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[NAME]
Human Factors
Practice Exams
Human Factors - Practice Exam 1
Question 1 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Flicker vertigo is a hazard associated with -
A horse riding when blindfolded
B  light shining through rotating blades
C  blinking while looking down at altitude
D disturbance of equilibrium when operating switches below eye height
Question 2 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Negative G tends to -
A decrease blood pressure and increase heart rate
B  increase blood pressure and decrease heart rate
C  result in GLOC
D result in flicker vertigo
Question 3 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A disoriented pilot should -
A vigorously seek external visual cues
B  avoid head movements
C  combine flight instrument indications with external visual clues
D roll the aircraft into a rate one level turn and maintain the turn until re-oriented
Question 4 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Hyperventilation may be caused by -
A overbreathing
B  underbreathing
C  breathing too much carbon dioxide
D breathing too much carbon monoxide
Question 5 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The gas coming out of solution in the blood causing the 'bends' is -
A carbon dioxide
B  oxygen
C  nitrogen
D carbon monoxide
Question 6 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Hypoxia may be defined as -
A a dangerous excess of carbon dioxide in the blood
B  a dangerous excess of carbon monoxide in the blood
C  insufficient oxygen available to function at full efficiency
D too much oxygen in the blood due to hyperventilation
Question 7 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Alcohol is classed as a -
A stimulant
B  depressant
C  analgesic
D sedative
Question 8 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Obesity can lead to -
A low blood pressure
B  high blood pressure
C  fainting attacks
D shortage of breath
Question 9 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Hypoxia risk will not increase with -
A increased altitude
B  a cold environment
C  smoking
D hyperventilation
Question 10 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Motivation may be defined as -
A the difference between what a person can do and what they will do
B  the desire for more financial rewards
C  antisocial behaviour
D the need for recognition
Question 11 of 40 (Marks: 1)
When fatigued, the type of task most adversely affected would be one which is -
A monotonous and simple
B  interesting and simple
C  complex and interesting
D monotonous and complex
Question 12 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The group of health problems most directly linked with obesity is -
A hypoxia, sleepiness, headaches, heart disease
B  hypertension, gout, diabetes, heart disease
C  gout, lung cancer, heart attack
D lung cancer, myopia hepatitis, AIDS
Question 13 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Following consumption, alcohol can still be found in the brain cells for -
A 24 hours
B  14 hours
C  8 hours
D 12 hours
Question 14 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The minimum noise level above which you should be wearing protection to avoid hearing
loss is -
A 120 db
B  100 db
C  140 db
D 85 db
Question 15 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Regarding long term memory -
A things are easier to learn if they are learned repetitively
B  things are easier to learn if they are taught in small blocks of information
C  things are easier to learn if they are taught in large blocks of information
D things are easier to remember if they are related to something already known
Question 16 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The ideal level of arousal for a pilot prior to completing a flight proficiency check is -
A very high
B  high
C  moderate
D low to moderate
Question 17 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The correct order of priority by which attitude is influenced is -
A cognitive, behavioural and personality
B  personality, cognitive and behavioural
C  cognitive, affective and behavioural
D behavioural, cognitive and temper
Question 18 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The order of steps involved in the PILOT model of action is -
A investigate the facts, identify the problem, seek solutions, take action, take stock
B  identify the problem, probe the facts, operate, look for solutions, take stock
C  look for solutions, investigate the facts, take stock, operate, analyse
D probe the problem, investigate solutions, listen to suggestions, operate, take stock
Question 19 of 40 (Marks: 1)
One cause of [NAME] is -
A a deficiency of iron
B  a lack of assertion
C  a dark complexion
D a lack of oxygen
Question 20 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The proprioceptive system of the human body refers to -
A the semicircular canals
B  the monolith
C  joint, muscle, and tendon nerve receptors
D the vestibular apparatus
Question 21 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Pilot motivation is primarily maintained long term by -
A monetary reward
B  status
C  job satisfaction
D discipline
Question 22 of 40 (Marks: 1)
An advantage of the digital readout type of engine instrument display compared to the
circular gauge type is -
A comparison between engines is easier
B  the exact value of a parameter is easier to read
C  trends and rates are easier to interpret
D digital displays are easier to scan
Question 23 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Good multi-crew cockpit management can be characterised by -
A high task orientation and low personal attention
B  low task orientation and low personal attention
C  low task orientation and high personal attention
D high task orientation and high personal attention
Question 24 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Hypertension is most directly linked with -
A heart disease
B  hypoxia
C  hyperventilation
D low blood pressure
Question 25 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The sensory memory length for sounds is about -
A 1 to 2 seconds
B  2 to 4 seconds
C  4 to 8 seconds
D 8 to 15 seconds
Question 26 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The 'leans' can be caused by -
A slowly entering a turn on instruments, followed by a fast wing levelling
B  quickly entering a turn on instruments, followed by a fast wing levelling
C  slowly entering a turn on instruments, followed by a slow wing levelling
D quickly entering a turn on instruments, followed by a slow wing levelling
Question 27 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Our eyes start 'greying out' at a 'G' loading of about -
A 1.5 G
B  2.5 G
C  3.5 G
D 4.5 G
Question 28 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Humans start to suffer g-induced loss of consciousness (GLOC) or blackout at a 'G' loading of
about -
A 6.5 G
B  3.5 G
C  2.3 G
D 5 G
Question 29 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Gout is a condition which can lead to arthritic attacks, especially in males.
It is primarily a result of -
A a disturbance of the uric-acid metabolism
B  lack of blood supply from a bad heart, causing an imbalance in the oxygen to carbon dioxide
ratio
C  excessive exercise/overworking, and a diet lacking in iron
D inactivity
Question 30 of 40 (Marks: 1)
While conducting an instrument approach in IMC you have a mental picture of what you
expect to see when you become visual. You break out of cloud and what you see is different
to your mental picture of the approach.
In this situation -
A essential details will tend to be overlooked
B  it will take time for you to orient yourself
C  you will experience strong vertigo
D you will immediately discount the contribution of the mental model
Question 31 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The three primary categories of error in the TEM model are -
A loss of heading control, loss of attitude control and loss of airspeed control
B  navigational error, radio frequency error, navaid error
C  crew resource error, air traffic control error and ground handling error
D aircraft handling errors, procedural errors and communication errors
Question 32 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Undesired aircraft states are categorised as -
A aircraft handling, ground navigation or incorrect aircraft configuration
B  aircraft ground handling, vertical navigation and incorrect inflight configuration
C  vertical navigation, ground navigation and inflight navigation
D aircraft configuration, ground handling and inflight aircraft handling
Question 33 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Being positioned at the wrong holding point prior to takeoff is an example of an undesired -
A aircraft handling state
B  aircraft ground configuration state
C  situational awareness state
D ground navigation state
Question 34 of 40 (Marks: 1)
When an aircraft is in an undesired state, aircrew should be aware that the primary task is -
A determine the cause of the undesired state
B  discuss with other crew the risks of each corrective action
C  correct the undesired state and return to controlled stabilised flight
D avoid making control inputs until the undesired state fixes itself
Question 35 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The most proactive option in threat management is to -
A anticipate the recovery action expected if the threat occurs
B  anticipate and avoid the threat altogether
C  take corrective action once the threat has occured
D ignore the threat until it actually has an effect on the flight
Question 36 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The definition of a threat includes -
A external events or errors that occur outside the influence of the flight crew
B  external events or errors that occur due to the actions of the flight crew
C  an undesired aircraft state occuring due to the action of the flight crew
D flight crew induced speed deviations
Question 37 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The definition of an error includes -
A an external event that increases the operational complexity of the flight
B  an unexpected ATC clearance
C  a navigational system failure
D a flight crew action that would reduce safety margins
Question 38 of 40 (Marks: 1)
An example of an internal threat to a GA operation would be -
A adverse weather at the destination
B  other traffic in a control zone
C  complacency
D a fault in the aircaft flight controls
Question 39 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The detection of anticipated threats relies mainly on -
A quality instruction
B  good pre-flight briefing
C  training
D knowledge and experience
Question 40 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Threat and Error Management should be included by a pilot -
A only when flying to an unfamiliar aerodrome
B  in multi crew operatations only
C  for practice purposes on every second or third flight
D as part of routine pre-flight planning and preparation
Answers to Practice Exam 1:
1.  B | Syllabus Item 11.7.4(f) - Rotor Flicker
2.  B |  | Syllabus Item 11.9 - Positive and Negative Accelerations on the Body
3.  B | Syllabus Item 11.7.11(c) - Disorientation
4.  A | Syllabus Item 11.4.2 - Hyperventilation
5.  C |  | Syllabus Item 11.5.2 - Effects of Flying after a Period of Underwater Diving
6.  C | Syllabus Item 11.12.1(a) - Hypoxia
7.  B |  | Syllabus Item 11.3.2(b) - Effects of Alcohol on Proficiency
8.  B |  | Syllabus Item 11.1.1(a) - Coronary Risk Factors
9.  D |  | Syllabus Item 11.12.1(c) - Factors which may Increase a Persons Susceptibility
to Hypoxia
10. A |  | Syllabus Item 11.13.1 - Concepts of Information Processing and Decision
Making
11. D | Syllabus Item | 11.13.4(a) - Fatigue Effects on Pilots Performance
12. B | Syllabus Item | 11.1.1(a) - Coronary Risk Factors - Obesity
13. A | Syllabus Item | 11.3.2(a) - Absorption of Alcohol
14. D | Syllabus Item | 11.6(c) - Effects of Noise Exposure on Hearing Loss
15. D | Syllabus Item | 11.13.1(b) - Long Term Memory Limitations
16. C | Syllabus Item | 11.13.3(a) - Know the Interaction between Stress and Arousal
17. C | Syllabus Item | 11.13.1 - Information Processing
18. A | Syllabus Item | 11.13.2 - Enhancing Decision Making Skills
19. A | Syllabus Item | 11.1.1(a) - Effect on Pilot Performance of Diet
20. C | Syllabus Item | 11.7.8 - Proprioceptive System
21. C | Syllabus Item | 11.13.1(b) - Factors Influencing the Decision Making Process
22. B | Syllabus Item | 11.13.5(a) - Ergonomics
23. D | Syllabus Item | 11.13.6(b) - Ideal Leadership Qualities
24. A | Syllabus Item | 11.1.1(b) - Coronary Risk Factors
25. C | Syllabus Item | 11.13.1(b) - Memory Limitations
26. A | Syllabus Item | 11.7.10(a) - Leans
27. C | Syllabus Item | 11.9(b) - Effects of Acceleration on Vision
28. D | Syllabus Item | 11.9(c) - Effects of Acceleration on Consciousness
29. A | Syllabus Item | 11.1.1(a) - Importance of Diet on Pilot Performance
30. A | Syllabus Item | 11.13.1(a) - Sensory Information
31. D | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
32. A | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
33. D | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
34. C | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
35. B | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
36. A | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
37. D | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
38. C | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
39. D | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
40. D | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
Human Factors - Practice Exam 2
Question 1 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Pilots who are inclined to suffer from air sickness -
A should never take travel sickness tablets
B  should always deliberately induce vomiting
C  should use caution when using travel sickness preparations
D can safely take any travel sickness preparation
Question 2 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Exposure to sustained high noise levels is -
A distracting only
B  may cause permanent hearing loss
C  distracting and fatiguing, but only likely to cause temporary hearing loss
D irritating and distracting, but unlikely to be fatiguing
Question 3 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Regarding drugs which can be taken without the approval of a Designated Medical Examiner
A only prescription drugs are permitted
B  only non-prescription drugs are permitted
C  only legal drugs are permitted
D care should be exercised in relation to all drugs even though specific approval is not always
required for all drugs
Question 4 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Following consumption, the number of hours for which alcohol can still be found to
influence information processing ability is -
A 24
B  12
C  10
D 8
Question 5 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The condition which can make a pilot think that he is low on approach is -
A the runway sloping up from the threshold
B  the runway narrower than usual
C  a black approach
D poor visibility
Question 6 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Night vision starts to be affected at a cabin altitude of about -
A 2000 ft
B  4000 ft
C  8000 ft
D 13000 ft
Question 7 of 40 (Marks: 1)
After crossing a number of time zones, the average rate of time adjustment the body makes
is -
A 10 hours per day
B  7 hours per day
C  4 hours per day
D 1.5 hours per day
Question 8 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Excess salt tends to -
A make you pass a lot of water
B  lower your resistance to bacterial infection
C  lower the blood pressure
D raise the blood pressure
Question 9 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The human brain is often considered analogous to a computer.
It processes any input received through in the order of -
A decision, sensation, perception, response
B  sensation, perception, decision, response
C  response, sensation, perception, decision
D perception, response, decision, sensation
Question 10 of 40 (Marks: 1)
When on approach to a long wide runway with terrain which slopes down to the landing
threshold, the pilot may feel that he/she is -
A low on the approach path resulting in a tendency to overshoot
B  high on the approach path resulting in a tendency to overshoot
C  low on the approach path resulting in a tendency to undershoot
D high on the approach path resulting in a tendency to undershoot
Question 11 of 40 (Marks: 1)
You experience a sudden decompression at 30000 ft.
The most immediate effect would be -
A abdominal pain
B  sudden exhalation of breath
C  choking
D large joint pain
Question 12 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The most common cause of pilot incapacitation is -
A alcohol
B  hypoxia
C  gastro-intestinal upset
D heart attacks
Question 13 of 40 (Marks: 1)
If you have a cold, the phase of flight likely to cause the worst problem is -
A take-off
B  climb out
C  descent
D cruise
Question 14 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Hypoxia is caused by -
A a reduction in the partial pressure of oxygen
B  an increase in the partial pressure of oxygen
C  a reduction in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide
D an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide
Question 15 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The body capable of sensing linear movement is -
A the Anvil
B  the [NAME] canals
C  the Otolith
D the Eustachian tube
Question 16 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a
rapid decompression at 45000 feet is closest to -
A 15 seconds or less
B  30 seconds or less
C  60 seconds or less
D 90 seconds or less
Question 17 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Angina is -
A a pain in the back of the legs caused by nerve impingement
B  a medical preparation used to treat asthma
C  caused by a blood clot in the brain
D caused by reduced blood flow in the coronary arteries
Question 18 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A pilot who is unfamiliar with a new terminal area not visited previously may receive in ATC
audio information concerning the area.
In this case he/she will develop a mental memory model based on -
A sensory information only
B  perception only
C  expectancy and sensory information
D acoustic information only
Question 19 of 40 (Marks: 1)
On a dark night a stationary light such as a star, may appear to move when stared at for a
period of time.
This effect is known as the -
A vestibular illusion
B  occulogravic illusion
C  autokinetic illusion
D somatogravic illusion
Question 20 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Cyanosis may be described as -
A shallow breathing
B  blueing of the lips and nail beds
C  blurred vision
D food poisoning
Question 21 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A person will be most likely to sleep for the longest period -
A when tired
B  in dark surroundings
C  when sleep coincides with the body's circadian sleep cycle
D in the early afternoon
Question 22 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The average time of useful consciousness of a person sitting quietly at a cabin altitude of
22000 ft is -
A 30 seconds
B  45 seconds
C  5 minutes
D 10 minutes
Question 23 of 40 (Marks: 1)
To minimise the risk of missing traffic due to the blind spot in the eye, a pilot should -
A move the head frequently
B  wear sunglasses
C  blink the eyes repeatedly
D focus at infinity
Question 24 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Under normal conditions after the lights have been turned off, full night vision development
requires -
A 15 to 20 minutes
B  30 to 40 minutes
C  60 to 80 minutes
D about 2 hours
Question 25 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The sensory memory length for visual images is about -
A 1 second
B  10 seconds
C  l minute
D 10 minutes
Question 26 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A characteristic of the short term memory is that it is apparently -
A visual
B  acoustic
C  spatial
D sensory
Question 27 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The minimum noise level which will cause physical pain to the ears is -
A 85 dB
B  110 dB
C  140 dB
D 165 dB
Question 28 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The normal sea level pressure is doubled at a water depth of -
A 22 ft
B  33 ft
C  55 ft
D 66 ft
Question 29 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A senior Captain in a company has been asked to discipline a junior pilot who has a poor
attitude towards procedures. The problem is to be rectified through the avenue of
counselling methods.
For best results, qualities the senior Captain should demonstrate to the junior pilot include -
A trustworthiness and high technical competence
B  authority and high technical competence
C  authority and trustworthiness
D trustworthiness and good communication skills
Question 30 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Sinus pain experienced by a pilot in an unpressurised aircraft is most likely with -
A a blocked Eustachian tube during a climb
B  a head cold during a descent
C  a blocked Eustachian tube during a descent
D a head cold during a climb
Question 31 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The two basic categories of threat derived from the TEM model are -
A weather related threats and flight crew experience related threats
B  latent threats and expected threats
C  mechanical threats and flight crew threats
D environmental threats and organisational threats
Question 32 of 40 (Marks: 1)
An example of a latent threat is -
A undercarriage will not retract in flight
B  wind gusts exceeding the aircraft cross wind limitation for landing
C  poor aircraft equipment design
D unexpected high traffic volume in terminal airspace
Question 33 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Unauthorised penetration of controlled airspace is an example of an undesired -
A ground navigation state
B  aircraft handling state
C  air navigation state
D navigation configuration state
Question 34 of 40 (Marks: 1)
To avoid a threat leading to an accident, a pilot's countermeasures would include -
A weighing options to reduce, counter or avoid threats
B  avoiding confusion by not asking the opinions of other crew
C  deviating from SOP
D engaging the aircraft's autopilot
Question 35 of 40 (Marks: 1)
During threat analysis for a flight, the factor that determines the thoroughness with which
each threat is considered is usually -
A company SOP's
B  flight schedules
C  pilot training
D pilot attitude and motivation
Question 36 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A flight crew action which increases the probability of adverse operational events in flight,
would be described as -
A a threat
B  an error
C  an undesired aircraft state
D a TEM
Question 37 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The poor condition of an aircraft would be considered -
A an internal threat
B  an external threat
C  an expected error
D a latent error
Question 38 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The optical illusion created when approaching a sloping runway is an example of -
A an expected threat
B  a latent threat
C  an internal threat
D an external threat
Question 39 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A pilot who has a lack of recency and proficiency poses -
A an internal threat to a flying operation
B  an external threat to a flying operation
C  a latent threat to a flying operation
D no threat to a flying operation that follows SOP
Question 40 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A flight crew allows an aircraft to overshoot the centerline of the runway while they are
correcting an error in the data programed into the GPS. This is an example of -
A error management becoming a priority over the more important managing of an undesired
aircraft state
B  an undesired aircraft state becoming a priorty too early in the TEM process
C  the correct sequence of managing errors before managing an undesired aircraft state
D a latent threat becoming an error
Answers to Practice exam 2:
1.  C | Syllabus Item 11.8.3 - Motion Sickness in Flight
2.  B | Syllabus Item 11.6(c) - Noise Exposure
3.  D | Syllabus Item 11.3.3 - Undesirable Effects of Over the Counter and
Prescription Drugs
4.  A | Syllabus Item 11.3.2(b) - Effects of Alcohol on Proficiency
5.  D | Syllabus Item 11.7.12(d) - Landing Illusions
6.  B | Syllabus Item 11.12.1(a) - Hypoxia Effect on Night Vision
7.  D | Syllabus Item 11.13.4 - Concepts of Fatigue
8.  D | Syllabus Item 11.1.1(a) - Coronary Risk Factors
9.  B | Syllabus Item 11.13.1 - Information Processing
10. A | Syllabus Item 11.7.12(d) - Landing Illusions
11. B | Syllabus Item 11.5.1(a) - Trapped Gases
12. C | Syllabus Item 11.1.1(d) - Food Poisoning and other Digestive Problems
13. C | Syllabus Item 11.1.1(c) - Upper Respiratory Tract Infections
14. A | Syllabus Item 11.12.1(a) - Hypoxia
15. C | Syllabus Item 11.7.8 - Sensory Systems Involved in Maintaining Equilibrium -
[NAME]
16. A | Syllabus Item 11.12.1(d) - Approximate Time of Useful Consciousness
17. D | Syllabus Item 11.1.1(a) - Coronary Risk Factors
18. C | Syllabus Item 11.13.1(a) - Sensory Information
19. C | Syllabus Item 11.7.10(d) - Autokinetic Illusions
20. B | Syllabus Item 11.12.1(a) - Hypoxia
21. C | Syllabus Item 11.13.4(c) - Sleep Management
22. D | Syllabus Item 11.12.1(d) - Approximate Time of Useful Consciousness
23. A | Syllabus Item 11.7.6 - Visual Scanning
24. B | Syllabus Item 11.7.2 - Night Vision and Dark Adaptation
25. A | Syllabus Item 11.13.1(b) - Memory Limitations
26. B | Syllabus Item 11.13.1(b) - Memory Limitations
27. C | Syllabus Item 11.6(c) - Noise Exposure
28. B | Syllabus Item 11.5.2 - Effects of Flying after a Period of Underwater Diving
29. A | Syllabus Item 11.13.6(b) - Ideal Leadership Qualities
30. B | Syllabus Item 11.6(b) - Atmospheric/Cabin Pressure Changes
31. D | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
32. C | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
33. B | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
34. A | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
35. D | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
36. B | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
37. B | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
38. B | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
39. A | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
40. A | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
Human Factors - Practice Exam 3
Question 1 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The Valsalve Manoeuvre -
A could never be the cause of pressure vertigo
B  is more likely to be needed during a descent than a climb
C  is more likely to be needed during a climb than a descent
D is not likely to be needed during a climb or descent
Question 2 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Hyperventilation -
A produces a chemical imbalance in the body which may give rise to symptoms that are often
mistaken for hypoxia
B  is not likely if a person is breathing from supplementary oxygen
C  cannot lead to unconsciousness
D is usually due to factors other than anxiety or apprehension
Question 3 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following should serve as a guide as to whether hearing protection should be
worn -
A if you must yell to be heard 5 mt away
B  is you can't hear a whisper from 0.5 mt away
C  is you can't hear a normal conversation from 2 mt away
D if you must yell to be heard 0.5 mt away
Question 4 of 40 (Marks: 1)
In general terms, the correct statement is -
A novice pilots have fewer handling accidents than do experienced pilots
B  novice pilots have more handling accidents than do experienced pilots
C  novice pilots have fewer accidents caused by faulty judgement than experienced pilots
D novice pilots have more accidents caused by faulty judgement than experienced pilots
Question 5 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The condition which can make a pilot think that he is high on approach is -
A lighting less bright than usual
B  terrain sloping down to the threshold
C  abnormally clear air
D a shorter than usual runway
Question 6 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Concerning short term memory, which of the following is NOT correct -
A it serves us for a matter of seconds only
B  it is almost error free
C  it can only handle 5-9 items at once
D it is very susceptible to error
Question 7 of 40 (Marks: 1)
With regard to the problem of a closed or blocked Eustachian tube, the phase of flight likely
to be more of a problem than the rest is -
A climb, with the volume of gas in the middle ear decreasing
B  cruise, with the volume of gas in the middle ear remaining constant
C  descent, with the volume of gas in the middle ear decreasing
D landing, with the volume of gas in the middle ear fluctuating
Question 8 of 40 (Marks: 1)
To lower your risk of heart disease, you should avoid -
A being moderate with alcohol
B  having a positive attitude and avoiding emotional stress
C  choosing a low salt, low cholesterol diet
D increasing your smoking
Question 9 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Long term memory has -
A apparently unlimited capacity, but information can be difficult to recall
B  very limited capacity, but is reliable with easy recall
C  apparently unlimited capacity, reliable with easy recall
D limited capacity with difficult recall
Question 10 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The painful condition known as [NAME] is most likely to occur -
A with an increase in differential pressure inside and outside the body when on descent
B  with an increase in differential pressure inside and outside the body when on climb
C  with a decrease in differential pressure inside and outside the body when on descent
D with a decrease in differential pressure inside and outside the body when on climb
Question 11 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Regarding 'Human Error' -
A concealing errors will encourage their repetition and should be discouraged
B  strict adherence to SOP's (Standard Operating Procedures) is the only way to improve
safety and minimise errors
C  all errors need to be punished immediately to ensure no repeat
D your ATPL instructor thought he made an error once, but he was wrong
Question 12 of 40 (Marks: 1)
After being exposed to normal lighting, night vision ability returns after about -
A 30 to 40 minutes
B  24 hours
C  2 minutes
D 3 hours
Question 13 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The best way to search the sky for other aircraft is with the -
A head still eyes focused close in
B  head moving eyes focused close in
C  head still, eyes still and focused in the distance
D head moving slowly with pauses, eyes moving in short sharp movements with brief pauses,
focused in the distance
Question 14 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A smoker at MSL is assumed to be at an altitude of -
A 4000 ft
B  5000 ft
C  8000 ft
D 2000 ft
Question 15 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Compared to sitting idle, the oxygen uptake rate of the average pilot engaged in controlling
a cockpit fire (working hard) would be increased by approximately -
A 5 times
B  20 times
C  3 times
D 10 times
Question 16 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Long term memory is enhanced if the information is presented -
A in massive chunks
B  in limited quantity
C  by association with existing stored information
D with continuous repetition
Question 17 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Concerning motor programmes -
A they never require conscious monitoring to ensure correct execution
B  they decrease central processing capacity
C  they can only be used to perform simple functions
D they can be prone to the errors of action slips and environmental capture (the wrong
programme may be unknowingly executed by mistake)
Question 18 of 40 (Marks: 1)
An aircraft on an intersecting course which remains stationary in the field of view of a pilot
in flight is more difficult to see than a moving one since movement attracts attention.
Such stationary aircraft in the field of view -
A present a collision risk as they are on a converging course
B  present no hazard to the pilot
C  will begin to move relative to the field of view as they approach
D will not appear to grow larger if on a collision course
Question 19 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The information processing model of the single channel human computer shows the
importance of -
A motor programs to help reduce central computer load
B  devotion to a single task and not switching or time sharing
C  breaking information down into many small pieces for easy memory storage and retrieval
D tunnel vision for distracting environments
Question 20 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The post-prandial dip refers to -
A a swim after class
B  a light savoury snack in the afternoon
C  after lunch sleepiness
D compass error in the mid latitudes
Question 21 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A pilot breathe 100% oxygen under pressure above a cabin altitude of -
A 20000 ft
B  30000 ft
C  40000 ft
D 45000 ft
Question 22 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Night vision may be improved by -
A avoiding reading 1 hr prior to night flying
B  wearing sunglasses during the day
C  wearing prescription glasses
D flight planning in a brightly lit room prior to night flying
Question 23 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The human brain may be considered in some ways to be similar to a computer in that it
processes inputs in the order of -
A perception, reaction, review, reassess
B  sensation, perception, decision, response
C  induction, review, processing, revision
D processing, responding, perceiving, behaving
Question 24 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Best night vision is achieved by -
A looking slightly 'off centre'
B  looking directly at an object
C  eating lots of carrots
D using a bright torch to view the instruments
Question 25 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Short term memory is -
A of average susceptibility to errors
B  very susceptible to errors
C  error free
D almost error free
Question 26 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Long exposure to very bright light can affect night vision for up to -
A 6 hours
B  1 day
C  3 days
D 1 week
Question 27 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Excess Stress -
A can widen the attention range
B  can restrict the attention range
C  does not affect the attention range
D affects all individuals attention ranges the same
Question 28 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Empty Field Myopia is the tendency for the eyes to take up a resting focus position when
there is nothing to focus on, such as looking at an empty sky.
The usual distance of the resting focus position in front of the eyes is -
A 1 to 2 mt
B  20 mt
C  infinity
D 5 to 10 mt
Question 29 of 40 (Marks: 1)
In December 1978 in Portland, Oregon USA, a United Airlines DC-8 had an undercarriage
fault. While trying to sort out the problem the captain held for over an hour until the jet ran
out of fuel and crashed short of the runway. The flight engineer had alerted the captain to
the low fuel state but the captain, being preoccupied with the gear problem simply said
'okay' then went back to what he was doing.
A main contributing factor in this accident was the engineer's -
A attitude of resignation
B  hesitation
C  attitude of denial
D lack of assertion
Question 30 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A person is able to best recall information from short term memory that is -
A visual and clustered
B  audible and clustered
C  visual and separate
D audible and separate
Question 31 of 40 (Marks: 1)
An example of an expected threat is -
A thunderstorms forecast on the TAF
B  engine failure in flight
C  becoming lost in flight
D being diverted in flight by air traffic control
Question 32 of 40 (Marks: 1)
For flight crew, the three basic components in the TEM model are -
A threats, errors and undesired aircraft states
B  threats, errors and anticipated aircraft states
C  threats, flight crew human resources and aircraft state
D errors, flight crew human resources and undesired aircraft states
Question 33 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Track and speed deviations are examples of an undesired -
A ground naviation state
B  aircraft handling state
C  horizontal navigation state
D aircraft configuration state
Question 34 of 40 (Marks: 1)
With regard to Threat and Error Management, the use of a checklist prior to takeoff is an
example of -
A a desirable aircraft state
B  a safety state
C  a countermeasure
D a safety tactic
Question 35 of 40 (Marks: 1)
When considering the threat any risk imposes, the two aspects be weighed are -
A the personal cost of failure if the threat eventuates and the chance it will never happen
B  the chances of being caught if you take an un-necessary risk and the benefits if the mission
is completed with no risk occurring
C  the probability of the risk occurring and the consequences if it does happen
D the possibility of a better alternate action and the additional risk of proceeding
Question 36 of 40 (Marks: 1)
One measure of the effectiveness of a flight crew's ability to manage threats is -
A their recall of the event at de-briefing
B  if the pilot in command can overcome the threat without requiring the input of other crew
members
C  whether the threat is detected in time for the flight crew to respond
D the time taken to regain control following an undesired aircraft state
Question 37 of 40 (Marks: 1)
With regard to Threat and Error Management, a cockpit systems failure warning light is an
example of -
A a proactive decision making process
B  a systemic-based countermeasure
C  an enhanced threat error management process
D enhanced SOP's
Question 38 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A pre-flight briefing is an example of -
A a planning countermeasure
B  a latent countermeasure
C  an execution countermeasure
D a review countermeasure
Question 39 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The tight scheduling of check and training flights by a GA operator is an example of -
A an internal error
B  an external threat
C  an organisational threat
D a latent threat
Question 40 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The basic concept of TEM is -
A to manage the threat, error or undesired aircraft state and then identify the threat, error or
undesired aircraft state
B  identify the threat, error or undesired aircraft state and then avoid the threat, error or
undesired aircraft state
C  manage the threat, error or undesired aircraft state and then avoid the threat, error or
undesired aircraft state
D to identify the threat, error or undesired aircraft state and then manage the threat, error or
undesired aircraft state
Answers to Practice exam 3:
1.  B | Syllabus Item 11.5.1(c) - Measures for Treatment of Trapped Gases
2.  A | Syllabus Item 11.4.2 - Causes of Hyperventilation
3.  D | Syllabus Item 11.6(c) - Hearing Loss
4.  B | Syllabus Item 11.13.1(b) - Influence of Skill and Experience on the Decision
Making Process
5.  C | Syllabus Item 11.7.12(d) - Landing Illusions
6.  D | Syllabus Item 11.13.1(b) - Memory Limitations
7.  C | Syllabus Item 11.6(b) - Atmospheric/Cabin Pressure Changes
8.  D | Syllabus Item 11.1.1(a) - Coronary Risk Factors
9.  A | Syllabus Item 11.13.1(b) - Long Term Memory Limitations
10. A | Syllabus Item 11.6(b) - Atmospheric/Cabin Pressure Changes
11. A | Syllabus Item 11.13.1 - Concepts of Information Processing and Decision
Making
12. A | Syllabus Item 11.7.2 - Night Vision and Dark Adaptation
13. D | Syllabus Item 11.7.6 - Techniques for Visual Scanning
14. C | Syllabus Item 11.12.1(c) - Factors which may Increase a Persons Susceptibility
to Hypoxia
15. B | Syllabus Item 11.11.2 - Concept of the Respiratory and Circulatory Systems in
 | Terms of the Distribution of Oxygen
16. C | Syllabus Item 11.13.1(b) - Long Term Memory Limitations
17. D | Syllabus Item 11.13.1 - Concepts of Information Processing and Decision
Making
18. A | Syllabus Item 11.7.6 - Factors Conducive to Mid-Air Collisions
19. A | Syllabus Item 11.13.1(b) - Influence of Overload on the Decision Making
Process
20. C | Syllabus Item 11.13.4(a) - Causes of Fatigue
21. C | Syllabus Item 11.11.3 - Partial Pressure of Oxygen
22. B | Syllabus Item 11.7.2 - Night Vision
23. B | Syllabus Item 11.13.1 - Information Processing and Decision Making
24. A | Syllabus Item 11.7.3 - Off Centre Method of Identifying Objects at Night
25. D | Syllabus Item 11.13.1(b) - Memory Limitations
26. D | Syllabus Item 11.7.2 - Night Vision and Dark Adaptation
27. B | Syllabus Item 11.13.3(b) - Interaction between Stress and Arousal
28. A | Syllabus Item 11.7.4(b) - Empty Field Myopia
29. D | Syllabus Item 11.13.6(c) - Review Accidents which resulted from Poor Crew
Coordination
30. B | Syllabus Item 11.13.1(b) - Memory Limitations
31. A | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
32. A | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
33. B | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
34. C | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
35. C | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
36. C | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
37. B | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
38. A | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
39. C | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
40. D | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
Human Factors - Practice Exam 4
Question 1 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Flicker vertigo is a hazard associated with -
A horse riding when blindfolded
B  light shining through rotating blades
C  blinking while looking down at altitude
D disturbance of equilibrium when operating switches below eye height
Question 2 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Positive G tends to -
A decrease blood pressure and increase heart rate
B  increase blood pressure and decrease heart rate
C  result in GLOC
D result in flicker vertigo
Question 3 of 40 (Marks: 1)
A disoriented pilot should -
A vigorously seek external visual cues
B  avoid head movements
C  combine flight instrument indications with external visual clues
D roll the aircraft into a rate one level turn and maintain the turn until re-oriented
Question 4 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Hyperventilation may be caused by -
A overbreathing
B  underbreathing
C  breathing too much carbon dioxide
D breathing too much carbon monoxide
Question 5 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The gas coming out of solution in the blood causing the 'bends' is -
A carbon dioxide
B  oxygen
C  nitrogen
D carbon monoxide
Question 6 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Hypoxia may be defined as -
A a dangerous excess of carbon dioxide in the blood
B  a dangerous excess of carbon monoxide in the blood
C  insufficient oxygen available to function at full efficiency
D too much oxygen in the blood due to hyperventilation
Question 7 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Alcohol is classed as a -
A stimulant
B  depressant
C  analgesic
D sedative
Question 8 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Obesity can lead to -
A low blood pressure
B  high blood pressure
C  fainting attacks
D shortage of breath
Question 9 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Hypoxia risk will not increase with -
A increased altitude
B  a cold environment
C  smoking
D hyperventilation
Question 10 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Motivation may be defined as -
A the difference between what a person can do and what they will do
B  the desire for more financial rewards
C  antisocial behaviour
D the need for recognition
Question 11 of 40 (Marks: 1)
When fatigued, the type of task most adversely affected would be one which is -
A monotonous and simple
B  interesting and simple
C  complex and interesting
D monotonous and complex
Question 12 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The group of health problems most directly linked with obesity is -
A hypoxia, sleepiness, headaches, heart disease
B  hypertension, gout, diabetes, heart disease
C  gout, lung cancer, heart attack
D lung cancer, myopia hepatitis, AIDS
Question 13 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Following consumption, alcohol can still be found in the brain cells for -
A 24 hours
B  14 hours
C  8 hours
D 12 hours
Question 14 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The minimum noise level above which you should be wearing protection to avoid hearing
loss is -
A 120 db
B  100 db
C  140 db
D 85 db
Question 15 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Regarding long term memory -
A things are easier to learn if they are learned repetitively
B  things are easier to learn if they are taught in small blocks of information
C  things are easier to learn if they are taught in large blocks of information
D things are easier to remember if they are related to something already known
Question 16 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The ideal level of arousal for a pilot prior to completing a flight proficiency check is -
A very high
B  high
C  moderate
D low to moderate
Question 17 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The correct order of priority by which attitude is influenced is -
A cognitive, behavioural and personality
B  personality, cognitive and behavioural
C  cognitive, affective and behavioural
D behavioural, cognitive and temper
Question 18 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The order of steps involved in the PILOT model of action is -
A investigate the facts, identify the problem, seek solutions, take action, take stock
B  identify the problem, probe the facts, operate, look for solutions, take stock
C  look for solutions, investigate the facts, take stock, operate, analyse
D probe the problem, investigate solutions, listen to suggestions, operate, take stock
Question 19 of 40 (Marks: 1)
One cause of [NAME] is -
A a deficiency of iron
B  a lack of assertion
C  a dark complexion
D a lack of oxygen
Question 20 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The proprioceptive system of the human body refers to -
A the semicircular canals
B  the monolith
C  joint, muscle, and tendon nerve receptors
D the vestibular apparatus
Question 21 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Pilot motivation is primarily maintained long term by -
A monetary reward
B  status
C  job satisfaction
D discipline
Question 22 of 40 (Marks: 1)
An advantage of the digital readout type of engine instrument display compared to the
circular gauge type is -
A comparison between engines is easier
B  the exact value of a parameter is easier to read
C  trends and rates are easier to interpret
D digital displays are easier to scan
Question 23 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Good multi-crew cockpit management can be characterised by -
A high task orientation and low personal attention
B  low task orientation and low personal attention
C  low task orientation and high personal attention
D high task orientation and high personal attention
Question 24 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Hypertension is most directly linked with -
A heart disease
B  hypoxia
C  hyperventilation
D low blood pressure
Question 25 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The sensory memory length for sounds is about -
A 1 to 2 seconds
B  2 to 4 seconds
C  4 to 8 seconds
D 8 to 15 seconds
Question 26 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The 'leans' can be caused by -
A slowly entering a turn on instruments, followed by a fast wing levelling
B  quickly entering a turn on instruments, followed by a fast wing levelling
C  slowly entering a turn on instruments, followed by a slow wing levelling
D quickly entering a turn on instruments, followed by a slow wing levelling
Question 27 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Our eyes start 'greying out' at a 'G' loading of about -
A 1.5 G
B  2.5 G
C  3.5 G
D 4.5 G
Question 28 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Humans start to suffer g-induced loss of consciousness (GLOC) or blackout at a 'G' loading of
about -
A 6.5 G
B  3.5 G
C  2.3 G
D 5 G
Question 29 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Gout is a condition which can lead to arthritic attacks, especially in males.
It is primarily a result of -
A a disturbance of the uric-acid metabolism
B  lack of blood supply from a bad heart, causing an imbalance in the oxygen to carbon dioxide
ratio
C  excessive exercise/overworking, and a diet lacking in iron
D inactivity
Question 30 of 40 (Marks: 1)
While conducting an instrument approach in IMC you have a mental picture of what you
expect to see when you become visual. You break out of cloud and what you see is different
to your mental picture of the approach.
In this situation -
A essential details will tend to be overlooked
B  it will take time for you to orient yourself
C  you will experience strong vertigo
D you will immediately discount the contribution of the mental model
Question 31 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The three primary categories of error in the TEM model are -
A loss of heading control, loss of attitude control and loss of airspeed control
B  navigational error, radio frequency error, navaid error
C  crew resource error, air traffic control error and ground handling error
D aircraft handling errors, procedural errors and communication errors
Question 32 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Undesired aircraft states are categorised as -
A aircraft handling, ground navigation or incorrect aircraft configuration
B  aircraft ground handling, vertical navigation and incorrect inflight configuration
C  vertical navigation, ground navigation and inflight navigation
D aircraft configuration, ground handling and inflight aircraft handling
Question 33 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Being positioned at the wrong holding point prior to takeoff is an example of an undesired -
A aircraft handling state
B  aircraft ground configuration state
C  situational awareness state
D ground navigation state
Question 34 of 40 (Marks: 1)
When an aircraft is in an undesired state, aircrew should be aware that the primary task is -
A determine the cause of the undesired state
B  discuss with other crew the risks of each corrective action
C  correct the undesired state and return to controlled stabilised flight
D avoid making control inputs until the undesired state fixes itself
Question 35 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The most proactive option in threat management is to -
A anticipate the recovery action expected if the threat occurs
B  anticipate and avoid the threat altogether
C  take corrective action once the threat has occured
D ignore the threat until it actually has an effect on the flight
Question 36 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The definition of a threat includes -
A external events or errors that occur outside the influence of the flight crew
B  external events or errors that occur due to the actions of the flight crew
C  an undesired aircraft state occuring due to the action of the flight crew
D flight crew induced speed deviations
Question 37 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The definition of an error includes -
A an external event that increases the operational complexity of the flight
B  an unexpected ATC clearance
C  a navigational system failure
D a flight crew action that would reduce safety margins
Question 38 of 40 (Marks: 1)
An example of an internal threat to a GA operation would be -
A adverse weather at the destination
B  other traffic in a control zone
C  complacency
D a fault in the aircaft flight controls
Question 39 of 40 (Marks: 1)
The detection of anticipated threats relies mainly on -
A quality instruction
B  good pre-flight briefing
C  training
D knowledge and experience
Question 40 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Threat and Error Management should be included by a pilot -
A only when flying to an unfamiliar aerodrome
B  in multi crew operatations only
C  for practice purposes on every second or third flight
D as part of routine pre-flight planning and preparation
Answers to Practice exam 4:
1.   B | Syllabus Item 11.7.4(f) - Rotor Flicker
2.   A |  | Syllabus Item 11.9 - Positive and Negative Accelerations on the Body
3.   B | Syllabus Item 11.7.11(c) - Disorientation
4.   A | Syllabus Item 11.4.2 - Hyperventilation
5.   C |  | Syllabus Item 11.5.2 - Effects of Flying after a Period of Underwater Diving
6.   C | Syllabus Item 11.12.1(a) - Hypoxia
7.   B |  | Syllabus Item 11.3.2(b) - Effects of Alcohol on Proficiency
8.   B |  | Syllabus Item 11.1.1(a) - Coronary Risk Factors
9.   D |  | Syllabus Item 11.12.1(c) - Factors which may Increase a Persons Susceptibility
to Hypoxia
10. A |  | Syllabus Item 11.13.1 - Concepts of Information Processing and Decision
Making
11. D | Syllabus Item | 11.13.4(a) - Fatigue Effects on Pilots Performance
12. B | Syllabus Item | 11.1.1(a) - Coronary Risk Factors - Obesity
13. A | Syllabus Item | 11.3.2(a) - Absorption of Alcohol
14. D | Syllabus Item | 11.6(c) - Effects of Noise Exposure on Hearing Loss
15. D | Syllabus Item | 11.13.1(b) - Long Term Memory Limitations
16. C | Syllabus Item | 11.13.3(a) - Know the Interaction between Stress and Arousal
17. C | Syllabus Item | 11.13.1 - Information Processing
18. A | Syllabus Item | 11.13.2 - Enhancing Decision Making Skills
19. A | Syllabus Item | 11.1.1(a) - Effect on Pilot Performance of Diet
20. C | Syllabus Item | 11.7.8 - Proprioceptive System
21. C | Syllabus Item | 11.13.1(b) - Factors Influencing the Decision Making Process
22. B | Syllabus Item | 11.13.5(a) - Ergonomics
23. D | Syllabus Item | 11.13.6(b) - Ideal Leadership Qualities
24. A | Syllabus Item | 11.1.1(b) - Coronary Risk Factors
25. C | Syllabus Item | 11.13.1(b) - Memory Limitations
26. A | Syllabus Item | 11.7.10(a) - Leans
27. C | Syllabus Item | 11.9(b) - Effects of Acceleration on Vision
28. D | Syllabus Item | 11.9(c) - Effects of Acceleration on Consciousness
29. A | Syllabus Item | 11.1.1(a) - Importance of Diet on Pilot Performance
30. A | Syllabus Item | 11.13.1(a) - Sensory Information
31. D | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
32. A | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
33. D | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
34. C | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
35. B | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
36. A | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
37. D | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
38. C | Syllabus Item | 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
39. D | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
40. D | Syllabus Item 11.15 - Threat and Error Management
Human Factors - Practice Exam 5
Question 1 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Countermeasure chain is best described as -
A Perception/ anticipation/ recovery/ avoidance
B  Perception/ anticipation/ risk assessment/ avoidance
C  Risk assessment/ anticipation/ perception/ outcome
D Anticipation/ recognition/ correction/ outcome
Question 2 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The turn-around time at the destination has been shortened by the airline. This could
constitute a -
A Latent threat
B  Unexpected threat
C  Expected threat
Question 3 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Prismatic effect on a windscreen is regarded as what type of threat?
A Latent
B  Unexpected
C  Expected
Question 4 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which is not an anticipated threat?
A Engine malfunction in flight
B  Thunderstorm activity
C  Heavy traffic at destination airport
D Heavy traffic at departure airport
Question 5 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A pilot has just completed a SCUBA dive of 5 hours duration, of which decompression stops
were required. How much rest at sea level is recommended before flight at altitude?
A 4 hours
B  12 hours
C  24 hours
D 48 hours
Question 6 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The retention span of the short term memory is approximately -
A 5-10 seconds
B  15-30 seconds
C  40-60 seconds
D 5-10 minutes
Question 7 of 30 (Marks: 1)
At which altitude is ambient pressure half that of sea level -
A 10 000 ft
B  18 000 ft
C  25 000 ft
D At the tropopause
Question 8 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The sensory memory length for sounds is -
A 1-2 seconds
B  2-4 seconds
C  5 seconds
D 8-15 seconds
Question 9 of 30 (Marks: 1)
At about what G loading will the average person start to grey out?
A 1.5g
B  2.5g
C  3.5g
D 4.5g
Question 10 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Empty field myopia is the tendency of the eye, in the absence of visual stimulation, to adopt
a resting focus position in front of the eyes of -
A 1 to 2 metres
B  20 metres
C  5 to 10 metres
D Infinity
Question 11 of 30 (Marks: 1)
According to CASA recommendations, SCUBA diving which required decompression stops
and lasted three hours may be followed by flying after a rest period at sea level of -
A 6 hours
B  24 hours
C  48 hours
D 12 hours
Question 12 of 30 (Marks: 1)
According to current recommendations, SCUBA diving which required decompression stops
and lasted five hours may be followed by flying after a rest period at sea level of -
A 48 hours
B  24 hours
C  12 hours
D No minimum period, provided the pilot feels well
Question 13 of 30 (Marks: 1)
At about which G loading will the average person start to black out -
A 6.5g
B  3.5g
C  2.5g
D 5.0g
Question 14 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Approximately how much water does a body lose on a hot day?
A 2 litres
B  5 litres
C  10 litres
D 15 litres
Question 15 of 30 (Marks: 1)
What is the average rate of time zone adjustment which the body is able to make?
A 12 hours per day
B  6 hours per day
C  2 to 3 hours per day
D 1.5 hours per day
Question 16 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A pilot flying at FL300 experiences a sudden loss of pressurization. His time of useful
consciousness while engaged in moderate activity is approximately -
A 60 seconds
B  75 seconds
C  5 minutes
D 20 seconds
Question 17 of 30 (Marks: 1)
In the majority of cases of normal pregnancy, a female pilot should cease active flying duties
after -
A 6 months
B  8 months
C  The first trimester
D She first discovers she is pregnant
Question 18 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Night vision begins to deteriorate at a cabin altitude of -
A 10 000 ft
B  8 000 ft
C  14 000 ft
D 4 000 ft
Question 19 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The short term memory is primarily -
A  Visual
B   Acoustic
C   Kinesthetic
D  Emotional
Question 20 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following would NOT be defined as good leadership?
A  Leading by example
B   Advising intent before acting
C   Arriving at a decision before crew input
D  Praising good performance
Question 21 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The otolith organs sense -
A Pressure changes in the ear
B  Angular acceleration
C  Linear movement
D Sound waves
Question 22 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Whilst night flying, a pilot is exposed to a momentary flash of light from a passenger’s
camera. Full-dark re-adaptation can be expected to take -
A Not more than 5 minutes as the pilot was well adapted before the flash
B  At least 30 minutes
C  20 to 30 minutes
D At least one hour
Question 23 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A disoriented pilot should -
A Avoid head movements and rely on instrument indications
B  Combine flight instrument indications with external visual cues
C  Trust vestibular and proprioceptive inputs in the absence of visual cues
D Vigerously seek external clues
Question 24 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following will NOT lower the risk of heart disease?
A Restricting alcohol intake to moderate amounts
B  Avoiding emotional stress
C  Reducing salt and cholesterol
D Increasing smoking as a stress coping method
Question 25 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A pilot flying with a head cold is likely to -
A Be more susceptible to hypoxia
B  Become spatially disoriented
C  Suffer from cyanosis
D Suffer from pressure vertigo
Question 26 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Voluntarily decreasing the rate of breathing will cure -
A Hypoxia
B  Carboxyhaemoglobinemia
C  Carbon monoxide poisoning
D Hyperventilation
Question 27 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Chronic fatigue differs from acute fatigue in that -
A Stress is not a factor in acute fatigue, only in chronic fatigue
B  Chronic fatigue can be overcome with a good night’s sleep in most cases
C  Chronic fatigue is unlikely to develop unless the pilot works shifts or experiences jet lag
D Chronic fatigue can build up over time unnoticed. It may be triggered or worsened by
other factors
Question 28 of 30 (Marks: 1)
[NAME] tubes will tend to cause greater problems during -
A Climbs
B  Cruise at high altitude
C  Descents
D Cruise at low altitude
Question 29 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which behavior or activity is essential for good communications between flight deck crew?
A Touching
B  Debating
C  Summarizing
D Prolonged eye contact
Question 30 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The somatogravic illusion causes a pilot to perceive -
A Deceleration in a descent as level flight
B  Deceleration in a climb in level flight
C  Acceleration in a climb as level flight
D Acceleration in level flight as a climb
Answers to Practice Exam 5:
1 | D
2 | A
3 | A
4 | A
5 | D
6 | B
7 | B
8 | C
9 | C
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. A
17. A
18. D
19. B
20. C
21. C
22. B
23. A
24. D
25. D
26. D
27. D
28. C
29. C
30. D
Human Factors - Practice Exam 6
Question 1 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A twin engine aircraft suffered an engine failure due to icing in the fuel supply. This is
categorised as -
A An organisational threat
B  An environmental threat
C  A malignant threat
Question 2 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A late arrival due to delays caused by higher than anticipated headwinds is classified as -
A An organisational threat
B  A scheduling latent error
C  An environmental threat
Question 3 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Threats due to maintenance engineering personnel monitoring mistakes are classed as -
A   Environmental
B   Organisational
C   Expected
D   Latent
E   Insidious
Question 4 of 30 (Marks: 1)
“Black hole” visual illusion would be categorised as -
A A latent threat
B  And expected threat
C  An environmental threat
D An expected threat
Question 5 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The most common cause of pilot incapacitation in flight is -
A Disorientation due to blocked ears and sinuses
B  Gastrointestinal disorders
C  Heart attack
D Stroke
Question 6 of 30 (Marks: 1)
You notice lately that an aircrew colleague frequently seems irritable and argumentative,
forgetful and lacks interest in his job. Which of the following disorders might these signs
indicate?
A Narcolepsy
B  General adaptation syndrome
C  Chronic fatigue
D Hypoglycemia
E  [NAME]
Question 7 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate treatment for a person suffering from
hypothermia?
A Vigorous rubbing of cold extremities to stimulate circulation
B  Giving warm, sweet drinks (if fully conscious)
C  Applying a covered bottle of hot water to armpits and groin
D Lie down and cover with layers of blankets or clothing
Question 8 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The best indication of inadequacy of fluid intake in hot climates is -
A Thirst sensation
B  Headache or tiredness level
C  Amount of perspiration
D Volume and colour of urine
Question 9 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The PILOT model decision making involves which order of steps?
A Investigate the facts, identify the problem, seek solutions, take action
B  Analyse, identify the problem, probe the facts, operate, look for solutions, take stock
C  Look for solutions, investigate the facts, take stock, operate, analyse
D Probe the problem, investigate solutions, listen to suggestions, operate, take stock
Question 10 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The model of a good leader will correctly balance his attention on -
A Individuals, goals and aircraft
B  Individuals, teamwork, and the task at hand
C  Delegation, command and communication
D Aviation, navigation and communication
Question 11 of 30 (Marks: 1)
During periods of high cockpit workload, which of the following events is most likely to
occur?
A Information may be missed due to narrowing of attention
B  Information may be missed due to infrequent input
C  The pilot will lose interest in the tasks he is doing
D The pilot will be slow to react to an emergency
Question 12 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Most efficiency and enjoyment will occur with a stress level that is -
A Low
B  Intermediate
C  Absent
D High
Question 13 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The Valsalve method -
A  Could never be a cause of pressure vertigo
B   Is more likely to be needed in a rapid climb than in a rapid descent
C   Is recommended for clearing the ears if a severe upper respiratory infection is present
D  Is more likely to be needed in a rapid descent than a rapid climb
Question 14 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Carbon monoxide entering the passenger cabin from a leaking engine exhaust manifold -
A Cannot be detected, since it is odorless
B  May cause headache, general drowsiness, affect vision and cause unconsciousness
C  Will not be of any danger is present in small amounts
D Will only affect passengers who smoke
Question 15 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Fatigue will have the greatest effect on -
A The ability to think clearly
B  Motor program skills
C  Vision and hearing
D Radio communication skills
Question 16 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which drugs can be freely taken without the approval of a DAME?
A Prescription drugs only
B  Non-prescription drugs only
C  Legal drugs only
D Essentially none
E  Laughing gas
Question 17 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following actions would NOT be appropriate in attempting to reduce the
effects of flicker vertigo?
A Turning off strobe lights when flying in or near cloud
B  Not flying if tired, anxious, irritated or under medication
C  Altering heading to fly into sun
D Wearing good quality sunglasses and a peaked cap
Question 18 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Temporary or permanent hearing loss can be caused by sustained exposure to noise levels -
A Only above 120dB
B  Of 60dB and greater
C  Typically found in the cockpit of a light aircraft
D Only about 140dB
Question 19 of 30 (Marks: 1)
What is the effect of alcohol on the performance of a flight crew member?
A Alcohol will not seriously impair judgment provided that person is well rested
B  Only large amounts of alcohol (>50mg/100mL) will impair judgment
C  Alcohol alone will seriously impair judgment
D Alcohol will impair judgment in only some individuals
Question 20 of 40 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following disease states does obesity contribute to?
A  Hypertension, diabetes, cancer
B   Osteoarthritis, hypertension, gout
C   Coronary heart disease, osteoarthritis, chronic lung disease
D  Diabetes, hypertension, meningitis
Question 21 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following measures should be taken to treat a person suffering from carbon
monoxide poisoning?
A Moderate exercise to increase the rate of oxygen intake
B  Provide oxygen, preferably under pressure
C  Relax them with a cigarette and a glass of good whisky
D Have them breath inside a paper bag
Question 22 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The “leans” can be caused by -
A  Slowly entering a turn on instruments, followed by a fast wing leveling
B   Quickly entering a turn on instruments, followed by a fast wing leveling
C   Slowly entering a turn on instruments, followed by a slow wing leveling
D  Quickly entering a turn on instruments, followed by a slow wing leveling
Question 23 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following is NOT part of the normal ageing process?
A Deterioration in memory
B  Reduction in visual acuity
C  Epilepsy
D Progressive hearing loss
Question 24 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Information processing by the human brain occurs in the following order of steps -
A Decision, sensation, perception, response
B  Sensation, perception, decision, response
C  Response, sensation, perception, decision
D Perception, response, decision, sensation
Question 25 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following will increase a person’s susceptibility to hypoxia?
A Flying at night
B  Smoking
C  Alcohol
D Hyperventilation
Question 26 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A perpetual disorder in which the person is unaware of, or uncertain of, the attitude or
position of the aircraft in space defines -
A Auto kinetic illusion
B  Spatial disorientation
C  Oculogravic illusion
D Oculogyral illusion
Question 27 of 30 (Marks: 1)
An illusion of tumbling induced by simultaneous movement of the head in more that one
plane is called -
A Nystagmus
B  The leans
C  Somatogyral illusion
D Coriolis or cross coupled illusion
Question 28 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following will make a pilot think he is low on approach?
A The runway slopes up from the threshold
B  The runway is longer or narrower than usual
C  The lighting Is less bright than usual
D There is heavy rain on the windscreen
Question 29 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following will make a pilot think he is high on approach?
A The runway slopes down from the threshold
B  The terrain slopes down to the threshold
C  The runway is shorter than usual
D The air is abnormally clear
Question 30 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following statements is true for many types of cold cures?
A They may inflame the Eustachian tube, possibly leading to middle ear infection
B  They may have side effects which strain the heart when flying at altitude
C  The contain ephedrine, which may cause vision problems when flying at altitude
D They contain anti-histamine, which may cause drowsiness and impair performance
Answers to Practice exam 6:
1.   B
2.   C
3.   B
4.   A
5.   B
6.   C
7.   A
8.   D
9.   A
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. C
18. C
19. C
20. B
21. B
22. A
23. C
24. B
25. B
26. B
27. D
28. C
29. D
30. D
Human Factors  - Practice Exam 7
Question 1 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The incorrect readback of an ATC clearance level is what type of error?
A Predictable
B  Obvious
C  Unexpected
D Communication
Question 2 of 30 (Marks: 1)
While on climb to its cruising altitude “vertical speed hold” mode is engaged on the
autopilot panel instead of the more appropriate “airspeed hold mode”. This represents -
A An aircraft handling error
B  A procedural error
C  A communication error
Question 3 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A crew narrowly avoid a runway overrun during takeoff due to an incorrect gross weight
input error. This would be classed as -
A A randomized error
B  An aircraft handling error
C  A procedural error
Question 4 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Lining up on the active runway without a clearance to do so by ATC represents -
A An aircraft handling state
B  A procedural error
C  A communication error
D A Ground navigation error
Question 5 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The effect of stress on the attention span is to -
A  Reduce it
B   Widen it
C   Not affect it usually
D  Reduce or widen depending on the individual
Question 6 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning -
A Rapid, shallow breathing
B  Dizziness
C  Pain and cramping in the hands and feet
D Sudden explosive diarrhea
Question 7 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the answers identifies a factor that could result in hyperventilation?
A Excessive alcohol consumption
B  A stressful situation leading to increased anxiety, or at high altitudes
C    rate of breathing that is too slow to cope with the body’s activity level, or at high
altitudes
D Too much salt in the diet
Question 8 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The cause of hypoxia is best summarised as -
A A decrease in oxygen partial pressure
B  Increased levels of nitrogen in the high altitude environment
C  Smoking after landing
D Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Question 9 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A common symptom of hyperventilation is -
A A rate of breathing that is disproportionally low for the atmosphere and activity rate
B  Increased keenness of vision
C  Tingling of hands, feet and legs
Question 10 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Loss of cabin pressure in low pressure atmospheric environments can result in -
A A decrease in oxygen partial pressure
B  An increase in the percentage of nitrogen in the air
C  An increase in the percentage of oxygen in the air
Question 11 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The hypoxia condition is a result of -
A Insufficient oxygen reaching the heart muscles
B  Insufficient carbon dioxide reaching the heart muscles
C  Insufficient nitrogen reaching the brain
D Too little oxygen reaching the brain
E  Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream
Question 12 of 30 (Marks: 1)
You are on final visual approach to a runway that is narrower than usual, and does NOT
feature PAPI, or VASIS vertical guidance cues. In this case you should be aware that the
approach -
A Altitude may be lower than it appears
B  Altitude may be higher than it appears
C  May result in you flaring to land much too high, resulting in a hard landing
Question 13 of 30 (Marks: 1)
[NAME] illusion is most likely to occur/ gives the impression of -
A During the final stages of the approach, on moonless nights/ being too high on
approach
B  During the early stages of the approach, landing down-moon/ being to low on approach
C  During takeoff in clear conditions by day/ nose attitude being too low
D During takeoff at night toward unlit featureless terrain/ having a nose attitude too high
Question 14 of 30 (Marks: 1)
When making an approach over featureless terrain such as a large water body at night, you
should be aware that through an illusion, the approach may appear too -
A Low
B  High
C  Perfect
D Shallow
E  Reasonable
Question 15 of 30 (Marks: 1)
During a night flight, the most effective technique for scanning for traffic is to -
A Move eyes quickly left and right, but keep head still facing forward
B  Focus your gaze on only lights in the extreme distance, oscillating eyes quickly left and
right at varying intervals
C  Scan slowly from side to side to permit off-centre viewing
D Concentrate on each identified target for a few seconds before moving your focus
elsewhere
Question 16 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The procedure to adopt to overcome spatial disorientation at night or in cloud is -
A Look toward the glow of the sun
B  Rely entirely on the information provided by the flight instruments
C  Rely on body sensations to sense  true vertical and
D Reduce head and eye movement as much as possible
Question 17 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The effects of alcohol consumption on the functions of the body  -
A It has little effect other than increasing the feeling of wellbeing
B  Even small quantities of alcohol impairs judgement and decision making, especially at
high altitude
C  Large quantities only can slow reaction times, increase confidence, and affect decision
making slightly
Question 18 of 30 (Marks: 1)
From the options below, the best scanning method for collision avoidance is -
A Looking outside the cockpit for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, and repeat
B  Looking inside the cockpit for 20-30 seconds then outside for similar period, repeat
C  Looking inside the cockpit for 15 seconds, then outside for 5 seconds, repeat
Question 19 of 30 (Marks: 1)
With regard to collision avoidance, which aircraft target would be of most concern?
A One ahead of you, that has no apparent vertical motion, and is increasing in size
B  One that is ahead but moving from right to left
C  One that is ahead and moving from left to right at slow speed
Question 20 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Of the 4 aircraft targets/ scenarios listed below, which represents the most collision risk? -
A An aircraft ahead, below the horizon, and staying below the horizon becoming larger
B  An aircraft ahead, on the horizon and staying on the horizon, becoming larger
C  An aircraft ahead, on the horizon and staying on the horizon, and moving rapidly from
left to right
D An aircraft that is about 45 degrees left of the tail, crossing rapidly from left to right,
currently on the horizon and climbing through your level, increasing in size
Question 21 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Spatial disorientation in cloud over unlit featureless terrain at night is most likely to be
brought about by the pilot when -
A Ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear balance mechanism
B  Body sensations are used to interpret the attitude of the aircraft
C  Eyes are moved regularly to check flight instruments
Question 22 of 30 (Marks: 1)
On a dark moonless night, a distant stationary light appears to move. This is due to -
A Coriolis Illusion
B  [NAME] illusion
C  Vestibular illusion
D Auto-kinesis illusion
Question 23 of 30 (Marks: 1)
In general, vigilance in the cockpit deteriorates during periods of low activity, and infrequent
events. What is the generally accepted length of vigilance in this case?
A 30 minutes
B  10 minutes
C  50 minutes
D 70 minutes
Question 24 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following statements is correct -
A.  Personality is NOT resistant to change but attitude is
B.  Attitude and personality are both resistant to change
[NAME] is resistant to change but attitude is not
D. Personality and attitude are both NOT resistant to change
Question 25 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A good traffic scanning technique is to make -
A A slow scan by smooth continuously panning
B  A fast scan by smooth continuous panning
C  Sideways head movements around 10-15° with brief rests in between
D A large number of large eye movements with long rests in between
Question 26 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A pilot is converting to a new aircraft type. Their landings are generally good, but
occasionally on the hard side. You would describe this pattern of error as -
A Sporadic
B  Typical
C  Sequential
D Random
E  Systematic
Question 27 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Excess salt in one’s diet can cause -
A Diabetes
B  Low blood pressure
C  High blood pressure
Question 28 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A passenger talks of just returning from a scuba dive which lasted 20 minutes. That person
should NOT fly for at least -
A 24 hours
B  60 minutes
C  30 hours
D 4 hours
Question 29 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A down-sloping runway may lead to the pilot having to -
A Undershoot
B  Land long
C  Overshoot
Question 30 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the following pilot personality traits is most likely to have an accident -
A Stable introvert
B  Balanced extrovert
C  Anxious extrovert
Answers to Practice exam 7:
1 | D
2 | A
3 | C
4 | B
5 | A
6 | B
7 | B
8 | A
9 | C
10. A
11. D
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. B
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. B
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. B
25. C
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. C
30. C
Human Factors - Practice Exam 8
Question 1 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body, which is statement is most
correct?
A An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol
B  A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity
C  Judgment and decision making abilities can be adversely affected by small amounts of
alcohol
D Sleep removes alcohol in the body the fastest
E  Alcohol is not present in the body after 8 hours
Question 2 of 30 (Marks: 1)
On final approach to the down-sloping runway a pilot may tend to -
A Fly below the optimum glidepath
B  Fly above the optimum glidepath
C  Correct automatically for any illusion
D Land short
Question 3 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The unfamiliar runway you are to land at features down-sloping terrain in final approach
toward a level runway. In this case there is a tendency for the pilot to believe -
A He is too  low and may land long
B  He is too high and may undershoot
C  Over-speed on final
D The runway also slopes downhill
Question 4 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Assuming your speed and rate of descent are correct on final approach, you could expect
the runway aiming point to -
A Progressively move down the windscreen
B  Progressively up the windscreen
C  Neither move up or down the windscreen
Question 5 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A rain band with associated low cloud is approaching beyond the opposite end of the
runway as you are on final for a visual approach to land. Which statement is most correct?
A The pilot may tend to let the speed decay below proper approach speed
B  The pilot may tend to pitch the aircraft up in response, taking the aircraft above the
optimum glide path
C  The pilot may tend to pitch the aircraft down in response, taking the aircraft below the
optimum glide path
D The pilot may tend to land long because he interprets the cloud as the horizon
Question 6 of 30 (Marks: 1)
You are flying at 500 ft above ground at low airspeed into a very strong headwind. You make
a steep right-hand level turn. A danger here is that after making the turn -
A Your higher airspeed may cause you to feel you are higher than in reality
B  Your higher groundspeed may cause you to feel you are higher than in reality
C  Your lower ground speed may cause you to apply more power
D You may not recognize the loss of airspeed due to the high groundspeed
Question 7 of 30 (Marks: 1)
In flying a visual landing approach your best method of maintaining speed control is to -
A Observe the speed at which the ground is passing by
B  Take visual cues from the PAPI or T-VASIS slope indicators
C  Ensure the runway “aiming point” remains at a constant position on the windscreen
D Monitor the airspeed gauge
Question 8 of 30 (Marks: 1)
An undershoot on final approach is most likely in which of the following conditions -
A An approach over water or featureless terrain
B  The runway slopes down from the threshold
C  The runway is wider than normal
D Visibility is poor
Question 9 of 30 (Marks: 1)
During cruising flight in clear blue sky conditions over featureless terrain, it is likely that -
A You will be able to better observe aircraft approach head on
B  Aircraft in the far distance will be easier to identify due to relative motion
C  You may not see an aircraft approaching until it is too late
D Colour perception may be seriously reduced
Question 10 of 30 (Marks: 1)
In a fixed wind propeller-driven aircraft, which of the following conditions is most likely to
bring on flicker vertigo?
A Observing the horizon for too long without shifting your focus
B  When the sun is directly above you in the sky when at cruise power settings
C  When the sun is directly above you in the sky when at idle power settings
D During poor light conditions with strobe lights in when operating near or in cloud
Question 11 of 30 (Marks: 1)
During flight your fellow pilot says he feels he should breath into a paper airsickness bag. He
is doing this because -
A He is about to play a silly prank
B  He feels he is suffering from hyperventilation
C  He is feeling hypoxic
D He is feeling the adverse effects of motion sickness
Question 12 of 30 (Marks: 1)
You have left your headset behind by mistake, and have to fly without it in a noisy cockpit
for several hours. It is possible that -
A No hearing loss will occur due to the relatively short exposure time
B  You may have temporary difficulty hearing after you exit the aircraft on arrival
C  Your ears will adjust automatically to the greater ambient noise levels with no loss of
hearing
D Your ears will be very sensitive after the flight, and people may appear to be shouting
during normal conversation
Question 13 of 30 (Marks: 1)
You decide to fly with a moderate head cold. Ear discomfort is any will likely be greatest
during -
A The long cruise phase of the flight
B  The climb to altitude as you cannot clear your ears
C  During the first half of the decent
D During the last half of the decent
Question 14 of 30 (Marks: 1)
To counter stress of a demanding flying job, during rest periods it is best to -
A Lie down and confront the stressors head on
B  Go out on the town, chill out and consume several beers at a bar, or do some shopping
C  Distance yourself from the stress by denying any stressful situation exits
D Get your mind off it by playing a demanding game of squash or tennis with a friend
Question 15 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Moodiness, nervousness, frustration, and forgetfulness may be indicating that you -
A Are just a normal person because all humans suffer these symptoms
B  Are watching too much television
C  Are hypoxic and you should breath into and out of a paper bag
D Are under stress and not coping well with it
Question 16 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A long series of numbers such as telephone numbers are best mentally remembered by -
A Continuing to repeat the numbers in your head as one long stream
B  Separating the numbers into blocks
C  Remembering them in reverse order
D Not thinking too hard about their sequence
Question 17 of 30 (Marks: 1)
When comparing long-term memory to short-term memory, it is most correct to say -
A That both have about equal reliability and accuracy
B  That short-term memory is more accurate than long term memory
C  That long-term memory is more accurate than long-term memory
Question 18 of 30 (Marks: 1)
During a visual navigation exercise the cloud on the horizon slopes down toward the right.
In this case the pilot may find himself -
A Regularly having to turn right onto the correct compass heading
B  Flying with the left wing low
C  Right of the planned track
D Experiencing flicker vertigo
Question 19 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Assumptions and false hypothesis are likely when -
A  The departure you are flying is vastly different from those previously experienced
B   You are distracted mid-way through a checklist
C   When the pressure is off after a demanding departure procedure
D  When a motor program is activated but not monitored
E  When you expect a certain thing to happen as per usual
Question 20 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A  macho pilot suddenly notices a glider close to his position and level. In displaying a typical
macho approach, he is likely to-
A Take swift evasive action to avoid a collision
B  Leave any evasive action and buzz the glider at close range
C  Remain impassive to the other aircraft’s close proximity
D Resign himself to the fact that near misses happen every day and not get too concerned
Question 21 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Which of the senses listed is the first to be adversely affected by an increase in density
altitude?
A Hearing
B  Eyesight
C  Smell
D Balance
Question 22 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are best summarised as -
A Headache, increased nausea, dizziness, blue lips, increased breathing rates
B  Headache, dizziness, indecision, tingling of the skin
C  Warm feeling, decreased breathing rate, personality change, headache, impaired
memory
D Shortage of breath, tingling of fingers or toes, poor judgement, increased heart rate,
cherry red complexion, nausea, apprehension
Question 23 of 30 (Marks: 1)
You notice that after a large lunch you feel mentally tired and lethargic. This is because -
A You are obviously behind on sleep credits
B  You are suffering the first effects of food poisioning
C  You are suffering hypoglycaemia and should by an energy drink.
D Of post prandial dip linked to the body’s circadian rhythms.
Question 24 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Pain in the joints, which suddenly appears during flight, is a symptom of -
A Decompression Sickness
B  Hyperventilation
C  Hypoxia
D An impending heart attack
E  Carbon Monoxide poisoning
Question 25 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Gases of physiological importance to man are -
A Oxygen, nitrogen and water vapour
B  Nitrogen and [NAME]
C  [NAME] and carbon monoxide
D Oxygen and carbon dioxide
Question 26 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The atmospheric barometric pressure drops to ½ of the sea level pressure at about -
A 10,000ft
B  18,000ft
C  25,000ft
D 40,000ft
Question 27 of 30 (Marks: 1)
The effects of sleep deprivation on performance -
A Increase with altitude and higher workload
B  Decrease with altitude and higher workload
C  Are unchanged with altitude but increased by a higher workload
D Are unchanged with work load but increased as altitude is gained
Question 28 of 30 (Marks: 1)
How can a pilot avoid automation complacency -
A Nothing, because it is system inherent
B  Always try to enhance your aviation related knowledge during low workload periods
C  Always fly the whole flight manually to remain in man machine loop
D Regard the automatic system as an additional crew member that needs to be cross
checked
Question 29 of 30 (Marks: 1)
A high level of cockpit automation may alter the traditional task of the pilots such that -
A The crew can pay more attention to solve the problem in a situation without moitoring
the automatic system
B  The attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequence of being
out of the loop
C  Crew co-ordination can be largely neglected on long haul flights without compromising
safety.
D It is guarantees that crew situational awareness is less likely to be degraded.
Question 30 of 30 (Marks: 1)
Use of long term memory to solve a problem or answer a technical problem is best if it is -
A [NAME] learned
B  Learned through repetition
C  Understood thoroughly
Answers to Practice exam 8:
1.   C
2.   B
3.   A
4.   C
5.   C
6.   D
7.   D
8.   A
9.   C
10. D
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. B
17. B
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. B
22. C
23. D
24. A
25. D
26. B
27. A
28. D
29. B
30. C
Human Factors - TEM Questions
Question 1 of 12 (Marks: 1)
Which of the items below NOT be considered an external threat?
A Other traffic
B  Fatigue
C  Adverse weather
D High density altitude environment
Question 2 of 12 (Marks: 1)
Which of the items below would NOT be considered an internal threat?
A Complacency
B  Invulnerability
C  Weight and balance
D Continuing an approach in IMC below published minima
Question 3 of 12 (Marks: 1)
Under the TEM model mistakes by aircrew are considered to be -
A Sometimes unavoidable
B  100% avoidable
C  Avoidable through prior planning
D Avoidable with good CRM
E | 100% Manageable
Question 4 of 12 (Marks: 1)
The landing gear extension checklist item is overlooked due to traffic communications at a
busy non controlled aerodrome. This omission itself is classed as:
A A type of skill based error
B  An undesired aircraft state
C  A misperception error
Question 5 of 12 (Marks: 1)
Which phase of flight is likely to contain the highest percentage of errors by flight crew? -
A [NAME] flight / taxi
B  Take off / climb
C  Cruise
D Descent / approach / landing
Question 6 of 12 (Marks: 1)
A pilot is distracted and enters an incorrect QNH and subsequently holds an incorrect
altitude. What is the “undesirable state?” -
A The original distraction
B  The QNH error
C  The incorrect altitude flown
Question 7 of 12 (Marks: 1)
During taxi out the pilot mishears the runway clearance from  TC as “24 LEFT” rather than
“24 right” this is a type of -
A Communication error
B  Undesired aircraft state
C  Decision error
D Perception error
Question 8 of 12 (Marks: 1)
While on approach ATC re-clear the flight direct to a waypoint on 10 mile final, missing out
an intermediate way point. The pilot flying does not increase the rate of decent to account
for the track shortening. This is an example of -
A A skill based error
B  An undesired aircraft state
C  Spatial disorientation
D A misconception error
Question 9 of 12 (Marks: 1)
The final landing flap selection checklist item is overlooked. This outcome is classed as -
A A type of skill based error
B  An undesired aircraft state
C  A misconception error
Question 10 of 12 (Marks: 1)
After landing the pilot retracts the landing gear instead of the flaps. This action constitutes a
A Skill based procedural error
B  [NAME] in visual scanning
C  Skill based inadvertent error
D Skill based checklist error
Question 11 of 12 (Marks: 1)
After takeoff the pilot flying (PF) of the two crew aircraft calls for gear up bu the pilot not
flying (PNF) retracts the flap instead which leads to the aircraft sinking below the desired
climb flight path. The initial cause/end result are best described as -
A A skill based error / unsafe aircraft state
B    decision based “wrong choice of action” error / unsafe aircraft state
C  A skill based procedural error/unusual attitude
D An unsafe supervision error by the PF/hazardous state
Question 12 of 12 (Marks: 1)
A checklist is what type of countermeasure -
A Planning
B  Review
C  Execution
D Team Based
Answers to Practice exam TEM:
1.   B
2.   C
3.   A
4.   A
5.   D
6.   C
7.   A
8.   A
9.   B
10. C
11. A
12. A