((((sigh.)))) it's complicated. in the ot, the term ""philistia"" is used 10 times, but its bounaries are undefined: probably southern levant, around the coastal cities of gaza, ashdod, and ashkelon. during the late roman empire (up to about 390 ad) palæstina was a roman province; the whole of the levant (today's states of lebanon, syria, israel, and palestine) was all called syria palæstina. borders shifting back and forth under the byzantines, ottomans etc., palæstina was always a province, never an independent state as far as i know, unless you go way way back before 700 bc to the philistines, who lived in cities around gaza before the assyrian conquest. my point: ""palestinian"" is a very ambiguous term. about mary: it would be (geographically) accurate to say that as an inhabitant of nazareth, mary was galilean; it would be (racially) accurate to say she was of the tribe of judah and the house of david. otherwise (politically?) she was taxed under coele--syria, roman province of iudea, kingdom of herod. ""palestinian"" doesn't have to be a politically--charged word; but of course the pa and hamas will make it so.