The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic feature that is found in any of the arts. Premodern general theories of art, however, focused primarily on painting and sculpture. Every premodern general theory of art, even those that succeed as theories of painting and sculpture, fails to explain some aesthetic feature of music. The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following? ['A general theory of art that explains every aesthetic feature of music will achieve its purpose.', 'No premodern general theory of art achieves its purpose unless music is not art.', 'No premodern general theory of art explains any aesthetic features of music that are not shared with painting and sculpture.', 'Any general theory of art that explains the aesthetic features of painting also explains those of sculpture.']