zilongwang/ReadingBank huggingface dataset:
31, December 31, 2009 $2,228,186 & 530,988 376,647 131,206 118,121 $2,890,380 ======= ======= a A A
$ 1,566 $ 1,541 365,986 299,483 980,908 634,509 Loss (4,085) (5,489) $1,344,375 $ 930,044 $2,039,271 ======= ======= a
112,971 98,081 $1,546,605 $ 1,566 $ 1,541 365,986 299,483 980,908 634,509 Loss (4,085) (5,489) a Paid
112,971 98,081 $1,546,605 $ 1,566 $ 1,541 365,986 299,483 980,908 634,509 Loss (4,085) (5,489) a
$ 1,566 $ 1,541 365,986 299,483 980,908 634,509 Loss (4,085) (5,489) $1,344,375 $ 930,044
112,971 98,081 $1,546,605 $ 1,566 $ 1,541 365,986 299,483 980,908 634,509 Loss (4,085) (5,489) a
[Question] 31. If a company pays cash to purchase land, the journal entry to record this transaction will include a debit to Cash. Answer: FALSE Blooms Taxonomy: Apply AACSB: Analytic AACSB: Communication AICPA BB: Critical Thinking AICPA BB: Industry AICPA FN: Measurement AICPA FN: Reporting Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-A1 Topic: Transaction Analysis Topic: Debit Topic: Credit Topic: Assets [Question] 32. If a company provides services to a customer on credit, the service provider company should credit Accounts Receivable. Answer: FALSE Blooms Taxonomy: Apply AACSB: Analytic AACSB: Communication AICPA BB: Critical Thinking AICPA BB: Industry AICPA FN: Measurement AICPA FN: Reporting Difficulty: 3 Hard Learning Objective: 02-A1 Topic: Transaction Analysis Topic: Debit Topic: Credit Topic: Assets
Answer: Type of Account Normal Balance Asset Liability Equity Credit A. X X B. X X C. X X D. X X E. X X F. X X G. X X H. X X I. X X J. X X Blooms Taxonomy: Apply AACSB: Analytic AACSB: Communication AICPA BB: Critical Thinking AICPA BB: Industry AICPA FN: Measurement AICPA FN: Reporting Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-C4 Topic: Debit Topic: Credit Topic: Account Balance [Question] 167. Barton began Barton Office Services in October and during the month completed the following transactions: a. Invested $10,000 cash and $15,000 of computer equipment in exchange for common stock. b. Paid $500 cash for an insurance premium covering the next 12 months. c. Completed a word processing assignment for a customer and collected $1,000 cash. d. Paid $200 cash for office supplies. e. Paid $2,000 for October's rent. Prepare journal entries to record the above transactions. Explanations are unnecessary. Answer: a. Cash 10,000 Computer Equipment 15,000 Common 25,000 b. Prepaid Insurance 500 Cash 500 c. Cash 1,000
Blooms Taxonomy: AACSB: Analytic AACSB: Communication AICPA BB: Critical Thinking AICPA BB: Industry AICPA FN: Measurement AICPA FN: Reporting Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-P1 Topic: Debit Topic: Credit Topic: T Account Topic: Ledger Topic: Transaction Analysis [Question] 169. A company paid $2,500 cash to satisfy a previously recorded account payable, the only liability on the books. Assume the company had a $4,000 balance in Cash immediately prior to this transaction. Set up the necessary T-accounts below and show how this transaction would be recorded directly in those accounts. Show ending account balances. Answer: Accounts Payable Cash 2,500 Beg bal Beg bal4,000 2,500 2,500 0 End bal End bal 1,500
two years on the job, an engineer's salary was $60,000. After seven years on the job, her salary was $76,000. Let y represent her salary after x years on the job. Assuming that the change in her salary over time can be approximated by a straight line, give an equation for this line in the form y = mx + b.
Assume that the sales of a certain appliance dealer can be approximated by a straight line. Suppose that sales were $ 13,000 in 1982 and $ 88,000 in 1987. Let x = 0 represent 1982. Find the equation giving yearly sales S.
Suppose the function y = 1.2t - 2.3 determines the actual time that has elapsed, in minutes, for t minutes of a person's estimate of the elapsed time. Find the actual time that has elapsed for an estimate of minutes.
Suppose that the price and supply for a certain model of graphing calculator are related by where p is the price (in dollars) and q is the supply (in hundreds) of calculators. Find the supply if the price is $ 95. Round to the nearest if
A lumber yard has costs of $ 3978.00 a day and variable costs of $ 1.00 per board-foot produced. The company gets $ 2.80 per board-foot sold. How many board-feet must be produced daily to break even?
A shoe company will make a new type of shoe. The fixed cost for the production will be $24,000. The variable cost will be $35 per pair of shoes. The shoes will sell for $105 for each pair. How many pairs of shoes will have to be sold for the company to break on this new line of shoes?
When going more than 38 miles per hour, the gas mileage of a certain car fits the model where x is the speed of the car in miles per hour and y is the miles per gallon of gasoline. Based on this model, at what speed will the car average 15 miles per gallon? (Round to nearest whole number.)
Ten students in a graduate program were selected. Their grade point averages (GPAs) when they entered the program were between 3.5 and 4.0. The following data were obtained regarding their GPAs on entering the program versus their current GPAs. Entering GPA (x) Current GPA (y) 3.5 3.6 3.8 3.7 3.6 3.9 3.6 3.6 3.5 3.9 3.9 3.8 4.0 3.7 3.9 3.9 3.5 3.8 3.7 4.0
A study was to compare the average time spent in the lab each week versus course grade for computer students. The results are recorded in the table below. Number of hours spent in lab (x) Grade (percent)(y) 10 96 11 51 16 62 9 58 7 89 15 81 16 46 10 51
Ten students in a graduate program were selected. Their grade point averages (GPAs) when they entered the program were between 3.5 and 4.0. The following data were obtained regarding their GPAs on entering the program versus their current GPAs. Use the equation of the least squares line to predict the current GPA of a student whose entering GPA is 3.0. Entering GPA (x) Current GPA(y) 3.5 3.6 3.8 3.7 3.6 3.9 3.6 3.6 3.5 3.9 3.9 3.8 4.0 3.7 3.9 3.9 3.5 3.8 3.7 4.0
A study was to compare the average time spent in the lab each week versus course grade for students. The results are recorded in the table below. Use the equation of the least squares line to predict the grade of a student who spends 8 hours in the lab. Number of hours spent in lab (x) Grade (percent) (y) 10 96 11 51 16 62 9 58 7 89 15 81 16 46 10 51
29. A third-party administrator (TPA) is an entity that __________ and may contract with a health care clearinghouse to standardize data for claims processing.​ 30. medical coding process requires the __________ of patient record documentation to identify diagnoses, procedures, and services for the purpose of assigning ICD-10-CM, ICD-10-PCS, HCPCS level II, and/or CPT codes.
41. An effective coding compliance program monitors coding processes for __________.​ 42. assisted coding uses software to automatically generate __________ by “reading” transcribed clinical documentation provided by health care practitioners.
71. Integrated record reports are arranged in strict chronological date order (or in reverse date order), which allows for __________, and many facilities integrate only physician and ancillary services progress notes, which require entries to be identified by appropriate authentication.​ 72. The electronic health record is a(n) __________.​
each statement of purpose with the reference/resource listed below. 83. regulations (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services) 84. used by hospitals to help identify coding errors 85. newsletter published by AMA as an official coding resource 86. newsletter published by AHA as an official coding resource 87. pairs” that cannot be reported on the same claim for payment
Which 107. provides a new standardized framework and a unique coding structure for assessing, documenting, and classifying home health and ambulatory care? 108. is an electronic database and universal standard that is used to identify medical laboratory observations for the purpose of clinical care and management?
Answer: c Section Reference: Current Attitudes Toward People with Psychological Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe current attitudes toward people with psychological disorders, including how stigma and self-stigma are potential barriers to help-seeking Bloom’s: Knowledge 141) Vince Li was found not criminally responsible for beheading a fellow passenger on the bus because he a) acted in self-defense after the other passenger threatened him. b) was diagnosed with schizophrenia. c) was experiencing profound depression. d) had a really good legal team. Answer: b Section Reference: Current Attitudes Toward People with Psychological Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe current attitudes toward people with psychological disorders, including how stigma and self-stigma are potential barriers to help-seeking Bloom’s: Knowledge 142) Vince Li, who beheaded a fellow passenger on the bus, was a) found guilty of manslaughter and sentenced to 10 years in prison. b) guilty of manslaughter and committed to a psychiatric hospital for the rest of his life. c) not criminally responsible on account of a mental disorder and committed to a psychiatric hospital for treatment and will be released once he progresses in his treatment. d) found not criminally responsible on account of a mental disorder and was free to live on his own immediately. Answer: c Section Reference: Current Attitudes Toward People with Psychological Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe current attitudes toward people with psychological disorders, including how stigma and self-stigma are potential barriers to help-seeking Bloom’s: Knowledge 143) According to the Centre for Addiction and Mental Health, what is the number one reason why only 1/3 of Canadians who suffer from depression seek help?
b) The accurate understanding of mental illness, its causes and treatment. c) A person’s ability to accurately make a diagnosis from another’s story. d) None of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Mental Health Literacy Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe mental health problems and treatment in Canada Bloom’s: Knowledge 157) Canadians tend to have the best understanding of which disorder? a) Anorexia b) Anxiety c) Depression d) Schizophrenia Answer: c Section Reference: Mental Health Literacy Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe mental health problems and treatment in Canada Bloom’s: Knowledge 158) how many Canadian adults (aged 15 and over) report symptoms of a disorder in the past year? a) 1 in 10 b) 1 in 20 c) 1 in 50 d) 1 in 100 Answer: a Section Reference: Canada as a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe mental health problems and their treatment in Canada Bloom’s: Knowledge 159) Bob and Sue both report that they having a few drinks after work and on the weekend. Who is most likely to be diagnosed with alcohol dependence?
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify components of a healthy diet. Section Reference: 1.4 Choosing a Healthy Diet 64) Healthy eating requires you to give up your favourite low nutrient-dense foods. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium. Learning Objective: Identify components of a healthy diet. Section Reference: 1.4 Choosing a Healthy Diet 65) A varied diet also balances the calories you take in with the calories you use up in your daily activities so that your body weight stays in the healthy range. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify components of a healthy diet. Section Reference: 1.4 Choosing a Healthy Diet 66) A hypothesis is a proposed explanation for an observation or scientific problem that can be tested through experimentation. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Evaluate nutrition information. Section Reference: 1.5 Evaluating Nutrition Information 67) A proposed explanation for an observation is called a theory. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Evaluate nutrition information. Section Reference: 1.5 Evaluating Nutrition Information 68) Results from a single experiment are not enough to develop a theory. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium
154. The first step in the purchase-to-pay process is ______________________________. 155. ______________________________ include any meaningful change in the state of an enterprise, such as creating a new employee record, submitting a purchase order to a vendor, receiving a payment from a customer, picking goods from a warehouse and delivering them to the shipping department, and revaluing inventory. 156. Third-party modules are connected to the ERP system using ______________________________, a software product that connects two or more separate applications or software modules. 157. Business analytics are applications used for analyzing ______________________________. 158. ______________________________ are solutions used to build analysis models and simulations to create scenarios, understand realities, and predict future states.
To answer the following questions, refer to the database below. 6) The following statements regarding the Vendor Orders above are true EXCEPT A) The database requires entering the same vendor contact information multiple times B) The database does not break the referential integrity rule C) The database requires a PO number and and item number to add a vendor record D) Deleting a vendor will also delete inventory information Answer: B Diff: 2 Objective: Q2.4 What is database integrity? 7) To add a vendor to the Vendor Orders table, the following information is required EXCEPT A) PO Number B) Vendor ID C) Item Number D) Vendor name Answer: D Diff: 1 Objective: Q2.4 What is database integrity? 8) The Vendor Orders table contains the following database anomalies EXCEPT A) Normalization problem B) Update problem C) Deletion problem D) Insertion problem Answer: A Diff: 1 Objective: Q2.4 What is database integrity? 9) Separating the database into related tables instead of just one large table helps to eliminate A) Deletion, update, and normalization problems B) Update, insertion, and creation problems C) Insertion, update, and authorization problems D) Deletion, update, and insertion problems Answer: D Diff: 2 Objective: Q2.4 What is database integrity? 10) Normalization is an optimization process that minimizes which of the following? A) Database integrity B) Unauthorized access C) Database access
Expenses 170,000 113,000 185,000 Instructions Determine the amounts of the missing items, identifying each proprietorship by letter. Solution Exercise 20 (10 min.) Proprietorship A ($85,000) Beginning Capital balance ($400,000 – $250,000) $150,000 Additional investments ($260,000 – $150,000 – $25,000) 85,000 Profit for year ($195,000 – $170,000) 25,000 260,000 Less withdrawals 90,000 Ending Capital balance ($450,000 – $280,000) $170,000 Proprietorship B ($172,000) Beginning Capital balance ($150,000 – $105,000) $ 45,000 Additional investments 79,000 Profit for year 59,000 [Revenue = $172,000 ($113,000 + $59,000)] 183,000 Less withdrawals 83,000 Ending Capital balance ($195,000 – $95,000) $100,000 Proprietorship C ($87,000) Beginning Capital balance ($199,000 – $168,000) $ 31,000 Additional investments 80,000 Profit for year ($187,000 – $185,000) 2,000 113,000 Less withdrawals ($113,000 – $26,000) 87,000 Ending Capital balance ($195,000 – $169,000) $ 26,000 Exercise 21 Indicate in the space provided by each item whether it would appear on the Income Statement (IS), Balance Sheet (BS), or Statement of Owner's Equity (OE): 1. Service Revenue 7. Accounts Receivable 2. Utilities Expense 8. K. Brown, Capital 3. Cash 9. Equipment 4. Accounts Payable 10. Advertising Expense 5. Office Supplies 11. K. Brown, Drawings 6. Wage Expense 12. Notes Payable Solution Exercise 21 (5 min.) 1. IS 2. IS 3. BS 4. BS 5. BS
Investments during 2014 (12,000) Net income in 2014 $ 27,000 2. A. Total assets, beginning of year = $55,000 + $36,000 = $91,000 B. liabilities, end of year = $110,000 – $81,000 = $29,000 C. Net income = $81,000 + $34,000 - $55,000 - $16,000 = $44,000 Revenue during the year = $44,000 + $168,000 = $212,000 PART IV — TYPES OF ACCOUNTS (10 points) Account Liability Stockholders’ Equity Revenue Expense Common Stock X Rent Expense X Equipment X Retained Earnings X Dividends (X) Accounts Receivable X Mortgage Payable X Accounts Payable X Sales Revenue X Cash X PART V — MATCHING: BALANCE SHEET CLASSIFICATIONS (18 points) 1. H 6. H 11. A 16. G 2. E 7. H 12. A 17. F 3. D 8. E 13. A 18. H 4. G 9. C 14. F 5. A 10. E 15. C PART VI — RATIOS (12 points) 1. Current ratio for 2014 = $180,000 ÷ $75,000 = 2.4 times 2. Debt to assets for 2014 = ($75,000 + $90,000) ÷ $550,000 = 30% 3. Working capital for 2014 = $180,000 – $75,000 = $105,000 4. Earnings per share for 2014 = $134,000 ÷ 40,000 = $3.35 per share
49. On January 1, 20X1, the Moody Company entered into a transaction for 100% of the outstanding common stock of Osorio Company. To acquire these shares, Moody issued $400 in long-term liabilities and 40 shares of common stock having a par value of $1 per share but a fair value of $10 per share. Moody paid $20 to lawyers, accountants, and brokers for assistance in bringing about this acquisition. Another $15 was paid in connection with stock issuance costs. Prior to these transactions, the balance sheets for the two companies were as follows: Note: Parentheses indicate a credit balance. In Moody's appraisal of Osorio, three assets were deemed to be undervalued on the subsidiary's books: Inventory by $10, Land by $40, and Buildings by $60. Compute the amount of consolidated land at date of acquisition. AACSB: Analytic AICPA FN: Measurement Blooms: Apply Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-05 Determine the total fair value of the consideration transferred for an acquisition and allocate that fair value to specific subsidiary assets acquired (including goodwill); and liabilities assumed; or a gain on bargain purchase. Learning Objective: 02-06 Prepare the journal entry to consolidate the accounts of a subsidiary if dissolution takes place. Learning Objective: 02-07 Prepare a worksheet to consolidate the accounts of two companies that form a business combination if dissolution does not take place.
B. water sampling C. measurements taken from gas bubbles trapped in the ice D. temperature correlation E. all of these answers Answer: A Section: 21.4 Level: Easy Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. What method of measuring atmospheric CO2 level gives data of what past atmosphere CO2 levels were? A. local air measurement B. water sampling C. measurements taken from gas bubbles trapped in the ice D. temperature correlation E. all of these answers Answer: C Section: 21.4 Level: Easy Bloom’s Level: Understanding 35. What causes the level of atmospheric CO2 to rise and fall throughout the year? A. growth and dormancy due to seasons B. temperature fluctuation C. movement of ocean air streams D. industry booms E. relative distance of Earth to the Sun Answer: A Section: 21.4 Level: Medium Level: Applying 36. What is the name of the international group of scientists who evaluate scientific studies related to any aspect of climate change to give thorough and objective assessment of the data? A. Health Organization B. Montreal Procession C. Environmental Protection Agency D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change E. Climate Change Forecasters United Answer: D Section: 21.4 Level: Easy Bloom’s Level: Remembering 37. The cause of the vast majority of climate change can be attributed to:
Each numbered statement below describes a type of assessment data collection. Read each statement and decide which type of reliability estimate it supports. On your answer sheet mark the letter: A -- if the data are used for internal consistency reliability estimation B -- if the data are used for test-retest reliability estimation C -- if the data are used for alternate form (same occasion) reliability estimation D -- if the data are used for alternate form (different occasions) reliability estimation 20. A group of students was assessed on two occasions with the same assessment tasks with a week’s interval between assessments. The assessor wanted to find out whether there was a marked change in students’ ranking in the group. 21. A group of students was administered two different but similar sets of assessment tasks, with a brief break in between. The assessor wanted to find out whether the relative ordering of the students was similar on both sets of assessment tasks. 22. A test was administered to a group of students and the score of each student on each test task were recorded. The assessor wanted to know whether students responded in a similar way from one task to another. 23. A principal wanted to award prizes to students who demonstrated the best sense of citizenship. The principal asked the students’ teachers and their immediate past teachers to rate the students. With which type of reliability should the principal be most concerned? (a) Internal consistency reliability (b) Alternate reliability (c) Scorer reliability 24. When a teacher writes, administers, and scores an essay test, which of the following is the LEAST likely source of measurement error? (a) Day-to-day fluctuations in student performance (b) Lack of strictly parallel of the test (c) Low scorer reliability 25. If you want to generalize a student's performance on a group of tasks today to how the student is likely performing on similar tasks, you need assessment results that are (a) consistent over multiple occasions of testing. (b) consistent across different items sampled from the same domain. (c) consistent over multiple occasions and across different items from the same domain. 26. Which of the following will most likely improve the reliability of your assessments? (a) Applying strict time limits on your assessments (b) Including more questions on your assessments (c) all essay questions
26. As it relates to audit evidence, appropriateness refers to the 27. Which of the following information would not be included in the auditors' standard report? 28. The primary purpose of the auditors' study of internal control for a nonpublic entity is 29. Which reporting options do auditors have if the client's financial statements are not presented according to the applicable financial framework (e.g., GAAP, IFRS)?
Analytic AICPA: BB Industry AICPA: FN Risk Analysis Blooms: Apply Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-03 Describe the fundamental principle of performance and identify the major activities performed in an audit. Source: Original Topic: Fundamental Principle: Performance 49. Which of the following is not true with respect to the auditors' report for a public entity? AACSB: Communication AICPA: BB Industry AICPA: FN Reporting Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-04 Understand the fundamental principle of reporting and identify the basic contents of the auditors' report. Source: Original Topic: Fundamental Principle: Reporting
25. The _____________________________________ was created by the National Bank Act and is part of the Treasury Department. It is the primary regulator of national banks. ________________________________________ 26. The _________________________ proposes various regulations applying to the financial markets to combat the recent credit crisis. This "bail-out" bill granted the US Treasury the means to purchase troubled loans, allowed the FDIC to temporarily increase deposit insurance, and permitted the government to inject additional capital into the banking system. ________________________________________ True / False Questions 27. Federal Reserve Act authorized the creation of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. True False 28. In the United States, fixed fees charged for deposit insurance, regardless of how risky a bank is, led to a problem known as moral hazard. True False 29. Government-sponsored deposit insurance typically encourages individual depositors to monitor banks' behavior in accepting risk. True False 30. The Federal Reserve changes reserve requirements frequently because the effect of these changes is small. True False 31. The Bank Merger Act and its amendments require that Bank Holding Companies be under the jurisdiction of the Federal Reserve. True False 32. National cannot merge without the prior approval of the Comptroller of the Currency. True False
Political preference is a qualitative, nominal variable. Frequencies for a qualitative, nominal variable are best presented with a bar chart. Communication Blooms: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-02 Organize data into a bar chart. Topic: Constructing Frequency Distributions: Qualitative Data 32. A student was studying the political party preferences of a university's student population. The survey instrument asked students to identify their political preference—for example, Democrat, Republican, Libertarian, or another party. The best way to illustrate the relative frequency distribution is a __________. Political preference is a qualitative, nominal variable. The relative frequencies for a qualitative, nominal variable are best summarized with a pie chart. Communication Blooms: Analyze Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-03 Present a set of data using a pie chart. Topic: Constructing Frequency Distributions: Qualitative Data 33. What is the following table called? The is not a graph, such as a histogram or frequency polygon. The table shows the number of people in each class.
94. In a frequency distribution, a class defined as "Under $100" and "$1,000 and over" is called a(n) ____________. Open class Both examples do not have specified upper or lower limits. So they are "open classes." AACSB: Reflective Thinking Blooms: Understand Difficulty: 1 Easy Learning Objective: 02-04 Create a frequency distribution for a data set. Topic: Constructing Frequency Distributions: Quantitative Data 95. In a deck of a class of all cards that are hearts and a class of all cards that are kings are NOT _____________. Mutually exclusive The king of hearts is included in both classes. It is a king and a Therefore, the classes are not mutually exclusive. Reflective Thinking Blooms: Understand Difficulty: 3 Hard Learning Objective: 02-04 Create a frequency distribution for a data set. Topic: Frequency Distribution Concepts 96. To construct a histogram, the class frequencies are plotted on the ________. Y or vertical axis To illustrate a frequency distribution with a histogram, class frequencies are plotted on the vertical axis, and the class limits on the horizontal axis. Communication Blooms: Remember Difficulty: 1 Easy Learning Objective: 02-06 Present data from a frequency distribution in a histogram or frequency polygon. Topic: Constructing Frequency Distributions: Quantitative Data
93. The process by which producers harness electromagnetic energy and convert it into chemical energy is cellular respiration. 94. Although Darwin and Wallace understood the central importance of heritability organisms to the process of evolution, they could not explain how new variations arose or how they were passed to the next generation. 95. The example of an adaptation provided by the rock pocket mice illustrates the observation that genetic differences often develop between individuals. 96. Internal body temperature in humans is regulated primarily by behavioral mechanisms.
108. The gene for Huntington’s disease is located on chromosome 4. Ans: True 109. Humans have far genes than originally thought. Ans: True 110. The fact that parent and offspring may differ is irrelevant for natural selection. Ans: 111. Heritability is the percentage of variation in a given characteristic that can be attributed to genetics. Ans: True 112. Psychologists no longer find it useful to talk about nature versus nurture. Ans: True 113. Heritability for schizophrenia ranges from 60–90%. Ans: True 114. Concordance rates from twin studies are higher for medical disorders than psychological disorders. Ans: False 115. Adoption studies have tended to overestimate the heritability of intelligence. Ans: True
Reflective Thinking Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 02-04 Explain the four dimensions of social responsibility. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Business Ethics and Social Responsibility 62. Avoiding misconduct and doing what is right, just, and fair relates to a business's Ethical responsibilities, the third level of social responsibility, require that a firm act ethically and to do what is right, just, and fair. AACSB: Reflective Thinking Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 02-04 Explain the four dimensions of social responsibility. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Business Ethics and Social Responsibility 63. Which is not a dimension of social responsibility? The four dimensions of social responsibility are legal, economic, voluntary, and ethical. AACSB: Ethics Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 02-04 Explain the four dimensions of social responsibility. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Nature of Social Responsibility 64. Being profitable relates to which social responsibility dimension?
In order to appeal to particular subgroups, it is important to identify the objective features of one's product or policy that could meet the needs of an audience. For instance, people who desire entertainment during meals can be offered music, live bands, or performances by artists. AACSB: Communication AACSB: Reflective Thinking Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-06 How to create audience benefits. Topic: Identifying and Developing Audience Benefits 62. Coral Dawn, a chain of luxury spas, specializes in Thai massages, Ayurveda remedies, and acupressure treatments. Its target customers are those who enjoy weekend spa treatments after a stressful week at work. When advertising, which of the following statements would best help Coral Dawn link the features of its services to the needs of its audience?
D) the basic communication model E) the Code of Professional Conduct Answer: B Explanation: B) Robert's Rules of Order is the best-known guide to parliamentary procedure. Classification: Conceptual LO: 3 Difficulty: Easy Learning Outcome: Describe best practices in team and interpersonal communication 31) of the following is true of parliamentary procedure? A) Parliamentary procedure is important to plan and run effective meetings. B) Parliamentary procedure is ineffective during virtual meetings and videoconferences. C) parliamentary procedure during a meeting makes the presence of a leader unnecessary. D) All meetings will be ineffective unless parliamentary procedure is used. E) Parliamentary procedure is used only for informational meetings, which require no participation. Answer: A Explanation: A) The larger the meeting, the more formal it will need to be to maintain order. Formal meetings often use parliamentary procedure, a time-tested method for planning and running effective meetings. Classification: Conceptual LO: 3 Difficulty: Moderate Learning Outcome: Describe best practices in team and interpersonal communication 32) Patrick's sales department meets to discuss targets and strategies for the coming month. As the head of the department, Patrick invites inputs from all the employees, but Brendan dominates the meeting, offering multiple suggestions, while the others do not participate. What should Patrick, as the leader, do in this situation? A) He should adopt Brendan's suggestions as they are the only options. B) He should remind Brendan that time is limited and the others need to be as well. C) He should ask Brendan to the meeting. D) He should ignore Brendan's suggestions and invite responses from other participants. E) He should call off the meeting and invite written suggestions. Answer: B Explanation: B) In any meeting, some participants are too quiet and others are too talkative. The leader should draw out nonparticipants by asking for their input. For the overly talkative, the leader can say that time is limited and others need to be heard. Classification: Application AACSB: Communication Abilities LO: 3 Difficulty: Easy Learning Outcome: Describe best practices in team and interpersonal communication 33) During meetings, it's good practice to appoint a person to record the ________, a summary of the important information presented and the decisions made during the meeting.
Business Essentials, 9e Chapter 2 Business Ethics and Social Responsibility 1) Ethics are beliefs about what is right and wrong. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Ethics are beliefs that guide behavior that is right and good. Page Ref: 32 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning abilities Objective: 2.1 Learning Outcome: Discuss the roles of ethics and corporate responsibility in business Skill: Concept 2) Business ethics refers to ethical or unethical behaviors by employees in the context of their personal lives. Answer: Explanation: Business ethics are ethical or unethical behaviors by employees in the context of their jobs. Page Ref: 33 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning abilities Objective: 2.1 Learning Outcome: Discuss the roles of ethics and corporate responsibility in business Skill: Concept 3) The standards of behavior that guide managers in their work are called employee ethics. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Managerial ethics are standards of behavior that guide individual managers in their work. Page Ref: 33 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning abilities Objective: 2.1 Learning Outcome: Discuss the roles of ethics and corporate responsibility in business Skill: Concept 4) Some ethical and unethical behaviors fall into gray while others are widely agreed upon. Answer: TRUE Explanation: An example is the situation where an activity may be seen as unethical by some people but as a smart business practice by other people. Page Ref: 34 Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning abilities Objective: 2.1 Learning Outcome: Discuss the roles of ethics and corporate responsibility in business Skill: Concept
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: 1 Easy Learning Objective: 02-05 Identify and propose a resolution for an ethical dilemma in your work environment. 33. (p. 31) Once the type of ethical conflict has been determined, there are two principles by which it can be resolved: Volcker's Rule and Campbell's Rule. FALSE Once the type of ethical conflict has been determined, there are three resolution principles available: ends-based, rules-based, and the Golden Rule. Blooms: Remember Difficulty: 1 Easy Learning Objective: 02-05 Identify and propose a resolution for an ethical dilemma in your work environment. 34. (p. 31) Utilizing the principle to resolve an ethical dilemma necessitates focusing solely on the decisions that other people in your situation would arrive at. FALSE If you utilize the ends-based principle to resolve an ethical dilemma, you would consider which decision would provide the greatest good for the greatest number of people. Blooms: Remember Difficulty: 1 Easy Learning Objective: 02-05 Identify and propose a resolution for an ethical dilemma in your work environment. 35. (p. 31) Utilizing the rules-based principle to resolve an ethical dilemma necessitates focusing exclusively on which decision would provide the greatest good for the greatest number of people. FALSE If you utilize the rules-based resolution principle, you would ask what would happen if everyone made the same decision as you. Blooms: Remember Difficulty: 1 Easy Learning Objective: 02-05 Identify and propose a resolution for an ethical dilemma in your work environment. 36. (p. 31) When trying to resolve an ethical dilemma, the Golden Rule principle considers only legal aspects of the problem. FALSE When trying to resolve an ethical dilemma, the Golden Rule resolution principle considers unto others as you would have them do unto you.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-03 Discuss the position that business ethics is an oxymoron. 57. (p. 26) A(n) _____ is defined as a central guide that supports day-to-day decision making at work. Blooms: Understand Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-03 Discuss the position that business ethics is an oxymoron. 58. (p. 26) Which of the following functions does the code of ethics perform?
Ethics Blooms: Understand Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Describe key ways in which the major schools of jurisprudence differ from each other. Topic: Jurisprudence 38. One strength of the instrumentalist attitude: An instrumentalist attitude denotes the willingness to adapt existing laws to current situations. AACSB: Ethics Blooms: Understand Difficulty: 3 Hard Learning Objective: 01-05 Describe the respective roles of adhering to precedent (stare decisis) and distinguishing precedent in case law reasoning. Topic: The Functions of Law 39. In which of the following circumstances, under the doctrine of stare decisis, does the common law rule stated in an earlier judgement not apply to a present case?
2. In a dispute between Cosmic Games Corporation and Mythic Engineering Associates, Inc., the court applies the doctrine of stare decisis.What is this doctrine? What does this doctrine have to do with the American legal system? ANSWER: In a common law system, past judicial decisions are binding in current disputes with similar facts. This feature of the common law, which is the basis of the American legal system, is unique because, unlike the law in other legal systems, it is judge-made law. Within the common law system, when possible, judges attempt to be consistent and to base their decisions on the principles suggested by earlier cases. The body of principles and doctrines that form the common law emerged over time as judges applied the principles announced in earlier cases to subsequent legal controversies. The practice of deciding cases with reference to former decisions, or precedents—the cornerstone of the American legal system—is called the doctrine of stare decisis. Under this doctrine, judges are obligated to follow the precedents established within their jurisdictions. This helps courts to be more efficient, and makes the law more stable and predictable. PAGES: 9–10 type: = BUSPROG: Reflective AICPA: BB-Decision Modeling
AACSB: Analytic Blooms: Apply Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-03 Summarize quantitative data by forming frequency distributions. Topic: Summarizing Quantitative Data 61. The following table shows the number of payroll jobs the government added during the years its added jobs (since 1973). The jobs are in thousands. Approximately what percent of the time did the government add 200,000 or more jobs? Sum the frequency of the intervals 200 up to 300, 300 up to 400, and so on, and divide by the total of 26: (8 + 7 + 5 + 1)/26 = 21/26 ≈ 0.81 or 81%. Distractors: Wrong answers include jobs added for other categories. AACSB: Analytic Blooms: Apply Difficulty: 2 Medium Learning Objective: 02-03 Summarize quantitative data by forming frequency distributions. Topic: Summarizing Quantitative Data 62. Exhibit 2-11. The accompanying relative frequency distribution represents the last year car sales for the sales force at Kelly's Mega Used Car Center. Refer to Exhibit 2-11. If Kelly's employs 100 salespeople, how many of these salespeople have sold at least 35 but less than 45 cars in the last year? 0.07(100) = 7 employees AACSB: Analytic Blooms: Apply Difficulty: 1 Easy Learning Objective: 02-04 Plot and interpret histograms; polygons; and ogives. Topic: Summarizing Quantitative Data
89. The number of items rejected daily by a manufacturer because of defects for the last 30 days are: 20, 21, 8, 17, 22, 19, 18, 19, 14, 17, 11, 6, 21, 25, 4, 19, 9, 12, 16, 16, 10, 28, 24, 6, 21, 20, 25, 5, 17, 8 Construct an ogive plot. 90. Consider the following data. Create a stem-and-leaf display for the sample. 91. Consider the following data on distances traveled by people to visit the local amusement park. Construct an ogive plot that corresponds to the frequency table.
ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: 1 Difficulty: Moderate NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - DISC: Personal, corporate, legal - DISC: Personal, corporate, legal, ethical responsibilities STATE STANDARDS: TOPICS: KEYWORDS: United States- NC- AICPA: FN-Risk Analysis A-Head: The Role of Business in Society Bloom's: Comprehension 5. John Akers, former chairman ofiBM, argues that ethics are not important to economic competitiveness. a. True b. False ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: 1 Difficulty: Easy NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - DISC: Personal, corporate, legal - DISC: Personal, corporate, legal, ethical responsibilities STATE STANDARDS: TOPICS: United States - NC - FN-Risk Analysis A-Head: Why Bother to Act Ethically at All? KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Comprehension 6. Society is hurt when business managers behave ethically. a. True b. False ANSWER: POINTS: False 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficulty: Easy NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - DISC: Personal, corporate, legal - DISC: Personal, corporate, legal, ethical responsibilities STANDARDS: TOPICS: KEYWORDS: United States- NC- AICPA: FN-Risk Analysis A-Head: Why Be Ethical? Bloom's: Comprehension
ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: False 1 Difficulty: Moderate NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - DISC: Personal, corporate, legal - DISC: Personal, corporate, legal, ethical responsibilities STATE STANDARDS: TOPICS: KEYWORDS: United States - NC - AICPA: BE-Critical Thinking A-Head: A Special Case Bloom's: Comprehension 14. Deontologists agree that the increasing medical concern over obesity in the United States justifies federal regulation of high fat, high sugar, low nutrition food advertising during children's television programs. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficulty: Moderate NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - DISC: Personal, corporate, legal - DISC: Personal, corporate, legal, ethical responsibilities STATE STANDARDS: United States- NC- AICPA: FN-Risk Analysis TOPICS: A-Head: Theories ofEthics KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Analysis 15. Immanuel Kant was a German philosopher who was a proponent of utilitarian ethics. a. True b. False ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: False 1 Difficulty: Easy NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States- BUSPROG: Analytic STANDARDS: United States- NC- AICPA: BE-Critical Thinking TOPICS: KEYWORDS: A-Head: Theories of Ethics Knowledge
42. Acme Widgets donates $1.00 from each sale of its Super Widget to the World Food Bank. This action illustrates: ANSWER: A corporate social responsibility. B. outsourcing. C. unethical corporate conduct. D. none ofthese answers. POINTS: DIFFICULTY: 1 Difficulty: Easy NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States- BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS: United States- NC- AICPA: BE-Critical Thinking TOPICS: A-Head: Corporate Social Responsibility KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Comprehension
TRUE/FALSE In general, the role of the financial manager is to plan for the acquisition and use of funds so as to maximize the value of the firm. ANS: T DIF: Easy TOP: Financial manager The financial manager must execute his or her duties independent of the other activities of the firm in order to properly maximize the value of the firm. ANS: F DIF: Easy TOP: Financial manager Two key limitations of the proprietorship form of business involve potential difficulty in raising needed capital and the presence of unlimited personal liability for business debts. ANS: T DIF: Easy TOP: Proprietorship A hostile takeover involves an attempt by one group of stockholders to solicit votes from other stockholders in order to put a new management team into place and is usually motivated by low stock price. ANS: F DIF: Easy TOP: Hostile takeover No firm can take cost-increasing, socially responsible actions in a competitive marketplace and expect to continue to compete, even if those cost-increasing actions yield significant benefits to the firm. ANS: F DIF: Easy TOP: Social responsibility The proper goal of the financial manager should be to maximize the firm's expected profit, because this will add the most wealth to each of the individual shareholders (owners) of the firm. ANS: F DIF: Easy TOP: Goal of firm One way to state the decision framework most useful for carrying out the firm's objective is that the financial managers should seek that combination of assets, liabilities, and capital which will generate the largest expected projected income over the relevant time horizon. ANS: F DIF: Easy TOP: Objectives of firm The riskiness inherent in a firm's earnings per share (EPS) depends on both the types of projects the firm takes on and the manner in which the projects are financed. ANS: T DIF: Easy TOP: Risk and earnings Cultural differences in do not impact the multinational corporations as they expand into different geographic regions. ANS: F DIF: Easy TOP: Multinational Corporations Normal profits are those that result in rates of return that are just sufficient to attract new capital in financial markets. ANS: T DIF: Easy TOP: Normal profits
69. Arrange types of radiation in order of increasing energy per photon: gamma rays, infrared radiation, radio waves, visible light, UV (ultra violet) 70. Which of the following is most biologically damaging type of radiation? 71. The morning newspaper reports a UV Forecast of 6.5. What precautions, if any should a fair skinned person take?
15. (p. 42) The choice to communicate and make open an organization's pay system to employees is an example of which strategic choice? Difficulty: Medium Milkovich - Chapter 02 #15 16. (p. 42) The decision to base pay increases on individual or group performance is made within the _____ strategic compensation choices. Difficulty: Medium Milkovich - Chapter 02 #16 17. (p. 42) A book listing the previous year's pay of all employees is part of Foods philosophy. This is an example of which strategic compensation choice? Difficulty: Medium Milkovich - Chapter 02 #17 18. (p. 42) Whole Foods' decision to seek and engage employees who are going to help the company make money is an example of which strategic pay decisions? Difficulty: Medium Milkovich - Chapter 02 #18 19. (p. 43) The second step of developing a compensation strategy is to: Difficulty: Medium Milkovich - Chapter 02 #19 20. (p. 43) "Choosing techniques to fit strategy" is a part of which step in developing a total compensation system?
Difficulty: Medium Milkovich - Chapter 02 #50 51. (p. 42) How an organization positions its total compensation against competitors is part of external competitiveness strategic choices. TRUE Difficulty: Easy Milkovich - Chapter 02 #51 52. (p. 42) One of Whole Foods' employee contributions strategic compensation choices is to seek and engage employees who are going to help the company make money. FALSE Difficulty: Medium Milkovich - Chapter 02 #52 53. (p. 44) What business should a company be in and how does the company win are questions that are a part of mapping a total compensation strategy. FALSE Difficulty: Medium Milkovich - Chapter 02 #53 54. (p. 43) The fourth step of formulating a total compensation strategy is to reassess. TRUE Difficulty: Easy Milkovich - Chapter 02 #54 55. (p. 44) Useful compensation comparisons across countries may be done by focusing on hourly wages and productivity. FALSE Difficulty: Medium Milkovich - Chapter 02 #55 56. (p. 44) International compensation comparisons are challenging because retirement and health care programs, paid holidays and length of work week varies across countries. TRUE Difficulty: Easy Milkovich - Chapter 02 #56 57. (p. 45) Compensation strategy should reflect the organization's values. TRUE Difficulty: Easy Milkovich - Chapter 02 #57 58. (p. 46) A challenge in the design of future pay systems is how to better satisfy individual needs and preferences. TRUE Difficulty: Easy Milkovich - Chapter 02 #58
35. Using the product operator, if table A has 4 rows and table B has 4 rows, the number of rows in the product of these two tables is ____.​ Completion 36. A(n) ____________________ database is a collection of tables.​ 37. The relationships between tables are handled through ____________________ columns.​ 38. Multiple entries in tables are often called ____________________.​ 39. When a structure satisfies all the properties of a relation except for the first item—in other words, some entries contain repeating groups and thus are not single-valued—it is referred to as a(n) ____________________.​ 40. Columns in a table are often called ____________________.​