vania-janet/multiturn-rag-retrieval-data huggingface dataset:
Medicare has lower overhead expenses than private insurers do (again, my guess: greater economies of scale and lower advertising and marketing costs, coupled with no profit motive). [Even health insureres themselves agree (.pdf warning)](http://www.cahi.org/cahi_contents/resources/pdf/CAHI_Medicare_Admin_Final_Publication.pdf) that Medicare has lower overhead costs, and that includes some questionable addition of what the authors claim are hidden Medicare expenses. I'm inclined to believe that a single-payer is probably more efficient and cheaper than a fragmented private insurance market. That said, I also find some sympathy to the argument that maintaining a robust private insurance market may spur innovation on payor innovation (e.g., increased participation in wellness programs for enrollees, or increasing the likelihood that patients be more sensitive to costs and benefits when seeking care). After all, countries like Germany and Switzerland are able to maintain a private insurance market while ensuring nearly universal coverage. Either way, though, arguing that health inflation alone makes single payer systems ""mathematicaly unsustainable"" isn't a strong argument, since private insurers are currently doing **worse** on cost containment."
Looks like it is a 20% penalty on the withdrawal (along with income tax).  Funds can be withdrawn for any reason, but withdrawals that are not for documented qualified medical expenses are subject to income taxes and a 20% penalty. The 20% tax penalty is waived for persons who have reached the age of 65 or have become disabled at the time of the withdrawal. Then, only income tax is paid on the withdrawal  Wikipedia HSA article Even though you are leaving the country, you still earned and contributed to the plan while you were working/living, so it is still subject to the taxes/laws in place. On a somewhat related note, check out this question here, as it may help you out a bit (similar but not really duplicate) - How do I withdraw all money from my HSA account as a non-resident?
I recently paid-off $40k in student loan debt. One of the motivations for me to accelerate my payments was that over time, as my income increased, the amount of student loan interest I could write-off on taxes started to phase-out.
I've seen many buyouts in my own portfolio, including the company I worked for.  There have been several different scenarios: The terms of the deal are subject to the deal -- frankly whatever makes sense to the buyer and that is accepted by the seller. So sometimes brokers charge reorganization fees.  check into those for your broker.  I've not seen one in a while, but my brokerage account is substantial, and often that's a perk they offer higher-value accounts. Also watch out for taxes.  The transaction where my employer was bought by another publicly traded company -- we got bit because the IRS treated it as a taxable transaction, and all our RSUs were effectively sold and then repurchased.  So we ended up with a big tax bill (capital gains) without any cash to offset the big tax bill.  I suspect its because my old employer was a US based company, whereas the new company is not.
"@MrChrister, Budgeting is really about planning your spending. Many programs and most advice will tell you that budgeting is tracking your expenses. That's only the first part. Track your expenses for about a month to figure out what you plan to spend in the future.  Your budget is then just a list of things you're going to buy or pay for with the money you have at the moment. I recommend creating a budget every time you get some money, keeping an eye out for future expenses you may need to save for. The envelopes are for those expense that you are going to use cash for. The envelopes make you plan to spend a specific amount of money, the money you put in them and no more. Envelopes protect you from overspending. I use ""envelopes"", that is, paperclips or sticky notes or different sections of my wallet, to organize my cash. I use cash for things I'm going to buy in person: gasoline, groceries, eating out, the movies, home improvement stuff, buying birthday presents. These are my ""envelope"" expenses. I use one check a month to pay rent. I use my online banking to pay most of my bills automatically (like school loan and Netflix). And I use the actual websites of those companies who I want to pay manually (like utilities, b/c those change every month). Does that help? Nathon HouseholdBudgetNerd.com Family Budgets for Both of Us"
Stock markets have not been the cause of any of the problems. They display the symptoms of the problems, but they don't cause them.  The problems have been caused by the corruption of government (lobbying and political donations), insufficient, excessive and inappropriate regulation, and ignorance on the part of those who vote (demanding more services and less taxes and worrying more about wedge issues than sound governance).
It's more about ending the policy of perpetually low interest rates, which makes borrowing/debt artificially cheap for the private sector. Higher interest rates will encourage savings and thus a rebuilding of capital for wealth generation. The effects would not be immediate but would have a better end result.  Federal savings could help the economy too if taxes were lowered correspondingly. Or even if taxes weren't lowered and the government didn't borrow as much from the fed, the money supply would increase less and prices would be lower than they otherwise would, increasing the purchasing power and therefore the wealth of the citizenry.
Yes, rebalancing with new money avoids capital gains taxes and loads (although if you're financially literate enough to be thinking about rebalancing techniques, I'm surprised to hear that you're invested in funds with loads). On the other hand, if it's taking you years to rebalance, then: (a) you are not rebalancing anywhere near frequently enough.  Rebalancing should be something you do every 6 months or 1 year, such that it would take only a few weeks or maybe a month of new investment to get back in balance. (b) you will be out-of-balance for quite a long time, while the whole point of the theory of rebalancing is to always be mathematically prepared for swings in the market.  Any time spent out of balance represents that much more risk that an unexpected market move can seriously hurt your portfolio. You should weigh the time it will take you to rebalance the long way (i.e. the risk cost of not rebalancing immediately) vs. the taxes and fees involved in rebalancing quickly.  If you had said that it would take you only a couple weeks or a month to rebalance the long way, I would say that the long way is fine.  But the prospect of spending years without a balanced portfolio seems far more costly to me than any expenses you might incur rebalancing quickly. Since it's almost the end of the calendar year, have you considered doing two quick rebalances, one this year, and another in January?  That way half of the tax consequences would happen in April, and the other half not until the next April, giving you plenty of time to scrounge up the money.  Also, even if you have no capital losses this year with which to offset some of your expected capital gains, you would have all of next year to harvest some losses against next year's half of the rebalancing gains.
Economic efficiency is overrated. I would rather give money to a charity that spent 15% on human resources and 10% on marketing to get $10 million in incoming donations than to a charity with an 8% expense rate that receives $1 million in incoming donations.
I've been a P2P Lending investor for ~18 months now with Lending Club with no complaints. Money wise, I'm making a 15.6% NAR w/ ~270 notes. I've had a few late payers, and one couple (oddly enough in both are in law enforcement) declare Ch.13 Bankruptcy, but b/c I've invested as little money as possible into each note ($25/note), my diversification helps reduce volatility and risk to capital.  Having tough underwriting standards is very important, but I think it all comes down to loaning only to those you think will pay you back, not someone with a sob story or a long history of defaults. That might sound like a no-brainer, but if you're a bit of a cynic and have really tough screening criteria, it's possible to lower your default rate if you're patient and deploy your money slowly over time. At least, my returns and default rate of zero would imply it's possible so far. I blog about it quite a bit, so if anyone wants to check out my Lending Club investments thus far, please check it out. (Apologies if this is considered spam since I'm a new member of the site, but thought it relevant to the discussion.)
Since you already have established a set of expenses, most importantly your rent. Blair Hodgson DuQuesnay said, “You don’t want to spend more than one-third of your take-home pay on your housing, whether that’s rent or a mortgage. With almost everything else, you can work from there.” She also recommends that your static bills — housing, utilities, and other fixed expenses that recur monthly — don’t take up more than 50% of your budget. If you can keep them even lower than 50%, like, say 40% or 35%, you’ll have even more spending money for everything from food to clothing to savings. So basically, it is time to start to be worried if you are exceeding half of your budget on your expenses. Forbes has an excellent article on how new grads can plan to budget their money.
A tax liability account is a common thing. In my own books I track US-based social insurance (Medicare and Social Security) using such an account.  At the time I pay an employee, a tax liability is incurred, increasing my tax liability account; at the same time, on the other end of the double-entry, I increase a tax expense account. Notably, though, the US IRS does not necessarily require that the tax is paid at the time it is incurred.  In my case I incur a liability twice a month, but I only have to pay the taxes quarterly.  So, between the time of incurring and the time of remitting/paying, the amount is held in the tax liability account.  At the time that I remit payment to the IRS, the transaction will decrease both my checking account and also, on the other end of the double-entry, my liability account. To answer your question in short, use an expense account for your other-side-account.
Well, I can tell you that Micro Center has my business because they still cater to enthusiasts. Their price on my 750W PSU was lower than online prices so I drove an hour out of the way to pick it up and bought a whole bunch of other stuff on the way out. I think I spent something like $600.   As to how their price was lower than online prices, I have no idea.
Can you examine you budget and find areas where you can save? When you were making $75K/year or $30K/year, you certainly had lower expenses and a smaller expense budget - can you reduce your expenses to a more modest level? Can you go on a 'budget diet'? This would be the advice Dave Ramsey (and others) would give. You probably have $6400/month income (net after taxes), which using the LearnVest approach would give you three budget categories. Modify the approach to allocate more for financial priorities (paying down debt) until you have the credit cards under control. I have estimated below, Essentials (50%, $3200) Financial (30%, $1920) Lifestyle (20%, $1280) Some suggestions, The Debt Snowball approach works. Driving a cheaper car works. Scaling back on monthly lifestyle expenses works. Slash your expenses for a year - cut back on everything, and pay off some of that debt. You really need to manage this situation with a focus on reducing that unsecured debt to a manageable level. Consider a reputable debt repayment plan.
You can claim simplified expenses for vehicles, if you are a sole trader or partner, but not if you claim capital allowances (such as writing down allowances) on them, or you include a separate expense in your accounts for motoring expenses. It's a flat rate of 45p a mile for the first 10,000 miles, and 25p per mile after that, for cars, and 24p a mile for motorcycles. See the HRMC page on Simplifed Mileage expenses for details. For any vehicle you decide to either claim capital allowances claim running costs separately, or claim simplified mileage expenses, and ""Once you use the flat rates for a vehicle, you must continue to do so as long as you use that vehicle for your business.you have to stick with that decision for that vehicle"". In your case, it seems you can claim 95% of the purchase price in the accounting period you buy it, and if you sell it you add 95% of the sale price to your profits in that accounting period. It gets more complicated if you have a car worth more than £1000, adjusted for the length of the accounting period. Also, if you change how you use it, consult the page on selling selling an asset, as you may have disposed of it. You can also use simplified mileage expenses, but then you can't claim capital allowances, or claim running costs separately for that car. I hope that makes sense, please comment if not, and I'll try to adjust the explanation."
The metric I prefer is net worth, minus the value of your home, then divide by your annual expenses.  The house is subtracted because you need to live somewhere, so its worth isn't part of retirement savings. I divide by expenses to create result that really answers how close one is to being able to retire. The target is to have 25X your required spending gap. Note, as you close in on retirement, and social security is still in place, you can use it in your planning. If I were in my 20s or 30s today, I wouldn't use it in my numbers.
"Since these indices only try to follow VIX and don't have the underlying constituents (as the constituents don't really exist in most meaningful senses) they will always deviate from the exact numbers but should follow the general pattern. You're right, however, in stating that the graphs that you have presented are substantially different and look like the indices other than VIX are always decreasing. The problem with this analysis is that the basis of your graphs is different; they all start at different dates... We can fix this by putting them all on the same graph:  this shows that the funds did broadly follow VIX over the period (5 years) and this also encompasses a time when some of the funds started. The funds do decline faster than VIX from the beginning of 2012 onward and I had a theory for why so I grabbed a graph for that period. My theory was that, since volatility had fallen massively after the throes of the financial crisis there was less money to be made from betting on (investing in?) volatility and so the assets invested in the funds had fallen making them smaller in comparison to their 2011-2012 basis.  Here we see that the funds are again closely following VIX until the beginning of 2016 where they again diverged lower as volatility fell, probably again as a result of withdrawals of capital as VIX returns fell. A tighter graph may show this again as the gap seems to be narrowing as people look to bet on volatility due to recent events. So... if the funds are basically following VIX, why has VIX been falling consistently over this time? Increased certainty in the markets and a return to growth (or at least lower negative growth) in most economies, particularly western economies where the majority of market investment occurs, and a reduction in the risk of European countries defaulting, particularly Portugal, Ireland, Greece, and Spain; the ""PIGS"" countries has resulted in lower volatility and a return to normal(ish) market conditions. In summary the funds are basically following VIX but their values are based on their underlying capital. This underlying capital has been falling as returns on volatility have been falling resulting in their diverging from VIX whilst broadly following it on the new basis."
Budget means both expenses and revenue. In quite a few cases, say personal finance, typically one refers to budget more from expenses point of view as the revenue is typically fixed/known [mostly salary].   The Operating budget and capital budget are laid out separately as Operating budget gives out day to day expenses that are typically essential, employee salaries, routine maintenance of infrastructure etc. The revenue is also tied in to match this. These are done within the same year. Where as capital budget is to build new infrastructure say a new bridge or other major expense that are done over period of years. The revenues to this are typically tied up differently and can even be linked to getting more funding from other agencies or loans.
Alright, IRS Publication 463: Travel, Entertainment, Gift, and Car Expenses Business and personal use. If you use your   car for both business and personal purposes,   you must divide your expenses between business   and personal use. You can divide your expense   based on the miles driven for each purpose. Example. You are a sales representative   for a clothing firm and drive your car 20,000   miles during the year: 12,000 miles for business   and 8,000 miles for personal use. You can   claim only 60% (12,000 ÷ 20,000) of the cost of   operating your car as a business expense Obviously nothing helpful in the code.  So I would use option 1, weight the maintenance-related mileage by the proportion of business use.  Although if you use your car for business a lot (and perhaps have a spouse with a car), an argument could be made for 3.  So I would consider my odds of being audited (even lower this year due to IRS budget cuts) and choose 1 or 3. And of course never throw anything away until you're room temperature.
If this happens then you could check the chart again after market close to see if it is still worthwhile to place a new order for the next day. On the 29th July 2015 the stock did open higher at $8.42 (which is where my order got executed) and closed at $8.46. So I ended up buying slightly above my target price but it did move higher on the day, so a successful entry overall. I had placed my initial stop loss at $8.09 (just below the low of the previous day of $8.10). If the trade had gone against me in the following days the most I would have lost was 1% of my total account capital. My target for this trade was $9.86 (just below the resistance line near $10), which would represent a 5% gain against my total account capital (or approx. 16.7% gain on the trade). So my win to loss ratio was 5:1. As you can see from the chart, the next day gapped up at the open and prices continued moving up strongly during the day. The next day was a slightly negative day, and then a few days later, on the 5th August 2015 my target price of $9.86 was reached (with a high of $9.88 for that day), so my order was closed for a total profit of 16.7% on the face value of the trade. However, as I bought on margin (using CFDs) my actual profit on the initial margin I had invested was 167%. My total time in the trade was 7 days, and I spent about an hour in the evening doing my searches and placing my orders, then less than 10 minutes managing the trade each evening after market close. The stock did go up a bit further after my profit target was reached, but the day after that the price started to fall as the price hit the resistance line and the Slow Stochastic did a crossover in the overbought area. Overall, this was a very ideal trade and I was very happy with it. Not all my trades reach my profit targets and I may get stopped out at a smaller profit or I might make a small loss (as I move my stops up as the price moves up).
"What options do I have to transfer money to UK from Pakistan ? You can do a SWIFT / International Wire. Most Banks in Pakistan will allow you to do this. Note: Pakistan still Manages Forex and it is not freely convertible. You would need to comply with Foreign Exchange Act. You have to fill Form ""M"" giving the details and purpose of remittance.  In these 5 years they bought 2 properties on my name for me worth around £12000 x 2 = £24K, based on currency conversion rate of that time. You would need to pay capital gains on this sale in Pakistan. You would also need to declare this gain in UK and pay taxes accordingly. Some relief can be claimed under DTAA [Dual Tax Avoidance Agreement]"
I want to know whether the money I transferred to my NRI Account is taxable. No taxes. As you were NRI the funds you earn are not taxable in India irrespective of whether you transfer to India or keep it in Saudi. You can transfer this back to India anytime in 7 years after you become Resident Indian. I was a NRI in Saudi Arabia from Nov 2009 to October 2011. For the financial year 1 April 2009 to 31 March 2010, you would be treated as resident Indian and you Global income would be taxed. i.e. your income in Saudi from Nov 2009 to March 2010 would be taxed in India. You can claim DTAA. Whether I have to file my returns for those 2 yrs.  Ideally Yes. If you have not done, please consult a CA for advice.
Taxability does not depending on transfer of money to NRO. It depending on your tax status in India. Assuming you have spent more than 182 days outside India for the financial year 1 April 2015 to 31 March 2016, you would be NRI. I am transferring money from my Maldives saving account to my Indian Saving account(NRO). Will it be taxable in India? Assuming you are NRI, this is not taxable. Any interest in NRO account is taxable in India. Again I am transferring the money from my Indian savings account to my dad's Indian saving account. Will it be taxable? This is not taxable to you. To your father it would be treated as Gift. As per Gift tax, this is not taxable to your father as well. If the amount is large, keep proper documentation of the transaction. Any income that is generated i.e. interest etc on this amount will be taxable to your father.
Don't do it.  I would sell one of my investment houses and use the equity to pay down your primary mortgage.  Then I would refinance my primary mortgage in order to lower the payments.
Assuming you are NRI, any income you earn is not taxable in India whether you transfer to India or not. Is this amount taxable in India? If yes then how much I have to pay as tax. No it is not taxable. How to fixed Deposit this money from Saudi Arabia or from India through my husband or parents? You can open Fixed Deposits in your name or your husband/parents name. It is your choice. Some Banks allow you to operate an NRE account via Internet If I put this money in 2-3 FD's (like 5 lakh one FD and 2 or 3 lakh other FD's) then the interest earned is taxable? Interest is taxable.  Can I withdraw any FD without maturity if needed in urgent? That depends on type of FD you have opened. Some allow withdrawal before maturity with a penalty other don't allow.
I keep visiting Dubai Not sure what kind of work it is, assuming it regular job. For the period mentioned above I was out of India for more than 182 days,  If you were out of India for more than 182 days in a given financial year then you would NRI for tax purposes. till date I have not transferred any money from Dubai to my India account. Whether you have transferred the money or not is not relevant for tax purposes. Your status [NRI / Resident] is relevant. Do I need to declare the income I have earned in Dubai? No you are not required to as your status is NRI. You are required to file a return on the income [Salary/Interest/gains/etc] accruing in India. Do I need to change my residential status ? Not sure where you are wanting to change this. Will the income I have earned in Dubai is taxable ? As you are NRI, the income earned outside of India is not taxable in India. From a tax point of view, it does not matter whether you keep the funds in Dubai or transfer it back to India. Edit: The Income Tax rules are not very clear if your wife can claim for her father-in-law. Best consult a CA. For quite a few regulations, Wife's father-in-law are treated at par with father.