That Shakespeare' s The Winter s Tale ( 1610-1611) is modeled after Euripides' Alcestis (fifth century B. C. ) seems undeniable. However, it is generally accepted that Shakespeare knew little or no Greek, so Euripides' original play would be an unlikely source. Thus, it seems most likely that Shakespeare came to know Euripides' play through a Latin translation. Which one of the following, if true, LEAST strengthens the argument? ['There is strong evidence to suggest that Shakespeare relied on Latin translations of Greek plays as sources for some of his other works.', "The only English language version of Alcestis available in Shakespeare's time differed drastically from the original in ways The Winter s Tale does not.", "Latin phrases that were widely used in England during Shakespeare's time appear in a number of his plays.", "Paul Buchanan's 1539 Latin translation of Alcestis was faithful to the original and widely available during the 1600s."]