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5a735c143b9d13c708000003
Is patisiran currently (November 2017) in clinical phase II trials?
This review addresses nine small-interfering RNAs (siRNAs) and one unique microRNA (miRNA) inhibitor, which entered the phase 2-3 clinical trials. The siRNAs in focus are PF-04523655, TKM-080301, Atu027, SYL040012, SYL1001, siG12D-LODER (phase 2), QPI-1002, QPI-1007, and patisiran (phase 3). patisiran (phase 3) Phase 3 APOLLO study, a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, global study to evaluate the efficacy and safety of patisiran in patients with hATTR amyloidosis with polyneuropathy Efficacy and safety of patisiran for familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy: a phase II multi-dose study.
no
5a70e1d999e2c3af26000007
Is Solanezumab effective for Alzheimer's Disease?
An analysis of publicly available data from the Phase II studies for bapineuzumab and solanezumab indicates that neither compound produced compelling evidence of drug-like behavior that would justify their progression into pivotal trials. Notably, a recent study of solanezumab, an amyloid β monoclonal antibody, raises hope for the further therapeutic potential of immunotherapy, not only in Alzheimer's disease, but also for other neurodegenerative disorders, including Parkinson's disease. For example, Eli Lilly announced a major change to its closely watched clinical trial for the Alzheimer's drug solanezumab which failed to reach statistical significance. Areas covered: This contradiction prompted us to review all study phases of Intravenous Immunoglobulin (IVIG), Bapineuzumab, Solanezumab, Avagacestat and Dimebolin to shed more light on these recent failures. Results from phase III clinical trials in mild-to-moderate Alzheimer's disease (AD) patients with two monoclonal antibodies bapineuzumab and solanezumab and intravenous immunoglobulin have been disappointing. Subsequent analysis of pooled data from both phase III trials with solanezumab showed a reduction in cognitive decline in patients with mild AD. Secondary analyses of EXPEDITION studies suggested a smaller functional effect of solanezumab relative to cognition. An increasing effect of solanezumab over 18 months was shown for cognition and function. RESULTS: In the mild AD population, less cognitive and functional decline was observed with solanezumab (n = 659) versus placebo (n = 663), measured by Alzheimer's Disease Assessment Scale Cognitive subscale, Mini-Mental State Examination, and Alzheimer's Disease Cooperative Study-Activities of Daily Living functional scale Instrumental ADLs. The promising results obtained with aducanumab and solanezumab against Alzheimer's disease (AD) strengthen the vaccine approach to prevent AD, despite of the many clinical setbacks. CONCLUSIONS: Solanezumab, a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds amyloid, failed to improve cognition or functional ability. Results from phase III clinical trials in mild-to-moderate Alzheimer's disease (AD) patients with two monoclonal antibodies bapineuzumab and solanezumab and intravenous immunoglobulin have been disappointing.
no
5a6fabfeb750ff4455000062
Are there mammalian promoters with distal enhancer functions?
Genome-wide characterization of mammalian promoters with distal enhancer functions. Gene expression in mammals is precisely regulated by the combination of promoters and gene-distal regulatory regions, known as enhancers. Several studies have suggested that some promoters might have enhancer functions. However, the extent of this type of promoters and whether they actually function to regulate the expression of distal genes have remained elusive. Here, by exploiting a high-throughput enhancer reporter assay, we unravel a set of mammalian promoters displaying enhancer activity. These promoters have distinct genomic and epigenomic features and frequently interact with other gene promoters. Extensive CRISPR-Cas9 genomic manipulation demonstrated the involvement of these promoters in the cis regulation of expression of distal genes in their natural loci. Our results have important implications for the understanding of complex gene regulation in normal development and disease. Here, by exploiting a high-throughput enhancer reporter assay, we unravel a set of mammalian promoters displaying enhancer activity. Several studies have suggested that some promoters might have enhancer functions. genome wide characterization of mammalian promoters with distal enhancer functions gene expression in mammals is precisely regulated by the combination of promoters and gene distal regulatory regions known as enhancers several studies have suggested that some promoters might have enhancer functions however the extent of this type of promoters and whether they actually function to regulate the expression of distal genes have remained elusive here by exploiting a high throughput enhancer reporter assay we unravel a set of mammalian promoters displaying enhancer activity these promoters have distinct genomic and epigenomic features and frequently interact with other gene promoters extensive crispr cas9 genomic manipulation demonstrated the involvement of these promoters in the cis regulation of expression of distal genes in their natural loci our results have important implications for the understanding of complex gene regulation in normal development and disease.
yes
5a6f77d7b750ff4455000051
Is autosomal dominant inheritanced form of Osteogenesis imperfecta caused by mutations in the genes associated with collagen production?
steogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a heterogeneous bone disorder characterized by recurrent fractures. Although most cases of OI have heterozygous mutations inCOL1A1orCOL1A2and show autosomal dominant inheritance, Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a group of hereditary disorders characterized by decreased bone mass and increased fracture risk. The majority of OI cases have an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and are usually caused by mutations in genes encoding type I collagen Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a group of hereditary disorders characterized by low bone mass and recurrent fractures. Most OI cases follow an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and are attributed to mutations in genes encoding type I collagen (COL1A1/COL1A2). Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a genetic disorder characterised by low bone mineral density resulting in fractures. 85-90% of patients with OI carry a variant in the type 1 collagen genes, COL1A1 and COL1A2, which follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) comprises a heterogeneous group of disorders that are characterized by susceptibility to bone fractures, and range in severity from a subtle increase in fracture frequency to death in the perinatal period. Most patients have defects in type I collagen biosynthesis with autosomal-dominant inheritance, but many autosomal-recessive genes have been reported. To investigate mutation of COL1A1 gene and analyze the relationship between genotype and clinical phenotype in a family with osteogenesis imperfecta Dominant inheritance of osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is caused by mutations in COL1A1 or COL1A2, the genes that encode type I collagen, Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a heterogeneous group of inherited disorders of bone formation, resulting in low bone mass and an increased propensity to fracture. It exhibits a broad spectrum of clinical severity, ranging from multiple fractures in utero and perinatal death, to normal adult stature and low fracture incidence. Extra-skeletal features of OI include blue sclera, hearing loss, skin hyperlaxity, joint hyperextensibility, and dentinogenesis imperfecta. The proα1(I) and proα2(I) chains of collagen 1 are encoded by the COL1A1 and COL1A2 genes, respectively; quantitative or qualitative defects in type I collagen synthesis usually manifest as types of OI or some sub-types of EDS. The majority of patients (about 90%) with a clinical diagnosis of OI have a mutation in the COL1A1 or COL1A2 Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) type I is characterized by bone fragility without significant deformity, osteopenia, normal stature, blue sclerae, and autosomal dominant inheritance. Dermal fibroblasts from most affected individuals produce about half the expected amount of type I collagen, suggesting that the OI type I phenotype results from a variety of mutations which alter the apparent expression of either COL1A1 or COL1A2, the genes encoding the chains of type I collagen. Autosomal dominant osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by mutations in the COL1A2 and COL1A1 genes of type I collagen. Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by dominant autosomal mutations in the type I collagen coding genes (COL1A1 and COL1A2) in about 85% of individuals, affecting collagen quantity or structure. Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a heterogeneous group of disorders of connective tissue, mainly caused by mutations in the collagen type I genes (COL1A1 and COL1A2). Autosomal dominant osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is caused by mutations in the genes (COL1A1 or COL1A2) encoding the chains of type I collagen. In approximately 90% of individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta, mutations in either of the genes encoding the pro-alpha1 or pro-alpha2 chains of type I collagen (COL1A1 or COL1A2) can be identified. Autosomal dominant OI is caused by mutations in the genes (COL1A1 or COL1A2) encoding the chains of type I collagen. ext-generation sequencing technology was used to screen a panel of known OI genes.RESULTS: In 41 probands, we identified 28 different disease-causing variants of 9 different known OI genes. Eleven of the variants are novel. Ten of the 28 variants are located in COL1A1, five in COL1A2, three in BMP1, three in FKBP10, two in TMEM38B, two in P3H1, and one each in CRTAP, SERPINF1, and SERPINH1. Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a clinically and genetically heterogeneous disorder associated with bone fragility and susceptibility to fractures after minimal trauma. OI type V has an autosomal-dominant pattern of inheritance and is not caused by mutations in the type I collagen genes COL1A1 and COL1A2. Detection of a high frequency RsaI polymorphism in the human pro alpha 2(I) collagen gene which is linked to an autosomal dominant form of osteogenesis imperfecta. Osteogenesis imperfecta due to recurrent point mutations at CpG dinucleotides in the COL1A1 gene of type I collagen. Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI), commonly known as "brittle bone disease", is a dominant autosomal disorder characterized by bone fragility and abnormalities of connective tissue. Biochemical and molecular genetic studies have shown that the vast majority of affected individuals have mutations in either the COL1A1 or COL1A2 genes that encode the chains of type I procollagen. Osteogenesis imperfecta is normally caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in the type I collagen genes COL1A1 and COL1A2.
yes
5a8965f6fcd1d6a10c000005
Are splicing speckles associated with transcription?
We show here that RNA splicing speckled domains (splicing speckles) fluctuate in constrained nuclear volumes and remodel their shapes. We present a model where recycling splicing factors return as part of small sub-speckles from distal sites of RNA processing to larger splicing speckles by a directed ATP-driven mechanism through interchromatin spaces. Analysis of a HeLa cell line stably expressing EYFP-NHPX showed that the nucleolar accumulation of NHPX was preceded by its transient accumulation in splicing speckles. In vivo analysis of NHPX reveals a novel nucleolar localization pathway involving a transient accumulation in splicing speckles. "Splicing speckles" are major nuclear domains rich in components of the splicing machinery and polyA(+) RNA. Although speckles contain little detectable transcriptional activity, they are found preferentially associated with specific mRNA-coding genes and gene-rich R bands, and they accumulate some unspliced pre-mRNAs RNA polymerase II transcribes mRNAs and is required for splicing, with some reports suggesting that the inactive complexes are stored in splicing speckle In normal cell growth conditions GFPeIF4A-III was mainly nucleoplasmic, but in hypoxia stress conditions it moved to the nucleolus and splicing speckles. Localization of eIF4A-III in the nucleolus and splicing speckles is an indicator of plant stress. Using antibodies raised against mouse RBM6 to immunostain mammalian cell lines we found that the endogenous protein was both distributed diffusely in the nucleus and concentrated in a small number of nuclear foci that corresponded to splicing speckles/interchromatin granule clusters (IGCs Subnuclear targeting of the RNA-binding motif protein RBM6 to splicing speckles and nascent transcripts.
no
5a723edd2dc08e987e00000c
Is Tofacitinib effective for Ulcerative Colitis?
Tofacitinib, inhibiting signalling via all Janus kinase family members, was effective in phase 2 and 3 trials in moderate-severe ulcerative colitis. Among them, Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitors seem to have the lead, since tofacitinib has received regulatory approval in 2012 for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, and also it has shown a favorable risk-benefit ratio in phase 3 studies for ulcerative colitis, both in anti-TNF naïve and anti-TNF experienced patients. Near future conventional drug options include oral agents such as tofacitinib and mongersen. Tofacitinib showed dose related efficacy for induction therapy. Tofacitinib as Induction and Maintenance Therapy for Ulcerative Colitis. BACKGROUND: Tofacitinib, an oral, small-molecule Janus kinase inhibitor, was shown to have potential efficacy as induction therapy for ulcerative colitis in a phase 2 trial. CONCLUSIONS: In patients with moderately to severely active ulcerative colitis, tofacitinib was more effective as induction and maintenance therapy than placebo. Tofacitinib (CP-690,550), an oral small-molecule Janus kinase inhibitor, has been shown to be effective in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune encephalomyelitis and ulcerative colitis. Tofacitinib, an oral, small-molecule Janus kinase inhibitor, was shown to have potential efficacy as induction therapy for ulcerative colitis in a phase 2 trial. <b>BACKGROUND</b>: Tofacitinib, an oral, small-molecule Janus kinase inhibitor, was shown to have potential efficacy as induction therapy for ulcerative colitis in a phase 2 trial. Across all three trials, adjudicated nonmelanoma skin cancer occurred in five patients who received tofacitinib and in one who received placebo, and adjudicated cardiovascular events occurred in five who received tofacitinib and in none who received placebo; as compared with placebo, tofacitinib was associated with increased lipid levels.<br><b>CONCLUSIONS</b>: In patients with moderately to severely active ulcerative colitis, tofacitinib was more effective as induction and maintenance therapy than placebo. Tofacitinib (CP-690,550), an oral small-molecule Janus kinase inhibitor, has been shown to be effective in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune encephalomyelitis and ulcerative colitis. Tofacitinib, an oral Janus kinase inhibitor, in active ulcerative colitis. Tofacitinib, a non-selective Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor, is effective in inducing clinical and endoscopic remission in patients with active ulcerative colitis (UC). BACKGROUND Tofacitinib, an oral, small-molecule Janus kinase inhibitor, was shown to have potential efficacy as induction therapy for ulcerative colitis in a phase 2 trial. BACKGROUND Tofacitinib, a novel, oral Janus kinase inhibitor, demonstrated a dose-dependent efficacy for induction of clinical response and remission in patients with active ulcerative colitis (UC). CONCLUSIONS In patients with moderately to severely active ulcerative colitis, tofacitinib was more effective as induction and maintenance therapy than placebo. Tofacitinib, an oral janus kinase inhibitor, is a new biologic that has shown promise in the treatment of ulcerative colitis and may be effective in the treatment of Crohn's disease according to phase 2 trials. CONCLUSIONS Patients with moderately to severely active ulcerative colitis treated with tofacitinib were more likely to have clinical response and remission than those receiving placebo. Three patients treated with tofacitinib had an absolute neutrophil count of less than 1500.<br><b>CONCLUSIONS</b>: Patients with moderately to severely active ulcerative colitis treated with tofacitinib were more likely to have clinical response and remission than those receiving placebo. tofacitinib an oral small molecule janus kinase inhibitor was shown to have potential efficacy as induction therapy for ulcerative colitis in a phase 2 trial we further evaluated the efficacy of tofacitinib as induction and maintenance therapy we conducted three phase 3 randomized double blind placebo controlled trials of tofacitinib therapy in adults with ulcerative colitis in the octave induction 1 and 2 trials 598 and 541 patients respectively who had moderately to severely active ulcerative colitis despite previous conventional therapy or therapy with a tumor necrosis factor antagonist were randomly assigned to receive induction therapy with tofacitinib 10 mg twice daily or placebo for 8 weeks the primary end point was remission at 8 weeks in the octave sustain trial 593 patients who had a clinical response to induction therapy were randomly assigned to receive maintenance therapy with tofacitinib either 5 mg or 10 mg twice daily or placebo for 52 weeks the primary end point was remission at 52 weeks in the octave induction 1 trial remission at 8 weeks occurred in 18 5 of the patients in the tofacitinib group versus 8 2 in the placebo group p 0 007 in the octave induction 2 trial remission occurred in 16 6 versus 3 6 p 0 001 in the octave sustain trial remission at 52 weeks occurred in 34 3 of the patients in the 5 mg tofacitinib group and 40 6 in the 10 mg tofacitinib group versus 11 1 in the placebo group p 0 001 for both comparisons with placebo in the octave induction 1 and 2 trials the rates of overall infection and serious infection were higher with tofacitinib than with placebo in the octave sustain trial the rate of serious infection was similar across the three treatment groups and the rates of overall infection and herpes zoster infection were higher with tofacitinib than with placebo across all three trials adjudicated nonmelanoma skin cancer occurred in five patients who received tofacitinib and in one who received placebo and adjudicated cardiovascular events occurred in five who received tofacitinib and in none who received placebo as compared with placebo tofacitinib was associated with increased lipid levels in patients with moderately to severely active ulcerative colitis tofacitinib was more effective as induction and maintenance therapy than placebo funded by pfizer octave induction 1 octave induction 2 and octave sustain clinicaltrials gov numbers nct01465763 nct01458951 and nct01458574 respectively. ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory disease of the colon for which current treatments are not universally effective one additional treatment may be tofacitinib cp 690 550 an oral inhibitor of janus kinases 1 2 and 3 with in vitro functional specificity for kinases 1 and 3 over kinase 2 which is expected to block signaling involving gamma chain containing cytokines including interleukins 2 4 7 9 15 and 21 these cytokines are integral to lymphocyte activation function and proliferation in a double blind placebo controlled phase 2 trial we evaluated the efficacy of tofacitinib in 194 adults with moderately to severely active ulcerative colitis patients were randomly assigned to receive tofacitinib at a dose of 0 5 mg 3 mg 10 mg or 15 mg or placebo twice daily for 8 weeks the primary outcome was a clinical response at 8 weeks defined as an absolute decrease from baseline in the score on the mayo scoring system for assessment of ulcerative colitis activity possible score 0 to 12 with higher scores indicating more severe disease of 3 or more and a relative decrease from baseline of 30 or more with an accompanying decrease in the rectal bleeding subscore of 1 point or more or an absolute rectal bleeding subscore of 0 or 1 the primary outcome clinical response at 8 weeks occurred in 32 48 61 and 78 of patients receiving tofacitinib at a dose of 0 5 mg p 0 39 3 mg p 0 55 10 mg p 0 10 and 15 mg p 0 001 respectively as compared with 42 of patients receiving placebo clinical remission defined as a mayo score 2 with no subscore 1 at 8 weeks occurred in 13 33 48 and 41 of patients receiving tofacitinib at a dose of 0 5 mg p 0 76 3 mg p 0 01 10 mg p 0 001 and 15 mg p 0 001 respectively as compared with 10 of patients receiving placebo there was a dose dependent increase in both low density and high density lipoprotein cholesterol three patients treated with tofacitinib had an absolute neutrophil count of less than 1500 patients with moderately to severely active ulcerative colitis treated with tofacitinib were more likely to have clinical response and remission than those receiving placebo funded by pfizer clinicaltrials gov number nct00787202. recently several medical treatments for ulcerative colitis uc have been developed including 5 aminosalicylic acids 5 asas corticosteroids thiopurine calcineurin inhibitors and anti tumor necrosis factor tnf α treatments treatment options including calcineurin inhibitors and anti tnf treatment for refractory uc are discussed in this article furthermore upcoming treatments are introduced such as golimumab vedolizumab ajm300 tofacitinib budesonide foamwill be used as one treatment option in patients with distal colitis herbal medicine such as qing dai is also effective for active uc and may be useful for patients who are refractory to anti tnfα treatments in the near future physicians will able to use many different treatments for uc patients however we should not forget 5 asa and corticosteroids as the fundamental treatments for uc patients. the inflammatory diseases ulcerative colitis and crohn s disease constitute the two main forms of inflammatory bowel disease ibd they are characterized by chronic relapsing inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract significantly impacting on patient quality of life and often requiring prolonged treatment existing therapies for ibd are not effective for all patients and an unmet need exists for additional therapies to induce and maintain remission here we describe the mechanism of action of the janus kinase jak inhibitor tofacitinib for the treatment of ibd and the effect of jak inhibition on the chronic cycle of inflammation that is characteristic of the disease the pathogenesis of ibd involves a dysfunctional response from the innate and adaptive immune system resulting in overexpression of multiple inflammatory cytokines many of which signal through jaks thus jak inhibition allows multiple cytokine signaling pathways to be targeted and is expected to modulate the innate and adaptive immune response in ibd thereby interrupting the cycle of inflammation tofacitinib is an oral small molecule jak inhibitor that is being investigated as a targeted immunomodulator for ibd clinical development of tofacitinib and other jak inhibitors is ongoing with the aspiration of providing new treatment options for ibd that have the potential to deliver prolonged efficacy and clinically meaningful patient benefits.
yes
5a893da7bc7bade53a000001
Is CREB a key memory protein?
Human cyclic AMP response element binding protein (CREB) transcription factor which plays a crucial role in memory The activated CREB is implicated in the regulation of development, protection, learning, memory and plasticity in the nerve system. A mouse genetic study showed that cAMP-responsive element-binding protein (CREB)-mediated transcription is required for the formation of social recognition memory. Transcription factor cAMP response element-binding protein (CREB) plays a critical role in memory formation. It is well known that molecules like cAMP response element binding (CREB) and binding protein (CBP) play a crucial role in memory consolidation. CREB SUMOylation by the E3 ligase PIAS1 enhances spatial memory. Therefore, CREB phosphorylation may be responsible for signal transduction during the early phase of long-term memory formation, whereas CREB SUMOylation sustains long-term memory
yes
5a76080683b0d9ea66000015
Is cilengitide effective for treatment of glioblastoma?
RESULTS: fourteen randomized clinical trials were identified (7 with bevacizumab, 2 cilengitide, 1 enzastaurin, 1 dasatinib, 1 vandetanib, 1 temsirolimus, 1 cediranib) including 4330 patients. Antiangiogenic drugs showed no improvement in overall survival with a pooled HR of 1.00, a trend for an inferior outcome, in terms of overall survival, was observed in the group of patients receiving antiangiogenic drug alone compared to cytotoxic drug alone (HR=1.24, p=0.056). However, we could not conclusively confirm whether cilengitide 2000mg/5/week was the optimum regime, as only one trial using this protocol was included in our study. Cilengitide (CGT) is a cyclic pentapeptide that demonstrated efficacy for GBM treatment by targeting the integrins avβ3 and avβ5 over-expressed on GBM cells. Cilengitide is recently failed in Phase III CENTRIC trial in unselected patients with GBM. In conclusion, we demonstrate that EGFRvIII/integrin β3 complexes promote GBM progression and metastasis in the environment of hypoxia and vitronectin-enrichment, and cilengitide may serve as a promising therapeutics for EGFRvIII-positive GBMs. he addition of molecularly targeted drugs to TEM + RAD did not improve the OS of patients with GBM; however, it did improve PFS in patients treated by cilengitide who could not get improvement in OS. The randomized phase III CENTRIC and phase II CORE trials explored the integrin inhibitor cilengitide in patients with newly diagnosed glioblastoma with versus without O6-methylguanine DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) promoter methylation. These trials failed to meet their primary endpoints . In CORE, higher αvβ3 levels in tumor cells were associated with improved progression-free survival by central review and with improved overall survival in patients treated with cilengitide. Cilengitide combined with metronomic temozolomide and procarbazine in MGMT-promoter unmethylated glioblastoma did not improve survival compared with historical data and does not warrant further investigation. The addition of cilengitide to temozolomide chemoradiotherapy did not improve outcomes; cilengitide will not be further developed as an anticancer drug. Cilengitide treatment of newly diagnosed glioblastoma patients does not alter patterns of progression. It may be proposed that the combination therapy of NG2 suppression and cilengitide treatment showed no considerable effect on glioblastoma compared to cilengitide therapy alone.
no
5a6f829eb750ff4455000054
Can multiple myeloma patients develop hyperviscosity syndrome?
Multiple myeloma (MM) is an immedicable malignancy of the human plasma cells producing abnormal antibodies (also referred to as paraproteins) leading to kidney problems and hyperviscosity syndrome. This skin condition may be observed in patients with the following condtions, such as primary polycythemic hyperviscosity (polycythemia, thrombocytemia) treated with hydroxyurea, primary plasma hyperviscosity (multiple myeloma, cryoglobulinemia, cryofibrinogenemia, dysfibrinogenemia, and connective tissue diseases), primary sclerocythemic hyperviscosity (hereditary spherocytosis, thalassemia, and sickle cell disease). A 73-year-old woman with known MM who received little treatment for several years, presented secondary to dysarthria and at first was thought to have hyperviscosity syndrome. After a comprehensive evaluation ruled out common causes of acute renal failure, the patient underwent testing with a bone survey, urine protein electrophoresis (UPEP), serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP), and immunoelectrophoresis for suspected plasma cell dyscrasia and received plasmapheresis for hyperviscosity syndrome and nephrotoxicity, which resulted in improved renal function. Lab results showed monoclonal gammopathy, elevated serum free light chains, and Bence Jones protein in the urine with a follow-up bone marrow biopsy indicating plasma cell dyscrasia. The patient received a diagnosis of multiple myeloma (MM) and was started on chemotherapy and immunosuppression. Plasmapheresis (PE) is recommended for patients with hyperviscosity syndrome or cast nephropathy presented with AKI, which may help to increase the dialysis-independency. Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic plasma-cell disorder resulting from malignant plasma cells in the bone marrow. It can cause a hyperviscosity syndrome secondary to the paraproteinaemia associated with the disease. The increased hyperviscosity can lead to retinal vein occlusions and other ocular problems that may challenge clinicians. Etiologies are various but symptomatic hyperviscosity is more common in Waldenström's macroglobulinemia and multiple myeloma. Double filtration plasmapheresis in a dog with multiple myeloma and hyperviscosity syndrome. A 12 year old, 38 kg, mix-breed, intact male dog presented with a 20 day history of clinical signs consistent with hyperviscosity syndrome secondary to multiple myeloma. The present study reported for the first time the use of double filtration plasmapheresis to reduce clinical signs of hyperviscosity syndrome in a dog with multiple myeloma. An otherwise healthy young man presents with bilateral CRVO as the first sign of hyperviscosity syndrome in the setting of new multiple myeloma. In haematology the most common indication for plasmapheresis is the supportive treatment of multiple myeloma. The procedure is performed in patients with high protein levels endangered with hyperviscosity syndrome. Five to 10 percent of patients with multiple myeloma are suffered from the hyperviscosity syndrome because of increased serum viscosity due to the presence of myeloma protein. Plasmapheresis is known as an efficient method for rapid improvement of the hyperviscosity syndrome, and double filtration plasmapheresis is most commonly used for plasma exchange of multiple myeloma patients in our country. PE is the most effective method in the treatment of hyperviscosity syndrome often seen with multiple myeloma and Waldenström's macroglobulinemia, and it is therapy of choice for this complication. Patients with multiple myeloma who have complications secondary to hyperviscosity are treated by chemotherapy and/or plasmapheresis.
yes
5a6e3fe3b750ff4455000044
Does the human lncRNA LINC-PINT promote tumorigenesis?
The human lncRNA LINC-PINT inhibits tumor cell invasion through a highly conserved sequence element. Here we characterize the function of the p53-regulated human lncRNA LINC-PINT in cancer. We find that LINC-PINT is downregulated in multiple types of cancer and acts as a tumor suppressor lncRNA by reducing the invasive phenotype of cancer cells. A cross-species analysis identifies a highly conserved sequence element in LINC-PINT that is essential for its function. This sequence mediates a specific interaction with PRC2, necessary for the LINC-PINT-dependent repression of a pro-invasion signature of genes regulated by the transcription factor EGR1. We find that LINC-PINT is downregulated in multiple types of cancer and acts as a tumor suppressor lncRNA by reducing the invasive phenotype of cancer cells. These results thus indicate that low plasma Linc-pint expression could serve as a minimally invasive biomarker for early PCa detection, and that low Linc-pint levels in PCa tumors could be used for predicting patient prognosis. Our data demonstrate that Linc-pint expression is lower in plasma samples from PCa patients than from healthy individuals, and indicate that plasma Linc-pint levels are more sensitive than CA19-9 for detecting PCa. Low plasma Linc-pint levels correlate with tumor recurrence, while low tumor Linc-pint levels correlate with poor prognosis for PCa patients after pancreatectomy. We find that LINC-PINT is downregulated in multiple types of cancer and acts as a tumor suppressor lncRNA by reducing the invasive phenotype of cancer cells. We find that LINC-PINT is downregulated in multiple types of cancer and acts as a tumor suppressor lncRNA by reducing the invasive phenotype of cancer cells. These results thus indicate that low plasma Linc-pint expression could serve as a minimally invasive biomarker for early PCa detection, and that low Linc-pint levels in PCa tumors could be used for predicting patient prognosis.<br> The human lncRNA LINC-PINT inhibits tumor cell invasion through a highly conserved sequence element.
no
5a6e49a4b750ff445500004b
Is LDB1-mediated enhancer looping dependent on cohesin?
LDB1-mediated enhancer looping can be established independent of mediator and cohesin. Moreover, ENCODE data and our chromatin immunoprecipitation results indicate that cohesin is almost completely absent from validated and predicted LDB1-regulated erythroid enhancer-gene pairs. Thus, lineage specific factors largely mediate enhancer-promoter looping in erythroid cells independent of mediator and cohesin. Moreover, ENCODE data and our chromatin immunoprecipitation results indicate that cohesin is almost completely absent from validated and predicted LDB1-regulated erythroid enhancer-gene pairs. Moreover, ENCODE data and our chromatin immunoprecipitation results indicate that cohesin is almost completely absent from validated and predicted LDB1-regulated erythroid enhancer-gene pairs. LDB1-mediated enhancer looping can be established independent of mediator and cohesin.
no
5a6e4b72b750ff445500004c
Is there any link between ERCC1-XPF and cohesin?
ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes. Using an in vivo biotinylation tagging approach in mice, we show that the nucleotide excision repair (NER) structure-specific endonuclease ERCC1-XPF complex interacts with the insulator binding protein CTCF, the cohesin subunits SMC1A and SMC3 and with MBD2; the factors co-localize with ATRX at the promoters and control regions (ICRs) of imprinted genes during postnatal hepatic development. Loss of Ercc1 or exposure to MMC triggers the localization of CTCF to heterochromatin, the dissociation of the CTCF-cohesin complex and ATRX from promoters and ICRs, altered histone marks and the aberrant developmental expression of imprinted genes without altering DNA methylation. We propose that ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes and that persistent DNA damage triggers chromatin changes that affect gene expression programs associated with NER disorders. Using an in vivo biotinylation tagging approach in mice, we show that the nucleotide excision repair (NER) structure-specific endonuclease ERCC1-XPF complex interacts with the insulator binding protein CTCF, the cohesin subunits SMC1A and SMC3 and with MBD2; the factors co-localize with ATRX at the promoters and control regions (ICRs) of imprinted genes during postnatal hepatic development. We propose that ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes and that persistent DNA damage triggers chromatin changes that affect gene expression programs associated with NER disorders. We propose that ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes and that persistent DNA damage triggers chromatin changes that affect gene expression programs associated with NER disorders. We propose that ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes and that persistent DNA damage triggers chromatin changes that affect gene expression programs associated with NER disorders.<br> ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes. We propose that ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes and that persistent DNA damage triggers chromatin changes that affect gene expression programs associated with NER disorders..
yes
5a70ea8299e2c3af2600000b
Does Evolocumab improve cognitive function?
Conclusions In a randomized trial involving patients who received either evolocumab or placebo in addition to statin therapy, no significant between-group difference in cognitive function was observed over a median of 19 months. Results A total of 1204 patients were followed for a median of 19 months; the mean (±SD) change from baseline over time in the raw score for the spatial working memory strategy index of executive function (primary end point) was -0.21±2.62 in the evolocumab group and -0.29±2.81 in the placebo group (P<0.001 for noninferiority; P=0.85 for superiority). There were no significant between-group differences in the secondary end points of scores for working memory (change in raw score, -0.52 in the evolocumab group and -0.93 in the placebo group), episodic memory (change in raw score, -1.53 and -1.53, respectively), or psychomotor speed (change in raw score, 5.2 msec and 0.9 msec, respectively). Conclusions In a randomized trial involving patients who received either evolocumab or placebo in addition to statin therapy, no significant between-group difference in cognitive function was observed over a median of 19 months. There were no significant between-group differences in the secondary end points of scores for working memory (change in raw score, -0.52 in the evolocumab group and -0.93 in the placebo group), episodic memory (change in raw score, -1.53 and -1.53, respectively), or psychomotor speed (change in raw score, 5.2 msec and 0.9 msec, respectively).
no
5a72284b2dc08e987e000001
Can radius fracture cause carpal tunnel syndrome?
Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) after distal radius fractures can present in 3 forms: acute, transient, and delayed. Complications were categorized as carpal tunnel syndrome, other sensibility issues, tendon complications including irritation and rupture, deep infections, complex regional pain syndrome and unidentified DRUJ or scapholunar problems. The overall complication rate was 14.6% (95% CI 11.8-17.7) including carpal tunnel syndrome or change in sensibility in 5.2% and tendon complications in 4.7%. BACKGROUND: Although median nerve neuropathy and carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) are known complications of both untreated and acutely treated distal radius fracture, median neuropathy after correction of distal radius malunion is not commonly reported in hand surgery literature. Complications were defined as malunion, carpal tunnel syndrome, complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), persistent pain, and subjective cosmetic deformity of the wrist. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common complication associated with distal radius fractures. The patient also had minor complications of little finger flexor tendon irritation and carpal tunnel syndrome. She underwent implant removal and carpal tunnel release at 8 months. Acute multiple flexor tendon injury and carpal tunnel syndrome after open distal radius fracture. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common condition and is a well-recognized phenomenon following a distal radius fracture. We report the incidence of late onset post-operative carpal tunnel syndrome (late carpal tunnel syndrome) and late median nerve neuropathy after volar plating of distal radius fracture by conducting a retrospective study on volar plating for distal radius fracture performed during 2002 to 2006. Carpal tunnel syndrome after distal radius fracture. [Case-control study on transverse carpal ligament resection for the prevention of delayed carpal tunnel syndrome after distal radius fracture]. Hand numbness and carpal tunnel syndrome after volar plating of distal radius fracture. Delayed carpal tunnel syndrome presenting after a distal radius fracture has healed is best managed in standard fashion. Being well known and accepted techniques of carpal tunnel release, we believe that the techniques described in this paper provide a viable alternative for carpal tunnel release in the setting of distal radius fracture fixation; with the added advantages of the original minimally invasive techniques. Carpal tunnel syndrome after fracture of the distal radius is a well known complication in adults, but in small children carpal tunnel syndrome is extremely rare. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Distal Radius Fractures. Carpal tunnel syndrome after distal radius fracture. Hand numbness and carpal tunnel syndrome after volar plating of distal radius fracture.
yes
5a75f1f383b0d9ea66000006
Can Logic Alignment Free (LAF) be used for bacterial genomes classification?
LAF: Logic Alignment Free and its application to bacterial genomes classification. In this paper, we present Logic Alignment Free (LAF), a method that combines alignment-free techniques and rule-based classification algorithms in order to assign biological samples to their taxa. This method searches for a minimal subset of k-mers whose relative frequencies are used to build classification models as disjunctive-normal-form logic formulas (if-then rules). We apply LAF successfully to the classification of bacterial genomes to their corresponding taxonomy. In particular, we succeed in obtaining reliable classification at different taxonomic levels by extracting a handful of rules, each one based on the frequency of just few k-mers. State of the art methods to adjust the frequency of k-mers to the character distribution of the underlying genomes have negligible impact on classification performance, suggesting that the signal of each class is strong and that LAF is effective in identifying it. In this paper, we present Logic Alignment Free (LAF), a method that combines alignment-free techniques and rule-based classification algorithms in order to assign biological samples to their taxa. LAF: Logic Alignment Free and its application to bacterial genomes classification.
yes
5a722a052dc08e987e000002
Is Marfan syndrome associated with chordal rupture?
Repair of the mitral valve in children who have Marfan syndrome is especially difficult due to the presence of generalized connective tissue disorder, which may lead to future elongation and rupture of chordae tendineae that were unaffected at the time of mitral valve repair. Mitral regurgitation was caused by annulus dilatation in all patients, by leaflet prolapse in five patients, and by chordal rupture due to endocarditis in two. Perioperative coronary artery spasm in modified Bentall's operation for annulo-aortic ectasia in Marfan's syndrome. A case report of perioperative chordal rupture of the mitral valve. In a modified Bentall's operation (button technique), perioperative severe coronary artery spasm occurred in spite of the preventive use of nitroglycerin infusion, which resulted in profound ventricular fibrillation and subsequent chordal rupture of the mitral valve with Sellers IV regurgitation. It is worthy to report this case because of rarities such as Marfan's syndrome accompanied by Prinzmetal's variant angina, perioperative coronary artery spasm in modified Bentall's operation, and perioperative chordal rupture of the mitral valve and progression of mitral valve regurgitation. The four Major Complications- sudden death, infective endocarditis, spontaneous rupture of chordae tendineae, and progressive mitral regurgitation- are examined. Associated Cardiac Diseases, i.e., Marfan's syndrome, ostium secundum atrial septal defect and atherosclerotic coronary artery disease, are discussed, and a section on Treatment deals chiefly with prophylaxis for infective endocarditis and the management of arrhythmias and chest pain. Acute mitral regurgitation due to chordal rupture in a patient with neonatal Marfan syndrome caused by a deletion in exon 29 of the FBN1 gene. Acute mitral regurgitation due to chordal rupture in a patient with neonatal Marfan syndrome caused by a deletion in exon 29 of the FBN1 gene. Total chordal augmentation in a child with Marfan syndrome and severe mitral insufficiency.
yes
5a6f922fb750ff4455000059
Can canagliflozin cause euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis?
CASE REPORT: We present a case of a 57-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus taking a combination of canagliflozin and metformin who presented with progressive altered mental status over the previous 2 days. Her work-up demonstrated a metabolic acidosis with an anion gap of 38 and a venous serum pH of 7.08. The serum glucose was 168 mg/dL. The urinalysis showed glucose>500 mg/dL and ketones of 80 mg/dL. Further evaluation demonstrated an elevated serum osmolality of 319 mOsm/kg and an acetone concentration of 93 mg/dL. She was treated with intravenous insulin and fluids, and the metabolic abnormalities and her altered mental status resolved within 36 h. This was the first episode of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) for this patient. WHY SHOULD AN EMERGENCY PHYSICIAN BE AWARE OF THIS?: Diabetic patients on SGLT2 inhibitor medications are at risk for ketoacidosis. Due to the renal glucose-wasting properties of these drugs, they may present with ketoacidosis with only mild elevations in serum glucose, potentially complicating the diagnosis. Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis with Persistent Diuresis Treated with Canagliflozin. We herein report the case of a 27-year-old Asian woman with type 2 diabetes who was treated with a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor (canagliflozin) who developed euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis and persistent diuresis in the absence of hyperglycemia. Canagliflozin raised the risk of amputations and the rate of fractures in the CANVAS trial, although more data are necessary before drawing definite conclusions. The risk of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis seems to be minimal when the drugs are prescribed properly. Severe Ketoacidosis Associated with Canagliflozin (Invokana): A Safety Concern. However, some serious side effects, including severe anion gap metabolic acidosis and euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), have been reported. At present, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has only approved three medications (canagliflozin, dapagliflozin and empagliflozin) in this drug class for the management of Type 2 diabetes. In May 2015, the FDA issued a warning of ketoacidosis with use of this drug class. We present a case of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to canagliflozin in a type 2 diabetic patient. Nonconvulsive Status Epilepticus in Elderly Patients Receiving SSRIs; Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis Associated with Canagliflozin Use in a Type 1 Diabetic Patient; Duloxetine-Induced Galactorrhea; Canagliflozin-Associated Severe Hypercalcemia and Hypernatremia; Vemurafenib-Induced Fanconi Syndrome. Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis in a 27 year-old female patient with type-1-Diabetes treated with sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor Canagliflozin. We are reporting a timely case of atypical euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis in a type 1 diabetic patient treated with sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor canagliflozin. Euglycemic ketoacidosis did not recur in our patient after discontinuing canagliflozin. Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis With Prolonged Glucosuria Associated With the Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter-2 Canagliflozin. In this article, we present a case of a 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes who developed euglycemic DKA after initiating therapy with canagliflozin. SGLT2 inhibitors such as canagliflozin may predispose patients not only to diabetic ketoacidosis but also to prolonged glucosuria. We present a case of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to canagliflozin in a type 2 diabetic patient.<br> We present a case of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to canagliflozin in a type 2 diabetic patient. CONCLUSION Treatment with canagliflozin was associated with development of euglycemic ketoacidosis. Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis with Persistent Diuresis Treated with Canagliflozin. We present a case of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to canagliflozin in a type 2 diabetic patient.. Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis With Prolonged Glucosuria Associated With the Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter-2 Canagliflozin. Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis in a 27 year-old female patient with type-1-Diabetes treated with sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor Canagliflozin.
yes
5a68eabab750ff4455000015
Is there an association between Klinefelter syndrome and breast cancer?
Screening for breast cancer in male-to-female transsexuals should be undertaken for those with additional risk factors (e.g., family history, BRCA2 mutation, Klinefelter syndrome) and should be available to those who desire screening, preferably in a clinical trial. Klinefelter syndrome (OR = 24.7; 95% CI = 8.94 to 68.4) and gynecomastia (OR = 9.78; 95% CI = 7.52 to 12.7) were also statistically significantly associated with risk, relations that were independent of BMI. Male breast cancer risk factors show strong association with BRCA2 mutations, as well as Klinefelter syndrome. The main risk factors include: the mutation of genes BRCA 1 and 2, Klinefelter's syndrome, alcohol, liver disease, obesity. Although aetiology is still unclear, constitutional, environmental, hormonal (abnormalities in estrogen/androgen balance) and genetic (positive family history, Klinefelter syndrome, mutations in BRCA1 and specially BRCA2) risk factors are already known. The largest study found 19.2- and 57.8-fold increases in incidence and mortality, respectively, with particularly high risks among 47,XXY mosaics. CONCLUSIONS: Additional well-designed epidemiologic studies are needed to clarify which patients with KS are at a high risk of developing MBC and to distinguish between possible predisposing factors, including altered endogenous hormones. Major risk factors for developing male BC include clinical disorders involving hormonal imbalances (excess of estrogen or a deficiency of testosterone as seen in patients with Klinefelter syndrome) and a positive family history for breast cancer. Patients with 47, XXY karyotype (Klinefelter syndrome) appear to have increased risk of developing cancer, especially male breast cancer, germ cell tumours and non Hodgkin lymphomas, but rarely acute myeloid leukaemia. Breast cancer in a patient with Klinefelter's syndrome is reported. The increased conversion of testosterone to estradiol at the therapy with androgens might be responsible for the development of breast cancer in Klinefelter's syndrome. Patients with a 47,XXY karyotype (Klinefelter syndrome) appear to have an increased risk of developing cancer, especially male breast cancer and germ cell tumors, but rarely malignant hematologic disorders. The frequencies of diabetes mellitus, breast cancer, and germ cell neoplasia increases in Klinefelter's syndrome. There is evidence, however, to suggest that Klinefelter's males have an increased risk of breast cancer that approaches three percent. Klinefelter syndrome has been consistently associated with breast cancer in men (MBC).<br><b>CASE REPORT</b>: We report a 54-year old man was diagnosed as synchronous bilateral breast cancer with Klinefelter syndrome. These results support a hormonal etiology for breast cancer in men and for prostate cancer and suggest that men with Klinefelter syndrome may be at substantially elevated risks for non-Hodgkin lymphoma, breast cancer, and, perhaps, lung cancer. Major genetic factors associated with an increased risk of breast cancer for men include BRCA2 mutations, which are believed to account for the majority of inherited breast cancer in men, Klinefelter syndrome, and a positive family history. Those affected by Klinefelter's syndrome are at increased risk of systemic lupus erythematosus, breast cancer, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and lung cancer. CONCLUSIONS These results support a hormonal etiology for breast cancer in men and for prostate cancer and suggest that men with Klinefelter syndrome may be at substantially elevated risks for non-Hodgkin lymphoma, breast cancer, and, perhaps, lung cancer. Compared with the general population, men with Klinefelter syndrome had higher mortality from lung cancer (SMR = 1.5, 95% CI = 1.0 to 2.0), breast cancer (SMR = 57.8, 95% CI = 18.8 to 135.0), and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (SMR = 3.5, 95% CI = 1.6 to 6.6) and lower mortality from prostate cancer (SMR = 0, 95% CI = 0 to 0.7). Klinefelter syndrome has been consistently associated with breast cancer in men (MBC). Male breast cancer risk factors show strong association with BRCA2 mutations, as well as Klinefelter syndrome. Patients with 47, XXY karyotype (Klinefelter syndrome) appear to have increased risk of developing cancer, especially male breast cancer, germ cell tumours and non Hodgkin lymphomas, but rarely acute myeloid leukaemia. Klinefelter syndrome, in which patients carry XXY chromosome, may be present in men with breast cancer for this reason they often develop gynecomastia.<br> Klinefelter syndrome has been consistently associated with breast cancer in men (MBC). These results support a hormonal etiology for breast cancer in men and for prostate cancer and suggest that men with Klinefelter syndrome may be at substantially elevated risks for non-Hodgkin lymphoma, breast cancer, and, perhaps, lung cancer..
yes
5a7615af83b0d9ea6600001f
Is vorinostat effective for glioblastoma?
Conclusions: Vorinostat combined with standard chemoradiation had acceptable tolerability in newly diagnosed glioblastoma. Although the primary efficacy endpoint was not met, vorinostat sensitivity and resistance signatures could facilitate patient selection in future trials. LESSONS LEARNED: Combination regimen with bevacizumab (BEV) and vorinostat is well tolerated in patients with recurrent glioblastoma. CONCLUSION: Combination treatment of BEV and VOR was well tolerated. This combination therapy for this study population did not improve PFS6 or median OS when compared with BEV monotherapy. We present two patients with glioblastoma multiforme who developed severe hemolytic anemia shortly after initiating therapy with vorinostat, a pan-active histone deacetylase inhibitor, while on prophylactic dapsone. Vorinostat is the most advanced HDAC inhibitor that entered clinical trials in glioblastoma, showing activity in recurrent disease. Multiple phase II trials with vorinostat in combination with targeted agents, temozolomide and radiotherapy are currently recruiting. . On the basis of the results of this phase II study, further evaluation of the vorinostat-bortezomib combination in GBM patients in this dose and schedule is not recommended. ith the increased toxicities associated with CPT-11 coupled with its unclear clinical significance, investigating the efficacy of vorinostat combined with bevacizumab alone may represent a more promising strategy to evaluate in the context of a phase II clinical trial. CONCLUSION: Vorinostat in combination with temozolomide is well tolerated in patients with HGG. A phase I/II trial of vorinostat with radiotherapy and concomitant TMZ in newly diagnosed glioblastoma is underway.
no
5a773c50faa1ab7d2e000002
Has ATF4 transcription factor been linked to cancer and neoplastic transformation?
aken together, we discovered a novel axis of BCL10-regulated OSCC progression via STAT1/ATF4/S100P/P65 signaling, which could predict the prognosis of OSCC and will be beneficial for developing therapeutic strategy against advanced OSCC s a result, the level of phosphorylated Eukaryotic Initiation Factor 2 alpha (eIF2α) is markedly elevated, resulting in the promotion of a pro-adaptive signaling pathway by the inhibition of global protein synthesis and selective translation of Activating Transcription Factor 4 (ATF4). Many cancers overexpress ATF4, a stress-induced transcription factor that promotes cell survival under hypoxic conditions and other stresses of the tumor microenvironment, but the potential contributions of ATF4 to oncogenesis itself have been little explored. Here, we report that ATF4 promotes oncogene-induced neoplastic transformation by suppressing the expression of cellular senescence-associated genes. Here, we report that ATF4 promotes oncogene-induced neoplastic transformation by suppressing the expression of cellular senescence-associated genes. Elevated levels of ATF4 were sufficient to suppress expression of these proteins and drive oncogenic transformation. Our findings define a central function for ATF4 in promoting oncogenic transformation by suppressing a central pathway of cellular senescence.<br> ATF4 expression is upregulated in cancer. Activating transcription factor 4 (ATF4), an endoplasmic reticulum stress-inducible transcription factor, plays important roles in cancer progression and resistance to therapy. Activating transcription factor 4 (ATF4) is a stress-induced transcription factor that is frequently upregulated in cancer cells. Our findings define a central function for ATF4 in promoting oncogenic transformation by suppressing a central pathway of cellular senescence. Stress-regulated transcription factor ATF4 promotes neoplastic transformation by suppressing expression of the INK4a/ARF cell senescence factors. Activating transcription factor 4 (ATF4), a member of the ATF/CREB family, has been reported to be related to tumor angiogenesis
yes
5a6f87c5b750ff4455000056
Are patients with Sjogren syndrome at increased risk for lymphoma?
The heightened risk of non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) development in primary Sjogren syndrome (SS) is well established. Primary Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma of the Liver in a Patient with Sjogren Syndrome. Immunohistochemical and molecular features of the tumors allowed diagnosis of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL). To our knowledge, the patient described here represents the first reported case of DLBCL with primary liver involvement in SS. Rituximab is also effective in the treatment of SS-associated (extrasalivary) lymphomas, although the therapeutic response in salivary lymphoma is poorer. Rituximab treatment for Sjogren syndrome-associated non-Hodgkin's lymphoma: case series. Five per cent of patients with primary Sjogren's syndrome (pSS) develop malignant non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL), usually of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) and most frequently located in the major salivary glands. [A case of Sjogren syndrome coexistent with MALT lymphoma occurring along the parotid gland and trachea]. Both histological examinations revealed MALT-type marginal zone B-cell lymphoma. In the majority of patients, it is a late event and frequently associated with systemic disease or risk factors for lymphoma development. The incidence of lymphoma is higher in patients with Sjögren's syndrome than in the general population. Among the clinical and serological parameters that have been associated with lymphoma development in SS patients, the presence of palpable purpura, low C4, and mixed monoclonal cryoglobulinemia constitute the main predictive markers, and patients displaying these risk factors should be monitored closely. A case of pulmonary pseudolymphoma and Sjogren syndrome is presented. Furthermore, RA, Sjögren's syndrome, systemic lupus erythematosus, and possibly celiac disease may share an association with risk of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, in addition to well-established links of Sjögren's syndrome with risk of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma and of celiac disease with risk of small intestinal lymphoma. Predicting the risk for lymphoma development in Sjogren syndrome: An easy tool for clinical use. Lymphoma is a very severe complication of primary Sjögren's syndrome: 5 to 10% of patients followed for more than 10 years will develop a lymphoma. Hematologic manifestations and predictors of lymphoma development in primary Sjögren syndrome: clinical and pathophysiologic aspects. Recent results clearly indicate an association between severity of chronic inflammation and lymphoma risk in RA and Sjögren's syndrome. Several autoimmune diseases, including primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS), are associated with an increased risk for lymphoma. Primary Sjogren's syndrome (pSS) confers increased risk for non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) development. Furthermore, we review the emerging role of ELS and lymphoid chemokines in driving extranodal B cell lymphomagenesis in SS and we focus on recent evidence suggesting that ELS identify subsets of SS patients at increased risk of developing systemic manifestations and lymphoma. Sjogren's syndrome (SS) is a chronic autoimmune disorder with the highest risk for lymphoma development among all autoimmune diseases. In contrast to secondary SS, the risk for developing non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is highly increased in patients with primary SS. Predicting the risk for lymphoma development in Sjogren syndrome: An easy tool for clinical use. Primary Sjogren's syndrome (pSS) is complicated by B-cell lymphoma in 5-10% of patients. Patients with Sjögren syndrome are at increased risk of lymphoma development. Sjogren's syndrome is an autoimmune disease with a known predisposition for lymphoma development. Certain autoimmune and chronic inflammatory conditions, such as Sjögren's syndrome and rheumatoid arthritis (RA), have consistently been associated with an increased risk of malignant lymphomas, but it is unclear whether elevated lymphoma risk is a phenomenon that accompanies inflammatory conditions in general.
yes
5a76016683b0d9ea6600000d
Down's syndrome occurs when an individual has an extra copy or part of a copy of chromosome 21, yes or no?
Down syndrome (DS; trisomy 21) is the most common survivable disorder due to aneuploidy. Down syndrome (DS), trisomy 21, is caused by increased dose of genes present on human chromosome 21 (HSA21) Down syndrome, or Trisomy 21, is the most frequently occurring chromosomal abnormality in live-born children. Down syndrome (DS), caused by trisomy of chromosome 21, Submicroscopic duplication of chromosome 21 and trisomy 21 phenotype (Down syndrome). Trisomy 21 or Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder resulting from the presence of all or part of an extra Chromosome 21. Down syndrome is a genetic disorder, occurring when an individual has all or part of an extra copy of chromosome 21. Downs syndrome (DS) occurs due to an extra copy of chromosome 21. Down syndrome, which arises in individuals carrying an extra copy of chromosome 21, is associated with a greatly increased risk of early-onset Alzheimer disease. Aneuploidy refers to the presence of an extra copy of a specific chromosome, or trisomy, as seen in Down's syndrome (trisomy 21), or the absence of a single chromosome, or monosomy, as seen in Turner syndrome (a single X chromosome in females: 45, X). Down syndrome (DS) or Trisomy 21 (Ts21) is caused by the presence of an extra copy of all or part of human chromosome 21 (Hsa21) and is the most frequent survivable congenital chromosomal abnormality. Down syndrome (DS) is a major cause of mental retardation and heart disease. Although it is usually caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, a subset of the diagnostic features may be caused by the presence of only band 21q22. Down syndrome is usually caused by complete trisomy 21. Down syndrome, the most frequent genetic disorder, is characterized by an extra copy of all or part of chromosome 21. Down syndrome (DS), caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, affects 1 in 750 live births and is characterized by cognitive impairment and a constellation of congenital defects. Down syndrome (DS) results from one extra copy of human chromosome 21 and leads to several alterations including intellectual disabilities and locomotor defects. Down's syndrome results from the production of three copies of chromosome 21 within a cell. Downs syndrome (DS) occurs due to an extra copy of chromosome 21. Trisomy 21 (Ts21) is the most common live-born human aneuploidy; it results in a constellation of features known as Down's syndrome (DS). Down syndrome comprises multiple malformations and is due to trisomy of chromosome 21. n 1959, J. Lejeune, M. Gautier, and R. Turpin demonstrated that the children with Down syndrome had an extra copy of chromosome 21. To develop a reliable and specific method for rapid prenatal diagnosis of Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). Trisomy 21 Down syndrome is the most common genetic cause for congenital malformations and intellectual disability Down syndrome, characterized by an extra chromosome 21 is the most common genetic cause for congenital malformations and learning disability.
yes
5a68f633b750ff4455000019
Is creatinine assessment included in the MELD score?
Model For End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) scores were calculated as 3.78×ln[TB] + 11.2×ln[INR] + 9.57×ln[creatinine] + 6.43. A corrected creatinine was derived from the mGFR after application of the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease formula. Subsequently, a corrected MELD was calculated and compared with the conventionally calculated MELD. Among patients with MELD score>35, a new prognostic model based on serum creatinine, need for hemodialysis and moderate ascites could identify the sickest one. Patient risk factors evaluated include age, INR (international normalized ratio), creatinine, bilirubin, and MELD score (Model for End-of-stage Liver Disease). Limited comparability of creatinine assays in patients with liver cirrhosis and their impact on the MELD score. The model of end-stage liver disease (MELD) score is used for this purpose in most countries and incorporates bilirubin, International Normalized ratio, and creatinine. The MELD score was calculated using international normalized ratio, serum billirubin and creatinine. Regression analysis identified high creatinine and INR, but not bilirubin, as the MELD components predicting negative outcomes with ELAD. This study aimed to evaluate the impact of two creatinine measurement methods on the Model for End Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score and glomerular filtration rate estimation (eGFR) in cirrhotic patients. <b>OBJECTIVES</b>: The model for end-stage liver disease score (MELD = 3.8*LN[total bilirubin] + 9.6*LN[creatinine] + 11.2*[PT-INR] + 6.4) predicts mortality for tricuspid valve surgery. Simplified MELD score = 3.8*LN[total bilirubin] + 9.6*LN[creatinine] + 6.4.<br><b>METHODS</b>: A total of 172 patients (male: 66, female: 106; mean age, 63.8 ± 10.3 years) who underwent tricuspid replacement (n = 18) or repair (n = 154) from January 1991 to July 2011 at a single centre were included. CONCLUSION Incorporating eGFR obtained by the 6-variable MDRD equation into the MELD score showed an equal predictive performance in in-hospital mortality compared to a creatinine-based MELD score. Simplified MELD score = 3.8*LN[total bilirubin] + 9.6*LN[creatinine] + 6.4.
yes
5a79d195faa1ab7d2e00000e
Is celiac disease caused by gliadin-induced transglutaminase-2 (TG2)-dependent events ?
Celiac disease (CD) is a frequent inflammatory intestinal disease, with a genetic background, caused by gliadin-containing food. Celiac disease (CD) is an autoimmune enteropathy initiated and sustained by the ingestion of gluten in genetically susceptible individuals. It is caused by a dysregulated immune response toward both dietary antigens, the gluten proteins of wheat, rye, and barley, and autoantigens, the enzyme tissue transglutaminase (TG2) Celiac disease (CD) is an autoimmune gastrointestinal disorder characterized by the presence of anti-transglutaminase 2 (TG2) and anti-gliadin antibodies Transglutaminase 2 (TG2) catalyzes cross-linking or deamidation of glutamine residues in peptides and proteins. The in vivo deamidation of gliadin peptides plays an important role in the immunopathogenesis of celiac disease (CD). Tissue transglutaminase (TG2) modifies proteins and peptides by transamidation or deamidation of specific glutamine residues. TG2 also has a central role in the pathogenesis of celiac disease. The enzyme is both the target of disease-specific autoantibodies and generates deamidated gliadin peptides recognized by intestinal T cells from patients.
yes
5a79d25dfaa1ab7d2e00000f
Does wheat belongs to the genus Avena, yes or no?
oat seedlings (Avena sativa) wild green-oat (Avena sativa) Oat (Avena sativa L.) Oat (Avena sativa L.) Avena (Oats) wild oats (Avena fatua L.) oats (genus Avena) Avena sativa L. and A. byzantina C. Koch) oat (Avena sativa L.). oat (Avena sativa L.) and wheat (Triticum aestivum
no
5a6d2558b750ff4455000036
Does Uc.160 promote cancer?
We previously discovered the downregulation of T-UCR expression in gastric cancer (GC), indicating that T-UCRs could play an important role in GC biology. Uc.160+, a T-UCR reported to be downregulated in human cancer, has not been examined in GC.METHODS: We analyzed the expression pattern of Uc.160+ in nonneoplastic and tumor tissues of the stomach by using uantitative reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR) and in situ hybridization (ISH), specifically focusing on the mechanism of transcriptional regulation and target genes that are regulated by T-UCRs. We also attempted to determine the effect of Uc.160+ expression on biological features of GC cell lines by Western blotting.RESULTS: On the basis of the qRT-PCR and ISH results, Uc.160+ expression in adenoma and GC tissues was clearly downregulated compared with that in nonneoplastic mucosa tissues of the stomach. Cancer-specific DNA methylation in the promoter region of Uc.160 was observed by bisulfite genomic DNA sequencing analysis. The effect of DNA methylation on Uc.160+ expression was further confirmed by reporter gene assay. We also revealed that Uc.160+ inhibited the phosphorylation of Akt by regulating phosphatase and tensin homolog (PTEN) expression.CONCLUSIONS: These results indicate that Uc.160+ could possibly have a tumor suppressive role in GC. Uc.160+, a T-UCR reported to be downregulated in human cancer, has not been examined in GC.<br><b>METHODS</b>: We analyzed the expression pattern of Uc.160+ in nonneoplastic and tumor tissues of the stomach by using uantitative reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR) and in situ hybridization (ISH), specifically focusing on the mechanism of transcriptional regulation and target genes that are regulated by T-UCRs. We also revealed that Uc.160+ inhibited the phosphorylation of Akt by regulating phosphatase and tensin homolog (PTEN) expression.<br><b>CONCLUSIONS</b>: These results indicate that Uc.160+ could possibly have a tumor suppressive role in GC.<br> We also attempted to determine the effect of Uc.160+ expression on biological features of GC cell lines by Western blotting.<br><b>RESULTS</b>: On the basis of the qRT-PCR and ISH results, Uc.160+ expression in adenoma and GC tissues was clearly downregulated compared with that in nonneoplastic mucosa tissues of the stomach. CONCLUSIONS These results indicate that Uc.160+ could possibly have a tumor suppressive role in GC. Uc.160+, a T-UCR reported to be downregulated in human cancer, has not been examined in GC. Among the T-UCRs that were reactivated upon drug treatment, Uc.160+, Uc283+A and Uc.346+ were found to undergo specific CpG island hypermethylation-associated silencing in cancer cells compared with normal tissues. Uc.160+, a T-UCR reported to be downregulated in human cancer, has not been examined in GC. These results indicate that Uc.160+ could possibly have a tumor suppressive role in GC..
no
5a69031bb750ff445500001e
Can doxycycline cause photosensitivity?
Phototoxicity of Doxycycline: A Systematic Review on Clinical Manifestations, Frequency, Cofactors, and Prevention. BACKGROUND: One of the most important dermatologic side effects of doxycycline is photosensitivity. While there are many publications on the phototoxicity of tetracyclines in general, only a few exist focusing on doxycycline. Clinical symptoms vary from light sunburn-like sensation (burning, erythema) to large-area photodermatitis. CONCLUSION: Evidence base must be improved for giving advice on appropriate prevention measures to travelers taking doxycycline and having a risk of significant sun exposure. Based on the available evidence, our best estimates of absolute effect for mefloquine versus doxycyline were: 2% versus 2% for discontinuation, 12% versus 3% for insomnia, 31% versus 3% for abnormal dreams, 18% versus 1% for anxiety, 11% versus 1% for depressed mood, 4% versus 14% for dyspepsia, 2% versus 19% for photosensitivity, 1% versus 5% for vomiting, and 2% versus 16% for vaginal thrush. Many drugs are responsible for this phototoxic reaction, especially tetracyclines, psoralens, chloramphenicol, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, fluoroquinolones, and, rarely, doxycycline. OBJECTIVES: Many patients undergoing long-term doxycycline treatment do not regularly take their treatment because of photosensitivity. Modulation of Melanogenesis and Antioxidant Status of Melanocytes in Response to Phototoxic Action of Doxycycline. Doxycycline is a commonly used tetracycline antibiotic showing the broad spectrum of antibacterial action. However, the use of this antibiotic is often connected with the risk of phototoxic reactions that lead to various skin disorders. The results obtained in vitro may explain the mechanisms of phototoxic reactions that occur in normal human epidermal melanocytes in vivo after exposure of skin to doxycycline and UVA radiation. Treatment with doxycycline is cheap and relatively safe, but gastrointestinal symptoms and photosensitivity reactions can be expected more often than with ceftriaxone.<br> <b>OBJECTIVES</b>: Many patients undergoing long-term doxycycline treatment do not regularly take their treatment because of photosensitivity. Photosensitivity reactions and gastrointestinal symptoms were noted more often among patients receiving doxycycline than in those receiving ceftriaxone. Thus, the action spectra of the drug photosensitivity patients were plotted and compared with those of 12 nonphotosensitive control patients: 10 patients were found to be photosensitive in the UVA range; the implicated drugs included quinine, sparfloxacin, amiodarone, doxycycline, mefenamic acid, nalidixic acid, fenbrufen, diclofenac, enalapril, diltiazem and prochlorperazine maleate. One patient on doxycycline was photosensitive in both the UVA and UVB ranges. Treatment with doxycycline is cheap and relatively safe, but gastrointestinal symptoms and photosensitivity reactions can be expected more often than with ceftriaxone. Anti-inflammatory-dose doxycycline should not be used by individuals with known hypersensitivity to tetracyclines or increased photosensitivity, or by pregnant or nursing women (anti-inflammatory-dose doxycycline is a pregnancy category-D medication). <b>BACKGROUND</b>: One of the most important dermatologic side effects of doxycycline is photosensitivity. One of the most important dermatologic side effects of doxycycline is photosensitivity. One patient experienced mild photosensitivity from doxycycline but continued to take it. Participants in the doxycycline group had a higher incidence of nausea and photosensitivity. Photosensitivity reactions and gastrointestinal symptoms were noted more often among patients receiving doxycycline than in those receiving ceftriaxone.
yes
5a6e21b4b750ff445500003a
Are paralog genes co-regulated?
Co-regulation of paralog genes in the three-dimensional chromatin architecture. Consequently, paralogs show correlation in gene expression whereby the mechanisms of co-regulation remain unclear. In eukaryotes, genes are regulated in part by distal enhancer elements through looping interactions with gene promoters. These looping interactions can be measured by genome-wide chromatin conformation capture (Hi-C) experiments, which revealed self-interacting regions called topologically associating domains (TADs). We hypothesize that paralogs share common regulatory mechanisms to enable coordinated expression according to TADs. To test this hypothesis, we integrated paralogy annotations with human gene expression data in diverse tissues, genome-wide enhancer-promoter associations and Hi-C experiments in human, mouse and dog genomes. We show that paralog gene pairs are enriched for co-localization in the same TAD, share more often common enhancer elements than expected and have increased contact frequencies over large genomic distances. Combined, our results indicate that paralogs share common regulatory mechanisms and cluster not only in the linear genome but also in the three-dimensional chromatin architecture. This enables concerted expression of paralogs over diverse cell-types and indicate evolutionary constraints in functional genome organization. Paralog genes arise from gene duplication events during evolution, which often lead to similar proteins that cooperate in common pathways and in protein complexes. Consequently, paralogs show correlation in gene expression We hypothesize that paralogs share common regulatory mechanisms to enable coordinated expression according to TADs. Further, interspecific changes in testis bias of expression are generally correlated within the co-regulated pairs and are anti-correlated within the anti-regulated pairs, suggesting coordinated regulation within both types of paralogous gene pairs. Analysis of the Drosophila melanogaster testes transcriptome reveals coordinate regulation of paralogous genes. Further, interspecific changes in testis bias of expression are generally correlated within the co-regulated pairs and are anti-correlated within the anti-regulated pairs, suggesting coordinated regulation within both types of paralogous gene pairs.<br> Consequently, paralogs show correlation in gene expression whereby the mechanisms of co-regulation remain unclear. Co-regulation of paralog genes in the three-dimensional chromatin architecture. Further, interspecific changes in testis bias of expression are generally correlated within the co-regulated pairs and are anti-correlated within the anti-regulated pairs, suggesting coordinated regulation within both types of paralogous gene pairs.. We show that paralog gene pairs are enriched for co-localization in the same TAD, share more often common enhancer elements than expected and have increased contact frequencies over large genomic distances. MiRNA genes are often subject to co-evolutionary changes together with their target transcripts, which may be reflected by differences between paralog mouse and primate miRNA/mRNA pairs. We characterize the collapse over time through the distribution of runs of reduced paralog pairs in duplicated segments. In addition, we identified 81 co-regulated regions on the human genome (RIDGEs) by using expression data from all cancers. Some RIDGEs (28%) consist of paralog genes while another subset (30%) are specifically dysregulated in tumors but not in normal tissues. We conclude that the similarity of hoxb3a/Hoxa3 regulatory mechanisms reflect the shared descent of both genes from a single ancestral paralog group 3 gene. Conserved co-regulation and promoter sharing of hoxb3a and hoxb4a in zebrafish. By analyzing paralogs of testis-biased genes, we identified "co-regulated" paralogous pairs in which both genes are testis biased, "anti-regulated" pairs in which one paralog is testis biased and the other downregulated in testes, and "neutral" pairs in which one paralog is testis biased and the other constitutively expressed.
yes
5a8714e261bb38fb24000005
Is polyadenylation a process that stabilizes a protein by adding a string of Adenosine residues to the end of the molecule?
The addition of poly(A) tails to eukaryotic nuclear mRNAs promotes their stability, export to the cytoplasm and translation. Most eukaryotic genes express mRNAs with alternative polyadenylation sites at their 3' ends Polyadenylation is the non-template addition of adenosine nucleotides at the 3'-end of RNA, which occurs after transcription and generates a poly(A) tail up to 250-300 nucleotides long. Polyadenylation is a process of endonucleolytic cleavage of the mRNA, followed by addition of up to 250 adenosine residues to the 3' end of the mRNA. Plant mitochondrial polyadenylated mRNAs are degraded by a 3'- to 5'-exoribonuclease activity, which proceeds unimpeded by stable secondary structures. We show that a 3'- to 5'-exoribonuclease activity is responsible for the preferential degradation of polyadenylated mRNAs as compared with non-polyadenylated mRNAs, and that 20-30 adenosine residues constitute the optimal poly(A) tail size for inducing degradation of RNA substrates in vitro. The diversity of polyadenylation sites suggests that mRNA polyadenylation in prokaryotes is a relatively indiscriminate process that can occur at all mRNA's 3'-ends and does not require specific consensus sequences as in eukaryotes. Polyadenylation of premessenger RNAs occurs posttranscriptionally in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells by cleavage of the precursor and polymerization of adenosine residues. However, under certain conditions, poly(A) tracts may lead to mRNA stabilization. From these results, we propose that in plant mitochondria, poly(A) tails added at the 3' ends of mRNAs promote an efficient 3'- to 5'- degradation process.. Auxiliary downstream elements are required for efficient polyadenylation of mammalian pre-mRNAs. Transcription in these cells is polycistronic. Tens to hundreds of protein-coding genes of unrelated function are arrayed in long clusters on the same DNA strand. Polycistrons are cotranscriptionally processed by trans-splicing at the 5' end and polyadenylation at the 3' end, generating monocistronic units ready for degradation or translation We have devised a simple chromatographic procedure which isolates five polyadenylation factors that are required for polyadenylation of eukaryotic mRNA. During mammalian oocyte maturation, protein synthesis is mainly controlled through cytoplasmic polyadenylation of stored maternal mRNAs. Identification and characterization of a polyadenylated small RNA (s-poly A+ RNA) in dinoflagellates. Thus, polyadenylation seems to be a major component of the RNA editing machinery that affects overlapping genes in animal mitochondria. Pre-mRNA 3'-end processing, the process through which almost all eukaryotic mRNAs acquire a poly(A) tail is generally inhibited during the cellular DNA damage Almost all eukaryotic mRNAs possess 3' ends with a polyadenylate (poly(A)) tail. We previously demonstrated, by limited mutagenesis, that conserved sequence elements within the 5' end of influenza virus virion RNA (vRNA) are required for the polyadenylation of mRNA in vitro. Polyadenylation of mRNA precursors by poly(A) polymerase depends on two specificity factors and their recognition sequences The majority of eukaryotic pre-mRNAs are processed by 3'-end cleavage and polyadenylation Formation of mRNA 3' termini involves cleavage of an mRNA precursor and polyadenylation of the newly formed end. The polyadenylation of RNA is a near-universal feature of RNA metabolism in eukaryotes. The mechanism of RNA degradation in Escherichia coli involves endonucleolytic cleavage, polyadenylation of the cleavage product by poly(A) polymerase, and exonucleolytic degradation by the exoribonucleases, The addition of poly(A)-tails to RNA is a process common to almost all organisms. The addition of poly(A) tails to RNA is a phenomenon common to all organisms examined so far. The addition of poly(A)-tails to RNA is a phenomenon common to almost all organisms. Polyadenylation contributes to the destabilization of bacterial mRNA.
no
5aa825b1fcf4565872000003
Are stress granules membraneous?
PMLOs are different in size, shape, and composition, and almost invariantly contain intrinsically disordered proteins (e.g., eIF4B and TDP43 in stress granules, Liquid-liquid phase separation (LLPS) of RNA-binding proteins plays an important role in the formation of multiple membrane-less organelles involved in RNA metabolism, including stress granules. Stress granules (SG) are membrane-less compartments involved in regulating mRNAs during stress. In addition to membrane delimited organelles, proteins and RNAs can organize themselves into specific domains. Some examples include stress granules and subnuclear bodies.
no
5aa304f1d6d6b54f79000004
Is the consumption of chocolate associated with an increase in cardiovascular disease?
The consumption of natural polyphenol-rich foods, and cocoa in particular, has been related to a reduced risk of CVD, including coronary heart disease and stroke. chocolate has been shown to decrease CVD risk due to its antioxidant and anti-inflammatory properties. A number of studies have shown that dietary polyphenols exert a protective effect against hypertension, dyslipidemias, inflammation, endothelial function and atherosclerosis, conditions associated with increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Chocolate consumption may have a beneficial effect on cardiovascular health, Data currently available indicate that daily consumption of cocoa-rich chocolate (rich in polyphenols) may at least partially lower cardiovascular disease risk. CONCLUSIONS The blood pressure and cholesterol lowering effects of dark chocolate consumption are beneficial in the prevention of cardiovascular events in a population with metabolic syndrome. Daily dark chocolate consumption could be an effective cardiovascular preventive strategy in this population. BACKGROUND The consumption of chocolate and cocoa has established cardiovascular benefits. CONCLUSIONS Chocolate consumption is associated with lower risk of MI and ischaemic heart disease. Chocolate consumption was inversely associated with MI risk. Chocolate consumption is associated with lower risk of MI and ischaemic heart disease. The consumption of cocoa/ chocolate (i) increases plasma antioxidant capacity, (ii) diminishes platelet function and inflammation, and (iii) decreases diastolic and systolic arterial pressures. Chocolate consumption was inversely associated with MI risk. Chocolate consumption is inversely associated with prevalent coronary heart disease: the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute Family Heart Study. Daily chocolate consumption is inversely associated with insulin resistance and liver enzymes in the Observation of Cardiovascular Risk Factors in Luxembourg study. Collectively, the antioxidant effects of flavonoid-rich foods may reduce cardiovascular disease risk. The consumption of cocoa and dark chocolate is associated with a lower risk of CVD, and improvements in endothelial function may mediate this relationship It has been shown that the consumption of cocoa has a positive influence on a number of cardiovascular surrogate parameters such as arterial vasodilatation and a moderate decrease in blood pressure in humans. This study has shown that increasing the polyphenol content of the diet via consumption of F&V, berries and dark chocolate results in a significant improvement in an established marker of cardiovascular risk in hypertensive participants. Cocoa flavonoids exert cardiovascular benefits and neuroprotection. Accumulating evidence suggests potential preventive effects of chocolate/cocoa on the risk of cardio vascular disease (CVD).
no
5a9d79ca1d1251d03b00001d
Is the gene CDKN2A nevogenic?
Germline mutations in CDKN2A are frequently identified among melanoma kindreds and are associated with increased atypical nevus counts. Phenotypic characteristics of members of a melanoma prone kindred with a V126D CDKN2A gene mutation were monitored over approximately 15 y. Rare germline mutations in CDKN2A predispose to melanoma and appear to be nevogenic, although the correlation between nevus phenotype and mutation status is poor. It is plausible that more common CDKN2A variants may influence both melanoma susceptibility and nevus susceptibility. supporting the view that CDKN2A is nevogenic.
yes
5a80dbaafaa1ab7d2e000026
Are there ways of joint Bayesian inference of risk variants?
Joint Bayesian inference of risk variants and tissue-specific epigenomic enrichments across multiple complex human diseases. Genome wide association studies (GWAS) provide a powerful approach for uncovering disease-associated variants in human, but fine-mapping the causal variants remains a challenge. This is partly remedied by prioritization of disease-associated variants that overlap GWAS-enriched epigenomic annotations. Here, we introduce a new Bayesian model RiVIERA (Risk Variant Inference using Epigenomic Reference Annotations) for inference of driver variants from summary statistics across multiple traits using hundreds of epigenomic annotations. In simulation, RiVIERA promising power in detecting causal variants and causal annotations, the multi-trait joint inference further improved the detection power. We applied RiVIERA to model the existing GWAS summary statistics of 9 autoimmune diseases and Schizophrenia by jointly harnessing the potential causal enrichments among 848 tissue-specific epigenomics annotations from ENCODE/Roadmap consortium covering 127 cell/tissue types and 8 major epigenomic marks. RiVIERA identified meaningful tissue-specific enrichments for enhancer regions defined by H3K4me1 and H3K27ac for Blood T-Cell specifically in the nine autoimmune diseases and Brain-specific enhancer activities exclusively in Schizophrenia. Moreover, the variants from the 95% credible sets exhibited high conservation and enrichments for GTEx whole-blood eQTLs located within transcription-factor-binding-sites and DNA-hypersensitive-sites. Here, we introduce a new Bayesian model RiVIERA (Risk Variant Inference using Epigenomic Reference Annotations) for inference of driver variants from summary statistics across multiple traits using hundreds of epigenomic annotations. Joint Bayesian inference of risk variants and tissue-specific epigenomic enrichments across multiple complex human diseases.
yes
5a9acba61d1251d03b000014
Has intepirdine been evaluated in clinical trials? (November 2017)
Using small molecules blocking 5-HT6serotonin receptor (intepirdine), inhibiting BACE activity (E2609, AZD3293, and verubecestat), or reducing tau aggregation (TRx0237) are also currently in Phase III clinical trials.
yes
5aa3fa73d6d6b54f79000008
Is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis caused by the Measles vaccine?
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a potentially fatal complication of measles. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a fatal complication of measles. We reviewed California cases from 1998-2015 to understand risk f Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis should be eliminated by measles vaccination The mean interval between measles infection and onset of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis was 6.5 years (range = 3-11 years). Active surveillance of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis for those with measles infection during the 1988 outbreak is necessary to conduct multicenter drug trials for this devastating disease.<br> There has been an increasing trend of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis in southern China after the measles outbreak in 1988. The prevalence rate of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis in Hong Kong and Macau in 2002 was 1 per million total population or 5.5 per million children. Because a positive correlation was found between the prevalence of measles and the onset of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, particularly among children infected at an early age, it is vital to eradicate measles infection by vaccination.<br> Incidence of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis following measles and measles vaccination in Japan. UNLABELLED Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), in the majority of cases, is caused by the wild measles virus, although there are some reports relating SSPE to vaccination. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive neurodegenerative disease caused by the measles (rubeola) virus and is most often seen in children. There was no indication that measles vaccine can induce SSPE. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE), a rare lethal disease of children and young adults due to persistence of measles virus (MeV) in the brain, is caused by wild type (wt) MeV. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive neurological disorder of childhood and early adolescence caused by persistent defective measles virus. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a devastating disease of the central nervous system (CNS) caused by persistent mutant measles virus infection. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) caused by persistent defective measles virus strains, is a progressive neurological disorder of children and adolescents. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), in the majority of cases, is caused by the wild measles virus, although there are some reports relating SSPE to vaccination. Measles can persist in the central nervous system and cause subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), a progressive disease that is almost always fatal. However, because of the median 8-year interval between measles and onset of SSPE, The prevention of endemic circulation of measles virus in England and Wales through the high coverage achieved with MMR vaccine, together with the measles/rubella vaccination campaign of 1994, has resulted in the near elimination of SSPE. We applied the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to detect the measles virus genome in specimens from a 12-year-old boy with SSPE who had received measles vaccine 10 years before and had no history of apparent natural measles. The oligonucleotide primers for PCR were prepared based on the nucleotide sequence of the F and NP genes of the measles virus Edmonston strain.RESULTS: F and NP genes were detected in both the cerebrospinal fluid and peripheral blood lymphocytes. Nucleotide and deduced amino acid sequence analysis of the F gene showed that the patient's virus was different from that of the vaccine strain. Judging from these results, it was likely that the SSPE-associated strain in this case was derived from the wild-type rather than the vaccine strain subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a late, rare and usually fatal complication of measles infection. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a chronic central nervous (CNS) system infection caused by measles virus Epidemiological and virological data suggest that measles vaccine does not cause SSPE. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, a rare, progressive, fatal central nervous system disease of children, is caused by measles virus. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a form of chronic persistent measles encephalitis in childhood which rarely manifests after wild virus infection. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a fatal infectious disease of childhood caused by persistence of the measles virus in the brain. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a fatal encephalitis manifesting a number of years after a primary measles infection. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a fatal complication of measles infection. In 2015, the Oregon Health Authority was notified of the death of a boy with subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), a rare and fatal complication of measles. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare progressive neurological disorder of early adolescence caused by persistent infection of the measles virus, which remains prevalent worldwide despite an effective vaccine. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE) is a debilitating disorder associated with the measles infection in childhood.
no
5a76072283b0d9ea66000013
Does armodafinil improve fatigue of glioma patients?
CONCLUSIONS: While treatment was well-tolerated, an 8-week course of armodafinil did not improve fatigue or QOL in glioma patients undergoing RT in this pilot study. We evaluated whether armodafinil, a wakefulness-promoting medication, improves fatigue in glioma patients undergoing RT. Armodafinil did not significantly improve fatigue or QOL based on the 42-day change in FACIT-F fatigue subscale, FACT-G, CFS, or BFI. Further analysis suggests no difference between the arms even after accounting for the potential bias of missing data. Treatment was well tolerated with few grade 3 or 4 toxicities.<br><b>CONCLUSIONS</b>: While treatment was well-tolerated, an 8-week course of armodafinil did not improve fatigue or QOL in glioma patients undergoing RT in this pilot study. Armodafinil did not significantly improve fatigue or QOL based on the 42-day change in FACIT-F fatigue subscale, FACT-G, CFS, or BFI. While treatment was well-tolerated, an 8-week course of armodafinil did not improve fatigue or QOL in glioma patients undergoing RT in this pilot study.
no
5a9d30241d1251d03b00001b
Can gas vesicles be detected by ultrasound?
Gas vesicles-genetically encoded protein nanostructures isolated from buoyant photosynthetic microbes-have recently been identified as nanoscale reporters for ultrasound. Here, we demonstrate that genetic engineering of gas vesicles results in nanostructures with new mechanical, acoustic, surface, and functional properties to enable harmonic, multiplexed, and multimodal ultrasound imaging as well as cell-specific molecular targeting.
yes
5aa4faaed6d6b54f7900000b
Is Citrobacter rodentium pathogenic?
One day after colonization, mice were infected with the colonic pathogen, Citrobacter rodentium. The human pathogen enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (EPEC), as well as the mouse pathogen Citrobacter rodentium, colonize the gut mucosa via attaching and effacing lesion formation and cause diarrheal diseases. EPEC-like mouse pathogen Citrobacter rodentium Here, we develop a model that provides that link for the investigation of Citrobacter rodentium infection, a mouse model for enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (EPEC).
yes
5a723cd12dc08e987e00000b
Can CD55 deficiency cause thrombosis?
The loss of CD55 and CD59 renders PNH erythrocytes susceptible to intravascular haemolysis, which can lead to thrombosis and to much of the morbidity and mortality of PNH. CD55 Deficiency, Early-Onset Protein-Losing Enteropathy, and Thrombosis. CONCLUSIONS: CD55 deficiency with hyperactivation of complement, angiopathic thrombosis, and protein-losing enteropathy (the CHAPLE syndrome) is caused by abnormal complement activation due to biallelic loss-of-function mutations in CD55. It is caused by the expansion of a hematopoietic progenitor cell that has acquired a mutation in the X-linked phosphatidylinositol glycan class A (PIGA) gene that results in deficiency of the glycosylphosphatidylinositol anchor structure responsible for fixing a wide spectrum of proteins particularly CD55 and CD59. The clinical features of this disease arise as a result of complement-mediated hemolysis in unprotected red cells, leukocytes, and platelets as well as the release of free hemoglobin. Patients may present with a variety of clinical manifestations, such as anemia, thrombosis, kidney disease, smooth muscle dystonias, abdominal pain, dyspnea, and extreme fatigue. The lack of one of the GPI-AP complement regulatory proteins (CD55, CD59) leads to hemolysis. The disease is diagnosed with hemolytic anemia, marrow failure and thrombosis. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is a rare bone marrow failure disorder that manifests with hemolytic anemia, thrombosis, and peripheral blood cytopenias. The absence of two glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI)-anchored proteins, CD55 and CD59, leads to uncontrolled complement activation that accounts for hemolysis and other PNH manifestations. RESULTS: CD55 and/or CD59 deficiencies were found in 1.6% (2/127) of patients with primary BCS, 1.0% (1/100) of non-malignant and non-cirrhotic patients with PVT, and 4.7% (4/85) of cirrhotic patients with PVT. Data of this study indicate that the PNH defect as detected with CD55, CD59, and CD16 is not an important cause of intra-abdominal thrombosis in northwestern India. PNH testing of red blood cells revealed a CD55 and CD59 deficiency consistent with PNH in both cases. The systemic complications typically associated with thrombosis were not observed for the following several months with early conservative treatments including eculizumab. Deficiency of the GPI-anchored complement inhibitors CD55 and CD59 on erythrocytes leads to intravascular hemolysis upon complement activation. Apart from hemolysis, another prominent feature is a highly increased risk of thrombosis. Genetic reconstitution of CD55 or treatment with a complement-inhibitory therapeutic antibody reversed abnormal complement activation.<br><b>CONCLUSIONS</b>: CD55 deficiency with hyperactivation of complement, angiopathic thrombosis, and protein-losing enteropathy (the CHAPLE syndrome) is caused by abnormal complement activation due to biallelic loss-of-function mutations in CD55. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is an acquired clonal disorder characterized by a decrease or absence of glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI)-anchored molecules such as CD55 and CD59 from the surface of affected cells, resulting in intravascular hemolysis, cytopenia, and venous thrombosis. CONCLUSIONS CD55 deficiency with hyperactivation of complement, angiopathic thrombosis, and protein-losing enteropathy (the CHAPLE syndrome) is caused by abnormal complement activation due to biallelic loss-of-function mutations in CD55. CD55 deficiency with hyperactivation of complement, angiopathic thrombosis, and protein-losing enteropathy (the CHAPLE syndrome) is caused by abnormal complement activation due to biallelic loss-of-function mutations in CD55. CD55 Deficiency, Early-Onset Protein-Losing Enteropathy, and Thrombosis.
yes
5a981dd0fcd1d6a10c00002e
Are sleep apnea and snoring associated with cardiac arrhythmias?
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the commonest arrhythmia in clinical practice and is associated with increased cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), a common breathing disorder, is an independent risk factor for AF. There is a growing consensus in the scientific community that suggests a strong association between obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) and cardiovascular (CVD) conditions and events, including coronary artery disease, hypertension, arrhythmia, heart failure, and sudden cardiac death. part from well-established risk factors that increase the odds for the development of AF, e.g. age or arterial hypertension, recent analyses indicate that obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) may independently, negatively modify the arrhythmia occur-rence profile. Evidence supports a causal association of sleep apnea with the incidence and morbidity of hypertension, coronary heart disease, arrhythmia, heart failure, and stroke. Severe snoring may be associated with pulmonary and systemic hypertension, secondary polycythemia, and cardiac arrhythmias.<br> Severe snoring may be associated with pulmonary and systemic hypertension, secondary polycythemia, and cardiac arrhythmias. BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE Nocturnal cardiac arrhythmias occur in patients with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), reportedly as a consequence of the autonomic effects of recurrent apnea with subsequent oxygen desaturation. Obstructive apnea is associated with myocardial ischemia (silent or symptomatic), acute coronary events, stroke and transient ischemic attacks, cardiac arrhythmia, pulmonary hypertension and heart failure. Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is the most common form of sleep-disordered breathing, affecting 5-15% of the population. It is characterized by intermittent episodes of partial or complete obstruction of the upper airway during sleep that disrupts normal ventilation and sleep architecture, and is typically associated with excessive daytime sleepiness, snoring, and witnessed apneas. Patients with obstructive sleep apnea present risk to the general public safety by causing 8-fold increase in vehicle accidents, and they may themselves also suffer from the physiologic consequences of OSA; these include hypertension, coronary artery disease, stroke, congestive heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, and cardiac arrhythmias Obstructive sleep apnea and central sleep apnea with Cheyne-Stokes respiration are associated with an increased risk of cardiac arrhythmia. Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) affects approximately 4% of middle-aged men and 2% of middle-aged women. Cardiac arrhythmias are common problems in patients with OSA, even though the true prevalence and clinical relevance of cardiac arrhythmias remains to be determined. Cardiac arrhythmias during wakefulness and sleep in 15 patients with sleep-induced obstructive apnea, and the effect of atropine and tracheostomy on these arrhythmias were studied by continuous overnight Holter electrocardiographic, respiratory and electroencephalographic recordings. obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) as its most extreme variant, is characterized by intermittent episodes of partial or complete obstruction of the upper airway, leading to cessation of breathing while asleep. Cardiac arrhythmias are common problems in OSA patients, although the true prevalence and clinical relevance of cardiac arrhythmias remains to be determined The mechanisms associated with the cardiovascular consequences of obstructive sleep apnea include abrupt changes in autonomic tone, which can trigger cardiac arrhythmias. Recent studies have shown that cardiac arrhythmias and conduction disorders are common in patients with SA. Sleep apnea Severity of nocturnal cardiac arrhythmias correlates with intensity of sleep apnea in men Patients affected with OSA are frequently hypertensive and can have dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Patients with stable cardiac failure who snore may present sleep hypopnea and cardiac arrhythmias. Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is associated with increased cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. Cardiac arrhythmias are common in patients with OSA. Nocturnal hypoxia has been associated with serious ventricular tachyarrhythmias as well as life-threatening bradyarrhythmias. Obesity and snoring, both of which increase with age, have been identified as risk factors for sleep-related breathing disorders, as have hypertension and heart disease. Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is associated with excess daytime sleepiness, depression, and an increased incidence of ischemic cardiopathy, cardiac arrhythmias, systemic hypertension and brain infarction. We found 58 percent prevalence of arrhythmias in patients with sleep apnea (apnea/hypopnea index = AHI>10), vs 42 percent in nonapneic controls (chi 2 = 16.7, p<0.0001)
yes
5aa82180d6d6b54f79000015
Are osteoclasts specialized in bone degradation?
osteoclast-mediated attack on bone Bone degradation is caused by osteoclasts, the normal bone-resorbing cells. Cathepsin K is a highly potent collagenase in osteoclasts and is responsible for bone degradation. In osteoclasts, Src controls podosome organization and bone degradation, which leads to an osteopetrotic phenotype in src(-/-) mice Bone degradation by osteoclasts depends on the formation of a sealing zone, composed of an interlinked network of podosomes, which delimits the degradation lacuna into which osteoclasts secrete acid and proteolytic enzymes.
yes
5a733a672dc08e987e000014
Does temsirolimus improve survival of glioblastoma patients?
RESULTS: fourteen randomized clinical trials were identified (7 with bevacizumab, 2 cilengitide, 1 enzastaurin, 1 dasatinib, 1 vandetanib, 1 temsirolimus, 1 cediranib) including 4330 patients. Antiangiogenic drugs showed no improvement in overall survival with a pooled HR of 1.00, a trend for an inferior outcome, in terms of overall survival, was observed in the group of patients receiving antiangiogenic drug alone compared to cytotoxic drug alone (HR=1.24, p=0.056). CONCLUSIONS: Temsirolimus was not superior to temozolomide in patients with an unmethylated MGMT promoter. The actuarial 1-year survival was 72.2% [95% confidence interval (CI), 58.2-82.2] in the temozolomide arm and 69.6% (95% CI, 55.8-79.9) in the temsirolimus arm [hazard ratio (HR) 1.16; 95% CI, 0.77-1.76; P = 0.47]. CONCLUSION: The combination of bevacizumab with temsirolimus was well-tolerated and resulted in stable disease of at least four months/partial response in three out of six pediatric patients with chemorefractory CNS tumors. CONCLUSIONS: Temsirolimus administered weekly at the dose of 75 mg/m(2) did not meet the primary objective efficacy threshold in children with high-grade glioma, neuroblastoma or rhabdomyosarcoma; however, meaningful prolonged stable disease merits further evaluation in combination therapy. Novel targeted agents such as bevacizumab, imatinib, erlotinib, temsirolimus, immunotherapy, cilengitide, talampanel, etc. are helping classical chemotherapeutic agents, like temozolomide, to achieve an increase in overall survival. CONCLUSIONS: CCI-779 was well tolerated at this dose schedule; however, there was no evidence of efficacy in patients with recurrent GBM The addition of temsirolimus to interferon did not improve survival. CONCLUSIONS Temsirolimus was not superior to temozolomide in patients with an unmethylated MGMT promoter. The addition of temsirolimus to interferon did not improve survival.
no
5a991ee21d1251d03b000005
Are there sex differences in the transcriptome of the mouse hippocampus?
To better understand the possible molecular basis for the sex-biased nature of neurological disorders, we used a developmental series of female and male mice at 1, 2, and 4 months of age to assess both mRNA and protein in the hippocampus with RNA-sequencing and mass-spectrometry, respectively. The bulk of these differentially expressed genes are changed in both sexes at one or more ages, but a total of 198 transcripts are differentially expressed between females and males at one or more ages. The number of transcripts that are differentially expressed between females and males is greater in adult animals than in younger animals. Additionally, we identify 69 transcripts that show complex and sex-specific patterns of temporal regulation through postnatal development, 8 of which are heat-shock proteins. Additionally, this analysis reveals sex differences in the transcriptome of the developing mouse hippocampus, and further clarifies the need to include both female and male mice in longitudinal studies involving molecular changes in the hippocampus.
yes
5a96c886fcd1d6a10c00002a
A bite from the Lone Star Tick Amblyomma americanum, can cause the victim to become allergic to red meat, yes or no?
A recent discovery of an IgE antibody specific to galactose-α-1,3-galactose, which is a carbohydrate abundantly expressed on cells and tissues of beef, pork, and lamb, adds one more tool to aid the clinician in making the appropriate diagnosis. A link has been discovered between the bite of the Lone Star Tick (Amblyomma americanum) and the development of sensitivity to galactose-α-1,3-galactose. . Recently described conditions such as Southern tick-associated rash illness and anaphylaxis to red meat following tick bites have been attributed to the lone star tick. Recently described conditions such as Southern tick-associated rash illness and anaphylaxis to red meat following tick bites have been attributed to the lone star tick.
yes
5a7379a83b9d13c70800000a
Is Rucaparib effective for ovarian cancer?
INTERPRETATION: In patients with BRCA mutant or BRCA wild-type and LOH high platinum-sensitive ovarian carcinomas treated with rucaparib, progression-free survival was longer than in patients with BRCA wild-type LOH low carcinomas. High LOH is associated with response to the PARP inhibitor rucaparib in BRCA wild-type ovarian cancer. Rucaparib Approved for Ovarian Cancer. The FDA approved the PARP inhibitor rucaparib to treat women with advanced ovarian cancer who have already been treated with at least two chemotherapies and have a BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutation identified by an approved companion diagnostic test. Rucaparib (Rubraca™) is an oral, small molecule, poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase inhibitor being developed by Clovis Oncology, Inc. (Boulder, CO, USA) for the treatment of solid tumours. It has been approved in the USA as monotherapy for the treatment of patients with deleterious BRCA mutation (germline and/or somatic) associated advanced ovarian cancer who have been treated with two or more chemotherapies. In 2016, the US Food and Drug Administration approved three novel drugs for the treatment of solid malignancies-olaratumab in selected patients with soft-tissue sarcoma, atezolizumab for the treatment of bladder cancer, and rucaparib for the treatment of ovarian cancer; also in 2016, the use of previously approved anticancer agents (including atezolizumab) was expanded into 11 new patient populations. Conclusions:Rucaparib was tolerable and had activity in patients with platinum-sensitive germlineBRCA1/2-mutated HGOC. <b>OBJECTIVE</b>: To review the pharmacology, safety, efficacy, and the role of rucaparib in the treatment of relapsed, advanced ovarian cancer.<br><b>SUMMARY</b>: A total of 2 phase I/II trials and 1 phase II trial have evaluated the safety and efficacy of oral rucaparib in ovarian cancer. Rucaparib was found to be relatively well tolerated in clinical trials, with the most common adverse events being anemia, fatigue, and nausea.<br><b>CONCLUSION</b>: Rucaparib appears to be a safe and effective new option in the treatment of relapsed, advanced BRCA1/2 mutant ovarian cancer. In patients with deleterious BRCA1/2 mutation, an overall response rate of 80% was achieved in the phase II trial Assessment of Rucaparib in Ovarian CancEr Trial 2 (ARIEL2). This article summarizes the milestones in the development of rucaparib leading to this first approval for ovarian cancer.<br> These results support further clinical evaluation of rucaparib either as a single agent or as an adjunct to chemotherapy for the treatment of sporadic ovarian cancer.<br> Rucaparib: a Poly(ADP-Ribose) Polymerase Inhibitor for BRCA-Mutated Relapsed Ovarian Cancer. CONCLUSION Rucaparib appears to be a safe and effective new option in the treatment of relapsed, advanced BRCA1/2 mutant ovarian cancer. These results support further clinical evaluation of rucaparib either as a single agent or as an adjunct to chemotherapy for the treatment of sporadic ovarian cancer. Rucaparib received US FDA Breakthrough Therapy designation for treatment of platinum-sensitive BRCA-mutated advanced ovarian cancer patients who received greater than two lines of platinum-based therapy. BACKGROUND Rucaparib, a poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase inhibitor, has anticancer activity in recurrent ovarian carcinoma harbouring a BRCA mutation or high percentage of genome-wide loss of heterozygosity. Rucaparib appears to be a safe and effective new option in the treatment of relapsed, advanced BRCA1/2 mutant ovarian cancer. Rucaparib: A Poly(ADP-Ribose) Polymerase Inhibitor for BRCA-Mutated Relapsed Ovarian Cancer. Rucaparib: the past, present, and future of a newly approved PARP inhibitor for ovarian cancer. FDA Approval Summary: Rucaparib for the Treatment of Patients with Deleterious BRCA Mutation-Associated Advanced Ovarian Cancer. Olaparib and rucaparib have been approved by the US FDA as monotherapy for advanced recurrent ovarian cancer.
yes
5a9d28981d1251d03b000017
Does verubecestat activate BACE?
Verubecestat is a potent BACE1 enzyme inhibitor currently being investigated in Phase III trials for the treatment of mild-to-moderate and prodromal Alzheimer's disease.
no
5a774e40faa1ab7d2e000007
Is there a link between nuclear position and DNA repair pathway choice?
Nuclear position dictates DNA repair pathway choice. We demonstrate that DSBs induced at the nuclear membrane (but not at nuclear pores or nuclear interior) fail to rapidly activate the DNA damage response (DDR) and repair by homologous recombination (HR). Real-time and superresolution imaging reveal that DNA DSBs within lamina-associated domains do not migrate to more permissive environments for HR, like the nuclear pores or the nuclear interior, but instead are repaired in situ by alternative end-joining. Our results are consistent with a model in which nuclear position dictates the choice of DNA repair pathway, thus revealing a new level of regulation in DSB repair controlled by spatial organization of DNA within the nucleus. Our results are consistent with a model in which nuclear position dictates the choice of DNA repair pathway, thus revealing a new level of regulation in DSB repair controlled by spatial organization of DNA within the nucleus. Nuclear position dictates DNA repair pathway choice. Our results are consistent with a model in which nuclear position dictates the choice of DNA repair pathway, thus revealing a new level of regulation in DSB repair controlled by spatial organization of DNA within the nucleus.
yes
5a992eac1d1251d03b00000c
Can non ubiquitinated Tomm20 promote mitophagy?
A total of 338 new targets were identified and from these we validated glycogen synthase kinase 3β (Gsk3β), which can phosphorylate α-synuclein, and translocase of outer mitochondrial membrane 20 (Tomm20), a mitochondrial translocase that, when ubiquitinated, promotes mitophagy, as SCFFbxo7substrates both in vitro and in vivo Ubiquitin chain restriction analyses revealed that Fbxo7 modified Gsk3β using K63 linkages.
no
5a9931cd1d1251d03b00000d
Does SARM1 deletion cause neurodegeneration?
Finally, using neurons from two distinct mutant mouse strains whose axons are highly resistant to neurodegeneration (Wld(S) and Sarm1(-/-)), we found that the three different fibrils were secreted by axons after anterograde transport, in the absence of axonal lysis, indicating that trans-neuronal spread can occur in intact healthy neurons.
no
5aacd38efcf4565872000006
Is DNA polymerase θ involved in DNA repair?
DNA polymerase θ (Pol θ) is implicated in various cellular processes including double-strand break repair and apurinic/apyrimidinic site bypass. Pol θ is the defining enzyme for a pathway of DSB repair termed "alternative end-joining" (altEJ) or "theta-mediated end-joining." DNA polymerase θ is a key player in PARP-mediated DNA damage repair and essential for the survival of cancer cells where homologous recombination is compromised. DNA polymerase θ protects against genomic instability via an alternative end-joining repair pathway for DNA double-strand breaks.
yes
5a992d981d1251d03b00000b
Can nanoparticles be used for afterglow imaging?
Ultralong Phosphorescence of Water-Soluble Organic Nanoparticles for In Vivo Afterglow Imaging Afterglow or persistent luminescence eliminates the need for light excitation and thus circumvents the issue of autofluorescence, holding promise for molecular imaging. However, current persistent luminescence agents are rare and limited to inorganic nanoparticles. This study reports the design principle, synthesis, and proof-of-concept application of organic semiconducting nanoparticles (OSNs) with ultralong phosphorescence for in vivo afterglow imaging. This study not only introduces the first category of water-soluble ultralong phosphorescence organic nanoparticles but also reveals a universal design principle to prolong the lifetime of phosphorescent molecules to the level that can be effective for molecular imaging.
yes
5a8b292afcd1d6a10c00001f
Is there any role of interleukin-11 in cardiovascular fibrosis?
IL11 is a crucial determinant of cardiovascular fibrosis. Using integrated imaging-genomics analyses of primary human fibroblasts, we found that Interleukin 11 (IL11) upregulation is the dominant transcriptional response to TGFB1 exposure and required for its profibrotic effect. IL11 and its receptor (IL11RA) are expressed specifically in fibroblasts where they drive non-canonical, ERK-dependent autocrine signalling that is required for fibrogenic protein synthesis. In mice, fibroblast-specific Il11 transgene expression or Il11 injection causes heart and kidney fibrosis and organ failure whereas genetic deletion of Il11ra1 is protective against disease. Thus, inhibition of IL11 prevents fibroblast activation across organs and species in response to a range of important pro-fibrotic stimuli. These data reveal a central role of IL11 in fibrosis and we propose inhibition of IL11 as a new therapeutic strategy to treat fibrotic diseases. IL11 is a crucial determinant of cardiovascular fibrosis.
yes
5a8ee9d1fcd1d6a10c000027
Is there a disease or condition called Exploding Head Syndrome?
This case report describes the first-ever diagnosis of exploding head syndrome in a patient with longstanding epilepsy and novel nocturnal events. Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is characterized by loud noises or a sense of explosion in the head during sleep transitions. Exploding head syndrome is characterized by the perception of loud noises during sleep-wake or wake-sleep transitions. Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is characterized by attacks of a sudden noise or explosive feeling experienced in the head occurring during the transition from wake to sleep or from sleep to wake. Exploding head syndrome is characterized by the perception of abrupt, loud noises when going to sleep or waking up. xploding head syndrome (EHS) is a rare parasomnia in which affected individuals awaken from sleep with the sensation of a loud bang. Contrary to some earlier theorizing, exploding head syndrome was found to be a relatively common experience in younger individuals. Exploding head syndrome is characterized by the perception of loud noises during sleep-wake or wake-sleep transitions. Fifty patients suffering from the "exploding head syndrome" are described. In spite of the fact that its characteristic symptomatology was first described approximately 150 y ago, exploding head syndrome has received relatively little empirical and clinical attention. After first discussing the history, prevalence, and associated features, the available polysomnography data and five main etiological theories for exploding head syndrome are summarized. Exploding head syndrome: six new cases and review of the literature. Exploding Head Syndrome in the Epilepsy Monitoring Unit: Case Report and Literature Review. Exploding head syndrome: a case report. Exploding head syndrome is common in college students. Exploding head syndrome episodes were accompanied by clinically significant levels of fear, and a minority (2.80%) experienced it to such a degree that it was associated with clinically significant distress and/or impairment. Attention has recently been drawn to a condition termed the exploding head syndrome, which is characterized by unpleasant, even terrifying sensations of flashing lights and/or sounds during reported sleep. Exploding head syndrome is a rare phenomenon but can be a significant disruption to quality of life. The rare headache disorder hypnic headache and the exploding head syndrome are also discussed. This case report describes the first-ever diagnosis of exploding head syndrome in a patient with longstanding epilepsy and novel nocturnal events. BACKGROUND Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is characterized by attacks of a sudden noise or explosive feeling experienced in the head occurring during the transition from wake to sleep or from sleep to wake. INTRODUCTION Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is a rare parasomnia in which affected individuals awaken from sleep with the sensation of a loud bang. Contrary to some earlier theorizing, exploding head syndrome was found to be a relatively common experience in younger individuals. This hitherto unreported syndrome is characterised by a sense of an explosive noise in the head usually in the twilight stage of sleep. EHS is a well-defined disease entity with a benign nature. Exploding head syndrome: a case report. Clinical features of the exploding head syndrome. Exploding head syndrome is common in college students. The exploding head syndrome: polysomnographic recordings and therapeutic suggestions. This article reviews the features of an uncommon malady termed "the exploding head syndrome." Sufferers describe terrorizing attacks of a painless explosion within their head The case is reported of a 47-year old female suffering from the exploding head syndrome. This syndrome consists of a sudden awakening due to a loud noise shortly after falling asleep, sometimes accompanied by a flash of light.
yes
58ec6eb5eda5a5767200000c
Is Enlimomab effective for stroke treatment?
However, this treatment failed to show benefit in the Enlimomab Acute Stroke Trial. There was no increase in the frequency of adverse events with increasing doses of enlimomab.CONCLUSIONS: Doses of enlimomab between 140 and 480 mg administered over 5 days did not increase the risk of adverse events in patients with ischaemic or haemorrhagic stroke during an observation period of 30 +/- 10 days. Examination of several potential mechanisms for the negative outcome in a clinical stroke trial of enlimomab, a murine anti-human intercellular adhesion molecule-1 antibody: a bedside-to-bench study. BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Enlimomab, a murine monoclonal anti-human intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM)-1 antibody, had a negative outcome in a multicenter acute-stroke trial. These observations provide several possible mechanisms for central nervous system-related clinical deterioration that occurred when Enlimomab was given in acute ischemic stroke. Fewer patients had symptom-free recovery on enlimomab than placebo (p = 0.004), and more died (22.2 versus 16.2%). The negative effect of enlimomab was apparent on days 5, 30, and 90 of treatment (p = 0.005). There were significantly more adverse events with enlimomab treatment than placebo, primarily infections and fever. CONCLUSIONS: The authors conclude that anti-ICAM therapy with enlimomab is not an effective treatment for ischemic stroke in the model studied and, indeed, may significantly worsen stroke outcome. Patients experiencing fever were more likely to have a poor outcome or die.The authors conclude that anti-ICAM therapy with enlimomab is not an effective treatment for ischemic stroke in the model studied and, indeed, may significantly worsen stroke outcome. The negative effect of enlimomab was apparent on days 5, 30, and 90 of treatment (p = 0.005). Patients experiencing fever were more likely to have a poor outcome or die.<br><b>CONCLUSIONS</b>: The authors conclude that anti-ICAM therapy with enlimomab is not an effective treatment for ischemic stroke in the model studied and, indeed, may significantly worsen stroke outcome.<br> Unfortunately, the case fatality rate in this trial was significantly higher in the enlimomab patient group than in the placebo group. CONCLUSIONS The authors conclude that anti-ICAM therapy with enlimomab is not an effective treatment for ischemic stroke in the model studied and, indeed, may significantly worsen stroke outcome. BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE Enlimomab, a murine monoclonal anti-human intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM)-1 antibody, had a negative outcome in a multicenter acute-stroke trial. The authors conclude that anti-ICAM therapy with enlimomab is not an effective treatment for ischemic stroke in the model studied and, indeed, may significantly worsen stroke outcome..
no
58ec709aeda5a5767200000e
Does International Citicoline Trial on acUte Stroke trial supports efficacy of citicoline for stroke treatment?
The meta-analysis showed that no significant differences were found in the long-term mortality (OR=0.91, 95% CI 0.07 to 1.09, P=0.30), the rate of dependency (OR=1.02, 95% CI 0.87 to 1.24, P=0.85), and the effective rate (OR=0.98, 95% CI 0.84 to 1.14, P=0.82) between citicoline group and control group. In conclusion, citicolne cannot reduce long-term mortality and dependence rate in the treatment of acute stroke, and the effective rate of citivoline may be not better than that of controls but with reliable safety. In humans, although a recent trial International Citicoline Trial on Acute Stroke (ICTUS) has shown that global recovery is similar in CDP-choline and placebo groups, CDP-choline was shown to be more beneficial in some patients, such as those with moderate stroke severity and not treated with t-PA. INTERPRETATION: Under the circumstances of the ICTUS trial, citicoline is not efficacious in the treatment of moderate-to-severe acute ischaemic stroke. The trial was stopped for futility at the third interim analysis on the basis of complete data from 2078 patients. Global recovery was similar in both groups (odds ratio 1·03, 95% CI 0·86-1·25; p=0·364). INTERPRETATION Under the circumstances of the ICTUS trial, citicoline is not efficacious in the treatment of moderate-to-severe acute ischaemic stroke. In humans, although a recent trial International Citicoline Trial on Acute Stroke (ICTUS) has shown that global recovery is similar in CDP-choline and placebo groups, CDP-choline was shown to be more beneficial in some patients, such as those with moderate stroke severity and not treated with t-PA. Several mechanisms have been proposed to explain the beneficial actions of CDP-choline. In humans, although a recent trial International Citicoline Trial on Acute Stroke (ICTUS) has shown that global recovery is similar in CDP-choline and placebo groups, CDP-choline was shown to be more beneficial in some patients, such as those with moderate stroke severity and not treated with t-PA.
no
5ad240f70340b9f058000015
Is human lysyl oxidase-like 2 a glycoprotein?
This method was successfully applied to a novel recombinant protein, human lysyl oxidase-like 2. Furthermore, the glycosylation PTMs were readily detected at two glycosylation sites in the protein. application to the characterization of human lysyl oxidase-like 2 glycosylation These results suggest that the N-glycan at Asn-644 of hLOXL2 enhances the solubility and stability of the LOX catalytic domain.
yes
5ad3013d0340b9f058000019
Can GDF15 be a biomarker for metformin treatment?
Growth Differentiation Factor 15 as a Novel Biomarker for Metformin. GDF15 levels are a biomarker for the use of metformin in people with dysglycemia, and its concentration reflects the dose of metformin.
yes
5aa395fcd6d6b54f79000007
Has rituximab been considered as a treatment for chronic fatigues syndrome? (November 2017)
The use of rintatolimod and rituximab as well as counselling, behavioural and rehabilitation therapy programs may be of benefit for CFS/ME, but the evidence of their effectiveness is still limited.
yes
5ab9032afcf4565872000018
Does oncogene-induced DNA replication stress inhibit genomic instability?
Oncogene-induced DNA replication stress is thought to drive genomic instability in cancer. We propose that single-stranded DNA generated in response to oncogene-induced replication stress compromises the repair of deaminated cytosines and other damaged bases, leading to the observed SNS mutator phenotype.
no
5abd3707fcf456587200002d
Is the petrous bone used in ancient DNA sampling?
Large-scale genomic analyses of ancient human populations have become feasible partly due to refined sampling methods. The inner part of petrous bones and the cementum layer in teeth roots are currently recognized as the best substrates for such research. Ancient DNA (aDNA) research involves invasive and destructive sampling procedures that are often incompatible with anthropological, anatomical, and bioarcheological analyses requiring intact skeletal remains. The osseous labyrinth inside the petrous bone has been shown to yield higher amounts of endogenous DNA than any other skeletal element; however, accessing this labyrinth in cases of a complete or reconstructed skull involves causing major structural damage to the cranial vault or base. first genome-wide ancient DNA from Anatolian Neolithic farmers, whose genetic material we obtained by extracting from petrous bones,
yes
5abc974bfcf456587200001f
Is recursive splicing more common in short introns?
Recent work in human and fruitfly tissues revealed that long introns are extensively processed cotranscriptionally and in a stepwise manner, before their two flanking exons are spliced together Cutting a Long Intron Short: Recursive Splicing and Its Implications. Furthermore, we uncover the potential to investigate the multi-step nature of splicing, assessing various types of recursive splicing events Recursive splicing is a process in which large introns are removed in multiple steps by re-splicing at ratchet points--5' splice sites recreated after splicing. Together, these results indicate that recursive splicing is commonly used in Drosophila, occurs in humans, and provides insight into the mechanisms by which some large introns are removed. Recursive splicing in long vertebrate genes. Moreover, the RS-sites are found in some of the longest introns across vertebrates. The peculiarities of large intron splicing in animals. These "large introns" must be spliced out of the pre-mRNA in a timely fashion, which involves bringing together distant 5' and 3' acceptor and donor splice sites. Using a computational analysis of the genomic sequences, we show that vertebrates lack the proper enrichment of RP-sites in their large introns, and, therefore, require some other method to aid splicing Subdivision of large introns in Drosophila by recursive splicing at nonexonic elements. Recursive splice sites predicted with highly stringent criteria are found at much higher frequency than expected in the sense strands of introns>20 kb, but they are found only at the expected frequency on the antisense strands, and they are underrepresented within introns<10 kb. These transcripts arise by use of two alternative transcription sites and complex alternative splicing mechanisms and encode proteins with long or short N-terminal domains, complete or incomplete GGL domains, 7 distinct C-terminal domains and a common internal domain where the RGS domain is found. These patterns of enrichment and conservation indicate that recursive splice sites are advantageous in the context of long introns. Many genes with important roles in development and disease contain exceptionally long introns, but special mechanisms for their expression have not been investigated. However, some long Drosophila melanogaster introns contain a cryptic site, known as a recursive splice site (RS-site), that enables a multi-step process of intron removal termed recursive splicing. The effect of splice site strength was context-dependent and much more significant for the 3' splice site of the longer alternative intron than for the 3' splice site of the shorter alternative intron and the common 5' splice sites; it was also more significant in the rat minigene than in the mouse minigene. Cutting a Long Intron Short: Recursive Splicing and Its Implications. Recursive splicing in long vertebrate genes.
no
5ac07b67dd95b2cd42000001
Is Lysyl oxidase crosslinking collagen?
Lysyl oxidase (LOX) and LOX-like (LOXL) proteins play crucial roles in ECM remodeling due to their collagen crosslinking and intracellular functions. Lysyl oxidase-like 1, a crosslinking enzyme implicated in collagen and elastin biogenesis LOXL2 mediates collagen crosslinking The same was true for assaying lysyl oxidase, an enzyme involved in crosslinking of matrix molecules. In addition, collagen fibers in metastatic lung tumors exhibit greater linearity and organization as a result of collagen crosslinking by the lysyl oxidase (LOX) family of enzymes.
yes
5ab2cdc5fcf4565872000016
Is sternotomy closure done using either a sternal ZipFix™ implant or conventional steel wire following cardiac surgery?
o determine the difference in sternal infection and other infectious events between conventional wire and cable-tie-based closure techniques post-sternotomy in a collective of patients after cardiac surgery. Our study underlines a neutral effect of the sternal ZipFix™ system in patients regarding sternal infection. Postoperative complications are similar in both sternal closure methods. The cable-tie-based system is fast, easy to use, reliable and safe. Wire closure still remains the preferred technique despite reasonable disadvantages. Associated complications, such as infection and sternal instability, cause time- and cost-consuming therapies. We present a new tool for sternal closure with its first clinical experience and results.METHODS: The sternal ZipFix(TM) System is based on the cable-tie principle. In our initial evaluation, the short-term results have shown that the sternal ZipFix(TM) can be used safely and effectively. It is fast, easy to use and serves as a potential alternative for traditional wire closure. To determine the difference in sternal infection and other infectious events between conventional wire and cable-tie-based closure techniques post-sternotomy in a collective of patients after cardiac surgery.
yes
5ac24f7595d0062724000003
Is transcription of eRNA bidirectional?
In addition to widespread transcription of long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs) in mammalian cells, bidirectional ncRNAs are transcribed on enhancers, and are thus referred to as enhancer RNAs (eRNAs). Kallikrein-related peptidase 3 (KLK3), which codes for prostate-specific antigen (PSA), is a well-known AR-regulated gene and its upstream enhancers produce bidirectional enhancer RNAs (eRNAs), termed KLK3e. The distal enhancer of the gonadotropin hormone α-subunit gene, chorionic gonadotropin alpha (Cga), is responsible for Cga cell-specific expression in gonadotropes and thyrotropes, and we show here that it encodes two bidirectional nonpolyadenylated RNAs whose levels are increased somewhat by exposure to gonadotropin-releasing hormone but are not necessarily linked to Cga transcriptional activity. A richer picture has taken shape, integrating transcription of coding genes, enhancer RNAs (eRNAs), and various other noncoding transcriptional events. In this review we give an overview of recent studies detailing the mechanisms of RNA polymerase II (RNA Pol II)-based transcriptional initiation and discuss the ways in which transcriptional direction is established as well as its functional implications. XR-seq maps capture transcription-coupled repair at sites of divergent gene promoters and bidirectional enhancer RNA (eRNA) production at enhancers XR-seq maps capture transcription-coupled repair at sites of divergent gene promoters and bidirectional enhancer RNA (eRNA) production at enhancers. The distal enhancer of the gonadotropin hormone α-subunit gene, chorionic gonadotropin alpha (Cga), is responsible for Cga cell-specific expression in gonadotropes and thyrotropes, and we show here that it encodes two bidirectional nonpolyadenylated RNAs whose levels are increased somewhat by exposure to gonadotropin-releasing hormone but are not necessarily linked to Cga transcriptional activity. Using this approach, we have defined a class of primary transcripts (eRNAs) that are transcribed uni- or bidirectionally from estrogen receptor binding sites (ERBSs) with an average transcription unit length of ∼3-5 kb. XR-seq maps capture transcription-coupled repair at sites of divergent gene promoters and bidirectional enhancer RNA (eRNA) production at enhancers. We identify 76 enhancer RNAs (eRNAs), 40 canonical lncRNAs, 65 antisense lncRNAs and 35 regions of bidirectional transcription (RBT) that are differentially expressed in response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS). XR-seq maps capture transcription-coupled repair at sites of divergent gene promoters and bidirectional enhancer RNA (eRNA) production at enhancers. Instead, communication between promoters and enhancers can be bidirectional with promoters required to activate enhancer transcription. A new paradigm has emerged in recent years characterizing transcription initiation as a bidirectional process encompassing a larger proportion of the genome than previously thought.
yes
5ad35933133db5eb78000001
Is the protein pelota a ribosomal rescue factor?
a novel binding partner of the ribosome recycling protein Pelota n eukaryotes, Pelota (Dom34 in yeast) and Hbs1 are responsible for solving general problems of ribosomal stall in translation. In eukaryotes, the protein complex of Pelota (yeast Dom34) and Hbs1 translational GTPase recognizes the stalled ribosome containing the defective mRNA.
yes
5a9db99ffd02ddc336000001
Is CXCL7 a chemokine?
CXCL7, a chemokine highly expressed in platelets, Chemokine CXCL7 Heterodimers
yes
5ab144fefcf4565872000012
The TRPM2 gene is associated with development of spontaneous thromboembolism?
TheTransientReceptorPotentialMelastatin 2 (TRPM2) is a member of G protein coupled receptor superfamily and a novel dual-function protein that possesses both ion channel andAdenosine 5'-DiphosPhataseRibose (ADPR) hydrolase function. TRPM2 is involved in Ca2+signaling in various cells as an endogenous redox sensor for oxidative stress and reactive oxygen species, and contributes to cytokine production, insulin release, motility, Ca2+entry and Ca2+-dependent cellular reactions such as endothelial hyper-permeability and apoptosis. We show here that the redox-sensitive transient receptor potential (TRP) cation channel TRPM2 is expressed in the phagosomal membrane and regulates macrophage bactericidal activity through the activation of phagosomal acidification The transient receptor potential melastatin-2 (TRPM2) is an oxidative stress sensing channel that is expressed in a number of inflammatory cells and therefore it has been suggested that inhibition of TRPM2 could lead to a beneficial effect in COPD patients. TRPM2 is a recently identified TRPM family cation channel which is unique among known ion channels in that it contains a C-terminal domain which is homologous to the NUDT9 ADP-ribose hydrolase and possesses intrinsic ADP-ribose hydrolase activity These results suggest that TRPM2 may participate in antigen-induced extracellular Ca(2+) influx and subsequent degranulation. In addition, TRPM2 inhibitors were shown to improve food allergic reactions in a mouse model. Together, these results suggest that TRPM2 inhibitors suppress MMC degranulation via regulation of the increase in [Ca(2+)]cyt. Thus, TRPM2 may play a key role in degranulation by modulating intracellular Ca(2+) in MMCs. he Na+ and Ca(2+)-permeable melastatin related transient receptor potential 2 (TRPM2) channels can be gated either by ADP-ribose (ADPR) in concert with Ca(2+) or by hydrogen peroxide (H(2)O(2)), an experimental model for oxidative stress, binding to the channel's enzymatic Nudix domain hese alterations of the extracellular milieu change the activity of transient receptor potential melastatin subfamily member 2 (TRPM2), a nonselective cation channel expressed in the central nervous system and the immune system. TRPM2 (Transient Receptor Potential Melastatin 2) is a Ca2+-permeable ion channel that is activated under conditions of oxidative stress. Transient receptor potential melastatin 2 (TRPM2) is a thermosensitive, Ca2+-permeable cation channel. TRPM2 contributes to the pathogenesis of inflammatory bowel disease, and inflammatory and neuropathic pain. We hypothesized that TRPM2 is important for visceral nociception and the development of visceral hypersensitivity. Here, we describe the computational identification of a melanoma-enriched antisense transcript, TRPM2-AS, mapped within the locus of TRPM2, an ion channel capable of mediating susceptibility to cell death The transient receptor potential melastatin 2 (TRPM2) channel, a Ca(2+)-permeable nonselective cation channel activated by oxidative stress, has been implicated in neurodegenerative diseases, and more recently in amyloid-induced toxicity Transient receptor potential melastatin 2 (TRPM2) is a calcium-permeable cation channel activated by ADP-ribose or reactive oxygen species. Transient receptor potential melastatin type 2 (TRPM2) is a Ca2+ permeable non-selective cation channel expressed in several cell types including hippocampal pyramidal neurons. Moreover, activation of TRPM2 during oxidative stress has been linked to cell death.
no
5ac0aee419833b0d7b000004
Is a mutation of the ZIKV's membrane protein prM responsible for the microcephaly in new-born infants?
Here we show that a single serine-to-asparagine substitution [Ser139→Asn139(S139N)] in the viral polyprotein substantially increased ZIKV infectivity in both human and mouse neural progenitor cells (NPCs) and led to more severe microcephaly in the mouse fetus, as well as higher mortality rates in neonatal mice. A single mutation in the prM protein of Zika virus contributes to fetal microcephaly.
yes
5ad255210340b9f058000018
Is lumican a secreted protein?
fibroblasts stimulated with the fibrocyte-secreted inflammatory signal tumor necrosis factor-α secrete the small leucine-rich proteoglycan lumican TNF-α-stimulated fibroblasts secrete lumican to promote fibrocyte differentiation. Secreted 70kDa lumican stimulates growth and inhibits invasion of human pancreatic cancer. the elevated level of lumican secretion to extracellular space leads to actin cytoskeletal remodeling followed by an increase in migration capacity of human colon LS180 cells Lumican is a secreted proteoglycan that regulates collagen fibril assembly. This is the first time that the synthesis and secretion of lumican in human melanoma cell lines is reported.
yes
5ac0817cd0c506ce46000001
Is p53 a transcription factor?
As a transcription factor, p53 mainly exerts its tumor suppressive function through transcriptional regulation of many target genes. p53 functions primarily as a sequence-specific transcription factor that controls the expression of hundreds of protein-coding genes and noncoding RNAs, including microRNAs (miRNAs) and long noncoding RNAs (lncRNAs). p53 is a transcription factor
yes