vania-janet/multiturn-rag-retrieval-data huggingface dataset:
Open Google finance and divide the Market Capitalization by the total price. That will give you the total number of shares outstanding. Now see the number of shares you could buy for $1000(40 shares of $25 each or 10 shares of 100 shares each). Now divide the number of shares you own, by the number of shares outstanding in the company and multiply it by 100(i.e (Shares you own/shares Outstanding) * 100). That will give you the percentage or stake of the company you own(With $1000, don't expect it to be a very large number). Now ask your self the question, Is it worth it if I can buy x % of this company for $1000? If the answer is yes, go ahead and buy it.  To answer your question in short, NO! it does not matter whether you buy 10 shares for $100 or 40 shares for $25. Cheers
Profits and losses in a partnership, LLC or S-corp are always reported proportional to the share of ownership. If you have a 30% share in a partnership, you will report 30% of the profit (or loss) of the respective tax year on your personal return. If you look at Part II, section J of your K-1, it should show your percentage of ownership in the entity. All numbers in Part III should reflect the amount of your share (not the entity's total amounts, which will be on Form 1065 for a partnership):
Essentially, yes, Peter Lynch is talking about the PEG Ratio. The Price/Earnings to Growth (PEG) Ratio is where you take the p/e ratio and then divide that by the growth rate (which should include any dividends).  A lower number indicates that the stock is undervalued, and could be a good buy. Lynch's metric is the inverse of that: Growth rate divided by the p/e ratio.  It is the same idea, but in this case, a higher number indicates a good value for buying. In either case, the idea behind this ratio is that a fairly priced stock will have the p/e ratio equal the growth rate.  When your growth rate is larger than your p/e ratio, you are theoretically looking at an undervalued stock.
If the check is written to BigCo, then one or more of those numbers is incorrect. The buyer could be getting a 20% stake. The new value of the company after the investment is $1.25 million. Or paying $333,333.33. The new value of the company after the investment is $1,333,333.33. Or BigCo could only be worth $750,000 before the investment. The new value of the company after the investment is $1 million. Or Jack is getting screwed, selling $312,500 in stock (25%) for only $250,000. Jack's shares drop from being worth $1 million to only $937,500. The value of the company is $1.25 million. Or some combination of smaller changes that balances.
Depreciation / amortization is a measure that estimates how much of a business's ""fixed assets"" were ""used up"" during the year. ie: how much wear and tear occurred on your fleet of trucks? It is generally calculated as a % of your overall asset value. It is a (very loose) proxy for the cash costs which will ultimately be incurred to make repairs/replacements. D&A is also something which could significantly change if a business changes hands. If the value of your building is much higher now than when you bought it, I will have higher D&A costs than you [because I will be recording a % of total costs higher than yours], and therefore I should forecast my own D&A. Removing these costs from Net Income is not particularly relevant for a casual stock investor, because these costs will not change when you buy shares. Whatever IBM's interest cost is, reflects the debt structuring policy that the company currently has. Therefore when you buy a share in IBM, you should consider the impact that interest has on net income. Similarly for taxes and D&A - they reflect costs to the business that impact the company's ability to pay you a dividend, and therefore you should look at net income, which includes those costs. Why would a business with 'good net income' and 'good EBITDA' report EBITDA? Because EBITDA will always be higher than net income. Why say $10M net income, when you could say $50M EBITDA? The fact is, it's easy to report, and is generally well understood - so why not report it, when it also makes you look better, from a purely ""big number = good"" perspective? I'm not sure that reporting EBITDA implies any sort of manipulative reporting, but it would seem that Warren Buffet feels this is a risk."
You could look up the P/E of an equivalent ETF, or break the ETF into components and look those up. Each index has its own methodology, usually weighted by market cap.  See here: http://www.amex.com/etf/prodInf/EtAllhold.jsp?Product_Symbol=DIA
Yes, exactly. VaR is just a single tailed confidence interval.  To go from model to strategy, you need to design some kind of indicator (i.e. when to buy and when to short or stay out). In practice, this will look like a large matrix with values ranging from -1 to 1 (corresponding to shorting and holding respectively) for each security and each day (or hour, or minute, or tick, etc.), which you then just multiply with the matrix of the stock returns. The resulting matrix will be your daily returns for each stock, you can then just row sum for daily returns of a portfolio, or calculate a cumulative product for cumulative returns.  A simple example of an indicator would be something like a value of 1 when the price of the stock is below the 30 day moving average, and 0 otherwise. You can use a battery of econometric models to design these indicators, but the rest of the strategy design is essentially the same, and it's *relatively* easy to build a one-size-fits-all back-testing code.  I'll try to edit this post later and link a blog that goes through some of the code.  Edit: [Here](http://www.signalplot.com/simple-machine-learning-model-trade-spy/) is a post that discusses implementing a simple ML strategy. You can ignore most of the content but if you go through the github, you'll see how the ML model is implemented as a strategy.  An even easier example can be found from [the github connected to this post](http://www.signalplot.com/how-to-measure-the-performance-of-a-trading-strategy/), where the author is just using a totally arbitrary signal. As you can see, deriving a signal can be a ton of work, but once you have, actually simulating the strategy can be done in just a few lines of code.  Hopefully the author won't mind me linking his page here, but I find his coding style to be very clean and good for educational purposes.
A value of zero or a negative value makes the percent change meaningless. Saying 100% when going from 0 to some other value is simply wrong. I have seen a similar situation several times when looking at a public company with a loss last quarter. On Google Finance or some other service, the PE ratio will be blank, N/A, or something like that. If the company does not currently have earnings, then the PE ratio is meaningless. Likewise, if the company previously did not have earnings, then the percent change of the earnings is meaningless. Also consider the example where the previous value was negative. If the previous value was negative 1 and the current value is positive 99, then this happens: A negative change? But the value went up! Obviously that value does not make sense and should not be shown.
From InvestingAnswers, the price of a bond is equal to the present value of its future cash flows, as shown in the following formula:  Where: By induction, this is equivalent to: or, using more familiar formulae, it is equivalent to the formula for the present value of an ordinary annuity to represent the coupon payments, plus a term for the discounted value at maturity: For example, a 10 year semiannual bond with coupon payment 10%, priced at 1095 with maturity value 1000. Solving for r yields 0.0428332 or 4.28% semi-annually. (8.75% per annum) The solution can be found by plotting or using a solver, which many pocket calculators have.  Plot of p as a function of r, intersecting with p = 1095 when r = 0.0428   Checking on Investopedia
Calculating and adjusting cost basis accurately is a daunting task, but there is a (paid) online tool, NetBasis, which will automatically calculate and adjust your cost basis.  It is used by brokerage firms and Fortune 500 companies and is available to the public.  Go to netbasis.com. All you need are the purchase and sale dates and shares of the stock or mutual fund and the system has the rest of the information, such as corporate actions (splits, spin-offs, etc), pricing, and dividends and it also will apply the appropriate IRS rules for inherited and gifted shares. The regulation also gives investors the option to choose calculation methods.  Not only does NetBasis automatically calculate the method you choose, it will also give the results for all options and allow you to choose the best result. NetBasis also provides you with detailed supporting documentation which shows all of the calculations and the adjustments in chronological order. NetBasis has data going back as far as 1925, so it will accurately calculate cost basis for your old American Telegraph and Telephone shares. NetBasis also handles complex investment scenarios such as wash sales, short sales, return of capital, etc. Moderator's note: Disclosure: The answerer's profile indicates they are affiliated with NetBasis.
Using the standard loan formula with 21% APR nominal, compounded weekly. Calculate an adjusted loan start value by adding 31 - 7 = 24 extra days of daily interest (by converting the nominal compounded weekly rate to a daily rate). For details see Converting between compounding frequencies Applying the standard formula r (pv)/(1 - (1 + r)^-n) = 189.80 So every weekly payment will be 189.80 Alternatively Directly arriving at the same result by using the loan formula described here,  The extension x is 31 - 7 = 24 daily fractions of an average week (where 7 daily fractions of an average week equal one average week). As before, the weekly payment will be 189.80 Both methods are effectively the same calculation.
"There is no numerical convention in finance that I have ever seen.  If you look at statements or reports that measure growth when the starting value is negative or zero, you typically see ""n/a"" or ""-"" or ""*"" as the result.  Any numerical result would be meaningless.  Suppose you used 100% and another company had a legitimate 150% gain - where would the 100% change rank? What do my manager and investors expect to see? As a financial analyst - I would not want to see 100%.  I would instead rather see something that indicates that the % change is meaningless.   As an example, here's the WSJ documentation on change in Net Income: Net Income percent change is the change from the same period from a year ago. Percent change is not provided if either the latest period or the year-ago period contains a net loss.  Thinking about it in another context: Yesterday you and your friend had no apples. Today you have 1 and your friend has 20.  What percentage increase did you both have? Did you both have a 100% increase? How can you indicate that your friend had a larger ""increase""? In that case (and in finance), the context needs to turn from a percentage increase to an absolute increase.  A percentage increase is that scenario is meaningless."
Easier to copy paste than type this out. Credit: www.financeformulas.net Note that the present value would be the initial loan amount, which is likely the sale price you noted minus a down payment.   The loan payment formula is used to calculate the payments on a loan.   The formula used to calculate loan payments is exactly the same as the   formula used to calculate payments on an ordinary annuity. A loan, by   definition, is an annuity, in that it consists of a series of future   periodic payments. The PV, or present value, portion of the loan payment formula uses the   original loan amount. The original loan amount is essentially the   present value of the future payments on the loan, much like the   present value of an annuity. It is important to keep the rate per period and number of periods   consistent with one another in the formula. If the loan payments are   made monthly, then the rate per period needs to be adjusted to the   monthly rate and the number of periods would be the number of months   on the loan. If payments are quarterly, the terms of the loan payment   formula would be adjusted accordingly. I like to let loan calculators do the heavy lifting for me. This particular calculator lets you choose a weekly pay back scheme. http://www.calculator.net/loan-calculator.html
"When margin is calculated as the equity percentage of an account, the point at which a broker will forcibly liquidate is typically called ""maintenance margin"". In the US, this is 25% for equities. To calculate the price at which this will occur, the initial and maintenance margin must be known.  The formula for a long with margin is: and for a short where P_m is the maintenance margin price, P_i is the initial margin price, m_i is the initial margin rate, and m_m is the maintenance margin rate.  At an initial margin of 50% and a maintenance margin of 25%, a long equity may fall by 1/3 before forced liquidation, a short one may rise by 50%. This calculation can become very complex with different asset classes with differing maintenance margins because the margin debt is applied to all securities collectively."
The total number of shares on April 1st is 100 + 180 + 275 = 555.  The price on April 1st is required.  The current price is stated as $2, but $2 * 555 = $1110 and the current fund values is stated as $1500.  Opting to take the current value as $1500, the price on April 1st can be calculated as $1500/555 = $2.7027. The amounts invested as number of shares x share price are: (Note these investment amounts do not match the example scenario's investment amounts, presumably because the example numbers are just made up.) The monthly returns can be calculated: The current values for each investor as invested amount x returns are: Checking the total:
"Everything you are doing is fine. Here are a few practical notes in performing this analysis: Find all the primary filing information on EDGAR. For NYSE:MEI, you can use https://www.sec.gov/cgi-bin/browse-edgar?action=getcompany&CIK=0000065270&type=10-K&dateb=&owner=exclude&count=40 This is the original 10-K. To evaluate earnings growth you need per share earnings for the past three years and 10,11,12 years ago. You do NOT need diluted earnings (because in the long term share dilution comes out anyway, just like ""normalized"" earnings). The formula is avg(Y_-1+Y_-2+Y_-3) / is avg(Y_-10+Y_-11+Y_-12) Be careful with the pricing rules you are using, the asset one gets complicated. I recommend NOT using the pricing rules #6 and #7 to select the stock. Instead you can use them to set a maximum price for the stock and then you can compare the current price to your maximum price. I am also working to understand these rules and have cited Graham's rules into a checklist and worksheet to find all companies that meet his criteria. Basically my goal is to bottom feed the deals that Warren Buffett is not interested in. If you are interested to invest time into this project, please see https://docs.google.com/document/d/1vuFmoJDktMYtS64od2HUTV9I351AxvhyjAaC0N3TXrA"
Profit after tax can have multiple interpretations, but a common one is the EPS (Earnings Per Share).  This is frequently reported as a TTM number (Trailing Twelve Months), or in the UK as a fiscal year number.  Coincidentally, it is relatively easy to find the total amount of dividends paid out in that same time frame. That means calculating div cover is as simple as:  EPS divided by total dividend.  (EPS / Div). It's relatively easy to build a Google Docs spreadsheet that pulls both values from the cloud using the GOOGLEFINANCE() function.  I suspect the same is true of most spreadsheet apps.  With a proper setup, you can just fill down along a column of tickers to get the div cover for a number of companies at once.
"You can calculate the ""return on investment"" using libreoffice, for example. Look at the xirr function. You would have 2 columns, one a list of dates (ie the dates of the deposits or dividends or whatever that you want to track, the last entry would be today's date and the value of the investment today. The xirr function calculates the internal rate of return for you. If you add money to the account, and the current value includes the original investment and the added funds, it will be difficult to calculate the ROI. If you add money by purchasing additional shares (or redepositing dividends by buying additional shares), and you only want to track the ROI of the initial investment (ignoring future investments), you would have to calculate the current value of all of the added shares (that you don't want to include in the ROI) and subtract that value from the current total value of the account. But, if you include the dates and values of these additional share purchases in the spreadsheet, xirr will calculate the overall IRR for you."
"how is this new value determined? According to Publication 551: Inherited Property The basis of property inherited from a decedent is generally one of   the following. The FMV of the property at the date of the individual's death. The FMV on the alternate valuation date if the personal representative for the estate chooses to use alternate valuation. For   information on the alternate valuation date, see the Instructions for   Form 706. The value under the special-use valuation method for real property used in farming or a closely held business if chosen for estate tax   purposes. This method is discussed later. FMV is Fair Market Value - which is the price that a willing buyer would pay for the property with reasonable knowledge of all the facts of the property.  The rest generally apply to farmland or other special-purpose land where the amount of income it generates is not properly reflected in the market value. One or more real estate professionals will run ""comps"" that show you recent sales in the same area for similar houses to get a rough estimate of fair market value.   Does it go off of the tax appraised value? Tax assessment may or may not be accurate depending on tax laws (e.g. limits to tax increases) and consistency with the actual market. Should you, prior to your death, get an independent appraiser to appraise the value of the property and include that assessment of the properties value with the will or something? That should not be necessary - another appraisal will likely be done as part of the estate process after death. One reason you might do one is if you are distributing different assets to different heirs, and you want to make sure that the estate is divided equitably."
In the context of EDV, 4.46 is the indicated dividend rate. The indicated dividend rate is the rate that would be paid per share throughout the next year, assuming dividends stayed the same as prior payment.  sources:
"The basic equation taught in day one of accounting school is that Assets = Liabilities + Equity. My first point was that I looked at the actual financial statements published as of the end of the 2nd quarter 2017, and the total liabilities on their audited balance sheet were like $13 billion, not $20b. I don't know where the author got their numbers from.  My second point: Debt usually needs to be paid on prearranged terms agreed upon by the debtor and the debtee, including interest, so it is important for a business to keep track of what they owe and to whom, so they can make timely payments. As long as they have the cash on hand to make payments plus whatever interest they owe, and the owners are happy with the total return on their investment, then it doesn't really matter how debt they have on the balance sheet.  Remember the equation A=L+E. There are precisely two ways to finance a business that wants to acquire assets: liabilities and/or equity. The ""appropriate"" level of debt vs equity on a balance sheet varies wildly, and totally depends on the industry, size of the business, cash flow, personal preferences of the CEO, CFO, shareholders et al, etc.    It gets way more detailed and complicated than that obviously, but the point is that looking at debt alone is a meaningless metric. This is corporate finance and accounting 101, so you can probably find tons of great articles and videos if you want to learn more."
Don't overthink it. As an employee, whether of your own corporation or of someone else, you get a salary and there are deductions taken out. As the owner of a business you get (hopefully) business profits as well. And, in general, you often have other sources of income from investments, etc. Your estimated tax payments are based on the difference between what was withheld from your salary and what you will owe, based on salary, business income, and other sources. So, in essence, you just add up all the income you expect, estimate what the tax bill will be, and subtract what's been withheld. That's your estimated tax payment.
"Generally, a share of stock entitles the owner to all future per-share dividends paid by the company, plus a fraction of the company's assets net value in the event of liquidation. If one knew in advance the time and value of all such payouts, the value of the stock should equal the present cash value of that payout stream, which would in turn be the sum of the cash values of all the individual payouts. As time goes by, the present cash value of each upcoming payout will increase until such time as it is actually paid, whereupon it will cease to contribute to the stock's value. Because people are not clairvoyant, they generally don't know exactly what future payouts a stock is going to make. A sane price for a stock, however, may be assigned by estimating the present cash value of its future payments. If unfolding events would cause a reasonable person to revise estimates of future payments upward, the price of the stock should increase. If events cause estimates to be revised downward, the price should fall. In a sane marketplace, if the price of a stock is below people's estimates of its payouts' current cash value, people should buy the stock and push the price upward. If it is above people's estimates, they should sell the stock and push the price downward. Note that in a sane marketplace, rising prices are a red-flag indicator for people to stop buying. Unfortunately, sometimes bulls see a red flag as a signal to charge ahead. When that happens, prices may soar through the roof, but it's important to note that the value of the stock will still be the present cash value of its future payouts. If that value is $10/share, someone who buys a share for $50 basically gives the seller $40 that he was not entitled to, and which the buyer will never get back. The buyer might manage to convince someone else to pay him $60 for the share, but that simply means the new buyer is giving the the previous one $50 that he wasn't entitled to either.
It's still the purchase price or the price at which the shares are purchased or granted. This Investopedia article describes how the price is used for tax purposes: The amount that must be declared [for tax purposes] is determined by subtracting the original purchase or exercise price of the stock (which may be zero) from the fair market value of the stock as of the date that the stock becomes fully vested. Restricted stock awards are similar to stock options. The employer promises to grant the employee a certain number of shares upon the completion of the vesting schedule. The price at which the shares are purchased (or granted, if the price is zero) is the exercise price.
Purchase accounting requires that you mark assets, including PP&amp;E to fair value.  So let's say you bought a machine 5 years ago for $1,000 - you might have depreciated it to $250 on your balance sheet but it might actually be worth $900.
You can calculate the fully diluted shares by comparing EPS vs diluted (adjusted) EPS as reported in 10K. I don't believe they report the number directly, but it is a trivial math exercise to reach it. The do report outstanding common stock (basis for EPS).