re the following passage christians have responded that the quranic verse in al a'raf clearly refers to the torah tawrat the book of isaiah is not part of the torah as it happens i think this criticism misplaced as by tawrat is plainly meant the tanakh as a whole just as injil is used to mean the whole of christian scripture it's also used in bukhari to refer to isaiah even so in a summary description of muslim claims what christians per se as opposed to academics think about this is off topic