vania-janet/multiturn-rag-retrieval-data huggingface dataset:
According to Publication 590, broker's commissions for stock transactions within an IRA cannot be paid in addition to the IRA contribution(s), but they are deductible as part of the contribution, or add to the basis if you are making a nondeductible contribution to a Traditional IRA. (Top of Page 10, and Page 12, column 1, in the 2012 edition of Pub 590). On the other hand, trustees'  administrative fees can be paid from outside the IRA if they are billed separately, and are even deductible as a Miscellaneous Deduction on Schedule A of your income tax return (subject to the 2% of AGI threshold).  A long time ago, when my IRA account balances were much smaller, I used to get a bill from my IRA custodian for a $20 annual administrative fee which I paid separately (but never got to deduct due to the 2% threshold). My custodian also allowed  the option of doing nothing in which case the $20 would be collected from (and thus reduce) the amount of money in my IRA.  Note that this does not apply to the expenses charged by the mutual funds that you might have in your IRA; these expenses are treated the same as brokerage commissions and must be paid from within the IRA.
No, you don't have to have the money deducted from your paycheck. The IRS doesn't get a copy of your paycheck anyway. When you file your annual tax return (form 1040), there's a line there to write down the amount you contributed to the IRA. In fact, you can contribute to the IRA after the year ended, until the Tax Day of the next year, so that you can make sure your contribution will actually be deductible (not always they are). The IRA custodian (the brokerage firm/bank where you opened the IRA account) will provide you with a deposit confirmation and form 5498. A copy of form 5948 is also sent to the IRS.
There would be no point to claim the gift exemption because a gift from a spouse that you file jointly with wouldn't be considered income. It would be the same as if you moved money from one bank account to another.
However, despite the above, there is another strategy available: One can create an offsetting deduction by contributing some of the realized gain into an RRSP. The RRSP contribution, assuming room is available, would yield a tax deduction to offset some tax due on the gain. However, the RRSP only defers income tax; upon withdrawal of funds, ordinary income tax is due (hopefully, at a lower marginal rate in retirement.) There is no minimum amount of time that money or assets have to be inside a TFSA to benefit from the tax-free nature of the account. However, there are limits on how much money you can move into a TFSA in any given year, and many folks weren't aware of the rules. p.s. Let me add once more that this is a case where I suggest seeking professional tax advice.
Because they are authorized by the City of Philadelphia, the assessment levied by the BID becomes a legal obligation of the property owner and failure to pay can result in the filing of a lien. I have seen discussion that some BIDS can accept tax deductible donations. This means if a person itemizes they can deduct the donation. I would then feel comfortable deducting the tax because: If you can't deduct it that would mean the only people who can't deduct it are home owners. So deduct it. (keep in mind I am not a tax professional)
The original deposit was not taxed in the sense that you got a deduction (reduced tax or increased refund) when you made the contribution. The annual interest earned was not taxed each year either. So when you make a qualified withdrawal (after age 59.5 or by meeting one of the other exceptions allowing withdrawal before age 59.5), you are taking money on which you have not paid any taxes at all, and the IRS wants its cut. The money withdrawn is taxable income to you. Furthermore, the money withdrawn is not eligible for any kind of favorable treatment such as having it count as qualified dividends or as long-term capital gains even if your IRA was invested in stocks and the money in the account is all qualified dividends or long-term capital gains. If you make an unqualified withdrawal, you owe a penalty (technically named an excise tax) in addition to income tax on the amount withdrawn. If you are investing in a Roth IRA, you will not be getting a deduction when you make the contribution, and qualified withdrawals are completely tax-free, and so the answer is completely different from the above.
"No, not really. This depends on the situation and the taxing jurisdiction. Different countries have different laws, and some countries have different laws for different situations. For example, in the US, some investments will be taxed as you described, others will be taxed as ""mark to market"", i.e.: based on the FMV difference between the end of the year and the beginning of the year, and without you actually making any transactions. Depends on the situation."
By the time you've earned the income, it is basically too late to decide who it belongs to[*].  If the assets belong to one person, income from those assets must be declared by that person.  If you earn interest on a shared account, you must declare 50% of it each.  And so on.  (If you're tempted to fudge it bear in mind that banks report to the ATO about interest paid and account ownership.) I don't think Family Tax Benefits are taxable income, but I don't get them myself so I don't know. What you can do is think about how you want things arranged going forward.  That means making a prediction about who will have the higher income; it sounds like that's going to be you, and she will be working at most part time. Therefore she should hold anything that generates taxable income (bank accounts etc) and you should hold anything that generates losses (negatively-geared investments, charitable deductions, etc).  You could look into making a voluntary super contribution into her account which (imbw) will be deductible for you and get it into a lower-tax area. If you're earning on the order of $30k per annum in interest you're looking at paying $11500 tax on it if it's in your name vs $5k if it's in hers, so it's not a moot point. $420k in cash is arguably quite a lot, and perhaps you want to look at putting some of it into a low-cost balanced managed fund, such as those from Vanguard.  That will be somewhat more tax effective, though less stable.  If you're looking to buy a new house within a few years perhaps cash is the best place for it. [*] One kind-of exception is that if you have a family trust, the trust can decide at the end of the year to whom it will distribute its income.  However, you still have to decide to establish a trust in advance.
"The Trustee has allowed me to act as his ""agent"", continuing to pay   bills, and take care of much of the administrative affairs for my   mother's estate since I did all of it for years before she passed   away. I was not paid for any of this work. ... The expenses were more than $30K last year, and there is still a punch list to go this year. The trust should reimburse your expenses and deduct them on the trust tax return. Since the Trust owned the property in 2015, and I will receive ownership this month, can last year's expenses incurred for the Trust be deducted again future income for my property this year?  Not exactly. The trust will file its own tax return and will report the income/loss attributed to the beneficiaries per the trust rules. What is attributed to you will flow to your Schedule E. From there you own it and if it is a passive activity where the loss is limited - you can carry it forward and offset with future gain. The trustee will have to deal with all the paperwork. Do 1099-misc forms need to be filed for the contractors who worked to get it ready for rental? It is my understanding that since 2010 (and before 2010) landlords who are not in real-estate trade or business are not required to send out 1099. But it won't hurt if you do, also. In any case - for all of these issues you should talk to a tax adviser (EA/CPA licensed in your State)."
You have two questions - first - no, if you are above the deduction limit, then you still have a traditional IRA deposit but with post tax money, tracked via form 8606.  Second - If I read this right, if you cannot take the deduction, but can do the Roth, by all means, this is the 'no-brainer' decision. Makes no sense to deposit non-deducted to a traditional IRA if you can do Roth.  But - for sake of the full picture - if above the Roth limit, you still should make the post tax deposit (to the traditional.) If you have no pretax IRA at all, you can convert immediately. If you have a mix, you have the option to convert piecemeal paying the tax on the pro-rated amount the pretax represents.
The rental income is indeed taxable income, but you reduce the taxable portion of it by deducting expenses (including mortgage interest, maintenance, insurance, HOA, real estate tax, and of course depreciation). Due to the depreciation, you may end up breaking even, or having very little taxable income. Note that when you sell the property, your basis is reduced by the depreciation you were allowed to deduct (even if you haven't deducted it for whatever reason), and also the personal residence exclusion might no longer be applicable - i.e.: you'll have to pay capital gains tax. You will not be able to deduct a loss though if you sell now, so it may be better to depreciate it as a rental, rather then sell at a loss that won't affect your taxes. Also, consider the fact that the basis for the depreciation is not the basis you currently have in the property (because you're under water). You have to remember that when calculating the taxes. This is not a tax advice, and you should seek a professional help.
Of course you can transfer it, and it will be legal. There's no taxes on transferring your own money. There's income tax on gains you realized by selling the property, but that is money you already owe, it doesn't matter where the proceeds are. It also doesn't matter how you acquired the property (except for figuring out your basis). What matters is that you had gains, and these gains are taxable in the US. You need to figure out the value of the property when your father bought it, and that is your basis. The difference between what you sold it for and that basis is your taxable gain, and you already owe taxes on that gain.
"You ask about ""traditional IRA VS taxable (non-retirement) investment account.""  You already know about tax deductible IRAs, which are similar, mostly, to your 401(k). A Traditional IRA can have a non-deducted component. In a sense, it then functions similar to the fully pre-tax IRA as it grows tax free, but then withdrawals are made and taxes paid on the pro-rated not-yet-taxed money.  It also offers the simple conversion to a Roth IRA. For those who have no current IRA with pre-tax money, a conversion will be tax free, for those with an existing pretax IRA, conversions are prorated for tax due, if the account had say $10,000, and $5,000 was post-tax, any conversion will have half taxed at your marginal rate."
That's tricky, actually. First, as the section 1015 that you've referred to in your other question says - you take the lowest of the fair market value or the actual donor basis. Why is it important? Consider these examples: So, if the relative bought you a brand new car and you're the first title holder (i.e.: the relative paid, but the car was registered directly to you) - you can argue that the basis is the actual money paid. In essence you got a money gift that you used to purchase the car. If however the relative bought the car, took the title, and then drove it 5 miles to your house and signed the title over to you - the IRS can argue that the car basis is the FMV, which is lower because it is now a used car that you got. You're the second owner. That may be a significant difference, just by driving off the lot, the car can lose 10-15% of its value. If you got a car that's used, and the donor gives it to you - your basis is the fair market value (unless its higher than the donor's basis - in which case you get the donor's basis). You always get the lowest basis for losses (and depreciation is akin to a loss). Now consider the situation when your relative is a business owner and used the car for business. He didn't take the depreciation, but he was entitled to. IRS can argue that the fact that he didn't take is irrelevant and reduce the donor's basis by the allowable depreciation. That may bring your loss basis to below the FMV. I suggest you take it to a tax professional licensed in your state who will check all the facts and circumstances of your situation. Your relative might be slapped with a gift tax as well, if the car FMV is above certain amount (currently the exemption is $14000).
From your updated information, it seems like you are not eligible to deduct a Traditional IRA contribution, at your income since you are covered by a 401(k) at work. Therefore, contributing to a Roth IRA is the only real option in terms of IRAs. However, if you want to have some pre-tax contributions, you can change some or all of your Roth 401(k) to Traditional 401(k).
"Note that even if you are limited to the HSAs your employer provides, you can still set up your own HSA with whatever trustee you want and periodically transfer the funds from your employer sponsored HSA to your own HSA: according to IRS pub 969 ""Contributions to an HSA"" section: Rollovers A rollover contribution is not included in your income, is not   deductible, and does not reduce your contribution limit. Archer MSAs and other HSAs.   You can roll over amounts from Archer   MSAs and other HSAs into an HSA. You do not have to be an eligible   individual to make a rollover contribution from your existing HSA to a   new HSA. Rollover contributions do not need to be in cash. Rollovers   are not subject to the annual contribution limits.   You must roll   over the amount within 60 days after the date of receipt. You can make   only one rollover contribution to an HSA during a 1-year period. Note. If you instruct the trustee of your HSA to transfer funds directly to   the trustee of another HSA, the transfer is not considered a rollover.   There is no limit on the number of these transfers. Do not include the   amount transferred in income, deduct it as a contribution, or include   it as a distribution on Form 8889. (italics mine) There may be minimums, opening, closing costs, etc. or whatever depending on each plan, but that's not limited by the IRS. So if you transfer the money yourself, you can only do it once per year, but there are no limits to when or how many times you can instruct the old HSA trustee to transfer funds directly to the new trustee. I also talked to the IRS today and they confirmed that you can have multiple HSA accounts as long as your total contributions don't exceed the yearly maximum (and from the quote above, transfers don't count as contributions)."
Note the above is only for shares. There are different rules for other assets like House, Jewellery, Mutual Funds, Debt Funds. Refer to the Income Tax guide for more details.
Yes, this is common and a perfectly normal use of your ssn#.  The trustees of the estate can get in a lot of trouble with the IRS if they disburse assets to you if you are subject to tax garnishment (i.e. you didn't pay your taxes)
I can't see how you can deduct your mother's loss. The money was not stolen from you, and you gave money to your mother of your own free will and with full intention of the money to be used by her as she wishes. Moving money from your own account to a joint account allowing the joint holder to use it - is akin to giving the money directly to the joint holder, i.e.: in your case, giving a gift to your mother.
The initial beneficiary of 529 plan can be virtually anyone you choose--even yourself.   529 deductions are not deductible from federal taxes.  You have about a 60% chance of living in a state that allows you to deduct contributions to your state's plan from your state taxes.   I'd be more specific, but your profile is pretty much empty and there's no location info to assist me in determining if this applies to you or not. if that does apply I'm pretty sure it's limited to earned income, so you get little benefit from depositing the loans, and it generally only applies to YOUR state's plan. The major benefits to 529 plans are that the money grows tax free, and withdrawals are not subject to taxes.  However if you are not investing long term, then it's pretty hard to gain much from those benefits. Since you have such a short time horizon, you'll want to make sure the plan investments are directed to very low risk vehicles like a money market fund. One of the better sources for 528 info is www.savingforcollege.com
"Can I deduct the money that I giving to my team mates from the taxes   that I pay? If yes, how should I record the transaction? Why? Why are you giving money to your team mates? That's the most important question, and any answer without taking this into account is not full. You would probably have to talk to a professional tax adviser (a CPA/EA licensed in your state) about the details, but in general - you cannot deduct money you give someone just because you feel like it. Moreover, it may be subject to an additional tax - the gift tax. PS: We don't have any partnership or something similar, it is just   each of us on his own. Assuming you want to give your team mates money because you developed the project together - then you do in fact have a partnership. In order to split the income properly, you should get a tax ID for the partnership, and issue a 1065 and K-1 for each team mate. In most states, you don't need to ""register"" a partnership with the state. Mere ""lets do things together"" creates a partnership. Otherwise, if they work for you (as opposed to with you in the case above), you can treat it as your own business income, and pay your team mates (who are now your contractors/employees) accordingly. Be careful here, because the difference between contractor and employee in tax law is significant, and you may end up being on the hook for a lot of things you're not aware of. Bottom line, in certain situation you cannot deduct, in others you can - you have to discuss it with a professional. Doing these things on your own without fully understanding what each term means - is dangerous, and IRS doesn't forgive for ""honest mistakes""."
Both of the other answers are correct and good answers, but I think neither directly answers your question. No, you do not need to pay additional taxes on the wedding gifts simply because of the fact that they are going into a Roth IRA.  Similarly, if you put them into a traditional IRA, that amount would be deductible (assuming you met the other criteria, including minimums and maximums of earned income, in both cases).  The act of putting money into a Roth IRA is not what makes it taxable; its original source is.  Roth simply does not reduce your current taxes any, whereas a traditional IRA would. The seeming exception to this is when rolling money from a tax-deductible source to a non-tax-deductible destination, such as transferring money from a Traditional IRA or 401(k) to a Roth IRA or 401(k).  Then, the taxable event is really the distribution from the Traditional IRA or 401(k), not the deposit into a Roth IRA or 401(k), though of course if you rolled a 401(k) over to a traditional IRA it would not be taxable.
"The IRS doesn't tax ""increased wealth"" They tax Revenue -- income.  If this money or property came to you as a gift, you would owe no tax on it but the giver probably would owe gift tax.  If it came to you as a loan, you would owe no tax on it but the lender would owe tax on any interest you pay (and must charge at least minimal interest, though they could give that to you as a gift and possibly not have it be taxable). But if came as payment for goods or services or investment or anything of that sort, and you aren't demonstrably tax-exempt, it is income and you are responsible for declaring it as such and paying tax on it."
Probably not. A debit of 50K in your Bank statement does not mean that its invested into tax saving instrument. This question is best answered by the finance department of your company. Practise vary from organization to organization.
The simplest answer is that you can convert the IRA to a Roth, and since it was already taxed, pay no tax on conversion.  If, in your hypothetical situation, you happen to have an IRA already in place, you are subject to pro-rata rules on conversions, e.g. your balance is total $40K, $10K 'not deducted', a conversion is 75% taxed, convert $20K and the tax is on $15K of that money. But, there also might be a time when you are able to transfer IRA money into a 401(k), effectively removing the pretax deposits, and leaving just post tax money for a free conversion.
SEP IRA deduction goes to line 28 of your 1040, which is above the line (i.e.: pre-AGI). It should not be included in your taxable income (AGI) for Federal purposes.
You cannot. Even if your children actually have that money - your fiduciary duty is to them, not to yourself. You cannot gift away money they own for your own purposes. They have to want to gift it away, since it belongs to them. I doubt they do, or they should. Since you have to have their best interests in mind - you shouldn't allow them gift away such amounts even if they're willing to. Doing otherwise will be a criminal act on your behalf (embezzlement/breach of fiduciary duty). Do talk to an attorney of course, since I'm not. But that is my understanding of things. If your kids don't actually have the money, then they can obviously not gift it, so claiming that they did would be a tax fraud.
Over time (and coincident with the deposits), that $15,000 grew to $24,000 .. i.e. earned $9,000 in earnings. Then, the nearly 50% drop caused the balance to decay to $13,000. This means all $9,000 of his earnings were wiped out, plus $2000 of the original basis. The remaining $13,000 is all basis .. that is, considered to be original money deposited to the account, no earnings. In effect, the account has lost $2000 of basis, because $15,000 was deposited and only $13,000 remains. Simplistic way of looking at it: A $15,000 investment resulted in a final $13,000 sale, i.e. a net loss of $2000. It doesn't matter that it hit $24,000 in the meanwhile .. it could have hit $250,000 in value and then dropped to $13,000 and the net result would be the same: a loss of $2000 in basis. Traditional IRA earnings are always tax-deferred .. i.e. whether earnings arise from deductible or else non-deductible contributions, when one takes a distribution (withdraws) from an IRA and the distribution includes earnings, the earnings portion is always taxable income. Doesn't matter if the earnings arose from one kind of contribution or the other. I don't think in this example there were any deductible contributions whatsoever. Does that make sense / help?"
Yes, you can make a direct HSA contribution and deduct it on your 1040 to see an immediate tax benefit for the tax year. You can even make a contribution for the previous tax year all the way through tax day of the following year. If you opt to do this be sure to contact your financial institution before making the contribution to make sure they apply it to the appropriate tax year. Just be careful not to exceed the yearly caps. So long as you have had coverage all year, this is easy to do. If you've only had coverage for part of the year and it's not your first year with an HSA plan, you may need to do some math to make sure you aren't breaking the contribution rules.