China, Russia and other countries were invited by Airbus to participate in the development and production of A350 aircraft. Among them, China will assume 5% of the design and manufacturing of A350 aircraft. This means that for every 100 Airbus aircrafts sold by Airbus in the future, 5 are made in China. which is the logic loophole in the above reasoning? ['China does not currently have the ability to manufacture aircraft independently.', '% of the projects undertaken by China are likely to be only parts manufacturing, not machine manufacturing.', 'China must cooperate with Russia and other countries to complete the manufacture of these 5 aircraft.', 'China, Russia and other countries are only invited to participate in R & D, but the actual manufacturing process has not yet started.']