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esperanto
Why does 'feliĉe' mean "unfortunately" whilst 'feliĉa' means "happy"?
The dictionary is Esperanto-English Dictionary 1.
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That dictionary contains an error. Search the word "malfeliĉe" in that dictionary, it's translated by the same word "unfortunately".
https://esperanto.stackexchange.com/questions/5080
esperanto
How do you say "a meme" in Esperanto?
Some words combined with an image can go viral and really stay in your head. This is a pretty universal concept. So how does one say it in the international language? How do you say "a meme" in Esperanto?
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According to the Esperanto version of Wiktionary, it's memeo: meme - memeo
https://esperanto.stackexchange.com/questions/1701
esperanto
If I can't find a word in Vortaro.net, should I cease using that word?
For example, I've seen the word dumtempe before used to mean for a while or for some time. I used the word today, then started second-guessing myself and looked it up at Vortaro.net, but it showed no results. Isn't Vortaro.net basically an online version of PIV? Was I wrong to use the word? Have I been led astray concerning the word? This has happened multiple times before.
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Remember that a dictionary is essentially a tool to help you understand a word. You don't have to not use a word because it is not in a dictionary. PIV, while influential, is just a dictionary among others, and is regularly updated in order to reflect the language usage. People should be able to speak Esperanto without having to use a dictionary everytime. I don't remember the last time I used a dictionary in French. If you understood a new word without the help of a dictionary, and the word is not suspicious, then it should be safe to reuse the word without checking a dictionary.
https://esperanto.stackexchange.com/questions/1914
expatriates
What is the "/" in the addresses in Scotland stand for?
The numbers in the picture below is confusing to me, I have lived in different flats in London and never came across a similar system. Do they refer to the floor? the flat number? Recently I have sent a parcel to Glasgow from Mail Boxes Etc office and it came back because the address is so confusing that they themselves have got it wrong even when they send hundreds of parcels everyday. Add to that that various high-profile companies/websites like Argos reject the "/" when you enter the address manually, so you are either lucky to have the address already in their database or you need to substitute the "/" with an equivalent of letters. I have used "of" three times so far, the postman hasn't understand that twice.
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As mkennedy says, it's the floor/flat. When I lived in Glasgow it was in the top floor flat (4 floors) on the right, so the address was Flat 4/2, 129 XXXXX Road, Glasgow G12 XXX There isn't an explicit numbering in the flats, but usual to number from the left (stair) side, so left would be /1, and so on until you include all flats on the floor.
https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/7724
expatriates
UK EEA Family permit refused for spouse - reapply or appeal
My wife applied for EEA family permit for coming to join me in UK. She is from India and I also lived in India before coming to UK. I acquired my Portuguese nationality and then came to UK in July 2015. We are married to each other since December 2014 but we were in a relationship since December 2013. We provided every evidence to support her application except the conversation medium which we used after I arrived in UK. This is what the refusal letter says : Now for reason 1 I understand that we did not provide sufficient evidence, so next time I am going to put every thing from our chat history in Skype, Whatsapp, Viber and phone logs. But I do not understand how to justify or provide evidence for the second reason. Can someone please advice? Also, we got the refusal last week and I am thinking to reapply in next instead of going for appeal as this takes much more time to process. Do you know if there any specific time limit under which I cannot make a new visa application if I am already refused visa.
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I would be inclined to appeal, though I say that without enough awareness of the associated costs, so I can't actually recommend one way or the other whether you should appeal or reapply. The refusal strikes me as scandalous. Consider the guidance for evaluating your application under which the entry clearance operator was working (emphasis added): EUN2.10 What if I suspect a marriage / civil partnership of convenience? The definition of ‘spouse’ and ‘civil partner’ in the EEA Regulations does not include someone who has entered into a marriage / civil partnership of convenience. When a marriage / civil partnership of convenience is suspected, the burden of proof is high and rests with the ECO. However, in these cases the ECO is entitled to interview the applicant. Factors to consider include: an adverse immigration history; doubts about the validity of documentation; application follows soon after the marriage / civil partnership; no previous evidence of the relationship. The ECO should not consider the following cases as marriages / civil partnerships of convenience where: there is a child of the relationship; there is evidence to suggest cohabitation. Source: https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/eea-family-permits-eun02/eea-family-permit-eun02#eun210-what-if-i-suspect-a-marriage--civil-partnership-of-convenience The key phrase here is the burden of proof is high and rests with the ECO. In fact, the ECO has responded as if the burden of proof were on you ("reasonable to expect ... no evidence provided to demonstrate"). The fact that your application came a few months after your marriage is, I suppose, sufficient to invoke the third "factor to consider," but the ECO should have made some effort to develop evidence to satisfy his or her burden of proof, and did not. Have the two of you ever lived together? If so, and if either you reapply or your appeal raises the question of additional evidence, I would skip the chat histories and phone logs, and instead rely on the last bullet point, which should be much easier and quicker to show. In addition, it will be a more reliable defense against any suggestion that yours is a marriage of convenience. For an EU perspective on the question, see https://eumovement.wordpress.com/2014/10/16/eu-free-movement-handbook-on-alleged-marriages-of-convenience/. A selection (emphasis removed): Burden of proof is on the national authorities to prove abuse Married couples cannot be obliged or required, as a rule, to present evidence that their marriage is not abusive. EU citizens and their family members enjoy the benefit of assumption, meaning that they do not need to provide evidence that their marriage is genuine. To require this would go beyond the requirement to present proof that their marriage is valid. This reflects the principle of law that the person who lays charges has to prove the charges (‘semper necessitas probandi incumbit ei qui agit‘). The burden of proof clearly rests on the national authorities who suspect that a non-EU national has entered into a marriage of convenience with an EU citizen for the sole purpose of being granted an EU right to free movement to prove that the marriage is of convenience. Here is a story of a successful appeal, in which the court awarded the cost of the appeal to the appellant: http://www.immigrationboards.com/eea-route-applications/won-vs-marriage-of-convenience-details-inside-now-t124572.html. A selection: Applied in June for EEA family permit. Rejected - marriage of convenience Appealed and Reapplied 2nd application Rejected in July - same reason with very aggressive and bad wording Today i got Letter from HM court and Tribunal They decided in my favor and gave my 80 Euro back If you read down a bit, you can see the (very poorly scanned) text of the appeal decision. That makes it clear that the ECO has a burden to prove a reasonable suspicion that the marriage is one of convenience, at which point the burden shifts to the visa application to prove that it is not. I do not know whether the amount of time between your marriage and the application is sufficient evidence of reasonable suspicion.
https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/7324
expatriates
How to read I-797c form (notice of action for H1B)
I am an Indian citizen and currently a resident of France (on Scientific/D visa until 30/04/2015). A university in the USA that hired me as a faculty recently petitioned for an H1B for me. I received the I-797C form from the USCIS notifying me/the university that the H1B application was submitted. However, some details on page 1 of the I-797C form elude me. In the screen shot below (with personal details redacted), what exactly does "Class Consulate / POE OCC 90" signify? A cursory search of the intergoogles revealed not much.
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From Immihelp and Department of Labor OCC 90 is an occupation code: OCCUPATIONS IN EDUCATION 090 OCCUPATIONS IN COLLEGE AN UNIVERSITY EDUCATION 091 OCCUPATIONS IN SECONDARY SCHOOL EDUCATION 092 OCCUPATIONS IN PRESCHOOL, PRIMARY SCHOOL, AND KINDERGARTEN EDUCATION 094 OCCUPATIONS IN EDUCATION OF PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES 096 HOME ECONOMICS AND FARM ADVISERS 097 OCCUPATIONS IN VOCATIONAL EDUCATION 099 OTHER OCCUPATIONS IN EDUCATION The rest seems to be more of an issue with formatting the form then anything else and should read: Class | Consulate / POE | OCC
https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/3023
expatriates
Suggestion needed for uk visa 2nd attempt
Respected Sir/Mam, I have applied for uk Tire 4 visa for LSE summer schools but i have got a refusel . I need suggestions before going for secound attempt . Let me draft a picture of visa application . I have fully paid the accomodation as well as tution fee . I was self sponsored i got the funds from the companies where i was invested eariler . So what changed should i make so that i will get visa . If my father will be my sponsor will that be going to work ? I will be really thankfull if i will get to know the reason s for refusal.
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The letter seems pretty clear. They found inconsistencies in your application regarding your bank statement and claims about your income. This, possibly with other circumstances, has led to the conclusion that they think you will overstay. Your best bet is to work with a professional immigration lawyer who has expertise in these matters.
https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/11310
expatriates
Tax status when doing micro job in Germany
I'm working in Germany and I do have a Tax Number. Recently I found a mobile app that allows me to do small jobs (for a couple of EUR) by making pictures of things that are of interest for the client. Now I want to receive the money I have earned but it asks me to tell them if I'm a private individual or a small company. I believe that the first case is right for me. Now my question: Is "private individual" the right case here or "the contractor" is better (and why)? Extra points for explaining how to put this into tax declaration.
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The question is really complicated. To my understanding, if you are getting money for it, there should be either a so-called mini-Job-contract or you should become an entrepreneur. Please read the following materials (in German) for details: http://www.esteuerpartner.de/steuerinfo/GruenderBasics-crowdsourcing-Recht-Steuern http://www.ikosom.de/2014/02/08/welche-steuern-muss-ich-beim-crowdfunding-zahlen/ Another important point for you is that if you are a foreigner, then, depending on you residence/work permit, an entrepreneurship can be forbidden for you. Finally, if you are working, you contract with your employer can also forbid you to do a job aside.
https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/12571
expatriates
ESTA application with passport issued in UK
If I'm an Australian citizen, I need to apply for an ESTA before flying to the US for a week-long conference. I'm travelling on an Australian passport, which I recently renewed while I was studying in the UK (I lodged an application to the London passport office). So when I fill in the ESTA form below, what do I put as the answer for "What country issued your passport?" Is it "GBO" or just Australia?
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It is an Australian passport, so the answer is "Australia."
https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/15607
expatriates
How to pay water bill in Thailand?
I got my first water bill On a bill I am used to getting bank account number into which I need to pay money due. I then usually can go and pay online, however I couldn't find any bank numbers on the slip... How does one pay water bill in Thailand?
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Many condo buildings allow basic utilities (but not always electricity) to be paid at the condo management office. Looking at your bill, it looks like this is how you should pay this bill.
https://expatriates.stackexchange.com/questions/10157
fitness
Why does my fitness watch show calories whereas calories on food packages are in kilo calories?
I am trying to track the calories which I burn during my exercises using wearable fitness tracker watch (Gear Fit2 Pro), but I am pretty confused by the amount of calories which the watch shows me. Burning Calories: My watch says, I am burning almost 3000 Calories everyday. Receiving Calories: I get 373K Calories (or 373,000 Cal) from my dinner and lunch. I obtained this number from the rice and meat package. If it is true, it means that, I am receiving much more calories than what i am burning, and definitely I must be a fat guy, however I am 180cm and 74KG (31 year old). So, I am almost fit. So, I guess, something is wrong! Either the watch must also show more burned calories or the food packages are lying!!! Anyways, please tell me, how should I track the calories which I burn and receive?
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They're actually the same thing as far as this is concerned. A "Calorie" and "Kilocalorie" is the same when talking about nutrition and exercise. Your watch says you burned 3000 Calories in the day and your dinner was 373 Calories. What food companies choose to put on food packaging is regional and usually dictated by the government. In the United States, they show everything as "Calorie" but other countries may choose the other. Fitness trackers aren't bound by the same laws, so they may just use "Calorie" because it's easier. Technically, the calorie the amount of heat energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius. This is also referred to as the "gram calorie" or "small calorie". It's still used in chemistry and other science fields. A Kilocalorie the amount of heat energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. This is referred to as the "Big Calorie". The big Calorie is used in nutrition because the amount of small calories food contains is actually in the thousands. So rather than saying something is "100,000 cals" you just say "100 Cals". Likewise, because the amount of calories people burn is in relation to food, so you'd use the big Calorie.
https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/42168
fitness
Practical applications of the earthquake/bamboo bar
My gym recently purchased this weird bar: I have yet to see anyone actually use it. From what I can tell, the point is to hang weights off the sides and they swing at each rep. The idea (I guess) is to make the bar unstable. However, it seems to me that, as it pertains to strength training, using a bar like this would either have too much weight to be safe or not enough weight to be very effective. What use does this type of bar have? What would be an effective way of using it?
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Wow, you're lucky! Kudos to your gym for acquiring one of these. I wish my gym had one too. What is that? It's commonly referred to as a "bamboo bar" because of its resemblence. It's actually plastic, as I'm sure you've surmised if you've tried it out. Eric Spoto (one of the best bench pressers in the world) is a strong advocate for incorporating the bamboo bar bench press into your routine, because of the instability it causes, which in turn forces you to activate a lot of the balance muscles that usually don't get a lot of focus. How do I use it? He advocates using quite low weights, and going for 3-5 sets of 10-15 reps. There's really no point trying to measure your 1-rep max on such an auxilliary exercise. This is for volume, and to train those hard-to-engage muscles. In terms of "how do I even?", you use it like you do with a regular bench press. Same setup routine, same prep, same execution. It's just more unstable. Another benefit is that if your bench technique isn't very good, it will let you know very quickly that you have some flaws in your setup. And more importantly, working on this variation will help resolve those issues. I highly recommend watching this video, where Eric Spoto himself takes the time to instruct and demonstrate this movement. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5AHCpJecV2U
https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/37409
fitness
name of this exercise
I search for the name of this exercices : (I am very strong in drawings) the arm is against the body with the dumbbell in suspension keep the elbow glued to the body and raise the forearm we finish the movement with the dumbbell aligned to our arm, one weight on the shoulder the other pointing in front, the elbow pointing in front
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That sounds like a Hammer Curl as per the list here. This bicep curl variation is like the standard biceps curl with one small adjustment. Turn the palms towards the midline of the body with the thumbs up. Curl the weight up towards the shoulder creating flexion only at the elbow. Extend the elbow and lower the weight back to the starting position. The rotation of the palms adds a focus on the brachialis and brachioradialis in a way that many other variations cannot. How-To Video Adding the elbow floating away turns it into a "cheat curl" variation. Here, the "cheat" is not necessarily meant pejoratively. It just means that, by letting the elbow move, you're recruiting other muscles, such as the deltoids in your back, which reduces the biceps isolation, but will allow you to lift more weight, which can translate to a bump in your ability to lift heavier weight in a "strict" hammer curl.
https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/44958
fitness
What can explain my feet cramping while using swim fins when I swim in the afternoon/evening?
I've been swimming for the last couple years and currently swim 4 times a week. Two of those days I swim in the morning, the other two are in the evening. Whenever I swim in the evening and swim a set using swim fins my feet and toes tend to cramp up the next swim set. I've tried lots of things, potassium and water because I read they help with cramps as well as stretching before and after the swim fin set. So far, neither has worked. My only other thought was perhaps the fins are the source of the problem. Swimming in the evening without using the fins doesn't bother me, so its not just because I swim in the evening. At the same time, if I use the fins in the morning, I don't cramp up either. I was just hoping someone here might have a suggestion and/or solution as to what may be causing this.
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There are various reasons for using fins. Don't give up on them as they can be an excellent training tool. As a swim coach, I do not take a 'one-fin-fits-all' approach, especially with training adults. Yes, foot size does matter and if the fin is ill-fitted (too small OR too big) the foot and ankle and foot will have to flex/tense more to use the fin. In addition, the level of resistance the fin provides will also influence cramping. If you have never used fins before or your ankles are weak (in respect to this exercise), a larger blade on the fin will increase the chances of fatigue and/or cramping. Starting off with a split fin or, even better, a cut or short fin, will help you begin to increase ankle/calf strength. You can progress to a larger or firmer blade from there. Here are a couple of fins I like for starting off: http://www.swimoutlet.com/product_p/1647.htm http://www.swimoutlet.com/product_p/1267.htm?color=206 I've personally taken my long fins and cut them to the size I want. So you know, I have no allegiance to any one particular brand, just know what I've found works best during training (for myself and my swimmers) Also, wearing socks to make the fin 'snug' helps - can eliminate blisters, too.
https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/3928
fitness
What are the primary muscles worked when hitting a Heavy Bag?
What are the primary muscles used while hitting the heavy bag (boxing focus sessions as compared to kickboxing where kicks are involved). And how do you improve the overall hitting/power of those strikes from accessory exercises?
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Start at your head, and go to your feet. That's the muscles involved. :p Seriously, a good punch will involve most of the muscles in the body. The primary single movers in a punch are going to be Pecs (Chest) Triceps (Arm) Deltoids (Shoulder) You could throw a punch just using those muscles, but it won't be a hugely powerful punch (Think a jab in boxing). The triceps straighten the arm, and the delts/pecs move the arm "forward" and in towards the center. To that, you can add the muscles of the abdomen (abdominals and internal/external obliques) for rotation in the execution of the punch, muscles of the leg (calves and hamstrings/quads) used for driving and transmitting ground force through the punch, forearm muscles for rotation and stabilization of the lower arm, and lats/biceps for oppositional force and arm retraction after the punch. Clenching your jaw at the point of impact will tense/stabilize and add force, although a permanent clench is counter productive. Think of a right cross, from the point of view of a right handed boxer (lead hand is left). Starting position for a right handed boxer is the left foot and left shoulder forward, right leg back, so that your hips and upper body are angled to your opponent. A few boxers will fight more square, though. As the boxer settles from movement/shuffle, the feet get planted. The rear leg starts hip rotation and gives a "push" from the feet upwards, involving the calf and thigh muscles. As the hip and torso continue to rotate (obliques and abdominals, some lats) the upper body continues the rotation, and the arm starts to extend out (pecs/triceps/delts), and the hand/lower arm rotate so that at the point of contact, the fist is palm down as opposed to facing inward as in a typical sparring/protection stance. As far as hitting power, any basic weightlifting routine will work all the muscles involved, as most of them are primary movers for the core exercises such as pullups/dips, squats, situps and rotational exercises (abs and wood choppers for example). Where a LOT of the power comes from is simply technique, learning how to plant and rotate, keeping the arm as relaxed as possible until point of impact, things of this nature. You could have one person that can outlift a second person by a considerable margin, but not be able to punch as effectively because of a lack of technique.
https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/7523
fitness
Looking for equivalent workout to Upright Barbell Row excersie
i'm looking for an equivalent workout to this shoulder workout i've been practicing. I had to stop practicing this because my wrists hurt! (both my wrists were broken when i was a kid) Any help is greatly appreciated !
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Since upright rows stress the traps and the shoulders, I would switch to using barbell or dumbbell shrugs. Your shoulders won't get as much work, but, if done correctly, the traps should benefit. Additionally, either exercise should reduce any strain on your wrists.
https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/18565
fitness
Unable to catch the Clean
I've started to perform the Clean from a month, and I often have an issue: when I try to catch the bar, it lands on my upper chest instead on my collarbone. The following picture shows the point where the bar touches me when I try to catch it (in red). I do not do this mistake every time, but when I do it I instinctively stay for a while in a sort of isometric contraction (about 1/2 second) desperately trying to bring the bar to my collarbone for the rack position. When it happens, I probably use my arms and I feel pain in the blue points in the following picture. To make it clear, I've uploaded a video there. My Opinion: possible causes are My legs aren't able to pull the bar high enough to get under it. However, sometimes this problem occurs also with a light weight (despite less frequently) I'm not fast enough to get under the bar. From my video I think I'm not able to go under the bar. However, I think this can't be the only mistake. In fact, as far as I'm concerned, the Muscle Clean exercise allows the athlete not to go under the bar. So, even if the purpose was to make a normal clean, this technique is not inherently harmful. But I feel pain in the blue points, so there is probably a mistake I cannot understand. My elbows are not quick at raising up What do you think is the cause and do you have any suggestions to fix it?
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Catching the bar on your chest can be caused by any of the options you laid out in your question. From your video, it seems that you are trying to pull the bar too high, and allowing your forearms to come forward. This creates a rounded bar path and slows the turnover of your elbows. A few things to try: Try using straps (even with low weights) to remove the tension in your arms, and do high pulls and muscle cleans keeping your elbows up not back (ie keep your forearms vertical). The bar should rise to about nipple height. Try catching your clean a little lower. Instead of pulling the bar very high to catch almost standing, try to catch it with a little more bend in the knees. This should give you more leeway to catch properly. You may be limited by your mobility. If you find you cannot get into a good rack position, try stretching your lats and triceps as well as mobilizing your T spine.
https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/44563
french
What is the correct way of describing a standard brick pattern?
In English the standard brick pattern (where each brick lies half across the one below it - see below) is technically called "Running Bond" but might be described as "staggered" or "overlapping" by the layman. How might I describe this in French (for example if I wanted tiles arranged like this)? I see the following translations for staggered: "échelonné", "étalé" and "décalé" and for overlapping: "superposé" but I am pretty sure that isn't right. Alternatively, a translation for saying "brick-pattern" might get the message across.
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Après quelques recherches il semble que beaucoup de sites emploient le terme "en quinconce." J'emploierais personnellement ce terme pour peu que les briques ne soient pas alignées, même si elles ne sont pas décalées exactement de la moitié de leur longueur, mais je serais sans-doute dans l'erreur car il semble que le terme désigne spécifiquement l'alignement tel que spécifié dans la question (les briques sont alignées une ligne sur 2) Notons que l'une des pages liées dans la définition wikipédia renvoie vers une formation de l'armée romaine où l'on parle effectivement de disposition en quinconce et le schéma correspond lui aussi.
https://french.stackexchange.com/questions/40415
french
Are there any textbooks based on the natural method?
Question: Are there any textbooks for learning French that are based on the natural method? What's the natural method, you say? It is a method of learning the language like a child would, that is the textbook would be all in French and would be very easy to read at the beginning, even with no previous knowledge of the language, and then progresses to more advanced texts. There are no translation excercises, no explanations of words or grammar in your mother tongue – the point is to get you to immerse yourself into the language, to start to think in the language. Words that might be difficult are explained by illustrations. Hans Ørberg's Lingua Latina per se illustrata (something like "Latin illustrated in itself") is a perfect example:
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@citizen: That's a great question... The only book that I have been able to find that matches your description, is a book called "Easy French Reader," by R. de Roussy de Sales (ISBN 978-0-07-142848-4). The book starts off with "easy" stories, and the level of difficulty progresses with each chapter. There is a small glossary, and on average about three of the more difficult words appear on the right margin of the page. The book starts off with fictional stories, moves on to stories about the history of France, and ends with excerpts from stories written by French authors. I've found this book to be extremely helpful, but I've had difficulty finding more that are like it. If you can find any more books like this one, post the info--I would greatly appreciate it. Whether this book is what you're looking for or not, I wish you the best of luck, and happy reading!
https://french.stackexchange.com/questions/9255
french
Le « tin tie coffee bag » ?
Comment nomme-t-on ou décrit-on un « tin tie coffee bag » ? On utilise souvent ce genre de sac que ce soit de papier ou en plastique pour le vente de café moulu ou en grains. On a parfois des emballages sous vide de café qui une fois ouverts disposent d'un « système » similaire pour la fermeture. L'« élément » du haut sert à éviter que ne se déroule le rebord qu'on a roulé. Il s'agit non seulement de traduire les termes mais encore de se demander si la préposition suffira pour agencer le sac avec le « mécanisme » servant à le fermer ou s'il faudra un verbe (participe passé), tout en évitant l'ésotérique. On notera que ce qui se trouve fixé au rebord supérieur du sac existe aussi sous différents formats comme objet à part entière et sert à des fonctions similaires avec d'autres types de sacs ; on aura un nom est une épithète, comme dans tin tie. Pour fins d'illustration.
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Je connais en France le système de fermeture de paquets alimentaires où l'on fait coulisser une baguette (ou tige) en plastique sur le bord supérieur qui a été soigneusement replié et aplati. Il me semble que ce qui est décrit dans la question est un système où la baguette est beaucoup plus longue que la largeur du paquet de façon à pouvoir en replier les extrémités de chaque côté du paquet. Je n'ai jamais vu en France ce système (ce qui ne veut pas dire que ça n'existe pas, bien sûr), que la fermeture soit fixée ou non au paquet. En cherchant sur des sites de vente en ligne j'ai trouvé des « barrettes de fermeture pour sacs en papier » vendus en anglais sous le nom de tin ties. Un autre site propose ce même système de fermeture sous le nom « d'attache twist adhésive ». Dans la mesure où le système est assez souple pour être replié je trouve que le mot d'« attache » convient mieux que celui de « barrette », la barrette évoquant pour moi quelque chose de pus rigide. Il est précisé par ailleurs que ces liens adhésifs sont en étain. Il existe aussi des sacs à fermeture zip intégrée au sac mais je ne crois pas que ce genre de fermeture soit vraiment réutilisable après première ouverture. Si je devais faire la traduction de tin tie bag pour un site de vente en ligne je proposerais certainement quelque chose comme : « sac refermable avec un système d'attache en étain repliable », ou « sac refermable par système d'attache en étain repliable ». Et en ajoutant peut-être « fixe » ou « adhésif » après « système » selon le cas. « Sachet » pouvant éventuellement être mis à la place de « sac », (ce serait bag dans tous les cas en anglais). Nous avons donc encore un exemple de la concision de l'anglais qui peut exprimer en trois mots tin tie bag (analysables je suppose comme un substantif précédé de deux épithètes qui servent à décrire le système de fermeture) ce que le français exprime en cinq ou plus, une préposition (« avec » ou « par ») introduisant le mécanisme de fermeture. Je me suis amusé à chercher comment d'autres sites en ligne anglophones pouvaient chercher à vendre ce type de produit à des francophones, je vous livre quelques résultats plutôt amusants (ou désolants ?). Après un passage rapide sur les « tin tie sacs », clair et transparent pour quiconque parle anglais, la « boîte cravate » ou le « sac de cravate étain » m'ont quand même demandé quelques secondes de réflexion.
https://french.stackexchange.com/questions/37352
french
What is a ‘témoin agent(e)’ (‘witness-agent’/‘agent-witness’)?
As previously mentioned, I’m translating excerpts from some letters from the 1830s which are written in a somewhat nonstandard orthography, very idiosyncratic punctuation, and sometimes with rather peculiar expressions. I’m currently at a bit which describes a woman with the phrase (if a phrase it is) témoin agente, and I’m having a bit of trouble figuring what exactly that is. The context would seem to imply that it’s simply a witness, but since I can find exactly one instance of the word being used on the Internet, I don’t have any way of verifying that this is in fact so. The phrase occurs at the beginning of a letter: Constance, ma chère Natalie, me prie de vous dire que ses esprits ne sont pas assez concentrés pour pouvoir se mettre auteur, en rapportant les scènes, auquelles elle a été témoin agente depuis ses derniers ouvrages en forme de lettres; toutes plaintes ont cessés, car elle a reçu 4 lettres de la part de sa chère Maman… The ‘scenes’ referred to here are mainly the fact that Constance’s infant child had just gone through a terrible ordeal, nearly dying from some unknown illness. Saying that she doesn’t feel up to writing letters just yet describing the scenes she’s witnessed sounds quite reasonable and logical. According to TLFi, L’emploi au fém. est exceptionnel. Ac. 1878 signale que „lorsque le mot est pris en mauvaise part, on lui donne quelquefois un féminin“ avec les ex. suiv. : „Elle est leur principale agente. Je découvris que dans cette intrigue, elle était la principale agente.“ Going by that, the usage in the letter is additionally odd in that it uses the decidedly nonstandard feminine form of the word. Looking for témoin agent in the masculine doesn’t reveal anything more useful, though—everything I can find is examples like “le témoin, agent de police, était…”, where the two words just happen to be right next to each other, but have nothing really to do with each other. Agent itself comes from the Latin āgēns, which is the present participle of āgō ‘act, do’. If we take that straight down to Modern French, one might assume that it means an ‘acting/active witness’ (someone who is an active part in the goings-on described, I suppose)—but the Modern French outcome of āgō is agir, whose present participle is agissant, not agent, so that doesn’t seem a likely explanation either. So what does agente add to témoin in the particular context in my letter here? What does it mean to be témoin agent(e) to something?
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The passage you quote "Constance..." is a bit cryptic and hard to understand, but I would venture the following possible interpretation, that you might be able to validate from the context. I would interpret témoin agente as meaning that Constance is/was both a witness and an active participant in the events she should write about. That would be in contrast to being an ordinary témoin or an ordinary agent, who are not both witness and participants, and might have special legal value. Here, possibly, Constance was a witness to the events (the complaints? the letters?), but also the recipients of the letters, maybe? I would need more context at this point.
https://french.stackexchange.com/questions/25218
french
Sens de la phrase « descendre l'escalier »
Comment distingue-t-on entre sens de la phrase « descendre l'escalier » ? Je crois que ceci peut signifier mouvement de sujet ( 1 ) aussi bien que mouvement de l'escalier se ( 2 ). Nouvelle information : Il y a une échelle dans deuxième cas. Ma question est maintenant sur la phrase « descendre l'échelle » :-)
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A ma connaissance il n'y a pas de moyen de savoir si la phrase "Descendre l'escalier" signifie Se déplacer dans l'escalier vers le bas ou effectuer un déplacement de l'escalier en direction du bas. Tout est une affaire de contexte mais heureusement dans l'immense majorité des cas, cela correspondra à la première signification. Un rare cas contraire qui me vient à l'esprit est celui des avions, où on parle parfois de "descendre l'escalier" pour désigner l'ouverture des portes-escaliers. Dans le cas d'une échelle qui est par définition moins statique, les deux sens peuvent être possibles et seul le contexte permet de faire la distinction. (Bien entendu, il en va de même pour "monter l'escalier/l'échelle"...) A noter que l'expression "descendre de l'escalier/l'échelle" est elle plus claire puisqu'elle n'a qu'un seul sens, différent des deux autres : celui de quitter par le bas l'escalier (ou l'échelle) où on se trouve.
https://french.stackexchange.com/questions/11656
french
Le jeu de plateau et l'idée du « paragraph driven » ?
Certains jeux de plateau (un jeu de table, un jeu de société), utilisent des paragraphes numérotés dont le texte met en scène les conséquences d'un choix qu'avait fait le joueur auparavant dans la séquence de jeu.1 Contrairement au concept du livre-jeu, et plus particulièrement du « livre dont vous êtes le héros », où le choix est cantonné aux paragraphes qu'on enchaîne selon les indications, ici le paragraphe n'est qu'une composante d'un jeu plus élaboré; avec par exemple un plateau, des figurines, des cartes etc. L'emploi du paragraphe est assurément une particularité servant à sa classification mais n'en constitue pas son « interface ».2 . À gauche, un grille et des paragraphes d'un jeu de plateau; à droite, deux paragraphes d'un livre-jeu. J'aimerais distinguer la « caractéristique » du « format ». Comment exprimer de manière nuancée (et possiblement succincte) le recours aux paragraphes au niveau du scénario et leur relation avec ce jeu, dans la même phrase? Il s'agit d'un jeu de plateau + [?] + [« paragraph driven »/une série de paragraphes]. 1. En anglais, on a l'expression « paragraph driven » comme mécanisme, dans le contexte d'aventure solo par exemple; autre exemple. 2. Voici un vidéo traitant de la place du paragraphe dans la séquence d'un jeu (provenant d'une liste de jeux ayant cette particularité). On explique que d'une carte, on en arrive à une situation, à laquelle on associe un choix, et où l'on croise des valeurs dans un index auquel on ajoute un élément aléatoire, pour enfin en arriver à un paragraphe particulier (à 17:00) où, dépendamment des caractéristiques du joueur, il se passe alors « quelque chose ».
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Si je comprends bien, dans le type de jeu que tu décris : le livre de paragraphes est une composante importante du jeu, puisqu'il faut la mentionner mais pas au point que ça soit le format du jeu. Idéalement, la description met en évidence que le livre n'est le format du jeu, au contraire de ceux « dont vous êtes le héros ». la relation entre le livre et le jeu est que le livre raconte (narre, met en mots) et guide (pilote, dirige) l'action qui se déroule sur le plateau. Je parlerais donc d'un jeu de plateau : piloté par les fragments de scénario du livre encadré par un système de passages narratifs dont l'action est dirigée par des paragraphes de récit
https://french.stackexchange.com/questions/13832
french
Hawaii et Hawaï
J'ai cru comprendre lors de mes recherches sur internet que la bonne orthographe était celle avec le i tréma. Pour ma part j'avais l'habitude d'écrire les deux i. J'ai vu sur le Wiktionnaire que les deux i étaient en fait une variante. J'aimerais savoir dans quelle mesure cette variante est-elle correcte et d'où vient-elle ? Édit : graphique représentant l'utilisation des variantes dans la littérature Française.
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L'orthographe française est Hawaï, mais on retrouve également l'orthographe anglaise Hawaii. L'orthographe anglaise est elle-même dérivée de l'orthographe hawaïenne Hawai‘i. À Hawaï même, l'orthographe hawaïenne domine. Le dictionnaire de l'Académie française ne contient pas d'entrée sous Hawaii ou Hawaï. Il y a, cependant, une entrée sous hawaïen qui se lit comme suit : HAWAÏEN, -ENNE (wa se prononce oua) adj. XIXe siècle. De Hawaï, nom polynésien de la plus grande des îles Sandwich. Relatif aux îles Hawaï. Les ports hawaïens. Le climat hawaïen. Guitare hawaïenne, voir Guitare. Subst. Un Hawaïen, une Hawaïenne, personne habitant les îles Hawaï ou qui en est originaire. • GÉOL. Volcan hawaïen, volcan dont l'activité est continue et dont le cratère est empli d'une lave bouillonnante qui déborde lors des éruptions. La « chaudière de Kilauea » est un volcan hawaïen. Il n'y a pas d'entrée sous hawaiien. Le coup de glotte (l'apostrophe inversée) est ce qui dicte la séparation des deux i dans la prononciation anglaise et le tréma en français. Aux États-Unis, on prononce le h initial, on met l'accent tonique sur la deuxième voyelle (le « wai ») et on prononce le i final sans accentuation particulière : /həˈwaɪ.iː/. En français, la prononciation /awɑ.i/ est, à mon avis, une des meilleures approximations.
https://french.stackexchange.com/questions/8889
gaming
How does the new hacking mini-game work?
In the Eve Online expansion Odyssey, a hacking mini-game for hacking relic sites was added which looks like this; Clicking through this game, it seems that there are multiple types of nodes that do varying amounts of damage to your "hacking software" and you need to find the system core to win the mini-game. This leads me to a few questions about how this game works; How many different kinds of nodes are there? Is the damage caused by specific types of node consistent or random? Are the rewards based on how many nodes you light up while looking for the system core? If you lose, can you try again? Obviously, any other information you can provide me on how these mini-games work would also be appreciated!
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The devblog on hacking covers most of the basics, and via personal experience and a quick refresher at the UniWiki Odyssey page I have this to say: There are five different kinds of nodes: Empty, System Core, Data Cache, Defensive Subsystem and Utility Subsystem - with the defensive Subsystem and Utility Subsystem having a few flavors each. Data Caches are either Defensive or Utility Subsystem. The damage is consistent per node, but different types of the same node are random within a specific set - i.e. the same node will always hit you for the same amount, but another node of the same type may be different. No. Yes, but the number of released containers increases, without increasing the amount of available loot, meaning each individual container will have less in it. However if you fail too many times (currently 2) then the loot will be destroyed. Additionally, the profession containers can be cargo scanned. If the loot isn't overly valuable, skip it. The ISK/hr may be better without wasting the time. Extra extra additionally, Ali Arias wrote a detailed piece of the entire process over at themittani.com. It's a bit of a read, but it covers all of the salient points. Once you've won the mini-game and the look has exploded into space you have about 10-15 seconds before the last of it disappears. The individual containers are divided into types (currently Data, Materials, Parts, and Scraps) with their contents being determined according to their type. Scraps containers are effectively worthless, don't waste time on these and reliably collecting all the loot requires at least 2 characters doing it.
https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/119414
gaming
Complex message templates in Dark Souls 3
Occasionally I come across messages which seem to follow a template which I don't have available to me (for example, see the below screenshot). How do you leave messages like this? Can you acquire more complex message templates somehow?
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While in the message menu, press "Y" (Xbox) or Triangle (PlayStation) to cycle through the different template/gesture combinations. This includes the "simple" template (one phrase with a blank to fill), and the "complex" template (two phrases with blanks to fill, linked by a conjunctive word/phrase).
https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/269059
gaming
Can I stop another Civ's trader from crossing my land?
I have an enemy who is crossing my land to trade with another civ. Can I stop them from crossing without going to war?
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No, you cannot prevent another nation's traders from crossing your territory. Once you research the Early Empire civic, you gain the ability to enforce borders against military units and allow friendly nations to cross them. However, traders and religious units are exempt from closed borders, and can wander freely into your territory. See Civ VI Border Rules for more information.
https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/362076
gaming
Why am I seeing so many Lairon recently?
For the last few days, I've been seeing a considerable number of wild Lairon. I don't recall ever seeing a wild Lairon before - only Aron - but over the last few days I must have seen dozens. I don't particularly mind, as I have an Aggron with near-perfect IVs that could use the Candy. But why are so many of them appearing all of a sudden? I can only assume this is part of an event, but the only one I know of that's happening right now is the Evolution Event, and Lairon doesn't have any special evolutionary requirements, so it's not that.
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It is part of this Evolution Event indeed, even though it has no special evolution requirement. There are more Pokemon that appear more often, for example Haunter, Dragonair and Graveler. Make use of it while it lasts!
https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/361341
gaming
How do I become the Puppet Master?
I'm trying to get the achievement Puppet Master for the Witch Doctor: I've got the following: 4 Zombie Dogs (requires the Zombie Handler passive skill) Gargantuan Fetish from Big Bad Voodoo My Templar Follower This seems like it should be enough, right? Furthermore, the pets I've got correspond to the ones in the achievement's picture. However, the achievement has not yet popped. What am I doing wrong?
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Big Bad Voodoo doesn't really count as a pet,it is more like AOE ward. On lvl 30 you will get fetish army and it makes an easy achievement. Also additional followers you get from quests like Tyrael,Leah... don't count.But main followers templar,enchantress and scoundrel do.
https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/68373
gaming
What game is this character creation screen from?
Does anyone recognize this game? I saw this image and it looks rather cool. I was thinking divinity but don't remember this class.
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Similar images seen here suggest it's Baldur's Gate 3. Backing Video:
https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/399569
gaming
What do the values on the Minecraft debug screen represent?
If you hit F3 while playing Minecraft, an overlay appears. Some of the items, such as fps, x, y, and z are obvious, but I'm curious about some of the other values. What do they all represent?
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Debug numbers C is the number of renderers* being rendered over total number loaded F is number of renderers being clipped (i.e. not viewable) O is the number of renderers removed through occlusion culling E (first line) is the number of renderers skipped E (second line) is the number of rendered entities over total entities B is the number of entities hidden I is the number of individually removed entities (the remainder of B and the numerator of E combined) P is the number of particles T: All is the total number of entities MultiplayerChunkCache is the number of chunks currently loaded into memory x and z are your current coordinates along the horizontal plane y (feet pos) is the current coordinate along the vertical plane of the floor you're walking on y (eyes pos) is the current coordinate along the vertical plane of your eye level (Steve's eyes being 1.620 blocks above the ground) f is the orientation of Steve: 0 is west, 1 is north, 2 is east, 3 is south lc is the height level of the highest non-air block within the current chunk b is the name of the biome you're currently in bl is the light level of the block your head is in, from block-based lights like torches sl is the level of sunlight/moonlight on the block your head is in (independent of the current time of day) rl is the maximum of bl and sl ws is your walk speed fs is your flying speed g is whether your feet are on the ground (true if you are, false otherwise) Graphs The bar graph charts frame rate over time inversely (e.g., higher spikes = lower frame rate). Green plots are when your frame rate is 60 FPS or higher. The pie graph charts the distribution of CPU time across different parts of Minecraft: [0] root (white) is essentially a sanity check: should always be 100% [? probably 1]unspecified (green) is the time spent on things not already enumerated [2] render (blue) is the time spent on rendering the world [3] tick (purple) is the time spent on the game clock (heartbeat) [4] sound (yellow) is the time spent on the sound engine [5] updatelights (salmon) is the time spent on updating the lighting engine (usually at sunset and sunrise) Pressing the 1-9 keys will show sub-divisions of the numbered slices of the pie chart (in addition to switching items as usual), and pressing 0 will go back up. Notes A chunk, if you're not familiar with the term, is a section of the world, equal to 16x128x16 blocks. Given the context in which it appears in RenderGlobal.java, I believe "renderers" refers to a single block. Under the Minecraft coordinate system, X and Z are the horizontal axes and Y is the vertical axis, which confuses players used to other coordinate systems.
https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/14990
gardening
Using PON as main substrate for fiddle leaf figs
Is Lechuza pon a suitable substrate for fiddle leaf figs ? I just received a fiddle leaf fig tree which is 3 plants in a single 36 cm nursery pot. I bought a self watering 43 cm pot and I am planning to repot.
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I have seen many different members of the Ficus family including the fiddle leaf fig grown in similar substrates. The problems that could occur are: these plants get quite tall. In the wild they grow up to 45 feet tall so indoors they need to be cut back frequently or they will be up to the ceiling. So much top weight makes them harder to keep balanced all the hydroponic solutions for plants work better if the solution can be changed. The old style indoor hydroponics using baked clay were in pots that did not drain. The solution was never changed and became saturated with dissolved salts in low light situations In your question I don't see any reason why you want to go with a hydroponic solution. It's extra work and cost with the same result as these plants grow quite well in a soil less potting mix
https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/57027
gardening
What's this plant with fragrant leaves
This plant has very thin and fragile stems. It has very good smelling leaves. No flowers. Is there any way i can propagate it?
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I think it's Helichrysum petiolare, common name liquorice plant; note that it is not edible, despite the common name. In the UK, this is a seasonal, frost tender plant used for decorative purposes in pots and tubs with summer bedding, but in other, warmer parts of the world, it is a short lived perennial or sub shrub. It usually flowers in its second year and may seed itself, otherwise, you can take cuttings, 4-6 inches long, with soft growth at the tip and woodier stems at the base - full instructions here https://living.thebump.com/propagation-helichrysum-petiolare-6685.html For an image and general information on this plant, see here https://kumbulanursery.co.za/plants/helichrysum-petiolare
https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/42966
gardening
Can it be too late to aerate the lawn?
So, it's mid october, the plug-pulling lawn Aerator that I ordered in early august got here today. In the past two weeks, as is pretty normal in my neck of the woods, the weather has looked like this, and is quickly getting colder. I'm thinking about still aerating my lawn, but don't want to expose roots to winter temperatures. Should I hold off until the spring, or can you aerate pretty much all year long?
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Fall is the best time to aerate. I wouldn't do it when temperatures at night are regularly at or below freezing but your temperatures look balmy, now. I am assuming you have cool season grasses since you are looking forward to a winter and freezing, so go ahead and aerate. Leave those plugs right where they fall. They will disintegrate adding soil and bacteria to the surface that will greatly help with reducing thatch (if any). Core aeration reduces compaction and also gets more air into the lawn's bed to boost your micro and macro flora and fauna health. By the temperatures you have shown, your fall is looking just fine for aerating. You are right to worry about subjecting the roots to freezing temperatures. Believe it or not, fall is the best time for aeration. Is this aerator rented or did you purchase your very own? (Make some money by helping your neighbors, aerating is one of the easiest lawn responsibilities). Be sure you do not cut your grass any shorter than 3" at any time of the year. This length is critical to maintain always! The reason is, our cool season grass species that make up our lawns have huge root systems genetically. If you've been watering correctly (watering deeply and allowing to dry out before watering deeply again) those roots will be 4-6" deep. Necessary for making your lawn drought resistant and eliminating any weeds that might have germinated. In between watering the weeds won't be able to grow as the surface is dry and your grasses are enjoying moist soils down deeper. Also, the height of your grass at 3" (not 2 1/2" or 2 3/4" but 3") keeps the surface soils shaded further inhibiting grow of weed seeds and reducing evaporation. The fall is also an important time to do the last fertilizing. The formulation is different than earlier in the season. Do not use a fast acting, high nitrogen fertilizer. You don't want fresh, new, more vulnerable grass photosynthetic matter going into the winter. This will set you up for major fungal disease problems in the sping. I like the 'organic' (I am not a fan of the oft used words 'organic', 'natural'...chemicals are chemicals) brands that are extended release, slower to take effect, and come with bacteria for thatch decomposition and mycorrhizae (for symbiotic support of the roots). Make sure you look for the formulation for FALL. It will be lower in Nitrogen or at least equal in percentage to the Phosphorus and Potassium: For instance 7-8-9 or 10-10-10. Check out Dr. Earth...that is the one I am familiar with and used for client's lawns as well. Worth ever cent. You'll find this type of fertilizer is more expensive but by using this expensive fertilizer you only need to do 2 or 3 applications not the normal 4 applications. Follow the directions closely. It takes more fertilizer per application so it all evens out. I'd use this stuff if it were 3X more expensive!! Worth having the prettiest, healthiest crop of lawn you've ever seen!
https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/29571
gardening
How should I prune my Cussonia Bonsai?
I have had this Cussonia for couple of years. As you can see on the picture, the branches grew somewhat unevenly (I marked the branches with a blue line). I am thinking how to trim it, so the bonsai won't become unbalanced and overgrow the space I have for it. I was told by the store that I should trim it from time to time. However I am not sure how to do it. The main branch of the longest branch already developed a thick layer so no new branches can come out of it. I'm worried cutting it in the middle will cause this long branch to stop growing at all.
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Cut that tall branch about halfway up your blue line. I am sure there is a healthy leaf on the outside of that branch (you don't want branches that angle towards the center of the plant). Use a pair of by-pass (not anvil-type) hand pruners, sterilize them with alcohol and cut 1/8" above that leaf at an angle so water runs off away from the bud/leaf you are choosing as your new terminal bud. This is a bonsai, it is important to keep roots and plant in proportion. Later, there might be an even better leaf to choose that is a little lower. Don't go crazy as this cut is at least a 1/3 of the plant and it might get stressed a bit. Pruning on Bonsais must be done a little at a time. Most of the energy in that branch is at tip. You are cutting off that energy expenditure and all that energy will be diverted to the rest of that branch to 'lateral buds' you can't see right now. This extra energy will tell that branch to wake up more lateral buds...they are there. Careful and educated pruning will make your plant healthier. Take a bonsai class! They depend on you for everything. One mistake and it'll die. Bonsai are the furthest thing from 'natural'...learning to care for a bonsai will teach you an awful lot and humble you. Plants are amazing lifeforms! Very different than animals!!
https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/9701
gardening
Help growing a pine seedling
Earlier on in the year (February I believe) I found a pine cone on the path. On the off chance that it might have a viable seed in it I took it home. I recovered just one seed and planted it in a small 4" pot. It germinated and started to grow. This picture was taken on the 1st June. Now (28th August) it is still the same size. It doesn't seem to be doing anything, although it appears to be alive. Is this normal for pines to only grow such a small amount in the first year? Or is there something I can do to encourage more growth? It's placed in an area where it gets afternoon direct light and indirect shaded light in the morning. I'm in the south of England.
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no, nothing you can do to hurry growth along - the only observation I'd make is the pot its in appears to be way too big for it - its always a good idea to pot things into a pot about twice the size of the rootball, and then pot up into something larger as it grows. If your seedling had a long root, then a narrower, taller pot would have been best. Not sure its worth decanting it after this much time and disturbing its roots, but the risk, with so much compost surrounding such a small amount of root, is that it becomes sour and somewhat toxic because, in order to keep the seedling supplied with water, the whole pot needs to be wetted thoroughly, and that's a lot of potting medium sitting damp with nothing growing in it. I can't tell from the picture whether you have a tray beneath the pot which catches water - if you do, empty that out 30 minutes after watering so the pot isn't sitting in water.
https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/28979
gardening
What is this black and red bug?
I have these bugs in and around my yard: This is in Los Angeles. Are these harmful to plants, pets, or humans? I've found them on some of our plants (Salvia Lantana, Naga Peppers, etc.) I've even found a couple "gettin' busy" so they're pretty active.
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Meet the Small Milkweed Bug (Lygaeus kalmii). This little fellow is mostly harmless, unless you are a milkweed breeder. Its favorite food are milkweed seeds, but it won't be too picky about other seeds or sources of protein. In a balanced garden, they allow you to have milkweed for the butterflies without being overrun by it as weeds. (They will eat the occasional butterfly egg though, but also other insects.) They are completely harmless for humans and only if you feel they are a nuisance or you can't tolerate the minimal feeding damage some intervention may be warranted - manually removing large clusters should suffice. More links: 1, 2, Wikipedia (available only in German, not English)
https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/35341
gardening
Why would one plant two olive trees right next to each other?
I just bought "an" olive tree and, to my surprise, it had two trunks that obviously belonged to two different plants planted right next to each other. Looking around the shop, this appears to be their default MO with olive trees. Why would they do that? Do I have to worry about it harming the tree(s)? EDIT picture
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(Many) olive cultivars will not produce olives (very well) without a pollinator (an olive tree of a different cultivar)... so basically, you want/need two trees to produce (many) olives. (source 1)(source 2)(source 3)
https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/27430
genealogy
Finding identity of Eliza Ann Wills who witnessed marriage of Grace Martin Wills and Matthew Nettell in 1865 at Redruth, Cornwall?
My 2nd great grandmother Grace Martin Wills married Matthew Nettell on 23 Sep 1865 at Redruth, Cornwall. Grace gave her age as 17 (I think it was just over 16 and half), and Matthew gave his as 19. On their Marriage Certificate the two witnesses are clearly written (see below): George Wills which I suspect would be her father (1806 - 1873) or brother (1841 - ?) Eliza Ann Wills I would like to try and determine the identity of Eliza Ann Wills. She does not appear to be a sister (and perhaps not a sister-in-law) to Grace because her siblings appear to have been: Frances (1836 – ?) Mary Jane (1838 – ?) George (1841 – ?) may have married Ann about 1865 (based on first child born 1866) Richard (1843 – ?) married Louisa Trevorah in 1863 and they appear to have been living in New Zealand at the time William (1845 – ?) may not have married Eliza Davey (1847 – 1910) - one candidate but middle name does not match and appears to have been living in New Zealand at the time Sarah Ellen (1851 – 1868) Susan Mary (1853 – 1875) Edith Ann (1857 – 1894) - suggested by a cousin but was only 8 years old at the time Charles Henry Martin (1859 – 1916) was only 6 years old at the time If not a sister or sister-in-law then I am thinking that perhaps she was a cousin to Grace, or maybe her aunt or married to her uncle. So far I have found no likely candidate. The last theory I have is that she is simply a friend who shares the same surname. Before I try to exhaustively examine the Family and Neighbours (FAN) of Grace, I thought I would ask this question to see if anyone is aware of an Eliza Ann Wills living at the right time and right place to possibly have been the witness to this marriage?
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I think that I have found my answer via FindMyPast: In Q3 1865 at Redruth: GEORGE WILLS married one of these people GRACE MARTIN WILLS, ELIZA ANN WHITBURN It looks like Grace Martin Wills married Matthew Nettell soon after her brother George Wills married Eliza Ann Whitburn. I may need to order the Marriage Certificate (Volume 5C,Page 418) of George and Eliza Ann to be more certain but I think the possibility of a double wedding with George and Eliza Ann being married first should not be discounted. I'll see if I can find a newspaper report too. As commented by @user3310902 this appears to be the baptism record of Eliza Ann: "England and Wales Non-Conformist Record Indexes (RG4-8), 1588-1977," index, FamilySearch (https://familysearch.org/pal:/MM9.1.1/FWF5-5Q9 : accessed 25 February 2015), Eliza Ann Whitburn, 06 Dec 1836, Birth; citing p. 50, West Cornwall, record group RG6, Public Record Office, London.
https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/7918
genealogy
What type of journey from Plymouth to Exeter in 1751 might cost 1 pound 5 shillings?
My 6th great-grandfather Robert Osment was baptised on 8 Mar 1703, married (to Elizabeth Simons) on 3 Jan 1729, and buried on 6 May 1756, with these life events all occurring at Plymouth Charles, Devon, England. In the Devon, Plymouth Borough records 1519-1905 at FindMyPast there is a very clear image in the Borough Receivers' Accounts that says the amount of 1 pound 5 shillings was: Paid Robert Osment for a Journey to Exeter The entry is undated but it is near the end of a long list of such entries for Charges and Disbursements from 29 Sep 1750 to 29 Sep 1751. FindMyPast dated the event as being in 1750 (see below) but I suspect that it was probably around Aug-Sep 1751. Given the wording and amount paid, can anything be inferred about the type of journey (from Plymouth to Exeter) that may have been paid for and thus the likely occupation of Robert Osment? Event type Borough Receivers' Accounts Record set Devon, Plymouth Borough Records 1519-1905 First name(s) Robert Last name Osmont Event year 1750 County Devon Country England Place Plymouth Years 1739-1784 Archive Plymouth & West Devon Record Office Archive reference 1/134 Category Census, land & surveys Subcategory Courts & legal Collections from England, Great Britain
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In "The Transport Revolution in Industrializing Britain: A Survey" (pdf) by Dan Bogard at UC Irvine, a table on page 14 gives Stagecoach Fares in shillings per passenger mile, with a value of 0.23 in 1760, which is reasonably close to 1751. On Google Maps, Plymouth to Exeter is around 45 miles by current roads, but that could be somewhat higher using 1750s "roads". If we say 50 miles travelled, that gives a cost of a return journey of 50 x 0.23 x 2 = 23 shillings, or one pound three shillings. That's very close to the quoted 25 shillings cost, so the cost is consistent with a stagecoach return journey if no other substantial costs were involved. At an average of 2.6 miles per hour, each way's travel would have taken around 20 hours, so would have been split over at least two days. This doesn't exclude other transport options of similar or lower cost, of course. Robert could have gone alone on horseback (probably cheaper, but perhaps with added danger from highwaymen!), or even gone by sea, although that's not a straight route. And it doesn't help with why he went. He may have been a passenger taking something to Exeter, or meeting someone there, or bringing something back. Or he may have been the carrier/driver, who charged the borough for taking someone to Exeter. (Purely speculatively, Plymouth is within the diocese of Exeter, so taking someone/something to the Bishop of Exeter could have been a valid reason for such a chargeable trip.) Is there anything on Robert's burial record or the baptism records of his children that refers to his occupation?
https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/13652
genealogy
What does "ads" stand for in a Chancery Court record index?
I found the following index page at Family Search: I would like to know what "ads" stands for in the unlabeled column and what it implies. Does it stand for "administrator"and imply that that person to the right administered the estate of the person to the left?
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These are chancery court cases. Ads is an abbreviation for ad sectam, Latin for "at the suit of". The alternative is vs for versus. The difference is that for papers associated with the defendant entering the plea, the names are written [defendant] ads [plaintiff]. For papers associated with the plaintiff filing charges, the names are written [plaintiff] vs [defendant]. For example, the first file on the snippet given, Shannon ads. Newman, Joseph Shannon is the defendant at the suit of plaintiff Alex Newman.
https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/10597
genealogy
Finding place named St Lagille, France in 1914?
A 1914 USA immigration form says Marie Paudois was born in "St. Lagille, France" but a web search only turns up "Rue St. Lagille" in various French cities. Can't find a village or department by that name.  My suspicion from other documents is that it's in Bretagne or another western department. Is there an online gazetteer that is likely to help? We have almost two weeks unplanned and we're already in northern Spain, so we'd like to go through there.
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Based on sempaiscuba's answer, Julien PAUDOIS is most likely: Julien Joseph Emile PAUDOIS, born in Saint-Mars-la-Jaille (probably what was later turned into "Saint Lagille", as it sounds similar) on the 6th of May 1875, son of Julien PAUDOIS and Joséphine BOSSÉ. See https://www.archinoe.fr/v2/ark:/42067/c7024a4c2466721865b2b84824e58edc
https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/15402
genealogy
Reading old German script about Henry Reimer
I found a DNA match to someone who has an ancestor Henry Reimer born about 1839, probably my 2G Grandparent Diderich Reimer's brother. They both immigrated to Cleveland, Ohio (separately). These scripts are hard for me to read. I am using pattern recognition more than reading. I believe that I have a parent match, but I can't read the child's name. I am hoping that one of the forenames is Heinrich. From Archion.de. Top record is my 2G Grandfather Diderich Reimer. Bottom record may be his brother Henry.
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Here are the names as I read them, and I think you have a match: Record from 1833 Johannes Joachim Friedrich Reimer, Weberknecht zu Beselin Sophia Christina Margarethe geb. Schröder Diderich Carl Christoph Johann Joachim Theodor Record from 1840 Johann Joachim Friedrich Reimer, Weber zu Fresendorf Sophia Christina Margarethe geb Schröder Christopher Heinrich Friedrich "Weber" and "Weberknecht" both mean weaver. Fresendorf is quite close to Beselin (about 3km across the river Kösterbeck according to Google).
https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/18904
genealogy
Deciphering names from Spanish death certificate
This is a follow on from: Determining cause of death from Spanish death certificate Deciphering Work Profession from Spanish death certificate This is the first part of my Great Great Grandmothers death certificate: I have already discussed this certificate with my mother (who is Spanish) and we have come up with the following translation so far: In the city of Corella, province of Navarra, at 12 noon on 28th April 1944, before D. Santiago [Frances Segura], Municipal Judge and D. Pablo [????? ?????], Secretary, proceed to register the death of Da. Juana Sanz Cueva, born in Corella, province of Navarra, on 6th May 1857 (86 years old), daughter of D. Blas Sanz and Da. Felipa Cueva, resided at the street, of [????? ?????], number 40, of profession [????? ?????] and state [?????] of D. Ciriaco Bienzobas [????? ????? ????? ?????] children [?????] Leon, Villar, Maria [?????] and Felipa. This was the best we could come up with. We are struggling with some of the names. Ideally I would like to decipher and complete the whole segment but in particular I am interested in the names of Great Great aunts and uncles. I know for sure: Maria Villar Leon Felipa But there are other words and / or names in that segment that I am not sure about. If anyone knows Spanish and is good at this kind of thing then I welcome your assistance. I included the whole snippet from the certificate so you could see more handwriting. Update Based on the comments I have adjusted the information like this so far: In the city of Corella, province of Navarra, at 12 noon on 28th April 1944, before D. Santiago [Frances Segura], Municipal Judge and D. Pablo [????? ?????], Secretary, proceed to register the death of Da. Juana Sanz Cueva, born in Corella, province of Navarra, on 6th May 1857 (86 years old), daughter of D. Blas Sanz and Da. Felipa Cueva, resided at Tajadas Street, number 40, of profession [????? ?????] and widow of D. Ciriaco Bienzobas of which marriage are left five children [?????], Leon, Villar, Maria [?????] and Felipa.
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If I count correctly, there are five missing blocks: In the city of Corella, province of Navarra, at 12 noon on 28th April 1944, before D. Santiago [Frances Segura], Municipal Judge and D. Pablo [????? ?????], Secretary, proceed to register the death of Da. Juana Sanz Cueva, born in Corella, province of Navarra, on 6th May 1857 (86 years old), daughter of D. Blas Sanz and Da. Felipa Cueva, resided at Tajadas Street, number 40, of profession [????? ?????] and widow of D. Ciriaco Bienzobas of which marriage are left five children [?????], Leon, Villar, Maria [?????] and Felipa. I would go for: D. Pablo Salvatierra ¿Lasa? profesión sus labores (housewife) are left five children llamados (called) María Mauricia
https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/16163
genealogy
Does the name on this record say Nikiefor?
I found a strange name on a baptismal record from Biały Kamień which is now part of Ukraine. The records are mostly in Polish and Latin. It looks like "Nikiefor" but that's a very strange name. I've never seen that name before and I've viewed decades worth of records for the town. Plus there are only 169 results for it on Google. Extra points if you can tell me what the origin of the name is.
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Your reading of this given name as "Nikiefor" seems to be reasonable. Behind the Name lists Nikifor (without an "e") as the Russian, Bulgarian, Macedonian and Polish form of the Greek name Nikephoros. Note 1: the full image of the register page, which would show additional examples of writing, is only viewable at a Family History Center or to LDS church members. See the collection description Ukraine, Western Ukraine Catholic Church Book Duplicates . Note 2: many of the Google hits using "Nikiefor" spelling are error pages of various kinds. "Nikifor" has more than 3 million hits.
https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/3935
german
Umlaut over consonant preceding a vowel
In the photo below, the word "völliger" is spelled with the umlaut over the v: Is this a typo, a design choice, or is there a linguistic explanation?
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This simply is wrong. It should be: BEI VÖLLIGER DUNKELHEIT ENTWICKELN There is a letter »V̈«, but it is not part of the German language. (Some Oceanic languages use this letter, for example Araki)
https://german.stackexchange.com/questions/37730
german
What is the name of this type of chair that can be found on beaches?
I'm looking for a German translation of this type of chair, that can be found on the northern French beaches. We call them "Chaises à capuchon", where chaise is "chair" and capuchon would be "hood" or "cap". I couldn't find that word used in German on the Internet, an approximate realistic translation would be highly appreciated.
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der Strandkorb The literal translation is beach basket — which should be pretty obvious if you look at it, and where it is usually found. They are extremely common on beaches on the North Sea in Germany, where weather and wind are usually even worse than on northern French beaches.
https://german.stackexchange.com/questions/30998
german
What is the German word of this small boat that you usually rent for two people?
What is the German word of this small boat that you usually rent for two people?
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Even if swan-shaped, I can't imagine of any other word than Tretboot While this would also apply to other small and somewhat bigger boats (I recall having seen ones with 4 seats and possibly a small area to lay down after taking a swim), any construction like Schwanentretboot would be understood, but is unlikely to be used broadly.
https://german.stackexchange.com/questions/36294
german
Using the verb "erscheinen" just like in english
I would like to know,could I use "erscheinen" for "appear" like its english equivalent. Context: And my translation attempt: In dem Satz '...', welche der folgenden erscheint nicht?
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Though erscheinen is not really wrong here (i.e. you will be understood, and probably there are folks who would not even take notice), it seems more idiomatic to me to use auftreten. I would also recommend to not follow the original sentence structure 1:1, but rather rephrase it like e.g. Was tritt in dem Satz "..." nicht auf? Welche Wortart tritt in "..." nicht auf? Untersuchen Sie den Satz "...". Welche der folgenden Wortarten tritt darin nicht auf? Two other alternatives would be vorkommen (thanks to PerlDuck for suggesting it) and vertreten sein, so e.g. ... Welche der folgenden Wortarten kommt darin nicht vor? ... Welche der folgenden Wortarten ist darin nicht vertreten? The verb erscheinen (in the meaning that does matter here) always comes with a sense of dynamic or change ("it wasn't there before, but now it is"), but here we are talking about something completely static.
https://german.stackexchange.com/questions/32699
german
Verb position with modal verbs
I have this sentence that I think is wrong: Meine Mitbewohner sagen, ich soll vorsichtig sein mit der Gasheizung. Isn't the verb "sein" supposed to come at the end of the sentence like this? Meine Mitbewohner sagen, ich soll mit der Gasheizung vorsichtig sein. Here is the page from the book Learn German with short stories: Café in Berlin by Andre Klein
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While it is true that that a modal verb plus infinitive form a sentence bracket, and the infinitive usually is at the end of a sentence, it is possible for parts of the sentence to appear after the sentence bracket. This is called ausklammern. This usually happens with parts of the sentence introduced by a preposition, like in your example. This page discusses this phenomenon and lists other examples.
https://german.stackexchange.com/questions/55787
german
German word for a specific situation in an image
I know the word Pechsträhne (streak of bad luck) or maybe even Pechvogel (unlucky person) would fit the case, or even Schwein gehabt! if he survives (or Schadenfreude for what some observers may feel) Then one German speaker told me the following word: Clownenschadenmitbananaundsafeleiderkaputt. Is this a valid word that can be used?
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German compound nouns are often made fun of because of their length. To nonspeakers, they look monstrous and incomprehensible. But in reality, they are quite simple. There's always at least two parts, with the first part determining the second and the second part being a noun. Verkehrsunfall: accident in traffic Nasenspray: spray for nose Klimaleugner: denier of climate (i.e. climate change) Then there's recursion: A compound may be used as the first part of another compound. Verkehrsunfallstatistik: statistic about accidents in traffic Nasenspraysucht: addiction to spray for nose Klimaleugnerthese: proposition by denier of climate These compounds may be well-established, such as Verkehrsunfallstatistik, they may be occasional, such as Nasenspraysucht, or they can be created ad hoc, such as Klimaleugnerthese. As the literal translations indicate, these compounds are quite easily understood if read from right to left. However, when reading quickly, proper segmentation (at least for long or rare compounds) is sometimes a problem even for native speakers, which is why spellings with a hyphen, such as Nasenspray-Sucht, are becoming more popular. The problem with clownenschadenmitbananaundsafeleiderkaputt is that it does not follow the rules for compound nouns: There's a prepositional phrase (mit Banane), a conjunction (und), an adverb (leider) and an adjective (kaputt) all mushed together, without any nouns that could serve as second part.
https://german.stackexchange.com/questions/56604
german
Hatten das runde „s“ und das lange „ſ“ die gleiche Aussprache?
Gab es einen Unterschied in der Aussprache von rundem „s“ und langem „ſ“, oder war der Unterschied nur typographisch?
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Dadurch, dass das runde s nur am Auslaut vorkommt, gilt natürlich die Auslautverhärtung, weswegen man es gewöhnlich nicht als /z/ sprechen konnte, sondern immer nur /s/. Genauso wenig ist (standardsprachlich) die Aussprache als /ʃ/ möglich, da Kombinationen /ʃt/ und /ʃp/ nicht über Wortgrenzen (u. Ä.) gesprochen werden. Für das lange s lässt sich eine derartige Einschränkung nicht treffen, da es sowohl im An- als auch im Auslaut auftreten konnte. Es kann also als /z/ (ſacht), /s/ (luſtig) oder /ʃ/ (ſteil) ausgesprochen werden. Ebenso kann das lange s Bestandteil eines Digraphen sein, z. B. ſch (ausgesprochen als /ʃ/, z. B. in raſch) oder ſſ (ausgesprochen als \s\, z. B. in laſſen). Das runde s wird also im Grunde so ausgesprochen wie ss und ß. Generell gilt, dass das lange s nicht anders ausgesprochen wird als ein rundes s an derselben Stelle, ſyſtematiſch spricht sich also genau so wie systematisch.
https://german.stackexchange.com/questions/1397
graphicdesign
Link coreldraw characteristics
Is there any option to "link" paragraph content and characteristics something similar to object style posted an example where i have to copy some contents from left to the empty right side
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Probably you could use Edit > Clone if you just want to duplicate the text from one side to the other. Or if you want to import data from a text cvs text file use the File > Print Merge comand.
https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/137594
graphicdesign
What is this image effect (similar to viewing a 3d film without the glasses) called?
If you look at this site, the designer(s) made use of a an effect similar to what a 3d film would look like without the 3d glasses (if your remember those days). How would I replicate this effect in Photoshop for a photo? Image reference:
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The 3D effect is called anaglyph 3D. Though in this case ist is just simply a color channel offset. So it might also be simulating a mis-registration (see this post). What you do is you duplicate the artwork run a red filter on the other (multipy by red) offset that and then blue (actually for full color cyan) filter the other copy. If you want a real effect you will need 2 images.
https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/61991
graphicdesign
User Input Color Restrictions
What is an appropriate restriction to place on a color gamut for user defined colors? I am helping build a website that will offer organizations to create their own pages. We want to allow them the option to customize the background color, as well as the 'highlight' color on their page. The 'highlight' color defines the color of all icons and buttons on their page. Because of this, we cannot allow the highlight color to be too light/faint/bright. We offer the following UI to choose a color: adaptation of https://bgrins.github.io/spectrum/#details-ieImplementation You can see the selected color is reflected in the 'choose' button, and would also be applied to other buttons in the UI. My potentially naive plan was to restrict the color spectrum in two different ways: Evaluate the selected color in RGB - check if the combined value of R, G, and B is less than 255 (on a 0 to 255 scale) Evaluate the selected color in HSL - extract the L value (luminance or lightness) and check if the value is less than 0.5 When a user selects a color that is not in the proper range an error message appears to notify that they need to select a darker color. This implementation seems to work pretty well. All bright colors get caught by the above restrictions with a few exceptions (full green appears brighter to my eyes than full red for example... not sure why) My question is if there is a standard restriction that is put in place on similar selections. Is there a better way I should be evaluating and restricting the selected colors?
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I'd stay away from showing all color options in a color picker like this for a couple reasons: 1) it's frustrating for a user to see (or even choose) options that they can't end up having. And more importantly 2) most people would be confused by this setup, at least initially. If a user is using your product in the first place, chances are that they would prefer something simpler but less powerful. What I'd recommend instead is either give them a choice from pre-made colors, or give them a choice of pre-made pallettes (color combinations). You could also optionally allow customisability later or more hidden for more "power users". I do things like this in my applications all the time. By doing this, you can have more full control while not frustrating users (as often).
https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/96610
graphicdesign
Google map icon- is it free to use?
Can I use the google map icon on my website, if I link to google maps?
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Per Google after a little search: Things not permitted: Don't copy or imitate Google's trade dress, including the look and feel of Google web design properties or Google brand packaging, distinctive color combinations, typography, graphic designs, product icons, or imagery associated with Google. Source
https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/35962
graphicdesign
How to scan charcoal and graphite drawings?
I was trying to scan some of my sketches in order to post them on some community sites, but the effects are quite bad. An example could be seen here: Basically, the contrast is terribly off. All soft shading done with a hard pencil is gone, the white is too bright and too "aggressive" and bleeding all over. All the shading had been "flattened down" in the process of scanning. So, my question is, are there some techniques or procedures I should follow, some typical settings for the scanner I should use in order to get good quality scans without the brightness/contrast distorion?
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(upgraded comment to answer) Scott, brendan and tim human all provide good advice regarding scanners. I actually do a lot of work with paintings and drawings, and photographing them is almost always a better option than scanning. I have a low-end professional flatbed scanner on my desk, but I almost never use it anymore because I get better results in less time using a DSLR (even for the rare times I need to scan office documents). Then again, I have a dedicated station, with alignment marks on the floor and table, so the photo equipment is pretty much set up and ready to go. I use 2 photo lights, polarizing filters to reduce glare, and a Digital SLR using RAW format. I use a low ISO setting to minimize noise, which usually requires longer exposures and therefore a tripod. Additionally, I set the aperture small to increase the depth of field as a way to compensate for the auto-focus and ensure that larger items are in focus across the entire surface (it is not always easy to get an old painting perfectly parallel). Usually this means 15-25 second exposures. The polarizers are really only needed for items with glass or high reflectance--drawings are probably not going to exhibit glare. They do alter the color and/or saturation and they can mess with auto focus settings in some cameras. If you only have a consumer pocket camera, consider a tripod at least. The key is decent consistent lighting across the composition, and as "straight-on" a shot as you can get. You want the plane of the camera's CCD to be parallel to the plane of the drawing to avoid having to distort or fix the perspective. Not so bad for a one-off, but if you need to fix 30 at a time, you are better off taking the time working on your set up first. For consumer cameras, and non-RAW format, if you don't like the results, check to see if there is a "custom white balance" setting in the camera menus: you take a shot of a white piece of paper in the light setting you are using, and then set the custom white balance to that photo. This will help reduce the color cast of any lights you are using (regular lights usually cast yellow-red, fluorescents usually cast blue)
https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/16294
graphicdesign
Combining angled shapes in Photoshop CS6 causes antialiasing on all
When I combine two shapes where at least one has a non-right angle or curve, both shapes become anti-aliased. This appears to be some new to CS6. Are there any ways to get around this? The photo below shows two sets of combined shapes, one with a 45 degree angle which causes the blurring and one with right angles which does not blur.! Example of Blurring
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Photoshop will always anti-alias shapes, which in most situations is what you want. When designing icons and other small-scale items, quite often that's not what you want. One way to avoid the problem is to change your workflow slightly. Create and combine paths, rather than shape layers, then stroke and fill the paths. For strokes, use the Pencil tool and "Stroke Path" from the Paths flyout menu. For fills, use "Fill Path" and turn off Anti-Alias.
https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/19107
graphicdesign
Which slash is correct for ‘Old Money’
Introduction Unicode defines multiple strokes; of interest to this question is U+002f (solidus: ‘/’), U+2044 (fraction slash: ‘⁄’) and U+2215 (division slash: ‘∕’). I cannot—however—find these well defined. In Unicode 12.1.0 the strokes are defined as such: Fraction Slash. U+2044 fraction slash is used between digits to form numeric fractions, such as 2/3 and 3/9. The standard form of a fraction built using the fraction slash is defined as follows: any sequence of one or more decimal digits (General Category = Nd), followed by the fraction slash, followed by any sequence of one or more decimal digits. Such a fraction should be displayed as a unit, such as ¾ or . The precise choice of display can depend on additional formatting information. If the displaying software is incapable of mapping the fraction to a unit, then it can also be displayed as a simple linear sequence as a fallback (for example, 3/4). If the fraction is to be separated from a previous number, then a space can be used, choosing the appropriate width (normal, thin, zero width, and so on). For example, 1 + thin space + 3 + fraction slash + 4 is displayed as 1¾. Other notes on the stroke include the following: Several punctuation marks, such as colon, middle dot and solidus closely resemble mathematical operators, […] And finally: Two small form variants from CNS 11643/plane 1 were unified with other characters outside the ASCII block: 213116 was unified with U+00B7 middle dot, and 226116 was unified with U+2215 division slash. Question This specific question relates to the historical usage of a stroke to denote shillings and pence, the so-called ‘old money’. Which stroke is the typographically correct stroke to be used for this? I am quite sure that I somewhere read that the regular stroke (U+2f) is wrong, that one should rather use the division slash (U+2215). In any case, the fraction slash (U+2044), as it is designed for fractions and thus triggers specific behaviours in word processors, web browsers and the like when frac or afrc is called for. Two follow-up questions are in order: Should zero pence be written with an n-dash or hyphen? And which space should be used to separate pounds from shillings, if one uses a space rather than a stroke? Alternatives, all with thinspaces and n-dashes: U+002f (‘solidus’): £1 5/– £1/5/– U+2215 (‘division slash’): £1 5∕– £1∕5∕– It might well be that a hairspace would be desired for the final two examples.
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In predecimal currency notation in the UK, the symbol should be the solidus symbol, because the word "solidus" comes from the Latin name of a coin. Pounds shillings and pence were also denoted with £, s, and d, which came from the Roman silver coinage denominations librae, solidi (plural of solidus), and denarii (plural of denarius). The solidus wasn't used as a divider. It actually stands for shillings/solidi So you would never write £1/5/- It would be written as £1 5/- Pennies were added after the solidus, for example £1 5/9d, sometimes with or without the d. It could also be written as £1-5s-9d, sometimes with a centre dot as separators instead of a hyphen, or a long dash instead of a hyphen. Sometimes just a space separated pounds from shillings. For example £1 5/- It's also interesting to note that instead of £1 5/- people would often convert it to shillings when writing it - for example 25/- or 25s. My sources: An old person (82) who I just asked. Also if you look at some old newspaper adverts you will see how they actually did it. Sometimes the solidus was something more akin to a long apostrophe. There's an example here. Another example here for a higher priced item priced in shillings. In this case 79/6, instead of £3 19/6d. Another interesting thing to note is that very high priced items such as a television set were often priced in guineas - abbreviated GNS. A guinea was £1 1/-. So in this example 78GNS would be equivalent to £78 and 78 shillings, or £81 18/- All I can say is thank God for decimalisation. Imagine having to work this all out in your head! 240 pennies to the pound, 12 pennies to the shilling, 20 shillings to the pound, 21 shillings to the guinea. There were also halfpennies to contend with, ½d, and prior to 1961 farthings, ¼d. It was completely insane!
https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/140097
ham
Should I add call signs with /R suffix to the logbook?
Sometimes in FT-8 mode I receive calls like this one: It happens 2-3 times a week. The problems are: 1) I never could look up such call signs 2) I tried to reply, but never got answer 3) I don't know what /R means. Are these real calls or maybe just a noise that WSJT-X somehow managed to decode? So far I didn't log such events as QSO's. Maybe I should? UPD: As Marcus pointed out, the checksum collision in FT-8 is very unlikely. Also I managed to figure out that "/R" means a repeater https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Amateur_radio_call_signs I believe it means that the signal was sent automatically by the device, not that the operators works through the repeater. Still I wonder - should I add repeaters to the logbook?
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FT8 decoding can use a technique called a priori (AP) whereby it uses naturally accumulating information for the purposes of increasing apparent sensitivity by about 4 dB. There is an increased chance of false decodes when AP is enabled since AP is essentially sophisticated guess work. The technique looks at its guessed result and compares it to the parity information and displays the guess if there is a specified level of confidence of it being correct. There is no assurance that it is correct. The term often used for these false AP decodes is exotica - referring to a rare, decoded call sign that doesn't exist. While it is entirely possible that the sender is a pirate station, the fact that the V0 prefix is not allocated by the ITU is a good indicator that you are experiencing exotica. The /R is likely part of the exotica decode - not an indication of a repeater. Another good indication of an exotica decode is a decode of an unlikely grid square. Because the decoded call sign does not exist, when you respond, the other station does not recognize the exotica call as their call sign so no QSO takes place. If you wish to avoid exotica, at the expense of some loss of apparent sensitivity, simply disable the AP feature under the decode menu.
https://ham.stackexchange.com/questions/12930
ham
Trap dipole tuning up on the wrong band
I'm building a trap dipole for the high HF bands, 10 / 12 / 15 / 17. So far what I've got in the air is: The 10 meter section (4.92 meters, 16.14 feet, resonant at 29Mhz) The 10 meter traps (8pF cap in parallel with a 4µH inductor, resonant at ≈28Mhz) The 12 meter section (80 cm, 31.5 inch) 8pF/4µH 8pF/4µH ----{10M}------------{Balun}------------{10M}---- 0.4M 2.46M ║ 2.46M 0.4M ║ ║ 30.4M coax Now take a look at the output from my antenna analyzer: Whhaaaat... Well, I'm happy with the 10 meter resonant point (given by M1) but what the heck happened next? I read somewhere that traps would electrically shorten all subsequent dipole sections, but i'm not sure what to make of this. Why would the 12 meter section be so far out of tune. Any ideas?
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Traps require that the sections that follow them to be shortened because they look like loading coils. We can demonstrate this by calculating the impedance of your trap at 28MHz and 24.9MHz. The impedance of a parallel LC circuit is given by: $$ Z(\omega) = -j \left( 1 \over C \right) \left( \omega \over \omega^2 - \omega_0^2 \right )$$ Where $\omega = 2 \pi f$ $\omega_0 = 1 / \sqrt{LC}$ So for your trap: $$ \omega_0 = {1 \over \sqrt{4\:\mathrm{\mu H} \cdot 8\:\mathrm{pF}}} = 176776695 $$ This is the resonant frequency in radians per second; if we divide by 2π we see that it's 28.13MHz as expected. We can then calculate the impedance at the relevant frequencies: $$ Z(28\:\mathrm{MHz}\cdot 2 \pi) = j73.6\:\mathrm k\Omega \\ Z(24.9\:\mathrm{MHz}\cdot 2 \pi) = j2.89\:\mathrm k\Omega $$ In the case of 28MHz, the trap is a high impedance, and this serves to reduce the current on the section past the trap to some negligible level. At 24.9MHz the impedance is much lower, but it's not nothing. Additionally, it is no longer a quarter-wave down the antenna, but something less. Because this impedance is purely imaginary and positive, it's an inductive impedance. We can divide the reactance (the imaginary part of impedance) by ω to get an effective inductance: $$ {2.89\:\mathrm k\Omega \over 2 \pi \cdot 24.9\:\mathrm{MHz}} = 18.5\:\mathrm{\mu H} $$ Thus, at 24.9MHz (and just that one frequency), the trap looks just like a 18.5μH inductor. Just like a loading coil. Because the coil is not at the base of the antenna but closer to the tip, its effect on the feedpoint impedance somewhat diminished. I don't know the exact math, although you can find loading coil calculators around the net. Normally we use a loading coil when we don't have room for a full-sized antenna, but here we are reasoning in the opposite order: because you have a loading coil, your antenna can't be full-size.
https://ham.stackexchange.com/questions/3605
ham
Can these in-band spurs from rpitx be eliminated somehow?
I'm putting together a 2m NBFM transmitter/receiver combo using rpitx and rtl-sdr. During testing my low-pass filter I discovered that rpitx is generating spurious signals within and around the band (see screenshot below). They're only about -30dBc so I need to remove them before transmitting. Removing them with a band-pass filter would be difficult and restrict the frequency range. What could be causing these spurs, and can anything be done to clean up the signal? I've overlayed two screenshots, one with no signal (green), and one with the rpitx signal at 146MHz (red), taken from GQRX+RTLSDR which show some of the spurs. The spurs are frequency-dependent and generally span +/-5MHz or so. I've ruled out the rtl-sdr as the problem as I can see them on my scope too. The signal is generated with rpitx/tune -f 146000000 and is on the BCM4 GPIO. My Pi is a 3B+.
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I can't dig up my source for this, but I'm pretty sure these spurs are just the result of rpitx using a fractional-N PLL (that isn't in any way optimized for phase noise) to generate a square wave. You get pulses of different (discrete) widths, which means you get spurs at predictable intervals. There isn't really anything you can do to make them go away, but their relative strength will be dependent on your chosen frequency and its relationship to the master oscillator frequency (which I believe is 19.2 MHz). If you're willing to do some trial-and-error, you can scan through the band hoping to find a center frequency where all of the spurs are at acceptable levels (unlikely, but possible) or one where all of the significant spurs are far enough away from the carrier that using a bandpass filter becomes practical.
https://ham.stackexchange.com/questions/16667
ham
Will I harm batteries by only trickle charging them, or connecting them to a power supply?
I have some 12V, 12Ah Enercell batteries from RadioShack, RS part number 2301219. As far as I can tell these are AGM SLA batteries. I picked up this 3-stage charger from Harbor Freight and as far as I can tell it's charging the batteries (which were probably on the shelf for years and not touched). The goal is to build a portable 12V (and hopefully 36Ah) battery box. I've wired the batteries in parallel: simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab The batteries need 14.5-14.9V (max 3.6A) for "normal charging" and 13.6-13.8V (max 1.8A) for "trickle charging". The packaging says not to use automotive or marine chargers. So for single batteries, the only thing I've found has been something like this charger from PowerStream. Will I harm these batteries by only charging them on a trickle charger? If I hook these up to my 15A MFJ power supply for a short period of time, would that hurt these batteries?
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You're not getting answers for multiple reasons. 1) Batteries are a science but its surrounded by marketing and astrological tradition (concrete floors, blah blah) 2) If something bad happens they are destroyed or blow up the house or start a fire and no one wants to get involved in that mess. I guess I'm just crazy. 3) You're using stuff from mainland China, not exactly legendary for reliability. So the charger you have is spec'd by its manual which I downloaded and read, to output never higher than 13.2 volts to float... and from http://www.powerstream.com/SLA.htm its impossible to outgas explosive hydrogen unless the voltage at room temp (it varies with temp) is around 14.5 volts, so all good there, and most SLA recombinators won't vent until about C/3 charge rate and your Chinese charger theoretically only outputs 0.75 amp so its safe on any battery larger than about 3 amphours and you're at 36. So you've got a factor of safety of more than a volt and over ten times the capacity, so IF it works to it's written specs, THEN you're totally safe. At 3/4 amp rate, and 36 theoretical aH capacity, thats going to take more than two days to charge a completely dead battery, but it'll get there eventually. The most effective way to kill a SLA is over volt it causing plate corrosion, and cheap 1970s car chargers don't voltage limit because flooded cell batteries from 1970 can have distilled water added when they outgas (unlike a SLA). So the battery mfgr covers all bases by saying "don't use a car charger" But per the specs your modern trickle charger even worst case should be very safe if you compare it to typical SLA battery mfgr specs. With no current limiting directly wiring the MFJ supply would just try to supply like 100 amps and blow a fuse if the battery is low. If it doesn't blow a fuse and you do draw 15 amps (which it won't, for reasons beyond this discussion) then thats about C/2 charge rate and the recombinators in SLAs are usually rated to handle C/3 (optimistically) so you'll pop the vent and leak some acid and get to buy new batteries, which is annoying. In summary, no, don't wire it directly to a power supply without some kind of circuitry in between, like a charger or charge controller type gadget. The powerstream charger looks awesome and would make a great charger. In other news "which were probably on the shelf for years and not touched" lead acid cells die by abuse (not a problem here) cycles (not a problem) or old age (oh oh thats a problem). You only get "less than a decade" starting the instant acid hits lead back in the factory. Just saying if it sat on the shelf for five years already, they don't really have that long to live anymore. So on one hand if they die "soon" it's probably not your fault, and on the other hand if you do something bad to them they were going to the recycler soon enough anyway so you've not got much to lose. Anyway 73, best of luck, de N9NFB K
https://ham.stackexchange.com/questions/3627
ham
Use (TV?) Log-Periodic antenna for VHF
I found this old log periodic antenna that I assume was from a TV. Could I, or how would I, use this on the amateur radio bands? My main focus would be VHF, with UHF being secondary and HF would also be nice. I'd like to keep it as cheap as possible. Largest: 4' 5" (134.62 cm) - seems to be electrically connected to form a 8' 10" element? smallest: 5" (12.7 cm) (unfolds to be parallel with another 5" element) "Other" smallest: 6" (15.24 cm) (by itself)
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I'm sorry to say that's not a simple log-periodic antenna, it's a hybrid monstrosity to meet some particular need. Guessing from the element lengths: 136 cm each side would work at about 50 MHz, so low-band TV. Two-element log-P with a reflector. OK. 12 cm each side would work at about 550 MHz, so mid UHF TV. Some sort of Yagi 15 cm total would be a director for about 900 MHz, so the top end of UHF TV. It doesn't seem to cover the VHF ham band, and it probably only starts working above the 440 MHz ham band. You could probably re-use the mounting and feed hardware, cut the feed down to work at 145 MHz, and then install new directors to give it some gain. But you are basically building a new yagi, and with very non-ideal director spacing. If you need a directional antenna (for satellites?) rather build a new yagi from scratch. You can make a nice one in a few hours with some bits of brazing rod and a broomstick.
https://ham.stackexchange.com/questions/17621
ham
What dot means in JTDX FT8 received messages?
What dot near country means in JTDX? Maybe LOTW?
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Found on the JTDX groups.io (link won't work without login, unfortunately): sybmol • - this operator loaded his log into LoTW symbol ° - this operator loaded his log into LoTW and this is Hint decode (FT8 AP or matched filter based decoder in JT65 JT9 T10 modes) symbol * - Hint decode (FT8 AP or matched filter based decoder in JT65 JT9 T10 modes) So the solid dot and the open dot both mean LoTW user. Star doesn't (it means the same thing that it does in wsjt-x).
https://ham.stackexchange.com/questions/15378
ham
Where does this common spurious transmission come from? Is there a quality difference?
I decided to see what my ham transmissions look like on an SDR and was kind of shocked to see how much leaks out. The waterfall display is split between two handhelds during transmit. There are a couple large energy spikes at +/- 800kHz to the 431.5MHz transmitting frequency. Given that both radios spurious emissions are lined up and similar I'm guessing it is common and due to some sort of harmonic effect, possibly from implementing similar architecture. Is there any negative to the less dispersed transmission of the bottom device/waterfall? The top half of the waterfall display is from a handheld transceiver that is much higher in quality than the one captured on the bottom half. Interestingly the SDR picks up the better handhelds audio much better even though voice communication between handheld devices is fine.
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This is very likely to be be due to overload of the receiver. A quick, rough way to tell the difference: Tune your SDR receiver so the waterfall center frequency is not the same as the transmitter's frequency. Transmit. Check whether the spurs you see are symmetric about the transmitter's frequency or the receiver's frequency. This tells you which side generated them. Also, if transmitting causes the entire waterfall to rise up then you definitely have an overload problem. How to eliminate overload: First, make sure your receiver's RF gain is set to the minimum level, and AGC (if any) is off. Then try these things: Replace the transmitter's antenna with a dummy load. Replace the receiver's antenna with a dummy load or terminator, or if neither is available, just leave the antenna port unconnected. Get more distance.
https://ham.stackexchange.com/questions/13163
health
Is the spit test for candida legitimate?
My friend sent me a test to determine if one has too much candida. I called her gullible and she got mad and sent me several other sites which amounted to the same thing, like http://www.candidayeastinfection.com/candida-test-how-to-tell-if-you-have-candida/. Is the spit test for candida legitimate? I tried it and during the day it was negative and during the morning it was only semi-positive.
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You're correct, your friend is indeed gullible. Oropharyngeal candidiasis can be diagnosed by an experienced clinician by looking at the mouth to see characteristic plaques, or by taking swabs for microbiological culture. Blood cultures can be taken for systemic candidiasis. Antibody profiles are suggested as a method to also assist in the diagnosis. The differential movement in water and sedimentation rate of saliva has no known medical use, and is promoted as a way to sell naturopathic anti-candida treatments. Since the test will often be "positive" even in the absence of a candida infection, the promoters get to sell more product.
https://health.stackexchange.com/questions/5472
health
How does a herniated spinal disk correct itself?
Looking at the picture below, nothing in the herniated disc seems to be able to correct itself over time. Yet, the article I took the picture from says that surgical treatment is used only if the pain is not resolved within a few weeks. My question is: How exactly can this condition be resolved within a few weeks, with drugs only? What happens to the mechanical deformation - the root cause?
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The herniated part of the disc can be resorbed by the inflammatory process, which means that inflammatory cells, such as macrophages, can remove the damaged tissue. The healing time can range from several weeks to months. Conservatively treated massive prolapsed discs: a 7-year follow-up (The Royal College of Surgeons, 2010): The mechanism by which herniated discs are resorbed is not fully understood. It is generally thought that an immune response develops to the disc tissue and inflammation helps to remove the invading tissue. Massive disc herniations usually reduce in volume and by 6 months most are only a third of their original size. Several studies have shown that the largest discs appear to have the greatest tendency to resolve. Long-Term Course to Lumbar Disc Resorption Patients and Predictive Factors Associated with Disc Resorption (Evidence-Based Complementary and Alternative Medicine, 2017): Of 505 participants, 19 did not show disc resorption, while 486 did. A total of 220 displayed resorption rates of ≥50%. There is insufficient evidence that any treatment, including analgesics, physical therapy, spinal manipulation, steroid injections and surgery result in greater symptom relief 1-2 years after the onset of symptoms than no specific treatment at all (BMJ, 2007, European Spine Journal, 2007). Early surgery should be considered when symptoms are unbearable, are bilateral, involve the perineum (the area between the legs) or bladder or bowel dysfunction (cauda equina syndrome).
https://health.stackexchange.com/questions/19519
health
Positive ANA test suggestive of Lupus/SLE, but is 1:160 still ambiguous?
I was referred to a Rheumatologist earlier this year due to all my symptoms: constant fatigue, getting sick all the time by every little thing, having unexplained fevers, having constant joint pain, swollen joints, digestive issues, nausea, sensitivity to light, erratic menstruation cycles, chest pain, uptick in my migraines, being in a brain fog, coldness in extremities, etc. I already had been diagnosed with fibromyalgia and osteoarthritis, but my Dr. was suspicious that I might I have Lupus so he ordered an ANA (antinuclear antibody) test. My test result is seen below: Abnormal 1:160. My WBC was also soaring, but, my Dr. was undecided on whether or not to diagnose me with Lupus -- though the laboratory technicians had recommended the diagnosis. So is a positive 1:160 ANA test result still considered ambiguous for diagnosis Lupus? He labeled me border-line Lupus. Is that a real thing? What other diagnostic testing is needed to diagnosis definitively that I have or do not have Lupus? Or should I see a different rhematologist?
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Your doctor may use the term "possible lupus" if you meet part, but not all of the diagnostic criteria for lupus [1]. I'm assuming in the remainder of this post that you do not meet criteria for "probable" lupus (>= 4 criteria including 1 clinical and 1 immunologic criteria). A positive ANA is considered 1 immunologic criteria for the diagnosis of lupus. The general expert consensus is that to be considered "possible lupus," you need at least one criteria plus at least two other features that may be associated for, but are not specific for SLE [1]. These may include (along with some associated symptoms): Optic neuritis (loss of vision, blurry vision, loss of color perception) Aseptic meningitis (stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, headache, abnormal lumbar puncture) Glomerular hematuria (blood and protein in urine seen under microscope) Pneumonitis, pulmonary hemorrhage, or pulmonary hypertension, interstitial lung disease (shortness of breath, coughing up blood, abnormal pulmonary function tests, abnormal chest CT scan, abnormal heart echo) Myocarditis (chest pain, shortness of breath, abnormal heart echo), verrucous endocarditis (complex manifestations, diagnosed on heart echo) Abdominal vasculitis (may manifest as severe acute attacks of abdominal pain) Raynaud phenomenon (fingers or toes becoming vividly white when exposed to cold) Note that all of these symptoms are extremely non-specific and all have causes that are much more common than those listed above, e.g. the overwhelming majority of patients with headaches and abdominal pain and shortness of breath do not have lupus, since those are all symptoms commonly experienced by the general population. To answer your questions: yes, "borderline lupus" (possible lupus) is a real thing. Further tests to rule out probable lupus would include a complete physical exam; complete blood count; urinalysis; anti-DNA, anti-Smith, and antiphospholipid antibodies; complement levels; and a direct Coombs test. Patients with "possible lupus" may or may not progress to eventually have "probable lupus." Your doctor may discuss potential treatment strategies to prevent progression depending on your symptoms and the rest of your evaluation.
https://health.stackexchange.com/questions/9653
health
What are those white things in my juice & can it cause me any harm?
So i got this white weird condensed things into my juice once i added some milk into it & i got worried whether it is a normal thing or can it have some risk on my health ! Is this a safe juice & what can cause this?
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Fruit juice is acidic, and acid makes milk curdle. This is the end result. It's harmless. It's pretty much just juice-flavored cottage cheese.
https://health.stackexchange.com/questions/9283
health
Child got A+ blood group when both parents are O+
Based on my understanding of Blood group tables, such as the one below a child can only get O blood group when both parents have O as their blood groups. In a close relative's case, while her parents and two siblings have O+ as their blood groups, she ended up having A+. We are puzzled as how this could happen?
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Although such cases are undoubtedly rare, they are not impossible. Here's a case report from 2005: Apparent deviation from Mendelian rules of blood group inheritance is rarely observed. Blood group O parents with children expressing weak A subgroups have occasionally been described but not explained. A detailed serological investigation of such a family is described here. [...] The propositus' RBCs were very weakly agglutinated with monoclonal anti-A but distinctly with polyclonal anti-A,B, i.e. typical for Ax. Serum anti-A1 (titre 4) and -B were present. Her parents' blood groups were both clearly O, with titres of serum anti-A1, and -A at 16 and 4, respectively. Adsorption/elution studies demonstrated A antigen on the daughter's cells only. The ABO genotypes were: mother, AxO1; father, O1vO2; and propositus, AxO2. The Ax allele was an A1-O1v hybrid allele with a crossing-over breakpoint between positions 235 and 446 in intron 6 (Ax-4). Compared to the A1 glycosyltransferase, this allele predicts a protein with two amino acid substitutions (Phe216Ile and Met277Val) known to yield either weakly expressed or no A antigen on RBCs. This study suggests that the nature of the ABO allele in trans can influence A antigen expression, a phenomenon previously described as allelic enhancement (or reinforcement).
https://health.stackexchange.com/questions/29381
health
Basic CPR practice without a dummy
I would like to practice basic CPR with my children, but do not want to invest in a CPR doll. I would be interested in suggestions as to how else one could do this. My idea was to practice the bits which are not dangerous with a person and to substitute a firm cushion (or several, to get a feeling for different resistance levels) for the actual pressing, with another at the top for the head. I suspect there must be something better though. For information I am sufficiently qualified to teach first aid at the organisation I volunteer for, but have not been taught the didactics of it. Sorry if the question is too imprecise for this site, but I hope not. Update: here is a photo of the result.
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With a very small budget If you do not want to spend any (or very little) money on it, I recommend filling a small garbage bag with wet sand and then placing a cushion or pillow over it. I'm guessing if you want to add a realistic touch, you could place some small sticks of wood in the garbage bag to act as ribs. Unfortunately, the above answer is all based on my guessing; but seems like it would be fun to experiment with. However, the below answer and link will give you instructions to make a DIY manikin that a CPR instructor has made and uses. Slightly bigger budget With some patience, time and approximately $14 USD, you can make a manikin out of a plunger, lid, foam, plaster of Paris and a few other common items. I will not go into detail about it, but here is a link to the blog where you can find detailed instructions, pictures and a list of materials. You mention having the children practice some skills on a human. As long as they are old enough to understand the concept of not actually doing these skills on a person who doesn't need them, I encourage you to teach them on a human. Teach them the anatomical landmarks, how to check for breathing and a pulse and how to open an airway(1) on a real person. Hope this is helpful to you. If you have any additional questions, please let me know! (1) Note: If you plan to teach them how to open an airway, be sure to only do the head-tilt chin-lift. If you wish to teach the jaw thrust, that is best done on a doll.
https://health.stackexchange.com/questions/12611
health
Why are Drugs.com side-effect incidence rates so different from manufacturer/FDA reports?
Entries at Drugs.com have a section on "Side Effects... For Healthcare Professionals" which present percentages for incidence rates of side effects. However, I've found that the rates reported there are wildly at odds with those reported on manufacturer and FDA-approved drug sheets, or any other reference I can find. (Note that Drugs.com collaborates directly with the FDA, and in fact the FDA directs readers to Drugs.com for information on drugs.) Here's a slice of one example. Researching Reclast, among the numerous side effects listed on Drugs.com, the following are included: Gastrointestinal Very common (10% or more): Nausea (29.1% to 46%), vomiting (14% to 32%), constipation (26.7% to 31%), diarrhea (17.4% to 24%), abdominal pain (14% to 16.3%), dyspepsia (10%)... Musculoskeletal Very common (10% or more): Bone pain (55%), myalgia (23%), arthralgia (21%), back pain (15%), and limb pain (14%)... I'll compare to the prescribing information document, produced by the manufacturer Novartis and approved by the FDA, and available on both of their websites (e.g., at FDA). The following is an excerpt from Table 1. Comparing a few of the side-effect rates noted (Drugs.com vs. Prescribing Information document): Nausea: 29.1-46% vs. 4.5-8.5%. Vomiting: 14-32% vs. 3.4-4.6% Diarrhea: 17.4-24% vs. 5.2-6.0% Bone pain: 55% vs. 3.2-5.8% Myalgia: 21% vs. 4.9-11.7% The Prescribing Information document has a few other tables reporting on other studies (for osteopenia, for men, and for Paget's disease), but the incidence rates are all quite similar to those in Table 1. On Drugs.com, individual numbers are not given specific citations, although there is a general list of references at the bottom of the page. In the case of Reclast, there are five: (1) the Product Information document from Novartis, (2) UK summary, (3) Australian APPGuide online, (4) Australian product information, and (5) Kidney Int report (specific to tubular necrosis). Having looked at all of them, the UK and Australian reports give only qualitative descriptors for incidence rates (no percentage numbers), and the APPGuide Online doesn't appear to exist anymore. In short: I can't find any source for the incidence rates shown on Drugs.com, and the numbers shown there are dramatically different from those in the prescribing information document from Novartis and the FDA. In some cases the rates are off by up to 50 percentage points. Furthermore, this is true for all of the larger list of side effects shown for Reclast. And if I look at any other drug I see the same situation (e.g., currently investigating osteoporosis drugs: Fosamax, Boniva, Forteo, and Prolia). So: Why are the side-effect incidence rates shown on Drugs.com so different from the FDA-approved prescribing information report? Where are Drugs.com getting these numbers? Which one should be considered more reliable?
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The numbers are different because the package insert rates are based on two clinical trials while the information on Drugs.com is determined by Cerner Multum, a commercial drug database. Adverse events frequencies reported in the drug prescribing information is typically determined by initial clinical trial data. The table included in your question indicates two studies as the source of these rates. However, the very prescribing information you linked notes: Because clinical trials are conducted under widely varying conditions, adverse reaction rates observed in the clinical trials of a drug cannot be directly compared to rates in the clinical trials of another drug and may not reflect the rates observed in practice. Turning to Drugs.com, editorial policy page says: The information available on the Drugs.com website is displayed under a number of licensing agreements with various publishers. For our drug-database information, we rely on the solid reputation of our suppliers: Cerner Multum, Micromedex and American Society of Health-System Pharmacists. Indeed at the bottom of the Drugs.com zoledronic acid (Reclast) page we find: References relevant to chosen section (Show all references) Cerner Multum, Inc. "UK Summary of Product Characteristics." If we review the informational page about Multum on Drugs.com Multum's content is written by full-time associates who have no affiliations with drug companies, using a combination of sources. Initial References include the Product Information/Package Insert, primary literature and information from standards groups such as the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the World Health Organization (WHO) and the American Academy of Pediatrics. Physicians and pharmacists review the new information and make any necessary changes; all leaflets are reviewed by one or more practicing clinical specialists. Content is verified using secondary references that include standard authoritative medical textbooks and the Multum Expert Review Panel. Cerner itself is the second largest vendor of electronic health record technology in the United States, and so it is also possible that adverse events may be supplemented by information gained by their customers. Which source should be considered more reliable is difficult to say and probably opinion based.
https://health.stackexchange.com/questions/29399
hermeneutics
Dating Babylonian Destruction of Jerusalem w/ Only the Bible
I am interested to see if it's possible to obtain an approximate date of when Jerusalem was destroyed (secular sources say 587 BCE using cuneiform tablets, astronomy, etc.) with only the Bible and its internal dating (e.g. number of years of Kingly rulerships, when prophecies were given, age of people, etc.) I put the following chart together but still can't find a solution. My thought was Daniel (who was a "youth" during the 3rd year of King Jehoiakim) and only lived after the return of exile could have been used, but we have no information about his age other than what I mentioned. I also thought Jehoiachin + Ezekiel could have provided some clues, but seems nothing to tie the loop.
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The short answer is no, because all Biblical dates that we can convert to modern calendars come via either astronomical observations that we can back-calculate OR by conversion to the *Julian calendar. Two examples: We have Babylonian astronomical observations paired with Babylonian calendar dates. The laws of motion allow us to calculate exactly how long ago a particular astronomical phenomenon occurred, thereby tying a Bablyonian date to a date on a modern calendar. This is how we know when Nebuchadnezzar's reign began and when a number of events during his reign occurred. We have Roman officials whose terms of office were known, such as the proconsul Gallio before whom Paul appeared while in Corinth. We know when Gallio was in office (+/- about a year), in terms of the regnal years of Emperor Claudius, and we know on the Julian calendar when Claudius was in office. From which we can calculate the timing of many events in Paul's ministry. Perhaps what you're looking for, though, is whether the fall of Jerusalem can be dated by something other than Babylonian dates. Possibly...but in ancient chronology the more certain dates are used to ascertain the less-certain dates, so we would get a less accurate approximation by trying to date the fall of Jerusalem by back calculating from something later, like known events from the Persian Empire. But even then, we'd still have to tie the Biblical chronology back somewhere to an external record of an astronomical event, or the Julian calendar. The Bible doesn't provide direct links to the Gregorian calendar, we always use an intermediary to do that (whether it's the Babylonians or the Persians or the Greeks etc, there's no getting around that). Even if we developed a thoroughly internally consistent Biblical calendar using only Biblical texts, and could thereby determine how many years apart two Biblical events were, without astronomy or secular history we couldn't figure out how many years there are between those events and today. *We could also mention the Greek Olympiad dates or the chronology from Josephus, but these are known by conversion through the Julian calendar as well.
https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/60840
hermeneutics
In Genesis 2:22, what is the significance of the verb וַיִּבֶן (lemma: בָּנָה)?
The Hebrew text of Gen. 2:22 states, כב וַיִּבֶן יַהְוֶה אֱלֹהִים אֶת הַצֵּלָע אֲשֶׁר לָקַח מִן הָאָדָם לְאִשָּׁה וַיְבִאֶהָ אֶל הָאָדָם which may be translated into English as, And Yahveh God built a woman with the rib that he took from the man, and He brought her to the man. Most translations obscure the actual meaning of the verb וַיִּבֶן by translating it as “made.”1 But, the Hebrew verb meaning “to make” is עָשָׂה (asah).2 Instead of עָשָׂה, we see a conjugation of the verb בָּנָה (banah). According to Heinrich Friedrich Wilhelm Gesenius, the primary meaning of this verb is “to build.”3 The translators of the LXX translated the Hebrew verb וַיִּבֶן into Greek as ᾠκοδόμησεν (ōkodomēsen), a conjugation of the Greek verb οἰκοδομέω (oikodomeō), also meaning “to build.”4 Moses certainly could have used the Hebrew verb עָשָׂה, but why didn't he? What significance is there in using the verb בָּנָה? Footnotes 1 For example, ASV, ESV, KJV, NET, NIV, NKJV, NLT, RSV. 2 cp. Gen. 1:7 3 p. 127-128 4 (Wilke) p. 439-440 References Gesenius, Heinrich Friedrich Wilhelm. Gesenius’s Hebrew and Chaldee Lexicon to the Old Testament Scriptures. Trans. Tregelles, Samuel Prideaux. London: Bagster, 1860. Wilke, Christian Gottlob. A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Being Grimm Wilke’s Clavis Novi Testamenti. Trans. Thayer, Joseph Henry. Ed. Grimm, Carl Ludwig Wilibald. Rev. ed. New York: American Book, 1889.
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The first two occurrences of 'made' in the Bible (עשׂה ‘asa) indicate that although similar to 'built' (בנה bana) it is more general with respect to the creation process. 'Built' seems to almost imply the gathering of pieces and joining them together as an architect would. 'Made' may describe things created but is more general to encompass virtually any work that produces something else. For example the first two occurrences of 'make' is in Genesis 1:11 and again in 1:12 is talking about trees making fruit (bearing fruit). However 'made' also refers to God's general creation of everything he 'made': And God saw everything that he had made, and behold, it was very good. And there was evening and there was morning, the sixth day. (Genesis 1:31, ESV) The word 'built' first occurs when God made Eve from Adams rib and the second occurrence is here: Then Noah built an altar to the Lord and took some of every clean animal and some of every clean bird and offered burnt offerings on the altar. (Genesis 8:20, ESV) The next occurrence is when mention is made of the building of Nineveh in Gen 10:11 Therefore it seems 'build' is used as we use it in English, to make things out of other objects in a kind of construction and compacting of materials together. There is the obvious suitability to the word 'built' with respect to Eve as God began the construction with a rib, which signifies the beginning of arranging and compacting materials together to form something new. However, in addition to this I would not be surprised if God already inlaid scripture with the notion of the invisible church as typified by Eve. As the church is thought of as a holy building , where as a temple made of various stones perfectly fitted together as a habitation of God, the building may have been prefigured in Eve. Also as a tree with the root of Jesse as its stump, the believing Jews as its trunk and believing Gentiles as grafted in branches, the rib could be seen as similar to the root used to build a unique and well cared for tree getting its life and nourishment from the root.
https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/2830
hermeneutics
In John 1:14 what does ἐσκήνωσεν mean?
 Καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν,* καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας. (John 1:14, NA28) Usually commentators point out that σκηνόω has the idea of dwelling in a tent, and σκηνη is used in the New Testament and LXX for the tabernacle. However, σκηνόω is very similar to the Hebrew word שָׁכַן, (šakan, imperfect waw consecutive וַיִּשְׁכֹּ֤ן, wayiškon) which also means dwell and is also used for Mount Sinai. The glory of the LORD dwelt on Mount Sinai, and the cloud covered it six days. And on the seventh day he called to Moses out of the midst of the cloud. (Exodus 24:16, ESV) The context seems to fit John making a parallel to Mount Sinai. For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. (John 1:17, ESV) Here's a chart of the roots of the word in the LXX translating שָׁכַן. Note: most of these roots had the preposition κατα prefixed. The root of ἐσκήνωσεν is predominant. Translations with other than dwell. The Word became flesh and took up residence among us. (HCSV) The Word became a human being and, ..., lived among us. (GNB) So the Word became human and made his home among us. (LT) The Word became a human and lived among us. (NCV) The Word became flesh and blood, and moved into the neighborhood. (Message)) And the Word (Christ) became flesh (human, incarnate) and tabernacled (fixed His tent of flesh, lived awhile) among us; (Amp.) The Word became flesh and tabernacled among us. (ISV) And the Word became flesh, and did tabernacle among us (YLT) Many more had "lived." הַדָּבָר נִהְיָה בָּשָׂר וְשָׁכַן בְּתוֹכֵנוּ; -- ha-Berit ha-ḥadashah. (2000). (John 1:14). Israel: The Bible Society in Israel.
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The verb σκηνόω is literally "I encamp", but idiomatically, "I dwell" or "I live among", etc. This John 1:14 is correctly translated by most versions as "made his dwelling among us". In my opinion, the primary precedent is to make a complete contrast with one text and a continuation of another text. Contrast Precedent: Dan 2:11 - What the king requests is so difficult that no one can tell it to him except the gods, whose dwelling is not with mortals.” Continuation Precedent: Ex 24:16 - The glory of the LORD dwelt/settled on Mount Sinai, and the cloud covered it six days. And on the seventh day he called to Moses out of the midst of the cloud. Ex 25:8 - "Then have them make a sanctuary for me, and I will dwell among them. Ex 29:45 - Then I will dwell among the Israelites and be their God. Eze 43:9 - Now let them put away from me their prostitution and the funeral offerings for their kings, and I will live among them forever. Lev 26:12 - I will walk among you and be your God, and you will be my people. [There are many OT verse discussing God being among the people.] Thus, John pointedly contrasts the false gods of Babylon (and others) with the true God of Israel who, via both the shekinah-glory and Jesus' incarnation, lived among us. On this topic, we may also quote 1 Cor 14:25 - as the secrets of their hearts are laid bare. So they will fall down and worship God, exclaiming, "God is really among you!" 2 Cor 6:16 - As God has said: "I will live with them and walk among them, and I will be their God, and they will be my people." (This verse quotes Lev 26:12; Jer 32:38; Eze 37:27.)
https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/58806
hermeneutics
Does kôkābîm (כוֹכָבִים) in Book of Daniel refer to any bright objects in the sky?
In Daniel 8:10 we read: : It grew great, even to the host of heaven. And some of the host and some of the stars it threw down to the ground and trampled on them. [English Standard Version] Its power reached to the heavens, where it attacked the heavenly army, throwing some of the heavenly beings and some of the stars to the ground and trampling them. [New Living Translation] This sounds like a heaven war, but obviously proper stars are too big to fall to the Earth. Can the Hebrew word for “stars” (כוֹכָבִים, kôkābîm or kō·w·ḵā·ḇîm) refer to any bright objects or a celestial bodies in the sky similar to the Greek word ἀστέρες (astḗres)?
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Rashi, here, explains that in Daniel's vision, the horns of the goat represent Persia and Media, and the stars it stomps represents Israel. God, speaking to Abraham, also compared the children of Israel to the stars. See, e.g. Gen. 15:5. See also Deut. 1:10 ("the Lord your God hath multiplied you, and behold, ye are this day as the stars of heaven for multitude" (Translation, Hertz Chumash)).
https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/13408
hermeneutics
Is this the commonly known Red Sea?
In Exodus 13:18 (NASB) Therefore God led the people around by way of the wilderness to the Red Sea; and the sons of Israel went up in battle formation from the land of Egypt. Does this passage reference the commonly known Red Sea?
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This cannot be answered with any certainty. Almost every Bible atlas and Bible commentator offers a different theory about the route of the Exodus. Here is what can be known: 1. The Hebrew name for this is "yam suph" = "sea of reeds". Note the differences in probable reference as from BDB for the word סוּף (suph) a. to Gulf of Suez Exodus 10:19; Joshua 2:10 (both J), Exodus 13:18; Exodus 15:4,22; Exodus 23:31 (all E), Deuteronomy 11:4; Joshua 4:23 (D), Numbers 33:10,11 (P), elsewhere late Nehemiah 9:9; Psalm 106:7; Psalm 106:9; Psalm 106:22; Psalm 136:13; Psalm 136:15. b. sometimes to Gulf of Akaba 1 Kings 9:26, and דֶּרֶךְ יַםסֿוּף Numbers 21:4 (E), probably also Numbers 14:25 (E), Deuteronomy 1:40; Deuteronomy 2:1; perhaps Judges 11:16; Jeremiah 49:21; possibly read מִיַּםסֿוּף for ׳מוֺל ס Deuteronomy 1:1 2. Comments from Wikipedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Red_Sea The association of the Red Sea with the biblical account of the Israelites crossing the Red Sea is ancient, and was made explicit in the Septuagint translation of the Book of Exodus from Hebrew to Koine Greek in approximately the third century B.C. In that version, the Yam Suph (Hebrew: ים סוף‎, lit. 'Sea of Reeds') is translated as Erythra Thalassa (Red Sea). Although reeds do not grow in the Red Sea today (reeds do not grow in salt water), Professor Colin Humphreys explains the discrepancy on the basis that a freshwater marsh of reeds could have existed around Aqaba.[15] Note the description in Ex 14:22 - and the Israelites went through the sea on dry ground, with walls of water on their right and on their left. Thus, the "sea" must have been deep enough to have "walls of water" suggesting more than just a marsh or swampy area. There has been a huge amount of ink expended on this question and we are unlikely to resolve it here. There is not enough data to establish this beyond question.
https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/54818
hermeneutics
How does John 5:28-29 fit with the dispensational hermeneutic
The dispensational hermeneutic has been summarized as: “Consistently literal or plain interpretation is indicative of a dispensational approach to the interpretation of the Scriptures,” declared Charles Ryrie in 1965. (See here.) Dispensationalism teaches that there will be two resurrections, one of the righteous (at the bodily return of the Lord Jesus Christ) and one of the unrighteous (at the final judgement). These two resurrections are separated by the millennial kingdom. However if we take a literal or plain sense reading of John 5:28-29 where do we see this temporal gap between the two resurrections? "Do not marvel at this; for the hour is coming in which all who are in the graves will hear His voice and come forth-- those who have done good, to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil, to the resurrection of condemnation." (John 5:28-29 NKJ) Notice that we are told that, "the hour is coming". This is a singular noun, so the plain sense is that it refers to one single hour and in that hour "all who are in the graves will hear His voice and come forth" and then John proceeds to add more detail to that, so that we understand who he means when he says 'all' - "those who have done good, to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil, to the resurrection of condemnation." It seems to me that a "consistently literal or plain interpretation" means we must take John 5:28-29 to be saying that the resurrection of the just and resurrection of the unjust both happen at the return of the Lord Jesus Christ and they happen in the same hour. So, my question is how does dispensationalism (or any futuristic position that separates these two resurrections by a millennium) consistently expound this text? I know some commentaries seem to brush over the implications of these words, take for example: 5:28–29. Jesus switched suddenly to physical resurrection and identified a major doctrine of the New Testament—the concept of two resurrections, one for the righteous and one for the wicked. The second resurrection is a resurrection to damnation (Rev. 20:13), but many interpreters believe there are three parts to the first resurrection outlined in Scripture: Christ the firstfruits (1 Cor. 15:20, 23); the saints (church) at the rapture; and Old Testament believers at the beginning of the millennium. Passages like this should lay to rest the false doctrine that death ends all life and essentially serves as a cessation of existence. There will not only be resurrection; resurrection will be followed by judgment.[Gangel, K. O. (2000). John (Vol. 4, p. 103). Nashville, TN: Broadman & Holman Publishers.] This commentary points out that the text teaches two resurrections, but it does not deal with the time of those resurrections that John appears to be very explicit on. However I am sure some dispensationalist writers must have dealt with this passage in more detail than that, so how does a dispensenational hermeneutic deal consistently with this text?
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One Way At present I only have time to outline how I particularly would fit this text with my dispensational view about two categories of resurrection separated by time periods. There are actually two possible ways the verse can fit (or even combining both ideas): The "hour" is not necessarily definite, for it lacks the article (ἔρχεται ὥρα), so "an hour is coming ...," which leaves open the possibility that there is an hour in which one group (or technically even one individual) hears, and an hour in which another hears, just so long as "all" have an hour in which they do hear His voice. The word ὥρα ("hour") can be restricted in meaning to roughly a 60 minute period of time, but far more frequently in Greek literature is used to simply refer to a distinct "period" of time, hence why the word is also translated "season" (as the KJV does in Jn 5:35 for this word) or "time" (as the NIV and NET do for v.28), for the word has a much more generic meaning in Greek associated to it. The meaning of a term is always a key starting point for the grammatical-historical hermeneutic upon which dispensationalists build their understanding of the text. The "Plain" Reading So the "plain" reading is that there is "coming a period of time in which all who are in the graves will hear and come forth." This period may refer to the "type" of period it is, that is to many separate but distinct individual periods of resurrection "calls" ("an hour in which all in the graves will hear"). The emphasis in this case is placed on there being a time in which each individual hears the call, and he or she comes forth. That is one way it could be handled. However, I lean toward one distinct and whole period ("the hour in which all in the graves will hear"), partly because it does make for a more plain reading still of the text. This period would be equal to that of the "last days," the period of time in which Christ is reclaiming direct (i.e. physically present) rulership and judging the earth. This period would include Christ's first call of resurrection at the rapture (1 Thes 4:15-16; many dispensationalists would consider this the "start" of the period as a pretribulation call, but "in" this period fits with any rapture timing view) to the last call to judgment immediately preceding the destruction of the current heaven and earth (Rev 20:11-12). While either view above fits a plain reading of the text of John 5:28-29, for the dispensationalist, the important point is that it also fits the passages that do indicate timing differences of resurrection. Other Dispensationalists* Lewis Sperry Chafer considers the period of "Christ's second advent" as from Christ’s coming “as a thief in the night” (Matt. 24:43; Luke 12:39–40; 1 Thess. 5:2; 2 Pet. 3:10; Rev. 16:15) to the passing of the heavens and the earth that now are and the melting of the elements with fervent heat (Systematic Theology, 7:110) This passage from Chafer, Dwight Pentecost quotes in Things to Come as an explanation for "such passages as John 5:28-29" (174). Pentecost addresses the John 5 passage again later, quoting "Everett F. Harrison's 'The Christian Doctrine of Resurrection,' p. 46" (400, reference in n.4): It must be granted, however, that the language [of John 5:28-29] does not demand coincidence in the resurrections. John's use of the word ... (hora) in 5:25 allows for its extension over a long period. The same is true of 4:21, 23. In short, neither the language itself, nor the period referenced, prevent the dispensational reading, nor do they violate a "plain" reading of the text, since "hour" is such an indistinct term in its usage. Conclusion Obviously the John 5:28-29 passage alone gives no distinct indication of a timing difference in resurrections, as its focus is upon the quality and end result differences of the two types of resurrections, but it does leave open the possibility of a timing difference, explicitly made clear in other Scripture, by the indistinct language used. * When I get more time, I will do additional research how other dispensationalists have explicitly handled it.
https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/19242
hermeneutics
In John 11:33 what does ἐνεβριμήσατο τῷ πνεύματι καὶ ἐτάραξεν ἑαυτὸν mean in this context?
How you translate the verbs in ἐνεβριμήσατο τῷ πνεύματι καὶ ἐτάραξεν ἑαυτὸν in 11:33 affects how you interpret the surrounding verses, especially when answering the question why did Jesus weep (11:35). Translations vary significantly on how they translate the verb ἐνεβριμήσατο. ἐμβριμάομαιc: to have an intense, strong feeling of concern, often with the implication of indignation—‘to feel strongly, to be indignant.’ Ἰησοῦς οὖν ὡς εἶδεν αὐτὴν κλαίουσαν καὶ τοὺς συνελθόντας αὐτῇ Ἰουδαίους κλαίοντας, ἐνεβριμήσατο τῷ πνεύματι ‘then when Jesus saw her weeping and saw those Jews who were with her weeping, his feeling was intense’ or ‘… he was indignant’ Jn 11:33. Louw, J. P., & Nida, E. A. (1996). Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament: based on semantic domains (electronic ed. of the 2nd edition., Vol. 1, p. 293). New York: United Bible Societies. Some translations emphasize strong feelings of concern, while others emphasize indignation or even anger. Can we translate these phrases before we interpret this passage? Looking at the senses from Logos Bible Software: especially combined with τῷ πνεύματι, the meaning appears to be restrain oneself or a smoother translation *held back his emotions. Thus, Jesus' weeping in 11:35 was reserved compared to his deep feelings.
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Many thanks, Perry Webb, for this superbly crafted question. I am not sure this answer it but it may be the spark that helps someone else along to finish the job. The verb ἐμβριμάομαι (embrimaomai), as the OP would be aware, only occurs five times in the NT, Matt 9:30, Mark 1:42, 14:5, John 11:33, 38. BDAG offers little to advance our understanding beyond listing the common translations in the most popular versions. All occurrences of this verb use either middle or passive voice and none is active. In such circumstances I like to examine the subtle but literal translation of David Bentley Hart who often employed brilliant (but Herculean) efforts to render the nuances of the Greek verb which are listed below including the verb tense, mood and voice. Matt 9:30 (Aorist Indicative Passive - 3rd Person Singular) Jesus sternly commanded them … Mark 1:43 (Aorist Participle Middle - Nominative Masculine Singular) And, sternly admonishing him … Mark 14:4 ( Imperfect Indicative Middle or Passive - 3rd Person Plural) some who expressed indignation to one another John 11:33 (Aorist Indicative Middle - 3rd Person Singular) He groaned in His Spirit and yielded Himself to His turmoil … John 11:38 (Present Participle Middle or Passive - Nominative Masculine Singular) So Jesus, again groaning within Himself, come to the tomb … I think the key to understanding this very nuanced verb is (as usual) the context. Note that in Matt and Mark, the situation is some one expressing emotion to some one else; while in John, it is Jesus that experiences the deep emotion without trying to convey that to anyone else (although they notice his emotional state). The root of the verb is clearly deeply felt passion. But note the surrounding language - Jesus is clearly deeply moved by the emotion, specifically grief, of His surrounding friends. In John 11:32, 33, it is Mary's obvious grief that moved Jesus; Jesus was "deeply moved in his spirit and was troubled in himself" (my translation). Thus, John's use of ἐμβριμάομαι (embrimaomai) appears to be emotionally internal; while Matthew and Mark use the same verb in an attempt to convey deeply felt passion to others. Thus we find the versions desperately trying to covey this translating John 11:33 as "deeply moved", or "groaning", within himself (or similar); while Matt and Mark are translated, "sternly warned", "scolded", etc.
https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/48024
hinduism
Are all Samadhis are required in order OR can be practiced irrespective of each other?
In Yog sutra Patanjali mentioned 10 types of samadhis : Seems all are related and are inter-related to each other. So questions arise in my mind are: Is there any text that suggest the order in which we should try Samadhis? Do all samadhis are required or based on personality some are optional ? Is there any side effect of Samadhi? Is that possible to achieve Samadhi without guidance of in-person Guru just by knowledge by books & try to practice that? Please forgive my ignorance if something seems foolish to ask since I am seeking knowledge and yet to advance this stage experientially but I wish to seek that if that is possible. Please guide me.
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Your question is based on Yog Sutras of Patanjalii - Sutra No. 1.17. Below is the sanskrit sutra. वितार्कविचारानन्दस्मितारुपनुगमात्सम्पज्ञात : || 1.17|| Samprajnata , the Samadhi of Wisdom , occurs through the accompaniment of the appearance (RP ,BB) of gross thought ( Vitarka) ,Subtle thought ( Vichara) , ecstasy (ananda) and I-am- ness (asmita). Here Patanjali is describing various types of Samadhi's or meditation a Yogi should gradually practice in order to purify his mind for achieving Moksha or self-Realization or enlightenment. The soul purpose of all these all types of samadhis is to gradually develop Dispassion in his mind and to isolate him from his material as well as subtle world and to lead him towards his final goal. This is very difficult and laborious task. For answring purpose i am taking help of commentary provided in Yoga-Sutras of patanjali with the exposition of Vyasa - Translation and commentary by- Pandit Usarbudh Arya- Vol.1 . Do all samadhis are required or based on personality some are optional? From commentary we come to know that all these steps are sequential and gradual , although not dependent on each other but are necessary in achieving final goal. And why are all these levels or types are necessary in achieving final liberation the answer can be found in below passage ,where it is said that in Practicing samadhi or meditation a yogi experiences some faults in each level of realization and thus he develops dispassion towards each of these types or levels until the final realization occurs. It is also said that just mastering each of the stage or type is not important but before going to next level or type a full dispassion towards last type or level should be achieved .The purpose of each type is to lead a yogi sequentially to get free from all material as well as emotional bondages step by step. And in the process he overcomes the previous level and develops dispassion towards previous level and the outcome of that level .i.e. siddhis etc. What then is the purpose of such realization at these various levels in Samprajnata Samadhi? They are to fulfil the purpose described in YS 1.15 ,16 : to develop dispassion towards each level of the material evolutes. At each level one feels that the next subtler level is purer. But upon examination by realization it is found that the purity is only relative , at best derived from sattva ,which is an attribute of matter. Each level is successively found to be attended by some faults and blemishes (NB) that have been describe earlier. Thus a Vairagya towards each successive state develops . Simply perfecting the level of realization is not conductive to progress towards isolation and liberation . It is only when full dispassion develops towards that very experience and realization that the next step can be taken towards a yet subtler object of concentration. - [Page -222 - Second paragraph.] So we can see that achieving Kaivalya or Moksha or enlightenment is a gradual or sequential process. And during all types of samadhi a Yogi is sequetially gets freed from various assumed bondages.And in the last samadhi stage i.e. in a cognitive ( asamprajnata) samadhi , final enlightenment happens. As the process of samadhi advances , the assumption of false identifications with each shealth are dropped and gradual freedom from morality ,action, mentation,ignorance ,pain and bondage is achieved. One is freed from One can achieve final state of Samadhi Or Moksha through grace of God Directly. A Yogi can bypass all the stages of Samadhis and can directly reach to final stage by the grace of the God through path of Devotion i.e. Bhakti etc. avoiding all the labour. In such a case he do not experience the other types of samadhis and their outcome i.e. siddhis etc. He directly gets enlightenlemt from God. However it is suggested that these stages or types are there and one should go through them in order to achieve the grace of the god , they make a yogi's mind pure step by step and makes him fit for grace. The order in which the four stages are practised and mastered are important (BG NB).It is clearly stated however (BG) that , if a yogi makes spontaneous ascent to a higher ground by the grace of the God , he then need not climb methodically and laboriously over the lower steps (BG) .Grace , then is a shortcut which bypass the method. It must be remembered however ,that when one climbs to a higher plateau through force such Grace, the lower siddhis attendant upon the practice of earlier steps do not occur .It is only for some reasons one need those siddhis - even they are relevant to one's spiritual attainment ,station and progress. For the purpose here it is assumed that a method is generally requisite for mental purification and mastery in order that one may become deserving vessel for Grace. -[ Page - 243 -Second Paragraph.] So in conclusion all these types of Samadhis are gradual and sequential. They are designed so that a yogi step by step can gets isolated from all his bondages of material as well as subtle world. leading him towards final stage. Although he can directly achieve enlightenment through grace of God , these types helps him to become fit for the Grace , so all these types are important even one wants the Moksha through Grace via Bhakti etc. So it is assumed that a Yogi should practice all these types in order to gradually purify himself and becoming entirely free from this material as well as emotional world . Even in case of attempt of direct enlightenment these types helps and makes him fit for Grace of God.
https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/29122
hinduism
Why Lord Krishna says he is Bhrigu in sages?
Why Lord Krishna says he is Bhrigu in sages whereas Bhrigu rishi put leg on the Lord Vishnu's chest? Is there any reason behind calling himself as Sage bhrigu? reference geeta ch-10 verse 25
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Prabhupāda notes that Bhṛgu is the most powerful among all of Brahmā's sons, so that's why Kṛṣṇa says he's Bhṛgu among the ṛṣi's in BG 10.25: Brahmā, the first living creature within the universe, created several sons for the propagation of various kinds of species. Among these sons, Bhṛgu is the most powerful sage ... Also, according to the Mahābhārata, Bhṛgu was also reborn out of fire: The great and blessed saint Bhrigu, we are informed, was produced by the self-existing Brahma from the fire at the sacrifice of Varuna. And a couple of verses earlier (BG 10.23), we see that Kṛṣṇa is comparing himself with fire (Agni). Of all the Rudras I am Lord Śiva, of the Yakṣas and Rākṣasas I am the Lord of wealth [Kuvera], of the Vasus I am fire [Agni], and of mountains I am Meru.
https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/16717
hinduism
Who created Datta Bavani?
Who created Datta Bavani? Please provide some introduction of the creator.
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Rang Avadhoot Maharaj Created Datta Bavani. He also gave one mantra Paraspara Devo bhava means we humans should behave as devas. means we should not harm anybody. Bhakti should be without sho off.
https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/10198
hinduism
What is the story of Somanath Jyotirlinga?
Lord Shiva has been worshipped in linga form from time beginning as described in answer here. Godesses Saraswati in Linga Purana states: सर्वं लिंगमयं लोकं सर्वं लिंगे प्रतिष्ठितम् । तस्मात्सर्वं परित्यज्य स्थापयेत्पूजयेच्च तत् ।। The whole world is identical with the Linga. Everything is founded on the Linga. Hence, one shall eschew everything, install the Linga and worship it. The above verses itself establishes glory of Linga. Among the Lingas also there are 12 major Jyotirlingas which are most important. Shiva Purana in Koti Rudra Samhita, DwadashaJyotirlinga Mahatmya Chapter sates: सौराष्ट्रे सोमनाथं च श्री शैले मल्लिकार्जुनम् । उज्जयिन्यां महाकालमोंकारे परमेश्वरम् ।। केदारं हिमवत्पृष्ठे डाकिन्यां भीमशङ्करम् । वाराणास्यां च विश्वेशं त्रयम्बकं गौतमीतटे ।। वैद्यनाथं चिताभूमौ नागेशं दारुकावने । सेतुबन्धे तु रामेशं घुश्मेशं च शिवालये ।। द्वादशैतानि नामानि प्रात्यस्त्थाय यः पठेत् । सर्वपापविनिर्मुक्तं सर्वसिद्धिफलं लभेत् ।। Somanath in Saurastra, Mallikarjuna in Shri Saile, Mahakala in Ujjaiyana and Parameshawara also manifested as Omkara. Kedara in Himavat and Bhima Shankara in Dakinya. Vishewaswara in Varanasi and Trayambaka in side of Gautami. Vaidyanath in ChitaBhumi and  Nageshwara in forest of Daruka. Rameshwara in Setubandha and Ghusmeshwara in Shivalaya. These name of 12 Jyotirlingas who recites in morning, he gets freed from all sins and is eligible to get all Siddhis. There are twelve Jyotirlingas mentioned in another similar popular Shloka too which is as: Saurāṣṭre Somanāthaṃ ca Śrīśaile Mallikārjunam Ujjayinyāṃ Mahākālam Omkāram Mamleśhwaram Paraly Vaidyanāthaṃ cha Ḍākinyāṃ Bhīmaśhaṅkaram Setubandhe tu Rāmeśaṃ Nāgeśhaṃ Dārukāvane Vārāṇasyāṃ tu Viśveśaṃ Tryambakaṃ Gautamītaṭe Himālaye tu Kedāraṃ Ghuśmeśaṃ ca Śivālaye etāni jyotirliṅgāni sāyaṃ prātaḥ paṭhennaraḥ saptajanmakṛtaṃ pāpaṃ smaraṇena vinaśyati The first Jyotirlinga mentioned is Somanatha Jyotirlinga. I want to know, what is the story of formation of Somanath Jyotirlinga? Why Lord Shiva manifested himself in Somanath Jyotirlinga? And how this Jyotirlinga get its name? Please mention the scriptural reference. Somanath temple is situated in Saurashtra (Gujarat). By Anhilwara - Own work, Public Domain, https://commons.wikimedia.org/w/index.php?curid=18227742
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Somnatha Jyotirlinga is first of the Jyotirlingas on Earth (Bhooloka). Story of Somesvara is described in detail in both Shiva Mahapurana and Skanda Maha Purana. This is how Chapter 14 of RudraSamhita of Shiva Purana describes the story. Daksha's 27 daughters were married to Soma, the moon God. But Moon God always loved Rohini more compared to other wives. This made other wives infuriated and they explained their tale of suffering to their father Daksha. सप्तविंशन्मिताः कन्या दक्षेण च महात्मना। तेन चन्द्रमसे दत्ता अश्विन्याद्या मुनीश्वराः॥ ५॥ O great sage, his (Daksha) daughters, twenty-seven in number, Ašvini and others, were given in marriage to the moon by Dakša, the great soul. चन्द्रं च स्वामिनं प्राप्य शोभमाना विशेषतः। चन्द्रोऽपि चैव ताः प्राप्य शोभते स्म निरन्तरम्।। ६ ।। Achieving the moon as their lord, all the girls felt graceful. The moon also felt graceful with them. हेम्ना चैव मणिर्भाति मणिना हेम चैव हि। एवं च समये तस्य यञ्जातं श्रूयतामिति॥७॥ The gold looks graceful with the gem and same is the case of gems with the gold. Now you listen to what happened thereafter. सर्वास्वपि च पत्रीषु रोहिणीनाम या स्मृता। यथैका सा प्रिया चासीत्तथाऽन्या न कदाचन॥८॥ Of all the twenty-seven wives, he did not love any one so much at anytime as he loved Rohiņī. अन्याश्च दुःखमापन्नाः पितरं शरणं ययुः। गत्वा तस्मै च यद्दुःखं तथा ताभिर्निवेदितम्॥९॥ The rest of the wives of the moon went to their father, feeling painful and took refuge with him. They explained the tale of their sufferings to their father. Daskha tried to convince Soma, but moon God didn't heed. Daksha cursed the Soma to get consumed by disease (waning). दक्षश्चैवं स सम्प्रार्थ्य चन्द्रं जामातरं स्वयम्। जगाम मन्दिरं स्वं वै निश्चयं परमं गतः।। १३॥ Sūta said, “Thus requesting to moon, his son-in-law, Daksa returned to his place feeling satisfied. चन्द्रोऽपि वचनं तस्य न चकार विमोहितः। शिवमायाप्रभावेण यया सम्मोहितं जगत्॥ १४॥ The moon on the other hand, having been over-powered with the delusion of Siva,did not bother about the advice of Daksa. श्रूयतां चन्द्र! यत्पूर्व प्रार्थितो बहुधा मया। न मानितं त्वया यस्मात्तस्मात्त्वं च क्षयी भव।। १८ ।। Daksa said, “O Moon, you listen, I have made several requests to you which remain unheaded. Therefore you will suffer from the disease of consumption.” सूत उवाच इत्युक्त तेन चन्द्रो वै क्षयी जातः क्षणादिह। हाहाकारो महानासीत्तदेन्दौ क्षीणतां गते॥ १९॥ Sūta said, “At these words of Daksa, the moon atonce attracted the consumption disease, with the moon’s attracting the ailment of consumption, there was a turmoil everywhere. All the sages with Devas being unsettled by changes went to Prabhasa Khanda and said to Soma to worship Shiva with Mahamrutyunja mantra. स्थाप्य चन्द्रं प्रभासे च स्वं स्वं धाम ययुर्मुदा॥३८॥ Invoking all the holy places there, including Sarasvati, they started adoring Siva by Mrtyuñjaya-pujan-vidhi. The gods and the ascetics, with the spotless intentions, seated the moon at the Prabhāsa-kSetra, and went back to their respective places. चन्द्रेण च तपस्तमं षण्मासं च निरन्तरम्। मृत्युञ्जयेन मन्त्रेण पूजितो वृषभध्वजः।। ३९ ।। The moon performed the adoration of Siva reciting the Mrtyuñjaya-mantra and performed tapas continuously for six months. Pleased with his penance, Shiva appeared to Soma and asked for a boon. Soma asked to forgive him and cure from that disease of consumption. Shiva said he would go through period of waning and waxing for period of fortnight continuously. शिव उवाच पक्षे च क्षीयतां चन्द्र! कला ते च दिने दिने। पुनश्च वर्द्धतां पक्षे सा कला च निरन्तरम्।। ४५ ।। Śiva said, “In a fortnight, you will get reduced by a digit daily and in the next fortnight, it would go on increasing in the same sequence.” Pleased with devotion of moon and at request of Devas, Shiva then took form of Linga there as Somnathesvara. चन्द्रस्य यशसे तत्र नाम्ना चन्द्रस्य शङ्करः।। ५०॥ सोमेश्वरश्च नाम्नाऽऽरीद्विख्यातो भुवनत्रये। क्षयकुष्ठादिरोगाणां नाशक: पूजनाद्द्वजाः।। ५१।। Siva then felt happy with the gods. In order to enhance the glory and greatness of the region, besides that of the moon, Šiva established himself there in the form of Someşvara and became famous in the three worlds. O Brähmanas, by his worship, Šiva becomes the destroyer of the ailments like consumption, leprosy and others. Story of Somnatha is also described in Chapter 63 Nagara Khanda of Skanda Purana (Pg: 259) and Chapter 22 and 23 Section one of Prabhasa Kandha of Skanda Purana. Greatness of Somnatha Linga is described in much detail in Chapter 6 Section one of Prabhasa Kandha of Skanda Purana.
https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/14213
hinduism
Who is this goddess in the picture
I found this below pic in instagram. Who is this goddess? Is any mention about this goddess in Hindu Puranas?
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Who is this goddess? Padmavati Devi (Ps- Do not confuse her with Padmavati Devi of Tirumala & Tiruchanur, or with the Padmavati Yakshini of Jainism.) She is one of the 700 Mahavidyas or 13 Shaktis of Durga Saptashati or the Angavidya of Navarna Chandī and thus she is the ruling deity of the 6th chapter (Dhumralochana Vadha). Is any mention about this goddess in Hindu Puranas? Yes, she appears in Durga Saptashati or Markandeya Purana. Her dhyan is mentioned in the 6th chapter of Uttam Charitra, Durga Saptashati, as below- ॐ नागाधीश्‍वरविष्टरां फणिफणोत्तंसोरुरत्‍नावली- भास्वद्देहलतां दिवाकरनिभां नेत्रत्रयोद्भासिताम्। मालाकुम्भकपालनीरजकरां चन्द्रार्धचूडां परां सर्वज्ञेश्‍वरभैरवाङ्‌कनिलयां पद्मावतीं चिन्तये॥ Om, I meditate Upon The Ultimate goddess Padmavathi, who reside in the body of the Lord of all wisdom, Sarjneshwarbhairava. Her body is efflugent with the brilliance of multitude of jewels, she is adorned by the hood of the king of snakes, upon whom she is reclining. Her lustre is like that of the sun and her three eyes are brilliant. In her hands she holds, a rosary, a pitcher, a skull and a lotus, & the radiant half moon is the shining crown upon her head. There are numerous tantric references too. An exclusive kavacham is dedicated to Padmavati Devi in the Deviyamal tantra. And she appears in Rudrayamal too. Almost every Devi Sahasranaam has her name, be it of Kali, Dhumavati, Laxmi, Bala, Bhuvaneshwari, Ganga, etc. Deviyamala tantra, त्रिष्टुप छन्द इतिख्यातं देवी पद्मावती स्मृता । With the famous trishtup chanda, meditated upon Devi Padmavati. Rudrayamal tantra, संपत्करी च साम्राज्यलक्ष्मी: पद्मावती शिवा। दुर्गा भद्राकृतिः काली कालरात्रिः सुभद्रिका।। Sarvajneshwar Bhairava (the all-knower/the lord of all wisdom) is the consort of Padmavati Devi. Deviyamala tantra mentions this in a shloka, श्रीसर्वज्ञेश्वरसहिता श्रीपद्मावतीदेवता Padmavati devta, along with Shree Sarvajneshwar. Also in the above dhyan mantra, this was mentioned, सर्वज्ञेश्‍वरभैरवाङ्‌कनिलयां पद्मावतीं चिन्तये॥ I meditate upon Padmavati who resides in the body of Sarvajneshwara Bhairava.
https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/52194
hinduism
What scriptures mention Shiva's Dakshinamurthi form?
One of the most popular forms of Shiva worshipped in South India is the sage Dakshinamurthi, whose name literally means "the South-facing form". Dakshinamurthi is the subject of the famous Dakshinamurthu Stotram, a hymn commonly attributed to Adi Shankarcharya (although this is disputed) which says this: It is strange to see the very old disciples and the very young teacher, who sit under a banyan tree, with the teacher always observing silence, and the students getting all the doubts cleared. The story as I understand it is that Shiva incarnated as a young sage named Dakahinamurthi, who sat under a banyan tree and silently imparted wisdom to the Sanatkumaras, four sages who are mind-born sons of Brahma. My question is, what scriptures mention the sage Dakshinamurthi? I assume he's mentioned in various Shaiva Agamas, but it's very hard to date Agamic texts. And he is discussed in the Dakshinamurthi Upanishad, but that's believed by many to be a late text. Is he discussed in the Puranas? All I've found is a passing reference in this excerpt from the Narada Purana, which says that a hymn to Shiva called the Shiva Nyasa was heard from the gods by Dakshinamurthi: The deity of this (nyasa) is Ardhanarisha, the sage Dakshinamurti and the metre is Gayatri. The application of this mantra is for attaining everything. I suppose it's akin to how the sage Narayana, an incarnation of Vishnu, was the seer of mantras to Vishnu like the Purusha Sukta of the Rig Veda, which I discuss here. Also, this forum post claims that Dakshinamurthi is discussed in the "Suta Samhita" of the Skanda Purana, but the Motilal Banarsidass translation of the Skanda Purana is divided into Khandas, not Samhitas, so I'm not sure what part of the text constitutes the Suta Samhita. Does anyone know any other scriptures which discuss Dakshinamurthi?
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Dakshinamurty form of Lord Shiva is described in Suta Samhita of Skanda Purana in Mochak Kathanam of Mukti Khanda. Here is the description of form: गड़्गाधरं शिवं शान्तं लसत्केयूरमण्डितम् । सर्वाभरणसंयुक्तं सर्वलक्षणसंयुक्तम् ।। वीरासने समासीनं वेदयज्ञोपवीतिनम् । भस्माधाराभिरामं तं नागाभरणभूषितम् ।। व्याघ्रचर्माम्बरं शुद्धं योगपट्टावृतं शुभम् । सर्वेषां प्राणिनामात्माज्ञानापस्मारपृष्ठत ।। विन्यस्तचरणं सम्यज्ञानमुद्राधरंहरम् । सर्वविज्ञानरत्नानां कोशभूतं सुपुस्तकम् ।। दधानं सर्वतत्वाक्षमालिकां कुण्डिकामपि । स्वात्मभूत परानन्द पराशक्त्यर्धविग्रहम् ।। धर्मरुप वृषोपेतं धार्मिक वेदपारगै । मुनिभि: संवृतं मायावटमूलाश्रितं शुभम् ।। इशानं सर्वविद्यानामीश्वेरश्वरमव्ययम् । उत्पत्त्यादितिनिर्मुक्तमोंकारकमलासनम् ।। स्वातमविद्याप्रदानेन सदा संसारमोचकम् । रुद्रं परमकारुण्यात्सर्वप्राणिहितेरतम् ।। उपासकानां सर्वेषामभीष्टसकलप्रदम् । दक्षिणामूर्तिदेवाख्यं जगत्सर्गादिकारणम् ।। समागत्य महाभक्त्या दण्डवत्पृथिवीतले । प्रणम्य बहुशोदेवं समाराध्य यथाबलम् ।। रुद्र यत्ते मुखं तेन दक्षिणंपाहि मामिति । उक्त्वा पुनः पुनर्देवं पूजयामास भक्तितः ।। पुनर्देवो महादेवो दक्षिणामूर्तिरीश्वर: । प्रदत्त्वा स्वात्मविज्ञान तस्मै विप्रायसुव्रता ।। तस्य संसारविच्छेदमकरोदम्बिकापति। बहवो दक्षिणामूर्ति प्रसादादेव जन्ततः ।। The one bearing Ganga in his head, Shiva; is silent, with his hairs tied. He can give anything to anyone and he is full of all attributes. He is sitting in Virasana Position and wearing a Vedic Yajnopavita. He is covered by the ashes and his ornaments are snakes. He is sitting in tigerskin made for sitting in Yogic position. He is giving AtmaJnana to all creatures through silence. His left foot is in right thigh and his hand is on JnanaMudra. He is the embodiment of all jewels of knowledge. He is giving all tatwa just through his eyes. He himself is in fully trancsendental blissful state, transcending even Shakti. Sages which are like embodiment of Dharma tree and who have transcended even Vedas, they are sitting around that Banayan tree. Ishana himself is the all knowledge, he is the Lord and also unmanifested, He manifests just by the sound Om, the one who is sitting in Lotus. Providing knowledge of Self he is always the liberator of self. Such is Rudra and his compassion who always wants good for creatures. The one who do Austerity for him is sure to have fulfilled his desires, He is that Dakshinamurty divine and is the cause of this whole world. The great devotees salute him by keeping head on earth. I salute him and adore him with my limited abilities. Rudra I surrender to your form which is facing south. I worship again and again through my devotion. Oh Lord Mahadeva in the form of Dakshinamurti, you provide knowledge of self, thus intelligent worship you. Thus for liberating creatures from this cycle of Samsara, oh Lord of Ambika, you take the form of Dakshninamurti being like a fruit for all. Lord Dakshinmurty is also described briefly in Lalita Sahasranama of Brahmanda Purana. There Shakti is called Dakshinmurty Rupini as Shakti is Shiva herself and Shiva just remains in unmanifested state without Shakti; (it is actually through Shakti Shiva assumes forns:) स्वतन्त्रा सर्वतन्त्रेशी दक्षिणामूर्ति रुपिणी । सनकादि समाराध्या शिवज्ञान प्रदायीनि ।।140।। You are independent. You are the presiding deity over all Tantras. You are the who takes form of Dakshinamurty who is adored by Sanaka and other sages and who provides knowledge of Supreme. The form resembling Dakshinamurty form is also described in Srimad Bhagvatam from here although the name Dakshinmurty is not used: S.B.4.6.31,32 (Banayana tree); S.B.4.6.33 (Lord Shiva sitting under that tree); S.B.4.6.34 (Surrounded by Sanata Kumaras and other Saints and Silent), S.B.4.6.35 (Lord Shiva in full perfection); S.B.4.6.36 (Virasana and hand in Tarka mudra) A mantra adressing Lord Dakshinamurty is also in the Narada Purana (III.91) and Dakshinamurty is also described there: Dakshinamurtaye should be uttered first, then homage unto you who reside at the root of the banayan tree, obeisance unto him who is deeply engrossed in meditation, then to Rudra and Sambhu. Tãra (Om) and Hrim should enclose the mantra. The mantra consists of thirty six syllables. It is the bestower of all desired gods. Suka is the sage and Anushtup is the metre. The deity is Sambhu Dakshinãmurti. There is a lofty banyan tree on the ridge of the Himãlayas frequented by Siddhas and Kinnaras. The tree has fruits shining like rubies. It has shadowed sunlight by its far extending branches. The full-blown trees are embraced by the clusters of creepers in full bloom. The place has been rendered cool by the winds blowing over the mountain streams Howing out of the rock crevasses. Groups of cdestial damels sing while the flocks of peacocks dance. Different quarters are resonant by the cooing of cuckoos. The region is frequented by the animals which have eschewed their mutual animosity. It is beautified by fragrant flowers of both aquatic and terrestrial origin. lt is conti- nuously and happily resorted to by the sages, Suka and others. It is frequently supervised by the gods, chief of whom is Indra and who are accompanied by their womenfolk and others. The banyan tree is beautilied by the thickly grown emerald-like leaves. It is embellished as though with hanging ornaments made of the nine precious gems. It is a wonderful tree the shade of which is capable of dispelling worldly distress. Shiva is seated at its root in an auspicious throne set beautifully, studded with jewels. His embellishments are immeasurable. His face resembles the autumnal moon. He resembles the mountain Kailasa, has three eyes and the crescent moon decorating his matted hair. He is seated in the heroic posture. He holds the posture of the hatchet, deer and has placed the delicate hand on the knee. He has kept a serpent firmly fixed under his arm pit. He should meditate on Siva in his pleasant mood.
https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/7896
hinduism
Clarification about Kunti's statement on harlot
This answer says that "Swairini (heanton)" means "Unbound" & Harlot means "prostitute". As per Adi Parva: Sambhava Parva of Mahabharata: The celebrated Pandu, tempted by the desire of having more children wished to speak again unto his wedded wife (for invoking some other god). But Kunti addressed him, saying, 'The wise do not sanction a fourth delivery even in a season of distress. The woman having intercourse with four different men is called a Swairini (heanton), while she having intercourse with five becometh a harlot. Therefore, O learned one, as thou art well-acquainted with the scripture on this subject, why dost thou, beguiled by desire of offspring, tell me so in seeming forgetfulness of the ordinance?'" Note: In this Hindi translation, it seems that Kunti is referring about having sons from different men as words "is vidhi ke dvara" are used. Also, there seems no limit of having only three or four sons as per scriptures. Many women had more than three/four sons. For example, Rukmini had more than 3/4 sons: Pradyumna, Charudeshna, Sudesna, Charudeha, Sucharu, Charugupta, Bhadracharu, Charuchandra, Vicharu and Charu. But the count was already five : Surya Pandu Dharma Vayu Indra I think no reference is needed for last three because Kunti must have referred them. Also, Pandu was cursed later, so he must have been in the list of four men whom Kunti referred else he must have given the reason to Kunti about his request of producing more children from other gods. And here is the reference for Surya: The god Vivaswat (Sun) approaching her, said, 'Here I am, O black-eyed girl! Tell me what I am to do for thee.' "Hearing this, Kunti said, 'O slayer of foes, a certain Brahamana gave me this formula of invocation as a boon, and, O lord, I have summoned thee only to test its efficacy. For this offence I bow to thee. A woman, whatever be her offence, always deserveth pardon.' Surya (Sun) replied, 'I know that Durvasa hath granted this boon. But cast off thy fears, timid maiden, and grant me thy embraces. Amiable one, my approach cannot be futile; it must bear fruit. Thou hast summoned me, and if it be for nothing, it shall certainly be regarded as thy transgression.' "Vaisampayana continued, 'Vivaswat thus spoke unto her many things with a view to allay her fears, but, O Bharata, the amiable maiden, from modesty and fear of her relatives, consented not to grant his request. And, O bull of Bharata's race, Arka addressed her again and said, 'O princess, for my sake, it shall not be sinful for thee to grant my wish.' Thus speaking unto the daughter of Kuntibhoja, the illustrious Tapana--the illuminator of the universe--gratified his wish. And of this connection there was immediately born a son known all over the world as Karna accountred with natural armour and with face brightened by ear-rings. -Adi Parva: Sambhava Parva of Mahabharata Then why didn't Kunti say this statement before Arjuna's birth? One possible reason that seems logical is: And after the birth of this child (Karna), the illustrious Tapana (Surya) granted unto Pritha (birth name of Kunti) her maidenhood and ascended to heaven. -Adi Parva: Sambhava Parva of Mahabharata This seems logical because this was the very reason which proved Karna's statement on Draupadi false and made him villain as Draupadi was blessed to gain her virginity. Is there any other reason for which Kunti didn't include Surya? Or as mentioned in this comment of Keshav Srinivasan "I think it's posssible Pandu never had intercourse, and that she only had intercourse with Surya, Yama, Indra, and Vayu." Is it true that Pandu never had intercourse with Kunti? If so, was Pandu aware of that Karna was son of Kunti and Surya?
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It refers to giving birth and not about having intercourse. Secondly, she is referring to the Niyoga padati. So, that way its only 3. We can't consider Surya here, since he had granted a boon to her that her virginity (Kanyatva) will not change. You can find it in Vyasa Mahabaratha - Chapter 111 - Verse 20 - MN Dutt Translation The greatly effulgent Tapana, then giving Pritha her maiden-hood, again went to heaven. In that case it would only be Yama, Vayu and Indra.
https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/23413
history
What was the primary motivation for a historical figure like Xenophon to create an extensive collection of written material?
Xenophon of Athens created a large amount of written material even by today's standards. Did he create this work knowing it would be read by future generations, or was it for his own satisfaction? I could imagine figures like Socrates, Aristotle, or Herodotus might expect their work to be copied many times, but maybe not? Is this similar to academia, where a document or book might be highly useful to a smaller audience? Even in this case, the physical effort to create and copy the work seems trivial compared to the same with Papyrus and copying by hand.
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Xenophon gave specific reasons for some of his works but for others he did not. Xenophon (about 431 BC to 354 BC) produced a very wide range of work during his lifetime: historical, biographical, philosophical, instructional. He never stated a primary purpose for all his works and we can deduce that some of what he wrote was aimed at specific audiences. For some of his works, he states a purpose (see below). For others we can sometimes deduce his intent with a certain degree of confidence, but with other texts we cannot be sure. The historical works Anabasis and Hellenika, are the most problematic for, as John Marincola states in The Cambridge Companion to Xenophon, Xenophon does not give us much help in interpreting these works. No major ancient historian is more reticent about the nature and purpose of his history... As Xenophon read the works of some of those who came before him, he would certainly would have expected (and intended) that what he wrote would be copied and read by others. From the way that Xenophon returns to certain themes (such as leadership) in different works, we can deduce that he was perhaps partly motivated by what interested him and what he saw as important. WORKS WHERE XENOPHON STATES A REASON Agesilaos In Agesilaos, (King Agesilaos II of Sparta, ruled c. 398 – c. 360 BC), Xenophon begins with: I know how difficult it is to write an appreciation of Agesilaus that shall be worthy of his virtue and glory. Nevertheless the attempt must be made. For it would not be seemly that so good a man, just because of his perfection, should receive no tributes of praise, however inadequate. This laudatory account of Agesilaos is in contrast to some parts of Hellenika (see below) where Agesilaos is at times criticized. Symposium In the Socratic dialogue Symposium, Xenophon, through a narrator, says: To my mind it is worth while to relate not only the serious acts of great and good men but also what they do in their lighter moods. I should like to narrate an experience of mine that gives me this conviction. Apology and Memorabilia The Socratic dialogues Apology and Memorabilia are both defences of Socrates but are aimed at different audiences. In Apology, his intent was to make explicit something about Socrates' defence which he felt other writers hadn't: It seems to me fitting to hand down to memory, furthermore, how Socrates, on being indicted, deliberated on his defence and on his end. It is true that others have written about this, and that all of them have reproduced the loftiness of his words,—a fact which proves that his utterance really was of the character intimated;—but they have not shown clearly that he had now come to the conclusion that for him death was more to be desired than life; and hence his lofty utterance appears rather ill-considered. Thus, Apology is aimed at an audience which is already 'sympathetic' to Socrates. In contrast, The audience Xenophon imagines for the Memorabilia , on the other hand, presumably includes readers still open to the attacks against Socrates; otherwise Xenophon would not spend so much time summarizing and refuting such arguments. Constitution of the Lacedaimonians Xenophon's pro-Spartan sympathies frequently show through in his writing (see Hellenika, for example), though he is not entirely uncritical. In this treatise on the Spartan constitution, Xenophon started with: It occurred to me one day that Sparta, though among the most thinly populated of states, was evidently the most powerful and most celebrated city in Greece; and I fell to wondering how this could have happened. But when I considered the institutions of the Spartans, I wondered no longer. Xenophon, like many Greek writers, was concerned with good government and leadership. In Constitution, he praises Spartan institutions and aims to show how Sparta became a great power, but he also criticizes Spartans for not following their laws in his own time. Thus, he seems to be pointing to Sparta's decline, even before the catastrophic defeat at the Battle of Leuctra in 371 BC WORKS WHERE XENOPHON DOES NOT CLEARLY STATE A REASON Cyropaedia (see also the section below on Anabasis) This multi-genre text is Xenophon's longest work and focuses on Cyrus the Great (although much of it is fiction) but it was intended neither as a history nor a biography but rather as a thesis on the training of a ruler. Cyropaedia is the most enigmatic with regards to the author’s intentions....Xenophon sets out to narrate certain noteworthy incidents and exceptional deeds (military and political) from the life of Cyrus the Great.... What he found most admirable and underlines already in the prologue of this work is the fact that Cyrus managed to rule a great empire with the willing obedience of his followers. The Cyropaedia is thus presented as having serious claims to contribute to the political discourse of Xenophon’s time. It is no wonder that in antiquity it was considered a response to Plato’s Republic... Why did Xenophon choose a Persian, Cyrus? Melina Tamiolaki, in The Cambridge Companion to Xenophon argues that: At least two reasons can be advanced to explain this choice: firstly, Xenophon was interested in paradigms of successful empires; obviously he could not find such paradigms in Greece, which experienced consecutive failures of empires. Secondly, he must have been impressed by specific features on which the propaganda about Cyrus insisted, mainly his qualities as a benevolent despot and his success in gaining the willing obedience of his followers. Greek leaders ostensibly lacked these qualities, for the simple reason that the regime of monarchy that by definition enables and fosters them, was absent in Greece. Xenophon wished to underline these qualities, but without implying a suggestion about constitutional change in Greece. Hellenika Hellenika is a continuation of Thucydides' work on the Peloponnesian War and then beyond. His style reveals that he had clearly read both Herodotus and Thucydides. He begins Hellenika with "And after those things, not many days later...". David Thomas, in his introduction to The Landmark Xenophon's Hellenika, observes: Xenophon begins this way, expecting the reader to recognize that he is picking up roughly where Thucydides left off....Xenophon...is in some sense claiming to be a historian who can be compared to Thucydides. Thucydides states why he wrote his work. It was because he thought "it would be a great war, and more worthy of relation than any other that had preceded it" Xenophon may have felt the same way, particularly as he simply continues from where Thucydides left off. What else might have given him reason to write Hellenika we don't know with any certainty but Thomas suggests that Xenophon wished to put his own 'slant' on events, which might account for the differences between Xenophon's Hellenika and the Hellenica Oxyrhynchia (unknown author). Anabasis This is similarly problematic in terms of motive. Perhaps he felt that the march of 10,000 Greeks through the heart of the mighty Persian empire was too good a story not to tell, but there is almost certainly more to it than that. In Anabasis, the theme of Leaders and Followers is evident, as it was in Cyropaedia, and Xenophon's desire to make known his thoughts on what he personally saw as something very important may well have been an important (but not only) reason for writing both Anabasis and Cyropaedia. OTHER WORKS Hipparchicus, On Horsemanship and Hunting with Dogs Hipparchicus, On Horsemanship and Hunting with Dogs can all be considered technical treatise. They are instructional, but that does not appear to be the only reason that Xenophon wrote them. Hipparchicus, for example, sees Xenophon once again dealing with leadership, while Hunting with Dogs is a definite outlier in Xenophon’s corpus of smaller works and a difficult text. It is made up of three distinct parts: an elaborate, mythological preface; an extensive attack upon the sophists at the end; in between, a fairly straightforward practical section concerning hunting. Source: John Dillery (Chapter 10), in The Cambridge Companion to Xenophon
https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/52680
history
Was Col. John K. Waters (Gen. Patton's son-in-law) wounded in the buttocks or the stomach during Patton's raid on Oflag XIII-B near Hammelburg?
Background: I have researched Patton's raid on Oflag XIII-B near Hammelburg March 26-28, 1945 using the following four sources: Wiki Article on Task Force Baum War History Online's article: The Real Fury: Patton's Disastrous 1945 Raid to Rescue His Son-in-Law Warfare History Network's article: Top Secret Missions: Liberating General George S. Patton's Son-in-Law Don Moore's War Tales: Harry Long was a POW with Patton's son-in-law Summary: In late March 1945, claiming he was worried about the Germans executing American POWs (ostensibly in the wake of the Malmedy massacre), General George S. Patton ordered a raid on Hammelburg's Oflag XIII-B POW camp to liberate the American officers imprisoned there. However, his real intent (based in part on letters to his family) was likely to rescue his son-in-law, Col. John K. Waters, who was a POW there. The assignment was given to Lt. Col. Creighton Abrams (whom the American M1 Abrams tank is now named after) of Combat Command B in the 4th Armored Division. Abrams wanted to proceed with a batallion or regimental sized force but Patton granted only a much smaller force for the rescue mission. Abrams could not go himself due to illness, so Capt. Abraham Baum was given the assignment and about a company of medium and light tanks and 300 infantry to penetrate deep behind enemy lines, liberate the camp, and return the POWs to safety. Task Force Baum encountered heavy fighting on the way and suffered many casualties and lost several tanks and vehicles, but made it to the POW camp. During the confusion of the battle at the camp, Col. John K. Waters (Patton's son-in-law) was seriously wounded when shot by a German guard, and could not be evacuated with the rest of the POWs when the camp was finally liberated. The nature of the wound gives rise to my question below. (The initial liberation of the camp is not the end of the story, there was worse to come for Task Force Baum and the POWs, but to get to my question…) Question: Was Col. Waters wounded in the buttocks, or in the stomach? The first two sources above indicate the buttocks. The second two sources indicate the stomach. I cannot find a source that indicates multiple wounds (or a single hit with separate entry and exit wounds) so I don't think it is a case of both being true (though I grant that it is a possibility). Is there a superior information source which could clear up this discrepancy? I know it's only a minor detail in the larger picture of this incident, but I would like to know which account (if any) is accurate regarding the nature of Col. Waters' wound(s) in the raid. Spoiler (for the curious): Most of the POWs and Baum's task force were recaptured within a day following the raid, and taken back to Oflag XIII-B. Patton, who had not received permission from his superiors in Army Group 12 for the raid, was in trouble and faced Eisenhower's wrath. Patton deftly softened the blow of the tactically botched raid by pointing to the strategic success it offered through diverting large German forces away from the main body of Third Army, thus allowing an easier progression toward their more strategically important objectives. Ike was evidently mollified enough to not officially reprimand Patton for the incident. Gen. George S. Patton visits his son-in-law Col. John K. Waters April 7, 1945 in Frankfurt hospital. Source: Wiki Commons
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In The Patton Papers: 1940-1945, Martin Blumenson cites the journal of Hobart R. Gay's journal entry for April 7th. Colonel (later General) Gay was Patton's Chief of Staff. The description is quite detailed and perhaps explains the conflicting accounts: Col. Odom returned with two cub planes, bringing Waters, shot through leg, bullett coming up through his buttocks and injuring his spine. Condition good, will live and probably not be paralyzed. Also in April, Patton wrote to his daughter Beatrice (Waters' wife) with a more technical and specific description, saying the bullet struck Colonel Waters in the left groin but below the peritoneal cavity. The bullet went through the rectum, knocked the end off his coccyx, and came out his left hip... The coccyx "is the final segment of the vertebral column".
https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/47847
history
What are the height units of contours on this WW2 topographic map?
What are the units seen on the contours and spot heights of this WW2 topographic map? I'm not sure if the map is of Russian or German origin: I've seen the same style and map symbols on Russian army maps and German army maps (they are often the same apart from transliteration between latin and cyrillic alphabets). Although this particular map was certainly used by the German army - there are annotations in German on it of military relevance. The major contours (every 5th contour line) are labelled as 137, 154, 171. The spot heights show as e.g. 166,6 (comma being used as the decimal seperator in German, for instance) make me suspect that that it is 166.6 meters, but obviously the contour heights would be rather peverse in that case - each line is 3.4 meters. So presumably the original contours are based on some other unit system. Are the numbers here in meters? And what units have been used when the map was originally created?
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Those measurements are in meters. The area around Łaguszów is about 160 meters above sea level. I do not see the divisions of 3.4 meters to which you are referring on the map. However, in old Germany there was local land measure called the rod ("ruthe") which was highly irregular and varied from place to place and could be anywhere from 3 to 5 meters in length. The Prussian standard Ruthe was 3.466m, but as I said, in actuality for a given place the Ruthe could vary considerably.
https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/28544
history
Who is this Asian figure?
I’m looking for help in identifying this figure. I bought this box at a thrift store a few years back because it was silver and because it looked nice. Every once in a while, curiosity hits me as I look at it and wonder who the figure on the top is. There is no text or trademark on the box, only a very small line of text at the bottom that says “Silver .925” The figure looks Asian, and it’s art style is that of Chinese porcelain I’ve seen in stores. The porcelain looks like it has been taken from a larger picture, since there is a small bit of paint at the left side that is abruptly cut off. I’m very curious as to who this figure is, as he seems very iconic, but my historical knowledge is not so good. He’s got what seems to be a sword on his back, a flag (possibly) in his left hand, and a long cloak-like outfit. Somewhat iconic hat, expression, and outfit. Any ideas would be much appreciated! Thanks in advance. =D
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It's a figure of Lu Dongbin (also spelled Lu Tung-Pin), one of the Eight Immortals of Taoism. Quoted from Learn Religions: Lu Dongbin’s emblem is the magic two-edged sword, which dispels evil spirits, and gives him the power of invisibility. He’s also frequently shown carrying a fly-whisk and is dressed and honored as a scholar. He’s known for being a “ladies’ man” and for being prone to bouts of drunkenness.
https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/62918
history
Why are pre-Harappan strata grouped together with Early Harappan strata? Does this not obfuscate the development of the civilization?
(1) I don't understand why some sites are called early Harappan because these sites are pre-Harappan so why we use wrong name with that. Can any one explain? From 'India's Ancient Past' by RS Sharma, Ch. 9: Chalcolithic Cultures, p67: Chronologically, there are several series of Chalcolithic settlements in India. Some are pre-Harappan, others are contemporaneous with the Harappan culture, and yet others are post-Harappan. Pre-Harappan strata on some sites in the Harappan zone are also called early Harappan in order to distinguish them from the mature urban Indus civilization. Thus, the pre-Harappan phase at Kalibangan in Rajasthan and Banawali in Haryana is distinctly Chalcolithic. So too is the case with Kot Diji in Sindh in Pakistan. Pre-Harappan and post-Harappan Chalcolithic cultures and those coexisting with the Harappan have been found in northern, western, and central India.An example is the Kayatha culture c. 2000–1800 BC, which existed towards the end of the Harappan culture. It has some pre-Harappan elements in pottery, but also evidences Harappan influence. Several post-Harappan Chalcolithic cultures in these areas are influenced by the post-urban phase of the Harappan culture. (2) Harappan civilization has the following phases: (1) pre-Harappan (2) Early Harappan (3) Mature Harappan (4) Late Harappan (5) post-Harappan So, when excavation begin, in the first soil layers we get post-Harappan culuture, and then Late, then pre, and so on. But, if we combine pre-Harappan layers into Early Harappan (as above), we lose the distinction between the developing and the developed state of the civilization. Does this not lose information that would tell us about how the valley developed? (3) and here, Harappan zone means area around the Harappan city, am I right?? (4) I have also provided diagram what I understand until now. Is this correct?
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The confusion here seems to stem from the use of a combined pre-Harappan/early Harappan terminology. We can see this usage repeated in the Wikipedia article for the Indus valley Civilization, in the table on Chronology. If we look at the meaning and locations of these terms it might be more clear. The pre-Harappan era is the oldest, and seems to mainly occur at the Mehrgarh site. One of the distinctions of this culture would be that it is aceramic Neolithic, before pottery was in use here. The next step, also found at the Mehrgarh site, but at different levels, is Early Harappan. One distinction here is that pottery is now in use. The distinction between these two eras being the lack of pottery would imply a certain uncertainty when excavating a site such as Mehrgarh. The layers you draw are not quite that clear-cut, and if you find no pottery when digging, is it pre-Harappan (pre-pottery) or just an area where you were unlucky and didn't find any pottery samples. A safer label therefore would be the combined term of pre-Harappan/Early Harappan. Some regions with pottery represented, some without, but age indications placing the site definitely before the more developed culture labeled as the Mature Harappan. Sometimes it is more accurate when describing something to use a 'fuzzy' definition then a more specific one which can't be supported by the evidence. (In genealogy, for instance, we often describe something undocumented as Before this date, or After another date-expressing uncertainty but giving information concerning what we may be sure of.)
https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/62159
history
How long has British women royals' solemn ceremonial dress included a sword?
In this photograph: from the recent funeral service of Queen Elizabeth II in London, England, in the row of attendees nearest to the queen's coffin, three attendees are wearing blue sashes. According to BBC News the three people wearing blue sashes are the King, the Princess Royal, and the Earl of Wessex. I notice that these people with blue sashes, including the Princess Royal, also have swords as part of their ceremonial dress. Is the blue sash related to the bearing of a sword, or an unrelated insignia? And, for how long has it been customary (or at least accepted) for women members of the British royal family to wear swords to solemn ceremonies such as state funerals?
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What appears to be missing from both question and answers is the fact that the Princess Royal is breaking ground for (royal) women. If anyone has seen older videos of the Remembrance Day services at the Cenotaph, only male members of the Royal Family laid wreaths, in dress uniform, complete with sword, with the sole exception of Queen Elizabeth II, who laid the first wreath on behalf of the nation — but always in civilian dress. The other Royal ladies watched from the windows of the Foreign Office. (AFAIK, the only times the late Queen wore uniform was when she took the salute at the Trooping of the Colour, on horseback. When she took to using a carriage, she wore civilian dress.) During her life Princess Anne has held various honorary military ranks, and the integration of women into the military, including the bearing of arms, presumably aided the Princess's challenging of gender stereotypes. (If you watch recent Cenotaph ceremonies, HRH is always handed her wreath by a female aide-de-camp, which would scarcely have been possible at one time.) Princess Anne has broken gender barriers in other ways: when Queen Elizabeth made her a Companion of the Order of the Garter, Anne said she would not be a Lady Companion, but a Knight Companion — KG instead of LG. In some ways the Princess Royal's more visible presence in traditionally male military roles reflects the changes in society. Female soldiers, sailors etc on parade carry the same arms as the men: the Princess is simply a high profile example of this. The blue sash is an insignia of The Most Noble Order of the Garter, (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Order_of_the_Garter) the premier British chivalric order. It has no bearing on formal dress uniform or the wearing of a sword
https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/69898
history
Did Belgian detectives wear special shoes in 1939?
In the comic book Land of Black Gold originally drawn in 1939 but finished or redrawn some time in 1948 by the Belgian author Hergé (Georges Remi), one of the bad guys can apparently detect from the soles that a person is a police officer of sorts. Here is an excerpt from the comic in question, with the relevant setting: The location is an oil tanker on its way to a fictional middle eastern kingdom. The man in the first panel is the "bad guy", and the man searching the drawer is Thomson, a Belgian detective, a fact unknown to the bad guy. Since this is featured in a comic book, my guess is that it would be common knowledge for a teenager in 1939, but definitely not to me. My question is then, what is it actually he reacts to here? Did the police back then always wear a certain type of shoes, or is it that every sailor had to wear special shoes, and the shoes he sees are instead "normal" shoes?
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Not sure if specifically a police issue - but the image seems to indicate Thompson as wearing hobnail shoes (the dots patterning his soles). They were common in military shoes, but also for other purposes. However, they are not appropriate on ships with steel decks (especially in wet conditions), as the wearer would skid on the surface as they walked, so that might be a giveaway that Thompson is not a sailor.
https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/35335
homebrew
Besides sparge water, what other water do all-grain brewers add in (and why)?
I have done a few extract kit beers and now a few partial mashes. I am starting the process of ramping up to all-grain. In many online "brewing calculators", such as this mash water chemistry tool by Beersmith, they indicate that the total water volume is different than the mash water volume: I can understand that total water volume might be equal to mash volume plus sparge water volume, but is any other water (besides the sparge) added to the "total" at any point in the all grain brewing process? Why is it added, and when?
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Total water in your kettle is typically Mash liquor + sparge liquor - grain absorption, which you've essentially stated. I can't speak for this calculator, but for the purpose of simple all-grain brewing don't let it throw you off too much. These calculators are an assistant at best and will get close (and tbh have gotten much better over the years)- but will never really match up 100% There are certain brewing processes in which one might start with a more concentrated wort solution and top off with water (among other things) but these are typically for pretty special processes.
https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/25691
homebrew
What is this white stuff on the surface of my beer?
I've just gone to rack & bottle a witbier that has been in primary for about 5 weeks and noticed this white gunk floating on top of the beer. It doesn't look too healthy, what is it? Is it safe? I'm hoping it's just some undisolved dry wheat extract or dry krausen. EDIT: After bottling / kegging the brew tasted & smelt fine - great in fact.
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It looks like normal Wit yeast byproducts to me. Wit yeast is a weird one anyway, imho. Does it smell like vinegar at all? A Wit should taste a little tangy, but you just need to verify that it's not infected. I'd recommend bottling now, but start checking the bottles for over-carbonation starting in about a week, and if you start getting gushers, then you might need to chuck the whole batch.
https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/4470
homebrew
Mold growing on blow-off tube water -- batch ruined?
I'm brewing my first batch with a brooklyn brew show all-gain kit. I skipped the airlock and left the blow-off tube in place in a pot of bleachy water. It's been there for the past two weeks. Today, I go look at it to start bottling and I see mold growing on the water that the blow-off tube was plugged into! I guess the bleach evaporated.. Is the batch ruined? And to avoid this in the future, I suppose I should just re-up the bleach every so often?
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It's not at all ruined. The airlock is working exactly as intended. Unless there is a growth of mold all the way up the blow-off tube and into the fermentor, you're fine. It's not so much that the bleach evaporated as it was denatured by the copious blow-off material. You don't need to "re-up" on bleach (you really don't even need bleach) so much as discard that nasty-ass blow-off water after the ferment is far enough along that the blow-off tube is not really needed.
https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/16343
homebrew
Saison fermentation. White residue and thin film. Infected?
I'm ferementing a saison with Wyeast 3724, and after the initial ferment, it died down, I then bought it into a warmer room and chucked some blankets over it (I'm also using an aquarium heater, but that alone wasn't working). I checked on it last night, and it seems to have fleks of white on top, as well as a thin film. The smell is also rather funky (I guess this is usual for a Saison). Here's what it looks like: Is this usual for a saison, or have I got an infection on my hands?
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Sorry to say that looks like the beginning of a pellicle, meaning your beer is infected. But if you drink it quickly, you may avoid the worst of it. Best case, it might even taste good! And NEVER put that heater in your beer! Put the beer in a tub of water and put the heater in the water.
https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/12059
homebrew
Can I distill contaminated wine?
15 days ago I started a batch of wine from a Wine Kit. I went to measure the SG to begin the next step when I found the wine had a film layer at the top. Anyway I phoned the place that sold it to me and am getting a new wine kit tomorrow. Before I pour this contaminated wine down the toilet, I am wondering if I could finish the process and distill it? Can I do anything to salvage this ~21L of bad juice? Here's a picture of the contamination, it looked more like a white film before I poked it with a thermometer then it cracked:
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Yes you can! You are just distilling the alcohol, not all the bad stuff. If you catch it before it turns to vinegar you should be fine.
https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/24549
homebrew
How do I translate my water supply's "Total Hardness" to Mg and Ca or "Effective Hardness"?
My water supply comes through San Diego's Miramar treatment plant, and here's the data sheet. Here's the relevant part: Units Avg Range Total Hardness ppm 214 142 - 243 Total Hardness gr/Gal 12.2 8.3 - 14.2 And an excerpt from the footnotes: Hardness is the sum of polyvalent cations present in the water, which is essentially the sum of magnesium and calcium. These cations are usually naturally occurring. Okay, now, I'm trying to use this scale under "Determining the Beer Styles That Best Suit Your Water" in Ch. 15.3 of John Palmer's How to Brew: What is my Effective Hardness? Is it the same as Total Hardness? (In which case, 214ppm seems very high on this scale—Is it possible my water is that hard?) Or, since the footnotes say Total Hardness is a sum, is my best bet to split 214ppm by some rough, sane-looking proportions like 75ppm Mg and 150ppm Ca, thus crossing over on the scale at about 145ppm Effective Hardness? By the way, my CaCO3 level is 98.2ppm. Not sure this is relevant to hardness though—I imagine it's the non-alkaline Calcium that hardness is measuring. I do know a store near me where I can get reverse osmosis water for 35 cents a gallon which is basically nothing. I'm more just curious about tap water chemistry, especially for amateur brewing. Thanks!
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In short, you can't. If you dig into Palmer's spreadsheet version, you see that effective hardness is equal to: [ppm Ca / 1.4] + [ppm Mg / 1.7]* * See cell K15 on the Mash sheet Not getting too far into detail, this is a simplification of the Kolbach formula that Palmer refers to on the page you linked: Residual Alkalinity = mEq/L Alkalinity - [(mEq/L Ca)/3.5 + (mEq/L Mg)/7], used to determine how much the alkalinity is offset by the hardness (more specifically how much is left over, if any). mEq/L means milliequivalents per liter, which is just a way of expressing concentrations of different ions by first converting them to a common unit, similar to using common denominators with fractions. Here's the catch: The total hardness of 214 ppm does not directly represent Ca or Mg concentrations, but rather the combination of their equivalent amounts of CaCO3, just as in the equation above. Put another way, it does not mean that the amount of Ca plus the amount of Mg in your water equals 214 ppm (e.g., 150 ppm Ca + 64 ppm Mg), but rather that whatever amount of Ca and Mg there is in your water, together, has an equivalent weight of 214 ppm expressed as CaCO3, telling you nothing about the concentration of either. A bit confusing? For sure. The reason you can't apply the total hardness as your effective hardness is because Ca and Mg offset the alkalinity to different degrees, as you can see in the equations above. There's just no way to make this formula work without knowing the specific proportions of Ca and Mg. Indeed, this is a very common shortcoming of many municipal water reports, which are definitely not tailored to the brewer's needs. - edit - If anyone's interested, here's how the equation in Palmer's spreadsheet is derived: First, the calcium and magnesium are converted to mEq/L by dividing ppm of each by their respective equivalent weights: 1 ppm Calcium / 20 1 ppm Magnesium / 12.2 These numbers are then multiplied by 50, the equivalent weight of CaCO3 so they can be directly compared to alkalinity: Calcium -> [50 / 20] Magnesium -> [50 / 12.2] To finish it off, Kolbach's formula is applied to both: Calcium -> [50 / 20] / 3.5 = 0.714 Magnesium -> [50 / 12.2] / 7 = 0.5855 Check that against Palmer's equations: Calcium -> 1 ppm / 1.4 = 0.714, checks out Magnesium -> 1 ppm / 1.7 = 0.588, close enough!
https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/15025