The Suffers in the two river basins created a hieroglyph in 4000 BC, and gradually evolved into a widely used cuneiform in West Asia. About 1000 BC, Alamea, living in present-day Syria ( A. rameans), who learned the alphabet and script of Phoenicia. With the expansion of the military and the development of trade, the languages and characters of Alamea became widespread in West Asia hundreds of years later, and the cuneiform script was gradually replaced. What's wrong with the meaning? ['Suffers used cuneiform characters earlier than Arameans used neck-neck characters.', 'The cuneiform script has been widely used in West Asia, and the Phoenician script has been widely used since then.', "Phoenician's alphabet was first learned by Syrian Alameas.", 'The language of Arameans can be spread in West Asia, which is related to their military expansion and trade development.']