Your comment doesn't reflect anything I wrote, nor does it even reflect the ideas underlying what I wrote.

So I'm still not clear what chain of reasoning you're using here.

I'll recap my statements to make sure I'm being clear.

You said:

>Your argument is that "Republican governors" could follow the processes of the government to somehow influence an election. I don't even think what you're describing is possible.

That's not my argument at all. Nor did I mention state governors (Republican or otherwise). Rather, I was referring to the 12th Amendment which states, in part:

"The person having the greatest number of votes for President, shall be the President, if such number be a majority of the whole number of Electors appointed; and if no person have such majority, then from the persons having the highest numbers not exceeding three on the list of those voted for as President, the House of Representatives shall choose immediately, by ballot, the President. But in choosing the President, the votes shall be taken by states, the representation from each state having one vote; a quorum for this purpose shall consist of a member or members from two-thirds of the states, and a majority of all the states shall be necessary to a choice."
[emphasis added]

As I stated in my initial comment, 26 states[2] had Republican majority delegations. Had the election gone to the House for resolution, it's likely that Trump would have been elected (Or maybe not, given the 10 Republican Representatives who voted to impeach Trump) by a vote of 26-23(or 24). Which, of course, would be in direct contravention of the November, 2020 election results.

That's to what I was referring in the comment[1] to which you originally replied. It's not clear to me how following the process set out in the 12th Amendment is akin (or even related, except that it concerned a Presidential election) to the events leading up to and including the 2000 Bush v. Gore decision.

As for the 2000 Presidential election, I'm not clear what you're getting at WRT to an "overthrow" of the government.

Since Marbury v. Madison[3] in 1803, it's been the case in the US that the US Supreme Court is the "supreme" court.

While there have been numerous (some of which you mention) "supremely" bad decisions by that court, and, in fact, as I stated in the second comment[4] to which you replied), I thought Bush v. Gore shouldn't have been decided by the US Supreme Court.

Whether you approve or disapprove specific Supreme Court decisions (I disagree with many myself, not least of which is the Dobbs decision BTW), that doesn't invalidate the decisions.

What's more, the results[4] of the Florida election, while having been reviewed repeatedly, show a really close election which could have gone either way, dependent on a multitude of factors.

All that said, for both elections, the circumstances and outcomes, while hotly debated, were certainly within constitutional bounds.

I still don't get the logical line of reasoning that takes you from the 12th amendment to the decision in Bush v. Gore. Primarily because you haven't provided one.

What's more, you seem to be ascribing a whole bunch of beliefs and attitudes to me which I do not hold.

[0] https://constitution.congress.gov/constitution/amendment-12/

[1] https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=32872345

[2] https://www.270towin.com/2020-house-election/state-by-state/...

[3] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marbury_v._Madison

[4] https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=32873337

[5] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/2000_United_States_presidentia...

Edit: Cleaned up my prose. Added the missing link, reordered references.