vania-janet/multiturn-rag-retrieval-data huggingface dataset:
Income tax was seen as a way to exploit the revenues available from the rapidly expanding ranks of people with mid to high incomes. It was initially targeted at the very wealthy. Previously, most Federal revenues came from excise taxes and tariffs, both of which have many negative economic effects, leave the government with limited revenue generating ability and bring a host of international and domestic political problems.  Since the successful implementation of the income tax required a constitutional amendment, it is very unlikely that anyone at the time seriously considered the income tax a temporary measure.
In general, you are expected to pay all the money you owe in taxes by the end of the tax year, or you may have to pay a penalty. But you don't have to pay a penalty if: The amount you owe (i.e. total tax due minus what you paid in withholding and estimated taxes) is less than $1000. You paid at least 90% of your total tax bill. You paid at least 100% of last year's tax bill. https://www.irs.gov/taxtopics/tc306.html I think point #3 may work for you here. Suppose that last year your total tax liability was, say, $5,000. This year your tax on your regular income would be $5,500, but you have this additional capital gain that brings your total tax to $6,500. If your withholding was $5,000 -- the amount you owed last year -- than you'll owe the difference, $1,500, but you won't have to pay any penalties. If you normally get a refund every year, even a small one, then you should be fine. I'd check the numbers to be sure, of course. If you normally have to pay something every April 15, or if your income and therefore your withholding went down this year for whatever reason, then you should make an estimated payment. The IRS has a page explaining the rules in more detail: https://www.irs.gov/help-resources/tools-faqs/faqs-for-individuals/frequently-asked-tax-questions-answers/estimated-tax/large-gains-lump-sum-distributions-etc/large-gains-lump-sum-distributions-etc
"It's likely you don't have to make estimated tax payments if this is your first year of contracting (extra income), and your existing salary is already having taxes withheld. If you look at the 1040-ES: General Rule In most cases, you must pay estimated tax for 2014 if both  of the   following apply. This is easier to understand if you look at the worksheet.  Look at line 14b/14c and the associated instructions.  14b is your required annual payment based on last year's tax.  14c is the lesser of that number and 14a, so 14b is your ""worst case"".  14c is the amount of tax you need to prepay (withholding counts as prepayment). I'm going to apply this to your situation based on my understanding, because it's not easy to parse:"
Because lobbying.  Otherwise such tax optimization schemes would be counteracted with laws after their discovery by our law-making entities... who can be ~~paid~~ lobbied.  Personally I believe if your company uses a country's infrastructure to sell goods for a profit, then you should pay a fair share of that profit to support that infrastructure you use. If you don't want to pay, just don't do business there. But lobbying can alter that logic.
For some reason I have a doubt that you have ever payed taxes in california.  Money has been injected into these areas. The fact that they need to be cut should be proof of that. You can't cut money that was never given.
"Tax US corporate ""persons (citizens)"" under the same regime as US human persons/citizens, i.e., file/pay taxes on all income earned annually with deductions for foreign taxes paid.  Problem solved for both shareholders and governments.  [US Citizens and Resident Aliens Abroad - Filing Requirements](https://www.irs.gov/individuals/international-taxpayers/us-citizens-and-resident-aliens-abroad-filing-requirements)  &gt;If you are a U.S. citizen or resident alien living or traveling outside the United States, **you generally are required to file income tax returns, estate tax returns, and gift tax returns and pay estimated tax in the same way as those residing in the United States.**  Thing is, we know solving this isn't the point.  It is to misdirect and talk about everything, but the actual issues, i.e., the discrepancy between tax regimes applied to persons and the massive inequality it creates in tax responsibility.  Because that would lead to the simple solutions that the populace need/crave.  My guess is most US human persons would LOVE to pay taxes only on what was left AFTER they covered their expenses."
Taxes must be predictable** In order for a government to function well, it must have some stability in terms of its fiscal health. Without the necessary funds to run a government, chaos would ensue. And so, taxes must flow into a state’s coffers at a regular schedule and at a reasonably predictable amount or the oil will run out at a time when the engine of progress badly needs it. Now, we understand why the state imposes and does not merely request that taxes be paid at a particular time of the year. Why April for many countries? It is the time of the year when people have probably paid off last year’s debts or recovered from the expenses of the holiday season in the previous year. It is also the time when most parents have extra cash because their children are on school vacation. Unfortunately, it is also the time when many people want to spend a vacation. So, it is either you pay your tax or spend a nice vacation during spring for most people. **3. Taxes must be simple** Assessment and computation of tax and determination should be easily understood by the average taxpayer. But this has been forgotten by tax officials in recent years. It has not only become more complex in terms of schedule as the tax calendar seems to unending nowadays, it has also become so hard to decipher through the many pages now incorporated in the tax return. The best thing to do, if you have extra cash is to let an accountant do your tax. **4. Taxes must not be forced but enforced to encourage voluntary compliance** The key is convenience. As much as possible, it is the tax officials’ duty to encourage voluntary compliance among taxpayers through creative implementation without making people feel they are being harassed or unduly burdened. Ordinary taxpayers have to go through a lot of stress figuring out forms and lining up to pay their tax. Perhaps, a more convenient way can be implemented using modern technology and the banking system. If we can pay bills in malls or online now, why cannot tax be paid in the same way? **5. Taxes earmarked for specific purposes must result in direct benefits** Certain taxes, such as gasoline tax for road maintenance, must be dedicated to the particular purpose they were intended based on a direct cost-benefit link.
The key point is from the penultimate sentence in your second paragraph: for which you have already paid taxes When you receive a dividend or realise a capital gain, you get taxed on that then, and you shouldn't have to pay taxes on it again in future. So the cost basis gets adjusted to reflect that.
I don't see the connection between the investment capital and the income you receive from it, and why one part should be free from taxation just because the other was taxed.   I mean with that logic everything I do with my after-tax money is hopefully providing me some form of anticipated benefit, so I guess I shouldn't have to pay taxes on any part of my income that i spend or put at risk... why is making a capital investment any different in this regard than paying for education, buying a tangible asset (like a home), buying food to keep me alive so i can continue to work, etc?   Basically, you're going to have to explain why that makes sense to you.
This is bullshit. The US government requires taxes to be paid in USD. There's your intrinsic value. If you want to be compliant with the federal law, your business and you as an individual are required to convert assets or labor into USD to pay them.
You will need to register as self-employed aka sole trader (that's the whole point: pay taxes on income that you're not getting as wages from an employer, who would arrange PAYE/NI contributions), or set up a limited company (in the last case you would have the option of either getting paid as wages or as dividends — which one is better is a complex issue which varies from year to year). You'll find lots of advice on the HMRC website.
So raise taxes on individuals and eliminate business taxes? The government still has to pay for things eventually. The big thing the US pays for that other countries don't is our massive, most-expensive-in-the-world military, which can take up roughly half our budget, sometimes even more depending on how active we are abroad. That includes paying for current wars, preparing for future wars, and serving the veterans of past wars. We defend other countries through alliances like NATO and bilateral agreements. For that, we need a higher tax rate. We can tax individuals or businesses.
Now, I have kept this money and after interval of 6 month or year whenever the USD price go up, I do exchange with Indian currency and deposit in my account. Now do I have to pay Tax on this money?  No you are not required to pay any tax as the income was accrued when your were NRI for tax purposes. The Foreign currency upto USD 2000 can be held by an individual without any time limit. i.e. you can convert then whenever you want. There is nothing that needs to be declared in Tax Returns.
It's important because you may be able to reduce the total amount of interest paid (by paying the loan faster); but you can do nothing to reduce the total of your principal repayments. The distinction can also affect the amount of tax you have to pay. Some kinds of interest payments can be counted as business expenses, which means that they reduce the amount of income you have to pay tax on. But this is not generally the case for money used to repay the loan principal.
High taxes and tax breaks have done. Tax breaks can only be accessed if you can essentially afford a descent accountant. For that to makes sense you need to earn a large amount of money. So proportionally the middle classes end up paying the most tax and gets the least for it.
You pay it this tax year.  Whether that's now due to W-2 withholding, or later with your 1040 next year, or with your 1040-ES all depends on your particular situation.
The company that's apparently going to pay this rent wants to treat it as a business expense.  They are asking for your SSN because they expect to issue a 1099-MISC. (They probably gave you a Form W-9? It's not mandatory but it's common to request a taxpayer ID on this form.) There are a couple of issues at play here:
The finance team from your company should be able to advise you. From what I understand you are Indian Citizen for Tax purposes. Any income you receive globally is taxable in India. In this specific case you are still having a Employee relationship with your employer and as such the place of work does not matter. You are still liable to pay tax in India on the salary. If you are out of India for more than 182 days, you can be considered as Non-Resident from tax point of view. However this clause would not be of any benefit to you as are having a Employee / Employer relationship and being paid in India. Edit: This is only about the India portion of taxes. There maybe a UK protion of it as well, plus legally can you work and your type of Visa in UK may have a bearing on the answer
If you have income in the US, you will owe US income tax on it, unless there is a treaty with your country that says otherwise.
I believe you are confusing sales tax with income tax. The tax holidays in the US are only for sales tax. Consumers purchasing certain goods during the tax holiday do not have to pay sales tax like they normally would. Effectively the price is slightly lower during those days with the purpose of giving people an extra reason to shop at that time. During the tax holiday the stores make the exact same profit that they normally do, but they may experience a bump in sales simply because more people will shop during that time. Income tax for both consumers and the businesses is not affected by this. Although New York state was the first state to implement a tax holiday 20 years ago, they no longer have one today, though they do have certain goods which have a lower tax rate year round.
Can I Send the money back to my personal account of my mother/father in India? Why not? A huge number of Indians working in US are sending money to their parents. There may be multiple reasons like paying a mortgage/loan or sister's wedding or any personal reasons. Usually, there may be a reason column when you send money through any Remittance company.  Do I need to pay any tax here in US or my parents back in India? Parents are direct dependents in India. So you can share your money with your dependents. Your parents have to pay tax for whatever they are earning in India based on the tax slab and age they fit in. So you can even give them the power of Attorney to control your properties in India.
You only have to pay taxes when you convert to dollars. Most exchanges I think have to track their users and provide them with reports for tax purposes. Just holding bitcoin and watching it go up in value does not trigger a taxable event.
Honestly its their job to pay as little in taxes as possible.  Its like any normal person who writes off work clothes as a tax deductible. Might as well do everything youre legally able to do.  The government leaves tax loopholes in the tax code, they know they are there, take advantage, lord knows your competitors are.
"Income tax wasn't a thing in the states until 1913 and that was by design. Just because a few guys in a room wrote it on a piece of paper doesn't mean it's justifiable and/or moral, in fact it makes it immoral because now millions of people who had no say in the matter are now subject to the consequences of not following the rules these few men wrote. Just as a mental exercise go to Google and type ""define taxes"" and read that definition I'm willing to bet there's 1 word in that definition that will stick out to you."
Generally all the countries have similar arrangement regarding Income Tax, if you live in the UK for more than you stay in India for a given year then the Indian authorities won't be able to tax you but you might come under the UK Tax Law.
Yes, You will have to pay the taxes at least initially but you'll most probably get a refund when you will file returns depending upon the amount and tax brackets in the UK.
According to TurboTax: You report the income in the year you received it... Therefore, since you received payment in 2017, you will report it on your 2017 tax return.
No, you probably do not need to file a tax return if you received no income, and if you meet a number of other criteria. The below is copied and pasted, slightly edited, from the CRA: You must file a return for 2014 if any of the following situations apply: You have to pay tax for 2014. We sent you a request to file a return. You and your spouse or common-law partner elected to split pension income for 2014. See lines 115, 116, 129, and 210. You received working income tax benefit (WITB) advance payments in 2014. You disposed of capital property in 2014 (for example, if you sold real estate or shares) or you realized a taxable capital gain (for example, if a mutual fund or trust attributed amounts to you, or you are reporting a capital gains reserve you claimed on your 2013 return). You have to repay any of your old age security or employment insurance benefits. See line 235. You have not repaid all amounts withdrawn from your registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) under the Home Buyers’ Plan or the Lifelong Learning Plan. For more information, go to Home Buyers' Plan (HBP) or see Guide RC4112, Lifelong Learning Plan (LLP) or You have to contribute to the Canada Pension Plan (CPP). This can apply if, for 2014, the total of your net self-employment income and pensionable employment income is more than $3,500. See line 222. You are paying employment insurance premiums on self-employment and other eligible earnings. See lines 317 and 430. In general, you will want to file a tax return even if none of the above applies. You could, for example, claim a GST/HST credit even with no income. Now, if you receive any income at all, you are going to have to pay taxes, which means you are obligated to file a tax return. If sufficient taxes were deducted from your paycheque, you are still obligated to file a tax return. However, you will not have to pay penalties if you file late, even if you file very late, at least not until the CRA sends you a request to file.
I know all too well how it works. That doesn't change the fact that GE didn't pay taxes.   If only my personal expenses such as food, gas, car maintenance, rent could be deducted from my tax liability and then when I operate on a loss (spend more than I receive) use that to get a tax refund. If corporations were people, why do they have a separate tax code? If corporations are people, they would be subject to the same tax code people are.   We have so much corporate welfare via the tax code in this country, that it exceeds the amount of social welfare for poor people.
Let's have a look at Who must send a tax return: You’ll need to send a tax return if, in the last tax year: And we're done. It doesn't matter that your tax will come out to zero - you still need to TELL them this, otherwise how are they going to know? 'Person liable for zero tax who doesn't send their tax return' and 'Person liable for a million quid of tax who doesn't send their tax return' look the same...
If you ended at your second paragraph, no. It's simply a refund of your own money. Same as any time I get any cash back, whether due to a credit card reward program or price match.  But. Your 4th paragraph changes this. Yes, you owe tax, as it's clearly not your own money coming back. Even barter income is taxable.  Per the new comments appearing, this is not a case of bartering. I cited bartering as an understandable example of when there's no cash and yet, tax is owed. In this situation, value is received, and it counts as income similar to the barter situations.  Just because the value isn't in cash doesn't negate the tax due. I'd rhetorically ask how OP pays his rent/mortgage, utilities, cell phone bill, etc. The answer is simple, non-traditional income, as OP puts it, has a tax due.
"You need to hire a tax professional and have them sort it out for you properly and advise you on how to proceed next. Don't do it yourself, you're way past the stage when you could. You're out of compliance, and you're right - there are penalties that a professional might know how to mitigate, and maybe even negotiate a waiver with the IRS, depending on the circumstances of the case. Be careful of answers like ""you don't need to pay anything"" that are based on nothing of facts. Based on what you said in the question and in the comments, it actually sounds like you do have to pay something, and you're in trouble with the IRS already. It might be that you misunderstood something in the past (e.g.: you said the business had filed taxes before, but in fact that might never happened and you're confusing ""business filed taxes"" with ""I filed schedule C"") or it might be the actual factual representation of things (you did in fact filed a tax return for your business with the IRS, either form 1120 of some kind or 1065). In any case a good licensed (CPA or EA) professional will help you sort it out and educate you on what you need to do in the future."
You pay taxes in the normal way -- when you earn the money.  Just like all your other income.   What makes a Roth special is what happens when you withdraw.  You don't pay any taxes at all since you already paid them.  And there are some other convenient features.
Meanwhile, income tax is still based on the premise that the government owns your income (property).  The government owns all of it and decides how much you get to keep.  This is theft based on force.  Meanwhile, Gary Johnson wants to end all income taxes including business income taxes and replace it with a federal consumption tax.  Doesn't anyone want freedom?
From HMRC Note that the rule is when a person becomes entitled to payment of earnings. This is not necessarily the same as the date on which an employee acquires a right to be paid. For example, an employee's terms of service may provide for the employee to receive a bonus for the year to 31 December 2004, payable on 30 June 2005 if the employee is still in the service of the employer on 31 December 2004. If the condition is satisfied the employee becomes entitled to a payment on 31 December 2004 but is only entitled to payment of it on 30 June 2005. So PAYE applies to it on 30 June 2005 and it is assessable for 2005/06. The date that matters is the date the employee is entitled to be paid the bonus.  But why are you worried about paying tax. That is your employer's responsibility and they will do it for you. Ask you firm's finance department also for further clarification. HMRC are not an organization to mess with, they will tie up your life in knots.
As was once famously said, Our new Constitution is now established, and has an appearance that promises permanency; but in this world nothing can be said to be certain, except death and taxes. — Benjamin Franklin, 1789 It's very likely that either the company or you personally is going to have to pay taxes on that money. Really the only way to avoid it would be if the company spent that money on next year's expenses, and paid the bill before the end of this year. Of course you can only do that if the recipient is willing to receive their money so far in advance, which isn't necessarily the case since they would pay more taxes this year as a result. As for whether it's better to have the company pay the tax or for you to do as your accountant suggests, there are a lot of factors that go into that equation, and my gut feeling is that your accountant already ran it both ways and is suggesting the better choice.
Unless your video does very well, it's unlikely that your income from it will exceed your expenses incurred in making it, such as the purchase prices of your computer and video camera and the cost of your broadband connection, so there shouldn't be any tax to pay.
"Can I write off the $56,000 based on demand letters? Or do I need to   finish suing him to write-off the loss? No and no. You didn't pay taxes on the money (since you didn't file tax returns...), so what are you writing off? If you didn't get the income - you didn't get the income. Nothing to write off. Individuals in the US are usually cash-based, so you don't write off income ""accrued but never received"" since you don't pay taxes on accrued income, only income you've actually received. Should I file the 2012 taxes now? Or wait until the lawsuit finishes? You should have filed by April 2013, more than a year ago. You might have asked for an extension till October 2013, more than half a year ago. Now - you're very very late, and should file your tax return ASAP. If you have some tax due - you're going to get hit with high penalties for underpaying and late filing. If the lawsuit finishes in 2014, does it apply to the 2012 taxes? Probably not, but talk to your lawyer. In any case - it is irrelevant to the question whether to file the tax return or not. If because of the lawsuit results something changes - you file an amended return."