Factors that regulate the commitment of human hematopoietic progenitor cell to a specific cell line are influenced by what? Hematopoietic growth factors Interleukins microenvironment What are the growth of these cells dependent on? Colony stimulating factor (CSF) Interleukins The microenvironment of the progenitor cell favors differential development of what two cell series? Granulocytic (myeloid) series Macrophage-monocytic series In addition to the differentiation of granulocytes and monocytes, what also stimulates specific differentiation such as the development of eosinophils? Colony Stimulating Factor The development, distribution, and destruction of neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are collectively referred to as what? Granulocytic kinetics What location in the body do neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils begin as multipotential cells? Bone marrow What location in the body do these cells continue through the processes of differentiation, multiplication and maturation? Bone marrow After developing into either band or segmented forms, mature cells enter into what location in the body? Blood circulation What is the first identifiable cell in the granulocytic series? Myeloblast Myeloblast make up what percentage of the total nucleated bone marrow cells? One percent How long does this stage last? Approximately 15 hours What cell in this this bone barrow stage lasts about 24 hours and is approximately 3% of the nucleated bone marrow cells? Promyelocyte This cell is approximately 12% of the proliferative cells existing in the bones marrow stage. Myelocyte The stage from myelocyte to _______ last an average of 4.3 days. Once this stage has been reached, cells have undergone four or five cell divisions. The proliferative ends. Meatamyelocyte Once the cell line becomes committed to developing in to a myeloblast, the maturational development from the myeloblast through the myelocyte stage and the mitotic division take place in what is referred to as the bone proliferative compartment
monocytic origin. If the enzyme is of monocytic origin, it is inhibited by sodium fluoride. What do alkaline phosphatases do? Alkaline 26 contains a discussion of this cytochemical staining procedure and its clinical applications in distinguishing between leukemia and a leukemoid reaction. How do acid phosphatases affect monocytes and lymphocytes? Acid phosphatase monocytes demonstrate a more intense positive reaction than do neutrophils. Although lymphocytes display little activity, T cells do exhibit intense positivity in the Golgi region, whereas B cells may be positive or negative. What diagnosis can immunophenotyping by flow cytometry confirm or establish? Leukemia Monoclonal antibodies play an important role in supplementary differential testing of what various ailments? Leukemias and lymphomas TdT, CD9, and CD79a positive in early B-cell precursors, hematogones are expressed by? Precursor B cells What is more frequently present in precursor B cell ALL, CD79 or CD 20? CD79 Which CD marker is positive in the majority of cases of precursor B-cell ALL and is rare in ALL? CD10 What two things are usually negative in mature B-cell ALL TdT and CD99 What CD markers are unique to granulocytes and monocytes. CD11b, CD11c, CD13, and CD14 What are some of the most common emergencies confronting patients with acute leukemia Infection, bleeding, leukemic infiltration of organs, metabolic abnormalities, hyperleukocytosis In what phase of leukemia is chemotherapy done? Introduction phase Is stem cell transplant a viable treatment option for leukemia patients? Yes What is produced in large amounts by cells of MDS, AML, and CML patients? Proteins What are the peptides used in cancer vaccines combined with to make the vaccine? Montanide What are the cancer vaccines given with? GM-CSF (sargramostim) What is the purpose of giving Montanide and sargramostim? They help the immune system respond to the vaccines How do the cancer vaccines work? They activate the immune system to make specialized cells that search out and kill the
What are one or more shared features of the multipotent hematopoietic stem cells (CD 34) in MPNs 1) Cytogenetic abnormalities 2) Overproduction of one or more types of blood cells with dominance of a transformed clone 3) Hypercellular marrow or marrow fibrosis 4) Thrombotic and/or hemorrhagic bleeding 5) Extramedullary hematopoiesis 6) Transformation to acute leukemia Which of the following MPNs characteristics is also known as agnogenic myeloid metaplasia or myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia ? 1. Choronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) 2. Polycythemia rubra vera 3. Primary myelofibrosis 4. Essential thrombocythemia Primary myelofibrosis 2008 who classification of myeloid Neoplasms ? Tyrosine kinase mutation Janus kinase mutation What is the primarily neoplasms age of MPNs in adults ? 50 to 70 What is the spent phase found in myeloproliferative disorder ? It is the halting of all blood cell production in the marrow and the increase in fibrosis What condition do myeloproliferative disorders transform to ? Acute leukemia A mutation in Jak2 is associated with which types of myeoloproliferative conditions? Polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia, Primary myeolfibrosis Is maturation in –tact in myeloprolife rative disorder? Yes there is effective maturation leading to increased peripheral blood counts Descrive chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) Is an MPN that originates in an abnormal pluripotent bone marrow stem cell and is consistently associated with the BCR –ABL 1 fusion gene located in the Philadelphia chromosome What are the other principal types of chronic leukemia ? CML and chronic lymphocytic leukemia What two genes are commonly mutated in primary myelofibrosis? Activating JAK2 mutations and MPL True or false ? CML is a clonal proliferative disorder of the pluripotent hematopoietic progenitor cell that resulrs in a disordered True
If splenic atrophy is present, during essential thrombocythemia, abnormal morphology includes: Target cells Howell-Jolly bodies Nucleated erythrocytes Acanthocytes In more than half of patients with thrombocythemia, the platelet-rich plasma does not respond to epinephrine. Epinephrine By what characteristic can thrombocythemia and polycythemia vera be differentiated? The absence of an expanded red blood cell mass in thrombocythemia. The chronic leukemias are usually characterized by the presence of what? leukocytosis The total leukocyte count is usually greater than what amount? 50x109/L and may exceed 300 x 109/L. Peripheral blood smears demonstrate increased numbers of mature granulocytic forms. What type of granulocytic forms are observed? segmented neutrophils and band forms, and smaller numbers of immature forms. Cytochemical studies are used less frequently for chronic leukemias than for what other type of leukemia? acute leukemias. In special cases, leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) procedure is used to differentiate between CML and what other type of reaction? a leukemoid reaction In CML, the LAP score is (decreased or increased )as compared with a leukemoid reaction, in which a high score is usual. decreased Because chronic-phase CML is highly responsive to treatment, many patients experience at least how many remissions? one Remissions can last from several weeks to months, with 60% of patients becoming what? asymptomatic The introduction of imatinib has fundamentally altered the management of patients with CML in what phase? Chronic phase It is recommended as the best single agent for newly diagnosed patients who are not eligible for initial treatment by allogeneic what type of cell transplantation? Stem cell A long-standing and universally accepted therapy for CML is allogeneic stem cell transplantation (allo-SCT). Allo-SCT achieves its curative potential via at least how many mechanisms? Two How is Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS) characterized? MDS is characterized by the simultaneous proliferation and apoptosis of hemopoietic cells that lead to a normal or hypercellular
What are the clinical signs and symptoms that maybe reported by a patient with MDS? History of infections, bleeding, weight loss, or cardiovascular symptoms may be reported by a patient In MDS, what causes the infections? Infections are caused by dysfunctional granulocytic neutrophils or absolute granulocytopenia. Dysfunctional granulocytic neutrophils or absolute granulocytopenia causes what? Infections What causes the hemorrhages that occurs in patients with MDS? Decreased or dysfunctional platelets What is the common initial presenting symptom in MDS? Anemia Laboratory manifestations of MDS include________,________, and _________. Anemia Low platelet count Low total leukocyte count All of the above D Another MDS laboratory manifestation includes____________. Poikilocytosis Microcytic anemia Macrocytic anemia Absolute Nuetropenia D Peripheral blood smears _________ exhibit red blood cell abnormalities and large dysfunctional platelets in MDS. a. rarely b. frequently c. mostly d. always RA is one of the refractory cytopenias with___________ dysplasia, is the mildest form of all types of MDS. Fill in the blank. Unilineage Multilineage Omnilineage monolineage A RARS has the presence of sideroblasts. True or False False, it has ringed siderblasts RAEB-1 and RAEB-2 have the presence of type 1 and Type 2 myeloblasts in bone marrow and in blood. Tue or False True Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML) is a ________ hematologic malignancy that is characterized by features of both an MPN and C