred from a primary hospital to our ER ∼7 h after being bitten by B. jararaca in the distal left leg. She developed edema extending from the bite site to the proximal thigh, associated with intense radiating local pain, local paresthesia and ecchymosis at the bite site. Laboratory features upon admission revealed coagulopathy (20 min whole blood clotting time - WBCT20 &gt; 20 min), thrombocytopenia (76,000 platelets/mm<sup3</sup) and slight increase in serum creatinine (1.58 mg/dL; RV &lt; 1.2 mg/dL). Upon admission, the patient was treated with bothropic antivenom and fluids replacement. During evolution, her thrombocytopenia and anemia worsened, with blood films showing fragmented red cells, haptoglobin consumption, increase in serum lactate dehydrogenase, and progressive increase of serum creatinine (KDIGO stage = 3). No RBC transfusion, renal replacement therapy or plasmapheresis was done. The patient showed progressive improvement from day nine (D9) onwards and was discharged on D20; there was complete recovery of hemoglobin levels at follow-up (D50). ADAMTS-13 activity, assayed 10 months post-bite, was within reference values. TMA following snakebite has been reported mainly in India, Sri Lanka and Australia, with several patients needing renal replacement therapy. Although controversial, plasmapheresis has also been used in some cases. Our patient developed microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia and acute kidney injury, a triad of features compatible with TMA similar to HUS. Despite the severity, the outcome following conservative treatment was good, with complete recovery." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_12756", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012369597615499255, "content": "Shiga toxin produced by S. dysenteriae type 1 has been linked countries, where enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) predominates as the etiologic agent of this syndrome. HUS is an early complication that most often develops after several days of diarrhea. Clinical examination shows pallor, asthenia, and irritability and, in some cases, bleeding of the nose and gums, oliguria, and increasing edema. HUS is a nonimmune (Coombs test–negative) hemolytic anemia defined by a diagnostic triad: microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (hemoglobin level typically <80 g/L [<8 g/dL]), thrombocytopenia (mild to moderate in severity; typically <60,000 platelets/μL), and acute renal failure due to thrombosis of the glomerular capillaries (with markedly elevated creatinine levels). Anemia is severe, with fragmented red blood cells (schizocytes) in the peripheral smear, high serum concentrations of lactate dehydrogenase and free circulating hemoglobin, and elevated reticulocyte counts. Acute renal failure occurs" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_21552", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011815994003235096, "content": "A complete blood count may provide diagnostic clues. Anemia is common in AKI and is usually multifactorial in origin. It is not related to an effect of AKI solely on production of red blood cells because this effect in isolation takes longer to manifest. Peripheral eosinophilia can accompany interstitial nephritis, atheroembolic disease, polyarteritis nodosa, and Churg-Strauss vasculitis. Severe anemia in the absence of bleeding may reflect hemolysis, multiple myeloma, or thrombotic microangiopathy (e.g., HUS or TTP). Other laboratory findings of thrombotic microangiopathy include thrombocytopenia, schistocytes on peripheral blood smear, elevated lactate dehydrogenase level, and low haptoglobin content. Evaluation of patients suspected of having TTP-HUS includes measurement of levels of the von Willebrand factor cleaving protease (ADAMTS13) and testing for Shiga toxin–producing Escherichia coli. “Atypical HUS” constitutes the majority of adult cases of HUS; genetic testing is" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0999_7414", "title": "Gastrointestinal infection-related disseminated intravascular coagulation mimicking Shiga toxin-mediated hemolytic uremic syndrome - implications of classical clinical indexes in making the diagnosis: A case report and literature review.", "score": 0.011777155731549123, "content": "Thrombocytopenia associated with acute kidney injury is a challenging disorder. Thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) is a potentially life- or organ-threatening syndrome that can be induced by several disorders or medical interventions. There is overlap between the clinical presentation and pathophysiology of thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura and hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), and to a lesser extent, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). We describe a case to illustrate the potential diagnostic difficulty, especially at initial presentation. We reported a case of a 44-year-old woman that presented with diarrhea, thrombocytopenia, schistocytes, elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level and acute kidney injury. While the clinical presentation resembled that of Shiga toxin-induced HUS, the disease course was more consistent with gastrointestinal infection-related DIC. To aid in the accurate diagnosis of TMA and other associated disorders, we have undertaken a review and provided a clear interpretation of some typical biomarkers including schistocytes, LDH and platelet count, coagulation profile and more specific indexes of ADAMTS13, complement profile, and the isolation of Shiga toxin-producing <iEscherichia coli</i (commonly referred to as STEC). The use and correct interpretation of classical indexes of schistocyte, LDH, and platelet count is vital in diagnosing TMA and associated disorders. Understanding the characteristics of these biomarkers in the context of thrombocytopenia purpura, HUS and DIC will facilitate the accurate diagnosis and early initiation of appropriate treatment." }, { "id": "article-22741_25", "title": "Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome -- Evaluation", "score": 0.011314794676609188, "content": "The diagnosis of HUS requires a high index of suspicion based on symptoms, travel history, laboratory data, and dietary history. [14] [15] [16] Initial tests should include a complete blood count with differential and comprehensive blood metabolic panel. Elevated LDH and indirect bilirubin, as well as low haptoglobin and elevated plasma hemoglobin, are diagnostic of hemolytic anemia, as are schistocytes on peripheral smear. A Coombs test should be negative, with the exception of HUS caused by S pneumonia ." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0799_17403", "title": "A case of atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome.", "score": 0.011236301898441117, "content": "A 9-year-old boy presented with fever not responding to antibiotic therapy and elevated blood urea and serum creatinine levels. The patient developed microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia during the hospital stay. Kidney biopsy confirmed the diagnosis of atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS). The patient had sufficient urine output, normal blood pressure, and no evidence of peripheral edema during the whole course of his disease. Serum levels of anti-Epstein-Barr virus immunoglobulin M was elevated, indicating the possible role of Epstein-Barr virus infection in inducing atypical HUS in this patient. The patient underwent hemodialysis with dramatic response. He was discharged with normal kidney function after a few days. Kidney function and platelet count were normal 12 months after the initial presentation. This case report shows that atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome could have unusual presentations such as the absence of oliguria, hypertension, and edema, with rapid recovery and good prognosis. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n1065_23962", "title": "Hemolytic uremic syndrome caused by sea anemone sting: a case report.", "score": 0.010998692661854145, "content": "Some sea anemone toxins cause renal injuries resembling hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS). To date, only a few cases of HUS caused by sea anemone stings have been reported. In this case report, we have described an HUS case caused by a sea anemone sting. In November 2019, a 37-year-old man with no underlying disease was admitted to our hospital. He presented with intense pain, a rash on, and swelling in his right thigh. Two days prior, he had been stung by a sea anemone while scuba diving in Cebu, Philippines. His blood tests revealed renal dysfunction, and his platelet count was normal. However, on day three, the platelet count decreased rapidly. His blood haptoglobin level decreased, and schistocytes were identified on the peripheral blood smear. We suspected thrombotic microangiopathy and started the conventional treatment, comprising hemodialysis, blood transfusion, and antibiotic administration. ADAMTS-13 and genetic test results associated with atypical HUS were normal. Therefore, the patient was diagnosed with HUS caused by a sea anemone toxin. HUS caused by a sea anemone toxin is rare, but it is a serious medical disease. Clinicians should consider HUS in patients with such clinical presentations, and they should make prompt treatment-related decisions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1035_627", "title": "[Invasive pneumococcal disease and hemolytic uremic syndrome: new serotype].", "score": 0.01074006186275633, "content": "Streptococcus pneumoniae associated hemolytic uremic syndrome (Sp-HUS) is defined as microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia and acute renal injury, in a patient with Streptococcus pneumoniae (Sp) invasive infection. A 2-year-old boy was admitted with pneumonia and empyema. Sp was isolated from blood and pleural fluid cultures. After 72 h, the patient showed paleness, asthenia, respiratory whining and oliguria. Laboratory showed anemia, low platelets, increased blood urea, creatirnina, lactate dehdrogenase, direct Coombs +, schistocytes, fibrinogen, normal coagulogram and increased D-dimer. Proteinuria and hematuria were detected in urine. Mechanical ventilatory assistance and transfusions of washed red blood cells were required. The patient recovered progressively. Sp serotype 38 was isolated in the National Reference Laboratory \"Malbran\". This is the first report associated to this serotype." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0895_24673", "title": "Complement-mediated thrombotic microangiopathy secondary to sepsis-induced disseminated intravascular coagulation successfully treated with eculizumab: A case report.", "score": 0.010702322148413103, "content": "Secondary thrombotic microangiopathies (TMAs) are induced by several underlying conditions; most are resolved by treating background disease. Eculizumab is a human monoclonal antibody that blocks the final stage of the complement system and effectively treats atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (aHUS). In this report, we present a patient with TMA secondary to sepsis- induced coagulopathy, who was successfully treated with eculizumab.A 44-year-old woman, who had no special medical history or familial history of TMAs, was admitted on suspicion of septic shock. Physical examination revealed gangrene on her soles. Blood tests revealed a decreased platelet count, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal dysfunction, hemolysis, and infection. Although the coagulation disorder improved with intensive care, the low platelet count, elevated lactate dehydrogenase levels, and renal dysfunction persisted. Our investigations subsequently excluded thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli-induced HUS. Plasma exchange only improved lactate dehydrogenase levels. We clinically diagnosed this case as atypical HUS and started eculizumab treatment. The patient's platelet count increased, her renal dysfunction improved, and the gangrene on her feet was ameliorated. The patient was discharged without maintenance dialysis therapy after approximately 3 months. Subsequent tests revealed elevated serum levels of soluble C5b-9, and genetic testing revealed compound heterozygous c.184G &gt; A (Val62Ile) and c.1204T &gt; C (Tyr402His) single-nucleotide polymorphisms in complement factor H.We encountered a case of complement-mediated TMA accompanied by DIC, which was successfully treated with eculizumab. Further studies are necessary to support the optimal use of eculizumab for TMA with background diseases." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_25122", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010683353954506519, "content": "Microvascular Thrombotic Crisis (Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura, Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome) This syndrome of hemolysis, thrombocytopenia, and microvascular thrombosis in kidneys, brain, and other tissues carries a high mortality rate and occurs most commonly in young individuals with lupus nephritis. The most useful laboratory tests are identification of schistocytes on peripheral blood smears, elevated serum levels of lactate dehydrogenase, and antibodies to 2134 ADAMS13. Plasma exchange or extensive plasmapheresis is usually life-saving; most authorities recommend concomitant glucocorticoid therapy; there is no evidence that cytotoxic drugs are effective." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_83392", "title": "Hemoglobinuria", "score": 0.010658118253054962, "content": "Causes Acute glomerulonephritis Burns Renal cancer Malaria Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Microangiopathies, e.g. hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS), thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) leading to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia Transfusion reactions IgM autoimmune hemolytic anemia Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency Pyelonephritis Sickle cell anemia Tuberculosis of the urinary tract March hemoglobinuria secondary to repetitive impacts on the body, usually the feet Athletic nephritis secondary to strenuous exercise Acute lead poisoning Diagnosis The diagnosis is often made based on the medical history, blood samples, and a urine sample. The absence of urine RBCs and RBC casts microscopically despite a positive dipstick test suggests hemoglobinuria or myoglobinuria. The medical term for RBCs in the urine is hematuria. See also Hematuria References External links Abnormal clinical and laboratory findings for urine" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0599_17750", "title": "Renal thrombotic microangiopathies induced by severe hypertension.", "score": 0.010555555555555556, "content": "Renal thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) is an uncommon vascular complication of severe hypertension. Until now, its clinical-pathological characteristics and renal survival have been unclear. Twenty-one patients with biopsy-proven renal TMA and with severe or malignant hypertension were retrospectively studied. All the patients exhibited severe hypertension, with systolic blood pressure at 200-280 mmHg and diastolic pressure at 110-180 mmHg. No patients had hemorrhagic manifestations. Elevated lactate dehydrogenase and thrombocytopenia were found in 6 and 5 patients, respectively. Significant proteinuria (&gt;3 g/day) was present in 2 patients and microscopic hematuria in 18 patients. All patients presented with renal insufficiency (creatinine 3.1+/-2.1 mg/dL). The level of von Willebrand factor:antigen (vWF:Ag) in patients was not significantly higher than that in the healthy subjects, while the ADAMTS13 (a disintegrin and metalloprotease, with thrombospondin-1-like domains) activity was not significantly lower than that in the healthy subjects. Renal histology showed a TMA involving preglomerular arterioles and/or interlobular arteries characterized by fibrin deposits and vascular wall sclerosis. Fibrin glomerular microthrombi were not observed in these patients. Four patients required hemodialysis upon admission for severe acute renal failure. On follow-up, 3 patients had recovered normal renal function and 14 had mild renal insufficiency (creatinine 1.8+/-0.3 mg/dL), while 4 patients still required persistent hemodialysis. In conclusion, compared with patients having hemolytic uremic syndrome/thrombocytopenic purpura, our patients showed a low incidence of thrombocytopenia and better renal outcome." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Streptococcus viridans.", "2": "Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus.", "3": "Beta-hemolytic streptococcus, group A.", "4": "Enterococcus.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0600_10542", "title": "Streptococcal infection and exacerbations of childhood tics and obsessive-compulsive symptoms: a prospective blinded cohort study.", "score": 0.018957771787960466, "content": "If pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections is a unique clinical entity, we hypothesized that children meeting diagnostic criteria would have more clinical exacerbations temporally linked to bona fide group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection than matched control subjects (chronic tic and/or obsessive-compulsive disorder with no known temporal relationship to group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection). Subjects included 40 matched pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections case-control pairs who were prospectively evaluated with intensive laboratory testing for group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus and clinical measures for an average of 2 years. Additional testing occurred at the time of any clinical exacerbations or illness. Laboratory personnel were blinded to case or control status and clinical (exacerbation or not) condition. Clinical raters were blinded to the results of laboratory tests. The cases had a higher clinical exacerbation rate and a higher bona fide group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection rate than the control group. Only 5 of 64 exacerbations were temporally associated (within 4 weeks) with a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection, and all occurred in cases. The number (5.0) was significantly higher than the number that would be expected by chance alone (1.6). Yet, &gt;/=75% of the clinical exacerbations in cases had no observable temporal relationship to group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection. Patients who fit published criteria for pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections seem to represent a subgroup of those with chronic tic disorders and obsessive-compulsive disorder who may be vulnerable to group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection as a precipitant of neuropsychiatric symptom exacerbations. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection is not the only or even the most common antecedent event associated with exacerbations for these patients. Additional intensive studies are needed to determine whether there is clinical or scientific evidence to support separating out subgroups of tic disorder and/or obsessive-compulsive disorder patients based on specific symptom precipitants." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0521_17756", "title": "Association between streptococcal infection and obsessive-compulsive disorder, Tourette's syndrome, and tic disorder.", "score": 0.01801948051948052, "content": "Reports have suggested that streptococcal infection may be etiologically related to pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders (PANDAS), but there are few good epidemiologic studies to support this theory. Using population-based data from a large West-Coast health maintenance organization, we assessed whether streptococcal infection was associated with increased risk for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), Tourette's syndrome (TS), or tic disorder. This is a case-control study of children 4 to 13 years old receiving their first diagnosis of OCD, TS, or tic disorder between January 1992 and December 1999 at Group Health Cooperative outpatient facilities. Cases were matched to controls by birth date, gender, primary physician, and propensity to seek health care. Patients with OCD, TS, or tic disorder were more likely than controls to have had prior streptococcal infection (OR: 2.22; 95% CI: 1.05, 4.69) in the 3 months before onset date. The risk was higher among children with multiple streptococcal infections within 12 months (OR: 3.10; 95% CI: 1.77, 8.96). Having multiple infections with group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus within a 12-month period was associated with an increased risk for TS (OR: 13.6; 95% CI: 1.93, 51.0). These associations did not change appreciably when limited to cases with a clear date of onset of symptoms or with tighter matching on health care behavior. These findings lend epidemiologic evidence that PANDAS may arise as a result of a postinfectious autoimmune phenomenon induced by childhood streptococcal infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0749_1339", "title": "Pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders after streptococcus infection.", "score": 0.017467581998474445, "content": "Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal infection (PANDAS) is a group of disorders recently recognized as a clinical entity. A case of PANDAS is described here, which remitted after 1 month of treatment. Recent Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should be considered in a child who presents with a sudden explosive onset of tics or obsessive compulsive symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0638_6987", "title": "The evaluation of relationship between group A streptococcal infection with tic disorders in children.", "score": 0.016800936445637953, "content": "To evaluate the relationship between group A beta hemolytic streptococcus infection (GABHS) and tic disorders in children. This is a case-control study that was conducted in Child and Adolescent Psychiatric Clinic, Isfahan, Iran, between May 2008 and February 2009. Thirty-six children (aged 5-15) with tic and 36 children without tic and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) were investigated for clinical and laboratory signs of GABHS. The tools utilized in this research were clinical interview according to the DSM IV-TR and laboratory tests (throat culture, rapid antigen detection test [RADT], anti streptolysin O [ASO] and yale global tics severity scale [YGTSS]). The control group was of the same gender and age as the tic group who had come to the clinic for other illnesses and was in need of blood test. None of the subjects in the case and control groups had a clinical history of GABHS infection. The relationship between tic disorder and GABHS infection (if any of these laboratory tests takes place: throat culture, RADT, ASO &gt; or = 250) in the tic group was 16 (44.4%) and in the control group was 9 (25%), there were significant differences (p&lt;0.05). No significant correlation was found between ASO titer and YGTSS scores. The specificity of RADT was 100%. The result showed correlation between GABHS infection and tic disorder, but it does not mean that GABHS infection caused tic disorder." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0491_23992", "title": "[Pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections (PANDAS). A report of two cases].", "score": 0.01675320179993077, "content": "To critically review the past years of research on paediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections in children and adolescents. Literature on PANDAS published from 1995 onward was systematically reviewed. The review focuses on definition and diagnostic consideration aetiological and therapeutical issues. To illustrate the clinical characteristic of PANDAS authors present two cases of children with a severe course of obsessive-compulsive disorder and Tourette's syndrome. Post-streptococcal autoimmunity has been postulated as an aetiologic factor in the development of childhood-onset obsessive-compulsive disorder, tic disorders including Tourette's disorder. This hypothesis arose from a series of clinical observations including the documentation of obsessive-compulsive symptoms of children affected by Sydenham's chorea, a variant of rheumatic fever characterised by neurological dysfunction and also by concomitant investigations of childhood-onset OCD and Tourette's syndrome. Results of these studies led to the identification of children whose clinical course is characterised by abrupt and dramatic symptom exacerbations which are temporally related to group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections. The identification of such a subgroup will allow for testing of the model of pathogenesis as well as development of novel treatment and prevention strategies. Future research are needed to explore the nature of PANDAS and their relationship with different psychiatric disorders in children and adolescents." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0384_6244", "title": "Obsessive compulsive disorder: is there an association with childhood streptococcal infections and altered immune function?", "score": 0.01641810570381999, "content": "During the last few years, an increased interest in the possibility of immune mediated pathophysiology of obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) and related disorders has been seen. In the late 1980s, the National Institute of Mental Health reported an increase of obsessive compulsive symptoms in patients with Sydenham chorea (SC). Subsequently, a precipitating streptococcal infection in children with sudden onset of OCD symptoms but no chorea led to the coining of PANDAS (pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcus). This association has furthered interest in studying immune parameters in non-PANDAS OCD as well. This article will review the neuropsychiatric findings in OCD and Tourette syndrome (TS) with emphasis placed on PANDAS, and its association with SC, and a review of the existing studies that have assessed immunologic measures in patients with OCD and TS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0263_4736", "title": "Case study: a new infection-triggered, autoimmune subtype of pediatric OCD and Tourette's syndrome.", "score": 0.016403361344537813, "content": "A review of clinical observations and literature reports leads to the hypothesis that, via a process analogous to Sydenham's chorea, infections with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, among others, may trigger autoimmune responses that cause or exacerbate some cases of childhood-onset obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) or tic disorders (including Tourette's syndrome). If this hypothesis is correct, then immunological treatments should lead to decreased symptoms in some cases. Four cases with abrupt, severe onset or worsening of OCD or tics are presented from an open treatment study. All were boys aged 10 to 14 years. One had OCD, one had Tourette's syndrome, and two had both OCD and Tourette's syndrome. Clinically and on standardized rating scales, their symptoms were in the moderate to very severe range. Two had evidence of recent group A beta-hemolytic streptococci infections, and the others had histories of recent viral illnesses. Two were treated with plasmapheresis, one with intravenous immunoglobulin, and one with immunosuppressive doses of prednisone. All had a clinically significant response immediately after treatment. Diagnostic criteria are provided that describe these cases of pediatric, infection-triggered, autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders (PITANDs). Suggestions are made regarding the evaluation and management of patients who may have this condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0648_4377", "title": "[PANDAS: a possible model for adult OCD pathogenesis].", "score": 0.016373124592302675, "content": "Obsessive-compulsive disorder is a disabling disorder. Genetic predisposing factors may have an important role in the onset of the symptoms, but is not been individualized any specific gene yet. In the last years it has been demonstrated that obsessive-compulsive disease and/or tic syndromes may be triggered by an antecedent infection especially with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci. On the basis of recent studies has been postulated that in genetically predisposed individuals, certain streptococcal antigens trigger antibodies which, through a process of molecular mimicry, cross-react with epitopes on the basal ganglia. According to such hypothesis, the acronym PANDAS has been used to describe a subset of children with abrupt onset or exacerbations of OCD or tics, or both, following streptococcal infections. Neuroimaging studies reveal increased basal ganglia volumes, and the proposed cause involves the cross-reaction of streptococcal antibodies with basal ganglia tissue. The hypothesis of a possible involvement of the immunitary system seems justified from quantitative alterations of TNF-alpha, IL-6 and IL-1 in the patients' serum with such syndrome. Echotomographic studies on cardiac valves have not yet demonstrated the parallels between PANDAS and Sydenham's chorea. The use of treatment strategies, such as therapeutic plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulin, has been proposed to explain the autoimmune process responsible for the pathogenesis of PANDAS. Further research is still necessary in order to understand the role of streptococcal infection in the pathogenesis of PANDAS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0671_8689", "title": "The immunobiology of Tourette's disorder, pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with Streptococcus, and related disorders: a way forward.", "score": 0.016095934333718098, "content": "Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and related conditions including Tourette's disorder (TD) are chronic, relapsing disorders of unknown etiology associated with marked impairment and disability. Associated immune dysfunction has been reported and debated in the literature since the late 80s. The immunologic culprit receiving the most interest has been Group A Streptococcus (GAS), which began to receive attention as a potential cause of neuropsychiatric symptoms, following the investigation of the symptoms reported in Sydenham's chorea (SC) and rheumatic fever, such as motor tics, vocal tics, and both obsessive-compulsive and attention deficit/hyperactivity symptoms. Young children have been described as having a sudden onset of these neuropsychiatric symptoms temporally associated with GAS, but without supporting evidence of rheumatic fever. This presentation of OCD and tics has been termed pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with Streptococcus (PANDAS). Of note, SC, OCD, and TD often begin in early childhood and share common anatomic areas--the basal ganglia of the brain and the related cortical and thalamic sites--adding support to the possibility that these disorders might share a common immunologic and/or genetic vulnerability. Relevant manuscripts were identified through searches of the PsycINFO and MedLine databases using the following keywords: OCD, immune, PANDAS, Sydenham chorea, Tourette's disorder Group A Streptococcus. Articles were also identified through reference lists from research articles and other materials on childhood OCD, PANDAS, and TD between 1966 and December 2010. Considering the overlap of clinical and neuroanatomic findings among these disorders, this review explores evidence regarding the immunobiology as well as the relevant clinical and therapeutic aspects of TD, OCD, and PANDAS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0421_21735", "title": "Childhood-onset obsessive-compulsive disorder and tic disorders: case report and literature review.", "score": 0.015613696648179406, "content": "A subgroup of childhood-onset obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and tic disorders has been found to have a postinfectious autoimmune-mediated etiology. Clinical observations and systematic investigations have shown that a subgroup of children with OCD and/or tic disorders have the onset and subsequent exacerbations of their symptoms following infections with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS). This subgroup has been designated by the acronym PANDAS: pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections. Five clinical characteristics define the PANDAS subgroup: presence of OCD and/or tic disorder, prepubertal symptom onset, sudden onset or abrupt exacerbations, association with neurological abnormalities during exacerbations (adventitious movements or motoric hyperactivity), and the temporal association between symptom exacerbations and GABHS infections. The proposed poststreptococcal inflammatory etiology provides a unique opportunity for treatment and prevention, including immunomodulatory therapies such as plasma exchange and intravenous immunoglobulin. A placebo-controlled trial revealed that both intravenous immunoglobulin and plasma exchange were effective in reducing neuropsychiatric symptom severity (40 and 55% reductions, respectively) for a group of severely ill children in the PANDAS subgroup. Further research is required to determine why the treatments are helpful and to ascertain whether or not antibiotic prophylaxis can help prevent poststreptococcal symptom exacerbations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0405_12284", "title": "[Obsessive-compulsive disorders in children. Subtypes of OCD and their relation to infection with group A streptococci].", "score": 0.0155842683894367, "content": "The present review describes the theory of a spectrum of obsessive-compulsive disorders (OCD). This spectrum includes such disorders as trichotillomania, eating disorders, body dysmorphic disorder, and possibly pervasive developmental disorders. OCD with an onset in childhood is presented as a specific subtype, with more boys affected and frequently co-morbid with tics and Tourette's syndrome. Furthermore, it seems to be more genetically determined and have more significant deviations, as measured by neuro-imaging studies, than has OCD with an adult onset. The PANDAS theory (paediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infections) is described. This subtype of OCD is, still on a speculative basis, connected to infections with beta-haemolytic streptococci. The obsessive-compulsive symptoms are characterised by a sudden onset, \"sawtoothed\" course with relapses and remissions, and are associated with neurological abnormalities. There are still no clinical consequences in terms of penicillin treatment of this PANDAS subtype of OCD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0344_11468", "title": "A pilot study of penicillin prophylaxis for neuropsychiatric exacerbations triggered by streptococcal infections.", "score": 0.015324325905129556, "content": "Some children with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and tic disorders appear to have symptom exacerbations triggered by group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections in a manner that is similar to rheumatic fever and its neurologic variant, Sydenham's chorea. Because penicillin prophylaxis has proven to be effective in preventing recurrences of rheumatic fever, it was postulated that it might also prevent streptococcal-triggered neuropsychiatric symptom exacerbations in children with Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal infections (PANDAS). These children are identified by five clinical characteristics: presence of OCD or tic disorder, prepubertal onset, episodic symptom course, neurologic abnormalities (i.e., choreiform movements) and streptococcal-triggered symptom exacerbations. Thirty-seven children with PANDAS were enrolled in an 8 month, double-blind, balanced cross-over study. Patients were randomized to receive either 4 months of the active compound (twice daily oral 250 mg penicillin V) followed by 4 months of placebo, or placebo followed by penicillin V. Tic, OCD, and other psychiatric symptoms were monitored monthly. Throat cultures and streptococcal antibody titers were also obtained. There were an equal number of infections in both the active and placebo phases of the study. There was no significant change seen in either the obsessive-compulsive or tic symptom severity between the two phases. Because of the failure to achieve an acceptable level of streptococcal prophylaxis, no conclusions can be drawn from this study regarding the efficacy of penicillin prophylaxis in preventing tic or OCD symptom exacerbations. Future studies should employ a more effective prophylactic agent, and include a larger sample size." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0502_8889", "title": "A possible association of recurrent streptococcal infections and acute onset of obsessive-compulsive disorder.", "score": 0.015154994259471873, "content": "Rheumatic fever is an immunologically mediated disease that follows infection by group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GABHS). In rheumatic fever, antibodies generated against GABHS cross-react with the heart, joints, skin, and other sites, inducing an inflammatory, multisystem disease. Brain tissue-specific antibodies have been demonstrated in a subset of children with Sydenham chorea (a component of the Jones criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever), and most Sydenham chorea patients manifest obsessive-compulsive symptoms very similar to those in traditional obsessive-compulsive disorder. The parallels drawn from the paradigm of Sydenham's chorea to Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections (PANDAS) is an area of active controversy. Newly emerging information on the role of GABHS superantigens in the pathogenesis of rheumatic fever is of particular interest. In this article, we review the microbial characteristics of GABHS and the subsequent immune responses to GABHS as a possible etiology of PANDAS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0402_7514", "title": "Is parental report of upper respiratory infection at the onset of obsessive-compulsive disorder suggestive of pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infection?", "score": 0.015016872890888638, "content": "The diagnosis of pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infection (PANDAS) requires a prospectively determined association between group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal (GABHS) infection and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) or tic disorder. Screening for GABHS infection imposes a significant burden on both patient and clinician. To heighten the index of suspicion for PANDAS, it would be useful to know if parent-reported upper respiratory infection (URI) is associated with PANDAS symptoms or associated characteristics. Eighty-three consecutive, clinically referred patients aged 6 to 17 years with a primary diagnosis of OCD and their primary caregivers were asked about URI signs and symptoms at the time of OCD onset, PANDAS symptoms, OCD and tic symptoms, comorbidity, and putative PANDAS risk factors. Specific inquiry regarding URI symptoms proved more informative than general inquiry. In the URI present versus URI absent group, more patients experienced a sudden rather than insidious onset of symptoms. Additionally, more patients with a URI plus sudden onset exhibited a comorbid tic disorder. Until validated biomarkers permit retrospective diagnosis, a history that OCD began around the time of a URI should clue the clinician to look prospectively for PANDAS. Additional research is required to define the boundaries of PANDAS and to develop psychometrically reliable and valid diagnostic strategies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0419_7759", "title": "[Acute rheumatic fever, Sydenham's chorea and psychopathology].", "score": 0.014958824142603981, "content": "Acute rheumatic fever (ARF) is an autoimmune disorder that is triggered by group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections. ARF consists of several combinations of carditis, polyarthritis and Sydenham's chorea, and rarely seen erythema marginatum and subcutaneous nodules. Sydenham's chorea is seen in about 20% of patients with ARF. As a late symptom of ARF, Sydenham's chorea usually occurs 3 months or longer after the streptococcal infection. Sydenham's chorea is a neuropsychiatric disorder that may present with emotional lability, anxiety, obsessive compulsive symptoms, attention deficit and hyperactivity symptoms or tics. Obsessive-compulsive symptoms occur in 70% of patients with Sydenham's chorea. The role of the autoimmune mechanisms and the dysfunction of the basal ganglia have been demonstrated in Sydenham's chorea. Antibodies against group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus cross-react with basal ganglia. Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections (PANDAS) shares the same mechanism with Sydenham's chorea, but PANDAS has not been shown to require penicillin prophylaxis. Thus it is important to distinguish between them. Sydenham's chorea is associated with adulthood OCD, Tourette syndrome and schizophrenia. These features make Sydenham's chorea an explanatory model for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and related disorders. This poststreptococcal disorder provides a treatment opportunity with new therapies like antibiotic therapy, plasma exchange and intravenous immunoglobulin therapy for psychiatric disorders. In this paper we summarize the phenomenological and treatment studies of OCD, attention deficit and hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), and tic disorders in subjects with ARF, with or without Sydenham's chorea." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1032_300", "title": "Importance of Streptococci Infections in Childhood Neuropsychiatric Disorders.", "score": 0.014953478068232167, "content": "Paediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococci (PANDAS) are important neuropsychiatric disorders in childhood. Streptococcus pyogenes infection associated with tics, obsessive-compulsive disorders, and chorea co-occurrence is important. Swedo et al. have increased the awareness of this situation since 1998. How streptococcal infections give rise to this condition is not clear yet, but the severity of the symptoms is reduced by the treatment of streptococcal infections is important. Eight-year- nine-month-old girl presented with complaints of a 2-year history of upper respiratory tract infections and increased severity of blinking of eyes, throat cleaning, tic disorder and obsession with hand cleaning. In addition, choreiform movements were present and fluoxetine did not improve the symptoms. The patient was followed-up and treated with PANDAS pre-diagnosis. Streptococcus treatment and prophylaxis decreased the patient's complaints. A six-year-four months old boy, admitted with abnormal hand and body movements, which increased severity after the school period, and causing deteriorated fine motor skills during infectious periods for two years. There were also complaints with vocal tics and obsessive-compulsive disorder in the form of throat cleaning. Treatment of S. pyogenes was administered in throat culture. After the penicillin prophylaxis, the complaints decreased. In this study, two patients were presented with choreiform movements, obsessive-compulsive disorder and tic disorder due to follow-up PANDAS diagnosis. PANDAS should be considered in children with neuropsychiatric disorders, especially symptoms associated with infection periods." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en407_31620", "title": "Delayed-maturation theory of obsessive-compulsive disorder", "score": 0.014840299887028858, "content": "Childhood-Onset Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Tic Disorders was another experiment that supported the delayed-maturation theory regarding OCD. It was conducted by Snider and Swedo in 2003. Research included the diagnosis of pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder, associated with streptococcal infection, also known as PANDAS. Thus, requiring a prospectively determined association between group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, GABHS, and obsessive-compulsive disorder or tic disorder. Screening for a GABHS infection imposes a significant burden on both patient and clinician. To heighten the index of suspicion for PANDAS, it would be useful to know if parent-reported upper respiratory infection, URI, is associated with PANDAS symptoms or associated characteristics. Eighty-three consecutive, clinically referred patients aged 6 to 17 years with a primary diagnosis of OCD and their primary caregivers were asked about. URI signs and symptoms at the time of OCD onset," }, { "id": "pubmed23n0798_4280", "title": "Pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections: an overview.", "score": 0.014742524916943521, "content": "The acronym PANDAS (pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections) has been used to describe a syndrome characterized by various obsessions, compulsions, tics, hyperactivity, motor stereotypies, and paroxysmal movement disorders that are correlated with prior infection by group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes (GABHS) infections. Five clinical criteria can be used to diagnose PANDAS: (1) the presence of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and/or any other tic disorders; (2) prepuberal onset (between 3 years of age and the start of puberty); (3) abrupt onset and relapsing-remitting symptom course; (4) a distinct association with GABHS infection; and (5) association with neurological abnormalities during exacerbations (adventitious movements or motoric hyperactivity). The exact pathogenesis of PANDAS remains unclear, and several theories that focus on multiple etiologic or contributive factors have emerged. PANDAS appears to be a neurobiological disorder that potentially complicates GABHS infections in genetically susceptible individuals. The current standard of care for PANDAS patients remains symptomatic, and cognitive behavioral therapy, such as exposure and response prevention, combined with family counseling and psychoeducation, should be the first approach for treating PANDAS. This review examines current theories of PANDAS pathogenesis, identifies possible treatments for managing this complex condition, and highlights areas for future research. Moving forward, developing more standardized diagnostic criteria and identifying specific laboratory markers to facilitate PANDAS diagnoses are crucial." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0498_3942", "title": "PANDAS: current status and directions for research.", "score": 0.014540682414698164, "content": "The recognition of the five criteria for PANDAS (pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections) by Swedo et al established a homogenous subgroup of children with childhood onset obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and/or tic disorders. The five clinical characteristics that define the PANDAS subgroup are the presence of OCD and/or tic disorder, prepubertal age of onset, abrupt onset and relapsing-remitting symptom course, association with neurological abnormalities during exacerbations (adventitious movements or motoric hyperactivity), and a temporal association between symptom exacerbations and a Group-A beta-hemolytic streptococcal (GAS) infection. These five criteria have been used for the purpose of systematic research on the phenomenology and unique therapies for the PANDAS subgroup as well as studies of the pathophysiology of post-streptococcal OCD and tic disorders. The etiology of OCD and tics in the PANDAS subgroup is unknown, but is theorized to occur as a result of post-streptococcal autoimmunity in a manner similar to that of Sydenham's chorea. The working hypothesis for the pathophysiology begins with a GAS infection in a susceptible host that incites the production of antibodies to GAS that crossreact with the cellular components of the basal ganglia, particularly in the caudate nucleus and putamen. The obsessions, compulsions, tics, and other neuropsychiatric symptoms seen in these children are postulated to arise from an interaction of these antibodies with neurons of the basal ganglia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0691_21471", "title": "Pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with Streptococcus in identical siblings.", "score": 0.014440606409518327, "content": "Termed pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with Streptococcus (PANDAS), these cases of childhood-onset obsessive compulsive disorder and tic disorders resemble the presentation of Sydenham chorea, in that they have an acute onset following a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection (group A Streptococcus), with accompanying neurological signs, and an episodic or sawtooth course. Familial associations of this subgroup of patients remain understudied. This report provides phenotypic descriptions of three youth with PANDAS as well as their genetically identical siblings (in two cases of twins and one case of triplets). These cases highlight the potential for environmental influences for discordant presentations in genetically identical siblings. Despite identical genetics, presentations showed marked variation across siblings (from a full PANDAS presentation to asymptomatic). Further research into environmentally driven influences such as postinfectious molecular mimicry and epigenetic factors that may influence the manifestation of these pediatric neuropsychiatric disorders will promote our understanding of their prevention and treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en067_11435", "title": "PANDAS", "score": 0.013770913770913771, "content": "Pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections (PANDAS) is a controversial hypothetical diagnosis for a subset of children with rapid onset of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) or tic disorders. Symptoms are proposed to be caused by group A streptococcal (GAS), and more specifically, group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal (GABHS) infections. OCD and tic disorders are hypothesized to arise in a subset of children as a result of a post-streptococcal autoimmune process. The proposed link between infection and these disorders is that an autoimmune reaction to infection produces antibodies that interfere with basal ganglia function, causing symptom exacerbations, and this autoimmune response results in a broad range of neuropsychiatric symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0809_5433", "title": "No Cases of PANDAS on Follow-Up of Patients Referred to a Pediatric Movement Disorders Clinic.", "score": 0.013617303939884584, "content": "Pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infection (PANDAS) remains a controversial diagnosis and it is unclear how frequently it is encountered in clinical practice. Our study aimed to determine how many children with acute-onset tics and/or Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) met criteria for PANDAS. A retrospective review was performed on 39 children who presented to a movement disorders clinic with acute-onset tics or OCD from 2005 to 2012. Out of 284 patients seen over the course of 7 years, only 39 had acute-onset tics and/or OCD symptoms. None of the 39 children who presented to us acutely met full criteria for PANDAS. Thirty-eight percent had no association between their symptoms and group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, while 54% had prior inconclusive laboratory testing done and no exacerbations during the course of the study. Only 8% of patients had an acute exacerbation after their initial visit; however, testing for GAHBS in these patients was negative Discussion: Our results support the notion that PANDAS, if it exists, is an exceedingly rare diagnosis encountered in a pediatric movement disorder clinic. While none of our patients met criteria for PANDAS, two with acute-onset OCD would have met criteria for pediatric acute-onset neuropsychiatric syndrome (PANS) indicating that PANS may be a more appropriate diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0643_8636", "title": "The PANDAS subgroup of tic disorders and childhood-onset obsessive-compulsive disorder.", "score": 0.013586592178770951, "content": "Diagnosis and treatment of the PANDAS (pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections) variant of Gilles de la Tourette syndrome (GTS) and childhood-onset obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) are still controversial issues. Most cross-sectional studies confirm a significant association between GTS and the development of an immune response against group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Moreover, longitudinal retrospective studies suggest that a recent exposure to GABHS might be a risk factor for the onset of tics and obsessive-compulsive symptoms. However, further evidence from longitudinal prospective research is needed to verify whether a temporal association between GABHS infections and symptom exacerbations is a useful and reliable criterion for the diagnosis of PANDAS. In addition, preliminary results suggest that the PANDAS spectrum might be enlarged to include attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Although a number of immunological biomarkers have been proposed as markers of the PANDAS variant, at present, none of these has been conclusively proved useful to diagnose and monitor disease course in children with a suspicion of PANDAS. Finally, despite their empirical use in community settings, we still lack conclusive, evidence-based data regarding the usefulness of antibiotic and immunomodulatory treatments in children with PANDAS. Given the relevance of this topic for general pediatric health, additional research efforts to solve all the pending issues and the hottest points of debate are warranted." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0354_4534", "title": "MRI assessment of children with obsessive-compulsive disorder or tics associated with streptococcal infection.", "score": 0.013528997003349197, "content": "The authors assessed selective basal ganglia involvement in a subgroup of children with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and/or tics believed to be associated with streptococcal infection. Using computer-assisted morphometric techniques, they analyzed the cerebral magnetic resonance images of 34 children with presumed streptococcus-associated OCD and/or tics and 82 healthy comparison children who were matched for age and sex. The average sizes of the caudate, putamen, and globus pallidus, but not of the thalamus or total cerebrum, were significantly greater in the group of children with streptococcus-associated OCD and/or tics than in the healthy children. The differences were similar to those found previously for subjects with Sydenham's chorea compared with normal subjects. These results support the hypothesis that there is a distinct subgroup of subjects with OCD and/or tics who have enlarged basal ganglia. These findings are consistent with the hypothesis of an autoimmune response to streptococcal infection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0521_20872", "title": "The PANDAS subgroup: recognition and treatment.", "score": 0.013506261180679786, "content": "A subgroup of patients with childhood-onset obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has been identified who share a common clinical course characterized by dramatic symptom exacerbations following Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal (GABHS) infections. The term PANDAS has been applied to the subgroup, to indicate the postulated etiology of their symptoms: Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal infections. Five clinical characteristics define the PANDAS subgroup: presence of OCD and/or tic disorder, prepubertal symptom onset, sudden onset or abrupt exacerbations (sawtooth course), association with neurological abnormalities (presence of adventitious movements or motoric hyperactivity during exacerbations), and temporal association between symptom exacerbations and GABHS infections. Post-streptococcal symptom exacerbations are typically quite dramatic, with patients reporting that their symptoms \"...came on overnight\" or \"...appeared all of a sudden a few days after I had a sore throat.\" The post-streptococcal inflammatory nature of the neuropsychiatric symptoms provides novel opportunities for treatment and prevention, including immunomodulatory therapies such as therapeutic plasma exchange (TPE) and intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG). A recently completed placebo-controlled trial revealed that both IVIG and TPE were effective in reducing neuropsychiatric symptom severity (40% to 55% reductions, respectively) for a group of severely ill children with OCD and/or tic disorders. Further research is required to determine why the treatments are helpful, as well as to ascertain whether or not antibiotic prophylaxis can help prevent post-streptococcal symptom exacerbations." }, { "id": "article-26069_11", "title": "Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder -- Etiology", "score": 0.013494318181818182, "content": "The earlier onset of sudden OCD that is preceded by a Streptococcus infection has been known as PANDAS (pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections). Just as Sydenham chorea can present as a sequela from Streptococcus infections, the theory behind OCD is similar in that the strep infection, through molecular mimicry, causes autoimmune antibodies against the basal ganglia leading to obsessive thoughts and compulsive habits. [3] However, the term PANDAS is falling out of favor in lieu of childhood acute neuropsychiatric symptoms (CANS), which allows the development of OCD in the pediatric population to be attributable to other sources than Strep, such as metabolites and toxins. [1]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0351_16444", "title": "Case series: increased vulnerability to obsessive-compulsive symptoms with repeated episodes of Sydenham chorea.", "score": 0.013484656754191712, "content": "The association between obsessive-compulsive symptoms (OCS) and Sydenham chorea (SC) supports the hypothesis of a common neuroimmunological dysfunction in basal ganglia associated with group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection underlying both conditions. Four children with 2 distinct SC episodes were evaluated to assess the course of OCS. All patients developed OCS during their second episodes (3 met criteria for obsessive-compulsive disorder [OCD]), but not in their first episodes (2 developed OCS and met criteria for OCD). These data suggest that the recurrence of SC episodes may result in a cumulative effect, thus increasing the risk of appearance and intensification of OCS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0314_9505", "title": "Pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections: clinical description of the first 50 cases.", "score": 0.013383665065202471, "content": "The purpose of this study was to describe the clinical characteristics of a novel group of patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and tic disorders, designated as pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal (group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal [GABHS]) infections (PANDAS). The authors conducted a systematic clinical evaluation of 50 children who met all of the following five working diagnostic criteria: presence of OCD and/or a tic disorder, prepubertal symptom onset, episodic course of symptom severity, association with GABHS infections, and association with neurological abnormalities. The children's symptom onset was acute and dramatic, typically triggered by GABHS infections at a very early age (mean = 6.3 years, SD = 2.7, for tics; mean = 7.4 years, SD = 2.7, for OCD). The PANDAS clinical course was characterized by a relapsing-remitting symptom pattern with significant psychiatric comorbidity accompanying the exacerbations; emotional lability, separation anxiety, nighttime fears and bedtime rituals, cognitive deficits, oppositional behaviors, and motoric hyperactivity were particularly common. Symptom onset was triggered by GABHS infection for 22 (44%) of the children and by pharyngitis (no throat culture obtained) for 14 others (28%). Among the 50 children; there were 144 separate episodes of symptom exacerbation; 45 (31%) were associated with documented GABHS infection, 60 (42%) with symptoms of pharyngitis or upper respiratory infection (no throat culture obtained), and six (4%) with GABHS exposure. The working diagnostic criteria appear to accurately characterize a homogeneous patient group in which symptom exacerbations are triggered by GABHS infections. The identification of such a subgroup will allow for testing of models of pathogenesis, as well as the development of novel treatment and prevention strategies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0362_16910", "title": "Infection-triggered anorexia nervosa in children: clinical description of four cases.", "score": 0.01304078631684854, "content": "Anorexia nervosa (AN) is a serious illness with no definitive treatment. Clinical and research evidence led to the hypothesis that some children with AN may have a pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcus (PANDAS), similar in pathogenesis to other hypothesized PANDAS disorders. Four youngsters (ages, 11-15 years) with PANDAS AN were treated with an open trial of antibiotics, in addition to conventional treatment. They were evaluated for eating disorder and obsessive-compulsive symptoms, and for weight gain. Evidence of streptococcal infection came from clinical evaluation, throat cultures, and two serological tests: anti-deoxyribonuclease B (anti-DNase B) and anti-streptolysin O (ASO) titers. The \"rheumatic\" marker D8/17 was also measured. This B-cell alloantigen is associated, in several publications, with poststreptococcal autoimmunity: Rheumatic fever (RF), Sydenham's chorea (SC), and possibly PANDAS obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) and tic disorders. There was clinical evidence of possible antecedent streptococcal infection in all four patients, two of whom had comorbid OCD, with possible infection-triggered AN. All four had the rheumatic marker: A percentage of D8/17-positive B cells of 28-38%, with a mean of 33% (12% or more is considered positive for the marker). The patients responded to conventional treatment plus antibiotics with weight restoration and decreased eating disorder and obsessive-compulsive symptoms. Three needed to gain weight and did so. There may be a link between infectious disease and some cases of AN, which raises the possibility of new treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en262_13352", "title": "Basal ganglia disease", "score": 0.012958881203921867, "content": "Tourette syndrome/obsessive–compulsive disorder Tourette syndrome is a disorder that is characterized by behavioral and motor tics, OCD and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). For this reason, it is commonly believed that pathologies involving limbic, associative and motor circuits of the basal ganglia are likely. Since the realization that syndromes such as Tourette syndrome and OCD are caused by dysfunction of the non-motor loops of basal ganglia circuits, new treatments for these disorders, based on treatments originally designed to treat movement disorders are being developed. Sydenham's chorea Sydenham's chorea is a disorder characterized by rapid, uncoordinated jerking movements primarily affecting the face, hands and feet. It is a result of an autoimmune response that occurs following infection by group A β-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS) that destroys cells in the corpus striatum of the basal ganglia. PANDAS" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0640_21204", "title": "Streptococcal upper respiratory tract infections and psychosocial stress predict future tic and obsessive-compulsive symptom severity in children and adolescents with Tourette syndrome and obsessive-compulsive disorder.", "score": 0.012906577159753855, "content": "One goal of this prospective longitudinal study was to identify new group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections (GABHS) in children and adolescents with Tourette syndrome (TS) and/or obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) compared with healthy control subjects. We then examined the power of GABHS infections and measures of psychosocial stress to predict future tic, obsessive-compulsive (OC), and depressive symptom severity. Consecutive ratings of tic, OC, and depressive symptom severity were obtained for 45 cases and 41 matched control subjects over a 2-year period. Clinical raters were blinded to the results of laboratory tests. Laboratory personnel were blinded to case or control status and clinical ratings. Structural equation modeling for unbalanced repeated measures was used to assess the sequence of new GABHS infections and psychosocial stress and their impact on future symptom severity. Increases in tic and OC symptom severity did not occur after every new GABHS infection. However, the structural equation model found that these newly diagnosed infections were predictive of modest increases in future tic and OC symptom severity but did not predict future depressive symptom severity. In addition, the inclusion of new infections in the model greatly enhanced, by a factor of three, the power of psychosocial stress in predicting future tic and OC symptom severity. Our data suggest that a minority of children with TS and early-onset OCD were sensitive to antecedent GABHS infections. These infections also enhanced the predictive power of current psychosocial stress on future tic and OC symptom severity." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0413_4741", "title": "[Autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated to infection by streptococcus in the paediatric age: PANDAS].", "score": 0.012554112554112554, "content": "The acronym PANDAS (Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcus) describes the neuropsychiatric disorders resulting from an autoimmune response to an infection by streptococcus in children. The aim of this study was to clinically analyse 38 patients under the age of 16 with tics, Tourette syndrome (TS) or obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) and their possible association to an infection caused by group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). We reviewed the medical records at the Instituto Neurológico in Valencia (Venezuela) over a 12 year period (1988-2000). All the patients met the inclusion criteria set out by the National Institute of Mental Health in Bethesda (1997) and the DSM-IV. Onset of the symptoms was higher in the group of schoolchildren (n=24), followed by the group of preschool children (n=8) and adolescents (n=6). Males were predominant (n=33) (86.8%). 17 patients presented chronic tics (44.7%), 13 had transitory tics (34.2%) and there were eight cases of TS (21.1%). The most frequently related comorbid disorders were: difficulties in learning (n=30) (78.9%), ADHD (n=27) (71.1%), OCD 14 (36.8%), sleep disorders (n=14) (36.8%), behavioural disorders (n=12) (31.6%), language disorders (n=11) (28.9%), psychomotor disorders (n=10) (26.3%) and nocturnal enuresis (n=7) (18.4%). Electroencephalogram patterns were abnormal in 72.4% (n=12), and the disorganised pattern was the most frequently observed (n=12) (41.4%), followed by a slow diffuse pattern (n= 7) (24.1%) and the left centro-parieto-temporal focal paroxysmal specific pattern (n=7) (24.1%). Less frequently we found unspecific generalised paroxysmal patterns, in four cases (13.8%), and asymmetrical patterns (n=1) (3.4%). The association with an infection by streptococcus was shown in two cases, which amounted to 5.2% of the sample. The obtained are similar to those reported in the literature. Only 5.2% of the cases were linked to a prior streptococcus infection." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 126 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 19 ] ], "text": "There are doubts regarding the efficacy of calcium or vitamin D administered in monotherapy for the treatment of osteoporosis;" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Low adherence to treatment is associated with an increased risk of fracture.", "2": "Bone remodeling markers may be useful for early monitoring of response to treatment.", "3": "Vitamin D monotherapy is effective in reducing these fractures in non-institutionalized elderly people.", "4": "Increasing dietary calcium or taking calcium supplements in isolation does not protect against the occurrence of fractures.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0298_13589", "title": "Prevention of hip fractures by correcting calcium and vitamin D insufficiencies in elderly people.", "score": 0.018162393162393164, "content": "For a 50-year old caucasian woman today, the risk of a hip fracture over her remaining lifetime is about 17%. Tomorrow the situation will clearly be worse because the continual increase in life expectancy will cause a 3-fold rise in worldwide fracture incidence over the next 60 years, particularly in women, but also in men. In addition, a secular increase in the incidence of hip fractures in individuals of the same age has been noted in both sexes by several investigators, and the cost of hip fractures is expected to dramatically increase in the next decades. Consequently, preventive strategies are urgently required. A great deal has been learned in recent years about the risk factors for hip fracture, the pathophysiology of this fracture, and the prediction of fracture risk, particularly through bone mass measurements on the hip and biochemical evaluations of parathyroid and vitamin D status. The two main determinants of hip fractures are falls and bone loss leading to an intrinsic femoral fragility. A substantial femoral bone loss continues throughout the old age, with a continuous and exponential increase in the risk of hip fracture, and any reduction or arrest of this loss will induce an important reduction in the incidence of hip fractures. A preventive effect on the risk of hip fracture may be partly achieved by using long term estrogen replacement therapy after menopause, but also by using vitamin D and calcium supplements for a late prevention in elderly people. Vitamin D insufficiency and deficit in calcium intake are very common in elderly people living either in institutions or at home, particularly in Europe where dairy products are not fortified with vitamin D. The cumulative response to this deficit in calcium intake and low vitamin D status is a negative calcium balance which stimulates parathyroid hormone secretion. In 300 residents of nursing homes, we recently found a significant negative correlation between serum 25 OHD and log serum PTH after age-adjustment. In addition, in 446 elderly women living at home in 5 French cities and selected from the voting lists, we also found an age-adjusted relationship between serum 25 OHD and PTH concentrations. This senile secondary hyperparathyroidism is one of the determinants of femoral bone loss and can be reversed by calcium and vitamin D supplements. We have shown in a 3-year controlled prospective study that the daily use of these supplements (1.2 g of calcium and 800 IU of vitamin D3) given in a large population of 3270 elderly ambulatory women living in nursing homes reduced of 23% (intention-to-treat analysis) the number of hip fractures and other non vertebral fractures. In parallel, serum perathyroid hormone concentration was reduced of 28% and low serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentration returned to normal values. After 18 months of treatment the bone density of the total proximal femoral region had increased 2.7% the vitamin D3-calcium group and decreased 4.6% in the placebo group (p &lt; 0.001). This prevention is safe and can be recommended in people living in institutions. It could be also useful in other elderly subjects particularly at risk because of a low calcium intake, an absence of solar exposure and a previous history of falls. From the data of our study we assessed the economic consequences in terms of medical cost of this prevention. In case of treatment of all women living in nursing homes in France, this would saved FF 150000000 per year, the economic balance of prevention becoming positive as soon as the age of the beginning of the prevention reaches 73.5 years. It is now possible to partly stop bone loss in elderly people and it is never too late to prevent hip fractures with calcium and vitamin D supplements." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0396_7604", "title": "Combined calcium and vitamin D3 supplementation in elderly women: confirmation of reversal of secondary hyperparathyroidism and hip fracture risk: the Decalyos II study.", "score": 0.016807899712865046, "content": "Vitamin D insufficiency and low calcium intake contribute to increase parathyroid function and bone fragility in elderly people. Calcium and vitamin D supplements can reverse secondary hyperparathyroidism thus preventing hip fractures, as proved by Decalyos I. Decalyos II is a 2-year, multicenter, randomized, double-masked, placebo-controlled confirmatory study. The intention-to-treat population consisted of 583 ambulatory institutionalized women (mean age 85.2 years, SD = 7.1) randomized to the calcium-vitamin D3 fixed combination group (n = 199); the calcium plus vitamin D3 separate combination group (n = 190) and the placebo group (n = 194). Fixed and separate combination groups received the same daily amount of calcium (1200 mg) and vitamin D3 (800 IU), which had similar pharmacodynamic effects. Both types of calcium-vitamin D3 regimens increased serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D and decreased serum intact parathyroid hormone to a similar extent, with levels returning within the normal range after 6 months. In a subgroup of 114 patients, femoral neck bone mineral density (BMD) decreased in the placebo group (mean = -2.36% per year, SD = 4.92), while remaining unchanged in women treated with calcium-vitamin D3 (mean = 0.29% per year, SD = 8.63). The difference between the two groups was 2.65% (95% CI = -0.44, 5.75%) with a trend in favor of the active treatment group. No significant difference between groups was found for changes in distal radius BMD and quantitative ultrasonic parameters at the os calcis. The relative risk (RR) of HF in the placebo group compared with the active treatment group was 1.69 (95% CI = 0.96, 3.0), which is similar to that found in Decalyos I (RR = 1.7; 95% CI = 1.0, 2.8). Thus, these data are in agreement with those of Decalyos I and indicate that calcium and vitamin D3 in combination reverse senile secondary hyperparathyroidism and reduce both hip bone loss and the risk of hip fracture in elderly institutionalized women." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0275_4712", "title": "Prevention of hip fractures.", "score": 0.01675320179993077, "content": "For a 50-year old Caucasian woman today, the risk of a hip fracture over her remaining life-time is about 17%. Tomorrow the situation will clearly be worse because the continuous increase in life expectancy will cause a three-fold increase in worldwide fracture incidence over the next 60 years. Through diagnostic bone mass measurements at the hip and assessment of biochemical parameters, a great deal has been learned in recent years about reduction of hip fracture risk. Preventive strategies are based on prevention of falls, use of hip protectors, and prevention of bone fragility. The latter includes the optimization of peak bone mass during childhood, postmenopausal estrogen replacement therapy, and also late prevention consisting in reversing senile secondary hyperparathyroidism, which plays an important role in the decrease of skeletal strength. This secondary hyperparathyroidism, which results from both vitamin D insufficiency and low calcium intake, is preventable with vitamin D3 and calcium supplements. They have recently been shown capable of providing effective prevention of hip fractures in elderly women living in nursing homes, with a reduction of about 25% in the number of hip fractures noted in a 3-year controlled study in 3,270 women (intention-to-treat analysis). In conclusion, it is never too early to reduce the risk of osteoporosis and never too late to prevent hip fractures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0655_3344", "title": "Efficacy of vitamin D3 supplementation in preventing fractures in elderly women: a meta-analysis.", "score": 0.01632680261228842, "content": "The efficacy of vitamin D(3) in preventing fractures and falls has been explored in a number of clinical trials. However, recent evidence revealed new questions about the adequate doses of vitamin D(3) supplementation and its efficacy in fracture prevention independent of calcium supplements for various types of fractures. To conduct a meta-analysis to estimate the effectiveness of 800 IU daily vitamin D(3) supplementation for increasing bone mineral density (BMD) and preventing fractures in postmenopausal women. Medline and EMBASE were searched for controlled trials comparing the effectiveness of cholecalciferol (vitamin D(3)) against placebo with or without background calcium supplementation in the treatment of postmenopausal women. Eight controlled trials evaluating the effect of vitamin D(3) supplementation with or without calcium were assessed. Of 12 658 women included in a Bayesian meta-analysis, 6089 received vitamin D(3) (with or without calcium) and 6569 received placebo (with or without calcium). Compared to placebo, vitamin D(3) with calcium supplementation showed beneficial effects on the incidence of non-vertebral (odds ratio [OR] 0.77, 95% credibility limit [CL] 0.6-0.93) and hip (OR 0.70, 95% CL 0.53-0.90) fractures, while the effects on non-vertebral-non-hip fractures (OR 0.84, 95% CL 0.67-1.04) % point increase) were associated with more uncertainty. Vitamin D(3) supplementation showed a 70% probability of being a better treatment than placebo for the prevention of non-vertebral fractures, hip fractures, and non-vertebral, non-hip fractures. Compared to calcium supplementation, vitamin D(3) plus calcium reduced non-vertebral fractures (OR 0.68, 95% CL 0.43-1.01) and non-vertebral, non-hip fractures (OR 0.64, 95% CL 0.38-0.99), but did not reduce hip fractures (OR 1.03, 95% CL 0.39-2.25). Key limitations to this analysis include a small number of studies and heterogeneity in the study populations. This meta-analysis supports the use of vitamin D3 of 800 IU daily to reduce the incidence of osteoporotic non-vertebral, hip, and non-vertebral-non-hip fractures in elderly women. Vitamin D(3) with calcium appears to achieve benefits above those attained with calcium supplementation alone for non-vertebral and non-vertebral-non-hip fractures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0567_4693", "title": "Where do we stand on vitamin D?", "score": 0.01620224435758416, "content": "A meta-analysis of primary prevention high-quality trials published in 2005 found that oral cholecalciferol (D3) in a daily dose of 700-800 IU or intermittently 100,000 IU every 4 months with or without calcium, should reduce both hip and non-vertebral fracture risk significantly compared to placebo. Trials that administered 400 IU vitamin D did not achieve fracture efficacy. Notably, there was a significant association between higher achieved 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels (25(OH)D) in the treatment groups and fracture efficacy: The minimal mean level where fracture efficacy was observed was 74 nmol/l (25(OH)D). Epidemiological data for bone density and lower extremity strength support this threshold, and high-quality trials that used 700 to 800 IU D3 suggested fall risk reduction by 35 to 65% in institutionalized and community-dwelling older individuals. However, since the 2005 meta-analysis, benefits of vitamin D on fracture and fall reduction have been questioned by results from several recent trials. This review proposes that the interpretation of these recent trials is hindered by different doses of vitamin D, different types of supplemental vitamin D (D3 or ergocalciferol D2), low adherence, concurrent use of supplements outside the study protocol, open study design, short follow-up, and/or different patient risk profiles including primary and secondary fracture prevention. In most recent trials, low adherence, the use of the relatively less potent D2, or a too low dose of D3 (400 IU) may have prohibited a shift of (25(OH)D) levels in the treatment groups to the desirable range of at least 75 nmol/l. In summary, from recent trials, two lesson may be learned: (1) Adherence less than 60% is insufficient to achieve fracture efficacy with daily 800 IU D3 plus calcium, (2) D2 in any application or any previously studied dose may not reduce fractures in institutionalized or community-dwelling older individuals." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0671_592", "title": "Reducing fracture risk with calcium and vitamin D.", "score": 0.01594022415940224, "content": "Studies of vitamin D and calcium for fracture prevention have produced inconsistent results, as a result of different vitamin D status and calcium intake at baseline, different doses and poor to adequate compliance. This study tries to define the types of patients, both at risk of osteoporosis and with established disease, who may benefit from calcium and vitamin D supplementation. The importance of adequate compliance in these individuals is also discussed. Calcium and vitamin D therapy has been recommended for older persons, either frail and institutionalized or independent, with key risk factors including decreased bone mineral density (BMD), osteoporotic fractures, increased bone remodelling as a result of secondary hyperparathyroidism and increased propensity to falls. In addition, treatment of osteoporosis with a bisphosphonate was less effective in patients with vitamin D deficiency. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation is a key component of prevention and treatment of osteoporosis unless calcium intake and vitamin D status are optimal. For primary disease prevention, supplementation should be targeted to those with dietary insufficiencies. Several serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25(OH)D) cut-offs have been proposed to define vitamin D insufficiency (as opposed to adequate vitamin D status), ranging from 30 to 100 nmol/l. Based on the relationship between serum 25(OH)D, BMD, bone turnover, lower extremity function and falls, we suggest that 50 nmol/l is the appropriate serum 25(OH)D threshold to define vitamin D insufficiency. Supplementation should therefore generally aim to increase 25(OH)D levels within the 50-75 nmol/l range. This level can be achieved with a dose of 800 IU/day vitamin D, the dose that was used in successful fracture prevention studies to date; a randomized clinical trial assessing whether higher vitamin D doses achieve a greater reduction of fracture incidence would be of considerable interest. As calcium balance is not only affected by vitamin D status but also by calcium intake, recommendations for adequate calcium intake should also be met. The findings of community-based clinical trials with vitamin D and calcium supplementation in which compliance was moderate or less have often been negative, whereas studies in institutionalized patients in whom medication administration was supervised ensuring adequate compliance demonstrated significant benefits." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0667_6165", "title": "Treatment for osteoporosis in Australian residential aged care facilities: consensus recommendations for fracture prevention.", "score": 0.01592157842157842, "content": "Older people living in residential aged care facilities (RACFs) are at considerably higher risk of suffering fractures than older people living in the community. When admitted to RACFs, patients should be assessed for fracture risk to ensure early implementation of effective fracture prevention measures. Routine or regular determination of calcium and phosphate serum levels in institutionalised older people is not indicated. Opinion is divided about the value of routine measurements of serum concentrations of 25-hydroxyvitamin D, parathyroid hormone and bone turnover markers. The non-pharmacological approach to fracture prevention includes multifactorial programs of falls prevention and the use of hip protectors. Vitamin D supplementation is recommended for all patients in RACFs. Dietary calcium intake should be optimised (1200-1500 mg per day is recommended) and supplementation offered to those with inadequate intake. The decision to prescribe calcium supplements should be guided by patients' tolerance, whether or not they have a history of kidney stones, and emerging data about its cardiovascular safety. Bisphosphonates are the first-choice pharmacological agents for fracture prevention in older persons at high risk. Intravenous administration is as efficient as oral and has the significant advantage of better adherence. Use of strontium ranelate has not been tested on people in RACFs, but evidence in the \"old-old\" (those aged 75 years and older) suggests it could be a therapeutic option for fracture prevention in this setting. In general, teriparatide should not be considered as a first-line treatment for fracture prevention, particularly for people in RACFs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0575_244", "title": "Use of calcium or calcium in combination with vitamin D supplementation to prevent fractures and bone loss in people aged 50 years and older: a meta-analysis.", "score": 0.015107212475633527, "content": "Whether calcium supplementation can reduce osteoporotic fractures is uncertain. We did a meta-analysis to include all the randomised trials in which calcium, or calcium in combination with vitamin D, was used to prevent fracture and osteoporotic bone loss. We identified 29 randomised trials (n=63 897) using electronic databases, supplemented by a hand-search of reference lists, review articles, and conference abstracts. All randomised trials that recruited people aged 50 years or older were eligible. The main outcomes were fractures of all types and percentage change of bone-mineral density from baseline. Data were pooled by use of a random-effect model. In trials that reported fracture as an outcome (17 trials, n=52 625), treatment was associated with a 12% risk reduction in fractures of all types (risk ratio 0.88, 95% CI 0.83-0.95; p=0.0004). In trials that reported bone-mineral density as an outcome (23 trials, n=41 419), the treatment was associated with a reduced rate of bone loss of 0.54% (0.35-0.73; p&lt;0.0001) at the hip and 1.19% (0.76-1.61%; p&lt;0.0001) in the spine. The fracture risk reduction was significantly greater (24%) in trials in which the compliance rate was high (p&lt;0.0001). The treatment effect was better with calcium doses of 1200 mg or more than with doses less than 1200 mg (0.80 vs 0.94; p=0.006), and with vitamin D doses of 800 IU or more than with doses less than 800 IU (0.84 vs 0.87; p=0.03). Evidence supports the use of calcium, or calcium in combination with vitamin D supplementation, in the preventive treatment of osteoporosis in people aged 50 years or older. For best therapeutic effect, we recommend minimum doses of 1200 mg of calcium, and 800 IU of vitamin D (for combined calcium plus vitamin D supplementation)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0705_13552", "title": "[Are calcium and vitamin D supplements for everyone?: Pro].", "score": 0.014968082764692935, "content": "Calcium and vitamin D are essential for the health of our bones and various scientific societies recommend an intake of 1,000 mg of calcium and 800 IU of vitamin D daily. Most people with osteoporosis do not eat food with this amount of calcium and also have insufficient levels of vitamin D, so supplements are recommended to provide osteoporotic patients with these amounts. Calcium supplements and vitamin D improve the effectiveness of anabolic and anti-catabolic agents and may have a small effect in reducing the number of fractures. Calcium supplements alone have not shown efficacy preventing fractures in patients with osteoporosis and may increase cardiovascular risk in healthy elderly women and is therefore not recommended for widespread use. Vitamin D supplements are recommended in persons with 25-OH vitamin D levels below 30 ng/ml, in particular the elderly and osteoporotic patients, due to its ability to halt the remodeling resulting from secondary hyperparathyroidism and reduce the loss of bone mass. Vitamin D supplements could help reduce falls and fractures in the institutionalized elderly. In addition, supplements of vitamin D may have other beneficial effects due to extra-osseous regulatory functions on the immune response and cell differentiation and proliferation that is associated with vitamin D. Trials begun in recent years clearly indicate a beneficial effect of vitamin D supplements on mortality, cardiovascular risk,development of tumors and prevention of infections." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0359_17457", "title": "Effects of a short-term vitamin D and calcium supplementation on body sway and secondary hyperparathyroidism in elderly women.", "score": 0.014800410522335657, "content": "Long-term vitamin D and calcium supplementation is effective in reducing nonvertebral fractures in elderly people. Increased bone fragility caused by secondary hyperparathyroidism (sHPT) and impaired balance are known risk factors for hip fractures. The hypothesis is that short-term therapy with calcium and vitamin D may improve body sway as well as sHPT more effectively than calcium monotherapy. The effects of 8 weeks of supplementation with vitamin D (cholecalciferol) and calcium on body sway and biochemical measures of bone metabolism were measured. The sample consisted of 148 women (mean [+/-SD] age, 74 +/- 1 years) with a 25-hydroxycholecalciferol level below 50 nmol/liter. They received either 1200 mg of calcium plus 800 IU of vitamin D or 1200 mg of calcium per day. We measured intact parathyroid hormone (PTH), markers of bone turnover, and body sway before and after treatment. Falls and fractures among the participants were followed over a 1-year period. Compared with calcium mono, supplementation with vitamin D and calcium resulted in an increase in serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D of 72% (p &lt; 0.0001), a decrease in the serum PTH of 18% ( p = 0.0432), and a decrease in body sway of 9% (p = 0.0435). The mean number of falls per subject during a 1-year follow-up period was 0.45 for the calcium mono group and 0.24 for the calcium and vitamin D group (p = 0.0346). Short-term supplementation with vitamin D and calcium improves sHPT and body sway and therefore may prevent falls and subsequent nonvertebral fractures in elderly women." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0913_22460", "title": "Pharmacological treatment of osteoporosis in the oldest old.", "score": 0.014683676126008852, "content": "The incidence of osteoporotic fractures increases with age. Consequently, the global prevalence of osteoporotic fractures will increase with the aging of the population. In old age, osteoporosis is associated with a substantial burden in terms of morbidity and mortality. Nevertheless, osteoporosis in old age continues to be underdiagnosed and undertreated. This may, at least partly, be explained by the fact that evidence of the antifracture efficacy of osteoporosis treatments comes mainly from randomized controlled trials in postmenopausal women with a mean age of 70-75 years. However, in the last years, subgroup analyses of these landmark trials have been published investigating the efficacy and safety of osteoporosis treatment in the very elderly. Based on this evidence, this narrative review discusses the pharmacological management of osteoporosis in the oldest old (≥80 years). Because of the high prevalence of calcium and/or vitamin D deficiency in old age, these supplements are essential in the management of osteoporosis in the elderly people. Adding antiresorptive or anabolic treatments or combinations, thereof, reduces the risk of vertebral fractures even more, at least in the elderly with documented osteoporosis. The reduction of hip fracture risk by antiresorptive treatments is less convincing, which may be explained by insufficient statistical power in some subanalyses and/or a higher impact of nonskeletal risk factors in the occurrence of hip fractures. Compared with younger individuals, a larger absolute risk reduction is observed in the elderly because of the higher baseline fracture risk. Therefore, the elderly will benefit more of treatment. In addition, current osteoporosis therapies also appear to be safe in the elderly. Although more research is required to further clarify the effect of osteoporosis drugs in the elderly, especially with respect to hip fractures, there is currently sufficient evidence to initiate appropriate treatment in the elderly with osteoporosis and osteoporotic fractures." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_33041", "title": "Osteoporosis", "score": 0.014611613876319759, "content": "Studies of the benefits of supplementation with calcium and vitamin D are conflicting, possibly because most studies did not have people with low dietary intakes. A 2018 review by the USPSTF found low-quality evidence that the routine use of calcium and vitamin D supplements (or both supplements together) did not reduce the risk of having an osteoporotic fracture in male and female adults living in the community who had no known history of vitamin D deficiency, osteoporosis, or a fracture. The USPSTF does not recommend low dose supplementation (less than 1 g of calcium and 400 IU of vitamin D) in postmenopausal women as there does not appear to be a difference in fracture risk. A 2015 review found little data that supplementation of calcium decreases the risk of fractures. While some meta-analyses have found a benefit of vitamin D supplements combined with calcium for fractures, they did not find a benefit of vitamin D supplements (800 IU/day or less) alone. While supplementation does" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en289_2170", "title": "Vitamin D", "score": 0.014446444644464446, "content": "Bone health In general, no good evidence supports the commonly held belief that vitamin D supplements can help prevent osteoporosis. Its general use for prevention of this disease in those without vitamin D deficiency is thus likely not needed. For older people with osteoporosis, taking vitamin D with calcium may help prevent hip fractures, but it also slightly increases the risk of stomach and kidney problems. A study found that supplementation with 800 IU or more daily, in those older than 65 years was \"somewhat favorable in the prevention of hip fracture and non-vertebral fracture\". The effect is small or none for people living independently. Low serum vitamin D levels have been associated with falls, and low bone mineral density. Taking extra vitamin D, however, does not appear to change the risk." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0644_7970", "title": "Strategies for treatment to prevent fragility fractures in postmenopausal women.", "score": 0.014223679546260193, "content": "The objective of treatment of osteoporosis is to decrease the risk of fractures in patients at high risk for a first or subsequent fracture. The efficacy of treatment will depend on the efficiency and level of implementation of clinical case finding to select patients at risk, the results of additional investigations, the efficacy, tolerance and safety of medical intervention and the adherence to treatment during follow-up. Each of these steps is critical in treatment in daily practice. Failure to consider one or another step can result in suboptimal fracture prevention or overtreatment. The aim of case finding is to identify patients for treatment, who have disease characteristics of patients in whom fracture prevention has been demonstrated in randomised controlled trials (RCTs). These include patients with a low-trauma hip or vertebral fracture, with a low bone mineral density (BMD) or with a high risk of fracture based on the presence of clinical risk factors (CRFs) for osteoporosis and fractures such as included in the FRAX case-finding algorithm, with or without BMD. Case finding starts clinically, with systematic or opportunistic doctor- and/or patient-driven evaluation for the presence of CRFs, but its implementation is low. Further investigations aim to assess the risk of fracture(s) and to have baseline measurements for the subsequent monitoring of treatment, to exclude diseases that mimic osteoporosis, to identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors and to select the most appropriate treatment. Medical intervention consists of providing information about osteoporosis to the patient, lifestyle advice, optimalisation of calcium intake and vitamin D status, fall prevention to reduce fall risk, correction of reversible contributors to secondary osteoporosis and a wide array of drugs for prevention of a first or subsequent vertebral, hip and non-vertebral, non-hip fracture. Drug treatment is based on manipulation of bone remodelling by inhibiting bone resorption (bisphosphonates, selective oestrogen-receptor modulator (SERMs), calcitonin), stimulating bone formation (parathyroid hormone) or mixed effects (strontium ranelate). Follow-up allows to check tolerance and safety, to optimise adherence and to decide about adequacy of response, duration and switching of therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0540_22200", "title": "Addressing the musculoskeletal components of fracture risk with calcium and vitamin D: a review of the evidence.", "score": 0.013928223222990853, "content": "Osteoporotic fractures are an extremely common and serious health problem in the elderly. This article presents the rationale for calcium and vitamin D supplementation in the prevention and treatment of osteoporotic fractures and reviews the literature evidence on the efficacy of this strategy. Two musculoskeletal risk factors are implicated in osteoporotic fractures in the elderly: the loss of bone mass due to secondary hyperparathyroidism and the increased propensity to falls. Calcium and vitamin D reverse secondary hyperparathyroidism with resultant beneficial effects on bone mineral density (BMD). Additionally, calcium and vitamin D supplementation significantly improves body sway and lower extremity strength, reducing the risk of falls. The effects of combined calcium and vitamin D on parathyroid function and BMD provide a strong rationale for the use of this therapy in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis and osteoporotic fractures. There is general agreement that, in patients with documented osteoporosis, calcium and vitamin D supplementation should be an integral component of the management strategy, along with antiresorptive or anabolic treatment. Frail elderly individuals constitute another major target population for calcium and vitamin D because evidence from randomized studies in institutionalized elderly subjects demonstrates that these supplements reduce osteoporotic fracture risk, particularly in the presence of dietary deficiencies. However, the results of trials in community-dwelling subjects have been equivocal. Within the primary-care setting, further research is required to establish appropriate target subgroups for calcium and vitamin D supplementation; overall, the data are consistent with a benefit individuals with insufficient calcium and/or vitamin D, although patients with documented osteoporosis will derive further benefit in terms of fracture prevention from the addition of an antiresorptive agent." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0044_15714", "title": "Vitamin D3 and calcium to prevent hip fractures in elderly women.", "score": 0.013910060975609756, "content": "Hypovitaminosis D and a low calcium intake contribute to increased parathyroid function in elderly persons. Calcium and vitamin D supplements reduce this secondary hyperparathyroidism, but whether such supplements reduce the risk of hip fractures among elderly people is not known. We studied the effects of supplementation with vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) and calcium on the frequency of hip fractures and other nonvertebral fractures, identified radiologically, in 3270 healthy ambulatory women (mean [+/- SD] age, 84 +/- 6 years). Each day for 18 months, 1634 women received tricalcium phosphate (containing 1.2 g of elemental calcium) and 20 micrograms (800 IU) of vitamin D3, and 1636 women received a double placebo. We measured serial serum parathyroid hormone and 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25(OH)D) concentrations in 142 women and determined the femoral bone mineral density at base line and after 18 months in 56 women. Among the women who completed the 18-month study, the number of hip fractures was 43 percent lower (P = 0.043) and the total number of nonvertebral fractures was 32 percent lower (P = 0.015) among the women treated with vitamin D3 and calcium than among those who received placebo. The results of analyses according to active treatment and according to intention to treat were similar. In the vitamin D3-calcium group, the mean serum parathyroid hormone concentration had decreased by 44 percent from the base-line value at 18 months (P &lt; 0.001) and the serum 25(OH)D concentration had increased by 162 percent over the base-line value (P &lt; 0.001). The bone density of the proximal femur increased 2.7 percent in the vitamin D3-calcium group and decreased 4.6 percent in the placebo group (P &lt; 0.001). Supplementation with vitamin D3 and calcium reduces the risk of hip fractures and other nonvertebral fractures among elderly women." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en286_22362", "title": "Canadian health claims for food", "score": 0.013834154351395732, "content": "Research supporting the claim There is a significant body of evidence which establishes that high calcium intakes augment bone gain during growth, retards age-related bone loss, and reduces osteoporotic fracture risk. A meta-analysis study in 2007 assessed whether calcium supplementation can reduce osteoporotic fractures. The meta-analysis included all the randomized trials in which calcium, or calcium in combination with vitamin D, was used to prevent fracture and osteoporotic bone loss." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0269_7683", "title": "Can we stop bone loss and prevent hip fractures in the elderly?", "score": 0.013555833929849678, "content": "The two main determinants of hip fractures are falls and bone loss leading to an intrinsic femoral fragility. Substantial femoral bone loss continues throughout old age, with a continuous and exponential increase in the risk of hip fracture; thus any reduction or arrest of this loss will induce an important reduction in the incidence of hip fracture. Preventive measures may be achieved during childhood by increasing peak bone mass with calcium and exercise, by using long-term estrogen replacement therapy after menopause, but also by using vitamin D and calcium supplements for late prevention in the elderly. Vitamin D insufficiency and a deficit in calcium intake are very common in the elderly living either in institutions or at home and the cumulative response to these deficits is a negative calcium balance which stimulates parathyroid hormone secretion. This senile secondary hyperparathyroidism is one of the determinants of femoral bone loss and can be reversed by calcium and vitamin D supplements. We have shown in a 3-year controlled prospective study that the daily use of supplements (1.2 g calcium and 800 IU vitamin D3) given in a large population of 3270 elderly ambulatory women living in nursing homes reduced the number of hip fractures by 23% (intention-to-treat analysis). In parallel, serum parathyroid hormone concentrations were reduced by 28% and low baseline serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentration returned to normal values. After 18 months of treatment the bone density of the total proximal femoral region had increased by 2.7% in the vitamin D3-calcium group and decreased by 4.6% in the placebo group (p &lt; 0.001).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en159_33147", "title": "Senile osteoporosis", "score": 0.013494781474233528, "content": "Calcium and vitamin D3 intake from diet or supplementation are crucial in the ethiopathogenesis of this disease; therefore, the effective treatments should consist of non pharmacological methods (such as a modified diet with more calcium 1000–1500 mg/day and vitamin D3 intake of 600-800 IU/day, exercising, smoking cessation, and alcohol restriction), fall prevention, and individually chosen pharmacological intervention (antiresorptive agent like bisphosphonate or estrogen replacement therapy in women). Given bone fracture (hip, vertebrae, and colles) is a devastating complication of osteoporosis, vitamin D3 combined with calcium are used as primary prevention, along with alendronate, residronate, strontium and zoledronic acid which have proven efficacy in primary and secondary hip fracture prevention. The Institute of Medicine recommends a daily allowance of 800 IU of Vitamin D for people 70 and over, to get to a level of serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25OHD) of at least 20 ng/ml (50" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en509_6723", "title": "Calcium supplement", "score": 0.013425925925925924, "content": "Health effects Bone health In healthy people, calcium supplementation is not necessary for maintaining bone mineral density, and carries risks that outweigh any benefits. Calcium intake is not significantly associated with hip fracture risk in either men or women. The U.S. Preventive Service Task Force recommends against a daily supplement of calcium or vitamin D. Although a slight increase in bone mineral density occurred in healthy children from calcium supplementation, using additional dietary calcium is not justified, according to a 2006 review. Cardiovascular impact There is good evidence that 1,000 mg to 1,500 mg of daily calcium supplementation can effect a modest reduction in blood pressure in adults who do not have a blood pressure condition." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en038_11967", "title": "Women's Health Initiative", "score": 0.013310318373609513, "content": "CaD component findings Among the intervention cohort, a small but significant improvement in hip bone density was observed, although a significant reduction in hip fractures was not observed. However, subgroup analysis revealed a possible benefit to older women in terms of a reduced risk of hip fractures, attributable to calcium plus vitamin D supplementation. It was also found that the intervention did not have an effect on the incidence of colorectal cancer, possibly owing to the long latency associated with colorectal cancers. Calcium plus vitamin D was not found to affect the incidence of breast cancer. Finally, an increased risk of kidney stones was observed among those taking calcium plus vitamin D." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en004_137076", "title": "Dietary supplement", "score": 0.013289538264054065, "content": "\"Adequate calcium as part of a healthful diet, along with physical activity, may reduce the risk of osteoporosis in later life.\" \"Adequate calcium and vitamin D throughout life, as part of a well-balanced diet, may reduce the risk of osteoporosis.\" \"Adequate calcium and vitamin D as part of a healthful diet, along with physical activity, may reduce the risk of osteoporosis in later life.\" In the same year, the European Food Safety Authority also approved a dietary supplement health claim for calcium and vitamin D and the reduction of the risk of osteoporotic fractures by reducing bone loss." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en396_2959", "title": "Eldecalcitol", "score": 0.01325483715485781, "content": "The new analogs of vitamin D, such as eldecalcitol, are observed to have stronger effects in preventing bone loss, fractures, and falls in comparison to calcitriol. Eldecalcitol is even more effective than its counterpart alfacalcidol, another vitamin D analog. Studies have shown eldecalcitol is more effective than alfacalcidol in preventing vertebral and wrist fractures, and even falls, with osteoporotic patients with vitamin D insufficiencies. Eldecalcitol is also more effective at preventing fractures than vitamin D and calcium supplements. Eldecalcitol increases calcium absorption for vitamin D deficient patients, and therefore could be used for osteoporosis treatment for all age groups." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0364_20168", "title": "Effect of calcium or 25OH vitamin D3 dietary supplementation on bone loss at the hip in men and women over the age of 60.", "score": 0.012894193928676688, "content": "Dietary supplements that prevent bone loss at the hip and that can be applied safely in the elderly are likely to reduce hip fractures. A daily dietary supplement of 750 mg calcium or 15 microg 25OH vitamin D3 on bone loss at the hip and other sites, bone turnover and calcium-regulating hormones were studied over 4 yr in elderly volunteers using a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial. Bone mineral density (BMD) was measured by dual x-ray absorptiometry and bone structure by radiographs. Calcium biochemistry and bone turnover markers were measured in blood and urine. The 316 women entering the trial had a mean age of 73.7 yr and the 122 men of 75.9 yr. Baseline median calcium intake was 546 mg/day, and median serum 25OH vitamin D3 was 59 nmol/L. On placebo, loss of BMD at total hip was 2% and femoral medulla expansion was 3% over 4 yr. Calcium reduced bone loss, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and bone turnover. 25OH vitamin D3 was intermediate between placebo and calcium. Fracture rates and drop-out rates were similar among groups, and there were no serious adverse events with either supplement. A calcium supplement of 750 mg/day prevents loss of BMD, reduces femoral medullary expansion, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and high bone turnover. A supplement of 15 microg/day 25OH vitamin D3 is less effective, and because its effects are seen only at low calcium intakes, suggests that its beneficial effect is to reverse calcium insufficiency." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0913_22610", "title": "The use of cholecalciferol in patients with hip fracture.", "score": 0.012740882306099698, "content": "Major osteoporotic fractures are steadily increasing due to population aging. Programs of secondary prevention against refracture are essential to decrease morbidity and mortality and the cost for individuals and the society. Vitamin D supplementation and optimization of calcium intake are of a pivotal importance to start specific osteoporosis treatment and for its safety and efficacy. Cholecalciferol is the most widely employed drug for vitamin D supplementation. Aim of this study was to assess the trends in the use of vitamin D supplements containing cholecalciferol in the population of hip fracture patients older than 65 years, resident in the region of Tuscany (Italy) in the years 2011-2015 and to describe vitamin D status in a subgroup of this individuals directly referred to a bone clinic for further evaluation after hip osteoporotic fracture. Data were retrieved from the electronic anonymous regional administrative database administered by the Region of Tuscany (Italy) in the years 2011-2015 within the T.A.R.Ge.T. project (Trattamento Appropriato delle Rifratture Geriatriche in Toscana, i.e., \"Appropriate treatment of geriatric refractures in Tuscany\"), a program endorsed by the region itself. Data pertaining to cholecalciferol prescriptions and hospital discharge codes were retrieved and appropriately crossed to get data on the use of cholecalciferol supplements in patients before and after a hip fracture. A retrospective analysis was carried out in a subgroup of subjects (n 254) appropriately referred to the local fracture liaison service after the major osteoporotic fracture and vitamin D status in terms of serum 25(OH) vitamin D levels was assessed. The majority of subjects experiencing a hip fracture (98.2% and 88.3% in 2011 and 2015, respectively) did not receive vitamin D supplements at the time of the fracture event. Although a trend in increase in prescriptions for cholecalciferol supplements could be observed in the years of the study, the percentage of treated individuals remained low even after the fracture, since only 30-35% of subjects receives cholecalciferol supplements at one year after the fracture. Cholecalciferol remained the most prescribed drug in this population, while a substantial decrease of cholecalciferol in association with calcium salts was observed. The use of high doses of cholecalciferol has decreased in this population, while diminished the use of the drops has been accompanied by an increase in prescriptions of single monthly dose supplements. The correction of vitamin D inadequacy is preliminary to any treatment for osteoporosis and together with calcium may reduce fracture risk by itself. The prescription of vitamin D supplements is low in patients before and after a hip fracture in a Mediterranean region and despite the overall increase in vitamin use and abuse in the general population. Proper educational programs and active fracture liaison services are needed in order to bridge this gap." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_33474", "title": "Bone fracture", "score": 0.012542258282623394, "content": "Other A Cochrane review of low-intensity pulsed ultrasound to speed healing in newly broken bones found insufficient evidence to justify routine use. Other reviews have found tentative evidence of benefit. It may be an alternative to surgery for established nonunions. Vitamin D supplements combined with additional calcium marginally reduces the risk of hip fractures and other types of fracture in older adults; however, vitamin D supplementation alone did not reduce the risk of fractures. Children" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1145_11485", "title": "What is the impact of daily oral supplementation of vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) plus calcium on the incidence of hip fracture in older people? A systematic review and meta-analysis.", "score": 0.01249127447738712, "content": "Hip fractures have a huge impact in reducing the quality of life and increasing mortality. This review aims to assess the impact of daily oral supplementation of vitamin D3 plus calcium on the incidence of hip fracture in people over 65 years. PRISMA guidelines were followed and RCTs that evaluated the effectiveness of daily oral supplementation of vitamin D3 plus calcium in preventing hip fracture in adults over 65 years were included in the study. The databases such as Cochrane Library, Embase, Medline, PubMed, CINAHL, Web of Science and Scopus were searched from October 2019- January 2020.The Cochrane risk of bias tool was used to check the quality of the included studies. A meta-analysis with fixed effect model using Review Manager (Revman 5.3) was used to analyse the data. The meta-analysis of seven RCTs on vitamin D3 plus calcium supplementation and hip fracture (n = 12,620) identified odds ratio (OR) of 0.75; 95% Confidence interval (CI): 0.64, 0.87; p = .0003. Daily oral supplementation of 800 IU of Vitamin D3 plus 1200 mg of calcium was found more effective (n = 5676 participants; OR = 0.69; 95% CI: 0.58, 0.82; p &lt; .0001) than daily oral supplementation of 800 IU of Vitamin D3 plus 1000 mg of calcium (n = 6555,OR = 1.08; 95% CI: 0.74, 1.56; p = .70) in reducing hip fracture. A meta-analysis of the seven RCTs to identify the incidence of non-vertebral fracture gave the OR of 0.80; 95% CI: 0.72, 0.89; p &lt; .0001. A meta-analysis of three RCTs on femoral neck bone mineral density (BMD) (n = 483) gave a mean difference of 1.21; 95% CI: -0.79, 3.20; p = .24. Daily oral supplementation 800 IU of vitamin D3 plus 1200 mg of calcium reduces hip fracture and non-vertebral fracture in older people. Administering vitamin D3 and calcium supplements had no effect in increasing the femoral neck BMD. Even though it is evident from the review that optimal daily intake of vitamin D3 plus calcium supplementation help in the prevention of fracture, it is only one essential element in fracture prevention. Also, people who are on dietary supplements should be compliant with same for better result. Efforts to prevent bone loss and osteoporosis should begin from an early age. It includes maintaining a healthy lifestyle, optimal intake of calcium and vitamin D3, proper nutrition, adequate exposure to sunlight, exercise etc. Proper education on healthy lifestyle, avoiding risk factors like smoking, caffeine, alcohol and awareness of bone health should continue throughout life with emphasis during menopause when increased bone loss is expected." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0715_18836", "title": "Prevention of fractures in older people with calcium and vitamin D.", "score": 0.012453806356245382, "content": "The greatest cause of fracture in older people is osteoporosis which contributes to increased morbidity and mortality in older people. A number of meta-analyses have been performed assessing the effectiveness of calcium supplementation alone, vitamin D supplementation alone and the combined therapy on bone loss and fracture reduction in older people. The results of these meta-analyses indicate that vitamin D supplementation alone is unlikely to reduce fracture risk, calcium supplementation alone has a modest effect in reducing total fracture risk, but compliance with calcium supplements is poor in the long term. The combination of calcium supplementation with vitamin D supplementation, particularly in those at risk of marginal and low vitamin D status reduces total fractures, including hip fractures. Therefore older people would be recommended to consume adequate dietary calcium (&gt;1100 mg/day) together with maintaining adequate vitamin D status (&gt;60 nmol/L 25(OH)D) to reduce risk of fracture. It is a challenge to consume sufficient dietary calcium from dietary sources, but the increasing range of calcium fortified foods could assist in increasing the dietary calcium intake of older people. In addition to the usual dairy based food sources, vitamin D supplements are likely to be required for older people with reduced mobility and access to sunlight." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0532_1411", "title": "Calcium, vitamin D and involutional osteoporosis.", "score": 0.012361402457296973, "content": "Previous studies suggest that combined calcium and vitamin D supplementation decreases the risk of fractures in older people, particularly those living in care homes, but trials of vitamin D alone in fracture prevention have generated inconsistent results. This review examines the physiological functions of calcium and vitamin D, and the contrasting views of what constitutes an adequate dietary calcium intake and vitamin D sufficiency in adults, and highlights the results of recent large studies of calcium and vitamin D supplementation. The RECORD study shows that calcium (1000 mg/day) and vitamin D (800 IU/day), either alone or in combination, are ineffective in the secondary prevention of osteoporotic fractures in older men and women living in the community. The Northern and Yorkshire Study also suggests that calcium (1000 mg/day) and vitamin D (800 IU/day) are of no benefit in the primary prevention of fractures in community-dwelling older women. Furthermore, the Wessex study demonstrated no reduction in fractures in older people living in the community treated with annual IM injections of vitamin D (300 000 IU). The latest studies highlight that vitamin D, either alone or in combination with calcium supplementation, is ineffective in the primary or secondary prevention of fractures in community-dwelling older people. In contrast, calcium and vitamin D supplementation prevents fractures in institutionalized elderly people, who commonly have vitamin D deficiency and secondary hyperparathyroidism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0480_21551", "title": "A randomised, controlled comparison of different calcium and vitamin D supplementation regimens in elderly women after hip fracture: The Nottingham Neck of Femur (NONOF) Study.", "score": 0.012336802270577105, "content": "survivors of hip fracture are at 5- to 10-fold risk of a second hip fracture. There is little consensus about secondary prevention. Many are given calcium and vitamin D, but the evidence supporting this is circumstantial. to compare the effects of different calcium and vitamin D supplementation regimens on bone biochemical markers, bone mineral density and rate of falls in elderly women post-hip fracture. randomised controlled trial. orthogeriatric rehabilitation ward. 150 previously independent elderly women, recruited following surgery for hip fracture, were assigned to receive a single injection of 300,000 units of vitamin D(2), injected vitamin D(2) plus 1 g/day oral calcium, 800 units/day oral vitamin D(3) plus 1 g/day calcium, or no treatment. Follow-up was one year, with measurement of 25-hydroxyvitamin D, parathyroid hormone, bone mineral density, and falls. mean 25-hydroxyvitamin D increased and mean parathyroid hormone was suppressed in all the actively treated groups, more so in the group receiving combined oral vitamin D and calcium. Twenty per cent of participants injected with vitamin D were deficient in 25-hydroxyvitamin D a year later. Bone mineral density showed small but statistically significant differences of up to 4.6% between actively treated groups and placebo. Relative risk of falling in the groups supplemented with vitamin D was 0.48 (95% CI 0.26-0.90) compared with controls. Vitamin D supplementation, either orally or with injected vitamin D, suppresses parathyroid hormone, increases bone mineral density and reduces falls. Effects may be more marked with calcium co-supplementation. The 300,000 units of injected vitamin D may not last a whole year." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0617_17583", "title": "Calcium and vitamin d in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.", "score": 0.012193362193362194, "content": "An increasing prevalence of calcium and/or vitamin D deficiency in the general population (especially, but not only, in elderly subjects) has been emphasized in recent epidemiologic studies. These deficiencies could be responsible for accelerated bone loss mediated by secondary hyperpara-thyroidism and increased bone turnover and could explain the dramatic increase of the incidence of osteoporotic fractures with age. High calcium intake in prepubertal girls seems to be associated with higher peak bone mass in late adolescence. Calcium supplementation could slow bone turnover and bone loss in particular subsets of patients, including calcium-deficient postmenopausal women and elderly patients. A specific antif-racture effect of calcium supplementation in postmenopausal osteoporotic patients has not been established, but a calcium-plus-low-dose-vitamin D3 supplementation has been suggested to decrease the peripheral fracture incidence (especially hip fracture) in elderly institutionalized women. After a critical review of these data, some practical recommendations are suggested." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0624_21250", "title": "Prevention of nonvertebral fractures with oral vitamin D and dose dependency: a meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials.", "score": 0.01213558376342586, "content": "Antifracture efficacy with supplemental vitamin D has been questioned by recent trials. We performed a meta-analysis on the efficacy of oral supplemental vitamin D in preventing nonvertebral and hip fractures among older individuals (&gt; or =65 years). We included 12 double-blind randomized controlled trials (RCTs) for nonvertebral fractures (n = 42 279) and 8 RCTs for hip fractures (n = 40 886) comparing oral vitamin D, with or without calcium, with calcium or placebo. To incorporate adherence to treatment, we multiplied the dose by the percentage of adherence to estimate the mean received dose (dose x adherence) for each trial. The pooled relative risk (RR) was 0.86 (95% confidence interval [CI], 0.77-0.96) for prevention of nonvertebral fractures and 0.91 (95% CI, 0.78-1.05) for the prevention of hip fractures, but with significant heterogeneity for both end points. Including all trials, antifracture efficacy increased significantly with a higher dose and higher achieved blood 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels for both end points. Consistently, pooling trials with a higher received dose of more than 400 IU/d resolved heterogeneity. For the higher dose, the pooled RR was 0.80 (95% CI, 0.72-0.89; n = 33 265 subjects from 9 trials) for nonvertebral fractures and 0.82 (95% CI, 0.69-0.97; n = 31 872 subjects from 5 trials) for hip fractures. The higher dose reduced nonvertebral fractures in community-dwelling individuals (-29%) and institutionalized older individuals (-15%), and its effect was independent of additional calcium supplementation. Nonvertebral fracture prevention with vitamin D is dose dependent, and a higher dose should reduce fractures by at least 20% for individuals aged 65 years or older." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 26, 151 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 19 ] ], "text": "Antihypertensive. In particular, hydrochlorothiazide, as a thiazide, is primarily responsible for this patient's hypokalemia." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Renal insufficiency.", "2": "Hyponatremia.", "3": "Potassium deficiency.", "4": "Antihypertensive.", "5": "Metformin." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0945_6904", "title": "[Metformin and Diabetes: still has a sense of its use in patients CKD stage II or is an additional risk factor?]", "score": 0.015050167224080268, "content": "Pz woman of 62 years comes to P.S.G. for fatigue, low-grade fever, diuresis present. A history of hypertension refers to therapy for about five years, diabetes mellitus for about two years in therapy with Metformin 1gr x 3 gg / day. Blood tests: BUN 195 mg / dL, creatinine 8.0 mg / dl, Ph 6877, HCO3 5.1 mmol / L BE -29.1 mmol / l. Rapid clinical deterioration with occurrence of arterial hypotension - 85/60 mmHg, stupor. Start therapy Bicarbonates ev, is positioned in Urgency CVC and it undergoes AFB with infusion of bicarbonates 2000 ml / h for 4 hours, blood flow rate 250 ml / min., the hemodynamics has been supported with dopamine infusion 200 mg: 2 vials in 250 cc of physiological vel 30 - 40 ml / h, The pc after undergoing three AFB, interrupted the dialysis for resumption of diuresis spontaneous and progressive improvement of renal function and blood pressure. Monitored, after discharge, the parameters of renal function decreased to within normal limits, clearance compatible with IRC II - III stage. dehydration, fever, IRC II stadium, undiagnosed caused, in a very short time, an accumulation of metformin, which has been the cause of metabolic acidosis. The pc. saved thanks to the positioning of the CVC and to the AFB in the treatment with the infusion of large quantities of Bicarbonates e.v. The use of metformin in pcs. &gt; 50 years and / or creatinine clearance &lt;60 ml / min., must be subordinated to the preliminary study and periodic renal function." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0831_3762", "title": "[Non-fatal hyperkalemia in lactic acidosis due to metformin overdose. Report of one case].", "score": 0.014124293785310734, "content": "We report a 74-year-old man with diabetes mellitus type 2 and hypertension, who recently underwent coronary bypass surgery due to severe triple vessel disease receiving cardiological and combined antidiabetic therapy, including metformin 4 g/day. He was admitted with abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and loss of consciousness. At admission, he was disoriented and agitated with signs of poor perfusion. His blood pressure was 80/70 mmHg, pulse rate 40 beats/min, respiratory rate 20-breaths/min, and axillary temperature 35 °C. Biochemical profile revealed an extreme hyperkalemia of 15.4 mEq/L (double checked), elevated creatinine, uremia and brain natriuretic peptide; hypoglycemia (blood glucose 68 mg/dl) and normal C Reactive Protein. Arterial blood gases revealed severe lactic acidemia. The electrocardiogram showed sinus bradycardia, simple AV block, widened QRS with prominent T wave and prolonged QT. He was admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with the suspicion of lactic acidosis associated with metformin, receiving fluid management, intravenous hypertonic glucose plus insulin and sodium bicarbonate, mechanical ventilation, vasopressor therapy, a temporary pacemaker lead, in addition to continuous venovenous hemodiafiltration. Two days later, the patient experienced a significant clinical improvement with normalization of the acid-base status, plasma lactate and potassium levels. On day 9, diuresis was recovered, creatinine and uremia returned to normal levels and the patient was discharged from the ICU." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1019_2148", "title": "Ranolazine Induced Bradycardia, Renal Failure, and Hyperkalemia: A BRASH Syndrome Variant.", "score": 0.013776959091257963, "content": "Ranolazine is a well-known antianginal drug, that was first licensed for use in the United States in 2006. It was objectively shown to improve exercise capacity and to lengthen the time to symptom onset in patients with coronary artery disease. The most commonly reported side effects of ranolazine include dizziness, headache, constipation, and nausea. Here, we describe a case of bradycardia, hyperkalemia, and acute renal injury in the setting of ranolazine use. Our patient is an 88-year-old female who presented with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Her medical comorbidities included hypertension, diabetes, CAD, heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, hypothyroidism, and a history of cerebrovascular accident without any residual deficits. Her prescription regimen included amlodipine, furosemide, isosorbide mononitrate, levothyroxine, metformin, omeprazole, and ranolazine. Physical examination was remarkable for bradycardia and decreased breath sounds in the left lower lung field. Laboratory studies were significant for a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L and a serum creatinine level of 1.6 mg/dL. She was given insulin with dextrose, sodium polystyrene, and calcium gluconate in addition to fluids. Her bradycardia and renal function worsened over the next 24 hours. Ranolazine was discontinued. Metabolic derangements were treated appropriately. After 48 hours from presentation, potassium and renal function returned to baseline and her heart rate improved to a range of 60-100 bpm. She was discharged with an outpatient cardiology follow-up. Ranolazine treatment was not continued upon discharge. In summary, our case illustrates an association between ranolazine and renal failure induced hyperkalemia, leading to conduction delays in the myocardium. Though further studies are warranted, we suspect that this is a variant of the recently described BRASH syndrome. We propose that in cases such as ours, along with treatment of the hyperkalemia, medication review and removal of any offending agent should be considered." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0544_16767", "title": "Metformin-associated lactic acidosis treated with continuous renal replacement therapy.", "score": 0.013636363636363636, "content": "Lactic acidosis is an infrequent complication of metformin therapy for diabetes mellitus. The presence of clinical conditions, such as renal failure, increases the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis (MALA). We present a case of lactic acidosis in a patient with diabetes treated with metformin, complicated by acute renal failure in preexisting chronic nephropathy. A 70-year-old white male, weighing 77 kg, with diabetes mellitus, coronary heart disease, congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association class III), moderate essential hypertension (stage 2), and renal dysfunction (serum urea, 90 mg/dL; serum creatinine, 1.5 mg/dL; creatinine clearance, 49.8 mL/min/1.73 m2) presented to the emergency department of the General Hospital of Rhodes (Rhodes, Greece), complaining of malaise, respiratory distress, myalgias, disorientation, abdominal discomfort, and increasing somnolence of insidious onset. The patient's regimen included isosorbide mononitrate 60 mg QD, furosemide 40 mg QD, quinapril 20 mg QD, and metformin 850 mg TID. Before this hospitalization, he had received a 2-week course of oral diclofenac sodium 25 mg TID for low back pain. Preliminary laboratory evaluation found leukocytosis (27,300/mm3), severe renal failure (serum urea, 215 mg/dL; serum creatinine, 7.4 mg/dL; calculated creatinine clearance, 10.1 mL/min/1.73 m2), and a high anion gap metabolic acidosis (pH, 6.95; anion gap, 33 mEq/L) in arterial blood gas analysis. His medical and drug history, the clinical and laboratory findings, and the determination of lactate in samples of plasma (7.8 mEq/L), aroused the suspicion of MALA. The Naranjo algorithm scores for metformin and diclofenac sodium were 6 and 7, respectively. The patient received a single session of bicarbonate-buffered continuous venovenous hemodiafiltration (CWHDF) that lasted 16 hours. Ultimately, he was stabilized, and progressive restoration of acid-base balance and renal function was observed. We suspect that lactic acidosis may have been related to the use of metformin, the presence of heart and renal failure (contributing to metformin toxicity), and previous use of diclofenac sodium. CVVHDF has an advantage over conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that it corrects acidosis and removes lactate and metformin without risk of hypernatremia or fluid overload. MALA should be strongly suspected in diabetic patients presenting with high anion gap metabolic acidosis and increased serum lactate level. In the case described, prompt recognition of lactic acidosis and early application of bicarbonate-buffered CVVHDF produced successful results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0634_3064", "title": "Ventricular fibrillation as the first manifestation of primary hyperaldosteronism.", "score": 0.013087116242456048, "content": "50 years old female patient, with history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension, receiving metformin (500 mg BID) and atenolol (50 mg BID), presented to the Emergency Room with asthenia and dizziness. The patient was also receiving alternative medication (Dragon Blanco) which contains no licorice. During the emergency workup she developed syncope and three episodes of ventricular fibrillation. She was electrically defibrillated and treated with amiodarone and potassium replacement. The patient was admitted to the Intensive Care Unit. Physical exam: BP: 160/90 mm Hg, RR: 15, Pulse: 83: Cardiovascular: grade II systolic murmur which irradiated to the neck. The rest of the examination was unremarkable. Labs: Na: 138 meg/dl, K: 1.6 meg/dl, Cl: 84 meg/dl, BUN: 17 mg/dl, Creat.: 1.1 mg/dl, Gluc.: 148 mg/dl, Renin: &lt; 0.15 mcgr/ml, Aldosterone: 20.1 mcg%. Aldosterone-Renin ratio: 133. Chest X-Ray: cardiomegaly. EKG: RBBB, long QT segment and prominent broad \"u\" waves compatible with severe hypokalemia. A CT SCAN of the Abdomen/Pelvis showed a 3.2 cm right adrenal mass, most likely adenomatous. The patient was discharged with the diagnosis of primary aldosteronism. Due to the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, hypertension and the three episodes of ventricular fibrillation, surgical treatment was postponed until stress tests and eventual coronary angiographic studies were performed. We found in our review of the medical literature 9 reports of fibrillation associated with hyperaldosteronism. Of those, only two were associated with primary aldosteronism, one of them with a fatal outcome. This case is highly unusual and emphasizes the importance of an adequate diagnosis of secondary hypertension." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0610_5373", "title": "A probable case of gabapentin-related reversible hearing loss in a patient with acute renal failure.", "score": 0.012658227848101266, "content": "As described in the literature, gabapentin toxicity in patients with impaired renal function can manifest as coma, myoclonus, tremulousness, or altered mental status. Gabapentin is an antiepileptic agent indicated for use as an adjunct therapy in partial seizures and postherpetic neuralgia but is also prescribed for the treatment of diabetic peripheral neuropathy. A 46-year-old white woman (height, 167 cm; weight, 177 kg; body mass index, 62.8 kg/m2) with a 6-year history of diabetes mellitus and previously normal renal function, presented to the emergency department of Wake Forest University Baptist Medical Center with anuria (a serum creatinine level of 7.4 mg/dL), hearing loss, myoclonus, and confusion with hallucinations lasting for 3 days. Her blood pressure was 110/74 mm Hg. The patient's preadmit medication list included: lisinopril (40 mg QD), hydrochlorothiazide (25 mg QD), and furosemide (80 mg QD) for hypertension; atorvastatin (10 mg QD) for hyperlipidemia; omeprazole (20 mg QD) for gastroesophageal reflux disease; salmeterol/fluticasone inhaler (100/50 microg; 1 puff BID) and albuterol metered-dose inhaler (90 microg as needed) for asthma; metformin (500 mg BID) and insulin lispro per sliding scale for type 2 diabetes mellitus; oxycodone controlled release (60 mg TID) for chronic osteoarthritis and low back pain; alprazolam (0.5 mg every 8 hours as needed) for generalized anxiety disorder; venlafaxine (150 mg BID) for depression; and gabapentin (300 mg TID) for diabetic peripheral neuropathy. The patient's symptoms (hearing loss, myoclonus, and confusion) improved after 1 session of hemodialysis (approximately 10 hours following admission) and had resolved at the time of discharge (4 days later). On admission, the gabapentin concentration was 17.6 microg/mL, and following hemodialysis, the gabapentin concentration was undetectable (by discharge/day 4). The timing of the patient's last dose of gabapentin is unknown. Normal doses for the treatment of diabetic peripheral neuropathy range from 900 to 3600 mg/d divided 3 times daily. We report a patient with acute renal failure who developed hearing loss, myoclonus, and confusion with hallucinations in the presence of elevated gabapentin concentrations. Due to rapid improvement after hemodialysis and discontinuation of gabapentin, we believe that these symptoms were probably due to gabapentin toxicity." }, { "id": "Pharmacology_Katzung_1490", "title": "Pharmacology_Katzung", "score": 0.012117531378333045, "content": "Ramin Sam, MD, Harlan E. Ives, MD, PhD, & David Pearce, MD A 65-year-old man has a history of diabetes and chronic kidney disease with baseline creatinine of 2.2 mg/dL. Despite five different antihypertensive drugs, his clinic blood pres-sure is 176/92 mm Hg; he has mild dyspnea on exertion and 2–3+ edema on exam. He has been taking furosemide 80 mg twice a day for 1 year now. At the clinic visit, hydrochlorothi-azide 25 mg daily is added for better blood pressure control and also to treat symptoms and signs of fluid overload. Two weeks later, the patient presents to the emergency depart-ment with symptoms of weakness, anorexia, and generalized malaise. His blood pressure is now 91/58 mm Hg, and he has lost 15 kg in 2 weeks. His laboratory tests are signifi-cant for a serum creatinine of 10.8 mg/dL. What has led to the acute kidney injury? What is the reason for the weight loss? What precautions could have been taken to avoid this hospitalization?" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3631", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01199408363587468, "content": "Na+ 120 K+ 4.3 Cl− 89 HCO3− 23 BUN 8 Creat 1.0 Glu 93 Alb 3.1 Ca 8.9 Phos 2.8 Mg 2.0 Plasma osm 248 mOsm/kg Cortisol 25 μg/dL TSH 2.6 Uric acid 2.7 mg/dL Urine: Na+ 97 K+ 22 Cl− 86 Osm 597 The patient was treated with furosemide, 20 mg PO bid, and salt tablets. The plasma Na+ concentration increased to 129 meq/L with this therapy; however, the patient developed orthostatic hypotension and dizziness. He was started on demeclocycline, 600 mg PO in the morning and 300 mg in the evening, just before discharge from hospital. Plasma Na+ concentration increased to 140 meq/L with a BUN of 23 and creatinine of 1.4, at which point demeclocycline was reduced to 300 mg PO bid. Bronchoscopic biopsy eventually showed small-cell lung cancer; the patient declined chemotherapy and was admitted to hospice. What factors contributed to this patient’s hyponatremia? What are the therapeutic options?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en187_7636", "title": "Co-amilozide", "score": 0.0116999747027574, "content": "Co-amilozide (BAN) is a non-proprietary combination of amiloride and hydrochlorothiazide. Co-amilozide is used in the treatment of hypertension and congestive heart failure with the tendency of the thiazide to cause low potassium levels (hypokalaemia) offset by the potassium-sparing effects of amiloride. Formulation Two strengths of co-amilozide are currently available in the UK: 2.5 mg amiloride and 25 mg hydrochlorothiazide, BAN of Co-amilozide 2.5/25 (brand name Moduret 25) 5 mg amiloride and 50 mg hydrochlorothiazide, BAN of Co-amilozide 5/50 (brand name Moduretic) In North America: Moduretic (U.S., Canada) Moduretic 5-50 (U.S., Canada) Novamilor (Canada) Side effects The most common side effect is headache (about 8% of people taking it) and nausea, loss of appetite, weakness, rash and dizziness (each about 3%)." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3597", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011366938999580198, "content": "Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalances and Acid-Base Disturbances: Case Examples David B. Mount, Thomas D. DuBose, Jr. CASE 1 64e A 23-year-old woman was admitted with a 3-day history of fever, cough productive of blood-tinged sputum, confusion, and orthostasis. Past medical history included type 1 diabetes mellitus. A physical examination in the emergency department indicated postural hypo-tension, tachycardia, and Kussmaul respiration. The breath was noted to smell of “acetone.” Examination of the thorax suggested consolidation in the right lower lobe. Sodium 130 meq/L Potassium 5.0 meq/L Chloride 96 meq/L CO2 14 meq/L Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL Creatinine 1.3 mg/dL Glucose 450 mg/dL Pneumonic infiltrate, right lower lobe The diagnosis of the acid-base disorder should proceed in a stepwise fashion: 1. The normal anion gap (AG) is 8–10 meq/L, but in this case, the AG is elevated (20 meq/L). Therefore, the change in AG (ΔAG) = ~10 meq/L. 2." }, { "id": "article-40870_4", "title": "Case Study: 60-Year-Old Female Presenting With Shortness of Breath -- Case Presentation", "score": 0.011308861698183167, "content": "Her current medications include fluticasone-vilanterol 100-25 mcg inhaled daily, hydralazine 50 mg by mouth, 3 times per day, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg by mouth daily, albuterol-ipratropium inhaled every 4 hours PRN, levothyroxine 175 mcg by mouth daily, metformin 500 mg by mouth twice per day, nebivolol 5 mg by mouth daily, aspirin 81 mg by mouth daily, vitamin D3 1000 units by mouth daily, clopidogrel 75 mg by mouth daily, isosorbide mononitrate 60 mg by mouth daily, and rosuvastatin 40 mg by mouth daily." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_51132", "title": "Spironolactone", "score": 0.010558533758330917, "content": "It is recommended that alternatives to spironolactone be considered if serum creatinine is greater than 2.5 mg/dL (221 μmol/L) in males or greater than 2 mg/dL (176.8 μmol/L) in females, if glomerular filtration rate is below 30 mL/min or with a serum potassium of greater than 5.0 mEq/L given the potential for adverse events detailed elsewhere in this article. Doses should be adjusted according to the degree of kidney function as well." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0598_15912", "title": "Metformin-induced lactic acidosis in a type 2 diabetic patient with acute renal failure.", "score": 0.010163749294184076, "content": "Metformin is a biguanide commonly used in type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Lactic acidosis, a potentially life-threatening metabolic disorder, may be due to a number of different causes, including metformin therapy. We present a case of a severe metformin-induced lactic acidosis in a patient with type 2 DM, admitted to the emergency department with a history of dehydration due to diarrhoea and complicated by acute renal failure. Patient complained malaise and severe weakness and was tachypneic (Kussmaul's respiration), agitated and confused, with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13/15. Heart rate was 75 b/min and blood pressure 110/80 mmHg. The pH was 6.87, HCO3- 3 mmol/l, lactate 15 mmol/l, potassium 6.9 mEq/l. The renal function was markedly impaired with a creatinine of 9.75 mg/dl, and pancreatic enzymes, amylase and lipase, were also increased in absence of abdominal pain. Patient was treated with intravenous fluids, bicarbonate infusion and haemodialysis with bicarbonate buffered replacement fluid. Clinical conditions improved rapidly, with a progressive normalization of the acid-base balance and the other laboratory data. Authors discuss the pathophysiologic mechanisms of these alterations with particular regard to the role played by metformin as potential cause of lactic acidosis." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3630", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010109738183703448, "content": "A 78-year-old man was admitted with pneumonia and hyponatremia. Plasma Na+ concentration was initially 129 meq/L, decreasing within 3 days to 118–120 meq/L despite fluid restriction to 1 L/d. A chest computed tomography (CT) revealed a right 2.8 × 1.6 cm infrahilar mass and postobstructive pneumonia. The patient was an active smoker. Past medical history was notable for laryngeal carcinoma treated 15 years prior with radiation therapy, renal cell carcinoma, peripheral vascular disease, and hypothyroidism. On review of systems, he denied headache, nausea, and vomiting. He had chronic hip pain, managed with acetaminophen with codeine. Other medications included cilostazol, amoxicillin/clavulanate, digoxin, diltiazem, and thyroxine. He was euvolemic on examination, with no lymphadenopathy and a normal chest examination. Na+ 120 K+ 4.3 Cl− 89 HCO3− 23 BUN 8 Creat 1.0 Glu 93 Alb 3.1 Ca 8.9 Phos 2.8 Mg 2.0 Plasma osm 248 mOsm/kg Cortisol 25 μg/dL TSH 2.6 Uric acid 2.7 mg/dL" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en178_38961", "title": "Ranson criteria", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Acute pancreatitis not secondary to gallstones At admission: Blood glucose > 11.11 mmol/L (> 200 mg/dL) Age > 55 years Serum LDH > 350 IU/L Serum AST > 250 IU/L WBC count > 16000 cells/mm3 Within 48 hours: Serum calcium < 2.0 mmol/L (< 8.0 mg/dL) Hematocrit decreased by > 10% Oxygen (hypoxemia with PaO2 < 60 mmHg) BUN increased by 1.8 or more mmol/L (5 or more mg/dL) after IV fluid hydration Base deficit (negative base excess) > 4 mEq/L Sequestration of fluids > 6 L Acute pancreatitis secondary to gallstones At admission: Glucose > 220 mg/dl Age > 70 years LDH > 400 IU/L AST > 250 IU/ 100 ml WBC count > 18000 cells/mm3 Within 48 hours: Serum calcium < 8 mg/dL Hematocrit decreased by > 10% Base deficit > 4 mEq/L BUN increased by > 2 mg/dL Sequestered fluid > 6L" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_174484", "title": "Metabolic syndrome", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "EGIR The European Group for the Study of Insulin Resistance (1999) requires insulin resistance defined as the top 25% of the fasting insulin values among nondiabetic individuals AND two or more of the following: Central obesity: waist circumference ≥ 94 cm or 37 inches (male), ≥ 80 cm or 31.5 inches (female) Dyslipidemia: TG ≥ 2.0 mmol/L and/or HDL-C < 1.0 mmol/L or treated for dyslipidemia Blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg or antihypertensive medication Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 6.1 mmol/L NCEP The U.S. National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel III (2001) requires at least three of the following: Central obesity: waist circumference ≥ 102 cm or 40 inches (male), ≥ 88 cm or 35 inches(female) Dyslipidemia: TG ≥ 1.7 mmol/L (150 mg/dl) Dyslipidemia: HDL-C < 40 mg/dL (male), < 50 mg/dL (female) Blood pressure ≥ 130/85 mmHg (or treated for hypertension) Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 6.1 mmol/L (110 mg/dl)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0517_8077", "title": "[A case of lactic acidosis caused by buformin in an oldest elderly diabetic patient].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 93-year-old male was urgently admitted to our hospital with dyspnea and disturbance of consciousness. The patient had been visiting a general physician regularly for ten years, for treatment of type 2 diabetes. He had been treated with glibenclamide and voglibose, until voglibose was replaced with buformin 3 months before admission. During pre-admission treatment, his HbA1c was 10-12% and serum Cr level was around 2mg/dL, but insulin therapy had never been considered because of \"being too old\". The patient had started taking furosemide one year before admission, because of edema of the lower legs, and also spironolactone two months before admission. Anorexia had continued for one month before admission on May 29, 2003. On admission, his laboratory data were; blood glucose 87mg/dL, HbA1c 12.5%, BUN 75mg/dL, Cr 3.9mg/dL, lactate 253.1 mg/dL, and blood gas analysis; pH 6.97, anion gap 45.3mmol/L breathing room air, suggesting marked lactic acidosis with renal failure. Intensive care with bicarbonate and fluid therapy was successful, and his glycemic control improved markedly with insulin. On the other hand, his activity of daily living (ADL) severely deteriorated while in hospital Home follow-up was therefore not indicated, and he had to change a hospital for further follow-up. This case report gives rise to the question of how we should manage diabetes in the oldest elderly, including the use of insulin and biguanides. In addition, complications of biguanides in the elderly are reviewed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0525_23735", "title": "[A patient with severe hyperkalaemia -- an emergency after RALES].", "score": 0.00974025974025974, "content": "A 59-year-old man was referred to the hospital for psychiatric reasons. To control hypertension and chronic heart failure he had been treated with 5 mg ramipril and 12.5 mg hydrochlorothiazide. In addition, he received 25 mg spironolactone. A prostate disease was diagnosed two months ago. Laboratory analysis revealed a severe hyperkalemia (9.3 mmol/l) as well as an increase in creatinine (24.3 mg/dl) and urea nitrogen (349.0 mg/dl). The ECG showed a bradycardia with increased T-wave amplitudes. Abdominal sonography revealed a full urinary bladder. Administration of terbutaline, sodium bicarbonate, and glucoseinfusion lowered potassium level to 6.3 mmol/l before hemodialysis was started. Hyperplasia of the prostate gland was found to be the reason for acute renal failure. Dialysis treatment was only temporarily necessary; afterwards, the patient was transferred to the urology department for subsequent therapy. Hyperkalemia is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate therapy. Conservative treatment allows to partially correct water-electrolyte imbalance until hemodialysis can be performed. Hyperkalemia often results from the administration of combination therapy with ACE-inhibitors/AT (1)-antaganonists and antikaliuretic diuretics (spironolactone) in renal failure." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_174482", "title": "Metabolic syndrome", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "IDF The International Diabetes Federation consensus worldwide definition of metabolic syndrome (2006) is: Central obesity (defined as waist circumference# with ethnicity-specific values) AND any two of the following: Raised triglycerides: > 150 mg/dL (1.7 mmol/L), or specific treatment for this lipid abnormality Reduced HDL cholesterol: < 40 mg/dL (1.03 mmol/L) in males, < 50 mg/dL (1.29 mmol/L) in females, or specific treatment for this lipid abnormality Raised blood pressure (BP): systolic BP > 130 or diastolic BP >85 mm Hg, or treatment of previously diagnosed hypertension Raised fasting plasma glucose (FPG): >100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L), or previously diagnosed type 2 diabetes If FPG is >5.6 mmol/L or 100 mg/dL, an oral glucose tolerance test is strongly recommended, but is not necessary to define presence of the syndrome. # If BMI is >30 kg/m2, central obesity can be assumed and waist circumference does not need to be measured" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en026_46394", "title": "Tumor lysis syndrome", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Cairo-Bishop definition In 2004, Cairo and Bishop defined a classification system for tumor lysis syndrome. Laboratory tumor lysis syndrome: abnormality in two or more of the following, occurring within three days before or seven days after chemotherapy. uric acid > 8 mg/dL or 25% increase potassium > 6 meq/L or 25% increase phosphate > 4.5 mg/dL or 25% increase calcium < 7 mg/dL or 25% decrease Clinical tumor lysis syndrome: laboratory tumor lysis syndrome plus one or more of the following: increased serum creatinine (1.5 times upper limit of normal) cardiac arrhythmia or sudden death seizure A grading scale (0–5) is used depending on the presence of lab TLS, serum creatinine, arrhythmias, or seizures." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_162159", "title": "Hyperglycemia", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Scientific journals are moving towards using mmol/l; some journals now use mmol/l as the primary unit but quote mg/dl in parentheses. Glucose levels vary before and after meals, and at various times of day; the definition of \"normal\" varies among medical professionals. In general, the normal range for most people (fasting adults) is about 4 to 6 mmol/l or 80 to 110 mg/dl. (where 4 mmol/l or 80 mg/dl is \"optimal\".) A subject with a consistent range above 7 mmol/l or 126 mg/dl is generally held to have hyperglycemia, whereas a consistent range below 4 mmol/l or 70 mg/dl is considered hypoglycemic. In fasting adults, blood plasma glucose should not exceed 7 mmol/l or 126 mg/dL. Sustained higher levels of blood sugar cause damage to the blood vessels and to the organs they supply, leading to the complications of diabetes." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3546", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Diagnostic Approach The cause of hypokalemia is usually evident from history, physical examination, and/or basic laboratory tests. The history should focus on medications (e.g., laxatives, diuretics, antibiotics), diet and dietary habits (e.g., licorice), and/or symptoms that suggest a particular cause (e.g., periodic weakness, diarrhea). The physical examination should pay particular attention to blood pressure, volume status, and signs suggestive of specific hypokalemic disorders, e.g., hyperthyroidism and Cushing’s syndrome. Initial laboratory evaluation should include electrolytes, BUN, creatinine, serum osmolality, Mg2+, Ca2+, a complete blood count, and urinary pH, osmolality, creatinine, and electrolytes (Fig. 63-7). The presence of a non–anion gap acidosis suggests a distal, hypokalemic renal tubular acidosis or diarrhea; calculation of the urinary anion gap can help differentiate these two diagnoses. Renal K+ excretion can be assessed with a 24-h urine collection; a 24-h K+" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en416_22141", "title": "Diabetes", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Diagnosis Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed with a test for the glucose content in the blood, and is diagnosed by demonstrating any one of the following: Fasting plasma glucose level ≥ 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL). For this test, blood is taken after a period of fasting, i.e. in the morning before breakfast, after the patient had sufficient time to fast overnight. Plasma glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) two hours after a 75 gram oral glucose load as in a glucose tolerance test (OGTT) Symptoms of high blood sugar and plasma glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) either while fasting or not fasting Glycated hemoglobin (HbA1C) ≥ 48 mmol/mol (≥ 6.5 DCCT %)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0129_9669", "title": "[A trichlormethiazide-amiloride combination in essential hypertension].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Following a placebo period of 2 weeks 39 patients with essential hypertension were given during 4 weeks a combination of 2 mg trichlormethiazide and 2 mg amiloride (Esmalorid). If the blood pressure was adequately reduced treatment was continued for a further 4 weeks; if not, a double dose was dispensed during the second 4-week period. Patients with a diastolic blood pressure under 90 mm Hg after 8 weeks when treated with a 1 mg dose, were subsequently treated with a 1 mg dose for a period of 3 months. After 8 weeks of treatment mean systolic blood pressure was reduced from 167 +/- 17 mm Hg to 151 +/- 19 mm Hg (sitting) and from 163 +/- 15 mm Hg to 148 +/- 18 mm Hg (standing), while mean diastolic blood pressure was decreased from 104 +/- 6 mm Hg to 93 +/- 8 mm Hg (sitting) and from 105 +/- 6 mm Hg to 94 +/- 8 mm Hg (standing). In 29 patients diastolic blood pressure had dropped to values under 95 mm Hg. Serum potassium remained constant during the treatment except for three patients with values outside the normal range (3.3, 3.4 and 5.2 mmol/l). The other serum electrolytes, glucose, creatinine, blood lipids, transaminases, hemogram, as well as body weight and heart rate remained unchanged. Two patients complained of side effects and did not complete the study. All other patients tolerated the treatment well." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_35318", "title": "Magnesium deficiency", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Magnesium deficiency is an electrolyte disturbance in which there is a low level of magnesium in the body. It can result in multiple symptoms. Symptoms include tremor, poor coordination, muscle spasms, loss of appetite, personality changes, and nystagmus. Complications may include seizures or cardiac arrest such as from torsade de pointes. Those with low magnesium often have low potassium. Causes include low dietary intake, alcoholism, diarrhea, increased urinary loss, poor absorption from the intestines, and diabetes mellitus. A number of medications may also cause low magnesium, including proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) and furosemide. The diagnosis is typically based on finding low blood magnesium levels (hypomagnesemia). Normal magnesium levels are between 0.6 and 1.1 mmol/L (1.46–2.68 mg/dL) with levels less than 0.6 mmol/L (1.46 mg/dL) defining hypomagnesemia. Specific electrocardiogram (ECG) changes may be seen." }, { "id": "article-31506_12", "title": "Amiloride -- Adverse Effects", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Amiloride has an FDA-boxed warning for hyperkalemia, either alone or even when combined with hydrochlorothiazide. [19] Hyperkalemia might be fatal, especially in people with diabetes mellitus, elderly patients, and patients with renal impairment. Hyperkalemia tends to occur in patients not receiving a concomitant kaliuretic diuretic. When amiloride is used concomitantly with thiazides, the risk of hyperkalemia drops to 1 to 2%. Other Adverse Effects [20] Central nervous system: headache, fatigue, and dizziness Musculoskeletal system: muscle cramps and weakness Gastrointestinal system: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea/constipation, abdominal pain, and anorexia Endocrine and metabolic: glucose intolerance, hyperuricemia as a side effect of all potassium-sparing diuretics including amiloride, hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis, hyponatremia, and gynecomastia. Respiratory: dyspnea and cough Genitourinary: impotence" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en008_126419", "title": "Type 2 diabetes", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "fasting plasma glucose ≥ 7.0 mmol/l (126 mg/dl) or with a glucose tolerance test, two hours after the oral dose a plasma glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/l (200 mg/dl) A random blood sugar of greater than 11.1 mmol/l (200 mg/dl) in association with typical symptoms or a glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of ≥ 48 mmol/mol (≥ 6.5 DCCT %) is another method of diagnosing diabetes. In 2009 an International Expert Committee that included representatives of the American Diabetes Association (ADA), the International Diabetes Federation (IDF), and the European Association for the Study of Diabetes (EASD) recommended that a threshold of ≥ 48 mmol/mol (≥ 6.5 DCCT %) should be used to diagnose diabetes. This recommendation was adopted by the American Diabetes Association in 2010. Positive tests should be repeated unless the person presents with typical symptoms and blood sugars >11.1 mmol/l (>200 mg/dl)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0664_12583", "title": "Extreme hyperkalaemia caused by concomitant use of a NSAID and an ace inhibitor in an elderly patient.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Extreme hyperkalaemia is a life-threatening electrolyte disorder. It is relatively common in patients with severe renal insufficiency. This report describes a case of extreme hyperkalaemia caused by drugs in an 82-year-old female patient without severe renal insufficiency, who was successfully treated without haemodialysis. The patient had been treated for arterial hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus for 30 years. Over the last years she had been receiving enalapril and metformin. Three weeks before the admission to the hospital, she was receiving a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) because of the back pain. She was admitted to hospital due to a collapse and weakness in the limbs. Laboratory tests showed extreme hyperkalaemia, high blood sugar, metabolic acidosis, elevated serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and a slightly elevated serum sodium. On ECG, we noticed typical signs of hyperkalaemia.The patient was treated with a slow intravenous bolus of calcium gluconate and intravenous infusion of sodium chloride with insulin, glucose with insulin and sodium bicarbonte. After the treatment, all laboratory findings normalised together and the patient felt better. This case shows that physicians should be very careful when prescribing NSAIDs to elderly patients treated with drugs that affect renal function." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3617", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009224611980607166, "content": "A 63-year-old man was admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a severe aspiration pneumonia. Past medical history included schizophrenia, for which he required institutional care; treatment had included neuroleptics and intermittent lithium, the latter restarted 6 months before admission. The patient was treated with antibiotics and intubated for several days, with the development of polyuria (3–5 L/d), hypernatremia, and acute renal insufficiency; the peak plasma Na+ concentration was 156 meq/L, and peak creatinine was 2.6 mg/dL. Urine osmolality was measured once and reported as 157 mOsm/kg, with a coincident plasma osmolality of 318 mOsm/kg. Lithium was stopped on admission to the ICU. On physical examination, the patient was alert, extubated, and thirsty. Weight was 97.5 kg. Urine output for the previous 24 h had been 3.4 L, with an IV intake of 2 L/d of D5W." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_19588", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009184248790765305, "content": "Diuretics Thiazides Hydrochlorothiazide 6.25–50 mg (1–2) Diabetes, dyslipidemia, hyperuricemia, gout, hypokalemia Chlorthalidone 25–50 mg (1) Loop diuretics Furosemide 40–80 mg (2–3) CHF due to systolic dysfunc-Diabetes, dyslipidemia, hypertion, renal failure uricemia, gout, hypokalemia Aldosterone antagonists Spironolactone 25–100 mg (1–2) CHF due to systolic dysfunc-Renal failure, hyperkalemia tion, primary aldosteronism Renal failure, hyperkalemia Triamterene 50–100 mg (1–2) Beta blockers Asthma, COPD, 2ndor 3rd-degree heart block, sick- Cardioselective Atenolol 25–100 mg (1) Angina, CHF due to systolic sinus syndrome dysfunction, post-MI, sinus tachycardia, ventricular tachyarrhythmias Metoprolol 25–100 mg (1–2) Nonselective Propranolol 40–160 mg (2) Propranolol LA 60–180 (1) Combined alpha/beta Labetalol 200–800 mg (2) ?Post-MI, CHF Carvedilol 12.5–50 mg (2) Alpha antagonists" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_162144", "title": "Hyperglycemia", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Hyperglycemia is a condition in which an excessive amount of glucose circulates in the blood plasma. This is generally a blood sugar level higher than 11.1 mmol/l (200 mg/dL), but symptoms may not start to become noticeable until even higher values such as 13.9–16.7 mmol/l (~250–300 mg/dL). A subject with a consistent range between ~5.6 and ~7 mmol/l (100–126 mg/dL) (American Diabetes Association guidelines) is considered slightly hyperglycemic, and above 7 mmol/l (126 mg/dL) is generally held to have diabetes. For diabetics, glucose levels that are considered to be too hyperglycemic can vary from person to person, mainly due to the person's renal threshold of glucose and overall glucose tolerance. On average, however, chronic levels above 10–12 mmol/L (180–216 mg/dL) can produce noticeable organ damage over time." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en187_7637", "title": "Co-amilozide", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Side effects The most common side effect is headache (about 8% of people taking it) and nausea, loss of appetite, weakness, rash and dizziness (each about 3%). Common side effects (1/10 - 1/100) include: General: weakness, fatigue, loss of appetite, headache, dizziness. Circulatory system: arrhythmia. Gastrointestinal: nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain. Skin: exanthema, itching. Respiratory system: shortness of breath, cough. Metabolic: elevated blood sugar in diabetic patients, elevated uric acid levels in the blood. Musculoskeletal: pain in the limbs. References Potassium-sparing diuretics Thiazides Combination drugs" } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Increase oxygen flow.", "2": "Administer 80 mg of methylprednisolone iv.", "3": "Nebulize ipratropium bromide together with salbutamol every 20 minutes.", "4": "Administer intravenous magnesium.", "5": " Start noninvasive mechanical ventilation." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0520_10839", "title": "A randomized clinical trial of magnesium sulphate as a vehicle for nebulized salbutamol in the treatment of moderate to severe asthma attacks.", "score": 0.018524871355060035, "content": "Although it is well known that intravenous administration of MgSO4 as an adjunct to conventional therapy is effective in treating asthma attacks, the effect of nebulized MgSO4 as a vehicle for salbutamol has been less evaluated. The aim of this study was to compare the effects of nebulized salbutamol administrated through either MgSO4 or isotonic saline solution on the 'peak expiratory flow rate' (PEFR), other respiratory and clinical parameters, and hospitalization rate of patients suffering from moderate to severe asthma attacks. Twenty-six patients with asthma attack were enrolled in the study in a randomized single blind fashion. After obtaining initial peak expiratory flow measurements (PEFR) and clinical evaluation, all patients received 1mg/kg corticosteroids and oxygen therapy and then either isotonic MgSO4 (2.5 ml, 6.3%)+salbutamol (2.5 ml) or saline (2.5 ml)+salbutamol (2.5 ml) through a jet nebulizer (group 1 (n=14) vs group 2 (n=12), respectively). The nebulizations were repeated every 20 min for the first hour and every hour for the rest of 4 h. The PEFR measurements and clinical assessment were performed after nebulization at 20th, 60th, 120th, 180th and 240th minutes. Patients were discharged when PEFR reached the target level of 70% of predicted. The baseline PEFRs and clinical parameters were similar between groups 1 and 2 (50.2+/-18.5 vs 44.1+/-13.9, respectively, p&gt;0.05). The mean% increase in PEFR at different measurement levels was similar between the groups. When the treatment response was evaluated within the groups, group 2 showed statistically significant increase in PEFR (% of predicted) 1h earlier than group 1 (60th vs 120th minute, p=0.003 vs p=0.007). The mean duration of achieving target-PEFRs was 105.7+/-72.1 min for group 1 and 118.3+/-96.7 min for group 2 (p&gt;0.05). This study suggested that the additional usage of MgSO4 to nebulized salbutamol has no beneficial effect on the treatment of asthma attacks." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0793_3428", "title": "Magnesium for acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: A systematic review of randomised trials.", "score": 0.01819535191464726, "content": "The efficacy of magnesium sulphate in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was assessed by conducting a systematic review of published randomized clinical trials through extensive searches in MEDLINE and SCOPUS with no date limits, as well as manual review of journals. Outcome measures varied depending on route(s) of administration of magnesium sulphate and medications co-administered. Risk of bias was evaluated and quality of evidence was graded. Four (4) randomized trials were included. All trials had a moderate risk of bias and were of average methodological quality. Magnesium sulphate given intravenously did not seem to have an immediate bronchodilatory effect; however it appears to potentiate the bronchodilatory effect of inhaled beta-2 agonists. Increase in peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) at 30 and 45 min was greater in those who received magnesium sulphate compared to placebo (P = 0.03), although the mean percentage change in PEFR was just 24%, without significant differences in dyspnoea scores, hospital admission rates, or emergency department readmission rates compared to placebo. Nebulized magnesium sulphate with salbutamol versus nebulized salbutamol with saline placebo showed no significant differences is forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1) measured at 90 min after adjustment for baseline FEV1 (P = 0.34) or differences in the need for hospital admission. Combined inhalational and intravenous magnesium sulphate versus intravenous saline placebo and nebulized ipratropium bromide were comparable in terms of hospital admission, intubation and death, but the ipratropium bromide group showed better bronchodilator effect and improvement in arterial blood gas parameters. Overall, trial evidence for trial evidence for magnesium sulphate in acute exacerbation of COPD is poor, and further well-designed trials are needed. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0720_13165", "title": "Magnesium sulfate versus ipratropium bromide in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation: a randomized trial.", "score": 0.017704661182922053, "content": "Treatment with short-acting β2-agonists for exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) results in clinical improvement. It has not been established whether combining short-acting β2-agonists to other bronchodilators is more effective than β2-agonists alone. We conducted a study in patients presenting to the emergency department with exacerbation of COPD. They were randomized to receive nebulized ipratropium bromide (IB group; n = 62) or combined nebulized and intravenous bolus of magnesium sulfate (MgSO4 group; n = 62). All nebulized drugs were administered at 30-minute intervals for 2 hours. Primary outcome included hospital admission, endotracheal intubation, and hospital death rates. Secondary outcome measures were improvement in peak expiratory flow, dyspnea score, and arterial blood gas changes within the first 3 hours. There were no significant differences in primary outcome between MgSO4 and IB groups. Patients given IB average 32 L greater improvement in peak expiratory flow rate compared with magnesium sulfate (95% confidence interval, 19-43 L) at 180 minutes. Simultaneously, there was a significant reduction in PaCO2 compared with baseline values in IB group but not in MgSO4 group. There was a statistically nonsignificant trend toward a decrease in dyspnea score in both groups although adverse events were similar. Although the improvement in peak expiratory flow rate and arterial blood gas favored nebulized IB over magnesium sulfate, there was a nonsignificant difference between both drugs with regard to hospital admission, intubation, and hospital death rates in patients with COPD treated in the emergency department for acute exacerbation. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0343_15446", "title": "[Round Table: Severe asthma in pediatrics: treatment of acute crises].", "score": 0.017679900744416874, "content": "Morbidity and mortality derived from asthma continue to be a main public health problem in many countries, in spite of the advances in the knowledge on the disease and its treatment. There are several risk factors for asthma attack which have to be considered in the management of patients in order to prevent exacerbations and mortality. Smooth bronchial muscle constriction and inflammation with oedema of the bronchial wall are the facts that cause airway flow and resistance disturbances, with hyperinflation, leading to a bigger respiratory work. On the other hand, the bronchial obstruction leads to a ventilation-perfusion disequilibrium and hypoxia. At the beginning of the process there is hypocarbia, but when the attack progresses muscle fatigue happens, and retention of CO2, being a sing of alarm (predictive of respiratory failure) a normal and rising PaCO2. The evaluation of an acute asthmatic patient should accomplish a clinical and objective assessment (peak flow rate and saturation of O2), in order to classify the crisis in: mild, moderate or severe. Managing acute asthmatic patient includes: oxygen, bronchodilator ss2 agonists at high and even continuous doses and systemic corticosteroids to prevent the progression and to control inflammation. These procedures should be promptly instituted. Although there is less evidence on their beneficial effects other measures as intravenous aminophylline, nebulized anticholynergics, magnesium sulphate and intravenous ss2 agonists may be used when the conventional therapy is not quickly successful and the patient is in a critical situation, at a real risk of respiratory failure, and in order to avoid mechanical ventilation. If this is finally instituted, controlled hypoventilation with permissive hypercarbia is now recommended, to avoid barotrauma, which used to be a frequent complication when more aggressive attitude was the rule. Interaction between paralytic agents and corticosteroids may produce a miopathy, so the recommendation now is to try not to use paralytic agents, even with profound sedation of needed. Sixty four patients were treated on 77 occasions in the Pediatric Intensive Care Unit of our hospital. They were 0,5 to 13,9 years old, being 50% less than 5 years old. It was the first attack in 9 (14%) patients. The standard management consisted of oxygen, frequently or continuously nebulized salbutamol and intravenous methylprednisolone (1 to 6 mg/kg/day). Furthermore nebulized ipratropium bromide was administered 58 times (75%), as well as intravenous aminophylline 69 (89%), intravenous salbutamol 23 (30%), magnesium sulphate 16 (21%) and ketamine 10 (13%). Antibiotics were given 22 times (29%). Two 15 month old infants received mechanical ventilation in three occasions, and relevant complications happened (pneumothorax and myopathy, and pneumomediastinum and bronchiolitis obliterans respectively). Fifty six patients have been followed for a period of 3 to 110 months (median 48 months), and 16 (29%) have needed high doses (equal to or move than 800 mcg of budesonide or equivalent). There are data on lung function in 36 of them, FEV1 is normal (&gt; 85% of predicted, between 86 and 127) in 26 (78%) and &lt; 85% (65 to 84%) of predicted in 8 (22%) FEV1 rises more than 15% (16 to 23%) in four patients after the inhalation of a ss2 agonist. Inhaled anesthetic agents and heliox have been used in some pediatric cases. After a severe asthma attack the strategy of management should be reviewed, as well as the possible risk factors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0551_2360", "title": "[Effect of intravenous magnesium sulfate on chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbations requiring hospitalization: a randomized placebo-controlled trial].", "score": 0.01761642156862745, "content": "Magnesium sulfate has been shown to have a bronchodilating effect in asthma, but this effect has not been clearly established in the context of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). For this reason we investigated the possible bronchodilating effect of magnesium sulfate in COPD exacerbations. We studied 24 patients with exacerbated COPD who required admission to our hospital's pneumology department. All patients underwent baseline spirometry and were subsequently randomized to groups in a double-blind crossover design. Patients received 1.5 g of magnesium sulfate or placebo in an intravenous solution for 20 minutes. Those who received magnesium sulfate the first day were given placebo the second day, and vice versa. Spirometry was performed 15, 30, and 45 minutes after administration of magnesium sulfate or placebo. Finally, 400 microg of salbutamol were administered using a spacer and a final spirometry was performed 15 minutes later. All patients also received treatment with corticosteroids, intravenous antibiotics, oxygen, and regularly-scheduled bronchodilator therapy (salbutamol and ipratropium bromide every 6 hours). When we compared absolute increase in milliliters and percentage increase in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) obtained with magnesium sulfate application to the increases obtained with placebo after 15, 30, and 45 minutes, no significant differences were found. When we compared absolute and percentage increases in FEV1 after administering salbutamol, we found significantly greater increases after magnesium sulfate administration. The mean (SD) absolute increase in FEV1 was 0.18 [corrected] (0.42) L after magnesium sulfate administration and 0.081 [0.01] L after placebo (P=.004). The percentage increase in FEV1 was 17.11% (3.7%) after magnesium sulfate and 7.06% (1.8%) after placebo (P=.008). Intravenous administration of magnesium sulfate has no bronchodilating effect in patients with COPD exacerbations. It does, however, enhance the bronchodilating effect of inhaled ss2-agonists." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0393_4609", "title": "Randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial of intravenous salbutamol and nebulized ipratropium bromide in early management of severe acute asthma in children presenting to an emergency department.", "score": 0.017534577885269444, "content": "In acute severe asthma, treatment must be initiated early to reverse the pathophysiology that may render airways less responsive to bronchodilation. The addition of nebulized ipratropium bromide to initial emergency department therapy improves pulmonary function, but it is unclear whether this approach results in earlier hospital discharge. The early use of bolus intravenous salbutamol has also been shown to improve outcome, including earlier discharge. We therefore assessed the relative benefits of intravenous salbutamol and nebulized ipratropium bromide in the early management of acute severe asthma in children by a double-blind, randomized, controlled trial. This study was undertaken at a tertiary children's hospital, The Children's Hospital at Westmead, The Royal Alexandra Hospital for Children, Westmead, Sydney, Australia. Only children with severe acute asthma as determined by the National Asthma Campaign guidelines criteria and pulmonary index were included. All children received initial nebulized salbutamol therapy (2.5-5 mg salbutamol in 4 mL of normal saline depending on age) at initial emergency department presentation. If asthma remained severe 20 mins later, an intravenous cannula was inserted and intravenous methylprednisolone (1 mg/kg) was administered to all children receiving nebulized salbutamol every 20 mins. Children were then randomized to one of three groups: intravenous salbutamol (15 microg/kg as a single bolus over 10 mins), ipratropium bromide (250 microg), or intravenous salbutamol plus ipratropium bromide. All observers were blinded to treatment groups. Children were randomly assigned to receive a single-dose intravenous bolus of either saline or salbutamol and either nebulized saline or ipratropium bromide determined by a number generated randomly in the hospital pharmacy. The primary outcomes were recovery time and discharge time of each group. Respiratory and hemodynamic monitoring were continuous during the first 2 hrs of the study and then children were monitored clinically for 24 hrs. A total of 55 children with acute severe asthma were entered into the study over an 18-month period. The three groups were similar demographically, with a mean age of 5.9 yrs, and mean duration of attack of 19.6 hrs. No side effects or treatment intolerance were reported. Children in the groups that received intravenous salbutamol had a significant reduction in recovery time to achieving second hourly inhaled salbutamol (p =.008) compared with those administered inhaled bronchodilator alone. The addition of ipratropium bromide to intravenous salbutamol provided no significant further benefit in terms of nebulizer therapy (intravenous salbutamol compared with intravenous salbutamol plus ipratropium bromide). Children administered intravenous salbutamol ceased supplemental oxygen therapy earlier than those administered ipratropium alone at 12 hrs post-randomization (p =.0003). Children administered intravenous salbutamol could be discharged from the hospital 28 hrs earlier than those administered ipratropium bromide (p =.013). Children administered intravenous salbutamol for severe acute asthma showed a more rapid recovery time, which resulted in earlier discharge from the hospital than those administered inhaled ipratropium bromide. There was no additional benefit obtained by combining ipratropium bromide and intravenous salbutamol administration." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0363_21002", "title": "Continuous versus intermittent nebulization of salbutamol in acute severe asthma: a randomized, controlled trial.", "score": 0.0172876304023845, "content": "This study was conducted to compare the clinical and spirometric effects of continuous and intermittent nebulization of salbutamol in acute severe asthma. Forty-two consecutive patients presenting to the emergency department for acute severe asthma (peak expiratory flow [PEF] mean+/-SD, 24%+/-12% predicted) were prospectively randomly assigned to receive 27.5 mg of salbutamol by either continuous or intermittent nebulization over a 6-hour period. The continuous nebulization group received 15 mg of salbutamol during the first hour and 12.5 mg over the next 5 hours. The intermittent nebulization group received 5 mg of salbutamol every 20 minutes during the first hour and 2.5 mg hourly over the next 5 hours. All participants received oxygen and intravenous hydrocortisone. Clinical and spirometric assessment was performed at baseline, 40 minutes, 60 minutes, and at 3 and 6 hours after the start of the nebulization. Secondary endpoints were the respective rates of hospitalization and treatment failure. A significant clinical and spirometric improvement was observed in both groups over baseline as soon as the 40th minute and was sustained thereafter (absolute PEF increase at the sixth hour 30%+/-18% and 32%+/-22% in the continuous and intermittent nebulization groups, respectively; P &lt;.01 over baseline). PEF and the clinical score evolved similarly in both groups. There was no difference between the groups regarding the failure rate of the initial bronchodilator treatment to terminate the asthma attack (3 [14%] in the continuous nebulization group and 2 [9.5%] in the intermittent nebulization group, absolute difference 4.5% [95% confidence interval -14% to 23%]). Eight (38%) patients and 9 (43%) patients from the continuous and intermittent nebulization groups, respectively, required hospitalization according to predefined criteria (absolute difference 4.8% [95% confidence interval -24% to 34%]). We did not observe an appreciable difference between continuous and intermittent nebulization of salbutamol in acute severe asthma. The decision to use one of these nebulization methods should be based on logistical considerations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0323_2467", "title": "Nebulized magnesium sulphate versus nebulized salbutamol in acute bronchial asthma: a clinical trial.", "score": 0.01726660813579163, "content": "Intravenous magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) has successfully been used in the treatment of acute asthma. The present study investigated the efficacy of nebulized MgSO4 as a bronchodilator in acute asthma as compared to nebulized salbutamol. This was a randomized, double-blind, controlled clinical trial. Asthmatics aged 12-60 yrs in acute exacerbation, with a peak expiratory flow (PEF) &lt;300 L x min(-1), not having taken bronchodilators and not requiring assisted ventilation were included. Patients were randomized to receive treatment with serial nebulizations of either 3 mL (3.2% solution, 95 mg) MgSO4 solution or 3 mL (2.5 mg) salbutamol solution. All patients were also given 100 mg hydrocortisone i.v., and were monitored continuously for 2 h after which they were given supplemental treatment (if and when needed) and either discharged or admitted. Fischl index, PEF improvements (in % predicted) and admission rates were the outcome variables. Thirty-three patients were studied. Fischl score improvement was comparable and significant in both groups (4.31 to 0.43 in the MgSO4 group and 4.29 to 0.76 in the salbutamol group). The increase in PEF was statistically significant and comparable in both groups (by 35% pred in the MgSO4 and by 42% pred in the salbutamol group). Two patients warranted admission in the salbutamol group and one in the MgSO4 group. Nebulized MgSO4 had a significant bronchodilatory effect in acute asthma. This effect was not significantly different from that of nebulized salbutamol." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0071_9896", "title": "Bronchodilators in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease on mechanical ventilation. Utilization of metered-dose inhalers.", "score": 0.01632680261228842, "content": "Bronchodilators are used widely in the acute exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), although their effectiveness is not clearly established. We used three bronchodilators in 20 patients with COPD who were being mechanically ventilated. Two of the bronchodilators, ipratropium bromide and salbutamol, were administered from metered-dose inhalers (MDI) through an adapter to the endotracheal tube, and the third, aminophylline, was administered in the form of intravenous infusion. Before administering each drug, peak airway pressure, end-inspiratory pressure, resistive pressure, and auto positive end-expiratory pressure (auto-PEEP) were measured, and inspiratory resistance (Rins) and compliance were calculated. Heart rate (HR) and blood pressure were also recorded, and arterial pH and blood gas determinations were made. These measurements were repeated 60 min after the administration of aminophylline, 15 and 60 min after administering salbutamol, and 30 and 60 min after administering ipratropium bromide. With these three drugs, airway pressures were reduced, as well as auto-PEEP and Rins, with respect to basal values (p less than 0.05). The changes in compliance were only significant with salbutamol (p less than 0.05). HR was only significantly modified with aminophylline (p less than 0.05). No blood gas change was observed with any of the three drugs. It can be concluded that: (1) the three drugs used in this study were equally effective in producing significant bronchodilation in patients on mechanical ventilation for severe acute exacerbation of COPD; (2) the administration of bronchodilators by MDI in intubated patients through a special adapter was as effective as the intravenous administration of aminophylline." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0367_12065", "title": "[Efficacy of early administration of nebulized ipratropium bromide in children with asthmatic crisis].", "score": 0.015685328185328185, "content": "To determine the efficacy of adding ipratropium bromide to nebulized salbutamol in the treatment of children with moderate-to-severe acute asthma attacks. A total of 102 patients aged between 5 months and 16 years were included in a double-blind randomized trial. All patients were given nebulized salbutamol (0.2 mg/kg) and oral steroids (1 mg/kg). Patients in group A received two doses of nebulized ipratropium bromide (250 mg per dose) and patients in group B were given placebo. Oxygen saturation (SaO2) and a clinical score (heart rate, respiratory rate, dyspnea, retraction of the intercostal spaces, and wheezing) rated from 0 to 5 were measured before treatment and at 120 min. Patients in both groups showed similar SaO2 values and clinical scores at baseline (group A, 93.05% and 4.45; group B, 92.78% and 4.43) and at 120 min (group A, 94.33% and 2.45; group B, 94.03% and 2.74), but the percentage of patients admitted to the hospital was higher in group B than in group A (53% vs 35%, p = 0.07). In the subset of patients with the most severe attacks (baseline score 5), the clinical score after treatment and the percentage of admissions were significantly higher in group B (n = 22) than in group A (n = 23) (3.32 vs 2.69 and 73% vs 39%, p &lt; 0.05). Coadministration of ipratropium bromide and repeat doses of nebulized salbutamol produced a small beneficial clinical effect compared with administration of nebulized salbutamol alone. This beneficial effect was related to a decrease in the hospitalization rate, particularly in patients with severe asthma attacks." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0976_16756", "title": "Salbutamol and ipratropium by inhaler is superior to nebulizer in children with severe acute asthma exacerbation: Randomized clinical trial.", "score": 0.015509259259259259, "content": "In moderate-severe asthma exacerbation, salbutamol by inhaler (MDI) is superior to salbutamol delivered by nebulizer (NEB); however, to our knowledge, no studies in children with exclusively severe exacerbations were performed. To compare the efficacy of salbutamol and ipratropium bromide by MDI versus by NEB in severe asthma exacerbations. We performed a clinical trial enrolling 103 children (2-14 years of age) with severe asthma exacerbations (defined by the Pulmonary Score ≥ 7) seen at the emergency room in Asuncion, Paraguay. One group received salbutamol and ipratropium (two puff every 10 min for 2 h and then every 30 min for 2 h more) by MDI with a valved-holding chamber and mask along with oxygen by a cannula separately (MDI-SIB); and the other received nebulization with oxygen (NEB-SIB) of salbutamol and ipratropium (1 every 20 min for 2 h and then every 30 min for 2 h more). Primary outcome was the rate of hospitalization (Pulmonary Score ≥ 7) after 4 h and secondary outcome was oxygen saturation. Fifty two children received MDI-SIB and 51 NEB-SIB. After the 4th hour, children on MDI-SIB had significantly (P = 0.003) lower rate of hospital admission than on NEB-SIB (5.8% vs 27.5%, RR: 0.21 [0.06-0.69], respectively). Similarly, a significant improved clinical score after 60 min and increase in oxygen saturation after 90 min of treatment was observed in MDI-SIB versus NEB-SIB group (4.46 ± 0.7 vs 5.76 ± 0.65, P &lt; 0.00001; and 90.5 ± 1.7 vs 88.43 1 ± 1, P &lt; 0.00001, respectively). Even in severe asthma exacerbations administration of salbutamol and ipratropium by MDI with valved-holding chamber and mask along with oxygen by a cannula separately was more effective than by a nebulizer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0479_10105", "title": "[Randomized clinical trial of intravenous magnesium sulfate versus salbutamol in early management of severe acute asthma in children]", "score": 0.015438596491228071, "content": "OBJECTIVE: To study the efficacy of intravenous magnesium sulfate and intravenous salbutamol in the treatment of severe asthma in children. METHODS: Randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trial, including children above 2 years of age with severe acute asthma admitted to the observation ward of the Pediatric Intensive Care Unit of Hospital São Lucas. All patients received conventional treatment (oxygen, corticoids, beta-adrenergics) on admission, and later received one of the following solutions: a) IVMg (50 mg/kg); b) intravenous salbutamol (1 micro g/kg); c) saline solution. Clinical assessments, electrolyte concentration, and arterial blood gas analyses were recorded before intravenous infusion and one hour after that. RESULTS: Fifty patients participated in this study (of whom 53% were females, mean age = 4.5 years). There were no significant differences among the three groups. The group that received IVMg presented lower blood pressure during administration, which reached normal levels one hour afterwards, along with an increase in serum magnesium (P&lt;0,001) and serum pH, and reduction of PaCO(2). The group that received intravenous salbutamol had lower respiratory rate (P=0.05) and higher blood pressure (P=0.01), and one hour after administration, these patients showed decreased respiratory rate (P=0.02); lower levels of serum potassium (P=0.009); higher pH, and reduced PaCO(2). This group required fewer nebulizations (P=0.009), fewer nebulizations per day (P&lt;0.001) and less oxygen therapy than the IVMg and placebo groups. Acidosis was more persistent (P&lt;0.01) in the placebo group. No difference as to the length of hospital stay was observed in any of the three groups. Artificial ventilation was necessary in 10% of the patients. CONCLUSIONS: The early intravenous administration of magnesium sulfate, especially salbutamol, achieved a rapid clinical response with excellent prognosis and no significant side effects." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0084_14912", "title": "[Effects of ipratropium bromide (IPB) and its combination with salbutamol sulfate (SAS) in acute asthmatic attack].", "score": 0.015419020715630885, "content": "34 patients with acute asthmatic attack were studied in double-blind, randomized and crossover manner. Each of them was treated with following two protocols during two sequential days: 0.5 mg of ipratropium bromide (IPB), followed by 5 mg of salbutamol sulfate (SAS) 75 minutes later; or 5 mg of SAS, followed by another dose 35 minutes late. The drugs were delivered via a jet nebulizer. The effects and side-effects of the treatment were evaluated immediately before the first inhalation and at peak of bronchodilatation (60-75 minutes after IPB or 20-35 minutes after SAS). Compared with inhaled SAS, IPB produced considerable improvement in central airway parameters such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) peak expiratory flow (PEF) and respiratory resistance (Rrs) (P greater than 0.05), but less improvement in peripheral airway parameters such as forced vital capacity (FVC) and maximal mid-expiratory flow (MMEF) (P less than 0.01). The sequential inhaled SAS after IPB improved all five parameters (P less than 0.01), but the repeated dose of SAS increased only MMEF (P less than 0.01). Compared with double-dose SAS, the sequential treatment with IPB and SAS 1 ed to considerable improvement in FVC and MMEF (P greater than 0.05), but greater improvement in FEV1, PEF and Rrs (P less than 0.01). Heart (rate and tremor scores after two doses of SAS increased significantly (P less than 0.01). It is concluded that IPB alone is less effective than beta-adrenoceptor agonist, but its combination with SAS would be an effective and safe treatment in acute asthmatic attack." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0350_21593", "title": "Inhaled budesonide in acute asthma.", "score": 0.014687032685323648, "content": "To evaluate the efficacy of aerosolized budesonide therapy (with metered dose inhaler and spacer) early in the emergency room treatment of acute moderate exacerbations of bronchial asthma in children. Randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial. Paediatric Emergency Service of an urban teaching hospital and a tertiary case referral centre. Sixty children between 3 and 12 years of age with an acute moderate exacerbation of asthma. All patients received humidified oxygen (5-8 L/min by Venturi(R) mask; Hudson Respiratory Care, Temecula, CA, USA), nebulized salbutamol (0.15 mg/kg in 3 mL saline) and were randomized to receive either budesonide (400 microg) or placebo inhalation (MDI and spacer) at half hourly intervals for three doses. If there was an inadequate response or no response to treatment at the end of 2 h, oxygen and salbutamol therapy were continued and the patient was given one of dose intravenous hydrocortisone and was started on an aminophylline infusion. If there was no response at the end of a further 4 h, the patient was hospitalized. INITIAL EVALUATION AND MONITORING: Colour, respiratory rate (RR), heart rate, accessory muscle usage, chest retraction, wheeze, oxygen saturation (by pulse oximetery) and peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) was recorded at admission and thereafter at hourly intervals for 3 h or until till the child recovered. The need for oxygen therapy after 2 h and need for hospitalization were recorded. Both groups showed a significant improvement in respiratory status at the end of 2 h. However, children in the intervention group showed greater improvements in RR and PEFR (P &lt; 0. 05) and respiratory distress score (P &lt; 0.1). A significantly lower proportion of the intervention group patients required oxygen therapy for more than 2 h (23% vs 50%; P &lt; 0.05) and aminophylline infusion and systemic corticosteroid therapy (7% vs 27%; P &lt; 0.05). None of the children in the budesonide group, in contrast to 23% of those in the placebo group, required hospitalization (P &lt; 0.05). The length of hospital stay (i.e. time taken to recover from acute asthma) was significantly shorter in the intervention group (3.2 +/- 2.5 h) than in the placebo group (7.8 +/- 11.3 h; P &lt; 0.01). Aerosolized budesonide therapy (with MDI and spacer) together with nebulized salbutamol early in the emergency room treatment of acute moderate exacerbations of asthma helped in early recovery and decreased the need for hospitalization. It may be worthwhile calculating this regimen for home-based early treatment of acute exacerbations." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0731_5067", "title": "[The efficacy of nebulized budesonide in acute moderate to severe exacerbations of asthma in children].", "score": 0.014521905509493206, "content": "To evaluate the effect of nebulized budesonide (BUD) in acute moderate to severe exacerbations of asthma in children. Forty children, 5 to 15 years of age, with acute moderate to severe attacks of asthma, were randomized into BUD group and control group, receiving nebulized 0.5% salbutamol (150 µg/kg) + 0.025% ipratropium bromide (1 ml) + 0.05% budesonide (2 ml) or nebulized 0.5% salbutamol (150 µg/kg) + 0.025% ipratropium bromide (1 ml) + saline (2 ml) at half-hourly intervals for 3 doses respectively. Lung function, respiratory rate (RR), heart rate(HR), oxygen saturation (SaO2) and clinical score (CS) were monitored. The baseline characteristics of the 2 groups were similar. After 3 doses of nebulization, CS, RR, SaO2, FEV(1) and FEV(1)% were significantly improved in both groups (P &lt; 0.05). The CS in BUD group was significantly lower than that in control group at the end of 2 h after the third dose of nebulization 0 (0) vs 0 (1), Z = 2.522, P = 0.012. There were no significant differences in RR, HR and SaO2 between 2 groups (P &gt; 0.05). The improvement of FEV(1)% in the first hour and the second hour after 3 doses of nebulization was 8.0 (6.8)% and 5.5 (6.5)% in BUD group, and 6.0 (8.5)% and 1.0 (6.5)% in control group, the improvement in BUD group being significantly greater than that in control group (Z = 2.270 and 2.686, P = 0.023 and 0.007 respectively). The improvement of FEV(1) in the second hour after 3 doses of nebulization was significantly greater in BUD group than in control group 0.07 (0.12) L vs 0.01 (0.10) L, Z = 2.455, P = 0.014. The full recovery rate in BUD group at the end of 2 h after completion of nebulization was significantly higher than that in control group (17/20, 85.0% vs 9/18, 50.0%, χ(2) = 5.371, P = 0.024). The proportion of patients who needed to use oral corticosteroids was significantly lower in BUD group than in control group (3/20, 15.0% vs 8/18, 44.4%, χ(2) = 3.993, P = 0.046). The hospitalization rate was 5% (1/20) in BUD group, and 17% (3/18) in control group, but the difference was not statistically significant (P &gt; 0.05). Nebulized BUD in high dose and at short intervals combined with rapid-acting bronchodilators has an additional bronchodilator response, associated with more rapid and better improvement in clinical symptoms and lung function, indicating that it is preferred in the early management of acute moderate to severe exacerbation of asthma in children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0759_17532", "title": "Comparison of salbutamol and ipratropium bromide versus salbutamol alone in the treatment of acute severe asthma.", "score": 0.014303959131545339, "content": "The use of nebulized Ipratropium bromide, quaternary anticholinergic bronchodilators in combination with beta-agonist for the treatment of acute asthma in adults is controversial. In a view of different recommendation the present study is undertaken in Bangladeshi patients. Combination of inhaled Ipratropium bromide and Salbutamol provides greater bronchodilatation than mono therapy with Salbutamol alone in acute severe asthma. Patients of severe asthma (PEFR &lt;50% of predicted) were enrolled into control group (Salbutamol only) and case (Salbutamol + Ipratropium bromide) group. After measurement of peak expiratory flow, patient received 3 doses of 2.5 mg Salbutamol (n=40) only or 3 doses of both 2.5mg Salbutamol and 500mcg Ipratropium bromide at an interval of 20 minutes (n=40) through a jet nebulizer. Peak flow was reassessed 30 &amp; 60 minutes after treatment. Peak flow at baseline was similar in two groups. Then at 30 minutes after nebulization, the mean±SD percentage increase in peak flow was greater in combination group (60.01±35.01%) than Salbutamol group (44.47±25.03%) with difference of 16% (p=0.025). At 60 minutes the percentage increase in peak flow was about 32% greater in combination group than Salbutamol group (94.44±33.70% vs. 62.57±29.26%, p=0.000) and combination group reached percentage predicted peak flow more than 60% while Sabutamol group did not. Ipratropium Bromide and Salbutamol nebulized combinedly have better bronchodilating effect than Salbultamol alone in acute severe asthma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0540_4652", "title": "Acute asthma and the life threatening episode.", "score": 0.014249492900608519, "content": "To present a clinical approach to the management of acute asthma and the life threatening episode of asthma. A review of published peer-review articles and studies reported from 1966 to 1999 and identified through a MEDLINE search on the management of acute asthma, status asthmaticus and acute fulminant asthma. Asthma is a disease caused by a chronic desquamative eosinophilic bronchitis with airway hyper-responsiveness to specific and non-specific stimuli. It is characterised clinically by episodic airflow obstruction. A life threatening episode indicates the presence of one of the three clinical types; acute severe asthma (an acute episode of bronchospasm where the FEV(1) is 30% or less than the predicted value), status asthmaticus (where the episode becomes resistant to beta-adrenergic agonists and corticosteroids), or acute fulminant asthma (where the onset is rapid and severe and the patient is obtunded). Management of acute severe asthma includes oxygen, continuous nebulised salbutamol (until an adequate clinical response occurs) and intravenous hydrocortisone (200 mg/70 kg i.v. followed by 50 mg/70 kg hourly or 200 mg 4-hourly). The patient's speech, conscious state, pulse and respiratory rate, peak expiratory flow rate, oximetry and blood gases should be monitored, and if there is no improvement or the patient deteriorates, admission to an intensive care unit is required. Additional therapy includes intravenous aminophylline (2mg/kg, followed by 4 mg/kg over 30 minutes), nebulised ipratropium (500 microg 6-hourly), high dose inhaled corticosteroids, intravenous magnesium sulphate (5-10 mmol as a bolus with 40 mmol over 1-2 hours), and even inhaled helium oxygen mixtures. With further deterioration or for the management of acute fulminant asthma, intravenous adrenaline (20-200microg bolus followed by an infusion of 1-10 microg/min) is often used. Endotracheal intubation, with mechanical ventilation (using low tidal volumes and low respiratory rates) ketamine anaesthesia (1-2 mg/kg followed by 50 microg/kg/min), inhaled anaesthetic agents (e.g. diethyl ether) and even extracoporeal life support (using extracorporeal membrane oxygenation) may be required. Inhaled salbutamol and intravenous corticosteroids are initially administered to manage the episode of acute severe asthma. Management of acute fulminant asthma or status asthmaticus requires admission to the intensive care unit and may require anaesthetic agents and complex life support techniques." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0872_23247", "title": "The efficacy of nebulized magnesium sulfate alone and in combination with salbutamol in acute asthma.", "score": 0.013856291749413252, "content": "Evaluation of the efficacy of nebulized magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) alone and in combination with salbutamol in acute asthma. A double-blind randomized controlled study was conducted in Chest and Emergency Departments. Thirty patients of acute attack of bronchial asthma were randomized into three groups: MgSO4 nebulization (group A), salbutamol nebulization (group B), and their combination (group C). All patients were monitored before and after nebulization (each 20 minutes) for peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), respiratory rate (RR), heart rate (HR), blood pressure, pulsus paradoxus, oxygen saturation, clinical examination, and Fischl index. A highly significant improvement in PEFR, PEFR percentage, and Fischl index and significant decrease in RR and HR was observed in all groups. A similar improvement in PEFR was observed in group A and group B (P=0.389). The difference in peak expiratory flow (PEF) improvement was insignificant between group B and group C (P=0.101), while there was a significant difference between group A and group C (P=0.014) in favor of group C. Nebulized MgSO4 alone or combined with salbutamol has a clinically significant bronchodilator effect in acute asthma and leads to clinical improvement, increase in PEFR, reduction in HR, and reduction in RR. The response to nebulized MgSO4 alone (PEFR improvement 54±35.6 L/min, P=0.001) is comparable (P=0.389) to that of nebulized salbutamol (PEFR improvement 67.0±41.9 L/min, P=0.001) and is significantly less than (P=0.014) that of nebulized combination (PEFR improvement 92.0±26.9 L/min, P=0.000)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0261_8241", "title": "Heliox improves pulsus paradoxus and peak expiratory flow in nonintubated patients with severe asthma.", "score": 0.013445809960176424, "content": "Heliox is a blend of helium and oxygen with a gas density less than that of air that decreases airway resistance (Raw) in patients ventilated for status asthmaticus. We tested whether breathing an 80:20 mixture of helium:oxygen would reduce pulsus paradoxus (PP) and increase peak expiratory flow (PEF) in patients presenting to the emergency room with an exacerbation of asthma. After receiving 30 min of beta-agonist aerosols and intravenously administered methylprednisolone, 27 patients whose PP remained greater than 15 mm Hg and whose PEF remained less than 250 L/min consented to breathe heliox or room air for 15 min. PP decreased and PEF increased with time in control patients, indicating a time-related effect of routine bronchodilator therapy (p &lt; 0.05). PP decreased in 15 of 16 patients during heliox, and the change with heliox was significantly greater than that during air breathing (p &lt; 0.01). PEF measured with a Wright's peak flow meter calibrated for heliox increased in all patients breathing heliox. Again, the increase in PEF during heliox breathing was significantly greater than the corresponding change in control patients breathing air (p &lt; 0.001). To the extent that PP reflects the inspiratory fall in pleural pressure, this reduction in PP indicates a substantial reduction in inspiratory Raw when the less dense gas is inspired through narrowed bronchi having turbulent flow regimes. The 35% increase in PEF while breathing heliox signals a similar reduction in expiratory Raw, which might diminish the hyperinflation often observed during an exacerbation of asthma.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0251_24491", "title": "A controlled trial of nebulized salbutamol and adrenaline in acute severe asthma.", "score": 0.013026723632403451, "content": "To compare efficacy and safety of nebulisation of adrenaline (2 mg over 10 min) and salbutamol (5 mg over 10 min) in acute severe asthma. Prospective randomized and double blind study. Intensive care unit of a University teaching hospital. 22 asthmatic patients presenting to the emergency room with acute severe asthma. Patients were randomly assigned to receive either adrenaline (n = 11) or salbutamol (n = 11) via a nebulizer. Additional treatment comprised hydrocortisone hemisuccinate (100 mg) and supplemental oxygen (71/min). The efficacy and safety of both drugs were evaluated at 20 and 40 min. A statistically significant increase in the Peak Expiratory Flow (PEF) was achieved at the 20th min in both groups (from 85 +/- 38 l/min to 120 +/- 45 l/min; p &lt; 0.001; and from 107 +/- 28 l/min to 145 +/- 19 l/min; p &lt; 0.001; in adrenaline group and salbutamol group respectively). With both drugs, PEF further increased at 40 min to a level that was statistically significant when compared to the 20 min evaluation. The magnitude of the absolute variation in PEF was similar with both drugs. Both drugs induced a significant decrease in heart rate, respiratory frequency and PaCO2 while the increase of PaO2/FIO2 ratio was not significant. The decrease of respiratory frequency at 40 min was more important with salbutamol (p = 0.03). No side effects were recorded in both groups. After a single dose, nebulized adrenaline (2 mg) proved as effective and safe as salbutamol (5 mg) in acute severe asthma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0399_1109", "title": "Heliox for treatment of exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.", "score": 0.012905374464010657, "content": "Due to its low density properties, helium-oxygen mixtures have the potential to decrease the work of breathing and possibly avoid the need for intubation and mechanical ventilation in patients with respiratory failure. To determine the effect of the addition of helium/oxygen mixtures (heliox) to standard medical care during ventilated and nonventilated acute exacerbations of COPD. Randomized controlled trials were identified from the Cochrane Airways Review Group asthma Register. Primary authors and experts were contacted. References from included and excluded studies, known reviews and texts were also searched. Studies were selected for inclusion if they compared treatment with heliox to placebo (oxygen or air) in randomized controlled trials in adults with an exacerbation of COPD. Data from all trials were combined using the Review Manager (version 4.1). We planned to perform: 1) random effects weighted mean difference (WMD), with 95% confidence intervals (95% CI), 2) Homogeneity of effect sizes with the Dersimonian and Laird method with p&lt;0.1 as the cut point for significance, and 3) sensitivity analysis on different helium-oxygen mixtures (80/20 vs 70/30), and 4) methodological quality (Jadad score &gt;2 vs. &lt;3). Four studies, all published between 1997 and 2000 met the inclusion criteria. Two studies compared heliox-oxygen vs. air-oxygen in decompensated COPD patients who were not ventilated. One study was performed in mechanical ventilated patients and one in patients undergoing noninvasive pressure support (NIPSV) ventilated patients. Data could be obtained for only two of the studies. One was a randomized crossover study of 70:30 helium-oxygen vs air-oxygen that involved nineteen patients with acute severe COPD, hospitalized in an intensive care unit for NIPSV. In the patients receiving heliox, arterial PCO2 fell more; WMD 0.8 kPa (95% CI 0.26, -1.34). The second was a randomized trial involved 47 patients with acute COPD, who presented to an Emergency Department randomized to receive updraft nebulization of albuterol and ipratropium bromide using 80% helium and 20% oxygen or compressed air as the driving gas. Treatments were administered at 0, 20, 40, and 120 minutes after randomization. There were no significant differences in the change of FEV1 and FVC between the two groups by either the 1 or 2 hours point. although a small improvement in FEF 25-75 was significantly greater in the heliox group than in the air group. There is currently insufficient evidence to support the use of helium-oxygen mixtures to treat acute exacerbations of COPD in either ventilated or nonventilated patients. Suitably designed randomised controlled trials with the endpoint being the avoidance of mechanical ventilation may be justified." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0973_24919", "title": "Salbutamol Nebulization During Noninvasive Ventilation in Exacerbated Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Patients: A Randomized Controlled Trial.", "score": 0.012707292707292707, "content": "<b<iBackground:</i</b Although nebulizing beta 2-agonists during noninvasive ventilation (NIV) could prove helpful, this administration route has to date never been studied in unstable chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patients. We sought to demonstrate that salbutamol could be nebulized through an NIV circuit in COPD exacerbation and improve forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) as compared with placebo. <b<iPatient and Methods:</i</b This is a bench study to determine the optimal pattern of nebulization followed by a randomized double-blind parallel-group trial comparing salbutamol and placebo aerosols delivered during NIV to 43 intensive care unit patients. Aerosols were generated by a vibrating mesh nebulizer positioned just after the Y-piece. Spirometry was performed immediately before and at several predetermined time points after nebulization. Clinical and biological safety parameters were recorded. <b<iResults:</i</b We failed to demonstrate a difference between salbutamol and placebo when changes in FEV1 were assessed immediately after nebulization (-20 vs. -35 mL, <ip</i = 0.66). However, FEV1 increased significantly from baseline to 40 minutes after the end of salbutamol nebulization, as compared with placebo (+30 vs. -50 mL, <ip</i = 0.04). Nebulization was well tolerated. <b<iConclusion:</i</b When assessing FEV1 changes 40 minutes after the end of 5 mg salbutamol nebulization in patients undergoing NIV, we observed a slight improvement that was statistically significant compared with the changes observed with an equivalent saline volume." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1150_3912", "title": "Nebulized Salbutamol with or without Magnesium Sulphate in the Management of Acute Asthma in Children in India: A Randomized Controlled Trial.", "score": 0.012673916520070366, "content": "There is inconclusive evidence on the role of nebulized magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) in the management of acute asthma in paediatric population. Whether the use of nebulized salbutamol with or without MgSO4 in the management of acute asthma results in clinically significant improvement in lung function in Indian children? The primary outcome measure was to assess improvements in peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), heart rate, respiratory rate and SpO2. This was a single centre; prospective double-blind randomized control trial conducted in paediatric intensive care unit of a tertiary care centre. Ninety children of 6-14 years with acute exacerbations of bronchial asthma were enrolled to receive either inhaled magnesium sulphate (95 mg) with salbutamol (5 mg) or inhaled salbutamol (5 mg) alone. All patients got three nebulizations done during the first hour at 20 min intervals, two nebulizations during the second hour at 30 min intervals, hourly for the next 2 h and then at 24 and 48 h. Eighty-five patients were finally analysed as per protocol analysis. The trial showed that PEFR increased gradually in both groups over the study duration, but it was statistically not significant. Heart rate decreased significantly in both groups over the study duration. Respiratory rate decreased significantly between the groups at 24 and 48 h only. SpO2 improved too in both groups but was not significant statistically. The addition of nebulized MgSO4 to salbutamol does not seem to result in improvement in lung function in the management of acute asthma in Indian children." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0274_14676", "title": "Intravenous aminophylline confers no benefit in acute asthma treated with intravenous steroids and inhaled bronchodilators.", "score": 0.012222222222222223, "content": "The role of intravenous aminophylline in acute asthma is unclear despite meta-analysis of many studies comparing aminophylline with other bronchodilator therapies. The aim of this study is to determine whether continuous aminophylline infusion confers any benefit in acute severe asthmatics treated with intravenous steroids and inhaled bronchodilators. The study was randomised, double-blind and placebo-controlled. All patients received nebulised salbutamol (1 mL of 0.5%) and ipratropium bromide (1 mL of 0.025%) with glycol diluent (1 mL) at 0, two, four, six, eight and 12 hours, and six-hourly thereafter. In addition all patients were given intravenous hydrocortisone 250 mg six-hourly and oxygen to maintain normoxia. Aminophylline infusions were adjusted to maintain therapeutic levels. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) was measured before and after nebulised bronchodilator on a two-hourly basis in the Emergency Department (ED) and six-hourly on the inpatient wards. Thirty-one patients were clinically sufficiently improved within 12 hours to be discharged home from the ED. The remaining 28 patients were admitted to the inpatient ward for a total trial duration of 48 hours. No significant difference was found between the placebo and treatment groups for measurements of PEFR, or for the duration of stay of the patients in hospital. The power of the study was 80% for a 25% to 33% difference at a 5% level of significance. Presentation values of PEFR and arterial blood gases did not predict which patients would require inpatient admission and which could be safely discharged home from the ED." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_39858", "title": "Bronchospasm", "score": 0.011891712340142833, "content": "Additionally, the pediatric population is more susceptible to disease and complications from bronchospasm due to their airway diameter being smaller; applying Poiseuille's Law to the airways it is clear that airflow resistance through a tube is inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power, therefore, decreases in airway results in significant flow impediments. Diagnosis Signs and symptoms: Wheezing Diminished breath sounds Prolonged expiration Increase airway pressures (in ventilated patients) Treatment Beta 2 agonists Beta2-adrenergic agonists are recommended for bronchospasm. Short acting (SABA) Terbutaline Salbutamol Levosalbutamol Long acting (LABA) Formoterol Salmeterol Others Dopamine Norepinephrine Epinephrine - titrate to effect (e.g. 10-50 mcg IV), especially in setting of hemodynamic compromise increasing anesthetic depth IV magnesium Increase FiO2 to 100% and consider manual ventilation Muscarinic Acetylcholine receptor antagonist" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0795_19347", "title": "The efficacy of nebulized furosemide and salbutamol compared with salbutamol alone in reactive airway disease: a double blind randomized, clinical trial.", "score": 0.010968866450294507, "content": "We undertook this randomized clinical trial to investigate whether adding furosemide to salbutamol could improve the peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) and clinical signs of reactive airway disease (RAD) patients. Eligible 18- to 55-year-old patients were randomly divided into intervention and control groups. Patients received 5 mg of nebulized salbutamol and 40 mg of nebulized furosemide in the intervention group and 5 mg of nebulized salbutamol alone in the control group. Patients in both groups received 100 mg of methylprednisolone intravenously stat. Severity of the RAD was estimated before and 45 minutes after treatment in both groups. PEFR was estimated before treatment and at 15, 30, and 45 minutes later. Ninety patients were enrolled, 45 in each group. There were no significant differences between two groups regarding gender, mean age, and normalized PEFR. The baseline mean PEFR was not significantly different between groups (P = 0.58). A repeated measure analysis of variance revealed that the differences between the two treatments was significant (P = 0.0001) and the behavior of two treatments was not similar across the time (P = 0.001). Comparison of clinical severity of acute RAD revealed no significant differences between groups at the end of the trial (0.06). This study showed that adding nebulized furosemide to salbutamol in RAD patients improved PEFR. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0530_13437", "title": "[Management of severe acute asthma in adults].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Any life-threatening episode of asthma requires early pre-hospital specialized medical management by emergency medical crews. Gravity depends on both clinical criteria and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) more than 30% below either the level predicted by the reference graph or the patient's reference value. Initial treatment combines continuous nebulizations containing a beta2-agonist and ipratropium bromide, with oxygen administration and intravenous corticosteroid bolus. Recommended as second-line treatment in the absence of adequate response are: intravenous magnesium sulphate and continuous-perfusion beta2-agonists (electric syringe), or, in the case of shock, epinephrine. If mechanical ventilation is required, its settings should aim for low tidal volumes, low frequency, and increased expiratory time." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0643_7135", "title": "Acute severe asthma: new approaches to assessment and treatment.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The precise definition of a severe asthmatic exacerbation is an issue that presents difficulties. The term 'status asthmaticus' relates severity to outcome and has been used to define a severe asthmatic exacerbation that does not respond to and/or perilously delays the repetitive or continuous administration of short-acting inhaled beta(2)-adrenergic receptor agonists (SABA) in the emergency setting. However, a number of limitations exist concerning the quantification of unresponsiveness. Therefore, the term 'acute severe asthma' is widely used, relating severity mostly to a combination of the presenting signs and symptoms and the severity of the cardiorespiratory abnormalities observed, although it is well known that presentation does not foretell outcome. In an acute severe asthma episode, close observation plus aggressive administration of bronchodilators (SABAs plus ipratropium bromide via a nebulizer driven by oxygen) and oral or intravenous corticosteroids are necessary to arrest the progression to severe hypercapnic respiratory failure leading to a decrease in consciousness that requires intensive care unit (ICU) admission and, eventually, ventilatory support. Adjunctive therapies (intravenous magnesium sulfate and/or others) should be considered in order to avoid intubation. Management after admission to the hospital ward because of an incomplete response is similar. The decision to intubate is essentially based on clinical judgement. Although cardiac or respiratory arrest represents an absolute indication for intubation, the usual picture is that of a conscious patient struggling to breathe. Factors associated with the increased likelihood of intubation include exhaustion and fatigue despite maximal therapy, deteriorating mental status, refractory hypoxaemia, increasing hypercapnia, haemodynamic instability and impending coma or apnoea. To intubate, sedation is indicated in order to improve comfort, safety and patient-ventilator synchrony, while at the same time decrease oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production. Benzodiazepines can be safely used for sedation of the asthmatic patient, but time to awakening after discontinuation is prolonged and difficult to predict. The most common alternative is propofol, which is attractive in patients with sudden-onset (near-fatal) asthma who may be eligible for extubation within a few hours, because it can be titrated rapidly to a deep sedation level and has rapid reversal after discontinuation; in addition, it possesses bronchodilatory properties. The addition of an opioid (fentanyl or remifentanil) administered by continuous infusion to benzodiazepines or propofol is often desirable in order to provide amnesia, sedation, analgesia and respiratory drive suppression. Acute severe asthma is characterized by severe pulmonary hyperinflation due to marked limitation of the expiratory flow. Therefore, the main objective of the initial ventilator management is 2-fold: to ensure adequate gas exchange and to prevent further hyperinflation and ventilator-associated lung injury. This may require hypoventilation of the patient and higher arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO(2)) levels and a more acidic pH. This does not apply to asthmatic patients intubated for cardiac or respiratory arrest. In this setting the post-anoxic brain oedema might demand more careful management of PaCO(2) levels to prevent further elevation of intracranial pressure and subsequent complications. Monitoring lung mechanics is of paramount importance for the safe ventilation of patients with status asthmaticus. The first line of specific pharmacological therapy in ventilated asthmatic patients remains bronchodilation with a SABA, typically salbutamol (albuterol). Administration techniques include nebulizers or metered-dose inhalers with spacers. Systemic corticosteroids are critical components of therapy and should be administered to all ventilated patients, although the dose of systemic corticosteroids in mechanically ventilated asthmatic patients remains controversial. Anticholinergics, inhaled corticosteroids, leukotriene receptor antagonists and methylxanthines offer little benefit, and clinical data favouring their use are lacking. In conclusion, expertise, perseverance, judicious decisions and practice of evidence-based medicine are of paramount importance for successful outcomes for patients with acute severe asthma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0870_9168", "title": "[Efficiency of nebulised magnesium sulphate in infective exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Conflicting results has been achieved in a small number of clinical studies evaluating the efficiency of magnesium sulphate (MS) in COPD exacerbations. We aimed to investigate the efficiency of nebulised MS in COPD exacerbations. Twenty patients who met the study criteria were randomized into two groups. All patients were treated with O2, antibiotics and oral corticosteroids. Additionally one group received ipratropium bromide (IB) 500 µg together with MS 151 mg/dose, while the other group received IB together with placebo. The patients were followed-up with forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and visual analogue scale dyspnea scores for 48 hours. Peak expiratory flow rates (PEFRs) were measured before and 10, 30, 60 and 120 minutes after each nebule treatment. The baseline characteristics of the patients in both groups were similar. The FEV1 values measured at 24 and 48 hours did not show significant changes compared to baseline in both groups. Dyspnea scores in both groups decreased significantly in the first day, and in only MS group in the second day. The % change in the dyspnea score at the end of first day was significantly more in the MS group [-23.8% (13.6)] compared with the placebo group [-9.4% (12.9)] (p= 0.002). The % changes in PEFRs at 10 minutes [4.7 (7.5) and -3.5 (6.0), p= 0.005] and 30 minutes [8.2 (6.7) and 1.3 (5.5), p= 0.03] were significantly greater in the MS group compared with the placebo group on the first day. No side effects developed due to MS. Nebulised MS is a cheap, feasible and safe drug that can be added to the standart bronchodilator treatment since it provides additional relief of dyspnea in patients with COPD exacerbations. This needs to be evaluated in future clinical studies including greater number of patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0659_3151", "title": "Usefulness of inhaled magnesium sulfate in the coadjuvant management of severe asthma crisis in an emergency department.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Treatment of severe asthma may be difficult despite the use of several medications including parenteral corticosteroids. Intravenous magnesium sulfate (MgSO(4)) is one ancillary drug for severe crisis; its inhaled use is controversial. To evaluate the usefulness of inhaled MgSO(4) compared to placebo in improving lung function, oxygen saturation, and reducing hospital admission as an adjunct to standard treatment in severe asthma crisis. We conducted a placebo-controlled, double-blind clinical trial with asthmatic patients &gt;18 years of age with asthmatic crisis and FEV(1)&lt;60% of predicted (%p). All subjects received 125 mg of IV methylprednisolone followed by nebulization with the combination of albuterol (7.5mg) and ipratropium bromide (1.5mg) diluted in 3 ml of isotonic saline solution (as placebo) or 3 ml (333 mg) of MgSO(4). After 90 min, subjects with FEV(1)&lt;60%p or SpO(2)&lt;88% or persistent symptoms were admitted to the emergency department (ED). We included 30 patients per group who were similar at baseline. The MgSO(4) group showed higher post-bronchodilator (post-BD) FEV(1)%p (69+/-13 vs. 61+/-12, p&lt;0.014) and SpO(2) (92+/-4 vs. 88+/-5%, p&lt;0.006) than the placebo group. Fewer treated patients were admitted to the ED (5 vs. 13) (p&lt;0.047), with relative risk (RR) of 0.26 (95% CI 0.079-0.870). Adding inhaled MgSO(4) treatment to standard therapy in severe asthma crisis improves FEV(1)%p and SpO(2) post-BD and reduces the rate of ED admissions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0672_16812", "title": "Management of phosgene-induced acute lung injury.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Phosgene is a substance of immense importance in the chemical industry. Because of its widespread industrial use, there is potential for small-scale exposures within the workplace, large-scale accidental release, or even deliberate release into a built-up area. This review aims to examine all published studies concerning potential treatments for phosgene-induced acute lung injury and incorporate them into up-to-date clinical guidance. In addition, it aims to contrast the approaches when dealing with small numbers of patients known to be exposed (possibly with dose information) with the presentation of a large and heterogeneous population of casualties following a significant industrial accident or deliberate release; no published guidelines have specifically addressed this second problem. PubMed and Embase were searched for all available years till April 2010 and 584 papers were identified and considered. Because of the nature of the injury, there have been no human trials of patients exposed to phosgene. Multiple small and large animal studies have been performed to examine potential treatments of phosgene-induced acute lung injury, but many of these used isolated organ models, pretreatment regimens, or clinically improbable doses. Recent studies in large animals using both realistic time frames and dosing regimens have improved our knowledge, but clinical guidance remains based on incomplete data. Management of a small-scale, confirmed exposure. In the circumstance of a small-scale, confirmed industrial release where a few individuals are exposed and present rapidly, an intravenous bolus of high-dose corticosteroid (e.g., methylprednisolone 1 g) should be considered, although there are no experimental data to support this recommendation. The evidence is that there is no benefit from nebulized steroid even when administered 1 h after exposure, or methylprednisolone if administered intravenously ≥6 h after exposure. Consideration should also be given to administration of nebulized acetylcysteine 1-2 g, though there is no substantive evidence of benefit outside a small animal, isolated lung model and there is a possibility of adverse effects. If the oxygen saturation falls below 94%, patients should receive the lowest concentration of supplemental oxygen to maintain their SaO(2) in the normal range. Once patients require oxygen, nebulized β-agonists [e.g., salbutamol (albuterol) 5 mg by nebulizer every 4 h] may reduce lung inflammation if administered within 1 h of exposure. Elective intubation should be considered early using an ARDSnet protective ventilation strategy. Management of a large-scale, non-confirmed exposure. In the circumstances of a large-scale industrial or urban release, not all patients presenting will have been exposed and health services are likely to be highly stretched. In this situation, patients should not be treated immediately as there is no evidence that delaying therapy causes harm, rather they should be rested and observed with regular physical examination and measurement of peripheral oxygen saturations. Once a patient's oxygen saturation falls below 94%, treatment with the lowest concentration of oxygen required to maintain their oxygen saturations in the normal range should be started. Once oxygen has been started, nebulized β-agonists [e.g., salbutamol (albuterol) 5 mg by nebulizer every 4 h] may reduce lung inflammation if administered within 1 h of exposure, though delayed administration which is likely following a large-scale release has not been tested formally. There is no benefit from nebulized steroid even when administered 1 h after exposure, or high-dose corticosteroid if administered intravenously ≥6 h after exposure. Although there are no experimental data to support this recommendation, an intravenous bolus of high-dose corticosteroid (e.g., methylprednisolone 1 g) may be considered if presentation is &lt;6 h and resources allow. Depending on the numbers of casualties presenting, invasive ventilation should be initiated either electively once symptoms present (especially where there is a short latent period, indicating likelihood of more significant injury), or delayed until required. Ventilation should be with high positive end expiratory pressure, ARDSnet recommended ventilation. The mechanisms underlying the phosgene-induced acute lung injury are not well understood. Future experimental work should ensure that potential treatments are tested in a large animal model using realistic dosing regimens and clinically relevant timings, such as those that might be found in a mass casualty situation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0020_4988", "title": "Intravenous or inhaled salbutamol in severe acute asthma?", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Ten patients with life-threatening attacks of asthma (status asthmatiucus') were treated with salbutamol inhaled by intermittent positive pressure breathing, and their response in terms of rise in peak flow rate was measured. They were then given intravenous salbutamol and any further increment in peak flow was measured. Hydrocortisone treatment was started simultaneously and the responses to salbutamol were re-measured on each of the next three days. Only two patients initially responded to the aerosol, whereas all save one responded to the intravenous drug. The two who responded initially to the aerosol were the two who were able to produce sputum at the time of admission. All patients subsequently responded to the aerosol, and the onset of this response correlated closely with the beginning of sputum production. Sympathominetics should be given parenterally to patients in severe asthma if the response to inhaled drug is reduced or absent." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 26, 277 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 4, 42 ] ], "text": "Amyloidosis is a localized or systemic deposition of fibrillar proteins. It can be primary or secondary. The most frequently affected organs are the kidneys and the heart. Sometimes amyloid deposits appear on the tongue which can produce macroglossia." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Hypoglossal paralysis.", "2": "Hyperthyroidism.", "3": "Mastocytosis.", "4": "Amyloidosis.", "5": "Facial granuloma." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en126_49452", "title": "Orofacial granulomatosis", "score": 0.01665774685576666, "content": "The enlargement of the tissues of the mouth, lips and face seen in OFG is painless. Melkersson–Rosenthal syndrome is where OFG occurs with fissured tongue and paralysis of the facial nerve. The cause of the facial paralysis is thought to be caused by the formation of granulomas in the facial nerve, which supplies the muscles of facial expression. Causes The cause of the condition is unknown. The disease is characterized by non-caseating granulomatous inflammation. That is, the granulomas do not undergo the caseating (\"cheese-like\") necrosis typical of the granulomas of tuberculosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1034_3906", "title": "Amyloidoma of the Tongue: Case Report, Surgical Management, and Review of the Literature.", "score": 0.016382868937048503, "content": "Localized amyloidosis of the tongue is a benign condition in which surgical management may be considered. The aim of the study was to review the current literature and report a case. We searched the PubMed database for all relevant articles reporting cases of localized tongue amyloidosis published between 1980 and February 2020. In addition, we updated 1 case diagnosed and treated in our department. A 49-year-old male patient presented with an asymptomatic tongue nodule of the dorsum mimicking median rhomboid glossitis. The results of an incisional biopsy showed an amyloid on Congo red staining and positive findings for the κ light chain by immunohistochemical analysis. The findings of the systemic workup were negative. Therefore, a diagnosis of localized κ light-chain amyloidosis was made. The patient underwent a resection of the lesion, and no recurrence or progression was observed during a period of 18 months. The literature review showed 12 reports describing 21 patients (11 men, 52.3%) with localized tongue amyloidosis. The most common clinical presentation was nodular with a single lesion of the tongue dorsum (15 patients, 71.4%). All cases showed positive findings on Congo red staining. Immunohistochemical analysis findings were available for only 9 patients (42.8%) and showed light-chain amyloidosis. No case showed any systemic involvement or the development of systemic disease. Surgical excision was performed in 9 cases, with recurrence at the site of operation in 2 cases. Localized amyloidosis of the tongue is a rare disease in which surgical excision may be therapeutic when a multidisciplinary evaluation does not show any systemic disease. We recommend an excision when the lesion is persistent or shows an enlargement or when discomfort is reported. In the case of any further local recurrence, resection may be repeated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0417_23201", "title": "A foreign body embedded in the mobile tongue masquerading as a neoplasm.", "score": 0.011790817034262727, "content": "Foreign bodies in a mobile tongue are rarely presented to the laryngologist, because such bodies are commonly lodged superficially and are easily removed by the patients themselves or by general practitioners. Thus, it is rare that a foreign body totally embedded in the mobile part of the tongue presents as an enlarged tongue mass. We have described a 64-year-old female with a 3-month history of an enlarged mass in the anterior right tongue. Physical examination showed a mass located in the anterior right tongue, with intact mucosa and normal color. A benign tongue neoplasm was considered first. However, a fish bone totally embedded in the mobile tongue with granuloma formation was encountered during the incisional biopsy operation. Complete removal of the foreign body with granuloma was achieved under local anesthesia. There was no neuromuscular or neurosensory deficit of the tongue in the follow-up period of 2 years. Although an embedded foreign body in the mobile tongue is a rare condition, it should be considered in the work-up of a patient with an enlarged tongue mass, with or without a history of swallowing a foreign body." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step1_597", "title": "First_Aid_Step1", "score": 0.011303298471440064, "content": "B . Ataxic GAAit. CN V motor lesion Jaw deviates toward side of lesion due to unopposed force from the opposite pterygoid muscle. CN X lesion Uvula deviates away from side of lesion. Weak side collapses and uvula points away. CN XI lesion Weakness turning head to contralateral side of lesion (SCM). Shoulder droop on side of lesion (trapezius). The left SCM contracts to help turn the head to the right. CN XII lesion LMN lesion. Tongue deviates toward side of lesion (“lick your wounds”) due to weakened tongue muscles on affected side. Facial nerve lesions Bell palsy is the most common cause of peripheral facial palsy A . Usually develops after HSV reactivation. Treatment: corticosteroids +/– acyclovir. Most patients gradually recover function, but aberrant regeneration can occur. Other causes of peripheral facial palsy include Lyme disease, herpes zoster (Ramsay Hunt syndrome), sarcoidosis, tumors (eg, parotid gland), diabetes mellitus." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0060_3524", "title": "[Melkersson Rosenthal syndrome. Presentation of a case].", "score": 0.010851950457228846, "content": "This a case report of a 24 year old black woman who referred to her physician recurrent episodes of inferior lip enlargement for a period of two years. Remission periods were incomplete, unrelated to any apparent cause and plicate tongue. No improvement was seen with medication, including the use of steroids. Complementary exams were negative except the biopsy which reported granulomatous cheilitis. We conclude that the Melkersson Rosenthal Syndrome must be considered when confronted with a patient who suffers from lip enlargement and pleated tongue, with or without neurological alterations as for example, facial paralysis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0852_3019", "title": "Ultrasonography of the tongue in macroglossia - a case report.", "score": 0.010626902694779568, "content": "This paper is an attempt to assess the usefulness of ultrasonography in the diagnosis of the enlargement of the tongue (macroglossia). The role of sonography in diagnosing local pathologies of the tongue, such as neoplasms, abscesses or granulomas, has been well-established for 20 years. Rarely is its usefulness considered with respect to diagnosing macroglossia with concomitant systemic diseases. The starting point of these considerations was the presented case of a 59-year-old patient with considerably enlarged tongue. The patient had difficulty speaking and ingesting meals. Moreover, he complained about swelling and pain in the carpal and proximal interphalangeal joints. Tongue ultrasound examination revealed blurred lingual structure with evident, irregular vascular pattern in the color Doppler. The obtained image helped to rule out local pathology of the tongue and directed our diagnostic considerations towards immunoglobulin-related diseases (deposition diseases). We believe that the presented ultrasound image of the tongue was helpful in the diagnostic process. Establishing the final, correct diagnosis was a particularly strenuous process. The suspicion of a deposition disease had been rejected during two previous stays in two hospitals. This was the consequence of a negative diagnostic test of staining tissue deposits with Congo red. An accurate diagnosis occurred to be a rare form of a deposition disease: lambda light chain disease with symptoms of amyloidosis. Such a diagnosis was based on a thorough hematological analysis. A high level of free lambda light chains in the serum was detected and the bone marrow biopsy showed 13% of plasma cells. The patient underwent chemotherapy. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0515_1190", "title": "Lingual thyroid--a lesson to learn.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "We present a case of a middle-aged woman with a mass in the posterior third of the tongue which was diagnosed as a tongue haemangioma. The tumour was successfully excised via a midline mandibular osteotomy and tongue splitting approach. The histopathology examination, however, revealed the 5x4 cms mass to be a lingual thyroid. The salient features of this unusual presentation of a thyroid enlargement will be discussed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en126_49451", "title": "Orofacial granulomatosis", "score": 0.009831924608957543, "content": "\"Full width\" gingivitis (compare with marginal gingivitis). Gingival enlargement (swelling of the gums). Fissured tongue (grooves in the tongue). Enlargement of the mucous membrane of the mouth, which may be associated with cobblestoning and mucosal tags (similar lesions often occur on the intestinal mucosa in Crohn disease). Enlargement of the perioral and periorbital soft tissues (the tissues of the face around the mouth and the eyes). The facial skin may be dry, exfoliative (flaking) or erythematous. Cervical lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes in the neck). Facial palsy (weakness and altered sensation of the face)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0740_15613", "title": "Hemihypoglossal nerve transfer for acute facial paralysis.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The authors have developed a technique for the treatment of facial paralysis that utilizes anastomosis of the split hypoglossal and facial nerve. Here, they document improvements in the procedure and experimental evidence supporting the approach. They analyzed outcomes in 36 patients who underwent the procedure, all of whom had suffered from facial paralysis following the removal of large vestibular schwannomas. The average period of paralysis was 6.2 months. The authors used 5 different variations of a procedure for selecting the split nerve, including evaluation of the split nerve using recordings of evoked potentials in the tongue. Successful facial reanimation was achieved in 16 of 17 patients using the cephalad side of the split hypoglossal nerve and in 15 of 15 patients using the caudal side. The single unsuccessful case using the cephalad side of the split nerve resulted from severe infection of the cheek. Procedures using the ansa cervicalis branch yielded poor success rates (2 of 4 cases). Some tongue atrophy was observed in all variants of the procedure, with 17 cases of minimal atrophy and 14 cases of moderate atrophy. No procedure led to severe atrophy causing functional deficits of the tongue. The split hypoglossal-facial nerve anastomosis procedure consistently leads to good facial reanimation, and the use of either half of the split hypoglossal nerve results in facial reanimation and moderate tongue atrophy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en591_15528", "title": "Craniofacial regeneration", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Following facial injury it is also critical to restore nerve function to avoid facial paralysis. Often, patients who received surgery following injury or tumor resection suffer extensive nerve damage. This is a serious problem given the importance of facial expressions and speech for communicating in human society. For many who endure such nerve damage, they recover after 12 months; however, others may never fully recover. While there is not currently much modern medicine can do for these patients, the cutting edge of care is now nerve grafting. These grafts are taken from the masseter muscle, which controls mouth movement, or the hypoglossal nerve which controls the tongue. To avoid denervation caused by lack of stimulus, surgery should be done as soon as possible; however, it is often difficult to determine if a patient will recover naturally or whether nerve grafting is required. Generally this distinction can be made by 6 months post injury and grafting occurs soon after. Nerve" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0700_10685", "title": "Ancient schwannoma of the tongue: a case report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 45-year-old male patient had left sided submucosal swelling extending backwards from the tip of the tongue disturbing articulation and swallowing. Submucosally located lesion was 3 x 2 x 1.5 cm in size and totally excised under local anesthesia. In this article, we present a case of ancient schwannoma of tongue. Although a very rare entity, ancient schwannoma should be considered in differential diagnosis of tongue lesions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0377_645", "title": "[Successful reanimation of facial paralysis with an indirect anastomosis between hypoglossal nerve and facial nerve, without loss of function of the tongue].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "To describe the surgical procedure and the results of the indirect hypoglossal-facial nerve anastomosis using a free nerve graft in patients with facial nerve paralysis. This technique leaves the tongue function intact. Prospective study. Tongue function was assessed in 39 consecutive patients who underwent this procedure and facial reanimation was assessed in 29 of these patients who had completed at least 24 months follow-up. Facial nerve function was judged using the House-Brackmann (HB) facial nerve grading system. Tongue movements were normal in all operated patients; one patient had mild homolateral atrophy. Initial facial movements occurred on average 7.5 months postoperatively (range 4 to 18 months) in all but one patient. The results were graded HB II in 6 patients (20.9%), HB III in 13 (44.6%), HB IV in 7 (24.1%), HB V in 2 (6.8%) and HB VI in 1 patient (3.4%). Hemifacial synkineses were noticeable but no mass movements or gross hypertonia were observed (as are often present in direct hypoglossal-facial anastomosis). The results of facial reanimation were significantly better in young patients and when a short time interval between paralysis and surgery existed. HB grade II was achieved only if the duration of paralysis was less than 12 months. Indirect hypoglossal-facial anastomosis with interposition of a nerve graft allows preservation of tongue function together with good overall facial reanimation, and is therefore to be preferred to the classical direct hypoglossal-facial anastomosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1021_24529", "title": "Rare amyloidoma of the tongue base: A case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Localized amyloidosis is a rare condition characterized by the deposition of misfolding protein in a tissue, without other systemic manifestations. Only a small number of cases of localized amyloidosis of the tongue have been reported to date, in contrast to systemic amyloidosis, in which localization on the tongue is common. This study presents a rare case of localized amyloidosis of the tongue (amyloidoma) and provides a summary of the known literature of localized amyloidosis. This study describes the case of a 36-year-old female who presented with a swelling of the tongue base. The diagnosis of amyloidoma was made based on the findings of the physical examination, head and neck MRI findings and the histopathological examination with Congo red stain under polarized light. The histopathological diagnosis was as follows: Localized lambda light-chain amyloidosis. A thorough physical examination was performed by the ENT and Hematology/Oncology departments, without revealing signs of systemic disease. A series of hematological and imaging tests were also performed to verify that there was no sign of systemic involvement. The patient declined surgical excision and the 2-year follow-up did not reveal any changes in tumor dimension. Although the etiology of localized amyloidosis is yet not clear, the prolonged reaction of tissue plasma cells to environmental antigens may be a causative factor for the initiation of the neoplastic process." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0625_1379", "title": "Global assessment of outcomes after varying reinnervation techniques for patients with facial paralysis subsequent to acoustic neuroma excision.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To determine whether there are objective and/or subjective differences in facial function, tongue function and quality of life in patients who have undergone 1) direct facial-to-facial (Primary, 4 patients), 2) direct facial-to-hypoglossal (End-to-End, 7 patients), 3) end-to-side facial-to-hypoglossal nerve anastomoses with sural nerve/greater auricular nerve interposition (End-to-Side with Interposition Graft, 7 patients), and 4) end-to-side facial-to-hypoglossal nerve anastomoses (End-to-Side, 7 patients) after acoustic neuroma excision. Tertiary university referral center. Case series. Twenty-five patients with complete facial paralysis after acoustic neuroma surgery who have also undergone 1 of 4 types of facial musculature reinnervation volunteered for the study. The mean duration of follow-up was 11.5 years (range, 1-25 yr). Each patient was globally assessed using the Sunnybrook Facial Grading scale (objective), Facial Disability Index (subjective), Oral-Pharyngeal Disability Index (subjective), Tongue Movement/Muscle symmetry (objective), and short-form SF-36 quality-of-life index (subjective). Patients who underwent direct facial-to-hypoglossal anastomosis had generally poorer outcomes some of which were statistically significant (p &lt; 0.05) in some components of the Oral-Pharyngeal Disability Index. All of these patients had reduced lateral tongue movement as well as ipsilateral tongue atrophy. There was no significant difference in the Sunnybrook Facial Grading scale scores in those patients in whom end-to-side interposition reinnervation surgery was performed compared with those in whom direct end-to-side anastomosis surgery was performed. Complete sacrifice of the ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve does present with clinically and statistically significant morbidity in patients. Facial function is statistically similar in patients who underwent an end-to-side anastomosis with or without an interposition graft. These findings suggest thatin the setting of the posttranslabryinthine approach, the technicallyeasier interposition graft procedure is not acompromise." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1091_10534", "title": "A fast-growing schwannoma of the tongue in a 15-year-old Iranian male: Review of literature and case report.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Schwannoma can be included in the list of differential diagnoses of tongue masses but seems to be a rare finding in the Iranian population. The current case was presented as an exophytic nodular sessile mass which was growing fast." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0679_19325", "title": "Split hypoglossal-facial nerve neurorrhaphy for treatment of the paralyzed face.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Several methods of neural rehabilitation for facial paralysis using 12-7 transfers have been described. The purpose of this study is to report on a series for dynamic reinnervation of the paralyzed face by using a split 12-7 nerve transposition. The goals of this procedure are to minimize tongue morbidity and to provide good facial reinnervation. Prospective case series. Melolabial crease discursion, overall facial movement, and degree of tongue atrophy and mobility were recorded. Thirteen patients underwent facial reanimation using a split hypoglossal-facial nerve transfer with postoperative follow-up to 58 months (range, 6-58 months). All patients achieved excellent rest symmetry and facial tone. Of 13 patients, 10 had measurable coordinated movement and discursion of their melolabial crease. Of 13 patients, 12 had mild to moderate ipsilateral tongue atrophy. The mean time to onset of visible reinnervation was 3 months. Split hypoglossal-facial nerve transposition provides good rehabilitation of facial nerve paralysis with reduced lingual morbidity. Long-term rest symmetry and potential learned movement can be achieved. This technique may provide a favorable alternative to the traditional method of complete hypoglossal sacrifice or jump grafting." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0709_5938", "title": "Tuberculosis of the tongue clinically masquerading as a neoplasm: a case report and literature review.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Tuberculosis of the tongue is a very rare event even in areas and countries in which tuberculosis is endemic. The disease can present itself in a variety of clinical appearances, most of which may mimic malignant lingual neoplasms clinically. In this case, we present a patient who initially complained of an ulcerated lingual swelling, which was suspected to be a squamous cell carcinoma on clinical examination. In addition, the diagnosis was missed on the first and initial biopsy as it was not representative of the lesion. The diagnosis of lingual tuberculosis was made by histopathology on a second biopsy. In this article, we described the clinicopathological features of tuberculous glossitis with a comparison between our case and other similar reported cases in addition to a literature review." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0608_21797", "title": "Facial nerve reconstruction using a split hypoglossal nerve with preservation of tongue function.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A prospective study conducted on 13 patients suffering from complete facial nerve injury (for 4 months up to 2 years) aimed to show that using the split hypoglossal nerve allows for reconstruction of the facial nerve with preservation of tongue function. The hypoglossal nerve was split longitudinally. For each half, a split of the hypoglossal nerve's response was measured intraoperatively by recording the compound muscle action potential of the tongue muscle. The half that showed the least response was selected for anastomosis. The facial nerve was transected at the stylomastoid foramen, and its distal part underwent a direct anastomosis with the selected half of the hypoglossal nerve. The six grades of the House-Brackman grading system were used to analyze the results. The average postoperative follow-up period was 3 years. Before surgery, 12 patients in this study were graded VI, with total paralysis, and 1 was graded V. After surgery, 2 of the 13 patients showed mild dysfunction (grade II), 7 patients showed moderate dysfunction (grade III), 3 patients showed moderately severe dysfunction (grade IV), and 1 patient showed a severe dysfunction (grade V). Microsurgical facial nerve reconstruction using a split hypoglossal nerve results in functional facial nerve improvement with preservation of tongue function." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0798_8784", "title": "Abrikossoff's tumor of tongue: Report of an uncommon lesion.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Granular cell tumor, an uncommon neoplasm, can occur at any site in the body, but they are more commonly observed in the head and neck region, especially the oral cavity. A lesion of controversial origin, this entity has to be considered in the differential diagnosis of swellings of the tongue. Immunohistochemical findings obtained in the present case also render support for the neural histogenetic origin for this tumor. Though commonly observed in the fourth to sixth decades of life, we present this case in a 9-year-old female patient. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en270_3370", "title": "Distal spinal muscular atrophy type 1", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Pathophysiology The pathology underlying the observable characteristics of DSMA1 is cell body degeneration of motor nerves. Specifically, the anterior horn α-motorneurons degenerate within the first six months of life leading to a variety of symptoms. Muscle deterioration increases at around 1–2 years of age, resulting in reduced motor function. The most severely affected muscles include facial muscles and the tongue (which may develop a twitch due to hypoglossal nerve paralysis). Reduced pain sensation and excessive sweating are sometimes observed. Non-ambulant patients may develop pressure ulcers, severe constipation, urinary incontinence, and (rarely) reflux nephropathy in the advanced stages of the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0767_9662", "title": "Granular cell tumour of tongue: A case report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Granular cell tumour, also known as Abrikossoff tumour, is a relatively uncommon benign neoplasm, which is more commonly found in females in the 4th to 6th decades of life even though it can occur in all ages. It occurs in all areas of the body but about 45-65% of all lesions are reported in the head and neck region. Intraoral lesions represent about 70% of the granular cell tumours of the head and neck, and account for 1/3 of all cases affecting the whole body. Most of the intraoral lesions occur on the tongue, usually on the lateral aspect, followed by the buccal mucosa and hard palate. Although majority of granular cell tumours are benign, some are clinically aggressive and a few frankly malignant forms have been reported. Some benign lesions exhibit surface ulcerations and this clinical appearance, combined with the overlying pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia, seen histologically, may lead to misdiagnosis of malignancy if adequate biopsy material was not taken. A case of granular cell tumour which occurred on the midline area of the dorsum of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is reported in a 20-year-old female patient. It is interesting because the patient was younger than the average age of occurrence and the tumour occurred in a similar site to that of a lingual thyroid. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0244_10119", "title": "[Hypoglossal-facial nerve cross-over for rehabilitation of the paralyzed face (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Ten patients with unilateral facial nerve paralysis had been treated by hypoglossal-facial nerve approximation in the years 1971-1979. The proximal part of the facial nerve inside the petrous bone and at the inner ear entrance had been destroyed by tumor or accident without chance for repair. Therefore the hypoglossal nerve had been used to contact the intact main tunk and its intact peripheral nerve and mimic muscle system. 3 to 4 epineural nerve sutures had been placed with 8/0 vicryl suture material for approximation. In one patient anastomosis could be obtained by splitting the hypoglossal nerve with remarkable result to the mimic function, while the muscular atrophy of the tongue was minimal. With regard to the results the achieved mimic reinnervation took place in 3,5 to 5 months, but was found to be refined up to 2 years. Oral discomfort, swallowing, and speech disorders lasted 2 1/2 to 6 weeks postoperatively, depending upon the age and the patients mental activity, since the patient has to learn by using his tongue for mimical expressions. The final result obtained a balanced closure of the mouth and eyes, a complete movement of the lips and cheeks, a rarely delayed innervation of the frontal muscles. Due to reinnervation the denervated half of the tongue had developed a marked increase of activity from nerve fiber ingrowth of the intact side. The patient finally feels little to complain about the favourable facial result." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0810_6138", "title": "Large mass on base of tongue. Diagnosis: lingual thyroid.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Our patient's tongue mass hadn't bothered her until she became pregnant; that's when it got larger and caused problems swallowing and breathing. A simple test confirmed our suspicions. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_42108", "title": "Amyloidosis", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Oral cavity Amyloid deposits in tissue can cause enlargement of structures. Twenty percent of people with AL amyloidosis have an enlarged tongue, that can lead to obstructive sleep apnea, difficulty swallowing, and altered taste. Tongue enlargement does not occur in ATTR or AA amyloidosis. Deposition of amyloid in the throat can cause hoarseness. Pathogenesis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0618_24306", "title": "Outcomes and complications of direct end-to-side facial-hypoglossal nerve anastomosis according to the modified May technique.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The aim of this study was to address the efficiency and safety of direct end-to-side facial-hypoglossal nerve anastomosis for facial palsy rehabilitation. The authors conducted a retrospective study of 12 consecutive procedures performed between December 2000 and February 2006. Facial palsies were caused by the surgical removal of tumors in the brainstem, cerebellopontine angle, or mastoid process. Direct end-to-side facial-hypoglossal anastomosis was performed in each case. Facial function (evaluated using the overall percentage of facial function and House-Brackmann scale grades), as well as tongue trophicity and mobility, were assessed at 6, 12, and 24 months after surgery. Postoperative early and late complications were systematically reviewed. The mean delay between tumoral and reparative surgery was 15.9 +/- 4 months (median 11 months). Preoperatively, the mean percentage facial function score was 11.6 +/- 1.7% (45% of patients with House-Brackmann Grade 5 facial palsy and 55% of patients with House-Brackmann Grade 6). Mean facial function scores increased to 19.3, 32.2, and 43.8% at 6, 12, and 24 months after surgery, respectively. Twenty-four months after surgery, 50% of cases had House-Brackmann Grade 3 facial palsy and 50% had Grade 4. A significantly better recovery at 24 months was observed postoperatively for neural lesions occurring in the mastoid or the brainstem compared with those in the cerebellopontine angle. Tongue hemiparesis was observed in 5 patients (41.7%), 2 of whom had tongue hypotrophy (16.7%). No patient complained of swallowing or speech disturbance. Facial synkinesis was noted in 1 patient (8.3%). Facial recovery after direct end-to-side facial-hypoglossal nerve anastomosis is similar to results observed with end-to-end or end-to-side facial-hypoglossal nerve anastomosis with an interpositional graft. Tongue hypotrophy and palsy were observed in a small number of cases. This procedure allows one to minimize, although not fully prevent, facial synkinesis. The site of the neural lesion appears to be an important factor in the prognosis of recovery." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en218_22031", "title": "Oral and maxillofacial pathology", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Acquired Causes Carcinoma Lingual Thyroid Myxedema Amyloidosis Consequences Noisy breaths, obstructs airway if severe Drooling Difficult in eating Lisping speech Open-bite Protruding tongue, may ulcerate and undergo necrosis Treatments For mild cases, surgical treatment is not mandatory but if speech is affected, speech therapy may be useful. Reduction glossectomy may be required for severe cases. Ankyloglossia Stafne defect Torus palatinus Torus mandibularis" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_99055", "title": "Ramsay Hunt syndrome type 2", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Ramsay Hunt Syndrome Type 2 is estimated to account for 12% of all facial nerve paralysis. It occurs in both immunocompetent and immunocompromised individuals with immunocompromised patients often having more severe disease presentation. RHS may occur in any age group with cases reported in patients ranging in age from 3 months to 82 years. The affected ganglion is responsible for the movements of facial muscles, the touch sensation of a part of ear and ear canal, the taste function of the frontal two-thirds of the tongue, and the moisturization of the eyes and the mouth. The syndrome specifically refers to the combination of this entity with weakness of the muscles activated by the facial nerve. In isolation, the latter is called Bell's palsy. However, as with shingles, the lack of lesions does not definitely exclude the existence of a herpes infection. Even before the eruption of vesicles, varicella zoster virus can be detected from the skin of the ear." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0990_4562", "title": "[Benign tumor of the oral cavity: idiopathic granuloma of the tongue].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The diagnosis of granuloma of the oral cavity can favour the detection of several diseases such as sarcoidosis, Crohn's disease, tuberculosis, syphilis and malignant tumors. In Melkerson Rosenthal syndrome it has an idiopathic origin. In this regard, we here report an original case of idiopathic granuloma of the tongue not secondary to Melkerson Rosenthal syndrome and being part of benign tumors of the oral cavity. The study involved a 60-year old female patient, with no particular past medical history, presenting with discomfort during mastication secondary to a swelling on the free edge of the tongue which had occurred one month before her admission. Physical examination showed overgrowth at the level of the right edge of the tongue measuring 15 mm along its longer axis. The tongue was not plicated and there was no cervical adenopathy. The remainder of the physical examination was normal. MRI of the oral cavity showed suspected necrotizing tissue lesion on the right free edge of the mobile tongue measuring 15x12x19 mm without signs of extension to the ipsilateral lingual pedicle or to the floor of the oral cavity and without cervical adenomegalies. Biopsy of tongue lesion showed gigantocellular epithelioid granulomas without caseous necrosis or histological signs of malignancy. Biologically, there was no inflammatory syndrome, leukopenia or lymphopenia. The assessment of an underlying cause was negative: syphilis serology, evaluation of phosphocalcic profile, dosing of the angiotensin-converting enzyme, intradermo tuberculin reaction, chest radiograph, thoracoabdominopelvic CT scan and ophthalmological examination. Finally, the diagnosis of idiopathic granuloma was retained in the absence of arguments in favor of its secondary nature." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_11095", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.00890960890960891, "content": "neck including carotid endarterectomy. Goodman and coworkers showed a dissecting aneurysm of the carotid artery to have compressed the hypoglossal nerve, with resultant weakness and atrophy of the tongue. Rare instances of temporal arteritis and Takayasu arteritis affecting the carotid artery and adjacent twelfth nerve have been described. Lance and Anthony have described the simultaneous occurrence of nuchal-occipital pain and ipsilateral numbness of the tongue, provoked by the sudden, sharp turning of the head and termed it the neck–tongue syndrome. The phenomenon has been attributed to compression in the atlantoaxial space of the second cervical root, which carries some of the sensory fibers from the tongue, via the hypoglossal nerve, to the C2 segment of the spinal cord." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0872_17795", "title": "Transposition of the Intratemporal Facial to Hypoglossal Nerve for Reanimation of the Paralyzed Face: The VII to XII TranspositionTechnique.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The hypoglossal nerve has long been an axonal source for reinnervation of the paralyzed face. In this study, we report our experience with transposition of the intratemporal facial nerve to the hypoglossal nerve for facial reanimation. To determine the feasibility and outcomes of the transposition of the infratemeporal facial nerve for end-to-side coaptation to the hypoglossal nerve for facial reanimation. A case series of 20 patients with facial paralysis who underwent mobilization and transposition of the intratemporal segment of the facial nerve for an end-to-side coaptation to the hypoglossal nerve (the VII to XII technique). Participants were treated between January 2007 and December 2014 at a tertiary care center. Outcome measures include paralysis duration, facial tone, facial symmetry at rest, and with smile, oral commissure excursion, post-reanimation volitional smile, and synkinesis. Demographic data, the effects of this technique on facial tone, symmetry, oral commissure excursion and smile recovery were evaluated. Preoperative and postoperative photography and videography were reviewed. Facial symmetry was assessed with a facial asymmetry index. Smile outcomes were evaluated with a visual smile recovery scale, and lip excursion was assessed with the MEEI-SMILE system. All 20 patients had adequate length of facial nerve mobilized for direct end-to-side coaptation to the hypoglossal nerve. The median duration of facial paralysis prior to treatment was 11.4 months. Median follow-up time was 29 months. Three patients were excluded from functional analysis due to lack of follow-up. Facial symmetry at rest and during animation improved in 16 of 17 patients. The median (range) time for return of facial muscle tone was 7.3 (2.0-12.0) months. A significant reduction in facial asymmetry index occurred at rest and with movement. The MEEI FACE-gram software detected a significant increase in horizontal, vertical, overall lip excursion and smile angle. No patient developed significant tongue atrophy, impaired tongue mobility, or speech or swallow dysfunction. Mobilization of the intratemporal segment of the facial nerve provides adequate length for direct end-to-end coaptation to the hypoglossal nerve and is effective in restoring facial tone and symmetry after facial paralysis. The resulting smile is symmetric or nearly symmetric in the majority of patients with varying degree of dental show. The additional length provided by utilizing the intratemporal segment of the facial nerve reduces the deficits associated with complete hypoglossal division/splitting, and avoids the need for interposition grafts and multiple coaptation sites. 4." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0043_5479", "title": "Tongue in cheek.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Apyogenic granuloma is an innocent lesion commonly found on the gingiva, but can occur at other oral sites. A case is reported of a tongue lesion which had been present for 20 years and is unusually large." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1156_22619", "title": "Isolated bilateral hypoglossal nerve paralysis following an atlanto-occipital dislocation: A case report.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "The present report highlights a case of successful treatment of an 11-year-old male patient who presented with an atlanto-occipital dislocation and multiple fractures of the forearm, pelvis, and lower leg because of a fall. The patient experienced dysarthria and paralysis of the tongue, which became completely immobile and could not be moved from side to side, impeding speech. The patient also experienced dysphagia due to the inability to propel food toward the pharynx and chewing attempts resulted in scattering of food residue throughout the oral cavity. The lack of tongue mobility led to saliva accumulation, forcing the patient to swallow frequently, which was possible as larynx movement was unaffected. The other cranial and motor sensory nerves appeared normal. Our diagnostic examinations confirmed the presence of isolated bilateral paralysis of the hypoglossal nerve secondary to traction at the base of the skull. The patient was still unable to protrude his tongue and tongue gradually atrophied two weeks after admission. Electromyography revealed denervation of the tongue and minimal active contraction of the single motor units. Immobilization therapy and rehabilitation therapy were initiated to improve tongue movement, but this was unsuccessful and one month after the accident, the patient's tongue was still atrophied. The patient was placed on a soft food diet and experienced no difficulty in swallowing either saliva or food three months after admission. Tongue mobility was deemed normal. Electromyography six months after the initial episode revealed normal motor unit potentials during contractions. We postulate that compression and stretching of the bilateral hypoglossal nerves against the greater horn of the hyoid bone was a probable cause of the hypoglossal palsy. The use of immobilization and rehabilitation therapy likely supported the recovery of functionality and resulted in a good prognosis." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 139, 236 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 21, 38 ] ], "text": "If the HLA is negative it is very unlikely to be celiac disease (high negative predictive value)." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 138 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 21 ] ], "text": "Middle-aged male with iron deficiency anemia and increased number of stools, a colonoscopy should be done to rule out colorectal cancer!!!" } }

{ "1": "Determination of anti-transglutaminase IgA antibodies.", "2": "Upper endoscopy with duodenal biopsies.", "3": "D-xylose test.", "4": "Evaluate response to gluten-free diet.", "5": "Colonoscopy." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0790_3367", "title": "Prudence is necessary in the application of the new ESPGHAN criteria for celiac disease omitting duodenal biopsy: a case report.", "score": 0.018255746411086217, "content": "New guidelines for celiac disease (CD) diagnosis from the European Society for Paediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology, and Nutrition (ESPGHAN) propose the option to omit the duodenal biopsy in the diagnosis of CD. For this option, all four of the following criteria have to apply in children and adolescents: signs and symptoms suggestive of CD, anti-transglutaminase type 2 antibody (anti-TG2) levels more than 10 times the upper limit of normal, positive confirmation tests of anti-endomysium-IgA antibodies (EMA), and at-risk HLA-DQ2 or HLA-DQ8. Here, we report the case of a female patient, 2 years old, with chronic diarrhea that started after an acute viral gastroenteritis. The patient had anti-TG2 levels of more than 10 times the upper limit of normal, positivity for EMA, antigliadin IgA, and IgG (AGA-IgA, AGA-IgG, respectively), and the at-risk HLA-DRB1*0301, DQB1*0201/DRB1*10, DQB1*0501 genotype, thus fulfilling all criteria for the diagnosis of CD. Although the diarrhea disappeared after about 5 weeks, anti-TG2, EMA, and AGA-IgG remained positive. Therefore, a duodenal biopsy was performed and evidenced a normal mucosa (Marsh 0). After about 18 months, the antibody titer for AGA-IgG, anti-TG2, and EMA became negative. The patient was all the time on a normal, gluten-containing diet. This clinical case represents an exception to the new ESPGHAN guidelines for CD diagnosis. During 5 weeks, the new ESPGHAN criteria were all fulfilled, allowing to propose for this patient the diagnosis of CD without performing a duodenal biopsy. Therefore, a prudent approach is suggested when the pediatric gastroenterologist makes a diagnosis of CD without duodenal biopsy. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0973_15515", "title": "AGA Clinical Practice Update on Diagnosis and Monitoring of Celiac Disease-Changing Utility of Serology and Histologic Measures: Expert Review.", "score": 0.01823607427055703, "content": "The purpose of this clinical practice update is to define key modalities in the diagnosis and monitoring of celiac disease (CD) in adults as well as in children and adolescents. The recommendations outlined in this expert review are based on available published evidence, including cohort and case-control studies of the diagnostic process as well as controlled and descriptive studies of disease management. Best Practice Advice 1: Serology is a crucial component of the detection and diagnosis of CD, particularly tissue transglutaminase-immunoglobulin A (TG2-IgA), IgA testing, and less frequently, endomysial IgA testing. Best Practice Advice 2: Thorough histological analysis of duodenal biopsies with Marsh classification, counting of lymphocytes per high-power field, and morphometry is important for diagnosis as well as for differential diagnosis. Best Practice Advice 2a: TG2-IgA, at high levels (&gt; ×10 upper normal limit) is a reliable and accurate test for diagnosing active CD. When such a strongly positive TG2-IgA is combined with a positive endomysial antibody in a second blood sample, the positive predictive value for CD is virtually 100%. In adults, esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and duodenal biopsies may then be performed for purposes of differential diagnosis. Best Practice Advice 3: IgA deficiency is an infrequent but important explanation for why patients with CD may be negative on IgA isotype testing despite strong suspicion. Measuring total IgA levels, IgG deamidated gliadin antibody tests, and TG2-IgG testing in that circumstance is recommended. Best Practice Advice 4: IgG isotype testing for TG2 antibody is not specific in the absence of IgA deficiency. Best Practice Advice 5: In patients found to have CD first by intestinal biopsies, celiac-specific serology should be undertaken as a confirmatory test before initiation of a gluten-free diet (GFD). Best Practice Advice 6: In patients in whom CD is strongly suspected in the face of negative biopsies, TG2-IgA should still be performed and, if positive, repeat biopsies might be considered either at that time or sometime in the future. Best Practice Advice 7: Reduction or avoidance of gluten before diagnostic testing is discouraged, as it may reduce the sensitivity of both serology and biopsy testing. Best Practice Advice 8: When patients have already started on a GFD before diagnosis, we suggest that the patient go back on a normal diet with 3 slices of wheat bread daily preferably for 1 to 3 months before repeat determination of TG2-IgA. Best Practice Advice 9: Determination of HLA-DQ2/DQ8 has a limited role in the diagnosis of CD. Its value is largely related to its negative predictive value to rule out CD in patients who are seronegative in the face of histologic changes, in patients who did not have serologic confirmation at the time of diagnosis, and in those patients with a historic diagnosis of CD; especially as very young children before the introduction of celiac-specific serology. Best Practice Advice 10: Celiac serology has a guarded role in the detection of continued intestinal injury, in particular as to sensitivity, as negative serology in a treated patient does not guarantee that the intestinal mucosa has healed. Persistently positive serology usually indicates ongoing intestinal damage and gluten exposure. Follow-up serology should be performed 6 and 12 months after diagnosis, and yearly thereafter. Best Practice Advice 11: Patients with persistent or relapsing symptoms, without other obvious explanations for those symptoms, should undergo endoscopic biopsies to determine healing even in the presence of negative TG2-IgA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1093_3717", "title": "[Celiac disease:a case report detailing clinical and pathological improvement with a gluten-free diet].", "score": 0.016680509413067552, "content": "Celiac disease has a morbidity of 0.2 to 1% in Europe and the United States (US), but appears to be extremely rare in Japan with only a few case reports. This report details a Japanese woman with celiac disease diagnosed by histopathological findings and the improvement of her clinical symptoms on a gluten-free diet. The woman was in her 60s and presented with diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting which were repeatedly exacerbated over several weeks. Therefore, she was referred to our hospital for a detailed examination and treatment. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy revealed a crude granular mucosa with an erythematous color in the duodenum. No special findings were noted on colonoscopy or capsular endoscopy. Histopathological findings of the duodenum noted villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocytic infiltration within the surface epithelium, which were suspicious for celiac disease. A gluten-free diet was started which resulted in improved clinical symptoms. Repeat endoscopic imaging and histopathological findings after initiation of the gluten-free diet demonstrated improved small bowel villous atrophy. In this case, appropriate testing had ruled out inflammatory bowel disease, amyloidosis, infectious enteritis, parasitic disease, and allergies. Although anti-gliadin antibody (AGA) and anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody (ATTGA) were serologically negative, and HLA typing was HLA-DQ6, the patient was ultimately diagnosed as having celiac disease based on the characteristic pathological findings and clinical course. In many cases of celiac disease reported in Japan, serum antibodies such as AGA and ATTGA have not been detected, and HLA testing has been negative for DQ2 or DQ8. Therefore, it is possible that celiac disease in Japan might have different genetic and immunological characteristics than the disease in the US and Europe. In the future, additional cases with histology and molecular biological analysis are necessary to test this hypothesis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0690_5319", "title": "Controversies in the laboratory diagnosis of celiac disease in children; new haplotypes discovered.", "score": 0.0163265306122449, "content": "The latest consensus on celiac disease in 2008, under the auspices of the International Societies of Pediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology and Nutrition, shows that HLA DQ2/DQ8 typing indicates the highest negative predictive value for celiac disease, which would exclude the diagnosis of celiac disease. In Romania, there are no studies on the implication of HLA-DQ2/DQ8 in celiac disease in children. The aim of our study was to analyze the significance of genetic tests, with a focus on negative HLA-DQ2/DQ8 cases, as well as to determine the main haplotypes involved in celiac disease in children. We tested in 37 children with old celiac disease, confirmed based on the presence of intestinal villi changes on duodenal biopsy, the IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies (TgA-IgA) by ELISA and the IgA anti-endomysium antibodies (EmA-IgA) by indirect immunofluorescence, compared to HLA-DQ2/DQ8 typing by polymerase chain reaction (PCR). In 25 children, the determined HLA haplotypes predominantly belonged to DQ2, and in 3 children we report the presence of a new haplotype, DR3-DQ2/DR4-DQ8, formed by pattern 1, DR3-DQ2-the DQA1*0501 and DQB1*0201 alleles, and pattern 5, DR4-DQ8-the DQA1*0301 and DQB1*0302 alleles. In 9 children, genetic tests were negative for celiac disease. The identification of HLA-DQ2/DQ8 provides additional data in the diagnosis of celiac disease, but a rigid algorithm in the diagnosis of celiac disease has no practical applicability." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0804_23776", "title": "What a practitioner needs to know about celiac disease?", "score": 0.01601640079441348, "content": "Celiac disease (CD) is an immune-mediated systemic disorder elicited by gluten and related prolamines in genetically susceptible individuals and is characterized by the presence of a variable combination of gluten-dependent clinical manifestations, CD-specific antibodies, HLA-DQ2 or HLA-DQ8 haplotypes and enteropathy. CD is triggered by wheat gluten and related prolamines in barley and rye. Worldwide, the disease affects approximately 1 % of the general population. Clinical features of CD vary considerably. Intestinal symptoms are more common in young children. In older children extra intestinal manifestations affecting almost all organs are seen. IgA tTG antibody, upper GI endoscopy with histological analysis of multiple biopsies of the duodenum and in selected cases HLA DQ2 and DQ8 positivity and endomysial antibodies (EMA) are needed for diagnosis. Currently, the only treatment for CD is a life-long gluten-free diet (GFD). Strict avoidance of wheat, rye, barley and their derivatives will result in intestinal healing and relief of symptoms for the majority of individuals with CD. The GFD is simple in principle, however, completely eliminating all foods and ingredients containing wheat, rye, barley, and most commercial oats can be very challenging. Newly diagnosed CD children should undergo testing and treatment for micronutrient deficiencies specially iron, folic acid, vitamin D, and vitamin B12. Long-term monitoring and follow up of patients with CD is necessary." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en166_43253", "title": "Gluten-related disorders", "score": 0.015359477124183007, "content": "Eliminating the possibility of CD can generally also be done by adding HLA-DQ typing. The absence of HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 has a very high negative predictive value for CD, and the predictive value can be further enhanced by including HLA-DQ7.5 (HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 are found in coeliac disease 98% of the time in Caucasians, HLA-DQ7.5 present in the remaining 1.6% and only 0.4% of Caucasians are missed with the combination of these three). Without serological or HLA-DQ2/8 positivity, celiac disease is likely not present. HLA-DQ typing has a practical advantage in that it is the only diagnostic test that allows to exclude CD when a person is already on a gluten-free diet; however, as not only celiacs are HLA-DQ2/HLA-DQ8 positive, this method has a higher false positive rate than anti-TG2 and EMA antibody testing." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0740_24258", "title": "Celiac disease: the new proposed ESPGHAN diagnostic criteria do work well in a selected population.", "score": 0.015159747880895457, "content": "The need for an early and accurate diagnosis in celiac disease (CD) has focused attention on new diagnostic approaches, based on the efficiency of serological markers and the high negative predictive value of human leukocyte antigen (HLA) non-DQ2/8. We performed a retrospective review of all of the patients suspected of having CD who had undergone a small bowel biopsy in our gastroenterology unit. All symptomatic children with serological marker at time of biopsy (immunoglobulin A-tissue transglutaminase antibody, endomysial antibody, and HLA genotype) were included. The triple test (TT) was positive if immunoglobulin A-tissue transglutaminase antibody was 10 times the upper limit of normal, plus positive endomysial antibody plus human leukocyte antigen-DQ2/DQ8. A total of 150 patients met the inclusion criteria and were enrolled in the study. One hundred sixteen were positive for the TT; 113 of 116 (97.4%) had a Marsh 2/3 histological lesion and had been considered to have CD. Thus, positive predictive value of the TT was 97.4%. The other 3 cases (2.6%) had Marsh 0/1 lesion, so we consider them to be false-positives for the TT; however, on follow-up, all 3 children developed histological damage after a gluten challenge. Finally, the positive predictive value of the TT was 100%. Thirty-four patients were negative for the TT: 22 patients are celiac, 3 are celiac but challenge gluten diet is pending, and the 9 patients left have other gastrointestinal disorder. Our study supports the view that in selected children who are symptomatic and positive for the TT, CD diagnosis could be established independent of histological findings." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en425_11196", "title": "Non-celiac gluten sensitivity", "score": 0.014470642625982431, "content": "Many people remove gluten from their diet after a long history of health complaints and unsuccessful consultations with numerous physicians, who simply consider them to be suffering from irritable bowel syndrome, and some may eliminate gluten before seeking medical attention. This fact can diminish the CD serological markers titers and may attenuate the inflammatory changes found in the duodenal biopsies. In these cases, patients should be tested for the presence of HLA-DQ2/DQ8 genetic markers because a negative HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 result has a high negative predictive value for celiac disease. If these markers are positive, it is advisable to undertake a gluten challenge under medical supervision, followed by serology and duodenal biopsies. However, gluten challenge protocols have significant limitations, because a symptomatic relapse generally precedes the onset of a serological and histological relapse, and therefore becomes unacceptable for many patients. Gluten challenge is also" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0910_3189", "title": "Accuracy in Diagnosis of Celiac Disease Without Biopsies in Clinical Practice.", "score": 0.014358522003332354, "content": "The guidelines of the European Society of Pediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology, and Nutrition allow for diagnosis of celiac disease without biopsies in children with symptoms and levels of immunoglobulin A against tissue-transglutaminase (TGA-IgA) 10-fold or more the upper limit of normal (ULN), confirmed by detection of endomysium antibodies (EMA) and positivity for HLA-DQ2/DQ8. We performed a large, international prospective study to validate this approach. We collected data from consecutive pediatric patients (18 years or younger) on a gluten-containing diet who tested positive for TGA-IgA from November 2011 through May 2014, seen at 33 pediatric gastroenterology units in 21 countries. Local centers recorded symptoms; measurements of total IgA, TGA, and EMA; and histopathology findings from duodenal biopsies. Children were considered to have malabsorption if they had chronic diarrhea, weight loss (or insufficient gain), growth failure, or anemia. We directly compared central findings from 16 antibody tests (8 for TGA-IgA, 1 for TGA-IgG, 6 for IgG against deamidated gliadin peptides, and 1 for EMA, from 5 different manufacturers), 2 HLA-DQ2/DQ8 tests from 2 manufacturers, and histopathology findings from the reference pathologist. Final diagnoses were based on local and central results. If all local and central results were concordant for celiac disease, cases were classified as proven celiac disease. Patients with only a low level of TGA-IgA (threefold or less the ULN) but no other results indicating celiac disease were classified as no celiac disease. Central histo-morphometry analyses were performed on all other biopsies and cases were carefully reviewed in a blinded manner. Inconclusive cases were regarded as not having celiac disease for calculation of diagnostic accuracy. The primary aim was to determine whether the nonbiopsy approach identifies children with celiac disease with a positive predictive value (PPV) above 99% in clinical practice. Secondary aims included comparing performance of different serological tests and to determine whether the suggested criteria can be simplified. Of 803 children recruited for the study, 96 were excluded due to incomplete data, low level of IgA, or poor-quality biopsies. In the remaining 707 children (65.1% girls; median age, 6.2 years), 645 were diagnosed with celiac disease, 46 were found not to have celiac disease, and 16 had inconclusive results. Findings from local laboratories of TGA-IgA 10-fold or more the ULN, a positive result from the test for EMA, and any symptom identified children with celiac disease (n = 399) with a PPV of 99.75 (95% confidence interval [CI], 98.61-99.99); the PPV was 100.00 (95% CI, 98.68-100.00) when only malabsorption symptoms were used instead of any symptom (n = 278). Inclusion of HLA analyses did not increase accuracy. Findings from central laboratories differed greatly for patients with lower levels of antibodies, but when levels of TGA-IgA were 10-fold or more the ULN, PPVs ranged from 99.63 (95% CI, 98.67-99.96) to 100.00 (95% CI, 99.23-100.00). Children can be accurately diagnosed with celiac disease without biopsy analysis. Diagnosis based on level of TGA-IgA 10-fold or more the ULN, a positive result from the EMA tests in a second blood sample, and the presence of at least 1 symptom could avoid risks and costs of endoscopy for more than half the children with celiac disease worldwide. HLA analysis is not required for accurate diagnosis. Clinical Trial Registration no: DRKS00003555." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_39893", "title": "Coeliac disease", "score": 0.01424775517683709, "content": "Other antibodies such as anti–Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies occur in some people with coeliac disease but also occur in other autoimmune disorders and about 5% of those who donate blood. Antibody testing may be combined with HLA testing if the diagnosis is unclear. TGA and EMA testing are the most sensitive serum antibody tests, but as a negative HLA-DQ type excludes the diagnosis of coeliac disease, testing also for HLA-DQ2 or DQ8 maximises sensitivity and negative predictive values. In the United Kingdom, the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) does not (as of 2015) recommend the use of HLA typing to rule out coeliac disease outside of a specialist setting, for example, in children who are not having a biopsy, or in patients who already have limited gluten ingestion and opt not to have a gluten challenge. Endoscopy" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0790_12329", "title": "Clinical utility of celiac disease-associated HLA testing.", "score": 0.014036643026004728, "content": "Negative predictive value (NPV) of celiac disease (CD)-related human leukocyte antigens (HLA) DQ2 and DQ8 approaches 100 % in individual patients. However, studies evaluating its exclusionary utility in patient groups are lacking. We aim to assess the performance of HLA testing when applied to patient groups with varying characteristics and propose evidence-based recommendations for its clinical use. Demographic and clinical information was recorded in patients undergoing HLA testing. Using predetermined criteria, patients were classified as CD, non-CD, or indeterminate. Diagnostic yield of HLA testing was defined as the percentage of patients in whom CD could be excluded based on negative HLA test. Two hundred and fifty-six patients underwent testing for CD-related HLA DQ2 and DQ8. 102 (100 non-CD, 2 CD) patients tested HLA negative for a 98 % NPV and 39 % diagnostic yield. Diagnostic yield was highest (60 %) in patients with intraepithelial lymphocytosis plus normal IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody (IgA-tTG) and lowest in patients with positive IgA-tTG plus villous atrophy (0 %). CD was diagnosed in two HLA-negative patients, who carried half of DQ2.5 trans genotype. Diagnostic yield of CD-related HLA testing varies widely depending on clinical indication. HLA testing is a practical and valuable test for most patients in whom initial evaluation for CD is inconclusive. A negative HLA result usually obviates the need for further celiac testing including endoscopy and gluten challenge. Rarely, in patients reported as HLA negative, half of HLA DQ2.5 (cis or trans) is sufficient for development of CD." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en496_1328", "title": "Duodenal lymphocytosis", "score": 0.013853559268970375, "content": "Antibodies associated with coeliac disease were reported in around 11% of cases. These IgA endomysial antibodies and anti-transglutaminase antibodies are very sensitive and specific for coeliac disease implying that this proportion of duodenal lymphocytosis cases has definite coeliac disease. Around 33% of cases have the HLA-DQ2 allele, which is found in over 90% of people with coeliac disease. Absence of HLA-DQ2 (and the rarer HLA-DQ8) makes coeliac disease most unlikely. As antibody-negative coeliac disease is recognised, HLA status, persistence or progression of the duodenal IEL numbers following a gluten challenge, followed by symptomatic improvement on a gluten-free diet, has been used to be more certain about the diagnosis, which was made in 22% of one series of over 200 adult cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1092_16075", "title": "SERONEGATIVE CELIAC DISEASE IN BRAZILIAN PATIENTS: A SERIES OF CASES.", "score": 0.013624586795318503, "content": "Celiac disease (CD) is an autoimmune disease characterized by immune reaction mostly to wheat gluten. The diagnosis is based on clinical, serological and histological findings in patients ingesting gluten. Cases that the clinical profile indicates CD and the autoantibodies are negative bring so a dilemma for the professional, as the risk of missed the diagnosis or a delay at the same. To show the importance of correct diagnosis of cases with seronegative celiac disease (SNCD). Ten cases of SNCD Brazilian patients were retrospectively studied (2013 to 2019). Data of clinical complaints, autoantibodies, IgA serum levels, histological findings and HLA-DQ2/DQ-8 were compiled. Dual-X densitometry, delay at diagnosis, previous autoimmune diseases and family history of CD were also checked. All SNCD patients presented clinical symptoms of CD, with confirmed diagnosis by histological findings of the duodenal mucosa and HLA-DQ2 and/or HLA-DQ8 positivity. All patients had normal IgA levels and negative autoantibodies (IgA-anti-transglutaminase and anti-endomysial). Dual-X densitometry detected osteopenia in two women and osteoporosis in two males, all with low levels of vitamin D. Delay diagnostic ranged from 1 to 19 years. Familiar occurrence of CD was reported in 40% of the cases. After one year of gluten-free diet, eight patients refer improve of symptoms, while duodenal biopsies, done in five cases, showed histological improvement. Patients who demonstrate the clinical profile of celiac disease with negative serology and normal levels of IgA, especially those who have family members with celiac disease, should be submitted to duodenal biopsies to look for histological findings." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en166_43254", "title": "Gluten-related disorders", "score": 0.012854368932038835, "content": "A four-of-five rule was proposed 2010 for confirming celiac disease, with the disease confirmed if at least four of the following five criteria are satisfied: typical symptoms of celiac disease; positivity of serum celiac disease immunoglobulin, A class autoantibodies at high titer; human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-DQ2 or DQ8 genotypes; celiac enteropathy at the small bowel biopsy; and response to the gluten-free diet. For diagnosis of wheat allergy, allergy tests are available. Treatment For people with celiac disease, a lifelong strict gluten-free diet is the only effective treatment to date; For people diagnosed with non-celiac gluten sensitivity, there are still open questions concerning for example the duration of such a diet. The results of a 2017 study suggest that non-celiac gluten sensitivity may be a chronic disorder, as is the case with celiac disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en425_11188", "title": "Non-celiac gluten sensitivity", "score": 0.012783877274778163, "content": "To evaluate the possible presence of celiac disease, specific serology and duodenal biopsies are required while the person is still on a diet that includes gluten. Serological markers Serological CD markers (IgA tissue transglutaminase , IgA endomysial [EmA] and IgG deamidated gliadin peptide [DGP] antibodies) are always negative in those with NCGS; in addition to specific IgA autoantibody levels, it is necessary to determine total IgA levels. IgG antibodies should be checked in selective IgA deficiency, which can be associated with celiac disease and occurs in as many as one in 40 celiac patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_39891", "title": "Coeliac disease", "score": 0.012620192307692308, "content": "If all these antibodies are negative, then anti-DGP antibodies (antibodies against deamidated gliadin peptides) should be determined. IgG class anti-DGP antibodies may be useful in people with IgA deficiency. In children younger than two years, anti-DGP antibodies perform better than anti-endomysial and anti-transglutaminase antibodies tests. Because of the major implications of a diagnosis of coeliac disease, professional guidelines recommend that a positive blood test is still followed by an endoscopy/gastroscopy and biopsy. A negative serology test may still be followed by a recommendation for endoscopy and duodenal biopsy if clinical suspicion remains high." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en166_43252", "title": "Gluten-related disorders", "score": 0.012559696160643778, "content": "Diagnosis A literature review of 2014 found that non-coeliac gluten sensitivity diagnosis can be reached only by excluding celiac disease (CD) and wheat allergy. Persons suspected of having celiac disease may undergo serological testing for IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies (abbreviated anti-tTG antibodies or anti-TG2 antibodies) and anti-endomysial antibodies (abbreviated EMA) provided the IgA-level is high, and if IgA is low, testing for certain IgG antibodies; in case of positive serological indication, a duodenal biopsy may confirm active celiac disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en425_11187", "title": "Non-celiac gluten sensitivity", "score": 0.012433862433862432, "content": "The prevalence of undiagnosed celiac disease has increased fourfold during the past half-century, with most cases remaining unrecognized, undiagnosed and untreated, leaving celiac patients with the risk of long-term complications. Some people with NCGS may indeed have celiac disease. A 2015 systematic review found that 20% of people with NCGS presenting with HLA-DQ2 and/or HLA-DQ8 haplotypes, negative serology, and normal histology or duodenal lymphocytosis had celiac disease. The presence of autoimmune symptoms in people with NCGS suggests the possibility of undiagnosed celiac disease. Autoimmune diseases typically associated with celiac disease are diabetes mellitus type 1, thyroiditis, gluten ataxia, psoriasis, vitiligo, autoimmune hepatitis, dermatitis herpetiformis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and others. To evaluate the possible presence of celiac disease, specific serology and duodenal biopsies are required while the person is still on a diet that includes gluten." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en573_3554", "title": "Indolent T cell lymphoproliferative disorder of the gastrointestinal tract", "score": 0.012408680704770091, "content": "Celiac disease: A high proportion of patients with CD4+ ITCLD-GT and rare cases of CD8+ ITCLD-GT have been misdiagnosed as having celiac disease. Unlike celiac disease, ITCLD-GT: a) is unresponsive to gluten-free diets: b) is negative for antigens detected in standard celiac disease serology blood tests such as anti-transglutaminase antibodies; c) has infiltrating clonal T cells which do not express HLA-DQ2 or HLA-DQ8 human leukocyte antigens; and d) have lesions populated by mature, slowly proliferating clonal T cells which are CD56- and either CD4+, CD8+, CD4+/CD8+, or CD4-/CD8-. However, rare patients have been inflicted with both celiac disease and ITCLD-GT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0727_145", "title": "Is routine duodenal biopsy necessary for the detection of celiac disease in patients presenting with iron deficiency anemia?", "score": 0.011931818181818182, "content": "Iron deficiency anemia (IDA) is one of the well recognized presentations of celiac disease (CD). According to the lack of data from our population in this regard, we determined the prevalence of CD in patients presenting with IDA to see if it is worthwhile to do a precise screening for CD in such patients. This cross-sectional study was conducted on patients referred with IDA to Poursina Hakim Gastroenterology Clinic, Isfahan (IRAN). All included patients underwent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and duodenal biopsy. Histopathological changes were assessed according to the Marsh classification. Also, patients were evaluated for IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase (t-TG) antibody with enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) technique. CD was defined as having Marsh II or above histopathology or being seropositive with Marsh I histopathology and having a good response to gluten free diet (GFD). During the study, 130 patients with the mean age of 35.5±13.7 (67.7% female [20.4% post-menopausal]) were undergone seropathological studies. According to histopathological study and a clinical response to GFD, 13 patients (10%) were ultimately diagnosed with CD. Nine patients (6.9%) were seropositive, from which, five patients (3.8%) were ultimately diagnosed as CD cases. IgA anti-tTG became negative in all of these patients after six months of GFD. CD should be considered in any adult patient presenting with unexplained IDA, even if not accompanied with gastrointestinal symptoms. Routine duodenal biopsy performed during diagnostic upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is worthwhile in order to investigate for CD as an underlying cause of IDA in adult patients." }, { "id": "article-38833_36", "title": "Gluten-Associated Medical Problems -- Evaluation -- CD", "score": 0.010687557206697895, "content": "Positive serology and a high probability of celiac (regardless of serology) will necessitate a small bowel biopsy. Pathology is varied, and staining methods can identify areas of villous atrophy. Video capsules sometimes reveal classic features of the disease and alleviate the need for biopsy. This is especially true in more distal disease. The disease is confirmed when serology and pathology are compatible, and there is the resolution of symptoms and pathology with a gluten-free diet. In case there is still a diagnostic dilemma after all these steps, genetic testing for susceptibility with HLA DQ2/DQ8 check is required. A negative test will rule out celiac. Occasionally a gluten challenge is needed, and serology/pathology response to gluten challenge will yield the diagnosis. [24]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0643_21301", "title": "Prevalence, human leukocyte antigen typing and strategy for screening among Asian first-degree relatives of children with celiac disease.", "score": 0.010613738738738738, "content": "Data on prevalence, human leukocyte antigen (HLA) typing and small bowel histology among first-degree relatives of subjects with celiac disease (CD) is scarce. This prospective study evaluated the prevalence and role of HLA DQ2/8 testing in screening of first-degree relatives of children with CD. Thirty confirmed children with CD and 91/94 first-degree relatives (parents and siblings) were enrolled. HLA DQ2/8 testing was carried out in all index CD cases. Clinical evaluation with a questionnaire, total serum immunoglobulin A (IgA), human IgA-tissue transglutaminase (IgA-tTGA) and HLA DQ2/8 testing was carried out in all first-degree relatives. Subjects who were positive for IgA-tTGA were recommended endoscopic duodenal biopsy to document histological changes of CD. Nine first-degree relatives were positive for IgA-tTGA, seven underwent duodenal biopsy and four subjects had Marsh IIIa changes suggestive of CD. The prevalence of histologically confirmed CD in first-degree relatives was 4.4%. The prevalence of potential CD was 9.8%. IgA-tTGA-positive subjects (4/9) were significantly more often symptomatic than IgA-tTGA-negative first-degree relatives (2/82). Twenty-nine (96.6%) index cases of CD and all IgA-tTGA-positive first-degree relatives were positive for HLA DQ2. None of the index CD cases or first-degree relatives were HLA DQ8-positive. A total of 85% of the first-degree relatives were positive for HLA DQ2 and thus at risk of developing CD. In this first Asian study on a limited number of families of children with CD, 4.4% of the first-degree relatives had CD. Only 15% of the first-degree relatives were negative for HLA DQ2/DQ8. Initial evaluation with HLA and serology followed by only serial serology in HLA-positive relatives is recommended." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en425_11192", "title": "Non-celiac gluten sensitivity", "score": 0.010558069381598794, "content": "In people with duodenal lymphocytosis – following guidelines from the European Society of Pediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology and Nutrition (ESPGHAN) – a high count of celiac disease cells (or CD/CD3 ratio) in immunohistochemical assessment of biopsies, or the presence of IgA anti-TG2 and/or anti-endomysial intestinal deposits, might be specific markers for celiac disease. Catassi and Fasano proposed in 2010 that in patients without celiac disease antibodies, either lymphocytic infiltration associated with IgA subepithelial deposits or a histological response to a gluten-free diet, could support a diagnosis of celiac disease. Wheat allergy The clinical presentation may be sufficient in most cases to distinguish a wheat allergy from other entities. It is excluded when there are normal levels of serum IgE antibodies to gluten proteins and wheat fractions, and no skin reaction to prick tests for wheat allergy. Nevertheless, these tests are not always completely reliable." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en229_6284", "title": "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "score": 0.01034365574954335, "content": "The diagnosis may be confirmed by a simple blood test for IgA antibodies against tissue transglutaminase (which cross-react with epidermal transglutaminase), and by a skin biopsy in which the pattern of IgA deposits in the dermal papillae, revealed by direct immunofluorescence, distinguishes it from linear IgA bullous dermatosis and other forms of dermatitis. Additionally, the concomitant diagnosis of Celiac disease can be made without the need for a small-intenstinal biopsy if an individual has biopsy-confirmed dermatitis herpetiformis as well as supporting serologic studies (elevated levels of IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies, IgA epidermal transglutaminase antibodies, or IgA endomysial antibodies). These tests should be performed before the patient starts on a gluten-free diet, otherwise they might produce false negatives." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en425_11186", "title": "Non-celiac gluten sensitivity", "score": 0.01003897193034384, "content": "Celiac disease The main goal in diagnosing NCGS is to exclude celiac disease. NCGS and celiac disease cannot be separated in diagnosis because many gastrointestinal and non-gastrointestinal symptoms are similar in both diseases, and there are people with celiac disease having negative serology (absence of specific celiac disease antibodies in serum) or without villus atrophy. There is no test capable of eliminating a diagnosis of a celiac disease, but such a diagnosis is unlikely without confirming HLA-DQ2 and/or HLA-DQ8 haplotypes." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en496_1329", "title": "Duodenal lymphocytosis", "score": 0.009925671812464266, "content": "Helicobacter infection is a common finding at endoscopy and although duodenal IEL counts were found to be slightly higher with this infection, this was not considered to be a meaningful cause in children. Other infections, including Cryptosporidiosis and Giardiasis can also be associated with an increase in IELs. Management The management is that of any identified associated disorder such as a gluten free diet for cases with coeliac disease or treatment of associated infections. Prognosis When duodenal lymphocytosis is associated with other features of coeliac disease, in particular positive antibodies, or HLA-DQ2/8 and a family history, treatment with a gluten-free diet produces an improvement in IEL numbers. Diarrhoea, thyroiditis, weakness and folate deficiency were other predictors of the development of gluten sensitivity and coeliac disease, which developed in 23 of 85 patients over 2 years in one series. References Gastrointestinal tract disorders Inflammations Pathology" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0763_22694", "title": "Fingertip rapid point-of-care test in adult case-finding in coeliac disease.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Coeliac disease (CD), due to its protean clinical manifestation, is still very under diagnosed in adults and delays in diagnosis may take years and even decades. Simple tools to find cases in primary care may help to identify patients for further diagnostic tests. We have evaluated the usefulness of an on site rapid fingertip whole blood point-of-care test (POCT) for such a purpose. As CD is known to run within families, we tested 148 healthy relatives of 70 Romanian index cases with biopsy-proven CD (87% of all first-degree family members, median age 36 years) for the presence of circulating autoantibodies. In addition to performing the POCT (which measures blood erythrocyte self-TG2-autoantibody complexes) on site, blood was drawn for later evaluations of serum IgA-class endomysial antibodies (EMA). EMA-positive sera were further tested for transglutaminase 2 antibodies (TG2-IgA). All serological parameters were analyzed blindly in a centralized laboratory that had no knowledge of the on site POCT result. Endoscopic small intestinal biopsies was recommended for all POCT- or EMA-test positive subjects. In on site testing the POCT was positive in 12/148 first-degree relatives (8%) and all these subjects were also serum EMA-positive. A positive EMA test was found only in one other subject. All remaining 135 healthy first-degree relatives were negative for both POCT and EMA. Four subjects positive for both POCT and EMA were negative for TG2-IgA. Ten out of thirteen of the antibody-positive subjects agreed to undergo endoscopy. The POCT was found to be positive in 8/9 first-degree relatives having coeliac-type mucosal lesions of grade Marsh 2 (n = 3) or Marsh 3 (n = 6). The three POCT-positive subjects not agreeing to undergo endoscopy were also both EMA- and TG2-IgA-positive. The fingertip whole blood rapid POCT might fulfill the unmet need for a simple and cheap case-finding biomarker for early detection and presumptive diagnosis of CD. Confirmatory studies are warranted in adult case-finding in specialized outpatient clinics and in primary care." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0506_12240", "title": "The prevalence of celiac disease among family members of celiac disease patients.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Celiac disease (CD) is more common in certain risk groups. Family members of known celiac patients represent the most important group. Serological screening enables us to detect patients before they develop serious complications. HLA typing has also proven to be a valuable diagnostic tool, especially in excluding the disease. To assess the prevalence of CD among family members, we screened 106 first-degree relatives (73 parents, 33 siblings; mean age 27.9 years) of 45 celiac patients in NE Slovenia. We analysed antigliadin (AGA) and antiendomysium (EMA) antibodies. Levels of IgG and IgAAGA were determined using the ELISA method, and EMA using indirect immunofluorescence. Serologically positive patients were recalled for intestinal biopsy and were HLA typed. Intestinal biopsy was performed by peroral aspiration capsule or during upper GI endoscopy. Biopsy specimens were examined histologically. Six family members (5.67%) were both AGA IgG and EMA positive, and one (0.94%) was only EMA positive. All were either HLA DQ2 or DQ8 positive. Nine family members (8.49%) were only AGA IgG positive, two of them lacked the HLA DQ susceptibility alleles. Intestinal biopsy was performed in six family members, and the diagnosis of CD confirmed in five. All were both AGA IgG and EMA positive. They were either symptom-free or had only mild gastrointestinal symptoms, and carried the known HLA DQ risk alleles. The minimum prevalence of CD among family members in NE Slovenia can therefore be estimated at 4.72%. The prevalence of CD among first-degree relatives is much higher than the prevalence of the disease in the general population. Most of these patients have an atypical form of the disease and would therefore be overlooked without an active search. Serological testing is recommended for all first-degree relatives of CD patients; they should also undergo HLA typing to detect those whose HLA phenotype is consistent with CD. This approach can also help in excluding individuals who do not need further diagnostic procedures for CD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0581_21615", "title": "Cost-effectiveness analysis of strategies for diagnosing celiac disease.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To compare strategies for diagnosing celiac disease (CD). A decision analytic model was used to compare five strategies on diagnostic performance and costs. First, tTG screening alone is the least costly strategy ($22/individual). While the NPV is high (99.8%), the PPV is low (63.4%). Second, if tTG-positive patients undergo esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) to confirm CD, the PPV increases to 100% ($2,237/false-positive diagnosis avoided). Third, if EGDs are restricted to only those who are both tTG and HLA DQ2/8 positive, costs are slightly reduced ($59 vs. $63/individual), while PPV and NPV remain unchanged. Fourth, screening tTG-negative patients for IgA deficiency increases the NPV to 99.9% ($32,605/false-negative diagnosis avoided). Sensitivity analyses revealed that as the prevalence of CD increases, the cost of avoiding a false-positive diagnosis by adding EGD to the tTG alone strategy increases considerably. When the pre-test probability of CD is low, patients with positive tTG serology should undergo EGD with biopsy-either directly or after positive screening for HLA DQ2/8-to confirm CD. As the pre-test probability of CD increases, the added cost of EGD should be weighed against the consequences of a false-positive diagnosis. Routinely screening for IgA deficiency in order to avoid a false-negative diagnosis is quite costly." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en166_43246", "title": "Gluten-related disorders", "score": 0.009484050524512951, "content": "Antibodies to α-gliadin have been significantly increased in non-celiacs individuals with oral ulceration. Anti-α-gliadin antibodies are frequently found in celiac disease (CD), to a lesser degree subclinical CD, but are also found in a subset who do not have the disease. Of people with pseudo-exfoliation syndrome, 25% showed increased levels of anti-gliadin IgA. Other people that are also at risk are those taking gluten despite having the disorder, or whose family members have CD. In addition people with autoimmune conditions are also at risk for CD. It has just been found that there is a risk of death in CD. Therefore, gluten intake should be limited before or even after the diagnosis. One-fourth of people with Sjögren's syndrome had responses to gluten; of five that had positive response to gluten, only one could be confirmed as CD and another was potentially , the remaining three appeared to be gluten-sensitive. All were HLA-DQ2 and/or DQ8-positive." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en425_11191", "title": "Non-celiac gluten sensitivity", "score": 0.009450995252212291, "content": "Duodenal biopsies in people with NCGS are always almost normal – an essential parameter for diagnosis of NCGS, although is generally accepted that a subgroup of people with NGCS may have an increased number of duodenal intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELs) ( ≥25/100 enterocytes), which represent Marsh I lesions. Nevertheless, Marsh I is considered compatible with celiac disease and the most frequent cause of these findings, especially in people positive for HLA DQ2 and/or DQ8 haplotypes, is celiac disease, with a prevalence of 16-43%." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en460_5754", "title": "Gluten challenge test", "score": 0.00943417217364217, "content": "Today, with serological testing (determination of coeliac disease-specific antibodies in the blood) and duodenal biopsy with histological testing being available for diagnosing coeliac disease, patients with suspected coeliac disease are strongly advised to undergo both serological and biopsy testing before undertaking a gluten-free diet. People who present minor damage of the small intestine often have negative blood antibodies titers and many patients with coeliac disease are missed when a duodenal biopsy is not performed. Serologic tests have a high capacity to detect coeliac disease only in patients with total villous atrophy and have very low capacity to detect cases with partial villous atrophy or minor intestinal lesions with normal villi. Currently, gluten challenge is no longer required to confirm the diagnosis in patients with intestinal lesions compatible with coeliac disease and a positive response to a gluten-free diet. Nevertheless, in some cases, a gluten challenge with" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 210, 377 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 33, 57 ] ], "text": "In any case, Barrett's esophagus should follow endoscopic surveillance and lifelong PPI treatment or antireflux surgery to prevent progression. The correct answer is 4." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Given that the esophagitis is mild and the dysplasia is low grade, it is advisable to continue treatment with alkalines.", "2": "Indefinite treatment with high doses of PPI since it has been demonstrated that this prevents the progression of Barrett's esophagus to adenocarcinoma, making endoscopic surveillance unnecessary.", "3": "Periodic surveillance endoscopies and treatment with PPIs for less than 12 weeks, since prolonged treatment is associated with a high risk of gastrinoma development.", "4": "Periodic surveillance endoscopies and indefinite treatment with PPI.", "5": "Esophagectomy." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0536_17223", "title": "Endoscopic surveillance in Barrett's esophagus.", "score": 0.01774915573706118, "content": "Barrett's esophagus (BE), a complication of chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD), is a condition that is premalignant for adenocarcinoma of the esophagus and esophagogastric junction. Esophageal adenocarcinoma, once an uncommon entity, has been growing rapidly in incidence over the last two decades in several parts of the world. Barrett's esophagus is a change in the esophageal epithelium of any length that can be recognized at endoscopy and is confirmed to have intestinal metaplasia by biopsy (American College of Gastroenterology guidelines). Because of its premalignant nature, it is recommended that patients with BE undergo regular endoscopic surveillance. The recommendation for endoscopic surveillance is based on unproved and controversial assumptions including: 1) the assumption that Barrett's esophagus adversely influences survival; 2) the assumption that endoscopic surveillance can reliably detect early, curable neoplasia in the columnar lined esophagus. Moreover, the low incidence of adenocarcinoma (reported cancer incidence rates in prospective studies on BE range between 0.5% and 1.9%) is used to support an approach of not surveying patients with Barrett's esophagus. Despite these not convincing data, endoscopic surveillance is considered ''reasonable'' and ''desirable'' by the gastroenterological associations and consensus meetings. Endoscopic surveillance for cancer in Barrett's esophagus (BE) is performed primarily to seek dysplasia, to prevent the progression to invasive malignancy; however, one of the limitations of using dysplasia is a lack of understanding of its natural history. The efficacy of endoscopic surveillance for Barrett's esophagus is likely to remain unclear for a long time. The American College of Gastroenterology has recommended the following practice guidelines: a) for patients with no dysplasia, surveillance endoscopy is recommended at an interval of every 2 to 3 years; b) for patients with low grade dysplasia, surveillance endoscopy every 6 months for the first year is recommended, followed by yearly endoscopy if the dysplasia has not progressed in severity; c) for patients with high grade dysplasia, two alternatives are proposed after the diagnosis has been confirmed by an expert gastrointestinal pathologist. One alternative is intensive endoscopic surveillance until intramucosal cancer is detected at an interval of every 3-6 months. The other alternative is esophageal resection. In the situation of indeterminate dysplasia, whereas the pathologist can not come to definite diagnosis, control biopsies are proposed after 2 months of adequate acid suppression by means of proton pump inhibition. In all cases, the technique of random, four quadrant biopsies taken every 2 cm in the columnar-lined esophagus for standard histologic evaluation is recommended. Any grossly abnormal areas may be biopsied too. One can expect however that during the next future these protocol will change considering new data on dysplasia detection (biochemical markers, flow cytometry), new techniques to identify dysplasia (chromoendoscopy, endosonography, coherence optical tomography, fluorescence techniques) and development of better ablative techniques. At present a marker other than dysplasia identifying a high risk group for cancer on which to focus endoscopic surveillance has not yet been established." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0883_8351", "title": "Diagnosis and Management of Low-Grade Dysplasia in Barrett's Esophagus: Expert Review From the Clinical Practice Updates Committee of the American Gastroenterological Association.", "score": 0.016330513988288872, "content": "The purpose of this clinical practice update expert review is to define the key principles in the diagnosis and management of low-grade dysplasia (LGD) in Barrett's esophagus patients. The best practices outlined in this review are based on relevant publications, including systematic reviews and expert opinion (when applicable). Practice Advice 1: The extent of Barrett's esophagus should be defined using a standardized grading system documenting the circumferential and maximal extent of the columnar lined esophagus (Prague classification) with a clear description of landmarks and visible lesions (nodularity, ulceration) when present. Practice Advice 2: Given the significant interobserver variability among pathologists, the diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus with LGD should be confirmed by an expert gastrointestinal pathologist (defined as a pathologist with a special interest in Barrett's esophagus-related neoplasia who is recognized as an expert in this field by his/her peers). Practice Advice 3: Expert pathologists should report audits of their diagnosed cases of LGD, such as the frequency of LGD diagnosed among surveillance patients and/or the difference in incidence of neoplastic progression among patients diagnosed with LGD vs nondysplastic Barrett's esophagus. Practice Advice 4: Patients in whom the diagnosis of LGD is downgraded to nondysplastic Barrett's esophagus should be managed as nondysplastic Barrett's esophagus. Practice Advice 5: In Barrett's esophagus patients with confirmed LGD (based on expert gastrointestinal pathology review), repeat upper endoscopy using high-definition/high-resolution white-light endoscopy should be performed under maximal acid suppression (twice daily dosing of proton pump inhibitor therapy) in 8-12 weeks. Practice Advice 6: Under ideal circumstances, surveillance biopsies should not be performed in the presence of active inflammation (erosive esophagitis, Los Angeles grade C and D). Pathologists should be informed if biopsies are obtained in the setting of erosive esophagitis and if pathology findings suggest LGD, or if no biopsies are obtained, surveillance biopsies should be repeated after the anti-reflux regimen has been further intensified. Practice Advice 7: Surveillance biopsies should be performed in a four-quadrant fashion every 1-2 cm with target biopsies obtained from visible lesions taken first. Practice Advice 8: Patients with a confirmed histologic diagnosis of LGD should be referred to an endoscopist with expertise in managing Barrett's esophagus-related neoplasia practicing at centers equipped with high-definition endoscopy and capable of performing endoscopic resection and ablation. Practice Advice 9: Endoscopic resection should be performed in Barrett's esophagus patients with LGD with endoscopically visible abnormalities (no matter how subtle) in order to accurately assess the grade of dysplasia. Practice Advice 10: In patients with confirmed Barrett's esophagus with LGD by expert GI pathology review that persists on a second endoscopy, despite intensification of acid-suppressive therapy, risks and benefits of management options of endoscopic eradication therapy (specifically adverse events associated with endoscopic resection and ablation), and ongoing surveillance should be discussed and documented. Practice Advice 11: Endoscopic eradication therapy should be considered in patients with confirmed and persistent LGD with the goal of achieving complete eradication of intestinal metaplasia. Practice Advice 12: Patients with LGD undergoing surveillance rather than endoscopic eradication therapy should undergo surveillance every 6 months times 2, then annually unless there is reversion to nondysplastic Barrett's esophagus. Biopsies should be obtained in 4-quadrants every 1-2 cm and of any visible lesions. Practice Advice 13: In patients with Barrett's esophagus-related LGD undergoing ablative therapy, radiofrequency ablation should be used. Practice Advice 14: Patients completing endoscopic eradication therapy should be enrolled in an endoscopic surveillance program. Patients who have achieved complete eradication of intestinal metaplasia should undergo surveillance every year for 2 years and then every 3 years thereafter to detect recurrent intestinal metaplasia and dysplasia. Patients who have not achieved complete eradication of intestinal metaplasia should undergo surveillance every 6 months for 1 year after the last endoscopy, then annually for 2 years, then every 3 years thereafter. Practice Advice 15: Following endoscopic eradication therapy, the biopsy protocol of obtaining biopsies in 4 quadrants every 2 cm throughout the length of the original Barrett's esophagus segment and any visible columnar mucosa is suggested. Practice Advice 16: Endoscopists performing endoscopic eradication therapy should report audits of their rates of complete eradication of dysplasia and intestinal metaplasia and adverse events in clinical practice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0682_24000", "title": "Barrett's esophagus: A historical perspective, an update on core practicalities and predictions on future evolutions of management.", "score": 0.01563920712856883, "content": "Interpretation of exploding knowledge about Barrett's esophagus is impaired by use of several conflicting definitions. Because any histological type of esophageal columnar metaplasia carries risk for esophageal adenocarcinoma, the diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus should no longer require demonstration of intestinal-type metaplasia. Endoscopic recognition and grading of Barrett's esophagus remains a significant source of ambiguity. Reflux disease is a key factor for development of Barrett's esophagus, but other factors must underlie its development, since it occurs in only a minority of reflux disease patients. Neither antireflux surgery nor proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy has major impacts on cancer risk. Within a year, a major trial should indicate whether low-dose aspirin usefully reduces cancer risk. The best referral centers have transformed the accuracy of screening and surveillance for early curable esophageal adenocarcinoma by use of enhanced and novel endoscopic imaging, visually-guided, rather than blind biopsies and by partnership with expert pathologists. General endoscopists now need to upgrade their skills and equipment so that they can rely mainly on visual targeting of biopsies on mucosal areas of concern in their surveillance practice. General pathologists need to greatly improve their interpretation of biopsies. Endoscopic therapy now achieves very high rates of cure of high-grade dysplasia and esophageal adenocarcinoma with minimal morbidity and risk. Such results will only be achieved by skilled interventional endoscopists. Esophagectomy should now be mainly restricted to patients whose cancer has extended into and beyond the submucosa. Weighing risks and benefits in the management of Barrett's esophagus is difficult, as is the process of adequately informing patients about their specific cancer risk." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0928_21411", "title": "How should we describe, diagnose and observe the Barrett's esophagus?", "score": 0.015369890778065533, "content": "Barrett's esophagus (BE) is one of the major complications of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) commonly encountered in gastroenterology clinics. A consensus has not been achieved yet with respect to the definition of BE in published guidelines. It is advised to use the Prague classification and not to use the definition of short and long segments for the endoscopic standardization of BE. Undertaking biopsies with white-light endoscopy from each of the 4 quadrants at 2-cm intervals is the standard method for the diagnosis of BE. Because of the ability to perform targeted biopsies, the available data indicate that advanced endoscopic techniques may reduce the number of biopsies needed for diagnoses. In the presence of severe esophagitis along with BE, the biopsies should be taken after 8 weeks of PPI therapy. The evidence values of the suggestions about the surveillance requirements and surveillance frequencies are low because the available data mostly rely on retrospective studies. We suggest that all the patients with BE should be referred to specialized centers for surveillance in Turkey. Considering the additional risk factors of the patient, endoscopy surveillance intervals of the patients with BE without dysplasia should be in a range of 3-5 years and annual surveillance should be made in BE with low-grade dysplasia. In the presence of BE with high-grade dysplasia (HGD), the patients should be referred to specialized centers for treatment within 3 months at the latest." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0733_2066", "title": "Barrett's esophagus. Diagnosis, follow-up and treatment.", "score": 0.014932857859252243, "content": "Barrett's Esophagus (BE) is a premalignant condition in the esophagus. Esophageal adenocarcinomas have the fastest increase of incidence of all solid tumors in the western world. BE is defined as areas with macroscopic visible columnar epithelium and intestinal metaplasia oral of the anatomical gastroesophageal junction. The extent of the endoscopic findings is described by the Prague classification. The metaplasia is histologically confirmed by the presence of intestinal metaplasia. The diagnosis of BE can only be made by a combined macroscopic and microscopic examination. The histological description should include evaluation of dysplasia, and if present it should be classified as low or high grade dysplasia. All patients are offered relevant antireflux treatment with PPI or surgery. Ablation or mucosal resection of metaplastic epithelia with or without low grade dysplasia is experimental and it is not recommended outside controlled studies. Treatment of high grade dysplasia and carcinoma in situ is handled in departments treating esophageal cancer. Follow-up with endoscopy and biopsy can be offered. Follow-up endoscopy with biopsy can only be recommended after thorough information to the patients, as evidence for the value is scarce." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_102073", "title": "Barrett's esophagus", "score": 0.014573887295271582, "content": "Diagnosis Both macroscopic (from endoscopy) and microscopic positive findings are required to make a diagnosis. Barrett's esophagus is marked by the presence of columnar epithelia in the lower esophagus, replacing the normal squamous cell epithelium—an example of metaplasia. The secretory columnar epithelium may be more able to withstand the erosive action of the gastric secretions; however, this metaplasia confers an increased risk of adenocarcinoma. Screening Screening endoscopy is recommended among males over the age of 60 who have reflux symptoms that are of long duration and not controllable with treatment. Among those not expected to live more than 5 years screening is not recommended. The Seattle protocol is used commonly in endoscopy to obtain endoscopic biopsies for screening, taken every 1 to 2 cm from the gastroesophageal junction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0727_454", "title": "Recent developments in gastroesophageal reflux disease and Barrett's esophagus: ANNO 2012.", "score": 0.013571184704677365, "content": "The incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and esophageal columnar metaplasia is rising worldwide. Both mechanical and functional factors perturb the double sphincter barrier at the esophagogastric junction (EGJ). Discovery of the acid pocket is fundamental in understanding postprandial acid reflux. Adding impedencemetry to pH measurements allows detection of non-acid or weakly acidic reflux. Histologic and endoscopic injury of the squamous mucosa rises from dilation of the intercellular spaces, papillary extension, accentuated intrapapillary looping, red streaks, erosive tissue loss, etc., graded with the Los Angeles system. Seventy percent of patients have no recognizable abnormalities (non-erosive or neGERD). Treatment of GERD mainly relates to the control of acid secretion but a revival of alginate/antacid obliterating the acid pocket is to be expected. Weaker heartburn control in neGERD is a misnomer because most studies included patients with no evidence of reflux disease. Traditional (delayed-release) proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are powerful suppressors of acid secretion but do have limitations such as gradual build up of acid control, weak control of nocturnal acid recovery, possibility of rebound, occasional need for dose escalation, etc. Barrett's esophagus (BE) is endoscopically diagnosed also in the absence of intestinal metaplasia. A prerequisite is the precise location of the EGJ (proximal end of gastric folds, esophageal sphincter pinch, distal extent of palisade vessels). BE is graded with the Prague C &amp; M system. Barrett's cancer develops usually via low-grade and high-grade dysplasia. Endoscopic examination may indicate suspicious areas, amenable for targeted biopsy. Otherwise, four quadrant biopsies are obtained when searching for neoplasia. Low-grade dysplasia, especially when it is multifocal and p53 positive, high-grade dysplasia and mucosal cancer should be treated with endoscopic resection of the target area, followed by radiofrequency ablation of the adjacent non-neoplastic columnar mucosa, followed with powerful acid suppressant therapy. The long-term results of the combination of resection and ablation are exiting and at least comparable to surgical resection." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_102069", "title": "Barrett's esophagus", "score": 0.013087116242456048, "content": "The main cause of Barrett's esophagus is thought to be an adaptation to chronic acid exposure from reflux esophagitis. Barrett's esophagus is diagnosed by endoscopy: observing the characteristic appearance of this condition by direct inspection of the lower esophagus; followed by microscopic examination of tissue from the affected area obtained from biopsy. The cells of Barrett's esophagus are classified into four categories: nondysplastic, low-grade dysplasia, high-grade dysplasia, and frank carcinoma. High-grade dysplasia and early stages of adenocarcinoma may be treated by endoscopic resection or radiofrequency ablation. Later stages of adenocarcinoma may be treated with surgical resection or palliation. Those with nondysplastic or low-grade dysplasia are managed by annual observation with endoscopy, or treatment with radiofrequency ablation. In high-grade dysplasia, the risk of developing cancer might be at 10% per patient-year or greater." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0548_11454", "title": "Detection of Barrett's esophagus after endoscopic healing of erosive esophagitis.", "score": 0.012951630480342024, "content": "The presence of erosive esophagitis (EE) in patients presenting for upper endoscopy may prevent the detection of underlying Barrett's esophagus (BE) in the distal esophagus. To prospectively determine the proportion of patients detected with BE upon repeat endoscopy after healing of EE. Patients with endoscopically confirmed EE without BE were treated with standard doses of acid suppression therapy and a repeat endoscopy was performed to assess the presence of BE. If columnar mucosa was visualized in the distal esophagus, targeted biopsies were obtained and all biopsies were evaluated for the presence of intestinal metaplasia. BE was defined as columnar mucosa in the distal esophagus with intestinal metaplasia on biopsy. A total of 172 patients with reflux symptoms were diagnosed with EE without BE on initial endoscopy. They were treated with standard doses of proton pump inhibitor therapy, and after a mean duration of 11 wk (range 8-16 wk), a repeat endoscopy was performed to confirm healing of EE and to document the presence of BE. On repeat endoscopy, EE was completely healed in 116 patients (67%), and of those, BE was suspected in 32 patients (i.e., columnar-lined distal esophagus) and was confirmed in 16 patients (13.8%). In the 56 patients with persistent EE on repeat endoscopy, columnar mucosa in areas of previously healed esophagitis was visualized in 8 and confirmed in 5 patients (8.9% of nonhealed cases). Overall, 21 (12%) patients were confirmed with BE on repeat endoscopy; all men, mean age 61 yr with a median BE length of 0.5 cm (range 0.5-5 cm, interquartile range 0.5 cm). The majority of these patients (N = 19) had short segment Barrett's esophagus (SSBE) (i.e., length &lt;3 cm). In patients with EE undergoing treatment with acid suppressive therapy, BE (mainly SSBE) is detected in approximately 12% of patients on repeat endoscopy. Patients with reflux symptoms undergoing endoscopy for the detection of BE (i.e., screening) should be treated with acid suppressive therapy prior to endoscopy to enhance the yield of BE. Alternatively, if the goal is to document BE and if EE is found at the initial endoscopy, then repeat endoscopy may be considered after acid suppressive therapy." }, { "id": "article-28304_34", "title": "Reflux Esophagitis -- Evaluation", "score": 0.011855269770204211, "content": "Patients with atypical symptoms should undergo a diagnostic evaluation with endoscopy and pH monitoring before a PPI trial. Barium studies to diagnose reflux esophagitis are of limited value. The presence or absence of reflux during barium esophagography does not correlate with the incidence or extent of reflux observed during 24-hour pH impedance monitoring and is of no value in the diagnosis of reflux esophagitis. [55] Los Angeles classification of severity of reflux esophagitis-four grades: [56] Grade A: One or more esophageal mucosal breaks less than 5 mm in length. Grade B: One or more mucosal breaks greater than 5 mm but with continuity across mucosal folds. Grade C: Continuous mucosal breaks between the tops of two or more mucosal folds but involving less than 75% of the esophageal circumference. Grade D: Mucosal breaks involving more than 75% of the esophageal sphincter." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0316_3995", "title": "Squamous islands in Barrett's esophagus: what lies underneath?", "score": 0.011793594798367573, "content": "Squamous islands are frequently visualized at the time of upper endoscopy in patients with Barrett's esophagus, especially those on proton pump inhibitor therapy (PPI). The significance of these islands is not clearly understood. The aim of this study was to systematically biopsy macroscopic squamous islands and to examine their histologic characteristics. Patients with Barrett's esophagus undergoing surveillance had squamous islands documented and biopsied at the time of endoscopy. Barrett's esophagus was defined as the presence of a columnar lined esophagus on endoscopy with intestinal metaplasia on biopsy. All biopsies were obtained by a single senior endoscopist and were stained with alcian blue at pH 2.5. Biopsy samples with inadequate tissue quantity were not included in the study. A total of 39 biopsies were obtained from 22 patients. Twenty of the 22 patients were male, with a mean age of 65.4 yr (range 47-80 yr). The mean length of Barrett's mucosa was 5.6 cm (range 1-11 cm). Eleven of 22 patients were on omeprazole (mean dose 29.1 mg/day), whereas seven patients were on lansoprazole (60 mg/day). The mean duration of PPI therapy was 2.3 yr (range 9-71 months) at the time of biopsy of the squamous islands. Three patients were on H2-blocker therapy whereas the remaining patient had not been started on acid suppression therapy. On histology, 24 biopsy specimens (61.5%) revealed only squamous epithelium, whereas 15 (38.5%) showed the presence of intestinal metaplasia underlying the squamous epithelium. There was no significant difference between the patients with and without underlying intestinal metaplasia in regard to age, Barrett's length, dose, and duration of PPI therapy. In more than one-third of biopsies of macroscopic squamous islands within Barrett's esophagus, microscopic intestinal metaplasia is detected. The presence of squamous islands should not be equated with regression of Barrett's esophagus or with decreased cancer risk." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en087_9084", "title": "Eosinophilic esophagitis", "score": 0.011552739375320021, "content": "Esophageal mucosal biopsy Currently, endoscopic mucosal biopsy remains the most important diagnostic test for EoE, and is required to confirm the diagnosis. Biopsy specimens from both the proximal/mid and distal esophagus should be obtained regardless of the gross appearance of the mucosa. Specimens should also be obtained from areas revealing endoscopic abnormalities. At least four biopsies are required to obtain adequate sensitivity for the detection of EoE. A definitive diagnosis of EoE is based on the presence of at least 15 eosinophils/HPF in the esophageal biopsies of patients despite treatment with high-dose PPI. GERD can increase eosinophilic infiltration in the distal esophagus, however, eosinophils associated with GERD generally occur at a lower density (i.e. < 15/HPF)." }, { "id": "article-18143_12", "title": "Barrett Esophagus -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.011487907465825446, "content": "Surveillance plan strategies have a history of being arbitrary and not validated by strong prospective clinical studies with a 2014 study, even concluding that there is no association between surveillance and decreased EAC-related deaths. Based on their systematic review of the literature and evaluation of the level of evidence, the ACG made several changes to the recommended management of BE in its newest guidelines. High-definition white-light endoscopy is a novel endoscopic technology that is now recommended for routine use in surveillance beyond electronic chromoendoscopy. For non-dysplastic BE, the current ACG recommendation after the initial diagnosis is to follow up with surveillance every 3 to 5 years. The patient should also be placed on once-daily proton pump inhibitor therapy, regardless of the presence of reflux symptoms, due to evidence of a chemopreventive effect of proton pump inhibitors, where the risk of progression to neoplastic BE is reduced compared to no acid suppression or H2 blockers. Due to the significant impact on management, if BE is associated with dysplasia, the ACG emphasizes the importance of confirming a dysplasia diagnosis with a second pathologist with extensive experience in BE-related neoplasia. Patients with confirmed low-grade dysplasia can now be considered for endoscopic ablative therapy or can follow a 6 to 12-month interval surveillance plan.  For patients with confirmed high-grade dysplasia with endoscopic mucosal abnormalities, endoscopic mucosal resection followed by ablation of the remaining BE mucosa is recommended.  If no mucosal abnormality is visible, in other words, the mucosa is flat; radiofrequency ablation therapy is considered sufficient for low- or high-grade dysplasia as well as carcinoma. Cryotherapy is another option of ablative therapy.  It is necessary to continue surveillance of patients after ablative therapy, as multiple treatments are often required to ensure complete elimination of the lesional tissue. Surgical therapies such as esophagectomy are not the preferred initial approach to management for high-grade dysplasia or intramucosal cancer, as the procedure has a high risk of morbidities, though should be considered if intramucosal cancer has poor prognostic factors, such as lymphovascular invasion or poor differentiation or if cancer involves the submucosa. Patients with significant comorbidities that limit their likely survival may not benefit from endoscopic therapies, with risks of the procedures being greater than potential gains. [14] [15]" }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_6973", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.01120734908136483, "content": "7% of patients following antireflux surgery. About 15% of patients had abnormal acid exposure after surgery. Although pH data were not routinely collected in patients on PPI therapy, in the subgroup of 12 patients that did have 24-hour monitoring on treat-ment, 3 of 12 (25%) had persistently high esophageal acid expo-sure, and most (75%) had persistently high bilirubin exposure.The common belief that Barrett’s epithelium cannot be reversed by antireflux surgery may not be correct. Within the control arm of a randomized trial of ablation vs. surveillance, Bright and associates identified approximately 50% regression in the length of Barrett’s esophagus in 20 patients within the control arm of a randomized trial of ablation vs. surveillance.Current data indicate that patients with BE should remain in an endoscopic surveillance program following antireflux surgery. Biopsy specimens should be reviewed by a patholo-gist with expertise in the field. If low-grade dysplasia is con-firmed," }, { "id": "pubmed23n0512_16216", "title": "Barrett esophagus.", "score": 0.01095964448714869, "content": "The importance of an in-depth understanding about Barrett esophagus is ultimately to decrease the mortality and morbidity from esophageal adenocarcinoma cancer by early detection of metaplasia and dysplasia and appropriate therapy. This review summarizes several publications in the past year related to the epidemiology, pathogenesis, screening and surveillance, new methods for detection of metaplasia/dysplasia, and advances in the treatment of Barrett esophagus. Patients with Barrett esophagus are characterized by the presence of risk factors usually indicative of severe types of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Recent insights into epidemiology and pathogenesis have shown that the risk of high-grade dysplasia and adenocarcinoma may be related to the increasing length of Barrett esophagus, size of hiatus hernia, and severity of acid reflux. The role of smoking and alcohol consumption remains controversial. Increasing the number of biopsies by repeat standard endoscopy can enhance the yield of intestinal metaplasia in patients with suspected short-segment Barrett esophagus. Costs of surveillance using standard endoscopy and random biopsies would be very high and using special techniques to target specific areas could ultimately help in cost reduction. Emerging data on new techniques and technology such as vital staining with methylene blue and protoporphyrin fluorescence can increase the yield of metaplasia and dysplasia. Biomarkers studies have revealed that p53 mutation by the loss of heterozygosity can help detect patients with low and high risk for cancer progression. Studies thus far have been unclear whether acid suppression alone can impact the malignant progression in Barrett esophagus patients. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase by aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be a promising chemoprevention strategy against dysplasia and esophageal adenocarcinoma development as shown in some recent studies. Nonsurgical treatment by photodynamic therapy or mucosal resection may be a less invasive and organ-sparing option for some patients with high-grade dysplasia and early adenocarcinoma. In the past year we have made major strides in our knowledge of this premalignant lesion. Recent studies have shed light in a better understanding of the epidemiology of Barrett esophagus, including clinical and endoscopic factors associated with high-grade dysplasia or esophageal adenocarcinoma and various biomarkers that would identify patient subsets with low and high risk for cancer progression. This will eventually have significant implications on the screening, surveillance, and treatment of the disease. Advanced endoscopic therapies including mucosectomy or photodynamic therapy may be emerging options in patients with intraepithelial neoplasia." }, { "id": "article-28304_41", "title": "Reflux Esophagitis -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.010000757633154026, "content": "Maintain PPI therapy for patients who continue to have symptoms and patients with erosive esophagitis and Barrett esophagus." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0365_16460", "title": "Results of short-and long-term medical treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Symptomatic esophageal reflux affects a large number of individuals. Many find relief by avoiding trigger substances such as coffee or sweets; in other cases, lifestyle modifications do not suffice and drug treatment is necessary for symptom control. An adequate classification of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is currently lacking; esophagitis can be graded according to Savary and Miller or the more recent metaplasia ulcer stricture erosions (MUSE) classification. The control of symptoms should be achieved in all patients: in addition, if esophagitis is present, the healing of erosions/ulcers as well as the prevention of further complications, such as strictures, hemorrhage, Barrett's esophagus or ulceration, must be accomplished. SHORT-TERM TREATMENT: In the case of rare symptoms, control might be achieved by lifestyle modifications and by antacids or mucosal protectants taken on demand. In the case of continuous symptoms or signs of esophagitis, effective inhibition of gastric acid secretion with proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) is necessary in many patients. After discontinuation of medical therapy, almost all patients with esophagitis will experience a relapse within 30 weeks. The regimen offering the highest rate of remission in these patients is the one that induced remission in the first place. Reduction of PPI dose or a switch to H2 receptor antagonists increases the rate of relapse. RISKS OF LONG-TERM TREATMENT: Long-term acid suppressive therapy, as with the use of PPIs, may lead to hypergastrinemia, a situation in which the endocrine cells of the stomach may proliferate. In the presence of Helicobacter pylori infection, PPIs are more efficient in healing esophagitis; however, the occurrence of gastric mucosal atrophy, a potentially pre-cancerous condition, has been described. To date, however, no case of gastric cancer or endocrine neoplasia associated with PPI treatment has been documented; gastric mucosal atrophy is more likely to result from H. pylori infection and gastric carcinoid formation needs a genetic predisposition, such as multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I. Most cases of GERD can be effectively treated by non-surgical measures; in patients presenting with warning symptoms or persistent heartburn, endoscopy of the upper gastrointestinal tract is mandatory. Long-term use of PPIs seems to be a safe and efficient treatment for GERD. For the prevention of relapse, similar doses are needed as for the induction of remission in reflux esophagitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1011_3340", "title": "AGA Clinical Practice Update on Endoscopic Treatment of Barrett's Esophagus With Dysplasia and/or Early Cancer: Expert Review.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The purpose of this best practice advice article is to describe the role of Barrett's endoscopic therapy (BET) in patients with Barrett's esophagus (BE) with dysplasia and/or early cancer and appropriate follow-up of these patients. The best practice advice provided in this document is based on evidence and relevant publications reviewed by the committee. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 1: In BE patients with confirmed low-grade dysplasia, a repeat examination with high-definition white-light endoscopy should be performed within 3-6 months to rule out the presence of a visible lesion, which should prompt endoscopic resection. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 2: Both BET and continued surveillance are reasonable options for the management of BE patients with confirmed and persistent low-grade dysplasia. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 3: BET is the preferred treatment for BE patients with high-grade dysplasia (HGD). BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 4: BET should be preferred over esophagectomy for BE patients with intramucosal esophageal adenocarcinoma (T1a). BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 5: BET is a reasonable alternative to esophagectomy in patients with submucosal esophageal adenocarcinoma (T1b) with low-risk features (&lt;500-μm invasion in the submucosa [sm1], good to moderate differentiation, and no lymphatic invasion) especially in those who are poor surgical candidates. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 6: In all patients undergoing BET, mucosal ablation should be applied to 1) all visible esophageal columnar mucosa; 2) 5-10 mm proximal to the squamocolumnar junction and 3) 5-10 mm distal to the gastroesophageal junction, as demarcated by the top of the gastric folds (ie, gastric cardia) using focal ablation in a circumferential fashion. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 7: Mucosal ablation therapy should only be performed in the presence of flat BE without signs of inflammation and in the absence of visible abnormalities. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 8: BET should be performed by experts in high-volume centers that perform a minimum of 10 new cases annually. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 9: BET should be continued until there is an absence of columnar epithelium in the tubular esophagus on high-definition white-light endoscopy and preferably optical chromoendoscopy. In case of complete endoscopic eradication, the neosquamous mucosa and the gastric cardia are sampled by 4-quadrant biopsies. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 10: If random biopsies obtained from the neosquamous epithelium demonstrate intestinal metaplasia/dysplasia or subsquamous intestinal metaplasia, a repeat endoscopy should be performed and visible islands or tongues should undergo targeted focal ablation. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 11: Intestinal metaplasia of the gastric cardia (without residual columnar epithelium in the tubular esophagus) should not warrant additional ablation therapy. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 12: When consenting patients for BET, the most common complication of therapy to be quoted is post-procedural stricture formation, occurring in about 6% of cases. Bleeding and perforation occur at rates &lt;1%. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 13: After complete eradication (endoscopic and histologic) of intestinal metaplasia has been achieved with BET, surveillance endoscopy with biopsies should be performed at the following intervals: for baseline diagnosis of HGD/esophageal adenocarcinoma: at 3, 6, and 12 months and annually thereafter; and baseline diagnosis of low-grade dysplasia: at 1 and 3 years. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 14: Endoscopic surveillance post therapy should be performed with high-definition white-light endoscopy, including careful inspection of the neosquamous mucosal and retroflexed inspection of the gastric cardia. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 15: The approach to recurrent disease is similar to that of the initial therapy; visible recurrent nodular lesions require endoscopic resection, whereas flat areas of columnar mucosa in the tubular esophagus can be treated with mucosal ablation. BEST PRACTICE ADVICE 16: Patients should be counseled on cancer risk in the absence of BET, as well as after BET, to allow for informed decision-making between the patient and the physician." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0500_18079", "title": "Management strategies for gastroesophageal reflux disease.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), the most effective treatment option is the use of proton pump inhibitor (PPI), which minimizes the effect of gastric acid on the distal esophagus. Both the step-up and step-down treatment strategies have advantages and disadvantages. Most physicians would like to choose the step-down therapy rather than the step-up therapy. The 'No-step' PPI therapy (i.e. continuous PPI therapy) is another relevant option. After an initial remission, long-term PPI therapy is an appropriate form of maintenance therapy in many patients. As a treatment plan for non-erosive reflux disease, a standard dose of PPI for 4-8 weeks followed by either the step-down strategy or the on-demand treatment strategy is acceptable. When treating erosive esophagitis, PPI is better than H(2) receptor blockers in healing mucosal breaks and relieving symptoms. Long-term maintenance PPI therapy is reported to be very effective in maintaining the remission of reflux esophagitis for up to 5 years. On-demand PPI is also another good option for a maintenance therapy in erosive esophagitis. In Barrett's esophagus, symptoms seem to be well-controlled with PPIs. Unfortunately, however, PPIs have no effect on the shortening of Barrett's esophagus or in preventing the progression to dysplasia and adenocarcinoma. In summary, after reviewing existing guidelines a rather simple guideline on the management of GERD is suggested - PPI should be given for 4-8 weeks followed by either on-demand or maintenance PPI therapy according to the clinical severity." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en009_96985", "title": "Esophagus", "score": 0.009720705258230614, "content": "The gastro-esophageal junction (also known as the esophagogastric junction) is the junction between the esophagus and the stomach, at the lower end of the esophagus. The pink color of the esophageal mucosa contrasts to the deeper red of the gastric mucosa, and the mucosal transition can be seen as an irregular zig-zag line, which is often called the z-line. Histological examination reveals abrupt transition between the stratified squamous epithelium of the esophagus and the simple columnar epithelium of the stomach. Normally, the cardia of the stomach is immediately distal to the z-line and the z-line coincides with the upper limit of the gastric folds of the cardia; however, when the anatomy of the mucosa is distorted in Barrett's esophagus the true gastro-eshophageal junction can be identified by the upper limit of the gastric folds rather than the mucosal transition. The functional location of the lower oesophageal sphincter is generally situated about below the z-line." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0481_16998", "title": "Review article: approaches to Barrett's oesophagus treatment-the role of proton pump inhibitors and other interventions.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Despite implementation of screening and surveillance strategies, a significantly large number of patients with Barrett's oesophagus remain undiagnosed. In those who are identified, the management options include acid reduction therapies with proton pump inhibitors or anti-reflux surgery. Endoscopic ablative therapies have also been attempted. In addition to having inherent procedure-related risks with ablative therapies, these alternatives may be limited by high rates of failure, need for continued acid suppressive therapy, metaplasia persistence under otherwise normal appearing tissue, need for procedural expertise, and continued risk for adenocarcinoma development. Therefore, a widely applicable chemoprevention strategy that cost-effectively reduces the rate of progression from oesophagitis to adenocarcinoma in high-risk patients and perhaps those at lower rates of risk is highly desirable. The AspECT trial currently underway is seeking to determine the effects of high- and low-dose proton pump inhibitor therapy with and without low-dose aspirin as Barrett's oesophagus chemoprevention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0365_1046", "title": "Prevalence of Barrett's esophagus by endoscopy and histologic studies: a prospective evaluation of 306 control subjects and 376 patients with symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The classic endoscopic diagnosis of a Barrett's esophagus (BE) is based on the finding of &gt; or =3 cm, of distal esophagus covered by specialized columnar epithelium. However, currently, it is based on the finding of intestinal metaplasia (IM) at the squamous-columnar mucosal junction, independent of its extent. The aim of this study was to determine the prevalence of Barrett's esophagus by endoscopic and histological findings in control subjects and in patients with symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux (GER). Three hundred and six control subjects and 376 patients with symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux were included in this prospective study. Patients with Barrett's esophagus were classified in three groups as follows. 1. Intestinal metaplasia at the cardia. When endoscopy showed non-Barrett's esophagus, but histological intestinal metaplasia was found. 2. Short-segment Barrett's esophagus. When &lt;3 cm, was covered with tongues or finger-like or creeping substitution of distal esophagus. 3. Long-segment Barrett's esophagus. When &gt; 3 cm, of distal esophagus was covered by specialized columnar epithelium. Two biopsies at the antrum, four biopsies at the squamous-columnar junction and one or two at the distal esophagus were taken. In control subjects, 1.6% showed histological IM at the esophagogastric junction. In patients with GER without esophagitis or with erosive esophagitis, IM was found in 18% and 10.7% respectively. 'Short-segment' Barrett's esophagus was three times more frequent than 'long-segment' Barrett's esophagus. Patients with Barrett's esophagus were significantly older than the other groups. The presence of complications or erosions, peptic ulcer or stricture were significantly more frequent among patients with 'long-segment' Barrett's esophagus (p &lt; 0.0001). The prevalence of dysplasia was similar in all groups of patients with Barrett's esophagus. Complications such as ulcers, stricture and dysplasia were exclusively seen among patients with BE, whereas non-Barrett's patients did not exhibit these complications. In control subjects, IM can be found in a low percentage of cases. Among patients with symptoms of GER, the classic endoscopic diagnosis of a Barrett's esophagus can underestimate this condition in 80% of the cases. Patients with intestinal metaplasia at the cardia already present 17% of the cases with low-grade dysplasia. In all patients with symptoms of GER, systematic biopsies at the squamous-columnar junction should be taken." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0896_12620", "title": "Recurrence of Barrett's Esophagus is Rare Following Endoscopic Eradication Therapy Coupled With Effective Reflux Control.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Recent data suggest that effective control of gastroesophageal reflux improves outcomes associated with endoscopic eradication therapy (EET) for Barrett's esophagus (BE). However, the impact of reflux control on preventing recurrent intestinal metaplasia and/or dysplasia is unclear. The aims of the study were: (a) to determine the effectiveness and durability of EET under a structured reflux management protocol and (b) to determine the impact of optimizing anti-reflux therapy on achieving complete eradication of intestinal metaplasia (CE-IM). Consecutive BE patients referred for EET were enrolled and managed with a standardized reflux management protocol including twice-daily PPI therapy during eradication. Primary outcomes were rates of CE-IM and IM or dysplasia recurrence. Out of 221 patients enrolled (46.0% with high-grade dysplasia/intramucosal carcinoma, 34.0% with low-grade dysplasia, and 20.0% with non-dysplastic BE) an overall CE-IM of 93% was achieved within 11.6±10.2 months. Forty-eight patients did not achieve CE-IM in 3 sessions. After modification of their reflux management, 45 (93.7%) achieved CE-IM in a mean of 1.1 RFA sessions. Recurrence occurred in 13 patients (IM in 10(4.8%), dysplasia in 3 (1.5%)) during a mean follow-up of 44±18.5 months. The only significant predictor of recurrence was the presence of a hiatal hernia. Recurrence of IM was significantly lower than historical controls (10.9 vs. 4.8%, P=0.04). The current study highlights the importance of reflux control in patients with BE undergoing EET. In this setting, EET has long-term durability with low recurrence rates providing early evidence for extending endoscopic surveillance intervals after EET." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0318_6705", "title": "Management of Barrett's esophagus.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "In Barrett's esophagus, the squamous lining of the lower esophagus is replaced by columnar epithelium. Barrett's esophagus is associated with gastroesophageal reflux and an increased risk of the development of esophageal cancer. Endoscopy shows red columnar epithelium in the lower esophagus. Biopsy is needed to confirm intestinal metaplasia. Some cases progress from dysplasia to invasive adenocarcinoma. Medical or surgical antireflux treatment controls symptoms and esophagitis, but Barrett's esophagus remains. Patients are usually followed up by endoscopy for detection of dysplasia or early cancer. For patients with low-grade dysplasia, follow-up is adequate; however, for those with high-grade dysplasia, esophagectomy or experimental endoscopic mucosal ablation is advised." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0533_4225", "title": "[Endoscopic treatment of Barrett's oesophagus].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Aims of the treatment of Barrett's oesophagus (BO) are disappearance of symptoms and inflammatory complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), prevention of occurrence of dysplasia and adenocarcinoma, and early treatment of high-grade dysplasia (HGD) and adenocarcinoma. Anti-secretory treatment with proton-pump inhibitors (PPI) must result in disappearance of both symptoms and oesophagitis. The only correction of symptoms, as well as normalization of pHmetry, are not considered as adequate criteria for efficiency of treatment. It has not been demonstrated that treatment with PPI prevented occurrence of dysplasia and adenocarcinoma so the only BO is not an indication for treatment with PPI, which results in only partial regression of height and/or surface of BO. Endoscopic ablation of BO, combined with PPI, allows complete regression of intestinal metaplasia in about 50% of cases. Photodynamic therapy (PDT) seems the best technique for treatment of HGD and mucosal adenocarcinoma. This treatment is not indicated in case of low-grade dysplasia, since its benefit on survival is less clear than for HGD. Endoscopic treatment does not suppress the need for prolonged endoscopic follow-up since BO recurs in approximately one third of patients. For HGD isolated or associated with mucosal adenocarcinoma (proven by endoscopic ultrasound), endoscopic treatment can consist in mucosectomy or ablation with PDT or plasma argon coagulation (PAC) of these lesions if localized, possibly followed by complete ablation of BO by PAC, and always associated with an efficient treatment of GORD by PPI or anti-reflux surgery. Submucosal adenocarcinomas must be treated by oesophagectomy if allowed by the general condition of the patient." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0374_23952", "title": "[Endoscopic fluorescence diagnosis of esophageal carcinoma after sensitization with 5-aminolevulinic acid].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Barrett's esophagus is a complication of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) characterized by specialized columnar epithelium that contains goblet cells and replaces the squamous epithelium of the distal esophagus. It is found in about 10% of patients with symptomatic reflux disease and more importantly has been associated with the development of esophageal cancer. Adenocarcinoma arises from dysplasia, which is usually not visible during routine endoscopy, therefore extensive random sampling of the entire Barrett's segment should be performed with biopsies in the 4 quadrants every 1 to 2 cm and of any macroscopic abnormality. We report the history of a 60-year-old man who was admitted to hospital because of an ulcer in Barrett's esophagus not healing despite conservative treatment. He has suffered from gastroesophageal reflux disease for more than 30 years and an antireflux surgical procedure had not resulted in regression of Barrett's esophagus. However, close surveillance could not reveal any dysplastic or malignant lesion. Endoscopic fluorescence detection (EFD) after sensitization with 30 mg/kg 5-aminolevulinic acid (5-ALA) in this patient demonstrated a selective red fluorescence in a macroscopically normal appearing area near the already known ulcer. Biopsies from this fluorescent area showed an adenocarcinoma. Esophagectomy confirmed the presence of intramucosal adenocarcinoma without lymph node metastases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0811_13616", "title": "A novel endoscopic submucosal dissection technique for proton pump inhibitor-refractory gastroesophageal reflux disease.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Although drug treatment is the usual first-line therapy for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), not all patients receive satisfactory relief from drug therapy, alone. We developed an endoscopic fundoplication technique using endoscopic submucosal dissection (ESD); the technique is referred to as ESD for GERD (ESD-G). This study investigated the safety and efficacy of this novel technique in patients with drug-refractory GERD. ESD-G narrows the hiatal opening through ESD of the esophagogastric junction (EGJ) mucosa. For safety reasons, the range of mucosal resection was limited to half (1/2 or 1/4 +1/4) of the circumference of the EGJ lumen. ESD-G was performed on 13 patients with proton pump inhibitor (PPI)-refractory GERD. GERD symptoms, PPI dose, and 24-h esophageal pH monitoring results were compared before and 6 months after the procedure. Results. In 12 cases, symptoms significantly improved after ESD-G. Five patients demonstrated improved esophagitis, three were able to discontinue PPI therapy, and three were able to reduce their PPI dosage following surgery. The esophageal pH &lt;4 holding time ratio was also decreased after ESD-G. Conclusions. ESD-G may be useful for PPI-refractory GERD patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0234_11486", "title": "Barrett's esophagus.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Barrett's esophagus denotes the presence of columnar epithelium in the esophagus instead of the usual stratified squamous epithelium. Barrett's esophagus had been thought to represent a mediastinal extension of the stomach in patients with a congenital short esophagus. Subsequent clinical and experimental data have established the abnormality as an acquired condition resulting from chronic gastroesophageal reflux. Although roentgenographic studies may show a mild-esophageal stricture or an esophageal ulcer, definitive diagnosis requires endoscopy with directed biopsy of erythematous mucosa in the esophagus, or manometrically guided biopsies for showing the presence of columnar epithelium above the lower esophageal sphincter. Although the origin of the cells causing this epithelium is still unclear, three distinct epithelial types have been found: atrophic gastric-fundic, junctional, and specialized columnar. Esophageal strictures and esophageal ulcers are complications associated with Barrett's esophagus, but its major significance is the association with the development of adenocarcinoma of the esophagus. Treatment of Barrett's esophagus is aimed at preventing gastroesophageal reflux with the additional need for close endoscopic surveillance for the development of dysplasia or early adenocarcinoma. Whether the diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus mandates anti-reflux surgery (fundoplication) remains controversial." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0594_4542", "title": "Overlap of reflux and eosinophilic esophagitis in two patients requiring different therapies: a review of the literature.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Eosinophilic esophagitis (EE) and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) have overlapping clinical, manometric, endoscopic and histopathologic features. The diagnosis of EE is nowadays based upon the presence of 15 or more eosinophils per high power field (eo/HPF) in esophageal biopsies. We report the cases of two young males suffering from dysphagia and recurrent food impaction with reflux esophagitis and more than 20 eo/HPF in upper-mid esophagus biopsies, both of which became asymptomatic on proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. The first patient also achieved a histologic response, while EE remained in the other patient after effective PPI treatment, as shown by 24-h esophageal pH monitoring. Topical steroid therapy combined with PPI led to complete remission in this latter patient. GERD and EE may be undistinguishable, even by histology, so diagnosis of EE should only be established after a careful correlation of clinical, endoscopic and pathologic data obtained under vigorous acid suppression. These diagnostic difficulties are maximal when both diseases overlap. Limited data are available about this topic, and the interaction between EE and GERD is a matter of debate. In this setting, upper-mid esophagus step biopsies and esophageal pH monitoring of patients on PPI therapy are pivotal to evaluate the role of each disease. A PPI trial is mandatory in patients with a histopathologic diagnosis of EE; in those unresponsive to PPI treatment, EE should be suggested. However, a clinical response to PPI may not rule out quiescent EE, as shown in this report." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0510_8996", "title": "Laparoscopic transgastric esophageal mucosal resection for high-grade dysplasia.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "High-grade dysplasia of the esophageal mucosa has been shown to be a precursor to adenocarcinoma. In addition to esophagectomy, multiple ablative endoscopic techniques have evolved for the management of this condition. As a surgical alternative to esophagectomy, we describe for the first time a new option in the treatment of high-grade dysplasia. Two patients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) underwent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy which demonstrated high-grade dysplasia of the distal esophagus. The first patient had a short segment (0.5-1.0 cm), and the second patient had a longer (2 cm) segment of dysplasia. The patient is placed in the modified lithotomy position. Five trocars are placed as if to perform a fundoplication. A complete circumferential mobilization of the esophagus is performed. The short gastric vessels are divided with the harmonic scalpel, to free up the fundus of the stomach. An anterior horizontal gastrotomy is performed three to four centimeters below the gastroesophageal junction. A solution of epinephrine and normal saline (1:100,000) is injected into the mucosa at the Z-line and, utilizing specially designed hook electrocautery, the mucosa is incised circumferentially around a lighted bougie. Using blunt dissection the mucosa is undermined, elevated, and excised in four quadrants. Three centimeters of the distal esophageal mucosa are resected. The gastrotomy is then closed using a linear stapler, and a 360 degrees fundoplication is performed around a 50 Fr bougie. High-grade dysplasia was identified in the specimens from both patients; however, neither patient was found to have carcinoma in situ or invasive esophageal cancer. Our first patient has been followed for twenty months, the second for ten months. Both patients underwent routine upper gastrointestinal endoscopy for surveillance of the healing process. At eight months, the mucosa of the first patient showed complete regeneration of squamous epithelium. Our most recent patient appears to be progressing without complications and has also demonstrated normal squamous epithelium at ten months postoperatively, without changes of Barrett's epithelium. The technique of laparoscopic transgastric esophageal mucosal resection is feasible and may be proven to be an alternative to esophagectomy for the management of high-grade dysplasia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0847_9970", "title": "[Oesophageal diseases: gastroesophageal reflux disease, Barrett's disease, achalasia and eosinophilic oesophagitis].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The most important novel findings presented on oesophageal disease in DDW 2015 were the following: 1) GERD: a) hypervigilance seems to be a key pathogenic factor in reflux symptoms refractory to PPI; b) post-reflux swallowing-induced peristaltic waves could be an excellent diagnostic criterion for GERD; c) laryngeal pH-metry is not useful in the diagnosis of extra-oesophageal symptoms; d) the recommendation of weight loss adequately recorded in the clinical reports of patients with GERD and obesity or overweight is an excellent quality indicator and is associated with better outcomes. 2) Barrett's oesophagus: a) persistent low-grade dysplasia in more than one endoscopy and a diagnosis of \"indefinite for dysplasia\" are associated with a high risk of neoplastic progression; b) narrow-band imaging allows areas of dysplasia on Barrett's oesophagus to be identified with high sensitivity and specificity; c) initial endoscopy fails to identify a high percentage of advanced neoplasms in Barrett's oesophagus. Early re-endoscopy should be considered; d) endoscopists specialized in Barret's oesophagus obtain a much higher yield in the diagnosis of advanced lesions. Patients at high risk-men, older patients, smokers and those with long-segment Barrett's oesophagus-could benefit from follow-up in a referral center. 3) Achalasia: POEM seems safe and effective, independently from patient characteristics (age, comorbidity) and the technical variations used. 4) Eosinophilic esophagitis: topical budesonide and exclusion diets are reasonably effective in PPI non-responders. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0894_12545", "title": "Endoscopic management of Barrett's esophagus: European Society of Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ESGE) Position Statement.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Current practices for the management of Barrett's esophagus (BE) vary across Europe, as several national European guidelines exist. This Position Statement from the European Society of Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ESGE) is an attempt to homogenize recommendations and, hence, patient management according to the best scientific evidence and other considerations (e.g. health policy). A Working Group developed consensus statements, using the existing national guidelines as a starting point and considering new evidence in the literature. The Position Statement wishes to contribute to a more cost-effective approach to the care of patients with BE by reducing the number of surveillance endoscopies for patients with a low risk of malignant progression and centralizing care in expert centers for those with high progression rates.Main statements <bMS1</b The diagnosis of BE is made if the distal esophagus is lined with columnar epithelium with a minimum length of 1 cm (tongues or circular) containing specialized intestinal metaplasia at histopathological examination. <bMS2</b The ESGE recommends varying surveillance intervals for different BE lengths. For patients with an irregular Z-line/columnar-lined esophagus of &lt; 1 cm, no routine biopsies or endoscopic surveillance is advised. For BE ≥ 1 cm and &lt; 3 cm, BE surveillance should be repeated every 5 years. For BE ≥ 3 cm and &lt; 10 cm, the interval for endoscopic surveillance should be 3 years. Patients with BE with a maximum extent ≥ 10 cm should be referred to a BE expert center for surveillance endoscopies. Patients with limited life expectancy and advanced age should be discharged from endoscopic surveillance. <bMS3</b The diagnosis of any degree of dysplasia (including \"indefinite for dysplasia\") in BE requires confirmation by an expert gastrointestinal pathologist. <bMS4</b Patients with visible lesions in BE diagnosed as dysplasia or early cancer should be referred to a BE expert center. All visible abnormalities, regardless of the degree of dysplasia, should be removed by means of endoscopic resection techniques in order to obtain optimal histopathological staging <bMS5</b All patients with a BE ≥ 10 cm, a confirmed diagnosis of low grade dysplasia, high grade dysplasia (HGD), or early cancer should be referred to a BE expert center for surveillance and/or treatment. BE expert centers should meet the following criteria: annual case load of ≥10 new patients undergoing endoscopic treatment for HGD or early carcinoma per BE expert endoscopist; endoscopic and histological care provided by endoscopists and pathologists who have followed additional training; at least 30 supervised endoscopic resection and 30 endoscopic ablation procedures to acquire competence in technical skills, management pathways, and complications; multidisciplinary meetings with gastroenterologists, surgeons, oncologists, and pathologists to discuss patients with Barrett's neoplasia; access to experienced esophageal surgery; and all BE patients registered prospectively in a database." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 316, 436 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 51, 73 ] ], "text": "1: if it is a recent loss, the MCV could remain normal, but the ferritin should be affected, and certainly not elevated." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 437, 581 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 73, 101 ] ], "text": "2: the same. If it is due to Fe malabsorption, ferritin should be low. And if it were due to B12 malabsorption, the MCV would be clearly higher." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 91, 275 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 15, 42 ] ], "text": "Older woman with normocitic anemia and clear ferrokinetic pattern of chronic disorder (hyposideremia but hyperferritinemia). The only one that fits, and it fits perfectly, is number 3;" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 582, 637 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 101, 112 ] ], "text": "4: 70 tachycardia and normal MCV. This one is too much." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Recent blood loss through the digestive tract.", "2": "Intestinal malabsorption.", "3": "Polymyalgia rheumatica.", "4": "Thalassemia minor.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0266_16376", "title": "[Iron deficiency anemia is not always simple].", "score": 0.01566111881645862, "content": "Malabsorption of oraliron is rare, and more frequently suspected than proved. It could be due to prolonged iron deficiency. Case no. 1: A boy was admitted at the age of 5 months for recurrent bronchitis. His hemoglobin was 8.2 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 60 micron3, mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) 15 ng and mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) 25 gHb/dl. The serum iron was 1 microgram/dl, iron binding capacity (IBC) was 284 micrograms/dl and ferritin was 14.9 ng/ml. Dietary iron was inadequate. The patient was given ferrous sulfate but iron deficiency persisted at the ages of 11 months and 3 years, probably due to poor compliance. Similar hematologic data (Hb: 6.4 g/dl, MCV 55 micrograms/m3, MCH 13.9 ng, MCHC 24 gHb/dl) were found at the age of 9 years. The patient was then given ferrous sulfate orally as test but the serum iron levels were unchanged during the 4 hours following ingestion. A parenteral iron preparation (iron-dextran, 500 mg) improved the hematologic data. 6 months later, a new oral test with ferrous sulfate improved the serum iron level. Case no. 2: A boy with complex congenital cardiopathy was operated on in the neonatal period and given oral iron at the age of 9 months because of anemia with microcytosis and hypochromia. This anemia was still present at 17 months and was associated with normal or high serum ferritin. Electrophoresis of hemoglobin was normal. At the age of 4 yr 5 mo, Hb was 9.7 g/dl, MCV 62.8 micrograms/m3, MCH 18.4 ng, iron 16 micrograms/dl and ferritin 94.1 ng/ml. An oral test with ferrous sulfate failed to increase the serum iron. The patient was then given parenteral iron-dextran without benefit, and a second oral test remained ineffective. After a second course of parenteral iron-dextran, Hb was 11.5 g/dl, MCV 74.1 micrograms/m3, MCH 23.7 ng while the serum iron remained low (23 micrograms/dl) and ferritin increased to 587 ng/ml. A third oral test with ferrous sulfate was still ineffective, as was a test using 4 mg/kg iron. The first patient suffered from iron malabsorption, presumably due to iron deficiency. The second patient could have abnormal metabolism and/or abnormal ferritin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0836_19599", "title": "Hematinic deficiencies and anemia statuses in oral mucosal disease patients with folic acid deficiency.", "score": 0.015455304928989139, "content": "Folic acid deficiency (FAD) may result in macrocytic anemia. This study assessed the hematinic deficiencies and anemia statuses in oral mucosal disease patients with FAD (defined as folic acid ≤ 6 ng/mL). The blood hemoglobin (Hb), iron, vitamin B12, and folic acid concentrations, serum gastric parietal cell antibody level, and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) in 198 oral mucosal disease patients with FAD were measured. Based on World Health Organization (WHO) criteria, anemia or Hb deficiency was defined as having an Hb concentration of &lt;13 g/dL for men and &lt;12 g/dL for women. In this study, macrocytic anemia due to FAD was defined as having an MCV ≥100 fL and folic acid ≤6 ng/mL; pernicious anemia as having MCV ≥100 fL, vitamin B12 &lt; 200 pg/mL, and serum gastric parietal cell antibody positivity; iron deficiency anemia as having MCV &lt;80 fL and iron &lt;60 μg/dL; and thalassemia trait as having MCV &lt;74 fL, red blood cell (RBC) count &gt; 5.0 × 10(12)/L, and Mentzer index (MCV/RBC) &lt; 13. We found that by WHO definitions, 73 (36.9%), 41 (20.7%), and 10 (5.1%) of our 198 FAD patients had concomitant Hb, iron, and vitamin B12 deficiencies, respectively. Of 73 anemic FAD patients, three had macrocytic anemia due to FAD, one had pernicious anemia, 14 had iron deficiency anemia, eight had thalassemia trait, and the resting 47 had normocytic anemia. In addition to macrocytic anemia (2.0%), FAD patients may have concomitant normocytic (23.7%) or microcytic (11.1%) anemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0596_19767", "title": "[Effect of Helicobacter pylori eradication on iron deficiency anemia of unknown origin].", "score": 0.013589378007485296, "content": "Iron deficiency anemia of unknown origin is a frequent cause of anemia in which etiological diagnosis is often not achieved, despite currently available diagnostic techniques. Recent studies suggest that, in the absence of digestive tract lesions, Helicobacter pylori infection could be the cause of iron deficiency anemia, due to the alterations produced in gastric iron absorption. To evaluate whether H. pylori eradication resolves iron deficiency anemia and removes the need for oral iron administration. We performed an observational descriptive study in patients with iron deficiency anemia refractory to treatment with oral iron administration and with out causes that could explain their anemia. Gastroscopy, ileocolonoscopy, intestinal transit study and/or endoscopic capsule were performed. Female patients also underwent gynecological study. All patients were H. pylori-positive and standard eradication therapy was administered until elimination was achieved. The patients were followed-up for a minimum of 3 months after H. pylori eradication and the need for oral iron intake after eradication was evaluated. Ten patients, aged 53+/-8.2 years, were included. Hemoglobin (Hbg) before treatment was 10.06+/-0.53 mg/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) was 75.43+/-6.02 fl and ferritin was 6.1+/-3.28 ng/ml. Eradication therapy was administered until elimination of H. pylori. The mean time before disappearance of anemia was 4.5 months. Laboratory parameters after treatment were as follows: Hgb 12.86+/-0.75 mg/dl, MCV 85.02+/-4.8 fl and ferritin 28+/-22.19 ng/dl. In the absence of lesions that could explain iron deficiency anemia, this disease can be related to H. pylori infection. Eradication of this infection is closely followed by disappearance of anemia and ferropenia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_91170", "title": "Mean corpuscular volume", "score": 0.013354700854700854, "content": "Interpretation The normal reference range is typically 80-100 fL. High In pernicious anemia (macrocytic), MCV can range up to 150 femtolitres. (as are an elevated GGT and an AST/ALT ratio of 2:1). Vitamin B12 and/or folic acid deficiency has also been associated with macrocytic anemia (high MCV numbers). Low The most common causes of microcytic anemia are iron deficiency (due to inadequate dietary intake, gastrointestinal blood loss, or menstrual blood loss), thalassemia, sideroblastic anemia or chronic disease. In iron deficiency anemia (microcytic anemia), it can be as low as 60 to 70 femtolitres. In some cases of thalassemia, the MCV may be low even though the patient is not iron deficient. Worked example" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_7978", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011776061776061776, "content": "When moderate anemia is present (hemoglobin 10–13 g/dL), the bone marrow remains hypoproliferative. With more severe anemia (hemoglobin 7–8 g/dL), hypochromia and microcytosis become more prominent, target cells and misshapen red cells (poikilocytes) appear on the blood smear as cigaror pencil-shaped forms, and the erythroid marrow becomes increasingly ineffective. Consequently, with severe prolonged iron-deficiency anemia, erythroid hyperplasia of the marrow develops, rather than hypoproliferation. Conditions that increase demand for iron, increase iron loss, or decrease iron intake or absorption can produce iron deficiency (Table 126-2). Chronic blood loss Menses Acute blood loss Blood donation Phlebotomy as treatment for polycythemia vera Malabsorption from disease (sprue, Crohn’s disease) Malabsorption from surgery (gastrectomy and some forms of bariatric surgery)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en442_325", "title": "Latent iron deficiency", "score": 0.011739699149771092, "content": "The normal range for hemoglobin is 13.8 to 17.2 grams per deciliter (g/dL) for men and 12.1 to 15.1 g/dL for women. Low hemoglobin indicates anemia but will be normal for LID. Normal serum iron is between 60 and 170 micrograms per deciliter (μg/dL). Normal total iron-binding capacity for both sexes is 240 to 450 μg/dL. Total iron-binding capacity increases when iron deficiency exists. Serum ferritin levels reflect the iron stores available in the body. The normal range is 20 to 200 ng/mL for men and 15 to 150 ng/mL for women. Low levels (< 12 ng/mL) are specific for iron deficiency. However, inflammatory and neoplastic disorders can cause ferritin levels to increase - this may be seen in cases of hepatitis, leukemia, Hodgkin lymphoma, and GI tract tumors. The most sensitive and specific criterion for iron-deficient erythropoiesis is depleted iron stores in the bone marrow. However, in practice, a bone marrow examination is rarely needed." }, { "id": "article-30017_15", "title": "Beta Thalassemia -- Evaluation", "score": 0.011468167513919148, "content": "The complete blood count (CBC) of a patient with beta-thalassemia major will show microcytic hypochromic anemia with Hb levels less than 7g/dl, the mean corpuscular volume between (MCV) 50 and 70 fl, and mean corpuscular Hb (MCH) between 12 and 20pg. Beta- thalassemia intermedia presents with values of Hb between 7 and 10 g/dl, MCV 50 to 80 fl, and MCH 16 to 24pg. In beta-thalassemia minor, the red cell number is often elevated, reduced MCV, MCH, and the red cell distribution width (RDW) will typically show low elevations. The normal to mildly elevated RDW can help differentiate thalassemias from other microcytic hypochromic anemias, such as iron deficiency anemia and sideroblastic anemia where the RDW is typically very high. The peripheral blood smear will show microcytic hypochromic anemia with target cells, teardrop cells, and often coarse basophilic stippling (see Image 1). In severe forms of beta-thalassemia, there is anisopoikilocytosis with bizarre red cell morphology and numerous nucleated red blood cells. [2]" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en282_6040", "title": "Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia", "score": 0.01136493106984163, "content": "Treatment of individuals with CDA usually consist of frequent blood transfusions, but this can vary depending on the type that the individual has. Patients report going every 2–3 weeks for blood transfusions. In addition, they must undertake chelation therapy to survive; either deferoxamine, deferasirox, or deferiprone to eliminate the excess iron that accumulates. Removal of the spleen and gallbladder are common. Hemoglobin levels can run anywhere between 8.0 g/dl and 11.0 g/dl in untransfused patients, the amount of blood received by the patient is not as important as their baseline pre-transfusion hemoglobin level. This is true for ferritin levels and iron levels in the organs as well, it is important for patients to go regularly for transfusions in order to maximize good health, normal ferritin levels run anywhere between 24 and 336 ng/ml, hematologists generally do not begin chelation therapy until ferritin levels reach at least 1000 ng/ml. It is more important to check iron" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0411_16810", "title": "Iron status of one-year-old infants in a well baby clinic.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Seventy-two healthy infants (37 males, 35 females) attending a private well baby clinic were enrolled in the study. Their mean birthweights and body weights at one year of age were 3,079 grams and 10 kilograms, respectively. Blood samples were drawn approximately on their first birthday for evaluating the iron status. Complete blood count, hemoglobin (Hb) typing and DNA analysis for common carrier status of thalassemia and hemoglobinopathis were also determined. According to the infants of serum ferritin, the patients were classified into 4 groups: group 1, iron deficiency anemia (Hb &lt;11 g/dl and ferritin &lt;12 ng/L) in 1 infants (1.4%); group 2, iron deficiency without anemia (Hb &gt;11 g/dl and ferritin &lt;12 ng/L) in 5 infants (6.9%); group 3, borderline iron depletion (ferritin 12-30 ng/L) in 39 infants (54.2%); group 4, iron sufficiency (ferritin &gt;30 ng/L) in 27 infants (37.5%). The iron deficiency state emerged as 8.3 per cent (6/72). There was no significant difference of levels of Hb and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) among the infants with iron deficiency without anemia, borderline iron depletion and iron sufficiency. The results also revealed that 25 out of 72 (34.7%) infants were carriers of thalassemia and hemoglobinopathies. The carrier infants had significant lower Hb and MCV than those of the non-carrier infants with the p-values of 0.004 and 0.000, respectively; while their serum ferritin levels were not significantly different. Additionally, the association of carrier and iron deficiency state was further evaluated. The Hb and MCV among carrier infants with and without iron deficiency were not significantly different. Six infants with carrier state were found to have slightly decreased levels of Hb ranging from 10.3 to 10.9 g/dl with the ferritin ranging from 18.7 to 382.9 ng/L while the remainders had Hb of &gt;11 g/dl. Therefore, 7 out of 72 (9.2%) infants had anemia (Hb &lt;11 g/dl) which was caused by the carrier state of thalassemia and hemoglobinopathies (n=6) and iron deficiency anemia (n=1). The risk factors of iron deficiency status were associated with feeding regimen including continuation of breast feeding until one year of age without adequate haem iron supplement, exclusive formula feeding, inadequacy of solid food supplement with only one meal per day and excluding haem iron from animal liver without substitution. The infants with risk factors had significantly lower levels of serum ferritin (mean 14.1 +/- 1.7 ng/L) than those without risk factors (mean 31.9 +/- 1.9 ng/L) with a p-value of 0.000. In conclusion, adequate haem iron supplement in 3 meals of solid food is essential for the prevention of iron deficiency status in one-year-old infants." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0416_11771", "title": "Patients over 45 years with iron deficiency require investigation.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Iron deficiency anaemia (IDA) that occurs in patients above the age of 45 years is often caused by gastrointestinal blood loss, and guidelines on the appropriate investigation of these patients have been published. There are few data regarding patients with iron deficiency who are not anaemic and it is not clear how these patients should be managed. We set out to investigate the hypothesis that similar pathologies are likely to underlie iron deficiency and IDA, and to assess whether IDA was being investigated according to the guidelines published by the British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG). The pathology computer identified 153 consecutive patients over the age of 45 years who had serum ferritin levels below 20 microg/dl (normal range 20-200 microg/dl) in a 2 month period (i.e., October and November 2000). Medical records were examined and we recorded all investigations, the diagnoses reached, and the investigating specialty. The results were compared using odds ratios (ORs) and 95% confidence intervals (CIs). The study shows that the causes of iron deficiency and IDA are similar, but IDA is investigated more thoroughly than iron deficiency, OR 2.07 (CI 1.08-3.97). Ten patients with iron deficiency without anaemia were found to have coeliac disease, a significant result, OR 6.71 (CI 1.38-32.6). The majority of patients with IDA are not under the care of a gastroenterologist and this group are significantly less likely to be investigated according to the BSG guidelines, OR 0.15 (0.04-0.6). The study shows that the yield of investigation of iron deficiency is high and, hence, it should be investigated in all patients over the age of 45 years. Despite guidelines published by the BSG, IDA is investigated sub-optimally and measures other than the issuing of guidelines are needed to change practice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0856_10821", "title": "Response to parenteral iron therapy distinguish unexplained refractory iron deficiency anemia from iron-refractory iron deficiency anemia.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "We evaluated that response to parenteral iron therapy could be helpful in distinguishing the types of iron deficiency anemia. This study analyzed responses to IV iron sucrose therapy of 15 children with unexplained refractory iron deficiency anemia (URIDA). We compared the results at diagnosis, 6 weeks and 6 months after the therapy. Results were compared with responses of 11 patients' results with iron-refractory iron deficiency anemia (IRIDA) from our previous study. Six weeks after the start of treatment, ferritin, MCV, MCH and Hb values were in normal range in 10 patients. The increase in Hb, MCH, MCV, and ferritin values ranged 2.6-3.5 g/dL, 1.7-4.2 pg, 2-9 fL, and 13-25 ng/mL, respectively. In five patients, Hb, MCH, and MCV mean (range) values [11.2 g/dL (11-12.2), 24.5 pg (24-25.6), and 67 fL (65-70)] were nearly normal but ferritin mean (range) values [9.8 ng/mL (8-11)] were below normal. Six weeks after the start of treatment, Hb, MCH, MCV and ferritin values of patients with IRIDA were increased. The increase in Hb, MCH, MCV, and ferritin values ranged 0.8-2.7 g/dL, 1.7-4.2 pg, 2-9 fL, and 13-25 ng/mL, respectively. IRIDA is only partially responsive to parenteral iron supplementation. In conclusion, this study demonstrated that the response to intravenous iron therapy for the URIDA cases improved blood parameters more effectively than hereditary IRIDA. Response to parenteral iron therapy would be helpful to distinguish unexplained refractory IDA from hereditary IRIDA for clinicians who do not have access to hepcidin or TMPRS6 mutation analysis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0319_16726", "title": "Serious gastrointestinal pathology found in patients with serum ferritin values &lt; or = 50 ng/ml.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Our aim was to evaluate the gastrointestinal tract in patients with serum ferritin values &lt; or = 50 ng/ml for the presence of serious gastrointestinal pathology, including neoplasia and acid peptic disease. In this prospective observational study, patients with serum ferritin values &lt; or = 50 ng/ml who did not have an obvious cause of iron deficiency underwent colonoscopy and/or esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Between October 1, 1994, and February 29, 1996, 725 of 3015 patients who had serum ferritin determinations were found to have values &lt; or = 50 ng/ml. To date, 143 patients have been fully evaluated and 77 were found to have serious gastrointestinal pathology including acid peptic disease (N = 46), cancer (N = 15), and large adenomas (N = 6). Colon cancer was discovered in five asymptomatic patients. The prevalences of serious gastrointestinal pathology did not differ between patients with serum ferritin values &lt; or = 20 ng/ml and those with values between 21-50 ng/ml (63% vs 48%, p = 0.07). However, multivariate analysis showed that the presence of upper or lower gastrointestinal symptoms and serum ferritin value &lt; or = 20 ng/ml is predictive of finding serious pathology (p = 0.0002 for the whole model), with odds ratios of 3.8 (95% confidence interval of 1.84-7.70) for presence of gastrointestinal symptoms and 2.2 (95% confidence interval of 1.09-4.57) for serum ferritin value &lt; or = 20 ng/ml. Endoscopic examination is warranted in patients with serum ferritin values &lt; or = 50 ng/ml to detect serious gastrointestinal pathology, present in 54% of such patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1076_4797", "title": "Low isolated ferritin levels without anemia: is gastrointestinal tract endoscopy sufficient to explain the cause?", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The present study assesses the diagnostic significance of low ferritin levels in gastrointestinal diseases by evaluating the endoscopic findings of patients with low ferritin levels without anemia. The study included patients aged 0-18 years who underwent an upper and lower gastrointestinal system endoscopy in the Pediatric Gastroenterology Department of our hospital. The patients were divided into three groups based on hemoglobin, and ferritin levels at the time of initial presentation and endoscopic and histopathological findings were recorded retrospectively. In the present study, 2391 pediatric patients were reviewed, among which 29% (n = 699) had anemia, 23% (n = 549) had low ferritin levels without anemia, and 48% (n = 1143) did not have anemia. The most common symptoms were abdominal pain, dyspepsia, and growth retardation. When the endoscopy findings were compared with those of patients with non-anemic group, Helicobacter pylori gastritis (24%/17.6%) and celiac disease (6%/2.2%) were more common in low ferritin levels without anemia, which indicated a statistically significant difference (p = 0.000/p = 0.04). Helicobacter pylori gastritis and celiac disease were more commonly observed in association with low ferritin levels. Low ferritin levels without anemia can be an early and silent sign of celiac disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0740_15281", "title": "Prevalence of hematinics deficiency amongst female students and its correction.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Nutritional anemia (NA) is common in India. While iron deficiency (ID) is a well recognized cause of NA, prevalence of deficiencies of other hematinics is not systematically investigated. Seventy students of a junior class of a polytechnic and 202 inmates of girl students home were taken up for study. Students were given a questionnaire to elicit anemia related symptoms. Blood was collected for complete blood count (CBC), serum ferritin, folic acid and vitamin B12. Students of polytechnic received hematinic at bed time during their menstrual periods whereas inmates of students home received hematinic at bed time, 3 days in a week. After 6 months blood tests were repeated in those who completed the treatment. CBC was done on Coulter counter and ferritin, folic acid and vitamin B12 were assayed by chemiluminescence. Students were divided into three groups-(1) Control group with Hb 12.0 g/dl or more and ferritin 15.0 ng/ml or more; (2) ID Group with Hb 12.0 g/dl or more and ferritin less than 15.0 ng/ml; and (3) Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) group with Hb less tha 12.0 g/dl and ferritin less than 15.0 ng/ml. Basal parameters of three groups were compared using students t test. Change in parameters with treatment was compared using paired students t test. Median age-16 years (range 10-25). Anemia ( Hb &lt; 12.0 g/dl)-94 (34.6%); MCV &lt; 80 fl-153 (56.3%); MCH &lt; 27 pg-167 (61.4%); Ferritin &lt; 15.0 ng/ml-161 (59.2%); Folic acid &lt; 3.5 ng/ml-34 (12.5%); Vitamin B12 &lt; 258 pg/ml-133 (48.9%) Pre-therapy: (1) Hb, MCV, MCH and ferritin significantly lower in ID and IDA Groups compared to control group. (2) Hb, MCV, MCH and Ferritin significantly lower in IDA Group as compared to ID Group. POST-THERAPY: (1) IDA group showed significant increase in Hb, MCV, MCH, ferritin, folic acid and vitamin B12. (2) final Hb (11.26+1.07) and ferritin (7.46+4.81) in IDA Group were subnormal. (3) MCV, MCH, ferritin, folic acid and vitamin B12 increased significantly in ID Group and control group. (1) Nutritional anemia is common amongst asymptomatic young female students. (2) Deficiencies of iron, folic acid and vitamin B12 are common and coexist. (3) 105 mg elemental iron for 3 days in a week for 6 months is not adequate to correct IDA. (4) 105 mg iron for 3 days in a week is enough to correct ID. (5) Non-anemic individuals with ID have iron deficient erythropoiesis. (6) Non-anemic individuals without ID, in this cohort, also had iron deficient eryhtropoiesis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0509_17853", "title": "[Method for determining the amount of blood loss using the storage iron decrease rate as obtained from serum ferritin after intravenous iron therapy].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "This is to introduce a new method for determining the amount of blood loss by measuring the storage iron decrease rate (SID), as obtained by following serum ferritin after intravenous iron therapy in a patient with iron deficiency anemia due to intestinal blood loss. The patient was followed from the day S, when iron therapy started, to the day E, when serum ferritin decreased to 12 microg/l, indicating the exhaustion of the iron stores. The SID was calculated from the formula: SID=(T-R)/D, where, T mg = total amount of injected iron, R mg = the difference in the iron in the hemoglobin (deltaHb) between day S and E, and D = days from S to E. The SID was thought to be iron loss only, as the contribution of iron absorption and iron loss to the SID, with the exception of bleeding, was believed to be negligible and as the serum ferritin decrease curve was exponentially linear. Using the formula, V = iron loss/iron in mean Hb, the amount of blood loss: V=29 ml/day was obtained. This method can also be used for the quantitation of blood loss in other patients with chronic blood loss, because the SID could also be determined in 12 cases of post-treatment iron deficiency anemia with chronic blood loss." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0973_3484", "title": "The Role of Advanced Practitioners in Optimizing Clinical Management and Support of Patients With Polycythemia Vera.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "<bCASE STUDY</b Mr. M, a 65-year-old male, presented to his primary care physician with progressive fatigue, difficulty sleeping, and daily headaches for the past 3 weeks. His headaches were not associated with visual disturbances, cognitive deficits, or nausea/vomiting, and he had no history of migraines. He had a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, did not smoke, rarely drank alcohol, and had no recent illnesses or hospitalizations. His previous physical examination and laboratory studies 2 years ago were normal. The current physical examination revealed a plethoric yet well-appearing, well-nourished male in no acute distress. His lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally without wheezes, rales, or rhonchi. He had a regular heart rate and rhythm without murmur. His abdomen was soft, without tenderness, distension, or palpable hepatosplenomegaly. Examination of the extremities was negative for edema. Distal pulses and sensation in the hands and feet were intact and equal bilaterally. Cranial nerves II to XII were deemed intact, and no gross focal deficits were observed. Complete blood count (CBC) revealed a slightly elevated white blood cell (WBC) count (14.6 × 10<sup9</sup/L [normal range, 3.9-10.7 × 10<sup9</sup/L; Wians, 2015]), erythrocytosis (red blood cell [RBC] count, 6.5 × 1012/L [normal range, 4.2-5.9 × 1012/L; Wians, 2015], hemoglobin, 19 g/dL [normal range, 14-17 g/dL; Wians, 2015], and hematocrit, 54.3% [normal range, 41%-51%; Wians, 2015]), thrombocytosis (platelet count, 500 × 109/L [normal range, 150-350 × 10<sup9</sup/L; Wians, 2015]), and microcytosis (mean cell volume [MCV], 75 fL [80-100 fL; Wians, 2015]), which combined were cause for referral to a hematology/oncology clinic. During his hematology/oncology evaluation, Mr. M described \"never feeling rested\" and being unable to sleep with uncertain snoring habits. He was experiencing itching during hot showers yet did not have rashes and had not recently introduced a new soap. He had no family history of blood disorders and no personal history of blood clots. The second CBC and laboratory tests confirmed erythrocytosis (RBC count, 6.5 × 1012/L; hemoglobin, 18.9 g/dL; hematocrit, 54%) and microcytosis (MCV, 75 fL). Serum iron (22 μg/dL [normal range, 60-160 μg/dL]) and ferritin (5 ng/mL [normal range, 15-200 ng/mL]) were suggestive of iron deficiency, serum erythropoietin was 8 mU/mL (normal range, 4.0-18.5 mU/mL), and a Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) mutation analysis was positive for JAK2V617F. Platelet count remained 500 × 109/L and WBC count was 10.2 × 10<sup9</sup/L." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0325_8341", "title": "[alpha-thalassemia accompanied with Gilbert's syndrome].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 15-year-old boy was admitted to our hospital because of microcytic hypochromic erythrocytosis and hyperbilirubinemia in October 1996. The laboratory findings were RBC: 597 x 10(4)/microliter, Hb: 13.1 g/dl, Ht: 40.8%, MCV: 70fl, MCH: 22pg, total bilirubin: 3.2 mg/dl (indirect: 2.2 mg/dl), s-Fe: 99 micrograms/dl, and ferritin: 25 ng/ml. Routine liver function tests were normal. There were no findings of hemolysis except for an increase in serum indirect bilirubin and reticulocytes. Decreased erythrocyte osmotic fragility was observed. The patient's mother and sister also showed microcytic hypochromic erythrocytosis. PCR analysis of genomic DNA from this patient, his mother, and his sister confirmed the diagnosis of the alpha-thalassemia trait. However, the bilirubin-UDP-glucuronosyltransferase 1 (B-UGT 1) gene mutation and the findings of the fasting test indicated the simultaneous presence of Gilbert's syndrome. The association of these two diseases in the same patient appears to be rare, especially in Japan because of the low incidence of thalassemia in this country. We concluded that the hyperbilirubinemia was caused by decreased bilirubin clearance, not by increased erythrocyte destruction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0113_14220", "title": "Anaemia in patients with arthritis: are simple investigations helpful?", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The level of haemoglobin, serum iron, total iron binding capacity and ferritin were measured in patients with rheumatological conditions who were anaemic at the time of upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. These parameters were similar in patients with or without lesions of their upper gastrointestinal tract, and in patients with a positive or negative faecal occult blood result. Lesions of the upper gastrointestinal tract were not more frequent in patients with a microcytic anaemia when compared to those with a normocytic anaemia, nor were they found more frequently in patients with a positive faecal occult blood test. Lesions visible at upper gastrointestinal endoscopy are not an important cause of microcytic anaemia in patients with arthritis. The finding that patients with normocytic anaemia are more likely to proceed to lower bowel examination than patients with microcytic anaemia is a reflection of the difficulty in interpretation of these simple haematological tests and showed they were unhelpful in determining which patients warrant investigation of the lower bowel. The frequency of further investigation of the lower bowel was significantly reduced by a positive endoscopy report, irrespective of the nature of the lesion, but was not significantly increased by finding faecal occult blood. We suggest that patients with arthritis selected for investigation of possible gastrointestinal blood loss should follow an organized plan of investigation that includes examination of both upper and lower bowel, and which should proceed uninfluenced by pro tem results. Unfortunately the selection of patients for such further investigation is hampered by a lack of simple discriminatory tests." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0666_3293", "title": "Identification of a new mutation on the beta-globin gene: codons 8/9 (+AGAA); GAG.AAG.TCT(Glu-Lys-Ser)&gt;GAG. AAAGAAG, in a patient from the north of France with a phenotype of beta-thalassemia minor.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A 37-year-old man presented a slight debility. The hemogram showed a phenotype of beta-thalassemia minor: Hb (13.1 g/dL), mean corpuscular volume (MCV) (62 fL) with low mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) (20.8 pg), associated with a high level of Hb A(2) of 5.3%. The serum ferritin level was 1,072 ng/mL. The sequencing of the mutated fragment revealed a duplication of four bases of codons 7/8 involving a shift in the open reading frame starting from codon 9 with a TGA stop codon at codon 23: codons 7/8/9 (+AGAA); GAG.AAG.TCT(Gly-Lys-Ser)&gt;GAG.AAAGAAG. The human hemoglobin (Hb) instability tests were negative. The patient did not present the high iron Fe (HFE) mutation (C282Y, H63D). The same mutation was found in five other unrelated families (representing a total of 23 patients). All of their ancestors came from the north of France. This mutation has not been described before and could have its origins in the native populations of Northern France." }, { "id": "article-24805_34", "title": "Mean Corpuscular Volume -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Differential diagnoses of MCV under 80 include iron deficiency anemia causes, anemia of chronic disease causes, sideroblastic anemia causes, H. pylori infection, and thalassemias. Iron deficiency anemia can have many different differential diagnoses including menorrhagia, colorectal adenocarcinoma, bleeding colonic polyp, bleeding peptic ulcer disease, Helicobacter pylori infection, hematemesis, chronic epistaxis, and duodenal malabsorption or resection. Anemia of chronic disease can have differential diagnoses including malignancy, rheumatologic conditions such as SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune diseases such as primary biliary cirrhosis or multiple sclerosis, chronic kidney disease, and chronic infection. Chronic alcoholism, vitamin B6 deficiency, isoniazid use, myelodysplastic disorder, lead poisoning, copper deficiency, and congenital sideroblastic anemia are all differential diagnoses for sideroblastic anemia, causing microcytic anemia. The main types of thalassemia are alpha1, alpha2, alpha3/ hemoglobin H disease, alpha4, which is fatal, beta-thalassemia minor, beta-thalassemia major, and HbS/β thalassemia heterozygote." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0911_7773", "title": "[PREVALENCE OF IRON DEFICIENCY AND IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA IN INFANTS AGED 9 TO 15 MONTHS IN A LOW INCOME POPULATION (2005-2010)].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Iron deficiency (ID) is a common nutritional deficiency. To estimate the prevalence and causes of ID and iron deficiency anemia (IDA) and to report the iron status in Israeli Arab infants. Data on iron status was taken from 410 infants, aged 9 to 15 months, who were randomly selected from 2400 infants born between 2005-2010. Hemoglobin (Hb) &lt;11 g/dL, ferritin &lt;12 μg/L and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) &lt;70 fL were the criteria for establishing IDA, and ferritin&lt;12 μg/L and MCV &lt;70 fL for establishing ID. Of the 410 infants, 116 (28%) had Hb &lt;11 g/dL, and 68 (17%) had MCV&lt;70 fL. We were able to analyze the samples of 368 infants for ferritin: 27 (7%) had ferritin &lt;12 μg/L. Iron deficiency anemia (Hb &lt;11 g/dL and ferritin &lt;12 μg/L) was diagnosed in 15/368 infants (4%).The IDA rate was 2% (10/368 infants) when the criteria of three factors (Hb &lt;11 g/dL and ferritin &lt;12 μg/L, MCV &lt;70 fL) were used. Infants who were breastfed &gt;6 months were significantly less prone to have anemia (P &gt; 0.002) and infants who received &gt;6 months of iron supplements were also less prone to have anemia (P &lt; 0.05). Studies are needed for establishing valid cutoff points for diagnosing ID and IDA and for identifying the causes of the high rate of anemia in the absence of ID. Breastfeeding and iron preparation supplementation are recommended and the test of ferritin at one year of age could be considered." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0291_17281", "title": "[Diagnosis of chronic hemorrhage in diseases of the small intestine].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "In a period of 10 years 38 patients received treatment in the clinic for iron deficiency anemia in whom the source of chronic blood loss was revealed in the small intestine. The radionuclide method for detecting concealed blood loss was most informative for the diagnosis (98%) of chronic intestinal hemorrhages, and was particularly important in cases with iron deficiency anemia of unclear genesis. Oral enterography was the most available method and sufficiently informative (32%) in the diagnosis of chronic hemorrhages from the small intestine. In 3-4 day, blood loss of more than 10 ml/24 h from the gastrointestinal tract verified by the radionuclide method but with the source of the bleeding not identified by instrumental methods, the indications for diagnostic laparotomy must be widened for careful examination of the small intestine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0903_22428", "title": "Effect of breastfeeding versus infant formula on iron status of infants with beta thalassemia major.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Thalassemia major or Cooley's anemia is the most severe form of beta thalassemia in which the complete lack of beta protein in the hemoglobin causes a life-threatening anemia requiring regular blood transfusions and extensive ongoing medical care. These extensive, lifelong blood transfusions lead to iron-overload that must be treated with chelation therapy to prevent early death from organ failure. We compared serum iron and ferritin levels amongst infants aged up to one year with beta thalassemia major according to their feeding types, including exclusively breastfed, exclusively formula fed and combined (both breast and formula) fed types. Sixty out of 176 screened infants with transfusion dependant beta thalassemia major were recruited from the outpatient clinic of thalassemia at Zagazig University Hospital in Egypt, between 2007 and 2014. Patients were classified into three groups (20 patients per group) according to type of feeding. Group 1: exclusive breastfeeding, around 6-8 feeds per day; group 2: exclusive infant formula feeding, 120-150 ml of formula per kilogram of body weight per day divided into 6-8 feeds and group 3: combined breastfeeding and formula per day. Serum iron and ferritin levels were lower in group 1 compared to groups 2 and 3. The mean serum iron for group 1 was 73, 87 and 96 ug/dl at 6, 9 and 12 months respectively, while that for group 2 was 85, 99 and 112 ug/dl at 6, 9 and 12 months respectively and for group 3 was 78, 92 and 99 ug/dl at 6, 9 and 12 months respectively. The mean serum ferritin for group 1 was 283, 327 and 497 ng/ml at 6, 9 and 12 months respectively, while that for group 2 was 310, 389 and 591 ng/ml at 6, 9 and 12 months respectively and for group 3 was 291, 345 and 515 ng/ml at 6, 9 and 12 months respectively. The differences were not statistically significant. Breastfed infants with beta thalassemia major may accumulate less iron than infants fed iron fortified formula anticipating later onset of iron overload in the breastfed infants. Larger studies are needed to support these findings." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0252_20511", "title": "[Endemic sprue: its first diagnosis based on bleeding complications].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 47-year-old man without previously known illness was admitted to hospital because of acute haematomas in the legs: the history revealed no cause. The pale-looking patient reported having large and foul-smelling stools once or twice daily. There were large haematomas and swellings on both legs. His general and nutritional state was reduced. \"Bleeding of unknown origin\" was suspected at this time. Haemoglobin concentration was 5.6 g/dl, while iron was normal and ferritin reduced. Quick value was below 5%, activated partial thromboplastin time prolonged to 180 s. Vitamin A and E concentrations were reduced; coumarin derivatives were not demonstrated in blood. Abdominal ultrasonography showed clearly thickened intestinal walls. Four units of erythrocyte concentrate were immediately administered, together with 2000 IU factors II, VII, X and anti-haemophilic factor B (PPSB), and 10 mg vitamin K intravenously. As intestinal malabsorption was suspected, a vitamin A absorption test was performed: it indicated malabsorption. Upper intestinal endoscopy showed coeliac disease, as did a biopsy. The patient's state quickly improved after he had been given vitamins A, D, E and K and put on a gluten-free diet. Coeliac disease can take a clinically unremarkable course for a long time and may finally become manifest through an isolated abnormality, such as bleeding." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0520_15415", "title": "Incidence and risk factors of iron deficiency anemia in term infants.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "To compare the incidence of iron deficiency anemia (IDA) between breast-fed (BF) and formula-fed (FF) infants and to identify the risk factors of IDA in these infants. Cohort study. A study of 140 full- term infants (70 BF and 70 FF) was conducted at BMA Medical College and Vajira Hospital from February 2002 to November 2003. All infants were followed at the age of 1, 2, 4, 6, 9 and 12 months for growth and developmental assessment. Blood samples were analyzed for hemoglobin (Hb), hematocrit (Hct) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) at 9 - 12 months; and infants with Hb &lt; 11.0 g/dl were further investigated for the cause of anemia. The mean values of Hb, Hct, MCV and serum ferritin of BF infants were 10.8 g/dl, 32.8%, 70.9fl and 16.7 ng/ml respectively, which were significantly lower than those of FF infants (11.4 g/dl, 35.1%, 73.3fl, and 36.9 ng/ml, p &lt; 0. 05). Anemia was found in 27 BF infants (38.6%) compared with 10 FF infants (14.39%). The incidence of IDA in BF infants was significantly higher than FF infants (25.7% vs 2.9%, p &lt; 0.001). Risk factors of IDA included low birth weight, breastfeeding and inadequate complementary food (adjusted RR (95% CI): 3.1(1.1 - 9.1), 6.3(1.5 - 25.0), 7.7(2.8 - 20.0), respectively). IDA is more prevalent in BF than FF infants. Risk factors of IDA are low birth weight, breastfeeding and inadequate complementary food. Prevention of IDA in infants should be achieved through adequate iron-rich complementary food and screening for Hb or Hct at 9 - 12 months of age in high risk infants." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0683_7170", "title": "Identification of clinical and simple laboratory variables predicting responsible gastrointestinal lesions in patients with iron deficiency anemia.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Iron deficiency anemia (IDA) is a frequent disorder. Also, it may be a sign of underlying serious diseases. Iron deficiency points to an occult or frank bleeding lesion when occurred in men or postmenopausal women. In this study, we aimed to evaluate the diagnostic yield of endoscopy in patients with IDA and to define predictive factors of gastrointestinal (GI) lesions causing IDA. Ninety-one patients (77 women, 14 men; mean age: 43 years) who were decided to have esophago-duodenoscopy and/or colonoscopy for iron deficiency anemia were interviewed and responded to a questionnaire that included clinical and biochemical variables. The endoscopic findings were recorded as GI lesions causing IDA or not causing IDA. Endoscopy revealed a source of IDA in 18.6 % of cases. The risk factors for finding GI lesions causing IDA were as follows: male gender (p= 0.004), advanced age (&gt; 50 years) (p= 0.010), weight loss (over 20% of total body weight lost in last 6 month) (p= 0.020), chronic diarrhea (p= 0.006), change of bowel habits (p= 0.043), epigastric tenderness (p= 0.037), raised carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level (normal range: 0-7 ng/mL) (p= 0.039), &lt; 10 gr/dl hemoglobin (Hb) level (p=0.054). None of these risk factors had been present in 21 (23%) women younger than 51 years. In this group, no patient had any GI lesion likely to cause IDA (negative predictive value= 100%). In multivariate analysis, advanced age (p=0.017), male gender (p&lt; 0.01) and weight lost (p=0.012) found that associated with GI lesions in all patients. It may be an appropriate clinical approach to consider these risk factors when deciding for gastrointestinal endoscopic evaluation in iron deficiency anemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0767_24216", "title": "[An elderly woman with macrocytic anemia and acute high-output heart failure following acute bleeding due to a gastric ulcer].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Although macrocytic anemia can develop in patients with acute blood loss, such anemia in very old patients is uncommon. In this report, we describe the course of an 89-year-old woman who had a rapid recovery from macrocytic anemia by medication only after acute blood loss due to a gastric ulcer. She had been treated with antihypertensive drugs for the previous 28 years at our outpatient clinic, and was admitted because of acute anemia 6 days after she had experienced tarry stool. Her hemoglobin (Hb) count and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) were 8.4 g/dl, and 103 fl, respectively. A gastroscopic examination indicated that the tarry stool originated from a fresh gastric ulcer. She was treated with an iron preparation, a diuretic and a proton pump inhibitor. The anemia was rapidly improved to Hb 10.5 g/dl and MCV 106 fl in one week, and to Hb 14.5 g/dl and MCV 99 fl in 4 weeks. At admission, she had slight pleural effusion and slight edema associated with an increase in her plasma brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level (323 pg/ml), and her left ventricular ejection fraction was 76% based on the echocardiography findings, which are signs of the high-output heart failure without remarkable left ventricular diastolic dysfunction (E/e': 11.2). However, these signs improved rapidly, and her BNP level thereafter decreased to 114 pg/ml within four weeks. " }, { "id": "article-24805_27", "title": "Mean Corpuscular Volume -- Evaluation", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "For microcytic anemia, the presentation will determine the types of studies. If a patient is a menstruating woman with an MCV under 80, a Von Willebrand Factor and/or thyroid panel may be obtained to determine the underlying cause of menorrhagia as well as full menstrual history. On the contrary, a patient with microcytic anemia over the age of 50, is required to obtain a colonoscopy to determine if the iron deficiency originates from a polyp or neoplasm within the colon. Other investigations include urea breath test and an upper endoscopy to test for Helicobacter pylori infection if the patient complains of gastritis type pain. Anemia of chronic disease requires myriad tests if the underlying cause is unknown. Many of these tests include rheumatoid factor, Anti-double stranded DNA antibodies, Anti-neutrophil cytoplastic antibodies , anti-myeloperoxidase antibodies, a urine spot test to determine the renal function with GFR, creatinine, and blood urea nitrogen, HLA-B27 screening, and many more rheumatologic antibodies. Also, screening for malignancies with a CT scan or chest X-ray might be a consideration for the anemia of chronic disease. If lead poisoning is a possibility, a blood lead level is the gold-standard test. However, if other causes of sideroblastic anemia are suspected, a bone marrow biopsy is required. Medical history is very important to uncover the underlying etiology. In this case, the patient may be able to avoid a bone marrow biopsy. If beta-thalassemia is suspected based on history and physical examination, hemoglobin electrophoresis will help determine the amount of AA vs. A2 hemoglobin is present.  Genetic analysis is superior tests for alpha-thalassemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1117_23569", "title": "Relationship between glycosylated hemoglobin and iron deficiency anemia: A common but overlooked problem.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Both diabetes mellitus (DM) and iron deficiency anemia (IDA) are prevalent in every area of the world, and so, the possibility of these two diseases co-existing is also very high. It is our belief that clinical results of any correlation between iron status of the body and glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) would be beneficial to many patients, therefore in this study, the effect of IDA on HbA1c was investigated. A total of 146 patients with DM and IDA were evaluated prospectively. While the patients were administered 270 mg/day of ferrous sulphate (80 mg elemental iron) orally for three months for the treatment of IDA, no interventions were made for the treatment of DM. Patient levels of hemoglobin (Hb), hematocrit, red blood cells (RBC), mean corpuscular volume (MCV), platelet, white blood cells (WBC), serum iron, serum iron binding capacity (SIBC), ferritin, fasting plasma glucose (FPG), HbA1c, body mass index (BMI), C-reactive protein (CRP) values were measured at baseline and at the third month of treatment with iron, and were compared. The median age of our patients was 45 (40-50) and median duration of diabetes was 3 years (1,75-5). While the baseline median Hb was 10.4 (mg/dL) (9.5-11.1), MCV was 74 (fL) (70.8-77), ferritin was 4 (ug/L) (3-6) at three months, Hb was measured at 12.6 (mg/dL) (12.1-13.2), MCV was measured at 82 (fL) (80-86), ferritin was measured at 15 (ug/L) (9-21.2) and was significantly higher compared to baseline values (p &lt; 0.001). The baseline median HBA1c of patients was 7.09 ± 0.51 (%) and three month HBA1c was 6.69 ± 0.53 (%), which was significantly lower than when comparing baseline values with values at third month (p &lt; 0.001). Baseline and three month values for FPG were 118 (mg/dL) (108-132) and 116 (mg/dL) (106-125) respectively, and there was no significant difference (p:0.07). A 2.2 mg/dL (1.5-3.5) increase in median Hb level accompanied a 0.4 % (0.2-0.6) decrease in median HbA1c levels (Spearman rho = -0.362; p &lt; 0.001). Our study has shown conclusivly that IDA is related to increased HbA1c concentrations and HbA1c decreases significantly following treatment with iron. IDA should be considered before making any decisions regarding diagnosis or treatment according to HbA1c." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0564_23231", "title": "Can haematological indices predict positive findings at endoscopy in anaemic patients?", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Patients with anaemia are commonly referred for bidirectional endoscopy. The aim of this study was to determine if any haematological parameters could predict positive findings at endoscopy. A total of 209 patients had bidirectional endoscopies performed for anaemia between September 2002 and March 2004. The endoscopy reports, histology and full blood count results (haemoglobin [Hb], red blood cells [RBCs], packed cell volume [PCV], mean cell volume [MCV] and mean cell haemoglobin [MCH]) were then reviewed. Statistical analysis was performed using non-parametric tests. Overall, 197 patients had successful bidirectional endoscopies with 12 requiring completion barium enema. In 48 (23%) of these patients, a cause of anaemia was found with 15 (7.2%) carcinomas detected (2 upper GI and 13 lower GI). There was a significant difference in haemoglobin (9.2 g/dl versus 10.1 g/dl; P = 0.0044), RBCs (3.56 x 10(12)/l versus 3.83 x 10(12)/l; P = 0.0325) and PCV (0.279 l/l versus 0.31 l/l; P = 0.0112) between patients with positive findings at endoscopy and those with a normal investigation. Cancer patients had significantly lower haemoglobin (8.65 g/dl versus 10.1 g/dl; P = 0.0103), RBCs (3.45 x 10(12)/l versus 3.83 x 10(12)/l; P = 0.0179) and PCV (0.27 l/l versus 0.31 l/l; P = 0.0298) compared with patients with normal endoscopies. There was no significant difference in the other haematological parameters between those found to have positive findings and those that had normal endoscopies. Based on this study, the yield of bidirectional endoscopy is low, with haemoglobin and PCV being the most useful haematological indices of significant pathology. Ferritin and MCV did not predict the likelihood of finding a gastrointestinal cause for the anaemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0263_20861", "title": "Descriptive analysis of the prevalence of anemia in a randomly selected sample of elderly people living at home: some results of an Italian multicentric study.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "We studied hematological indexes (RBC, HB, HT, MCV), serum iron and serum ferritin values in 1784 randomly selected subjects aged 65 and over (725 males and 1059 females) divided into five age groups (65-69, 70-74, 75-79, 80-84, &gt; or = 85 years). The subjects were classified as anemic and normochromic according to the criteria for a \"geriatric\" level of anemia (HB &lt; or = 12 g/dL in both sexes) as well as \"W.H.O.\" levels for anemia (HB &lt; 13 g/dL in males and &lt; 12 g/dL in females). Macrocytosis (MCV &gt; 100 fl) and low serum ferritin level (&lt; or = 12 ng/dL) were classified according to MCV and serum ferritin values. Mean HB values in males were 14.85 +/- 1.33; 14.82 +/- 1.40; 14.77 +/- 1.43; 14.59 +/- 1.47 and 13.83 +/- 1.13 in the five age groups (65-69, 70-74, 75-79, 80-84 and &gt; or = 85 years) respectively; in females, they were 13.77 +/- 1.15; 13.75 +/- 1.27; 13.44 +/- 1.39; 13.44 +/- 1.52 and 13.34 +/- 1.61, respectively. There was a low frequency of anemia in the entire sample: 2.9% in males and 9.9% in females according to the \"geriatric\" level, and 9.4% in males and 8.8% in females according to the \"W.H.O.\" level. There was a higher prevalence of macrocytosis in males (6.3%) than in females (3.3%). We conclude that red cell parameters tend to decrease in aging, and further investigations are needed that exclude persons with existing chronic conditions, and incorporate data on nutritional status." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0615_2649", "title": "Predictors of gastrointestinal lesions on endoscopy in iron deficiency anemia without gastrointestinal symptoms.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Iron deficiency anaemia (IDA) due to occult gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss usually remains unnoticed until patient become symptomatic. There is sparse data in IDA patients without gastrointestinal symptoms. This study was designed to find out the frequency and predictors of endoscopic lesions in IDA without gastrointestinal symptoms. Cross-sectional study performed on a convenience sample of consecutive subjects. Ninety five consecutive patients with laboratory based diagnosis of IDA having no gastrointestinal symptoms were interviewed and their clinical and biochemical variables were recorded. All the study patients underwent esophago-gastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and colonoscopy. Endoscopic findings were documented as presence/absence of bleeding related lesion and presence/absence of cause of IDA. Multiple logistic regressions were performed to identify variables significantly related to outcome variables. Possible cause of anaemia was found in 71% and bleeding related lesions were found in 53% of patients. Upper gastrointestinal tract lesions were found in 41% of patients with bleeding related lesions. On multivariable logistic regression; advancing age, low mean corpuscular volume (MCV&lt;or=60 fl), and positive fecal occult blood test were predictive factors for bleeding related GI lesions and cause of IDA CONCLUSION: Clinical and Biochemical markers can predict gastrointestinal lesions on endoscopy in IDA patients without gastrointestinal symptoms. High proportion of upper gastrointestinal involvement warrants EGD as initial endoscopic procedure however, this needs validation by further studies." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 303 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 60 ] ], "text": "It is the male who presents the disease, which we are told is X-linked, so there are only two options left: 2 and 3. 2 is not because the males will receive the Y chromosome from the father and the X from the mother, who is healthy, so the daughters will be able to carry the disease (correct option 3)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 303 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 60 ] ], "text": "It is the male who presents the disease, which we are told is X-linked, so there are only two options left: 2 and 3. 2 is not because the males will receive the Y chromosome from the father and the X from the mother, who is healthy, so the daughters will be able to carry the disease (correct option 3)." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "According to autosomal dominant inheritance, half of her children will inherit the disease and without distinction of sexes.", "2": "Their daughters will not inherit the disease, but all their future sons will be carriers and can transmit the mutation to 50%.", "3": "Their sons will not inherit the disease, but all their future daughters will be carriers and can transmit the mutation to 50%.", "4": "There is no risk: the inheritance of the disease is of the mitochondrial type, never transmitted by males.", "5": "According to autosomal recessive inheritance, 25% of their children will manifest the disease in childhood, regardless of sex." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en032_90407", "title": "Becker muscular dystrophy", "score": 0.01951265943270512, "content": "Genetics The disorder is inherited with an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. The gene is located on the X chromosome. Since women have two X chromosomes, if one X chromosome has the non-working gene, the second X chromosome will have a working copy of the gene to compensate, because of this ability to compensate, women rarely develop symptoms. All dystrophinopathies are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. The risk to the siblings of an affected individual depends upon the carrier status of the mother. Carrier females have a 50% chance of passing the DMD mutation in each pregnancy. Sons who inherit the mutation will be affected; daughters who inherit the mutation will be carriers. Men who have Becker muscular dystrophy can have children, and all their daughters are carriers, but none of the sons will inherit their father's mutation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en112_17522", "title": "X-linked dominant inheritance", "score": 0.018442971273159952, "content": "Inheritance In X-linked dominant inheritance, when the mother alone is the carrier of a mutated, or defective gene associated with a disease or disorder; she herself will have the disorder. Her children will inherit the disorder as follows: Of her daughters and sons: 50% will have the disorder, 50% will be completely unaffected. Children of either sex have an even chance of receiving either of their mother's two X chromosomes, one of which contains the defective gene in question. When the father alone is the carrier of a defective gene associated with a disease or disorder, he too will have the disorder. His children will inherit the disorder as follows: Of his daughters: 100% will have the disorder, since all of his daughters will receive one copy of his single X chromosome. Of his sons: none will have the disorder; sons do not receive an X chromosome from their father." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0273_5457", "title": "Detection of new paternal dystrophin gene mutations in isolated cases of dystrophinopathy in females.", "score": 0.016479937467430955, "content": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy is one of the most common lethal monogenic disorders and is caused by dystrophin deficiency. The disease is transmitted as an X-linked recessive trait; however, recent biochemical and clinical studies have shown that many girls and women with a primary myopathy have an underlying dystrophinopathy, despite a negative family history for Duchenne dystrophy. These isolated female dystrophinopathy patients carried ambiguous diagnoses with presumed autosomal recessive inheritance (limb-girdle muscular dystrophy) prior to biochemical detection of dystrophin abnormalities in their muscle biopsy. It has been assumed that these female dystrophinopathy patients are heterozygous carriers who show preferential inactivation of the X chromosome harboring the normal dystrophin gene, although this has been shown for only a few X:autosome translocations and for two cases of discordant monozygotic twin female carriers. Here we study X-inactivation patterns of 13 female dystrophinopathy patients--10 isolated cases and 3 cases with a positive family history for Duchenne dystrophy in males. We show that all cases have skewed X-inactivation patterns in peripheral blood DNA. Of the nine isolated cases informative in our assay, eight showed inheritance of the dystrophin gene mutation from the paternal germ line. Only a single case showed maternal inheritance. The 10-fold higher incidence of paternal transmission of dystrophin gene mutations in these cases is at 30-fold variance with Bayesian predictions and gene mutation rates. Thus, our results suggest some mechanistic interaction between new dystrophin gene mutations, paternal inheritance, and skewed X inactivation. Our results provide both empirical risk data and a molecular diagnostic test method, which permit genetic counseling and prenatal diagnosis of this new category of patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0410_18508", "title": "[Carrier detection of Duchenne/Becker muscular dystrophy by analysis of STRs loci linked to the gene of dystrophin in Venezuelan families].", "score": 0.015228147333699834, "content": "The Duchenne/Becker Muscular Dystrophy (DMD/BMD) is an X linked recessive lethal disease. The female carrier will transmit the disease gene to half of her sons and half of her daughters; half of the daughters will be carriers, while half will be normal. Half of the sons will be normal and, on average, half will have the disease. It is of particular relevance to be able to detect carrier status among female relatives of the patients for genetic counseling and prenatal diagnosis. The method of Short Tandem Repeat (STR) sequence polymorphism analysis can determine haplotype at normal status or at risk status and, to establish genetic linkage between the mutated gene and the segregated haplotype. We have analyzed 105 members from 15 unrelated Venezuelan families with one or more siblings affected with DMD/DMB and 7 unrelated males. Of the 105, 37 were male (26 affected and 11 normal) and 68 were female. STR sequences (STR44, STR45, STR49, STR50, STR3'DYS) of the gene of the Dystrophin were amplified by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to analyze allelic polymorphism in the families. Five of the 15 families (33%) had a deletion of one or several of the exons. Of the 68 females, 27 (39.7%) were carriers, 27 (39.7%) were non-carriers and in 14 cases (20.58%) it was not possible to reach a definitive diagnosis. The definitive diagnosis could be established in 79% of the females. This analysis also shows that the mutation occurred on the grandpaternal X chromosome in one family. Hemizygocity was detected and carrier status ascertained in the mother of other patient and in one family we were able to do prenatal diagnosis. The germinal mosaicism could not be excluded in 3 patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en031_70830", "title": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy", "score": 0.014669564358391781, "content": "DMD is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. Females typically are carriers of the genetic trait while males are affected. A female carrier will be unaware she carries a mutation until she has an affected son. The son of a carrier mother has a 50% chance of inheriting the defective gene from his mother. The daughter of a carrier mother has a 50% chance of being a carrier and a 50% chance of having two normal copies of the gene. In all cases, an unaffected father either passes a normal Y to his son or a normal X to his daughter. Female carriers of an X-linked recessive condition, such as DMD, can show symptoms depending on their pattern of X-inactivation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_23205", "title": "Autosome", "score": 0.014440606409518327, "content": "Autosomal genetic disorders Autosomal genetic disorders can arise due to a number of causes, some of the most common being nondisjunction in parental germ cells or Mendelian inheritance of deleterious alleles from parents. Autosomal genetic disorders which exhibit Mendelian inheritance can be inherited either in an autosomal dominant or recessive fashion. These disorders manifest in and are passed on by either sex with equal frequency. Autosomal dominant disorders are often present in both parent and child, as the child needs to inherit only one copy of the deleterious allele to manifest the disease. Autosomal recessive diseases, however, require two copies of the deleterious allele for the disease to manifest. Because it is possible to possess one copy of a deleterious allele without presenting a disease phenotype, two phenotypically normal parents can have a child with the disease if both parents are carriers (also known as heterozygotes) for the condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0085_19090", "title": "Brother/sister pairs affected with early-onset, progressive muscular dystrophy: molecular studies reveal etiologic heterogeneity.", "score": 0.013982242137581943, "content": "An autosomal recessive (AR) form of muscular dystrophy that clinically resembles Duchenne/Becker types exists, but its frequency is unknown. We have studied three unrelated affected brother/sister pairs and their families for deletions and polymorphisms with the entire dystrophin cDNA and other DNA probes from the Xp21 region to test for involvement of the DMD locus. In family 1 a large intragenic deletion was found in the affected male. The affected sister was heterozygous for this deletion, but the mother was not, implying germinal mosaicism. In family 2, no deletion was detected in the affected male. RFLP analysis revealed that the affected male and an unaffected sister shared a complete Xp21 haplotype while the affected sister had inherited a recombinant Xp21 region resulting from a crossover between pERT 87-15 and J-Bir. Only the 5' region of the dystrophin gene was shared with the affected boy. X-inactivation studies using a polymorphism in the 5'-flanking region of the HPRT gene, in conjunction with methylation-sensitive enzymes, revealed random X inactivation in the affected girl's leukocytes. In a muscle biopsy from the affected male, the dystrophin protein was present in normal amount and size. Family 3 was informative for four RFLPs detected with dystrophin cDNA probes which span the entire gene. The affected male was found to share the complete dystrophin RFLP haplotype with his unaffected brother, while his affected sister had inherited the other maternal haplotype. It is concluded that the clinical presentation of early-onset, progressive muscular dystrophy in a male and in his karyotypically normal sister can be caused by mutations at different loci. While in family 1 a deletion in the dystrophin gene is responsible, this gene does not appear to be involved in families 2 and 3." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en021_104757", "title": "Preimplantation genetic diagnosis", "score": 0.013911007025761125, "content": "In the case of families at risk for X-linked diseases, patients are provided with a single PGD assay of gender identification. Gender selection offers a solution to individuals with X-linked diseases who are in the process of getting pregnant. The selection of a female embryo offspring is used in order to prevent the transmission of X-linked Mendelian recessive diseases. Such X-linked Mendelian diseases include Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), and hemophilia A and B, which are rarely seen in females because the offspring is unlikely to inherit two copies of the recessive allele. Since two copies of the mutant X allele are required for the disease to be passed on to the female offspring, females will at worst be carriers for the disease but may not necessarily have a dominant gene for the disease. Males on the other hand only require one copy of the mutant X allele for the disease to occur in one's phenotype and therefore, the male offspring of a carrier mother has a 50% chance of" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en210_863", "title": "Hereditary carrier", "score": 0.01307497283592901, "content": "A hereditary carrier (genetic carrier or just carrier), is a person or other organism that has inherited a recessive allele for a genetic trait or mutation but usually does not display that trait or show symptoms of the disease. Carriers are, however, able to pass the allele onto their offspring, who may then express the genetic trait. Carriers in autosomal inheritances Autosomal dominant-recessive inheritance is made possible by the fact that the individuals of most species (including all higher animals and plants) have two alleles of most hereditary predispositions because the chromosomes in the cell nucleus are usually present in pairs (diploid). Carriers can be female or male as the autosoms are homologous independently from the sex." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_4867", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012919020715630884, "content": "x-linkeD DisorDers Males have only one X chromosome; consequently, a daughter always inherits her father’s X chromosome in addition to one of her mother’s two X chromosomes. A son inherits the Y chromosome from his father and one maternal X chromosome. Thus, the characteristic features of X-linked inheritance are (1) the absence of father-to-son transmission, and (2) the fact that all daughters of an affected male are obligate carriers of the mutant allele (Fig. 82-13C). The risk of developing disease due to a mutant X-chromosomal gene differs in the two sexes. Because males have only one X chromosome, they are hemizygous for the mutant allele; thus, they are more likely to develop the mutant phenotype, regardless of whether the mutation is dominant or recessive. A female may be either heterozygous or homozygous for the mutant allele, which may be dominant or recessive. The terms X-linked dominant or X-linked recessive are therefore only applicable to expression of the mutant" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en045_11966", "title": "Human genetics", "score": 0.012691971035251055, "content": "Inheritance of traits for humans are based upon Gregor Mendel's model of inheritance. Mendel deduced that inheritance depends upon discrete units of inheritance, called factors or genes. Autosomal dominant inheritance Autosomal traits are associated with a single gene on an autosome (non-sex chromosome)—they are called \"dominant\" because a single copy—inherited from either parent—is enough to cause this trait to appear. This often means that one of the parents must also have the same trait, unless it has arisen due to an unlikely new mutation. Examples of autosomal dominant traits and disorders are Huntington's disease and achondroplasia. Autosomal recessive inheritance" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_187942", "title": "Genetic disorder", "score": 0.012348883779574278, "content": "X-linked recessive conditions are also caused by mutations in genes on the X chromosome. Males are much more frequently affected than females, because they only have the one X chromosome necessary for the condition to present. The chance of passing on the disorder differs between men and women. The sons of a man with an X-linked recessive disorder will not be affected (since they receive their father's Y chromosome), but his daughters will be carriers of one copy of the mutated gene. A woman who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive disorder (XRXr) has a 50% chance of having sons who are affected and a 50% chance of having daughters who are carriers of one copy of the mutated gene. X-linked recessive conditions include the serious diseases hemophilia A, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and Lesch–Nyhan syndrome, as well as common and less serious conditions such as male pattern baldness and red–green color blindness. X-linked recessive conditions can sometimes manifest in females due to" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en290_27387", "title": "Smith–Fineman–Myers syndrome", "score": 0.012000400013333776, "content": "Genetics SFMS is an X-linked disease by chromosome Xq13. X-linked diseases map to the human X chromosome because this syndrome is an X chromosome linked females who have two chromosomes are not affected but because males only have one X chromosome, they are more likely to be affected and show the full clinical symptoms. This disease only requires one copy of the abnormal X-linked gene to display the syndrome. Since females have two X chromosomes, the effect of one X chromosome is recessive and the second chromosome masks the affected chromosome. Affected fathers can never pass this X-linked disease to their sons but affected fathers can pass the X-linked gene to their daughters who has a 50% chance to pass this disease-causing gene to each of her children. Since females who inherit this gene do not show symptoms, they are called carriers. Each of the female's carrier's son has a 50% chance to display the symptoms but none of the female carrier's daughters would display any symptoms." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en169_28686", "title": "Genodermatosis", "score": 0.011935118288709448, "content": "Autosomal recessive inheritance The second kind is autosomal recessive inheritance, in this kind of inheritance, patients can be of any sex and inbreeding tends to lead to this inheritance. Cases of skin disease that may be inherited in this kind of mode include epidermolysis bullosa, xeroderma pigmentosum, acrodermatitis enteropathica, ichthyosis and so on. X-linked dominant inheritance The third kind is X-linked dominant inheritance, in this kind of inheritance, patients can be of any sex. Male patients can pass the disease on to their sons and the chances of female patients passing it to their daughters or sons are almost equal. Cases of skin disease that may be inherited in this kind of mode include incontinentia pigmenti, focal dermal hypoplasia and so on." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0207_15274", "title": "Neurological disorders with autosomal dominant transmission.", "score": 0.011927546138072453, "content": "Neurofibromatosis, Huntington's disease, and myotonic dystrophy are three hereditary disorders affecting the nervous system. They have in common the basic principles of autosomal dominant inheritance: an affected individual has one parent with the disorder; the disorder affects males and females in approximately equal numbers; and an affected individual has a 50 percent risk of transmitting the disorder to every child. Furthermore, each of the three disorders have additional features that complicate genetic counseling and decisions about reproduction. Neurofibromatosis has an extremely variable expressivity, making the identification of affected individuals difficult and allowing for some reduction in the risk figures; although there is a 50 percent risk of a child inheriting the mutant gene, only one-fourth to one-third of these will experience serious consequences. Huntington's disease has a fairly typical course with degeneration occurring over 10 to 20 years. The frequent late onset of the disorder and the lack of any preclinical test for detecting carriers create problems for those at risk who wish to have children but do not want to pass the disorder to future generations. Both variable expressivity and variable onset are found in myotonic dystrophy. In addition, there is a risk of the severe early onset myotonic dystrophy when the mother is the affected parent. Genetic counseling should be available to patients and families with these three disorders. Nurses who have an understanding of the dynamics of these particular disorders can be empathetic to patients who face personal and family problems caused by the conditions. Alert nursing staff, in casual discussion with patients, may learn of hereditary disorders in a family or may notice symptoms that could lead to diagnosis of one of these disorders. Finally, nurses who are aware of the variations in genetic transmission of these disorders, may be in position to instruct and reinforce genetic counseling that the family has received." }, { "id": "article-550_4", "title": "Genetics, Autosomal Recessive -- Mechanism", "score": 0.01191108625751433, "content": "The most common situation of an autosomal recessive disease occurs when the parents are each carrier or heterozygous (Dd). Children of carrier parents have a 25% chance of inheriting the disorder. This value is obtained by using the Punnet square model used in genetics. Each parent has a 50% chance of passing on the disease allele. Using the multiplication rule of probability, there is a 50% chance that the father passes on his disease allele and a 50% chance that the mother passes on her disease allele; 50% x 50% = 25%. So with the mating of carrier parents, there is a 25% chance that the child will be affected, a 50% chance that the child would be a carrier, and 25% chance that they would be homozygous dominant and unaffected." }, { "id": "article-87096_2", "title": "Genetics, X-Linked Inheritance -- Introduction -- X linked Recessive Inheritance", "score": 0.011706349206349206, "content": "Generally, it manifests only in males. A male with an affected allele on his single X chromosome is hemizygous and can not transmit the disorder to their male offsprings, but all his daughters would be obligate carriers. Healthy heterozygous carrier females pass the disorder to affected sons. So from affected males, it can be transmitted to male grandchildren through carrier daughter ('diagonal' or 'Knight's move' transmission)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en189_566", "title": "CLCN5", "score": 0.011653774204964861, "content": "Genetic testing is useful to determine the status of healthy carrier in the mother of an affected male. In fact, being Dent disease an X-linked recessive disorder, males are more frequently affected than females, and females may be heterozygous healthy carrier. Due to skewed X-inactivation, female carriers may present some mild symptoms of Dent disease such as low-molecular-weight proteinuria or hypercalciuria. Carriers will transmit the disease to half of their sons whereas half of their daughters will be carriers. Affected males do not transmit the disease to their sons since they pass Y chromosome to males, but all their daughters will inherited mutated X chromosome. Preimplant and prenatal genetic testing is not advised for Dent disease 1 since the prognosis for the majority of the patients is good and a clear correlation between genotype and phenotype is lacking. See also Chloride channel Notes References Further reading External links Ion channels" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en277_4975", "title": "Neonatal diabetes", "score": 0.011452141832342694, "content": "Autosomal Recessive -Autosomal recessive-Generally, every cells have two copies of each gene-one gene is inherited from the mother and one gene is inherited from the father. Autosomal recessive inheritance pattern is defined as a mutation present in both copies if the gene in order for a person to be affected and each parent much pass on a mutated gene for a child to be affected. However, if an infant or child has only one copy, he or she are a carrier of the mutation. If both parents are carriers of the recessive gene mutation, each child have a 25% chance of inheriting the gene. Spontaneous: A new mutation or change occurs within the gene. X-linked: When a trait or disease happens in a person who has inherited a mutated gene on the X chromosome (one of the sex chromosome)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en052_62674", "title": "Norrie disease", "score": 0.011361165470754511, "content": "Genetics Norrie disease is a rare genetic disorder caused by mutations in the NDP gene, located on Xp11.4 (GeneID: 4693). It is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. This means that almost only males are affected. Sons of affected men will not have the mutation, while all of their daughters will be genetic carriers of the mutation. Female carriers usually show no clinical symptoms, but will pass the mutation to 50% of their offspring. Daughters with the mutated gene will also be, like their mother, asymptomatic carriers, but 50% of their sons will express clinical symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0086_12619", "title": "[X-linked recessively inherited peroneal muscular atrophy].", "score": 0.010763047786831095, "content": "This article presents a pedigree of 80 members of which there are 13 patients (13 males) with peroneal muscular atrophy. The analysis of this pedigree shows that an affected male married to a normal female will have normal son(s) and carrier-daughter(s). The normal son(s) will have normal offspring, but half the sons of the carrier-daughter(s) will be affected. The pathogenic genes of affected males are transmitted to their daughters, but not to their sons. So this inheritance is of X-linked recessive type. This is the first report of X-linked recessively inherited peroneal muscular atrophy in china." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_4866", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010728942739886652, "content": "In most instances, an affected individual is the offspring of heterozygous parents. In this situation, there is a 25% chance that the offspring will have a normal genotype, a 50% probability of a heterozygous state, and a 25% risk of homozygosity for the recessive alleles (Figs. 82-10, 82-13B). In the case of one unaffected heterozygous and one affected homozygous parent, the probability of disease increases to 50% for each child. In this instance, the pedigree analysis mimics an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance (pseudodominance). In contrast to autosomal dominant disorders, new mutations in recessive alleles are rarely manifest because they usually result in an asymptomatic carrier state." }, { "id": "Obstentrics_Williams_1748", "title": "Obstentrics_Williams", "score": 0.010643242238334263, "content": "Incest is defined as a sexual relationship between first-degree relatives such as parent-child or brother-sister and is universally illegal. Progeny of such unions carry the highest risk of abnormal outcomes, and older studies reported that up to 40 percent of ofspring were abnormal as a result of recessive and multifactorial disorders (Baird, 1982; Freire-Maia, 1984). Most X-linked diseases are recessive. Common examples include color blindness, hemophilia A and B, and Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy. Males with an X-linked recessive gene are usually afected by the disease it causes, because they lack a second X chromosome to express the normal dominant gene. A male with an X-linked disease cannot have afected sons because they cannot receive his X chromosome. When a woman carries a gene causing an X-linked recessive condition, each of her sons has a 50-percent risk of being afected, and each daughter has a 50-percent chance of being a carrier." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_4834", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010257498585172609, "content": "genes that result in disease. Because each individual has two copies of each chromosome (one inherited from the mother and one inherited from the father), he or she can have only two alleles at a given locus. However, there can be many different alleles in the population. The normal or common allele is usually referred to as wild type. When alleles at a given locus are identical, the individual is homozygous. Inheriting identical copies of a mutant allele occurs in many autosomal recessive disorders, particularly in circumstances of consanguinity or isolated populations. If the alleles are different on the maternal and the paternal copy of the gene, the individual is heterozygous at this locus (Fig. 82-10). If two different mutant alleles are inherited at a given locus, the individual is said to be a compound heterozygote. Hemizygous is used to describe males with a mutation in an X chromosomal gene or a female with a loss of one X chromosomal locus." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0598_21956", "title": "Identification of duchenne muscular dystrophy female carriers by fluorescence in situ hybridization and RT-PCR.", "score": 0.010219239831984427, "content": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is an X-linked recessive neuromuscular disorder caused by mutations in the dystrophin DMD gene located at Xp21.1 region. Up to 65% of the patients present dystrophin gene deletions. Mothers of DMD patients have a two-thirds chance of carrying a dystrophin mutation. The female carrier will transmit the disease gene to half of her sons and half of her daughters. As the recurrence risk for the disease is extremely high, it is very important to detect carrier status among female relatives of the patients to bring an adequate genetic counseling. In this work, results from two methods to identify female carriers are presented. One method is a multicolor fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) assay, and the other is reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR). We showed that FISH is an efficient, sensitive method that brings confident results to detect DMD female carriers as compared to RT-PCR." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_4861", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009992659815828106, "content": "In autosomal dominant disorders, individuals are affected in successive generations; the disease does not occur in the offspring of unaffected individuals. Males and females are affected with equal frequency because the defective gene resides on one of the 22 autosomes (Fig. 82-13A). Autosomal dominant mutations alter one of the two alleles at a given locus. Because the alleles segregate randomly at meiosis, the probability that an offspring will be affected is 50%. Unless there is a new germline mutation, an affected individual has an affected parent. Children with a normal genotype do not transmit the disorder. Due to differences in penetrance or expressivity (see above), the Chapter 82 Principles of Human Genetics Heterozygous Heterozygous Female male female carrier of X-linked trait FIGURE 82-11 Standard pedigree symbols." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en045_11967", "title": "Human genetics", "score": 0.009957295220927488, "content": "Autosomal recessive inheritance Autosomal recessive traits is one pattern of inheritance for a trait, disease, or disorder to be passed on through families. For a recessive trait or disease to be displayed two copies of the trait or disorder needs to be presented. The trait or gene will be located on a non-sex chromosome. Because it takes two copies of a trait to display a trait, many people can unknowingly be carriers of a disease. From an evolutionary perspective, a recessive disease or trait can remain hidden for several generations before displaying the phenotype. Examples of autosomal recessive disorders are albinism, cystic fibrosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en033_31424", "title": "Oculopharyngeal muscular dystrophy", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Oculopharyngeal muscular dystrophy (OPMD) is a rare form of muscular dystrophy with symptoms generally starting when an individual is 40 to 50 years old. It can be autosomal dominant neuromuscular disease or autosomal recessive. The most common inheritance of OPMD is autosomal dominant, which means only one copy of the mutated gene needs to be present in each cell. Children of an affected parent have a 50% chance of inheriting the mutant gene. Autosomal dominant inheritance is the most common form of inheritance. Less commonly, OPMD can be inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means that two copies of the mutated gene need to be present in each cell, both parents need to be carriers of the mutated gene, and usually show no signs or symptoms. The PABPN1 mutation contains a GCG trinucleotide repeat at the 5' end of the coding region, and expansion of this repeat which then leads to autosomal dominant oculopharyngeal muscular dystrophy (OPMD) disease. Signs and symptoms" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en513_33397", "title": "LMNA-related congenital muscular dystrophy", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "This illness implies, like other muscular dystrophies, muscle weakness, motor difficulties and lack of control in the movement of the head, respiratory failure and cardiac abnormalities. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disease that affects both male and female. It is dominantly inherited because the abnormal gene would dominate beyond the normal one and it would transmit the disease. But it can also be recessive inheritance, which means that parents would carry the disease but it would not appear. Moreover, this disease is also caused by de novo mutations, which are spontaneous mutations. Therefore, although parents have normal genes, children who are affected by mutations will have kids that would suffer the same disease as it is transmitted through heredity. This dystrophy was discovered thanks to geneticist, Gisèle Bonne, who identified the first mutation of the LMNA gene in 1999." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0294_376", "title": "Genetic counseling of isolated carriers of Duchenne muscular dystrophy.", "score": 0.009800522386334743, "content": "It has recently become possible to detect female carriers of Duchenne muscular dystrophy with no affected male relative in the family. These \"isolated carriers\" represent about 10% of women with high serum creatine phosphokinase (CPK) levels and clinical evidence of a muscle disease. Most isolated carriers ascertained by clinical and/or CPK levels and diagnosed by dystrophin immunostaining of muscle biopsy show symptoms of a muscular dystrophy, and often carry the diagnosis of recessive \"limb-girdle muscular dystrophy\" prior to dystrophin analysis. It has been difficult to offer genetic counseling and prenatal diagnosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy in the families of these isolated carriers, largely due to the difficulty in determining which of the dystrophin alleles segregating in the family harbors the mutation in the heterozygote. Here we report genetic counseling of three isolated carriers and their families. In two cases, prenatal diagnosis of at-risk pregnancies was conducted. We determined X inactivation patterns and inheritance of X chromosomes in each family, and used this information to define the at-risk dystrophin gene. In all three families, the mutation was a de novo event, two in the paternal germ-line, and one in the maternal germ-line. In each case we show that sibs of the heterozygous woman are at population risk, while pregnancies of each propositus are at high risk. Our results show that accurate genetic counseling and prenatal diagnosis can be offered to these families." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en041_31448", "title": "Human mitochondrial genetics", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Inheritance patterns Because mitochondrial diseases (diseases due to malfunction of mitochondria) can be inherited both maternally and through chromosomal inheritance, the way in which they are passed on from generation to generation can vary greatly depending on the disease. Mitochondrial genetic mutations that occur in the nuclear DNA can occur in any of the chromosomes (depending on the species). Mutations inherited through the chromosomes can be autosomal dominant or recessive and can also be sex-linked dominant or recessive. Chromosomal inheritance follows normal Mendelian laws, despite the fact that the phenotype of the disease may be masked." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0270_2070", "title": "[Manifesting carriers of Duchenne muscular dystrophy over two generations].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "We report a family with manifesting DMD carriers over two generations. Sixty years old female (case 1) suffered from slowly progressive weakness since her thirties. Her youngest daughter aged 30 (case 2) had cramping calf muscle pain since her 5 years old. Progressive muscle weakness developed and lost her ambulation by the age of 20. Grandson of case 1 (son of case 1's eldest daughter who has no clinical symptoms) was diagnosed as DMD with deletion of exon 19-21 in dystrophin gene. Case 1 and case 2 were revealed to be DMD carriers. We speculate that, in this family, X-inactivation process was not random and paternal X was preferentially inactivated by maternal mutant X." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Jejunum biopsy.", "2": "Arteriography.", "3": "Endoscopic capsule.", "4": "Radioisotopes.", "5": "Pelvic MRI." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0660_1372", "title": "[Malignant peritoneal mesothelioma].", "score": 0.0170995670995671, "content": "The peritoneal mesothelioma is a rare pathology with unspecific symptoms reason to be a difficult diagnosis. We report a case of a 58 year old man with diabetes mellitus type 2, arterial hypertension and smoking; without precedent of asbestos exposure. The patient presented a one month history characterized by progressive increase of the abdominal volume and sensation of fullness; three weeks later they added breathlessness and hyporexia. The patient was in regular general condition; he was not presenting hepatic stigmas, edema or adenomegalies. The examination of thorax and cardiovascular it was normal. The abdomen distended by ascites, not painful, liver and spleen not examined. Laboratory: Hemoglobin 11,9 gr/dl, WBC 6840/mm3 Bands 1 %, lymphocytes 10 %, platelets 620000/mm3, PT 12 seconds, PTT 34 seconds, glucose 158 mg/dl, BUN 20,5 mg/ dl, creatinine 1,2 mg/dl, proteins 6,1 gr/dl, albumin 2,6 gr/dl. LDH 316 U/l, beta2microglobulin 2,2 mg/l (0.83-1.15 mg/l). HBV and HCV negative. Ca 19.9, CEA, AFP and PSA negative. Hemocultive negative. Ascitic fluid: ADA 20,3 U/l, serum-ascitic albumin gradient (SAAG) 1,1. Leukocytes 2237 cells/mm3, PMN 6 %, lymphocytes 90 %, mesothelial cells 4 %, proteins 4,6 gr/dl, albumin 2,34 gr/dl, glucose 44 mg/dl, LDH 1918 U/l. Gram and cultive: negatives. BAAR and cultive: negative . Cytology: mesothelial cells with changes of type reagent, Block cell for tumour cells: negative. Abdominal US: increased peritoneum and abundant ascitic fluid. Thoracic-abdominal CT: left side pleural effusion, severe ascites with thick epyplon. Upper GI endoscopy: moderate gastritis. Colonoscopy: two small sessile polyps in sigmoid colon. The finds of the laparoscopy were interpreted like carcinomatosis or peritoneal tuberculosis. The report of the peritoneal biopsy was informed as suggestive of undifferentiated carcinoma; the reappraisal with inmunohystochemic (calretinin +,cytokeratin +, vimentin +) indicated malignant peritoneal mesothelioma, type epithelial. The evolution was torpid. The patient was transferred to the Service of Oncology where they initiated chemotherapy with Cysplatin (CDDP) and died 20 days later. The malignant mesothelioma peritoneal is a unfrequent entity, with limited therapeutic options; generally detected late, with a palliative treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0913_8094", "title": "Case 244: Systemic Amyloidosis-A Complication of Waldenström Macroglobulinemia.", "score": 0.01432748538011696, "content": "History A 68-year-old man was admitted to the hospital for work-up because of generalized fatigue, anorexia, chronic diarrhea, and weight loss. Laboratory work-up revealed an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 58 mm/h (reference range, 3-23 mm/h), a hemoglobin level of 14.1 g/dL (reference range, 13.8-17.5 g/dL), a leukocyte count of 8.1 × 10<sup9</sup/L (reference range, [3.4-9.7] × 10<sup9</sup/L), a platelet count of 223 × 10<sup9</sup/L (reference range, [158-424] × 10<sup9</sup/L), an alkaline phosphatase level of 85 U/L (1.42 μkat/L) (normal level, &lt;142 U/L [2.37 μkat/L]), a serum creatinine level of 93 μmol/L (reference range, 79-125 μmol/L), a serum total protein level of 82 g/L (reference range, 66-81 g/L), a serum albumin level of 39.3 g/L (reference range, 40.2-47.6 g/L), an albumin-to-globulin ratio (a test showing relative amounts of major plasma proteins) of 0.92 (reference range, 0.8-2.0), a urine protein level of 15 mg/dL (normal level, &lt;20 mg/dL), a total serum calcium level of 2.46 mmol/L (reference range, 2.14-2.53 mmol/L), and a carcinoembryonic antigen value of 2.69 μg/L (normal value, &lt;3.4 μg/L). Serology findings were negative for celiac disease. Thyroid function was normal, as were 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid and chromogranin A levels. Initial radiologic examination included chest radiography and plain abdominal erect radiography. Gastrointestinal endoscopy was performed to rule out inflammatory bowel disease or gastrointestinal neoplasm as a cause of chronic diarrhea. Endoscopic mucosal resection of two polyps from the cardia and duodenal bulb was performed during esophagogastroduodenoscopy, but histologic findings at hematoxylin-eosin staining were normal. Colonoscopy revealed diverticulosis involving the entire colon. Serum immunoelectrophoresis showed a monoclonal band, which was confirmed to be immunoglobulin Mλ at immunofixation. After histologic analysis of the bone marrow biopsy specimen, diagnosis of Waldenström macroglobulinemia was established, and computed tomography (CT) of the thorax, abdomen, and pelvis was requested to depict lymphadenopathy and organomegaly. On the basis of CT findings, two more specimens considered highly sensitive for the CT diagnosis were obtained via minimally invasive biopsy, but the results were negative. Magnetic resonance (MR) imaging was performed a year later to control the progression of CT findings." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1673", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012296349762837699, "content": "Fever >38.3°C (101°F) on at least two occasions 2. Illness duration of ≥3 weeks 3. 4. Diagnosis that remains uncertain after a thorough history-taking, physical examination, and the following obligatory investigations: determination of erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) level; platelet count; leukocyte count and differential; measurement of levels of hemoglobin, electrolytes, creatinine, total protein, alkaline phosphatase, alanine aminotransferase, aspartate aminotransferase, lactate dehydrogenase, creatine kinase, ferritin, antinuclear antibodies, and rheumatoid factor; protein electrophoresis; urinalysis; blood cultures (n = 3); urine culture; chest x-ray; abdominal ultrasonography; and tuberculin skin test (TST). The range of FUO etiologies has evolved over time as a result of changes in the spectrum of diseases causing FUO, the widespread Percentage of Cases Due to Indicated Cause" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1704", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011127653076805619, "content": "Fever ˜38.3° C (101° F) and illness lasting ˜3 weeks and no known immunocompromised state History and physical examination Stop antibiotic treatment and glucocorticoids Obligatory investigations: ESR and CRP, hemoglobin, platelet count, leukocyte count and differential, electrolytes, creatinine, total protein, protein electrophoresis, alkaline phosphatase, AST, ALT, LDH, creatine kinase, antinuclear antibodies, rheumatoid factor, urinalysis, blood cultures (n=3), urine culture, chest x-ray, abdominal ultrasonography, and tuberculin skin test" }, { "id": "article-24805_27", "title": "Mean Corpuscular Volume -- Evaluation", "score": 0.010236836954394207, "content": "For microcytic anemia, the presentation will determine the types of studies. If a patient is a menstruating woman with an MCV under 80, a Von Willebrand Factor and/or thyroid panel may be obtained to determine the underlying cause of menorrhagia as well as full menstrual history. On the contrary, a patient with microcytic anemia over the age of 50, is required to obtain a colonoscopy to determine if the iron deficiency originates from a polyp or neoplasm within the colon. Other investigations include urea breath test and an upper endoscopy to test for Helicobacter pylori infection if the patient complains of gastritis type pain. Anemia of chronic disease requires myriad tests if the underlying cause is unknown. Many of these tests include rheumatoid factor, Anti-double stranded DNA antibodies, Anti-neutrophil cytoplastic antibodies , anti-myeloperoxidase antibodies, a urine spot test to determine the renal function with GFR, creatinine, and blood urea nitrogen, HLA-B27 screening, and many more rheumatologic antibodies. Also, screening for malignancies with a CT scan or chest X-ray might be a consideration for the anemia of chronic disease. If lead poisoning is a possibility, a blood lead level is the gold-standard test. However, if other causes of sideroblastic anemia are suspected, a bone marrow biopsy is required. Medical history is very important to uncover the underlying etiology. In this case, the patient may be able to avoid a bone marrow biopsy. If beta-thalassemia is suspected based on history and physical examination, hemoglobin electrophoresis will help determine the amount of AA vs. A2 hemoglobin is present.  Genetic analysis is superior tests for alpha-thalassemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0844_9194", "title": "When Coke Is Not Hydrating: Cocaine-Induced Acute Interstitial Nephritis.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 47-year-old African American man was admitted with 4 days of back pain, nausea and vomiting, and low urine output. There was no history of fever, dysuria, frequency, hesitancy, viral symptoms, trauma, rash, or constipation. Despite his past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia he denied taking any medications for 18 months, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, acetaminophen, or antacids. He denied smoking and alcohol but admitted to cocaine use. No significant FH. Physical examination results were as follows: BP 235/125 mm Hg, heart rate 90 beats/min, temperature 98°F, O2 saturation normal; lungs and heart normal, abdomen soft but bilateral costovertebral angle tenderness. Neurological examination was normal. Laboratory tests yielded the following results: creatinine (Cr) 10.5 mg/dL (1.2 mg/dL in 2010), blood urea nitrogen 63 mg/dL, glucose 151 mg/dL, Ca 9.4 mg/dL, PO4 6.1 mg/dL, Hgb 15 g/dL, white blood cells (WBC) 9100, platelets 167 000, amylase/lipase normal, aspartate aminotransferase/alanine aminotransferase (AST/ALT) normal, bilirubin 1.4 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 39 IU/L, creatine phosphokinase 127 µg/L. Hepatic panel, C- and P-ANCA (cytoplasmic- and perinuclear-antineutrophil cytoplasm antibodies, respectively), anti-GBM (anti-glomerular basement membrane), antimyeloperoxidase, antinuclear antibody, and Helicobacter pylori were all negative. C3, C4 normal, urinalysis: 2+ blood, no white blood cells or eosinophils, no casts, no albumin, negative for nitrate/leukocyte esterase and bacteria. Imaging: chest radiograph, abdominal radiograph, computed tomography of the abdomen, electrocardiography, and transthoracic echocardiography were all normal. Course. The patient's urine output declined from 700 to 400 cm(3)/d and the on third day he required hemodialysis with Cr 14 mg/dL. Renal biopsy showed typical findings of interstitial nephritis. The patient was dialyzed for 10 days and responded to steroids and went home with an improving Cr of 3.5 mg/dL, back to baseline of 1.5 in 8 weeks. Discussion. Internists encounter patients with acute kidney injury (AKI) on a daily basis, most of which can be explained by prerenal azotemia, acute tubular necrosis (ATN), obstruction, or rhabdomyolysis among other etiologies. Cocaine is only rarely implicated as an etiology of AKI and if it is, usually the injury is due to ATN or pigment effects. Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) caused by cocaine, on the other hand, has only been described in a handful of cases. AIN is a renal lesion that causes a decline in creatinine clearance and is characterized by an inflammatory infiltrate in the kidney interstitium and is most often associated with drug therapy. AIN can also be seen in autoimmune disorders like systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjögren's syndrome, or sarcoidosis; or with infections remote to the kidney like Legionella, leptospirosis, and streptococcal disease. Our case was very similar to the other reported cases of AIN due to cocaine in that all have occurred in middle-aged African American males and all have responded to steroids. This case reminds clinicians to consider AIN in patients with AKI and a history of cocaine abuse. " }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_23043", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "attendant expense. Decision-analysis studies show that serology testing for celiac sprue in patients with IBS-D has an acceptable cost when the prevalence of celiac sprue is >1% and is the dominant strategy when the prevalence is >8%. In patients with concurrent symptoms of dyspepsia, upper GI radiographs or esophagogastroduodenoscopy may be advisable. In patients with postprandial right upper quadrant pain, an ultrasonogram of the gallbladder should be obtained. Laboratory features that argue against IBS include evidence of anemia, elevated sedimentation rate, presence of leukocytes or blood in stool, and stool volume >200–300 mL/d. These findings would necessitate other diagnostic considerations." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en558_27134", "title": "Anemia in pregnancy", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "MCV 80 - 100 fL - Iron deficiency - Infection - Hypothyroidism - Liver disease or alcohol use - Drug-induced - Hemolysis - Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency MCV > 100 fL - Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency - Drug induced - Liver disease or alcohol use - Hypothyroidism - Myelodysplastic Syndromes Pregnancy Pregnant women need almost twice as much iron as women who are not pregnant do. Not getting enough iron during pregnancy raises risk of premature birth or a low-birth-weight baby. Hormonal changes in the pregnant woman result in an increase in circulating blood volume to 100 mL/kg with a total blood volume of approximately 6000–7000 mL. While red cell mass increases by 15–20% during pregnancy, plasma volume increases by 40%. Hemoglobin levels less than 11 g/dL during the first trimester, less than 10.5 g/dL during the second and third trimesters and less than 10 mg/dL in the postpartum period are considered anemic." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0260_6397", "title": "[Gastrointestinal bleeding of unknown origin. Experience in 31 cases].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Thirty one patients with GI bleeding of obscure origin, defined as those with normal upper endoscopy and colonoscopy, were studied to know the yield of different diagnostic procedures. Seventeen patients consulted for hematochezia and bleeding less than 10 days of evolution in 71%. Small bowel X ray examination was performed in 14 cases with a diagnostic effectiveness (number of diagnosis/number or examination) of 14%, angiography was performed in 12 cases with an effectiveness 33%, radiolabeled erythrocyte scanning in 12 cases with an effectiveness of 75%, scintigraphy with pertechnetate in 6 cases with an effectiveness of 17% and intraoperatory endoscopy in 2 cases with an effectiveness of 50%. A definitive diagnosis was reached in 8 patients during the first admission and in 6 during the second admission. The principal etiologies were small bowel tumors in 3 cases, cecal ulcers in 2 and ileal diverticula in 2. Ten subjects were subjected to surgical and 2 to endoscopic treatment. Five patients with recurrent bleeding remain without diagnosis. It is concluded that radiolabeled erythrocyte scanning and angiography are effective examinations that should follow upper and lower endoscopies in the diagnosis of a concealed GI bleeding. When a diagnosis is not reached in the first admission, patients should be following with repeated diagnostic procedures." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_91208", "title": "Multiple myeloma", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Signs and symptoms Because many organs can be affected by myeloma, the symptoms and signs vary greatly. Fatigue and bone pain are the most common symptoms at presentation. The CRAB criteria encompass the most common signs of multiple myeloma: Calcium: serum calcium >0.25 mmol/l (>1 mg/dl) higher than the upper limit of normal or >2.75 mmol/l (>11 mg/dl) Renal insufficiency: creatinine clearance <40 ml per minute or serum creatinine >1.77 mol/l (>2 mg/dl) Anemia: hemoglobin value of >2g/dl below the lowest limit of normal, or a hemoglobin value <10g/dl Bone lesions: osteolytic lesions on skeletal radiography, CT, or PET/CT Bone pain" }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_9079", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "blood work, imaging studies, and liver biopsy (if needed). AFP = α-fetoprotein; BUN = blood urea nitrogen; CA 19-9 = cancer antigen 19-9; CBC = complete blood count; CEA = carcinoembryonic antigen; creat = creatinine; CT = computed tomography; EGD = esophagogas-troduodenoscopy; glu = glucose; Gyn = gynecologic; HTN = hypertension; MRI = magnetic resonance imaging; OCP = oral contraceptive pill; PAP = Papanicolaou; US = ultrasound.DiagnosisAbdominal pain/weight lossLiver disease/cirrhosis/alcohol useHepatitis/blood transfusion/tattoosOCP/hormone use/cancer historyJaundice/scleral icterusPalpable mass/hepatomegalyStigmata of portal HTNCBC, platelet countLytes/BUN/creat/glu/albuminLiver function tests/ammoniaCoagulation studiesHepatitis screenTumor markers (CEA, AFP, CA 19-9)USCT or MRI scanNuclear med.AngiogramOccult primary eval.EGDColonoscopyMammogramGyn/PAP smear(Percutaneous or laparoscopic)Liver biopsy (if needed)Additional imaging studiesLaboratory testsHistory and physical" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0740_15281", "title": "Prevalence of hematinics deficiency amongst female students and its correction.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Nutritional anemia (NA) is common in India. While iron deficiency (ID) is a well recognized cause of NA, prevalence of deficiencies of other hematinics is not systematically investigated. Seventy students of a junior class of a polytechnic and 202 inmates of girl students home were taken up for study. Students were given a questionnaire to elicit anemia related symptoms. Blood was collected for complete blood count (CBC), serum ferritin, folic acid and vitamin B12. Students of polytechnic received hematinic at bed time during their menstrual periods whereas inmates of students home received hematinic at bed time, 3 days in a week. After 6 months blood tests were repeated in those who completed the treatment. CBC was done on Coulter counter and ferritin, folic acid and vitamin B12 were assayed by chemiluminescence. Students were divided into three groups-(1) Control group with Hb 12.0 g/dl or more and ferritin 15.0 ng/ml or more; (2) ID Group with Hb 12.0 g/dl or more and ferritin less than 15.0 ng/ml; and (3) Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) group with Hb less tha 12.0 g/dl and ferritin less than 15.0 ng/ml. Basal parameters of three groups were compared using students t test. Change in parameters with treatment was compared using paired students t test. Median age-16 years (range 10-25). Anemia ( Hb &lt; 12.0 g/dl)-94 (34.6%); MCV &lt; 80 fl-153 (56.3%); MCH &lt; 27 pg-167 (61.4%); Ferritin &lt; 15.0 ng/ml-161 (59.2%); Folic acid &lt; 3.5 ng/ml-34 (12.5%); Vitamin B12 &lt; 258 pg/ml-133 (48.9%) Pre-therapy: (1) Hb, MCV, MCH and ferritin significantly lower in ID and IDA Groups compared to control group. (2) Hb, MCV, MCH and Ferritin significantly lower in IDA Group as compared to ID Group. POST-THERAPY: (1) IDA group showed significant increase in Hb, MCV, MCH, ferritin, folic acid and vitamin B12. (2) final Hb (11.26+1.07) and ferritin (7.46+4.81) in IDA Group were subnormal. (3) MCV, MCH, ferritin, folic acid and vitamin B12 increased significantly in ID Group and control group. (1) Nutritional anemia is common amongst asymptomatic young female students. (2) Deficiencies of iron, folic acid and vitamin B12 are common and coexist. (3) 105 mg elemental iron for 3 days in a week for 6 months is not adequate to correct IDA. (4) 105 mg iron for 3 days in a week is enough to correct ID. (5) Non-anemic individuals with ID have iron deficient erythropoiesis. (6) Non-anemic individuals without ID, in this cohort, also had iron deficient eryhtropoiesis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0596_19767", "title": "[Effect of Helicobacter pylori eradication on iron deficiency anemia of unknown origin].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Iron deficiency anemia of unknown origin is a frequent cause of anemia in which etiological diagnosis is often not achieved, despite currently available diagnostic techniques. Recent studies suggest that, in the absence of digestive tract lesions, Helicobacter pylori infection could be the cause of iron deficiency anemia, due to the alterations produced in gastric iron absorption. To evaluate whether H. pylori eradication resolves iron deficiency anemia and removes the need for oral iron administration. We performed an observational descriptive study in patients with iron deficiency anemia refractory to treatment with oral iron administration and with out causes that could explain their anemia. Gastroscopy, ileocolonoscopy, intestinal transit study and/or endoscopic capsule were performed. Female patients also underwent gynecological study. All patients were H. pylori-positive and standard eradication therapy was administered until elimination was achieved. The patients were followed-up for a minimum of 3 months after H. pylori eradication and the need for oral iron intake after eradication was evaluated. Ten patients, aged 53+/-8.2 years, were included. Hemoglobin (Hbg) before treatment was 10.06+/-0.53 mg/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) was 75.43+/-6.02 fl and ferritin was 6.1+/-3.28 ng/ml. Eradication therapy was administered until elimination of H. pylori. The mean time before disappearance of anemia was 4.5 months. Laboratory parameters after treatment were as follows: Hgb 12.86+/-0.75 mg/dl, MCV 85.02+/-4.8 fl and ferritin 28+/-22.19 ng/dl. In the absence of lesions that could explain iron deficiency anemia, this disease can be related to H. pylori infection. Eradication of this infection is closely followed by disappearance of anemia and ferropenia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0973_3484", "title": "The Role of Advanced Practitioners in Optimizing Clinical Management and Support of Patients With Polycythemia Vera.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "<bCASE STUDY</b Mr. M, a 65-year-old male, presented to his primary care physician with progressive fatigue, difficulty sleeping, and daily headaches for the past 3 weeks. His headaches were not associated with visual disturbances, cognitive deficits, or nausea/vomiting, and he had no history of migraines. He had a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, did not smoke, rarely drank alcohol, and had no recent illnesses or hospitalizations. His previous physical examination and laboratory studies 2 years ago were normal. The current physical examination revealed a plethoric yet well-appearing, well-nourished male in no acute distress. His lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally without wheezes, rales, or rhonchi. He had a regular heart rate and rhythm without murmur. His abdomen was soft, without tenderness, distension, or palpable hepatosplenomegaly. Examination of the extremities was negative for edema. Distal pulses and sensation in the hands and feet were intact and equal bilaterally. Cranial nerves II to XII were deemed intact, and no gross focal deficits were observed. Complete blood count (CBC) revealed a slightly elevated white blood cell (WBC) count (14.6 × 10<sup9</sup/L [normal range, 3.9-10.7 × 10<sup9</sup/L; Wians, 2015]), erythrocytosis (red blood cell [RBC] count, 6.5 × 1012/L [normal range, 4.2-5.9 × 1012/L; Wians, 2015], hemoglobin, 19 g/dL [normal range, 14-17 g/dL; Wians, 2015], and hematocrit, 54.3% [normal range, 41%-51%; Wians, 2015]), thrombocytosis (platelet count, 500 × 109/L [normal range, 150-350 × 10<sup9</sup/L; Wians, 2015]), and microcytosis (mean cell volume [MCV], 75 fL [80-100 fL; Wians, 2015]), which combined were cause for referral to a hematology/oncology clinic. During his hematology/oncology evaluation, Mr. M described \"never feeling rested\" and being unable to sleep with uncertain snoring habits. He was experiencing itching during hot showers yet did not have rashes and had not recently introduced a new soap. He had no family history of blood disorders and no personal history of blood clots. The second CBC and laboratory tests confirmed erythrocytosis (RBC count, 6.5 × 1012/L; hemoglobin, 18.9 g/dL; hematocrit, 54%) and microcytosis (MCV, 75 fL). Serum iron (22 μg/dL [normal range, 60-160 μg/dL]) and ferritin (5 ng/mL [normal range, 15-200 ng/mL]) were suggestive of iron deficiency, serum erythropoietin was 8 mU/mL (normal range, 4.0-18.5 mU/mL), and a Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) mutation analysis was positive for JAK2V617F. Platelet count remained 500 × 109/L and WBC count was 10.2 × 10<sup9</sup/L." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_8810", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "hip (retrocecal appendix). In addition, pain with rectal or cervical examinations is also suggestive of pelvic appendicitis.Laboratory FindingsPatients with appendicitis usually have leukocytosis of 10,000 cells/mm3, with a higher leukocytosis associated with gangrenous and perforated appendicitis (∼17,000 cells/mm3). C-reactive pro-tein, bilirubin, Il-6, and procalcitonin have all been sug-gested to help in the diagnosis of appendicitis, specifically in predicting perforated appendicitis.14,15 The authors believe that a white blood cell (WBC) count and a C-reactive protein are two appropriate lab tests to obtain in the initial work up of appendicitis; a pregnancy test is also essential in women of childbearing age. Lastly, a urinalysis can be valuable in ruling out nephrolithiasis or pyelonephritis.ImagingImaging is often utilized to confirm a diagnosis of appendici-tis because a negative operation rate is acceptable in <10% of male patients and <20% of female patients. Routine use" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en034_37343", "title": "Clomifene", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "In normal men, 50 mg/day clomifene for 8 months has been found to increase testosterone levels by around 870 ng/dL in younger men and by around 490 ng/dL in elderly men. Estradiol levels increased by 62 pg/mL in younger men and by 40 pg/mL in elderly men. These findings suggest that the progonadotropic effects of clomifene are stronger in younger men than in older men. In men with hypogonadism, clomifene has been found to increase testosterone levels by 293 to 362 ng/dL and estradiol levels by 5.5 to 13 pg/mL. In a large clinical study of men with low testosterone levels (<400 ng/dL), 25 mg/day clomifene increased testosterone levels from 309 ng/dL to 642 ng/dL after 3 months of therapy. No significant changes in HDL cholesterol, triglycerides, fasting glucose, or prolactin levels were observed, although total cholesterol levels decreased significantly." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3219", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "If capsule endoscopy is positive, management is dictated by the finding. If capsule endoscopy is negative, current recommendations suggest patients may either be observed or, if their clinical course mandates (e.g., recurrent bleeding, need for transfusions or hospitalization), undergo further testing. “Deep” enteroscopy (e.g., double-balloon, single-balloon, and spiral enteroscopy) is commonly the next test undertaken in patients with clinically important obscure GIB because it allows the endoscopist to examine, obtain specimens from, and provide therapy to much or all of the small intestine. CT and magnetic resonance enterography also are used to examine the small intestine. Other imaging techniques sometimes used in evaluation of obscure GIB include 99mTc-labeled red blood cell scintigraphy, multidetector CT “angiography,” angiography, and 99mTc-pertechnetate scintigraphy for Meckel’s diverticulum (especially in young patients). If all tests are unrevealing, intraoperative" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0960_17714", "title": "Ginseng-Related Drug-Induced Liver Injury.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Ginseng is commonly used as a medicinal herb for memory and concentration and general well-being. Drug-induced liver injury (DILI) is one of the most challenging disorders and trending events in the United States which are related to body building and weight loss supplements. Currently, herbal and dietary supplementation is the second most common cause of DILI. Here, we report on a 45-year-old healthy Chinese woman who presented with dull intermittent left upper quadrant abdomen pain for a month. Upon thorough history taking, she had been taking ginseng tea and supplementation for her menopausal symptoms for almost 3 months. Physical examination was unremarkable except mild tenderness in left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Liver function test showed aspartate transaminase (AST) 717 U/L, alanine transaminase (ALT) 343 U/L, total bilirubin 5 mg/dL, direct bilirubin 3.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 182 U/L, with international normalized ratio (INR) 1.2. Prior liver enzymes (6 months earlier) showed AST 21 U/L, ALT 18 U/L, total bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL, direct bilirubin 0.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 34 U/L, with INR 0.7. Viral serology for acute hepatitis B, C, E, cytomegalovirus, Epstein-Barr virus, and varicella zoster virus was negative. She was immune to hepatitis A. Her antinuclear antibody was positive. Her anti-Smith antibody, anti-smooth muscle antibody, HFE gene mutation, ceruloplasmin, alpha-1 antitrypsin serologies were within normal references. An abdomen sonogram showed fatty infiltration. Liver biopsy showed moderate to severe portal inflammation and marked lobular disarray. Portal and lobular inflammatory infiltrates consisted of a mixture of histiocytes, lymphocytes, plasma cells, eosinophils, and neutrophils with centrilobular necrosis and focal bridging necrosis, and necro-inflammation. After 6 weeks of follow-up, the patient improved physically, and the abdomen pain resolved. Ginseng has been widely used in the Chinese community as medicinal herb for a variety of conditions for decades. However, proper research has never been done regarding its pharmacokinetics, efficacy, and safety issues. In our case report, the idiosyncratic DILI resulted from ingestion of ginseng as herbal supplementation for premenopausal symptoms. Physicians should be aware of and suspect DILI in any patient with acute liver injury, and patients should be reminded that all medications and supplements have a potential to cause DILI." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0568_7226", "title": "[Detection of ectopic gastric mucosa in Meckel's diverticulum by means of scintigraphy with 99mTc-pertechnetate in a 24-year old man].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The article presents a case of a 24-year old man with ectopic gastric mucosa in Meckel's diverticulum. Ectopic gastric mucosa may be present in Meckel's diverticulum and may be associated with peptic ulcer disease and lower gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. Diagnosing ectopic gastric mucosa can largely benefit from 99\"Tc-pertechnetate scintigraphy. A 24-year old man underwent Meckel's diverticulum scintigraphy for timely anamnesis of GI bleeding from uncertain source (enterorrhagia, haemorrhagic anaemia). Upper tract and large bowel endoscopy, enteroclysis, ultrasound, CT and radioactive labelled red blood cells scintigraphy resluts were negative. Ectopic gastric mucosa was detected by 99mTc-pertechnetate scintigraphy. The patient underwent surgery and part of the proximal ileum including Meckel's diverticulum with ectopic gastric mucosa detected by histology was resected. Meckel's diverticulum scintigraphy can help detect ectopic gastric mucosa and improve the disease management in a patient with gastrointestinal bleeding." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0501_23829", "title": "Klinefelter's syndrome presenting with leg ulcers.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 54-year-old man of Persian origin presented to our department with a 1-year history of ulcers on the right leg that had been unresponsive to numerous topical treatments, accompanied by lymphedema of the right leg. Medical history included hypergonadotropic hypogonadism, which had not been further investigated. He was treated for 20 years with testosterone IM once monthly, which he stopped a year before the current hospitalization for unclear reasons. The patient reported no congenital lymphedema. Physical examination revealed two deep skin ulcers (Figure 1) on the right leg measuring 10 cm in diameter with raised irregular inflammatory borders and a boggy, necrotic base discharging a purulent hemorrhagic exudate. Bilateral leg pitting edema and right lymphangitis with lymphadenitis were noted. He had low head hair implantment, sparse hair on the body and head, hyperpigmentation on both legs, onychodystrophia of the toenails (mainly the large toe and less prominent on the other toes), which was atrophic lichen-planus-like in appearance and needed no trimming (Figure 2), normal hand nails, oral thrush, and angular cheilitis. Other physical findings were gynecomastia, pectus excavatum, small and firm testicles, long extremities, asymmetrical goiter, systolic murmur 2/6 in left sternal border, and slow and inappropriate behavior. The patient's temperature on admission was 39 degrees C. Blood cultures were negative for bacterial growth. Results of laboratory investigations included hemoglobin (11.2 g/dL), hematocrit (26.8%), normal mean corpuscular volume and mean corpuscular hemoglobin volume, and red blood cell distribution width (16%). Blood smear showed spherocytes, slight hypochromia, anisocytosis, macrocytosis, and microcytosis. Blood chemistry values were taken for iron (4 micro g/dL [normal range 40-150 micro g/dL]), transferrin (193 mg/dL [normal range 220-400 mg/dL]), ferritin (1128 ng/mL [normal range 14-160 ng/mL]), transferrin saturation (1.5% [normal range 20%-55%]), serum folate (within normal limits), and vitamin B12 (within normal limits). Direct Coombs' test equaled positive 2 + IgG. All these values indicated anemia of chronic diseases combined with hemolytic anemia. Further blood work-up tested antinuclear antibody (positive &lt;1:80 homogeneous pattern), rheumatoid factors (143 IU/mL [positive &gt;8.5 IU/mL]), C-reactive protein (286 mg/L [normal range 0-5 mg/L]), anticardiolipin IgM antibody (9.0 monophosphoryl lipid U/mL [normal range 0-7.00 MPL U/mL]) and antithrombin III activity (135% [normal range 74%-114%]). Results of other blood tests were within normal limits or negative, including lupus anticoagulant, beta2 glycoprotein, anticardiolipin IgG Ab, anti-ss DNA Ab, C3, C4, anti-RO, anti-LA, anti-SC-70, anti-SM Ab, P-ANCA, C-ANCA, TSH, FT4, anti-T microsomal, antithyroglobulin, protein C activity, protein S free, cryoglobulins, serum immunoelectrophoresis, VDRL, hepatitis C antibodies, hepatitis B antigen, and human immunodeficiency virus. Endocrinological work-up examined luteinizing hormone (22.9 mIU/mL [normal range for adult men 0.8-6 mIU/mL]), follicle stimulating hormone (49.7 mIU/mL [normal range for adult men 1-11 mIU/mL]), testosterone (0.24 ng/mL [normal range for adult men 2.5-8.0 ng/mL]), bioavailable testosterone (0.02 ng/mL [normal range for adult men &gt;0.6 ng/mL]), and percent bioavailable test (8.1% [normal value &gt;20%]). These results indicate hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. Plasminogen activator inhibitor 1 was 6 U (normal value 5-20 U/mL). Karyotyping performed by G-banding technique revealed a 47 XXY karyotype, which is diagnostic of Klinefelter's syndrome. Doppler ultrasound of the leg ulcers disclosed partial thrombus in the distal right femoral vein. X-rays and bone scan displayed osteomyelitis along the right tibia. Histological examination of a 4-mm punch biopsy from the ulcer border revealed hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, hypergranulosis, and mixed inflammatory infiltrate containing eosinophils compatible with chronic ulcer. Multiple vessels were seen, compatible with a healing process. Direct immunofluorescence of the biopsy revealed granular IgM in the dermo-epidermal junction. Indirect immunofluorescence was negative. Thyroid function tests showed normal thyroid stimulating hormone and free throxine4. Multinodular goiter was seen on thyroid scan and ultrasound. Thyroid fine needle aspiration was compatible with multinodular goiter (normal follicular cells, free colloid, macrophages with pigment). IV treatment with amoxicillin-clavulanic acid 1 g t.i.d. was administered for 2 weeks, with a decrease in temperature and normalization of the leukocyte level. Oral antibiotic treatment with amoxicillin-clavulanic acid was continued for 10 more days, followed by 25 days of ciprofloxacin for the osteomyelitis. Local treatment included saline soakings followed by application of Promogran (Johnson &amp; Johnson, New Brunswick, NJ) and Kaltostat (ConvaTec Ltd., a Bristol-Myers Squibb Company, New York, NY) with slight improvement. At the same time, the patient was treated with warfarin sodium due to deep vein thrombosis under international normalized ratio 2-3. The patient was treated with IM testosterone once monthly for 1 year, which resulted in a reduction in the diameter and depth of the leg ulcers (Figure 3). Blood tests were not performed for follow-up of the immune state." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22881", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Laboratory, Endoscopic, and Radiographic Features Active disease can be associated with a rise in acute-phase reactants (C-reactive protein [CRP]), platelet count, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and a decrease in hemoglobin. Fecal lactoferrin is a highly sensitive and specific marker for detecting intestinal inflammation. Fecal calprotectin levels correlate well with histologic inflammation, predict relapses, and detect pouchitis. Both fecal lactoferrin and calprotectin are becoming an integral part of IBD management and are used frequently to rule out active inflammation versus symptoms of irritable bowel or bacterial overgrowth. In severely ill patients, the serum albumin level will fall rather quickly. Leukocytosis may be present but is not a specific indicator of disease activity. Proctitis or proctosigmoiditis rarely causes a rise in CRP. Diagnosis relies on the patient’s history; clinical symptoms; negative stool examination for bacteria, C. difficile toxin, and ova" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0412_18897", "title": "Cases from the Osler Medical Service at Johns Hopkins University.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A 37-year-old woman presented with increasing abdominal pain and jaundice. Six weeks before admission, she developed persistent diarrhea and jaundice of the skin. She also bruised easily, and her gums bled. In the subsequent weeks, her appetite decreased, she was fatigued, and she had nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension. She had a history of drinking 1 quart of vodka every day for 20 years, with brief periods of abstinence; she stopped consuming alcohol 11 days before admission because it no longer provided symptomatic relief. Her past medical history was also notable for depression, including a suicide attempt 4 years earlier. She did not smoke, use illicit drugs, or have unprotected sexual intercourse. She had received no blood transfusions and had not traveled recently. She took no medications, except for occasional ibuprofen. On physical examination, she was thin and deeply jaundiced, and she trembled and responded slowly to questions. She was afebrile but tachypneic, and she had orthostatic hypotension. Her HEENT examination was notable for scleral and sublingual icterus, as well as crusted blood on her gums and teeth. The jugular veins were flat. The cardiac examination revealed tachycardia (heart rate, 103 beats per minute) without murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The abdomen was nontender and protuberant, with hypoactive bowel sounds; the spleen was not palpable, and there was no fluid wave or caput medusae. The liver percussed to 18 cm, with a smooth edge extending 10 cm below the costal margin. She had cutaneous telangiectases on her chest and bilateral palmar erythema. There was no peripheral edema. The neurologic examination was notable for asterixis. Her stool was guaiac positive. Laboratory studies revealed the following values: hematocrit, 21.2%; white blood cells, 17,310/mm(3); ammonia, 42 micromol/L; serum creatinine, 3.9 mg/dL; serum urea nitrogen, 70 mg/dL; albumin, 2.1 g/dL; total bilirubin, 26.8 mg/dL; alanine aminotransferase, 14 U/L; aspartate aminotransferase, 77 U/L; alkaline phosphatase, 138 U/L; prothrombin time, 103 seconds (international normalized ratio, 10.6); and urinary sodium, &lt;5 mg/dL. Urinalysis revealed an elevated specific gravity and numerous muddy granular casts. Hepatitis A, B, and C serologies were negative. On abdominal ultrasound examination, there was no ascites, and the liver was echogenic. The portal and hepatic veins were patent, and the hepatic arteries were normal. The spleen measured 14 cm. What is the diagnosis?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1023_12700", "title": "Analysis of clinical characteristics of 2243 with positive anti-gastric parietal cell antibody.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "To facilitate the early detection of chronic diseases, we analyzed the clinical characteristics of anti-gastric parietal cell antibody (PCA)-positive population, revealed the early characteristics of the population. According to the retrospective analysis, current situation investigation and comparative analysis of the clinical characteristics and medical history of the subjects, the comparison between the groups was performed. (a) The positive rate of PCA detection in department of gastroenterology in our hospital was 35.80%. Among the individuals who underwent PCA, esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and pathological examination at the same time, 33.59% of the patients with PCA positive were diagnosed as atrophic gastritis by gastroscopy, which was much higher than 9.09% of the patients with PCA negative. (b) The incidence of gastroesophageal reflux, hypertension, ischemic heart disease (IHD) and cerebral ischemia in PCA-positive population were 65.45%, 81.63%, 15.43%, and 31.61%, respectively, which were significantly higher than those in the control group. (c) The incidence rates of decreased red blood cells (RBC) and increased homocysteine (HCY) in laboratory-related tests were 38.30% and 69.15%, respectively, which were much higher than those in control group. PCA has predictive value for a variety of chronic diseases and timely detection is of great significance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1085_24991", "title": "Case 294.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "History A 50-year-old woman presented to the emergency department of our hospital with a 2-day history of lower limb pain associated with unusual asthenia and diffuse arthralgia over the past 3 weeks. She was a native of Guinea and had lived in France for most of her life, working as a personal care assistant. Her only medical history of note was an occurrence of fetal death at 12 weeks gestation when she was 35 years old. She had bilateral lower limb swelling, without changes in skin temperature or color. All proximal and distal arterial pulses were felt. General physical examination findings were otherwise unremarkable. Her laboratory tests showed a decreased hemoglobin concentration of 8.9 g/dL (normal range, 12-16 g/dL), a decreased platelet count of 45 × 10<sup9</sup/L (normal range, 150-400 × 10<sup9</sup/L), a C-reactive protein level of 158 mg/L (normal range, &lt;5 mg/L) and a d-dimer level of 2000 mg/L (normal range, &lt;500 mg/L). Compression US of the lower limbs revealed bilateral calf vein thrombosis involving the fibular and posterior tibial veins. Curative anticoagulation using low-molecular-weight heparin (enoxaparin, subcutaneous injection of 100 units per kilogram of body weight twice a day) was started. The day after the start of anticoagulation therapy, the patient reported dyspnea and acute chest and abdominal pain. Her vital signs were assessed, and she had elevated blood pressure and increased heart rate and respiratory rate, but she remained afebrile. Her cardiac auscultation was unremarkable, besides tachycardia. Skin examination revealed small areas of necrosis on the fingertips of her right hand. Laboratory studies were repeated and showed an increase in serum creatinine level from a baseline value of 0.49 mg/dL to a new value of 1.01 mg/dL (normal range, 0.6-1.1 mg/dL), an apparition of low-grade proteinuria of 0.43 g per day (normal range, &lt;0.3 g/day), and a high serum troponin level of 1066 ng/L (normal range, &lt;14 ng/L), whereas electrocardiography showed no ST segment modification and echocardiography revealed a moderately altered left ventricular ejection fraction (45%). There was no coronary occlusion seen at emergency coronarography. Contrast-enhanced CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis was performed (Figs 1, 2) together with cardiac MRI (Figs 3, 4)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1102_22675", "title": "Case 294: Catastrophic Antiphospholipid Syndrome.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "History A 50-year-old woman presented to the emergency department of our hospital with a 2-day history of lower limb pain associated with unusual asthenia and diffuse arthralgia over the past 3 weeks. She was a native of Guinea and had lived in France for most of her life, working as a personal care assistant. Her only medical history of note was an occurrence of fetal death at 12 weeks gestation when she was 35 years old. She had bilateral lower limb swelling, without changes in skin temperature or color. All proximal and distal arterial pulses were felt. General physical examination findings were otherwise unremarkable. Her laboratory tests showed a decreased hemoglobin concentration of 8.9 g/dL (normal range, 12-16 g/dL), a decreased platelet count of 45 × 10<sup9</sup/L (normal range, [150-400] × 10<sup9</sup/L), a C-reactive protein level of 158 mg/L (normal range, &lt;5 mg/L), and a d-dimer level of 2000 mg/L (normal range, &lt;500 mg/L]). Compression US of the lower limbs revealed bilateral calf vein thrombosis involving the fibular and posterior tibial veins. Curative anticoagulation using low-molecular-weight heparin (enoxaparin, subcutaneous injection of 100 units per kilogram of body weight twice a day) was started. The day after the start of anticoagulation therapy, the patient reported dyspnea and acute chest and abdominal pain. Her vital signs were assessed, and she had elevated blood pressure and increased heart rate and respiratory rate, but she remained afebrile. Her cardiac auscultation was unremarkable, besides tachycardia. Skin examination revealed small areas of necrosis on the fingertips of her right hand. Laboratory studies were repeated and showed an increase in serum creatinine level from a baseline value of 0.49 mg/dL to a new value of 1.01 mg/dL (normal range, 0.6-1.1 mg/dL), an apparition of low-grade proteinuria of 0.43 g per day (normal range, &lt;0.3 g/ day), and a high serum troponin level of 1066 ng/L (normal range, &lt;14 ng/L), whereas electrocardiography showed no ST segment modification and echocardiography revealed a moderately altered left ventricular ejection fraction (45%). There was no coronary occlusion seen at emergency coronarography. Contrast-enhanced CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis was performed (Figs 1, 2) together with cardiac MRI (Figs 3, 4)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0076_17", "title": "[Radioimmunoscintigraphy with monoclonal antibodies in recurrences and metastases of colorectal tumors].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "An experimental follow-up plan based on immunoscintigraphy was evaluated in 48 patients, who had undergone resection for colorectal cancer. The results were compared with those concerning other 317 patients submitted to a traditional follow-up (physical examination, blood analysis, endoscopy, ultrasonography, CT scan, barium enema, etc.). Immunoscintigraphy was performed with Iodine 131--or Indium 111--labeled anti-CEA and-19.9 monoclonal antibody, using a gamma-detecting probe (GDP) enabling to perform radioimmunodetections. In addition, radioimmunoguided surgery was performed in two cases of highly suspected recurrence, and radioimmunoguided endoscopy was made in two cases of suspected recurrence after anterior resection for tumor of the rectum. Our gamma-detecting probe differs from the other ones because of its collimator which enables to detect all the radioisotopes that are used for external scanning and because of its particular shape that enables to perform endoscopic radioimmuno detections. The experimental follow-up plan showed cancer recurrence in 27% of the patients vs. 13% of extensive instrumental investigations. Radioimmunoguided surgery appears to provide a higher level of radicality. The same GDP used for intraoperative immunoscintigraphies seems to be effective in the endoscopic study of the pelvis after anterior resection, a clinical occurrence which can hardly be investigated by means of other instrumental diagnostic procedures." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en178_38961", "title": "Ranson criteria", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Acute pancreatitis not secondary to gallstones At admission: Blood glucose > 11.11 mmol/L (> 200 mg/dL) Age > 55 years Serum LDH > 350 IU/L Serum AST > 250 IU/L WBC count > 16000 cells/mm3 Within 48 hours: Serum calcium < 2.0 mmol/L (< 8.0 mg/dL) Hematocrit decreased by > 10% Oxygen (hypoxemia with PaO2 < 60 mmHg) BUN increased by 1.8 or more mmol/L (5 or more mg/dL) after IV fluid hydration Base deficit (negative base excess) > 4 mEq/L Sequestration of fluids > 6 L Acute pancreatitis secondary to gallstones At admission: Glucose > 220 mg/dl Age > 70 years LDH > 400 IU/L AST > 250 IU/ 100 ml WBC count > 18000 cells/mm3 Within 48 hours: Serum calcium < 8 mg/dL Hematocrit decreased by > 10% Base deficit > 4 mEq/L BUN increased by > 2 mg/dL Sequestered fluid > 6L" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_22897", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "GastroDuoDenal Disease Symptoms and signs of upper GI tract disease include nausea, vomiting, and epigastric pain. Patients usually have an Helicobacter pylori–negative gastritis. The second portion of the duodenum is more commonly involved than the bulb. Fistulas involving the stomach or duodenum arise from the small or large bowel and do not necessarily signify the presence of upper GI tract involvement. Patients with advanced gastroduodenal CD may develop a chronic gastric outlet obstruction. Laboratory, Endoscopic, and Radiographic Features Laboratory abnormalities include elevated ESR and CRP. In more severe disease, findings include hypoalbuminemia, anemia, and leukocytosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1117_23569", "title": "Relationship between glycosylated hemoglobin and iron deficiency anemia: A common but overlooked problem.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Both diabetes mellitus (DM) and iron deficiency anemia (IDA) are prevalent in every area of the world, and so, the possibility of these two diseases co-existing is also very high. It is our belief that clinical results of any correlation between iron status of the body and glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) would be beneficial to many patients, therefore in this study, the effect of IDA on HbA1c was investigated. A total of 146 patients with DM and IDA were evaluated prospectively. While the patients were administered 270 mg/day of ferrous sulphate (80 mg elemental iron) orally for three months for the treatment of IDA, no interventions were made for the treatment of DM. Patient levels of hemoglobin (Hb), hematocrit, red blood cells (RBC), mean corpuscular volume (MCV), platelet, white blood cells (WBC), serum iron, serum iron binding capacity (SIBC), ferritin, fasting plasma glucose (FPG), HbA1c, body mass index (BMI), C-reactive protein (CRP) values were measured at baseline and at the third month of treatment with iron, and were compared. The median age of our patients was 45 (40-50) and median duration of diabetes was 3 years (1,75-5). While the baseline median Hb was 10.4 (mg/dL) (9.5-11.1), MCV was 74 (fL) (70.8-77), ferritin was 4 (ug/L) (3-6) at three months, Hb was measured at 12.6 (mg/dL) (12.1-13.2), MCV was measured at 82 (fL) (80-86), ferritin was measured at 15 (ug/L) (9-21.2) and was significantly higher compared to baseline values (p &lt; 0.001). The baseline median HBA1c of patients was 7.09 ± 0.51 (%) and three month HBA1c was 6.69 ± 0.53 (%), which was significantly lower than when comparing baseline values with values at third month (p &lt; 0.001). Baseline and three month values for FPG were 118 (mg/dL) (108-132) and 116 (mg/dL) (106-125) respectively, and there was no significant difference (p:0.07). A 2.2 mg/dL (1.5-3.5) increase in median Hb level accompanied a 0.4 % (0.2-0.6) decrease in median HbA1c levels (Spearman rho = -0.362; p &lt; 0.001). Our study has shown conclusivly that IDA is related to increased HbA1c concentrations and HbA1c decreases significantly following treatment with iron. IDA should be considered before making any decisions regarding diagnosis or treatment according to HbA1c." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0647_6451", "title": "[A case of hemobilia developing after radiofrequency ablation (RFA) for hepatocellular carcinoma].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "We report a case of hemobilia developing after RFA for hepatocellular carcinoma. A 75-year-old woman with hepatitis C was diagnosed as hepatocellular carcinoma (d=15 mm) located in subsegment 7. Laboratory data on admission are AFP 37.3 ng/mL, PIVKA-II 20 mAU/mL, GOT/GPT 84/52 IU/L, T-Bil 1.1 mg/dL, Alb 3.8 g/dL, Plt 8.9x104/microL, and PT 11.8 seconds (INR 1.28) \"Child classification A\". Under general anesthesia, percutaneous RFA (Cool-tip radionics 10 minutes) was performed. Tumor appeared to be well treated, but on day 5 after the procedure, the patient had sudden upper abdominal pain, followed by the elevation of total bilirubin conc. (3.3 mg/dL) and decrease of Hb. Abdominal ultrasonography showed a debris-like shadow in the gall bladder. Hemobilia was confirmed because endoscopic examination revealed blood contaminated bile from the papilla Vater. Since spontaneous thrombolysis is known to occur in the bile, the patient was only followed by MRI. Symptoms were subsided in a week without any treatment. Obstructive jaundice due to hemobilia is a rare complication of RFA, and may be followed without any treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0266_5746", "title": "[Endoscopic diagnosis of colonic tuberculosis].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "A 67-year-old woman had developed weakness, fatigue and a 10 kg weight loss over the past year. On examination a cylindrical mass was palpated in the right middle abdominal cavity. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate was increased to 87/126 mm, there was an hypochromic anaemia (haemoglobin 9.1 mg/dl) and an hypoalbuminaemia (32 g/l) with an increase in alpha 2-globulins (9.4 g/l), Cholinesterase activity was decreased to 588 U/l. X-ray film of the abdomen revealed a calcified mesenteric lymph-node and coloscopy demonstrated polypoid tumorous changes with ulcerations, extending from the pole of the caecum to the right flexure. Histological examination showed epithelioid-cell granulomas with Langhans giant cells. Culture grew Mycobacterium tuberculosis, confirming the diagnosis of intestinal tuberculosis. She was treated with oral doses of isoniazid (300 mg daily), rifampicin (600 mg daily) and pyrazinamide (2 g daily) for 2 months, followed by isoniazid and rifampicin for a further 4 months. After this the laboratory tests were within normal limits and urine as well as stool samples contained no acid-fast bacilli. As the patient felt so well she declined another coloscopy." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_23303", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.00867423431141572, "content": "Review drug list Hepatitis C antibody Hepatitis B surface Ag Iron, TIBC, ferritin ANA, SPEP Ceruloplasmin (if patient < 40) Ultrasound to look for fatty liver <15% Direct Gilbert’s syndrome Isolated elevation of the bilirubin Hepatocellular pattern (see Table 358-1) W/U negative W/U negative W/U negative Dilated ducts W/U positive Isolated elevation of the alkaline phosphatase Cholestatic pattern (see Table 358-1) Consider liver biopsy ERCP/Liver Bx CT/MRCP/ERCP Liver Bx Ducts not dilated Dilated ducts AMA positive AMA negative Alkaline phos. of liver origin Alkaline phos. of bone origin Bone Eval Ducts not dilated and/or AMA positive MRCP Evaluation for hemolysis Dubin-Johnson or Rotor syndrome Hemolysis Fractionate bilirubin >15% Direct Check AMA Review drugs Ultrasound Liver Tests Fractionate the alkaline phosphatase or check GGT or 5' nucleotidase to assess origin of alkaline phosphatase Ultrasound Review drug list Check AMA Liver biopsy R/O Celiac disease Consider other" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 100 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 15 ] ], "text": "Amyloidosis presents with proteinuria usually in the nephrotic range, and has a more chronic course." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 101, 181 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 15, 24 ] ], "text": "GMN associated with rheumatoid arthritis characteristically alters the sediment," }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 186, 265 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 25, 38 ] ], "text": "renal failure due to NSAIDs has a more chronic course, with papillary necrosis." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 272, 503 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 39, 72 ] ], "text": "given the course and the alterations described, interstitial nephritis due to methotrexate is more likely, which is more directly toxic than allergic, hence the absence of pyuria, eosinophilia, fever or other hypersensitivity data." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Renal amyloidosis.", "2": "Glomerulonephritis secondary to rheumatoid arthritis.", "3": "Renal failure due to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.", "4": "Interstitial nephritis due to methotrexate.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0038_1381", "title": "[Chronic interstitial nephritis caused by analgesics].", "score": 0.01906318082788671, "content": "Interstitial nephritis secondary to analgesic ingestion is apparently an uncommon subject in pediatric literature. Two cases are reported in this article: case 1 is a girl followed for the last fifteen years when she had lipoid nephrosis which was treated initially with corticosteroids; she responded satisfactorily, but presented frequent relapses. After 8 years, she was given cyclophosphamide plus prednisone and lately, she responded and has remained well. Further on, her urinalysis showed specific gravity of 1,033 and no proteinuria. Five years ago, because of protracted headache due to psychological disturbance, she started to ingest a variety of analgesics in progressively increasing doses. For the last 2 years, abdominal pains, paleness, polydipsia and polyuria have been observed; at present, her blood pressure, serum chemistry, and urine sediment are normal, but there is a marked failure in the renal concentration capacity, as well as marked sodium urinary losses. A percutaneous renal biopsy showed tubulo-interstitial fibrosis and edema with normal glomeruli. Case 2 is a girl with rheumatoid arthritis which appeared 3 years ago; for over one year, the patient was given 15 mg/day prednisone plus 1.5 g. acetylsalycilic acid. She was admitted to the hospital because her osteoarticular problem did not improve. Her blood pressure, blood chemistries and urinary sediment were also normal. LE tests were negative. Renal concentrating capacity was reduced and the renal biopsy showed tubular atrophy; there was intestinal edema and mononuclear infiltration. Chronic interstitial nephritis, secondary to analgesics is supported in both cases; polyuria and a marked defect of renal concentrating capacity are the earliest and most characteristic features. Normal urinary sediment is a common finding leading to erroneous assessment of a lack of renal involvement. Pathological lesions are located in the interstice of the renal medulla and sometimes in the papilla. Early arrest of analgesic ingestion may stop and even reverse the renal lesion and the renal insufficiency." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1002_12200", "title": "Spectrum of glomerulonephritis in Egyptian patients with rheumatoid arthritis: A University Hospital experience.", "score": 0.017555859553123575, "content": "Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is accompanied by a variety of nephropathies. It is often difficult to distinguish between disease-associated and drug-associated renal diseases. Three hundred and seventy-six RA patients with renal involvement were included in our study; they were subjected to full history and clinical examination, kidney function, 24-h urinary protein, and kidney biopsy. All our patients were on methotrexate, low dose steroids, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, in addition to the previous medications. About 79.3%, 20.7%, 6.9%, and 5.9% of our patients were on leflunomide, hydroxychloroquine, etanercept, and infliximab, respectively. Renal presentation was in the form of nephrotic syndrome (33.5%), persistent subnephrotic proteinuria (12.2%), persistent proteinuria and recurrent hematuria (13.3%), acute nephritis (23.9), recurrent hematuria (7.4%), and creatinine &gt;1.5 mg/dL (10.6%). Renal biopsies were glomerular amyloidosis (28.1%), mesangioproliferative (19.1%), membranous (6.1%), crescent (16.8%), focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (18.6%), and minimal changes (11.7%). There was a statistically significant difference in the incidence of membranous nephritis between patients who took leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine and those did not. Etanercept in our study seems not to be related to any form of renal involvement, while infliximab is related to focal segmental sclerosis and amyloidosis of tubulointerstitial type. Kidney involvement in RA is not a rare complication. Any type of histopathological changes can be present, with amyloidosis on top of the list. Hydroxychloroquine and leflunomide are accused in membranous nephropathy. Infliximab is associated with focal segmental sclerosis and amyloidosis of tubulointerstial type, and etanercept appear to be safe as regards kidney affection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0620_23607", "title": "Proliferative glomerulonephritis with acute renal failure-a rare manifestation in seronegative rheumatoid arthritis.", "score": 0.017331932773109245, "content": "A 55 years old lady with advanced rheumatoid arthritis (RA) presented with severe acute renal failure with significant proteinuria preceded by fever for 14 days. She had no history of taking drugs usually responsible for glomerulonephritis, neither had she any clinico-biochemical evidence of peri-infectious glomerulonephritis. Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) was excluded by absence of eosinophilia and eosinophils in urine. Renal biopsy reveled absence of amyloidosis and showed Focal segmental proliferative glomerulonephritis (FSGN). Patient was successfully managed with methyl-prednisolone followed by steroid and immunosuppressive and patient came over renal failure. So FSGN should be considered as one of the causes of acute renal failure in a patient with seronegative RA which may respond to immune-therapy like rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0675_8680", "title": "[Renal involvement in patients with rheumatoid arthritis].", "score": 0.017331932773109245, "content": "In rheumatoid arthritis (RA) kidney is commonly affected organ with clinical presentation characterised by proteinuria (often nephrotic range) and microhematuria followed by chronic renal failure. This condition is well recognized as a rheumatoid nephropathy (rheumatoid glomerulonephritis), which is mediated by an immunological inflammation and by nephrotoxic effects of numerous drugs usually used in rheumatoid arthiritis treatment, such as NSAID, DMARD. In the patohistological examination various kinds of associated renal lesions could be seen. The most often are amyloidosis, glomerulonephritis, interstitial nephritis. In this study, we presented 15 patients, 10 women and 5 men, mean age of 60.2 with average rheumatoid arthritis duration of 19.4 years and signs of rheumatoid nephropathy. In all patients renal biopsy was performed with frequency of histopathological findings as follows: amyloidosis in 5 patients, IgA nephropathy in 3 patients, FSGS in 3 patients, mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis in 3 patients, minimal change disease, pauci-immune glomerulonephritis and thin membrane disease in 1 patient. In all patients (except patient with thin membrane nephropathy) we started immunossuppresive therapy with glucocorticoids in combination with cyclophosphamide or cyclosporin or azatioprine. In conclusion, in all patients with rheumatoid arthritis, parameters of renal function should be monitored and in the case of patologic results, renal biopsy should be be performed. In the treatment of RA patients with related renal disorder, suspected causal drug should be removed from the treatment and specific immunosuppressive therapy initiated." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0421_17428", "title": "[Kidney involvement in rheumatoid arthritis].", "score": 0.01716769820218096, "content": "Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is a widespread disease and its renal involvement, relatively common, is clinically significant because worsens course and mortality of the primary disease. There is still no agreement on the prevalence of renal disorders in RA: data analysis originates from different sources, as death certificates, autopsies, clinical and laboratory findings and kidney biopsies, each with its limitations. Histoimmunological studies on bioptical specimens of patients with RA and kidney damage, led to clarify prevalent pathologies. In order of frequency: glomerulonephritis and amyloidosis (60-65% and 20-30% respectively), followed by acute or chronic interstitial nephritis. Kidney injury during RA includes secondary renal amyloidosis, nephrotoxic effects of antirheumatic drugs and nephropathies as extra-articular manifestations (rheumatoid nephropathy). Amyloidosis affects survival, increases morbidity and is the main cause of end stage renal disease in patients with RA and nephropathy. Strong association between RA activity and amyloidosis needs the use of immunosuppressive and combined therapies, to prevent this complication and reduce risk of dialysis. Long-lasting and combined RA pharmacotherapy involves various renal side effects. In this review we describe NSAIDs and DMARDs (Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs) nephrotoxicity, particularly by gold compounds, D-penicillamine, cyclosporine A and methotrexate. Rare cases of IgA glomerulonephritis during immunomodulating therapy with leflunomide and TNF blocking receptor (etanercept) are reported; real clinical significance of this drug-related nephropathy will be established by development of RA treatment. In RA nephropathies, mesangial glomerulonephritis is the most frequent histological lesion (35-60 % out of biopsies from patients with urinary abnormalities and/or kidney impairment), followed by minimal change glomerulopathy (3-14%) and p-ANCA positive necrotizing crescentic glomerulonephritis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0480_11602", "title": "[Renal tubular dysfunction in patients with rheumatoid arthritis starting with low dose of methotrexate].", "score": 0.016902982468394216, "content": "The elevation of N-acetyl-beta-D-glucosaminidase (NAG) in urine has been shown to be associated with reversible renal tubular damage. The aim of the study was to examine the effect of first oral low dose methotrexate (MTX) on urinary excretion of NAG comparing with MTX concentration in serum and urine in a cohort of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Urinary NAG to urinary creatinine ratio (NAG index) determined in 43 patients (5 males, 38 females) with RA who started taking the first oral dose of 10 mg of MTX. Urinary NAG index was observed at 24 h and 48 h after the first MTX dose. MTX concentration was measured in blood at 90 minutes and in blood and urine at 24 h after the drug administration. NAG-enzymuria was increased in 72.1% of the patients before administration of MTX therapy (10.8 UI/g creatinine). There was no change in NAG index at 24 and 48 h after first dose of MTX (9.1 and 10.7 UI/g of creatinine). No differences of NAG-enzymuria in non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-treated patients and NSAID-free patients before and after MTX administration were revealed. The patients with decreased creatinine clearance had before treatment higher NAG index than those with normal creatinine clearance but there was not any significant increase of NAG activity after first dose of MTX in the patients with decreased creatinine clearance. Continued treatment with MTX resulted in a decrease in NAG activity accompanied by serum C-reactive protein concentration. The use of low dose MTX with or without NSAIDs does not influence the renal tubular function in patients with RA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0888_17503", "title": "A Case Report Describing a Rare Presentation of Simultaneous Occurrence of MPO-ANCA-Associated Vasculitis and Rheumatoid Arthritis.", "score": 0.015463620102706134, "content": "<iBackground</i. Renal-limited myeloperoxidase vasculitis with simultaneous rheumatoid arthritis is reported as a rare occurrence. Review of literature suggests that most patients had a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis for several years prior to presenting with renal failure from myeloperoxidase vasculitis. <iCase Presentation</i. A 58-year-old Caucasian male presented to the hospital experiencing malaise, fevers, decreased oral intake, nausea, and vomiting for one week duration. His past medical history consisted of newly diagnosed but untreated rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension, and non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. He was found to have acute renal failure, proteinuria, and hypoglycemia. Standard therapy, including intravenous fluids, did not improve his acute renal failure. A vasculitis workup resulted in a positive myeloperoxidase anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (MPO-ANCA). Renal biopsy revealed crescentic glomerulonephritis (GN) pauci-immune type, suggestive of MPO-ANCA-associated vasculitis (MPO-AAV). Treatment consisted of prednisone, cyclophosphamide, and seven cycles of plasmapheresis, in addition to hemodialysis for uremia. Upon discharge, he received hemodialysis for another week and continued treatment with cyclophosphamide and prednisone. <iConclusion</i. Patients with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis may develop renal failure due to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication use and AA type amyloidosis; however, necrotizing glomerulonephritis with crescent formation has been rarely reported. This stresses the importance of early recognition and swift initiation of treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0334_8720", "title": "Remission of the nephrotic syndrome in a patient with renal amyloidosis due to rheumatoid arthritis treated with prednisolone and methotrexate.", "score": 0.015424311926605505, "content": "A 46-year-old woman developed nephrotic syndrome secondary to rheumatoid arthritis (RA). A renal biopsy showed deposition of amyloid fibrils in the subendothelial space of the glomerular capillary walls. After treatment with prednisolone (PSL, 40 mg/day), the levels of C-reactive protein (CRP) and serum amyloid A decreased to within normal limits for 2 weeks. However, the nephrotic syndrome persisted for 6 months after the therapy. To maintain the suppression of disease activity and to reduce PSL, methotrexate (5 mg/week) was added. The nephrotic syndrome resolved gradually, and the level of serum albumin returned to normal. Although renal prognosis of patients with nephrotic syndrome due to amyloidosis caused by RA has been considered poor, adequate and long-term treatment of RA with antiinflammatory drugs, including PSL and methotrexate, is useful for patients with secondary amyloidosis complicated by RA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0381_14266", "title": "[Clinico-immunological aspects of renal lesions in rheumatoid arthritis].", "score": 0.014802721088435375, "content": "The aim of this study was to examine the incidence of different renal lesions in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and to determine their relationships with the type of previous drug therapy and with the specific features of immune disorders. Ninety four patients, 84 (89.9%) females and 10 (10.6%) males) with RA whose mean age was 45.2 +/- 11.9 years and duration of the disease 7.5 +/- 6.5 years were examined. Most of them had degrees 2 and 3 PA (62.7 and 24.4%, respectively). Systemic manifestations were encountered in 60 (63.8%) patients. Eighty one patients took nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAID) continuously: 18 patients for a year, 32 for 5 years, 14 for 6 to 10 years, and 17 for over 10 years. All the patients underwent clinical, laboratory, and instrumental study of partial functions of the kidney. Immunological study involved solid-phase immunoassay of IgA and IgM rheumatoid factor, von Willebrand factor antigens (WF:Ag), C-reactive protein. The serum concentrations were measured by the Mancini method. Changes in urinalysis and/or signs of decreased glomerular and tubular functions were found in 69 (73.%) patients, 25 (26.6%) had arterial hypertension. Tubular dysfunctions were more common [31 (32.9%) patients]. Signs of early renal failure were detected in 20 (21.2%) patients. There were no cases of acute renal failure. Amyloidosis, glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis were diagnosed in 5 (5.3%), 16 (17%), and 13 (13.8%) patients, respectively. The above renal lesions were concurrent in some patients. Renal lesion correlated with the progression and severity of RA, the presence of systemic manifestations, and age. There was no relationship of both 5- and 10-year use of NSAID to the symptoms of renal disease. The use of these drugs for over 10 years was concurrent with the signs of chronic renal failure and arterial hypertension. Analyzing immunological disorders showed an association of increased erythrocytic sedimentation rates and WF:Ag with amyloidosis, that of higher IgA concentrations with proteinuria and tubular dysfunctions. It is concluded that renal lesion is common in RA, there is a predominance of tubular interstitial changes. In rare cases nephropathy is characterized by a benign course and fails to result in uremia. The symptoms of renal diseases are largely associated with RA progression and severity and the patients' age. Prolonged continuous use of NSAID may contribute to the development of renal failure. Different immune mechanisms are involved in the pathogenesis of glomerular and tubular nephropathy in RA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0305_22233", "title": "[Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis presenting nephrotic syndrome and acute renal failure in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis].", "score": 0.014629904342933143, "content": "A 45-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis(RA) who developed nephrotic syndrome and acute renal failure was reported. She first noticed polyarthritis in June 1990, and was diagnosed as RA. Since her RA was not controlled with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID), she started taking prednisolone 10 mg daily and received 100 mg of D-penicillamine from October 1990 with improvement of the RA. In March 1991, she noticed edema of the face and legs, at which time massive proteinuria and hematuria were first noted. Because of her nephrosis, she was referred to our hospital for further evaluation. Laboratory investigations revealed 24-hour urine proteinuria of 37 g, serum creatinine, 2.7 mg/dl, blood urea nitrogen, 43.5 mg/dl, total protein, 4.1 g/dl, albumin, 1.5 mg/dl, and total cholesterol, 600 mg/dl. The rheumatoid factor and anti-nuclear antibody were positive. Renal biopsy showed focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS). Her nephrotic syndrome and renal dysfunction recovered after the administration of prednisolone at 60 mg/day. The possible pathogenesis of FSGS in patients with RA was discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0780_11864", "title": "Renal involvement in rheumatoid arthritis: analysis of renal biopsy specimens from 100 patients.", "score": 0.014593576733967988, "content": "Abstract  We analyzed renal biopsy specimens from 100 patients to evaluate the characteristics of renal involvement in patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Membranous nephropathy (MN) was the most common renal histological pattern (31%). Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis (GN) was found in 21% of cases (IgA nephropathy 12%, non-IgA GN 9%), minor changes in 17%, renal amyloidosis in 11%, interstitial nephritis in 9%, sclerotic GN in 4%, and crescentic GN in 2%. MN was relatively more frequent in men than in women, and most developed nephrotic syndrome, while a few developed renal failure. Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) correlated with MN in 26 of 31 cases. Mesangial proliferative GN showed high-grade hematuria. Amyloidosis correlated with long duration of RA; approximately half of the cases with amyloidosis also had nephrotic syndrome, and 82% developed renal failure. Of the 100 patients, 82% showed some tubulo-interstitial changes, which might be related to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Because renal lesions in RA are very diverse, and early stage cases of MN and amyloidosis can be detected only by histological examinations, renal biopsy should be performed in cases with continuous urinary abnormalities or progressive renal failure. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0056_2618", "title": "[Clinicopathological study of nephropathy in patients with rheumatoid arthritis].", "score": 0.014356602591896708, "content": "We carried out a retrospective study to investigate the clinical and pathological findings in 31 patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). In clinical findings, 17 patients showed nephrotic syndrome, five had isolated proteinuria, two had proteinuria and hematuria and seven had renal failure. In pathological findings, there were 16 patients with membranous nephropathy (MN), two with proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN), two with minor glomerular abnormality (MGA), six with amyloidosis, 2 with tubulointerstitial nephritis, and three patients had accompanying lupus nephritis. Eleven of 16 with MGN had been treated with gold, bucillamine or D-penicillamine, so they were diagnosed as drug induced MGN. In the other five patients, we could not decide which drugs induced the nephropathy. The 2 cases of MGA were associated with nephrotic syndrome and acute renal failure, which were caused by non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs. There were two cases of non-Ig A DPGN, which was regarded as the native nephropathy in RA. The three cases with lupus nephritis were diagnosed as systemic lupus erythematosus by the criteria of the American Rheumatism Association (ARA). In conclusion, the nephropathy in patients with RA was varied and renal biopsy was a useful examination." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0500_710", "title": "Renal function in rheumatoid arthritis patients treated with methotrexate and infliximab.", "score": 0.014211334926596108, "content": "This study was aimed at monitoring the early and late effects of infliximab on renal proximal function in RA patients treated with methotrexate. N-acetyl-3-D-glucosaminidase (NAG) activity in urine served as an indicator of proximal tubular damage NAG activity was estimated in 21 patients during the course of treatment with infliximab and methotrexate. In every patient NAG-enzymuria was estimated directly before and 60 min after infliximab infusions and 62 weeks after starting the therapy. The total of mean NAG activities observed before each infusion of infliximab was significantly lower (p &lt; 0.02) than NAG-enzymuria before the start of infliximab treatment (7.4 UI/g vs 11.8 UI/g). The proportion of patients in whom NAG activity rose by more than 50% during treatment ranged from 5.3% to 25%. Administration of infliximab did not significantly change the mean serum creatinine levels or creatinine clearance. No significant differences were observed in the mean values of NAG values before and 60 min after infliximab infusion. Patients who demonstrated elevated NAG activities during the course of the whole treatment demonstrated significantly more pronounced NAG enzymuria before treatment and one hour after the first infusion (p &lt; 0.0005), as well as higher RA activity (p &lt; 0.05). There was no observed influence of NSAIDs or prednisone on the frequency of elevated NAG activities. Raised creatinine concentrations (&gt; 1.3 mg/dL) were noted before and during the course of infliximab treatment in 3 patients. In 16 patients abdominal fat aspiration biopsy was performed and in 3 the presence of amyloid deposits was demonstrated. In these patients NAG activity exceeded twice the upper normal limit. The introduction of infliximab during methotrexate therapy demonstrated no early or delayed nephrotoxicity of the drug in patients with rheumatoid arthritis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0377_7290", "title": "Severe reversible renal failure due to naproxen-associated acute interstitial nephritis.", "score": 0.014107699154428126, "content": "Acute interstitial nephritis is uncommon in children and has very rarely been described with naproxen treatment. We report the occurrence of severe acute renal failure in a 10-year-old girl with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis after 1 month of naproxen therapy. Renal biopsy showed severe acute interstitial nephritis. The patient recovered completely after discontinuation of naproxen and administration of methylprednisolone. A review of the literature regarding non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug-associated acute interstitial nephritis is provided. In an era of increasing popularity of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for use in children, paediatricians should be aware of the potential renal complications of this class of drugs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1112_22579", "title": "Use of biologic agents and methotrexate improves renal manifestation and outcome in patients with rheumatoid arthritis: a retrospective analysis.", "score": 0.013504968383017164, "content": "We examined whether advances in treatment strategies from older disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) to new biologic agents and methotrexate improved renal complications and outcome in patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). We reviewed records of 156 patients with RA who underwent kidney biopsy at our institute between January 1990 and December 2019. All patients were assigned to one of three periods: period 1, 1990-1999 (n = 48); period 2, 2000-2009(n = 57); period 3, 2010-2019 (n = 51). Membranous nephropathy, nephrosclerosis, AA-amyloidosis, and IgA nephropathy were the four major renal manifestations of RA. AA-amyloidosis was diagnosed by kidney biopsy in 21 patients: period 1, 7 patients (15%); period 2, 10 patients (18%); and period 3, 4 patients (8%). The 4 patients in period 3 were in the years 2010-2014, and no new case of AA-amyloidosis was recorded from 2015 to 2019. In all 21 of the patients with AA-amyloidosis, neither a biologic agent nor methotrexate was administered. Fifteen of the 21 patients required dialysis, and 13 died in periods 1-3 because of amyloid-related cardiac dysfunction less than 2 years after the initiation of dialysis. Two of them are doing well using biologic agent despite dialysis. The remaining three patients who received a biologic agent or methotrexate does not progress to end-stage renal failure. In addition, the other renal complications showing progression to dialysis also decreased over time. Advances in treatment strategies have improved renal outcome and reduced mortality in patients with RA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0906_12677", "title": "Acute interstitial nephritis with membranous nephropathy in bucillamine-treated rheumatoid arthritis.", "score": 0.013471971066907775, "content": "In bucillamine-treated patients, persistent proteinuria caused by membranous nephropathy (MN) is a major adverse effect affecting the kidneys. We experienced a case of acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) with MN caused by bucillamine. An 81-year-old Japanese woman with a past medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and hypertension presented with a fever, epigastric pain, and nausea of 1 week's duration. She had commenced bucillamine 4 months earlier. At the time of admission, her baseline creatinine (0.8 mg/dl) had risen to 6.8 mg/dl. A renal biopsy revealed AIN with concomitant MN. Renal function gradually improved after bucillamine administration was stopped. In addition to MN, bucillamine can cause AIN, which requires a renal biopsy for definitive diagnosis. Given the host of pathological findings that tend to develop in patients using bucillamine, patients receiving the drug who present with symptoms of acute kidney injury should undergo a renal biopsy to determine the presence of AIN." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1008_1798", "title": "[A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presenting a nephrotic syndrome: A case report].", "score": 0.013444827020823086, "content": "A fifty-one years-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis of recent diagnosis is hospitalized for exploration of a rapidly progressive anasarca state. First analysis discovered an impure nephrotic syndrome (acute renal failure, hematuria) and massive glomerular proteinuria. Auto-medication by nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug was revealed. Renal biopsy showed minimal glomerular disease and acute tubular necrosis. Corticosteroid use permitted a normalization of proteinuria and renal recovery was obtained. Literature review showed renal impairment occurring in rheumatoid polyarthritis. Minimal glomerular disease is rare but can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This disease, associated with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, may be responsible of the patient condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0254_18091", "title": "[Methotrexate treatment of amyloidosis secondary to rheumatoid arthritis].", "score": 0.013071895424836602, "content": "Amyloidosis secondary to rheumatoid arthritis is a complication with a poor prognosis and as yet an undefined medical therapy. In the last decades the use of different cytostatics has been advocated to avoid renal function deterioration. The clinical characteristics and course in eight patients with amyloidosis secondary to rheumatoid arthritis are here reported after therapy with low dosage methotrexate. In twelve patients who followed a 12-month therapy a clinical improvement was observed, with a marked decrease in proteinuria; in one of them proteinuria disappeared. These results suggest that methotrexate at low doses might be an alternative in the early treatment of amyloidosis secondary to rheumatoid arthritis in patients with preserved renal function." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0126_17047", "title": "Necrotizing glomerulonephritis in rheumatoid arthritis.", "score": 0.012642724507131286, "content": "Rheumatoid arthritis may be associated with several glomerular lesions including amyloidosis, mesangial proliferation and membranous glomerulonephritis. Systemic vasculitis is a well-recognized extra-articular complication of rheumatoid arthritis, but necrotizing glomerulonephritis, the glomerular expression of vasculitis, has been described infrequently. This report comprises four patients with rheumatoid arthritis who underwent renal biopsy for declining renal function, proteinuria and active urine sediments. Pathology revealed that three patients had segmental necrotizing glomerulonephritis without significant glomerular immunoglobulin deposition. The fourth had segmental necrosis associated with diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis. We conclude that necrotizing glomerulonephritis is part of the spectrum of glomerular lesions seen in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Because of therapeutic considerations involving the use of cyclophosphamide, necrotizing glomerulonephritis should be a diagnostic consideration in the rheumatoid arthritis patient with signs of glomerulonephritis and rapidly deteriorating renal function." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0112_2644", "title": "Naproxen nephrotoxicity in a 2-year-old child.", "score": 0.0125, "content": "The development of acute renal failure and interstitial nephritis due to therapeutic doses of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs has been documented repeatedly in adult patients but is rare in children. We report the occurrence of this complication in a child. Acute renal failure and hyperkalemia developed in a 2-year-old boy with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis after one month of naproxen sodium therapy. The evidence of renal toxic effects became manifest after an episode of dehydration. A percutaneous renal biopsy specimen revealed interstitial nephritis. The patient recovered promptly after withdrawal of the drug." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0545_2382", "title": "Effect of indomethacin and selective cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors on proteinuria and renal function in patients with AA type renal amyloidosis.", "score": 0.011714770797962648, "content": "Because the cardiovascular system (CVS) side-effects of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) selective inhibitors have recently been questioned, we aimed to compare the renal and haemodynamic effects of cyclooxygenase selective (celecoxib and rofecoxib) and non-selective non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (indomethacin) in patients with renal amyloidosis secondary to rheumatological diseases who required anti-inflammatory agents and are taking maximum tolerable dose of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors. The present study was performed on 11 patients with stable proteinuria who were diagnosed as AA amyloidosis secondary to rheumatological diseases confirmed by renal biopsies. The study had three consecutive stages (celecoxib 200 mg/day; indomethacin 100 mg/day; rofecoxib 25 mg/day.) Each was given for 4 weeks and a wash-out phase of 3 weeks was allowed between consecutive stages. Although the decrease of proteinuria in the celecoxib period was higher than in the rofecoxib and indomethacin periods, the difference was not statistically significant. No statistically significant differences were found between serum urea, creatinine, creatinine clearance and urinary sodium excretion. In this study, no differences were found between indomethacin and the two selective COX-2 inhibitors in respect to proteinuria and renal functions in 11 patients with renal amyloidosis secondary to rheumatological diseases with varying degrees of proteinuria. Routine doses of NSAIDs brought no additional benefit to the ACE inhibitor use in terms of proteinuria and renal functions. The use of selective COX-2 inhibitors should be limited to their anti-inflammatory and analgesic effects in this population." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_105195", "title": "Chemotherapy", "score": 0.011548101021785233, "content": "Some chemotherapy drugs are used in diseases other than cancer, such as in autoimmune disorders, and noncancerous plasma cell dyscrasia. In some cases they are often used at lower doses, which means that the side effects are minimized, while in other cases doses similar to ones used to treat cancer are used. Methotrexate is used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis and multiple sclerosis. The anti-inflammatory response seen in RA is thought to be due to increases in adenosine, which causes immunosuppression; effects on immuno-regulatory cyclooxygenase-2 enzyme pathways; reduction in pro-inflammatory cytokines; and anti-proliferative properties. Although methotrexate is used to treat both multiple sclerosis and ankylosing spondylitis, its efficacy in these diseases is still uncertain. Cyclophosphamide is sometimes used to treat lupus nephritis, a common symptom of systemic lupus erythematosus. Dexamethasone along with either bortezomib or" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0346_5589", "title": "[Rheumatoid arthritis and the kidney. Pinpointing an aspect of confusing contours].", "score": 0.01136075145976136, "content": "In literature there are only a few papers about renal involvement in rheumatoid arthritis. The scarcity of reports is due to the difficulties of pinpointing this subject; in fact a bloody investigation like kidney biopsy is necessary to obtain an exact diagnosis. Moreover it is often clinically hard to distinguish renal injury provoked by rheumatoid arthritis from nephropathy caused by drugs, either non steroidal antiinflammatory drugs or disease modifying antirheumatic drugs. This topic is perhaps neglected because primary renal involvement in rheumatoid arthritis is not considered to influence the survival, with the exception of renal amyloidosis. Pathologic examination of kidney biopsy shows in order of frequency: mesangial nephritis, renal amyloidosis, membranous nephritis, focal proliferative nephritis, minimal nephritis, interstitial nephritis. Both immune complexes and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies may play a pathogenetic role. The mesangial nephritis with IgA or IgM deposits is linked to high levels of rheumatoid factor of IgA or IgM class; it has been hypothesized that the ability of mesangium to remove circulating immune complexes provokes the mesangial damage. Moreover it has been observed that rheumatoid arthritis with renal involvement shows positivity for perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies more frequently than rheumatoid arthritis without nephropathy. Also in the former cases the title of these autoantibodies is higher. The aim of this paper is to bring the terms of the problem into focus by the revision of the literature. Further and wider studies are necessary to obtain more available data." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0968_3383", "title": "Should a patient with rheumatoid arthritis be a kidney donor?", "score": 0.010654774620807519, "content": "We cared for a woman with sero-positive rheumatoid arthritis (RA), in clinical remission on oral methotrexate (MTX) and hydroxychloroquine, who wished to donate a kidney to a brother with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). We could find scant literature about this unusual clinical circumstance, and therefore review pertinent aspects of renal disease in RA, perioperative medical management, maintenance of disease remission, outcomes for RA patients who have donated kidneys, and relevant ethical issues. Renal complications in RA are not uncommon, with as many as 50% of patients at risk of reduced eGFR. This reflects anti-rheumatic and analgetic medication use (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, acetaminophen, DMARDs [cyclosporine and, historically, D-penicillamine and gold compounds], and others), glomerulitis, interstitial nephritis, complicating Sjogren's syndrome, vasculitis, or amyloidosis, and/or emergence of an \"overlap\" syndrome or other rheumatic disorder. The literature suggests that MTX need not be interrupted for surgery. The risk of perioperative infection to our patient would be low and remission should be sustained. We are aware of one study of six patients with RA who donated kidneys; they experienced no complications, ESRD, or deaths after a median follow-up of 8.2 years. Our ethical responsibilities are to balance patient autonomy of decision-making while assuring clinical beneficence and minimizing potential maleficence. Our perspective was that it would not be unreasonable to support this patient donating a kidney if, when fully informed, that remained her wish." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_27065", "title": "Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug", "score": 0.010557563242127001, "content": "Common ADRs associated with altered kidney function include: Sodium and fluid retention Hypertension (high blood pressure) These agents may also cause kidney impairment, especially in combination with other nephrotoxic agents. Kidney failure is especially a risk if the patient is also concomitantly taking an ACE inhibitor (which removes angiotensin II's vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole) and a diuretic (which drops plasma volume, and thereby RPF)—the so-called \"triple whammy\" effect. In rarer instances NSAIDs may also cause more severe kidney conditions: Interstitial nephritis Nephrotic syndrome Acute kidney injury Acute tubular necrosis Renal papillary necrosis NSAIDs in combination with excessive use of phenacetin or paracetamol (acetaminophen) may lead to analgesic nephropathy. Photosensitivity" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_27056", "title": "Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug", "score": 0.010049636465324384, "content": "Use of methotrexate together with NSAIDs in rheumatoid arthritis is safe, if adequate monitoring is done. Cardiovascular NSAIDs, aside from aspirin, increase the risk of myocardial infarction and stroke. This occurs at least within a week of use. They are not recommended in those who have had a previous heart attack as they increase the risk of death or recurrent MI. Evidence indicates that naproxen may be the least harmful out of these." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0913_15886", "title": "Crescentic glomerular nephritis associated with rheumatoid arthritis: a case report.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic disorder where clinically significant renal involvement is relatively common. However, crescentic glomerular nephritis is a rarely described entity among the rheumatoid nephropathies. We report a case of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis presenting with antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody-negative crescentic glomerular nephritis. A 54-year-old Sri Lankan woman who had recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis was being treated with methotrexate 10 mg weekly and infrequent nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. She presented to our hospital with worsening generalized body swelling and oliguria of 1 month's duration. Her physical examination revealed that she had bilateral pitting leg edema and periorbital edema. She was not pale or icteric. She had evidence of mild synovitis of the small joints of the hand bilaterally with no deformities. No evidence of systemic vasculitis was seen. Her blood pressure was 170/100 mmHg, and her jugular venous pressure was elevated to 7 cm with an undisplaced cardiac apex. Her urine full report revealed 2+ proteinuria with active sediment (dysmorphic red blood cells [17%] and granular casts). Her 24-hour urinary protein excretion was 2 g. Her serum creatinine level was 388 μmol/L. Abdominal ultrasound revealed normal-sized kidneys with acute parenchymal changes and mild ascites. Her renal biopsy showed renal parenchyma containing 20 glomeruli showing diffuse proliferative glomerular nephritis, with 14 of 20 glomeruli showing cellular crescents, and the result of Congo red staining was negative. Her rheumatoid factor was positive with a high titer (120 IU/ml), but results for antinuclear antibody, double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid, and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (perinuclear and cytoplasmic) were negative. Antistreptolysin O titer &lt;200 U/ml and cryoglobulins were not detected. The results of her hepatitis serology, retroviral screening, and malignancy screening were negative. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate was 110 mm in the first hour, and her C-reactive protein level was 45 mg/dl. Her liver profile showed hypoalbuminemia of 28 g/dl. She was treated with immunomodulators and had a good recovery of her renal function. This case illustrates a rare presentation of antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody-negative crescentic glomerular nephritis in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, awareness of which would facilitate early appropriate investigations and treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en238_25717", "title": "Pulmonary-renal syndrome", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Other causes include systemic lupus erythematosus, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, microscopic polyangiitis, dermatomyositis, polymyositis, mixed connective tissue disease, poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic sclerosis. Less common causes also include IgA vasculitis and cryoglobulinemic vasculitis. Other etiologies include toxic injury such as paraquat poisoning, infection with hantavirus, leptospirosis, or legionella, or vascular, as seen in nephrotic syndrome when a renal vein thrombosis embolizes to the lungs. Diagnosis Differential diagnosis Cardiogenic shock can mimic a pulmonary renal syndrome and lead to coughing up blood due to pulmonary edema and kidney failure from inadequate blood flow. Treatment Treatment is primarily by corticosteroids and immunosuppressive medications like cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, and azathioprine. Plasmapheresis can be used in some circumstances. References Lung disorders Syndromes" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en199_26034", "title": "Rheumatoid nodule", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Treatment Treatment for rheumatoid nodules may be tricky as some treatments for rheumatoid arthritis can act against the nodules. Common drug therapies for rheumatoid arthritis may show no benefits towards the treatment for rheumatoid nodules. Common drug therapies, such as anti TNF treatment or other immunosuppressive drugs, for rheumatoid arthritis has shown little effect on the nodules. In fact, it has been shown that Methotrexate, a drug often used in rheumatoid arthritis, is actually correlated with the increased risk of nodule formation. Because rheumatoid nodules also cause pain or nerve entrapment, treatment for these symptoms with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be sufficient. Other drug therapies, such as corticosteroids, have shown to decrease nodular size, however, it can increase the risk of infection as well. Local corticosteroid injections seems to be the most studied treatment for rheumatoid nodules as of now." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0108_13071", "title": "A survey of renal function in outpatients with rheumatoid arthritis.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The acute renal side-effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are well documented. These include interstitial nephritis, hyperkalaemia, renal tubular acidosis, fluid retention, hypertension and nephrotic syndrome. The long-term effects are less well known. We have carried out a cross-sectional survey of an unselected out-patient population with definite or classical rheumatoid arthritis to determine the prevalence of renal problems in this group. Thirty-four patients (20%) were shown to have an abnormality as defined by our criteria but in the majority this was transient or had been previously recognised. Thirteen patients (8%) had a persistent unexplained abnormality but only 1 had merited renal biopsy using established criteria (Patient 1). We conclude that the long-term use of NSAID's is associated with relatively few renal side-effects." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0047_7944", "title": "Interaction of cyclosporine A and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs on renal function in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To determine the additive renal effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and cyclosporine A (CYA) in patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and to determine the effects of CYA on active RA. Eleven patients with RA refractory to other agents were treated separately for 2-week periods with an NSAID (sulindac or naproxen), CYA (5 mg/kg/d), and NSAID plus CYA in combination (NSAID/CYA). The NSAID/CYA combination was continued for an additional 20 weeks. Clinical parameters of RA, electrolytes, renal function, and the renin-aldosterone system were evaluated at each interval to determine the potential interaction of these two agents. Combined therapy was effective in suppressing many measures of active RA in 9 of the 11 patients. Adverse drug reactions were common, but withdrawals were limited to hirsutism (one) and peripheral neuropathy (one). In about half of the patients, CYA or NSAID resulted in a decrease in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and effective renal plasma flow (ERPF), with a mild reduction in the filtration fraction. With NSAID or CYA, early morning renin-aldosterone system values were mildly suppressed, and their response to ambulation/intravenous (IV) furosemide was not blunted. When combined, NSAID/CYA caused more marked reductions of GFR and ERPF at 2 weeks, and this persisted at 20 weeks. The morning renin-aldosterone system values during administration of NSAID/CYA were suppressed, with an added blunted response to ambulation/IV furosemide. As previously suspected, the impairment of renal function when CYA and NSAID are combined is greater than that obtained with either agent alone. This hemodynamic effect was reversible and appeared to be, at least in part, due to renal vasoconstriction." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_27048", "title": "Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Medical uses NSAIDs are often suggested for the treatment of acute or chronic conditions where pain and inflammation are present. NSAIDs are generally used for the symptomatic relief of the following conditions: Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis Mild-to-moderate pain due to inflammation and tissue injury Low back pain Inflammatory arthropathies (e.g., ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis) Tennis elbow Headache Migraine Acute gout Dysmenorrhea (menstrual pain) Metastatic bone pain Postoperative pain Muscle stiffness and pain due to Parkinson's disease Pyrexia (fever) Ileus Renal colic Macular edema Traumatic injury Chronic pain and cancer-related pain The effectiveness of NSAIDs for treating non-cancer chronic pain and cancer-related pain in children and adolescents is not clear. There have not been sufficient numbers of high-quality randomised controlled trials conducted." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 220 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 38 ] ], "text": "A first episode of acute low back pain (less than 6 weeks duration), does not require imaging tests in the absence of \"red flags\" that may indicate an underlying process, such as a fracture, infection or malignant tumor." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "As this is the first episode of low back pain, only a simple X-ray of the lumbar spine.", "2": "MRI, which provides more information on soft tissue and possible herniations.", "3": "CT scan, to better assess the bone structure and possible fractures.", "4": "No indication for imaging test.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en026_21878", "title": "Back injury", "score": 0.01899189918991899, "content": "Diagnosis Diagnosis of a back injury begins with a physical examination and thorough medical history by health-care personnel. Some injuries, such as sprains and strains or herniated discs, can be diagnosed in this manner. To confirm these diagnoses, or to rule out other injuries or pathology, imaging of the injured region can be ordered. X-rays are often used to visualize pathology of bones and can be ordered when a vertebral fracture is suspected. CT scans produce higher resolution images when compared to x-rays and can be used to view more subtle fractures which may otherwise go undetected on x-ray. MRI is commonly referred to as the gold standard for visualizing soft tissue and can be used to assist with diagnosing many back injuries, including herniated discs and neurological disorders, bleeding, and edema." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0651_4813", "title": "Physical examination for lumbar radiculopathy due to disc herniation in patients with low-back pain.", "score": 0.01819535191464726, "content": "Low-back pain with leg pain (sciatica) may be caused by a herniated intervertebral disc exerting pressure on the nerve root. Most patients will respond to conservative treatment, but in carefully selected patients, surgical discectomy may provide faster relief of symptoms. Primary care clinicians use patient history and physical examination to evaluate the likelihood of disc herniation and select patients for further imaging and possible surgery. (1) To assess the performance of tests performed during physical examination (alone or in combination) to identify radiculopathy due to lower lumbar disc herniation in patients with low-back pain and sciatica;(2) To assess the influence of sources of heterogeneity on diagnostic performance. We searched electronic databases for primary studies: PubMed (includes MEDLINE), EMBASE, and CINAHL, and (systematic) reviews: PubMed and Medion (all from earliest until 30 April 2008), and checked references of retrieved articles. We considered studies if they compared the results of tests performed during physical examination on patients with back pain with those of diagnostic imaging (MRI, CT, myelography) or findings at surgery. Two review authors assessed the quality of each publication with the QUADAS tool, and extracted details on patient and study design characteristics, index tests and reference standard, and the diagnostic two-by-two table. We presented information on sensitivities and specificities with 95% confidence intervals (95% CI) for all aspects of physical examination. Pooled estimates of sensitivity and specificity were computed for subsets of studies showing sufficient clinical and statistical homogeneity. We included 16 cohort studies (median N = 126, range 71 to 2504) and three case control studies (38 to100 cases). Only one study was carried out in a primary care population. When used in isolation, diagnostic performance of most physical tests (scoliosis, paresis or muscle weakness, muscle wasting, impaired reflexes, sensory deficits) was poor. Some tests (forward flexion, hyper-extension test, and slump test) performed slightly better, but the number of studies was small. In the one primary care study, most tests showed higher specificity and lower sensitivity compared to other settings.Most studies assessed the Straight Leg Raising (SLR) test. In surgical populations, characterized by a high prevalence of disc herniation (58% to 98%), the SLR showed high sensitivity (pooled estimate 0.92, 95% CI: 0.87 to 0.95) with widely varying specificity (0.10 to 1.00, pooled estimate 0.28, 95% CI: 0.18 to 0.40). Results of studies using imaging showed more heterogeneity and poorer sensitivity. The crossed SLR showed high specificity (pooled estimate 0.90, 95% CI: 0.85 to 0.94) with consistently low sensitivity (pooled estimate 0.28, 95% CI: 0.22 to 0.35).Combining positive test results increased the specificity of physical tests, but few studies presented data on test combinations. When used in isolation, current evidence indicates poor diagnostic performance of most physical tests used to identify lumbar disc herniation. However, most findings arise from surgical populations and may not apply to primary care or non-selected populations. Better performance may be obtained when tests are combined." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en008_121501", "title": "Back pain", "score": 0.01725925925925926, "content": "Imaging of the spine and laboratory tests is not recommended during the acute phase. This assumes that there is no reason to expect that the person has an underlying problem. In most cases, the pain goes away naturally after a few weeks. Typically, people who do seek diagnosis through imaging are not likely to have a better outcome than those who wait for the condition to resolve. Imaging Magnetic resonance imaging is the preferred modality for the evaluation of back pain and visualize bone, soft tissue, nerves, and ligaments. X-rays are a less costly initial option offered to patients with a low clinical suspicion of infection or malignancy and is combined with laboratory studies for interpretation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_60321", "title": "Low back pain", "score": 0.015518207282913164, "content": "Complaints of low back pain are one of the most common reasons people visit doctors. For pain that has lasted only a few weeks, the pain is likely to subside on its own. Thus, if a person's medical history and physical examination do not suggest a specific disease as the cause, medical societies advise against imaging tests such as X-rays, CT scans, and MRIs. Individuals may want such tests but, unless red flags are present, they are unnecessary health care. Routine imaging increases costs, is associated with higher rates of surgery with no overall benefit, and the radiation used may be harmful to one's health. Fewer than 1% of imaging tests identify the cause of the problem. Imaging may also detect harmless abnormalities, encouraging people to request further unnecessary testing or to worry. Even so, MRI scans of the lumbar region increased by more than 300% among United States Medicare beneficiaries from 1994 to 2006." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0596_8868", "title": "The sensitivity and specificity of the Slump and the Straight Leg Raising tests in patients with lumbar disc herniation.", "score": 0.015234917987211567, "content": "An accurate and specific diagnosis prevents the recurrences of low back pain and chronic spinal pain. The physical examination is the most useful tool to diagnosis. The examiner must aim to determine the exact tissue that pain arises from to make the specific diagnosis. Lumbar disc herniation is 1 disease that physical examination, symptoms, and findings on imaging technique do not always correlate with each other. The Straight Leg Raising (SLR) test has been used as the primary test to diagnosis lumbar disc herniations and found to have high correlation with findings on operation since its sensitivity is high in only disc herniations leading to root compression that may eventually need operation. More sensitive test, like the Slump, might be used in herniations in which the SLR is negative. The Slump test is really a variant of the SLR and the Lasègue's tests performed in the seated position and is a progressive series of maneuvers designed to place the sciatic nerve roots under increasing tension. At each step in the procedure, the patient informs the examiner what is being felt and whether radicular pain is produced. As a result, the Slump test applies traction to the nerve roots by incorporating spinal and hip joint flexion into the leg raising and would warn the examiner of the presence of nerve root compression when there is a negative SLR test. This study measured the sensitivity and specificity of the Slump test and compare it with the SLR test in patients with and without lumbar disc herniations. A prospective case control study of 75 patients with complaints suggestive of lumbar disc herniation was carried out in the outpatient clinics of the neurosurgery department of a state teaching hospital. Seventy-five referred or self-admitted patients with low back, leg, or low back and leg pain who had results of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the lumbar spine were included in the study. Thirty-eight patients had signs of herniation demonstrated by MRI. Control patients (n = 37) had no disc bulges or herniations on MRI. Both the Slump and SLR tests were performed during the assessment of all the patients by the second author. The MRI results were assessed and recorded by the first author. The Slump test was found to be more sensitive (0.84) than the SLR (0.52) in the patients with lumbar disc herniations. However, the SLR was found to be a slightly more specific test (0.89) than the Slump test (0.83). The Slump test might be used more frequently as a sensitive physical examination tool in patients with symptoms of lumbar disc herniations. In contrast, owing to its higher specificity, the SLR test may especially help identify patients who have herniations with root compression requiring surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0390_3540", "title": "[Problems of diagnostic assessment in low back patients].", "score": 0.01488483268144285, "content": "Many different diagnostic procedures are used in patients with low back pain. Medical history and clinical examination, X-rays, computed tomography (CT)-scan, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), diagnostic nerve root blocks and facet injections, functional tests in physiotherapy, strength tests of trunk muscles and work-related performance, and psychological and social evaluation including psychometric tests are only some of them. Despite this large number of procedures available, the scientific literature has not changed its conclusion that in about 80% of all back pain episodes the cause remains unknown. During the course of back pain episodes the relevant factors may change. The cause of the problem or the triggering factor of the pain episode may no longer be important during subacute stages, while others may be decisive for the transition to chronic stages. Thus, assessment of the cause is different from that of prognostic factors. There seems to be no consistent distribution of causes or ongoing factors in the population(s) of patients. While individual social factors may be the one important factor in one patient, functional and structural factors may be significant in another patient. Clinical examination is important, but several problems occur in the evaluation of patients with low back pain. Due to their anatomical location, important bony structures of the lumbar spine, e.g., disks or facet joints, are difficult to access by clinical examination. Additionally, there are only few diagnostic tests during clinical examination that do not rely on the patient's cooperation or communication. The term \"unspecific back pain\" for the majority of patients is scientifically sound, because it reflects the fact that the cause is unknown. It must be taken into consideration that this term enjoys only limited acceptance by both patients and physicians. Physicians are in charge of certifying work disability by assessing the interference of the patient's illness/disease with the specific requirements of his daily life or job. However, in clinical practice both the job tasks and the patient's abilities to perform these tasks with the given symptoms and signs is still difficult to evaluate and requires further definition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0398_5741", "title": "Radiography for low back pain: a randomised controlled trial and observational study in primary care.", "score": 0.014664943328693576, "content": "Lumbar spine radiography has limited use in diagnosing the cause of acute low back pain. Consensus-based guidelines recommend that lumbar spine x-rays are not used routinely. However there have been no studies of the effect of referral for radiography at first presentation with low back pain in primary care. To compare short and long-term physical, social, and psychiatric outcomes for patients with low back pain who are referred or not referred for lumbar spine x-ray at first presentation in general practice. A randomised unblinded controlled trial with an observational arm to enable comparisons to be made with patients not recruited to the trial. Ninety-four general practices in south London and the South Thames region. Patients consulting their general practitioner (GP) with low back pain at first presentation were recruited to a randomised controlled trial (RCT) or to an observational group. Patients in the trial were randomly allocated to immediate referral for x-ray or to no referral. All patients were asked to complete questionnaires initially, and then at six weeks and one year after recruitment. Six hundred and fifty-nine patients were recruited over 26 months: 153 to the randomised trial and 506 to the observational arm. In the RCT referral for x-ray had no effect on physical functioning, pain or disability, but was associated with a small improvement in psychological wellbeing at six weeks and one year. These findings were supported by the observational study in which there were no differences between the groups in physical outcomes after adjusting for length of episode at presentation; however, those referred for x-ray had lower depression scores. Referral for lumbar spine radiography for first presentation of low back pain in primary care is not associated with improved physical functioning, pain or disability. The possibility of minor psychological improvement should be balanced against the high radiation dose involved." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en119_13369", "title": "Spinal disc herniation", "score": 0.014603174603174604, "content": "Straight leg raise The straight leg raise is often used as a preliminary test for possible disc herniation in the lumbar region. A variation is to lift the leg while the patient is sitting. However, this reduces the sensitivity of the test. A Cochrane review published in 2010 found that individual diagnostic tests including the straight leg raising test, absence of tendon reflexes, or muscle weakness were not very accurate when conducted in isolation. Spinal imaging Projectional radiography (X-ray imaging). Traditional plain X-rays are limited in their ability to image soft tissues such as discs, muscles, and nerves, but they are still used to confirm or exclude other possibilities such as tumors, infections, fractures, etc. In spite of their limitations, X-rays play a relatively inexpensive role in confirming the suspicion of the presence of a herniated disc. If a suspicion is thus strengthened, other methods may be used to provide final confirmation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_26250", "title": "Failed back syndrome", "score": 0.013649049363335077, "content": "of a failed back syndrome is caused from recurrent disc herniation at the same level originally operated. A rapid removal in a second surgery can be curative. The clinical picture of a recurrent disc herniation usually involves a significant pain-free interval. However, physical findings may be lacking, and a good history is necessary. The time period for the emergence of new symptoms can be short or long. Diagnostic signs such as the straight leg raise test may be negative even if real pathology is present. The presence of a positive myelogram may represent a new disc herniation, but can also be indicative of a post operative scarring situation simply mimicking a new disc. Newer MRI imaging techniques have clarified this dilemma somewhat. Conversely, a recurrent disc can be difficult to detect in the presence of post op scarring. Myelography is inadequate to completely evaluate the patient for recurrent disc disease, and CT or MRI scanning is necessary. Measurement of tissue" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en038_44912", "title": "Cervical fracture", "score": 0.013628146293978585, "content": "Diagnosis Physical examination A medical history and physical examination can be sufficient in clearing the cervical spine. Notable clinical prediction rules to determine which patients need medical imaging are Canadian C-spine rule and the National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study (NEXUS). Choice of medical imaging In children, a CT scan of the neck is indicated in more severe cases such as neurologic deficits, whereas X-ray is preferable in milder cases, by both US and UK guidelines. Swedish guidelines recommend CT rather than X-ray in all children over the age of 5. In adults, UK guidelines are largely similar as in children. US guidelines, on the other hand, recommend CT in all cases where medical imaging is indicated, and that X-ray is only acceptable where CT is not readily available." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_60319", "title": "Low back pain", "score": 0.013345101500441305, "content": "Imaging is indicated when there are red flags, ongoing neurological symptoms that do not resolve, or ongoing or worsening pain. In particular, early use of imaging (either MRI or CT) is recommended for suspected cancer, infection, or cauda equina syndrome. MRI is slightly better than CT for identifying disc disease; the two technologies are equally useful for diagnosing spinal stenosis. Only a few physical diagnostic tests are helpful. The straight leg raise test is almost always positive in those with disc herniation. Lumbar provocative discography may be useful to identify a specific disc causing pain in those with chronic high levels of low back pain. Similarly, therapeutic procedures such as nerve blocks can be used to determine a specific source of pain. Some evidence supports the use of facet joint injections, transforminal epidural injections and sacroiliac injections as diagnostic tests. Most other physical tests, such as evaluating for scoliosis, muscle weakness or wasting," }, { "id": "wiki20220301en040_63435", "title": "Spondylolisthesis", "score": 0.01320613542835765, "content": "In adults with non-specific low back pain, strong evidence suggests medical imaging should not be done within the first six weeks. It is also suggested to avoid advanced imaging, such as CT or MRI, for adults without neurological symptoms or \"red flags\" in the patient's history. General recommendations for initial low back pain treatment is remaining active, avoiding twisting and bending, avoiding activities that worsen pain, avoiding bed rest, and possibly initiating a trial of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs after consulting a physician. Children and adolescents with persistent low back pain may require earlier imaging and should be seen by physician. Once imaging is deemed necessary, a combination of plain radiography, computed tomography, and magnetic resonance imaging may be used. Images are most often taken of the lumbar spine due to spondylolisthesis most commonly involving the lumbar region. Images of the thoracic spine can be taken if a patient's history and physical" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0778_2042", "title": "[Indications for magnetic resonance imaging for low back pain in adults].", "score": 0.013025210084033612, "content": "Low back pain is a common disorder that generates many medical consultations. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is commonly used in the clinical management of some of these patients. However, the cost of inappropriate MRI use is high, so there is a need to develop guidelines to help physicians make correct decisions and optimize available resources. To determine the main clinical indications for MRI scanning in adults with low back pain. The RAND/UCLA appropriateness method was used: After a systematic review (May 2012), a list of the clinical indications for MRI scanning in patients with low back pain was prepared. A multidisciplinary expert panel scored each indication from 1, «totally inappropriate» to 9, «totally appropriate». A first on-line round, an in-person panel meeting, where results of the first round were discussed, and a final second on-line round were arranged. A clinical indication was considered appropriate if the median score was 6.5 or higher, and there was agreement between experts (IPRAS index was used). An MRI test is considered appropriate if cancer, spinal infection or a fracture, even with a negative X-ray test is suspected.; if there is inflammatory back pain; severe/progressive neurological deficit; severe and progressive low back pain; subacute or chronic low back pain with radicular involvement unresponsive to conservative therapy. Clinical indications for a MRI scanning are based on the suspicion of a secondary serious pathology. This methodology helps to set clinical indications for MRI, and may be of great value for both clinicians and health managers." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en027_64685", "title": "Clearing the cervical spine", "score": 0.012871888281724347, "content": "Medical imaging Choice of method In children, a CT scan of the neck is indicated in more severe cases such as neurologic deficits, whereas X-ray is preferable in milder cases, by both US and UK guidelines. Swedish guidelines recommend CT rather than X-ray in all children over the age of 5. In adults, UK guidelines are largely similar as in children. US guidelines, on the other hand, recommend CT in all cases where medical imaging is indicated, and that X-ray is only acceptable where CT is not readily available. Magnetic resonance imaging may be useful if it is necessary to exclude a ligament injury. The indication for MR spine is a focal neurological deficit. Another indication for MR of the cervical spine is persistent mid-line neck pain or tenderness despite a normal CT in the awake patient. Imaging settings X-ray consists of a three view cervical x-ray series, adding a swimmer's view if the lateral doesn't include the C7/T1 interface." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en119_13371", "title": "Spinal disc herniation", "score": 0.012781138514037537, "content": "Magnetic resonance imaging is the gold standard study for confirming a suspected LDH. With a diagnostic accuracy of 97%, it is the most sensitive study to visualize a herniated disc due to its significant ability in soft tissue visualization. MRI also has higher inter-observer reliability than other imaging modalities. It suggests disc herniation when it shows an increased T2-weighted signal at the posterior 10% of the disc. Degenerative disc diseases have shown a correlation with Modic type 1 changes. When evaluating for postoperative lumbar radiculopathies, the recommendation is that the MRI is performed with contrast unless otherwise contraindicated. MRI is more effective than CT in distinguishing inflammatory, malignant, or inflammatory etiologies of LDH. It is indicated relatively early in the course of evaluation (<8 weeks) when the patient presents with relative indications like significant pain, neurological motor deficits, and cauda equina syndrome. Diffusion tensor imaging" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0358_12586", "title": "[The clinical history and physical examination in patients with chronic lumbar pain. Patient classification by a decision tree].", "score": 0.012438574938574939, "content": "To analyze the correlation between clinical symptoms and physical examination signs in diagnostic groups of low back pain patients; making a spanning tree. A prospective longitudinal study of 485 low back pain patients was carried. We assess the type of pain and its irradiation, evolution in time, duration of the episodes, timetable, intensity and morning stiffness. A complete physical examination with specific tests for sacroiliac joints and neurologic examination was carried. We carried out a study of absolute and relative frequencies; calculating the rates with the chi 2 Pearson test and having a confidence of 95%. We found a significant relation (p &lt; 0.0001) between the type of pain and the diagnosis groups. Proximal irradiation with functional disorders (p &lt; 0.01) and metabolic bone diseases (p &lt; 0.0001); the radicular irradiation and the disorders by physical agents (p &lt; 0.001). The flare-up back pain with disorders by physical agents and metabolic bone diseases (p &lt; 0.001). The morning stiffness was exclusive in the inflammatory diseases. In the physical examination, was found a significant relation (p &lt; 0.0001) between the different tests with the diagnostic groups. The history and the physical examination provide us symptoms and signs which let us direct towards the above diagnostic. The type of pain with its characteristics and the referred pain as a main symptoms, give us some information, which complemented with the physical examination tests, providing the base on which we support our diagnostic hypothesis, allow us the first classification of the patients; at the same time we understand as a low back pain patients suffer its problem." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1480", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012196545284780579, "content": "LABORATORY, IMAgINg, AND EMg STuDIES Laboratory studies are rarely needed for the initial evaluation of nonspecific acute (<3 months in duration) low back pain (ALBP). Risk factors for a serious underlying cause and for infection, tumor, or fracture, in particular, should be sought by history and exam. If risk factors are present (Table 22-1), then laboratory studies (complete blood count [CBC], erythrocyte sedimentation rate [ESR], urinalysis) are indicated. If risk factors are absent, then management is conservative (see “Treatment,” below) Computed tomography (CT) scanning is superior to routine x-rays for the detection of fractures involving posterior spine structures, craniocervical and cervicothoracic junctions, C1 and C2 aReverse straight leg–raising sign present—see “Examination of the Back.” bThese muscles receive the majority of innervation from this root." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en047_45304", "title": "Hip fracture", "score": 0.012195121951219513, "content": "Diagnosis Physical examination Displaced fractures of the trochanter or femoral neck will classically cause external rotation and shortening of the leg when the patient is laying supine. Imaging Typically, radiographs are taken of the hip from the front (AP view), and side (lateral view). Frog leg views are to be avoided, as they may cause severe pain and further displace the fracture. In situations where a hip fracture is suspected but not obvious on x-ray, an MRI is the next test of choice. If an MRI is not available or the patient can not be placed into the scanner a CT may be used as a substitute. MRI sensitivity for radiographically occult fracture is greater than CT. Bone scan is another useful alternative however substantial drawbacks include decreased sensitivity, early false negative results and decreased conspicuity of findings due to age-related metabolic changes in the elderly. A case demonstrating a possible order of imaging in initially subtle findings:" }, { "id": "article-24478_15", "title": "Lumbosacral Radiculopathy -- Evaluation", "score": 0.012080897267629162, "content": "Given the favorable outcome and often spontaneous resolution of the vast majority of low back pain symptoms, extensive imaging is usually not necessary in patients with low back pain of less than four to six weeks duration. As stated above, work-up begins with a thorough physical exam. Neurologic deficits in a focal distribution warrant further workup. In cases of low back pain that fails to resolve within one to two months, MRI is considered the gold standard in evaluating radicular low back pain. Of note, MRI with contrast is recommended in patients with previous spinal surgeries. For patients unable to undergo MRI, a CT scan is an alternative option. However, CT is not as sensitive in visualizing soft tissue or tumors and is not recommended for routine use. X-rays are simple, readily available in most developed countries, and can reveal gross bony abnormalities such as fractures, disc space narrowing, and other osteodegenerative changes. Often, it is not clinically possible to distinguish lumbosacral radiculopathy from peripheral neuropathy or plexopathy. In these instances, electromyography and nerve conduction studies can be utilized to localize a lesion with relatively high diagnostic specificity. [7]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0387_5302", "title": "The role of radiography in primary care patients with low back pain of at least 6 weeks duration: a randomised (unblinded) controlled trial.", "score": 0.0115104610743097, "content": "To test the hypotheses that: (1) Lumbar spine radiography in primary care patients with low back pain is not associated with improved patient outcomes, including pain, disability, health status, sickness absence, reassurance, and patient satisfaction or belief in the value of radiography. (2) Lumbar spine radiography in primary care patients with low back pain is not associated with changes in patient management, including medication use, and the use of primary and secondary care services, physical therapies and complementary therapies. (3) Participants choosing their treatment group (i.e. radiography or no radiography) do not have better outcomes than those randomised to a treatment group. (4) Lumbar spine radiography is not cost-effective compared with usual care without lumbar spine radiography. A randomised unblinded controlled trial. Seventy-three general practices in Nottingham, North Nottinghamshire, Southern Derbyshire, North Lincolnshire and North Leicestershire. Fifty-two practices recruited participants to the trial. Randomised arm: 421 participants with low back pain, with median duration of 10 weeks. Patient preference arm: 55 participants with low back pain, with median duration of 11 weeks. Lumbar spine radiography and usual care versus usual care without radiography. Roland adaptation of the Sickness Impact Profile, visual analogue pain scale, health status scale, EuroQol, use of primary and secondary care services, and physical and complementary therapies, sickness absence, medication use, patient satisfaction, reassurance and belief in value of radiography at 3 and 9 months post-randomisation. Participants randomised to receive an X-ray were more likely to report low back pain at 3 months (odds ratio (OR) = 1.56; 95% confidence interval (CI), 1.02 to 2.40) and had a lower overall health status score (p = 0.02). There were no differences in health or functional status at 9 months. A higher proportion of participants consulted the general practitioner (GP) in the 3 months following an X-ray (OR = 2.72; 95% CI, 1.80 to 4.10). There were no differences in use of any other services, medication use or sickness absence at 3 or 9 months. No serious spinal pathology was identified in either group. The commonest X-ray reports were of discovertebral degeneration and normal findings. Many patients did not perceive their information needs were met within the consultation. Satisfaction with care was greater in the group receiving radiography at 9 months. Participants randomised to receive an X-ray were not less worried, or more reassured about serious disease causing their low back pain. Satisfaction was associated with meeting participants' information needs and reduced belief in the necessity for investigations for low back pain, including X-rays and blood tests. In both groups, at 3 and 9 months 80% of participants would choose to have an X-ray if the choice was available. Participants in the patient preference group achieved marginally better outcomes than those randomised to a treatment group, but the clinical significance of these differences is unclear. Lumbar spine radiography was associated with a net economic loss at 3 and 9 months. Lumbar spine radiography in primary care patients with low back pain of at least 6 weeks duration is not associated with improved functioning, severity of pain or overall health status, and is associated with an increase in GP workload. Participants receiving X-rays are more satisfied with their care, but are not less worried or more reassured about serious disease causing their low back pain. CONCLUSIONS - RECOMMENDATIONS FOR FURTHER RESEARCH: Further work is required to develop and test an educational package that educates patients and GPs about the utility of radiography and provides strategies for identifying and meeting the information needs of patients, and the needs of patients and GPs to be reassured about missing serious disease. Guidelines on the management of low back pain in primary care should be consistent about not recommending lumbar spine radiography in patients with low back pain in the absence of red flags for serious spinal pathology, even if the pain has persisted for at least 6 weeks." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_60358", "title": "Low back pain", "score": 0.011442665372796377, "content": "Workers who experience acute low back pain as a result of a work injury may be asked by their employers to have x-rays. As in other cases, testing is not indicated unless red flags are present. An employer's concern about legal liability is not a medical indication and should not be used to justify medical testing when it is not indicated. There should be no legal reason for encouraging people to have tests which a health care provider determines are not indicated. Research Total disc replacement is an experimental option, but no significant evidence supports its use over lumbar fusion. Researchers are investigating the possibility of growing new intervertebral structures through the use of injected human growth factors, implanted substances, cell therapy, and tissue engineering. References External links Back Pain at MedlinePlus.gov" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1006_8649", "title": "X-rays and scans can fail to differentiate hip pathology from lumbar spinal stenosis: Two case reports.", "score": 0.011316316475412442, "content": "Occasionally, hip pathologies may present alone or combined with lumbar spine pathology, especially lumbar stenosis. Although the history and clinical examination may help differentiate between the two, hip X-rays alone without accompanying magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) studies may prove unreliable. Case 1 - A 72-year-old male presented with the sudden onset of severe back and left posterior thigh pain. Straight leg raising test was positive at 70° (right) and 60° (left), and he had left lower extremity numbness and weakness. The lumbar MRI showed L5-S1 spinal stenosis. Although X-rays of both hips were negative, the MRI showed bilateral femoral neck fractures. He underwent screw fixation of the hip fractures and later underwent endoscopic decompression of the spinal stenosis. Case 2 - A 35-year-old male presented with low backache and right hip pain of 1 month's duration. The neurological examination was normal, except for positive straight leg raising bilaterally at 60°. The spine MRI was normal. However, despite negative X-ray of both hips, the hip MRI revealed avascular necrosis (AVN) of both femoral heads requiring subsequent orthopedic management. Hip pathology may mimic lumbar spinal stenosis. In the two cases presented, plain X-rays failed to document hip fractures (case 1) and AVN (case 2), respectively, both of which were later diagnosed on MRI studies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0099_5691", "title": "Computed tomography as the primary radiological examination of lumbar spine.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A series of 235 patients examined by lumbar CT because of sciatica or other low back disorder was studied. The need of additional examinations and correlations to surgical findings were evaluated. Inadequate information was the cause of additional examination, mostly myelography in 20 patients (8.5%). It was concluded that lumbar CT is a suitable first examination of the lumbar spine in sciatica and low back pain. The indications to complementary myelography and its benefit are discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0098_13150", "title": "The effect of restricting the indications for lumbosacral spine radiography in patients with acute back symptoms.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A prospective study was performed to evaluate the effect of using a special requisition form on the utilization of lumbosacral spine radiography for patients presenting in the emergency room with acute lower back complaints. Over a 1-year period, emergency room house officers were encouraged to complete a special form that listed only three acceptable indications for lumbosacral spine radiographs: history of trauma, evidence of focal neurologic abnormality, and \"other.\" Neurologic abnormalities included hypesthesia, hyperesthesia or anesthesia of lumbar or sacral dermatomes, weakness or hyporeflexia of the lower extremities, and bladder or bowel incontinence. If the indication \"other\" was chosen, radiographs were done only if the form contained both a one- to two-sentence history and the signed approval of a supervising attending physician. The number and results of lumbosacral spine examinations were compared with those from the previous year, which served as a control. In the control year 1443 examinations were performed, and in the experimental year only 759 were done (a decrease of 47%). The percentage of patients with vertebral fractures increased from 5.1% to 5.8% in the experimental year if only the detection of new fractures was considered positive, and from 9.1% to 13.4% if the detection of fractures of all ages was regarded as significant. The use of the special requisition form appears to be a simple and effective means of reducing unnecessary lumbosacral radiography in the emergency room setting." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0387_13685", "title": "[Medical imaging of low back pain].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The indication for a radiological examination of a patient with low back pain by CT or MRI scans is based on age, medical history and clinical findings. The result of morphological (and possibly structural) tests should be consistent with the clinical findings. In fact, the scans often do not provide very powerful evidence. The elderly patient frequently has permanent deformations or primary or secondary malignant bone lesions and therefore requires special tests." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_60301", "title": "Low back pain", "score": 0.00970191544826023, "content": "In most episodes of low back pain, a specific underlying cause is not identified or even looked for, with the pain believed to be due to mechanical problems such as muscle or joint strain. If the pain does not go away with conservative treatment or if it is accompanied by \"red flags\" such as unexplained weight loss, fever, or significant problems with feeling or movement, further testing may be needed to look for a serious underlying problem. In most cases, imaging tools such as X-ray computed tomography are not useful and carry their own risks. Despite this, the use of imaging in low back pain has increased. Some low back pain is caused by damaged intervertebral discs, and the straight leg raise test is useful to identify this cause. In those with chronic pain, the pain processing system may malfunction, causing large amounts of pain in response to non-serious events." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en332_29161", "title": "Spinal stenosis", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "MRI MRI has become the most frequently used study to diagnose spinal stenosis. The MRI uses electromagnetic signals to produce images of the spine. MRIs are helpful because they show more structures, including nerves, muscles, and ligaments, than seen on X-rays or CT scans. MRIs are helpful at showing exactly what is causing spinal nerve compression. CT myelogram A spinal tap is performed in the low back with dye injected into the spinal fluid. X-rays are performed followed by a CT scan of the spine to help see narrowing of the spinal canal. This is a very effective study in cases of lateral recess stenosis. It is also necessary for patients in which MRI is contraindicated, such as those with implanted pacemakers. Red flags Fever Nocturnal pain Gait disturbance Structural deformity Unexplained weight loss Previous carcinoma Severe pain upon lying down Recent trauma with suspicious fracture Presence of severe or progressive neurologic deficit" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0098_6821", "title": "Lumbar spine films in primary care: current use and effects of selective ordering criteria.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Low back pain (LBP) often prompts radiography, although the diagnostic yield of lumbar spine films is low, and many radiographic abnormalities are unrelated to symptoms. Criteria have been proposed for selective x-ray use, but their value and safety are uncertain. To evaluate these criteria, the authors prospectively studied 621 walk-in patients with LBP. The yield of explanatory x-ray findings was over three times greater among patients with indications for radiography than among those without. Furthermore, an indication for x-rays existed for all patients found to have a malignancy, and for 13 of 14 patients with an identified fracture. Actual physician ordering, however, did not correspond well with the recommended indications. Application of selective criteria appears safe and may improve the yield of useful findings. It may not, however, reduce x-ray utilization from current levels without further refinement in the criteria." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0513_21046", "title": "[Clinical evaluation of low back pain].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "On the diagnosis of backache, at first ask patients detailed questions about medical history of backache, the situation at the time of onset and process of the pain, intensity and location on the body of the pain, which movement to strengthen them or which posture to moderate them. Following them, check the abnormality of how to walk and the normal curvature of the spine at standing from behind and the side. Examine the movement and flexibility of the lumbar spine in bending forward, backward and twisting. After them, examine the neurological functions on their legs to search paralysis, muscle weakness, reflex changes and sensory changes. Observe lumbar part and check the presence of redness, swelling and hyperthermia, and examine a location of tenderness. X-rays, CT or MRI examination can be performed if necessary, but should not be fascinated by only image findings, and it is necessary to evaluate in total them with the results of physical examinations." }, { "id": "article-67763_4", "title": "Lumbar Spine Imaging -- Plain Films -- Imaging Modalities", "score": 0.009505423791138078, "content": "There is a wide array of imaging modalities for evaluating the lumbar spine. The type of test depends on the pathology, the amount of radiation involved, contraindications, and any allergy to contrast. The American College of Radiology considers these and has recommendations on the kind of test based on symptoms. ACR appropriateness criteria can help to select the right imaging modality based on suspected pathology for symptoms such as suspected spine trauma, low back pain, low back pain with fever, etc. [4] [6]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0644_20767", "title": "Guideline update: what's the best approach to acute low back pain?", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "GRADE A RECOMMENDATIONS (based on good-quality patient-oriented evidence): Advise patients to stay active and continue ordinary activity within the limits permitted by pain, avoid bed rest, and return to work early, which is associated with less disability. Consider McKenzie exercises, which are helpful for pain radiating below the knee. Recommend acetaminophen or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) if medication is necessary. COX-2 inhibitors, muscle relaxants, and opiate analgesics have not been shown to be more effective than NSAIDs for acute low back pain. Consider imaging if patients have no improvement after 6 weeks, although diagnostic tests or imaging is not usually required. GRADE B RECOMMENDATIONS (based on inconsistent or limited-quality patient-oriented evidence): Reassure patients that 90% of episodes resolve within 6 weeks-regardless of treatment. Advise patients that minor flares-ups may occur in the subsequent year. Consider a plain lumbosacral spine x-ray if there is suspicion of spinal fracture or compression. Consider a bone scan after 10 days, if fracture is still suspected or the patient has multiple sites of pain. Suspect cauda equina syndrome or severe or progressive neurological deficit if red flags are present. Obtain complete blood count, urinalysis, and sedimentation rate if cancer or infection are possibilities. If still suspicious, consider referral or perform other studies. Remember that a negative plain film x-ray does not rule out disease. GRADE C RECOMMENDATIONS (based on consensus, usual practice, opinion, disease-oriented evidence, or case series): Recommend ice for painful areas and stretching exercises. Discuss the use of proper body mechanics and safe back exercises for injury prevention. Refer for goal-directed manual physical therapy if there is no improvement in 1 to 2 weeks, not modalities such as heat, traction, ultrasound, or transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation. Do not refer for surgery in the absence of red flags." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0078_2197", "title": "[Functional radiography of the lumbar spine. I. History and method of dynamic tests].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The relevancy of functional radiographies of the lumbar spine (extension-flexion; inclinations) was determined by using radiographies of patients (n = 36), radiographed following a standardized technique. As well the total as the segmental movement amplitude of the lumbar spine were examined. As to the segmental mobility, in this first publication the criteria are sought to define hyper- and hypo-mobility. When one handles these criteria, the correlation with the clinical findings will be examined and this is the subject of a second publication in progress." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 338 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 60 ] ], "text": "The correct answer is 4 because if the patient has bone metastases and may suffer fractures we can control inflammatory pain with ibuprofen and it will also help us to use the antalgic synergy. We should change the treatment to a major opioid and treat the disrruptive pain vigorously since she is at almost the maximum pain she can bear." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Suspend ibuprofen and tramadol and start a major opioid such as morphine or oxycodone.", "2": "Suspend tramadol, maintain ibuprofen and initiate a major opioid such as morphine and oxycodone.", "3": "Discontinue ibuprofen and tramadol and start a major opioid such as morphine or oxycodone and at the same time start treatment of breakthrough pain with sublingual fentanyl.", "4": "Suspend tramadol, maintain ibuprofen and initiate a major opioid such as morphine and oxycodone and at the same time treatment for breakthrough pain with sublingual fentanyl.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en221_10420", "title": "Pain ladder", "score": 0.01873249299719888, "content": "The WHO guidelines recommend prompt oral administration of drugs (\"by the mouth\") when pain occurs, starting, if the patient is not in severe pain, with non-opioid drugs such as paracetamol (acetaminophen) or aspirin, with or without \"adjuvants\" such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) including COX-2 inhibitors. Then, if complete pain relief is not achieved or disease progression necessitates more aggressive treatment, a weak opioid such as codeine, dihydrocodeine or tramadol is added to the existing non-opioid regime. If this is or becomes insufficient, a weak opioid is replaced by a strong opioid, such as morphine, diamorphine, fentanyl, buprenorphine, oxymorphone, oxycodone, or hydromorphone, while continuing the non-opioid therapy, escalating opioid dose until the patient is pain free or at the maximum possible relief without intolerable side effects. If the initial presentation is severe pain, this stepping process should be skipped and a strong opioid should be" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0996_8020", "title": "The Effect of Ibuprofen on Postoperative Opioid Consumption Following Total Hip Replacement Surgery.", "score": 0.017545209696036936, "content": "Postoperative pain following hip surgery can be severe. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are used in the treatment of postoperative pain to reduce opioid consumption. Our aim was to investigate the effect of ibuprofen on postoperative opioid consumption following total hip replacement surgery. Patients undergoing elective total hip replacement under general anaesthesia were included into this randomised, prospective and double-blind study. Forty patients classified according to the American Society of Anesthesiologists as Class I and II were randomised to receive 800 mg ibuprofen intravenously (IV) every 6 hours, or placebo. At the end of surgery, all patients were also administered tramadol 100 mg IV and paracetamol 1 gm IV. In the postoperative period, all patients were provided with a morphine PCA device. The PCA device was set to deliver 1 mg bolus dose and had 8 minutes of lockout period and 6 mg 1-hour limit. VAS scores were recorded at 1, 6, 12 and 24 h postoperatively. The incidence of nausea and vomiting, total morphine consumption during the 24 h postoperative period was recorded. The Mann-Whitney U and chi-squared tests were used for statistical analysis. The VAS score at postoperative 24 h was lower in the ibuprofen group (p=0.006). Morphine consumption at 24 hours was significantly lower at the ibuprofen group compared to the control group (p=0.026) (the mean doses were 16 mg and 24 mg, respectively). Five patients in the control group and 3 patients in the ibuprofen group reported vomiting. No other side effects or complications were observed. Following total hip replacement surgery, the administration of ibuprofen IV significantly reduced morphine consumption." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en289_8303", "title": "Morphine/naltrexone", "score": 0.01675006950236308, "content": "Embeda became available again some years later. See also Hydrocodone/paracetamol Hydrocodone/ibuprofen Oxycodone/paracetamol Oxycodone/aspirin Oxycodone/naloxone Fentanyl/fluanisone References Opiates Semisynthetic opioids Kappa-opioid receptor antagonists Mu-opioid receptor antagonists Pfizer brands Combination analgesics" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0613_11716", "title": "Oral versus intravenous opioid dosing for the initial treatment of acute musculoskeletal pain in the emergency department.", "score": 0.015012254901960783, "content": "The objective was to compare the time to medication administration, the side effects, and the analgesic effect at sequential time points after medication administration of an oral treatment strategy using oxycodone solution with an intravenous (IV) treatment strategy using morphine sulfate for the initial treatment of musculoskeletal pain in emergency department (ED) patients. This was a prospective randomized clinical trial of patients &gt;6 years old who were going to receive IV morphine sulfate for the treatment of musculoskeletal pain but did not yet have an IV. Consenting patients were randomized to have the treating physician order either 0.1 mg/kg morphine sulfate IV or 0.125 mg/kg oxycodone orally in a 5 mg/5 mL suspension as their initial treatment for pain. The time from the placement of the order to the administration of the medication was recorded. Pain was measured using a 100-mm visual analog scale (VAS) and recorded at 0, 10, 20, 30 and 40 minutes after drug administration. A total of 405 eligible patients were identified during the study period; 328 (81.0%) patients consented to be in the study. A total of 158 patients were randomized to the IV morphine sulfate treatment group, and 162 were randomized to the oral oxycodone treatment group. Of the patients who were randomized to IV therapy, 34 were withdrawn from the study prior to drug administration; leaving 125 patients in the IV group for analysis. Of the patients who randomized to oral therapy, 22 were withdrawn from the study prior to drug administration, leaving 140 patients for analysis. No serious adverse events were detected. There was a 12-minute difference between the median time of the order and the administration of oral oxycodone (8.5 minutes) and IV morphine (20.5 minutes). The mean percent change in VAS score was larger for patients in the IV therapy group than those in the oral therapy group at 10 and 20 minutes. At 30 and 40 minutes, the authors could no longer detect a difference. The satisfaction scale score was higher after treatment for the morphine group (median = 4; interquartile range [IQR] = 4 to 5) than for the oxycodone group (median = 4; IQR = 2 to 5; p = 0.008). The oral loading strategy was associated with delayed onset of analgesia and decreased patient satisfaction, but a shorter time to administration. The oral loading strategy using an oxycodone solution provided similar pain relief to the IV strategy using morphine 30 minutes after administration of the drug. Oral 0.125 mg/kg oxycodone represents a feasible alternative to 0.1 mg/kg IV morphine in the treatment of severe acute musculoskeletal pain when difficult or delayed IV placement greater than 30 minutes presents a barrier to treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en354_20184", "title": "Cancer pain", "score": 0.014824029440729799, "content": "The WHO guidelines recommend prompt oral administration of drugs when pain occurs, starting, if the person is not in severe pain, with non-opioid drugs such as paracetamol, dipyrone, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or COX-2 inhibitors. Then, if complete pain relief is not achieved or disease progression necessitates more aggressive treatment, mild opioids such as codeine, dextropropoxyphene, dihydrocodeine or tramadol are added to the existing non-opioid regime. If this is or becomes insufficient, mild opioids are replaced by stronger opioids such as morphine, while continuing the non-opioid therapy, escalating opioid dose until the person is painless or the maximum possible relief without intolerable side effects has been achieved. If the initial presentation is severe cancer pain, this stepping process should be skipped and a strong opioid should be started immediately in combination with a non-opioid analgesic. However, a 2017 Cochrane Review found that there is no" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en508_19443", "title": "Oxycodone/ibuprofen", "score": 0.014732142857142857, "content": "Oxycodone/ibuprofen (INNs, trade name Combunox) is an oral combination drug formulation of the opioid analgesic oxycodone and the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) ibuprofen that is used in the treatment of chronic and acute pain. This particular drug is supplied in a fixed dose combination tablet which contains Oxycodone Hydrochloride, USP 5 mg with Ibuprofen, USP 400 mg. Adverse effects See also Oxycodone/paracetamol Oxycodone/aspirin Hydrocodone/ibuprofen References External links Combination analgesics" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1100_6410", "title": "Oral analgesia in fixed-time interval administration versus spinal morphine for post-Cesarean pain: a randomised controlled trial.", "score": 0.014652014652014652, "content": "To compare the efficacy of fixed-time-interval oral analgesia and spinal-morphine for management of post-Cesarean pain. In this open-label, parallel-group, randomized, controlled trial, 200 women due to undergo elective Caesarean section with spinal anaesthesia were enrolled between July 2015 and April 2016. Patients were randomly assigned to receive either spinal fentanyl followed by oral doses of tramadol, paracetamol, and diclofenac at predetermined regular intervals of 6 h for the first 48 h, and rescue treatment with percocet (oxycodone and paracetamol; oral analgesia group), or spinal morphine and rescue treatment with oral tramadol, paracetamol, and diclofenac (spinal-morphine group). The primary outcomes were pain intensity during the postoperative 48 h, measured on a 10-point numeric rating scale (NRS) and expressed as area under the curve (AUC), and the number of breakthrough events of moderate to severe pain (defined as NRS score ≥ 4). The oral analgesia group compared to the spinal-morphine group had similar mean pain intensity (AUC (120 ± 35 versus 121 ± 31, respectively; p = 0.8) but more events of moderate-to-severe breakthrough pain (4.8 ± 2 versus 3.8 ± 1.7, respectively; p = 0.0002). Higher rates and longer durations of pruritus, nausea, and vomiting were reported among patients receiving spinal morphine, as compared with oral analgesia. Satisfaction scores were high in both groups (8.2 ± 2.4 versus 8.7 ± 1.8 in the oral analgesia and spinal morphine, respectively; p = 0.23). Both oral analgesia at fixed time intervals and spinal morphine are satisfactory methods for treating post-Caesarean pain. ClinicalTrials.gov Identifier: NCT02440399, date of registration: 07/05/ 2015. URL: https://clinicaltrials.gov/ct2/show/NCT02440399?term=enav+yefet&amp;rank=7 ." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0995_20311", "title": "How low can you go: Achieving postoperative outpatient pain control without opioids.", "score": 0.013873106060606061, "content": "Postoperative outpatient narcotic overprescription plays a significant role in the opioid epidemic. Outpatient opioid prescription ranges from 150 to 350 oral morphine equivalent (OME) for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy or appendectomy, with 75 OME (10 pills of 5 mg of oxycodone) being the lowest recommendation (National Institute on Drug Abuse, 2018). We hypothesized that the addition of nonopioid medications to the outpatient pain control regimen would decrease the need for narcotics. In this prospective, observational pilot study, we prescribed a 3-day regimen of ibuprofen and acetaminophen to patients after uncomplicated laparoscopic cholecystectomies and appendectomies. An additional opioid prescription for 5 pills of 5 mg of oxycodone (37.5 OME) was written for breakthrough pain. During their postoperative visit, we evaluated patients' adherence to the pain control regime, their postdischarge opioid use, and the adequacy of their pain control. Sixty-five patients were included in the study (52% male). The majority (80%) of surgeries were performed urgently or emergently. The visual analog scale pain score at home was significantly better than upon discharge (3.7 vs. 5.5, p = 0.001). The average number of oxycodone pills taken postdischarge was 1.8 pills. Half (51%) of the patients did not take any opioids. All but four patients reported that their pain was adequately controlled. No patient required additional opioid prescriptions or visited the emergency department. This study demonstrated that opioids can be eliminated in at least half of the patients and that five pills of 5 mg of oxycodone (37.5 OME) is sufficient for outpatient pain control when a 3-day course of ibuprofen and acetaminophen is prescribed. Therapeutic study, level V." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_39052", "title": "Oxycodone", "score": 0.013823964201526229, "content": "Oxycodone is available as a controlled-release tablet, intended to be taken every 12 hours. A July 1996 study independent of Purdue Pharma, the drug's originator, found the controlled-release formulation had a variable duration of action ranging from 10 to 12 hours. A 2006 review found that controlled-release oxycodone is comparable to immediate-release oxycodone, morphine, and hydromorphone in management of moderate to severe cancer pain, with fewer side effects than morphine. The author concluded that the controlled-release form is a valid alternative to morphine and a first-line treatment for cancer pain. In 2014, the European Association for Palliative Care recommended oxycodone by mouth as a second-line alternative to morphine by mouth for cancer pain." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en017_79311", "title": "Pain management", "score": 0.013810080106809078, "content": "The list below consists of commonly used opioid analgesics which have long-acting formulations. Common brand names for the extended release formulation are in parentheses. Oxycodone (OxyContin) Hydromorphone (Exalgo, Hydromorph Contin) Morphine (M-Eslon, MS Contin) Oxymorphone (Opana ER) Fentanyl, transdermal (Duragesic) Buprenorphine*, transdermal (Butrans) Tramadol (Ultram ER) Tapentadol (Nucynta ER) Methadone* (Metadol, Methadose) Hydrocodone bitartrate (Hysingla ER) and bicarbonate (Zohydro ER) *Methadone and buprenorphine are each used both for the treatment of opioid addiction and as analgesics" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_39049", "title": "Oxycodone", "score": 0.01328958843805806, "content": "Oxycodone, sold under the brand names Roxicodone and OxyContin (which is the extended release form) among others, is an opioid medication used for treatment of moderate to severe pain. It is highly addictive and a common drug of abuse. It is usually taken by mouth, and is available in immediate-release and controlled-release formulations. Onset of pain relief typically begins within fifteen minutes and lasts for up to six hours with the immediate-release formulation. In the United Kingdom, it is available by injection. Combination products are also available with paracetamol (acetaminophen), ibuprofen, naloxone, naltrexone, and aspirin." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en534_7287", "title": "Pain management in children", "score": 0.013201320132013201, "content": "After treatment Post-procedural treatment in children is primarily prescription opioids. Morphine is effective and relatively safe, and is often used with moderate to severe pain. Codeine and tramadol should be avoided especially in children younger than 12 years old since metabolism varies due to genetic differences between individuals, and, in the case of tramadol, this medication has not been well studied in children. However, other interventions include medications classified as non-opioid analgesics, which are useful in post surgical treatment. For example, acetaminophen or ibuprofen can be used as a non-opioid analgesics. Unlike acetaminophen, ibuprofen has anti-inflammatory property which can be useful for pain in inflammatory conditions. Aspirin is not used in pediatric population due to its association with Reye's syndrome. Management" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0683_5914", "title": "Efficacy of oxycodone/paracetamol for patients with bone-cancer pain: a multicenter, randomized, double-blinded, placebo-controlled trial.", "score": 0.01308083614756551, "content": "Bone-cancer pain is a common and refractory cancer pain. Opioids, on their own, do not control this type of pain well enough, and co-analgesics are necessary. Patients with bone metastasis-related pain at Numeric Rating Scale ≥4 were enrolled to this randomized placebo-controlled trial. They had also received morphine or transdermal fentanyl patches for at least 1 week. During the 3-day efficacy phase, patients received placebo or 1-3 tablets of oxycodone/paracetamol (5/325 mg), four times daily for 3 days. All patients kept a daily pain diary. The primary endpoint was the Pain Intensity Difference (PID). Secondary endpoints were cases of breakthrough pain and rescue morphine consumption. Additional analyses included the Short Form-6 Dimensions (SF-6D) quality-of-life scale and a general impression (GI) of patient satisfaction with treatment at the end of the phase. Of the 246 patients in the intent-to-treat set, 89·4% completed the 3-day efficacy phase. PIDs were 0·9 and 0·3 in the oxycodone/paracetamol and placebo groups respectively, on day 1 (P &lt; 0·001), and 1·5 and 0·3 respectively on day 3 (P &lt; 0·001). Thirty-eight patients in the treatment group, and 58 in the placebo group, suffered breakthrough pain on day 3 (P &lt; 0·001). The SF-6D score decreased to 21·2 ± 2·5 in the oxycodone/paracetamol group at the end of the phase (P = 0·001). In the oxycodone/paracetamol group, 67% rated GI as good, very good, or excellent. Patients with bone-cancer pain, already on opioids, obtain clinically important, additional pain-control, with regular oxycodone/paracetamol dosing." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en334_38646", "title": "Hydrocodone/ibuprofen", "score": 0.01247104247104247, "content": "Society and culture Cost The average wholesale price (AWP) of generic Vicoprofen varies based on the strength of the preparation. Pricing data gathered from Lexicomp in October 2017 indicates the AWP for a 100 count bottle of 7.5 mg/200 mg strength to be $114.62, a 100 count of 5 mg/200 mg strength to be $356.62 and a 100 count of 10 mg/200 mg strength to be $470.35. These prices are all for generic equivalents of Vicoprofen. Utilization In 2003, at the time of the approval announcement for the first generic equivalent, it was reported that annual sales of brand name Vicoprofen totaled $104 million. According to IMS, the hydrocodone/ibuprofen tablets 7.5 mg/200 mg, had an estimated market size of $15.7 million for the 12 months preceding May 2016. See also Fentanyl/fluanisone Hydrocodone/aspirin Hydrocodone/paracetamol Morphine/naltrexone Oxycodone/aspirin Oxycodone/ibuprofen Oxycodone/naloxone Oxycodone/paracetamol References External links" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_693", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011721091304637377, "content": "For continuous pain, opioids should be administered on a regular, around-the-clock basis consistent with their duration of analgesia. They should not be provided only when the patient experiences pain; the goal is to prevent patients from experiencing pain. Patients also should be provided rescue medication, such as liquid morphine, for breakthrough pain, generally at 20% of the baseline dose. Patients should be informed that using the rescue medication does not obviate the need to take the next standard dose of pain medication. If after 24 h the patient’s pain remains uncontrolled and recurs before the next dose, requiring the patient to use the rescue medication, the daily opioid dose can be increased by the total dose of rescue medications used by the patient, or by 50% for moderate pain and 100% for severe pain of the standing opioid daily dose." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1267", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011134150739271547, "content": "Generic Name Dose, mg Interval Comments Nonnarcotic analgesics: usual doses and intervals Codeine 30–60 q4h 30–60 q4h Nausea common Oxycodone — 5–10 q4–6h Usually available with acetaminophen or aspirin Morphine 5 q4h 30 q4h Morphine sustained — 15–60 bid to tid Oral slow-release preparation release Hydromorphone 1–2 q4h 2–4 q4h Shorter acting than morphine sulfate Levorphanol 2 q6–8h 4 q6–8h Longer acting than morphine sulfate; absorbed well PO Methadone 5–10 q6–8h 5–20 q6–8h Delayed sedation due to long half-life; therapy should not be initiated with >40 mg/d, and dose escalation should be made no more frequently than every 3 days Meperidine 50–100 q3–4h 300 q4h Poorly absorbed PO; normeperidine is a toxic metabolite; routine use of this agent is 7-day transdermal patch Buprenorphine 0.3 q6–8h CHAPTER 18 Pain: Pathophysiology and Management Anticholinergic Orthostatic Cardiac Ave. Dose, Generic Name 5-HT NE Sedative Potency Potency Hypotension Arrhythmia mg/d Range, mg/d" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0860_8545", "title": "Are strong opioids equally effective and safe in the treatment of chronic cancer pain? A multicenter randomized phase IV 'real life' trial on the variability of response to opioids.", "score": 0.011102157758080402, "content": "Guidelines tend to consider morphine and morphine-like opioids comparable and interchangeable in the treatment of chronic cancer pain, but individual responses can vary. This study compared the analgesic efficacy, changes of therapy and safety profile over time of four strong opioids given for cancer pain. In this four-arm multicenter, randomized, comparative, of superiority, phase IV trial, oncological patients with moderate to severe pain requiring WHO step III opioids were randomly assigned to receive oral morphine or oxycodone or transdermal fentanyl or buprenorphine for 28 days. At each visit, pain intensity, modifications of therapy and adverse drug reactions (ADRs) were recorded. The primary efficacy end point was the proportion of nonresponders, meaning patients with worse or unchanged average pain intensity (API) between the first and last visit, measured on a 0-10 numerical rating scale. (NCT01809106). Forty-four centers participated in the trial and recruited 520 patients. Worst pain intensity and API decreased over 4 weeks with no significant differences between drugs. Nonresponders ranged from 11.5% (morphine) to 14.4% (buprenorphine). Appreciable changes were made in the treatment schedules over time. Each group required increases in the daily dose, from 32.7% (morphine) to 121.2% (transdermal fentanyl). Patients requiring adjuvant analgesics ranged from 68.9% (morphine) to 81.6% (oxycodone), switches varied from 22.1% (morphine) to 12% (oxycodone), discontinuation of treatment from 27% ( morphine) to 14.5% (fentanyl). ADRs were similar except for effects on the nervous system, which significantly prevailed with morphine. The main findings were the similarity in pain control, response rates and main adverse reactions among opioids. Changes in therapy schedules were notable over time. A considerable proportion of patients were nonresponders or poor responders. NCT01809106 (https://clinicaltrials.gov/ct2/show/NCT01809106?term=cerp&amp;rank=2)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en272_18574", "title": "Oxycodone/naloxone", "score": 0.01086829836829837, "content": "Adverse effects If the drug is used off-label by crushing the tablet and dissolving it for injection, it may precipitate severe opiate withdrawal symptoms due to the much higher bioavailability of intravenous naloxone compared to oral naloxone. In simpler terms, the normal injection dose of naloxone is far smaller than the oral dose due to more of an intravenous dose being absorbed and active in the body. See also Hydrocodone/paracetamol Hydrocodone/ibuprofen Oxycodone/paracetamol Oxycodone/aspirin Morphine/naltrexone Fentanyl/fluanisone References External links Combination analgesics Semisynthetic opioids" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1063_14263", "title": "Analgesic efficacy of morphine sulfate immediate release vs. oxycodone/acetaminophen for acute pain in the emergency department.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Previous research demonstrated that administration of Morphine Sulfate Immediate Release (MSIR) results in similar analgesic efficacy to Oxycodone but with significantly lesser degrees of euphoria and reward. The purpose of this study sit to investigate if MSIR combined with Acetaminophen can serve as an opioid analgesic alternative to Oxycodone combined with acetaminophen (Percocet) for acute pain in the Emergency Department (ED). A prospective, randomized, double-blind trial of ED patients aged 18 to 64 years presenting with moderate to severe acute pain as defined by an 11-point numeric rating scale (NRS) with an initial score of ≥5 (0 = no pain and 10 = very severe pain). Patients were randomized to receive either 15 mg MSIR combined with 650 mg of Acetaminophen or 10 mg Oxycodone combined with 650 mg Acetaminophen. Patients were assessed at baseline, 30, 45 and 60 min. The primary outcome was reduction in pain at 60 min. Secondary outcomes include drug likeability and adverse events. 80 patients were enrolled in the study (40 per group). Demographic characteristics were similar between the groups (P &gt; 0.05). Mean NRS pain scores at baseline were 8.44 for the MSIR group and 8.53 for the Percocet group (P = 0.788). Mean pain scores decreased over time but remained similar between the groups: 30 min (6.03 vs. 6.43; P = 0.453), 45 min (5.31 vs. 5.48; P = 0.779), and 60 min (4.22 vs. 4.87; P = 0.346). Reduction in mean NRS pain scores were statistically significant from baseline to 30, 45 and 60 min within each group (P &lt; 0.0001 at each time point for both groups). The largest NRS mean difference was from baseline to 60 min: 4.2 (95% CI: 3.43 to 5.01) for MSIR group and 3.61 (95% CI: 2.79 to 4.43) for Percocet group. No clinically significant changes or any serious adverse events were observed in either group. MSIR provides similar analgesic efficacy as Percocet for short-term pain relief in the ED, similar rates of nausea/vomiting, and lower rates of likeability of the drug." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_39053", "title": "Oxycodone", "score": 0.009801336146272856, "content": "In the U.S., extended-release oxycodone is approved for use in children as young as eleven years old. The approved uses are for the relief of cancer pain, trauma pain, or pain due to major surgery, in children already treated with opioids, who can tolerate at least 20 mg per day of oxycodone; this provides an alternative to Duragesic (fentanyl), the only other extended-release opioid analgesic approved for children. Available forms Oxycodone is available in a variety of formulations for by mouth or under the tongue:" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_91361", "title": "ATC code N02", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "N02AJ Opioids in combination with non-opioid analgesics N02AJ01 Dihydrocodeine and paracetamol N02AJ02 Dihydrocodeine and acetylsalicylic acid N02AJ03 Dihydrocodeine and other non-opioid analgesics N02AJ06 Codeine and paracetamol N02AJ07 Codeine and acetylsalicylic acid N02AJ08 Codeine and ibuprofen N02AJ09 Codeine and other non-opioid analgesics N02AJ13 Tramadol and paracetamol N02AJ14 Tramadol and dexketoprofen N02AJ15 Tramadol and other non-opioid analgesics N02AJ16 Tramadol and celecoxib N02AJ17 Oxycodone and paracetamol N02AJ18 Oxycodone and acetylsalicylic acid N02AJ19 Oxycodone and ibuprofen N02AX Other opioids N02AX01 Tilidine N02AX02 Tramadol N02AX03 Dezocine N02AX05 Meptazinol N02AX06 Tapentadol N02AX07 Oliceridine N02AX51 Tilidine and naloxone N02B Other analgesics and antipyretics" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0912_342", "title": "Opioids for cancer pain - an overview of Cochrane reviews.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Pain is a common symptom with cancer, and 30% to 50% of all people with cancer will experience moderate to severe pain that can have a major negative impact on their quality of life. Opioid (morphine-like) drugs are commonly used to treat moderate or severe cancer pain, and are recommended for this purpose in the World Health Organization (WHO) pain treatment ladder. The most commonly-used opioid drugs are buprenorphine, codeine, fentanyl, hydrocodone, hydromorphone, methadone, morphine, oxycodone, tramadol, and tapentadol. To provide an overview of the analgesic efficacy of opioids in cancer pain, and to report on adverse events associated with their use. We identified systematic reviews examining any opioid for cancer pain published to 4 May 2017 in the Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews in the Cochrane Library. The primary outcomes were no or mild pain within 14 days of starting treatment, withdrawals due to adverse events, and serious adverse events. We included nine reviews with 152 included studies and 13,524 participants, but because some studies appeared in more than one review the number of unique studies and participants was smaller than this. Most participants had moderate or severe pain associated with a range of different types of cancer. Studies in the reviews typically compared one type of opioid or formulation with either a different formulation of the same opioid, or a different opioid; few included a placebo control. Typically the reviews titrated dose to effect, a balance between pain relief and adverse events. Various routes of administration of opioids were considered in the reviews; oral with most opioids, but transdermal administration with fentanyl, and buprenorphine. No review included studies of subcutaneous opioid administration. Pain outcomes reported were varied and inconsistent. The average size of included studies varied considerably between reviews: studies of older opioids, such as codeine, morphine, and methadone, had low average study sizes while those involving newer drugs tended to have larger study sizes.Six reviews reported a GRADE assessment (buprenorphine, codeine, hydromorphone, methadone, oxycodone, and tramadol), but not necessarily for all comparisons or outcomes. No comparative analyses were possible because there was no consistent placebo or active control. Cohort outcomes for opioids are therefore reported, as absolute numbers or percentages, or both.Reviews on buprenorphine, codeine with or without paracetamol, hydromorphone, methadone, tramadol with or without paracetamol, tapentadol, and oxycodone did not have information about the primary outcome of mild or no pain at 14 days, although that on oxycodone indicated that average pain scores were within that range. Two reviews, on oral morphine and transdermal fentanyl, reported that 96% of 850 participants achieved that goal.Adverse event withdrawal was reported by five reviews, at rates of between 6% and 19%. Participants with at least one adverse event were reported by three reviews, at rates of between 11% and 77%.Our GRADE assessment of evidence quality was very low for all outcomes, because many studies in the reviews were at high risk of bias from several sources, including small study size. The amount and quality of evidence around the use of opioids for treating cancer pain is disappointingly low, although the evidence we have indicates that around 19 out of 20 people with moderate or severe pain who are given opioids and can tolerate them should have that pain reduced to mild or no pain within 14 days. This accords with the clinical experience in treating many people with cancer pain, but overstates to some extent the effectiveness found for the WHO pain ladder. Most people will experience adverse events, and help may be needed to manage the more common undesirable adverse effects such as constipation and nausea. Perhaps between 1 in 10 and 2 in 10 people treated with opioids will find these adverse events intolerable, leading to a change in treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0559_20480", "title": "[Best practice of pain management with opioids].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Opioids are main drugs in pain management for terminal cancer patients. In these days, we have to choice suitable opioids for the terminal cancer patients with severe pain by opioids rotation. Morphine is a basic drug in opioids. To know about character of morphine make us easy for using other opioids. In this article, character and some points in using opioids were described in detail. For example, timing for administrating opioids, titration, rescue dose, and side effects were included in this article. We don't have to remember the aim of pain management. Pain control is not a purpose, but a way for keeping QOL of the terminal cancer patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en040_3325", "title": "Grünenthal", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To date, the PMCPA website lists 16 completed cases involving Grünenthal. Further drug development The company has focused on the treatment of pain and is doing its own research and development in this field. Grünenthal developed the drug Tramadol, which is marketed under the brand name Tramal, one of the best-selling opioid painkillers. Other business units are gynecology, dermatology, and anti-infectives. Current products include the birth control pill Belara and the matrix pain patch Transtec. Unlike Tramadol, which is a Schedule IV(C-IV) medication, the drug Tapentadol HCl, as licensed by Grünenthal, is Schedule II(C-II) in the U.S. (meaning it is a potent agonist, therefore subject to abuse similar to other C-II opioids, such as oxycodone and morphine)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0566_22045", "title": "[Effect of ondansetron in lower extremity bone surgery on morphine and tramadol consumption using patient controlled analgesia].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In this study, we aimed to assess the effect of administration of ondansetron on morphine and tramadol consumptions. After approval by the ethics committee, 120 patients with ASA status I or II, who will undergo elective lower extremity surgery, were included in the study. Patients were randomly divided into 4 groups following the anesthesia induction. Group I received tramadol as PCA with an infusion of 0.3 mg/kg following a loading dose of 1.5 mg/kg administered 1 hour before the end of the surgery. Group II received ondansetron 0.1 mg/kg following induction of anesthesia, additionally. Group III received morphine as PCA with an infusion following a loading dose of 0.15 mg/kg administered 30 minutes before the end of surgery. Group IV received ondansetron 0.1 mg/kg following induction of anesthesia, additionally. Pain scores(VAS), nausea, vomitting and sedation scores, analgesic consumptions and adverse effects were recorded at 5th, 15th, 30th, 45th minutes and 4th, 8th, 12th and 24th hours postoperatively. Postoperative VAS, nausea, vomitting and sedation scores were similar among the groups. The analgesic consumption was found significantly higher at 4th, 8th, 12th and 24th hours in group II. No statistically significant difference was found in analgesic consumption between group III and IV at all times. We concluded that, ondansetron, when administered as nausea prophylaxis in patients receiving tramadol and morphine as PCA, did not effect morphine consumption whereas did increased tramadol consumption." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en623_13205", "title": "Prescription drug addiction", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Commonly abused drug categories Opioid analgesics Opioid painkillers exert CNS depressant effects by binding to opioid receptors. Its psychoactive properties potentially cause euphoria. Changes in the pain management including more liberal opioids prescription for chronic pain conditions, prescription of higher doses and the development of more potent opioid drugs play an important role contributing to the current epidemic of prescription opioid addiction. Examples of opioid drugs include morphine, codeine, oxycodone, hydrocodone, fentanyl, tramadol and methadone. Stimulants" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0280_1773", "title": "A comparison of regularly dosed oral morphine and on-demand intramuscular morphine in the treatment of postsurgical pain.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A randomized, placebo-controlled, double-blind clinical trial was conducted to compare the use of regularly dosed po morphine and on-demand in morphine in 47 patients undergoing total hip arthroplasty. Patients were randomized to receive either 20 mg (initial dose) of regularly dosed morphine (every four hours po) plus breakthrough pain medication on-demand consisting of both 10 mg morphine po and placebo im, or an equivalent regularly dosed oral placebo (every four hours) with breakthrough pain medication consisting of oral placebo and 5-10 mg morphine im. Subsequent to each request for breakthrough pain medication, the next regularly dosed oral solution was increased by 5 mg (or equivalent volume of placebo) to a maximum of 40 mg po Q4H. Time-averaged pain scores were lower on both postoperative day 1 and 2 in the group receiving regularly dosed morphine po (P &lt; 0.05). Fewer patients requested breakthrough pain medication on both days in the oral morphine group. The incidence of nausea and vomiting, and of decreased respiratory rates were similar in both groups. Regularly dosed oral morphine is inexpensive and should be compared to other methods of opioid delivery." }, { "id": "article-31358_2", "title": "WHO Analgesic Ladder -- Definition/Introduction", "score": 0.009239418899526234, "content": "First Step - Mild pain: non-opioid analgesics such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or acetaminophen with or without adjuvants Second Step - Moderate pain: weak opioids (hydrocodone, codeine, tramadol) with or without non-opioid analgesics and with or without adjuvants Third Step - Severe and persistent pain: potent opioids (morphine, methadone, fentanyl, oxycodone, buprenorphine, tapentadol, hydromorphone, oxymorphone) with or without non-opioid analgesics, and with or without adjuvants [4]" }, { "id": "article-36765_38", "title": "Opioid Equivalency -- Enhancing Healthcare Team Outcomes -- Case Example 3: Change Opioid and Route", "score": 0.009209709942608965, "content": "Develop pain prescription: Fentanyl patch is placed on the skin for 72 hours, after which the old patch is removed and replaced with a new one. For patients who are prescribed a long-acting opioid, it is preferable to add a short-acting opioid. The short-acting opioid helps to address breakthrough pain, which is not addressed by the long-acting opioid alone. The dose of the short-acting opioid is determined as follows: Calculate 24-hour OME from the long-acting opioid dose. In the example above it is: (24-hour OME = fentanyl patch dose X 2 = 50 mg) Dose of short-acting opioid is 10% of OME: Morphine 5 mg PO. A short-acting medication is usually dosed every 3 to 4 hours, which the patient takes on an as-needed basis. Equivalent doses of different short-acting formulations of hydromorphone and oxycodone are calculated using the same principles of equianalgesia as outlined above." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en430_21604", "title": "Intractable pain", "score": 0.00909799337619326, "content": "Intrathecal Pain Pump - delivers a very small amount of the chosen medication directly to the thecal space (next to the spinal cord, even closer than an epidural) Epidural, nerve root, and/or trigger point corticosteroid injections mu-Opioids - Depending on the specific drug, opioids can be oral, transdermal, IV, intramuscular, subcutaneous, transmucosal, sublingual, intranasal, epidural, or intrathecal. Examples include morphine, hydromorphone, oxymorphone, hydrocodone, oxycodone, codeine, buprenorphine methadone - methadone is a mu-opioid, kappa-opioid, and NMDA receptor antagonist. It is used for neuropathic pain, however it is also useful for other types of pain, such as bone pain, and musculoskeletal pain." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_25289", "title": "Peripheral neuropathy", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A 2009 Cochrane review states that there is no evidence from randomised trials on any form of treatment for neuralgic amyotrophy Medications A range of medications that act on the central nervous system have been used to symptomatically treat neuropathic pain. Commonly used medications include tricyclic antidepressants (such as nortriptyline, amitriptyline. imapramine, and desipramine,) serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) medications (duloxetine, venlafaxine, and milnacipran) and antiepileptic medications (gabapentin, pregabalin, oxcarbazepine zonisamide levetiracetam, lamotrigine, topiramate, clonazepam, phenytoin, lacosamide, sodium valproate and carbamazepine). Opioid and opiate medications (such as buprenorphine, morphine, methadone, fentanyl, hydromorphone, tramadol and oxycodone) are also often used to treat neuropathic pain." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0811_6944", "title": "[Opioids in chronic noncancer pain-are opioids different? A systematic review and meta-analysis of efficacy, tolerability and safety in randomized head-to-head comparisons of opioids of at least four week's duration].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "We updated a systematic review on the comparative efficacy, tolerability and safety of opioids and of their routes of application in chronic noncancer pain (CNCP). We screened MEDLINE, Scopus and the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL) up until October 2013, as well as the reference sections of original studies and systematic reviews of randomized controlled trials (RCTs) of opioids in CNCP. We included randomized head-to-head comparisons of opioids (opioid of the sponsor of the study versus standard opioid) of at least 4 week's duration. Using a random effects model, absolute risk differences (RD) were calculated for categorical data and standardized mean differences (SMD) for continuous variables. The quality of evidence was rated by the Grading of Recommendations, Assessment, Development and Evaluation (GRADE) approach. We included 13 RCTs with 6748 participants. Median study duration was 15 weeks (range 4-56 weeks). Hydromorphone, morphine, oxymorphone and tapentadol were compared to oxycodone; fentanyl to morphine and buprenorphine to tramadol. In pooled analysis, there were no significant differences between the two groups of opioids in terms of mean pain reduction (low-quality evidence), the patient global impression to be much or very much improved outcome (low-quality evidence), physical function (very low-quality evidence), serious adverse events (moderate-quality evidence) or mortality (moderate-quality evidence). There was no significant difference between transdermal and oral application of opioids in terms of mean pain reduction, physical function, serious adverse events, mortality (all low-quality evidence) or dropout due to adverse events (very low-quality). Pooled head-to-head comparisons of opioids (opioid of the sponsor of the study versus standard opioid) provide no rational for preferring one opioid and/or administration route over another in the therapy of patients with CNCP. The English full-text version of this article is freely available at SpringerLink (under \"Supplemental\")." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 9, 99 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 3, 17 ] ], "text": "These are diagnostic tests, they are meaningless since you have already made the diagnosis." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 104, 391 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 18, 69 ] ], "text": "Age should not be a limiting factor, especially considering that it is only 71 years old, but especially because the patient's \"quality of life\" is good (and I put \"quality of life\" because it is a term used erroneously, it is supposed to mean that he maintains a good functional level)." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 395, 468 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 70, 82 ] ], "text": "Presents a very mild respiratory limitation, does not require such a test." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 9, 99 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 3, 17 ] ], "text": "These are diagnostic tests, they are meaningless since you have already made the diagnosis." } }

{ "1": "Perform mediastinoscopy.", "2": "Surgical intervention with curative intent should be contraindicated due to the advanced age of the patient.", "3": "An oxygen consumption test should be performed, given the respiratory limitation he presents.", "4": "Surgical resection (lobectomy of the lower lobe of the right lung) should be indicated directly.", "5": "A trantoracic puncture should be performed." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0960_8255", "title": "Total thoracoscopic high-position sleeve lobectomy of the right upper lobe of the lung.", "score": 0.017494270435446907, "content": "This video demonstrates a total thoracoscopic high-position sleeve lobectomy of the right upper lobe in patients with central lung cancer. A 50-year-old male was admitted to the hospital due to a two-month history of coughing. His previous medical history was unremarkable. On admission, physical examination revealed reduced breath sounds in the right upper lung, but no significant rales were present. Chest CT scan revealed a mass in the right upper lung near the lung hilum, atelectasis of the right upper lobe, and enlarged right hilar lymph nodes. No significantly enlarged mediastinal lymph node was noted. Bronchoscopy revealed occlusion of the right upper lobe bronchus by the tumor. Pathological examination of the obtained biopsy reveled squamous cell carcinoma. The required preoperative examinations were completed, and no distant metastasis was evident. Total thoracoscopic sleeve resection of the right upper lobe was performed via the \"three-port approach\" in which the anterior port was the main operating port. First, the inferior pulmonary ligament was dissected to remove the lymph nodes of station 9. Next, the lymph nodes of stations 7 and 8 were removed. Third, the lymph nodes in the region between the intermediate bronchus and the right upper lobe were dissected. Then, the dissection continued superiorly to remove mediastinal lymph nodes of stations 2 and 4 followed by successful anatomic right upper lobectomy, which briefly included division of the superior pulmonary arteries and veins, skeletonization of the upper right lobular bronchus, localization via incision by a sharp blade, division of the bronchus with scissors, and anastomosis with 3-0 prolene continuous suture. The surgery was successful. The postoperative pathological stage was T4N1M0 (stage IIIA)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0572_13711", "title": "[21-year-old man with squamous cell carcinoma of the lung].", "score": 0.016693108919086708, "content": "Lung cancer among people in their twenties is rare and accounts for only 0.1-0.4% of all cases. We describe a case of squamous cell carcinoma of the lung in a 21-year-old man. The otherwise healthy patient presented with a 1 month history of cough. Chest radiography showed a well-defined round mass 5 cm in size in the right lower lobe. Computed tomography also showed a 3 cm hilar lymph node. Bronchoscopy revealed a white polypoid mass obstructing the right basal bronchus. Transbronchial biopsy revealed poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Clinical diagnosis was T2N1M0, stage IIB lung cancer. Right lower lobectomy with mediastinal lymph node dissection was performed. Lymph node metastases were proven histologically in the pretracheal, subcarinal, hilar, and intrapulmonary regions. Pathological diagnosis was T2N2M0, stage IIIA lung cancer. Endobronchial and mediastinal lymph node metastases were found 2 months after surgery. He received 3 rounds of chemotherapy with cisplatin and docetaxel and irradiation to the right hilum and mediastinum at a total dose of 60 Gy in 30 fractions. He is alive 6 months after surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0381_19262", "title": "[Three cases of small intrapulmonary lymph nodes coincidental with primary lung cancer].", "score": 0.015140246493837654, "content": "We report three cases of intrapulmonary lymph nodes coincidental with primary lung cancers. In the first case, a 56-year-old man had a small subpleural nodule in the right lower lobe associated with adenocarcinoma of the right upper lobe. The small nodule was 10 mm in diameter and was difficult to differentiate radiologically from intrapulmonary metastasis. Wedge resection of this small nodule was performed. Histologic examination of the nodule revealed an intrapulmonary lymph node with anthracotic pigmentation. A right upper lobectomy for adenocarcinoma was performed, and was completely curative. The second patient, a 77-year-old woman, had adenocarcinoma in the right lower lobe diagnosed by transbronchial biopsy. Computed tomography (CT) revealed a small nodule 5 mm in diameter in the right upper lobe. Histologic examination of the small wedge-resected nodule revealed a lymph node. Lower lobectomy was performed with completely curative results. In the third case, a 63-year-old man was admitted for investigation of a mass shadow in the right upper lobe. CT showed a small nodular shadow in the right middle lobe, confirmed histologically to be lymphoid tissue, in addition to the original mass, which was diagnosed by transbronchial biopsy as squamous cell carcinoma. Upper lobectomy was performed and proved to be curative. Small intrapulmonary lymph nodes are very difficult to diagnose by methods other than surgical resection. When a small intrapulmonary nodule is detected in a patient with primary lung cancer, the presence of an intrapulmonary lymph node must be considered. If radiological characters compatible with an intrapulmonary lymph node are found and there is no other metastasis indicating poor prognosis, it should be considered as a possible indication for surgical resection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0748_23703", "title": "[The operated case of 89 year-old patient with pleomorphic carcinoma of the lung].", "score": 0.015136592193250739, "content": "A-89-year-old male patient who complained dry cough was detected lung mass of 3 cm size in diameter at the right upper lobe by CT. FDG-PET seemed to show hilar and mediastinum lymph nodes metastasis. After three weeks, the mass showed rapid growth with 5 cm diameter in size at CT. Therefore the original tumor was supposed to be undifferentiated carcinoma, above all, pleomorphic carcinoma. He had been done pulmonary resection after short period. The right upper lobectomy with combined resection of the partial middle lobe was performed. Hilar and mediastinum lymph nodes dissection was added. In pathological examination, the tumor was proved pleomorphic carcinoma, however, no lymph node metastasis was recognized. He did not refer any complications and discharged back home at the post-operative 11th day. Pleomorphic carcinoma of the lung is known to be difficult to obtain definite diagnosis in early stage because of rapid growth. Therefore many cases are detected in advanced stage. In addition, chemotherapy is generally not effective, so only operative resection seems to be useful. Our patient was 89-year-old, he tolerated the operation and was alive with no trouble during 6 months after resection. When complete resection seems to be possible, operation should be regarded as an initial treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0501_13893", "title": "[Synchronous primary lung cancers: due to the four cases].", "score": 0.015063540753724802, "content": "If two primary lung cancers are present in the same time, it diagnosed as synchronous lung cancer. It constitutes 0.1-1.6% of all lung cancers. In this report, we described four cases diagnosed synchronous multiple primary lung cancers (MPLC) in between June 1999 and May 2002. Mean age was 63, and all of those were male. All patients were heavy smoker (mean 58 packet/year). Histology of lung cancers was squamous-adeno in two cases, squamous-small cell lung cancer in one case, and squamous-squamous in two cases. All patients had bilateral mass lesions and no mediastinal and systemic spread. Lesion of second primary lung cancer was unable to seen in two patient's chest X-ray. Their lesions were seen by computerized tomography in one case, and by bronchoscope only in the other case. Lesion site was left lower lobe, right lower lobe, right middle lobe, and left upper lobe (25% for each). Diagnosis of lung cancer was made by transthoracic needle biopsy in three lesion, and made by bronchoscopic biopsy in other lesions. While it is recommended that, all of MPLC lesions were staged separately and treated surgically, due to the advanced age, presence of small cell lung cancer, and inadequate post-operative respiratory reserve, surgical treatment could not apply to these patients and they received chemotherapy. Three of them was died (mean survival was 11 months). Due to the this report, we emphasized that diagnostic procedures should be done separately for each lesions in patients who had more than one lesion, and treatment should plane according to these results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0338_19438", "title": "[Pulmonary nodule. The surgeon's approach].", "score": 0.01461530941441001, "content": "Malignancy must be suspected with any pulmonary nodule detected on radiologic examination of the chest until its benign origin has been proven. This requires further evaluation of the patient. The non invasive diagnostic steps include patient's history, clinical examination, lung function testing, and standard radiographs and a computed tomography (CT) of the chest. Based on these findings the presumed diagnosis claims the next appropriate diagnostic steps. If lung cancer is the most likely diagnosis and lung function testing revealed that the patient is a candidate for lung resection than surgery may be the next step. Preoperative proof of the histologic diagnosis is not mandatory. It is the less required the more surgery may be curative. If curative resectability is indoubt or the patient is not candidate for lung resection than histologic diagnosis should be confirmed prior to introduction of radiotherapy or chemotherapy by the least invasive procedure (bronchoscopy &lt; lymph node biopsy &lt; needle biopsy &lt; mediastinoscopy/-tomy &lt; VATS). If metastatic disease must be suspected, staging should be completed as required for the primary malignancy. With local recurrence and other metastases excluded the number of pulmonary nodules detected on CT scan points to the appropriate surgical approach. In case of a solitary nodule or multiple but resectable nodules, complete (wedge) resection with lymph node dissection through a lateral thoracotomy will be the procedure of choice. With multiple and unresectable nodules, surgery allows definitive diagnosis and videothoracoscopy affords the opportunity to accomplish wedge resection of the lung along with low morbidity. When lesions are deemed indeterminate, definitive diagnosis should nevertheless be attempted. If there is no history of malignancy routine evaluation for such in asymptomatic patients is not indicated. With small nodules (less than 3 cm in diameter) located in the periphery of the lung, videothoracoscopic wedge resection is indicated without preoperative sputum cytology, bronchoscopy or transthoracic needle biopsy. The histologic diagnosis obtained by intraoperative frozen sections than determines the further surgical approach. Benign lesion: completion of surgery; lung cancer: proceed to thoracotomy with anatomic lung resection and mediastinal lymph node resection; metastatic disease: completion of surgery and further search for primary malignancy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0530_5092", "title": "[Pulmonary pleomorphic carcinoma].", "score": 0.014249492900608519, "content": "Pleomorphic carcinoma is a rare primary pulmonary malignancy. We report 2 surgical cases of pulmonary pleomorphic carcinoma. The first case was a 71-year-old male. Chest computed tomography (CT) showed a rapidly growing tumor with irregular density. Transbronchial lung biopsy revealed the tumor to be malignant. Left lower lobectomy was performed. Pathological diagnosis was pleomorphic carcinoma (pT2N2M0, stage IIIA). He died 8 months after surgery due to brain metastasis and mediastinal lymph node metastasis. The second case was a 74-year-old male who complained of bloody sputum. Chest CT showed a tumor with cavity in the right middle lobe. Brushing cytology under bronchofiberscopy revealed atypical cell. Right middle lobectomy and partial resection of the right lower lobe were performed. Pathological diagnosis was also pleomorphic carcinoma (pT2N0M0, stage IB). He has no findings of recurrence nor metastasis 15 months after the operation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0941_15930", "title": "Report of a lung carcinoma extended to the left atrium through pulmonary vein.", "score": 0.013192721257237385, "content": "Lung cancers may extend along or grow through the pulmonary veins to invade or lie within the left atrium (LA). A 62-year-old man, previously healthy, presented with 1-month ventilatory-independent right hemithorax back pain, dry cough and large effort dyspnea. He also referred weight loss of 12 kg in 10 months and denied hemoptysis. As antecedents, he smoked for 40 years and moderate daily alcoholism. On physical examination, the patient was in good general condition, hydrated and regular respiration at rest [blood pressure (BP) =120/80 mmHg; heart rate (HR) =90 bpm; respiratory rate (RR) =16 rpm]. Cardiac auscultation revealed two standard rhythmic sounds without murmurs. Pulmonary auscultation revealed a slightly diminished vesicular murmur in the lower 1/3 of the right hemithorax without adventitious noises. Chest radiography showed a mass over the right lower lung. A CT scan confirmed the radiography image with the mass extending along the right inferior pulmonary vein and a tumor in the LA. Transthoracic and transesophageal echocardiography revealed large mass within the LA (occupying almost the entire cavity), measuring about 10 cm × 3 cm at its largest diameter, prolapsing into the left ventricle. Bronchoscopy, head CT scan, and whole-body bone scintigraphy investigation did not show any distant metastasis. The patient was successfully operated removing the intracardiac and inferior pulmonary vein tumor with the aid of cardiopulmonary bypass, followed by a right inferior lobectomy carried out after 25 days. After 30 days from surgery presented seizures associated a brain metastasis evidenced by CT when adjuvant radio and chemotherapy was started. During the next 90 days, the clinical conditions worsened, and the patient died 4 months after the surgical treatment. The case report has two primary justifications, even considering the poor outcome: (I) rarity and (II) the possibility of the surgical treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0762_19862", "title": "Surgical treatment of non-small cell lung cancer in octogenarians - safety and prognosis.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Reluctance to recommend surgery for the elderly is partly based on the expectation that the rate of complications and mortality is higher in this group of patients and on the impression that the life expectancy of an octogenarian with lung cancer is limited by death from natural causes. Between 2007-2011, we operated on 57 patients over 80 years who underwent thoracotomy with curative intent for lung cancer. Mean age was 82.2 years, 17 were female and 40 male. The presence of preoperative comorbidities in this group of patients was significant: chronic lung disease - 22.8%, cardiovascular disease - 38.6% and a history of other malignancy - 17.5%. However, their respiratory function was very acceptable with an average FVC of 93.6% and an average FEV1 of 83.2%. The predominant location of tumor (mean size of 3.0±1.7 cm) was upper lobes (63.2%) and cytological diagnosis was established preoperatively in 61.4% of cases. Preoperative staging was complemented by positron emission tomography in 42.1% of cases and in 12.2% with mediastinoscopy. We performed 35 lobectomies (61.4%), 4 bilobectomies (7.0%), 9 wedge resections (15.8%) and 5 pneumonectomies (8.8%). All surgeries were performed through lateral thoracotomy. In 4 patients (7.0%), anatomic resection was aborted intraoperative due to unexpected metastatic disease and/or unresectable mass discovered during exploratory thoracotomy. Lymph node dissection was complete in 57.8%. Final pathology analysis showed: adenocarcinoma in 50.9% of cases, squamous cell carcinoma in 14.0% and carcinoid tumour in 14.0%. Final staging was T1 (24.4%), T2 (26.7%), T3-4 (11.1%), N0 (35.5%), N1-2 (4.4%), G1 (8.9%), G2 (28.9%), G3 (8.9%). Mean hospital stay was 10.7±8.1 days. Main surgical complications recorded were: prolonged air leak (15.8%), atelectasis requiring bronchoscopy (7.0%) and persistent air chamber on chest roentgenography (10.5%). We observed an overall operative mortality of one case - 1.8%, which was an 80 year-old patient submitted to a pneumonectomy. In conclusion, octogenarians should not be denied surgery exclusively due to age. Surgeons should base their decision first on the stage of the disease, and then on an accurate assessment of the general clinical conditions. Pneumonectomy and extended operations should generally be avoided." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0826_18979", "title": "Tongue carcinoma with endobronchial metastasis: a rare case.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Endobronchial metastases of extrapulmonary malignant tumors are quite rare. We present a patient with endobronchial metastasis previously operated for tongue carcinoma. A 71-year-old female patient presented with the complaint of cough. She had a history of tongue carcinoma operation 2 years before. Chest x-ray revealed an air-fluid level in the lower zone of the right hemithorax. There was a big cavitary lesion in the right lower lobe and bilateral multiple nodular lesions, some of which had cavity formation on computed tomography. Bronchoscopy re- vealed a polypoid lesion with necrotic appearance and pathologic examination showed squamous cell carcinoma. The lesion was accepted as a metastasis of tongue carcinoma after evaluation of the materials taken from the tongue on previous operation. There was no finding suggestive of local recurrence; however, the patient died from hemoptysis and respiratory insufficiency. In conclusion, endobronchial metastasis should be considered in patients with extrapulmonary malignancies and bronchoscopic examination should be performed in such cases, even in the presence of atypical radiological findings." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0072_23649", "title": "[Choice of examination methods in bronchial cancer].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The techniques used for the investigation of a patient with lung carcinoma are determined by the mode of presentation of the disease. The first step is based on the clinical examination and the chest X-ray (frontal and lateral view). The pathological examination of the tumor represents the second step. Depending on the operability of the patient at this stage of the investigation, further evaluation will (or will not) be performed to determine the extension of the tumor, using TNM staging system. Any candidate for surgery has to be bronchoscoped in order to evaluate the endobronchial spread of the tumor and to look for additional lesions. Transverse tomography of the thorax is the central part of any staging procedure. The choice among the other methods of investigation depends on the site of the tumor in the thorax. Mediastinoscopy is only needed in case of a lesion of unknown nature located in the anterior mediastinum or in addition to CT scan when there is a suspicion of mediastinal involvement. Transthoracic needle aspiration is best performed on peripheral lesions. In small cell lung carcinoma, the preoperative work-up should be very systematic even in the absence of clinical or laboratory abnormality. Whereas in certain cases the investigation of a patient with lung carcinoma can be limited to a clinical examination and a chest X-ray, any candidate for surgery has to be submitted to a detailed TNM staging." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1064_13759", "title": "Three metachronous primary lung cancers in a chronic smoker: A case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Lung cancer is a leading cause of cancer-related deaths. Smoking is major risk factor for initial and subsequent lung cancer especially in active smokers. Treatment of subsequent lung cancer depends on whether it is synchronous or metachronous. We report a rare case of triple metachronous lung cancer and review of literature of patients with triple metachronous cancers. This will be the second case reported of triple metachronous lung cancer. A 60-year-old male, active smoker with diabetes mellitus, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease presented with cough and hemoptysis. Initial computed tomography (CT) scan showed right upper lobe spiculated mass. He underwent transthoracic needle biopsy for right upper lobe mass, showing primary lung adenocarcinoma (ADC)-Stage-IIIA. He continued to smoke and 9-years later had new left upper lobe spiculated nodule, which on surgical resection showed squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)-Stage-IA1. Despite counselling on smoking cessation, he was unable to quit. Six months later, he presented with shortness of breath and CT chest showing right hilar adenopathy in right upper and lower lobes. He underwent transbronchial biopsies of lesion which showed small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC). His initial lung ADC-Stage-IIIA, was treated with chemotherapy, weekly thoracic radiation and additional chemotherapy cycles. Nine years later, his left upper lobe mass showing SCC-Stage-IA1 was deemed curative after apical resection and he was kept on surveillance. Six months later, after diagnosis of SCLC in right upper and lower lobe, patient was not a candidate for systemic chemotherapy due to poor performance status and opted for hospice care. His initial lung ADC-Stage-IIIA showed complete radiological response with chemotherapy and radiation. Subsequent SCC-Stage-IA1 was deemed curative after resection. Due to his poor performance status, he was not a candidate for chemotherapy for SCLC and patient opted for hospice care. Smoking is a major risk factor for developing lung cancer and with continued smoking, patients are at higher risk for developing subsequent primary lung cancers. We recommend, patients with lung cancer must quit smoking, and those who do not, should remain on long-term surveillance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0123_10269", "title": "[Indications for surgical intervention in patients with pulmonary cancer. Observations on 714 cases].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Selection modes for surgery were studied in a group of lung cancer patients. Selection is based: on the certain diagnosis of the disease, its histological classification and stage respiratory function tests and the assessment of any surgical indications. A total of 714 lung cancer cases were examined. Of these, 28.4% were at stage 1, 19.8% at stage 2 and 51.8% at stage 3. Only 141 patients or 19.8% of all cases examined were judged fit for radical exeresis. In the absence of metastasis all three stages of epidermoid carcinomas and adenocarcinomas were judged operable. In the case of microcytomas indication to surgery was limited to very few cases and only those in the first two stages. In the presence of metastasis to the hilar lymph nodes, surgery was only indicated where the metastasis was small. Exeresis was also indicated in the presence of single metastases to mediastinal lymph nodes on the same side as the neoplasia especially if these were considered intranodal. The difficulty of precise assessment of metastases to the hilar and mediastinal lymph nodes even with the aid of modern techniques like CAT scanning and mediastinoscopy was also noted. In 87 of 141 patients operated it was possible to check the result which was radical in 84 cases. In all, 19 pneumonectomies, 49 lobectomies and 16 bilobectomies were performed. The operative mortality rate was 3.4%. The various surgical indications were also examined in relation to the diverse clinical situations presented by lung cancers. In conclusion the modalities to be followed in order to enhance the value of radical resections in lung cancer are outlined. Above all diagnostic means must be refined to a point where the disease can be staged with maximum precision, patients for surgery must be selected with the utmost care and diagnosis must be as early as possible." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0079_19833", "title": "[Yield of bronchofibroscopy in patients with hemoptysis and normal thorax radiography].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The clinical histories of all the patients with hemoptysis who underwent bronchofibroscopy (FB) during a period of 5 years (1981-1986) are revised. 25.6% (108 out of 702) of the endoscopic explorations were performed in patients without radiographic pleuropulmonary abnormalities with a definite pathology. In these patients, an early FB results in one of the diagnostic methods with greatest sensibility to diagnose subglottic bleeding. Its efficacy decreases when it is performed more than 24 hours after the bleeding apparently ceased. As a whole, the side of the bleeding was determined in 50% of cases with the localization of the segment involved in 53 occasions (29.4%). In 8 (4.4%) patients, hemoptysis was secondary to bronchial neoplasia and in 6 of them FB contributed with the diagnostic material. In 5 cases hemoptysis lasted for more than seven days. Seven patients suffering bronchial carcinoma were males over 40 years old and smokers of more than 40 years/packet. There was a 77 year old female, with a carcinoid tumor who was a non smoker. In other 3 patients (2 suffering endobronchial angiomas and one case of tracheal bronchus ) the cause of bleeding could be determined with FB. We conclude that in patients presenting hemoptysis and normal chest x ray, FB is a useful procedure to localize the origin of bleeding and in a significant percentage of cases permits the etiological diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0551_9237", "title": "Sister Mary Joseph's nodule as a presenting sign of internal malignancy.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "CASE 1: A 64-year-old, otherwise healthy woman was referred to the surgery clinic for a presumed umbilical hernia. On physical examination, a cutaneous nodule was noted on the umbilical region and the patient was referred to the dermatology clinic. The patient was reexamined and an erythematous nodule was observed in the umbilicus measuring 2.5 cm in diameter. The patient denied pain, change in bowel habits, or weight loss. There were no other abdominal masses, no sign of ascites, and no regional lymphadenopathy. A skin biopsy from the nodule showed mucinous adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemical staining was positive for carcinoembryonic antigen, and negative for cytokeratin (CK)7 and CK20. These results were consistent with a Sister Mary Joseph's nodule and led to the diagnosis of an occult colon carcinoma. The patient had no risk factors for colorectal carcinoma. The patient underwent surgery in another hospital, and died 3 months after the initial diagnosis of Sister Mary Joseph's nodule. CASE 2: A 73-year-old woman was referred to the dermatology clinic for evaluation of a painful, ulcerated, 3-cm lesion in the umbilicus (Figure 1). She was otherwise asymptomatic. A skin biopsy showed neoplastic glandular cells infiltrating among collagen bundles (Figure 2). Stainings for mucin and for CK7 were positive, while staining for CK20 was negative. An abdominopelvic CT scan demonstrated a 3.5-cm space-occupying lesion in the liver. Results of gastroscopy, colonoscopy, chest computed tomographic (CT) scan, and mammography were normal. Serum levels of the tumor-associated protein CA125 were elevated to 164 units, while those of CA 19-9 and carcinoembryonic antigen were within normal range. A gynecologic examination and a transvaginal ultrasound were normal. The patient had no personal or family history of any malignancy or any risk factors for developing a carcinoma. The patient was scheduled for a palliative resection of the umbilical nodule, combined with a laparoscopic inspection in search of the undetected primary tumor. She refused surgery and was lost to follow-up. She died 4 months after the initial diagnosis of umbilical metastasis. CASE 3: A 51-year-old man was aware of a silent mass in his umbilicus for 2 years without seeking medical advice. Following 2 weeks of increasing pain in this area, he was referred to the emergency room for a suspected incarcerated umbilical hernia. Surgery revealed a mass attached to the fascia and peritoneal fat. The mass was removed and diagnosed as a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma, staining positively for carcinoembryonic antigen, and negatively for CK20, CK7, prostate-specific antigen, and prostatic acid phosphatase. Both gastroscopy and colonoscopy failed to detect the primary tumor. An abdominopelvic CT scan was normal, but a CT scan of the chest disclosed a nodule measuring 2.5 x 1.5 cm in the lower lobe of the right lung. On bronchoscopy, it was found to be an invasive adenocarcinoma, consistent with a primary tumor of the lung. The patient was a heavy smoker (45 pack-years). The patient received 4 cycles of combined chemotherapy with carboplatine and gemcitabine, with no improvement. A month later, the patient complained of abdominal pain. Following demonstration of intra-abdominal spread of disease by CT scan, a second line chemotherapy was instituted with paclitaxel. A month later the patient's condition deteriorated and he complained of cough, sweating, and pain along the right leg. A bone scan revealed bone metastases in the right femur and left tibia. Two weeks later he was admitted to the hospital with intestinal obstruction and underwent laparotomy. He had massive intra-abdominal spread of cancer and ascites. Only a palliative colostomy was performed. The patient died 3 weeks later, 9 months after the diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the lung. The clinical data on the three patients are summarized in Table I." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0037_7296", "title": "[Early diagnosis of lung cancer].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "268 patients with suspected lung cancer were examined over the period 1 January 1972 to 31 May 1974. On the basis of the 735 investigations performed, a 6-8 h workup program has been established including physical and functional examination, standard X-rays and hilar tomography, endoscopy and biopsy for cytologic or histologic study. Several biopsy technics are described and their indications tabulated according to their efficiency in relation to the radiologic aspect of the lesion. The number of cases and the yield for each technic are summarized in Table 2." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1101_8411", "title": "First case of lung cancer with pneumoconiosis and endobronchial leiomyoma complicating the diagnosis.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In the treatment of lung cancer, the presence or absence of mediastinal lymph node involvement has a significant bearing on the indication for surgery. In addition, if a tumor is found in the trachea during preoperative scrutiny of lung cancer, the possibility of intratracheal metastasis should be considered, since this kind of metastasis is a contraindication for surgery. In the present study, we experienced a case of lung cancer associated with pneumoconiosis and a rare intratracheal leiomyoma. In this case, preoperative staging was difficult, but endobronchial ultrasound-guided transbronchial needle aspiration (EBUS-TBNA) and intratracheal tumor biopsy were helpful in determining the treatment strategy. A 65-year-old man was referred to our hospital for evaluation of abnormal chest X-ray shadows. Sputum cytology indicated squamous cell carcinoma. PET-CT scan showed fluorodeoxyglucose uptake in a right upper lobe mass and the hilar, mediastinal and right supraclavicular lymph nodes, and bronchoscopy revealed a protuberant lesion in the left bronchus. Hence, EBUS-TBNA for the mediastinal lymph nodes and simultaneous evaluation of the protuberant lesion in the left bronchus were performed. The bronchial tumor was histopathologically diagnosed as leiomyoma. Since mediastinal lymph node biopsy showed no malignant cells, a right upper lobectomy and a right S6 segmentectomy were performed. Postoperative pathological evaluation of the dissected lymph nodes revealed pneumoconiosis but no metastasis. He was, thus, diagnosed with squamous cell lung carcinoma (pT2bN0M0, pStage IIA). We report a patient with lung cancer and coexistence of a rare endobronchial leiomyoma and pneumoconiosis, who underwent surgery after preoperative evaluation using EBUS-TBNA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0992_20734", "title": "Lung cancer combined with methotrexate-associated lymphoproliferative disorder: A case report.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Methotrexate (MTX)-associated lymphoproliferative disorder occurs in rheumatoid arthritis patients treated with MTX; however, patients with concomitant pulmonary lesions are rare. We present a case of lung cancer combined with MTX-associated lymphoproliferative disorder for which, for which it was necessary to differentiate these from possible pulmonary metastasis. A 72-year-old man was referred to our hospital for treatment of squamous cell carcinoma in the left upper bronchus. He was receiving oral MTX and prednisolone for rheumatoid arthritis for 15 years. However, chest computed tomography performed 1 week before surgery revealed a 1-cm-sized pulmonary nodule in the right lung. Surgical pulmonary resection of the right lung tumor revealed substantial B-cell lymphoma-type lymphoproliferative disorder. Left upper lobectomy for the squamous cell carcinoma in the left upper bronchus was performed 5 weeks after the first surgery. Chest CT performed 2 weeks after the first surgery revealed a new 1-cm-sized nodule in the lower left lung lobe. However, after discontinuing oral MTX therapy, the new lesion in the left lower lobe disappeared. In lung cancer patients treated with MTX for rheumatoid arthritis, MTX-associated lymphoproliferative disorder should be considered as a differential diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0642_22758", "title": "[Analysis of symptoms and case history data in the set of 353 patients with lung cancer].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Lung cancer (LC) incidence in men in the Czech Republic has been declining since 1995, in women it grows up continually. To analyse the characteristics of recent set of patients (pts) and contribution of their symptoms for diagnostic, treatment and prognosis we carried on the retrospective study on patients from 1st Pulmonary department from 2004-2007. Men:women ratio in the set of 353 pts was 2:1. The frequency of symptoms at the time of diagnosis were: cough 69%, dyspnoe 54%, loss of weight 49%, expectoration 39%, pain on the chest 37%, haemoptysis 17.7%, fever 16%, vena cava superior syndrome 3.7%. Smokers fell in to the disease in significantly younger age than nonsmokers, 63 vs. 73 years. 40% of pts with LC suffer from COPD, more frequently have had squamous type of cancer. 78% of the set was morphologically verified, most frequent types of cancer were squamous type (22.1%) followed by adenocarcinoma, 21.2%. Surgical therapy underwent 18.1% of the whole set. We look consequently for correlation between symptoms and other data of the pts. The pts with abuse of alcohol beverage fell in to the disease in a younger age. The pts with central tumor suffer from stronger cough more frequently, at bronchoscopy had more often direct tumor changes. The pts with IV. TNM stage of LC more frequently suffer from fever and pain. Significantly fewer pts with dyspnoe, loss of weight and lower FEV1 underwent surgical resection, FEV1 was lower in pts with central than with peripheral type of tumor. In pts with direct bronchoscopical tumor changes were found more frequently haemoptysis, broader spectrum of symptoms, lower FVC and FEV1. Dyspnoe correlated with PaO2 but not with PaCO2. CRP was lower in pts with peripheral type of LC, higher in pts with small cell LC (SCLC). Occurrence of haemoptysis did not correlate with number of smoked cigarettes. Conclusions. In conclusion we proofed that proper taking of history case may accelerate and improve the diagnostic process." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0944_12795", "title": "Primary malignant melanoma of the lung: a case report of a rare tumor and review of the literature.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Primary malignant melanoma of the lung (PMML) is a rare malignancy that exhibits aggressive behavior and has a very poor prognosis. We are reporting on a case of PMML in an otherwise healthy 22-year-old Caucasian male with no significant past medical history and an unremarkable family history. The patient initially presented with a 2-month history of a cough and an unexplained 22-lb weight loss. His initial chest X-ray demonstrated opacification of the right lower lobe (RLL) of his lung and a subsequent computerized tomography scan (CT scan) of his lung revealed a large mass occupying most of his RLL (Figure 1). The patient subsequently underwent a bronchoscopy with endobronchial ultrasound. Biopsies revealed a poorly differentiated carcinoma. A positron emission tomography with low dose CT scan was performed per protocol and revealed an intensely hypermetabolic tumor with no evidence for lymphatic disease or extra-thoracic spread. The patient underwent a surgical exploration and a right lower lobectomy with a thoracic lymphadenectomy. The pathology including immunohistochemical stains demonstrated a malignant melanoma with no lymph node involvement. A physical examination including ophthalmic, mucosal, and skin examinations revealed no evidence for an extra-thoracic site of the disease. The patient had negative margins for resection and did not receive any adjuvant therapy and is alive and well with no evidence for recurrence 3 years after the resection." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0033_11135", "title": "[Evaluation of a broncho-pulmonary cancer patient].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A complete check-up is indispensable in patients suffering from broncho-pulmonary cancer, in order to establish a base-line for the lesions, and necessary in order to pose possible surgical indications. It must make use of the clinical examination and various instrumental exploratory methods which must be used with discrimination depending on the benefits which can be expected of them. Clinical examination is essential; it enables analysis of the symptoms and evaluation of the general condition. Investigation of the progressive potential of the cancer is based on the histological study, evaluation of the subject's state of immunity and the time for the tumor to double in size. Functional respiratory investigation is indispensable for any possible surgical discussion. Its importance equals the assessment of local extension of the tumor, of mediastinal glandular involvement and the result of vascular involvement checks. Finally, the identification of metastases remains essential, although deceptive, inspite of progress in the means of investigation which can be used." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0817_24343", "title": "Video-assisted thoracic surgery right sleeve lobectomy.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 50-year-old active male with a smoking history of 30 years (20 cigarettes per day) was admitted to hospital because of more than one month's cough without sputum. No comorbidity was present. The preoperative examination showed: blood test normal, ECG normal, cardio-pulmonary function normal, chest computed tomography (CT) display right upper lobe (RUL) mass of 5 cm diameter. Bronchoscopy examination and biopsy indicated large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma (LCNEC) in the take-off of RUL bronchus. No metastatic focus was found after emission computed tomography (ECT) scan of whole body bone, abdominal US scanning and brain MR. After initial evaluation, the clinical stage before operation was cT2bN0M0 (IIA stage). A selective video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) operation was arranged after 9 days of smoking cessation. Lateral position, one 10 mm trocar for camera in the 7th intercostals space in the mid-auxiliary line, 4 cm trocar for operation in the 4th intercostal space in the anterior axillary line, 15 mm trocar for auxiliary operation in the 8th intercostal space in the scapula line, the patient received VATS RUL lobectomy, plus systemic mediastinal lymph nodes dissection. The procedure of 200 minutes operation was smooth with blood loss of about 150 mL. Chest tube was removed 6 days after operation, and the patient discharged 11 days after the operation; The post-operation pathological examination showed RUL LCNEC, and the pathological stage was pT2bN0M0R0 (IIA stage). The patient has received four cycles of EP adjuvant chemotherapy per 21 days and is still alive without disease recurrence and metastasis after re-examination. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0092_10703", "title": "[The discussion of the need of mediastinal lymph node dissection in the surgical treatment of lung cancer].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The need of lymph node dissection in the case of operative lung cancer with negative mediastinoscopy was discussed. As a preliminary study, the N-number obtained from the mediastinoscopy and that of postoperative examination was compared. The rate of agreement of N-number was as high as 96%. Secondary, 183 cases of lung cancer with squamous-or adenocarcinoma pathologically T-1 or 2. N-0 and P-0 or 1 were picked up and examined. In those cases, the result of 3 years survival rate was 80% in the cases of absolute curative operation and 60% in that of relative non-curative cases, and 5 years survival rate was 70% and 52% respectively, and the cases of absolute curative operation was statistically excellent than that of another group. However, the background of the two groups was different to some degree on account of the advancement of the cancer and the age of the patients. Therefore, the randomized study as for the lymph node dissection in the cases of negative mediastinoscopy was finally performed. In the 30 cases of squamous cell carcinoma where dissection was carried out in 13 cases and not done in 17 cases, the result of 3 years survival was 84% (dissecting group) and 89% (non-dissecting group), and 5 years survival was 73% and 63% respectively. In 23 cases of adenocarcinoma (13; dissecting, 10; non-dissecting), the result of 3 years survival was 100%, 63% and that of 5 years survival rate was 100%, 63% respectively.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_4587", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.009036796536796537, "content": "involvementHoarsenessRecurrent laryngeal nerve involvementSwelling of head and armsBulky involved mediastinal lymph nodes Medially based right upper lobe tumorTable 19-6General principles governing appropriate selection of patients for pulmonary metastasectomy1. Primary tumor must already be controlled.2. Patient must be able to tolerate general anesthesia, potential single-lung ventilation, and the planned pulmonary resection.3. Metastases must be completely resectable based on computed tomographic imaging.4. There is no evidence of extrapulmonary tumor burden.5. Alternative superior therapy must not be available.identified any additional lesions, they were resected. The study concluded that the probability that a metastatic lesion will be missed by VATS excision is 56%. Patients in the Memorial study were evaluated before the advent of spiral CT scanning, however, and it remains controversial whether metastasis resec-tion should be performed via VATS. Proponents of VATS argue that" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1071_7821", "title": "Primary synchronous colloid adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma in the same lung: A rare case report.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Double primary lung cancer (DPLC) is a relatively rare type of lung cancers. According to whether the diagnosis interval between lesions is more than 6 months, it can be divided into synchronous DPLC (sDPLC) and metachronous DPLC (mDPLC). Here, we describe a case of sDPLC in which one of the components is a rare colloid adenocarcinoma (CA). A 69-year-old male was admitted to the hospital due to chest distress and shortness of breath for 1 year, getting worse in the last 15 days. Both HE staining and IHC supported the diagnosis of CA in the right lower lobe and moderately differentiated squamous cell carcinoma in the right upper lobe. The patient was treated with 3 cycles of adjuvant chemotherapy with pemetrexed and lobaplatin after the right upper lobectomy, wedge resection of the right lower lobe and lymph node dissection under video-assisted thoracoscope. Our plan was to follow him up with general physical examination, chest-abdomen CT and serum tumor markers every 6 months for 2 years. The patient was still alive until the last follow-up in November 2020. CA of the lung is a rare primary lung adenocarcinoma. The diagnosis should be based on the patient's clinical characteristics, imaging examination and pathological characteristics, and also need to be differentiated from other mucinous adenocarcinomas. Interestingly, our patient developed not only a CA in the right lower lobe, but also a moderately differentiated squamous cell carcinoma in the right upper lobe." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0316_7311", "title": "[Follow-up of patients with non-small-cell pulmonary cancer undergoing complete resection. Should surgeons be in charge?].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To evaluate the effectiveness of patient follow-up after complete lung resection for non-small cell carcinoma in the same unit where the patients were treated. Retrospective review of outpatient clinic records of patients undergoing surgery for lung cancer between January 1994 and December 1996 who met the following conditions: histologically complete resection (segmentary and wedge resections were excluded) and survival at least three months after surgery. Follow-up was in accordance with preestablished guidelines that included taking the patient's medical history and performing physical examination, simple chest X-ray, hematocrit and biochemical parameters, chest and abdominal computerized tomography (CT) and periodic bronchoscopy. In 103 cases followed for between three to 34 months, 27 recurrences were detected (13 remote, 11 local and 3 local and remote). The clinical diagnosis of recurrence was made by case history adn physical examination in 18 cases, by simple chest film in 3, by biochemical blood parameters in 2, by fiber optic bronchoscopy in 2, and by CT findings in 2. One of the patients with local recurrence (bronchial stump) underwent a second operation 11 months after the first. Most recurrences are detected during simple checkups that can be performed without hospital admission. Only one patient underwent surgery for a local recurrence, suggesting that follow-up by thoracic surgery units does not appear to be worthwhile." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en223_10509", "title": "Lung nodule", "score": 0.00892927853013384, "content": "A lung nodule or pulmonary nodule is a relatively small focal density in the lung. A solitary pulmonary nodule (SPN) or coin lesion, is a mass in the lung smaller than three centimeters in diameter. A pulmonary micronodule has a diameter of less than three millimetres. There may also be multiple nodules. One or more lung nodules can be an incidental finding found in up to 0.2% of chest X-rays and around 1% of CT scans. The nodule most commonly represents a benign tumor such as a granuloma or hamartoma, but in around 20% of cases it represents a malignant cancer, especially in older adults and smokers. Conversely, 10 to 20% of patients with lung cancer are diagnosed in this way. If the patient has a history of smoking or the nodule is growing, the possibility of cancer may need to be excluded through further radiological studies and interventions, possibly including surgical resection. The prognosis depends on the underlying condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0974_1819", "title": "Diffuse idiopathic pulmonary neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia: Case series and a review of the literature.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Diffuse idiopathic pulmonary neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia (DIPNECH) is a rare idiopathic disease with only about 100 cases reported in the literature. Here, we presented 4 cases of DIPNECH. Four patients included 2 females and 2 males, aged 54 to 64 years old; 3 had no smoking history and 1 had history of smoking for 30 years. Surgical resection was performed for every patient. Cases 1 and 3 did not receive postoperative chemotherapy or radiotherapy, and case 2 received 4 times of postoperative chemotherapy. Case 4 just finished the operation and after a period of time, he will receive postoperative chemotherapy. Case 1: A 57-year-old female had chest pain, and computer tomography (CT) examination prompted a mass shadow of left lung lower lobe. Case 2: A 64-year-old female had cough and expectoration for more than 1 month. CT examination showed: a lump with diameter of about 2.5 cm and irregular edge was in right lung upper lobe, being largely possibly lung cancer. Case 3: A 54-year-old male, CT examination accidentally found a long strip-shaped nodule in left lung oblique fissure when checkup's, and he had no fever, cough, expectoration, chest tightness, or chest pain. Case 4: A 61-year-old male, checkup's CT examination accidentally found a nodule, fibrosis, bronchiectasis, and secondary infection in the left lower lobe. Combined with pathological morphology and immunohistochemistry, cases 1 and 3 were diagnosed as DIPNECH with multiple carcinoid tumorlet formation and chronic inflammation and bronchiectasis, case 2 was diagnosed as an adenocarcinoma with DIPNECH and multiple carcinoid tumorlet formation, case 4 was diagnosed as an adenocarcinoma with DIPNECH and multiple carcinoid tumorlet formation and chronic inflammation and bronchiectasis. Surgical resection was performed for every patient. Cases 1 and 3 did not receive postoperative chemotherapy or radiotherapy, and case 2 received 4 times of postoperative chemotherapy. Case 4 just finished the operation and after a period of time, he will receive postoperative chemotherapy. Four patients have been followed up and have had good condition. DIPNECH is often found accidentally in a surgical specimen, is easily missed, and needs careful observation. Immunohistochemistry is necessary to make this diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0733_24280", "title": "[Diagnosis and surgical treatment of pulmonary sclerosing hemangioma].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "As a rare benign lung tumor, pulmonary sclerosing hemangioma (PSH) occurs predominantly in Asian women in their fifth and sixth decades of life. PSH is considered to be evolved from primitive undifferentiated respiratory epithelium. In this study, we summarized our experience in 89 cases of PSH. There were a total of 89 patients who received surgical resection and were histopathologically diagnosed as PSH during the period January 2001 to December 2010 in department of thoracic surgery, Cancer Institute and Hospital, Peking Union Medical College and Chinese Academy of Medical Sciences. The clinical data of these patients including symptoms, disease courses, image characteristics and surgical procedures were collected and reviewed retrospectively. The PSHs were most frequently (50.6%) found in the patients aged 41 to 60 years with a median age of 51 years (range: 24 - 71), and the sex ratio (male/female) was approximately 1:7 in this series. In the 89 patients, 53 (59.6%) were asymptomatic while the other 36 (40.4%) had some non-special symptoms such as cough (30.3%), hemoptysis (24.7%). There were only 3 cases (3.4%) with multiple PSHs, 4 cases (4.5%) combined with synchronous primary lung cancer, and 13 cases (14.6%) with lesions located in the hilar region. The median diameter of the 92 lesions was 2.3 cm (range: 0.3 - 6.0 cm), of which 38% located in the right lower lobe and 26.1% in the right middle lobe, and only about 1/3 were assumed as PSHs preoperatively based on CT imaging. One of the five patients who underwent PET-CT scan had been misdiagnosed as malignant. Of the 92 lesions, 47 were resected by enucleation, 29 by wedge resection, 14 by lobectomy, and 2 by pneumonectomy. PSH frequently occurs in the middle-aged women. Most individuals with PSH are asymptomatic or have some non-specific symptoms. Their lesions are usually found accidentally by chest imaging. Although PSH often shows typical imaging characteristics of benign neoplasm of the lung, it is difficult to establish a defined pathological diagnosis preoperatively. The significant error or deferred rate of intraoperative frozen-section evaluation for PSH may result in some unnecessarily extensive surgical procedures. The complete surgical resection is considered the only effective treatment for PSH, and the normal pulmonary tissue should be reserved as possible." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0498_4171", "title": "[Clinical features of non-small cell lung cancer cases].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The aim of this study was to evaluate the clinical features of non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) cases that were diagnosed in our clinic. The patients who were diagnosed as NSCLC in our clinic between January 1988 and January 1999 were comprised the study group. The files and records of the study group were retrospectively reviewed to identify patients and all the data including demographic characteristics, history, physical examination findings, laboratory values, diagnostic procedures, radiologic findings and staging procedures. The study group included 564 patients (506 male, 58 female). The mean age was 60 years (28-97). 87% of the patients were current smokers or ex-smokers. The most frequent symptoms on admission were cough, sputum, and dyspnea. The most common radiologic finding was a central mass with a diameter of more than 4 cm with an irregular border. The diagnosis was established by histopathologic examination of biopsy specimens obtained by various means, in which bronchoscopy was the sole means of diagnosis in 83% of the patients. Histopathologic examination of the biopsy specimens resulted as follows: 85.8% squamous cell carcinoma, 10.3% adenocarcinoma, 1.4% large cell carcinoma, 0.45% adenosquamous carcinoma, and 2.1% undifferentiated NSCLC. Staging procedures that were done in all patients revealed that 85% of the patients were diagnosed at the stage IIIB and IV. Metastasis was most frequently to the bones followed by brain and liver. In our study squamous cell carcinoma was the most common histopathologic type with a higher percentage than the previous reports in the literature. The percentages of stage IIIB and IV were also higher in our study than previous papers in the literature." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1074_16704", "title": "A case of bilateral invasive mucinous adenocarcinoma of the lung with severe productive cough and dyspnea successfully treated with palliative lung lobectomy.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Invasive mucinous adenocarcinoma (IMA) of the lung is a chemo-refractory type of lung cancer with frequent intrapulmonary dissemination. Patients with IMA of the lung often suffer from a productive cough and rapid deterioration of performance status (PS). There is currently no standard therapeutic strategy against this unrelenting condition. Here we report a patient with bilateral IMA of the lung with severe productive cough and dyspnea successfully controlled by palliative lung lobectomy. A 67-year-old Japanese man presented with a 3-month history of productive cough. Chest computed tomography (CT) revealed a mass lesion in the left lower lobe and a small nodule and multiple thin-walled cystic lesions in the right lung. He was diagnosed with stage IIB IMA of the lung. Over the next two weeks, his productive cough and dyspnea drastically worsened and his PS declined from 0 to 4. Chest CT showed increases in size of both the nodule and cystic lesions in the right lung and the mass lesion in the left lower lobe. He was re-diagnosed as stage IVA. Given the extreme heterogeneity of the tumor distribution, we decided to perform palliative resection of the left lower lobe. After the surgery, he experienced complete relief of respiratory symptoms, and his PS improved dramatically, enabling chemotherapy. Thirty-one months after surgery, he maintains good PS. In conclusion, our report suggests that aggressive introduction of palliative lung lobectomy played a substantial role for in the excellent outcome of our patient with relatively well confined, advanced-stage IMA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0057_20647", "title": "Staging: the key to rational management of lung cancer.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Staging is the quantitative assessment of malignant disease and allows logical groupings of patients with a similar extent of disease for prognostic, therapeutic, and analytic purposes. In bronchogenic carcinoma a stage is assigned based on size, location, and the extent of invasion of the primary tumor, as well as the presence of any regional or metastatic disease. Selecting the most appropriate treatment for a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma depends on precise staging. The extent of local invasion and presence of metastatic disease will determine the likelihood of complete resection and possible cure. Careful assessment of the history, blood chemistry, radiographic studies, bronchoscopy, mediastinoscopy, and exploration (thoracotomy) are all important staging tools. Routine radionuclide scans have no useful role when there is no clinical or laboratory evidence of metastases. The T status of a tumor is best judged by bronchoscopy and at thoracotomy. Thoracic surgeons must be familiar with the techniques available to determine T status intraoperatively and use this information when planning resection. Computed tomography of the chest has fallen short in predicting direct invasion of the mediastinum and chest wall. Cervical and anterior mediastinoscopy remain important tools in determining operability. Intraoperative assessment of node involvement determines the extent of resection and likelihood of cure." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 221 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 33 ] ], "text": "I think the correct answer is 4, although both lesions are resectable, pancreatic adenocarcinoma with synchronous hepatic metastases has no surgical indication because it does not prolong survival and has a high morbidity." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Adjuvant chemo/radiotherapy, conditioning radical surgery to the initial response.", "2": "Percutaneous external drainage is palliative, with eventual conversion to internal drainage in case of intolerance or complications.", "3": "Surgical biliary bypass, with or without prophylactic gastrojejunostomy depending on intraoperative findings.", "4": "Metallic biliary prosthesis by endoscopic retrograde cholangiography, with the option of palliative chemotherapy.", "5": "Cephalic duodenopancreatectomy with radiofrequency ablation or alcoholization of the liver lesion." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0339_18781", "title": "[Interventional radiology in the palliative treatment of pancreatic cancer].", "score": 0.01380642729243238, "content": "Pancreatic carcinoma often involves the head of the pancreas and obstructive jaundice is its earliest sign. It sometimes extends to celiac plexus and duodenum causing pain and bowel obstruction respectively. Only 20% of cases are totally resectable (stage I) at the time of diagnosis. Palliative treatment is the only available therapeutic option when the tumor extends surrounding organs or has given lymphatic metastases (stage II, III, IV). The aim of this study is to evaluate effectiveness of interventional radiology procedures on unresectable cancer palliative treatment. Between Jan 90 and Sep 98, 195 patients with unresectable pancreatic carcinoma received percutaneous treatments. They were 104 males and 91 females with mean age of 74 years (range, 48-95). One hundred eighty four patients underwent biliary drainage, six patients underwent celiac plexus block, two patients were treated by bowel stenting. Two patients received both biliary and bowel stents, one patient underwent biliary drainage and celiac plexus block. Jaundice treatment was performed by placement of drainage catheters in 48 patients, polymeric endoprostheses in 58 and metallic stents in 77 (67 Wallstents). Biliary drainage was successful in all cases obtaining appreciable bilirubin serum levels reduction and jaundice regression in 175 patients (95%). In 44 patients Wallstents were placed during a single PTC session time (\"one step\" technique). In 21 cases (11%) peri-procedural complications occurred. Follow-up related to 85 patients shows survival rate covered between 30 and 570 days (mean, 142). Best survival values occurred in patients who underwent \"one step\" technique. Celiac plexus block was successful in 5/7 cases (71%) with no complications, total pain relief and withdrawal of pharmacological treatment. Bowel stenting achieved complete recanalization of intestinal loop in 2 cases but showed troubles related to management of these patients. In patients with unresectable pancreatic carcinoma palliation is the only therapeutic option and has the purpose to achieve biliary tree decompression and eliminate jaundice associated symptoms, improving quality of life and reducing hospitalization. Jaundice relief is reachable by surgical, endoscopic or percutaneous approach. Surgical palliation is characterized by disadvantageous cost-effectiveness rate. Endoscopic and percutaneous palliations are alternative, although, in selected patients, percutaneous Wallstents placement by one step technique is perhaps the most successful procedure, showing high rate of technical outcome with low complications and short time spent in hospital. Celiac plexus block under CT guidance constitutes a reliable method for management of pain. At present bowel stricture treatment is surgical." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en029_11910", "title": "Cholangiography", "score": 0.01079570584214547, "content": "Cholangiography is the imaging of the bile duct (also known as the biliary tree) by x-rays and an injection of contrast medium. Types There are at least four types of cholangiography: Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC): Examination of liver and bile ducts by x-rays. This is accomplished by the insertion of a thin needle into the liver carrying a contrast medium to help to see blockage in liver and bile ducts. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). Although this is a form of imaging, it is both diagnostic and therapeutic, and is often classified with surgeries rather than with imaging. Primary cholangiography (or perioperative): Done in the operation room during a biliary drainage intervention. Secondary cholangiography: Done after a biliary drainage intervention." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_6934", "title": "ICD-9-CM Volume 3", "score": 0.010642644114883361, "content": "() Repair of liver () Other operations on liver () Operations on gallbladder and biliary tract () Cholecystotomy and cholecystostomy () Diagnostic procedures on biliary tract () Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) () Cholecystectomy () Anastomosis of gallbladder or bile duct () Incision of bile duct for relief of obstruction () Other incision of bile duct () Local excision or destruction of lesion or tissue of biliary ducts and sphincter of Oddi () Repair of bile ducts () Other operations on biliary ducts and sphincter of Oddi () Other operations on biliary tract () Operations on pancreas () Pancreatotomy () Diagnostic procedures on pancreas () Local excision or destruction of pancreas and pancreatic duct () Marsupialization of pancreatic cyst () Internal drainage of pancreatic cyst () Partial pancreatectomy () Total pancreatectomy () Radical pancreaticoduodenectomy () Transplant of pancreas () Other operations on pancreas" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en144_7133", "title": "Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Technique It is predominantly now performed as a therapeutic technique. There are less invasive means of imaging the biliary tree including transabdominal ultrasound, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography, computed tomography and endoscopic ultrasound. If the biliary system is obstructed, percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography may be used to perform biliary drainage until a more permanent solution for the obstruction is performed (e.g. surgery). Additionally, self expanding metal stents can be placed across malignant biliary strictures to allow palliative drainage. Percutaneous placement of metal stents can be utilised when therapeutic endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography has been unsuccessful, anatomy is altered precluding endoscopic access to the duodenum, or where there has been separation of the segmental biliary drainage of the liver, allowing more selective placement of metal stents." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0003_6519", "title": "[Efficacy of biliary by-pass operations in carcinoma of the head of the pancreas with jaundice (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "In the present state of detection and treatment of carcinoma of the head of the pancreas, only palliative surgery is available. The debate concerning the type of bilio-digestive by-pass is far from closed. Although by-passes using the gall bladder remain rare in France, above all reserved for advanced cancer, we prefer to use the common bile duct. The choice of the by-pass depends mainly on the local conditions and on the general state of the patient. Side-to-side choledoco-duodenal anastomosis, provided the technic is perfect and there is no duodenal obstruction, remains the simplest and therefore the most commonly used by-pass. However in cases of large pancreatic carcinomas modifying the relations between the duodenum and the bile duct or stenosing the duodenum, or as a routine whenever possible, it seems to us advisable to undertake a choledoco-jejunostomy on a Y loop (the raised loop is also used for a gastrojejunostomy), and this seems to give the most rapid recovery from the jaundice, a low mortality and ensure the longest survival." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0889_2613", "title": "Pancreatic metastases from ocular malignant melanoma: the use of endoscopic ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration to establish a definitive cytologic diagnosis: a case report.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "When encountering solid pancreatic lesions, nonpancreatic primary metastases are rare and differentiating a metastasis from a primary neoplastic lesion is challenging. The clinical presentation and radiologic features can be similar and the possibility of a pancreatic metastasis should be considered when the patient refers to a history of a different primary cancer. Endoscopic ultrasound offers a key anatomical advantage in accessing the pancreas and endoscopic ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration has become the gold standard method for diagnosing pancreatic lesions. A 58-year-old white Hispanic woman with a history of uveal malignant melanoma, presented with abdominal pain and jaundice. On admission, laboratory tests were performed (her total bilirubin was 6.37 mg/dL with a direct fraction of 5.30 mg/dL). Cross-sectional, abdominal computed tomography with contrast, showed a low-attenuating lesion localized in the pancreatic head (measuring 4 × 3 cm) and a thinner section of the distal bile duct suspicious for compression. Our patient was scheduled for an endoscopic ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration to establish a diagnosis. Endoscopic ultrasound showed a solid, hypoechoic, well-defined lesion with regular contours (measuring 3.17 × 2.61 cm), localized between the head and neck of the pancreas. Endoscopic ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration was performed with a 22G needle and cytology confirmed the diagnosis of metastatic melanoma. Our patient subsequently underwent right orbital exenteration, followed by duodenopancreatectomy without complications. At the moment our patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy at an outside oncology clinic. To the best of our knowledge, this is a very rare presentation of an ocular malignant melanoma with an isolated pancreatic metastasis causing symptomatic biliary obstruction. Endoscopic ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration has proven to be the best method to diagnose solid pancreatic lesions. In this particular case, cytology was essential in confirming the diagnosis and guiding the most adequate therapy, which was a pancreatic resection, ocular exenteration of the melanoma, followed by adjuvant chemotherapy." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_7155", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Tissue Diagnosis and Cytology Preoperative confirmation of malignancy is not always necessary in patients with radiologic appearances consistent with operable pancreatic cancer. However, EUS-guided fine-needle aspiration is the technique of choice when there is any doubt, and also for use in patients who require neoadjuvant treatment. It has an accuracy of approximately 90% and has a smaller risk of intraperitoneal dissemination compared with the percutaneous route. FIGURE 112-1 Coronal computed tomography showing pancre-atic cancer and dilated intrahepatic and pancreatic ducts (arrows). showing contrast in dilated pancreatic duct (arrows). Percutaneous biopsy of the pancreatic primary or liver metastases is only acceptable in patients with inoperable or metastatic disease. ERCP is a useful method for obtaining ductal brushings, but the sensitivity of ERCP for diagnosis ranges from 35 to 70%." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1131_4652", "title": "Endoscopic Ultrasound-Guided Biliary Drainage: Endoscopic Ultrasound-Guided Hepaticogastrostomy in Malignant Biliary Obstruction.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Patients with unresectable malignant biliary obstruction often require biliary drainage to decompress the biliary system. Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is the primary biliary drainage method whenever possible. Percutaneous Transhepatic Biliary Drainage (PTBD) is used as a salvage method if ERCP fails. Endoscopic Ultrasound-Guided Biliary Drainage (EUS-BD) provides a feasible alternative biliary drainage method where one of the methods is EUS guided Hepaticogastrostomy (EUS-HGS). Here we describe the EUS-HGS technique in a case of unresectable malignant hilar biliary obstruction to achieve biliary drainage. Presented here is the case of a 71-year-old female with painless jaundice and weight loss for 2 weeks. Computed Tomography (CT) imaging showed a 4 x 5 cm hilar tumor with lymphadenopathy and liver metastasis. EUS fine needle biopsy (FNB) of the lesion was consistent with cholangiocarcinoma. Her bilirubin levels were 212 µmol/L (&lt;15) during presentation. A linear echoendoscope was used to locate the left dilated intrahepatic ducts (IHD) of the liver. The segment 3 dilated IHD was identified and punctured using a 19 G needle. Contrast was used to opacify the IHDs under fluoroscopic guidance. The IHD was cannulated using a 0.025-inch guidewire. This was followed by the dilation of the fistula tract using a 6 Fr electrocautery dilator along with a 4 mm biliary balloon dilator. A partially covered metallic stent of 10 cm in length was deployed under fluoroscopic guidance. The distal part opens in the IHD and the proximal part was deployed within the working channel of the echoendoscope that subsequently released into the stomach. The patient was discharged three days after the procedure. Follow up performed in the second and fourth weeks showed that the bilirubin levels were 30 µmol/L and 14 µmol/L, respectively. This indicates that EUS-HGS is a safe method for biliary drainage in unresectable malignant biliary obstruction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1133_13512", "title": "Efficacy of primary drainage by endoscopic ultrasound-guided biliary drainage for unresectable pancreatic adenocarcinoma.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Obstructive jaundice induced by pancreatic adenocarcinoma is typically treated with biliary drainage with endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)-guided biliary drainage (ERCP-BD). Recently, endoscopic ultrasonography-guided biliary drainage (EUS-BD) was employed as an alternative method after ERCP-BD failed. We aimed to determine the efficacy and safety of EUS-BD for primary biliary drainage. Between December 2011 and February 2019, at Kawasaki General Medical Center, we retrospectively enrolled 33 patients who had undergone endoscopic biliary drainage with a metal stent, in a first attempt to relieve obstructive jaundice caused by unresectable pancreatic adenocarcinoma. We compared the technical and clinical outcomes between ERCP-BD and EUS-BD. Twenty-three patients underwent ERCP-BD and 10 underwent EUS-BD. Both groups achieved 100% technical success. The clinical success rates were similar between the groups: 91% (21/23 patients) for ERCP-BD and 100% (10/10 patients) for EUS-BD (<iP</i = 0.48). Biliary obstruction recurred in 6/23 patients (26%) treated with ERCP-BD and 1/10 patients (10%) treated with EUS-BD (<iP</i = 0.40). Other adverse events occurred in 4/23 patients (17%) in the ERCP-BD group and 1/10 patients (10%) in the EUS-BD group (<iP</i = 0.99). We suggest that EUS-BD could be employed for primary biliary drainage in patients with obstructive jaundice caused by unresectable pancreatic adenocarcinoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0937_7363", "title": "Primary adenosquamous cell carcinoma of the pancreas: the use of endoscopic ultrasound guided - fine needle aspiration to establish a definitive cytologic diagnosis.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Pancreatic cancer is the second most common malignancy of the gastrointestinal tract in the US, and adenocarcinoma has been identified as the most common type of pancreatic cancer. Different types of pancreatic cancers have been classified: adenocarcinoma, ductal adenosquamous carcinoma, solid pseudopapillary tumors, endocrine neoplasms, acinar cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, cystic tumors, primary lymphoma of the pancreas, and metastatic lesions of the pancreas. Adenosquamous carcinoma is extremely rare, behave in a very aggressive way and is responsible for the 1 to 4% of the pancreatic exocrine neoplastic lesions. We describe the case of an 82-years-old African American female, presenting to our institution with quantifiable weight loss (12 kg in 3 months), jaundice and abdominal pain. On admission, laboratory tests were obtained: total bilirubin: 11.07 mg/dl with a direct fraction of 10.32 mg/dl. Cross-sectional abdominal CT scan with contrast, showed a lesion localized in the pancreatic head (hypodense on T1, measuring 3.5 x 3.5 x 2.5 cm), with vascular invasion of the portal vein. EUS showed a solid, hypoechoic, not well-defined lesion (measuring 3.98 x 3.80 cm), localized between the head and neck of the pancreas. EUS-FNA was performed with a 22G needle using the fanning technique. The cytological specimens demonstrated components of both squamous carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. The patient underwent ERCP procedure, and biliary drainage was performed with an entirely covered metallic stent placement. After a month from the procedures, the patient died due to the severity of the disease. Endoscopic ultrasound has proven to be the best method to diagnose solid pancreatic lesions, including rare and aggressive type of tumors like primary adenosquamous cell carcinoma that we described in this very interesting case report." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0723_15086", "title": "Indirect biliary drainage as an alternative solution for biloma due to complicated biliary drainage.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Pancreas cancer has increased morbidity and mortality. It generally result in biliary obstruction which life threatening importance. Main biliary drainage method is endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography. When endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography is not successful, second preferred method is percutaneous biliary drainage. Percutaneous biliary drainage has some complications which is an invasive procedure. A complication of percutaneous biliary drainage due to patient iatrogenity which was not ever reported in the literature biliary drainage according to our literature research. In these circumstances an alternative solution is indirect biliary drainage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0546_12617", "title": "[Obstruction icterus--our experience].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The most common causes of extrahepatic obstruction are choledocholithiasis, malignant and benign stenosis of biliary ducts, pancreatic head carcinoma, and chronic cephalic pancreatitis. Differentiation between hepatocellular icterus with intrahepatic obstruction and extrahepatic mechanical obstruction is of utmost importance. Differential diagnosis usually includes a combination of clinical examination, biochemical testing, ultrasonography, endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), transhepatic cholangiography, computed tomography (CT), nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) and endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS). Choledocholithiasis mostly develops due to concrement migration from the gallbladder. The treatment of choice is operative therapy by either conventional method with laparotomy or endoscopic concrement extraction, the latter being preferred in case of residual concrements. Malignant stenoses of extrahepatic ducts can involve any segment of the biliary ducts or the gallbladder. The main symptom is so-called painless icterus. The condition is treated surgically by radical (various types of resection) or palliative (biliodigestive anastomoses) methods. Intraoperative lesion occurring on biliary duct procedures is generally involved in the etiology of benign stenoses of extrahepatic biliary ducts. The treatment is surgical and consists of the creation of hepaticojejunal anastomosis. The study included 151 patients admitted during a 5-year period (1999-2003) to Department of Surgery, Zabok General Hospital. Icterus was caused by choledocholithiasis in 112, carcinoma of extrahepatic biliary ducts in seven, carcinoma of the gallbladder in five, and carcinoma of the head of pancreas in 18 patients. Cephalic pancreatitis, malposition of a clamp placed during laparoscopic procedure, postoperative choledochus stricture, stricture of choledochoduodenal anastomosis and multiple cystic liver disease caused icterus in nine patients. In 106 choledocholithiasis patients, the concrement was removed by choledocholithotomy; duodenotomy and papillotomy in addition to choledochotomy were required in four patients; and creation of biliodigestive anastomosis was needed in two patients due to impossible concrement removal. Biliodigestive anastomosis was created in another 20 patients with the findings of inoperable tumor of the head of pancreas, inoperable tumor of the papilla of Vater, postoperative choledochus stenosis, stenosis of choledochoduodenal anastomosis, and chronic cephalic pancreatitis. Cephalic duodenopancreatectomy was performed in two patients, whereas other methods consistent with the etiologic substrate were employed in 17 patients. The following complications were observed in 151 patients operated on: T drain fall off (n = 2), lesion of retroduodenal choledochus (n = 1), and loosening of the cholecystojejunal anastomosis suture line (n = 1). The hospital mortality rate was 3.31% (n = 5). Impairment in the biliary duodenal drainage is an etiologic factor in the development of obstructive icterus. It is of utmost importance to differentiate hepatocellular icterus with intrahepatic obstruction from extrahepatic mechanical obstruction. The treatment depends on the etiologic factor involved. Operative treatment can be fully successful in cases caused by lithiasis or benign stenosis, whereas in cases due to malignant disease a variety of radical and operative procedures associated with a variable level of success are available. Mechanical obstructive icterus of extrahepatic biliary ducts ranks high in the morbidity and mortality in the Krapina--Zagorje County. Timely diagnosis, well planned and properly performed operative procedures could considerably improve the results achieved by the operative treatment of the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0648_8212", "title": "Preoperative biliary drainage for cancer of the head of the pancreas.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The benefits of preoperative biliary drainage, which was introduced to improve the postoperative outcome in patients with obstructive jaundice caused by a tumor of the pancreatic head, are unclear. In this multicenter, randomized trial, we compared preoperative biliary drainage with surgery alone for patients with cancer of the pancreatic head. Patients with obstructive jaundice and a bilirubin level of 40 to 250 micromol per liter (2.3 to 14.6 mg per deciliter) were randomly assigned to undergo either preoperative biliary drainage for 4 to 6 weeks, followed by surgery, or surgery alone within 1 week after diagnosis. Preoperative biliary drainage was attempted primarily with the placement of an endoprosthesis by means of endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography. The primary outcome was the rate of serious complications within 120 days after randomization. We enrolled 202 patients; 96 were assigned to undergo early surgery and 106 to undergo preoperative biliary drainage; 6 patients were excluded from the analysis. The rates of serious complications were 39% (37 patients) in the early-surgery group and 74% (75 patients) in the biliary-drainage group (relative risk in the early-surgery group, 0.54; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.41 to 0.71; P&lt;0.001). Preoperative biliary drainage was successful in 96 patients (94%) after one or more attempts, with complications in 47 patients (46%). Surgery-related complications occurred in 35 patients (37%) in the early-surgery group and in 48 patients (47%) in the biliary-drainage group (relative risk, 0.79; 95% CI, 0.57 to 1.11; P=0.14). Mortality and the length of hospital stay did not differ significantly between the two groups. Routine preoperative biliary drainage in patients undergoing surgery for cancer of the pancreatic head increases the rate of complications. (Current Controlled Trials number, ISRCTN31939699.)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0270_14505", "title": "Endoscopic sphincterotomy in the management of posttraumatic biliary fistula.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Complications after nonoperative management of hepatic trauma are rare but include persistent biliary fistula in 4% of cases. Therapy usually involves surgical drainage or hepatic resection to control the fistula. The authors present a case of hepatic biliary fistula treated nonoperatively with percutaneous drainage and endoscopic sphincterotomy. A 16-year-old girl suffered a grade III parenchymal liver fracture to the right lobe in an automobile accident. She was hemodynamically stable with no coexistent injuries and was treated nonoperatively. Over 2 weeks her total bilirubin rose to 3.2 mg/dL, and alkaline phosphatase was 463 U/L. Ultrasound showed free intraperitoneal fluid, and 2 L of bilious fluid were retrieved by paracentesis. A radionuclide scan confirmed massive extravasation of isotope from the right lobe. Two drains percutaneously placed over the parenchymal fracture produced 500 to 600 mL of bile daily. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) 1 week later showed a normal extrahepatic biliary system. A 1-cm sphincterotomy was performed without difficulty. Within 72 hours, percutaneous drains produced only 35 mL per day. The follow-up radionuclide scan showed no evidence of extrahepatic biliary extravasation, and 3 weeks later the drains were removed. Six months after the accident, results of the computerized tomography scan and liver function tests were normal. It was believed that endoscopic sphincterotomy reduced fistula output by decreasing the intrabiliary pressure caused by the ampulla, thus favoring internal drainage. This case demonstrates the effectiveness of endoscopic sphincterotomy as an alternative to direct surgical intervention for the management of posttraumatic biliary fistula." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0250_18868", "title": "[Simplified combination bypass or biliodigestive anastomosis alone in nonresectable carcinoma of the head of the pancreas?].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Between January 1, 1986 and December 31, 1992 93 patients with irresectable carcinoma of the pancreatic head underwent surgical palliation: In group I (n = 51) a single loop biliary (BB)- and gastric bypass (GB) was performed. 34 times the gastrojejunostomy was performed prophylactically. In group II (n = 42) surgical palliation was carried out only by biliary decompression in Roux-Y technique. In 30.9% gastric outlet obstruction (GOO) developed during follow-up. Both groups were comparable according to effectiveness of biliary drainage (93% (n = 42) (I); 97% (n = 38) (II)) with median post-operative bilirubin levels of 3.21 mg/dl (I) and 4.1 mg/dl (II). Cholecysto-choledocho- and hepaticojejunostomy were equally effective. Median operative time, morbidity (19.6 (I) vs. 26.2 (II)) and postoperative hospitalization were similar. Since there is a high frequency of secondary GOO after single BB we think that GB should be performed in all patients that undergo BB because secondary gastrojejunostomy at a later stage significantly increases morbidity and mortality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0970_20791", "title": "Heterotopic chondroid tissue of the main bile duct mimicking Klatskin tumor: case report and review of the literature.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Heterotopic tissue in the bile duct is a very rare condition. There are a few case reports of heterotopic tissue including gastric and pancreatic cells. However, we could not find any data regarding heterotopic chondroid tissue obstructing the common bile duct in the literature. A 56-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital with complaints of progressive jaundice and pruritus. Laboratory test results were within the normal limits except bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase which were 10.8 mg/dL and 256 IU/L, respectively. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiography (ERCP) and computed tomography (CT) revealed a biliary stricture confined to the upper part of the common bile duct. The patient was operated as soon as the bilirubin level dropped below 5 mg/dL by percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography. Despite the lack of a precise confirmation, the patient was prepared for operation considering the possibility of a malignant biliary tumor since the radiographic mass findings together with hyperbilirubinemia were highly suggestive of malignancy. The patient underwent total extrahepatic bile duct resection and Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy, and was discharged without any postoperative complications. Histologic examination of the bile duct and the nodule revealed the presence of a well-demarcated chondroid tissue within the subepithelial connective tissue. Herein, we presented the first case, to our knowledge, of heterotopic chondroid tissue of the common bile duct in the literature. It is a benign condition that should be considered in the differential diagnosis of stricture and mass-forming lesions of the bile duct." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0297_7365", "title": "[Evaluation of palliative surgical procedures in tumors of the pancreatic head].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Authors studied 87 patients with obstructive jaundice secondary to unresectable cancer of the head of the pancreas undergoing palliative biliary bypass procedure. They compared the four different types of biliodigestive anastomoses regarding to the postoperative morbidity, the mortality, the late complications and the survival. Their data suggest that Roux-en-Y choledochojejunostomy with prophylactic GEA is the optimal palliation. They studied the incidence of a second operation for duodenal obstruction. Comparing the operative mortality of each group they suggest that prophylactic gastroenterostomy adds no risk to patients, but they advise it's routine use only with choledochoenteric bypass and in lack of distant metastasis. Survival was significantly higher (p = 0.015) in the group of patients above 70 years. This data support the slower progression of the pancreatic tumor in old-age. They analyse three different factors affecting operative mortality. It was not related to the depth of jaundice and the age of the patients, but it was in a very close correlation with the preoperative blood urea nitrogen level. Authors suppose this parameter a simply and useful criteria in the selection for non-operative palliative procedures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0761_9329", "title": "Endoscopic ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy for advanced cholangiocarcinoma after failed stenting by endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Cholangiocarcinoma is common in Thailand. There are many palliative treatments available for patients with unresectable tumor, such as endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) with stents, percutaneous transhepatic biliary drainage, or surgery. In cases in which ERCP has failed, we propose an alternative technique: the use of endoscopic ultrasound with fluoroscopy to perform hepaticogastrostomy for palliative drainage instead of percutaneous transhepatic biliary drainage. A case series study was conducted between December 2005 and December 2009 of 10 patients (4 male and 6 female, average age: 57 years) who presented with severe jaundice caused by advanced cholangiocarcinoma, who were treated with this procedure after failure to drain by ERCP. We used an electronic convex curved linear-array fluoroscopy-guided echoendoscope to drain the left dilated intrahepatic duct to the stomach by metallic wallstent. We performed the procedure with the first six patients under general anesthesia and with the other four under conscious sedation. Follow-up liver function tests were done, and clinical symptoms and survival times were recorded. Hepaticogastrostomy was unsuccessful on the first two patients (success rate = 8/10; 80%), and effective drainage was obtained in only seven patients. Average total bilirubin reduction was 14.96 mg/dL (58.75%) and 18.13 mg/dL (71.20%) after 2 weeks and 4 weeks, respectively, with good quality of life. One patient was not effectively drained because of malposition of the stent. There were two patients whose stent migrated into the stomach; one needed a second session with a second wallstent, and the other needed a double pigtail stent inside the second wallstent. Follow-up survival rates were 32-194 days (average: 123 days). Endoscopic-ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy is safe and can be a good palliative option for advanced malignant biliary obstruction because it drains internally and is remote from the tumor site, promoting a long patency period of prosthesis and better quality of life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0667_23097", "title": "[Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas: indication for emergency surgery].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "In a recent multicentre randomized clinical trial, Van der Gaag et al. randomly assigned 220 patients to early surgery or preoperative biliary drainage ('Preoperative drainage for cancer of the head of the pancreas'). The rate of serious complications was significantly higher in the preoperative drainage group (p &lt; 0.001), mainly because of drainage-related complications. There was no difference in surgical complications or mortality. Data on costs and impact on quality of life were not presented, but it can be predicted that the preoperative drainage strategy would be more expensive and would have greater negative impact on quality of life. If forthcoming publications by this research group confirm this suggestion, the current paradigm - obstructive jaundice, endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography with stenting, delayed surgery for carcinoma of the head of the pancreas - should be changed to: obstructive jaundice due to peri-ampullary carcinoma should be considered an indication for emergency surgery." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en556_34602", "title": "Biloma", "score": 0.009183853340384277, "content": "Biloma is collection of bile within the abdominal cavity. It happens when there is a bile leak, for example after surgery for removing the gallbladder (laparoscopic cholecystectomy), with an incidence of 0.3–2%. Other causes are biliary surgery, liver biopsy, abdominal trauma, and, rarely, spontaneous perforation. Symptoms are usually diffused or localized abdominal pain. Ascites and peritonitis are less common. Fever is often absent. Blood tests may show leukocytosis and nonspecific liver test abnormalities. Diagnosis is by abdominal ultrasound, MRCP, or HIDA scan. Treatment depends on the severity of the condition and ranges from ERCP with sphincterotomy or stent placement to surgical hepaticojejunostomy. See also Biliary injury References External links Bile Duct Leaks Biliary tract disorders" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1129_10385", "title": "Successful Treatment of Pancreatic Fistula Following Surgery for Congenital Biliary Dilatation with Endoscopic Ultrasound-Guided Transduodenal Drainage.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Despite improvements in surgical techniques and perioperative management, postoperative pancreatic fistula (PF) is often difficult to treat and can be fatal due to various complications without effective drainage. Here, we report a case of PF following surgery for congenital biliary dilatation (CBD) successfully managed by endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)-guided transduodenal drainage. A 55-year-old woman underwent extrahepatic bile duct resection, including the gallbladder, and biliary tract reconstruction for CBD. On the 10th postoperative day (POD), computed tomography (CT) showed fluid retention observed from the upper edge of the pancreatic head to the surface of the right lobe of the liver. First, percutaneous fine-needle aspiration was performed on the fluid retention in the lateral part of the liver on the 11th POD. The amylase level in the drainage was high (30,156 U/L), and we diagnosed it as PF. Percutaneous drainage was difficult for fluid retention on the cut surface of the pancreas; thus, drainage under EUS guidance was decided. On the 13th POD, EUS was performed, a scan of the duodenal bulb revealed fluid retention with debris inside, and approximately 20-mL fluid was aspirated (amylase: 139,200 U/L). Although the inflammatory response temporarily improved, it recurred, so we decided to perform continuous drainage. On the 21st POD, EUS was performed again; a 19-G needle was used; a 0.025-in angle-type Jagwire was advanced into the fluid retention and expanded using a 7-Fr dilator; and then, a 6-Fr endoscopic nasoabscess drain (ENAD) tube was placed. On the 29th POD, CT showed that the fluid retention on the upper edge of the head of the pancreas had shrunk to a thickness of approximately 20 mm. On the 30th POD, the patient started eating. The ENAD tube was removed on the 38th POD. The patient was discharged from the hospital on the 45th POD without any symptoms. EUS-guided transduodenal drainage is an effective treatment option for postoperative PF following surgery for CBD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0640_1271", "title": "Endoscopic ultrasonography-guided biliary drainage.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Endoscopic ultrasonography-guided biliary drainage (EUS-BD) has been developed as an alternative drainage method in patients with obstructive jaundice. EUS-BD is divided into EUS-guided choledochoduodenostomy (EUS-CDS), EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy (EUS-HGS) and EUS-guided gallbladder drainage (EUS-GBD). The aim of this review is to focus on the current status and limitations of EUS-BD. A systematic review was performed to evaluate EUS-BD. MEDLINE, EMBASE and manual searches were performed to identify the pertinent English language full articles. The high success rate without fatal adverse events for EUS-CDS (93%; 28/30) and EUS-HGS (97%; 28/29) suggest the feasibility and safety of the procedures in high-volume endoscopic centers adopting various procedural techniques. Although the number of reported cases was very small, the success rate of EUS-GBD was high (100%; 14/14), without serious adverse events. Although all procedures require further assessment in a larger cohort of patients, including comparative studies between EUS-CDS or EUS-HGS versus PTBD, and EUS-GBD versus PTGBD, EUS-BD may be a promising procedure for the treatment of obstructive jaundice. However, dedicated devices for EUS-guided drainage are needed for reliable procedures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0603_24605", "title": "Autoimmune pancreatitis: an adolescent case and review of literature.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "We present a case of a 16-year-old adolescent boy with autoimmune pancreatitis and a review of the related literature. The patient was sent from a peripheral medical center, presenting with jaundice, pruritus, weight loss, and hyperglycemia of 20 days' duration. At admission, the patient was icteric, choluric, and acholic. His abdomen was soft and nontender, and the patient felt no pain in his abdomen. He had skin lesions because of scratching. Laboratory findings showed a blood glucose level of 135 mg%; total serum bilirubin, 29.4 mg%; direct bilirubin, 23 mg%; and alkaline phosphatase, 1100 IU/L. Abdominal ultrasound showed an enlarged head of the pancreas that was 30 x 35 mm. The parenchyma was slightly heterogeneous. Abdominal computed tomography showed an enlarged head of the pancreas with a normal body and tail, thickened duodenal wall, and dilated intra- and extrahepatic biliary tract, and the distal choledochus was not visible. Magnetic resonance imaging showed dilated intra- and extrahepatic biliary tract. The choledochus was not visible, and the cystic duct ended abruptly. The pancreas head was enlarged and homogenous, and there were no changes with contrast. Wirsung's duct was not dilated. Laparotomy was performed with a presumed diagnosis of pancreatic head tumor. The pancreas was diffusely indurated and enlarged; biopsy and intraoperative cholangiography were performed. The biliary tract was dilated with no duodenal passage of contrast, and the Wirsung's duct was not observed. Cholecystectomy was performed, and a transcystic drain was positioned. The histopathology was compatible with autoimmune pancreatitis. Prednisone treatment was started with good response. Autoimmune pancreatitis is a very rare entity among children and adolescents. It should be suspected when characteristic clinical signs and radiographic images are associated with a higher level of IgG4. Autoimmune pancreatitis is confirmed by biopsy. Treatment with prednisone often alleviates all the symptoms, as what happened in this case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0513_17030", "title": "[Preoperative biliary drainage in the pancreatic head carcinoma].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Hemipancreatoduodenectomy has remained afflicted with high postoperative morbidity rates. Preoperative icterus is considered a significant risk factor. Therefore, a preoperative biliary drainage has been considered a standard preoperative procedure. This study aims to assess the preoperative drainage of the biliary tract significance with respect to the postoperative complications rates. This retrospective study includes 304 patients after completed hemipancreatoduodenectomies, who were operated in the 1st Surgical Clinic of the 1st Medical Faculty of the Charles University and the General Faculty Hospital in Prague between January 1990 and December 2002. In this trial group, 144 patients had underwent preoperative drainage of the biliary ducts and 160 patients underwent surgical procedures without the preoperative drainage. In the trial group, no significant difference in the gender rates, the history of the risk factors, the surgical procedure duration, the perioperative blood loss and the disease stage was detected. The patient trial group with the preoperative drainage of the biliary ducts completed was statistically significantly older (p = 0.05), had higher serum bilirubin levels recorded (118, respectively 81, p = 0.01), had more complications recorded postoperatively (42.4%, respectively 25%; p = 0.05), and more infectious complications (29%, respectively 13%; p = 0.05) when compared with the trial group without the preoperative drainage completed. Upon comparison of the both groups, we have not detected any statistically significant differences regarding the time interval between the diagnosis and the surgical procedure, the hospitalization duration or the mortality rates. The operated who had had the internal drainage of the biliary ducts conduted preoperatively, suffered from more complications in total as well as from more infectious complications, compared with the patients without the drainage. On the other hand, the patients who had had the preoperative drainage completed were older and had had higher preoperative bilirubin levels. With respect to the above results we strongly advise the patients with the pancreatic head carcinoma to early consult a hepatobiliary surgeon. As far as the examination algorithm is concerned, we strongly recommend using not only the spiral CT, but also non-invasive methods of examination (the MRI and the MRI cholangiography)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0844_9084", "title": "Diagnosis of ganglionar tuberculosis by endoscopic ultrasonography.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS) is an endoscopic technique of proven clinical validity today, having a significant impact on the diagnosis and evaluation of several diseases with a low complication rate. The EUS-fine-needle aspiration (FNA) allows the evaluation of subepithelial lesions, extra-luminal lymph nodes or the gastrointestinal tract that are difficult to access by other methods with safe and high diagnostic accuracy. In the case reported, the EUS-FNA was useful for the differential diagnosis with residual biliary microlithiasis and the diagnosis of non-oncologic pathology. Male, white, 35-year-old, human immunodeficiency virus and tuberculosis treatment for about 5 months presented with jaundice. No fever, weight loss or abdominal pain. Choluria and hipocholia. History of cholecystectomy for about 1 year due to cholelithiasis. Laboratory tests showed cholestatic jaundice (direct hyperbilirrubinemia). Abdominal ultrasound showed liver without particularities, without biliary dilatation or filling defects. Initially suspected hepatitis due tuberculosis drugs so, the treatment was suspended. After a week with no drugs, no improvement in jaundice was observed. In contrast, a progressive increase indirect bilirubin. EUS performed with identification of mass along the distal common bile duct near the duodenal papilla. FNA performed with the presence of lymphocytes and tuberculosis bacile positive. After, endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography was performed with sphincterotomy and placement of endoprosthesis for biliary drainage. The tuberculosis drugs were restarted with the plan to complete. The jaundice was resoluted. The patient completed 9 months of treatment and abdominal tomography has not identified a mass in that place. The EUS-FNA was proven to be a useful tool for diagnosis of non-oncologic pathologies like tuberculosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0091_11013", "title": "[Extrahepatic biliodigestive anastomoses. Analysis of 227 cases].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The authors analyze their experience with 227 biliodigestive anastomoses to compare the early and late results. Choledocholithiasis (49%) and cancer of the pancreas (25%) were the most common processes. Choledochoduodenostomy (48%), cholecystojejunostomy (22%), sphincteroplasty (18%) and hepaticojejunostomy (9%) were the techniques most often used. In 61% of cases (90% of the malignant tumors) there was an emergency indication. Twenty-one percent of the patients presented serious complications in the postoperative period (14% of the benign tumors), half of which depended on the bypass. Postoperative peritonitis (2%), external biliary fistula (4%) and acute pancreatitis (2%) were the most significant surgical complications. Hepaticojejunostomy induced the largest number of bypass-dependent complications. There were 12 deaths due to medical causes (5%), these being most numerous in subjects with neoplasms and cholecystojejunostomy, and 8 of surgical origin (4%), half of them in carriers of a hepaticojejunostomy. There was a clear decline in the morbidity of patients operated on in recent years. In the long term, 91% of the patients remained free of discomfort or had minimal symptoms. Choledochoduodenostomy or sphincteroplasty produced the best results. It is concluded that biliodigestive anastomoses yield the best early and late results with minimal secondary effects." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1019_10747", "title": "Palliative Measures with Ethanol Gallbladder Ablation and Endobiliary Radiofrequency Ablation Followed by Endoscopic Biliary Stent Placement in an Advanced Case of Common Bile Duct Cancer: A Case Report.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Endobiliary radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is a procedure performed widely to induce locoregional tumor control by the transfer of thermal energy to the lesion and subsequent tumor necrosis. A 72-year-old male with a prior history of acute calculous cholangitis and perforated cholecystitis was admitted to the Kyungpook National University Hospital complaining of fever and nausea. He had an indwelling percutaneous transhepatic gallbladder drainage (PTGBD) catheter from the previous episode of perforated cholecystitis. An abdominal CT scan showed marked dilation of both the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts. Common bile duct cancer was confirmed histologically after an endobiliary biopsy. A surgical resection was considered to be the initial treatment option. During open surgery, multiple metastatic nodules were present in the small bowel mesentery and anterior abdominal wall. Resection of the tumor was not feasible, so endobiliary RFA was performed prior to biliary stenting. Cholecystectomy was required for the removal of the PTGBD catheter, but the surgical procedure could not be performed due to a cystic ductal invasion of the tumor. Instead, chemical ablation of the gallbladder (GB) with pure ethanol was performed to breakdown the GB mucosa. Palliative treatment for a biliary obstruction was achieved successfully using these procedures. In addition, a PTGBD catheter was removed successfully without significant side effects. As a result, an improvement in the patient's quality of life was accomplished." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0386_16736", "title": "[Clinical signs, diagnosis and surgical treatment of extrahepatic biliary duct tumors].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Experience of surgical treatment of 271 patients the extrahepatic biliary ducts tumor for the 1992-1999 yrs period is presented. Indirect signs of extrahepatic biliary ducts tumor were revealed in 84% of observations. Depending on the tumor localization the trustworthiness of the endoscopic retrograde pancreatocholangiography method had constituted from 79.8 to 96.4%. Correct diagnosis was established before the operation in 94.3% of patients. Radical operation was done in 93 (34.3%) of patients, including 22 with proximal localization of tumor, 13--with central one, 10--distal, 48--terminal. Palliative operation was performed in 178 patients, in 76 of them biliodigestive anastomosis was done. Total postoperative mortality was 14.8%." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1122_16333", "title": "Diagnostic challenges and management of choledochal cyst in an 11-year-old child: a delayed diagnosis (a case report).", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Choledochal cyst are rare congenital disease of the biliary tree. It presenting as cystic dilatations of the biliary tree can involve the extrahepatic biliary radicles, the intrahepatic biliary radicles or both. They are typically a surgical problem of infancy and childhood, but less than a quarter of the patients the diagnosis is delayed until adulthood as it presenting with vague and nonspecific signs and symptoms. In a case with biliary symptoms, abdominal ultrasound scan is the initial imaging modality of choice. Precise and accurate delineation of the biliary system mandates cholangiography with the advantage of non-invasive magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) over endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography. A case report of 11-year-old Tanzania girl with abdominal swelling and jaundice presented to a health facility for evaluation. She complained of abdominal swelling that her mother noticed when she was 3 years old, located above the umbilicus and since then it was not changed its size until 8 years later when it rapidly increased in size associated with non-specific dull pain. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan was done showed A well-defined hypo-attenuated non-enhancing retro-gastric cyst. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiopancreatography (PTC) was performed due to inconclusive findings from CT-scan showed extrahepatic huge cystic dilatation, dilated central right hepatic ducts, left intrahepatic ducts failed to be visualize. Diagnosis of choledochal cyst type isovaleric acidaemia (IVA) was made. Explorative laparotomy was done, huge cystic mass occupying common bile duct was seen below the liver with distended gallbladder covered with visceral peritoneum. Second part of duodenum, pancreases and transverse colon was adhered to the inferior surface of the mass that further make difficult for cyst excision and reconstruction. Cyst was decongested and cholangioenterostomy with Roue-en-Y reconstruction was made. Cholecystectomy was done, hemostasis archived abdomen closed and patient sent to Intensive care units (ICU). Despite of advanced diagnostic modalities, delayed diagnosis of choledochal cyst can be a challenge due to its vague and nonspecific signs and symptoms. Excision of the cyst and reconstruction by hepatojejunostomy as the standard therapy could be difficult due to its biliary complications such as adhesion and infection and hence cyst-enterostomy drainage procedure can be done as option for relief of patient discomfort and prevent further complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1083_12135", "title": "Outcomes and limitations of endoscopic ultrasound-guided hepaticogastrostomy in malignant biliary obstruction.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Transpapillary biliary drainage in ERCP is an established method for symptomatic treatment of patients with unresectable malignant biliary obstruction. Percutaneous transhepatic biliary drainage frequently remains the treatment of choice when the transpapillary approach proves ineffective. Recently, EUS-guided extra-anatomical anastomoses of bile ducts to the gastrointestinal tract have been reported as an alternative to percutaneous biliary drainage. To assess the usefulness of extra-anatomical intrahepatic biliary duct anastomoses to the gastrointestinal tract as endotherapy for unresectable malignant biliary obstruction and to determine factors affecting the efficacy of treatment. A prospective analysis of the treatment results of all patients with unresectable biliary obstruction treated with EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy at our institution in the years 2016-2019. Transmural intrahepatic biliary drainage (EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy) was performed due to the ineffectiveness of ERCP in 53 patients (38 males, 15 females; mean age 74.66 [56-89] years) with unresectable biliary obstruction. Technical success of EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy was achieved in 52/53 (98.11%) patients. Complications of endoscopic treatment were observed in 10/53 (18.87%) patients. Clinical success of EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy was achieved in 46/53 (86.79%) patients. Bismuth type II-IV cholangiocarcinoma, hepatic metastases, ascites, suppurative cholangitis, and high blood bilirubin levels exceeding 30 mg/dL were independent factors for increased complications and inefficacy of EUS-guided hepaticogastrostomy. In the event of transpapillary biliary drainage proving ineffective, extra-anatomical anastomoses of intrahepatic bile ducts to the gastrointestinal tract provide an effective method for the treatment of patients with malignant biliary obstruction." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en144_7134", "title": "Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Cholangiography during a biliary drainage intervention is called perioperative or primary choloangiography, and when performed later in the same drain it is called secondary cholangiography. Indications Cholestatic jaundice, to exclude extra hepatic bile duct obstruction, prior to biliary drainage procedure. If endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography has failed and/or there is an obstruction in the proximal biliary tree. Contraindications Bleeding tendency Biliary tract sepsis Being unfit for surgery Hydatid cysts Ascites CLD (Chronic liver disease)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0279_17516", "title": "[Diagnostic and therapeutic integration in ductal carcinoma of the head of the pancreas. Preliminary note].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "The diagnosis and treatment of pancreatic ductal carcinoma are managed, in our hospital, by a team of radiologist, surgeons, radiotherapists and pathologists. In periodic meetings they discuss the clinical cases before and after clinico-radiologic staging. Patients are entered one of three different treatment routes, based on their general status, on disease stage, tumor size and its arrangement around common bile duct and main pancreatic duct. Thirty-eight patients were studied: 23 of them, considered as resectable on the basis of imaging (CT, US) findings, were submitted to radical surgery and intraoperative radiotherapy (route I); of 11 unresectable cases, 8 had a bilio-digestive bypass and interstitial brachitherapy with 125I seeds (tumor size &lt; 3 cm). Eleven patients unresectable by imaging and 1 by surgery followed treatment route II, characterized by radio-chemotherapy followed by intraluminal radiotherapy with 192Ir wires, relative to residual tumor size and to lesion arrangement around access ways. Four patients with metastases and \"adequate\" tumor size entered treatment route III-i.e., merely palliative luminal radiotherapy. This preliminary note stresses the importance of polyspecialistic team work in the diagnosis and treatment of pancreatic ductal carcinomas." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 36 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 4 ] ], "text": "Perform urgent coronary angiography." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Start i.v. nitrate infusion.", "2": "Perform fibrinolysis with tenecteplase (TNK).", "3": "Perform urgent coronary angioplasty.", "4": "Administer furosemide 40 mg i.v.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0963_24618", "title": "Seventy-six-year-old man with progressive dyspnoea.", "score": 0.01770050125313283, "content": "A 76-year-old man with 50 years of smoking history was diagnosed in 2012 with diffuse interstitial lung disease, with radiological data of usual interstitial pneumonia. He came to the emergency room presenting with progression of dyspnoea for 1 week, concomitant with loss of 5 kg of weight, anorexia and poor general condition. He had tachypnoea at rest (30 breaths/min), peripheral cyanosis, speech interfered by cough and breathlessness, baseline oxygen saturation 90%, heart rate 40 beats/min and blood pressure 130/70 mm Hg. Chest X-ray was performed and there was basal atelectasia of the right lung. ECG and urgent echocardiogram (transthoracic echocardiogram, TTE) were also performed (figure 1). Which of the following best explains the patient's situation?heartjnl;105/1/74/F1F1F1Figure 1(A) ECG. (B) Long-axis parasternal view from the transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE). (C) Four-chamber view from the TTE.Acute pulmonary embolismNon-ST elevation myocardial infarctionCardiac lymphomaCardiac myxomaMobitz type II AV block." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0680_16690", "title": "[Comments on the 2010 guidelines on cardiopulmonary resuscitation of the European Resuscitation Council].", "score": 0.01763791763791764, "content": "Administer chest compressions (minimum 100/min, minimum 5 cm depth) at a ratio of 30:2 with ventilation (tidal volume 500-600 ml, inspiration time 1 s, F(I)O₂ if possible 1.0). Avoid any interruptions in chest compressions. After every single defibrillation attempt (initially biphasic 120-200 J, monophasic 360 J, subsequently with the respective highest energy), chest compressions are initiated again immediately for 2 min independent of the ECG rhythm. Tracheal intubation is the optimal method for securing the airway during resuscitation but should be performed only by experienced airway management providers. Laryngoscopy is performed during ongoing chest compressions; interruption of chest compressions for a maximum of 10 s to pass the tube through the vocal cords. Supraglottic airway devices are alternatives to tracheal intubation. Drug administration routes for adults and children: first choice i.v., second choice intraosseous (i.o.). Vasopressors: 1 mg epinephrine every 3-5 min i.v. After the third unsuccessful defibrillation amiodarone (300 mg i.v.), repetition (150 mg) possible. Sodium bicarbonate (50 ml 8.4%) only for excessive hyperkaliemia, metabolic acidosis, or intoxication with tricyclic antidepressants. Consider aminophylline (5 mg/kgBW). Thrombolysis during spontaneous circulation only for myocardial infarction or massive pulmonary embolism; during on-going cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) only when indications of massive pulmonary embolism. Active compression-decompression (ACD-CPR) and inspiratory threshold valve (ITV-CPR) are not superior to good standard CPR. Most effective improvement of outcome by prevention of full cardiorespiratory arrest. Basic life support: initially five rescue breaths, followed by chest compressions (100-120/min depth about one third of chest diameter), compression-ventilation ratio 15:2. Foreign body airway obstruction with insufficient cough: alternate back blows and chest compressions (infants), or abdominal compressions (children &gt;1 year). Treatment of potentially reversible causes: (\"4 Hs and 4 Ts\") hypoxia and hypovolaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperkalaemia, hypothermia, and tension pneumothorax, tamponade, toxic/therapeutic disturbances, thrombosis (coronary/pulmonary). Advanced life support: adrenaline (epinephrine) 10 µg/kgBW i.v. or i.o. every 3-5 min. Defibrillation (4 J/kgBW; monophasic or biphasic) followed by 2 min CPR, then ECG and pulse check. NEWBORNS: Initially inflate the lungs with bag-valve mask ventilation (p(AW) 20-40 cmH₂O). If heart rate remains &lt;60/min, start chest compressions (120 chest compressions/min) and ventilation with a ratio 3:1. Maintain normothermia in preterm babies by covering them with foodgrade plastic wrap or similar. POSTRESUSCITATION PHASE: Early protocol-based intensive care stabilization; initiate mild hypothermia early regardless of initial cardiac rhythm [32-34°C for 12-24 h (adults) or 24 h (children); slow rewarming (&lt;0.5°C/h)]. Consider percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in patients with presumed cardiac ischemia. Prediction of CPR outcome is not possible at the scene, determine neurological outcome &lt;72 h after cardiac arrest with somatosensory evoked potentials, biochemical tests and neurological examination. ACUTE CORONARY SYNDROME: Even if only a weak suspicion of an acute coronary syndrome is present, record a prehospital 12-lead ECG. In parallel to pain therapy, administer aspirin (160-325 mg p.o. or i.v.) and clopidogrel (75-600 mg depending on strategy); in ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and planned PCI also prasugrel (60 mg p.o.). Antithrombins, such as heparin (60 IU/kgBW, max. 4000 IU), enoxaparin, bivalirudin or fondaparinux depending on the diagnosis (STEMI or non-STEMI-ACS) and the planned therapeutic strategy. In STEMI define reperfusion strategy depending on duration of symptoms until PCI, age and location of infarction. TRAUMA: In severe hemorrhagic shock, definitive control of bleeding is the most important goal. For successful CPR of trauma patients a minimal intravascular volume status and management of hypoxia are essential. Aggressive fluid resuscitation, hyperventilation and excessive ventilation pressure may impair outcome in patients with severe hemorrhagic shock. Any CPR training is better than nothing; simplification of contents and processes is the main aim." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0306_5792", "title": "[Acute thoracic aortic dissection with occlusion of the left coronary artery].", "score": 0.017410310521555623, "content": "Aortic dissection is the most common fatal condition that involves the aorta. Occasionally, symptoms mimic acute myocardial infarction leading to thrombolytic treatment. Accurate diagnosis in patients with chest pain is therefore essential. We describe a case of acute aortic dissection which resulted in myocardial infarction due to obstruction of the left coronary ostium. A 65-year-old female patient with no previous cardiac history was admitted to a local hospital because of severe chest pain of acute onset. Physical examination was normal except for a low blood pressure (90/50 mm Hg), heart rate 45 beats/min and parasthesia in both hands. The ECG showed sinus bradycardia with negative T-wave in VI and with 1 mm ST-segment elevation in V3. A chest X-ray was normal. Five hours later, the patient experienced once more severe chest pain followed by non-sustained polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (Figure 1). Another ECG showed bifascicular bundle branch block (right bundle branch block and left anterior fascicular block). The ECG was interpreted as showing acute myocardial infarction and treatment with intravenous streptokinase started. Since the patient remained severely hypotensive despite infusion of dobutamine, she was intubated, ventilated and transferred to our hospital. Cardiac catheterization showed acute dissection of the ascending aorta with an aortic intimal flap and an occlusion of the left coronary artery (Figures 2a and b). During catheterization, she suffered a cardiac arrest from which she could not be resuscitated. A postmortem examination confirmed the acute aortic dissection which reached to the ostium of the left coronary artery (Figures 3a and b, 4a and b) and an anterior myocardial infarction probably due to intermitted diastolic obstruction of the ostium of the left coronary artery by an aortic intimal flap." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1015_21876", "title": "Diagnostic computed tomography in acute interscapular pain.", "score": 0.014916595380667237, "content": "Clinical introductionA man in his 60s with no medical history presented with sudden-onset, severe interscapular pain. He was in circulatory shock with a blood pressure of 65/30 mm Hg, heart rate of 115 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and a room air oxygen saturation of 89%. Examination demonstrated weak peripheral pulses, an elevated jugular venous pressure, faint dual heart sounds, no cardiac murmurs and bilateral lung crepitations. An ECG was recorded which showed a broad QRS (figure 1A). There were no previous ECGs to compare this with. In view of his presentation with acute-onset interscapular pain, CT of the aorta was organised by the emergency department clinicians (figure 1B-D). After the CT result was obtained, the on-call cardiologist was contacted and a bedside echocardiogram performed. This demonstrated severe left ventricular systolic dysfunction with akinesia of the apex and lateral walls. The patient was then transferred to the catheter laboratory for an emergency invasive coronary angiogram.heartjnl;106/2/126/F1F1F1Figure 1ECG and CT images at presentation (A) 12 lead ECG. (B) Contrast enhanced CT aorta - coronal view. (C) Contrast enhanced CT aorta - axial view. (D) CT aorta showing 4 chamber view of the heart. WHAT IS THE MOST LIKELY DIAGNOSIS?: Pulmonary embolism.Aortic dissection.Acute myocardial infarction.Cardiac tamponade." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0971_18306", "title": "Pulmonary embolectomy in a case of subacute pulmonary embolism, with previous unsuccessful fibrinolysis", "score": 0.01466181506849315, "content": "Pulmonary embolism is a potentially fatal heart condition that requires prompt restoration of blood flow in the pulmonary vascular bed and prevention of recurrent events. Mortality is associated to the degree of hemodynamic repercussion, complications and opportunity in the treatment. Male 33 years of age who began with sudden dyspnea, chest pain of moderate intensity, sweating and syncope. His admission vitals signs: blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg, heart rate 125 beats per minute, respiratory rate 24; peripheral saturation 85 %. Physical examination: grade I jugular engorgement at 45 degrees, rhythmic heart sounds, with auscultation of systolic murmur I/IV in tricuspid focus and second reinforced heart sound. Rest of exploration without relevant data. The echocardiogram showed data of right ventricular failure and systolic pulmonary artery pressure of 60 mm Hg; the angiotomography showed thrombosis of both branches of the pulmonary artery. The patient received fibrinolytic therapy with tecneteplase 50 mg single bolus and antithrombotic therapy. Due to persistence of residual thrombus, the patient underwent surgical bilateral embolectomy. Surgical pulmonary embolectomy rescue is an alternative management with highly satisfactory results." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_625", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010084568178416405, "content": "History of myocardial infarction Current angina considered to be ischemic Requirement for sublingual nitroglycerin Positive exercise test Pathological Q-waves on ECG History of PCI and/or CABG with current angina considered to be ischemic Left ventricular failure by physical examination History of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea History of pulmonary edema S3 gallop on cardiac auscultation Bilateral rales on pulmonary auscultation Pulmonary edema on chest x-ray History of transient ischemic attack History of cerebrovascular accident Treatment with insulin Abbreviations: CABG, coronary artery bypass grafting; ECG, electrocardiogram; PCI, percutaneous coronary interventions. Source: Adapted from TH Lee et al: Circulation 100:1043, 1999." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1093_2274", "title": "Spontaneous Hemoptysis in a Patient With COVID-19.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 65-year-old man presented with shortness of breath, gradually worsening for the previous 2 weeks, associated with dry cough, sore throat, and diarrhea. He denied fever, chills, chest pain, abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting. He did not have any sick contacts or travel history outside of Michigan. His medical history included hypertension, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, morbid obesity, paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, and tobacco use. He was taking amiodarone, carvedilol, furosemide, pregabalin, and insulin. The patient appeared to be in mild respiratory distress. He was afebrile and had saturation at 93% on 3 L of oxygen, heart rate of 105 beats/min, BP of 145/99 mm Hg, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min. On auscultation, there were crackles on bilateral lung bases and chronic bilateral leg swelling with hyperpigmented changes. His WBC count was 6.0 K/cumm (3.5 to 10.6 K/cumm) with absolute lymphocyte count 0.7 K/cumm (1.0 to 3.8 K/cumm); serum creatinine was 2.81 mg/dL (0.7 to 1.3 mg/dL). He had elevated inflammatory markers (serum ferritin, C-reactive protein, lactate dehydrogenase, D-dimer, and creatinine phosphokinase). Chest radiography showed bilateral pulmonary opacities that were suggestive of multifocal pneumonia (Fig 1). Nasopharyngeal swab for SARS-CoV-2 was positive. Therapy was started with ceftriaxone, doxycycline, hydroxychloroquine, and methylprednisolone 1 mg/kg IV for 3 days. By day 3 of hospitalization, he required endotracheal intubation, vasopressor support, and continuous renal replacement. Blood cultures were negative; respiratory cultures revealed only normal oral flora, so antibiotic therapy was discontinued. On day 10, WBC count increased to 28 K/cumm, and chest radiography showed persistent bilateral opacities with left lower lobe consolidation. Repeat respiratory cultures grew Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Table 1). Antibiotic therapy with IV meropenem was started. His condition steadily improved; eventually by day 20, he was off vasopressors and was extubated. However, on day 23, he experienced significant hemoptysis that required reintubation and vasopressor support." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0307_11325", "title": "[The role of 2D-doppler electrocardiography in the early diagnosis of massive acute pulmonary embolism and therapeutic monitoring].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Early diagnosis is important for the prognosis of patients affected with pulmonary embolisms. The mortality rate ranges from 30% in untreated cases to 10% in cases getting early treatment. In this context, it is essential to obtain a correct diagnosis in order to start the best treatment for each patient. The aim of our study is to evaluated the contribution of mono- bidimensional echocardiography and color-doppler for the early diagnosis of acute massive pulmonary embolism. We examined 23 patients (14 women with a mean age of 67 +/- 13 years; 9 men with a mean age of 58 +/- 16 years) who were referred to us for observation over a 30-month period. These patients had been admitted to the intensive care unit for suspected acute massive pulmonary embolism and the diagnosis was subsequently confirmed by a pulmonary scintigraphy. None of the 23 patients showed a positive case history of previous heart disease and/or pulmonary disease. The patients were checked using 2D-doppler echocardiography, 120 +/- 45 minutes from the onset of the symptoms. They were then divided into two groups (A and B) based on the presence or absence of thromboembolus in the right cavity of the heart. Seven patients (30%) revealed thromboemboli and were treated effectively with rt-PA (100 mg/2 hours). An increase in the size of the right ventricle with an affected rate RV/LV &gt; 0.6 and the abnormal kinetics of the ventricular septum proved to be the most sensitive parameters for right ventricular overload, as signs of acute massive pulmonary ambolisms were observed in all 23 patients. Tricuspid regurgitation speed (from 2.9 to 3.6 m/sec) and peak systolic pulmonary pressure (67 mmHg) were recorded in all patients. Our observations suggest that the hemodynamic effects of an acute massive pulmonary embolism can be enumerated and monitored by analyzing ventricle size and septum kinetics. To summarize, echocardiography proved to be a simple and realistic test. It enabled correct diagnosis and made it possible not only to start thrombolytic therapy without requiring other exams, but also to monitor and evaluate the effects of this therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1130_20911", "title": "A 24-Year-Old Man With Dyspnea and a Broken Left Femur.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 24-year-old White man presented with 1-day complaints of progressive shortness of breath and fever. He recently underwent an open reduction and internal fixation of a left midshaft femur fracture from a skiing accident 4 days ago. He denied chest pain, skin rashes, hemoptysis, hematemesis, melena, or surgical site bleeding. On arrival, the patient appeared in mild respiratory distress with a respiratory rate of 23 breaths/min, temperature of 37.8°C, heart rate of 97 beats/min, BP of 95/54 mm Hg, and peripheral saturation of 97% on 6-L/min nasal canula. His initial peripheral saturation on room air was 67%. Physical examination was unremarkable, except for diffuse rhonchi on chest auscultation. Chest radiograph on admission showed alveolar opacities predominantly in bilateral lower lobes. A chest CT angiography revealed no evidence for pulmonary embolism. However, there were findings of diffuse bilateral ground-glass opacities with areas of patchy consolidation and innumerous micronodules in both lungs (Fig 1). Laboratory examination was significant for a drop of hemoglobin by 3 g/dL and hematocrit level by 7% since his hospital discharge 4 days earlier. His renal function and urine analysis were normal. Venous blood gas on admission showed pH of 7.39 and Pco<sub2</sub of 43 mm Hg. Because of unexplained acute anemia, nonspecific CT chest findings and progressive dyspnea, a bronchoscopy with BAL was performed. Four aliquots of 60 mL saline solution were injected for lavage with fluid return (Fig 2). BAL fluid showed WBC count of 0.411 × 10<sup3</sup/mm<sup3</sup, RBC count of 318 × 10<sup3</sup/mm<sup3</sup, 100% fresh RBCs, 73% neutrophil, 24% lymphocytes, 1% monocytes, and 2% eosinophils. BAL fluid cytologic condition is shown in Figure 3. A full vasculitis workup by rheumatology was unremarkable. Ophthalmologic and skin examination were unrevealing." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0103_4593", "title": "[Hemodynamic course during fibrinolysis in severe pulmonary embolism].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Seventy seven cases of severe pulmonary embolism (Miller index greater than 13 points) including 61 acute (under 5 days) and 16 subacute episodes, underwent continuous haemodynamic monitoring during treatment with either urokinase 2 000 U/kg/h for 24 hours with heparin (Group I: 18 patients), or urokinase 4 500 U/kg/h for 12 hours without heparin (Group II: 47 patients), or with streptokinase 2 00 000 U over 10 hours (Group III: 12 patients). Efficacy was defined as greater than 20% improvement of Miller index at control angiography after 48 hours (Group I: 10 patients, Group II: 31 patients, Group III: 8 patients). In the 49 patients (63%) with good results, the Miller index fell by about 50% with a significant increase in cardiac index (20%) from the 12th hour. There was a concomitant fall in pulmonary systolic arterial pressure (35%). In the 28 patients (37%) with partial improvement a 20% increase in cardiac index and an 18% fall in pulmonary systolic arterial pressure were observed only in the high dose urokinase group, despite incomplete pulmonary revascularisation demonstrating the vasodilator effect of this protocol. Fibrinolysis was repeated in the patients with incomplete results or a Miller index of over 13 points, leading to improvement in 78% of patients. Accelerated lysis of pulmonary embolism leads to rapid normalisation of haemodynamic parameters and improves the prognosis of massive pulmonary embolism by reducing the number of recurrences and the mortality rate (4%)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0960_13522", "title": "Twenty-three year-old with pleuritic chest pain.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 23-year-old woman followed at another medical centre for congenital heart disease (CHD) presented to our emergency clinic with 3 weeks of bilateral pleuritic chest pain. She returned from holiday in Greece 6 weeks earlier where a tattoo and nasal piercing had been performed. There was no history of night sweats or fever.Her temperature was 37.5°C, heart rate 120 beats/min, oxygen saturations 94% on room air and blood pressure 110/74. Her chest was clear and there was systolic murmur on auscultation. The chest radiograph showed peripheral bilateral lower zone atelectasis. The ECG demonstrated sinus tachycardia. The haemoglobin was 11.2 g/dL, white cell count 10.18×10<sup9</sup/L, C-reactive protein 67 mg/L (normal &lt;5 mg/L) and D dimer=430 ng/mL (normal &lt;230 ng/mL).A pulmonary embolus was suspected and a CT pulmonary angiogram was performed (figure 1). Based on the CT findings, what is the most likely underlying congenital heart lesion in this patient?Bicuspid aortic valveCoarctation of the aortaFontan circulationParachute mitral valveVentricular septal defect heartjnl;105/6/464/F1F1F1Figure 1CT pulmonary angiogram (coronal views)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0346_278", "title": "[Pulmonary thromboembolism angiographically confirmed: clinical and prognostic aspects].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The aim of this study was to evaluate the clinical profile and prognosis of patients with an angiographically proven thromboembolism. Data from 22 consecutive patients (13 males, 9 females; mean age 57.3 +/- 16.8 years) with pulmonary embolism confirmed by pulmonary angiography were reviewed. All our patients were previously submitted to non-invasive diagnostic procedures (blood examinations, EKG, chest x-ray, echocardiography). A V/Q scan was also performed in 5 patients. Fourteen patients were traditionally treated with heparin alone and the rest received thrombolytic therapy and heparin. Two patients had a thromboembolectomy. At discharge, all our patients were submitted to an oral anticoagulant therapy. The mean duration of the follow-up period was 26 +/- 12 months. The majority of the patients were in the 6th decade of life and it was possible to identify a hypercoagulable state in 82%. The most common symptom at the time of presentation was sudden chest pain (64%). The most specific sign in non-invasive procedures were right side cardiac dilatation seen echocardiographically (73%) and the mismatch in the V/Q scan (80%). The most common haemodynamic parameter (91%) observed in the right heart catheterization of these patients was the finding of a gradient between diastolic pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressures. Uneventful angiography was performed in all patients who showed massive pulmonary embolism (86%). Three patients (13.6%) died during the acute phase. At the end of the follow-up period, 10 patients were asymptomatic and 5 had heart failure. Four died, which corresponds to an overall mortality of 31.8% in 2.2 years of follow-up. None of the clinical or haemodynamic parameters analyzed (age, gender, arterial blood gases at presentation, hypercoagulable states, thrombolysis, pulmonary hypertension and extension of the embolism) were related to mortality. Angiographically confirmed pulmonary thromboembolism is still a poor outcome situation, even when a lot of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures are available." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0988_10005", "title": "Peculiar mechanical complication of myocardial infarction.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 58-year-old man presented to the chest pain unit with crescendo angina over 24 hours and worsening dyspnoea of 10 hours duration. He was a known diabetic and hypertensive on regular treatment for 10 years and a habitual smoker with over 15 pack-years smoking duration. Examination revealed a profusely diaphoretic and dyspnoeic (respiratory rate of 45/min) individual with a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg and heart rate of 124 beats/min. He was hypoxic and his oxygen saturation in the ambient air was 64%. His jugular venous pressure was elevated with a prominent V wave. Cardiovascular examination revealed a harsh grade IV/VI systolic murmur over the lower left parasternal border. There were bilateral extensive crepitations heard over the lung fields. ECG on admission revealed presence of Q wave and ST elevation in leads II and III, aVF with ST depression in I and aVL. X-ray chest showed normal cardiac shadow and features of grade III pulmonary venous hypertension. Transthoracic echocardiography is shown in figure 1.Figure 1Transthoracic echocardiogram short axis view at mid cavity level, 2D (A) and colour Doppler (B) image. <bWhat is the most likely diagnosis</b?A. Left ventricular (LV) true aneurysmB. LV pseudoaneurysmC. LV pseudo-pseudoaneurysmD. Ventricular septal rupture (VSR)E. LV free wall rupture." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0260_210", "title": "[Acute pulmonary thromboembolism with severe hemodynamic compromise. The efficacy of systemic thrombolytic treatment in the coronary unit].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 79[correction of seventy]-year-old patient, who has been in bed a long time, suffered an episode of sudden dyspnea, tachycardia and tachypnea. An electrocardiogram registered at her admission in the coronary care unit showed a normal rhythm with right axis deviation and S1Q3T3 pattern and ST segment alterations. A ventilation-perfusion lung scanning demonstrated segmental perfusion defects with high probability of pulmonary embolism. She developed a low cardiac output syndrome, which neither responded to the volume expansion nor to the inotropic drugs. The bed-side hemodynamic measurements were a systolic pulmonary pressure of 60 mmHg, with a diastolic pressure of 18 mmHg and capillary wedge pressure of 13 mmHg with high pulmonary resistance. With this evidences, the diagnoses of massive pulmonary embolism was done, thrombolytic treatment was decided on. Two hundred and fifty thousands international units of streptokinase was administered, and then 100.000 UI/hour in 24 hours; after that with intravenous heparin. The low cardiac output syndrome disappeared. The patients recovered her systemic arterial pressure and her diuresis. The electrocardiographic signs vanished and both the pulmonary pressure and resistance decreased. We discussed the importance of intravenous thrombolytic treatment in massive pulmonary embolism. We concluded than this treatment is an useful strategy that not always needs a pulmonary arteriography, and could be used in low complexity centres, successfully in the massive pulmonary thromboembolism with severe hemodynamic damage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0728_20616", "title": "PCR use in miliary tuberculosis presenting with acute respiratory distress syndrome.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "A 30-year-old pregnant woman admitted to the hospital for rapidly progressive dyspnoea, non-productive cough and altered general status evolving over 1-month period. Her vital signs showed a low blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, pulse rate 100 beats/min, respiratory rate 32 breaths/min and oxygen saturation on room air of 88%. Laboratory findings showed haemoglobin 9.7 g/dl, white blood cells 15 000/mm(3) (neutrophils 82%), C reactive protein 74 mg/l, alkaline phosphatase 320 U/l, alanine aminotransferase 62 IU/l, aspartate aminotransferase 120 IU/l, γ glutamyl transpeptidase 125 U/l; brain natriuretic peptide 25.4 pg/ml, procalcitonine &gt;2, lactate dehydrogenase 1618 U/l. Chest radiographics showed diffuse bilateral micronodular pulmonary infiltrates and CT of the chest confirmed 1-3 mm diffuse bilateral micronodular infiltrates with ground glass opacities. Complete investigation including bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) for any viral, bacteriologic, acid-fast bacilli and full serum antibodies panel were all negative. DNA amplification for mycobacterium using PCR on the BAL rapidly rectified the diagnosis of tuberculosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0354_2204", "title": "[Massive pulmonary embolism--echocardiographic diagnosis and thrombolytic therapy].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Thrombolysis is widely accepted as the treatment of choice for acute massive life-threatening pulmonary embolism. Several trials have shown that thrombolytic treatment has reduced morbidity and mortality in this condition, compared to heparin therapy. Rapid diagnosis and treatment start is mandatory for improving the prognosis. Clinical presentation, ECG, arterial blood gas analysis and D-dimer are non-specific tests. Additional tests like ventilation/perfusion lung scan, spiral-computed tomography or pulmonary angiography are needed. In an emergency situation a non-invasive and bedside technique is preferred, and several studies have demonstrated the accuracy of echocardiography in pulmonary embolism. Acute right ventricular overload is indicated by different echocardiographic findings. Three cases with the echocardiographic method as the initial technique for the diagnosis of massive pulmonary embolism are described as well as the treatment consequence and practical administration of thrombolysis. Our patients had presenting features suggestive of massive pulmonary embolism, a clinical situation where an echocardiographic evaluation is appropriate. All presented with typical echocardiographic features. Thrombolytic treatment was initiated immediately after echocardiographic diagnosis. Different thrombolytic regimens were used. Echocardiography may be used as the initial imaging technique for the diagnosis of massive pulmonary embolism. The advantages are obvious, and thrombolytic treatment can be initiated without delay." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0861_5562", "title": "Primary neuroendocrine tumour of the right ventricle presenting with heart failure and cyanosis.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 68-year-old woman presented to the emergency department owing to exertional dyspnoea and bilateral leg oedema for 3 weeks. Her vital signs included the following: heart rate of 95 bpm, respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, oxygen saturation of 73% on room air and a blood pressure of 184/108 mm Hg. Physical examination revealed tachypnoea with clear lungs to auscultation, elevated jugular veins, cyanosis and bilateral pitting oedema. A chest X-ray demonstrated cardiomegaly without obvious pulmonary oedema. A CT of the chest was negative for pulmonary embolus; however, the scan did reveal a large right ventricular (RV) mass. An echocardiogram with bubble study confirmed a patent foramen ovale with significant right-to-left shunting and a large RV mass that significantly obstructed the pulmonary outflow tract. A cardiac biopsy revealed a low-grade neuroendocrine tumour. The patient underwent successful debridement and adjuvant chemotherapy. She improved greatly and was asymptomatic at a 9-month follow-up visit." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0538_19008", "title": "[Disseminated coronary occlusions and massive pulmonary embolism in a 40-year-old woman].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 40-year-old woman was admitted to the emergency room because of severe angina pectoris and dyspnoe at rest. She developed ventricular fibrillation a few minutes later from which she had to be resuscitated . After intubation and controlled ventilation immediate angiocardiography was performed while she was still in cardiogenic shock. Coronary angiography ten days before had been unremarkable. The second coronary angiogram revealed severe thrombotic lesion at the origin of the left anterior descending branch (LAD) and total occlusions of the peripheral LAD and of the first marginal branch. After intracoronary application of 10 mg abciximab and coronary stent implantation in the origin of the LAD the patient had good clinical improvement. Massive pulmonary embolism two days later, despite of effective heparinization and inhibition of platelet aggregation (as measured by partial thromboplastin time), was treated successfully by regional injection of 100 mg tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA). Tests for possible hypercoagulability showed no detectable changes in the clotting and fibrinolytic system with a normal platelet count. In a standardized aggregation test of platelets hyperaggregation in response to ADP and epinephrine, also at low test doses, revealed the presence of a sticky platelet syndrome. This case history suggests that enhanced platelet aggregation associated with sticky platelet syndrome may provoke myocardial infarction even in angiographically normal coronary arteries." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0795_10773", "title": "[Successful perioperative use of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation in a pregnant woman with acute pulmonary edema].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A 32-year-old woman (148 cm, 59 kg, gravida 2, para 2) with quadruplet pregnancy was admitted to our hospital for the threatened preterm labor at 23 weeks and 2 days of gestation. She was treated with ritodrine, magnesium sulfate and nifedipine to maintain tocolysis. Betamethasone was administered to accelerate fetal lung maturity. After ritodrine dose was increased at 23 weeks and 5 days of gestation, she developed dyspnea with desaturation. Acute pulmonary edema was revealed on chest X-ray. The decision was made to proceed with emergency cesarean delivery. On arrival at the operating room, the blood pressure was 123/53 mmHg, heart rate 111 beats x min(-1), and oxygen saturation (SpO2) 84% with supplemental oxygen 15 l x min(-1) via a reserved face mask. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NPPV) was initiated with S/T mode (FIO2 1.0, inspiratory positive airway pressure 10 cmH2O, expiratory positive airway pressure 6 cmH2O). The dyspnea was improved with her SpO2 100%. Spinal anesthesia was performed at L 34 using 2.5 ml of 0.5% bupivacaine and 100 microg morphine. Throughout the operation (operation time 44 minutes), she did not develop dyspnea under NPPV. NPPV was discontinued after the operation. Her SpO2 declined, and pulmonary edema on chest X-ray was exacerbated. She was transferred to the intensive care unit and NPPV was continued for 22 hours after the operation. She was discharged from the intensive care unit on the next day and was discharged from the hospital on the 6th postoperative day." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0955_12454", "title": "Blunt rupture of the thoracic duct after severe thoracic trauma.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 53-year-old man was admitted to our trauma center after sustaining thoracoabdominal injuries, secondary to a rear-end motor vehicle collision. As he stepped out of his vehicle, he was struck by a tractor trailer at 55 mph. The following were the initial vital signs on his arrival: heart rate 140 beats/min, blood pressure 142/80 mm Hg, respiratory rate 28 breaths/min, temperature 36.8°C, and oxygen saturation 93%. The Glasgow Coma Scale score was 15 and the Injury Severity Score was 59. He was evaluated and resuscitated per the advanced trauma life support protocols. The focused assessment with sonography for trauma examination was negative. Initial findings included bilateral chest wall and thoracic spine tenderness, subcutaneous emphysema in the chest and neck, and an unstable pelvis. He required bilateral chest tubes and a pelvic binder. CT imaging revealed a left temporal epidural hematoma, multiple facial fractures, a sternal fracture, a left scapula fracture, acromioclavicular fractures, bilateral hemopneumothoraces, pulmonary contusions, extensive pneumomediastinum compressing the right atrium, multiple rib fractures (2-10 on the left with a flail segment and 2-8 on the right) (figure 1), an unstable open-book pelvic fracture which included bilateral superior and inferior pubic rami fractures, sacral and left iliac wing fractures, and symphysis pubis diastasis.Figure 1Three-dimensional CT scan reconstruction demonstrating left-sided flail chest.The patient developed hypotension and severe respiratory distress, and was intubated. ECG revealed no dysrhythmias. Echocardiogram revealed significant left ventricular wall dysfunction consistent with myocardial contusion and right atrial compression. His troponins were also significantly elevated. He required significant resuscitation with crystalloids, blood products and vasopressors. He underwent bronchoscopy, esophagram and upper endoscopy to exclude tracheoesophageal injury, and these were negative. On hospital day 2, the patient was hemodynamically stable, and pressors were discontinued. His pelvic fractures were repaired using external fixation and sacral screws. Given his extensive left flail chest, he underwent reconstruction of his left chest wall on hospital day 5. Open reduction and internal fixation of his left ribs, 3 to 6 anteriorly and 4 to 7 posteriorly, with titanium plates was performed (figure 2). He had an epidural catheter inserted for analgesia. On postoperative day 2 after chest wall reconstruction, the patient was extubated and resumed enteral feeds. Overnight, the output from the left-sided chest tube changed from serosanguinous to milky. A sample was sent for triglycerides and lymphocyte counts confirming the diagnosis of chylothorax. His chest tube output increased to approximately 2000 mL/day. A lymphangiogram was performed with Lipiodol to diagnose the location of the chylous leak. It revealed contrast extravasation at the level of T3 to T4. An MRI was also performed to better define the anatomic course of the thoracic duct.Figure 2Postoperative chest X-ray demonstrating left chest wall reconstruction. Conservative management: placing the patient nulla per os (NPO), and starting total parenteral nutrition (TPN), octreotide and midodrine.Thoracic duct embolization by interventional radiology.CT-guided thoracic duct disruption.Thoracotomy with thoracic duct ligation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0347_18471", "title": "[The diagnostic and therapeutic procedures in pulmonary embolism: a survey in the Veneto Region].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Pulmonary embolism is one of the most frequent cardiopulmonary diseases, but it is often under- or misdiagnosed. In order to address this issue and to identify flow charts that are commonly used in pulmonary embolism diagnosis and treatment, 191 clinical wards of internal medicine, cardiology, geriatrics, pneumology and intensive care units, located in the Veneto Region, were surveyed. An anonymous questionnaire was mailed to each ward in order to collect clinical diagnostic information on all pulmonary embolisms which occurred during 1993. Among the returned questionnaires, 114 (59.6%) had usable information for the analysis. The vast majority of participating centers reported in 1993 less than 10 pulmonary embolism events. No significant differences were observed between internal medicine, geriatrics, pneumology wards and intensive care units. The reported events, however, were slightly higher in the divisions of cardiology with an annual average of 12 events per center. First level diagnostic procedures, such as ECG, chest X-ray and arterial blood gas analysis were chosen and performed in all patients. Interestingly, Doppler echocardiography, which is often not included in official guidelines for pulmonary embolism diagnosis, was performed in 56% of the participating centers. On the contrary, ventilation-perfusion lung scanning, which is considered highly predictive in many diagnostic algorithms, was underutilized (35% perfusion scan, 20% ventilation scan). This underuse was probably due to technical and organizational difficulties. Pulmonary angiography, the most accurate procedure for the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, was performed in 28% of the patients. During the acute phase, intravenous heparin was commonly used; 91% of patients received the infusion continuously, 4% intermittently. Thrombolysis was performed in 25% of the patients. The preferred drugs were recombinant tissue-plasminogen activator (67%), followed by urokinase (20%) and streptokinase (13%). To start thrombolytic therapy, 20% of the interviewed clinicians considered sufficient the evidence of clinical manifestations of pulmonary embolism confirmed by echocardiographic data. At discharge, prescription of oral anticoagulant drugs was common (78%) for at least 6 months (47%). Standardized procedures for the diagnosis and treatment of pulmonary embolism were already implemented in 13% of the participating centers. These data suggest a common effort to define unanimous conventional protocols in the management of pulmonary embolism. It should be underlined, however, that a particular attention to the clinical manifestations and a productive collaboration among clinicians with different expertise are required to improve the diagnosis and treatment of pulmonary embolism." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_45486", "title": "Phoneutria", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 3-year-old girl, bitten on the third finger of her right hand, presented immediate local pain, periods of alternating prostration, cold sweating, chest and abdomen pains and 3 episodes of vomiting, was admitted to UNICAMP 3 hours after the accident, with the same symptoms, except for vomiting, 5 vials of AV (Antivenom) and local anesthetic infiltration were administered, there was an improvement in symptoms, with decrease in sweating, but still agitated, 2-3 hours after AV, there was a picture of significant diarrhea (stools semi-liquids) evolving to 2nd degree dehydration, parenteral hydration was started, 3h30 min post AV, heart rate was 160 beats, and respiratory rate was 72, 4 hours post AV, she had peripheral cyanosis, heart rate 150 beats and dyspnea , and loss of peripheral venous access, 4h15-4h30 min there was disseminated pulmonary stortoration, and worsening of agitation, dyspnea and bradycardia, being performed orotracheal intubation, manual ventilation, adrenaline and" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0934_19979", "title": "Man in his 50s with chest pain and dyspnoea.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A man in his 50s with sudden-onset chest pain and dyspnoea was transferred to the emergency room. He had a history of aortic valve replacement due to aortic regurgitation with a mechanical valve 6 years previously. Heart rate was 90 bpm, and blood pressure was too low to measure. In the emergency room, he presented with severe dyspnoea and a chest X-ray showed severe lung congestion (figure 1A). ECG showed complete left bundle branch block. His respiratory status rapidly worsened, and he went into cardiopulmonary arrest. After cardiopulmonary resuscitation, transthoracic echocardiography was performed (figure 1B, online supplementary video 1).DC1SP110.1136/heartjnl-2017-312477.supp1Supplementary file 1 heartjnl;104/10/868/F1F1F1Figure 1(A) Chest X-ray. (B) Colour Doppler image from apical five-chamber view. What is the most likely cause of the patient's cardiopulmonary arrest?Myocardial infarction in left main trunkAortic dissectionProsthetic valve thrombosisProsthetic valve embolisationPulmonary embolism." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0356_4275", "title": "[Major pulmonary embolism].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The diagnosis of major pulmonary embolism should be considered in case of acute respiratory distress, particularly when there is high thromboembolic risk. Although clinical symptoms are not specific, some are suggestive: syncope or dizziness with cyanosis and polypnoea, and especially arterial hypotension and cardiogenic shock. Diagnostic workup should be rapid and straight forward. Transthoracic echography is particularly useful to detect right heart thrombi and right ventricular overload. More information could be provided by helical computed tomography or perfusion lung scan or less commonly now by pulmonary angiography, depending on the patient's clinical condition and the available equipment. The mortality rate can reach 20 to 30%, and up to 65% after resuscitated cardiac arrest. Rapid desobstruction is justified through surgical embolectomy or intravenous thrombolysis favouring short duration protocols (alteplase over 2 h), in spite of the bleeding risk." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1071_5150", "title": "High-flow nasal cannula oxygen therapy in the management of acute respiratory distress syndrome secondary to opioid overdose.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "In this article, we discuss the successful treatment of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), a rare complication of opioid overdose, through high-flow nasal cannula oxygen therapy (HFNCOT). A 32-year-old male patient was referred to the emergency department with an ambulance due to a state of confusion following intravenous opioid intake. On arrival, the patient had an arterial blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, pulse of 112 beats/min, respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation (SpO<sub2</sub) of 75%. On neurologic examination, he had miotic and isochoric pupils, and Glasgow Coma Score was 12 (E: 3 M: 5 V: 4). Cardiac examination showed that the heart was rhythmic and tachycardic. Chest examination revealed bibasilar crackles and wheezing. Naloxone was administered to the patient, and oxygen treatment was applied through a mask. Then, HFNCOT was commenced to the patient in whom the PaO<sub2</sub/FiO<sub2</sub ratio in the blood gas was calculated as 141 following antidote treatment and whose chest radiograph showed bilateral infiltrations. The patient was discharged from the emergency critical care unit on the 3<suprd</sup day of his hospitalization because infiltrations in his chest radiograph regressed. HFNCOT can recover the patient's hypoxemia and help reduce the necessity of mechanical ventilation in patients with mild or moderate ARDS." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0248_14132", "title": "History and physical examination in acute pulmonary embolism in patients without preexisting cardiac or pulmonary disease.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The history and physical examination were assessed in 215 patients with acute pulmonary embolism uncomplicated by preexisting cardiac or pulmonary disease. The patients had been included in the Urokinase Pulmonary Embolism Trial or the Urokinase-Streptokinase Embolism Trial. Presenting syndromes were (1) circulatory collapse with shock (10 percent) or syncope (9 percent); (2) pulmonary infarction with hemoptysis (25 percent) or pleuritic pain and no hemoptysis (41 percent); (3) uncomplicated embolism characterized by dyspnea (12 percent) or nonpleuritic pain usually with tachypnea (3 percent) or deep venous thrombosis with tachypnea (0.5 percent). The most frequent symptoms were dyspnea (84 percent), pleuritic pain (74 percent), apprehension (63 percent) and cough (50 percent). Hemoptysis occurred in only 28 percent. Dyspnea, hemoptysis or pleuritic pain occurred separately or in combination in 94 percent. All three occurred in only 22 percent. The most frequent signs were tachypnea (respiration ate 20/min or more) (85 percent), tachycardia (heart rate 100 beats/min or more) (58 percent), accentuated pulmonary component of the second heart sound (57 percent) and rales (56 percent). Signs of deep venous thrombosis were present in only 41 percent and a pleural friction rub was present in only 18 percent. Either dyspnea or tachypnea occurred in 96 percent. Dyspnea, tachypnea or deep venous thrombosis occurred in 99 percent. As a group, the identified clinical manifestations, although nonspecific, are strongly suggestive of acute pulmonary embolism. Conversely, acute pulmonary embolism was rarely identified in the absence of dyspnea, tachypnea or deep venous thrombosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en159_18160", "title": "TIMI", "score": 0.008946005180314805, "content": "TIMI Risk Score for STEMI Age 65-74 years? Yes (+2) – or – Age ≥75 years? Yes (+3) Diabetes, Hypertension or Angina? Yes (+1) Systolic BP < 100 mmHg? Yes (+3) Heart rate > 100? Yes (+2) Killip Class II-IV (JVD or any pulmonary exam findings of CHF)? Yes (+2) Weight < 67kg (147.7 lbs)? Yes (+1) Anterior ST Elevation or LBBB? Yes (+1) Time to treatment > 4 hours? Yes (+1) What Does This Score Mean? TIMI Risk Score for HF in Diabetes Prior heart failure? Yes (+2) History of atrial fibrillation? Yes (+1) Coronary artery disease? Yes (+1) eGFR < 60 ml/min/1.73*m2? Yes (+1) Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio >300 mg/g? Yes (+2) – or – Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 30-300 mg/g? Yes (+1) What Does This Score Mean?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0742_14212", "title": "Severe hypertension and pulmonary edema associated with systemic absorption of topical phenylephrine in a child during retinal surgery.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Topical phenylephrine solutions are widely used in eye procedures to promote pupil dilation without cycloplegia. We report a case of intraoperative severe hypertension and acute pulmonary edema occurring in a child during retinal surgery after possible systemic absorption of topical phenylephrine eyedrops. Our objective is to discuss the proper treatment and preventive strategies for such a complication. A 4-year-old, male patient, 18.4 kg in weight, physical status ASA I was admitted for right retinal detachment surgery. Anesthesia was induced with sevoflurane in oxygen, followed by glycopyrrolate (5.0 μg/kg), propofol 25 mg, fentanyl 50 μg and cisatracurium 0.15 mg/kg given intravenously. Anesthesia was maintained with sevoflurane 2-2.5% in a mixture of nitrous oxide and oxygen (60%:40%). After incision, two drops of 10% aqueous phenylephrine were administered topically by the surgeon to the right eye for further pupil dilation. Few minutes later, the noninvasive blood pressure rose to 220/120 mmHg and the heart rate increased to 140 beats/min. Oxygen saturation (SpO(2)) dropped from 99% (with an inspired oxygen concentration (FiO(2)) of 0.4) to 82%. Auscultation revealed crepitations throughout the chest and a blood-stained frothy fluid was aspirated from the trachea with possible development of acute pulmonary edema. Hydralazine (5 mg) and furosemide (10 mg) were administered intravenously. Seven minutes later, the blood pressure returned to normal and the SpO(2) increased to 92% on FiO(2) of 1.0, with decreased intratracheal secretions. After approximately 20 minutes, the SpO(2) had improved to 99%, with a FiO(2) of 1.0 and the blood pressure was 109/63 mmHg and heart rate was 121 beats/min. The FiO(2) gradually reduced back to 0.4 over 30 min with no further desaturation. The patient was discharged from the post anesthesia care unit 5 h after surgery with adequate spontaneous breathing, SpO(2) 99% on room air, normal blood pressure and pulmonary auscultation. Anesthesiologists and ophthalmologists should be aware of the possible cardiovascular side-effects of topical phenylephrine, and it should be used cautiously with appropriate intraoperative monitoring of hemodynamic variables. Moreover, preventive strategies to minimize systemic absorption of the drug should be taken." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0535_7171", "title": "[Normal coronary angiogram in patient with diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome with ST segment elevation. Was it possible to recognise acute pulmonary embolism earlier?].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "A case of a 48 year old male scheduled for early invasive treatment of acute coronary syndrome with ST segment elevation is presented. Clinical suspicion of acute pulmonary embolism was undertaken because of normal coronary angiogram and was confirmed by pulmonary angiography. Differential diagnosis based on medical history, electrocardiogram and laboratory findings was discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0281_21102", "title": "[Acute massive pulmonary embolism--report of a case].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "A 72-year-old female, who had received medication for hypertension and angina pectoris was hospitalized with complaining of an abrupt dyspnea. Roentgenogram of the chest revealed no abnormal findings except cardiac enlargement. An electrocardiogram showed overloading of the right ventricle. Arterial blood gas analysis of room air showed 55.4 mmHg of PaO2, 25.5 mmHg of PaCO2 and 7.30 of PH, respectively. Acute and massive pulmonary embolism was diagnosed by an emergent pulmonary arteriography. Despite intensive treatment such as infusion of urokinase and heparin for four days, thrombus was still detected in the left main pulmonary artery by a transesophageal echocardiography. By the result of ineffective conservative therapy, embolectomy was performed under cardiopulmonary bypass. However mechanical respiratory support was required for a long time due to the right heart failure, she is doing well for a year after the operation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0256_5542", "title": "Resuscitation of hemorrhagic shock with hypertonic saline/dextran or lactated Ringer's supplemented with AICA riboside.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Anesthetized and ventilated swine were bled 23 ml/kg (34% of calculated blood volume) to a mean arterial pressure &lt; 50 mm Hg. After 60 min, a bolus of either 7.5% hypertonic saline/6% dextran 70 (HSD, 4 ml/kg x 5 min) or lactated Ringer's (LR, 32 ml/kg x 5 min) was infused i.v. LR (25-30 ml/kg) was administered to all animals for the next 60 min. Amino imidazole carboxamide riboside (AICAR), which increases endogenous adenosine in ischemic tissues, was added to the initial bolus and the subsequent LR (10 mg/kg bolus + 0.5 mg/kg x 60 min) in half the study population. At 2 hr post-shock, hematocrit, urine output, arterial pressure, pulmonary artery pressure, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, portal venous O2 saturation, and pulmonary arterial O2 saturation were similar in all groups. With HSD vs. LR, cardiac outputs and stroke volumes were each significantly higher, while right atrial pressures and pulmonary vascular resistances were each significantly lower, which is consistent with augmented cardiac contractility with HSD. Furthermore, systemic oxygen consumptions were significantly higher, and intracranial pressures were each significantly lower with HSD. Nevertheless, no variables were far outside the normal range in either group. The addition of AICAR to LR and HSD eliminated the difference in intracranial pressure, systemic oxygen consumption, reduced heart rate by 30-40 beats/min during the first hour of resuscitation, and increased stroke volume by 20-30%.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0389_3253", "title": "Emergency department management of pulmonary embolism.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "There are several points that bear repetition. First, consider the diagnosis of PE in all patients presenting with chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, oxygen desaturation, or unexplained hypotension. Evaluate these patients in a rational manner. At any individual hospital, develop algorithms with consultants so that when one is faced with a patient with a PE, the flow of both diagnostics and therapeutics flows smoothly and rapidly. Consider the concept of risk stratification, and remember that not all patients with PE are created equal. In particular, be on the same page with all consultants regarding the use of right heart echocardiography, both for its potential diagnostic capabilities and for its ability to identify patients who could be at greater risk for bad outcomes." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 176, 338 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 30, 59 ] ], "text": "The statin in a patient with cardiovascular disease (such as an AMI) is a lifelong treatment (we discard 1) since it is not taken until LDL levels are normalized." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 94, 175 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 16, 30 ] ], "text": "The treatment for hypercholesterolemia is statins so we rule out answers 2 and 4." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 339, 434 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 59, 77 ] ], "text": "Between 3 and 5, 5 is more complete as it includes treatment and control of other risk factors." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 94, 175 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 16, 30 ] ], "text": "The treatment for hypercholesterolemia is statins so we rule out answers 2 and 4." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 339, 434 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 59, 77 ] ], "text": "Between 3 and 5, 5 is more complete as it includes treatment and control of other risk factors." } }

{ "1": "Treat with statins until cholesterol is normalized and recommend healthy lifestyle (diet, exercise and no smoking).", "2": "Rule out hypothyroidism or other systemic disease, recommend a healthy lifestyle and treat with fibrates to normalize cholesterol.", "3": "It is not necessary to rule out secondary dyslipidemia because it is infrequent. A family lipid profile should be performed.", "4": "Rule out secondary dyslipidemia, treat with resins (resincholestyramine) and fibrates and re-commend a healthy lifestyle. Prohibit alcohol.", "5": "Rule out secondary dyslipidemia, request a family study and treat with statins to maintain a good lipid profile. Control of other risk factors." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en020_68174", "title": "Hypercholesterolemia", "score": 0.014267802326084137, "content": "Treatment Treatment recommendations have been based on four risk levels for heart disease. For each risk level, LDL cholesterol levels representing goals and thresholds for treatment and other action are made. The higher the risk category, the lower the cholesterol thresholds. For those at high risk, a combination of lifestyle modification and statins has been shown to decrease mortality. Lifestyle Lifestyle changes recommended for those with high cholesterol include: smoking cessation, limiting alcohol consumption, increasing physical activity, and maintaining a healthy weight. Overweight or obese individuals can lower blood cholesterol by losing weight – on average a kilogram of weight loss can reduce LDL cholesterol by 0.8 mg/dl. Diet Eating a diet with a high proportion of vegetables, fruit, dietary fibre, and low in fats results in a modest decrease in total cholesterol." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en009_170525", "title": "Statin", "score": 0.01337444439995195, "content": "The National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) recommends statin treatment for adults with an estimated 10 year risk of developing cardiovascular disease that is greater than 10%. Guidelines by the American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association recommend statin treatment for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease in adults with LDL cholesterol ≥ 190 mg/dL or those with diabetes, age 40–75 with LDL-C 70–190 mg/dl; or in those with a 10-year risk of developing heart attack or stroke of 7.5% or more. In this latter group, statin assignment was not automatic, but was recommended to occur only after a clinician-patient risk discussion with shared decision making where other risk factors and lifestyle are addressed, the potential for benefit from a statin is weighed against the potential for adverse effects or drug interactions and informed patient preference is elicited. Moreover, if a risk decision was uncertain, factors such as family history," }, { "id": "pubmed23n0542_13586", "title": "Hypertriglyceridemia.", "score": 0.013374125874125875, "content": "Hypertriglyceridemia is a commonly encountered lipid abnormality frequently associated with other lipid and metabolic derangements. The National Cholesterol Education Program recommends obtaining a fasting lipid panel in adults over the age of 20. The discovery of hypertriglyceridemia should prompt an investigation for secondary causes such as high fat diet, excessive alcohol intake, certain medications, and medical conditions (eg, diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism). In addition, patients should be evaluated for other components of the metabolic syndrome. These include abdominal obesity, insulin resistance, low high-density lipoprotein (HDL), high triglyceride, and hypertension. Hypertriglyceridemia is classified as primary hypertriglyceridemia when there are no secondary causes identified. Primary hypertriglyceridemia is the result of various genetic defects leading to disordered triglyceride metabolism. It is important to treat hypertriglyceridemia to prevent pancreatitis by reducing triglyceride levels to &lt;500 mg/dL. Furthermore, lowering triglycerides while treating other dyslipidemias and components of the metabolic syndrome will reduce coronary events. However, it is controversial how much isolated hypertriglyceridemia correlates directly with coronary artery disease and further studies are needed to clarify whether treatment for this condition leads to meaningful clinical outcomes. Therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) are the first line of treatment for hypertriglyceridemia. These changes include a low saturated fat, carbohydrate-controlled diet, combined with alcohol reduction, smoking cessation, and regular aerobic exercise. High doses of omega-3 fatty acids from fish and fish oil supplements will lower triglyceride levels significantly. When patients do not reach their goals by TLC, drug therapy should be started. In cases of isolated hypertriglyceridemia, fibrates are initially considered. When elevated low-density lipoprotein levels accompany hypertriglyceridemia, 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase inhibitors are preferred. In patients with low HDL levels and hypertriglyceridemia, extended release niacin can be considered. A combination of the medicines may be necessary in recalcitrant cases." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en045_18116", "title": "Hyperlipidemia", "score": 0.012876012876012876, "content": "Screening frequency Adults 20 years and older should have the cholesterol checked every four to six years, and most screening guidelines recommends testing every 5 years. USPSTF recommends increased frequency for people with elevated risk of CHD, which may be determined using cardiovascular disease risk scores. Management Management of hyperlipidemia includes maintenance of a normal body weight, increased physical activity, and decreased consumption of refined carbohydrates and simple sugars. Prescription drugs may be used to treat some people having significant risk factors, such as cardiovascular disease, LDL cholesterol greater than 190 mg/dl or diabetes. Common medication therapy is a statin. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0480_9850", "title": "[Diabetes and lipids].", "score": 0.012590275363997991, "content": "Dyslipidemia is one of the major cardiovascular risk factors especially for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. As a feature of the metabolic syndrome insulin resistance is also associated with an atherogenic lipoprotein phenotype. In type 1 diabetes inadequate glycemic control results in an increase of plasma triglyceride levels. The treatment of diabetic dyslipidemia is based on an improvement of glycemic control, in type 1 and type 2 diabetes, as well as in lifestyle recommendations, including dietary advice and physical exercise. The achievement of strict target levels, especially LDL-cholesterol values below 100 mg/dL, requires lipid lowering drug therapy. This LDL-cholesterol target level is based on the fact that diabetic patients reveal the same risk for myocardial infarction as non-diabetics after their first cardiovascular event. Thus the diagnosis of diabetes is regarded as an equivalent for manifest cardiovascular disease. The re-evaluation of large lipid intervention trials (4 S, CARE, LIPID, VA-HIT, Heart Protection Study) could clearly demonstrate also for the diabetic subpopulation that statin and fibrate therapy results in a significant reduction of the cardiovascular risk." }, { "id": "Pharmacology_Katzung_3849", "title": "Pharmacology_Katzung", "score": 0.011028589880523609, "content": "A 42-year-old woman has heterozygous familial hyper-cholesterolemia (HeFH) but is otherwise well and has no symptoms of coronary or peripheral vascular disease. A carotid ultrasound was normal. Her mother had a myo-cardial infarction at age 51 and had no known risk factors other than her presumed HeFH. The patient also has ele-vated lipoprotein (a) at 2.5 times normal and low HDL-C (43 mg/dL). She developed muscle symptoms with each of 3 statins (atorvastatin, rosuvastatin, and simvastatin) so they were discontinued although she did not develop elevated levels of creatine kinase. Her untreated LDL-C is 235 mg/dL and triglycerides 125 mg/dL. Her LDL-C goal for primary prevention of arteriosclerotic vascular disease is in the 70-mg/dL range because of her multiple lipopro-tein risk factors and her mother’s history of premature coronary artery disease. She has no other risk factors and her diet and exercise habits are excellent. How would you manage this patient?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_93359", "title": "Cholesterol", "score": 0.010618662413125214, "content": "The 1987 report of National Cholesterol Education Program, Adult Treatment Panels suggests the total blood cholesterol level should be: < 200 mg/dL normal blood cholesterol, 200–239 mg/dL borderline-high, > 240 mg/dL high cholesterol. The American Heart Association provides a similar set of guidelines for total (fasting) blood cholesterol levels and risk for heart disease: Statins are effective in lowering LDL cholesterol and widely used for primary prevention in people at high risk of cardiovascular disease, as well as in secondary prevention for those who have developed cardiovascular disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0393_11956", "title": "[From prevention to cardiovascular rehabilitation: statins and evidence-based medicine].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The recent \"Lipobay affair\" prompted us to review the biomedical literature focusing on statins, in a prevention and rehabilitation perspective, and to prepare a pertinent evidence-based report. A number of randomized controlled clinical trials have assessed the efficacy and the safety of statins in cardiovascular prevention; these drugs have proved to be effective (number needed to treat values between 20 and 40) and safe (number needed to harm value for myopathy even when in association with fibrates around 833, as deduced from literature data). Fatal rhabdomyolysis is virtually not detectable in current scientific literature when statin therapy is administered in an appropriate fashion and when the patient undergoes periodical check-ups. In the individual patient, the benefits and risks related to his treatment have to be precisely tailored, evaluating his individual risk profile, the strength of the indication to statin therapy, the concomitant presence of other treatments and/or habits and the potential and actual adverse events foreseeable (to an extent) if established risk factors which predispose to myopathy are taken into consideration. The hematological lipids management strategy including a correct diet, physical exercise and statin therapy represents a key component of every evidence-based rehabilitation program too. Cardiovascular prevention and rehabilitation are major priorities at an individual as well as at a public health level. Both these strategies are based on a careful management of known risk factors, among them hypercholesterolemia, that today can be effectively and safely treated with statins." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en471_19577", "title": "Aseem Malhotra", "score": 0.009854167637329356, "content": "The UK National Health Service website on healthy eating states that \"Too much fat in your diet, especially saturated fats, can raise your cholesterol, which increases the risk of heart disease\". This advice is part of a medical and dietary mainstream consensus about saturated fat shared with the World Health Organization and the health authorities of many other nations. Current guidelines for doctors from the UK National Institute for Health and Care Excellence for reduction of the risk of cardiovascular disease include giving advice on lifestyle changes before prescribing statins. The UK National Health Service website explains to patients that the lifestyle changes that doctors will recommend before prescribing statins include eating a healthy diet, exercising, stopping smoking, limiting alcohol and maintaining a healthy weight. Prof Mark Baker, Director of the Centre for Guidelines at NICE, stated that the use of statins in people with established heart disease was not" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0755_5907", "title": "Hypertriglyceridemia: a case report from diagnostic laboratory, Barasat, West Bengal, India.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Hypertriglyceridemia is defined as an abnormal concentration of triglyceride in the blood and has been associated with atherosclerosis, even in the absence of hypercholesterolemia. This case report is of 40-year-old man diagnosed to have hypertriglyceridemia who attended for routine screening in our diagnostic laboratory at Barasat. He was nonsmoker, non-alcoholic, had a reasonable diet with abundant fruits and vegetables, and was on regular exercise. He was not taking any lipid lowering medications. He hailed from Barasat, and was employed in Government sector in Barasat and policeman by profession. His father died at the age of 57 years in a heart attack; but his mother is healthy and now almost 62 years of age, and he has two brothers one elder and another younger to him, both are healthy. His blood pressure was normal, his body-mass index was 27, and his waist circumference was 96 cm and hip circumference was 103. His waist/hip ratio was 0.932. The Biochemical analyses were as follows- Fasting Glucose: 186 mg/dL, Total Cholesterol: 90 mg/dL, Triglycerides: 372 mg/dL, High-density cholesterol: 3.80 mg/dL, Low-density cholesterol: 2.90 mg/dL, VLDL: 83.20 mg/dL, Cholesterol/HDL-C ratio: 23.6:1, LDL-C/HDL-C: 0.07:1. This study revealed the increased prevalence of dyslipidemia to be more prevalent in 31-40 year males, suggesting that this group is at an increased risk of developing CAD leading to young infarcts. Combination lifestyle therapies i.e., enhanced physical activity and dietary modification and therapeutic intervention would help us in the treatment and management of dyslipidemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0051_14961", "title": "[Results of studies of cardiovascular risk factors in 1875 visitors to the Frankfurt Health Days 1990].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In 1990 the Public Health Department of Frankfurt organised the third \"Frankfurter Gesundheitstage\" (Frankfurt Days for Health). Informations on healthy life style and prevention of diseases were available, as well as a screening programme for cardiovascular diseases. 1875 persons (1207 women and 668 men) had their total cholesterol, blood pressure and weight measured. They were asked about their age and body height, activities in sports, smoking behaviour, medications and their personal and family history for cardiovascular diseases. Mean age of the persons tested was 60 years (33% 40-59 yrs; 55% greater than 60 yrs). 13% of them smoked, 16% were obese. In 19% we found elevated blood pressure values, 5% of these values were not known before. 85% of the screened persons exhibited hypercholesterolaemia (greater than 200 mg/dl), and in 46% cholesterol exceeded 250 mg/dl. More than 25% of the hypercholesterolaemic values were not known before. Our data are not representative. Nevertheless, the results demonstrate that persons at risk can be reached by voluntary public screening programmes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0897_21338", "title": "2017 Taiwan lipid guidelines for high risk patients.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "In Taiwan, the prevalence of hyperlipidemia increased due to lifestyle and dietary habit changes. Low density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) and non-high density lipoprotein cholesterol (non-HDL-C) are all significant predicting factors of coronary artery disease in Taiwan. We recognized that lipid control is especially important in patients with existed atherosclerotic cardiovascular diseases (ASCVD), including coronary artery disease (CAD), ischemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Because the risk of ASCVD is high in patients with diabetes mellitus (DM), chronic kidney disease (CKD) and familial hypercholesterolemia (FH), lipid control is also necessary in these patients. Lifestyle modification is the first step to control lipid. Weight reduction, regular physical exercise and limitation of alcohol intake all reduce triglyceride (TG) levels. Lipid-lowering drugs include HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins), cholesterol absorption inhibitors (ezetimibe), proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9 (PCSK9) inhibitors, nicotinic acids (niacin), fibric acids derivatives (fibrates), and long-chain omega-3 fatty acids. Statin is usually the first line therapy. Combination therapy with statin and other lipid-lowering agents may be considered in some clinical settings. For patients with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) and stable CAD, LDL-C &lt; 70 mg/dL is the major target. A lower target of LDL-C &lt;55 mg/dL can be considered in ACS patients with DM. After treating LDL-C to target, non-HDL-C can be considered as a secondary target for patients with TG ≥ 200 mg/dL. The suggested non-HDL-C target is &lt; 100 mg/dL in ACS and CAD patients. For patients with ischemic stroke or transient ischemic attack presumed to be of atherosclerotic origin, statin therapy is beneficial and LDL-C &lt; 100 mg/dL is the suggested target. For patients with symptomatic carotid stenosis or intracranial arterial stenosis, in addition to antiplatelets and blood pressure control, LDL-C should be lowered to &lt; 100 mg/dL. Statin is necessary for DM patients with CV disease and the LDL-C target is &lt; 70 mg/dL. For diabetic patients who are ≥ 40 years of age, or who are &lt; 40 years of age but have additional CV risk factors, the LDL-C target should be &lt; 100 mg/dL. After achieving LDL-C target, combination of other lipid-lowering agents with statin is reasonable to attain TG &lt; 150 mg/dL and HDL-C &gt;40 in men and &gt;50 mg/dL in women in DM. LDL-C increased CV risk in patients with CKD. In adults with glomerular filtration rate (GFR) &lt; 60 mL/min/1.73m<sup2</sup without chronic dialysis (CKD stage 3-5), statin therapy should be initiated if LDL-C ≥ 100 mg/dL. Ezetimibe can be added to statin to consolidate the CV protection in CKD patients. Mutations in LDL receptor, apolipoprotein B and PCSK9 genes are the common causes of FH. Diagnosis of FH usually depends on family history, clinical history of premature CAD, physical findings of xanthoma or corneal arcus and high levels of LDL-C. In addition to conventional lipid lowering therapies, adjunctive treatment with mipomersen, lomitapide, or PCSK9 inhibitors become necessary to further reduce LDL-C in patients with FH. Overall, these recommendations are to help the health care professionals in Taiwan to treat hyperlipidemia with current scientific evidences. We hope the prescription rate of lipid lowering drugs and control rate of hyperlipidemia in high risk patients could be increased by implementation of the clinical guidelines. The major purpose is to improve clinical outcomes of these high risk patients through the control of hyperlipidemia." }, { "id": "article-20796_6", "title": "Dyslipidemia -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "History is essential in identifying high-risk individuals. Most importantly, social history would include tobacco use or specific details about diet. Past medical history is vital in identifying patients who will need primary prevention versus secondary prevention if statin therapy requires initiation. Lastly, family history is important to identify familial hypercholesterolemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0615_21440", "title": "[Arterial hypertension and dyslipidemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Anti-platelet aggregation. Goal oriented treatment].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "TREATMENT OF ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION - Blood pressure (BP) should be regularly measured in all patients with CKD (Strength of Recommendation C). - BP control and proteinuria reduction delay progression of CKD (Strength of Recommendation A) and reduce cardiovascular risk (Strength of Recommendation C). Thus, control of both factors should be the treatment objective. - The BP target in patients with CKD should be &lt; 130/80 mmHg, and 125/75 mmHg if proteinuria is &gt; 1 g/24 hours (Strength of Recommendation A). - Lifestyle changes should be made: low-sodium diet (less than 100 mEq/day of sodium or 2.4 g/day of salt); weight reduction if patient is overweight (body mass index 20-25 kg/m2); regular aerobic physical exercise and moderate alcohol intake for BP control and prevention of cardiovascular risk (Strength of Recommendation A). - The choice of the antihypertensive drug in patients with CKD depends on the etiology of CKD, cardiovascular risk, or presence of clinical or subclinical cardiovascular disease (Strength of Recommendation A). - Two or more antihypertensive drugs are usually required to control blood pressure in patients with CKD (Strength of Recommendation B), and will frequently include a diuretic, which in stages 4-5 should be a loop diuretic (Strength of Recommendation B). - Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) inhibitors are first choice drugs in patients with diabetic nephropathy, patients with non-diabetic nephropathy with a protein/creatinine ratio higher than 200 mg/g, and patients with heart failure (Strength of Recommendation A). The combination of ACEIs and ARBs is indicated for reducing proteinuria that remains high despite treatment with a RAAS inhibitor, provided potassium levels do not exceed 5.5 mEq/L (Strength of Recommendation B). - When RAAS blockers are started or their dose is changed in patients with advanced CKD, kidney function and serum potassium levels should be monitored at least after 1-2 weeks. DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT OF DYSLIPIDEMIA - A complete evaluation of the lipid profile including total cholesterol, LDL-C, HDL-C, and triglycerides should be performed in any patient with CKD at baseline and at least annually (Strength of Recommendation B). - In patients with stage 4-5 CKD and LDL-C &gt;or= 100 mg/dL, treatment to decrease levels to &lt; 100 mg/dL should be considered because of their high CV risk. This reduction is recommended in secondary prevention and in primary prevention in diabetic patients. Lipid-lowering treatment is recommended in all other patients, although no evidence showing its benefits is available yet (Strength of Recommendation C). - In patients with stage 4-5 CKD and triglyceride levels &gt;or= 500 mg/dL which are not corrected by treating the underlying cases, treatment with triglyceride-lowering drugs may be considered to reduce the risk of pancreatitis. However, treatment with fibrates should be used with caution, and these drugs should not be associated to statins due to the risk of rhabdomyolysis (Strength of Recommendation C). There is little experience on the efficacy and safety of omega-3 fatty acids for the treatment of hypertriglyceridemia in patients with grade 4-5 CRF, but they may be considered a possibly safer alternative to fibrates (Strength of Recommendation C). SMOKING - Smoking is a cardiovascular risk factor and a risk factor for progression of kidney disease in patients with CRF (Strength of Recommendation B). - Use of active measures to achieve smoking cessation is recommended in patients with CRF (Strength of Recommendation C). HOMOCYSTEINE - Hyperhomocysteinemia has been postulated as a cardiovascular risk factor in the general population and in kidney patients, but the available evidence is not consistent. - There is no evidence that vitamin therapy decreases cardiovascular risk in patients with CRF, and recommendation of routine vitamin measurement and start of vitamin therapy to reduce cardiovascular risk in these patients is therefore questionable (Strength of Recommendation B). LEFT VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY - Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is a cardiovascular risk factor in patients with CRF (Strength of Recommendation B). - It is advisable to perform an echocardiogram at baseline and every 12-24 months and to consider treatments allowing for LVH regression (Strength of Recommendation C). The approach to LVH should be early and multifactorial because its reversibility is limited once established (Strength of Recommendation C). - RAAS blockade with ACEIs or ARBs partially reverts LVH in patients with CRF (Strength of Recommendation B). ANTI-PLATELET AGGREGATION - Because of the high cardiovascular risk in patients with CKD, anti-platelet aggregant therapy, especially low-dose aspirin, would be indicated in patients with type 2 diabetes as primary prevention, and in all patients with CKD as secondary prevention. There is however no evidence of the benefits of anti-platelet aggregant therapy in primary prevention in patients with CKD, particularly in stages 4-5; indication for treatment in this situation should therefore be individualised because of its greater risk of bleeding. - Adequate good blood pressure control should previously be achieved to minimise the risk of haemorrhagic stroke (Strength of Recommendation C)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0072_23018", "title": "What do we gain by modifying risk factors for coronary disease?", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "There is no doubt about the association between coronary heart disease (CHD) and smoking, high serum cholesterol and high blood pressure, but association does not mean causation. To prove causation we must mount intervention trials and show that changing a risk marker changes total mortality: a) Trials of dietary reduction of serum lipids: The US Veterans dietary study and the North Karelia project showed no significant reduction in total mortality, nor did the Multiple Risk Factor Intervention Trial (MRFIT) or the WHO \"paired-factories\" Collaborative Group Study, where other risk factors were also being corrected. In the latter study there was a barely significant reduction in non-fatal CHD but fatal CHD, like total mortality was unchanged. b) Trials of lipid-lowering drugs: The first large-scale study, using clofibrate, showed an increase in total mortality; the screening of 500,000 men and the comparison of cholestyramine with placebo for the top 5% of lipid levels resulted in 68 deaths on the active resin and 71 on placebo. Less expensive measures (alcohol testing; safer roads) could surely do more good to half a million men? These 3 lives \"saved\" were \"lost\" in the Helsinki gemfibrozil study where there were 45 deaths in the active group and 42 in the placebo group. c) Effect of blood-pressure reduction. The assumption that reducing a risk marker will reduce CHD was challenged by the massive MRC Mild-to-Moderate Hypertension trial which showed no significant effect of treatment on CHD, CHD death or total mortality, even though stroke mortality was modestly reduced.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0737_22722", "title": "Hypertriglyceridemia and residual dyslipidemia in statin-treated, patients with diabetes at the highest risk for cardiovascular disease and achieving very-low low-density lipoprotein-cholesterol levels.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "As the result of the high prevalence of comorbidities and conventional risk factors among patients with type 2 diabetes (T2DM), most patients belong to the highest cardiovascular disease risk category, and have a target low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) of &lt;70 mg/dL. Because substantial residual risk persists at LDL-C &lt;70 mg/dL, a more comprehensive control of non-LDL-C and particles was recommended in the joint 2008 American Diabetes Association/American College of Cardiology Consensus. To ascertain, in statin-treated T2DM patients belonging to this greatest-risk group, with on-statin LDL-C &lt;70 mg/dL, (1) the proportion of patients meeting all three critical levels (LDL-C &lt;70 mg/dL, non-high-density lipoprotein cholesterol [HDL-C] &lt;100 mg/dL, apoB &lt;80 mg/dL) and (2) the variables associated with target attainment versus nonattainment. Among 675 unselected patients with T2DM, 367 were both at very high cardiometabolic risk and taking statins; 118 of these patient had LDL-C levels &lt;70 mg/dL. Patients meeting all three criteria (LDL-C, non-HDL-C, and apoB; n = 79; all three at goal group) were compared with those only reaching LDL-C (n = 49; only LDL-C at goal group). LDL-C was 54 (12) for the all three at goal group versus 57 (10) mg/dL for the only LDL-C at goal group (NS). The two groups were similar regarding age, gender, diabetes duration, body mass index, waist circumference, blood pressure, renal function and micro-/macroangiopathy prevalence. A statin plus fibrate was given to 16% of patients in the all three at goal group and 32% in the only LDL-C at goal group. The two groups did not differ in baseline (prestatin) LDL-C, HDL-C, and non-HDL-C, except for pre-/post-lipid-lowering drug(s) triglycerides (TG): 177 (95)/118 (56) for all three at goal versus 279 (134)/ 241 (103) mg/dL for only LDL-C at goal (P = .0230 and P = .0001). The only LDL-C at goal group had lower HDL-C (vs. all three at goal): 41 (12) vs. 47 (14) mg/dL (P = .0237), with atherogenic dyslipidemia [hypo-HDL-C + hyper-TG] prevalence of 35% in the all three at goal versus 56% in the only LDL-C at goal group (P &lt; .0001). log(TG)/HDL-C was 0.049 (0.021) for all three at goal versus 0.063 (0.021) for only LDL-C at goal (P &lt; .0001). The LDL-C/apoB ratio was 0.92 (0.24) for all three at goal vs. 0.67 (0.18) for only LDL-C at goal (P &lt; .0001), suggestive of smaller/denser LDL. The presence of atherogenic dyslipidemia was associated with a failure to meet all three critical modifiable targets for hypercholesterolemia, such a nonachievement being found in a large proportion (one-third) of very-high risk T2DM patients with very-low on-statin LDL-C. Attainment of all three targets will require (1) titration/permutation of statins, (2) lifestyle (re)inforcement; and/or (3) statin-fibrate bitherapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0351_13871", "title": "[When and how do we treat our hypercholesterolemic patients?].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To compare patients with hypercholesterolaemia (HC) for factors relating to the decision to treat a patient with medication or not; and to assess the suitability of a previously established protocol of HC diagnosis and treatment. Retrospective, descriptive study. Primary care centre. 331 patients diagnosed with HC in the register of risk factors at our centre. 175 patients treated with medication (TM) and 156 not treated with medication. Mean age was 61.2 and 191 were women. 68.8% of the population under study had 2 or more factors of cardiovascular risk (FCVR). 56 patients were in secondary prevention (71.4% TM). 275 patients (83.08%) were in primary prevention. 135 of these received TM, which was indicated only in 45 (37.5%). Mean plasma concentrations (PC) of cholesterol (total and LDL) were greater in the patients treated. 99.3% of non-treated patients and 96.9% of treated patients received dietary counselling. This was maintained in 95% of non-treated patients. The reduction of cholesterol in the PC reached 8% in diet-treated patients by the end of the study. Initially 42.8% were treated with fibrates, 38.9% with statins and 18.3% with resins. By the end of the study 53.6% were treated with statins. The association of HC and other FCVR is common. In primary prevention, a high proportion of patients treated present cardiovascular risk which does not justify medical prescription. In secondary prevention we are closer to the current guidelines." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en020_68216", "title": "Dyslipidemia", "score": 0.009450710108604845, "content": "The three main blood levels collected to assess for dyslipidemia is triglycerides(TG), high density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C), and low density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C). High triglyceride levels (>1.7 mmol/L fasting) can indicate dyslipidemia. Triglycerides are transported through the blood by using very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) as a carrier. One thing to note when measuring triglyceride levels is that fasting for 8-12 hours is required to get an accurate result as non-fasting TG results may be falsely elevated. If TG results are greater than 10 mmol/L, then this needs to be addressed since severe hypertriglceridemia is a risk factor for acute pancreatitis. Another blood level collected to assess dyslipidemia is HDL-C. HDL cholesterol is made up of very little lipids and a high amount of protein. It is beneficial in the body because it functions by going to the tissues and picking up extra cholestrol and fat. Due to the positive effects of HDL-C, it is named \"good" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0509_117", "title": "Pharmacologic treatment of type 2 diabetic dyslipidemia.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Patients with diabetes mellitus have a higher risk for cardiovascular heart disease (CHD) than does the general population, and once they develop CHD, mortality is higher. Good glycemic control will reduce CHD only modestly in patients with diabetes. Therefore, reduction in all cardiovascular risks such as dyslipidemia, hypertension, and smoking is warranted. The focus of this article is on therapy for dyslipidemia in patients with type 2 diabetes. Patients with the metabolic syndrome (insulin resistance) share similarities with patients with type 2 diabetes and may have a comparable cardiovascular risk profile. Diabetic patients tend to have higher triglyceride, lower high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL), and similar low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL) levels compared with those levels in nondiabetic patients. However, diabetic patients tend to have a higher concentration of small dense LDL particles, which are associated with higher CHD risk. Current recommendations are for an LDL goal of less than 100 mg/dl (an option of &lt; 70 mg/dl in very high-risk patients), an HDL goal greater than 40 mg/dl for men and greater than 50 mg/dl for women, and a triglyceride goal less than 150 mg/dl. Nonpharmacologic interventions (diet and exercise) are first-line therapies and are used with pharmacologic therapy when necessary. Lowering LDL levels is the first priority in treating diabetic dyslipidemia. Statins are the first drug choice, followed by resins or ezetimibe, then fenofibrate or niacin. If a single agent is inadequate to achieve lipid goals, combinations of the preceding Drugs may be used. For elevated triglyceride levels, hyperglycemia must be controlled first. If triglyceride or HDL levels remain uncontrolled, pharmacologic agents should be considered. Fibrates are slightly more effective than niacin in lowering triglyceride levels, but niacin increases HDL levels appreciably more than do fibrates. Unlike gemfibrozil, niacin selectively increases subfraction Lp A-I, a cardioprotective HDL. Niacin is distinct in that it has a broad spectrum of beneficial effects on lipids and atherogenic lipoprotein subfraction levels. Niacin produces additive results when used in combination therapy. Recent data suggest that lower dosages and newer formulations of niacin can be used safely in diabetic patients with good glycemic control. Current evidence and guidelines mandate that diabetic dyslipidemia be treated aggressively, and lipid goals can be achieved in most patients with diabetes when all available products are considered and, if necessary, used in combination." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0378_16286", "title": "[Secondary prevention of coronary artery disease with lipid-lowering drugs].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Before the statins era, this was one of the most debated questions in the field of cardiology: although hypolipidemic drugs (mainly fibrates) decreased the cardiovascular morbidity and mortality, their influence on total mortality was not significant. The 4S study demonstrated the efficacy of a statin on cardiovascular morbidity and mortality and on total mortality. This was confirmed by the CARE and the LIPID trials. Statins should be prescribed to all coronary patients, whatever the type of coronary disease, the age (we do not know yet for people older than 80), the gender, the basal cholesterol level (maybe statins are not efficacious when it is&lt;2g/l); cholesterol level has to be lowered below 2g/l. Two trials of drugs increasing the HDL cholesterol level were recently published. Unfortunately their results are contradictory. Statins should be the first level drugs. Maybe it is useful to decrease the triglycerides level and to increase the HDL cholesterol level. The association of a statin and a fibrate is reserved to specialized centers. We should not forget the usefulness of diet. We must also take the other risk factors into account." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_174484", "title": "Metabolic syndrome", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "EGIR The European Group for the Study of Insulin Resistance (1999) requires insulin resistance defined as the top 25% of the fasting insulin values among nondiabetic individuals AND two or more of the following: Central obesity: waist circumference ≥ 94 cm or 37 inches (male), ≥ 80 cm or 31.5 inches (female) Dyslipidemia: TG ≥ 2.0 mmol/L and/or HDL-C < 1.0 mmol/L or treated for dyslipidemia Blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg or antihypertensive medication Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 6.1 mmol/L NCEP The U.S. National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel III (2001) requires at least three of the following: Central obesity: waist circumference ≥ 102 cm or 40 inches (male), ≥ 88 cm or 35 inches(female) Dyslipidemia: TG ≥ 1.7 mmol/L (150 mg/dl) Dyslipidemia: HDL-C < 40 mg/dL (male), < 50 mg/dL (female) Blood pressure ≥ 130/85 mmHg (or treated for hypertension) Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 6.1 mmol/L (110 mg/dl)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0075_2934", "title": "[Guidelines for the treatment of hypercholesterolemia].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The prevalence of mild and moderate hypercholesterolemia among the middle-aged population of the G.D.R. is about 30%. Thus, this is the most important risk factor for coronary heart diseases. Primary therapeutic techniques are elimination of overweight, low-fat diet, rich in monoenic and polyenic acids, and increase of physical activity. When by these measures a decrease of cholesterol to 5.2-5.5 mmol/l is not achieved the introduction of lipid drugs is to be considered in dependence on the individual risk (associated risk factors like smoking, hypertension, diabetes, low HDL-cholesterol). In case of mild to moderate polygenic hypercholesterolemia cholestyramine, nicotinic acid and modern fibrates have the priority. Familial hypercholesterolemia demands as a rule the introduction of statins (e.g. lovastatin) or combinations of the above mentioned lipid drugs or the combination of cholestyramine and lovastatin, resp. In this way the prognosis even of patients with severe familial hypercholesterolemia can be improved decisively. Considering the fact that this would be a life-accompanying therapy a thorough consideration of the risk/benefit ratio and an adequate medical supervision are necessary." }, { "id": "Pharmacology_Katzung_1006", "title": "Pharmacology_Katzung", "score": 0.00934042483338258, "content": "Neal L. Benowitz, MD A 35-year-old man presents with a blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg. He has been generally healthy, is sedentary, drinks several cocktails per day, and does not smoke cigarettes. He has a family history of hypertension, and his father died of a myocardial infarction at age 55. Physical examination is remarkable only for moderate obesity. Total cholesterol is 220, and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol level is 40 mg/dL. Fasting glucose is 105 mg/dL. Chest X-ray is normal. Electrocardiogram shows left ven-tricular enlargement. How would you treat this patient?" }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_54", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009301356368871715, "content": "■LDL > 130 mg/dL or HDL < 40 mg/dL, even if total serum cholesterol is < 200 mg/dL, is diagnostic of dyslipidemia. Based on risk stratification (see Table 2.1-11). Risk factors include diabetes (considered a CAD risk equivalent), smoking, hypertension, HDL < 40 mg/dL, age > 45 (males), age > 55 (females), and early CAD in first-degree relatives (males < 55 and females < 65). The first intervention should be a 12-week trial of diet and exercise in a patient with no known atherosclerotic vascular disease. Commonly used lipid-lowering agents are listed in Table 2.1-12. The BP goal in uncomplicated hypertension is < 140/< 90. For diabetics or patients with renal disease, the goal is < 130/< 80. Defined as a systolic BP > 140 mmHg and/or a diastolic BP > 90 based on three measurements separated in time (see Table 2.1-13). Classified as 1° or 2°." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0355_11939", "title": "Prevention of coronary heart disease. Part I. Primary prevention.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The first concern in primary prevention is the physician's belief that primary prevention is important for all adults and that intervention can significantly affect risk. Given the coronary plaque burden over many years and the importance of the development of healthy lifestyles early in adulthood to decrease coronary plaque burden, there are excellent reasons to begin prevention even with young adults. At the very least, a patient seen for any reason should provide a smoking history, have knowledge of the presence of early CHD in first-degree relatives and measurements of blood pressure, height, and weight, provide evidence for a cholesterol level within 5 years (after age 20 according to NCEP guidelines or in middle age according to ACP guidelines), and be given an assessment of glucose tolerance or diabetes. Information about alcohol intake and physical activity status are also of some importance. Other than height, weight, and blood pressure, during the physical examination, the physician should initially assess the strength of pulses in the lower extremities, evidence for carotid or femoral bruits, and eyegrounds for retinal arterial changes, and the skin and subcutaneous tissue should be examined for xanthomas and the eyes should be examined for corneal arcus and xanthelesma. These elements should be part of any initial examination by a primary care physician and are not extraordinary. In addition to lipid and blood sugar analyses, other evaluations may include blood urea nitrogen and creatinine and electrolytes in patients with hypertension or diabetes or in patients who are on antihypertensive agents. It may be prudent to obtain an ECG for patients who are older than 40 years. The elements mentioned above are the elements of the history, physical examination, and laboratory examination in subjects without a past history of CHD and with no clinical evidence for CHD. Primary prevention management begins with a discussion of risk factors with the patient. The key interventions aim at the lowering of blood pressure to at least less than 140/90 mm Hg, the complete cessation of smoking, the lowering of lipid levels to less than 130 mg/dL, the lowering of triglycerides to less than 200 mg/dL (or, some would argue, &lt; 150 mg/dL), and the attempt to keep HDL cholesterol above 35 mg/dL (more than 40 to 45 mg/dL is a better goal) with the use of lifestyle modification. For patients with diabetes, strict control of glucose levels is essential to minimize disease of the microvasculature and possibly to minimize progressive renal disease. There are several lifestyle modifications for lipids. For patients with elevated LDL cholesterol, modifications include a less than 30% fat calorie diet and less than 300 mg of cholesterol intake daily, with fat calories approximately equally distributed among saturated fats, polyunsaturated fats, and monounsaturated fats (1/3, 1/3, 1/3; rule of 3s). The assistance of a dietician is extremely helpful in this regard. For patients with a low HDL cholesterol, weight reduction (for overweight patients) by calorie control and increased physical activity and smoking cessation will have some modest effect. For patients with elevated triglycerides, a diet similar to that for lowering of LDL cholesterol with the addition of stricter calorie limitation, avoidance of refined sugars, increase in complex carbohydrates, and avoidance of alcohol will be helpful. A decrease in the percent of fat calories to 20% to 25% will be of assistance to those patients with particularly high triglycerides. The treatment of underlying conditions such as diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, liver disease, and some renal conditions may also significantly modify high triglycerides. For patients with hypertension, limitation of sodium to 2 gm/d (6 gm sodium chloride), limitation of alcohol to 1 to 2 drinks a day, increased physical activity, and weight reduction are the key lifestyle modifications. (ABSTRACT TRUNCATED)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0568_10980", "title": "Management of hypertriglyceridemia.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Hypertriglyceridemia is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events and acute pancreatitis. Along with lowering low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels and raising high-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels, lowering triglyceride levels in high-risk patients (e.g., those with cardiovascular disease or diabetes) has been associated with decreased cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. Although the management of mixed dyslipidemia is controversial, treatment should focus primarily on lowering low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels. Secondary goals should include lowering non-high-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels (calculated by subtracting high-density lipoprotein cholesterol from total cholesterol). If serum triglyceride levels are high, lowering these levels can be effective at reaching non-high-density lipoprotein cholesterol goals. Initially, patients with hypertriglyceridemia should be counseled about therapeutic lifestyle changes (e.g., healthy diet, regular exercise, tobacco-use cessation). Patients also should be screened for metabolic syndrome and other acquired or secondary causes. Patients with borderline-high serum triglyceride levels (i.e., 150 to 199 mg per dL [1.70 to 2.25 mmol per L]) and high serum triglyceride levels (i.e., 200 to 499 mg per dL [2.26 to 5.64 mmol per L]) require an overall cardiac risk assessment. Treatment of very high triglyceride levels (i.e., 500 mg per dL [5.65 mmol per L] or higher) is aimed at reducing the risk of acute pancreatitis. Statins, fibrates, niacin, and fish oil (alone or in various combinations) are effective when pharmacotherapy is indicated." }, { "id": "article-23166_24", "title": "Familial Hypercholesterolemia -- Treatment / Management -- Approach to Therapy", "score": 0.009229224590670375, "content": "All patients with familial hypercholesterolemia and their families should receive education regarding lifestyle management. This includes a healthy diet, quitting smoking, and physical therapy/activity. Dietitians or nutritionists should advise patients and family members to reduce the amount of food with high cholesterol and encourage them to lose weight. [29] A holistic approach should be sought in the treatment of FH. Besides lowering LDL levels, controlling the patient’s lifestyle risk, and other modifiable risk factors of coronary heart disease is essential in reducing CV morbidity and mortality in these patients. Setting a suitable target LDL level is difficult, as patients with FH present with varying degrees of elevated LDL levels. Most guidelines recommend a reduction of 50% or more from the initial untreated LDL level in patients with FH. [30] [31] Some guidelines consider patients with prior coronary heart disease or concomitant diabetes are considered high risk, and the recommendation is to have an LDL level below 70 mg/dL, while patients without prior coronary heart disease or diabetes are considered the low-moderate risk and have recommended target LDL level below 100 mg/dL. LDL levels should be checked every 2 to 3 months while on treatment to adjust drug therapies accordingly. [32]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0563_17307", "title": "Management of dyslipidemia in the metabolic syndrome: recommendations of the Spanish HDL-Forum.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "In order to characterize the metabolic syndrome it becomes necessary to establish a number of diagnostic criteria. Because of its impact on cardiovascular morbidity/mortality, considerable attention has been focussed on the dyslipidemia accompanying the metabolic syndrome. The aim of this review is to highlight the fundamental aspects of the pathophysiology, diagnosis, and the treatment of the metabolic syndrome dyslipidemia with recommendations to clinicians. The clinical expression of the metabolic syndrome dyslipidemia is characterized by hypertriglyceridemia and low levels of high-density lipoprotein-cholesterol (HDL-C). In addition, metabolic syndrome dyslipidemia is associated with high levels of apolipoprotein (apo) B-100-rich particles of a particularly atherogenic phenotype (small dense low-density lipoprotein-cholesterol [LDL-C]. High levels of triglyceride-rich particles (very low-density lipoprotein) are also evident both at baseline and in overload situations (postprandial hyperlipidemia). Overall, the 'quantitative' dyslipidemia characterized by hypertriglyceridemia and low levels of HDL-C and the 'qualitative' dyslipidemia characterized by high levels of apo B-100- and triglyceride-rich particles, together with insulin resistance, constitute an atherogenic triad in patients with the metabolic syndrome. The therapeutic management of the metabolic syndrome, regardless of the control of the bodyweight, BP, hyperglycemia or overt diabetes mellitus, aims at maintaining optimum plasma lipid levels. Therapeutic goals are similar to those for high-risk situations because of the coexistence of multiple risk factors. The primary goal in treatment should be achieving an LDL-C level of &lt;100 mg/dL (or &lt;70 mg/dL in cases with established ischemic heart disease or risk equivalents). A further goal is increasing the HDL-C level to &gt;or=40 mg/dL in men or 50 mg/dL in women. A non-HDL-C goal of 130 mg/dL should also be aimed at in cases of hypertriglyceridemia. Lifestyle interventions, such as maintaining an adequate diet, and a physical activity program, constitute an essential part of management. Nevertheless, when pharmacologic therapy becomes necessary, fibrates and HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins) are the most effective drugs in controlling the metabolic syndrome hyperlipidemia, and are thus the drugs of first choice. Fibrates are effective in lowering triglycerides and increasing HDL-C levels, the two most frequent abnormalities associated with the metabolic syndrome, and statins are effective in lowering LDL-C levels, even though hypercholesterolemia occurs less frequently. In addition, the combination of fibrates and statins is highly effective in controlling abnormalities of the lipid profile in patients with the metabolic syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0537_20811", "title": "[The influence of targeted intervention on the incidence of risk factors of cardiovascular diseases at medical staff].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The work addresses the targeted intervention of cardiovascular diseases at medical staff. SET AND METHODICS: During 2002-2004 years, within the scope of preventive examination, there was made targeted prevention of risk factors of cardiovascular diseases (CVD) at the big hospital employees at the Centre of preventive care of employees and in the department of preventive cardiology of Ist Internal Clinic of LF UP and FN Olomouc. According to the effective tables, there was stated a CVD risk of these employees. The employees received a personal individual letter which informed them of the level of CVD risk and proposed a targeted intervention of risk factors. The part of the set--427 employees of the average age of 38.93 years (SD 11.39), 69 men (M) of the average age of 40 years (SD 12.47) and 358 women (F) of the average age of 38.7 years (SD 11.18) was examined another time during 2004-2005 years. The methodics of second examination was the same as at the first examination, only the questionnaire was complemented by the questions related to the knowledge of the CVD risk stated at previous examination. There occurred statistically significant decrease of LDL cholesterol in the set (from 2.87 mmol/l to 1.23 mmol/l, p &lt; 0.0001) and BMI decrease (from 24.35 to 24.16, p &lt; 0.05) and at the same time statistically significant increase of total cholesterol (from 5.09 mmol/l to 5.27 mmol/l, p &lt; 0.05) and triglycerides (from 1.27 mmol/l to 3.01 mmol/l, p &lt; 0.0001). There was no significant change in other RFs (BP, WHR, HDL cholesterol, moving activity). The influence on RF of smoking was statistically significant (23 employees quitted smoking, 10 employees started, p &lt; 0.05). 53 F (14.80%) and 3 M (4.34%) know their cardiovascular risk, 235 F (65.64%) and 53 M (76.81%) do not know their cardiovascular risk. The work approved the influence of targeted intervention on the incidence of cardiovascular diseases risk factors and at the same time low level of knowledge of one's own individual risk, despite of targeted intervention." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_19134", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009132593846914895, "content": "1588 DYSLIPIDEMIA The treatment of dyslipidemia is central in aiming for long-term relief from angina, reduced need for revascularization, and reduction in myocardial infarction and death. The control of lipids can be achieved by the combination of a diet low in saturated and trans-unsaturated fatty acids, exercise, and weight loss. Nearly always, HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins) are required and can lower LDL cholesterol (25–50%), raise HDL cholesterol (5–9%), and lower triglycerides (5–30%). A powerful treatment effect of statins on atherosclerosis, IHD, and outcomes is seen regardless of the pretreatment LDL cholesterol level. Fibrates or niacin can be used to raise HDL cholesterol and lower triglycerides (Chaps. 291e and 421). Controlled trials with lipid-regulating regimens have shown equal proportional benefit for men, women, the elderly, diabetic patients, and smokers. Compliance with the health-promoting behaviors listed above is generally very poor, and a conscientious" }, { "id": "article-25039_14", "title": "Metabolic Syndrome -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.009118598895869027, "content": "Patients with hypertriglyceridemia defined as triglycerides more than 150 mg/dL should be evaluated and further workup should include checking full lipid analysis, thyroid-stimulating hormone level, urinalysis, and liver function tests. After a comprehensive analysis, patients should first be counseled for lifestyle changes including abstinence from smoking, weight loss, and diet and exercise modification. Physicians will start treating hypertriglyceridemia once the level is above 500 mg/dL, and usually, patients have mixed dyslipidemia disorder by that point. Patients are usually on a moderate to high-intensity statin therapy first; however, fibrates, niacin, and omega acids are also available for treating hypertriglyceridemia. Elevated LDL should also be aggressively managed in these patients especially if the atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) risk score if more than 7.5%, which establishes a patient’s 10-year ASCVD risk. These patients should be placed on high-intensity statin therapy with a goal of dropping the LDL by 50%." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0930_20791", "title": "New treatment options for lipid-lowering therapy in subjects with type 2 diabetes.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Dyslipidemias represent a variety of quantitative and/or qualitative lipoprotein abnormalities. According to etiology, we distinguish primary dyslipidemias with strictly genetic background and secondary ones with their origin in other disease or pathological states. Diabetic dyslipidemia is a type of secondary dyslipidemia and plays an important role in determining the cardiovascular risk of subjects with type 2 diabetes. In these patients, insulin resistance is responsible for overproduction and secretion of atherogenic very low density lipoprotein. In addition, insulin resistance promotes the production of small dense low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and reduces high-density lipoprotein (HDL) production. Cardiovascular disease remains a leading cause of morbidity and mortality in diabetic patients. Previous results support the role for small, dense LDL particles in the etiology of atherosclerosis and their association with coronary artery disease. Moreover, lowering LDL cholesterol reduces the risk of cardiovascular death. Therefore, the European guidelines for the management of dyslipidemias recommend an LDL cholesterol goal &lt; 100 mg/dL in diabetic subjects without cardiovascular events. Moreover, if triglycerides (TG) are elevated (&gt; 400 mg/dL), they recommend a non-HDL cholesterol goal &lt; 130 mg/dL in diabetic individuals without cardiovascular events. Statins are the first line of LDL-lowering therapy in diabetic patients and combined therapy with ezetimibe and statins could be useful in very high cardiovascular risk diabetic subjects. Furthermore, the effect of a fibrate as an add-on treatment to a statin could improve the lipid profile in diabetic individuals with high TG and low HDL cholesterol. Regarding new therapies, recent data from phase III trials show that proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9 (PCSK9) inhibitors considerably decrease LDL cholesterol. Thus, they may be useful in diabetic patients with concomitant diseases such as familial dyslipidemia, recurrent cardiovascular events, and elevated LDL cholesterol after second drug administration in addition to maximal statin dose or statin intolerance." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 25, 295 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 5, 47 ] ], "text": "According to the 2014 SEGO Oncoguide on cervical cancer prevention, when a cytology shows a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion, the action to be taken is a colposcopy, with or without biopsy depending on the findings (regardless of the patient's age and parity)." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Repeat cytology in 1 month.", "2": "Colposcopy with possible biopsy.", "3": "Hysterectomy with bilateral salpinguectomy and ovarian conservation.", "4": "Fractionated uterine curettage.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_3040", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.01308227465214761, "content": "2. Treatment is recommended for a histologic diagnosis of CIN 3 or if colposcopy is unsatisfactory. Although invasive cervical cancer is very rare in this age group, prospective follow-up of a histological diagnosis of CIN 2 or 3, not otherwise specified, in young women should be limited to those women likely to be compliant with the recommendations. 3. After 2 consecutive negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy results, implying negative cytology and colposcopy with satisfactory colposcopic examinations, adolescents and young women can return to routine cytologic screening. An annual screening interval should be recommended. 4. Treatment is recommended if CIN 3 is diagnosed histologically or if CIN 2 or 3 persists for 24 months. 1. Hysterectomy remains the preferred management recommendation for women with a histological diagnosis of AIS on a specimen from a diagnostic excisional procedure (Fig 19.16F). 2." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0310_14604", "title": "Comparing two modalities of management of women with cytologic evidence of squamous or glandular atypia: early repeat cytology or colposcopy.", "score": 0.012401310889319232, "content": "Early repeat cytology is recommended in most screening programs for cervical cancer in subjects with squamous or glandular abnormalities not amounting to neoplasia (atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance, ASCUS), but immediate colposcopy is also recommended in some countries, especially those where there is easy access to colposcopic facilities. We evaluated the cost-effectiveness of the two procedures in a prospective study of women with cytologic ASCUS, invited to cytocolposcopic assessment after 6 months. Colposcopy-directed biopsy was assumed as the gold standard, and the accuracy of colposcopy at 6 months was assumed to be equal to that of immediate colposcopy. Out of 874 compliers, punch biopsy was performed in 303 cases (34.7%), and 19 CIN2+ lesions were detected (CIN2 = 12, CIN3 = 6, microinvasive carcinoma = 1). Detecting 13 CIN2+ lesions at colposcopy required 874 colposcopies and 303 directed biopsies: the cost per CIN2+ lesion detected with the procedure was 2,749 US$. Detecting 15 CIN2+ lesions at repeat cytology required 874 cytologic examinations, 137 colposcopies, 64 directed biopsies, and 6 diagnostic large-loop resections, the latter being performed in subjects with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion and less severe lesions at punch biopsy: the cost per CIN2+ lesion detected with the procedure was 1,961 US$. The policy of repeat smear was more cost-effective than immediate colposcopy. According to such results, the protocol of the Florence screening program has been modified since October 1996." }, { "id": "article-19238_16", "title": "Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.01160826032540676, "content": "Women treated for CIN-2, or greater should have a Pap smear and HPV testing 12 and 24 months after the procedure. Even with positive endocervical margins on an excised specimen, the procedure is deemed 70 to 80% effective. When margins are positive, repeat cytology testing in 4-6 months accompanied by an endocervical curettage is the course of action.  A repeat excisional procedure is one option for treatment of persistent or recurrent CIN-2 or 3. In some circumstances, patients will opt for a hysterectomy, which is also appropriate for recurrent CIN. [1]" }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_3039", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.011407584652625136, "content": "7. A repeat diagnostic excisional procedure is acceptable. The Guidelines allow for hysterectomy if a repeat diagnostic excisional procedure is not feasible. An undisclosed invasive cancer within the endocervical canal must be excluded prior to hysterectomy. 8. For women with histologically proven residual/recurrent CIN 2 or 3, the Guidelines permit a repeat excisional procedure or hysterectomy. 1. For adolescents with a histological diagnosis of CIN 2 or 3 not otherwise specified, the Guidelines state that either treatment or observation by cytology and colposcopy every 6 months for up to 24 months is acceptable provided colposcopy is satisfactory (Fig 19.16E). Allowing for the subjectivity in this histological distinction, observation is preferred for a diagnosis of CIN 2 alone, but treatment is acceptable. 2." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_11848", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.010600946836704647, "content": "1790SPECIFIC CONSIDERATIONSPART IIHPV test performed at the same time also is negative, test-ing should be repeated every 5 years for women ages 30 to 65 years. Screening is not recommended for women age older than 65 or without a cervix (prior hysterectomy) unless they have a history of high-grade precancerous lesions. Women with a history of cervical dysplasia, HPV infection, or cervical cancer need more frequent screening based on their diagnosis. Primary high-risk HPV (hrHPV) screening is also an acceptable alterna-tive to cytologic screening for women ages 30-65 because of an increased detection of high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) and increased negative predictive value.6HPV Vaccine. Three HPV vaccines have been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).7 In 2006, a quad-rivalent (4vHPV) vaccine was approved that targets HPV 16 and 18, which cause 70% of cervical cancers, and HPV geno-types 6 and 11, which cause 90% of genital warts. In Decem-ber" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0342_10010", "title": "Clinical evaluation of follow-up methods and results of atypical glandular cells of undetermined significance (AGUS) detected on cervicovaginal Pap smears.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The aim of this study was to evaluate the efficacy of the follow-up methods and results of atypical glandular cells of undetermined significance (AGUS) detected on cervicovaginal Pap smears. From May 1991 to December 1996, we have performed 407, 451 cervicovaginal Pap smears, of which 326 patients were identified as AGUS. Of the 326 patients, 268 patients were followed by repeat Pap smears, colposcopy, cone biopsy, or endometrial curettage. The incidence of AGUS on Pap smears is approximately 0.08%. The mean age of the patients was 43 years (range 22-79 years). The most common complaint was abnormal vaginal bleeding. The gross findings of the cervix were normal to mild erosion. The following past histories of patients could affect the AGUS results on Pap smear: 30 had cone biopsy, 21 had Pap smears on pregnancy and within 8 weeks after delivery or evacuation, 3 were on hormonal replacement therapy, 2 had intrauterine devices for contraception, and 5 were undergoing follow-up after treatment of cervical cancer. The benign lesions detected during follow-up periods were 6 microglandular hyperplasia of the cervix, 5 atypical squamous metaplasia of the cervix, 2 cervical endometriosis, 2 tubal metaplasia, 10 cervical myoma, 11 cervical polyps, 9 endometrial polyps, 3 uterine myoma, 1 pelvic endometriosis, 1 ovarian endometriosis, and 4 uterine adenomyosis. The premalignant or malignant lesions of the cervix were 4 low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions, 24 high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions, 8 glandular atypia/dysplasia, 5 adenocarcinoma in situ, 3 microinvasive adenocarcinoma, and 4 invasive adenocarcinoma. The neoplastic lesions of the uterus were 6 endometrial hyperplasia, 11 endometrial adenocarcinoma, 1 malignant mixed Müllerian tumor, and 1 metastatic endometrial adenocarcinoma. Sixty-seven (25%) of 268 patients followed up were identified as having clinically significant lesions of the cervix or uterus. The detection rates of abnormal lesions were 3.1% with repeated Pap smears (3/98), 28.4% with colposcopic-directed biopsy (31/109), 63.6% with cone biopsy (35/55), and 29.7% with endometrial curettage (19/64). AGUS on Pap smears showed various benign and malignant lesions of the cervix or uterus. The clinicians must communicate with the pathologists regarding the patient's clinical information as well as the origin of the atypical glandular cells in Pap smears. We recommend that patients with AGUS on Pap smear should undergo immediate intensive diagnostic studies, including colposcopic-directed biopsy with endocervical curettage or cone biopsy, to detect cervical lesions and endometrial curettage to detect endometrial lesions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0520_3152", "title": "Recurrent smear abnormalities where repeat loop treatment is not possible: is hysterectomy the answer?", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The objective of this study was to determine the outcome of women who underwent hysterectomy for recurrent cytological abnormalities where repeat loop treatment was considered not to be technically possible because of insufficient remaining cervical tissue. Women undergoing a hysterectomy for the above indication at the Northern Gynaecological Cancer Centre over a period of 10 years (1992-2001) were identified from a prospectively collected database. Case notes were then reviewed and women undergoing hysterectomy for other indications were excluded. Relevant demographic and clinical data were then extracted. 33 patients meeting the above criteria were identified. The overall hysterectomy rate for this indication was 0.73%. 20 out of the 33 women had significant pathology on the hysterectomy specimen. 95% of these had high-grade disease with one having a Stage 1A1 squamous carcinoma. None of the patients required more radical treatment than a simple hysterectomy. There were no major complications following the hysterectomy. Positive endocervical margins on the previous loop specimen (P = 0.05) was an important correlating factor predicting the presence of CIN on the hysterectomy specimen. One out of the thirty hysterectomies (3.3%) performed using the vaginal route had incomplete excision compared to one of three (33%) using the abdominal route. Hysterectomy was successful in treating 85.2% of the women; only 4 women subsequently developed vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia. Simple hysterectomy appears to be a suitable diagnostic and treatment option for women with recurrent high-grade cytological abnormalities where further loop treatment is technically not possible. Incomplete excision at the endocervical margin on the previous loop specimen was the main factor associated with the presence of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia at hysterectomy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0590_65", "title": "[Management of CIN1].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 1 (CIN1) is a lesion of basal cells consisting in an architecture disorganization and cytological atypia limited to the lower third of the cervical epithelium. It is considered as a precancerous lesion uterine cervix carcinoma while they spontaneously regress in more than 60% of cases in two years. The problems related to the management of CIN1 as defined by the recommendations established in 2002 are the over-treatment and the great variability of clinical practices. Moreover, the potential of new tests has been investigated since 2002. To establish these new recommendations, the medline database has been consulted and the references essentially published between 2001 and May 2007 have been investigated. Publications were selected and classified according to their level of evidence (LE) in order to establish the grade of recommendations. One of the problems encountered when facing a CIN1 is to misdiagnose a more severe lesion firstly because of the intra- and interobserver variability and secondly because the colposcopy-directed biopsy is not mandatorily representative of the more severe lesion. Nevertheless, because the risk of cancer is extremely low, a conization is not necessary in an asymptomatic woman with a LSIL/ASC-US pap smear in case of CIN1 even if the squamocolumnar junction is not entirely visualized (LE 2/3). The endocervical curettage cannot be recommended in this case because its efficacy is globally poor and unknown in case of CIN1. Concerning the natural history of CIN1, the recent studies, which included more than 1200 women and more than 700 for two of them, confirm that the rate of progression of a CIN1 to a CIN3 or more severe lesion is less than 9% in the two years following the initial diagnosis (LE2). A CIN1 is associated with a risk of evolution to a CIN2 or more severe lesion that is not markedly more important than the risk associated with a LSIL/ASC-US pap smear while the colposcopy is normal or the biopsy is negative (between 8 and 13% whatever the results of the initial colposcopy) (LE 2/3). The recommendation in case of CIN1 is a strict follow-up. A colposcopy and a treatment are necessary in case of persistence or progression of the abnormalities (LE2). Data from trials studying the contribution of HPV testing in case of CIN1 show that its sensitivity is similar to repeat cytology with less referral to colposcopy to detect CIN2 or more severe lesion. These data have been considered to establish follow-up recommendations to manage CIN1: if the exams (cytology and/or HPV testing) at 12 months are negative, patients can be followed by an annual cytology. In case of aggravation of the cytology, a colposcopy is necessary. In case of positive HPV testing or persisting ASC-US/LSIL at 12 months, a repeat control is necessary at 18 months and a treatment is proposed according to colposcopy findings." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0039_4419", "title": "[Review of cervical smears in a gynaecologic department after a period of ten years under the consideration of colposcopic findings(author's transl)].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The study comprises 96042 cytologic cases within a period of 10 years. After screening women were admitted for biopsies. The histologic findings are reported. By 690 \"right positive smears\" 71 squamous cell cervical cancers stage Ib or more 87 microcarcinomata-1, 377 carcinomata-in-situ of the cervix, 100 dysplasias, 47 adenocarcinomata and 8 different malign tumors were found. 61 cases having histologic diagnosis outside are just mentioned. 629 cases which had been diagnosed in our hospital are described extensively. The first biopsy was nearly always taken by selective scraping of the ecto- and endocervix. Technical improvements of this method are explained. The efficiency of cytodiagnosis is especially pointed out by separating cases which could have been recognized or suspected by means of inspection or colposcopy only. 140 out of 282 carcinomata-in-situ and 7 invasive, mainly endocervical cancers (Ib-III), could only be diagnosed by a smear. In 17 woemn who turned out to have invasive cancer (Ib -III) a positive smear was the only reason for admission. Careful inspection of the cervix in the hospital, however, was sufficent to reveal the correct diagnosis. In our material the cervical smear could be of little help in cancer diagnosis of the upper genital tract such as adenocarcinoma of the corpus uteri, sarcoma and ovarian cancer. 39 of the 45 women with endometrial cancer cells in the specimen had bleeding anomalies, especially postmenopausal. The number of \"false negative smears\" mainly yields from histologic examination of 2415 uteri after hysterectomy and 4497 specimen after curettage of cervix and corpus uteri. In the first group 1 microcarcinoma-2 and 5 carcinomata-in-situ, in the second group which obviously is less representative 4 carcinomata-in-situ were found unexpectedly. It is also searched for cases which had a negative smear first and a positive or suspect smear later. This happened in 41 patients. The underlying lesion were 5 advanced cancers, 2 microcarcinomata-3 and 34 carcinomata-in-situ. Up to 30 months elapsed between the last negative cytologic finding and histologic diagnosis. 121 out of 811 suspect or positive smears were \"false positive\". Cytologic grouping III, IV and V inconsistently matched with the corresponding histologic results. The type and extension of squamous cell atypias are anticipated with little certainty. The great number of suspect specimen (group III) both in microcarcinoma-4 (6 in 78) and carcinoma-in-situ (33 in 344) was striking. Therefore we consider a histologic diagnosis to be necessary in this group as well as in group IV and V. The method of fractioned cervical scraping makes the decision of hospital admission easier. Low risk for the patient does not imply any loss in diagnostic security." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0926_116", "title": "Diagnosis of Cervical Precancers by Endocervical Curettage at Colposcopy of Women With Abnormal Cervical Cytology.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To evaluate the performance of routine endocervical curettage (ECC) for diagnosing high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 2 or worse and additional precancers not otherwise detected by ectocervical biopsies. In a secondary analysis of the Biopsy Study, a cross-sectional study conducted between 2009 and 2012 at the University of Oklahoma Health and Sciences Center that found an incremental increase in detection of cervical precancers by multiple biopsies at colposcopy, ECC was performed in most women aged 30 years or older. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 2 or worse yield by ECC alone was evaluated in analyses stratified by cervical cytology (atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance [ASC-US] or low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions [LSIL] compared with atypical squamous cells, cannot exclude high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions [ASC-H] or high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions [HSIL] or worse), colposcopic impression (less than high-grade compared with high-grade), human papillomavirus (HPV)-16 infection status, whether the examination was satisfactory, and by ECC indications per the current guidelines for cervical cancer screening. The diagnostic value of ECC for detecting additional disease was evaluated by the number of lesion-directed ectocervical biopsies. Of the 204 women aged 30 years or older, 181 (88.7%) underwent ECC. Overall ECC detected 14.4% CIN 2 or worse (95% CI 10.0-20.2%). Endocervical curettage was more likely to find disease in the endocervix among women with high-grade cytology, positive HPV-16 infection, or high-grade colposcopic impressions (respective P values &lt;.05). Among women with ASC-US or LSIL cytology, those with an unsatisfactory examination had a 13.0% CIN 2 or worse yield on ECC (95% CI 6.1-25.7); when colposcopic examination was normal or satisfactory with visible abnormal lesions, ECC detected less than 5% CIN 2 or worse in the endocervix. An ASC-H or HSIL or worse cytology was associated with a CIN 2 or worse yield of 25.8% by ECC (95% CI 16.6-37.9%). However, ECC found only 3.9% (95% CI 1.9-7.8%) additional CIN 2 or worse beyond the cumulative disease detected by up to four biopsies of visible acetowhite ectocervical lesions. Additional CIN 2 or worse yield by ECC increased when fewer lesion-directed biopsies were taken (P&lt;.05). The additional yield of CIN 2 or worse by ECC in a colposcopy with up to four ectocervical biopsies was low. Based on our findings, we recommend routine ECC be performed in women aged 45 years old or older with HPV-16 infection and in any woman aged 30 years or older with HSIL or worse or ASC-H cytology, high-grade colposcopic impression, or ASC-US or LSIL cytology and an unsatisfactory examination. ClinicalTrials.gov, NCT00339989." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0916_11936", "title": "See and treat strategy by LEEP conization in patients with abnormal cervical cytology.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "To determine the overtreatment and re-LEEP rates of see and treat strategy (S &amp; T) in women who underwent S &amp; T by LEEP and to identify the risk factors for overtreatment and surgical margin and/or endocervical curettage positivity. A total of 800 patients who underwent S &amp; T in Istanbul University Cerrahpasa Medical Faculty between June 2010 and June 2016 were retrospectively analyzed. Overtreatment rate was found to be 46.6%, decreasing with higher grade of cervical smear abnormalities. Age more than 45, low grade of cervical cytologic abnormality and absence of glandular involvement were associated with higher overtreatment rates. The more advanced the histopathology, the more increased risk of surgical margin on LEEP and ECC positivity (p &lt; 0.0001, for both). Glandular involvement was associated with both surgical margin and ECC positivity. S &amp; T can be used in patients with high grade cytologic anomaly with an acceptable overtreatment rate. In addition, bigger pieces of specimens may need to be removed during LEEP in patients who have suspicious images of higher grade of abnormalities on colposcopy to reduce surgical margin or ECC positivity. When high rate of ECC positivity in patients with HSIL cytology is considered, we suggest performing ECC to every patients with HSIL." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en249_5189", "title": "Bethesda system", "score": 0.009657879284235251, "content": "CIN 1 is the most common and most benign form of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and usually resolves spontaneously within two years. Because of this, LSIL results can be managed with a simple \"watch and wait\" philosophy. However, because there is a 12–16% chance of progression to more severe dysplasia, the physician may want to follow the results more aggressively by performing a colposcopy with biopsy. If the dysplasia progresses, treatment may be necessary. Treatment involves removal of the affected tissue, which can be accomplished by LEEP, cryosurgery, cone biopsy, or laser ablation. HSIL: high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL or HGSIL) indicates moderate or severe cervical intraepithelial neoplasia or carcinoma in situ. It is usually diagnosed following a Pap test. In some cases these lesions can lead to invasive cervical cancer, if not followed appropriately." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0311_7629", "title": "Human papillomavirus testing as triage for atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance and low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions: sensitivity, specificity, and cost-effectiveness.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Our purpose was to evaluate the cost-effectiveness of the use of a Food and Drug Administration-approved human papillomavirus test in triaging patients with Papanicolaou smears showing atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance or a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion for colposcopy compared with an algorithm that used cytologic follow-up. Four hundred sixty-two women referred to our Colposcopy Clinic with a Papanicolaou smear report of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance or a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion underwent repeat Papanicolaou smear, cervical colposcopy, directed cervical biopsy, and endocervical curettage. In addition, human papillomavirus testing by the Food and Drug Administration-approved HPV Profile (Digene Diagnostics, Silver Spring, Md.) test was done. A comparison of sensitivity, specificity, and cost-effectiveness of an algorithm determining the need for colposcopy on the basis of repeat cytologic testing versus an algorithm that incorporated repeat cytologic testing and human papillomavirus screening was done. The cost-effectiveness of both of these triage algorithms was also compared. As expected, high-risk human papillomavirus deoxyribonucleic acid was detected with greater frequency in relation to increasing severity of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. In 268 women, the follow-up smear obtained in our clinic was reported as negative. High-risk human papillomavirus types were found in 23.5% of these women. In the human papillomavirus-negative women, 5.9% had grade 2 or 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia confirmed on cervical biopsy. In comparison, 20.6% of those with a positive result of the human papillomavirus test had grade 2 or 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia on biopsy (p &lt; 0.001). Despite this difference, the sensitivity of a positive result of a high-risk human papillomavirus test in predicting the presence of grade 2 or 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia was only 52%. Among the women for whom a follow-up clinic Papanicolaou smear was reported as showing atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance or a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion, there was no difference in the frequency of biopsy-proved grade 2 or 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia between those women with a positive human papillomavirus test result and those with a negative test result. Colposcopy would have been recommended for 194 women because of a repeat clinic smear revealing atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance, a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion, or a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion, and in 21.6% of these grade 2 or 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia was shown on biopsy (sensitivity 63%, specificity 62%). Colposcopy would have been recommended for 180 women because high-risk human papillomavirus or a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion was detected at the clinic visit, and in 25% of this group grade 2 or 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia was shown on biopsy (sensitivity 67%, specificity 66%). Sensitivity and specificity were virtually identical for the two algorithms, but the cost of human papillomavirus testing was nearly double that of triage based on repeat cytologic testing alone ($692 vs $1246 per case). The Food and Drug Administration-approved HPV Profile test is not a cost-effective triage for patients referred with Papanicolaou smears reported as showing atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance or low-grade squamous lesions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0533_15131", "title": "Abnormal Pap smears: a comparison of total abdominal hysterectomy and cone biopsy in management.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A recent study found that colposcopy is still not available to over 50% of gynaecologists practicing in Nigeria and that 91% of them will do either cone biopsy or hysterectomy for moderately or severely abnormal Pap smears. Currently, there are no local data to guide such patient care. In order to compare cone biopsy and hysterectomy in terms of their pick-up rates of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and invasive cancer in women with abnormal pap smears, a retrospective review of entries in the histology reports of all cases of cone biopsy and hysterectomy done for abnormal Pap smears from 1975-2004 at the histopathology department of the University of Nigeria Teaching Hospital, Enugu, Nigeria, was carried out. The study revealed that 203 women with moderately to severely abnormal Pap smears were treated with either cone biopsy or hysterectomy. A total of 88 (43.3%) women had cone biopsy, while the remaining 115 (56.7%) had total abdominal hysterectomy. Those who had cone biopsy were significantly younger than those who had hysterectomy (mean ages: 44.6+/-8.8 vs 52.3+/-9.8 years; p=0.008). There was no significant difference in parity between those who had cone biopsy and those who had hysterectomy (mean parity: 5.7+/-2.3 vs 6.5+/-2.2; p=0.102). For all the 203 women, the histology was reported as normal in 97 (47.8%) women and inflammatory in six (3.0%). The three cases of invasive cervical carcinoma were found in women with moderately abnormal Pap smears. One had a cone biopsy, while the other two had a simple total abdominal hysterectomy. Cone biopsy and hysterectomy did not differ significantly in their pick-up rates of the various categories of cervical lesions including invasive carcinoma (p&gt;0.05 for all categories). It was concluded that cone biopsy and hysterectomy have similar pick up rates for the various types of cervical lesions. For this reason, in the absence of colposcopy as occurs in many parts of the developing world, cone biopsy may be adequate treatment and should be offered first to women with moderately to severely abnormal Pap smears." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0517_23238", "title": "Pitfalls in the diagnosis of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 1.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "This review article outlines the issues involved in (1) the cytologic diagnosis of low-grade squamous intra-epithelial lesion (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia [CIN] 1), (2) histologic diagnosis of CIN 1, (3) the advantages and disadvantages of various management strategies for CIN 1 confirmed by biopsy, and (4) the evolving technology that may be useful for predicting the course of the disease. A MEDLINE search was conducted using the search terms cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, low-grade dysplasia, mild dysplasia, low-risk squamous intraepithelial lesion, mild dyskaryosis, HPV, colposcopy, histology, and cytology. RESULTS.: Using a loop electrosurgical excision procedure or cone biopsy assessment of the cervix as the gold standard, a cytologic assessment of CIN 1 alone results in a high false-positive rate (51.5%) and a false-negative rate (24%) for CIN 3. The appropriate second test after low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (CIN 1) cytologic results includes repeat cervical cytologic analysis. Subsequent human papillomavirus testing provides no advantage and increases the cost of care. Immediate referral to colposcopy is costly but minimizes the percent of women lost to follow-up. Using a loop electrosurgical excision procedure or cone biopsy assessment of the cervix as the gold standard, the colposcopically directed biopsy may give a false-positive result (11.7%) or false-negative result (up to 31%) for CIN 3. One contributing issue is the moderate interobserver reliability of histologic analysis (kappa= 0.46). There are advantages and disadvantages to both the immediate and expectant management strategies. The most crucial concern for immediate treatment is overtreatment, and that for expectant management the high rate of patients lost to follow-up. Novel technologies, including MIB-1, p16(INK)4a, and genetic assessments, may be helpful in predicting those CIN 1 lesions destined to progress or to persist. The cytologic and histologic diagnosis of CIN 1 is fraught with problems related to the subjectivity of the diagnosis. Both management options are also fraught with concerns. Any technique that can better predict disease course would be an advantage to the care of women with this abnormality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0517_21824", "title": "A prospective evaluation of \"see and treat\" in women with HSIL Pap smear results: is this an appropriate strategy?", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The evaluation of abnormal cervical cytologic results is time consuming and costly. Most patients with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)-cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 3 (CIN 3) Pap smear results require an excisional procedure for diagnostic or therapeutic reasons. \"See and treat\" is a surgical procedure that involves a loop electrosurgical excisional procedure (LEEP) simultaneously to diagnose and to treat premalignant cervical disease in one visit. This procedure eliminates a second visit that typically is required for treatment. Data is lacking on the incidence of CIN 2 and CIN 3 in patients with an HSIL (CIN 2) Pap smear result. The objective of this study was to determine the incidence of CIN 2 and CIN 3 in patients with an HSIL (CIN 2) Pap smear using a see-and-treat protocol. Women referred from local health departments to our university-based colposcopy clinic for evaluation of an HSIL (CIN 2) Pap smear result were evaluated for inclusion in a see and treat protocol. All eligible patients underwent colposcopy to rule out an obvious cervical carcinoma followed by an immediate LEEP to remove the transformation zone. A colposcopic impression was made using the Reid colposcopic index. Pathologic specimens were analyzed for the presence of CIN and the incidence of CIN 2 and CIN 3 was determined. To date, 51 patients have been enrolled in the study. Exclusion criteria included age less than 19 years, pregnancy, or medical contraindications. The mean age of the patients was 26 years (range, 19-45 years). Forty-seven percent were white, 47% were black, and 6% were Hispanic. Of the 51 patients who underwent LEEP, 43 of 51 (85%) had satisfactory colposcopy and no patient had a lesion suspicious for cervical carcinoma. The average Reid colposcopic index was 3.5. Of the 51 LEEP specimens, 4 of 51 had no evidence of CIN (8%), 4 of 51 (8%) had CIN 1, 18 of 51 (35%) had CIN 2, and 25 of 51 (49%) had CIN 3. Eighty-four percent of patients had either CIN 2 or CIN 3, resulting in an overtreatment rate (CIN 1 or less) of 16%. The use of a see and treat protocol for patients with HSIL (CIN 2) Pap smear results may be an acceptable treatment option because of a high incidence of CIN 2 and CIN 3." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0876_985", "title": "Follow-up of women with cervical cytological abnormalities showing atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance or low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion: a nationwide cohort study.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance or low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion in abnormal cervical cytology among young women in cervical cancer screening is an increasing health burden, and comparative effectiveness studies of different management options for such diagnoses are needed. The objective of the study was to compare the incidence of invasive cervical cancer, following different management options pursued after an atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance/low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion index smear. In this nationwide cohort study, we included all women aged 22-50 years and resident in Sweden 1989-2011 and with at least 1 cervical smear registered during the study period (n = 2,466,671). Follow-up of a first atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance/low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion cytological diagnosis within 25 months was classified as repeat cytology, colposcopy/biopsy, or without further assessment. Incidence rate ratios and 95% confidence intervals of subsequent cervical cancer within 6.5 years following atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance/low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion were estimated using Poisson regression by age group and management strategy. Women managed with repeat cytology within 6 months after atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance or low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion cytology had a similar risk of cervical cancer compared with colposcopy/biopsy (incidence rate ratio, 1.1, 95% confidence interval, 0.5-2.5, and incidence rate ratio, 2.0, 95% confidence interval, 0.6-6.5, respectively) among women aged 22-27 years. For women aged 28 years and older, women managed with repeat cytology had a higher risk for cervical cancer than women managed with colposcopy/biopsy. Our findings suggest that women with a first cytological diagnosis of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance/low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion up to age 27 years may indeed be safely followed up with repeat cytology within 6 months. A large amount of colposcopies that are currently performed in this group, therefore, could safely be discontinued." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0476_21145", "title": "[Is it necessary to make screening pap smears after hysterectomy?].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To precise the risk of cancer of the vagina after hysterectomy. In our file of cervicovaginal and vulvar pathology, we looked for all VAIN and invasive cancers of the vagina on a 10-year period. Out of 2152 patients, we found but 45 cases, 13 of which only after total or radical hysterectomy: 4 cases of invasive cancer of the vagina (1 after radical hysterectomy for invasive cancer of the cervix, and 3 after total hysterectomy for CIN); 9 cases of VAIN (5 after total hysterectomy for CIN; and 4 VAIN (3 after radical hysterectomy for cervical invasion). In our series, we did not observe precancerous or invasive lesion of the vagina after hysterectomy for benign lesion. Indeed, the 13 cases of invasive or in situ cancers of the vagina we found had undergone simple or radical hysterectomy for cervical lesion. We think that the cytological follow-up of the vaginal vault after hysterectomy for benign lesion can be, if not stopped, at least quite spaced out. On the other hand, the follow-up must be imperatively maintained in the event of hysterectomy for precancerous lesion or cancer of cervix." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0420_6501", "title": "A randomized trial on the management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion cytology interpretations.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "This study was undertaken to compare alternative strategies for the initial management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) cytology. A total of 1572 women with a community-based LSIL interpretation were randomly assigned to immediate colposcopy, triage based on enrollment HPV DNA testing and liquid-based cytology at a colposcopy referral threshold of high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL), or conservative management based on repeat cytology at a referral threshold of HSIL. All arms included 2 years of semiannual follow-up and colposcopy at exit. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure was offered to women with histologic diagnoses of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) grade 2 or 3 at any visit or persistent CIN grade 1 at exit. The main study end point was 2-year cumulative diagnosis of CIN grade 3. The 2-year cumulative diagnosis of CIN grade 3 was approximately 15% in all study arms. The HPV triage arm was closed early because more than 80% of women were HPV positive, precluding efficient triage. The immediate colposcopy strategy yielded 55.9% sensitivity for cumulative cases of CIN grade 3 diagnosed over 2 years. A conservative management strategy of repeat cytology at the HSIL threshold referred 18.8% of women while detecting 48.4% of cumulative CIN grade 3. At lower cytology thresholds, sensitivity would improve but would ultimately yield unacceptably high referral rates. LSIL cytology is best managed by colposcopy initially, because there was no useful triage strategy identified. Management of these patients, after colposcopy to rule out immediately overt CIN grade 2 or 3, needs to be determined." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0746_12707", "title": "Role of vault cytology in follow-up of hysterectomized women: results and inferences from a low resource setting.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The study was undertaken to assess the utility of cervico-vaginal/vault cytology in the follow-up of women treated for cervical cancer and benign gynecological conditions. Records of 3,523 cervico-vaginal smears from 2,658 women who underwent hysterectomy and/or radiotherapy or chemotherapy, over a 10-year period were retrieved. Data was collected on type of treatment received, indication for hysterectomy, age of patient, presenting symptoms, stage of tumor, interval since treatment, cytology and biopsy results. The results of cytology versus other parameters were analyzed separately for women treated for cervical cancer and those hysterectomized for benign indications. Malignant cells were detected in 141/1949 (7.2%) follow-up smears from treated cervical cancer cases (140 recurrences and 1 VAIN). Around 92% of recurrences of cervical cancer were detected with in 2 years of follow-up and 75% of these women were symptomatic. Cytology first alerted the clinicians to a recurrence in a quarter of cases. On the other hand, VAIN was detected in 5/1079 (0.46%) vault smears from 997 women hysterectomized for benign gynecologic disease. All these women were asymptomatic and majority (80%) were detected in follow-up smears performed between 3 and 10 years. Vault cytology is an accurate tool to detect local recurrences/VAIN in women treated for cervical cancer or benign gynecological conditions. It may even first alert the clinicians to a possibility of recurrence. However, due to extremely low prevalence of VAIN/vaginal cancer, it seems unwarranted in women hysterectomized for benign indications, especially in resource constrained settings." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0298_12148", "title": "Adenoid basal carcinoma of the cervix: a potential pitfall in cervicovaginal cytology.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Adenoid basal carcinoma (ABC) of the cervix is a quite uncommon, indolent, yet invasive neoplasm rarely identified on cervicovaginal smears. This may be due in part to sampling. Unless ABCs become ulcerated, even vigorous brushing of the endocervical canal may not be adequate to dislodge the small, cohesive cells of this neoplasm. Fortunately, the association of ABC with squamous intraepithelial lesions (SIL) often results in its incidental diagnosis on follow-up cervical biopsy or endocervical curettage. We report two cases of ABC. In case 1, a 79-yr-old white woman was diagnosed with squamous-cell carcinoma on cervicovaginal (CV) smear. High-grade SIL, carcinoma in situ, and ABC were identified on subsequent cervical cone biopsy and hysterectomy. Retrospective evaluation of the CV smear revealed a few aggregates of small, uniform cells, with hyperchromatic nuclei representing fragments of ABC. In case 2, atypical basaloid cells suspicious for ABC were recognized on the CV smear of a 67-yr-old black woman, and ABC was subsequently confirmed on cervical cone biopsy. In neither case did the intervening cervical biopsy reveal ABC. In addition to a review of the clinical information useful in the diagnosis of ABC, the cytologic features of these two cases are compared with their subsequent histopathology and contrasted with other similar lesions comprising the differential diagnosis of small neoplastic cells found in cervicovaginal smears." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1098_2733", "title": "Post-Conization FIGO stage IA1 squamous cell cervical carcinoma; is hysterectomy necessary?", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To compare and evaluate the results and suitability of two different approaches to the treatment of post-conization International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stage IA1 cervical carcinoma: a more radical approach, directly scheduling a second surgery versus a more conservative one, which consists of performing a cotest (PAP plus HPV-test) in a follow-up visit and deciding whether to apply a second surgery on the basis of the results. Retrospective descriptive study including 144 cases of stage IA1 cervical carcinoma diagnosed after a loop electrosurgical excisional procedure (conization), between 1987 and 2019 in the Mother-and-Child University Hospital of Gran Canaria (Spain). Selected patients were split into two groups for analysis: patients directly undergoing a second surgical intervention (hysterectomy or re-conization) after diagnosis and patients who were followed-up before making a decision whether to schedule a second surgery or continue to follow-up. 75% of women directly receiving a second surgical intervention (no post-conization follow-up) underwent hysterectomy, while 25% underwent re-conization. Histological outcomes from hysterectomized patients showed 65% negative results for intraepithelial lesions, 9% low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL), 16% high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) and only 10.5% confirmed invasive lesions: hysterectomy complication rate was 7%. Histological studies from women subjected to re-conization showed 32% negative results, 37% LSIL, 5% HSIL and 26% malignancy. In the group of patients who were followed-up after diagnosis, 8.8% needed a second intervention; none of them showed negative histological results, while 100% hysterectomized and 25% patients with re-conization showed HSIL. No unnecessary hysterectomy procedures were conducted in this group. HPV-16 was the most common genotype in both groups. Conization proved to be a suitable alternative to hysterectomy as a treatment for post-conization stage IA1 cervical cancer. Our results showed that 65% hysterectomy procedures conducted without previously monitoring for residual disease corresponded to negative results and were therefore, unnecessary. We conclude that confirmation of the presence of residual disease by using cotest is essential to make a decision on further treatment and that a conservative management is often possible and, in our opinion, preferable." }, { "id": "article-22882_18", "title": "High-Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion of the Cervix -- Treatment / Management", "score": 0.00919674841554147, "content": "Women aged 21 to 24 with HSIL cytology are recommended to undergo colposcopy. If CIN 2 or greater is not diagnosed on biopsy, it is recommended the patient follow up with cytology and colposcopy every 6 months for a 24-month period, as long as exams are adequate and reveal no squamous intraepithelial lesions (or at most LSIL). If HSIL cytology or a high-grade colposcopic lesion is found during this time, a biopsy should be performed. In patients where HSIL cytology persists for 24 months but no high-grade lesion is identified on biopsy, a diagnostic excisional procedure is recommended. If colposcopy is inadequate, CIN 3 is specified on biopsy, or CIN 2 or CIN 3 persists for 24 months, a diagnostic excisional procedure is recommended. If CIN 2 is specified on biopsy, observation for 12 months using both cytology and colposcopy every 6 months is recommended. This guideline exists because CIN 2 has a higher regression rate and less risk of progression to cancer than CIN 3, especially in younger women. Once the patient has 2 consecutive negative results on cytology and no evidence of a colposcopic abnormality, co-testing is recommended a year later. If negative, a second co-test is recommended after three years. If either co-test is abnormal, colposcopy is recommended." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en274_24975", "title": "Squamous intraepithelial lesion", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A squamous intraepithelial lesion (SIL) is an abnormal growth of epithelial cells on the surface of the cervix, commonly called squamous cells. This condition can lead to cervical cancer, but can be diagnosed using a Pap smear or a colposcopy. It can be treated by using methods that remove the abnormal cells, allowing normal cells to grow in their place. In the Bethesda system, the cytology can be graded as LSIL (low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion) or HSIL (high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion). References Papillomavirus-associated diseases" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0079_10832", "title": "Colposcopy as a method of management strategy in CIN and microinvasive cancer.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "During nearly 40 years of using colposcopy, an original management strategy in CIN and early cervical cancer was developed and confirmed in 2 study groups of cervical lesions containing respectively 1228 and 6001 cases. This approach is based on colposcopy as the main method in early detection of CIN and cancer, with supplementary cytology in necessary cases, and on a coloposcopic-histological staging of these lesions for treatment qualification. Colposcopy alone is a fairly adequate method for diagnosis of 60% of examined cases, and coloscopy with directed biopsy in the next 20% of colposcopically highly suspect findings. Only in the remaining 20% of colposcopically less suspect findings and in the cases of \"unsatisfactory colposcopy\", supplementary was cytology required. In this study colposcopy findings connected with histological evaluation of the specimens provided a basic way for determining the advancement of processes and the selection method for the appropriate type and extent of treatment. CIN 1 and 2 and small focuses of CIN 3 including CIS entirely visible on the ectocervix, in childless young women were treated by cryosurgery. In all remaining cases of CIN 3, the basic therapeutic method was cold-knife conization. In exceptional cases simple hysterectomy can be a more adequate treatment. Depending on our colposcopic-histological staging, in Stage IA1--conization, whereas in Stage IA2--a moderately extended hysterectomy should be optionally performed. The management strategy introduced is an economical, fully effective and quick way of detection and selection of the method for the treatment of CIN and early cervical cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0420_6500", "title": "Results of a randomized trial on the management of cytology interpretations of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "This study was undertaken to compare alternative strategies for the initial management of a cytologic diagnosis of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). A total of 3488 women with a community-based ASCUS interpretation were randomly assigned to immediate colposcopy, triage that was based on enrollment HPV DNA testing and liquid-based cytology at a colposcopy referral threshold of high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL), or conservative management based on repeat cytology at a referral threshold of HSIL. All arms included 2 years of semiannual follow-up and colposcopy at exit. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure was offered to women with histologic diagnoses of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) grade 2 or 3 at any visit or persistent CIN grade 1 at exit. The study end point was 2-year cumulative diagnosis of CIN grade 3. The 2-year cumulative diagnosis of CIN grade 3 was 8% to 9% in all study arms. The immediate colposcopy strategy yielded 53.6% sensitivity for cumulative cases of CIN grade 3 diagnosed over 2 years. The human papillomavirus (HPV) triage strategy referred 55.6% of women and detected 72.3% of cumulative cases of CIN grade 3. A conservative management strategy of repeat cytology at the HSIL threshold referred 12.3% of women while detecting 54.6% of cumulative CIN grade 3. To compare triage tests, we re-estimated the performance of HPV and cytology in successfully referring women with underlying CIN grade 3 (ie, ignoring the insensitivity we discovered in colposcopically directed biopsies). A single enrollment HPV test identified 92.4% of the women diagnosed with CIN grade 3. Serial cytology, even at an ASCUS threshold, would have required two visits to achieve similar sensitivity (95.4%) and would have referred 67.1% to colposcopy. HPV triage is at least as sensitive as immediate colposcopy for detecting CIN grade 3 and refers about half as many women to colposcopy. Follow-up that used repeat cytology is sensitive at an ASCUS referral threshold but requires two follow-up visits and ultimately more colposcopic examinations than HPV triage." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0031_3103", "title": "[The value of vaginal cytology after total hysterectomy for benign or malignant lesions (author's transl)].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The necessity of vaginal stump smears is demonstrated by way of 1773 smears taken from 846 hysterectomized patients. In 1,18 per cent of cases operated for benign indications there are found pathological changes on the vaginal end; 7,5 percent pathological neoplastic deformations are found following hysterectomy for carcinoma in situ; recurrences of cervical, corpus- and ovarial carcinomata are detected by vaginal stump smears at an early data. The leaving of a vaginal cuff is discussed as being responsible for the increased occurrence of new malignant growth following carcinoma in stu-operations. The other results are compared with those stated in literature." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_3037", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.00900974025974026, "content": "2. At 24-months, those with ASC-US or greater should be referred. 3. Prospective follow-up by HPV DNA testing in this age group is not useful because of the high rate of positive results. 1. Both excisional and ablative procedures are acceptable treatment modalities for women with histologically proven CIN 2 or 3 with satisfactory colposcopy (Fig. 19.16D). An excisional procedure is recommended for residual/recurrent CIN 2 or 3. 2. Ablation is unacceptable for women with a histologic diagnosis of CIN 2 or 3 and unsatisfactory colposcopy. 3. Cytologic and colposcopic follow-up of CIN 2 or 3 is necessary only in specific circumstances. Acceptable posttreatment follow-up options include cytology alone, every 6 months, combined cytology and colposcopy every 6 months, and HPV DNA testing at 6 to 12 months. 4. If HPV DNA testing is positive or if the repeat cytology is ASC-US or greater, referral for colposcopy and endocervical sampling is recommended. 5." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0354_22798", "title": "Clinical implication of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance with or without favoring high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion on cervical smears.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "The cytologic diagnosis of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) on a cervical smear usually makes clinicians unsure of how to manage the patient and follow-up on her condition. We attempted to define the clinical implication of qualifying the cytologic diagnosis of ASCUS as either favoring a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) or not in an effort to provide management guidelines. From January through May 1997, 65 of 5792 women who had cervical/vaginal smears taken at Kaohsiung Chang Gung Memorial Hospital were diagnosed as having ASCUS. Thirteen of the 65 cases of ASCUS favored an HSIL, based on nuclear abnormalities in atypical metaplastic and parakeratotic-type squamous cells. All these 65 patients were evaluated in our outpatient clinic by a second cervical smear, colposcopy, and colposcopically directed biopsies and/or endocervical curettage. The median length of the follow-up period was 19 months (range, 16 to 21 months). Of the 52 patients evaluated for ASCUS smears without favoring HSIL, 6 (11.5%) had a low-grade SIL (LSIL), 1 (1.9%) had cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade II (CIN II), and 1 (1.9%) had invasive squamous carcinoma. Of the 13 patients with a cervical cytologic diagnosis of ASCUS favoring HSIL, 1 (7.6%) had immature metaplasia, 2 (15.4%) had LSIL, 2 (15.4%) had CIN II, 6 (46.2%) had CIN III, and 2 (15.4%) had invasive squamous carcinoma. For patients with a cytologic diagnosis of ASCUS favoring HSIL, more aggressive interventions, such as colposcopy-directed biopsy, endocervical curettage, or even conization, should be performed promptly. However, those without features favoring HSIL may be evaluated with regularly repeated smears." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en096_22714", "title": "Cartwright Inquiry", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "of microinvasion. This was at a time when there was ample scientific reason for concern about the damage caused by hysterectomy or cone biopsy and uncertainty about whether immediate use of these procedures was automatically the best thing to do for symptomless lesions, particularly in young women who might want children. Green's practice, although motivated by a desire to avoid unnecessary and damaging interventions in symptomless women, was easy for others to condemn due to the lack of any relevant policy, research, or ethical framework for cervical screening at that time.' The Case study authors note that the number of women managed by limited biopsy alone is shown in Appendix 3 of the Inquiry Report. There were 5 patients managed by limited biopsy only, with no evidence given as to whether any of these 5 patients suffered harm as a result." }, { "id": "Gynecology_Novak_3038", "title": "Gynecology_Novak", "score": 0.008937299259879905, "content": "4. If HPV DNA testing is positive or if the repeat cytology is ASC-US or greater, referral for colposcopy and endocervical sampling is recommended. 5. If HPV DNA testing is negative or if two consecutive posttreatment cytology results are negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy, routine screening for at least 20 years is recommended, and should be annual for at least 5 years. A negative HPV DNA test is an excellent predictor of a normal posttreatment for CIN 2 or 3. 6. If CIN 2 or 3 is histologically found at the margins of an excised specimen or in an endocervical sample obtained immediately after the procedure, cytologic follow-up with endocervical sampling every 4 to 6 months is preferred. The role of colposcopy in this follow-up option is not clearly defined in the Guidelines, although in practice, cytology and colposcopy will be performed in most clinical settings. 7." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0304_15763", "title": "Neoplasia associated with atypical glandular cells of undetermined significance on cervical cytology.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The clinical importance of atypical glandular cells of undetermined significance (AGUS) on cervicovaginal smear has not been well defined. Between January 1990 and April 1996, 127 smears were reported as showing AGUS changes by the cytopathology division at the University of Massachusetts Medical Center. The medical records of these women were reviewed: 17 women were excluded because of previous hysterectomy or gynecologic cancer, 85 were biopsied, 16 were followed by repeat smears, and 9 were lost to follow-up. Forty-four women had negative biopsies or cervicitis. There were 15 endometrial lesions: 10 hyperplasias (2 with atypia) and 5 adenocarcinomas. Twenty-five women had cervix lesions including 3 endocervical atypias, 12 low-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN), 6 high-grade CIN, one adenocarcinoma in situ, and 3 invasive adenocarcinomas. One patient had ovarian cancer. Two of the 16 women followed by repeat pap smear eventually had a cancer diagnosis: one with cervix cancer and one with colon cancer. We were unable to identify a subgroup of women with AGUS who were at increased risk for serious pathology when we compared multiple demographic variables, symptoms, or the presence of coexistent squamous abnormalities on cervical cytology. The mean age of the 15 women with endometrial lesions was 59.9 years, which was significantly older than those patients with cervix lesions who had a mean age of 38.9 years. The presence of AGUS on cervical cytology is a marker for significant gynecologic neoplasia and should be investigated with colposcopically directed biopsies, endocervical curettage, and, in older women, endometrial biopsy." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 160 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 23 ] ], "text": "The lesions with sporotrichoid or lymphocutaneous pattern described may correspond to sporotrichosis or aquarium granuloma, so the first two would be ruled out." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 160 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 23 ] ], "text": "The lesions with sporotrichoid or lymphocutaneous pattern described may correspond to sporotrichosis or aquarium granuloma, so the first two would be ruled out." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 161, 242 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 37 ] ], "text": "The history of having been working in the garden points more to a sporotrichosis," }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 161, 242 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 37 ] ], "text": "The history of having been working in the garden points more to a sporotrichosis," }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Dermatophytosis due to Microsporum gypseum.", "2": "Cutaneous infection by Staphylococcus aureus.", "3": "Sporotrichosis.", "4": "Cutaneous infection by Mycobacterium marinum.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "article-29407_8", "title": "Sporotrichosis -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010371376811594203, "content": "Sporotrichosis has an incubation period of several days to 3 months after exposure. Infections can be divided into several syndromes including cutaneous, pulmonary, and disseminated. Cutaneous syndrome arises from minor trauma of the fungus into the skin, which is most common in rose gardeners. The initial lesions are erythematous papulonodular lesions that may be smooth or verrucous and involve lymphatic channels. [4] Lesions are typically painless even after ulceration. In this syndrome, the patient will not have systemic symptoms, and laboratory exams will be normal." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0541_18283", "title": "Disseminated sporotrichosis mimicking sarcoidosis.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 40-year-old Caucasian man presented to the dermatology clinic at Baylor College of Medicine, Houston, Texas, in February 2003, for the evaluation of three nonhealing ulcers. The patient's past medical history was significant for hypothyroidism and pulmonary sarcoidosis, the diagnosis of which was made in June 2000. In March 2000, the patient had complained of cough and shortness of breath. A purified protein derivative (PPD) (Mantoux text) was negative. Computed tomography (CT) scans of the chest revealed diffuse hilar and mediastinal adenopathy and bilateral interstitial and alveolar infiltrates. Although consistent with sarcoidosis, these findings were insufficient to exclude other etiologies, including disseminated fungal infection. Cultures and stains of subsequent bronchoscopy specimens failed to reveal any organisms, and histopathologic evaluation of the specimens was nondiagnostic. Based on the imaging studies and the negative cultures, a diagnosis of sarcoidosis was made, and the patient was started on therapy with prednisone. Before coming to our clinic, the patient had been on several courses of prednisone. In May 2002, the patient had presented to a private dermatologist with a 1-year history of a nonhealing 2.4 cm x 2.0 cm ulcer on the left medial forearm. Two biopsies were reported as nondiagnostic. The patient's presentation was interpreted as most consistent with Mycobacterium marinum infection, and so he was empirically treated with minocycline. This treatment was continued for almost 3 months without improvement in the ulcer. A few months after the minocycline had been discontinued, the patient was treated empirically for 2 months with ciprofloxacin. This treatment was also unsuccessful in ameliorating the ulcer. In between the two courses of antibiotics, specimens from the lesion were sent for bacterial and fungal cultures, which revealed normal skin flora. In January 2003, the patient returned to his private dermatologist with three ulcerations. In addition to the nonhealing ulcer on his left forearm, which he had acquired several months earlier, he had also developed a 3.0 cm ulcer on his right arm and a 3.0 cm ulcer on his central back. The patient refused biopsies at this visit. Given the patient's previous diagnosis of pulmonary sarcoidosis, it was thought that the skin lesions might represent ulcerative cutaneous sarcoidosis. Pyoderma gangrenosum was also considered to be a likely diagnosis. Therefore, the patient was started on a course of oral prednisone, an effective therapy for both sarcoidosis and pyoderma gangrenosum. Despite 1 month of treatment with 60 mg/day of prednisone, the ulcers increased, and the patient was subsequently referred to our clinic. Physical examination at the time of presentation revealed steroid acne on the trunk and upper extremities and three non-tender ulcers with erythematous, undermined borders (Figs 1-3). On the left arm, there was an adjacent nodule which the patient attributed to a scar from a previously healed ulcer. Histologic examination of biopsy specimens from all three sites showed similar findings. The lesion contained diffuse, suppurative, granulomatous, inflammatory infiltrates with extensive central necrosis. The infiltrates were composed of histiocytes, multinucleated foreign-body-type giant cells, plasma cells, lymphocytes, neutrophils, and neutrophil fragments. No organisms were seen in the initial, routinely stained sections. However, periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) staining demonstrated small fungal spores (Fig. 4) morphologically consistent with sporotrichosis, within the cytoplasm of multinucleated histiocytic giant cells (Fig. 5). Additional stains for bacteria and acid-fast organisms were negative. Cultures of the biopsy specimens from all three sites grew Sporothrix schenckii. Further questioning of the patient failed to reveal an obvious source of the infection. The patient denied any history of traumatic skin inoculation and did not engage in gardening or other outdoor activities that are classically associated with sporotrichosis. The patient did admit to blackberry picking on detailed retrospective questioning. Once the diagnosis of sporotrichosis was made, the patient was given 200 mg/day of itraconazole. After 2 months, the patient's ulcers were almost completely healed. The patient's pulmonary complaints were also much improved." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_10340", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "(Table 156-1) Impetigo contagiosa is caused by S. pyogenes, and bullous impetigo is due to S. aureus. Both skin lesions may have an early bullous stage but then appear as thick crusts with a golden-brown color. Epidemics of impetigo caused by MRSA have been reported. Streptococcal lesions are most common among children 2–5 years of age, and epidemics may occur in settings of poor hygiene, particularly among children in lower socioeconomic settings in tropical climates. It is important to recognize impetigo contagiosa because of its relationship to poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. Rheumatic fever is not a complication of skin infection caused by S. pyogenes. Superficial dermatophyte infection (ringworm) can occur on any skin surface, and skin scrapings with KOH staining are diagnostic. Primary infections with dimorphic fungi such as Blastomyces dermatitidis and Sporothrix schenckii can initially present as crusted skin lesions resembling ringworm. Disseminated infection with" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1018_23596", "title": "Dermoscopy of Mycobacterium marinum Skin infection: A Challenging Diagnosis.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Dear Editor, Mycobacterium (M.) marinum is a slow-growing atypical mycobacterium found mainly in saltwater environments. Infection occurs following inoculation of a skin lesion and manifests as a localized granuloma; in fact, the most common cause of infection with M. marinum is the exposure of traumatized skin to affected aqueous environments (1), and it most commonly involves individuals with occupational and recreational exposure to non-chlorinated water (2). An erythematous or bluish 0.5 to 3.0 cm nodule usually develops at the inoculation site, while ulceration can occur later and subsequent lesions may be present along the lymphatic drainage. We present the first case in the literature describing the dermatoscopic characteristics of a microbiologically proven Mycobacterium marinum skin infection, although more cases are certainly needed to identify the main dermatoscopic features of this infection. In January 2019, a 66-year-old patient was referred to our Dermatological Clinic reporting the appearance of two purplish nodules about 2 months earlier, located on the back of the hand and on the left thumb (Figure 1) and of erythematous purplish appearance and quite painful to palpation. Based on the clinical presentation, infection with atypical mycobacteria, botryomycosis, fungal infection (Cryptococcus neoformans, Histoplasma capsulatum) and infection with Francisella tularensis were considered in the differential diagnosis. The patient was asked if he had an aquarium at home and he confirmed this by telling us of his passion for aquariums, which made the diagnosis easier. Dermatoscopic examination performed on the two lesions at the center of the first nodule located on the hand showed a whitish area surrounded by an erythematous background with fine scaling and dotted vessels and orange-whitish central areas with looped concentric monomorphic vessels (Figure 2, a). However, the thumb lesion had a purplish background with multiple structured rounded areas with orangish appearance surrounded by looped vessels arranged in a crown-like shape (Figure 2, b). It is interesting to note the dermoscopic-histological correlation in this disease: the orangish areas in fact correspond to a granulomatous dermatitis, characterized by inflammatory nodular infiltrate within the dermis (tuberculoid granulomas) (3). Clinically and dermoscopically, the nodules had two different sets of features because they were in different stages of development: the nodule of the thumb was older than the other one on the hand, which the patient reported was of recent onset, also confirmed by the presence of suppuration and ulceration. Both lesions had orange areas in the context of an erythematous background which led us to investigate a granulomatous disease. A deep culture examination and a skin biopsy were thus performed, showing Mycobacterium marinum infection. Oral therapy with clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for 4 weeks was started and healing occurred in about 21 days. We present this case to emphasize the role of dermoscopy in differential diagnosis of granulomatous disease and to show dermoscopic clues that have not yet been described and that can be used in the future to establish very early diagnosis of this infection, reducing the diagnostic delay." }, { "id": "article-22848_8", "title": "Herpetic Whitlow -- History and Physical", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Patients will often experience pain and tingling in the finger before any skin changes (prodromal phase). [12] This will be followed by local tenderness, erythema, and edema with an initial crop of vesicles which are most common along the pulp and lateral aspect of the finger. The infection usually involves just one finger but has rarely been noted to involve several fingers. Vesicles usually coalesce into large, honeycomb-like bullae. They may spread proximally and may involve the nail bed where hemorrhagic or purpuric lesions may be noted. Patients will often report a disproportionate intensity of pain, particularly if there is nailbed involvement. [2] Fever, lymphadenitis, epitrochlear and axillary lymphadenopathy may be present. [13] Rarely, lymphedema of the hand and forearm may be present, although reports favor bacterial superinfection in most of these cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0697_18550", "title": "An unusual cutaneous manifestation of Crohn's disease.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 61-year-old man with a 12-year history of quiescent Crohn's disease on mesalamine presented to his gastroenterologist in April 2009, complaining of abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and a 25-lb weight loss over 6 weeks. He did not respond to prednisone 50 mg and 6-mercaptopurine 100 mg daily. Abdominal computed tomography findings revealed diffuse submucosal edema consistent with extensive colitis. Colonoscopy demonstrated diffuse inflammation with erythema, friability, and shallow ulcerations in the rectum and colon. Biopsies were consistent with Crohn's colitis. He was admitted for infliximab infusion for his unremitting diarrhea. Five days before admission, the patient noted mild swelling and redness of the left lower eyelid, which progressed to involve the right lower eyelid with frank pus draining from both eyes. He had no visual impairment or eye pain. Two days before admission, an ophthalmologist prescribed a steroid eyedrop with no relief. He also complained of seropurulent painful skin lesions on his face and scalp, which spread to involve his upper trunk and proximal arms. On admission to the hospital, dermatology, ophthalmology, and infectious disease consultations were obtained to rule out disseminated infection before initiation of infliximab therapy. The patient was afebrile and hemodynamically stable. His oral mucosa was normal. He had prominent bilateral lower eyelid edema, erythema, and superficial erosions with hemorrhagic crusting and frank green purulent drainage from both eyes, with crusting along the lower lash line and bilateral sclera injection (Figure 1). On his scalp, face, trunk, and proximal extremities, he had 25 to 30 erythematous, 4- to 8-mm papulopustules with narrow red halos, some with central necrosis and crusting (Figure 2). Cultures from the purulent ocular drainage and pustules on the trunk and arms were all negative for bacteria, virus, and fungi. Gram stain from the eye drainage showed polymorphonuclear leukocytes without organisms. Tissue cultures were negative for bacterial, fungal, and mycobacterial infection. Skin biopsy taken from the central upper back demonstrated subcorneal pustules with areas of eroded epidermis and collections of neutrophils in the superficial dermis (Figure 3). Special stains were negative for organisms. He received infliximab infusion 5 mg/kg for a total dose of 420 mg over 2 hours. Within 48 hours of infusion, there was notable decrease in size of lesions, in addition to reduction of purulent drainage from both eyes. The patient was discharged home following infliximab infusion. His skin lesions resolved during a period of 2 weeks, leaving small pink atrophic scars. He received his second infusion of infliximab 2 weeks after discharge with continued improvement in his gastrointestinal symptoms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0567_16074", "title": "A rose by any other name.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 40-year-old man visited Haiti in the winter. His visit was uneventful, and he went swimming in the ocean. A week after his return he developed a small \"pimple\" on his right fifth finger. This condition progressed for several weeks, with new lesions developing over the extensor surface of his forearm and in the antecubital fossa. He had tender axillary adenopathy. The patient started a new job when he returned from Haiti, working 4 days per week in a greenhouse. He denied any fever, chills, or night sweats. He was in good health without any underlying chronic health problems. Physical examination revealed a small eschar over the distal phalanx of the patient's right fifth finger (Figure 1). There were 2 erythematous nodules over the extensor surface of his right forearm (Figure 2) as well as over the antecubital fossa (Figure 3). A punch biopsy was performed and results showed suppurative granulomatous dermatitis. Sporothrix schenckii was grown from the specimen." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en422_28458", "title": "Microsporum gallinae", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Humans Microsporum gallinae has been isolated from the scalp, and smooth skin in human populations. Microsporum gallinae infections are most commonly tinea capitis and tinea corporis. Very few human cases of M. gallinae infection have been reported, none of which were life-threatening. Of the reported cases, individuals ranged from 3–96 years old. They had cutaneous lesions on the glabrous skin or the scalp. These localized lesions are frequently accompanied by itching. The cutaneous manifestations are very similar to those of Microsporum canis therefore many cases of Microsporum gallinae could have been unreported. In rare cases, immunocompromised individuals form severe dissemination on the skin, instead of small localized lesions as a result of handling infected animals. Only one case of extensive dermatophytosis was reported involving M. gallinae infection of a person with AIDS." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_4247", "title": "Correlation does not imply causation", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Example 5 A historical example of this is that Europeans in the Middle Ages believed that lice were beneficial to your health, since there would rarely be any lice on sick people. The reasoning was that the people got sick because the lice left. The real reason however is that lice are extremely sensitive to body temperature. A small increase of body temperature, such as in a fever, will make the lice look for another host. The medical thermometer had not yet been invented, so this increase in temperature was rarely noticed. Noticeable symptoms came later, giving the impression that the lice left before the person got sick." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1074_13028", "title": "Complicated cutaneous leishmaniasis caused by an imported case of Leishmania tropica in Japan: a case report.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Leishmaniasis is not endemic in Japan, and imported cases are rare. However, there are increasing concerns regarding imported cases of cutaneous leishmaniasis from endemic countries to Japan. This report describes a case of imported cutaneous leishmaniasis that was diagnosed and treated in Japan. A 53-year-old Pakistani man presented with skin lesions on both malleoli of his right ankle and the dorsum of the left foot. The skin lesions manifested as erythematous nodules surrounding an ulcer in the center of the lesion. The lesions of the malleoli of his right ankle each measured 3 × 3 cm, and the lesion on the top of his left foot measured 5 × 4 cm. He had been living and working in Japan but had a history of a visit to Pakistan for about 2 months in 2018. The skin lesions were biopsied. Giemsa and hematoxylin and eosin staining of biopsy samples showed amastigotes of Leishmania in macrophages, and the presence of Leishmania was confirmed by skin tissue culture. Polymerase chain reaction using biopsy specimens identified Leishmania parasites, and DNA sequence analysis revealed that the species was Leishmania tropica. The patient was treated with intravenous liposomal amphotericin B for 6 days. The erythema disappeared, and the erythematous nodules resolved within 3 weeks. This is the first report of imported cutaneous leishmaniasis caused by L. tropica from Pakistan, and it is interesting that all three testing modalities showed positive results in this case." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en338_30972", "title": "Miliary fever", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Miliary fever was a medical term in the past (Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart's death report showed this term), used to indicate a general cause of infectious disease that cause an acute fever and skin rashes similar to the cereal grain called proso millet. After subsequent advances in medicine, this term fell into disuse, supplanted by other more specific names of diseases, for example the modern miliary tuberculosis. External links . Annals of the Rheumatic Diseases, 1991; Vol.50: pp. 963–964 Obsolete medical terms" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0624_9301", "title": "Chronic nonhealing ulcer of the right thumb with multiple subcutaneous nodules.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 60-year-old man presented with a 3-month history of nonhealing ulcer over the tip of his right thumb. The ulcer started as a blister over the tip of the thumb that later ruptured and spread proximally to cover the whole pulp area of the thumb. There was no history of trauma, fever, weight loss, or loss of appetite. He is a pensioner and an avid gardener. He has a few cats as pets. The patient initially presented to a private orthopedic surgeon with a nonhealing ulcer of the right thumb. Multiple debridements were unsuccessful in ameliorating the ulcer. Three months after the onset of the initial lesion, multiple painless erythematous nodules had developed on his right arm, and one on the right thigh. All routine blood investigations were nondiagnostic. Swab culture from the ulcer failed to grow any organism and a course of antibiotics did not resolve the problem. Cultures of the biopsy specimen using Sabouraud's dextrose agar and potato carrot medium grew dark brown plaques that microscopically appeared to be branching hyphae. A diagnosis of sporotrichosis of the right upper limb was made and the patient was started on antifungal treatment immediately (T. Itraconazole [Sporanox] 200 mg BD). One month after commencement of antifungal treatment, the ulcer began to dry up and at 3 months all the lesions including the one on the right thigh had healed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en061_11936", "title": "Exanthem", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The four viral exanthema have much in common, and are often studied together as a class. They are: Scarlet fever, or \"second disease\", is associated with the bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes. Fourth disease, also known as \"Dukes' disease\" is a condition whose existence is not widely accepted today. It was described in 1900 and is postulated to be related to the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus. In 1979 and 2001 a possible \"seventh diease\" was postulated following reports of a condition in Japan also referred to as acute febrile infantile mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome (MCLS)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0530_5789", "title": "Chronic granulomatous disease: two members of a single family with different dermatologic manifestations.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Case 1: A 33-year-old man with a 14-year history of localized skin disease on the face and scalp was evaluated at the department of dermatology. The physical examination revealed plaques with papules, pustules, and a golden yellow crusting on the forehead, cheeks, upper lip, and chin (Figure 1). The scalp presented fine, whitish scales. At the beginning of his disease, the patient presented large red and painful purulent boils. The 14-year clinical course of these lesions was characterized by partial remissions and recurrences, but he did not specify any treatment related to improvement. The clinical diagnosis given for the scalp lesions was seborrheic dermatitis. For the facial lesions, many differential diagnoses were considered, among them: seborrheic dermatitis, acneiform dermatitis, impetigo, folliculitis, seborrheic pemphigus, and demodicidosis. The histopathologic study of a biopsy taken from the cheek (Figure 2) showed superficial spongiform dermatitis with neutrophils and folliculitis that are compatible with the diagnosis of seborrheic dermatitis. Both Gram and periodic acid-Schiff stains were negative. Follow-up of the patient was not possible since he did not come back. The disease in this patient initially manifested at age five by the presence of recurrent ganglionic abscesses. At age 15, he presented a pulmonary abscess of a left lobule that was surgically removed; at this point the diagnosis of chronic granulomatous disease was established. At age 28, an exploratory laparotomy was performed due to peritonitis and multiple hepatic abscesses. At that time, he was treated with antibiotics (mainly trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) and interferon-g. The patient had two brothers who died due to complications of chronic granulomatous disease. In addition, both his mother and sister presented a history of discoid lupus-like lesions. Case 2: Coincidentally, his 27-year-old sister was seen in our department of dermatology 5 years before, presenting infiltrated and erythematous plaques with fine scales (Figure 3) on the right side of the nose and the left annular finger. No other cutaneous or mucous lesions were seen. She referred onset in childhood with similar lesions on sun-exposed areas that disappeared without scarring. A biopsy was performed and the results were compatible with the diagnosis of discoid lupus erythematosus (Figure 4). Direct immunofluorescence was not available. At that time, she did not mention the family history of chronic granulomatous disease. Clinical follow-up was not possible, but his brother referred that she afforded complete remission only with sun protection." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_10338", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Rickettsialpox begins after mite-bite inoculation of Rickettsia akari into the skin. A papule with a central vesicle evolves to form a 1to 2.5-cm painless crusted black eschar with an erythematous halo and proximal adenopathy. While more common in the northeastern United States and the Ukraine in 1940–1950, rickettsialpox has recently been described in Ohio, Arizona, and Utah. Blistering dactylitis is a painful, vesicular, localized S. aureus or group A streptococcal infection of the pulps of the distal digits of the hands." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0673_12084", "title": "Nodular lymphangitis: Report of a case with presentation of a diagnostic paradigm.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 54-year-old man with asthma, mitral valve prolapse, and a back injury developed erythematous nodules that progressed along the lymphatic drainage of his right arm. Skin biopsy revealed granulomatous inflammation with microabscess formation. Culture confirmed Mycobacterium marinum infection. The patient was treated with clarithromycin, ethambutol, rifampin, and topical silver sulfadiazine. Oral doxycycline hyclate was later added because of slow healing. Mycobacterium marinum is one of a group of infectious agents that can cause nodular lymphangitis. Sporotrichoid lesions most commonly develop after cutaneous inoculation with Sporothrix schenckii, Leishmania species, Nocardia species, and Mycobacterium marinum. A thorough clinical history and physical examination can narrow the differential diagnosis by eliciting information about the etiologic setting, incubation time, clinical appearance of the lesions, and presence or absence of systemic involvement for each of the causative organisms. Skin biopsy and microbiological tissue cultures are essential for diagnostic confirmation. The differential diagnosis and a suggested diagnostic paradigm will be reviewed." }, { "id": "article-25158_10", "title": "Miliaria -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Miliaria rubra is the most prevalent form of miliaria. The obstruction of eccrine ducts occurs in the deeper layers of the skin and involves an inflammatory response. This results in larger, erythematous papules and vesicles. A critical clinical diagnostic feature that helps differentiate miliaria rubra from folliculitis is minimal follicular involvement. If pustules are present, then miliaria rubra is called miliaria pustulosa and may indicate a bacterial infection. Because an inflammatory response is involved, patients may experience pruritic and painful symptoms. These symptoms may worsen during perspiration, causing more irritation. In neonates usually between the ages of 1 to 3 weeks, the groin, axilla, and neck are the most commonly affected areas. In adults, miliaria rubra is most likely seen in places where clothes rub on the skin such as the trunk and extremities. The face is usually spared. Superinfection with staphylococci may occur, and when impetigo or multiple abscesses are involved, the condition is called periporitis staphylogenes. [19]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0925_17637", "title": "Missed opportunity to diagnose subungual melanoma: potential pitfalls!", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Subungual melanoma, an uncommon form of acral melanoma that arises within the nail matrix, accounts for 1%-3% of all cutaneous melanoma in Caucasians. As subungual melanoma presents in a more disguised manner than cutaneous lesions, increased vigilance is required. It most commonly presents as a discolouration of the nail, nail splitting or nail-bed bleeding. Black pigmentation of the adjacent nail fold, termed Hutchinson's sign, may be a diagnostic clue. Treatment of subungual melanoma remains surgical with wide local excision and amputation primary modalities. We present the case of a 61-year-old man with an 18-month history of a left thumb nail-bed abnormality and a 6-week history of left axillary lymphadenopathy. One year earlier, he presented to the emergency department with a purulent discharge from his left thumb but declined nail-bed ablation. He was referred to the 'Hand and Plastic Injuries Clinic' by his general practitioner and diagnosed with a chronic traumatic-induced nail-bed injury. As his symptoms did not improve, he was referred to the 2-week wait Skin Cancer Clinic. The left thumb nail-bed was excised as a nail unit down to bone, and the diagnosis of melanoma was rendered. Left axillary lymphadenopathy was confirmed as metastatic melanoma. He underwent amputation of his left thumb at the interproximal phalangeal joint, and a left axillary node dissection was performed. No residual melanoma was identified in his thumb. Microscopically, his left axillary dissection confirmed 9 out of 36 positive nodes for metastatic melanoma with extracapsular spread. He was staged at IIIC disease. This case report demonstrates missed opportunities to diagnose subungual melanoma and acts as a cautionary tale in considering this pathology in the differential diagnosis of nail-bed lesions with prompt referral for further investigation." }, { "id": "article-21304_2", "title": "Erythrasma -- Introduction", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Erythrasma is a common skin disorder caused by bacteria. It was first described in 1859 by Burchardt, who thought the etiology was fungal. In 1862, Burchardt's teacher, Von Barensprung coined the term erythrasma and named the bacteria Microsporum minutissimum . Today, erythrasma is known to be caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum, which is a gram-positive, catalase-positive, non-spore-forming organism. Erythrasma usually causes infection of the intertriginous parts of the body and causes itching, scaling, and erythema. It is often asymptomatic. [1] [2]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0626_4228", "title": "Sporotrichoid atypical cutaneous infection caused by Mycobacterium marinum.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A case of a sporotrichoid cutaneous infection caused by Mycobacterium marinum is reported. A 53- year-old male patient presented with red, partly purulent nodular lesions on the back of his left hand, forearm, and upper medial arm that had developed consecutively during the past 4 weeks. A mycobacterial infection with M. marinum was confirmed by molecular methods in a lesional skin biopsy. The patient was treated systemically with rifampicin (750 mg/day) and clarithromycine (1,000 mg/day), and topically with sulmycin (gentamicin sulfate). After 12 weeks of treatment the nodules regressed, leaving behind erythematous patches. M. marinum is a waterborne mycobacterium that commonly infects fish and amphibians worldwide. Transmissions to humans occur occasionally, in most cases as a granulomatous infection localized to the skin, typically following minor trauma to the hands. For this reason, infections are especially common among aquarium keepers." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en263_32977", "title": "Erosio interdigitalis blastomycetica", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Erosio interdigitalis blastomycetica (EIB) is a skin condition caused by a Candida albicans infection, characterized by an oval-shaped area of macerated white skin on the web between and extending onto the sides of the fingers. Signs and symptoms It is common among bartenders and homemakers. EIB can be found on both the hands and feet.It is most common between the middle and ring finger and sometimes found between toes. Cause It is believed that EIB is caused by working with water often. It is not known exactly how long the infection will last since it varies often between people who have gotten infected. The most common symptoms are pruritus and discomfort while on rare occasions some do experience pain. History EIB was first discovered by 2 two scientists, Gougerot and Goncea in 1915. It was later named by another scientist Johannes Fabry in 1917. See also Candidiasis Skin lesion References Mycosis-related cutaneous conditions" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_11802", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "fever and chills. Erysipelas tends to occur on the malar area of the face (often with extension over the bridge of the nose to the contralateral malar region) and the lower extremities. After one episode, recurrence at the same site—sometimes years later— is not uncommon. Classic cases of erysipelas, with typical features, are almost always due to β-hemolytic streptococci, usually GAS and occasionally group C or G. Often, however, the appearance of streptococcal cellulitis is not sufficiently distinctive to permit a specific diagnosis on clinical grounds. The area involved may not be typical for erysipelas, the lesion may be less intensely red than usual and may fade into surrounding skin, and/or the patient may appear only mildly ill. In such cases, it is prudent to broaden the spectrum of empirical antimicrobial therapy to include other pathogens, particularly S. aureus, that can produce cellulitis with the same appearance. Staphylococcal infection should be suspected if cellulitis" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_9487", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.0090359477124183, "content": "Skin The fact that many infections have cutaneous manifestations gives the skin examination particular importance in the evaluation of patients (Chaps. 24, 25e, 72, and 156). It is important to perform a complete skin exam, with attention to both front and back. Specific rashes are often extremely helpful in narrowing the differential diagnosis of an infection (Chaps. 24 and 25e). In numerous anecdotal instances, patients in the intensive care unit have had “fever of unknown origin” that was actually due to unrecognized pressure ulcers. Moreover, close examination of the distal extremities for splinter hemorrhages, Janeway lesions, or Osler’s nodes may yield evidence of endocarditis or other causes of septic emboli." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en077_45664", "title": "Lupus vulgaris", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Lupus vulgaris (also known as tuberculosis luposa) are painful cutaneous tuberculosis skin lesions with nodular appearance, most often on the face around the nose, eyelids, lips, cheeks, ears and neck. It is the most common Mycobacterium tuberculosis skin infection. The lesions may ultimately develop into disfiguring skin ulcers if left untreated. Signs and symptoms It begins as painless reddish-brown nodules which slowly enlarge to form irregularly shaped red plaque. Cause Lupus vulgaris often develops due to inadequately treated pre-existing tuberculosis. It may also develop at site of BCG vaccination. Rarely, it has been shown to be associated with tattoo marks. Histopathology Histologically, it shows presence of epithelioid cell granulomas with Langhans giant cells with or without central caseation necrosis in the dermis. Diagnosis On diascopy, it shows characteristic \"apple-jelly\" color. Biopsy will reveal tuberculoid granuloma with few bacilli. Mantoux test is positive." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en148_31734", "title": "Cabin Fever 2: Spring Fever", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Alex discovers he is infected and that the disease is incurable necrotizing fasciitis. The only way to stop the infection is to amputate the infected limb. However, Alex's infection is already too severe and he stays behind. John begins to show signs of the infection too and lets Cassie amputate his hand to stop it. Cassie's boyfriend Marc then comes out of nowhere, hits Cassie with a hammer, and tries to kill John but Cassie recovers and kills him with a nail gun. The two leave the school only to be ambushed by the CCD. John stalls them, allowing Cassie to escape. She finds herself on the highway and stops Herman's van. Winston and Herman take Cassie with them. The camera shows her back where she is starting to show signs of infection. Meanwhile, Alex's date Liz is at her workplace. She is a stripper at Teazers and she spreads the infection to the customers, who in turn spread it further around the country and even to Mexico." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0687_14602", "title": "Inflammatory skin metastasis as a first sign of progression of lung cancer--a case report.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Skin metastases are present in 1-9% of cancer patients. In rare cases, skin metastases can manifest as lesions with signs of inflammation and are diagnosed as inflammatory cutaneous metastases (ICM). ICM in lung cancer are extremely rare and often misdiagnosed. We report on a 55-year-old man with metastatic lung adenocarcinoma and bone metastases in the axial skeleton and left humerus diagnosed in August 2008. He underwent 6 cycles of palliative chemotherapy with cisplatin and gemcitabine, obtaining a minor response. Five months later, he experienced increasing pain in his left arm, with erythematous oedematous lesion with poorly defined margins and an inflammatory appearance. A diagnosis of skin infection was made and he was treated by antibiotic therapy without improvement. Skin biopsy revealed skin infiltration by poorly differentiated carcinoma compatible with a primary lung tumour. He was started on second line therapy with docetaxel, however, the patient's status deteriorated rapidly and he died two months after the first appearance of ICM. Metastasis of lung carcinoma could be one of the causes of inflammatory skin lesions in cancer patients and these metastases should be considered in cancer patients with persisting cutaneous lesions with signs of inflammation and no response to antibiotic therapy." }, { "id": "article-30204_14", "title": "Tinea Barbae -- History and Physical", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The classic inflammatory form of tinea barbae develops a characteristic lesion called kerion. Kerion is an erythematous, boggy, tender, often sterile, weeping nodule or plaque with pustules and draining sinuses. [6] [7] Hair in these areas appears lusterless, brittle, and is easily plucked. Kerion can be solitary or multiple but is usually unilateral. [6] [7] Patients with inflammatory tinea barbae may have constitutional symptoms like fever and malaise. [6] Kerion is a coalesced sterile pustule, but occasionally they can get superinfected with cutaneous bacteria and develop regional lymphadenopathy. [7]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0366_19996", "title": "Disseminated cutaneous histoplasmosis and AIDS: case report.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Histoplasmosis is caused by the dimorphic fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. It manifests by the presence of fever as the only symptom in most individuals. The disease may present as self-limited pneumonia, or as an hematogenous widespread fungal infection with a potentially fatal outcome in elderly individuals and people with compromised T-cell mediated immunity. Here, we report a case of disseminated cutaneous histoplasmosis in a patient with AIDS. The patient was a 33 year old male homosexual, intravenous drug user, who had been diagnosed with HIV infection 5 years earlier. He was in good health, but had erythematous papules and pustules in the skin of the scalp, face, back, thighs, abdomen, palms, and soles. He was placed on anti-retroviral therapy, fluconazole for mucosal candidiasis, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole for pneumocystis prophylaxis, and antibiotics for the skin pustules. The skin lesions improved remarkably within 14 days. He was discharged and soon lost to follow-up. After his discharge, skin biopsy and fungal culture results revealed H. capsulatum. He was seen again 1 year later. The interim history revealed that he had taken fluconazole 100 mg/day for 1 month and fluconazole 150 mg/week for 7 months. He had not continued anti-retroviral therapy, nor taken other antifungal drugs. The clinical evolution of the disease was exceptional in that there was disappearance of all the skin lesions attributed to histoplasmosis with fluconazole. Although itraconazole remains the drug of choice for histoplasmosis. Cutaneous histoplasmosis should be considered in the differential diagnosis of atypical cutaneous lesions in individuals infected with HIV." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en084_15627", "title": "Royal touch", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The touch was originally meant to cure tuberculous cervical lymphadenitis (commonly referred to as scrofula or the King's Evil), rheumatism, convulsions, fevers, blindness, goitre and other ailments. Since the reign of Elizabeth I (r. 1558–1603), however, the touch was applied only to people suffering from scrofula. The Henrician practice was rarely modified, and the changes were minor; Elizabeth I made the sign of the cross above the infected person's head, while her squeamish successor, James I (r. 1603–1625), made stroking motions above the abscesses instead of actually touching them. Frequency" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1035_7042", "title": "<i>Mycobacterium chelonae</i> cutaneous infection: An opportunistic disease in an immunosuppressed patient with myasthenia gravis.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "<iMycobacterium chelonae</i can cause chronic skin, soft-tissue or bone infections. and is often associated with the immunocompromised state.We describe a case of a 58-year-old male patient with myasthenia gravis, chronically immunosuppressed, with a four month progression of growing erythematous, nodular and hard cutaneous lesions in the left forearm, leg and foot. He was receiving immunoglobulin every four weeks (2 g/kg) and prednisolone 25 mg/day and had an important previous history of several opportunistic infections while he was receiving corticosteroids. Histopathological examination of a biopsy showed acid-fast bacilli and tissue culture identified a <iMycobacterium</i spp. within seven days of incubation, with <iMycobacterium chelonae</i being identified by polymerase chain reaction assay. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing was performed showing no resistance and the patient was successfully treated during four months with ciprofloxacin, clarithromycin and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole with regression of the lesions, leaving some hyperpigmentation scars and without unbalancing his neurological disease. Patients with myasthenia gravis should be closely monitored because first line treatments for <iM. chelonae</i infection may be associated with myasthenic crisis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0806_14049", "title": "[Erythrasma: study of 16 cases].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Erythrasma is a chronic bacterial infection due to Corynebacterium minutissimum, affecting the interspaces of the toes, the axillary folds and the groin. Its impact is underestimated as it is often misdiagnosed ad wrongly taken as a dermatophytic infection. Through a hospital series, we report the epidemiologic and clinical features of erythrasma, as well as the therapeutic ways. methods: A retrospective study over a 20 year period and including the patients diagnosed as having erythrasma after a Wood's light examination. results: There were 16 patients (6 males and 10 females) with an average age of 44.6 years-old. The majority of our patients consulted on hot season. Clinical examination showed macular plaques with clear limits, erythematous in 6 cases and yellowish in the remaining cases. The lesions were located at the axillary folds in 13 cases; the groin in 2 cases and at all folds in one case. Treatment with erythromycin (topical or general administration) was the most prescribed. Outcome was generally favourable, but recurrences have been noticed. Erythrasma is a frequent misdiagnosed infection and often confused with a mycosis (especially in the interspaces of the toes); knowing that antimycotic agents are efficient in erythrasma. This is probably the reason of the small number of patients in our series." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0742_14680", "title": "Two contrasting post-zoster dermatomal phenomena.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "A 29-year-old, normotensive, nondiabetic man presented with a 9-day history of a scaly, pruritic eruption involving the right chest, axilla, and arm. He had a history of herpes zoster involving the same areas about 4 weeks ago. The present eruption started after the herpetic lesions had healed. Examination revealed scaly, erythematous plaques and papules involving the right side of the chest, axilla, and arm in a dermatomal pattern (figure 1). Removal of the scales revealed underlying bleeding points (positive Auspitz sign). The rest of the body, including scalp, palms, soles, and nails, were normal. There was no history suggestive of psoriasis in any family member. Systemic examination and routine investigations were noncontributory. A clinical diagnosis of psoriasis was made and confirmed by histopathologic examination of a skin biopsy sample. The patient was prescribed a topical clobetasol cream and oral levocetirizine. The eruption resolved completely after 3 weeks. A 43-year-old normotensive, nondiabetic woman presented with a 2-day history of fever, arthalgias, and generalized erythematous dermatitis. Five days ago, the patient had a toothache for which she was prescribed injectable ampicillin. After receiving ampicillin for 3 days, she developed fever, myalgias, and arthalgias, which was followed several hours later by an erythematous eruption. The dermatitis started on the trunk and, over a period of several hours, progressed to involve the face and limbs. The eruption was slightly pruritic. History revealed herpes zoster 7 months ago involving left thoracic dermatomes, for which the patient was treated with valacyclovir (1 g thrice a day x 7 days) and analgesics. There was no history of post-zoster neuralgia. On examination, the patient was febrile (oral temperature 102 degrees F), her heart rate was 118 beats per minute, and her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg. Cutaneous examination revealed an erythematous, maculopapular dermatitis involving the face and limbs in a bilaterally symmetrical pattern; the palms and soles were also bilaterally involved. The whole of the trunk was involved with erythematous and, in places, violaceous, maculopapular eruption except for a small area on the left side corresponding to T8 and T9 thoracic dermatomes (Figure 2). Complete blood cell counts revealed eosinophilia (9%) and liver function tests, kidney function tests, random blood sugar, routine urine examination, and blood and urine cultures were noncontributory. Histopathologic examination of lesional skin biopsy revealed an intense mononuclear cell infiltration with many eosinophils and an interface dermatitis with hydropic degeneration of basal keratinocytes, while in the spared area, only slight lymphocytic infiltration was present in a perivascular distribution. Based on the history and examination, a diagnosis of ampicillin-induced drug dermatitis was made. The ampicillin was stopped and the patient was put on a short course of oral prednisolone, antipyretics, and topical calamine. The patient was afebrile in 2 days and the eruption resolved completely in 8 days." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 264, 621 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 37, 87 ] ], "text": "NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and decrease renal perfusion, thus antagonizing the hypotensive effect of many antihypertensives, including ACE inhibitors. Therefore, the preferable thing to do in this patient, before increasing the medication, is to change the ibuprofen for paracetamol, which does not have this effect, and to re-evaluate it later." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "I would add a calcium channel blocker.", "2": "I would increase the dose of hydrochlorothiazide to 25 mg/day.", "3": "I would change ibuprofen to paracetamol to avoid the possible influence of paracetamol on the effect of hypotensives.", "4": "I would add an alpha-blocker because of the high prevalence of prostatic syndrome in males of this age.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0328_7036", "title": "Study population and treatment titration in the International Nifedipine GITS Study: Intervention as a Goal in Hypertension Treatment (INSIGHT).", "score": 0.019049346879535557, "content": "To ascertain the baseline characteristics of the high-risk hypertensive patients entering the International Nifedipine GITS Study: Intervention as a Goal in Hypertension Treatment (INSIGHT). To determine the success of single and combination therapy in achieving target blood pressures in such a population. INSIGHT is a double-blind, prospective outcome trial comparing the efficacy of the calcium channel blocker, nifedipine GITS, and the thiazide, co-amilozide, in preventing myocardial infarction and stroke. We recruited 2996 men and 3454 women, aged 55-80 years, with blood pressure during placebo run-in &gt;150/95 mmHg or isolated systolic blood pressure &gt;160 mmHg from nine countries. Treatment allocation to nifedipine GITS 30 mg daily or co-amilozide (hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg/amiloride 5 mg) once daily was performed by minimization rather than randomization to balance additional risk factors. This was followed by four optional increases in treatment: dose-doubling of the primary drug, addition of atenolol 25/50 mg or enalapril 5/10 mg, and then any other hypotensive drug excluding calcium blockers or diuretics. Target blood pressure was 140/90 mmHg or a fall &gt; or = 20/10 mmHg. Blood pressure at randomization was 172+/-15 / 99+/-9 mmHg. Thirteen per cent of the patients were previously untreated. The proportions of each additional risk factors were: smoking &gt; 10/day, 29%; cholesterol &gt; 6.43 mmol/l, 52%; family history of premature myocardial infarction or stroke, 21%; diabetes mellitus 20%; left ventricular hypertrophy, 10%; previous myocardial infarction, other presentations of coronary heart disease, and peripheral vascular disease, each 6%; proteinuria, 3%. Fifty-five per cent of patients had one additional risk factor, whereas 33%, 9% and 3% had two, three or more additional risk factors, respectively. The blood pressure (and falls in blood pressure) at the end of titration and at 1 year after minimization was 139+/-12 / 82+/-7 mmHg (33+/-15 / 17+/-9) in the 5226 patients still on randomized treatment The numbers requiring the four treatment increments were, respectively, 1591, 780, 597 and 294, meaning that almost 70% of patients on randomized treatment in INSIGHT are receiving only the primary drug. At one year, 69% of patients had a blood pressure &lt; or = 140/90 mmHg. INSIGHT is one of the first double-blind comparisons of active antihypertensive treatments, requiring high-risk patients to achieve sufficient power. Despite this requirement, it is possible to achieve good blood pressure control in most patients without the addition of multiple additional treatments that may dilute any differences between the primary agents." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0694_11720", "title": "[Merits of paracetamol in osteoarthritic hypertensive patients].", "score": 0.017534577885269444, "content": "Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) side effects can impair quality of life in patients with osteoarthritis. Due to its particular mechanism of action, paracetamol might bypass these negative effects. To determine both the role of paracetamol in the treatment of osteoarthritis patients and optimal combination of antihypertensives and antirheumatics for these patients. A prospective clinical trial in a family practice included 110 treated hypertensives aged over 55 years: 50 controls and 60 also taking NSAIDs for osteoarthritis. This 3-month study compared two antihypertensives, lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide fixed combination and amlodipine, with two NSAIDs, ibuprofen and piroxicam, and with paracetamol. Following clinical work-up and NSAID discontinuation for at least 3 days (run-in period of only 3-7 days), osteoarthritis subjects were randomized to 1-month periods of ibuprofen (400-600 mg t.i.d.) or piroxicam (10-20 mg o.d.) with one month of paracetamol (1000 mg t.i.d.) in the middle as a \"wash-out\" interval, continuing the prescribed amlodipine (5-10 mg o.d.) or lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide fixed drug combination (10/6.25-20/12.5 mg o.d.), while control subjects (hypertensives with no osteoarthritis) were just keeping their antihypertensive therapy. Blood pressure was measured with standard mercury sphygmomanometer and with an automatic device, in standing, sitting and supine position. The intensity of arthritic pain (on a visual analogue scale from 1 to 10, where 0 means \"no pain\" and 10 \"the worst pain you may imagine\") and the patient's quality of life estimate (on a visual analogue scale from 1 to 10, where 0 means \"general condition excellent\" and 10 \"the worst possible\") were recorded. Blood pressure control was unchanged in the amiodipine group across the study periods and impaired in the lisinopril/ hydrochlorothiazide group during either ibuprofen or piroxicam, but not during paracetamol. In the amlodipine +/- ibuprofen subgroup, the reduction of the average pain intensity score throughout the study was significant (chi2 = 8.250; df 3; P = 0.037). In the lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide +/- piroxicam subgroup, the assessed quality of life differed significantly (chi2 = 9.716; df 3; P = 0.018), while in the amlodipine +/- ibuprofen and amlodipine +/- piroxicam subgroups the changes were marginal (chi2 = 6.936; df 3; P = 0.072 and chi2 = 7146; df 3; P = 0.065, respectively)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0291_10230", "title": "[Evaluation of trandolapril alone or in combination with a calcium channel blocker in hypertensive patients over 60 years of age].", "score": 0.016968651136036815, "content": "The efficacy and safety of trandolapril alone and in combination with a calcium channel blocker were evaluated in 13,147 hypertensive patients over 60 years old. Two patient groups were constituted. After a 2-week wash-out period, the patients in group I received monotherapy with trandolapril 2 mg/day for 4 weeks. Trandolapril was continued for another 4 weeks in responding patient, otherwise the dosage of trandolapril was doubled or another antihypertensive was added. Group 2, composed of patients previously treated with a calcium channel blocker with insufficient efficacy, was treated according to the same treatment regimen, but the calcium channel blocker was maintained throughout the study. 13,147 patients (group 1: 11,329 patients, group 2: 1,818 patients) with a mean age of 68 +/- 7 years were followed. After 4 weeks of treatment, the blood pressure measured by mercury sphygmomanometer decreased from 176 + 11/99 +/- 8 mmHg to 164 +/- 12/87 +/- 7 mmHg (p &lt; 0.0001). This blood pressure fall was similar in group 1 (-22 +/- 12/-12 +/- 8 mmHg) and in group 2 (-21 +/- 11/-12 +/- 8 mmHg). In the pure systolic HT subgroup treated by trandolapril monotherapy, the antihypertensive effect predominantly affected the SBP (-23 +/- 12/- 4 +/- 6 mmHg). The antihypertensive effect was correlated with the initial blood pressure. In group 1, in the case of insufficient response to trandolapril monotherapy, the addition of a calcium channel blocker was the strategy which achieved the most marked antihypertensive effect (ANOVA, p &lt; 0.0001). This bitherapy was more effective than the trandolapril+diuretic combination (-18 +/- 11/- 11 +/- 8 mmHg and -15 +/- 10/- 9 +/- 7 mmHg, respectively (p &lt; 0.001). A total of 1,270 adverse events were reported by 996 patients (7.6%), leading to discontinuation of treatment in 372 patients (2.8%). The most frequent adverse effects were cough (2.8%), headache (0.8%), vertigo (0.8%) and nausea (0.5%). Only one minor equivalent of angioneurotic oedema was reported. In conclusion, trandolapril is effective and well tolerated in elderly hypertensive patients. In the case of pure systolic HTA, its action is essentially exerted on SBP. The combination of trandolapril+calcium channel blocker appears to be the most effective strategy in the case of incomplete blood pressure control by trandolapril alone." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0623_12674", "title": "[Hypertension in the elderly: particularities and precautions].", "score": 0.013922895962360172, "content": "Hypertension is very common and inadequately controlled among the elderly. The HYVET study showed that antihypertensive therapy significantly reduces total mortality and cardiovascular events in people aged 80 years and older. The therapeutic goal for patients aged from 60 to 80 years is systolic blood pressure (SBP) less than 140 mmHg and a diastolic blood pressure (DBP) less than 90 mmHg, without orthostatic hypotension. For patients older than 80 years, the aim is keep SBP &lt; 150 mmHg. This goal also depends on comorbidities, iatrogenic risk, and life expectancy. The choice of treatment must be adapted to the patient's clinical situation, taking into account any cardiovascular diseases, organ damage, and comorbidities. All of the principal antihypertensive drugs can be used in the elderly, with a preference for thiazide diuretics or calcium channel blockers for those with systolic hypertension. Generally, no more than three antihypertensive drugs should be prescribed for octogenarians (including a thiazide diuretic). Particular attention must be paid to the renal risk (estimated by glomerular filtration rate), especially for nephrotoxic and multiple drugs. Blood levels of potassium, sodium, and creatinine must be monitored in patients receiving diuretics or renin angiotensin system blockers, particularly during acute events (e.g., fever, infection, dehydration, and diarrhea). Cognitive function should be assessed in patients with hypertension older than 80 years, with the MMSE (Mini-Mental-State-Examination) to assess the risk of poor adherence, in view of the increased risk of dementia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en226_4902", "title": "Alpha blocker", "score": 0.013782606857481082, "content": "Contraindications There is only one compelling indication for alpha blockers, which is for benign prostatic hyperplasia. Patients who need alpha blockers for BPH, but have a history of hypotension or postural heart failure, should use these drugs with caution, as it may result in an even greater decrease in blood pressure or make heart failure even worse. The most compelling contraindication is urinary incontinence and overall fluid retention. To combat such fluid retention, patients can take a diuretic in combination with the alpha-blocker. In the absence of compelling indications or contraindications, patients should take alpha blockers as a step 4 therapy to reduce blood pressure, but only if the use of ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-II receptor blockers, calcium channel blockers, or thazide diuretics (in full dose or in combinations) have not been efficacious." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0323_18777", "title": "[Influence of some parameters on the blood pressure reduction under treatment: experience from the Hypertension Optimal Treatment Study].", "score": 0.013657249829816202, "content": "The HOT study is the largest controlled therapeutic trial conducted to date in hypertension. This international, prospective, randomised trial is designed to determine the optimal blood pressure to be obtained during treatment, in order to achieve optimal reduction of complications and cardiovascular mortality. The HOT study is conducted according to the PROBE methodology (Prospective Randomised Open Blinded Endpoints. It has three objectives: 1) to evaluate the relationship between the development of major cardiovascular events and the DBP target level (DBP &lt; or = 90, DBP &lt; or = 85 or DBP &lt; or = 80 mmHg. 2) to evaluate the relationship between the development of major cardiovascular events and real DBP observed, 3) to determine whether low-dose acetylsalicylic acid (75 mg/day) provides an additional benefit in terms of cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in treated hypertensive subjects. Between April 1992 and October 1994, 18,790 patients, between the ages of 50 and 80 years (26 countries), were randomised to these 3 target DBP groups and several parameters likely to influence the blood pressure fall were identified. The reduction of DBP was all the more pronounced the higher the baseline DBP. For a baseline DBP equal to 100 mmHg, the mean fall was 18 mmHg and for a baseline DBP equal to 110 mmHg, the mean fall was 27 mmHg. Advanced age was also found to be a factor promoting reduction of DBP, which increased after the age of 65 years. Analysed in relation to the type of treatment, this more marked reduction in the elderly showed that monotherapy with a calcium channel blocker was very effective on DBP and especially after the age of 75 years. The data of the study also showed that SBP decreased in parallel to DBP, but to an even greater extent. Thus, a 10 mmHg reduction of DBP induces a reduction of SBP by approximately 20 mmHg. This reduction of SBP related to the level of DBP was even more marked the higher the baseline SBP and the higher the target DBP objective. Thus 80% of patients in the DBP &lt; or = 80 mmHg group had an SBP &lt; or = 150 mmHg during treatment. Among the other factors, weight appeared to clearly influence reduction of DBP, as the reduction of DBP was more marked the lower the patient's weight. In contrast, the body mass index was poorly correlated with the reduction in blood pressure. The blood pressure reduction, regardless of weight, was more marked when a stricter blood pressure objective was adopted (DBP &lt; or = 80 mmHg). Finally, in the particular case of elderly subjects, treatment with a calcium channel blocker appeared to be very effective in reducing the blood pressure." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_703", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.013637639886085596, "content": "In the United States, the JNC8 (Eighth Joint National Committee on the Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure) recommends thiazide-type diuretics to be one of the first-line drug treatments for hypertension, either as monotherapy or in combination with calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, or angiotensin II receptor antagonists. There are fixed-dose combination drugs, such as ACE inhibitor and thiazide combinations. Despite thiazides being cheap and effective, they are not prescribed as often as some newer drugs. This is because they have been associated with increased risk of new-onset diabetes and as such are recommended for use in patients over 65 where the risk of new-onset diabetes is outweighed by the benefits of controlling systolic blood pressure. Another theory is that they are off-patent and thus rarely promoted by the drug industry." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_719", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.013591800356506239, "content": "Thiazide diuretics are effective, recommended as the best first-line drug for hypertension, and are much more affordable than other therapies, yet they are not prescribed as often as some newer drugs. Chlorthalidone is the thiazide drug that is most strongly supported by the evidence as providing a mortality benefit; in the ALLHAT study, a chlorthalidone dose of 12.5 mg was used, with titration up to 25 mg for those subjects who did not achieve blood pressure control at 12.5 mg. Chlorthalidone has repeatedly been found to have a stronger effect on lowering blood pressure than hydrochlorothiazide, and hydrochlorothiazide and chlorthalidone have a similar risk of hypokalemia and other adverse effects at the usual doses prescribed in routine clinical practice. Patients with an exaggerated hypokalemic response to a low dose of a thiazide diuretic should be suspected to have hyperaldosteronism, a common cause of secondary hypertension." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0545_22968", "title": "[Management of hypertension in the very elderly].", "score": 0.013081617086193745, "content": "The prevalence of hypertension in persons aged 80 years or older is about 70%. Recent studies in this population show the benefits of antihypertensive therapy, especially for stroke prevention. Accurate determination of blood pressure requires the use of ambulatory measurement methods or self-measurement at home because the frequency of \"white coat\" hypertension increases with age. It is essential to distinguish patients with sustained hypertension, who need antihypertensive drugs, from those with white coat hypertension, for whom treatment is not justified and may be dangerous because of the risk of hypotension. The objective of antihypertensive treatment is to decrease blood pressure to less than 140/90 mmHg for those aged 60 to 80 years and to decrease systolic pressure to less than 150 mmHg in those older than 80 years, without orthostatic hypotension. Any class of antihypertensive drugs can be used to start treatment, although in the absence of specific indications due to concomitant diseases, thiazide diuretics or calcium channel blockers are preferred for initial treatment. Most often, very elderly hypertensive patients will require two antihypertensive drugs for adequate blood pressure control. Generally their regimen should not include more than 3 antihypertensive drugs (including a thiazide diuretic)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en477_24837", "title": "Management of hypertension", "score": 0.012695206838100047, "content": "Elderly Treating moderate to severe hypertension decreases death rates and cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in people aged 60 and older. The recommended blood pressure goal is advised as <150/90 mm Hg, with thiazide diuretic, CCB, ACEI, or ARB being the first-line medication in the United States. In the revised UK guidelines, calcium-channel blockers are advocated as first line, with targets of clinic readings <150/90, or <145/85 on ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. There are no randomized clinical trials addressing the goal blood pressure of hypertensives over 79 years old. A recent review concluded that antihypertensive treatment reduced cardiovascular deaths and disease, but did not significantly reduce total death rates. Two professional organizations have published guidelines for the management of hypertension in persons over 79 years old." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0295_15464", "title": "The evolution of low-dose diuretic therapy: the lessons from clinical trials.", "score": 0.01232806555458004, "content": "Safe and effective antihypertensive therapy became available in the 1950s with the introduction of thiazide diuretics. Prior to that time, we did have agents that lowered blood pressure but they often needed to be given parenterally and were too poorly tolerated to be used for the treatment of any but those with life-threatening elevations of blood pressure. When thiazide diuretics-first chlorothiazide and then hydrochlorothiazide-became available, it was possible to lower blood pressure in most hypertensives and assess whether that reduction would lead to a reduction in cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. The results of 17 large trials have now made it clear that antihypertensive therapy with regimens based on diuretics and beta blockers reduces cardiovascular events and saves lives. When first introduced, thiazide diuretics were prescribed at doses we now know are excessively high (100-200 mg of hydrochlorothiazide/day), and we have learned that much lower doses, even as little as 12.5 mg of hydrochlorothiazide, are effective. These lower doses will reduce blood pressure and do so with considerably less in the way of metabolic effects. This article will trace the development of antihypertensive therapy and review how data from clinical trials have influenced the recommendations of the Joint National Committees on the Detection, Evaluation and Treatment of Hypertension." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0701_13003", "title": "Hydrochlorothiazide versus calcium channel blockers: what is the best add-on to a renin-angiotensin system blocker for treating hypertension in patients with renal disease?", "score": 0.012049062049062049, "content": "Hypertension remains an important problem that increases the risk of cardiovascular disease and is a leading cause of mortality worldwide. Achieving long-term control of arterial hypertension, which has an estimated prevalence of 28% in the US adult population, would translate into a significant reduction in cardiovascular events. Specific causes can be identified and treated for certain forms of secondary hypertension, but often it is multifactorial. Therefore, it makes sense to attain blood pressure control by addressing more than one pressor mechanism. Several clinical studies have demonstrated that combination antihypertensive therapy is more effective than monotherapy, and a review of currently published data suggests that approximately 75% of hypertensive individuals will require some form of combination therapy to achieve target blood pressure (BP) goals. To this end, the Seventh Report of the Joint National Committee on Prevention, Detection, Evaluation and Treatment of Blood Pressure (JNC 7) has recommended that antihypertensive therapy should start with two drugs when a patient presents with systolic blood pressure (SBP) more than 20 mm Hg above target levels, diastolic blood pressure (DBP) more than 10 mm Hg above target levels, or both. This review attempts to analyze the current evidence in published medical literature to answer the question of whether hydrochlorothiazide or a calcium channel blocker is a better add-on to a renin-angiotensin system blocker for treating hypertension in patients with renal disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_155266", "title": "Hypertension", "score": 0.011904761904761904, "content": "Medications Several classes of medications, collectively referred to as antihypertensive medications, are available for treating hypertension. First-line medications for hypertension include thiazide-diuretics, calcium channel blockers, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors), and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs). These medications may be used alone or in combination (ACE inhibitors and ARBs are not recommended for use in combination); the latter option may serve to minimize counter-regulatory mechanisms that act to restore blood pressure values to pre-treatment levels. Most people require more than one medication to control their hypertension. Medications for blood pressure control should be implemented by a stepped care approach when target levels are not reached." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_700", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.011512791991101223, "content": "Which type of medication to use initially for hypertension has been the subject of several large studies and resulting national guidelines. The fundamental goal of treatment should be the prevention of the important endpoints of hypertension, such as heart attack, stroke and heart failure. Patient age, associated clinical conditions and end-organ damage also play a part in determining dosage and type of medication administered. The several classes of antihypertensives differ in side effect profiles, ability to prevent endpoints, and cost. The choice of more expensive agents, where cheaper ones would be equally effective, may have negative impacts on national healthcare budgets. As of 2018, the best available evidence favors low-dose thiazide diuretics as the first-line treatment of choice for high blood pressure when drugs are necessary. Although clinical evidence shows calcium channel blockers and thiazide-type diuretics are preferred first-line treatments for most people (from both" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0899_10659", "title": "[Comparative Efficacy of the Influence of Fixed Combinations of Antihypertensive Drugs That Block the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System, With Thiazide Diuretics on the Parameters of Ambulatory Blood Pressure Monitoring].", "score": 0.011483707687440683, "content": "to compare effects of fixed-dose combinations of antihypertensive drugs that block renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) with hydrochlorothiazide (HCT) on parameters of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM). Patients (n=50; 25 women, 25 men aged 40-75 years) with stage II essential hypertension who received no antihypertensive therapy for 12 weeks were randomized to receive once daily fixed-dose combinations of either valsartan/HCT (Val/HCT - group I) or quinapril/HCT (Quin/HCT - groupII) in starting doses of 80/12.5 or 10/12.5 mg, respectively. If target BP (&lt;140 and 90 mm Hg) was not achieved after 2 weeks, doses were increased to 160/12.5 and 20/12.5 mg, respectively. Patients in whom target BP was not achieved after another 2 weeks were excluded from the study. Follow - up after achieving target BP was 12 weeks. Both combinations significantly (p&lt;0.001) reduced office systolic and diastolic BP (SBP and DBP), however, BP decrease in group I was significantly (p&lt;0.01) greater (-42.0+/-2,7 /-22.2+/-1.2 mm Hg) than in group II (-26,4+/-2,1/-6.6+/-0.4 mm Hg). Significant reduction of day- and night-time BP (p&lt;0.001) observed in both groups was also more pronounced (p&lt;0.01) in group I. In both groups we recorded significant (p&lt;0.01) decreases of BP variability and morning BP rise. Variability of DBP at night (-3.3+/-0.2 mm Hg), magnitude and speed of morning DBP surge (-20.9+/-0.3 mm Hg and -3.4+/-0.2 mm Hg/hour, respectively) in group I decreased significantly (p&lt;0.05) greater compared with same parameters in group II (-2.5+/-0.2 mm Hg, -17.7+/-0.3 mm Hg, -2.6+/-0.2 mm Hg/hour, respectively). Fixed-dose combinations of RAAS blockers and HCT provided reliable reduction of BP, BP variability, morning BP rise, and high percentage of achievement of target BP. Val/HCT combination was more effective in terms of reducing SBP, DBP and pulse BP levels at routine measurement, and day- and night-time SBP and DBP, night-time DBP variability, and rate of morning DBP rise." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en477_24831", "title": "Management of hypertension", "score": 0.011340852130325815, "content": "The best first-line medication is disputed, but the Cochrane collaboration, World Health Organization, and US guidelines support low-dose thiazide-based diuretic as first-line treatment. The UK guidelines emphasise calcium channel blockers (CCB) in preference for people over the age of 55 years or people of African or Caribbean descent, with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE-I) used as a first line for younger people. In Japan, starting with any one of six classes of medications, including CCB, ACEI/ARB, thiazide diuretics, beta-blockers, and alpha-blockers, is deemed reasonable, while in Canada and Europe all of these except alpha-blockers are recommended as options. Compared to placebo, beta-blockers have a greater benefit in stroke reduction, but no difference on coronary heart disease or all-cause mortality. However, three-quarters of active beta-blocker treatments in the randomised controlled trials included in the review used atenolol, and none used the newer" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_722", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.01040992448759439, "content": "Patient factors The choice between the drugs is to a large degree determined by the characteristics of the patient being prescribed for, the drugs' side effects, and cost. Most drugs have other uses; sometimes the presence of other symptoms can warrant the use of one particular antihypertensive. Examples include: Age can affect the choice of medications. Current UK guidelines suggest starting patients over the age of 55 years first on calcium channel blockers or thiazide diuretics. Age and multi-morbidity can affect the choice of medication, the target blood pressure and even whether to treat or not. Anxiety may be improved with the use of beta blockers. Asthmatics have been reported to have worsening symptoms when using beta blockers. Benign prostatic hyperplasia may be improved with the use of an alpha blocker. Chronic kidney disease. ACE inhibitors or ARBs should be included in the treatment plan to improve kidney outcomes regardless of race or diabetic status." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_699", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.010082899556583766, "content": "Antihypertensives are a class of drugs that are used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure). Antihypertensive therapy seeks to prevent the complications of high blood pressure, such as stroke and myocardial infarction. Evidence suggests that reduction of the blood pressure by 5 mmHg can decrease the risk of stroke by 34%, of ischaemic heart disease by 21%, and reduce the likelihood of dementia, heart failure, and mortality from cardiovascular disease. There are many classes of antihypertensives, which lower blood pressure by different means. Among the most important and most widely used medications are thiazide diuretics, calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists (ARBs), and beta blockers." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0299_19296", "title": "Long-term blood pressure control in older Chinese patients with isolated systolic hypertension: a progress report on the Syst-China trial.", "score": 0.009932958690722665, "content": "This report on the ongoing double-blind placebo-controlled Syst-China trial investigated whether antihypertensive drug treatment based mainly on a calcium entry blocker and a converting enzyme inhibitor, would be suitable for maintaining long-term blood pressure (BP) control in older Chinese patients (average age: 67 years) with isolated systolic hypertension (systolic pressure 160-219 mm Hg and diastolic pressure &lt; 95 mm Hg). Active treatment consisted of nitrendipine (10- 40 mg/day) with the possible addition of captopril (12.5- 50 mg/day) and hydrochlorothiazide (12.5-50 mg/day), as necessary to reduce systolic pressure to a level of 150 mm Hg or lower and by at least 20 mm Hg. Matching placebos were used in the control group. This progress analysis was restricted to BP control up to 3 years of follow-up. The placebo (n = 1134) and active treatment n = 1245) groups had similar characteristics at enrolment. The sitting BP averaged 170/86 mm Hg. Systolic pressure fell (P &lt; 0.001) on average 8 mm Hg more on active treatment than on placebo and diastolic pressure 3 mm Hg more. Fewer patients remained on monotherapy in the placebo than in the active treatment group (P &lt; 0.001); on placebo the second and third line medications were started more frequently (P &lt; 0.001). This progress report showed that significant BP reduction can be achieved and maintained in older Chinese patients treated with a calcium antagonist, associated with a converting-enzyme inhibitor and a thiazide, as necessary. Whether this BP reduction would result in a clinically meaningful decrease of cardiovascular complications is still under investigation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_40479", "title": "Amiloride", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "minimal efficacy. For people with resistant hypertension, already taking a thiazide diuretic, an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE-i) or an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), and a calcium channel blocker, the addition of amiloride (or spironolactone) was better at reducing blood pressure than adding a beta-blocker (bisoprolol) or an alpha-1 blocker (doxazosin). When combined with hydrochlorothiazide, the addition of amiloride had positive effects on blood pressure and blood sugar tolerance. Amiloride may therefore be useful for preventing the metabolic side effects of thiazide diuretics, allowing for the use of higher thiazide doses (in line with how they were originally studied)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0387_14731", "title": "How far should we lower blood pressure in the elderly.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In the last few years several large intervention trials have addressed the treatment of hypertension in the elderly and how far blood pressure should be lowered in such patients. The positive results of intervention against high blood pressure in the elderly has resulted in a positive attitude towards treatment and today this is an accepted and highly effective medical intervention. Both stroke and coronary morbidity have been shown to be positively affected as has total mortality. The specific issue, how far to lower blood pressure in the elderly was probably best addressed in the Hypertension Optimal Treatment (HOT) stduy in which about a third of the patients, i.e. &gt;6,000 patients, were &gt; or =65 years of age. In most of the early intervention studies of antihypertensive treatment in elderly patients diuretics or beta-blockers or the two in combination were used as the therapy by which blood pressure was lowered. However, novel therapies, in particular calcium antagonists, have shown benefits of the same magnitude as the older therapies, e.g. in the STONE trial, the Syst-Eur study, the Syst-China study and the STOP-Hypertension-2 study. In the latter study a regimen based on either of two ACE inhibitors was also shown to be equally effective as conventional treatment, based on diuretics and/or betablockers, in the elderly. These trials will be briefly reviewed here as will the SCOPE study which is an ogoing trial in which hypertensive patients aged 70-89 years are being treated with an angiotensin II receptor antagonist under double-blind and placebo-controlled conditions. It can be concluded that a wealth of information, based on large intervention trials, has been accumulated during the last decade. It is quite obvious that the elderly hypertensive patients benefit from antihypertensive treatment to at least the same extent as the young and middle-aged. It appears that blood pressure ought to be lowered down to normotensive values also in the elderly in order to minimize their risk if cardiovascular complications, although more studies would be welcome to address this issue specifically in the elderly." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0795_13807", "title": "Blood pressure-lowering efficacy of monotherapy with thiazide diuretics for primary hypertension.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Hypertension is a modifiable cardiovascular risk factor. Although it is established that low-dose thiazides reduce mortality as well as cardiovascular morbidity, the dose-related effect of thiazides in decreasing blood pressure has not been subject to a rigorous systematic review. It is not known whether individual drugs within the thiazide diuretic class differ in their blood pressure-lowering effects and adverse effects. To determine the dose-related decrease in systolic and/or diastolic blood pressure due to thiazide diuretics compared with placebo control in the treatment of patients with primary hypertension. Secondary outcomes included the dose-related adverse events leading to patient withdrawal and adverse biochemical effects on serum potassium, uric acid, creatinine, glucose and lipids. We searched the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL 2014, Issue 1), Ovid MEDLINE (1946 to February 2014), Ovid EMBASE (1974 to February 2014) and ClinicalTrials.gov. We included double-blind, randomized controlled trials (RCTs) comparing fixed-dose thiazide diuretic monotherapy with placebo for a duration of 3 to 12 weeks in the treatment of adult patients with primary hypertension. Two authors independently screened articles, assessed trial eligibility, extracted data and determined risk of bias. We combined data for continuous variables using a mean difference (MD) and for dichotomous outcomes we calculated the relative risk ratio (RR) with 95% confidence interval (CI). We included 60 randomized, double-blind trials that evaluated the dose-related trough blood pressure-lowering efficacy of six different thiazide diuretics in 11,282 participants treated for a mean duration of eight weeks. The mean age of the participants was 55 years and baseline blood pressure was 158/99 mmHg. Adequate blood pressure-lowering efficacy data were available for hydrochlorothiazide, chlorthalidone and indapamide. We judged 54 (90%) included trials to have unclear or high risk of bias, which impacted on our confidence in the results for some of our outcomes.In 33 trials with a baseline blood pressure of 155/100 mmHg, hydrochlorothiazide lowered blood pressure based on dose, with doses of 6.25 mg, 12.5 mg, 25 mg and 50 mg/day lowering blood pressure compared to placebo by 4 mmHg (95% CI 2 to 6, moderate-quality evidence)/2 mmHg (95% CI 1 to 4, moderate-quality evidence), 6 mmHg (95% CI 5 to 7, high-quality evidence)/3 mmHg (95% CI 3 to 4, high-quality evidence), 8 mmHg (95% CI 7 to 9, high-quality evidence)/3 mmHg (95% CI 3 to 4, high-quality evidence) and 11 mmHg (95% CI 6 to 15, low-quality evidence)/5 mmHg (95% CI 3 to 7, low-quality evidence), respectively.Direct comparison of doses did not show evidence of dose dependence for blood pressure-lowering for any of the other thiazides for which RCT data were available: bendrofluazide, chlorthalidone, cyclopenthiazide, metolazone or indapamide.In seven trials with a baseline blood pressure of 163/88 mmHg, chlorthalidone at doses of 12.5 mg to 75 mg/day reduced average blood pressure compared to placebo by 12.0 mmHg (95% CI 10 to 14, low-quality evidence)/4 mmHg (95% CI 3 to 5, low-quality evidence).In 10 trials with a baseline blood pressure of 161/98 mmHg, indapamide at doses of 1.0 mg to 5.0 mg/day reduced blood pressure compared to placebo by 9 mmHg (95% CI 7 to 10, low-quality evidence)/4 (95% CI 3 to 5, low-quality evidence).We judged the maximal blood pressure-lowering effect of the different thiazides to be similar. Overall, thiazides reduced average blood pressure compared to placebo by 9 mmHg (95% CI 9 to 10, high-quality evidence)/4 mmHg (95% CI 3 to 4, high-quality evidence).Thiazides as a class have a greater effect on systolic than on diastolic blood pressure, therefore thiazides lower pulse pressure by 4 mmHg to 6 mmHg, an amount that is greater than the 3 mmHg seen with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) and renin inhibitors, and the 2 mmHg seen with non-selective beta-blockers. This is based on an informal indirect comparison of results observed in other Cochrane reviews on ACE inhibitors, ARBs and renin inhibitors compared with placebo, which used similar inclusion/exclusion criteria to the present review.Thiazides reduced potassium, increased uric acid and increased total cholesterol and triglycerides. These effects were dose-related and were least for hydrochlorothiazide. Chlorthalidone increased serum glucose but the evidence was unclear for other thiazides. There is a high risk of bias in the metabolic data. This review does not provide a good assessment of the adverse effects of these drugs because there was a high risk of bias in the reporting of withdrawals due to adverse effects. This systematic review shows that hydrochlorothiazide has a dose-related blood pressure-lowering effect. The mean blood pressure-lowering effect over the dose range 6.25 mg, 12.5 mg, 25 mg and 50 mg/day is 4/2 mmHg, 6/3 mmHg, 8/3 mmHg and 11/5 mmHg, respectively. For other thiazide drugs, the lowest doses studied lowered blood pressure maximally and higher doses did not lower it more. Due to the greater effect on systolic than on diastolic blood pressure, thiazides lower pulse pressure by 4 mmHg to 6 mmHg. This exceeds the mean 3 mmHg pulse pressure reduction achieved by ACE inhibitors, ARBs and renin inhibitors, and the 2 mmHg pulse pressure reduction with non-selective beta-blockers as shown in other Cochrane reviews, which compared these antihypertensive drug classes with placebo and used similar inclusion/exclusion criteria.Thiazides did not increase withdrawals due to adverse effects in these short-term trials but there is a high risk of bias for that outcome. Thiazides reduced potassium, increased uric acid and increased total cholesterol and triglycerides." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0490_18074", "title": "[Perspectives on treatment of hypertension in elderly patients].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Hypertension increases in prevalence with age. Population-based studies suggest that more than 50% of people over the age of 65 years may have chronic hypertension, defined as blood pressure (BP) &gt; or = 140/90 mmHg. Hypertension, especially systolic hypertension, is the most common, powerful, however treatable risk factor for cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in the elderly. Large randomised trials have demonstrated that treating elderly and even very old persons (age &gt; 80 years) is highly efficacious. A recent meta-analysis, comparing active treatment with placebo in isolated systolic hypertension demonstrated highly significant benefits: stroke was reduced by 30%, coronary heart disease events by 23%, all cardiovascular events by 26%, and cardiovascular deaths by 13%. The classic strategy of an initial thiazide or thiazide-like diuretic therapy has been verified by the most recent trials. Furthermore it is not appropriate to limit the choice of initial drugs for hypertensive older individuals to a single class of agents, since so many older people have other medical problems that affect this decision and reaching the target blood pressure is the determinant factor for cardiovascular risk reduction. Therefore single drug therapy with long-acting (dihydropyridine-type) calcium-antagonists, beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting-enzyme-inhibitors or angiotensin-receptor-blockers is justified with respect to individual efficacy and comorbidity. If a combination of antihypertensive drugs is needed to reach blood pressure goal, thiazides remain the cornerstone. First line therapy with an alpha-blocker is no longer recommended, even for men with hypertension and benign prostatic hypertrophy. Today, recommended blood pressure goals are the same for younger individuals and the elderly." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en064_36875", "title": "Alpha-1 blocker", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "In patients with neurogenic hypertension who fail in achieving blood pressure control with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEi), Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB) and calcium channel blockers (CCB), alpha- and beta- adrenergic receptor blockers constitute the main treatment options. This is supported by studies that show surprisingly though consistently that neither alpha- nor beta-blocker mono- therapy reduces sympathetically mediated blood pressure reactivity to acute experimental stressors. Studies of combined oral alpha- and beta-blockade using an alpha-blocker (e.g., doxazosin or terazosin) in combination with a nonlipophilic beta-blocker with more reliable bioavailability (e.g., betaxolol, bisoprolol, atenolol and others) have shown a larger antihypertensive effect. This approach also enables separate titration of alpha- and beta-blocking effects. In these studies, doxazosin was prescribed at the low dose of 1–2 mg." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0531_18133", "title": "Efficacy and safety of lercanidipine versus hydrochlorothiazide as add-on to enalapril in diabetic populations with uncontrolled hypertension.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors plus dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers or low-dose thiazide diuretics are considered first-line therapies in hypertensive diabetic patients as glucose metabolism is not relevantly affected. Most diabetic patients require at least two different drug classes to achieve the recommended target blood pressure of 130/85 mmHg. This controlled clinical trial investigated the calcium channel blocker lercanidipine versus hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) as add-on in diabetic patients with uncontrolled hypertension on enalapril monotherapy. Overall, 174 patients (18-80 years old, well-controlled diabetes type 1 or 2, mild to moderate hypertension) were included in a 2-week placebo run-in followed by 4 weeks on enalapril 20 mg. Subsequently, 135 non-responders (90 mmHg &lt; or = mean sitting diastolic blood pressure &lt; or = 109 mmHg) were randomized to 20 weeks of double-blind add-on therapy to enalapril with either lercanidipine 10 mg (n = 69) or HCTZ 12.5 mg (n = 66). The primary study objective was to prove non-inferiority of lercanidipine add-on versus HCTZ add-on in reducing sitting diastolic blood pressure; response rates and tolerability data were also observed. Both add-on treatments clearly decreased diastolic blood pressure to a greater extent than enalapril monotherapy (mean +/- SD changes at study end: lercanidipine, -9.3 mmHg; HCTZ, -7.4 mmHg); non-inferiority of lercanidipine versus HCTZ was formally proven. Blood pressure response rates reached 69.6% on enalapril plus lercanidipine as compared with 53.6% on enalapril plus HCTZ (difference between treatments, P &gt; 0.05). Blood pressure of 130/85 mmHg or less was achieved in 30.4% of patients on lercanidipine add-on and in 23.2% of those randomized to HCTZ add-on (P &gt; 0.05). Both treatment regimens were well tolerated. Lercanidipine add-on showed comparable efficacy to HCTZ add-on in diabetic patients with hypertension badly controlled on angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor monotherapy. The blood pressure response rates seemed to be somewhat higher following enalapril plus lercanidipine than enalapril plus HCTZ." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0641_9977", "title": "Management of hypertension in the elderly patient.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Hypertension in the elderly is associated with increased occurrence rates of sodium sensitivity, isolated systolic hypertension, and 'white coat effect'. Arterial stiffness and endothelial dysfunction also increase with age. These factors should be considered in selecting antihypertensive therapy. The prime objective of this therapy is to prevent stroke. The findings of controlled trials show that there should be no cut-off age for treatment. A holistic program for controlling cardiovascular risks should be fully discussed with the patient, including evaluation to exclude underlying causes of secondary hypertension, and implementation of lifestyle measures. The choice of antihypertensive drug therapy is influenced by concomitant disease and previous medication history, but will typically include a thiazide diuretic as the first-line agent; to this will be added an angiotensin inhibitor and/or a calcium channel blocker. Beta blockers are not generally recommended, in part because they do not combat the effects of increased arterial stiffness. The hypertension-hypotension syndrome requires case-specific management. Drug-resistant hypertension is important to differentiate from faulty compliance with medication. Patients resistant to third-line drug therapy may benefit from treatment with extended-release isosorbide mononitrate. A trial of spironolactone may also be worthwhile." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en024_706", "title": "Antihypertensive drug", "score": 0.009472760939479583, "content": "However, ACE inhibitors (and angiotensin II receptor antagonists) should not be a first-line treatment for black hypertensives without chronic kidney disease. Results from the ALLHAT trial showed that thiazide-type diuretics and calcium channel blockers were both more effective as monotherapy in improving cardiovascular outcomes compared to ACE inhibitors for this subgroup. Furthermore, ACE inhibitors were less effective in reducing blood pressure and had a 51% higher risk of stroke in black hypertensives when used as initial therapy compared to a calcium channel blocker. There are fixed-dose combination drugs, such as ACE inhibitor and thiazide combinations. Notable side effects of ACE inhibitors include dry cough, high blood levels of potassium, fatigue, dizziness, headaches, loss of taste and a risk for angioedema. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0514_3932", "title": "Adult hypertension: reducing cardiovascular morbidity and mortality.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "(1) Since our last review of treatments for arterial hypertension in 1999 (Prescrire International no.41), many new data have been published and new antihypertensive drugs have appeared on the market. (2) The working definition of hypertension is unchanged, namely blood pressure of at least 160/95 mm Hg in the general population, and at least 140/80 mm Hg in patients with diabetes and a history of stroke; these figures must be found on several occasions using a standardised method, with the patient at rest. (3) The goals of antihypertensive therapy are to reduce mortality and cardiovascular events, and not simply to drive blood pressure below a fixed (and often controversial) threshold. (4) Some drug and non drug interventions have a positive risk-benefit balance in the long term. (5) When antihypertensive drug therapy is needed, trials based on clinical endpoints show that it is best to start treatment with a single drug. (6) New data support the use of certain thiazide diuretics (chlortalidone, or hydrochlorothiazide if chlortalidone is not available) as first line treatment for most hypertensive patients, including non diabetic adults, diabetic adults, elderly subjects (over 65 years), and stroke patients. Some betablockers and angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitor) are second-line alternatives. (7) Assessment of other antihypertensive drugs has also progressed since 1999, including indapamide (thiazide-like diuretic), amlodipine, diltiazem and verapamil (calcium channel blockers), lisinopril (ACE inhibitor), and losartan and valsartan (angiotensin II antagonists). However, these drugs are not as thoroughly evaluated as thiazide diuretics, betablockers and some ACE inhibitors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0748_3103", "title": "The older patient with hypertension: care and cure.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Hypertension is one of the most important clinical conditions affecting older people. Its prevalence in this group of subjects is above 60% and continues to grow. Isolated systolic hypertension accounts for the majority of cases as systolic blood pressure increases with advancing age, while diastolic blood pressure remains unchanged or even decreases. Nowadays hypertension is a well established risk factor for stroke and cardiovascular disease among older people and its treatment is considered mandatory. The general recommended blood pressure goal in uncomplicated hypertension is less than 140/90 mmHg, even if this target in older people is based mainly on expert opinion. All patients should receive nonpharmacological treatment, in particular reduction in excess body weight when body mass index is greater than 26 kg/m(2) and dietary salt restriction. Older patients with hypertension may also benefit from smoking cessation, physical activity and alcohol restriction. In relation to drug therapy, a low-dose thiazide diuretic could be a good first step. Other first-line drugs are long-acting calcium channel blockers, generally dihydropyridines, and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers. The HYVET study showed a specific protective effect of indapamide with or without perindopril in people older than 80 years. Since monotherapy normalizes blood pressure in only 40-50% of cases, a combination of two or more drugs is often required. Moreover the addiction of a second drug may reduce the dose-related adverse effects of the first one. Finally, compliance with treatment should always be achieved by giving complete information to patients and simplifying the drug regimen as much as possible." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_41797", "title": "Chlortalidone", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Medical use High blood pressure Chlortalidone is considered a first-line medication for treatment high blood pressure. Some recommend chlortalidone over hydrochlorothiazide. A meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials found that chlortalidone is more effective than hydrochlorothiazide for lowering blood pressure, while the two drugs have similar toxicity. Trials of chlortalidone for high blood pressure found that lower doses of chlortalidone (e.g., 12.5 mg daily in ALLHAT study) had maximal blood pressure lowering effect and that higher doses did not lower it more. Chlortalidone, like other thiazides, appears effective in people with kidney disease. Chlortalidone and other thiazide diuretics are effective for lowering high blood pressure in persons with chronic kidney disease, although the risk of adverse effects is higher in these persons." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0348_361", "title": "Guidelines for management of hypertension: report of the third working party of the British Hypertension Society.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Use non-pharmacological measures in all hypertensive and borderline hypertensive people. Initiate antihypertensive drug therapy in people with sustained systolic blood pressures (BP) &gt;/=160 mm Hg or sustained diastolic BP &gt;/=100 mm Hg. Decide on treatment in people with sustained systolic BP between 140 and 159 mm Hg or sustained diastolic BP between 90 and 99 mm Hg according to the presence or absence of target organ damage, cardiovascular disease or a 10-year coronary heart disease (CHD) risk of &gt;/=15% according to the Joint British Societies CHD risk assessment programme/risk chart. In people with diabetes mellitus, initiate antihypertensive drug therapy if systolic BP is sustained &gt;/=140 mm Hg or diastolic BP is sustained &gt;/=90 mm Hg. In non-diabetic hypertensive people, optimal BP treatment targets are: systolic BP &lt;140 mm Hg and diastolic BP &lt;85 mm Hg. The minimum acceptable level of control (Audit Standard) recommended is &lt;150/&lt;90 mm Hg. Despite best practice, these levels will be difficult to achieve in some hypertensive people. In diabetic hypertensive people, optimal BP targets are; systolic BP &lt;140 mm Hg and diastolic BP &lt;80 mm Hg. The minimum acceptable level of control (Audit Standard) recommended is &lt;140/&lt;90 mm Hg. Despite best practice, these levels will be difficult to achieve in some people with diabetes and hypertension. In the absence of contraindications or compelling indications for other antihypertensive agents, low dose thiazide diuretics or beta-blockers are preferred as first-line therapy for the majority of hypertensive people. In the absence of compelling indications for beta-blockade, diuretics or long acting dihydropyridine calcium antagonists are preferred to beta-blockers in older subjects. Compelling indications and contraindications for all antihypertensive drug classes are specified. For most hypertensives, a combination of antihypertensive drugs will be required to achieve the recommended targets for blood pressure control. Other drugs that reduce cardiovascular risk must also be considered. These include aspirin for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and primary prevention in treated hypertensive subjects over the age of 50 years who have a 10-year CHD risk &gt;/=15% and in whom blood pressure is controlled to the audit standard. In accordance with existing British recommendations, statin therapy is recommended for hypertensive people with a total cholesterol &gt;/=5 mmol/L and established vascular disease, or 10-year CHD risk &gt;/=30% estimated from the Joint British Societies CHD risk chart. Glycaemic control should also be optimised in diabetic subjects. Specific advice is given on the management of hypertension in specific patient groups, ie, the elderly, ethnic subgroups, diabetes mellitus, chronic renal disease and in women (pregnancy, oral contraceptive use and hormone replacement therapy). Suggestions for the implementation and audit of these guidelines in primary care are provided." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0613_18107", "title": "Interaction between antihypertensives and NSAIDs in primary care: a controlled trial.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may increase blood pressure (BP) and blunt the effects of many antihypertensives. It seems that NSAIDs and the antihypertensive drugs differ in their propensity to such an interaction. To determine the extent of the interaction between two antihypertensives and three NSAIDs. A prospective clinical trial in a family practice included 88 treated hypertensives aged over 55 years; 39 controls and 49, also taking NSAIDs for osteoarthritis. During this 3-month study, two antihypertensives, lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide and amlodipine, were compared with three NSAIDs: ibuprofen, acetaminophen, and piroxicam. BP was measured with standard mercury sphygmomanometer and with an automatic device, in standing, sitting, and supine position. The average starting blood pressure in the study group was 149.3A+/-9.8/88.6A+/-6.8 mm Hg. In the lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide subgroup, both ibuprofen and piroxicam elevated systolic BP by 7.7-9.9% (p&lt;0.001), which, during the acetaminophen period, decreased by 6.9-9.4% to 0.3-0.9% above baseline (p&lt;0.001), increasing again by 7.0-7.7% (p&lt;0.001) during the second exposition to these drugs. In the amlodipine subgroup, ibuprofen or piroxicam increased BP by 1.1-1.6% (p&gt;0.290) only, and there were no significant shifts in the follow-up periods. Analogous deviations were observed with both measurement devices, in all the examinee's positions. In the control group, BP did not change appreciably. Piroxicam and ibuprofen markedly blunt the effects of antihypertensive drugs while acetaminophen is almost inert. Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide combination is much more affected by this interaction than amlodipine (ClinicalTrials.gov #NCT00631514)." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 118 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 18 ] ], "text": "This is a heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia. We must know how to recognize the disease and know the criteria." }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "It is an autosomal codominant hereditary disease, with a high penetrance, so it is frequent that some of the parents and siblings of the individual also suffer from it.", "2": "The genetic disorder affects the gene encoding the LDL cholesterol receptor and more than 900 mutations have been described.", "3": "The genetic disorder also affects the synthesis of triglycerides, causing in the advanced stages of the disease, an increase in triglycerides, which is usually higher than 500 mg/dl.", "4": "Untreated males have a near 50% chance of a coronary event before age 60, and women with the disease have a higher prevalence of ischemic heart disease than the general female population.", "5": "Statins are effective in the treatment of the heterozygous form of the disease, but often need to be combined with cholesterol absorption inhibitors to achieve therapeutic goals and disease control." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0563_11566", "title": "Diagnosis of families with familial hypercholesterolaemia and/or Apo B-100 defect by means of DNA analysis of LDL-receptor gene mutations.", "score": 0.014588610563842763, "content": "One major problem of using hypercholesterolaemia alone as a primary criterion for diagnosing familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is that 15-40% of relatives may be misdiagnosed because plasma lipid levels in FH heterozygotes overlap with those in the general population. General Hospital/University of Vienna, Department of Pediatrics, Outpatient lipid clinic. As a part of the MED-PED (make early diagnosis-prevent early death) project we are currently investigating children, adolescents and their relatives who are suspected to be affected with FH in our out-patient clinic for metabolic diseases using MED-PED inclusion criteria and confirming the diagnosis by means of DNA analysis. 263 patients with premature atherosclerosis and/or hypercholesterolaemia: 116 children (mean age 11.6 +/- 4.1 years; 57 girls and 59 boys) and 147 adults (64 women, mean age 41.5 +/- 13.7 years; 83 men, mean age 42.8 +/- 10.8 years). 119 patients with mutations have been detected; 56 children with either low density lipoprotein receptor (LDLR) and/or ApoB mutations (27 girls and 29 boys; mean total cholesterol (TC) 275 +/- 71 mg/dl, triglycerides (TG) 101 +/- 57 mg/dl, high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) 49 +/- 12 mg/dl, low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) 198 +/- 67 mg/dl) and one boy with a homozygous. LDLR mutation. A further 62 adults with LDLR and/or ApoB mutations were documented; 33 women (mean age 36.9 +/- 11.1 years; mean TC 283 +/- 76 mg/dl, TG 137 +/- 78 mg/dl, HDL-C 55 +/- 17 mg/dl, LDL-C 210 +/- 67 mg/dl) and 29 men (mean age 45.0 +/- 10.6 years; mean TC 301 +/- 87 mg/dl, TG 163 +/- 112 mg/dl, HDL-C 42 +/- 12 mg/dl, LDL-C 233 +/- 83 mg/dl). In 32 of these subjects (11 children (21%), 21 adults (42%)), serum lipid levels were lower than the diagnostic MED-PED limits adopted, so that they might have been misclassified without an additional DNA analysis. In our study, diagnosis of FH and related disorders (ApoB-100 defect) by means of conventional laboratory methods missed at least 21% in children and 42% in adults affected with LDLR and/or ApoB gene mutations. Genetic FH diagnosis provides a tool for specific diagnosis of mutation carrier status." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0739_21017", "title": "Low-density lipoprotein apheresis: an evidence-based analysis.", "score": 0.01411368015414258, "content": "To assess the effectiveness and safety of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) apheresis performed with the heparin-induced extracorporeal LDL precipitation (HELP) system for the treatment of patients with refractory homozygous (HMZ) and heterozygous (HTZ) familial hypercholesterolemia (FH). BACKGROUND ON FAMILIAL HYPERCHOLESTEROLEMIA: Familial hypercholesterolemia is a genetic autosomal dominant disorder that is caused by several mutations in the LDL-receptor gene. The reduced number or absence of functional LDL receptors results in impaired hepatic clearance of circulating low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) particles, which results in extremely high levels of LDL-C in the bloodstream. Familial hypercholesterolemia is characterized by excess LDL-C deposits in tendons and arterial walls, early onset of atherosclerotic disease, and premature cardiac death. Familial hypercholesterolemia occurs in both HTZ and HMZ forms. Heterozygous FH is one of the most common monogenic metabolic disorders in the general population, occurring in approximately 1 in 500 individuals. Nevertheless, HTZ FH is largely undiagnosed and an accurate diagnosis occurs in only about 15% of affected patients in Canada. Thus, it is estimated that there are approximately 3,800 diagnosed and 21,680 undiagnosed cases of HTZ FH in Ontario. In HTZ FH patients, half of the LDL receptors do not work properly or are absent, resulting in plasma LDL-C levels 2- to 3-fold higher than normal (range 7-15mmol/L or 300-500mg/dL). Most HTZ FH patients are not diagnosed until middle age when either they or one of their siblings present with symptomatic coronary artery disease (CAD). Without lipid-lowering treatment, 50% of males die before the age of 50 and 25% of females die before the age of 60, from myocardial infarction or sudden death. In contrast to the HTZ form, HMZ FH is rare (occurring in 1 case per million persons) and more severe, with a 6- to 8-fold elevation in plasma LDL-C levels (range 15-25mmol/L or 500-1000mg/dL). Homozygous FH patients are typically diagnosed in infancy, usually due to the presence of cholesterol deposits in the skin and tendons. The main complication of HMZ FH is supravalvular aortic stenosis, which is caused by cholesterol deposits on the aortic valve and in the ascending aorta. The average life expectancy of affected individuals is 23 to 25 years. In Ontario, it is estimated that there are 13 to 15 cases of HMZ FH. An Ontario clinical expert confirmed that 9 HMZ FH patients have been identified to date. There are 2 accepted clinical diagnostic criterion for the diagnosis of FH: the Simon Broome FH Register criteria from the United Kingdom and the Dutch Lipid Network criteria from the Netherlands. The criterion supplement cholesterol levels with clinical history, physical signs and family history. DNA-based-mutation-screening methods permit a definitive diagnosis of HTZ FH to be made. However, given that there are over 1000 identified mutations in the LDL receptor gene and that the detection rates of current techniques are low, genetic testing becomes problematic in countries with high genetic heterogeneity, such as Canada. The primary aim of treatment in both HTZ and HMZ FH is to reduce plasma LDL-C levels in order to reduce the risk of developing atherosclerosis and CAD. The first line of treatment is dietary intervention, however it alone is rarely sufficient for the treatment of FH patients. Patients are frequently treated with lipid-lowering drugs such as resins, fibrates, niacin, statins and cholesterol absorption-inhibiting drugs (ezetimibe). Most HTZ FH patients require a combination of drugs to achieve or approach target cholesterol levels. A small number of HTZ FH patients are refractory to treatment or intolerant to lipid-lowering medication. According to clinical experts, the prevalence of refractory HTZ FH in Ontario is between 1 to 5%. Using the mean of 3%, it is estimated that there are approximately 765 refractory HTZ FH patients in Ontario, of which 115 are diagnosed and 650 are undiagnosed. Drug therapy is less effective in HMZ FH patients since the effects of the majority of cholesterol-lowering drugs are mediated by the upregulation of LDL receptors, which are often absent or function poorly in HMZ FH patients. Some HMZ FH patients may still benefit from drug therapy, however this rarely reduces LDL-C levels to targeted levels. EXISTING TECHNOLOGY: PLASMA EXCHANGE An option currently available in Ontario for FH patients who do not respond to standard diet and drug therapy is plasma exchange (PE). Patients are treated with this lifelong therapy on a weekly or biweekly basis with concomitant drug therapy. Plasma exchange is nonspecific and eliminates virtually all plasma proteins such as albumin, immunoglobulins, coagulation factors, fibrinolytic factors and HDL-C, in addition to acutely lowering LDL-C by about 50%. Blood is removed from the patient, plasma is isolated, discarded and replaced with a substitution fluid. The substitution fluid and the remaining cellular components of the blood are then returned to the patient. The major limitation of PE is its nonspecificity. The removal of HDL-C prevents successful vascular remodeling of the areas stenosed by atherosclerosis. In addition, there is an increased susceptibility to infections, and costs are incurred by the need for replacement fluid. Adverse events can be expected to occur in 12% of procedures. OTHER ALTERNATIVES: Surgical alternatives for FH patients include portocaval shunt, ileal bypass and liver transplantation. However, these are risky procedures and are associated with a high morbidity rate. Results with gene therapy are not convincing to date. LDL APHERESIS An alternative to PE is LDL apheresis. Unlike PE, LDL apheresis is a selective treatment that removes LDL-C and other atherogenic lipoproteins from the blood while minimally impacting other plasma components such as HDL-C, total serum protein, albumin and immunoglobulins. As with PE, FH patients require lifelong therapy with LDL apheresis on a weekly/biweekly basis with concomitant drug therapy. HEPARIN-INDUCED EXTRACORPOREAL LDL PRECIPITATION: Heparin-induced extracorporeal LDL precipitation (HELP) is one of the most widely used methods of LDL apheresis. It is a continuous closed-loop system that processes blood extracorporeally. It operates on the principle that at a low pH, LDL and lipoprotein (a) [Lp(a)] bind to heparin and fibrinogen to form a precipitate which is then removed by filtration. In general, the total duration of treatment is approximately 2 to 3 hours. Results from early trials indicate that LDL-C concentration is reduced by 65% to 70% immediately following treatment in both HMZ and HTZ FH and then rapidly begins to rise. Typically patients with HTZ FH are treated every 2 weeks while patients with HMZ FH require weekly therapy. Heparin-induced extracorporeal LDL precipitation also produces small transient decreases in HDL-C, however levels generally return to baseline within 2 days. After several months of therapy, long-term reductions in LDL-C and increases in HDL-C have been reported. In addition to having an impact on plasma cholesterol concentrations, HELP lowers plasma fibrinogen, a risk factor for atherosclerosis, and reduces concentrations of cellular adhesion molecules, which play a role in early atherogenesis. In comparison with PE, HELP LDL apheresis does not have major effects on essential plasma proteins and does not require replacement fluid, thus decreasing susceptibility to infections. One study noted that adverse events were documented in 2.9% of LDL apheresis treatments using the HELP system compared with 12% using PE. As per the manufacturer, patients must weigh at least 30kgs to be eligible for treatment with HELP. The H.E.L.P.® System (B.Braun Medizintechnologie GmbH, Germany) has been licensed by Health Canada since December 2000 as a Class 3 medical device (Licence # 26023) for performing LDL apheresis to acutely remove LDL from the plasma of 3 high-risk patient populations for whom diet has been ineffective and maximum drug therapy has either been ineffective or not tolerated. The 3 patient groups are as follows: Functional hypercholesterolemic homozygotes with LDL-C &gt;500 mg/dL (&gt;13mmol/L);Functional hypercholesterolemic heterozygotes with LDL-C &gt;300 mg/dL (&gt;7.8mmol/L);Functional hypercholesterolemic heterozygotes with LDL-C &gt;200 mg/dL (&gt;5.2mmol/L) and documented CADNo other LDL apheresis system is currently licensed in Canada. The Medical Advisory Secretariat systematically reviewed the literature to assess the effectiveness and safety of LDL apheresis performed with the HELP system for the treatment of patients with refractory HMZ and HTZ FH. A standard search methodology was used to retrieve international health technology assessments and English-language journal articles from selected databases. The GRADE approach was used to systematically and explicitly make judgments about the quality of evidence and strength of recommendations. The search identified 398 articles published from January 1, 1998 to May 30, 2007. Eight studies met the inclusion criteria. Five case series, 2 case series nested within comparative studies, and one retrospective review, were included in the analysis. A health technology assessment conducted by the Alberta Heritage Foundation for Medical Research, and a review by the United States Food and Drug Administration were also included. Large heterogeneity among the studies was observed. Studies varied in inclusion criteria, baseline patient characteristics and methodology. Overall, the mean acute relative decrease in LDL-C with HELP LDL apheresis ranged from 53 to 77%. The mean acute relative reductions ranged as follows: total cholesterol (TC) 47 to 64%, HDL-C +0. (ABSTRACT TRUNCATED)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0097_5335", "title": "Clinical features of familial hypercholesterolemia.", "score": 0.013473116921392785, "content": "The clinical consequences of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) result from its metabolic peculiarities that persist from very early childhood, leading to the accumulation of cholesterol in the form of xanthomas in skin and tendons and atheromatous lesions in the arterial wall, in particular, in the aorta and the stem of coronary arteries. Plasma cholesterol concentration markedly increases during the suckling period, soon attaining a level near 1000 mg/dl in homozygotes and 200 to 400 mg/dl in heterozygotes. By age 50, about 80% of FH males suffer from ischemic heart diseases, while only 20% to 30% of the females are moderately affected by coronary atherosclerosis. In addition to the low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol level, higher triglyceride and lower high density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels correlate with an increased risk of ischemic heart diseases. A very important problem is that most of these patients do not feel themselves to be seriously ill until a severe myocardial infarction (often leading to sudden death) takes place during the third to fifth decades of life. Among the different types of receptor mutations, the incidence of ischemic heart diseases was much higher and more extensive among patients with the receptor-negative type than among those with the receptor-defective type with a residual receptor activity." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en055_10321", "title": "LDL receptor", "score": 0.012779941577409932, "content": "Michael S. Brown and Joseph L. Goldstein were awarded the 1985 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for their identification of LDL-R and its relation to cholesterol metabolism and familial hypercholesterolemia. Disruption of LDL-R can lead to higher LDL-cholesterol as well as increasing the risk of related diseases. Individuals with disruptive mutations (defined as nonsense, splice site, or indel frameshift in LDLR have an average LDL-cholesterol of 279 mg dl−1, vs. 135 mg dl−1 for individuals with neither disruptive nor deleterious mutations. Disruptive mutations were 13-times more common in individuals with early-onset myocardial infarction or coronary artery disease than in individuals without either disease. Structure Gene" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_28188", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010818820281735883, "content": "LDL receptor allele. The population frequency of heterozy gous FH due to LDL receptor mutations was originally estimated to be 1 in 500 individuals, but recent data suggest it may be 2441 as high as approximately 1 in 250 individuals, making it one of the most common single-gene disorders in humans. FH has a higher prevalence in certain founder populations, such as South African Afrikaners, Christian Lebanese, and French Canadians. Heterozygous FH is characterized by elevated plasma levels of LDL-C (usually 200– 400 mg/dL) and normal levels of TGs. Patients with heterozygous FH have hypercholesterolemia from birth, and disease recognition is usually based on detection of hypercholesterolemia on routine screening, the appearance of tendon xanthomas, or the development of symptomatic cardiovascular disease. Inheritance is dominant, meaning that the condition was inherited from one parent and ~50% of the patient’s siblings can be expected to have hypercholesterolemia. The family history" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en236_41192", "title": "Japanese Americans", "score": 0.010754504504504506, "content": "Studies have shown that the CETP is linked to increased HDL levels. There is a very common pattern of two different cholesterol ester transfer protein gene mutations (D442G, 5.1%; intron 14G:A, 0.5%) found in about 3,469 Japanese American men. This was based on a program called the Honolulu Heart Program. The mutations correlated with decreased CETP levels (-35%) and increased HDL cholesterol levels (+10% for D442G). The relative risk of CHD was 1.43 in men with mutations (P<0.05), and after research found for CHD risk factors, the relative risk went up to 1.55 (P=0.02); after further adjustments for HDL levels, the relative risk went up again to 1.68 (P=0.008). Genetic CETP deficiency is an independent risk factor for coronary heart disease, which is due mainly to increased CHD risks in Japanese American men with the D442G mutation and lipoprotein cholesterol levels between 41 and 60 mg/dl. With research and investigations, the possibility of finding \"bad genes\" denounces the" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en104_52630", "title": "Hypobetalipoproteinemia", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Hypobetalipoproteinemia is a disorder consisting of low levels of LDL cholesterol or apolipoprotein B, below the 5th percentile. The patient can have hypobetalipoproteinemia and simultaneously have high levels of HDL cholesterol. Notably, in people who do not have the genetic disorder hypobetalipoproteinemia, a very low cholesterol level (less than 100mg/dl) may be a marker for poor nutrition, wasting disease, cancer, hyperthyroidism, and liver disease. In 1997 a study showed that Japanese Centenarians had ten fold increase of hypobetalipoproteinemia compared with controls. Causes One form is thought to be caused by mutated apolipoprotein B. Another form is associated with microsomal triglyceride transfer protein which causes abetalipoproteinemia. A third form, chylomicron retention disease (CRD), is associated with SARA2. Diagnosis Typically in hypobetalipoproteinemia, plasma cholesterol levels will be around 80–120 mg/dL, LDL cholesterol will be around 50–80 mg/dL." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0318_4458", "title": "[Incidence of familial defective apolipoprotein B-100 in cases of patients diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolemia].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH) and Familial Defective Apolipoprotein B-100 (FDB) are monogenic, autosome, dominantly inherited diseases appearing as type II/a primary hypercholesterolemia. The frequency of the heterozygositic forms is 1:700-1:500 in European population. Both forms of hypercholesterolemia causes early onset coronary heart diseases (CHD). According to the recommendations of the international MED-PED program (Make Early Diagnoses--Prevent Early Death), we found 73 FH cases and their 377 first relatives (parents, siblings, children) were also assessed. 156 patients were diagnosed clinically FH (131 alive and 25 deceased), and 31.8% of the males and 32.4% of females suffered from early onset CHD. One family with FH consists of 5.46 members on the average and there are 2.39 FH patients in one family. In our FH cohort four patients with FDB (R3500Q mutation) were diagnosed with allelspecific PCR, and the mutation was detectable also in 9 cases out of 11 living family members. The plasma total cholesterol level of the FDB patients--especially at younger age--was very close to the normal values, which is in contrast to the findings in FH patients. Nevertheless, FDB can be one of the independent causes of the early onset CHD. Therefore, in families with high frequency of cardiovascular diseases the R3500Q mutation has to be considered." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en388_15494", "title": "Epidemiology of metabolic syndrome", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Of the components of the cardiometabolic syndrome, only the prevalence of dyslipidemia has declined in the United States. Between 1999 and 2010, the percentage of U.S. adults with high total cholesterol declined from approximately 18% to 13%. However, according to the American Heart Association, nearly half of U.S. adults today (44%) are still at increased risk for atherosclerotic disease because their levels of total cholesterol are elevated (200 mg/dL or higher). Of these 98.8 million individuals with elevated cholesterol, 33.6 million have high cholesterol (240 mg/dL or above), and 71.3 million have low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol levels of 130 mg/dL or higher. In addition, approximately 19% of U.S. adults have low levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, and one-third have elevated triglycerides. Finally, dyslipidemia affects the vast majority (up to 97%) of individuals with diabetes and contributes to their elevated risk for cardiovascular disease." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_93360", "title": "Cholesterol", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "More current testing methods determine LDL (\"bad\") and HDL (\"good\") cholesterol separately, allowing cholesterol analysis to be more nuanced. The desirable LDL level is considered to be less than 100 mg/dL (2.6 mmol/L), although a newer upper limit of 70 mg/dL (1.8 mmol/L) can be considered in higher-risk individuals based on some of the above-mentioned trials. A ratio of total cholesterol to HDL—another useful measure—of far less than 5:1 is thought to be healthier. Total cholesterol is defined as the sum of HDL, LDL, and VLDL. Usually, only the total, HDL, and triglycerides are measured. For cost reasons, the VLDL is usually estimated as one-fifth of the triglycerides and the LDL is estimated using the Friedewald formula (or a variant): estimated LDL = [total cholesterol] − [total HDL] − [estimated VLDL]. Direct LDL measures are used when triglycerides exceed 400 mg/dL. The estimated VLDL and LDL have more error when triglycerides are above 400 mg/dL." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0273_16826", "title": "Documented need for more effective diagnosis and treatment of familial hypercholesterolemia according to data from 502 heterozygotes in Utah.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A project to help Utah residents with heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) identified affected individuals by collecting detailed questionnaires from: (1) very high-risk persons in computer files of screening data (very high cholesterol levels, very early coronary artery disease, and strong positive family history); (2) confirmed FH index cases from a university lipid clinic; and (3) relatives of any confirmed FH cases. Questionnaires were received from 2,143 persons identifying 101 living index cases and 502 relatives meeting the criteria for the diagnosis of FH. Finding new FH heterozygotes was about one fourth as expensive by tracing relatives of confirmed FH cases by evaluating very high-risk persons. Of those meeting criteria for the diagnosis of heterozygous FH, only 31% reported being told by their physicians that they had FH, only 42% indicated that they were taking a cholesterol-lowering prescription medication, and only 23% had reasonably controlled cholesterol levels (below the 90th percentile). However, the data also suggest that good control is achievable in motivated patients. Among 106 FH heterozygotes who were early responders to a second follow-up questionnaire, 79% were taking prescription medications, of whom 49% had achieved cholesterol levels below the 90th percentile, and 17% even achieved cholesterol levels below the 50th percentile. We conclude that most patients with heterozygous FH are not diagnosed and not adequately treated. We demonstrated how many of these persons needing help could be identified efficiently by tracing relatives of known index cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0804_1834", "title": "Familial hypercholesterolemia: developments in diagnosis and treatment.", "score": 0.009678060852464813, "content": "Familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) is a congenital disorder of lipid metabolism characterized by a marked elevation of the plasma concentration of LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol beginning in childhood and by the early onset of coronary heart disease. It is among the commonest genetic disorders, with an estimated prevalence in Germany of at least 1 per 500 persons. Review of pertinent literature retrieved by a selective search. FH is underdiagnosed and undertreated in Germany. It is clinically diagnosed on the basis of an elevated LDL cholesterol concentration (&gt;190 mg/dL [4.9 mmol/L]), a family history of hypercholesterolemia, and early coronary heart disease, or the demonstration of xanthomas. The gold standard of diagnosis is the identification of the underlying genetic defect, which is possible in 80% of cases and enables the identification of affected relatives of the index patient. The recommended goals of treatment, based on the results of observational studies, are to lower the LDL cholesterol concentration by at least 50% or to less than 100 mg/dL (2.6 mmol/L) (for children: &lt;135 mg/dL [3.5 mmol/L]). The target value is lower for patients with clinically overt atherosclerosis (&lt;70 mg/dL [1.8 mmol/L]). Statins, combined with a health-promoting lifestyle, are the treatment of choice. Lipoprotein apheresis is used in very severe cases; its therapeutic effects on clinical endpoints and its side effect profile have not yet been documented in randomized controlled trials. Familial hypercholesterolemia is a common disease that can be diagnosed simply and reliably on clinical grounds and by molecular genetic testing. Timely diagnosis and appropriate treatment can lower the risk of atherosclerosis in heterozygous patients to that of the general population." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0261_5973", "title": "[Prevention of coronary heart disease in familial hypercholesterolemia].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Familial forms of isolated hypercholesterolemia are inherited autosomal-dominantly and are caused by defects of the low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor protein or its ligand, the apolipoprotein B-100, the exclusive apolipoprotein moiety of the LDL particles. Mutations at the LDL receptor gene locus (more than 150 different mutations have been described up to now) lead to familial hypercholesterolemia (FH); the only mutation at the apolipoprotein B-100 gene locus described in detail so far leads to the so-called familial defective apolipoprotein B-100 (FDB). Both lipid disorders are characterized by an increased risk for premature atherosclerosis involving primarily the coronary arteries. An increased risk for coronary heart disease can be expressed statistically by the excess mortality. In particular, individuals between the age of 20 and 59 are affected by an excess mortality; coronary deaths are approximately 100 times more frequent in patients between 20 and 39 with familial forms of hypercholesterolemia than within the normal population. On the other hand, in patients with myocardial infarctions before the age of 60, the diagnosis of FH is approximately 20 to 30 times more frequent than within the normal population. A regression of cardiovascular lesions subsequent to an intensive lipid-lowering therapy has clearly been demonstrated in patients with familial forms of hypercholesterolemia. Because of the serious prognosis of untreated familial forms of isolated hypercholesterolemia with respect to longevity, it is important to identify patients and their relatives with FH and FDB as early as possible and to treat them, besides a lipid-lowering diet, intensively with lipid-lowering drugs." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_93359", "title": "Cholesterol", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The 1987 report of National Cholesterol Education Program, Adult Treatment Panels suggests the total blood cholesterol level should be: < 200 mg/dL normal blood cholesterol, 200–239 mg/dL borderline-high, > 240 mg/dL high cholesterol. The American Heart Association provides a similar set of guidelines for total (fasting) blood cholesterol levels and risk for heart disease: Statins are effective in lowering LDL cholesterol and widely used for primary prevention in people at high risk of cardiovascular disease, as well as in secondary prevention for those who have developed cardiovascular disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0851_12534", "title": "[Early diagnosis of familial hypercholesterolemia in Czech Republic in pursuance of MedPed Project].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Recent studies have revealed the prevalence of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) is approximately twice higher than previously estimated and, thus, the disease affects one in 250 persons from the general population. Therefore FH remains the most frequent inherited metabolic disorder. Due to the genetic defect LDL-cholesterol accumulates both in the plasma and tissues leading to premature and accelerated atherosclerosis. Untreated patients with FH might suffer from myocardial infarction in the third or fourth decade, one third of these events being fatal. The disease is under-diagnosed and undertreated worldwide. In the Czech Republic the MedPed project focused on early diagnosis and initiation of proper treatment of FH aiming at lowering of the above mentioned risks was initiated in 1998. A crucial part of the project is so called cascade screening among the relatives of identified FH probands. There are 6,350 registered FH subjects in the nationwide registry, which represents 16% of the expected number of FH patients in the Czech Republic. This result of screening efforts ranks among the top countries in the world, however, also in spite of the recent expansion of FH treatment options early detection and initiation of treatment of FH remains in the centre of our attention." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_35811", "title": "Omega-3 fatty acid", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Omega−3 fatty acids reduce blood triglyceride levels but do not significantly change the level of LDL cholesterol or HDL cholesterol in the blood. The American Heart Association position (2011) is that borderline elevated triglycerides, defined as 150–199 mg/dL, can be lowered by 0.5–1.0 grams of EPA and DHA per day; high triglycerides 200–499 mg/dL benefit from 1–2 g/day; and >500 mg/dL be treated under a physician's supervision with 2–4 g/day using a prescription product. In this population omega−3 fatty acid supplementation decreases the risk of heart disease by about 25%." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0904_21995", "title": "Cholesterol Levels in Genetically Determined Familial Hypercholesterolaemia in Russian Karelia.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a rare disease that tends to be diagnosed lately. In Russia, the genetic and phenotypic characteristics of the disease are not well defined. We investigated 102 patients with definite FH. In 52 of these patients (50.9%) genetic analysis was performed, revealing pathogenic mutations of the low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor gene in 22 patients. We report here five mutations of the LDL receptor gene found in the Karelian FH sample for the first time. The detection rate of mutations in definite FH patients was 42.3%. Two groups of patients with a definite diagnosis of FH according to the Dutch Lipid Clinic Network criteria were compared: the first group had putatively functionally important LDL receptor gene mutations, while in the second group LDL receptor gene mutations were excluded by single-strand conformation polymorphism analysis. Total and LDL cholesterol levels were higher in the group with LDL receptor mutations compared to the mutation-free population. The frequency of mutations in patients with LDL cholesterol &gt; 6.5 mmol/L was more than 3 times higher than that in patients with LDL &lt; 6.5 mmol/L. Total and LDL cholesterol levels and the frequency of coronary heart disease and myocardial infarction were higher in the group with definite FH compared to groups with probable and possible FH. Cholesterol figures in FH patients of different age and sex from the Karelian population were comparable." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en120_24333", "title": "Familial hypercholesterolemia", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Lipid measurements Cholesterol levels may be determined as part of health screening for health insurance or occupational health, when the external physical signs such as xanthelasma, xanthoma, arcus are noticed, symptoms of cardiovascular disease develop, or a family member has been found to have FH. A pattern compatible with hyperlipoproteinemia type IIa on the Fredrickson classification is typically found: raised level of total cholesterol, markedly raised level of low-density lipoprotein (LDL), normal level of high-density lipoprotein (HDL), and normal level of triglycerides. Total cholesterol levels of 350–550 mg/dL are typical of heterozygous FH while total cholesterol levels of 650–1000 mg/dL are typical of homozygous FH. The LDL is typically above the 75th percentile, that is, 75% of the healthy population would have a lower LDL level. Cholesterol levels can be drastically higher in people with FH who are also obese." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0765_10907", "title": "[Familial hypercholesterolemia - do we think enough about this severe disease?].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Familial hypercholesterolemia is the most common genetic metabolic disorder and is associated with significant morbidity and mortality from cardiovascular disease, in particular coronary heart disease (CHD). Gene mutations for LDL receptor, APOB or PCSK9 are the main causes of the disease. The incidence of homozygous form of disease is 1:1000000 and ofheterozygous 1:500. Some of the patients have clinical signs like xanthomas, xanthelasmas and corneal arcus. More predictive for the diagnosis are elevated serum LDL cholesterol values and positive family history of early CHD. Identification of the causative mutation provides definitive diagnosis. Diet, statins, combined therapy (statins and ezetimibe) are the first line of treatment, mostly in high doses. LDL apheresis is the procedure of mechanical removal of LDL particles from plasma and has to be performed in patients with homozygous or severe heterozygous form of the disease together with drug treatment. There is a need to increase the awareness of this disease in Croatia but also worldwide with one main goal: to early diagnose and prevent cardiovascular morbidity and mortality." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en009_170527", "title": "Statin", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Secondary prevention Statins are effective in decreasing mortality in people with pre-existing cardiovascular disease. Pre-existing disease can have many manifestations. Defining illnesses include a prior heart attack, stroke, stable or unstable angina, aortic aneurysm, or other arterial ischemic disease, in the presence of atherosclerosis. They are also advocated for use in people at high risk of developing coronary heart disease. On average, statins can lower LDL cholesterol by 1.8 mmol/L (70 mg/dL), which translates into an estimated 60% decrease in the number of cardiac events (heart attack, sudden cardiac death) and a 17% reduced risk of stroke after long-term treatment. A greater benefit is observed with high-intensity statin therapy. They have less effect than the fibrates or niacin in reducing triglycerides and raising HDL-cholesterol (\"good cholesterol\")." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0097_6682", "title": "Development of coronary heart disease in familial hypercholesterolemia.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "We studied the development of coronary artery disease in 10 homozygous and 692 heterozygous patients with familial hypercholesterolemia. Seventy-five (22%) male heterozygotes and 35 (10%) female heterozygotes were affected by myocardial infarction, which was first noted in men in the 3rd decade of life and in women in the 4th decade of life. Thirty-eight (70%) out of the deceased 54 heterozygous patients died of coronary heart disease. The mean age at death was significantly less in male heterozygotes (54 years) than in female heterozygotes (69 years). Five homozygous and 105 male and 56 female heterozygous patients received coronary angiographic evaluation. The regression equations between age (X) and coronary stenosis index (Y) obtained by assigning score (0 to 5) to each of 15 coronary artery segments were Y = 1.57X - 20.43 (r = 0.956, p less than 0.05) in the homozygotes, Y = 0.52X - 9.11 (r = 0.438, p less than 0.001) in the male heterozygotes, and Y = 0.47X - 12.54 (r = 0.343, p less than 0.01) in the female heterozygotes. From these data, we can assume that coronary artery stenosis detectable by angiography will occur after 17 and 25 years of age in male and female heterozygotes, respectively, and the treatment of heterozygotes with lipid-lowering drugs can be delayed until late adolescence." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en036_12413", "title": "Antisense RNA", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Another example of using an asRNA as a therapeutic agent is mipomersen, which was approved by FDA in 2013. Mipomersen was developed to manage the level of low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL) in patients with homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia (HoFH), which is a rare autosomal dominant genetic condition. Because of the high level of total cholesterol (650–1000 mg/dL) and LDL receptor (above 600 mg/dL) in HoFH, patients with HoFH has a high risk for coronary heart disease. Because the protein apo-B-100 has been found to be required to produce very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) and LDL, mipomersen complements with the mRNA of apo-B-100 and target it for RNAse H dependent degradation. Ultimately, mipomersen is able to reduce the level of LDL." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0326_2702", "title": "Did grandma give you heart disease? The new battle against coronary artery disease.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Atherosclerosis/coronary artery disease (CAD) is largely a result of genetically linked dyslipidemias that can often be identified in clinical practice. Expression of these genetic traits is highly individual and can be affected by environmental factors such as diet and exercise. By understanding the heterogeneity of CAD, it becomes clear that all patients cannot be optimally managed with the same therapeutic regimen. Whereas elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is strongly correlated with CAD risk, reduction of LDL cholesterol alone is not an adequate strategy in many cases. Patients with the small, dense LDL of the atherogenic lipoprotein profile (pattern B) experience a 3-fold increased risk of CAD, and pattern B is also correlated with the development of type 2 diabetes. Likewise, elevated lipoprotein(a) increases atherosclerotic risk, particularly in the presence of other risk factors, and is predictive of CAD risk in both women and men. Recent data show that the routine lipid profile--total cholesterol, triglycerides, LDL cholesterol, and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol--does not detect the most common inherited dyslipidemias. Newer, more sophisticated tests, such as gradient gel electrophoresis, can detect disease-relevant lipidemic details, e.g., LDL subclass pattern, LDL particle diameter, and LDL subregions. Although these testing procedures are more expensive, their cost must be weighed against the potential lifelong cost of sometimes expensive drug treatment that may be avoided based on the results of such tests. Thus, by attending to the implications of family history, the interactions of genetic, metabolic, and environmental factors, and utilizing more targeted testing procedures, physicians can match the patient's disorder with specifically effective therapy while maintaining a cost-effective approach to disease management." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en133_43764", "title": "Hypolipoproteinemia", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Hypolipoproteinemia, hypolipidemia, or hypolipidaemia (British English) is a form of dyslipidemia that is defined by abnormally lowered levels of any or all lipids and/or lipoproteins in the blood. It occurs through genetic disease (namely, hypoalphalipoproteinemia and hypobetalipoproteinemia), malnutrition, malabsorption, wasting disease, cancer, hyperthyroidism, and liver disease. Causes Causes of hypolipidemia include: Hypobetalipoproteinemia (low levels of LDL cholesterol or apolipoprotein B) Malnutrition Malabsorption Wasting disease Certain cancers Hyperthyroidism (an overactive thyroid) Liver disease Diagnosis It can be diagnosed via blood study that identifies fat particles. The patient must fast overnight to prevent interference from fat in the blood due to food intake. The criteria for this (without the involvement of cholesterol-lowering drugs) are total cholesterol levels below 120 mg/dL and LDL cholesterol levels under 50 mg/dL." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0494_17104", "title": "[A family-based strategy for diagnosing familial hypercholesterolemia].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Patients with familial hypercholesterolaemia have increased risk of developing coronary heart disease. The most cost-effective way of diagnosing patients with familial hypercholesterolaemia is to perform genetic testing of close relatives of already diagnosed patients. Probands with familial hypercholesterolaemia in whom the underlying mutation in the low-density lipoprotein receptor gene has been identified were informed that close relatives should also be tested. Blood samples were taken for molecular genetic testing from 851 first-degree relatives of patients with familial hypercholesterolaemia; 47.8 % tested positively and 52.2 % negatively. Among those with positive tests, only 41.5 % were on lipid-lowering drugs and only 6.1 % had a value for total serum cholesterol &lt; 5 mmol/l. Six months after testing, 81.9 % were on lipid-lowering drugs, at which time a mean reduction in total serum cholesterol of 21.2 % (p &lt; 0.0001) was observed in patients aged 18 and above who were not on treatment at the time of testing. Molecular genetic testing for familial hypercholesterolaemia in a family-based strategy is a cost-effective way of diagnosing patients with this condition that leads to implementation of effective preventive measures." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en127_10039", "title": "Lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase deficiency", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Fish-eye Disease Lab Findings CBC: no anemia Urinalysis: no protein in the urine Blood Chemistries: normal blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (no signs of kidney failure) Lipid Panel: low high-density lipoprotein (HDL) < 10 mg/dL, elevated very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) and triglycerides, high plasma unesterified cholesterol in HDL particles, and low cholesterol ester in HDL particles but normal levels in low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and VLDL particles Plasma LCAT activity: decreased only in HDL particles but not LDL Genetic Findings in Fish-eye Disease Mutations in the LCAT gene, which is localized in the q21–22 region of chromosome 16, cause fish-eye disease. The mutation in the LCAT gene is homozygous for a Thr123→Ile mutation or Pro10→Leu mutation. New mutations have been identified as homozygosity for an A2205→G nucleotide substitution in exon 4 of the LCAT gene which is predicted to be the cause of an Asp131→Asn substitution." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0280_21196", "title": "Prevalence of familial hypercholesterolemia among young north Karelian patients with coronary heart disease: a study based on diagnosis by polymerase chain reaction.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Two deletions of the low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor gene account for about 90% of the mutations that cause familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) in eastern Finland. The FH-Helsinki mutation deletes exons 16, 17 and a portion of exon 18, while the FH-North Karelia allele is characterized by a deletion of seven nucleotides from exon 6 of the LDL receptor gene. We developed a DNA assay based on the use of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) which simultaneously detects both of these mutations. We have screened 90 young (&lt; 45 years) eastern Finns with symptomatic coronary heart disease (CHD) for the presence of these FH genes. One or the other of the mutations was present in 4 out of 55 survivors of acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and 4 out of 35 patients with angina pectoris (AP), but in none of 50 healthy controls of similar age. These data show a relatively high prevalence of confirmed FH in young CHD patients (AMI and MI combined: 8/90, or 9%), and also demonstrate the feasibility of PCR techniques in diagnosis of FH among populations with enrichment of specific types of LDL receptor gene mutations." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en438_11410", "title": "Suboptimal health", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Another criterion for diagnosis of subhealth was defined as the presence of ≥ 1 of the following abnormalities: body mass index ≥ 25 kg/m2 or waist circumference ≥ 102 cm in men and 88 cm in women; systolic pressure 120-139 mmHg and/or diastolic pressure 80-89 mmHg; serum triglyceride level ≥ 150 mg/dL and/or total cholesterol level ≥ 200 mg/dL and/or high-density lipoprotein cholesterol level < 40 mg/dL in men and 50 mg/dL in women; serum glucose level 110–125 mg/dL; estimated glomerular filtration rate 60-89 ml/min/1.73 m2; levels of liver enzymes in liver function tests between 41-59 U/L, or with fatty liver disease but < 33% of affected hepatocytes; levels of oxidative stress biomarkers beyond the reference range of 95%; or problems with both sleep quality and psychological state. Population Health Status" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0131_10722", "title": "Evidence that men with familial hypercholesterolemia can avoid early coronary death. An analysis of 77 gene carriers in four Utah pedigrees.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "To study the genetic influence on serum cholesterol levels and early coronary heart disease, 1,134 individuals were screened from 18 Utah pedigrees. In most pedigrees, serum cholesterol appeared to be a purely polygenic trait, with 54% heritability. In four pedigrees with dominant familial hypercholesterolemia, male heterozygotes had a mean serum cholesterol level of 352 mg/dL, myocardial infarction at an average age of 42 years, and coronary death at an average age of 45 years. An informative pedigree structure allowed the identification of four ancestral males born before 1880 who carried this lethal gene and survived to ages 62, 68, 72, and 81 years. This suggests that some healthy life-style factors protected these men against the expression of a gene that has led to coronary disease by age 45 years in all of their heterozygous great-grandsons. One heterozygote showed a drop in serum cholesterol level from 426 to 248 mg/dL, with strict adherence to a low-fat diet without drugs. These observations should help encourage physicians to try harder to identify and help such individuals." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en002_137182", "title": "Low-density lipoprotein", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "where H is HDL cholesterol, L is LDL cholesterol, C is total cholesterol, T are triglycerides, and k is 0.20 if the quantities are measured in mg/dl and 0.45 if in mmol/l. There are limitations to this method, most notably that samples must be obtained after a 12 to 14 h fast and that LDL-C cannot be calculated if plasma triglyceride is >4.52 mmol/L (400 mg/dL). Even at triglyceride levels 2.5 to 4.5 mmol/L, this formula is considered inaccurate. If both total cholesterol and triglyceride levels are elevated then a modified formula, with quantities in mg/dl, may be used This formula provides an approximation with fair accuracy for most people, assuming the blood was drawn after fasting for about 14 hours or longer, but does not reveal the actual LDL particle concentration because the percentage of fat molecules within the LDL particles which are cholesterol varies, as much as 8:1 variation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0211_779", "title": "Cardiovascular features of homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia: analysis of 16 patients.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) is characterized by an autosomal codominant inheritance, an abnormality in low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor function, elevated plasma cholesterol levels and premature atherosclerosis. Sixteen patients with homozygous FH were studied to correlate the extent of their atherosclerotic disease with their lipid levels and receptor function. The age range at initial presentation was 3 to 38 years (mean 12), and at the last examination, 6 to 43 years (mean 20). The mean pretreatment total plasma cholesterol concentration for all patients was 729 +/- 58 mg/dl (+/- standard error of the mean), and the mean LDL cholesterol level was 672 +/- 58 mg/dl (normal 60 to 176). High-density lipoprotein cholesterol was 28 +/- 3 mg/dl (normal 30 to 74). In the 7 patients with FH who had symptoms of myocardial ischemia (Group I), the mean pretreatment LDL cholesterol value (817 +/- 62 mg/dl) was higher than that of the 9 asymptomatic patients (Group II) (560 +/- 74 mg/dl). In Group I, 5 of 7 patients had left or right coronary ostial narrowing and 3 had significant left ventricular outflow obstruction. Most coronary arterial narrowing occurred in the right coronary and left anterior descending arteries and the least amount in the left circumflex coronary artery. A femoral bruit was the physical finding that correlated best with the Group I population; brother:sister pairs revealed a milder clinical course for the female. Seven of the 16 patients have survived into their third decade without symptoms. Comparison of these persons with those in whom angina developed reveals a marked heterogeneity in their clinical course, which appears to be associated with receptor negative/defective status." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en045_18112", "title": "Hyperlipidemia", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Total cholesterol The combined quantity of LDL and HDL. A total cholesterol of higher than 240mg/dL is abnormal, but medical intervention is determined by the breakdown of LDL and HDL levels. LDL cholesterol LDL, commonly known as \"bad cholesterol\", is associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease. LDL cholesterol transports cholesterol particles throughout your body, and can build up in the walls of the arteries, making them hard and narrow. LDL cholesterol is produced naturally by the body, but eating a diet high in saturated fat, trans fats, and cholesterol can increase your LDL levels. Elevated LDL levels are associated with diabetes, hypertension, hypertriglyceridemia, and atherosclerosis. In a fasting lipid panel, a LDL greater than 160 mg/dL is abnormal. HDL Cholesterol" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 249 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 33 ] ], "text": "A middle-aged woman with Sjögren's-like symptoms (absence of lacrimation, dry mouth), with hyperbilirubinemia, jaundice and hepatomegaly, makes us think of primary biliary cirrhosis. To diagnose it we will use antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA IgG)." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Anti-mitochondrial antibodies.", "2": "Study of iron metabolism.", "3": "Study of copper metabolism.", "4": "Hepatic MRI.", "5": "Serology of virus B and virus C." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0684_21531", "title": "[Acute hepatitis secondary to hepatitis E. Report of two cases from a population of high socioeconomic level Lima].", "score": 0.016979638822936904, "content": "We describe two cases with acute hepatitis of patients who live at Lima, Peru and have a high socio-economic status. The first case, is a 58 years old female with asthenia, jaundice, coluria and pruritus. The physical exam revealed jaundice and laboratory exams revealed transaminasemia (AST= 1754, ALT= 2680) and hyperbilirubinemia (total bilirubin= 7.98, direct bilirubin=7.03). Furthering serologic tests, revealed a positive test for anti-Hepatitis E virus IgM and IgG. All the symptoms were remitted by the 3rd week of disease. The second case described, is a 64 years old female with asthenia, hyporexia and abdominal pain, without jaundice. The physical exam was normal and initial laboratory tests revealed an AST= 2999 and ALT= 4370. All the symptoms were remitted by the 3rd week of disease. The ELISA testing for anti-Hepatitis E virus IgM, was positive. In both cases other viral hepatitis serologic tests were negative. We make a description of these 2 cases and a literature review, because these both, are the first cases of Hepatitis E described in our city, and for the relevance of this virus in current medical knowledge for patients with non A, non B, non C acute hepatitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1164_2588", "title": "Epstein-Barr Virus Hepatitis Masquerading as Painless Jaundice.", "score": 0.015550707613134195, "content": "Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection typically presents with pharyngeal symptoms and subclinical transaminitis. We present a case of a 27-year-old woman with no known past medical history who presented with painless jaundice and dark-colored urine for three days. Her review of systems was negative for fever, sore throat, nausea, vomiting, pruritus, or rash. Her last sexual contact was six months ago with a male partner, and she only drank alcohol socially. Family and surgical history were non-significant. Physical examination revealed 3+ bilateral conjunctival icterus without abdominal tenderness or organomegaly. She had elevated transaminases: alanine transaminase (ALT) of 1287U/L and aspartate aminotransferase of (AST) 1057U/L but her alkaline phosphatase (ALP) was only slightly above normal at 109U/L (normal range 35-104U/L), with a direct hyperbilirubinemia - total bilirubin 9.5mg/dl, direct bilirubin 6.8mg/dl; the abdominal ultrasound revealed non-dilated bile ducts. Hepatitis A, B, and C serology was negative, but her EBV serology showed an infection. She had incidental thalassemia minor without splenomegaly or asterixis. She was managed conservatively, and her liver enzymes trended down with supportive management. Although EBV is an uncommon cause of painless jaundice, this diagnosis should be considered, especially when other more common causes of jaundice have been ruled out. A high index of suspicion should be maintained to detect EBV hepatitis as it can easily be diagnosed through serological testing." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en330_13535", "title": "Social history of viruses", "score": 0.013443359677669301, "content": "Hepatitis is a disease of the liver that has been recognised since antiquity. Symptoms include jaundice, a yellowing of the skin, eyes and body fluids. There are numerous causes, including viruses – particularly hepatitis A virus, hepatitis B virus and hepatitis C virus. Throughout history epidemics of jaundice have been reported, mainly affecting soldiers at war. This \"campaign jaundice\" was common in the Middle Ages. It occurred among Napoleon's armies and during most of the major conflicts of the 19th and 20th centuries, including the American Civil War, where over 40,000 cases and around 150 deaths were reported. The viruses that cause epidemic jaundice were not discovered until the middle of the 20th century. The names for epidemic jaundice, hepatitis A, and for blood-borne infectious jaundice, hepatitis B, were first used in 1947, following a publication in 1946 giving evidence that the two diseases were distinct. In the 1960s, the first virus that could cause hepatitis was" }, { "id": "article-22784_30", "title": "Hepatitis -- History and Physical -- Viral Hepatitis", "score": 0.012072387072387072, "content": "Phase 2 (prodromal phase) - Patients in this phase usually present with anorexia, nausea, vomiting, malaise, pruritus, urticaria, arthralgias, and fatigue. Many times these patients are misdiagnosed as having gastroenteritis or viral infection. Phase 3 (icteric phase) - Patients in this phase present with dark-colored urine and pale-colored stool. Some patients develop jaundice and right upper quadrant pain with liver enlargement. Phase 4 (convalescent phase) - Patients typically start noticing the resolution of symptoms, and laboratory studies show liver enzymes returning to normal levels. [32]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0268_19414", "title": "[Acute sporadic hepatitis caused by the E virus in Chile. Clinical case].", "score": 0.011907092059763816, "content": "A 53 year old female nurse presenting with malaise, jaundice and pruritus is reported. Physical examination only disclosed jaundice and laboratory values showed an ALT of 445 U/l, ASAT of 179 U/l, alkaline phosphatases of 455 U/l and a total bilirubin of 7.7 mg/dl. Serological markers for hepatitis virus E were positive and negative for hepatitis virus A, B and C, cytomegalovirus and Epstein Barr virus. The patient recovered fully in 10 weeks and is asymptomatic after 5 years of follow up. Health care workers probably have a higher risk for hepatitis E than the general population and this is the first acute sporadic case described in Chile." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_340", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.01123804025074233, "content": "Exam often reveals jaundice, scleral icterus, tender hepatomegaly, possible splenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy. Chronic hepatitis usually gives rise to symptoms indicative of chronic liver disease (jaundice, fatigue, hepatosplenomegaly). At least 80% of those infected with HCV and 10% of those with HBV will develop chronic hepatitis. Dramatically ↑ ALT and AST and ↑ bilirubin/alkaline phosphatase are present in the acute form. In chronic hepatitis, ALT and AST are ↑ for > 6 months with a concurrent ↑ in alkaline phosphatase/bilirubin and hypoalbuminemia. In severe cases, PT will be prolonged, as all clotting factors except factor VIII are produced by the liver. The diagnosis of viral hepatitis is made by hepatitis serology (see Table 2.6-8 and Figure 2.6-11 for a description and timing of serologic markers) and by liver biopsy in chronic or severe cases." }, { "id": "article-23802_24", "title": "Jaundice -- History and Physical -- History", "score": 0.0110376304023845, "content": "Patients usually present with varying symptoms apart from yellowish discoloration of skin along with pruritus, thus providing clues to narrow down the etiology or can also be asymptomatic. A thorough questioning regarding the use of drugs, alcohol or other toxic substances, risk factors for hepatitis (travel, unsafe sexual practices), HIV status, personal or family history of any inherited disorders or hemolytic disorders is vital. Other important points include the duration of jaundice; and the presence of any coexisting signs and symptoms, like a joint ache, rash, myalgia, changes in urine and stool. [22] A history of arthralgias and myalgias before yellowing indicates hepatitis, either due to drugs or viral infections." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0239_3830", "title": "[Results of the biochemical examination of persons who were in contact with infectious hepatitis patients].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The results or biochemical examination (by the micromethod) of persons having close contacts with infectious hepatitis patients and persons living outside the foci of this infection in one of the regions of the Uzbek SSR with unfavorable situation in respect of infectious hepatitis are presented. Among the first group of persons those with hyperenzymemia constituted 2%. Outside the foci of infection such persons constituted 1.5%. The ratio of the frequency of the laboratory diagnosis of the disease to the number of officially registered cases was 0.1:1.0. The greatest percentage of persons with biochemical shifts was established in October-December (2.2-3.4) and among the patients examined after the 20th day of hospitalization (2.6 ), as well as among children under 7 years (3.2) and in the age group 20-29 years (2.6)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0735_17090", "title": "Fatal hepatitis E viral infection in pregnant women in Ghana: a case series.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Viral infections during pregnancy can pose serious threats to mother and fetus from the time of conception to the time of delivery. These lead to congenital defects, spontaneous abortion and even death. The definitive diagnosis and management of pregnancy-related viral infections may be challenging especially in less resourced countries. We present clinical and laboratory responses to the diagnosis and management of three cases of fulminant hepatitis secondary to Hepatitis E viral infection in pregnancy.Case 1 was a 31-year-old Ghanaian woman who presented with a week's history of passing dark urine as well as yellowish discoloration of the eyes. She subsequently developed fulminant hepatitis secondary to Hepatitis E viral infection, spontaneously aborted at 24 weeks of gestation and later died.Case 2 was also a 31-year-old Ghanaian woman who was admitted with a four-day history of jaundice. She had low grade fever, but no history of abdominal pain, haematuria, pale stool or pruritus. She next developed fulminant hepatitis secondary to Hepatitis E viral infection. However, she did not miscarry but died at 28 weeks of gestation.Case 3 was a 17-year-old Ghanaian woman who was referred to the tertiary health facility on account of jaundice and anaemia. She had delivered a live male infant at maturity of 32 weeks but noticed she was jaundiced and had a presentation of active disease 3 days prior to delivery. The baby was icteric at birth and on evaluation, had elevated bilirubin (mixed type) with normal liver enzymes. Hepatitis E virus infection was confirmed in both mother and baby. However, the jaundice and the hepatomegaly resolved in mother and baby after 5 and 12 days respectively. To the best of our knowledge, these are the first documented cases of fatal fulminant hepatic failures resulting from HEV infection in Ghana." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0274_17686", "title": "[Natural history of viral hepatitis A in Chilean adults: clinical and laboratory aspects].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In many countries, Hepatitis is mainly due to virus. A. When improving life condition in a given population, initially there is a tendency to increase the number of cases in adults. We report clinical and laboratory findings in 87 adults with acute viral Hepatitis A in Chile. The rate man/woman was 1.55/1. Mean age: 23.8 years. Clinical forms: icteric classical (77.01%), cholestatic (10.34%), anicteric (8.05%), biphasic (2.30%) and fulminant (2.30%). From 87 patients in consult 1, 64 were controlled at day 15 (consult 2) and 35 one year later (consult 3). Laboratory (means): ALT (UI/L): 856.8, 111.6 and 20.8 in consult 1, 2 and 3 respectively. Correlation between values of ALT and AST (p &lt; 0.0001). Mean total bilirubin (mg%): 6.6, 2.5 and 0.8 respectively. The evolution of Hepatitis A was favorable with a rapid decrease of clinical signs and normalization of laboratory values within the 3 first weeks of disease." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_23389", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009777904793010533, "content": "Benign Recurrent Intrahepatic Cholestasis (BRIC) This rare disorder is characterized by recurrent attacks of pruritus and jaundice. The typical episode begins with mild malaise and elevations in serum aminotransferase levels, followed rapidly by rises in alkaline phosphatase and conjugated bilirubin and onset of jaundice and itching. The first one or two episodes may be misdiagnosed as acute viral hepatitis. The cholestatic episodes, which may begin in childhood or adulthood, can vary in duration from several weeks to months, followed by a complete clinical and biochemical resolution. Intervals between attacks may vary from several months to years. Between episodes, physical examination is normal, as are serum levels of bile acids, bilirubin, transaminases, and alkaline phosphatase. The disorder is familial and has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. BRIC is considered a benign disorder in that it does not lead to cirrhosis or end-stage liver disease. However, the episodes" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0412_18897", "title": "Cases from the Osler Medical Service at Johns Hopkins University.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 37-year-old woman presented with increasing abdominal pain and jaundice. Six weeks before admission, she developed persistent diarrhea and jaundice of the skin. She also bruised easily, and her gums bled. In the subsequent weeks, her appetite decreased, she was fatigued, and she had nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension. She had a history of drinking 1 quart of vodka every day for 20 years, with brief periods of abstinence; she stopped consuming alcohol 11 days before admission because it no longer provided symptomatic relief. Her past medical history was also notable for depression, including a suicide attempt 4 years earlier. She did not smoke, use illicit drugs, or have unprotected sexual intercourse. She had received no blood transfusions and had not traveled recently. She took no medications, except for occasional ibuprofen. On physical examination, she was thin and deeply jaundiced, and she trembled and responded slowly to questions. She was afebrile but tachypneic, and she had orthostatic hypotension. Her HEENT examination was notable for scleral and sublingual icterus, as well as crusted blood on her gums and teeth. The jugular veins were flat. The cardiac examination revealed tachycardia (heart rate, 103 beats per minute) without murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The abdomen was nontender and protuberant, with hypoactive bowel sounds; the spleen was not palpable, and there was no fluid wave or caput medusae. The liver percussed to 18 cm, with a smooth edge extending 10 cm below the costal margin. She had cutaneous telangiectases on her chest and bilateral palmar erythema. There was no peripheral edema. The neurologic examination was notable for asterixis. Her stool was guaiac positive. Laboratory studies revealed the following values: hematocrit, 21.2%; white blood cells, 17,310/mm(3); ammonia, 42 micromol/L; serum creatinine, 3.9 mg/dL; serum urea nitrogen, 70 mg/dL; albumin, 2.1 g/dL; total bilirubin, 26.8 mg/dL; alanine aminotransferase, 14 U/L; aspartate aminotransferase, 77 U/L; alkaline phosphatase, 138 U/L; prothrombin time, 103 seconds (international normalized ratio, 10.6); and urinary sodium, &lt;5 mg/dL. Urinalysis revealed an elevated specific gravity and numerous muddy granular casts. Hepatitis A, B, and C serologies were negative. On abdominal ultrasound examination, there was no ascites, and the liver was echogenic. The portal and hepatic veins were patent, and the hepatic arteries were normal. The spleen measured 14 cm. What is the diagnosis?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en330_13536", "title": "Social history of viruses", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "jaundice, hepatitis B, were first used in 1947, following a publication in 1946 giving evidence that the two diseases were distinct. In the 1960s, the first virus that could cause hepatitis was discovered. This was hepatitis B virus, which was named after the disease it causes. Hepatitis A virus was discovered in 1974." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0960_17714", "title": "Ginseng-Related Drug-Induced Liver Injury.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Ginseng is commonly used as a medicinal herb for memory and concentration and general well-being. Drug-induced liver injury (DILI) is one of the most challenging disorders and trending events in the United States which are related to body building and weight loss supplements. Currently, herbal and dietary supplementation is the second most common cause of DILI. Here, we report on a 45-year-old healthy Chinese woman who presented with dull intermittent left upper quadrant abdomen pain for a month. Upon thorough history taking, she had been taking ginseng tea and supplementation for her menopausal symptoms for almost 3 months. Physical examination was unremarkable except mild tenderness in left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Liver function test showed aspartate transaminase (AST) 717 U/L, alanine transaminase (ALT) 343 U/L, total bilirubin 5 mg/dL, direct bilirubin 3.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 182 U/L, with international normalized ratio (INR) 1.2. Prior liver enzymes (6 months earlier) showed AST 21 U/L, ALT 18 U/L, total bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL, direct bilirubin 0.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 34 U/L, with INR 0.7. Viral serology for acute hepatitis B, C, E, cytomegalovirus, Epstein-Barr virus, and varicella zoster virus was negative. She was immune to hepatitis A. Her antinuclear antibody was positive. Her anti-Smith antibody, anti-smooth muscle antibody, HFE gene mutation, ceruloplasmin, alpha-1 antitrypsin serologies were within normal references. An abdomen sonogram showed fatty infiltration. Liver biopsy showed moderate to severe portal inflammation and marked lobular disarray. Portal and lobular inflammatory infiltrates consisted of a mixture of histiocytes, lymphocytes, plasma cells, eosinophils, and neutrophils with centrilobular necrosis and focal bridging necrosis, and necro-inflammation. After 6 weeks of follow-up, the patient improved physically, and the abdomen pain resolved. Ginseng has been widely used in the Chinese community as medicinal herb for a variety of conditions for decades. However, proper research has never been done regarding its pharmacokinetics, efficacy, and safety issues. In our case report, the idiosyncratic DILI resulted from ingestion of ginseng as herbal supplementation for premenopausal symptoms. Physicians should be aware of and suspect DILI in any patient with acute liver injury, and patients should be reminded that all medications and supplements have a potential to cause DILI." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0972_7733", "title": "Spontaneous Cure of Acute Hepatitis C.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The statistics proved that approximately 25% of the patients with acute HCV present with jaundice, and only 10-20% develop gastrointestinal symptoms. We present the case of a 58 year-old woman, with prior antecedents of arterial hypertension and diabetes mellitus since 25 years old, hypercholesterolemia and hypertriglyceridemia, psoriasis, epilepsy and depressive syndrome. She clinically presents asthenia, anorexia, itching, jaundice and choluria. The objective examination showed an orientated patient, without flapping, hemorrhagic dyscrasia or signs of chronic hepatic disease, with icteric mucosa and skin, abdominal pain, with hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. The laboratory tests have been compatible with acute hepatitis with colestatic pattern: AST/ALT 969/798 UI/ml, FA 796 UI/ml, GGT 2476 UI/ml, BT/BD 7.39/6.10, INR 0.9. The abdominal echography showed: hepatomegaly, regular borders, hepatic steatosis, splenomegaly without ascitic fluid. The viral serological tests revealed protection for hepatitis A ( IgM neg/IgG pos), negative for HVB infection (AgHBs neg, anti-HBc neg), negative for HVE and other viruses (CMV Herpes virus, Epstein Barr, HIV), positive antibodies for HCV and positive RNA VHC (164200 UI/ml), HCV genotype 3a, IL-28B CT, negative autoimmunity. The previous HCV tests were negative, sustaining the recent infection. We assumed an acute hepatitis C. The patient was symptomatically treated with hydroxyzine for the skin itch, with vitamin K for INR correction and she was closely monitored. She had good clinical and laboratorial evolution and she was discharged after one week, maintaining hepatology consultation. She spontaneously cleared HCV infection after 3 months, maintaining negative RNA VHC 6 months after infection. The patient has cured the HCV infection with no need for antiviral treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0252_7722", "title": "[Viral hepatitis C. Personal experience with diagnostic, monitoring and epidemiologic studies].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "In the period from 1991 to 1993, 18 patients with the acute viral hepatitis type C were treated and followed up--13 men and 5 women, the average age of 42 years. The group of 6 patients (4 men and two women) with the \"old\" proven liver cirrhosis, whose etiology was unknown for 20 years, was analyzed. The investigations showed that the acute viral hepatitis type C usually began with the mild subjective disorders. The half of the patients did not have either jaundice or hepatomegaly, only half of them recover, and the first cases of cirrhosis could have been expected almost as early as a year after the beginning of illness. The developed liver cirrhoses remained compensated for years. About 58% of patients got infected parenterally, and the rest of them could have gotten infected in other manner. ELISA test showed great reliability in proving the antibodies against the viral hepatitis type C in the confirming the diagnosis of illness." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0548_5253", "title": "Subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma with hemophagocytic syndrome successfully treated with cyclosporin A.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 17-year-old girl previously in good health presented with a 2-month history of recurrent, high-grade fever; general fatigue; anorexia; a 10-kg weight loss; and multiple, painful, reddish skin lesions on the lower abdomen. Some lesions were ulcerated, with an oily yellowish brown discharge. A systemic review was unremarkable other than bleeding from the nose. Her medical and family histories were unremarkable. On examination, the patient was pale, jaundiced, and febrile (temperature of 39 degrees C). She had enlarged lymph nodes in the axillary and inguinal areas. There was moderate hepatosplenomegaly. Local skin examination revealed multiple erythematous, tender, and firm subcutaneous nodules of variable size (1-2 cm) on the lower abdomen. Some nodules were ulcerated, with oily yellowish brown discharge and overlying ecchymosis (Figures 1 and 2). Mucous membranes were free of lesions. Laboratory investigations showed pancytopenia, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (&gt;80 mm/h), normal renal function tests, abnormal hepatic function tests (alanine aminotransferase 172 U/L, aspartate aminotransferase 229 U/L, alkaline phosphatase 725 U/L, and total bilirubin 100 mmol/L [normal range 0-18 mmol/L]), conjugated bilirubin 45 mmol/L (normal range 0-5 mmol/L), and high triglycerides 855 mg/dL (normal range 20-200 mg/dL). Prolonged prothrombin time, 26 seconds (normal range 13-16 seconds); prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time, 61 seconds (normal range 26-38 seconds); positive disseminated intravascular coagulation studies evidenced by low fibrinogen, 74 mg/dL (normal range 160-350 mg/dL); and positive fibrinogen degradation products were also noted. Throat, midstream urine, and blood culture results were negative. Serologic tests for syphilis, HIV, and hepatitis B and C viruses were negative. Epstein-Barr virus and cytomegalovirus serologic values revealed evidence of past infection. Tuberculin and Coombs tests were negative. The alpha1-antitrypsin level was normal. Antinuclear and anti-smith antibodies, rheumatoid factor, and cryoglobulins were negative. CT showed enlarged lymph nodes in the axillary and inguinal areas, bilateral small pleural effusion, moderate hepatosplenomegaly, severe fatty infiltration of the liver, and thickening of lower abdominal subcutaneous tissue. A liver biopsy showed steatohepatitis. Bone marrow aspirate and trephine were normal. A deep punch biopsy of a nodule from the right lower abdomen revealed lobular panniculitis with atypical lymphocytes and large macrophages with cytophagocytosis (\"beanbag\" cells) (Figures 3 and 4). Immunohistochemistry showed that these atypical cells were positive for CD3, CD8, granzyme B, and perforin, and negative for CD56. T-cell gene rearrangement studies on skin lesions revealed a monoclonal T-cell receptor (gamma-chain) gene rearrangement, supporting the diagnosis of subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma. On presentation, the initial treatment included 6 U of fresh frozen plasma, 2 U of packed red blood cells, and 2 g IV fibrinogen for 3 consecutive days. The patient was started on prednisolone 60 mg orally once daily and cyclosporine A 5 mg/kg/d orally in two divided doses. The fever and other systemic symptoms and skin lesions resolved within 2 weeks after the treatment. The prednisolone dose was tapered gradually, and a maintenance dose of cyclosporine A was continued. The patient's condition remained in remission at 12-month follow-up; there was no evidence of clinical relapse." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0938_9849", "title": "[Hepatitis A in Iceland].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Hepatitis A virus (HAV) epidemics occurred repeatedly in Iceland in the early 20th century, but since then few cases have been reported and no epidemics since 1952. The latest Icelandic studies on HAV from around 1990 showed low incidence of infection and de-- creasing prevalence of antibodies. The objective of this study was to determine the incidence, clinical presentation and origin of HAV, abroad or in Iceland. A retrospective search was undertaken on all patients with positive anti-HAV IgM during the 11 years period of 2006-2016 in the virological database of the National University Hospital of Iceland. Clinical data was collected from medical records on symptoms at diagnosis, blood test results and possible route of transmission. A total of 12 individuals were diagnosed with acute hepatitis A during the period and 6691 HAV total andibody tests and 1984 HAV IgM antibody tests were performed. Nine (75%) had been abroad within 7 weeks from initial symptoms. The most common symptoms were jaundice (83%), fever (67%) and nausea and/or vomiting (58%). 50% were admitted to a hospital. 42% had elevated INR/PT. Everyone sur-vived without complications. Annually, approximately one case of acute hepatitis A was diagnosed in Iceland during the study period but a very high number of antibody tests were performed. The majority of cases occurred among individuals who had recently been abroad. If patients have jaundice, fever and nausea, testing for HAV infection should be undertaken. HAV is not endemic in Iceland." }, { "id": "article-22784_36", "title": "Hepatitis -- History and Physical -- Hepatitis G", "score": 0.009396853146853148, "content": "Patients with hepatitis G infection can have a mild infection without jaundice, but most patients are asymptomatic. There have been few reports of fulminant and chronic hepatitis as well as hepatic fibrosis also, but it is not common. The patient can have an elevation of alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase as well, but most patients infected with the hepatitis G virus have normal liver function tests [24] ." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en035_34634", "title": "Polyarteritis nodosa", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A patient is said to have polyarteritis nodosa if he or she has three of the 10 signs known as the 1990 American College of Rheumatology (ACR) criteria, when a radiographic or pathological diagnosis of vasculitis is made: Weight loss greater than/equal to 4.5 kg Livedo reticularis (a mottled purplish skin discoloration over the extremities or torso) Testicular pain or tenderness (occasionally, a site biopsied for diagnosis) Muscle pain, weakness, or leg tenderness Nerve disease (either single or multiple) Diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg (high blood pressure) Elevated kidney blood tests (BUN greater than 40 mg/dL or creatinine greater than 1.5 mg/dL) Hepatitis B (not C) virus tests positive (for surface antigen or antibody) Arteriogram (angiogram) showing the arteries that are dilated (aneurysms) or constricted by the blood vessel inflammation" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0131_9022", "title": "[Epidemiologico-clinical considerations on a case file of acute hepatitis observed 1980-1983].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Between January 1980 and December 1983, 332 consecutive cases of acute hepatitis were observed in adult patients admitted to the Department of Infectious Disease and Gastroenterology of Siena. Sex and age of the patients, the presence of jaundice, the maximum value of the serum-glutamate-pyruvate-transaminase (SGPT) were considered. Serum specimens were tested for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), antibody against hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) of the IgM class, antibody against hepatitis A virus (anti-HAV) of the IgM class, antibody against cytomegalovirus (CMV) of the IgM class, Paul Bunnel Davidshon reaction. Hepatitis A was diagnosed in 25 cases (7.5%). Hepatitis B in 167 (50.3%). Hepatitis due to CMV in 2 cases (0.6%). And, by exclusion, hepatitis non A, non B in 138 cases (41.6%). Male patients were affected with significantly higher frequency than female (p less than 0.01); the same was seen for young patients (14-30 years) compared to the older ones (31-50 years, and over 50 years) (p less than 0.01 in both). Biochemical investigation showed that hepatitis A and B had a significantly higher, maximum SGPT value than hepatitis non A non B (p less than 0.01 in both). Icteric patients were significantly more frequently observed among hepatitis A and B cases than hepatitis non A non B cases (p less than 0.01 in both)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0583_3067", "title": "Intrahepatic cholestasis occurring with prurigo of pregnancy.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 23-year-old woman presented to our polyclinic complaining of itching, generalized dermatitis, and jaundice. She was in her 31st gestational week and had developed pruritus and the dermatitis since the first month of pregnancy; her jaundice started about a month before presentation. Her history included similar complaints in a previous pregnancy, which resulted in premature birth of a baby with a permanent brain defect. One of her sisters had had jaundice and itching in her 27th gestational week and delivered a healthy baby; a second sister had experienced itching and dermatitis in her second trimester and delivered a healthy baby. Physical examination of the patient showed that her eyes were jaundiced (Figure 1); skin examination revealed generalized erythematous excoriated papules, symmetrically distributed all over her body (Figure 2 Figure 3). Laboratory analyses revealed the following results: leukocyte count, 14.30/mm(3) (3.8-10.3/mm(3)); erythrocyte sedimentation rate, 25 mm/h (&lt;20 mm/h); aspartate aminotransferase, 44 U/L (5-40 U/L); alanine aminotransferase, 63 U/L (5-40 U/L); lactate dehydrogenase, 1158 U/L (220-450 U/L); total bilirubin, 6.88 mg/dL (&lt;1.10 mg/dL); and direct bilirubin, 3.27 mg/dL (&lt;0.35 mg/dL). Urinalysis results were positive for bilirubin and urobilinogen. Positive serologic findings included rubella immunoglobulin G, 93 AU/mL (&lt;15) and cytomegalovirus, 188 AU/mL (&lt;10); negative findings included herpes simplex virus type 2 and hepatitis. Histopathologic examination of material collected from the left breast via punch biopsy showed parakeratosis, acanthosis, and perivascular lymphocyte infiltration in dermal vessels. Treatment with 2 g/d cholestyramine and a topical corticosteroid was effective in the patient, who was diagnosed with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy and prurigo of pregnancy based on the clinical, histopathologic, and laboratory findings. To the authors' knowledge, this is the first such reported case in the literature." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0947_25111", "title": "Pharmacogenomics of drug-induced liver injury (DILI): Molecular biology to clinical applications.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A 21-year old woman was admitted to hospital with a two-week history of painless jaundice, fatigue and anorexia having previously been fit and well. One month prior to presentation, the patient had taken a five-day course of amoxicillin-clavulanic acid for an infected skin cyst. Otherwise, she was only on the oral contraceptive pill and reported minimal alcohol intake. On examination, she was deeply jaundiced, but alert and oriented with no asterixis. She had no stigmata of chronic liver disease, but hepatomegaly extending 3 cm from below the right subcostal margin was evident. Investigations showed: white cell count 13.4 × 10<sup9</sup/L (normal 3.6-9.3), haemoglobin 11.8 g/dl (normal 11-15), platelet count 356 × 10<sup9</sup/L (normal 170-420), sodium 138 mmol/L (normal 134-144), potassium 3.5 mmol/L (normal 3.5-5.0), creatinine 32 µmol/L (normal 40-75), albumin 30 g/L (normal 35-48), alanine aminotransferase 707 IU/L (normal 15-54), alkaline phosphatase 151 IU/L (normal 30-130), bilirubin 384 µmol/L (normal 7-31) and prothrombin time 27.2 s (normal 11.7-14). Screening for hepatitis A, B, C, E, Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus and autoimmune hepatitis was negative. Tests for anti-smooth muscle, antinuclear, and anti-liver-kidney microsomal-1 antibodies were negative; immunoglobulin levels and ceruloplasmin levels were normal. Liver ultrasonography demonstrated a liver of normal contour with no biliary dilatation, a normal spleen size and patent vessels. Liver biopsy revealed severe portal interface hepatitis with lobular inflammation and scant plasma cells. Her clinical condition deteriorated in the following days with prothrombin time and bilirubin rising to 56.6 s and 470 µmol/L, respectively. At follow-up after 11 days, her alanine aminotransferase level was 1,931 IU/L. She developed grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy 14 days after presentation, and was listed for a super-urgent liver transplant. Human leucocyte antigen (HLA) typing was performed as a part of preparatory investigations and showed the patient carried the HLA haplotype HLA-DRB1∗15:02-DQB1∗06:01. Following orthotopic transplantation of a deceased donor graft her explant histology revealed severe ongoing hepatitis with multi-acinar necrosis (Fig. 1A and B). This case raised a number of important questions about the diagnosis of drug-induced liver injury and tools available for clinicians to make the best decisions for patient care: In this Grand Rounds article, we will explore these questions, describing the pathophysiology, diagnostic and prognostic biomarkers, and clinical management of drug-induced liver injury. We will also discuss ongoing areas of uncertainty." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0069_10095", "title": "[Recurrences of viral hepatitis A].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The aim of the study was to examine the frequency, severity, persistence and etiology of relapses occurring during the hepatitis A viral infection. Therefore, a prospective study of 910 patients suffering from hepatitis A (HA) was carried out. The clinical examination and determination of glutamyl pyruvic transaminase (GPT) in the serum every 7-14 days till recovery (usually during 6--8 months) were performed. HAV infection was confirmed by detecting anti-HAV IgM in the blood of all the examined by radioimmunoassay. In 876 (93.3%) patients HA had typical clinical features and a monophasic course. All cases made a rapid clinical recovery and liver function tests improved strikingly between 1 and 4 months after the onset of illness. However, in 34 (3.7%) of 910 patients, after an asymptomatic interval of 4--8 weeks, relapsing hepatitis occurred. Mild clinical symptoms: fatigue, myalgia, nausea, epigastric discomfort accompanied by the elevated levels of GPT in the serum were noticed in 11 patients, while 3 of them redeveloped jaundice. In 23 remaining patients relapses of hepatitis were asymptomatic, except for the reappearance of icterus in six cases. The only way to establish the exacerbation of the disease was through the pathological findings of GPT in the serum, which increased 10--60 times above the upper limit of the normal value. While 25 patients had one relapse, in 9 there were two or more relapses, so that hepatitis had a biphasic or polyphasic course. The second relapse was registered 3--6 weeks after the first one disappeared. Through biochemical tests the average values of the GPT were established: 1566 U/L in the acute stage, 107 U/L during the early stage of convalescence and 1016 U/L during the first relapse of hepatitis. After the first relapse and during remission, in 9 patients the average values of GPT in the serum were 84 U/L, while during the second relapse 518 U/L. Clinical signs of relapsing hepatitis disappeared approximately in 4 days, but liver function tests decreased slowly and persisted elevated between 5 and 12 months. A possibility of establishing the etiology of relapsing hepatitis, which has yet remained unknown, is discussed. Anti-HAV IgM were present in all 34 patients during the initial and relapsing phase of hepatitis and in 26 cases in the latter phase of convalescence between 9 and 11 months after the beginning of the disease. Serological tests excluded infection with hepatitis B, cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus. With a great probability other infections and toxic agents damaging the liver could have been excluded.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0840_2629", "title": "Acute Cholestatic Liver Injury From Hydralazine Intake.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Hydralazine is a commonly used oral antihypertensive agent. We report a rare case of hydralazine-induced hepatotoxicity in the form of subacute hepatic necrosis. A 75-year-old African American woman presented with jaundice of 7-day duration. She was started on hydralazine 100 mg 3 times a day 10 weeks before presentation. On physical examination, scleral icterus was noted. Workup revealed elevated liver transaminases, alkaline phosphatase, and conjugated bilirubin. She had no history of liver disease, and liver function tests had been normal before starting hydralazine. Other etiologies, including viruses, common toxins, drugs, autoimmune, and copper-induced hepatitis, were excluded. Abdominal imaging studies did not show any evidence of intrahepatic or extrahepatic biliary ductal dilatation, and no pathologies were seen in the liver and pancreas. The patient's liver biopsy revealed extensive lobular hepatitis, significant necrosis, mixed inflammatory infiltrate, and no significant fibrosis, supporting a diagnosis of drug-induced liver injury. Hydralazine was immediately discontinued. She showed improvement of clinical and laboratory abnormalities within 5 days after discontinuation of hydralazine. To establish the diagnosis of hydralazine-induced liver injury, we used assessment tool outlined by the Council for International Organization of Medical Sciences (CIOMS) scale that led to \"high probable\" relationship. Although rare, clinically significant, and potentially life-threatening liver injury can result from use of hydralazine. Both clinical and histological presentations in our patient suggest acute liver injury. The hydralazine-induced hepatitis seems to be reversible as discontinuation of the drug improves clinical outcomes. We highly recommend monitoring of the liver function during hydralazine treatment. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0338_15316", "title": "[The characteristics of the course of viral hepatitis C].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Time-related course and results of examination were studied in patients with viral hepatitis C, having gotten infected through blood. Based on the comparison of similar indicators in patients with viral hepatitis B particular features were revealed of the clinical course of viral hepatitis C. These are as follows: short-in-duration prejaundice period, in other instances there is no prejaundice period at all, subfebrile states set in quite often; among other features are dyspepsia-like events together with signs of a damage to pancreas. There has been noted a slow dynamics of the icteric period reversibility, with biochemical indicators showing the same tendency." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0327_11192", "title": "[Manganese superoxide dismutase-inhibiting autoantibodies in cholestatic Epstein-Barr viral hepatitis].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A 21-year-old woman reported no serious previous illness. For 3 days before admission she had a fever, headache and joint pains. She had become progressively more jaundiced. Physical examination was normal except for enlarged liver and spleen, swollen lymph nodes and facial oedema. GOT (30 U/l), GPT (33 U/l) and alkaline phosphatase (172 U/l) were slightly elevated. Serum bilirubin was raised to 12.4 mg/dl. The total white blood cell count was normal, but there were 45% atypical lymphocytes (activated T lymphocytes). Abdominal sonography and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography were unremarkable. Serology for hepatitis A, B and C as well as for antimitochondrial antibodies was negative, but there were specific IgM (1:640) and IgG antibodies (1:80) against Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) capsid antigen in the immunofluorescence test. The EBV infection (infectious mononucleosis) was complicated by cholestatic hepatitis. High concentrations (1832 Göttingen units/ml) of enzyme-inhibiting autoantibodies against the antioxidative enzyme manganese-superoxide dismutase (MSD) were demonstrated. The autoantibodies reduced the antioxidative action of the enzyme by more than 70% and favoured the oxidative cell damage in vitro. After bed-rest for one week without further treatment the symptoms improved and the abnormal laboratory values, including the autoantibodies against MSD, regressed. Autoantibodies against MSD are formed during an acute infection with EBV. Their enzyme-inhibiting action promotes abnormalities of oxidative cell function and may thus be the cause of cholestatic hepatitis in this infection." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en166_42774", "title": "Augusto Murri", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Murri is particularly concentrated on the observation and analysis of the events in order to reach the right diagnosis and also an appropriate therapy. His works \"Sulla natura del processo morboso dell’itterizia grave\" (\"The nature of the morbose process of the severe jaundice\") \"Nosologia e psicologia\" (\"Nosology and psychology\") \"Lezioni di clinica medica\" (\"Lectures on medical clinic\") References Bibliography" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0975_8122", "title": "Cerebral Venous Sinus Thrombosis in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A 38-year-old woman presented with general weakness and vaginal bleeding. One month prior, she had been diagnosed with Evans syndrome (haemolytic anemia with positive Coombs test and thrombocytopenia) and was given oral steroid as maintenance therapy. Her serology examination was negative for hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Her obstetrical history was marked by miscarriage in second pregnancy and preeclampsia in third pregnancy. She used hormonal contraceptives until 5 months prior to admission. On physical examination, she had anemic conjunctiva and no organomegaly. Blood tests were significant for anemia (3.4 g/dl) and thrombocytopenia (28,000/µl). Her vaginal bleeding had ceased, however her platelet continued decreasing to 12,000/µl during first several days of hospitalization despite receiving platelet transfusion. On the tenth hospital day, she suddenly complained of severe headache and blurred vision. She had bilateral edema and erythema of palpebral, chemosis, decreased in visual acuity, and reduced ocular motility. Ear and nose examination were normal. Peripheral blood smear showed no blast. Prothrombine time (PT), INR, APTT tests were normal and D Dimer was slightly increased (3.3 mg/l; NV ≤0.5 mg/l). Urine examination revealed proteinuria with 24 hour urine protein was 1,863 mg (NV &lt;150 mg/day). We assessed her as cavernous sinus thrombosis and treated her empirically with intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics, morphine drip. Either digital subtraction angiography or anticoagulant was deferred due to low platelet. Further examination revealed positive for ANA, anti-SSA, and diagnosis of SLE was established. Anticardiolipin antibodies of IgG and IgM and anti-beta2 glycoprotein antibodies of IgM and IgG tests were non reactive. Methylprednisolone pulse therapy (1g/day) was given for 3 consecutive days, and then tapered to oral methylprednisolone. She additionally received azathioprine 50 mg tab BID. Meanwhile her clinical symptoms alleviated and platelet count was increased, brain MRI and MR venography finally performed suggesting cerebral venous sinus thrombosis. She got additional oral anticoagulant rivaroxaban 15 mg tab BID and eventually discharged. Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis may be the presenting symptoms or occur concomitantly within the onset of SLE. Our patient had SLE, meeting 4 of the Systemic Lupus International Collaborating Clinic classification criteria (hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal involvement, and positive for ANA test). Vasculitis due to endothelial cell injury mediated by immune-complex deposition is proposed to be the pathogenesis of CVST in SLE. Hypercoagulable state could be other etiology factor. Antiphospholipid antibodies were absent in our case as reported in some cases, emphasizing vasculitis as the underlying mechanism. Treatment of CVST in SLE consisting of anticoagulant, steroid, and immunosuppressant. This case elicits intriguing problem: CVST and thrombocytopenia. Anticoagulant treatment is proposed as the cornerstone treatment for CVST, however it was deferred due to risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenia. Steroid plays role in treatment of CVST in SLE, owing to its anti-inflammatory property. As shown in previous cases, the patient had remarkable response to high dose steroid treatment and eventually got anticoagulant after her platelet had increased. In summary, prompt diagnosis and treatment of CVST are important for a favorable prognosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0496_2659", "title": "PBC-AIH overlap syndrome with concomitant ITP and Hashimoto's disease with positivity for anti-centromere antibody.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "We report a case of primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC)-autoimmune hepatitis (AIH) overlap syndrome with concurrent idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and Hashimoto's disease with positivity for anticentromere antibody. The patient was a 64-year-old woman with symptoms of jaundice and general fatigue. About 30 years earlier, she had been diagnosed as having ITP and had undergone splenectomy. As part of her present history, she had exhibited liver dysfunction in 1995, during the follow-up of Hashimoto's disease, and a liver biopsy led to the diagnosis of PBC. In March 2000, she was admitted to hospital because of general fatigue and jaundice. Blood tests revealed: total protein (TP), 6.6 g/dl; gamma-globulin (glb), 35.9%; total bilirubin (T-bil), 9.41 mg/dl; direct bilirubin (D-bil), 7.52 mg/dl; aspartate aminotransferase (AST), 957 U/l; alanine aminotransferase (ALT), 651 U/l; alkaline phosphatase (ALP), 595 U/l; gamma-guanosine triphosphate (GTP), 129 U/l; IgG, 2620 mg/dl; IgM, 223 mg/dl; hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), negative; anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV), negative; antinuclear antibody, positive; antimitchondrial antibody (AMA), negative (by the immunofluorescence [IF] method); and anti-pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC)-E2 antibody, positive (by Western blotting). Anticentromere antibody (ACA), which is an alternative diagnostic marker for PBC, was detected in this patient. Prednisolone was administered after admission and liver function test results improved markedly. The liver biopsy in 1995 had revealed infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the portal areas with fibrous expansion and periportal necrosis. Destructive cholangitis was observed, as well as scattered epitheloid cell granulomas in some portal areas. Liver biopsy after the steroid treatment revealed alleviated necrotic inflammatory responses of hepatocytes, while the destructive cholangitis persisted. This is a very rare case of PBC-AIH overlap syndrome accompanied by ITP and Hashimoto's disease which provides a possible insight into the mechanisms and interplay of autoimmune diseases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0973_23808", "title": "Paraneoplastic Encephalopathy in a Patient With Metastatic Lung Cancer: A Case Study.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "<bCASE STUDY</b RS, a 36-year-old female, presented to the emergency department (ED) of a large academic medical center upon the advice of her primary care provider because of 3 weeks of progressive mental status changes, weakness, and decreased oral intake. According to her husband, RS was diagnosed with stage IIIA large cell lung cancer 8 months earlier and was treated with concurrent chemotherapy (carboplatin, pemetrexed, and bevacizumab) and radiation therapy that was completed 4 months prior to admission. No other specific information about her treatment or outside health records was available. According to her husband, RS had been in her usual state of health until approximately 3 weeks prior, when she began having significant mental status changes. She first exhibited some difficulty finding words and later was noted to be putting food in a coffee maker. This spontaneously resolved after approximately 1 week; however, she rapidly developed slurred speech and began to make nonsensical statements. These manifestations also slowly improved but were followed by worsening speech deficit, difficulty walking, and impaired balance. During one of these episodes, she had an occurrence of incontinence. Her husband also noted an incident where her \"eyes were beating back and forth and the left side of her face was twitching.\" RS also had periods (according to her husband) where she \"did not seem to be interacting with her environment.\" These progressively worsened during the last week, and she completely stopped walking and talking 2 days prior to coming to the ED. According to her husband, RS had rheumatoid arthritis and no surgical history. Her family history was unknown except that RS's mother had \"seizures.\" RS had reportedly not used tobacco, alcohol, or drugs, and she was sexually active with her husband. Home medications included transdermal fentanyl 12 μg/hr patch changed every 72 hours; oxycodone-acetaminophen tablets 5-325 mg, two every 4 hours as needed for pain; prednisone 10 mg, one tablet daily; and megestrol 40 mg/mL suspension, 20 mL once daily for appetite stimulation. RS was admitted to an inpatient medical oncology service and evaluated by the oncology advanced practitioner (AP) on her second inpatient day. Upon exam, RS was nonverbal except for moaning in response to painful stimuli and to her sister's voice. Her vital signs were normal. She appeared ill but well-nourished, and she was mildly diaphoretic. Neurologic examination revealed that her pupils were slightly sluggish but equal, round, and reactive to light. Extraocular muscle movements were intact, but she did not move her eyes in response to commands. She tracked the AP and family members around the room with her eyes. Cranial nerve examination was intact with the exception of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI, which were difficult to examine given her inability to cooperate and open her mouth. Motor examination revealed increased tone throughout and intermittent, inconsistent resistance to passive movement. She was seen to move all four extremities spontaneously although not in response to commands. Deep tendon reflexes were intact and equal in all extremities. Examination of other body systems was as follows: there was dry, peeling skin on her lips, but her mucous membranes were moist and free of erythema or lesions. Her lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her heart rate and rhythm were regular, there were no murmurs, rubs, or gallops, and distal pulses were intact. Her abdomen was nondistended with normally active bowel sounds in all four quadrants. Her abdomen was soft, nontender to palpation, and without palpable masses. There was no peripheral discoloration, temperature changes, or edema, and examination of her skin was benign. <bWorkup</b On admission to the emergency department, serum laboratory studies were unrevealing for any potential causes of encephalopathy. Kidney and liver function were normal, making diagnoses of uremic and hepatic encephalopathies less likely. Cultures of the urine and blood were negative. Samples of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) were obtained via lumbar puncture and were unrevealing for any abnormalities. Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast was negative for any acute intracranial process. Ultrasound of the right upper quadrant revealed a single, nonspecific, hypoechoic hepatic lesion. Computed tomography scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis demonstrated the primary malignancy in the upper lobe of the left lung, as well as possible metastatic disease within the left lung, right lung, and liver, and widespread osseous metastatic disease. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain performed 1 day after admission demonstrated numerous scattered punctate foci of enhancement throughout the supratentorial and infratentorial brain parenchyma, measuring at most 3 to 4 millimeters in diameter. There was no significant mass effect or midline shift. A paraneoplastic panel was sent to an outside laboratory and returned positive for antivoltage-gated potassium channel (VGKC) autoantibodies. <bDifferential Diagnosis</b Clinically, RS was exhibiting signs of encephalopathy, a broad term that indicates general brain dysfunction, the hallmark of which is altered mental status. Diagnosing encephalopathy is challenging, as many differential diagnoses must be considered. The clinician must consider metabolic derangements, toxic and infectious etiologies, psychiatric disorders, and less commonly, prion disorders and progressive dementia. Cultures of RS's blood and urine as well as other specialized endocrine tests were negative, decreasing the likelihood of a metabolic or infectious cause for her presentation. The abnormalities on her brain MRI were reviewed by a neuro-oncology team, who felt that the faint, nondescript nature of the visualized lesions was not suspicious for metastatic disease. Sequelae of seizures was also considered by neuro-oncology but dismissed given a grossly normal prolonged electroencephalogram. Some encephalopathies are caused by autoimmune or inflammatory mechanisms, which are confirmed by the presence of autoantibody markers and/or clear response to immunomodulatory treatment (Vernino, Geschwind, &amp; Boeve, 2007). These types of encephalopathies have been seen in patients with cancer and have thus been termed paraneoplastic. The presence of anti-VGKC antibodies on RS's paraneoplastic panel directed the inpatient medical oncology team toward a paraneoplastic neurologic disorder (PND) as the most likely diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0074_3744", "title": "[Primary biliary cirrhosis--analysis of clinical material].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "The analysis is presented of 67 patients with primary biliary cirrhosis treated in the years 1971-1988. The group consisted of 60 women (89.5%) and seven men (10.5%). Presenting symptoms were mostly itching (66%) and jaundice (12%). The time between the onset of the first symptoms and the diagnosis was three years, on the average. Autoantibodies to mitochondria were present in 86% of patients. In 27% of cases markers of HB virus infection were found. Cholelithiasis was present in 19 patients (28%). Primary biliary cirrhosis was diagnosed with delay. Third degree of histological changes was observed in 38.8% of cases and in 18% of patients it was already fourth degree. Eighteen patients (27%) died after six years, on the average, from the onset of symptoms. The direct causes of death were, most frequently, liver failure and haemorrhage from oesophageal varices." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 300, 505 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 47, 82 ] ], "text": "the most correct option would be two because it does not specify that it is a simple symptomatic partial seizure, but leaves open the possibility that it is a simple or complex symptomatic partial seizure." }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 283 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 44 ] ], "text": "They refer to a partial seizure that is followed by loss of level of consciousness, so strictly speaking it would be a symptomatic complex partial seizure, not a secondarily generalized partial seizure (which occurs when tonic-clonic movements extend to the rest of the extremities)." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Generalized symptomatic.", "2": "Partially symptomatic.", "3": "Partial cryptogenic.", "4": "Partial secondarily generalized symptomatic.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0812_5508", "title": "[Rare cases of reflex epilepsy in patients with gliomas of the left hemisphere].", "score": 0.01838731443994602, "content": "We present the cases of symptomatic reflex epilepsy in patients with left hemisphere tumors. The first case: a 23-year-old man has had tonic-clonic seizures of the tongue with rare secondary localization over the past several months. The seizures were caused by intense tongue movements, in particular rightward and leftward (when having chewing gum or a candy in his mouth), but not during speech production or eating. MRI scanning detected a small tumor in the lower segments of the central gyrus. It was found during the surgery under electrophysiological control that the tumor (Gr II astrocytoma) resided in the zone corresponding to the right half of the tongue and included this zone. The tumor was partially resected. The second patient, a 52-year-old man, has been suffering from generalized seizures since 1998. The seizures were caused by intense verbal load, in the beginning of spontaneous speech and subsequently when the patient was listening to others' speech or was writing. Spontaneous seizures emerged when the patient stopped taking his anti-seizure medications unilaterally. MRI showed glioma in the posterior segments of the left temporal lobe. The patient underwent radiation and chemotherapy. In 2013, the patient's condition worsened (right-sided hemiparesis and severe speech impairment emerged); the tumor was partially resected and an extensive cyst was opened. The third patient, a 38-year-old man with Gr III astrocytoma in the left insula with past medical history of spontaneous vegetative seizures, had only a seizure anticipation caused by strong smells. All the patients were prescribed chemo-, radiation, and anti-seizure therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0057_14559", "title": "[A case of temporal lobe epilepsy with recurrent dysphasic seizures].", "score": 0.013524861878453039, "content": "We reported a 40-year-old right-handed female with temporal lobe epilepsy manifesting recurrent dysphasic seizures. At age 25, the patient developed a complex partial seizure, who subsequently showed frequent auditory seizures that often evolved to complex partial or secondarily generalized seizures at age 25-27, and dysphasic seizures (DSs) at age 27 -40. DSs were characterized by total aphasia without impairment of consciousness, which were often accompanied by functional hallucination. Brain CT, cerebral angiography, and brain MRI demonstrated no abnormal findings. At age 39 (May 20, 1989), recurrent aphasic state was unexpectedly observed during medical examinations. An EEG was performed immediately, and the EEG seizure pattern (duration: ca. 8-17 sec) in which 15 -16 Hz spikes began in the left posterior temporal region and spread rapidly to the left midtemporal, inferior frontal, and central regions was detected 14 times within 30 minutes. During the seizure patterns, the patient was aphasic." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0684_15333", "title": "Case report. Gelastic seizures in a patient with right gyrus cinguli astrocytoma.", "score": 0.012811359669998414, "content": "Gelastic seizure (GS) also known as \"gelastic epilepsy\" is a rare type of seizure associated with several different conditions such as tumors--hypothalamic hamartromas, tuberous sclerosis, hemangiomas, post infectious foci, cortical temporal dysplasia. We report one case of this rare condition generated by a right gyrus cinguli gr. II astrocytoma. A 27 year-old male, right handed, was admitted for a 2 years history of very frequent gelastic seizures accompanied sometimes by simple motor partial seizures in both arms, more often being involved his left arm, without impairment of his consciousness state. His neurological examination was normal. Diagnosis was made on native CT scan: minimal hypodense frontal right paramedian lesion, cerebral MRI showed a small well delimited right, parenchymal, homogeneous lesion (16/22/15 mm), involving gyrus cinguli, without perilesional edema and mass effect, hyperintense both on T1 and T2 MR sequences, non-enhancing after Gadolinium. The cerebral lesion was also documented on EEG and video-EEG recordings. Using an interhemispheric microsurgical approach, above the corpus callosum and the right pericallosal artery, at the level of gyrus cinguli, a yellow-gray, infiltrative tumor, having a moderate vascularisation, has been identified and totally removed. The anatomopathological analysis revealed a grade II astrocytoma. The patient recovered very well, without deficits, no gelastic seizures or epileptic manifestations; three months after operation he is still free of seizures. A case of gelastic seizures accompanied by simple motor partial seizures in both arms, without the impairment of his consciousness state induced by a grade II right gyrus cinguli astrocytoma is described and documented by radiological and electrophysiological studies. Using microsurgical resection, the tumor was totally removed, the patient clinical condition improved. Without an affective connotation as in temporal or hypothalamus topography, gelastic seizures are not patognomonic for hypothalamic hamartomas and in the case of frontal localization of the lesion; they can be associated with motor involvement of the limbs as in our case." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_42394", "title": "Frontal lobe epilepsy", "score": 0.01231418171922305, "content": "Tonic posture and clonic movements are common symptoms among most of the areas of the frontal lobe, therefore the type of seizures associated with frontal lobe epilepsy are commonly called tonic-clonic seizures. Dystonic motor movements are common to both TLE and FLE, but are usually the first symptom in FLE episodes where they are quite brief and do not affect consciousness. The seizures are complex partial, simple partial, secondarily generalized or a combination of the three. These partial seizures are often misdiagnosed as psychogenic seizures. Semiology A wide range of more specific symptoms arise when different parts of the frontal cortex are affected." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en429_18536", "title": "Epilepsy syndromes", "score": 0.012048497095226067, "content": "Lennox-Gastaut syndrome Lennox-Gastaut syndrome (LGS) is a generalized epilepsy that consists of a triad of developmental delay or childhood dementia, mixed generalized seizures, and EEG demonstrating a pattern of approximately 2 Hz \"slow\" spike-waves. Onset occurs between two and 18 years. Epilepsy is consider a chronic (meaning it lasts for a long time) condition that is defined by seizures. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome (LGS) is a rare and severe form of epilepsy. As in West syndrome, LGS result from idiopathic, symptomatic, or cryptogenic causes, and many patients first have West syndrome. Authorities emphasize different seizure types as important in LGS, but most have astatic seizures (drop attacks), tonic seizures, tonic-clonic seizures, atypical absence seizures, and sometimes, focal seizures. Anticonvulsants are usually only partially successful in treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en111_39141", "title": "Seizure types", "score": 0.010866920768794096, "content": "In 1997, the ILAE began work on revising the classification of seizures, epilepsies and epileptic syndromes. This revision remains in gestation and has not superseded the 1981 classification. Proposed changes to terminology include: Replace partial with the older term focal to describe seizures that originate in one part of the brain (though not necessarily a small or well defined area). The word partial was regarded as ambiguous. Drop the terms simple partial and complex partial - grouping based on the effect to consciousness is no longer regarded as useful. Replace cryptogenic with probably symptomatic. The hierarchy presented has the structure:" }, { "id": "article-26708_3", "title": "Partial Epilepsy -- Introduction", "score": 0.010144097111691178, "content": "The 2017 International League Against Epilepsy classification of seizures makes a point of the onset/origin of the seizure in the brain. [3] Seizures can be categorized as partial or generalized. Seizures originating from a single location in the brain are considered to have a focal onset, known as a partial seizure. Seizure activity originating simultaneously from bilateral hemispheres is considered to have a generalized onset. Partial seizures are further divided into simple and complex. Simple partial seizures involve a small portion or a focal area of the brain. Complex partial seizures start in one area and travel to another. The main difference between a simple partial seizure and a complex partial seizure is impaired awareness and a post-ictal period in the latter, which also occurs in a generalized seizure. Thus complex partial seizures and generalized seizures may have similar presentations; however, they differ in that generalized seizures involve both hemispheres of the brain, whereas complex partial seizures travel from one focal area to another. Focal epilepsy and partial epilepsy are used interchangeably." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0305_16495", "title": "[Cerebral lesions following convulsive partial status epilepticus. Clinical, neuroradiologic and PET study of a case].", "score": 0.010026637181484645, "content": "An 11-year-old girl developed signs of intracranial hypertension after status epilepticus with convulsive movements of her right upper limb. Computerized tomography revealed left hemispheric hypodensity with mass effect, attributed to vasogenic edema. Intracranial hypertension was controlled under intracranial pressure monitoring and clinical status slowly improved. The patient was aphasic and right hemiplegic when she recovered consciousness but she remarkably recovered from her neurological deficits during the following two years despite neuroradiological evolution demonstrating extensive destruction of the left cortex and white matter. Two positron emission tomography (PET) scans were performed respectively six weeks and eight months after status epilepticus, and both demonstrated profound left hemispheric hypometabolism except in the lenticular nucleus and a restricted area of motor/premotor cortex. On the other hand, glucose metabolism in the right hemisphere was heterogeneously increased on the second PET when compared with the first PET. We concluded that, in this case, clinical recovery might have implicated functional reorganization arising from the intact hemisphere." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_2460", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.009953773401108729, "content": "Focal motor seizures are attributable to a discharging lesion of the frontal lobe. A common type, originating in the supplementary motor area, takes the form of a turning movement of the head and eyes to the side opposite the irritative focus, often associated with a tonic extension of limbs, also on the side contralateral to the affected hemisphere. This may constitute the entire seizure, or it may be followed by generalized clonic movements. The extension of the limbs may occur just before or simultaneously with loss of consciousness but a lesion in one frontal lobe may give rise to a major generalized convulsion without an initial turning of the head and eyes. It has been postulated that, if there is loss of consciousness, it is the result of a rapid spread of the discharge from the frontal lobe to integrating centers in the thalamic or high midbrain reticular formation." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_42435", "title": "Frontal lobe epilepsy", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Epidemiology Epilepsy is a relatively common disorder, affecting between 0.5-1% of the population, and frontal lobe epilepsy accounts for about 1-2% of all epilepsies. The most common subdivision of epilepsy is symptomatic partial epilepsy, which causes simple partial seizures, and can be further divided into temporal and frontal lobe epilepsy. Although the exact number of cases of frontal lobe epilepsy is not currently known, it is known that FLE is the less common type of partial epilepsy, accounting for 20-30% of operative procedures involving intractable epilepsy. The disorder also has no gender or age bias, affecting males and females of all ages. In a recent study, the mean subject age with frontal lobe epilepsy was 28.5 years old, and the average age of epilepsy onset for left frontal epilepsy was 9.3 years old whereas for right frontal epilepsy it was 11.1 years old." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0070_470", "title": "[Epileptic seizures as initial symptom of intracranial tumors. A prospective study in adults].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A prospective study of 125 patients with late-onset epileptic crisis: Group G I with 65 cases between 20 and 50 years of age, and Group G II, including 60 patients older than 50 years at the time of the first crisis. Brain tumors were diagnosed in fourteen cases, four (6.1%) in G I and ten (16.6%) in G II. In decreasing order of frequency, the ictal pattern was tonic-clonic, status epilepticus, partial simple, partial complex and \"drop-attacks\". The lesions were located as follows:frontal in seven subjects, parietal in four, multiple in two and temporo-basal in one. Histologically, the tumors were three meningiomas, two gliomas, one astrocytoma, and three metastatic lesions. These findings agree with those of other series, in terms of predominant type of crisis, site and histologic type; but they differ in the age of first symptoms, and in the fact that tumors occupy only a third place as cause of epileptic crisis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0314_8653", "title": "[Epilepsies during the first year of life].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "An important number of epileptic patients who began with epileptic seizures during the first year of life have not just been well classified. The objective is to identify the different types of epilepsies and epileptic seizures which begin during the first year of life, according to the last classification of epilepsy and epileptic syndromes of 1989. We have studied 471 patients who consulted to our service in the last 5 years, with epileptic seizures during the first year of life. We excluded neonatal seizures and febrile convulsions. 1. Partial epilepsy: a) idiopathic: 12 (2.5%); b) symptomatic: 130 (28%); c) cryptogenic: 25 (5%). 2. Generalized epilepsy: a) idiopathic: benign myoclonic epilepsy in infancy, 6 (1%); b) cryptogenic-symptomatic: symptomatic West syndrome, 155 (33%); cryptogenic West syndrome, 65 (14%); cryptogenic myoclonic epilepsy, 6 (1%); early infantile epileptic encephalopathy, 8 (1.6%); early myoclonic encephalopathy, 4 (0.8%); other symptomatic generalized epilepsies without specific aetiology, 14 (3%). 3. Epilepsies and syndromes undetermined as to whether they are focal or generalized: a) severe myoclonic epilepsy in infancy, 15 (3%); symptomatic epilepsy with multifocal and independent spikes, 3 (0.6%); other undetermined epilepsies not defined above, 3 (0.6%). 4. Special syndromes: occasional convulsions, 15 (3%). West syndrome is the commonest type of epilepsy during the first year of life, particularly symptomatic West syndrome. Symptomatic partial epilepsies are in the second place in frequency. We identified 12 patients with idiopathic partial epilepsy, who full-filled clinical and EEG characteristics of a recently described epilepsy: benign infantile familial convulsions. The study showed the predominance of symptomatic epilepsy, generalized (represented by West syndrome) and partials. Finally 6% of the patients have a generalized epilepsy, cryptogenic or symptomatic, not defined in the classification." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0040_9346", "title": "[Consciousness disorders in focal lesions of the right and left cerebral hemispheres].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In the light of modern concepts of functional asymmetry in the human brain, the authors analyse paroxysmal conditions of changed consciousness which occurred in 160 patients with lesions of the hemispheres due to brain tumors (75 patients) and in epilepsy (85 patients). It is shown that certain forms of changed consciousness are characteristic of disorders of the right and left hemispheres in right-handedness. This clinical fact is taken as a basis for the assumption that in the formation of consciousness both hemispheres in different ways play a certain role and they provide different \"formating\" kinds of consciousness: the right hemisphere--a direct perception or a sensory perception of the environment and itself, the left--process of abstract perception based on speech, symbols, semantics." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_2457", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.009713743606665565, "content": "As indicated earlier, the International Classification divides all seizures into two types—generalized, in which the clinical and EEG manifestations indicate bilateral and diffuse cerebral cortical involvement from the onset, and focal, in which the seizure is often the product of a demonstrable focal lesion or EEG abnormality in some part of the cerebral cortex. The manifestations of focal seizures reflect the locale of the lesion. In the past focal seizures were classified by whether consciousness was retained (partial) or impaired (complex), but are now subsumed under the term “dyscognitive” if awareness is altered. Focal seizures with sensory or motor features at the onset most often arise from foci in the sensorimotor cortex. Those with impairment of consciousness, which occurs in many forms, most often have their focus in the limbic and autonomic areas or in the temporal lobe, but a frontal localization is also known. Table 15-2 lists the common sites of the lesions and the" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0563_15594", "title": "Generalized nonconvulsive status epilepticus in symptomatic partial epilepsy.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 6-year-old male with cortical dysplasia who developed secondarily generalized nonconvulsive status epilepticus is reported. He had partial epilepsy since the age of 10 months. On electroencephalography, almost continuous left frontocentral/anterior temporal spikes were observed at 3 years of age, which lasted until 6 years of age, when he developed nonconvulsive status epilepticus. Nonconvulsive status epilepticus lasted for more than 7 days. Electroencephalography during nonconvulsive status epilepticus documented almost continuous generalized polyspike-wave complexes suggestive of generalized nonconvulsive status epilepticus. On magnetic resonance imaging, abnormal gyration was observed in the left frontal lobe. Histopathologic analysis of the resected left frontal lobe revealed cortical dysplasia. The present case demonstrates that continuous focal epileptiform discharges caused by cortical dysplasia in the frontal lobe can develop into secondarily generalized nonconvulsive status epilepticus." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0258_4681", "title": "[Gyratory epileptic seizures. Radioclinical correlations].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The authors report 3 cases of gyratory seizures whose epileptic nature was demonstrated on the following features. They appeared with a loss of consciousness. In 2 cases, they ended with a tonic-clonic generalized fit and in the 3 cases, they were mixed with other generalized seizures. From an etiological point of view, in 2 cases, a deep lesion was discovered, the first one near the paracentral lobule, the second in the para-thalamic area. The third one was an idiopathic generalized epilepsy on clinical and electroencephalographic grounds. These 3 cases focus on the difficulties to classify gyratory seizures that may appear in 2 opposite situations, namely in symptomatic partial epilepsy and in idiopathic generalized epilepsy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en429_18542", "title": "Epilepsy syndromes", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "West syndrome West syndrome is a triad of developmental delay, seizures termed infantile spasms, and EEG demonstrating a pattern termed hypsarrhythmia. Onset occurs between three months and two years, with peak onset between eight and nine months. West syndrome may arise from idiopathic, symptomatic, or cryptogenic causes. The most common cause is tuberous sclerosis. The prognosis varies with the underlying cause. In general, most surviving patients remain with significant cognitive impairment and continuing seizures and may evolve to another eponymic syndrome, Lennox-Gastaut syndrome. It can be classified as idiopathic, syndromic, or cryptogenic depending on cause and can arise from both focal or generalized epileptic lesions. See also Management of drug-resistant epilepsy References Epilepsy Syndromes" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0725_15642", "title": "Primary central nervous system plasmablastic lymphoma presenting in human immunodeficiency virus-negative but Epstein-Barr virus-positive patient: a case report.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We report a 32-year-old Outer Mongolian man, with plasmablastic lymphoma (PBL) primarily occured in the central nervous system and diagnosed by surgical resection. This patient appeared headache and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) showed multiple lesions in the right cerebral hemisphere including the right frontal-parietal lobe and right basal ganglia and the left cerebellum, he was diagnosed as lymphoma by stereotactic biopsy in January 2009 in local hospital, and was given radiotherapy 33 times after the biopsy. The patient was admitted to The Military General Hospital of Beijing PLA., Beijing, P.R. China on March 9th, 2011, with chief complaints of right limbs convulsioned suddenly, then fell down and lose of his consciousness, then awoke after 4 to 5 minutes, with symptoms of angulus oris numbness and the right upper limb powerless ten days ago.MRI of the brain revealed a well-defined hyperdense and enhancing mass in the left frontal-parietal lobe, the meninges are closely related, there was extensive peritumoural edema noted with pressure effects, as evident by effacement of the left lateral ventricles and a 0.5 cm shift of the midline to the right side.Surgical resection showed markedly atypical, large singly dispersed or cohesive proliferation of plasmacytoid cells with frequent abnormal mitoses and binucleation, some neoplastic cells were large with round or oval nuclei and showed coarse chromatin and smaller or unapparent nucleoli, some neoplastic cells with prominent nucleoli, apoptosis and necrosis were often presented. Immunohistochemistry staining and gene rearrangement together with other supportive investigation confirmed the diagnosis of primary central nervous system plasmablastic lymphoma. A month later, he was started on chemotherapy with R-CHOP (rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, leurocristime and prednisone) for a week. Other supportive treatment was provided for symptomatic epilepsy. The patient regained muscle strength in both upper limbs and right lower limb and the symptomatic epilepsy was controlled after two weeks. Then the patient was discharged. Follow-up data shows the patient to be alive eleven months after discharge. The virtual slide(s) for this article can be found here: http://www.diagnosticpathology.diagnomx.eu/vs/1649317674697046." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0244_9752", "title": "[Seizures after the age of sixty (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Three percent of epileptic patients have their first seizure after the age of 60. More than at other ages, the real nature of such fits is very difficult to assert. Most of the reversible attacks occurring at this age are not of grave nature, syncopes are much more frequent. Some semeiological aspects are discussed. Focal seizures are more frequent after the age of 60. Absence status may be the first epileptic symptom in some rare cases (almost all of them being women). 100 patients whose ages ranged from 60 to 83 years, were examined after their first seizure and aetiological problems were examined. The following topics are discussed:--The possible onset of a primary epilepsy, extremely rare at that age;--The incidence of neoplasms, not exceeding 10% for patients whose late onset epilepsy is still an isolated symptom, and who have not been selected from specialized neurological or neurosurgical hospital departments;--The role of vascular epilepsy; in a very few cases, but of great practical interest, the epilepsy may announce a cerebrovascular accident which will occur later. It is, however, difficult to specify the vascular origin of a certain number of temporary unexplained late onset epilepsies. Some other aetiological factors are taken into account: antecedents of trauma, alcoholism, and dementia. The authors agree that in 50% of the cases the aetiology is not obvious. In this group of unknown aetiology it seemed interesting to isolate the following electroclinical form;--Epilepsy grand mal, with apparently generalized seizures; no special pathological antecedents; the neuropsychological and neurological examinations are normal, showing no intellectual disorders; the EEG generally shows slight modifications: quick rhythms, some sharp waves; a global cerebral atrophy is seen by the scanner. Such patients have been called victims of 'secondary late-onset generalized epilepsy'. They form 16% of a series of 156 epileptic patients who were over 65 years old, and 21% of our own 100 patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1018_21577", "title": "Two cases of symptomatic common carotid artery occlusion treated by carotid endarterectomy with L-shaped ministernotomy.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Common carotid artery occlusion (CCAO) is rare. Symptomatic lesions are resistant to medical treatment and revascularization are often required, but there is no consensus on the treatment of CCAO. In this paper, two cases of symptomatic CCAO treated by carotid endarterectomy (CEA) with L-shaped ministernotomy, in which the lesions extended to the beginning part of the CCA, are reported. Case 1 involved a 74-year-old man who presented with transient left limb numbness and an abnormal right visual field. Cerebrovascular angiography showed that the right CCA was occluded immediately after its origin and blood was supplied from the posterior circulation. CEA was performed with an L-shaped ministernotomy that allowed exposure of the CCA origin with minimal invasion. There were no complications associated with the sternal incision and he was discharged with a modified Rankin Scale (mRS) score of 0. Case 2 involved a 70-year-old man who presented with left half-blindness. Magnetic resonance imaging showed infarction in the right posterior cerebral artery region and neck echo showed CCA pseudo occlusion just before the carotid bulb. A new infarction in the right middle cerebral artery region developed during hospitalization. CEA with partial sternotomy was performed. The patient was rehabilitated with no deterioration of neurological findings and transferred with an mRS score of 3. There were no complications resulting from partial sternotomy in the two cases presented. CEA with partial sternotomy could be an effective treatment option for CCAO in which the internal carotid artery is patent and thrombus extends to the proximal CCA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0002_9081", "title": "[The problem of early diagnosis of brain tumours causing seizures only (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The diagnosis of brain tumour could not be made in 91 cases at the first investigation in a group of 1155 brain tumours. Slowly growing gliomas causing only epileptic fits and no other symptoms are especially difficult to diagnose. Of 21 personal observations of tumour seizures, in which the diagnosis of the neoplasm was missed at the first investigation in hospital, 9 were oligodendrogliomas, 5 astrocytomas, 3 glioblastomas, 2 spongioblastomas, 1 gangliocytoma and 1 a metastasis. They were all located in the frontal or centroparietal region. In most cases the seizures appeared during the third or fourth decade. The average interval between the first epileptic fit and the tumour diagnosis was 8.2 years in cases of oligodendrogliomas and 2.2 years in astrocytomas. 5 patients had major seizures, 2 had psychomotor attacks and all the others suffered from partial epilepsy. Anticonvulsive therapy was often successfull; either the frequency of the fits diminished or, in 2 cases, the character of the seizures changed. 18 patients had a normal neurostatus at time of the first investigation. Only 3 patients had a slight difference of physiological reflexes, but no other pathological signs. In none of the patients did investigation of the CSF, skull X-rays, brain scanning, pneumencephalography or cerebral angiography first lead to the diagnosis of a brain tumour. The EEG alone showed focal signs corresponding to the location of the tumour in about 50% of the cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0826_1650", "title": "Surgical treatment for patients with symptomatic generalised seizures due to brain lesions.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "To study the role of epilepsy surgery for patients with focal lesions who exhibited the semiology of clinically generalised seizures. From our epilepsy surgery series, we identified 29 patients who underwent surgery for seizures, including certain types of generalised seizures, according to their ictal semiology. We systematically reviewed the brain imaging, video-EEG, surgical operation, and pathological findings data of these patients. All patients had at least one type of generalised seizure according to the semiology; these seizures included epileptic spasms, myoclonic seizures, tonic seizures, atonic seizures and atypical absence seizures. Eight patients had a single type of seizure, 11 patients had two types of seizures, and 10 patients had more than two types of seizures. In addition to symptomatic generalised seizures, complex partial seizures were also recorded in eight patients. In 24 patients, the ictal semiology showed slight asymmetric movements in certain types of seizures. Generalised interictal epileptic discharges were recorded in 24 patients; and generalised ictal epileptic discharges as the only EEG pattern were recorded in 13 patients. Intracranial recording was performed in 20 patients; 10 of whom showed a rhythm of fast activities at the initiation of the seizures. Functional hemispherectomy was performed for three patients with hemispheric lesions. Focal resection of the epileptogenic zone was performed in 26 patients. The resected epileptogenic zones involved a single lobe in 10 patients, two lobes in 11 patients, and three lobes in 5 patients; the parietal lobe was the most commonly involved lobe (in 19 cases). Scar lesions (in 17 patients) were most commonly observed on pathological examination. At the last follow-up (mean 18±8.3 months, range 12-48), 17 (58.6%) patients were seizure-free. Certain patients with local brain lesions can have seizures with specific types of generalised semiology. An appropriate operation may be helpful for a portion of these patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0368_11994", "title": "Electroclinical and magnetoencephalographic analysis of epilepsy in patients with congenital bilateral perisylvian syndrome.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Epilepsies in four patients with congenital bilateral perisylvian syndrome (CBPS) were studied electroclinically and by magnetoencephalography (MEG) to determine whether cortical dysplasia associated with this syndrome is epileptogenic. We studied three women and one man (mean +/- SD age 30.8 +/- 3.4 years) with a diagnosis of CBPS based on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). All had drug-resistant epilepsy. In addition to electroclinical analysis, the distribution of equivalent-current dipoles (ECDs) analyzed from MEG signals was examined. Patient 1 had left-sided parietal lobe epilepsy and ECDs clustered in the left temporoparietal lobe. Patient 2 had bilateral, independent temporoparietal lobe epilepsy, and ECDs were found in both hemispheres, with clustering in the right temporoparietal lobe but not in the left hemisphere. Patient 3 presumably had parietal lobe epilepsy with unidentified focus side and ECDs clustered in the left parietal and right temporal lobes. Patient 4 had symptomatic generalized epilepsy, and ECDs were observed in both hemispheres without clustering. In the three patients who had partial epilepsy (patients 1-3), clusters of ECDs overlaid the perisylvian dysplasia and were not found elsewhere. Patients with CBPS may have either symptomatic partial epilepsy or symptomatic generalized epilepsy, and those with partial epilepsy are likely to have temporoparietal foci. In addition, cortical dysplasia is closely related to the generation of partial seizures and may be epileptogenic per se. However, this study did not elucidate the relationship between cortical dysplasia and CBPS-generated generalized epilepsy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0115_1901", "title": "[Periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges. I. Clinical and electroencephalographic aspects].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "In a two-years period, from a total of 5481 EEGs, we could select 25, corresponding to 22 patients, with PLEDs (prevalence of 0.45%). The group was composed by 13 males and 9 females, with age ranging from 5 months to 85 years. Main diagnosis was epilepsy of unknown etiology and brain tumor (22% each). The localization of PLEDs was mainly temporal region (54% of the whole group) and more frequent morphology was \"delta triphasic wave\" (a graphic pattern resembling sharp wave, but with longer duration) (1/3 of total), followed by sharp biphasic wave and sharp wave-slow wave (29% each). Although 9 patients died it was not possible to determine prognostic value of PLEDs specifically for each pathological condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0506_16227", "title": "Effects of zonisamide monotherapy in children with epilepsy.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "This study examined the efficacy and safety of zonisamide as monotherapy in pediatric patients with epilepsy. Seventy-seven children with epilepsy (ages 8 months-15 years) were treated with zonisamide. Nine patients were withdrawn early because of side effects; these patients were included in side effect but not efficacy analyses. Zonisamide dosages were initiated at approximately 2 mg/kg per day and adjusted for each patient individually to a maximum of 12 mg/kg per day. Among 44 patients with cryptogenic/symptomatic partial epilepsy, 36 (82%) became seizure free; 4 (9%) had a &gt; or =50% reduction in seizure frequency; and 4 (9%) had no change in seizures with zonisamide treatment. Of 11 patients with cryptogenic/symptomatic generalized epilepsy, 10 (91%) became seizure free, and 1 experienced no change with zonisamide treatment. Similarly, 4 patients (100%) with idiopathic partial epilepsy, and 8 of 9 patients (89%) with idiopathic generalized epilepsy became seizure free with zonisamide treatment; in the last group, 1 experienced no change. Thirty patients (39%) reported side effects, including somnolence (11.7%), decreased spontaneity (7.8%), anorexia (6.5%), and rash (6.5%). Thus, zonisamide is effective for partial seizures with or without secondarily generalized seizures in children and should be considered a broad-spectrum antiepilepsy agent." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0226_13066", "title": "Classification of partial epilepsies according to the symptomatology of seizures: practical value and prognostic implications.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Among 1,000 outpatient epileptics who visited the Epilepsy Center of Bologna consecutively from 1974 to 1978, 596 cases of partial epilepsy (PE) were chosen, representing 62.9% of all cases classified according to the International Classification of epilepsies. Fifty-four of these cases (5.7%) of those classifiable) that were affected by benign infantile epilepsy with rolandic spikes were not analyzed further. The remaining cases were divided up into three groups based on the symptomatology of the seizures: (1) partial elementary epilepsy (PEE), 102 cases (10.8%); (2) partial complex epilepsy (PCE), 332 cases (35%); and (3) partial secondarily generalized epilepsy (PSGE), 108 cases (11.4%). The three groups were compared according to the parameters that distinguish recognized epileptic syndromes, in order to see whether they constitute autonomous nosographic entities. Among the three groups, significant differences did not arise with regard to the incidence of single lesional etiological factors, the age of onset of the epilepsy, the neurological context, and the general features of interictal EEG. PSGE instead differs significantly from the other two forms for the minor severity of the epilepsy at first examination and for its more favorable course: after at least 2 years of follow-up under treatment, the epilepsy appeared to be controlled in 60.6% of the cases with PSGE, in 31.6% of those with PEE, and in 37.5% of those with PCE (p less than 0.05). For those with PE, globally considered, only three parameters have a favorable prognostic value: the brief duration of the epilepsy at the first observation, the rarity of the seizures, and the presence of only one type of seizure." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en429_18534", "title": "Epilepsy syndromes", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Febrile infection-related epilepsy syndrome Febrile infection-related epilepsy syndrome (FIRES) Frontal lobe epilepsy Frontal lobe epilepsy, usually a symptomatic or cryptogenic localization-related epilepsy, arises from lesions causing seizures that occur in the frontal lobes of the brain. These epilepsies can be difficult to diagnose because the symptoms of seizures can easily be confused with nonepileptic spells and, because of limitations of the EEG, be difficult to \"see\" with standard scalp EEG. Juvenile absence epilepsy is an idiopathic generalized epilepsy with later onset than CAE, typically in prepubertal adolescence, with the most frequent seizure type being absence seizures. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures can occur. Often, 3 Hz spike-wave or multiple spike discharges can be seen on EEG. The prognosis is mixed, with some patients going on to a syndrome that is poorly distinguishable from JME." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0406_16271", "title": "Asymmetric ending of secondarily generalized seizures: a lateralizing sign in TLE.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The authors investigated whether asymmetric ending of the clonic phase of secondarily generalized tonic clonic seizures (SGTCS) has lateralizing value concerning the hemisphere of seizure onset. They studied 70 patients with mesial temporal lobe epilepsy who underwent epilepsy surgery. Asymmetric ending of the clonic phase occurred in 43% of patients. The last clonic movement appeared on the upper extremity ipsilateral to the hemisphere of seizure onset in 83%." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0293_21359", "title": "Cryptogenic partial epilepsies with anti-GM1 antibodies: a new form of immune-mediated epilepsy?", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We wished to study immune system dysfunction which has been proposed as a potential cause of epilepsy. Epileptogenic action of antibodies directed against GM1 gangliosides was demonstrated in rats, but the potential role of anti-GM1 antibodies in human epilepsy has not yet been studied. We investigated the presence of IgG or IgM anti-GM1 antibodies in the sera of 64 patients with various types of epileptic syndromes: idiopathic generalized epilepsy (IGE) (n = 6), symptomatic or cryptogenic generalized epilepsy (SCGE) (n = 7), symptomatic partial epilepsy (SPE) (n = 26), and cryptogenic partial epilepsy (CPE) (n = 25). Two patients had elevated titers of IgM anti-GM1 antibodies, one patient had elevated titers of both IgM and IgG anti-GM1 antibodies, and 1 patient had elevated titers of IgG anti-GM1 antibodies. All 4 patients had complex partial seizures (CPS) secondarily generalized, drug resistance, psychiatric disorders, and normal brain imaging. Anti-GM1 antibodies were never associated with IGE, SCGE, or SPE. We compared the reactivity of sera from these patients with the sera from 5 patients with motor neuropathies with conduction block (MNCB) against different gangliosides and concluded that epilepsy sera did not react with the Gal(beta 1-3)GalNAc epitope. Two anti-GM1-positive patients were treated successfully with high-dose intravenous immunoglobulins (IgIV). Our findings suggest that detection of anti-GM1 antibodies could allow identification of a subgroup of patients with partial epilepsy associated with an autoimmune response. If anti-GM1 antibodies prove pathogenic, they could be an important prognostic factor for drug resistance and worsening of seizures." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0594_10102", "title": "Frontal lobe epilepsy: clinical characteristics, surgical outcomes and diagnostic modalities.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To identify surgical prognostic factors and to characterize clinical features according to the location of the intracranial ictal onset zone of frontal lobe epilepsy (FLE) in order to assess the role of various diagnostic modalities, including concordances with presurgical evaluations. We studied 71 FLE patients who underwent epilepsy surgery and whose outcomes were followed for more than 2 years. Diagnoses were established by standard presurgical evaluation. Clinical manifestations could be categorized into six types: initial focal motor (9 patients), initial versive seizure (15), frontal lobe complex partial seizure (14), complex partial seizure mimicking temporal lobe epilepsy (18), initial tonic elevation of arms (11), and sudden secondary generalized tonic-clonic seizure (4). Thirty-seven patients became seizure-free after surgery. Five patients were deleted in the analysis because of incomplete resection of ictal onset zones. The positive predictive value of interictal EEG, ictal EEG, MRI, PET, and ictal SPECT, respectively were 62.5%, 56.4%, 73.9%, 63.2%, and 63.6%, and the negative predictive value were 46.0%, 44.4%, 53.5%, 44.7%, and 51.7%. No significant relationship was found between the diagnostic accuracy of these modalities and surgical outcome, with the exception of MRI (p=0.029). Significant concordance of two or more modalities was observed in patients who became seizure-free (p=0.011). We could not find any clinical characteristic related to surgical outcome besides seizure frequency. No definite relationship was found between the location of intracranial ictal onset zone and clinical semiology. Although various diagnostic methods can be useful in the diagnosis of FLE, only MRI can predict surgical outcome. Concordance between presurgical evaluations indicates a better surgical outcome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0304_7013", "title": "[When and how should the long-term anti-epileptic treatment be stopped].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Although for some decades it has been customary to stop long-term treatment of epilepsy in patients who have been free of crises for several years, there is still no general agreement as to when, how and in which cases such treatment should be stopped. Several factors have to be taken into account when making such a decision: the known toxicity of anti-epileptic drugs; the fact that 10-20% of the patients on such treatment have recurrences of their epileptic crises and that around 25% of the children and 40% of the adults relapse when long-term treatment is stopped. On the other hand, factors which reduce the risk of relapse have recently been identified. When the psychological benefit of no longer having to take anti-epileptic drugs together with their high cost are also considered, it would seem advisable to stop treatment when the patient has had no epileptic crises for several years. Since there is no significant difference in the frequency of relapses when anti-epileptic drugs are suspended 2-5 years after the last crises, and these crises are more frequent when paroxystic activity is seen on the EEG before stopping the drugs, we recommend that treatment be stopped after 2 years free of crises in idiopathic epilepsy, after 3 years with no sign of abnormality in the EEG in patients with partial cryptogenic epilepsy and after at least 4 years without crises and 2 years of normal EEG in patients with partial symptomatic or generalized cryptogenic or symptomatic epilepsy. The criteria for suspending drug treatment should take account of the pharmacokinetic features and permit EEG control. Therefore we recommend that 40% of the total dose be stopped during the first 6 months at a rate of 20% every three months and then a further 20% every two months until medication has been stopped completely." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0072_12611", "title": "[Errors in the differential diagnosis of different types of nonepileptic paroxysms in the initial period of their occurrence].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "As many as 635 patients were referred to the Antiepileptic Center for counselling and examination. They had been diagnosed to suffer from epilepsy or the epileptic syndrome within the period from several days to 3 years since the moment of the first paroxysms. In 70 patients, the epileptic nature of the paroxysms was not confirmed, i. e. the primary diagnosis turned out to be erroneous. The paroxysms estimated at first as epileptic were systematized. The basis was formed by vegetative or vegetative visceral paroxysms of different character and gravity, which went, in the majority of cases, with loss of consciousness and, in rare cases, with unmarked convulsive component. 10 patients subjected to the EEG manifested fairly moderate epileptiform alterations and only one patient demonstrated paroxysmal diffuse epileptic activity. The author provides a number of clinical differential diagnostic criteria for the nonepileptic paroxysmal states that occurred for the first time. It is indicated that the EEG, the biochemical and other paraclinical methods of the diagnosis made in the initial disease stage may turn out abortive." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "To initiate corticoids for suspicion of minimal change glomerular disease.", "2": "Treat with cyclophosphamide for suspected membranous glomerulopathy.", "3": "Subcutaneous fat biopsy.", "4": "Initiate dialysis.", "5": "Glucose overload test to rule out diabetic nephropathy." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en019_111574", "title": "Glomerular filtration rate", "score": 0.0180999180999181, "content": "A urinalysis is helpful even when not showing any pathology, as this finding suggests an extrarenal etiology. Proteinuria and/or urinary sediment usually indicates the presence of glomerular disease. Hematuria may be caused by glomerular disease or by a disease along the urinary tract. The most relevant assessments in a renal ultrasound are renal sizes, echogenicity and any signs of hydronephrosis. Renal enlargement usually indicates diabetic nephropathy, focal segmental glomerular sclerosis or myeloma. Renal atrophy suggests longstanding chronic renal disease. Chronic kidney disease stages" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1041_23469", "title": "Nephrotic syndrome due to minimal-change disease superimposed on anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody positive glomerulonephritis; a case report.", "score": 0.017927170868347338, "content": "The prognosis for renal function in anti-GBM glomerulonephritis (anti-GBM GN) is extremely poor, and when renal impairment progresses severely, it is difficult to expect improvement. In addition, it is also known that once the disease activity can be controlled by aggressive treatment, its recurrence is rare. We experienced an anti-GBM GN that improved from severe renal dysfunction and relapsed. A possible cause was the superimpose of nephrotic syndrome due to minimal change disease (MCD). A 30-year-old man was admitted to our hospital because of general malaise, fever, oliguria and renal dysfunction. The patient's laboratory data showed serum creatinine as high as 6.6 mg/dl, and severe inflammation (C-reactive protein 20.6 mg/dl). Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody (anti-GBM Ab) was detected in his serum, which led to the diagnosis of anti-GBM GN. Treatment was initiated with high-dose glucocorticoid (GC) and plasma exchange therapy (PE), and the patient's renal function and oliguria improved rapidly and he was discharged 40 days after admission. Renal biopsy findings showed cellular crescents associated with linear IgG depositions along the glomerular tufts compatible with anti-GBM GN, but only about one-third of the glomeruli was involved, suggesting that it still remains an early stage of the disease. However, 2 months after discharge, he had a relapse and was readmitted due to severe proteinuria with positive anti-GBM Ab. On the second admission, after high-dose GC and PE combined with intravenous cyclophosphamide, and remission was achieved. Despite the relatively minor renal biopsy findings, the patient showed rapid renal dysfunction and relatively rapid improvement with our treatment. Electron microscopy of the renal biopsy tissue showed significant foot process effacement on podocytes in the apparently normal glomeruli, without electron dense deposits. On the basis of clinical course and renal pathology, it is suggested that the present case was a rare complication of an early stage of anti-GBM GN and minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Although the simultaneous development of anti-GBM GN and MCD with anti-GBM antibody is unclear, it might have been precipitated by influenza infection or some unknown factor." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_69821", "title": "Diabetic nephropathy", "score": 0.013313959382286352, "content": "It is recommended that diabetics have their albumin levels checked annually, beginning immediately after a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes and five years after a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes. Medical imaging of the kidneys, generally by ultrasonography, is recommended as part of a differential diagnosis if there is suspicion of urinary tract obstruction, urinary tract infection, kidney stones or polycystic kidney disease. Conformation kidney biopsy should only be performed if non-diabetic kidney disease is suspected. Urine analysis in patients with diabetic kidney disease is often bland. In cases of severely increased microalbuminuria, hematuria might be present. fat bodies might be present in patients who develop nephrotic-range proteinuria. Staging To stage the degree of damage in this (and any) kidney disease, the serum creatinine is determined and used to calculate the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). Normal eGFR is equal to or greater than 90ml/min/1.73 m2." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0692_20737", "title": "[Case of mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis complicated with multicentric Castleman's disease].", "score": 0.012837945928651416, "content": "We report a case of a 47-year-old man with multicentric Castleman's disease (MCD) and progressive renal dysfunction due to mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis, possibly from IgA nephropathy. At age 36 years, he was referred to a hematologist due to hypergammaglobulinemia. Because of systemic lymph node swelling, he underwent right cervical lymph node biopsy at age 41 years and MCD (plasma cell type)was diagnosed. During this period, microscopic hematuria and persistent proteinuria occurred and his renal function deteriorated (serum creatinine (Cr) rising from 0.7 mg/dL to 1.4 mg/dL). Treatment with intravenous methylprednisolone at the dose of 1 g daily for 3 days followed by oral prednisolone at 20 mg daily reduced his lymphadenopathy and improved the renal function. However, his renal function deteriorated again, from Cr 0.8 mg/dL to 1.8 mg/dL over 6 years in line with gradual prednisolone tapering to 6 mg daily. At age 47 years, he was referred to our nephrology department and underwent a renal biopsy. The microscopic examination showed IgA nephropathy with crescent formation, accompanied by mild lymphoplasmacytic tubulointerstitial nephritis. Treatment with the same dose of intravenous methylprednisolone therapy followed by oral prednisolone at 40 mg daily, improved his proteinuria, hematuria and renal dysfunction. The coexistence of MCD and IgA nephropathy is a rare phenomenon. In addition, IL-6, overproduced by MCD might have influenced the mesangial cell proliferation and the activity of IgA nephropathy in the present case." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0325_15583", "title": "[Importance of the duration from the onset of a urinary abnormality until a biopsy is performed: a multivariate analysis on the application of renal biopsy for patients with IgA nephropathy].", "score": 0.012511636566747347, "content": "To clarify the importance of the duration from the onset of a urinary abnormality until a biopsy is actually performed (UA-Bx time) in making a renal prognosis, we investigated 496 patients with IgA nephropathy (male/female: 222/274, mean age: 33.0 +/- 13.7 yrs, mean follow-up period: 10.8 +/- 4.3 yrs). All patients were found to have a urinary abnormality, including both hematuria and proteinuria, at clinical onset while demonstrating a normal renal function, and showing a serum creatinine level of &lt; or = 1.2 mg/dl or a creatinine clearance level of &gt; or = 80 ml/min. The UA-Bx time was divided into 3 groups: &lt; 1 yrs (S-G), 1 &lt; or = &lt; 3 yrs (M-G), &gt; or = 3 yrs (L-G). The severity of glomerular damage was divided into 5 groups based on the occupational rate of segmental sclerotic glomeruli. Based on a multivariate analysis of independent prognostic factors relating to renal death, the severity of glomerular damage was the most independent factor, while the UA-Bx time showed no risk for renal death. However, based on a multivariate analysis of the UA-Bx time regarding the timing of a renal biopsy, patients in L-G, which had the most glomerular damage, showed twice the hazard ratio as those in S-G or M-G and the difference was significant. These results thus indicate that because the glomerular damage is able to progress for 3 yrs or longer after the clinical onset of renal disease, a renal biopsy should therefore be performed within 3 yrs from the clinical onset in patients demonstrating both hematuria and proteinuria when such patients are also suspected of having IgA nephropathy." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_28021", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012128246046714058, "content": "The natural history of diabetic nephropathy is characterized by a fairly predictable sequence of events that was initially defined for individuals with type 1 DM but appears to be similar in type 2 DM (Fig. 419-3). Glomerular hyperperfusion and renal hypertrophy occur in the first years after the onset of DM and are associated with an increase of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). During the first 5 years of DM, thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, glomerular hypertrophy, and mesangial volume expansion occur as the GFR returns to normal. After 5–10 years of type 1 DM, many individuals begin to excrete small amounts of albumin in the urine. The American Diabetes Association (ADA) recently suggested that the terms previously used to refer to increased urinary protein (microalbuminuria as defined as 30–299 mg/d in a 24-h collection or 30–299 μg/mg creatinine in a spot collection or macroalbuminuria as defined as >300 mg/24 h) be replaced by the phrases “persistent" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_140488", "title": "Nephrotic syndrome", "score": 0.012110939907550078, "content": "Along with obtaining a complete medical history, a series of biochemical tests are required in order to arrive at an accurate diagnosis that verifies the presence of the illness. In addition, imaging of the kidneys (for structure and presence of two kidneys) is sometimes carried out, and/or a biopsy of the kidneys. The first test will be a urinalysis to test for high levels of proteins, as a healthy subject excretes an insignificant amount of protein in their urine. The test will involve a 24-hour bedside urinary total protein estimation. The urine sample is tested for proteinuria (>3.5 g per 1.73 m2 per 24 hours). It is also examined for urinary casts, which are more a feature of active nephritis. Next a blood screen, comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP) will look for hypoalbuminemia: albumin levels of ≤2.5 g/dL (normal=3.5-5 g/dL). Then a Creatinine Clearance CCr test will evaluate kidney function particularly the glomerular filtration capacity. Creatinine formation is a result of" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0479_23770", "title": "[Instructions and implementations for percutaneous renal biopsy. Guidelines for the therapy of glomerular nephropaties].", "score": 0.012073452862926548, "content": "This series of articles on the management of glomerulonephritis (GN) has been prepared by a team of experts in the evidence-based format consistent with peer review of published data. Each author was asked to review the literature for his assigned histological type, with emphasis on therapy and limited to adult studies. The age limit was not considered for minimal change disease and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, because of the high prevalence of these glomerulopathies in children. The particular treatment recommendations for each type of glomerular disease were graded by each author according to the amount of evidence provided in these reviewed studies. The first two articles concentrate on indications and techniques for kidney biopsy. Each subsequent article focuses on and describes the highest level of evidence supporting the recommendation for therapy in IgA nephropathy (Ig-GN), minimal change nephropathy (MCN) and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS), membranous glomerulonephritis (MGN), lupus nephritis, ANCA-associated vasculitis, HCV-associated cryoglobulinaemia and renal involvement in paraproteinemic disorders. The article on IgA nephropathy emphasises the importance of carefully evaluating both clinical and histologic findings before settling on the treatment. The recent, renewed interest in steroids and many immunosuppressive agents is discussed in detail. Recommendations related to the patient's age are also provided. MCN and FSGS are treated together because these forms share similar evidence-based recommendations. For both of these diseases, in fact, the initial treatment approach in children should be prednisone or prednisolone for four to six weeks. The therapeutic response in adults is slower than in children, but adults experience fewer relapses and a more prolonged remission. There is also a discussion on treatment of relapse, frequent relapsing disease and true steroid-resistant disease as well as the role of new immunosuppressive agents. Membranous nephropathy is a frequent cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults and, in one third of these patients, leads to end-stage renal disease. However, the treatment of this form is as yet a matter of discussion. Based on extensive critical review of the literature, the following recommendations are put forward: (a) no treatment in the absence of nephrotic syndrome; (b) patients with heavy proteinuria should receive a 6-month treatment with i.v. methylprednisolone (MP) pulse therapy for three consecutive days followed by oral MP (0.4 mg/kg/day) (months 1, 3, 5) and chlorambucil or cyclophosphamide (months 2, 4, 6); (c) the dosage of chlorambucil or cyclophosphamide should be lowered in older patients; (d) cyclosporine is a second-choice treatment. The treatment of lupus nephritis depends on the histologic class. No specific treatment is usually necessary for class I and IIA. Oral steroids are indicated in patients with class IIb, proteinuria and active systemic disease. Steroids and azathioprine are the treatment of choice for patients with class III and IV, but cyclosporine can be an effective alternative therapy. Cyclophosphamide is more effective than azathioprine when severe acute renal involvement is present. The treatment of ANCA-associated vasculitis depends mainly on clinical presentation, oral prednisone + oral or i.v. cyclophosphamide are generally effective. In the most severe cases, the association of MP pulse therapy with cyclophosphamide is probably more effective. Plasma exchange is probably justified in unresponsive patients. Azathioprine should replace cyclophosphamide during the maintenance therapy. In HCV-associated mixed cryoglobulinemia the treatment also depends on the severity of renal involvement. The treatment for chronic HCV infection involves alpha interferon alone or preferably in combination with ribavirin. Aggressive therapy, including i.v. MP, plasmapheresis and cyclophosphamide is primarily reserved for patients with acute severe disease, as manifested by progressive renal failure, distal necroses requiring amputation, or advanced neuropathy. Uncontrolled studies suggest that this regimen can improve renal function. Renal involvement is a common problem in paraproteinemic disorders that include multiple myeloma, Waldentrom's macroglobulinaemia and monoclonal gammopathy. The most common renal diseases in this setting are cast nephropathy, primary amyloidosis cast nephropathy, primary amyloidosis, and light chain deposition disease that are related to the overproduction of monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains. The approach to therapy varies with the cause of the renal dysfunction. Patients with amyloidosis or light-chain deposition disease are generally treated with chemotherapy, but the most effective therapy for myeloma kidney is prevention by minimising the risk factors that promote light chain filtration and subsequent obstruction by cast formation within the tubules. Chemotherapy or stem cell or bone marrow transplantation to decrease filtered light chain load, prevent volume depletion and maintain high fluid intake to reduce light chain concentration within the tubular lumen are indicated in almost all the patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0623_809", "title": "An attempt to extend the donor criteria for successful living-related kidney transplantation from a donor with membranous nephropathy.", "score": 0.011319921801097307, "content": "Marginally appropriate donors may be considered to extend the donor criteria for renal transplantation because of the donor shortage. We have reported a successful outcome after kidney transplantation from a living-related donor diagnosed with membranous nephropathy. A 38-year-old man began continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) at the age of 37. His 63-year-old father showed mild proteinuria, diagnosed as membranous nephropathy by needle biopsy. However, the father had normal renal function on preoperative examination, except for mild proteinuria. After adequate informed consent, we transplanted a kidney from the father who was diagnosed with membranous nephropathy into his son using a cyclosporine (CsA)-based immunosuppressive regimen. The postoperative course was good in both the recipient and the donor without rejection or infection. At 57 months after transplantation, the serum creatinine level was 1.7 mg/dL in the recipient and 1.2 mg/dL in the donor. An allograft needle biopsy at 39 months after transplantation showed mild spike formation with partial thickening of the glomerular basement membrane (GBM). Electron microscopy showed decreased electron-dense deposits and electron-lucent washout lesions with thickening of the GBM. This was diagnosed as stage IV membranous nephropathy, resulting from clearance of immune complexes and histological repair of the GBM. For the present donor, graft donation did not affect his residual renal function. Preexisting membranous nephropathy itself may show remission after transplantation into the recipient to achieve successful results, however, long-term careful observation of both the donor and recipient is required." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_21928", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01069672131147541, "content": "The natural history of diabetic nephropathy in patients with types 1 and 2 diabetes is similar. However, since the onset of type 1 diabetes is readily identifiable and the onset of type 2 diabetes is not, a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes may present with advanced diabetic nephropathy. At the onset of diabetes, renal hypertrophy and glomerular hyperfiltration are present. The degree of glomerular hyperfiltration correlates with the subsequent risk of clinically significant nephropathy. In the approximately 40% of patients with diabetes who develop diabetic nephropathy, the earliest manifestation is an increase in albuminuria detected by sensitive radioimmunoassay (Table 338-1). Albuminuria in the range of 30–300 mg/24 h is called microalbuminuria. Microalbuminuria appears 5–10 years after the onset of diabetes. It is currently recommended to test patients with type 1 disease for microalbuminuria 5 years after diagnosis of diabetes and yearly thereafter and, because the" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3384", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010227958937198068, "content": "PROTEINURIA ON URINE DIPSTICK Quantify by 24-h urinary excretion of protein and albumin or first morning spot albumin-to-creatinine ratio RBCs or RBC casts on urinalysis In addition to disorders listed under microalbuminuria consider Myeloma-associated kidney disease (check UPEP) Intermittent proteinuria Postural proteinuria Congestive heart failure Fever Exercise Go to Fig. 61-2 Macroalbuminuria 300-3500 mg/d or 300-3500 mg/g Microalbuminuria 30-300 mg/d or 30-300 mg/g Nephrotic range > 3500 mg/d or > 3500 mg/g + Consider Early diabetes Essential hypertension Early stages of glomerulonephritis (especially with RBCs, RBC casts)Consider Early diabetes Essential hypertension Early stages of glomerulonephritis (especially with RBCs, RBC casts) Nephrotic syndrome Diabetes Amyloidosis Minimal change disease FSGS Membranous glomerulopathy IgA nephropathy" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en023_76152", "title": "Assessment of kidney function", "score": 0.010046212577858147, "content": "Kidney function in disease A decreased renal function can be caused by many types of kidney disease. Upon presentation of decreased renal function, it is recommended to perform a history and physical examination, as well as performing a renal ultrasound and a urinalysis. The most relevant items in the history are medications, edema, nocturia, gross hematuria, family history of kidney disease, diabetes and polyuria. The most important items in a physical examination are signs of vasculitis, lupus erythematosus, diabetes, endocarditis and hypertension. A urinalysis is helpful even when not showing any pathology, as this finding suggests an extrarenal etiology. Proteinuria and/or urinary sediment usually indicates the presence of glomerular disease. Hematuria may be caused by glomerular disease or by a disease along the urinary tract." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0580_8758", "title": "[The classics of Italian nephrology: the monograph \"La nefropatia diabetica\" (Diabetic nephropathy) by Luigi Scapellato (1918-1998)].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "This monograph, published in 1953, describes the findings observed by the author in a cohort of patients affected by diabetes mellitus and renal disease. From a pathological standpoint, the typical renal lesion is represented by ''nodular intercapillary glomerulosclerosis'', which is present in 8 out of 20 patients at postmortem. Marked proteinuria and edema are the most typical clinical features. Urinary sediment examination is the only test allowing to differentiate diabetic nephropathy from other glomerular diseases. In the initial phases, the glomerular filtration rate is increased rather than reduced. The evolution is almost invariably towards end-stage renal disease, and a hypoglucidic diet and insulin are the only therapeutic modalities available. Today this work shows us, on the one hand, how many uncertainties still existed about diabetic nephropathy 17 years after its first description by Kimmelstiel and Wilson in 1936. On the other hand, it shows how much relevant and still valid information was already known at the time. Luigi Scapellato, who is almost completely forgotten today, began his career at the Clinica Medica of the University of Rome under the guidance of Cesare Frugoni (1881-1978). In 1959, he moved to Syracuse (Sicily) to work as director of the internal medicine unit of the ''Umberto I'' Hospital. In April 1957 he was among the 13 founders of the Italian Society of Nephrology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0952_4603", "title": "A case report of remission of refractory membranous nephropathy progressing to stage 4 chronic kidney disease using low-dose rituximab: A long-term follow-up.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "As suggested by the 2012 KDIGO guidelines, persistent elevation of serum creatinine &gt; 3.5 mg/dl (&gt; 309 μmol/l) (or an estimated glomerular filtration rate &lt; 30 ml/min per 1.73 m is one of contradictions for the use of immunosuppressive therapy in membranous nephropathy. A 45-year-old man with membranous nephropathy negative for serum anti-phospholipase-A2-receptor antibody, showed no response to corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide. He progressed to chronic kidney disease stage 4 (CKD4) under tacrolimus and relapsed after withdrawal. The patient received repeated renal biopsy, comfirming the diagnosis of membranous nephropathy with progressive glomerular and tubulointerstitial scarring. He was treated with successfully four times with lose-dose (180 mg/m every 2-3 months) rituximab (RTX) depending on his B cell counts, aiming to remain at 0-5 cells/μl. The patient was followed-up for almost 6 years. He achieved a partial remission at 11 months and a complete remission of the nephritic range of proteinuria at 34 months following infusion of RTX. RTX was well tolerated and the patient's renal function improved. He had no edema and his dosage of corticosteroids could be discontinued. This case strongly suggested that rituximab has promising therapeutic significance, even in patients progressing to CKD4." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0269_1275", "title": "[Prognostic significance of persistent massive proteinuria in progressive IgA nephropathy--a long-term follow-up study].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The most reliable factors predicting a long-term prognosis in individual progressive IgA nephropathy patients were evaluated. Ninety-eight cases who showed moderate to severe histological alterations (total score of 7 or more) and were continuously followed up for 10 years or more from the first biopsy were the subjects of this study. During the follow-up period of 10 years, 52 of the 98 cases went into hemodialysis treatment (HD). All 24 cases who had a higher total score of 17 or more, or severe renal dysfunction of less than 60 ml/min in their initial Ccr values went into HD. The remaining 74 cases who showed both a total score below 16 and initial Ccr values of 60 ml/min or more were divided into two groups in their clinical courses: 28 (group I) of the 74 cases went into HD and the other 46 (group II) did not. The degree of initial proteinuria was significantly different between groups I and II, but the degree of individual proteinuria was in a similar range from 0.5 to 2.5 g/day in most cases of both groups. Therefore, in order to clarify a more precise factor associated with the individual prognosis, the % duration of massive proteinuria (% DP) was calculated in individual cases. The % DP was more significantly different between groups I and II (82.6 +/- 26.1 vs 19.6 +/- 27.3%, p &lt; 0.01). Moreover, all cases but one in group I showed 30% or more in % DP and 35 of 46 cases in group II showed 30% or less.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en085_59103", "title": "Contrast-induced nephropathy", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Roxana Mehran score The Roxana Mehran score is a clinical prediction rule to estimate probability of nephropathy (increase ≥25% and/or ≥0.5 mg/dl in serum creatinine at 48 h): Risk Factors: Systolic blood pressure <80 mm Hg - 5 points (if systolic BP less than 80 mmHg for at least one hour requiring inotropic support) Intra-arterial balloon pump - 5 points Congestive heart failure, counting as NYHA class III (marked limitation in activity due to symptoms, even during less-than-ordinary activity) or worse, or history of pulmonary edema - 5 points Age >75 y - 4 points Hematocrit level <39% for men and <35% for women - 3 points Diabetes mellitus- 3 points Contrast media volume - 1 point for each 100 mL Decreased kidney function: Serum creatinine level >1.5 g/dL - 4 points or Estimated Glomerular filtration rate (online calculator) 2 for 40–60 mL/min/1.73 m2 4 for 20–40 mL/min/1.73 m2 6 for < 20 mL/min/1.73 m2" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0069_19117", "title": "[For or against renal biopsy after 65 years].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Kidney biopsy (KB) is controversial in the elderly because it is generally felt that the risks exceed the potential therapeutic benefits. In this review of our personal experience and the literature reports, we discuss the risks of this diagnostic procedure and its use in the four main circumstances of patient referral. On the one hand, KB does not seem to be more hazardous in the elderly, provided that it is not performed in patients in poor condition or with atrophic kidneys or suspected vascular lesions. On the other hand, KB is clearly useful in a number of elderly patients either to assess the diagnosis of a systemic disease involving the kidney or to select the appropriate treatment. 1. In patients with non nephrotic proteinuria, KB should be performed if the proteinuria is associated with extra-renal signs suggestive of systemic disease or with deterioration of renal function. 2. Nephrotic syndrome without evidence of amyloidosis and diabetes, should lead to KB to identify patients with minimal change disease (MCD) requiring steroid treatment. Indeed, MCD can rarely be suspected on clinical grounds as the resulting nephrotic syndrome is rarely \"pure\" at this age. 3. In acute renal failure, KB seems to be essential and urgent in patients with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and in those with renal failure of dubious origin to select the most appropriate treatment according to the etiology and the type of renal lesions (sclerotic or \"active\"). 4. KB is useless and hazardous in chronic renal failure, except in case of unexplained rapid worsening of renal function in patients with previously moderate renal failure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0558_4120", "title": "Behcet's disease and IgA nephropathy: report of this association in a patient from Brazil and literature review.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Behcet's disease (BD) is associated with renal involvement in about one-third of the cases and a variety of renal lesions have been reported. A 27-year-old man presented a history of recurrent oral and genital ulcers, associated with pseudofoliculitis and arthritis in his left knee. The first laboratory tests revealed: urea = 53mg/dL, creatinine = 1.8 mg/dL. The urinalysis showed leukocyturia. Initial treatment with ceftriaxone, thalidomide and prednisone was instituted. He became clinically stable, with normal renal function, but presenting hematuria and proteinuria. One year later the patient presented dark urine. The new laboratory tests showed urea=58 mg/dL, creatinine = 1.4 mg/dL, and mild proteinuria (500-1000 mg/24h). Two years later the proteinuria was 2230 mg/day. The renal biopsy showed one glomerulus with severe glomerular sclerosis, mild tubular atrophy, mild interstitial fibrosis and thickening of arterial walls. Treatment with captopril was started to decrease proteinuria. Two years later, the patient presented creatinine = 1.7 mg/dL and proteinuria = 2509 mg/day. A new renal biopsy evidenced proliferative crescentic glomerulonephritis, with diffuse granullary deposits of IgA, IgM and C3. It was instituted pulsotherapy with metilprednisolone, monthly endovenous cyclophosphamide and maintenance prednisone. The patient became clinically stable, with creatinine of 1.3 mg/dL and proteinuria of 500 mg/day. BD could be one of the various causes of secondary IgA nephritis. It is important to periodically perform renal function evaluation in patients with BD, through urinalysis and measurement of serum creatinine and its clearance, in order to detect any abnormality and provide an early adequate treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0235_3552", "title": "Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis superimposed on diabetic glomerulosclerosis. Recognition and treatment.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Two patients with long-standing diabetes mellitus and diabetic retinopathy were evaluated for declining renal function and heavy albuminuria. Initially, diabetic glomerulosclerosis was suspected as the cause of progressive glomerulopathy. However, in both patients the rate of loss of glomerular filtration rate was greater than that usually seen in diabetic glomerulosclerosis, and the urine sediment contained many RBC casts. These findings led to renal biopsy, which demonstrated crescentic glomerulonephritis superimposed on diabetic glomerulopathy. Both patients were treated with prednisone and cyclophosphamide and both experienced substantial improvement in renal function. These experiences demonstrate the importance of searching for evidence of a superimposed treatable glomerulopathy in the diabetic patient with glomerulopathy and advancing renal insufficiency." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en244_25097", "title": "Glomerulonephrosis", "score": 0.009551656920077973, "content": "Due to its close connection with other diseases and disorders, glomerulonephrosis is rarely diagnosed independently and is superseded by those other conditions. The primary test to diagnose a form of glomerulonephrosis is a urinalysis to look for any proteinuria. This is a very important step as an otherwise healthy individual will have low protein levels in the urine. A Comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP) is also often used to test for hypoalbuminemia, levels of albumin lower than ≤2.5 g/dL. This is a key step in differentiating glomerulonephrosis from conditions that also cause proteinuria, such as multiple myeloma and diabetes mellitus, that are not marked by hypoalbuminemia. A Creatinine ClearanceCR test will also be used to determine the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), or the rate at which blood flows through the glomerulus. Creatinine is a byproduct of creatine metabolism that will be released as waste in urine, so it is a good benchmark for estimating how much fluid is being" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1116_22680", "title": "Recurrent proteinuria with graft dysfunction: a diagnostic and clinical conundrum.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The index case is a 45-year old male with unknown cause for native kidney disease, who received a kidney from his wife. Antithymocyte globulin (ATG) was used for induction, and tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil and prednisolone were prescribed for maintenance. His baseline serum creatinine was 0.9 mg/dl. Two years after the transplant, the patient developed 3+ proteinuria on routine urinalysis with stable graft function. His 24-hour urinary protein was 2.3 grams, serum albumin was 3.0 g/dl, and the total cholesterol was 251 mg/dl. The tacrolimus C0 levels were maintained between 6 and 8 ng/ml range. Allograft biopsy revealed diffuse thickening of glomerular basement membranes, with the immunofluorescence showing 2+ granular positivity along the loops for IgG and C3. Further, tissue staining for PLA2R and THD7A were both negative. Also, no donor-specific antibodies (DSA) were detected, and serum PLA2R antibody assay was also negative. The patient was managed conservatively with losartan 50 mg and atorvastatin 20 mg, with subsequent reports of proteinuria of 1.5-2.0 grams/day. After 52 months of renal transplant, the patient presented with a serum creatinine of 2.06 mg/dl and proteinuria of 6.8 grams/day. A repeat allograft biopsy revealed thickened glomerular basement membranes with spikes on silver staining. (Figure 1a) Further, immunofluorescence studies showed 2+-3+ granular positivity for IgG, C3, with the added findings of C4d positivity on the peritubular capillaries and tissue PLA2R positivity on the basement membranes by immunohistochemistry. (Figures 1b-d) The biopsy also revealed peritubular capillaritis and acute tubular injury. Antibodies to donor Class II (HLA DR) were positive with a mean fluorescence intensity (MFI) of 6885, but serum PLA2R antibodies remained negative. Based on these findings, the patient was treated with pulse methylprednisolone, 5 sessions of plasma exchange at 40 ml/kg with 5% human albumin and fresh frozen plasma replacement, intravenous immunoglobulin (at 100 mg/kg × 5) and rituximab (two doses of 1 g 2 weeks apart). Subsequently, the serum creatinine settled to 1.6 mg/dl, and DSA reduced to &lt; 500 MFI. Three months after discharge, the serum creatinine is 1.5 mg/dl, 24-hour urine protein is 982 mg/day and follow-up DSA remains negative." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1104_2963", "title": "Recurrent proteinuria with graft dysfunction: a diagnostic and clinical conundrum.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The index case is a 45-year old male with unknown cause for native kidney disease, who received a kidney from his wife. Antithymocyte globulin (ATG) was used for induction, and tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil and prednisolone were prescribed for maintenance. His baseline serum creatinine was 0.9 mg/dl. Two years after the transplant, the patient developed 3+ proteinuria on routine urinalysis with stable graft function. His 24-hour urinary protein was 2.3 grams, serum albumin was 3.0 g/dl, and the total cholesterol was 251 mg/dl. The tacrolimus C0 levels were maintained between 6 and 8 ng/ml range. Allograft biopsy revealed diffuse thickening of glomerular basement membranes, with the immunofluorescence showing 2+ granular positivity along the loops for IgG and C3. Further, tissue staining for PLA2R and THD7A were both negative. Also, no donor-specific antibodies (DSA) were detected, and serum PLA2R antibody assay was also negative. The patient was managed conservatively with losartan 50 mg and atorvastatin 20 mg, with subsequent reports of proteinuria of 1.5-2.0 grams/day. After 52 months of renal transplant, the patient presented with a serum creatinine of 2.06 mg/dl and proteinuria of 6.8 grams/day. A repeat allograft biopsy revealed thickened glomerular basement membranes with spikes on silver staining. (Figure 1a) Further, immunofluorescence studies showed 2+-3+ granular positivity for IgG, C3, with the added findings of C4d positivity on the peritubular capillaries and tissue PLA2R positivity on the basement membranes by immunohistochemistry. (Figures 1b-d) The biopsy also revealed peritubular capillaritis and acute tubular injury. Antibodies to donor Class II (HLA DR) were positive with a mean fluorescence intensity (MFI) of 6885, but serum PLA2R antibodies remained negative. Based on these findings, the patient was treated with pulse methylprednisolone, 5 sessions of plasma exchange at 40 ml/kg with 5% human albumin and fresh frozen plasma replacement, intravenous immunoglobulin (at 100 mg/kg × 5) and rituximab (two doses of 1 g 2 weeks apart). Subsequently, the serum creatinine settled to 1.6 mg/dl, and DSA reduced to &lt; 500 MFI. Three months after discharge, the serum creatinine is 1.5 mg/dl, 24-hour urine protein is 982 mg/day and follow-up DSA remains negative." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0497_11156", "title": "[Steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome in IgA nephropathy].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A 46-year-old male, smoker of half a packet a day and an alcohol intake of 80 grams a day, with an unremarkable medical history, was referred to our service in the year 1988 for a study of nephrotic syndrome. He presented normal renal function, without either microhematuria nor hypertension. In blood analysis an albuminemia of 10 g/l and proteinuria of 22 g/d was observed. A first renal biopsy was carried out which indicated minimal change disease. Steroid treatment was started, as a result the nephrotic syndrome disappeared and the blood analysis normalized. Later he had 4 new outbreaks, all of them steroid-responsive. In 1992 a second renal biopsy was performed after the fourth outbreak and the presence of mild renal failure, that this time indicated a IgA nephropathy. Steroid treatment was tried again, and this time cyclophosphamide was added to try to reduce steroid doses. This result in normalization of renal function and decrease of proteinuria to 2 g/d. The patient remained stable until 1996 when the fifth outbreak occurred, again with mild renal failure and proteinuria in nephrotic range. Therefore a third renal biopsy was performed, that confirmed the presence of IgA nephropathy, but now with signs of histological progression of the disease. Following this, he presented five outbreaks in 3 years, all of them steroid-responsive, with decrease of proteinuria although without renal function normalization. In the year 2000, at his tenth outbreak of nephrotic syndrome it was decided to add cyclosporine to the steroid treatment, achieving the stability of the patient, without further outbreaks until now, with proteinuria of 1.6 g/d and C. creat. 59 ml/min." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1095_6422", "title": "Lipoprotein glomerulopathy associated with the Osaka/Kurashiki APOE variant: two cases identified in Latin America.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Lipoprotein glomerulopathy (LPG) is a rare autosomal dominant disease caused by mutations in APOE, the gene which encodes apolipoprotein E. LPG mainly affects Asian individuals, however occasional cases have also been described in Americans and Europeans. Herein we report two unrelated Brazilian patients with LPG in whom genetic analyses revealed the APOE-Osaka/Kurashiki variant. CASE PRESENTATION - CASE 1: A 29-year-old Caucasian male sought medical attention with complaints of face swelling and foamy urine for the last 3 months. He denied a family history of kidney disease, consanguinity, or Asian ancestry. His tests showed proteinuria of 12.5 g/24 h, hematuria, serum creatinine 0.94 mg/dL, albumin 2.3 g/dl, total cholesterol 284 mg/dL, LDL 200 mg/dL, triglycerides 175 mg/dL, and negative screening for secondary causes of glomerulopathy. A kidney biopsy revealed intraluminal, laminated deposits of hyaline material in glomerular capillaries consistent with lipoprotein thrombi. These findings were confirmed by electron microscopy, establishing the diagnosis of LPG. His apolipoprotein E serum level was 72 mg/dL and genetic analysis revealed the APOE pathogenic variant c.527G &gt; C, p.Arg176Pro in heterozygosis, known as the Osaka/Kurashiki mutation and positioned nearby the LDL receptor binding site. CASE 2: A 34-year-old Caucasian man sought medical assessment for renal dysfunction and hypertension. He reported intermittent episodes of lower-limb edema for 3 years and a family history of kidney disease, but denied Asian ancestry. Laboratorial tests showed BUN 99 mg/dL, creatinine 10.7 mg/dL, total cholesterol 155 mg/dL, LDL 79 mg/dL, triglycerides 277 mg/dL, albumin 3.1 g/dL, proteinuria 2.7 g/24 h, and negative screening for secondary causes of glomerulopathy. His kidney biopsy was consistent with advanced chronic nephropathy secondary to LPG. A genetic analysis also revealed the Osaka/Kurashiki variant. He was transplanted a year ago, displaying no signs of disease relapse. We report two unrelated cases of Brazilian patients with a diagnosis of lipoprotein glomerulopathy whose genetic assessment identified the APOE-Osaka/Kurashiki pathogenic variant, previously only described in eastern Asians. While this is the second report of LPG in Latin America, the identification of two unrelated cases by our medical team raises the possibility that LPG may be less rare in this part of the world than currently thought, and should definitely be considered when nephrotic syndrome is associated with suggestive kidney biopsy findings." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0061_9782", "title": "[Value of renal biopsy in the elderly. 32 cases].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Between November 1985 and November 1989, percutaneous renal biopsy was performed in 32 patients aged 75 or more (mean age 78). The major clinical presentations were nephrotic syndrome in 22 patients, variable amounts of proteinuria in 6 patients and unexplained severe renal insufficiency in 4 patients. In 27 cases the histological study revealed a glomerular disease. Minimal change disease (7 cases), membranous nephropathy (6 cases), amyloidosis (5 cases) and crescentic glomerulonephritis were the most frequent types. The rate of complications after biopsy was low (3 percent) with only one retroperitoneal hematoma. Owing to the atypical renal presentation of some glomerulopathies in the elderly, renal biopsy was useful to differentiate between minimal change disease, membranous nephropathy and amyloidosis. In 4 patients with minimal change disease, remission of nephrotic syndrome was obtained with corticosteroids. Moreover renal biopsy allowed to detect underlying diseases and gave indications to initiate specific therapy particularly in crescentic glomerulonephritis the outcome of which remained unfavourable. It is concluded that, even in elderly, renal biopsy is a valuable and safe diagnostic tool to obtain a rapid diagnosis, particularly in glomerular diseases, leading to a biopsy-guided therapy. It must therefore have the same indications as in younger adults with glomerular syndrome or rapidly progressive renal insufficiency." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0076_8955", "title": "[A case of renal cell carcinoma associated with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 74-year-old man was admitted to our hospital because of a treatment for his right renal tumor. The abdominal CT scanning revealed a mass in the right kidney, and a right selective renal arteriography demonstrated a hypervascular tumor. On admission, urinalysis revealed proteinuria (3-4 g/day) and microscopic hematuria, and serum electrolytes were normal. Serum creatinine and urea nitrogen levels were 1.6 mg/dl and 30 mg/dl, respectively. A percutaneous right renal biopsy specimens showed crescentic glomerulonephritis. Direct immunofluorescence studies showed strong linear staining for IgG and IgA along the glomerular capillary walls. Electron microscopy showed increased mesangial matrix and swollen epithelial cells, but no dense deposits in the para-mesangial area and in the glomerular basement membrane. The patient underwent right radical nephrectomy. Histologic examination of the resected specimen revealed renal cell carcinoma. Postoperatively, he developed rapidly progressive renal failure and the renal function could not be recovered. Using the indirect immunofluorescence technique, we could not confirm the presence of a serum anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody, although the examination could not be carried out until the initiation of hemodialysis therapy. Some cases of glomerulopathies associated with renal cell carcinoma were previously reported, but the case of crescentic glomerulonephritis was very rare." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0397_17234", "title": "Diabetic nephropathy with interstitial nephritis presenting with a false-positive anti-GBM antibody.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A 56-year-old male with DM and HTN presented with flank pain and nausea. Review of systems was negative, physical examination was notable for mild hypovolemia and laboratory revealed BUN 51 mg/dl, creatinine (Cr) 5.1 mg/dl (baseline 1.5), Westergren ESR 122 mm/h, fractional excretion of sodium 0.2% and UA positive for blood and protein. Despite volume resuscitation the Cr continued to rise. Urine sediment analysis revealed granular casts, renal tubular epithelial cells and a negative Hansel's stain. Hemodialysis was initiated with Cr 13.7 mg/ dl for dyspnea and dysgeusia. Subsequent laboratory data revealed 2 separate positive anti-GBM antibody titers and prednisone therapy was initiated. Renal biopsy was performed for further diagnostic, therapeutic and prognostic information and demonstrated interstitial nephritis with linear IgG and albumin deposition consistent with diabetic nephropathy. Follow-up antibody titers were negative. prednisone was discontinued and Cr stabilized with conservative therapy. Anti-GBM antibody disease is characterized by circulating IgG antibodies directed against the glomerular basement membrane, specifically the alpha-3 (IV) collagen chain. Anti-GBM nephritis is a rapidly progressive, isolated glomerulonephritis in association with circulating anti-GBM antibodies. A positive immunofluorescence (IF) test is considered diagnostic in the appropriate clinical setting. Therapies include immunosuppressive agents to suppress new antibody production and plasmapheresis to eliminate circulating antibodies. Anti-GBM antibody is not rapidly cleared by steroid therapy and the recovery of renal function is rare if initiation Cr is greater than 7 mg/dl. This case demonstrates that the current ELISA for alpha-3 (IV) collagen is not pathognomonic for anti-GBM nephritis and that renal biopsy with IF for IgG and albumin may be indicated to prevent administration of potentially toxic treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1121_6649", "title": "Anti-glomerular Basement Membrane Disease: A Rare Case Report of Changing Clinical Phenotype and Atypicalities.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A man in his late 20s, a smoker, presented with nephrotic-range proteinuria and mild renal failure. He had no macroscopic hematuria or decreased urine output. Kidney biopsy was done which revealed a surprising diagnosis of anti-glomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) disease. He was started on intravenous methylprednisolone, plasma exchanges, and cyclophosphamide. His anti-GBM antibody was, however, weak positive. After five sessions of plasma exchange, he was discharged with a negative anti-GBM antibody. The patient defaulted drugs and presented with rapidly progressive renal failure and hemoptysis after 1½ months. The patient was started on intravenous methylprednisolone, hemodialysis, plasma exchanges, and cyclophosphamide. Repeat biopsy after stabilization was suggestive of anti-GBM disease with fibrocellular crescents. Anti-GBM antibody was negative. Although the patient presented with an estimated glomerular filtration rate of 10 mL/min/1.73 m<sup2</sup and fibrocellular crescents, the patient improved with treatment and was discharged with a serum creatinine of 2.2 mg/dL. This patient had two presentations: one with nephrotic-range proteinuria and mild renal failure, revealing anti-GBM disease on biopsy, and the second with rapidly progressing renal failure which improved with treatment. There were many atypical features in his presentation. Nonabstinence from smoking might be a triggering factor for the second episode. The pathological antibodies may be against a nonconventional epitope or poorly complement fixing, resulting in negative anti-GBM antibody and good recovery in spite of severe renal failure." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1010_19739", "title": "[Criteria to indicate kidney biopsy in type 2 diabetic patients with proteinuria: Survey among French nephrologists].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Diabetic nephropathy is usually a presumptive diagnosis based on clinical and biological evidence. Renal biopsies are performed in diabetic patients with atypical findings evoking non-diabetic renal disease who could benefit from specific therapies. French speaking nephrologists were asked which criteria they retain to indicate renal biopsy in patients with type 2 diabetes and albuminuria&gt;0.5g/day or equivalent through an online anonymous questionnaire. Among the suggested criteria were absence of diabetic retinopathy, hematuria, rapid decrease in GFR, short diabetes duration or rapid raise of proteinuria. 188 people answered the poll among whom interns (12%), fellows (13%), university hospital practitioners (26%), general hospital practitioners (24%), practitioners in a non-profit organization (13%), practitioners on private activity (10%), multi-modal practitioners (3%) and people without clinical activity (2%). Increasing proteinuria was retained as an indication criterion for renal biopsy by 51% of respondents, nephrotic syndrome by 56% of respondents, absence of diabetic retinopathy by 57% of respondents, short diabetes duration by 65% of respondents, rapid GFR decline by 75% of respondents and hematuria by 78% of respondents. These data highlight the high diversity of opinions on this topic and their discrepancies with guidelines and current literature regarding the association between non-diabetic renal disease and clinical and biological features. The lack of adhesion of nephrologists to guidelines was especially noteworthy regarding the absence of diabetic retinopathy. These results emphasize the need for studies focusing on biopsy indication criteria in patients with type 2 diabetes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0906_12691", "title": "Recurrent IgA nephropathy complicated with Crohn's disease after renal transplantation.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "A 27-year-old man was diagnosed with IgA nephropathy and Crohn's disease. He had been diagnosed with proteinuria and hematuria since he was 20 years old. Diarrhea had been a continuing problem during the past 5 months. Neither corticosteroid therapy nor tonsillectomy was performed. Hemodialysis was required at age of 30, while the symptoms of Crohn's disease were ameliorated by an elemental diet. He received a renal transplant from his mother 4 months after starting dialysis therapy. The initial immunosuppression therapy consisted of methylprednisolone, mycofenolate mofetil, cyclosporine, and basiliximab. Eight months after transplantation, proteinuria and hematuria appeared and serum creatinine was 1.4 mg/dL. Relapse of IgA nephropathy was confirmed by the one-year protocol biopsy. He had suffered from tonsillitis at 32 months after the transplantation. Urinary protein increased to 3 g/day and serum creatinine was elevated to 2.04 mg/dL. Renal biopsy was performed 2 weeks after the urinary findings were aggravated. The cellular crescents constituted 36 % of the glomeruli. The findings of rejection were not confirmed in both biopsies. Tonsillectomy was performed thereafter. No additional immunosuppressive therapy was added. Proteinuria and hematuria disappeared at 4 and 20 months, respectively, after tonsillectomy, even when the symptoms of Crohn's disease worsened 69 months and 89 months after transplantation. A renal biopsy was performed 101 months after transplantation. Although IgA in the mesangium area was confirmed by immunohistochemical staining, no active lesion was seen. Tonsillectomy along with immunosuppressants for the graft might be an effective treatment for some patients with active recurrent IgA nephropathy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0715_22677", "title": "A case of minimal change nephrotic syndrome with immunoglobulin A nephropathy transitioned to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A 50-year-old woman with a 1-month history of lower extremity edema and a 5 kg weight increase was admitted to our hospital with suspected nephrotic syndrome in October 1999. Urine protein level was 3.5 g per day, 10-15 erythrocytes in urine per high-power field, and serum albumin level 2.5 g/dl. Furthermore, an accumulation of pleural effusion was confirmed by chest X-ray. The results of a renal biopsy indicated slight mesangial proliferation in the glomeruli by light microscopy, and an immunofluorescence study confirmed the deposition of immunoglobulin (Ig) A and C3 in the mesangial area. Diffuse attenuation of foot processes and dense deposits in the mesangial area were observed by electron microscopy. Treatment with 40 mg/day of prednisolone was effective, and proteinuria was negative 1 month later. Because of this course, we diagnosed minimal change nephrotic syndrome complicated by mild-proliferative IgA nephropathy. In November 2000, there was a relapse of nephrotic syndrome, which was believed to be induced by an influenza vaccination, but response to increased steroid treatment was favorable, and proteinuria disappeared on day 13 of steroid increase. A second relapse in May 2001, showed steroid resistance with renal insufficiency, and an increase in the selectivity index to 0.195. Light microscopy revealed focal sclerotic lesions of the glomeruli, and an immunofluorescence study revealed attenuation of mesangial IgA and C3 deposition. These findings led to the diagnosis that minimal change nephrotic syndrome had transitioned to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, whereby mesangial IgA deposition was reduced by immunosuppressive treatment. Subsequently, her renal function gradually worsened to the point of end-stage renal failure by 27 months after the second relapse of nephrotic syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1137_14865", "title": "A Case of Membranous Nephropathy Hypothesized to be Associated With COVID-19 Vaccine.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A 56-year-old male patient with a medical history of essential hypertension was referred to the emergency room after he was found to have a serum creatinine level of 13 mg/dL at his primary care physician's office. The patient reported that he had developed a coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19)-like infection six months prior that was not confirmed. Two months later, he started to notice dyspnea on exertion and bilateral lower limb swelling and was started on furosemide. He received the first dose of the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine a month before the presentation but did not receive the second dose. Subsequently, his lower limb swelling and exertional dyspnea started worsening. He denied any new medication, dysuria, oliguria, hematuria, fever, or any other symptoms. Initial evaluation was consistent with kidney failure. Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia were noted, along with medical renal disease on renal ultrasound. Eosinophils and nephrotic-range proteinuria were found in the urine. His serum phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) antibodies were positive. A renal biopsy showed membranous glomerulonephritis with moderate segmental sclerosis, as well as tubulointerstitial fibrosis with neutrophils, consistent with acute interstitial nephritis. Positive staining for PLA2R in the glomerular deposits suggested primary membranous nephropathy (MN). He was treated with prednisone first, and when the kidney biopsy was conclusive for membranous glomerulopathy, he was started on rituximab. On admission, he received hemodialysis intermittently, but this was stopped a month after discharge as his renal function normalized. Recently, there have been numerous cases reported with new onset of glomerular disease after receiving the COVID-19 vaccine. Further studies of vaccinated patients are needed to determine whether the severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 virus vaccination is associated with a higher risk of MN and to identify potential predisposing factors and mechanisms of kidney injury in patients in whom it occurs." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 269 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 46 ] ], "text": "The woman is 23 years old and is pissed off. She needs support and a lot of emotional education to curb her impulsivity... she feels misunderstood... maybe she is right... The issue is that she cannot stand rejection and has self-injurious gestures. The diagnosis is 1." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 270, 356 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 46, 63 ] ], "text": "3, 4 and 5 are not even close, there is no clinical picture described in the question." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 270, 356 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 46, 63 ] ], "text": "3, 4 and 5 are not even close, there is no clinical picture described in the question." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 270, 356 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 46, 63 ] ], "text": "3, 4 and 5 are not even close, there is no clinical picture described in the question." } }

{ "1": "Borderline personality disorder.", "2": "Histrionic personality disorder.", "3": "Dysthymia.", "4": "Dissociative disorder.", "5": "Depersonalization disorder." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0647_23136", "title": "[A case of depression whose symptoms cured by setting her psychological base on the transcendent level].", "score": 0.015141242937853107, "content": "We report the case of a female in her 40s diagnosed with depression. She was raised by an eccentric father, suspected of having pervasive developmental disorder, and a dominant mother. After graduating from high school, she worked as a clerk in a company for twenty years or so; however, a change in her work environment made her fall into a depressive state. Her worsening depression caused her impulsive resignation and disappearance for about four months. She spent the duration of her disappearance traveling the country, with no dissociative episodes. After returning, she received treatment for depression as an inpatient for about four months. During the first month of hospitalization, she mainly complained of a depressive mood and anxiety over the prognosis of her disorder, while she made scarcely any progress in introspection. In the second month, she gradually advanced with introspective work, but, as her introspection progressed, her depressive mood became aggravated. The therapist avoided intervention to modify her cognition, and told her the following: \"it is better not to persist in managing your depressive mood itself because curing depression does not mean resolving the superficial depressive mood, but to achieve a condition not directly influenced by mood.\" Then, at the beginning of the third month, she became aware of \"the presence of God\" and, at the same time, her depressive mood greatly improved. She extended her sympathy to her mother with her unfortunate life history, and expected her mother to change as she herself had experienced, but, disappointed by her mother, she experienced anxiety attacks and came to realize her own internal rage against significant persons in her life including her mother. After \"the Great being\" experience, she, who had formerly attended Christian church for a short time, started to read the Bible, but she still hesitated about committing herself to \"religious following.\" One day during the last month of hospitalization, as she prayed to God for healing when she read a part in the Bible about a woman suffering from a hemorrhage for twelve years who touched the hem of Jesus' garment and was healed immediately (Matthew 9:20-22 and Luke 8:43-48), the patient suddenly experienced \"the salvation of God\" and realized what trust really meant. Through the experience, her clinical problems became totally cured, and the therapy concluded with her discharge from hospital. Several months later, she sent the therapist a letter including the following message: \"I am grateful to the Lord for salvation from anxiety and irritation, but to the therapist for helping me realize it.\" This clinical course can be understood based on the patient's clinical problems (e.g., despair, anxiety, and depression), arising from the breakdown of her efforts to maintain stability by founding her psychological base on her feelings of omnipotence, avoiding facing her internal negative psychological factors (e.g., rage), and these were automatically resolved when her psychological base was switched to the transcendent level through \"the Great being\" experience and \"the salvation of God.\" Such a sudden, marked improvement resembles what Miller and C'de Baca reported as \"quantum change,\" of which the characteristics are vividness, surprise, benevolence, and permanence. The therapist paid attention to maintain a constant psychological distance from the patient, not persisting in modifying her cognition, with the transcendent level being the basis for the entire therapy. This stance of the therapist itself was considered to prompt her transcendence and bring about her eventual cure. This clinical course seemed to be highly suggestive of a psychotherapeutic mechanism, indicating the close relationship between the transcendent level and basic trust." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0597_3186", "title": "[Foreign accent syndrome in a case of dissociative (conversion) disorder].", "score": 0.01107986501687289, "content": "Psychiatric symptoms are often manifested in verbal expression. Generally, the contents of such expression are pathological. The formal abnormalities of speech are also observed in various mental disorders, as far as quantitative abnormalities are concerned. However, disturbance of intonation, namely disprosody, is more commonly observed in organic disorders of the brain. When the accent of words and the intonation of sentences changes from that of a native speaker, the speech sounds like the broken language of untrained foreigners. Such foreign accent syndrome is usually an issue of neuropsychology. In this paper, the authors report a case of foreign accent syndrome without organic brain syndrome. The patient was a 44-year-old woman, who developed panic disorder about year after her father's death. Then she developed aphonia. After aphonia was resolved, she began to speak haltingly as if a Chinese woman was trying to speak Japanese. Organic brain diseases were subsequently excluded. She had complicated familial conflicts, including a divorce from a violent and faithless husband, interpersonal difficulties with her husband's parents, and her pubertal daughter. We diagnosed her with dissociative (conversion) disorder of ICD-10. Our patient is clinically interesting, because case reports of dysprosody are unusual and often involve organic brain diseases. We suppose that foreign accent syndrome in our patient is a variant of aphonia, and the patient unconsciously assigned the symptom two ambivalent rolls: to snow that she cannot speak well, and to express her meaning. In addition, she had a Chinese-speaking aunt-in-law who was her ideal role model. We surmise that her symptom signifies identification with her aunt-in-law." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en036_10192", "title": "Edmund Kemper", "score": 0.010910962429233145, "content": "Kemper had a close relationship with his father and was devastated when his parents separated in 1957, causing him to be raised by Clarnell in Helena, Montana. He had a severely dysfunctional relationship with his mother, a neurotic, domineering alcoholic who frequently belittled, humiliated, and abused him. Clarnell often made her son sleep in a locked basement because she feared that he would harm his sisters, regularly mocked him for his large size—he stood by the age of 15—and derided him as \"a real weirdo.\" She also refused to show him affection out of fear that she would \"turn him gay\" and told the young Kemper that he reminded her of his father and that no woman would ever love him. Kemper later described her as a \"sick angry woman,\" and it has been postulated that she suffered from borderline personality disorder." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0477_1710", "title": "[A case report of factitious disorder with hallucinations].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Although factitious disorder has been known for a long time, its diagnosis and treatment continue to be a problem. It is an uncommon condition associated with considerable morbidity and health care expenditure. We present a case of factitious disorder with hallucinations. A 37 year-old single woman has had auditory and olfactory hallucinations for six years. She had been diagnosed with schizophrenia, hospitalized for a short term, taking classical antipsychotic drugs for years. She has been performing her job as a teacher and living with her family. A suitable dose of atypical antipsychotic drugs was administered at a convenient time for her illness (Psychotic Disorder NOS) in psychiatric outpatient clinic of Kocaeli University. She was admitted to inpatient clinic twice in order to allow a clear diagnosis to be made. Psychotic disorder and temporal lobe epilepsy were ruled out. Borderline and histrionic personality traits were determined. Her complaints were unchanged over the course of treatment taking three years. She later started to come into the emergency department with anxiety symptoms, conversion like fits and suicide attempts; hospitalized for these complaints in another hospital. She was diagnosed with factitious disorder because of her unchanged complaints, her adding new complaints to the old ones, her complaints unrelated to psychosocial stressors, her ambitions to come to hospital, her increasing hospital dependence and having no prominent secondary gain. This case emphasizes the need for the careful observation of patients to prevent unnecessary investigations at the diagnosis and treatment stage and to establish a specific management strategy for the patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en223_21466", "title": "Michael Shepherd (psychiatrist)", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Clinician Shepherd's noted clinical study on the symptom of morbid jealousy early in his career led him to the conclusion that a medical opinion is of most value when the inter-personal and social aspects of a case are as closely understood as the narrower issue of diagnosis. He went on to apply these precepts to the full range of psychiatric disorders. Despite the value he gained from this study, Shepherd immediately became less concerned with the minutiae of clinical or experimental research and left the spadework to his team of research workers. As a clinician, Shepherd's style has been described as \"unusual\". He continued to be involved in clinical work until his retirement, although day-to-day management of his patients was delegated. His detachment was described as \"Olympian\" and was captured by a former patient in the lines of her book thus:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0838_15454", "title": "Foreign bodies in the abdomen: self-harm and personality disorders.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 52-year-old woman presented to the accident and emergency department 5 h after deliberately stabbing herself with two pens through her midline laparotomy scar. Her medical history included an emotionally unstable (borderline) personality disorder and she was currently an inpatient in a psychiatric hospital. She had multiple accident and emergency attendances with previous episodes of self-harm. Clinical examination revealed evidence of trauma to her midline laparotomy scar with congealed blood covering the puncture site. Her abdomen was soft and non-tender on palpation. A chest radiograph revealed no air beneath her diaphragm and her abdominal radiograph identified a radiopacity in her upper right abdomen and dilated loops of small bowel. CT of the abdomen and pelvis confirmed two pens, with the lower pen tip reaching the pancreas. A midline laparotomy was performed and both foreign bodies were extricated unremarkably. The patient's postoperative recovery was uneventful. The second case involves a 22-year-old woman, a psychiatric hospital resident, presenting to the accident and emergency department 5 h after deliberately inserting the metal nib and inner plastic ink containing tube of a pen through her umbilicus. Her medical history included an emotionally unstable (borderline) personality disorder and paranoid schizophrenia. She had multiple accident and emergency department attendances with previous episodes of self-harm. Clinical examination revealed a soft, non-tender abdomen. Her chest radiograph was unremarkable and her abdominal radiograph identified a radiopaque foreign body at the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. CT of the abdomen and pelvis confirmed a metallic foreign body in the small bowel mesentery. An exploratory laparotomy converted to a midline laparotomy was performed and the foreign body was extricated. The patient's postoperative recovery was uneventful." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en462_11175", "title": "Documentaries and minor subjects of the Thanhouser Company", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The next quarter-reel comedy was A Husband's Jealous Wife and it was split with The Convict. Released on September 23, 1910, the film is also known by the alternative title, The Hero's Jealous Wife. The synopsis of the film was published in The Moving Picture World and it states, \"John Boden, a young businessman, has a very jealous wife. If he pays the slightest attention to any other woman it arouses her anger. Boden, while not at all gay, is gallant, and finds that his life is rapidly becoming a burden. He is particularly upset when his wife discharges his British stenographer and hires a woman who is principally remarkable for her homeliness. On several occasions, Boden proves that he is of the stuff of which heroes are made, but each time his jealous wife spoils things for him. Much to his surprise he discovers that the homely Susie is his friend, and believes that he is ill-treated. Finally Boden decides that life at home is impossible, and he elopes with Susie, much to the" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1141_20355", "title": "Letter to the Editor: Depression As The First Symptom Of Frontal Lobe Grade 2 Malignant Glioma.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Dear Editor, Next to focal neurological symptoms, epileptic seizures and head aches, brain tumors can less frequently bring about cognitive changes, slowed speech, difficulty sustaining mental functioning and psychiatric symptoms of personality changes and. loss of interest in daily activities, these symptoms may be evaluated as anxiety or depression. Depression is known to be a complication of brain tumours and may sometimes be seen after the presentation of neurological symptoms linked to brain tumours, and sometimes after tumor treatment (Oğuz et al. 2005, Litofsky et al. 2004, Moise and Madhusoodanan 2006, Oreskovic M et al. 2007, Rooney A et al. 2010). The dorsolateral prefrontal, orbitofrontal and medial frontal circuits constitute the three subcortical neuronal circuits in the frontal cortex. The dorsolateral prefrontal circuit is associated with planning and operational functions and lesions on it may give rise to apathy, abulia, perseveration, personality changes and planning disorder. Lesions involving the orbitofrontal circuit, which is associated with response suppression and disinhibition, may involve emotional lability and memory problems. Whereas lesions affecting the right orbitofrontal circuit give rise to elevated mood, lesions on the left orbitofrontal circuit lead to depressed mood. In cases with medial frontal circuit involvement, akinetic mutism may result from lesions in the superior medial region and anteroretrograde amnesia and confabulation are observed with lesions in the inferior medial region (Tosun et al. 2016, Chirchiglia 2018). A diagnosis of psychiatric disorder may be given during the first examination of patieants with primary brain tumours, especially if localized in the frontal lobe. Thorough history taking and physical examination are necessary for early diagnosis. The case reported here concerns a 29-year-old university graduate female patient, living with her partner and children, who consulted the clinic with complaints of tendency to frequent crying, anhedonia, having difficulty with speech fluency, forgetfulness and distractedness that had presented suddenly, 2 months previously, without any causative stressor. In her mental status examination, she appeared having normal self-care with appearance at her actual age. She was fully conscious and oriented, not willing to cooperate with the interview, had distinct difficulty in maintaining attention and with fluency of speech. Her mood was depressive. She described loss of appetite, fatigue and energy loss. Her difficulty in paying attention was pronounced. She did not have a history of psychotropic medication use or family history of psychiatric disease. She did not smoke or use alcohol or substance. After evaluating the clinical interview, a preliminary diagnosis of major depressive disorder was considered on the basis of the DSM-5 criteria. Routine blood tests were requested. Given the continuation of her complaints, the difficulty with fluent speech and the increase in tendency to sleep at the first week follow up, cranial MRI was planned. The MRI results showed on the right, in the frontal lobe a multilocular mass with precallosal extension, undiscernable margins with the right lateral aspect of the corpus callosum genu and dispersed cystic-necrotic areas with T2 signal series. The dimensions of the mass were nearly 5 x 3 cm causing a 1-cm right-to-left shift of the midline (Figure 1) DEPRESSION AS THE FIRST SYMPTOM OF FRONTAL LOBE GRADE 2 MALIGNANT GLIOMA 2 Türk Psikiyatri Dergisi 2 Turkish Journal of Psychiatry Letter to the Editor 143 144 The patient was referred for surgery with the preliminary diagnosis of high-grade glial tumour. Pathology results identified a grade 2 glioma. It was learned that radiotherapy sessions were begun after surgery. The patient did not have any symptoms of psychopathology during the 2 monthly psychiatric interviews made after surgery. Brain tumours generally indicate their presence with headache, seizures and other neurological symptoms and very rarely with depression as seen in the case of our patient. It should be kept in mind that atypical psychiatric symptoms may have an underlying organic lesion and subtle neurological symptoms should be investigated in detail. A recent meta-analysis on 37 observational studies determined a 21.7% prevalence of depression in a total of 4518 patients with intracranial tumours. Comorbidity of depression with brain tumor was demonstrated to worsen the quality of life, increase suicidal risk and lower the chance of survival (Huang et al. 2017). The possibility of psychiatric symptoms being the clinical clues for brain cancer was noted and the necessity of neuroimaging tests in cases of recent-onset psychosis or mood disorder symptoms, atypical personality changes and anorexia without body dysmorphic disorder was emphasized (Madhusoodanan et al. 2015). Loss of interest, tendency to frequent weeping, introversion and anhedonia were the sole complaints in the case discussed here. The increase in psychomotor retardation and slowing down of movements at the very first weekly control follow up necessitated neuroimaging. Despite the reports in the literature on the frequent association of unpreventable excessive behavior, disinhibition and irritability with right frontal injury and lesions (Okumuş and Hocaoğlu 2018), depression was the dominant symptom in the case presented here. There are differences between primary major depression and depression presenting with underlying somatic diseases which is known to occur at later ages (Rouchell et al. 2002). However, our patient was aged 29 years. Also, cases of depression due to somatic disease are less associated with family history of depression and suicidal ideation and attempts, while cognitive symptoms come to the foreground during mental status examination. (Sertöz and Mete 2004, Rouchell et al. 2002). Our patient did not have suicidal ideation or attempts, or a family history of depression. In apathy, which may be explained as emotional blunting, indifference or detachment from the external world, targeted behavior is also reduced next to the lack of emotional expression. The individual discussed here was learned not to sit at the table or change the television channel unless reminded to do so. When the reason was asked, she could not think of one. The reduction in emotional expression accompanies reduced insight, abulia and lack of empathy (Sözeri Varma et al. 2019). In depression, apathy is defined as 'sorrowless depression'. Our patient cried but had very blunted mimics and gestures. She explained that she could not help weeping even at times when she did not feel internally distressed. The seriousness of apathy, as a symptom difficult to differentiate from depression, is still not understood. Neuroimaging Figure 1- Cranial MRI of the patient 145 Received: 16.08.2020, Accepted: 04.12.2020, Available Online Date: 05.10.2021 1MD., Antalya Kepez State Hospital, Department of Psychiatry, Antalya, 2MD., Ordu University Training and Research Hospital, Department of Psychiatry, Ordu, Turkey e-mail: bosbora@yahoo.com https://doi.org/10.5080/u25957 studies indicate apathy to be a reflect of impaired frontal-subcortical circuits and the functional disorder of the connections between the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and the basal ganglia (Chase 2011). Comparison of 45 individuals with depression due to aging and 43 healthy individuals showed apathy to be associated with fronto-limbic gray and white matter abnormalities which continued after antidepressant treatment. The structural anomalies of the posterior subgenual cingulate gyrus and the uncinate fasciculus were discussed (Yuen 2014). The case discussed here is presented to emphasize the importance of brain imaging methods and detailed investigation of atypical symptoms for diagnostic approaches to psychiatric disorders. Especially, complaints at young age of depression with psychomotor retardation, reduced fluency of speech and sudden onset withdrawal without stressors should be a warning of secondary depression. Yours sincerely... Şerif Bora Nazlı1 , Muhammet Sevindik2 REFERENCES Chase TN (2011) Apathy in Neuropsychiatric Disease: Diagnosis, Pathophysiology, and Treatment. Neurotox Res 19:266-78. Chirchiglia D (2018) Pseudodepression as an Anticipatory Symptom of Frontal Lobe Brain Tumors. Int J Depress Anxiety 1:007. Huang J, Zeng C, Xiao J et al (2017) Association between depression and brain tumor: a systematic review and meta-analysis. Oncotarget 8:94932-43. Litofsky NS, Farace E, Anderson F et al (2004) Depression in patients with high-grade glioma: Results of the glioma outcomes project. Neurosurgery 54:358-67. Madhusoodanan S, Ting MB, Farah T et al (2015) Pyschiatric aspects of brain tumors: A review. World J Psychiatry 5:273-85. Moise D, Madhusoodanan S (2006) Psychiatric symptoms associated with brain tumors: a clinical enigma. CNS Spectr 2006;11:28-31. Oğuz N, Ilnem C, Yener F (2005) Psychiatric symptoms in brain tumors: Case reports. Bulletin of Clinical Psychopharmacology 15:18-21. Hocaoğlu Ç, Okumuş B (2018) Psychiatric manifestations and brain tumor: A case report and brief review. The Medical Journal of Mustafa Kemal University 9:42-9. Oreskovic NM, Strother CG, Zibners LM (2007) An unusual case of a central nervous system tumor presenting as a chief complaint of depression. Pediatric Emergency Care 23:486-8. Rooney A, Carson A, Grant R (2011) Depression in cerebral glioma patients: a systematic review of observational studies. J Natl Cancer Inst103:61-76. Rouchell AM, Pounds R, Tierney JG (2002) Depression Textbook of Consultation-Liaison Psychiatry, 2nd Edition, Volume 1. MG Wise, JR Rundell (Ed), Washington DC American Psychiatric Publishing, Inc, p.307-38. Özen SÖ, Hayriye ME (2004) Bedensel Hastalıklarda Depresyon. Klinik Psikiyatri Ek 2:63-9. Sözeri Varma G , Bingöl C , Topak O et al (2019) Relationship of apathy with depressive symptom severity and cognitive functions in geriatric depression. Arch Neuropsychiatry 56:133-8. Yuen GS, Gunning FM, Woods E et al (2014) Neuroanatomical correlates of apathy in late-life depression and antidepressant treatment response. J Affect Disord 166:179-86." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0083_1204", "title": "[A rare and little-known method of elaborating the loss of the object in melancholia].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "The author presents a fully detailed report of the observation of two economically secure young women who were caught shop-lifting in a large department store; one woman was apprehended while suffering from depression, the other was caught just prior to the onset of a depressive episode. It is hoped that the details referred here may contribute to the insufficient data published on this subject up to the present. It is important to note that the thefts committed by these patients show the typical characteristics of \"impulsive behavior\". Furthermore, the impulse to steal may appear in various psychiatric conditions. Therefore, the author first considered the hypothesis that these thefts may have been computed during an acute dysthymic psychosis. Epilepsy was ruled out in both cases based on anamnestic data, electroencephalographic findings and, even after the administration of a pharmacological trigger, no epileptic symptoms appeared. These negative results prompted the author to propose a psychosemeiogenetic rapport between the depressive conditions and the thefts. Considering basic information regarding the psychodynamic of impulsive behavior in general, and that manifested in the course of melancholia in particular, the author confronts the problem of the psychosemeiogenesis of the impulsive to steal in the depressed patient. In order to understand this problem, the author proposes several interpretative hypotheses (equivalence of suicide or \"parasuicide\" according to Deshaies; attempt to give a concrete reason for the \"feeling of guilt\"; conduct to symbolically compensate the loss of the \"object\"). Following an in-depth, critical discussion, the author concludes that the \"parasuicide\" hypothesis is most accurate in the case of the first patient, whereas \"compensation\" more adequately explains the second. In conclusion, the interest that these cases present in the forensic medical sphere is also brought to light." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1148_3885", "title": "Case Report: Anomalous Experience in a Dissociative Identity and Borderline Personality Disorder.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Dissociative identity disorder, formerly called multiple personality disorder, is a rupture of identity characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states, described in some cultures as an experience of possession. The case of a 30-year-old woman with dissociative identity disorder and borderline personality disorder associated with a previous history of anomalous experience was reported. A 30-year-old woman who fulfilled the DSM-5 criteria for dissociative identity disorder and borderline personality disorder reported the presence of unusual sensory experiences (clairvoyance, premonitory dreams, clairaudience) since she was 5 years old. The patient told that for 12 months she presented episodes in which a \"second self\" took charge of her actions: she would then speak with a male voice, become aggressive, and require several people to contain her desire for destruction. After 3 months of religious follow-up, and accepting her unusual experiences and trance possessions as normal and natural, she had significant improvement. When approaching DID and BPD patients, it is necessary to observe the anomalous phenomena (in the light of) closer to their cultural and religious contexts, to promote better results in the treatment of their disorders, which has not been explored in the treatment guide." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en569_10119", "title": "I've Been Killing Slimes for 300 Years and Maxed Out My Level", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "An over 400-year-old blue dragon girl who first meets Azusa and her extended family while she and her flock attempt to disrupt the wedding of Laika's older sister, out of simple jealousy that her blunt demeanor drove away her own fiance. After Azusa single-handedly thrashes the aggressors, and a final act of aggression is stalled by Beelzebub, she is forced to sign a peace treaty between the red and blue dragons. Afterwards, as part of her peace obligations, she also (much to Laika's disgust) joins Azusa's troupe - the only alternative being to commit suicide due to her inbred discipline." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0009_1268", "title": "On the psychology of the aging woman. Depression in late mid-life: change or repetition? Another chance for working through.", "score": 0.0095797072117655, "content": "A woman of 58 came for psychotherapy for the first time suffering from a depressive reaction precipitated by two mid-life events: the marriage of her daughter and the realization that her own cherished marital dream would never be fulfilled. She had postponed coming to terms with the disappointments of her marriage as long as she had had other objects. When these objects were lost, and the distance she had maintained to handle her feelings was threatened, she sought help. There was suggestive evidence that a collusive marital system had sustained an unsatisfactory relationship for 35 years. Her husband was described as an obsessive-compulsive character. His traits were both needed, feared, and resented by the patient, representing the rejected part of herself and aspects of her hated grandmother. Mrs. A. had character traits and a developmental history which supported a diagnosis of primitive hysterical personality. (This type has been described by Zetzel (1968) as \"the so-called good hysteric.\") The paucity of object relationships in her life, her poor work habits, her inability to tolerate affects were striking. The patient had identified with a pathological mother in a family dominated by rejecting and depreciating attitudes. The patient's use of the defense mechanisms of splitting, projection, and withdrawal as ways of dealing with ambivalence significantly interfered with her self-object differentiation and her capacity for intense emotional or physical intimacy. She could only love men whom she rescued or protected, a pattern consistent with the fact that she could not relate to equals or superiors. Yet she was unable to draw on a good identification with a nuturing mother, so as to really be able to give. There was too much hurt and uncontrolled anger when she was in the superior position with the kind of man who could not meet her dependency needs. Feeling unprotected, she had married a \"strong\" man, who she expected would meet her narcissistic and dependency demands. He was inhibited and controlled and could neither need nor be needed by her during his active work life. This led to immediate disappointment of her conflicting conscious and unconscious expectations. She wanted him to be strong and ideal, yet to need her and never oppose her. Hence, there was a failure to establish a mature or satisfying marital relationship. She turned to her children for comfort, particularly her daughter, becoming depressed when her daughter married. She found gratification by staying busy tutoring and teaching underprivileged children. In the course of treatment her depressive symptoms disappeared. She felt hopeful, capable of being believed in, and able to cope as a result of the therapist's functioning as her uncritical ally. After she resumed living with her husband she began to acknowledge an ambivalence toward her cherished, confidante daughter and in some ways reversed her previous splitting of husband and daughter. The mean husband became a kindly saint and the darling daughter became a critical, spiteful queen..." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1099_6059", "title": "Importance of Trauma-Informed Practice in Evaluation of Children Diagnosed with Autism Spectrum Disorder.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "As part of a multidisciplinary adoption support clinic, Erin, a 5-year-old girl, adopted approximately 6 months before the clinic visit, presents for postadoption evaluation. Erin was born at full term. Her birth history was significant for reported maternal treatment for liver failure during pregnancy. Her previous medical history included hospitalization for a viral illness at age 2 months, recurrent ear infections, and a fractured forearm. Family history was significant for a maternal history of bipolar disorder, depression, anxiety, borderline personality disorder, and concern for substance abuse; a paternal history of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and depression; and full biological brother with a history of ADHD and oppositional defiant disorder. Erin and her brother lived with their parents until she was approximately 3 years old. At that time, there were concerns for poor hygiene, inconsistent medical care, poor school attendance for her brother, financial instability, and significant neglect. Erin was reportedly confined to her crib for hours at a time. She and her older brother were removed from the home because of concerns for significant neglect and placed into foster care. Approximately 3 months after foster placement, Erin underwent testing because of concerns for abnormal behaviors and possible developmental delays. Symptoms included poor sleep, repetitive behaviors such as head banging, delayed speech that primarily involved grunting, and lack of toilet training. She was hyperactive and aggressive and had poor caregiver attachment. On evaluation, she was small for age, poorly groomed, and easily distracted with poor eye contact and did not tolerate interactions with examiners. Neuropsychological testing consisted of symptom checklists and caregiver interview only because she did not tolerate diagnostic testing. She was diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder and global developmental delay with intellectual and language impairments. Over the following year, Erin was transitioned to a second foster family and was subsequently adopted. She received speech, occupational, and physical therapy, along with trauma-informed therapy. She made significant gains in multiple domains and was able to graduate from trauma-informed therapy after 1 year. On examination, Erin greets you with appropriate eye contact and reports that she is feeling \"good.\" She is verbal and interactive with her brother and parents. She looks to parents for support when asked to participate in the physical examination. She does not display any significant repetitive behaviors. Erin's parents are concerned that her initial diagnoses of autism spectrum disorder and global developmental delay do not accurately reflect her current level of functioning and are afraid she may have been misdiagnosed. How would you proceed with next steps to address these diagnoses?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0754_14202", "title": "Female same gender stalking: a brief review of the literature and case report.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "The authors analyze a rare case of female same gender stalking that came to their observation as forensic psychiatry experts. Despite previously only heterosexual experiences, the woman, who was 30 in 2002, had three intimate same gender relationships in succession from 2002 to 2009: she broke off with each woman in order to take up with another. When she separated from the third woman she began violent persecutory behavior against her, in the form of harassment coming under the heading of stalking, and was reported to the authorities. In treatment with SSRI since 2003 for an anxiety disorder with panic episodes, she had been taking the drugs irregularly during the stalking period. At the end of the third relationship, after she had violently attacked her girlfriend she was advised by her family to present to a Hospital center in Northern Italy. There, she was diagnosed with a \"Narcissistic Paranoid Personality Disorder\", and it was hypothesized that the SSRI she was taking could have induced hypo/manic episodes and disinhibition in the woman, who had previously been heterosexual. At this hospital, mood stabilizers were prescribed. The defending lawyer therefore applied for a forensic psychiatry assessment, claiming that the persecutory behavior against the third girlfriend was induced by taking SSRI. In Italy the penal code specifies the recognition of abolished or diminished liability for crimes if a correlation between the mental disease and the crime can be demonstrated, if the disease was in course at the time of the crime, and if the motives behind the crime and the disease can be shown to be linked. In short, if the crime can be shown to be a symptom of the disease. But the forensic psychiatry assessment demonstrated that despite the presence of some factors of a psychopathological nature, the motives underlying the harassment were attributable to the woman's existential history and personality structure rather than to psychopathological causes. She was therefore judged guilty of the crime of stalking and a plea for a reduced sentence was granted. In this case, the gender of the stalker and victim seemed to be irrelevant." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0876_17161", "title": "Trichotillomania: Bizzare Patern of Hair Loss at 11-Year-old Girl.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Trichotillomania (TTM) is defined by the Diagnostics and Statistic Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition (DMS-IV) as hair loss from a patient`s repetitive self-pulling of hair. The disorder is included under anxiety disorders because it shares some obsessive-compulsive features. Patients have the tendency towards feelings of unattractiveness, body dissatisfaction, and low self-esteem (1,2). It is a major psychiatric problem, but many patients with this disorder first present to a dermatologist. An 11-year-old girl came to our department with a 2-month history of diffuse hair loss on the frontoparietal and parietotemporal area (Figure 1). She had originally been examined by a pediatrician with the diagnosis of alopecia areata. The patient`s personal history included hay fever and shortsightedness, and she suffered from varicella and mononucleosis. Nobody in the family history suffered from alopecia areata, but her father has male androgenetic alopecia (Norwood/Hamilton MAGA C3F3). The mother noticed that the child had had changeable mood for about 2 months and did not want to communicate with other persons in the family. The family did not have any pet at home. At school, her favorite subjects were Math and Computer Studies. She did not like Physical Education and did not participate in any sport activities during her free time. This was very strange because she was obese (body-mass index (BMI) 24.69). She was sometimes angry with her 13-year-old sister who had better results at school. The girl had suddenly started to wear a blue scarf. The parents did not notice that she pulled out her hair at home. Dermatological examination of the capillitium found a zone of incomplete alopecia in the frontoparietal and parietotemporal area, without inflammation, desquamation, and scaring. Hairs were of variable length (Figure 1). There was a patch of incomplete alopecia above the forehead between two stripes of hair of variable length (Figure 2). The hair pull test was negative along the edges of the alopecia. Mycological examination from the skin capillitium was negative. The trichoscopy and skin biopsy of the parietotemporal region of the capillitium (Figure 3) confirmed trichotillomania. Laboratory tests (blood count, iron, ferritin, transferrin, selenium, zinc, vitamin B12, folic acid, serology and hormones of thyroid gland) were negative. We referred the girl for ophthalmologic and psychological examination. Ophthalmologic examination proved that there was no need to add any more diopters. The psychological examination provided us with a picture in which she drew her family (Figure 4). The strongest authority in the family was the mother because she looked after the girls for most of the day. She was in the first place in the picture. The father had longer working hours and spent more time outside the home. He worked as a long vehicle driver. He was in the second place in the picture. There was sibling rivalry between the girls, but the parents did not notice this problem and preferred the older daughter. She was successful at school and was prettier (slim, higher, curly brown hair, without spectacles). Our 11-years-old patient noticed all these differences between them, but at her level of mental development was not able to cope with this problem. She wanted to be her sister's equal. The sister is drawn in the picture in the third place next to father, while the patient's own figure was drawn larger and slim even though she was obese. Notably, all three female figures had very nice long brown hair. It seemed that the mother and our patient had better quality of hair and more intense color than the sister in the drawing. The only hairless person in the picture was the father. The girl did not want to talk about her problems and feelings at home. Then it was confirmed that our patient was very sensitive, anxious, willful, and withdrawn. She was interested in her body and very perceptive of her physical appearance. From the psychological point of view, the parents started to pay more interest to their younger daughter and tried to understand and help her. After consultation with the psychiatrist, we did not start psychopharmacologic therapy for trichotillomania; instead, we started treatment with cognitive behavioral therapy, mild shampoo, mild topical steroids (e.g. hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%) in solution and methionine in capsules. With parents' cooperation, the treatment was successful. The name trichotillomania was first employed by the French dermatologist Francois Henri Hallopeau in 1889, who described a young man pulling his hair out in tufts (3-5). The word is derived from the Greek thrix (hair), tillein (to pull), and mania (madness) (5). The prevalence of TTM in the general adult population ranges from 0.6% to 4%, and 2-4% of the general psychiatric outpatient population meet the criteria for TTM (2-5). The prevalence among children and adolescents has been estimated at less than 1% (5). The disease can occur at any age and in any sex. The age of onset of hair pulling is significantly later for men than for women (3). There are three subsets of age: preschool children, preadolescents to young adults, and adults. The mean age of onset is pre-pubertal. It ranges from 8 to 13 years (on average 11.3 years) (2-5). The occurrence of hair-pulling in the first year of life is a rare event, probably comprising &lt;1% of cases (5). The etiology of TTM is complex and may be triggered by a psychosocial stressor within the family, such as separation from an attachment figure, hospitalization of the child or parent, birth of a younger sibling, sibling rivalry, moving to a new house, or problems with school performance. It has been hypothesized that the habit may begin with \"playing\" with the hair, with later chronic pulling resulting in obvious hair loss (2). Environment is a factor because children usually pull their hair when alone and in relaxed surroundings. The bedroom, bathroom, or family room are \"high-risk\" situations for hair-pulling (5). Men and women also differed in terms of the hair pulling site (men pull hair from the stomach/back and the moustache/beard areas, while women pull from the scalp) (3). Pulling hair from siblings, pets, dolls, and stuffed animals has also been documented, often occurring in the same pattern as in the patient (5). Genetic factors contributing to the development of TTM are mutations of the SLITRK1 gene, which plays a role in cortex development and neuronal growth. The protein SAPAP3 has been present in 4.2% of TTM cases and patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). It may be involved in the development of the spectrum of OCD. A significantly different concordance rate for TTM was found in monozygotic (38.1%) compared with dizygotic (0%) twins in 34 pairs (3). The core diagnostic feature is the repetitive pulling of hairs from one`s own body, resulting in hair loss. The targeted hair is mostly on the scalp (75%), but may also be from the eyebrows (42%), eyelashes (53%), beard (10%), and pubic area (17%) (3,5). There are three subtypes of hair pulling - early onset, automatic, and focused. Diagnostic criteria for TTM according to DSM-IV criteria are (2,3,5): 1) recurrent pulling of one`s hair resulting in noticeable hair loss; 2) an increasing sense of tension immediately prior to pulling out the hair or when attempting to resist the behavior; 3) pleasure, gratification, or relief when pulling out the hair; 4) the disturbance is not better accounted for by another mental disorder and is not due to a general medical condition (e.g., a dermatologic condition); 5) the disturbance causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. The differential diagnosis includes alopecia areata (Table 1) (6), tinea capitis, telogen effluvium, secondary syphilis, traction alopecia, loose anagen syndrome, lichen planopilaris, alopecia mucinosa, and scleroderma (2-5). Biopsy of an involved area (ideally from a recent site of hair loss) can help to confirm the diagnosis (5). On histologic examination, there are typically increased numbers of catagen and telogen hairs without evidence of inflammation. Chronic hair pulling induces a catagen phase, and more hairs will be telogen hairs. Pigment casts and empty anagen follicles are often seen. Perifollicular hemorrhage near the hair bulb is an indicator of TTM (2). Complications of TTM are rare, but they comprise secondary bacterial infections with regional lymphadenopathy as a result of picking and scratching at the scalp. Many patients play with and ingest the pulled hairs (e.g. touching the hair to lips, biting, and chewing). Trichophagia (ingestion of the hair) can lead to a rare complication named trichobezoar (a \"hair ball\" in stomach). This habit is present in approximately 5% to 30% of adult patients, but it is less frequent in children. Patient with trichophagia present with pallor, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and weight loss. Radiologic examination and gastroscopy should not be delayed (2,4,5). The management of the disease is difficult and requires strong cooperation between the physician, patient, and parents. The dermatologist cannot take part in the therapy, strictly speaking, but without the psychological, psychopharmacologic, and topic dermatologic treatment a vicious circle will be perpetuated. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en404_14152", "title": "List of Person of Interest characters", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Shaw witnessed her father's death in an automobile accident at a young age but did not exhibit typical emotional reactions to it. In her first appearance, she claims that she has an Axis II (psychology)Personality disorder and alexithymia, making her unable to feel and/or express common human emotions like fear or sadness. Shaw attended Med School and once trained as a surgeon; although very technically capable, she was criticized by her superiors for her indifference and lack of sensitivity to her patients and it is implied that she was removed from the program before she could complete her surgical training because of the lack of these emotional characteristics. She is capable of deducing emotionally correct actions, such as rescuing Fusco's son rather than Fusco (S3 Ep9, \"The Crossing\") and taking on Genrika as her unofficial ward (S3 Ep5, \"Razgovor\"). She unexpectedly reveals a hint of emotion by passionately kissing Root before sacrificing herself to save the team (S4 Ep11," }, { "id": "pubmed23n0479_16637", "title": "Cases from the Osler Medical Service at Johns Hopkins University.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A 50-year-old African American woman presented with bilateral lower extremity pain, a history of falls during the past several months, and personality and behavior changes. She had been in good health until approximately 5 months before admission, when she began to fall with increasing frequency, often while going down a flight of stairs. She described these falls as her \"legs giving out\" and feeling very heavy and unsteady. There was no head trauma or loss of consciousness. Her daughter noticed that her gait had become somewhat unsteady during the last several months. Her family also noted a change in her personality at this time. Previously, she had been a very tidy person who took great care with her appearance, who was working as a customer service representative. However, she had become less social and very withdrawn. She had been observed putting on dirty clothes after showering, as well as eating constantly. The patient denied any fevers, chills, night sweats, headaches, vision changes, or tinnitus. She also denied any rashes, muscle pain, or intolerance to heat or cold. There was no history of seizure disorder or depression. Her past medical history was notable only for hypertension and being a passenger in a motor vehicle crash 1 year before admission. She denied any alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drug use, and had no travel history other than coming to the United States, as she was originally from Trinidad. On physical examination, she was a moderately obese African American woman with a flat affect, psychomotor slowing, and alopecia of the scalp. She was alert and oriented to person, place, and time, but had a score of 26 out of 30 on the Mini-Mental State Examination. She lost points only for recall; she had no difficulty with serial 7s. Her cranial nerves were intact and her speech was fluent, although sparse, and she did not make any paraphasic errors. Her muscle strength was 5/5 in both the upper and lower extremities. Reflexes were 2+ in the upper extremities and 1+ in the lower extremities, and toes were downgoing bilaterally. She had intact sensation to light touch and pinprick, but markedly diminished proprioception of her lower extremities bilaterally. She had a wide-based gait with a positive Romberg sign and was markedly ataxic. Rectal examination yielded a positive guaiac test with brown stool, normal tone, and no masses. The remainder of the physical examination was normal. Laboratory studies revealed pancytopenia with a hematocrit of 22.7% and a mean corpuscular volume of 118.2 fL. A peripheral smear that was performed on admission, prior to transfusion, revealed macrocytic red cells and hypersegmented neutrophils." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en231_18906", "title": "List of Mad Men characters", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Arnold Wayne Dr. Arnold Wayne (Andy Umberger) is Betty's psychiatrist during the first season, who she began seeing because of her problem with her hands going numb unexpectedly in the wake of her mother's death. While she is seeing him, Dr. Wayne is secretly in contact with Don to discuss her sessions, which Betty finds out about in the Season 1 finale. She uses that to her advantage by confiding in Dr. Wayne her anger at Don's infidelity, knowing that the doctor will report the session to Don. Abigail Whitman Abigail Whitman is the stepmother of Dick Whitman and the mother of Adam Whitman. She was married to Archie Whitman and had recently miscarried when a midwife gave her Dick, the child of Archie and the prostitute Evangeline, to raise. However, Abigail resented Dick and regularly referred to him as a \"whore's son.\" Don greatly hated Abigail in return; in Season 1's \"5G\", when Adam tells Don that Abigail has died, Don's response is, \"Good.\"" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0496_5766", "title": "[Alterations of symptoms with borderline personality disorder after fronto-temporal traumatic brain injury. A case study].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "We report a case of borderline personality disorder in which severe self-mutilation, sense of futility and tendency to manipulate others disappeared after fronto (orbital cortex and dorso-lateral surface) temporal traumatic brain injury. The patient, a right-handed 34 year-old woman began having severe depressive moods, irritability, and performed recurrent self-mutilation by wrist cutting after her marriage at age 20. She was diagnosed as having borderline personality disorder. At the age of 30, she attempted to kill herself by leaping from a building, and sustained a frontotemporal traumatic brain injury. After 5 years of follow-up, she recovered from Wernicke's-like aphasia, but could not understand anything complex. She also showed disturbances of writing, calculating, attention, working memory, recent and remote memories, motivation, and sense of self. The results of tests of higher brain function were as follows: Wisconsin card sorting test (Keio version), C = 1, D = 2, P = 23; FAB (Frontal Assessment Battery) = 7/18; Trail making test B = impossible. Brain MRI demonstrated left frontal lobe (orbital cortex and dorso-lateral surface) contusions, severe atrophy in the left temporal cortex including the hippocampus and amygdala, and diffuse axonal injury in the left frontal white matter. Although her recurrent self-mutilation had disappeared after brain injury, a certain type of anxiety, which occasionally induced irritability, unstable moods and devaluation of others, occurred without any trigger once or twice a month. This anxiety continued two or three days and faded away within a week. Because of its frequency and duration, this anxiety can be considered to originate not from the traumatic brain injury, but from her intrinsic nature, and seems to be parallel to annihilation anxiety (Reich A, Klein M) and abandonment anxiety (DSM-IV). Because she showed this anxiety after a severe higher brain dysfunction including disturbances of language, attention, working memory, recent and remote memories, motivation, and sense of self, we considered this anxiety to be an unarticulated form of annihilation anxiety and abandonment anxiety." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0240_12918", "title": "Darvon dependence: three case studies.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Several shared symptoms are evident among the subjects described here. First of all, each subject complained of feelings of depression, consistently and frequently. In other words, in each case, the subject described him/herself as \"being depressed.\" The detailed examination of the case notes kept by the counselors who treated these individuals indicates a more specific symptomology associated with their depression. On a more specific level, each of the subjects expressed feelings of worthlessness, hopelessness, despair, and self-destruction. In at least two of the cases, self-destructive feelings were translated into potentially suicidal actions. In addition, each of the three subjects experienced pronounced mood swings. Alternating between periods of deep depression (associated with stagnant or regressive behavior) and periods of relative optimism when at least temporary progress in therapy was evident. During these apparent periods of improvement, the subjects often related major plans of action intended to improve their lot, including new jobs, furthering their education, withdrawing entirely from drug use, patching up marital and family disorder, etc. In each case before these major improvements could be initiated, the subjects would relapse into depressed states and their plans would dissolve like so many fantasies. These cyclical mood swings and their accompanying polar manifestations would seem, superficially, indicative of a type of manic-depressive illness. It should be noted, however, that at no time did any of the subjects undergo thorough psychological testing. Such testing is planned for Subject B, who remains in treatment at this time. Each subject complained of experiencing acute anxiety attacks during his periods of depression.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0517_17350", "title": "[Identity and dissociation in cyberspace. A case of dissociative identity disorder associated with internet role playing].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "By mediating dissociative experiences, the Internet can challenge the boundaries of people's sense of identity. To illustrate this hypothesis, a case of dissociative identity disorder (DID) is presented. A young unemployed woman created and frequently played several characters in an online game. For more than 2 years she spent up to 12 h a day in the Internet, assuming various personalities, which in return intruded upon her neglected real life. During the course of an inpatient psychotherapeutic treatment, the clinical diagnosis of DID was confirmed by psychometric testing. After 12 weeks of psychotherapy, the patient had managed to identify her fragmented identities as character traits and integrated them into her core personality. She rearranged her real everyday life, found a new job, and reduced her online activities. Even though the patient's psychopathology stems from a disposition in terms of a personality disorder with histrionic and narcissistic features, excessive internet role play obviously functioned as a trigger to develop DIS. Conclusively, cyberspace's anonymous interactivity may offer the possibility to explore one's identity while also putting at risk its coherence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0118_12726", "title": "Sally Beauchamp's career: a psychoarchaeological key to Morton Prince's classic case of multiple personality.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "By the methods of psychoarchaeology, the identity of Sally Beauchamp, Morton Prince's classic case of multiple personality, has been established. The reconstructed life history has for the first time revealed the roots of the dissociative process. This goal was actually obscured by the tangled web of Prince's rambling 1906 book and his other publications on the case. The determinative events included two instances of sudden infant death during the childhood period of the patient, the earlier of which was apparently never even known to Dr. Prince. Though not mentioned in the patient's autobiography, it probably induced the initial dissociation to defend the integration of the personality. The relevance of the new concept of SIDS (since 1969) is considered. Other disturbing influences were the constant rejection of the patient by her mother, who died at an early age, and probable severe abuse by the widowed father which led her to run away from home (permanently) at age 16. Nine years afterward, therapy with Dr. Prince began and lasted seven years. It is suggested that this case and the parallel one of Breuer and Freud (Anna O.) be comparatively reexamined from the standpoint of modern feminism. The role of the conventional 19th-century woman was not acceptable to either of them, and both probably had an unusually large innate, bisexual endowment. Endogenous conflict, intensified by social demands, produced dissociation as a pseudo-solution until, through opportune therapy and other environmental opportunities, each was able to achieve a productive modus vivendi. The relation of bisexuality to the etiology of personality dissociation in general is considered. An incidental but instructive discovery made in the course of the Prince research was an unknown letter from William James to Morton Prince about The Dissociation of a Personality. This find points up the fact that James's final metaphysic was a form of pluralistic panpsychism derived from both psychical research and the contemporary knowledge about dissociated personality. James postulated a cosmic multiple personality." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0555_18681", "title": "[Behavior disturbances in emergency psychiatry or fronto-temporal dementia diagnosis? A challenge for psychiatrists].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The diagnosis of fronto-temporal dementia (FTD) represents a challenge for the psychiatrist, especially since this insidious pathology partly mimics other psychiatric diseases. We present a clinical case that illustrates the difficulty of FTD diagnosis particularly well. A 32 year-old woman without previous medical history presented with psychomotor agitation, logorrhea and flight of ideas. The criteria for bipolar disorder according to DSM IV were met and the patient was referred to an outpatient clinic where a mood stabilizer was initiated (lithium, 400 mg/day). An in-depth interview with her husband revealed mild but progressive modification of her personality and behavior over the course of two years. She showed signs of mild fatigue and irritability that evolved into a loss of interest for both leisure and domestic activities. In addition, she showed increasing erratic behavior and emergence of frequent episodes of verbal abuse. After the birth of her second child, the patient's clinical state worsened with the appearance of uninhibited behavior, loss of personal hygiene, sleep disturbances and nightmares. The patient was forced to stop her work as a cleaner, a steady employment that she had maintained for 10 years. The hypomanic state worsened and psychotic symptoms such as delusions and echolalia appeared within a few weeks. These events culminated in a first hospitalization in a psychiatric unit. We evoked both diagnoses of schizoaffective disorder and psychotic disorder not otherwise specified. In the following months, we conducted neurological examinations on account of the progressive deterioration of her cognitive functions. Neuroradiological results (CT scan with contrast agents, MRI, cerebral scintigraphy) coupled with her clinical evolution (neurological examination and neuropsychological testing) permitted diagnosis of fronto-temporal dementia. Fronto-temporal dementia usually presents itself as an autosomal dominant disease in 89% of reported cases, with an insidious onset associated with thymic symptoms and behavioral disturbances. The first consultation often concludes with a suspicion of a psychiatric disorder in 33% of the cases (unipolar and bipolar depressive disorders, psychotic disorders, alcohol dependence). The clinical description of such a heterogenic and neuro-psychiatric disorder should be widely disseminated, so that psychiatrists can distinguish early symptoms and diminish the risk of misdiagnosis of FDT. Such case reports emphasize the importance for psychiatrists to be aware of the clinical prodromal FDT symptoms, particularly since the neuro-imaging data of dementia are often delayed." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en076_9055", "title": "Dear Doctor", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Billingsley also enjoyed the romantic subplot with Kellie Waymire as Elizabeth Cutler, however he was concerned that Waymire's working schedule wouldn't allow her to return to the show easily and so he wasn't anticipating the romance being followed up upon in future episodes. She had previously appeared as Cutler in the episode \"Strange New World\", and was pleased for her character to be involved with Phlox rather than one of the more obvious possibilities, and was interested to see if the romantic plot would be brought back by writers in a future episode. Waymire made one final appearance as Cutler in \"Two Days and Two Nights\", before her sudden death on November 13, 2003. Amongst other guest stars in this episode was Karl Wiedergott, who previously appeared in the Star Trek: Voyager episode \"Warlord\" and is better known for his voice work on The Simpsons." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1151_19977", "title": "[Patient with a long history of disease in whom service dog contributed to recovery].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "We describe a patient who reached recovery, after purchasing a dog and training it into an assistance dog. The patient has a long lasting (over 30 years) history in mental health care and was diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder and borderline personality disorder. All these years the patient did not reach symptomatic improvement or personal or social recovery. The patient suffered from severe emotional instability, feeling misunderstood, sleeping disorder because of nightmares and traumatic re-experiences, feeling unsafe and externalisation. There were repeated conflicts and periodical rejection of caregivers. A range of interventions and support options were offered. Medication intake was considerable aiming for sedation and numbness. After a second opinion an assistance dog was suggested. Two years after the purchase of the dog, her mood had improved, anxiety decreased, she slept better and stopped all medication. She feeled safe. Conflicts with others were reduced, she had some social contacts and the intensity of care had been reduced considerably." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0272_16086", "title": "The role of mother-son incest in the pathogenesis of narcissistic personality disorder.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Psychoanalytic case material is presented to illustrate how mother-son incest may be involved in the pathogenesis of a particular subtype of narcissistic personality disorder. Male patients with this disorder have a grandiose view of themselves as entitled to occupy a special position with others, combined with a paranoid tendency to anticipate imminent betrayal. The enormous guilt related to perceived oedipal transgressions leads these patients to fear retaliation from an enraged, vindictive, and castrating father at any moment. In addition, these men often feel that their special role vis-à-vis mother is a precarious one contingent on doing her bidding. Hence, they also live in dread of an impending disaster involving either abandonment or humiliation by their mothers." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0990_22464", "title": "Caring for the Transgender Adolescent: It Takes a Village.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Christa is a 15-year-old male-to-female (MTF) transgender patient who comes to your Developmental-Behavioral Pediatrics office for consultation on attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) management and concerns about worsening anxiety. Review of medical history included mild persistent asthma managed with steroid inhaler and leukotriene antagonist. She was diagnosed with ADHD at 12 years and has been placed on methylphenidate and clonidine over the years with little improvement. She struggles in school, with barely passing grades, and feels that she cannot focus on her assignments.She was diagnosed with MTF transition gender dysphoria, social anxiety disorder, and depressive disorder at 13 years by a psychiatrist and was treated with sertraline with some mood improvement. More recently, she reports having thoughts of wanting to hurt people and \"wanting to watch them wither away.\" She expressed being terrified by these thoughts, which lasted for a couple of days but have since resolved. She denied any suicidal thoughts recently and gives credit to her \"best girlfriend\" for her overall improved mood, improved sleep pattern, and increased energy level. She expressed having deepening feelings for this girlfriend but admitted to not having acted on these feelings as she is afraid of the consequences. She currently uses the pronouns she/her/hers.Family history is pertinent for paternal bipolar disorder. There is considerable psychosocial stress as Christa is estranged from her father, who is not supportive of her transition, although mother is. Unfortunately, she is dependent on her father for medical insurance coverage, and he is refusing to give authorization to proceed with the evaluations and diagnostic workup for the transformation. Christa has been repeatedly encouraged to seek counseling but has declined because of previous poor experiences with counselors. Her primary care clinician in Family Medicine has been administering hormonal replacement therapy because she cannot access the regional center of excellence because of above-mentioned insurance issues. She presents to you now with her mother for management suggestions and diagnostic clarification. What is your next step?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en214_7126", "title": "List of Everybody Loves Raymond characters", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "She is also depressed about her parents when they argue, and she is distraught when she finds out they are divorcing. Even though she grew up in a traditional conservative family, she was a free-spirited and a popular teen in her early years. Ray once noted that, during college, she went to Mardi Gras and flashed her breasts to many people who gave her beads and also ended up topless in the newspaper. She often calls Ray an idiot. When Ray is acting suspiciously nice towards her, she usually will say in an ominous voice, \"What do you want, Ray?\" The character has also appeared in the King of Queens episode \"Dire Strayts\"." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0534_20425", "title": "[Mental disorders associated with multiple sclerosis].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Findings are reported in 4 patients with multiple sclerosis (MS) and various mental disorders which were directly associated with the underlying disease, with disease-related increased vulnerability, were a reactive response or had occurred independently of the MS. CASE 1: A 53-year-old woman with MS for 24 years developed cognitive disorders with markedly impaired quality of life. CASE 2: A 44-year-old man with MS for 8 years had depression and felt suicidal. CASE 3: A 58-year-old woman with MS for 35 years suffered from both depression and symptoms of a compulsive-obsessive disorder. CASE 4: A 19-year-old woman with MS for 2 years was treated by a psychiatrist for the first time when she developed acoustic hallucinations and suicidal ideation during cortisone treatment. CASE 1: The progressive mental disorder was classified as manifestation of the chronic progressive MS: it was treatment-refractory. CASE 2: The patient underwent psychotherapy as both an in- and out-patient. His depression was thought to be reactive and improved well under this treatment, despite the deterioration of the MS, requiring him to use a wheel-chair. CASE 3: The compulsive-obsessive symptoms persisted during medication for depression, for which she then received behavioral treatment. CASE 4: The initial symptoms of hallucination and suicidal ideation ceased when cortisone was stopped. A diagnosis of borderline personality was made, based on her continuing symptoms of impaired impulse control, abnormal affect, distorted self-image, a feeling of inner emptiness, agitation with suicidal tendency and factitious injuries. The renewed occurrence of acoustic hallucinations and suicidal tendency occurred independently of cortisone treatment and was interpreted as expression of inflammatory disease activity, but differential diagnosis had to consider the patient s personality disorder, too. Mental disorders in patients with MS are manifold and their causes are complex. It is important to recognize these associated diseases and initiate individualized treatment, because they considerably impair the patients quality of life." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en470_29763", "title": "Stree (1968 film)", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Synopsis One day Anuaradha and her brother, a medical doctor, find a young man, Debabrata, unconsciousness in the tides by the sea shore and bring him home. With treatment by her brother and her care, Debabrata gets well. Anuradha and Debabrata fall in love. Her brother, Prasanna, gets them married and sees off the couple to Debarata's home. Upo arriving Anuradha discovers Debabrata is actually a widower and has a son. She feels betrayed but as a devoted loving wife overcomes the feeling and gets along with all of Debabrata's family members in the big house. Gradually she gets close to Debrabrata too and takes care of his son as her own. Debabrata's sister Bhanu can't accept Anuradha and creates misunderstanding between wife and husband. At last biased Debabrata leaves the house with his son leaving his wife Anuradha behind. But Anuradha doesn't lose hope. With her determination, sacrifice and devotion, they reunite in the end." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0855_5498", "title": "[Factitious disorders in dermatology: Value of the dissociative state concept].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Factitious disorders in dermatology consist of intentionally self-inflicted skin lesions that vary in morphology and distribution and occur on surfaces readily accessible to the patient's hands. They tend to be a chronic condition that waxes and wanes according to the circumstances of the patient's life. Patient management poses a particular challenge to the clinician and the prognosis is considered poor. The aetiopathogenesis of factitious disorders in dermatology is not completely understood. We present a case in which we suggested the occurrence of factitious behaviour during a dissociative state, and we briefly describe our diagnostic and therapeutic approach. A 48-year-old unemployed woman was referred to our department of psychiatry by her dermatologist for suspected factitious disorder. The patient was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 1 and had been hospitalized repeatedly for confirmed diabetic ketoacidosis. The onset of the disease was related to marital discord with her spouse. Numerous skin lesions had appeared on her face, arms, legs, neck and back. These lesions resulted in multiple hospital admissions and in amputation of her left leg. The condition had worsened considerably after her separation from her husband. During the initial conversation, the patient was unable to provide a clear history of the disease. She denied any knowledge of the circumstances in which these skin lesions appeared, and she did not admit self-infliction. Her mood was depressed and her speech was slow. We suspected that our patient was herself causing her skin lesions while in a dissociative state. Several arguments militate in favour of our hypothesis, particularly her history of childhood maltreatment and the association of traumatic life events with simultaneous deterioration of the skin. The explanation of the dissociative mechanism helped us to strengthen the therapeutic relationship. Within a few days, we noted a slow regression of the lesions, but the patient was still unable to explain how the lesions had occurred. The pathophysiology of factitious disorders in dermatology is poorly understood. It has strong ties with other psychiatric disorders, and according to several authors, skin lesions occur in dissociative states, after which patients do not remember how the skin change started. Management of this disease is challenging. An improved understanding of its mechanisms may enhance the prognosis for this particular group of patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en415_28869", "title": "Harok family murder", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "A psychiatrist's testimony followed. While Dahlgren remained silent when questioned by police, he had cooperated with the psychiatrist who commented that she had examined Dahlgren several times longer than any other person before. According to her, Dahlgren suffered from mixed personality disorder, but not to such an extent he could be declared mentally ill during the murders. He had had a sexual relationship with a male classmate during his time in high school, and sexual relationships with women afterwards. Dahlgren had claimed to like animals more than people. Before going to Brno, Dahlgren was contemplating going to Africa instead in order to kill poachers there. In Brno, he first felt fine: however, later Mr. Harok Sr. started asking him to find a meaningful occupation, which meant that he was in the same position as back in the US. During repeated interviews with the psychiatrist, Dahlgren had spoken about his \"internal voice\" that told him what to do \"in order to become a" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 252, 440 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 72 ] ], "text": "The APTT, which evaluates the intrinsic coagulation pathway (involving factors V, VIII, IX, X, XI and XII) is elongated. Hereditary coagulation problem. We thus discard answers 1, 2 and 5." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 252, 440 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 72 ] ], "text": "The APTT, which evaluates the intrinsic coagulation pathway (involving factors V, VIII, IX, X, XI and XII) is elongated. Hereditary coagulation problem. We thus discard answers 1, 2 and 5." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 713, 871 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 113, 137 ] ], "text": "while von Willebrand disease is characterized by bleeding after surgery or trauma and a prolonged bleeding time with a normal platelet count is characteristic" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 501, 712 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 82, 113 ] ], "text": "I consider that the correct answer is 4, hemophilia A, since the inheritance pattern is X-linked and its main clinical manifestation is soft tissue bruising and spontaneous hemarthrosis, without apparent trauma," }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 252, 440 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 42, 72 ] ], "text": "The APTT, which evaluates the intrinsic coagulation pathway (involving factors V, VIII, IX, X, XI and XII) is elongated. Hereditary coagulation problem. We thus discard answers 1, 2 and 5." } }

{ "1": "Marfan syndrome.", "2": "Von Willebrand's disease.", "3": "Ehlers-Danlos disease.", "4": "Hemophilia A.", "5": "Bemard-Soulier disease." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0052_9437", "title": "Further evidence for recessive inheritance of von Willebrand disease with abnormal binding of von Willebrand factor to factor VIII.", "score": 0.0168928470455188, "content": "A new family with a bleeding diathesis and FVIII deficiency secondary to abnormal binding of von Willebrand factor (vWF) to factor VIII (FVIII) is described. Two propositi of this family, an 18-year-old male and a 33-year-old female, both with a history of epistaxis, bruising, bleeding from the gums, epistaxis, hemarthrosis, and hematoma, were analyzed. Also additional members of the same family with no bleeding history were also studied. The propositi showed normal vWF activities, low FVIII activity; one of them had been diagnosed as having hemophilia A and the other was a hemophilia A carrier. Both showed a very poor response to treatment with FVIII concentrates and desmopressin (DDAVP) but a good clinical response to cryoprecipitate. APTT was prolonged and no inhibitory activity was noticeable in their plasmas. Thirty-five units per kilogram body weight of Hemofil M was infused to both propositi and FVIII reached basal level within 60 minutes of the infusion. No FVIII response at all was observed in the female after intravenous DDAVP administration. However, the male who received the infusion of 35 U/kg body weight of Humate-P achieved a normal FVIII level that was maintained for 12 hours. Multimeric analysis of vWF was normal in all the members studied. Von Willebrand factor domain for FVIII binding was assayed in the two propositi and in six other members of the same family by using a non-isotopic and sensitive method, a modification of the one previously described, using the Hemofil M concentrate as exogenous FVIII. The data obtained showed that both propositi had similar binding to that observed by using plasma of a patient with severe von Willebrand disease. Furthermore, five siblings had a decreased binding of vWF to FVIII, when compared with plasma from normal individuals or patients with hemophilia A. We also observed that, for screening purpose, the ratio of bound FVIII/immobilized vWF (at saturation of the anti-vWF and offering of 1 U/ml of exogenous FVIII) distinguished two levels of abnormality (normal range 0.70-1.15, propositi 0.004-0.007, and remaining members affected 0.25-0.42). The most probable explanation is that the propositi are homozygous or double heterozygous, the other five siblings affected being heterozygous for a recessive vWF defect. This more accessible assay presented here may be of help in routine analysis for diagnosing this type of von Willebrand disease, which has important implications for therapy and genetic counseling." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0596_19559", "title": "The dental patient with a congenital bleeding disorder.", "score": 0.015037593984962405, "content": "Congenital bleeding disorders account for approximately one in 10,000 births. Dentists are often anxious about delivering treatment to this special group of patients. In the Irish Republic, patients with inherited bleeding disorders have their dental care co-ordinated centrally at the National Centre for Hereditary Coagulation Disorders (NCHCD), St James's Hospital, Dublin. Dental care is normally integrated with routine outpatient haematological appointments. This ensures regular monitoring of oral health and the early treatment of any hard/soft tissue pathology. This article describes, in simple diagrammatic form, the normal coagulation mechanism (Figures 1 and 2), explains common coagulation terms (Appendix 1), and examines the three most common congenital bleeding disorders: haemophilia A, haemophilia B, and von Willebrand disease. General recommendations based on the current literature are provided with respect to procedures that are appropriate to perform in a general dental practice setting. Although not discussed in this article, it is important to note that non-coagulation bleeding disorders also exist. These include: hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia; blood vessel wall defects resulting from connective tissue disorders such as Marfan syndrome and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome; and, platelet disorders such as Bernard-Soulier syndrome, resulting in defective platelet adhesion." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en071_25146", "title": "Erik Adolf von Willebrand", "score": 0.01443001443001443, "content": "He published a Swedish-language article in 1926 about the disease, titled Hereditär pseudohemofili (\"Hereditary pseudohemophilia\"). He referenced six previous publications from the years of 1876 to 1922, totalling 19 cases on families with bleeding diatheses. The earlier authors attributed the condition to hemophilia (even in the cases of females) or to thrombopathy, which was discovered shortly before as the cause of what had previously been known as purpura hemorrhagica or Werlhof's disease. Von Willebrand also conducted hematological examinations on Hjördis and some of her family members. He recorded a normal or slightly reduced number of platelets and an undisturbed clot retraction, unlike Glanzmann's thrombasthenia. The bleeding time (Duke) was greatly prolonged, extending to more than 2 hours in some cases, while the clotting time was within the normal range. He concluded that the disease was either a new form of thrombopathy or a condition of the capillary endothelium." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0083_20904", "title": "Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, clotting disorders and muscular dystrophy.", "score": 0.014374454540787514, "content": "Ehlers-Danlos syndrome includes 11 distinct entities. The diversity of this collagen dysplasia and its combination with other abnormalities make it difficult to understand physiopathologically. A case of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is reported, which is novel owing to its combination with clotting abnormalities and especially with muscular dystrophy. To our knowledge this has not previously been reported. The patient was a young man aged 16 years who presented with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome satisfying Perelman's diagnostic criteria. His father and two brothers had comparable clinical symptoms, but his mother and sister were healthy. The four male subjects had an increased cephalin-kaolin time, reduced levels of factor VIII and Willebrand's factor (but without haemophilia A or Willebrand's disease), and, especially, an abnormal platelet ATP secretion. The proband alone had muscular disease with bilateral quadriceps fatigability and amyotrophy. The muscle enzyme levels were greatly increased, the electromyographic trace was myogenic, and the biopsy showed severe muscular dystrophy. This new observation poses the problem of the relation between clotting abnormalities and collagen abnormalities in the Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. It is difficult to classify this case within any of the 11 known types because of its muscular manifestations. It may perhaps be a fortuitous combination or an extension of the nosological framework of this syndrome." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_5603", "title": "List of MeSH codes (C15)", "score": 0.01343455900360354, "content": "– hemorrhagic disorders – afibrinogenemia – bernard-soulier syndrome – disseminated intravascular coagulation – factor v deficiency – factor vii deficiency – factor x deficiency – factor xi deficiency – factor xii deficiency – factor xiii deficiency – hemophilia a – hemophilia b – hypoprothrombinemias – platelet storage pool deficiency – hermanski-pudlak syndrome – purpura, thrombocytopenic, idiopathic – thrombasthenia – thrombocythemia, hemorrhagic – vascular hemostatic disorders – cryoglobulinemia – ehlers-danlos syndrome – hemangioma, cavernous – hemangioma, cavernous, central nervous system – multiple myeloma – pseudoxanthoma elasticum – purpura, hyperglobulinemic – purpura, schoenlein-henoch – scurvy – shwartzman phenomenon – telangiectasia, hereditary hemorrhagic – waldenstrom macroglobulinemia – vitamin k deficiency – hemorrhagic disease of newborn – von willebrand disease – waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1089_3373", "title": "Diagnostic Challenges in Children With Congenital Bleeding Disorders: A Developing Country Perspective.", "score": 0.01309931506849315, "content": "To assess the frequency and characteristics of children with inherited bleeding disorders that were initially misdiagnosed, leading to inappropriate disease management. This study was conducted at the Haematology/Pathology Department of Fauji Foundation Hospital, Rawalpindi, Pakistan, from August 2014 to August 2018. Children who were diagnosed with an inherited bleeding disorder but did not respond to initial therapy were reevaluated. In total, 62 children were diagnosed with a bleeding disorder. Of these, 27 were diagnosed with an inherited bleeding disorder and 35 with an acquired bleeding disorder. Of the 27 children with inherited bleeding disorders, 18% (n = 5) were misdiagnosed and treated inappropriately. The median age of the misdiagnosed patients was 9 years (range, 5-13 years). Three patients with Bernard-Soulier syndrome had been misdiagnosed as having immune thrombocytopenic purpura, 1 patient with von Willebrand disease had been misdiagnosed as having hemophilia A, and 1 patient with haemophilia B had been misdiagnosed as having hemophilia A. There are chances of misdiagnosis and improper or invasive management if comprehensive laboratory evaluation and a thorough clinical evaluation are not performed in children with congenital bleeding disorders." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_26188", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01289407313997478, "content": "Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive genetic disorder characterized by the absence or deficiency of factor VIII (hemophilia A, orclassic hemophilia) or factor IX (hemophilia B, or Christmas disease) (Chap. 141). Hemophilia A constitutes 85% of cases. Spontaneous hemarthrosis is a common problem with both types of hemophilia and can lead to a deforming arthritis. The frequency and severity of hemarthrosis are related to the degree of clotting factor deficiency. Hemarthrosis is not common in other disorders of coagulation such as von Willebrand disease, factor V deficiency, warfarin therapy, or thrombocytopenia. Hemarthrosis occurs after 1 year of age, when a child begins to walk 2241 and run. In order of frequency, the joints most commonly affected are theknees,ankles,elbows,shoulders,andhips.Smalljointsofthehands and feet are occasionally involved." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_34439", "title": "Von Willebrand disease", "score": 0.0126241897591214, "content": "Diagnosis Basic tests performed in any patient with bleeding problems are a complete blood count-CBC (especially platelet counts), activated partial thromboplastin time-APTT, prothrombin time with International Normalized Ratio-PTINR, thrombin time-TT, and fibrinogen level. Patients with abnormal tests typically undergo further testing for hemophilias. Other coagulation factor assays may be performed depending on the results of a coagulation screen. Patients with von Willebrand disease typically display a normal prothrombin time and a variable prolongation of partial thromboplastin time." }, { "id": "article-22748_37", "title": "Hemophilia -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.012298001574744104, "content": "Other conditions can also present similarly with bleeding after minor trauma or spontaneous bleeds and require exclusion before confirming the diagnosis of hemophilia. Some of these conditions include von Willebrand disease, scurvy, diseases of platelet dysfunction, deficiency of other coagulation factors like V, VII, X, or fibrinogen, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Fabry disease, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and child abuse. In von Willebrand disease, bleeding symptoms can be similar to mild hemophilia, but patients with von Willebrand disease have more mucosal bleeding compared to musculoskeletal bleeding seen in hemophilia. Von Willebrand disease is diagnosed by checking for von Willebrand factor antigen or von Willebrand factor multimers. [40] Similarly, in scurvy, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and Fabry disease; also, the bleeding is usually mucosal, unlike hemophilia, where it is musculoskeletal. In scurvy, there is a deficiency of vitamin C. [41] In Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, the skin is hyperextensible, and joints are hypermobile. The diagnosis is usually through clinical features, genetic testing, and tissue biopsy. [42] Similarly, in Fabry disease, patients may also have other organs being affected, including kidneys and heart, and have skin lesions called angiokeratomas. They also have pain in the extremities. Fabry disease is usually diagnosed with clinical findings and genetic testing. [43] In cases of platelet dysfunction disorders, bleeding is usually mucocutaneous, unlike hemophilia. Usually, these disorders are diagnosed by platelet aggregation studies or platelet electron microscopy. [44] In the deficiency of other coagulation factors, musculoskeletal bleeding is uncommon. In fact, sometimes thrombosis can occur, especially in patients with factor VII or fibrinogen deficiency or in patients with combined factor V and VIII deficiency. Specific coagulation factor assays usually confirm the diagnosis. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that mimics hemophilia is hard to differentiate, but usually, there is an underlying condition in DIC, for example, acute promyelocytic leukemia. Diagnosis is usually carried out by blood tests that show decreased platelet count and the absence of factor VIII autoantibodies. Child abuse can sometimes be misidentified and confused with hemophilia, and it is essential to find inconsistencies in the history of how trauma has occurred. Other signs of malnourishment require vigilance, and x-rays may reveal evidence of fractures of different ages. [45] [46]" }, { "id": "article-31270_27", "title": "Von Willebrand Disease -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.012271307452030342, "content": "Factor X deficiency Factor XI deficiency Hemophilia A Hemophilia B Bernard-Soulier syndrome Platelet function defects Antiplatelet drug ingestion Fibrinolytic defects" }, { "id": "article-22743_12", "title": "Hemophilia A -- Differential Diagnosis", "score": 0.012266337999237022, "content": "Acquired hemophilia Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Factor XI deficiency Glanzmann thrombasthenia Haemophilia C Haemophilia type B Physical child abuse Platelet disorders Von Willebrand disease" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0699_6852", "title": "Spontaneous iliopsoas muscle hematoma in a patient with von Willebrand disease: a case report.", "score": 0.012137579934190103, "content": "Iliopsoas hemorrhage is a serious complication of bleeding disorders that occurs most commonly in patients with hemophilia and less commonly in patients with von Willebrand disease. It causes severe pain, muscle dysfunction and occasionally femoral nerve palsy. We describe the case of a patient with von Willebrand disease type 3 with a large iliopsoas hematoma who was treated with a von Willebrand factor concentrate (Humate-P). A 20-year-old Iranian man was referred to our emergency ward because of the gradual onset of right flank pain. He was known to have been diagnosed with von Willebrand disease type 3 at age two years old. Magnetic resonance imaging showed a mass in the right iliopsoas muscle. The diagnosis of iliopsoas hemorrhage and partial femoral nerve palsy was established, and he responded to medical treatment. We report a case of von Willebrand disease type 3 with spontaneous iliopsoas hematoma associated with femoral nerve palsy that was well managed with Humate-P treatment." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en100_5598", "title": "List of MeSH codes (C15)", "score": 0.011899182419413633, "content": "– blood coagulation disorders – coagulation protein disorders – activated protein c resistance – afibrinogenemia – factor v deficiency – factor vii deficiency – factor x deficiency – factor xi deficiency – factor xii deficiency – factor xiii deficiency – hemophilia a – hemophilia b – hypoprothrombinemias – von willebrand disease – disseminated intravascular coagulation – blood coagulation disorders, inherited – activated protein c resistance – afibrinogenemia – antithrombin iii deficiency – bernard-soulier syndrome – factor v deficiency – factor vii deficiency – factor x deficiency – factor xi deficiency – factor xii deficiency – factor xiii deficiency – hemophilia a – hemophilia b – hermanski-pudlak syndrome – hypoprothrombinemias – protein c deficiency – thrombasthenia – von willebrand disease – wiskott-aldrich syndrome – platelet storage pool deficiency – hermanski-pudlak syndrome – protein s deficiency" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0684_10587", "title": "Congenital bleeding disorders in Karachi, Pakistan.", "score": 0.01170049351243586, "content": "To determine the frequency of inherited bleeding disorders, its complications, and treatment modalities available for its treatment. Cross-sectional study. Patients with a history of bleeding tendency were tested for confirmation of the diagnosis. History and clinical findings were recorded. Laboratory analysis included prothrombin time (PT), activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), bleeding time (BT), and fibrinogen assay. Patients with prolonged APTT were tested for factors VIII (FVIII) and IX (FIX). If FVIII was low, von Willebrand factor: antigen (vWF:Ag) and von Willebrand factor:ristocetin cofactor (vWF:RCo) were performed. When PT and APTT both were prolonged, FV, FX, and FII were tested. Platelet aggregation studies were done when there was isolated prolonged BT. Urea clot solubility test was done when all coagulation tests were normal. All patients with hemophilia A and B were evaluated for inhibitors. Of the 376 patients, inherited bleeding disorder was diagnosed in 318 (85%) cases. Median age of patients was 16.4 years. Hemophilia A was the commonest inherited bleeding disorder that was observed in 140 (37.2%) followed by vWD 68 (18.0%), platelet function disorders 48 (12.8%), and hemophilia B in 33 (8.8%) cases. We also found rare congenital factor deficiencies in 13 (3.4%), low VWF in 11 (3.0%) participants and 5 (1.3%) in female hemophilia carriers. Hemarthrosis was the most frequent symptom in hemophilia A and B (79.7%) involving knee joint. Inhibitor was detected in 21 (15%) cases. Fresh frozen plasma/cryoprecipitate were the most common modality of treatment. In 58 patients, no abnormality was detected in coagulation profile. Hemophilia A and vWD are the most common congenital bleeding disorders in this study. Hemarthrosis involving knee joint was the most common complication. Inhibitor was detected in a significant number of patients. Plasma is still the most common modality of treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0597_16253", "title": "Hemarthrosis due to a rare cause of hemorrhagic diathesis: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.", "score": 0.011645962732919254, "content": "The authors report a case of hemarthrosis complicated by severe anemia related to a congenital connective tissue disease: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. A boy fell down and suffered tumefaction of both knees with bilateral rupture of the rotula tendon. He underwent surgical reinsertion of each tendon on the rotula. He later showed an unexpected ongoing hematic effusion, with severe anemia. He was screened for coagulation disorders with no results. On taking a more detailed history and investigating the patient's phenotypical features, the authors diagnosed Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, hypermobile variant. The hemarthrosis and anemia were thus concluded to be consequences of excessive tissue fragility due to a congenital connective tissue disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0862_14626", "title": "Clinical profile of hemophilia patients in Jodhpur Region.", "score": 0.01136950904392765, "content": "Hemophilia is widely distributed all over the world, but little is known about its clinical profile in resource-limited regions. An insight into its clinical spectrum will help in the formulation of policies to improve the situation in these areas. To study the clinical profile of hemophiliacs (age &lt;18 years) in Jodhpur region and screen them for transfusion-transmitted infections. A cross-sectional study conducted in the Department of Pediatrics, Umaid Hospital, Dr. S. N. Medical College, Jodhpur, over a period of 12 months. Out of a total of 56 cases enrolled, 51 (91%) cases were diagnosed as hemophilia A while 5 (9%) were diagnosed as hemophilia B. Positive family history was found in 26 (46%) cases. According to their factor levels, 25 (44%) cases had severe disease, 20 (36%) had moderate disease, and 11 (20%) had mild disease. The mean age of onset of symptoms and diagnosis was 1.73 ± 1.43 and 3.87 ± 3.84 years, respectively. First clinical presentation was posttraumatic bleed in 20 (36%), gum bleeds in 17 (30%), epistaxis in 4 (7%), joint bleeds in 4 (7%), skin bleeds in 4 (7%), and circumcision bleed in 3 (5%) cases. Knee joint was the predominant joint affected by hemarthrosis in 38 (68%), followed by ankle in 29 (52%), elbow in 20 (36%), and hip joint in 7 (13%) cases. All patients had a negative screening test for transfusion-transmitted infections. Occurrence of posttraumatic bleeds and gum bleeds in an otherwise normal child should warn the clinician for evaluation of hemophilia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en081_52264", "title": "Bernard–Soulier syndrome", "score": 0.011045929317498926, "content": "Differential diagnosis The differential diagnosis for Bernard–Soulier syndrome includes both Glanzmann thrombasthenia and pediatric Von Willebrand disease. BSS platelets do not aggregate to ristocetin, and this defect is not corrected by the addition of normal plasma, distinguishing it from von Willebrand disease. Following is a table comparing its result with other platelet aggregation disorders: Treatment Bleeding events can be controlled by platelet transfusion. Most heterozygotes, with few exceptions, do not have a bleeding diathesis. BSS presents as a bleeding disorder due to the inability of platelets to bind and aggregate at sites of vascular endothelial injury. In the event of an individual with mucosal bleeding tranexamic acid can be given. The affected individual may need to avoid contact sports and medications such as aspirin, which can increase the possibility of bleeding. A potential complication is the possibility of the individual producing anti-platelet antibodies." }, { "id": "article-31270_14", "title": "Von Willebrand Disease -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010026789131266743, "content": "In the case of a qualitative defect, von Willebrand disease may mimic hemophilia and predominantly present with bleeding into soft tissues, joints, and hematuria rather than mucocutaneous bleeding. Sometimes, type 2N von Willebrand disease is misdiagnosed as hemophilia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0709_6992", "title": "The role of ultrasonography in the diagnosis of the musculo-skeletal problems of haemophilia.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Recurrent haemarthrosis is the final cause of haemophilic arthrosic disease in haemophilia patients. Therefore, it is essential to diagnose it early, both clinically and by imaging. In addition, haemophilia patients experience chronic synovitis, joint degeneration, muscle haematoma and pseudotumours. The objective of this article is to highlight the value of ultrasounds in the diagnosis and control of the evolution of musculo-skeletal problems in haemophilia patients. To this end, we have performed a literature search in the PubMed, Web of Science(®) (WOS) and SciVerse bases, using the following keywords: hemophilia or haemophilia and ultrasonography (US), ultrasound, echography and sonography. The search was limited to studies published in English between the years 1991 and 2011, finding a total of 221 references. After reviewing the title or abstract for evidence of the use of US for the diagnosis of musculo-skeletal lesions in haemophilia, we selected 24 of these references. We added data collected from our experience to the most important data found in the references. Our main conclusion is that US is highly valuable for the diagnosis of musculo-skeletal diseases in haemophilia. It is a fast, effective, safe, available, comparative, real-time technique that can help us confirm the clinical examination. It is particularly important in acute haemarthrosis, as it can be used to objectively identify the presence of blood in the joints, measure its size, pinpoint its location, assess its evolution and confirm its complete disappearance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0318_20292", "title": "Nonsurgical synovectomy in the treatment of arthropathy in Von Willebrand's Disease.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Von Willebrand's disease is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, with an overall prevalence in the general population of 0.8% to 1.3%. Hemarthrosis occurs mainly in the severest forms of the disease (type III), with a frequency of 3.5% to 11%, and can cause severe arthropathy similar to that seen in hemophilia. We retrospectively reviewed our experience with nonsurgical synovectomy in the treatment of recurrent hemarthrosis with arthropathy in patients with von Willebrand's disease. Four of our six patients had type III disease and the remaining two had type II disease. The age range was 13 to 63 years. The frequency of hemarthrosis prior to synovectomy was one to four per month. One (n = 2) or both (n = 1) knees were treated in 4 cases, one (n = 1) or both (n = 1) ankles in 3 cases and an elbow in one case. We used yttrium 90 in a dose of 5 mCi for one knee, rhenium 186 in a dose of 2 mCi for two ankles and the elbow and osmic acid for two knees and one ankle. Clinical and radiological results were evaluated six months after synovectomy using the World Federation of Hemophilia score. Radiologic lesions remained stable and clinical manifestations improved in every case (p &lt; 0.05). Five patients achieved a complete remission. Safety was satisfactory. The clinical efficacy of synovectomy done, using radiocolloids or osmic acid in arthropathy due to von Willebrand's disease, seems similar to that in hemophilia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1125_14898", "title": "The value of ultrasonography in detecting early arthropathic changes and contribution to the clinical approach in patients of hemophilia.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "PURPOSE\\AIM: Hemophilia affects the blood clotting process, is a genetic disease characterized by recurrent bleeding. The hemophilia early arthropathy detection with ultrasound (HEAD-US) procedure and scoring method were designed for the detection of early changes in affected joints of patients. In this article, it was aimed to detect early arthropathic changes in the joints of hemophilia patients with the HEAD US scoring system and to investigate its clinical contribution. It was aimed to investigate the effectiveness of HEAD-US scoring in showing early joint damage in subclinical hemophilia cases and its contribution to treatment. The present study included 50 hemophilia patients who were admitted to Departments of Pediatric and Adult Hematology for routine follow-up. During routine follow-up controls, patients were scored by physical examination and HJHS 2.1 and by ultrasonography and HEAD US. Statistical tests were used to analyze joint health status and the results of US examination in the patient group. A total of 294 joints (elbow n = 100, knee n = 94, ankle n = 100) were evaluated by ultrasonography. The mean HJHS and HEAD-US scores of the patients were 14.94 ± 15.18 and 15.6 ± 12.6, respectively. HEAD-US is accepted to be more sensitive than HJHS in detecting early signs of arthropathy. Detection of early abnormalities by ultrasonography will enable the development of individualized treatment protocols and to the prevention of arthropathy development." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0905_24616", "title": "Joint assessment in von Willebrand disease. Validation of the Haemophilia Joint Health score and Haemophilia Activities List.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Assessment of clinical outcome after joint bleeding is essential to identify joint damage and optimise treatment, to prevent disability. However, disease-specific tools to assess the musculoskeletal status in patients with von Willebrand disease (VWD) are lacking. We aimed to determine validity and reliability of the Haemophilia Joint Health Score (HJHS) and Haemophilia Activities List (HAL) in patients with Von Willebrand disease (VWD). Ninety-six patients with VWD were included (mean age 46 years) of whom 27 had more than five documented joint bleeds. The HJHS was performed in all patients and all patients completed the HAL and Impact on Participation and Autonomy (IPA) questionnaires. Health-related quality of life (SF36) results were obtained from the prior 'Willebrand in the Netherlands' study. Joint X-rays of knees, elbows and ankles were scored according to Pettersson (PS). Internal consistency of the HJHS (Cronbach's α (α)=0.75) and HAL (α=0.89) were good. Inter-observer agreement of the HJHS was good (ICC 0.84; Limits of Agreement ± 10.3). The HJHS showed acceptable correlation with the X-ray PS (Spearman's r (r<subs</sub)&gt;0.60 all joints) and HAL (r<subs</sub=0.71). The HAL also showed acceptable correlation with the SF36 physical functioning (r<subs</sub=0.65) and IPA (r<subs</sub=0.69). Hypothesis testing showed adequate discriminative power of both instruments: in patients with a history of &gt;5 versus ≤ 5 joint bleeds (median HJHS 10 vs 2 (p&lt;0.01); median HAL 77 vs 98 (p&lt;0.01)), independent from age. In conclusion, both the HJHS and HAL are feasible to assess clinical outcome after joint bleeds in VWD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0749_3134", "title": "Vascular-type Ehlers-Danlos syndrome caused by a hitherto unknown genetic mutation: a case report.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Vascular-type Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is an autosomal dominant disease that causes arterial spurting, intestinal perforation, uterine rupture and hemopneumothorax due to decreased production of type III collagen. The average age at death is 48 years old, and it is considered to be the most severe form of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. We report the case of a 64-year-old Japanese woman and her 38-year-old daughter who were diagnosed with this disease. A 64-year-old Japanese woman was referred to our hospital because of right anterior chest pain following cough and pharyngeal discomfort. Pleurisy was suspected due to the presence of right pleural effusion, so the next day she was referred to our department, where a detailed examination led to the diagnosis of hemothorax. The bleeding that caused the right hemothorax was difficult to control, so our patient was transferred to the Department of Thoracic Surgery for hemostasis control. Our patient's personal history of uterine hemorrhage and skin ulcers, as well as the finding of skin fragility during surgery, were indicative of a weak connective tissue disease; therefore, after improvement of the hemothorax, a genetic analysis was performed. This revealed a heterozygous missense mutation in COL3A1, c.2411 G&gt;T p.Gly804Val (exon 36). A detailed investigation conducted at a later date revealed that her daughter also had the same genetic mutation. This led to the diagnosis of vascular-type Ehlers-Danlos syndrome characterized by a new gene mutation. We report a new genetic mutation associated with vascular-type Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. We present the clinical and imaging findings, and the disease and treatment course in this patient. We believe this information will be important in treating future cases of vascular-type Ehlers-Danlos syndrome in patients with this mutation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1107_25009", "title": "Gastric perforation leading to the diagnosis of classic Ehlers-Danlos syndrome: a case report.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a clinically and genetically heterogeneous group of heritable connective tissue disorders caused by a defect in collagen synthesis and structure. The vascular subtype (Ehlers-Danlos syndrome IV) is reported to be associated with a higher incidence of gastrointestinal perforations. The most reported site of perforation is the colon, followed by the small bowel. Perforation of the stomach is very rare, and there are no reported cases to date of classic types I and II. We present the case of a 14-year-old Saudi girl who visited our emergency department with abdominal pain and vomiting. Initially, she was diagnosed with gastroenteritis and discharged once her condition stabilized. After 48 hours, she developed severe abdominal pain with recurrent vomiting and peritonitis evident on clinical examination. Initial abdominal x-ray failed to show any free air; however, enhanced computed tomography revealed free air and contrast extravasation in the proximal gut. During exploratory laparotomy, a large perforation was found on the anterior wall of the stomach due to the underlying ischemia. The posterior wall had ischemic mucosa with an intact healthy serosa. A free-hand partial gastrectomy was performed to resect all ischemic parts of the stomach. Detailed examinations and laboratory workup were carried out after the surgery to figure out the possible underlying cause. The clinical findings during the physical examination supported marfanoid features. Marfan's syndrome and related disorders sequencing panel was requested, and Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) samples were sent. Given results were supporting the diagnosis of classical Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, the patient was labeled as a case of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. During the postoperative period, she developed a wound infection that was managed successfully with vacuum-assisted closure dressing. She recovered well without gastrointestinal sequelae in the 4 years of follow-up. Heritable systemic connective tissue diseases must be given serious consideration in young patients with unusual spontaneous perforation. Such patients might develop life-threatening conditions that require immediate intervention. Hence, correct and timely diagnosis is important to prepare for the anticipated complications." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0737_23151", "title": "Hemophilic arthropathy in patients with von Willebrand disease.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "von Willebrand disease (VWD) affects approximately 1% of the population. Joint bleeds are not a predominant symptom of VWD, however they do occur. Especially in patients with severe VWD, joint bleeds have been described in up to 45% of the patients. Recurrent hemarthroses can lead to joint destruction which is the main cause of morbidity, as is observed in hemophilia patients. In VWD however, the occurrence, severity, onset, treatment and impact of arthropathy have not been well described. This literature review summarizes all publications on arthropathy in patients with hereditary VWD, published until 1-5-2012. Joint bleeds in VWD are associated with low FVIII levels and seem to occur at young age. Depending on the severity of VWD, arthropathy occurs in 2-30% of the patients. Radiological joint damage can be seen but has not systematically been studied. Arthropathy can affect daily functioning and interfere with the quality of life. For acute management of joint bleeds FVIII/VWF concentrates can be used in VWD patients unresponsive to desmopressin or desmopressin in responsive VWD patients. When severe joint bleeds have caused synovitis and arthropathy, chemical or radioactive synovectomy and surgical joint procedures seem feasible to prevent further joint damage. Additional research is needed to learn more about the severity, onset and impact of arthropathy in VWD. Ongoing studies will hopefully answer the question whether prophylactic treatment with coagulation factor concentrates should be considered standard of care in severe VWD to prevent arthropathy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en191_15642", "title": "Cervical artery dissection", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Spontaneous Spontaneous cervical artery dissections are dissections that occur without any trauma to the neck. More specifically, this can include potential causes such as hereditary connective tissue diseases, family history of strokes, infections and other miscellaneous causes such as smoking, hypertension, migraines and contraceptive use. Hereditary connective tissue diseases include autosomal polycystic kidney disease, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Marfan syndrome, fibromuscular dysplasia, and osteogenesis imperfecta type 1 although studies have shown that the link between hereditary connective tissue diseases and cervical artery dissection is low, ranging from 0-0.6% in one study and 5-18% in another study." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0653_6673", "title": "Study of clinical characteristics, presentation, and complications among patients with congenital coagulation disorders.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "To study the clinical characteristic, presentation, complications in patients with congenital coagulation disorders who attended the Congenital Coagulation Disorders Center, Baghdad, Iraq. This cross-sectional study was conducted in the Center of Congenital Coagulation Disorders, Al-Mansour Pediatric Teaching Hospital, Baghdad, Iraq between March 2008 and August 2008. The sample comprised 243 patients with different congenital coagulation disorders. We collected the data through structured questionnaire form and carried out the physical examination of the patient under the supervision of the physician-in-charge at the center. Hemophilia and Von Willebrand Disease (VWD) constituted 90.1% of the sample, while rare bleeding disorders constituted 9.9%. Most patients (82.7%) have had onset of symptoms during the first year of life. Clinically, 52.7% of patients presented with hemarthroses were hemophiliacs and factors X deficiency. This distribution was also true for joint limitations. Most patients were hemophiliacs and the highest prevalent of symptom was 6-12 months old, and the diagnosis of the disease was highest within one month after the onset of symptoms. Most patients with joint limitation was hemophiliacs and approximately 50% had limitation of 3 or more joints." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0606_16238", "title": "[A case of type 2N von Willebrand disease with homozygous R816W mutation of the VWF gene in a Nepalese woman].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Type 2N von Willebrand disease (vWD) can be confused with hemophilia A due to decreased factor VIII levels and a bleeding tendency, and differential diagnosis is of importance for providing the optimal treatment and genetic counseling. For the accurate diagnosis of type 2N vWD, von Willebrand Factor (vWF) function tests, multimer assay and gene mutation analysis are needed. The patient was a 38-yr-old Nepalese woman with a history of bleeding manifestations from childhood, such as hemarthrosis, intramuscular hematoma, and menorrhagia. Family history revealed that her mother and elder brothers also had bleeding manifestations from childhood. When she had a laparotomy in 1991, she was diagnosed as hemophilia A with factor VIII level of 3.6% and was transfused with whole blood, factor VIII and cryoprecipitates. In June 2007, she was admitted to our hospital for further evaluation of bleeding tendency. Blood tests revealed normal CBC; bleeding time, 2 min; PT, 14.9 sec (11-14 sec); aPTT, 51.2 sec (24-38 sec); and factor VIII, 4.9% (50-150%). The prolonged aPTT was corrected by 1:1 mixing test to the levels of 106% and 84%, respectively, before and after 2 hr-incubation at 37degrees C. No abnormalities were found in the vWF antigen level (71.3%), ristocetin cofactor assay (130.4%), and multimer assay. Direct DNA sequencing of the VWF gene revealed homozygous missense mutation located in exon 19, c.2446C&gt;T (p.Arg816Trp), confirming the diagnosis of type 2N vWD." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0957_11990", "title": "Clinical features of children, adolescents, and adults with coexisting hypermobility syndromes and von Willebrand disease.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "We present five patients with coexistent von Willebrand disease (VWD) and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and 21 with VWD and joint hypermobility. Females outnumbered males ten to three, Beighton scores were documented in 58% (15 of 26 patients), and several patients experienced moderately severe bleeding. We believe coexistent hypermobility disorder with VWD potentially affects bleeding severity and want to raise awareness among hematologists. Evaluation by geneticists is recommended because of the varying complexities observed across the disease spectrum, and the availability of new genetic tests should lead to more accurate diagnoses for the various hypermobility disorders." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en011_69738", "title": "Bleeding time", "score": 0.009176805050378361, "content": "Normal values fall between 3 – 10 minutes depending on the method used. A disadvantage of Ivy's method is closure of puncture wound before stoppage of bleeding. Duke's method With the Duke;s method, the patient is pricked with a special needle or lancet, preferably on the earlobe or fingertip, after having been swabbed with alcohol. The prick is about 3–4 mm deep. The patient then wipes the blood every 30 seconds with a filter paper. The test ceases when bleeding ceases. The usual time is about 2–5 minutes. This method is not recommended and cannot be standardized because it can cause a large local hematoma. Interpretation Bleeding time is affected by platelet function, certain vascular disorders and von Willebrand Disease—not by other coagulation factors such as haemophilia. Diseases that cause prolonged bleeding time include thrombocytopenia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), Bernard-Soulier disease, and Glanzmann's thrombasthenia." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en027_45809", "title": "Aortic aneurysm", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Risk factors Coronary artery disease Hypertension Loeys-Dietz Syndrome Hypercholesterolemia Hyperhomocysteinemia Elevated C-reactive protein Tobacco use Alcohol use Peripheral vascular disease Marfan syndrome Ehlers-Danlos type IVO Bicuspid Aortic Valve Syphilis IgG4-related disease Pregnancy Chronic obstructive sleep apnea Pathophysiology An aortic aneurysm can occur as a result of trauma, infection, or, most commonly, from an intrinsic abnormality in the elastin and collagen components of the aortic wall. While definite genetic abnormalities were identified in true genetic syndromes (Marfan, Elher-Danlos and others) associated with aortic aneurysms, both thoracic and abdominal aortic aneurysms demonstrate a strong genetic component in their aetiology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0791_3830", "title": "Early orthopaedic challenges in haemophilia patients and therapeutic approach.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "There is growing evidence that subclinical joint bleeding early in life may lead to subtle changes in joint function, gait, and muscle development in young children with haemophilia. The early identification of such changes provides an opportunity for clinicians to intervene before irreversible structural changes occur. We have undertaken motion analysis of the knee in 273 children (mean age 9.8 years) with haemophilia A, haemophilia B, or von Willebrand disease and compared the results with those from 200 healthy age- and sex-matched controls (mean age 10.3 years). We have also completed detailed orthopaedic assessments and evaluated overall fitness in most of these children. There was a clear correlation between total motion score and age: r(2)=0.47 for the healthy children and r(2)=0.69 for the haemophilic children. The differences were most striking in children aged 3-4 years. Significant between-group differences were also observed in the comparison of knee bends, gait scores, and rhythmicity. Orthopaedic examinations revealed previously clinically silent pressure pains in the ligaments of the knee joints of 38% of children and in the ligaments and capsule of the ankle joints of 60% of children. The five-item fitness check showed significant deficits relative to controls in overall fitness, endurance, coordination, and flexibility. Children and adolescents with haemophilia show significant functional impairments relative to normal controls. Early comprehensive assessments of the musculoskeletal system should be made so that individualized physical, physiotherapy, and sports therapy programmes can be developed." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 68, 125 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 9, 20 ] ], "text": "If there is no nodule, neither echo nor FNA is indicated." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 67 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 9 ] ], "text": "This is severe primary hypothyroidism. Treatment is with thyroxine." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 68, 125 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 9, 20 ] ], "text": "If there is no nodule, neither echo nor FNA is indicated." } }

{ "1": "Perform a thyroid ultrasound before starting treatment.", "2": "Determine free T3 and perform a pituitary MRI.", "3": "Treat with L-triiodothyronine and a statin.", "4": "Treat with L-Tyroxine and determine antithyroid antibodies.", "5": "Perform thyroid cytology prior to treatment." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0417_23288", "title": "[Hypothyreoidism with thyroglobulin antibodies during corticoid replacement in a 54-year-old man with isolated ACTH deficiency]", "score": 0.016403361344537813, "content": "Hypothyroidism with thyroglobulin antibodies during corticoid replacement in a 54-year-old man with isolated ACTH deficiency. HISTORY AND ADMISSION FINDINGS: A 54-year-old previously healthy man was admitted because of fatigue, tiredness, diarrhoea and weight loss for the last 3 years. Physical examination revealed dry but normally pigmented skin and markedly reduced Achilles reflex bilaterally. INVESTIGATIONS: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate was slightly elevated at 32 mm/h, C-reactive protein was normal. Both haemoglobin (12.4 mg/dl) and the corpuscular indices were normal, as were serum electrolytes, and sodium bicarbonate. But basal levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH, 8.5 mU/ml) was markedly elevated, while free peripheral triiodothyronine (3.2pg/ml) was normal and free thyroxine (fT4) at 0.7 ng/d was slightly reduced. Thyroid ultrasound was normal. Test for antinuclear antibodies was slightly positive, but double-strand DNA was not demonstrated. Antithyroglobulin antibodies were slightly raised to 1012 IU/ml (normal &lt;350). The basic level of ACTH was repeatedly below detection, as were plasma cortisol and cortisol excretion in 24-hour urine. Nuclear magnetic imaging was normal. Failure to stimulate corticol synthesis in the short ACTH test and by CRH indicated an isolated ACTH deficiency at the level of the anterior pituitary, while other hypophyseal functions were unaffected. TREATMENT AND COURSE: The patient\"s condition rapidly improved on replacement with hydrocortisone, 30 mg/d, and thyroxine, 100 mg/d. No thyroglobulin antibodies or antinuclear antibodies were demonstrable after 6 months. Thyroxine was discontinued after 15 months. Frequent monitoring of thyroid function over the next 2 years always indicated a euthyroid state. CONCLUSION: Subnormal concentration of peripheral thyroid hormone combined with elevated TSH levels can, in the presence of hypercorticolism, be due to reversible abnormal thyroid function." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0422_8751", "title": "[Rhabdomyolysis, hyponatremia and fever in a patient with Schmidt's syndrome].", "score": 0.01628327733264409, "content": "A 38-year-old man had fever (40 degrees C) and a swollen right leg. Two weeks before admission he had received non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs (paracetamol and ibuprofen) after a tooth extraction. Some weeks before he had noticed a rough voice and a dry skin. The patient had a sinus tachycardia of 145/min (blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg). Laboratory data revealed a CK of 16,650 U/l (&lt; 80 U/l), myoglobin of 2420 U/l (&lt; 90 microg/l) and LDH of 1250 U/l (&lt;240 U/l), leukocyte count of 12,000 / microl and C-reactive protein of 3.0 mg/dl (&lt;0.5 mg/dl). Sodium was markedly decreased (110 mmol/l (135 - 145 mmol/l)). Determination of thyroid hormone showed primary hypothyroidism with an elevated TSH of 62.6 mU/l (0.3 - 4.0 mU/l); T4 of 38 nmol/l (58 - 154 nmol/l), T3 1.17 of nmol/l (1.23 - 3.08 nmol/l) and fT4 of 6 pmol/l (10 - 25 pmol/l). The thyroid autoantibodies were increased (thyroxine peroxidase antibodies of 684 U/l (&lt;35 U/l) and thyroglobulin antibodies of 173 U/l (&lt;40 U/l)). Ultrasound of the thyroid revealed an nonhomogeneous structure. Cortisol at 8.00 a. m. was reduced by 63 mmol/l (180 - 640 mmol/l) and did not increase after administration of ACTH (60 min. cortisol at 90 mmol/l (&gt;550 mmol/l)). ACTH was increased (141 pg/ml; normal range 17 - 52 pg/ml). The initial therapy consisted of hydrocortisone (100 mg i.v as bolus and 100 mg during the next 24 hours) and levothyroxine replacement (200 micro g) was initiated. During the following 8 days clinical symptoms regressed. Values of sodium, myoglobin and LDH decreased. After therapy with cephalosporin (Ceftriaxon) and penicillin (Flucloxacillin) fever and inflammation parameters decreased. This is a rare case of a rhabdomyolysis and hyponatriaemia due to hypothyroidism and Addison's disease (Schmidt's syndrome)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1165_3141", "title": "Case report: Rhabdomyolysis and kidney injury in a statin-treated hypothyroid patient-kill two birds with one stone.", "score": 0.01532878344708049, "content": "Statin treatment for hypercholesterolemia may cause reversible rhabdomyolysis and acute kidney injury in susceptible patients. However, persistent rhabdomyolysis and acute kidney injury following discontinuation of statins require careful evaluation of the underlying causes to avoid missing a curable disease. We describe a 50-year-old woman with hypercholesterolemia [total cholesterol 345 mg/dl, low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) 266 mg/dL] on atorvastatin therapy (40 mg daily) for 1 month that presented with myalgia and muscle weakness. Relevant laboratory studies revealed persistent higher hypercholesterolemia with total cholesterol (312 mg/dL), high creatine kinase (CK) (5,178 U/L), and high creatinine levels (1.5 mg/dL) without dysmorphic red blood cells and proteinuria. Despite the cessation of statin therapy, serum CK level increased to 9,594 U/L, and creatinine remained at 1.5 mg/dL. A thorough work-up to assess potential underlying causes indicated low T3 and free T4 and high thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels, consistent with hypothyroidism. With aggressive thyroxine replacement for 1 month, all of the clinical features, along with elevated serum CK and creatinine levels, were completely resolved. This case highlights the fact that hypothyroidism must be kept in mind as a potential cause of concomitant myopathy and kidney injury, especially in patients with statin-resistant hypercholesterolemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0501_23829", "title": "Klinefelter's syndrome presenting with leg ulcers.", "score": 0.014733863492218374, "content": "A 54-year-old man of Persian origin presented to our department with a 1-year history of ulcers on the right leg that had been unresponsive to numerous topical treatments, accompanied by lymphedema of the right leg. Medical history included hypergonadotropic hypogonadism, which had not been further investigated. He was treated for 20 years with testosterone IM once monthly, which he stopped a year before the current hospitalization for unclear reasons. The patient reported no congenital lymphedema. Physical examination revealed two deep skin ulcers (Figure 1) on the right leg measuring 10 cm in diameter with raised irregular inflammatory borders and a boggy, necrotic base discharging a purulent hemorrhagic exudate. Bilateral leg pitting edema and right lymphangitis with lymphadenitis were noted. He had low head hair implantment, sparse hair on the body and head, hyperpigmentation on both legs, onychodystrophia of the toenails (mainly the large toe and less prominent on the other toes), which was atrophic lichen-planus-like in appearance and needed no trimming (Figure 2), normal hand nails, oral thrush, and angular cheilitis. Other physical findings were gynecomastia, pectus excavatum, small and firm testicles, long extremities, asymmetrical goiter, systolic murmur 2/6 in left sternal border, and slow and inappropriate behavior. The patient's temperature on admission was 39 degrees C. Blood cultures were negative for bacterial growth. Results of laboratory investigations included hemoglobin (11.2 g/dL), hematocrit (26.8%), normal mean corpuscular volume and mean corpuscular hemoglobin volume, and red blood cell distribution width (16%). Blood smear showed spherocytes, slight hypochromia, anisocytosis, macrocytosis, and microcytosis. Blood chemistry values were taken for iron (4 micro g/dL [normal range 40-150 micro g/dL]), transferrin (193 mg/dL [normal range 220-400 mg/dL]), ferritin (1128 ng/mL [normal range 14-160 ng/mL]), transferrin saturation (1.5% [normal range 20%-55%]), serum folate (within normal limits), and vitamin B12 (within normal limits). Direct Coombs' test equaled positive 2 + IgG. All these values indicated anemia of chronic diseases combined with hemolytic anemia. Further blood work-up tested antinuclear antibody (positive &lt;1:80 homogeneous pattern), rheumatoid factors (143 IU/mL [positive &gt;8.5 IU/mL]), C-reactive protein (286 mg/L [normal range 0-5 mg/L]), anticardiolipin IgM antibody (9.0 monophosphoryl lipid U/mL [normal range 0-7.00 MPL U/mL]) and antithrombin III activity (135% [normal range 74%-114%]). Results of other blood tests were within normal limits or negative, including lupus anticoagulant, beta2 glycoprotein, anticardiolipin IgG Ab, anti-ss DNA Ab, C3, C4, anti-RO, anti-LA, anti-SC-70, anti-SM Ab, P-ANCA, C-ANCA, TSH, FT4, anti-T microsomal, antithyroglobulin, protein C activity, protein S free, cryoglobulins, serum immunoelectrophoresis, VDRL, hepatitis C antibodies, hepatitis B antigen, and human immunodeficiency virus. Endocrinological work-up examined luteinizing hormone (22.9 mIU/mL [normal range for adult men 0.8-6 mIU/mL]), follicle stimulating hormone (49.7 mIU/mL [normal range for adult men 1-11 mIU/mL]), testosterone (0.24 ng/mL [normal range for adult men 2.5-8.0 ng/mL]), bioavailable testosterone (0.02 ng/mL [normal range for adult men &gt;0.6 ng/mL]), and percent bioavailable test (8.1% [normal value &gt;20%]). These results indicate hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. Plasminogen activator inhibitor 1 was 6 U (normal value 5-20 U/mL). Karyotyping performed by G-banding technique revealed a 47 XXY karyotype, which is diagnostic of Klinefelter's syndrome. Doppler ultrasound of the leg ulcers disclosed partial thrombus in the distal right femoral vein. X-rays and bone scan displayed osteomyelitis along the right tibia. Histological examination of a 4-mm punch biopsy from the ulcer border revealed hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, hypergranulosis, and mixed inflammatory infiltrate containing eosinophils compatible with chronic ulcer. Multiple vessels were seen, compatible with a healing process. Direct immunofluorescence of the biopsy revealed granular IgM in the dermo-epidermal junction. Indirect immunofluorescence was negative. Thyroid function tests showed normal thyroid stimulating hormone and free throxine4. Multinodular goiter was seen on thyroid scan and ultrasound. Thyroid fine needle aspiration was compatible with multinodular goiter (normal follicular cells, free colloid, macrophages with pigment). IV treatment with amoxicillin-clavulanic acid 1 g t.i.d. was administered for 2 weeks, with a decrease in temperature and normalization of the leukocyte level. Oral antibiotic treatment with amoxicillin-clavulanic acid was continued for 10 more days, followed by 25 days of ciprofloxacin for the osteomyelitis. Local treatment included saline soakings followed by application of Promogran (Johnson &amp; Johnson, New Brunswick, NJ) and Kaltostat (ConvaTec Ltd., a Bristol-Myers Squibb Company, New York, NY) with slight improvement. At the same time, the patient was treated with warfarin sodium due to deep vein thrombosis under international normalized ratio 2-3. The patient was treated with IM testosterone once monthly for 1 year, which resulted in a reduction in the diameter and depth of the leg ulcers (Figure 3). Blood tests were not performed for follow-up of the immune state." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0618_8359", "title": "Kidney failure in the elderly due to hypothyroidism: a case report.", "score": 0.014236410698878342, "content": "Hypothyroidism is more prevalent in the elderly and its symptoms can be confused with other changes due to aging. Doctors caring for the elderly need to be attentive to this diagnostic possibility. This case report case is notable not only because it presents a rare complication of hypothyroidism (kidney failure), but also because patients with chronic kidney failure of any etiology may suffer increased renal dysfunction as a result. This was a 66-year-old male outpatient with a history of generalized edema over the preceding eight years, with periods of worsening, that was intractable to treatment with diuretics. Physical examination revealed bradycardia (heart rate: 52 bpm), pallor, dry and infiltrated skin, macroglossia, edema in the lower limbs and a palpable thyroid with hard consistency. Laboratory tests showed: creatinine 3.9 mg/dl; urea 95 mg/dl; potassium 6.0 mEq/l; thyroid-stimulating hormone &gt; 100 mUI/ml; triiodothyronine 0.01 ng/dl; free thyroxin 0.01 ng/dl; antithyroglobulin 31 IU/ml (normal values: &lt; 40 IU/ml); antithyroperoxidase 85 IU/ml (normal values: &lt; 15 IU/ml); creatinine clearance 30 ml/min/1.73 m(2); and proteinuria 122 mg/24 h. After five months of treatment with thyroxin (100 mcg/day), the patient returned without any symptoms and presented the following test results: urea 48 mg/dl; creatinine 1.4 mg/dl; creatinine clearance 67 ml/min/1.73 m(2); potassium 4.2 mEq/l; thyroid-stimulating hormone: 20.85 mUI/ml; free thyroxin: 0.71 ng/dl. Hypothyroidism alone can cause renal impairment or worsen renal function in preexisting illnesses. Its treatment can stabilize the clinical condition, or possibly improve it." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en000_205316", "title": "Hyperthyroidism", "score": 0.013008130081300813, "content": "In addition to testing the TSH levels, many doctors test for T3, Free T3, T4, and/or Free T4 for more detailed results. Free T4 is unbound to any protein in the blood. Adult limits for these hormones are: TSH (units): 0.45 – 4.50 uIU/mL; T4 Free/Direct (nanograms): 0.82 – 1.77 ng/dl; and T3 (nanograms): 71 – 180 ng/dl. Persons with hyperthyroidism can easily exhibit levels many times these upper limits for T4 and/or T3. See a complete table of normal range limits for thyroid function at the thyroid gland article. In hyperthyroidism CK-MB (Creatine kinase) is usually elevated. Subclinical" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0755_2240", "title": "A case of simultaneous occurrence of Graves' disease and Hashimoto's thyroiditis.", "score": 0.012368772666539416, "content": "Simultaneous occurrence of Hashimoto's thyroiditis (HT), and Graves' disease (GD) is rare. We report a case of simultaneous occurrence of GD and HD, at presentation. A 60-year-old lady presented with tremulousness of hands, palpitation, and excessive sweating. She had a history of weight loss and neck-swelling. Her weight was 46 kg, BMI 17, afebrile, regular pulse rate of 110/min with fine tremor in hands. Thyroid gland was symmetrically enlarged, firm, without any bruit, but mildly tender with lobular surface. There were no occular manifestations. Initial thyroid function tests (TFT) revealed: T3: 3.80 ng/ml (0.80-2.10), T4: 12.40 ug/dl (5.10-12), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH): 0.20 μU/L (0.70-5). Her anti thyroperoxidase (TPO) antibody: 374 IU/ml (normal [nl.] &lt;35) and TSH receptor antibody: 15 U/L (nl. &lt;1) were both strongly positive. Ultrasonogram of thyroid revealed a hypoechoic enlarged gland. 99mTc pertechnetate scan showed an enlarged gland with increased uptake of radiocontrast: 17% (nl. 0.4-4%) with some patchy defects in both lower poles. Thyroid fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) showed sheets of Hurthle cells with abdunce of lymphocytes indicating HT. She was observed on beta blockers. Repeat TFT, 3 months later showed: T3: 4.20 ng/ml, T4: 14.40 ug/dl, TSH: 0.001 μU/L, with increased uptake on repeat scan. HT rarely occurs following GD. Our case of an elderly lady with no eye signs, lobular, firm tender goiter with patchy uptake in both lower poles on Tc99m scan were odd points in diagnosing isolated GD. FNAC confirmed simultaneous HD with GD." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_26747", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011721867517956903, "content": "Adult patients under 60 years old without evidence of heart disease may be started on 50–100 μg levothyroxine (T4) daily. The dose is adjusted on the basis of TSH levels, with the goal of treatment being a normal TSH, ideally in the lower half of the reference range. TSH responses are gradual and should be measured about 2 months after instituting treatment or after any subsequent change in levothyroxine dosage. The clinical effects of levothyroxine replacement are slow to appear. Patients may not experience full relief from symptoms until 3–6 months after normal TSH levels are FIGURE 405-7 Evaluation of hypothyroidism. TPOAb+, thyroid peroxidase antibodies present; restored. Adjustment of levothyroxine TPOAb−, thyroid peroxidase antibodies not present; TSH, thyroid-stimulating hormone. dosage is made in 12.5or 25-μg increments if the TSH is high; decrements of the same magnitude should be made if the TSH is suppressed. Patients with a suppressed TSH of any" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_60553", "title": "Hypothyroidism", "score": 0.01044735406437534, "content": "Blood free thyroxine and TSH levels are monitored to help determine whether the dose is adequate. This is done 4–8 weeks after the start of treatment or a change in levothyroxine dose. Once the adequate replacement dose has been established, the tests can be repeated after 6 and then 12 months, unless there is a change in symptoms. Normalization of TSH does not mean that other abnormalities associated with hypothyroidism improve entirely, such as elevated cholesterol levels. In people with central/secondary hypothyroidism, TSH is not a reliable marker of hormone replacement and decisions are based mainly on the free T4 level. Levothyroxine is best taken 30–60 minutes before breakfast, or four hours after food, as certain substances such as food and calcium can inhibit the absorption of levothyroxine. There is no direct way of increasing thyroid hormone secretion by the thyroid gland." }, { "id": "article-22579_15", "title": "Hashimoto Thyroiditis -- Evaluation", "score": 0.01028673835125448, "content": "Hashimoto thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder of inadequate thyroid hormone production. The biochemical picture indicates raised thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in response to low free T4. A low total T4 or free T4 level in the presence of an elevated TSH level confirms the diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism. Integrative and functional medicine practitioners may also assess free T3 and reverse T3 levels; however, Western medicine does not use this approach. The presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase and anti-thyroglobulin antibodies suggests Hashimoto thyroiditis. However, 10%  of patients may be antibody negative. Anemia is present in 30 to 40%. There can be decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), renal plasma flow, and renal free water clearance with resultant hyponatremia. Creatine kinase is frequently elevated. Prolactin levels may be elevated. Elevated total cholesterol, LDL, and triglyceride levels can occur." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0224_16307", "title": "[A case of iodide myxedema observed for 3 years under a low iodide diet--especially on the restoration of the mechanism of escape from the Wolff-Chaikoff effect].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "A 47-year-old housewife was admitted to our hospital because of general fatigue and constipation suggesting hypothyroidism. For 3 years before admission, general fatigue, arrhythmia, dry skin, drowsiness, cold intolerance and hypermenorrhea occurred insidiously. She had habitually taken considerable amounts of seaweed every day, e.g. more than 50 g of \" Kombu \" for more than 5 years and at least 1 g of \" Wakame \" for 6 months. On admission, serum thyroxine (T4) was 1.3 micrograms/dl, serum triiodothyronine (T3) was 47 ng/dl, TSH was 132 microunits/ml, and 123I thyroidal uptake was 60% at 3 hr. and 75% at 24 hr. Anti-thyroglobulin hemagglutination antibodies and anti-thyroid microsomal hemagglutination antibodies were both negative. When seaweed was omitted from her diet, T4 rose to 6.3 micrograms/dl and T3 rose to 113 ng/dl, whereas TSH lowered to 11 microunits/ml in 2 weeks. The seaweed-free diet was continued and 4 months later, when she had become euthyroid, an open biopsy of the thyroid gland was carried out. Histological examination of the specimen revealed a marked colloid deposition without characteristic features of Hashimoto's disease. Five months after admission, with the daily administration of 100 mg potassium iodide (KI), the effects of inorganic iodide on thyroid function had begun to be seen. On the 16th day of the KI regimen, palpitation and tachycardia (pulse rate 160/min.) with multifocal ventricular premature beat appeared, and T4 on the 11th day was 5.9 micrograms/dl, which was clearly lower than the pretreatment level of 8.4 micrograms/dl. KI was discontinued on the 16th day, and one week after the withdrawal, T4, T3 and TSH all returned to the pretreatment level. For more than 3 years on a seaweed-free diet, she remained euthyroid without any thyroid regimen. To see the effects of inorganic iodide on thyroid function after this long period on a seaweed-free diet, KI was again administered. One hundred mg/day KI for 14 days followed by 200 mg/day for 21 days had virtually no effect on T4, T3 and free T4 and she remained well. None of the perchlorate discharge tests performed on 3 occasions during the 6 month period after the initiation of the seaweed-free diet showed a discharge.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0480_18737", "title": "[Agranulocytosis and acute coronary syndrome in apathetic hyperthyroidism].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Tissue expose to excessive levels of circulating thyroid hormones results in thyrotoxicosis. In most cases, thyrotoxicosis is due to hyperactivity of the thyroid gland. Cardiovascular and myopathic manifestations are predominant clinical features in most hyperthyroid patients, aged 60 years and older. Some of patients have apathetic hyperthyroidism which presents with weight loss, small goiter, severe depression and without clinical features of increased sympathetic activity [3, 6]. About 50% of patients with cardiovascular manifestations have no evidence of underlying heart disease. Cardiac problems resolve when euthyroid state is established [3]. Three treatment modalities are available in hyperthyroidism, namely medicament therapy, surgery and radioactive iodine. Antithyroid drug therapy complications, can be mild such as rash, which is managed without cessation of therapy by antihistamines administration. On the other hand, very serious complications such as agranulocytosis, necessitate immediate discontinuation of the medication and appropriate treatment. Although extremely rear, it is life-threatening with highly variable recovery time. A 62-year-old woman with recurrent hyperthyroidism was admitted after treatment of agranulocytosis due to antithyroid drugs in another institution with G-CSF. The patient presented with clinical features of apathetic hyperthyroidism with extremely elevated thyroid hormone levels (total and free T4) and suppressed TSH. Radioactive iodine (5 mCi) was administered after increased thyroid uptake was confirmed. Echocardiography on admission was normal. ECG revealed moderately inverted T waves in standard and V1, V2 precordial leads. Laboratory analysis revealed mild normocytic anemia with normal white blood cell count, hypokaliemia and normal concentration of creatine phosphokinase, lactic dehydrogenase and mildly elevated aspartate transminase in sera. Chest X-ray was consistent with pulmonary emphysema. Because the worsening of ECG changes she was transferred to Coronary unit. The diagnosis of non-Q myocardial infarction was confirmed and treatment with nitrates and beta-adrenergic antagonists was instituted. Four weeks later she became euthyroid and coronarography was performed. Subepicardial coronary arteries were normal (Figure 1). She was dismissed, and still euthyroid three months later. Agranulocytosis is very rare but very serious complication of antithyroid drug therapy. It can be detected in about 0.1-1% patients during the first three months of treatment. Sudden appearance, heralded by sore throat and fever, prompt physicians to seek white blood cell and differential count [1-3]. Confirmation of diagnosis urges cessation of drug therapy and appropriate antibiotic treatment. Recently, it was reported that recombinant human granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (rhG-CSF) is to be effective in shortening the recovery time in the neutropenic patients undergoing chemotherapy and also in patients with other types of neutropenia [5]. Tamai at al. [7] confirmed positive outcome in 34 patients treated with rhG-CSF compared to corticosteroid treatment. Hematologic laboratory abnormalities disappear 7-10 days after session of therapy. Patients completely recover two to three weeks later. Fatal outcome was also described [1-5]. Thyroid hormones have profound effects on cardiovascular physiology, especially on heart rate, cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. In patients with hyperthyroidism, cardiac output is much higher than in normal persons. This is the result of direct effect of thyroid hormones on cardiac muscle contractility, heart rate and decrease in systemic vascular resistance. Excessive thyroid hormone secretion increases cardiac Na-K-activated plasma membrane ATP-ase and sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca-activated ATP-ase with resultant in increase myocardial contractility [6, 9]. Sinus tachycardia is the most common rhythm disorder in hyperthyroidism, but paroxysmal tachycardia and atrial fibrillation are not rare. This can be explained by increased heart rate, cardiac output, blood volume, coronary artery flow and peripheral oxygen consumption in thyrotoxicosis [9]. Patients with coronary arteriosclerosis can develop angina pectoris during thyrotoxic stage, which can be explained by imbalance between cardiac demand and supply. Myocardial damage is often in thyrotoxic patients with chronic hart failure, together with myocardial infarction in patients without coronary disease [2,6]. Congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation are relatively resistant to digitalis treatment because of high metabolic turn over of medication and excessive myocardial irritability in hyperthyroidism [6]. Cardiovascular and myopathic manifestations predominate in older hyperthyroid patients (over 60 years) and some of them can have only few symptoms of hyperthyroidism [1-3]. Thyrotoxic state characterized by fatigue, apathy, extreme weakness, low-grade fever and sometimes congestive heart failure are designated as apathetic hyperthyroidism. Such patients have small goiters, mild tachycardia and often cool and dry skin with few eye signs [6]. Patients with subclinical hyperthyroidism are at increased risk for atrial fibrillation [9]. Unstable angina and non-Q myocardial infarction (non ST elevation) are acute manifestation of coronary artery disease. The acute coronary syndrome of unstable angina, non-Q myocardial infarction and Q-wave myocardial infarction have atherosclerotic lesions of the coronary arteries as a common pathogenic substrate. Erosions or ruptures of unstable atherosclerotic plaque triggered pathophysiologic processes, resulted in thrombus formation at the site of arterial injury. This leads to abrupt reduction or cessation through the affected vessel. Clinical manifestations of unstable angina and non-Q myocardial infarction are similar and diagnosis of non-Q myocardial infarction is made on the basis of elevated serum markers indicative of cardiac necrosis, detected in peripheral circulation. Acute coronary syndrome ranging from unstable angina to myocardial infarction an non-Q myocardial infarction represents increasingly severe manifestations of the same pathophysiologic processes [10,11]. In conclusion, these 62-year-old woman presented with apathetic form of recurrent hyperthyroidism associated with two serious complications, life-threatening agranulocytosis and acute coronary syndrome." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0375_15179", "title": "Short-term hyperthyroidism followed by transient pituitary hypothyroidism in a very low birth weight infant born to a mother with uncontrolled Graves' disease.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Transient hypothyroxinemia in infants born to mothers with poorly controlled Graves' disease was first reported in 1988. We report that short-term hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism with low basal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels developed in a very low birth weight infant born at 27 weeks of gestation to a noncompliant mother with thyrotoxicosis attributable to Graves' disease. We performed serial thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) tests in this infant and demonstrated that TSH unresponsiveness to TRH disappeared at 6.5 months of age. The maternal thyroid function was free triiodothyronine (FT(3)), 21.1 pg/mL; free thyroxine (FT(4)), 8.1 ng/dL; TSH, &lt;0.03 microU/mL; thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor antibody, 52% (normal: &lt;15%); thyroid-stimulating antibody, 294% (normal: &lt;180%); and thyroid-stimulation blocking antibody, 9% (normal: &lt;25%) on the day of delivery. A nonstress test revealed fetal tachycardia &gt;200 beats per minute, and a male infant weighing 1152 g was born by emergency cesarean section. Thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor antibody was 16% and thyroid-stimulating antibody was 370% in the cord blood. We administered 10 mg/kg per day of oral propylthiouracil from day 1. Tachycardia along with elevated FT(4) and FT(3) levels in the infant decreased from 200/minute to 170/minute, 4.7 ng/dL to 2.9 ng/dL, 7.0 pg/mL to 4.8 pg/mL, respectively, in the first 33 hours. At 5 days, FT(4) and FT(3) were 1.1 ng/dL and 2.9 pg/mL, respectively, and we stopped propylthiouracil administration. Although FT(4) decreased to 0.4 ng/dL, TSH was quite low and did not respond to intravenous TRH by 14 days of age. We began daily levothyroxine 5-micro/kg supplementation. The responsiveness of TSH to TRH did not become significant until 4 months old and normalized at 6.5 months old. At this time, levothyroxine was stopped. We conclude that placental transfer of thyroid hormones may cause hyperthyroidism in the fetal and early neonatal periods and lead to transient pituitary hypothyroidism in an infant born to a mother with uncontrolled Graves' disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0879_5444", "title": "Newly diagnosed primary hypothyroidism applicant with massive pericardial effusion and acute renal failure.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "While non-symptomatic pericardial effusion is seen in primary hypothyroidism, massive pericardial effusion is a very rare finding. In the literature, newly diagnosed primary hypothyroidism cases presenting with massive pericardial effusion or acute renal failure are present, but we did not encounter any case first presenting with combination of two signs. In this case report, primary hypothyroidism case that presenting with massive pericardial effusion and acute renal failure will be discussed. Subject and Results. Forty-eight years old male patient was hospitalized with shortness of breath, chest pain, swelling of the eyelids and bilateral limbs complaints. On chest radiograph heart shadow was deleted, pleural effusion was present until the middle zone of the left lung. Biochemical parameters (urea, creatinine, alanine aminotransferase aspartate aminotransferase, lactate dehydrogenase, sodium, potassium, creatine kinase, Troponin I, CK-MB, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, c-reactive protein) and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH, 52.6 μg/ml), free triiodothyronine (T3, 0.61pg/ml), free thyroxine (T4, 0.12 ng/dl), anti thyroperoxydase (343 IU/ml), anti thyroglobulin (1604 IU/ml), were analyzed. The patient underwent pericardiocentesis. Levothyroxine treatment started with a dose of 0.05 mg per day and increased gradually until the optimum dose provided. At the end of the third month, the values of TSH, free T4, and free T3 were measured (2.3 μg/ml, 1.1 ng/dl, 2.54 pg/ml, respectively). The patient recovered completely and pericardial effusion was not detected in echocardiography. Massive PE and acute renal failure due to primary hypothyroidism is a rare clinical condition. Primary hypothyroidism should be kept in mind in patients with symptoms like shortness of breath, chest pain, and generalized edema; moreover, when acute renal failure and PE were detected. It should be considered that patient's biochemical parameters can improve starting from the two weeks after levothyroxine treatment started with pericardiocentesis in severe symptomatic patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0945_5679", "title": "Graves' disease following allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation for severe aplastic anemia: case report and literature review.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Similar autoimmune processes (defective T-cell function) take place during the pathogenesis of aplastic anemia (AA) and Graves' disease (GD). Antithyroid drugs used for the management of GD may induce AA and GD may occur following treatment of severe aplastic anemia (SAA). Clinical and laboratory investigations were performed for an 11-year-and-2-month-old girl who was referred for bilateral exophthalmus and abnormal thyroid function tests. She had been diagnosed as having severe acquired AA at the age of 8 years and had been treated with allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation from her healthy human leukocyte antigen-matched sibling donor. Clinical examination revealed a weight of 32.6 kg (-0.88 standard deviation [SD] score); height, 145.7 cm (-0.14 SD score); body mass index 15.5 kg/m2 (-1.01 SD score); heart rate, 110/min; blood pressure, 128/74 mmHg; bilateral exophthalmos and an enlarged thyroid gland. The laboratory workup showed hemoglobin of 11.1 g/dL; white blood cells, 7500/mL; platelets, 172,000/mL; free thyroxine (FT4), 4.80 ng/dL (normal, 0.5-1.51); free triiodothyronine (FT3), 17.7 pg/mL (normal, 2.5-3.9); thyrotropin (TSH), 0.015 mIU/mL (normal, 0.38-5.3); antithyroglobulin peroxidase (TPO) antibody, 61.7 IU/mL (normal, 0-9); antithyroglobulin (TG) antibody, &lt;0.9 IU/mL (normal, 0-4) and thyrotropin (TSH) receptor antibodies 14 U/L (normal, 0-1). Doppler ultrasonography showed diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland and increased vascularity. She was treated with methimazole (0.6 mg/kg/day). L-thyroxine treatment was also needed (50 μg/day). Thrombocytopenia developed during follow-up. A thyroidectomy was performed for definitive treatment at the 14th month of treatment. The association of hyperthyroidism and AA in the pediatric age group is rare. The long-term use of antithyroid drugs and radioactive iodine should be avoided due to their hematologic toxic side effects." }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_10801", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "50 to 200 μg per day, depending on the patient’s size and condition. Starting doses of 100 μg of T4 daily are well tolerated; however, elderly patients and those with coexisting heart disease and profound hypothyroidism should be started on a considerably lower dose such as 25 to 50 μg daily because of associated hypercholesterolemia and atherosclerosis. The dose can be slowly increased over weeks to months to attain a euthyroid state. A baseline electrocardiogram should always be obtained in patients with severe hypothyroidism before treat-ment. T4 dosage is titrated against clinical response and TSH levels, which should return to normal. The management of patients with subclinical hypothyroidism (normal T4, slightly raised TSH) is controversial. Some evidence suggests that patients with subclinical hypothyroidism and increased antithy-roid antibody levels should be treated because they will sub-sequently develop hypothyroidism. Patients who present with myxedema coma may require" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_26744", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Once clinical or subclinical hypothyroidism is confirmed, the etiology is usually easily established by demonstrating the presence of TPO antibodies, which are present in >90% of patients with autoimmune hypothyroidism. TBII can be found in 10–20% of patients, but measurement is not needed routinely. If there is any doubt about the cause of a goiter associated with hypothyroidism, FNA biopsy can be used to confirm the presence of autoimmune thyroiditis. Other abnormal laboratory findings in hypothyroidism may include increased creatine phosphokinase, elevated cholesterol and triglycerides, and anemia (usually normocytic or macrocytic). Except when accompanied by iron deficiency, the anemia and other abnormalities gradually resolve with thyroxine replacement." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_26792", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009477124183006537, "content": "Thyroid function tests and clinical manifestations are reviewed 4–6 weeks after starting treatment, and the dose is titrated based on unbound T4 levels. Most patients do not achieve euthyroidism until 6–8 weeks after treatment is initiated. TSH levels often remain suppressed for several months and therefore do not provide a sensitive index of treatment response. The usual daily maintenance doses of antithyroid drugs in the titration regimen are 2.5–10 mg of carbimazole or methimazole and 50–100 mg of propylthiouracil. In the block-replace regimen, the initial dose of antithyroid drug is held constant, and the dose of levothyroxine is adjusted to maintain normal unbound T4 levels. When TSH suppression is alleviated, TSH levels can also be used to monitor therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0697_18551", "title": "Vitiligo and alopecia areata associated with subclinical/clinical hypothyroidism.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The parents of an 18-year-old woman had noticed white hair while combing their daughter's hair 12 years ago. They found tiny white spots on her scalp, but she was asymptomatic. The spots have since progressed. Examination of the affected skin on the scalp was marked by the presence of a chalky/ivory white macule, 8 to 10 cm in diameter, conforming to that of segmental (zosteriformis) vitiligo (Figure 1). The lesions were located on the temporoparietal region of the scalp. The hair over the macules was white (leukotrichia) and dry, coarse, and brittle. The patient's nails were thin and dull. Her thyroid profile revealed the following: triiodothyronine, 1.12 nmol/L (0.95-2.5 nmol/L); thyroxine, 69.21 nmol/L (60.0-120.0 nmol/L); and thyroid-stimulating hormone, 6.26 microIU/mL (0.25-5.00 microIU/mL), indicative of primary hypothyroidism. Liver and renal function tests were within normal limits. A lipid profile revealed the following: total lipids, 503.8 mg% (400-700 mg %); triglycerides, 123.0 mg % (160 mg %); cholesterol, 212.0 mg % (150-250 mg %); high-density lipoprotein, 43.1 mg % (30-63 mg %); and low-density lipoprotein, 144.3 mg % (50 mg %). Electrocardiographic findings were normal. History of tiredness, constipation, depression, sensitivity to cold, weight gain, muscle weakness, cramps, and increased menstrual flow supported the diagnosis. The patient was administered 100 microg of thyroxine once a day along with methoxsalen, the dose of which was calculated at 0.6 mg/kg to 0.7 mg/kg body weight per day given on alternate days, followed 2 hours later by exposure to UV-A (1 J/cm2) irradiation (psoralen-UV-A [PUVA]), supplemented by 1 mg of beta-methasone, 150 mg of levamisole on 2 consecutive days per week, and an antioxidant. During the course of 7 weeks, the macules (13 exposures) had become erythematous, with an appearance of perifollicular/ marginal pigmentation. Repeat examination showed a thyroid profile of total triiodothyronine (T3), 127.3 microg/dL (86-186); total thyroxine (T4), 6.54 microg/dL (4.5-12.5 microg/dL); and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), 0.32 microIU/mL (0.3-5.6 microIU/mL), supplemented by antithyroid microsomal peroxidase antibodies (thyroid microsomal antibody and thyroid peroxidase), 21.9 IU/mL (1-40 IU/mL), and antithyroglobulin antibodies, 78.1 U/mL (1-100 U/mL). During the patient's treatment period, 4 other patients with clinical symptoms and signs of long-standing hypothyroidism developed vitiligo, the duration of which was variable in each patient (Table I). All of the patients were taking thyroxin. Thyroid and lipid profiles were performed periodically to evaluate the progress (Table I). These patients were also treated with PUVA therapy and thyroxin. During the course of treatment, 2 of the patients noticed asymptomatic, progressive, localized, and well-circumscribed hair loss at the temporal region of the scalp that extended to involve the vertex, conforming to findings of alopecia areata (Figure 2A and Figure 2B)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1036_19925", "title": "A CASE OF FAMILIAL NONAUTOIMMUNE HYPERTHYROIDISM DURING PREGNANCY.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Familial nonautoimmune hyperthyroidism (FNAH) is a rare disease. To date there are few, if any, reports of pregnancies in women with FNAH. Our objective here is to present such a case. Free thyroxine (free T4), free triiodothyronine (free T3), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), and antibodies related to the thyroid were measured. Fetal thyroid function indicators including thyroid volume and ossification were checked using ultrasound. Thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor (TSHR) gene analyses were performed. The patient was a 30-year-old woman with no past medical history. She was introduced to our hospital in the fifth gestational week for pregnancy care because her family history revealed that her mother had nonautoimmune hyperthyroidism with a TSHR-activating germ-line mutation (Asn406Ser). The serum free T4 was 1.88 ng/dL (normal, 0.62 to 1.19 ng/dL), free T3 was 3.27 pg/mL (normal, 2.55 to 3.88 pg/mL), TSH was 0.02 μIU/mL (normal, 0.007 to 3.619 μIU/mL), and TSHR was negative which were considered to be consistent with mild primary hyperthyroidism. Serum free T4, free T3, and TSH concentrations were monitored every 4 to 6 weeks with a peak free T4 of 2.23 ng/dL noted at gestational week 9. The patient had no signs related to hyperthyroidism throughout pregnancy. The patient delivered a 3,518 g girl at 40 weeks of gestation. Genetic analysis of her <iTSHR</i gene showed heterozygous Asn406Ser mutation. The offspring did not show any signs of prenatal hyperthyroidism, and thyroid function at day 6 after delivery revealed a free T4 of 2.41 ng/dL (normal, 1.83 to 2.91 ng/dL) and a TSH of 3.55 μIU/mL (normal, 0.51 to 4.57 μIU/mL). Women with FNAH and mild thyrotoxicosis prior to pregnancy may have continuous hyperthyroidism with additional change due to the series of human chorionic gonadotropin secretion during pregnancy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0502_6599", "title": "Some aspects of hypothyroidism in elderly.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The frequency of hypothyroidism does not diminish with age but there is a considerable change in its clinical pattern. The data of 169 patients treated with primary hypothyroidism were processed by means of computer analysis. They were put, in accordance with their basic diseases, into 5 groups: idiopathic (50.3%); chronic thyroiditis (26.6%); as a result of the ablative treatment of Graves' disease (17.2%); nodular goitre (4.7%) and thyroid malignancy (1.2%). According to age, the patients fell into 4 groups. III patients were between 50 and 90 years of age. In most cases the identification of the disease was belated. The usual symptoms that might lead to the consideration of hypothyroidism are edema not reacting to diuretics, anemia, and high blood lipid values. In 18 patients with a previous case history of immunothyroiditis, the cultured monocyte monolayers were examined for the activity of the specific and the scavenger LDL receptors and for the intracellular breakdown of LDL." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1153_26171", "title": "Thyroid function tests of iodine deficiency goiter can mimic thyroid hormone resistance alpha.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Iodine deficiency goiter can develop in children on a restrictive diet and most have normal thyroid function. We report a 6-year-old girl with iodine deficiency goiter with thyroid function studies mimicking thyroid hormone resistance alpha. Thyroid hormones mediate its effects through thyroid hormone receptors alpha and beta. Biochemical picture of low/low-normal T4 and high/high-normal T3 levels, variably reduced reverse T3 and normal TSH is characteristic of thyroid hormone resistance alpha. A 6-year-old girl, born out of non-consanguineous marriage presented with goiter of 1.5 years duration. She was without symptoms of thyroid dysfunction. The patient was evaluated at one year of age for macrocephaly with cranial ultrasound which was normal. She had normal growth and development. Patient was vegan and was not on any medications or supplements. Laboratory work up showed TSH 5.03 uIU/mL (0.34-5.5), FT4 0.3 ng/dL (0.58-1.2), FT3 5.3 pg/mL (2.5-3.9), total T3 258 ng/dL (94-241), reverse T3 &lt;5.0 ng/dL (8.3-22.9) and negative thyroglobulin antibody and thyroid peroxidase antibody. Thyroglobulin level was 1,098.8 ng/mL (&lt;13 ug/L), and urine iodine 15.8 ug/L (&lt;100 ug/L) confirming a diagnosis of iodine deficiency goiter. Patient was started on iodine supplements, 150 ug daily and repeat work up 3 months later were TSH: 2.717 uIU/mL, T3, total 182 ng/dL, T4, total 9.3 ug/dL, FT 4 2.1 ng/dL. Iodine deficiency goiter may present with low FT 4, elevated T3 and normal TSH mimicking thyroid hormone resistance alpha and should be considered in children on restrictive diet." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0352_8250", "title": "[Economic evaluation od the value of early diagnosis and management of hypothyroidism in hypercholesterolemia].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The aim of the study was to assess the economic consequences of the early screening and management for overt hypothyrodism in elderly women suffering from hypercholesterolaemia. A cost analysis was performed using screening decision tree followed by a Markov model, targeted on an hypothetical cohort of elderly women (i.e. &gt; or = 55 years of age) suffering from hypercholesterolaemia. Two arms were compared, \"no diagnosis\", patients being treated by lipid lowering drugs in the long run, \"diagnosis\", patients being screened for thyroid disturbance and proposed adequate correction by hormone treatment. Relevant clinical data introduced into the model were obtained from published data and from experts. At the end of the initial diagnostic, patients could enter three different health states: euthyroidism, subclinical hypothyroidism or overt hypothyroidism. During 30 years, patients were assumed to be seen each year by a general practitioner for clinical examination and cholesterol dosage, plus, according to the health state evolution, TSH and T4 screening. In the baseline analysis, euthyroidian patients who had a inexplicable degradation of hypercholesterolaemia control were tested for TSH and, if abnormal, T4 serum; for subclinical hypothyroidian patients, TSH and T4 were measured every year. The direct costs taken into account were concerning medical supervision, drug treatment and biologic exams. Costs were analysed from the societal perspective and were expressed in 1998 French Francs (FF) with an accounting rate of 5% by year. A sensitivity analysis was also performed. The total cost at 30-year was equal to 25,006 F for \"diagnosis\" strategy, to 24,390 F for \"no diagnosis\" strategy. The incremental cost of the first strategy decreased according to the time horizon. It was 6.8% at 5-year and 2.5% at 30-year. Results were sensitive to variation in response rate of hypercholesterolaemic patients to hormone treatment of hypothyroidism (0.25 in base-case). The investment cost in screening and treatment of hypercholesterolemic female patient aged 55 and more can be considered offset in the long run (30 years). Considering the other important outcomes in favour of hormonal drug treatment of hypothyroidism, such as enhancement of well-being, functional capacities and quality of life, the \"diagnosis\" strategy can be recommended in the ambulatory medical practice." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0087_13208", "title": "Pituitary enlargement in post-surgical hypothyroidism misdiagnosed as thyrotroph neoplasia. Report of a case.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Primary hypothyroidism may be associated with enlargement of the sella turcica, due to thyrotroph hyperplasia, in its turn due to the lack of feedback control by thyroid hormones. It may develop independently of the severity or of the duration of thyroid failure. A 42-year-old woman was referred to us. She presented us with a CT scan compatible with a pituitary microadenoma, in the left part of the sella. The patient showed obvious signs of myxedema, due to subtotal thyroidectomy which had been performed 14 months before, because of the presence of multinodular goiter. After operation, the patient has been discontinuously and inappropriately treated with desiccated thyroid. She complained of headache, nausea, galactorrhea without amenorrhea. Serum T4 (0.8 micrograms/dl), serum T3 (47 ng/dl) and TSH (174.5 +/- 60.1 mU/l: M +/- SD of 4 assays) were compatible with primary hypothyroidism as confirmed by TSH hyper-response to i.v. TRH (200 micrograms) and i.v. domperidone (10 mg), and by the normal TSH decrease after orally administered 2.5 mg bromocriptine or 90 min continuously infused 800 micrograms GHIRH. Moreover, an abnormal GH response to TRH was observed, whereas basal and appropriately stimulated PRL levels were normal. Serum alpha-subunit was marginally high (5.92 ng/ml), but alpha-subunit/TSH molar ratio fell within the normal range (0.1 molar ratio). Complete suppression of basal and TRH stimulated TSH values was achieved after a 14-day L-T3 (120 micrograms per day) and 4-month L-T4 (200 micrograms per day) administration. L-T4 treatment, first administered at suppressive doses (200 micrograms per day for 4 months) and subsequently at substitutive doses (150 micrograms per day for 2 months), induced complete remission of symptoms along with normalization of the CT scan picture." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0297_5450", "title": "[Clinical and subclinical hyperthyroidism: two faces of the coin?].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "We have made a prospective study of 23 patients diagnosed of subclinical hypothyroidism and 45 of overt hypothyroidism, aged 68.3-70.3 years and with a mean illness of 4.5 and 6.5 years respectively. It has been proved a higher prevalence of females in both groups. The most frequent clinical symptoms, similar in both groups, were fatigue, constipation and dyspnea. The most repeated initial diagnosis at the entry were prymary hypothyroidism, heart failure, hypertensive urgencies and stroke. We have found differences of statistical significance between the Free Thyroxine (fT4), triiodothyronine (T3), total serum cholesterol (CT), triglycerides (TG), HDL-cholesterol (HDL-C), LDL-cholesterol (LDL-C) and thyrotropin (TSH) initial and ending serum levels in patients with overt hypothyroidism (p &lt; 0.05). We only have found significant differences in TSH serum levels in patients with subclinical hypothyroidism. The antithyroglobulin and antimicrobial antibodies, have been both positive in two and one patient respectively. Both are more useful as a predictor than their diagnostic value. The levothyroxine (L-T4) daily dose needed to normalize the TSH serum concentration, was lesser in subclinical hypothyroidism (71.8 micrograms opposite 107 micrograms-p &lt; 0.001). We didn't find significant differences between the different groups in the time necessary for normalizing TSH. It seems that the L-T4 therapy should be started in all patients with subclinical hypothyroidism and TSH &gt; or = 10 microU/ml or with TSH &gt; 5 and goiter or with thyroid antibodies. The aim to reach is to normalize the TSH serum levels. The mean daily necessary L-T4 dose is 50-100 micrograms." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0065_599", "title": "[Two cases of TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma; endocrinological, diagnostic and therapeutic approach to the disease].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Two cases of TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma were reported. Endocrinological and immunohistochemical features of these cases were described and problems in diagnosis and treatment of the rare disease are discussed. [case 1] A 28 year-old woman suffered from hyperthyroidism with a relatively high value of serum TSH (T3; 350 ng/dl, T4; 10.0 micrograms/dl, TSH; 24.5 microU/ml). She was treated with antithyroid drug and then underwent subtotal thyroidectomy. Although the levels of serum T3 and T4 were lowered to within normal range, the level of serum TSH still remained high. One month later, she developed frontal headache, amenorrhea and bitemporal hemianopsia. A CT scan showed an enhanced mass in the sellar and suprasellar region. Preoperative endocrinological studies showed elevated values of TSH (47 microU/ml) and its alpha-subunit (9.0 ng/ml). The levels of both T3 (190 ng/dl) and T4 (10.0 micrograms/dl) were near the upper normal limit. Serum TSH was suppressed by administration of exogenous T3, but did not respond to exogenous TRH, l-Dopa nor bromocriptine. Under the diagnosis of TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma, the patient was operated on by craniotomy and received local radiation therapy (50 Gy). In 1990, 12 years after the treatment, she is well and endocrinologically normal. Immunohistochemical study revealed that most tumor cells were positive for TSH. [case 2] A 28 year-old woman visited our hospital for examination of hyperthyroidism. Serum level of TSH was detectable (4.5 microU/ml). A CT scan performed at that time disclosed no pituitary tumor. Thyroid function was normalized by antithyroid drug, but the level of TSH was still high and progressively increased.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0411_184", "title": "[Three-year follow-up of infraclinical hypothyroidism: course in a cohort of 97 women aged 45 to 70 years attending healthcare screening centers].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Infraclinical hypothyroidism is a recognized entity defined in terms of laboratory results which occurs more readily in women. The appropriateness of thyroid hormone multicentric prospective study initiated in 1997 has established that infraclinical hypothyroidism occurred in about 3% of women over 45 years of age undergoing routine check-ups at eleven health screening centers. Associated clinical signs and laboratory findings were reported. The purpose of the present study was to describe findings in a 3-year follow-up of these women with infraclinical hypothyroidism in order to assess natural history and appropriate care. Ninety-seven women of the 151 women with a TSH level between 4 and 12 mU/l in the 1997 survey were reviewed during the last three months of 2000. Forty-three of them had taken thyroid hormone replacement drugs since 1997. About 44% of the women examined still had infraclinical hypothyroidism or developing hypothyroidism. There was not significant difference between treated (33%) and non-treated (55%) patients. Clinical and biological signs associated with infraclinical hypothyroidism at the initial examination (elevated serum cholesterol, abnormal ECG, eyelid edema, recent weight gain) were unchanged at the second examination, both in treated and not treated women. A logistic model including all these factors demonstrated that the probability of prescription of thyroid hormone replacement therapy increased 5.4-fold when the starting TSH level was above 6 mU/l and 3.2-fold if ECG abnormalities were present. Using a statistical model with anti TPO antibodies, a level above 64 U/l increased the probability of treatment 7-fold, with ECG findings being related to probability of treatment. Age, cholesterol level, use to lipid lowering drugs, presence of eyelid edema or weight gain were not associated with replacement therapy in this model. No consistent conclusion concerning the appropriateness of screening for infraclinical hypothyroidism can be drawn from these three-year follow-up findings. Another examination scheduled for 2003 should provide further precision concerning the natural history of infraclinical hypothyroidism as well as long-term medical practices and therapeutic impact." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0308_17391", "title": "Recombinant human thyrotropin is a potent stimulator of thyroid function in normal subjects.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Recombinant human TSH (rhTSH) is known to stimulate 131I uptake and thyroglobulin (Tg) release from the postoperative remnant and metastases in thyroid cancer patients, but its effects on serum thyroid hormone and Tg concentrations in normal subjects have not been reported. Before using rhTSH in the management of thyroid disorders other than cancer, the thyroid response to rhTSH in normal subjects must be assessed. Six subjects, two men and four women, without evidence of thyroid disease, including normal serum free T4 index and TSH concentrations and negative tests for antithyroid peroxidase and Tg, were studied. Each received 0.1 mg rhTSH, im, 11% of the lowest dose that has been administered to thyroid cancer patients. Blood was obtained before; 2, 4, and 8 h after; and 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, and about 3 weeks after rhTSH administration. Serum TSH significantly increased at 2 h (mean +/- SE, 2.4 +/- 0.9 to 40.7 +/- 7.4 mU/mL), peaked at 4 h (50.9 +/- 9.3), remained significantly elevated for 1 day, and was significantly below baseline (0.8 +/- 0.5) 7 days after rhTSH administration. Serum T3 increased significantly at 4 h (115 +/- 4 to 190 +/- 14 ng/dL), peaked at 24 h (217 +/- 23 ng/dL), and remained significantly elevated for 3 days (151 +/- 12 ng/dL). Serum T4 increased significantly at 8 h (7.3 +/- 0.2 to 9.8 +/- 0.4 micrograms/dL), peaked at 24 h (11.2 +/- 0.5 micrograms/dL), and remained significantly elevated for 4 days (9.4 +/- 0.5 micrograms/dL). Serum Tg did not change for the first 8 h, increased significantly at 1 day (15.9 +/- 3.9 to 34.7 +/- 6.0 ng/mL), peaked at 2 days (44.2 +/- 7.0 ng/mL), and remained significantly elevated for 4 days (37.7 +/- 13.7 ng/mL). All values returned to baseline at 3 weeks. TSH antibodies were not detected at 3 weeks. A single dose of 0.1 mg rhTSH is a potent stimulator of thyroid function in normal subjects. rhTSH may be a useful agent to test thyroid reserve and for use in clinical settings that require direct thyroid stimulation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0383_6866", "title": "[Primary hypothyroidism in the adult older than 60 years. Characteristics and follow-up after initiation of replacement treatment in hospital].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Primary hypothyroidism is common in the elderly. Yet its care remains unclear. Clinical, biological characteristics and outcome of 45 patients aged over 60 years admitted for in-hospital initiation of treatment for primary hypothyroidism were recorded. Causes and tolerance of treatment (clinical and ECG monitoring in hospital) were seek for. Initial symptoms, predominantly fatigue (84.4%), were moderate, contrasting with severe biological hormonal deficiency. The most common routine biological change was hypercholesterolemia (57.6%). Female predominance was obvious (77.8%) and the most usual aetiology autoimmune chronic thyroiditis. Despite variability of symptoms, long term follow-up demonstrates a positive response to treatment, including an improvement in fatigue, eye-lid swelling, bradycardia and overweight. This clinical improvement was achieved on an average dose of 1.22 +/- 0.47 mg/kg/day L-T4 in order to maintain normal TSH (3.76 +/- 2.93 mUI/l). Cardiovascular incidents while starting treatment require experienced care and low dose initial treatment. Primary hypothyroidism is still lately discovered in the elderly. Yet, since treatment is efficacious and simple, the disease should be searched for and cared after whenever a related symptom occurs." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0702_9318", "title": "Tubulointerstitial nephritis and uveitis syndrome with transient hyperthyroidism in an elderly patient.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "A 69-year-old Japanese woman without any specific medical or family history was admitted to our hospital for renal insufficiency with proteinuria. On laboratory examinations, deteriorated renal function (blood urea nitrogen level was 34.9 mg/dL and creatinine level was 1.78 mg/dL) and elevated urinary levels of N-acetyl-β-D-glucosaminidase (23.4 U/L) and β2-microgloblin (20200 μg/L) were observed. We performed a renal biopsy. The biopsied specimen showed severe diffuse infiltration of mononuclear cells into the interstitium, with normal glomeruli, and these findings were compatible with acute tubulointerstitial nephritis (ATIN). At that time, ATIN seemed to be idiopathic. We performed gallium scintigraphy, and the results revealed uptake by the bilateral kidneys, thyroid gland, and right parotid gland. Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) was undetectable, free triiodothyronine was normal (3.11 pg/mL), and free thyroxine was elevated to 2.4 ng/dL. The titers of antithyroglobulin and antithyroid microsomal and TSH-receptor antibodies were not elevated. Two months later, burning pain and conjunctival congestion developed in both eyes. She had uveitis, as diagnosed by slit-lamp examination. Topical corticosteroid was used for the uveitis with success. We could not detect any cause of the uveitis, so a diagnosis of tubulointerstitial nephritis and uveitis syndrome (TINU syndrome) with associated hyperthyroidism was made. Treatment was started with 15 mg/day of prednisolone. Now her renal function is slowly recovering. There are few reports of TINU syndrome with transient hyperthyroidism. This case suggests the possibility of thyroid dysfunction in patients with TINU syndrome. A laboratory evaluation of thyroid function should be considered in the diagnostic evaluation of TINU syndrome." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_91208", "title": "Multiple myeloma", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Signs and symptoms Because many organs can be affected by myeloma, the symptoms and signs vary greatly. Fatigue and bone pain are the most common symptoms at presentation. The CRAB criteria encompass the most common signs of multiple myeloma: Calcium: serum calcium >0.25 mmol/l (>1 mg/dl) higher than the upper limit of normal or >2.75 mmol/l (>11 mg/dl) Renal insufficiency: creatinine clearance <40 ml per minute or serum creatinine >1.77 mol/l (>2 mg/dl) Anemia: hemoglobin value of >2g/dl below the lowest limit of normal, or a hemoglobin value <10g/dl Bone lesions: osteolytic lesions on skeletal radiography, CT, or PET/CT Bone pain" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0378_11083", "title": "[Treatment of thyroid dysfunction].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The treatment of hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism is briefly reviewed. L-T4, which is the treatment of choice of hypothyroidism, should be administered once daily after an overnight fast at the dosage of 10-12 mg/kg/day in newborns and of 100 mg/m2 in older children. FT4 and TSH serum levels will normalize within few weeks from the beginning of treatment and should be maintained in the normal range thereafter by appropriate increases of the dosage during growth. The first choice treatment in children with hyperthyroidism due to Basedow disease is the administration of antithyroid drugs, i.e. methimazole at the initial dosage of 0.4-0.6 mg/kg/day b.i.d. or t.i.d.; after remission, the dosage of this drug can either be reduced or L-T4 added in order to avoid hypothyroidism. Treatment should be continued for at least 24 months and the patient followed thereafter to detect possible relapses. Side effects are rare, the most frequent are skin rashes and the most severe is agranulocytosis, so complete blood count should be evaluated frequently especially in the first months of treatment. Surgery (total or near-total thyroidectomy) should be considered in case of failure of medical therapy, even if radioiodine administration, used until now mainly in adults, is gaining favour also for children especially in the United States." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 199, 279 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 46 ] ], "text": "The first step is to try conservative treatment (we ruled out the first option)." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 280, 383 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 46, 63 ] ], "text": "Osteoarthritis is a degenerative process that opioids certainly do not stop, so we rule out option two." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 199, 279 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 32, 46 ] ], "text": "The first step is to try conservative treatment (we ruled out the first option)." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 384, 566 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 63, 94 ] ], "text": "Option four can also be quickly discarded: the statement makes the diagnosis and treatment to follow clear: in this case the MRI will not provide us with any information of interest." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "I make the diagnosis of coxarthrosis and send to the traumatologist to place a hip prosthesis.", "2": "Start treatment with weak opioids that have shown evidence in stopping the progression of the disease.", "3": "I insist treatment with paracetamol, explain that the evolution is very variable and the surgical indication depends on the functionality and pain control.", "4": "Because of the radiological features described, I need a hip MRI before making a therapeutic decision.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0298_22238", "title": "[Coxarthroses].", "score": 0.01951265943270512, "content": "Osteoarthritis of the hip is a frequent disease affecting 2 to 4% adults. The main symptoms are inguinal pain, hip movement limitation and thigh muscular atrophy. The diagnosis is usually made of on antero-posterior radiograph of the pelvis and Lequesne's lateral view that show joint space narrowing and osteophytosis. There is no correlation between radiographic lesions and clinical symptoms. The mean rate of joint space narrowing progression was shown to be of about 0.30 mm/year but inter-patients variations are very large. The evolution is more sever in older patients and when there is no osteophyte. New imaging techniques are necessary only if diagnosis is impossible on standard radiographs but not for the surgical decision. The treatment of hip osteoarthritis requires analgesic, NSAIDs and symptomatic slow actin drugs for osteoarthritis. Total hip arthroplasty is necessary when medical treatment is non effective on pain and disability." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1162_86", "title": "Editorial Commentary: Routine Preoperative Magnetic Resonance Imaging for Hip Arthroscopy Is Wasting Health Care Dollars and Delaying Surgical Intervention: Decision Making Should Be at the Discretion of the Health Care Provider Not Mandated by Health Care Insurers.", "score": 0.019424799622819428, "content": "Making an accurate preoperative diagnosis is critical to optimizing outcomes after hip arthroscopy. A detailed history, thorough physical examination, imaging studies, and diagnostic injections must all be considered in the decision-making process. In today's health care climate, it is imperative to obtain essential and indicated preoperative information while being mindful of health care dollars. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the hip has been shown to be a highly sensitive modality for hip and pelvis disorders. However, it is critical to recognize that acetabular labral tears and other hip pathology are highly prevalent in an asymptomatic young adult population. There are certainly situations when an MRI should be obtained (suspected arthritic symptoms, avascular necrosis, synovial disorders, uncommon osseous tumors); however, these patients generally present with atypical symptoms. In addition, obtaining an MRI can delay surgical intervention, which has been shown to lead to inferior outcomes in prior studies. MRI is not imperative when patients present with typical intermittent, deep anterior, lateral, groin pain with prolonged sitting, twisting and pivoting, and transitioning from sitting to standing. The typical physical examination includes positive hip impingement testing (FADIR / anterior impingement test) that recreates the patients presenting complaints. Appropriate imaging includes plain radiographs revealing adequate acetabular coverage (not significantly dysplastic) or acetabular overcoverage (pincer-type femoracetabular impingement), cam-type femoracetabular impingement, and well-maintained joint space on all views, including a false profile radiograph to further evaluate the anterior joint space. Finally, a diagnostic injection can be invaluable to further confirm the hip joint proper as the source of pain. If all of the above criteria are met, I strongly believe an MRI is unlikely to alter the surgical decision-making process. In the end, the treating clinician should determine when an MRI is necessary based on the presenting symptoms and examination, rather than insurers applying a blanket requirement for preauthorization. This physician autonomy would ultimately lead to more efficient and cost-effective patient care. Medicine is an art, and unjustified handcuffing of the artist without evidence could result in inferior results." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0779_20122", "title": "Magnetic resonance imaging of the hip: poor cost utility for treatment of adult patients with hip pain.", "score": 0.014541622760800843, "content": "Although MRI is frequently used to diagnose conditions affecting the hip, its cost-effectiveness has not been defined. We performed this retrospective study to determine for patients 40 to 80 years old: (1) the differences in hip MRI indications between orthopaedic and nonorthopaedic practitioners; (2) the clinical indications that most commonly influence treatment decisions; (3) the likelihood that hip MRI influences treatment decisions separate from plain radiographs; and (4) the cost of obtaining hip MRI studies that influence treatment decisions (impact studies). We retrospectively assessed 218 consecutive hip MRI studies (213 patients) at one institution over a 5-year interval. Medical records, plain radiographs, and MRI studies were reviewed to determine how frequently individual MRI findings determined treatment recommendations (impact study). The cost estimate of an impact study was calculated from the product of institutional MRI unit cost (USD 436) and the proportion of impact studies relative to all studies obtained either for a specific indication or by an orthopaedic/nonorthopaedic clinician. Nonorthopaedic clinicians more frequently ordered hip MRI without a clinical diagnosis (72% versus 30%, p &lt; 0.01), before plain radiographs (29% versus 3%, p &lt; 0.001), and with less frequent impact on treatment (6% versus 15%, p &lt; 0.05). Hip MRI most frequently influenced treatment when assessing for a tumor (58%, p &lt; 0.001) or infection (40%, p &lt; 0.001) and least frequently when assessing for pain (1%, p &lt; 0.002). Hip MRI impacted a treatment decision independent of plain radiographic findings in only 7% of studies (3% surgical, 4% nonsurgical). Hip MRI cost was least when assessing for a neoplasm (USD 750) and greatest when assessing undefined hip pain (USD 59,000). The cost of obtaining an impact study was also less when the ordering clinician was an orthopaedic clinician (USD 2800) than a nonorthopaedic clinician (USD 7800). Although MRI can be valuable for diagnosing or staging specific conditions, it is not cost-effective as a screening tool for hip pain that is not supported by history, clinical examination, and plain radiographic findings in patients between 40 and 80 years of age. Level IV, economic and decision analysis study. See Instructions for Authors for a complete description of levels of evidence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0509_4494", "title": "Fate of very small asymptomatic stage-I osteonecrotic lesions of the hip.", "score": 0.012908061292471684, "content": "The prognosis for a patient with osteonecrosis of the hip is generally considered to be worse if a large volume of the femoral head is involved, the patient is symptomatic, and the stage of the lesion is advanced. In 1990, we began a prospective study to detect collapse in asymptomatic hips with a very small stage-I osteonecrotic lesion in the femoral head. We hypothesized that such patients would have a favorable prognosis. These hips were followed for a minimum of ten years after the diagnosis. A small asymptomatic stage-I osteonecrotic lesion (not seen on plain radiographs) was diagnosed with magnetic resonance imaging in forty patients (forty hips) contralateral to a hip with symptomatic osteonecrosis. The criterion for inclusion in the study was a lesion with a volume of &lt;5 cm(3) involving &lt;10% of the volume of the femoral head. Plain radiographs were made annually in six different projections for all patients. At the most recent follow-up evaluation (average, eleven years), patients with a symptomatic hip but without evidence of collapse on plain radiographs underwent a computerized tomography scan. Thirty-five (88%) of the forty hips became symptomatic, and twenty-nine (73%) demonstrated collapse. The mean interval between the diagnosis and the first symptoms was eighty months. Symptoms always preceded collapse by at least six months. The mean interval between the diagnosis and the collapse was ninety-two months (range, seventy-two to 140 months). The diagnosis of collapse could be made on only one or two of the six radiographic views obtained for each patient at each evaluation. The diagnosis of collapse for two patients was made only on a computerized tomography scan at the most recent follow-up evaluation. At the time of final follow-up, the twenty-nine hips with collapse had symptoms of intractable pain and required surgery. This study confirms that the diagnosis of collapse is difficult in hips with a very small stage-I osteonecrotic lesion. Multiple radiographic views and computerized tomography scans may be required to demonstrate small areas of collapse. Clinical and radiographic signs of progression of the disease in asymptomatic hips with a very small asymptomatic lesion progress more slowly than do those signs in hips with a large symptomatic stage-II lesion. Because hips with a small area of osteonecrosis do collapse in a large percentage of patients, such patients should be followed carefully over a long period of time. Prognostic study, Level I-1 (prospective study). See Instructions to Authors for a complete description of levels of evidence." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0698_17703", "title": "[Hip degeneration].", "score": 0.012271502439734907, "content": "Hip degeneration is typically easily diagnosed, based on the combination of clinical findings and plain films showing the four classifical findings: joint space narrowing, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis and subchondral cysts. Some degenerated hips may have misleading features such as when joint space narrowing is mainly posterior or the main finding is a large subchondral cyst. Rapidly destructive coxopathy results in joint space narrowing and joint destruction over a few months. MRI is helpful in early cases with normal radiographs or in patients with known hip degeneration presenting with acute worsening of symptoms. Follow-up is achieved by measuring the joint space on consecutive radiographs obtained using a standard technique." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0569_20554", "title": "Hip osteoarthritis: what the radiologist wants to know.", "score": 0.012083712465878072, "content": "Osteoarthritis (OA) is the most common disease of the hip joint seen in adults. The diagnosis of OA is based on a combination of radiographic findings of joint degeneration and characteristic subjective symptoms. The lack of a radiographic consensus definition has resulted in a variation of the published incidences and prevalence of OA. The chronological sequence of degeneration includes the following plain radiographic findings: joint space narrowing, development of osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, and cyst formation. There are cases though, that plain radiographs show minor changes and the clinical suspicion of early disease can be confirmed with more sophisticated imaging methods, such as multi-detector computed tomography and MR imaging. The present article will review all the clinical information on the hip OA together with an updated radiological approach, with emphasis on the early depiction and the differential diagnosis of the disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0133_16112", "title": "[The natural course of osteoarthritis of the hip. Indication of conservative treatment in relation to osteophyte formation at the acetabular rim].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "One hundred and eighty-five hips from 152 patients with primary or secondary osteoarthritis were studied in an attempt to assess the degrees of hip pain in contrast to radiological and other clinical findings. In 30.8% and 26.4% of the primary and secondary osteoarthritic hips respectively, hip pain showed some gradual decrease as time elapsed. Pain relief probably in association with osteophyte formation at the craniolateral acetabular rim occurred in 62.5% and 33.3% of the primary and secondary osteoarthritic hips respectively. Significant parameters observed in the primary osteoarthritic cases of the decreasing pain group were as follows: A lesser extent of cranial displacement of the femoral head, poor capital drop development, well developed floor osteophyte. On the other hand significant parameters in the decreasing pain group of secondary osteoarthritis were as follows: Well developed floor osteophyte, a small size of cyst in both the femoral head and the acetabulum, few \"b\" or \"d\" type of bony sclerosis in the acetabulum. Careful observation of radiographic changes (cyst and sourcil) would be most important, especially in secondary osteoarthritis, to decide the indication of surgery. On the basis of histological studies of osteophyte at the craniolateral acetabular rim obtained at the operation, it was assumed that the osteophyte formation had initiated from metaplasia of the labrum or synovial membrane and progressed by a form of chondral ossification after the process of fibrous tissue formation. A well developed trabecular density in the osteophyte at the craniolateral acetabular rim was determined by the use of Muto digigrammer system, Model G-002." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0401_5530", "title": "[Coxarthrosis].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Osteoarthritis of the hip joint is a very common disease. There is a minor prevalence of males. By etiology one can distinguish primary (idiopathic) from secondary osteoarthritis. Secondary are due to well-known etiologies as overweight, repetitive traumata, malposture, muscle- and tendon-imbalance etc. Osteoarthritis includes not only cartilage abnormalities, but also such of the subchondral-region, synovialis, synovial fluid and periarticular muscles. The cartilage shows in osteoarthritis typically edema and swelling, defects with tears, fibrillation, and \"baldness\" and (or) cartilagenous repair-islands and joint space narrowing as well, while subchondrally micro-edema, necrosis, ev. microfractures, \"cysts\", demineralisation followed by sclerosis, osteophyte-formation and deformity is seen. With conventional radiographs and CT joint space narrowing, subchondral cysts, sclerosis and osteophytes and deformities are well delineated, MRI however allows visualization of subtle bone marrow and cartilage abnormalities. Clinically, the diagnosis of pre-osteoarthritis becomes more and more important. This includes e.g. deformities and malpostures, labrum-pathologies and structural imbalances. There are three prognostic different types of hip-osteoarthritis depending on the migration of the head of the hip joint: the most common are the latero-cranial and the medio-caudal ones, while the central one is found very rarely. Basic imaging method are conventional radiographs, and CT, followed by MRI. The diagnosis of an \"activated osteoarthritis\" is made by bone-scintigraphy or MRI with i.v. application of contrast-media. The labrum- and cartilage diagnosis should be done with MRI or MR-arthrography. Functional computer-animated analysis will be of great diagnostic value in the near future. MRI indications are differences between clinical results and imaging, missing clinical improvement of an \"activated\" osteoarthritis under standard therapy, unclear joint-pain and before any arthroscopy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0067_12318", "title": "[Imaging of the hip].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Imaging is fundamental to the diagnosis and therapeutic follow-up of all hip diseases. Despite the advent of extremely sophisticated exploratory methods, the oldest imaging method, straightforward radiography, makes it possible to recognize, locate ans treat the lesion in most cases. Good interpretation of simple antero-posterior and lateral x-ray films therefore is very important. Among the new imaging methods, computerized tomography has brought the third dimension, while ultrasonography and nuclear magnetic resonance have enabled us to visualize cartilages and soft tissues. The contribution to diagnosis and follow-up of these modern methods is considerable, but since we are too near their beginning and since the number of examinations is still too small in many fields, the information they provide must be used with caution. A good knowledge of their principle, advantages and drawbacks should help us to utilize them at best by prescribing only those which are necessary and sufficient for diagnosis and treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0956_8910", "title": "Idiopathic chondrolysis of hip in children: New proposal and implication for radiological staging.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Our objective was to evaluate the radiological appearances in different stages of idiopathic chondrolysis of hip (ICH) which will be helpful in the early diagnosis and guiding appropriate treatment for this condition to prevent progression of disease. We evaluated 14 patients of ICH in varying stages: Stage 1 (<in</i = 9), Stage 2 (<in</i = 3), Stage 3 (<in</i = 2). Average age at presentation was 10-11 years. Plain radiograph and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) was done in all these patients. In the current study, we have attempted to stage ICH based on the radiological progression of the disease, where MRI was used as the primary tool. Stage 1 showed a wedge-shaped hyperintensity in T2 weighted (T2W) and hypointensity in T1 weighted (T1W) images involving the middle one-third of the femoral head and it is the earliest and characteristic finding in MRI. Associated findings like joint space narrowing, synovial hypertrophy with joint effusion may also be observed. Stage 2 showed acetabular edema in the affected hip in addition to the above-mentioned findings. Stage 3 showed more extensive involvement of femoral head and acetabulum, with collapse of the femoral head, degenerative changes in hip, early osteoporotic changes, and ultimately loss of joint space. Imaging-based staging system proves very useful in the early diagnosis, staging, and assessing the prognosis of ICH." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0660_20128", "title": "[Late results of conservative treatment of perthes disease.].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The objective of the submitted work was to assess the long-term prognosis of Perthes disease. From the originally invited 142 patients 72 attended the check-up examination, complete X-ray documentation was assembled only in 32 patients with 38 affected hip joints. The time interval which had elapsed since the onset of the disease was on average 17 years. The authors evaluated the clinical and X-ray picture of the hip joints and assessed retrospectively the affection of the head according to Catterall's method, incl. signs of a head associated with risk. Treatment provided during the sixties and beginning of the seventies did not meet the principles of modern \"containment\" therapy. It comprised bed rest, application of a plaster spike and aftertreatment with a Thomas splint. During late check-up examinations Wiberg's angle, the epiphyseal index, the index of overlapping of the head, the distance of the head from the floor of the acetabulum and the height of the peak of the greater trochanter above the centre of the head of the femur were assessed. In addition to assessment of these partial X-ray parameters the authors evaluated the spherical properties of the head by Mose's method and subjectively the X-ray picture, using a three grade scale (satisfactory, feasible, poor). In the majority of assessed parameters the authors found a statistically significant correlation with the retrospective classification of the original X-ray pictures classified according to Catterall. The clinical picture was satisfactory in the majority, the authors did not find painful restriction of movement, while almost half the patients reported occasional subjective complaints as regards the hip joint. On the X-ray changes in the overgrowth of the greater trochanter were more marked than changes of the spherical character of the head and the extent of decentering. The follow-up of the group will continue to obtain a longer time interval from the onset of the disease. Key words: Perthes disease, late results, Catterall's classification." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0870_18284", "title": "Hips With Protrusio Acetabuli Are at Increased Risk for Failure After Femoroacetabular Impingement Surgery: A 10-year Followup.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Protrusio acetabuli is a rare anatomic pattern of the hip in which the femoral head protrudes into the true pelvis. The increased depth of the hip and the excessive size of the lunate surface typically lead to severe pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI); however, to our knowledge, there are no published mid- or long-term studies on results of circumferential acetabular rim trimming through a surgical hip dislocation for patients with this condition. (1) What is the 10-year survivorship of the hips treated with circumferential rim trimming through a surgical hip dislocation compared with a control group of hips that underwent surgery for pincer FAI but that did not have protrusio acetabuli? (2) What are the factors that were associated with a decreased likelihood of survivorship in those hips with the following endpoints: total hip arthroplasty, Merle d'Aubigné score of less than 15, and/or radiographic progression of osteoarthritis (OA)? (3) Does the radiographic pattern of degeneration differ between the two groups? We performed a case-control study comparing two groups: a protrusio group (32 patients [39 hips]) and a control group (66 patients [86 hips]). The control group consisted of hips treated with a surgical hip dislocation for pincer FAI and did not include hips with a positive protrusio sign or a lateral center-edge angle &gt; 39°. The study group did not differ from the control group regarding the preoperative Tönnis OA score, age, and body mass index. However, the study group had more women, decreased mean height and weight, and lower preoperative Merle d'Aubigné-Postel scores, which were inherent differences at the time of first presentation. During the period in question, the indication for performing these procedures was a painfully restricted range of motion in flexion and internal rotation (positive impingement sign). The mean followup of the protrusio group (9 ± 5 years [range, 2-18 years]) did not differ from the control group (11 ± 1 years [range, 10-13 years], p = 0.109). At the respective minimum followup intervals in the underlying database from which cases and control subjects were drawn, followup was 100% for patients with protrusion who underwent FAI surgery and 97% for patients with FAI who underwent surgery for other anatomic patterns (three of 86 hips). We assessed the Merle d'Aubigné-Postel score, Harris hip score, WOMAC, and UCLA activity score at latest followup. A Kaplan-Meier survivorship analysis of the hip was calculated if any of the following endpoints for both groups occurred: conversion to total hip arthroplasty, a Merle d'Aubigné-Postel score &lt; 15, and/or radiographic progression of OA. Differences in survivorship were analyzed using the log-rank test. At 10-year followup, we found a decreased survivorship of the hip for the protrusio group (51% [95% confidence interval {CI}, 34%-67%]) compared with the control group (83% [95% CI, 75%-91%], p &lt; 0.001) with one or more of the endpoints stated. We found four multivariate factors associated with a decreased likelihood of survival of the native hip according to the mentioned endpoints: body mass index &gt; 25 kg/m(2) (adjusted hazard ratio, 6.4; 95% CI, 5.2-8.1; p = 0.009), a preoperative Tönnis OA score ≥ 1 (13.3; 95% CI, 11.8-14.9; p = 0.001), a postoperative lateral center-edge angle &gt; 40° (4.2; 95% CI, 2.8-5.6; p = 0.042), and a postoperative posterior coverage &gt; 56% (6.0; 95% CI, 4.3-7.6; p = 0.037). Preoperatively, joint space narrowing and osteophytes were more frequent posteroinferior (joint space narrowing 18% versus 2%, p = 0.008; osteophytes 21% versus 4%, p = 0.007), medial (joint space narrowing 33% versus 5%, p &lt; 0.001) and  anterior (osteophytes 15% versus 1%, p = 0.004) in the protrusio compared with the control group. After correction in hips with protrusio, progression of joint space narrowing (from 6% to 45%, p = 0.001) and osteophyte formation (from 15% to 52%, p = 0.002) was most pronounced laterally. At 10 years, in 51% of all hips undergoing open acetabular rim trimming for protrusio acetabuli, the hip can be preserved without further radiographic degeneration and a Merle d'Aubigné score &gt; 15. Even with the lack of a control group with nonoperative treatment, isolated rim trimming may not entirely resolve the pathomorphology in protrusio hips given the clearly inferior results compared with surgical hip dislocation for FAI without severe overcoverage. Level III, therapeutic study." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1040_16106", "title": "Osteoarthritis of the hip: are degenerative tears of the acetabular labrum predictable from features on hip radiographs?", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A common feature of hip arthritis is the presence of labra tears. Recent literature suggests against the use of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in patients aged &gt;45 years for the assessment of hip pain related to arthritis. To determine if radiographic features of osteoarthritis detectable on routine hip radiographs are accurate and reliable surrogate markers of degenerative acetabular labral tears identified on MR arthrography (MRA) and corroborated during arthroscopy. A retrospective study involving 86 symptomatic patients (hip pain) with radiologic work-up included MRA and pelvic or hip radiographs that underwent hip arthroscopy within three months. Imaging characteristics assessed on hip radiographs include measurements of superior acetabular, femoral head osteophyte, cortical thickness of the femoral shaft, and minimum joint space as well as presence of subchondral sclerosis of the femoral head and acetabulum, femoral shaft buttressing, and grade of arthritis. Presence of a labral tear was determined by consensus between three readers as well as by surgical correlation. The Pearson's chi-squared and Fisher's exact tests were used to compare presence of labral tears with each radiographic feature. Seventy-one patients (82.6%) had labral tears: 49 (69%) women and 22 (31%) men. Receiver operating characteristic analysis showed statistical significance (<iP</i&lt;0.05) between presence of a labral tear and acetabular and femoral head osteophyte sizes but failed to demonstrate any significance regarding acetabular subchondral sclerosis, cortical thickness, buttressing, or minimum joint space. Radiographic markers such as the acetabular and femoral head osteophyte sizes demonstrated statistical significance with the presence of labral tears." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0291_22539", "title": "[Outcome of hip shelf arthroplasty in adults after a minimum of 15 years of follow-up. Long term results and analysis of failures of 56 dysplastic hips].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The goal of this study was to evaluate late results of hip shelf arthroplasty in adults after a minimum of 15 years follow-up. 65 hip shelf arthroplasty performed for painful hip dysplasia between 1964 and 1977 were studied retrospectively in 1992. These 65 procedures were performed in 57 patients mean aged 32 +/- 14 years [17-56]. Nine patients (9 hips) were excluded (2 deceaded, 5 lost for follow-up, and two reoperated because of severe infection). Consequently, the functional results were evaluated for 56 hips (48 patients). Before surgery, according to Merle d'Aubigné's hip rating system, all the hips were painfull (mean pain score was 2.6 +/- 1.7 [0-5]). On radiography, all the hips had a dysplastic acetabulum and arthritic changes. Arthritic changes were severe in 32 hips (57.1 per cent). The hip shelf arthroplasty was carried out according to Roy-Camille. 10 hips had additional varus femoral osteotomy. The 48 patients (56 hips) included were evaluated by means of Merle d'Aubigné's hip rating system and AP and false lateral weight-bearing Xrays. In 1992, 24 procedures were changed for total hip replacement (THR) (17 before 15 years (early failure) and 7 after 15 years of follow-up (late failure)). These 24 hips were included with their last hip rating observed just before THR. Survival analysis was performed according to Kaplan-Meier using date of revision for THR as end-point. After 16.1 +/- 5.6 years of follow-up the functional score for 56 hips was: excellent in 4 hips, very good in 7 hips, good in 10, satisfactory in 14, poor in 17, and bad in 4. The survival rate established for 65 hips was 60 per cent at 15 years and 40 per cent at 21 years. Only 39 hips shelf arthroplasties were still functional after 15 years (mean follow-up 19.1 +/- 3 years [16-28], but 18 hips (46.1 per cent) were painfree or slightly painful (pain score to 5 or 6). Among these 39 hips, the results were excellent in 4 hips, very good in 7 hips, good in 10, satisfactory in 10, poor in 6, and bad in 2. Arthritic change was the main reason for failures: the Kaplan-Meier survival rate at 21 years was 87 per cent when arthrosis was slight and only 15 per cent and 42 per cent when arthrosis was moderate to severe (p = 0.0001). The adverse effect of arthrosis was promoted by lack of congruency for early failures, and by severity of dysplasia and hip subluxation for late failures. The additional femoral varus osteotomies had no influence on functional or radiographic outcome. Our study indicated that hip shelf arthroplasty performed for painful acetabular dysplasia in adult has a 40 per cent probability survival rate at 21 years. The high rate of revision (42.8 per cent) could be related to the prevalence of severe pre-operative arthrosis. The low rate of lost for follow-up (8.7 per cent) and the long follow-up period (16.1 years) made our conclusion reliable. In spite of a high revision rate we recommend shelf athroplasty to treat acetabular dysplasia in adults. This procedure, very reliable in cases of moderate arthrosis, could be performed in cases of severe arthrosis to delay and make easier THR, but a low survival rate could be expected unless dysplasia, lack of congruency and subluxation were mild." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0826_17816", "title": "BILATERAL RAPIDLY DESTRUCTIVE HIP OSTEOARTHRITIS: A CASE REPORT.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Although hip osteoarthritis usually shows a slow progression, a rapidly destructive osteoarthritis is observed in approximately 10% of patients. We aimed to present a case with rapidly destructive osteoarthritis in bilateral hip joints. A 78-year-old male patient was admitted due to pain in hip joints. In examination, hip movements were minimally painful and limited. The patient was able to walk independently with a cane. When he re-applied six months later, hip movements were severely limited and painful. In plain radiographs, while a slight narrowing in hip joint space, sclerosis and minimal osteophyte had been observed at the first administration, extreme narrowing, subluxation, flattening of femoral head, increased sclerosis, resorption in femoral head and acetabulum were detected six months later. We consider that hip osteoarthritis in elderly people should be monitored at frequent intervals in terms of clinic and radiological progression. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0818_6530", "title": "Strategy and optimization of diagnostic imaging in painful hip in adults.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Diagnostic imaging strategy in painful hip depends on many factors, but in all cases, plain X-ray is the first investigation. It may be sufficient to reach diagnosis and determine treatment options. More effective but more expensive exploration is indicated in two circumstances: when plain X-ray is non-contributive, and when diagnosis has been established but more accurate imaging assessment is needed to guide treatment. Following radiography, the choice of imaging techniques depends not only on the suspected pathology but also on the availability of equipment and its performance. MRI is probably the technique that provides the most comprehensive results; recent improved accessibility has significantly simplified the diagnostic algorithm. CT remains invaluable, and current techniques have reduced patient irradiation to a level similar to that of standard X-ray. Finally, cost is an important consideration in choosing the means of exploration, but the overall financial impact of the various strategies for diagnosis of painful hip is not well established. This article aims to provide a simple and effective diagnostic strategy for the assessment of painful hip, taking account of the clinical situation, and to detail the most typical semiologic patterns of each disease affecting this joint. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0879_20816", "title": "What MRI Findings Predict Failure 10 Years After Surgery for Femoroacetabular Impingement?", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Magnetic resonance arthrogram (MRA) with radial cuts is presently the best available preoperative imaging study to evaluate chondrolabral lesions in the setting of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Existing followup studies for surgical treatment of FAI have evaluated predictors of treatment failure based on preoperative clinical examination, intraoperative findings, and conventional radiography. However, to our knowledge, no study has examined whether any preoperative findings on MRA images might be associated with failure of surgical treatment of FAI in the long term. The purposes of this study were (1) to identify the preoperative MRA findings that are associated with conversion to THA, any progression of osteoarthritis, and/or a Harris hip score of &lt; 80 points after acetabuloplasty and/or osteochondroplasty of the femoral head-neck junction through a surgical hip dislocation (SHD) for FAI at a minimum 10-year followup; and (2) identify the age of patients with symptomatic FAI when these secondary degenerative findings were detected on preoperative radial MRAs. We retrospectively studied 121 patients (146 hips) who underwent acetabuloplasty and/or osteochondroplasty of the femoral head-neck junction through SHD for symptomatic anterior FAI between July 2001 and March 2003. We excluded 35 patients (37 hips) with secondary FAI after previous surgery and 11 patients (12 hips) with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. All patients underwent preoperative MRA to further specify chondrolabral lesions except in 19 patients (32 hips) including 17 patients (20 hips) who presented with an MRI from an external institution taken with a different protocol, 10 patients with no preoperative MRA because the patients had already been operated on the contralateral side with a similar appearance, and two patients (two hips) refused MRA because of claustrophobia. This resulted in 56 patients (65 hips) with idiopathic FAI and a preoperative MRA. Of those, three patients (three hips) did not have minimal 10-year followup (one patient died; two hips with followup between 5 and 6 years). The remaining patients were evaluated clinically and radiographically at a mean followup of 11 years (range, 10-13 years). Thirteen pathologic radiographic findings on the preoperative MRA were evaluated for an association with the following endpoints using Cox regression analysis: conversion to THA, radiographic evidence of any progression of osteoarthritis, and/or a Harris hip score of &lt; 80. The age of the patient when each degenerative pattern was found on the preoperative MRA was recorded. The following MRI findings were associated with one or more of our predefined failure endpoints: cartilage damage exceeding 60° of the circumference had a hazard ratio (HR) of 4.6 (95% confidence interval [CI], 3.6-5.6; p = 0.003) compared with a damage of less than 60°, presence of an acetabular rim cyst had a HR of 4.1 (95% CI, 3.1-5.2; p = 0.008) compared with hips without these cysts, and presence of a sabertooth osteophyte had a HR of 3.2 (95% CI, 2.3-4.2; p = 0.013) compared with hips without a sabertooth osteophyte. The degenerative pattern associated with the youngest patient age when detected on preoperative MRA was the sabertooth osteophyte (lower quartile 27 years) followed by cartilage damage exceeding 60° of the circumference (28 years) and the presence of an acetabular rim bone cyst (31 years). Preoperative MRAs with radial cuts reveal important findings that may be associated with future failure of surgical treatment for FAI. Most of these factors are not visible on conventional radiographs or standard hip MRIs. Preoperative MRA evaluation is therefore strongly recommended on a routine basis for patients undergoing these procedures. Findings associated with conversion to arthroplasty, radiographic evidence of any progression of osteoarthritis, and/or a Harris hip score of &lt; 80 points should be incorporated into the decision-making process in patients being evaluated for joint-preserving hip surgery. Level III, therapeutic study." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1065_8085", "title": "Make the Right Diagnosis: My Pearls for Working Up Hip-related Pain.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The origin of pain around the hip is commonly more elusive than other joints; often obscured by compensatory disorders. Hip problems tend to be multifactorial and require a multidisciplinary approach in the evaluation. The best strategy is to team with a capable physical therapist to unveil the layers of problems. Ultrasonography and imaging/ultrasound-guided injections can be the most valuable adjunct to the history and physical examination. Plain radiographs are an essential element in the workup. Magnetic resonance imaging can underestimate damage in the joint, but positive findings can sometimes be the normal consequence of age and activity. Magnetic resonance imaging is often as important for what it rules out as much as what it rules in. Computed tomography scans with 3-dimensional reconstructions can be especially helpful in surgical planning but are not used in routine screening, being thoughtful of radiation exposure even with low-dose protocols. Arthroscopic access to the hip is more challenging than other joints, and similarly, unlocking its clinical secrets can be more imposing as well." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0907_19827", "title": "Reliability of radiographic evaluations of the stage of osteoarthritis of the hip joint and an approach to improve the staging criteria.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "A few reports have shown that the reliability of the Japanese Orthopaedic Association stage classification of hip osteoarthritis was not high. The objective of this study was to assess the reliability of the stage classification of coxarthrosis, and to evaluate whether a modification of the classification improves reliability. We retrospectively investigated 200 hips in 100 patients with hip pain. We collected radiographs of their hip joints with the patients in both a supine and a standing position. Four orthopaedic surgeons evaluated the stage of coxarthrosis employing the JOA classification. The percentage of agreement of examiners and the value of the kappa statistic were calculated. Furthermore, to improve the reliability of classification, we modified the classification based on previous reports. Partial narrowing of the joint space and disappearance of the joint space were defined as maintained if it was 2 mm or more, and as the width of the loss of joint space that was 10 mm or more respectively. Using this classification, the same examiners assessed the stage on the same radiographs again three months after the previous evaluation. The percentages of agreement were 28.5% and 27% and the interobserver value of the kappa statistic was 0.45 and 0.44 in supine and standing position respectively. After modification of the classification, the percentages of agreement were 36.5% and 44% and the interobserver value of the kappa statistic was 0.48 and 0.56 in supine and standing positions respectively, and the intraobserver value of the kappa statistic was 0.55. The modification significantly improved the reliability only in the percentage of the agreement for the standing position. This study showed that the reliability of the JOA stage classification of coxarthrosis was not as high as previous reports have showed. Modification of the classification improved interobserver reliability." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0004_4366", "title": "[Surgical treatment of osteoarthritis of the hip (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Surgery can improve function for one or more decades for patients with osteoarthritis of the hip, even though the operations may not be very invasive. The indications must be made by surgeons in collaboration with rheumatologists. There is no patent recipe, no 'common' intervention which gives a reliable result in all cases. The patient must be studied in all stages of development of his disease: his joint structure in the radiogram, the morphology of the bones, the functional requirements and his general state of health influence the decision regarding the possibility and modality of a surgical intervention. The patient's return to an active life which would not have been possible for him under medicinal treatment supports the importance of surgical treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1128_11358", "title": "Does Femoroacetabular Impingement Syndrome Affect Self-Reported Burden in Football Players With Hip and Groin Pain?", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "It is unknown if football players with femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) syndrome report worse burden than those with other causes of hip/groin pain, and to what extent this is mediated by cartilage defects and labral tears. Football players with FAI syndrome would report worse burden than other symptomatic players, with the effect partially mediated by cartilage defects and/or labral tears. Cross-sectional study. Level 4. Football (soccer and Australian football) players (n = 165; 35 women) with hip/groin pain (≥6 months and positive flexion-adduction-internal rotation test) were recruited. Participants completed 2 patient-reported outcome measures (PROMs; the International Hip Outcome Tool-33 [iHOT-33] and Copenhagen Hip and Groin Outcome Score [HAGOS]) and underwent hip radiographs and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). FAI syndrome was determined to be present when cam and/or pincer morphology were present. Cartilage defects and labral tears were graded as present or absent using MRI. Linear regression models investigated relationships between FAI syndrome (dichotomous independent variable) and PROM scores (dependent variables). Mediation analyses investigated the effect of cartilage defects and labral tears on these relationships. FAI syndrome was not related to PROM scores (unadjusted <ib</i values ranged from -4.693 (<iP</i = 0.23) to 0.337 (<iP</i = 0.93)) and cartilage defects and/or labral tears did not mediate its effect (<iP</i = 0.22-0.97). Football players with FAI syndrome did not report worse burden than those with other causes of hip/groin pain. Cartilage defects and/or labral tears did not explain the effect of FAI syndrome on reported burden. FAI syndrome, cartilage defects, and labral tears were prevalent but unrelated to reported burden in symptomatic football players." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0091_7137", "title": "[Save the joint? Replace the joint? Long-term results and considerations in the treatment of femur head necroses in adults].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "65 patients with necrosis of the femoral head (not caused by a trauma) in 102 hip joints were examined at an average of 9.7 years following first operation: 1st: 30 joints underwent intertrochanteric varus angulation osteotomy (follow up 11.6 y). 12/30 clinically not sufficient, 13/30 radiologically worse, only 2/30 improved range of movement. 2nd: 35 hip joints were treated using an artificial hip replacement (follow up 9.1 y): 77% got loose at an average of 5 years requiring 39 follow-up operations. 3rd: 5 arthrodesis were performed (follow up 11.4 y). 60% delayed nor non bony union. The results indicate a general osteopathy overlapping the size of osteonecrosis, and causing a lot of complications. Various therapeutic concepts should be considered with respect to radiological stage and age of the patient. The results of joint saving operations depend on the ability of the femoral bony structures to react sufficiently." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0852_17870", "title": "Atypical femoral fracture post total hip replacement in a patient with hip osteoarthritis and an ipsilateral cortical thickening.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Atypical femoral fractures (AFF) can be present in patients with hip osteoarthritis (OA). This case highlights the opportunity to review the management of stress reactions, stress fractures and atypical femoral fractures, which depend on the activity of the fracture. A 66-year-old female with a history of long-term bisphosphonate use underwent a total hip replacement for symptomatic osteoarthritis with a clinical presentation of right groin pain and radiographic signs of joint space narrowing and osteophyte formation. Radiographs before hip arthroplasty showed lateral cortical thickening in the ipsilateral femur in the subtrochanteric region. The patient developed a complete periprosthesic atypical femoral fracture a month after surgery at the level of the previously identified femoral cortical thickening. Given the high amount of elderly, osteoporotic patients presenting with groin/thigh pain undergoing hip replacement, surgeons should question them about the use of bisphosphonates in the past and look for the presence of AFF. These should receive bilateral imaging studies and a metabolic bone workup in order to define the status of the fracture and determine the appropriate management before considering any other surgical intervention." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0585_12593", "title": "Prognosis of hip pain in general practice: a prospective followup study.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Hip pain in the elderly is the main feature of osteoarthritis of the hip. In this prospective followup study, we wanted to determine which patients with hip pain show disease progression, and what the incidence of total hip replacement (THR) is in this group of patients after 3 and 6 years of followup. Within general practices in the area of Rotterdam (The Netherlands), persons age &gt; or = 50 years with incident hip pain were included. After 3 and 6 years, progression of hip pain was assessed. A total of 224 patients were included. After 3 years disease progressed in 29 (15%) patients and 23 (12%) received a THR. After 6 years disease progressed in 45 (28%) patients and 36 (22%) received a THR. The prognostic variables for a THR after 3 and 6 years related to history taking were age &gt; or = 60 years, morning stiffness, and pain in the groin/medial thigh; variables related to physical examination were decreased extension/adduction, painful internal rotation, and a body mass index &lt; or = 30 kg/m(2); and the variable related to radiologic findings was a Kellgren/Lawrence grade of 2 or higher. In this study population, approximately 12% of patients presenting with hip pain to their general practitioner will undergo a THR within 3 years, and approximately 22% after 6 years. Using the variables obtained from history taking, physical examination, and radiologic findings enables better identification of persons at high risk for a THR." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0886_2235", "title": "Arthroscopic Treatment for Primary Septic Arthritis of the Hip in Adults.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "<iPurpose.</i Primary septic arthritis is a rare differential diagnosis of acute hip pain in adults. Inspired by the success of all-arthroscopic treatment in pediatric patients, we developed a diagnostic and surgical pathway for our adult patients. <iMethods.</i Seven patients, average age 44 ± 13.7 years with acute hip pain since 4.4 ± 2.9 days in the average, were included. Septic arthritis was confirmed by joint aspiration and dissemination was excluded by MRI and standard radiographs. Surgical treatment consisted of immediate arthroscopic lavage using 4 portals for debridement, high-volume irrigation, partial synovectomy, and drainage. <iResults.</i Patients were treated in hospital for 12.4 ± 3.1 days (range 7-16 days). WBC and CRP returned to physiological levels. During the mean follow-up of 26.4 ± 19.4 months (range 13-66 months) no patient showed recurrence of infection. The 5 patients with an unimpaired hip joint prior to the infection had a mean modified Harris Hip Score of 94 ± 5.6 points (range 91-100) at final follow-up. <iConclusions.</i Arthroscopic therapy using a minimally invasive approach with low perioperative morbidity for the treatment of primary septic arthritis of the adult hip is able to restore normal hip function in acute cases without dissemination of the infection. <iLevel of Evidence.</i IV." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0839_14423", "title": "[S3 Guideline. Part 1: Diagnosis and Differential Diagnosis of Non-Traumatic Adult Femoral Head Necrosis].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Non-traumatic femoral head necrosis (FHN) is primarily a disease of the middle-aged adult. Early diagnosis, at a time with lacking or minimal clinical symptoms, is mandatory to consider conservative therapy or joint preserving operations as a therapeutic option. The new German S3 guideline about diagnosis and therapy of FHN is a cooperative effort of five professional medical societies, overall headed by the Deutsche Gesellschaft für Orthopädie und Orthopädische Chirurgie (DGOOC). This review (part I/III) cites and explains the statements of the S3 guideline as agreed on the use of imaging methods for diagnosis of FHN. A diagnostic algorithm is presented. FHN clinically has to be considered in case of equivocal pain of a hip joint with a minimum of 6 weeks duration, when risk factors can be revealed, groin pain at clinical investigation, limping, pain or limitation of movement in case of load, and no obvious differential diagnoses. Is an FHN clinically suspected, primarily radiographs of the pelvis ap and a Lauenstein projection of the hip involved should be carried out. When the radiographs are normal, an MRI of the hips should follow routinely. MRI allows the diagnosis of FNH with high accuracy. Furthermore, MRI reveals the site and the size of the necrotic area involved and evaluates the integrity of the joint surface and subchondral fractures. When ARCO stage II (ARCO: Association Research Circulation Osseous) is diagnosed and MRI does not allow one to determine the joint surface with certainty, a CT of the hip joints should be performed. The S3 guideline explains and recommends the use of the ARCO classification. Although, this classification of 1993 is still largely based on radiographs, the pragmatic use of an \"extended\" version seems reasonable. Today, classical radiographic criteria like impression of the joint surface and subchondral fractures (\"crescent sign\") are better to be evaluated by MRI, in cases of subtle findings MRI is even surpassed by CT. The extent of the necrosis in the femoral head as well as the size of the surface area involved is best revealed with MRI. Additionally, in the era of cross sectional imaging a stage \"0\" seems obsolete. The guideline also addresses practically important considerations about the differential diagnosis of misleading MRI findings. This especially holds true for bone marrow oedema in the femoral head which may be misinterpreted. The differentiating features between FHN, transient bone marrow oedema and destructive arthropathy are discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0362_15261", "title": "[Imaging of chronic hip pain in adults].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Adult hip pathologies are mainly represented by the degenerative disease, so called \"osteoarthrosis, or more precisely coxarthrosis\". The means of imaging are exposed, according to their specific value: X Rays (measurement of the characteristic angles of the adult hip), Arthrography, CT Scanner, Arthro-CT Scanner, MRI, Bone Scintigraphy, Ultrasonography. Clinical findings differentiate a mechanical syndrome and an inflammatory syndrome. The coxarthrosis is the most frequent, under two forms: primary (idiopathic) coxarthrosis and secondary coxarthrosis. Primary (idiopathic) coxarthrosis has a localised narrowing of the joint space, osteophyte formation, subchondral sclerosis, cyst formation. The destruction progresses slowly, in 10 to 15 years leading to a complete destruction. Bilaterality is frequent. it is treated with total hip prosthesis. There is a rapid form (1 to 2 years) (Postel's Disease). Secondary coxarthrosis occurs after architectural vice, chondral diseases, lack of balance between the size of the head and the acetabulum as in the case of previous fracture or dislocation, avascular bone necrosis of the head of the femur, Paget's disease. Calcium pyrophosphate Deposition disease (CPPD) involves mostly aged women, and also leads to cox-arthrosis. Avascular bone necrosis of the head of the femur involves young adults. Bilateral involvement are frequent. MRI is the most sensitive and the most specific means of early diagnosis, The area of bone necrosis appears as well defined modifications of the upper head of the femur, precisely surrounded by a low signal intensity line on both Ti and T2 weighted imaging. MRI shows articular effusion, bone marrow edema. Scintigraphy gives early findings which are a characteristic, but non specific, hot spot. CT scanner is used for hip destruction evaluation. o Algodystrophy: transient osteoporosis of the hip has a cyclic course, lasting 3 to 9 months. MRI shows an inflammatory pattern in the area of the process(dark in Ti and white in T2, with positive Gadolinium response). Scintigraphy is positive. Staphylococcus location in the hip can be acute or chronic. MRI shows joint effusion, cystic formation and subchondral non specific modifications. Tuberculosis of the hip joint is relatively rare. Greater trochanteric tuberculous involvement is possible under special contexts. Chronic Inflammatory diseases are represented by Rheumatoid Arthritis, Spondylarthritis and other chronic inflammatory diseases. Synovial tumors such as Pigmented Villo Nodular Synovitis, Primary Osteochondromatosis, synovial sarcoma have special presentations. The subchondral bone can be involved by amorphous depositions such as in tophaceous gout, different varieties of lipidosis, amyloidosis, reticulo histiocytosis. Pen arthropathies are enthesopathies in the anterior rectus tendon, calcifying tendonitis (not to be confused with calcifying soft tissue tumor/chondrosarcoma). The pelvis bone and the femur are involved by primary and secondary tumors or by insufficiency fractures which can mislead to hip pathologies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0117_7415", "title": "[Study of a painful total hip prosthesis].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "The authors propose a simple routine survey to be performed in the case of a painful total hip prosthesis which is generally able to define the diagnosis and the prognosis. X-ray films are more valuable by their repetition than by their simple analysis. Certain minor signs can help predict or detect loosening of the prosthesis or other complications, but in the great majority of cases, radiology alone is not sufficient to make the diagnosis, as the films are only able to show clear spaces around the prosthesis, without being able to definitely confirm the aetiopathogenic significance of this sign. In these cases, when the decision has not been taken to re-operate, more sophisticated investigations are required (scintigraphy, dynamic tests, arthrography), although they must be used with caution as very often the clinical findings will have the last word." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0394_13263", "title": "Structural effect of avocado/soybean unsaponifiables on joint space loss in osteoarthritis of the hip.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "To evaluate the structural effect of avocado/soybean unsaponifiables (ASU) in the treatment of patients with symptomatic osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip. Patients with regular painful primary OA of the hip (European League Against Rheumatism 1980 criteria) and a joint space still &gt; or = 1 mm (Kellgren grade 1 to 3, assessed by an independent observer prior to inclusion) entered a prospective, multicenter, randomized, parallel group, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial of 2 years duration. Patients had at least a 6-month history of regular pain and an algofunctional index (AFI) &gt; or = 4. The primary assessment criterion was a decrease of the joint space width (JSW) on plain anteroposterior radiographs of the pelvis performed in standing position, measured at the narrowest points by 2 independent readers, previously tested and selected and blinded to both the treatment and the time sequence. Secondary criteria were standard clinical outcome measurements (AFI, pain on a visual analog scale, consumption of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and patient's and investigator's global assessments). One hundred sixty-three patients were included: 102 men and 61 women (mean age 63.2 +/- 8.7 years). A total of 108 patients (72 men and 36 women; mean age 64 +/- 7.9 years) were radiologically evaluable at 23.7 +/- 2.6 months (ASU group; n = 55) and 23.7 +/- 3.2 months (placebo group; n = 53). Overall comparison of the evolution of JSW showed no difference between the ASU and placebo groups, from 2.35 +/- 0.93 to 1.87 +/- 1.10 mm and from 2.5 +/- 0.94 to 1.9 +/- 1.33 mm, respectively (intergroup P value at end point = 0.9). When patients were divided into 2 subgroups according to the median value of the baseline JSW (2.45 mm), the joint space loss in the most severely affected subgroup of patients (baseline JSW &lt; or = median) was significantly greater in the placebo group than in the ASU group: from 1.69 +/- 0.58 to 0.84 +/- 0.77 mm (-0.86 +/- 0.62 mm) and from 1.66 +/- 0.42 to 1.22 +/- 0.7 mm (-0.43 +/- 0.51 mm), respectively (P &lt; 0.01). The JSW decrease was identical, with no difference in ASU and placebo groups, in the less severely affected subgroup of patients (baseline JSW &gt; median). Clinical parameters in the 2 groups did not differ significantly throughout the study. This pilot randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial failed to demonstrate a structural effect of ASU in hip OA. However, in a post-hoc analysis, ASU significantly reduced the progression of joint space loss as compared with placebo in the subgroup of patients with advanced joint space narrowing. These results suggest that ASU could have a structural effect but require confirmation in a larger placebo-controlled study in hip OA." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0751_22301", "title": "[Hip arthroscopy: differential diagnosis of pain around the hip joint].", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "Hip arthroscopy is one of the most highly evolving surgical techniques in recent years. It plays a major role in the diagnosis and treatment of a broad spectrum of hip pathologies. The evaluation of the painful hip requires meticulous history taking, elaborated physical examination, and basic and advanced imaging modalities. The differential diagnosis includes a continuously growing number of diagnoses. Once considered an \"operation looking for indications\", the current indications for hip arthroscopy are based on a better understanding of pathologies around the hip joint. The results of recently published intermediate and long term clinical outcome studies are encouraging. Ongoing, comprehensive understanding of the correlation between pathologies and clinical presentation will improve the surgical technique, which in turn may become a joint preserving operation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0514_12441", "title": "Radiographic case definitions and prevalence of osteoarthrosis of the hip: a survey of 4 151 subjects in the Osteoarthritis Substudy of the Copenhagen City Heart Study.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "The diagnosis of osteoarthrosis (OA) is founded on radiographic evidence of joint degeneration and characteristic subjective symptoms. Due to the lack of consensus radiographic case definitions, the prevalence and incidence of OA reported in the literature varies. The aims of the current study were to establish an accurate and workable radiographic definition of OA in hip joints and to examine the association of OA (thus defined) with self-reported pain. Radiographic features of hip OA were classified in pelvic radiographs of 3 807 subjects (1448 males and 2 359 females) according to the OA classifications of Kellgren and Lawrence (1957) and Croft (1990), and according to minimum joint space width (JSW) of 2.0 mm regardless of other radiographic features of OA. The relationships between these radiographic discriminators and self-reported hip pain were investigated. Formation of cysts, osteophytes and subchondral sclerosis was significantly more frequent in men. Average minimum JSW was narrower in women than in men (p &lt; 0.001). In both sexes, minimum JSW decreased after the fourth decade of life, but progressively more so in women. Women reported hip pain more frequently than men (p &lt; 0.001). When the cut-off JSW value of 2.0 mm was applied regardless of other radiographic features of OA, prevalences of hip OA ranged from 4.4% to 5.3% in subjects &gt; or = 60 years of age. The radiographic discriminator with the strongest association with self-reported hip pain in men and women &gt; or = 60 years of age was minimum JSW &lt; or = 2.0 mm; OR = 3.3 (95% CI 1.9-5.7) for men, and OR = 3.2 (95% CI 1.9-5.2) for women. We found that minimum JSW &lt; or = 2.0 mm was the radiographic criterion having the closest association with self-reported hip pain. Using composite OA scores emphasizing the relatively inconsequential formation of cysts, osteophytes and subchondral sclerosis runs the risk of over-inflating the prevalence of hip OA in men and of underestimating hip OA prevalence in women." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0412_2412", "title": "Predictors of hip joint replacement in new attenders in primary care with hip pain.", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Studies investigating the factors associated with need for total hip replacement should ideally be based on prospective investigation of new attenders in primary care. To determine the incidence of listing for total hip replacement, and its predictors, among attenders in primary care with a new episode of hip pain. Prospective multicentre cohort study. One hundred and ninety-five patients (mean age = 63 years, 68% female) with new episode of hip pain, attending primary care between November 1994 and October 1997. At the first visit, patients were evaluated for indices of pain and disability, range of hip movement, and radiographic changes of osteoarthritis. General practitioner participants were recruited from the membership of the Primary Care Rheumatology Society to recruit all consecutive attenders with a new episode of hip pain. Annual follow-up was carried out to determine which patients were being 'put on a waiting list' for total hip replacement. Seven per cent of patients were put on a waiting list for total hip replacement within 12 months and 23% of patients within four years. At presentation, pain duration, pain severity, (including the need to use a stick) and restriction of internal rotation were the major clinical predictors of being put on a waiting list. Radiographic predictors of osteoarthritis performed similarly to the clinical measures. A simple scoring system based on both radiographic severity and two of the clinical measures was derived that identified groups at high likelihood of being put on a waiting list (sensitivity = 76%) with a low false-positive rate (specificity = 95%). New primary care attenders with pain are frequently accepted for total hip replacement soon after their first attendance--a decision that can be predicted by simple clinical measures." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Extrinsic allergic alveolitis.", "2": "Pneumoconiosis.", "3": "Sarcoidosis.", "4": "Carcinomatous lymphangitis.", "5": "Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0583_3415", "title": "Bronchoalveolar lavage in sarcoidosis.", "score": 0.01846494213750851, "content": "There is no single cell type present in bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluid that appears to be predictive for sarcoidosis. However, BAL fluid analysis can be very helpful in the differential diagnosis. A grouping of features, an elevated total cell count, predominantly lymphocytes, together with a nearly normal percentage of eosinophils and polymorphonuclear neutrophils and the absence of plasma cells, distinguish the most likely diagnosis of sarcoidosis from the most common interstitial lung diseases, extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA), nonspecific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP), and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). In sarcoidosis the majority of cases have an increased number of lymphocytes and a normal amount of eosinophils and neutrophils. Disease presentation or activity at the time the BAL is performed as well as the smoking status is crucial for interpretation of individual BAL fluid analysis results. In severe cases the number of neutrophils can be increased as well. For an individual case the CD4:CD8 ratio is of less importance because it can be increased, normal, and even decreased. In the follow-up depicting prognosis and response to treatment, BAL fluid analysis has less clinical relevance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0557_3818", "title": "[A case of pleural sarcoidosis in which vats lung biopsy, obtained pleural and pulmonary lesions].", "score": 0.017679127725856697, "content": "Here we report a case that was diagnosed as sarcoidosis but required differential diagnosis from pneumoconiosis. A 51-year-old asymptomatic man, who showed signs of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL) on a chest X-ray taken during a medical check, was given a diagnosis of sarcoidosis, based on the results of mediastinoscopic mediastinal lymph node biopsy. Because of the presence of large and small nodular lesions adjacent to the pleura extending from the bilateral upper lobes into the lung field, and continuous bead-like, small nodular lesions in the right interlobar pleura, pleural sarcoidosis was suspected and thoracoscopy was performed. Macroscopically, multiple grayish-white nodules with distinct margins, up to 1cm in diameter surrounded by a proliferation of capillaries were found in the pleura, particularly in the upper lobes. Lesions were also scattered over the interlobar pleura and diaphragmatic surface. Histopathologically, several non-caseous epithelioid cell granulomas and silicotic nodule-like lesions of hyaline degeneration were found; therefore, pneumoconiosis, or more specifically chronic berylliosis, was suspected. Despite these symptoms, the patient did not have a history of exposure, and the results of the lymphocyte stimulation test using beryllium were negative in blood and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid. The patient was given a diagnosis of pleural sarcoidosis and has been observed without treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0562_9821", "title": "[A case of spontaneous resolution of sarcoidosis with primary pulmonary cavitations].", "score": 0.016576819407008087, "content": "On routine physical checkup, a 27-year-old man with productive cough was found to have multiple nodules with cavitation in the bilateral lung fields and mediastinal and hilar lymph adenopathy on chest X-ray film and CT scan. Serum levels of angiotensin converting enzyme and lysozyme were high. Tuberculin reaction was negative. Non-caseous epitheloid granulomas were confirmed in the bronchial wall specimens obtained by trans-bronchial biopsy. The number of lymphocytes and the CD4/CD8 ratio of lymphocytes in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid was increased. Therefore, pulmonary sarcoidosis was diagnosed, and the lung nodules with cavitation were considered due to sarcoidosis. The walls of the cavitations gradually thinned and had almost completely vanished after 6 months of careful observation without steroid therapy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0687_24582", "title": "[Modifications of the cytoimmunological pattern of bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) material caused by cigarette smoking in selected lower air-way diseases].", "score": 0.01642068873819971, "content": "In the last years we have used flow cytometry as an auxiliary diagnostic tool in alveolar lymphocyte (i.e. originating from BAL) phenotyping in more than 500 persons suspected for lower airways pathology. In the study we compared the results of 1) BAL lymphocyte typing by flow cytometry, 2) cytological examination, respectively, in nonsmoking/smoking (NS/S) patients with lung sarcoidosis, n = 56/31, extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA), n = 9/5, silicosis, n = 15/18, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF), n = 20/7, and pulmonary tuberculosis (TBC), n = 7/6. The results were related to the volume of BAL fluid recovery (higher value reflects the dominance of lower airways content versus bronchial content). In smoking patients, in comparison with respective NS, significantly higher total BAL cell numer (except TBC), higher macrophage percentage, lower lymphocyte percentage and lower CD4/CD8 ratio (except EAA) was found. CD4/CD8 results: 8.26 +/- 0.52 (NS) vs 4.29 +/- 0.65 (S) in sarcoidosis (p &lt; 0.001), 1.18 +/- 0.44 (NS) vs 0.99 +/- 0.43 (S) in IPF (p &lt; 0.05), 1.79 +/- 0.22 (NS) vs 0.73 +/- 0.11 (S) in silicosis (p &lt; 0.001) and 1.64 +/- 0.57 vs 0.88 +/- 0.1 in TBC (p &lt; 0.05). Additionally, cigarette smoking modified BAL pattern: 1. in sarcoidosis and silicosis lower CD4+ cell and higher CD8+ cell percentage; 2. in IPF increase in neutrophil percentage; 3. in TBC higher neutrophil and eosinophil percentage. Both in NS and S, BAL fluid recovery rate is significantly positively correlated with CD4/CD8 ratio and total BAL CD3+ cell number and negatively with BAL CD8+ cell percentage. Interpreting of BAL material cytoimmunology pattern should take into account data on cigarette smoking and BAL fluid recovery rate. The results obtained in the study may reflect more severe disease course in IPF and TBC." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en434_24242", "title": "Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy", "score": 0.014573887295271582, "content": "Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is a bilateral enlargement of the lymph nodes of pulmonary hila. It is a radiographic term for the enlargement of mediastinal lymph nodes and is most commonly identified by a chest x-ray. Causes The following are causes of BHL: Sarcoidosis Infection Tuberculosis Fungal infection Mycoplasma Intestinal Lipodystrophy (Whipple's disease) Malignancy Lymphoma Carcinoma Mediastinal tumors Inorganic dust disease Silicosis Berylliosis Extrinsic allergic alveolitis Such as bird fancier's lung Less common causes also exist: Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis Human immunodeficiency virus Extrinsic allergic alveolitis Adult-onset Still's disease References Medical signs" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0084_946", "title": "[A case of pulmonary sarcoidosis with CD8 positive cell dominant alveolitis].", "score": 0.014475998994722291, "content": "A 55-year-old woman was admitted for examination of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Serum angiotensin converting enzyme was not elevated, but gallium-scan revealed an increased uptake in both lung hilus. The percentage of lymphocytes in the bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) was elevated (28.9%), and the proportion of OKIa1 positive cells was also elevated (50.5%). However, the ratio of cluster differentiation (CD) 4/8 was inverted at 0.5. Microscopic examination of the mediastinal lymph nodes revealed epithelioid cell granulomas without ceasation, and a diagnosis of sarcoidosis was made. Immunohistochemical examination of the lymph nodes showed predominancy of CD8 positive cells. Patients with pulmonary sarcoidosis having a low CD4/8 ratio in BALF are extremely rare in the early stage of sarcoidosis. The inverted CD4/8 ratio was of interest in regard to the pathogenesis of sarcoidosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0083_5574", "title": "CD8+ cell-dominant alveolitis in pulmonary sarcoidosis.", "score": 0.014407131011608624, "content": "A 55-year-old woman had bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and retinouveitis. Microscopic examination of a biopsy specimen from a mediastinal lymph node revealed noncaseating epithelioid cell granulomas. Since granulomatous diseases of infectious origin and sarcoid reaction were reasonably excluded, she was diagnosed as having pulmonary sarcoidosis. Bronchoalveolar lavage findings were atypical in that the ratio of helper T cells to suppressor T cells (CD4/8 ratio) was 0.5 in two separate examinations, despite a moderately increased proportion of lymphocytes. Immunohistochemical examination of the lymph node also showed a predominancy of suppressor T cells. The inversion of the CD4/8 ratio suggests the presence of heterogeneity in the immunoregulatory mechanism in pulmonary sarcoidosis and may have a prognostic significance." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0344_12681", "title": "[Transbronchial biopsy in diffuse infiltrative lung diseases].", "score": 0.013931254268153882, "content": "224 transbronchial biopsies were made between 1990 and 1997 in 208 patients suffering diffuse, bilateral, disseminated pulmonary diseases with unidentified origin. The examinations were carried out by flexible bronchoscope with X-ray control after local anaesthesia. The obtained patterns yielded mucous membrane in 15, intact alveoli in 19 percent. In 25 percent of biopsies (57 cases) definitive diagnosis were verifiable. The histological examinations verified the diagnosis of sarcoidosis, hemosiderosis, TB, malignancies, eosinophil pneumonitis etc. In 71 biopsies (62 cases) according to histological opinion were pulmonary fibrosis or some synonyms of these (alveolitis, interstitial fibrosis). From these latter cases the documentation of 18 patients were insufficient, but the data of 44 cases were available. 7/44 carcinosis, 3/44 inactive TB, 8/44 regressive X-ray patterns were verifiable in this group. The idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis as final diagnosis only in 18/44 (41%) cases were established. Further diagnostic procedures are needed if the clinical data, the results of HRCT and histological examinations are not in correlation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0047_1149", "title": "[A study of epithelioid cell granulomas in transbronchial lung biopsy specimens of sarcoidosis patients--correlation between granulomas and clinical activity or chest X-ray lesions].", "score": 0.01352508132169149, "content": "The 565 pulmonary tissue specimens taken from 155 sarcoidosis patients by transbronchial lung biopsy (TBLB) were studied by light microscopy. Particular attention was paid to the mean number and type of epithelioid cell granulomas, the mean number of giant cells, and the degree of lymphocyte cuffing, perigranulomal fibrosis, and granuloma confluence. The granulomas were divided into three types, hypertrophic, atrophic, and hyalinofibrous. In stage II and III patients, the mean number of granulomas and giant cells, the positive rate of hyalinofibrous granuloma, the relative proportion of the hyalinofibrous granuloma group, and the degree of fibrosis and confluence were significantly higher than those in stage O and I patients. The mean number of granulomas was related to the serum level of angiotensin converting enzyme and 67Ga uptake into lung parenchyma, but not to the cellular findings of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF). The lymphocyte count of BALF in the hypertrophic granuloma group was significantly higher than that in the atrophic and hyalinofibrous granuloma groups. CD4/CD8 ratio of lymphocytes in BALF was significantly lower in the hyalinofibrous granuloma group than in the other groups. In stage I patients, the resolution of intrathoracic lesions on chest X-ray was significantly more frequent in the atrophic granuloma group than in the hypertrophic granuloma group, 2 and 5 years after TBLB was performed. The pulmonary lesions had a tendency to persist for a long time in stage II and III patients with hyalinofibrous granuloma or granuloma confluence. Newly appearing pulmonary lesions showed hypertrophic granulomas as well as marked lymphocyte cuffing." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0347_9654", "title": "Bronchoalveolar lavage cell profiles in Wegener's granulomatosis.", "score": 0.013154533844189017, "content": "Pulmonary involvement due to Wegener's granulomatosis (WG) can present radiologically either as diffuse infiltrates or as nodular and linear opacities. Clinical experience suggest that these radiological patterns are associated with different bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) cell profiles, but this has not been examined formally. We compared the BAL cell profile in eight WG patients with diffuse infiltrates on chest X-ray, indicative of highly active pneumonitis, with corresponding findings in 37 patients with nodular, linear and focal low-attenuation infiltrates on high-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) which reflected low-grade, mainly interstitial disease. A control group was composed of 11 patients with pulmonary sarcoidosis. Diffuse infiltrates occurred in association with high systemic disease activity and featured a neutrophilic BAL profile in the presence of generally normal BAL lymphocytes. HRCT findings suggestive mainly of interstitial disease were associated with either a lymphocytic BAL cell profile or a normal cell pattern. Patients with a lymphocytic cell profile generally had a preferential elevation of CD4+ cells in the BAL in the presence of a normal CD4/CD8 ratio in the blood. This was a common feature of WG and pulmonary sarcoidosis. In conclusion, highly active pneumonitis and pulmonary disease of low or moderate activity in WG are associated with disparate BAL cell profiles. It remains to be examined whether the preferential elevation of CD4+ cells in the latter condition reflects a common pathogenetic role of this subset of cells in WG and pulmonary sarcoidosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0896_17919", "title": "Relationship between radiologic patterns, pulmonary function values and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid cells in newly diagnosed sarcoidosis.", "score": 0.013139814496736516, "content": "The aim of the present study was to identify specious radiologic and/or physiologic prognostic marker(s), which lead to optimize of the patient follow-up frequency. Eighty consecutive patients with newly diagnosed pulmonary sarcoidosis. Patients underwent chest radiography, high-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) examination, pulmonary function tests (PFT), bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) and lung biopsy, and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) cell examination. The reduction in PFT values seen in radiological sarcoidosis stage III was greater than that seen in stages I and II. The percentage of neutrophils in the lungs was found to increase in stages II and III. PFT indices were correlated negatively with the consolidation and ground glass opacities CT scores, but not with the micronodule or macronodule scores. The rise in the percentage of BALF lymphocytes was associated with the restriction pattern of PFT. The diagnostic value of BALF for sarcoidosis was higher when the typical radiologic patterns of stage I disease were found and that smoking decreased the diagnostic value of CD4/CD8 ratio. This study supports the opinion that the staging of the pulmonary sarcoidosis with chest X-rays is still valuable from the prognostic point of view, because significant correlations between the radiologic stages of sarcoidosis and PFT parameters were found. Chest HRCT was significantly superior to chest X-ray in detecting mediastinal and pulmonary parenchymal changes. However, the prognostic role of HRCT needs to be better investigated evaluating serial examinations. Only consolidation and ground glass scores (neither of which are frequently found in sarcoidosis) hold prognostic value, since these were negatively correlated with PFT parameters." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0075_16472", "title": "[A case of subacute necrotizing lymphadenitis with localized interstitial pneumonia].", "score": 0.013091147111765667, "content": "A 16-year-old male was admitted with a history of cervical lymph node swelling, high fever, cough and hemosputum. On admission, bilateral cervical lymph nodes swelling and fine crackles in the right lower lung field were noted. A chest X-ray film showed an infiltrative shadow in the right lower lung field and right hilar enlargement. Cervical lymph node biopsy specimens revealed wide areas of necrosis with nuclear debris. Transbronchial lung biopsy showed infiltration of lymphocytes in the interstitium and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid showed increased T-lymphocytes and a decreased T4/T8 ratio. The patient was diagnosed to have subacute necrotizing lymphadenitis with T-lymphocyte alveolitis. Additionally, antinuclear antibodies were positive, and anti HTLV-I antibody was false positive. These findings suggested an immunological abnormality in this case. His cervical lymph node swelling and infiltrative shadow on chest X-ray film improved with steroid therapy. Our case may be the first case of subacute necrotizing lymphadenitis with T-lymphocyte alveolitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0568_1435", "title": "Bronchoalveolar lavage in interstitial lung diseases: does the recovery rate affect the results?", "score": 0.012637362637362638, "content": "Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) is an established diagnostic tool in interstitial lung diseases. BAL frequently yields findings of diagnostic value and at times even confirmatory diagnostic results. The present study has been designed to investigate whether the recovery rate affects BAL results relative to the instilled volume. Six hundred and eighteen patients with the following diagnoses were included into the study: 236 with sarcoidosis, 85 with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, 83 with cryptogenic organizing pneumonitis, 64 with connective tissue disease affecting the lungs, 54 with respiratory bronchiolitis with interstitial lung disease, 51 with extrinsic allergic alveolitis and 45 control patients. BAL was performed during flexible bronchoscopy with an irrigation volume of 100 ml 0.9% saline solution in 5 aliquots of 20 ml each. Only patients with a recovery of at least 30 ml were evaluated. Initially, the entire patient population was analysed, followed by an analysis within the different diagnostic groups and a comparison between patients with a high (&gt;50 ml) and low (&lt; or =50 ml) recovery rate. The recovery rate varied between the diagnostic groups (p &lt; 0.001) and was negatively correlated with age (r = -0.21, p &lt; 0.001) and smoking history (r = -0.11, p &lt; 0.035). There were no correlations with inspiratory vital capacity (%pred.; p = 0.26) and forced expiratory volume in 1 s (%pred.; p = 0.15), but a positive correlation with the index (forced expiratory volume in 1 s/inspiratory vital capacity) x 100 (r = 0.23, p &lt; 0.001). The cellular and non-cellular constituents of BAL were not affected by the recovery: cells/millilitre BAL (p = 0.71), relative proportion of macrophages (p = 0.92), lymphocytes (0 = 0.33), neutrophils (p = 0.14) and eosinophils (p = 0.11), albumin concentration (p = 0.13), and proportion of albumin in total protein (p = 0.06). The same applied for the lymphocyte surface markers CD4 (p = 0.72) and CD8 (p = 0.53). In the group with a high recovery rate, patients with sarcoidosis had a lower proportion of eosinophils (p = 0.04) and patients with cryptogenic organizing pneumonitis a higher concentration of albumin (p = 0.02) and lymphocytes (p = 0.007). Otherwise, no further differences were detected. The recovery rate hardly affected the cellular and non-cellular constituents of BAL at a lower limit of 30% of the instilled volume." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en043_35449", "title": "Chest radiograph", "score": 0.012521312872975277, "content": "Pleural effusions may occur with cancer, sarcoid, connective tissue diseases and lymphangioleiomyomatosis. The presence of a pleural effusion argues against pneumocystis pneumonia. Reticular (linear) pattern (sometimes called \"reticulonodular\" because of the appearance of nodules at the intersection of the lines, even though there are no true nodules present) idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis connective tissue disease sarcoidosis radiation fibrosis asbestosis lymphangitis carcinomatosa PCP Nodular pattern sarcoidosis silicosis/pneumoconiosis extrinsic allergic alveolitis Langerhans cell histiocytosis lymphangitis carcinomatosa miliary tuberculosis metastases Cystic cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis (late stage \"honeycomb lung\") cystic bronchiectasis Langerhans cell histiocytosis lymphangioleiomyomatosis Ground glass extrinsic allergic alveolitis desquamative interstitial pneumonia alveolar proteinosis infant respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_20201", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012269771000710498, "content": "FIGURE 310-2 Open-lung biopsy from a patient with subacute hypersensitivity pneumonitis demonstrating a loose, nonnecrotiz-ing granuloma made up of histiocytes and multinucleated giant cells. Peribronchial inflammatory infiltrate made up of lymphocytes and plasma cells is also seen. (Courtesy of TJ Gross; with permission.) Bronchoscopy Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) may be used in the evaluation of HP. Although not a specific finding, BAL lymphocytosis is characteristic of HP. However, in active smokers, a lower threshold should be used to establish BAL lymphocytosis, because smoking will result in lower lymphocyte percentages. Most cases of HP have a CD4+/CD8+ lymphocyte ratio of less than 1, but again, this is not a specific finding and has limited utility in the diagnosis of HP." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en013_71204", "title": "Sarcoidosis", "score": 0.012183985388830145, "content": "Serum markers of sarcoidosis, include: serum amyloid A, soluble interleukin-2 receptor, lysozyme, angiotensin converting enzyme, and the glycoprotein KL-6. Angiotensin-converting enzyme blood levels are used in the monitoring of sarcoidosis. A bronchoalveolar lavage can show an elevated (of at least 3.5) CD4/CD8 T cell ratio, which is indicative (but not proof) of pulmonary sarcoidosis. In at least one study the induced sputum ratio of CD4/CD8 and level of TNF was correlated to those in the lavage fluid. A sarcoidosis-like lung disease called granulomatous–lymphocytic interstitial lung disease can be seen in patients with common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) and therefore serum antibody levels should be measured to exclude CVID." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0781_4045", "title": "Influence of age on manifestation, VC and TLCO values, and bronchoalveolar lavage cell counts of sarcoidosis and extrinsic allergic alveolitis.", "score": 0.011339385252428731, "content": "Immune response probably changes during human life, being influenced by cumulative exposure to environmental factors and individual genetic background. Patients investigated for suspected interstitial lung disease were prospectively enrolled. After completing the diagnostic process, 121 patients were diagnosed extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) and 136 sarcoidosis. Three groups according to age were established (&lt;30 years, 30-60 years, &gt;60 years), clinical manifestation, vital capacity (VC), forced expired volume in 1 s (FEV1 ), lung diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide-transfer factor (TLCO ) and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) differential cell count were compared among the groups. Age subgroups of EAA patients did not significantly differ in lung functions. In the group above 60 years, non-significantly higher neutrophils and eosinophils counts and CD4/CD8 ratio were observed. Sarcoidosis patients were significantly younger than EAA group and had significantly better lung functions (VC, FEV1 , TLCO ). Patients with sarcoidosis above 60 years of age had significantly higher percentages of neutrophils in BALF compared with younger patients. BALF percentage of neutrophils positively correlated with age. Presented results may support the hypothesis that reactivity of immune system changes during the life, which may result in different manifestation of interstitial lung diseases according to age." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0306_5934", "title": "[Flow cytometry for extensive thoracic diagnosis].", "score": 0.01107135211181454, "content": "Immunophenotyping of cells by flow cytometry has become a routine test to diagnose pulmonary and mediastinal diseases. Peripheral blood, extravascular fluids, bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) and suspension of single cells obtained by fine-needle aspiration can be used. Peripheral blood (MOAb for immunophenotyping of lymphocytes: CD14, CD45, CD3, CD19, CD4, CD8, CD16/56, HLA DR, CD38, CD25) is the material of choice for detection and monitoring of immunodeficiences. BAL (MOAb for immunophenotyping of lymphocytes: CD14, CD45, CD3, CD19, CD4, CD8, CD16/56, HLA DR) is used mainly for differential diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis (low CD4/CD8 ratio) and sarcoidosis (high CD4/CD8 ratio). The enumeration of alveolar macrophage subsets is an important tool to establish diagnosis of histiocytosis X (CD1a &gt; 3%). Extravascular fluids, suspension of single cells and BAL are preferred materials for detection and classification of non-Hodgkin lymphomas (MOAb for immunophenotyping of lymphocytes: CD14, CD45, CD3, CD19, CD4, CD8, CD16/56, HLA DR, CD38, CD25, CD23, CD5, CDl1c, CD30, light chain immunoglobulins)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0052_17782", "title": "[Diagnostic values of BAL and TBLB in patients with interstitial lung diseases].", "score": 0.01067038470293649, "content": "In order to evaluate the diagnostic values of bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) and transbronchial lung biopsy (TBLB) in interstitial lung diseases, we made a retrospective study of a total of 43 patients all of whom underwent examinations for both conditions at the same time. In the BAL examination, fractional analyses of cell differential counts were applied to the first 30 ml lavage (FBAL-I, bronchial lavage) and to the following 50 ml aliquot of the second and third lavages (FBAL-II and -III, the latter supposedly alveolar lavage) lavages respectively. This technique revealed the unique characteristics of bronchial and alveolar inflammations in a separate data and this is assumed to be a precise reflection of the pathogenesis of interstitial lung diseases. The evaluation values (EV) were graded from 1 to 5 for both results according to the following diagnostic significance: EV1: not useful, EV2: normal or only slight changes from normal level, EV3: moderate changes although not diagnostic, EV4: quite compatible findings for diagnosis and EV5: definitely diagnostic. The 19 patients (43%) whose EV in TBLB were either 4 or 5 were diagnosed as having sarcoidosis (3), hypersensitivity pneumonitis (1), tuberculosis (2), pneumoconiosis (6), histiocytosis X (3), pulmonary infiltration with eosinophilia syndrome (PIE) (1), collagen vascular diseases (1), panbronchiolitis (1) or lymphagiomyomatosis (1). Thirteen of them had a BAL EV 4 which consisted of rather characteristic patterns of cell differential counts: thus their diagnoses were reconfirmed. In the other 4 patients with hypersensitivity pneumonitis, tuberculosis or PIE, the diagnoses were established by the findings of BAL EV 4 although the EV of TBLB were 3 or 2. These results indicate that BAL alone hardly establishes a diagnosis but it can support the TBLB findings and increase a diagnostic ability by 10% in total. Basophilic leukocytes, mast cells and Langerhans cells in BAL were rather non-specific, but the former two frequently appeared in allergic states and the latter two were often present in fibrotic lungs. Histiocytosis X is indicated if Langerhans cells are recovered from more than a small percentage of the total cell counts." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0718_8320", "title": "[Pathologic diagnosis and clinical analysis of chronic extrinsic allergic alveolitis].", "score": 0.010225642363375505, "content": "To study the clinicopathologic features and diagnostic approach of chronic extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA). Seven cases of chronic EAA diagnosed by open lung biopsy or lung transplant were enrolled into the study. The clinical and pathologic features were analyzed and the literature was reviewed. There were altogether 4 men and 3 women. The age of the patients ranged from 30 to 65 years (mean = 48 years). All cases represented chronic form and five cases diagnosed by open lung biopsy also showed features of recent aggravation, leading to hospitalization. Four cases had known history of exposure to inciting gases, pollens and pets, and only 2 cases were positive for allergens. High-resolution CT scan showed ground-glass attenuation and reticular pattern that often had a patchy distribution and central predominance. Bronchoalveolar lavage analysis showed marked lymphocytosis, with CD4(+)/CD8(+) ratio less than 1. Lung function test demonstrated a restrictive ventilatory defect, with decreased compliance, reduced diffusion capacity and high airway obstruction. Five cases had open lung biopsy performed and two cases had undergone lung transplantation. Pathologic examination showed bronchiolocentric cellular interstitial pneumonia, interstitial fibrosis, non-caseating epithelioid granulomas, epithelioid histiocytic infiltrate in the respiratory bronchioles and intraluminal budding fibrosis. The five cases with open lung biopsy performed also showed neutrophilic infiltrate in the alveoli. The two lung transplant cases were complicated by severe fibrotic changes. Chronic EAA demonstrates characteristic pathologic features. Definitive diagnosis requires correlation with clinical and radiologic findings due to possible morphologic mimicry of other diffuse parenchymal lung diseases." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_20481", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.010047497259773474, "content": "Sarcoidosis Lymphocytosis; CD4:CD8 ratio >3.5 most specific of diagnosis Organizing pneumonia Foamy macrophages; mixed pattern of increased cells characteristic; decreased CD4:CD8 ratio Diffuse alveolar bleeding Hemosiderin-laden macrophages, red blood cells Diffuse alveolar damage, Atypical hyperplastic type II pneumocytes drug toxicity Opportunistic infections Pneumocystis carinii, fungi, cytomegalovirustransformed cells Lymphangitic carcinomatosis, Malignant cells alveolar cell carcinoma, pulmonary lymphoma Alveolar proteinosis Milky effluent, foamy macrophages and lipoproteinaceous intraalveolar material (periodic acid–Schiff stain–positive) Pulmonary Langerhans cell Increased CD1+ Langerhans cells, electron histiocytosis microscopy demonstrating Birbeck granule in lavaged macrophage (expensive and difficult to perform) Asbestos-related pulmonary Dust particles, ferruginous bodies disease Berylliosis Positive lymphocyte transformation test to beryllium" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0526_19110", "title": "[Pulmonary sarcoidosis -- clinical and bronchoscopic findings in relation to the radiographic stage].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The classification of pulmonary involvement in sarcoidosis is based upon the radiographic stage of disease. We investigated 170 patients with new detected sarcoidosis (stage I / II / III: 79 / 39 / 52) for differences between the stages in demographic data, lung function values and results of BAL. With a multinomial logistic regression model to estimate probabilities, we found an increased probability for stage I with lower age (p &lt; 0.001), higher IVC and FEV1 (p &lt; 0.001), a less intensive smoking history (p&lt;0.035), in BAL with a lower count of eosinophils (p &lt; 0.014), mast cells (p &lt; 0.004), CD8 lymphocytes (p &lt; 0.015) and a less content of alkaline phosphatase (p &lt; 0.004). For stage III the opposite results apply. With higher cell counts in BAL the probability of stage II increased, of stage III decreased (p &lt; 0.013). The most relevant diagnostic BAL parameter in sarcoidosis, i.e. the count of lymphocytes and CD4 cells, was not different between the radiographic stages. Between patients with different radiographic stages of sarcoidosis there are differences in demographic data, lung function values and the pattern of alveolitis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0123_11145", "title": "Relationships between radiographic change, pulmonary function, and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid lymphocytes in farmer's lung disease.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Ninety four dairy farmers were investigated by chest radiography, pulmonary function tests, and bronchoalveolar lavage. They were divided into five groups--1: 11 subjects with acute farmer's lung; 2: 25 subjects with previously diagnosed farmer's lung who had stayed on their farm; 3: 15 farmers with previously diagnosed farmer's lung who had left the farm; 4: 23 precipitin positive symptomless farmers; 5: 20 precipitin negative symptomless farmers. The study evaluated the relationships between radiographic changes measured with a scoring system derived from the International Labour Office (ILO) classification, the results of pulmonary function tests, and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid. Thirty eight subjects had radiographic evidence of interstitial pulmonary infiltrates. Group 1 had the highest percentage of lymphocytes recovered by bronchoalveolar lavage (mean 66.3 (SD 19.2]. For all subjects carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and total lung capacity were negatively correlated with radiographic changes (r = -0.45 and -0.30; p less than 0.001 and less than 0.01 respectively). TLCO was also negatively correlated with radiographic change in group 2 (r = -0.59, p less than 0.005). The percentage of lavage lymphocytes was correlated with radiographic changes for all subjects (r = 0.36, p less than 0.001), but this correlation was not seen within groups. This study shows good correlation between radiographic abnormalities, pulmonary function changes and the cellular composition of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_25374", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009733924611973394, "content": "Chest radiography can rule out infection and other causes of pulmonary involvement, but compared to HRCT, it is relatively insensitive for detection of early ILD. HRCT shows subpleural reticular linear opacities and ground-glass opacifications, predominantly in the lower lobes, even in asymptomatic patients (Fig. 382-8). Additional HRCT findings include mediastinal lymphadenopathy, pulmonary nodules, traction bronchiectasis, and uncommonly, honeycomb changes. The extent of pulmonary interstitial changes on HRCT is a predictor of mortality in SSc. Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) can demonstrate inflammation in the lower respiratory tract and may be useful for ruling out infection. Although an elevated proportion of neutrophils (>2%) and/or eosinophils (>3%) in the BAL fluid is correlated with more extensive lung disease on HRCT and is associated with more rapid decline in FVC and reduced survival, BAL is not useful for identifying reversible alveolitis. Lung biopsy is indicated only in" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0080_5102", "title": "[Cytological examination of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid and its clinical significance in patients with diffuse interstitial lung diseases].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Cytological examination of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) was carried out in 48 patients with diffuse interstitial lung diseases based on chest roentgenography. 7 cases manifested with respiratory symptoms but without any abnormality on both chest roentgenogram and fibroptic bronchoscopy served as controls. The total cell counts of BALF in the study group were all higher than those of the control group (3.1 x 10(5)/ml) and the differential count of the cells showed that neutrophilic granulocytes was found in patients with fibrosing alveolitis, Neutrophilic granulocytes accounted for 21.3 +/- 2.4% of all the cells and the percentage was significantly higher than that of the control group (1.8 +/- 0.5% P less than 0.01). On the contrary, lymphocytosis was found in patients with allergic alveolitis and sarcoidosis; lymphocytes accounted for 30.8 +/- 5.3% and 29.0 +/- 1.1% of all the cells in these two diseases respectively and the percentage was also higher than that of the control group (3.0 +/- 0.6% P less than 0.01). However, the differential cell count of BALF in alveolar carcinoma showed no significant difference with that of the control group (P greater than 0.05). The factors influencing the quality control of both BAL and cytological examination were evaluated and the clinical significance of these results was discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0822_9418", "title": "Clinical usefulness of bronchoalveolar lavage cellular analysis and lymphocyte subsets in diffuse interstitial lung diseases.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Diffuse interstitial lung diseases (DILDs) form a part of a heterogeneous group of respiratory diseases. Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) analysis has been used for differential diagnosis of DILDs, but their clinical usefulness is controversial. The aim of this study was to investigate the clinical usefulness of BAL cellular analysis with lymphocyte subsets for the differential diagnosis of DILDs. A total of 69 patients diagnosed with DILDs were enrolled. Basic demographic data, BAL cellular analysis with lymphocyte subsets, histology, and high resolution computed tomogram (HRCT) findings were analyzed and compared as per disease subgroup. Significant differences were found between groups in the proportion of neutrophils (P=0.0178), eosinophils (P=0.0003), T cells (P=0.0305), CD4 cells (P=0.0002), CD8 cells (P&lt;0.0001), and CD4/CD8 ratio (P&lt;0.0001). These findings were characteristic features of eosinophilic pneumonia and sarcoidosis. Other parameters were not significantly different between groups. At the cut-off value of 2.16 for sarcoidosis, CD4/CD8 ratio showed sensitivity of 91.7% (95% CI, 61.5-98.6%) and specificity of 84.2% (95% CI, 72.1-92.5%). Routine analysis of BAL lymphocyte subset may not provide any additional benefit for differential diagnosis of DILDs, except for conditions where BAL is specifically indicated, such as eosinophilic pneumonia or sarcoidosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0624_4437", "title": "[Bronchoalveolar lavage findings in patients with diffuse interstitial lung disease: prospective study of a cohort of 562 patients].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Study of the bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluid in some interstitial lung diseases can reveal patterns typical to each disease and that can support the diagnosis. The objective of this study was to perform a descriptive analysis of the cytologic study and of the lymphocyte subpopulations in BAL fluid from patients with interstitial lung disease. In this prospective, observational study of 562 patients between January 1991 and January 2005, BAL fluid was analyzed to determine the distribution of cell populations and of lymphocyte subsets: CD3, CD4, CD8, CD3(+)CD4(-)CD8(-), and CD56. The mean age was 53.4 years and 53.3% of the patients were women. The following diseases were studied: idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (n=132), sarcoidosis (n=123), connective tissue diseases (n=133), cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (n=89), and extrinsic allergic alveolitis (n=85). Isolated lymphocytic alveolitis was common in sarcoidosis and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Mixed alveolitis was the most common pattern in the other interstitial lung diseases. The CD4:CD8 ratio was the most useful parameter. It was high in sarcoidosis (median, 2.3); the ratio was low or inverted in the other interstitial lung diseases, with median values of 1.76 in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, 0.45 in extrinsic allergic alveolitis, 0.35 in cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, and 0.33 in the connective tissue diseases. BAL parameters, in association with clinical and radiologic data, help to discriminate between interstitial lung diseases. BAL should therefore be considered a very useful tool in clinical management, particularly when pulmonary biopsy is not conclusive or is not possible." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0123_12317", "title": "Persistent bronchoalveolar lymphocytosis in asymptomatic farmers.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "We previously demonstrated that 14 of 23 asymptomatic dairy farmers with positive precipitins and 5 of 20 without precipitins had an alveolar lymphocytosis (greater than 22%). To verify the outcome of this lymphocytosis, we restudied, 2 or 3 yr later, 27 of these subjects. No subject had had symptoms suggestive of farmer's lung disease either prior to the initial study or between the 2 studies. All were still on their farm. Physical examination and chest roentgenograms were normal for all subjects at both studies. Pulmonary function tests showed a small but significant change in RV (101.8 +/- 20.4% to 118.7 +/- 27.6% of predicted, p less than 0.05) and FVC (98.0 +/- 12.6% to 94.3 +/-9.5%, p less than 0.05), whereas TLC, FEV1, and DLCO showed no changes. Lymphocytes from BAL were still increased in 9 of 12 subjects, whereas 3 had returned to normal; of the 15 subjects with previous normal values, 3 now had an abnormal lavage lymphocytosis. There was no correlation between lung function variations and the percentage of lymphocytes in the previous or the present BAL. We conclude that a bronchoalveolar lymphocytosis is a persistent phenomenon in a large number of asymptomatic dairy farmers, and that this finding is not related to significant disease, at least in the time span studied." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0079_2525", "title": "[Value of bronchoalveolar lavage and findings of cytologic studies in the diagnosis of interstitial lung diseases].", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "In 27 patients with roentgenologically suspected interstitial pulmonary disease, bronchoscopy was carried out with the rigid bronchoscope. The examination material obtained (BAL fluid, transbronchial lung biopsy, perbronchial lymph node biopsy, mucosal biopsy) was submitted to a histological and cytological work-up. The established cell distribution in the BAL fluid confirmed the findings reported in the literature. In sarcoidosis, irrespective of the roentgenological stage, a 30 to 35% lymphocytosis was observed. The combination of BAL, perbronchial lymph node biopsy, transbronchial lung biopsy and bronchial mucosal biopsy permitted confirmation of the sarcoidosis in more than 90% of the cases. The -hit rate- of the perbronchial lymph node biopsy was 90.6% in stage 1, 85% in stage 2, and 77% in stage 3." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0048_10297", "title": "[A case of bucillamine-induced interstitial pneumonia].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Bucillamine [N-(2-mercapto-2-methylpropionyl)-L-cysteine] is an anti-rheumatic drug which was developed in Japan. Interstitial pneumonia induced by bucillamine has been reported in two patients with rheumatoid arthritis. In this report, we describe another patient who developed bucillamine-induced interstitial pneumonia. In August 1990, a 53-year-old man was admitted because of fever, dry cough and dyspnea on exertion (DOE). Five months previously, he had noted polyarthritis, and treatment with bucillamine was started in May 1990. His polyarthritis improved about 2.5 months after starting bucillamine, but he developed fever, dry cough, and DOE in August 1990. Chest X-ray on admission showed diffuse acinar and interstitial shadows predominantly in the bilateral upper lung fields. Pulmonary function tests revealed decreased vital capacity and diffusing capacity. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis revealed moderate hypoxemia with PaO2 67 Torr. After stopping bucillamine, the fever, dry cough, and DOE improved gradually, and the abnormal shadows on chest X-ray and ABG analysis showed moderate improvements. Bronchoalveolar lavage studies showed that total cell counts and proportion of lymphocytes were increased, and CD4+/CD8+ ratio of T cell subsets was decreased to 0.56. Transbronchial lung biopsy specimen revealed lymphocytic alveolitis and mild interstitial thickening. Lymphocyte stimulation test to bucillamine was negative, but patch test with bucillamine was positive. From the patient's clinical course, laboratory data, and pathologic findings, we concluded that this is a case of bucillamine-induced interstitial pneumonia. After treatment with corticosteroid, his chest X-ray and pulmonary function test showed marked improvements.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0371_18473", "title": "[Value of bronchoalvoeolar lavage in the diagnosis of lung disease].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) is an important tool for evaluating interstitial lung diseases. It provides information on inflammatory cells which play an important role in the pathogenesis of such diseases and complements the information of the lung biopsy. The method is based on the observation, that the cells recovered by BAL reflect the population of cells in pulmonary parenchyma. In healthy subjects the main cells in the lavage fluid are macrophages (&gt; or = 80%), lymphocytes (10-20%), some few neutrophils (&lt; or = 4%), eosinophils (&lt; or = 3%) and single mast cells. There are significant differences in the distribution of cell types in never-smokers, exsmokers and current smokers. Generally the increase in the number of lymphocytes is a hallmark of granulomatous and allergic lung diseases. Evaluation of the lymphocyte surface antigen phenotypos allows the recognition of sarcoidosis (increased proportion of T-helper lymphozytes) and extrinsic allergic alveolitis (increased proportion of T-suppressor lymphocytes). High neutrophil counts are characteristic of fibrosing processes or of occupational diseases caused by inhalation of inorganic dust. The evaluation of the diagnostic accuracy of the BAL is difficult because the final diagnosis of many symptomatically cured patients is not clear. Nevertheless, the evaluation of our cases showed a surprisingly high overall diagnostic accuracy (&gt; 80%). However, the accuracy of negative diagnosis (exclusion of a certain disease) is slightly higher than this of the positive ones (diagnosis confirmed)." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en156_26068", "title": "Bird fancier's lung", "score": 0.009235209235209235, "content": "Biochemistry Biochemical results tend to be difficult to pinpoint to BFL, but can support a diagnosis. BFL causes high concentrations of antibodies targeted against avian proteins, although this may also be found in people exposed to avian protein without the disease. These can be detected in a blood test. An inverted CD4+/CD8+ ratio is associated with lymphocytosis. Radiology X-ray or CT scans usually show physical changes to the lung structure (a \"ground glass\" appearance or a \"mosaic\" pattern) as the disease progresses. Mediastinal lymphadenopathy and bronchiectasis may also be seen. Precise distribution and types of tissue damage differ among similar diseases, as does response to treatment with prednisone. Up to 12% of x-rays may show no damage, whilst only 2% of CT scans show no damage." } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Reassure her, since an imaging test has already been done and malignancy has been ruled out.", "2": "This classification probably implies surgery, given that the probability of cancer is greater than 10%. He explains it to her and refers her preferentially to the Breast Unit.", "3": "This is a probably benign finding, given that there is less than a 2% chance of cancer. He explains that it requires follow-up every 6-12 months until 24 months or a biopsy.", "4": "The findings are of low suspicion of cancer (between 2 and 10%) but a biopsy is necessary.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0424_10969", "title": "Evaluation of abnormal mammography results and palpable breast abnormalities.", "score": 0.017900990099009903, "content": "Because approximately 1 in 10 women with a breast lump or abnormal mammography result will have breast cancer, a series of decisions must be taken by a primary care practitioner to exclude or establish a diagnosis of breast cancer among these women. To determine the most accurate and least invasive means to evaluate an abnormal mammography result and a palpable breast abnormality. MEDLINE search (January 1966 to March 2003) for articles and reviews describing the accuracy of clinical examination, biopsy procedures, and radiographic examination for patients with abnormal mammography results or palpable breast abnormalities. The authors reviewed abstracts and selected articles that provided relevant primary data. Studies were included if 1) mammography, fine-needle aspiration biopsy, or core-needle biopsy was performed before a definitive diagnosis was obtained; 2) the study sample included 100 or more women; and 3) breast cancer status was determined from histopathology review of excisional biopsy specimens, from linkage with a state cancer registry or the Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results program, or from clinical follow-up of 95% or more of the study sample. One investigator abstracted results. Methods were evaluated for major potential biases, but methodologic scoring was not performed. Likelihood ratios for first screening mammography were 0.1 for the Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System (BI-RADS) assessment category \"negative or benign finding,\" 1.2 for \"probably benign finding,\" 7 for \"need additional imaging evaluation,\" 125 for \"suspicious abnormality,\" and 2200 for \"highly suggestive of malignancy.\" For fine-needle aspiration biopsy of a palpable lump performed by formally trained physicians, the likelihood ratio was infinity for an assessment of \"malignant,\" 2.6 for \"atypical/suspicious,\" and 0.02 for \"benign.\" When diagnostic mammography was used to evaluate a palpable lump or nonpalpable breast abnormality, the positive likelihood ratios were 5.6 and 9.4, and the negative likelihood ratios were 0.15 and 0.19, respectively. Women whose screening mammography results are interpreted as \"suspicious abnormality\" or \"highly suggestive of malignancy\" have a high risk for breast cancer and should undergo core-needle biopsy or needle localization with surgical biopsy. Women whose screening mammography results are interpreted as \"need additional imaging evaluation\" have a moderate risk for breast cancer and should undergo diagnostic mammography or ultrasonography to decide whether a nonpalpable breast lesion should be biopsied. Women whose screening mammography results are interpreted as \"probably benign finding\" have a low risk for breast cancer and can undergo follow-up mammography in 6 months. Either fine-needle aspiration biopsy or ultrasonography is recommended as the first diagnostic test of a palpable breast abnormality to distinguish simple cysts from solid masses. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy also allows characterization of a solid mass. Diagnostic mammography does not help determine whether a palpable breast mass should be biopsied and should not affect the decision to perform a biopsy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_128008", "title": "Mammography", "score": 0.013547008547008549, "content": "The importance of these missed cancers is not clear, particularly if the woman is getting yearly mammograms. Research on a closely related situation has shown that small cancers that are not acted upon immediately, but are observed over periods of several years, will have good outcomes. A group of 3,184 women had mammograms that were formally classified as \"probably benign\". This classification is for patients who are not clearly normal but have some area of minor concern. This results not in the patient being biopsied, but rather in having early follow up mammography every six months for three years to determine whether there has been any change in status. Of these 3,184 women, 17 (0.5%) did have cancers. Most importantly, when the diagnosis was finally made, they were all still stage 0 or 1, the earliest stages. Five years after treatment, none of these 17 women had evidence of re-occurrence. Thus, small early cancers, even though not acted on immediately, were still reliably" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en185_5771", "title": "Breast cancer screening", "score": 0.010763888888888889, "content": "Mammography Mammography is a common screening method, since it is relatively fast and widely available in developed countries. Mammography is a type of radiography used on the breasts. It is typically used for two purposes: to aid in the diagnosis of a woman who is experiencing symptoms or has been called back for follow-up views (called diagnostic mammography), and for medical screening of apparently healthy women (called screening mammography). Mammography is not very useful in finding breast tumors in dense breast tissue characteristic of women under 40 years. In women over 50 without dense breasts, breast cancers detected by screening mammography are usually smaller and less aggressive than those detected by patients or doctors as a breast lump. This is because the most aggressive breast cancers are found in dense breast tissue, which mammograms perform poorly on." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en185_5777", "title": "Breast cancer screening", "score": 0.010060715540167596, "content": "The accidental harm from screening mammography has been underestimated. Women who have mammograms end up with increased surgeries, chemotherapy, radiotherapy and other potentially procedures resulting from the over-detection of harmless lumps. Many women will experience important psychological distress for many months because of false positive findings. Half of suspicious findings will not become dangerous or will disappear over time. Consequently, the value of routine mammography in women at low or average risk is controversial. With unnecessary treatment of ten women for every one woman whose life was prolonged, the authors concluded that routine mammography may do more harm than good. If 1,000 women in their 50s are screened every year for ten years, the following outcomes are considered typical in the developed world:" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0315_1784", "title": "Investigation of lesions detected by mammography. The Steering Committee on Clinical Practice Guidelines for the Care and Treatment of Breast Cancer. Canadian Association of Radiation Oncologists.", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "To provide information and recommendations to facilitate decision-making when a mammographic abnormality is detected by screening. References identified by use of MEDLINE, AIDSLINE, CANCERLIT and reference lists of review articles to December 1996. Where experimental evidence is lacking, recommendations are based on expert opinion. The evidence is graded accordingly in \"levels\" (page S2). Exclusion or confirmation of the presence of cancer with minimum intervention and delay. When an abnormality is detected on screening mammography, clinical evaluation and thorough radiologic work-up are needed to determine its significance. Clinical evaluation should include a history and a thorough examination of the breast, axilla and supraclavicular areas. In the radiologic work-up, diagnostic mammograms should be obtained with additional views, spot compression and magnification views as appropriate. Current mammograms should be compared with previous mammograms whenever possible. The mammographic report should include a precise description of the abnormal features visualized and an estimate of the level of suspicion of cancer they imply. Whenever there is any doubt in the interpretation of mammograms, the interpretation of 2 experienced readers should be obtained. (The following radiologic classification into 4 categories is suggested: 1--benign, not due to cancer; 2--low risk, probability of cancer under 2%; 3--intermediate risk, probability of cancer 2% to 10%; 4--high risk, probability of cancer over 10%.) Ultrasonography can be used to clarify the nature of noncalcified nodular lesions. Management decisions require close communication between the woman and her physicians. Throughout, a clinician in charge should be identified who will coordinate and transmit all decisions. Management will depend on the estimated level of risk Category 1 abnormalities require no further investigation. Category 2 abnormalities may be followed up by periodic mammographic and clinical examinations. Follow-up examination of category 2 abnormalities should be carried out at approximately 6 and 12 months. If the abnormality is stable, examination should be repeated annually for 2 to 3 years thereafter. The rationale of follow-up should be explained, and women should be made aware that it is not possible to provide complete assurance that an abnormality is benign. Category 3 abnormalities usually require image-guided fine-needle or core biopsy. Every image-guided needle biopsy should be accompanied by a full report. Category 4 abnormalities should usually be excised. This may be preceded by image-guided needle biopsy. When surgical biopsy is carried out, the margins of the resected specimen must be free of tumour. The intact pathology specimen should be examined radiographically to confirm that all mammographic abnormalities have been removed. The patient should be kept fully informed as to the reason for each test and the meaning of its results. The process, from initial detection of the mammographic abnormality to the final management decision, should be completed as rapidly as possible. Guidelines were reviewed and revised by the Writing Committee, expert primary reviewers, secondary reviewers selected from all regions of Canada and by the Steering Committee. The final document reflects a consensus of all these contributors." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0694_7473", "title": "A case of quadruple primary malignancies including breast, tongue, and thyroid cancers and osteosarcoma in a young female without karyotype abnormality.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "The patient was a 41-year-old, premenopausal woman with a chief complaint of well-circumscribed palpable, right breast mass without nipple discharge. Although she noticed the lump 3 months previously, the size of the tumor (1.1 × 0.9 cm(2)) had been stable. The patient's mother suffered from gastric cancer. Her previous history of the triple different malignancies was as follows: (1) left osteosarcoma [amputation of left lower leg at 15 years old (y/o)]. After the operation, she was treated with various kinds of anticancer drugs including a total of 45 g ifosphamide and 342 g methotrexate; (2) tongue cancer (right radical neck resection; 23 y/o); and (3) thyroid cancer (right lobectomy; 40 y/o). There was no evidence of recurrence of these malignancies at the present consultation. At the time of tongue cancer operation, chromosome abnormality was investigated, but the results were normal. Physical examination showed a well-delimited, elastic-firm, mobile tumor in the central outer right breast. Regional lymph nodes were not palpable. Mammography showed a focal asymmetry in the right upper breast on the mediolateral oblique view. Ultrasonography revealed a hypoechoic mass with irregular margins. Distant metastases could not be detected by whole-body computed tomography scan. The histology of the Mammotome(®) (vacuum-assisted core needle biopsy) specimen revealed that this tumor was low-grade ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS). She underwent breast-conserving surgery with sentinel lymph node biopsy. On permanent histopathological examination, the diagnosis of the tumor was intracystic papilloma with low-grade DCIS. Surgical margin was negative, and sentinel lymph node metastases could not be observed. Estrogen and progesterone receptor (ER/PR) were strongly positive, but human epidermal growth factor receptor-2 (HER-2) overexpression was not tested because the lesion was DCIS. She has received no adjuvant therapy and is currently disease free 3 months after surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0900_19235", "title": "How Many of the Biopsy Decisions Taken at Inexperienced Breast Radiology Units Were Correct?", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "In this study, we aimed to determine the need for biopsy in patients referred from other clinics for the performance of biopsy with the suspicion of breast cancer. 112 patients were included in the study. It was decided that their biopsies be performed following examinations in other clinics and they presented to the breast radiology unit of our hospital for a second opinion. The demographic characteristics, diagnostic studies completed in the other centers, properties of lesions, decision made as a result of examinations and BI-RADS (Breast Imaging Reporting and Data Systems) categorizations were recorded on the registration forms of the study patients. In addition, the quality of examinations, reasons of repeat tests, additional tests features and the last decision of our clinic were documented. The obtained data were analyzed in terms of re-examination, additional tests and change in the biopsy decision. Changes in the biopsy decisions for patients were specifically inquired. The biopsy decisions were cancelled in our breast radiology unit for 63 out of 112 patients (56.3%) whose biopsy decisions were made at an external institute. For 42 patients, examinations made by the other clinics were deemed adequate, yet there was no need for biopsy in 22 of them. The biopsy decisions were cancelled for 27 out of 47 patients (57.4%) with repeat examination and 18 out of 28 patients (64.3%) with additional tests because of the insufficient test quality. Incorrect, inadequate breast screening and false positivity were higher at inexperienced institutes." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1065_5245", "title": "Treatment of Pregnancy-Associated Breast Cancer.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "KS is a 33-year-old Caucasian married woman who works full time as an accountant and has one daughter who is 2 years old. She enjoys reading and exercising in her spare time. She initially presented in July 2015 at the age of 31 years with a 1-cm breast mass in the left inner breast, which prompted a mammogram to be obtained. The mammogram revealed diffuse and occasionally grouped left breast calcifications. Additionally, there was focal edema at the site of the mass. A follow-up mammogram was recommended to document stability in 6 months, which demonstrated an interval increase in number and size of segmental pleomorphic calcifications in the lower inner breast spanning 6 cm in size. A stereotactic core needle biopsy was completed and revealed high-grade ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) that was estrogen receptor (ER) and progesterone receptor (PR) positive. KS underwent genetic testing due to her young age at diagnosis of noninvasive breast cancer. She was tested with the breast/ovarian cancer panel, which was negative for mutation.She preceded to bilateral nipple-sparing mastectomy with left sentinel node biopsy and immediate implant reconstruction in February 2016. The operative pathology revealed 3.3 cm of high-grade DCIS. The surgical margins were negative (less than 1 mm posteriorly and less than 2 mm anteriorly). There was 1 sentinel node and 2 nonsentinel nodes negative for malignancy. The right breast was negative for cancer and both retro areolar margins were negative.KS did well during the ensuing routine follow-up every 6 to 12 months in surgical oncology at an academic medical center. She was not recommended to take adjuvant endocrine therapy given the benefit of bilateral mastectomy.In 2017, at a routine oncology follow-up visit, she expressed a desire to have more children. After a negative clinical exam, she and her husband were advised that future contraception may be pursued. KS was in her usual state of good health when she noticed a left breast mass in the inferior reconstructed breast in June 2017. She presented to the nurse practitioner (NP) in the surgical oncology clinic for evaluation. At that time, she was 17 weeks pregnant and being seen in the same facility for high-risk obstetrics and gynecology care. KS had no other concerning symptoms for recurrent cancer, and her pregnancy had been progressing smoothly.The surgical oncology NP noted a 1-cm firm superficial mass in the breast at 6 o'clock. She had no other bilateral breast findings or adenopathy. Upon review of systems, she denied new persistent headache, shortness of breath, abdominal pain, weight loss, night sweats, or fatigue.Due to her pregnancy and the superficial presentation of the breast mass, a left breast ultrasound was ordered. It revealed an 8-mm irregular hypoechoic mass 7 cm from the nipple at the 6 o'clock position in the reconstructed breast.A diagnostic workup ensued with a left breast ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy. KS was given a diagnosis of clinical stage T1b, N0, grade 2 invasive micropapillary carcinoma: ER positive (Allred 6), PR positive (Allred 8), HER2/<ineu</i, immunohistochemistry 3+, and fluorescence in situ hybridization amplified.After discussion of this recurrent cancer diagnosis, her team opted for a bilateral diagnostic mammogram (with abdominal shielding) and bilateral axillary and breast ultrasound to evaluate the contralateral breast and lymph nodes. There was no adenopathy, a small amount of accessory breast tissue in the right axillary tail region, and a biopsy clip was noted in the left inferior breast at 6 o'clock. The new cancer was not seen on mammogram, likely due to the proximity to the implant." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0247_4207", "title": "[The importance of mammography in relationship to the number of treated carcinomas of the breast. Partial results from 1976--1978 of a long term study (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "From 1976 to 1978 11, 197 women were examined clinically and mammographically. Biopsy material from 1,673 breasts were examined microscopically. In 536 cases, or almost every third case (32%), a carcinoma of the breast was detected. The cancer was bilateral in 19 cases and the total number of women was therefore 517. A clinically occult tumour was only found in 7.7% (40 of 517) of the cases. 5% of these patients were high risk patients and 2.7% preventive examinations. 5 women with occult carcinoma of the breast were under age 40 and 14 under age 50. Benign changes of the glandular tissue were found in 59.5% of the cases. Marked proliferative changes were found in 4.6% of the cases and carcinoma in situ was found in 3.8% of the patients. In the age group 45--54 benign and proliferative changes of the parenchyma occured almost twice as often as cancers. The ratio between benign and malignant findings was 1:1 in the age group 55--59 and was less than 1:2 in the age group over 70. A sophistication of the mammograhic technique must be obtained. A thorough microscopic examination of tissue from subcutaneous mastectomies and tissue obtained at the time of reduction mammoplasties showed occasionally unexpected malignant tissue in an unexpected location. Especially these cases are suitable for later comparison to the mammographies." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0357_10958", "title": "Atypical medullary carcinoma of the breast with cartilaginous metaplasia in a patient with a BRCA1 germline mutation.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "We examined a 34-year-old premenopausal woman who had noticed a left-breast lump a month previously. She had no past history of malignancies but had a family history of breast and ovarian cancers. Her mother had suffered from ovarian cancer when aged 47 years and had died of the disease at age 52. The younger two of the patient's four aunts had developed breast cancer when they were 37 and 48 years old. A physical examination showed an ill-defined mass, 1.5 cm in diameter, located in the upper outer quadrant of the patient's left breast. Mammography revealed diffuse microcalcification in both breasts but ultrasonography revealed an irregular tumorous lesion only in the left breast. Aspiration breast cytology revealed adenocarcinoma of the left breast. Modified radical mastectomy of the left breast and excision of a biopsy specimen from the right breast were carried out simultaneously. Histopathologically the left-breast tumor was an atypical medullary carcinoma with cartilaginous metaplasia, of histological grade 3, and the right-breast specimen showed fibrocystic changes with atypical ductal hyperplasia. Estrogen receptors were positive, but progesterone receptor was not detected on the tumor cells, which were immunopositive for nuclear p53 although c-erbB-2 overexpression was not observed. A nonsense germline mutation of the BRCA1 gene (exon5) was detected. The patient has been well since the operation (10 months). These findings may provide useful information about the carcinogenesis and biological behavior of BRCA1-associated breast cancers." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0338_3002", "title": "[History of mammography].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The History of mammography began in 1913, when a Berliner surgeon, A. Salomon realized a roentgeno-histological study on 3,000 mastectomies. This work is the basis of mammography. Until 1938, few articles were published but were of little help to mammography. From 1947 to 1970, the second period brought the results of roentgenologic and clinical correlation. R. Leborgne was the first accountable for the wide development of this method. Since 1951, many American and European radiologists brought their contribution. Ch. Gros is the best known. He gave this technique an acknowledgment throughout the world for the diagnosis of breast diseases. Since 1970, the third period emphasizes the value of mammography as a technique for detection of breast cancer. Some \"Screening working groups\" are being set up. The problem is mainly economical." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0800_14851", "title": "Breathlessness with pulmonary metastases: a multimodal approach.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Case Study  Sarah is a 58-year-old breast cancer survivor, social worker, and health-care administrator at a long-term care facility. She lives with her husband and enjoys gardening and reading. She has two grown children and three grandchildren who live approximately 180 miles away. SECOND CANCER DIAGNOSIS  One morning while showering, Sarah detected a painless quarter-sized lump on her inner thigh. While she thought it was unusual, she felt it would probably go away. One month later, she felt the lump again; she thought that it had grown, so she scheduled a visit with her primary care physician. A CT scan revealed a 6.2-cm soft-tissue mass in the left groin. She was referred to an oncologic surgeon and underwent an excision of the groin mass. Pathology revealed a grade 3 malignant melanoma. She was later tested and found to have BRAF-negative status. Following her recovery from surgery, Sarah was further evaluated with an MRI scan of the brain, which was negative, and a PET scan, which revealed two nodules in the left lung. As Sarah had attended a cancer support group during her breast cancer treatment in the past, she decided to go back to the group when she learned of her melanoma diagnosis. While the treatment options for her lung lesions included interleukin-2, ipilimumab (Yervoy), temozolomide, dacarbazine, a clinical trial, or radiosurgery, Sarah's oncologist felt that ipilimumab or radiosurgery would be the best course of action. She shared with her support group that she was ambivalent about this decision, as she had experienced profound fatigue and nausea with chemotherapy during her past treatment for breast cancer. She eventually opted to undergo stereotactic radiosurgery. DISEASE RECURRENCE  After the radiosurgery, Sarah was followed every 2 months. She complained of shortness of breath about 2 weeks prior to each follow-up visit. Each time her chest x-ray was normal, and she eventually believed that her breathlessness was anxiety-related. Unfortunately, Sarah's 1-year follow-up exam revealed a 2 cm × 3 cm mass in her left lung, for which she had a surgical wedge resection. Her complaints of shortness of breath increased following the surgery and occurred most often with anxiety, heat, and gardening activities, especially when she needed to bend over. Sarah also complained of a burning \"pins and needles\" sensation at the surgical chest wall site that was bothersome and would wake her up at night. Sarah met with the nurse practitioner in the symptom management clinic to discuss her concerns. Upon physical examination, observable signs of breathlessness were lacking, and oxygen saturation remained stable at 94%, but Sarah rated her breathlessness as 7 on the 0 to 10 Borg scale. The nurse practitioner prescribed duloxetine to help manage the surgical site neuropathic pain and to assist with anxiety, which in turn could possibly improve Sarah's breathlessness. Several nonpharmacologic modalities for breathlessness were also recommended: using a fan directed toward her face, working in the garden in the early morning when the weather is cooler, gardening in containers that are at eye level to avoid the need to bend down, and performing relaxation exercises with pursed lip breathing to relieve anxiety-provoked breathlessness. One month later, Sarah reported relief of her anxiety; she stated that the fan directed toward her face helped most when she started to feel \"air hungry.\" She rated her breathlessness at 4/10 on the Borg scale. SECOND RECURRENCE: MULTIPLE PULMONARY NODULES  Sarah's chest x-rays remained clear for 6 months, but she developed a chronic cough shortly before the 9-month exam. An x-ray revealed several bilateral lung lesions and growth in the area of the previously resected lung nodule. Systemic therapy was recommended, and she underwent two cycles of ipilimumab. Sarah's cough and breathlessness worsened, she developed colitis, and she decided to stop therapy after the third cycle. In addition, her coughing spells triggered bronchospasms that resulted in severe anxiety, panic attacks, and air hunger. She rated her breathlessness at 10/10 on the Borg scale during these episodes. She found communication difficult due to the cough and began to isolate herself. She continued to attend the support group weekly but had difficulty participating in conversation due to her cough. Sarah was seen in the symptom management clinic every 2 weeks or more often as needed. No acute distress was present at the beginning of each visit, but when Sarah began to talk about her symptoms and fear of dying, her shortness of breath and anxiety increased. The symptom management nurse practitioner treated the suspected underlying cause of the breathlessness and prescribed oral lorazepam (0.5 to 1 mg every 6 hours) for anxiety and codeine cough syrup for the cough. Opioids were initiated for chest wall pain and to control the breathlessness. Controlled-release oxycodone was started at 10 mg every 12 hours with a breakthrough pain (BTP) dose of 5 mg every 2 hours as needed for breathlessness or pain. Sarah noted improvement in her symptoms and reported a Borg scale rating of 5/10. Oxygen therapy was attempted, but subjective improvement in Sarah's breathlessness was lacking. END OF LIFE  Sarah's disease progressed to the liver, and she began experiencing more notable signs of breathlessness: nasal flaring, tachycardia, and restlessness. Opioid doses were titrated over the course of 3 months to oxycodone (40 mg every 12 hours) with a BTP dose of 10 to 15 mg every 2 hours as needed, but her breathlessness caused significant distress, which she rated 8/10. The oxycodone was rotated to IV morphine continuous infusion with patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) that was delivered through her implantable port. This combination allowed Sarah to depress the PCA as needed and achieve immediate control of her dyspneic episodes. Oral lorazepam was also continued as needed. Sarah's daughter moved home to take care of her mother, and hospice became involved for end-of-life care. As Sarah became less responsive, nurses maintained doses of morphine for control of pain and breathlessness and used a respiratory distress observation scale to assess for breathlessness since Sarah could no longer self-report. A bolus PCA dose of morphine was administered by Sarah's daughter if her mother appeared to be in distress. Sarah died peacefully in her home without signs of distress. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_127997", "title": "Mammography", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Often women are quite distressed to be called back for a diagnostic mammogram. Most of these recalls will be false positive results. Of every 1,000 U.S. women who are screened, about 7% will be called back for a diagnostic session (although some studies estimate the number to be closer to 10% to 15%). About 10 of these individuals will be referred for a biopsy; the remaining 60 cases are found to be of benign cause. Of the 10 referred for biopsy, about 3.5 will have cancer and 6.5 will not. Of the 3.5 who have cancer, about 2 will have an early stage cancer that will be cured after treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0724_17525", "title": "A radial sclerosing lesion mimicking breast cancer on mammography in a young woman.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A spiculated mass on a mammogram is highly suggestive of malignancy. We report the case of a 32-year-old woman with a radial sclerosing lesion that mimicked breast cancer on mammography. She visited her physician after palpating a lump in her left breast. Mammography showed architectural distortion in the upper inner quadrant of the left breast. Ultrasonography showed a low echoic area with an ambiguous boundary. Core needle biopsy was performed because of the suspicion of malignancy. Histological examination did not reveal any malignant cells. After 6 months, the breast lump became larger and the patient was referred to our hospital. Mammography performed in our hospital showed a spiculated mass, and therefore mammotome biopsy was performed. Histological examination revealed dense fibroelastic stroma with a wide variety of mastopathic changes, leading to a diagnosis of a radial sclerosing lesion. One year after the biopsy, the lump on her left breast had disappeared and mammography showed no spiculated mass." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0024_7159", "title": "Results of breast biopsies for mammographic findings.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The results of breast biopsies for mammographic findings have been presented, in which 314 biopsies were done on 274 patients. From this number of biopsies, the diagnosis of cancer was established in fifty-seven cases (18 per cent of the biopsies). More than 50 per cent of the lesions were infiltrating duct cell carcinomas. The number of breast biopsies required increased markedly after the national publicity in 1974. As more biopsies were done, the incidence of carcinoma increased, and a significant number of these were found in women less than fifty years old. We believe this justifies the continued judicious use of mammography, even in the younger patient, if clinically indicated." }, { "id": "article-18585_3", "title": "Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System -- Issues of Concern", "score": 0.009353146853146853, "content": "The final assessment includes the BI-RADS 0 to 6 categorization. A category assessment of BI-RADS 0 refers to an incomplete evaluation with further imaging required including additional mammographic views including spot compression or magnification and or ultrasound. BI-RADS 1 refers to a negative examination, meaning that there are no masses, suspicious calcifications or areas of architectural distortion. There can be no description of a finding in the report if it is categorized as a BI-RADS 1.  BI-RADS 2 is consistent with benign findings. Benign findings include secretory calcifications, simple cysts, fat-containing lesions, calcified fibroadenomas, implants and intramammary lymph nodes. BI-RADS 3 is probably benign and should have shortened interval follow-up to determine stability. The risk of malignancy is below 2%. There are very strict classifications to qualify a finding in the BI-RADS 3 category: a non-palpable, circumscribed mass on a baseline mammogram; a focal asymmetry, which becomes less dense on spot compression images, or a solitary group of punctate calcifications. Any findings other than this cannot be placed in the category 3. BI-RADS 4 is a suspicious abnormality, which can represent the chance of being malignant (in percent). The BI-RADS category 4 is subdivided into a, b, and c. The subcategory of (a) has a low probability of malignancy with a 2% to 10% chance of malignancy. The subcategory of (b) has an intermediate change of malignancy ranging from 10% to 50%. The subcategory of (c) has a high probability of malignancy ranging from 50% to 95%. BI-RADS 5 is highly suggestive of malignancy more than 95%. If something is placed in this classification and the pathology comes back as benign, the recommendation is still surgical consultation, because the pathology is discordant with the radiographic findings. The last category that was recently added is the BI-RADS 6, used for pathology proven malignancy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0879_19350", "title": "Bilateral desmoid tumor of the breast: case seriesand literature review.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Desmoid tumor of the breast is very rare and locally aggressive but has no distant metastasis. Bilateral lesions are extremely rare, found in only 4% of patients. Two cases of bilateral desmoid tumor of the breast are reported. The clinical presentation, diagnosis, imaging, treatment, and follow-up outcomes of recurrence as well as a brief literature review are provided. Case 1 is a 31-year-old woman who presented with nipple retraction. An ultrasound revealed BIRAD V in both breasts. She underwent a bilateral excisional biopsy under ultrasound mark with the pathology result of extra-abdominal desmoid tumor in both breasts. The patient had a bilateral mastectomy with silicone implantation due to the involved margins by excision. She remained tumor free after 7-year follow-up. Case 2 is a 28-year-old woman who presented with a lump on her right breast that she had discovered ~2 months earlier. An ultrasound showed a spiculated mass in the right breast and some circumscribed hypoechoic masses in both breasts. A bilateral breast excision was done. The pathology result was an extra-abdominal desmoid tumor. She had recurrence on both sides and underwent a mastectomy and silicone implantation. The tumor has not recurred after 1-year follow-up. Imaging cannot distinguish between benign breast lesions and malignancy. Pathology results are helpful in making a definitive diagnosis. Given that the desmoid tumor is locally aggressive, a local excision with clear margins is recommended. Chemotherapy and hormonal treatment are controversial." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0509_8108", "title": "[Re-evaluating the role of breast ultrasound in current diagnostics of malignant breast lesions].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "New evaluation of breast ultrasound based upon review of new literature comparing ultrasound and mammography. Description and discussion of the published trials regarding breast imaging methods. Breast ultrasound is the preferable method in the case of a symptomatic patient (after clinical examination). In the case of a patient without symptoms (screening), breast ultrasound is ascribed a higher sensitivity for detecting breast cancer in women with dense breast tissue, women under the age of 50 and high-risk women. Mammographically occult cancers can be detected by sonography in 10 to 40 % of the cases depending on the patient's breast density and age. The mean size of cancers detected only by ultrasound is not significantly different to that only detected by mammography. The prevalence of breast cancers detected by ultrasound is approximately equal to the one detected by mammography, regarding the total number of examined patients. Breast ultrasound should be the preferred imaging procedure in the case of a palpable lump, leading to a definitive diagnosis itself or with an additional consecutive core needle biopsy. For women without symptoms, breast sonography should be mandatory and complementary to mammography in the case of breast density grade II (BI-RADS) or more. Application of breast ultrasound as a primary method or an alternative to mammography has not yet been evaluated sufficiently. It seems advisable in the case of women with dense breast tissue grade III and IV, women under the age of 50 and high-risk women. The implementation of breast ultrasound in this manner has to be checked by future trials." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0719_10224", "title": "Desmoid tumour of the breast as a manifestation of Gardner's syndrome.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Desmoid tumours of the breast are rare. Although benign, they can mimic breast cancer on physical examination, mammography and breast ultrasound and can also be locally invasive. Even though they occur sporadically, they can also be seen as a part of Gardner's syndrome. We describe a case of desmoid tumour in a woman with Gardner's syndrome where the lesion was mammographically occult. A 63-year old woman presented with four months history of a painful left breast lump. She had a screening mammogram seven months ago which was normal. She is known to have Gardner's syndrome and had a total colectomy, she has also had multiple abdominal desmoids excised in the past. On examination there was a 4cm×5cm firm, mobile lump in the left breast. Her mammograms in the clinic were also normal. Ultrasound suggested a benign lesion of the breast and a core biopsy showed it to be a benign spindle cell lesion. She underwent wide local excision of the lump, the intraoperative mammograms of the excised specimen also failed to detect the lesion. Histopathology of the excised specimen confirmed the tumour to be a benign desmoid tumour. She has now been offered radiotherapy and nonsteriodal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) to reduce her chances of a local recurrence. A high index of suspicion and a thorough triple examination protocol is necessary to detect rare lesions like a desmoid tumour which can masquerade as breast carcinoma." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0280_22066", "title": "Interpreting the mammogram report.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "The standardization of imaging techniques, interpretation and reporting has become an important issue as the use of mammographic screening has increased. Each mammogram report should indicate whether the breast is fatty or consists of dense glandular tissue. A brief description of abnormalities should be followed by the conclusion and recommendations. Well-circumscribed lesions have a 98 percent benign rate; these lesions generally do not require biopsy but can be followed at six-month intervals for a period of time. The overall rate of malignancy for biopsies prompted by mammography is 20 to 35 percent. Lesions interpreted as highly suspicious are malignant in 75 to 90 percent of cases. Mammographically detected tumors are generally smaller than palpable tumors at the time of diagnosis. In addition, patients who have mammographically detected lesions are more often node-negative and therefore have a better prognosis than patients with palpable lesions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0951_12459", "title": "Current and Emerging Therapies for HER2-Positive Women With Metastatic Breast Cancer.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "<bCASE STUDY</b DE, a 31-year-old premenopausal woman with a nonsignificant medical history, noticed a right breast mass after playing basketball in September 2011. She initially attributed the mass to slight trauma, but after 2 weeks, she realized the mass was increasing in size. Her primary care physician ordered a bilateral screening mammogram and ultrasound. Mammography revealed no evidence of malignancy in the left breast. In the right breast, at the 7 o'clock position, a loose cluster of faint calcifications spanned a 2.2-cm area. Ultrasound confirmed an irregular hypoechoic mass in the right breast measuring 3.5 × 2.7 × 2.8 cm. Ultrasound of the right axilla identified two enlarged right axillary lymph nodes. Ultrasound core-needle biopsy of the suspicious right breast mass confirmed invasive ductal carcinoma, nuclear grade 2, Ki67 index of 55%, estrogen receptor-positive (H score of 180), progesterone receptor-positive (H score of 135), HER2-positive (3+ on immunohistochemistry). Utilizing the TNM (tumor, node, metastasis) staging system, she was clinically staged with a stage IIB (cT2, cN1, M0) invasive breast tumor. The computerized axial tomography (CT) scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis demonstrated the known right breast mass and two enlarged right axillary lymph nodes; however, no metastatic disease was noted. Nuclear bone scan revealed no bone metastases. Her medical oncologist recommended she receive neoadjuvant chemotherapy. The patient was treated with 6 cycles of neoadjuvant docetaxel at 75 mg/m², carboplatin at an AUC (area under the curve) of 6, and trastuzumab (Herceptin) at 6 mg/kg (TCH), which she tolerated well. She then underwent a right segmental mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection and was found to have a residual 1.0-cm invasive ductal carcinoma, representing a 60% tumor volume reduction. None of 13 axillary lymph nodes were positive for disease. Pathologic staging confirmed a stage IA (ypT1, ypN0, M0) tumor. DE completed 33 fractions of radiation therapy to the right breast. She initiated endocrine therapy with tamoxifen at 20 mg daily and received 1 year of maintenance trastuzumab (6 mg/kg). Due to vaginal discharge and weight gain, endocrine therapy was switched from tamoxifen to toremifene (Fareston), which she tolerated relatively well. She continued routine follow-up, with no evidence of disease. In September 2014, DE presented to her primary care physician complaining of left hip pain. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the left hip revealed T2 hyperintense masses within the right anterior superior iliac crest, right sacrum, and left iliac body consistent with skeletal metastases. She was referred back to her medical oncologist, and per National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) guidelines, a biopsy of the suspicious lesion was obtained. The bone biopsy of the lytic lesion was consistent with metastatic breast cancer, which was estrogen receptor-positive, progesterone receptor-positive, and HER2-positive (3+ on immunohistochemistry). Restaging CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis revealed new 4- to 6-mm pulmonary nodules, hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy, new liver lesions, and bone lesions. Nuclear bone scan confirmed multiple bone metastases of the right and left iliac bones and sternum. Complete blood cell count with differential and complete metabolic panel were within normal ranges. The CA 27-29 tumor marker for breast cancer was elevated at 495 U/mL (normal range, &lt; 37 U/mL). DE was understandably devastated by the new diagnosis. She questioned how the treatment plan was to be established. Her medical oncologist struck a somewhat optimistic tone. He explained that metastatic breast cancer was not yet considered to be curable, but periods of disease stability and chronicity were possible. He explained that the HER2 positivity was perhaps the most important factor in delineating her treatment options. He told her that current treatment options were numerous and increasing in number." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0920_10787", "title": "Breast screening: What can the interval cancer review teach us? Are we perhaps being a bit too hard on ourselves?", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The aim of this study was to determine the features that make interval cancers apparent on the preceding screening mammogram and determine whether changes in the ways of performing the interval cancer review will affect the true interval cancer rate. This study was approved by the clinical governance committee. Mammograms of women diagnosed with an interval cancer were included in the study if they had been allocated to either the \"suspicious signs\" group or \"subtle signs\" group, during the historic interval cancer review. Three radiologists, individually and blinded to the site of interval cancer, reviewed the mammograms and documented the presence, site, characteristics and classification of any abnormality. Findings were compared with the appearances of the abnormality at the site of subsequent cancer development by a different breast radiologist. The chi-squared test was used in the analysis of the results, seeking associations between recall concordance and cancer mammographic or histological characteristics. 111/590 interval cancers fulfilled the study inclusion criteria. In 17% of the cases none of the readers identified the relevant abnormality on the screening mammogram. 1/3 readers identified the relevant lesion in 22% of the cases, 2/3 readers in 28% of cases and all 3 readers in 33% of cases. The commonest unanimously recalled abnormality was microcalcification and the most challenging mammographic abnormality to detect was asymmetric density. We did not find any statistically significant association between recall concordance and time to interval cancer, position of lesion in the breast, breast density or cancer grade. Even the simple step of performing an independent blinded review of interval cancers reduces the rate of interval cancers classified as missed by up to 39%." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en185_5774", "title": "Breast cancer screening", "score": 0.00909767595732363, "content": "If suspicious signs are identified in the image, then the woman is usually recalled for a second mammogram, sometimes after waiting six months to see whether the spot is growing, or a biopsy of the breast. Most of these will prove to be false positives, resulting in sometimes debilitating anxiety over nothing. Most women recalled will undergo additional imaging only, without any further intervention. Recall rates are higher in the U.S. than in the UK. Effectiveness On balance, screening mammography in older women increases medical treatment and saves a small number of lives. Usually, it has no effect on the outcome of any breast cancer that it detects. Screening targeted towards women with above-average risk produces more benefit than screening of women at average or low risk for breast cancer." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0906_16829", "title": "Case 242: Radiation-induced Angiosarcoma.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "History In 2004, this woman received a diagnosis of invasive mammillary carcinoma, tubular variant, strongly positive for estrogen and progesterone receptors. Her lesion was found at screening mammography performed at an outside institution when she was 59 years old. She underwent partial mastectomy, with partial axillary node dissection and sentinel node mapping. A 0.6 × 0.5 cm Nottingham grade 1 infiltrating ductal carcinoma was removed from the right upper outer quadrant, margins were free of tumor, and there was no angiolymphatic invasion. The six dissected lymph nodes were negative for malignancy. Her surgical history was otherwise unremarkable. Her medical history was positive for hypercholesterolemia and depression. Pertinent family history included breast cancer in both her mother and her sister. Given the patient's age, tumor size, lack of nodal involvement, and clear surgical margins, she met recommended MammoSite criteria, and she underwent accelerated partial breast radiation. She subsequently received 340 cGy of radiation twice a day for a total dose of 3400 cGy in 10 administrations in February 2005. Accelerated partial breast radiation treatment was completed in February 2005, and she received subsequent routine care. Prior to 2014, the only postoperative complication was a chronic radiation bed seroma, which required periodic percutaneous drainage. She did not develop postsurgical lymphedema. In December 2013, 9 years after accelerated partial breast radiation treatment, she experienced progressive painful pruritic breast fullness, skin dimpling, and skin discoloration of the mastectomy scar and radiation bed. She sought medical care in January 2014 after she noticed a periareolar ulcerating skin plaque, more noticeable nipple retraction, and new onset of retroareolar aching. At physical examination ( Fig 1 ), there was generalized periareolar erythema, dimpling, firmness, and fixation involving the central breast and right upper outer quadrant. There was more conspicuous retraction of the nipple when compared with that seen at prior examinations. Nipple discharge was not present. There was a 1-cm periareolar ulcerating skin plaque. The only discrete palpable finding was lumpectomy bed seroma. There was no palpable axillary adenopathy. [Figure: see text] A diagnostic mammogram was obtained and compared with the most recent studies available. Ultrasonography (US) and magnetic resonance (MR) imaging were performed. Her most recent mammogram, obtained 3 months earlier in September 2013, reported Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System (BI-RADS) category 2 findings (ie, stable postoperative benign findings)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0489_4268", "title": "What about the other breast? A review of a series of bilateral breast carcinomas.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The BreastScreen Queensland Brisbane Southside BreastScreen Service reports on a study of 10 cases of bilateral breast carcinomas from a total cancer population of 217 cases. All cases were patients of screening examinations that were recalled for a suspicious lesion in one breast. Two cases were mammographically suspicious of bilateral tumours. In eight cases, tumours were ultrasonically visible in both breasts and in two further cases, the suspicion of bilateral malignancy was raised by the presence of bilateral microcalcification. It is not the purpose of this paper to provide a statistical analysis of the occurrence of bilateral breast cancer. This is a radiological paper from a breast screening service reporting on findings that conventional wisdom may find unusual. The incidence of bilateral breast malignancy in the study was found to be somewhat higher than expected. These cases have been diagnosed by the utilization of a particularly high standard of ultrasound and mammography, performed and interpreted by diagnosticians possessing an elevated level of suspicion of the possible presence of a second primary lesion. It is therefore proposed that an increased rate of diagnosis of bilateral tumours is possible with an evolution of assessment protocols, combined with quality ultrasound and mammography." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0751_7975", "title": "pynk : Breast Cancer Program for Young Women.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "CONSIDER THIS SCENARIO: A 35-year-old recently married woman is referred to a surgeon because of a growing breast lump. After a core biopsy shows cancer, she undergoes mastectomy for a 6-cm invasive lobular cancer that has spread to 8 axillary nodes. By the time she sees the medical oncologist, she is told that it is too late for a fertility consultation, and she receives a course of chemotherapy. At clinic appointments, she seems depressed and admits that her husband has been less supportive than she had hoped. After tamoxifen is started, treatment-related sexuality problems and the probability of infertility contribute to increasing strain on the couple's relationship. Their marriage ends two years after the woman's diagnosis.Six years after her diagnosis, this woman has completed all treatment, is disease-free, and is feeling extremely well physically. However, she is upset about being postmenopausal, and she is having difficulty adopting a child as a single woman with a history of breast cancer. Could this woman and her husband have been offered additional personalized interventions that might have helped them better cope with the breast cancer diagnosis and the effects of treatment?Compared with their older counterparts, young women with breast cancer often have greater and more complex supportive care needs. The present article describes the goals, achievements, and future plans of a specialized interdisciplinary program-the first of its kind in Canada-for women 40 years of age and younger newly diagnosed with breast cancer. The program was created to optimize the complex clinical care and support needs of this population, to promote research specifically targeting issues unique to young women, and to educate the public and health care professionals about early detection of breast cancer in young women and about the special needs of those women after their diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0287_646", "title": "Neglected aspects of false positive findings of mammography in breast cancer screening: analysis of false positive cases from the Stockholm trial.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To examine the implications of false positive results of mammography in terms of the time lag from screening and complete mammography to the point when women with false positive results are declared free of cancer; the extra examinations, biopsies, and check ups required; and the cost of these extra procedures. Review of women with false positive results from the Stockholm mammography screening trial. Department of Oncology, South Hospital, Stockholm. 352 and 150 women with false positive results of mammography from the first and second screening rounds of the Stockholm trial. Extra examinations and investigations required and the cost of these procedures. The 352 women from the first screening round made 1112 visits to the physician and had 397 fine needle aspiration biopsies, 187 mammograms, and 90 surgical biopsies before being declared free of cancer. After six months 64% of the women (219/342) were declared cancer free. The 150 women in the second round made 427 visits to the physician and had 145 fine needle aspiration biopsies, 70 mammograms, and 28 surgical biopsies, and after six months 73% (107/147) were declared cancer free. The follow up costs of the false positive screening results were Kr2.54m (250,000 pounds) in the first round and Kr0.85m (84,000 pounds) in the second round. Women under 50 accounted for about 41% of these costs. The examinations and investigation carried out after false positive mammography --especially in women under 50--and the cost of these procedures are a neglected but substantial problem." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_127994", "title": "Mammography", "score": 0.00892928326556645, "content": "Generally, the cause of the unusual appearance is found to be benign. If the cause cannot be determined to be benign with sufficient certainty, a biopsy will be recommended. The biopsy procedure will be used to obtain actual tissue from the site for the pathologist to examine microscopically to determine the precise cause of the abnormality. In the past, biopsies were most frequently done in surgery, under local or general anesthesia. The majority are now done with needles in conjunction with either ultrasound or mammographic guidance to be sure that the area of concern is the area that is biopsied. These core biopsies require only local anesthesia, similar to what would be given during a minor dental procedure. Risks The use of mammography as a screening tool for the detection of early breast cancer in otherwise healthy women without symptoms is controversial." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0931_1943", "title": "Discordant correlation of breast adenoid cystic carcinoma on imaging and pathology: A case report and literature review on surgical management.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Adenoid cystic carcinomas (ACC) of the breast are extremely rare tumours, accounting for &lt;0.1% of newly diagnosed breast cancer cases. Little data exist regarding the correlation of radiological findings with histology of this rare subtype. To our knowledge, gross size discrepancy between the 2 modalities has not been reported. We describe a case of ACC with appreciable size discordance between imaging and pathology report. A 71 years old lady presented with a painless right breast lump of a few months duration. Clinical examination revealed a 1.5 cm right breast upper outer quadrant mass. Axillary and systemic examinations were unremarkable. Mammogram showed an asymmetric density in the right upper outer quadrant which corresponded to a suspicious nodule measuring about 2 cm on the ultrasound. Ultrasound of the axilla showed an indeterminate right lymph node. Core needle biopsy of the right breast nodule showed ACC while the lymph node biopsy was non- metastatic. Staging scans did not reveal any definite distant metastasis. Her naso-endoscopy and MRI of the neck were normal. She underwent a right mastectomy and sentinel lymph node biopsy. Final histology returned as a grade II 55 mm ACC. Lympho-vascular invasion was absent. The tumour was triple negative for Estrogen receptor (ER), Progesterone receptor (PR) and Human epidermal receptor 2 (HER 2). Sentinel lymph node biopsy was negative for metastasis. She recovered well but declined adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation therapy. She is currently well 6 months post operation. ACC is an extremely rare subtype, therefore there are limited reports in literature on its imaging and pathological characteristics. Of this sparse data, there was no mention that there might be a big size discrepancy between the 2 modalities. This appreciable discrepancy has implications for pre-operative planning and the choice of breast surgery. It will be useful if the pathological extent of ACC could be determined more accurately radiologically. However, there are no distinctive imaging characteristics for ACC. ACC can appear as a smooth round mass similar to that of a benign mass or as an irregular mass on mammogram. On ultrasound, ACC often manifested as a hypo- echoic heterogeneous mass with minimal vascularity on Doppler imaging and may have an indistinct margin. MRI has a higher sensitivity than mammogram and ultrasound in determining the true extent of the tumour, but there remains little data on its usefulness in ACC. ACC can be extensively infiltrative and present much larger than its radiological size, as reported in our case. Use of better imaging modalities judiciously, in these cases, are needed to more accurately predict the true pathological size of ACC to prevent inadequate surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0052_18930", "title": "[Errors in mammography. II. False positives].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The authors evaluate 261 consecutive mammographic false positives observed from 1985 to 1987. Histological evidence of benign lesion followed in all cases. The comparison with the actual number of cancers and of the whole of mammographic examinations performed in the study period allowed specificity and positive predictive value of mammography to be assessed as 99.5% and 83%, respectively. Specificity and predictivity are lower in younger women, but this is more likely to depend on a different age-related incidence of cancer and benign lesions than on an intrinsic limitation of the method. The reader's diagnostic aggressivity, more than his experience, seems to affect both specificity and predictivity. At review, false positives were mostly due to asymmetric densities (49) or to circumscribed opacities with clear-cut (44) or blurred (62) outlines, whereas irregular star-like opacities or distortions (19) were infrequent. Microcalcifications were, in most cases, apparently benign (39) or dubious (76); strong suspicion was rare (4). Overall, one-fourth to one-third (27.9%) of the cases were reported as strongly suspicious at review. Palpation and cytology were also falsely suspicious--that is, co-responsible for unnecessary biopsies in over 50% of cases. Our results suggest that further improvement in the specificity or positive predictive value of mammography seems unlikely. Moreover, the benign/malignant biopsy ratio (0.2:1) presently achieved in suspicious mammographic cases appears quite satisfactory." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0984_14490", "title": "[A Case of Early-Onset Breast Cancer for Which the Operative Indication for Breast Conservation Was Based on BRCA Genetic Testing].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "We report a case of a patient with early-onset breast cancer who decided to undergo adaptation for breast-conserving surgery based on the results of genetic testing. A 25-year-old woman became aware of a lump in her left breast and visited a nearby hospital, where she was diagnosed with breast cancer. She has no personal history. Her paternal grandfather was diagnosed with rectal cancer at age 60. Ultrasonography revealed an irregularly-shaped hypoechoic mass measuring 3.8 cm in the C area of her left breast and an enlarged lymph node 2.0 cm in diameter in the left axillary area. The breast tumor was pathologically diagnosed as invasive ductal carcinoma by core needle biopsy and was immunohistochemically characterized as ER(-), PgR(-), and HER2(-), s o-called triple negative. Moreover, lymph node metastasis was confirmed by fine needle aspiration cytology. She underwent neoadjuvant chemotherapy and achieved a clinical complete response. A woman with early-onset triple negative breast cancer has a high probability of hereditary breast and ovarian cancer, with a high risk of ipsilateral second breast cancer after conserving surgery. Thus, BRCA genetic testing may be necessary before surgery. As no pathogenic mutation wasfound in BRCA 1/2 in this case, the patient underwent breast-conserving surgery followed by radiation therapy for the conserved breast. The patient remained healthy and without any recurrence 4 years and 2 months after surgery." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0307_8215", "title": "The influence of previous films on screening mammographic interpretation and detection of breast carcinoma.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "To establish if the availability of previous mammograms improves the detection rate of carcinomas and reduces supplementary examinations in the National Health Service Breast Screening Programme (NHSBSP). Eight radiologists with varying experience but an interest in reporting mammograms reported 100 mammograms on two occasions, at least 1 month apart. In this selection of 100 mammograms we randomly inserted 12 abnormal films, with both benign and malignant changes present. These were chosen retrospectively with histological correlation of the abnormality. On the first occasion only the current films were reviewed, however, on the second occasion previous films were available for comparison. The films were viewed under standard viewing conditions, and the participants were asked to comment if they required further views or would refer the patient for either an ultrasound examination or surgical referral. Receiver operating curves (ROC) were constructed for the group's overall performance on each of the occasions and there was no difference in the curves. This indicates that the presence of previous films did not improve diagnostic accuracy. The presence of previous films did, however, lead to a significant reduction in the number of additional views and ultrasound examinations that would have been requested. The most significant reductions occurred in the group of normal mammograms. The presence of previous mammograms does not lead to an improvement in diagnostic accuracy. However, the presence of previous films led to significant reduction in additional examinations and ultrasound examinations." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 170 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 23 ] ], "text": "Patient with obesity, hypertension and increased HbA1C. In recent studies, Empaglifozin, a highly selective inhibitor of SGLT210, significantly reduces AT, HbA1C and BMI." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 171, 268 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 23, 39 ] ], "text": "Glipizide is of the sulfonylurea group. Its use should be avoided in patients with heart disease." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 269, 346 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 39, 51 ] ], "text": "Acarbose can interact with beta-blockers, such as those taken by our patient." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 347, 410 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 51, 63 ] ], "text": "Sitagliptin has been shown to decrease HbA1C but not HT or BMI." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Empaglifozin.", "2": "Glipizide.", "3": "Acarbose.", "4": "Sitagliptin.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0600_10828", "title": "Reducing global cardiovascular risk in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.", "score": 0.019419306184012067, "content": "Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and its complications must be managed by using a comprehensive, or global, approach to treatment. The author describes the case of a white man, aged 51 years, with T2DM that was diagnosed 3 years earlier. The patient was obese and had a history of chronic low back pain. He also had diagnosed hypertension, decreased vibratory sensation in the feet, an S4 atrial gallop, trace ankle edema, degenerative joint disease in the knees, and decreased range of motion in the lumbar spine. Other findings at the patient's initial visit included hyperglycemia, microalbuminuria, and lipid abnormalities. Initial treatment included metformin; a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (naproxen); a thiazolidinedione (rosiglitazone maleate); a thiazide diuretic (hydrochlorothiazide); an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (enalapril); and low-dose aspirin. At 6-month follow-up, the patient continued to have elevated glycosylated hemoglobin, hypertension, dyslipidemia, and excess weight. Additional treatment strategies consisted of pioglitazone hydrochloride; metformin in combination with the dipeptidyl peptidase IV inhibitor sitagliptin phosphate; a statin (atorvastatin hydrochloride); and enrollment in a diet and exercise program. Results at 12-month follow-up included a substantial decrease in glycosylated hemoglobin and improved hypertension and dyslipidemia. The patient was successfully treated across the full range of global cardiovascular risk reduction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0650_13044", "title": "[Therapeutic behavior to follow in the following clinical case: treatment of type 2 diabetes].", "score": 0.01783749803551784, "content": "A 62-year old woman with obesity, high blood pressure and type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM2) was referred to a Vascular Risk Unit of the Internal Medicine Department due to elevated HbA1C (8.1%) in spite of having taken metformin (850 mg/12h) and glipizide (10 mg/12 h) regularly. She tries to exercise daily (walking 30 min) and has lost weight (from 5 to 12 kg) several times, but always regains what she has lost. Furthermore, she monitors her glucose levels in fasting every two weeks and generally has between 120 and 160 mg/dL. Her high blood pressure is being treated with enalapril/HCTZ and she also takes aspirin 100mg/day and simvastatin 20 mg/day. It is seen in her family background that one brother died suddenly at 50 years of age. Her physical examination shows a BMI of 32.4 Kg/m(2), and she has no edemas in the lower limbs. Her BP is 154/82 mmHg and creatinine 0.9 mg/dL. She has no microalbuminuria and her liver function is normal. What treatment do you think would be the more appropriate? 1 - Add glitazones. 2 - Add incretin mimetics (GLP 1/ DPP-4). 3 - Slow acting insulin." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1093_2270", "title": "Dyspnea in a 57-Year-Old Man With Recent Viral Illness.", "score": 0.017806267806267807, "content": "A 57-year-old man presented to the ED with a 1-month history of nonproductive cough and shortness of breath. The patient had been in his usual state of health until 2 months before presentation, when he experienced an episode of nonproductive cough and shortness of breath. He was diagnosed clinically with an upper respiratory tract infection; the symptoms resolved after 7 days with conservative therapy alone. One month later, the nonproductive cough and shortness of breath returned. He was treated with a 5-day course of oral azithromycin without any improvement in his symptoms. On presentation to the ED, he denied fever, chills, night sweats, chest pain, arthralgia, myalgia, or hemoptysis. His medical history was significant for hypertension, poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, and coronary artery bypass grafting. His medications included aspirin, metoprolol, metformin, and glipizide. He denied any history of tobacco, vaping, or recreational drug use. He worked as a cashier in a departmental store and has been doing so for most of his life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1023_21962", "title": "Dapagliflozin-Induced Acute Pancreatitis: A Case Report and Review of Literature.", "score": 0.01770050125313283, "content": "Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors are increasingly used as add-on therapy in patients with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). Although pancreatitis is not a known side effect of SGLT-2 inhibitors, there have been case reports of SGLT-2 inhibitor use being associated with pancreatitis. <iCase Presentation</i. A 51-year-old male with a history of type 2 diabetes, dyslipidemia, and status-post cholecystectomy presented to the emergency room with a four-day history of periumbilical pain radiating to the back. He denied any history of recent alcohol intake or prior episodes of pancreatitis. On physical examination, his abdomen was diffusely tender to palpation without guarding or rebound. Initial labs were notable for a leukocyte count of 9.3 × 10<sup9</sup/L, creatinine level of 0.72 mg/dL, calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL, lipase level of 262 U/L, and triglyceride level of 203 mg/dL. His last HbA1c was 8.5%. CT scan of his abdomen and pelvis showed findings consistent with acute pancreatitis with no biliary ductal dilatation. Careful review of his medications revealed the patient was recently started on dapagliflozin five days prior to admission in addition to his longstanding regimen of insulin detemir, sitagliptin, metformin, and rosuvastatin. His symptoms resolved after discontinuation of sitagliptin and dapagliflozin. A year later, due to increasing HbA1c levels, a decision was made to rechallenge the patient with dapagliflozin, after which he developed another episode of acute pancreatitis. His symptoms resolved upon cessation of dapagliflozin. <iConclusion</i. This case highlights the possible association of SGLT-2 inhibitors and pancreatitis. Patients should be informed about the symptoms of acute pancreatitis and advised to discontinue SGLT-2 inhibitors in case such symptoms occur." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0783_2102", "title": "How to prevent and treat pharmacological hypoglycemias.", "score": 0.016606642657062826, "content": "A 58 year-old woman with type 2 diabetes diagnosed 3 years before came to our clinic. Her treatment was metformin 850 mg every 12 hours and glimepiride 4 mg every 24 hours. After the initiation of glimepiride 9 months before her weight has increased 5 kg, and she suffers frequent hypoglycemias which have affected her while driving. Her BMI is 35.5 kg/m². She has a normal eye fund exam. She has hypertension treated with telmisartán and hidroclorotiazide with adequate control, and also hypercholesterolemia treated with atorvastatine 40 mg every 24 hours. Her blood test shows an HbA1c of 7.0%, normal values of microalbuminuria, total cholesterol 149 mg/dl, HDL cholesterol 52 mg/dl, LDL cholesterol 98 mg/dl and triglycerides 123 mg/dl. Her blood pressure is 129/81 mmHg, there was no orthostatic hypotension, and her peripheral neurological examination shows normal results. In summary, our case is a young woman with type 2 diabetes and obesity, without chronic complications and which has frequent hypoglycaemia. How must this woman be evaluated and treated?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0718_15563", "title": "Liraglutide-associated acute pancreatitis.", "score": 0.016059757236227826, "content": "A case of acute pancreatitis associated with liraglutide is reported. A 53-year-old African-American man (height, 185.4 cm; weight, 108.6 kg) with type 2 diabetes mellitus arrived at the emergency department (ED) with new-onset intolerable abdominal pain in the right upper quadrant and left upper quadrant that had appeared suddenly and lasted two to three hours. He had nausea but no vomiting, with tenderness in the epigastric region. In the ED, his serum amylase concentration was found to be extremely elevated (3,963 units/L), as was his serum lipase concentration (&gt;15,000 units/L). In addition to type 2 diabetes, his medical history included hyperlipidemia, hypertension, peripheral neuropathy, erectile dysfunction, and obesity. His home medications included aspirin 81 mg orally daily, metformin 1000 mg orally every morning and 1500 mg every evening, simvastatin 80 mg orally daily at bedtime, tadalafil 20 mg orally as needed, glimepiride 4 mg orally twice daily, and liraglutide 1.2 mg subcutaneously daily. Two months before his arrival to the ED, the patient's dosage of liraglutide was increased from 0.6 to 1.2 mg subcutaneously daily. Radiographic data were obtained, and acute pancreatitis was diagnosed. Liraglutide was discontinued indefinitely after ruling out elevated triglycerides as the cause of pancreatitis. The patient was initiated on standard therapy for acute pancreatitis and discharged eight days later with complete resolution of symptoms and normal laboratory test values. A 53-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus developed a probable case of liraglutide-induced acute pancreatitis after receiving the drug for approximately two months." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0600_10830", "title": "Treating Hispanic patients for type 2 diabetes mellitus: special considerations.", "score": 0.016009221311475412, "content": "The number of Hispanic people in the United States with diagnosed diabetes mellitus is projected to increase by 107% by 2020. The author presents the case of a 62-year-old obese Hispanic man, with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), diabetic peripheral neuropathy, background retinopathy, and diabetic nephropathy. The patient also had diagnosed hypertension, peripheral vascular disease, and hyperlipidemia. The treatment plan for this patient included the following medications: pioglitazone hydrochloride (a thiazolidinedione, 30 mg/d); irbesartan (an angiotensin receptor blocker, 150 mg/d titrated to 300 mg/d); hydrochlorothiazide (an antikaliuretic agent, 12.5 mg/d); and aspirin (325 mg/d). Sitagliptin phosphate (a dipeptidyl peptidase IV inhibitor, 50 mg/d) was added to the treatment regimen to improve glycemic control. Simvastatin (20 mg/d) and niacin (1 g/d) were used for lipid management. Therapy also included a low-protein diet and walking program. At 6-month follow-up, the patient showed substantial improvement in his glycosylated hemoglobin level, lipid profile, blood pressure, creatinine clearance rate, and urine albumin level. There were also improvements in his peripheral vascular disease and diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Furthermore, the patient demonstrated encouraging progress in diet and lifestyle modification and in mental attitude." }, { "id": "Pharmacology_Katzung_4629", "title": "Pharmacology_Katzung", "score": 0.015143978334162384, "content": "A 66-year-old obese Caucasian man presented to an academic Diabetes Center for advice regarding his diabetes treatment. His diabetes was diagnosed 10 years previously on routine testing. He was initially given metformin but when his control deteriorated, the metformin was stopped and insulin treatment initiated. The patient was taking 50 units of insulin glargine and an average of 25 units of insulin aspartate pre-meals. He had never seen a diabetes educator or a dietitian. He was checking his glucose levels 4 times a day. He was smoking half a pack of cigarettes a day. On examination, his weight was 132 kg (BMI 39.5); blood pressure 145/71; and signs of mild peripheral neuropathy were present. Laboratory tests noted an HbA1c value of 8.1%, urine albumin 3007 mg/g creatinine (normal <30), serum creatinine 0.86 mg/dL (0.61–1.24), total choles-terol 128 mg/dL, triglycerides 86 mg/dL, HDL cholesterol 38 mg/dL, and LDL cholesterol 73 mg/dL (on atorvastatin 40 mg daily). How would you" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0701_14915", "title": "[Management of hyperglycemia in the non-critical hospitalized patients with oral feeding].", "score": 0.013878406708595387, "content": "A 67-year-old woman with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia and 6 years of evolution of type 2 diabetes mellitus presented with fever, purulent sputum and right chest pain. She was on treatment with metformin 850 mg/bid, glimepiride 4 mg/day, candesartan 16 mg/day, atorvastatin 10mg/day and acetylsalicylic acid 100mg/day. Standing out in the physical examination was blood pressure 90/50 mmHg, temperature 38.6 °C, pulse 112/min, respirations 24/min, weight 8 5 kg, height 1.68 m. She had crackling rales in the right lung-base and edema in lower limbs. The blood analysis showed leukocytosis, glucose 348 mg/dl, urea 70 mg/dl, creatinine 1.5mg/dl and HbA1c 8.4%. A chest x-ray revealed condensation in the lower lobe of the right lung. Antibiotic treatment was begun, maintaining an oral diet from admission. What is the best strategy regarding the treatment of this patient's hyperglycemia, its management and what evidence is there on this subject?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0833_8362", "title": "[What may cause diabetes].", "score": 0.01316302229919896, "content": "The case study describes a case of 49-year-old man with morbid obesity since childhood (BMI 40 kg/m2), arterial hypertension (approx. since aged 15, treated since 2004), dyslipidemia (since 2006), type 2 diabetes mellitus (since 2006, on insulin therapy since 2008) and smoking (until 2011, 20 cigarettes a day). 16 types of medication, 8 for hypertension, statin, therapy for diabetes, aspirin, allopurinol. In 2010 (when aged 45) hospitalized in our clinic with dyspnoea and chest pain with a high pressure reading of 180/110 mm Hg (identified symptoms of heart failure with LV ejection fraction of 33 %, in NYHA II functional class, echocardiographically: left atrium: 46 mm, left ventricular chamber size in diastole: 70 mm, interventricular septum: 12 mm, septal hypokinesis, Doppler ultrasonography of lower limb arteries (calcification, diffuse atherosclerotic changes, absent stenosis), CT coronary angiography (significant stenosis of the left coronary artery). Treatment started with 40 mg oral dose of furosemide daily. In May 2011 he was hospitalized with an acute coronary syndrome: acute NSTEMI of the inferior wall (coronarography: 2-vascular problems, implemented PKI, implanted DES - ramus circumflexus, paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, NYHA III functional class, left ventricular ejection fraction: 30 %, pulmonary hypertension). In 2012 renal denervation for resistant hypertension was carried out, carotid stent implanted for stenosis of the carotid artery, presence of diabetic nephropathy (KDOQI stage 3, GF 40 ml/min). In August 2014 admitted to our clinic with pulmonary oedema, cardiogenic shock, acute ischemia of the right calf with peripheral embolisation, presence of atrial flutter, impairment of renal parameters, echocardiographically: left atrium: 55 mm, left ventricle size: 75 mm, akinesis of the septum and posterior wall, occlusion of the right leg arteries (given the patients serious state angio-surgical intervention was contraindicated, vitally indicated leg amputation considered), the patient died after 4 days of hospitalization in an intensive care unit after unsuccessful treatment. A combination of diabetes, hypertension and ischemic heart disease is frequent and prognostically serious. Diabetes increases cardiovascular morbidity and mortality and therefore we should check for diabetes in all cardiovascular patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0400_13250", "title": "Long-term (18-month) efficacy of atorvastatin therapy in type 2 diabetics at cardiovascular risk.", "score": 0.01238253178551686, "content": "Dyslipidemia (increased triglyceride and low high-density lipoprotein [HDL] levels, with normal or slightly increased total cholesterol levels) is a common characteristic of type 2 diabetics and a major risk factor for cardiovascular diseases. The aim of this study was to evaluate the long-term efficacy of atorvastatin in a cohort of type 2 diabetics. Participants were divided into 3 groups on the basis of whether they had evidence of myocardial infarction or coronary lesions (group A), a family history of hypercholesterolemia (and/or cardiovascular diseases) and total cholesterol levels constantly above 270 mg/dL in blood samples taken at regular 4-month intervals and previously never at target level (group B), or clinical and/or instrumental (electrocardiogram) evidence of cardiovascular risk (group C). Their mean age was 64 +/- 7 years, known disease duration 0.5 +/- 3 years, body mass index (BMI) 27.7 +/- 1.3 Kg/m2, and haemoglobin A1c 8 +/- 0.6%. Total cholesterol was 256 +/- 24 mg/dL in group A, 298 +/- 25 mg/dL in group B and 244 +/- 31 mg/dL in group C (p &lt; 0.05: group B vs groups A and C). HDL-cholesterol (HDL-C) was 45 +/- 7 mg/dL, triglycerides 225 +/- 20 mg/dL, systolic and diastolic blood pressure (DBP) respectively 144 +/- 7 and 85 +/- 8 mmHg, fibrinogen 330 +/- 23 mg/dL and microalbuminuria 58 +/- 9 mg/L. Eighteen months' atorvastatin treatment (10 mg/day in 106 subjects, 20 mg in 14 subjects, 30 mg in 5 subjects, and 40 mg in 30 subjects) led to a significant decrease in total and low-density lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol and triglyceride levels (p &lt; 0.01), with about 86% of the patients achieving target levels, and a significant (p &lt; 0.05) increase in HDL-C. There was a significant decrease in fibrinogen, microalbuminuria and DBP (p &lt; 0.01), without any change in diet, BMI, physical activity or antihypertensive treatment. No new cardiovascular events or hospital admissions due to cardiovascular diseases were recorded during the 18 months of the study. These long-term treatment findings confirm and validate previous medium-term results, and suggest that atorvastatin therapy is effective and safe in the primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular complications in type 2 diabetes." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_28054", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012055821492794366, "content": "Diabetes Mellitus: Complications 2428 patients with CHF, thiazolidinediones should not be used (Chap. 418). However, metformin can be used in patients with stable CHF if the renal function is normal. Antiplatelet therapy reduces cardiovascular events in individuals with DM who have CHD and is recommended. Current recommendations by the ADA include the use of aspirin for primary prevention of coronary events in diabetic individuals with an increased 10-year cardiovascular risk >10% (at least one risk factor such as hypertension, smoking, family history, albuminuria, or dyslipidemia in men >50 years or women >60 years of age). ASA is not recommended for primary prevention in those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk <10%. The aspirin dose is the same as in nondiabetic individuals." }, { "id": "Pharmacology_Katzung_2624", "title": "Pharmacology_Katzung", "score": 0.012001936912008855, "content": "Helge Eilers, MD, & Spencer Yost, MD An elderly man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischemic pain in the lower extremity is scheduled for femoral-to-popliteal artery bypass surgery. He has a history of hyper-tension and coronary artery disease with symptoms of stable angina. He can walk only half a block before pain in his legs forces him to stop. He has a 50-pack-year smoking history but stopped 2 years ago. Medications include atenolol, atorvastatin, and hydrochlorothiazide. The nurse in the preoperative holding area obtains the following vital signs: temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure 168/100 mm Hg, heart rate 78 bpm, oxygen saturation by pulse oximeter 96% while breathing room air, and pain 5/10 in the right lower leg after walking into the hospital. What anesthetic agents will you choose for his anesthetic plan? Why? Does the choice of anesthetic make a difference?" }, { "id": "Pharmacology_Katzung_7061", "title": "Pharmacology_Katzung", "score": 0.011356420651589899, "content": "A 53-year-old woman with a history of knee osteoarthritis, high cholesterol, type 2 diabetes, and hypertension presents with new onset of hot flashes and a question about a dietary supplement. She is obese (body mass index [BMI] 33), does not exercise, and spends a good portion of her work day in a seated position. She eats a low-sugar diet and regularly eats packaged frozen meals for dinner because she doesn’t have time to cook regularly. Her most recent laboratory values include a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol that is above goal at 160 mg/dL (goal < 100 mg/dL) and a hemo-globin A1c that is well controlled at 6%. Her blood pressure is high at 160/100 mm Hg. Her prescription medications include simvastatin, metformin, and benazepril. She also takes over-the-counter ibuprofen for occasional knee pain and a multivitamin supplement once daily. She has heard good things about natural products and asks you if taking a garlic supplement daily could help to bring her blood" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_19019", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009901710957408081, "content": "with end-stage renal disease or advanced heart failure). Among the oral hypoglycemic agents, metformin possesses the best evidence base for cardiovascular event reduction. The novel oral hypoglycemic agents tested in sufficiently powered trials, the dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors saxagliptin and alogliptin, did not show cardiovascular benefit. Indeed, saxagliptin was associated with a slight increase in heart failure. Diabetic populations appear to derive particular benefit from antihypertensive strategies that block the action of angiotensin II. Thus, the antihypertensive regimen for patients with the metabolic syndrome should include angiotensinconverting enzyme inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers when possible. Many of these individuals will require more than one anti-hypertensive agent to reach the 2013 goals for individuals 18 years of age or older with diabetes to achieve a systolic blood pressure of less than 140 mmHg and a diastolic blood pressure of less" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en204_12500", "title": "Liraglutide", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Liraglutide was approved for medical use in the European Union in 2009, and in the United States in 2010. In 2019, it was the 142nd most commonly prescribed medication in the United States, with more than 4million prescriptions. Medical uses Liraglutide is a medication used for the treatment of type 2 diabetes or obesity. Type 2 diabetes Liraglutide improves control of blood glucose. As of 2017 it is unclear if incretin mimetics like liraglutide affect a person's risk of death. In diabetes it is a less preferred agent. It may be used in those in who metformin and another antidiabetic medication such as a sulfonylurea are not sufficient. Obesity Liraglutide may also be used together with diet and exercise for chronic weight management in adult patients. The body mass index (BMI) needs to be greater than 30 kg/m2, or greater than 27 kg/m2 together with high blood pressure, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or dyslipidemia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0847_18918", "title": "Diabetes and osteoporosis: Action of gastrointestinal hormones on the bone.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 62-year-old woman consulted for evaluation of treatment for her type 2 diabetes diagnosed four years ago. He had been received treatment with metformin 850mg twice, with no chronic associated complications. She had hypertension and dyslipidemia. She was being treated with candesartan/hydrochlorothiazide 32/12.5mg and atorvastatin 40mg. Her weight was 92kg and height 162cm (BMI, 35.1kg/m(2)). The last analysis showed fasting glucose 168mg/dl and glycated hemoglobin 7.5%, Microalbuminuria was negative. Blood pressure and lipid profile were within the therapeutic range. Two years ago she suffered a nontraumatic Colle's fracture in her left arm for which she was taking a daily calcium and vitamin D supplement and weekly alendronate. In summary, this is an obese female patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus and inadequate metabolic control, She also has a history of fragility fracture. How should this patient be evaluated and treated? " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0996_10944", "title": "A 37-Year-Old Man With Pleuritic Chest Pain.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 37-year-old man with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presented with severe right-sided pleuritic chest pain, respiratory splinting, and cough. Two weeks earlier, he had been evaluated at an urgent care for cough and was prescribed a 5-day course of azithromycin for bronchitis. He then presented to our ED reporting mild, right-sided pleuritic chest pain. Vital signs were normal, and his chest radiograph showed a trace right pleural effusion (Fig 1A). He was discharged with naproxen for pleurisy. Three days later, he returned, reporting a dramatic increase in the severity of his pleuritic chest pain and a cough that had become productive of yellow-brown sputum. He denied fever, but endorsed chills and night sweats. His medications included atorvastatin, lisinopril, metformin, and saxagliptin. His parents were from Guam, although he was born and raised in San Diego, CA. He was employed as a social worker and denied any history of cigarette smoking, alcohol, or drug use." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1039_25633", "title": "Resolution of Metabolic syndrome with reduction of visceral adipose tissue in a 47 year old patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Metabolic syndrome (MetS), defined as a cluster of metabolic abnormalities including visceral adiposity, insulin resistance, hypertension, and dyslipidemia, now affects more than a third of adults in the United States highlighting the need for effective complementary approaches to current treatments. We present a case report of a 47-year-old man with a history of MetS and poorly controlled Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2D) who completed a 20Lighter program (20L) including a very low calorie diet (VLCD). At the time of enrollment his BMI was 32.7, HbA1c was 9.6%, and prescription medication history included lisinopril, lovastatin, and metformin, glimepiride, and combination sitagliptin/metformin. Fifteen weeks after beginning 20L (6 weeks after program completion) marked reduction of weight, visceral adipose tissue and normalization of HbA1C was seen, and all medications were withdrawn. While longer follow-up is required, this case report shows that a comprehensive program including a relatively short period of nutritionally complete VLCD, followed by gradual return to moderate dietary lifestyle is capable of producing clinically significant improvements in health and quality of life in individuals with MetS and poorly controlled T2D." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_87409", "title": "Diabetes medication", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Sulfonylureas bind strongly to plasma proteins. Sulfonylureas are useful only in type 2 diabetes, as they work by stimulating endogenous release of insulin. They work best with patients over 40 years old who have had diabetes mellitus for under ten years. They cannot be used with type 1 diabetes, or diabetes of pregnancy. They can be safely used with metformin or glitazones. The primary side-effect is hypoglycemia. Typical reductions in glycated hemoglobin (A1C) values for second-generation sulfonylureas are 1.0–2.0%. First-generation agents tolbutamide acetohexamide tolazamide chlorpropamide Second-generation agents glipizide glyburide or glibenclamide glimepiride gliclazide glyclopyramide gliquidone Nonsulfonylurea secretagogues Meglitinides" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_27815", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009468509114451615, "content": "lost 5–7% of their body weight during the 3 years of the study. Studies in Finnish and Chinese populations noted similar efficacy of diet and exercise in preventing or delaying type 2 DM. A number of agents, including α-glucosidase inhibitors, metformin, thiazolidinediones, GLP-1 receptor pathway modifiers, and orlistat, prevent or delay type 2 DM but are not approved for this purpose. Individuals with a strong family history of type 2 DM and individuals with IFG or IGT should be strongly encouraged to maintain a normal BMI and engage in regular physical activity. Pharmacologic therapy for individuals with prediabetes is currently controversial because its cost-effectiveness and safety profile are not known. The ADA has suggested that metformin be considered in individuals with both IFG and IGT who are at very high risk for progression to diabetes (age <60 years, BMI ≥35 kg/m2, family history of diabetes in first-degree relative, and women with a history of GDM). Individuals with IFG," }, { "id": "pubmed23n0629_7401", "title": "Hypoglycemia associated with the use of levofloxacin.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A case of hypoglycemia associated with levofloxacin is reported. A 58-year-old Caucasian man was admitted to the hospital for a heart failure (HF) exacerbation with suspected community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). His medical history included HF (left ventricular ejection fraction, 25-35%), hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Renal insufficiency was noted during hospitalization, with a serum creatinine concentration of 1.5 mg/dL. The patient's only home medication was a self-reported \"sugar pill,\" later identified as glimepiride. A chest radiograph revealed consolidation in both lung bases and bilateral pleural effusions. Levofloxacin 750 mg was administered orally on hospital day 1 for the treatment of CAP and was ordered to be administered every 48 hours. On hospital day 3, glipizide 10 mg was administered with a sliding-scale regimen of regular insulin in preparation for discharge. On hospital day 4, glipizide 10 mg was given again with the second dose of levofloxacin, 65 hours after the first levofloxacin dose was administered. The patient also received furosemide 40 mg orally twice daily, lisinopril 20 mg orally daily, and metoprolol 25 mg twice daily. The patient was discharged on hospital day 4 and returned to the emergency department early the next morning with a serum glucose concentration of 20 mg/dL. An i.v. infusion of 10% dextrose injection and three ampules of 50% dextrose injection were given to correct his hypoglycemia. Further glipizide doses were not administered. A malnourished 58-year-old man with diabetes developed hypoglycemia after receiving levofloxacin in conjunction with glipizide." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en028_36893", "title": "Essential hypertension", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Classification A recent classification recommends blood pressure criteria for defining normal blood pressure, prehypertension, hypertension (stages I and II), and isolated systolic hypertension, which is a common occurrence among the elderly. These readings are based on the average of seated blood pressure readings that were properly measured during 2 or more office visits. In individuals older than 50 years, hypertension is considered to be present when a person's blood pressure is consistently at least 140 mmHg systolic or 90 mmHg diastolic. Patients with blood pressures over 130/80 mmHg along with Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes, or kidney disease require further treatment. Resistant hypertension is defined as the failure to reduce blood pressure to the appropriate level after taking a three-drug regimen. Guidelines for treating resistant hypertension have been published in the UK, and US." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0350_8785", "title": "[Evaluation of acarbose efficacy and safety for treatment of diabetes mellitus. Testing of observations under general health care conditions].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Acarbose (Glucobay, Bayer) is a competitive inhibitor of intestinal alpha-glucosidases, which use causes inhibition of carbohydrate digestion. The aim of the study was to prospectively observe scheme of acarbose use as well as efficacy and safety of the drug in diabetic patients in general health care. The study was performed in general health care centres all around Poland. 200 physicians were involved, each one was asked to supervise use of acarbose in 3 patients. The whole patients population consisted of 600 persons. The physicians were asked to make records in provided formularies, prior to acarbose use and then after 4 and 8 weeks of the treatment: data from the interview (among others on diabetes type, disease duration, used diet, treatment incl. sulphonylurea or biguanide derivatives); personal data (age, height, weight, etc.); blood glucose level prior to and 2 hours postprandial; glycosuria; basic additional tests; basic lipid tests (total cholesterol, triglycerides); overall score of acarbose use (side effects, withdrawal, physicians and patients opinion on the drug). Fasting glycaemia was the criterion of inclusion into the analysis. Full data on this parameter were obtained in 480 patients (267 female and 213 male, aged 31-88 years). Acarbose was used as the only antidiabetic drug in 34% of the patients, combined with sulphonylurea in 44%, combined with sulphonylurea and biguanide (metformine) in 19% and combined with metformine only in several cases (3%). During the observation, significant weight and BMI loss, 3% reduction average (for both parameters), was observed in the whole studied group. Fasting and 2 hours postprandial glycaemia was markedly improved in the whole studied population (26.8% and 28.1% glucose level reduction, respectively), and particularly in those who was initially qualified into the group of bad diabetes control (29.4% and 32.4% glucose level decrease, respectively). The most favourable effect on glycaemia was observed for acarbose monotherapy (p &lt; 0.005) when compared to combined treatment). No difference was found in glycaemic response referred to the initial body mass index (BMI). Tested lipid parameters improved during 8-week observation: serum cholesterol level decreased by 4.6% in the whole studied population, and by 8.9% in the group of bad diabetes control, respectively. Value differences did not reach, however, presumed statistical significance (p &lt; 0.005). Significant improvement was noted in triglyceride levels: reductions by 17.5% in the whole group and by as much as 26.8% in the sub-group of bad diabetes control (initial level 200 mg/dl). Acarbose observational study performed in the routine treatment conditions confirmed efficacy of the drug in diabetes mellitus, for both--carbohydrate and lipid metabolism. The study showed low significance of side effects and high acceptation of the treatment by the patients and the physicians." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1000_12686", "title": "A Patient Loses 18 kg and Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus: The Challenge of Complete Remission.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in adulthood is strongly related to weight gain and excessive accumulation of pancreatic and hepatic fat. We present a case of a 48-year-old man with diabetes who presented two years prior with poorly controlled T2DM diagnosed more than three years before presentation. He had severe hypertension and marked dyslipidemia. He underwent a complete remission of his diabetes after nonintentionally losing 18 kg (his original weight: 58 kg). The patient had excellent euglycemic measures on no treatment at all for the last two years with healthy blood pressure and lipid profile and a reduced 10-year risk of heart disease and stroke from 11% to 3.3%. This case demonstrates the effect of weight loss on glycemic control and consequent remission in T2DM patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0397_16564", "title": "[Management of patients with type 2 diabetes. Results in 12 practices of general practitioners].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The care of patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (2DM) is of great medical and sociopolitical importance. Many such patients are well provided for exclusively within general practice (general practitioners). But evidence based data of this level of medical care has been scarce. Our study reports the experience of the structure and medical management of a population-representative collective of patient with 2DM under the care of general practitioners. Included were all type 2 diabetics seen by 12 general practitioners (from two regions) during the second quarter of 2000. Standardized questionnaires for both patients and doctors provided the basic data on 2DM, other illnesses, symptoms, relevant items on life style and quality of life related to health. Data on patients living in care homes or visited in their home were handled separately. The collective consisted of 1065 patients with 2DM, aged over 40 years. Many of them had associated illnesses: hypertension in 71%, hypercholesteremia in 53%, coronary heart disease in 29%. Mean values of relevant metabolic parameters were: HbA1c 7.1%, total cholesterol 221.4 mg/dl. Many patients were clearly overweight and had other risk factors. Patient compliance, as reported by their doctors, were \"very good\" or \"rather good\" in 63%, while \"very poor\" or \"rather poor\" in 36%. Patients with 2DM under the care of general practitioners had a high incidence of associated illnesses. The quality of medical care, as measured by relevant metabolic vales, e.g. HbA1c were apparently good. Lipid-lowering drugs and aspirin should be given more widely to decrease cardiovascular events. Primary prevention (especially more exercise and weight loss) and better compliance should be intensified in future." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0834_1324", "title": "Successful Management of Type 2 Diabetes with Lifestyle Intervention: A Case Report.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The prevalence of diabetes is growing worldwide. The primary symptom of diabetes mellitus is elevated blood sugar. This is usually treated with lifestyle intervention and drugs according to an algorithm based on glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) levels. We present the case of a patient who successfully managed his type 2 diabetes solely through lifestyle modification. A 45-year-old businessman with a body mass index of 27 kg/m2 was examined within a secondary prevention program in Austria. His HbA1c was 9.7%-type 2 diabetes mellitus was diagnosed. General recommendations for lifestyle were given and metformin was prescribed. Upon his diagnosis the patient searched for all the information he could get about diabetes and implemented this new knowledge in his everyday life. He had a strong desire to defeat his disease and he wanted to stop using medications. He identified some nutritional ingredients and spices that affected his blood sugar in a positive way. He stopped taking metformin after 4 weeks and handled his diabetes with his personal lifestyle program. Three months after the diagnosis his HbA1c was 6.4%; after 6 months he had an HbA1c of 6.0% without the use of medication. Usually, multiple drug therapy is necessary to handle high blood glucose levels. Our business manager ate as much as before his diagnosis but he modified the contents of his diet so that the lifestyle intervention was not hard for him. General recommendations for lifestyle modification usually include: more exercise, reduced sugar and monosaccharides, and less alcohol and nicotine. With the knowledge of the effects of specific dietary ingredients, it might be possible to modify a regular diet in such a way as to benefit people with type 2 diabetes, to substantially improve quality of life." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0507_14188", "title": "[Screening, prevention and early therapy of type 2 diabetics].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "For each known diabetic at least one new patient is diagnosed when the 75-g OGTT is used for screening. For early diagnosis in high risk groups, the oral glucose tolerance test is indispensable since ca. 30% of the asymptomatic diabetes cases are identified on the basis of a 2-hour postchallenge glucose value of &gt; 11.1 mmol/l. In controlled studies on persons with IGT, every second diabetes case could be prevented through lifestyle modifications beginning in childhood. Three-year studies showed that the incidence of diabetes could be reduced by about one-third with the medications acarbose, metformin and orlistat. The observation that statins, ACE inhibitors and AT1 blockers also contributed to a reduction of new diabetes cases was made in studies on the prevention of coronary heart diseases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0984_11839", "title": "Early onset type 2 diabetes mellitus in a Saudi child misdiagnosed as type 1 diabetic: A case report.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "To report a Saudi young patient with early onset type 2 diabetes, who was misdiagnosed for 6 years as type 1 diabetic. A Saudi male aged 18-year old presented with uncontrolled diabetes. He was diagnosed 6 years earlier to have type 1 diabetes mellitus. He was kept insulin, but he was not compliant to treatment and his blood glucose kept on fluctuating and not controlled. He came to our diabetes center for management of his uncontrolled diabetes. There was no past history of hospitalization. His father was type 2 diabetic. His body mass index was 46.7 kg/m<sup2</sup. His glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) level was 9.9%. Immune dysfunction was evaluated using serum antibody levels of glutamic acid decarboxylase, which proved to be negative (0.7 U/mL), while serum C-peptide level was not low (2.2 ng/mL). Therefore, the patient was diagnosed as early onset type 2 diabetic, not type 1 diabetic. The patient was advised to start physical exercise through daily walking for at least 1 h. The dietitian planned a strict diet plan for him to follow. Insulin injections and Metformin tablets were started. The patient received detailed health education on nature and management of his condition. After 4 months, his body mass index became 39.4 kg/m<sup2</sup and his HbA1c became 6%. Insulin was stopped, and he was advised to continue on metformin, the diet, and daily walking. Two months later, his body mass index was 37.7 kg/m<sup2</sup and his HbA1c became 5.41%. Early onset type 2 diabetes should be suspected among obese children with symptoms of diabetes. Proper health education and patient's compliance to medication, diet, and physical activity are essential for successful management of early onset type 2 diabetes. Moreover, primary care physicians need to be aware that type 2 diabetes is not necessarily adult-onset." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0586_17293", "title": "[Long-term intensive glycemic and lipid control ameliorates the carotid intima medial thickness in type 2 diabetes mellitus].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "To investigate whether long-term intensive glycemic and lipid control would ameliorate the carotid intima medial thickness (IMT) in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). IMT was evaluated on B-mode ultrasonography in 116 patients with T2DM. Body mass index (BMI), waist-to-hip ratio (WHR), fasting blood glucose (FBG), 2 hour postprandial glucose (2hPG), hemoglobin A(1)c(HbA(1)c), total cholesterol(TC), triglycerides (TG), low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C),high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) were also measured. Of all the patients 89 were divided randomly into group of intensive glycemic and lipid control and group of conventional treatment and underwent 1 year clinical interview. (1) IMT in patients with T2DM was significantly correlated with age(r = 0.515,P = 0.000) , SBP (r = 0.208, P = 0.025), TC(r = 0.213,P = 0.022), LDL-C(r = 0.253, P = 0.006) and no correlations were found between IMT and BMI,WHR,FBG, 2hPG ,HbA(1)c, TG and HDL-C. In multivariate regression analysis, age (Beta = 0.527, P = 0.000 )and TC(Beta = 0.243, P = 0.002) were significant independent determinants for IMT. (3) After 1 year the change of IMT in the group of intensive glycemic and lipid control was significantly different compared with the group of conventional treatment [(-0.044+/-0.148)mm vs (0.056+/-0.178), P&lt;0.05]. The change of IMT was not significantly associated with the use of Metformin, Sulphonylurea and Aspirin, but significantly associated with the use of statins. The change of IMT in the group using statins was significantly different compared with that in the group without using statins[(-0.053+/-0.153)mm vs (0.042+/-0.165)mm, P &lt;0.05]. Carotid IMT appears to be closely related to age and TC in the patients with T2DM. long-term intensive glycemic control and lipid control could ameliorate the IMT in patients with T2DM. The improvement of IMT may be associated with the use of statin drug." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en070_34875", "title": "Diabetes management", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "A useful test that has usually been done in a laboratory is the measurement of blood HbA1c levels. This is the ratio of glycated hemoglobin in relation to the total hemoglobin. Persistent raised plasma glucose levels cause the proportion of these molecules to go up. This is a test that measures the average amount of diabetic control over a period originally thought to be about 3 months (the average red blood cell lifetime), but more recently thought to be more strongly weighted to the most recent 2 to 4 weeks. In the non-diabetic, the HbA1c level ranges from 4.0 to 6.0%; patients with diabetes mellitus who manage to keep their HbA1c level below 6.5% are considered to have good glycemic control. The HbA1c test is not appropriate if there has been changes to diet or treatment within shorter time periods than 6 weeks or there is disturbance of red cell aging (e.g. recent bleeding or hemolytic anemia) or a hemoglobinopathy (e.g. sickle cell disease). In such cases, the alternative" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0559_7594", "title": "A 74-year-old woman with diabetes.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Ms M, a 74-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes of 6 years' duration, has a glycated hemoglobin (HbA1C) value of 7.4% despite taking 3 oral antidiabetic medications, as well as coexistent hypertension and abdominal obesity. She has no known microvascular or macrovascular complications of diabetes and is otherwise healthy. She is reluctant to commence insulin treatment as she dislikes the idea of injections and wonders if there are any alternate options if she is to get her HbA(1C) value below 7%. The natural history of type 2 diabetes, reasons why many patients begin requiring insulin over time, rationale for tight glycemic control, and therapeutic options for Ms M are discussed." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 338 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 43 ] ], "text": "Patient with harmful alcohol consumption (60g and female), high fever, hepatic encephalopathy (disorientation, asterixis), very high direct bilirubin, jaundice, painful hepatomegaly, coagulopathy (elevated prothrombin time) and mild elevation of transaminases (less than 5 times the upper limit of normal) suggest acute alcohol hepatitis." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Hepatic abscess.", "2": "Acute cholecystitis.", "3": "Acute cholangitis.", "4": "Alcoholic hepatitis.", "5": "Acute pancreatitis." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0702_20431", "title": "[Acute pancreatitis and acalculous cholecystitis associated with viral hepatitis A].", "score": 0.01793758043758044, "content": "We report the case of a 14 year-old male from Lima. He is a student with a history of bronchial asthma since age 4 receives conditional salbutamol, corticosteroids used for asthma attacks (a crisis in 2010, 1 month ago) Refuses surgery or transfusions. He presented with a two weeks for abdominal pain, nausea, fever, and jaundice. Epigastric pain is colicky and radiated back to righ upper quadrant, refers in addition to nausea and fever, for ten days notice jaundice of skin and sclera. On examen he was lucid, with jaundice of skin and mucous membranes. There was no palpable lymph nodes, abdomen with bowel sounds, soft, depressible, liver span of 15cm, positive Murphy, no peritonitis. The laboratory findings showed hemoglobin 13gr, MCV 90, platelets 461.000/mm3, WBC 4320/mm, lymphocytes 1700 (39%). total bilirubin: 8.8, B Direct: 7.6, ALT (alanine aminotransferase): 3016, AST (aspartate aminotransferase): 984, alkaline phosphatase: 250, albumin: 3.34gr%, globulin: 2.8, amylase: 589 (high serum amylase), TP: 17, INR: 1.6, VHA IgM positive. 89 mg glucose, urea 19 mg%, creatinine 0.5 mg Hemoglobin 13gr, MCV 90 Platelet 461000/mm3, WBC 4320/mm, Lymphocytes 1700 (39%). The nuclear magnetic resonance showed hepatomegaly associated with thickening of gallbladder wall without stones up to 11mm inside. No bile duct dilatation, bile duct 4mm, pancreas increased prevalence of body size. Mild splenomegaly and free fluid in the space of Morrison and right flank. Abdominal ultrasound revealed a gallbladder wall thickness (11mm), without stones in his light. Pancreas to increase volume with peripancreatic fluid free perivesicular with a volume of 430 cc. Findings consistent with acute acalculous cholecystitis and acute pancreatitis. CT-scan showed enlarged pancreas with predominance of body and tail with peripancreatic edema; the gallbladder was thickening. We report this case because the extrahepatic manifestations of viral hepatitis A infection are uncommon, specially the associated with acute acalculous cholecystitis and acute pancreatitis simultaneous." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en033_21958", "title": "Acute pancreatitis", "score": 0.016748366013071895, "content": "At admission age in years > 55 years white blood cell count > 16000 cells/mm3 blood glucose > 11.1 mmol/L (> 200 mg/dL) serum AST > 250 IU/L serum LDH > 350 IU/L At 48 hours Calcium (serum calcium < 2.0 mmol/L (< 8.0 mg/dL) Hematocrit fall >10% Oxygen (hypoxemia PO2 < 60 mmHg) BUN increased by 1.8 or more mmol/L (5 or more mg/dL) after IV fluid hydration Base deficit (negative base excess) > 4 mEq/L Sequestration of fluids > 6 L The criteria for point assignment is that a certain breakpoint be met at any time during that 48 hour period, so that in some situations it can be calculated shortly after admission. It is applicable to both gallstone and alcoholic pancreatitis. Alternatively, pancreatitis can be diagnosed by meeting any of the following:[2] Alternative Ranson score Ranson's score of ≥ 8 Organ failure Substantial pancreatic necrosis (at least 30% glandular necrosis according to contrast-enhanced CT)" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en033_21961", "title": "Acute pancreatitis", "score": 0.015603408567480425, "content": "Glasgow score The Glasgow score is valid for both gallstone and alcohol induced pancreatitis, whereas the Ranson score is only for alcohol induced pancreatitis. If a patient scores 3 or more it indicates severe pancreatitis and the patient should be considered for transfer to ITU. It is scored through the mnemonic, PANCREAS: P - PaO2 <8kPa A - Age >55-years-old N - Neutrophilia: WCC >15x10(9)/L C - Calcium <2 mmol/L R - Renal function: Urea >16 mmol/L E - Enzymes: LDH >600iu/L; AST >200iu/L A - Albumin <32g/L (serum) S - Sugar: blood glucose >10 mmol/L BISAP score Predicts mortality risk in pancreatitis with fewer variables than Ranson's criteria. Data should be taken from the first 24 hours of the patient's evaluation. BUN >25 mg/dL (8.9 mmol/L) Abnormal mental status with a Glasgow coma score <15 Evidence of SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome) Patient age >60 years old Imaging study reveals pleural effusion" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en178_38961", "title": "Ranson criteria", "score": 0.015306395504415307, "content": "Acute pancreatitis not secondary to gallstones At admission: Blood glucose > 11.11 mmol/L (> 200 mg/dL) Age > 55 years Serum LDH > 350 IU/L Serum AST > 250 IU/L WBC count > 16000 cells/mm3 Within 48 hours: Serum calcium < 2.0 mmol/L (< 8.0 mg/dL) Hematocrit decreased by > 10% Oxygen (hypoxemia with PaO2 < 60 mmHg) BUN increased by 1.8 or more mmol/L (5 or more mg/dL) after IV fluid hydration Base deficit (negative base excess) > 4 mEq/L Sequestration of fluids > 6 L Acute pancreatitis secondary to gallstones At admission: Glucose > 220 mg/dl Age > 70 years LDH > 400 IU/L AST > 250 IU/ 100 ml WBC count > 18000 cells/mm3 Within 48 hours: Serum calcium < 8 mg/dL Hematocrit decreased by > 10% Base deficit > 4 mEq/L BUN increased by > 2 mg/dL Sequestered fluid > 6L" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0946_18008", "title": "Grand Rounds: Alcoholic Hepatitis.", "score": 0.014674719220173766, "content": "A 33-year-old Caucasian male was admitted to hospital with recent onset of jaundice of 2-3 weeks duration. He reported heavy use of alcohol for the last 10 years with the last drink a day prior to the onset of symptoms. At admission, he was alert and oriented to time, place, and person, and was deeply jaundiced. His laboratory profile can be summarised as follows: haemoglobin 12.1 g/dl, white blood cell count 18,700 with 81% neutrophils, serum bilirubin 33 (direct 22) mg/dl, aspartate aminotransferase 147 IU/L, alanine aminotransferase 62 IU/L, alkaline phosphatase 117 IU/L, serum albumin 2.8 gm/dl, serum creatinine 0.6 mg/dl, prothrombin time 18.3 (control 14.5) seconds, and international normalized ratio 1.48. He was diagnosed with severe alcoholic hepatitis (Maddrey discriminant function score of 50) and treated with prednisolone for 28 days with symptomatic and biochemical improvement. His Lille score at seven days was 0.4, and his serum bilirubin had decreased to 3.5 mg/dl at the end of treatment. He was also seen by the addiction team during hospitalisation; he agreed to follow through on recommendations. He was dismissed after completing a three-week inpatient rehabilitation programme but relapsed to alcohol use three months later, and was readmitted with alcohol withdrawal. He was readmitted two months later (about six months from the first episode) for a second episode of severe alcoholic hepatitis. At admission, his model for end-stage liver disease score was 32 and he was treated again with corticosteroids. His Lille score at seven days was 0.6 and steroids were discontinued. The hospital course was complicated by spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and pneumonia with development of acute kidney injury. He continued to worsen, developing multiorgan failure. After a course of one month, the family's preference was for him to receive comfort measures. This scenario raises several questions." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en033_21957", "title": "Acute pancreatitis", "score": 0.013460817397825273, "content": "Practice guidelines state: 2006: \"The two tests that are most helpful at admission in distinguishing mild from severe acute pancreatitis are APACHE-II score and serum hematocrit. It is recommended that APACHE-II scores be generated during the first 3 days of hospitalization and thereafter as needed to help in this distinction. It is also recommended that serum hematocrit be obtained at admission, 12 h after admission, and 24 h after admission to help gauge adequacy of fluid resuscitation.\" 2005: \"Immediate assessment should include clinical evaluation, particularly of any cardiovascular, respiratory, and renal compromise, body mass index, chest x ray, and APACHE II score\" Ranson score The Ranson score is used to predict the severity of acute pancreatitis. They were introduced in 1974. At admission age in years > 55 years white blood cell count > 16000 cells/mm3 blood glucose > 11.1 mmol/L (> 200 mg/dL) serum AST > 250 IU/L serum LDH > 350 IU/L At 48 hours" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1108_21554", "title": "Uncertainty of Liver Cirrhosis Diagnosis and Use of Elastography.", "score": 0.013060495192716752, "content": "A case of severe jaundice in a patient with a long history of alcohol abuse led to a questionable diagnosis of liver cirrhosis. To determine its diagnostic utility in the setting of liver disease, elastography was utilized on our patient to confirm the clinically suspected diagnosis of cirrhosis. A 59-year-old male presented to our emergency department (ED) with two days of progressive jaundice and right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain. The patient admitted to drinking &gt; 500 mL of vodka daily for the last seven years, with his last drink on the morning of admission. Physical exam revealed a man in mild acute distress with severe jaundice and an abdomen diffusely tender to palpation. Two spider angiomas were present on the torso along with caput medusae and mild asterixis. Labs revealed aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 408, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 69, prothrombin time (PT) 16.3, partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 36, total bilirubin 22.6, and direct bilirubin 19.9 mg/dL. While admitted, total bilirubin rose as high as 31.5 mg/dL. Examination showed a Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score of 22 and a Maddrey score of 37. Ultrasound revealed moderate hepatosplenomegaly with no signs of pancreatitis. Based on the patient's history of alcohol abuse paired with physical exam findings and elevated laboratory markers, we were able to diagnose with a high level of suspicion that this patient was suffering from chronic alcoholic liver disease, exacerbated by an acute episode of alcoholic hepatitis, which led to hepatic encephalopathy. Based on these findings, a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis was suspected; however, this diagnosis required further confirmation. We utilized ultrasound elastography to measure the velocity of shear wave transmission in the liver of our patient. A literature review was conducted on the use of elastography for the diagnosis of liver disease, and a significant correlation between the velocity of shear wave transmission and hepatic histological findings was identified. Elastography revealed a mean velocity of shear wave transmission of 1.77 m/s in our patient. This finding is consistent with a Meta-analysis of Histological Data in Viral Hepatitis (METAVIR) score of F = 4, indicating significant fibrosis and confirming the suspected diagnosis of alcohol-induced liver cirrhosis. As a non-invasive and inexpensive diagnostic tool, elastography demonstrates significant potential for clinical utility in patients with liver disease. Clinicians may benefit from the use of elastography in diagnosis, while patients may receive both therapeutic and prognostic benefits secondary to its use. In similar cases with clinical uncertainty, elastography can reliably identify the presence of fibrous tissue in the liver without tissue biopsy, thus aiding in clinical diagnoses and enabling the use of optimal therapeutic regimens for future patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_62168", "title": "Jaundice", "score": 0.012777063612636828, "content": "Laboratory results for liver panels are frequently compared by the magnitude of their differences, not the pure number, as well as by their ratios. The AST:ALT ratio can be a good indicator of whether the disorder is alcoholic liver damage (above 10), some other form of liver damage (above 1), or hepatitis (less than 1). Bilirubin levels greater than 10 times normal could indicate neoplastic or intrahepatic cholestasis. Levels lower than this tend to indicate hepatocellular causes. AST levels greater than 15 times normal tend to indicate acute hepatocellular damage. Less than this tend to indicate obstructive causes. ALP levels greater than 5 times normal tend to indicate obstruction, while levels greater than 10 times normal can indicate drug (toxin) induced cholestatic hepatitis or cytomegalovirus infection. Both of these conditions can also have ALT and AST greater than 20 times normal. GGT levels greater than 10 times normal typically indicate cholestasis. Levels 5–10" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0926_2792", "title": "Acute alcoholic hepatitis: a literature review and proposal of treatment.", "score": 0.012757104726016644, "content": "Severe acute alcoholic hepatitis (AAH) can lead to a clinical picture with a six-month mortality rate in more than 70% of cases. This clinical picture is characterized by: jaundice with a duration of less than three months, jaundice at the first failure event, serum bilirubin greater than 5 mg/dL, ratio AST/ALT&gt;2/1, AST less than 500 IU/L, ALT&lt;300 IU/L, neutrophil leukocytosis and a GGT increase. In addition, encephalopathy, fever, asthenia and coagulopathy may be present. Its onset may also be characterized by portal-hypertension-related complications, particularly bleeding and hepato-renal syndrome. In cases where there is an overlapping of an acute form characterized by an etiological factor other than that of the base hepatopathy, acute on chronic liver failure (ACLF) is obtained. This can result in systemic inflammation response syndrome (SIRS) with a multi-organ systemic involvement. Several indices are used to evaluate the prognosis, in particular Maddrey's discriminant function (mDF) and the model of end stage liver disease (MELD). In our clinical practice, we use the MELD routinely. In cases of ACLF, a consortium organ failure score (CLIF-COFs) is used. Therapy is characterized by abstention in cases of severe forms (mDF&gt;32 and MELD&gt;21); in the absence of contraindications, steroid therapy is possible. In cases of an unresponsive liver, transplantation is premature. In our view, this possibility, after proper selection, must be offered for both prognostic and ethical reasons." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_23333", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.012680975146644966, "content": "Type of Disorder Bilirubin Aminotransferases Alkaline Phosphatase Albumin Prothrombin Time Acute hepatocellular necrosis (viral and drug hepatitis, hepatotoxins, acute heart failure) Alcoholic hepatitis, cirrhosis Infiltrative diseases (tumor, granulomata); partial bile duct obstruction Normal to 86 μmol/L (5 mg/dL) 85% due to indirect fractions Elevated, often >500 IU, ALT > AST Elevated, but usually <300 IU AST:ALT >2 suggests alcoholic hepatitis or cirrhosis Normal to moderate elevation Normal to slight elevation Normal to <3× normal elevation Normal to <3× normal elevation Normal to <3× normal elevation Elevated, often >4× normal elevation Elevated, often >4× normal elevation Fractionate, or confirm liver origin with 5’nucleotidase or γ glutamyl transpeptidase Normal Usually normal. If >5× above control and not corrected by parenteral vitamin K, suggests poor prognosis Fails to correct with parenteral vitamin K Fails to correct with parenteral vitamin K" }, { "id": "Surgery_Schwartz_9564", "title": "Surgery_Schwartz", "score": 0.0126702082188435, "content": "trajectory of a patient, and it can be applied on a daily or more frequent basis. It can also be used in retrospect for audit purposes.Determining EtiologyThe history of alcohol ingestion must be ascertained and preferably confirmed with blood ethanol levels. Gallstones should be investigated by ultrasonography. A gallstone etiology is more likely in females over the age of 50 with an elevation of alkaline phosphatase (>300 iu/L), alanine transferase (>100 iu/L), and amylase (>4000 iu/L). In the absence of gallstones and alcohol, a systematic approach to the identification of another factor will include taking a history of drugs, trauma, ERCP, infection, and measuring serum triglycerides, calcium, and others (see Table 33-4).Fluid ResuscitationFluid therapy to restore and maintain circulating blood volume is the most important intervention in the early management of acute pancreatitis75. However, a recent systematic review has shown that the evidence base for fluid therapy is" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_10738", "title": "Alcoholic liver disease", "score": 0.012275622466705268, "content": "In people with alcoholic hepatitis, the serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) to alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ratio is greater than 2:1. AST and ALT levels are almost always less than 500. The elevated AST to ALT ratio is due to deficiency of pyridoxal phosphate, which is required in the ALT enzyme synthetic pathway. Furthermore, alcohol metabolite–induced injury of hepatic mitochondria results in AST isoenzyme release. Other laboratory findings include red blood cell macrocytosis (mean corpuscular volume > 100) and elevations of serum gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin levels. Folate level is reduced in alcoholic patients due to decreased intestinal absorption, increased bone marrow requirement for folate in the presence of alcohol, and increased urinary loss. The magnitude of leukocytosis (white blood cell depletion) reflects severity of liver injury. Histologic features include Mallory bodies, giant mitochondria, hepatocyte necrosis, and" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en253_16008", "title": "Cirrhosis", "score": 0.012265566391597899, "content": "Common causes Alcoholic liver disease (ALD, or alcoholic cirrhosis) develops for 10–20% of individuals who drink heavily for a decade or more. Alcohol seems to injure the liver by blocking the normal metabolism of protein, fats, and carbohydrates. This injury happens through the formation of acetaldehyde from alcohol, which itself is reactive, but which also leads to the accumulation of other reactive products in the liver. People with ALD may also have concurrent alcoholic hepatitis with fever, hepatomegaly, jaundice, and anorexia. AST and ALT blood levels are both elevated, but at less than 300 IU/liter, with an AST:ALT ratio > 2.0, a value rarely seen in other liver diseases. In the United States, 40% of cirrhosis-related deaths are due to alcohol." }, { "id": "article-22784_59", "title": "Hepatitis -- Evaluation -- Alcoholic Hepatitis", "score": 0.012089763821649236, "content": "If patients present with a history of alcohol abuse, typical signs, and symptoms of long-term alcohol abuse, and evidence of liver dysfunction, then usually no further diagnostic workup is required.  If the history is not clear or if patients do not have signs or symptoms of long-term alcohol abuse, then a complete blood count and metabolic panel along with liver function studies can be ordered.  Patients can have moderate anemia with an increase in the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) due to alcohol being a direct bone marrow suppressant.  Patients can also have some degree of leukocytosis with increased neutrophils. The metabolic panel can show hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia due to the effects of malnutrition and vomiting. C-reactive protein can be elevated and has an excellent positive predictive value. Liver enzymes have a characteristic pattern with aspartate aminotransferase (AST) being moderately elevated and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) being either in the reference range or only mildly elevated with the ratio of AST and ALT being greater than 1.  However, the AST/ALT ratio is greater than 1 in patients who have liver cirrhosis of any etiology. Therefore, it is not diagnostic of alcoholic hepatitis in patients with advanced liver disease. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is usually only mildly elevated. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGTP) is elevated in patients with a history of alcohol use but is not diagnostic of alcoholic hepatitis. Liver biopsy is usually not required but remains a valuable diagnostic option to establish the diagnosis in patients with diagnostic uncertainty and for evaluating the severity of the disease. [45]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1003_17878", "title": "Acalculous cholecystitis associated with Hantaan virus: A case report.", "score": 0.012025442258000398, "content": "Acute acalculous cholecystitis (AAC) still remains one of the most elusive diagnoses and occurs in various conditions. Although AACs caused by viral infections are rare, various viruses have been revealed to cause AAC. Here we present a case in which a man suffered from AAC caused by a Hantaan virus infection. A 35-year-old man was referred to the emergency room for myalgia and fever that began 4 days ago. He suffered oliguria and abdominal pain for 2 days. At the time of his visit to the emergency room, he experienced a fever that spiked up to 38.3℃. An initial blood sample objectified the following pathologic results: white blood cells - 10260/µl; C-reactive protein - 6.76 mg/dl; total bilirubin - 1.7 mg/dl; AST - 90 IU/L; ALT - 233 IU/L. In the computed tomography, bilateral perirenal fluid collections and bilateral flexural effusion were shown and acute hepatopathy and cholecystopathy were also shown. Because there was no definite tenderness around the patient's right upper quadrant from physical examination and his cholecystopathy looked like it was from secondary change according to acute hepatopathy, we decided to perform conservative care without surgical treatment. The following day, in viral antibody test, Hantaan virus antibody was detected. After conservative management, the patient's condition improved and his laboratory findings were stable. The patient was discharged on the 10<supth</sup day at the hospital stay without any symptoms. The Hantaan virus infection should be suspected as a causative agent of AAC, especially when there is abnormal liver function tests and abdominal pain." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_62165", "title": "Jaundice", "score": 0.01188907710646841, "content": "Diagnosis Most people presenting with jaundice have various predictable patterns of liver panel abnormalities, though significant variation does exist. The typical liver panel includes blood levels of enzymes found primarily from the liver, such as the aminotransferases (ALT, AST), and alkaline phosphatase (ALP); bilirubin (which causes the jaundice); and protein levels, specifically, total protein and albumin. Other primary lab tests for liver function include gamma glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) and prothrombin time (PT). No single test can differentiate between various classifications of jaundice. A combination of liver function tests and other physical examination findings is essential to arrive at a diagnosis. Laboratory tests" }, { "id": "article-17338_5", "title": "Alcoholic Hepatitis -- Etiology", "score": 0.011327345309381238, "content": "While using the terminology alcoholic hepatitis, it is important to understand the difference between alcoholic steatohepatitis (ASH) and alcoholic hepatitis (AH). About 20% to 40% of those who drink alcohol in heavy amounts and have fatty liver eventually develop liver inflammation, which is known as ASH. ASH is a diagnosis based on liver histology, while AH is a clinical diagnosis. The typical features of ASH on liver biopsy are steatosis, hepatocyte ballooning, infiltration of neutrophils, Mallory-Denk hyaline inclusions, and zone 3 perivenular injury with pericellular fibrosis or chicken-wire pattern of fibrosis. AH, on the other hand, is characterized by a history of chronic heavy alcohol consumption until at least 3 to 4 weeks before the onset of jaundice, fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, hepatomegaly, leukocytosis with neutrophilia, and an AST:ALT elevation greater than 1.5:1 with the absolute value of AST/ALT typically never exceeding 500 U/L. AH can occur in patients with any stage of alcoholic liver disease." }, { "id": "Pathology_Robbins_3940", "title": "Pathology_Robbins", "score": 0.011191749427043544, "content": "It is estimated that 15 to 20 years of excessive drinking are necessary to develop alcoholic cirrhosis, but alcoholic hepatitis can occur after just weeks or months of alcohol abuse. The onset is typically acute and often follows a bout of particularly heavy drinking. Symptoms and laboratory abnormalities range from minimal to severe. Most patients present with malaise, anorexia, weight loss, upper-abdominal discomfort, tender hepatomegaly, and fever. Typical findings include hyperbilirubinemia, elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels, and neutrophilic leukocytosis. Serum alanine and aspartate aminotransferases are elevated but usually remain below 500 U/mL. The outlook is unpredictable; each bout of alcoholic hepatitis carries a 10% to 20% risk for death. With repeated bouts, cirrhosis appears in about one-third of patients within a few years." }, { "id": "article-28233_4", "title": "Ranson Criteria -- Function", "score": 0.011048658180415496, "content": "The criteria with 11 parameters are used to assess the severity of alcoholic pancreatitis. The 5 parameters on admission are age older than 55 years, WBC count greater than 16,000 cells/cmm, blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dL (11 mmol/L), serum AST greater than 250 IU/L, and serum LDH greater than 350 IU/L. At 48 hours, the remaining 6 parameters are: serum calcium less than 8.0 mg/dL (less than 2.0 mmol/L), hematocrit fall greater than 10%, PaO2 less than 60 mmHg, BUN increased by 5 mg/dL or more (1.8 mmol/L or more) despite intravenous (IV) fluid hydration, base deficit greater than 4 mEq/L, and sequestration of fluids greater than 6 L." }, { "id": "article-17340_17", "title": "Alcoholic Liver Disease -- History and Physical -- Physical Examination", "score": 0.010466448976061242, "content": "The clinical definition of alcoholic hepatitis is a syndrome of liver failure where jaundice is a characteristic feature; fever and tender hepatomegaly are often present. The typical presentation age is between 40 and 50 yrs, and it occurs in the setting of heavy alcohol use. Patients often report a history of intake of at least 30 to 50 g alcohol/day though over 100 g/day is common. Patients may be abstinent for weeks before admission. The cardinal sign is the rapid onset of jaundice. Other signs and symptoms include fever, ascites (SAAG greater than 1.1), and proximal muscle loss. Patients presenting with severe alcoholic hepatitis may have encephalopathy. Typically, the liver is enlarged and tender." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_40173", "title": "Pancreatitis", "score": 0.01023391812865497, "content": "Late complications include recurrent pancreatitis and the development of pancreatic pseudocysts—collections of pancreatic secretions that have been walled off by scar tissue. These may cause pain, become infected, rupture and bleed, block the bile duct and cause jaundice, or migrate around the abdomen. Acute necrotizing pancreatitis can lead to a pancreatic abscess, a collection of pus caused by necrosis, liquefaction, and infection. This happens in approximately 3% of cases or almost 60% of cases involving more than two pseudocysts and gas in the pancreas. Causes Eighty percent of cases of pancreatitis are caused by alcohol or gallstones. Gallstones are the single most common cause of acute pancreatitis. Alcohol is the single most common cause of chronic pancreatitis. Triglyceride levels greater than 1000 mg/dL (11.29 mmol/L) is another cause." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_62169", "title": "Jaundice", "score": 0.009951573849878935, "content": "or cytomegalovirus infection. Both of these conditions can also have ALT and AST greater than 20 times normal. GGT levels greater than 10 times normal typically indicate cholestasis. Levels 5–10 times tend to indicate viral hepatitis. Levels less than 5 times normal tend to indicate drug toxicity. Acute hepatitis typically has ALT and AST levels rising 20–30 times normal (above 1000) and may remain significantly elevated for several weeks. Acetaminophen toxicity can result in ALT and AST levels greater than 50 times normal." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_31816", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009901410844807071, "content": "Even in affluent locales, ~20% of patients have an alcohol use disorder. These men and women can be identified by asking questions about alcohol problems and noting laboratory test results that can reflect regular consumption of six to eight or more drinks per day. The two blood tests with ≥60% sensitivity and specificity for heavy alcohol consumption are γ-glutamyl transferase (GGT) (>35 U) and carbohydrate-deficient transferrin (CDT) (>20 U/L or >2.6%); the combination of the two is likely to be more accurate than either alone. The values for these serologic markers are likely to return toward normal within several weeks of abstinence. Other useful blood tests include high-normal MCVs (≥91 μm3) and serum uric acid (>416 mol/L, or 7 mg/dL)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0239_4441", "title": "[Alcoholic hepatitis: clinical, laboratorial and histological study of 50 cases].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The clinical, laboratorial and histological aspects of 50 cases of alcoholic hepatitis were analysed, as well as the follow-up of 24 patients. The mean age of the 50 patients was 42,9 years (range: 25 to 65 years); 44 were males. The beginning of the symptomatology was insidious in great number of cases. The hepatomegaly was most habitual clinical signal (92% of cases). The jaundice was observed in 58% of the cases. Twenty six per cent of the patients had not manifestation of advanced hepatopaty at the moment of diagnosis. The most constant laboratorial alteration (except the increase of gama-glutamil-transpeptidase, dosed in rare cases) was the increase of SGOT (94%). Histological examination showed necrosis and inflammatory exudate in all cases; steatosis in 98%; Mallory bodies in 78%; fibrosis in 84%; cirrhosis in 44%. In the group of patients that came to the obit at the first internation, jaundice, digestive bleeding, encephalopathy, infection, leucocitosis and decreased prothrombin activity. The follow-up of 24 cases (3 months to 5 years) showed aggravation of illness and frequent evolution to cirrhosis in patient that maintained the alcohol ingestion." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0596_7324", "title": "[Utility of investigations by family physician of some biological parameters in chronic alcoholism].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "To assess some biological alterations induced by chronic alcohol consumption and its correlation with the ingestion period and severity of consumption. The study was carried out on a series of 98 individuals (age range 20 to 80 years), followed up for alcohol consumption; 45 age-matched persons which did not consume alcohol served as controls. In both series the following parameters were assessed: blood count, mean erythrocyte volume (MEV), platelet count (PC), mean platelet volume (MPV), gamma-glutamyl-transferase (GGT), alanine and aspartate transaminases (ALT, AST). The male/female distribution was 0.98; the average amount of alcohol consumed the last five years: within accepted limits (66.32%), moderate (16.32%), increased (17.36%). The results (average values) revealed, compared to the controls, an increase in MEV from 90.312 to 97.125 I3, normal values for PC and MPV, higher levels of AST and ALT, especially in the heavy drinkers, and a significant increase of GGT level. Chronic alcohol consumption induces the appearance of important alterations of some biological parameters, in correlation with the consumption period and alcohol amount. A systematic assessment of all of these biological parameters, carried out by the family physician, may be a useful tool in the early detection of severe alterations caused by excessive alcohol consumption." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_40186", "title": "Pancreatitis", "score": 0.009710335747202106, "content": "This can be remembered using the mnemonic PANCREAS: PO2 oxygen < 60 mmHg or 7.9 kPa Age > 55 Neutrophilia white blood cells > 15,000/µlitre Calcium < 2 mmol/litre Renal function (BUN) > 16 mmol/litre Enzymes lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > 600iu/litre aspartate transaminase (AST) > 200iu/litre Albumin < 32g/litre Sugar glucose > 10 mmol/litre The BISAP score (blood urea nitrogen level >25 mg/dl (8.9 mmol/L), impaired mental status, systemic inflammatory response syndrome, age over 60 years, pleural effusion) has been validated as similar to other prognostic scoring systems. Epidemiology Globally the incidence of acute pancreatitis is 5 to 35 cases per 100,000 people. The incidence of chronic pancreatitis is 4–8 per 100,000 with a prevalence of 26–42 cases per 100,000. In 2013 pancreatitis resulted in 123,000 deaths up from 83,000 deaths in 1990. Society and culture Economics" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0412_18897", "title": "Cases from the Osler Medical Service at Johns Hopkins University.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 37-year-old woman presented with increasing abdominal pain and jaundice. Six weeks before admission, she developed persistent diarrhea and jaundice of the skin. She also bruised easily, and her gums bled. In the subsequent weeks, her appetite decreased, she was fatigued, and she had nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension. She had a history of drinking 1 quart of vodka every day for 20 years, with brief periods of abstinence; she stopped consuming alcohol 11 days before admission because it no longer provided symptomatic relief. Her past medical history was also notable for depression, including a suicide attempt 4 years earlier. She did not smoke, use illicit drugs, or have unprotected sexual intercourse. She had received no blood transfusions and had not traveled recently. She took no medications, except for occasional ibuprofen. On physical examination, she was thin and deeply jaundiced, and she trembled and responded slowly to questions. She was afebrile but tachypneic, and she had orthostatic hypotension. Her HEENT examination was notable for scleral and sublingual icterus, as well as crusted blood on her gums and teeth. The jugular veins were flat. The cardiac examination revealed tachycardia (heart rate, 103 beats per minute) without murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The abdomen was nontender and protuberant, with hypoactive bowel sounds; the spleen was not palpable, and there was no fluid wave or caput medusae. The liver percussed to 18 cm, with a smooth edge extending 10 cm below the costal margin. She had cutaneous telangiectases on her chest and bilateral palmar erythema. There was no peripheral edema. The neurologic examination was notable for asterixis. Her stool was guaiac positive. Laboratory studies revealed the following values: hematocrit, 21.2%; white blood cells, 17,310/mm(3); ammonia, 42 micromol/L; serum creatinine, 3.9 mg/dL; serum urea nitrogen, 70 mg/dL; albumin, 2.1 g/dL; total bilirubin, 26.8 mg/dL; alanine aminotransferase, 14 U/L; aspartate aminotransferase, 77 U/L; alkaline phosphatase, 138 U/L; prothrombin time, 103 seconds (international normalized ratio, 10.6); and urinary sodium, &lt;5 mg/dL. Urinalysis revealed an elevated specific gravity and numerous muddy granular casts. Hepatitis A, B, and C serologies were negative. On abdominal ultrasound examination, there was no ascites, and the liver was echogenic. The portal and hepatic veins were patent, and the hepatic arteries were normal. The spleen measured 14 cm. What is the diagnosis?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0731_9492", "title": "[The role and importance of biochemical markers in diagnosis of alcoholic acute pancreatitis].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Alcoholic acute pancreatitis occurs in 10% of alcoholics, who take more than 80 g alcohol daily. Different biochemical markers are used to diagnose acute pancreatitis, and some of them may help in establishing etiology of acute pancreatitis. This study is a prospective review of 21 patients. All patients were hospitalized at the Department for Gastroenterology and Hepatology or at the Department for Surgery of the Clinical Centre of Nif in the period from August 1st 2009 to March 1st 2010 with diagnosis of acute alcoholic pancreatitis. Detailed anamnesis, clinical examination, biochemical analyses and ultrasonography of the upper abdomen were done in all patients. All patients provided data on alcohol abuse. The analysis of the corresponding biochemical parameters revealed a statistically significant correlation between the following values: serum amylase and serum lipase (R = 0.964674; p &lt; 0.001), cholesterol and triglycerides (R = 0.93789; p &lt; 0.001), total and direct bilirubin (R = 0.857899; p &lt; 0.001) and between aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase (R = 0.824461, p &lt; 0.001) in patients with alcoholic acute pancreatitis. In addition, there was a statistically significant correlation between the values of serum amylase and urinary amylase (R = 0.582742, p &lt; 0.001). The analysis of biochemical markers showed that some of them were significant for beforehand diagnosis of alcoholic acute pancreatitis, which is in accordance with other studies. Some biochemical parameters can be potential predictors of alcoholic acute pancreatitis (lipase/amylase ratio &gt; 2, greater ratio of aspartate aminotransferase/alanine aminotransferase, enhanced triglycerides and values of mean corpuscular volume." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en415_8453", "title": "Theiler's disease", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Lab tests The most characteristic feature are elevated levels of gamma glutamyl transferase (100–300 IU/L), aspartate transaminase (>1000 IU/L) and sorbitol dehydrogenase, with AST levels > 4000 IU/L indicating a poor prognosis. High levels of unconjugated and total bilirubin, and serum bile acids, can be seen. Moderate to severe acidosis, leukocytosis, polycythaemia, increased creatine kinase and hyperammonemia may be present, and hemolysis can occur at the end stage. The prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is often prolonged. Subclinical horses may only show elevated liver enzymes without any other clinical signs. Horses are rarely hypoglycemic, but blood glucose monitoring is ideal to indicate which horses may be benefited by glucose treatment. Differential diagnosis This is quite extensive and includes acute infectious hepatitis acute mycotoxicosis acute pyrrolizidine toxicosis haemolytic disease hepatotoxins" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0222_1442", "title": "[Acute alcoholic hepatitis and death of cirrhotic patients].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Alcoholic hepatitis (AH) seems to be less frequent and to play a lesser role in the death of cirrhotic patients than previously acknowledged. The purpose of this work was: 1) to study the cause of death of cirrhotic patients 2) to determine the prevalence of AH among these patients and 3) to describe the clinical and laboratory features of cirrhotic patients with AH. The data were collected from a series of 107 necropsies in cirrhotic patients without hepatocellular carcinoma. The statistical analyses were carried out with an IRIS 80 computer. Severe liver failure with jaundice and encephalopathy, hemorrhage and uncontrolled infection with septic shock represented 84 p. 100 of the causes of death in patients with cirrhosis. Seventy-nine out of 107 patients (74 p. 100) had no AH (group 1), and 28 (26 p. 100) had AH (group 2): AH was mild in 15 cases and severe in 13 cases. All patients with AH died from a complication directly related to their liver disease while 21.5 p. 100 of patients without AH died from a complication not related to cirrhosis. The clinical and laboratory features of the patients without AH and cirrhosis differed from those of patients without AH by: a more frequent presence of fever (p less than 0.01), the absence of important weight loss (p less than 0.001), the total absence of abstinence (p less than 0.05), a higher value of ASAT/ALAT ratio, of serum levels of total bilirubin (p less than 0.01) and conjugated bilirubin (p less than 0.05), gamma glutamyl transpeptidase (p less than 0.001) and total cholesterol (p less than 0.05).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "article-17338_4", "title": "Alcoholic Hepatitis -- Etiology", "score": 0.009496971176248696, "content": "The National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), Alcoholic Hepatitis Consortia defines alcoholic hepatitis to include the following: The onset of jaundice within 60 days of heavy alcohol consumption (more than 50 g/day) for a minimum of 6 months Serum bilirubin more than 3 mg/dL Elevated aspartate aminotransferase (AST) to 50 U/L to 400 U/L AST:ALT (alanine aminotransferase) ratio of more than 1.5 No other cause of acute hepatitis" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0850_7287", "title": "Rare but Lethal Hepatopathy-Sickle Cell Intrahepatic Cholestasis and Management Strategies.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Sickle cell disease can affect the liver by way of the disease process, including sickling in hepatic sinusoids, as well as its treatment, including repeated blood transfusions leading to hemosiderosis and hepatitis. Sickle cell intrahepatic cholestasis (SCIC) is an extreme variant of sickle cell hepatopathy, and is associated with high fatality. We present the case of a 31-year-old man with past medical history of sickle cell disease and cholecystectomy who was admitted with uncomplicated vaso occlusive crisis and during the hospital stay developed fever, upper abdominal pain, and jaundice. There was an accelerated rise in total bilirubin to 50 mg/dL, direct bilirubin 38 mg/dL, and Cr 3.0 mg/dL. Hb was 6.4 g/dL, reticulocyte count 16%, ALT 40 IU/L, AST 155 IU/L, ALP 320 IU/L, and LDH 475 IU/L. Hepatitis panel was negative and MRCP showed normal caliber of the common bile duct, with no obstruction. Exchange transfusion of 9 units of packed red blood cells led to great improvement in his condition. SCIC, unlike the other sickle cell hepatopathies, requires urgent and vigorous exchange transfusion. Renal impairment in SCIC has not been well studied but usually is reversible with the hepatic impairment, as in this case. Unresolved renal impairment requires dialysis and is associated with poor outcome. There is limited data on use of hydroxyurea to prevent SCIC, and liver transplant is associated with high mortality. A timely diagnosis of SCIC and appropriate management is life-saving." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 499, 694 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 88, 118 ] ], "text": "Migraine and vascular disorders, accompanied by other neurological symptoms or nausea, photophobia, etc., are quickly ruled out, as well as the rare temporal arteritis before the age of 50 years." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 499, 694 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 88, 118 ] ], "text": "Migraine and vascular disorders, accompanied by other neurological symptoms or nausea, photophobia, etc., are quickly ruled out, as well as the rare temporal arteritis before the age of 50 years." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 499, 694 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 88, 118 ] ], "text": "Migraine and vascular disorders, accompanied by other neurological symptoms or nausea, photophobia, etc., are quickly ruled out, as well as the rare temporal arteritis before the age of 50 years." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 367, 498 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 67, 88 ] ], "text": "Both the initially occipital location, the 2-year evolution time, and the sensation of weight lead to answer 4, a tension headache." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 695, 852 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 118, 140 ] ], "text": "Tumor headache is usually \"in crescendo\", not recurrent as the case suggests, and is accompanied by other neurological symptoms or intracranial hypertension." } }

{ "1": "Migraine.", "2": "Vascular disorders.", "3": "Temporal artery arteritis.", "4": "Tension.", "5": "Oncologic." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0093_16112", "title": "[Swimming induced vascular headache].", "score": 0.01720573032048442, "content": "We experienced 3 cases of characteristic headache induced by swimming. The first case was a 51-year-old woman who suffered from a sudden attack of throbbing headache in the parieto-temporal region, accompanied by nausea, after 20 minutes of swimming practice in a pool. The headache disappeared after about 3 hours of bed rest. However, soon after she began to practice swimming in the pool a few days later, throbbing headache in the same region recurred. Though the headache improved upon bed rest, dull pain was persistent till bed time that evening. Two days later, as she squatted down with alacrity at her home, she felt intense pain in the whole head as if struck with a hammer. She was seen at our neurological clinic the following day but was found to be neurologically normal with a blood pressure of 130/70 and a pulse rate of 78/min. Blood chemistry tests, hematology, head digital subtraction angiography, cerebral CT and X-ray films of the cervical spine were all normal. After swimming was prohibited, the prognosis was good and the patient experienced no episode of headache at all during the intervening period of 2 years and 5 months after the first visit. The second case was a 45-year-old man who felt throbbing headache affecting the whole head immediately after diving in a swimming pool. The headache improved after about 3 hours of bed rest. One week later, an attack of similar headache occurred immediately after a dive in the swimming pool.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0266_12832", "title": "Warning symptoms of sinister headache.", "score": 0.014904862579281183, "content": "Headache is a common complaint. In most patients, it is usually a problem of migrainous or tension-type headache. It is crucial that a physician is able to differentiate sinister causes of headache from the more benign ones. Six cases are presented to illustrate the fact that there are clues in the history to suggest a sinister cause of headache even though there are minimal or no neurological deficits on physical examination. At some point of time, these cases were examined by a senior physician but they were diagnosed as migrainous or tension-type headaches. The first case is a 41-year-old labourer with cryptococcal meningitis. He presented with severe headaches at a relatively late age. A 20-year-old female complained of the worst headache she ever had and this was due to a subarachnoid haemorrhage. The third case was a young woman with a large parietal meningioma. Her headaches had recently assumed a different character. The fourth case involved an investment manager who developed headaches with transient diplopia and projectile vomiting and investigations revealed an ependymoma. A shipyard worker complained of a constant headache which disturbed his sleep. Two weeks after medical consultation, the character of his headache changed and he developed diplopia in all directions of gaze. He succumbed to pituitary apoplexy. The final case is a 28-year-old woman who had a complicated migraine. CT scan of the brain showed a large arterio-venous malformation." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0324_4304", "title": "[Abdominal migraine in adults].", "score": 0.013281410125025619, "content": "A case of a 35-year-old woman with abdominal migraine is presented. For four years she had been suffering from abdominal pains occurring only at night, always between 1 and 3 a.m. The patient always woke with abdominal pains and nausea. Each time she had diarrhoea and vomited and found that this gave her relief from the pain. Sometimes she lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. After the attack she felt very weak, her legs and feet became numb and she found it difficult to get to sleep. The attacks and the fainting fits increased in frequency until she had several a month. Numerous gastrological examinations did not reveal any deviations from the normal. At the anti- epileptic consulting unit, abdominal epilepsy was excluded (no abnormalities were found in the eeg and CT examinations of the cranium). As a child she had paroxysmal abdominal pains. When the patient was 10 years old, she had an attack lasting one week and though the pain was severe on the left side, appendectomy was performed. Her mother suffers from migraine with very severe head pains. The patient was referred to our consulting unit where she was treated with Pizotifen in doses of 0.5 mg morning and noon and 1 mg in the evening for three months during which time she had no attacks. A few weeks after discontinuing this treatment, the nocturnal attacks again occurred though the pains were not so severe. She was then prescribed Nitrendipine, 5 mg nightly, and the attacks ceased. However, the patient said that she had felt better when taking Pizotifen." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en014_33051", "title": "Margaret Fuller", "score": 0.013178561851128222, "content": "in the Western Messenger in June: criticisms of recent biographies on George Crabbe and Hannah More. In the fall of that year, she suffered a terrible migraine with a fever that lasted nine days. Fuller continued to experience such headaches throughout her life. While she was still recovering, her father died of cholera on October 2, 1835. She was deeply affected by his death: \"My father's image follows me constantly\", she wrote. She vowed to step in as the head of the family and take care of her widowed mother and younger siblings. Her father had not left a will, and two of her uncles gained control of his property and finances, later assessed at $18,098.15, and the family had to rely on them for support. Humiliated by the way her uncles were treating the family, Fuller wrote that she regretted being \"of the softer sex, and never more than now\"." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0662_21534", "title": "[Sporadic hemiplegic migraine-like headache in a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus].", "score": 0.011361853049182385, "content": "A 39-year-old woman suddenly developed numbness of the left arm following mild weakness of the left upper and lower extremities, blindness in the left visual field, and difficulty finding words. Her symptoms lasted for two hours with no deficit remaining. Six months after the first episode, the first of several more occurred. Two of the episodes were followed by nausea and a non-pulsative headache around the left temporo-parietal regions and the orbit. She had also been suffering recurrent skin eruptions for the previous two years. There was no family history of migraine. Her neurological symptoms fulfilled the criteria of sporadic hemiplegic migraine (SHM). Biopsy of skin eruption revealed lymphocytic infiltration and liquefied degeneration of basal lamina. These findings were compatible with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). There were no lesions evident on brain MR. We diagnosed SLE and after administration of aspirin (100 mg/day) and lomerizine hydrochloride (10 mg/day), her neurological symptom completely disappeared. SHM-like headache in patients with SLE is extremely rare. Although an autoimmune or thrombotic mechanism has been suggested for neurological symptoms in SLE, further studies are needed to elucidate the mechanism. We propose that SLE should be considered as one of the differential diagnoses of SHM." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0540_20027", "title": "[Three Japanese cases of hypnic headache].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "We described three cases of hypnic headache with successful treatment by lithium carbonate or caffeine. This is the first detail report of Japanese cases. An endocrinological test and rhythm analyses of ambulatory blood pressure (ABP) and heart rate variability in a case suggested possible association between hypnic headache and hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction. Case 1: A 48-year-old female migraineur complained of new-onset nocturnal headaches. Her headache awakened her from sleep between 1 AM and 2 AM. The headache occurred 3-4 times per week and lasted from 1 hour to 2 hours. The headache were moderate intensity and bilateral dull throbbing pain that located in the forehead to temples. There was no accompanying symptoms such as nausea, phonophobia, photophobia, nor the other autonomic features including conjunctival injection or tearing during the headache attacks. Physical and neurological examinations showed normal results except slight weakness and mild dysesthesia of the left arm due to a vertebral disk herniation at C5/6 level. In the pituitary endocrinological test, the prolactin level remarkably increased in response to the TRH loading. The single cosinor analysis demonstrated significant circadian rhythm of ABP parameters. However, the analysis did not demonstrate any significant circadian rhythm of Holter ECG parameters of time domain analysis and frequency analysis. Receiving 200 mg lithium bicarbonate before sleep, her nocturnal headache completely disappeared. Case 2: A 68-year-old woman had been followed up by her chronic tension-type headache since her forties. At her 66-years, she suffered from a new nocturnal headache. She awoke from sleep by the headache about 3 AM and the headache lasted 30 min. Moderate, dull headache located on her left temple to parietal head, 3-4 times/week. She was able to go back asleep without any medication after spontaneous headache cessation. She first complained the nocturnal headache at the 10 months later of the new headache appearance. She received 200 mg caffeine just before sleep and her headache has been disappeared. Case 3: 70-year-old women had been regularly visited our clinics for her migraine and chronic tension-type headache. She received amitriptyline and her headaches was well controlled. At her 69 years, she complained nocturnal headache. It occured every other day. The headache was moderate pulsative dull pain on the occipital region and lasted 90 minutes without any autonomic symptoms. Headache began between midnight and 1 AM. She told us her new nocturnal headache one year later of the onset. Oral caffeine (200 mg) just before sleep did not improve her headache and caused insomnia. Receiving 100 mg lithium before sleep, her hypnic headache disappeared completely. These three cases are compatible with the diagnostic criteria proposed in ICHD-II. There were some patients with hypnic headache in Japan and neurologists should pay attentions to this form of benign headache, because some beneficial treatments are currently available." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0606_15060", "title": "[Headache among oldest old (+75 years): findings from 736 consecutive subjects in outpatient neurological clinic].", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "Although the elderly generally suffer less often from headache, many authors suggest that symptomatic headache and concomitant diseases could be more frequent. We performed a retrospective chart review of oldest old (+75 years) patients who seek medical attention from headache. A retrospective chart review (9 years) was carried on all oldest old subjects (&gt; or =75 years) who were studied from outpatient neurological clinic. Headache diagnosis was made according to the new classification of the International Headache Society. Seven hundred and thirty six patients were reviewed. 77,7% were females. Median age was 81,5 years (standard desviation: 5,3). This subjects were 1,7% from all consultations. 89,4% subjects suffered primary headaches. Tensional headache was the most frequent diagnosis. Serious causes were unusual. No patients had headache relationship with neoplasm or infections diseases. Only four subjects (0,6%) had temporal arteritis. Subjects with 81 years and more had less migraine and more Arnold's neuralgia (Greater occipital neuralgia). In our study, headache among oldest old had relationship with benign causes like tensional headache. Although serious causes like neoplasm or infections disease were not detected in our patients, temporal arteritis could be an important cause to screen from outpatient neurological clinic." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1157_4367", "title": "Post-COVID Headache: A Literature Review.", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Post-COVID headache may be unique in presentation and mechanism, often presenting as a new phenotype in patients with a history of a primary headache disorder or resulting in a new headache syndrome in those without history of headache. This review presents a description of the literature published focused on post-COVID headache. Additionally, we discuss potential mechanisms and considerations for treatment of post-COVID headache. Headache is one of the most common symptoms of COVID. Common characteristics are revealed when reviewing the phenotypes of headaches that have been described in patients with COVID-19, with most headache phenotypes resembling migraine and new persistent daily headache. Post-COVID headaches are often described as moderate to severe, persistent, and treatment refractory. This review highlights the diversity of presentation of headaches that present as a complication of COVID-19. Treatment of post-COVID headache is challenging, especially in the setting of a pandemic where resources are limited. A 42-year-old woman with a history of episodic migraine without aura presents over video visit with a new headache type. Her typical headaches are predominantly left sided, throbbing in nature, and associated with photophobia and phonophobia. They are fully relieved by oral sumatriptan 2 h after treatment. She describes this new headache as a constant, pulsating, holocephalic pain with no other migrainous features that have been ongoing for 6 weeks. She notes that the headache has been persistent since that time. She has tried over-the-counter acetaminophen and ibuprofen and her typical migraine abortive therapy without relief. She is debilitated and wonders if there is anything that will take the pain away. She shares that she tested positive for COVID-19 about 2 days prior to headache onset and has associated rhinorrhea, anosmia, and ageusia." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0055_9416", "title": "[Various problems of transformation of migraine].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Fifty-four patients aged 25 to 66 years suffering from hemicrania were examined. 21 patients showed certain changes in the clinical picture and course of hemicrania itself: enhancement of paroxysms or transformation of one form of hemicrania to the other one, more severe (e.g. a simple form transforms to an ophthalmic or an associated one). In 15 patients, ++vegeto-dystonic manifestations associated mostly with a significant reduction of migrainous paroxysms themselves and, more rarely, with their dramatic enhancement began with time to play the leading part in the disease clinical picture. Superimposition of essential hypertension or atherosclerosis was also coupled with changes in the course of hemicrania, in particular by an increase of the period of cephalgia and appearance of constant headaches." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0812_16608", "title": "[Effectiveness of midazolam for L-arginine-resistant headaches during stroke-like episodes in MELAS: a case report].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "A 14-year-old girl was referred to us with severe migraine-like headaches associated with vomiting and right homonymous hemianopsia. On admission, MRI examination showed high signals in the left occipital cortex and subcortex on T2-weighted images, without reduction of apparent diffusion coefficient suggestive of cerebral infarction. Her EEG demonstrated periodic sharp waves in the left posterior region, and laboratory tests revealed she had increased levels of lactic and pyruvic acid both in blood plasma and CSF. Gene analysis confirmed mitochondrial DNA A3243G mutation. Based on this data, we diagnosed her as having mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis and a stroke-like episode (MELAS). L-arginine infusion was unsuccessful for her severe headaches, which remained prolonged. She received a low dose (0.05 mg/kg/h) midazolam infusion, resulting in immediate improvement and the disappearance of headaches and abnormal EEG findings. By the age of 18, she had been readmitted eight times for stroke-like episodes accompanied by headaches. While L-arginine infusions alleviated her headaches when administered on day 1 of her episodes, they were not effective when started on or after day 2. Her L-arginine-resistant headaches were relieved by midazolam. Although the pathogenesis of headaches in MELAS is still unknown, neuronal hyperexcitability and trigeminovascular activation are considered important. Midazolam may play a role in suppressing neuronal hyperexcitability and trigeminovascular activation. Treatment with midazolam is advisable for headaches in patients with MELAS, in the event that L-arginine therapy is unsuccessful. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0343_6201", "title": "[Recent-onset headache is a risk factor of intracranial lesion. A prospective study of 299 patients].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "There is some controversy in the medical literature concerning the need to perform neuroimaging studies in neurologically normal patients complaining of headaches. The objective of the study is to determine the detection rate of intracranial abnormalities by computed tomography in patients with different headache durations. Consecutive patients with the chief complaint of headache referred for neurological evaluation from January 1996 to April 1997 were studied both clinically and by computed tomography scanning. Brain magnetic resonance imaging was performed in 15 patients. Cerebrospinal fluid and/or blood analyses were performed when clinically indicated to rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage, meningitis or temporal arteritis. 15 (5%) out of the 299 patients available for study had significant intracranial lesion. 3 (1%) out of the 266 patients with headaches lasting for more than 1 month had computed tomography findings considered clinically significant and neurological examination was normal in 2 (0.7%) patients with abnormal scans. Patients with a headache duration of 1 month or less had the following case-finding rate: an overall significant intracranial abnormality of 36% (12/33) and significant intracranial abnormality in neurologically normal patients of 15% (5/33). Patients with headache of recent onset (duration of 1 month or less), even with normal neurological examination, are at greater risk of significant intracranial abnormality than patients with long-lasting headaches. These patients at risk should be studied by cranial computed tomography and lumbar puncture if the computed tomography scan is normal and the cause of the headaches cannot be clinically determined." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0800_14851", "title": "Breathlessness with pulmonary metastases: a multimodal approach.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Case Study  Sarah is a 58-year-old breast cancer survivor, social worker, and health-care administrator at a long-term care facility. She lives with her husband and enjoys gardening and reading. She has two grown children and three grandchildren who live approximately 180 miles away. SECOND CANCER DIAGNOSIS  One morning while showering, Sarah detected a painless quarter-sized lump on her inner thigh. While she thought it was unusual, she felt it would probably go away. One month later, she felt the lump again; she thought that it had grown, so she scheduled a visit with her primary care physician. A CT scan revealed a 6.2-cm soft-tissue mass in the left groin. She was referred to an oncologic surgeon and underwent an excision of the groin mass. Pathology revealed a grade 3 malignant melanoma. She was later tested and found to have BRAF-negative status. Following her recovery from surgery, Sarah was further evaluated with an MRI scan of the brain, which was negative, and a PET scan, which revealed two nodules in the left lung. As Sarah had attended a cancer support group during her breast cancer treatment in the past, she decided to go back to the group when she learned of her melanoma diagnosis. While the treatment options for her lung lesions included interleukin-2, ipilimumab (Yervoy), temozolomide, dacarbazine, a clinical trial, or radiosurgery, Sarah's oncologist felt that ipilimumab or radiosurgery would be the best course of action. She shared with her support group that she was ambivalent about this decision, as she had experienced profound fatigue and nausea with chemotherapy during her past treatment for breast cancer. She eventually opted to undergo stereotactic radiosurgery. DISEASE RECURRENCE  After the radiosurgery, Sarah was followed every 2 months. She complained of shortness of breath about 2 weeks prior to each follow-up visit. Each time her chest x-ray was normal, and she eventually believed that her breathlessness was anxiety-related. Unfortunately, Sarah's 1-year follow-up exam revealed a 2 cm × 3 cm mass in her left lung, for which she had a surgical wedge resection. Her complaints of shortness of breath increased following the surgery and occurred most often with anxiety, heat, and gardening activities, especially when she needed to bend over. Sarah also complained of a burning \"pins and needles\" sensation at the surgical chest wall site that was bothersome and would wake her up at night. Sarah met with the nurse practitioner in the symptom management clinic to discuss her concerns. Upon physical examination, observable signs of breathlessness were lacking, and oxygen saturation remained stable at 94%, but Sarah rated her breathlessness as 7 on the 0 to 10 Borg scale. The nurse practitioner prescribed duloxetine to help manage the surgical site neuropathic pain and to assist with anxiety, which in turn could possibly improve Sarah's breathlessness. Several nonpharmacologic modalities for breathlessness were also recommended: using a fan directed toward her face, working in the garden in the early morning when the weather is cooler, gardening in containers that are at eye level to avoid the need to bend down, and performing relaxation exercises with pursed lip breathing to relieve anxiety-provoked breathlessness. One month later, Sarah reported relief of her anxiety; she stated that the fan directed toward her face helped most when she started to feel \"air hungry.\" She rated her breathlessness at 4/10 on the Borg scale. SECOND RECURRENCE: MULTIPLE PULMONARY NODULES  Sarah's chest x-rays remained clear for 6 months, but she developed a chronic cough shortly before the 9-month exam. An x-ray revealed several bilateral lung lesions and growth in the area of the previously resected lung nodule. Systemic therapy was recommended, and she underwent two cycles of ipilimumab. Sarah's cough and breathlessness worsened, she developed colitis, and she decided to stop therapy after the third cycle. In addition, her coughing spells triggered bronchospasms that resulted in severe anxiety, panic attacks, and air hunger. She rated her breathlessness at 10/10 on the Borg scale during these episodes. She found communication difficult due to the cough and began to isolate herself. She continued to attend the support group weekly but had difficulty participating in conversation due to her cough. Sarah was seen in the symptom management clinic every 2 weeks or more often as needed. No acute distress was present at the beginning of each visit, but when Sarah began to talk about her symptoms and fear of dying, her shortness of breath and anxiety increased. The symptom management nurse practitioner treated the suspected underlying cause of the breathlessness and prescribed oral lorazepam (0.5 to 1 mg every 6 hours) for anxiety and codeine cough syrup for the cough. Opioids were initiated for chest wall pain and to control the breathlessness. Controlled-release oxycodone was started at 10 mg every 12 hours with a breakthrough pain (BTP) dose of 5 mg every 2 hours as needed for breathlessness or pain. Sarah noted improvement in her symptoms and reported a Borg scale rating of 5/10. Oxygen therapy was attempted, but subjective improvement in Sarah's breathlessness was lacking. END OF LIFE  Sarah's disease progressed to the liver, and she began experiencing more notable signs of breathlessness: nasal flaring, tachycardia, and restlessness. Opioid doses were titrated over the course of 3 months to oxycodone (40 mg every 12 hours) with a BTP dose of 10 to 15 mg every 2 hours as needed, but her breathlessness caused significant distress, which she rated 8/10. The oxycodone was rotated to IV morphine continuous infusion with patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) that was delivered through her implantable port. This combination allowed Sarah to depress the PCA as needed and achieve immediate control of her dyspneic episodes. Oral lorazepam was also continued as needed. Sarah's daughter moved home to take care of her mother, and hospice became involved for end-of-life care. As Sarah became less responsive, nurses maintained doses of morphine for control of pain and breathlessness and used a respiratory distress observation scale to assess for breathlessness since Sarah could no longer self-report. A bolus PCA dose of morphine was administered by Sarah's daughter if her mother appeared to be in distress. Sarah died peacefully in her home without signs of distress. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0024_3261", "title": "[Focal migraine attacks without headaches (author's transl)].", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The migraine without headaches is a special form of focal migraine, a migraine accompagnée without headaches. The diagnostic classification of the transient focal disturbances is made possible by careful analysis of the attacks. This type of attack starts in a localized manner (primarily in the ophthalmic area), develops corresponding to the cortical representation, and is not always restricted to one vascular area. Typical is the slow spread of symptoms over a period of ten minutes, on the average. This allows a differentiation from transient ischemic attacks or focal epilepsy. The diagnosis is supported by hereditary factors, early onset of manifestation and change of the side of focal symptoms (in 11 of 16 patients). Of 409 migraine patients, 16 were such cases, corresponding to an occurrence of 4%. There were no signs of symptomatic etiology for these transient focal disturbances." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0790_13581", "title": "Refractory headaches treated with bilateral occipital and temporal region stimulation.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "To describe use of bilateral temporal and occipital stimulator leads for a refractory headache disorder. A 31-year-old female had a 10-year history of chronic, severe occipital and temporal region headaches. The patient underwent permanent implant of an occipital stimulator system that resulted in sustained, compete resolution of her occipital pain. However, she continued to suffer disabling (10/10) temporal region headaches and was bedbound most days of the week. Therefore, bilateral temporal stimulator leads were implanted and tunneled to her internal pulse generator. At 12-month follow-up, the patient enjoyed sustained improvement in her pain scores (8/10) and marked increase in her level of functioning. Taking into account increased activity level, she rated her overall improvement at 50%. Unfortunately, infection and erosion of her right temporal lead necessitated temporal stimulator removal. Headache disorders may require stimulation of all painful cephalic regions. However, our success in this case must be considered in light of the technical challenges and expense of placing stimulator leads subcutaneously around the head and neck, including the risk of infection, lead breakage, erosion, and migration." }, { "id": "article-22610_10", "title": "Acute Headache -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "What is the patient's medical history? Does the patient take new medications, or have they recently changed them? Does the patient take \"blood thinners\"? Is this the worst headache the patient has ever experienced? Was the pain maximal at the onset? Has the patient had any difficulty moving or speaking normally? Did the patient have nausea or vomiting? Does the patient have a fever? Does the patient have any changes in vision or hearing? Does the patient have eye pain? Does the patient have any neck or facial pain? Did the patient have a seizure? Does the patient have dizziness? Does the patient have any sensitivity to light? Does the patient feel generally weak? Is there a weakness in a specific area of their body? Has the patient traveled recently? Has the patient been around sick contacts? Is the patient less than six weeks postpartum? Does the patient have a history of immunosuppression or take immunosuppressive medication?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0973_23808", "title": "Paraneoplastic Encephalopathy in a Patient With Metastatic Lung Cancer: A Case Study.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "<bCASE STUDY</b RS, a 36-year-old female, presented to the emergency department (ED) of a large academic medical center upon the advice of her primary care provider because of 3 weeks of progressive mental status changes, weakness, and decreased oral intake. According to her husband, RS was diagnosed with stage IIIA large cell lung cancer 8 months earlier and was treated with concurrent chemotherapy (carboplatin, pemetrexed, and bevacizumab) and radiation therapy that was completed 4 months prior to admission. No other specific information about her treatment or outside health records was available. According to her husband, RS had been in her usual state of health until approximately 3 weeks prior, when she began having significant mental status changes. She first exhibited some difficulty finding words and later was noted to be putting food in a coffee maker. This spontaneously resolved after approximately 1 week; however, she rapidly developed slurred speech and began to make nonsensical statements. These manifestations also slowly improved but were followed by worsening speech deficit, difficulty walking, and impaired balance. During one of these episodes, she had an occurrence of incontinence. Her husband also noted an incident where her \"eyes were beating back and forth and the left side of her face was twitching.\" RS also had periods (according to her husband) where she \"did not seem to be interacting with her environment.\" These progressively worsened during the last week, and she completely stopped walking and talking 2 days prior to coming to the ED. According to her husband, RS had rheumatoid arthritis and no surgical history. Her family history was unknown except that RS's mother had \"seizures.\" RS had reportedly not used tobacco, alcohol, or drugs, and she was sexually active with her husband. Home medications included transdermal fentanyl 12 μg/hr patch changed every 72 hours; oxycodone-acetaminophen tablets 5-325 mg, two every 4 hours as needed for pain; prednisone 10 mg, one tablet daily; and megestrol 40 mg/mL suspension, 20 mL once daily for appetite stimulation. RS was admitted to an inpatient medical oncology service and evaluated by the oncology advanced practitioner (AP) on her second inpatient day. Upon exam, RS was nonverbal except for moaning in response to painful stimuli and to her sister's voice. Her vital signs were normal. She appeared ill but well-nourished, and she was mildly diaphoretic. Neurologic examination revealed that her pupils were slightly sluggish but equal, round, and reactive to light. Extraocular muscle movements were intact, but she did not move her eyes in response to commands. She tracked the AP and family members around the room with her eyes. Cranial nerve examination was intact with the exception of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI, which were difficult to examine given her inability to cooperate and open her mouth. Motor examination revealed increased tone throughout and intermittent, inconsistent resistance to passive movement. She was seen to move all four extremities spontaneously although not in response to commands. Deep tendon reflexes were intact and equal in all extremities. Examination of other body systems was as follows: there was dry, peeling skin on her lips, but her mucous membranes were moist and free of erythema or lesions. Her lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her heart rate and rhythm were regular, there were no murmurs, rubs, or gallops, and distal pulses were intact. Her abdomen was nondistended with normally active bowel sounds in all four quadrants. Her abdomen was soft, nontender to palpation, and without palpable masses. There was no peripheral discoloration, temperature changes, or edema, and examination of her skin was benign. <bWorkup</b On admission to the emergency department, serum laboratory studies were unrevealing for any potential causes of encephalopathy. Kidney and liver function were normal, making diagnoses of uremic and hepatic encephalopathies less likely. Cultures of the urine and blood were negative. Samples of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) were obtained via lumbar puncture and were unrevealing for any abnormalities. Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast was negative for any acute intracranial process. Ultrasound of the right upper quadrant revealed a single, nonspecific, hypoechoic hepatic lesion. Computed tomography scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis demonstrated the primary malignancy in the upper lobe of the left lung, as well as possible metastatic disease within the left lung, right lung, and liver, and widespread osseous metastatic disease. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain performed 1 day after admission demonstrated numerous scattered punctate foci of enhancement throughout the supratentorial and infratentorial brain parenchyma, measuring at most 3 to 4 millimeters in diameter. There was no significant mass effect or midline shift. A paraneoplastic panel was sent to an outside laboratory and returned positive for antivoltage-gated potassium channel (VGKC) autoantibodies. <bDifferential Diagnosis</b Clinically, RS was exhibiting signs of encephalopathy, a broad term that indicates general brain dysfunction, the hallmark of which is altered mental status. Diagnosing encephalopathy is challenging, as many differential diagnoses must be considered. The clinician must consider metabolic derangements, toxic and infectious etiologies, psychiatric disorders, and less commonly, prion disorders and progressive dementia. Cultures of RS's blood and urine as well as other specialized endocrine tests were negative, decreasing the likelihood of a metabolic or infectious cause for her presentation. The abnormalities on her brain MRI were reviewed by a neuro-oncology team, who felt that the faint, nondescript nature of the visualized lesions was not suspicious for metastatic disease. Sequelae of seizures was also considered by neuro-oncology but dismissed given a grossly normal prolonged electroencephalogram. Some encephalopathies are caused by autoimmune or inflammatory mechanisms, which are confirmed by the presence of autoantibody markers and/or clear response to immunomodulatory treatment (Vernino, Geschwind, &amp; Boeve, 2007). These types of encephalopathies have been seen in patients with cancer and have thus been termed paraneoplastic. The presence of anti-VGKC antibodies on RS's paraneoplastic panel directed the inpatient medical oncology team toward a paraneoplastic neurologic disorder (PND) as the most likely diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0262_5795", "title": "Headache due to an extra joint between head and neck.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "A girl, born in 1973, started having headache in preschool age. After a head trauma in 1985, there was a clear worsening of the headache, and the headache became chronic at around 14 years, making regular school attendance impossible. The headache was \"symptom poor,\" bilateral-occipital, but with a clear left-sided preponderance and occasionally spreading to the forehead. The headache was always worst in the morning hours, easing up by noontime. Neck rotation to the right could provoke long-lasting exacerbations. Neck movement was restricted on rotation to the left. A sore bony structure was discovered on palpation just underneath the mastoid process of the left side. This proved to correspond to a bony \"bridge\" with an extra joint between the first vertebra on the left side and the skull, medially to the mastoid process that could be demonstrated on x-ray tomography and CT scanning. This bony bridge was removed surgically more than 2 years ago, and the pain disappeared on the day of operation and has not recurred in the intervening time. Such bony bridges have in the past been considered to be innocuous and not symptom producing. Although this may be the general rule, the present case tends to show that even to this rule, there are exceptions." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0876_17161", "title": "Trichotillomania: Bizzare Patern of Hair Loss at 11-Year-old Girl.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Trichotillomania (TTM) is defined by the Diagnostics and Statistic Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition (DMS-IV) as hair loss from a patient`s repetitive self-pulling of hair. The disorder is included under anxiety disorders because it shares some obsessive-compulsive features. Patients have the tendency towards feelings of unattractiveness, body dissatisfaction, and low self-esteem (1,2). It is a major psychiatric problem, but many patients with this disorder first present to a dermatologist. An 11-year-old girl came to our department with a 2-month history of diffuse hair loss on the frontoparietal and parietotemporal area (Figure 1). She had originally been examined by a pediatrician with the diagnosis of alopecia areata. The patient`s personal history included hay fever and shortsightedness, and she suffered from varicella and mononucleosis. Nobody in the family history suffered from alopecia areata, but her father has male androgenetic alopecia (Norwood/Hamilton MAGA C3F3). The mother noticed that the child had had changeable mood for about 2 months and did not want to communicate with other persons in the family. The family did not have any pet at home. At school, her favorite subjects were Math and Computer Studies. She did not like Physical Education and did not participate in any sport activities during her free time. This was very strange because she was obese (body-mass index (BMI) 24.69). She was sometimes angry with her 13-year-old sister who had better results at school. The girl had suddenly started to wear a blue scarf. The parents did not notice that she pulled out her hair at home. Dermatological examination of the capillitium found a zone of incomplete alopecia in the frontoparietal and parietotemporal area, without inflammation, desquamation, and scaring. Hairs were of variable length (Figure 1). There was a patch of incomplete alopecia above the forehead between two stripes of hair of variable length (Figure 2). The hair pull test was negative along the edges of the alopecia. Mycological examination from the skin capillitium was negative. The trichoscopy and skin biopsy of the parietotemporal region of the capillitium (Figure 3) confirmed trichotillomania. Laboratory tests (blood count, iron, ferritin, transferrin, selenium, zinc, vitamin B12, folic acid, serology and hormones of thyroid gland) were negative. We referred the girl for ophthalmologic and psychological examination. Ophthalmologic examination proved that there was no need to add any more diopters. The psychological examination provided us with a picture in which she drew her family (Figure 4). The strongest authority in the family was the mother because she looked after the girls for most of the day. She was in the first place in the picture. The father had longer working hours and spent more time outside the home. He worked as a long vehicle driver. He was in the second place in the picture. There was sibling rivalry between the girls, but the parents did not notice this problem and preferred the older daughter. She was successful at school and was prettier (slim, higher, curly brown hair, without spectacles). Our 11-years-old patient noticed all these differences between them, but at her level of mental development was not able to cope with this problem. She wanted to be her sister's equal. The sister is drawn in the picture in the third place next to father, while the patient's own figure was drawn larger and slim even though she was obese. Notably, all three female figures had very nice long brown hair. It seemed that the mother and our patient had better quality of hair and more intense color than the sister in the drawing. The only hairless person in the picture was the father. The girl did not want to talk about her problems and feelings at home. Then it was confirmed that our patient was very sensitive, anxious, willful, and withdrawn. She was interested in her body and very perceptive of her physical appearance. From the psychological point of view, the parents started to pay more interest to their younger daughter and tried to understand and help her. After consultation with the psychiatrist, we did not start psychopharmacologic therapy for trichotillomania; instead, we started treatment with cognitive behavioral therapy, mild shampoo, mild topical steroids (e.g. hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%) in solution and methionine in capsules. With parents' cooperation, the treatment was successful. The name trichotillomania was first employed by the French dermatologist Francois Henri Hallopeau in 1889, who described a young man pulling his hair out in tufts (3-5). The word is derived from the Greek thrix (hair), tillein (to pull), and mania (madness) (5). The prevalence of TTM in the general adult population ranges from 0.6% to 4%, and 2-4% of the general psychiatric outpatient population meet the criteria for TTM (2-5). The prevalence among children and adolescents has been estimated at less than 1% (5). The disease can occur at any age and in any sex. The age of onset of hair pulling is significantly later for men than for women (3). There are three subsets of age: preschool children, preadolescents to young adults, and adults. The mean age of onset is pre-pubertal. It ranges from 8 to 13 years (on average 11.3 years) (2-5). The occurrence of hair-pulling in the first year of life is a rare event, probably comprising &lt;1% of cases (5). The etiology of TTM is complex and may be triggered by a psychosocial stressor within the family, such as separation from an attachment figure, hospitalization of the child or parent, birth of a younger sibling, sibling rivalry, moving to a new house, or problems with school performance. It has been hypothesized that the habit may begin with \"playing\" with the hair, with later chronic pulling resulting in obvious hair loss (2). Environment is a factor because children usually pull their hair when alone and in relaxed surroundings. The bedroom, bathroom, or family room are \"high-risk\" situations for hair-pulling (5). Men and women also differed in terms of the hair pulling site (men pull hair from the stomach/back and the moustache/beard areas, while women pull from the scalp) (3). Pulling hair from siblings, pets, dolls, and stuffed animals has also been documented, often occurring in the same pattern as in the patient (5). Genetic factors contributing to the development of TTM are mutations of the SLITRK1 gene, which plays a role in cortex development and neuronal growth. The protein SAPAP3 has been present in 4.2% of TTM cases and patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). It may be involved in the development of the spectrum of OCD. A significantly different concordance rate for TTM was found in monozygotic (38.1%) compared with dizygotic (0%) twins in 34 pairs (3). The core diagnostic feature is the repetitive pulling of hairs from one`s own body, resulting in hair loss. The targeted hair is mostly on the scalp (75%), but may also be from the eyebrows (42%), eyelashes (53%), beard (10%), and pubic area (17%) (3,5). There are three subtypes of hair pulling - early onset, automatic, and focused. Diagnostic criteria for TTM according to DSM-IV criteria are (2,3,5): 1) recurrent pulling of one`s hair resulting in noticeable hair loss; 2) an increasing sense of tension immediately prior to pulling out the hair or when attempting to resist the behavior; 3) pleasure, gratification, or relief when pulling out the hair; 4) the disturbance is not better accounted for by another mental disorder and is not due to a general medical condition (e.g., a dermatologic condition); 5) the disturbance causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. The differential diagnosis includes alopecia areata (Table 1) (6), tinea capitis, telogen effluvium, secondary syphilis, traction alopecia, loose anagen syndrome, lichen planopilaris, alopecia mucinosa, and scleroderma (2-5). Biopsy of an involved area (ideally from a recent site of hair loss) can help to confirm the diagnosis (5). On histologic examination, there are typically increased numbers of catagen and telogen hairs without evidence of inflammation. Chronic hair pulling induces a catagen phase, and more hairs will be telogen hairs. Pigment casts and empty anagen follicles are often seen. Perifollicular hemorrhage near the hair bulb is an indicator of TTM (2). Complications of TTM are rare, but they comprise secondary bacterial infections with regional lymphadenopathy as a result of picking and scratching at the scalp. Many patients play with and ingest the pulled hairs (e.g. touching the hair to lips, biting, and chewing). Trichophagia (ingestion of the hair) can lead to a rare complication named trichobezoar (a \"hair ball\" in stomach). This habit is present in approximately 5% to 30% of adult patients, but it is less frequent in children. Patient with trichophagia present with pallor, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and weight loss. Radiologic examination and gastroscopy should not be delayed (2,4,5). The management of the disease is difficult and requires strong cooperation between the physician, patient, and parents. The dermatologist cannot take part in the therapy, strictly speaking, but without the psychological, psychopharmacologic, and topic dermatologic treatment a vicious circle will be perpetuated. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0382_20410", "title": "[Reasons for requesting neuroimaging studies in the evaluation of primary headache].", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "There is some controversy concerning the need to perform neuroimaging studies in patient complaining of headache. 90% of the people had a complaint of headache during their life, and it is impossible to perform neuroimaging studies in all of them. The aim of this study is knowing the reasons for indications neuroimaging studies in the evaluation of primary headaches and the effectiveness at the diagnosis. The clinical records of patients who a neuroimaging study was performed for headache during 1998 were retrospectively studied. We analysed in all patients: the age, sex, diagnosis of headache, suspicion of diagnosis, reason and time for indication the neuroimaging study, and if the study modified the diagnosis. During 1998, were performed 107 neuroimaging studies in 96 patients. The mean age were 38 years. 60% were females. The suspicion of diagnosis was primary headache in 71% patients. Only one patient had an abnormality. The reasons for applying a neuroimaging study were: in 20 of the patients the migraine was more frequent and they didn t relieve with abortive drugs, in 20 there was a migraine aura, in 11 because the migraine turned to daily headache, in 17 the family asked for a neuroimaging study, there was a 17 of patients seemed to have an organic disease, in 2 the headache appeared daily, and in 7 of the cases weren't any reasons. Headache is the most frequent reason for asking a neuroimaging study. Primary headache is the type of headache that justifies most of indications. The most frequent reasons for performing a study were common changes in characteristics of migraine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0090_4002", "title": "[Child abuse: report of three cases].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "Child abuse, a clinical condition in young children who have received serious physical abuse, is a frequent cause of permanent injury or death. The first case is a 7-year-old boy suffering from abdominal distension and pain for 3 days. He was beaten by his mother as a result of inadequately learning his lessons. Sonogram and CT of the abdomen showed massive ascites and a pseudocyst of the pancreatic body about 3 x 3 cm in diameter. The second case is a 4-year-old girl who developed a semicomatose state after her father impulsively struck her with a chair. CT of the brain revealed subdural hematoma over the left fronto-temporal region and midline shift to the right. She expired 5 days later. The third case, a 2-year-old girl, suffered from headache, seizure, vomiting and general malaise. CT of the brain showed severe brain swelling over the right side and midline shift to the left. She expired 1 month later. Psychiatric factors are probably of prime importance in the pathogenesis of the disorder, but our knowledge of these factors is limited. Parents who inflict abuse on children do not necessarily have psychopathic or sociopathic personalities or come from borderline socioeconomic groups, although most published cases fall into one of these categories. It is clearly the responsibility of all physicians serving children to be aware of, to recognize, and to properly manage any child who has been the victim of abuse." }, { "id": "First_Aid_Step2_614", "title": "First_Aid_Step2", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "If a 20-year-old female develops headaches after drinking red wine, think migraine. Associated symptoms/signs: Significant findings include fever or rash (consider meningitis or other infectious causes), jaw claudication (specific for temporal arteritis), or constitutional symptoms such as weight loss (associated with neoplastic, inflammatory, or infectious conditions). Photophobia, nausea, and vomiting are associated with migraine, aneurysmal SAH, and meningitis, but neck stiffness is more likely to accompany the latter two. Neurologic sequelae: Look for diplopia, mental status changes or associated symptoms (numbness, weakness, dizziness, ataxia, visual disturbances), papilledema, or pupillary abnormalities (partial CN III palsy or Horner’s syndrome). Patient risk factors: High-risk patients are > 50 years of age, immunocompromised, or with preexisting malignancy. If SAH is suspected, obtain a head CT without contrast. If CT is , LP is mandatory. Obtain a CBC." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0532_19131", "title": "Migraine with aura, bipolar depression, ACM aneurysm. A case report.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "B.D. is a 48-year-old professional woman. She has been suffering for migraine since she was 28, but she did not have serious problems until last year, when headache episodes became more frequent and it was necessary an admission to emergency room. At the beginning, the events were about 6 per month, lasting from 2 to 4 days, beating and of high intensity together with nausea, vomit, photo and phonophobia and visual area. Looking at the anamnesis, we report a psychiatric treatment since about ten years, because of type II bipolar disorder. In spite of the psychopharmacological treatment, as the patient came in our Regional Headache Center, she talked about 7 events with aura (scintillating scotomas, emianopsia) per month, lasting 2-4 days with photo and phonophobia, nausea, crying crisis, anxiety. Although the neurological examination was normal, the sudden aggravation of pain symptomatology and the unresposiveness to usual painkillers, suggested a cerebral CT and CT-angiography. CT and CT-angiography discovered the presence of an aneurysm of the right middle cerebral artery (MCA) of 4 mm diameter, with parietal irregularities. The patient was operated to reduce the hemorrhagic risk, with a positive result. One year after the operation, the patient reports a decrease of headache events with a frequency of 2 per month, lasting only a few hours, which she can now solve with COXIB." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0264_8593", "title": "Experience in the diagnosis of headaches that start in elderly people.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "The diagnoses of the 193 patients aged 65 and over who attended the service of neurology in the past 15 years with de novo headache as their initial and main symptom were specifically analysed. Headaches beginning in elderly people represented only 5.4% of headaches in all ages, whereas 12.1% of the population in this health area was 65 or over. Head pain appeared more often in women (63%), although post-traumatic, cluster, and benign cough headaches were almost restricted to men. Tension type headache (83 patients, 43% of the aged patients) and idiopathic trigeminal neuralgia (36, 19%) were the most frequent diagnoses. Fifteen per cent of the elderly patients v 1.6% of patients under 65 presented headache secondary to serious conditions, such as stroke, temporal arteritis, or intracranial neoplasm. Only one patient over 65 met migraine criteria. It is concluded that whereas the incidence of patients with headache attending a general hospital decreases with age, the risk of headaches due to serious conditions increases 10-fold after 65." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0761_919", "title": "A case of migraine without aura that was successfully treated with an herbal medicine.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Migraine is a common neurologic condition characterized by the disabling effects it has on the patient. Despite recent progress in drug development, better pharmacotherapies against migraine are still needed. This report describes an herbal medicine that has a strong pain-relieving effect against migraine. This case involved a 49-year-old woman with a 16-year history of headaches. Migraine without aura had been diagnosed at age 47 years. Despite taking antiepileptic drugs as prophylaxis, she had migraines almost three times a week, especially in the morning. As a result, 3 months before her visit to the study clinic she was prescribed sumatriptan, which she had to take for each attack. However, sumatriptan sometimes failed to work as a painkiller, and the patient did not want to continue taking it because she was worried about overuse. According to traditional Japanese (Kampo) and Chinese herbal medicine, the patient was prescribed an oral sanno-shashin-to (Xie Xin Tang) extract formula to take at night to prevent her migraines. Soon after she started taking the formula, the intensity of her morning headaches markedly decreased, to the extent that triptans were no longer needed. Furthermore, her residual headaches quickly disappeared after the additional administration of the formula in the morning. Sanno-shashin-to might have both prophylactic and therapeutic effects against migraine without aura. Although the underlying mechanism behind the effectiveness of this herbal medicine against migraine has not been fully elucidated, it is a possible option for the treatment of this type of headache." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_9479", "title": "Migraine", "score": 0.009086237023332305, "content": "Differential diagnosis Other conditions that can cause similar symptoms to a migraine headache include temporal arteritis, cluster headaches, acute glaucoma, meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Temporal arteritis typically occurs in people over 50 years old and presents with tenderness over the temple, cluster headache presents with one-sided nose stuffiness, tears and severe pain around the orbits, acute glaucoma is associated with vision problems, meningitis with fevers, and subarachnoid hemorrhage with a very fast onset. Tension headaches typically occur on both sides, are not pounding, and are less disabling. Those with stable headaches that meet criteria for migraines should not receive neuroimaging to look for other intracranial disease. This requires that other concerning findings such as papilledema (swelling of the optic disc) are not present. People with migraines are not at an increased risk of having another cause for severe headaches. Prevention" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0510_4987", "title": "[The importance of neurological examinations in the age of the technological revolution].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Neurologic practice and care have been modified in many important ways during the past ten years, to adapt to the explosion of new information and new technology. Students, residents and practicing physicians have been continuing programs to a model that focuses almost exclusively on the applications to neurologic disorders of the new knowledge obtained from biomedical research. On the other hand high demand for outpatient neurologic care prevents adequate patient's evaluation. Case 1: 65 years old female. Occipital headache diagnosed of tensional origin (normal computerized tomography). Two months later is re-evaluated due to intractable pain and hypoglossal lesion. An amplified computerized tomography revealed a occipital condyle metastasis. Case 2: 21 years old female. Clinical suspicion of demyelinating disease due to repeated facial paresis and sensitive disorder. General exploration and computerized tomography revealed temporo-mandibular joint. Case 3: 60 years old female. Valuation of anticoagulant therapy due to repeated transient ischemic attacks. She suffered from peripheral facial palsy related to auditory cholesteatoma. Neurologic education is nowadays orientated to new technologies. On the other hand, excessive demand prevents adequate valuation and a minute exploration is substituted by complementary evaluations. These situations generate diagnostic mistakes or iatrogenic. It would be important a consideration of the neurologic education profiles and fulfillment of consultations time recommendations for outpatients care." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_1445", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.008967801167289659, "content": "Headaches of Temporal Arteritis (Giant Cell Arteritis) (See Also Chap. 33) This type of inflammatory disease of cranial arteries is an important cause of headache in older persons. All of our patients have been older than 55 years of age, most of them older than age 65. From a state of normal health, the patient develops an increasingly intense throbbing or nonthrobbing headache, often with superimposed sharp, stabbing pains. In a few patients the headache has had an almost explosive onset. The pain is usually unilateral, sometimes bilateral, and often localized to the site of the affected arteries in the scalp. The pain persists to some degree throughout the day and is particularly severe at night. It lasts for many months if untreated. The superficial temporal and other scalp arteries are frequently thickened and tender and without pulsation. Jaw claudication and ischemic nodules on the scalp, with ulceration of the overlying skin, have been described in severe cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0751_13299", "title": "Combination of acupuncture and spinal manipulative therapy: management of a 32-year-old patient with chronic tension-type headache and migraine.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The purpose of this case study is to describe the treatment using acupuncture and spinal manipulation for a patient with a chronic tension-type headache and episodic migraines. A 32-year-old woman presented with headaches of 5 months' duration. She had a history of episodic migraine that began in her teens and had been controlled with medication. She had stopped taking the prescription medications because of gastrointestinal symptoms. A neurologist diagnosed her with mixed headaches, some migrainous and some tension type. Her headaches were chronic, were daily, and fit the International Classification of Headache Disorders criteria of a chronic tension-type headache superimposed with migraine. After 5 treatments over a 2-week period (the first using acupuncture only, the next 3 using acupuncture and chiropractic spinal manipulative therapy), her headaches resolved. The patient had no recurrences of headaches in her 1-year follow-up. The combination of acupuncture with chiropractic spinal manipulative therapy was a reasonable alternative in treating this patient's chronic tension-type headaches superimposed with migraine." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0475_3541", "title": "[Spontaneous intracranial internal carotid artery dissection: 6 case reports and a review of 39 cases in the literature].", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Angiographic, CT and MR findings, precipitating factors, and clinical features of spontaneous intracranial internal carotid artery dissection, in particular the terminal segment of the ICA, are described. Patients who had a possible posttraumatic dissection were excluded from the study. Six patients, 3 men and 3 women, mean age 25.8 years, were studied. Spontaneous ICA dissection accounted for 0.63 percent of 797 patients with ischemic stroke and 14 percent of 36 patients with ischemic stroke who were 45 years of age or younger. Headache was absent in two but clearly preceded the onset of cerebral stroke in four patients, the interval ranging from less than a few minutes to 6 hours. Focal cerebral ischemic symptoms were present in all six patients. Four presented with loss of consciousness. Only one patient had a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Dissection occurred at the level of the carotid knee portion just beyond the origin of the ophthalmic artery in all the patients. Moreover, there was additional involvement of the ipsilateral MCA in four and ipsilateral ACA in three. Angiographic features of the six ICAs that involved dissection were a smooth tapered luminal narrowing or occlusion in two patients, irregular narrowing in three, a pearl and string sign in one, and retention of the contrast media in three. Follow up angiography or magnetic resonance (MR) angiography was performed on all the patients. The interval from the initial to follow-up angiography was one to six months. Stenosis persisted in one artery but was resolved in the other five arteries. MR angiography showed segmental narrowing of the right supraclinoid internal carotid artery in one patient. MR angiographic source images showed a narrow lumen in the right intracavernous portion of the ICA and a crescent-shaped filling defect. Follow-up MR imaging and MR angiography, 6 months after the initial study, showed amelioration of the luminal narrowing and no filling defect. The filling defect is considered to be due to a thrombosed pseudolumen. Treatment consisted of anticoagulation therapy for two patients, hyperbaric therapy for two, and supportive measures only for two. Follow-up ranged from ten months to three years. Of these six patients with completed stroke, four had full recovery, and two some residual neurological deficits. Trivial precipitating events were reported by five of the patients (playing tennis, running, bicycling, and drinking alcohol). Migraine headaches were cited by one patient, use of oral contraceptives by another, and use of tobacco by a third. All the patients were normotensive. In none of them was family history contributory, nor was any underlying arteriopathy identified. Of the six personal cases and the reviewed 25 cases during the last 15 years, represented on the Glasgow Outcome Scale, good recovery was achieved in 61%. The outcomes for these patients was better than previously reported. Spontaneous intracranial ICA dissection may cause ischemic stroke, with or without subarachnoid hemorrhage, especially in young patients." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0712_25046", "title": "An evidence-based approach to managing the anticoagulated patient in the emergency department.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "You start another busy shift with a double row of charts waiting to be seen. Your first patient is an elderly man who fell 1 hour prior to presentation. He did not lose consciousness, but he was dazed for a few minutes. He complains of a mild headache but denies any neck pain. He takes warfarin for valvular heart disease. He looks good and has no focal neurological complaints. His mental status is normal, he has a negative head CT scan, and his INR is 3.9. His family wants to take him home, which would help relieve some of the congestion in the ED, but you wonder what would be best. To observe and repeat imaging? Reverse his anticoagulation? Change his dosing regimen of warfarin? In the next room, you quickly evaluate a 51-year-old obese woman with nonspecific back and abdominal pain that started 24 hours before and has slowly progressed to become intolerable. She denies fever, chills, nausea, or vomiting. She is on the last day of a 5-day course of ciprofloxacin for a UTI. She takes warfarin for a pulmonary embolus that occurred 2 months prior. Her hematocrit is mildly decreased, and her white blood count is normal; however, the INR is 6.8. You wonder if her abdominal pain is related to the UTI, or if it could be somehow related to the prolonged INR. In fact, you wonder why her INR is so prolonged..." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_1379", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.008785154322679678, "content": "One accepts that the headache of migraine may be almost exclusively on one side of the head but the invariant occurrence of migraine-like headache on the same side of the head increases the likelihood of an underlying arteriovenous malformation (AVM) or other structural lesion. R.D. Adams, who studied more than 1,200 patients with AVM found that the headaches, which occurred in more than 30 percent of these individuals, usually did not include the other features of either migraine or cluster headache. However, in about 5 percent, the headaches were associated with visual aura, making them indistinguishable from migraine with aura. In most, the AVM was in the occipital region and on the side of the headache. Approximately half of the patients with AVM and migraine had a family history of migraine. It is unclear to us if AVM can be regarded as an acknowledged cause of recurrent migraine-like headache. It is, of course, possible that given the ubiquity of migraine in the population, that" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0922_1451", "title": "Confusion recurs 2 weeks after fall.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "A 77-year-old woman presented to the emergency department complaining of a headache following a syncopal episode (while standing) earlier that day. She said that she'd lost consciousness for several minutes, and then experienced several minutes of mild confusion that resolved spontaneously. On physical exam, she was oriented to person and place, but not time. She had a contusion in her left occipitoparietal region without extensive bruising or deformity. The patient had normal cardiopulmonary, abdominal, and neurologic exams. Her past medical history included hypertension and normal pressure hydrocephalus, and her vital signs were within normal limits. She was taking aspirin once daily. The patient's initial head and neck computerized tomography (CT) scans were normal, but she was hospitalized because of her confusion. During her hospitalization, the patient had mild episodic headaches that resolved with acetaminophen. The next day, her confusion resolved, and repeat CT scans were unchanged. She was discharged within 24 hours. Two weeks later, the patient returned to the hospital after her daughter found her on the toilet, unable to stand up from the sitting position. She was confused and experienced a worsening of headache during transport to the hospital. No recurrent falls or additional episodes of trauma were reported. A CT scan was performed. WHAT IS YOUR DIAGNOSIS? HOW WOULD YOU TREAT THIS PATIENT?" } ] } } }

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{ "1": "Capsule endoscopy.", "2": "Colonoscopy.", "3": "Serology for hepatitis b and c virus.", "4": "Intestinal biopsy.", "5": "Abdominal ultrasound." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n1164_2588", "title": "Epstein-Barr Virus Hepatitis Masquerading as Painless Jaundice.", "score": 0.018521679754182313, "content": "Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection typically presents with pharyngeal symptoms and subclinical transaminitis. We present a case of a 27-year-old woman with no known past medical history who presented with painless jaundice and dark-colored urine for three days. Her review of systems was negative for fever, sore throat, nausea, vomiting, pruritus, or rash. Her last sexual contact was six months ago with a male partner, and she only drank alcohol socially. Family and surgical history were non-significant. Physical examination revealed 3+ bilateral conjunctival icterus without abdominal tenderness or organomegaly. She had elevated transaminases: alanine transaminase (ALT) of 1287U/L and aspartate aminotransferase of (AST) 1057U/L but her alkaline phosphatase (ALP) was only slightly above normal at 109U/L (normal range 35-104U/L), with a direct hyperbilirubinemia - total bilirubin 9.5mg/dl, direct bilirubin 6.8mg/dl; the abdominal ultrasound revealed non-dilated bile ducts. Hepatitis A, B, and C serology was negative, but her EBV serology showed an infection. She had incidental thalassemia minor without splenomegaly or asterixis. She was managed conservatively, and her liver enzymes trended down with supportive management. Although EBV is an uncommon cause of painless jaundice, this diagnosis should be considered, especially when other more common causes of jaundice have been ruled out. A high index of suspicion should be maintained to detect EBV hepatitis as it can easily be diagnosed through serological testing." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0372_4087", "title": "[Bleeding gastric ulcers and acute hepatitis: 2 simultaneous adverse reactions due to nimesulide in a case].", "score": 0.0166532366371206, "content": "A 66 year-old obese woman with arthrosis, self-medicated with oral nimesulide, 200 mg daily. After 6 weeks she developed nausea, jaundice and dark urine. Two weeks later she had recurrent hematemesis and was hospitalized. Besides obesity and anemia her physical examination was unremarkable. An upper GI endoscopy revealed 3 acute gastric ulcers and a 4th one in the pyloric channel. Abdominal ultrasonogram showed a slightly enlarged liver with diffuse reduction in ecogenicity; the gallbladder and biliary tract were normal. Blood tests demonstrated a conjugated hyperbilirubinemia (maximal total value: 18.4 mg/dl), ALAT 960 U/l, ASAT 850 U/l, GGT 420 U/l, alkaline phosphatases mildly elevated, pro-time 49% and albumin 2.7 mg/dl. Serum markers for hepatitis A, B and C viruses were negative. ANA, AMA, anti-SmA, were negative. Ceruloplasmin was normal. A liver biopsy showed bridging necrosis and other signs of acute toxic liver damage. Gastric ulcers healed after conventional treatment and hepatitis subsided after 2 months leaving no signs of chronic liver damage. The diagnosis of toxic hepatitis due to nimesulide was supported by the time-course of drug usage, sex, age, absence of other causes of liver disease, a compatible liver biopsy and the improvement after drug withdrawal. Peptic ulcers or toxic hepatitis have been previously described as independent adverse reactions in patients taking nimesulide or other NSAIDs but their simultaneous occurrence in a single patient is a unique event that deserves to be reported." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0972_20626", "title": "Chronic GI bleeding in a middle-aged woman.", "score": 0.01566111881645862, "content": "A middle-aged woman without any underlying systemic disease was referred to our hospital due to a 1-month history of recurrent black diarrhoea and anaemia. At presentation, her vital signs were stable and the physical examination was unremarkable except for pale conjunctiva. Laboratory tests showed iron-deficiency anaemia with a haemoglobin concentration of 7.3 g/dL (reference range, 11.1-15.1 g/dL). As she had no severe symptoms of anaemia, we administered oral iron preparations without blood transfusion and her anaemia was gradually corrected. Oesophagogastroduodenoscopy, colonoscopy and contrast-enhanced abdominal CT revealed no cause of bleeding, so obscure GI bleeding was suspected. Capsule enteroscopy revealed black fluid in the proximal small intestine, and subsequent peroral double-balloon enteroscopy detected a 1 cm diameter hemispheric elevated lesion at the upper jejunum (figure 1A, B). The lesion was non-pulsatile and hard in consistency, appearing as a submucosal tumour (SMT). An ulcer was located at the top of the lesion, suggesting the source of bleeding, although no blood clot was present around the site.gutjnl;68/8/1385/F1F1F1Figure 1Endoscopic findings of the jejunum on white light endoscopy (A) and chromoendoscopy with indigo carmine dye (B). What is your diagnosis? Do you try to obtain biopsy specimens from this lesion?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1045_469", "title": "A Case of Brucellosis with Possible Ileal Involvement.", "score": 0.014474304573314476, "content": "Brucellosis is a zoonotic disease that can involve different organs and tissues. Fever, fatigue, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, and arthritis are the usual modes of presentation. Gastrointestinal manifestations of human brucellosis are common but documented ileal involvement is extremely rare. A 68-year-old female presented with a history of 10 days of intense temporal migraine, photophobia, and phonophobia with partial response to paracetamol. The patient referred night sweats, anorexia, and colicky abdominal pain after her meals for the past 4 months followed by diarrhea. She denied nausea, vomiting, hypersensitivity of the scalp, blurry vision, melena, or rectal bleeding. She denied travelling or contact with animals. Physical examination revealed fever (38.3°C) and splenomegaly. Laboratory workup revealed Hb 7.8 g/dL, leukopenia (3.47 × 10<sup9</sup/L), C-reactive protein 5.94 mg/dL, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate 23 mm/h. Abdominal ultrasound showed hepatic steatosis and mild homogeneous splenomegaly. Chest radiography was normal. Lumbar puncture; transcranial, carotid, and temporal arteries Doppler, and head computed tomography (CT) did not show any significant changes. Abdominal CT showed diffuse thickening of the ileum and some mildly swollen locoregional lymph nodes. Fecal calprotectin was not elevated. Blood cultures and serologies were positive for <iBrucella</i (positive Rose-Bengal test, ELISA IgM-positive, IgG-negative anti-brucella antibody serology and positive Huddleson reaction - titer 1:320). The patient was started on rifampicin 600 mg/day and doxycycline 100 mg q. 12 h for 10 weeks with good clinical and analytical response. Upper and lower gastrointestinal endoscopy were normal, although the last was done already under antibiotic treatment. Although gastrointestinal manifestations of brucellosis are quite common, ileitis is thought to be extremely rare. In countries where brucellosis is endemic, doctors must consider this diagnosis when faced with patients with systemic symptoms and diarrhea or abdominal pain. Early recognition of brucellosis and institution of appropriate therapy usually leads to a good recovery without complications." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en003_62165", "title": "Jaundice", "score": 0.01278038601982264, "content": "Diagnosis Most people presenting with jaundice have various predictable patterns of liver panel abnormalities, though significant variation does exist. The typical liver panel includes blood levels of enzymes found primarily from the liver, such as the aminotransferases (ALT, AST), and alkaline phosphatase (ALP); bilirubin (which causes the jaundice); and protein levels, specifically, total protein and albumin. Other primary lab tests for liver function include gamma glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) and prothrombin time (PT). No single test can differentiate between various classifications of jaundice. A combination of liver function tests and other physical examination findings is essential to arrive at a diagnosis. Laboratory tests" }, { "id": "article-22788_3", "title": "Hepatitis B -- Introduction", "score": 0.012295646899897995, "content": "Initial symptoms are nonspecific and may include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and jaundice. In cases of severe liver damage, patients can develop jaundice, hepatic encephalopathy, ascites, gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to esophageal varices, coagulopathy, or infections. Diagnosis is based on serologic blood tests in patients with suspected signs and symptoms and associated risk factors for viral hepatitis. This will be discussed in more detail below." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en384_17416", "title": "Megaduodenum", "score": 0.011954677049016671, "content": "Acute pancreatitis, adhesions, aneurysm all clinically lead to Megaduodenum. Diagnosis Diagnostic tests and procedures can vary for different types of intestinal disorders. These can include colonoscopy, upper GI endoscopy, capsule endoscopy, endoscopic ultrasound. Since patients with megaduodenum often have atypical symptoms such as hematemesis, steatorrhea, and acute pancreatitis. Therefore, physical and histological examination helps demonstrate the grade of distention and the nutritional status of the patient. Many of the physical examinations include: blood pressure, bowel sounds, blood tests, and thyroid function. In addition, a histological examination such as upper endoscopy, an X-ray of the abdomen, and biopsies can also be performed to diagnose megaduodenum efficiently." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_7055", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011611492196043346, "content": "Symptom No. of Patients (%) No symptom 129 (24) Abdominal pain 219 (40) Other (workup of anemia and various 64 (12) diseases) Routine physical exam finding, elevated LFTs 129 (24) Weight loss 112 (20) Appetite loss 59 (11) Weakness/malaise 83 (15) Jaundice 30 (5) Routine CT scan screening of known cirrhosis 92 (17) Cirrhosis symptoms (ankle swelling, 98 (18) abdominal bloating, increased girth, pruritus, GI bleed) Diarrhea 7 (1) Tumor rupture 1 Mean age (yr) 56 ± 13 Male:Female 3:1 Ethnicity Abbreviations: CT, computed tomography; GI, gastrointestinal; LFT, liver function test. esophageal varices from the underlying portal hypertension. Bone pain is seen in 3–12% of patients, but necropsies show pathologic bone metastases in ∼20% of patients. However, 25% of patients may be asymptomatic." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1155_25665", "title": "Single organ hepatic artery vasculitis as an unusual cause of epigastric pain: A case report.", "score": 0.010256679991584262, "content": "Single-organ vasculitis (SOV) is characterized by inflammation of a blood vessel, affecting one organ, such as the skin, genitourinary system, or the aorta without systemic features. Gastrointestinal SOV is rare, with hepatic artery involvement reported only in two prior published cases. Herein, we presented a case of isolated hepatic artery vasculitis presenting after Pfizer-BioNTech mRNA corona virus disease 2019 (COVID-19) vaccination. A 50-year-old woman with hypertension presented to our Emergency Department with recurrent diffuse abdominal pain that localized to the epigastrium and emesis without diarrhea that began eight days after the second dose of the Pfizer-BioNTech COVID-19 vaccine. Blood work revealed an elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) of 19 mg/L (normal &lt; 4.8 mg/L), alkaline phosphatase 150 U/L (normal 25-105 U/L), gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 45 U/L (normal &lt; 43 U/L) and elevated immunoglobulins (Ig) G 18.4 g/L (normal 7-16 g/L) and IgA 4.4 g/L (normal 0.7-4 g/L). An abdominal computed tomography revealed findings in keeping with hepatic artery vasculitis. A detailed review of her history and examination did not reveal infectious or systemic autoimmune causes of her presentation. An extensive autoimmune panel was unremarkable. COVID-19 polymerase chain reaction nasopharyngeal swab, human immunodeficiency virus, viral hepatitis and <iHeliobacter pylori</i serology were negative. At six months, the patient's symptoms, and blood work spontaneously normalized. High clinical suspicion of SOV is required for diagnosis in patients with acute abdominal pain and dyspepsia." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_23043", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "attendant expense. Decision-analysis studies show that serology testing for celiac sprue in patients with IBS-D has an acceptable cost when the prevalence of celiac sprue is >1% and is the dominant strategy when the prevalence is >8%. In patients with concurrent symptoms of dyspepsia, upper GI radiographs or esophagogastroduodenoscopy may be advisable. In patients with postprandial right upper quadrant pain, an ultrasonogram of the gallbladder should be obtained. Laboratory features that argue against IBS include evidence of anemia, elevated sedimentation rate, presence of leukocytes or blood in stool, and stool volume >200–300 mL/d. These findings would necessitate other diagnostic considerations." }, { "id": "article-74397_9", "title": "Duodenal Ulcer -- History and Physical", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Patients who initially present with ulcer-related complications may present with symptoms suggestive of upper GI bleed, including melena, hematemesis, elevated BUN, and anemia of varying degrees in severity with associated fatigue. Patients who present with more alarming symptoms such as anemia, melena, or hematemesis, which may represent perforation or bleeding, will likely require more invasive forms of evaluation. The patient's history and age should also be considered when considering duodenal ulcers as part of the differential diagnosis, especially when patients present with more non-specific symptoms such as epigastric abdominal pain. Duodenal ulcers may occur in any age group. However, they are most commonly diagnosed in patients aged 20 to 45 and are more common in men than women. Most patients will have a history of presenting symptoms consistent with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) associated with a previous diagnosis of H. pylori and/or heavy NSAID use. Other elements of the history to consider include smoking history, daily aspirin use, and history of GI malignancy. On physical examination, patients may have epigastric abdominal tenderness, and if presenting with complications, they may demonstrate signs of anemia such as pale skin and positive fecal occult blood test." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3047", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Discriminating functional and organic causes of indigestion man dates excluding certain historic and exam features. Odynophagia suggests esophageal infection. Dysphagia is concerning for a benign or malignant esophageal blockage. Other alarm features include unexplained weight loss, recurrent vomiting, occult or gross bleed ing, jaundice, palpable mass or adenopathy, and a family history of gastrointestinal neoplasm. Because indigestion is prevalent and most cases result from GERD or functional dyspepsia, a general principle is to perform only lim ited and directed diagnostic testing of selected individuals." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0777_87", "title": "Acute cytomegalovirus hepatitis in an immunocompetent host.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "A 52-year-old woman presented with a 1-week history of recurrent fevers and joint pains accompanied by abdominal and low back discomfort. She has a history of hypoparathyroidism and is on calcium supplements. Physical examination revealed fever and tachycardia. The rest of the examination was normal. Laboratory tests showed newly increased transaminase activity. Serum bilirubin and prothrombin time were normal. She was admitted for evaluation of acute hepatitis. Serology for hepatitis A, B, C and HIV were negative. Her serum acetaminophen and alcohol were undetected. Abdominal imaging was normal. Cultures were sterile. Additional tests for uncommon viral hepatitis included herpes simplex virus, cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus. Liver biopsy revealed non-specific inflammation. Subsequently, cytomegalovirus serology showed an IgM positive and negative IgG titre. Cytomegalovirus DNA qualitative PCR was also positive. No antiviral medication was given. She continued to have intermittent daily fever but reported no associated symptoms. She was discharged 9 days after admission in stable condition per her request with the advice to follow-up in the clinic in 1 week. Her serum hepatic profile returned to normal and she reported no more episodes of fever. Repeated titres of cytomegalovirus serology showed seroconversion. " }, { "id": "pubmed23n0086_20113", "title": "Evaluation of jaundice in general practice.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Though there are many causes of jaundice, the GP's role is to differentiate that which is secondary to obstruction from that which is caused by viral hepatitis. Useful laboratory tests for both have changed in recent years and the diagnosis and treatment of extrahepatic obstruction has been revolutionised by endoscopic techniques." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en085_30376", "title": "Abdominal mass", "score": 0.009559626859399949, "content": "Diagnosis The first steps in diagnosis are a medical history and physical examination. Important clues during history include weight loss, diarrhea and abdominal pain. During physical examination, the clinician must identify the location of the mass, as well as characterize its location (usually specified in terms of quadrants). The mass should be assessed for whether it is rigid or mobile. It should also be characterized for pulse or peristalsis, as these would help in further identifying the mass. Routine blood tests are usually the next step in diagnosis after a thorough medical history and physical examination. They should include a full blood count, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, and liver function tests such as albumin, international normalized ratio (INR), partial thromboplastin time (PTT), serum amylase and total bilirubin (TBIL). If late-stage liver disease is suspected, then a serum glucose may be appropriate." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0551_9237", "title": "Sister Mary Joseph's nodule as a presenting sign of internal malignancy.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "CASE 1: A 64-year-old, otherwise healthy woman was referred to the surgery clinic for a presumed umbilical hernia. On physical examination, a cutaneous nodule was noted on the umbilical region and the patient was referred to the dermatology clinic. The patient was reexamined and an erythematous nodule was observed in the umbilicus measuring 2.5 cm in diameter. The patient denied pain, change in bowel habits, or weight loss. There were no other abdominal masses, no sign of ascites, and no regional lymphadenopathy. A skin biopsy from the nodule showed mucinous adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemical staining was positive for carcinoembryonic antigen, and negative for cytokeratin (CK)7 and CK20. These results were consistent with a Sister Mary Joseph's nodule and led to the diagnosis of an occult colon carcinoma. The patient had no risk factors for colorectal carcinoma. The patient underwent surgery in another hospital, and died 3 months after the initial diagnosis of Sister Mary Joseph's nodule. CASE 2: A 73-year-old woman was referred to the dermatology clinic for evaluation of a painful, ulcerated, 3-cm lesion in the umbilicus (Figure 1). She was otherwise asymptomatic. A skin biopsy showed neoplastic glandular cells infiltrating among collagen bundles (Figure 2). Stainings for mucin and for CK7 were positive, while staining for CK20 was negative. An abdominopelvic CT scan demonstrated a 3.5-cm space-occupying lesion in the liver. Results of gastroscopy, colonoscopy, chest computed tomographic (CT) scan, and mammography were normal. Serum levels of the tumor-associated protein CA125 were elevated to 164 units, while those of CA 19-9 and carcinoembryonic antigen were within normal range. A gynecologic examination and a transvaginal ultrasound were normal. The patient had no personal or family history of any malignancy or any risk factors for developing a carcinoma. The patient was scheduled for a palliative resection of the umbilical nodule, combined with a laparoscopic inspection in search of the undetected primary tumor. She refused surgery and was lost to follow-up. She died 4 months after the initial diagnosis of umbilical metastasis. CASE 3: A 51-year-old man was aware of a silent mass in his umbilicus for 2 years without seeking medical advice. Following 2 weeks of increasing pain in this area, he was referred to the emergency room for a suspected incarcerated umbilical hernia. Surgery revealed a mass attached to the fascia and peritoneal fat. The mass was removed and diagnosed as a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma, staining positively for carcinoembryonic antigen, and negatively for CK20, CK7, prostate-specific antigen, and prostatic acid phosphatase. Both gastroscopy and colonoscopy failed to detect the primary tumor. An abdominopelvic CT scan was normal, but a CT scan of the chest disclosed a nodule measuring 2.5 x 1.5 cm in the lower lobe of the right lung. On bronchoscopy, it was found to be an invasive adenocarcinoma, consistent with a primary tumor of the lung. The patient was a heavy smoker (45 pack-years). The patient received 4 cycles of combined chemotherapy with carboplatine and gemcitabine, with no improvement. A month later, the patient complained of abdominal pain. Following demonstration of intra-abdominal spread of disease by CT scan, a second line chemotherapy was instituted with paclitaxel. A month later the patient's condition deteriorated and he complained of cough, sweating, and pain along the right leg. A bone scan revealed bone metastases in the right femur and left tibia. Two weeks later he was admitted to the hospital with intestinal obstruction and underwent laparotomy. He had massive intra-abdominal spread of cancer and ascites. Only a palliative colostomy was performed. The patient died 3 weeks later, 9 months after the diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the lung. The clinical data on the three patients are summarized in Table I." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0243_450", "title": "Analysis of patients referred to the gastroenterology service of a VA medical center.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "We recorded clinical information over a 12-month period on consecutive consultations to the gastroenterology service of the Durham VA Medical Center. Of 902 consultations, 789 were prospectively collected. Eighty-five percent of the patients were between 40 and 70 years old. Seventy-five percent of the referrals were from the internal medicine service. The most frequent reasons for consultation were abdominal pain (19%), GI bleeding (active, 16%; occult, 9%), abnormal results of liver tests (18%), and request for a procedure (11%). Diseases of the liver (32%) and \"peptic diseases\" (30%) were the most common diagnoses. One or more procedures were done in 71% of consultations. When these data are compared with those of a practicing gastroenterologist, using an identical instrument, it is apparent that trainees' experience with structurally identifiable gastroenterologic disease and with a variety of procedures was similar in scope. There were, however, differences in that the physicians at the VA saw substantially fewer patients with so-called \"functional\" illness. If these data are applicable to other VA Medical Centers, then the training of physicians in gastroenterology at a VA Medical Center should probably be broadened." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1048_11127", "title": "Masquerading in the midgut: a rare diagnosis in a patient with recurrent abdominal pain.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A 38-year-old woman who had been previously diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome was seen in the outpatient clinic with a 2-year history of intermittent cramp-like abdominal pain which was often followed by watery diarrhoea. She had presented several times previously to the emergency department with episodes of severe pain and collapse although on arrival examination findings were mostly unremarkable other than some mild lower abdominal tenderness. On each occasion, the symptoms resolved spontaneously with conservative management. She had been extensively investigated by her general practitioner to establish the cause of her symptoms but all laboratory findings, cross-sectional imaging, ultrasound and oesophagogastroduodenoscopy to date were unremarkable. After being seen in gastroenterology outpatients' clinic, a colonoscopy was performed and was described as being macroscopically normal but microscopic evaluation of colonic biopsies suggested a possible 'resolving infection'. She was treated symptomatically, but within 6 months she represented to hospital with progressively worsening symptoms of severe abdominal pain, now associated with vomiting, followed by watery diarrhoea and then resolution of the symptoms. An abdominal CT scan was performed which showed a small intraluminal-filling defect in the mid-terminal ileum. A wireless capsule endoscopy was organised to further characterise the lesion although this was reported as showing no abnormality. Prior to any further outpatient investigations, she represented as an emergency to hospital in small bowel obstruction, underwent further cross-sectional imaging followed by surgical resection of the lesion. Histological characterisation revealed a small bowel inflammatory fibroid polyp." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1046_1553", "title": "A novel segmental absence of intestinal musculature with small intestinal stenosis: a case report.", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Segmental absence of intestinal musculature (SAIM) is a rare cause of intestinal obstruction and perforation due to partial or complete defects in the intestinal muscularis propria in neonates and is occasionally observed in adulthood. The first case of small intestinal stenosis derived from SAIM, which was difficult to differentiate from Crohn's disease (CD), is reported. A 4-year-old girl presented with abdominal pain, anemia, and a positive fecal occult blood test. She was initially diagnosed with CD and started on treatment. Because her gastrointestinal symptoms persisted, her previous pediatricians tried to carry out capsule endoscopy, but it was not possible because the patency capsule was retained. Therefore, she was referred to our institute and re-evaluated. The patency capsule examination was repeated to re-evaluate small intestinal passage, but it stagnated again. Abdominal ultrasonography showed a poorly deformable intestinal tract that narrowed rapidly from the dilated segment and had a thin wall with an irregular laminar structure. In addition, unlike the typical ultrasonic CD findings, the power Doppler signal enhancement at the intestinal wall and \"creeping fat sign\" were not found. The patient was referred for laparoscopic observation to pediatric surgeons, who confirmed a prominently dilated intestinal tract 40 cm proximal to the ileocecal valve, which was resected. Histopathological findings showed longitudinal muscle hypoplasia of the resected, dilated intestinal tract and fat replacement of the muscle layer. At the stenosis site, the muscle layer was fibrotic and showed incomplete muscle arrangement. Because of these findings, she was diagnosed with SAIM. After the surgical treatment, no gastrointestinal symptoms relapsed, and the fecal occult blood test has remained negative for 2 years. Moreover, 8 months after surgery, double-balloon endoscopy showed no abnormalities, such as a longitudinal ulcer and cobblestone appearance. In the present case, SAIM involved not only intestinal ileus and perforation, but also small intestinal stenosis. Although no other reports have demonstrated the usefulness of abdominal ultrasonography for the diagnosis of SAIM, the present report suggests that ultrasonography may be useful for differentiating SAIM from CD by close observation of the area around the small intestinal stenosis." }, { "id": "article-23802_38", "title": "Jaundice -- Consultations", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Specific challenging patients may require specialty consultations for further workup and management. Gastroenterology specialists most frequently consult on undiagnosed cases of jaundice. [31]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0529_23339", "title": "Autoimmune hepatitis triggered by acute hepatitis A.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The patient was a 57-year-old woman presenting with jaundice as the chief complaint. She began vomiting on July 10, 2003. Jaundice was noted and admitted to our hospital for thorough testing. Tests on admission indicated severe hepatitis, based on: aspartate aminotransferase (AST), 1 076 IU/L; alanine aminotransferase (ALT), 1 400 IU/L; total bilirubin (TB), 20.9 mg/dL; and prothrombin time rate (PT%), 46.9%. Acute hepatitis A (HA) was diagnosed based on negative hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C virus RNA and positive immunoglobulin (Ig) M HA antibody, but elevation of anti-nuclear antigen (X320) and IgG (3 112 mg/dL) led to suspicion of autoimmune hepatitis (AIH). Plasma exchange was performed for 3 d from July 17, and steroid pulse therapy was performed for 3 d starting on July 18, followed by oral steroid therapy. Liver biopsy was performed on August 5, and the results confirmed acute hepatitis and mild chronic inflammation. Levels of AST and ALT normalized, so dose of oral steroid was markedly reduced. Steroid therapy was terminated after 4 mo, as the patient had glaucoma. Starting 3 mo after cessation of steroid therapy, levels of AST and ALT began to increase again. Another liver biopsy was performed and AIH was diagnosed based on serum data and biopsy specimen. Oral steroid therapy was reinitiated. Levels of AST and ALT again normalized. The present case was thus considered to represent AIH triggered by acute HA." }, { "id": "article-22784_30", "title": "Hepatitis -- History and Physical -- Viral Hepatitis", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "Phase 2 (prodromal phase) - Patients in this phase usually present with anorexia, nausea, vomiting, malaise, pruritus, urticaria, arthralgias, and fatigue. Many times these patients are misdiagnosed as having gastroenteritis or viral infection. Phase 3 (icteric phase) - Patients in this phase present with dark-colored urine and pale-colored stool. Some patients develop jaundice and right upper quadrant pain with liver enlargement. Phase 4 (convalescent phase) - Patients typically start noticing the resolution of symptoms, and laboratory studies show liver enzymes returning to normal levels. [32]" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0594_7725", "title": "Ulcus vulvae acutum in a 13-year-old girl after influenza A infection.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "A 13-year-old otherwise healthy premenarchal girl presented with acute onset of painful vulvar ulcerations. One day before developing vulvar ulcerations, she experienced flu-like symptoms, including a low-grade fever, cough, sore throat, and myalgia. Results of a throat swab were positive for influenza A infection (polymerase chain reaction [PCR] assay), and the patient was treated with oseltamivir. The patient's constitutional symptoms improved slightly, but within 2 days after her initial presentation, she returned to her primary care provider and described 24 hours of dysuria and vulvar swelling. She had a history of herpes labialis (cold sores) and rare episodes of minor oral aphthae (canker sores) that occurred less than twice a year. The patient denied a history of sexual activity, sexual abuse, or physical trauma. Physical examination showed ulceration and swelling of the labia minora, and the patient received an empiric dose of acyclovir (200 mg 4 times daily) for presumed autoinoculated herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection. An ulcer swab was performed, and urinalysis revealed no evidence of infection. Two days later, the patient presented to the emergency department with increasing vulvar pain and vaginal discharge. The previous ulcer swab findings were negative for HSV (PCR assay), and consequently, acyclovir was discontinued after 1 day of therapy. She received topical viscous lidocaine and an empiric dose of oral fluconazole. The lidocaine provided temporary symptomatic relief. Results of DNA amplification studies were negative for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. A potassium hydroxide preparation was negative for fungi, and an ulcer swab for bacterial culture revealed usual flora. Of note, the PCR assay for Epstein-Barr virus was not performed on ulcer cells. The patient was referred to the department of dermatology, and results of a physical examination showed copious white mucoid discharge and a 2-cm ulceration of the left labia minora (Figure, panel A). Two smaller pinpoint ulcerations and swelling of the left labia minora were also noted. The lesions were clinically indistinguishable from the genital aphthous ulcers of patients with complex aphthosis (recurrent, severe aphthous ulcers on oral or genital mucosa). A diagnosis of ulcus vulvae acutum was made, and treatment was started with clobetasol 0.05% ointment (4 times daily) and lidocaine gel as needed. Four days later, the patient reported marked symptomatic improvement. Physical examination showed near resolution of the large vulvar ulceration (Figure, panel B). The patient tapered use of clobetasol ointment over the next several days until the ulcerations healed completely. Two months after her initial episode, the patient again had 3 small vulvar erosions after symptoms that included low-grade fever, malaise, and vomiting. She did not receive oseltamivir for this illness; clobetasol ointment was applied 4 times daily, and the vulvar erosions ameliorated within a few days. Her constitutional symptoms resolved without treatment. The patient has not experienced any further episodes of vulvar ulcerations in the 18 months after the most recent treatment." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3211", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "PART 2 Cardinal Manifestations and Presentation of Diseases A nonbloody nasogastric aspirate may be seen in up to ~18% of patients with UGIB, usually from a duodenal source. Even a bile-stained appearance does not exclude a bleeding postpyloric lesion because reports of bile in the aspirate are incorrect in ~50% of cases. Testing of aspirates that are not grossly bloody for occult blood is not useful. EVALuATION AND MANAgEMENT OF ugIB (FIg. 57-1)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0972_7733", "title": "Spontaneous Cure of Acute Hepatitis C.", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "The statistics proved that approximately 25% of the patients with acute HCV present with jaundice, and only 10-20% develop gastrointestinal symptoms. We present the case of a 58 year-old woman, with prior antecedents of arterial hypertension and diabetes mellitus since 25 years old, hypercholesterolemia and hypertriglyceridemia, psoriasis, epilepsy and depressive syndrome. She clinically presents asthenia, anorexia, itching, jaundice and choluria. The objective examination showed an orientated patient, without flapping, hemorrhagic dyscrasia or signs of chronic hepatic disease, with icteric mucosa and skin, abdominal pain, with hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. The laboratory tests have been compatible with acute hepatitis with colestatic pattern: AST/ALT 969/798 UI/ml, FA 796 UI/ml, GGT 2476 UI/ml, BT/BD 7.39/6.10, INR 0.9. The abdominal echography showed: hepatomegaly, regular borders, hepatic steatosis, splenomegaly without ascitic fluid. The viral serological tests revealed protection for hepatitis A ( IgM neg/IgG pos), negative for HVB infection (AgHBs neg, anti-HBc neg), negative for HVE and other viruses (CMV Herpes virus, Epstein Barr, HIV), positive antibodies for HCV and positive RNA VHC (164200 UI/ml), HCV genotype 3a, IL-28B CT, negative autoimmunity. The previous HCV tests were negative, sustaining the recent infection. We assumed an acute hepatitis C. The patient was symptomatically treated with hydroxyzine for the skin itch, with vitamin K for INR correction and she was closely monitored. She had good clinical and laboratorial evolution and she was discharged after one week, maintaining hepatology consultation. She spontaneously cleared HCV infection after 3 months, maintaining negative RNA VHC 6 months after infection. The patient has cured the HCV infection with no need for antiviral treatment." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_12591", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Any remaining symptoms are not due to H. pylori FIGuRE 188-2 Algorithm for the management of Helicobacter pylori infection. *Note that either the urea breath test or the stool antigen test can be used in this algorithm. Occasionally, endoscopy and a biopsy-based test are used instead of either of these tests in follow-up after treatment. The main indication for these invasive tests is gastric ulceration; in this condition, as opposed to duodenal ulceration, it is important to check healing and to exclude underlying gastric adenocarcinoma. However, even in this situation, patients undergoing endoscopy may still be receiving proton pump inhibitor therapy, which precludes H. pylori testing. Thus a urea breath test or a stool antigen test is still required at a suitable interval after the end of therapy to determine whether treatment has been successful (see text). †Some authorities use empirical third-line regimens, of which several have been described." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0412_18897", "title": "Cases from the Osler Medical Service at Johns Hopkins University.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "A 37-year-old woman presented with increasing abdominal pain and jaundice. Six weeks before admission, she developed persistent diarrhea and jaundice of the skin. She also bruised easily, and her gums bled. In the subsequent weeks, her appetite decreased, she was fatigued, and she had nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension. She had a history of drinking 1 quart of vodka every day for 20 years, with brief periods of abstinence; she stopped consuming alcohol 11 days before admission because it no longer provided symptomatic relief. Her past medical history was also notable for depression, including a suicide attempt 4 years earlier. She did not smoke, use illicit drugs, or have unprotected sexual intercourse. She had received no blood transfusions and had not traveled recently. She took no medications, except for occasional ibuprofen. On physical examination, she was thin and deeply jaundiced, and she trembled and responded slowly to questions. She was afebrile but tachypneic, and she had orthostatic hypotension. Her HEENT examination was notable for scleral and sublingual icterus, as well as crusted blood on her gums and teeth. The jugular veins were flat. The cardiac examination revealed tachycardia (heart rate, 103 beats per minute) without murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The abdomen was nontender and protuberant, with hypoactive bowel sounds; the spleen was not palpable, and there was no fluid wave or caput medusae. The liver percussed to 18 cm, with a smooth edge extending 10 cm below the costal margin. She had cutaneous telangiectases on her chest and bilateral palmar erythema. There was no peripheral edema. The neurologic examination was notable for asterixis. Her stool was guaiac positive. Laboratory studies revealed the following values: hematocrit, 21.2%; white blood cells, 17,310/mm(3); ammonia, 42 micromol/L; serum creatinine, 3.9 mg/dL; serum urea nitrogen, 70 mg/dL; albumin, 2.1 g/dL; total bilirubin, 26.8 mg/dL; alanine aminotransferase, 14 U/L; aspartate aminotransferase, 77 U/L; alkaline phosphatase, 138 U/L; prothrombin time, 103 seconds (international normalized ratio, 10.6); and urinary sodium, &lt;5 mg/dL. Urinalysis revealed an elevated specific gravity and numerous muddy granular casts. Hepatitis A, B, and C serologies were negative. On abdominal ultrasound examination, there was no ascites, and the liver was echogenic. The portal and hepatic veins were patent, and the hepatic arteries were normal. The spleen measured 14 cm. What is the diagnosis?" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0016_10148", "title": "[Diagnosis of jaundices in tropical practice (author's transl)].", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Diagnosis of jaundices in tropical medicine complies with the same rules as in Europe. Some etiologies occur more frequently than in Europe; others, specific to tropical areas require peculiar investigations. Most jaundices observed overseas are hemolytic or hepatitic. Their diagnosis is generally easy. However, chronic viral hepatitis, a frequent infection, requires liver needle-biopsy for a valid diagnosis. The diagnosis of cholestatic jaundice must be conducted in a systematic fashion: if abdominal echotomography is not available, laparoscopy with or without liver needle-biopsy and percutaneous lateral transhepatic cholangiography (OKU-DA's technique) are easily performed in tropical countries and give a certain diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0593_6063", "title": "Evolution from primary biliary cirrhosis to primary biliary cirrhosis/autoimmune hepatitis overlap syndrome.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "An asymptomatic 70-year-old Hispanic woman with type 2 diabetes was found in 2004 to have an AST of 132 U/L, ALT 146 U/L, alkaline phosphatase 1107 U/L, total serum bilirubin 3.5 mg/dL, and albumin 2.9 g/dL. Viral hepatitis testing was negative. Serum IgG, IgA, and IgM were all elevated, antimitochondrial antibody was weakly positive, and antinuclear antibody was negative. Liver biopsy was reported to show \"evolving cirrhosis with marked lymphoid hyperplasia.\" Although the indication was nowhere stated, she was prescribed ursodeoxycholic acid 500 mg b.i.d, on which her biochemical tests initially improved. One year later she developed itching and jaundice. Imaging studies revealed multiple gallstones. An MRCP was suggestive of cirrhosis with a questionable common bile duct stricture, and she underwent ERCP with removal of gallbladder and common bile duct stones and placement of a biliary stent. A periampullary mass, which proved to be a somatostatinoma, was excised in 2006 via an open laparotomy, at which the stent was removed and a second liver biopsy performed. It was reported as showing chronic active hepatitis, activity stage 2, and fibrosis grade 3 with bridging. Her subsequent course was complicated by recurrent bleeding from small bowel arteriovenous malformations. Seen for the first time at Columbia University Medical Center in January 2007, she complained of continuing pruritus. AST was 69 U/L, ALT 43 U/L, alkaline phosphatase 491 U/L, and total bilirubin 3.3 mg/dL. Serum albumin was 2.6 g/dL. Antinuclear antibodies, negative in 2004, were now positive at 1:320, and antimitochondrial M2 antibodies were strongly positive. Serum IgG and IgA, but NOT IgM, were elevated. Review of her outside liver biopsies revealed features of primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) in the first, and of both PBC and autoimmune hepatitis (AIH) in the second. The patient exhibits an overlap syndrome, in which both histologic and serologic features of AIH evolved in a setting initially most suggestive of PBC alone. The phenomenon of autoimmune overlap syndromes is discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1021_3025", "title": "Diagnostic Utility of Ultrasonography for Duodenal Ulcers in Pediatric Cases in Japan.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "<bObjective:</b To evaluate the diagnostic utility of wall hypertrophy of the duodenal bulb with a hyperechoic lumen, designated as the \"HH sign,\" using ultrasound sonography (US) in pediatric duodenal ulcer (DU) patients. <bStudy design:</b We performed a US for five pediatric subjects diagnosed with DU by upper gastroscopy to determine the presence of the potentially diagnostic HH sign. The sonographic images were analyzed before and after DU treatment. Computed tomography was performed in three cases and fecal occult blood test (FOBT) in all five cases. <bResults:</b Upper gastroscopy confirmed DU in all patients. While the HH sign was observed using US in four cases, with the DU located in the anterior bulb, the FOBT was positive in only one case. In these four cases, the HH sign diminished in response to treatment, as visualized by US. This was observed for both the initial as well as recurrent episodes. A mass-like region was observed in only one case, with the ulcer located in the proximity of the inferior duodenal wall. <bConclusion:</b The HH sign is useful for the follow-up of DU, and US may be a suitable modality for the follow-up. We believe that this diagnostic marker can aid in following up a greater number of DU cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0864_20336", "title": "[Capsule endoscopy for Behcet's disease-treatment: five cases reports].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Behcet's disease (BD) is a chronic vascular inflammatory disease of unknown causes. It is called intestinal BD, when digestive tract is involved. To investigate small bowel feature of intestinal BD, we now report 5 intestinal BD cases undergone capsule endoscopy from December, 2010 to April, 2014 in Peking University People's Hospital. General information, clinical feature and endoscopic feature were presented, and literatures were reviewed. There were 3 male and 2 female patients. Age range was from 23 to 55 years old (median age 40 years old). Disease course was from 3 days to 28 years (median course 9 years). 4 patients were diagnosed as systemic BD, and the rest independent intestinal BD. 4 systemic BD patients all presented as recurrent oral aphthous as initial symptom and had history of vulvar ulcer and skin lesion. They all had gastrointestinal symptoms, including retrosternal pain (2 cases), hematochezia (3 cases), diarrhea (3 cases) and abdominal pain (2 cases). 1 patient had a history of fistula of ileocecal junction and underwent caecectomy. 5 patients all underwent whole digestive tract examination by endoscopy, including gastroscopy, colonoscopy and capsule endoscopy.Except of 1 normal result of colonoscopy, all endoscopy results revealed lesions. Capsule endoscopy results of all patients were abnormal. Types of small intestinal lesion were various, including ulceration, erosion, protrusion and vasculopathy. All digestive tract can be involved in BD patients. Capsule endoscopy can evaluate lesions throughout whole digestive tract, especially in small intestine. As a consequence, it is helpful to explain gastrointestinal symptom, increase early diagnostic rate. Intestinal BD (IBD) mainly involves small bowel, and ileum is the major involved segment, not only limited in ileocecum. The updated perspective of IBD lesion distribution will contribute to differential diagnosis between IBD and Crohn's disease.This is the first time to report capsule endoscopic feature of BD patients in China. " }, { "id": "article-30802_8", "title": "Urea Breath Test -- Indications", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "The urea breath test is useful for both initial diagnosis and eradication of infection. [9] [23] Most patients with H. pylori are asymptomatic. [1] In the absence of alarm symptoms for gastric malignancy, UBT could be utilized to diagnose H. pylori . [23] Noninvasive tests, either UBT or SAT, are preferred for patients who do not need an endoscopic evaluation but have diseases strongly associated with H. pylori such as patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD), either with a history of active PUD or past medical history of PUD with no documented eradication. [5] [19] For patients less than 60 years with dyspepsia, a non-invasive H. pylori test could be offered in the absence of alarming symptoms (GI bleeding, anemia, significant weight loss, loss of appetite, dysphagia, significant emesis, family history of GI malignancy, and history of GI cancer) and if the test result is positive, H. pylori treatment could be offered. [20] [16] [5] [19] [32] For patients over 60 years with dyspepsia, an EGD is recommended to evaluate for both H. pylori and more importantly, to evaluate also other causes such as malignancy. [16] Similarly, EGD could also be considered for younger patients less than 60 years of age who have a higher risk of malignancy such as a family history of gastric cancer or living in places with a high prevalence of gastric cancer. [16] Furthermore, H. pylori infections are also associated with other conditions such as unexplained iron-deficiency anemia (after a thorough negative evaluation), and immune thrombocytopenia in adults and testing for H. pylori can be a consideration. [5] [19] Before the initiation or continuation of long-term NSAIDs or aspirin, the clinician needs to rule out H. pylori due to increased chances of development of PUD and its complications. [5] For eradication testing, UBT should be offered after 4 to 8 weeks of completion of the eradication treatment. [8] Here PPI should be discontinued at least two weeks before the testing to avoid a false negative result. [5] [7] [8]" } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 338, 413 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 52, 65 ] ], "text": "The rest of the entities offered do not present with chylous ascitic fluid." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 83, 337 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 12, 52 ] ], "text": "Taking into account the age of the patient and the constitutional syndrome described, it is most likely to be a non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and not tuberculosis, which also presents with chylous ascitic fluid, since there is no mention of infectious symptoms." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 83, 337 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 12, 52 ] ], "text": "Taking into account the age of the patient and the constitutional syndrome described, it is most likely to be a non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and not tuberculosis, which also presents with chylous ascitic fluid, since there is no mention of infectious symptoms." }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 338, 413 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 52, 65 ] ], "text": "The rest of the entities offered do not present with chylous ascitic fluid." }, "5": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 338, 413 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 52, 65 ] ], "text": "The rest of the entities offered do not present with chylous ascitic fluid." } }

{ "1": "Hydropic decompensation secondary to liver cirrhosis.", "2": "Chylous ascites due to non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.", "3": "Peritoneal tuberculosis.", "4": "Peritoneal metastasis of adenocarcinoma.", "5": "Ascites secondary to constrictive pericarditis." }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en010_106203", "title": "Ascites", "score": 0.01899189918991899, "content": "Ascites is the abnormal build-up of fluid in the abdomen. Technically, it is more than 25 ml of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, although volumes greater than one liter may occur. Symptoms may include increased abdominal size, increased weight, abdominal discomfort, and shortness of breath. Complications can include spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In the developed world, the most common cause is liver cirrhosis. Other causes include cancer, heart failure, tuberculosis, pancreatitis, and blockage of the hepatic vein. In cirrhosis, the underlying mechanism involves high blood pressure in the portal system and dysfunction of blood vessels. Diagnosis is typically based on an examination together with ultrasound or a CT scan. Testing the fluid can help in determining the underlying cause." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_106205", "title": "Ascites", "score": 0.018779756656674307, "content": "Ascites is detected with physical examination of the abdomen by visible bulging of the flanks in the reclining person (\"flank bulging\"), \"shifting dullness\" (difference in percussion note in the flanks that shifts when the person is turned on the side), or in massive ascites, with a \"fluid thrill\" or \"fluid wave\" (tapping or pushing on one side will generate a wave-like effect through the fluid that can be felt in the opposite side of the abdomen). Other signs of ascites may be present due to its underlying cause. For instance, in portal hypertension (perhaps due to cirrhosis or fibrosis of the liver) people may also complain of leg swelling, bruising, gynecomastia, hematemesis, or mental changes due to encephalopathy. Those with ascites due to cancer (peritoneal carcinomatosis) may complain of chronic fatigue or weight loss. Those with ascites due to heart failure may also complain of shortness of breath as well as wheezing and exercise intolerance." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en058_67753", "title": "Paracentesis", "score": 0.016968325791855206, "content": "Paracentesis (from Greek κεντάω, \"to pierce\") is a form of body fluid sampling procedure, generally referring to peritoneocentesis (also called laparocentesis or abdominal paracentesis) in which the peritoneal cavity is punctured by a needle to sample peritoneal fluid. The procedure is used to remove fluid from the peritoneal cavity, particularly if this cannot be achieved with medication. The most common indication is ascites that has developed in people with cirrhosis. Indications It is used for a number of reasons: to relieve abdominal pressure from ascites to diagnose spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and other infections (e.g. abdominal TB) to diagnose metastatic cancer to diagnose blood in peritoneal space in trauma For ascites" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en628_16913", "title": "Hepatic hydrothorax", "score": 0.015388257575757576, "content": "The most noticeable symptoms are usually those of cirrhosis and portal hypertension. Most people have signs of end-stage liver disease. pleuroperitoneal communications. The main method of diagnosis is extracting the fluid via thoracentesis. After this, the fluid is analyzed for diagnosis and to help rule out other possible causes like infection or cancer. The fluid can be analyzed for serum, protein, albumin, lactate dehydrogenase, and cell count. The fluid is a transudate and similar to fluid found in ascites. There may be a higher protein and albumin content in hepatic hydrothorax due to the pleura absorbing the water. To rule out heart-related causes of pleural effusion, an echocardiogram can be performed. Pleuroperitoneal communications are best detected by peritoneal scintigraphy. In this procedure, radioactive tracer is injected via needle into ascitic fluid, a procedure known as paracentesis. After that, a gamma camera is used to take images, showing the tracer in the pleural" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0901_13091", "title": "Visceral scalloping on abdominal computed tomography due to abdominal tuberculosis.", "score": 0.015082337249268968, "content": "Scalloping of visceral organs is described in pseudomyxoma peritonei, malignant ascites, among other conditions, but not tuberculosis. We report findings from a retrospective study of patients with abdominal tuberculosis who had visceral scalloping on abdominal computed tomography (CT). Diagnosis of abdominal tuberculosis was made on the basis of combination of clinical, biochemical, radiological and microbiological criteria. The clinical data, hematological and biochemical parameters, and findings of chest X-ray, CT, Mantoux test, and HIV serology were recorded. Of 72 patients with abdominal tuberculosis whose CT scans were included, seven patients had visceral scalloping. The mean age of these patients was 32.14 ± 8.43 years and four were men. While six patients had scalloping of liver, one had splenic scalloping. The patients presented with abdominal pain (all), abdominal distension (five patients), loss of weight or appetite (all), and fever (four patients). Mantoux test was positive in five, while none had HIV infection. The diagnosis was based on fluid (ascitic or collections) evaluation in four patients, ileo-cecal biopsy in one patient, fine needle aspiration from omental thickening in one patient, and sputum positivity for acid fast bacilli (AFB) in one patient. On CT examination, four patients had ascites, five had collections, one had lymphadenopathy, four had peritoneal involvement, three had pleural effusion, and two had ileo-cecal thickening. All except one patient received standard ATT for 6 months or 9 months (one patient). Pigtail drainage for collections was needed for two patients. This report is the first description of visceral scalloping of liver and spleen in patients with abdominal tuberculosis. Previously, this finding has been reported primarily with pseudomyxoma peritonei and peritoneal carcinomatosis. Visceral scalloping may not conclusively distinguish peritoneal tuberculosis from peritoneal carcinomatosis or pseudomyxoma peritonei." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0981_6671", "title": "Peritoneal lymphoma with ascites mimicking portal hypertensive ascites: A case report.", "score": 0.01444672131147541, "content": "Lymphoma with an initial manifestation of ascites and peritoneal invasion is rare. A 65-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with a 3-week history of abdominal distention, anorexia, and night sweating, and a 2-week history of melena. She was a silent hepatitis B virus carrier. Abdominal ultrasound showed massive ascites without cirrhosis. Abdominal computed tomography revealed ascites, infiltrative peritoneal lesions with omental cake appearance, and lymphadenopathies. We performed paracentesis and the ascites cytology was obtained. The patient also underwent esophagogastroduodenoscopy, which showed ulcerative tumors in the stomach. Both ascites cytology and pathology of the gastric tumors confirmed the diagnosis of B-cell lymphoma. This patient received 7 cycles of chemotherapy. Follow-up imaging studies revealed partial remission of lymphoma, but an enlargement of residual tumors in omentum and mesentery, which resulted in intractable ascites and rapid deterioration of performance status. Despite a change of regimen of chemotherapy, this patient expired 10 months after diagnosis. Lymphoma should be one of the differential diagnoses in patients with intractable ascites not attributable to other comorbidities." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en617_34490", "title": "Abdominal tuberculosis", "score": 0.014019082691663876, "content": "The definitive diagnosis can be established by demonstrating Mycobacterium tuberculosis in peritoneal fluid or in a biopsy specimen. The histopathologic findings of tuberculosis in biopsy, such as caseous granuloma, can be suggestive of tuberculosis, but is not pathognomic. CT scan offers evaluation of involvement of the liver or other organs, as well as for the presence of ascites, lymphadenopathy and peritoneal involvement. Ultrasound scan is useful for demonstrating lymphadenopathy and ascites." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0268_11798", "title": "The role of laparoscopy in the evaluation of ascites of unknown origin.", "score": 0.013716404077849862, "content": "The role of laparoscopy in the diagnostic evaluation of ascites of unknown origin was studied in 129 patients. Laparoscopic results were as follows: (1) Carcinomatosis peritonei in 78 (60.5%). Peritoneal biopsies in 76 of these cases revealed malignancy in 67 (adenocarcinoma 62, lymphoma 4, mesothelioma 1) and tuberculosis in 5; specimens were inadequate for diagnosis in 4. (2) Tuberculous peritonitis in 26 (20.2%). Peritoneal biopsies in 24 of these cases revealed tuberculosis in 22 and non-specific chronic peritonitis in 2. (3) Cirrhosis in 7 (5.4%). (4) No gross abnormality in 18 (14.0%). Of the latter, causes of ascites had already been identified in 13 (72.2%), including chronic renal failure in 7, systemic lupus erythematosus in 2, constrictive pericarditis in 2, chronic pancreatitis with chylous ascites in 1, and retroperitoneal lymph node metastasis with chylous ascites in 1. Thus, laparoscopic observation in combination with biopsy established the cause of ascites of unknown origin in 111 (86.0%) of 129 patients. Most of the 18 patients without gross laparoscopic abnormality had underlying disease identified as a cause of ascites; laparoscopy was indicated in these cases to exclude other processes that may also cause ascites." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en207_19022", "title": "Peritoneal fluid", "score": 0.013414029871876548, "content": "Peritoneal fluid is a serous fluid made by the peritoneum in the abdominal cavity which lubricates the surface of tissue that lines the abdominal wall and pelvic cavity. It covers most of the organs in the abdomen. An increased volume of peritoneal fluid is called ascites. Sampling of peritoneal fluid is generally performed by paracentesis. Peritoneal fluid analysis The serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is the most useful index for evaluating peritoneal fluid and can help distinguish ascites caused by portal hypertension (cirrhosis, portal vein thrombosis, Budd-Chiari syndrome, etc.) from other causes of ascites. SAAG is calculated by subtracting the albumin measure of ascitic fluid from the serum value. In portal hypertension, the SAAG is >1.1 g/dL while ascites from other causes shows a SAAG of less than 1.1 g/dL." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en008_27351", "title": "Peritonitis", "score": 0.013106973347937203, "content": "Peritonitis is inflammation of the localized or generalized peritoneum, the lining of the inner wall of the abdomen and cover of the abdominal organs. Symptoms may include severe pain, swelling of the abdomen, fever, or weight loss. One part or the entire abdomen may be tender. Complications may include shock and acute respiratory distress syndrome. Causes include perforation of the intestinal tract, pancreatitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, stomach ulcer, cirrhosis, or a ruptured appendix. Risk factors include ascites (the abnormal build-up of fluid in the abdomen) and peritoneal dialysis. Diagnosis is generally based on examination, blood tests, and medical imaging. Treatment often includes antibiotics, intravenous fluids, pain medication, and surgery. Other measures may include a nasogastric tube or blood transfusion. Without treatment death may occur within a few days. About 20% of people with cirrhosis who are hospitalized have peritonitis. Signs and symptoms" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_106207", "title": "Ascites", "score": 0.013057378428403165, "content": "Causes of low SAAG (\"exudate\") are Cancer (metastasis and primary peritoneal carcinomatosis) – 10% Infection: Tuberculosis – 2% or spontaneous bacterial peritonitis Pancreatitis – 1% Serositis Nephrotic syndrome Hereditary angioedema Other rare causes Meigs syndrome Vasculitis Hypothyroidism Renal dialysis Peritoneum mesothelioma Abdominal tuberculosis Mastocytosis Diagnosis Routine complete blood count (CBC), basic metabolic profile, liver enzymes, and coagulation should be performed. Most experts recommend a diagnostic paracentesis be performed if the ascites is new or if the person with ascites is being admitted to the hospital. The fluid is then reviewed for its gross appearance, protein level, albumin, and cell counts (red and white). Additional tests will be performed if indicated such as microbiological culture, Gram stain and cytopathology." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3293", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.013030997000290295, "content": "FIguRE 59-2 CT of a patient with peritoneal carcinomatosis (white arrow) and ascites (yellow arrow). Cirrhosis accounts for 84% of cases of ascites. Cardiac ascites, peritoneal carcinomatosis, and “mixed” ascites resulting from cirrhosis and a second disease account for 10–15% of cases. Less common causes of ascites include massive hepatic metastasis, infection (tuberculosis, Chlamydia infection), pancreatitis, and renal disease (nephrotic syndrome). Rare causes of ascites include hypothyroidism and familial Mediterranean fever. Once the presence of ascites has been confirmed, the etiology of the ascites is best determined by paracentesis, a bedside procedure in which a needle or small catheter is passed transcutaneously to extract ascitic fluid from the peritoneum. The lower quadrants are the most frequent sites for paracentesis. The left lower quadrant is preferred because of the greater depth of ascites and the thinner abdominal wall." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0507_10205", "title": "Diagnosis of abdominal tuberculosis: experience from 11 cases and review of the literature.", "score": 0.012714460784313725, "content": "To analyze the experience within our hospital and to review the literature so as to establish the best means of diagnosis of abdominal tuberculosis. The records of 11 patients (4 males, 7 females, mean age 39 years, range 18-65 years) diagnosed with abdominal tuberculosis in Harran University Hospital between January 1996 and October 2003 were analyzed retrospectively and the literature was reviewed. Ascites was present in all cases. Other common findings were weight loss (81%), weakness (81%), abdominal mass (72%), abdominal pain (72%), abdominal distension (63%), anorexia (45%) and night sweat (36%). The average hemoglobin was 8.2 g/dL and the average ESR was 50 mm/h (range 30-125). Elevated levels of cancer antigen CA-125 were determined in four patients. Abdominal ultrasound showed abnormalities in all cases: ascites in all, tuboovarian mass in five, omental thickening in 3, and enlarged lymph nodes (mesenteric, para-aortic) in 2. CT scans showed ascites in all, pelvic mass in 5, retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy in 4, mesenteric stranding in 4, omental stranding in 3, bowel wall thickening in 2 and mesenteric lymphadenopathy in 2. Only one patient had a chest radiograph suggestive of a new TB lesion. Two had a positive family history of pulmonary TB. None had acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in the sputum and the tuberculin test was positive in only two. Laparotomy was performed in 6 cases, laparoscopy in 4 and ultrasound-guided fine needle aspiration in 2. In those patients subjected to operation, the findings were multiple diffuse involvement of the visceral and parietal peritoneum, white 'miliary nodules' or plaques, enlarged lymph nodes, ascites, 'violin string' fibrinous strands, and omental thickening. Biopsy specimens showed granulomas, while ascitic fluid showed numerous lymphocytes. Both were negative for acid-fast bacilli by staining. PCR of ascitic fluid was positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis (M. tuberculosis) in all cases. Abdominal TB should be considered in all cases with ascites. Our experience suggests that PCR of ascitic fluid obtained by ultrasound-guided fine needle aspiration is a reliable method for its diagnosis and should at least be attempted before surgical intervention." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en079_49101", "title": "Shifting dullness", "score": 0.012320593452668924, "content": "If the borders between tympanitic (resonant) and dull notes remain the same, the person probably does not have ascites, or has less than 2 litres of free fluid present. If the fluid causing the dullness was not free, then the air-fluid level would not move. Shifting dullness is usually present if the volume of ascitic fluid is up to 500 mL ml. If low volume ascites is suspected, then an attempt to elicit the puddle sign may be performed. In some cases, the ascites collide to form a bigger ascites. This creates a different kind of shifting dullness. See also Abdominal examination Fluid wave test Bulging flanks Puddle sign References Medical signs" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en287_28720", "title": "Peritoneal mesothelioma", "score": 0.012239583333333333, "content": "Diagnosis Peritoneal mesothelioma has two clinical types which can be differentiated with the help of CT findings, the \"dry\" type, and the \"wet\". It is classified as \"dry\" when there are multiple tiny masses or one dominant localized mass and generally little or no ascites. The \"wet\" type has widespread small nodules, no dominant mass, and a presence of ascites. If fluid is found, the process of eliminating it is through paracentesis; however, the analysis of this fluid has limited diagnostic significance. Normally, a definitive diagnosis may be obtained through tissue biopsy." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1132_17880", "title": "Ascites of Unexplained Origin: A Case Report.", "score": 0.01200042858673524, "content": "Ascites is defined as a massive collection of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and it is most commonly caused by portal hypertension due to liver cirrhosis, acute liver failure, and heart failure. We report a case of ascites in a 39-year-old male who presented to the ED complaining of abdominal distention, sporadic pain on the epigastric area, unintentional weight loss over the past two months, night sweats, and blood-mixed stool. We conducted several imaging investigations and laboratory studies and none of them revealed any significant findings except for the abdominal CT with contrast, which showed large ascites along with submucosal fat deposition in the long segment of the transverse colon, suggestive of chronic inflammation [probably inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)], omental caking, and thickening. Peritoneal malignancy was highly suspected. A diagnostic/therapeutic paracentesis was performed, through which 8 L of fluid was drained. Cytology was also performed and this showed mostly reactive mesothelial cells, negative acid-fast bacilli (AFB) culture, and negative polymerase chain reaction (PCR). We also discuss the other investigations performed, none of which helped in establishing a diagnosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0071_20474", "title": "Symptoms and investigative findings in 145 patients with tuberculous peritonitis diagnosed by peritoneoscopy and biopsy over a five year period.", "score": 0.012000400013333776, "content": "This study analysed clinical features and laboratory investigations in 145 patients with tuberculous peritonitis diagnosed by peritoneoscopy at this hospital between 1984 and 1988. Tuberculous peritonitis was found in 2% of all patients with tuberculosis and in 59.8% of all those with abdominal tuberculosis admitted to the hospital during the study period. Tuberculous peritonitis was more common in women than men (1.4:1) and was most frequently encountered in the third and fourth decades of life. The commonest presenting symptoms were abdominal swelling (73.1%), fever and night sweats (53.8%), anorexia (46.9%), weight loss (44.1%), and abdominal pain (35.9%). The mean duration of symptoms was 1.5 months. Ascites was the commonest (95.2%) physical sign. Tuberculin skin testing was positive in 57.6% of patients (n = 118). The mean erythrocyte sedimentation rate was 75 mm/1st hour (n = 58). Chest radiography on 98 patients showed pleuropulmonary pathology in 40 patients (40.8%). Sputum examination confirmed active pulmonary tuberculosis in 26 patients. The ascitic fluid was an exudate in 96.4% and a transudate in 3.6% of patients, with 91.3% showing a straw coloured ascites. Cirrhosis, detected by biopsy specimen, was a finding in 6.2% of patients." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en025_83072", "title": "Portal hypertension", "score": 0.011838101034692634, "content": "Signs and symptoms Signs and symptoms of portal hypertension include: Ascites (free fluid in the peritoneal cavity), Abdominal pain or tenderness (when bacteria infect the ascites, as in spontaneous bacterial peritonitis). Increased spleen size (splenomegaly), which may lead to lower platelet counts (thrombocytopenia) Anorectal varices Swollen veins on the anterior abdominal wall (sometimes referred to as caput medusae) In addition, a widened (dilated) portal vein as seen on a CT scan or MRI may raise the suspicion about portal hypertension. A cutoff value of 13 mm is widely used in this regard, but the diameter is often larger than this is in normal individuals as well." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_106208", "title": "Ascites", "score": 0.011805403030968591, "content": "The serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is probably a better discriminant than older measures (transudate versus exudate) for the causes of ascites. A high gradient (> 1.1 g/dL) indicates the ascites is due to portal hypertension. A low gradient (< 1.1 g/dL) indicates ascites of non-portal hypertensive as a cause. Ultrasound investigation is often performed prior to attempts to remove fluid from the abdomen. This may reveal the size and shape of the abdominal organs, and Doppler studies may show the direction of flow in the portal vein, as well as detecting Budd-Chiari syndrome (thrombosis of the hepatic vein) and portal vein thrombosis. Additionally, the sonographer can make an estimation of the amount of ascitic fluid, and difficult-to-drain ascites may be drained under ultrasound guidance. An abdominal CT scan is a more accurate alternate to reveal abdominal organ structure and morphology." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0895_21859", "title": "Large hepatocellular carcinoma in a non-cirrhotic liver with peritoneal and omental metastasis in a healthy man: a case report.", "score": 0.011801977440467902, "content": "Liver cancer is the second leading cause of cancer death in men worldwide. Hepatocellular carcinoma usually develops in the setting of cirrhosis or chronic inflammation. Major risk factors for developing hepatocellular carcinoma are chronic hepatitis B or C virus infection, alcoholic cirrhosis, and nonalcoholic fatty liver disease. The most frequent locations for hepatocellular carcinoma to metastasize are the lungs, portal vein, bones, and regional lymph nodes. A 41-year-old Sri Lankan man presented with progressive abdominal distension and on examination was found to have a palpable irregular mass in the left lobe of his liver with moderate ascites. His ascitic fluid was an exudate without malignant cells. An ultrasound scan and contrast-enhanced computed tomography of his abdomen showed a large contrast-enhancing lesion in the left lobe of his liver without features of cirrhosis. Laparoscopic assessment revealed peritoneal and omental deposits. Histology of the biopsies taken from the liver lesion, omental deposits, and peritoneal deposits supported a diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma. His liver biochemistry was normal and hepatitis serology was negative. He is abstinent from alcohol and did not have metabolic syndrome. It is rare for a young patient to develop hepatocellular carcinoma with a normal liver without chronic hepatitis B or C infection, or any other risk factors. Intraperitoneal metastasis of non-ruptured hepatocellular carcinoma is also very rare. Here we report a rare case of a 41-year-old man with a large hepatocellular carcinoma in a non-cirrhotic liver without chronic hepatitis who presented with peritoneal and omental metastasis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en010_106209", "title": "Ascites", "score": 0.011609690594751861, "content": "Classification Ascites exists in three grades: Grade 1: mild, only visible on ultrasound and CT Grade 2: detectable with flank bulging and shifting dullness Grade 3: directly visible, confirmed with the fluid wave/thrill test Pathophysiology Ascitic fluid can accumulate as a transudate or an exudate. Amounts of up to 35 liters are possible. Roughly, transudates are a result of increased pressure in the hepatic portal vein (>8 mmHg, usually around 20 mmHg (e.g., due to cirrhosis), while exudates are actively secreted fluid due to inflammation or malignancy. As a result, exudates are high in protein and lactate dehydrogenase and have a low pH (<7.30), a low glucose level, and more white blood cells. Transudates have low protein (<30 g/L), low LDH, high pH, normal glucose, and fewer than 1 white cell per 1000 mm3. Clinically, the most useful measure is the difference between ascitic and serum albumin concentrations. A difference of less than 1 g/dl (10 g/L) implies an exudate." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3299", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011477987421383649, "content": "288 be measured. In contrast to “spontaneous” bacterial peritonitis, which may complicate cirrhotic ascites (see “Complications,” below), secondary peritonitis is suggested by an ascitic glucose level <50 mg/dL, an ascitic LDH level higher than the serum LDH level, and the detection of multiple pathogens on ascitic fluid culture. When pancreatic ascites is suspected, the ascitic amylase level should be measured and is typically >1000 mg/dL. Cytology can be useful in the diagnosis of peritoneal carcinomatosis. At least 50 mL of fluid should be obtained and sent for immediate processing. Tuberculous peritonitis is typically associated with ascitic fluid lymphocytosis but can be difficult to diagnose by paracentesis. A smear for acid-fast bacilli has a diagnostic sensitivity of only 0 to 3%; a culture increases the sensitivity to 35–50%. In patients without cirrhosis, an elevated ascitic adenosine deaminase level has a sensitivity of >90% when a cut-off value of 30–45 U/L is used. When" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en057_10116", "title": "Hepatorenal syndrome", "score": 0.01119044095886357, "content": "Certain precipitants of HRS have been identified in vulnerable individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant liver failure. These include bacterial infection, acute alcoholic hepatitis, or bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, which is the infection of ascites fluid, is the most common precipitant of HRS in cirrhotic individuals. HRS can sometimes be triggered by treatments for complications of liver disease: iatrogenic precipitants of HRS include the aggressive use of diuretic medications or the removal of large volumes of ascitic fluid by paracentesis from the abdominal cavity without compensating for fluid losses by intravenous replacement." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en032_4245", "title": "Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis", "score": 0.011109849345143462, "content": "Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is the development of a bacterial infection in the peritoneum, despite the absence of an obvious source for the infection. It is specifically an infection of the ascitic fluid – an increased volume of peritoneal fluid. Ascites is most commonly a complication of cirrhosis of the liver. It can also occur in patients with nephrotic syndrome. SBP has a high mortality rate. The diagnosis of SBP requires paracentesis, a sampling of the peritoneal fluid taken from the peritoneal cavity. If the fluid contains large numbers of white blood cells known as neutrophils (>250 cells/µL), infection is confirmed and antibiotics will be given, without waiting for culture results. In addition to antibiotics, infusions of albumin are usually administered." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_3252", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.01098818393918868, "content": "Jugular venous distention, a sign of right-sided heart failure, suggests hepatic congestion. Right pleural effusion in the absence of clinically apparent ascites may be seen in advanced cirrhosis. The abdominal examination should focus on the size and consistency of the liver, on whether the spleen is palpable and hence enlarged, and on whether ascites is present. Patients with cirrhosis may have an enlarged left lobe of the liver, which is felt below the xiphoid, and an enlarged spleen. A grossly enlarged nodular liver or an obvious abdominal mass suggests malignancy. An enlarged tender liver could signify viral or alcoholic hepatitis; an infiltrative process such as amyloidosis; or, less often, an acutely congested liver secondary to right-sided heart failure. Severe right-upper-quadrant tenderness with respiratory arrest on inspiration (Murphy’s sign) suggests cholecystitis. Ascites in the presence of jaundice suggests either cirrhosis or malignancy with peritoneal spread." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en628_16914", "title": "Hepatic hydrothorax", "score": 0.01096766481381866, "content": "this procedure, radioactive tracer is injected via needle into ascitic fluid, a procedure known as paracentesis. After that, a gamma camera is used to take images, showing the tracer in the pleural cavity. Hydrothorax without ascites has been reported to occur in as many as 20% of people with cirrhosis, but only detected in 7% of cases via CT scan and ultrasound." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en628_16907", "title": "Hepatic hydrothorax", "score": 0.010755441741357234, "content": "There are no specific symptoms, because it generally occurs with ascites and other manifestations of increased pressure in the portal vein caused by liver disease. Pleural fluid can far more easily cause symptoms than ascitic fluid, due to the lower volume of the pleural cavity as compared to the abdominal cavity. The main symptoms are usually related to the symptoms of liver cirrhosis and ascites. Less often, it may be the only manifestation of chronic liver disease. The symptoms depend on many factors, such as the effusion's volume, rate of accumulation, and the co-existence of cardiopulmonary disease. The disease may cause no symptoms and be incidentally detected by medical scans, or it may cause large pleural effusions that result in respiratory symptoms like cough, shortness of breath, low blood oxygen, and respiratory failure. Most people have progressive difficulty breathing and reduced tolerance for exercise. Rarely, there may be acute cases that accumulate fluid rapidly and" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en174_5244", "title": "Serum-ascites albumin gradient", "score": 0.01074549670055288, "content": "Differential High gradient A high gradient (> 1.1 g/dL, >11g/L) indicates the ascites is due to portal hypertension, either liver related or non-liver related, with approximately 97% accuracy. This is due to increased hydrostatic pressure within the blood vessels of the hepatic portal system, which in turn forces water into the peritoneal cavity but leaves proteins such as albumin within the vasculature. Important causes of high SAAG ascites (> 1.1 g/dL, >11 g/L) include: cirrhosis of the liver, heart failure, Budd-Chiari syndrome, portal vein thrombosis, and idiopathic portal fibrosis. Low gradient A low gradient (< 1.1 g/dL, <11 g/L) indicates causes of ascites not associated with increased portal pressure such as: tuberculosis, pancreatitis, infections, serositis, various types of peritoneal cancers (peritoneal carcinomatosis) and pulmonary infarcts. References Medical tests Hepatology" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en008_27364", "title": "Peritonitis", "score": 0.010614772224679346, "content": "the future. Computed tomography (CT or CAT scanning) may be useful in differentiating causes of abdominal pain. If reasonable doubt still persists, an exploratory peritoneal lavage or laparoscopy may be performed. In people with ascites, a diagnosis of peritonitis is made via paracentesis (abdominal tap): More than 250 polymorphonuclear cells per μL is considered diagnostic. In addition, Gram stain is almost always negative, whereas culture of the peritoneal fluid can determine the microorganism responsible and determine their sensitivity to antimicrobial agents." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0825_24739", "title": "Untangling the etiology of ascites.", "score": 0.010416949244499905, "content": "Amyloidosis is a systemic disease known to affect a vast range of organs, including the liver, heart, and kidney. When infiltrating the liver, amyloidosis typically does not present with cirrhosis. Typical presentation includes hepatomegaly with some mild laboratory abnormalities. A 72-year-old man presented with a 2-week history of worsening abdominal, scrotal, and extremity swelling. He endorsed melanotic stools and intermittent dizziness with a 10-pound weight gain. Vitals revealed a blood pressure of 82/57 mmHg and a pulse of 83 beats/min with positive orthostatic changes. Mild bibasilar crackles were noted. His abdomen was moderately distended with a fluid wave present, but no hepatosplenomegaly was noted. He displayed anasarca with significant extremity and scrotal edema, but no jaundice, telangiectasias, or other stigmata of chronic liver disease were present. Liver function tests demonstrated a total bilirubin of 1.5 mg/dL (normal value: 0.2-1.2 mg/dL), AST 111 IU/L (normal value 5-34 IU/L), ALT 51 IU/L (normal value 5-55 IU/L), and GGT 583 U/L (12-64 U/L). Alkaline phosphatase was 645 U/L (40-150 U/L). Analysis of peritoneal fluid was consistent with portal hypertension due to liver disease. Given an atypical presentation of cirrhosis with unclear etiology, a biopsy was performed and revealed amyloid deposition. Liver disease can be due to various etiologies, many of which can present ambiguously. Although the most typical etiologies have been well defined, we present a case of an atypical presentation of hepatic amyloidosis discovered in a patient with ascites and without typical hepatomegaly." }, { "id": "article-19549_11", "title": "Chylous Ascites -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010307632665161569, "content": "Patients with chylous ascites (CA) usually complain of painless, progressive abdominal distention that could extend over weeks to months. This is the most common symptom in up to 81% of the patients. Less common symptoms among patients with chylous ascites include pain or peritonitis in 11%, diarrhea, dysphagia (as reported in atraumatic causes due to goiter or para-esophageal hernia compressing the thoracic duct and leading to the formation of chylothorax and CA), peripheral edema, weight gain and shortness of breath, resulting from the increased abdominal pressure. [12] Other less specific symptoms include loss of appetite, fatigue, nausea, lymph nodes enlargement, fullness, fever, and night sweats." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0681_24001", "title": "[Constrictive pericarditis: the story of a constrained heart].", "score": 0.010190094400620717, "content": "Symptoms of constrictive pericarditis may be nonspecific, misleading and may delay or lead to an incorrect diagnosis. We present the case of a 28-year-old male who was admitted to the hospital with progressive dyspnea, thoracic pain and a history of 25 kg of weight gain during the last 2 years. He was evaluated at another facility and his clinical presentation led to an erroneous diagnosis of primary hepatic disease (cirrhosis and portal hypertension). Physical examination showed that he was dyspneic, emaciated, had marked distention of his frontal cranial veins, diminished heart sounds, massive ascites and leg edema. Laboratory tests reported abnormal liver function tests and abdominal paracentesis chylous ascites. Electrocardiogram showed sinus rhythm with generalized low voltage and nonspecific repolarization changes. Heart size was normal on chest radiography. Doppler echocardiography reported bilateral atrial dilatation, a thickened pericardium and a short deceleration time of transmitral flow. A thickened and calcified pericardium was seen on CT scan. Pericardiectomy was performed. Spontaneous polyuria was observed during and after surgery with subsequent improvement of ascites and edema. The pericardium was found to be grossly thickened and inflamed. Clinician must be aware of the slow and progressive course of right ventricular failure, as well as to recognize constrictive pericarditis as a cause of chronic ascites.The hemodynamic aspects of the disease are of paramount importance for early diagnosis and opportune treatment." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 0, 87 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 0, 12 ] ], "text": "Cervicalgia without alarm signs. Conservative treatment with a success rate of 75%-90%." }, "2": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "3": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "4": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "Conservative treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, local heat and relative rest.", "2": "Urgent call to the neurosurgeon for surgical evaluation.", "3": "Preferential request for MRI and electromyogram.", "4": "Preferential referral to outpatient traumatology consultations.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "pubmed23n0938_6536", "title": "Sudden Onset of Severe Cervical Pain in an Adolescent Girl: Case Report and Review of Literature.", "score": 0.018672919923571306, "content": "A previously healthy 13-year-old girl presented with a 9-day history of acute onset severe neck pain associated with limited range of movement. Medical evaluation at day 2 was suggestive of muscle contracture, and she was discharged home with diazepam, antiinflammatory agents, and rest; however, she returned because of progressive clinical worsening with left arm distal paresthesia and paralysis since day 3. There was no history of trauma or other systemic complaints, and her familial medical history was unremarkable.Physical examination revealed left cervical and paravertebral tenderness on palpation with severe limitation of cervical and trunk movements; neurologic examination revealed left forearm and hand weakness and paralysis (grade II/V) with thenarhypothenar atrophy. Laboratory studies including coagulation profile were normal. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed an epidural hematoma from C4-T1 without underlying cause apparent on magnetic resonance angiography. On day 12, she underwent C3-7 laminotomy with laminoplasty and complete drainage of the hematoma. After 5 months of follow-up, she displays no neurological deficits. The spontaneous spinal epidural hematoma is a rare neurosurgical emergency in children. It usually presents acutely with neurologic deficits, but the initial presentation may be atypical or insidious, delaying diagnosis and intervention. Definitive diagnosis is made by magnetic resonance imaging and implies a high index of suspicion. Surgical drainage of the hematoma is the mainstay of treatment with favorable prognosis even in cases with a delayed diagnosis." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en050_22369", "title": "Stinger (medicine)", "score": 0.013211828429219733, "content": "Diagnosis and treatment Stingers are best diagnosed by a medical professional. This person will assess the athlete's pain, range of head and neck motion, arm numbness, and muscle strength. Often, the affected athlete is allowed to return to play within a short time, but persistent symptoms will result in removal. Athletes are also advised to receive regular evaluations until symptoms have ceased, specifically, the restoration of pain-free mobility. If they have not after two weeks, or increase, additional tests such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can be performed to detect a more serious injury, such as a herniated disc. The order of treatments applied depends on whether the athlete's main complaint is pain or weakness. Both can be treated with an analgesic, anti-inflammatory medication, ice and heat, restriction of movement, and if necessary, cervical collar or traction. Surgery is only necessary in the most severe cases." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_1692", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.012011281851779809, "content": "A common cause of neck, shoulder, and arm pain is disc herniation in the lower cervical region; the process is comparable to disc herniation in the lumbar region but gives rise, of course, to a different set of symptoms (Table 10-1). The problem appears most often without a clear and immediate cause, but it may develop after trauma, which may be major or minor (from sudden hyperextension of the neck, falls, diving accidents, forceful manipulations as discussed by Kristoff and Odom). The roots most commonly involved are the seventh (in 70 percent of cases) and the sixth (in 20 percent of cases); fifthand eighth-root compression makes up the remaining 10 percent (Yoss et al). The clinical diagnosis is established by a fairly discrete distribution of pain or paresthesias that corresponds to a single cervical root, reflex loss in the segment of the root, and by elicitation of exaggerated root pain with mechanical tests such as the Spurling maneuver, in which the examiner exerts downward" }, { "id": "article-19244_2", "title": "Cervical Radiculopathy -- Introduction", "score": 0.010905499113046283, "content": "Neck pain is a common condition that can cause significant discomfort and disability in patients of different ages. Workers who have experienced neck pain account for up to 40% of work absenteeism. [1] [2] [3] Cervical radiculopathy, on the other hand, is a condition where the nerve root of a spinal nerve is compressed or impaired, causing the pain and symptoms to spread beyond the neck and radiate to other areas of the body, such as the arms, neck, chest, upper back, and shoulders. Due to the nerve impingement, muscle weakness and impaired deep tendon reflexes are often observed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0628_22580", "title": "[Hyperextension trauma in patients with cervical spondylosis].", "score": 0.01058659217877095, "content": "PURPOSE OF THE STUDY To evaluate retrospectively a group of patients with hyperextension injury to the cervical spine who were treated at the Department of Spinal Surgery of the University Hospital in Motol, Prague, between 2003 and 2006. MATERIAL The group comprised 22 patients, 17 men (77 %) and five women (23 %) in the age range of 35 to 81 years, with an average of 59.5 years. All patients had, in association with the injury, neurological deficit of varying degree. METHODS All patients underwent X-ray and magnetic resonance imaging examination and received methylprednisolone according to the National Acute Spinal Cord Injury Study (NASCIS) 2 trial. Eleven patients had urgent surgery within 24 hours of injury; eight patients were operated on within an interval of 3 days to 2 months because of the seriousness of their state and multiple morbidity; and three patients were treated conservatively. Neurological deficit in terms of upper- and lower-limb mobility was evaluated by the American Spinal Injury Association (ASIA) motor score. The values obtained for the urgently operated patients and for those operated on after a time interval were compared by Wilcoxons two-sample test. The other aspects evaluated included trauma aetiology, level of spinal cord injury, manner of treatment, and intra-operative and post-operative complications. RESULTS The most frequent cause of injury was a low-height fall (13 patients; 59 %); car accidents ranked second (9 patients; 41 %). In five patients (22.7 %) ebriety was found. Eighteen patients had no skeletal injury (81.8 %). Four patients (18.2 %). Four patients (18.2 %) suffered fractures of articular or spinous processes, but the anterior column skeleton was intact in all. The segment most frequently affected by myopathy was C3-C4, then C4-C5 and C5-C6. Decompression was carried out to the extent of myopathy; and in the adjacent segments only if significant stenosis was present. In both subgroups of surgically treated patients (urgent and delayed management), comparisons of the ASIA scores at the time of injury and at one-year follow-up showed no significat improvement in post-operative mobility, as evaluated by Wilcoxons two-sample test at a level of significance a = 5 %. No intra-operative or post-operative complications, except for early death, were recorded. In all patients the wound healed by first intention and no loosening of instrumentation was foud on follow-ups at the out-patient departments. DISCUSSION Although the greatest narrowing of the spinal canal due to spondylosis occurs at the C5-C6 segment, the C4-C5 segment sustained most injuries. Although some relevant papers report no significant difference in improved neurological deficit between patients treated surgically and those undergoing conservative therapy, we prefer surgical management, in most of the cases from the anterior approach, which allows us to remove dorsal osteophytes and perform careful decompression to prevent damage to nerve structures and to preserve those which are still intact. There was no significant difference in the outcome between urgent and delayed trauma management, which is unusual amongst other injuries associated with neurological lesions and this indicates that the timing of surgery must be strictly individual and should be carried out at a time when operative benefit outweighs operative burden. The surgical treatment used should, in the first place, lead to early recuperation and rehabilitation. CONCLUSIONS Hyperextension injuries of the cervical spine are usually associated with serious neurological deficit. A correct algorithm of examination will result in good treatment outcomes. However, these injuries require a therapy that is long-lasting and difficult, with a need for cooperation of anaesthesiologists, spinal surgeons, physical therapists and, last but not least, psychologists. Key words: cervical spine, hyperextension injury, spondylosis, myelopathy." }, { "id": "article-19241_6", "title": "Cervical Myofascial Pain -- History and Physical", "score": 0.010064749152094436, "content": "The history of a patient presenting with the cervical myofascial syndrome can vary greatly. Patients can sometimes present with a history of acute trauma, or the pain may be insidious. Symptoms may be worse with repetitive tasks, certain movements, or even certain postural positions throughout the day. The pain can be nagging or acute, and it can be local or radiate out from the neck to the surrounding area. The range of motion of the cervical spine may be limited and painful, and the patient may also complain of some tightness or a local twitch response, similar to a spasm. Generally, the area is tender to palpation and can be described as deep, and constant. On physical exam, poor posture may be noted, with slumped shoulders or decreased cervical lordosis. No atrophy should be noted in cervical musculature. On palpation, finding trigger points in the area of pain is very likely. A trigger point is an area of hyperirritability that radiates pain when palpated. A taut band may be noted in the skeletal muscle or surrounding fascia. [4] Limitation of the range of motion of the cervical spine may be associated. The neurological exam, including strength, sensation, and reflexes of the upper extremities will be normal." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_1577", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009900990099009901, "content": "The natural history of neck pain with acute radiculopathy due to disk disease is favorable, and many patients will improve without specific therapy. Although there are no randomized trials of NSAIDs for neck pain, a course of NSAIDs, acetaminophen, or both, with or without muscle relaxants, is reasonable as initial therapy. Other nonsurgical treatments are commonly used, including opioid analgesics, oral glucocorticoids, cervical traction, and immobilization with a hard or soft cervical collar. However, there are no randomized trials that establish the effectiveness of these treatments. Soft cervical collars can be modestly helpful by limiting spontaneous and reflex neck movements that exacerbate pain." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en019_114604", "title": "Ankylosing spondylitis", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "These diagnostic criteria include: Inflammatory back pain:Chronic, inflammatory back pain is defined when at least four out of five of the following parameters are present: (1) Age of onset below 40 years old, (2) insidious onset, (3) improvement with exercise, (4) no improvement with rest, and (5) pain at night (with improvement upon getting up) Past history of inflammation in the joints, heels, or tendon-bone attachments Family history for axial spondyloarthritis or other associated rheumatic/autoimmune conditions Positive for the biomarker HLA-B27 Good response to treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Signs of elevated inflammation (C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate) Manifestation of psoriasis, inflammatory bowel disease, or inflammation of the eye (uveitis) If these criteria still do not give a compelling diagnosis magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be useful. MRI can show inflammation of the sacroiliac joint. Imaging" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0069_11718", "title": "[Acute radicular paralysis of arm and hand].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Patients with cervical radicular lesions present themselves with neck pain and stiffness on the one side and with neurological deficits of radicular distribution on the other side. The most frequent cause is a root compression due to a herniated disk or spondylotic changes of the spine. The management of the patients and the differential diagnosis are discussed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1155_11644", "title": "Spinal Cord Injury and Postdural Puncture Headache following Cervical Interlaminar Epidural Steroid Injection: A Case Report.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "<iBackground</i: Cervical interlaminar epidural steroid injection (CIESI) is increasingly used as an interventional treatment for pain originating from the cervical spine. However, serious neurological complications may occur during CIESI because of direct nerve damage following inappropriate needle placement. <iCase report</i: A 35-year-old woman presented with posterior neck pain radiating to the left upper arm. Cervical magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed left C6 nerve impingement. CIESI under fluoroscopic guidance was performed at another hospital using the left C5/6 interlaminar approach. Immediately after the procedure, the patient experienced dizziness, decreased blood pressure, motor weakness in the left upper arm, and sensory loss. She visited our emergency department with postdural puncture headache (PDPH) that worsened after the procedure. Post-admission cervical MRI revealed intramedullary T2 high signal intensity and cord swelling from the C4/5 to C6/7 levels; thus, a diagnosis of spinal cord injury was made. The patient's PDPH spontaneously improved after 48 h. However, despite conservative treatment with steroids, the decrease in abduction of the left fifth finger and loss of sensation in the dorsum of the left hand persisted for up to 6 months after the procedure. As noticed in the follow-up MRI performed 6 months post-procedure, the T2 high signal intensity in the left intramedullary region had decreased compared to that observed previously; however, cord swelling persisted. Furthermore, left C7/8 radiculopathy with acute denervation was confirmed by electromyography performed 6 months after the procedure. <iConclusions</i: Fluoroscopy does not guarantee the prevention of spinal cord penetration during CIESI. Moreover, persistent neurological deficits may occur, particularly due to intrathecal perforation or drug administration during CIESI. Therefore, in accordance with the recommendations of the Multisociety Pain Workgroup, we recommend performing CIESI at the C6/7 or C7/T1 levels, where the epidural space is relatively large, rather than at the C5/6 level or higher." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1148_1011", "title": "Diagnostic Uncertainty in Cervical Radiculopathy.", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "Cervical radiculopathy is defined as a pathological process affecting the cervical nerve root(s). While not an uncommon entity, this report describes a case of cervical radiculopathy in an active duty Marine with unique features to include the C5 nerve root as the primary point of injury with corresponding severe motor weakness that warranted expedited workup. This expedited workup included early referral to Neurology for nerve conduction and electromyography (EMG) studies that were ultimately diagnostic in the setting of equivocal Magnetic Resonance Imaging findings. This highlight of this case is the demonstration of the utility of EMG in cervical radiculopathy evaluation, which aided in an efficient and effective treatment course. We contend that in cases of cervical radiculopathy with a focal deficit of profound weakness with shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, obtaining nerve conduction studies and EMGs within the first 4 to 6 weeks of presentation should be viewed as essential for the long-term recovery and effective management of the injured service member, particularly when injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus can also account for these specific motor deficits. This report will cover a brief review of the pathophysiology, evaluation, and natural history of cervical radiculopathy with special attention paid to the timing and efficacy of EMG." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1046_22458", "title": "Acute Calcific Tendonitis of the Longus Colli: An Uncommon Cause of Neck Pain in the Emergency Department.", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "The longus colli muscle has three major parts that originate and insert in the upper cervical and thoracic spine. It is a weak flexor of the neck, and when contracted also serves to rotate the neck to the ipsilateral side. It is innervated by the anterior rami of the C2-C6 spinal nerves and receives its blood supply from the anterior cervical and inferior thyroid arteries. In a post motor vehicle collision (MVC) patients presenting weeks later, the physician has to ensure there is no subacute fracture. Clinically, these patients present with severe anterior neck pain that will often be described as a deep pain. A 43-year-old female with a past medical history of diabetes and prior surgical history of a tonsillectomy and uvulectomy presented with sudden onset of sore throat that woke her up from sleep at 3:00 am. Associated with the sore throat, she had hoarseness of her voice, difficulty breathing and felt that her throat was closing. She forced herself to vomit and then felt better. She denied any fevers or chills. Later, the patient mentioned that she had chronic neck pain from a prior accident and had been told that she has C5-C6 stenosis. About a week prior, she had been involved in another MVC and had some neck pain after that. Significantly, she was also on lisinopril for her hypertension (HTN). She was tolerating secretions, protecting her airway and no gross inflammation was noted on physical exam. On labs, there was no leukocytosis noted. Soft tissue neck X-ray showed reversal of the cervical lordosis, degenerative and erosive changes at C4-C5 and C5-C6, and thickening of the prevertebral soft tissues. She obtained a CT of the neck and cervical spine that showed osteophyte complexes at C4-C5 and C5-C6, as well as calcific tendonitis of the longus colli with a moderate amount of prevertebral free fluid. Neurosurgery was consulted from the ED who recommended getting an MRI of the neck, and consulting ENT as well. ENT happened to be in the ED and performed a bedside laryngoscopy that showed edema of the left arytenoid with full functionality of the vocal cords, and no signs of airway compromise. The patient was started on steroids, antibiotics, H2 blockers, and the ACE-inhibitor was discontinued due to suspected angioedema per ENT. She was also admitted to the ICU for airway monitoring. The MRI of the neck again showed calcific tendonitis of the longus colli with moderate prevertebral fluid. Meanwhile, the patient had complete resolution of her symptoms in 24 hours and she was cleared from both neurosurgery and ENT to be discharged. Acute calcific tendonitis is due to the deposition of calcium hydroxyapatite, which can cause significant pain and edema. In terms of calcific tendonitis of the longus colli muscle, this condition is frequently misdiagnosed and continues to be a challenge, especially in the emergency department. The differential diagnosis is diverse in etiology and severity, ranging from meningitis and retropharyngeal abscess to vertebral fracture and muscle strain." }, { "id": "article-19244_7", "title": "Cervical Radiculopathy -- History and Physical", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "When performing a physical examination, it is crucial to position the patient in a way that allows for the isolation of individual reflex arcs. This helps accurately assess the patient's overall reflex response. Given the individual variation in deep tendon reflexes, comparing both sides of the neck is more important than overall magnitude. If there is nerve impingement, the affected side is reduced relative to the unaffected side. Reduced muscle strength, innervated by the affected nerve, is a significant physical sign." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0874_3493", "title": "Myeloid Sarcoma Presenting as Low Back Pain in the Pediatric Emergency Department.", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Low back pain is a common symptom in the pediatric population; approximately half of all children present with at least one episode of low back pain. The majority of cases are due to nonspecific causes such as musculoskeletal trauma with spontaneous regression. On some occasions, however, life-threatening diseases have to be considered. A 15-year-old girl presented to the Pediatric Emergency Department for a history of continuous 2-day duration of low back pain and transient paresthesia of the right gluteal area. Low back pain was diagnosed and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory treatment combined with rest were prescribed. After 7 days, worsening of the clinical conditions was observed with bilateral gluteus paresthesia. A corset was recommended, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and rheumatological evaluation were prescribed on an outpatient basis. After 5 days she was hospitalized due to urinary incontinence and persistence of pain. Blood tests revealed neutrophil leukocytosis associated with mild anemia, thrombocytopenia, hyperuricemia, and increased lactate dehydrogenase. MRI examination of the spine demonstrated a mass involving the sacral canal and the presacral region, extending through the sacral foramina, along the nerve roots. Similar tissue was found at multiple levels in the spine and in the right orbit. Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy highlighted the presence of myeloid blasts and myeloid dysplasia, consequently, myeloid sarcoma was diagnosed. WHY SHOULD AN EMERGENCY PHYSICIAN BE AWARE OF THIS?: Our case demonstrates the importance of prompt identification of diagnostic \"red flags\" in childhood low back pain, indicating the need for diagnostic investigations such as MRI and blood tests." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0836_18100", "title": "[Cervical radiculopathy].", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Cervical radiculopathy is a common cause of pain in the arm. It is caused by nerve root compression in the neck, as a consequence of a herniated disc, or spondyliotic foraminal stenosis. It causes severe pain, especially during the first few weeks, and paraesthesias in the forearm and hand. Patients also suffer from neck pain and loss of strength in the relevant arm. The arm pain can be exacerbated by certain movements of the head; these should be avoided as much as possible. Diagnosis can be made on the basis of history and physical examination. The pain generally disappears without active patient treatment. A semi-rigid cervical collar is recommended to accelerate pain relief. In cases of persistent pain, surgery will be considered. In such cases an MRI should be performed to show the cause and level of nerve root compression. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en046_21800", "title": "Costochondritis", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "Treatment Costochondritis is referred to as being self-limited, which is a condition in which will typically resolve on its own without treatment. Conservative methods are often the first method to treat the condition. If the condition is a result of trauma or over-use of the upper extremity, individuals will be told to rest and avoid activities. Pain relief medications (analgesics) such as acetaminophen, or the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, naproxen, or meloxicam may be suggested to relieve discomfort. If the pain is localized, occasionally creams and patches containing compounds such as capsaicin, NSAIDs, or lidocaine may be used. Heat or ice compresses may also be used for treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1151_15546", "title": "Linear Neck Pain and Prolonged Cough Caused by Takayasu Arteritis.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "The clinical manifestations of Takayasu arteritis (TA) greatly vary, and this ultimately leads to a delay in diagnosis. We describe a case of TA presenting with two coexisting rare symptoms of linear neck pain and prolonged cough. A 28-year-old Japanese female with a six-month history of ulcerative colitis presented with recurrent left neck pain, cough, and fever. The neck pain and fever started five months ago. Her symptoms briefly improved with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug therapy, but eventually recurred one month prior to her latest presentation to the hospital, which was accompanied by a dry cough. Physical examination revealed a blood pressure discrepancy, with systolic blood pressure being &gt;10 mmHg lower in her left arm than in her right arm, a bilateral carotid bruit, a weak left radial pulse and radio-radial delay without coolness in the upper extremities, and linear pulsatile tenderness in her left neck along the common carotid artery. No supraclavicular or infraclavicular bruit was noted. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate was elevated at 66 mm/hour. After obtaining the images from a contrast-enhanced computed tomography, she was diagnosed with TA. All her symptoms improved with prednisone therapy. Notably, neck pain and cough are both late-stage symptoms of TA, which are seen in 9.7% and 1.5% of patients, respectively. Although her unspecific symptoms could have been easily misdiagnosed, the recurring exacerbation of symptoms warranted careful attention to a focused physical examination. In conclusion, neck pain and cough are both uncommon presentations of TA, which may lead to physicians underdiagnosing it. It is important to recognize neck pain and cough as presenting complaints in patients with TA." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en001_83509", "title": "Radium", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "History" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0281_2723", "title": "[Cervico-brachialgias, a delicate differential diagnosis: apropos of a patient with recurrent loss of consciousness in herniated disk].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "A protrusion of a intervertebral disc can be the cause of a painful hand-shoulder syndrome. Such a situation can be difficult to interpret particularly if it is associated with repeated (recurrent?) loss of consciousness. The presented patient illustrates the complexity of this syndrome and emphasizes the importance of the history and clinical examination. One should not be reluctant to repeat these investigations, in particular the examination of reflexes. The value of nuclear magnetic resonance studies in the diagnostic approach is outlined. A cervical disc protrusion is part of the differential diagnosis of unconsciousness of undetermined cause. Its pathogenesis remains to be elucidated. In the presented patient the causal relation is unquestionable since symptoms subsided after surgery. It is an example over our limited knowledge about the pathophysiology of peripheral nervous-system diseases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0842_9815", "title": "[Pediatric intervertebral disc calcification: A rare cause of acquired torticollis. Case report].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Pain and cervical muscle spasm are common reasons why parents bring children to the pediatric emergency department. The first steps are the gathering of medical history of the patient and a physical examination. If musculoskeletal damage is suspected, cervical spine x-rays should be obtained. An intervertebral disc calcification finding, in the absence of other radiological lesions should suggest pediatric intervertebral disc calcification. To present a case of intervertebral disc calcification, a rare condition that must be considered in the differential diagnosis of torticollis and neck pain in childhood. A seven-year-old male patient without morbid history and no history of trauma or rough sport practice. He consulted the emergency room for pain and cervical contracture for the last six days. C reactive protein and red cell sedimentatio rates were slightly elevated. Imaging studies showed calcification of the C5-C6 intrvertebral disc and anterior disc protrusion. The patient was hospitalized for evaluation and pain management, with good clinical response and continue afterwards with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and a soft collar. At the 6-month-follow up, the patient had resolved symptoms and calcifications. Pediatric intervertebral disc calcification is a rare cause of acquired torticollis, with a benign and self-limited outcome. Conservative management, as well as clinical and imaging follow-up is recommended." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0514_15851", "title": "[Evolution and characteristics of primary care patients with painful shoulder].", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "To describe the population attending teaching health centres in Area V, Asturias, to consult for painful shoulder. To describe the examination, diagnosis, treatment and clinical response. Longitudinal, descriptive study. Teaching health centres in Area V, Asturias. Patients consulting because of pain in their shoulders in October and November 2002. Two measurements, the first of which in December 2002 appraised age, sex, job, time off work, arc of pain, flection, internal-external rotation, and diagnostic impression. The second, in May 2003, assessed evolution, x-rays, echography, medication, infiltration, physiotherapy, exercises at home, referral to specialist, and final diagnosis. Bivariant and kappa index descriptive analyses were run. 110 cases, 58.2% women and 41.8% men, with an average age of 57 (95% CI, 54.17-59.79), were included. 52.7% were retired; no particular job predominated; 7.3% were off work; 30% had had no examination of arc of movement; 70% evolved satisfactorily. The most common diagnosis was cuff tendinitis, with initial and final diagnosis coinciding well. 77.4% of patients took NSAIDs; 16% were infiltrated; 32.1% did physiotherapy; and 36.8%, exercises at home. 65.1% had no x-ray and only 6.6% had echographies, all of which found something. There was no statistically significant relationship between medication or infiltration and favourable evolution; and there was, between physiotherapy or exercises and favourable evolution. Most patients were middle-aged, women, pensioners, and had little time off work. Two-thirds evolved well. Examinations were incomplete and few complementary tests were run." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0644_13822", "title": "Neck complaints in the pediatric emergency department: a consecutive case series of 170 children.", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "To describe the spectrum of pathologies responsible for neck ailments in a primary care pediatric emergency setting and evaluate their outcome. All children aged 16 years or younger, who presented to the emergency department of the Children's Hospital of Lausanne during a 1-year period, were retrospectively identified and charts were reviewed. Causes of neck complaints were classified as traumatic (group 1), infectious (group 2), postural (group 3), or miscellaneous (group 4) according to the final diagnosis. History and physical examination findings, radiological and laboratory results, as well as patient outcomes were recorded. During the study period, 28,722 children were observed in the emergency department, and 170 were identified as having neck complaints. The number of patients with neck ailments in group 1 was 105 (62%). Group 2 contained 33 patients (19%), of which 28 (16.5%) had a viral infection and 5 (2.9%) had a bacterial infection. Group 3 contained 30 children (17.6%) and group 4 contained 2 children (1.2%). Cervical spine radiography was performed on an emergency basis in 60 children (57 in group 1, 2 in group 2, and 1 in group 3). Significant abnormalities were observed in 6 children. Cervical computed tomography (CT) was performed in 9 children, from which 5 were in group 1, 3 were in group 2, and 1 was in group 4. The CT scan revealed pathologic findings in 6 children. Follow-up data were available in 135 patients (79.4%), of which 129 (95.6%) experienced complete recovery in less than 2 weeks. Admission to the hospital was necessary in 4 children (1 in group 1 and 3 in group 2), including 2 for emergency surgical drainage of retropharyngeal abscesses. One child with posttraumatic torticollis was treated conservatively as an outpatient and recovered in 7 weeks. One child was had his/her condition eventually diagnosed with osteoid osteoma and treated with oral nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug. Most cases of neck ailments in children presenting to the emergency department were due to trauma or infection, which were effectively managed as outpatients. When signs and symptoms suggested an emergent cause, CT provided a definitive diagnosis. The evaluation of a child presenting with acute neck complaints should be based on history and physical examination. Plain radiographs and CT scan are contributive in selected cases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0032_12510", "title": "[Cervical ribs. Therapeutic deliberations apropos of 10 cases].", "score": 0.00909090909090909, "content": "The authors report ten cases of cervical ribs operated upon in 7 patients. The predominantly neurological symptoms and signs were associated with vascular problems in 3 cases, with intermittent compression of the sub-clavian vessels. Treatment consisted of resection of the cervical rib and the first rib via an extra-pleural axillary approach using the technique described by Roos. It gave 10 good results with a follow-up of 6 months to 3 years. The authors emphasise the fact that this pathology falls within the context of compressive syndromes of the root of the upper limb or thoracic outlet syndrome. Such a conception justifies associated resection of the first rib which should give better long term results than simple resection of the extra rib." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0930_14385", "title": "Nicolau's syndrome: A rare but preventable iatrogenic disease.", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Dear Editor, Nicolau's syndrome, also called embolia cutis medicamentosa or livedoid dermatitis, is a rare injection site reaction characterized by immediate intense pain at the injection site followed by erythema and a hemorrhagic patch with a livedoid reticular pattern after injections of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS), antiepileptics, antibiotics, antihistaminics, corticosteroids, etc. (1). To the best of our knowledge, only one case of Nicolau's syndrome has been reported after the use of triamcinolone acetonide. Herein we report two cases of Nicolau's syndrome caused by intramuscular injections of triamcinolone acetonide and diclofenac sodium, respectively. CASE 1 A 24-year-old male patient presented with severe pain and bluish discoloration of the right arm for 2 days, which he had noticed shortly after receiving an intramuscular injection of triamcinolone for recurrent episodes of urticaria by a local practitioner in the right deltoid region. On examination, there was a livedoid pattern of non-blanchable, violaceous discoloration extending from the deltoid area to the distal third of the forearm with associated induration (Figure 1, a, b). The local area was warm and tender to the touch. There was no regional lymphadenopathy, and the rest of the examination was normal. The patient's platelet count, bleeding and clotting times, prothrombin time, and international normalized ratio (INR) were unremarkable. There was no previous history of any bleeding disorder. The patient denied any intake of drugs like aspirin, warfarin, etc. Subsequently, the patient developed an ulcer on the forearm, which was managed by topical and systemic antibiotics to prevent any secondary infection of the wound. CASE 2 A 40-year-old female patient presented with complaints of pain and discoloration of the left gluteal region after receiving an intramuscular injection of diclofenac sodium for her arthralgia. A large ecchymotic patch with reticular borders was found on the gluteal region, extending to the lateral aspect of thigh (Figure 2). It was tender to the touch, non-indurated, and the local temperature was raised. There was no regional lymphadenopathy. No other abnormality was detected on examination. All routine investigations were within normal limits. Platelet count, bleeding, clotting and prothrombin times, and international normalized ratio (INR) were within normal limits. The lesions resolved within few weeks without any complications. Nicolau syndrome was first described in the early 1920s by Freudenthal and Nicolau as an adverse effect of using intramuscular injections of bismuth salts in the treatment of syphilis. Since then, several case reports of this disease occurring after intramuscular, intra-articular, intravenous, and subcutaneous injections have appeared in the literature associated with a variety of drugs like NSAIDs, vitamin K, penicillin, antihistamines, corticosteroids, local anesthetics, vaccines, polidocanol, and pegylated interferon alpha (1). The pathogenesis of Nicolau syndrome is unknown, though intra and periarterial injection of the drug is a possible cause. Stimulation of the sympathetic nerve due to periarterial injection causes spasms and consequent ischemia. Inadvertent intra-arterial injections may cause emboli and occlusion. A lipophilic drug may penetrate the vessel and produce physical occlusion like fat embolism. Cytotoxic drugs may produce perivascular inflammation and ischemic necrosis. NSAIDs are believed to additionally induce ischemic necrosis due to their inhibition of cyclooxygenase and, consequently, prostaglandins (2). The clinical features of the disease have been divided into three phases in a review by Kim et al. (3). The authors describe an initial phase characterized by intense pain with subsequent erythema. This is followed 1-3 days later by an acute phase, when an indurated, tender plaque with livedoid pattern develops. The final phase occurs between 5 days and 2 weeks later. Necrosis ensues in this stage, with possible ulceration. Diagnosis is chiefly clinical, and histopathology shows necrotic changes and vascular thrombosis. However, a biopsy was not performed in our cases because both lesions were painful. Management strategies are variable and range from conservative management with analgesics and antibiotics to active surgical debridement (4). Complications include deformities, contractures or even death. The patient in our first case developed ulceration which healed normally, while the second case resolved without any complications. Nicolau syndrome can be avoided by precautions such as aspirating the needle before injecting to check for blood, use of Z-track injection technique, proper site of injection, avoiding large doses at a single site, and regular change of sites if multiple injections are to be given (5). Nicolau syndrome is a rare disease. There are a few case reports of it occurring after diclofenac injection (1-5). We could only find one case report of this syndrome after intramuscular injection (IM) of triamcinolone in a patient with lichen planus (3), and our case is the second reported case of this syndrome as a result of triamcinolone acetonide injection, which adds to the significance to the present article." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0573_731", "title": "[A case of delayed cervical epidural hematoma with C5 nerve root palsy after posterior cervical laminoplasty].", "score": 0.009009009009009009, "content": "Delayed postoperative spinal epidural hematoma (DPSEH) is a rare and potentially devastating complication of laminoplasty, and cervical nerve root palsy occurs more frequently than DPSEH, especially with C5 nerve root palsy. The authors describe a case of DPSEH with C5 nerve root palsy that developed in a patient 3 days after he underwent laminoplasty. In this case, a 78-year-old man with a history that having taken Aspirin without the doctor's instruction for 5-6 years, he underwent cervical laminoplasty for mild myelopathy. On the 3rd postoperative day, he complained of weakness of his left upper extremity and could not raise his left arm. The symptom aggravated in the next few days. On the 9th postoperative day, there was an obvious motor deficit of both upper and lower extremities. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated abnormal signal characteristics consistent with a hematoma at levels C3-C4, compressing spinal cord. The clot was evacuated during emergency revision surgery, and the postoperative course after the operation was uneventful and the muscle strength was improved five days later. Therefore, the symptoms of DPSEH are not so typical that its possibility should be kept in mind. Sometimes a differential diagnosis should be made with C5 nerve root palsy which may only represent weakness of upper extremities. The authors recommend that magnetic resonance imaging is helpful for the diagnosis of DPSEH and a revision surgery should be taken as soon as possible once the hematoma causing the neurologic deterioration was confirmed." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0763_14041", "title": "History of head trauma in a 6-year-old boy: maybe more than meets the eye (and head).", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "It is spring and you are meeting for the first time, Eddie, a recently turned 6-year-old boy who moved to the area in September of the previous year and is here for his 6-year-old health maintenance visit. Eddie's mother is concerned that although he is \"only\" in kindergarten, he is not retaining any information at school. His mother reports he knew some of his letters before kindergarten. Currently, when he is trying to write a word, for example, \"daddy\" he will need to ask his mother: \"what letter is the letter D?\" Before kindergarten, he knew his numbers 1 to 10. At times now, Eddie will forget these numbers. For example, \"if he is counting he will forget what comes after 4 and what comes after 9.\" Mother reports he will start crying for no apparent reason and if she asks why, he will say \"I don't know why.\" Mother is worried that Eddie is sad, although she denies suicidal ideation. She reports he used to like making noise with other kids, and now he cannot stand when the children are noisy. Eddie will comment he does not want to go to school because the kids make lots of noise and his head hurts. He complains of headaches as often as 2 to 3 times a month. She next states, \"This was not an issue before his head trauma.\" At this point, she reveals to you that in August, before the family relocated, Eddie fell from a 7-foot deck onto concrete while playing. He struck his head on the left side and lost consciousness for several seconds until shaken awake. He was nauseous and disoriented initially but without emesis or incontinence. He was taken to the local emergency department where he was admitted for 1 day and diagnosed with closed head injury, left frontal epidural hematoma, and question of postconcussive syndrome. Eddie has gone back to see the neurosurgeon twice over the last 6 months for scheduled visits and since the accident has had no further treatment.Eddie's mother reports that before the accident, if she read him a story from a book, he could remember the details from the story. Currently, he does not have good memory recall. Before the trauma, he did not attend a preschool program but stayed home with his mother full time. Eddie's first formal schooling has been kindergarten this year. When they moved, the neurosurgeon recommended he start school at the end of September given his head trauma in August. He had a recent computed tomography completed 3 months ago showing the epidural hematoma had completely resolved and the study was otherwise normal. His mother reports he had an evaluation the spring before the accident for a kindergarten screening test and was reported as \"excellent.\" Eddie's birth and medical history are otherwise unremarkable except for some seasonal allergies. He has not had a loss in language skill, although his mother reports he did not speak during his hospitalization. He would just stare and nod his head if someone would ask him a question. No family history of any learning or behavioral difficulties on either side of the family. Eddie has 2 older brothers, 10 and 7 years of age, with no learning issues.What would you do next?" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en148_22281", "title": "Cervalces scotti", "score": 0.008928571428571428, "content": "Evolution" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0788_12499", "title": "Acute bilateral spontaneous forearm compartment syndrome.", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "Acute spontaneous compartment syndrome of the forearm is rarely reported in the literature. It is typically associated with trauma or thromboembolism in the acute setting and repetitive exertional stress in the chronic setting. However it is rare for it to present bilaterally with no apparent underlying cause. We report the case of a young 31-year-old lady who presented to our Emergency Department with bilateral compartment syndrome of the forearm. Her presenting complaints included acute severe pain and swelling of the forearms bilaterally, with a decreased range of movement of the wrist and fingers. She also complained of numbness in all fingers. She had no history of recent trauma and ultrasound scans showed no evidence of vascular compromise. Past medical history was notable only for idiopathic hypertension and coeliac disease. The patient was taken to theatre urgently where flexor and extensor compartments and carpal tunnel were decompressed. Pronator Teres was found to be dusky initially but turned pink after decompression. All other muscles were normal. An interesting fact of this case was that combination of the high compartment pressures and anaesthetic related hypotension caused the forearm pulses to become impalpable at induction, these returned intra-operatively. The patient has been seen in the outpatient department following discharge. She is well apart from some mildly reduced grip strength in her right hand likely due to carpal tunnel decompression. No cause was found for the scenario after extensive medical investigation. " }, { "id": "wiki20220301en009_63191", "title": "Radish", "score": 0.008849557522123894, "content": "History" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1004_19446", "title": "Cervical intradural disc herniation with Brown-Séquard syndrome: case report and literature review.", "score": 0.008771929824561403, "content": "To report a rare case of cervical intradural disc herniation (IDH) with Brown-Séquard syndrome and to review the related literature. Pathogenesis, preoperative diagnosis, and the surgical technique are discussed, and previous literature reports are reviewed. A 44-year-old woman complained of weakness of the left upper and lower extremities and paresthesias in the right limbs after a bicycle ride 3 days earlier. She had a history of neck pain for 2 years prior. CT showed obvious ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL), and MRI revealed C3-7 disc herniations, with a positive \"halo sign\" around the herniated C4/5. We performed emergency decompression through anterior cervical corpectomy, and vertebrotomy decompression and fusion. At review 3 months after surgery, the patient's neck pain was markedly relieved, and motor strength in the limbs had improved. At 1 year after surgery, she had recovered completely. Cervical IDH is a rare condition that may be related to the traumatic inflammatory response and OPLL. Relatively rare imaging features such as the hawk-beak sign, halo sign, Y sign, and epidural gas sign could help in preoperative diagnosis. Prompt anterior cervical decompression is the preferred treatment for this condition." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0309_3662", "title": "[Transient neurological manifestations disclosing spontaneous acute cervical epidural hematoma].", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "Spontaneous cervical epidural hematomas are uncommon lesions that usually produce permanent neurological deficit unless there is early surgical decompression. They are now well-recognized by scan X and especially by sagittal MRI of the spine. We describe 2 patients, a 24 year-old man and a 79 year-old woman with no previous history of trauma who were admitted in emergency for a sudden weakness of limbs, respectively a tetraplegia and a right hemiplegia. Both patients complained of inaugural and acute neck pain. Motor deficit completely resolved in few hours and MRI of the spine showed on T1 a signal isointense, extending respectively from C3 to C6 and C5 to C7, consistent with an hematoma. Laboratory data and angiography were normal. Surgery was recused. Neck pain lasted about a week. Follow-up MRI, in one case, was normal two months later. Cervical epidural hematomas revealed by transient neurological findings that completely and permanently resolved are exceptional. They could mimic ischemic myelopathy and should be considered in the differential diagnosis of other painful vascular conditions like symptomatic vertebral dissection to avoid inappropriate anticoagulation. Conservative management in these cases may be proposed if spontaneous neurological resolution is confirmed by MRI." }, { "id": "Neurology_Adams_1694", "title": "Neurology_Adams", "score": 0.008695652173913044, "content": "When the protruded disc lies between the sixth and seventh vertebrae, there is involvement of the seventh cervical root as outlined in Table 10-1. The pain is then in the region of the shoulder blade, or spine of the scapula, and posterolateral upper arm; it may project to the elbow and dorsal forearm, index and middle fingers, or all the fingers. Occasionally discomfort is felt in the pectoral or axillary region. Tenderness is most pronounced over the medial aspect of the shoulder blade opposite the third to fourth thoracic spinous processes and in the supraclavicular area and triceps region. Paresthesia and sensory loss are most evident in the index and middle fingers. Weakness involves the extensors of the forearm and sometimes of the wrist; occasionally the handgrip is weak as well; the triceps may be weak and the triceps reflex is usually diminished or absent; the biceps and supinator reflexes are preserved." } ] } } }

{ "1": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 862, 1027 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 139, 166 ] ], "text": "what is not indicated is the determination of the JAK-2 mutation, which is used in the diagnosis of chronic myeloproliferative syndromes, which is not the case here." }, "2": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 507, 857 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 83, 138 ] ], "text": "another test that would be indicated although in this case the patient is young and does not present signs of seriousness (leukopenia, anemia, no response to first line treatment...) is the performance of a bone marrow aspirate, to see if there are thromboforming megakaryocytes and thus confirm that the platelet destruction is of peripheral origin." }, "3": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 357, 502 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 60, 82 ] ], "text": "In the enlargement study, antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are requested to rule out autoimmune pathologies that may be the cause of the thrombopenia" }, "4": { "exist": true, "char_ranges": [ [ 198, 356 ] ], "word_ranges": [ [ 33, 60 ] ], "text": "The first test to be performed is a peripheral blood smear to check if these platelets are real and there is no pseudothrombopenia due to platelet aggregates." }, "5": { "exist": false, "char_ranges": [], "word_ranges": [], "text": "" } }

{ "1": "JAK-2 mutation.", "2": "Bone marrow aspirate.", "3": "Antinuclear antibodies.", "4": "Peripheral blood smear.", "5": null }

{ "clinical_case_options": { "MedCorp": { "RRF-2": [ { "id": "wiki20220301en099_51325", "title": "List of MeSH codes (E01)", "score": 0.01899189918991899, "content": "– cytodiagnosis – amniocentesis – biopsy – biopsy, needle – biopsy, fine-needle – chorionic villi sampling – conization – sentinel lymph node biopsy – chorionic villi sampling – cytopathogenic effect, viral – spinal puncture – vaginal smears – hematologic tests – blood cell count – erythrocyte count – reticulocyte count – leukocyte count – lymphocyte count – cd4 lymphocyte count – cd4-cd8 ratio – platelet count – blood coagulation tests – international normalized ratio – partial thromboplastin time – prothrombin time – thrombelastography – thrombin time – whole blood coagulation time – blood grouping and crossmatching – blood sedimentation – bone marrow examination – erythrocyte aggregation – erythrocyte indices – figlu test – hematocrit – hemoglobinometry – osmotic fragility – platelet function tests – bleeding time – clot retraction – platelet count – schilling test" }, { "id": "pubmed23n1078_5134", "title": "Case of haemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis following Epstein-Barr virus infection.", "score": 0.018112099208615486, "content": "Haemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) is a rare diagnosis that carries a high degree of mortality. We present this case of a previously healthy 22-year-old woman, who was admitted acutely ill to the hospital. One week prior, she had been seen by her primary care physician for fatigue and malaise. At that time, she was noted to have anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. She was referred to the emergency room and was diagnosed with acute Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) mononucleosis based on her clinical symptoms and positive heterophile antibody test. She was discharged after an uneventful 48-hour stay on the wards. She represented 7 days after discharge with cough, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, epigastric abdominal pain, diarrhoea, weight loss and subjective fevers. She had also reported haematemesis, epistaxis and melaena. Vital signs included temperature 36.9°C, blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg, heart rate 130 beats per minute and respiratory rate 32 breaths per minute. Physical examination was notable for an acutely ill appearing woman with scleral icterus, hepatosplenomegaly and palpable cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy. Complete blood count showed pancytopaenia with haemoglobin 59 g/L (normal 120-160 g/L), white blood cell count 2.7×10<sup9</sup/L (normal 4-10.5×10<sup9</sup/L) and platelet count 50×10<sup9</sup/L (normal 150-450×10<sup9</sup/L). The white blood cell count differential included 58% neutrophils (normal 38%-77%) with immature neutrophils in band form elevated at 45% (normal &lt;14%), 16% lymphocytes (normal 20%-48%), 7% monocytes (normal &lt;12%) and no eosinophils (normal &lt;6%). Blood smear revealed anisocytosis, poikilocytosis and hypochromia. Coagulation panel showed elevated levels of d-dimer level at 1.39 µg/mL (normal &lt;0.45 µg/mL), prolonged prothrombin time at 34.4 s (normal 11-15 s), prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time of 55.6 s (normal 25-34 s), prolonged international normalised ratio at 3.31 (normal &lt;1.1) and low fibrinogen 60 mg/dL (normal &gt;200 mg/dL). Lipid panel showed cholesterol at 114 mg/dL (normal 125-200 mg/dL), triglycerides 207 mg/dL (normal 30-150 mg/dL), high-density lipoprotein cholesterol 10 mg/dL (normal 40-60 mg/dL) and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol 63 mg/dL (normal &lt;100 mg/dL). Other lab abnormalities included elevated ferritin of 6513 ng/mL (normal 10-150 ng/mL) and elevated lactate dehydrogenase of 1071 unit/L (normal 95-240 unit/L). Soluble interleukin-2 receptor alpha level was elevated at 60 727 units/mL (normal 223-710 units/mL). Fluorodeoxyglucose-positron emission tomography (FDG-PET) scan showed abnormal tracer localisation within the paratracheal, hilar, pelvic, abdominal and subcarinal lymph nodes, along with FDG-PET positive hepatosplenomegaly. A bone marrow biopsy showed hypercellular marrow (95% cellularity) with trilineage haematopoiesis, haemophagocytic cells, polytypic plasmacytosis and T-cell lymphocytosis, along with positive latent membrane protein-1 immunohistochemical staining for EBV. EBV quantitative DNA PCR showed &gt;1 million copies. These findings were consistent with a diagnosis of HLH secondary to EBV infection. Despite intense therapy with the HLH-94 protocol, the patient expired from her illness after a prolonged hospital course." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0278_1328", "title": "Amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia with a positive direct Coombs' test.", "score": 0.016230104023060535, "content": "A 50-year-old previously well woman developed a sudden onset of ecchymoses and petechiae over the trunk and extremities and gum bleeding. There was no history of alcohol use or drug ingestion. Physical examination was normal except for the ecchymoses, purpuric rash, and gum bleeding. Complete blood count showed Hb 8.0 g/dl, leucocytes 10.9 x 10(9)/L with a normal differential, platelets 8 x 10(9)/L and reticulocytes, 4%. The bone marrow was normocellular and showed absence of megakaryocytes; there was normoblastic erythroid hyperplasia and the myelopoiesis was normal. The direct Coombs test result was positive. There was poor response to treatment with prednisone and bolus doses of vincristine. Therapy with danazol resulted in the complete normalization of the blood counts, and the patient remains well 32 months after diagnosis and is currently taking 100 mg danazol daily." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0074_218", "title": "[Macrothrombocytopenia with deafness, nephritis, cataract, short small intestine, and double ureter].", "score": 0.015858324077502158, "content": "A 23 year old female, born in 1957, was diagnosed as having idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura at the age of 3 and treated with prednisolone during her childhood with no response. On her regular check-up in 1978, facial edema and proteinuria suggested renal disease. The family history was negative for bleeding diathesis or renal disease. Close examination revealed the following: WBC 4,200/microliters without leukocyte inclusions, RBC 3.42 x 10(6)/microliters, Hb 11.7 g/dl. PT 10.6 sec, APTT 28.9 sec. Platelet count 4,500/microliters by HEMATRAK 360, and 40 x 10(3)/microliters measured by microscopic method. Giant platelets were noted on peripheral blood smear with an average diameter of 6.1 microns. Bleeding time (Duke) was 12.0 min. Number of megakaryocytes was increased although platelet production was remarkably decreased. Results of platelet aggregation and retention tests were normal. Platelet life span (T1/2) was 2.3 days. Sensory neural hearing loss, congenital cataract, double ureter and short small intestine were also found. Chromosome analysis showed 46XX. She underwent splenectomy resulting in increase of the platelet count to 226 x 10(3)/microliters. The increased platelet count, however, gradually decreased to the initial count in 2 years although the bleeding tendency was improved. In 1987, renal function deteriorated, causing intractable hypertension. The serum creatinine was 4.8 mg/dl. The following year she developed cerebral bleeding and died 4 days after the episode. The serum creatinine was 8.6 mg/dl." }, { "id": "pubmed23n1021_13220", "title": "[Meningococcemia: Different Serotypes in the Same Region].", "score": 0.015395731436193865, "content": "Meningococcal infections are important health problems causing high morbidity and mortality. Neisseria meningitidis have 13 serogroups. A, B, C, Y and W135 are the most common causes of invasive disease among those serogroups. The distribution of the serogroups differs according to the geographical regions and the age groups. In this case report, two cases of meningococcemia infected with serogroup C and Y of N.meningitidis rarely seen in our country were presented. First case was a two and a half year-old female patient who has admitted to our pediatric emergency unit with fever and rash spreading from lower extremities to her body. The patient had diffuse purpuric rash with generalized weakness and tendency to sleep at admission. The patient has been suspected as meningococcemia because of the skin rash, tendency to sleep and hypotension. Antibiotics treatment was started immediately and lumber puncture was performed. In blood tests, leukocyte count: 3600/mm3 (61% neutrophils), hemoglobin: 11.1 g/ dl, platelet count: 127.000/mm3 , C-reactive protein: 10 mg/dl, erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 6 mm/ hour, prothrombin time: 28.8 seconds (normal value= 11-16), prothrombin activity: 36%, international normalized ratio (INR): 2.13 (normal value= 1-1.5), activated partial thromboplastin time: 57.7 seconds (normal value= 25-35 sec), fibrinogen: 246 mg/dl (normal value= 200-400 mg/dl) and in cerebrospinal fluid protein: 21 mg/dl and glucose: 62 mg/dl were found. There were eight cells in the microscopic examination. Skin rashes were increased and the patient became hypotensive. No microorganisms were isolated in blood and cerebrospinal cultures. N.meningitidis serogroup C was isolated from the cerebrospinal fluid of the patient using polymerase chain reaction (PCR). The patient suffered from immune-mediated arthritis in the sixth day of treatment and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs were given. The patient has recovered with antibiotics, fresh frozen plasma and inotropic treatment. Second case was a 13 year-old male patient who has admitted three days after the first case with a pre-diagnosis of malignancy because of pancytopenia and fever. The patient had generalized weakness and a few petechial purpuric rashes at the facial region at admission. After the admission general status of the patient has worsened rapidly and he has died as a result of cardiovascular arrest. Blood tests in admission showed leukocyte count: 6000/mm3 (79% neutrophils), hemoglobin: 17.3 mg/dl, platelet count: 16.000/mm3 , C-reactive protein: 8.63 mg/dl, prothrombin time: 92.6 seconds, prothrombin activity: 10%, INR: 6.78, activated partial thromboplastin time: 231.5 seconds. Cerebrospinal fluid obtained from postmortem lumbar puncture showed no growth (protein: 95 mg/dl, glucose: 35 mg/dl) and N.meningitidis serogroup Y was detected by PCR. Two meningococcemia cases caused by two different serogroups which are rarely seen in our region in recent years were presented at the same time period in the same hospital. This case report pointed out that surveillance has a great importance in such diseases." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0265_17510", "title": "[A case of systemic lupus erythematosus presenting with myelofibrosis as a cause of pancytopenia].", "score": 0.014353824305132887, "content": "A 54 year-old woman who had a 6 month history of polyarthralgias, oral ulcers, weight loss and fatigue was admitted to the Urawa Municipal Hospital. She developed high fever, dyspnea and thrombocytopenia. Chest radiograph revealed massive right pleural effusion. At this time, laboratory investigations gave the following results: hemoglobin 12.7 g/dl, WBC 7700/microliters and platelet count 9.2 x 10(4)/microliters. Antibody to DNA was negative. Antinuclear antibody was positive at a titer of 320x in a centromere pattern; Anti-RNP and anti-Sm antibodies were negative. CH50 was 18.6 u/ml. C3 was 42.9 mg/dl. C4 was 11.5 mg/dl. Circulating immune complex (Clq) was 30.5 micrograms/ml. Circulating lupus anti-coagulant and anticardiolipine antibodies were positive. Thoracocentesis was performed; the material was a straw-colored exudate with over two thousands white cell per ul and showed marked reduction of complement titiers and elevated immune complex levels. She was then diagnosis as having SLE. Two weeks after admission, progressive leukopenia and anemia succeedingly occurred and resulted in severe pancytopenia. Bone marrow biopsy demonstrated marked marrow fibrosis and increased reticulin content with no evidence of malignancy. Steroid pulse therapy for 3 days started, and subsequently she was treated with 60 mg/day of prednisolone. Three weeks after starting on steroids, the massive pleural effusion was completely disappeared and complement titiers were normalized. Circulating immune complex has not been detected any more. After 8 weeks, the peripheral blood count was normalized. The dose of prednisolone was reduced progressively. On this occasion, the biopsy showed normocullular marrow with a marked reduction in the amount of reticulin.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0999_1427", "title": "Extreme Thrombocytosis in a Child: Laboratory Approaches and Diagnostic Challenges.", "score": 0.014314516129032258, "content": "Thrombocytosis in children as well as in adult is defined as platelet count ≥ 450 × 10<sup9</sup/L, and it is usually a reactive feature to various medical disorders. However, extreme thrombocytosis (platelet count ≥ 1000 × 10<sup9</sup/L) is an uncommon finding among pediatric and adult patients, which may indicate more than a reactive phenomenon. We describe a case of a five-year-old boy who was admitted due to recurrent epistaxis. He had no history of allergic tendency or trauma. Physical examination was unremarkable except for shotty neck nodes. Laboratory results at presentation showed normal hemoglobin and total leukocyte count with eosinophilia (0.92 × 10<sup9</sup/L), and extreme thrombocytosis. Other relevant investigations including coagulation profile, serum ferritin, liver, and renal function tests were all within normal ranges. Stool samples for ova and cysts were negative. The peripheral blood smear and bone marrow aspirate confirmed thrombocytosis with increased megakaryocytic proliferation and no artefactual reasons for the high platelets such as red blood cell fragments. Different causes of thrombocytosis in childhood were investigated after considering the possible differential diagnoses for extreme thrombocytosis." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0297_3204", "title": "[Autoimmune hemolytic anemia with eosinophilia in elderly patient].", "score": 0.013877207737594618, "content": "A 70-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital in November 1992 for evaluation of anemia. Physical examination revealed anemia, jaundice, swelling of axial and inguinal lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Abnormal hematological findings were as follows: Hb of 3.9 g/dl, reticulocyte count of 58.2% (61.7 x 10(4)/microliters), hyperplasia of normal erythroblasts in bone marrow, and eosinophilia (21.0%, 2352/microliters) in peripheral blood. Routine laboratory examinations revealed polycolonal hypergammaglobulinemia 3.0 g/dl, a high level of serum LDH (797 IU/I) and a total bilirubin of 2.4 mg/dl (indirect, 1.6 mg/dl). The serum haptoglobin level was very low (&lt; 5 mg/dl). Results of serological examinations were as follows: IgG of 3366 mg/dl, CH50 of 16.0 U/ml, positive Coombs test 2+, and positive tests for antinuclear antibody, rheumatoid factor, and cold agglutinin. CRP was negative. PHA-stimulated lymphocyte blast formation, NK activity, and ADCC activity were found to be suppressed, and the percentage of CD4-positive lymphocytes in peripheral blood was also low. An axillary lymph node biopsy revealed reactive lymphadenitis. No signs or history suggested allergy, collagen disease, or parasitic infection. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) complicated by immunologic abnormalities and eosinophilia was diagnosed. Oral prednisolone markedly reduced the hemolytic anemia, eosinophilia, lymph node swelling, and splenomegaly, but NK activity remained low." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0354_18950", "title": "[A case of elderly-onset systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) complicated with severe liver dysfunction and pancytopenia due to myelofibrosis].", "score": 0.01361875637104995, "content": "A 67-year-old woman was admitted to our hospital with a fever. She had been experiencing arthralgia for about one month. On admission, she had a fever of 38.5 degrees C, was anemic and was experiencing tenderness in the joints of both hands, elbows and feet. Laboratory data revealed proteinuria, urinary cylinders, pancytopenia (WBC 900/mm3, Hb 9.5 g/dl, Plt 7.8 x 10(4)/mm3), liver dysfunction (GOT 414 IU/l, GPT 140 IU/l), and hyper-gamma globulinemia. Antibiotics and granulocyte-colony stimulating factor were administered intravenously. Bone marrow aspiration was unsuccessful, but a bone marrow biopsy revealed bone marrow fibrosis. Immunological examinations were positive for antinuclear antibodies, anti-deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) antibodies, anti-double stranded anti- DNA antibodies, as well as a decreased level of serum complement and an increased level of serum immune complexes. Tests for viral antigens and antibodies known to cause hepatitis were negative. Based on these findings, a diagnosis of SLE accompanied by liver dysfunction and bone marrow fibrosis was made. Steroid pulse therapy was initiated, but her liver function deteriorated on the first day of steroid therapy, and she died three days later. SLE accompanied by myelofibrosis is extremely rare, and only 17 and cases have been reported to date. Among these reports, the present case is the second oldest subject and the first SLE patient to suffer from both myelofibrosis and severe liver dysfunction." }, { "id": "article-17293_10", "title": "Agranulocytosis -- Evaluation", "score": 0.012749615975422427, "content": "The diagnosis of agranulocytosis requires a high degree of suspicion based on signs and symptoms, medication use, recent exposure to chemical agents, and infections. A complete blood count (CBC) with the differential count is used in the initial workup. An absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of less than 100 neutrophils per microlitre of blood is necessary to diagnose the condition. The peripheral blood smear should assess neutrophil morphology. A Wright-stained peripheral smear will show a marked decrease and absence of neutrophils. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C reactive protein (CRP), coagulation studies (prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, D-dimer), lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), antinuclear antibody (ANA), rheumatoid factor (RF), liver function tests (LFT), renal function tests (RFT), and urine analysis can be used in patients with a relevant history. If the patient is febrile, cultures of the blood, urine, sputum and other suspected sites of infection should be taken. No imaging technique is used to diagnose agranulocytosis, but a chest X-ray (CXR) can be used for the initial workup. Further, bone marrow aspiration and biopsy can be used after an initial abnormal blood smear." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0627_3153", "title": "Pseudothrombocytopenia in a patient undergoing splenectomy of an accessory spleen. Case report.", "score": 0.011941353117823707, "content": "Coagulation tests (CBC and prothrombin time) were initially conceived as a mean of screening and following rare congenital coagulopathies; the CBC provides the number of platelets per cubic milliliter. The objective of this report was to present the case of a patient who presented with an extremely low number of platelets when her blood was analyzed in an EDTA-containing tube and its numbers were normal when the blood was analyzed with citrate, alerting for the risk of erroneously administering blood products. This is the case of a 40-year-old female patient, ASA II. In 2001 she presented with thrombocytopenia and was referred to a hematologist in Manaus, in the state of Amazonas, Brazil and underwent splenectomy that same year with a diagnosis of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. Since her CBCs continued to show thrombocytopenia, an abdominal ultrasound was done and showed a spherical hypoechoic image, with an echotexture similar to the spleen, measuring 2.0 x 1.7 cm, with well-defined contents (accessory spleen), and a splenectomy was indicated. One hour into the surgery, blood samples were drawn for CBC and chemistry: Hb = 11.3 g x dL(-1); Ht = 33.4%; Platelets = 35,000 microL(-1); PT = 15.2 (86.0% Activity) (INR = 1.09). Due to the minimal blood loss in the surgical field, a new test with citrate was requested to determine the platelet count (results: 138,000 platelets). The anomalous result of an isolated exam without corresponding clinical signs should not guide the treatment. All exams have a defined percentage of errors and the search for those technical errors can avoid the use of the wrong treatment." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0059_11730", "title": "[Thrombotic thrombocytopenic pupura (TTP)--remission following treatment with high-dose immunoglobulin].", "score": 0.011493506493506493, "content": "A 60-year-old man was admitted to our hospital because of fever, hemorrhagic tendency, anemia and neurological abnormality. A blood count revealed that the hemoglobin was 6.8 g/dl, the reticulocyte was 17.3 percent with 2 erythroblasts per 100 white cells, the white cell count was 7,100/microliters and the platelet count was 0.8 x 10(4)/microliters. Peripheral blood smear demonstrated marked fragmentation of red cells. Bone marrow examination disclosed the marked erythroid hyperplasia. Although the bleeding time was prolonged (14 minutes 30 seconds), the other hemostatic data were within normal limits. The serum bilirubin level was 1.57 mg/dl; LDH level, 1,437 U/l; creatinine level, 0.92 mg/dl; BUN level 14.7 mg/dl. Haptoglobin was below 10 mg/dl. Results of immunological tests were all negative except the result of PAIgG (576.6 ng/10(7) cells). The urinalysis showed proteinuria, microhematuria and trace granular and hyaline casts. A diagnosis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura was made. The patient was initially treated with prednisolone (60 mg), aspirin (1,000 mg), dipyridamole (150 mg), gabexate mesilate (1.5 g), sodium oxagrel (80 mg) daily with little response. The thirty days after admission, infusion of gamma globulin (20 g, daily) was given for 3 days. The clinical state and laboratory findings became dramatically improved shortly after the administration of gamma globulin and the laboratory data came to be normalized after 1 month. After ten months of this treatment, the patient is remained asymptomatic and the hematological data are within normal range without using any drug. A trial seems justified to confirm the value of this mode of therapy." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en019_56258", "title": "Polycythemia vera", "score": 0.011336336336336336, "content": "Following history and examination, the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH) recommend the following tests are performed: full blood count/film (raised hematocrit; neutrophils, basophils, platelets raised in half of patients) JAK2 mutation serum ferritin renal and liver function tests If the JAK2 mutation is negative and there is no obvious secondary causes the BCSH suggest the following tests: red cell mass arterial oxygen saturation abdominal ultrasound serum erythropoietin level bone marrow aspirate and trephine cytogenetic analysis erythroid burst-forming unit (BFU-E) culture Other features that may be seen in polycythemia vera include a low ESR and a raised leukocyte alkaline phosphatase. The diagnostic criteria for polycythemia vera have recently been updated by the BCSH. This replaces the previous Polycythemia Vera Study Group criteria. JAK2-positive polycythemia vera - diagnosis requires both criteria to be present:" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en299_31049", "title": "Gestational thrombocytopenia", "score": 0.011286985031307947, "content": "In order for the physician to determine the underlying cause of the gestational thrombocytopenia, the following tests are conducted - Blood Test During routine prenatal checkups, the physician will conduct a complete blood count test to determine the components of blood. The complete blood count will provide further information about platelet levels along. The physician may conduct a blood test for platelet antibodies, which maybe produced as a result of a certain drug, such as quinine. The physician may also conduct blood clot test by adding chemicals to blood to determine how long it takes for the blood to clot. Ultrasound The physician may conduct an ultrasound around the spleen to determine if the spleen is enlarged due to an overactive spleen. The ultrasound will provide an image of the spleen and the doctor will compare it to a normal sized spleen. Bone Marrow Aspiration and/or Biopsy" }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_9124", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.011000763941940411, "content": "The history and physical examination, results of the CBC, and review of the peripheral blood smear are all critical components in the initial evaluation of thrombocytopenic patients (Fig. 140-2). The overall health of the patient and whether he or she is receiving drug treatment will influence the differential diagnosis. A healthy young adult with thrombocytopenia will have a much more limited differential diagnosis than an ill hospitalized patient who is receiving multiple medications. Except in unusual inherited disorders, decreased platelet production usually results from bone marrow disorders that also affect red blood cell (RBC) and/or white blood cell (WBC) production. Because myelodysplasia can present with isolated thrombocytopenia, the bone marrow should be examined in patients presenting with isolated thrombocytopenia who are older than 60 years of age. While inherited thrombocytopenia is rare, any prior platelet counts should be retrieved and a family history regarding" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0065_3066", "title": "[A case of rheumatoid arthritis complicated with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura and Hashimoto's disease].", "score": 0.010845736702434522, "content": "A 37 year old nurse with the rare combination of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), Hashimoto's thyroiditis and rheumatoid arthritis (RA) was reported. In 1983, six years before her final diagnosis was made, she presented with purpura over her extremities and swelling of the cervical lymph nodes. Laboratory findings showed the following: platelet count 15 x 10(3)/microliters, the number of megakaryocyte without platelet production in bone marrow was increased, platelet life span (T1/2) 11 min. A diagnosis of ITP was made. In 1984 goiter was noticed. Laboratory data were as follows: T3 502ng/ml, T4 27.0 micrograms/dl, thyroid test x 1,600, microsome test x 409,600. She was diagnosed as having ITP and Hashimotoxicosis. She had been uneventful except temporary hyperthyroidism until 1989 when she developed morning stiffness, polyarthralgia, swelling of PIP joints, contracture of elbow joints and hallux valgus. Laboratory investigation were reported as follows. ESR 111mm/h, platelet count 31 x 10(3)/microliters, platelet associated IgG 800ng/10(7) pl, antinuclear antibody x 2,560, rheumatoid factor 1+, microsome test x 1,600, anti-DNA antibody 3U/ml. Anti-Sm antibody and anti-RNP antibody were not detected. The LE cell test was negative. Schirmer test and sialography were interpreted as normal. These findings confirmed the diagnosis of RA in addition to ITP and Hashimoto's thyroiditis. The combination of RA, ITP and Hashimoto's thyroiditis is extremely rare although these three disorders are classified as autoimmune disease." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0266_5009", "title": "[Erythrocytosis in a 4 year-old child: diagnostic, prognostic, therapeutical problems].", "score": 0.01013444170771757, "content": "Pure erythrocytosis is rare in children. This report describes such a case. A 4 year-old boy was admitted because erythrocytosis had been found routinely before adenoidectomy. He was born in Guatemala, was adopted just after his birth, and had been living in France since that age. Clinical examination was normal. His hemogram showed: erythrocytes: 8,800,000/mm3; hemoglobin: 20.1 g/dl; hematocrit: 66.8%; reticulocytes: 262,000/mm3; platelets: 200,000/mm3; leukocytes: 6,800/mm3. The patient had been given iron salts for the past 3 months without an earlier hemogram. Total red cell mass was 1200 ml (N: 600). The myelogram was normal as was the leukocyte alkaline phosphatases, serum lysozyme and vitamin B12. Blood ferritin was low (3.5 ng/ml). In vitro cultures of erythroid precursors were normal, as was the karyotype of myeloid cells. Blood erythropoietin concentration was 20-293 mU/ml (N:4-14). All the causes of secondary polycythemia were eliminated by appropriate investigations. The patient was treated by phlebotomy in aliquots of 25 ml/kg, twice a month, for 10 months, and was given iron therapy. At the end of treatment, his hemoglobin was 14 g/dl and his hematocrit was 45%. Both progressively increased again one year later, requiring new phlebotomies. The patient was followed for 4 years but no cause for this erythrocytosis was found; it was probably congenital in origin. This case of pure erythrocytosis was associated with elevated erythropoietin production. Whether this high secretion is related to receptor dysfunction remains to be determined." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en022_39022", "title": "Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "Severe reactions A study that surveyed 2,408 donors found that serious adverse events (requiring prolonged hospitalization) occurred in 15 donors (at a rate of 0.6%), although none of these events was fatal. Donors were not observed to have higher than normal rates of cancer with up to 4–8 years of follow-up. One study based on a survey of medical teams covered about 24,000 peripheral blood HSCT cases between 1993 and 2005, and found a serious cardiovascular adverse reaction rate of about one in 1,500. This study reported a cardiovascular-related fatality risk within the first 30 days of HSCT of about two in 10,000. History In 1939, a woman with aplastic anaemia received the first human bone marrow transfusion. This patient received regular blood transfusions, and an attempt was made to increase her leukocyte and platelet counts by intravenous bone marrow injection without unexpected reaction." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0304_5777", "title": "[Possible role of immunocompetent cells on periodic exacerbation of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura].", "score": 0.00980392156862745, "content": "A 44 year-old man was admitted to our hospital in October, 1992 with epistaxis. Fifteen months before admission, thrombocytopenia had been pointed out, but he had no bleeding episode. At admission, neither hepatosplenomegaly nor lymph node swelling was observed. Hematological findings were as follows; WBC 10,000/microliter, Hb 14.0 g/dl, PLT 5,000/microliter, including giant platelets. Platelet associated IgG (PAIgG) was 471 ng/10(7) cells. Bone marrow aspiration revealed normocellularity with moderate increase in the number of mature megakaryocytes, but no dysplastic changes were seen. Biochemical and radiological examinations disclosed neither malignant diseases nor autoimmune diseases. Based on the diagnosis of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, danazol therapy (300 mg/day) was started in November, 1992. After initiation of treatment, the platelet count changed cyclically every 4 weeks. To elecuidate the mechanism of this phenomenon, we periodically evaluated the patient's immunological background. T lymphocyte counts and subset proportions remained almost the same through out the course, whereas NK cell counts and NK activity coincided with the change of the platelet count. These results suggest that in this case NK cells may play a role in the cyclic fluctuation of platelet count by regulating the immune system." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en213_33407", "title": "Acute myelomonocytic leukemia", "score": 0.009801462904911181, "content": "Diagnosis Criteria for AMML is confirmed if the myleoblasts and promonocytes in the bone marrow are greater than 20 percent. Also can be confirmed if the blood monocyte is 5 x 10 to the ninth power lites or higher. Testing available to diagnosis AML includes a complete blood count which is characterized by blood is taken from the vein in the arm to test for leukemia, a peripheral blood smear, and a bone marrow test. During a peripheral blood smear, a sample of blood is checked for blast cells, white blood cell amount, and changes in shape of blood cells. During a bone marrow test, bone marrow is taken from the hip bone in search of leukemia cells. Aspiration and Biopsy are two types of testing that can be done in order to obtain bone marrow. Further classification can be done for the type of AML from examining the cells shape and size. Generally you'll find immature cells which lack normal features of a cell." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en020_74486", "title": "Thrombocytopenia", "score": 0.009721514688402105, "content": "Diagnosis Laboratory tests for thrombocytopenia might include full blood count, liver enzymes, kidney function, vitamin B12 levels, folic acid levels, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and peripheral blood smear. If the cause for the low platelet count remains unclear, a bone marrow biopsy is usually recommended to differentiate cases of decreased platelet production from cases of peripheral platelet destruction. Thrombocytopenia in hospitalized alcoholics may be caused by spleen enlargement, folate deficiency, and most frequently, the direct toxic effect of alcohol on production, survival time, and function of platelets. Platelet count begins to rise after 2 to 5 days' abstinence from alcohol. The condition is generally benign, and clinically significant hemorrhage is rare." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0297_3189", "title": "[A case with petechiae due to human parvovirus B19].", "score": 0.009708737864077669, "content": "We reported a case of 10-year-old girl with petechiae mainly on the truncus, although who had more than 10 x 10(4)/microliter of platelets. Smears of her bone marrow demonstrated extreme reduction of erythroblasts with giant proerythroblast like cells, which does not consist with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. Human parvovirus B19 (B19) DNA was detected in her serum and throat swab using PCR and significant alterations of B19 specific IgM and IgG antibody titers were demonstrated. The petechiae subsided on the 8th day after her admission. She had not shown anemia less than Hb 10 g/dl, but her reticulocytes counts had increased up to 3.5% on the 11th day after her admission. Smears of her bone marrow on the 17th day became normal with moderate erythroblasts. It is demonstrated that the cellular receptor of this virus is an antigen of the blood group P recently. P antigen is presented not only on erythrocytes and on erythroblasts but also on megakaryocytes and endotherial cells. Therefore, it is suggested that direct injury by B19 to endothelial cells could cause petechiae in this case." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_23050", "title": "Complete blood count", "score": 0.009615384615384616, "content": "Manual" }, { "id": "wiki20220301en254_2214", "title": "Oncology", "score": 0.009523809523809525, "content": "Diagnosis and staging Diagnostic and staging investigations depend on the size and type of malignancy. Blood cancer Blood investigations including hemoglobin, total leukocyte count, platelet count, peripheral smear, red cell indices. Bone marrow studies including aspiration, flow cytometry, cytogenetics, fluorescent in situ hybridisation and molecular studies. Lymphoma Excision biopsy of lymph node for histopathological examination, immunohistochemistry, and molecular studies. Blood investigations include lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), serum uric acid, and kidney function tests. Imaging tests such as computerised tomography (CT scan), positron emission tomography (PET CT). Bone marrow biopsy. Solid tumors Biopsy for histopathology and immunohistochemistry. Imaging tests like X-ray, ultrasonography, computerised tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and PET CT." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0509_16905", "title": "A case of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis associated with aplastic anemia.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The pathogenic mechanism of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) and aplastic anemia are associated with immunologic events which lead to glomerular cell injury or hematopoietic cell destruction. We present an extremely rare case of FSGS with aplastic anemia in a 30-yr-old woman. The laboratory examination showed hemoglobin 7.2 g/dL, white blood count of 4,200/ microL, platelet count 70,900/microL. Proteinuria (2+, 3.6 g/day) and microscopic hematuria were detected in urinalysis. The diagnosis of FSGS and aplastic anemia were confirmed by renal and bone marrow biopsy. She was treated with immunosuppressive therapy of prednisone 60 mg/day orally for 8 weeks and cyclosporine A 15 mg/kg/day orally. She responded with gradually improving her clinical manifestation and increasing peripheral blood cell counts. Prednisone was maintained at the adequate doses with tapering after 8 weeks and cyclosporine was given to achieve trough serum levels of 100-200 ng/mL. At review ten month after diagnosis and initial therapy, the patient was feeling well and her blood cell counts increased to near normal (Hb 9.5 g/dL, Hct 32%, WBC 8,300/microL, platelet 123,000/microL) and renal function maintains stable with normal range proteinuria (0.25 g/day)." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0396_7459", "title": "The role of the bone marrow examination in the diagnosis of immune thrombocytopenic purpura: case series and literature review.", "score": 0.009433962264150943, "content": "The need for a bone marrow examination was assessed in patients with clinical and laboratory features consistent with ITP; the literature was reviewed. The records of all patients undergoing a bone marrow examination between January 1988 to January 1998 were retrospectively reviewed to determine which were motivated by the suspicion of ITP. Data were collected from hospital and outpatient medical and pathology records. Eighty-six patients with isolated thrombocytopenia (i.e., normal white blood cell count, hemoglobin, peripheral smear and clotting studies) were studied. The bone marrow was consistent with ITP in 82 patients, (i.e., normal or increased megakaryocytes and other hemopoietic lineages normal.) Four patients had decreased megakaryocytes, but all patients responded to corticosteroids. All 86 patients were followed up for a median of 22 months after bone marrow aspiration (range, 2-76 months.) During that time, none of the patients developed features to suggest an alternative diagnosis to ITP. The initial clinical and laboratory findings of 99 patients with acute leukemia were also reviewed; all had features atypical of ITP. These data suggest that routine performance of a bone marrow examination for the diagnosis of ITP is not necessary, provided that a thorough history and physical examination are performed and that the complete blood cell count, peripheral blood smear, and routine clotting studies show no abnormalities apart from thrombocytopenia. The findings of seven prior retrospective studies, two in adults and five in children are consistent with the previous findings. However, the value of marrow investigation in ITP remains unresolved and data from a large prospective study would be helpful." }, { "id": "InternalMed_Harrison_9121", "title": "InternalMed_Harrison", "score": 0.009385783298826778, "content": "Thrombocytopenia results from one or more of three processes: (1) decreased bone marrow production; (2) sequestration, usually in an enlarged spleen; and/or (3) increased platelet destruction. Disorders of production may be either inherited or acquired. In evaluating a patient with thrombocytopenia, a key step is to review the peripheral blood smear and to first rule out “pseudothrombocytopenia,” particularly in a patient without an apparent cause for the thrombocytopenia. Pseudothrombocytopenia (Fig. 140-1B) is an in vitro artifact resulting from platelet agglutination via antibodies (usually IgG, but also IgM and IgA) when the calcium content is decreased by blood collection in ethylenediamine tetraacetic (EDTA) (the anticoagulant present in tubes [purple top] used to collect blood for complete blood counts [CBCs]). If a low platelet count is obtained in EDTA-anticoagulated blood, a blood smear should be evaluated and a platelet count determined in blood collected into sodium" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0589_16674", "title": "Multiple visceral hematomas in a child with familial Mediterranean fever: polyarteritis nodosa.", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "A 14-year-old girl was diagnosed with familial Mediterranean fever (FMF) with homozygous for M694V mutation of the MEFV gene and was started on colchicine therapy 4 years before admission to our hospital. She was uncompliant to therapy and was admitted to a local hospital with complaining of fever, malaise, abdominal pain and artralgia lasting for 2 months. Multiple hypoechogenic mass lesions were detected on liver and kidneys with ultrasonography (US) and diagnosed to be hematomas by laparoscopic examination. She was referred to our hospital because of development of convulsions. On physical examination her blood pressure was 140/90 mmHg and body temperature was 39 degrees C. She was pale and extremely cachectic, with atrophic muscles of the extremities. She had diffuse abdominal tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory investigations revealed a hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dl, white blood cell count 9,900/mm3, platelets 213,000/mm3, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 112 mm/h, C- reactive protein (CRP) 78 mg/L (normal &lt; 2 mg/L) and fibrinogen 500 mg/dl. Electrolytes, renal and hepatic functions and urinalysis were normal. Examinations of peripheric blood smear and bone marrow aspiration were normal. X-rays of bones and chest showed no pathological finding. Protrombine, partial thromboplastine and bleeding times were normal. Bacterial cultures of blood, urine and stool grew no organisms. Serological tests for hepatitis B and C, cytomegalovirus, salmonella and brucella were negative." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en012_23084", "title": "Complete blood count", "score": 0.009345794392523364, "content": "Other parameters" }, { "id": "pubmed23n0390_20630", "title": "Severe thrombocytopenia possibly associated with TMP/SMX therapy.", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "To report a case of possible severe, life-threatening thrombocytopenia associated with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX) therapy. A 54-year-old white woman received a 10-day course of TMP/SMX for treatment of chronic sinusitis. One day after finishing the course of TMP/SMX therapy, the presented to the emergency department because of the development of scattered petechiae on both hands and blood blisters in her mouth. On admission, her complete blood cell count results revealed a severely low platelet count of 2 x 10(3)/mm3. Other laboratory test results were normal, except for elevated blood glucose (nonfasting blood glucose). TMP/SMX was believed to be the most likely cause of thrombocytopenia. She was treated successfully with a transfusion of 2 units of platelets and oral prednisone. Her platelet count increased to 110 x 10(3)/mm3 4 days after discontinuation of TMP/SMX. She was discharged on hospital day 5. On follow-up (2 wk after hospital discharge), her platelet count was normal (351 x 10(3)/mm3). TMP/SMX has been implicated as a cause of thrombocytopenia, which is defined as platelet count &lt; 150 x 10(3)/mm3. Although it is uncommon, spontaneous severe bleeding may occur when platelet count decreases to &lt; or = 10 x 10(3)/mm3. Thrombocytopenia associated with TMP/SMX appears to be an immune-mediated process resulting in platelet destruction by drug-dependent platelet antibodies. Treatment of thrombocytopenia associated with TMP/SMX therapy includes discontinuation of the offending drug and the use of corticosteroids. Platelet transfusion and intravenous immunoglobulin may be required in some patients. Thrombocytopenia associated with TMP/SMX therapy can be serious or life threatening because it may result in significant bleeding complications. This hematologic adverse effect of TMP/SMX may occur even with the usual recommended dosage and duration of therapy. Careful monitoring of complete blood cell count, including platelet count, before and during TMP/SMX therapy is suggested." }, { "id": "pubmed23n0314_21477", "title": "[Blood morphology in elderly persons over 90 years old].", "score": 0.009259259259259259, "content": "In order to assess blood cell count in a late senescence we examined 56 persons (44 women and 12 men) in age 90-99, in a good condition. Over 70% of obtained results were in normal range. The most frequent abnormalities were: anemia (28.6%), leukopenia &lt; 4,000 in 1 mm3 16.1%, thrombocytopenia &lt; 125,000 in 1 mm3 -10.7% of subjects. In a white blood count low value of rod neutrophils and monocytes were found. The results show that the haematological diagnosis in elderly does not require any special references intervals." }, { "id": "wiki20220301en065_52484", "title": "Sideroblastic anemia", "score": 0.009174311926605505, "content": "Diagnosis Ringed sideroblasts are seen in the bone marrow. On the peripheral blood smear can be found erythrocytes with basophilic stippling (cytoplasmic granules of RNA precipitates) and Pappenheimer bodies (cytoplasmic granules of iron). The anemia is moderate to severe and dimorphic. Microscopic viewing of the red blood cells will reveal marked unequal cell size and abnormal cell shape. Basophilic stippling is marked and target cells are common. The mean cell volume is commonly decreased (i.e., a microcytic anemia), but it may also be normal or even high. The RDW is increased with the red blood cell histogram shifted to the left. Leukocytes and platelets are normal. Bone marrow shows erythroid hyperplasia with a maturation arrest.In excess of 40% of the developing erythrocytes are ringed sideroblasts. Serum iron, percentage saturation and ferritin are increased. The total iron-binding capacity of the cells is normal to decreased. Stainable marrow hemosiderin is increased." } ] } } }