vania-janet/multiturn-rag-retrieval-data huggingface dataset:
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"I'm going to ignore your numbers to avoid spending the time to understand them. I'm just going to go over the basic moving parts of trading an upside down car against another financed car because I think you're conflating price and value. I'm also going to ignore taxes, and fees, and depreciation. The car has an acquisition cost (price) then it has a value. You pay the price to obtain this thing, then in the future it is worth what someone else will pay you. When you finance a car you agree to your $10,000 price, then you call up Mr. Bank and agree to pay 10% per year for 5 years on that $10,000. Mr. Banker wires over $10,000 and you drive home in your car. Say in a year you want a different car. This new car has a price of $20,000, and wouldn't you know it they'll even buy your current car from you. They'll give you $7,000 to trade in your current car. Your current car has a value of $7,000. You've made 12 payments of $188.71. Of those payments about $460 was interest, you now owe about $8,195 to Mr. Banker. The new dealership needs to send payment to Mr. Banker to get the title for your current car. They'll send the $7,000 they agreed to pay for your car. Then they'll loan you the additional $1,195 ($8,195 owed on the car minus $7,000 trade in value). Your loan on the new car will be for $21,195, $20,000 for the new car and $1,195 for the amount you still owed on the old car after the dealership paid you $7,000 for your old car. It doesn't matter what your down-payment was on the old car, it doesn't matter what your payment was before, it doesn't matter what you bought your old car for. All that matters is how much you owe on it today and how much the buyer (the dealership) is willing to pay you for it.
If you truly have > 22% equity, they have to stop it.  However, without an appraisal, how do you know if you have > 22% equity?  If you bought the house for 100k, and paid your mortgage down to 78k, but now the house is only worth 78k, you have 0% equity, not 22% equity.  Without an appraisal, you have no idea how much equity you have. Yeah, it sucks, but that's how equity is calculated: based on the current value, not the past value.
This should get interesting. BEA is a chronic under-performer, poorly managed and shareholders are suffering and Paul Singer is looking out for his shareholders. David Li has incredible political and social influence in HK and China. Elliott does not stand a chance. Paul Singer wants David to bow out with two times BEA’s current book value, and everyone would win but David's ego is not calculated into this equation.
"As I understand it, Implied Volatility represents the expected gyrations of an options contract over it's lifetime.  No, it represents that expected movement of the underlying stock, not the option itself.  Yes, the value of the option will move roughly in the same direction the value of the stock, but that's not what IV is measuring. I even tried staring at the math behind the Options pricing model to see if that could make more sense for me but that didn't help. That formula is correct for the Black-Scholes model - and it is not possible (or at least no one has done it yet) to solve for s to create a closed-form equation for implied volatility.  What most systems do to calculate implied volatility is plug in different values of s (standard deviation) until a value for the option is found that matches the quoted market value ($12.00 in this example).  That's why it's called ""implied"" volatility - the value is implied from market prices, not calculated directly. The thing that sticks out to me is that the ""last"" quoted price of $12 is outside of the bid-ask spread of $9.20 to $10.40, which tells me that the underlying stock has dropped significantly since the last actual trade.   If the Implied Vol is calculated based on the last executed trade, then whatever algorithm they used to solve for a volatility that match that price couldn't find a solution, which then choose to show as a 0% volatility.   In reality, the volatility is somewhere between the two neighbors of 56% and 97%, but with such a short time until expiry, there should be very little chance of the stock dropping below $27.50, and the value of the option should be somewhere around its intrinsic value (strike - stock price) of $9.18."
No, it won't go on the front page because it uses bullshit math and reveals a deep lack of understanding of how the numbers are calculated. The unemployment rate is calculated from the Current Population Survey as well as the participation rate. To add to the unemployment rate of one month/survey by calculating the participation rate from a different month/survey is very problematic.  If you are looking to include those who have stopped looking for a job because of poor job prospects, you could try using the U5 unemployment estimate. The U5 number includes those who have recently stopped looking for a job. It only goes back a year for the respondents, but at least it is comparable because it is in the same month/survey.  The author also states that the U6 unemployment estimate should be 20% without explaining why it can be calculated like that. I don't think the participation rate can be used to suggest that the U6 is higher than it is when the U6 already takes into account a large percent of those that have stopped looking for economic reasons.
Does the Insurance value differ from state to state (for example I've a car in Hawaii and there is another car in Illinois with same model, make and same features), does the Insurance vary for both? Yes, quotes will vary based on where you live for various reasons, (propensity for accidents, value of cars, etc.), and state laws regarding required car insurance can vary. How is the insurance quote calculated? It's likely a proprietary formula that the insurance company will not disclose. If they did, they could be giving away a competitive advantage. However, like all insurance, the goal is to determine the probability of the insured having an accident, and the projected cost of such an accident.  That will be based on actuarial tables for each of the risk factors you mention.
How S&P 500 returns are calculated is jotted down here. You should follow the same methodology i.e. base-weighted aggregate methodology to calculate your own returns. Anything different and it would be an incorrect comparison.
No.    Net profit is calculated after taxes. Loan interest is an expense, so it will result in the company paying less taxes (it acts as a tax shield), so net profit should still be positive. How much will depend on tax and interest rate.    Only the portion of the $1.000.000 that correspond to interest is an expense. Principal payments are not.
If this is a one to one share exchange with added cash to make up the difference in value, you're getting 1 share of XYZ plus $19.20 in cash for each share of ABC.   They calculated the per share price they're offering ($36) and subtracted the value of XYZ share at the time of the offer ($16.80) to get the cash part ($19.20).   The value of XYZ after is subject to investor reaction.  Nobody can accurately predict stock values.  If you see the price dropping, owners of XYZ are selling because they feel that they no longer wish to own XYZ.  If XYZ is rising, investors feel like the merger is a positive move and they are buying (or the company is buying back shares). Bottom line is the cash is a sure thing, the stock is not.  You called it a merger, but it's actually a takeover.  My advice is to evaluate both stocks, see if you wish to continue owning XYZ, and determine whether you'd rather sell ABC or take the offer.  The value of ABC afterwards, if you decline the offer, is something that I cannot advise you on.
You're correct. The VIX price is calculated based on the price of all of SPX options which are expiring (IIRC 2) weeks after the expiration of that VIX contract. It's an index measuring implied vol not realized vol.  VIX futures/options are calculated slightly differently than the VIX index.
&gt; This adds up to $260 million in additional annual earnings within the Wisconsin economy. ...it isn't out of the realm of possibility that attracting this new plant will end up being a worthwhile plan for Wisconsin.  Can you explain how this could be worthwhile? You calculated $260M in annual earnings. Assuming Wisconsin's state income tax is 5% that is $13M in annual state revenue. At that rate, the state makes back its initial tax breaks in... 230 years.
It depends on your bank and the details in the agreement, but typically, interest is calculated daily. So if you borrow 1000 EUR for 1 day, you pay 15% * 1000 EUR * 1/360 = 42 Cent (41.666667 cent to be exact). You can simply multiply these 42 cent up with the number of days you plan and the number of 1000s EUR. Note that weekend days count too, even if you cannot pay them back on the weekend. The exact value will be very slightly different, as the interest is added monthly to the principal, and there is compound interest on the interest. Banks also often consider all months 30 days long for interest calculations.
Ya idk..I initially thought a moving average but that can't be it since when price crosses below trend line we see trend line continues to increase. https://villavu.com/forum/showthread.php?t=112371 but this says that it is in fact a monthly average. I don't see how that is possible, as adding a number below the average of a set to that set should decrease the average. People say 'the mean chases the margin,' not a fan of that terminology myself though.  Edit: ah wait the yellow line is daily average, not price. If monthly average is calculated on close price, then this is possible.  **so the answer then is the trend line is the monthly average**.
It would be worth looking at their details as they will outline clearly what the 2% is on. Having said that the 2% will probably be on the value of the portfolio at the time the charge is calculated. (It might be that they don't levy this on the cash section of portfolio, it might be that they do.) They will usually make you sign a direct debit form so that they can take the fees straight from you. There are much better deals around than this, 2% is a huge fee if you had an portfolio that is worth £100,000 after some years the fees they would be charging you would be £2,000 a year. it's worth shopping around for a better deal, as it can prove costly to change ISA provider at later date.
Standard Deviation is a mathematical term that is useful in many areas. It can be considered a measure of how tight the data points are to the average. If there is consistency in the measurement system, then a point that is two standard from the average can be considered an outlier. It doesn't even need to be time based. We can say that a child born weighing less than X pounds is more than 2 standard deviations below the average.  Using it to look at a price or an index value doesn't make a lot of sense because many expect there to be long term growth. For example you would never say that you will buy a new jacket for your child when they are two standard deviations above their average height. You can say you will buy or sell a financial instrument when the P/E ratio is 2 standard deviations from some average. It could be the average of the long term history, or the index, or the sector. You could do the same thing for earnings per share or many other business of financial statistics. A standard deviation calculated from a time series assumes that the measurement will normally stay withing some bounds. And that straying from those bounds is a sign of the right time to buy or sell.
Biweekly pay for salaried employees is typically calculated as Annual-salary / 26. Twice a month pay for salaried employees is typically calculated as Annual-salary / 24. If you were getting paid twice a month and now are getting paid every other week, your paycheck will be roughly ( Twice-a-month-paycheck-amount * 24 / 26 ).  If you were paid $1000 twice a month, you'll be paid $923 every other week.   $1000 * 24 = $24K and $923 * 26 = $24K.   You will get paid every other week regardless of month boundaries on a biweekly pay cycle.
"From Amazon's Site:  ""If an item is subject to sales tax in the state to which the order is shipped, tax is generally calculated on the total selling price of each individual item."" I'm going to trust a company of this size has this correct. Shipping address."
The interest in your account is usually calculated based on the average monthly balance. What the bank will do is try to figure out how much money did you have on average over the month and give you interest on that amount. For example, if you had 10k on deposit and took it out half way through the month, you will still receive interest on about 5k, based on a monthly rate. What I would do is read in detail your agreement with the bank to figure out if your interest is based on an average annual balance and is paid at the end of the year or if it is based on a different measurement. Also, I would be very careful if this is a CD account, since they will have early withdrawal fees. Hope this helps.
"Taking the last case first, this works out exactly. (Note the Bank of England interest rate has nothing to do with the calculation.) The standard loan formula for an ordinary annuity can be used (as described by BobbyScon), but the periodic interest rate has to be calculated from an effective APR, not a nominal rate.  For details, see APR in the EU and UK, where the definition is only valid for effective APR, as shown below. 2003 BMW 325i £7477 TYPICAL APR 12.9% 60 monthly payments £167.05 How does this work? See the section Calculating the Present Value of an Ordinary Annuity.  The payment formula is derived from the sum of the payments, each discounted to present value. I.e. The example relates to the EU APR definition like so.  Next, the second case doesn't make much sense (unless there is a downpayment). 2004 HONDA CIVIC 1.6 i-VTEC SE 5 door Hatchback £6,999 £113.15 per month ""At APR 9.9% [as quoted in advert], 58 monthly payments"" 58 monthly payments at 9.9% only amount to £5248.75 which is £1750.25 less than the price of the car. Finally, the first case is approximate. 2005 TOYOTA COROLLA 1.4 VVTi 5 door hatchback £7195 From £38 per week ""16.1% APR typical, a 60 month payment, 260 weekly payments"" A weekly payment of £38 would imply an APR of 14.3%."
"One option is to look at the IRS Witholding Calculator - As George Marian notes, this is by no means a perfect way to ""estimate"" how much you'll owe.  Other key questions for you to answer: There's no silver bullet here. The best you can do is to understand the key inputs into how your taxes are calculated, and then identify the most important tax deductions that you might take. Then pray that you haven't missed some nuance and use a tax program early in January to check your assumptions so you're not completely surprised when April rolls around.  A final suggestion: do your own taxes using a website like TurboTax. Take the time to ""itemize"" your tax deductions just to learn what is tax deductible. You can figure out how the big parts of tax law works by just looking at what you could deduct in the future."
Despite my previous claim to not respond to crank messages, no, you are also spectacularly ignorant of the basics about how inflation is calculated.  The Department of Labor Statistics has an army of people going into retail each month to evaluate comparables.  Heads of lettuce, gallons of milk and twinkies are not, in fact, 4x smaller than they were in 2007 and even if they were, DLS corrects for it.
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"A qualifying distribution seems guaranteed to fall under long term capital gains. But a disqualifying distribution could also fall under long term capital gains depending on when it is sold. So what's the actual change that occurs once something becomes a qualifying as opposed to a disqualifying distribution? Yes a qualifying distribution always falls under long term capital gain. The difference between qualifying and disqualifying is how the ""bargain element"" of benefit is calculated. In case of disqualifying distribution it is always the discount offered, Irrespective of the final sale price of the stock. In case of qualifying distribution it is lower of actual discount or profit. Thus if you sell the stock at same price or slightly lower price than the price on exercise date, your ""bargain element"" is less. This is not the case with disqualifying distribution."
"Compounding is just the notion that the current period's growth (or loss) becomes the next period's principal. So, applied to stocks, your beginning value, plus growth (or loss) in value, plus any dividends, becomes the beginning value for the next period. Your value is compounded as you measure the performance of the investment over time. Dividends do not participate in the compounding unless you reinvest them.  Compound interest is just the principle of compounding applied to an amount owed, either by you, or to you. You have a balance with which a certain percentage is calculated each period and is added to the balance. The new balance is used to calculate the next period's interest, which again adds to the balance, etc. Obviously, it's better to be on the receiving end of a compound interest calculation than on the paying end. Interest bearing investments, like bonds, pay simple interest. Like stock dividends, you would have to invest the interest in something else in order to get a compounding effect. When using a basic calculator tool for stocks, you would include the expected average annual growth rate plus the expected annual dividend rate as your ""interest"" rate. For bonds you would use the coupon rate plus the expected rate of return on whatever you put the interest into as the ""interest"" rate. Factoring in risk, you would just have to pick a different rate for a simple calculator, or use a more complex tool that allows for more variables over time. Believe it or not, this is where you would start seeing all that calculus homework pay off!"
"An ""asset"" is something which you own that has a monetary value. Some examples would be your car, your house, the money in your wallet, and yes the pile of gold in your garage. Assets also include intangible things such as money owed to you for instance; although these are calculated somewhat differently. ""liabilities"" are what you owe. For instance, your car loan, your mortgage, and your student loan. Liabilities can also include future debts which you may not be paying at the moment."
The example from the following website: Investopedia - Calculating The Present And Future Value Of Annuities  specifically the section 'Calculating the Present Value of an Annuity Due' shows how the calculation is made.  Using their figures, if five payments of $1000 are made over five years and depreciation (inflation) is 5%, the present value is $4545.95  There is also a formula for this summation, (ref. finance formulas)
Points are the units of measurement of the index. They're calculated based on the index formula, which in turn based on the prices of the underlying stocks. Movement in points is not really interesting, the movement as a percentage of the base price (daily opening, usually) is more interesting since it gives more context.
Your understanding is incorrect.  The date of record is when you have to own the stock by.  The ex-dividend date is calculated so that transaction before that date settles in time to get you listed as owner by the date of record. If you buy the stock before the ex-dividend date, you get the dividend.  If you buy it on or after the ex-dividend date, the seller gets the dividend.
"&gt;""Those measures all reflect a new way of measuring VaR though, one that switches the model from a four-year look to just one year, removing the rocky years of 2008 and 2009 from the current measure""  VAR is a measure of how much money can be lost in a given time period within certain constraints. For most banks it is the maximum that can be lost within day in a 99% confidence interval. So in layman terms on average only 1 in 100 days will more money be lost than the VAR.   VAR is calculated using historical data. It uses the historical data to build up a profile of scenarios and probability of occurrence. Armed with the knowledge of how much is lost in each of these scenarios and the probability of it occurring a VAR can be estimated. MS have essentially stopped including the last 4 years since they are far more volatile and are only including the last year since it has been relatively calm. It is essentially cheating. It is choosing the data to fit your needs and is statistical heresy."
To make you happy. The thing is, if they split 10 for 1, its still the exact same value in total. There are just more shares that are worth 35 instead of 350each. You need to know things like how many shares there are &lt;the float&gt; how rapidly the company is growing. If it has earnings at all and how much. There is a lot more to the value of a company than the price of the stock alone.
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What's the relative contribution? extra ~50B in demand is interesting but versus 30T total value for US residential we'd need to know how non-foreign demand compares. That extra growth is just 0.17% of total value. Not a big piece particularly.