samev the spanish territories goberned by spanish kings count actually as spanish possesion at least those of philip ii charles i was the king of spain and he ruled mostly of europe being the emperor of spain and the hre the spanish empire have the same sense under charles v phillip ii it doesn't have sense to add the territories of phillip ii and not to add those of charles i since they had the same emprise and both were kings of spain and the most important thing spain became a powerful empire under charles i not under his son