vania-janet/multiturn-rag-retrieval-data huggingface dataset:
So what about the person who wins the lottery, was he or she not lucky?   Luck 100% exists. Maybe some people are able to better manage the amount that luck impacts their life, but no matter what luck plays a huge factor. You could one day be walking down the street and get hit by a drunk driver or you could have been born with a mental disorder - since most things are out of your control the result is that there are countless other events which could have occurred and would have stopped you from being where you are.   Does this mean you don't deserve credit for taking advantage of your lucky situation? Obviously not, you did take advantage, and you do deserve credit, but to think you are in control of every possible outcome is ridiculous.
They always expire sometime, and they are a scam.  I recommend you unload any on ebay as soon as you get them.  For this one in articular, just ask to see a manager and explain your situation politely.  You'll usually get what you want.
"Can anyone explain why the analyst is writing off goodwill, please?  I would have thought that the HP brand would be worth something for some years to come, that some section of the market will continue saying ""well, it's an HP laptop, it must be decent quality"" and ""you can rely on HP printers"" for the foreseeable future. Or is that something else?"
"If you are a telecommuter and in good terms with your employer, then all you need is contact your employer and explain your situation. Ask them for a short letter that indicates: ""1. they require you to work from a privately rented office (or from a home office for those who prefer working from home), 2. this is one of the terms of your employment, and, 3. they will not reimburse you for this expense."" With this letter in your hand, you satisify both the ""convenience of employer"" test AND the deduction of the rent for your private office as a unreimbursed employee expense.  The IRS cannot expect your employer to open an office branch in your city just for your sake, nor can they expect you to commute to your employer's city for work, which is an impossiblity considering the distance. Additionally, the IRS cannot ""force"" telecommuters to work from home. The key is to get a letter from your employer. You'd be surprised how easily they are willing to write such letter for you."
"To perhaps better explain the ""why"" behind this rule of thumb, first think of what it means when the P/E ratio changes.  If the P/E ratio increases, then this means the stock has become more expensive (in relative terms)--for example, an increase in the price but no change in the earnings means you are now paying more for each cent of earnings than you previously were; or, a decrease in the earnings but no change in the price means you are now paying the same for less earnings. Keeping this in mind, consider what happens to the PE ratio when earnings increase (grow)-- if the price of the stock remains the same, then the stock has actually become relatively ""cheaper"", since you are now getting more earnings for the same price.  All else equal, we would not expect this to happen--instead, we would expect the price of the stock to increase as well proportionate to the earnings growth.  Therefore, a stock whose PE ratio is growing at a rate that is faster than its earnings are growing is becoming more expensive (the price paid per cent of earnings is increasing).  Similarly, a stock whose PE ratio is growing at a slower rate than its earnings is becoming cheaper (the price paid per cent of earnings is decreasing).  Finally, a stock whose P/E ratio is growing at the same rate as its earnings are growing is retaining the same relative valuation--even though the actual price of the stock may be increasing, you are paying the same amount for each cent of the underlying company's earnings."
I do! What are you trying to explain to me?  The situation (as I understand it) is that GS bought a bunch of PDVSA debt in May, on the secondary market. New sanctions went into effect a few days ago on new debt issued by VZ or entities like PDVSA. So GS did a deal in May that would still technically be allowed today.  It was a dirty move then, and its a dirty move now. But legal.  So, what did I miss?
&gt; The reason that the minimum wage exists is because of protectorate and nationalist business practices, nothing more. It may be a good thing, and a right thing, and I agree that it is, but it isn't because of compassion. It's because at the time that the concept of minimum wage was negotiated and discussed, there wasn't really such a thing as outsourcing. Companies could not outsource their labour to other markets, because for a large time there was no other market to outsource to. The concept of shipping jobs to China, or India, or Brazil, or, in fact, anywhere else, simply didn't exist.  Can you explain how minimum wage laws were a result of protectorate and nationalist business practices? Thanks in advance.
From a purely financial standpoint, you should invest using whatever dollars get you the best rate. The general rule of thumb that I've come across is that if you are making another person/company change your money into another nation's currency, they will likely charge a higher exchange rate than you could get yourself. However, it really depends on your situation, how easy it is for you to exchange money, what your exchange rate is, and what your broker is charging you to exchange to USD (if on the off chance this is truly nothing, then stick with CAD). Don't worry about the strength of the USD to CAD too much because converting your money before you make purchases doesn't allow you to buy more shares. For the vast majority of people, trying to work with national currency exchange rates makes things unnecessarily complex.
Call Comcast during a non-peak time (first thing in the morning?), wait on hold, and politely explain what happened and request a $50 credit. Also politely request that your premium support request be handled for free given how much hassle you've had getting disconnected. They'll be able to tell your premium request was never answered because there are no notes on your support tickets. Calling them is much easier than any of your other options.
So, you're real number is now $1200 a month opportunity cost. Consider also the fact that the $400 a month is sitting in a savings account of sorts. While most savings accounts give you less than 1% in returns and then charge taxes on that gain, your home may (or may not be) much higher than that and won't charge you taxes on the gains when you sell it (If you live in it for a period of time as defined by the IRS.) Let's assume a conservative long term appreciation rate of 3%. That's $12k a year on a $400k house. So, now you're at $2200 a month opportunity cost. In this example I didn't touch on your tax savings of ownership. I also didn't touch on the maintenance cost of ownership or the maintenance cost of renting (your deposit + other fees) which all should be considered. You may have other costs involved in renting. For instance: The cost of not being able to fully utilize your rental as your own house. This may be an even simpler and more convincing way to explain it: On the $2800 mortgage example, you will be paying around $19k in interest and $2400 on taxes, insurance = $23k per year (number could be way different in your example). That is basically throw away money you're never getting back. On the rental, 100% of your rent at $3800 a month is throw away money you're never getting back. That's $45,600 a year."
Edit: lazy math The answer to this question depends on two things: How bad will it be if you cannot repay this loan in the way you expected? - How likely are you to actually get into a PhD program with a stipend? Is there a possibility that you will not get a stipend?  What is the penalty for failure to repay?  Will you have to support yourself after university?  How much money could you expect to earn if you found a job after your undergraduate degree? How much could taking this loan improve your finances/life? - Could you get your degree at anther institution without going into debt?  Would your career be better if you went to Ecole Polytechnique? I would take the loan if:
"Dude, SHUT UP. This is not an argument. You are wrong, ignorant and stupid. The fact that you keep bring up the same false narrative DOES NOT make it true. I would gladly continue to explain to you how much of an idiot you are, but, what with your ability to ""think critically"" as you called whatever is is that seems like rational thought to you (I'm laughing, even as I write that sarcastically, you're just such an idiot), it would be a waste of both of our time.   Feel free to continue to have your backwards ideas of the world. The rest of us will continue our lives happy and not full of hate for another person just because of the way they choose to worship. We understand hoe numbers work. It's great. You should try it, even though I know percentages are a little complicated for your tiny little racist brain.   I would challenge you to go see that Muslim friend you claim to have, and share some of your ideas with him. Show him this thread of trash that you've created. See if he still considers you a friend, if he exists at all.   You can continue sending messages if you'd like. It's DEFINITELY going to convince me that you're not a moron. You're not digging that hole deeper with every ignorant word you say at all. You're totally fooling us."
I have a discounted cash flow that's monthly.  My annualized discount rate is 8%.    1)What is the formula to turn the annualized rate into a monthly rate?  2)What is the formula to find out the NPV of monthly cash flows?   For example, if I get $1000, $2000, and $3000 in months 1, 2, and 3, how do I calculate how much each of those are equal to as a present value if the annual discount rate is 8%?
Theta is a variable in options pricing. Theta aka time decay decreases over time. The reason of this is that you have to think of the option as insurance. It is a hedge against actual holdings in an asset. Would you pay more or less for insurance that covers you for a year's time, would you pay more or less for insurance that covers you for a week? The answer is that the market will pay less for insurance that covers them for a lower period of time. This is one of several ways of thinking about it. There is also the probability that the option will be profitable at all, the further out in the future, the more likely it will be profitable and people will pay a premium for it. There are other variables in the black-scholes formula and it is the most widely used options pricing formula. But keep in mind, the geniuses that made up the formula blew up their hedge fund thinking they could sell the options at an inflated premium from their own formula to everyone. Ironic really.
Here is the derivation of the formula, with The loan is equal to the sum of the repayments discounted to present value.
An amortization schedule is often used to produce identical payments for the term (repayment period) of a loan, resulting in the principal being paid off and the debt retired at the end of the loan. This is in contrast to an interest only, or balloon loan. These loans require little or no payment against the balance of the loan, requiring the loan to be paid indefinitely if there is no term, or requiring the loan to be entirely paid off from cash or a new loan at the end of the term. A basic amortization formula can be derived from the compound interest formula: This formula comes from the Wikipedia article on amortization. The basics of the formula are the periodic payment amount, A (your monthly payment), can be determined by the principal loan, P, the rate, r, and the number of payments, n. Lenders lend money to make a profit on the interest. They'd like to get back all the money they lent out. Amortization schedules are popular because the fixed low payments make it easier for borrowers to pay the loan off eventually. They also tend to be very profitable for lenders, especially at the start of the term, because they make a lot of profit on interest, just like the start of your mortgage. The principal of a mortgage has more meaning than the principal of a revolving debt credit card. The mortgage principal is fixed at the start, and represents the value of the collateral property that is your home. You could consider the amount of principal paid to be the percentage of your home that you actually own (as part of your net worth calculation). A credit card has a new balance each month depending on how much you charge and how much you pay off. Principal has less meaning in this case, because there is no collateral to compare against, and the balance will change monthly. In this case, the meaning of the amortization schedule on your credit card is how long it will take you to pay off the balance if you stop charging and pay at the proscribed payment level over the term described. Given the high interest rate on credit cards, you may end up paying twice as much for goods in the long run if you follow your lenders schedule. Amortizing loans are common for consumer loans, unless a borrower is seeking out the lowest possible monthly payment.
You can add $262,500 worth of notes payable (assuming that you use the cash to buy inventory immediately). Any more and you would push the current ratio below 2. In case this ratio is the trouble, the formula for current ratio is current assets over current liabilities. Notes payable is a current liability and inventory is a current asset so you add the number to both of them. I used Excel to do this.  With this addition the quick ratio is 1.19. The formula for this is (current assets - inventory)/Current liabilities. So you take ($1,312,500 + $262,500 - $262,500 - $375,000)/($525,000 + $262,500) = 1.19
"Something I found helpful when I learned this, is to just use Excel to expand the series.   So start with A1 as ""175"", then in A2 put ""=175+(A1*1.004308)"" and paste that same formula down for a few hundred rows.  You'll find your answer on A216.  Most non-math-centric people don't have an intuitive grasp of how exponents (aka ""compounding""... and never mind the natural logarithms this is all derived from) behave; but you can play with the numbers ""unrolled"" in Excel to get a better idea of how they work. That formula is just applying 0.4308% interest every period (row), and adding in a fresh $175."
Yeah, I mean the real issue is that for probably 30% of users (conservatively) it's and IM system and how they get market data.  Anyone that uses BDHs or backtesting does not have a reliable alternative. The analytical tools FS offers for those functions cost almost as much. Also, index level data is very expensive, separated and priced by the index managers themselves.  The degree to which this 'debate' has been dumbed down is remarkable.
You need the Present Value, not Future Value formula for this. The loan amount or 1000 is paid/received now (not in the future). The formula is $ PMT = PV (r/n)(1+r/n)^{nt} / [(1+r/n)^{nt} - 1] $  See for example http://www.calculatorsoup.com/calculators/financial/loan-calculator.php With PV = 1000, r=0.07, n=12, t=3 we get PMT = 30.877 per month
You need to solve the money-weighted return equation.  It cannot be expressed as a formula for the interest, but it can be solved numerically as shown here. Using the OP's figures, with monthly withdrawals of $100,000. The summation for the withdrawals can be replaced with the standard annuity formula.  The resulting monthly return is converted to a nominal annual return compounded monthly. Money-weighted return equation with start and end balances s0 and s1  The interest is 2.63282 % per annum, nominal compounded monthly. Selectable equation
In a simple world yes, but not in the real world. Option pricing isn't that simplistic in real life. Generally option pricing uses a Monte Carlo simulation of the Black Scholes formula/binomial and then plot them nomally to decide the optimum price of the option. Primarily multiple scenarios are generated and under that specific scenario the option is priced and then a price is derived for the option in real life, using the prices which were predicted in the scenarios.  So you don't generate a single price for an option, because you have to look into the future to see how the price of the option would behave, under the real elements of the market. So what you price is an assumption that this is the most likely value under my scenarios, which I predicted into the future. Because of the market, if you price an option higher/lower than another competitor you introduce an option for arbitrage by others. So you try to be as close to the real value of the option, which your competitor also does. The more closer your option value is to the real price the better it is for all. Did you try the book from Hull ? EDIT: While pricing you generally take variables which would affect the price of your option. The more variables you take(more nearer you are to the real situation) the more realistic your price will be and you would converge on the real price faster. So simple formula is an option, but the deviations maybe large from the real value. And you would end up loosing money, most of the time. So the complicated formula is there for getting a more accurate price, not to confuse people. You can use your formula, but there will be odds stacked against you to loose money, from the onset, because you didn't consider the variables which might/would affect the price of your option.
This guy has no idea what he's talking about. Depaul is a great place with a ton of talent. I got multiple internships at big time companies such as Deloitte because of the depaul name and how reliable our students are. The city's businesses want to hire you.
"All of the above. There are scientific methods for surveying. Generally the ""people with clipboards"" is the most reliable, but is also the most expensive, so some might be getting the data directly from the retailers with some sampling for verification. The ""margin of error"" percentage is directly related to the method chosen."
$3,679,163.80  I made these assumptions that you did not state:  Then using Excel, we find that with a starting point of $3,679,163.80, we can achieve your goal. The formula for Yearly Budget is =G$1*((1.035)^(A3-2012)) and the formula for Money left at year end is =(D4/1.05)+C4  For 2067, enter $0 leftover, and for 2066, enter $397,988.47 leftover. G$1 is $60,000 G$2 is 0.05
A really important part of the event is the entertainment and speeches. This means that you have to invest in a reliable Audio Visual service that will not let you down in the middle of important speeches. The quality of the sound is also very important, especially when entertaining guests.
Probably not.  Once the formula is out there, and if it actually seems to work, more and more investors chase the same stocks, drive the price up, and poof!  The advantage is gone. This is the very reason why Warren Buffett doesn't announce his intentions when he's buying.  If people know that BRK is buying, lots of others will follow.
This is more a question for /r/personalfinance, but I'll answer it anyways. Just use the RATE formula in excel.   =RATE(numperiods,monthly payment,amount financed)*12  Just make sure the number of periods is in months, the payment is negative, and to multiply the whole thing by 12 to get the annual interest rate.
This is a clear example of annuities, where you are trying to find Net Present Value (NPV). To find a quick solution you can use the excel function (=NPV). Solving it without excel is slightly more complicated. You have to use the annuities formula:  (Payment/rate) * (1 - 1/(1+r)^n )  This formula can be written in many different ways, this is one of the simplest.  So how do we translate that to your problem? For the first option: -5000/0.04 * (1 - 1/(1.04^2 ) = -9430.47 If you haven't made this years 5000 payment you have to subtract this years 5000, so option 1 would equal -14430,47.  Option 2 is similar -2000/0.04 (1 - 1/(1.04^10 ) = -16221.79 WAIT! You also have to subtract the initial cost so option 2 is -36221.79  So in essence, option 1 is better (but you will have to buy a machine sooner or later).  Part 2 (discount rate = 12%) is for you to understand the importance of high rates in long periods of time (like option 2's 10 years)    EDIT: For clearer formulas. Also made a mistake calculating option 2
You can likely use bollinger band values to programmatically recognize sideways trending stocks. Bollinger band averages expand during periods of volatility and then converge on the matched prices the longer there is little volatility in the asset prices. Also, look at the bollinger band formula to see if you can glean how that indicator does it, so that you can create something more custom fit to your idea.
Given your premise is correct:  How do you cash in a large sum of YetAnotherCryptoCoin shortly after it´s ICO? The crypto-exchanges take some time to add a new currency, if they do at all. And even if they already have, trading volume is usually low.  I think that´s what really makes it unattractive for Investors as opposed to tec-enthusiasts (aside from the high volatility). Total lack of any reliable trading capability.
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What are Pivot Points? Pivot Points indicate price levels that are of significance in technical analysis of securities. Pivot Points are used to provide clarity for a trader as they are a predictive indicator of where a security might go. There are at least 6 different types of Pivot Points (Woodie Pivot Point, Fibonacci Pivot, Demark etc..) and they are different based on their formulas but generally serve the same concept. I will be answering your question using the Camarilla Pivot Point formula. Camarilla Pivot Point Formula Generally any Pivot Point formula uses a combination of the Open, High, Low and Close of the previous timeframe. Since you are technically a swing trader indicated by say between a couple of days to a couple of weeks, as I don't want to do day trading you should use a weekly 5 to 30 minute chart but you can also use a daily chart as well. So for example if you use a daily chart, you would use the Open, High, Low and Close of the previous day. Example of fictitious stock: MOSEX (Money Stack Exchange) 01/14/16: Open: 10.25, High: 12.55, Low: 9.65, Close: 11.50 On 01/15/16: R4 Level: 13.10, R3 Level: 12.30, R2 Level: 12.03, R1 Level: 11.77, Pivot Point: 11.23, S1 Level: 11.23, S2 Level: 10.97, S3 Level: 10.70, S4 Level: 9.91 R = Resistance, S = Support How to identify these Pivot Points? Most charting software already have built in overlays that will identify the pivot points for you but you can always find and draw them yourself with an annotation tool. Since we are using the Camarilla Pivot Point formula, the important Pivot Point levels are the R4 which is considered as the Breakout Pivot, the S4 which is considered as the Breakdown Pivot. R3 and S3 are Reversal Pivot Points. Once identify the Pivot Points how should you proceed in a trade? This is the million dollar question and without spoon feeding you requires you to come up with your own strategy.
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