right now it doesn't make sense to me it says strong pareto optimum is a movement from one allocation to another that can make at least one individual better off and a weak pareto optimum wpo satisfies a less stringent requirement in which a new allocation is only considered to be a pareto improvement if it is strictly preferred by all individuals surely being strictly preferred by all individuals is a more stringent outcome than being strictly preferred by one individual or am i misunderstanding what strictly preferred means