vania-janet/multiturn-rag-retrieval-data huggingface dataset:
Unless I am missing something subtle, nothing happens to the buyer. Suppose Alice wants to sell short 1000 shares of XYZ at $5.  She borrows the shares from Bob and sells them to Charlie.  Now Charlie actually owns the shares; they are in his account. If the stock later goes up to $10, Charlie is happy; he could sell the shares he now owns, and make a $5000 profit. Alice still has the $5000 she received from her short sale, and she owes 1000 shares to Bob.  So she's effectively $5000 in debt.  If Bob calls in the loan, she'll have to try to come up with another $5000 to buy 1000 shares at $10 on the open market.   If she can't, well, that's between her and Bob.  Maybe she goes bankrupt and Bob has to write off a loss.   But none of this has any effect on Charlie!  He got the shares he paid for, and nobody's going to take them away from him.  He has no reason to care where they came from, or what sort of complicated transactions brought them into Alice's possession.  She had them, and she sold them to him, and that's the end of the story as far as he's concerned.
A lender lends money to a person or institution. A creditor is owed money by the person or institution. Many times they are equal. But if you owe money to somebody they are a creditor. You could have paid with a check, but it bounced. Or you contracted them for a service, and then never paid for that service.  Yes technically a creditor did offer a short term that was supposed to be paid within X days of being billed.  Sometimes a creditor works the other way also. You gave a deposit to company X for them to remodel your kitchen. They never start the job. They now owe you a refund of your deposit. You are now a creditor.
Are there any risks you're overlooking?  I think if you're considering this at all you're overlooking all of the risks... namely, if you think the issue with him not paying on the loan is the procedure involved with initiating collections or taking him to court for a judgement you're severely underestimating actually collecting after you're awarded a judgement.  Typically when people stop paying a debt, its because they don't have money.  A judgement doesn't change that. Now you could include in the promissory note a lien on some piece of his property, if he has one.  Even with the lien and a judgement against him you can't do much. There are laws related to lending by individuals, related to debt collection, maximum/minimum interest rates; there may even be a law that mandating individuals may only assess simple interest.  I doubt you'll be able to find a formal institution that will take over as nothing more than an administrator, though you might as well start researching how to sell the debt once your colleague defaults. IF you can legally amortize the loan at 4% and $450 per month, you're not made whole until about month 78.  Months 79 through about 90 will be your profit zone.  At this rate of return I'd just buy a muni... If you're willing to kiss this money good bye, and lending it generates more amusement to you than setting it on fire, go for it!
Co-signing is not the same as owning. If your elderly lady didn't make any payments on the loan, and isn't on the ownership of the car, and there was no agreement that you would pay her anything, then you do not owe either her or her daughter any money. Also the loan is not affecting the daughter's credit, and the mother's credit is irrelevant (since she is dead). However you should be aware that the finance company will want to know about the demise of the mother, since they can no longer make a claim against her if you default. I would start by approaching the loan company, telling them about the mother's death, and asking to refinance in your name only. If you've really been keeping up the payments well this could be OK with them. If not I would find someone else who is prepared to co-sign a new loan with you, and still refinance. Then just tell the daughter that the loan her mother co-signed for has been discharged, and there is nothing for her to worry about.
If one owner refuses to pay his share, the others cannot send in their shares of the mortgage payment due and tell the bank to sue the recalcitrant co-owner for his share of the payment: everybody is liable (and can be sued) for the unpaid amount, and if the bank forecloses, everybody's share in the property is seized, not just the share owned by the recalcitrant person. It is, of course, possible to for different co-owners to have separate mortgages for their individual shares, but the legalities (including questions such as whose lien is primary and whose secondary) are complicated. With regard to who paid what over the years of ownership, it does not matter as far as the ownership is concerned. If it is a tenancy in common with equal shares, the fact that the various owners paid the bills (mortgage payments, property taxes, repairs and maintenance) in unequal amounts does not change the ownership of the property unless a new deed is recorded with the new percentages. Now, the co-owners may decide among themselves as a matter of fairness that any money realized from a sale of the property should be divided up in accordance with the proportion that each contributed during the ownership, but that is a different issue. If I were a buyer of property titled as tenancy in common, I (or the bank who is lending me money to make the purchase) would issue separate checks to each co-seller in proportion to the percentages listed on the deed of ownership, and let them worry about whether they should transfer money among themselves to make it equitable. (Careful here! Gift taxes might well be due if large sums of money change hands).
What happens to consumer debt if a   country defaults on its debt?  Nothing, just as nothing happens to your debt when your neighbor defaults. If you have debts that have floating interest rates - those may (and probably will) hike. how will a debt default by a country   affect government-backed loans such as   mortgages and student loans? Those that are already closed will probably not be affected, as you've got the money already and signed the loan agreement. Those that are not closed - will probably be delayed or not funded at all. However, if any of the debts allows the debtor to request an early collection (which I think is rather rare on the consumer market) - someone else's default may lead to the debtor's request for the money earlier than expected.
"In that case, he was not arrested for being unable to pay his bill. He received a summons to court, failed to appear, and so a warrant was issued for his arrest. The $350 was his bail amount, which is funds that must be provided to the court in order to be released while pending trial (you get this money back once you appear before court). He also wasn't convicted of a crime and sentenced to jail in this case, just arrested. He would be ""kept"" by the courts (if he couldn't post bail) until his court date as a way of being forced to appear. If a judgement was awarded against him, it still doesn't always mean he has to pay. If someone refuses to pay a judgement (but did show up to court) then typically their wages are garnished, which means the court orders that a certain amount of money be withheld from income, tax refunds, etc. until the judgement is paid. However, if the person ordered to pay can prove that they would not be able to have sufficient money to survive if they are garnished (I'm not a lawyer so I am unclear as to the exact process/standards) then there is a chance that nothing will be garnished at all.  So in short, no, there is no such thing as debtor's prison in the USA. There is definitely such a thing as being arrested / put in jail for defying court orders, and I'm sure if you took out loans while knowing you have no ability to repay them that you might be able to be charged with some sort of fraud, but just not being able to pay your bills doesn't mean you can go to jail. Of course, there is very little protecting you from simply running out of money and becoming homeless, but that's not your question."
"I expect that the loan documents show both you and your ex-partner as ""jointly and severally liable"" for the debt, and thus you're both responsible for it.  It doesn't really matter what other paperwork you have that says otherwise or what other promises might have been made.  Certainly, the other agreements give you legal ground to go after your ex-partner for the money, but they give you no leverage with the bank. If you end up paying this debt off to save your credit, you need to make sure that the account is closed.  Make sure you have paperwork showing it as closed, and showing that it was paid in full, and then keep that paperwork forever. Re #1: I think it will eventually show up on your credit report.  You could ask the bank for proof that you owe the money, if you like, but that will probably just delay the inevitable. Re #2: His bankruptcy filing really has no bearing on you and your obligation to repay the loan.  If he didn't list this debt, then he is still liable for it as well (and you can still go after him under your other agreements).  But either way, you're still on the debt."
Even if the loan is secured by some collateral, there's still a risk since the collateral might lose value. Alice has some chance of estimating the risk of this happening in the next 15 or 30 years, and can set the interest rate to compensate for it. But it is harder for her to estimate the risk of this happening ever, and if she tries, she'll have to set the rate so high that Bob might prefer a fixed term and a lower rate. (There's a side issue as to what happens if Bob dies with the loan still outstanding. If it's an unsecured loan, typically Alice can try to collect the principal from Bob's estate, but if there isn't enough, too bad for Alice; she can't force Bob's heirs to continue making payments. If it's a secured loan, Alice may be able to have Bob's heirs continue paying or else she seizes the collateral; but she still has the risk of the collateral losing value.)"
It's perfectly legal for your brother to make a loan to you.  However those two transactions are separate.  If he defaults on the LC loan because you didn't pay him, it's his responsibility.  If you default on your loan with him, you've got big problems.  Money + family/friends = scary.
You signed a contract to pay the loan.  You owe the money.   Stories of people being arrested over defaulted student loans are usually based in contempt of court warrants when the person failed to appear in court when the collection agency filed suit against them. Explore student loan forgiveness program. Research collections and bankruptcy and how to deal with collection agencies.  There are pitfalls in communicating with them which restart the clock on bad debt aging off the credit report, and which can be used to say that you agreed to pay a debt.  For instance, if you make any sort of payment on any debt, a case can be made that you have assumed the debt.  Once you are aware of the pitfalls, contact the collection agency (in writing) and dispute the debt.  Force them to prove that it is your debt.  Force them to prove that they have the right to collect it.  Force them to prove the amount.  Dispute the fairness of the amount.   Doubling your principal in 6 years is a bit flagrant.   So, work with the collectors, establish that the debt is valid and negotiate a settlement.  Or let it stay in default. Your credit report in the US is shot.  It will be a long time before the default ages off your report.  This is important if you try to open a bank account, rent an apartment, or get a job in the US.  These activities do not always require a credit report, but they often do.  You will not be able to borrow money or establish a credit card in the US. Here's a decent informational site regarding what they can do to collect the loan.  Pay special attention to Administrative Wage Garnishment.  They can likely hit you with that one.  You might be unreachable for a court summons, but AWG only requires that the collectors be able to confirm that you work for a company that is subject to US laws. Update:  I am informed that federally funded student loans are not available to international students.  AWG is only possible for debts to the federal government.  Private companies must go through the courts to force settlement of debt.  OP is safe from AWG.
If I am the guarantor for someone else's loan, can my personal property be possessed if the other person doesn't pay back the loan? As you have not indicated jurisdiction / country ... laws vary. In general; Yes. Your personal property can be possessed. However the financial institution has to send notices, get a court order and then possess your property and auction it. They can also freeze your Bank Account, or any other assets you have. There is no restriction as you have given a blanket guarantee. Note depending on Jurisdictions your estate and or legal heirs can also be liable to this if you die during the course of loan. can my property be mortgaged as a guarantee to his loan? Depending on how this is worded in legal contract, you can mortgage your property ONLY as a guarantee to his loan. In such cases financial institution can only take your property, but cannot take any other assets such as Bank deposits etc.
You still owe the money because there is a high probability that some other organization bough the account and assets of the failed creditor.  That means they will have bought your debt.  I have to assume there is language in your note that explains that they might sell your debt. But what should one do if they don't know who bought the entity?  You can't pay a non-existent entity, but if you don't have an address, how can you pay the new owner of the debt? First step, is to assume there will be a new owner.  A government, a company, an individual; somebody will buy that debt.  Read the news and see if you can't figure out what other entity owns your note.  You might have to contact them to enquire about where to send payment.  Keep records of any such contact. If you put in an honest effort, but just cannot figure out who owns your note, I'd suggest continuing to make regular on-time payments.  But put your payments into a new bank account that you open just for this purpose.  So when the new owner of the debt does come calling, you'll have reasonable proof you were attempting to pay.  You simply settle up from the special account.  Any reasonable company will just take the money, and if anybody gets unreasonable and you have to appear in court, you have a paper trail indicating your attempts to honour the debt. You'd have to consult a lawyer if nobody comes asking for the money.  There are probably statutes of limitation, but I wouldn't count on that ever happening.
"MD-Tech answered: The answer is in your question: derivatives are contracts so are enforced in the same way as any other contract. If the counterparty refuses to pay immediately they will, in the first instance be billed by any intermediary (Prime Broker etc.) that facilitated the contract. If they still refuse to pay the contract may stipulate that a broker can ""net off"" any outstanding payments against it or pay out using deposited cash or posted margins. The contract will usually include the broker as an interested party and so they can, but don't need to, report a default (such that this is) to credit agencies (in some jurisdictions they are required to by law). Any parties to the trade and the courts may use a debt collection agency to collect payments or seize assets to cover payment. If there is no broker or the counterparty still has not paid the bill then the parties involved (the party to the trade and any intermediaries) can sue for breach of contract. If they win (which would be expected) the counterparty will be made to pay by the legal system including, but not limited to, seizure of assets, enforced bankruptcy, and prison terms for any contempts of court rulings. All of this holds for governments who refuse to pay derivatives losses (as Argentina did in the early 20th century) but in that case it may escalate as far as war. It has never done so for derivatives contracts as far as I know but other breaches of contract between countries have resulted in armed conflict. As well as the ""hard"" results of failing to pay there are soft implications including a guaranteed fall in credit ratings that will result in parties refusing to do business with the counterparty and a separate loss of reputation that will reduce business even further. Potential employees and funders will be unwilling to become involved with such a party and suppliers will be unwilling to supply on credit. The end result in almost every way would be bankruptcy and prison sentences for the party or their senior employees. Most jurisdictions allow for board members at companies in material breach of contract to be banned from running any company for a set period as well.
Once the loan is taken out, Chase would turn around and sell that debt to others, getting all their money upfront and leaving both the person who took the loan out and the new creditor holding the bag.  I worked for a company that used to do this with loans for other things.  They company was Norvergence and were complete scumbags.
"The answer is in your question: derivatives are contracts so are enforced in the same way as any other contract. If the counterparty refuses to pay immediately they will, in the first instance be billed by any intermediary (Prime Broker etc.) that facilitated the contract. If they still refuse to pay the contract may stipulate that a broker can ""net off"" any outstanding payments against it or pay out using deposited cash or posted margins. The contract will usually include the broker as an interested party and so they can, but don't need to, report a default (such that this is) to credit agencies (in some jurisdictions they are required to by law). Any parties to the trade and the courts may use a debt collection agency to collect payments or seize assets to cover payment. If there is no broker or the counterparty still has not paid the bill then the parties involved (the party to the trade and any intermediaries) can sue for breach of contract. If they win (which would be expected) the counterparty will be made to pay by the legal system including, but not limited to, seizure of assets, enforced bankruptcy, and prison terms for any contempts of court rulings. All of this holds for governments who refuse to pay derivatives losses (as Argentina did in the early 20th century) but in that case it may escalate as far as war. It has never done so for derivatives contracts as far as I know but other breaches of contract between countries have resulted in armed conflict. As well as the ""hard"" results of failing to pay there are soft implications including a guaranteed fall in credit ratings that will result in parties refusing to do business with the counterparty and a separate loss of reputation that will reduce business even further. Potential employees and funders will be unwilling to become involved with such a party and suppliers will be unwilling to supply on credit. The end result in almost every way would be bankruptcy and prison sentences for the party or their senior employees. Most jurisdictions allow for board members at companies in material breach of contract to be banned from running any company for a set period as well.
"To put a different spin on it, suppose you loaned someone $100K, expecting that they would pay it back, and then a little later they decided not too. They are perfectly capable of paying back the money, but just decided they didn't want to, and it seems the laws of your state said you couldn't make them. How would you feel about that? Since this is supposed to be an answer to the question, the answer is: ""only if you can't afford to repay it"". That's what foreclosure is supposed to be about, not you deciding you would rather not pay your debts. Let's not forget who pays that bill for you - every one of your bank's other customers. EDIT:For the people decrying the moral aspect and saying ""it's perfectly alright because the law says that's the punishment and I'm willing to pay it"", the law also says ""if you kill someone, you go to prison for life"". Does that mean that someone who decides they are going to kill someone has a perfect right to do it as long as they are prepared to take the consequences?"
"It depends on whether the loan is written as a non-recourse debt and what collateral was pledged. ""Non-recourse"" debt means that the issuer is limited to seizing the pledged collateral but cannot extend beyond those pledged assets. A ""recourse debt"" allows the issuer to seize the collateral and potentially other assets of those signed to the loan. In your example, a non-recourse loan would stop the issuer at seizing the property pledged as collateral (for instance the land remaining after the golden condor took your house), and it would stop there if that was the entirety of the collateral pledged. In the case of a recourse debt, each of you who signed loan are most likely going to be held responsible for the rest of the debt. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nonrecourse_debt http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recourse_debt"
The issue is that the lender used two peoples income, debts, and credit history to loan both of you money to purchase a house. The only way to get a person off the loan, is to get a new loan via refinancing. The new loan will then be based on the income, debt, and credit history of one person. There is no paperwork you can sign, or the ex-spouse can sign, that will force the original lender to remove somebody from the loan. There is one way that a exchange of money between the two of you could work: The ex-spouse will have to sign paperwork to prove that it is not a loan that you will have to payback. I picked the number 20K for a reason. If the amount of the payment is above 14K they will have to document for the IRS that this is a gift, and the amount above 14K will be counted as part of their estate when they die. If the amount of the payment is less than 14K they don't even have to tell the IRS. If the ex-souse has remarried or you have remarried the multiple payments can be constructed to exceed the 14K limit.
You should only loan money to friends or relatives if you are fully accepting the possibility of never ever getting that money back.  And in this situation it can happen that you will be forced to give him a very large loan if something bad ever happens to him. (Paying the monthly rates instead of him and expecting he will someday pay it back to you is technically the same as loaning him money).  Something might happen in the future which will result in him not paying his monthly payments. Maybe not now, but in 5 years. Or 10. The economy might change, he might be out of a job, his personal values might change. A house mortgage is long term, and during that time a lot can happen.
As well as the ""hard"" results of failing to pay there are soft implications including a guaranteed fall in credit ratings that will result in parties refusing to do business with the counterparty and a separate loss of reputation that will reduce business even further. Potential employees and funders will be unwilling to become involved with such a party and suppliers will be unwilling to supply on credit. The end result in almost every way would be bankruptcy and prison sentences for the party or their senior employees. Most jurisdictions allow for board members at companies in material breach of contract to be banned from running any company for a set period as well. edit: netting off cash flows netting off is a process whereby all of a party's cash flows, positive and negative, are used to pay each other off so that only the net change is reflected in account balances, for example: company 1 cash flows netting off the total outgoings are 3M + 500k = 3.5M and total incomings are 1.2M + 1.1M + 1.2M = 3.5M so the incoming cash flows can be used to pay the outgoing cash flows leaving a net payment into company1's account of 0."