Why can Memory B-cells react to remembered pathogens faster? Memory B-cells already have the proper antibodies stored up for that pathogen. True or False? A pathogen can get past the body’s physical and chemical barriers and the inflammation response. True What are pathogens engulfed by? Macrophages What is another word for macrophage? Neutrophil What does the macrophage release onto a bacterium to dissolve it? The contents of its lysosomes True or False? There are still some pieces of the bacterium’s cell membrane left. True What are surface proteins of macrophages also known as? Antigens Where does the macrophage force the antigens of the bacterium? To it’s own cell surface. True or False: B-cells touch these surface antigens to make a copy of their shape. False. Correct cell: Helper T-cells Which cell is presented the surface antigen? B-cells B-cells create ________ against pathogens. Antibodies True or False? Helper T-cells multiply and have two main roles True Helper T-cells activate which type of cells? B-cells and Killer T-cells What does the Helper T-cell “tell” the B-cells to do? Helper T-cells tell B-cells how to neutralize the pathogen by presenting the pieces of the bacterium cell membrane. What do the B-cells turn into? Plasma cells Plasma cells multiply and produce _________ to ________ a specific pathogen Antibodies; neutralize What is the second role of the Helper T-cells? To activate the Killer T-cells. What do Killer T-cells secrete? Cytokines True or False? Killer T-cells can destroy the pathogen itself (bacteria) True Why would a Killer T-cell destroy an entire body cell? It is infected with a virus When an immune response is over, what kind of cell stops the process? Suppressor T-cells What do Supressor T-cells “tell” some B-cells to do? Suppressor T-cells “tell” some B-cells (plasma cells) to “remember” how to destroy that specific pathogen B-cells (plasma cells) now become __________. Memory B-cells What is leukemia? And what kind of cell does it involve? Cancer of the blood involving the white blood cells
What is the term used to describe values that fall outside the confidence limits? Out-of-control The Gaussian distribution is also known as? The bell-shaped curve Errors occurring within the process of phlebotomy may cause serious harm to patients either directly or indirectly. What are the included critical areas? Appropriateness of the test request. Patient and sample identification. Criteria for acceptance and rejection of specimens. Communication and interpretation of results. True or False. The accuracy of laboratory testing begins with the quality of the specimen received by the laboratory. True True or False In phlebotomy, quality does not depend on how a specimen was collected, transported, and processed. False (quality DEPENDS on how a specimen was collected, transported, and processed.) True or False Quality assessment, as it applies to phlebotomy, includes preparation of a patient for any specimens to be collected. True True or False Collection of valid samples and proper specimen transport are not included in the Quality Assessment in phlebotomy. False (Collection of valid samples and proper specimen transport are included in the Quality Assessment in phlebotomy.) When collecting blood specimens, it is important that the phlebotomist considers what? The rights of the patient at all times. True or False The professional image of the laboratory is solely represented by the phlebotomist. True (Because phlebotomist is the only laboratory staff member that a patient sees.) True or False It is important to be gentle and treat pediatric patients with compassion, empathy and kindness True True or False Phlebotomists must be relaxed and perceptive about any anxiety that adolescent patients may have. True True or False It is okay to demean geriatric patients because they are really old and they cannot understand anything. False A __________collected blood specimen is essential to quality performance in the laboratory Properly Strict adherence to the rules of specimen collection is critical to the _______ of any test. Accuracy In hematological tests/studies, what is the type of specimen most frequently used? Anticoagulated blood What do you call the substance that prevents clotting when mixed with fresh whole blood? Anticoagulant
What do you call the straw-colored fluid from an anticoagulated blood? Plasma What composes the BUFFY COAT? White blood cells and platelets. What type of additive/anticoagulant can be found in a green top tube? Heparin A vacutainer/tube with a purple top contains what type of anti-coagulant? Tripotassium ethylenediaminetetraacetate (EDTA) A vacutainer/tube with a lightblue top contains what type of anti-coagulant? Sodium citrate Additives can alter the constituents and can have ________ amounts. Correct Incorrect Non-consequential None of the above B All employees should learn to use engineering tools. They also must: Evaluate Select Document All of the above D Can needles be removed in rare circumstances? Yes Must usage of all needles be covered by the Exposure Control Plan? Yes Name some factors that impact the quality of blood collection. Choose two. A. Ambient Temperature, Altitude B. Humidity, Sunlight C. All of the above D. None of the Above C Most evacuated tubes have shelf lives of: 2 months 4 months 8 months 12 months D Blood tubes can use several types of Anticoagulants. List three. Sodium Citrate Heparine K2, EDTA All are blood tube Anticoagulants. D True or False. Is the correct order of draw? Yellow, Light Blue,Gold, Red, Red, Orange, Green, Lavender, White, Gray True For general protocol a phlebotomist should.. D
A. Normal B. Hypotonic C. Hypertonic Diffusion is: A passive process whereby fluid moves through a semipermeable membrane Active transport is: Movement of a molecule against the concentration gradiant. Active transport requires: ATP Na/K pump is active or passive? Active Maintenance of a constant volume despite extracellular and intracellular osmotic challenges is critical to the integrity of a cell True In order to return cell volume to its normal resting state, how do cells respond? by swelling or shrinking by activating specific metabolic or processes What is essential for the normal function and survival of cells? Cell volume homeostasis What is highly pleomorphic and has bizarre cytologic features associated with malignant tumors? Anaplasia What is atrophy? decrease in the number or size of cells What has abnormal cytologic features and tissue organization Dysplasia What is hyperplasia The increase in the number of cells in a tissue What is hypertrophy The increase in the size of cells What is metaplasia It is the change from one adult cell type to another Organelles are functional units of a cell True What are the two central spots inside of the centrosomes. Centrioles What is the extensive lace-like network composed of membranes enclosing interconnecting cavities or cisterns called? Endoplasmic reticulum What are the 2 classifications of the endoplasmic reticulum? Rough and smooth Which part of the ER can the ribosomes be found? Rough sections What appears as a horseshoe-shaped or hook-shaped organelle with an associated stack of vesicles or sacs. Golgi apparatus What do lysosomes contain? Hydrolytic enzymes What are microbodies? small, intracytoplasmic organelles, limited by a single membrane that is thinner than the lysosome. What are microfilaments? solid structures, consisting of the protein actin and the larger myosin filaments What are microtubules? small, hollow fibers composed of polymerized, macromolecular protein
Polymerase Chain Reaction continued What are three important application of PCR? Amplification of DNA Identification of a target sequence Synthesis of a labeled antisense probe What is considered to be the “Gold Standard” method to which other molecular methods are compared? DNA Sequencing What hybridization methods are used for the detection of disorder in which the DNA sequence of the mutated region has been identified (sickle cell) Dot blot and reverse dot blot This hybridization method is used to detect mutations using allele-specific oligonucleotides (ASOs) Dot Blot Unlike other assays, the dot blot does not require which two parts of the procedure? Enzyme digestion Electrophoretic separation of DNA fragments What are the basic steps of the procedure? Labeled oligonucleotide probes of 15-19 base pairs are added. DNA is amplified in the region of the known mutations, denatured and applied to areas of membrane or filter. What is a Reverse Dot Blot? Variation of Dot Blot procedure How is the Reverse Dot Blot different? The ASO probes are bound to a filter and denatured DNA from the patient is added to the immobilized ASO. Hybridization occurs when base sequences are 100% complementary to the probe What is an example of a southern blot? This procedure is used for analysis of the proximal product of gene expression, mRNA. Cloned DNA probes can determine whether a given gene is expressed and, of so, how vigorously. Northern Blot Blotting Protocol This is a tissue-based molecular diagnostic assay. Common in situ hybridization (ISH), including fluorescent ISH (FISH), probes are used in the diagnosis of hematological malignancies in clouding CMLA, AML, Burkitt lymphoma and other lymphomas. In Situ Hybridization This gene expression profiling uses _____ analysis. A surface (in this example, a glass microscope slide) contains thousands of spots. Each spot contains a large number of DNA fragments. For each spot, the DNA fragments are derived from one Microarrays