This article has some significant misunderstandings about how these things actually are. The only potential reason would be to mislead the reader because it surely does not educate when a significant portion of what's said is wrong in a way that a layperson wouldn't be able to tell.

Specifically, it acts as if this is business as usual when it is not. The debt to GDP, and inflation rates, are not correct. It makes no mention of the requirements imposed by Basel III which is what banks are being held to now.

There is no deposit requirements anymore. In 2020, they set this to 0 and haven't returned it. Boys and girls we no longer have a fractional banking system. Let that sink in for a moment.

Everything we know historically about banking and economic trends is largely based upon the banking system being a fractional banking system. You can't have a non-fractional banking system and claim its the same, or will operate remotely similar. Its unprecedented and was barely announced if you didn't follow all the metrics available through their site.

As they've redone their site again to hide stuff, here is the link for those that want to check it out themselves.

https://www.federalreserve.gov/monetarypolicy/reservereq.htm

Basel III sets up capital requirements but allows stock market capitalization to be counted against those requirements. Making any bank very susceptible to market attacks, synthetic shares can be indirectly created using the market maker as a patsy; just like commodities can be suppressed with net0 options contracts between colluding parties.

Worse, the banks have centralized to the point where if any of the big primary banks now fails, none of the others have the assets to take it over. Which means the next step is nationalization, or inflate the currency even more than is happening currently (as a bail-in).

Banks and other financial organizations don't have to disclose changes in the underlying assets (bonds specifically) when they intend to hold them to maturity. You've got funds holding 90%+ of 1.8% bonds whose value is significantly lower than actual market value (because interest rates went up how many times?). Value is worth approximately 1/3 when I last calculated, but the going market rate is well above that. For those that don't know, its the sum of all interest payments and principal discounting inflation above 2% up to present date as calculated in 1984, and adjusting for the difference of the current interest rate bond compared to the 1.8).

Not only that, it mistakes what really happened with Gamestop (a short squeeze, and market weighted index rebalancing) or the M2 triggered liquidity issues (in 2019) that prompted payouts to the general public amid the pandemic because the banks weren't lending due to liquidity.

https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/M2V

I seriously don't see much that is actually accurate in that post. Even the market growth part is misleading.

If you want a solid background on how these things work, read David Graeber ("Debt, The first 5,000 years") followed by the Economic calculation problem (essays). You run into the latter in non-market and market systems that deviate sufficiently from rational pricing.

Debt to GDP is well above 300% when you count all outstanding liabilities, the measure he references is what the government publishes but if you look at how they've changed that formula over time you'd see its just like inflation. Less about accuracy more about promoting a narrative.