Assertion: royal prerogative | /r/DefinedAs | exercised
Facets:
value: more narrowly
type: MANNER
value: by the king
type: OTHER
value: by his ministers
type: OTHER
Source sentences:
text: If in the UK constitutional tradition the Royal Prerogative has been more narrowly defined as "the residue of discretionary power left at any moment in the hands of the Crown, whether such power be in fact exercised by the King himself or by his Ministers" does that then disqualify the use of the term for other monarchies when it is constitutionally codified and in active use?