i see from your argument that you are claiming that these two sources have not accurately defined the greek word yet according to my own copy of strong's exhaustive concordance of the bible fully updated and unabridged published by world copyright by james strong greek lexicon forty fifth printing page number their definitions are entirely accurate and reliable and completely agree i challenge you to present here your evidence that all three are wrong citing authoritative linguistic sources and peer reviews denouncing them as false and erroneous the three sources cited here even agree with brown driver briggs english hebrew lexicon on hebrew definitions it too has a reputation of reliable scholarship i do not believe you can prove that it too is in error your argument has no intelligence you lose