vania-janet/multiturn-rag-retrieval-data huggingface dataset:
If a change of origin and/or originating carrier is made, the seller shall then follow the buyer's revised instructions within seven (7) Business Days after receipt of such instructions. If the freight rate to the buyer's destination is not published, the freight charge shall be negotiated between the buyer and seller in accordance with industry practice. Any additional freight charges resulting from diversion by the buyer in excess of the actual charges for shipment to the destination specified in the shipping instructions submitted to the Clearing House are the responsibility of the buyer. Any reduction in freight charges that may result from a diversion is not subject to billing adjustment through the Clearing House. Any applicable surcharges noted by the rail carrier shall be considered as part of the freight rate and can be billed to the buyer through the CME Clearing House. If within two (2) Business Days of the receipt of the Notice of Intent the buyer has not designated a destination, or if during that time the buyer and seller fail to agree on a negotiated freight charge, the seller shall treat the destination as Chicago, Illinois. If the buyer does not designate a carrier or routing, the seller shall select same according to normal trade practices. To complete delivery, the seller must deposit with the Clearing House a Delivery Notice, a uniform straight bill of lading (or a copy thereof) and written information specifying grade, a tally of pieces of each length, board feet by sizes and total board feet. The foregoing documents must be received by the Clearing House postmarked within fourteen (14) Business Days of the date of receipt of shipping instructions. In addition, within one (1) Business Day after acceptance by the railroad, the Clearing House must receive information (via a telephone call, facsimile or electronic transmission) from the seller giving the car number, piece count by length, unit size, total board footage and date of acceptance. The ￼date of acceptance by the railroad is the date of the bill of lading, signed and/or stamped by the originating carrier, except when determined otherwise by the Clearing House. For some commodities you can't get physical delivery (for instance, Cheese futures won't deliver piles of cheese to your door, for reasons that may be obvious) 6003.A. Final Settlement There shall be no delivery of cheese in settlement of this contract.
"Regardless of what the credit reporting agencies or brokerages say, the fact is that brokerage margin is not reported to the credit reporting agencies. I have ""borrowed"" hundreds of thousands of dollars on margin from dozens of brokerages over the years and have never seen a dime of it reported nor have I ever heard of it ever being reported for someone else.  ...and it's easy to see why this would be so because ""borrowing"" on margin isn't really borrowing at all because you always must have positive equity in the account at all times. So you aren't borrowing anything, you just have an investment contract that determines your gains/losses as if you had borrowed (in other words, it's simulated)."
Sounds like you are reconciling more than once a month.  I like to say I glance at all my statements, but these days I just look at the final balance and call it good.  If a transaction shows up by mistake, I would find it in a couple of days because of how often I update my Quicken and Mint.com
Your bank will convert it (taking a fee for that, of course). It might be delayed some days so it can clear (2-3 days).
With margin accounts you will be able to use the proceeds from a closed trade INSTANTLY.  Without margin accounts this is the time you close the trade + 3 business days for clearing. In practice this means 4-5 days if there is a weekend or holiday involved between those 3 business days. This ties up your capital for an unfavorable amount of time, where as a margin account lets you continue to use the capital over and over again for more opportunities. You CANNOT sell to open a position in cash accounts. This means no short selling. This means no covered calls or spreads and MANY other strategies. These are the real differences you'll notice in a margin account vs a cash account.  Then there are the myriad of regulations that dictate how much cash you should keep in your account for any margin position.
"From the Op's comment below re: the ""audit""  http://www.gao.gov/new.items/d11696.pdf, the first paragraph states that loans outstanding peaked at just over 1 trillion in 2008.  So you'd look at the Fed's balance sheet of loans outstanding over time, and perhaps subtract amounts reported as more normal operations."
Investigate the statute of limitations in your area.  15 years sounds like in most places it is past the allowable time a debt collector can legally collect or report it on your credit report. The statute of limitations means you still owe the debt, but they collector can no longer use the court system to collect it from you.  They can file a lawsuit, they will just lose.  Please read up on how to handle yourself with a debt that is past the SoL, so that you don't accidentally reset the clock. What I don't know for sure is how that applies to a business, and I cannot remember ever hearing a difference between personal vs business debt, but it is best to consult a lawyer regarding it. References:
"The first thing you should do is write a letter to the collection company telling them that you dispute all charges and demand, per section 809 of the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, that they immediately validate and confirm any and all debts they allege you owe. You should further request that that they only communicate with you by mail. Section 809 requires them to examine the legal documents showing you allegedly owe a debt and they are required to send this to you. This all creates a useful paper trail. When you send the letter, be sure to send it as certified mail with a return receipt. From your description, it doesn't sound like this will do anything, but it's important you do it within 30 days of them contacting you. This is because the law allows them to assume the debt is valid if you don't do it within 30 days of their initial contact. I recommend you speak with an attorney. Most states have a statute of limitation on debt of about 4 or 5 years. I don't know if that applies to courts though. Whatever you do, be very careful of the language you use when speaking with them. Always refer to it as ""the alleged debt,"" or ""the debt you allege I owe."" You don't want them misconstruing your words later on. As far as proving you paid it, I would look through every scrap of paper I'd ever touched looking for it. If that proves fruitless, try going to the courthouse and looking through their records. If they're saying you didn't pay, that's a long shot, but still worth a try. You could also try bank records from that time, like if you have a Visa statement showing $276.17 paid to the Nevada Court or something like that. If all else fails, the law allows you to send the collector a letter saying that you refuse to pay the debt. The collection company then legally must stop contacting you unless it's to tell you they are suing you or to tell you they won't contact you again. I strongly advise against this though. Your best bet is going to be speaking with a qualified attorney.
It HAS to end in the dissolution of Equifax. There was an explicit chain of trust. If either party breaks that chain they lose their standing.   Consumers know what happens when they commit to actions to lose their credit rating.   Equifax needs to answer to the same standards.
She's so happy she got a new credit card that she charges $1,500 in purchases on the first day of her monthly billing cycle. After the cycle ends, Sally pays off the entire $1,500 by the due date, wiping her balance to zero. As a result, her purchases during the second month are also free of interest. She has used her grace period wisely to avoid finance charges. What happens if Sally leaves just $1 of her balance from the first month unpaid? That $1 begins to accrue interest starting the first day of the billing cycle. It's just $1, so the interest is not a big deal -- but because she used up her grace period without paying off her entire debt, her new purchases during the second month also start to get hit with interest charges immediately, starting the day of the transaction. Assuming she makes another $1,500 in purchases at the average annual interest rate of about 13 percent, that means $16 in finance charges for the month. If Sally repeats this pattern, the interest costs add up to $190 over the course of a year."
How come when I sell stocks, the brokerage won't let me cash out for three days, telling me the SEC requires this clearance period for the transaction to clear, but they can swap shit around in under a second?   Be interesting to see what would happen if *every* transaction wasn't cleared until the closing bell.
We just declared bankruptcy, chapter 13, paying back all debtors over a 5 year period, 7% interest, no fees, no penalties, 100% payback.  Every one of our debtors was required to submit proofs of claim to the court, and those that did are getting everything that is owed to them.  Those that did not provide proofs of claim get nothing.  The bankruptcy finalized today (12/12/2011) and so far about $10k worth of debt has been disallowed by the court for their failure to provide proof.  The relief, both financially and emotionally has been tremendous.
I would go to the bank and just express the concern that the check sent to you might not fully clear. You don't want to spend it until you're sure it cleared. I'd ask for a manager to tell you when it will clear, then confirm after that date that it's cleared, with the same guy.  Perhaps someone in the industry can explain how long the bank has before deciding the check is bad. 10 days? 2 weeks? Really, it should either clear or bounce by the second night.  I'd not risk doing this for anyone. Anyone I know personally can cash their own check, and I'd not get involved with anyone I don't know on a financial matter like this. EDIT - See Littleadv comment below. Good checks clear fast, a forged check has time for the victim to go to the bank and challenge the signature and cashing of the check. The victim can have 60 days to do this. That's the issue, I am wrong, the bank manager couldn't confirm the check was good so soon.
Once you own no shares for 31 days, it's game over. Even though the accounting has wash sales to consider, in the end, gains and losses all cancel to one net position of break even, gain or loss.  It's when there are shares remaining at the end of a period of time that the wash sale rules really impact the numbers.
It's my understanding that the grace period is only for filing - the actual procedure/purchase must be performed CY2011 to be paid out from the 2011 FSA money, etc.
As per the SIPC website: Most customers can expect to receive their property in one to three   months. When the records of the brokerage firm are accurate,   deliveries of some securities and cash to customers may begin shortly   after the trustee receives the completed claim forms from customers,   or even earlier if the trustee can transfer customer accounts to   another broker-dealer. Delays of several months usually arise when the   failed brokerage firm’s records are not accurate. It also is not   uncommon for delays to take place when the troubled brokerage firm or   its principals were involved in fraud. Source link: http://www.sipc.org/Who/SIPCQuestions/SIPCQuestion3.aspx
The debt collection agency (DCA) has purchased the debt and has the rights to your original account. The original creditor will have nothing to do with you anymore. If the DCA does not want to work with your payment schedule, simply deposit the money into an account. Don’t touch the money. Hopefully you save enough money soon enough to pay off the debt before it falls off your credit report. If not, well, enjoy the money you saved.
First off... If you provide good service than you shouldn't worry... Since you are providing a service and your customers send payment to your PayPal, if there is no dispute made within 90 days, the customer cannot dispute further.  However if it is disputed within 90 days than you may run into some trouble. But it may be in your favor if PayPal finds no signs of fraud and since it's a service payment, PayPal cannot really track it compared to if your customers paid you for a product which can be disputed up to 180 Days?? I may be wrong on that one.  However if it does get disputed and PayPal favors your clients than you have to pay it back one way or another. You may want to ask your customers or put yourself a description of the service and terms in the invoice. It may help resolve future disputes. I know this because I have called PayPal customer service and ask which I suggest you do too.
I paid with my Visa credit card. Generally on credit cards, the holds / authorizations are valid for a month on single transactions. So if you haven't been charged on your card, it seems that there was some technical error with the online market place. They were not able to trace this. Is there an expiration date on these kind of online purchases? Should I expect the money to be withdrawn at any time? There are 2 different aspects, one is do you still owe them money and can they ask you; It would be yes, I don't know the timelines. This would depend on establishing a contract etc. They can contact you for unpaid invoice. Can they again charge the credit card automatically ... generally No.
"Ugh... yes, you have to tell us what information you have available. It would be a completely different answer if, for example, you had a balance sheet for a prior period and an income statement for the current period and had to estimate the working capital accounts. If you can't be bothered to ""want to give the problem"" nobody is going to be bothered to help you with it.   Inventory days = days of COGS in inventory. (15 / 360 times cogs). AR is 35 days of sales in AR. 35/360* sales. Vendor credit is accounts payable -- 40 /360 * COGS.   If your sales and COGs are given by operating cycle rather than annually, use 50 instead of 360. (for whatever reason, convention says use 360 instead of 365)."
This will not result in any finance charges: I wouldn't recommend cutting it quite so close, but as long as you pay the full balance as shown on each statement by the due date shown on that same statement, you won't incur a finance charge. Of course this only applies in the case of ordinary purchases that have a grace period.
If the billing cycle is 2 to 3 months, it would mean Banks have to give credit for a longer period and it makes the entire business less profitable as well as more risky compared to the Monthly billing cycle. For example the current monthly billing cycle with a date say of 14th, means if you swipe your card on 1st day, one would effectively get a credit for 30+14, around 44 days. If you swipe on last day, one would get a credit for 14 days. On an average 22 days of credit. If we make this 3 months, the credit period would increase on an average (90+14)/2, 52 days. From a risk point of view, on monthly cycle if there is non-payment its flagged much earlier compared to a 3 months cycle. On offering different dates, shop around. In the older times the cycles were different, however with individuals having several cards, and trying to optimize every purchase to maximize credit period. Quite a few banks have streamlined it to monthly cycle. Shop around and some banks should be able to offer you different dates.
Depending on the specific bond, here is the official info. http://www.wilmingtontrust.com/gmbondholders/index.html Bottom line, it won't be determined for a while yet, as the filing with the Bankruptcy Court still has lots of blanks.
Just pay it, its not alot and it will clear up your credit report.
This period is typically 3-6 years but a few states such as Kentucky allow much longer time periods (up to 15 years). Being a time-barred debt does NOT prevent a collector from contacting someone about a debt. Collectors can still try to collect a debt forever -- and probably will -- but they can't normally sue and collect payment once the statute of limitations period has passed. There are gotchas with time-barred debts regarding collection, however, which can make them still legally actionable. Making any payment, no matter how small, making a verbal commitment to pay or even acknowledging the time-barred debt is often enough to make the debt legally collectable, even if it would normally be past the statute of limitations for collection. This is again state-dependent, but it is a pitfall for many people. The process of making a debt collectable again is often called ""re-aging"". Re-aging essentially means the clock starts anew on the statute of limitations, extending the time that a creditor may use the courts to collect that debt. If someone is taken to court over a time-barred debt that is legally noncollectable (has not been legally re-aged), nothing happens to them. However, being time-barred does not prevent legal action in the sense that you still have to prove the debt is time-barred and noncollectable in court if your sued over it. Being time-barred does not mean the debt ""dissolves"". A debt is always owed unless the debt has been forgiven or discharged in bankruptcy court. This means that, combined with the ability of debt collectors to contact someone about out of statute debt and the pitfalls of re-aging, it is entirely possible for a debt collector to get a 20 year old debt actionable again. Also note that while someone is trying to dodge a debt to make it time-barred (e.g. by not paying anything), creditors and debt collectors can still take legal action to sue over the debt, and if they get a judgment against someone, this can extend the debt indefinitely. Judgements will eventually lapse, but often only after 10 years or more, and many states allow dormant judgements to be ""revived"" within that time period.
"I think this stuff was more valid when grace periods were longer. For example, back in the 90's, I had an MBNA card with a 35 day grace period. Many business travellers used Diner's Club charge cards because they featured a 60 day grace period. There are valid uses for this: As JoeTaxpayer stated, if you are benefiting from ""tricks"" like this, you probably have other problems that you probably ought to deal with."
In my experience earning interest is not enough to keep the account in a non-dormant state. If payment of interest was the trigger to reset the clock then no savings account would ever be considered dormant. In general as the account got close to the deadline we were notified that a single transaction moving money into or out of the account would reset the clock. I have had this happen in recent years with a bank account and a credit union account.  In researching for the exact definition of a dormant account I found this regarding interest on the FDIC website: That means that the state law may set the definition, it also means that you should look at the information regarding the bank policy. I did try and see if the rules for a credit union are the same. The added twist with a credit union is that if the account is closed, they are no longer a share holder and that brings into the discussion voting rights. So the policy/guidelines is even more complex. If the account does go inactive state law will define what happens to the account, and how you can get the funds back.
Holding Companies: Bank of America Corporation Long-term senior unsecured debt to Baa2 from Baa1, outlook negative; Short-term P-2 affirmed Barclays plc Long-term issuer rating to A3 from A1, outlook negative; Short-term to P-2 from P-1 Citigroup Inc. Long-term senior debt to Baa2 from A3, outlook negative; short-term P-2 affirmed Credit Suisse Group AG Provisional senior debt to (P)A2 from (P)Aa2, outlook stable; Provisional Short-term (P)P-1 affirmed The Goldman Sachs Group, Inc. Long-term senior unsecured debt to A3 from A1, outlook negative; Short-term to P-2 from P-1 HSBC Holdings plc Long-term senior debt to Aa3 from Aa2, outlook negative; Provisional Short-term (P)P-1 affirmed JPMorgan Chase &amp; Co. Long-term senior debt to A2 from Aa3, outlook negative; Short-term P-1 affirmed Morgan Stanley Long-term senior unsecured debt to Baa1 from A2; outlook negative; Short-term to P-2 from P-1 Royal Bank of Scotland Group plc Long-term senior debt to Baa1 from A3, outlook negative; Short-term P-2 affirmed ------------- Operating Companies: Bank of America, N.A. Long-term deposit rating to A3 from A2, outlook stable; Short-term to P-2 from P-1 Barclays Bank plc Long-term issuer rating to A2 from Aa3, outlook negative; Short-term P-1 affirmed BNP Paribas Long-term debt and deposit rating to A2 from Aa3
You should contact the Company who purchased your visa balance and ask/write the following questions:  1. Dispute the charge from Emusic.com as invalid. 2. Instruct that no future charges will be accepted.  3. How come Emusic.com was allowed to debit your account? 4.  When did they purchased your visa account? 5.  Ask for written verification that they purchased your account from the original company? such as a bill of sale? 6.  Ask if the company is a registered debt collector in your state? 7. The FAIR DEBT COLLECTION PRACTICES ACT (FDCPA) may apply to your circumstance(s) and provide for $1,000 in damages to the consumer and $1,000 attorney fees from a third party debt collector per violation. You may want to seek the advice of an attorney  to help determine if you have a good cause to sue the company and Emusic. If you did not receive anything form Emusic.com or your contract/agreement ended without a cancelation/early termination fee,  ALso, file a written dispute with Emusic.com.  Check your credit report.   Many companies automatically charge your accounts through automatic payments after termination of the agreement because they get away with it in the U.S., if the consumer does not take steps to dispute the current charge and stop future charges from occurring in the future. Never use auto pay unless required and the service is essential.  When using auto pay use a dedicated account not your main checking account. It is less of a pain in the neck to close the account if its your 2nd or 3rd checking account and not your only account.
As the record date is 7th August, you need to hold stocks on the 7th August closing. You need not hold it till 2nd Sept. The list as taken on 7th August would be processed and instructions given to Bank and the dividends credited by 1st Sept.  Edit: To Clarify Victor's comment Typically from the time one sells the stocks to the time it actually gets transferred has a clearing cycle. Most stock exchanges have 2 or 3 days cycles. i.e. if I sell the stock today, it is still in my name. The money is still with the buyer. On Day 1, the positions are arrived at. On Day 2 the stock gets credited to the buyer and the funds gets credit to seller.  As the question was specific whether to hold the stock till 7th or 22nd Sept, my initial answer was simple. The illustration by Victor is more accurate.
I'd be surprised if this ended in a materially-damaging final settlement. It may take more than 5 years to resolve, unless a smoking gun is produced. If PWC and outside counsel really issued written opinions, it could get a lot messier. Especially when we tip over into another recession, the IRS will come under intense Congressional pressure to cut a nominal deal.
Why does it take two weeks (from ex-date) for dividends to pay out? For logistical and accounting purposes. This article says on the payment date: This date is generally a week or more after the date of record so that the company has sufficient time to ensure that it accurately pays all those who are entitled. It is for the same reasons that there is a often a two-week period between the time an employee submits her time sheet and the employee's pay date. The company needs time to set and send the payment while minimizing accounting errors.