zilongwang/ReadingBank huggingface dataset:
When Andrew Jackson ran for president in 1828, over a million votes were cast for the first time in American history. This poster, from the 1832 election, was part of the emergence of truly mass political participation, p. 207. The Election of 1828. The Election of 1860. The Election of 1896. The Election of 1932. Figure 9.2 Split-Ticket Voting for President/Congress, 1952–2008 Source: American National Election Studies, Table 9B.2, “Split-Ticket Voting for President/Congress, 1952–2008.” The National Party Structure Today National convention National committee Congressional campaign committee National chairperson Figure 9.3 Cleavages and Continuity in the Two-Party System a American Independent party. b United We Stand American or Reform Figure 9.4: Cost of Winning a Congressional Election, 2002–2010
Mudstones with laminations or varves: fine laminations indicating seasonal deposition in adjacent to ice sheets. Glacial dropstones (dropped from melting icebergs) in varved sedimentary rocks. Tillites or glacial diamictites (poorly sorted conglomerates of glacial debris). Scratched and faceted cobbles and boulders in tillite, due to abrasion as ice moved. WIDESPREAD GLACIATION Age of global glaciations = 2.6–2.1 b.y. ago (2600–2100 m.y.). Widespread glaciation at this time as indicated by glacial deposits in: Europe Southern Africa India BANDED IRON FORMATIONS AND PROKARYOTE FOSSILS Extensive banded iron formations (BIF's) on the western shores of Lake Superior, indicate that photosynthesis was occurring and oxygen was being produced. BANDED IRON FORMATIONS AND PROKARYOTE FOSSILS  Some BIF deposits are >1000 m thick, and extend over 100 km. The Gunflint Chert, within the BIF sequence, contains fossil remains of prokaryotic organisms, including cyanobacteria. Age = 1.9 b.y. LABRADOR TROUGH East of the Superior province are rocks deposited on a continental shelf, slope, and rise. Rocks are similar to those of the Wopmay orogenic belt. These rocks were folded, metamorphosed, and thrust-faulted during the Hudsonian orogeny, which separates the Paleoproterozoic from the Mesoproterozoic. HIGHLIGHTS OF THE MESOPROTEROZOIC The Mesoproterozoic (or middle Proterozoic) ranges from about 1.6 b.y.–1.0 b.y. The Midcontinent rift, an abandoned oceanic rift in the Lake Superior region with massive basaltic lava flows Copper mineralization in the Lake Superior region Continental collisions producing the Grenville orogeny in eastern North America The assembly of continents to form the supercontinent, Rodinia. MIDCONTINENT RIFT AND THE KEWEENAWAN SEQUENCE Midcontinent rift extends southward from Lake Superior region. Overlies Archean crystalline basement rocks and Paleoproterozoic Animikian MIDCONTINENT RIFT AND THE KEWEENAWAN SEQUENCE Large volumes of basaltic rock indicate presence of an abandoned rift zone called the Midcontinent rift. This was the stage of a Wilson Cycle.
CHAPTER 9: EMOTIONS, ATTITUDES, AND WORK Learning Objectives Module 9.1 Understand how emotions experienced at work affect work and non-work behavior. Understand the early history of job satisfaction research. Describe the antecedents and the consequences of job satisfaction. Describe the major approaches to measuring job satisfaction. Module 9.2 Understand the forms of work satisfaction described by Bruggemann and Bussing. Explain the distinction between moods and emotions. Describe how dispositions and core evaluations can be helpful in understanding job satisfaction. Describe the concept of commitment and its different forms. Module 9.3 Understand the psychological implications of job loss. Describe the arguments of the proponents and opponents of telecommuting. Identify the influences on and outcomes of work-life balance. Describe how cultural variables can affect the of work attitudes and emotions. Chapter Outline Module 9.1 Job Satisfaction The Experience of Emotion at Work Job Satisfaction: Some History The Early Period of Job Satisfaction Research An Evolution Antecedents and Consequences of Job Satisfaction The Measurement of Job Satisfaction Overall versus Facet Satisfaction Satisfaction Questionnaires The Concept of Commitment Forms of Commitment Individual Difference Variables and Commitment A New Focus: Organizational Identification Module 9.2 Moods, Emotions, Attitudes, and Behavior Is Everybody Happy? Does It Matter If They Are? The Concept of “Resigned” Work Satisfaction Satisfaction versus Mood versus Emotion Dispositions and Affectivity The Time Course of Emotional Experience
and a time you were dissatisfied with your job (these can be two different jobs) and list the cognitions (thoughts) you had and the emotions you had below: Cognition Emotion 9.3 Consider two professional athletes who have been traded from one team to another. One athlete had been with the same team for seven years before being traded, while the other athlete had been with a team for two years before the trade. Analyze the commitment levels of each athlete using the three elements suggested by Meyer and Allen. 9.4 The progression approach to withdrawal behaviors proposes that little withdrawals (tardiness) eventually escalate into larger withdrawals (absence). Assuming this proposition is true, how it affect your behavior as a manager? 9.5 If an organization announces a downsizing, the emotional impact be greatest on (a) a worker who joined the organization directly from school five years ago, (b) one who joined the organization directly from school a year ago, or (c) one who graduated from school three years ago, but was laid off by a previous employer and employed by the current organization for one year? Explain your answer. 9.6 American workers are more likely to confront a supervisor or manager if they are unhappy with some aspect of work. Asian workers are less likely to engage in such confrontation. Does this mean that the Asian workers will experience more job dissatisfaction or negative emotions than their American counterparts? Explain your answer.
led n The invention of tools, the mastery of fire and the development of language and farming are some of humankind’s most important achievements. These advances took place during the prehistoric period known as the Stone Age. Period Dates Characteristics of period Paleolithic Age (Old Stone Age) 2.5 million – 8000 BC • homo period • hunters and gatherers • used simple stone tools with sharp edges to cut and chop Mesolithic Age (Middle Stone Age) 10,000 – 6000 BC • developed needles, thread, harpoons, and spear throwers • began to control fire and develop language • specialize in hunting particular animals • gatherers used grindstones to prepare the food they gathered Neolithic Age (New Stone Age) 8000 – 3000 BC • only homo sapiens during this time • •
d) Relational 10) ____ are well known for combining products a) Universities b) Gas Stations c) Hotels d) Gyms 11) Which one of these is NOT an Era of marketing’s short history describe in the reading? a) Production-Oriented Era b) Value-Based Marketing Era c) Manufacturing-Oriented Era d) Sales-Oriented Era 12) __________ reflects relationship of benefits to costs, or what you get for what you give. a) Value b) Marketing c) Relational Orientation d) Marketing Mix 13) Marketing involves all of the following EXCEPT: a) Creating b) Communicating c) Managing d) Delivering 14) Marketing is satisfying customer ______.
12. How many significant figures should be displayed in the result of the operation, 8.5201 + 1.93? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 13. After evaluating the expression, how many significant figures should be displayed in the result? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 14. The SI base units of length and mass, respectively, are a. centimeter and gram. b. inch and kilogram. c. meter and kilogram. d. meter and gram. e. inch and 15. The SI prefixes giga and micro, indicate respectively: a. 109 and 106 b. 109 and 106 c. 106 and 103 d. 103 and 103 e. 109 and 103 16. A number resulting from a measurement was properly expressed in scientific notation as 3.170 10-2 meters (m). The number could also be written correctly as a. 0.0317 m b. 0.03170 m c. 0.032 m d. 317 m e. 317.0 m
Chapter 1: Blueprint for Deeper Learning C3 College, Career, and Civic Life (Social Studies Option) Continued from previous page Construction of Knowledge: Task 3 Check Expected Level of R/R Supporting Question: (Dimension I) C D Task Opening: A B (Dimension II) Civics Economics Geography History (Dimension III) Gathering and Evaluating Sources Developing Claims and Using Evidence Strategies: Strategies: Task Closing: Primary and Secondary Sources (Print/Digital) Teacher Resources: Student Resources: Learner Considerations: (Special Ed, ELL, etc.) Inspection and Feedback Assessment/Task: (Dimension IV) Communicating and Critiquing Conclusions Success Criteria: Not Yet Meets Feedback: Adapted from Inquiry Design Model by Dr. Lissa Pijanowski Licensed to share and adapt under Creative Commons License Attribution – ShareAlike 4.0 Chapter 1: Blueprint for Deeper Learning
27. (p. 298) The more pervasive the work flows of a subunit, the greater is its power within the organization. TRUE 28. (p. 298) The higher the immediacy of the work of a subunit, the greater is its power within the organization. TRUE 29. (p. 298) Changes in the labor market may result in changes in a subunit's power. TRUE 30. (p. 300) Perceived power is never enough to give one control over others. FALSE Rationale: As Milgram's experiments proved, an individual may be able to significantly influence others simply because he/she is perceived to have power. 31. (p. 300) Political behavior outside an organization's normal power system. TRUE 32. (p. 300) Political can sidetrack or block the formal power within an organization. TRUE 33. (p. 302) Impression management can be used by organizations to regain stakeholder confidence after a controversial event. TRUE 34. (p. 302) Self-presentation strategies on agreeing with important others in order to positively influence them. FALSE Rationale: Focusing on agreeing with important others is an tactic. 35. (p. 303) A subordinate can use impression management to influence the performance rating they are given by a supervisor. TRUE
Sons of the American Revolution: Award. Awarded annually to an MSL I cadet in good standing militarily and scholastically who has a high degree of merit and excellence in ROTC and has contributed the most to the cause of patriotism and service to the nation and community. AUSA History Award: Awarded annually to a cadet recognized for excellence in the study of military history. AUSA Member: SAME Academic Awarded to an outstanding MSL IV majoring in engineering. Leader Development and Assessment Course (LDAC) Awards Certificate of Training: Each cadet who earns camp completion credit receives a certificate presented at Regiment. AUSA Leadership Excellence Award: Top cadet, as determined by Regimental Board, is presented a saber and coin at graduation. Reserve Officer Association Award: Top cadet, as determined by Regimental Board, is presented a medallion and certificate at graduation. Sinclair L. Melner Second top cadet, as determined by Regimental Board, is presented a plaque at graduation. Camp Commander's Leadership Award: Top cadet, as determined by Company Board, is presented a ribbon and certificate at Regiment. Platoon Leadership Award: Top cadet, as determined by TAC Team, is presented a ribbon and certificate at Regiment. Leader Stakes: Platoon with highest leader stakes scores in each Company of a Regiment receives a Cities of Tacoma and Olympia Trophy at graduation. Each Platoon member receives a certificate at Regiment. Military Proficiency Award: Criteria is minimum of90 points per event on APFT score; 80 percent on written, day, and night Land Navigation; and Go for BRM. Each cadet who meets criteria receives a ribbon at Regiment. RECONDO: Criteria is minimum of 90 points per event on APFT score; Go on Confidence Course; Go on Water Safety; 80 percent on written, day, and night Land Navigation; "S" for SQD STX; Go for MG Assault Course; Go, 80 points for HG: Go for ITT Assault Course; Go for BRM; no dimensional ''N''; and no non-medical waivers. Each cadet who meets criteria receives a badge and certificate from Regiment. One-Shot-One-Kill Award: Each cadet with a perfect BRM Score 40 of 40 receives a coin from Regiment. Maximum Fitness: Male and Female cadets with highest APFT "raw" score in each Regiment receive a coin from Regiment. DA Certificate of Achievement: Each cadet who scores 300 on APFT receives a certificate from Regiment. Army
11 24 Problem 6: The intensive care unit lab process has an average turnaround time of 26.2 minutes and a standard deviation of 1.35 minutes The nominal for this service is 25 minutes with an upper specification limit of 30 minutes and a lower specification limit of 20 minutes The administrator of the lab wants to have four-sigma performance for her lab. Is the lab process capable of this level of performance? Modifications made to the process resulted in the average turnaround of 26.1 minutes with a standard deviation of 1.20 minutes. Is the process capable now? Problem 6: Develop an OC curve for a sampling plan of n=40, c=1. If AQL is 2%, what is the producer’s risk? If LTPD is 9% what is the consumer’s risk? For an incoming lot defectives of 5%, what is the AOQ value? Let N = 1000. Develop a AOQ curve and determine the AOQL. Pd nPd Pa AOQ 1% 2% 3% 4% 5% 6% 7% 8%
If yes, is the match documented by employee time records which show the hours worked on the grant project? 6. Cash Requests: How does the recipient minimize the time between receipt of the requested cash and disbursement of those funds? (Prefer 3 days between time of receipt of the funds by the recipient and the recipient’s disbursement to pay project related expenses.) a. Uses local funds that are loaned or transferred to pay project bills. The local funds are reimbursed when the grant drawdown is received. b. Releases checks when the grant drawdown is received. 7. Conclusion: Is the financial management system adequate? Procurement Contract / RFP / RFQ / Call for Bids, et cetera (List by contractor if known) Type of contract work Contract Amount Method of Procurement Date received by OBDD for review Date executed or advertised Personal Services Contracts: procurement ($5,000 or less) Intermediate Procurement ($5,000 - $150,000) Formal Procurement ($150,000 or more) Sole Source Procurements Emergency Special Procurement Sub-grant: Sub grant to an eligible non-profit (Note: Sub-grants are not considered procurements) Environmental Review Activities Covered Date of Finding Correct Choice Yes No Environmental Exemption (Note: the recipient may have chosen to make a Finding of Exemption for certain activities allowed 24 CFR 58, while undertaking additional review for other activities. In these cases, more than one line must be completed. Enter N/A for Not Applicable.)
CHAPTER 11 DECISION MAKING AND RELEVANT INFORMATION LEARNING OBJECTIVES Use the five-step decision process to make decisions Differentiate relevant from irrelevant costs and revenues in decision situation Distinguish between quantitative and qualitative factors in decisions Beware of two potential problems in relevant-cost analysis Explain the opportunity-cost concept and why it is used in decision making Know how to choose which products to produce when there are capacity constraints Discuss what managers must consider when adding or discontinuing customers and segments Explain why the book value of equipment is irrelevant in equipment-replacement decisions Explain how conflicts can arise between the decision model used by a manager and the performance evaluation model used to evaluate the manager CHAPTER OVERVIEW Chapter 11 is about the decision-making process. Accountants are an integral part of this process, providing information to decision makers. A five-step approach to making decisions, beginning with the point in the process in which the accountants typically become involved, is described in the chapter. An extremely useful concept is presented. The information needed for the decision process must be relevant to the decision. Relevant is defined as revenues and costs that occur in the future and differ among the alternative courses of action available to the decision maker. This definition is illustrated through various situations. In this chapter the information needed for decisions of one-time-only special orders, make-or-buy, drop-or-add, and keep-or-replace are explained. Several of the chapters that follow will introduce other types of decisions that use the concept of relevant revenues and costs. A theme of the text is that information generated by the accounting system is used for the benefit of managers in making decisions. The roles performed by accountants are implicit in the illustrations of relevant information gathered for decisions—problem solving, scorekeeping, and attention directing. A review of those roles from Chapter 1 could be used to highlight their importance in the decision process. The last step of the decision process is evaluating performance. The last section of the chapter deals with conflicts between the decision model used by a manager and the performance model then used to evaluate that manager. This is an important discussion. Linear programming as a tool in the decision process is described in the appendix.
10. (p. 314) An effective leader needs only minimal technical knowledge relevant to the task being undertaken by followers. FALSE Rationale: A effective leader must demonstrate more than passing technical knowledge relevant to the task undertaken. 11. (p. 314) Supervisory ability becomes less pronounced as one up the organizational hierarchy. FALSE Rationale: According to Ghiselli, supervisory ability become more pronounced as one up the organizational hierarchy. 12. (p. 314) Effective leaders share certain abilities and skills that enable them to do their job. TRUE 13. (p. 314) CEOs rarely see the actual work they initiate. TRUE 14. (p. 315) Ghiselli found that self-assurance was related to hierarchical position in the organization. TRUE 15. (p. 315) Leaders have a relatively low need for power. FALSE Rationale: Leaders have a relatively high need for power. 16. (p. 315) Effective leaders have a relatively high need for affiliation. FALSE Rationale: Effective leaders have a relatively weak need for affiliation. 17. (p. 315) Trait test scores are predictive of leader effectiveness. FALSE Rationale: Trait test scores aren't consistently predictive of leader effectiveness. 18. (p. 315) Leadership traits act in combination, not to influence followers. TRUE 19. (p. 316) Patterns of effective leadership behavior depend largely on the situation. TRUE 20. (p. 316) The trait approach provides insight into what effective leaders do on the job. FALSE Rationale: The trait approach fails to provide insight into what effective leaders do on the job; observations are needed.
21. (p. 316) The trait approach to describing effective leader behavior is not completely invalid. TRUE 22. (p. 316) Global managers face lower levels of uncertainty than do their domestic counterparts. FALSE Rationale: Global managers face higher levels of uncertainty than their domestic counterparts. 23. (p. 317) The employee-centered leader uses close supervision so that subordinates perform their tasks using specified procedures. FALSE Rationale: This is a trait of a job-centered leader. 24. (p. 318) Leaders with a job-centered leadership style sometimes view concern for people as a luxury they can't always afford. TRUE 25. (p. 318) The employee-centered leader believes in delegating decision making and in creating a supportive work environment. TRUE 26. (p. 318) An experienced leader can be both job- and employee-centered. Rationale: Studies suggest that a leader must be either job-centered or employee-centered; an individual cannot be both. 27. (p. 319) A high consideration score has been linked to lower proficiency ratings and fewer absences. TRUE 28. (p. 319) Male and female leaders exhibit amounts of initiating structure and consideration and have equally satisfied followers. TRUE 29. (p. 320) The linkage between leadership and such performance indicators as efficiency and production has been conclusively resolved by personal-behavioral theories. FALSE Rationale: The linkage between leadership and performance indicators hasn't been conclusively resolved by either of the theories.
1c. How did Hannibal and his troops get to Italy? 1d. What did Scipio do in response to Hannibal’s campaign in Italy? 1e. What was the result of the Battle of Zama between Scipio and Hannibal’s troops? The Second Punic War ended after the Battle of Zama with a Roman victory. Unlike the treaty that ended the First Punic War, the terms Carthage had to agree with bankrupted the city and ensured that they would never be powerful again. Appian, The Destruction of Carthage The Roman Empire fought three wars against the Carthaginian Empire in North Africa, called the Punic Wars. The last war ended with the destruction of Carthage in 146 BCE. Appian, who lived in the second century CE., wrote a vivid description of the destruction of the African city led by Scipio. An excerpt from that description is below. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 After penetrating into the city [Carthage], Scipio [the Roman commander] turned his attention to the citadel, its strongest point, where many people had taken refuge. Three streets leading from the marketplace to the citadel were lined on both sides with six story houses, from which the Romans were pelted. They seized the first houses and used them as a base for attacking the next. From their roofs they made bridges of planks and beams to cross over to the next. While one battle was in progress on the roofs another was fought, against all comers, in the narrow street below. 2a. If you were a Roman citizen reading this description how might you feel? Why? 2b. If you were an emperor thinking about going to war against Rome, how might you feel about this description? Why?
A contingent liability that will probably become an actual liability must be estimated and recorded as an expense. Contingent liabilities sometimes pose an ethical challenge because they are not real liabilities and are easy to overlook. Good internal control for payroll requires that the human resources department distribute paychecks to the employees. A contingent liability that has a remote possibility of becoming an actual loss is included in a note to the financial statements. The revenue principal requires that revenue be recorded in the same period that warranty expense is recorded. Amounts owed for products or services purchased on account are contingent liabilities. Warranties pose an accounting challenge because a company does not know which or how many products will have to be repaired. Accounts payable are amounts owed for products or services purchased on account. Adequate separation of duties prohibit the payroll department from recording the transactions related to payroll. Most companies pay employees with cash. Good business requires paying employees accurately and on time. The entry to estimate warranty payable includes a credit to warranty expense. FREE SPACE The employee earnings record is NEITHER a journal NOR a ledger. Net pay is greater than take-home pay because optional deductions are deducted from net pay. Accrued liabilities are expenses that have not yet been paid. Gross pay is the total amount of salary, wages, commissions, and bonus earned by an employee during a pay period. The three payments made by employers for payroll include net pay to employees, payroll taxes and other payroll deductions, and employee benefits. Unearned revenue is an obligation to provide goods or services to the customer. Payroll tax expense includes the employer's portion of FICA taxes, state unemployment taxes, and federal unemployment taxes. If an installment note payable has installments due within a year, the entire note is treated as a current liability. An employer must file Form 941 with both the federal and state governments. The old age, survivors, and disability insurance portion of FICA taxes is imposed on all of an individual employee's earnings. State and federal unemployment taxes are withheld from each employee's paycheck. The failure to accrue warranty expenses will result in the understatement of net income.
D) buy the tractor. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Demand for New Capital and the Investment Decision Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytic Skills Learning Outcome: Micro-18 16) Refer to Table 11.2. If the interest rate is 13%, then the farmer will engage in investment of A) $500,000. B) $600,000. C) $700,000. D) $1,100,000. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Demand for New Capital and the Investment Decision Skill: Analytical Analytic Skills Learning Outcome: Micro-18 17) Refer to Table 11.2. When the interest rate ________, the farmer will engage in no investment. A) is greater than 15% B) is less than 5% C) is less than 15% D) is greater than 5% Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Demand for New Capital and the Investment Decision Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytic Skills Learning Outcome: Micro-18 7) Assume the current interest rate is 25%. The present value of $1,000 in one year would be A) $180. B) $450. C) $750. D) $800. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Appendix: Calculating Present Value
3. What volume in mL of 0.600 M aluminum sulfate solution can be prepared 35.00 grams of aluminum sulfate ? Hint: Remember you need to balance aluminum and sulfate to create the correct chemical formula 4. What is the resulting concentration of BaBr2(aq) when 400. mL of water are added to 375. mL of 0.350 M BaBr2 (aq) ? 5. How much water needs to be added to 15.0 mL of a concentrated solution of HCl(aq) to lower it's concentration to 1.00 M? Note that you can look up the concentration of concentrated HCl(aq) on your data table.
If the unemployment rate is 5 percent and 9 million workers are unemployed, then the civilian labor force equals 140 million people 160 million 180 million 200 million people If Mary Miller’s nominal income increases by 4 percent while the consumer price index increases by 6 percent, her real income increases by 10 percent increases by 2 percent decreases by 10 percent decreases by 2 percent Suppose that the consumer price index equaled 177.1 in 2001 and 179.9 in 2002. The rate of inflation between these two years thus equaled 1.6 percent 2.8 percent 3.3 percent 4.1 percent True-False Questions 1. T F When the economy is fully employed, frictional unemployment equals zero. 2. T F The natural rate of unemployment results when cyclical unemployment is equal to zero. 3. T F Demand-pull inflation may be caused by too much money chasing too few goods. 4. T F Higher resource prices may lead to cost-push inflation. 5. T F An overheated economy tends to realize low rates of unemployment. 6. T F The business cycle is a pattern that has distinct phases. 7. T F When demand decreases, it tends to have a limited effect on employment. 8. T F An improvement in technology has a more immediate effect on domestic output and employment than total spending. 9. T F When the economy declines for one quarter, we say that the economy is in a recession. 10. T F The U.S. economy has had several recessions since the Great Depression. 11. T F When the economy reaches the bottom of the business cycle, it begins to suffer a recession. 12. T F Cyclical unemployment may be zero, but frictional unemployment is generally positive.
7. XML-tagged data cannot be sent across the Internet in a universal, platform-independent language. 8. Any suspicious or fraudulent activities can be monitored by analytics software. 9. FRAANK enables organizations to integrate accounting numbers with other financial information publicly available on the Internet, including stock quotes and analyst earnings forecasts. 10. Data integration consists of the capability to provide for the seamless exchange and aggregation of financial data. True or False 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. True Multiple Choice Questions 1. What challenges are intruding upon the corporate governance structures of the twenty-first century? Internet. Globalization. Regulations. All of the 2. By using electronic communication, companies can do which of the following? Increase costs. Improve the timeliness and transparency of communications. Participate in virtual meetings. None of the above. 3. The business-to-business (B2B) strategy is best defined by of the following? Conducting businesses online with consumers. Online transactions exchanged between governmental entities and consumers. Online exchanges of products, services, and business transactions between businesses and suppliers. Online programs and activities between governmental agencies. 4. The quality of public financial information is increased by which of the following: Competence and integrity of providers of information. Soundness of accounting principles. Effectiveness of the related internal controls. All of the above. 5. Sections 302 and 404 of SOX require public companies to: Disclose controls, procedures, management assessment, and reporting on internal control over financial reporting. Report in a timely manner events that could affect their performance. Offer complete, secure, and timely access to documents.
The outer nucleated cytoplasmic layer of the Schwann cell, which encloses the myelin sheath, is called the neurolemma (sheath of Schwann) and is found only around axons in the PNS. The neurolemma aids in regeneration in an injured axon by forming a regeneration tube that guides and stimulates regrowth of the axon. The myelin sheath has gaps called neurofibril nodes or nodes of Ranvier along the axon. Oligodendrocytes form myelin sheaths for CNS axons. No neurolemma is formed. No regrowth after injury occurs. Clinical Connection: Demyelination events have adverse effects on signal transmission Collections of nervous tissue include several structures Clusters of cell bodies include: Ganglia in the PNS Nuclei in the CNS Nerves and tracts are groups of axons in the PNS and CNS, respectively. Gray and White Matter White matter is composed of aggregations of myelinated processes whereas gray matter contains nerve cell bodies, dendrites, and axon terminals or bundles of unmyelinated axons and neuroglia (Figure 12.9). In the spinal cord, gray matter forms an H-shaped inner core, surrounded by white matter; in the brain a thin outer shell of gray matter covers the cerebral hemispheres. ELECTRICAL SIGNALS IN NEURONS Excitable cells communicate with each other by action potentials or graded potentials. Action potentials allow communication over short and long distances whereas graded potentials allow communication over short distances only. Production of both types of potentials depend upon the existence of a resting membrane potential and the presence of certain types of ion channels. The membrane potential is an electrical voltage across the membrane. Graded and action potentials occur because of ion channels in the membrane that allow ion movement across the membrane that can change the membrane potential.
in a few years. With a large portion of their expenses in the development area, budgeting can assist in predicting the sales needs for the entire life of a product. It is probably more important to evaluate company performance on a product basis rather than year to year. Life-cycle budgeting would allow the company to compare products to each other rather than just comparing one year to the next. 164. What factors may influence the level of markups? Answer: Factors affecting the level of markups include the strength of demand, the elasticity of demand, and the intensity of competition. In addition, strategic reasons also may influence the level of markups. For instance, a firm may either choose a low markup to penetrate the market and win market share from established products of its competitors, or employ a high markup if it employs a skimming strategy for a market segment in which some customers are willing to pay higher prices for the privilege of owning the product. Objectives: 5, 7 165. A hotel in Orlando, Florida, experiences peak periods and slower times. How should prices be adjusted during peak periods? During slow times? Why? Answer: During peak periods the hotel can justify increased prices because of full capacity conditions, whereas in slower periods when there is excess capacity, the hotel may want to lower prices to fill the excess capacity. 166. Clark Manufacturing offers two product lines, IN2 and EL5. The demand of the IN2 product line is inelastic, while the demand of the EL5 product line is very elastic. If Clark initiates a price increase for both product lines, how will customer demand change? How will the price increase affect operating profits? Answer: For the inelastic product line, when prices are increased demand will stay approximately the same and profits would be expected to increase. For the elastic product line, the increased will result in decreased demand (i.e., lower sales volume). Whether a profit or a loss results from this change will depend on
Materials ensure that the minimum design life can be achieved without maintenance or replacement of elements. The materials and layout details for Riverwalk are shown in: Table 12.3.A for standard Typology 1 and Typology 2 Riverwalk sections as shown on the Bicycle network overlay map; Table 12.3.B and Table 12.3.A for sections of Riverwalk located in the Newstead/Teneriffe neighbourhood plan area. Table 12.3.A—Materials for use in public riverside facilities Elements Materials Typology 1 – City reaches north and south Typology 2 – Urban reaches Path width 10m 6m Unobstructed pavement width 6m Materials Honed coloured concrete with saw-cut pattern Hanson (code 10050284), or approved equivalent CCS Ebony 90% ‘Blue Heeler’ 10% ‘Winter Brown’ Broom finished: Standard Portland Grey concrete Tactile paving Concrete tactile by Chelmstone, Urbanstone or approved equivalent Colour: Ghost Gum Concrete tactile paver by Chelmstone, Urbanstone or approved equivalent Colour: Black Trees Mix of tree species laid out in an informal manner with clusters of trees. All trees minimum of 600mm from edges of pavement. Medium- and small-crown trees to be planted at 2m – 6m centres. Large-crown feature trees to be planted at minimum 10m centres. planted in Tree grates Turf pathway with concrete edge Furniture All furniture to be located outside of the unobstructed pavement area Balustrade To be used where required along river edge of pathway Public art Requirement and location to be determined on a site-by-site
YCWA-05 South Yuba Canal Fish Screen Yuba County Water Agency State grants, Department of Water Resources water bond funding programs Member units receiving service from South Yuba Canal Loan from YCWA to member units Federal grant programs (i.e., US Fish and Wildlife Service, NOAA Fisheries, Bureau of Reclamation) YCWA-06 Agricultural Water Conservation Evaluation Yuba County Water Agency State grants, Department of Water Resources water bond funding programs Federal grant program (NRCS) YCWA-07 Forecast Coordinated Operations Yuba County Water Agency In-kind services between DWR and YCWA Flood related grant programs such as Proposition 1E YCWA-08 Groundwater Monitoring Program Yuba County Agency Member unit contributions Revenues from groundwater substitution transfers grants, Department of Water Resources water bond funding programs YCWA-09 Long-term Water Supply Sustainability Study Yuba County Water Agency grants, Department of Water Resources water bond funding programs YCWA-10 Narrows II Powerhouse Intake Extension Yuba County Water Agency grants, Department of Water Resources water bond funding programs as well as Fish and Wildlife Fisheries Restoration Grant Program Federal grant programs (i.e., US Fish and Wildlife Service, NOAA Fisheries, Bureau of Reclamation) YCWA-11 New Bullards Bar Reservoir Manual Yuba County Water Agency grants, Department of Water Resources water bond funding programs YCWA general fund for cost share YCWA-12 New Colgate Powerhouse Tailwater Depression Yuba County Water Agency State grants, Department of Water Resources water bond funding programs YCWA general fund for cost YCWA-13 Regional Feather River Diversion Feasibility Study Yuba County Water Agency grants, Department of Water Resources water bond funding programs Federal programs (USFWS, NOAA Fisheries, USBR) YCWA general fund for cost YCWA-14 Regional Flood Management Agency Yuba County Water Agency State grants, flood related funding Participating local agency contributions YCWA-15 Subsidence Monitoring Yuba County Water Agency State grant programs YCWA cost share YCWA-16 Surface Water Measurement Program Yuba County Water Agency State grant programs
A) 90,000 B) 100,000 C) 115,000 D) 130,000 Answer: C Page: 399 25. Which of the following BEST illustrates an unintentional injury? A) A ski racer misses a turn and breaks a leg. B) A suicide attempt results in a nonfatal wound. C) A punch aimed at the jaw hits the eye instead. D) Two children receive bruises from a playground fight. Answer: A Page: 399 26. In hopes of preventing accidents and personal assaults at your dorm or home, it is recommended that you do all of the following EXCEPT A) install smoke and or heat detectors. B) give out personal information to phone solicitors. C) use initials for your first names on your mailboxes. D) install a peephole in your door. Answer: B Pages: 397, 402 27. Most boating fatalities might be avoided with the proper use of A) alcohol. B) helmets. C) life jackets. D) radio communications. Answer: C Page: 402 28. In what proportion of boating accidents is drunkenness a factor? A) more than half B) one out of three C) one out of four D) one out of five Answer: A Page: 402 29. The cause of the greatest number of unintentional injury deaths in the is A) falls. B) poisonings. C) motor vehicle accidents. D) drownings. Answer: C Page: 399 30. Those at greatest risk of becoming victims of a fatal traffic accident are A) small children.
Who and what did Luther’s beliefs call into question? What secular (non religious) purpose did kings and princes find in supporting the Reformation? Why did Protestantism appeal to the middle class? Why did Protestantism appeal to the common people? What was the impact of Protestantism on women? How did the Protestant reformation stimulate education? Why did the Protestant movement splinter “amoeba-like” as it reached new countries? (Hint: it has a lot to do with the vernacular). What did the Edict of Nantes do and why was it issued? What was the result of the Thirty Years War? How did the Council of Trent/Counter-Reformation try to protect and “fix” the Catholic Church? What secular attitudes did the Reformation foster?
C) because of barriers to entry into the industry. D) because of barriers to exit from the industry. Answer: B 11) In a monopolistically competitive industry, A) firms are large relative to the total market. B) firms are small relative to the total market. C) firms can be either large or small relative to the total market. D) there is only one firm. Answer: B 12) Monopolistically competitive firms use a(n) ________ strategy to achieve market power. A) product differentiation B) dominant C) maximin D) opportunistic behavior Answer: A 2) In order to achieve market power, monopolistically competitive firms use ________. A) their size B) product differentiation C) strategic behavior D) predatory pricing Answer: B 3) In well-functioning markets, all of the following reflect the degree of product variety EXCEPT: A) differences in consumers' tastes. B) cost economies from standardization. C) gains from network externalities. D) gains from coordination. Answer: C 4) Product differentiation that makes the product better for some consumers and worse for others is A) always welfare decreasing. B) vertical differentiation. C) horizontal differentiation. D) never undertaken by firms. Answer: C 6) Product differentiation can be used by firms to do all of the following EXCEPT:
21) Refer to Figure 15.1. If Dom's Barber Shop is maximizing profit, its total revenue equals A) $200. B) $320. C) $350. D) $360. Answer: B Diff: 2 22) Refer to Figure 15.1. If Dom's Barber Shop is maximizing profit, its total costs are A) $200. B) $240. C) $350. D) $360. Answer: B 23) Refer to Figure 15.1. From society's point of view, the efficient level of output is A) 20 haircuts. B) 23 haircuts. C) 25 haircuts. D) 30 haircuts. Answer: C 24) Refer to Figure 15.1. In this industry, in the long run, A) firms will continue to earn economic profits. B) firms will enter until all firms earn a normal profit. C) demand for the product will decrease so that profits are decreased. D) the government will impose price controls to eliminate any economic profits. Answer: B Refer to the information provided in Figure 15.2 below to answer the questions that follow. Figure 15.2 25) to Figure 15.2. The profit-maximizing number of perms for We Do Hair, a monopolistically competitive firm, is A) 60. B) 50. C) 46. D) 40.
Answer: A Page: 584 79. Which decision rule requires the consumer to rank the criteria in order of importance, and then the consumer selects the brand that performs best on the most important attribute? A) conjunctive B) disjunctive C) lexicographic D) elimination-by-aspects E) compensatory Answer: C Page: 584 80. Given the following importance weights Price = 50, Quality = 40, and Ease of use = 10, which of the following computers would be chosen using a compensatory decision rule? A) IBM B) A tie between Compaq and IBM. C) NEC D) Compaq E) A tie between NEC and IBM. Answer: D Page: 586-587 81. Which decision rule states that the brand that rates highest on the sum of the consumer's judgments of the relevant criteria will be chosen? A) conjunctive B) disjunctive C) lexicographic D) elimination-by-aspects E) compensatory Answer: E Page: 587 82. The multiattribute is which type of decision rule? A) compensatory B) noncompensatory C) disjunctive D) lexicographic E) elimination-by-aspects Answer: A Page: 587
2. Banks cannot lend more than 15% of capital to one borrower. 3. Most banks cannot hold securities rated below “investment grade”. 4. Regulators impose minimum liquidity requirements. VIII. Consumer Protection Regulations. A. Loan Rate Ceilings. 1. No federal rate ceilings. 2. Loan rate ceilings or “usury limits” vary widely among states. 3. ceilings usually apply to mortgage or consumer credit. B. Truth-in-Lending Act of 1969 (Reg Z). Lending institution must accurately detail— 1. Effective annual percentage rate interest on unpaid balance and 2. Total cost of financing. C. Fair Credit Billing Act of 1974. Lending institution must detail— 1. Method of computing finance charges. 2. Customer’s rights and remendies. 3. Procedures for disputing bills. D. Equal Credit Act of 1974; 1976. No discrimination in lending based on 1. gender 2. marital status 3. race 4. age 5. national origin 6. receipt of public assistance E. Community Reinvestment Act of 1977. Depository institutions must make and publicly document efforts to serve all potential customers in their geographical area. 1. No “redlining”—no refusing to make loans in certain zones or neighborhoods. 2. Permission to merge or branch often depends on satisfactory CRA rating. 3. “CRA File” always available to public and regulators. F. Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1970/Fair &Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003 1. Consumers entitled to 1 free credit report per year. 2. Consumers must be told when adverse credit information is reported them. 3. Consumers must be told when of credit are less favorable. 4. Consumers have rights and remedies concerning error correction and security. IX. Regulatory Agencies A. State regulators charter and regulate state-chartered institutions. 1. However, most state-charted institutions are also regulated in some way by a. The FDIC (deposit insurance) and b. The Federal Reserve (reserve requirements, holding companies, letter- series Regs) 2. State regulators may also regulate in-state branches of out-of-state institutions. 3. Any bank also has at least one Federal agency examining it— a. the FDIC if it is not a member of the Federal Reserve;
76. REASONING The observer of the sound (the bird-watcher) is stationary, while the source (the bird) is moving toward the observer. Therefore, the Doppler-shifted observed frequency is given by Equation 16.11. This expression can be solved to give the ratio of the bird’s speed to the speed of sound, from which the desired percentage follows directly. SOLUTION According to Equation 16.11, the observed frequency fo is related to the frequency fs of the source, and the ratio of the speed of the source vs to the speed of sound v by Solving for vs/v gives This ratio corresponds to . 78. REASONING The dolphin is the source of the clicks, and emits them at a frequency fs. The marine biologist measures a lower, Doppler-shifted click frequency fo, because the dolphin is swimming directly away. The difference between the frequencies is the source frequency minus the observed frequency: fs − fo. We will use (Equation 16.12), where vs is the speed of the dolphin and v is the speed of sound in seawater, to determine the difference between the frequencies. SOLUTION Solving (Equation 16.12) for the unknown source frequency fs, we obtain Therefore, the difference between the source and observed frequencies is 80. REASONING Both the observer (you) and the source (the eagle) are moving toward each other. According to Equation 16.15, the frequency fo heard by the observer is related to the frequency fs of the sound emitted by the source by where vo and vs are, respectively, the speeds of the observer and source. SOLUTION Substituting in the given data, we find that the frequency heard by the observer is
How did the Red Scare affect the Rosenbergs? (331-3) What did Project Venona confirm? (331-3) How did the Red Scare spread in the US? (332-2) What was McCarthyism? (332-3) What was the McCarran Act? (332-1) Describe McCarthy’s rise and fall (332-3) How did the Cold War affect popular culture in the US? (334-3)
LINEAR SUPERPOSITION AND INTERFERENCE When two or more sound waves are present at the same place at the same time we experience linear superposition. The principle of linear superposition states that the resultant effect of two or more concurrent waves is equal to the sum of the disturbances created by each of the individual waves. In the diagram above, the two waves produce a resultant disturbance that is found by adding the two individual displacements from equilibrium. When two waves add together to produce a disturbance that is larger than that of either individual wave, we call this constructive interference.When two waves add together to produce a disturbance that is smaller than either individual wave, we call this destructive interference. Waves travelling in the same direction can also exhibit constructive interference. When crest corresponds to crest and trough to trough the two waves are said to be in phase and interfere constructively. If crests up with troughs, the waves are said to be 180° out of phase and destructive interference results. When two sources of produce the same frequency and vibrate in phase, constructive interference occurs if the observer's position
c. is oil on wood. d. is the same figure as the boy in the Boy with a Basket of Fruit. Answer: b 34. Caravaggio’s Calling of Saint Matthew quotes visually from a. the Gospel of Matthew. b. the Amor Vincit c. Gaulli’s ceiling. d. Michelangelo’s Sistine ceiling. Answer: d 35. Tenebrism refers to a. chiaroscuro. b. a preponderance of cast shadows. c. sharply contrasting light and dark. d. the tenets of shading. e. atmospheric perspective. Answer: c 36. Artemisia Gentileschi was influenced by a. Rubens. b. El Greco. c. Tintoretto. d. Caravaggio. Answer: d 37. Artemisia Gentileschi’s Judith Slaying Holofernes is based on a. the Bible. b. the Old Testament Apocrypha. c. the Metamorphoses. d. the New Testament Apocrypha. Answer: b 38. is the best match? a. Catholic – the Dutch Republic b. Catholic – Switzerland c. Protestant – the Dutch Republic d. Protestant – France Answer: c 39. Rubens’s paintings are characterized by a. strong angular compositions. b. brilliant colors and textures. c. the human body in motion. d. All these answers are correct. Answer: d 40. Rubens synthesized the ideas of