There is a large area of wetlands with abundant natural gas in England. Environmentalists have been opposed to the exploitation of natural gas in wetlands. They believe that the exploitation of natural gas will destroy the ecological balance of English wetlands and its direct serious consequence is to pollute water sources. However, this worry is untenable According to relevant statistics in the past 50 years, there have been no reports of water pollution caused by the exploitation of natural gas. Which of the following, if true, would best strengthen the above argument? ['Natural gas has been extracted from wetlands in England for more than 100 years, and it has never caused water pollution.', 'England has sufficient capacity to control any pollution caused by the extraction of natural gas.', 'In England, there is no substantial difference between natural gas wetlands and unexploited wetlands.', 'In England, there is no substantial difference between the wetlands where natural gas is mined and before.']