vania-janet/multiturn-rag-retrieval-data huggingface dataset:
"A mutual fund's return or yield has nothing to do with what you receive from the mutual fund. The annual percentage return is simply the percentage increase (or decrease!) of the value of one share of the mutual fund from January 1 till December 31. The cash value of any distributions (dividend income, short-term capital gains,  long-term capital gains) might be reported separately or might be included in the annual return.  What you receive from the mutual fund is the distributions which you have the option of taking in cash (and spending on whatever you like, or investing elsewhere) or of re-investing into the fund without ever actually touching the money. Regardless of whether you take a distribution as cash or re-invest it in the mutual fund, that amount is taxable income in most jurisdictions. In the US, long-term capital gains are taxed at different (lower) rates than ordinary income, and I believe that long-term capital gains from mutual funds are not taxed at all in India. You are not taxed on the increase in the value of your investment caused by an increase in the share price over the year nor do you get deduct the ""loss"" if the share price declined over the year. It is only when you sell the mutual fund shares (back to the mutual fund company) that you have to pay taxes on the capital gains (if you sold for a higher price) or deduct the capital loss (if you sold for a lower price) than the purchase price of the shares. Be aware that different shares in the sale might have different purchase prices because they were bought at different times, and thus have different gains and losses.  So, how do you calculate your personal return from the mutual fund investment? If you have a money management program or a spreadsheet program, it can calculate your return for you. If you have online access to your mutual fund account on its website, it will most likely have a tool called something like ""Personal rate of return"" and this will provide you with the same calculations without your having to type in all the data by hand. Finally, If you want to do it personally by hand, I am sure that someone will soon post an answer writing out the gory details."
That formula looks like this: A = PMT [((1 + r)N - 1) / r] x (1+r) A : Is the amount you would have at the end of the time period. N : The number of compounding periods (months if you get interest calculated monthly) PMT : The total amount you are putting in each period (N) r: Just like before, the interest rate you are getting paid. Be sure to adjust this to a monthly number if N represents months (divide APR by 12)* *Most interest rates are quoted as APR, which is the annualized interest rate not counting compounding. Don't confuse this with APY, which has compounding built into it and is not appropriate for use in this formula. Inserting your example: r (monthly interest rate) = 15% APR / 12 = .0125 n = 30 years * 12 months/year = 360 months A = $150 x [((1 + .0125)360 - 1) / .0125] x (1+.0125) A = $1,051,473.09 (rounded)
And to understand that you can lose value, and that losses often correct themselves if you can avoid having to sell until prices have recovered. You can, of course, compute historical results exactly, since you know how much you put in when, how much you took out when, and how much is in the account now. You can either look at how rate of return varied over time, or just compute an average rate of return; both approaches can be useful when trying to compare one fund against another... I get an approximate version of this reported by my financial management software, but mostly ignore it except for amusement and to reassure myself that things are behaving approximately as expected. (As long as I'm outperforming what I need to hit my retirement goals, I'm happy enough and unwilling to spend much more time on it... and my plans were based on fairly conservative assumptions.) If you invest $3k, it grows at whatever rate it grows, and ten years later you have $3k+X. If you then invest another $10k, you now have $3k+X+10k, all of which grows at whatever rate the fund now grows. When you go to sell shares or fractional shares, your profit has to be calculated based on when those specific shares were purchased and how much you paid for them versus when they were sold and how much you sold them for; this is a more annoying bit of record keeping and accounting than just reporting bank account interest, but many/most brokerages and investment banks will now do that work for you and report it at the end of the year for your taxes, as I mentioned."
It would depend how the simulation is run.  Is all of your revenue coming through A/R?  Is none of it being paid until the end of the credit term?  Are they simulating disruptions in revenue streams?  If it's simulating daily then cash flows can be all over the place depending on who pays when.  In a real business if you set credit terms of net 30 you will find some people pay you the day after you send them the invoice, some pay on a certain day of the month,  some wait until day 30, some wait until you call them, and a few don't pay at all.  They tend to simplify this in the classroom to longer intervals (months) and just have everyone pay you timely minus some allowance for bad debt.    If that's the case, then whatever interval they have you on I would just assume you get paid ~95% of the A/R due over that term.
From my memory of CFA Level 2 accounting:  * If Company A buys 50% or more of company B, they must consolidate 100% of Company B on their financial statements. The % of the business they don't own is multiplied by net income every year, and the resulting number is added to minority interest on the balance sheet. * If Company A buys more than 20% but less than 50%, use the equity method of accounting. This involves creating an asset for the purchase price paid for the stake in Company B. The asset increases in value by dividends received, that's it. * If Company A buys 20% or less, the investment is held in Marketable securities or something similar on the balance, and is marked-to-market.
Dividends and interest are counted under operations for the purpose of this tweet. This is pretty much entirely a non-story. I'm not sure exactly how they're dividing it up, but it looks like they're only counting stock appreciation as capital gains and counting things revenue from sales (from their subsidiaries as well) under operating income.   This is just from a quick glance over their statement of earning, but that's what it looks like to me.
Thanks very much.  12b1 is a form that explains how a fund uses that .25-1% fee, right? So that's part of the puzzle im getting at.  I'm not necessarily trying to understand my net fees, but more who pays who and based off of what.   For a quick example, betterment bought me a bunch of vanguard ETFs. That's cool. But vanguard underperformed vs their blackrock and ssga etfs. I get that vanguard has lower fees, but the return was less even taking those into account.  I'm wondering, first what sort of kickback betterment got for buying those funds, inclusive of wholesale deals, education fees etc.  I'm also wondering how this food chain goes up and down the sponsor, manager tree.  I'm sure it's more than just splitting up that 1%
In this equation the withdrawal rate is the percent you must pull from your savings to meet your expenses. For example if your savings is $100,000 and you need $10,000 annually for your living expenses then your withdrawal rate would be 10% (where 10k is 10% of 100k).  To complete this formula, you need to know how much savings you need to be financially independent before you can use this formula to find out how long it will take you.
Not that I doubted everyone's assumption but I wanted to see the math so I did some spreadsheet hacking. I assumed a monthly payments for 30 years which left us with total payments of 483.89.  I then assumed we'd pay an extra $200/month in one of two scenarios.  Scenario 1 we just paid that $200 directly to the lender.  In scenario 2 we set the extra $200 aside every month until we were able to pay off the $10k at 7%.  I assumed that the minimum payments were allocated proportionately and the overpayments were allocated evenly.  That meant we paid off loan 5 at about month 77, loan 4 in month 88, loan 3 in month 120, loan 2 in month 165, and loan 1 in month 170. Getting over to scenario 2 where we pay $483.89 to lender and save $200 separately.  In month 48 we've saved $9600 relative to the principle remaining in loan 3 of $9547.  We pay that off and we're left with loan 1,2,4,5 with a combined principle of about $60930.  At this point we are now going to make payments of 683.89 instead of saving towards principle.  Now our weighted average interest rate is 6.800% instead of 6.824%.  We can calculate the number of payments left given a principle of 60930, interest of 6.8%, and payment of 683.89 to be 124.4 months left for a total of 172.4 months Conclusion: Scenario 1 pays off the debt 3 months sooner with the same monthly expenditure as scenario 2.
The answer depends on how much you spend every month. The DTI is calculated using the minimum payment on the balance owed on your card.  Credit card minimum payments are ridiculous, often being only $50 for balances of a couple thousand dollars. In any case, when you get preapproved, the lender will tell you (based on your DTI) the maximum amount they will approve you for. If your minimum payment is $50, that's another $50 that could go towards your mortgage, which could mean an additional $10,000 financed. It's up to you to decide if $10,000 will make enough of a difference in the houses you look at.
"I don't know if this is ""valid"" from a bookkeeping/accounting standpoint, but I'm just trying to keep records for myself so this works for me unless someone has another suggestion. I created two Expense accounts for the HSA (Roth, etc would work the same way): (""CY"" meaning current year.) When I make a $50 contribution, I enter the following splits: When you look at this in the Accounts tab, it shows the parent account with a zero balance (because the subaccount balance is positive and the parent account is negative). The subaccount has the balance accumulated so far; this lets me see the YTD contributions to my HSAs. At the end of the year I will make a closing transaction in the opposite direction (for whatever the total balance of the CY account is): This will zero-balance these two accounts. The only complication I see remaining is the issue of making contributions for the prior year during the January-April time frame. I don't generally make current-year contributions followed by prior-year contributions, so I can just wait to enter the closing transaction until I know I'm done with prior-year contributions."
&gt; 1)What is the formula to turn the annualized rate into a monthly rate?  What do you *think* it is?   &gt; 2)What is the formula to find out the NPV of monthly cash flows?  Same one as usual. Remember, value can only be summed if it's *at the same point in time.*   &gt; For example, if I get $1000, $2000, and $3000 in months 1, 2, and 3, how do I calculate how much each of those are equal to as a present value if the annual discount rate is 8%?  Think it through.
The interest payments received in an account depend both upon  on how interest is accrued,  as well as how it is paid. The annual interest statement indicates how often interest is paid. It does not, however, indicate how that interest is calculated or accrued. Commonly in this type of account in Canada, the interest is calculated monthly based on the lowest balance you had for that month. If you need specifics, you should check with your financial institution, or check the fine print of the account in question. Good Luck
No. It's the total on the bill statement that's reported, not the daily value. Pay before the bill is cut and you are fine. This is a great strategy for those who find their line to be too low.  Update - when I answered this, it was true, and pretty much went unchallenged. Some months back, a card I use changed banks. And my score blipped down. I had been on the habit of paying most of my balance in full the day of, or day before the statement was cut. I saw the balance reported on this card was as of the last day of the month, not the amount billed. I started paying the card's full balance on the 30/31 and the score returned to normal. This was the first I'd ever seen this, and no other member here has shared the same experience, yet.
Two possible reasons: You can tell which scenario it is based on the credit history they provide you. If you look at the history and they show you your scores for each month, even though you didn't initiate it, then they are auto checking it each month. If the historical dates are only on the dates you clicked on the button, they are only checking when you manually click on it. As for the why they provide it, a few years back it was a desirable feature. Now they all do it just to keep pace with everyone else. Note that most banks only provide a single scoring model from one bureau (but different banks use different bureaus).
The answer to this question requires looking at the mathematics of the Qualified Dividends and Capital Gains Worksheet (QDCGW). Start with Taxable Income which is the number that appears on Line 43 of Form 1040.  This is after the Adjusted Gross Income has been reduced by the Standard Deduction or Itemized Deductions as the case may be, as well as the exemptions claimed.   Then, subtract off the Qualified Dividends and the Net Long-Term Capital Gains (reduced by Net Short-Term  Capital Losses, if any) to get the non-cap-gains part of the Taxable Income. Assigning somewhat different meanings to the numbers in the OPs' question, let's say that the Taxable Income is $74K of which $10K is Long-Term Capital Gains leaving $64K as the the non-cap-gains taxable income on Line 7 of the QDCGW.   Since $64K is smaller than $72.5K (not $73.8K as stated by the OP) and this is a MFJ return, $72.5K - $64K = $8.5K of the long-term capital gains are taxed at 0%. The balance $1.5K is taxed at 15% giving $225 as the tax due on that part.   The 64K of non-cap-gains taxable income has a tax of $8711 if I am reading the Tax Tables correctly, and so the total tax due is $8711+225 = $8936.  This is as it should be; the non-gains income of $64K was assessed the tax due on it, $8.5K of the cap gains were taxed at 0%, and $1.5K at 15%. There are more complications to be worked out on the QDCGW for high earners who attract the 20% capital gains rate but those are not relevant here.
Check your calculation of A**. I was able to duplicate their calculations using excel. Make you sure have accounted for all the terms, it can be easy to be one off. They are making a guess at the interest rate which will be wrong, then they are adjusting it to see how wrong it is, then making another adjustment. They will repeat until they see no movement in the guesses.
Generally it is advisable to mention what country you're asking about, as tax laws differ. To the best of my knowledge, however, this particular issue is handled consistently in every tax jurisdiction I'm familiar with. You invested X, it appreciated and is now worth X + Y. In your example, X = $10,000 and Y = $40,000. Total X + Y = $50,000. When you withdraw an amount, say A (in your example A = $10,000), it is considered a withdrawal of both the earnings and the original capital, in proportion to the total of your account. Taxable portion of the withdrawal is proportional to the earnings. Lets mark it T. In your example, T = $10,000 - $10,000 * $10,000/$50,000 = $8,000. I.e.: 80% of the withdrawal will be attributed to earnings and would be taxable (short term in your case, if you're in the US), and 20% to the original capital. This will keep the proportion of the remained the same - 20% of the remaining amount will be attributed to the original capital (accidentally, it will be $8,000), and the remaining 80% will be attributed to the earnings. The withdrawn amount attributed to the capital ($2,000), and the remaining amount attributed to the capital ($8,000) will equal exactly to the invested amount.
"I was amazed to find out that many people think that credit ratings are equivalent across asset classes.   Rating agencies DO NOT and CAN NOT rate assets based on market exposure. There ratings represent the assets idiosyncratic risk, obviously assets that are more exposed to the market have higher risk in a market downturn but higher reward in a boom.    This is pretty well known and documented. The agencies that are paid by debt issuers are there to establish that the asset meets certain established criteria, often this involves the interest rate. Thus, as most people that are familiar with financial markets know, the major CRA's tend to be reactionary, and a much better gauge of actual credit worthiness is the market interest rate. However these ratings do have a purpose for creating standardized practices for governments and other public organizations. Subscriber based CRAs will almost always give much more accurate and detailed information, just as with everything else, if you want something done right, your gonna have to do it yourself.   That said it will be interesting to see how the agencies adapt to Dodd Frank which mandates that their ratings translate across asset classes. Especially since gov debt is in a whole different tax category and thus intrinsically has lower interest rates and thus lower default rates. In the end the rating agencies are just going to have to say... ""well since the interest rate is under inflation we know that it is Aaa..."" lol Thus they are useless. In addition the rating of government debt has less to do with ability to pay back obligations and more to do with (at least in a democracy) political will. How is this supposed to be quantified?"
"Check out the Mortgage Professor's website, in particular Calculator 11a: Who This Calculator is For: Borrowers who want to know whether they   will save or lose money over a specified period by paying points in order   to reduce the interest rate on an FRM. What This Calculator Does:This calculator shows the costs and benefits   of paying points to reduce the rate on an FRM, and the minimum period   they must hold an FRM before it makes sense to pay   additional points (the ""break-even period"")."
Go to the states on vacation. Get a virtual (or friend's) address. Get an ITIN from the IRS. Open a bank account. Get a secured credit card on your next trip from Capital One – add as much money as you can afford. One year later, you should have a decent credit score.
These are the things to focus on... do not put yourself in debt with a car, there are other better solutions.  1) Get a credit card (Unless you already have one) -Research this and get the best cash back or points card you can get at the best rate.  - Start with buying gas and groceries every month do not run the balance up. - Pay the card off every single month. (THIS IS IMPORTANT) - Never carry a balance above 25% of your credit limit.  - Every 8 months or so call your credit card company and ask for a credit line increase. They should be able to do this WITHOUT pulling your credit you are only looking for the automatic increment that they can automatically approve. This will help increase your available credit and will help keep your credit utilization low. Only do this is you are successfully doing the other bullet points above.  2) Pay all of your bills on time, this includes everything from water, electricity, phone bill, etc. never be late. Setup automatic payments if you can.  3) Minimize the number of hard credit inquiries. -This is particularly important when you are looking for your mortgage lender. Do not let them pull your credit automatically. You should be able to provide them your credit score and other information and get quotes from those lenders. Do not let them tell you then can't do this... they can.  4)Strategically plan when you close a credit line, closing them will do two things, lower your credit limit often times increasing your credit utilization, and it may hurt your average age of credit. Open one credit card and keep it forever.  *Note: Credit Karma is a great tool, you should check your score monthly and see how your efforts are influencing your score. I also like Citi credit cards because they will provide you monthly with your FICO Score which Credit Karma will only provide TransUnion and Equifax.  This is educational information and you should consider talking to a banker/lender who can also give you more detailed instructions on how to get your credit improved so that they can approve you for a loan.  Many people can get their score above 720 in 1-2 years time going from no credit doing the steps described above. It does take time be patient and don't fall for gimmicks.
The absolute first thing you need to do is contact the bank. Also, do you have a copy of the loan papers you signed? You should look over those as soon as possible as well. I'm sure you want these payments going toward your FICO score and not your mothers.
You need to get yourself a credit card, and use it regularly and also repay on time. This will help increase your credit score.  Hope you have a regular job which is bringing in money every month, but having just this isnt enough, get a credit card.
You can dial the phone systems of the credit reporting agencies directly to put a freeze on your credit report account. The phone systems require quick responses or the systems will fail you out, but **this work is relatively quick** and probably easier than trying to do this on the websites that try to re-direct you to buying credit monitoring services. Here are the phone entries you will make as a guide for the phone menu of each of the credit reporting agencies:  **Transunion** 888-909-8872:      enter zip code     press 3 to add freeze     enter social security number     enter date-of-birth as 8 digits MMDDYYYY     enter house number from street address then # key     choose a 6 digit security code     credit card number for $10 charge     4 digit expiration date of credit card MMYY  **Equifax** 800-685-1111:      press 3 to select freezes     press 1 to continue     say your state then 1 to confirm     enter social security number then 1 to confirm     enter house number from street address then # key, then 1 to confirm     press 1 to select a freeze     there will be a long pause at this point but when the bot comes back it goes very fast.          Write down the 10-digit pin provided XXXXXXXXXX then later,          Write down the 10-digit confirmation number provided XXXXXXXXX.          Press * to repeat both until you have it correct  **Experian** 888 397 3742      press 2 for freeze     press 2 for freeze     press 1 for add freeze     press 2 for no fraud report     enter social security number then # key then 1 to confirm     enter date-of-birth as 8 digits MMDDYYYY then 1 to confirm     enter zip code then # key     enter house number from street address then # key     press 2 for not blind     press 1 to pay by credit card     wait through list of charges by state     select credit card type 1 for mastercard, 2 for visa, 3 for american express, 4 for discover     enter credit card #, then 1 to confirm     4 digit expiration date of credit card then # key MMYY#  Cross-posted this from the megathread in r/personalfinance.
Obviously the only way to have good credit is by owing money, and making payments as scheduled. To do this I would do everything I could to place all of your required expenses on a credit card. This can include paying rent, food, transportation, etc.  These are all payments that you already make, but simply move then through a different payment vehicle. It sounds like at this time you may not have a credit card that allows you to do this, but I would watch out for those cards that come in via mail with all kinds of special deals. While you have not mentioned if you have any of this, make sure that you keep up with your past debt and negotiate repayment if needed. Once your credit improves, you should begin to see doors opening that are problems now.