i note that one of the sources i found online which i linked to above makes the same statement indicating two sources for its article although i'm not sure whether this particular statement is sourced from them that link is again here i also note what seems to me to be a possibly dubious logical flaw in the above argument specifically whether the court case could be the only place in which an individual could be legally forced to do anything i cannot think of any other specific situations in which he might have been legally forced to make such a statement but i am not an expert in the law regarding such matters either i believe that if there are serious questions regarding this matter the better place for such discussion would probably be at the wp rsn or wp npovn and also perhaps contact editors at wp law or any editors with legal expertise to see if the possible flaw in the above logic is a real flaw