Assertion: prerogative's use | /r/HasProperty | sufficient legal authority
Facets:
Source sentences:
text: If it is correct that the mere use of the Royal Prerogative is sufficient legal authority to trigger Article 50 of the TEU and so revoke and repeal the European Communities Act 1972 then it would seem to follow by analogy that the Royal Prerogative could be used to in the context of Scotland leaving the UK, because it is submitted that if the Prerogative can be used to invoke Article 50 which is not an international treaty but part of the domestic law and so effectively repeal the European Communities act 1972 the same process could be used by the Scots government to revoke the Scots Act of Union of 1707.