Grammarians have for years condemned as ungrammatical the English phrase "between you and I", insisting that the correct phrasing is "between you and me, " with the objective case after a preposition. Such condemnations, however, are obviously unfounded, because Shakespeare himself, in The Merchant of Venice, wrote, "All debts are cleared between you and I. " Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? ['The more modern an English word or phrase, the less likely that modern grammarians will consider it acceptable for formal usage.', 'In his plays, Shakespeare intentionally had some of his characters use phrases he considered ungrammatical.', 'The phrase "between you and I" appears infrequently in Shakespeare\'s writings.', 'Most native speakers of English who choose to say "between you and I" do so because they know that Shakespeare used that phrase.']