vania-janet/multiturn-rag-retrieval-data huggingface dataset:
"If the wording is ""within 10 days"" then its 10 days. Calendar days. Otherwise they would put ""10 business days"", for example. Usually, if you need to do something within 10 days from today, the first day to count is today. I would expect ""within"" to mean that you can fund in any of the days up to the 10th. But that's me, trying to read English as English. Why don't you call the bank and ask them?"
it means that 20% of my closing balance each day will be added up over the course of a month and then given once the month is over. Yes apart from the typo 0.20% of every day balance. The rate itself is quoted for a year, so for a day it will be (Px0.20)/(100x365). Where P = The principal amount of every day. The credits will be every month-end. For leap year will be 366. Check with your Bank quite a few Banks still use the old convention of 360 days in year.
What exactly does consumer relief mean? In my mind it means they are going to write off loans/debt/fees/payments they have no chance of collecting. Relief also does not even come close to repairing the damage caused to families pushed into fraudulent loans.
Glass half full: it means it's a great time to buy if you can afford the payments  Glass half empty: it means there are not enough buyers because too many people are burdened with student loans and food services or preparation jobs
The hard hold is the bank holding your money for no reason but to make money of your. Like the hotel took deposit for my over night and they released the time checked out in there system but it never showed on my account . I had to call the bank why the numbers are not adding up to my current balance. It's illegal practice by banks to hold your money until your realize you didn't spent that much and that musing amount is not even showing on your account. When it happen they will release after 30 days or you can call the bank right away soon as you done your business so you can use the money right away not the bank
For the clearing house, only the routing number and the check amount [which gets encoded before its presented to clearing] is important. The check numbers were put in as a fraud prevention mechanism to ensure that one check was only presented once and that it was issued to a particular account. Typically issued in sequence.   So as your account is new, the bank may have a mechanism to verify the checks [maybe based on amount and other info]. If your volume of check issuing increases, they may start putting in a check number to better track.
"The Business Dictionary has three definitions of ""turnover"".  When it comes to share dealing, the most likely one is the total value of shares traded on the stock exchange in a given period."
You said the hold would last a week. That's your answer. No you can't spend it again until the hold clears.
Lazy man's budget.  Four separate accounts for timing of expenses: short (monthly; utilities etc.), medium (quarterly+; property taxes), long (yearly+; house improvements) and retirement.   Set target levels for each account, to cover 1 full cycle.  The short target is smallest; it should comfortably cover a month.  For me each target is about 10x larger than the last.  (Cycles & targets for a homeowner w/ family; YMMV).   All income goes in short term.  When an account gets above target level, the excess gets swept up to the next longer term account.  That's all I keep firm track of; takes just a few minutes a month. Watching the account balances vs. their targets (and how short some of them are of target) keeps me focused on spending, and thinking about how much I can sweep (or can't) next paycheck.
"Equity is the term to make things balance. In a simple transaction, you get $100 paid to you. Income goes up by $100 and the asset of whatever bank account or petty cash drawer you put it into also goes up by $100. Equity is unchanged. If for some reason you had to take some income into your books, but no asset increased, no debt decreased, and you had no way to take an offsetting expense into your books, then this would lower your equity. How else to explain having ""earned"" $100 but having nothing to show for it?"
"Without researching the securities in question I couldn't tell you which cycle each is in, but your answer is that they have different expiration cycles. The following definition is from the CBOE website; ""Expiration cycle An expiration cycle relates to the dates on which options on a particular underlying security expire. A given option, other than LEAPS®, will be assigned to one of three cycles, the January cycle, the February cycle or the March cycle."""
I looked at this a little more closely but the answer Victor provided is essentially correct.  The key to look at in the google finance graph is the red labled SMA(###d) would indicate the period units are d=days.  If you change the time axis of the graph it will shift to SMA(###m) for period in minutes or SMA(###w) for period in weeks.  Hope this clears things up!
"As mentioned in other answers, you find out by reading the Rulebook for that commodity and exchange. I'll quote a couple of random passages to show how they vary: For CME (Chicago Mercantile Exchange) Random Length Lumber Futures, the delivery is ornate: Seller shall give his Notice of Intent to Deliver to the Clearing House prior to 12:00 noon (on any Business Day after termination of trading in the contract month. 20103.D. Seller's Duties If the buyer's designated destination is east of the western boundaries of North Dakota, South Dakota, Nebraska, Kansas, Texas and Oklahoma, and the western boundary of Manitoba, Canada, the seller shall follow the buyer's shipping instructions within seven (7) Business Days after receipt of such instructions. In addition, the seller shall prepay the actual freight charges and bill the buyer, through the Clearing House, the lowest published freight rate for 73-foot railcars from Prince George, British Columbia to the buyer's destination. If the lowest published freight rate from Prince George, British Columbia to buyer's destination is a rate per one hundred pounds, the seller shall bill the buyer on the weight basis of 1,650 pounds per thousand board feet. The term ""lowest published freight rate"" refers only to the lowest published ""general through rate"" and not to rates published in any other rate class. If, however, the buyer’s destination is outside of the aforementioned area, the seller shall follow the same procedures except that the seller shall have the right to change the point of origin and/or originating carrier within 2 Business Days after receipt of buyer’s original shipping instructions. If a change of origin and/or originating carrier is made, the seller shall then follow the buyer's revised instructions within seven (7) Business Days after receipt of such instructions. If the freight rate to the buyer's destination is not published, the freight charge shall be negotiated between the buyer and seller in accordance with industry practice. Any additional freight charges resulting from diversion by the buyer in excess of the actual charges for shipment to the destination specified in the shipping instructions submitted to the Clearing House are the responsibility of the buyer. Any reduction in freight charges that may result from a diversion is not subject to billing adjustment through the Clearing House.
"&gt; We've been deficit spending for generations and we're trillions in the hole, and that's the psychological issue hanging over our heads. Let's unpack that a bit. What does ""trillions in the hole"" actually mean for the *issuer* of the dollar? It means that the issuer at various points has to redeem its own interest-bearing dollars (treasuries) for its own non-interest bearing dollars (reserves/notes/coins). That's not a hole. That's moving a balance from the savings account to the checking account at the same bank. You don't think of your savings account balance as the bank being ""in the hole"" for checking account balances. You implicitly understand that the bank simply marks down the number in one account and marks up the number in the other and you don't fret that the bank might ""run out"" of checking account balances. Treasuries have this same relationship to reserves. Not similar, not analogous to but the same. Treasury securities are literally interest-bearing accounts at the federal reserve. Reserves are literally demand accounts at the federal reserve. When a treasury matures, a treasury securities account is marked down, a reserve account is marked up. When a treasury is issued, a treasury securities account is marked up and a reserve account is marked down. What you're thinking of as trillions ""in the hole"" is just trillions in a savings account balance. That's what it means to have ""debt"" in a currency that you are the *issuer* of and why foreign-denominated debt is fundamentally different. &gt;so we can design a system that will keep inflation low while we dump money into the economy We already have that. There's no inflation monster under the bed. If there's an inflation problem it's that we're so paranoid about it we're not putting *enough* money into the economy and so inflicting unnecessary misery on ourselves.
It really is a stupid term.  What comes to mind with the term underwater?  drowning, sunk boats, cars and other property and flooding. All really stressful and damaging.   Underwater in mortgages, means you owe more than your house is worth, .... ER your home's value dropped below the value of your mortgage.  It does suck but  it doesnt mean they are behind on their mortgage and doesnt suck as much as people who are behind.  it isnt really something to worry about except for the future when you resell. For a lot of people it is just something they can ignore.   In theory, they should get a lower tax bill.   Underwater just seems like an odd term for something like your home value dropping below the price your paid for it. If you buy a new car, you can pretty much claim to be underwater as you drive it off the lot, because your car simply isnt worth what you paid for it the second it becomes used.  not saying it isnt an interesting stat, or that it is of no concern, it's just an odd term.  To me it is more fitting for people behind in their payments than for people whose property lost value.  (and yeah i get it is more dire for investors and somewhat for landlords but not always)
Penultimate because a good construction contract withholds some amount (5% or 10%) of the money owed to the builder for anywhere from three months to a year to ensure that the builder will come back and fix things that were done incorrectly but not noticed till the house was lived in. (For example, one drywall nail had penetrated an electrical wire creating leakage. This was not discovered during inspection - flip the switch; light turns on? yes, so flip the switch back and move on - but when the light was turned on for three hours after the house was occupied, an electrical fire began inside the wall!) So, after this settle-down period is over, the builder submits the final payment request and gives a final lien waiver to the effect that everything owed to him has been paid. It is during this period of time that the bank wants to make sure that you don't take on additional loans or debts, or make any material changes to the facts that the bank used in assessing your credit-worthiness and making the decision to loan you the money. Hence the clause that is causing you to worry. Construction loans usually are at higher interest rates than regular mortgages so that once construction is complete, it is in your best interest to replace the construction loan (paying off its mortgage) with a regular home-owner loan and mortgage. If you get the regular mortgage from the same bank, you might be able to get some of the fees waived while going to another bank will mean that appraisal fee, termite inspection fee, etc will have to be paid. But in either case, the prohibition against buying that Beemer will disappear; just don't take out that auto loan between the mortgage application and the closing on the regular mortgage as mhoran_psprep's buyer did!
"&gt; What does it even mean for something ""to come out of IT's budget?""  From the IT managers perspective he has a budget of X dollars to allocate. When X dollars are spent that's it, he isn't allowed to spend any more.   If unforeseen expenses are incurred (e.g. the computers for the new hires) and deducted from his budget that leaves a deficit that has to account for, usually by dropping something else he had previously though urgent enough to spend money on.  How this is represented in the books is of no interest to the IT manager. His world view is limited to “I had X dollars, now I only have X-Y dollars.”"
Given that a mutual fund manager knows, at the end of the day, precisely how many shares/units/whatever of each investment (stock, equity, etc.) they own, plus their bank balance,  It is calculating this given. There are multiple orders that a fund manager requests for execution, some get settled [i.e. get converted into trade], the shares itself don't get into account immediately, but next day or 2 days later depending on the exchange. Similarly he would have sold quite a few shares and that would still show shares in his account. The bank balance itself will not show the funds to pay as the fund manager has purchased something ... or the funds received as the fund manager has sold something. So in general they roughly know the value ... but they don't exactly know the value and would have to factor the above variables. That's not a simple task when you are talking about multiple trades across multiple shares.
Another way of explaining the puzzling balance: Right after a particular bill is paid, you have $0 saved to pay that bill the next time.  Just before the bill is next due, you wisely have the whole amount saved;  that's the purpose of the whole process.  So, for that bill, on average over time, you'll have one-half that upcoming bill in the account. But the same argument holds for every one of the upcoming bills.  So, for a large number of bills, with varying sizes and times between occurrence, the average amount in the account will be approximately one-half of the total amount of all the bills that you're saving for.
"ACH transfers are the evolution of paper check clearing houses. Transactions are conducted in bulk and do not immediately settle -- the drawer and drawee still retain liability for a period of days or weeks after the transaction date. (I'd suggest looking to the legal definition of a check or draft to understand this better.) A for-fee wire transfer still goes through an intermediary, but settle immediately and irrevocably. Wire transfers are analogous to handing cash to someone.  In the US, the various Federal Reserve banks are involved because they are the central banks of the the United States.  In the past, bank panics were started or exacerbated when banks would refuse to honor drafts drawn on other banks of questionable stability. Imagine what would happen today if your electric company refused to accept Bank of America or Citibank's check/ACH transactions? Wouldn't you get withdraw every penny you could from BoA? During the 1907 banking panic, many solvent banks collapsed when the system of bank ""subscriptions"" (ie. arrangements where small town banks would ""subscribe"" to large commercial banks for check clearing, etc) broke down. Farmers, small business people and individuals lost everything, all because the larger banks would not (or could not) risk holding drafts/checks from the smaller banks."
If we are not going to make all of the funds from your deposit available by the first business day after the day of your deposit, we generally notify you at the time you make your deposit. We also tell you when the funds will be available. Ok what happens when the funds are available... In many cases, we make funds from your deposited checks available to you sooner than we are able to collect the checks. This means that, from time to time, a deposited check may be returned unpaid after we made the funds available to you. Please keep in mind that even though we make funds from a deposited check available to you and you withdraw the funds, you are still responsible for problems with the deposit. If a check you deposited is returned to us unpaid for any reason, you will have to repay us and we may charge your account for the amount of the check, even if doing so overdraws your account. Fidelity has a similar document: Each check deposited is promptly credited to your account. However, the money may not be available until up to six business days later, and we may decline to honor any debit that is applied against the money before the deposited check has cleared. If a deposited check does not clear, the deposit will be removed from your account, and you are responsible for returning any interest you received on it. I would think that the longer holding period for Fidelity is due to the fact that they want to wait long enough to make sure that the number of times they have to undo investments due to the funds not clearing is nearly zero.
"Google's RSI is using a 10 period on 2 minute bars - i.e. it is based upon the last 20 minutes of data. Yahoo's RSI is using a 14 period lookback on an undetermined timeframe (you could maybe mouse-over and see what incremental part of the chart is giving) and given the ""choppier"" price chart, probably 30 second or 1 minute bars.   Given the difference in both the period specified and the periodicity of the charts - you should expect different results."
Depending on the cutoff date (the ""ex-dividend date""), the seller may need to deliver to the buyer just the shares of stock, or the shares plus a big chunk of cash - a significant difference in settlement. Determining the precise ex-dividend date (and so what exactly are the assets to be settled) can sometimes be very difficult... it's usually T-2, except in the case of large distributions, which are usually T+1, unless the regulatory authority has neglected to declare an ex-dividend date, in which case it defaults to standard DTC payment policy (i.e. T-2)... I've been involved in a few situations where the brokers involved were clueless, and full settlement of ""due bills"" for cash distributions to the buyer took several months of hard arguing. So yeah, the brokers want a little time to get their records in order and settle the trade correctly."
"When you buy a stock, you're really paying for a STREAM of earnings, from now till whenever. The job of an investor is to figure out how large that stream will be in the future. But if the stock price were the same as ""earnings"" (for one year), it would mean that you would get all future earnings for ""free."" That's not likely to happen unless 1) the company is in liquidation,"" meaning ""no future"" and 2) it earned ALL of the money it ever earned in the past year, meaning ""no past."" If there are likely to be any earnings in the future, you will have to pay for those future earnings, over and above what was earned in the most recent year."
"Stock support and resistance levels mean that historically, there was ""heavy"" buying/selling at those levels. This suggests, but does not guarantee, that ""someone"" will buy at ""support"" levels, and ""someone"" will sell at ""resistance levels. Any ""history"" is meaningful, but most analysts will say that after six months to a year, the impact of events declines the further back in time you go. They can be meaningful for periods as short as days."
This is a joke, just like all the other settlements.  What does it mean?  This payment just symbolizes all the money they are letting go of through short sales, etc.  Their just using this payment to cover their losses.  Its not a payment, its an agreement to relieve $16Billion in debts.
"There are quite a few regulations on ""Insider Trading"". Blackouts are one of the means companies adopt to comply with ""Insider Trading"" regulations, mandating employees to refrain from selling/buying during the notified period. Once you leave the employment: So unless there is an urgent need for you to sell/buy the options, wait for some time and then indulge in trade."
Buy and hold doesn't have an exact definition, as far as I know.  In my opinion, it's offered as a contrast to those who trade too frequently, or panic every time the market drops 2%.  For the general market, e.g. your S&P index holdings. You sell to rebalance to your desired asset allocation. As a personal example, at 50, I was full up invested, 95%+ in stocks. When my wife and I were retired (i.e. let go from company, but with no need to go back to work) I started shifting to get to a more sane allocation, 80/20. The ideal mix may be closer to 60/40.  Also, there are times the market as a whole is overvalued as measure by P/E and/or CAPE, made popular by Nobel Prize winning Robert Shiller. During these times, an allocation shift might make sense.  For the individual stocks, you had best have a strategy when you buy. Why did you buy XYZ? Because they had promise, decent company with a good outlook for their product? Now that they are up 300%, can they keep gaining share or expand their market? Sometimes you can keep raising the bar, and keep a company long term, really long. Other times, the reason you bought no longer applies, they are at or above the valuation you hoped to achieve.  Note - I noticed from another question, the OP is in the UK. I answer this my from US centric view, but it should still apply to OP in general. The question was not tagged UK when I replied.
Recessions are prolonged by less spending and wages being 'sticky' downward. My currency, the 'wallark', allows a company to pay its workers in it's own scrip instead of dollars which they can use to purchase its goods, thus reducing it's labor costs and allowing prices to fall faster. While scrip in the past purposely devalued to discourage hoarding, the wallark hold's it's purchasing power. The difference is, a worker can only use it to purchase their company's good *on the date the wallark was earned or before*.  In other words, each good is labeled with a date it was put on display for sale, if  a worker earns scrip on that same day, they can trade the scrip for that good, or any good that was on the shelves on that day it was earned *or before that date*. Any good that comes onto market after the date that particular wallark was earned cannot be purchased with that wallark(which is dated), and must be purchased either with dollars or with wallark that was earned on that good's date or after. This incentivizes spending without creating inflation, and allows costs to fall which helps businesses during rough economic times.  Please feel free to read it, and comment on my site! Any feedback is welcome!
I'm not 100% sure, but I don't think it would be considered a free ride. The idea of a free ride is that you are engaging in a transaction when you do not actually have the money available to cover it, since the broker is technically giving you a 3 day loan whenever you purchase your stock (3 day rule to settle.) However, if you are using a margin account, and you have enough credit available, then you are not actually using unsettled assets, but rather an additional line of credit which was granted to you. You would just need to make sure that your total transactions are less than your purchasing power. That's my take on it anyway. I hope that helps, and hopefully someone can confirm or reject what I have said.