If understanding a word always involves knowing its dictionary definition, then understanding a word requires understanding the words that occur in that definition. But clearly there are people -- for example, all babies -- who do not know the dictionary definitions of some of the words they utter. Which one of the following statements follows logically from the statements above? ['If it is possible to understand a word without knowing its dictionary definition, then it is possible to understand a word without having to understand any other word.', 'If some words can be understood without knowing their dictionary definitions, then babies understand some words.', 'Any number of people can understand some words without knowing their dictionary definitions.', 'If some babies understand all the words they utter, then understanding a word does not always involve knowing its dictionary definition.']