In recent years, especially in first-tier cities, the proportion of buyers who bought first-hand new homes rather than second-hand homes has fallen, and some buyers believe that this is due to the rise in first-hand new home prices. As a basis for price increases, they use data to prove that Inflation adjustments, the purchase price paid by first-hand new home buyers is also much higher than the price of a few years ago. Of the following options, which of the following is the most convincing argument of the above buyers? ['The value of new home purchases drops much faster than the value of second-hand homes.', 'The decline in the proportion of buyers of new homes must mean that the proportion of buyers of second-hand homes has increased.', 'The relative increase in second-hand home sales may be explained by the decision of only a small percentage of all home buyers.', 'Data shows that second-hand housing buyers are paying far more for home purchases than they were a few years ago.']